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DIWAKAR EDUCATION HUB

PEOPLE ,ENVIRONMENT &DEVELOPMENT

May 10

2019 AS PER NEW UPDATED SYLLABUS OF PAPER-1 FOR UGC-NET EXAM PAPER-1

COPYRIGHTS - DIWAKAR EDUCATION HUB

Environment, Development and Sustainability We all have learnt about the ill effects of Environment degradation in our lives.

But have you ever considered the economic cost of environmental degradation? or

the economic benefits of Sustainable Development? Let us educate ourselves

about concepts.

This lesson breaks down the meaning and functions of the environment in the

context of economic growth. The idea of environmental degradation, its causes

and impacts are highlighted. The concluding section of the lesson introduces the

concept of sustainable development as introduced in the Brundtland Report of

1987 and explains the way forward to save the environment.

Economics and the Environment

Achieving economic development is vital to a country. But what if it comes at the

cost of environmental degradation? With globalization opening the doors of

economic development for so many countries, there is a serious concern regarding

how far we are being able to save the environment and not hamper its

constituents.

To understand the impact of economic growth and development on the

environment, we need to be aware of the concept of sustainable development as

an alternative solution.

Environment: Meaning and Functions

The ‘environment’ refers to the totality of resources and the total planetary

inheritance we have received. It includes biotic (animals, plants, birds, etc.)

and abiotic (sun, land, water, mountains, etc.) components. It explains the inter-

relationship that exists between the abiotic and biotic components.

The environment performs four crucial functions:

1. Supplying Resources: The environment contains both renewable (air, water, land) and non-renewable (fossil fuels) resources. While the former are re-usable and do not get depleted soon, non-renewable resources come with the fear of depletion.


2. Assimilating Waste: Economic activities generate waste which the environment absorbs through natural processes.

3. Sustenance of Life: The environment comprises abiotic components that aid the living of biotic components. In the absence of elements such as air, water, land, etc. there would be no life on the planet.

4. Aesthetic Value: The environment adds aesthetic value to life. The mountains, oceans, seas, landmasses and other scenery of the environment enhance the quality of life.

Environmental Degradation

Economic activities such as production and consumption have led to

environmental degradation over the last few years. This is recognizable from the

fact that there is a certain carrying capacity of the environment. When the rate of

extraction of resources exceeds the rate of their regeneration, the environment

fails to perform its activities. The resulting phenomenon is called environmental

degradation.

Resources are limited and therefore, their overutilization is leading to their

extinction. The waste generated is also exceeding the absorptive capacity of the

environment.

Source: Hindustan Times

Rivers and other waterways are getting increasingly polluted due to the excessive

dumping of wastes into them. This has led to poor water quality for consumption.

The rate of use of non-renewable resources has not only depleted their limited

reserves but also led to pollution tendencies.

The increasing emphasis is therefore on renewable sources or on devising other

sources of generating energy. Different kinds of pollution have harmed the

environment as well as man’s well-being. Air and water pollution particularly

contribute to air and water-borne diseases and ill-health. Ozone layer depletion

and global warming are other severe problems resulting from such degradation.


Global Environmental Crisis

Environmental degradation can be broken down into particular problems that

plague the global community, as under:

Global Warming

It refers to the gradual increase in the lower atmosphere of the Earth. The main

cause of global warming is recognized to be the release of greenhouse gases like

carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. These gases can absorb heat and thus,

contribute to global warming. Other causes are deforestation and burning of fossil

fuels like coal and petroleum. Global warming has led to melting of polar ice caps

and an average increase in temperatures all over.

Source: Google images

Ozone Layer Depletion

It is the phenomenon of depletion in the amount of ozone in Earth’s stratosphere.

The main cause of ozone depletion is through the release of substances called

chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) into the atmosphere. These are compounds include

chlorine, bromine compounds that are used as cooling substances in air

conditioners, refrigerators, etc.

Ozone layer depletion implies that the Earth gets more and more exposed to the

ultraviolet rays of the sun. These rays are excessively harmful to human health

and are known to cause skin cancer to human beings. They also affect the growth

of aquatic and terrestrial plants.


Measures to Save the Environment

Concerted efforts are required to deal with the global environmental crisis. The

concept of sustainable development, thereby, comes into play. Some of the

measures that can be undertaken to control the crisis that already underway

includes:

Pollution Control: Air, water, noise, soil are some of the major forms of pollution plaguing the environment today. Pollution control boards can be set up or regulatory standards must be enforced to keep pollution within lowest levels.

Forest Conservation: Increased industrialization has come at the cost of deforestation. The implication of forests being cut down is that the ecology is significantly affected. Afforestation measures need to be taken and forest conservation regulations must be seriously implemented.

Social Awareness: Until people are made aware of the graveness of the situation, the problem of environmental degradation cannot be dealt with. Creating awareness through campaigns and movements can help avert the problem of the ongoing environmental crisis.

Waste Management: Solid waste management must be carefully managed in urban areas. Rural waste has the potential of being used as natural manure by

converting it into compost.

Water Management: Rainwater harvesting and conservation of water can help with the long-term potent problem of scarcity of water.

Implementation of Policy Programmes: Enactment of environment-centric acts and policies is not enough. Their effective implementation and careful observation are what will actually make a difference to environmental conservation efforts.

Sustainable Development: Meaning and Features

The idea of environmental conservation gains real momentum if we are able to

conserve resources and use them in a manner that they are sufficiently available

for the coming generation as well. The United Nations Conference on

Environment and Development (UNCED) defines this using the concept

of sustainable development. It explains sustainable development as a process

that provides for the present generation without compromising on the needs of the

future generations.

Sustainable development has gained momentum as a larger movement over the

years. We now associate it with improving living standards, poverty alleviation,


nutritional improvements, minimizing social and cultural instability and resource

depletion.

The Brundtland Commission lays emphasis on the idea of passing on an

environment with enough and good-quality resources to the future generation, just

as we have bequeathed from our previous generations.

The features of sustainable development include a sustained rise in per capita

income (PCI) worldwide, rational usage of resources, pollution checks, population

control and relative dependence on renewable sources of energy to meet future

generations’ needs.

The Way Forward with Sustainable Development

The planet must shift to renewable sources of energy as compared to the regular

thermal or hydropower plants that lead to climatic degradation. Solar energy is an

effective alternative that we can harness using photovoltaic cells. It is less costly

and environmentally friendly.

A shift to wind energy is also an option. Setting up windmills in areas with high-

speed wind can help convert the natural resource into electricity for commercial or

household usage. Another effective solution can come through the use of natural

manure or bio-compost as a substitute for chemical fertilizers. This helps avert soil

erosion and soil pollution. Subsidized LPG as a fuel in rural areas and CNG as a

fuel for vehicles in urban areas could lead the way forward.

The rest of the change can come majorly through increased awareness and

consciousness. Only when the gravity of the situation and a moral responsibility

towards forthcoming generations is realized can we pass on a healthy environment

to them.

Solved Example for You

Question: Classify the following as renewable or non-renewable resources: trees,

fish, petroleum, coal, water, and iron-ore.

Answer: Trees, fish, and water are reusable and come without any fear of

depletion. These are renewable resources. Petroleum, coal, and iron-ore are

limited and come with the fear of getting depleted. They are classified as non-

renewable resources.


Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) to Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): Addressing Unfinished Agenda and Strengthening Sustainable Development and Partnership

Introduction

International development agenda has been actively led by the United Nations (UN) and its technical agencies

and funds from their inception in the late 1940s. Till 1990s, the approach was fragmented and disjointed

initiated by its specialized agencies or funds at various World Summits and Conferences to address three

dimensions of development — economic, social, and environmental. The Millennium Declaration and

Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) saw the convergence of development agenda of United Nations

Development Programme (UNDP); United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP); World health organization (WHO); United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF); United Nations Educational, Scientific and

Cultural Organization (UNESCO); and other development agencies.(1) Recently adopted Sustainable

Development Goals (SDGs) reflect further strengthening convergence of the development agenda. The SDGs also strengthen equity, human rights, and non discrimination.

Go to:

Progress in MDGs and Build Up to SDGs

The MDGs generated new and innovative partnerships, galvanized public opinion, and showed the immense

value of setting ambitious goals. By putting people and their immediate needs at the forefront, the MDGs

reshaped decision-making in the developed and developing countries alike. It helped to lift more than one billion

people out of extreme poverty, to make inroads against hunger, to enable more girls than ever before to attend

school, and to protect our planet. Yet inequalities persist and the progress has been uneven. The world's poor

remain overwhelmingly concentrated in some parts of the world. Several women continue to die during

pregnancy or from childbirth-related complications. Progress tends to bypass women and those who are lowest

on the economic ladder or are disadvantaged because of their age, disability, or ethnicity. Disparities between rural and urban areas remain pronounced.(2)

India has made a substantial improvement in MDGs but the progress is mixed. The under-five mortality rate

(U5MR) has come down from 126 (1990) to estimated 48 not reaching the target of 42 by 2015. However, the

estimated child deaths have come down from 3.36 million (1990) to 1.2 million (2015) that translates to 3,300

child lives saved every day! U5MR in India is still above the world average (43), and is higher compared to Sri

Lanka (10), Nepal (36), and Bangladesh (38). Infant mortality and neonatal mortality rates have come down to

38 (target 27) and 28 from 88 and 57, respectively.(3) India achieved a maternal mortality rate (MMR) of 167

(2011-2013) and expected to reach 140 in 2015 down from 437 in 1990, which is well above the target of

109.(4) If we go by the latest UN estimates of MMR of 560 in 1990,(5) the target should be 140 and India is on track to achieve this target. The target of safe drinking water has been achieved in rural areas and is likely to be

achieved in the urban areas as well. The target of sanitation is likely to be achieved in urban areas and missed in rural areas.(5)

The SDGs and Targets

To create a new, people-centered, development agenda, a series of global consultations were conducted both

online and offline. Civil society organizations, citizens, scientists, academics, and the private sectors from

around the world were all actively engaged in the process. The SDGs include 17 goals and 169 targets.(6) Indicators are expected to come out in March 2016. The 17 goals in abridged form are as follows:

1. No poverty;

2. Zero hunger;

3. Good health and well-being;

4. Quality education;

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4746946/#ref1

https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4746946/








5. Gender equality;

6. Clean water and sanitation;

7. Affordable and clean energy;

8. Decent work and economic growth;

9. Industry, innovation, and infrastructure;

10. Reduce inequality;

11. Sustainable cities and communities;

12. Responsible consumption and production;

13. Climate action;

14. Life under water;

15. Life on land;

16. Peace, justice, and strong institutions; and

17. Partnership for the goals.

The targets are aspirational and global and that each government will set its own national targets taking into account the national circumstances.

The SDGs can be broadly divided into three categories: First, an extension of MDGs that includes the first seven

SDGs; second group is inclusiveness (jobs, infrastructure, industrialization, and distribution). It includes goals 8,

9, and 10; and the third group is on sustainability and urbanization that covers the last seven goals: sustainable

cities and communities, life below water “consumption and production; climate action; resources and environment; peace and justice; and the means of implementation and global partnership for it”.

Health goal

The third SDG — “ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages” — is wider-ranging

compared to the health goals in MDGs that were limited to child and maternal mortality and communicable

diseases. The social determinants of health though not spelled as such but are addressed through Goals 1

(poverty), 2 (hunger), 4 (education), 5 (gender equality), 6 (clean water and sanitation), 7 (affordable and clean

energy), 8 (decent work and economic growth), 9 (industry innovation and infrastructure), 10 (reduced

inequalities), 11 (sustainable cities and communities), 12 (responsible consumption and production), 13 (climate action), and 16 (peace, justice and strong Institutions).

Health targets

The health goal has nine targets and four subpoints.(6) The first three targets are continuation of MDGs, the next

three are on no communicable disease (NCD), and the last three are mixed. Nine health targets and four sub-points are as follows:

1. Reduce the global maternal mortality ratio to below 70/100,000.

2. Reduce neonatal mortality to below 12/1,000 and U5MR to below 25/1,000.

3. End the epidemics of AIDS, tuberculosis, malaria, and neglected tropical diseases and combat hepatitis, water-borne diseases, and other communicable diseases.

4. Reduce by one-third premature mortality from noncommunicable diseases.

5. Strengthen the prevention and treatment of substance abuse.

6. Halve the number of global deaths and injuries from road traffic accidents (by 2020).

7. Ensure universal access to sexual and reproductive health-care services.



8. Achieve universal health coverage.

9. Reduce the number of deaths and illnesses from hazardous chemicals and air, water, and soil pollution and contamination.

Four subpoints are:

a. Strengthen the implementation of the WHO Framework Convention on Tobacco Control.

b. Support the research and development of vaccines and medicines.

c. Substantially increase health financing and the recruitment, development, training, and retention of the health workforce.

d. Strengthen early warning, risk reduction, and management of health risks.

Difference Between SDGs and MDGs

SDGs benefit from the valuable lessons learned from MDGs. These also carry forward the unfinished agenda of

MDGs for continuity and sustain the momentum generated while addressing the additional challenges of

inclusiveness, equity, and urbanization and further strengthening global partnership by including CSOs and

private sector. They reflect continuity and consolidation of MDGs while making these more sustainable by strengthening environmental goals.

There are seven major differences in MDGs and SDGs;

1. MDGs were drawn up by a group of experts in the ‘basement of UN headquarters’ whereas SDGs have

evolved after a long and extensive consultative process including 70 Open Working Groups, Civil

Society Organizations, thematic consultations, country consultations, participation of general public through face-to-face meetings and online mechanisms and door to door survey;

2. While MDGs were focused with only 8 goals, 21 targets and 63 indicators, SDGs include 17 goals with

169 targets. An expert analyses by noble laureates at Copenhagen consensus, suggest that if the UN

concentrates on 19 top targets, it can get $20 to $40 in social benefits per dollar spent, while allocating

it evenly across all 169 targets would reduce the figure to less than $10. Being smart about spending could be better than doubling or quadrupling the aid budget;(7)

3. MDGs had a focus on developing countries with funding came from rich countries. All countries, developed or developing, are expected to work towards achieving SDGs;

4. The pillars of human development, human rights and equity are deeply rooted in SDGs and several

targets seven explicitly refer to people with disabilities, six to people in vulnerable situations, and two to non-discrimination. These were not even mentioned in the MDGs; (iv) MDGs had 3 direct health

goals, 4 targets and 15 indicators with emphasis on child, maternal mortality and communicable

diseases. SDGs have one comprehensive goal emphasizing well-being and healthy living including NCDs;

5. MDGs had a time span of 25 years though adopted in 2002 baseline data for the year 1990 was used

and some of the baselines were revised subsequently which shifted ‘the goal post’. For the SDGs, the baseline is from 2015 estimates. It may be revised as more recent data becomes available;

6. SDGs include a vision of building vibrant and systematic partnerships with private sector to achieve

sustainable development. It builds on, UN Compact which was launched in year 2000 and IMPACT 2030;

7. MDGs had no concrete role for the Civil Society Organizations (CSOs), whereas SDGs have paid attention to this right from the framing stage itself with significant engagement of civil society actors.

Human-Environmental Interactions



Human Environmental Interactions can be defined as interactions between the human social system and (the “rest” of) the ecosystem. Human social systems and ecosystems are complex adaptive systems (Marten, 2001). Complex because ecosystems and human social systems have many parts and many connections between these parts. Adaptive because they have feedback structures that promote survival in a constantly changing environment.

Human social system

In order to analyse Human Environmental Interactions it is important to be aware of specific characteristics of the human social system. The type of society strongly influences peoples attitude towards nature, their behaviour and therefore their impact on ecosystems. Important characteristics of human social systems are population size, social organization, values, technology, wealth, education, knowledge and many more. Especially values and knowledge strongly influence peoples “view of life” and consequently define the way people act. The choice of possible actions is then limited by the available technology.

People modify the environment for their purposes and obtain benefits (Ecosystem Services) from it. These Ecosystem Services are essential for human well-being and include for example the provision of resources like water, timber, food, energy, information, land for farming and many more. Obviously by using these resources people affect the environment in a lot of ways. Furthermore people often reorganize existing ecosystems to achieve new ones that seem to be more effective in serving their needs.


The Millenium Ecosystem Assessment (MA) analysed how Ecosystem Services and constituents of human well-being are interlinked. The MA research programme was launched with support from the United Nations in 2001.

Coevolution and Coadaptation

The terms coevolution and coadaptation describe the never-ending process of mutual adjustment and change between human social systems and the environment. Peoples actions have consequences on the environment. But also the environment influences human activities. Human social systems have to adapt to their specific environment. Natural phenomena like storms, earthquakes force people to react. These natural phenomena can either be directly or not primarily caused by human actions and again influence human behaviour as people have to respond to a new situation.

Drivers-Pressures-State-Impact-Response

The Drivers-Pressures-State-Impact-Response (DPSIR) model was originally developed by the European Environmental Agency (EEA) and is used to assess and manage environmental problems. Many national and European institutions adopted this conceptual framework. It identifies the various causal chains of links between human activities and environmental degradation. The model distinguishes several categories of


indicators in order to explain how the state of the environment is changed due to human activities. Human activities increase or mitigate pressure on the environment. The driving forces which initiate human activities are mainly socio-economic and socio-cultural forces.

The following graphic explains the DPSIR process:

10 Ways Humans Impact the Environment

1. Overpopulation

Survival used to mean repopulating. That, however, is quickly becoming true for the opposite as we reach

the maximum carrying capacity that our planet can sustain.

http://www.livescience.com/16493-people-planet-earth-support.html


Overpopulation has grown into an epidemic since mortality rates have decreased, medicine has improved,

and methods of industrial farming were introduced, thus keeping humans alive for much longer and

increasing the total population.

The effects of overpopulation are quite severe, with one of the most severe being the degradation of the

environment.

ARCHITECTURE

Using Smart Cities to Accommodate Overpopulation Effects

Humans require space, and lots of it whether it is for farmland, or industries which also takes up tons of

space. An increased population results in more clear-cutting, resulting in severely damaged ecosystems.

Without enough trees to filter the air, CO₂ levels increase which carries the potential to damage every

single organism on Earth.

Another issue is our dependency on coal and fossil fuels for energy, the larger the population, the more

fossil fuels will be used. The use of fossil fuels (such as oil and coal) results in copious amounts of carbon

dioxide into the air- threatening the extinction of thousands of species which adds to the effect that forest

depletion already has.

Humanity continuously requires more space, which devastates ecosystems and increases CO₂ levels,

further devastating the delicate environment. Although processed materials are necessary to power the

cities, the previous assessment tells us that the planet can only sustain so much damage until it will begin

to damage us.

https://interestingengineering.com/architecture

https://interestingengineering.com/using-smart-cities-to-accommodate-overpopulation-effects

http://earthroots.org/index.php/clearcutting-item

http://www.nrcresearchpress.com/doi/abs/10.1139/a93-010#.VwfKfJwrK1s

http://www.carboncalculator.co.uk/effects.php

http://www.carboncalculator.co.uk/effects.php

http://www.worldwildlife.org/threats/pollution

https://www.niehs.nih.gov/health/materials/climate_change_and_human_health_508.pdf

https://interestingengineering.com/using-smart-cities-to-accommodate-overpopulation-effects


2. Pollution

Pollution is everywhere. From the trash thrown out on the freeway, to the millions of metric tons of

pollution pumped into the atmosphere every year- it's obvious, pollution and waste are inescapable.

Pollution is so bad that to date, 2.4 billion people do not have access to clean watersources. Humanity is

continuously polluting indispensable resources like air, water, and soil which requires millions of years to

replenish.

Air is arguably the most polluted with the US producing 147 million metric tons of air pollution each year

alone.

In 1950, smog was so bad in LA that the ground level ozone (atmospheric gas that is great in the

atmosphere, not so much on the ground) surpassed 500 parts per billion volume (ppbv)- well above the

National Ambient Air Quality Standard of 75 ppbv (6.6 times more to be precise).

People thought they were under foreign attack as the smog burned their eyes and left an odor of bleach in

the air. That is when the devastating effect of aerosols was discovered.

While air quality in the US has slightly improved, the quality in developing countries continues to

plummet as smog continuously blocks out the sun in a dense shroud of pollution. This is just one of the

issues we have to tackle in near future.

http://www.worldwildlife.org/threats/pollution

https://interestingengineering.com/5-well-engineered-water-purification-systems-combating-the-global-water-crisis

http://climate.nasa.gov/news/2263/


3. Global Warming

Global warming is arguably the greatest cause of impact to the environment. The largest of causes

emanating through CO₂ levels from respiration to more detrimental causes like burning fossil fuels and

deforestation.

At any rate, humans are consistently increasing CO₂ levels globally- every year. The highest level of CO₂

in recorded history before 1950 was about 300 parts per million. However, current measurements of CO₂

levels have exceeded above 400 PPM, abolishing every record dating back 400,000 years.

The increase of CO₂ emissions has contributed to the planet's average temperature increasing almost a

whole degree.

As the Temperature increases, arctic land ice and glaciers melt which causes the ocean levels to rise at a

rate of 3.42mm per year, allowing more water to absorb more heat, which melts more ice, creating

a positive feedback loop which will cause the oceans to rise 1-4 feet by 2100.

So what's the big deal?

http://climate.nasa.gov/vital-signs/carbon-dioxide/



http://climate.nasa.gov/vital-signs/global-temperature/

http://climate.nasa.gov/vital-signs/sea-level/

http://serc.carleton.edu/introgeo/models/loops.html

http://climate.nasa.gov/effects/


4. Climate Change

Climate change is closely connected to historical developement of industry and technology. As global

temperatures increase, Earth's weather patterns will drastically change. While some areas will experience

longer growing seasons, others will become barren wastelands as water will deplete in vast areas, turning

once floral regions into deserts.

The increase will impact weather patterns, promising more intense hurricanes in both size and frequency,

as well as intensifying and prolonging droughts and heat waves. But air pollution does not just affect the

environment.

The evidence is mounting that poor air quality and rising temperatures are ruiningdelicate ecosystems,

even leading to increased asthma and cancer rates in humans.

http://earthobservatory.nasa.gov/Features/GlobalWarming/page6.php

http://earthobservatory.nasa.gov/Features/GlobalWarming/page6.php


5. Genetic Modification

Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) have been a major contributor to the survival and prosperity of

humans. GMO's are selected bred crops or crops that have had DNA directly implanted into it in order to

give an advantage to the crop, whether that be to sustain colder temperatures, require less water, or yield

more product.

But GMO's are not always intentional. For years humans have used glyphosate, a herbicide designed to

eliminate weeds - the biggest threat to any plant. However, just as humans have a learning immune system,

certain weeds have developed a resistance to 22 of 25 known herbicides, with 249 species of weeds

completely immune according to the latest scientific report.

"Super weeds" threaten farming lands by chocking outcrops. One of the only solutions is to till the land,

turning over the soil to kill the weeds and give an early advantage to the planted crops.

The disadvantage of tilling, however, is that it causes the soil to dry faster and kills off good bacteria,

making its fertile lifespan significantly shorter. To replenish the depleted soil, fertilizer is used, which

introduces a whole new set of problems to the environment and can be disastrous for local agriculture in

the long run.

http://npic.orst.edu/factsheets/glyphogen.html

http://weedscience.org/

http://www.foodandwaterwatch.org/insight/superweeds


6. Ocean Acidification

Ocean acidification is caused when CO₂ dissolves into the ocean bonding with sea water creating carbonic

acid. The acid reduces the pH levels in the water, essentially changing the Ocean acidity by 30% in the last

200 years according to analysis - a level that the ocean has not been at in over 20 million years.

The acidity depletes the calcium concentrations, making it difficult for crustaceans to build their shell,

leaving them vulnerable without their armor. Between the global temperature rise of one degree and the

ocean acidification, scientists say a quarter of all coral reefs are considered damaged beyond repair, with

two-thirds under serious threat.

Coral reefs are home to 25% of aquatic life, many of which are responsible for the natural filtration of the

ocean and production of necessary nutrients that are vital for life under the sea. However, acidification is

not the only watery threat as there are other human activities causing severe changes.

http://www.gbrmpa.gov.au/managing-the-reef/threats-to-the-reef/climate-change/how-climate-change-can-affect-the-reef/ocean-acidification

http://wwf.panda.org/about_our_earth/blue_planet/coasts/coral_reefs/coral_threats/

http://wwf.panda.org/about_our_earth/blue_planet/coasts/coral_reefs/

http://www.advancedaquarist.com/2006/4/lines


7. Water Pollution

Every year over 8 millions tons of garbage dumped into the ocean. Not only is garbage introduced into the

oceans, but also the excessive amounts of fertilizer that finds its way into the ocean through rains, floods,

winds, or dumped in excess right into the largest producer of oxygen we have.

Fertilizer contains nitrogen, an element essential for the growth of plants- but that does not limit it to what

it was intended for.

http://news.nationalgeographic.com/news/2015/02/150212-ocean-debris-plastic-garbage-patches-science/

http://news.nationalgeographic.com/news/2004/06/0607_040607_phytoplankton.html


Phytoplankton and algae thrive off of nitrogen, causing excessive growth in what is known as "red tides"

or "brown tides" in areas with high concentrations of nitrogen. The brown tide is caused by the rapid

growth of billions of algae, which deplete water bodies of oxygen and cause poison to accumulate in all

life that consumes it, including fish and birds. But water pollution does not end there.

Year after year, millions of tons of garbage is dumped into the ocean. Since the garbage mainly consists of

plastics, it is largely indissoluble. The garbage accumulates in large vortexes across the ocean.

http://serc.carleton.edu/microbelife/topics/redtide/index.html

http://serc.carleton.edu/microbelife/topics/redtide/index.html


Marine life, including the loggerhead sea turtles, are tricked into thinking they are eating food when really

it is only a floating plastic bag or other poisonous plastic that will cause starvation or suffocation to any

unfortunate animal that mistakenly ingests it.

Pollution is the number one threat to all aquatic life and is lead cause of reduced biodiversity. This is really

sad given that water and water life-forms are some of the most important natural resources at our disposal.

8. Deforestation

With an exponential expansion in human beings, more food, materials, and shelter are being manufactured

at stupendous rates, mostly stemming from forestry.

Forests are cleared to make way for new humans, which in turn, makes more humans, you can see the

problem. According to international data, an estimated 18 million acres of trees are clear-cut each year to

make way for new development and wood products- that is just under half of all the trees on the planet

since the industrial revolution began.

With trees being one of the largest producers of oxygen, clearly that is not a good thing for humans- and

especially not for the animals that call the forest home.

With millions of different species that live in forests, deforestation is a major threat to their survival and a

big conservation issue. It also increases the greenhouse gases within the atmosphere which leads to further

global warming. Such human activities need to stop if we wish to survive.

http://environment.nationalgeographic.com/environment/habitats/freshwater-threats/

http://www.livescience.com/27692-deforestation.html


9. Acid Rain

When humans burn coal, sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are released into the atmosphere where they

rise up and accumulate in the clouds until the clouds become saturated and rain acid, causing havoc on the

ground beneath.

When the rain falls, it accumulates in water bodies which are especially harmful to lakes and small bodies

of water. The ground surrounding the water soaks up the acid, depleting the soil of essential nutrients.

Trees that absorb the acid accumulate toxins that damage leaves and slowly kills large areas of forest.

Acid rain has also been known to completely eliminate entire species of fish, causing a snowball effect of

damage to the ecosystem that relies on diverse organisms to sustain the environment.

http://environment.nationalgeographic.com/environment/global-warming/acid-rain-overview/

https://www3.epa.gov/acidrain/effects/forests.html

https://www3.epa.gov/acidrain/effects/surface_water.html


10. Ozone Depletion

The ozone layer is renowned for its ability to absorb harmful UV rays that would otherwise be detrimental

to the health of all walks of life. Without an ozone layer, walking outside would be unbearable.

Ozone is made up of three bonded oxygen's that float up to the stratosphere where they absorb a substantial

amount of UV radiation, protecting all life down below. However "ozone-depleting substances" (or ODS)

primarily made up of chlorine and bromine find their way up to the stratosphere where they strip the O3 of

an oxygen, destroying its capabilities of absorbing UV light.

The human impact is devastating for plants that are extremely sensitive to UV light including wheat and

barley, two indispensable crops to humans.

Although most chemicals that deplete the ozone layer have been banned, the chemicals that have already

been released can take upwards of 80 years to reach the upper atmosphere, so it will be some time before

our protective boundary will be fully functional again. Until then, slap on that sunscreen and be safe out

there.

Anthropogenic Anthropogenic means of, relating to, or resulting from the influence of human beings on

nature.[1] Prior to the Industrial Revolution, humanity's influence on nature had been comparatively

mild (although human have been influencing the environment for as long as humans have been

human). However with the introduction of motive power, the use of oil and gasoline to

http://www.bcairquality.ca/101/ozone-depletion-causes.html



https://energyeducation.ca/encyclopedia/Anthropogenic#cite_note-1

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achieve energy needs, and the reliance on electricity, anthropogenic impacts on

the environment have increased exponentially. Energy is needed by society for energy services to

meet our needs, and because of this, energy is at the forefront of human impacts. All sources of

energy have some impact on the environment, but the easier forms of energy to use generally have a

harsher impact.

Anthropogenic emissions of pollutants have significantly and rapidly altered the function

of ecosystems] including our own, however these pollutants are being produced because of our need

for energy. Many impacts can be mitigated, however it is often inconvenient and costly for a power

plant to install air pollution control devices, and it often requires tremendous political will to enforce

such protocols.

Human impacts on the atmosphere, soil, bodies of water, animals and plant life have generally been

getting even worse, however there are many efforts aimed at reducing these effects. Many specific

pollutants have been addressed and the emission of them have decreased greatly.

