Mental Ability Test (MAT)

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FIITJEE COMMON TEST Batches: NWCMCF2024A1W,B1W,C1W,A1R, NWCMTH2124A1R,A1W, RMN2024-X_PT-5&1 PHASE Mental Ability Test (MAT) QP CODE: Time: 2 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 100 Please read the instructions carefully. INSTRUCTIONS A: General : 1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point pen. 2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited. 3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. 4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed. 5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately. 6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet. 7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work 8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme : 1. The question paper consists of 100 questions. 2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded. Enrollment No. : Batch : Name : Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:

Transcript of Mental Ability Test (MAT)

FIITJEE COMMON TEST Batches: NWCMCF2024A1W,B1W,C1W,A1R, NWCMTH2124A1R,A1W, RMN2024-X_PT-5&1

PHASE

Mental Ability Test (MAT) QP CODE:

Time: 2 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 100 Please read the instructions carefully.

INSTRUCTIONS

A: General :

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point

pen.

2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 of the Answer

Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

3. Darken the appropriate bubbles with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and

electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.

5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS) is provided separately.

6. Do not Tamper/mutilate the ORS or this booklet.

7. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work

8. On completion of this test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on

duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test

Booklet with them.

B: Questions paper format and Marking Scheme :

1. The question paper consists of 100 questions.

2. For each question you will be awarded 1 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the

correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened. No Negative Mark will be awarded.

Enrollment No. : Batch : Name :

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature:

MAT-2

Directions (Questions 1 – 6): In the following question a number series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series. 1. 49, 925, 2549, ?, 121169 (A) 64121 (B) 81121 (C) 100121 (D) 49121 2. 112 111 119 92 156 31 ? (A) 387 (B) 247 (C) 375 (D) 287 3. 1 4 27 256 3125 46656 ? (A) 705897 (B) 823543 (C) 279936 (D) 16807 4. 13 14 30 93 376 1885 ? (A) 11318 (B) 10316 (C) 10818 (D) 11316 5. 3 10 32 100 ? (A) 460 (B) 308 (C) 345 (D) None of these 6. 32 49 83 151 287 559 ? (A) 1120 (B) 1103 (C) 1118 (D) None of these Directions (Questions 7 – 10): In each of the following questions one term in the number series is wrong. Find out the wrong term. 7. 15 16 20 28 45 70 106 (A) 20 (B) 45 (C) 16 (D) 28 8. 0, 3, 12, 25, 48 (A) 48 (B) 25 (C) 3 (D) 12 9. 4 11 25 53 108 221 445 (A) 221 (B) 108 (C) 25 (D) 53 10. 5 7 11 19 36 67 131 (A) 7 (B) 11 (C) 131 (D) 36 Directions (Questions 11 - 20): Insert the missing character.

11.

1 2 3

11 7 5

120 45 ?

(A) 19 (B) 17 (C) 16 (D) 15

12.

5 26 1

9 84 3

11 ? 5

(A) 146 (B) 116 (C) 126 (D) 136

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13.

1 7 9

2 14 ?

3 105 117

(A) 26 (B) 16 (C) 22 (D) 12

14.

(A) 184 (B) 210 (C) 241 (D) 425

15.

(A) 6 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 18

16.

A

11

B

4 8

5

7

6 0 7

C

1

4 2

2

0

? 6

(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 11 (D) 12

17. A D G

D I N

K P ?

(A) V (B) U (C) X (D) Y 18.

A

4 9

6

B

9 16

12

C

16 ?

20

(A) 49 (B) 50 (C) 25 (D) 44

19.

1 3 5

5 12 15

25 48 ?

(A) 20 (B) 15 (C) 45 (D) 10

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20 6 18 15

3 2 5

4 3 ?