Environmental Concerns

Our Mother Earth is currently facing lot of environmental concerns. The environmental problems like

global warming, acid rain, air pollution, urban sprawl, waste disposal, ozone layer depletion, water

pollution, climate change and many more affect every human, animal and nation on this planet. Over the

last few decades, the exploitation of our planet and degradation of our environment have gone up at an

alarming rate. As our actions have been not in favor of protecting this planet, we have seen natural

disasters striking us more often in the form of flash floods, tsunamis and cyclones.

Different environmental groups around the world play their role in educating people as to how their small

actions when combined together can play a big role in in protecting this planet. If you look at the

environment around us, you can see that there are a number of issues that come to our attention. Here are

25 of the most important environmental concerns to keep an eye on today.

https://energyeducation.ca/encyclopedia/Anthropogenic#cite_note-2


Top 25 Environmental Concerns

1. Air Pollution: Pollution of air, water and soil take a huge number of years to recover. Industry and

engine vehicle fumes are the most obvious toxins. Substantial metals, nitrates and plastic are poisons in

charge of pollution. While water contamination is brought about by oil slicks, acid rain, and urban sprawl;

air contamination is created by different gasses and poisons discharged by businesses and manufacturing

plants and burning of fossil fills; soil contamination is majorly created by mechanical waste that takes

supplements out of the soil.

2. Water Pollution: Clean drinking water is turning into an uncommon thing. Water is turning into a

monetary and political concern as the human populace battles for this need. Waste from industrial and

agricultural activities pollute the water that is used by humans, animals and plants.

3: Soil and Land Pollution: Land pollution simply means degradation of earth’s surface as a result of

human activities like mining, littering, deforestation, industrial, construction and agricultural activities.

Land pollution can have huge environmental impact in the form of air pollution and soil pollution which in

turn can have adverse effect on human health.

4. Climate Change: Climate change is yet another environmental concern that has surfaced in last couple

of decades. Environmental change has different destructive impacts that include, but are not limited to, the

melting of polar ice, change in seasons, new sicknesses, and change in general climate situation.

https://e2c4a8m6.stackpathcdn.com/wp-content/uploads/2014/11/Landfill_environmental_concern.jpg


5. Global Warming: Environmental asset abuse is also an important environmental concern. Fossil fuel

utilization brings about discharge of greenhouse gasses, which causes environmental change. However,

individuals are taking endeavors to move to renewable energy sources.

6. Deforestation: Our woodlands create new oxygen and additionally help in managing temperature and

precipitation. At present, timberlands cover 30% of the area, but wooded areas are being lost on a regular

basis because people are looking for homes, food, and materials. Deforestation is a huge problem and will

just continue to get worse.

7. Increased Carbon Footprint: Temperature increases, like climate change, are the consequence of

human practices, including the use of greenhouse gasses. When the atmosphere changes and the heat

increases, it can cause a number of problems and start to destroy the world we live in.

8. Genetic Modification: Genetic modification utilizing biotechnology is called genetic engineering.

Genetic engineering of food brings about expanded poisons and sicknesses as qualities from a

hypersensitive plant can exchange to target plant. Some of these crops can even be a threat to the world

around us, as animals start to ingest the unnatural chemicals and such.

9. Effect on Marine Life: The amount of carbon in the water and the atmosphere is continuing to be a

problem in the world around us. The primary effect is on shellfish and microscopic fish, and it has similar

effects to osteoporosis in humans.

10. Public Health Issues: The current environmental concerns represent a considerable measure of danger

to well-being of people, and creatures. Dirty water is the greatest well-being danger of the world and poses

a risk to the health and lifespan of people and animals.

11. Overpopulation: The number of inhabitants in the planet is arriving at unsustainable levels as it

confronts deficiency of assets like water, fuel and food. Overpopulation is one of the most important

environmental concerns.

12: Loss of Biodiversity: Biodiversity is yet another casualty due to the impact of human beings on the

environment. It is the result of 3.5 billion years of evolution. Habitat destruction is a major cause for

biodiversity loss. Habitat loss is caused by deforestation, overpopulation, pollution and global warming.


13. Household and Industrial Waste: The over utilization of assets and formation of plastics are making

a worldwide emergency of waste transfer. Developed nations are infamous for creating an unreasonable

measure of waste or junk and dumping their waste in the seas and, less created nations.

14. Ozone Layer Depletion: The ozone layer is an undetectable layer of protection around the planet that

secures us from the sun’s unsafe beams. Depletion of the critical Ozone layer of the air is credited to

contamination brought about by Bromide and Chlorine found in Chlorofloro carbons (CFC’s). When these

poisonous gasses each the upper parts of the atmosphere, they cause a gap in the ozone layer, the greatest

of which is over the Antarctic.

15. Mining: Mining results in extraction of minerals from earth’s core. These minerals also bring out

harmful chemicals from deep inside the earth to the earth’s surface. The toxic emissions from mining can

cause air, water and soil pollution.

16: Natural Resource Depletion: Non-renewable resources are limited and will get expired one day.

Consumption of fossil fuels at an alarming rate can lead to global warming which can further result in

melting of polar ice caps and increase in sea levels.

17: Natural Disasters: Natural disasters like earthquakes, floods, tsunamis, cyclones, volcanic eruption

can be unpredictable, devastating and can cause irreparable damage. They can cause huge loss of life and

property ……….

https://e2c4a8m6.stackpathcdn.com/wp-content/uploads/2014/11/Deforestation_environmental_concern.jpg


18: Nuclear Issues: Radioactive waste is a nuclear fuel that contains radioactive substance and is a by-

product of nuclear power generation. The radioactive waste is an environmental concern that is extremely

toxic and can have devastating effect on the lives of the people living nearby, if not disposed properly.

Radioactive waste is considered to be harmful for humans, plants, animals and surrounding environment.

19. Loss of Endangered Species: Human overpopulation is prompting the elimination of species and

environmental surroundings and the loss of various biomes. Environmental frameworks, which took a huge

number of years to come into being, are in risk when any species populace is huge.

20. Acid Rain: Acid rain happens because of the vicinity of specific poisons in the climate. Corrosive

downpour might be brought about because of use of fossil fuels or volcanoes or spoiling vegetation which

discharge sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides into the air.

21: Agricultural Pollution: Modern day agriculture practices make use of chemical products like

pesticides and fertilizers to deal with local pests. Some of the chemicals when sprayed do not disappear

and infact seeps into the ground and thereby harms plants and crops. Also, contaminated water is used for

irrigation by farmers due to disposal of industrial and agricultural waste in local water bodies.

22: Light and Noise Pollution: Noise pollution is another common form of pollution that causes

temporary disruption when there is excessive amount of unpleasant noise. Construction activities,

industrialization, increase in vehicular traffic, lack of urban planning are few of the causes of noise

pollution.

23. Urban Sprawl: Urban sprawl alludes to relocation of populace from high thickness urban ranges to

low density provincial zones which bring about spreading of city over more rustic area. Urban sprawl

brings about expanded movement, environmental concerns and well-being concerns.

24: Medical Waste: Medical waste is any kind of waste that is produced in large quantity by healthcare

centers like hospitals, nursing homes, dental clinics and is considered to be of a bio-hazardous nature. The

waste can include needles, syringes, gloves, tubes, blades, blood, body parts and many more.

25: Littering and Landfills: Littering simply means disposal of piece of garbage or debris improperly or

at wrong location usually on the ground instead of disposing them at trash container or recycling bin.

Littering can cause huge environmental and economic impact in the form of spending millions of dollars to

clean the garbage of road that pollute the clean air.


Landfills on the other hand are nothing but huge garbage dumps that make the city look ugly and produce

toxic gases that could prove fatal for humans and animals. Landfills are generated due to large amount of

waste that is generated by households, industries and healthcare centers everyday.

Social and Political Dimensions of

Climate Change

Climate change creates injustices in who caused the problem, who is suffering worst

and first, and who is taking action. Power between nations and social groups drives

unequal disaster risks and the “compounded vulnerabilities” of poor peoples and

nations, and has led to gridlock in United Nations negotiations. The course reviews

social and political dimensions of local and national adaptation efforts, media

dynamics, collective and individual denial, and the rise of climate social movements.

The human emissions of billions of tons of gases known to trap heat in the

atmosphere is a massive experiment on the systems that support our species.

Human civilization has developed in a remarkably stable period of global

temperature and precipitation, but the climate impacts are rising and projected to get

much worse in the decades ahead. Are we helpless? Who is suffering first and

worst from climate change?

Field Class Country: Turkey

Day: 1 - Antalya - Wednesday, 3 July

July 3 (Antalya, Turkey) The lab will begin with a bus tour of two or three highly

vulnerable areas of the city, including coastal areas experiencing flooding, and

informal settlements in flood-prone areas around urban rivers. At each stop, we will

hear from local residents and community organizations about their experiences and

concerns. Lunch will take place at a good park or location with a vista of these

problems. Next we will travel to wealthier and higher neighborhoods for

comparison, and the final stop will be municipal and federal planning and/or

environmental agencies, to see mapping of flood-prone areas, hear about disaster

mitigation efforts, urban planning directions, and the role of climate change in their

formulation. Students will read Turkey’s national position papers on climate change,

which include descriptions of the nation’s vulnerability and adaptation efforts, and


its position on its responsibility to reduce emissions and make binding commitments

in the UNFCCC negotiations. We will compare this with the piece by World Bank

urban specialist Anthony Bigio comparing Casablanca, Tunis and Alexandria’s

vulnerability and flooding preparations. Students will review Google Earth and

LIDAR flooding maps, review NGO and government websites on the issue. They

will collect notes and photos during the visit, and produce a 3 page review tying the

trip to the course’s larger themes of the social and political dimensions of climate

change. Academic Objectives:

1. To see vulnerable riverine and coastal areas and human habitation and

infrastructure, and consider other types of climate change-related risks such as

drought and heat waves,

2. To observe strategies for adaptation to rising sea levels and coastal defense being

adopted, as well as upland efforts,

3. To hear from local and national government officials, NGOs, and community

members about climate change and solutions being considered and adopted.

The 12 projects are:

1) Urban solidarity - Cooperative options for action in times of climate change;

2) The social dimension of the rebound effect (REBOUND);

3) SPREAD - Scenarios of Perception and Reaction to Adaptation;

4) Alpine natural hazards in climate change (ANIK) - Interpretation patters and practices from 18th to 21st century;

5) EMIGMA - Empowerment of migrants for climate protection;

6) Regional climate: Social transformation processes for climate protection and adaptation;

7) Climate change, environmental changes and migration: Social and ecological conditions for population movements (MICLE) based on examples from Sahel countries of Mali and Senegal;

8) Climate protection, development and equity: Decarbonisation in developing and emerging nations (EntDekEn);

9) Climate change and everyday action: Potential, strategies and instruments for low-CO2 lifestyles in a zero emission city (KlimaAlltag);

10) Climates of migration. A historical perspective of climate change and environmental migration;

11) Connecting emissions trading systems - The way to a socially and ecologically acceptable structure for the trade in emissions certificates in Europe, the USA and Japan;

12) Climate protection policy in aging societies: Complex climate systems, cognition and willingness to pay (CLIMAGE).

https://www.umweltbundesamt.de/service/glossar/a?tag=Adaptation#alphabar

https://www.umweltbundesamt.de/service/glossar/c?tag=CO2#alphabar


How pollution impacts human health

When people think of air pollution, most immediately picture heavy smog drifting over cities and industrial plants.

This is the first and most evident form of air pollution, but it’s not the only one.

Let’s begin today’s discussion by defining the term air pollution at a broader level. Air pollution in its most basic definition is the introduction of harmful substances into the Earth’s atmosphere.

These substances linger and cause many adverse effects. As you know, humans and other living creatures rely on the atmosphere for respiration. When air quality is dampened by pollution, immediate and longer term consequences take place.

Pollution has been known to cause allergies, disease, damage to crops, and in extreme cases, even death.

In addition, air pollution creates an imbalance in the natural gases that make up our Earth’s atmosphere. These imbalances slowly aid in the depletion of the Ozone layer, an essential region of the stratosphere that soaks up most of the sun’s damaging ultraviolet (UV) rays.

As the Ozone depletes, the rate of global warming increases. If enough air pollution clutters our environment, it creates the danger of more rapid deterioration of the Ozone layer.

You can see the trouble this may cause.

It’s important that we, as citizens of the world, fully understand the causes, effects, and possible solutions of air pollution so that we can make an educated decision for Earth’s future.

Causes

There are many causes of air pollution. For sanity’s sake, we’ve done our best to categorize them at a more general level.

Before we get into the different causes, let’s take a quick step back and look at the different variations of air pollution.

First, there’s invisible and visible air pollution. The smog you see lingering over a city is a good example of visible pollution.

Invisible pollutants aren’t as noticeable, but they can be just as deadly, if not more so. Examples of invisible pollutants include nitrogen oxides, sulfur dioxide, and carbon monoxide, to name a few.

Carbon monoxide inhaled and introduced into the human blood stream spells trouble if the pollution is a high enough concentration.

Digging down even deeper, air pollution can be split into primary and secondary pollutants.

http://www.ozonelayer.noaa.gov/science/basics.htm

http://nationalgeographic.org/activity/visible-and-invisible-pollutants/


Primary pollutants, such as sulfur dioxide, are ones directly released into the atmosphere. Secondary pollutants, like smog for example, are the result of primary pollutants intermingling with the already existing particles in the atmosphere.

Without any further ado, let’s get into some specific causes of air pollution.

1. Vehicle Exhaust Fumes.

The number one source of air pollution in city environments is vehicle exhaust fumes, which happen to release high amounts of carbon monoxide. It’s no surprise then that carbon monoxide also happens to be the largest air pollutant in the United States.

Millions of vehicles are operated on a daily basis in the US alone, each one leaving its own carbon footprint on the environment. This is why hybrid and fully electric vehicles are making a splash in the automobile marketplace.

People are looking to rely less on fossil fuels to power their cars, leading to less toxic emissions into the environment.

2. Fossil Fuel-Based Power Plants.

In addition to vehicle exhaust pollution, fossil fuels also present a wider scale problem when they’re burned for energy in power plants.

Chemicals like sulfur dioxide are released during the burning process, which travel straight into the atmosphere. These types of pollutants react with water molecules to yield something known as acid rain.

This is one of the reasons that alternative energy sources, such as nuclear, solar, and wind are being explored in greater detail. They tend to release much less pollutants into the environment to produce equivalent amounts of energy.

3. Exhaust from Industrial Plants and Factories.

Similar to exhaust being released from vehicles, heavier machinery located inside big factories and industrial plants also emit pollutants into the air.

Industrial plants can be found pretty much everywhere in the world, so the spreading of air pollution is basically global.


4. Construction and Agricultural Activities.

On a daily basis, dirt and dust is kicked up into the atmosphere from excavating and demolition type construction activities.

Switching the focus to agricultural activities, ammonia is a frequent byproduct that just so happens to be one of the most dangerous gases in our environment.

There are also plenty of nasty chemicals that get placed into the atmosphere from pesticides and fertilizers, which are being used at increasingly higher rates.

5. Natural Causes.

When people think pollution, they almost always blame other people. Let’s not forget that the Earth is one of the biggest polluters itself, though.

Volcanoes, forest fires, and dust storms are nature-born events that dump massive amounts of air

pollution into the environment.

It’s often debated that humans don’t come close to volcanoes when it comes to air pollutants, but we’ll leave that for the readers to decide.

6. Household Activities.

Forget about outdoor pollution. What about the pollution that takes place inside our own homes?

Common household chemicals, notably bleach, without proper ventilation is a primary source of indoor air pollution.

Smoking tobacco through the use of cigarettes and cigars also releases toxic pollutants into the air.

It’s often easier to think of outdoor pollution as the primary danger on a wide scale level, but don’t dismiss the little everyday activities that also impact our health.

Effects

Now that we know the culprits of air pollution, let’s start discussing the harmful effects.

There are many different types of effects that air pollutants can cause. For one, there’s the human health factor to consider.

If humans are at risk, then other forms of wildlife and organic creatures are in danger as well.

http://hvo.wr.usgs.gov/volcanowatch/archive/2007/07_02_15.html


Then there are the effects on the planet and its atmosphere.

In the paragraphs to follow, we’ll take a closer look at all of air pollution’s effects.

1. Accelerated Global Warming.

This is a green energy discussion, so let’s tackle this one first.

Earlier on, you learned about the Ozone layer and its role in protecting our planet. Air pollution directly accelerates the rate at which global warming happens by depleting the Ozone layer.

Global warming refers to the increased temperatures Earth continues to experience. These higher temperatures lead to the melting of the polar ice caps and icebergs, which elevates sea levels and

creates concern for the human race.

2. Human Respiratory and Heart Concerns.

Air pollution is known to cause irritation in the eyes, lungs, nose, and throat. It creates respiratory problems and exacerbates existing conditions such as asthma and emphysema.

When continually exposed to air pollution, humans become at higher risk for cardiovascular disease. Air filled with toxins can have a number of adverse effects on the arteries, and have even been a contributor to heart attacks.

3. Wildlife Endangerment.

Most diseases and conditions that humans are susceptible to, animals are as well. Air pollution creates many of the same issues that humans face.

Heavily polluted areas force inhabitants to seek new homes, which can negatively impact the ecosystem.

Toxic chemicals, which we’ll discuss in the next bullet, also deposit over surfaces of water that can lead to the endangerment of marine life animals.

4. Acid Rain.

When air pollution, specifically sulfur oxides and nitrogen oxides, are released into sky through fossil fuel burning, it creates the phenomenon known as acid rain.


Water, high in the atmosphere, combines with these chemicals and becomes acidic in nature. It then scatters the ground, disguised as normal rainfall.

Acid rain has been known to cause harm to humans and animals alike, and even damage crops.

Solutions

Up until this point, we’ve covered all the bad of air pollution. Now let’s get onto the good.

Well, there’s actually not much good to say for air pollution, but there are a number of positive ways it can be dealt with.

Understanding the causes and effects proves to be important so that we can determine how best to combat it.

Reducing the use of fossil fuel powered automobiles is clearly something that can help. Same with finding unique ways to reduce energy consumption.

Let’s dig a little deeper into common solutions for preventing and minimizing air pollution.

1. Minimize the Use of Fossil Fuel Powered Automobiles.

As a leading contributor to air pollution, it only makes sense that a vehicle-based solution appears first on this list.

One way to do this is by switching to a hybrid vehicle, or better yet, one that runs on fully electric.

Other ways include taking public transportation, carpooling with friends and colleagues, or even riding a bike to your destination.

2. Be Mindful of Energy Consumption.

When you’re leaving home, be sure to turn off the lights, TV, and any other electronic appliances.

Fossil fuel plants are a major cause of air pollutants, and the less energy you need, the less we have to rely on those plants to generate electricity.

This also means turning to energy efficient devices when possible. Fluorescent lightbulbs over the course of their lifespan can reduce energy consumption while adding significant savings to your pocket.

https://www.tesla.com/


3. Become an Advocate for Clean Energy.

Every day, technology continues to advance that improves the efficiency and cost of clean energy such as solar, wind, and geothermal. These types of energy sources create much less air pollution.

Even nuclear is leaps and bounds better than traditional fossil fuel plants when it comes to air pollution.

Find ways to promote and educate the public on clean energy alternatives. A small contribution goes a long way in the grand scheme of things.

4. Recycle.

Ah, yes. Recycling. Another topic of heated debates. Wherever you stand on the matter, recycling can help reduce air pollution.

Instead of throwing away used containers and material, try reusing them or recycling them to be

used again by someone else.

One thing I personally love to do is reuse to-go containers from restaurants as plastic ware for work lunches. This obviously only works with plastic material, not Styrofoam.

Conclusion

We have now discussed the common causes, effects, and solutions for dealing with air pollution.

With air pollutants being such a widespread epidemic, it’s imperative that we come together as Earth’s inhabitants to become part of the solution, instead of continuing to be the problem.

We can make the choice to drive less toxic automobiles. We can choose how much energy we consume on a daily basis. We can also choose to reuse our old materials instead of dumping them into the environment.

Air pollution can have some devastating impacts on our bodies and the planet if left untouched.

What are your thoughts on the situation?

Natural Resources

mans, animals, and other living organisms have relied on natural resources for survival since the beginning of time. The conservation of natural resources is important as the world population continues to grow, with many of the most important natural resources being finite and non-renewable.


Natural resources are materials and substances that occur naturally and can be used for economic gain. They include minerals, forests, fertile land, and water. Some natural resources, such as soil and water, are essential for the existence of life.

A non-renewable natural resource is defined as a resource that cannot be replaced in our lifetime. They include metal ores, fossil fuels, earth minerals, and in some in certain situations groundwater.

Renewable natural resources are resources that can be replaced naturally in our lifetime, and used repeatedly. Examples include fresh water, timber, oxygen, and solar energy.

This article will discuss the top natural resources and what they are used for.

11. Copper

Copper has been in use for thousands of years and is one of the first metals ever used by man. It occurs naturally and is one of the few metallic elements that occur in native form.

The majority of copper is used in electrical wires, industrial machinery, and roofing and plumbing. Copper is also used in nutritional supplements and fungicides for agriculture.

The United States is the second largest producer of copper, which is mined from copper ores and recovered through recycling. Copper can be recycled without any loss in quality. As a result nearly just as much copper is recovered through recycling as is derived from newly mined ore.

10. Helium

The first thing most people think of when they hear the word helium is balloons, however balloons make up a tiny fraction of the total helium used in today’s society. According the Royal Society of Chemistry helium is necessary as a cooling medium for the Large Hadron Collider (LHC), superconducting magnets in MRI scanners and NMR spectrometers, and satellite instruments.

Because helium is non-reactive it is used to create a protective inert atmosphere in the processes of making fiber optics and semi-conductors. Helium is also used to detect for leaks in air-conditioning systems, and to inflate air-bags in vehicles because it is non-toxic and diffuses quickly.

Even though helium is the second most abundant element in the solar system, it is considered a non-renewable resource. Most helium is produced where coincidences of unlikely situations occur within the Earth’s crust, making the gas rare. Extracting helium from the air is uneconomical with there being less than 0.00052% in air.

9. Bauxite

Bauxite forms as rocks in soils with very little soluble materials that are located in wet tropical climates. This is one of the reasons why Australia is the top producer of bauxite.

Bauxite is the main ingredient in making aluminum metal, and nearly all aluminum produced has been extracted from bauxite. It is also used in hydraulic fracturing, a process in drilling for oil and gas.

http://www.rsc.org/periodic-table/element/2/helium

http://www.rsc.org/periodic-table/element/2/helium


8. Iron

Iron is in everyday items all around us and is the world’s most commonly used metal. Iron is a good conductor, durable, and plentiful making up 5% of the Earth’s crust. This is why it is used to make steel, electrical wiring and conduct, pipes, tools, hinges, door handles, stoves, pots and pans, and even sofa frames.

Most of the world’s iron ore is mined from banded iron formations (BIFs) primarily located in Australia, Brazil, and South Africa.

7. Coal

People have been using coal as a heat source for centuries. In today’s society coal has become the primary source of fuel for electricity production because it is abundant, has high energy output, and is relatively inexpensive.

Coal is a fossil fuel created through a process known as coalification. Plants that formed millions of years ago in swamp forests died and formed layers of peat that were buried through geological processes, and then altered through heat and pressure in low oxygen environments.

There are many problems that accompany the mining and use of coal. According to the U.S. Geological Survey, one of the more serious environmental issues is the adverse effect on surface and ground water from the disposal of ash and sludge that results from the burning of coal and the cleaning of flue gases.

6. Natural Gas

Natural gas supplies about 22% of the nation’s energy needs and is used as an energy source for heating, cooking, and generation of electricity. It is also used in the process of making plastics and other commercially important organic compounds.

Natural gas is a fossil fuel created by the decomposition of organic material, usually from ancient marine organisms, in an anaerobic environment. There are two categories of natural gas deposits, conventional and unconventional. Conventional deposits are associated with oil reserves, and unconventional deposits include coal bed methane, shale gas, and tight-gas sandstone.

5. Oil

Like natural gas, oil is created through the decomposition of organic matter in an anaerobic environment over millions of years. Oil supplies 40% of the nation’s energy needs and is used for the production of gasoline, diesel fuel, jet fuel, propane, and asphalt. Oil is also used in the manufacturing of petrochemicals for production of plastics, synthetic rubber, and chemicals.

The location of oil and gas reserves is determined by plate tectonics. This is why most oil is found in deserts, artic regions, river deltas, and continental margins offshore. Plate tectonics create the locations for anoxic burial and the high pressure and heat required for organic matter to turn to oil.

4. Salt

Salt, also known as sodium chloride, is an essential mineral for the life of humans and animals.

http://pubs.usgs.gov/circ/c1143/html/text.html

http://pubs.usgs.gov/circ/c1143/html/text.html


Salt is mined through one of four methods: rock salt mining underground, solution mining by injecting a solvent that dissolves underground salt and then is recovered through solar evaporations, sea water evaporation in which sea water is collected in solar evaporation ponds, and inland solar evaporation which is similar to sea water evaporation but inland.

Over 40% of the salt mined is used in the chemical industry, with another 40% being used as deicer on roads in the winter. The remaining 20% is spread out over processing of table salt, and manufacturing of rubber and other goods.

3. Timber

Timber is an important renewable natural resource in many societies around the world. If production is approached in a responsible way it can be both sustainable and economical.

Timbers are mostly used to create lumber for use in construction. They can also be roughly shaped and used as heavy duty beams and columns.

Timber is also used to make paper products, fiber board, hard board, plywood, and particle board.

2. Soil

Soil is one of the most important natural resources on Earth, being required both directly and indirectly for food production, manufacturing of industrial raw materials, and for generation of energy sources. Soil is essential for the function of ecosystems providing nutrients, oxygen, water, and heat.

Soil resources are being degraded by poor agricultural practices and chemical contamination. One of the most significant challenges facing current and future generations is the preservation of this irreplaceable natural resource from pollution and physical destruction.

1. Water

Like soil, water is one of the most important natural resources for the existence of life. Fresh water is consider a renewable resource, but most of the water humans drink comes from ground water sources that are being depleted faster than they can be replenished.

Even though water is considered a renewable resource, water resources are facing serious threats by human activities. These activities include pollution, urban growth, deforestation, and climate change.

Conclusion

Natural resources are essential to civilization as we know it, and are the basis for economy and survival.

Resources such as bauxite, iron, and copper form the basis of everyday items, while water, soil, and salt are required for life.

It is humanity’s duty to protect and conserve natural resources. Some things you can do in your everyday life to conserve natural resources include recycling plastic, paper, and metal, and using energy more efficiently.


Renewable Energy

Renewable energy is used to describe energy sources that are replenished by natural processes on a sufficiently rapid time-

scale so that they can be used by humans more or less indefinitely, provided the quantity taken per unit of time is not too great. Renewable energy is derived from natural processes that are replenished constantly. In its various forms, it derives

directly from the sun, or from heat generated deep within the earth.

Included in the definition is electricity and heat generated from:

solar,

wind,

ocean,

hydropower,

biomass,

geothermal resources, and

biofuels and hydrogen derived from renewable resources. Although biomass is a renewable energy, this should not be mistaken for a clean energy source. Although biomass is significantly cleaner than most fossil fuels such as coal and oil, it still produces sulphur dioxide during electricity production.

Renewable energy replaces conventional fuels in four distinct areas:

Power Generation,

Hot Water/ Space Heating,

Transport Fuels, and

Rural (off-grid) Energy Services

Current Situation of Renewable Energy

Global Scenario:

In 2008, about 19% of global final energy consumption came from renewables, with 13% coming from traditional biomass, which is mainly used for heating, and 3.2% from hydroelectricity.

New renewables (small hydro, modern biomass, wind, solar, geothermal, and biofuels) accounted for another 2.7% and are growing very rapidly.

The share of renewables in electricity generation is around 18%, with 15% of global electricity coming from hydroelectricity and 3% from new renewables.

Wind power is growing at the rate of 30% annually, with a worldwide installed capacity of 158 gigawatts (GW) in 2009, and is widely used in Europe,Asia, and the United States.

At the end of 2009, cumulative global photovoltaic (PV) installations surpassed 21 GW and PV power stations are popular in Germany and Spain.

Solar thermal power stations operate in the USA and Spain, and the largest of these is the 354 megawatt (MW) SEGS power plant in the Mojave Desert.

The world’s largest geothermal power installation is The Geysers in California, with a rated capacity of 750 MW.

Brazil has one of the largest renewable energy programs in the world, involving production of ethanol fuel from sugar cane, and ethanol now provides 18% of the country’s automotive fuel. Ethanol fuel is also widely available in the USA.

Globally, an estimated 3 million households get power from small solar PV systems.

More than 30 million rural households get lighting and cooking from biogas made in household-scale digesters.

Biomass cookstoves are used by 160 million households.

Indian Scenario:

Current installed base of Renewable Energy Sources(RES) is 18454.52 MW which is10.63% of total installed base with the southern state of Tamil Nadu contributing nearly a third of it (5008.26 MW) largely through wind power (as on 31/03/2011 by

CEA)

R.E.S. INCLUDES :- SHP – 2900 MW , WIND – 12000 MW,B.P. & B.G. –2313.33 MW, U&I & SOLAR – 114.74 MW (SHP – SMALL HYDRO POWER, B.P. – BIOMASS POWER, B.G.- BIOMASS GASIFIER, U&I – URBAN & INDUSTRIAL WASTE)

India is the 4th largest country with regard to installed power generation capacity in the field of renewable energy source.

The country has an estimated renewable energy potential of around 85,000 MW from commercially

exploitable sources: Wind, 45,000 MW; small hydro, 15,000 MW and biomass/bioenergy, 25,000 MW. In addition, India has the potential to generate 35MW per square km using solar photovoltaic and solar

thermal energy.

In July 2009, India unveiled a $19 billion plan, Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission, to produce 20,000 MW of solar power by 2020

Tamil Nadu accounts for one third of total RES installed capacity in India followed by Maharashtra, U.P and

Andhra Pradesh

The daily average solar energy incident over India varies from 4 to 7 kWh/m2

India has the fifth largest installed wind power capacity in the world.

The availability of biomass in India is estimated at about 540 million tones per year covering residues from

agriculture, forestry, and plantations. By using these surplus agriculture residues, more than 16,000 MW of grid quality power can be generated.

India has reasonably good potential for geothermal; the potential geothermal provinces can produce 10,600

MW of power.

http://indianpowersector.com/home/renewable-energy/biomass-power/


Major Types of Power stations based on Renewable Energy Sources are:

1. Solar Energy 2. Wind Energy

3. Biomass Energy 4. Geothermal

5. Tidal Energy Solar Energy India is both densely populated and has high solar insolation, providing an ideal combination for solar power in India. India is

already a leader in wind power generation (Wind power in India) and, Suzlon Energy is one of the India-based pioneering industries in world to generate non-conventional energy. In solar energy sector, some large projects have been proposed, and

a 35,000 km² area of the Thar Desert has been set aside for solar power projects, sufficient to generate 700 to 2,100 gigawatts.

In July 2009, India unveiled a $19 billion plan, to produce 20 GW of solar power by 2020.Under the plan,….

Wind Energy The development of wind power in India began in the 1990s, and has significantly increased in the last few years. Although a relative newcomer to the wind industry compared with Denmark or the US, India has the fifth largest installed wind power

capacity in the world. As of 31 October 2009 the installed capacity of wind power in India was 11806.69 MW, mainly spread across Tamil Nadu

(4889.765 MW), Maharashtra (1942.25 MW), Gujarat (1565.61 MW), Karnataka (1340.23 MW), Rajasthan (738.5 MW), Madhya Pradesh (212.8 MW), Andhra Pradesh (122.45 MW), Kerala (26.5 MW), Odisha (2MW), West Bengal (1.1 MW) and

other states…

Biomass Energy Biomass (plant material) is a renewable energy source because the energy it contains comes from the sun. Through the process of photosynthesis, plants capture the sun’s energy. When the plants are burned, they release the sun’s energy they

contain. In this way, biomass functions as a sort of natural battery for storing solar energy. As long as biomass is produced sustainably, with only as much used as is grown, the battery will last indefinitely.

In general there are two main approaches to using plants for energy production: growing plants specifically for energy use, and using the residues from plants that are…

Geothermal

The word geothermal comes from the Greek words geo (earth) and therme (heat). So, geothermal energy is heat from within the Earth. We can recover this heat as steam or hot water and use it to heat buildings or generate electricity.It is a natural part of the energy flow within the Earth’s depths. Generally speaking, the further down one drills, the hotter the temperatures.

Most of the commercial-grade production geothermal energy is harvested along localized “geothermal systems”, where the heat flow is near enough to the surface that hot water or steam is able to rise either to the surface, or to depths that we can

reach by drilling. Many of these regions occur within the “ring of fire“, a ring of geothermal sites…

Tidal Power Tidal power is the only form of energy which derives directly from the relative motions of the Earth–Moon system, and

to a lesser extent from the Earth–Sun system. The tidal forces produced by the Moon and Sun, in combination with Earth’s rotation, are responsible for the generation of the tides. Tidal power is the only form of energy which derives

directly from the relative motions of the Earth–Moon system, and to a lesser extent from the Earth–Sun system. The tidal forces produced by the Moon and Sun, in combination with Earth’s rotation, are responsible for the generation of the tides

What is Hazard Mitigation? Hazard mitigation describes actions taken to help reduce or eliminate long-term risks caused

by hazards or disasters, such as flooding, earthquakes, wildfires, landslides, or dam

failure. As the costs of disasters continue to rise, governments and citizens must find ways to

reduce hazard risks to our communities. As communities plan for new development and

improvements to existing infrastructure, mitigation can and should be an important

component of the planning effort.

While mitigation activities can and should be taken before a disaster occurs, hazard

mitigation is essential after a disaster. Oftentimes after disasters, repairs and reconstruction

are completed in such a way as to simply restore damaged property to pre-disaster conditions.

These efforts may get the community back to normal, but the replication of pre-disaster

conditions may result in a repetitive cycle of damage, reconstruction, and repeated damage.

http://indianpowersector.com/home/renewable-energy/solar-power/

http://indianpowersector.com/home/renewable-energy/wind-power/


http://indianpowersector.com/home/renewable-energy/geothermal/

http://indianpowersector.com/home/renewable-energy/tidal-power/

http://indianpowersector.com/home/renewable-energy/wind-power/


http://indianpowersector.com/home/renewable-energy/geothermal/

http://indianpowersector.com/home/renewable-energy/tidal-power/


This recurrent reconstruction becomes more expensive as the years go by. Hazard mitigation

breaks this repetitive cycle by taking a long-term view of rebuilding and recovering following

disasters. The implementation of such hazard mitigation actions leads to building stronger,

safer and smarter communities that are better able to reduce future injuries and future

damage.

Types of Mitigation Techniques

Prevention - Government, administrative, or regulatory actions that influence the way land

and buildings are developed to reduce hazard losses. Includes planning and zoning,

floodplain laws, capital improvement programs, open space preservation, and stormwater

management regulations.

Property Protection - Modification of buildings or structures to protect them from a hazard

or removal of structures from a hazard area. Includes acquisition, elevation, relocation,

structural retrofit, storm shutters, and shatter-resistant glass.

Public Education and Awareness - Actions to inform citizens and elected officials about

hazards and ways to mitigate them. Includes outreach projects, real estate disclosure, hazard

information centers, and school-age and adult education.

Natural Resource Protection - Actions that minimize hazard loss and preserve or restore the

functions of natural systems. Includes sediment and erosion control, stream corridor

restoration, watershed management, forest and vegetation management, and wetland

restoration and preservation.

Emergency Services - Actions that protect people and property during and immediately after

a hazard event. Includes warning systems, emergency response services, and the protection of

essential facilities.

Structural Projects - Actions that involve the construction of structures to reduce the impact

of a hazard. Includes dams, setback levees, floodwalls, retaining walls, and safe rooms.

Common Mitigation Actions Enforcement of building codes, floodplain management codes and environmental regulations. Public safety measures such as continual maintenance of roadways, culverts and dams. Acquisition of relocation of structures, such as purchasing buildings located in a floodplain. Acquisition of undeveloped hazard prone lands to ensure no future construction occurs there. Retrofitting of structures and design of new construction, such as elevating a home or building. Protecting critical facilities and infrastructure from future hazard events. Planning for hazard mitigation, emergency operations, disaster recovery, and continuity of

operations. Development and distribution of outreach materials related to hazard mitigation.


Deployment of warning systems to alert and notify the public.

During the planning process, the City of Los Angeles Steering Committee is actively

engaging community members and stakeholders in the planning process as part of a whole

community approach in hazard mitigation and disaster planning.

Hazard Mitigation Plan Revision Process

This hazard mitigation planning process has six steps:

STEP 1: Organize Resources & Build the Planning Team

Relevant studies, plans, and reports are collected along with communications resources that

allow the public to be involved throughout the planning process. A planning team is

assembled consisting of municipal representatives, and local and regional stakeholders.

STEP 2: Develop the Plan’s Risk Assessment

The risk assessment includes the identification of the location and geographic extent of

natural and human-caused hazards that can affect the City. The hazard impacts and future

probability of occurrence is also determined. Scientific and historical evidence of past events

is collected and evaluated. All of these factors, along with the information on damage and

losses sustained by the City, enables the hazards to be ranked from highest threat to lowest

threat.

STEP 3: Assess Capabilities

Local capabilities through emergency management, the National Flood Insurance Program,

planning and regulatory authorities, administrative, technical, financial, and political

capacities are assessed for the plan revision.

STEP 4: Develop the Mitigation Strategy

Goals, objectives, and past mitigation actions are evaluated and revised as needed by the

planning team. The planning team will also define appropriate new mitigation techniques,

and prioritize mitigation actions and projects in the revised mitigation strategy.

STEP 5: Determine Plan Maintenance Process

The HMP is a living document that must be regularly reviewed, updated, and maintained. A

schedule is prepared to include responsible departments involved with monitoring,

evaluating, and updating the plan during its five-year cycle. A process for integrating the

updated Mitigation Strategy into existing plans and reports should be outlined and a plan for

continued public outreach and participation must also be developed.


STEP 6: Obtain Mitigation Plan Approval and Adoption

The draft plan is made available for public comment then submitted to the State of California

Office of Emergency Services (Cal OES) and FEMA for review and approval. Once a Plan

has been determined to meet all state and federal requirements and receives official approval

it

Environment Protection Act 1986- Protecting India’s Environment

On a cold wintery midnight in December 1984 when the city of Bhopal was sound asleep and the workers

at Union Carbide India Ltd. pesticide plant were completing their routinely task, no one was aware about

the tragedy that was about to strike the city. Suddenly, the families and workers living in the vicinity woke

up to sound of emergency alarm bell and repugnant smell that filled the air making it difficult for the local

population to breath. By the morning, more than thousand people had already died due to the gas leak that

took place inside UCIL plant and spread in the atmosphere. The Methyl isocyanate (MIC) gas in the

atmosphere exposed people to severe irritation in the eyes, coughing, blepharospasm, burning sensation

within the respiratory tracts. Till now, families are suffering because of the horrors committed by UCIL

with more than 500,000 people affected, while owners fled the scene due to weak environmental and civil

laws.

The watershed moment that led to the formulation of EPA

Bhopal Gas Tragedy considered to be the worst industrial disaster in the world was a watershed moment

for India and country’s Parliament, as the lawmakers gathered to formulate stronger norms, acts, policies,

and laws to ensure that such horrific incidents do not occur in India again. The Environment Protection Act

of 1986 (EPA) was enacted by the Government of India under Article 253 of the Indian Constitution. The

Act came in as a result of the Bhopal gas tragedy as well as India’s commitment to follow United Nations

Conference on the Human Environment that took place at Stockholm in June, 1972. The conference was

attended by 122 nations that passed the Stockholm Declaration, that contained 26 principles that focused

on development, environment, and the necessity of human interaction with the environment. The aim of

the Environment Protection Act of 1986 is to improve and protect the human environment, most

importantly to prevent hazards from happening and causing damage to the ecology.

Provisions of Environment Protection Act 1986

On November 19, 1986, the Environment Protection Act of 1986 came into force and was extended to the

whole country. The Act comprises of 4 chapter and 26 sections pertaining to the roles and responsibilities

of different government actors and agencies. Chapter 1 deals with the title of the Act, jurisdiction and

extend, when the act has been enacted, and most importantly the definition of terms that are involved in the

Act. Chapter 2 emphasises on the power that resides with the Central government pertaining to the Act,

while Chapter 3 talks about actions that Central government can take to protect the environment. The last

chapter outlines the power of the Central government to appoint officials to ensure that the objectives of

the Environment Protection Act of 1986.

The EPA of 1986 enables the Central government to act or give direction for process, closure of a

particular establishment violating the rules and guidelines of the Act, regulation and prohibition of an

industry, and many such things that protects and ensures that the EPA is followed. Central government can

formulate rules and regulations to administer environment pollution. Environment Protection Act of 1986


includes penalties incase there is a violation of any aspect of the Act. In case there is any such violation,

the head of the department and office incharge are liable for the offense.

The Environment Protection Act has defined certain areas as restricted corridors due to the ecological

sensitivity such as Aravalli Regions in Alwar, Rajasthan, Coastal sensitive zones, and Doon Valley in

Uttarakhand.

A move to dilute the EPA

In 2015, the newly elected Central government wanted to bring in new amendments to the bill that instead

of strengthening it would have diluted the Environment Protection Act, that since 1986, has helped protect

the country’s environment from being exploited at the hands of private contractors and miners. One of the

proposed amendments included the constitution of an adjudicating body where grievances could be heard

before reaching the National Green Tribunal, while the second proposal to review three paramount points

of impact of evaluation before giving a go ahead to any project. However, after protest from several

environmentalists and civil society members who wrote to the Ministry of Environment and Forest to

rollback the proposed the amendments. The move by the government has been put on the back burner

since then and kept the EPA intact.

India's National Action Plan on Climate

Change needs desperate repair In the middle of an erratic monsoon, in June 2008, India announced its National Action Plan on

Climate Change (NAPCC). When it happened, we were just one of the 10-odd countries in the

world to have a consolidated policy instrument to tackle climate change.

Ten years later, and with the monsoon being even more erratic, there is no clarity on how

NAPCC has fared. Officials are unwilling to divulge information and the budget heads and

schemes through which the plan is being implemented have changed enough times to make

tracking its perfor mance difficult, if not impossible.

It is also equally true that India is now more vulnerable to climate change. According to the

Global Climate Risk Index of 2018, published by German Watch, a non-profit working on North-

South equity and preservation of livelihoods, India is the 12th most vulnerable country to climate

change impacts. Every year, it witnesses an average of 3,570 deaths attributable to climate-related

events, and the cost of climate change impact it will pay is proje cted to run into trillions of

dollars in the near future.

For a country that has already been suffering from climate change impacts, the formulation of a

policy to tackle the problem should have come in natural course. But NAPCC was more an

exercise to secure international standing than anything else. The first decade of the 21st century

was a period of great churning in terms of the political and economic discussions around climate

change. Though there was no institutional pressure, developed countries were badgering


developing countries to reduce their emissions. In 2007, China released its national plan to

address climate change issues, leaving India as the only big developing country without such an

instrument. As a result, the government wanted a policy instrument before the G8 Summit at

Tokyo in 2008 and the Conference of Parties at Copenhagen in 2009.

To this end, the United Progressive Alliance (UPA) government constituted the Prime Minister’s

Council on Climate Cha-nge (PMCCC) in mid-2007. The 26-member council included ministers,

independent experts and retired government experts. Over three high-powered sessions, between

July 13, 2007 and June 2, 2008, the government managed to announce NAPCC a month before

the G8 summit to be held in July 2008. The plan, which has eight sectoral missions, was to be

overseen by six Union ministries. However, overall 10 ministries, including finance and external

affairs, too, were involved in its implementation.

The rushed manner in which NAPCC was formulated ensured that the document merely provided

broad objectives and did not address strategy. While PMCCC had representation of diverse

sectors on paper, the document’s content was primarily shaped by a three-member group from

within the council—the principal scientific advisor, former secretary to the then Union Ministry

of Environment and Forests, and the director general of Delhi-based non-profit The Energy and

Resources Institute (TERI). The final draft was prepared by the Prime Minister’s Office, further

limiting the significance of inputs from the council.

Following the hurried announcement of NAPCC in 2008, the ministries concerned took six more

years to approve the missions. By then, the new National Democratic Alliance (NDA)

government had formed in 2014. Under the new dispensation, PMCCC has met, reportedly, just

once in 2015. Though the government has announced new schemes to meet the climate change

objectives, it has not aligned or integrated them with NAPCC. Due to this, the missions have lost

homogeneity and functionality. There are several other challenges that the missions face. One, the

monitoring system is either absent or ineffective. Two, the budgetary support by the government

is very limited. Considering the scant domestic and international channels for finance, the

government needs to mobilise funds from different sources. Three, states have to frame their own

action plans, or State Action Plans on Climate Change (SAPCC), in line with NAPCC. But

SAPCCs framed by almost all the states are vague.

Politically, the most significant part of NAPCC is the introduction of co-benefits—“measures that

promote our development objectives while also yielding co-benefits for addressing climate

change effectively”, as per PMCCC. But 10 years after it was announced, are we closer to

realising the targets NAPCC sought to meet? A look at how the missions have performed:


The Montreal Protocol on Substances That Deplete the Ozone Layer

BACKGROUND The Montreal Protocol, finalized in 1987, is a global agreement to protect the stratospheric ozone layer by phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODS). The stratospheric ozone layer filters out harmful ultraviolet radiation, which is associated with an increased prevalence of skin cancer and cataracts, reduced agricultural productivity, and disruption of marine ecosystems. The United States ratified the Montreal Protocol in 1988 and has joined four subsequent amendments. The United States has been a leader within the Protocol throughout its existence, and has taken strong domestic action to phase out the production and consumption of ODS such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and halons.

The Montreal Protocol has proven to be innovative and successful, and is the first treaty to achieve universal ratification by all countries in the world. Leveraging worldwide participation, the Montreal Protocol has sent clear signals to the global market and placed the ozone layer, which was in peril, on a path to repair. Full implementation of the Montreal Protocol is expected to result in avoidance of more than 280 million cases of skin cancer, approximately 1.6 million skin cancer deaths, and more than 45 million cases of cataracts in the United States alone by the end of the century, with even greater benefits worldwide. The Montreal Protocol’s Scientific Assessment Panel estimates that with implementation of the Montreal Protocol we can expect near complete recovery of the ozone layer by the middle of the 21st century. Further information on the science of the Stratospheric Ozone Layer can be found on the NASA and NOAA websites, and information on the U.S. domestic implementation of the Montreal Protocol can be found on the EPA website.

The full text of the Protocol, information on its institutions and past actions, and related publications are available through the UNEP Ozone Secretariat.

KIGALI AMENDMENT TO THE MONTREAL PROTOCOL On October 15, 2016, Parties to the Montreal Protocol adopted the Kigali amendment to phase down production and consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) worldwide. HFCs are widely used alternatives to ozone depleting substances such as hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) and chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), already controlled under the Protocol.

This amendment creates market certainty and opens international markets to new technology that is better for the environment, without compromising performance. It calls on all countries to gradually phase down their production and consumption of HFCs in the coming decades using the flexible, innovative, and effective approaches the Montreal Protocol has used for three decades. Global stakeholders endorsed adoption of the Kigali amendment, including most of the major U.S. companies working in related sectors.

Earth Summit (1992)

(RIO SUMMIT)

Introduction

In June 1992 representatives from 172 nations convened in Rio

de Janeiro, Brazil, for the United Nations Conference on

Environment and Development (UNCED), commonly called

the Earth Summit. The Earth Summit was an unprecedented

https://www.nasa.gov/ozone

http://www.ozonelayer.noaa.gov/

https://www.epa.gov/ozone-layer-protection


meeting of representatives, including 108 heads of state, 2,400

representatives from various non-governmental organizations

(NGOs), and nearly 10,000 journalists. An additional 17,000 NGO

representatives attended a parallel NGO forum that provided

recommendations to the Earth Summit.

The massive interest and participation of nations and NGOs in

the Earth Summit indicated a shift in global attitudes toward the

environment. Scientific evidence gathered in the second half of

the twentieth century indicated that human activity was taking a

toll on the environment. The scientific evidence also indicated

that pollution and depletion of natural resources that occurred in

one country could have a profound effect on the environment of

other nations or the entire planet. At the Earth Summit, world

leaders devised plans and policies to protect the environment by

involving national and local governments and NGOs.

Historical Background and Scientific Foundations

The Earth Summit was not the first international conference to

address environmental issues. In 1972 the United

Nations convened the United Nations Conference on the Human

Environment in Stockholm, Sweden. This conference, often

called the Stockholm Conference, was the first international

conference to address environmental problems directly.

Representatives from 113 nations and over 400 NGOs attended

the Stockholm Conference. The conference produced the

Declaration of the Conference on the Human Environment, which

stated that every person deserved a clean, healthy environment.

The conference also produced an Action Plan, which contained

109 specific recommendations for improving the environment,

including limiting the use of ozone-depleting chlorofluorocarbons

(CFCs).

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In 1983 the United Nations convened the World Commission on

Environment and Development (WCED), also known as the

Brundtland Commission. The commission addressed the ongoing

deterioration of the environment and depletion of natural

resources and the effect that these conditions had on human

social and economic activities. The most notable result of the

Brundtland Commission was the publication of its report, Our

Common Future, in 1987.

Our Common Future stressed the need for sustainable

development that would promote economic growth while

protecting the environment for future generations. The report laid

the international political groundwork for the Earth Summit by

establishing the environment and sustainable development

among the most pressing international issues.

Impacts and Issues

Earth Summit 1992 produced several long-range reports and

implementation plans that continue to serve as blueprints for

international action on environmental issues, including the World

Summit on Sustainable Development (Earth Summit 2002) and

the Kyoto Protocol. Earth Summit 1992 produced the Rio

Declaration on Environment and Development, the Statement of

Forest Principles, and Agenda 21. The Earth Summit also led to

the establishment of the Convention on Biological Diversity, and

the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

(UNFCCC).

The Rio Declaration on Environment and Development is a set of

principles that defines the rights and responsibilities of nations in

the areas of environmental protection and sustainable

development. The Rio Declaration states that nations have the

right to exploit natural resources within their borders if their

actions do not affect the environment in other nations. It also calls

on all national and local governments to develop and implement


plans that preserve the environment and natural resources for

future generations.

The Statement of Forest Principles called for sustainable

management of forests worldwide. It is a nonbinding document

produced through compromise after developed nations refused to

pay for the setting aside of national forests by developing nations.

Agenda 21 is a comprehensive plan for intergovernmental

agencies, national governments, local governments, and NGOs

to work together to protect the environment through sustainable

development. It contains four categories: Social and Economic

Dimensions, Conservation and Management of Resources for

Development, Strengthening the Role of Major Groups, and

Means of Implementation. The United Nations Commission on

Sustainable Development is primarily responsible for the

implementation of Agenda 21.

Agenda 21 recognized that developing nations and developed

nations both contribute to environmental degradation. Poorer

nations often have less restrictive environmental regulations and

focus on economic development. Despite stronger environmental

regulations, developed nations have patterns of production and

consumption that pollute the environment.

Agenda 21, therefore, addressed environmental issues through

detailed social and economic proposals. Agenda 21 proposed

addressing environmental issues through combating poverty,

conserving and managing natural resources, preventing

deforestation, promoting sustainable agriculture, addressing

production and consumption patterns, and protecting the

atmospheres and oceans.

The Rio Earth Summit also produced two international

environmental treaties, Convention on Biological Diversity and


the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.

The Convention on Biological Diversity was the first international

treaty to address preservation of biological diversity. Over 180

countries have signed the Convention on Biological Diversity.

The Convention on Biological Diversity has three primary goals:

conservation of biodiversity; sustainable use of the components

of biodiversity; and a fair and equitable sharing of the benefits

that arise from using biological resources. In order to achieve

these goals, the

WORDS TO KNOW

BIODIVERSITY: Literally, “life diversity”: the wide range of plants

and animals that exist within any given geographical region.

CHLOROFLUOROCARBONS: Chemical compounds containing

chlorine, fluorine, carbon, and oxygen. They are widely used in

refrigeration and air-conditioning systems and are destructive of

the ozone layer in Earth’s stratosphere.

GREENHOUSE GAS: A gas whose accumulation in the

atmosphere increases heat retention.

NON-GOVERNMENTAL ORGANIZATION (NGO): A voluntary

organization that is not part of any government; often organized

to address a specific issue or perform a humanitarian function.

Convention on Biological Diversity balances traditional

conservation efforts with the economic reality of sustainable use

of natural resources.

The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change is

an international treaty proposed at the Rio Earth Summit. The

UNFCCC seeks to combat global climate change by reducing

greenhouse-gas emissions. Over 190 nations have ratified the

UNFCCC.


The stated purpose of the UNFCCC is to allow governments to

perform the following acts: gather and share information on

greenhouse-gas emissions, national policies, and effective

practices; launch national strategies for addressing greenhouse-

gas emissions; and cooperate in preparing for adaptation to the

impacts of global climate change. The UNFCCC includes a

provision whereby developed countries provide financial and

technological support for developing nations to address global

climate change.

The Kyoto Protocol is the most well-known and far-reaching

action taken under the UNFCCC. The Kyoto Protocol is an

international treaty that seeks to stabilize greenhouse-gas

emissions by committing countries to specific greenhouse-gas

emissions goals. The Kyoto Protocol was adopted at the Third

Conference of the Parties (COP) to the UNFCCC in 1997, and

the treaty went into effect in February 2005.

The Kyoto Protocol requires developed countries to reduce their

greenhouse-gas emissions to 5% below 1990 levels by 2012.

The Kyoto Protocol places a heavier burden on developed

nations for two reasons. First, these nations have the economic

resources to pay for a reduction in greenhouse-gas emissions

through technological advancements. Second, developed nations

have historically produced more greenhouse-gas emissions per

Capita. As of mid-2008, the United States had not signed the

Kyoto Protocol.

The effects of the Rio Earth Summit are still shaping international

efforts to improve the environment through ongoing actions under

Agenda 21, the Convention on Biodiversity, and the UNFCCC.

The Kyoto Protocol will require developed nations to reduce

greenhouse-gas emissions through 2012, at which point the

UNFCCC hopes to have ratified a new framework for reducing

greenhouse-gas emissions.


International Day for Biological Diversity 22 May

Convention on Biodiversity

The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is an international legally-binding treaty with three main goals: conservation of biodiversity; sustainable use of biodiversity; fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising from the use of genetic resources. Its overall objective is to encourage actions, which will lead to a sustainable future.

The conservation of biodiversity is a common concern of humankind. The Convention on Biological Diversity covers biodiversity at all levels: ecosystems, species and genetic resources. It also covers biotechnology, including through the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety. In fact, it covers all possible domains that are directly or indirectly related to biodiversity and its role in development, ranging from science, politics and education to agriculture, business, culture and much more.

The CBD’s governing body is the Conference of the Parties (COP). This ultimate authority of all governments (or Parties) that have ratified the treaty meets every two years to review progress, set priorities and commit to work plans.

The Secretariat of the Convention on Biological Diversity (SCBD) is based in Montreal, Canada. Its main function is to assist governments in the implementation of the CBD and its programmes of work, to organize meetings, draft documents, and coordinate with other international organizations and collect and spread information. The Executive Secretary is the head of the Secretariat.

Facts and Figures

The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was opened for signature at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro on 5 June 1992 and entered into force on 29 December 1993.

To date, there are 193 Parties.

Components of biodiversity are all the various forms of life on Earth including ecosystems, animals, plants, fungi, microorganisms, and genetic diversity.

With its three objectives, the CBD is often seen as the key international instrument for sustainable development.

Ecosystems, species and genetic resources should be used for the benefit of humans, but in a way that does not lead to the decline of biodiversity.

Substantial investments are required to conserve biodiversity, but it will bring significant environmental, economic and social benefits in return.

The Ecosystem Approach, an integrated strategy for the management of resources, is the framework for action under the Convention.

The precautionary principle states that where there is a threat of significant reduction or loss of biological diversity, lack of full scientific certainty should not be used as a reason for postponing measures to avoid or minimize such a threat

Kyoto Protocol INTERNATIONAL TREATY, 1997

Kyoto Protocol, in full Kyoto Protocol to the United Nations Framework Convention

on Climate Change, international treaty, named for the Japanese city in which it was

adopted in December 1997, that aimed to reduce the emission of gases that contribute

to global warming. In force since 2005, the protocol called for reducing the emission of

six greenhouse gases in 41 countries plus the European Union to 5.2 percent below 1990

levels during the “commitment period” 2008–12. It was widely hailed as the most

significant environmental treaty ever negotiated, though some critics questioned its

effectiveness.

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Background And Provisions

The Kyoto Protocol was adopted as the first addition to the United Nations Framework

Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), an international treaty that committed its

signatories to develop national programs to reduce their emissions of greenhouse gases.

Greenhouse gases, such as carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O),

perfluorocarbons (PFCs), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), and sulfur hexafluoride (SF6),

affect the energy balance of the global atmosphere in ways expected to lead to an overall

increase in global average temperature, known as global warming (see also greenhouse

effect). According to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change, established by

the United Nations Environment Programme and the World Meteorological

Organization in 1988, the long-term effects of global warming would include a general

rise in sea level around the world, resulting in the inundation of low-lying coastal areas

and the possible disappearance of some island states; the melting of glaciers, sea ice, and

Arctic permafrost; an increase in the number of extreme climate-related events, such

as floods and droughts, and changes in their distribution; and an increased risk

of extinction for 20 to 30 percent of all plant and animal species. The Kyoto Protocol

committed most of the Annex I signatories to the UNFCCC (consisting of members of

the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development and several countries with

“economies in transition”) to mandatory emission-reduction targets, which varied

depending on the unique circumstances of each country. Other signatories to the

UNFCCC and the protocol, consisting mostly of developing countries, were not required

to restrict their emissions. The protocol entered into force in February 2005, 90 days after

being ratified by at least 55 Annex I signatories that together accounted for at least 55

percent of total carbon dioxide emissions in 1990.

The protocol provided several means for countries to reach their targets. One approach

was to make use of natural processes, called “sinks,” that remove greenhouse gases from

the atmosphere. The planting of trees, which take up carbon dioxide from the air, would

be an example. Another approach was the international program called the Clean

Development Mechanism (CDM), which encouraged developed countries to invest in

technology and infrastructure in less-developed countries, where there were often

significant opportunities to reduce emissions. Under the CDM, the investing country

could claim the effective reduction in emissions as a credit toward meeting its obligations

under the protocol. An example would be an investment in a clean-burning natural

gas power plant to replace a proposed coal-fired plant. A third approach was emissions

trading, which allowed participating countries to buy and sell emissions rights and

thereby placed an economic value on greenhouse gas emissions. European countries

initiated an emissions-trading market as a mechanism to work toward meeting their

commitments under the Kyoto Protocol. Countries that failed to meet their emissions

targets would be required to make up the difference between their targeted and actual

emissions, plus a penalty amount of 30 percent, in the subsequent commitment period,

beginning in 2012; they would also be prevented from engaging in emissions trading until

they were judged to be in compliance with the protocol. The emission targets for

commitment periods after 2012 were to be established in future protocols.