8 27 9

(A) 11 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) 2 21. In a certain code language, if the word STRUCTURE is coded as TVUYHZBZN, then how is the

word REMEDY coded in that language? (A) SGPIJE (B) SGPEJD (C) SGPIHE (D) SGPIIE 22. In a certain code language, if the word MAJESTY is coded as NZKDTSZ, then which word is

coded as HKJLQRF in that language? (A) GLORIFY (B) GLISTEN (C) GLOWING (D) GLIMPSE 23. If blue is called green, green is called black, black is called white, white is called red and red is

called brown, then which of the following is the colour of the ordinary post – box ? (A) Green (B) Red (C) White (D) Brown 24. If orange is called ghee, ghee is called soap, soap is called ink, ink is called honey, honey is

called orange, then which of the following is used for washing clothes? (1) Honey (B) Ghee (C) Soap (D) None of these 25. If in a certain language, ‘oka peru’ means ‘fine cloth’, ‘meta lisa’ means ‘clear water’ and ‘dona

lisa peru’ means ‘fine clear weather’, which word in that language means ‘weather’? (A) peru (B) oka (C) meta (D) dona 26. In a certain code TAP is coded as SZO, then how is FREEZE coded ? (A) EQDFYG (B) ESDFYF (C) GQFDYF (D) EQDDYD 27. In a certain code language, FORGE is written as FPTJI. How is CULPRIT written in that language (A) CSJNPGR (B) CVMQSTU (C) CVNSVNZ (D) CXOSULW 28. In a certain code, TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT, in the same code, how DULLARD is coded ? (A) FWMNCTF (B) FWNNBTE (C) FWNNCSF (D) FWNNCTF 29. By following a certain logic MTUXTRVN is written as NUVXTQUM. How is ASUMNJKL written in

that logic? (A) BTVMNIJK (B) BTVMNKLM (C) BTVNMIJK (D) ZRTMNIJK 30. In a certain code language 123 means ‘bright little boy’, 145 means ‘tall big boy’ and 637 means

‘beautiful little flower’. Which digit in that language means ‘bright’? (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) none of these 31. A person walks 4 km towards west, then turns to his right to travel 9 km. He turns towards east and

travels 12 km. Finally, he travels 3 km towards south. How far is he from the initial position (in km)? (A) 15 (B) 23 (C) 18 (D) 10 32. My dog Bunty, runs 30 m towards west, turns left and runs 10 m, then turns right, and runs 5 m,

then turns left and runs 2 m and again turns right, runs 12 m. Finally it turns left and runs 7 m. In which direction is it running now.

(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South

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33. One evening, Dileep was facing a tree. The shadow of the tree fell to his right. Which direction was he facing?

(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) South-east 34. One evening Dinesh and Swetha sat in a park such that their backs are towards each other. If

Dinesh’s shadow is falling to his left then which direction is Swetha facing? (A) North-east (B) North (C) East (D) South 35. A rat runs 20 m towards east and turns to right, runs 10 m and turns to right, runs 9 m and again

turns to left, runs 5 m and then turns to left, runs 12 m and finally turns to left and runs 6 m. Now which direction is the rat facing?

(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South 36. Vikas rode his bicycle northwards, then turned left and rode one km and again turned left and

rode 2 km. He found himself exactly one km west of his starting point. How far did he ride northwards initially?

(A) 1 km (B) 3 km (C) 5 km (D) 2 km 37. From his house, Lokesh went 15 km to the North. Then he turned west and covered 10 km. Then

he turned south and covered 5 km. Finally turning to the east, he covered 10 km. In which direction is he from his house?

(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South 38. P started from his house towards west. After walking a distance of 25 m. He turned to the right

and walked 10 m. He then again turned to the right and walked 15 m. After this he is to turn right at 135o and to cover 30 m. In which direction should he go?

(A) West (B) South (C) South-West (D) South-East 39. Rohit walked 25 m towards south. Then he turned to his left and walked 20 m. He then turned to

his left and walked 25 m. He again turned to his right and walked 15 m. At what distance is he from the starting point and in which direction?

(A) 35 m East (B) 35 m North (C) 30 m West (D) 45 m East 40. Radha moves towards South-East a distance of 7 km, then she moves towards West and travels

a distance of 14 km. From here she moves towards North-West a distance of 7 km and finally she moves a distance of 4 km towards east. How far is she now from the starting point?