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carbon dioxide emissionsMap of annual carbon dioxide emissions by country in 2014.Encyclopædia Britannica, Inc.

Challenges

Although the Kyoto Protocol represented a landmark diplomatic accomplishment, its

success was far from assured. Indeed, reports issued in the first two years after the treaty

took effect indicated that most participants would fail to meet their emission targets. Even

if the targets were met, however, the ultimate benefit to the environmentwould not be

significant, according to some critics, since China, the world’s leading emitter of

greenhouse gases, and the United States, the world’s second largest emitter, were not

bound by the protocol (China because of its status as a developing country and the United

States because it had not ratified the protocol). Other critics claimed that the emission

reductions called for in the protocol were too modest to make a detectable difference in

global temperatures in the subsequent several decades, even if fully achieved with U.S.

participation. Meanwhile, some developing countries argued that

improving adaptation to climate variability and change was just as important as reducing

greenhouse gas emissions.

Treaty Extension And Replacement

At the 18th Conference of the Parties (COP18), held in Doha, Qatar, in 2012, delegates

agreed to extend the Kyoto Protocol until 2020. They also reaffirmed their pledge from

COP17, which had been held in Durban, South Africa, in 2011, to create a

new, comprehensive, legally binding climate treaty by 2015 that would require

greenhouse-gas-producing countries—including major carbon emitters not abiding by the

Kyoto Protocol (such as China, India, and the United States)—to limit and reduce their

emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases. The new treaty, planned for

implementation in 2020, would fully replace the Kyoto Protocol.

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After a series of conferences mired in disagreements, delegates at the COP21, held in

Paris, France, in 2015, signed a global but nonbinding agreement to limit the increase of

the world’s average temperature to no more than 2 °C (3.6 °F) above preindustrial levels

while at the same time striving to keep this increase to 1.5 °C (2.7 °F) above preindustrial

levels. The landmark accord, signed by all 196 signatories of the UNFCCC, effectively

replaced the Kyoto Protocol. It also mandated a progress review every five years and the

development of a fund containing $100 billion by 2020—which would be replenished

annually—to help developing countries adopt non-greenhouse-gas-producing

technologies.

The Paris Agreement

Paris Agreement: essential elements

The Paris Agreement builds upon the Convention and for the first time brings all nations into a common cause

to undertake ambitious efforts to combat climate change and adapt to its effects, with enhanced support to assist

developing countries to do so. As such, it charts a new course in the global climate effort.

The Paris Agreement central aim is to strengthen the global response to the threat of climate change by keeping

a global temperature rise this century well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels and to pursue

efforts to limit the temperature increase even further to 1.5 degrees Celsius. Additionally, the agreement aims to

strengthen the ability of countries to deal with the impacts of climate change. To reach these ambitious goals,

appropriate financial flows, a new technology framework and an enhanced capacity building framework will be

put in place, thus supporting action by developing countries and the most vulnerable countries, in line with their

own national objectives. The Agreement also provides for enhanced transparency of action and support through

a more robust transparency framework. Further information on key aspects of the Agreement can be found here.

Nationally determined contributions

The Paris Agreement requires all Parties to put forward their best efforts through nationally determined

contributions (NDCs) and to strengthen these efforts in the years ahead. This includes requirements that all

Parties report regularly on their emissions and on their implementation efforts.

Further information on NDCs can be found here.

In 2018, Parties will take stock of the collective efforts in relation to progress towards the goal set in the Paris

Agreement and to inform the preparation of NDCs.

There will also be a global stocktake every 5 years to assess the collective progress towards achieving the

purpose of the Agreement and to inform further individual actions by Parties.

Status of ratification

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The Paris Agreement entered into force on 4 November 2016, thirty days after the date on which at least 55

Parties to the Convention accounting in total for at least an estimated 55 % of the total global greenhouse gas

emissions have deposited their instruments of ratification, acceptance, approval or accession with the

Depositary.

The Paris Agreement entered into force on 4 November 2016, thirty days after the date on which at least 55

Parties to the Convention accounting in total for at least an estimated 55 % of the total global greenhouse gas

emissions have deposited their instruments of ratification, acceptance, approval or accession with the

Depositary.

Authoritative information on the status of the Paris Agreement, including information on signatories to the

Agreement, ratification and entry into force, is provided by the Depositary, through the United Nations Treaty

Collection website, which can be accessed here, and the Depositary Notifications which are available here.

The first part of session of the Conference of the Parties serving as the Meeting of the Parties to the Paris

Agreement (CMA 1.1) took place in Marrakech, Morocco from 15-18 November 2016. The second part of the

first session (CMA 1.2) took place under the Presidency of Fiji, in Bonn, Germany, from 6-18 November 2017.

The third part of the first session (CMA 1.3) will be held in conjunction with the 24th session of the Conference

of the Parties (COP 24) in Katowice, Poland, in December 2018.

International Solar Alliance

The International Solar Alliance is a common platform for cooperation among sun-rich countries lying fully or

partially between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn who are seeking to massively ramp up solar energy,

thereby helping to bend the global greenhouse emissions curve whilst providing clean and cheap energy.

Countries, bilateral and multilateral organisations, companies, industries, and stakeholders aim to reduce the

cost of finance and cost of technology for the immediate deployment of competitive solar generation, storage

and technologies adapted to countries' individual needs and to mobilize billions of dollars for solar.

The initiative was launched at the UN Climate Change Conference in Paris at the end of 2015 by the President

of France and the Prime Minister of India.

French President Hollande acknowledged that developing countries need technology and capacity building to

quickly take solar energy to scale, and that initial public financing and initiatives to unlock private finance is

important for solar energy to take hold in developing countries.

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Indian Prime Minister Modi said that he was encouraged by the industry support show so far for solar energy.

He said: “the sun is the source of all energy. The world must turn to solar, the power of our future.”

The alliance includes around 80 countries that support a common declaration.

Joint efforts include innovative policies, projects, programmes, capacity building measures and financial

instruments to mobilise more than USD 1 trillion dollars of investments that are needed by 2030. The reduced

cost of finance would enable the undertaking of more ambitious solar energy programmes.

The aim is for countries to work together towards the deployment of appropriate benchmarks, facilitating

resource assessments, supporting research and development and demonstration facilities, with a view to

encourage innovative and affordable applications of solar technologies.

Five Key Focus Areas

Key focus areas to achieve these objectives are to:

promote solar technologies, new business models and investment in the solar sector to enhance prosperity

formulate projects and programmes to promote solar applications

develop innovative financial mechanisms to reduce cost of capital

build a common knowledge e-Portal

facilitate capacity building for promotion and absorption of solar technologies and R&D among member

countries

http://newsroom.unfccc.int/clean-energy/international-solar-energy-alliance-launched-at-cop21/

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DIWAKAR EDUCATION HUB (COMBO)

1. Which one of the following pairs is correctly

matched?

(a) Biosphere — Eduard Suess

(b) Ecosystem — A.P. de Candolle

(c) Ecology — A.G. Tansley

(d) Biodiversity — Reiter

2. Which of the following groups of gases contribute

to the ‘Green House Effect’?

(a) Ammonia and Ozone

(b) Carbon mono-oxide and Sulphur di-oxide

(c) Carbon tetrafluoride and Nitrous oxide

(d) Carbon dioxide and Methane

3. Which one of the following is the correct

definition of “ Agenda 21” ?

(a) It is an action plan of U.N.O for protecting

human rights.

(b) It is a book of 21 chapters on nuclear

disarmament.

(c) It is an action plan for the sustainable

development.

(d) It is an agenda for the election of the

president in the next meeting of SAARC.

4. Environmental degradation means

(a) Overall lowering of environmental qualities.

(b) Adverse change brought in by human

activities.

(c) Ecological imbalance

(d) All the above

5. Which of the following countries suffer from the

acid rains?

1. Canada 2. France

3. Norway 4. Germany

Select the correct answers from the codes given

below:

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

6. Which of the following statements about

Radioactive pollution are correct?

1. It causes genetic changes in the animals.

2. It causes disbalance among different

minerals in the soil.

3. It hinders blood circulation.

4. It causes cancers.

Select the correct answer from the codes given

below:

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

7. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): Natural vegetation is the true

index of climate.

Reason (R): Water loving plants are found in

moist climate

In the context of the above statements, which one

of the following is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct

explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

8. Which of the following conditions indicate the

impact of global warming?

1. Melting of glaciers

2. Lowering down of sea level

3. Changes in weather conditions

4. Rise in global temperature

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General Science || E-75


below:

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

9. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Forests are a renewable resource.

Reason (R): They enhance the quality of

environment.


below:

Codes:


explanation of A.


explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.

10. As an ecosystem, wetlands are useful for which

of the following?

(a) For nutrient recovery and cycling

(b) For releasing heavy metals through

absorption by plants.

(c) They maintain the rivers and control floods.

(d) All the above

11. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly

matched?

(a) Kyoto Protocol — Carbon Trading

(b) Environmental — Leopold Matrix

impact assessment

(c) The year without — 1816

summer

(d) Milankovich — On the origin of

Theory Species

12. Which of the following statements are true about

ecosystem? Select the correct answer from the

codes:

1. Ecosystem comprises both biotic and abiotic

components.

2. Solar radiation is the main driving force of

the ecosystem.

3. Ecosystem is a closed system. 4. Ecosystem does not have its own

productivity

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4


Assertion (A): Plants are called primary

producers.

Reason (R): Plants produce their food themselves

through the process of photosynthesis.


below:


explanation of A.


explanation of A.



14. Which one of the following statements is not

correct?

(a) Ecosystem’s structure, species composition

and functioning change seasonally between

years.

(b) Nature has spent millions of years to refine a

stable ecosystem.

(c) Ecosystem functions mainly through the

input of solar energy

(d) The relative loss of energy due to respiration

decreases with higher trophic levels.


Assertion (A): Conservation is a basic element

of environmental planning.

Reason (R): Conservation and development are

complementary to each other.


below

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are ture and R is the correct

explanation of A.


explanation of A.



16. Which one of the following does not promote

stability of the ecosystem?

(a) Balancing between production and

consumption of each element in the

ecosystem.

(b) Balance between input and output of energy.


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E-76 || Environment and Ecology

(c) Normal functioning of different biochemical

cycles.

(d) Increase of human population.


Assertion (A): Ecological productivity decreases

from the equator towards the poles.

Reason (R): Insolation rapidly decreases from

the equator towards the poles.


below:

Codes:


explanation of A.


explanation of A.



18. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The relative loss of energy due to respiration

is lower from higher trophic levels.

(b) Species at higher trophic levels appear to be

less efficient in using their available food

supply.

(c) Higher trophic levels tend to be less discrete

than the lower ones.

(d) Food chains tend to be reasonably long.


Assertion (A): Organic farming reduces the

emission of greenhouse gases.

Reason (R): Organic forming utilise alternate

practices.


below:

Codes:


explanation of A.


explanation of A.



20. How does National Biodiversity Authority

(NBA) help in protecting the Indian agriculture?

1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the

indigenous and traditional genetic resources.

2. National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)

directly monitors and supervises the

scientific research on genetic modification

of crop plants.

3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights

related to genetic/biological resources can

not be made without the approval of NBA.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

21. Consider the following protected areas: 1. Bandipur 2. Bhitarkanika

3. Manas 4. Sunderbans

Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

22. With reference to the wetland of India, consider

the following statements:

1. The country’s total geographical area under

the category of wetlands is recorded more in

Gujarat as compared to other states.

2. In India, the total geographical area of

coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland

wetlands.


correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

23. Which of the following can be threats to the

biodiversity of a geographical area?

1. Global warming

2. Fragmentation of habitat

3. Invasion of alien species

4. Promotion of vegetarianism

Select the correct answer using the codes given

below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only


1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower

latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.

2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity

is normally greater in the lower altitudes as

compared to the higher altitudes.


correct?


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(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Codes:

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 A B C D

25. The Red Data Books published by the (a) 1 2 3 4

International Union for Conservation of Nature (b) 4 3 2 1

and Natural Resources (IUCN) contains lists of (c) 3 4 1 2

1. Endemic plant and animal species present in (d) 2 3 1 4

the bio-diversity hotspots. 2. Threatened plant and animal species.

3. Protected sites for conservation of nature

and natural resources in various countries.


below:

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3

26. Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence

in the following ways:

1. Soil formation

2. Prevention of soil erosion

3. Recycling of waste

4. Pollination of crops


below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct

answer from the codes given below:

List-I List-II

(National Park) (Location)

A. Gir 1. Assam

B. Sundarban 2. Gujarat

C. Betla 3. West Bengal

D. Kaziranga 4. Jharkhand

Codes:

(a) A 1

B 3

C 4

D 2

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 2 3 4 1

(d) 4 2 3 1


answer from the codes given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Biosphere sites) (Year of setting-up)

29. Which of the following regions of India have

been designated as biodiversity hotspots?


below:

1. Eastern Himalaya 2. Eastern Ghat

3. Western Ghat 4. Western Himalaya

Codes:


(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only


answer from the code given below:

List-I List-II

(Biosphere Reserve) (State)

A. Dehang-Debang 1. Odisha

B. Manas 2. Meghalaya

C. Nokrek 3. Assam

D. Similipal 4. Arunachal Pradesh

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 1 3 4

(c) 4 3 2 1

(d) 3 4 1 2

31. Arrange the following states of India indescending

order of their mangrove cover and select the correct

answers from the codes given below:

1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Gujarat

3. Odisha 4. West Bengal

Codes:

(a) 3, 2, 1, 4 (b) 1, 2, 4, 3

(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 4, 2, 1, 3



List-I List-II

A. Biodiversity 1. G. Tansley

B. Wildlife 2. E.O. Wilson

C. Ecosystem 3. E. Haeckel

D. Ecology 4. W.T. Hornaday

A. Nilgiri 1. 2000

B. Nanda Devi 2. 1989

C. Sundarban 3. 1988

D. Kanchanjunga 4. 1986


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Codes: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

A B C D (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a) 2 4 3 1 37. Which of the following are the incorrect

(b) 2 4 1 3 statements about 'Keystone species'.

(c) 4 2 3 1 1. Keystone species are the small-sized plants

(d) 4 2 1


3 and organisms which have large effect on

the environment.

1. Dachigam National Park is in Jammu and

Kashmir.

2. Loktak lake is known as floating national

park.

3. Loktak lake is located in Assam.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2 and 3



List-I List-II

(Sanctuaries) (State)

A. Namdapha 1. Karnataka

B. Periyar 2. Arunachal Pradesh

C. Bandipur 3. Manipur

D. Lamjao 4. Kerala

Codes: A B C D

(a) 2 4 1 3

(b) 4 2 1 3

(c) 4 2 3 1

(d) 2 4 3 1

35. Consider the following kinds of organisms and

identify the pollinating agent/agents.

(a) Bat and Bee but not bird

(c) Bee, bat and birds

(c) Hummingbird but not bee

(d) Wind, bee, bat, birds.

36. Consider the following statements regarding the

Millennium Assessment (MA) report 2005 and

choose the correct ones:

1. MA defines Ecosystem services as benefits people obtain from ecosystems.

2. It includes supporting services and

provisioning services only.

2. Keystone species play critical role in

maintaining the structure of an ecological

community.

3. Keystone species do not generally affect

other organisms.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) All are correct


Assertion (A): Many mangrove plants possess

high levels of organic solutes.

Reason (R): This is an adaptation to survive and

grow in salty waters. Select the correct answer

from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both Aand R are true R is correct explanation

of A.


explanation of A.




Assertion (A): Amensalism is a negative

interaction between two living individuals.

Reason (R): In amensalism, allochemicals are

secreted by one individual.

Select the correct code:

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true, R is correct

explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the

correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true, R is false.

(d) A is false, R is true.


Assertion (A): Use of weedicides affect photo-

synthetic ability of plants.

Reason (R): Weedicides are metabolic inhibitors.


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Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true, R is correct

explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the


(c) A is true, R is false.

(d) A is false, R is true.

41. Consider the following statements and choose the

correct ones:

1. A new online Atlas of freshwater biodiversity

has been launched on 29 January, 2014

which is an output of Biofresh.

2. This will help in managing and protecting

the freshwater in future.


(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2


correct ones.

1. The prestigious Gold Standard Foundation

(GSF) certification has been awarded to the

Kolkata Metro, on 2 February, 2014.

2. This certification is given for using the

energy efficiently.

3. Kolkata Metro has become the first ever

railway system in the world with GSF

certification standard.


(c) 1 only (d) 2 only


correct ones.

1. The International Union for Conservation

of Nature (IUCN) is the world's oldest and

largest global environmental organization.

2. IUCN was founded in 1948, its Green

data book does conservation planning,

monitoring to protect endangered species.

3. On 30 January, 2014, IUCN announced that

it is celebrating 50 years of the IUCN Red

List of threatened species.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) All are correct


wrong ones.

1. The World's largest archipelago, Indonesia

is prone to seismic activities and dangers

associated with it.

2. Indonesia is located on the so-called Pacific

"Ring of Fire", which is an arc of volcanoes

and fault lines.

3. An earthquake of magnitude 7.1 rocked

parts of Indonesia's main Java Island on 25

January, 2014.


(c) 2 only (d) 3 only

45. As per National Aeronautics and Space Adminis-

tration (NASA) research scientists found that

concentrations of mercury near the ground level

had increased in the Arctic Sea by mercury-

pumping reaction which takes place because -

1. of open water in a lead is much warmer than

the air above it.

2. of the temperature difference, the air above

the lead churns like the air above a boiling

pot.

3. the mixing is so strong that it actually pulls

down mercury from a higher layer of the

atmosphere to near the surface.

Select the answer from the codes given below-


(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above

46. Biodiesel researchers have produced hydrocarbons

in bacterium—

(a) Escherichia coli

(b) Streptococcus pyogenes

(c) Vibrio cholerae

(d) Enteritis salmonella

47. A new nuclear waste disposal strategy announced

by United States include-

1. a “pilot interim store” will become

operational in 2021

2. a larger “full-scale interim store” will open

be open by 2025

3. an underground disposal facility to be

established by 2048 to permanently dispose

of the material.

4. a new organisation will be established

to manage the siting, development and

operation of the future waste stores.


(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above


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48. Consider the following statements

1. The Pacific salmon fish uses the Earth's

magnetic field to find their way

2. Machli, Queen Mother of tiger dynasty was

found in the Ranthambhore National Park,

India.



(c) both 1 and 2 (d) None of these

49. Which of the following statements are correct ?

1. A new study has found that changes in solar

activity contributed no more than 10 per

cent to global warming in the 20th century

published in the journal Environmental

Research Letters.

2. It has been proposed that cosmic rays may

have a role incoolingtheearth by encouraging

clouds to form, which subsequently reflect

the sun’s rays back into space.

3. Researchers found high correlation between

cosmic rays and global temperatures

occurring every 22 years.




50. The International Union for Conservation of

Nature (IUCN) red list version 2013 of the

birds indicates 15 species of birds from India as

critically endangered. The reason for the decline

in the number of these birds are:

1. Loss, modification, fragmentation and degradation of habitat

2. Environmental contaminants

3. Poaching

4. Use changes mainly conversion of large

areas to intensive crop cultivation


(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2, 3, and 4

(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) All of the above

51. The International Union for Conservation of

Nature (IUCN) on 30 January 2014 completed

its 50 years of the IUCN Red List of Threatened

Species in guiding conservation action and policy

decisions. The IUCN:

1. acts as a powerful tool to inform and catalyse

action for biodiversity conservation and

policy change for things that are critical to

protect the natural resources that are needed

by us to survive.

2. provides the information on population size

as well as trends depending upon the range

and habitat needs of species.



(c) both 1 and 2 (d) None of these

52. The steps taken by the Government of India for

conversion of endangered species are

1. The Central Government has enacted

the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 for

protection of wildlife including birds.

2. Wetland (Conservation and Management)

Rules 2010 have been framed for protection

of wetlands, in the States, which are habitats

of birds.

3. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau has been

established for control of illegal trade in

wildlife, including endangered species of

birds and their parts and products.

4. The Centrally Sponsored Scheme of

National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic

Eco-System also provides assistance to the

States for management of wetlands including

Ramsar sites in the country.


(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2, 3, and 4

(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) All of the above 53. The Delhi Metro is the first ever railway system

in the world to be awarded with the prestigious

Gold Standard Foundation (GSF) certification

standard for

(a) providing security to the people

(b) using the energy efficiently

(c) carrying largest number of passengers

(d) All of the above

54. The three species of vultures that are critically

endangered that have declined by more than 97

percent since 1990s are:

1. Egyptian vulture (Neophron percnopterus)

2. Oriental white-backed (Gyps bengalensis)

3. Long-billed (Gyps indicus) 4. Slender-billed vulture (Gyps tenuirostris) Select the answer from the codes given below- (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) None of the above


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55. Consider the following statements 1. Tree Foundation, an NGO engaged in

conservation of the sea turtle found more than 1000 dead Olive Ridley Turtles in the shores of Nagapattinam.

2. The Olive Ridley turtles find the coastline of Nagapattinam as a favourable nesting habitat and that’s why they reach to the shore from December to March every year.

3. The Olive Ridley looks very similar to the Kemp's Riddle, but has a deeper body and slightly up-turned edges to its carapace (shell).

4. Olive Ridley weighs around 45 kilograms and are 70cm in size and this makes them the smallest of the sea turtles along with Kemp riddles.

Which of the following statements are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above

56. Which of the following lake has been named Destination Flyways by the United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) on 21 January 2014?

(a) Chilika lagoon in Odisha (b) Dal Lake in Kashmir valley (c) Loktak Lake in Manipur (d) Kolleru Lake in Andhra Pradesh

57. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. First Climate Change theatre in India

(second theatre in the world) was opened at Pusa, New Delhi in January 2014.

2. The Inter-governmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) UN report on 17 January 2014 reported that during 2000 to 2010, the CO2 has grown by 2.2 percent per year

and this rise is almost twice higher from the growth of the period of 1970 to 2000.

Answer from the codes given below:


(c) 1 and 2 only (d) None of these

58. G.B. Pant Institute of Himalayan Environment

and Development (GBPIHED) released the

Report titled Estimation of retreat of Gangotri

glacier on 7 January 2014. The Report includes-

1. Gangotri glacier is retreating in the

Himalayas and its volume and size are

shrinking between Gaumukh and Bhojbasa.

2. There is some disintegration in the upper

regions of the Gangotri glaciers due to

tectonic activities.

3. Retreat of Gangotri glaciers in this decade

was higher than in the previous decade due

to global warming.




59. In December 2013, China built a new research

station in Antarctica called

(a) Taishan (b) Great Wall

(c) Zhongshan (d) Kunlun

60. Which of the following are the new species

of freshwater catfish discovered in Idukki and

Pathanamthitta districts of Kerala in November

2013?

1. Horabagrus melanosoma

2. Mystus heoki

3. Mystus indicus

4. Mystus miami

Select the answers from the codes given below:


(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above

61. The Ministry of Environment and Forest declared

India's first marine eco-sensitive zone in –

(a) Gulf of Kutch (b) Palk Strait

(c) Gulf of Khambat (d) Gulf of Mannar

62. Which of the following has been cited as a cause

for the deaths of the Penguin chicks from the

world’s largest colony of Magellanic Penguins

(a) Lack of food (b) Warm Ocean Currents

(c) Climate Change (d) All of the above

63. Scientists from the University of Technology,

Sydney (UTS) explained that seagrass can play

a crucial role in fighting against the climate

change.Which of the following is/ are correct

about seagrass?

1. Seagrass helps by capturing and storing the

carbon by the process of photosynthesis.

2. Seagrass also traps the particles in the water

column.

3. The seagrass plant is 35 times better in

locking the carbon than the rainforests.


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(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

64. Dung beetles live in regions where cattle graze,

quickly burying and recycling cattle droppings.

Because of the dung beetles activities, breeding

habitats for disease-carrying flies are reduced and

the plants upon which cattle feed are nourished.

The relationship between the dung beetles and

the disease-carrying flies is a type of :

(a) mutualism

(b) commensalism

(c) intraspecific competition

(d) interspecific competition

65. Discussing the consequences of global climate

change at a conference, representatives of a

developing nation suggest that those nations that

contribute the most greenhouse gases (GHGs)

to the atmosphere should contribute the most

to paying for adaptive responses worldwide.

Further, this representative pointed out that her

poor country contributes less than 1% of the

annual GHGs and has less than 0.1% of the

world’s wealth. This representative’s appeal

represents:

(a) the precautionary principle

(b) the polluter pays and equity principles

(c) an argument for mitigation instead of

adaptation.

(d) stages 2 and 3 of the climate change skeptics

responses

66. Flea beetles alone are unlikely to eliminate all of

the leafy spurge in a region. Instead, the number

of leafy spurge plants and the number of flea

beetles in a particular community may stabilize.

At this point, the leafy spurge and flea beetle

populations:

(a) have exhibited exponential growth followed

by a crash

(b) have experienced constant growth

(c) are still experiencing exponential growth

(d) are experiencing environmental resistance

67. Eutrophication in the Chesapeake Bay along the

eastern edge of Maryland has resulted in low

oxygen levels in the water and alternation of food

webs. The cause of this eutrophication appears to

be pollution that contains high levels of :

(a) nitrogen and carbon

(b) nitrogen and phosphorus

(c) carbon and phosphorus

(d) carbon, nitrogen and phosphorus

68. In case of a parasitic food chain, the shape of the

pyramid of number is always:

(a) Upright (b) Linear

(c) Inverted (d) Not certain

69. In a forest, deer, raccoons, squirrels, and other

animals eat and find shelter. A detritus food web

occurs as their wastes accumulate on the forest

floor. In this detritus web:

(a) deer and raccoons function as the producers

(b) fungi and earthworms function as producers

(c) decomposers function as consumers

(d) the deer and raccoons represent decomposers

70. In a rural hilly district in Himachal Pradesh, a

land developer uses bulldozers to clear all but the

largest trees and cleans up a nearby stream, lining

the bottom of the stream with pretty rocks and

steeping-stones. Planting lawn grasses around

the base of the trees, the owner wants to create

a pretty park-like setting around his home. We

expect that in this cleared yard, there will be:

(a) more species of invertebrates in the stream

and on the land but fewer species of

vertebrates and plants everywhere

(b) more mammal and plant species, but fewer

birds and invertebrates on the land and in the

stream

(c) fewer species of vertebrates and plants

everywhere but more invertebrates in the

steam

(d) fewer species of plants, invertebrates, and

vertebrates everywhere

71. In the communities found deep in the ocean off

the shore of Japan, bacteria have special enzymes

that allow them to form organic matter by

chemosynthesis. These communities frequently

have worms, clams, shrimp and many other

organisms clustered together. These communities

nestle around hydrothermal vents where super

heated water, springs from the bottom of the

ocean. In hydrothermal vent communities, we

would not expect to find :


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(a) carbon compounds

(b) chemosynthesis

(c) chlorophyll

(d) producers

72. Iron ore mining companies are expanding

into the deep forest of Orissa where native

populations of indigenous people have lived off

the land for many centuries. In order to resolve

the growing conflicts between the natives and

the mining companies. They have been urged

by the Government officials to bring together all

of the interested parties. The mining company

operations in the forest will likely lead to the loss

of ecosystem services, such as:

(a) the depletion of iron ore from the ground

(b) the shift from logging to mining

(c) sources of freshwater

(d) the construction of new roads

73. Neena gets a new baby turtle from a friend, and

is told to feed it worms. For the first few months,

the turtle seemed to grow fine. But as time

passed, the turtle’s shell appeared soft and fragile.

Someone suggested that the turtle might not be

getting enough calcium in its diet. If this is true

for this turtle, dietary calcium is :

(a) a limiting factor

(b) an environmental condition

(c) a habitat condition

(d) a natural environmental stressor

74. On a winter day, most automobiles keep the

passengers warm by using heat generated by the

engine. This use of the heat by-product from a

gas engine is an example of :

(a) non-fossil-fuel energy

(b) cogeneration

(c) nuclear power

(d) a sustainable source of energy

75 Some farmers rotate their crops from year to year,

switching from soyabeans to corn on the same

fields. What is one of the advantages of doing

this?

(a) Soyabeans add large amounts of carbon

dioxide to the soil, which helps the corn

crop.

(b) Both crops require the same fertilizing

supplies, so farmers save by buying fertilizer

in bulk.

(c) Corn adds large amounts of phosphorus to

the soil, which helps the soyabean crop

(d) The corn crop benefits from reactive nitrogen

added to the soil by the soyabean crop

76. The concept of biodiversity hotspots is given by :

(a) F.P. Odum (b) Norman Myers

(c) James Lovelock (d) Rachel Carson

77. The concern about human-to-human transmission

of bird flu is most closely monitored by :

(a) the national governments of the countries of

the world

(b) the World Health Organization and the

Centers for Disease Control

(c) World Wide Institute for Infectious Disease

(d) International Centers for Health and Human

Disease

78. Walking along a large city park on a hot summer

day, you look for a cool resting place and sit down

on a large rock under a tree, at the quiet edge of

a stream. You have searched for and found an

example of a :

(a) microclimate (b) biome

(c) landscape (d) population

79. Which of the following is regarded as the main

cause of groundwater contamination?