(A) 3 km (B) 4 km (C) 10 km (D) 11 km 41. Pointing to Ketan, Namrata said, "He is the son of my father's only son." How is Ketan's mother

related to Namrata? (A) Daughter (B) Aunt (C) Sister (D) none of these 42. Pointing to a man on the stage, Rashi said, "He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my

husband." How is the man on the stage related to Rashi? (A) Son (B) Husband (C) Cousin (D) Nephew 43. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to

the woman? (A) Nephew (B) Son (C) Cousin (D) Uncle

MAT-6

44. Introducing a man, a woman said, "He is the only son of my mother's mother." How is the

woman related to the man ? (A) Mother (B) Aunt (C) Sister (D) Niece 45. Looking at a portrait of a man, Harsh said, "His mother is the wife of my father's son. Brothers

and Sisters I have none." At whose portrait was Harsh looking? (A) His son (B) His cousin (C) His uncle (D) His nephew 46. Pointing to a photograph Anjali said, "He is the son of the only son of my grandfather." How is the

man in the photograph related to Anjali? (A) Brother/Cousin (B) Uncle (C) Son (D) Data inadequate 47. Veena who is the sister-in-law of Ashok, is the daughter-in-law of Kalyani. Dheeraj is the father of

Sudeep who is the only brother of Ashok. How Kalyani is related to Ashok? (A) Mother-in-law (B) Aunt (C) Wife (D) None of these 48. If A + B means A is the mother of B; A – B means A is the brother of B; A % B means A is the

father of B and A x B means A is the sister of B, which of the following shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?

(A) Q – N + M x P (B) P + S x N – Q (C) P – M + N x Q (D) Q – S % P 49. If A+ B means A is the brother of B; A – B means A is the sister of B and A x B means A is the

father of B. Which of the following means that C is the son of M? (A) M – N x C + F (B) F –C + N x M (C) N + M – F x C (D) M x N – C + F 50. If A + B means A is the father of B; A – B means A is the brother of B; A % B means A is the wife

of B and A x B means A is the mother of B, which of the following shows that M is the maternal grandmother of T?

(A) M x N % S + T (B) M x N – S % T (C) M x S – N % T (D) M x N x S % T 51. How many such letters are there in the word ‘TIGER’ which remains same in its position, if the

letters are arranged in ascending order alphabetically? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three 52. If the first half of the alphabet series is written in the reverse order, which letter will be exactly at

the middle between the 9th letter from the left and the 10th letter from the right end? (A) B (B) A (C) N (D) D 53. Which letter will be 10th to the left of the 15th letter from the left end of the following sequence? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z (A) E (B) F (C) G (D) H 54. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SERVITUDE, each of which has as many

letters between them as in the English alphabet?

(A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) More than three

55. If a meaningful word can be formed by re-arranging the letters USCALA, the last letter of the

word so formed is the answer. Which one is that? (A) C (B) S (C) A (D) L

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56. In the following question, a group of letters is given which are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. Below are given four alternatives containing combinations of these numbers. Select that combination of numbers so that letters arranged accordingly form a meaningful word. A M D E N R

1 2 3 4 5 6 (A) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4, 6 (B) 6, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3 (C) 3, 4, 5, 2, 1, 6 (D) 1, 6, 2, 4, 5, 3 57. Which letter should be ninth letter to the left of ninth letter from the right, if the first half of the

given alphabet is reversed? (A) D (B) E (C) F (D) I 58. How many pairs of letters in the word BRIGHTER have as many letters between them in the

word as in the alphabet? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 59. In the word 'PARADISE', how many pairs of letters are there which have as many letters between

them in the word as in the alphabet? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three 60. In a certain code, POETRY is written as QONDSQX and OVER is written as PNUDQ. How is

MORE written in that code language? (A) LNNQD (B) NNNQD (C) NLNQD (D) NLPQD

61. A printer numbers the pages of a book starting with 1 and uses 3189 digits in all. How many pages does the book have?

(A) 1000 (B) 1074 (C) 1075 (D) 1080 62. A motorist knows four different routes from Kota to Jaipur. From Jaipur to Delhi he knows three

different routes and Delhi to Ranchi he knows two different routes. How many routes does he know from Kota to Ranchi?

(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 24 63. An enterprising businessman earns an income of Rs.1 on the first day of his business. On every

subsequent day, he earns an income which is just double of that made on the previous day. On the 10th day of business, his income is:

(A) Rs.29 (B) 210 (C) Rs.10 (D) Rs.102d 64. A girl counted in the following way on the fingers of hr left hand: She started by calling the thumb

1, the index finger 2, middle finger 3, ring finger 4, little finger 5 and then reversed direction calling the ring finger 6, middle finger 7 and so on. She counted upto 1994. She ended counting on which finger?