(a) agricultural products

(b) landfills

(c) septic tanks

(d) All of the above main sources of ground water

contamination.

80. Chipko Movement occurred in which of following

region?

(a) Tribal areas of MP

(b) Rural area of Rajasthan

(c) Tehri Garhwal

(d) Darjeeling region

81. Which of following is One of the best solutions

to get rid of non-biodegradable wastes is :

(a) Recycling waste

(b) Burying waste

(c) Burning waste



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82. Which of following is correct statement about the

Ozone?

(a) Ozone in troposphere is good for breathing

(b) Ozone in Troposphere is not good for

breathing

(c) Ozone is present only in Troposphere.


83. Consider following statements about the Ozone

Hole

(I) Ozone formation and destruction keep on

happening

(II) Ozone destruction rate is higher than its

formation rate

(III) Ozone destruction rate is equal to the its

formation rate

Which of above statement is/ are true?

(a) (I) only

(b) (I) and (II) Only

(c) (I) and (III)

(d) (III) Only

84. Earlier there was balance between the formation

and destruction of Ozone layer but after the release

of varieties of harmful substances into atmosphere,

this balance has been disturbed. Now rate of

destruction is higher than the rate of formation of

Ozone layer which is causing widening of Ozone

hole. CFC (Chlorofluorocarbons) is one of the

sources responsible for causing hole in Ozone

layer, which of following statement is correct about

the CFC:

1. CFC is made of Chlorine, fluorine, and carbon

2. CFC is released from Refrigerant, foams in

plastic manufacturing, etc

3. Refrigerant is the major source of CFC


(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

85. Nitrogen Oxide is also held responsible for the

depletion of Ozone layer, which of the following

is source of Nitrogen Oxide?

(a) Industrial emission

(b) Fertilizers which are used in agricultural

activities

(c) Thermonuclear weapons


86. Which of the following statement is correct about

the intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

(IPCC)?

(a) IPCC was established in 1988

(b) IPCC does not evaluate the risk of climate

change on human

(c) IPCC published its first report in 1989


87. Which of following statement is true about the

Ecotone?

(a) It is meeting place of two different eco

systems

(b) It is meeting place of two same eco systems

(c) Density of species is very low here

(d) All of the above.

88. Consider following statement about the estuary

(I) Estuary is a place where the river fresh water

meets with ocean water

(II) This area is highly productive

(III) This area is highly unproductive

(IV) All of the above

Which of above the statements is/are true?

(a) (I) only (b) (II) only

(c) (I) and II) (d) (III)

89. Which of the following statement is incorrect about

the Biosphere?

(a) Biosphere is a combination of lithosphere,

hydrosphere and atmosphere

(b) Biosphere is missing at extreme of north and

south pole

(c) Organisms are uniformly present in Biosphere


90. What is the carbon credit?

(a) It is the difference between the carbon

emission allowed and actually emitted carbon

(b) It is the loan amount by IMF for reducing

pollution

(c) It is loan given to poor people for buying

Modern Stoves


91. What is the meaning of coral bleaching?

(a) Paling of coral color or decline inzooxanthellae

due to climate change

(b) Impacts of excessive sea trade on fishing

industry


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92.

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of the above

Relative contributions of CO2, CH4, CFCs and

97.

(c) Species of flowering plants

(d) None of above

Upper part of sea/aquatic ecosystem contains

N2O towards global warming are:

(a) 50 %, 30 %, 10 % , and 10 % respectively (a) plankton

(b) nekton (b) 60%, 20%, 14%, and 6% respectively (c) plankton and nekton (c) 40 %, 30%, 20% and 10% respectively (d) benthos. (d) None of the above 98. Competition for light, nutrients and space is most

93. Which of the following can be used for controlling severe between Gaseous Pollutant? (a) closely related organism growing in different (a) Arrestor (b) Incineration niches (c) Absorption (d) None of above (b) closely related organisms growing in the same

94. What does the high Biological Oxygen Demand area/niche (BOD) indicates? (c) distantly related organisms growing in the (a) High level of Microbial Pollution same habitat (b) Low level of Microbial Pollution (d) distantly related organisms growing in (c) Absence of Microbial Pollution different niches. (d) Water is fully pure 99. Deep black soil is productive due to high proportion

95. What percent of area in the plain should be under of forest? (a) sand and zinc (a) 21 % (b) 25% (b) gravel and calcium (c) 17% (d) 33% (c) clay and humus

96. Biodiversity Hotspot are characterized on the basis (d) silt and earthworm.

of:

(a) Endemic flowering plants and threat

perception

(b) Endemic flowering plants

100. Pick up the correct food chain

(a) grass chamelion insect bird

(b) grass fox rabbit bird

(c) phytoplankton zooplankton fish (d) fallen leaves bacteria insect larvae.


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ANSWER KEY

1. (a) 14. (d) 27. (c) 40. (a) 53. (b) 66. (d) 79. (d) 92. (b)

2. (d) 15. (b) 28. (b) 41. (c) 54. (d) 67. (b) 80. (c) 93. (c)

3. (c) 16. (d) 29. (b) 42. (d) 55. (b) 68. (c) 81. (a) 94. (a)

4. (d) 17. (a) 30. (c) 43. (b) 56. (a) 69. (a) 82. (b) 95. (d)

5. (b) 18. (c) 31. (d) 44. (d) 57. (b) 70. (d) 83. (b) 96. (a)

6. (b) 19. (a) 32. (b) 45. (d) 58. (d) 71. (c) 84. (d) 97. (a)

7. (a) 20. (c) 33. (c) 46. (a) 59. (a) 72. (c) 85. (d) 98. (b)

8. (c) 21. (b) 34. (a) 47. (d) 60. (c) 73. (a) 86. (a) 99. (c)

9. (b) 22. (c) 35. (d) 48. (c) 61. (a) 74. (b) 87. (a) 100. (c)

10. (d) 23. (c) 36. (a) 49. (b) 62. (c) 75. (d) 88. (c)

11. (d) 24. (c) 37. (c) 50. (d) 63. (d) 76. (b) 89. (c)

12. (a) 25. (b) 38. (a) 51. (c) 64. (d) 77. (b) 90. (a)

13. (a) 26. (d) 39. (b) 52. (d) 65. (b) 78. (a) 91. (a)

1. (a) Eduard Suess was an Austrian, responsible

for hypothesising two major former geographical

features, the supercontinent Gondwana and the

Tethys Ocean.The term "biosphere" was coined by

geologist Eduard Suess in 1875, which he defined as

"The place on Earth's surface where life dwells."

2. (d) The most abundant greenhouse gases in Earth's

atmosphere are:

Water vapor (H2O), Carbon dioxide (CO2), Methane

(CH4), Nitrous oxide (N2O), Ozone (O3) and CFCs.

3. (c) Agenda 21 is a non-binding, voluntarily

implemented action plan of the United Nations

with regard to sustainable development. It is a

product of the UN Conference on Environment and

Development (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro,

Brazil, in 1992. The "21" in Agenda 21 refers to the

21st Century.

4. (d) Environmental degradation means lowering of

environmental qualities, adverse changes by human

activities and ecological imbalance.

5. (b) United States and Canada are the countries

which are mostly affected by acid rain because of

high number of factories, power plants and large

number of automotive plants. Europe, Poland,

Germany, Czech Republic, Sweden, Norway

and Finland are affected because of British and

European factories. In Asia, India and China are

mostly affected mainly because of the large number

of factories.

6. (b) Radioactive contamination or pollution causes

severe life- threatening consequences in organisms.

Because of the radioactive decay of thecontaminants,

which emit harmful ionising radiation such as alpha

or beta particles, gamma rays or neutrons, genetic

mutations occur which are hereditary. Carcinogenic

contaminants cause cancer.

7. (a) Natural vegetation is the true index of climate

because water loving plants are found in moist

climate.

8. (c) Global warming is the increase in the global

temperature. It has put many negative impacts on

glaciers causing them to start melting, so, rise of sea

level. Unpredictable weather conditions prevailing

in some geographical areas are some of the other

effects of global warming.

Hints & Solutions


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9. (b) Forests are renewable natural resources and

enhance the quality of environment by providing

the Oxygen needed to sustain life on the earth.

Although both assertion and reason are correct

statements but reason is not the correct explanation

of the assertion.

10. (d) As an ecosystem, wetlands are useful for

nutrient recovery and cycling, releasing heavy

metals through absorption by plants. They also

control floods and maintain floods.

11. (d) The Milankovitch theory is an explanation

of long term climate change. The book ‘On the

Origin of Species’ was written by Charles Darwin,

published on 24 November 1859.

12. (a) Ecosystem is the dynamic community of

living organism with physical environment. Thus,

it comprises of both biotic and abiotic components.

Solar energy is the ultimate source of energy in it, so

is the main driving force. Dynamic energy transfers

occur making it an open system. The autotrophs

make the ecosystem’s biotic components self-

sufficient.

13. (a) Plants are called primary producers because

plants produce their food themselves through the

process of photosynthesis.

14. (d) As we go higher in the trophic levels through

the food chain, the loss of energy due to respiration

as well as metabolic activities successively increase.

So, there occurs the transference of only 10% of the

preceding trophic level to the next higher trophic

level.

15. (b) Both the assertion and reason are correct

statements but the later is not the correct explanation

of the former. The basic planning for environment

includes ‘conservation of organisms and resources’

as the most valuable component. Development can

be complementary to conservation, only when it is

sustainable.

16. (d) The ever-increasing human population creates

a loss of natural habitat of organisms and have other

impacts such as various kinds of pollution. Thus,

the ecosystem gets imbalanced in many ecological

terms.

17. (a) Both the statements are true and R is the


18. (c) The relative loss of energy increases in

successive trophic levels. Primary consumers use

10% of the energy stored in plants. Secondary and

tertiary consumers transfer 20% of the energy from

their own bodies so they are more efficient. In going

from lower to higher trophic levels energy transfers

are insufficient so making the food chains limited

to only 4-5 trophic levels. Higher trophic levels are

less discrete due to their less specialised food habits.

19. (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct

explanation of A. Organic farming depends on on-

farm resources, using alternative sources like usage

of no chemical pesticides and fertilizers, on- farm

practices which do not depend on fossil fuels

consumption.

20. (c) The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)

an autonomous body was established in 2003 to

implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002).

21. (b) Bandipur National Park, a tiger reserve is

located in the south Indian state of Karnataka.

Manas National Park or Manas Wildlife Sanctuary

is a National Park, UNESCO Natural World

Heritage site, a Project Tiger Reserve, an Elephant

Reserve and a Biosphere Reserve in Assam. The

Sundarban National Park is a National Park, Tiger

Reserve, and a Biosphere Reserve in India. It is a

part of the Sundarbans on the Ganges Delta of India

and Bangladesh.

Bhitarkanika National Park is a national park

located in the Kendrapara District Odisha, which is

not specifically for Tiger reserve.

22. (c) Wetlands cover around 3% of the total land

area of India. Gujarat occupies around 3 million

hectares of wetlands out of India’s total 10 million

hectares of wetland area. India has total 27,403

wetands, of which 23,444 are inland wetlands and

3,959 are coastal wetlands but the coastal wetlands

occupy an estimated 6,750 sq km, which is more

than the inland wetlands.

23. (c) Global Warming, fragmentation of habitat and

invasion of alien species can be threats to the bio-

diversity of a geographical area.

24. (c) There is an increase in biodiversity from the

poles to the tropics. Thus localities at lower latitudes

have more species than localities at higher latitudes.


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25. (b) The ICUN Red list of threatened species or the

Red Data Book is the state document established

for documenting rare and endangered species

of animals, plants and fungi existing within the

territory of the state or country.

26. (d) Biological diversity helps in the formation

and maintenance of soil structure and the retention

of moisture and nutrient levels. Trees on the other

hand, lower the water table and remove deposited

salt from the upper soil horizons.

27. (c) The Gir Forest National Park and Wildlife

Sanctuary is a forest and wildlife sanctuary in

Gujarat. It is the sole home of the Asiatic Lions

(Panthera leopersica). Sundarbans National Park

in West Bengal is the home of Bengal tigers. Betla

National Park is located in the Chota Nagpur Plateau

of the Latehar district of Jharkhand. Kaziranga

National Park is located in Golaghat and Nagaon

districts of Assam, a World Heritage Site, the park

hosts two-thirds of the world's Great One-horned

Rhinoceroses.

28. (b) Nilgiri biosphere site was set up in 1986.

Nanda Devi biosphere site was set up in 1988.

Sundarban biosphere site was set up in 1989.

Kanchanjunga biosphere site was set up in 2000.

29. (b) A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic

region with a significant reservoir of biodiversity

that is under threat from humans. Around the world,

as many as 25 areas qualify to be the hotspots. Out

of which India has 2 hotspots: Eastern Himalayas

and Western Ghats.

30. (c) Dihang-Dibang or Dehang-Debang is a

biosphere reserve constituted under the Man &

Biosphere Programme. It is in the Arunachal

Pradesh. Manas National Park is in Assam. Nokrek

National Park is located in West Garo Hills district

of Meghalaya. Simlipal National Park is an elephant

reserve situated in the Mayurbhanj district in

Odisha.

31. (d) The correct descending order of mangrove

cover in the states are West Bengal, Gujarat, Andhra

Pradesh, Orissa.

32. (b) The concept of biodiversity was propounded

by E.O. Wilson. The concept of wildlife was

propounded by W. Hornaday. The concept of

Ecosystem propounded by G. Tansley. The concept

of Ecology was propounded by E. Haeckel.

33. (c) Dachigam National Park is located 22

kilometers from Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir. It

covers an area of 141 square kilometres. Loktak

Lake, the largest freshwater lake in India, also

called the only Floating lake in the world due

to the floating phumdis (heterogeneous mass of

vegetation, soil, and organic matters at various

stages of decomposition) on it, is located near

Moirang in Manipur.

34. (a) Namdapha National Park is the largest

protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity

hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh. Periyar

National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected

area in the districts of Idukki and Pathanamthitta in

Kerala. Bandipur National Park, established in 1974

as a tiger reserve under Project Tiger, is a national

park located in the south Indian state of Karnataka.

The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park

in the Bishnupur district of Manipur.

35. (d) Bees, bats and birds are the biotic pollinating

agents. Wind is also an agent of pollination but is an

abiotic agent.

36. (a) The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA)

report 2005 defines Ecosystem services as benefits

people obtain from ecosystems and distinguishes

four categories of ecosystem services: 1. Supporting

services, 2. Provisioning services, 3. Regulating

services, 4. Cultural services.

37. (c) Keystone species are not necessarily small

sized though they put great effect on the environment.

They play very critical role in maintaining the

structure of an ecological community by affecting

many other organisms. An ecosystem may

experience a dramatic shift if a keystone species

is removed, even though that species may be small

part of the ecosystem by measures of biomass or

productivity.

38. (a) Mangrove- plants have higher concentration

of salts and minerals (solutes, such as proline and

sorbitol) in the cells making their osmotic potential

higher than the surrounding water in which they

grow. This is a type of adaptation that allows water

uptake by the plants in spite of growing in salty

waters. Some mangroves also pump out excess salt

by specialised roots.


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39. (b) The term ‘ammensalism’ generally refers to

the complete or partial inhibition or death of one

organism by another through production of some

chemicals (allochemicals) as a result of metabolic

pathways. In it, none of the organisms gets any

benefit. It is more common in microbial world.

40. (a) Both A and R are true and R is correct

explanation of A. The weedicides and herbicides

are metabolic inhibitors, inhibiting the metabolic

pathways as well as photosynthesis. Some

weedicides also cause phloem cells’ proliferation so

as to block the transport of plants’ food materials.

41. (c) A new online Atlas of freshwater biodiversity

has been launched on 29 January, 2014. It will

present spatial information and species distribution

patterns. The Atlas is an output of BioFresh – an EU-

funded project in which the IUCN Global Species

Programme is a key partner. It is working to better

understand, manage and protect our freshwaters, for

generations to come.

42. (d) The prestigious Gold Standard Foundation

(GSF) certification has been awarded to the Delhi

Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC), for efficient

usage of energy, on 2 February, 2014. DMRC has

become the first ever Railway system in the world

with GSF certification standard. In 2008, DMRC

had also become the first Railway project in the

world to be registered by the UN under the Clean

Development Mechanism (CDM).

43. (b) IUCN, the world’s oldest and largest global

environmental organization, is celebrating its

completion of 50 years. It was founded in 1948. It

lists out all types of organisms vulnerable to any

kind of loss, in its Red data book.

44. (d) The earthquake felt in Java, Indonesia, had

been measured to be 6.1 on Richter’s scale. It is

prone to such tremors due to its location in Pacific

Ring of fire. One of the incidents occurred in here

in 2004 when a monster temblor off Aceh shores

triggered a tsunami that killed 230,000 people in a

dozen countries.

45. (d) Almost all of the mercury in the Arctic

atmosphere is transported there in gaseous form

from sources in areas farther south, from sources

such as wildfires, coal burning and gold mining.

Scientists have long known that mercury in the air

near ground level undergoes complex chemical

reactions that deposit the element on the surface.

Once the mercury is completely removed from

the air, these reactions stop. However, this newly

discovered mixing ice forces down additional

mercury to restart and sustains the reactions.

46. (a) The researchers isolated metabolic genes from

multiple species of bacteria and pieced them together

in Escherichia coli (E.coli) to create artificial

biochemical pathways that convert free fatty acids to

hydrocarbons. One such pathway, named CEDDEC,

contained metabolic genes from the bioluminescent

bacterium Photorhabdus luminescens and the

cyanobacterium Nostoc punctiforme. When grown

in broth containing various combinations of fatty

acids, or when modified to express additional

genes, the engineered E. coli produced molecules

that are structurally and chemically identical to 10

retail diesel fuel hydrocarbons commonly used in

temperate climates.

47. (d) The schedule is meant to reduce the growth

of the US government’s liabilities under the 1982

Nuclear Waste Policy Act, under which it was

to begin taking spent reactor fuel from power

companies in 1998. About 68,000 tonnes of used

reactor fuel remains at 72 different power plant sites

across the country, with the Department of Energy

(DoE) reimbursing power companies the cost. The

current production rate of spent fuel is 2,000 tonnes

a year. The two interim facilities will accept used

reactor fuel at a rate faster than this in order to

reduce gradually the inventory at power companies.

48. (c) It is believed that other sea creatures such

as turtles, sharks and whales may also use Earth's

magnetic field to roam the oceans.

The 17-year-old Machli is the longest living

wild tigress in the world, besides being the most

photographed big cat. The tigress was identified as

T-16. Machli had survived in the dense forest by

hunting her own prey despite her advanced age.

49. (b) The Researchers found a small correlation

between cosmic rays and global temperatures

occurring every 22 years; however, the changing

cosmic ray rate lagged behind the change in

temperatures by between one and two years,

suggesting that the cause might not be down to

cosmic rays and cloud formation but might be due

to the direct effects of the sun. By comparing the

small oscillations in the cosmic ray rate, which were

taken from data from two neutron monitors, and


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temperature with the overall trends in both since

1955, the research team found that less than 14 per

cent of the global warming seen during this period

could be attributable to solar activity.

50. (d) Other reasons for the decline in the number

of these birds are changes in cropping pattern due

to various reasons including implementation of

irrigation schemes; increased pesticide usage and

livestock-grazing; high levels of disturbance; and

developmental activities like mining and hydel

projects. This also includes collision of the birds

with vehicles, wind turbines and power lines

51. (c) The IUCN also provides the information that

is related to species-based conservation actions.

It also helps in identifying globally important

sites for conservation including important plant

areas, important bird areas, key biodiversity

areas and alliance for zero extinction sites. It

helps in influencing the decisions of conservation

at multiple scales that include environmental

impact assessments to international multilateral

environments agreements. It indicates the current

status of species and revealing trends in their

extinction risk over time, to track progress towards

biodiversity targets.

52. (d) For conservation of endangered species

Wildlife Crime Control Bureau has been established

for control of illegal trade in wildlife, including

endangered species of birds and their parts and

products. Research and monitoring activities on

birds are promoted by the Government through

reputed research organizations. Wildlife Institute

of India, Bombay Natural History society and

Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural

History are some of the research organizations

undertaking research on conservation of birds. The

Indian government has banned the veterinary use

of diclofenac drug that has caused rapid decline in

vulture population across the Indian Subcontinent.

Conservation Breeding Programmes to conserve

these vulture species have been initiated at Pinjore

(Haryana), Buxa (West Bengal) and Rani, Guwahati

(Assam) by the Bombay Natural History Society.

53. (b) GSF standard certification is a globally

accepted certification standard for carbon mitigation

projects. The Delhi Metro Rail Corporation

(DMRC) registered for the certification standard

for its energy efficiency measures undertaken in 51

stations in Phase II of the DMRC Project. The energy

efficiency measures were primarily undertaken in

the heating, venting and air conditioning (HVAC)

systems, lighting system and other energy efficient

measures of station buildings; the measures adopted

in the HVAC system resulted in reduction in

electrical energy consumption.

54. (b) The veterinary drug Diclofenac that is used

in vetting the cattle has been identified as a reason

that is causing the sharp deep in the number of

vultures. Use of this drug has been banned in India.

Diclofenac is toxic for any and all vultures that feed

on the carcass of recently treated cattle. Saving

Asia’s Vultures from Extinction (SAVE) in its study

says that the version for human use is being illegally

given to the cattle. A programme named SAVE in

its plan will release up to 25 birds into the 30000

kilometer square safe zone. The captive-bred birds

will be released into the wild by 2016 under the

project.

55. (b) Tree foundation, an NGO engaged in

conservation of the sea turtle, found more than

100 dead Olive Ridley turtles in the shores of

Nagapattinam. The Olive Ridley turtles are rusty

coloured carapace and have slightly smaller head

and shell than the Kemp turtles. These Olive Ridley

turtles generally occur through the Antilles, around

the north coast of South America, in West Africa,

the Indian Ocean, Australia and Southeast Asia.

As per the reports the populations of Olive Riddles

have declined in Pakistan, Myanmar, Malaysia and

Thailand, and possibly on the east coast of India,

south of Orissa and in the Andaman and Nicobar

islands.

56. (a) Chilika is the only site to be selected from Asia

by the UNWTO and was included in a list of eight

such sites. The Destination Flyways initiative of

UNWTO aims at promotion of sustainable tourism.

The lagoon was named so for its sustainable and

resilient destination for migratory birds. The status

will help Chilika Development Authority (CDA)

to develop strategies for protection of migratory

birds through creation of innovative tourism and

livelihood products. Chilika Lake is the largest


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brackish water lake in Asia with estuarine character

that sprawls along the east coast. It is the largest

wintering ground for migratory waterfowl found

anywhere in the Indian sub-continent. It is one of

the hotspot of biodiversity in the country, and some

rare, vulnerable and endangered species listed in the

IUCN Red List of threatened Animals inhabit the

lagoon for at least part of their life cycle.

57. (b) First Climate Change theatre was opened at

Pushpa Gujral Science City in Kapurthala, Punjab

on 16 January 2014. The theatre will educate people

on climate change. This is the second theatre in the

world to be opened after Canada. The theatre is 18

metre in diameter and it is set up in a dome-shaped

building with a seating capacity of 125 persons.

The 25-minute film shows what worst can happen if

humans do not take action on current or impending

problems which could threaten civilization. The

film starts by giving a glimpse of future - floods,

droughts, earthquakes and other natural disasters.

58. (d) The estimation of retreat of Gangotri

glacier has been measured using rapid static and

kinematic GPS survey. The Gangotri is one of the

largest Himalayan glaciers in Uttarkashi district,

Uttarakand.The glaciers originate at about 7100

meter above the sea level and are 30.2 km long and

width that varies between 0.5 and 2.5 km. The River

Bhagirathi, one of the main tributaries of the Ganga,

originates from Gangotri glacier.

59. (a) The aim of the Taishan research base station

is to provide a base for research on bio-ecology

and remote satellite sensing. The camp will be used

from December to March every year and is located

near the United States' McMurdo Station, Italy's

Zucchelli Station and a recently built South Korean

station. Base Stations of India at Antarctica are

Dakshin Gangotri, Maitri, and Bharathi.

60. (c) Along with the first 3 species Mystus menoni

species of Catfish were discovered from the

Manimala river. Catfish are freshwater, bottom-

dwelling fish. Unlike other fish, they have no

scales and are smooth-skinned. They are known for

growing whiskers, called "barbels," at some point

during their lifespan. Catfish use their barbels as

feelers as they swim along the bottom of the various

bodies of water in which they live. There are 2,900

species of catfish worldwide. They range in size

from 1.5 to 2 in chesto more than 8 feet in length.

61. (a) The ministry declared 313 sq km around the

Marine National Park in Gulf of Kutch, Gujarat

as an eco-sensitive zone through a notification. Of

this, 208 sq km is land while the remaining is on

the seaside. Land use for recreational, commercial

or industrial development will not be permitted in

the area except for residential purpose. Mining,

including fresh water mining, and release of

polluted water and waste will also be prohibited.

The ministry even disallowed fishing by trawlers.

The government will prepare a zonal ecology

conservation master plan. The plan will restore

denuded areas as well as existing water bodies. The

plan should also have provision for management

of catchment areas, watershed management,

groundwater and soil conservation.

62. (c) Magellanics are medium-sized penguins

standing about 15 inches tall and weighing about

10 pounds. Males of the species sound like braying

donkeys when they vocalize. Among 17 species

of penguins, 10 including Magellancis breeds are

found in the region, where there is no snow, it is

relatively dry and temperatures can be temperate.

To protect the chicks, parents are too big to sit

over and those are still too young to have grown

waterproof feathers. Downy penguin chicks

exposed to drenching rain can struggle and die in

absence of the attention of their concerned parents.

During extreme heat chicks without waterproofing

can’t take a dip in cooling waters as adults.

64. (d) Dung beetles and disease carrying flies

both compete for the same food, that is cattle

droppings. Since both of these organisms belong

to different species, this competition is called

interspecific competition.

65. (b) In environmental law, the polluter pays

principle is enacted to make the party responsible

for producing pollution, to be held responsible

for paying the damage done to the natural

environment.

66. (d) The flea beetles have proved to be an

effective means of controlling leafy spurge. The

flea beetles typically take 3-5 years to establish

and impact leafy spurge infestations.


HU


67. (b) Scientists have recognized that nutrient

enrichment was a threat to the bay. In 1987

formal goals were established to reduce nitrogen

and phosphorous inputs to the bay from both

point and non point sources.

68. (c) In parasitic food chains, the pyramid of

number is always inverted as a single plant may

support many herbivores and birds and each one

of these in turn, may provide nutrition to several

hyperparasites.

71. (c) In hydrothermal vent communities,

we should not expect to find chlorophyll as

photosynthesis cannot take place due to absence

of light.

74. (b) Cogeneration or combined heat and power

(CHP) is the use of a heat engine or power station

to simultaneously generate electricity and useful

heat.

75. (d) In addition to increasing corn yields and

cutting nitrogen expense, keeping soyabeans in

the rotation lowers next years corn rootworm

management costs.

76. (b) The concept of biodiversity hotspot was

given by Norman Myers. In 1988 he first identified

10 tropical forest “hotspots” characterised

by both exceptional level of plant endemism

and by serious levels of habitat loss. Later on,

Conservation International (CI) adopted Myers’

hotspots. They gave a broad definition criteria of

the Biodiversity hotspot.

77. (b) The concern about human-to-human

transmission of bird flu virus H5N1 is closely

monitored by government agencies in order to

determine whether human-to-human transmission

is occurring.

The CDC (Centre for Disease Control) and

WHO recommend the prescription antiviral drug

Tamiflu (oseltamivir) for treating and preventing

human infections with the bird flue virus.

78. (a) Microclimate is defined as the climate of a

very small or restricted area, especially when this

differs from the climate of the surrounding area.

Here, while the climate of the surrounding area

is very hot the place at the edge of the stream,

under the tree, on a rock will have a cooler

microcleinate.

79. (d) Materials from land’s surface can travel

through the soil ultimately reaching the

groundwater. For example pesticide and fertilizers

can enter into the ground water supplies. Untreated

waste from septic tanks and toxic chemicals from

underground storage tanks and leaky landfills can

also contaminate groundwater.

81. (a) Recycling is the best way to get rid of non-

biodegradable waste. Burying will not have any

effect on the non-biodegradable wastes. Burning

causes pollution.

82. (b) Ozone present in the stratosphere, acts as a

protection from U.V. light. Without this protective

shield, all life would be more susceptible to

cancer, impaired immunity and other health issues.

Whereas the ozone present in the troposphere,

which is close to earth surface, can damage our

lungs. Hence it is not good for breathing.

83. (b) In an pollution free stratosphere, the

production and destruction of ozone are in balance

and hence the concentration of O3 remains constant

with time. When CFC’s are released into the lower

troposphere, they diffuse up into the stratosphere

since their lifetime is 50-100 years when CFCs

reach the middle stratosphere, UV radiation

liberates the chlorine atom.

CFC + UV Cl

Cl is then able to destroy as man as 100,000 O3 molecules.

84. (d) It has been proved that CFCs are a major cause

of depletion of the earth’s stratospheric ozone layer

and contribute to the green house effect.

Large quantities of CFCs are used as refrigerants

in a number of refrigerating and air conditioning

systems. Though the refrigerant moves in a closed

cycle, there are lots of leakages that escape to the

atmosphere and cause destruction of the ozone

layer. CFCs have exceptionally long atmospheric

life, which can extend upto 100 years.

86. (a) IPCC is the leading international body

for the assessment of climate change. It was

established by the United Nations Environment

Programme (UNEP) and the World Meteorological

Organisation (WMO) in 1988 to provide the world

with a clear scientific view on the current state

of knowledge in climate change and its potential


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environmental and socio-economic impacts.

87. (a) Ecotone is a place where two different eco

systems meet each other. Mangrove and terrestrial

eco system is an example of Ecotone. This area is

very rich in species. The ecotone has species of

both ecosystems as well as some species which

are charecterstic and restricted to the ecotone.

88. (c) Estuary is a place where the fresh water of

river or stream meets with ocean water. This place

provides the conducive conditions for development

of different species.

89. (c) Biosphere is a combination of lithosphere,

hydrosphere and atmosphere. Biosphere is

not found everywhere, some areas do not

support the conditions required for Biosphere.

Hence Organisms are not uniformly distributed

throughout the world.

90. (a) Carbon credit shows that a country or any

entity emits the carbon below the limit prescribed

by the government, hence the country or entity can

sell it in exchange where carbon credits are traded.

91. (a) Coral Bleaching is being caused by the

climate change. Increase in surface temperature

of ocean due to climate change is increasing

the decline of zooxanthellae. Zooxanthellae is

responsible for the process of photosynthesis.

92. (b) CO2 is the largest contributor towards global warming, followed by methane, CFCs and N2O.

93. (c) Absorption technique is used for controlling

Gaseous pollutant. These pollutants are brought

into contact with a liquid such as water. The liquid

absorbs the gas.

94. (a) Oxygen is required for decomposition of

microorganism under the water. Increase in

waste and pollution enhances the decomposition

activities and thereby reduces the availability of

oxygen for other organic activities under the water

SECTION-B

Q1 FUNDAMENTALS OF COMPUTERS

1. The term ‘Computer’ is derived from..........

a. Latin b. German c. French d. Arabic 2. Who is the inventor of “Difference Engine”?

a. Allen Turing b. Charles Babbage c. Simur Cray d. Augusta

Adaming 3. Who is the father of Computer?


Adaming 4. Who is the father of Computer science?


Adaming 5. Who is the father of personal computer?

a. Edward Robert b. Allen Turing c. Charles Babbage d. None of

these

6. A CPU contains a. a card reader and a printing device b. an analytical engine and a

control unit

c. a control unit and an arithmetic logic unit d. an arithmetic logic unit and a card reader

7. Which of the following controls the process of interaction between

the user and the operating

system? a. User interface b. Language translator

c. Platform d. Screen saver

8. The first computers were programmed using a. assembly language b. machine language

c. source code d. object code

School of Distance Education Fundamentals of Computers Page 2

9. ..........is a combination of hardware and software that facilitates the

sharing of information

between computing devices. a. network b. peripheral c. expansion board d. digital device

10. Coded entries which are used to gain access to a computer system

are called a. Entry codes b. Passwords c. Security commands d. Code words

11. Which of the following statements is true ?

a. Minicomputer works faster than Microcomputer b. Microcomputer works faster than Minicomputer

c. Speed of both the computers is the same

d. The speeds of both these computers cannot be compared with the

speed of advanced 12. You organize files by storing them in

a. archives b. folders c. indexes d. lists

13. What type of resource is most likely to be a shared common resource in a computer

Network?

a. Printers b. Speakers c. Floppy disk drives d. Keyboards

14. Which device is required for the Internet connection? a. Joystick b. Modem c. CD Drive d. NIC Card

15. What is a light pen?

a. A Mechanical Input device b. Optical input device c. Electronic input device d. Optical output device

16. UNIVAC is

a. Universal Automatic Computer b. Universal Array Computer c. Unique Automatic Computer d. Unvalued Automatic Computer

17. CD-ROM stands for


HU a. Compactable Read Only Memory b. Compact Data Read Only

Memory

c. Compactable Disk Read Only Memory d. Compact Disk Read

Only Memory 18. ALU is

a. Arithmetic Logic Unit b. Array Logic Unit

c. Application Logic Unit d. None of above 19. VGA is

a. Video Graphics Array b. Visual Graphics Array

c. Volatile Graphics Array d. Video Graphics Adapter

20. IBM 1401 is a. First Generation Computer b. Second Generation Computer

c. Third Generation Computer d . Fourth Generation Computer


21. MSI stands for

a. Medium Scale Integrated Circuits b. Medium System Integrated Circuits

c. Medium Scale Intelligent Circuit d. Medium System Intelligent

Circuit

22. The capacity of 3.5 inch floppy disk is a. 1.40 MB b. 1.44 GB c. 1.40 GB d. 1.44 MB

23. WAN stands for

a. Wap Area Network b. Wide Area Network c. Wide Array Net d. Wireless Area Network

24. MICR stands for

a. Magnetic Ink Character Reader b. Magnetic Ink Code Reader

c. Magnetic Ink Cases Reader d. None 25. EBCDIC stands for

a. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code

b. Extended Bit Code Decimal Interchange Code c. Extended Bit Case Decimal Interchange Code

d. Extended Binary Case Decimal Interchange Code

26. Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit? a. Printer b. Key board

c. Mouse d. Arithmetic & Logic unit

27. CAD stands for

a. Computer aided design b. Computer algorithm for design c. Computer application in design d. Computer analogue design

28. Junk e-mail is also called

a. spam b. spoof c. sniffer script d. spool

29. Hackers

a. all have the same motive b. break into other people's computers

c. may legally break into computers as long as they do not do any

damage

d. are people who are allergic to computers 30. What type of computers are client computers (most of the time)

in a client-server system?

a. Mainframe b. Mini-computer c. Microcomputer d. PDA

31. A computer cannot 'boot' if it does not have the

a. Compiler b. Loader

c. Operating System d. Assembler School of Distance Education

Fundamentals of Computers Page 4

32. The amount of vertical space between lines of text in a

document is called

a. double-space b. line spacing c. single space d. vertical spacing

33. Example of non-numeric data is

a. Employee address b. Examination score c. Bank balance d. All of these

34. What is embedded system?

a. The programme which arrives by being wrapped in box. b. The programme which is the permanent part of the computer

c. The computer which is the part of a big computer

d. The computer and software system that control the machine

35. First page of Website is termed as- a. Homepage b. Index c. JAVA script d. Bookmark

36. . ..................... Is the appearance of typed characters?

a. Size b. Format c. Point d. Colour 37. When a file is saved for the first time

a. a copy is automatically printed

b. it must be given a name to identify it c. it does not need a name

d. it only needs a name if it is not going to be printed

38. Office LANS, which are scattered geographically on large scale,

can be connected by the use of corporate

a. CAN b. LAN c. DAN d. WAN

39. Where are data and programme stored when the processor uses them?

a. Main memory b. Secondary memory

c. Disk memory d. Programme memory

40. . ............... represents raw facts, where-as................. is data made meaningful.

a. Information, reporting b. Data, information

c. Information, bits d. Records, bytes 41. What characteristic of read-only memory (ROM) makes it useful?

a. ROM information can be easily updated.

b. Data in ROM is non-volatile, that is, it remains there even without electrical power.

c. ROM provides very large amounts of inexpensive data storage.

d. ROM chips are easily swapped between different brands of

computers. 42. What do you call the programs that are used to find out possible

faults and their causes?

a. operating system extensions b. cookies c. diagnostic software d. boot diskettes

School of Distance Education

Fundamentals of Computers Page 5 43. Which programming languages are classified as low level

languages?

a. BASIC, COBOL, Fortran b. Prolog

c. C, C++ d. Assembly languages 44. Which of the following is not anti- viruses’ software?

a. NAV b. F-Prot

c. Oracle d. McAfee 45. Which device is required for the Internet connection?

a. Joystick b. Modem

c. CD Drive d. NIC Card

46. What does DMA stand for? a. A. Distinct Memory Access b. Direct Memory Access

c. Direct Module Access d. Direct Memory Allocation

47. Which of the following is a storage device?


HU a. Tape b. Hard Disk

c. Floppy Disk d. All of the above

48. When did John Napier develop logarithm?

a. 1416 b. 1614 c. 1641 d. 1804

49. A normal CD- ROM usually can store up to _________ _data?

a. 680 KB b. 680 Bytes c. 680 MB d. 680 GB

50. MIS is designed to provide information needed for effective

decision making by?

a. Consumers b. Workers c. Foremen d. Managers

51. What is a light pen?

a. Mechanical Input device b. Optical input device c. Electronic input device d. Optical output device

52. BCD is

a. Binary Coded Decimal b. Bit Coded Decimal c. Binary Coded Digit d. Bit Coded Digit

53. ASCII stands for

a. American Stable Code for International Interchange

b. American Standard Case for Institutional Interchange c. American Standard Code for Information Interchange

d. American Standard Code for Interchange Information


54. Which of the following is first generation of computer?

a. EDSAC b. IBM-1401 c. CDC-1604 d. ICL-2900

55. Chief component of first generation computer was a. Transistors b. Vacuum Tubes and Valves

c. Integrated Circuits d. None of above

56. FORTRAN is a. File Translation b. Format Translation

c. Formula Translation d. Floppy Translation

57. EEPROM stands for a. Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory

b. Easily Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory

c. Electronic Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory

d. None of the above 58. Second Generation computers were developed during

a. 1949 to 1955 b. 1956 to 1965

c. 1965 to 1970 d. 1970 to 1990 59. The computer size was very large in

a. First Generation b. Second Generation

c. Third Generation d. Fourth Generation 60. Microprocessors as switching devices are for which generation

computers

a. First Generation b. Second Generation

c. Third Generation d. Fourth Generation 61. Which of the following devices can be sued to directly image

printed text?

a. OCR b. OMR c. MICR d. All of above

62. The output quality of a printer is measured by

a. Dot per inch b. Dot per sq. inch

c. Dots printed per unit time d. All of above 63. In analogue computer

a. Input is first converted to digital form b. Input is never converted

to digital form

c. Output is displayed in digital form d. All of above

64. In latest generation computers, the instructions are executed

a. Parallel only b. Sequentially only

c. Both sequentially and parallel d. All of above 65. Who designed the first electronics computer – ENIAC?

a. Van-Neumann b. Joseph M. Jacquard


c. J. Presper Eckert and John W Mauchly d. All of above

66. Who invented the high level language “C”?

a. Dennis M. Ritchie b. Niklaus Writh c. Seymour Papert d. Donald Kunth

67. Personnel who design, program, operate and maintain computer

equipment refers to a. Console-operator b. Programmer

c. Peopleware d. System Analyst

68. When did arch rivals IBM and Apple Computers Inc. decide to join hands?

a. 1978 b. 1984

c. 1990 d. 1991

69. Human beings are referred to as Homosapinens, which device is called Sillico Sapiens?

a. Monitor b. Hardware

c. Robot d. Computer 70. An error in software or hardware is called a bug. What is the

alternative computer jargon for it?

a. Leech b. Squid

c. Slug d. Glitch 71. Modern Computer are very reliable but they are not

a. Fast b. Powerful

c. Infallible d. Cheap 72. What is the name of the display feature that highlights are of the

screen which requires

operator attention? a. Pixel b. Reverse video

c. Touch screen d. Cursor

73. Personal computers use a number of chips mounted on a main

circuit board. What is the common name for such boards?

a. Daughter board b. Motherboard

c. Father board d.Breadboard 74. In most IBM PCs, the CPU, the device drives, memory expansion

slots and active components

are mounted on a single board. What is the name of this board? a. Motherboard b. Breadboard

c. Daughter board d. Grandmother board

75. What is meant by a dedicated computer?

a. Which is used by one person only b. Which is assigned one and only one task

c. Which uses one kind of software d. Which is meant for application

software School of Distance Education


76. The system unit of a personal computer typically contains all of

the following except: a. Microprocessor b. Disk controller c. Serial interface d. Modem

77. A computer program that converts an entire program into machine

language is called a/an


HU a. Interpreter b. Simulator c. Compiler d. Commander

78. A computer program that translates one program instructions at

a time into machine language

is called a/an a. Interpreter b. CPU c. Compiler d. Simulator

79. A small or intelligent device is so called because it contains

within it a a. Computer b. Microcomputer c. Programmable d. Sensor

80. A fault in a computer program which prevents it from working

correctly is known as

a. Boot b. Bug c. Biff d. Strap 81. A self replicating program, similar to a virus which was taken

from a 1970s science fiction

novel by John Bruner entitled the Shockwave Rider is a. Bug b. Vice c. Lice d. Worm

82. A state. is a bi-stable electronic circuit that has

a. Multivibrator b. Flip-flop c. Logic gates d. laten 83. Unwanted repetitious messages, such as unsolicited bulk e-mail

is known as

a. Spam b. Trash c. Calibri d. Courier

84. DOS stands for a. Disk Operating System b. Disk operating session

c. Digital Operating System d. Digital Open system

85. Who is the chief of Microsoft a. Babbage b. Bill Gates c. Bill Clinton d. none of these

86. Which of the following are input devices?

a. Keyboard b. Mouse c. Card reader d. Any of these

87. Examples of output devices are a. Screen b. Printer c. Speaker d. All of these

88. Which of the following is also known as brain of computer

a. Control unit b. Central Processing unit c. Arithmetic and language unit d. Monitor

89. IBM stands for

a. Internal Business Management b. International Business Management

c. International Business Machines d. Internal Business Machines

90. ............ translates and executes program at run time line by line

a. Compiler b. Interpreter c. Linker d. Loader


Fundamentals of Computers Page 9 91. is an OOP principle

a. Structured programming b. Procedural programming

c. Inheritance d. Linking 92. COBOL is widely used in application s

a. Commercial b. Scientific c. Space d. Mathematical

93. RAM stands for

a. Random origin money b. Random only memory c. Read only memory d. Random access memory

94. 1 Byte =?

a. 8 bits b. 4 bits c. 2 bits d. 9 bits 95. SMPS stands for

a. Switched mode Power Supply b. Start mode power supply

c. Store mode power supply d. Single mode power supply

96. The device used to carry digital data on analogue lines is called as

a. Modem b. Multiplexer

c. Modulator d. Demodulator

97. VDU is also called

a. Screen b. Monitor c. Both 1 & 2 d. printer

98. BIOS stands for

a. Basic Input Output system b. Binary Input output system c. Basic Input Off system d. all the above

99. Father of “C‘ programming language

a. Dennis Ritchie b. Prof John Keenly c. Thomas Kurtz d. Bill Gates

100. The instructions that tell a computer how to carry out the

processing tasks are referred

to as computer......... a. programs b. processors c. input devices d. memory modules

101. An area of a computer that temporarily holds data waiting to be

processed is.......... a. CPU b. Memory c. Storage d. File

102. ........... is the key to close a selected drop -down list; cancel a

command and close a dialog box.

a. TAB b. SHIFT c. ESC d. F10

103. .......... is the key we use to run the selected command.

a. SHIFT b. TAB c. ENTER d. CTRL 104. ............. Is the functional key to display save-as box.

a. F5 b. F6 c. F9 d. F12


105. Data becomes ................ when it is presented in a format that

people can understand

and use a. processed b. graphs c. information d. presentation

106. The term ............. designates equipment that might be added to a

computer system to enhance its functionality.

a. digital device b. system add-on c. disk pack d. peripheral device

107. A ............ is a microprocessor -based computing device. a. personal computer b. mainframe c. workstation d. server

108. RAM can be treated as the ......... for the computer's processor

a. factory b. operating room c. waiting room d. planning room

109. Which of the following are the functions of a operating system a. Allocates resources b. Monitors Activities

c. Manages disks and files d. All of the above

110. To move a copy of file from one computer to another over a communication channel is

called?

a. File transfer b. File encryption c. File modification d. File copying

111. The primary function of the ............ is to set up the hardware and

load and start an

operating system a. System Programs b. BIOS

c. CP d. Memory

112. What kind of memory is both static and non -volatile? a. RAM b. ROM c. BIOS d. CACHE

113. .......... is computer software designed to operate the computer

hardware and to provide

platform for running application software a. Application software b. System software

c. Software d. Operating system

114. The ......... is the amount of data that a storage device can move


HU from the storage

medium to the Computer per second

a. data migration rate b. data digitizing rate

c. data transfer rate d. data access rate 115. A device, which is not connected to CPU, is called as .......

a. land-line device b. On-line device

c. Off-line device d. Device 116. What is the other name for programmed chip?

a. RAM b. ROM c. LSIC d. PROM


Fundamentals of Computers Page 11 117. On-line real time systems become popular in ...........

generation

a. First Generation b. Second Generation c. Third Generation d. Fourth Generation

118. You use a(n) ....., such as a keyboard or mouse, to input

information a. output device b. input device

c. storage device d. processing device

119. ............. is the ability of a device to "jump" directly to the

requested data a. Sequential access b. Random access

c. Quick access d. All of the above

120. ............. provides process and memory management services that allow two or more

tasks, jobs, or programs to run simultaneously

a. Multitasking b. Multithreading

c. Multiprocessing d. Multicomputing 121. The task of performing operations like arithmetic and logical

operations is called......

a. Processing b. Storing c. Editing d. Sorting

122. ALU and Control Unit jointly known as

a. RAM b. ROM c. CPU d. PC 123. RAM is an example of

a. Secondary memory b. Primary memory

c. Main memory d. Both (1) and (2)

124. Magnetic disk is an example of a. Secondary memory b. Primary memory

c. Main memory d. Both (1) and (2)

125. Which one of the following is NOT a computer language a. MS-Excel b. BASIC

c. COBOL d. C++

126. RAM is also called as a. Read / Write Memory b. Long Memory

c. Permanent Memory d. Primary Memory

127. ............ Store data or information temporarily and pass it on as

directed by the control unit

a. Address b. Register

c. Number d. Memory School of Distance Education


128. Select the Odd one

a. Operating system b. Interpreter c. Compiler d. Assembler

129. A ............ is an additional set of commands that the computer

displays after you make a

selection from the main menu

a. dialog box b. submenu

c. menu selection d. All of the above

130. COBOL is an acronym for............. a. Common Business Oriented Language b. Computer Business

Oriented Language

c. Common Business Operated Language d. Common Business Organized Language

131. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy

risks EXCEPT

a. hackers b. Spam c. Viruses d. identity theft

132. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data

processing functions of a computer?

a. gathering data b. processing data into information

c. analyzing the data or information d. storing the data or information 133. All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT :

a. hard disk drives b. printers

c . floppy disk drives d. CD drives

134. The CPU and memory are located on the : a. expansion board b. motherboard

c. storage device d. output device

135. ............... is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of

intelligence that humans do

a. Nanoscience b. Nanotechnology

c. Simulation d. Artificial intelligence (Al) 136. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers

connected to a :

a. networked b. mainframe c. supercomputer d. client

137. When creating a computer program, the ......... designs the

structure of the program a. End user b. System Analyst

c. Programmer d. All of the above

138. A computer program that converts an entire program into

machine language at one time is called a/ an

a. Interpreter b. simulator c. characters d. compiler


139. Computers process data into information by working exclusively

with : a. multimedia b. word c. numbers d. characters

140. The difference between people with access to computers and the

Internet and those

without this access is known as the : a. digital divide b. Internet divide c. Web divide d. E-illiteracy

141. Computers manipulate data in many ways, and this manipulation

is called...... a. upgrading b. processing c. batching d. utilizing

142. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a

criminal's computer is

an example of a law enforcement speciality called: a. robotics b. simulation c. computer forensics d. animation

143. Where does most data go first with in a computer memory

hierarchy ?


HU a. RAM b. ROM c. BIOS d. CACHE

144. The………….data mining technique derives rules from real-

world case examples.

a. Rule discover b. Signal processing c. Neural nets d. Case-based reasoning

145. …………….are used to identify a user who returns to a

Website a. Cookies b. Plug-ins

c. Scripts d. ASPs

146. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are

computer-readable are known as- a. an ASCII code b. a magnetic tape

c. an OCR scanner d. a bar code

147. Why is it unethical to share copyrighted files with your friends?

a. It is not unethical, because it is legal.

b. It is unethical because the files are being given for free. c. Sharing copyrighted files without permission breaks copyright

laws.

d. It is not unethical because the files are being given for free.

148. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym- a. CD b. DVD c. ROM d. RW

149. The most common type of storage devices are- a. Steel b.

optical c. magnetic d. flash 150. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables

is said to be- a. Distributed b. free c. centralized d. none of these

151. A person who used his or her expertise to gain access to other

people's computers to get information illegally or do damage is a- a. Hacker b. spammer c.

instant messenger d. programmer


152. To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use

is- a. Dragging b. dropping c. right-clicking d. shift-clicking 153. A DVD is an example of a (n)- a. hard disk b. optical disc

c. output device d. solid-state storage device

154. . The process of transferring files from a computer on the

Internet to your computer is called

a. Downloading b. uploading

c. FTP d. JPEG 155. . .......... is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and

sectors.

a. Tracking b. Formatting c. Crashing d. Allotting

156. . Help Menu is available at which button?

a. End b. Start

c. Turnoff d. Restart 157. The technology that stores only the essential instructions on a

microprocessor chip and

thus enhances its speed is referred to as a. CISC b. RISC

c. CD-ROM d. Wi-Fi

158. Which is not a basic function of a computer?

a. Store data b. Accept input c. Process data d. Copy text

159. ASCII is a coding system that provides

a. 256 different characters b. 512 different characters

c. 1024 different characters d. 128 different characters

160. Which part of the computer is directly involved in executing the

instructions of the

computer program? a. The scanner b. The main storage

c. The secondary storage d. The processor

161. When a computer is switched on, the booting process performs a. Integrity Test b. Power-On Self-Test

c. Correct Functioning Test d. Reliability Test

162. A computer system that is old and perhaps not satisfactory is

referred to as a(n) a. Ancient system b. Historical system

c. Age old system d. Legacy system


163. Which of the following is not a binary number?

a. 001 b. 101 c. 202 d. 110 164. Which of the following does not store data permanently?

a. ROM b. RAM c. Floppy Disk d. Hard Disk

165. Which of the following is the smallest storage?

a. Megabyte b. Gigabyte c. Terabyte d. None of these 166. Which of the following contains permanent data and gets

updated during the

processing of transactions? a. Operating System File b. Transaction file

c. Software File d. Master file

167. Which of the following helps to protect floppy disks from data

getting accidentally erased?

a. Access notch b. Write-protect notch

c. Entry notch d. Input notch 168. A modem is connected to

a. a telephone line b. a keyboard

c. a printer d. a monitor 169. Large transaction processing systems in automated organisations

use

a. Online processing b. Batch Processing

c. Once-a-day Processing d. End-of-day processing 170. In a computer, most processing takes place in

a. Memory b. RAM

c. motherboard d. CPU 171. . Which of the following is not a storage medium?

a. Hard disk b. Flash drive c. DVD d. scanner

172. The computer abbreviation KB usually means a. Key Block b. Kernel Boot c. Kilo Byte d. Kit Bit

173. The typical computer criminal is a(n):

a. Young hacker.

b. Trusted employee with no criminal record. c. Trusted employee with a long, but unknown criminal record.

d. Overseas young cracker.

174. The common name for the crime of stealing passwords is: a. Jacking. b. Identity theft.

c. Spoofing. d. Hacking.


Fundamentals of Computers Page 16 175. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as

another individual is known

as the crime of:


HU a. Spooling. b. Identity theft.

c. Spoofing. d. Hacking. 176. Malicious software is known as:

a. Badware. b. Malware. c. Maliciousware. d. Illegalware. 177. A

program that performs a useful task while simultaneously allowing destructive acts is

a:

a. Worm. b. Trojan horse. c. Virus. d. Macro virus.

178. An intentionally disruptive program that spreads from program

to program or from disk

to disk is known as a: a. Trojan horse. b. Virus. c. Time bomb. d. Time-related bomb

sequence.

179. In 1999, the Melissa virus was a widely publicised: a. E-mail virus. b. Macro virus.

c. Trojan horse. d. Time bomb.

180. What type of virus uses computer hosts to reproduce itself? a. Time bomb b. Worm

c. Melissa virus d. Macro virus

181. The thing that eventually terminates a worm virus is a lack of:

a. Memory or disk space. b. Time. c. CD drives space. d. CD-RW. 182. When a logic bomb is activated by a time-related event, it is

known as a:

a. Time-related bomb sequence. b. Virus. c. Time bomb. d. Trojan horse.

183. A logic bomb that was created to erupt on Michelangelo‘s

birthday is an example of a:

a. Time-related bomb sequence. b. Virus. c. Time bomb. d. Trojan horse.

184. What is the name of an application program that gathers user

information and sends it to someone through the Internet?

a. A virus b. Spybot

c. Logic bomb d. Security patch School of Distance Education


185. ------ is the measurement of things such as fingerprints and

retinal scans used for security access.

a. Biometrics b. Bio measurement

c. Computer security d. Smart weapon machinery 186. What is the most common tool used to restrict access to a

computer system?

a. User logins b. Passwords b. Computer keys d. Access-control software

187. Hardware or software designed to guard against unauthorized

access to a computer

network is known as a(n): a. Hacker-proof program. b. Firewall. c. Hacker-resistant server. d.

Encryption safe wall.

188. The scrambling of code is known as: a. Encryption. b. a firewall.

c. Scrambling. d. Password proofing.

189. To prevent the loss of data during power failures, use a(n):

a. Encryption program. b. Surge protector. c. Firewall. d. UPS.

190. ------Is defined as any crime completed through the use of

computer technology.

a. Computer forensics b. Computer crime

c. Hacking d. Cracking

191. ------ refers to electronic trespassing or criminal hacking.

a. Cracking b. Jacking c. Spoofing d. Smarming

192. The first electronic computer was developed by

a. J.V. Attansoff b. Bill Gates c. Simur Cray d. Winton Serf

193. Snowbol is an/a--------- a. Operating system b. HLL

c. Software d. Search engine

194. Switching device of fifth generation computer is-------- a. Vacuum tubes b. Transistors

c. IC d. VLSI

195. ---------- computers operates essentially by counting a. Portable computer b. Hybrid computer

c. Analog computer d. Digital computer


196. ---------- computer is small general purpose micro computer, but

larger than portable

computer a. Hybrid b. Digital c. Desktop d. Laptop

197. Cathode Ray Tube is a form of.......

a. Keyboard b. Mouse c. Monitor d. Mother board 198. Trackball is a...........

a. Input device b. Output device

c. Programming language d. Software

199. ............. computer is a medium sized computer a. Micro b. Mainframe c. Super d. Mini

200. ........... computer are of large size

a. Micro b. Mainframe c. Super d. Mini 201. Note book, laptop,palm,hand-held computers are coming under

the category of.........

computer a. Digital computer b. Mainframe computer

c. Portable computer d. Hybrid computer

202. Light pen and joystick are............

a. Algorithm b. Input devices c. Output devices d. Portals

203. Touch Screen is............

a. Input device b. Output device c. Both a & b above d. None of these

204. .............printer is the cheapest in terms of price and operating

cost a. Inkjet b. Laser

c. Thermal d. Dot matrix

205. .......... printer is a non-impact printer and is quite in working

a. Inkjet b. Laser c. Thermal d. Dot matrix

206. .......... are high-end printers

a. Inkjet b. Laser c. Thermal d. Dot matrix

207. ......... are used for plotting graphs and design on papers

a. Trackball b. Joystick

c. Light pen d. Plotters 208. Daisy wheel, Drum, chain etc are the ............. a. Flow chart b.

Mouse



HU Fundamentals of Computers Page 19

c. Key board d. Printers

209. ....are specific to users’ needs

a. System software b. Application software c. Assemblers d. Compilers

210. Joshy, Perfumes are examples of.............

a. Operating system b. Computer languages c. Computer viruses d. Web portals

211. Which of the following is/ are operating systems

a. Windows b. Unix

c. OS/2 d. All of these 212. “MAN” stands for

a. Maximum Area Network b. Minimum Area Network

c. Main Area Network d. Metropolitan Area Network 213. Which of the following is a network topology

a. LAN b. WAN

c. MAN d. BUS 214. Which of the following is a type of network

a. Ring b. Bus c. Star d. PAN

215. VOIP stands for..........

a. Voice over IP b. Video over IP c. Viruses over IP d. Virtual over IP

216. The first web browser is

a. Mosaic b. Netscape c. Internet explorer d. Collabra

217. LAN stands for...............

a. Limited Area Network b. Logical Area Network

c. Local Area Network d. Large Area Network 218. .......... are set of rules and procedures to control the data

transmission over the internet

a. IP address b. Domains c. Protocol d. Gateway

219. NOS stands for

a. Node operating system b. Non-open software c. Network Operating system d. Non-operating software

220. ............... are system software to facilitate editing of text and

data

a. MS Word b. Editors c. PowerPoint d. MS publisher


Fundamentals of Computers Page 20 221. Computers, combine both measuring and counting, are called :

a. Analog b. Digital c. Hybrid d. All of these

222. In world today, most of the computers are : a. Digital b. Hybrid c. Analog d. Complex

223. Physical structure of computer is called :

a. Software b. Hardware c. Human ware d. All of these

224. In which type of computer, data are represented as discrete signals.

a. Analog computer b. Digital computer

c. both d. Hybrid Computer 225. Which of the following is available in the form of a PC now?

a. Mainframe b. Microcomputer

c. Minicomputer d. Both (B) & (C)

226. PARAM is an example of: a. Super computer b. PC

c. Laptop d. PDA



ANSWER KEY

1 a 55 b 109 d 163 c 217 c 2 b 56 c 110 a 164 b 218 c

3 b 57 c 111 b 165 d 219 c

4 a 58 b 112 b 166 d 220 b 5 a 59 a 113 b 167 b 221 c

6 c 60 d 114 c 168 a 222 a

7 a 61 a 115 c 169 b 223 b

8 b 62 b 116 c 170 d 224 b 9 a 63 b 117 c 171 d 225 b

10 b 64 c 118 b 172 c 226 a

11 a 65 c 119 b 173 b 12 b 66 a 120 a 174 c

13 a 67 c 121 a 175 b

14 b 68 d 122 c 176 b 15 b 69 d 123 b 177 b

16 a 70 d 124 a 178 b

17 a 71 c 125 a 179 a

18 a 72 b 126 a 180 b 19 a 73 b 127 b 181 a

20 b 74 a 128 a 182 c

21 a 75 b 129 a 183 c 22 d 76 d 130 a 184 b

23 b 77 c 131 b 185 a

24 a 78 a 132 c 186 b

25 a 79 d 133 b 187 b 26 d 80 b 134 b 188 a

27 a 81 d 135 d 189 d

28 a 82 b 136 b 190 b 29 b 83 a 137 b 191 a

30 c 84 a 138 c 192 a

31 c 85 b 139 c 193 b 32 b 86 d 140 a 194 d

33 a 87 d 141 b 195 d

34 d 88 b 142 c 196 c

35 a 89 c 143 a 197 c 36 b 90 b 144 c 198 a

37 b 91 c 145 a 199 d

38 d 92 a 146 d 200 b 39 a 93 d 147 c 201 c

40 b 94 a 148 d 202 b

41 b 95 a 149 b 203 c 42 c 96 a 150 d 204 d

43 d 97 c 151 a 205 a

44 c 98 a 152 c 206 b

45 b 99 a 153 b 207 d 46 b 100 a 154 a 208 d

47 d 101 b 155 b 209 b

48 b 102 c 156 b 210 c 49 c 103 c 157 b 211 d

50 d 104 d 158 d 212 d

51 b 105 c 159 c 213 d

52 a 106 d 160 d 214 d 53 c 107 a 161 b 215 a

54 a 108 c 162 d 216 a


HU 1. Which function calculates the largest value in a set of numbers?

(1) Average

(2)Count

(3)Minimum (4)Maximum

(5)None of these

Ans: (4) 2. What do you use to create a chart?

(1)Pie Wizard

(2)Excel Wizard

(3)Data Wizard (4)Chart Wizard

(5)None of these

Ans: (4) 3. What displays the content of the active cell?

(1)Name box

(2)Row Headings (3)Formula bar

(4)Task pane

(5)None of these

Ans: (3) 4. By default, your documents print in _mode.

(1)Landscape

(2)Portrait (3)Page Setup

(4)Print View

(5)None of these

Ans: (2) 5. What is the best way to have a data and the slide number appear

on every slide ?

(1) choose Tools, Header and Footer, click Slide tab, select the desired options, click Apply to

All

(2) choose Insert, Header and Footer, click Slide tab, select the desired options, click Apply to

All

(3) chouse View, Header and Footer, click Slide tab, select the

desired options, click Apply to All

(4) choose File, Header and Footer, click Slide tab, select the

desired options, click Apply to All

(5) None of these

Ans: (2) MCQs on Computers Part II

[Compiled by RSTC Gurgaon Canara Bank] Page 3

6.To move to the bottom of a document, press _.

(1) Insert key (2) Home key

(3) Ctrl key + End key

(4) End key (5) None of these

Ans: (3)

7.Which one of the following four words is odd?

(1)Application (2)Peripheral

(3)Programme

(4)Software

(5)None of these

Ans: (2)

8. If formation of computer, the hardwares..........are used.

(1) Monitor, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Keyboard, Mouse, Software and Network

(2) Monitor, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Keyboard, Mouse

Programme and Network (3) Monitor, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Keyboard, Mouse,

Printer and Modem

(4) Monitor, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Keyboard, Mouse,

Application and Network (5) None of these

Ans: (3)

9.In page preview mode- (1) You can see all pages of your document

(2)You can only see the page you are currently working

(3)You can only see pages that do not contain graphics (4)You can only see the title page of your document

(5)None of these

Ans: (1)

10.A CPU contains- (1) a card reader and a printing device

(2) an analytical engine and a control unit

(3) a control unit and an arithmetic logic unit (4) an arithmetic logic unit and a card reader

(5) None of these

Ans: (3)

11. Which of the following controls the process of interaction between the user and the

operating system?

(1) User interface (2) Language translator

(3) Platform

(4) Screen saver (5) None of these

Ans: (1)

MCQs on Computers Part II

[Compiled by RSTC Gurgaon Canara Bank] Page 4 12.You will work on which groupings, while formatting the text in

word?

(1) Table, paragraph and index (2) Paragraph, index and section

(3) Character, paragraph and section

(4) Index, character and table (5) None of these

Ans: (2)

13.When you want to move some text from one page to a different

page, the best method is- (1) drag and drop (2) cut and paste (3) delete and retype (4) find and

replace (5) None of

these Ans: (2)

14.The first computers were programmed using-

(1) assembly language

(2) machine language (3) source code

(4) object code

(5) spaghetti code


HU Ans: (2)

15.How many are the margins on page?

(1) Two (header and footer)

(2) Four (Upper, lower, right, left) (3) Two (Landscape, portrait)

(4) Two (Upper and lower)

(5) None of these Ans: (2)

16. An is a combination of hardware and software that facilitates

the sharing of information

between computing devices. (1) network

(2) peripheral

(3) expansion board (4) digital device

(5) None of these

Ans: (1) 17. The settings are automatic and standard.

(1) icon

(2) default

(3) CPU (4) peripheral

(5) None of these



18. Coded entries which are used to gain access to a computer

system are called- (1) Entry codes

(2) Passwords

(3) Security commands (4) Code words

(5) None of these

Ans: (2) 19.To view information on the web you must have a-

(1) cable modem

(2) web browser

(3) Domain Name Server (4) hypertext viewer

(5) None of these

Ans: (2) 20.Which of the following commands is given to reboot the

computer?

1) Ctrl + Alt + Del 2) Ctrl + Shift + ?

3) Ctrl + Shift + Del

4) Ctrl +Alt + shift

5) Ctrl + Alt + Tab Ans: (1)

21. By default, your documents print in _ mode.

1) Landscape 2) Portrait

3) Page Setup

4) Print View

5) None of these Ans: (2)

22. To find and load a file that has been saved _.

1) select the Close command

2) select the New command

3) select the Save command

4) select the Open command


23.Which function calculates the largest value in a set of numbers?

1) Average 2) Count

3) Minimum

4) Maximum



[Compiled by RSTC Gurgaon Canara Bank] Page 6 24. Which of the following statements is true ?

1) Minicomputer works faster than Microcomputer

2) Microcomputer works faster than Minicomputer 3) Speed of both the computers is the same

4) The speeds of both these computers cannot be compared with the

speed of advanced

computer 5) None of these

Ans: (1)

MCQs on Computers Part II [Compiled by RSTC Gurgaon Canara Bank] Page 7

UNIT 2

1. Selection of command-

(A) Opens the copy of the document in preview (B) Prints the copy of displayed document

(C) Brings change in expansion of displayed document

(D) Saves the copy of displayed document (E) None of these

Ans: (C)

2. You organize files by storing them in- (A) archives

(B) folders

(C) indexes

(D) lists (E) None of these

Ans: (B)

3. How many different documents can you have open at any one time ?

(A) No more than three

(B) Only one (C) As many as your computer memory will hold

(D) No more than you taskbar can display

(E) None of these

Ans: (C) 4. What type of resource is most likely to be a shared common

resource in a computer

network? (A) Printers

(B) Speakers

(C) Floppy disk drives

(D) Keyboards (E) None of these

Ans: (A)

5. Directory in directory is called-


HU (A) Mini directory

(B) Junior directory

(C) Part directory

(D) Sub-directory (E) None of these

Ans: (D)

6. Such a pre-made document, which has coordinating font, layout and background, is-

(A) Guide

(B) Model

(C) Ruler (D) Template

(E) None of these Ans: (D)


7. In order to create columnar data in Word you need to-

(A) Tab consecutively until your cursor reaches the desired place (B) Set tabs or use the Table menu

(C) You need to use Excel

(D) Press the space bar until your cursor reaches the desired place

(E) None of these Ans: (E)

8. Saving is a process-

(A) To copy the document from memory to storage medium (B) To bring change in present status of the document

(C) To change the face or entire form

(D) To develop the document by recording the text with the use of

keyboard (E) None of these

Ans: (A)

9. To insert a word into the middle of a sentence- (A) move the cursor to the desired location in the sentence and type

the new word

(B) move the cursor to the desired location in the sentence, press Enter key, and type the new

word

(C) move the cursor to the beginning of the sentence and start

typing (D) retype the whole sentence

(E) None of these

Ans: (A) 10. A(n) .............. is a combination of hardware and software that

facilitates the sharing of

information between computing devices. (A) network

(B) peripheral

(C) expansion board

(D) digital device (E) None of these

Ans: (A)

11. In word you can force a page break- (A) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing

the F1 key

(B) By using the Insert/Section Break

(C) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing Ctrl + Enter

(D) By changing the font size of your document

(E) None of these

Ans: (C)

12. Junk e-mail is also called-

(A) spam

(B) spoof (C) sniffer script

(D) spool

(E) None of these Ans: (A)



13. Hackers- (A) all have the same motive

(B) break into other people's computers

(C) may legally break into computers as long as they do not do any damage

(D) are people who are allergic to computers

(E) None of these Ans: (B)

14. What type of computers are client computers (most of the time) in

a client-server system?

(A) Mainframe (B) Mini-computer

(C) Microcomputer

(D) PDA (E) None of these

Ans: (C)

15. A computer cannot 'boot' if it does not have the-

(A) Compiler (B) Loader

(C) Operating System

(D) Assembler (E) None of these

Ans (C)

16. The amount of vertical space between lines of text in a document is called-

(A) double-space

(B) line spacing

(C) single space (D) vertical spacing

(E) None of these

Ans: (B) 17. Example of non-numeric data is-

(A) Employee address

(B) Examination score (C) Bank balance

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans: (A) 18. What is embedded system?

(A) The programme which arrives by being wrapped in box.

(B) The programme which is the permanent part of the computer (C) The computer which is the part of a big computer

(D) The computer and software system that control the machine

(E) None of these

Ans: (D) MCQs on Computers Part II


19. First page of Website is termed as- (A) Homepage


HU (B) Index

(C) JAVA script

(D) Bookmark


20. ..................... is the appearance of typed characters.

(A) Size (B) Format

(C) Point

(D) Colour

(E) None of these Ans: (B)

21. When a file is saved for the first time-

(A) a copy is automatically printed (B) it must be given a name to identify it

(C) it does not need a name

(D) it only needs a name if it is not going to be printed (E) None of these

Ans: (B)

22. Office LANS, which are scattered geographically on large

scale, can be connected by the use of corporate- (A) CAN

(B) LAN

(C) DAN (D)WAN

(E) TAN

Ans: (D)

23. Where are data and programme stored when the processor uses them?

(A) Main memory

(B) Secondary memory (C) Disk memory

(D) Programme memory


24. ............... represents raw facts, whereas ................. is data

made meaningful.

(A) Information, reporting (B) Data, information

(C) Information, bits

(D) Records, bytes (E) Bits, bytes

Ans: (B)


25. Which keystroke will take you at the beginning or the end of a

long document?

(A) Ctrl + PageUp and Ctrl + PageDown (B) Shift + Home and Shift + End

(C) Ctrl + Home and Ctrl + End

(D) The only way is by using the right scroll bar (E) None of these

Ans: (C)

26. What characteristic of read-only memory (ROM) makes it

useful? (A) ROM information can be easily updated.

(B) Data in ROM is nonvolatile, that is, it remains there even

without electrical power.

(C) ROM provides very large amounts of inexpensive data storage.

(D) ROM chips are easily swapped between different brands of

computers.

(E) None of these Ans:(B)

27. In page preview mode-

(A) You c a n s e e a l l p a g e s o f your document (B) You can only see the page you are currently working

(C) You can only see pages that do not contain graphics

(D) You can only see the title page of your document


28. If the file saved earlier is edited, then-

(A) It is essential to save the file again to store the change (B) The change will automatically be saved in the file

(C) If the length is more than a page, the file will be needed to be

saved (D) The name will be needed to be changed

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)

29. When creating a word-processed document, this step involves the user changing how words on the page

appear, both on the screen and in printed form-

(A) Editing text (B) Inserting tables and indexes

(C) Formatting text

(D) Proofing documents

(E) None of these Ans: (C)

30. Aligning of text in column is-

(A) Justified (B) Right

(C) Centre

(D) Left (E) None of these

Ans: (A)

1. Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit? a. Printer

b. Key board c. Mouse

d. Arithmetic & Logic unit e. None of these

2. CAD stands for

a. Computer aided design

b. Computer algorithm for design c. Computer application in design d. All of the above

e. None of these

3. Which of the following printer cannot print graphics? a. Ink-jet

b. Daisy Wheel c. Laser

d. Dot-matrix

e. None of these 4. A program written in machine language is called?

a. Assembler

b. Object


HU c. Computer

d. Machine

e. None of these

5. The father of Modern Computer is a. Charles Babbage

b. Von-nuumann

c. Danies Ritchel d. Blaise Pascal

e. None of these

6. The Word FTP stands for

a. File Translate Protocol b. File Transit Protocol

c. File Transfer protocol

d. file typing protocol e. None of these

7. The lowest form of Computer language is called

a. BASIC b. FORTRAN

c. Machine Language

d. COBOL

e. None of these MCQs on Computers Part II


8. Best Quality graphics is produced by a. Dot Matix

b. Laser Printer

c. Inkjet Printer

d. Plotter e. None of these

9. Memory which forgets everything when you switch off the

power is known as a. Corrupted

b. Volatile

c. Non-Volatile d. Non-Corrupted

e.None of these

10.The linking of computers with a communication system is called

a. Networking b. Pairing

c. Interlocking

d. Assembling e. Sharing

11.The 16 bit Microprocessor means that it has

a. 16 address lines b. 16 Buses

c. 16 Data lines

d. 16 routes

e. None of these 12. Data going into the computer is called

a. Output

b. algorithm c. Input

d. Calculations

e. flow chart

13. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network? a. LAN

b. DSL

c. RAM

d. USB

e. CPU

14. Microsoft Office is

a. Shareware b.Public domain software

c. Open-sourse software

d. A vertical market application e. An application suite



15. How many options does a BINARY choice offer a. None of these

b. One

c. Two d. it depends on the amount of memory on the computer

e. It depends on the speed of the computer‘s processor

16. A collection of program that controls how your computer system runs and

processes information is called

a. Operating System

b. Computer c. Office

d. Compiler

e. Interpreter 17. Computer connected to a LAN (Local Area Network) can

a. run faster

b. go on line

c. share information and /or share peripheral equipment d. E-mail

e. None of these

18. Information travels between components on the mother board through

a. Flash memory

b. CMOS c. Bays

d. Buses

e. Peripherals

19. How are data organized in a spreadsheet? a. Lines & spaces

b. Layers & Planes

c. Height & Width d. Rows & Columns

e. None

20. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the a. mouse

b. logo

c. hand

d. palm e. cursor

21. A fault in a computer program which prevents it from working

correctly is known as

a.B oot

b Bug

c Biff d. Strap e. None of these




HU 22. A self replicating program, similar to a virus which was taken

from a 1970s

science fiction novel by John Bruner entitled the Shockwave Rider

is a. Bug

b. Vice

c. Lice d. Worm

e. None of these

23. A states. is a bi-stable electronic circuit that has

a. Multivibrator b. Flip-flop

c. Logic gates

d. laten e. None of these

24. Unwanted repetitious messages, such as unsolicited bulk e-mail

is known as

a. Spam

b. Trash

c. Calibri d. Courier

e. None of these

25.DOS stands for a. Disk Operating System

b. Disk operating session

c. Digital Operating System

d. Digital Open system e. None of these

26. Who is the chief of Miocrosoft

a. Babbage b. Bill Gates

c. Bill Clinton d. Bush

e. None of these 27. Which of the following are input devices.

a. Keyboard b. Mouse

c. Card reader d. Scanner

e. All of these 28. Examples of output devices are

a. Screen

b. Printer c. Speaker

d. All of these

e. None of these MCQs on Computers Part II


29. Which of the following is also known as brain of computer

a. Control unit b. Central Processing unit

c. Arithmetic and language unit

d. Monitor e. None of these

30. IBM stands for

a. Internal Business Management

b. International Business Management c. International Business Machines

d. Internal Business Machines e. None of these

31. translates and executes program at run time line by line

a. Compiler

b. Interpreter c. Linker

d. Loader

e. None of these 32. is an OOP principle

a. Structured programming

b. Procedural programming c. Inheritance

d. Linking

e. None of these

33.COBOL is widely used in application s a. Commercial

b. Scientific

c. Space d. Mathematical

e. None of these

34. RAM stands for a. Random origin money

b. Random only memory

c. Read only memory

d. Random access memory e. None of these

35. 1 Byte = ?

a. 8 bits b. 4 bits

c. 2 bits

d. 9 bits

e. None of the above MCQs on Computers Part II


36. SMPS stands for a. Switched mode Power Supply

b. Start mode power supply

c. Store mode power supply d. Single mode power supply

e. None of these

37. The device used to carry digital data on analog lines is called as

a. Modem b. Multiplexer

c. Modulator

d. Demodulator e. None of these


a. Screen b. Monitor

c. Both 1 & 2

d. printer

e. None of these 39. BIOS stands for

a. Basic Input Output system

b. Binary Input output system c. Basic Input Off system

d. all the above

e. None of these

40. Father of ‗C‘ programming language a. Dennis Ritchie

b. Prof Jhon Kemeny c. Thomas Kurtz

d. Bill Gates


HU e. None of these

ANSWERS

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------

--------------------------- 1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d)

9. (b) 10. (a)11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (e) 15. (c)

16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (e)21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (e) 28. (d) 29. (b)

30. (c) 31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (a)

36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (a)

1. Which command divides the surface of the blank disk into

sectors and assign a unique address to each one

1) Ver

2) Format

3) Fat 4) Check disk

5) None of these

2. If you need to duplicate the entire disk, which command will you use?

1) Copy

2) Disk copy

3) Chkdsk 4) Format

5) None of these

3. A............. sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up

because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master

boot record of a hard disk 1) System virus

2) Trojan horse virus

3) File virus

4) Macro virus 5) None of these

4. A result of a computer virus cannot lead to...

1) Disk Crash 2) Mother Board Crash

3) Corruption o f program

4) Deletion of files 5) None of these

5. Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a

distinct...

1) Firewall 2) Proxy server

3) IP address

4) Domain name 5) None of these

6. Programming language built into user programs such as Word

and Excel are known as...

1) 4GLs 2) Macro languages

3) object-oriented languages

4) Visual programming languages

5) None of these



7. Firewalls are used to protect against... 1) Unauthorized Attacks

2) Virus Attacks

3) Data Driven Attacks 4) Fire Attacks

5) None of these

8. Which of the following extensions suggest that the file is a backup

copy? 1) Bak

2) Bas

3) Com 4) Txt

5) None of these

9. Computer programs are written in a high - level programming language; however, the

human readable version of a program is called...

1) Cache

2) Instruction set 3) Source code

4) Word size

5) None of these 10. The software tools that enable a user to interact with a computer

for specific purposes are

known as...

1) Hardware 2) Networked Software

3) Shareware

4) Applications 5) None of these

11...............processing is used when a large mail-order company

accumulates orders and processes them together in one large set

1) Batch

2) Online

3) Real-time 4) Group

5) None of these

12. When a file contains instructions that can be carried out by the computer, it is often

called a (n) ... file

1) Data 2) Information

3) Executable

4) Application

5) None of these 13. A complier translates a program written in a high - level language

into...

1) Machine language 2) An algorithm 3) A debugged program 4) Java 5) None of these



14. A set of step - by - step procedures for accomplishing a task is known as a (n)...

1) Algorithm

2) Hardware program


HU 3) Software bug

4) Firmware program

5) None of these

15. A complete electronic circuit with transistors and other electronic components on a small

silicon chip is called a (n)...

1) Workstation 2) CPU

3) Magnetic disk

4) Integrated circuit

5) None of these 16. A saved document is referred to as a...

1) File

2) Word 3) Folder

4) Project

5) None of these 17. What is output?

1) What the processor takes from the user

2) What the user gives to the processor

3) What the processor gets from the user 4) What the processor gives to the user

5) None of these

18. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test...

1) RAM test

2) Disk drive test

3) Memory test 4) Power - on self-test

5) None of these

19. Which of the following storage media provides sequential access only?

1) Floppy disk

2) Magnetic disk 3) Magnetic tape

4) Optical disk

5) None of these

20. In word processing, an efficient way to move the 3rd paragraph to place it after

the 5th paragraph is...

1) Copy and paste 2) Copy, cut and paste 3) Cut, copy and paste 4) Cut and paste

5) None of these


21. Hardware includes..........

1) All devices used to input data into a computer

2) Sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes 3) The computer and all the devices connected to it that are used to

input and output data

4) All devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory

and storage

5) None of these

22. The quickest and easiest way in Word, to locate a particular word or phrase in a document

is to use the ... command

1) Replace

2) Find

3) Lookup

4) Search

5) None of these 23. The term 'user interface' refers to............

1) What the user sees on the screen and how they can interact with it

2) How the operating system responds to user commands 3) The means by which the user interacts with the peripheral devices

on the computer

4) The monitor that is available for the computer

5) None of these 24. For creating a document, you use... command at File Menu.

1) Open

2) Close 3) New

4) Save

5) None of these 25. The.............. Becomes different shapes depending on the task you

are performing

1) Active tab

2) Insertion point 3) Mouse pointer

4) Ribbon

5) None of these 26. Specilizd programs that assist users in locating information on the

Web are called....

1) Information engines

2) Search engines 3) Web browsers

4) Resource locators

5) None of these 27. The background of any Word document...

1) Is always white colour

2) Is the colour you presect under the Options menu 3) Is always the same for the entire document

4) Can have any colour you choose 5) None of these


[Compiled by RSTC Gurgaon Canara Bank] Page 39 28.Correcting errors in a program is referred to as ...

1) Debugging

2) Bugging 3) Rectifying

4) Modifying

5) None of these 29.Any letter, number, or symbol found on the keyboard that you

could type into the computer

..........

1) Output 2) Character

3) Type

4) Print 5) Font

30.A symbol or question on the screen that prompts you to take action

and tell the computer

what to do next ... 1) Scanner

2) Questionnaire

3) Prompt and dialog box


HU 4) Information seeker

5) None of these

31.Commands at the top of a screen such as FILE-EDIT-FONT-

TOOLS to operate and change things within programs ...

1) Menu bar

2) Tool bar 3) User friendly

4) Word processor

5) None of these

32.The primary device that a computer uses to store information ... 1) Monitor

2) Memory

3) Disk 4) Hard drive

5) None of these

33.A file extension is separated from the main file name with a(n)..., but no spaces

1) Question nark

2) Exclamation mark

3) Underscore 4) Period

5) None of these


34.Application software is designed to accomplish ...

1) Real -world tasks

2) computer-centric tasks 3) Gaming tasks

4) Operating system tasks

5) None of these 35.A ... is a device that not only provides surge protection, but also

furnishes your computer

with battery backup power during a power outage 1) Surge strip

2) USB

3) UPS

4) Battery strip 5) None of these

36.The term ............. designates equipment that might be added to a

computer system to enhance, its functionality

1) Digital device

2) System add-on 3) Disk pack

4) Peripheral device

5) None of these

37........... this is the act of copying or downloading a program from a network and making

multiple copies of it.

1) Network piracy 2) Plagiarism

3) Software piracy

4) Site-license piracy

5) None of these 38.When installing ..., the user must copy and usually decompress

program files from a CDROM

or other medium to the hard disk

1) Programming software

2) System hardware

3) Applications hardware

4) Applications software 5) None of these

39.Which one of the following would be considered as a way that a

computer virus can enter a computer system ?

1) Opening an application previously installed on the computer

2) Borrowed an illegal copy of software

3) Viewing a website without causing any additional transactions 4) Running antivirus programs

5) None of these


40.Programs such as Mozilla Firefox that serve as navigable windows

into the Web are called ..........

1) Hypertext

2) Networks

3) Internet 4) Web browsers

5) None of these

41.What is the main difference between a mainframe and a super computer ?

1) Super computer is much larger than mainframe computers

2) Super computers are much smaller than mainframe computers

3) Supercomputers are focused to execute few programs as fast as possible while mainframe

uses its power to execute as many programs concurrently

4) Supercomputers are focused to execute as many programs as possible while mainframe uses

its power to execute few programs as fast as possible

5) None of these 42.What is the function of Recycle Bin ?

1) Store deleted file

2) Store temporary file

3) Store corrupted file 4) Store Document file

5) None of these

43.Which is the latest version of MS Office ? 1) Office XP

2) Windows XP

3) Office 2007 4) Office 2010

5) None of these

44.Which device cannot be shared in network ?

1) Floppy 2) Keyword

3) Computer

4) Printer 5) None of these

45.What is the purpose of query ?

1) Input data

2) Output data 3) Sort & filter

4) All of above

5) None of these


HU 46.Which port doesn't exist in computer ?

1) USB 2) Parallel

3) Com1 / Com2 4) RAW 5) None of these


47.What is the name of excel files ?

1) Workbook 2) Worksheet

3) Spreadsheet

4) Spread book

5) None of these 48.Workgroup means

1) Computers in network

2) Individual user 3) Individual computer

4) All of the above

5) None of these 49.Synonym can be reviewed with

1) Spelling and grammar

2) Thesaurus

3) Both 4) Synonym viewer

5) None of these

50. Which command allows you to reduce fragments of file and optimize the performance of

disk ?

1) Scandisk

2) Diskcomp 3) Chkdsak

4) Defrag

5) None of these Answers

No Ans No Ans No Ans No Ans No Ans

1 2 11 1 21 4 31 1 41 3 2 2 12 3 22 2 32 4 42 1

3 5 13 1 23 1 33 5 43 4

4 2 14 1 24 3 34 4 44 2

5 2 15 4 25 3 35 3 45 4 6 4 16 1 26 2 36 4 46 4

7 1 17 4 27 4 37 3 47 1

8 1 18 2 28 1 38 1 48 1 9 3 19 2 29 2 39 2 49 2

10 4 20 4 30 3 40 4 50 4

1. Who is called as ‗‗Father of Computers‘‘? (A) Charles Babage

(B) Blaise Pascal

(C) Hollirth (D) All of these

(E) None of these

2. The first Digital Computer introduced, was named as :

(A) Univac (B) Mark-I

(C) Eniac

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

3. How many generations, computer can be classified?

(A) 4

(B) 5 (C) 3

(D) 6

(E) None of these 4. First Generation Computers contain :

(A) Transistors

(B) Vacuum Tubes

(C) LSI (D) VLSI

(E) None of these

5. II Generation Computers are made of : (A) Vacuum Tubes

(B) Transistors

(C) LSI (D) VLSI

(E) None of these

6. IV Generation Computers contain :

(A) LSI (B) Vacuum Tubes

(C) All Technology

(D) Transistors (E) None of these



7. Vth Generation Computers are based on: (A) Artificial Intelligence

(B) Programming Intelligence

(C) System Knowledge (D) All of these

(E) None of these

8. Computers, combine both measuring and counting, are called : (A) Analog

(B) Digital

(C) Hybrid

(D) All of these (E) None of these

9. In world today, most of the computers are :

(A) Digital (B) Hybrid

(C) Analog

(D) Complex (E) None of these

10. In any computer installation, how many elements consists.

(A) 2

(B) 4 (C) 3

(D) 1

(E) None of these 11. Physical structure of computer is called :

(A) Software

(B) Hardware

(C) Human ware (D) All of these

(E) None of these

12. A computer can perform, which of the following tasks?


HU (A) Computation

(B) Communication

(C) Processing


13. CPU stands for :

(A) Computer Processing Unit (B) Central Processing Unit

(C) Both (A) & (B)

(D) Communication Processing Unit

(E) None of these MCQs on Computers Part II


14. In which type of computer, data are represented as discrete signals.

(A) Analog computer

(B) Digital computer (C) both

(D) Digilog Computer

(E) None of these

15. Which of the following is available in the form of a PC now? (A) Mainframe

(B) Microcomputer

(C) Minicomputer (D) Both (B) & (C)

(E) None of these

16. PARAM is an example of: (A) Super computer

(B) PC (C) Laptop

(D) PDA

(E) None of these 17. Who developed the ‗analytical engine‘?

(A) Jacquard loom

(B) Charles Babbage (C) Shannon

(D) IBM

(E) None of these

18. ENIAC stands for : (A) Electrical Numerical Integrator and Calculator

(B) Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer

(C) Electronic Numerical Integrator and Calculator (D) Electronic Number Integrator and Calculator

(E) None of these

19. First Generation of computer was based on which technology? (A) Transistor

(B) Vacuum Tube

(C) LSI

(D) VLSI (E) None of these

20. Microprocessor was introduced in which generation of

computer? (A) Second Generation

(B) Fourth Generation

(C) Both (A) & (B)

(D) Third Generation (E) All of the above



21. GUI stands for :

(A) Graphical User Interface

(B) Graph Use Interface

(C) Graphical Universal Interface (D) None of these 22. The time taken by CPU to retrieve and interpret the instruction to

be executed is called

as: (A) Instruction cycle

(B) Fetch cycle

(C) Both (A) & (B)


23. Which of the following is responsible for all types of

calculations? (A) ALU

(B) Control Unit

(C) Registers (D) BUS

(E) None of these

24. Internal memory in a CPU is nothing but :

(A) A set of registers (B) A set of ALU

(C) Microprocessor

(D) BUS (E) None of these

25. Which of the following is permanent memory?

(A) SRAM

(B) DRAM (C) ROM (D) All of these

(E) None of these

Answers No Ans No Ans No Ans

1 A 11 B 21 A

2 B 12 D 22 A 3 B 13 B 23 A

4 B 14 B 24 A

5 B 15 B 25 C

6 A 16 A 7 A 17 B

8 C 18 B

9 A 19 B 10 C 20 B

1. In a survey of more than 500 companies and government agencies,

percent detected

computer security breaches. A. 20

B. 75

C. 85 D. 99

Answer: C

2. The survey showed that these businesses lost more than due to

security breaches. A. $100,000 each

B. $377 million

C. five employees each


HU D. $1 million

Answer: B

3. The typical computer criminal is a(n):

A. young hacker. B. trusted employee with no criminal record.

C. trusted employee with a long, but unknown criminal record.

D. overseas young cracker. Answer: B

4. The majority of computer crimes are committed by:

A. hackers.

B. insiders. C. overseas criminals.

D. young teenage computer geniuses.

Answer: B 5. The common name for the crime of stealing passwords is:

A. spooling.

B. identity theft. C. spoofing.

D. hacking.

Answer: C Reference: Theft by Computer

6. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime

of:

A. spooling. B. identity theft.

C. spoofing.

D. hacking.

Answer: B MCQs on Computers Part II


7. Malicious software is known as: A. badware.

B. malware.

C. maliciousware. D. illegalware.

Answer: B

8. A program that performs a useful task while simultaneously

allowing destructive acts is a: A. worm.

B. Trojan horse.

C. virus. D. macro virus.

Answer: B Moderate

9. An intentionally disruptive program that spreads from program to program or from disk to disk is

known as a:

A. Trojan horse.

B. virus. C. time bomb.

D. time-related bomb sequence.

Answer: B 10. In 1999, the Melissa virus was a widely publicized:

A. e-mail virus.

B. macro virus.

C. Trojan horse. D. Time bomb.

Answer: A

11. What type of virus uses computer hosts to reproduce itself?

A. Time bomb

B. Worm

C. Melissa virus

D. Macro virus Answer: B

12. The thing that eventually terminates a worm virus is a lack of:

A. memory or disk space. B. time.

C. CD drive space.

D. CD-RW.

Answer: A 13. When a logic bomb is activated by a time-related event, it is

known as a:

A. time-related bomb sequence. B. virus.

C. time bomb.

D. Trojan horse. Answer: C



14. A logic bomb that was created to erupt on Michelangelo‘s birthday is an example of a:

A. time-related bomb sequence.

B. virus. C. time bomb.

D. Trojan horse.

Answer: C

15. What is the name of an application program that gathers user information and sends it to

someone through the Internet?

A. A virus B. Spybot

C. Logic bomb

D. Security patch Answer: B

16. Standardization of Microsoft programs and the Windows

operating system has made the spread of

viruses: A. more complicated.

B. more difficult.

C. easier. D. slower.

Answer: C

17. HTML viruses infect: A. your computer.

B. a Web page in the HTML code.

C. both a Web page and the computer that is viewing it.

D. No Answer: B

18. Software programs that close potential security breaches in an

operating system are known as: A. security breach fixes.

B. refresh patches.

C. security repairs.

D. security patches. Answer: D

19. When customers of a Web site are unable to access it due to a

bombardment of fake traffic, it is


HU known as:

A. a virus.

B. a Trojan horse.

C. cracking. D. a denial of service attack.

Answer: D


20. is the measurement of things such as fingerprints and retinal

scans used for security

access. A. Biometrics B. Biomeasurement

C. Computer security D. Smart weapon machinery

Answer: A 21. What is the most common tool used to restrict access to a

computer system?

A. User logins B. Passwords

C. Computer keys

D. Access-control software

Answer: B 22. The most common passwords in the U.S. or Britain include all

EXCEPT:

A. love. B. Fred.

C. God.

D. 123.

Answer: D 23. Hardware or software designed to guard against unauthorized

access to a computer network is

known as a(n): A. hacker-proof program.

B. firewall.

C. hacker-resistant server. D. encryption safe wall.

Answer: B

24. The scrambling of code is known as:

A. encryption. B. a firewall.

C. scrambling.

D. password proofing. Answer: A

25. If you want to secure a message, use a(n):

A. cryptology source. B. encryption key.

C. encryption software package.

D. cryptosystem.

Answer: D Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography 26. To prevent the loss of data during power failures, use a(n):

A. encryption program.

B. surge protector. C. firewall.

D. UPS.

Answer: D


27. A(n) can shield electronic equipment from power spikes.

A. encryption program

B. surge protector

C. firewall

D. UPS

Answer: B 28. All of these are suggestions for safe computing EXCEPT:

A. don‘t borrow disks from other people.

B. open all e-mail messages but open them slowly. C. download shareware and freeware with caution.

D. disinfect your system.

Answer: B

29. Freeware encrypts data. A. encryption

B. firewall software

C. PGP D. private and public keys

Answer: C

30. is defined as any crime completed through the use of computer technology.

A. Computer forensics

B. Computer crime

C. Hacking D. Cracking

Answer: B

31. Most computer systems rely solely on for authentication. A. logins

B. passwords

C. encryption

D. lock and key Answer: B

32. Creating strong computer security to prevent computer crime

usually simultaneously helps protect :

A. privacy rights.

B. personal ethics. C. the number of cookies downloaded to your personal computer.

D. personal space.

Answer: A

33. Over was spent by businesses and government to repair problems in regard to Y2K.

A. 20 million dollars

B. 100 million dollars C. 1 billion dollars

D. 100 billion dollars

Answer: D MCQs on Computers Part II


34. What is a complex system that takes on nearly complete

responsibility for a task eliminating the need for people, verification, or decision-making?

A. Autonomous system

B. Missile defense auto-system C. Smart weapon

D. Independent system

Answer: D

35. Security procedures can: A. will eliminate all computer security risk.

B. reduce but not eliminate risks.

C. are prohibitively expensive.


HU D. are inaccessible for the average home user.

Answer: B

Fill in the Blank:

36. The field of computer uses special software to scan hard drives of potential criminal

suspects.

Answer: forensics Reference: Online Outlaws: Computer Crime Difficulty: Challenging

37. Computer often goes unreported because businesses fear

negative publicity.

Answer: crime 38. connections are the most frequent point of attack for Internet

commerce.

Answer: Internet 39. is the most common form of computer crime.

Answer: Theft

40. A survey by eMarketer.com found that are the most often cited online fraud cases.

Answer: online auctions Reference: Identity Theft

41. Theft of computers is most common for PDAs and computers.

Answer: notebook 42. When you use a disk in several different computers within the

same day, you are taking the

chance of contracting a(n) . Answer: virus Reference: Viruses Difficulty: Easy

43. A(n) attaches itself to documents that contain embedded

programs that automate

tasks. Answer: macro virus

44. Both viruses and use computer hosts to replicate.

Answer: worms 45. programs search for and eliminate viruses.Answer: Antivirus


[Compiled by RSTC Gurgaon Canara Bank] Page 53 46. A security patch is a software program that closes possible

security breaches in the operating

system. The cost to the consumer is .

Answer: nothing or free 47. was once the word used for malicious computer wizardry.

Answer: Hackers or hacking

48. refers to electronic trespassing or criminal hacking. Answer: Cracking

49. DoS stands for .

Answer: denial of service 50. DDoS stands for .

Answer: distributed denial of service

51. hijack Web pages and redirect users to other sites.

Answer: Webjackers 52. software monitors and records computer transactions.

Answer: Audit-control

53. Each individual who uses a public key cryptosystem has keys. Answer: two Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography

54. PGP stands for .

Answer: Pretty Good Privacy

55. Mostoperating systems, including Windows XP, assign each user a unique .

Answer: user identifier or user ID

56. It should now be common knowledge that users should not open

from e-mail recipients that

the user does notknow.

Answer: attachments

1. _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ translates and executes program at run time line by

line 1) Compiler

2) Interpreter

3) Linker 4) Loader

5) None

2. _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ is an OOP principle 1) Structured programming

2) Procedural programming

3) Inheritance

4) Linking 5) None

3. COBOL is widely used in _ _ _ _ _ _ _ applications

1) Commercial 2) Scientific

3) Space

4) Mathematical

5) None 4. RAM stands for

1) Random origin money

2) Random only memory 3) Read only memory

4) Random access memory

5) None 5. 1 Byte = ?

1) 8 bits

2) 4 bits

3) 2 bits 4) 9 bits

5) None

6. SMPS stands for 1) Switched mode power supply

2) Start mode power supply

3) Store mode power supply 4) Single mode power supply

5) None

7. The device used to carry digital data on analog lines is called as

1) Modem 2) Multiplexer

3) Modulator

4) Demodulator 5) None MCQs on Computers Part II



1) Screen 2) Monitor

3) Both 1 & 2

4) printer


HU 5) None

9. BIOS stands for

1) Basic Input Output system

2) Binary Input output system 3) Basic Input Off system

4) all the above

5) None 10. Father of ‘C’ programming language

1) Dennis Ritchie

2) Prof Jhon Kemeny

3) Thomas Kurtz 4) Bill Gates 5) None

11. The 16 bit Microprocessor means that it has

1) 16 address lines 2) 16 Buses

3) 16 Data lines

4) 16 routes 5) None

12. Data going into the computer is called

1) Output

2) algorithm 3) Input

4) Calculations

5) flow chart 13. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network?

1) LAN

2) DSL

3) RAM 4) USB

5) CPU

14. Microsoft Office is 1) Shareware

2)Public domain software

3) Open-source software 4) A vertical market application

5) An application suite


[Compiled by RSTC Gurgaon Canara Bank] Page 56 15. How many options does a BINARY choice offer

1) None

2) One 3) Two

4) it depends on the amount of memory on the computer

5) It depends on the speed of the computer‘s processor 16. A collection of program that controls how your computer

system runs and processes

information is called

1) Operating System 2) Computer 3) Office 4) Compiler 5) Interpreter

17. Computer connected to a LAN (Local Area Network) can

1) run faster 2) go on line 3) share information and /or share peripheral equipment

4) E-mail 5) None

18. Information travels between components on the mother board

through 1) Flash memory 2) CMOS 3) Bays 4) Buses 5) Peripherals

19. How are data organized in a spreadsheet?

1) Lines & spaces 2) Layers & Planes 3) Height & Width

4) Rows & Columns 5) None

20. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the

1) mouse 2) logo 3) hand 4) palm 5) cursor

Ans:- 01.2 06.1 11.3 16.1

02.3 07.1 12.3 17.3

03.1 08.3 13.1 18.3 04.4 09.1 14.5 19.4

05.1 10.1 15.3 20.5

1. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system,

what is the most important

consideration? (1) The type of drivers that come with the mouse

(2) The length of the mouse cord

(3) The type of connector the mouse is equipped with (4) The number of buttons the mouse has

(5) None of these

Ans: (3)

2. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device? (1) Through a power cable

(2) From an external power supply

(3) Directly from the computers power supply (4) Through the USB cable

(5) None of these

Ans: (4)

3. All of the following are basic principles of net works, except — (1) each computer must have a network card

(2) there must be communications media connecting the network

hardware devices (3) there must be at least one connecting device

(4) each computer must have software that supports the movement of

information (5) None of these

Ans: (2)

4. The………….data mining technique derives rules from real-world

case examples. (1) Rule discover

(2) Signal processing

(3) Neural nets (4) Case-based reasoning

(5) None of these

Ans: (3) 5. …………….are used to identify a user who returns to a Website.

(1) Cookies

(2) Plug-ins

(3) Scripts (4) ASPs

(5) None of these



UNIT 11

1. Computer uses the .......... number system to store data and perform calculations.

(1) binary

(2) octal


HU (3) decimal

(4) hexadecimal

(5) None of these

ANSWER: 1 2. A disk's content that is recorded at the time of manufacture and

that cannot be changed or erased

by the user is- (1) Memory-only

(2) Write-only

(3) Once-only

(4) Run-only (5) Read-only

ANSWER: 5

3. Which of the following can be used to select the entire document?

(1) CTRL + A

(2) ALT + F5 (3) SHIFT + A

(4) CTRL + K

(5) CTRL + H

ANSWER: 1 4. .......... are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential

information from you by falsifying their

identity. (1) Phishing

(2) Computer viruses

(3) Spyware scams

(4) Viruses (5) None of the above

ANSWER: 1

5. Port number, port description, and number of ports ordered are examples of

(1) control

(2) output (3) processing

(4) feedback

(5) input

ANSWER: 5 MCQs on Computers Part II


6. A Web site's main page is called its- (1) Home Page

(2) Browser Page

(3) Search Page (4) Bookmark

(5) None of these

ANSWER: 1

7. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is-

(1) multiprogramming

(2) multitasking (3) time-sharing

(4) multiprocessing (5) None of these

ANSWER: 1

8. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as-

(1) an ASCII code

(2) a magnetic tape

(3) an OCR scanner

(4) a bar code

(5) None of these

ANSWER: 4 9. To instruct Word to fit the width of a column to the contents of a

table automatically, click the

..... button and then point to AutoFit Contents. (1) Fit to Form

(2) Format

(3) Autosize

(4) Contents (5) AutoFit

ANSWER: 5

10. Why is it unethical to share copyrighted files with your friends? (1) It is not unethical, because it is legal.

(2) It is unethical because the files are being given for free.

(3) Sharing copyrighted files without permission breaks copyright laws.

(4) It is not unethical because the files are being given for free.

(5) It is not unethical-anyone can access a computer

ANSWER: 3 11. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym-

(1) CD

(2) DVD (3) ROM

(4) RW

(5) ROS



12. The most common type of storage devices are- (1) persistent

(2) optical

(3) magnetic (4) flash

(5) steel

ANSWER: 2

13. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be-

(1) distributed

(2) free (3) centralized

(4) open source

(5) None of these ANSWER:5

14. A person who used his or her expertise to gain access to other

people's computers to get

information illegally or do damage is a- (1) hacker

(2) analyst

(3) instant messenger (4) programmer

(5) spammer

ANSWER: 1

15. To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is- (1) dragging

(2) dropping

(3) right-clicking


HU (4) shift-clicking

(5) None of these

ANSWER:3

16. To change selected text to all capital letters, click the change case button, then click- (1)

UPPERCASE

(2) UPPER ALL (3) CAPS LOCK

(4) Lock Upper

(5) Large Size

ANSWER: 1 17. The basic unit of a worksheet into which you enter data in Excel

is called a-

(1) tab (2) cell

(3) box

(4) range (5) None of these

ANSWER: 2


[Compiled by RSTC Gurgaon Canara Bank] Page 61 18. You can keep your personal files / folders in-

(1) My folder

(2) My Documents (3) My Files

(4) My Text

(5) None of these

ANSWER: 2 19. In Word you can force a page break-

(1) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing

the F1 key (2) By positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing

Ctrl + Enter

(3) By using the Insert/Section Break (4) By changing the font size of your document

(5) None of these

ANSWER: 2

20. A DVD is an example of a(n)- (1) hard disk

(2) optical disc

(3) output device (4) solid-state storage device

(5) None of these

ANSWER:2 21. The default view in Excel is ......... view.

(1) Work

(2) Auto

(3) Normal (4) Roman

(5) None of these

ANSWER:3 22. The process of transferring files from a computer on the Internet

to your computer is called

(1) downloading

(2) uploading (3) FTP

(4) JPEG

(5) downsizing

ANSWER: 1

23. .......... is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors.

(1) Tracking

(2) Formatting (3) Crashing

(4) Allotting




24. Help Menu is available at which button? (1) End

(2) Start

(3) Turnoff (4) Restart

(5) Reboot

ANSWER:2 25. The contents of .......... are lost when the computer turns off.

(1) storage

(2) input

(3) output (4) memory

(5) None of these

ANSWER: 5 26. When you enter text in a cell in Excel, it also appears in which of

the following?

(1) Status bar

(2) Formula bar (3) Row heading

(4) Name box


27. Which elements of a Word document can be displayed in colour?

(1) Only graphics (2) Only text

(3) Only the first word of each line

(4) All elements, but only if you have a colour printer

(5) All elements 28. A workbook is a collection of

(1) Page Setup

(2) Buttons (3) Diagrams

(4) Charts

(5) Worksheets ANSWER:5

29. appear at the bottom of the Excel Window.

(1) Sheet tabs

(2) Name Box (3) Formula bar

(4) Title bar

(5) None of these MCQs on Computers Part II


30. EPROM stands for

(1) Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory (2) Electronic Programmable Read-Only Memory

(3) Enterprise Programmable Read-Only Memory

(4) Extended Programmable Read-Only Memory


HU (5) Electrical Programmable Read-Only Memory

ANSWER: 1

31. The technology that stores only the essential instructions on a

microprocessor chip and thus enhances its speed is referred to as

(1) CISC

(2) RISC 3) CD-ROM

(4) Wi-Fi

(5) MISC

ANSWER: 2 32. Which is not a basic function of a computer?

(1) Store data

(2)Accept input (3)Process data

(4) Copy text

(5) Accept and process data ANSWER: 4

33. ASCII is a coding system that provides

(1) 256 different characters

(2) 512 different characters (3) 1024 different characters

(4) 128 different characters

(5) 1000 different characters ANSWER: 4

34. Which part of the computer is directly invoked in executing the

instructions of the computer

program? (1) The scanner

(2) The main storage

(3) The secondary storage (4) The printer

(5) The processor

ANSWER: 5 35. In order to create column data in Word, you need to

(1) tab consecutively until your cursor reaches the desired place

(2) set tabs or use the Table menu

(3) use Excel (4) press the space bar until your cursor reaches the desired place

(5) None of these



36. Files are organised by storing them in (1) tables

(2) databases

(3) folders

(4) graphs (5) diagrams

ANSWER:3

37. When a computer is switched on, the booting process performs (1) Integrity Test

(2) Power-On Self-Test

(3) Correct Functioning Test

(4) Reliability Test (5) Shut-down

ANSWER: 2

38. In Word, the feature that automatically detects common errors

is called

(1) Autocorrect

(2) Autograph

(3) Spelling and Grammar (4) Go to

(5) Thesaurus

ANSWER:1 39. A computer system that is old and perhaps not satisfactory is

referred to as a(n)

(1) Ancient system

(2) Historical system (3) Age old system

(4) Legacy system

(5) Legal System ANSWER: 4

40. Which of the following is not a binary number?

(1) 001 (2) 101

(3) 202

(4) 110

(5) 011 ANSWER:3

41. Which of the following does not store data permanently?

(1) ROM (2) RAM

(3) Floppy Disk

(4) Hard Disk



[Compiled by RSTC Gurgaon Canara Bank] Page 65 42. Which of the following is the smallest storage?

(1) Megabyte

(2) Gigabyte (3) Kilobyte

(4) Terabyte

(5) None of these

ANSWER:5 43. Which menu enables the user to choose toolbars?

(1) View

(2) Format (3) Insert

(4) Edit

(5) Help ANSWER: 1

44. By viewing the properties of the local hard disk of a computer, the

user can find out

(1) the amount of space that has been used up and the remaining free space on the disk.

(2) the name of the user viewing the properties of the disk.

(3) nothing useful to the user. (4) the number of programs available in the computer,

(5) None of these

ANSWER: 1

45. Pre-defined and built-in formulas in Excel are known as (1) Autosheets

(2) Diagrams

(3) Charts


HU (4) Tables

(5) Functions

ANSWER:5

46. Which of the following contains permanent data and gets updated during the processing of

transactions?

(1) Operating System File (2) Transaction file

(3) Software File

(4) Master file

(5) Any File ANSWER:4

47. The keyboard shortcut to centralise the selected text in Word is

(1) Ctrl + Esc (2) Ctrl + C

(3) Alt + C

(4) There is no keyboard shortcut for this operation (5) Ctrl + E

ANSWER: 5


[Compiled by RSTC Gurgaon Canara Bank] Page 66 48. Which of the following helps to protect floppy disks from data

getting accidentally erased?

(1) Access notch (2) Write-protect notch

(3) Entry notch

(4) Input notch


49. A modem is connected to

(1) a telephone line (2) a keyboard

(3) a printer

(4) a monitor (5) a scanner

ANSWER:1

50. Large transaction processing systems in automated

organisations use (1) Online processing

(2) Batch Processing

(3) Once-a-day Processing (4) End-of-day processing

(5) Once-a-week processing

ANSWER:2 51. The operation of combining two cells into a single cell in Excel

is referred to as

(1) join cells

(2) merge cells (3) merge table

(4) join table


52. Which of the following can be used to store a large number of

files in a small amount of storage

space? (1) File adjustment

(2) File copying

(3) File reading

(4) File compatibility

(5) File compression

ANSWER:5

53. In a computer, most processing takes place in (1) memory

(2) RAM

(3) motherboard (4) CPU

(5) None of these

ANSWER:4


54. Data is organized in a worksheet as

(1) charts and diagrams (2) rows and columns

(3) tables and boxes

(4) graphs (5) None of the above

ANSWER:2

55. Which of the following is an example of a binary number?

(1) 6AH1 (2) 100101

(3) 005

(4) ABCD (5) 23456

ANSWER:2

56. Spell Check will find errors in which of the following?

(1) Today is a rainy day (2) Today is a rainy a day

(3) Is a rainy

(4) Rainy today a day (5) None of the above

ANSWER:5

57. Which of the following is not a storage medium? (1) Hard disk

(2) Flash drive

(3) DVD

(4) CD (5) Keyboard

ANSWER:5

58. In Excel, when the contents and attributes of a cell or range of cells have to be erased using the

menu, the user must

(1) select the Cells. choose Edit. and select Clear, then All (2) select the Cells. and click Delete on the keyboard

(3) select the Cells. choose Tools. and select Clear. then Formats

(4) select the Cells. choose Tools. and select Formula Audit. then

Delete (5) None of the above

ANSWER:1

59. The computer abbreviation KB usually means (1) Key Block

(2) Kernel Boot

(3) Kilo Byte

(4) Kit Bit (5) None of these

ANSWER: 3



HU [Compiled by RSTC Gurgaon Canara Bank] Page 68

60. If an Excel Worksheet is to be linked for use in a PowerPoint

presentation, the following should

be clicked (1) Edit, Paste Special

(2) Edit, Paste

(3) Edit, Copy (4) File, Copy

(5) None of the above

ANSWER: 2

61. RAM stands for (1) Random Access Memory

(2) Ready Application Module

(3) Read Access Memory (4) Remote Access Machine

(5) None of the above

ANSWER: 1 62. Which of the following is the hardware and not the software? .

(1) Excel

(2) Printer driver

(3) Operating system (4) Powerpoint

(5) Control Unit

ANSWER:5 63. In Word, which menu would the user select to print a

document?

(1) Tools

(2) File (3) View

(4) Wind0Vob

(5) None of these ANSWER: 2

64. Which of the following is not true about computer files?

(1) They are collections of data saved to a Storage medium (2) Every file has a filename

(3) A file extension is established by the user to indicate the date it

was created

(4) Usually files contain data (5) None of the above

ANSWER:5

65. The common name for a modulator-demodulator is (1) modem

(2) joiner

(3) networker (4) connector

(5) demod

ANSWER: 1


66. What do you see when you click the right mouse button?

(1) The same effect as the left click (2) A special menu

(3) No effect

(4) A mouse cannot be right clicked

(5) Computer goes to sleep mode ANSWER:2

67. In order to choose the font for a sentence in a Word document,

(1) select Font in the Format menu

(2) select Font in the Edit menu

(3) select Font in the Tools menu

(4) select Font in the Insert menu

(5) None of the above ANSWER:1

68. The ALU performs .......... operations.

(1) logarithm-based (2) ASCII

(3) algorithm-based

(4) arithmetic

(5) None of the above ANSWER:4

69. Excel is a program that is used to prepare a

(1) Database (2) Text Document

(3) Spreadsheet

(4) Slide Presentation (5) None of the above

ANSWER:3

70. .......... consists of volatile chips that temporarily store data or

instructions. (1) CPU

(2) ROM

(3)RMA (4) RAM

(5) None of these

Q.1 Which of the following is not an scripting language ?

(A) HTML (B) XML

(C) Postscript (D) Javascript Ans: C Postscript

Q.2 Which of the following is a platform free language

(A) Fortran (B) Assembly (C) C (D) Java

Ans: D Java

Q.3 A digital signature is (A) scanned signature (B) signature in binary form

(C) encrypting information (D) handwritten signature

Ans: C encrypting information Q.4 Mechanism to protect private networks from outside attack is

(A) Firewall (B) Antivirus

(C) Digital signature (D) Formatting Ans: A Firewall

Q.5 A computer system that permits multiple users to run programs at

same time

(A) Real time system (B) Multi programming system (C) Time sharing system (D) Multi tasking system

Ans: D Multi tasking system

Code: T-16 Subject: E-COMMERCE 2

Q.6 A computer communication technology that provides a way to

interconnect

multiple computer across short distance is (A) LAN (B) MAN

(C) WAN (D) Wireless network


HU Ans: A LAN

Q.7 Telnet is a service that runs

(A) Television on net (B) Remote program

(C) Cable TV network (D) Telenext Ans: B Remote program

Q.8. A device that forwards data packet from one network to

another is called a (A) Bridge (B) Switch

(C) Hub (D) Gateway

Ans: B Switch

Q.9 Which of the following is the fastest media of data transfer (A) Co-axial Cable (B) Untwisted Wire

(C) Telephone Lines (D) Fibre Optic

Ans: D Fiber Optic. Q.10 Tool that is used to transfer data/files among computers on the

Internet

(A) FTP (B) Archie (C) TCP (D) Gopher

Ans: C TCP

Q.11 HTML is a

(A) Programming Language (B) Scripting Language (C) Web Browser (D) Network Protocol

Ans: B Scripting Language


Q.12 Secret-key encryption is also known as

(A) Asymmetric encryption (B) Symmetric encryption

(C) Secret-encryption (D) Private encryption Ans: D Private encryption

Q.13 The concept of electronic cash is to execute payment by

(A) Credit Card (B) ATM Card (C) Using computers over network (D) Cheque

Ans: C Using computers over network.

Q.14 SMTP is a (A) Networking Protocol

(B) Protocol used for transferring message between end user &

Mail Server

(C) Protocol used for smart card message interchange (D) Encryption Standard

Ans: B Protocol used for transferring message between end user &

Mail Server. Q.15 Digital Signature is

(A)Scanned Signature on Computer

(B) Code number of the sender. (C)Public Key Encryption.

(D)Software to recognize signature.

Ans: D Software to recognize signature

Q.16 Telnet is a (A) Network of Telephones (B) Television Network

(C) Remote Login (D) Remote Login.

Ans: C Remote Login. Q.17 The internet is

(A) Network of networks (B) Web site.

(C) Host (D) Server

Ans: A Network of networks Code: T-16 Subject: E-COMMERCE

4

Q.18 An e-business that allows consumer to name their own price

for products

and services is following which e-business model?

(A) B2B (B) B2G

(C) C2C (D) C2B Ans: D C2B

Q.19 Kerberos is an encryption-based system that uses

(A) Secret key encryption (B) Public key encryption (C) Private key encryption (D) Data key encryption

Ans: A Secret key encryption.

Q.19 The method(s) of payment for online consumers are

(A) Electronic cash (B) Credit/debit (C) Electronic checks (D) All of the above

Ans: D All of the Above.

Q.20 DNS is (A) The distributed hierarchical naming system

(B) The vertical naming system

(C) The horizontal naming system (D) The client server system

Ans: C The horizontal naming system.

Q.21 A firewall is

(A) An established network performance reference point. (B) Software or hardware used to isolate a private network from a

public network.

(C) A virus that infects macros. (D) A predefined encryption key used to encrypt and decrypt data

transmissions.

Ans: B Software or hardware used to isolate a private network from a

public network. Q.22 A router

(A) Screens incoming information. (B) Distributes information between networks

(C) Clears all viruses from a computer system

(D) Is a work virus. Ans: B Distributes information between networks

Code: T-16 Subject: E-COMMERCE

5

Q.23 LDAP stands for (A) Light weight Data Access Protocol.

(B) Light weight Directory Access Protocol.

(C) Large Data Access Protocol. (D) Large Directory Access Protocol.

Ans: B -> Light weight Directory Access Protocol.

Q.24 E-Commerce is not suitable for (A) Sale/Purchase of expensive jewellery and antiques.

(B) Sale/Purchase of mobile phones.

(C) Sale/Purchase of branded clothes.

(D) Online job searching. Ans: D Online job searching

Q.25 Amazon.com comes under the following model

(A) B2B (B) B2C (C) C2C (D) C2B

Ans: B B2C

Q.26 Hubs are present in the network

(A) to diagnose line failures, measure and manage traffic flow and simplify re

configuring of LANs.

(B) to interconnect the LAN with WANs.


HU (C) to interconnect the WANs with WANs.

(D) to interconnect the WANs with LANs.

Ans: B to interconnect the LAN with WANs.

Q.27 Firewalls operate by (A)The pre-purchase phase.

(B) isolating Intranet from Extranet.

(C)Screening packets to/from the Network and provide controllable filtering of network

traffic.

(D)None of the above.

Ans: C Screening packets to/from the Network and provide controllable filtering of

network traffic.


Q.28 The mercantile process model consists of the following

pahase(s): (A) The pre-purchase phase.

(B) Purchase consummation phase.

(C) Post-purchase Interaction phase.

(D) All of the above. Ans: D All of the Above.

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