(A) Thumb (B) Index finger (C) Middle finger (D) Ring finger 65. A monkey climbs 30 feets at the beginning of each hour and rests for while when he slips back

20 feet before he again starts climbing in the beginning of the next hour. If he begins his ascent at 8:00 a.m., at what time will he fist touch a flag at 120 feet from the ground?

(A) 4 P.M. (B) 5 P.M. (C) 6 P.M. (D) None of these

MAT-8

66. In a certain code, CAT is written as SATC and DEAR is written as SEARD. How would SING be

written in that code? (A) BGINS (B) SGNIS (C) SINGS (D) GNISS

67. If 100 cats kill 100 mice in 100 days, then 4 cats would kill 4 mice in how many days? (A) 1 day (B) 4 days (C) 40 days (D) 100 days 68. On Children’s Day, sweets were to be equally distributed among 175 children in a school.

Actually on Children’s Day, 35 children were absent and therefore each child got 4 sweets extra. Total how many sweets were available for distribution?

(A) 2400 (B) 2480 (C) 2680 (D) 2800 69. In a certain code language, CREATIVE is written as BDSBFUJS. How is TRIANGLE written in

that code? (A) BHSSFKHM (B) BHSSMHHF (C) BSHSFHKM (D) BSSHFMKH

70. At a dinner party every two guests used a bowl of rice between them, every three guests used a

bowl of dal between them and every four used a bowl of meat between them. There were altogether 65 dishes. How many guests were present at the party?

(A) 60 (B) 65 (C) 90 (D) 10 71. A train covers a distance of 10 km in 12 minutes. If its speed is decrease by 5 km/hr the time

taken (approx) by it to cover the same distance will be: (A) 10 min (B) 11 min 20 sec (C) 13 min (D) 13 min 20 sec 72. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km more. The actual

distance travelled by him is: (A) 50 km (B) 56 km (C) 70 km (D) 80 km

73. A man performs 3

5of total journey by rail,

7

20by bus and the remaining 6.5 km. on foot. His total

journey is: (A) 65 km (B) 100 km (C) 120 km (D) 130 km 74. A train starts from a place A at 6 a.m. and arrives at another place B at 4.30 p.m. on the

same day. If the speed of the train is 40 km per hour, find the distance travelled by the train? (a) 320 km (b) 230 km (c) 420 km (d) 400 km

75. The speed of a boat along the stream is 12 km/hr and against the stream is 8 km/hr. The

time taken by the boat to sail 26 km in still water is (a) 2 hrs (b) 3 hrs (c) 2.6hrs (d) 1.2 hrs

76. A man leaves P and reaches Q in 3 hours at an average speed of 60 kmph. What is the distance

from P to Q? (A) 240 km (B) 150 km (C) 300 km (D) 180 km 77. A train of length 300 m travels at a speed of 36 kmph. In how many seconds does it cross a Bridge of length 700 m? (A) 100 seconds (B) 300 seconds (C) 70 seconds (D) 200 seconds

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78. P and Q are 300 km apart. At 8:00 a.m., buses X and Y left P and Q simultaneously for Q and P respectively. If the speeds of buses X and Y are 40 kmph and 60 kmph respectively, when do they meet?

(A) 10:00 a.m. (B) 11:00 a.m. (C) 12:00 a.m. (D) 10:30 p.m. 79. A left P for Q at 9:00 a.m. and B left P for Q at 10:00 a.m. If the speeds of A and B are 60 kmph

and 80 kmph respectively, at what time do they meet, given that P and Q are 1000 km apart? (A) 12:00 noon (B) 1:00 p.m. (C) 2:00 p.m. (D) 12:30 p.m. 80. A person travelled from Hyderabad to Mahabubnagar at an average speed of 30 kmph and then

came back to Hyderabad at an average speed of 90 kmph along the same route. What is the average speed for the entire journey?

(A) 75 kmph (B) 60 kmph (C) 45 kmph (D) Cannot be determined 81. 4 men can complete a piece of work in 4 days working 4 hours a day. In how many hours can

eight men complete the same work working 8 hours a day? (A) 1/2 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 1 82. A can complete a piece of work in 12 days. B can complete the same work in 20 days. They work

together and complete the work in 4 days with the help of C. If they earn Rs 3, 000. What is the share of A?

(A) Rs 800 (B) Rs 1, 000 (C) Rs 1,200 (D) Rs 1, 500 83. The ratio of efficiencies of A, B and C is 3 : 4 : 6. If they completed a piece of work working

together, what fraction of the work was done by A? (A) 4/9 (B) 1/3 (C) 3/13 (D) 2/13 84. For how many days will 60 kg. of ration it be sufficient for a family of 8 members if each member consumes 1.5 kg of ratio per day? (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 4 85. If A is 20% more efficient than B, then what is the ratio of work done by A and B in one hour? (A) 5 : 6 (B) 6 : 5

(C) 12 : 1 (D) Cannot be determined 86. 9 men finish one – third work in 10 days. The number of additional men required for finishing the

remaining work in 2 more days will be: (A) 78 (B) 81 (C) 55 (D) 30 87. If 10 persons can do a job in 20 days. Then 20 persons with the twice efficiency can do the same

job in: (A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 5 (D) 15 88. Rani and Sneh working separately can finish a job in 8 and 12 hours respectively. If they work for

an hour alternately, Rani beginning at 9.00 am. When will the job be finished? (A) 7:30 pm (B) 7:00 pm (C) 6:30 pm (D) 6:00 pm

MAT-10

89. 24 men complete a given job in 40 days. The number of men required to complete the job in 32

days is: (A) 32 men (B) 30 men (C) 35 men (D) 36 men 90. A can do a job in 6 days and A and B can do it together in 2 days. How many days will be taken

by B to do the job alone? (A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 3 91. The average age of numbers is 41. If two third of the numbers are increased by 9 and the

remaining are decreased by 6, find the new average. (A) 36 (B) 39 (C) 42 (D) 45 92. The average age of 25 students in a class 14 years. 5 new student with an average age 14.6

years join this class. What is the average age of 30 students in the class? (A) 14.1 yrs (B) 16.5 yrs

(C) 17.1 yrs (D) 19 yrs 93. The average of a sequence of 6 consecutive integers is n. Find the average of the next 8

consecutive integers. (A) n 10+ (B) n 7+

(C) n 14+ (D) n 2+ 94. Which of the following is the average of 21, 25, 31, 39? (A) 19 (B) 29 (C) 39 (D) 49 95. There are 11 numbers written, in increasing order. The average of the first 6 numbers is 40. The

average of the last six numbers is 50. Find the average of the 11 numbers if the 6th number is 45. (A) 41 (B) 42 (C) 46 (D) 45 96. The average age of a group of men is 20 years. If two men aged 22 years and 28 years are

added to the group, the average age of the group increases by a prime number. Find the number of men in the group in the beginning.

(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 5 97. The average of 50 numbers is 30. If two numbers are, 35 and 40 then the average of the

remaining numbers is: (A) 28.32 (B) 29.68 (C) 28.78 (D) 29.27 98. The average score of a cricketer for ten matches is 38.9 runs. If the average for the first six

matches is 42, then find the average for the last four matches. (A) 33.25 (B) 33.5 (C) 34.25 (D) 35 99. The average of two numbers is M. If one is N, then the other number is: (A) M + N (B) 2M – N (C) 4 MN (D) 6M

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100. The average of three numbers is 20. If two numbers are 16 and 22 the third number is: (A) 22 (B) 37 (C) 83 (D) 121

MAT-12

AAANNNSSSWWWEEERRRSSS

1. D 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. B 9. B 10. D 11. C 12. C 13. D 14. A 15. B 16. C 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. C 21. D 22. D 23. D 24. D 25. D 26. D 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. D 31. D 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. C 36. D 37. C 38. C 39. A 40. C 41. D 42. A 43. C 44. D 45. A 46. A 47. D 48. C 49. D 50. A 51. A 52. B 53. A 54. D 55. D 56. B

57. B 58. C 59. D 60. C 61. B 62. D 63. A 64. B 65. C 66. C 67. D 68. D 69. A 70. A 71. D 72. A 73. D 74. C 75. C 76. D 77. A 78. B 79. B 80. C 81. D 82. B 83. C 84. A 85. B 86. B 87. C 88. C 89. B 90. D 91. D 92. A 93. B 94. B 95. D 96. B 97. B 98. C 99. B 100. A

NWUT113B01(R)-(MAT)-13

HHHIIINNNTTTSSS &&& SSSOOOLLLUUUTTTIIIOOONNNSSS

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS