Supervisor Instructor Grade III - GADHAVIS CAREER ...

hkusøkkh yLku íkk÷e{ ¾kíkkLkkSupervisor Instructor Grade III(Automobile, Chemical, Computer, Electrical, Electronics,Garments, Maths Drawing, Mechanical, Refrigeration)

{ËËLkeþ EsLkuh (rMkrð÷) ðøko-2 (GPSC)• Lk{oËk, s¤MktÃkr¥k, Ãkkýe ÃkwhðXk yLku fÕÃkMkh rð¼køk nMíkf• økwshkík EsLkuh Mkuðk (rMkrð÷) ðøko 1 yLku ðøko 2 ({køko yLku {fkLk rð¼køk)

Government of IndiaMinistry of Railways

Railway Recruitment Boards

DR. MANISH DOSHI(Engineer)

M. : 94260 01599

PRAFFUL GADHAVI(M.P.A., M.A.L.L.B., D. Pharm)

M. : 99749 70212

• Assistant (Workshop)• Assistant Bridge• Assistant C And W• Assistant Depot (Stores)• Assistant Loco Shed (Diesel)• Assistant Loco Shed (Electrical)

• • Assistant Pointsman• Assistant Signal And Telecom• Assistant Track Machine• Assistant Tl And Ac• Assistant Tl And Ac (workshop)

Assistant Operations (Electrical) • • Assistant Works• Assistant Works (workshop)• Hospital Assistant• Track Maintainer Grade IV

Assistant TRD

Industrial Training Institute

GADHAVI CAREER DEVELOPMENT ACADEMYgadhaviacademy

gadhaviacademy

gadhaviacademy

gadhaviacademy

gadhaviacademy

gadhaviacademy

http://gadhaviscurrentaffairsmagazine.com

: MktÃkkËf :

hkusøkkh yLku íkk÷e{ ¾kíkkLkkSupervisor Instructor Grade III

(Automobile, Chemical, Computer, Electrical, Electronics,Garments, Maths Drawing, Mechanical, Refrigeration)

{ËËLkeþ EsLkuh (rMkrð÷) ðøko-2 (GPSC)• Lk{oËk, s¤MktÃkr¥k, Ãkkýe ÃkwhðXk yLku fÕÃkMkh rð¼køk nMíkf• økwshkík EsLkuh Mkuðk (rMkrð÷) ðøko 1 yLku ðøko 2 ({køko yLku {fkLk rð¼køk)

Government of IndiaMinistry of Railways


DR. MANISH DOSHI(Engineer)

M. : 94260 01599

PRAFFUL GADHAVI(M.P.A., M.A.L.L.B., D. Pharm)

M. : 99749 70212

• Assistant (Workshop)• Assistant Bridge• Assistant C And W• Assistant Depot (Stores)• Assistant Loco Shed (Diesel)• Assistant Loco Shed (Electrical)

• • Assistant Pointsman• Assistant Signal And Telecom• Assistant Track Machine• Assistant Tl And Ac• Assistant Tl And Ac (workshop)

Assistant Operations (Electrical) • • Assistant Works• Assistant Works (workshop)• Hospital Assistant• Track Maintainer Grade IV

Assistant TRD

: MktÃkkËf :

gadhaviacademy

F-1, Mkíð þkhËk fkuBÃk÷uûk, ytçkk÷k÷ ÃkkfoLke Mkk{u,W{k nkuÂMÃkx÷ ÃkkMku, ykËeïhLkøkh, Lkhkuzk, y{ËkðkË.

økZðe furhÞh zuð÷Ãk{uLx yufuzu{e

M. : 96013 38205

of 36

ગજરાત ગૌણ સવા ૫સદગી મડળ,

બલોક ન. ૨, પહલો માળ, કમમયોગી ભવન, સકટર – ૧૦, ગાધીનગર જાહરાત કરમાકઃ ૧૬૭/ર૦૧૮૧૯ થી ૧૮૦/ર૦૧૮૧૯ અગની વવગતવાર સચનાઓ

(વબસાઇટ એડરસ : https://ojas.gujarat.gov.in અન https://gsssb.gujarat.gov.in)

૧. ગજરાત ગૌણ સવા ૫સદગી મડળ, ગાધીનગર દવારા શરમ અન રોજગાર વવભાગના વનયતરણ હઠળના ખાતાના વડા વનયામકશરી, રોજગાર અન તાલીમ, ગાધીનગર હસતકની જદી જદી કચરીઓમા વગગ-૩ ના જદા જદા તાવતરક સવગોની સીધી ભરતીની જગાઓ ભરવા માટ સપધાગતમક પરીકષા યોજીન મરીટના ધોરણ પસદગી/પરવતકષા યાદી તયાર કરવા માટ ઉમદવારો પાસથી OJAS ની વબસાઇટ ઉપર ઓન-લાઈન અરજી૫તરકો મગાવવામા આવ

છ. આ ઉમદવારોએ https://ojas.gujarat.gov.in વબસાઈટ ૫ર તા. ૧૨/૦૩/૨૦૧૯ (બપોરના ૧૪:૦૦ કલાક) થી તા. ૧૧/૦૪/૨૦૧૯ (સમય રાતરીના ૧૧-૫૯ કલાક) દરવમયાન

ઓનલાઈન અરજી કરવાની રહશ.

1) અરજી કરવા માટની વવગતવાર સચનાઓ (આ જાહરાતમા મદદા નબર- ૭ મા દશાગવલ

છ ત સહીત) આ સમગર જાહરાત ઓનલાઇન અરજી કરતા પહલા ઉમદવાર પોત

ધયાનથી વાચવી જરરી છ.

2) ઓનલાઇન અરજી કરતી વખત ઉમદવાર કોઇ પરમાણપતરો જોડવાના નથી. પરત,

ઓનલાઇન અરજી કરતી વખત પરમાણપતરોમાની વવગતોન આધાર ઓનલાઇન અરજીમા

અરજદાર સમગર વવગતો ભરવાની રહ છ. આથી પોતાના બધા જ પરમાણપતરો જવા ક,

શકષણણક લાયકાત, વય, શાળા છોડયાન પરમાણપતર, જાવત, શારીરરક ખોડ-ખાપણ(લાગ

પડત હોય તો), માજી સવનક(લાગ પડત હોય તો), વવધવા(લાગ પડત હોય તો) તમજ

અનય લાયકાતના અસલ પરમાણપતરોન સાથ રાખીન ઓનલાઇન અરજીમા એવા

પરમાણપતરોન આધાર સમગર વવગતો ભરવાની રહ છ. જથી અરજીમાની ખોટી વવગતોન

કારણ અરજી રદ થવા પાતર ઠર નહી.

3) પરીકષા પધધવત : પસદગીની પરરિયામા જાહરાતમા મદદા નબર-૯ મા દશાગવયા મજબની

પરથમ તબકકામા હતલકષી પરશનોવાળી ઓ.એમ.આર. પધધવતની સપધાગતમક લણખત પરીકષા

ભાગ-૧ અન તયારબાદ કલ જગાના અદાજીત તરણ ગણા ઉમદવારોએ ભાગ-૨ ની

કોમપયટર પરોફીસીયનસી ટસટ (કાયગકષમતા કસોટી) ની પરિીયામાથી પસાર થવાન રહશ.

https://gsssb.gujarat.gov.in/

https://ojas.gujarat.gov.in/

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4) જરરત ઉપસસથત થય પરીકષા સદભની અમક સચનાઓ મોબાઇલ નબર પર

એસ.એમ.એસ. (SMS) થી આપવામા આવશ. આથી, અરજીપતરકમા સબવધત કોલમમા

મોબાઇલ નબર અવશ ય દશાગવવો અન સમગર ભરતી પરરિયા ણગ થાય ત યા સધી ત જ

મોબાઈલ નબર જાળવી રાખવો અવનવાયગ રીત જરરી છ.

સવગમવાર જગયાની વવગતો નીચ મજબ છ.

જાહરાત કરમાક

વવભાગ/ ખાતાના વડાની

કચરીનનામ

સવગગન નામ સામાન ય વગગ

આવથિક રીત નબળા વગો

અનસણચત જાવત

અનસણચત

જન જાવત

સા.શ.૫. વગગ

કલ સા મા નય

મ

રહ લા

સા મા નય

મ

રહ લા


મ

રહ લા


મ

રહ લા


મ

રહ લા

૧૬૭/ર૦૧૮૧૯

વનયામકશરી, રોજગાર

અન તાલીમ

સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (વમકનીકલ ગરપ)

૧૩૮ ૬૭ ૩૪ ૧૬ ૨૪ ૧૧ ૫૧ ૨૪ ૯૧ ૪૪ ૫૦૦

૧૬૮/ર૦૧૮૧૯



સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ફબરીકશન ગરપ)

૪૨ ૨૦ ૧૧ ૪ ૭ ૩ ૧૫ ૭ ૨૮ ૧૩ ૧૫૦

૧૬૯/ર૦૧૮૧૯



સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (રફરીજરશન એનસટડ એર કડીશનીગ ગરપ)

૧૪ ૬ ૪ ૧ ૩ ૧ ૬ ૨ ૯ ૪ ૫૦

૧૭૦/ર૦૧૮૧૯



સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ઇલકરીકલ ગરપ)

૧૫૨ ૭૪ ૩૭ ૧૮ ૨૬ ૧૨ ૫૫ ૨૭ ૧૦૦ ૪૯ ૫૫૦

૧૭૧/ર૦૧૮૧૯



સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ઇનસટફોમશન ટકનોલોજી ગરપ)

૩ -- ૧ -- ૧ -- ૨ -- ૩ -- ૧૦

૧૭૨/ર૦૧૮૧૯



સપરવાઇઝર

ઇનસટરકટર (ઇનસટમટશન ગરપ)

૧૪ ૬ ૪ ૧ ૩ ૧ ૬ ૨ ૯ ૪ ૫૦

૧૭૩/ર૦૧૮૧૯



સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (વસવવલ કનસટરકશન એનસટડ ઇનસટફરારકચર ગરપ)

૧૯ ૯ ૫ ૧ ૪ ૧ ૭ ૩ ૧૩ ૫ ૬૭

૧૭૪/ર૦૧૮૧૯



સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ઓટોમોબાઇલ ગરપ)

૮૩ ૪૦ ૨૧ ૯ ૧૫ ૬ ૩૧ ૧૪ ૫૫ ૨૬ ૩૦૦

૧૭૫/ર૦૧૮૧૯



સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (કવમકલ ગરપ)

૨૫ ૧૨ ૭ ૨ ૫ ૧ ૧૦ ૪ ૧૭ ૭ ૯૦

૧૭૬/ર૦૧૮૧૯



સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (પલાટીક ગરપ)

૫ ૨ ૧ -- ૧ -- ૨ -- ૩ ૧ ૧૫

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૧૭૭/ર૦૧૮૧૯

વનયામકશરી, રોજગાર અન તાલીમ

સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (કોમપપયટર ગરપ)

૭૦ ૩૩ ૧૭ ૮ ૧૨ ૫ ૨૫ ૧૨ ૪૬ ૨૨ ૨૫૦

૧૭૮/ર૦૧૮૧૯


સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (બયટી કલચર એનસટડ હર ડરસીસ ગરપ)

૧૪ ૬ ૪ ૧ ૩ ૧ ૬ ૨ ૯ ૪ ૫૦

૧૭૯/ર૦૧૮૧૯


સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ગારમટસ ગરપ)

૪૭ ૨૩ ૧૨ ૫ ૯ ૩ ૧૭ ૮ ૩૧ ૧૫ ૧૭૦

૧૮૦/ર૦૧૮૧૯


સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (મડીકલ નવસિગ

(હલથ એનસટડ સનટરી ઇનસટપકટર) ગરપ)

૩૩ ૧૫ ૮ ૩ ૬ ૨ ૧૨ ૫ ૨૧ ૧૦ ૧૧૫

કલ જગયાઓ ૬૫૯ ૩૧૩ ૧૬૬ ૬૯ ૧૧૯ ૪૭ ૨૪૫ ૧૧૦ ૪૩૫ ૨૦૪ ૨૩૬૭

ઉપર દશાગવલ જગયાઓ પકી માજી સવનકો અન શારરરીક રીત વવકલાગ ઉમદવારો માટની

સવગગવાર અનામત જગયાઓ નીચ દશાગવયા મજબની રહશ.

જાહરાત િમાક સવગગન નામ કલ જગયાઓ

માજી સવનક

શારરરીક વવકલાગ

દરષટટ શરવણ

હલન ચલન

(BL- OL)

૧૬૭/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (વમકનીકલ ગરપ)

૫૦૦ ૫૦ ૧૪ ૪ ૫ ૫

૧૬૮/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ફબરીકશન ગરપ)

૧૫૦ ૧૫ ૫ ૧ ૨ ૨

૧૬૯/ર૦૧૮૧૯


૫૦ ૫ ૨ - ૧ ૧

૧૭૦/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ઇલકરીકલ ગરપ)

૫૫૦ ૫૫ ૧૬ ૫ ૫ ૬

૧૭૧/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ઇનસટફોમશન ટકનોલોજી ગરપ)

૧૦ ૧ - - - -

૧૭૨/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ઇનસટમટશન ગરપ)

૫૦ ૫ ૨ - ૧ ૧

૧૭૩/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (વસવવલ કનસટરકશન એનસટડ ઇનસટફરારકચર ગરપ)

૬૭ ૭ ૨ - ૧ ૧

૧૭૪/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ઓટોમોબાઇલ ગરપ)

૩૦૦ ૩૦ ૯ ૩ ૩ ૩

૧૭૫/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (કવમકલ ગરપ)

૯૦ ૯ ૩ ૧ ૧ ૧

૧૭૬/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (પલાટીક ગરપ)

૧૫ ૨ - - - -

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૧૭૭/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર

(કોમપપયટર ગરપ) ૨૫૦ ૨૫ ૮ ૨ ૩ ૩

૧૭૮/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (બયટી કલચર એનસટડ હર ડરસીસ ગરપ)

૫૦ ૫ ૨ - ૧ ૧

૧૭૯/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર

(ગારમટસ ગરપ) ૧૭૦ ૧૭ ૫ ૧ ૨ ૨

૧૮૦/ર૦૧૮૧૯

સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (મડીકલ નવસિગ (હલથ એનસટડ સનટરી ઇનસટપકટર) ગરપ)

૧૧૫ ૧૧ ૩ ૧ ૧ ૧

કલ જગયાઓ ૨૩૬૭ ૨૩૭ ૭૧ ૧૮ ૨૬ ૨૭

નોધ: (૧) જાહરાતમા દશાગવલ જગાઓની સખયામા વધઘટ થવાની શકયતા રહશ. (૨) અનામત જગાઓ ફકત મળ ગજરાતના જ ત અનામત કટગરીના ઉમદવારો માટ જ

અનામત છ. (૩) ઉપર દશાગવલ જાહરાતો પકી કોઇ એક જાહરાત માટ એક ઉમદવાર એક જ અરજી

કરી શકશ. આમ છતા, સજોગોવશાત, જો કોઈ ઉમદવાર એક થી વધ અરજી કરલ હશ, તો છલલી કનફમગ થયલ અરજીન માનય રાખીન અનય અરજીપતરકન રદ ગણવામા આવશ. ણબન અનામત વગગના ઉમદવારોએ છલલી કનફમગ થયલ અરજી સાથ વનયત ફી ભરલ હશ ત અરજી માનય ગણાશ. અન અગાઉની અરજી રદ ગણવામા આવશ. જો ઉમદવાર છલલી કનફમગ થયલ અરજી સાથ વનયત ફી ભરલ નહી હોય, તો આવા ઉમદવારની બાકીની અરજીઓ પકી વનયત ફી સાથની કનફમગ થયલી છલલી અરજી માનય ગણવામા આવશ. જો ઉમદવાર એકથી વધ અરજી સાથ ફી ભરલ હશ તો ત રીફડ કરવામા આવશ નહી.

(૪) સામાનય વહીવટ વવભાગના તા. ૧૧/૧૧/૨૦૧૪ ના ઠરાવ િમાક-સીઆરઆર/ ૧૦૯૬/૨૨/૧૩/ગ.૨(ભાગ-૧) તથા તા. ૦૧/૦૮/૨૦૧૮ ની જોગવાઈઓ ધયાન લઈન, મરહલાઓ માટ અનામત જગાઓ રાખવામા આવલ છ. મરહલાઓની અનામત જગાઓ માટ લાયક મરહલા ઉમદવાર ઉ૫લબધ નહી થાય તો, ત જગા સબવધત કટગરી (જનરલ, એસ.સી., એસ.ટી., એસ.ઇ.બી.સી.) ના રષ ઉમદવારથી ભરવામા આવશ.

(૫) માજી સવનક માટ વનયમાનસાર ૧૦% જગા અનામત છ. માજી સવનક કટગરીમા પસદ થયલ ઉમદવારોન તઓની સબવધત જ ત કટગરી(જનરલ, એસ.સી., એસ.ટી., એસ.ઇ.બી.સી.) સામ સરભર કરવામા આવશ. માજી સવનકની અનામત જગા માટ લાયક માજી સવનક ઉમદવાર નહી મળ તો ત જગા જ ત કટગરીના અનય સામાનય લાયક ઉમદવારોથી ભરવામા આવશ.

માજી સવનક ઉમદવારો ક જઓએ જલ, વાય અન સથળની આમી ફોસીસમા ઓછામા ઓછા છ માસની સવા કરી હોય અન માજી સવનક તરીકન સકષમ

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અવધકારીન ઓળખ કાડગ અન રડસચારજ બક ધરાવતા હોય તો ઉપલી વય મયાગદામા તઓએ બજાવલ ફરજનો સમયગાળો ઉપરાત તરણ વષગ સધીની છટછાટ મળશ. માજી સવનક તરીકની ફરજ ચાલ હોય તવા ઉમદવારો વનવવિન એક વષગ બાકી હોય તો પણ તઓ પોતાની ઉમદવારી નોધાવી શકશ.

(૬) શારીરરક રીત વવકલાગ ઉમદવારોની જગાઓ જ ત કટગરી સામ સરભર કરવામા આવશ. શારીરરક રીત વવકલાગ ઉમદવારોની જગાઓ માટ લાયક શારીરરક રીત વવકલાગ ઉમદવારો નહી મળ તો ત જગા જ ત કટગરીના અનય સામાનય લાયક ઉમદવારોથી ભરવામા આવશ.

(૭) જાહરાતમા જ ત કટગરીમા કલ જગાઓ પકી મરહલા ઉમદવારો માટ અમક જગાઓ અનામત હોય તયાર મરહલા ઉમદવારોની અનામત જગાઓ વસવાયની બાકી રહતી જગાઓ ફકત રષ ઉમદવારો માટ અનામત છ તમ ગણવાન નથી, આ જગાઓ પર રષ તમજ મરહલા ઉમદવારોની પસદગી માટ વવચારણા થઇ શક છ. રષ તમજ મરહલા ઉમદવારો અરજી કરી શક છ.(દા.ત. કલ ૧૦ જગાઓ પકી ૦૩ જગા મરહલા ઉમદવાર માટ અનામત છ પરત બાકી રહતી ૦૭ જગા સામ મરહલા ઉમદવાર પણ પસદગી પામી શક છ.)

ર. ૫ગાર ધોરણ:- નાણા વવભાગના તા.૧૬/ર/ર૦૦૬ ના તથા તા.ર૯/૪/ર૦૧૦ અન તા. ૬/૧૦/૨૦૧૧, તા. ૨૦/૧૦/૨૦૧૪ ના ઠરાવ િમાક: ખરચ-ર૦૦ર-૫૭-ઝ.૧ તમજ તા.૨૦/૧૦/૨૦૧૫ ના ઠરાવ િમાક: ખરચ-ર૦૦ર-૫૭-(પાટગ-ર)-ઝ.૧ તથા છલલ તા. ૧૮/૦૧/૨૦૧૭ ના ઠરાવ િમાક: ખરચ-ર૦૦ર-૫૭-(પાટગ-ર)-ઝ.૧ અનવય

પરથમ પાચ વષગ માટ પરવત માસ માટ નીચ મજબના વનયત રફકસ ૫ગારથી વનમણ ક અપાશ. તમજ ઉકત ઠરાવના અનય લાભો મળવાપાતર થશ. અન સામાનય વહીવટ વવભાગના તા.૨૩-૧૦-ર૦૧૫ ના ઠરાવ િમાક: સીઆરઆર-૧૧-ર૦૧૫-૩૧૨૯૧૧-

ગ.૫ અન નાણા વવભાગના તા.૨૮-૦૩-ર૦૧૬ ના ઠરાવ િમાક: ખરચ/૨૦૦૨/ ૫૭/(પાટગ-૩)/ઝ-૧ તથા તા.૧૮/૦૧/૨૦૧૭ મા દશાગવલ બોલીઓ અન શરતોન

આવધન વનમાયલ ઉમદવાર પાચ વષગના અત તની સવાઓ સતોષકારક જણાયથી સબવધત કચરીમા જ ત સમયના સરકારશરીના વનયમોનસાર મળવાપાતર ૫ગાર ધોરણમા વનયવમત વનમણ ક મળવવાન પાતર થશ. તમ છતા આ બાબત નામ.સપરીમ કોટગમા દાખલ થયલ SLP No. 14124/2012 અન SLP No. 14125/2012 ના ચકાદાન આધીન રહશ.

જાહરાત િમાક વવભાગ/ ખાતાના વડાની કચરીનનામ

સવગગન નામ પરથમ પાચ વષગ સધી મળનાર રફકસ પગાર

૧૬૭/ર૦૧૮૧૯ વનયામકશરી,રોજગાર અન તાલીમ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (વમકનીકલ ગરપ) ૩૧,૩૪૦/-

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૧૬૮/ર૦૧૮૧૯ વનયામકશરી, રોજગાર અન તાલીમ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ફબરીકશન ગરપ) ૩૧,૩૪૦/-

૧૬૯/ર૦૧૮૧૯ વનયામકશરી, રોજગાર અન તાલીમ


૩૧,૩૪૦/-

૧૭૦/ર૦૧૮૧૯ વનયામકશરી, રોજગાર અન તાલીમ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ઇલકરીકલ ગરપ) ૩૧,૩૪૦/-

૧૭૧/ર૦૧૮૧૯ વનયામકશરી, રોજગાર અન તાલીમ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ઇનસટફોમશન ટકનોલોજી ગરપ) ૩૧,૩૪૦/-

૧૭૨/ર૦૧૮૧૯ વનયામકશરી, રોજગાર અન તાલીમ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ઇનસટમટશન ગરપ) ૩૧,૩૪૦/-

૧૭૩/ર૦૧૮૧૯ વનયામકશરી, રોજગાર અન તાલીમ

સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (વસવવલ કનસટરકશન એનસટડ

ઇનસટફરારકચર ગરપ) ૩૧,૩૪૦/-

૧૭૪/ર૦૧૮૧૯ વનયામકશરી, રોજગાર અન તાલીમ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ઓટોમોબાઇલ ગરપ) ૩૧,૩૪૦/-

૧૭૫/ર૦૧૮૧૯ વનયામકશરી, રોજગાર અન તાલીમ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (કવમકલ ગરપ) ૩૧,૩૪૦/-

૧૭૬/ર૦૧૮૧૯ વનયામકશરી, રોજગાર અન તાલીમ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (પલાટીક ગરપ) ૩૧,૩૪૦/-

૧૭૭/ર૦૧૮૧૯ વનયામકશરી, રોજગાર અન તાલીમ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (કોમપપયટર ગરપ) ૩૧,૩૪૦/-

૧૭૮/ર૦૧૮૧૯ વનયામકશરી, રોજગાર અન તાલીમ

સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (બયટી કલચર એનસટડ હર ડરસીસ ગરપ)

૩૧,૩૪૦/-

૧૭૯/ર૦૧૮૧૯ વનયામકશરી, રોજગાર અન તાલીમ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ગારમટસ ગરપ)

૩૧,૩૪૦/-

૧૮૦/ર૦૧૮૧૯ વનયામકશરી, રોજગાર અન તાલીમ

સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (મડીકલ નવસિગ (હલથ એનસટડ સનટરી ઇનસટપકટર) ગરપ)

૩૧,૩૪૦/-

૩. રાષટરીયતા:- ઉમદવાર ભારતનો નાગરરક હોવો જોઈએ. અથવા ગજરાત મલ કી સવા વગીકરણ અન ભરતી (સામાન ય) વનયમો, ૧૯૬૭ ના વનયમ-૭ ની જોગવાઇ મજબની રાટ રીયતા ધરાવતા હોવા જોઇએ.

૪.(૧) વયમયામદા અન શકષણણક લાયકાતની વવગતો:-

જા.કર. સવગમ વયમયામદા / શકષણણક લાયકાત

૧૬૭/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (વમકનીકલ ગરપ)

(ક) તા ૧૧/૦૪/ર૦૧૯ ના રોજ ઉમદવારની ઉમર ૧૮ વષગથી ઓછી નરહ અન ૩૫ વષગથી વધ ન હોવી જોઈશ.

(ખ) (૧) ઉમદવાર ધોરણ-૧૦ પાસ કરલ હોવ જોઇશ અથવા સરકાર માનય કરલ તન સમકકષ લાયકાત ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.

(૨) ઉમદવાર ભારતમા કન દરીય અથવા રાજય અવધવનયમથી અથવા ત હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અનય કોઈ પણ

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શકષણણક સસથામાથી અથવા યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-

૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી મળવલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ટકનોલોજીમા વમકનીકલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા પરોડકશન એનજીવનયરીગની નાતકની પદવી ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન સનાતકની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો એક વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ મળવલ હોવો જોઇશ.

અથવા રાજયના ટકવનકલ એકઝાવમનશન બોડગ અથવા ભારતમા કન દરીય

અથવા રાજય અવધવનયમથી અથવા ત હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અનય કોઈ પણ શકષણણક સસથામાથી અથવા યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી અથવા ઓલ ઈષનડયા કાઉનસીલ ફોર ટકવનકલ એજયકશન (AICTE) દવારા અવધકત સસથામાથી મળવલ વમકનીકલ એનજીવનયરીગનો તરણ વષગનો રડલોમા ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન રડલોમાની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો બ વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.

અથવા ઉમદવાર નીચ દશાગવલ રડ પકી કોઇ એક રડમા નશનલ

એપરનટીશશીપ સરટિરફકટ (NAC) અથવા નશનલ રડ સરટિરફકટ (NTC) અન નશનલ િાફટ ઇનસરકટર સરટિરફકટ (જયા િાફટ ઇનસરકટર રઇનીગ કોસગ ઉપલબધ હોય તવા રડમા) સરકાર માનય સસથામાથી પાસ કરલ હોવો જોઇશ. અન તવો સરટિરફકટ કોસગ પાસ કયાગ બાદનો સબવધત રડનો તરણ વષગનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.

1. Turner

2. Fitter

3. Machinist

4. Machinist (Grinder)

5. Pump Operator cum Mechanic

6. Mechanic Machine Tools Maintenance. 7. Millwright /Maintenance Mechanic. 8. Operator Advanced Machine Tools. 9. Pattern Maker

10. CENTER OF EXCELLENCE BROAD BASE

BASIC TRAINING And Advanced Modules of

Pro duction and Manufacturing Sector. (Die)

11. Tool and Die Maker (press Tools , Jigs and

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Fixture)

12. Tool Room Operator

13. Draughtsman (Mechanic)

14. Mechanic Maintenance (Chemical Plant)

15. Carpenter

(ગ) ઉમદવાર ગજરાત મલ કી સવા વગીકરણ અન ભરતી (સામાનય) વનયમો-૧૯૬૭ મા ઠરાવ યા પરમાણ કોમપયટરના ઉપયોગની પાયાની જાણકારી ધરાવતો હોવો જોઈશ.

(ઘ) ઉમદવાર ગજરાતી અથવા રહન દી ભાષાન રત ઞાનાન ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.

૧૬૮/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ફબરીકશન ગરપ)



(૨) ઉમદવાર ભારતમા કન દરીય અથવા રાજય અવધવનયમથી અથવા ત હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અનય કોઈ પણ શકષણણક સસથામાથી અથવા યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-

૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી મળવલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ટકનોલોજીમા વમકનીકલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા પરોડકશન એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ફબરીકશન એનજીવનયરીગની નાતકની પદવી ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન સનાતકની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો એક વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ મળવલ હોવો જોઇશ.


અથવા રાજય અવધવનયમથી અથવા ત હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અનય કોઈ પણ શકષણણક સસથામાથી અથવા યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી અથવા ઓલ ઈષનડયા કાઉનસીલ ફોર ટકવનકલ એજયકશન (AICTE) દવારા અવધકત સસથામાથી મળવલ વમકનીકલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ફબરીકશન એનજીવનયરીગનો તરણ વષગનો રડલોમા ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન રડલોમાની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો બ વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.


એપરનટીશશીપ સરટિરફકટ (NAC) અથવા નશનલ રડ સરટિરફકટ (NTC) અન નશનલ િાફટ ઇનસરકટર સરટિરફકટ (જયા િાફટ

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ઇનસરકટર રઇનીગ કોસગ ઉપલબધ હોય તવા રડમા) સરકાર માનય સસથામાથી પાસ કરલ હોવો જોઇશ. અન તવો સરટિરફકટ કોસગ પાસ કયાગ બાદનો સબવધત રડનો તરણ વષગનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.

1. Welder (Gas and Electric)

2. Welder cum Fabricator

3. Sheet Metal Worker


BASIC TRAINING And Advanced Modules in

Fabrication (Fitting and Welding)



૧૬૯/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (રફરીજરશન એનસટડ એર કડીશનીગ ગરપ)




૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી મળવલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ટકનોલોજીમા વમકનીકલ એનજીવનયરીગની નાતકની પદવી ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન સનાતકની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો એક વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ મળવલ હોવો જોઇશ.


અથવા રાજય અવધવનયમથી અથવા ત હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અનય કોઈ પણ શકષણણક સસથામાથી અથવા યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી અથવા ઓલ ઈષનડયા કાઉનસીલ ફોર ટકવનકલ એજયકશન (AICTE) દવારા અવધકત સસથામાથી મળવલ વમકનીકલ એનજીવનયરીગનો તરણ વષગનો રડલોમા ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન રડલોમાની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો બ વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.

અથવા

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ઉમદવાર નીચ દશાગવલ રડ પકી કોઇ એક રડમા નશનલ એપરનટીશશીપ સરટિરફકટ (NAC) અથવા નશનલ રડ સરટિરફકટ (NTC) અન નશનલ િાફટ ઇનસરકટર સરટિરફકટ (જયા િાફટ ઇનસરકટર રઇનીગ કોસગ ઉપલબધ હોય તવા રડમા) સરકાર માનય સસથામાથી પાસ કરલ હોવો જોઇશ. અન તવો સરટિરફકટ કોસગ પાસ કયાગ બાદનો સબવધત રડનો તરણ વષગનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.

1. Mechanic (Refrigeration and Air-Conditioning)

2. Refrigeration Service Technician

3. CENTRE OF EXCELLENCE BROAD BASE


Refrigeration and Air conditioning



૧૭૦/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ઇલકરીકલ ગરપ)




૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી મળવલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ટકનોલોજીમા ઇલકરીકલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ઇલકરીકલ એનડ ઇલકરોનીકસ એનજીવનયરીગ ની નાતકની પદવી ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન સનાતકની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો એક વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ મળવલ હોવો જોઇશ.


અથવા રાજય અવધવનયમથી અથવા ત હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અનય કોઈ પણ શકષણણક સસથામાથી અથવા યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી અથવા ઓલ ઈષનડયા કાઉનસીલ ફોર ટકવનકલ એજયકશન (AICTE) દવારા અવધકત સસથામાથી મળવલ ઇલકરીકલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ઇલકરીકલ એનડ ઇલકરોનીકસ નો તરણ વષગનો રડલોમા ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.

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અન રડલોમાની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો બ વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.



1. Wireman

2. Electrician

3. Armature Motor Rewinding

4. Electric Appliances Repairer



Electrical



૧૭૧/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ઇનસટફોમશન ટકનોલોજી ગરપ)



(૨) ઉમદવાર ભારતમા કન દરીય અથવા રાજય અવધવનયમથી અથવા ત હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત સરકારી/ સરકાર માનય યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અથવા યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩

હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી બીજી કોઇપણ શકષણણક સસથામાથી મળવલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ટકનોલોજીમા કોમપયટર સાયનસ અથવા આઇટી (ઇનફોમશન ટકનોલોજી) અથવા ઇલકરોનીકસ એનડ કોમપયવનકશન ની નાતકની પદવી ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અથવા

(૩) એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ટકનોલોજીમા કોમપયટર સાયનસ અથવા આઇટી (ઇનફોમશન ટકનોલોજી) અથવા કોમપપયટર એપલીકશન અથવા ઇલકરોનીકસ ની અન નાતકની પદવી ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન સનાતક/ અનસનાતકની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો એક વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ મળવલ હોવો જોઇશ.

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અથવા એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ટકનોલોજીમા કોમપયટર સાયનસ અથવા

કોમપયટર એલીકશન અથવા આઇટી - OR NIELIT A Level ની નાતકની પદવી ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.

અથવા કોમપયટર સાયનસ અથવા આઇટી (ઇનફોમશન ટકનોલોજી)

અથવા ઇલકરોનીકસ એનડ કોમપયવનકશનનો તરણ વષગનો રડલોમા ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન રડલોમાની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો બ વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.

અથવા ઉમદવાર Information & Comunication Technology

System Maintenance રડમા નશનલ એપરનટીશશીપ સરટિરફકટ (NAC) અથવા નશનલ રડ સરટિરફકટ (NTC) અન નશનલ િાફટ ઇનસરકટર સરટિરફકટ સરકાર માનય સસથામાથી પાસ કરલ (જયા િાફટ ઇનસરકટર રઇનીગ કોસગ ઉપલબધ હોય તવા રડમા) હોવો જોઇશ. અન તવો સરટિરફકટ કોસગ પાસ કયાગ બાદનો સબવધત રડનો તરણ વષગનો અનભવ અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ



૧૭૨/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર

(ઇનસટમટશન ગરપ) (ક) તા ૧૧/૦૪/ર૦૧૯ ના રોજ ઉમદવારની ઉમર ૧૮ વષગથી ઓછી

નરહ અન ૩૫ વષગથી વધ ન હોવી જોઈશ. (ખ) (૧) ઉમદવાર ધોરણ-૧૦ પાસ કરલ હોવ જોઇશ અથવા સરકાર

માનય કરલ તન સમકકષ લાયકાત ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. (૨) ઉમદવાર ભારતમા કન દરીય અથવા રાજય અવધવનયમથી અથવા ત

હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અનય કોઈ પણ શકષણણક સસથામાથી અથવા યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-

૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી મળવલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ટકનોલોજીમા ઇનસમનટશન એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ઇનસમનટશન એનડ કરોલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા મકારોનીકસ એનજીવનયરીગની નાતકની પદવી ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન સનાતકની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો એક વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ મળવલ હોવો જોઇશ.

અથવા રાજયના ટકવનકલ એકઝાવમનશન બોડગ અથવા ભારતમા

કન દરીય અથવા રાજય અવધવનયમથી અથવા ત હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અનય કોઈ પણ શકષણણક સસથામાથી અથવા

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યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી અથવા ઓલ ઈષનડયા કાઉનસીલ ફોર ટકવનકલ એજયકશન (AICTE) દવારા અવધકત સસથામાથી મળવલ ઇનસમનટશન એનડ કરોલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા મકારોનીકસ એનજીવનયરીગનો તરણ વષગનો રડલોમા ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન રડલોમાની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો બ વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.



1. Instrument Mechanic

2. Instrument Mechanic (Chemical plant)



Instrumentation



૧૭૩/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (વસવવલ કનસટરકશન એનસટડ ઇનસટફરારકચર ગરપ)




૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી મળવલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ટકનોલોજીમા વસવવલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા આરકિટકચરલ એનજીવનયરીગની નાતકની પદવી ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન સનાતકની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો એક વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ મળવલ હોવો જોઇશ.

અથવા

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રાજયના ટકવનકલ એકઝાવમનશન બોડગ અથવા ભારતમા કન દરીય અથવા રાજય અવધવનયમથી અથવા ત હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અનય કોઈ પણ શકષણણક સસથામાથી અથવા યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી અથવા ઓલ ઈષનડયા કાઉનસીલ ફોર ટકવનકલ એજયકશન (AICTE) દવારા અવધકત સસથામાથી મળવલ વસવવલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા આરકિટકચરલ એનજીવનયરીગનો તરણ વષગનો રડલોમા ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન રડલોમાની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો બ વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. ( સબવધત ખાતાના વડાએ કરલ સપટટતા મજબ આ સવગગના ભરતી વનયમોમા રડલોમા ઇન આરકિટકચરલ આસીસટનટશીપન માનય ગણવામા આવલ ન હોઇ,

આરકિટકચરલ આસીસટનટશીપ નો રડલોમાની શકષણણક લાયકાત ધરાવતા ઉમદવારો અરજી કરી શકશ નહી. )

અથવા ઉમદવાર નીચ દશાગવલ રડ પકી કોઇ એક રડમા નશનલ રડ

સરટિરફકટ (NTC) સાથ સબવધત રડનો ચાર વષગનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ અથવા નશનલ એપરનટીશશીપ સરટિરફકટ (NAC) અન નશનલ િાફટ ઇનસરકટર સરટિરફકટ સરકાર માનય સસથામાથી પાસ કરલ (જયા િાફટ ઇનસરકટર રઇનીગ કોસગ ઉપલબધ હોય તવા રડમા) હોવો જોઇશ. અન તવો સરટિરફકટ કોસગ પાસ કયાગ બાદનો સબવધત રડનો તરણ વષગનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ અથવા પાચ વરમનો સબવધત કામનો અન એકડવમક અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.

1. Surveyor

2. Draughtsman (Civil)

3. Interior Decoration and Designing

4. plumber,

5. Plumbing Assistant,

6. Mason

7. Sanitary Hardware Fitter

8. Building Maintenance



૧૭૪/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ઓટોમોબાઇલ ગરપ)


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(ખ) (૧) ઉમદવાર લાઇટ મોટર વવહીકલન ડરાઇવીગ લાયસનસટસ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ અન ધોરણ-૧૦ પાસ કરલ હોવ જોઇશ અથવા સરકાર માનય કરલ તન સમકકષ લાયકાત ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.


૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી મળવલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ટકનોલોજીમા ઓટોમોબાઇલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા વમકનીકલ એનજીવનયરીગ (ઓટોમોબાઇલના મખય વવષય સાથ) ની નાતકની પદવી ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન સનાતકની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો એક વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ મળવલ હોવો જોઇશ.

અથવા રાજયના ટકવનકલ એકઝાવમનશન બોડગ અથવા ભારતમા

કન દરીય અથવા રાજય અવધવનયમથી અથવા ત હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અનય કોઈ પણ શકષણણક સસથામાથી અથવા યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી અથવા ઓલ ઈષનડયા કાઉનસીલ ફોર ટકવનકલ એજયકશન (AICTE) દવારા અવધકત સસથામાથી મળવલ ઓટોમોબાઇલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા વમકનીકલ એનજીવનયરીગ (ઓટોમોબાઇલના મખય વવષય સાથ) નો તરણ વષગનો રડલોમા ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન રડલોમાની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો બ વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.



1. Two Wheeler Repairer (Auto)

2. Mechanic (Motor Vehicle)

3. Mechanic (Diesel)

4. Mechanic Repair and Maintenance Two Wheeler

5. Servicing of New Generation Cars

6. Driver cum Mechanic

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7. Center of Excellence Broad Base Basic Training

and Advance Module in Automobile

8. Mechanic Auto Electrical and Electronics



૧૭૫/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર

(કવમકલ ગરપ) (ક) તા ૧૧/૦૪/ર૦૧૯ ના રોજ ઉમદવારની ઉમર ૧૮ વષગથી ઓછી




૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી મળવલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ટકનોલોજીમા કવમકલ એનજીવનયરીગની નાતકની પદવી ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન સનાતકની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો એક વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ મળવલ હોવો જોઇશ.


અથવા રાજય અવધવનયમથી અથવા ત હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અનય કોઈ પણ શકષણણક સસથામાથી અથવા યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી અથવા ઓલ ઈષનડયા કાઉનસીલ ફોર ટકવનકલ એજયકશન (AICTE) દવારા અવધકત સસથામાથી મળવલ કવમકલ એનજીવનયરીગનો તરણ વષગનો રડલોમા ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન રડલોમાની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો બ વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.



1. Laboratory Assistant (Chemical plant)

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2. Attendant Operator (Chemical Plant) (ગ) ઉમદવાર ગજરાત મલ કી સવા વગીકરણ અન ભરતી (સામાનય)

વનયમો-૧૯૬૭ મા ઠરાવ યા પરમાણ કોમપયટરના ઉપયોગની પાયાની જાણકારી ધરાવતો હોવો જોઈશ.


૧૭૬/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (પલાટીક ગરપ)




૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી મળવલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ટકનોલોજીમા લાસટીક એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા લાસટીક ટકનોલોજીની નાતકની પદવી ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન સનાતકની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો એક વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ મળવલ હોવો જોઇશ.


અથવા રાજય અવધવનયમથી અથવા ત હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અનય કોઈ પણ શકષણણક સસથામાથી અથવા યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી અથવા ઓલ ઈષનડયા કાઉનસીલ ફોર ટકવનકલ એજયકશન (AICTE) દવારા અવધકત સસથામાથી મળવલ લાસટીક મોલડ ટકનોલોજી અથવા લાસટીક ટકનોલોજી નો તરણ વષગનો રડલોમા ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન રડલોમાની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો બ વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.

અથવા ઉમદવાર Plastic Processing Operator રડમા નશનલ


(ગ) ઉમદવાર ગજરાત મલ કી સવા વગીકરણ અન ભરતી (સામાનય) વનયમો-૧૯૬૭ મા ઠરાવ યા પરમાણ કોમપયટરના ઉપયોગની પાયાની

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જાણકારી ધરાવતો હોવો જોઈશ.


૧૭૭/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર

(કોમપપયટર ગરપ) (ક) તા ૧૧/૦૪/ર૦૧૯ ના રોજ ઉમદવારની ઉમર ૧૮ વષગથી ઓછી



હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત સરકારી/ સરકાર માનય યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અથવા યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩

હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી બીજી કોઇપણ શકષણણક સસથામાથી મળવલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ટકનોલોજીમા કોમપયટર એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા કોમપયટર ટકનોલોજી અથવા કોમપપયટર સાયનસટસ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ઇનસટફોમશન ટકનોલોજી ની નાતકની પદવી ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અથવા

(૩) એમએસસી (ઇનસટફોમશન ટકનોલોજી) અથવા એમએસસી ( કોમપયટર એલીકશન એનડ ઇનસટફોમશન ટકનોલોજી) અથવા એમએસસી (કોમપયટર સાયનસ) અથવા

(૪) માટર ઓફ કોમપપયટર એપલીકશન (એમસીએ) અથવા NIELIT A

Level અન સનાતક / અનસનાતકની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો એક વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ મળવલ હોવો જોઇશ.

અથવા BCA અથવા BSc. કોમપયટર સાયનસ અથવા IT અથવા NIELIT

B Level અથવા DoEACC A Level અન સનાતકની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો બ વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ મળવલ હોવો જોઇશ.


અથવા રાજય અવધવનયમથી અથવા ત હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અનય કોઈ પણ શકષણણક સસથામાથી અથવા યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી અથવા ઓલ ઈષનડયા કાઉનસીલ ફોર ટકવનકલ એજયકશન (AICTE) દવારા અવધકત સસથામાથી મળવલ કોમપયટર સાયનસ અથવા કોમપયટર એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા કોમપયટર ટકનોલોજી નો તરણ વષગનો રડલોમા ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન રડલોમાની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો બ વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.

અથવા

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ઉમદવાર Computer Operator and Programming Assistant રડમા નશનલ એપરનટીશશીપ સરટિરફકટ (NAC) અથવા નશનલ રડ સરટિરફકટ (NTC) અન નશનલ િાફટ ઇનસરકટર સરટિરફકટ (જયા િાફટ ઇનસરકટર રઇનીગ કોસગ ઉપલબધ હોય તવા રડમા) સરકાર માનય સસથામાથી પાસ કરલ હોવો જોઇશ. અન તવો સરટિરફકટ કોસગ પાસ કયાગ બાદનો સબવધત રડનો COPA સાથનો તરણ વષગનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.



૧૭૮/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (બયટી કલચર એનસટડ હર ડરસીસ ગરપ)



(૨) રાજયના ટકવનકલ એકઝાવમનશન બોડગ અથવા ભારતમા કન દરીય અથવા રાજય અવધવનયમથી અથવા ત હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અનય કોઈ પણ શકષણણક સસથામાથી અથવા યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી અથવા ઓલ ઈષનડયા કાઉનસીલ ફોર ટકવનકલ એજયકશન (AICTE) દવારા અવધકત સસથામાથી મળવલ બયટી કલચરનો રડલોમા ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન રડલોમાની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો બ વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.

અથવા ઉમદવાર Hair and Skin Care રડમા નશનલ એપરનટીશશીપ

સરટિરફકટ (NAC) અથવા નશનલ રડ સરટિરફકટ (NTC) અન નશનલ િાફટ ઇનસરકટર સરટિરફકટ (જયા િાફટ ઇનસરકટર રઇનીગ કોસગ ઉપલબધ હોય તવા રડમા) સરકાર માનય સસથામાથી પાસ કરલ હોવો જોઇશ. અન તવો સરટિરફકટ કોસગ પાસ કયાગ બાદનો સબવધત રડનો તરણ વષગનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.



૧૭૯/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (ગારમટસ ગરપ)


(ખ) (૧) ઉમદવાર ધોરણ-૧૦ પાસ કરલ હોવ જોઇશ અથવા સરકાર

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૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી મળવલ એનજીવનયરીગ અથવા ટકનોલોજીમા કોસયમ રડઝાઇન અથવા ડરસ મરકિગ અથવા કોમપયટર એડડ કોસયમ રડઝાઇન એનડ ડરસ મરકિગ અથવા એપરલ અથવા ફશન ટકનોલોજી અથવા ફશન રડઝાઇન ની નાતકની પદવી ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન સનાતકની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો એક વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ મળવલ હોવો જોઇશ.


અથવા રાજય અવધવનયમથી અથવા ત હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અનય કોઈ પણ શકષણણક સસથામાથી અથવા યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩ હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી અથવા ઓલ ઈષનડયા કાઉનસીલ ફોર ટકવનકલ એજયકશન (AICTE) દવારા અવધકત સસથામાથી મળવલ કોસયમ રડઝાઇન એનડ ડરસ મરકિગ અથવા કોમપયટર એડડ કોસયમ રડઝાઇન એનડ ડરસ મરકિગ અથવા એપરલ અથવા ફશન ટકનોલોજી અથવા ફશન રડઝાઇનનો તરણ વષગનો રડલોમા ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન રડલોમાની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો બ વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.

અથવા ઉમદવાર નીચ દશાગવલ રડ પકી કોઇ એક રડમા

નશનલ એપરનટીશશીપ સરટિરફકટ (NAC) અથવા નશનલ રડ સરટિરફકટ (NTC) અન નશનલ િાફટ ઇનસરકટર સરટિરફકટ (જયા િાફટ ઇનસરકટર રઇનીગ કોસગ ઉપલબધ હોય તવા રડમા) સરકાર માનય સસથામાથી પાસ કરલ હોવો જોઇશ. અન તવો સરટિરફકટ કોસગ પાસ કયાગ બાદનો સબવધત રડનો તરણ વષગનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.

1. Sewing Technology (cutting & Sewing)

2. Dress Making. 3. Computer Aided Dress Making and Dress Design. 4. Embroidery and Needle Work

5. Garment Making

6. Sewing Machine Operator

7. Pattern Maker

8. Garment Finishing Checker

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9. CENTRE OF EXCELLENCE BROAD BASE


Apparel Fashion Technology



૧૮૦/ર૦૧૮૧૯ સપરવાઇઝર ઇનસટરકટર (મડીકલ એનસટડ નવસિગ ગરપ (હલથ એનસટડ સનટરી ઇનસટપકટર) )


(ખ) (૧) ઉમદવાર રાજયના ટકવનકલ એકઝાવમનશન બોડગ અથવા ભારતમા કન દરીય અથવા રાજય અવધવનયમથી અથવા ત હઠળ સ થપાયલી અથવા સસથાવપત યવનવવસિટીઓ પકી કોઇપણમાથી અથવા ત તરીક માન ય થયલી અનય કોઈ પણ શકષણણક સસથામાથી અથવા યવનવવસિટી ગરાટ કવમશન અવધવનયમ-૧૯૫૬ ની કલમ-૩

હઠળ ડીમપડ યવનવવસિટી તરીક જાહર થયલી યવનવવસિટીમાથી અથવા ઓલ ઈષનડયા કાઉનસીલ ફોર ટકવનકલ એજયકશન (AICTE) દવારા અવધકત સસથામાથી મળવલ હલથ એનસટડ સનટરી ઇનસટપકટરનો તરણ વષગનો રડલોમા ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ. અન રડલોમાની પદવી મળવયા બાદનો બ વષગનો સબવધત કષતરનો અનભવ ધરાવતો હોવો જોઇશ.

અથવા ઉમદવાર Health and Sanitary Inspector રડમા નશનલ




નોધ: (૧) ઉપર દશાગવલ તમામ સવગોના ભરતી વનયમોમા વનયત થયલ શકષણણક લાયકાતના અગતયના મદદાઓનો અરજીપતરકમા સમાવશ કરવામા આવલ છ. પરત આખરી પસદગી સમય ભરતી વનયમોમા દશાગવલ શકષણણક લાયકાતની તમામ જોગવાઈઓન ધયાન લવામા આવશ. ઉમદવાર જાહરાતમા દશાગવલ શકષણણક લાયકાતની તમામ વવગતો ધયાન લઈન જ અરજીપતરકમા વવગતો ભરવાની રહશ.

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(૨) ઉપર દશાગવલ તમામ સવગોની ઉપલી વયમયાગદા માટ ગજરાત મલ કી સવા વગીકરણ અન ભરતી(સામાન ય) વનયમો-૧૯૬૭ તમજ ભરતી વનયમોમા દશાગવલ જોગવાઇ અન સામાન ય વહીવટ વવભાગના તા.૨૯/૯/૨૦૧૨ અન તા.૦૬/૧૦/૨૦૧૫ ના ઠરાવ િમાકઃ સીઆરઆર/૧૧૨૦૦૮/૨૮૨૩૨૩/ગ-૫ ની જોગવાઇઓ તમજ ત અન વય વખતો વખત થયલ સધારાન ધ યાન લવામા આવલ છ.

૪ [ર]. વયમયામદામા છટછાટ:- સામાન ય વગગની મરહલા ઉમદવારો, અનામત વગગના રષ તથા મરહલા ઉમદવારો તમજ

માજી સવનક, શારરરીક વવકલાગ ઉમદવારો અન સરકારી સવામા અગાઉથી ફરજ બજાવતા

હોય તવા ઉમદવારોન નીચ મજબ વનયમોનસાર છટછાટ મળવાપાતર છ.

(૧) ઉપરોકત તમામ સવગોની જગા માટ સામાન ય વગગની મરહલા ઉમદવારોન મરહલા

તરીકના પાચ વષગની છટછાટ મળવાપાતર થશ.

(૨) ઉપરોકત તમામ સવગોની જગાઓ પકી જ ત અનામત વગગના ઉમદવારો માટ

જગાઓ અનામત દશાગવલ છ તવા વગગના રષ ઉમદવારોન પાચ વષગની છટછાટ

અન મરહલા ઉમદવારોન અનામત વગગ તરીકના પાચ અન મરહલા તરીકના પાચ

વષગ મળી કલ-૧૦(દશ) વષગની છટછાટ મળવાપાતર થશ. પરત જ ત અનામત વગગ

માટ અનામત જગા દશાગવલ નથી તવા વગગના રષ ઉમદવારોન કોઇ છટછાટ

મળશ નહી પરત મરહલા ઉમદવારોન મરહલા તરીકના પાચ વષગની છટછાટ

મળવાપાતર થશ.

(૩) સામાન ય વગગના વવકલાગ રષ ઉમદવારોન ૧૦ વષગની છટછાટ મળવાપાતર થશ.

(૪) સામાન ય વગગના વવકલાગ મરહલા ઉમદવારોન ૧૫ વષગની છટછાટ મળવાપાતર થશ.

(૫) અનામત વગગના વવકલાગ રષ ઉમદવારોન જ ત અનામત વગગ માટ જગાઓ અનામત હશ તવી કટગરીના વવકલાગ રષ ઉમદવારોન ૧૫ વષગની છટછાટ મળવાપાતર થશ. જયાર જ ત અનામત વગગ માટ જગાઓ અનામત ન હોય તવા જ ત અનામત વગગના વવકલાગ રષ ઉમદવારોન ૧૦ વષગની જ છટછાટ મળવાપાતર થશ.

(૬) અનામત વગગના વવકલાગ મરહલા ઉમદવારોન જ ત અનામત વગગ માટ જગાઓ અનામત હશ તવી કટગરીના વવકલાગ મરહલા ઉમદવારોન ૨૦ વષગની છટછાટ મળવાપાતર થશ. જયાર જ ત અનામત વગગ માટ જગાઓ અનામત ન હોય તવા જ ત અનામત વગગના વવકલાગ મરહલા ઉમદવારોન ૧૫ વષગની જ છટછાટ મળવાપાતર થશ.

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(૭) તમામ સવગોની જગાઓમા S.E.B.C. કટગરી (સા. શ.૫.વગગ) ના ઉમદવારો માટ જગાઓ અનામત છ તવા S.E.B.C. કટગરી (સા.શ.પ.વગગ) ના ઉમદવારોએ રાજય સરકારની નોકરી માટ કઢાવલ નોન-િીમીલયર સરટિફીકટ તા. ૦૧/૦૪/૨૦૧૭ થી તા. ૧૧/૦૪/ર૦૧૯ દરવમયાન મળવલ હોય તવ પરમાણપતર ધરાવતા હશ તો જ

ઉ૫લી વયમયાગદામા છટછાટ તમજ કટગરીની અનામત જગાનો લાભ મળશ. અનયથા તઓ સામાનય કટગરીના ઉમદવાર તરીક ઉમદવારી નોધાવી શકશ. અન ત

રકસસામા વયમયાગદા, પરીકષા ફી માથી મસકત તમજ અનામત જગા પર પસદગીનો લાભ મળવાપાતર થશ નહી.

(૮) તમામ સવગોની જગાઓમા આવથિક રીત નબળા વગગ (EWS) ની કટગરીના ઉમદવારો માટ જગાઓ અનામત છ તવા આવથિક રીત નબળા વગગ(EWS) ના ઉમદવારોએ રાજય સરકારની નોકરી માટ આવથિક રીત નબળા વગો (EWS) માટ પાતરતા પરમાણપતર તા. ૧૪/૦૧/૨૦૧૯ થી તા. ૧૧/૦૪/ર૦૧૯ સધીમા મળવલ

હોય તવ પરમાણપતર ધરાવતા હશ તો જ ઉ૫લી વયમયાગદામા છટછાટ તમજ કટગરીની અનામત જગાનો લાભ મળશ. અનયથા તઓ સામાનય કટગરીના ઉમદવાર તરીક ઉમદવારી નોધાવી શકશ. અન ત રકસસામા વયમયાગદા, પરીકષા ફી માથી મસકત તમજ અનામત જગા પર પસદગીનો લાભ મળવાપાતર થશ નહી.

(૯) અનામત વગમના તમામ ઉમદવારોએ જાવત અગન પરમાણપતર ગજરાત સરકાર દવારા વખતો વખત વનયત કરલ નમનામા મળવલ હોવ જોઇશ.

(૧૦) ઉમદવાર, ખોડખા૫ણની ૪૦% ક તથી વધ ટકાવારી ધરાવતા હોવાન વસવવલ

સરજનન સટીફીકટ ધરાવતા હશ, તો જ વવકલાગ ઉમદવાર તરીક ઉ૫લી વયમયાગદા અન અનામતનો લાભ મળશ. શારીરરક અશકતતા અગ સામાનય વહીવટ વવભાગના તા.૧-૧૨-૨૦૦૮ ના પરીપતર િમાકઃ પરચ-૧૦૨૦૦૮–૪૬૯૫૪૦- ગ-ર અન તયારબાદ સરકારશરીના વખતો વખતના સધારા પરરપતરથી વનયત થયલ નમનામા સરકારી હોસસપટલના સવપરનટનડનટ/વસવવલ સરજન/મડીકલ બોડગ દવારા આપવામા આવલ પરમાણપતર માનય ગણવામા આવશ.

(૧૧) માજી સવનક વસવાય તમામ કટગરીના ઉમદવારોન ઉ૫લી વયમયાગદામા મળવાપાતર છટછાટ સાથની ઉમર વનયત તારીખ કોઈ૫ણ સજોગોમા ૪૫ વષગ કરતા વધવી જોઈએ નહી.

૫. કોમપપયટરની જાણકારી

ઉમદવાર રાજય સરકારના સામાનય વહીવટ વવભાગના તા.૧૩/૦૮/ર૦૦૮ તમજ તા.૧૮/૦૩/૨૦૧૬ ના સરકારી ઠરાવ નબર:- સીઆરઆર-૧૦-ર૦૦૭-૧ર૦૩ર૦-

ગ.૫ થી નકકી કરલ અભયાસિમ મજબ કોમપયટર અગન બઝીક નોલજ ધરાવતા હોવા અગન કોઈ૫ણ તાલીમી સસથાન પરમાણ૫તર/માકગશીટ ધરાવતા હોવા જોઈશ. અથવા સરકાર માનય યવનવવસિટી અથવા સસથામા કોમપયટર ઞાનાન અગના કોઈ૫ણ

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રડલોમા/ડીગરી ક સટીરફકટ કોષગ કરલ હોય તવા પરમાણ૫તરો અથવા ડીગરી ક ડીલોમા અભયાસિમમા કોમપયટર એક વવષય તરીક હોય તવા પરમાણ૫તરો અથવા ધોરણ-૧૦ અથવા ધોરણ-૧ર ની ૫રીકષા કોમપયટરના વવષય સાથ ૫સાર કરલ હોય

તવા પરમાણ૫તરો ધરાવતા હોવા જોઈશ. આ તબકક આવ પરમાણ૫તર ન ધરાવતા ઉમદવારો ૫ણ અરજી કરી શકશ. ૫રત આવા ઉમદવારોએ વનમણ ક સિાવધકારી સમકષ કોમપયટરની બઝીક નોલજની ૫રીકષા પાસ કયાગન આવ પરમાણ૫તર વનમણ ક મળવતા ૫હલા અચક રજ કરવાન રહશ. અનયથા વનમણ ક સિાવધકારી આવા રકસસામા ઉમદવારોની ૫સદગી "રદ" કરી શકશ.

૬. શકષણણક લાયકાત / વયમયામદા / વધારાની લાયકાત માટ વનધામરરત તારીખ :-

જાહરાતમા દશાગવલ તમામ સવગગના ઉમદવારોના રકસસામા શકષણણક લાયકાત,

વયમયાગદા, અનભવ, નોન-િીમીલયર સટી અન અનય જરરી લાયકાત માટ તા

૧૧/૦૪/ર૦૧૯ ની સસથવતન ઘયાનમા લવામા આવશ.

૭. અરજી કરવાની રીત :-

આ જાહરાતના સદભગમા મડળ ઘવારા ઓન લાઈન અરજી જ સવીકારવામા આવશ. જ અન વય ઉમદવારોએ જાહરાતમા દશાગવયા તા. ૧૨/૦૩/ર૦૧૯ (બપોરના ૧૪-૦૦ કલાક) થી તા. ૧૧/૦૪/ર૦૧૯ (સમય રાતરીના ૨૩-૫૯ કલાક) દરવમયાન

"https://ojas.gujarat.gov.in" વબસાઈટ ૫ર ઓન-લાઈન અરજી૫તરક ભરી શકશ. તમ છતા કોઇ ઉમદવાર એક કરતા વધ અરજી રજીસ ટડગ કરશ તો તવા ઉમદવારોના રકસ સામા સૌથી છલ લ કન ફમગ થયલી અરજી માનય ગણીન ત વસવાયની બાકીની તમામ અરજીઓ રદ થશ. ઉમદવાર અરજીપતરક ભરવા માટ:-

(૧) સૌ પરથમ "https://ojas.gujarat.gov.in" વબસાઈટ ૫ર જવ. અન ત યાર બાદ

(ર) "Online Application" મા જઇ "Apply" ૫ર Click કરવ.

(૩) ઉમદવાર Select Advertisement by Department માથી GSSSB (ગજરાત ગૌણ સવા પસદગી મડળ) વસલકટ કરવ. અન જાહરાત કરમાક: ૧૬૭/૨૦૧૮૧૯ થી ૧૮૦/૨૦૧૮૧૯ પકી જ જાહરાત માટ ઉમદવારી કરવા માગતા હોય ત જાહરાતના સવગગના નામ સામ Apply પર Click કરવાથી સ િીન પર More Details અન

Apply now ના ઓ શન લશ. જમા More Details પર Click કરવાથી વવગતવાર જાહરાતની વવગતો જોવા મળશ. જ ઉમદવારોએ વાચી જવી.

(૪) જયાર "Apply now" ૫ર Click કરી તયાર પછી Skip ૫ર Click કરવાથી

Application Format લશ જમા સૌ પરથમ "Personal Details" ઉમદવાર

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ભરવી. (અહી લાલ ફદડી ( * ) વનશાની હોય તની વવગતો ફરજજયાત ભરવાની

રહશ.) (૫) Personal Details ભરાયા બાદ "Communication Details", "Other

Details", "Language Details", "Education Details" અન ''More

Education Details'' ની વવગતો ઉમદવાર ભરવી.

(૬) તની નીચ "Assurance (બાહધરી)" મા ઉ૫રની શરતો સવીકારવા માટ "Yes" ૫ર Click કરવ. હવ અરજી ણગ રીત ભરાઈ ગયલ છ.

(૭) હવ "save" ૫ર Click કરવાથી ઉમદવારનો "Application Number" generate

થશ. જ ઉમદવાર સાચવીન રાખવાનો રહશ.

(૮) હવ Upload મા જઇ Photo/ Signature ૫ર Click કરો અહી તમારો

application number type કરો અન તમારી Birth date type કરો. તયારબાદ

ok ૫ર Click કરવ. અહી photo અન signature upload કરવાના છ. (Photo

ન મા૫ ૫ સ.મી. ઉચાઈ અન ૩.૬ સ.મી. ૫હોળાઈ અન Signature ન મા૫ ર.૫

સ.મી. ઉચાઈ અન ૭.૫ સ.મી. ૫હોળાઈ રાખવી.) (photo અન signature

upload કરવા સૌ પરથમ તમારો photo અન signature jpg format મા (15

kb) સાઈઝથી વધ નરહ ત રીત સ કન કરી computer મા સવ કરલા હોવા

જોઈશ.) photo અન signature અપલોડ કરવા માટ "browse" button ૫ર

Click કરો. હવ choose file ના સિીનમાથી જ ફાઈલમા jpg format મા તમારો

photo store થયલ છ, ત ફાઈલન select કરો અન "open" button ન Click

કરો. હવ "browse" button ની બાજમા "upload" button ૫ર Click કરો. હવ

બાજમા તમારો photo દખાશ. હવ આજ રીત signature ૫ણ upload કરવાની

રહશ. જ photo અન signature અપલોડ કરવામા આવ યા હશ ત જ photo

લણખત પરીકષાના હાજરીપતરકમા ચોટાડવાનો રહશ તથા તવી જ signature કરવાની રહશ તમજ આ ભરતી પરરિયાના વનમણ ક સધીના દરક તબકક મડળ/સબવધત ખાતાના વડા માગ ત યાર તવો જ ફોટો રજ કરવાનો રહશ. આથી ફોટોગરાફની ચાર થી પાચ કોપીઓ કઢાવી રાખવી. જદા જદા તબકક જદા જદા ફોટોગરાફ રજ થશ તો ફાળવણી/વનમણ કમા બાધ આવી શકશ. જની જવાબદારી ઉમદવારની પોતાની રહશ.

(૯) હવ પજના ઉ૫રના ભાગમા "Online Application" મા જઇ "Confirm" ૫ર Click

કરો અન "Application number" તથા Birth Date type કયાગ બાદ Ok ૫ર Click

કરવાથી ઉમદવારની બણઝક મારહતી દખાશ. જ ચકાસી લવી અન અરજીમા સધારો

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કરવાની જરર જણાય તો "Online Application" મા edit મા જઇ અરજીમા સધારો કરી લવો. અરજી કનફમગ કયાગ ૫હલા કોઈ૫ણ પરકારનો સધારો થઈ શકશ. ૫રત

અરજી કનફમગ થયા બાદ કોઈ૫ણ પરકારનો સધારો શકય બનશ નહી. તથી સ ણગ ચકાસણી બાદ જો અરજી સધારવાની જરર ના જણાય તો તની નીચ આપલ Confirm Application પર Click કરવાથી કનફમગ માટન બોકષ ઓપન થશ. જમા Ok પર Click કરવાથી Confirmation નબર જનરટ થશ. અન ઉમદવારની અરજીનો online સવીકાર થઈ જશ. Confirmation નબર હવ ૫છીની બધી જ

કાયગવાહી માટ જરરી હોઈ, ઉમદવાર સાચવવાનો રહશ. એકવાર ઓનલાઇન અરજી કનફમગ થયા બાદ, તમા કોઇપણ પરકારનો ફરફાર ઉમદવાર ક મડળ દવારા થઇ શકશ નહી. હવ તની નીચ Print Application અન Print Chalan ન ઓશન દખાશ. ઉમદવાર Print Application પર Click કરી એલીકશનની વપરનટની નકલ કાઢી સાચવી રાખવી. જનરલ કટગરીના ઉમદવારોએ પરીકષા ફી ભરવા માટ Chalan ની વપરનટ મળવી લવી.

અરજીમા દશાગવલી વવગતોન અનરપ પરમાણપતરો મડળ માગ તયાર ઉમદવાર રજ કરવાના રહશ. આથી, ઉમદવાર પરથમ તમની પાસના પરમાણપતરોન આધાર પોતાન નામ, પવત/વપતાન નામ, અટક, જનમતારીખ, શકષણણક લાયકાત, જાવત(કટગરી), જનડર(મલ/ફીમલ), માજી સવનક, સપોટગસ, શા.ખો.ખા., વવધવા વગર બાબતોની બારીક ચકાસણી કરી લઇન તન અનરપ વવગતો ઓનલાઇન અરજીમા દશાગવવાની રહશ. મડળ દવારા ચકાસણી સાર પરમાણપતરો માગવામા આવ તયાર ઓનલાઇન અરજીપતરકમા દશાગવલ વવગતો અન ઉમદવાર દવારા મડળ સમકષ રજ કરવામા આવતા પરમાણપતરોમા કોઇપણ જાતની વવસગતતા માલમ પડશ તો, તવી ઉમદવારી મડળ દવારા જ ત તબકકથી ‘રદ’ કરવામા આવશ. ખોટી ક અધરી વવગતોન કારણ કષવતયકત અરજી રદ કરવામા આવ તો, તમા મડળની કોઇ જવાબદારી રહશ નહી. આથી, ઉમદવારોન તમની પાસના પરમાણપતરોન આધાર અન તન અનરપ વવગતો ઓનલાઇન અરજી કરતી વખત દશાગવવાની ખાસ કાળજી રાખવા જણાવવામા આવ છ.

(૧૦) હવ "Online Application" મા જઇ Print Application Form / Pay Fees ૫ર

Click કરવ. અહી Select Job માથી જાહરાત િમાક વસલકટ કરીન તમારો

confirmation number ટાઈ૫ કરવો અન જન મતારીખ ટાઇપ કરી Print

Application Form ૫ર Click કરવાથી તમારી અરજી ઓપન થશ. જની વપરન ટની નકલ કાઢી સાચવી રાખવી

નોધ:- જાહરાત િમાકઃ ૧૬૭/૨૦૧૮૧૯ થી ૧૮૦/૨૦૧૮૧૯ ના સવગોના ભરતી વનયમોમા દશાગવલ શકષણણક લાયકાત, વયમયાગદા તમજ ઓનલાઈન અરજી

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ભરવા સબવધત કોઈ માગગદશગનની આવશયકતા જણાય તો મડળની કચરીના ફોન નબર:-૦૭૯- ૨૩૨૫૩૬૨૮ ૫ર સ૫કગ કરી શકાશ.

૮. ૫રીકષા ફી:- ફોમગ ભરતી વખત ‘‘ General ’’ કટગરી Select કરી હોય (દશાગવી હોય) તવા (PH

તથા Ex.Serviceman કટગરી વસવાયના) તમામ ઉમદવારોએ પરીકષા ફી ભરવાની રહશ.

અરજી ફોમગમા નીચ મજબની કટગરી Select કરનાર ઉમદવારોએ કોઇપણ પરકારની પરીકષા ફી ભરવાની રહશ નહી.

(ક) અનસણચત જાવત (SC) (ખ) અનસણચત જન જાવત (ST) (ગ) સામાજીક અન શકષણણક રીત પછાતવગગ (SEBC) (ઘ) આવથિક રીત નબળો વગગ (EWS) (ચ) માજી સવનક (Ex. Serviceman) તમામ કટગરીના (છ) શારરરીક ખોડખાપણ ધરાવતા ઉમદવારો (PH) તમામ કટગરીના

જ ઉમદવારોએ ફી ભરવાની છ તવા ઉમદવારો જયાર OJAS વબસાઇટ પર પોતાની અરજી સબમીટ કર ત યાર તઓન પરીકષા ફી ભરવા માટ ઓન લાઇન ઉપલબ ધ ચલણની ૩ નકલોની એક પાના ઉપર વપરન ટ મળવવાની સચના મળશ. ઉમદવારોએ આ પાનાની પણ વપરન ટ મળવી લવાની રહશ, ઉમદવારોએ ચલણ સાથ કોઇપણ કોમપ યટરાઇઝડ પોસ ટ ઓફીસમા જઇન, પરીકષા ફી પટ ર. ૧૦૦/- રોકડા + ર.૧૨/- પો ટલ ચાજજીસ ભરી દવાના રહશ. ચલણની એક નકલ પોસ ટ ઓફીસ રાખી લશ અન બ નકલ ઉમદવારન પોસ ટ ઓરફસનો વસકકો અન સ ટીકર લગાવીન પરત આપશ.

પોસ ટ ઓફીસમા પરીકષા ફી ભરવાની છલ લી તા. ૨૦/૦૪/ર૦૧૯ (કચરી સમય સધી) ની રહશ.

અન ય કોઇ રીત પરીકષા ફી સ વીકારવામા આવશ નહી. પરીકષા ફી ભયાગ બાદ રીફડ મળવાપાતર નથી તમજ ત ફી અન ય કોઇ પરીકષા માટ

અનામત તરીક રાખવામા આવશ નહી. પરીકષા ફી ભરવાપાતર ઉમદવારોની ફી ભયાગ વગરની અરજી માનય રહશ નહી.

‘‘General’’ કટગરી Select કરનાર (શારીરરક ખોડખાપણ તથા માજી સવનક

કટગરી વસવાયના) ઉમદવારો ફી ભરવાની વનયત સમયમયાગદામા પરીકષા ફી

નહી ભર તો તવા ઉમદવારોન અરજી ફોમગ કોઇપણ જાતની જાણ કયાગ વગર

મડળ દવારા ‘‘રદ’’ કરવામા આવશ.

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૯. પરીકષા ૫ધધવત:- મડળ દવારા વનયત સમયમયાગદામા ઓન-લાઇન મળલ અરજીઓની પરાથવમક ચકાસણી (

એક કરતા વધ અરજી કરલ છ ક કમ ? અન પરીકષા ફી ભરલ છ ક કમ ?) કરીન લાયક

ઉમદવારોની રાજય સરકારશરીના સામાન ય વહીવટ વવભાગના વવભાગના તા. /૦૮/૨૦૧૫

પતર િમાકઃ ભરત/૧૦૨૦૧૫/૬૫૫/ક અન તા. ૨૯/૦૯/૨૦૧૫, તા. ૧૭/૦૫/૨૦૧૬

તથા તા. ૨૧/૧૦/૨૦૧૬ ના પતર િમાકઃ ભરત/૧૦૨૦૧૪/૬૩૮૯૩૭/ક થી મજર

કરવામા આવલ પરીકષા પધધવત અનસાર (૧) પરથમ તબકકામા લખીત પધામમક કસોટી

(OMR) ભાગ-૧ અન (૨) બીજા તબકકામા કલ જગાના અદાજીત તરણ ગણા ઉમદવારોની

કોમપ પ યટર પરોરફસીયનસટ સી (કાયમકષમતા) ટ ટ ભાગ-૨ - એમ બ કસોટીઓ લવામા આવશ.

જની વવગતો નીચ મજબની રહશ.

(ક) પધામ મક લણખત કસોટી (પરથમ તબાની પરીકષા) (અ) તાવતરક સવગોના ભરતી વનયમોમા જયા આઇ.ટી.આઇ. અથવા રડલોમાની

લઘતમ શકષણણક લાયકાત વનયત કરવામા આવલ હોય તવા સવગોનો અભયાસિમ અન પરીકષા પદધવત નીચ મજબ રહશ.

(જાહરાત કરમાક- ૧૭૮/૨૦૧૮૧૯ અન ૧૮૦/૨૦૧૮૧૯ માટ)

િમ વવષય ગણ સમયગાળો ૧ સામાન ય ઞાનાન- ગજરાતનો ઇવતહાસ, ભગોળ અન સસ કવત, ભારતન

બધારણ, રમતગમત, સામાનય વવઞાનાન, વતગમાન પરવાહો, કોમપ યટરન લગત સામાન ય ઞાનાન, ટસ ટ ઓફ રીઝનીગ, પયાગવરણ, જાહર વહીવટ, સરકારી યોજનાઓ, પચાયતી રાજ અન ડીઝાસ ટર મનજમન ટ, ગાણણવતક કસોટીઓ વવગર

૨૦

૯૦ મીનીટ ૨ ગજરાતી સારહતય, ગજરાતી વ યાકરણ ૧૫

૩ અગરજી વ યાકરણ ૦૫

૪

જગ યાની તાવતરક શકષણણક લાયકાતન (લઘિમ) સબવધત વવષયન પપર

૬૦

કલ ગણ ૧૦૦

નોધઃ (૧) પરશનપતરમા કટલાક પરશનો ગજરાતીમા રહશ અન કટલાક પરશનો અગરજીમા રહશ.

(૨) િમ- ૧ થી ૩ માટ અભ યાસિમન વવષયવસ ત ધોરણ-૧૦ (S.S.C.) ની સમકકષ

રહશ.

િમ- ૪ માટ અભ યાસિમન વવષયવસ ત સબવધત સવગગના ભરતી વનયમોમા જ

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લઘિમ શકષણણક લાયકાત વનયત કરવામા આવલ છ તની સમકકષ રહશ.

(૩) પરશનપતરમા કલ-૧૦૦ પરશનો રહશ. દરક પરશન- ૧ ગણનો રહશ. દરક પરશ નના

જવાબના આપવામા આવલ કલ-૪ વવકલપો પકી આપ સાચો વવકલપ પસદ કરીન

તના પર ઉપર વણમવયા મજબ ઘ ટીન દશામવવાનો રહશ. જો આપ કોઇ પરશન ના

સાચા જવાબનો વવકલપ પસદ કરી ન શકવાના કારણ ત પરશનનો જવાબ આપવા

માગતા ન હોય તો આપ પાચમા વવકલપ (E) પર ઘ ટીન દશામવવાનો રહશ.

ઉમદવાર (E) વવકલપ દશામવલ હશ તો માઇનસ ગણ કપાશ નરહિ અનસટય થા આવા

પરશનના ખાલી છોડલ પશન તરીક ૦.૨૫ માઇનસ ગણ કપાશ.

(બ) તાવતરક સવગોના ભરતી વનયમોમા જયા સનાતક ક તથી વધ શકષણણક લાયકાત વનયત

કરવામા આવલ હોય તવા સવગોનો અભયાસિમ અન પરીકષા પદધવત નીચ મજબ

રહશ.

(જાહરાત કરમાક- ૧૬૭/૨૦૧૮૧૯ થી ૧૭૭/૨૦૧૮૧૯ અન ૧૭૯/૨૦૧૮૧૯ માટ)

િમ વવષય ગણ સમયગાળો ૧ સામાન ય ઞાનાન- ગજરાતનો ઇવતહાસ, ભગોળ અન સસ કવત, ભારતન

બધારણ, રમતગમત, સામાનય વવઞાનાન, વતગમાન પરવાહો, કોમપ યટરન લગત સામાન ય ઞાનાન, ટસ ટ ઓફ રીઝનીગ, પયાગવરણ, જાહર વહીવટ, સરકારી યોજનાઓ, પચાયતી રાજ અન ડીઝાસ ટર મનજમન ટ, ગાણણવતક કસોટીઓ વવગર

૩૦

૧૨૦ મીનીટ ૨ ગજરાતી સારહતય, ગજરાતી વ યાકરણ ૨૦

૩ અગરજી વ યાકરણ ૧૦

૪ જગ યાની તાવતરક શકષણણક લાયકાતન (લઘિમ) સબવધત વવષયન પપર ૯૦

કલ ગણ ૧૫૦

નોધઃ (૧) પરશનપતરમા કટલાક પરશનો ગજરાતીમા રહશ અન કટલાક પરશનો અગરજીમા રહશ. (૨) િમ- ૧ થી ૩ માટ અભ યાસિમન વવષયવસ ત ધોરણ-૧૨ (H.S.C.) ની સમકકષ

રહશ.

િમ- ૪ માટ અભ યાસિમન વવષયવસ ત આ જાહરાતના મદદા ન. ૪(૧) મા દશાગવલ શકષણણક લાયકાતન અનરપ રહશ.

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(૩) પરશનપતરમા કલ-૧૫૦ પરશનો રહશ. દરક પરશન- ૧ ગણનો રહશ. દરક પરશ નના

જવાબના આપવામા આવલ કલ-૪ વવકલપો પકી આપ સાચો વવકલપ પસદ કરીન

તના પર ઉપર વણમવયા મજબ ઘ ટીન દશામવવાનો રહશ. જો આપ કોઇ પરશન ના

સાચા જવાબનો વવકલપ પસદ કરી ન શકવાના કારણ ત પરશનનો જવાબ આપવા

માગતા ન હોય તો આપ પાચમા વવકલપ (E) પર ઘ ટીન દશામવવાનો રહશ.

ઉમદવાર (E) વવકલપ દશામવલ હશ તો માઇનસ ગણ કપાશ નરહિ અનસટય થા આવા

પરશનના ખાલી છોડલ પશન તરીક ૦.૨૫ માઇનસ ગણ કપાશ.

(૪) જા.કર. ૧૬૭/૨૦૧૮૧૯ થી જા.કર. ૧૮૦/૨૦૧૮૧૯ માટ પરથમ તબકકાની સ પધાગત મક

લણખત કસોટીન અત બીજા તબકકાની કોમપ યટર પરોરફસીયન સી (કાયગકષમતા) કસોટી માટ

ઉમદવારોન કવોલીફાય થયલ ગણવા માટના લઘિમ લાયકી ગણન ધોરણ

સરકારશરીની સ થાયી સચનાઓ અનસાર મડળ દવારા જ ત સમય વનયત કરવામા આવશ.

પરત તમા કોઇપણ કટગરીના ઉમદવારો માટ ૪૦ ટકા માકમસ કરતા ઓછ લઘિમ

લાયકી ગણન ધોરણ કોઇપણ સજોગોમા નકકી કરી શકાશ નહી. અન આમ, મડળ દવારા

વનયત કરવામા આવલ લઘિમ લાયકી ગણની વવગતો અન ભરવાની થતી કટગરી

વાઇઝ જગાની સખ યાન ધ યાન લઇ સપધાગતમક લણખત કસોટીમા મરીટના ધોરણ ઉિીણગ

થનાર ઉમદવારો પકી કલ ખાલી જગાઓની સખયાના કટગરીવાર ૩ (તરણ) ગણા

ઉમદવારોન કોમપયટર પરોફીસીયનસી (કાયગકષમતા) કસોટી માટ બોલાવવામા આવશ.

(ખ) કોમપ પ યટર પરરફસીયનસટ સી ટ ટ- (બીજા તબાની પરીકષા)

(A) જ સવગગના ભરતી વનયમોમા ઉમદવારો માટની લઘતમ શકષણણક લાયકાત ધોરણ-૧૦, અથવા

ધોરણ-૧૨ પાસ અથવા તની સમકકષ અથવા આઇ. ટી. આઇ. અથવા રદલોમાની વનયત

કરવામા આવલ હોય તવા સવગગના ઉમદવારો માટની કોમપયટર પરોફીસીયનસી પરીકષાનો

અભયાસિમ

(જાહરાત કરમાક -૧૭૮/૨૦૧૮૧૯ અન ૧૮૦/૨૦૧૮૧૯ માટ )

સમય - ૧-૦૦ કલાક પરશન િમાક વવષયન વવવરણ ગણ

૧ એકસલ સ પરડશીટ ૧૦ ગણ

૨ ઈ-મઇલ કરવા (વીથ ફાઇલ એટચમન ટ) ૧૦ ગણ

૩ પાવર પોઇન ટ ૧૦ ગણ

૪ વડગ ટાઇપીગ/ વડગ ફોમટીગ (અગરજી તથા ગજરાતી) ૨૦ ગણ

કલ ગણ ૫૦ ગણ

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(B) જ સવગગના ભરતી વનયમોમા ઉમદવારો માટની શકષણણક લાયકાત સનાતક ક તથી વધ

વનયત કરવામા આવલ હોય તવા સવગગના ઉમદવારો માટની કોમપયટર પરોફીસીયનસી પરીકષાનો અભયાસિમ

(જાહરાત કરમાક- ૧૬૭/૨૦૧૮૧૯ થી ૧૭૭/૨૦૧૮૧૯ અન ૧૭૯/૨૦૧૮૧૯ માટ)

સમય - ૧-૧૫ કલાક પરશન િમાક વવષયન વવવરણ ગણ

૧ એકસલ સ પરડશીટ ૧૫ ગણ

૨ ઈ-મઇલ કરવા (વીથ ફાઇલ એટચમન ટ) ૧૫ ગણ

૩ પાવર પોઇન ટ ૧૫ ગણ

૪ વડગ ટાઇપીગ/ વડગ ફોમટીગ (અગરજી તથા ગજરાતી) ૩૦ ગણ

કલ ગણ ૭૫ ગણ

(ગ) લઘતતમ લાયકી ધોરણ: મરીટ યાદી તયાર કરવા માટન લાયકી ધોરણ મડળ ઠરાવશ. પરત પરીકષા વનયમોની

જોગવાઇ મજબ, કોઇપણ સજોગોમા અનામત કટગરી સરહતની તમામ કટગરીના

ઉમદવારો માટ લધિમ લાયકી ધોરણ, દરક કસોટી માટ કલ ગણના ૪૦ % ગણ રહશ.

લણખત કસોટીમા મરીટના ધોરણ ઉિીણગ થનાર ઉમદવારો પકી કલ ખાલી જગાઓની

સખયાના કટગરીવાર ૩ (તરણ) ગણા ઉમદવારોન કોમપયટર પરોફીસીયનસી (કાયગકષમતા)

કસોટી માટ બોલાવવામા આવશ.

(ઘ) (૧) તમામ સવગોની જગા માટની મરીટ યાદી ભાગ-૧ : લણખત કસોટી : ઓટીકલ માકગ રીડીગ (OMR) પરશન૫તર તથા ભાગ-ર: કોમપયટર પરોફીસીયનસી (કોમપયટર કાયગકષમતા) કસોટી બનમા મળવલ સયકત ગણના આધાર તયાર કરવામા આવશ.

(૨) આ જાહરાત હઠળની જગા માટ મૌખીક કસોટી લવામા આવશ નહી.

(ચ) પસદગી/ પરવતકષા યાદી તયાર કરવાની પધધવત:- (જાહરાત કરમાક-

૧૬૭/૨૦૧૮૧૯ થી ૧૮૦/૨૦૧૮૧૯ માટ ) (૧) ઉમદવારોએ ઉકત પરથમ તબકકા ભાગ-૧ ની સ પધાગત મક લણખત પરીકષા અન બીજા

તબકકા ભાગ-૨ ની કોમપ યટર પરોરફસીયન સી ટસ ટ -એમ બન કસોટીમા મળવલ સયકત ગણના મરીટસના આધાર કટગરીવાઇઝ ભરવાની થતી જગાની વવગતો ધ યાન લઇ પસદગી/પરવતકષા યાદી તયાર કરવામા આવશ. (૨) સામાનય વરહવટ વવભાગના તા. ૨૭/૦૭/૨૦૧૮ ના ઠરાવ િમાક: પીએસસી/ ૧૦૮૯/ ૩૯૧૦/ ગ-૨ ની જોગવાઈ અનસાર સપધાગતમક પરીકષા અનવય તથા સીધી પસદગીથી ભરતી અનવય પરવતકષા યાદીન કદ કટગરી વાઈઝ કલ જગાના ૨૦ ટકા રહશ.

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(૩) મડળ દરારા પરવતકષાયાદીના અમલવારી સમય પસદગી યાદીના ઉમદવારો માટ પસદગી યાદીમા સથાન પામલ ઉમદવાર જ-ત જગા ઉપર હાજર ન થાય, રાજીનામ આપ અથવા અવસાન પામ તવા સજોગોમા ત જગા ઉપર માતર પરવતકષા યાદીના ઉમદવારન જ સથાન આપવામા આવશ.

૧૦. સામાનસટય શરતો:-

(૧) જાહરાતમા જ કટગરીના ઉમદવારો માટ જગાઓ અનામત છ તવી કટગરીના ઉમદવારન જ ઉ૫લી વયમયાગદામા છટછાટ મળશ. બધી જ મળવાપાતર છટછાટ ગણતરીમા લીધા બાદ માજી સવનકો વસવાય વધમા વધ ૪૫ વષગથી વધ નહી ત રીત જ ઉ૫લી વયમયાગદામા છટછાટ મળશ.

(૨) ણબનઅનામત તથા અનામત વગોના મરહલા ઉમદવારોન પણ બધી જ મળવાપાતર

છટછાટ ગણતરીમા લીધા બાદ વધમા વધ ૪૫ વષગની ઉમર સધી જ ઉ૫લી વયમયાગદામા છટછાટ મળશ.

(૩) (૧) અનામત વગગના ઉમદવારોએ જાવત અગન સકષમ સતતાવધકારીન પરમાણપતર ગજરાત સરકાર દવારા વખતો વખત વનયત કરલ નમનામા મળવલ હોવ જોઇશ. (૨) સા. અન શ. ૫.વગગના ઉમદવારોએ ઉનનત વગગમા સમાવશ ન થતો હોવા અગન સામાજીક નયાય અન અવધકારીતા વવભાગના તા. ૨૭/૦૪/૨૦૧૦ ના ઠરાવ િમાક- સસપ/૧૧૦૯/૧૬૬૩/અ ની જોગવાઈ મજબ થી વનયત થયલ

નમના પરરવશટટ-૪ તથા તા. ૨૬/૦૪/૨૦૧૬ ના ઠરાવ િમાક: સશપ/ ૧૨૨૦૧૫/ ૪૫૫૨૪૬/ અ તમજ તા. ૧૮/૦૮/૨૦૧૭ ના ઠરાવ િમાક: સશપ/ ૧૨૨૦૧૭/ ૧૨૪૩૮૨/ અ ની જોગવાઈ મજબ, તા. ૦૧/૦૪/ર૦૧૭ થી અરજી કરવાની છલલી તા. ૧૧/૦૪/૨૦૧૯ ( તા. ૩૧/૦૩/૨૦૧૭, તા. ૩૧/૦૩/૨૦૧૮, તા. ૩૧/૦૩/૨૦૧૯ ના રોજ રા થયલ નાણારકય વષગ ર૦૧૬-ર૦૧૭ / ૨૦૧૭-

૨૦૧૮ / ૨૦૧૮-૨૦૧૯ માટન ) દરવમયાન મળવલ અસલ પરમાણ૫તરનો નબર અન તારીખ ઓનલાઈન અરજી કરતી વખત દશાગવવાના રહશ.

(૩) આવથિક રીત નબળા વગમ (EWS)ના ઉમદવારોએ સામાજીક નયાય અન અવધકારીતા વવભાગના તા. ૨૫/૦૧/૨૦૧૯ ના ઠરાવ િમાક- ઈ.ડબલય.એસ./ ૧૨૨૦૧૯/૪૫૯૦૩/અ ની જોગવાઈ મજબ થી વનયત થયલ નમના Annexure -

KH (અગરજી) અથવા પરરવશટટ- ગ (ગજરાતી) નમનામા તા. ૩૧/૦૩/૨૦૧૮ / ૩૧/૦૩/૨૦૧૯ ના રોજ રા થતા નાણાકીય વષગ ૨૦૧૭-૨૦૧૮ / ૨૦૧૮૨૦૧૯ ના વષગની આવકના આધાર તા. ૧૪/૦૧/ર૦૧૯ થી અરજી કરવાની છલલી તા. ૧૧/૦૪/૨૦૧૯ દરવમયાન મળવલ અસલ પરમાણ૫તરનો નબર અન તારીખ

ઓનલાઈન અરજી કરતી વખત દશાગવવાના રહશ. સકષમ અવધકારી ધ વારા અપાયલ આવ પરમાણપતર રજ ન કરી શકનાર

ઉમદવારો સામાન ય ઉમદવારો માટ નકકી થયલ વયમયાગદામા આવતા નહી હોય

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તો તઓની ઉમદવારી રદ થશ. સામાજીક અન શકષણણક રીત ૫છાત વગગના

ઉમદવારોએ રાજય સરકારની નોકરી માટ માનય કરાયલ વનયત નમનામા નોન

રિવમલીયર સટી અસલ પરમાણપતરોની ચકાસણી સમય રજ કરવાન રહશ. (૪)

સામાજીક અન શકષણણક રીત ૫છાત વગગના ૫રરણીત મરહલા ઉમદવાર આવ નોન

િીમીલયર પરમાણ૫તર તમના માતા- વપતાની આવકના સદભગમા રજ કરવાન

રહશ. જો આવા ઉમદવારોએ તમના ૫વતની આવકના સદભગમા આવ પરમાણ૫તર

રજ કરલ હશ તો તની ઉમદવારી રદ કરવામા આવશ. (૫) જો સામાજીક અન

શકષણણક રીત ૫છાત વગગના ઉમદવાર આવ પરમાણ૫તર મડળ ઘવારા અસલ

પરમાણપતરોની ચકાસણી સમય રજ કરલ નરહ હોય તો, તમજ તઓ ણબન અનામત

ઉમદવાર તરીકની વયમયાગદામા આવતા નહી હોય તો તઓની ઉમદવારી માનય

ગણાશ નરહ. (૬) પરીકષા ફી ભયાગ બાદ રીફડ મળવાપાતર નથી તમજ ત ફી અન ય

કોઇ પરીકષા માટ અનામત તરીક રાખવામા આવશ નહી. તથા અરજી કયાગ બાદ

૫રત ખચી શકાશ નરહ. (૭) ણબનઅનામત વગગના ઉમદવારોએ વનયત પરીકષા ફી

ભરલ નહી હોય તો તઓની અરજી વવચારણામા લવામા આવશ નહી. (૮)

આગળની ભરતી પરરિયા સદભ મડળ દવારા આ૫વામા આવતી જરરી સચનાઓ

જોવા માટ મડળની વબસાઈટ અવાર નવાર જોતા રહવ . (૯) એથલરટકસ(રક

અન રફલડ રમતો સરહત), બડવમનટન, બાસકટબોલ, રિકટ, ફટબોલ, હોકી, સસવમીગ,

ટબલ ટવનસ, વોલીબોલ, ટવનસ, વઈટણલફટીગ, રસણલિગ, બોકવસિગ, સાઈકણલિગ,

જીમપનષસટકસ, જડો, રાઈફલ શરટિગ, કબડડી, ખોખો, તીરદાજી, ઘોડસવારી, ગોળાફક,

નૌકાસ પધાગ, શતરજ, હન ડબોલ ની રમતો-ખલકદમા (1) રાષટરીય / આતરરાષટરીય

અથવા (2) આતર યવનવવસિટી અથવા (3) અણખલ ભારત શાળા સઘ ઘવારા

યોજાતી પધામઓમા માતર પરવતવનવધતવ કરલ હોય તવા ઉમદવારન ૫સદગીમા

અગરતા માટ તમન માતર પરથમ તબકકા ભાગ-૧ ની સપધાગતમક લણખત પરીકષામા

મળવલ કલ ગણના ૫ (પાચ) ટકા ગણ ઉમરી આ૫વામા આવશ. તથી ઉકત તરણ

સ તરની સ પધાગઓમા ઉમદવારોએ ભાગ લીધલ હોય તવા જ ઉમદવારોએ

અરજીપતરકમા જરરી વવગતો દશાગવવાની રહશ. ઉકત તરણ તર વસવાયની

પધામઓમા ભાગ લીધલ હોય તો તન અગરીમતા માટ માનસટય ગણવાની રહતી ન

હોવાથી તવા ઉમદવારોએ અરજીપતરકમા વવગતો દશામવવાની રહશ નહી. ઉકત

તરણ સ તરની સ પધાગઓમા ભાગ લીધલ ઉમદવારોએ સરકાર તા. ર૫/ર/૧૯૮૦ ના

ઠરાવ િમાક : સીઆરઆર/૧૦૭૭/ ર૬૬૦/ગ.ર તથા તા. ૧/૮/૧૯૯૦ ના ઠરાવ

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િમાક : સીઆરઆર/૧૧૮૮/૩૬૪૪/ગ.ર મા વનયત કયાગ મજબના સિાવધકારી

પાસથી વનયત નમનામા મળવલ જરરી પરમાણ૫તર અસલ પરમાણપતરોની ચકાસણી

સમય રજ કરવાન રહશ. (વનયત નમના મડળની વબસાઈટ પર મકવામા આવલ

છ.) આવ પરમાણપતર ધરાવનાર ઉમદવાર જ રમતના ગણ મળવવા માટ હકકદાર

થશ. (૧૦) સામાનય વહીવટ વવભાગના તા. ૨૨/૦૫/૧૯૯૭ ના ઠરાવ િમાકઃ

સીઆરઆર/૧૦૯૬/૨૨૧૩/ગ.ર મા વનદવશત પરવતગમાન વનયમો અનસાર વવધવા

મરહલા ઉમદવારો માટ પસદગીમા અગરતા આપવા માટ તઓન પરથમ તબકકાની

સપધાગતમક લણખત કસોટી તમજ બીજા તબકકાની કોમપયટર પરોફીસીયનસી ટસટ-

એમ બન પરીકષામા મળવલ ગણના ૫ (પાચ) ટકા ગણ ઉમરી આ૫વામા આવશ.

પરત તઓએ વનમણ ક સમય નઃ લગન કરલા ન હોવા જોઇએ. અન ત અગ

મડળ માગ તયાર તમામ રાવા અસલમા રજ કરવાના રહશ. (૧૧) મડળ તરફથી

આ૫વામા આવતી જરરી સચનાઓ જોવા માટ મડળની વબસાઈટ અવાર નવાર

જોતા રહવ .

૧૧. સામાનસટય સચનાઓ:-

(૧). ઉમદવાર અરજી૫તરકમા ભરલ વવગતો સમગર ભરતી પરરિયા માટ આખરી ગણવામા

આવશ અન તના રાવાઓ પરમાણપતરોની ચકાસણી સમય અસલમા રજ કરવાના

રહશ. અનયથા ઉમદવારી જ - ત તબકક ‘‘રદ’’ કરવામા આવશ.

(૨). ઉમદવાર અરજી૫તરકમા જ ફોટો upload કર છ, તની પાસપોટમ સાઈઝના ફોટાની

એક કરતા વધ કોપીઓ પોતાની પાસ રાખવી અન આ જાહરાતની સમગર ભરતી

પરરકરયામા ત જ ફોટાની કોપીનો ઉપયોગ કરવાનો રહશ. (જમ ક ૫રીકષા સમય

હાજરી૫તરકમા લગાવવો તમજ અસલ પરમાણપતરોની ચકાસણી સમય પણ ત જ

ફોટાની કોપી રજ કરવાની રહશ.)

(૩). ઉમદવાર અરજી૫તરક ભરતી વખત જ મોબાઈલ નબર દશામવ છ ત જ નબર ચાલ

રાખવો અન ભરતી પરકરીયા પણમ થાય યા સધી જાળવી રાખવો. (૪) મડળ જ કોઈ ઉમદવારન (૧) તન ઉમદવારી માટ કોઈ૫ણ પરકાર ટકો મળવવા માટ

એટલ ક, મડળના અઘયકષ, સભય અથવા કોઈ અવધકારી ૫ર પરતયકષ ક ૫રોકષ

લાગવગ લગાડવાનો પરયાસ કરવા માટ (ર) બીજાન નામ ધારણ કરવા માટ (૩) બીજા પાસ પોતાન નામ ધારણ કરાવવા માટ (૪) બનાવટી ખોટા દસતાવજો અથવા જની સાથ ચડા કરવામા આવયા હોય તવા દસતાવજો સાદર કરવા અથવા ગરરીવત

આચરવા માટ (૫) યથાથગ અથવા ખોટા અથવા મહતવની મારહતી છપાવતા હોય તવા વનવદનો કરવા માટ (૬) ૫રીકષા માટ તની ઉમદવારીના સબધમા અનય કોઈ

અવનયવમત અથવા અયોગય સાધનોનો આશરય લવા માટ (૭) પરીકષા દરમપયાન

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ગરવયાજબી સાધનોનો ઉ૫યોગ કરવા માટ એટલ ક અનય ઉમદવારની ઉિરવહીમાથી નકલ કરવા, સતક, ગાઈડ, કા૫લી ક તવા કોઈ૫ણ છાપલા ક, હસતણલણખત સારહતયની મદદથી, મોબાઇલ, અથવા અનય ઇલકરોવનક ઉપકરણો સાથ રાખવા ક, તનો ઉપયોગ કરવો અથવા વાતચીત ઘવારા નકલ કરવા ક ઉમદવારન

નકલ કરાવવાની ગરરીવતઓ પકી કોઈ૫ણ ગરરીવત આચરવા માટ (૮) લખાણોમા અશશલલ ભાષા અથવા ણબભતસ બાબત સરહતની અપરસતત બાબત લખવા માટ (૯) ૫રીકષાખડમા અનય કોઈ રીત ગરવતગણ ક કરવા માટ (૧૦) ૫રીકષાના સચાલન કરવા માટ મડળ રોકલા સટાફની સીધી ક આડકતરી રીત હરાન કરવા અથવા શારીરરક રીત

ઈજા કરવા માટ (૧૧) વગવતી િમ- ૧ થી ૧૦ ખડોમા વનરદિટટ કરલ તમામ અથવા કોઈ૫ણ કતય કરવાનો પરયતન કરવા માટ અથવા યથા પરસગ મદદગીરી કરવા માટ અથવા (૧ર) ૫રીકષા આ૫વા માટ તન ૫રવાનગી આ૫તા તના પરવશ૫તરમા આ૫વામા આવલી કોઈ૫ણ સચનાનો ભગ કરવા માટ દોવષત ઠયાગ હોય તો અથવા દોવષત હોવાન જાહર કયગ હોય તો ત ફોજદારી કાયગવાહીન પાતર થવા ઉ૫રાત-(ક) મડળ, જ ૫રીકષાનો ઉમદવાર હોય ત ૫રીકષામાથી ગરલાયક ઠરાવી શકશ, અથવા (ખ)(૧) મડળ, સીધી ૫સદગી માટ લવાતી કોઈ૫ણ ૫રીકષામા બસવામાથી અથવા (ર) રાજય સરકાર પોતાના હઠળની કોઈ૫ણ નોકરીમાથી કાયમી રીત અથવા વનરદિટટ મદત માટ બાકાત કરી શકશ. (૧૩) ગજરાત જાહર સવા આયોગ, અનય ભરતી બોડગ, અન ય સરકારી/અધગ સરકારી/સરકાર હસ તકની સસ થાઓ દવારા ઉમદવાર કયારય પણ ગરલાયક ઠરાવલ હોય અન ગરલાયક ઠરાવયાનો સમય ચાલ હશ તો તવા ઉમદવારોની ઉમદવારી જ ત તબકક આપોઆપ રદ થવાન પાતર બનશ.

(૫) ઉમદવાર અરજી૫તરકમા બતાવલી કોઈ૫ણ વવગત અન અસલ પરમાણપતરોની ચકાસણી સમય રજ કરલ જનમ તારીખ, શકષણણક લાયકાત, વય, જાવત, અનભવ

વવગરન લગતા પરમાણ૫તરો ભવવટયમા જ ત તબકક ચકાસણી દરમપયાન ખોટા માલમ

૫ડશ તો તની સામ યોગય કાયદસરની કાયગવાહી કરવામા આવશ. આવા ઉમદવારની ઉમદવારી મડળ ઘવારા ‘‘રદ‘‘ કરવામા આવશ. તમજ અન ય સવગોની ભરતી માટ પણ ગરલાયક ઠરાવવામા આવશ. તમજ જો ૫સદગી/વનમણ ક થયલ હશ તો ૫સદગી/વનમણ ક, મડળ/વનમણ ક કરનાર સિાવધકારી દવારા કોઈ૫ણ તબકક ‘‘રદ‘‘ કરવામા આવશ.

(૬) મડળ ઘવારા લવાનાર સપધાગતમક લણખત કસોટી ક કોમપયટર પરોફીસીયનસી કસોટીમા ઉિીણગ થવાથી જ ઉમદવારન વનમણ ક માટનો હકક મળી જતો નથી. વનમણ ક સમય

સિાવધકારીન ઉમદવાર બધી જ રીત યોગય છ તમ સતોષ થાય તો જ ઉમદવારન વનમણ ક આ૫વામા આવશ.

(૭) ૫સદગી પામલ ઉમદવાર વનમણ ક સિાવધકારી ઠરાવ ત શરતોન આવધન વનમણ ક મળવવાન પાતર થશ.

(૮) ઉમદવાર પોત ૫રીકષામા સફળ થયો હોવાના કારણ જ સબવધત જગા ઉ૫ર વનમણ ક કરવાનો દાવો કરવાન હકકદાર થશ નહી, વનમણ ક કરનાર સિાવધકારીન પોતાન

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એવી ખાતરી થાય ક જાહર સવા સાર ઉમદવાર યોગય જણાતો નથી તો તન ૫ડતો મકી શકાશ. વનમણ ક બાબત તઓનો વનણગય આખરી ગણાશ.

(૯) ભરતી પરરિયા સ ણગ૫ણ ગજરાત મલકી સવા વગીકરણ અન ભરતી(સામાનય) વનયમો-૧૯૬૭ (વખતો વખતના સધારા સરહત) અન ત અનવય જ ત સવગગના ઘડવામા આવલ ભરતી વનયમોન આવધન રહશ.

(૧૦) સમગર ભરતી પરિીયા ણગ ન થાય તયા સધી કોઈ પણ પરકારની મારહતી માગતી આર.ટી.આઈ. એકટ હઠળની કોઈ પણ અરજી ધયાન લવામા આવશ નહી.

૧૨. આ જાહરાત તથા ભરતી પરરિયામા કોઈ૫ણ કારણોસર તમા ફરફાર કરવાની ક રદ

કરવાની આવશયકતા ઉભી થાય તો તમ કરવાનો મડળન સ ણગ હકક / અવધકાર રહશ

અન મડળ આ માટ કારણો આ૫વા બધાયલ રહશ નહી.

તારીખ:- ૦૭/૦૩/૨૦૧૯

થળ:- ગાધીનગર

સણચવ

ગજરાત ગૌણ સવા ૫સદગી મડળ, ગાધીનગર

ગજરાત જાહર સવા આયોગ

આર-૧ શાખા જાહરાત કરમાાક: ૭૯/૨૦૧૮-૧૯ માગગ અન મકાન વવભાગ હસતકની મદદનીશ ઇજનર (સીવીલ), વગગ-રની ૨૮૫ જગયાઓના ઉમદવારો પસદ કરવા માટ તા:૧૫-૧૦-૨૦૧૮,૧૩.૦૦ કલાક થી તાાઃ૩૦-૧૦-૨૦૧૮,૧૩.૦૦ કલાક સધીમા ઓનલાઈન અરજીઓ મગાવવામા આવલ હતી. જ પન: તા.૧૮/૦૩/૨૦૧૯ (૧૩-૦૦ કલાક) થી તા. ૧૮/૦૪/૨૦૧૯ (૧૩-૦૦ કલાક) સધી Re-Open કરવામાા આવ છ.

નોધ:- (૧) ઉમદવારોએ જાહરાત કરમાક અન જગયાન નામ સપષટ રીત વાચીન ઓન લાઇન અરજી કરવી.

ઓન લાઇન અરજી કરતી વખત તમામ વવગતો અરજી પતરકમા ભયાા બાદ, ત વવગતોની ખાતરી કરીન તયારબાદ જ અરજી કનફમા કરવાની રહશ.

(૨) કનફમા થયલ અરજી પતરકની વવગતો ક તમા ઉમદવાર આપલ માહહતીમા કષવત ક ચક બાબત સધારો કરવાની રજઆત/ વવનતી ગરાહય રાખવામા આવશ નહી.

(૩) એક કરતા વધાર સખયામા અરજી કયાાના હકસસામા છલલ કનફમા થયલ અરજી પતરક જ માનય રાખવામા આવશ. બબન અનામત વગાના ઉમદવારો માટ છલલ કનફમા થયલ ફી સાથન અરજીપતરક માનય રાખવામા આવશ.

(૪) ઓન લાઇન જાહરાત માટના ભરલા અરજી પતરક બબડાણ સહહત આયોની કચરીમા હાલ પરતા મોકલવા નહી, પરત આયોગ દવારા મગાવવામા આવ તયારજ મોકલવા વવનતી છ.

(૫) મળ જાહરાતમા જ ઉમદવારોએ સામાનય (General) કટગરીમા અરજી કરલ હોય અન હવ આવથિક રીત અનામત નો લાભ મળવા પાતર હોય (એટલ ક જ ઉમદવારો હવ EWS Category મા આવતા હોય) તમણ પન: EWS Category હઠળ અરજી કરવાની રહશ. મળ જાહરાતમા જ ઉમદવારોએ અરજી કરલ છ અન જમન આવથિક રીત નબળા વગોના અનામતનો લાભ મળવાપાતર નથી એવા ઉમદવારો એ સધારલ જાહરાત અનવય ફરીથી અરજી કરવાની રહશ નહી. અલબત મળ જાહરાતમા અરજી કરલ ન હોય તવા તમામ કટગરીના ઉમદવારો સધારલ જાહરાત અનવય અરજી કરી શકશ. ઉપલી વયમયાાદા માટ મળ જાહરાતમા દશાાવલ અરજી સવીકારવાની છલલી તારીખ ધયાન લવાની રહશ જયાર શકષબણક લાયકાત અન અનભવ માટ સધારલ જાહરાતમા દશાાવલ અરજી સવીકારવાની છલલી તારીખ ધયાન લવાની રહશ.

(૬) આવથિક રીત નબળા વગાના ઉમદવારોએ પરીકષા ફી અન અરજીપતરક ફી માથી મકતત આપવામા આવ છ.

આ જાહરાત અનવય ઓનલાઈન અરજી કરતા પહલા વવગતવાર જાહરાત સાથની “જાહરાતની સામાનય જોગવાઈઓ” અન ઓન લાઈન અરજી કરવાની રીત તમજ અરજી ફી ભરવાની રીત અગની સચનાઓ આયોગના નોટીસ બોડા પર તથા આયોગની વબસાઇટ https://gpsc-

ojas.gujarat.gov.in પર જોવા વવનતી છ. તયારબાદ જ ઉમદવાર અરજી કરવાની રહશ.

https://gpsc-ojas.gujarat.gov.in/


પરાથવમક કસોટીની સબચત તાાઃ ૨૩-૬-૨૦૧૯ પરાથવમક કસોટીના પહરણામનો સબચત મહહનો ઓગસટ-૨૦૧૯ રબર મલાકાતનો સબચત મહહનો ડીસમબર-૨૦૧૯ આખરી પરીણામ :- ર.મ. પણગ થયાના ૧૦ કામકાજના દદવસો દરમયાન પરવસધધ કરવામાા આવશ. જગયાના નામ:- મદદનીશ ઇજનર (સીવીલ), વગગ-ર ની કલ-૨૮૫ જગયાઓ (નીચ દશાગવયા મજબ)

કરમ સાવગગના નામ કલ જગયાઓ કલ જગયાઓ પકી મદહલા ઉમદવાર માટ અનામત જગયાઓ

૧ બબન અનામત ૧૫૫ ૫૧

૨ આવથિક રીત નબળા વગા ૨૮ ૦૯ ૩ સા અન શ. પ. વગા ૫૨ ૧૭ ૪ અન. જાવત ૧૩ ૦૪ ૫ અન.જનજાવત ૩૭ ૧૨ કલ ૨૮૫ ૯૩

નોધઃ- ૧. કલ જગયાઓ પકી ૧૩ જગયા શારીહરક અશકતતા ધરાવતા ઉમદવારો માટ અનામત છ. તથા ૦૭ જગયા માજી સવનક ઉમદવારો માટ અનામત છ . ૨. મહહલાઓ માટની અનામત જગયા માટ જ ત કટગરીમા જો મહહલા ઉમદવાર ઉપલબધ નહી થાય તો ત જગયા ત કકષાના પરષ ઉમદાવારન ફાળવી શકાશ. ૩. બબન અનામત કટગરીની કલ જગયાઓ અન ત પકી મહહલા ઉમદવારો માટની અનામત જગયાઓ તથા આવથિક રીત નબળા વગા, સા.શ.પ.વગા, અન.જાવત અન અન.જનજાવત માટની કલ જગયાઓ અન ત પકી મહહલા ઉમદવારો માટની અનામત જગયાઓ પર પસદગી જ ત કટગરીના ઉમદવારો તથા ત પકી મહહલા ઉમદવારોએ પસદગીની પરહકરયા દરમયાન પરાપત કરલ ગણ અન આયોગ સબવધત સવાની કાયાકષમતા જાળવી રાખવા વનયત કરલ લાયકી ધોરણ ધયાન લઇ કરવામા આવશ. ૪. અનામત કકષાના ઉમદવારો બબન-અનામત જગયા માટ અરજી કરી શકશ અન ત સજોગોમા તઓન બબન-અનામતની કકષા માટના ધોરણો લાગ પડશ. ૫. કલ જગયાઓ પકી ૦૭ જગયા શરવણની અશકતતા (H.H.-Hearing Handicapped) ૪૦ ટકા ક તથી વધ અન ૧૦૦ ટકા સધીની શારીહરક અશકતતા ધરાવતા ઉમદવારો માટ અનામત છ. તથા કલ

જગયાઓ પકી ૦૬ જગયા OA અન OL પરકારની વવકલાગતાવાળા ઉમદવારો માટ અનામત છ.

Education Qualification :- (1) Possess a degree in Engineering (Civil) or Technology (Civil)

obtained from any of the Universities or institutions established or incorporated by or under the

Central or State Act in India; or any other educational institutions recognized as such or declared

to be a deemed University under section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956.

(2) The basic knowledge of Computer Application as prescribed in the Gujarat Civil Service

Classification and Recruitment (General) Rules, 1967.

(3) Adequate knowledge of Gujarati or Hindi or both.

પગાર:- Pay Matrix ના લવલ-૮ મજબ ર.૪૪૯૦૦ -૧,૪૨,૪૦૦/- ઉમર:- મળ જાહરાતમાા અરજી લોગ ઓન કરવાની છલલી તારીખ : ૩૦-૧૦-૨૦૧૮ ના રોજ ઉમદવાર ૨૦ વરગ પરા કરલા હોવા જોઈએ અન ૩૫ વરગ પરા કરલા ન હોવા જોઈએ. (૧) ઉમર મળ જાહરાતમાા અરજી સવીકારવાની છલલી તારીખના રોજ ગણવામાા આવશ. (૨) જાહરાતમાા ઉપલી વયમયાગદા આપવામાા આવલ છ, તમાા નીચ મજબની છટછાટ મળવાપાતર છ.

૧ મળ ગજરાતના આવથિક રીત નબળા વગગ, અનસચચત જાવત, અન.જનજાવત અન સા.અન શ.પ.વગગના પરર ઉમદવાર

પાાચ વરગ (વધમાા વધ ૪૫ વરગની મયાગદામાા)

૨ ચબન અનામત વગોના મદહલા ઉમદવાર પાાચ વરગ (વધમાા વધ ૪૫ વરગની મયાગદામાા)

૩ મળ ગજરાતના આવથિક રીત નબળા વગગ, અનસચચત જાવત, અન.જન જાવત અન સા.અન શ.પ.વગગના મદહલા ઉમદવાર

દસ વરગ (વધમાા વધ ૪૫ વરગની મયાગદામાા) (આ છટછાટમાા મદહલા માટની છટછાટ ક જ પાાચ વરગની છ તનો સમાવશ થઇ જાય છ.)

૪

શારીરીક અશકતતા ધરાવતા ઉમદવારો :- OL, OA અન HH (Hearing Handicap) પરકારની ૪૦% ક તથી વધ અન ૧૦૦% સધીની વવકલાાગતા અશકતતા ધરાવતા ઉમદવારો હોય તઓન જ મડીકલ બોડગના તબીબી પરમાણપતરન આધીન ૧૦ વરગ સધીની છટછાટ મળવાપાતર રહશ. આ વસવાય અનય શારીરરક અશકતતા ધરાવતા ઉમદવારો અરજી કરવાન પાતર નથી.

૫

ગજરાત સરકારના કમગચારીઓ ક જઓ ગજરાત સરકારની નોકરીમાા કાયમી ધોરણ અથવા હાગામી ધોરણ સળાગ છ માસ સધી કામગીરી બજાવતા હોય અન તઓની પરથમ વનમણ ાક જાહરાતમાાની જગયામાા દશાગવલ વયમયાગદાની અદર થયલ હોય તવા કમગચારીઓ

(૧) જાહરાતમાા લાયકાત તરીક અનભવ માાગલ હોય તો ઉપલી વયમયાગદા લાગ પડશ નહી (૨) જાહરાતમાા અનભવન લાયકાત તરીક માાગલ ન હોય પરાત ઇજનરી, તબીબી, ખતી વવરયક, પશ ચચદકતસાની પદવી ક દડપલોમાની જગયા પર વનમણ ાક પામલ કમગચારીન જાહરાતમાાની આવી લાયકાતવાળી જગયા (Any such post) માટ ઉપલી વયમયાગદા લાગ પડશ નહી (૩) જાહરાતમાા દશાગવલ જગયા માટ અનભવ એક લાયકાત તરીક માાગલ ન હોય તયાર જ સાવગગમાાથી બઢતી મળવાપાતર હોય તમાા ફરજ બજાવતા કમગચારીન, તઓએ બજાવલ સવાના સમય અથવા વધમાા વધ પાાચ વરગની છટછાટ ત બ પકી જ ઓછા હોય તટલી છટછાટ મળશ.

(આશા શાહ)

સાયકત સચચવ ગજરાત જાહર સવા આયોગ

જાહરાતની સામાનય જોગવાઈ

૧. નાગદરકતવ:- ઉમદવાર, (ક) ભારતનો નાગદરક અથવા (ખ) નપાળનો પરજાજન અથવા (ગ) ભતાનનો પરજાજન અથવા (ઘ) વતબટનો વનવાગવસત જ ભારતમાા કાયમી વસવાટ કરવાના ઇરાદાથી ૧લી જાનયઆરી,૧૯૬૨ પહલાા ભારતમાા આવલા હોવા જોઇએ, અથવા (ચ) મળ ભારતીય વયકકત ક જ ભારતમાા કાયમી વસવાટ કરવાના ઇરાદાથી પાદકસતાન, પવગપાદકસતાન (બાાગલાદશ), બમાગ (મયાનમાર), શરીલાકા, કનયા, યગાનડા, જવા પવગઆદિકાના દશો, સાયકત પરજાસતતાક ટાાઝાનીયા, ઝાાબીયા, મલાવી, ઝર, ઇથોપીયા, અથવા વવયટનામથી સથળાાતર કરીન આવલ હોવા જોઇએ. પરાત પટાકરમાાક (ખ), (ગ), (ઘ) અન (ચ)માા આવતા ઉમદવારોના દકસસામાા સરકાર પાતરતા પરમાણપતર આપલ હોવા જોઇએ. નોધ:- જ ઉમદવારના દકસસામાા પાતરતા પરમાણપતર જરરી હોય તવા ઉમદવારના અરજીપતરક આયોગ વવચારણામાા લશ અન જો વનમણક માટ તમના નામની ભલામણ કરવામાા આવશ તો રાજય સરકાર તમના દકસસામાા પાતરતા પરમાણપતર આપવાની શરત કામચલાઉ વનમણક આપશ.

૨. ભરલા અરજીપતરક:- (૧) ઓનલાઇન જાહરાત માટ અરજી કનફમગ કરીન ચબન અનામત કકષાના ઉમદવારોએ પોસટ ઓદફસમાા અથવા ઓનલાઈન ફી ર.૧૦૦/- + સવવિસ ચારજ જમા કરાવવાની રહશ. જયાર અનામત કકષાના ઉમદવારોએ તથા શારીદરક અશકતતા ધરાવતા ઉમદવારોએ પોસટ ઓદફસમાા ફી જમા કરાવવાની રહશ નહી. કનફમગ થયલ અરજીપતરકની નકલ તથા પરમાણપતરો આયોગની કચરી/પોસટઓદફસમાા જમા કરાવવાના નથી. પરાત અરજીપતરકની નકલ પોતાની પાસ રાખવાની રહશ અન જયાર એસ.એમ.એસ./ટપાલ/આયોગની વબસાઈટના માધયમથી અરજીપતરક જમા કરાવવાનો સાદશો મળ તયાર જ જરરી પરમાણપતરો સાથ અરજીપતરક આયોગની કચરીમાા મોકલવાના રહશ. (૨) જો એક કરતાા વધ જાહરાત માટ અરજી કરવાની હોય તો દરક જાહરાત માટ અલગ અલગ અરજી કરવાની રહશ અન પરતયક અરજી સાથ ફી ભરવાની રહશ. (૩) અનામત કકષાના ઉમદવારો જો ચબનઅનામત જગયા માટ અરજી કર તો અરજી ફી ભરવાની રહશ નહી. (૪) અરજી ફી વગરની અચિમ નકલ વવચારણામાા લવામાા આવશ નહી. (૫) અનામત કકષાના ઉમદવારો માટ જાહરાતમાાઅનામત જગયાઓ દશાગવલ ન હોય તયાા આવા ઉમદવારો ચબનઅનામત જગયા માટ અરજી કરીશકશ અન તન ચબનઅનામતના ધોરણો લાગ પડશ. (૬) જાહરાતમાા મદહલા ઉમદવારો માટ જગયાઓ અનામત નહોય તો પણ જ ત કટગરીમાા મદહલા ઉમદવારો અરજી કરી શક છ. (૭) જાહરાતમાા જ ત કટગરીમાા કલ જગયાઓ પકી મદહલા ઉમદવારો માટ અમક જગયાઓ અનામત હોય તયાર મદહલા ઉમદવારોની અનામત જગયાઓ વસવાયની બાકી રહતી જગયાઓ ફકત પરર ઉમદવારો માટ અનામત છ તમ ગણવાના નથી, આ જગયાઓ પર પરર તમજ મદહલા ઉમદવારોની પસાદગી માટ

વવચારણા થઇ શક છ, પરર તમજ મદહલા ઉમદવારો અરજી કરી શક છ. (દા.ત. કલ ૧૦ જગયાઓ પકી ૦૩ જગયા મદહલા ઉમદવાર માટ અનામત છ પરાત બાકી રહતી ૦૭ જગયા સામ મદહલા ઉમદવાર પણ પસાદગી પામી શક છ.) (૮) જાહરાતમાા માતર મદહલા ઉમદવારો માટ જગયાઓ અનામત હોય તો પણ જ ત કટગરીમાા પરર ઉમદવાર અરજી કરી શક છ કમ ક મદહલા ઉમદવાર ઉપલબધ ન થાય તો આ જગયાઓ પર પસાદગી માટ પરર ઉમદવારોની વવચારણા થઇ શક છ. પરાત જ જગયાઓ મદહલા ઉમદવારો માટ જ અનામત હોય અન ત જગયા ઉપર મદહલા ઉમદવારો પરપરા પસાદગી પામ જટલી સાખયામાા પસાદગી પામ તો તમન જ પરથમ વવચારણામાા લવાના થશઅન કોઇ મદહલા ઉમદવાર પસાદ ન થાય ક ઓછા મદહલા ઉમદવાર પસાદ થાય તો તટલા પરમાણમાા પરર ઉમદવારોન ધયાનમાા લવામાા આવશ.(દા.ત.કલ ૧૦ જગયા મદહલા ઉમદવાર માટ અનામત છ અન ૦૮ મદહલા ઉમદવાર પસાદ થાય છ તો ૦૨ પરર ઉમદવારો પસાદગી પામી શક છ.) (૯) ઓનલાઇન જાહરાત માટના ભરલા અરજીપતરક (જ રોલ નાબર પર ઉમદવાર ઉપકસથત રહયા હોય ત જ અરજીપતરક) ચબડાણ સદહત આયોગની કચરીમાા હાલ પરતા મોકલવા નહી, આયોગ દરારા જયર માગાવવા આવ તયાર જ મોકલી આપવા.

૩. જનમ તારીખ:- (૧) જનમ તારીખના પરાવા માટ એસ. એસ. સી. બોડગ દવારા અપાયલ એસ.એસ.સી.ઇ. પરમાણપતર જ માનય રાખ છ. પરાત આ પરમાણપતરમાા દશાગવલ જનમ-તારીખ ખોટી હોવાના ઉમદવારમાન તો સકષમ અવધકારીએ આપલ વય અન અવધવાસના પરમાણપતરની પરમાચણત નકલ મોકલવાની રહશ. આ પરમાણપતરમાા અવધકત અવધકારીએ સપષટપણ જણાવલ હોવા જોઇએ ક તઓએ એસ.એસ. સી. ક તની પરીકષાના મળ પરમાણપતર તપાસલ છ અન પોતાની સમકષ રજ કરવામાા આવલ પરાવાઓન આધાર ઉમદવારની સાચી જનમતારીખ ............ છ. જ એસ.એસ.સી. ક તની સમકકષ પરીકષાના પરમાણપતરમાા દશાગવલ જનમતારીખ કરતાા જદી છતથા માનવાન પરત ા કારણ છ. ઉમદવાર રજ કરલ વય અન અવધવાસના પરમાણપતર તની વવશવાસહતાગ(credibility)ના આધાર સવીકાર ક અસવીકારનો વનણગય આયોગ દવારા લવામાા આવશ. (૨) ઉમદવાર અરજી પતરકમાા દશાગવલ જનમ-તારીખમાા પાછળથી કોઇપણ કારણસર ફરફાર થઈશકશ નહી.

૪.વયમયાગદા:- (૧) ઉમર મળ જાહરાતમાા અરજી સવીકારવાની છલલી તારીખના રોજ ગણવામાા આવશ. (૨) જાહરાતમાા ઉપલી વયમયાગદા આપવામાા આવલ છ, તમાા નીચ મજબની છટછાટ મળવાપાતર છ.

૧ મળ ગજરાતના આવથિક રીત નબળા વગગ, અનસચચત જાવત, અન.જનજાવત અન સા.અન શ.પ.વગગના પરર ઉમદવાર

પાાચ વરગ (વધમાા વધ ૪૫ વરગની મયાગદામાા)

૨ ચબન અનામત વગોના મદહલા ઉમદવાર પાાચ વરગ (વધમાા વધ ૪૫ વરગની મયાગદામાા)

૩ મળ ગજરાતના આવથિક રીત નબળા વગગ, અનસચચત જાવત, અન.જન જાવત અન સા.અન શ.પ.વગગના મદહલા ઉમદવાર

દસ વરગ (વધમાા વધ ૪૫ વરગની મયાગદામાા) (આ છટછાટમાા મદહલા માટની છટછાટ ક જ પાાચ વરગની છ તનો સમાવશ થઇ જાય છ.)

૪

શારીરીક અશકતતા ધરાવતા ઉમદવારો :- OL, OA અન HH (Hearing Handicap) પરકારની ૪૦% ક તથી વધ અન ૧૦૦% સધીની વવકલાાગતા અશકતતા ધરાવતા ઉમદવારો હોય તઓન જ મડીકલ બોડગના તબીબી પરમાણપતરન આધીન ૧૦ વરગ સધીની છટછાટ મળવાપાતર રહશ. આ વસવાય અનય શારીરરક અશકતતા ધરાવતા ઉમદવારો અરજી કરવાન પાતર નથી.

૫

ગજરાત સરકારના કમગચારીઓ ક જઓ ગજરાત સરકારની નોકરીમાા કાયમી ધોરણ અથવા હાગામી ધોરણ સળાગ છ માસ સધી કામગીરી બજાવતા હોય અન તઓની પરથમ વનમણ ાક જાહરાતમાાની જગયામાા દશાગવલ વયમયાગદાની અદર થયલ હોય તવા કમગચારીઓ

(૧) જાહરાતમાા લાયકાત તરીક અનભવ માાગલ હોય તો ઉપલી વયમયાગદા લાગ પડશ નહી (૨) જાહરાતમાા અનભવન લાયકાત તરીક માાગલ ન હોય પરાત ઇજનરી, તબીબી, ખતી વવરયક, પશ ચચદકતસાની પદવી ક દડપલોમાની જગયા પર વનમણ ાક પામલ કમગચારીન જાહરાતમાાની આવી લાયકાતવાળી જગયા (Any such post) માટ ઉપલી વયમયાગદા લાગ પડશ નહી (૩) જાહરાતમાા દશાગવલ જગયા માટ અનભવ એક લાયકાત તરીક માાગલ ન હોય તયાર જ સાવગગમાાથી બઢતી મળવાપાતર હોય તમાા ફરજ બજાવતા કમગચારીન, તઓએ બજાવલ સવાના સમય અથવા વધમાા વધ પાાચ વરગની છટછાટ ત બ પકી જ ઓછા હોય તટલી છટછાટ મળશ.

૫. શકષચણક લાયકાત:- (૧) ઉમદવાર જાહરાતમાા દશાગવલ શકષચણક લાયકાત સધારલ જાહરાતની અરજી સવીકારવાની છલલી તારીખના રોજ ધરાવતા હોવા જોઇએ. (૨) ઉમદવાર શકષચણક લાયકાત માનય યવનવવસિટી/સાસથામાથી મળવલ હોવી જોઇએ. (૩) ઉમદવાર અરજી સાથ માનય યવનવવસિટી/સાસથાના ગણપતરક (બધા જ વરો/સમસટર) અન પદવી પરમાણપતરોની સવયા પરમાચણત નકલ રજ કરવાની રહશ. કોલજના આચાયગ દવારા અપાયલ પરમાણપતર માનય ગણવામાા આવશ નહી. (૪) શકષચણક લાયકાત કામચલાઉ ધોરણ માનય રાખવી તવો ઉમદવારનો હકક દાવો સવીકારવામાા આવશ નહી. (૫) જાહરાતમાા દશાગવલ લાયકાતની સમકકષ લાયકાત ઉમદવાર ધરાવ છ તવો તમનો હકક દાવો હોય તો આવા ઉમદવાર સમકકષતા પરસથાવપત કરતા આદશો/અવધકતતાની વવગતો આપવાની રહશ.

૬. અનભવ :- (૧) માાગલ અનભવ સધારલ જાહરાતની અરજી સવીકારવાની છલલી તારીખના રોજ ગણવામાા આવશ. (૨) (અ) જાહરાતમાા અનયથા જોગવાઇ કરવામાા ન આવી હોય તો જરરી લાયકાતો મળવવામાા આવ ત તારીખથી, (બ) અરજી સવીકારવાની છલલી તારીખના સાદભગમાા અનભવ ગણવામાા આવશ.

(૩) ઉમદવાર અરજીમાા જ અનભવ દશાગવલ હોય તના સમથગનમાા અનભવનો સમયગાળો (દદવસ, માસ, વરગ), મળ પગાર અન કલ પગારની વવગતો તથા બજાવલ ફરજોનો પરકાર/મળવલ અનભવની વવગતો સાથના પરમાણપતર રજ કરવાના રહશ. આવા પરમાણપતર સાસથાના લટરપડ પર સકષમ સતતાવધકારીની સહી અન તારીખ સાથના રજ કરવાના રહશ. (૪) ઉમદવાર રજ કરલ અનભવના પરમાણપતરમાા પાછળથી કોઇ ફરફાર કરવાની વવનાતી માનય રાખવામાા આવશ નહી. અરજી કયાગ પછી અનભવના નવા પરમાણપતરો સવીકારવામાા આવશ નહી. (૫) અશકાલીન, રોજજિદા વતનદાર, એપરનટીસશીપ, તાલીમી, માનદવતન, આમાવતરત ફકલટી તરીક ઉમદવાર મળવલ અનભવ માનય અનભવ તરીક ગણતરીમાા લવામાા આવશ નહી.

૭. અનસચચત જાવત, અનસચચત જનજાવત, સામાજજક અન શકષચણક રીત પછાત વગગ અન આવથિક રીત નબળા વગગ:- (૧) મળ ગજરાતના અનસચચત જાવત, અનસચચત જનજાવત, આવથિક રીત નબળા વગગ અન સામાજજક અન શકષચણક રીત પછાત વગગના ઉમદવારોન જ અનામત વગગના ઉમદવાર તરીક લાભ મળશ. (૨) આવથિક રીત નબળા વગગ અન સામાજજક અન શકષચણક રીત પછાત વગગના ઉમદવારો વગગની વવગત અરજીપતરકમાા અચક આપવી. (૩) ઉમદવાર અરજીપતરકની સાબાવધત કોલમમાા જ ત અનામત કકષા દશાગવલ નહી હોય તો પાછળથી અનામત વગગના ઉમદવાર તરીક લાભ મળવવાનો હકક દાવો માનય રાખવામાા આવશ નહી. (૪) અનામત વગગનો લાભ મળવવા ઇચછતા ઉમદવાર તના સમથગનમાા સકષમ અવધકારી દવારા વનયત નમનામાા આપવામાા આવલ જાવત પરમાણપતરની નકલ અરજી સાથ અચક સામલ કરવાની રહશ. અરજીપતરક સાથ જાવત પરમાણપતરની નકલ સામલ નહી હોય તો ત પાછળથી સવીકારવામાા આવશ નહી અન અરજીપતરક રદ થવાન પાતર બનશ. (૫) સામાજજક અન શકષચણક રીત પછાત વગગના ઉમદવારોન અનામતનો લાભ જો તઓનો સમાવશ “ઉનનત વગગમાા” નહી થતો હોય તો જ મળવાપાતર થશ. (૬) (અ) સામાજજક અન શકષચણક રીત પછાત વગગના ઉમદવારોએ ઉનનત વગગમાા સમાવશ ન થતો હોવા

અગના સામાજજક નયાય અન અવધકાદરતા વવભાગના તા.૦૬-૦૨-૧૯૯૬ના ઠરાવથી વનયત થયલ ગજરાતી નમના ‘પદરવશષટ-ક’ મજબના અથવા ઉકત વવભગના તા.૨૭-૦૪-૨૦૧૦ના ઠરાવથી વનયત કરાયલ ગજરાતી નમના ‘પદરવશષટ-૪’ મજબના પરમાણપતર રજ કરવાના રહશ. (બ) “ઉનનત વગગમાા સમાવશ નદહ હોવા અગના પરમાણપતર” નાણાકીય વરગ ૨૦૧૬-૧૭ થી ૨૦૧૮-૧૯ દરવમયાન ઈસય કરાયલ તથા તની મહતતમ અવવધ ઈસય થયા-વરગ સદહત તરણ નાણાકીય વરગની રહશ તવો ઉલલખ કરવામાા આવલ હોય તવા. નાણાકીય વરગ ૨૦૧૬-૧૭ મા ઈસય કરાયલ પરમાણપતરની અવવધ તા: ૩૧-૦૩-૨૦૧૯ ના રોજ પરી થતી હોઈ વવશર સાજોગોમાા મળ જાહરાત વખત ૨૦૧૬-૧૭ના NCLC પરમાણપતર માનય ગણાત હોઈ જાહરાત રીઓપન વખત પણ તન માનય ગણવામાા આવશ અન જો કોઈ ઉમદવાર તા: ૦૧-૦૪-૨૦૧૯ પછી અરજી કર અન વરગ ૨૦૧૮-

૧૯ના NCLC રજ કર તો પણ િાહય રાખવામાા આવશ. પરાત આવા પરમાણપતર સાબાવધત જાહરાત માટ ઓનલાઈન અરજી કરવાની છલલી તારીખ સધીમાા ઈસય કરાયલ હોવા જોઈએ. નોધ: ઉનનત વગગમાા સમાવશ નહી હોવા અગના પરમાણપતરની માનયતા/સવીકતી તથા સમયગાળા અન અવવધના અથગઘટન બાબત સરકારશરીના ઠરાવો/પદરપતરોની જોગવાઇઓ આખરી ગણાશ. (ક) પદરણીત મદહલા ઉમદવારોએ આવ પરમાણપતર તમના માતા-વપતાની આવકના સાદભગમાા રજ કરવાના રહશ, જો આવા ઉમદવારોએ તમના પવતની આવકના સાદભગમાા આવા પરમાણપતર રજ કરલ હશ તો તમની અરજી રદ કરવામાા આવશ. જો કોઇ ઉમદવાર વનયત સમયગાળા દરમયાન ઇસય થયલ વનયત નમનાના પરમાણપતર રજ કરલ નદહ હોય તો તઓની અરજી અમાનય ગણવામાા આવશ અન તઓન ચબનઅનામત જગયા સામ પણ વવચારણામાા લવામાા આવશ નદહ. (ડ) ઉમદવાર ઓનલાઇન અરજી કરતી વખત જ ‘ઉનનત વગગમાા સમાવશ નહી થવા અગના પરમાણપતર’ ની વવગતો જણાવલ હોય તની જ નકલ અરજી સાથ જોડવાની રહશ. જો આવાા પરમાણપતરમાા કોઇ ભલ હોવાન કારણ ઉમદવાર જાહરાતની છલલી તારીખ બાદના નવા પરમાણપતર મળવ તો પણ સામાજજક અન શકષચણક રીત પછાત વગગના ઉમદવાર તરીક પાતર થવા માટ ઓનલાઇન અરજીમાા જણાવલ પરમાણપતર જ માનય રહશ. (ઇ) ઉનનત વગગમાા સમાવશ ન થતો હોવા અગના પરમાણપતર આપવા માટ ૬ માપદાડો ધયાન લવાય છ. પરમાણપતરની અવવધ હવ તરણ વરગની છ. પરાત ઉકત માપદાડો પકી કોઇપણ માપદાડમાા આ અવવધ દરમયાન ફરફાર થાય તો તની સવવછક જાહરાત સાબાવધત ઉમદવાર તથા તના માતા-વપતા/વાલીએ સવયા સાબાવધત સતતાવધકારી તમજ તના દવારા પરમાણપતરમાા કોઇ ફરફાર કરવામાા આવ તો ગજરાત જાહર સવા આયોગન કરવાની રહશ. ઉમદવાર/માતા-વપતા/વાલી આવી જાહરાત નદહિ કરીન કોઇપણ વવગતો છપાવશ તો તઓ કાયદસરની કાયગવાહીન પાતર બનશ અન તઓએ મળવલ અનામતનો લાભ રદદ કરવાપાતર થશ. ઉનનત વગગમાા સમાવશ નહી થવા અગના પરમાણપતર મળવવા માટના કોઇપણ માપદાડમાા ફરફારની સવવછક જાહરાત કરવાની જવાબદારી ઉમદવાર/માતા-વપતા/વાલીની વયકકતગત રીત અન સાયકત રીત રહશ.

(૭) સરકારની પરવતગમાન જોગવાઈ મજબ અનામત કકષાના ઉમદવારો ચબનઅનામત વગગના ઉમદવારોની સાથ વનયત ધોરણો (અથાગત વયમયાગદા, અનભવની લાયકાત, ચબનઅનામત વગગના ઉમદવારો માટ અપનાવલ હોય તના કરતાા વધ વવસતત કરલ અનય કષતર) માા છટછાટ લીધા વસવાય પોતાની ગણવતતાના આધાર પસાદગી પામ તો ચબનઅનામત જગયાની સામ ગણતરીમાા લવાના થાય છ. (૮) ઉમદવાર અરજીમાા જાવત અગ જ વવગત દશાગવલ હશ તમાા પાછળથી ફરફાર કરવાની વવનાતી માનય રાખવામાા આવશ નહી. (૯) આવથિક રીત નબળા વગગના ઉમદવારોએ સામાજજક નયાય અન અવધકારીતા વવભાગના તા.૨૫-૦૧-૨૦૧૯ના ઠરાવ કરમાાક: ઇ.ડબલય.એસ/૧૨૨૦૧૯/૪૫૯૦૩/અ થી વનયત થયલ નમના અિજીમાા “Annexure-KH” અથવા ગજરાતીમાા “પદરવશષટ-ગ” મજબન પરમાણપતર રજ કરવાન રહશ.

૮. માજી સવનક (૧) માજી સવનક ઉમદવારોએ અરજીપતરકમાા વવગતો આપવાની રહશ. (૨) માજી સવનક ઉમદવાર દડસચારજ બકની નકલ અરજીપતરક સાથ અચક મોકલવાની રહશ.

૯. શારીદરક અશકતતા ધરાવતા ઉમદવારો (ક) શારીદરક અશકતતા ધરાવતા ઉમદવારોએ અરજીપતરકમાા વવગતો આપવાની રહશ. (ખ) શારીદરક અશકતતા ૪૦% ક તથી વધ હોય તવા ઉમદવારન જ શારીદરક અશકતતાનો લાભ મળવાપાતર રહશ. શારીદરક અશકતતાનો લાભ મળવવા ઇચછતા ઉમદવાર (૧) શરવણનીખામી (૨) હલનચલન અશકતતા અથવા મગજનો લકવો ત પકીની કઇ શારીદરક અશકતતા છ ત દશાગવવા. (ગ) જાહરાતમાા શારીદરક અશકતતા ધરાવતા ઉમદવારો માટ અનામત જગયા દશાગવલ ન હોય, પરાત જગયાની ફરજોન અનરપ જ પરકારની શારીદરક અશકતતા ધરાવતા ઉમદવારોન પાતર ગણલ હોય તઓ ત જાહરાત માટ અરજી કરી શકશ. (ઘ) શારીદરક અશકતતા ધરાવતા ઉમદવાર તના સમથગનમાા સામાનય વહીવટ વવભાગના તા.૧-૧૨-૨૦૦૮ના પદરપતર કરમાાક-૧૦૨૦૦૮-૪૬૯૫૪૦-ગ-૨, થી વનયત થયલ નમનામાા સરકારી હોકસપટલના સવપરટનડનટ/વસવવલ સરજન/મડીકલ બોડગ દવારા આપવામાા આવલ પરમાણપતરની નકલ અરજી સાથ અચક મોકલવાની રહશ. જો પરમાણપતરની નકલ સામલ કરવામાા નહી આવલ હોય તો ત પાછળથી સવીકારવામાા આવશ નહી શારીદરક અશકત ઉમદવાર તરીકનો લાભ મળવાપાતર થશ નહી. (ચ) શારીદરક અશકત ઉમદવારોના દકસસામાા અરજી કયાગની તારીખ બાદ ભરતી પરદકરયાના કોઇ પણ તબકક જ કોઇ ઉમદવાર “Physical Disabled” (શારીદરક અશકત) બન અન ત અગ જરરી દસતાવજો/પરાવાઓ રજ કર તો તવા ઉમદવારની રજઆત મળયા તારીખ પછીના ભરતી પરદકરયાના જ પણ તબકકા બાકી હોય ત તબકકાથી જ તવા ઉમદવારન “PD” (શારીદરક અશકત) ઉમદવાર તરીકના મળવાપાતર તમામ લાભ/છટછાટ મળવાપાતર થશ. આવા લાભો ક છટછાટ ભરતી પરદકરયાના પણગ થયલ તબકકા માટ પશવાદવતી અસરથી આપી શકાશ નદહ.

૧૦. મદહલા ઉમદવાર મદહલાઓની અનામત જગગયાઓ માટ જો યોગય મદહલા ઉમદવાર ઉપલબધ નહી થાય તો તની જગયા જ ત કકષાના (category) પરર ઉમદવારોન ફાળવી શકાશ. જો ઉમદવારનો સમાવશ અનામત વગગ, માજી સવનક, શારીદરક અશકતતા, મદહલા ક વવધવા પકીના વવકલપો પકી એક થી વધ વવકલપોમાા થતો હોય તવા દકસસામાા તન લાગ પડતા વવકલપો પકી જમાા વધ લાભ મળવાપાતર હશ ત મળશ.

૧૧. વવધવા ઉમદવાર (૧) ઉમદવાર વવધવા હોય તો અરજીપતરકમાા ત કોલમ સામ “હા” અવશય લખવા અનયથા “લાગ પડત ા નથી” એમ દશાગવવા.

(૨) વવધવા ઉમદવાર જો પન:લગન કરલ હોય તો અરજી પતરકમાા ત કોલમ સામ “હા” અચક લખવા અનયથા “લાગ પડત ા નથી” એમ દશાગવવા. (૩) વવધવા ઉમદવાર પન:લગન કરલ ન હોય અન વવધવા ઉમદવાર તરીક લાભ મળવવા ઇચછતા હોય તો અરજી સાથ પન:લગન કરલ નથી તવી એદફડવવટ રજ કરવાની રહશ. (૪) વવધવા ઉમદવારન સરકારની પરવતગમાન જોગવાઈ મજબ તઓએ મળવલ ગણમાા પાાચ ટકા ગણ ઉમરવામાા આવશ. (પ) કોઇ મદહલા ઉમદવાર જાહરાત માટ અરજી કર ત સમય ‘’વવધવા‘’ ન હોય, પરાત અરજી કયાગ બાદ અથવા જાહરાત પરવસધધ થયાની છલલી તારીખ વીતી ગયા બાદ અથવા ભરતી પરદકરયાના કોઇપણ તબકક “વવધવા” બન અન ત અગ જરરી દસતાવજી પરાવાઓ રજ કર તો તની રજઆત મળયા તારીખ પછીના ભરતી પરદકરયાના જ પણ તબકકા બાકી હોય ત તબકકાથી જ તવા મદહલા ઉમદવારોન ‘’વવધવા મદહલા ઉમદવાર‘’ તરીકના લાભ આપવામાા આવશ.

૧૨. ના વાાધા પરમાણપતર:- (૧) ગજરાત સરકારના સરકારી/અધગસરકારી/સરકાર હસતકના કોપોરશન/કાપનીઓમાા સવા બજાવતા અવધકારીઓ/કમગચારીઓ આયોગની જાહરાતના સાદભગમાા બારોબાર અરજી કરી શકશ અન તની જાણ ઉમદવાર પોતાના વવભાગ/ખાતા/કચરીન અરજી કયાગની તારીખથી દદન-૭ માા અચક કરવાની રહશ. જો ઉમદવારના વનયોકતા તરફથી અરજી મોકલવાની છલલી તારીખ બાદ ૩૦ દદવસમાા અરજી કરવાની પરવાનગી નહી આપવાની જાણ કરવામાા આવશ તો તઓની અરજી નામાજર કરી ઉમદવારી રદ કરવામાા આવશ. (૨) કનદર સરકારની અથવા અનય કોઇપણ રાજય સરકારની નોકરીમાા હોય તવા ઉમદવાર ખાતા મારફત અરજી મોકલવાની રહશ અથવા આ અરજી સાથ વનમણક અવધકારીના ના વાાધા પરમાણપતર રજ કરવાના રહશ. (૩) રબર મલાકાત સમય ઉમદવાર સકષમ અવધકારી દવારા આપવામાા આવલ ના વાાધા પરમાણપતર રજ કરવાના રહશ.

૧૩. ગરલાયક ઉમદવાર:- ગજરાત જાહર સવા આયોગ ક અનય જાહર સવા આયોગ અથવા અનય સરકારી/અધગ સરકારી/સરકાર હસતકની સાસથાઓ દવારા ઉમદવાર કયારય પણ ગરલાયક ઠરાવલ હોય તો તની વવગત અરજીપતરકમાા આપવાની રહશ. જો ઉમદવારનો ગરલાયકનો સમય ચાલ હશ તો આવા ઉમદવારની અરજી રદ થવાન પાતર બનશ. ૧૪. ફરજજયાત વનવવતત, રખસદ, બરતરફ :- અગાઉ ઉમદવારન સરકારી સવા/સરકાર હસતકની કાપની ક બોડગ કોપોરશનમાાથી કયારય પણ ફરજજયાત વનવવતત, રખસદ ક બરતરફ કરવામાા આવલ હોય તો અરજીપતરકમાા તની વવગત આપવાની રહશ.

૧૫. અગતયની જોગવાઇઓ:- (૧) આ જગયાની વનમણક માટ સીધી ભરતીથી પસાદગીની પદકરયા અનસરવાની થાય છ. જ માટ The

Gujarat Public Service Commission Procedure (Amendment) Rules 2016, તથા The Gujarat

Public Service Commission Procedure (Amendment) Rules 2017 અનસાર ઉમદવારોની પસાદગી પરાથવમક કસોટી અન રબર મલાકાત યોજીન કરવામાા આવશ. પરાથવમક કસોટીના ગણકરમાનસાર જરરી અરજીઓની ચકાસણી કરી ઉમદવારોની રબર મલાકાત માટની પાતરતા નકકી કરાશ. આ કસોટીના માધયમ આયોગ અનયથા નકકી કરશ નહી તો ગજરાતી રહશ. પરાથવમક કસોટી સામાનયત: અમદાવાદ/ગાાધીનગર ખાત લવામાા આવશ, અન ઉમદવારોએ સવખચ ઉપકસથત રહવાના રહશ. (૨) પરાથવમક કસોટીમાા મળવલ ગણ આખરી પસાદગી માટ ગણવામાા આવશ. રબર મલાકાત માટ બોલાવવાના થતા ઉમદવારોમાા, જો કોઇ ઉમદવારોના પરાથવમક કસોટીમાા ૧૦% ક તથી ઓછા ગણ હશ તો તમન રબર મલાકાત માટ પાતરતા નકકી કરવા અરજી ચકાસણીન પાતર ઉમદવારોની યાદી માટ વવચારણામાા લવામાા આવશ નહી. (૩) પરાથવમક કસોટીમાા સામાનય અભયાસના ૧૦૦ ગણમાટ ૧૦૦ પરશનો રહશ અન સબાવધત વવરયના ૨૦૦ ગણ માટ ૨૦૦ પરશનો રહશ. (૪) ઉમદવારોની આખરી પસાદગી ૫૦ ટકા ગણભાર પરાથવમક કસોટીના ૩૦૦ ગણમાાથી મળવલ ગણ અન ૫૦ ટકા ગણભાર રબર મલાકાતના ૧૦૦ ગણમાાથી મળવલ ગણના આધાર કરવામાા આવશ. એટલ ક પરાથવમક કસોટીમાા ૩૦૦ ગણમાાથી મળવલ ગણન ૫૦ ટકા ગણભાર અન રબર મલાકાતમાા ૧૦૦ ગણમાાથી મળવલ ગણન ૫૦ ટકા ગણભાર ગણી કલ ૧૦૦ ગણમાાથી ગણ આપવામાા આવશ. સપષટીકરણ:- જો ઉમદવાર પરાથવમક કસોટીમાા ૩૦૦ ગણમાાથી ૧૫૦ ગણ મળવલ હશ અન રબર મલાકાતમાા ૧૦૦ ગણમાાથી ૬૦ ગણ મળવશ તો લચખત પરાથવમક કસોટીના ૫૦ ટકા ગણભાર મજબ ૨૫ ગણ અન રબર મલાકાતના ૫૦ ટકા ગણભાર મજબ ૩૦ ગણ એમ કલ ૫૫ ગણ થશ. (૫) પરાથવમક કસોટીમાા ઉમદવારન O.M.R. Sheet માા જવાબ આપવા માટ A, B, C, D અન E એમ પાાચ વવકલપ આપવામાા આવશ, પાાચમો વવકલપ E ‘Not attended’ તરીકનો રહશ. જો ઉમદવાર તમામ વવકલપો ખાલી રાખયા હોય (encode કયાગ ન હોય) અથવા ખોટા જવાબ આપલ હોય તો પરતયક વનવશરત ગણના ૦.૩ Negative Marks કાપવામાા આવશ. અન જો પાાચમો વવકલપ E ‘Not attended’ એનકોડ કરલ હોય તો “શનય” ગણ કાપવાના રહશ. અથાગત માતર E ‘Not attended’ વવકલપ જ encode કયો હશ તો ત પરશન માટ કોઇ નગટીવ ગણ કાપવામાા આવશ નહી. (૬) રબર મલાકાતમાા આયોગની સચનાઓ /ધોરણો મજબ જાહરાતમાા દશાગવલ કટગરીવાઈઝ જગયાની સાખયાન ધયાન લઈ નીચ મજબ અનસરવાના રહશ.

કલ જગયાઓ કલ જગયાઓ પકી રબર મલાકાત માટ બોલાવવામાા આવનાર ઉમદવારોની સાખયા

૦૧ ૦૬ ૦૨ ૦૮ ૦૩ ૧૦ ૦૪ ક તથી વધ કલ જગયાઓથી ૦૩ ગણા (૭) પરાથવમક કસોટીમાા મળવલ ગણ આખરી પસાદગી માટ ગણવામાા આવશ. તમજ ઉપયગકત કોલમમાા દશાગવલ સાખયા પરમાણ રબર મલાકાત માટ બોલાવવાના થતા ઉમદવારોમાા, જો કોઇ ઉમદવારના પરાથવમક કસોટીના ૧૦ ટકા ક તથી ઓછા ગણ હશ તો રબર મલાકાતન પાતર ગણવામાા આવશ નહી. (૮) જાહરાતમાા ઠરાવલ લઘતમ લાયકાત તમજ અનભવ કરતાા વધ શકષચણક લાયકાત અન/અથવા વધ અનભવ અન/અથવા લાયકાતમાા ઊચી ટકાવારીન આધાર રબર મલાકાત માટ આયોગ ઉમદવારોની સાખયા મયાગદદત કરી શકશ. (૯) સીધી ભરતી માટ ઇનટરવય કવમટી દવારા રબર મલાકાતમાા ઉમદવારના એકાદર દખાવ (Overall Performance) ન ધયાન લવામાા આવશ અન ઇનટરવય કવમટી ઇનટરવય દરમયાન ઉમદવારના Overall Performance ન ધયાનમાા રાખી ચચાગ વવચારણા કયાગ બાદ સવાગનમત ગણ આપશ. (૧૦) પરાથવમક કસોટી અન રબર મલાકાતમાા મળવલ ગણના આધાર આખરી પસાદગી યાદી અન પરવતકષા યાદી તયાર કરવામાા આવશ. જાહરાતમાા જો મદહલાઓ, માજી સવનકો તથા શારીદરક રીત અશકત ઉમદવારો માટ અનામત જગાઓ હોય, અન મળવલ ગણના આધાર, જો જાહરાતમાા દશાગવલ અનામત જગાની સાખયા સામ પરતી સાખયામાા મદહલા/માજી સવનક/શારીદરક રીત અશકત ઉમદવારોનો પસાદગી યાદીમાા સમાવશ ન થતો હોય તો, સબાવધત કટગરીના કટ ઓફ માકગસ ના ૧૦% જટલા ધોરણ હળવા કરીન કલ અનામત જગાઓ પકી બાકી રહતી અનામત જગાઓ સામ મદહલા/માજી સવનક/શારીદરક રીત અશકત ઉમદવારોનો પસાદગી યાદીમાા સમાવશ કરવાનો રહશ. (૧૧) મદહલા ઉમદવારો માટ લઘતમ ગણના ૧૦ ટકાના ધોરણ હળવ કરીન પસાદગી પદધવત અનસરવાની રહશ અન રબર મલાકાત બાદ જ ત કટગરીના મદહલા ઉમદવારો માટની અનામત સાખયા જટલા મદહલા ઉમદવારોથી વધ ઉમદવારો ઉપલબધ થાય તો ભલામણ યાદીમાા મદહલા ઉમદવારોનો સમાવશ થયા બાદ બાકીના મદહલા ઉમદવારોની પરવતકષાયાદીમાા પસાદગી ગણવામાા આવશ આ જોગવાઇ મજબ લઘતમ લાયકી ધોરણ આ મજબ રહશ ૧૬. રબર મલાકાત:- (૧) રબર મલાકાત આયોગની કચરી ખાત જ લવામાા આવશ.પરાથવમક કસોટીના પદરણામના આધાર રબર મલાકાત માટ પાતર થતા ઉમદવાર રબર મલાકાત માટ પોતાના ખચ અન ફરજજયાતપણ ઉપકસથત થવાના રહશ. તમજ જ ભરતી પરસાગો અનવય શારીદરક કષમતા કસોટી અન /અથવા શારીદરક માપદાડ

ચકાસણીની જોગવાઇ છ, તવા તમામ તબકક ઉમદવાર ફરજજયાતપણ ઉપકસથત રહવાના રહશ. ઓ ઉમદવાર ભરતી પરદકરયાના કોઇ પણ તબકક ગરહાજર રહશી તો તમની ઉમદવારી રદ કરવામાા આવશ.” (૨) આવથિક રીત નબળા વગગ, અનસચચત જાવત, અનસચચત જનજાવત તથા સા.શ.પ.વગગના તથા બરોજગાર ઉમદવારો ક જઓના માતા-વપતાની વાવરિક આવક આવકવરાન પાતર ન હોય તઓન તમના રહઠાણના સથળથી રબર મલાકાત માટ આવવા તથા જવા માટ ગજરાત એસ.ટી. વનગમ દવારા વનયત થયલ દટદકટના દર પરમાણ બસ ભાડા મળવાપાતર થશ. આ માટ ઉમદવાર રબર મલાકાતના દદવસ વનયત ફોમગ ભરવાન રહશ અન તની સાથ અસલ દટદકટ રજ કરવાની રહશ. (૩) રબર મલાકાતના દદવસ રબર મલાકાતના પતરમાા દશાગવવામાા આવલ અસલ પરમાણપતરો રજ કરવાના રહશ. જો ઉમદવાર અસલ પરમાણપતર રજ કરશ નહી તો તઓ રબર મલાકાત માટ પાતર બનશ નહી તની ખાસ નોધ લવી. ૧૭. નીચ દશાગવયા મજબની અરજીઓ રદ કરવામાા આવશ. (આ યાદી માતર દષટાાત સવરપ છ જ સાપણગ નથી) (૧) આયોગના ઓનલાઇન મસદદા મજબ અરજી કરલ ન હોય (૨) અરજીમાા દશાગવલ વવગતો અધરી ક અસાગત હોય. (૩) અરજીમાા ઉમદવાર સહી અપલોડ કરલ ન હોય. (૪) અરજી ફકસથી અથવા ઈ-મઇલથી મોકલાવલ હોય. (૫) અરજીમાા પાસપોટગ સાઈઝનો ફોટોિાફ અપલોડ કરલ ન હોય. (૬) અરજી સાથ પરપરી ફી ભરલ ન હોય. (૭) આવથિક રીત નબળા વગગ, અનસચચત જાવત, અનસચચત જનજાવત, સા.શ.પ.વગગ તથા શારીદરક અશકતતા ધરાવતા ઉમદવાર અરજીપતરક સાથ સકષમ અવધકારી દવારા અપાયલ પરમાણપતરની નકલ રજ કરલ ન હોય. (૮) માજી સવનક ઉમદવાર દડસચારજ બકની નકલ રજ કરલ ન હોય (૯) ઉમદવાર શકષચણક લાયકાતના સાદભગમાા માકગશીટ/પદવી પરમાણપતરની નકલ રજ કરલ નહોય. (૧૦) જનમ તારીખ માટ એસ.એસ.સી.ઇ.પરમાણપતરની નકલ રજ કરલ ન હોય. (૧૧) ઉમદવાર અરજીપતરકમાા અનભવ દશાગવલ હોય (જના આધાર પાતરતા નકકી કરવાની થતી હોય) પરાત તના સમથગનમાા પરમાણપતર રજ કરલ ન હોય અથવા તો રજ કરલ પરમાણપતરમાા તઓનો અનભવનો સમયગાળો, મળપગાર, કલપગાર અન અનભવનો પરકાર દશાગવલ ન હોય તથા સાસથાના લટરપડ ઉપર ન હોય. (૧૨) ઓનલાઈન જાહરાતની અરજી કરવાની રીત કરમાાક:૧૫ નીચ સચવલ (ઉમદવારોન સબાવધત)

પરમાણપતરો અન જના આધાર પાતરતા નકકી કરવાની થતી હોય તવા લાગ પડતા આધાર પરાવાની પરમાચણત કરલ નકલો આયોગન મોકલવામા આવલ અરજીપતરક સાથ જોડલ નહી હોય તવા ઉમદવારોની અરજી અધરી ગણીન રદ ગણવામા આવશ.

૧૮. વનમણક:- (૧) ઉપરની જાહરાત સાબાધમાા વનમણક માટ પસાદ થયલા ઉમદવારની સરકારશરીના સાબાવધત વવભાગન આયોગ દવારા ભલામણ કરવામાા આવશ. ઉમદવારોએ આખરી વનમણક પતર મળવતાા પહલાા કોમપયટર અગની સીસીસી અથવા તની સમકકષ રાજય સરકાર વખતો વખત નકકી કર તવી લાયકાત મળવી લવાની રહશ. આ પરકારની લાયકાત નહી ધરાવનાર ઉમદવાર વનમણકન પાતર બનશ નહી. (૨) વનમણક અગની સઘળી કાયગવાહી સરકારશરી દવારા કરવામાા આવતી હોવાથી આ અગનો કોઇપણ પતરવયવહાર આયોગ ધયાન લશ નહી. (૩) ઉમદવાર તની શકષચણક લાયકાત/અનભવ/ઉમર વગરના સમથગનમાા રજ કરલ પરમાણપતરો કોઇપણ તબકક અયોગય માલમ પડશ તો તની ઉમદવારી રદ થશ તમજ ભલામણ બાદની વનમણક પણ રદ થવાન પાતર રહશ અન આવા ઉમદવાર ભારતીય ફોજદારી ધારા હઠળની કાયગવાહીન પાતર થશ, જથી ઉમદવારન સલાહ આપવામાા આવ છ ક, તમણ રજ કરલા પરમાણપતરો ખબ જ ચોકસાઈથી પણગ રીત ખરાઈ કયાગ બાદ જ આયોગમાા રજ કરવા. ૧૯. ગરવતગણ ાક અગ દોવરત ઠરલા ઉમદવારો વવરધધ પગલાા ઉમદવારોન આથી ચતવણી આપવામાા આવ છ ક તઓ એ અરજીપતરકમાા કોઇપણ પરકારની ખોટી માદહતી દશાગવવી નહી, તમજ આવશયક માદહતી છપાવવી નહી, ઉપરાાત તઓએ રજ કરલ અસલ દસતાવજો ક તની પરમાચણત નકલમાા કોઇપણ સાજોગોમાા સધારો અથવા ફરફાર અથવા બીજા કોઇપણ ચડાા કરવા નહી અથવા તઓએ આવા ચડાા કરલ/બનાવટી દસતાવજો રજ કરવા નહી, જો એક જ બાબતના બ ક તથી વધ દસતાવજોમાા અથવા તની પરમાચણત નકલમાા કોઇપણ પરકારની અચોકસાઇ અથવા વવસાગતતા જણાય તો ત વવસાગતતાઓ બાબતની સપષટતા રજ કરવી.જો કોઇ ઉમદવાર આયોગ દવારા દોવરત જાહર થયલ હોય અથવા થાય તો, (૧) તઓની ઉમદવારી અગ કોઇપણ રીત યોગયતા પરાપત કરવા, (ર) નામ બદલીન પરીકષા આપવી, (૩) કોઇ અનય વયકકત દવારા છળકપટથી કામ પણગ કરાવય હોય, (૪) બનાવટી દસતાવજ રજ કયાગ હોય, (પ) અગતયની બાબત છપાવવા અથવા દોરમકત અથવા ખોટા વનવદનો કરલ હોય, (૬) તઓની ઉમદવારી અગ કોઇપણ અવનયવમત ક અનચચત ઉપાયોનો સહારો લીધો હોય, (૭) કસોટી સમય કોઇ અનચચત સાધનોનો ઉપયોગ કયો હોય, (૮) ઉતતરવહીમાા અશલીલ ભારા ક અવશષટ બાબતો સદહતની અસાગત બાબતો રજ કરલ હોય, (૯) પરીકષા ખાડમાા કોઇપણ રીતની ગરવતગણક આચરવી, જવી ક અનય ઉમદવારની જવાબવહીની નકલ કરવી, પસતક, ગાઇડ, કાપલી તવા કોઇપણ છાપલ ક હસતચલચખત સાદહતયની મદદથી અથવા વાતચચત દવારા ક કોઇ સાાકવતક રીત નકલ કરવા ક અનય ઉમદવારોન નકલ કરાવવાની ગરરીતીઓ પકી કોઇપણ ગરરીતી આચરવા માટ,

(૧૦) આયોગ દવારા પરીકષાની કામગીરી અગ વનયકત થયલા કમગચારીઓન પજવણી કરવી, કોઇપણ પરકારની શારીદરક ઇજા પહોચાડવી, અથવા (૧૧) ઉપરોકત જોગવાઇઓમાા ઉલલખાયલ દરક અથવા કોઇપણ કતય કરવા ક કરાવવા તણ ક સીધી અથવા આડકતરી રીત આયોગ પરદબાણ લાવનાર ઉમદવાર નીચ દશાગવલ વશકષા ઉપરાાત આપો આપ પરયતન કયો હોય, ફોજદારી કાયગવાહીન પાતર બનશ.

(ક) આયોગ દવારા ત પસાદગીના ઉમદવાર તરીક ગરલાયક ઠરાવી શકાશ, અન/અથવા (ખ) તન આયોગ લ તવી કોઇપણ પરીકષા ક કોઇપણ રબર મલાકાત માટ કાયમી ક મકરર મદત માટ

(૧) આયોગ દવારા લવાનાર કોઇપણ પરીકષા ક પસાદગી માટ, અન (ર) રાજય સરકાર હઠળની કોઇપણ નોકરીમાાથી સરકાર દવારા ગરલાયક ઠરાવી શકાશ અન

(ગ) જો સરકારી સવામાા અગાઉથી જ હોય તો તના વવરધધ સમચચત વનયમો અનસાર વશસતભાગના પગલાા લઇ શકાશ.

(૧ર) ઉપરોકત વવગતોમાા વનદદિષટ કરલ વશકષા કરતા પહલા આયોગ/સરકાર દવારા ઉમદવારન/કમગચારીન (૧) આરોપનામામાા તમની સામના સપષટ આરોપો અથવા કસના પરકાર બાબત, (ર) લખીતમાા વશકષા અગ બચાવનામા હકીકત રજ કરવા અન (૩) વશકષા અગ વનયત સમય મયાગદામાા રબર રજઆત કરવાની તક આપવામાા આવશ.

(આશા શાહ) સાયકત સચચવ

ગજરાત જાહર સવા આયોગ

Online અરજી કરવાની તથા અરજી ફી ભરવાની રીત

આ જાહરાતના સાદભગમાા આયોગ દવારા ઓનલાઈન જ અરજી સવીકારવામાા આવશ. ઉમદવાર તા. ૧૮/૦૩/૨૦૧૯,૧૩.૦૦ કલાક થી તા.૧૮/૦૪/૨૦૧૯,૧૩.૦૦ કલાક સધીમાા https://gpsc-

ojas.gujarat.gov.in પર અરજીપતરક ભરી શકશ. ઉમદવાર અરજી કરવા માટ નીચ મજબના Steps (૧) થી (૧૬) અનસરવાના રહશ. Confirmation Number મળયા પછી જ અરજી માનય ગણાશ. (૧) સૌ પરથમ http://gpsc-ojas.gujarat.gov.in પર જવા. (૨) Apply Online Click કરવા. આ પરમાણ click કરવાથી (1) More Details તથા (2) Apply Now બટન દખાશ. સૌપરથમ More Details પર Click કરીન જાહરાતની બધી જ વવગતોનો અભયાસ ઉમદવારોએ કરવો અન તયારબાદ Apply Now બટન કકલક કરવા. (૩) મદદનીશ ઇજનર(સીવીલ) વગગ-૨ ઉપર click કરવાથી જગયાની વવગતો મળશ. (૪) તની નીચ Apply Now પર Click કરવાથી Application Format દખાશ. Application Format માા સૌ પરથમ “Personal Details” ઉમદવાર ભરવી. (અહી લાલ ફદરડી (*) વનશાની હોય તની વવગતો ફરજજયાત ભરવાની રહશ.) “Personal Details”માા જયાા Mobile Number અન email ID માાગયા છ, તની વવગત લખવી જથી જરર જણાય આયોગ ઉમદવારન માદહતગાર કરી શક. (૫) Personal Details ભરાયા બાદ Educational Details ભરવા માટ Educational Details પર click

કરવા અન પોતાની શકષચણક વવગતો ભરવી. (૬) Additional Qualification પર “click” કરી Additional Qualification ભરવી. (૭) Experience Details પર “click” કરવા અન Experience Details ભરવી. વધ Experience ઉમરવા માગતા હોવ તો Add. More Exp. પર “click” કરી Details ભરવી. (૮) Additional Information પર “click” કરી તયાા માદહતી ભરવી. જ વધારાનો અનભવ ojas moduleમાા સમાવવષટ ન થતો હોય, તો સાદા કાગળ પર ojas માા જણાવયા મજબના અનભવના કોઠા પરમાણ આપ વધારાના અનભવની વવગત ઉમરીન મોકલવી. (૯) તની નીચ “Self-declaration” માા Yes/No પર click કરવા. (૧૦) હવ save પર “click” કરવાથી તમારો Data Save થશ. અહી ઉમદવારનો Application Number

generate થશ. જ ઉમદવાર સાચવીન રાખવાનો રહશ અન હવ પછી આ જાહરાતના સાદભગમાા આયોગ સાથના કોઈપણ પતરવયવહારમાા ત દશાગવવાનો રહશ. (૧૧) જો આપના અરજીપતરકમાા કોઇ સધારા-વધારા કરવાના હોય તો Edit Applicationમાા જઇન કરી શકાશ, આ સવવધા અરજી Confirm કરતાા પહલા ઉપલબધ છ. એક વખત અરજી Confirm થઇ ગયા પછી/બાદ આ સવવધા ઉપલબધ રહશ નહી. (૧૨) હવ પજના ઉપરના ભાગમાા upload photo પર click કરો અહી તમારો application number type

કરો અન તમારી Birth date type કરો. તયારબાદ ok પર click કરો. અહી photo અન signature upload કરવાના છ. (ફોટાના માપ ૫ સ.મી. ઊચાઇ અન ૩.૬ સ.મી પહોળાઈ અન signatureના માપ ૨.૫ સ.મી. ઊચાઇ અન ૭.૫ સ.મી પહોળાઈ રાખવી) (photo અન signature upload કરવા. સૌપરથમ તમારો photo



અન signature.jpg Formatમાા (10KB) સાઇઝથી વધાર નહી ત રીત Computerમાા હોવા જોઇએ.) “Browse” Button પર click કરો હવ Choose Fileના સકરીનમાાથી જ ફાઇલમાા .jpg Formatમાા તમારો photo store થયલ છ ત ફાઇલન તયાાથી Select કરો અન “Open” Buttonન click કરો. હવ “Browse”

Buttonની બાજમાા “Upload“ Button પર Click કરો હવ બાજમાા તમારો photo દખાશ. હવ આજ રીત signature પણ upload કરવાની રહશ. (૧૩) હવ પજના ઉપરના ભાગમાા “Confirm Application” પર click કરો અન “Application number” તથા Birth Date Type કયાગ બાદ Ok પર click કરવાથી બ(૨) બટન-૧:Application preview ૨:confirm application દખાશ. ઉમદવાર “Application preview” પર click કરી પોતાની અરજી જોઈ લવી. અરજીમાા સધારો કરવાનો જણાય, તો Edit Application ઉપર click કરીન સધારો કરી લવો. અરજી confirm કયાગ પહલા કોઇપણ પરકારનો સધારો અરજીમાા કરી શકાશ. પરાત અરજી confirm થઇ ગયા બાદ અરજીમાા કોઇપણ સધારો થઇ શકશ નહી. જો અરજી સધારવાની જરર ન જણાય તો જ confirm application પર click કરવા. Confirm application પર click કરવાથી ઉમદવારની અરજીનો આયોગમાા online સવીકાર થઈ જશ. અહી “confirmation number” generate થશ જ હવ પછીની બધી જ કાયગવાહી માટ જરરી હોઈ, ઉમદવાર સાચવવાનો રહશ. Confirmation number વસવાય કોઇપણ પતરવયવહાર કરી શકાશ નહી. Confirm થયલ અરજીપતરકની વપરનટ અચક કાઢી રાખવી. (૧૪) સામાનય કટગરીના ઉમદવાર ભરવાની અરજી ફી નીચના બ વવકલપ પકી કોઇપણથી ભરી શક છ.

૧. પોસટ ઓદફસમાા:- સામાનય કટગરીના ઉમદવાર ભરવાની થતી ફી સાદભ “Print Challan” ઉપર કલીક કરીન વપરનટડ ચલણની નકલ કાઢવાની રહશ. આ વપરનટડ ચલણની નકલ લઇન નજીકની કોમપયટરની સવવધા ધરાવતી પોસટ ઓદફસમાા ર. ૧૦૦/- આયોગની ફી + પૉસટલ સવવિસ ચારજ તાઃ૧૮/૦૪/૨૦૧૯,૧૩:00 કલાક સધીમાા ભરવાની રહશ અન ફી ભયાગ અગના ચલણ મળવવાના રહશ. ૨. ઓનલાઇન ફી:- જમા કરાવવા માટ “Print Challan” ઉપર કલીક કરવા. અન વવગતો ભરવી અન તયાા “Online Payment of fee” ઉપર કલીક કરવા. તયારબાદ આપલ વવકલપોમાા “Net

Banking of fee” અથવા “Other Payment Mode”ના વવકલપોમાાથી યોગય વવકલપ પસાદ કરવો અન આગળની વવગતો ભરવી. ફી જમા થયા બાદ આપન આપની ફી જમા થઇ ગઇ છ તવા Screen પર લખાયલા આવશ અન e-receipt મળશ જની Print કાઢી લવી. જો પરદકરયામાા કોઇ ખામી હશ તો Screen પર આપની ફી ભરાયલ નથી તમ જોવા મળશ.

આ ચલણ/e-receipt તથા confirm થયલ અરજીપતરક ઉમદવાર પોતાની પાસ સાચવીન રાખવાના રહશ અન આયોગ દવારા માગાવવામાા આવ, તયાર જ અરજીપતરક બીડાણો સદહત તથા ફી ભરલા ચલણની નકલ સાથ આર.પી.એ.ડી./સપીડ પોસટથી મોકલવાના રહશ અથવા આયોગની કચરીમાા રબરમાા આપી જવાના રહશ.

(૧૫) ઉમદવારોએ confirm થયલ અરજીપતરક પોતાની પાસ સાચવીન રાખવાના રહશ અન જયાર આયોગ દવારા માગાવવામાા આવ, તયાર જ અરજીપતરક બીડાણો સદહત આર.પી.એ.ડી./સપીડ પોસટથી મોકલવાના રહશ અથવા આયોગની કચરીમાા રબરમાા આપી જવાના રહશ.

અરજીપતરક અન જરરી પરમાણપતરો મોકલવા અગની તકદારી :-

ઓનલાઇન જાહરાત માટ confirm થયલ અરજીપતરક તથા નીચ સચવલ સાબાવધત પરમાણપતરો અન લાગ પડતા આધાર પરાવાની પરમાચણત કરલ નકલો કરમાનસાર અચક જોડીન જાહરાતમાા દશાગવલ વવગત મજબ સાપણગ અરજીપતરક આયોગ દવારા માગાવવામાા આવ, તયાર જ અરજીપતરક બીડાણો સદહત વનધાગરીત તારીખની સમય મયાગદામાા આયોગમાા ગાાધીનગર ખાત જમા કરાવવાના રહશ. (૧) ઉમદવાર ઓનલાઇન કનફમગ થયલ અરજીપતરક (બારકોડ વાળા)ની સપષટ અન સવચછ નકલ ડાઉનલોડ કરવાની રહશ. જમાા ફોટોિાફ, સહી સદહત વવગતો વાચાય તવી હોવી જોઇએ. ફોટોિાફ સપષટ ના હોય તો પાસપોટગ સાઇજનો ફોટોિાફ અરજીપતરક પર લગાવવાનો રહશ. સહી સપષટ ના હોય તો ફરીથી અરજીપતરકમાા સહી કરવાની રહશ. (૨) જનમ તારીખના પરાવા માટ એસ.એસ.સી.ઇ.ના પરમાણપતર (જનમ તારીખનો દાખલો ક શાળા છોડયાના પરમાણપતર માનય ગણાશ નહી) (૩) જાવતના પરમાણપતર (અન. જાવત, અન. જનજાવત અન સા.અન શ.પ.વગગના ઉમદવારો માટ) (૪) સામાજીક અન શકષચણક પછાત પછાત વગગના ઉમદવારોએ (જાહરાતમાા દશાગવયા મજબ વનયત સમયગાળાના ગજરાતી નમના મજબના પદરવશષટ-ક અરજીપતરકમાા દશાગવલ નાબર અન તારીખના જ) રજ કરવાના રહશ. પદરચણત મદહલા ઉમદવારોએ આવા પરમાણપતર તઓની માતા-વપતાના આવકના સાદભગમાા રજ ા કરવાના રહશ. જો આવા ઉમદવારોએ તમના પવતની આવકના સાદભગમાા રજ ા કરલ હશ તો ત માનય રાખવામાા આવશ નદહિ. (૫) આવથિક રીત નબળા વગગના ઉમદવારોએ સામાજજક નયાય અન અવધકારીતા વવભાગના તા.૨૫-૦૧-૨૦૧૯ના ઠરાવ કરમાાક: ઇ.ડબલય.એસ/૧૨૨૦૧૯/૪૫૯૦૩/અ થી વનયત થયલ નમના અિજીમાા “Annexure-KH” અથવા ગજરાતીમાા “પદરવશષટ-ગ” મજબન પરમાણપતર રજ કરવાન રહશ. (૬) શારીદરક અશકત ઉમદવારોના દકસસામાા સા.વ.વવ. ના તા: ૦૧.૧૨.૨૦૦૮ના પદરપતર મજબના વનયત નમનામાા સરકારી હોસપીટલના સવપરટનડનટ/વસવવલ સરજન/મદડકલ બોડગ દવારા આપલ પરમાણપતર (૭) માજી સવનક ઉમદવારોના દકસસામાા દડસચારજ બકની નકલ (૮) પદરચણત મદહલાઓના દકસસામાા લગન નોધણીના પરમાણપતર/ અટક અથવા નામ બદલાવલ હોય તો ત અગના જાહરનામાની નકલ (૯) વવધવા મદહલા ઉમદવારોના દકસસામાા પન: લગન ન કયાગ અગના સોગાદનામાની નકલ (૧૦) સનાતક (બધાા જ વરગ/સમસટરના ગણપતરક) (૧૧) સનાતક પદવી પરમાણપતર (૧૨) અનસનાતક (બધાા જ વરગ/સમસટરના ગણપતરક) (૧૩) અનસનાતક પદવી પરમાણપતર (જો જાહરાતની જોગવાઇ મજબ જરરી હોય તો)

(૧૪) વવદશની યવનવવસિટી માાથી પદવી મળવલ હોયતો તની માનયતા અગના પરાવાની નકલ (૧૫) જાહરાતમાા દશાગવલ લાયકાતની સમકકષ લાયકાત ઉમદવાર ધરાવ છ તવો તમનો હકક દાવો હોય તો આવા ઉમદવાર સમકકષતા પરસથાવપત કરતા આદશો/અવધકતતાની વવગતો/પરમાણપતર રજ કરવાના રહશ. (૧૬) સરકારી કમગચારીના સબાધમાા “ના-વાાધા પરમાણપતર” (૧૭) અનભવના પરમાણપતરો (જાહરાત મજબ જરરી હોય તો કરમાનસાર મળવલ અનભવ, લાગ પડતા સાવગગના કાયગકાળની શરઆતથી પગારની વવગત, ફરજ/કામના પરકાર દશાગવવાના રહશ.) (૧૮) સાશોધનપતરો (જો જાહરાતની જોગવાઇ મજબ જરરી હોય તો) (૧૯) ચબનઅનામત ઉમદવારોએ ભરલ ફીની ઝરોકષ નકલ (૨૦) જાહરાતની જોગવાઇ અનસાધાનમાા લાગ પડતા અનય આધાર પરાવા/પરમાણપતરો

અરજીપતરક ચબડાણો સાથ વનધાગરીત તારીખની સમય મયાગદામાા આયોગમાા જમા કરાવવામાા આવલ નહી હોય તમજ ઉપર જણાવલ જો કોઇ પણ પરમાણપતર ક આધાર પરાવા જોડવામાા આવલ નહી હોય તો ઉમદવારી સીધ સીધી ઉમદવારી રદ કરવામાા આવશ. આ પરકારની બાબત આપના કસમાા ન બન ત માટ અરજી, આયોગમાા રજ કરતાા પહલાા આ અગ પરતી કાળજી રાખી, ચકાસણી કરીન જ, ત અરજી મોકલવા જણાવવામાા આવ છ. ખાસ અગતયની સચના:- સાપણગ અરજીપતરક વનધાગરીત તારીખની સમય મયાગદામા આયોગમાા જમા થઇ ગયા બાદ નહી જોડલ ખટતા પરમાણપતર મોકલવામાા આવશ ક ત કસવકારવા બાબત કોઇપણ રજઆત ક પતર વયવહાર કરવામા આવશ તો આયોગ દવારા વવચારણામા લવાશ નહી. દરક જાહરાત માટ ઉમદવાર એક જ અરજી કરવી. આમ છતાા, સાજોગોવશાત, જો કોઇ ઉમદવાર એકથી વધ અરજી કરલ હશ, તો છલલી કનફમગ થયલ અરજી, તની સાથ વનયત ફી ભરલ હશ, તો ત માનય ગણાશ અન અગાઉની અરજી રદદ ગણવામાા આવશ. અગાઉની અરજી સાથ ભરલ ફી છલલી કનફમગ થયલ અરજી સામ ગણવામાા આવશ નહી. જો ઉમદવાર છલલી કનફમગ થયલ અરજી સાથ વનયત ફી ભરલ નહી હોય, તો આવા ઉમદવારની વનયત ફી સાથની કનફમગ થયલી છલલી અરજી માનય ગણવામાા આવશ. જો ઉમદવાર એકથી વધ અરજી સાથ ફી ભરલ હશ, તો ત રીફાડ કરવામાા આવશ નહી.

અરજીફી : (૧) સામાનય કટગરીના ઉમદવાર પોસટઓફીસમાા ર.૧૦૦/- આયોગની ફી + પૉસટલ સવવિસ ચારજ ભરવાનો

રહશ અન ફી ભયાગ અગના ચલણ મળવવાના રહશ. (૨) મળ ગજરાતના અનામત કકષાના ઉમદવારોએ અરજી ફી ભરવાની રહતી નથી. પરાત ગજરાત

વસવાયના અનય રાજયના અનામત કકષાના ઉમદવારોએ ઉમદવારી નોધાવવી હોય તો, ચબનઅનામત વગગના ઉમદવાર તરીક જ અરજી કરવાની રહશ અન ચબનઅનામત વગગ માટ વનયત થયલ અરજી ફી + પોસટલ સવવિસ ચારજ ભરવાનો રહશ.

(૩) ફી ભયાગ વગરની અરજી રદ થવાન પાતર છ. ફી ભરલ નહી હોય તવા ઉમદવારન કોઇપણ સાજોગોમાા પરાથવમક કસોટી/રબર મલાકાત પરીકષામાા બસવા દવામાા આવશ નહી. આ ફી ફકત પોસટઓદફસ દવારા જ સવીકારવામાા આવશ, રોકડમાા, ડીમાનડ ડરાફટથી, ઇનનડયન પોસટલ ઓડગર ક પ-ઓડગરના સવરપમાા આ ફી સવીકારવામાા આવશ નહી. જની ઉમદવારોએ ખાસ નોધ લવી.

(૧૬) ઉમદવારોન ખાસ જણાવવાના ક, અરજીપતરક તથા પરમાણપતરોની ચકાસણી દરમયાન કોઇ ઉમદવાર, આ જગયાના ભરતી વનયમો, તથા જાહરાતની જોગવાઇઓ મજબ લાયકાત ધરાવતા નથી તમ માલમ પડશ તો તમની ઉમદવારી કોઇપણ તબકક રદ કરવામાા આવશ.

નોધ: મદદનીશ ઇજનર(સીવીલ) વગગ-૨ ની જગયાના ભરતી વનયમો, અરજીપતરક સાથ જોડવાના આવશયક પરમાણપતરોની વવગત, વયમયાગદામાા છટછાટ, અરજી કયા સાજોગોમાા રદ થવાન પાતર છ તની વવગતો, Annexure-KH/પદરવશષટ-ગ નો નમનો, પદરવશષટ-’ક’નો નમનો, સરકારી કમગચારીએ રજ કરવાના ના-વાાધા પરમાણપતરનો નમનો, શારીદરક અશકતતા અગના પરમાણપતરનો નમનો અન જાહરાતની અનય વધ વવગતો આયોગની કચરીના નોદટસ બોડગ અન આયોગની વબસાઇટ www.gpsc.gujarat.gov.in ઉપર જોવા મળશ.

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http://www.gpsc.gujarat.gov.in/

GUJARAT PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

R-1 BRANCH Advt. No.: 79/2018-19 Online applications are invited for the post of the Assistant Engineer

(Civil), Class-II, Under Road and building Department during Date: 18-03-2019, 13.00 p.m. to

Date: 18-04-2019, 13.00 p.m. Candidates are instructed to visit Notice Board or the Web site of

Commission http://gpsc-ojas.gujarat.gov.in for all provisions of advertisement, General

Instructions, and the method of online application.

NOTE:-

1. Candidates shall carefully read Advertisement No. and Name of Post before Applying online.

Candidates shall confirm the application only after verifying the details filled in the application

form.

2. Any request or representation to correct any error or omission in the confirmed online

application, or information filled in by the candidate shall not be accepted.

3. In case of more than one online application made by the candidate, only the latest confirmed

application will be considered by the Commission. For candidates belonging to unreserved

category the confirmed application with fees will be considered by the Commission. Candidates

shall keep ready the certification required in case of eligibility for interview (in the order

mentioned in general instruction.)

4. The candidates who have applied in the general category in the original advertisement and

now if they are eligible to get benefit of economically weaker sections (if they are covered

under EWS category) shall apply again under EWS category in the same advertisement. The

candidates who have applied in the general category in the original advertisement and if

they are not covered under EWS category, they need not apply again in the revised

advertisement However, candidates of all the categories who have not applied in the original

advertisement can apply in the revised advertisement. The upper age limit will be calculated

as on the last date of the receipt of the application of original advertisement, whereas

Educational Qualification and experience will be calculated as on the last date of the receipt

of the application of revised advertisement.

5. Certificates for eligibility for reservation in favour of EWS of citizens shall be in the format as

prescribed by social justice and empowerment department, Government of Gujarat's Resolution

No: EWS/122019/45903/A, Date: 25/01/2019. (Annexure-KH in English and Annexure- l in

Gujarati). The candidates shall mention the number and date of EWS certificate while applying

online.

6. Candidates of EWS category are exempted from paying Examination fees and application

fees.

http://gpsc-ojas.gujarat.gov.in/

Candidates are instructed to visit Notice Board or the Web site of Commission http://gpsc-

ojas.gujarat.gov.in for all provisions of advertisement, General Instructions, and the method of online

application.

- Tentative Date for P.T: 23-06-2019

- Tentative month for P.T Result: August-2019

- Tentative month for Interview: December-2019

- Final result will be published during 10 working days after the last date of interview.

Total No. of vacancy: 285 (As Below)

No. Category Total vacancy Out of total Post reserved for Women

1 GENERAL 155 51

2 EWS 28 09

3 SEBC 52 17

4 SC 13 04

5 ST 37 12

Total 285 93

Note:-

1. Out of Total Post 13 Post Reserve for Physical Disable Candidate and 07 Post Reserve for Ex-

Service men.

2. In case of non-availability of Women candidates in the respective category, the post so reserved

will be allotted to male candidates belonging to the same category.

3. Selection to the posts of unreserved Category and posts reserved for women candidates thereof

as well as selection to the posts of EWS, SEBC, SC and ST Categories and posts reserved for

women candidates thereof Shall be made on the basis of marks obtained in selection process by

the candidates of respective categories and also women candidates of that category and on the

basis of qualifying standard prescribed by the commission keeping in view to maintain

efficiency of respective cadre/service.

4. The candidates belonging to reserved category can apply against vacancies for Unreserved

Category but the criteria will be applicable as per Unreserved Category.

5. Out of above mentioned post 07 posts are reserved for H.H. (Hearing Handicapped) having

disability of 40 % or above and up to 100 % and 06 Post are reserved for candidates having O.L

and O.A disability .

Education Qualification:- (1) Possess a degree in Engineering (Civil) or Technology (Civil)

obtained from any of the Universities or institutions established or incorporated by or under the

Central or State Act in India; or any other educational institutions recognized as such or declared

to be a deemed University under section 3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956.



(2) The basic knowledge of Computer Application as prescribed in the Gujarat Civil Service

Classification and Recruitment (General) Rules, 1967.

(3) Adequate knowledge of Gujarati or Hindi or both.

PAY: - As per pay matrix level 8 Rs. 44900 – 142400/-

AGE: - A candidate shall not be less than 20 years of age and not be more than 35 years of age as on

30/10/2018. Age will be calculated as on the last date of receipt of application.

Upper Age limit shall be relaxed as under:

1 EWS, SC, ST and SEBC category

male candidates of origin of Gujarat

05 Years (maximum up to 45 years)

2 General category female Candidates

of origin of Gujarat


3

EWS, SC, ST and SEBC category

female candidates of origin of

Gujarat


4

Physically Disabled: In the case of physically Disabled candidates who have disability

of OL, OA and HH can apply for the post. Candidates having HH Category of 40% or

above and up to 100% are eligible to apply for the post shall get 10 years relaxation in

the age limit subject to his / her ability for age relaxation according to Govt. Rules. No

relaxation is available to the candidates possessing other than the prescribed physical

disabilities.

5

A candidate who is already in

Gujarat Govt. service, either as a

permanent or a temporary officiating

continuously for six months and had

not crossed age limit prescribed for

the advertised post at the time of his

first appointment.

(i) If experience is prescribed as one of the

qualifications, the upper age limit shall not apply.

(ii) If experience is not prescribed as one of the

qualifications and a Govt. servant appointed to a

post requiring a Medical, Engineering,

Veterinary or Agriculture degree or diploma and

who applied for any such post, the upper age limit

shall not apply.

(iii) If experience is not prescribed as one of the

qualifications in the advertisement, Govt.

servants who are working on the post from which

an employee can be promoted to the post so

advertised, be entitled to relaxation of 5 years, or

to the extent of equal number of years for which

service has been put in by him, whichever is less.

(Asha Shah)

Joint Secretary

Gujarat Public Service Commission

Government of India

Ministry of Railways Railway Recruitment Boards

Detailed Centralized Employment Notification

RRC-01 /2019

various Posts in Level – 1 of 7 th CPC Pay Matrix Recruitment for

Railway cum Road Bridge Digha, Patna

CENTRALISED EMPLOYMENT NOTICE (CEN) NO. RRC-01/2019 1 | P a g

CENTRALISED EMPLOYMENT NOTICE (CEN) No. RRC-01/2019 (Recruitment for Various Posts in Level 1 of 7th CPC Pay Matrix)

Date of Publication 23.02.2019

Opening of online registration of Applications 12.03.2019 at 17.00 hrs.

Closing of online registration of Applications 12.04.2019 at 23.59 hrs.

Closing Date & Time for Payment of Application Fee through:

(a) Online (Net Banking/ Credit Card/ Debit Card/UPI) 23.04.2019 at 23.59 hrs.

(b) SBI Challan 18.04.2019 at 13.00 hrs.

(c) Post Office Challan 18.04.2019 at 13.00 hrs.

Final submission of Applications 26.04.2019 at 23.59 hrs.

Computer Based Test (CBT) Tentative schedule

September-October 2019

Note : 1. Detailed CEN- RRC-01/2019 will be uploaded and the Link to Online Registration and application

will be live on the official websites of the RRBs mentioned at para 21.0 (A) of this CEN.

2. Date for CBT and other stages of recruitment shall be intimated from time to time through the websites

of Railway Recruitment Cells(RRCs) as listed at para 21.0 (B) of this CEN.

ONLINE applications are invited by RRBs on behalf of RRCs from eligible Indian Nationals and other nationals

as brought out at Para 4 of this CEN for various posts in Level 1 of 7th CPC Pay Matrix in various units of Indian Railways. Applications complete in all respect should be submitted ONLINE to the chosen Railway

Recruitment Board till 23.59 hrs of 26.04.2019.

DETAILS OF VACANCIES AT A GLANCE

Railway wise summary of vacancies for various posts are furnished below for immediate reference. Further,

the parameters(Qualification, Medical standard and Suitability of the post for PwBD etc) of various posts

included in the CEN is at Annexure A and Railway and post wise vacancy for all the notified posts is at

Annexure B. However, Railway reserves the right to revise this assessment in part or full.

* Vacancies under CCAA are applicable to Apprentices trained in Railway Establishments only

Sl No

Railway UR SC ST OBC EWS Total

Vacancy ExSM CCAA* PwBD

Back-PwBD

1 Central Railway 3597 1398 759 2656 935 9345 1870 1870 449 0

2 East Central Railway 1369 555 325 956 358 3563 713 713 166 0

3 East Coast Railway 1034 412 198 653 258 2555 510 510 105 0

4 Eastern Railway, CLW & Metro 4926 1461 775 2619 1087 10873 2175 2175 589 5

5 North Central Railway and DLW 2080 678 317 1175 474 4730 948 948 145 6

6 North Eastern Railway, MCF and RDSO

1570 615 307 1107 403 4002 802 802 157 0

7 North Western Railway 2132 814 384 1393 526 5249 1049 1049 324 0

8 Northeast Frontier Railway 1119 449 226 809 291 2894 575 575 144 0

9 Northern Railway, DMW and RCF 5144 2017 1031 3644 1317 13153 2630 2630 626 0

10 South Central Railway 3663 1432 722 2577 934 9328 1867 1867 125 0

11 South East Central Railway 797 219 115 366 167 1664 333 333 84 0

12 South Eastern Railway 1933 738 361 1305 482 4914 965 965 215 95

13 South Western Railway and RWF 2745 1138 557 2006 715 7167 1433 1433 193 6

14 Southern Railway and ICF 4363 1353 787 2118 958 9579 1914 1914 222 0

15 West Central Railway 1596 633 308 1080 402 4019 804 804 226 0

16 Western Railway 4287 1647 812 2914 1074 10734 2146 2146 556 0

Grand Total 42355 15559 7984 27378 10381 103769 20734 20734 4326 112


Note:

1. Reservations for SC, ST, OBC(Non Creamy Layer), EWS, PwBD, ExSM and Relaxations in age for

various eligible categories will be applicable as per details contained in this CEN.

2. Above vacancies also include backlog of PwBD.

3. The PwBD reservation in the vacancies of following Critical Operational Posts cannot be given due

to job requirements:

Sl. No. Designation Total Vacancy

1 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN 14870

2 ASSISTANT BRIDGE 913

3 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV 40721

TOTAL 56504

However, the required percentage of PwBD reservation in the vacancies of the above posts has

been adjusted in the vacancies of other remaining posts where PwBD reservation can be given.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS-ONLINE REGISTRATION & SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION

1) Candidates should ensure that they possess/fulfill all eligibility conditions prescribed for the post(s)

as on the closing date of online registration i.e. as on 12.04.2019. CANDIDATES WAITING FOR FINAL

RESULTS OF PRESCRIBED EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION SHOULD NOT APPLY.

2) Before filling up of the online application, candidates are advised to thoroughly read all the

instructions and information in the CEN contained in this notification and available on the websites of

RRBs.

3) Candidates are advised to visit only official websites of the RRBs/RRCs indicated at Para 21.0 (A &

B) of this CEN and be very cautious about fake websites and job racketeers.

4) Candidates should have their own mobile number and valid & active personal email ID and keep

them active for the entire duration of recruitment as RRBs/RRCS shall send all recruitment related

communications only through SMS and email till the recruitment is completely over. RRBs/RRCS

will not entertain any request for change of mobile number and e-mail address at any stage. Only

one ONLINE Registration is permitted through one mobile number and one email ID under this CEN.

5) Applications are to be submitted ONLINE through the RRB websites ONLY listed at Para 21.0 (A) of

this CEN. One application ONLY is required to be submitted to the selected Railway for all its notified

posts in this CEN. Candidates can apply to only one Railway. Application to more than one Railway,

will lead to rejection of all the applications. Any attempt to submit more than one application by a

candidate against this CEN shall result in disqualification and debarment.

6) Candidates are required to go through the vacancy table, ascertain their eligibility and then exercise

options for the Railways and post(s) within the Railway chosen as per their eligibility. The selection of

Railway once exercised shall be final.

7) Eligibility of the candidates will be considered only on the strength of the information furnished in

the ONLINE Application. Candidates need NOT send printouts of application or certificates or copies

to RRBs concerned by post. If at any stage of recruitment or thereafter, it is found that any

information furnished by the candidate in his/her application is false/incorrect or the candidate has

suppressed any relevant information or the candidate does not satisfy the eligibility criteria for the

post(s), his/her candidature will be rejected forthwith.

Candidates can modify the application particulars except Railway chosen, Email ID and Mobile

Number, even after submission of application, but within the last date of submission of application,


by paying modification fee. However, after the last date for submission of application (26.04.2019),

RRB/RRC shall not entertain any representation for modification of the information furnished in the

application.

8) Candidates must ensure that they fulfill the prescribed Medical Standards for the post(s) they are

opting for. Candidates who are found medically unsuitable for the opted post(s) shall not be given

any alternative appointment.

9) Center/City allocation for CBT/PET will depend upon technical and logistical feasibility. Candidates

may have to travel to other Cities/States for attending CBT/PET. Request for Change of Exam Centre

shall NOT be allowed under any circumstances.

10) To avoid last minute rush, candidates are advised in their own interest to register and submit ONLINE

application much before the closing date since there may be a possibility of inability/failure to log on

to the website of RRB concerned on account of heavy load on the internet or website during last days

of online registration.

RRBs do not accept any responsibility for the candidates not being able to register and/or submit

their application within the last day on account of aforesaid reasons or any other reason.

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS- EXAMINATION PROCESSES

1) Malpractices: Any candidate found using unfair means of any kind in the examination/CBT, sending

someone else in his/her place to appear in the examination, attempt to impersonate will be debarred

from appearing in all the examinations of all the RRBs/RRCs (Railway Recruitment Cell) for lifetime.

He/she will also be debarred from getting any appointment in the Railways, and if already appointed,

will be dismissed from service. Such candidates are also liable for legal prosecution.

2) Banned items: Electronic gadgets like mobile phones, blue tooth, pen drive, laptops, calculators,

wrist watches or any other communication devices or pen/pencil, wallet/purses, belts, shoes and

metallic wears including ornaments etc. are strictly NOT allowed inside the exam hall. Any

infringement of this instruction shall entail summary rejection besides legal action including

debarment from future examinations. Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any

of the banned items including mobile phones etc. to the venue of the examination, as arrangements

for safe keeping cannot be assured.

3) Stages of Exam: The exam shall be Computer Based Test (CBT). Railway Administration reserves the

right to conduct the CBT in either single or multi stage mode. Candidates qualifying in the CBT shall

have to undergo Physical Efficiency Test (PET). It will be followed by Document Verification and

Medical Examination.

4) Call Letters: Candidates will have to download the City and Date Intimations, e- Call Letters and

Travel Authority (wherever applicable) from the links provided on the official websites of RRBs/RRCs.

5) Normalization of Marks: Marks will be normalized for CBT involving multiple sessions. Marks will be

normalized as per the formulae given in Para 15.0 & 15.1 of this Notice. Though Railway

Administration reserves the right to modify the formula/adopt different formula based on technical

considerations.

6) Short Listing for PET: Railway/RRC wise short listing of candidates for PET shall be done at the rate of

three times of the vacancies (may increase or decrease as per the requirement of Railway

Administration). The short listing for PET will be based on the merit of the candidates in the CBT.

7) Negative Marking: There shall be negative marking for incorrect answers in the CBT. 1/3rd

of the

marks allotted for each question shall be deducted for each wrong answer.


8) Calling of candidates more than number of vacancies for post CBT stages : Candidates more than

the prescribed number of vacancies may be called for PET and/or the subsequent stages. This is to

take care of candidates not turning up and similar exigencies in the recruitment process. It may

clearly be noted that calling for and qualifying in PET and subsequent stages of DV and Medical

Examination does not mean that candidate will be empanelled or that he/she deserves a vested right

to be considered for appointment by Railways.

DETAILED CEN

1.0 GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1.1 Admission to all stages of recruitment process shall be purely provisional, subject to the candidates

satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions.

1.2 Mere issue of e-Call letter to the candidates will NOT imply that their candidature has been finally

accepted by the RRB/RRC. Candidature can be rejected at any stage of recruitment process.

1.3 RRBs/RRCs conduct verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents only

after the candidates have qualified in all the stages of examinations and are shortlisted for Document

Verification. RRBs/RRCs may reject the candidature of any applicant at any stage of recruitment

process in case the candidate is found to be not fulfilling the requisite criteria and if appointed, such a

candidate is liable to be removed from service summarily.

1.4 Before applying for the post(s) against this notification, candidates should satisfy themselves that

they fulfill all the eligibility norms including age, educational qualification(s) and medical standard(s).

Candidates should ensure that they have requisite qualifications from recognized Board/Institute as

on the date of Closure of online registration i.e. 12.04.2019. Those awaiting results of the final

examination for the prescribed qualification are not eligible and hence should not apply.

1.5 Applications of candidates who are attempting to apply with minor changes of information and/or

facts to more than one Railway and/or multiple applications to the same Railway will be summarily

rejected and such candidates will be debarred from all future examinations of RRB and RRC.

1.6 Candidates who have been debarred by any RRB/RRC either for life or for a specified period which is

not yet completed should NOT apply for this notification. Their candidature will be rejected during

any stage of recruitment as and when detected.

1.7 Candidates should enter their Name, Father's Name and Date of Birth as recorded in the SSLC/

Matriculation certificate only. However, candidates with ITI /NAC qualification alone can enter

these details as per the ITI/NAC certificate.

In cases of name change, candidates should indicate their changed Name only in the ONLINE

application. However, other details should match with the Matriculation or Equivalent certificate.

Date of such change (or) application for such change should be prior to the date of ONLINE

registration.

Gazette Notification or any other legal document as applicable for such cases should be submitted at

the time of Document Verification (DV).

1.8 Signatures of the candidates on all documents should be identical in all stages of recruitment process

and must be in running hand and not in block/capital or disjointed letters. Signatures in different

style at the time of CBT/PET/DV (as applicable) etc., may result in cancellation of candidature.

1.9 Dates of examinations will also be published on the websites of participating RRBs/RRCs. Thereafter,

E-Call letters for the CBT/PET/DV (as applicable) should be downloaded ONLY from official websites

of the RRBs/RRCs concerned. No call letter will be sent by post. The exam centre, date and shift


indicated in the e-call letter shall be final. RRBs/RRCs reserve the right to introduce additional CBTs

and/or PET, additional DV etc. without assigning any reason.

1.10 Vacancies indicated in the CEN are provisional and may increase or decrease or even may become NIL

in total or in specific communities/posts/units at a later stage depending upon the actual needs of

the Railway Administration. Also, additional posts if required by the railway(s) may also be included

at later stage.

The Railway Administration also reserves the right to cancel the notified vacancies at its discretion

and such decision will be final and binding on all. In the event of cancellation of notified vacancies,

the examination fee paid by the candidates will not be refunded except for candidates of

exempted categories who have attended the CBT. Refer para 7.0 for fee exempted categories.

1.11 Preference for Post(s) and/or Railway(s)/Unit(s): The options from the candidates for various posts

for which they are eligible in the opted Railway, shall be taken during submission of ONLINE

applications.

On completion of all stages of recruitment process, RRBs/RRCs shall allot post & Railway/Unit as per

the option of the eligible candidates ONLY subject to merit, medical standard and vacancy position.

Once candidates have been empanelled as per their merit/choice, they will forfeit the right to be

considered for any other post/category.

Candidates with partial option will be considered only for the specific categories opted by them. In

case, no option is given for certain posts, it would be considered as their unwillingness for the same.

However, RRBs/RRCs also reserve the right to allot post/Railway/Unit not opted by the candidates, if

considered necessary in administrative interest, subject to the candidate(s) meeting the

requirements of the post concerned.

In case of shortfall in empanelment of candidates or other exigencies, RRB/RRC reserves the right to

utilize the extra list of candidates (standby list), if required, as per the merit and option of the

candidates. This however will not confer any vested right on such candidates to be considered for

appointment.

1.12 Selection by RRB/RRC does not confer upon the candidates any right of appointment in the Railways.

The function of the RRB/RRC is to recommend names of suitable candidates to the concerned

authorities of the Zonal Railway who in turn issue the offer of appointment letter subject to

availability of vacancies and satisfying all eligibility criteria including antecedents and character.

1.13 Selected candidates will have to execute Security and/or indemnity bond wherever necessary at the

time of joining in Railways.

1.14 Ordinarily, a Railway servant shall be employed throughout his/her service on the Railway or Railway

establishment to which he/she is posted on first appointment and shall have no claim as a right for

transfer to another railway or another establishment. In the exigencies of service, however, it shall be

open to the Competent Authority to transfer the railway servant to any other department or railway

or railway establishment including a project in or out of India.

1.15 Selected candidates who are finally appointed are liable for active service in Railway Engineers' Unit

of Territorial Army.

1.16 Free Sleeper Class Railway Pass is admissible to SC/ST candidates. SC/ST candidates who wish to avail

free travel authority will have to indicate ‘Yes’ in the relevant column in the ONLINE application and

upload valid caste certificate. For such candidates, free Sleeper Class Railway Pass will be part of e-

call letter when they are called for various stages of recruitment viz. CBT/PET/DV (as applicable) as

per the details furnished and uploaded in ONLINE application. It is the responsibility of the candidates


availing free travel authority to give the correct name of the Railway Station in online application,

failing which their travel authority may not be valid for travel and obtaining reservation.

At the time of obtaining reservation and travelling, the Reservation Clerk and/or Ticket Checking Staff

will ask for the original SC/ST community certificate for verification of genuineness of the candidate.

Any attempt to misuse this travelling authority shall lead to rejection of candidature at any stage of

the selection process including debarment for future examinations conducted by RRBs/RRCs and

any other attendant legal consequences.

1.17 RRBs/RRCs reserve the right to incorporate any subsequent changes/ modifications/ additions in the

terms and conditions of recruitment under this CEN as necessitated and applicable.

1.18 RRBs/RRCs may share, with the consent of the candidates, the scores obtained by them in RRB/RRC

exams with other Ministries/Departments/Public Sector Undertakings (PSU) and Private

organizations, for recruitment in their organizations. Candidates may give their consent for the same,

or otherwise, in the ONLINE application.

2.0 VACANCIES

2.1 The Post Parameters (Qualification, Medical Standard and Suitability of the post for PwBD etc.) of

various posts are included in this CEN at Annexure A.

2.2 The Railway and post wise vacancies for all the notified posts including reservation of vacancies for

SC, ST, OBC(Non creamy layer), EWS, ExSM, CCAA and PwBD are at Annexure B.

2.3 Candidates may please note that these vacancies may increase or decrease as per the requirement of

Railway Administration (Please refer Para 1.10 of General Instructions).

3.0 MEDICAL STANDARDS FOR THE POSTS

Candidates called for DV will have to pass requisite medical fitness test(s) conducted by the Railway

Administration to ensure that the candidates are medically fit to carry out the duties connected with

the post(s) opted by them. Visual Acuity Standard is one of the important criteria of medical fitness of

railway staff. The medical requirements against different medical standards for different categories

are outlined below:

SL.

No

MEDICAL

STANDARD

GENERAL

FITNESS VISUAL ACUITY

1 A-2

Physically

fit in all

respects

Distant Vision: 6/9, 6/9 without glasses(no fogging test)

Near Vision: Sn. 0.6, 0.6 without glasses and

Must pass tests for Colour Vision, Binocular Vision, Night

Vision, Mesopic vision etc.

2 A-3

Physically

fit in all

respects

Distant Vision: 6/9, 6/9 with or without glasses (power of lenses

not to exceed 2D).

Near Vision: Sn: 0.6, 0.6 with or without glasses and Must pass

test for Colour Vision, Binocular Vision, Night Vision, Myopic

vision etc.

3 B-1

Physically

fit in all

respects

Distant Vision: 6/9, 6/12 with or without glasses (power of

lenses not to exceed 4D),

Near Vision: Sn. 0.6, 0.6 with or without glasses when reading

or close work is required and

Must pass test for Colour Vision, Binocular Vision, Night Vision,

Mesopic vision etc.


4 B-2

Physically

fit in all

respects

Distant Vision: 6/9, 6/12 with or without glasses (power of

lenses not to exceed 4D).


or close work is required and

must pass test for Binocular Vision etc.

5 C-1

Physically

fit in all

respects

Distant Vision: 6/12, 6/18 with or without glasses.


or close work is required.

6 C-2

Physically

fit in all

respects

Distant Vision: 6/12, NIL with or without glasses.

Near Vision: Sn. 0.6 combined with or without glasses where

reading or close work is required.

Note: The above medical standards are indicative and not exhaustive and apply to candidates in

general. The candidates are advised to read Chapter 5 of Indian Railway Medical Manual Vol.I

which can be accessed at www.indianrailways.gov.in. Candidates who have undergone Lasik

surgery or any other surgery procedure to correct refractory error are not eligible for the post

having Medical Standards A2, A3, B1 and B2.

Different Medical standards shall apply to Ex-Servicemen as detailed in Para 534 of Indian Railway

Medical Manual (IRMM) Volume I, which may be accessed at www.indianrailways.gov.in.

Important

Candidates are advised to ensure that they are eligible as per the medical standards for the posts

opted by them. Candidates found medically unsuitable for the applied post (s) shall not be given

any alternative appointment. Those who are opting for A2 medical standard posts may note that

these posts have stringent medical standard and hence they are specifically advised to ensure that

their fitness both in terms of vision as well as physical standards is as per the prescribed

requirements in the medical manual indicated above.

34.0 NATIONALITY/CITIZENSHIP:

4.1 A candidate must be either:

a. a citizen of India, or

b. a subject of Nepal, or

c. a subject of Bhutan, or

d. a Tibetan refugee who came over to India, before the 1st January, 1962 with the intention of

permanently settling in India, or

e. a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African

Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia

and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India.

f. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) above shall be a person in

whose favor a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India.

4.2 A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary may be admitted to the examination

but the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been

issued to him by the Government of India.

5.0 AGE LIMIT: 18 to 33 years.

The lower and upper age limit indicated for a particular post(s) in the vacancy table will be reckoned

as on 01.07.2019.


5.1 The relaxation in upper age limit / maximum upper age for the following categories/communities in

the table below is applicable subject to submission of requisite certificates.

Sl

No

COMMUNITY/CATEGORIES RELAXATION IN UPPER AGE LIMIT

(Or) MAXIMUM UPPER AGE

1 OBC-Non Creamy Layer(NCL) 3 Years

2 SC/ST 5 Years

3

Ex-Servicemen candidates who

have put in more than 6

months service after

attestation

UR

33 Years of age plus Number of years of

service rendered in Defence plus 3 years

OBC-NCL 36 Years of age plus Number of years of


SC/ST 38 Years of age plus Number of years of


4

PwBD

UR 10 Years

OBC-NCL 13 Years

SC/ST 15 Years

5

Candidates ordinarily been

domiciled in the State of

Jammu & Kashmir during the

period from 01.01.1980 to

31.12.1989

UR 38 Years of age

OBC-NCL 41 Years of age

SC/ST 43 Years of age

6

Candidates who are serving

Group 'C' and erstwhile Group

'D' Railway Staff, Casual Labour

and Substitutes and put in

minimum 3 years of service

(continuous or in broken

spells).

UR 40 Years of age



7

Candidates who are working in

Quasi-Administrative offices of

the Railway organization such

as Railway Canteens, Co-

operative Societies and

Institutes.

UR 33 Years of age plus length of service

rendered or 5 years, whichever is lower.

OBC-NCL 36 Years of age plus length of service


SC/ST 38 Years of age plus length of service


8

Women candidates, who are

widowed, divorced or judicially

separated from husband but

not remarried.

UR 35 Years of age



9

Course Completed Act

Apprentices applying for the

posts for which minimum

qualification is ITI/Course

Completed Act Apprenticeship.

UR

33 years of age plus extent of Apprentice

Training undergone by them under the

Apprentice Act 1961 subject to maximum

three years.

OBC-NCL 36 years of age plus extent of Apprentice



three years.

SC/ST 38 years of age plus extent of Apprentice




three years.

10

Candidates who have

commenced Act

Apprenticeship under the

Apprenticeship Act before

attaining the age of 25 years

UR 35 Yrs of age

OBC-NCL 38 Yrs of age

SC/ST 40 Yrs of age

5.2 Date of birth of candidates should be between the dates given below (Both dates inclusive) :

5.3 If a candidate is eligible for relaxation of age on more than one ground, he/she would be accorded

the highest of the age relaxations (not cumulative) for which he/she is eligible.

5.4 No age relaxation is allowed to SC/ST/OBC-NCL (Non Creamy Layer) candidates applying against

unreserved vacancies.

5.5 PwBD candidates applying against UR vacancies will be allowed age relaxation applicable for UR

PwBD only.

5.6 Candidates should note that the date of birth filled in the application should be same

as recorded in the Matriculation /SSLC or an equivalent certificate. No subsequent request for its

change will be considered.

6.0 EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS:

Candidates should have requisite minimum educational qualifications indicated for posts in

Annexure-A of this CEN from recognized Board/NCVT/SCVT as on the closing date for ONLINE

Registration. Those awaiting results of the final examination of the prescribed minimum

educational qualification SHOULD NOT apply.

NOTE: Diploma/Degree in Engineering will not be accepted in lieu of course completed Act

Apprenticeship / ITI. Also, Graduate Act Apprentice will not be accepted in lieu of Course Completed Act

Apprenticeship.

7.0 EXAMINATION FEE

Candidates applying for the posts in this CEN have to pay the prescribed fee as per their category

detailed below:

Sl

No

Age

Group

Upper limit of Date of Birth

(Not earlier than)

Lower limit of

Date of Birth

(Not later than)

Remarks*

1 18 to 33

UR

OBC-Non

Creamy Layer

SC/ST

For all

communities

/ categories

Candidates belonging to

communities/categories

in the table at para 5.1

shall be eligible for age

relaxation as applicable.

Note. The date of birth

limits for SC/ST & OBC-

NCL given in this table

includes community age

relaxation.

02.07.1986 02.07.1983 02.07.1981 01.07.2001


SL. No. Candidate Categories Fee

1 For all candidates except the fee concession categories mentioned below at

Sl.No.2

Out of this fee of Rs 500 an amount of Rs 400 shall be refunded in due course

duly deducting bank charges as applicable on appearing in CBT.

Rs.500/-

2 For PwBD / Female /Transgender/ Ex-Servicemen candidates and candidates

belonging to SC/ST/Minority Communities/ Economically Backward Class.

*This fee of Rs 250 shall be refunded in due course duly deducting bank charges

as applicable on appearing in CBT.

Rs.250/-*

7.1 Modes of Payment of Fee

a. ONLINE fee payment through internet banking or debit/credit card or UPI.

b. OFFLINE fee payment through

(i) SBI Challan Payment mode in any branch of SBI.

(ii) Post Office Challan Payment mode in any branch of Computerized Post Office.

7.2 Closing Date and Time of Fee Payment

The offline payment will be allowed till 13:00 hrs. of 18.04.2019 and Online payment will be allowed

till 23.59 hrs. of 23.04.2019, for candidates who register successfully till 23:59 hrs. of 12.04.2019.

After making payment, these candidates should submit their completed applications on or before

23.59 hrs. of 26.04.2019.

All applicable service charges for fee payment through the mode of payment chosen shall be borne

by the candidate. If the fee is paid through off line mode viz. Para 7.1 b (i) and (ii) above, the receipt

should be preserved. The same should be produced on demand at the time of document verification.

7.3 Minorities include Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains and Zoroastrians(Parsis) subject to

revision/deletion/inclusion, if any, received till the closing date for ONLINE registration of application

for this CEN.

Candidates belonging to minority communities availing waiver of examination fee will be required to

furnish, at the time of document verification “Minority Community Declaration” affidavit on non-

judicial stamp paper that they belong to any of the above minority communities, failing which their

candidature will be rejected.

7.4 Economically Backward Class (EBC) candidates are those whose annual family income is less than Rs

50,000. Such candidates should have valid income certificate on the date of closing of online

registration of applications in the prescribed format or on the letter head of the issuing authority to

this effect before filling the application and submit the same at the time of document verification,

failing which their candidature will be rejected. Candidates having BPL Card and Izzat MST are also

eligible for fee concession under EBC. The EBC candidates seeking fee concession should fill in the

relevant Certificate/Card Number, issue date, issuing authority, place of issue and state in the ONLINE

application.

7.5 In case of online payment (Debit Card, Credit Card, Net Banking and UPI), the candidates should

confirm if they wish to receive the refundable portion of examination fee (Rs 400/- or Rs 250/- as

applicable) on attending CBT in the account from which they have made payment or alternatively

provide the beneficiary account in which they wish to receive the refund viz. Beneficiary Name,

Account Number, Name of bank and its IFSC Code. The refundable portion of examination fee shall

be refunded duly deducting bank charges as applicable. The candidates who have made payment

through SBI Challan or Post office Challan Mode should provide details of beneficiary account in


which they wish to receive the refund viz. Beneficiary Name, Account Number, Name of bank and its

IFSC Code. The responsibility to furnish correct bank account details lies on the candidates and

RRBs/RRCs will not entertain any correspondence from the candidate on this account.

7.6 The examination fee paid by the candidates whose application is incomplete or those who have not

submitted their application or whose application is rejected, will not be refunded.

8.0 VERTICAL RESERVATION

8.1 This CEN provides for Vertical Reservation for Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST), Other

Backward Classes (OBC)- Non Creamy Layer (NCL) and Economically Weaker Sections (EWS),

wherever applicable and admissible, and as communicated by the Indenting Railways/Production

Units under extant rules, as mentioned in the Vacancy Table.

8.2 All candidates, irrespective of community may be considered against UR vacancies, subject to

fulfillment of parameters for UR candidates. However, against the vacancies earmarked for specific

communities (SC/ST/OBC-NCL/EWS), only candidates belonging to that community will be

considered.

8.3 For availing reservation, SC/ST/OBC-NCL candidates should furnish Caste Certificate from competent

authorities as per the format given at Annexure I (for SC/ST candidates) and at Annexure II (for OBC-

NCL candidates) at the time of document verification. Further, in case of OBC-NCL candidates, the

certificates should specifically indicate that they do not belong to the Persons/Sections (Creamy

Layer) mentioned in Column 3 of the Schedule of the Government of India, Department of Personnel

and Training O.M.No.36012/22/93-Estt. (SCT) dated 08.09.93 & its subsequent revision through

O.M.No.36033/3/2004-Estt. (Res) dated 09.03.2004, 27.05.2013, 13.09.2017 and further revision, if

any, received till the closing date for ONLINE Registration of applications for this CEN. The candidates

should ensure that they belong to the OBC- Non Creamy Layer(NCL) category while applying for the

posts against this CEN. Such candidates should produce a valid OBC certificate in the prescribed

format during document verification. Further, in addition to the community certificate (OBC), a

declaration in the prescribed format as per Annexure IIA has to be furnished by the candidates

during document verification, that he/she does not belong to the creamy layer. The certificate

produced shall not be older than one year at the time of document verification. In case of not

complying to these stipulations, their claim for reserved status (OBC-NCL) will not be entertained and

the candidature / application of such candidates, if fulfilling all the eligibility conditions for General

(Unreserved) category, will be considered under General(UR) vacancies only.

8.4 EWS(Economically Weaker Section) Reservation

Candidates who are not covered under the scheme of reservation for SC/ST/OBC-NCL and whose

family gross annual income is below Rs 8 Lakh (Rupees eight lakh) are to be identified as EWS for

benefit of reservation for EWS. The income shall also include income from all sources i.e. salary,

agriculture, business, profession etc. for the financial year prior to the year of application. For this

CEN No.RRC-01/2019 the financial year will be 2018-2019 as the closing date of registration is

12.04.2019. Also candidates whose family owns or possesses any of the following assets shall be

excluded from being identified as EWS, irrespective of family income:

i. 5 acres of agricultural land and above;

ii. Residential flat of 1000 sq. ft. and above;

iii. Residential plot of 100 sq. yards and above in notified municipalities;

iv. Residential plot of 200 sq. yards and above in areas other than the notified municipalities.

The property held by a “Family” in different locations or different places/cities would be clubbed

while applying the land or property holding test to determine EWS status.


The term “Family” for this purpose will include the person who seeks benefit of reservation, his/her

parents and siblings below the age of 18 years as also his/her spouse and children below the age of

18 years.

The benefit of reservation under EWS can be availed upon production of an Income and Asset

Certificate issued by a Competent Authority. The Income and Asset Certificate issued by any one of

the following authorities in the prescribed format as given in Annexure III shall only be accepted as

candidate’s claim as belonging to EWS:

a) District Magistrate/Additional District Magistrate/Collector/Deputy Commissioner/Additional

Deputy Commissioner/1st

Class Stipendiary Magistrate/Sub-Divisional Magistrate/Taluka

Magistrate/Executive Magistrate/Extra Assistant Commissioner

b) Chief Presidency Magistrate/Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency Magistrate

c) Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar and

d) Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his family normally resides.

The candidates applying against the vacancies reserved for EWS must produce valid Income and

Asset Certificate issued by competent authority as per Annexure-III on the date of Document

Verification. In case of non compliance to these stipulations, their claim for reserved status under

EWS will not be entertained and the candidature / application of such candidates, if fulfilling all the

eligibility conditions for General (UR) category, will be considered under General (UR) vacancies only.

8.5 Candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC-NCL/EWS who fulfill required minimum educational qualification

can also apply against UR vacancies. They will however, have to compete with the UR candidates. No

age relaxation will be allowed to such SC/ST/OBC-NCL candidates applying/being considered against

UR vacancies. However, candidates have to indicate their actual community in the application.

8.6 Community/EWS status as on the closing date for ONLINE Registration of application for this CEN

shall only be considered for availing reservation benefits if eligible and any change in the

community/EWS status of the candidate thereafter shall not be entertained.

9.0 HORIZONTAL RESERVATION:

9.1 This CEN provides for horizontal reservation for Ex-Servicemen (ExSM), Course Completed Act

Apprentices (CCAA) trained in Railway Establishments and Person With Disabilities (PwBD)

irrespective of their community.

9.2 Vacancies for ExSM, CCAA trained in Railway Establishments and PwBD wherever given in the

vacancy table are not separate but are included in the total number of vacancies.

9.3 Wherever vacancies for PwBD are shown separately without any community wise allotment, those

vacancies are separate and not part of regular vacancies.

9.4 ExSM candidates may also apply against regular vacancies of any post(s) without separate earmarked

ExSM vacancies. Even for these posts, they are eligible for age relaxation and fee exemption as

applicable for ExSM.

9.5 PwBD candidates of a particular disability may also apply against regular vacancies of any post(s)

which are not having separate earmarked PwBD vacancies subject to condition that the post should

have been identified suitable for that disability. Even for these posts they are eligible for age

relaxation and fee exemption as applicable for PwBD.

9.6 If regular PwBD vacancies cannot be filled due to non-availability of suitable candidates under the

type of disability for which vacancy is reserved or for any other sufficient reason, these shall not be

filled and shall be carried forward as backlog vacancy to the next recruitment cycle.


However, for the backlog PwBD vacancies if any, indicated in the CEN, if candidates of specified

disability for which vacancies reserved are not available, these can be filled by candidates of other

disabilities for which the post is suitable. In case of non-availability of any PwBD candidate of the

disabilities for which the post is identified as suitable, the vacancies will be filled by regular (those

who are not PwBD) candidates in order of merit.

9.7 CCAA candidates trained in Railway Establishments may also apply against vacancies of any post(s)

without separate earmarked CCAA vacancies. Even for these posts, they are eligible for age

relaxation.

10.0 EX-SERVICEMEN

10.1 The term Ex-Servicemen means a person who has served in any rank (whether as a Combatant or

non-Combatant) in the regular Army, Navy or Air Force of the Indian Union but does not include a

person who has served in the Defence Security Corps., the General Reserve Engineering Force, the

Lok Sahayak Sena and the Para Military Forces

and

a. Who either has been retired or relieved or discharged from such service whether at his own

request or being relieved by the employer after earning his or her pension; (or)

b. Who has been relieved from such service on medical grounds attributable to military service

or circumstances beyond his control and awarded medical or other disability pension; (or)

c. who has been released from such service as a result of reduction in establishment; (or)

d. Who has been released from such service after completing the specific period of engagement,

otherwise than on his own request, or by way of dismissal, or discharge on account of

misconduct or inefficiency and has been given a gratuity; and includes personnel of the

Territorial Army, namely, pension holders for continuous embodied service or broken spells of

qualifying service;(or)

e. Personnel of Army Postal Service who are part of Regular Army and retired from the Army

Postal Service without reversion to their parent service with pension, or are released from the

Army Postal Service on medical grounds attributable to or aggravated by military service or

circumstances beyond their control and awarded medical or other disability pension; (or)

f. Personnel who were on deputation in Army Postal Service for more than six months prior to

14th April 1987; (or)

g. Gallantry award winners of the Armed forces including personnel of Territorial Army; or

h. Ex-recruits boarded out or relieved on medical ground and granted medical disability pension

w.e.f. 01.02.2006.

10.2 Persons serving in the Armed Forces of the Union, who on retirement from service would come

under the category of Ex-Servicemen are eligible to apply for re-employment one year before the

completion of the specific terms of engagement and avail themselves of all concessions available to

Ex- Servicemen but such persons shall not be permitted to leave the uniform until they complete the

specific terms of engagement in the Armed Forces of the Union.

Accordingly, such serving Defence personnel to be released within one year from the closing date of

ONLINE Registration of applications for this CEN (i.e. on or before 12.04.2020) can also apply, both for

vacancies earmarked for Ex-Servicemen and for posts not reserved for them. However, they should

possess the prescribed educational qualifications as on the closing date of registration of online

applications for this CEN i.e. 12.04.2019.


10.3 Ex-Servicemen candidates who have already secured civil employment under Central Government in

Group C & D (including PSUs, autonomous bodies/statutory bodies, nationalized banks etc) after

availing of the benefits given to Ex-Servicemen will be permitted only the benefit of age relaxation as

prescribed for Ex-Servicemen for securing another employment in a higher grade or cadre in Group

C/D under Central Government. Such candidates will not be considered against the vacancies

reserved for Ex-Servicemen in the Central Government jobs.

10.4 If an Ex-Serviceman applies for various vacancies before joining any civil employment, he/she can

avail the benefit of reservation as Ex-Servicemen for any subsequent employment, subject to the

condition that an Ex-Serviceman as soon as he/she joins any civil employment, should give self-

declaration/undertaking to the concerned employer about the date wise details of application for

various vacancies, including this CEN, for which he/she had applied for, before joining the initial civil

employment. The acknowledged copy of this declaration along with no objection certificate (NOC)

from the civil employer should be produced during document verification failing which they will not

get benefit of reservation for Ex-Servicemen. Further, this benefit would be available only in respect

of vacancies which are filled on direct recruitment and wherever reservation is applicable to the Ex-

Servicemen.

10.5 The Medical standard of Ex-Serviceman will be according to para 534 of Indian Railway Medical

Manual (IRMM) Volume I, which may be accessed at www.indianrailways.gov.in.

11.0 PERSONS WITH BENCHMARK DISABILITIES (PwBD)

11.1 The suitability or otherwise of a post for PwBD has been indicated against each post, under the

column “Suitability for Persons with Benchmark Disability” with details of sub disability in Post

Parameters Table (Annexure A).

Benchmark Disabilities: - As per The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPwBD) Act, 2016 (effective

from 19th

April, 2017), the Benchmark Disabilities are as under:-

a. Blindness and low vision;

b. Deaf and hard of hearing;

c. Locomotor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack victims and

muscular dystrophy;

d. Autism, intellectual disability, specific learning disability and mental illness;

e. Multiple disabilities from amongst persons under clauses (a) to (d) including deaf-blindness in

the posts identified for each disability.

Definition of Specified Disabilities as provided in the Schedule of RPwBD Act, 2016 is as mentioned

below:

11.2 Definition of Specified Disabilities:

1. Physical disability: -

A) Locomotor disability (a person’s inability to execute distinctive activities associated with

movement of self and objects resulting from affliction of musculoskeletal or nervous system or both),

including-

(a) “Leprosy cured person” means a person who has been cured of leprosy but is suffering

from—

(i) loss of sensation in hands or feet as well as loss of sensation and paresis in the eye

and eye-lid but with no manifest deformity;

(ii) manifest deformity and paresis but having sufficient mobility in their hands and

feet to enable them to engage in normal economic activity;


(iii) extreme physical deformity as well as advanced age which prevents him/her from

undertaking any gainful occupation, and the expression “leprosy cured” shall be

construed accordingly;

(b) “cerebral palsy” means a group of non-progressive neurological condition affecting body

movements and muscle coordination, caused by damage to one or more specific areas of the

brain, usually occurring before, during or shortly after birth;

(c) “dwarfism” means a medical or genetic condition resulting in an adult height of 4 feet 10

inches (147 centimeters) or less;

(d) “muscular dystrophy” means a group of hereditary genetic muscle disease that weakens the

muscles that move the human body and persons with multiple dystrophy have incorrect and

missing information in their genes, which prevent them from making the proteins they need for

healthy muscles. It is characterized by progressive skeletal muscle weakness, defects in muscle

proteins, and the death of muscle cells and tissue;

(e) “acid attack victims” means a person disfigured due to violent assaults by throwing of acid

or similar corrosive substance.

B) Visual impairment—

(a) “blindness” means a condition where a person has any of the following conditions, after

best correction—

(i) total absence of sight; or

(ii) visual acuity less than 3/60 or less than 10/200 (Snellen) in the better eye with best

possible correction; or

(iii) limitation of the field of vision subtending an angle of less than 10 degree.

(b) “low-vision” means a condition where a person has any of the following conditions,

namely: -

(i) visual acuity not exceeding 6/18 or less than 20/60 upto 3/60 or upto 10/200

(Snellen) in the better eye with best possible corrections; or

(ii) limitation of the field of vision subtending an angle of less than 40 degree upto 10

degree.

C) Hearing impairment—

(a) “deaf” means persons having 70 dB hearing loss in speech frequencies in both ears;

(b) “hard of hearing” means person having 60 dB to 70 dB hearing loss in speech frequencies

in both ears

D) (1) “speech and language disability” means a permanent disability arising out of conditions such

as laryngectomy or aphasia affecting one or more components of speech and language due to

organic or neurological causes.

(2) Intellectual disability, a condition characterized by significant limitation both in intellectual

functioning (reasoning, learning, problem solving) and not adaptive behaviour which covers a range

of every day, social and practical skills, including—

(a) “specific learning disabilities” means a heterogeneous group of conditions wherein there is

a deficit in processing language, spoken or written, that may manifest itself as a difficulty to

comprehend, speak, read, write, spell, or to do mathematical calculations and includes such


conditions as perceptual disabilities, dyslexia, dysgraphia, dyscalculia, dyspraxia and

developmental aphasia;

(b) “autism spectrum disorder” means a neuro-developmental condition typically appearing in

the first three years of life that significantly affects a person’s ability to communicate,

understand relationships and relate to others, and is frequently associated with unusual or

stereotypical rituals or behaviours.

(3) Mental behaviour— “mental illness” means a substantial disorder of thinking, mood, perception,

orientation or memory that grossly impairs judgment, behaviour, capacity to recognize reality or

ability to meet the ordinary demands of life, but does not include retardation which is a condition of

arrested or incomplete development of mind of a person, specially characterized by sub normality of

intelligence.

(4) Disability caused due to—

(a) chronic neurological conditions, such as—

(i) “multiple sclerosis” means an inflammatory, nervous system disease in which the

myelin sheaths around the axons of nerve cells of the brain and spinal cord are

damaged, leading to demyelination and affecting the ability of nerve cells in the brain

and spinal cord to communicate with each other;

(ii) “Parkinson’s disease” means a progressive disease of the nervous system marked

by tremor, muscular rigidity, and slow, imprecise movement, chiefly affecting middle-

aged and elderly people associated with degeneration of the basal ganglia of the brain

and a deficiency of the neurotransmitter dopamine.

(b) Blood disorder—

(i) “Haemophilia” means an inheritable disease, usually affecting only male but

transmitted by women to their male children, characterized by loss or impairment of

the normal clotting ability of blood so that a minor wound may result in fatal bleeding;

(ii) “Thalassemia” means a group of inherited disorders characterized by reduced or

absent amounts of hemoglobin.

(iii) “Sickle cell disease” means a hemolytic disorder characterized by chronic

anemia, painful events, and various complications due to associated tissue and

organ damage; “hemolytic” refers to the destruction of the cell membrane of red

blood cells resulting in the release of hemoglobin.

(5) Multiple Disabilities (more than one of the above specified disabilities) including deaf, blindness

which means a condition in which a person may have combination of hearing and visual impairments

causing severe communication, developmental, and educational problems.

(6) Any other category as may be notified by the Central Government.

11.3. Degree of Benchmark Disability for Reservation and Competent Authority for Issue of Disability

Certificate: Only such persons would be eligible for relaxation in conditions/ reservation in posts who

suffer from not less than 40 percent of relevant benchmark disability. Those Persons with Benchmark

Disabilities (PwBD) who have availed the relaxation and/or reservation and shortlisted for Document

Verification have to submit Certificate of Disability issued by the Competent Authority as per the

form V, VI and VII of rule 18(1) under chapter 7 of Rights of Persons with Disabilities Rules, 2017

dated 15.06.2017. Refer Annexure V (A), Annexure V (B) and Annexure V(C) for the revised formats.

The existing certificates of disability issued under the Persons with Disabilities Act 1995 (since

repealed) shall continue to be valid for the period specified therein.


11.4 Assistance of Scribe: Visually Impaired (VI) candidates/candidates whose writing speed is affected by

Cerebral Palsy/muscular dystrophy/candidates with Locomotor disability (one arm)/Intellectual

disability (Autism, specific learning disability and mental illness) can avail the assistance of scribe for

writing answers on their behalf. For engaging the scribe, candidates will have to indicate the same

while filling ONLINE application form. Engagement of scribe will be subject to the following

conditions:

Candidates will have to arrange for the scribe on their own.

a. The scribe so arranged should not himself/herself be the candidate for the CEN for which

the candidate is appearing. Also same scribe should not be engaged for more than one

candidate. The scribe and the candidate shall give a declaration to this effect. Any violation, if

detected at any stage, will render both candidate and scribe disqualified.

b. Candidates opting for scribe will have to provide additional details for scribes during

submission of ONLINE application form as per Annexure V(D), so that RRBs/RRCs can issue e-

Call Letter for scribe and the same shall be signed by both candidate and scribe. Scribe should

produce original and valid ID proof at CBT Center and bring passport size photograph.

c. Separate e-Call Letter will be issued to scribes accompanying the candidates.

d. The candidate shall be responsible for any misconduct on the part of the scribe brought by

him/her during the examination.

e. Candidates availing the assistance of a scribe shall be eligible for compensatory time of not

less than 20 minutes for every hour of examination.

f. Candidates who wish to avail services of scribe but are unable to furnish the details of scribe

at the time of ONLINE application, may avail the services of scribe by filling up necessary

details in Format given at Annexure V(D) at the CBT center duly complying the conditions

stipulated for scribe. The change of scribe may also be allowed in emergency duly recording

reasons and filling the relevant details including pasting of photograph of the new scribe as

per Annexure V(D).

g. Conditions regarding engagement of scribe shall be subject to various provisions/orders of the

competent authority, as amended from time to time.

11.5 All one eyed candidates and candidates whose visual degree of disability is less than 40% shall not be

considered as Visually Impaired persons and the provision for engaging scribe shall not be applicable

to them.

11.6 Selected PwBD candidates will be subjected to medical examination by Railway Medical Authorities

at the time of document verification and only those conforming to the medical standards as laid

down in the Indian Railway Medical Manual and other extant provisions, as the case may be, will be

eligible for appointment.

11.7 When vacancies are reserved for PwBDs and full panel for PwBDs cannot be made with the minimum

qualifying percentage marks of each category, viz., UR, SC, ST, OBC-NCL, a relaxation of up to 2%

marks in the minimum qualifying marks prescribed for the community will be allowed for the PwBD

candidates.

12.0 RAILWAY ACT APPRENTICES

12.1 The vacancies to be filled from among the Course Completed Act Apprentices (CCAAs) trained in

Railway Establishments and possessing National Apprenticeship Certificate (NAC) granted by National

Council of Vocational Training (NCVT) is separately indicated in the vacancy table. This will be in the

nature of horizontal reservation as in the case of persons with benchmark disabilities (PwBDs) and

Ex-Servicemen. However, unlike in the case of PwBDs, there will be no carry forward of the unfilled

vacancies, to be filled by this mechanism. In case of shortfall, the vacant slots shall be filled from

others in the combined merit list.


12.2 The last date for registration of online application i.e. on or before 12.04.2019 of this CEN shall be

the cutoff date for completion of Apprenticeship. A candidate shall be considered to have completed

the Act Apprenticeship training, only if he has appeared in the NCVT examination before the last

date for registration of online application i.e on or before 12.04.2019 of this CEN and result for

which might not have been declared. However, the candidate should submit the NAC certificate

issued by NCVT during document verification failing which he/she shall not be eligible for reservation

as CCAA (trained in Railway Establishment) under this provision.

12.3 The course completed Act Apprentices will be eligible to apply for any RRB/RRC irrespective of the

railway establishment in which they have been trained subject to fulfilling other eligibility conditions.

Special Note for all Candidates seeking reservation/relaxation benefits:

All the candidates seeking reservation/relaxation benefits available for SC/ST/OBC-

NCL/EWS/PwBD/ExSM/CCAA (trained in Railway Establishment) must ensure that they are entitled

to such reservation/relaxation as per eligibility prescribed in the Rules/CEN. They should be in

possession of all the requisite certificates in the prescribed format in support of their claim as

stipulated in the Rules/CEN.

13.0 NO OBJECTION CERTIFICATE (NOC) FOR SERVING EMPLOYEES:

13.1 Candidates serving (including those undergoing induction training/probation) in any Central/State

Government Department including Railways or Public Sector Undertakings may apply directly to the

RRBs/RRCs duly informing their Employer. Shortlisted candidates should produce NOC from the

employer during document verification, failing which their candidature will be cancelled.

13.2 Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the

RRB/RRC concerned withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the

examination, their application/candidature will liable to be rejected/cancelled.

14.0 RECRUITMENT PROCESS

Only single online application has to be submitted by the candidate to the RRB/RRC of their choice for

all the notified posts of that RRB/RRC through the link provided on the official website.

The entire recruitment process shall involve Computer Based Test(s), Physical Efficiency Test (PET),

Document Verification and Medical Examination.

The date, time and venue for all the activities, namely, CBT, PET, DV and Medical Examination or any

other additional activity as applicable shall be fixed by the RRBs/RRCs and shall be intimated to the

eligible candidates in due course. Request for postponement of any of the above activity or for

change of venue, date and shift will not be entertained under any circumstances.

14.1 Computer Based Test

All the eligible candidates have to undergo a Computer Based Test(s) on the specified date(s), time

and venue(s) as per the e-call letter to be downloaded by the candidates from the websites of

RRBs/RRCs. The information about the e-call letter download shall be communicated through the

websites as well as personal email communication to the candidates.

The examination duration and number of questions for CBT are indicated below:

Exam Duration

in Minutes

No of Questions (each of 1 mark) from

Total No of Questions General

Science Mathema

tics

General Intelligence

and Reasoning

General Awareness and Current

Affairs 90* 25 25 30 20 100


*The examination duration will be 120 Minutes for eligible PwBD candidates

accompanied with Scribe.

The section wise distribution given in the above table is only indicative and there may be some

variation in the actual question paper. There will be negative marking and 1/3 marks shall be

deducted for each wrong answer.

Minimum percentage of marks for eligibility in various categories: UR-40%, EWS-40%, OBC(Non

creamy layer)-30%, SC-30%, ST-30%. These percentage of marks for eligibility may be relaxed by 2%

for PwBD candidates in case of shortage of PwBD candidates against vacancies reserved for them.

Where a second stage CBT is deemed necessary and held, the Railway Administration reserves the

right to treat the first stage CBT as a qualifying test for the purpose of short listing a reasonable

number of candidates for the second stage.

Question Type and Syllabus:

The Questions will be of objective type with multiple choices and are likely to include questions

pertaining to:

a. Mathematics Number system, BODMAS, Decimals, Fractions, LCM, HCF, Ratio and Proportion,

Percentages, Mensuration, Time and Work, Time and Distance, Simple and Compound Interest,

Profit and Loss, Algebra, Geometry and Trigonometry, Elementary Statistics, Square root, Age

Calculations, Calendar & Clock, Pipes & Cistern etc.

b. General Intelligence and reasoning

Analogies, Alphabetical and Number Series, Coding and Decoding, Mathematical operations,

Relationships, Syllogism, Jumbling, Venn Diagram, Data Interpretation and Sufficiency,

Conclusions and Decision making, Similarities and Differences, Analytical Reasoning,

Classification, Directions, Statement – Arguments and Assumptions etc.

c. General Science

The syllabus under this shall cover Physics, Chemistry and Life Sciences of 10th

standard level

(CBSE).

d. General Awareness on current affairs in Science & Technology, Sports, Culture, Personalities,

Economics, Politics and any other subject of importance.

It may be noted that the topics listed above are illustrative and not necessarily exhaustive.

14.2 PHYSICAL EFFICIENCY TESTS (PET)

Based on the merit of the candidates in the CBT, candidates shall be called for PET Three times the

community wise total vacancy of the Posts notified against RRBs/RRCs. However, Railways reserve

the right to increase/decrease this ratio as required to ensure availability of adequate/reasonable

number of candidates for all the notified posts. Passing Physical Efficiency Test (PET) is mandatory

and the same will be qualifying in nature. The criterion for PET is as under:

Male candidates Female candidates

Should be able to lift and carry 35 Kg of

weight for a distance of 100 metres in 2

minutes in one chance without putting the

weight down ; and

Should be able to run for a distance of 1000

metres in 4 minutes and 15 seconds in one

chance.

Should be able to lift and carry 20 Kg of

weight for a distance of 100 metres in 2

minutes in one chance without putting the

weight down; and

Should be able to run for a distance of 1000

metres in 5 minutes and 40 seconds in one

chance.


Note:

1) The Persons with Benchmark Disabilities(PwBD) as specified in Para 11.0 are exempted from

appearing for PET. However, after qualifying in the CBT, such candidates will have to pass the

medical examination prescribed for PwBD.

2) It is the candidates’ responsibility to ensure that they are medically fit enough to attempt the PET.

Railways will not be responsible for any injury/harm suffered by candidates as a result of

participating in the PET.

14.3 Document Verification and Empanelling of Candidates

Based on the performance of candidates in CBT subject to their qualifying in PET, candidates twice

the number of vacancies will be called for Document Verification as per their merit and options.

These additional candidates will, however, be considered for empanelment only if there is a shortfall

in empanelment from the merit list or/and as replacement against the shortfall on account of not

joining of recommended candidates in the working post or/and any other special requirements.

In case of two or more candidates securing same marks, their merit position shall be determined by

age criteria i.e., older person shall be placed at higher merit and in case age being same, then

alphabetical order (A to Z) of the name shall be taken into account to break the tie.

Appointment of selected candidates is subject to their passing requisite Medical Fitness Test to be

conducted by the Railway Administration, final verification of educational and community certificates

and verification of antecedents/character of the candidates.

It may also be noted that all candidates successful in DV are sent for Medical Examination. Clearing of

such Medical Examination by additional candidates (those called for DV beyond the notified number

of vacancies) will give such candidates no right to be considered for appointment.

Candidates may please note that RRBs/RRCs only recommend names of the empanelled candidates

and appointment is offered ONLY by the respective Railway Administrations.

15.0 NORMALISATION OF MARKS:

Short listing of Candidates for various stages shall be based on the normalized marks obtained by

them whenever CBT is conducted in multiple sessions for the same syllabus. The normalization

scheme to be adopted for short listing the candidates from CBT to PET (as applicable) and for

document verification is detailed below:

15.1 CALCULATION OF NORMALIZED MARKS FOR MULTI-SESSION PAPERS: In CBT, the examination may

have to be conducted in multiple sessions. For these multisession papers, a suitable normalization is

applied to take into account any variation in the difficulty levels of the question papers across

different sessions. The formula for calculating the normalized marks for the multi-session papers is

detailed below:

Though Railway Administration reserves the right to modify the formula/adopt different formula

based on technical considerations.


16.0 HOW TO APPLY

a) Candidates can apply for the notified posts of any one Railway only as per their eligibility through

ONLINE application mode by visiting the official website of RRBs as listed at Para 21.0 (A).

b) Read all the Information and Instructions detailed in this CEN thoroughly before starting to fill up

the application by clicking the appropriate Link on the RRB websites. It is essential that the candidate

understands all information of this CEN correctly to prevent any mistakes while filling application.

c) Scanned documents in JPEG Format to be kept ready before filling the application

In order to ensure speedy filling up of application by the candidates, they should keep the following

documents ready in digital form before logging in to the application page.

• Candidate Photograph: JPEG image of size 20 to 50KB (Please Refer Para 16.1(o)(3)

regarding specification of photograph).

• Candidate Signature: JPEG image of size 10 to 40KB (Please Refer Para

16.1(o)(4)&(5)regarding specification of signature).

• SC/ST Certificate (Only for candidates seeking Free Travel Pass): JPEG image of size 50 to

100KB.(Please Refer Para 16.1(p) regarding SC/ST Certificate upload).

• Scribe Photo (wherever applicable): JPEG image of size 20 to 50KB (Please Refer Para

16.1(o)(3)regarding specification of photograph).

d) Check Railway wise Vacancies for the qualification and Reservation Category of the candidate: The

candidates are advised to check the Post Parameter Table and Vacancy Table in this CEN to ascertain

vacancies notified against all Railways and then decide the Railway for which they wish to apply and

ensure that the Railway to which they wish to fill the online application is having vacancies for their

educational qualification, community/category and eligibility in terms of age, medical standards,

disability etc.

e) Following steps may be followed to dynamically ascertain the availability of vacancies and candidate’s

eligibility for various posts notified:

• Post Parameter Table: Click on the Post Parameter Table Tab. From this table, candidate

can ascertain the post(s) for which he/she is eligible as per qualification, type of disability

for which post is suitable if PwBD, required medical standards etc.

• Vacancy Table: To ascertain the comprehensive details of vacancy of all the posts notified

against a Railway for his/her eligibility, candidate may select the Railway from the drop

down list of Railways and can view the vacancies for all the notified posts against various

Railways on selecting the eligibility parameters.

• After scrutinizing the vacancy table, candidates may decide the Railway for which they

wish to apply duly ensuring that vacancy exists for their

qualification/community/EWS/CCAA/PwBD/ExSM category etc.

• Once the Railway has been selected, preliminary registration is completed and

registration number is allotted, change of Railway will not be permitted under any

circumstances.

f) Candidates are required to go to the link provided for filling ONLINE application and fill up the

personal details/Bio-Data, fee paid etc, carefully. They are also required to exercise their

option/preference for Post(s) and Railway(s).

g) CANDIDATES PLEASE NOTE:

• Multiple posts and other requirements have been notified in this CEN. The candidates are

required to indicate their Post-wise and Railway wise preferences very carefully. Options


once exercised in the ONLINE Application shall be final and no request for change shall be

entertained. Therefore, candidates are advised to be careful in exercise of option for Post(s)

and Railway(s). RRBs/RRCs will allot the post and the Railway to the selected candidates as

per the preference of the candidates subject to merit and vacancy position. However, in case

of administrative exigencies/requirements, RRBs/RRCs reserve the right to allot any

post/Railway subject to the suitability of the candidate(s).

• Candidates with partial option will be considered only for the specific categories opted by

them since not opting for certain categories or all categories would indicate their

unwillingness for the same.

• Candidates are advised to keep their personal mobile number and personal valid e-mail ID

active throughout the recruitment process, as all communications from RRBs/RRCs will be

sent only through SMS/e-mail. Only one ONLINE Registration is permitted through one mobile

number and one email ID under this CEN. RRBs/RRCs will not entertain any request for change

of mobile number and e-mail address at any stage. Candidates are advised to note and preserve

their Registration Number for further stages of recruitment process/ correspondence with

RRB/RRC concerned.

Candidates are further advised to visit the official website(s) of RRBs/RRCs frequently to get the latest

information on various stages of recruitment process or any changes about this CEN.

The onus is on the candidates to prove with valid documents that all the information submitted by

them in the ONLINE application is true.

16.1 STEPS TO SUBMIT ONLINE APPLICATION:

After completing the process at Para 16.0 a, b, c & d above, carry out the following:

a) Select the Railway to which you wish to apply. Please be aware that, Railway once selected cannot

be changed after the preliminary registration is completed and Registration number is allotted.

b) Confirm that you have read and understood the instructions clearly by clicking the check box. Click

on the “New Registration”

c) Registration Details: Enter your name, Date of Birth and Father’s name as per Para 1.7 of General

Instructions, Mother’s Name, Aadhaar Number, SSLC/Matric Registration Number, Year of Passing,

Mobile Number and email-ID and then submit for registration. Candidates with ITI/NAC qualification

alone can enter Registration number/year of passing for ITI/NAC qualification instead of SSLC/Matric.

Before submitting for registration, ensure and confirm that all the information furnished above are

correct, as the details furnished for registration cannot be changed later. Please note that the email

ID used for the Registration must be yours and unique. Also note that both the email and Mobile

Number will be verified during the Online Application process with a One Time Password (OTP).

Only one ONLINE Registration is permitted through one mobile number and one email ID under this

CEN.

d) Verification of email ID and mobile number through OTP: On submitting the primary details, the

Registration Number and Password shall be displayed to the candidate. Also, OTPs shall be sent to

the registered Mobile Number and email along with the Registration details. The candidate should

retrieve the OTPs from email and Mobile and then enter OTPs to proceed with the filling up of

application and to make payment.

Candidates should note and preserve their Registration Number for later reference during the

recruitment process and RRB/RRC will not entertain any request seeking registration number.

e) Candidates can proceed with the online application by clicking on the “Already Registered” Button

on the Home Page using the Registration Number and password.


f) In the Part I of application page, provide the details of Educational Qualification, Community i.e

UR/OBC(NCL)/SC/ST/EWS, Gender, Religion, Ex SM, PwBD, CCAA, Minority, Economically Backward

Class and Age Relaxation eligibility category as applicable and other details.

g) In the Part II of application page, candidate has to indicate his/her priority/preference of the posts.

Set priority / preferences for posts: If the candidate is eligible for more than one post based on

his/her educational qualification and other details furnished, he/she must set the

priority/preferences for these posts. The list of posts (in the chosen Railway) for which a candidate is

eligible is displayed. Similarly, if the chosen Railway has vacancies for more than one Railway, then

vacancies for all such Railways for which a candidate is eligible, will be listed out. The candidate

should fill their priority/preferences number in the textbox against each post that he/she is eligible

for, in the Railway they are applying to.

h) Payment and Bank Account Details:

i. On completion of application details as above, the candidate will be directed to the payment

page to choose payment mode i.e. Bank (Online Net Banking/Credit Card/Debit Card/UPI and

Offline Challan) or Post Office Challans as explained in Para 7 and complete the payment

process. Chose the mode of payment and complete the payment process. If there is a failure

of Online payments, the candidate has to make another transaction. Please note the last date

and time specified for each mode of payment and submit the application well in time.

ii. Those paying through Bank-offline mode, the payment confirmation may take 2 hours and

hence they have to again login after 2 hours and look for confirmation of payment status.

iii. The time period for payment confirmation shall vary from 24 hrs. to 48 hrs.in case of Post

Office payment.

N.B.- Whenever there is a failure in Bank payment, the candidate should contact the Bank and not

RRB. Charge Back Claim against card payment is not permitted as payment is being made after

availing the services of Registration, Filling up of application and Giving preference for posts.

i) Scribe for PwBD Candidates: Indicate option for scribe if you are a PwBD candidate and eligible for

scribe. Only the candidates suffering from Visually Impairment (VI) or the candidates whose writing

speed is affected by Cerebral Palsy/muscular dystrophy/candidates with Locomotor disability (one

arm)/Intellectual disability (Autism, specific learning disability and mental illness) are eligible for

availing scribe against this CEN. In case you have firmed up the scribe, then enter the details of scribe

such as name, father’s name, educational qualification etc. The scribe so arranged should not

himself/herself be the candidate for the notification for which the candidate is appearing and same

scribe should not be engaged for more than one candidate.

j) Detailed Educational Qualification: Furnish all the relevant information on the qualification as

required in the application.

k) Choice of Exam Language: English is the default language. In case the candidate wishes to choose any

other language, then the same can be selected from the drop down list of languages. The languages

listed are Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Odia,

Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu. In case of any difference/ discrepancy/dispute in the Questions

between English and the opted language, the content of English version shall prevail.

l) Candidates will have to fill the details of a valid Photo ID card in the application which they will have

to bring in ORIGINAL as identity proof during CBT, PET, DV, Medical or any subsequent stages of

exam. The valid Photo ID Card should be any one of the following:

i) Voter Card,


ii) Aadhaar Card,

iii) Printout of e-Aadhaar (not Photostat/Scanned copy of Aadhaar),

iv) Driving License,

v) PAN card,

vi) Passport,

vii) Identity Card issued by the employer in case the candidate is a Govt. employee,

viii) College / University Photo ID card, if still studying.

Complete the balance fields e.g. Mother Tongue, Moles/Identification Marks, Address etc.

m) Bank Account Details for Refund: Candidates who attend CBT are eligible for refund of examination

fee as per details in Para 7. All candidates who have given the confirmation to receive their refund to

the account from which they have made the application fee payment, need not fill these details and

hence, this will not be visible for them. (i) Only those candidates who do not wish to receive the

refund in the account through which they paid examination fee should provide the details of

Beneficiary Account in which they wish to receive the refund viz. Beneficiary Name, Account Number,

Name of Bank and IFSC Code in the Online Application. (ii) Those candidates who have deposited

their fees through Post Office or SBI Challan must provide the details of Beneficiary Account in which

they wish to receive the refund viz. Beneficiary Name, Account Number, Name of Bank and IFSC Code

in the Online Application, otherwise they will not received the refund.

n) Candidates may indicate their consent or otherwise for sharing the scores obtained by them in

RRB/RRC exams with other Ministries/Departments/PSUs and Private organizations, for recruitment

in their organizations.

o) Photograph and Signature Upload:

1. Candidate will be automatically directed to ‘Photo and Signature Upload’ part of the application.

2. Select the Upload Photo Tab and upload your colour photograph. The photograph should comply

with the following requirements

3. SPECIFICATIONS FOR PHOTOGRAPH:

a. It should be a Color Passport Photograph with white/light color background.

b. It should be of size 35mmX45mm or 320 x 240 pixels .

c. It should be in JPG/JPEG format scanned with 100 DPI resolution.

d. The size of the photograph should be between 20-50KB.

e. The color photograph must have been taken on or after 01.01.2019 in a professional studio.

Photographs taken using mobile and self-composed portraits may result in rejection of

application.

f. The photo should have clear front view of the candidate without cap and sunglasses.

g. The face should occupy at least 50% of the area of the photograph with a full face view

looking at the camera directly.

h. The main features of the face must not be covered by hair of the head, any cloth or any

shadow.

i. Forehead, eyes, nose and chin should be clearly visible.

j. In case the candidate wears glasses, then the photograph should not have any

glare/reflections on glasses and eyes should be clearly visible.

k. The photograph must match with the appearance of the candidate on the days of CBT, PET,

Document Verification and Medical test. This is especially important in case candidate chosen

to wear plain glasses, keep or shave off moustache and beard or have particular hairstyle

while taking the photograph. Any material change in these or any other distinctive features at

the stage of CBT, PET, DV and Medical Examination would result in rejection of candidature.


l. PwBD candidates should also upload passport photograph as per above specifications only

and not the full body photograph used in the disability certificate.

m. Candidates are advised to keep at least 12 (Twelve) copies of the same photograph for further

use as and when required during the recruitment process.

4. Select upload Signature Tab and upload your Scanned Signature. The signature image should

comply with the following specifications.

5. Specification for Signature Image:

a. The applicant has to sign on white paper with Black Ink pen within a box of size 50mm x

20mm.

b. Signature must be in running hand and NOT in Block/Capital or Disjointed letters.

c. The image should be in JPG/JPEG format scanned with 100 DPI resolution.

d. Dimensions of 50mm x 20mm or 140 x60 pixels (preferred).

e. Size of file should be between 10KB-40KB.

Notes:

i. The signature must be of the applicant only and not of any other person.

ii. The applicants signature obtained during registration and at the time of

CBT/PET/Document Verification/Medical should match the uploaded signature.

iii. In case it is found that there is a mismatch of signature, the candidate may be disqualified,

legal prosecution will be initiated and the candidate will be debarred for life from

appearing in all railway recruitments conducted by RRBs or by RRCs.

6. SCANNING AND RESIZING OF THE PHOTOGRAPH AND SIGNATURE:

a. Set the scanner resolution to a minimum of 100 dpi (dots per inch).

b. Set Color to True Color. File Size as specified above.

c. Crop the image in the scanner to the edge of the photograph/signature, then use the upload

editor to crop the image to the final size (as specified above).

d. The image file should be in JPG or JPEG format. An example file name is: image01.jpg or

image01.jpeg.

e. Image dimensions can be checked by listing the folder files or moving the mouse over the file

image icon. Candidates can easily obtain photo and signature in .jpeg format not exceeding

50KB & 40KB respectively by using MS Paint or MS Office Picture Manager.

f. Scanned photograph and signature in any format can be saved in .jpg format by using ‘Save

As’ option in the File menu and size can be reduced below 50KB (photograph) & 40KB

(signature) by using crop and then resize option in the ‘Image’ menu. Similar options are

available in other photo editors also.

p) SC/ST Certificate Upload:

Candidates belonging to SC/ST community who have opted to avail Free Rail Travel, have to upload

scanned copy of their SC/ ST certificates (JPG/JPEG format, 50KB – 100KB) also for availing the facility

of Free Travel Authority (Second Class Railway Pass).

CARE: If the file size and format for photograph, signature and SC/ST Community Certificate are

not as prescribed, an error message will be displayed.

q) Submission of Application:

In the end candidates have to confirm the declaration “I hereby declare that I have gone through the

eligibility criteria for the post(s) applied for and meet all the requirements therein, that all the

details furnished by me in the application are true and complete to the best of my knowledge &

belief and nothing has been concealed or suppressed. I also understand that in case, any of the

details furnished is found untrue during any stage of recruitment or thereafter, RRB/RRC shall


disqualify me for the post(s) applied for and /or I shall be liable for any other action under the

extant rules”.

After confirming the above declaration and submission of the application, the candidate may save

the file as “PDF” and/or take print of the application and preserve it for reference and record.

16.2 MODIFICATION OF APPLICATION:

a. After final submission of ONLINE application, in case the candidates wish to make minor changes

to correct inadvertent errors in the application, the correction of data other than Railway, email

and mobile number can be done by paying the modification fee of Rs 100 (Non-Refundable). The

modification fee shall be applicable to all candidates including fee concession categories and this

fee is not refundable for any category.

b. In the case of a candidate modifying his community from SC/ST to UR or OBC, he will have to pay

the difference in examination fee i.e. Rs 250 in addition to the modification fee. In case of

failure to do so, his modified application will not be accepted.

c. Similarly, if a candidate is switching from Ex.SM/PwBD/Female/Transgender to UR/OBC(NCL)/Non

Ex.SM/Non PwBD/Male etc., he will have to pay the difference in examination fee i.e. Rs 250 in

addition to the modification fee. In case of failure to do so, his modified application will not be

accepted.

d. The modification to the registration and application details can be done for maximum two

times only.

e. CAUTION: Candidates who wish to modify their application are advised to do the same

sufficiently well in advance of the closing date and time of the CEN. In case, due to last minute

congestion, if the modifications attempt fails at any stage, and the modification carried out have

not been saved or not submitted in time, the earlier information furnished in the application shall

be considered and no correspondence on this subject shall be entertained.

f. The Railway opted for, email id and mobile number cannot be changed.

g. The step by step procedure for modification of the application shall be as below:

i. Login using Registration Number and Password

ii. Pay modification fee through any of the modes available for actual examination fee

payment. Ensure payment is done well within the date and time prescribed.

iii. Click on the ‘Modify Application’ Button.

iv. Proceed with the changes intended as per instructions given and submit the application.

Preserve the print out of latest application for record.

16.3 INVALID APPLICATIONS / REJECTIONS:-

Online applications are liable for rejection on the following grounds amongst others:

a. Invalid photos on account of Black and White photo, photo with cap or wearing Goggles or

covered head. Photos which are disfigured, small size, full body, showing only one side view of the

face, unrecognizable photos, Photostat copy of photo, group photo, selfie photo, photo taken by

mobile, morphed photo and online application without photo among others.

b. Signature in capital/block/disjointed letters.

c. Not possessing the prescribed qualification for the post(s) as on the closing date for registration

of online application i.e as on 12.04.2019.

d. Overaged or underaged or Date of Birth wrongly filled.

e. Multiple applications to different Raiways or to same Railway. In such case, all applications will be

rejected and such candidates will be debarred from future RRB/RRC exams.

f. Candidate's name figuring in the debarred list of any RRB / RRC.


g. Incomplete or incorrectly filled application.

h. Any other irregularities which are observed and considered as invalid by RRB/RRC.

NOTE: In case the application is rejected, candidates will be able to view their status ONLINE on the

website of RRBs/RRCs along with the reasons for rejection(s) which is final and binding and no further

correspondence shall be entertained on the subject. No refund of examination fee will be made on

account of rejection of application. SMS and email alerts shall also be sent to the candidates on their

registered mobile numbers and email IDs, as indicated in their ONLINE application. Candidates will not be

intimated by post.

17.0 HALL TICKET (e-CALL LETTER) FOR CBT, PET and Document Verification:

17.1 SMS and email messages will be sent to all eligible candidates about the e-Call letter and upload

details on their registered mobile number and email ID. No call letter will be sent by post. However,

candidates should regularly visit the official websites of RRB/RRC as there can be failure in delivery of

SMS/E-mail to the candidates due to reasons beyond control of RRBs/RRCS.

17.2 Eligible candidates can download e-Call letter along with Annexure V(D) (declaration for scribe,

wherever applicable) from the RRBs/RRCs websites about 10 days before the date of the

CBT/PET/Document Verification (as applicable). Call letter will not be sent to candidates by post.

17.3 Candidates should read the instructions on the e-Call letter carefully and follow them scrupulously.

Failure to comply with the instructions may lead to cancellation of their candidature.

17.4 In case of SC/ST candidates who opted for free rail travel facility and uploaded their valid caste

certificate for availing the benefit of free travel authority (Sleeper Class Railway Pass), the e-call letter

for CBT/PET/ DV (as applicable) will contain the free travel authority and such candidates will be

allowed to book ticket on submission of self-attested photo copy of e-call letter and SC/ST Certificate.

During the journey, these candidates should carry original SC/ST Certificate and one prescribed proof

of identity in original for undertaking journey, failing which they will be treated as travelling without

ticket and charged accordingly.

17.5 Candidates must bring their e- Call letter and the same valid Photo ID, the details of which he/she

has filled in the application (viz. Voter Card, Aadhaar Card, printout of e-Aadhaar (not

Photostat/Scanned copy of Aadhaar), Driving License, PAN card, Passport, Identity Card issued by the

employer in case the candidate is a Govt. employee, College / University Photo ID card, if still

studying, in ORIGINAL to the examination hall, failing which candidates shall NOT be allowed to

appear for the CBT/ PET/ DV (as applicable). The name, date of birth and photo on ID should match

with the details furnished in the online application, failing which the candidate will not be permitted

to appear in CBT/ PET/DV (as applicable).

17.6 Candidates must also bring one color photograph (of size 35mm x 45mm) which was uploaded in the

application, for appearing in the CBT/PET/DV(as applicable).

17.7 Candidates should leave blank spaces provided in the downloaded e-Call letter for writing self-

declaration paragraph (as the paragraph will be displayed on the screen during CBT), signature and

Left Thumb Impression (LTI) unfilled while coming for the exam.

Warning: Candidates will have to write the paragraph of Self-Declaration, Sign and affix LTI at the

venue of the CBT/PET/DV (as applicable) in the presence of the invigilator at the Examination

hall/Venue ONLY and hand over the same to the invigilator before the conclusion of the

examination. Candidates writing the self-declaration paragraph and/or Signing in

CAPITAL/BLOCK/DISJOINTED letters will be rejected.


17.8 RRBs/RRCs will not entertain any request for any change in examination center, date and session

allotted to candidate(s).

18.0 VERIFICATION OF ORIGINAL DOCUMENTS AND FORMAT OF CERTIFICATES:

18.1 To ascertain their eligibility as on the closing date for registration of online application, candidates

are required to produce all original documents with two sets of self-attested photo copies of all

documents at the time of Document Verification. Further, these candidates should upload the

scanned copies (in true color) of all the certificates as applicable prior to their document verification

date through www.rrbdv.in portal.

18.2 All Certificates should be either in English or in Hindi only. Where certificates are not in English /

Hindi, self attested translated version (In Hindi / English) should be produced wherever / whenever

required. Certificates produced during the document verification should be strictly in the prescribed

formats.

18.3 No additional time will be given to the candidates not producing their original certificates on date of

their document verification and the candidature of such candidates is liable to be cancelled.

18.4 Documents to be brought by candidates in original (as applicable) for document verification are

indicated below:

1. Matriculation/High School Examination Certificate or Equivalent certificate as Proof for Date

of Birth and Matriculation Qualification. (The candidate’s name and the father’s/mother’s

name mentioned in the application will also be verified with reference to the names

mentioned in this certificate.)

2. NCVT(NTC/NAC) / SCVT Certificate as applicable.

3. SC/ST certificate in the format as per Annexure I.

4. OBC-NCL certificate as per Annexure II (Not older than one year from the date of document

verification)

5. Non creamy layer declaration by OBC-NCL candidates as per Annexure II A

6. Income and Asset Certificate to be produced by Economically Weaker Sections as per

Annexure III.

7. Income Certificate for Waiving Examination Fee for Economically Backward Classes as per

Annexure III A.

8. Minority Community declarations on Non-judicial Stamp Paper as per Annexure IV.

9. Original discharge certificate for Ex-servicemen.

10. Medical Certificate for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) as per Format at

Annexure V(A)/ Annexure V(B)/ Annexure V(C) as applicable.

11. Self-declaration for Ex-servicemen as per Annexure VII.

12. NOC from serving employees with date of appointment from current employer.

13. NOC from Serving Defense Personnel (ExSM) with probable date of discharge.

14. Gazette notification and/or any Legal document in case of formal change of name as

mentioned in Para 1.7

15. Receipt of offline payment if made through a challan at SBI branch or Pay-in-slip at

computerized Post Office.

16. Self-Certification by the Transgender candidates

17. J & K domicile certificate, if applicable.

18. Certificate of eligibility issued by the Government of India, as per para 4.1(f).

19. Decree of divorce/judicial separation from the competent court of law as applicable and

Affidavit stating that the candidate has not remarried.


20. Death Certificate of husband in case of widow and Affidavit stating that the candidate has not

remarried.

21. Ex SM candidates who secure civil employment after applying for this CEN should give self-

declaration to the concerned employer about the details of application against this CEN as

soon as they join. The acknowledged copy of this declaration along with NOC from the civil

employer should be produced during document verification.

22. In the Annexures attached to the CEN-RRC-01/2019, there is no Annexure VI as it is not relevant for this CEN.

NOTES

i. Candidates who wish to be considered against vacancies reserved/or seek age-relaxation must

submit the requisite/relevant certificate in original from the competent authority, in the

prescribed format at the time of Document verification. Otherwise, their claim for SC/ST/OBC-

NCL/EWS/ExSM/CCAA/PwBD status will not be entertained and their candidature/ applications

will be considered under General (UR) category, if eligible. The certificates should be as per the

formats annexed. Certificates obtained in any other format will not be accepted.

ii. The Educational Qualification Certificates viz. Provisional or Regular should contain the date of

issue. In case date of issue of these certificates is after the closing date for registration of online

application, then the consolidated mark sheet with date of declaration of the result of final

qualifying exam or individual mark sheets of all the semesters/years with date of declaration of

result on each should be submitted. In case of non-availability of date in any of these mark

sheets/certificates, a certificate from the Institution/ University/Board to this effect (indicating

date of declaration of result) should be produced at the time of document verification.

19.0 IMPERSONATION / SUPPRESSION OF FACTS – WARNING

19.1 Any candidate found using unfair means of any kind in the examination, sending someone else in

his/her place to appear in the examination, attempt to impersonate will be debarred from appearing

in all the examinations of all the RRBs/RRCs for lifetime. He/she will also be debarred from getting

any appointment in the Railways and if already appointed, will be dismissed from service. Such

candidates are also liable for legal prosecution.

19.2 Furnishing of any false information to the RRB/RRC or deliberate suppression of any information at

any stage will render the candidate disqualified and debarred from appearing at any selection or

examination for appointment on the Railways or to any other Government service and if appointed

the service of such candidate is liable to be terminated.

19.3 Candidates found submitting forged/fake certificates/documents of any kind for securing eligibility

and/or obtaining privileges, including free travel for appearing in the CBT/PET/DV shall lead to

rejection of their candidature for the particular recruitment for which he/she has applied. Further,

he/she will also be debarred from all examinations conducted by all RRBs/RRCs all over the country

for a period of 2 years/for life as deemed fit and legal action will be initiated, if warranted.

19.4 Candidate shall not bring in or attempt to bring in any political or other influence to further his/her

interest in respect of the recruitment. Candidature of such candidates is liable to be rejected.

20.0 MISCELLANEOUS:-

20.1 RRBs/RRCs reserve the right to conduct additional CBT/ PET / DV at any stage. RRBs/RRCs also

reserve the right to cancel part or whole of any recruitment process at any stage for any of the

categories notified in this CEN without assigning any reason thereof.


20.2 The decision of RRBs/RRCs in all matters relating to eligibility, acceptance or rejection of ONLINE

applications, issue of free Rail Passes, penal action for false information, modification of vacancies,

mode of selection, conduct of CBT, allotment of examination centers, selection, allotment of posts to

selected candidates etc., will be final and binding on the candidates and no enquiry or

correspondence will be entertained by the RRBs/RRCs in this regard.

20.3 RRBs/RRCs will not be responsible for any inadvertent errors and reserves the right to correct such

errors.

20.4 Any legal issues arising out of this CEN shall fall within the legal jurisdiction of respective Central

Administrative Tribunals under which the RRB/RRC concerned is located.

20.5 In the event of any dispute about interpretation, the English version of the notification as published

in the RRB/RRC websites will be treated as final.

21.0 A. Details of various RRBs and their Website Address are indicated below:-

Name of RRB and Railway Website Address and

Telephone Numbers

Name of RRB and Railway Website Address and

Telephone Numbers

Ahmedabad

(WR) www.rrbahmedabad.gov.in

Phone: 079 – 22940858

Chennai (SR)

www.rrbchennai.gov.in

Phone: 044 – 28275323

Ajmer (NWR) www.rrbajmer.gov.in

Phone: 0145 – 2425230

Gorakhpur (NER) www.rrbgkp.gov.in

Phone: 0551 – 2201209

Allahabad (NCR) www.rrbald.nic.in

Phone: 0532 – 2224531

Guwahati (NFR) www.rrbguwahati.gov.in

Phone: 0361 – 2540815

Bangalore (SWR) www.rrbbnc.gov.in

Phone: 080 – 23330378

080 -- 23334147

Kolkata (ER) www.rrbkolkata.gov.in

Phone: 033 – 25430108

Bhopal (WCR) www.rrbbpl.nic.in

Phone: 0755 – 2746660

Mumbai (CR) www.rrbmumbai.gov.in

Phone: 022 – 23090422

Bhubaneswar

(ECoR) www.rrbbbs.gov.in

Phone: 0674 – 2303015

Patna (ECR) www.rrbpatna.gov.in

Phone: 0612 – 2677680

Bilaspur (SECR) www.rrbbilaspur.gov.in

Phone: 07752 - 247291

Ranchi (SER) www.rrbranchi.gov.in

Phone: 0651 - 2462429

Chandigarh (NR) www.rrbcdg.gov.in

Phone: 0172 – 2730093

Secunderabad ( SCR) www.rrbsecunderabad.nic.in

Phone: 040 – 27821663

B. Details of various RRCs and their Website Address are indicated below:-

RRC Website Address RRC Website Address

Central Railway www.rrccr.com North Western Railway www.nwr.indianrailways.gov.in

Eastern Railway www.rrcer.com Southern Railway www.rrcmas.in

East Central Railway www.rrcecr.gov.in South Central Railway www.scr.indianrailways.gov.in

East Coast Railway www.rrcbbs.org

South Eastern Railway www.rrcser.in

Northern Railway www.rrcnr.org

South East Central

Railway www.secr.indianrailways.gov.in


North Central

Railway www.rrcald.org South Western

Railway

www.rrchubli.in

North Eastern

Railway www.ner.indianrailways.gov.in Western Railway

www.rrc-wr.com

Northeast Frontier

Railway www.nfr.indianrailways.gov.in West Central Railway www.wcr.indianrailways.gov.in

22.0 Abbreviations used in this CEN:

Stages of Recruitment

Process

CBT = Computer Based Test, PET = Physical Efficiency Test, DV = Document

Verification

Reservation/Age relaxation

Category

CCAA = Course Completed Act Apprentices, EBC = Economically Backward

Class, EWS= Economically Weaker Section, ExSM = Ex-Servicemen, OBC-CL=

Other Backward Classes- Creamy Layer, OBC-NCL = Other Backward Classes -

Non Creamy Layer, SC = Scheduled Caste, ST = Scheduled Tribe, UR =

Unreserved (General)

Disabilities VI = Visually Impaired, HI = Hearing Impaired, LD = Locomotors Disabilities,

OD = Other Disabilities, MD = Multiple Disabilities, B-VI=Backlog Visually

Impaired, B-HI = Backlog Hearing Impaired, B-LD = Backlog Locomotors

Disabilities, B-OD = Backlog Other Disabilities, B-MD = Backlog Multiple

Disabilities, AAV=Acid Attack Victim, ASD=Autism Spectrum Disorder,

B=Blind, BL=Both Legs, D=Deaf, DW=Dwarfism, HH=Hard of Hearing,

HI=Hearing Impairment, ID= Intellectual Disability, LC=Leprosy Cured,

LD=Locomotor Disability, LV=Low Vision, MW= Muscular Weakness,

OA=One Arm, OL=One Leg, OAL=One Arm & One Leg, PwBD=Persons With

Benchmark Disabilities, RPwD = Rights of Persons with Disabilities,

SLD=Speech and Language Disability, VI=Visually Impairment.

Railway Zones/Production

Unit/Organizations

CLW=Chittaranjan Locomotive Works, Chittaranjan; CR=Central Railway,

DLW=Diesel Locomotive Works, Varanasi; DMW=Diesel loco Modernization

Works, Patiala; ER=Eastern Railway, ECR=East Central Railway, ECoR=East

Coast Railway, ICF=Integral Coach Factory, Chennai; MCF=Modern Coach

Factory, Rai Bareli, NR=Northern Railway, NCR=North Central Railway, NER=

North Eastern Railway, NFR=Northeast Frontier Railway, NWR=North

Western Railway, PSU=Public Sector Undertaking, PU=Production Unit,

RCF=Rail Coach Factory, Kapurthala; RDSO=Research Design and Standards

Organization, Lucknow; Rly=Railway, RRB=Railway Recruitment Board,

RRC=Railway Recruitment Cell, RWF=Rail Wheel Factory, Bengaluru;

SR=Southern Railway, SCR=South Central Railway, SER=South Eastern

Railway, SECR=South East Central Railway, SWR= South Western Railway,

WR=Western Railway, WCR=West Central Railway.


(RRBs)

ADI=Ahmedabad, AII=Ajmer, ALD=Allahabad, BB=Mumbai,

BBS=Bhubaneswar, BPL=Bhopal, BSP=Bilaspur, CDG=Chandigarh,

GKP=Gorakhpur, GHY=Guwahati, JAT=Jammu Srinagar, KOL=Kolkata,

MAS=Chennai, MLD=Malda, MFP=Muzaffarpur, PNBE=Patna, RNC=Ranchi,

SBC=Bengaluru, SC=Secunderabad, SGUJ=Siliguri, TVC=Thiruvananthapuram

General CBSE=Central Board of Secondary Education; CEN=Centralized Employment

Notice, GP = Grade Pay, IFSC=Indian Financial System Code, JPEG= Joint


Photographic Experts Group, KB=Kilo byte, LTI=Left hand Thumb Impression,

OTP=One Time Password, UPI=Unified Payments Interface.

Institutions / Council /

Certificates ITI = Industrial Training Institute, NAC = National Apprenticeship Certificate,

NTC- National Trade Certificate, NOC = No Objection Certificate, NCVT-

National Council for Vocational Training, SCVT- State Council for Vocational

Training,

WARNING:

• Beware of Touts and job racketeers trying to deceive by false promises of securing job in Railways either

through influence or by use of unfair and unethical means. RRB/RRC never appoints any agent(s) or

coaching center(s) for action on its behalf. Candidates are warned against any such claims being made by

persons/agencies. Candidates are selected purely as per merit. Beware of unscrupulous elements and do

not fall in their trap. Candidates attempting to influence RRB/RRC directly or indirectly shall be

disqualified and legal action can be initiated against them.

• Candidates are advised to visit only the official website of RRBs/RRCs and beware of FAKE websites and

social media content put up by unscrupulous elements/touts.


This is to certify that Shri*/ Srimati/ Kumari* ......................................................................... son/daughter* of ………………................................................................ Village/Town …………….........................................District/Division*..............................................................of the.....................................................................State/UnionTerritory* belongs to the ……………….................................Caste*/Tribe which is recognised as a Scheduled Caste / Scheduled Tribe under:-

*The Constitution Scheduled Castes Order 1950. *The Constitution Scheduled Tribes Order 1950. *The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) (Union Territories) (Part C States) Order 1951; *The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) (Union Territories) (Part C States) Order 1951; [As amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Lists (Modification Order 1956, the Bombay Re-organisation Act 1960, the Punjab Re- organisation Act 1966, the State of Himachal Pradesh Act 1970, the North Eastern Areas (Re-organisation) Act 1971 and the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders, (Amendment) Act 1976] *The Constitution (Jammu and Kashmir)* Scheduled Castes Orders, 1956 *The Constitution (Andaman and Nicobar Islands)* Scheduled Tribes Order, 1959 as amended by the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled *Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 1976 *The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli)* Scheduled Castes Order, 1962. *The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Tribes, Order, 1962 *The Constitution (Pondicherry) Scheduled Castes Orders, 1964 *The Constitution (Uttar Pradesh) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1967 *The Constitution (Goa, Daman and Diu) Scheduled Castes Order, 1968 *The Constitution (Goa, Daman and Diu) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1968 *The Constitution (Nagaland) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1970. *The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Castes Order, 1978 *The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1978 *The Constitution (Jammu & Kashmir) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1989. *The Constitution (SC) Orders (Amendment) Act, 1990 *The Constitution (ST) Orders (Amendment) Ordinance Act, 1991 *The Constitution (ST) Orders (Amendment) Ordinance Act, 1996 *The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Orders (Amendment) Act, 2002 *The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Orders (Second Amendment) Act, 2002. *The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Orders (Amendment) Act, 2002. 2. Applicable in the case of Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes persons who have migrated from one State/Union Territory Administration. This certificate is issued on the basis of the Scheduled Castes/ Scheduled Tribes Certificate issued toShri/Srimati*....................................................................father/mother*of Shri/Srimati/Kumari…….…………………………………… of Village/ Town* …………..............................inDistrict/Division*............................................of the State/UnionTerritory*…………..………………….who belongs to the…………….......................Caste*/Tribe which is recognised as a Scheduled Caste/ Scheduled Tribe in the Station/ Union Territory* issued by the .................................................dated ………………… 3. Shri/Srimati/Kumari* …………………..………………………… and /or* his/her* family ordinarily resides in Village/Town* ................................................ District/ Division* ……………………………………. of the State/ Union Territory* of............................................

Place.................................. Signature.................................................................. Date................................... Designation............................................................... (with seal of Office) State/ Union Territory................................................ * Please delete the words which are not applicable. @ Please quote the specific presidential order. % Delete the Paragraph, which is not applicable Note: (a) The term “ordinarily reside(s)’ used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950.Officers competent to issue Caste/Tribe certificates. 1. District Magistrate / Additional District Magistrate / Collector / Deputy Commissioner / Additional Deputy Commissioner / Deputy Collector / 1st Class Stipendiary Magistrate / Sub-Divisional Magistrate / Taluka Magistrate / Executive Magistrate / Extra Assistant Commissioner. 2. Chief Presidency Magistrate / Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate / Presidency Magistrate. 3. Revenue Officers not below the rank of Tehsildar. 4. Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and / or his / her family normally reside(s). 5. Certificates issued by Gazetteed Officers of the Central or of a State Government Countersigned by the District Magistrate concerned. 6. Administrator/ Secretary to Administrator (Laccadive, Minicoy and Admindivi Islands).

Annexure I

FORM OF CASTE CERTIFICATE FOR SC/ST


FORM OF CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY OTHER BACKWAR D CLASSES APPLYING FOR APPOINTMENT TO POST UNDER THE GOVERNME NT OF INDIA

This is to certify that

Shri/Smt./Kumari..................................................................................................son/daughter of

…………………………………………………………. of Village/Town

.................................................in District/ Division ............................................................. in the

State/ Union Territory………………………………….. belongs to the

........................................................... community which is recognised as a Backward Class

under the Government of India, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment’s Resolution No.

……………………………………………………. Dated………………………*.

Shri/Smt./Kum.* ……................................................................................... and/or his/her family

ordinarily reside(s) in the…....................................................District/Division of the

……...........................................................State/Union Territory. This is also to certify that

he/she does not belong to the persons/sections (Creamy layer) mentioned in column 3 (of the

Schedule to the Government of India, Department of Personnel & Training OM No.

36012/22/93-Estt(SCT), dated 8.9.1993 and modified vide Government of India, Department of

Personnel and Training O.M.No.36033/1/2013-Estt. (Res) dated 27.05.2013 and 13.09.2017**.

Date:

DISTRICT MAGISTRATE / DY. COMMISSIONER ETC.

(Seal )

* The authority issuing the certificate may have to mention the details of Resolution of Government of India, in which the caste of the cand idate as OBC. ** As amended from time to time. Note: The term “Ordinarily” used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950.

Annexure II

OBC CERTIFICATE FORMAT


Proforma for declaration to be submitted by Other B ackward Class

Candidates at the time of document verification, wh o had applied for the

posts against Centralized Employment Notice No. RRC - 01/2019

“I, …………..................................................................................... son/daughter of Shri ................................................................................................. resident of Village/Town/City ............................................................. district ............................................................. State .......................................... hereby declare that I belong to the ......................................... (indicate your sub caste) community which is recognized as a backward class by the Government of India for the purpose of reservation in services as per orders contained in Department of Personnel and Training Office Memorandum No. 36012/22/93-Estt.(SCT) dated 08.09.1993. It is also declared that I do not belong to persons/sections (Creamy Layer) mentioned in column 3 of the Schedule to the above referred Office Memorandum dated 08.03.1993 and its subsequent revision through O.M.No.36033/1/2013-Estt. (Res) dated 27.05.2013 and 13.09.2017.

Place: Signature of the Candidate

Date: Name of the candidate

AnnexureIIA DECLARATION


Government of________________________

(Name & Address of the authority issuing the certif icate)

INCOME & ASSET CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY ECONOMICALLY WEAKER SECTIONS (EWS)

Certificate No. _______________________ Date:__ _______ VALID FOR THE YEAR_________ This is to certify that Shri/Smt./Kumari________________________________________ son/daughter/wife of ____________________________________________permanent resident of ____________________________________________,Village/Street ________________________Post Office_________________ District __________________ in the State/Union Territory ________________________________ Pin Code _________whose photograph is attested below belongs to Economically Weaker Sections, since the gross annual income* of his/her “family”** is below Rs. 8lakh (Rupees Eight Lakh only) for the financial year________ . His/her family does not own or possess any of the following assets***:

I. 5 acres of agricultural land and above; II. Residential flat of 1000 sq. ft. and above; Ill. Residential plot of 100 sq. yards and above in notified municipalities; IV. Residential plot of 200 sq. yards and above in. areas other than the notified municipalities.

2. Shri/Smt./Kumari _____________________________________ belongs to the caste which is not recognized as a Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe and Other Backward Classes (Central List).

Signature with seal of Office_______________________ Name_______________________________________ Designation___________________________________

Recent Passport size Attested Photograph of the Applicant

______________________________________________________________________________ *Note 1 : Income covered all sources i.e. salary, agriculture, business, profession, etc. **Note 2 :The term 'Family" for this purpose include the person, who seeks benefit of reservation, his/her parents and siblings below the age of 18 years as also his/her spouse and children below the age of 18 years. ***Note 3 : The property held by a "Family' in different locations or different places/cities have been clubbed while applying the land or property holding test to determine EWS status.

AnnexureIII


Proforma for Waiver of Examination Fees to be submi tted by Economically Backward Class(EBC)

candidates at the time of document verification aga inst

Centralized Employment Notice No. RRC- 01/2019

1. Name of Candidate: .......................................................................................

2. Father’s Name: .......................................................................................

3. Age: .......................................................................................

4. Residential Address: .......................................................................................

5. Annual Family Income (In words & Figures): ..........................................................................

Date: ............................. Signature:

Name:

Stamp of Issuing Authority:

Note: Economically Backward Classes will mean the candidates whose family income is less than Rs 50,000/- per annum. The following authorities are authorized to issue income certificates for the purpose of identifying economically backward classes:

(1) District magistrate or any other Revenue Officer up in the level of Tahsildar (2) Sitting Member of Parliament of Lok Sabha for persons of their own Constituency (3) BPL Card or any other certificate issued by Central Government under a recognized poverty alleviation programme or Izzat MST issued by Railways. (4) Union Minister may also recommend to Chairman/RRBs for any persons from anywhere in the country. (5) Sitting Member of Parliament of Rajya Sabha for persons of the district in which these MPs normally reside.

AnnexureIII A

Income Certificate for EBC


Proforma for Waiver of Examination Fees to be submi tted by Minority candidates at the time of Document Verific ation against

Centralized Employment Notice No. RRC- 01/2019

“I,.................................................................................................................son/daughter of Shri

.................................................................................................... resident of village/ town/city

................................................................. district ................................................... state

........................................................... hereby declare that I belong to the

............................................................. (indicate minority community notified by Central

Government i.e. Muslim / Sikh / Christian / Buddhist / Jain / Zoroastrians (Parsis)

Date: Signature of the Candidate

Place: Name of the Candidate

Note : At the time of document verification such candidates claiming waiver of examination fee will be required to furnish ‘Minority Community Declaration’ affidavit on Non Judicial Stamp paper that he / she belongs to any of the minority community notified by Central Government (i.e. Muslim / Sikh / Christian / Buddhist / Jain / Zoroastrians (Parsis).

Annexure IV

DECLARATION


FORM-V

Certificate of Disability (In cases of amputation or complete permanent paral ysis of limbs or dwarfism and in cases of blindness)

[See Rule 18(1)]

(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE)

Certificate No.:………………………………………………………………………… Date: ………………….

This is to certify that I have carefully examined

Shri/Smt/Kum…………………………………………………………………………………………………..son/

wife/ daughter of Shri…………………………………………………………… Date of Birth ….

(DD/MM/YYYY) Age………… Years, Male/Female……………….

Registration No. ………………………………… Permanent Resident of House No.

……………….…………...

Ward/Village/Street………………………….. Post Office……………………

District……………………………

State……………, whose photograph is affixed above, and am satisfied that:

(A) He/she is a case of:

*Locomotor Disability

*Dwarfism

*Blindness

(Please tick as applicable)

(B) The diagnosis in his/her case is …………………………………..…………….

(1) He/She has ……………% (in figure)…………….………….…. percent (in words) permanent

locomotor disability/dwarfism/blindness in relation to his/her ……………………..……. (part of body)

as per guidelines (to be specified).

(2) The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:

Nature of Document Date of Issue Details of authority issuing certificate

(Signature and Seal of Authorized Signatory of notified Medical Authority) Signature/Thumb Impression of the person in whose favour disability certificate is issued

ANNEXURE V(A)

Recent Passport Size

Attested Photograph

(Showing face only) of the person

with disability


FORM-VI

Certificate of Disability (In case of multiple disabilities)

[See Rule 18(1)] (NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE)

Certificate No.:………………………………… Date: ………………………. 1.This is to certify that we have carefully examined Shri/Smt./Kum …………………………………………………………..……………..son/wife/daughter Of Shri……………………………………………Date of Birth……………………(DD/MM/YYYY) Age………….years, Male/Female……………………Registration No. …………….........Permanent Resident of House No. ….….. Ward/Village/Street ……………….……………..whose photograph is affixed above and are satisfied that: (A) He/She is a case of Multiple Disability . His/Her extent of permanent physical impairment/disability has been evaluated as per guidelines (to be specified) for the disabilities ticked below and shown against the relevant disability in the table below:

S. No. Disability Affected Part

of Body Diagnosis Permanent Physical Impairment/

Mental Disability (in%) 1 Locomotors Disability @ 2 Muscular Dystrophy 3 Leprosy cured 4 Dwarfism 5 Cerebral Palsy 6 Acid attack Victim 7 Low Vision # 8 Blindness # 9 Deaf £

10 Hard of Hearing £ 11 Speech and Language disability 12 Intellectual Disability 13 Specific Learning Disability 14 Autism Spectrum Disorder 15 Mental illness 16 Chronic Neurological Conditions 17 Multiple Sclerosis 18 Parkinson’s Disease 19 Hemophilia 20 Thalassemia 21 Sickle Cell disease

(B)In the light of the above, his/her overall permanent physical impairment as per guidelines (to be specified), is as follows: In figures: ………………………..percent ,In words : ……………………………………………………...percent 2. This condition is progressive/non-progressive/likely to improve/not likely to improve. 3. Reassessment of disability is : i) not necessary,Or ii) is recommended/after ……………….Year …………………….…months, and therefore this certificate shall be valid till ……………………………………………(DD/MM/YYYY)

@ e.g. Left/Right/both arms/legs; # e.g Single eye/both eyes; £e.g. Left/Right/both ears

4. The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:

Nature of Document Date of issue Details of authority issuing certificate

5. Signature and seal of the Medical Authority

Name and seal of Member Name and seal of Member Name and seal of the Chairperson

Signature/Thumb impression

of the person in whose favour

disability certificate is issued

ANNEXURE V(B)


Attested Photograph

(Showing face only) of the person

with disability


FORM-VII Certificate of Disability

(In cases other than those mentioned in Forms V and VI) [See Rule 18(1)]

(NAME AND ADDRESS OF THE MEDICAL AUTHORITY ISSUING THE CERTIFICATE)

Certificate No.:………………………………… Date: ………………………. 1.This is to certify that we have carefully examined Shri/Smt./Kum …………………………………………………………..……………..son/wife/daughter Of Shri…………………………………………… Date of Birth……………………(DD/MM/YYYY) Age ………….years, Male/Female……………………Registration No. …………….........Permanent Resident of House No. ….….. Ward/Village/Street ……………….……………..whose photograph is affixed above and I am satisfied that He/She is a case of ______________________ Disability . His/Her extent of permanent physical impairment/disability has been evaluated as per guidelines (to be specified) for the disabilities ticked below and shown against the relevant disability in the table below:

S. No. Disability Affected Part

of Body Diagnosis Permanent Physical Impairment/

Mental Disability (in%) 1 Locomotor Disability @ 2 Muscular Dystrophy 3 Leprosy cured 4 Cerebral Palsy 5 Acid attack Victim 6 Low Vision # 7 Deaf £ 8 Hard of Hearing £ 9 Speech and Language disability 10 Intellectual Disability 11 Specific Learning Disability 12 Autism Spectrum Disorder 13 Mental illness 14 Chronic Neurological Conditions 15 Multiple Sclerosis 16 Parkinson’s Disease 17 Haemophilia 18 Thalassemia 19 Sickle Cell disease

(B)In the light of the above, his/her over all permanent physical impairment as per guidelines (to be specified), is as follows: In figures: ………………………..percent, In words : ……………………………………………………… percent 2. This condition is progressive/non-progressive/likely to improve/not likely to improve. 3. Reassessment of disability is : i) not necessary,Or ii) is recommended/after ……………….Year ……………………months, and therefore this certificate shall be valid till ……………………………………………(DD/MM/YYYY)

@ e.g. Left/Right/both arms/legs; # e.g Single eye/both eyes; £e.g. Left/Right/both ears 4. The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:

Nature of Document Date of issue Details of authority issuing certificate

Countersigned[(Countersignature and seal of the CMO/Medical Supdt.)Superintendent/Head of Government Hospital in case the certificate

is issued by a medical authority who is not a government servant (with seal)] (Authorised Signatory of notified Medical

Authority) (Name and Seal)

ANNEXURE V(C)

Note: In case this certificate is issued by a medical authority who is not a government servant, it shall be valid only if countersigned by the Chief Medical Officer of the District. The principal rules were published in the Gazette of India vide notification number S.O. 908(E),dated the 31st December, 1996.


Attested Photograph

(Showing face only) of the

person

Signature/Thumb impression of the person in whose favour disability certificate is issued


Annexure V(D) LETTER OF UNDERTAKING FOR USING SCRIBE

NOTE: Candidates who are Visually Impaired(VI)/ca ndidates whose writing speed is affected by Cerebral Palsy /muscular dystrophy/ candidates with locomotor disability (one arm)/Intellectual disability (Autism, specific learning disability and mental illness) are eligible for Scribe.

PARTICULARS OF SCRIBE PROPOSED TO BE ENGAGED BY THE CANDIDATE

1. ame of the Candidate ........................................................ 2. Roll No …………………………………………………………. 3. Name of CBT Center …………………………………………. 4. Qualification of Candidate ……………………………………. 5. Disability Type ………………………………………………… 6. Name of the Scribe ............................................................... 7. Date of Birth of the Scribe …................................................ 8. Father’s Name of the Scribe ................................................. 9. Address of the Scribe :

(a) Permanent Address ...........................................................

........................................................................................... (b) Present Address ................................................................

............................................................................................ 10. Educational Qualification of the Scribe .................................

..................................................................................................

.................................................................................................. 11. Relationship, if any, of the Scribe to the Candidate ……..............

12. DECLARATION:

i) We hereby declare that the particulars furnished above are true and correct to the best of our knowledge and belief. We have read/ been read out the instructions of the Railway Recruitment Board regarding conduct of the candidates assisted by Scribe/Scribes at this examination and hereby undertake to abide by them. ii) We declare that the Scribe himself/herself is not a candidate in this examination. We understand that in case it is found otherwise the candidature of both of us will be rejected. iii) We declare that the scribe has not acted/will not act as Scribe to any other candidate of this examination.

_______________________ ____________________ (Signature of the Candidate) (Signature of the Scribe)

Left thumb impression of the Left thumb impression of the Candidate in the box given above Scribe in the box given above

Signature of the Invigilator

Paste here recent colour Passport Size

Photograph of the SCRIBE of size 3.5 cmx

4.5cm (The colour photograph should not be more than 3 months

old.

Signature of SCRIBE

in the above box below the

photograph


Annexure VII

DECLARATION TO BE SUBMITTED BY EX-SERVICEMEN CANDID ATES REGARDING CIVIL EMPLOYMENT BY AVAILING EX-SERVICEMEN QUOTA. I understand that I shall not be eligible to be appointed to a vacancy reserved for Ex-Servicemen in regard to the recruitment covered by this Centralized Employment Notice (CEN), if I have at any time prior to such appointment, secured any employment on the civil side(including Public Sector Undertaking, Autonomous Bodies/ Statutory Bodies, Nationalized Banks, etc.), by availing of the concession of reservation of vacancies admissible to Ex-servicemen.

I also hereby declare the following facts:

a) I have not secured any civil employment by availing Ex- Servicemen quota, before attending for document verification for the posts of CEN RRC-01/2019

b) I have availed Ex-Servicemen quota for securing civil employment and I have given self-declaration/undertaking to my employer about the details of application(s) for various vacancies notified in CEN RRC-01/2019 for which I have applied for, before joining the civil employment. Certificate for submission of self-declaration/undertaking from the present Employer is enclosed.

(Strikeout whichever is not applicable)

Place: Signature:

Date:

Name:

Roll No:


ANNEXURE - A

CEN No. RRC-01/2019 - POST PARAMETERS

Cat

No Designation Dept

Medical

Standard

Suitability for Persons with Benchmark Disability Age

Minimum Educational

Qualification VI HI LD MD

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) MECHANICAL C1 B, LV D, HH OL, LC, DW, AAV Yes

18 to 33

years

10th pass (OR) ITI

from institutions

recognised by

NCVT/SCVT (or)

equivalent (OR)

National

Apprenticeship

Certificate (NAC)

granted by NCVT

2 ASSISTANT BRIDGE ENGINEERING B1 NO NO NO NO

3 ASSISTANT C&W MECHANICAL B1 NO D, HH OL, LC, DW, AAV Yes

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) STORES C1 LV D, HH OL, OA Yes

5 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (DIESEL) MECHANICAL B1 LV D, HH OL, LC, DW, AAV Yes

6 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (ELECTRICAL) ELECTRICAL B1 LV D, HH OL, LC, DW, AAV Yes

7 ASSISTANT OPERATIONS

(ELECTRICAL) ELECTRICAL B2 LV D, HH OL, LC, DW, AAV Yes

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN TRAFFIC A2 NO NO NO NO

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL & TELECOM S and T B1 LV D, HH OL, LC, DW, AAV Yes

10 ASSISTANT TRACK MACHINE ENGINEERING B1 NO D, HH OL, LC, DW, AAV Yes

11 ASSISTANT TL & AC ELECTRICAL B1 LV D, HH OL, LC, DW, AAV Yes

12 ASSISTANT TL & AC (WORKSHOP) ELECTRICAL C1 B, LV D, HH OL, LC, DW, AAV Yes

13 ASSISTANT TRD ELECTRICAL B1 NO D, HH OL, LC, DW, AAV Yes

14 ASSISTANT WORKS ENGINEERING B1 B, LV D, HH OL, LC, DW, AAV Yes

15 ASSISTANT WORKS (WORKSHOP) ENGINEERING C1 B, LV D, HH OL, LC, DW, AAV Yes

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT MEDICAL C1 B, LV D, HH OL, LC, DW, AAV Yes

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV ENGINEERING B1 NO NO NO NO

ABBREVIATIONS : S and T = Signal and Telecommunication; VI = Visually Impaired; HI = Hearing Impaired; LD = Locomotor Disability; MD = Multiple Disability; B =

Blind; LV = Low Vision; D = Deaf; HH = Hard of Hearing; OL = One Leg; OA = One Arm; LC = Leprosy Cured; DW = Dwarfism; AAV = Acid Attack Victim; NCVT =

National Council for Vocational Training; SCVT = State Council for Vocational Training.


ANNEXURE - B CEN No. RRC-01/2019 - VACANCY TABLE

Railway - wise and Post - wise vacancies for all the notified Posts

Central Railway (MUMBAI)

Cat

No Name of the Post

Rly./

PU Department

No. of Vacancies

UR SC ST OBC EWS Total ExSM CCAA* VI LD HI MD B-VI B-LD B-HI B-MD

(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) (12) (13) (14) (15) (16) (17) (18) (19) (20)

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) CR MECHANICAL 284 110 55 199 72 720 144 144 14 9 9 13 0 0 0 0

2 ASSISTANT BRIDGE CR ENGINEERING 22 8 4 14 5 53 11 11 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

3 ASSISTANT C and W CR MECHANICAL 333 122 78 250 87 870 174 174 0 19 20 31 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) CR STORES 118 47 32 112 34 343 69 69 7 4 4 7 0 0 0 0

5 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (DIESEL) CR MECHANICAL 38 15 10 31 11 105 21 21 0 2 2 2 0 0 0 0

6 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (ELECTRICAL) CR ELECTRICAL 40 14 5 22 9 90 18 18 2 2 2 4 0 0 0 0

7 ASSISTANT OPERATIONS (ELECTRICAL) CR ELECTRICAL 4 0 0 0 0 4 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN CR TRAFFIC 413 176 93 307 110 1099 220 220 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM CR S and T 198 76 55 230 62 621 124 124 0 13 12 22 0 0 0 0

10 ASSISTANT TRACK MACHINE CR ENGINEERING 149 58 29 103 38 377 75 75 0 5 5 7 0 0 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC CR ELECTRICAL 129 52 39 107 36 363 73 73 8 7 8 15 0 0 0 0

12 ASSISTANT TL and AC (WORKSHOP) CR ELECTRICAL 114 44 22 79 29 288 58 58 2 4 4 7 0 0 0 0

13 ASSISTANT TRD CR ELECTRICAL 156 61 30 99 39 385 77 77 0 10 9 18 0 0 0 0

14 ASSISTANT WORKS CR ENGINEERING 279 105 53 189 70 696 139 139 29 26 26 40 0 0 0 0

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT CR MEDICAL 46 17 8 30 11 112 22 22 6 3 4 6 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV CR ENGINEERING 1274 493 246 884 322 3219 644 644 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Railway Total 3597 1398 759 2656 935 9345 1870 1870 68 104 105 172 0 0 0 0


East Central Railway (HAJIPUR)

Cat

No Name of the Post

Rly./

PU Department

No. of Vacancies


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) (12) (13) (14) (15) (16) (17) (18) (19) (20)

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) ECR MECHANICAL 17 6 3 11 4 41 8 8 3 1 2 0 0 0 0 0

2 ASSISTANT BRIDGE ECR ENGINEERING 6 2 1 4 2 15 3 3 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

3 ASSISTANT C and W ECR MECHANICAL 110 43 26 77 29 285 57 57 0 9 11 10 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) ECR STORES 14 6 3 10 4 37 7 7 2 1 1 1 0 0 0 0

5 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (DIESEL) ECR MECHANICAL 31 11 7 22 8 79 16 16 4 2 3 1 0 0 0 0

6 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (ELECTRICAL) ECR ELECTRICAL 6 2 1 5 2 16 3 3 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0

7 ASSISTANT OPERATIONS (ELECTRICAL) ECR ELECTRICAL 5 4 2 4 2 17 3 3 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN ECR TRAFFIC 170 83 53 120 47 473 95 95 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM ECR S and T 167 62 31 114 42 416 83 83 8 10 8 3 0 0 0 0

10 ASSISTANT TRACK MACHINE ECR ENGINEERING 82 32 16 57 21 208 42 42 0 3 3 3 0 0 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC ECR ELECTRICAL 50 18 10 34 12 124 25 25 4 6 3 4 0 0 0 0

13 ASSISTANT TRD ECR ELECTRICAL 26 17 8 19 8 78 16 16 0 3 3 4 0 0 0 0

14 ASSISTANT WORKS ECR ENGINEERING 80 32 18 56 20 206 41 41 9 7 7 8 0 0 0 0

15 ASSISTANT WORKS (WORKSHOP) ECR ENGINEERING 16 6 3 9 4 38 8 8 4 2 2 4 0 0 0 0

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT ECR MEDICAL 8 3 2 5 2 20 4 4 0 2 1 0 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV ECR ENGINEERING 581 228 141 409 151 1510 302 302 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Railway Total 1369 555 325 956 358 3563 713 713 35 47 46 38 0 0 0 0


East Coast Railway (BHUBANESWAR)

Cat

No Name of the Post

Rly./

PU Department

No. of Vacancies


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) (12) (13) (14) (15) (16) (17) (18) (19) (20)

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) ECoR MECHANICAL 84 33 16 58 21 212 42 42 4 2 2 4 0 0 0 0

3 ASSISTANT C and W ECoR MECHANICAL 25 6 2 16 6 55 11 11 0 2 2 4 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) ECoR STORES 2 1 1 2 1 7 1 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0

5 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (DIESEL) ECoR MECHANICAL 14 10 10 1 4 39 8 8 2 3 1 5 0 0 0 0

6 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (ELECTRICAL) ECoR ELECTRICAL 11 5 2 4 3 25 5 5 2 1 1 1 0 0 0 0

7 ASSISTANT OPERATIONS (ELECTRICAL) ECoR ELECTRICAL 1 2 1 2 1 7 1 1 2 0 1 0 0 0 0 0

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN ECoR TRAFFIC 163 64 31 113 41 412 82 82 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM ECoR S and T 40 13 6 19 9 87 17 17 2 2 3 2 0 0 0 0

10 ASSISTANT TRACK MACHINE ECoR ENGINEERING 129 34 12 26 22 223 45 45 0 5 4 6 0 0 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC ECoR ELECTRICAL 2 1 0 1 1 5 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

12 ASSISTANT TL and AC (WORKSHOP) ECoR ELECTRICAL 17 7 4 12 5 45 9 9 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0

13 ASSISTANT TRD ECoR ELECTRICAL 34 20 5 11 8 78 16 16 0 2 3 3 0 0 0 0

14 ASSISTANT WORKS ECoR ENGINEERING 55 20 10 35 13 133 27 27 14 4 4 6 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV ECoR ENGINEERING 457 196 98 353 123 1227 245 245 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Railway Total 1034 412 198 653 258 2555 510 510 28 22 22 33 0 0 0 0


Eastern Railway (KOLKATA)

Cat

No Name of the Post

Rly./

PU Department

No. of Vacancies


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) (12) (13) (14) (15) (16) (17) (18) (19) (20)

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) CLW MECHANICAL 66 26 13 46 17 168 34 34 4 2 2 3 0 0 0 0

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) ER MECHANICAL 1245 411 206 553 268 2683 537 537 128 76 68 103 0 0 0 0

2 ASSISTANT BRIDGE ER ENGINEERING 10 4 2 7 3 26 5 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

3 ASSISTANT C and W ER MECHANICAL 556 203 97 283 127 1266 253 253 0 15 23 19 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) CLW STORES 4 1 1 3 1 10 2 2 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

5 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (DIESEL) ER MECHANICAL 83 24 11 44 18 180 36 36 2 1 3 3 0 0 0 0

6 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (ELECTRICAL) ER ELECTRICAL 119 38 22 77 29 285 57 57 5 3 3 4 0 0 0 0

7 ASSISTANT OPERATIONS (ELECTRICAL) ER ELECTRICAL 164 42 20 93 35 354 71 71 2 1 1 1 0 0 0 0

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN ER TRAFFIC 427 130 74 281 101 1013 203 203 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN METRO TRAFFIC 4 2 3 4 1 14 3 3 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM ER S and T 80 11 43 86 24 245 49 49 0 3 3 3 0 0 0 1

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM METRO S and T 6 2 1 4 1 14 3 3 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0

10 ASSISTANT TRACK MACHINE ER ENGINEERING 78 16 11 17 14 136 27 27 0 2 2 3 0 0 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC ER ELECTRICAL 272 70 33 154 59 588 118 118 13 5 5 9 0 0 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC METRO ELECTRICAL 13 7 3 11 4 42 8 8 1 1 1 0 1 1 2 0

12 ASSISTANT TL and AC (WORKSHOP) CLW ELECTRICAL 17 6 3 11 4 41 8 8 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0

12 ASSISTANT TL and AC (WORKSHOP) ER ELECTRICAL 318 89 45 73 58 583 117 117 15 5 5 14 0 0 0 0

13 ASSISTANT TRD ER ELECTRICAL 53 12 5 20 10 100 20 20 0 1 2 2 0 0 0 0

14 ASSISTANT WORKS ER ENGINEERING 36 14 7 25 9 91 18 18 3 1 1 2 0 0 0 0

15 ASSISTANT WORKS (WORKSHOP) CLW ENGINEERING 18 6 3 11 4 42 8 8 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0

15 ASSISTANT WORKS (WORKSHOP) ER ENGINEERING 14 6 3 10 4 37 7 7 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT CLW MEDICAL 3 1 1 2 1 8 2 2 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT ER MEDICAL 10 2 1 6 2 21 4 4 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV ER ENGINEERING 1322 335 166 792 291 2906 581 581 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV METRO ENGINEERING 8 3 1 6 2 20 4 4 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Railway Total 4926 1461 775 2619 1087 10873 2175 2175 176 120 124 169 1 1 2 1

Above vacancies include vacancies of CLW, Chitranjan and Metro, Kolkata.


North Central Railway (ALLAHABAD)

Cat

No Name of the Post

Rly./

PU Department

No. of Vacancies


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) (12) (13) (14) (15) (16) (17) (18) (19) (20)

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) DLW MECHANICAL 3 1 1 2 1 8 2 2 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) NCR MECHANICAL 299 68 34 63 52 516 103 103 1 8 8 12 0 0 0 0

2 ASSISTANT BRIDGE NCR ENGINEERING 22 8 8 1 4 43 9 9 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

3 ASSISTANT C and W NCR MECHANICAL 97 29 10 53 21 210 42 42 0 2 2 6 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) DLW STORES 2 1 1 3 1 8 2 2 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) NCR STORES 41 0 4 4 6 55 11 11 2 1 1 0 0 0 0 0

5 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (DIESEL) NCR MECHANICAL 31 12 5 28 9 85 17 17 2 0 0 2 0 0 0 0

6 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (ELECTRICAL) NCR ELECTRICAL 21 10 6 20 6 63 13 13 2 1 1 1 0 0 0 0

7 ASSISTANT OPERATIONS (ELECTRICAL) NCR ELECTRICAL 8 4 0 0 1 13 3 3 1 1 0 1 0 0 0 0

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN NCR TRAFFIC 207 39 13 52 35 346 69 69 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM NCR S and T 96 39 20 83 26 264 53 53 3 2 3 3 0 0 0 0

10 ASSISTANT TRACK MACHINE NCR ENGINEERING 153 59 30 107 39 388 78 78 0 7 8 0 0 0 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC NCR ELECTRICAL 33 10 3 30 8 84 17 17 5 2 1 7 0 0 0 0

13 ASSISTANT TRD NCR ELECTRICAL 64 15 8 34 14 135 27 27 0 1 1 5 0 0 0 0

14 ASSISTANT WORKS NCR ENGINEERING 90 32 16 63 22 223 45 45 12 5 5 13 0 0 0 0

15 ASSISTANT WORKS (WORKSHOP) NCR ENGINEERING 8 3 1 5 2 19 4 4 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT DLW MEDICAL 4 2 1 3 1 17 2 2 0 0 0 0 6 0 0 0

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT NCR MEDICAL 8 3 1 4 2 18 4 4 2 1 1 1 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV NCR ENGINEERING 893 343 155 620 224 2235 447 447 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Railway Total 2080 678 317 1175 474 4730 948 948 30 31 33 51 6 0 0 0

Above vacancies include vacancies of DLW, Varanasi.


North Eastern Railway (GORAKHPUR)

Cat

No Name of the Post

Rly./

PU Department

No. of Vacancies


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) (12) (13) (14) (15) (16) (17) (18) (19) (20)

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) MCF MECHANICAL 15 5 3 10 4 37 7 7 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) NER MECHANICAL 198 70 35 127 48 478 96 96 8 9 9 0 0 0 0 0

2 ASSISTANT BRIDGE NER ENGINEERING 11 4 2 8 3 28 6 6 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

3 ASSISTANT C and W NER MECHANICAL 29 14 7 26 9 85 17 17 0 3 3 1 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) MCF STORES 2 0 0 1 0 3 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) NER STORES 42 15 7 27 10 101 20 20 2 2 2 0 0 0 0 0

5 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (DIESEL) NER MECHANICAL 33 13 6 22 8 82 16 16 0 2 1 0 0 0 0 0

7 ASSISTANT OPERATIONS (ELECTRICAL) NER ELECTRICAL 13 6 3 10 4 36 7 7 2 2 1 0 0 0 0 0

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN NER TRAFFIC 126 48 25 89 32 320 64 64 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM NER S and T 213 80 40 134 52 519 104 104 0 7 6 4 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM RDSO S and T 1 1 1 0 0 3 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

10 ASSISTANT TRACK MACHINE NER ENGINEERING 33 13 7 23 9 85 17 17 0 1 1 2 0 0 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC NER ELECTRICAL 46 24 7 47 14 138 28 28 6 4 4 0 0 0 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC RDSO ELECTRICAL 10 1 1 0 1 13 3 3 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0

12 ASSISTANT TL and AC (WORKSHOP) MCF ELECTRICAL 2 1 0 1 1 5 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

12 ASSISTANT TL and AC (WORKSHOP) NER ELECTRICAL 39 14 8 26 10 97 19 19 1 2 2 0 0 0 0 0

13 ASSISTANT TRD NER ELECTRICAL 59 23 11 41 15 149 30 30 0 7 9 4 0 0 0 0

14 ASSISTANT WORKS NER ENGINEERING 81 35 19 62 22 219 44 44 5 11 13 0 0 0 0 0

14 ASSISTANT WORKS RDSO ENGINEERING 6 1 1 0 1 9 2 2 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0

15 ASSISTANT WORKS (WORKSHOP) MCF ENGINEERING 3 1 1 2 1 8 2 2 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT NER MEDICAL 17 6 3 12 4 42 8 8 6 4 5 0 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV MCF ENGINEERING 3 1 0 2 1 7 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV NER ENGINEERING 588 239 120 437 154 1538 308 308 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Railway Total 1570 615 307 1107 403 4002 802 802 32 56 58 11 0 0 0 0

Above vacancies include vacancies of MCF, Rai Bareli and RDSO, Lucknow.


North Western Railway (JAIPUR)

Cat

No Name of the Post

Rly./

PU Department

No. of Vacancies


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) (12) (13) (14) (15) (16) (17) (18) (19) (20)

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) NWR MECHANICAL 337 127 63 229 84 840 168 168 15 11 10 16 0 0 0 0

2 ASSISTANT BRIDGE NWR ENGINEERING 10 5 2 7 3 27 5 5 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

3 ASSISTANT C and W NWR MECHANICAL 122 40 20 64 27 273 55 55 0 25 26 13 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) NWR STORES 44 16 7 31 11 109 22 22 2 2 2 0 0 0 0 0

5 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (DIESEL) NWR MECHANICAL 36 12 5 19 8 80 16 16 2 3 2 1 0 0 0 0

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN NWR TRAFFIC 374 141 72 255 94 936 187 187 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM NWR S and T 127 48 25 88 32 320 64 64 37 16 16 9 0 0 0 0

10 ASSISTANT TRACK MACHINE NWR ENGINEERING 117 49 23 88 31 308 62 62 0 7 7 0 0 0 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC NWR ELECTRICAL 38 5 2 10 6 61 12 12 4 6 8 4 0 0 0 0

12 ASSISTANT TL and AC (WORKSHOP) NWR ELECTRICAL 64 21 10 3 11 109 22 22 2 2 2 2 0 0 0 0

13 ASSISTANT TRD NWR ELECTRICAL 58 23 11 39 15 146 29 29 0 6 6 10 0 0 0 0

14 ASSISTANT WORKS NWR ENGINEERING 62 24 11 42 15 154 30 30 6 5 5 7 0 0 0 0

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT NWR MEDICAL 14 4 2 16 4 40 8 8 8 7 7 5 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV NWR ENGINEERING 729 299 131 502 185 1846 369 369 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Railway Total 2132 814 384 1393 526 5249 1049 1049 76 90 91 67 0 0 0 0


Northeast Frontier Railway (GUWAHATI)

Cat

No Name of the Post

Rly./

PU Department

No. of Vacancies


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) (12) (13) (14) (15) (16) (17) (18) (19) (20)

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) NFR MECHANICAL 68 26 13 47 17 171 34 34 5 2 2 2 0 0 0 0

2 ASSISTANT BRIDGE NFR ENGINEERING 14 6 2 10 4 36 7 7 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

3 ASSISTANT C and W NFR MECHANICAL 64 26 13 46 17 166 33 33 0 10 10 9 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) NFR STORES 14 6 3 10 4 37 7 7 2 0 1 0 0 0 0 0

5 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (DIESEL) NFR MECHANICAL 10 4 2 7 3 26 5 5 3 2 3 2 0 0 0 0

7 ASSISTANT OPERATIONS (ELECTRICAL) NFR ELECTRICAL 9 3 2 6 2 22 4 4 3 1 0 1 0 0 0 0

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN NFR TRAFFIC 94 38 19 69 25 245 49 49 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM NFR S and T 44 18 9 32 11 114 23 23 12 5 6 8 0 0 0 0

10 ASSISTANT TRACK MACHINE NFR ENGINEERING 30 12 5 22 8 77 15 15 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC NFR ELECTRICAL 29 9 8 19 7 72 14 14 2 2 2 2 0 0 0 0

12 ASSISTANT TL and AC (WORKSHOP) NFR ELECTRICAL 20 8 4 14 5 51 10 10 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0

13 ASSISTANT TRD NFR ELECTRICAL 9 4 2 7 3 25 5 5 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0

14 ASSISTANT WORKS NFR ENGINEERING 45 17 8 31 11 112 22 22 6 3 3 5 0 0 0 0

15 ASSISTANT WORKS (WORKSHOP) NFR ENGINEERING 4 2 1 3 1 11 2 2 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT NFR MEDICAL 83 34 16 58 21 212 42 42 5 5 5 6 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV NFR ENGINEERING 582 236 119 428 152 1517 303 303 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Railway Total 1119 449 226 809 291 2894 575 575 39 32 35 38 0 0 0 0


Northern Railway (NEW DELHI)

Cat

No Name of the Post

Rly./

PU Department

No. of Vacancies


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) (12) (13) (14) (15) (16) (17) (18) (19) (20)

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) NR MECHANICAL 307 120 60 217 78 782 156 156 20 12 10 4 0 0 0 0

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) RCF MECHANICAL 66 22 24 44 17 173 34 34 0 4 5 0 0 0 0 0

2 ASSISTANT BRIDGE NR ENGINEERING 152 59 29 106 39 385 77 77 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

3 ASSISTANT C and W NR MECHANICAL 506 207 103 363 131 1310 262 262 0 48 52 80 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) DMW STORES 1 0 3 11 2 17 3 3 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) NR STORES 133 47 26 83 32 321 64 64 10 5 6 5 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) RCF STORES 2 0 3 1 1 7 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

5 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (DIESEL) NR MECHANICAL 185 72 35 130 47 469 94 94 21 12 12 20 0 0 0 0

7 ASSISTANT OPERATIONS (ELECTRICAL) NR ELECTRICAL 65 26 12 44 16 163 33 33 3 5 2 2 0 0 0 0

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN NR TRAFFIC 951 374 184 673 243 2425 485 485 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM NR S and T 246 92 46 169 62 615 123 123 3 13 12 20 0 0 0 0

10 ASSISTANT TRACK MACHINE NR ENGINEERING 18 7 3 12 4 44 9 9 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC NR ELECTRICAL 216 85 43 151 55 550 110 110 30 14 16 15 0 0 0 0

12 ASSISTANT TL and AC (WORKSHOP) NR ELECTRICAL 53 27 14 42 15 151 30 30 3 3 5 2 0 0 0 0

12 ASSISTANT TL and AC (WORKSHOP) RCF ELECTRICAL 8 2 3 4 2 19 4 4 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0

13 ASSISTANT TRD NR ELECTRICAL 105 41 20 73 27 266 53 53 0 9 9 13 0 0 0 0

14 ASSISTANT WORKS NR ENGINEERING 287 106 54 191 71 709 142 142 38 23 23 26 0 0 0 0

15 ASSISTANT WORKS (WORKSHOP) DMW ENGINEERING 5 0 4 13 2 24 5 5 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 0

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT NR MEDICAL 13 5 3 10 4 35 7 7 1 2 2 2 0 0 0 0

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT RCF MEDICAL 2 0 1 1 1 5 1 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV NR ENGINEERING 1823 725 361 1306 468 4683 937 937 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Railway Total 5144 2017 1031 3644 1317 13153 2630 2630 129 153 154 190 0 0 0 0

Above vacancies include vacancies of DMW, Patiala and RCF, Kapurthala.


South Central Railway (SECUNDERABAD)

Cat

No Name of the Post

Rly./

PU Department

No. of Vacancies


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) (12) (13) (14) (15) (16) (17) (18) (19) (20)

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) SCR MECHANICAL 246 96 49 171 62 624 125 125 6 12 13 4 0 0 0 0

2 ASSISTANT BRIDGE SCR ENGINEERING 65 25 13 44 16 163 33 33 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

3 ASSISTANT C and W SCR MECHANICAL 122 48 25 79 31 305 61 61 0 6 6 0 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) SCR STORES 34 13 13 34 11 105 21 21 1 2 2 0 0 0 0 0

5 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (DIESEL) SCR MECHANICAL 88 36 18 64 23 229 46 46 3 3 2 1 0 0 0 0

6 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (ELECTRICAL) SCR ELECTRICAL 40 15 7 29 10 101 20 20 2 1 2 1 0 0 0 0

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN SCR TRAFFIC 778 295 148 533 195 1949 390 390 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM SCR S and T 129 53 25 93 33 333 67 67 4 3 5 1 0 0 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC SCR ELECTRICAL 68 28 13 49 18 176 35 35 6 1 1 0 0 0 0 0

12 ASSISTANT TL and AC (WORKSHOP) SCR ELECTRICAL 33 13 7 23 9 85 17 17 1 2 1 1 0 0 0 0

13 ASSISTANT TRD SCR ELECTRICAL 161 62 30 111 41 405 81 81 0 8 5 4 0 0 0 0

14 ASSISTANT WORKS SCR ENGINEERING 25 10 5 17 6 63 13 13 2 1 1 0 0 0 0 0

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT SCR MEDICAL 14 6 3 10 4 37 7 7 6 3 2 0 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV SCR ENGINEERING 1860 732 366 1320 475 4753 951 951 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Railway Total 3663 1432 722 2577 934 9328 1867 1867 31 42 40 12 0 0 0 0


South East Central Railway (BILASPUR)

Cat

No Name of the Post

Rly./

PU Department

No. of Vacancies


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) (12) (13) (14) (15) (16) (17) (18) (19) (20)

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) SECR MECHANICAL 41 13 7 7 8 76 15 15 3 1 2 0 0 0 0 0

3 ASSISTANT C and W SECR MECHANICAL 48 15 11 18 10 102 20 20 0 2 2 2 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) SECR STORES 5 2 1 4 1 13 3 3 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

6 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (ELECTRICAL) SECR ELECTRICAL 10 2 1 5 2 20 4 4 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN SECR TRAFFIC 349 61 32 106 61 609 122 122 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM SECR S and T 16 1 1 4 3 25 5 5 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0

10 ASSISTANT TRACK MACHINE SECR ENGINEERING 62 23 11 43 15 154 31 31 0 3 3 0 0 0 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC SECR ELECTRICAL 10 2 2 7 2 23 5 5 3 0 2 2 0 0 0 0

13 ASSISTANT TRD SECR ELECTRICAL 21 9 4 8 5 47 9 9 0 1 1 1 0 0 0 0

14 ASSISTANT WORKS SECR ENGINEERING 30 12 6 21 8 77 15 15 11 21 19 2 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV SECR ENGINEERING 205 79 39 143 52 518 104 104 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Railway Total 797 219 115 366 167 1664 333 333 19 29 29 7 0 0 0 0


South Eastern Railway (KOLKATA)

Cat

No Name of the Post

Rly./

PU Department

No. of Vacancies


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) (12) (13) (14) (15) (16) (17) (18) (19) (20)

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) SER MECHANICAL 322 125 62 224 82 815 163 163 16 10 10 15 0 0 0 0

3 ASSISTANT C and W SER MECHANICAL 230 80 39 160 57 595 113 113 0 10 12 3 0 9 14 6

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) SER STORES 33 12 6 22 8 81 16 16 1 1 1 2 0 0 0 0

5 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (DIESEL) SER MECHANICAL 31 11 7 20 8 88 15 15 1 2 2 0 5 3 3 0

6 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (ELECTRICAL) SER ELECTRICAL 101 34 19 65 24 255 49 49 18 5 3 1 6 3 3 0

7 ASSISTANT OPERATIONS (ELECTRICAL) SER ELECTRICAL 13 6 2 10 4 40 7 7 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN SER TRAFFIC 165 67 29 108 41 410 82 82 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM SER S and T 79 32 15 57 20 219 41 41 9 5 8 3 2 5 5 4

10 ASSISTANT TRACK MACHINE SER ENGINEERING 58 23 11 41 15 149 30 30 0 3 3 0 0 1 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC SER ELECTRICAL 68 26 13 49 17 183 35 35 12 3 4 2 3 2 3 2

12 ASSISTANT TL and AC (WORKSHOP) SER ELECTRICAL 39 15 8 27 10 99 20 20 2 1 1 2 0 0 0 0

13 ASSISTANT TRD SER ELECTRICAL 18 6 3 10 4 49 8 8 0 2 1 0 0 2 4 2

14 ASSISTANT WORKS SER ENGINEERING 85 32 16 57 21 211 42 42 13 6 4 10 0 0 0 0

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT SER MEDICAL 25 10 6 17 6 67 13 13 1 1 1 1 2 1 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV SER ENGINEERING 666 259 125 438 165 1653 331 331 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Railway Total 1933 738 361 1305 482 4914 965 965 74 50 51 40 19 27 33 16


South Western Railway (HUBLI)

Cat

No Name of the Post

Rly./

PU Department

No. of Vacancies


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) (12) (13) (14) (15) (16) (17) (18) (19) (20)

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) RWF MECHANICAL 16 6 3 11 4 41 8 8 0 1 1 0 0 0 1 0

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) SWR MECHANICAL 59 15 10 36 13 133 27 27 2 2 1 0 0 0 0 0

3 ASSISTANT C and W SWR MECHANICAL 124 59 33 112 37 365 73 73 0 2 10 7 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) RWF STORES 5 2 1 3 1 14 2 2 0 0 1 1 0 1 1 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) SWR STORES 15 6 3 11 4 39 8 8 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0

5 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (DIESEL) SWR MECHANICAL 50 20 11 36 13 130 26 26 14 1 12 0 0 0 0 0

6 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (ELECTRICAL) SWR ELECTRICAL 14 5 3 10 4 36 7 7 10 1 0 5 0 0 0 0

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN SWR TRAFFIC 305 114 57 191 74 741 148 148 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM RWF S and T 1 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM SWR S and T 245 94 46 169 62 616 123 123 0 16 5 3 0 0 0 0

10 ASSISTANT TRACK MACHINE SWR ENGINEERING 60 23 12 43 15 153 31 31 0 6 0 0 0 0 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC SWR ELECTRICAL 199 74 37 134 49 493 99 99 24 6 6 5 0 0 0 0

12 ASSISTANT TL and AC (WORKSHOP) RWF ELECTRICAL 2 0 0 1 0 4 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0

12 ASSISTANT TL and AC (WORKSHOP) SWR ELECTRICAL 12 4 2 8 3 29 6 6 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0

13 ASSISTANT TRD SWR ELECTRICAL 210 80 40 143 53 526 105 105 0 11 10 4 0 0 0 0

14 ASSISTANT WORKS SWR ENGINEERING 65 21 12 43 15 156 31 31 5 4 3 0 0 0 0 0

15 ASSISTANT WORKS (WORKSHOP) RWF ENGINEERING 3 1 1 3 1 11 2 2 0 1 0 1 0 1 1 0

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT SWR MEDICAL 54 20 11 36 13 134 27 27 2 2 2 0 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV RWF ENGINEERING 2 0 0 1 0 3 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV SWR ENGINEERING 1304 594 275 1015 354 3542 708 708 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Railway Total 2745 1138 557 2006 715 7167 1433 1433 59 55 53 26 0 3 3 0

Above vacancies include vacancies of RWF, Bangalore.


Southern Railway (CHENNAI)

Cat

No Name of the Post

Rly./

PU Department

No. of Vacancies


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) (12) (13) (14) (15) (16) (17) (18) (19) (20)

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) ICF MECHANICAL 160 31 75 64 37 367 73 73 10 6 6 0 0 0 0 0

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) SR MECHANICAL 546 202 101 363 135 1347 269 269 14 22 23 10 0 0 0 0

2 ASSISTANT BRIDGE SR ENGINEERING 5 2 1 4 1 13 3 3 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

3 ASSISTANT C and W SR MECHANICAL 210 87 32 156 54 539 108 108 0 8 10 11 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) SR STORES 77 25 8 47 17 174 35 35 1 3 4 0 0 0 0 0

5 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (DIESEL) SR MECHANICAL 73 28 11 51 18 181 36 36 2 2 4 0 0 0 0 0

6 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (ELECTRICAL) SR ELECTRICAL 19 3 1 5 3 31 6 6 2 1 1 0 0 0 0 0

7 ASSISTANT OPERATIONS (ELECTRICAL) SR ELECTRICAL 2 0 1 2 1 6 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN SR TRAFFIC 879 216 137 381 179 1792 358 358 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM SR S and T 139 52 27 82 33 333 67 67 2 5 6 1 0 0 0 0

10 ASSISTANT TRACK MACHINE SR ENGINEERING 235 91 46 164 60 596 119 119 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC SR ELECTRICAL 152 56 37 85 37 367 73 73 6 5 5 2 0 0 0 0

12 ASSISTANT TL and AC (WORKSHOP) SR ELECTRICAL 60 23 11 41 15 150 30 30 1 6 1 0 0 0 0 0

13 ASSISTANT TRD SR ELECTRICAL 85 23 10 35 17 170 34 34 0 4 5 0 0 0 0 0

14 ASSISTANT WORKS SR ENGINEERING 62 26 19 36 16 159 32 32 3 2 3 1 0 0 0 0

15 ASSISTANT WORKS (WORKSHOP) SR ENGINEERING 96 30 11 0 15 152 30 30 0 3 3 0 0 0 0 0

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT SR MEDICAL 128 46 27 80 31 312 62 62 6 5 5 2 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV SR ENGINEERING 1435 412 232 522 289 2890 578 578 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Railway Total 4363 1353 787 2118 958 9579 1914 1914 47 72 76 27 0 0 0 0

Above vacancies include vacancies of ICF, Chennai.


West Central Railway (JABALPUR)

Cat

No Name of the Post

Rly./

PU Department

No. of Vacancies


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) (12) (13) (14) (15) (16) (17) (18) (19) (20)

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) WCR MECHANICAL 150 42 31 60 31 314 63 63 9 5 5 0 0 0 0 0

2 ASSISTANT BRIDGE WCR ENGINEERING 19 8 4 14 5 50 10 10 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

3 ASSISTANT C and W WCR MECHANICAL 60 27 10 38 15 150 30 30 0 7 8 5 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) WCR STORES 15 5 4 10 4 38 8 8 3 1 1 0 0 0 0 0

5 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (DIESEL) WCR MECHANICAL 98 37 17 65 24 241 48 48 12 8 8 0 0 0 0 0

6 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (ELECTRICAL) WCR ELECTRICAL 50 17 3 31 11 112 22 22 3 3 2 3 0 0 0 0

7 ASSISTANT OPERATIONS (ELECTRICAL) WCR ELECTRICAL 42 15 0 23 9 89 18 18 3 3 2 3 0 0 0 0

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN WCR TRAFFIC 118 70 45 109 38 380 76 76 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM WCR S and T 65 26 11 43 16 161 32 32 4 10 7 3 0 0 0 0

10 ASSISTANT TRACK MACHINE WCR ENGINEERING 73 29 14 52 19 187 37 37 0 9 6 5 0 0 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC WCR ELECTRICAL 14 4 0 8 3 29 6 6 2 2 2 2 0 0 0 0

12 ASSISTANT TL and AC (WORKSHOP) WCR ELECTRICAL 11 6 1 4 2 24 5 5 1 0 1 0 0 0 0 0

13 ASSISTANT TRD WCR ELECTRICAL 78 28 8 47 18 179 36 36 0 7 7 4 0 0 0 0

14 ASSISTANT WORKS WCR ENGINEERING 155 60 31 108 39 393 79 79 17 23 13 4 0 0 0 0

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT WCR MEDICAL 3 1 0 2 1 7 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV WCR ENGINEERING 645 258 129 466 167 1665 333 333 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Railway Total 1596 633 308 1080 402 4019 804 804 55 79 63 29 0 0 0 0


Western Railway (MUMBAI)

Cat

No Name of the Post

Rly./

PU Department

No. of Vacancies


(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) (11) (12) (13) (14) (15) (16) (17) (18) (19) (20)

1 ASSISTANT (WORKSHOP) WR MECHANICAL 281 114 51 204 72 722 144 144 13 9 9 14 0 0 0 0

2 ASSISTANT BRIDGE WR ENGINEERING 29 11 5 22 7 74 15 15 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

3 ASSISTANT C and W WR MECHANICAL 285 108 54 190 71 708 142 142 0 31 31 51 0 0 0 0

4 ASSISTANT DEPOT (STORES) WR STORES 70 24 13 50 18 175 35 35 4 1 2 5 0 0 0 0

5 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (DIESEL) WR MECHANICAL 79 27 14 51 19 190 38 38 18 4 4 7 0 0 0 0

6 ASSISTANT LOCO SHED (ELECTRICAL) WR ELECTRICAL 26 10 5 17 6 64 13 13 4 2 2 3 0 0 0 0

7 ASSISTANT OPERATIONS (ELECTRICAL) WR ELECTRICAL 15 5 3 10 4 37 7 7 5 0 1 2 0 0 0 0

8 ASSISTANT POINTSMAN WR TRAFFIC 666 265 131 473 171 1706 341 341 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

9 ASSISTANT SIGNAL and TELECOM WR S and T 227 100 42 155 58 582 116 116 39 13 13 21 0 0 0 0

10 ASSISTANT TRACK MACHINE WR ENGINEERING 53 10 0 2 7 72 14 14 0 1 2 2 0 0 0 0

11 ASSISTANT TL and AC WR ELECTRICAL 151 44 20 75 32 322 64 64 25 9 8 13 0 0 0 0

12 ASSISTANT TL and AC (WORKSHOP) WR ELECTRICAL 19 6 3 11 4 43 9 9 1 2 0 2 0 0 0 0

13 ASSISTANT TRD WR ELECTRICAL 112 39 23 74 28 276 55 55 0 11 12 17 0 0 0 0

14 ASSISTANT WORKS WR ENGINEERING 198 75 38 137 50 498 100 100 48 17 17 25 0 0 0 0

15 ASSISTANT WORKS (WORKSHOP) WR ENGINEERING 25 9 5 16 6 61 12 12 1 1 1 2 0 0 0 0

16 HOSPITAL ASSISTANT WR MEDICAL 87 29 19 58 22 215 43 43 13 6 5 7 0 0 0 0

17 TRACK MAINTAINER GRADE IV WR ENGINEERING 1964 771 386 1369 499 4989 998 998 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

Railway Total 4287 1647 812 2914 1074 10734 2146 2146 171 107 107 171 0 0 0 0

1

E:\Manish\Gadhavi Sir\Gadhvai sir Engginearing English. pmd. proof-1 Dt. 11-11-13 1

ENGGINEARING ENGLISH

1. Ability of a material to resist deformation due tostress is called(a) toughness (b) stiffness(c) plasticity (d) hardness

2. Etching solution used for medium and high carbonsteel, pearlitic steel and cast iron, is(a) nital-2% HNO3 in ethyl alcohol(b) picral - 5% picric acid and ethyl alcohol(c) 1% hydrofluoric acid in water(d) 50% NH2 OH and 50% water

3. Ability of a material to undergo large permanentdeformations in tension, is called(a) toughness (b) stiffness(c) plasticity (d) hardness

4. Ability of a material to resist penetration by anothermaterial, is called(a) stiffness (b) ductility(c) hardness (d) plasticity

5. Property of material due to which it breaks withlittle permanent distortion is called(a) brittleness (b) ductility(c) malleability (d) fatigue

6. In material subjected to fluctuating or repeatedstress, fracture takes place under a stress whosemaximum value is less than the tensile strength ofthe material. This phenomenon is called(a) fatigue (b) creep(c) malleability (d) resilience

7. Hardness can be defined as resistance to(a) wear (b) local penetration(c) scratching (d) all of these

8. Ivlachinability of metals depends upon(a) tensile strength(b) toughness(c) hardness(d) both (a) and (b)

9. Toughness of a material, means its(a) strength (b) fatigue resistance(c) machinability (d) softening

10. Ability of a material to undergo large permanentdeformation in compression, is called(a) ductility (b) malleability

(c) brittleness (d) hardness11. Silicon when added to copper increases its

(a) machinability(b) brittleness(c) electrical conductivity(d) hardness and strength

12. Metals which can be easily drawn into wire is(a) tin (b) copper(c) lead (d) zinc

13. Amount of external energy required to deform anelastic body is called(a) elastic energy (b) plastic energy(c) strain energy (d) none of these

14. A metal which is ductile in tension can becomebrittle(a) in the presence of notches(b) under hydrostatic compression(c) in the presence of embrittlement agents such

as hydrogen(d) all of these

15. Raw material for all iron and steel products is(a) cast iron (b) wrought iron(c) pig iron (d) steel

16. Pig iron is produced from the iron ore(a) magnesite (b) limonite(c) hematite (d) pyrite

17 Metal becomes soft and have a coarse grainedcrystalline structure due to presence of(a) free carbon (b) sulphur(c) silicon (d) none of these

18. Charge of the blast furnace calcined ore (8 parts),lime stone (1 part) and coke(a) 1 part (b) 4 parts(c) 8 parts (d) 10 parts

19. Cast iron is a(a) ductile material(b) malleable material(c) brittle material(d) none of these

2


20. Cupola is used to manufacture(a) pig iron (b) cast iron

(c) mild steel (d) none of these21. Tensile strength of cast iron varies in the range of

(a) 440-500 MPa (b) 500-600 MPa (c) 500-840 MPa (d) 650-1000 MPa22. Properties of cast iron are regulated by

(a) percentage of carbon present(b) control of amount, type, size and

distribution of various carbon formations(c) heat treatment(d) all of these

23. Compressive strength of cast iron as compared totensile strength is(a) more (b) less(c) same (d) none of these

24. Limestone is added in blast furnace to flux(a) silicon oxide (b) carbon(c) sulphur (d) all of these

25. The presence of sulphur in cast iron(a) makes the iron soft and easily machinable(b) reduces the ability of iron to retain carbon

in chemical combination(c) increases hardness and brittleness(d) all of these

26. Presence of sulphur in pig iron makes it(a) hard and brittle(b) machinable(c) malleable(d) casting unsound

27. Chilling heat teatmeant and alloy adding to cast irongenerally(a) increases machinability(b) decreases machinability(c) increases carbon percentage(d) decreases carbon percentage

28. Cast iron produced from white cast iron by annealingprocess is(a) chilled cast iron(b) grey cast iron(c) malleable cast iron(d) nodular cast iron

29. Cast iron produced by adding elements like nickel,chromium, copper and molybdenum to the moltencast iron is(a) chilled cast iron(b) grey cast iron(c) malleable cast iron(d) nodular cast iron

30. Grey cast iron has(a) brittleness(b) low ductility(c) low compressive strength(d) all of these

31. If carbon present in cast iron is partly free andpartly in combined state, it is called(a) white cast iron(b) grey cast iron(c) molten cast iron(d) none of these

32. The basic ingredient of cemented carbide is(a) aluminium oxide(b) vanadium(c) ceramics(d) tungsten oxide

33. Wrought iron(a) is ductile(b) can be easily forged or welded(c) cannot resist sudden and excessive shocks(d) all of these

34. Wrought iron is(a) not used for castings(b) easily hardened(c) used for castings(d) melts at 150°C

35. Percentage of carbon in low carbon steels is(a) 0.1 to 0.15% (b) 0.15 to 0.8%(c) 0.8 to 1.5% (d) more than 1.5%

36. Carbon steels is(a) produced by adding carbon in steel(b) an alloy of iron and carbon with varying

quantities of phosphorus and sulphur(c) purer than the cast iron

3


(d) none of these37. Carbon steel castings are

(a) easily weldable (b) tough and ductile(c) brittle (d) all of these

38. To raise yield point of low carbon steel(a) silicon is added(b) carbon is added(c) phosphorus is added(d) sulphur is added

39. An alloy steel contains(a) more than 0.5% Mn and 0.5% Si(b) less than 0.5% Mn and 0.5% Si(c) more than 0.5% Mn and 0.5% Si(d) less than 0.35% Mn and 0.5% Si

40. Steel which destroy by burning is called(a) alloy steel (b) carbon steel(c) silicon steel (d) killed steel

41. Steel which contain elements for the purpose ofmodifying the mechanical properties of plain carbonsteels is called(a) alloy steel (b) invar(c) stainless steel (d) high speed steel

42. Invar has coefficient of expansion(a) nearly one (b) nearly zero(c) 0.5 (d) none of these

43. Shock resistance steel should have(a) low hardening(b) low wear resistance(c) high wear resistance(d) toughness

44. Chrome steel is widely used for(a) connecting rod(b) motor car crank shaft(c) cutting tools(d) all of these

45. Tensile strength of steel is improved by adding(a) nickel (b) chromium(c) silicon (d) lead

46. Vanadium when added to steel, it(a) increases tensile strength(b) decreases tensile strength(c) decreases compressive strength

(d) none of these47. Percentage of tungsten in high speed steel is

(a) maximum (b) minimum(c) average (d) not is present

48. Cutting tools are manufactured by(a) nickel steel (b) silicon steel(c) chrome steel (d) high speed steel

49. High speed steel should have(a) wear resistance(b) hardness(c) toughness(d) both (a) and (b)

50. 18-4-1 high speed steel contains(a) 18% carbon(b) 4% carbon(c) 1% carbon(d) 0.7% carbon

51. Grain size increases as temperature goes aboveA2 line. When steel is cooled toward the A3 line,these grains in size(a) will increase(b) will decrease if cooled fast(c) will increase if cooled fast(d) none of these

52. Eutectoid composition of carbon steel at roomtemperature is called(a) pearlite (b) ferrite(c) cementite (d) martensite

53. Steel containing 18% chromium and 8% nickel iscalled(a) martensitic stainless steel(b) ferritic stainless steel(c) austenitic stainless steel(d) none of these

54. 18/8 steel consists of(a) 18% nickel and 18% chromium(b) 8% nickel and 18% chromium(c) 18% nickel and 8% chromium(d) 8% nickel and 8% chromium

55. Steel having combination of 6.67% carbon and93.33% iron, is called(a) cementite (b) pearlite

4


(c) martensite (d) austenite56. Pearlite or eutectoid steel have carbon content

(a) below 0.80% (b) 0.8%(c) 1.5% (d) 2%

57. Line A3 on iron-carbon diagram indicates(a) the beginning of transition from austenite

to ferrite(b) completion of austenite transition to ferrite

and pearlite(c) limit of carbon solubility in austenite(d) all of these

58. Steel with carbon above 0.8% is called(a) Eutectoid steel(b) Hyper-tectoid steel(c) Hypo-tectoid steel(d) Austenite

59. Iron carbon alloy containing 1.7 to 4.3% carbon iscalled(a) Eutectoid cast iron(b) Hyper-eutectic cast iron(c) Hypo-eutectic cast iron(d) None of these

60. Iron-carbon alloy containing carbon more than 4.3%,is called(a) eutectic cast iron(b) hyper-eutectic cast iron(c) hypo-eutectic cast iron(d) none of these

61. If steel is quenched in water, the structure obtainedis called(a) pearlite (b) sorbite(c) martensite (d) troosite

62. If steel is cooled in still air, the structure obtainedis called(a) pearlite (b) sorbite(c) toorsite (d) martensite

63. Recrystallisation temperature is one at which(a) crystal start growing in size(b) change of allotropic form takes place(c) new spherical crystals first begin to form

the old deformed ones when a strainedmetal is heated

(d) crystals again begin to appear64. Recrystallisation temperature depends upon

(a) type and purity of metal(b) grain size(c) annealing time(d) all of these

65. Purpose of heat treatment is to(a) improve mechanical and electrical properties(b) increase resistance to wear, heat and corrosion(c) remove gases(d) change the chemical composition(e) all of these

66. Heat treatment process is(a) hardening by quenching(b) normalising(c) annealing(d) tempering(e) all of these

67. Process of heating iron base alloys to approximately40°C above the critical temperature range followedby cooling to below that range in still air at ordinarytemperature is called(a) normalising(b) annealing(c) tempering(d) spheroidising

68. Normalising of steel is done to(a) refine grain structure(b) remove dislocations caused in the internal

structure due to hot working(c) remove strains caused by cold working(d) all of these

69. Heat treatment process used for castings is(a) normalising (b) annealing(c) tempering (d) hardening

70. To relieve internal stresses previously set up inthe metal and to increase machinability of steel,process used is(a) normalising(b) full annealing(c) process annealing(d) hardening

5


71. The hypo-ceutectoid steel is heated from 30°C to50°C above the upper critical temperature and thencooled suddenly in a suitable cooling medium suchas brine water or oil, in the process(a) normalising (b) annealing(c) tempering (d) hardening

72. Case hardening process is(a) carburising (b) cyaniding(c) nitriding (d) all of these

73. Carburising is done on steel with carbonpercentage(a) 0.15% (b) 0.7%(c) 1.5% (d) 2%

74. Nitriding is a process for(a) normalising (b)annealing(c) case hardening (d) tempering

75. Process of reheating the hardened steel to sometemperature below theoretical range, followed byany rate of cooling is called(a) normalising (b) annealing(c) tempering (d) spheroidising

76. Head treatment process used to soften hardenedsteel is(a) normalising (b) annealing(c) tempering (d) spheroidising

77. Heat treatment process usually applied to highcarbon tool steel which are difficult to machine is(a) normalising (b) annealing(c) tempering (d) spheroidising

78. The process in which steel is heated at about C,where the structure consists of entirely austenite,then it is cooled suddenly at a temperature of about250°C to 525°C is called(a) normalising (b) annealing(c) hardening (d) austempering

79. Sorbite is obtained by(a) annealing of steel(b) quenching steel during transformation(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

80. Age hardening generally applied to(a) cast iron

(b) high alloy steel(c) alloys of aluminium, magnesium, nickel

etc.(d) alloys of chromium, silicon etc.

81. Line A on iron-carbon diagram indicates(a) the beginning of transition from austenite to

ferrite(b) completion of austenite transition to ferrite


82. Constituents of Hayness stellite, havingsuperformance than HSS are(a) tungsten, chromium and vanadium(b) tungsten, chromium and cobalt(c) tungsten, molybdneum and cobalt(d) cobalt, nickel and aluminium

83. A reversible changes in an atomic structure of themetal with a corresponding change in the propertiesof steel, is called(a) allotropic(b) polytropic(c) critical point(d) none of these

84. Steel can be hardened only if it is heated above the(a) lowest critical temperature(b) middle critical temperature(c) highest critical temperature(d) none of these

85. When a steel containing more than 0.8% carbonis cooled slowly below the lower critical point, itcontains(a) ferrite mainly(b) pearlite mainly(c) ferrite and pearlite(d) pearlite and cementite

86. The lower critical temperature for steel(a) varies according to carbon content in it(b) is constant(c) depends on the rate of heating(d) none of these

6


87. Temperature at which the change starts on heatingthe steel, is called(a) lower critical temperature(b) upper critical temperature(c) point of recalescence(d) none of these

88. Steel containing 0.8% carbon has(a) no critical point(b) one critical point(c) two critical points(d) three critical points

89. Gamma iron exists in the temperature range of(a) 300°C to 600°C(b) 600°C to 900°C(c) 900°C to 1400°C(d) 1400°C to 1530°C

90. Alpha (a) iron(a) has body centred atomic arrangement(b) is commonly known as ferrite(c) is magnetic (d) all of these

91. In iron-carbon diagram the abcissae is(a) carbon percentage(b) temperature(c) time(d) none of these

92. Referring iron-carbon diagram, iron-carbon alloyscontaining carbon upto 1.7% are termed as(a) steel (b) cast iron(c) wrought iron (d) pig iron

93. Air burning out silicon and manganese during theoperation of a bessemer converter, is indicated by(a) white flames (b) brown smoke(c) red flame (d) none of these

94. Furnace is lined with silica bricks in(a) acidic bessemer process(b) basic bessemer process(c) duplex process(d) L-D process

95. The steel making process used at Tata steel andIron works, Jamshedpur is(a) acidic bessemer process

(b) basic bessemer process(c) duplex process(d) L-D process

96. The steel making process, which is a combinationof acidic bessemer and basic open hearth process,is called(a) duplex process (b) L-D process(c) electric process (d) none of these

97. Steel produced by bessemer process as comparedto that produced by L-D process is(a) better (b) inferior(c) same (d) none of these

98. When the atoms are arranged haphazard in amaterial, it is called(a) amorphous material(b) mesomorphous material(c) crystalline material(d) none of these

99. When the atoms are arranged in definite and orderlymanner in a material, it is called(a) amorphous material(b) mesomorphous material(c) crystalline structure(d) none of these

100. Mesomorphous material is(a) mica (b) glass(c) brass (d) silver

101. The unit cells(a) contain the smallest number of atoms which

when taken together have all the propertiesof the crystals of the particular metal

(b) have the same orientation and their similarfaces are parallel

(c) are the smallest parallelopiped which couldbe transposed in three corodinate directionsto build up the space lattice

(d) all of these102. In a unit cell of face centered cubic space lattice,

the total number of atoms is(a) 6 (b) 9(c) 14 (d) 24

103. If a unit cell of structure having fourteen atoms

7


out of which eight atom are located at the cornersof the cube and six atoms at the centres of sixfaces of the cube, then the structure is called(a) body centered cubic space lattice(b) face centered cubic space lattice(c) close packed hexagonal space lattice(d) none of these

104. A space lattice found in gamma-iron is(a) body centered cubic space lattice(b) face centered cubic space lattice(c) close packed hexagonal space lattice(d) none of these

105. Face centered cubic space lattice is found in(a) a-iron, chromium, tungsten and molybdenum(b) g-iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and

nickel(c) zinc, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismath(d) none of these

106. Most ductile lattice is(a) body centered cubic space lattice(b) face centered cubic space lattice(c) close packed hexagonal space lattice(d) none of these

107. Micro-structure of a material is generally examinedby(a) naked eye(b) microscope(c) X-ray and electron diffraction(d) optical microscope

108. Electronic structure of a material is generallyexamined by(a) naked eye(b) microscope(c) X-ray and electron diffraction(d) spectroscope techniques

109. If a low carbon steel is heated upto lower criticaltemperature(a) the average grain size will be minimum(b) the average grain size will be maximum(c) the grain size does not change(d) the grain size increases rapidly

110. Quenching of steel from the upper critical pointresults in a(a) fine grained structure(b) coarse grained structure(c) crystal structure(d) none of these

111. Coarse grained steels are(a) very tough (b) less tough(c) denser (d) tighter

112. Copper-zinc alloy is(a) brass (b) bronze(c) lead (d) zinc

113. German silver contains(a) 60% copper and 40% zinc(b) 50% copper and 40% zinc(c) 60.45% copper, 35.2% zinc and 4.35%

nickel(d) 70% copper and 30% zinc

114. Solder is an alloy of(a) copper and tin(b) lead and tin(c) lead and copper(d) aluminium and copper

115. Muntz metal contains(a) 60% copper and 40% zinc(b) 50% copper and 50% zinc(c) 70% copper and 30% zinc(d) 80% copper and 20% zinc

116. Gun metal contains(a) 60% copper and 40% zinc(b) 88% copper 10% tin and 2% zinc(c) 70% copper and 30% zinc(d) none of these

117. Permalloy is(a) an alloy similar to carbides(b) a non ferrous alloy containing nickel

copper and chromium(c) a nickel and iron alloy having high

permeability(d) none of these

118. Monel metal contains

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(a) 68% nickel, 29% copper and 3% otherconstituents

(b) 70% nickel, 30% chromium(c) 80% nickel, 14% chromium, 6% iron(d) none of these

119. Constantan alloy consists of(a) copper and nickel(b) copper and aluminium(c) nickel and molybdenum(d) nickel and aluminium

120. Nichrome is an alloy containing(a) nickel and chromium(b) nickel, chromium and silver(c) nickel, chromium and copper(d) nickel, chromium and iron

121. Beryllium bronze contains(a) 97.25% copper and 2.75% beryllium(b) 90% copper and 10% beryllium(c) 80% copper and 20% beryllium(d) none of the above

122. Beryllium bronze has(a) high yield point (b) high fatigue(c) low fatigue limit (d) both (a) and (b)

123. The deradation of plastics is accelerated by(a) high ambients(b) dampness(c) corrosive atmosphere(d) ultraviolet radiation

124. Aluminium alloy commonly used for utensils is(a) duralumin (b) y-alloy(c) babbit alloy (d) hindalium

125. Manganese bronze has(a) high resistance to corrosion(b) good wearing qualities and high elasticity(c) good cold working property(d) all of these

126. Case hardening is the only method suitable forhardening(a) high alloy steel (b) high carbon steel(c) low-carbon steel (d) high speed steel

127. Bearing alloy preferred for light loads bearing is(a) phosphorus bronze

(b) white metal(c) monel metal(d) brass

128. Alloys of copper with lead increases(a) hardness(b) machinability(c) weldability(d) strength and ductility

129. Alloying aluminium with silicon increases its(a) hardness(b) casting ability(c) tensile strength(d) all of these

130. Alloy of copper and nickel increases(a) hardness (b) strength(c) machinability (d) weldability

131. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by alloyingwith(a) sulphur(b) silicon(c) cobalt and vanadium(d) tungsten

132. Polymers can(a) be vaporised and recycled(b) not be vaporised and recycled(c) be vaporised but cannot be recyeled(d) neither be vaporised but can be recycled

133. Thermosetting plastics are materials which(a) becomes soft on application of heat and can

be moulded again(b) do not become hard with the application of

heat and pressure and no chemical changeoccurs

(c) permanently set with heat and pressureand can not deformed when again subjectto heat

(d) produced on synthesis basic134. Thermo-plastic materials are produced by

(a) die-casting process(b) shell moudlding process(c) cold forming process(d) injection moulding process

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135. Thermo plastic materials cannot be produced by(a) injection moulding process(b) extrusion process(c) blow moulding process(d) both (a) and (b)

136. Difference between theilno plastic and thermo settingmaterials is of(a) mechanical behaviour(b) thermal behaviour(c) glass transition temperature(d) none of these

137. A material is known as allotropic or polymorphic ifit(a) has a fixed structure under’all conditions(b) exists in several crystal forms at different

temperatures(c) responds to heat treatment(d) has its atoms distributed in a random pattern

138. Which of the following represents the allotropicforms of iron ?(a) alpha iron, beta iron and gamma iron(b) alpha iron and beta iron(c) body centred cubic a-iron and face centred

cubic a-iron(d) alpha iron, gamma iron and delta iron

139. Beryllium is used chiefly as an alloy addition tocopper to produce(a) precipitation-hardenable alloy(b) high-strength alloy(c) none-magnetic and non-sparking alloy(d) all of these

140. Annealing of white cast iron results in the productionof(a) Malleable iron(b) Nodular iron(c) Speroidal iron(d) Grey iron

141. Maximum percentage of carbon in austenite is(a) 0.025% (b) 0.26%(c) 0.8% (d) 2.1%

142. The basic constituents of Hastalloy are(a) aluminium, copper, etc.

(b) nickel, molybdenum etc.(c) nickel, copper, etc.(d) all of these

143. A cold chisel is made of(a) mild steel(b) cast iron(c) H.S.S.(d) high carbon steel

144. Polysters belong to the grop of(a) thermoplastic plastics(b) thermosetting plastics(c) phenolics(d) PVC(e) all of these

145. Hardness of matensite is about(a) RC 65 (b) RC 48(c) RC 57 (d) RC 80

146. Carbon in iron is an example of(a) substitutional solution(b) interstitial solid solution(c) inter metallic compound(d) all of these

147. The machinability of steel is increased by(a) silicon and sulphur(b) phosphorus, lead and sulphur(c) sulphur, graphite and aluminium(d) phosphorus and aluminium

148. Heavy duty leaf and coil springs contain carbon ofthe order of(a) 0.2% (b) 0.5%(c) 0.8% (d) 1.6%

149. Which one of the following metals would work-harden more quickly than the others ?(a) Copper (b) Steel(c) Lead (d) Silver

150. In the cubic crystal system, the interface angles are(a) a = [3 = 90° = y = 120°(b) a = y # 90°(c) a = = y = 90°(d) a = = 90° # y

151. Interface angles, a = 13 = = 90° are in the crystalsystem

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(a) cubic(b) tetragonal(c) orthogonal(d) all the above

152. Atom at the center of BCC structure is(a) 1 (b) 2(c) 4 (d) 6

153. Corundum contains more than 95%(a) Steel (b) A120 3(c) Sio2 (d) MgO

154. If a refractory contains high content of silica, itmeans refractory is(a) acidic (b) basic(c) neutral (d) brittle

155. Elinvar, and alloy used in precision instruments, hairsprings for watches, etc. contains which of thefollowing element as principal alloying element(a) iron (b) copper(c) zinc (d) nickel

154. White metal contains(a) 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper(b) 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc(c) alloy of tin, lead, cadmium(d) silver and chromium

155. Babbit metal is a(a) lead base alloy(b) tin base alloy(c) both (a) and (b) above(d) none of the above

156. Pearlite is a combination of(a) ferrite and cementite(b) cementite and gamma iron(c) ferrite and austenite(d) ferrite and iron graphite

157. The hardest known material is(a) ceramic (b) high speed steel(c) diamond (d) cemented carbide

158. All of the following comparisons between metalsmetal alloys and ceramics are true except(a) ceramic compounds crystallize more slowly

than metallic compounds

(b) ceramic compounds have higher meltingtemperatures than metallic compounds

(c) metallic compounds are better conductors ofcurrent than ceramic compounds at highertemperatures.

(d) ceremic compounds are able to resistgreater tensile stresses than metalliccompounds at room temperatures.

159. Based on the cohesive energy of an ionic solid,which of the following is not a property of the ionicsolid ?(a) If forms relatively stable and hard crystals(b) It is a poor electric conductor(c) It has a high vaporization temperature(d) None of these

160. Forging iron at temperature below therecystallization temperature will increase thehardeness of iron because(a) internal stresses do not appear in the iron(b) surface defects such as dislocations are

formed(c) surface shrinkage from the forging operation

puts pressure on the interior of the iron(d) the increase in the density will cause pores

and cavities in the metal to disappear.161. The microstructure composition of pearlite for an

Fe3C diagram consists of(a) carbon dissolved in the a iron having a body

centred cubic structure(b) carbon dissoved in y iron having a body-

centred cubic structure(c) a mixture of body-centred a - iron having a

face-centred gamma iron(d) carbon dissolved in body-centred a- iron

and an Fe3C compound of higher carbon162. A high ‘re superconductor has the transition

temperature around(a) 400 K (b) 90K(c) 20K (d) 4 K.

163. The fatigue failure of a material can be avoided by(a) coating the surface(b) shot peening(c) nitriding

11


(d) any of these164. For molybdenum, which has a body-centered cubic

lattice structure, the number of atoms per unit cellis(a) 1 (b) 2(c) 4 (d) 6

165. Alluminium has a higher atomic packing factorthan molybdenum by about 6%. This means that(a) aluminium is heavier than molybdenum(b) ratio of the atoms per unit cell is lower in

aluminium(c) ratio of the number of atoms per unit cell to

size of the cell is roughly equal to both(d) distance between atoms are equal for both.

166. The crystal structure of most of the common metalis(a) hexagonal (b) cubic(c) orthorhombic (d) none of these

167. The electronic configuration of an iron atom is(a) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s23p6 3d6 4s2(b) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s23p6 3d3 4s2(c) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s23p6 3d8 4s2(d) None of these

168. Dislocations in materials are(a) point defect (b) line defect(c) planer defect (d) surface defect

169. Line imperfection in a crystal is called(a) Schottky defect (b) Frenkel defect(c) Edge dislocation (d) Miller defect

170. Gunmetal is an alloy of(a) 80% Cu + 15% Zn + 5% Sn(b) 86% Cu + 9% Zn + 5% Sn(c) 88% Cu + 2% Zn + 10% Sn(d) 70% Cu + 10% Zn + 20% Sn

171. Silicon steel is widely used in(a) cutting tools(b) dies and punches(c) electrical industry(d) chemical industry

172. Which of the following metal has the lowest meltingpoint ?(a) Antimony (b) Tin

(c) Silver (d) Zinc173. Which bond gives the softest bond ?

(a) Silicate bond(b) Shellac bond(c) Vitrified bond(d) All of equal strength

174. The temperature at or above which a ferromagneticmeterial becomes paramgnetic is called(a) Critical temperature(b) Inversion temperature(c) Curie temperature(d) Debye temperature

175. Magnetic permeability is maximum for(a) Diamagnetic (b) Paramagnetic(c) Ferromagnetic (d) None’ of these

176. Out of dia, pars, and ferromagnetism, which of thefollowing is the universal property of all substance?(a) Diamagnetism (b) Paramgnetism(c) Ferromagnetism (d) All of these

177. When the green light is made incident on a metal,photoelectrons are emitted by yellow light, whatwill happen if red light is used ?(a) Less electrons will be emitted(b) More electrons will be emitted(c) No electrons will emit(d) All of these

178. In a transistor region is lightly doped and region isheavily doped.(a) base, emitter (b) collector, base(c) emitter, collector (d) emitter, base

179. Which of the following is not true for metalloids ?(a) The are borderline elements that exhibit both

metallic and non-metallic properties to someextent.

(b) They usually act as electron donors with non-metals and as electron acceptors with metals

(c) Some of these elements are Boron, Siliconand Germanium.

(d) They are good conductors of heat andelectricity

180. Which of the following regions of the spectrumwould be used to determine the structure ofcrystalline solids ?

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(a) Microwave (b) Infrared(c) Visible (d) X-ray

181. A p-type germanium semiconductor is doped with(a) Selenium (b) Gallium(c) Arsenic (d) Silicon

182. An electrician’s solder is generally an alloy of(a) iron and mercury (b) zinc and copper(c) copper and lead (d) tin and lead

183. A characteristic of the structure of metallic atomsis that(a) they tend to share their electrons with other

atoms(b) their atoms are smaller and more compact

than those of non-metallic elements(c) their outermost orbital of elecdtrons is nearly

complete, and they attract electrons from otheratoms.

(d) the small number of electrons in theiroutermost orbital are weakly held andeasily lost.

184. Which of the following statements is true of thecritical temperature of a pure substance ?(a) The critical temperature is the temperature

above which the liquid phase of a puresubstance can exist.

(b) The critical temperature is thetemperature above which the luquid phaseof a pure substance cannot exist.

(c) The critical temperature is the temperaturebelow which the liquid phase of a puresubstance cannot exist.

(d) The critical temperature is the temperatureat which all three phases can coexist.

185. What are the constituent of Phosphor bronze(a) Nickel, copper and cobalt(b) Copper, zinc and manganese(c) Copper, tin and phosphorous(d) Aluminium, copper and nickel.

186. Which alloy of aluminium is often used for aeroplaneand automobile parts ?(a) Duralumin(b) Magnalium(c) RR-53

(d) Aluminium bronze187. Presence of sulphur in cast iron

(a) promotes formation of graphite(b) reduces fluidity during melting(c) increases strength(d) reduces oxidation

188. Ferromagnetic materials when heated to temperatureabove Curie temperature(a) behave as paramagnetic materials(b) become ferrites(c) tend towards superconductivity(d) become insulators for heat and electricity

189. Which of the following is a copper free alloy ?(a) Brass(b) Phosphor bronze(c) Invar(d) Muntz metal

190. Scintillation is(a) variation of physical dimensions under the

influence of magnetic field(b) deionisation of gases under low pressures(c) production of flashes of light by some

substances when struck by alpha, beta orgamma rays

(d) change in dielectric constant of substanceswith change in humidity

191. German silver contains(a) 12.5 % silver (b) 5% silver(c) 1% silver (d) No silver

192. Which of the following thermocouple is capable ofmeasuring highest temperature ?(a) Iridium — rhodium(b) Platinum — rhodium(c) Chromel — alumel(d) Iron — constantan.

193. Wood is a(a) granular material(b) cellular material(c) homogeneous material(d) amorphous material

194. If a material is a glass, then you know it must(a) contain silica (SiO2).

13


(b) be a ceramic, since all ceramics are glass andglass is a kind of ceramic

(c) have a monoclinic crystal structure.(d) have no long-range crystalline lattice

structure.195. An initially long, straight copper bar is deformed

into the shape of the letter S at room temperature.The bar is then annealed (heated) in a furnace.Then(a) number density of dislocations in the bar

will be reduced, but the shape of the barremains unchanged.

(b) bar will straighten out again, sincedislocations are eliminated by the annealing.

(c) bar will straighten out again, since the numberof dislocation is increased by annealing

(d) nothing changes on an atomic,microstructural, or macroscopic scale in thebar. The bar just gets hot.

196. The Wiedemann-Franz law states that, the ratioof thermal conductivity to electrical conductivity fora material is approximately constant, independentof the material for a fixed temperature. Moreover,as temperature changes, the ratio of thermalconductivity to electrical conductivity for a materialis directly proportional to the temperature of thematerial. Which of the following is true of theWiedemann- Franz law ?I. The Wiedemann-Franz law applies only to

ceramics and plasticsII. The Wiedemann-Franz law applies best to

elemental metals.III. The Wiedemann-Franz law is based on the

free electron theory of metals, in which boththermal energy and electrical charge aretransported primarily by free electrons.

IV. The Wiedemann-Franz law is based on thePauling’s rules for electronegativity, inwhichelectrical conductivity and thermalconductivity of ceramic an plastic materialsare related to the percentage of ionicity ofthe atomic bonds in the structure.

(a) I only (b) II only(c) II and III (d)I, II, III and IV

197. Gold, which has an atomic radius of 0.14 nm,crystallizes in a FCC structure. The latticeparameter of gold is(a) same as the atomic radius.(b) 0.407 nm(c) 0.333 nm(d) 0.576 nm

--------------197. Strength of a material is its ability to resist

(a) deformation due to stress(b) fracture due to high load(c) external forces applied with yielding or

break down(d) none of the above

198. Ability of material to resist fracture due to highimpact load is called(a) toughness (b) stiffness(c) plasticity (d) hardness

199. Property of material due to which they can be drawninto wires, is called(a) elasticity (b) plasticity(c) stiffness (d) ductility

200. Ability of a material to retain the deformationpermanently is called(a) stiffness (b) ductility(c) hardness (d) plasticity

201. Property of material due to which it can be rolledor hammered into thin sheets is called(a) brittleness (b) ductility(c) malleability (d) fatigue

202. Property of material due to which recovery afterunloading is complete but instantaneous, is called(a) elasticity (b) plasticity(c) anelasticity (d) enelasticity

13. If a material sustains steady loads for long periodsof time, the material will continue to deform untilthey may tend to fracture under the same load.This phenomenon is called(a) fatigue (b) creep(c) malleability (d) resilience

15. If a material is heated, its toughness(a) increases (b) decreases(c) remains same (d) none of these

14


17. By hardness, a material can(a) cut another metal(b) be drawn into wires(c) be rolled or hammered into thin sheets(d) resist fracture due to high impact loads

19. With increase in the hardness of material elasticrecovery after deformation(a) increases (b) decreases(c) remains same (d) none of these

21. Ability of a material to exhibit considerable elasticrecovery on release of load, is called(a) toughness (b) stiffness(c) resilience (d) hardness

23. Stress-concentration occurs when a body issubjected to(a) extensive stress(b) non-uniform stress(c) reverse stress(d) fluctuating stress

25. When a body recovers its original dimensions onremoving the load, it is called(a) elastic (b) plastic(c) brittle (d) none of these

27. A metal which is brittle in tension can become ductile(a) in the presence of notches(b) under hydrostatic compression(c) in the presence of embrittlement agents such

as hydrogen(d) all of these

29. First product of the blast furnace in the process ofconverting iron ore into useful metal byreduction, iscalled(a) cast iron (b) wrought iron(c) pig iron (d) steel

31. Blast furnace is used to produce(a) cast iron (b) wrought iron(c) pig iron (d) steel

33. Carbon in the pig iron varies from(a) 4 to 5% (b) 2 to 4%(c) 5 to 8% (d) 5 to 10%

35. In blast furnace Bosh is the(a) portion below its widest cross section

(b) smelting zone(c) hottest part(d) all of these

37. Iron alloy having carbon more than 2% is called(a) cast iron(b) high carbon steel(c) mild steel(d) none of these

39. Diamond’s weight is expressed in terms of carats.One carat is equal to(a) 1 mg (b) 20 mg(c) 200 mg (d) 350 mg

41. Tensile strength of cast iron varies in the range of(a) 440-500 MPa (b) 500-600 MPa (c) 500-840 MPa (d) 650-1000 MPa

43. Property of cast iron is(a) good wear resistance(b) good casting characteristic(c) excellent machinability(d) high compressive strength(e) all of these

45. Elastic limit of cast iron as compared to ultimatebreaking strength is(a) half(b) double(c) approximately same(d) noneof these

47. Visco elastic behaviour is common in(a) rubber(b) plastics(c) crystalline materials(d) non-crystalline organic polymers

49. Silicon steel is widely used in(a) cutting tools(b) connecting rods(c) electrical industry(d) chemical industry

53. Chilled cast iron is produced(a) by quick cooling of molten cast iron(b) by adding magnesium to molten cast iron(c) from white cast iron by annealing(d) none of these

15


55. Chilled cast iron is(a) soft on surface(b) machined freely(c) highly resistance to wear(d) all of these

57. Cast iron produced by adding magnesium to moltencast iron is(a) chilled cast iron(b) grey cast iron(c) malleable cast iron

(d) nodular cast iron59. If carbon present in cast iron is mostly in the free

state, it is called(a) white cast iron(b) grey cast iron(c) molten cast iron(d) none of these

61. If carbon present in cast iron is mostly in thecombined state, it is called(a) white cast iron(b) grey cast iron(c) molten cast iron(d) none of these

63. Material which can withstand maximum shockswithout failure is called(a) white cast iron(b) grey cast iron(c) molten cast iron(d) none of these

65. Grey cast iron as compared to white cast iron is(a) harder (b) softer(c) same (d) none of these

67. Wrought iron is(a) least resistant to corrosion(b) highly resistant to corrosion(c) soft(d) hard

69. Percentage of carbon in carbon steels is(a) 0.1 to 0.8% (b) 0.35 to 0.45%(c) 1.8 to 4.2% (d) 0.1 to 1.5%

71. Percentage of carbon in high carbon steels is(a) 0.1 to 0.15% (b) 0.15 to 0.8%

(c) 0.8 to 1.5% (d) more than 1.5%73. In carbon steel castings, the peicentage of

(a) carbon is below 1.7%(b) carbon is between 1.7 to 2%(c) alloying elements is controlled(d) none of these

75. Hardness of steel depends on(a) amount of carbon present(b) heating temperature before quenching(c) shape and distribution of carbide in iron(d) all of these

77. To make low carbon steel tougher and harder(a) silicon is added(b) carbon is added(c) phosphorus is added(d) sulphur is added

79. Alloy steel as compared carbon steel is more(a) tough(b) strong(c) fatigue resistance(d) all of these

81. As per I.S.I. specification, phosphorus content P32mean(a) is maximum and equal to 32%(b) is minimum and equal to 32%(c) and sulphur contents are maximum and

each equal to 32%(d) is equal to 32%

83. Alloy steel containing 36% nickel is called(a) invar (b) stainless steel(c) high speed steel (d) none of these

85. Shock resistance of steel is increased by adding(a) carbon(b) aluminium(c) nickel chromium(d) cobalt

87. In steel, main alloy causing corrosion resistance is(a) manganese (b) vanadium(c) chromium (d) cobalt

89. Machining properties of steel are improved by adding(a) nickel(b) chromium

16


(c) silicon(d) sulphur, lead and phosphorus

91. Depth hardness of steel is increased by adding(a) nickel (b) chromium(c) silicon (d) lead

93. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding(a) silicon(b) nickel and chromium(c) vanadium and cobalt(d) none of these

95. Tungsten when added to steel, its critical temperature(a) increases (b) decreases(c) remains same (d) none of these

97. In high speed steel, tungsten can be replaced by(a) chromium (b) vanadium(c) molybdenum (d) cobalt

99. Ferrite appears under microscope as(a) dark (b) white(c) light (d) finger prin

101. 18-4-1 high steel contains(a) Vanadium 18%, chromium 4% and tungsten

1%(b) Vanadium 4%, chromium 18% and tungsten

1%(c) Vanadium 1%, chromium 4% and

tungsten 18%(d) Vanadium 18%, chromium 1% and tungsten

4%103. 18-4-1 high speed steel contains maximum

percentage of(a) vanadium (b) chromium(c) tungsten (d) iron

105. Essential gradient of any hardened steel is(a) carbon (b) cementite(c) Martensite (d) pearlite

107. Steel containing 11 to 14% chromium and 0.35%carbon is called(a) martensitic stainless steel(b) ferritic stainless steel(c) austenitic stainless steel(d) none of these

109. Steel containing 15 to 20% nickel and 0.1% carbonis called(a) martensitic stainless steel(b) ferritic stainless steel(c) austenitic stainless steel(d) none of these

111. Steel having combination of 87% ferrite and 13%cementite is called(a) Pearlite (b) Martensite(c) Austenite (d) none of these

113. With increase of percentage of carbon in iron,amount of cementite(a) increases (b) decreases(c) remains same (d) uncertain

115. Steel containing pearlite and ferrite is(a) tough (b) hard(c) soft (d) ductile

117. Steel with carbon below 0.8% is called(a) Eutectoid steel(b) Hyper-tectoid steel(c) Hypo-tectoid steel(d) Austenite

119. Hardness steel depends upon amount of(a) Pearlite (b) Ferrite(c) Cementite (d) Martensite

121. A phase transformation in which all the liquid phasetransforms on cooling to two solid phasessimultaneously, is called(a) Eutectic (b) Hyper-eutectic(c) Hypo-eutectic (d) None of these

123. If steel is slowly cooled in furnace, the structureobtained is called(a) pearlite (b) sorbite(c) martensite (d) troosite

125. If steel is quenched in oil during transformation,the structure obtained is called(a) pearlite (b) sorbite(c) toorsite (d) martensite

127. Process of austempering results in the formationof(a) martensitic structure(b) pearlite structure

17


(c) bainite structure(d) toorsite structure

129. Temperature at which the first tiny new grainappears, is called(a) melting temperature(b) recrystallisation temperature(c) boiling temperature(d) none of these

131. Purpose of heat treatment is to(a) produce hard surface on a ductile interior(b) improve machinability(c) change grain size(d) relieve internal stresses(e) all of these

133. In heat treatment process, to obtain certain desirableproperties(a) heating of metal is done in a solid state(b) cooling of metal is done in a solid state(c) heating or cooling of metal is done in a

solid state(d) none of these

135. Heat treatment(a) is effective only with certain alloys(b) depends upon cooling rate(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

137. By normalising of steel, its(a) ultimate tensile strength increases(b) yield point increases(c) ductility decreases(d) all of these

139. The defect causing slip by which most metals deformplastically is known as(a) strain hardening(b) dislocation(c) fracture(d) none of the above

141. The hypo-eutectoid steel is heated 30°C to 50°Cabove the upper critical temperature and then cooledslowly in the furnace, in(a) normalising(b) full annealing

(c) process annealing(d) hardening

143. Annealing of steel is done to(a) soften the metal(b) improve machinability(c) refine grain structure(d) relieve internal stresses(e) all of these

145. Process of production of articles having a softductile interior and a very hard surface, is called(a) hardening(b) tempering(c) case-hardening(d) annealing

147. Process of inducing carbon to low carbon steel toget a hard surface, is known as(a) carburising (b) cyaniding(c) nitriding (d) flame hardening

149. Process of adding carbon and nitrogen to increasehardness at the surface is called(a) carburising (b) cyaniding(c) nitriding (d) none of these

151. Case hardening is(a) done to get a soft ductile interior with a

very hard surface(b) done to get a hard ductile interior with a

very hard surface(c) followed by tempering(d) none of these

153. Process in which steel is heated in a molten saltbath having temperature 250°C to 500°C above thecritical temperature, then quenched into a moltenbath at sufficient rate between 200°C to 450°C,held there for sufficient time and cooled to roomtemperature, is called(a) normalising (b) annealing(c) tempering (d) spheroidising

155. The process in which the steel is heated slightlyabove the lower critical temperature and then cooledslowly to a temperature of 600°C is called(a) normalising(b) annealing

18


(c) tempering(d) spheroidising

157. Heat treatment process which decreases hardnessand tensile strength but increases machinability is(a) normalising (b) annealing(c) tempering (d) spheroidising

159. Line Aim on iron-carbon diagram indicates(a) the beginning of transition from austenite to

ferrite(b) completion of austenite transition to ferrite


161. Advantage of austempering is(a) more uniform micro structure is obtained(b) warping and distortions are avoided(c) quenching cracks are avoided(d) all of these

163. Age hardening is related to(a) cast iron (b) duralumin(c) stainless steel (d) brass

167. In flame hardening, the flame used is of(a) oil burner(b) gas burner(c) oxy-acetylene(d) none of these

169. Changes occurring at the critical points are called(a) allotropic (b) polytropic(c) critical point (d) structure

171. Critical points for steels(a) may change in number on heating or cooling(b) causes change in physical properties(c) causes change in chemical composition of

steel(d) all of these

173. When a steel containing less than 0.8% carbon iscooled slowly from temperature above or within thecritical range, it contains(a) ferrite mainly(b) pearlite mainly(c) ferrite and pearlite(d) pearlite and cementite

175. When a steel containing less than 0.85% carbonis cooled slowly below the lower critical point, itcontains(a) ferrite mainly(b) pearlite mainly(c) ferrite and pearlite(d) pearlite and cementite

177. The upper critical temperature for steel(a) varies according to carbon content in it(b) is constant(c) depends on the rate of heating(d) none of these

179. Temperature at which the change ends on heatingthe steel, is called(a) lower critical temperature(b) upper critical temperature(c) point of recalescence(d) none of these

181. Lower critical point for all steels is(a) 600°C (b) 723°C(c) 900°C (d) 91400°C

183. Alpha iron exists at(a) below 768°C(b) between 768°C to 900°C(c) between 900°C to 1400°(d) between 1400°C to 1530°C

185. Delta iron exists in the temperature range of(a) 0°C to 768°C (b) 768°C to 900°C(c) 900°C to 1400°C (d) 1400°C to 1530°C

189. Iron-carbon equilibrium diagram(a) correlates the microstructure and

properties of steel and cast iron(b) indicates the phase changes occurring during

heating and cooling(c) is made by plotting carbon percentage along

x-axis and temperature along y-axis(d) all of these

191. Process of reducing the ore with carbon in thepresence of a flux is called(a) quenching(b) smelting(c) shaping

19


(d) none of these193. The silicon and manganese had burnt and carbon

has started oxidising during the operation of abessemer converter, is indicated by(a) white flames (b) brown smoke(c) red flame (d) none of these

195. Furnace is lined with a mixture of tar and burntdolomite bricks in process(a) acidic bessemer(b) basic bessemer(c) duplex(d) L-D

197. The steel making process used at Rourkela steelplant is(a) acidic bessemer process(b) basic bessemer process(c) duplex process(d) L-D process

199. Phosphorus and sulphur in steel making can beremoved by(a) acidic bessemer process(b) basic bessemer process(c) duplex process(d) L-D process

201. Steel may be manufactured by(a) bessemer process(b) duplex process(c) open hearth process(d) all of these

203. When the atoms are arranged regularly in somedirection but not in others, in a material, it is called(a) amorphous material(b) mesomorphous material(c) crystalline structure(d) none of these

207. Structure of common glass is(a) amorphous(b) partially crystalline(c) fully crystalline(d) none of these

209. In a unit cell of body centered cubic space lattice,the total number of atoms is

(a) 6 (b) 9(c) 14 (d) 24

211. If a unit cell of structure having nine atoms outof which one atom is located at the centre of cubeand eight atoms are located at the corners of thecube, then the structure is called(a) body centered cubic space lattice(b) face centered cubic space lattice(c) hexagonal closed packed space lattice(d) none of these

213. A space lattice found in cc-iron is called(a) body centered cubic space lattice(b) face centered cubic space lattice(c) close packed hexagonal space lattice(d) none of these

215. Body centered cubic space lattice is found in(a) X-iron, chromium, tungsten and

molybdenum(b) Y-iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and

nickel(c) zinc, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismath(d) none of these

217. Close packed hexogonal space lattice is found in(a) a-iron, chromium, tungsten and molybdenum(b) g-iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and

nickel(c) zinc, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and

bismath(d) none of these

219. Structure of a material which can be examined bynaked eye is(a) macro-structure(b) micro-structure(c) atomic structure(d) grain structure

221. Crystal structure of material is generally examinedby(a) naked eye(b) microscope(c) optical microscope(d) X-ray and electron diffraction

223. An allotropic material has

20


(a) fixed structure at all temperatures(b) atoms distributed in random pattern(c) different crystal structures at different

temperatures(d) none of these

225. If low carbon steel is heated upto criticaltemperature, the(a) average grain size will be minimum(b) average grain size will be maximum(c) grain size does not change(d) grain size increases rapidly

227. Slow cooling of steel from the upper critical pointresults in a(a) fine grained structure(b) coarse grained structure(c) crystal structure(d) none of these

229. Fine grained steels are(a) brittle (b) ductile(c) tighter (d) all of these

231. Bronze is an alloy of(a) copper and zinc(b) copper and tin(c) copper, tin and zinc(d) none of these

233. German silver contains(a) 1% silver (b) 5% silver(c) 10% silver (d) no silver

235. An example of brass is(a) muntz metal (b) gun metal(c) delta metal (d) none of the above

237. Example of bronze is(a) muntz metal (b) gun metal(c) delta metal (d) none of these

239. In corrosion resistance properties, bronze ascompared to brass is(a) superior (b) inferior(c) same (d) none of these

241. Monel metal consists of(a) nickel, lead and tin(b) nickel and copper(c) nickel, zinc and copper

(d) nickel, zinc and aluminium243. Hast alloy consists of

(a) copper and nickel(b) copper and aluminium(c) molybdenum and nickel(d) nickel and aluminium

245. Inconel is alloy containing(a) nickel, copper and zinc(b) nickel, chromium and iron(c) nickel and chromium(d) nickel, chromium and copper

247. Nichrome contains iron as compared to Inconel is(a) more (b) less(c) same (d) none of these

249. Silicon bronze contains(a) 96% copper, 3% silicon and 1% Mn(b) 96% copper, 1% silicon and 3% Mn(c) 97.25% copper, 1.75% silicon and 1% Mn(d) none of the above

251. Babbit metal is(a) copper base alloy(b) tin base alloy(c) cadmium base alloy(d) none of these

253. Which of the following is used for imitation jwellery?(a) Duralumin(b) Aluminium bronze(c) Gun metal(d) Silicon bronze

255. Phosphorus bronze has(a) high resistance to corrosion(b) good wearing qualities and high elasticity(c) good cold working property(d) all of these

257. Dow metal is an alloy of(a) copper, aluminium and magnesium(b) copper, zinc and molybdenum(c) tin, lead and antimony(d) none of these

259. Low carbon steel can be hardened by(a) hardening

21


(b) heating and quenching in oil(c) heating and quenching in water(d) carburising and cyaniding

261. Bush bearings is(a) aluminium bronze(b) aluminium bronze(c) white metal alloy(d) none of these

263. Alloy of copper with manganse increases(a) hardness (b) machinability(c) weldability (d) tensile strength

265. Alloy of the copper with silicon increases(a) hardness and strength(b) ductility(c) machinability(d) weldability

267. Alloy not containing tin is(a) gun metal(b) phosphorus bronze(c) white metal(d) all of these

269. Magnesium alloys are(a) highly machinable(b) light(c) resistant to corrosion(d) magnetic

271. Plastics are(a) bad conductor of heat and electricity(b) good conductor of heat and electricity(c) good conductor of heat and bad conductor of

electricity(d) bad conductor of heat and good conductor of

electricity273. Thermoplastic materials are those which

(a) becomes soft on application of heat and canbe moulded again

(b) do not become hard with the applicationof heat and pressure and no chemicalchange occurs

(c) permanently set with heat and pressure andcan not deformed when again subject to heat

(d) produced on synthesis basic

275. Thermo setting materials are produced by(a) cast moulding process(b) injection moulding process(c) extrusion process(d) none of these

277. Thermo plastic materials can be produced by(a) blow moulding(b) cast moulding(c) compression moulding(d) calendering

279. Slow plastic deformation of metals under a constantstress is called(a) Creep(b) Fatigue(c) Endurance(d) Plastic deformation

281. Which of the following constituents of steel issoftest and least strong ?(a) austenite(b) pearlite(c) ferrite(d) cementite

283. Materials which are usually most ductile has(a) face centred cubic lattice(b) body centred cubic lattice(c) haxagonal close-packed lattice(d) all of these

285. The percentage of carbon in grey iron castingsusually varies between(a) 0.5 to 1%(b) 1 to 2%(c) 2.5 to 4.5%(d) 5 to 7%

287. ‘Killed steels’ are those steels(a) which are destroyed by burning(b) which after their destruction are recycled to

produce fresh steel(c) which are deoxidised in the ladle with

silicon and aluminium(d) in which carbon is completely burnt(e) which have poor properties due to improper

manufacturing

22


289. Carburized machine components have highendurance limit because carburization(a) intruduces a compressive layer on the

surface(b) raises the yield point of the material(c) produces a better surface finish(d) supresses any stress concentration produced

in the component291. Sheradising is the process in which the objects

(a) are electroplated to obtain wear resistantsurface

(b) are treated before painting(c) are normalised after hardening(d) to be coated are packed in powdered zinc

and heated293. In gas nitriding steel components, which of the

following atomsphere is generally used In the frunace?(a) inert(b) nascent nitrogen(c) liquid nitrogen(d) ammonia

295. Moh’s scale is used in connection with(a) composition of metal(b) hardness of materials(c) wear criterion of metals(d) tensile strength of metals

297. Weld decay is the phenomenon found with(a) cast iron(b) mild steel(c) nonferrous materials(d) stainless steel

299. Dislocation in materials refer to the(a) Point defect(b) Line defect(c) Plane defect(d) Volumetric defect

301. Large forgings, crank shafts, axles normally containcarbon upto(a) 0.05 to 0.20%(b) 0.20 to 0.45%(c) 0.45 to 0.55%

(d) 0.55 to 1.0%303. Taps, dies and drills contain carbon

(a) below 0.5% (b) below 1%(c) above 1% (d) above 2.2%

305. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased byadding(a) Chromium(b) Nickel(c) Aluminium(d) Tungsten

307. Rockwell ‘C’ scale uses minor increment load of10 kg and the major increment load and diamondindenter respectively are(a) 100 kg and 118°(b) 140 kg and 118°(c) 150 kg and 120°(d) 140 kg and 120°

309. Total atoms in Face-centered cubic structure (FCC)unit cell is(a) 2 (b) 4(c) 6 (d) none of these

311. The load and standard steel ball used for Brinellhardness number are(a) 300 kg, 1 mm(b) 300 kg, 5 mm(c) 300 kg, 10 mm(d) 3000 kg, 10 mm

313. Alnico, an alloy used extensively for permanentmagnets, contains iron, nickel, aluminium and cobaltin the ratio(a) 50 : 20 : 20 : 10(b) 40 : 30 : 20 : 10(c) 50 : 20 : 10 : 20(d) 30 : 20 : 30 : 20

315. The alloy used for making a resistance of electricaland heating elements is(a) nichrome (b) invar(c) magnin (d) elinvar

317. Addition of silicon to aluminium results in(a) improvement of casting characteristics(b) improvement of corrosion resistance

23


(c) one of the best known age and precipitationhardening systems

(d) improving machinability319. Which of the following has highest specific strength

of all structural materials ?(a) magnesium alloys(b) titanium alloys(c) chromium alloys(d) magnetic steel alloys

321. Duralumin contains(a) 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5%

Mn, Mg, Si and Fe(b) 92.5% aluminium, 4% copper, 2% nickel and

1.5% Mg(c) 10% aluminium and 90% copper(d) 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with

some copper323. Sub-zero treatment of steel

(a) is used to reduce the retained sustenite inhardened steel

(b) increases the ability of steel to work in sub-zero atomospheres

(c) is used to suppress martensite transformation(d) is performed after hardening operation to

induce temper-brittleness325. An undersirable side effect of motional inductance

of large conducting specimens is(a) skin effect (b) hysteresis(c) eddy currents (d) dielectric loss.

327. Which one of the following theories is related to thetheory of the thermocouple ?(a) Piezoelectric effect (b) Skin effect(c) Seeback effect (d)Faraday’s Law

329. A certain photoconductive cell is known to have acritical wave-length of 0.5 micrometer. Then theminimum energy required to move an electron fromthe valence band to the conduction band is(a) 0.96 electric volt(b) 0.31 electron volt(c) 0.62 electric volt(d) 2.48 electron volts

131. The viscoelastic behaviour of an amorphous polymerwill change with increasing temperature from its

rigid structure at low temperatures. The polymer’sbehaviour may proceed through the following stages.I. LeatheryII. RubberyIII. ViscousWhat is the consecutive order of the stages it willpass through ?(a) I, III only (b) II, III only(c) II, I, III only (d) I, II, III only

333. The structure which have the highest packing ofatoms are(a) Hexagonal close packed lattice(b) Body central cubic lattice(c) Simple cubic lattice(d) None of these

335. A ductile feature is usually not preceded by(a) large amount of non-recoverable energy

absorption(b) plastic flow(c) deformation(d) noise

337. All of the following ceramic materials are isotropicexcept(a) SiO4

(b) SiO2

(c) Mg SiC)(d) A1203

339. The elastic modulus for an elastomer such as rubberwill increase with increasing temperature above theglass transition temperature due to which of thefollowing reasons ?I. The molecules are in a highly kinked

conformation at higher temperatures.II. The molecules will align themselves in the

direction of any applied stress.III. The molecules will distort the matrix at higher

temperatures.(a) II only (b) I and III only(c) III only (d) I only

341. The nature of atomic bond found in diamond is(a) ionic (b) covaloent(c) metallic (d) none of these

24


343. The Miller indices of the diagonal plane of a cubeare(a) 110 (b) 111(c) 100 (d) 000

345. Semiconductors have electrical conductivities of theorder (ohm-cm-1)(a) 10-15 (b) 104(c) 104 (d) 1010

347. Resistivity of electrical conductors is most affectedby(a) temperature (b) pressure(c) composition (d) all of the above

349. Which of the following expression states Gibb’sphase rule (where the notations have their usualmeaning)?(a) F = C — P + 1 (b) F = C — P + 2(c) F = C — P + 3 (d) F = C — P + 4

351. Sillicon steel used for electrical purpose has siliconpercentage of(a) 0.5% (b) 2.5%(c) 3.4% (d) 12.5%

353. Which of the following chemical is added to givethe blue colour to the glass ?(a) Cobalt oxide(b) Manganese dioxide(c) Tin oxide(d) Calcium phosphate

355. Electrical resistances are made from(a) Elinvar (b) Duralumin(c) Constantan (d) Monel metal

357. Amorphous material is(a) Glass (b) Silver(c) Lead (d) Zinc

359. A diffused resistor in an IC(a) is formed along with the fabrication of

transistors(b) can be fabricated with ease for any resistance

value(c) is fabricated before transistor diffusion(d) is fabricated after transistor diffusion.

361. Ferromagnetics owe their properties to(a) filled inner sub-shells

(b) vacant inner sub-shells(c) partially filled inner sub-shells(d) all the sub-shells equally filled

363. The relative permeability of a dimagnetic materialis(a) zero (b) equal to unity(c) less than unity (d) more than unity

365. The area encased by a hysteresis loop is a measureof(a) retentivity(b) susceptibility(c) permeability(d) energy loss per cycle.

367. If frequency of light falling on a metal plate isdoubled, the kinetic energy of emitted electrons willbecome(a) exactly double(b) slightly more than double(c) slightly less than double(d) four times

369. A semiconductor is damaged by a strong currentbecause of(a) excess of electrons(b) decrease in electrons(c) lack of free electrons(d) none of these

371. The excitations of outer electrons in atoms andmolecules is associated with which of the followingbands of radiation ?(a) X- rays (b) Gamma rays(c) Ultra violet (d) Infrared.

373. Many types of semiconducting materials exist,including silicon and germanium. Which of thefollowing statements below are true?I. A p-type (positive) semiconductor is formed

when silicon or germanium is doped with agroup III element.

II. Doping actually reduces the conductivity ofa silicon or germanium crystal.

III. If doping of silicon and germanium producesnonbonded electrons, Si and Ge, can thereferred to as n-type conductors.

(a) I only (b) II only

25


(c) III only (d) None of these375. Glass is an example of an amorphous solid which

can be characterised as a(a) malleable solid(b) crystal-like structure(c) good conductor(d) very viscous fluid

377. The tunnel effects refers to(a) the migration of conducting electrons in a

magnetic field.(b) the use of lasers in surveying(c) the ability of electrons to exist on both sides

of a large energy barrier(d) the existence of cathode rays in a vacuum.

379. Which of the following elements most readily showthe photoelectric effect ?(a) Noble gases(b) Alkali metals(c) Halogen elements(d) Transition metals

381. Which of the following is a correct statement ?(a) Beta-rays are same as cathode rays.(b) Gamma-rays are high energy neutrons.(c) Alpha particles are singly ionised helium

atoms.(d) Protons and neutrons have exactly the same

mass.383. Silicon steel is widely used in

(a) cutting tools(b) dies and punches(c) electrical industry(d) 1-.emical industry

385. Which of the following is closst to the purest formof iron ?(a) Low carbon steel(b) Cast iron(c) Wrought iron(d) Mild steel

387. In steel as the percentage of carbon increases whichof the following decreases ?(a) Ultimate strength(b) Hardness

(c) Ductility(d) Percentage of pearlite

389. Which of the following is harder than diamond ?(a) Tantalum carbide(b) Alumina ceramics(c) Polycrystalline glass(d) None of these

391. Bakelite is a(a) acrylate(b) silicon varnish(c) thermoplastic synthetic resin(d) phenol formaldehyde resin

393. Piezoelectric is(a) material which becomes polarised when

stressed(b) a material which changes dimensions due to

applied field.(c) a material that has properties midway between

materials(d) a material in which magnetising force reduces

when current flowing is increased395. Metal with hexagonal close packed structure is

(a) Silver(b) Iron(c) Magnesium(d) Aluminium

397. Which of the following alloy has equal percentageof constituents ?(a) Constantan(b) Duralumin(c) Gunmetal(d) White metal

399. Ferrites are(a) Ferro — magnetic (b) Ferri — magnetic(c) Para — magnetic (d) Anti — magnetic

401. Polythene is(a) a polymer of ethylene(b) a vulcanised rubber(c) impregnated cotton(d) cellulose derivative

403. Thermoseting plastics have in general(a) molecular chains that slip past one

26


(b) be a ceramic, since all ceramics are glass andglass is a kind of ceramic

(c) have a monoclinic crystal structure.(d) have no long-range crystalline lattice

structure.405. For a medium carbon steel, having a 0.50% carbon

content, slow cooling of austenite will cause austeniteto transform to carbide and ferrite. Rapid quenchingof austenite can result in(a) formation of martensite, which produces

a very hard and brittle steel.(b) retention of austenite, at room temperature,

which a vary ductile and tough steel.(c) formation of large carbide particles near the

grain boundaries in the steel, which makesthe steel brittle but very tough.

(d) retention of austenite, even at roomtemperature, which gives a very brittle andhard steel.

407. If one assumes ideally spherical atoms making upthe crystal structure, then atomic packing factor(APF) for BCC and FCC unit cells(a) depends on the size of the unit cells.(b) depends on the radius of the atoms that make

up the unit cell.(c) is a constant for FCC and BCC unit cells

(0.74 for FCC unit cells, and 0.68 for BCCunit cells).

(d) both (a) and (b)409. The fracture surface energy of a brittle glassy

polymer can be several orders of magnitude greaterthan that for glassy sillica. The reason for the veryhigh fracture surface energy observed for brittlepolymeters is that(a) covalent bonding in the polymer chains is

quite high, thus it takes considerable energyto break the polymer chains during fracture

(b) polymers crosslink extensively as stress isapplied, producing a three dimensionalnetwork structure that is very resistant tofracture.

(c) applied stress tends to fragment the longpolymer chains into shorter molecular

segments which fracture less readily than thelong polymer chains molecules.

(d) during fracture small fibre-like bundlesof aligned polymer chains (called a craze)bridge the crack face. The energy requiredto from, stretch, and break the craze fibrilscontributes to the high fracture surfaceenergy that is observed.

--------------

SUPERVISER-1054

1 The number system with radix 2 is known as.(a) Binary (b) Decimal(c) Octal (d) Hexadecimal

2 A group of four bits is known as(a) bit (b) byte(c) nibble (d) word

3 The knowledge of binary number system is requiredfor the designers of computer and other digitalsystems because(a) It is easy to learn binary number system(b) It is easy to learn Boolean algebra(c) It is easy to use binary codes(d) The devices used in these systems

operates in binary4 The ones complement of the binary number

10001011 is(a) 01110100 (b) 11111111(c) 01110101 (d) 11111110

5 The twos complement of the number 100101000 is.(a) 011010110 (b) 111111111(c) 011010111 (d) None

6. The ones complement of ones complement of thegiven binary, number is(a) same binary number(b) zero(c) non-zero(d) none]

7 The twos complement of the twos complement ofthe given binary number 1011001 is

27


(a) 1011000 (b) 1010110(c) 1011001 (d) 0100111

8 The base or radix a Hexadecimal number systemis(a) 2 (b) 8(c) 16 (d) 15

9 The ntxnber systeuXnvith base or radix 8 is knownas(a) binary (b) decimal(c) octal (d) hexadecimal

10 The decimal equivalent of the binary number 101101is(a) 48 (b) 45(c) 57 (d) 75

11 The decimal equivalent of the binary number1001.0101 is(a) 9.125 (b) 9.6125(c) 9.3125 (d) 9.6215

12 The binary equivalent of decimal number 255 is(a) 11111110 (b) 11111101(c) 11111111 (d) none

13 Identify the binary number represented by thedecimal number 10.625(a) 1010.011 (b) 1010.101(c) 1010.110 (d) none

14 The binary equivalent of the decimal number 0.6875is(a) 0.1010 (b) 0.1011(c) 0.1101 (d) 0.0110

15 The octal equivalent of the decimal number 375 is(a) 560 (b) 567(c) 565 (d) none

16 The octal equivalent of the decimal number 27.125is(a) 33.23 (b) 33.28(c) 33.1 (d) 33.01

18. The heradecimal equivalent of the decimal number375 is

(a) 177 (b) 17A(c) 1A0 (d) none

19 The decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number“BEED” is

(a) 47877 (b) 48877(c) 48777 (d) none

20 Encode the decimal number 327.8.7 in BCD code(a) 0011 0010 0111. 1000 1001(b) 0011 0010 0110.1001 1000(c) 0011 0010 0111.1100 1010(d) none

21 The decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number3A.2F is(a) 58.1835 (b) 58.1385(c) 58.23 (d) none

22 The decimal number 13 is represented in naturalBCD as(a) 1101 (b) 0001 0011(c) 0000 1101 (d) none

23 The binary equivalent of the hexadecimal numberA0B5 is(a) 1010 0001 1011 0101(b) 1010 0000 1010 0101(c) 1010 0000 1011 0101(d) none

24 The octal equivalent of the binary number 11,01011-1 is(a) 656 (b) 327(c) 653 (d) D7

25 The decimal equivalent of the binary number1101014 is(a) 215 (b) 225(c) 250 (d) none

26 The octal equivalent of the decimal number 215 is(a) 327 (b) 372(c) 237 (d) none

27 he maximum positive and negative numbers whichcan be represented in twos complement form usingn bits are respectively(a) + (2n–1-1), – (2n–1 – 1)(b) + (2n–1–1),-2n–1

(c) + 2n–1, –2n-1

(d) + 2n–1 , – (2n-1 – 1)28 When two n-bit binary numbers are added then the

sum will contain at the most(a) n-bit (b) (n+1)-bits

28


(c) (n+2)-bits (d) (n+ n)-bits29 The largest positive number that can be stored in a

computer that has 16-bit word length and uses.twoscomplement arithmetic is(a) 32 (b) 32767(c) 32768 (d) 65536

30 The maximum positive and negative numbers thatcan be represented in ones complement using n-bits are respectively(a) + (2n-1-1) and - (2n-1 - 1)(b) + (2n-1-1) and -2n-1

(c) + 2n-1 and - (2n-1 - 1)(d) None of these

31. A switching function f(A,B,C,D) =A’B’CD+A’BC’D+A’BCD+AB’C’D+AB’CD can

also be written as(a) Em (1,3,5,7,9) (b) Em (3,5,7,9,11)(c) Em (3,5,9,11,13) (d) Em (5,7,9,11,13)

32. The switching function f(A,B,C,D) = Em (5,9,11,14)can be written as(a) A’ B C’ D+A B’ C’ D+A B’ CD+ABCD’(b) A’ B’ C’ D + AB’ C’ D + A’ B’ CD + ABCD’(b) A’ BC’ D + A’ BC’ D’ + AB’ C D’ + ABCD(d) None

33. The switching function f(A,B,C) =(A+B’+C)(A1+B’+C)(A+61+C) can also be writtenas(a) Em(2,3,6) (b) Ern (0,1,4,5,7)(c) Em (1,2,5,6,7) (d) Em (0,2,4,6)

34. The other canonical form of f(A,B,C) = Em (0,1,5,7)is(a) rIM (2,3,4,6) (b) rIM (2,4,6,8)(c) FIM (2,5,6,7) (d) LIM (1,3,5,7)

35. The dual of Boolean theorem x(y+z) = xy+xz is(a) x + yz = xy + xz(b) x(y+z) = (x+y)(x+z)(c) x+yz = (x+y)(x+z)(d) None

36. The dual of a Boolean theorem is obtained by(a) interchanging all zeros and ones only(b) changing all zeros to ones only(c) changing all ones to zeros only(d) interchanging operators and identity

elements37. The SOP form of logical expression is most suitable

for designing logic circuit using only(a) NOR gates (b) NAND gates(c) AND gates (d) X-OR gates

38. The POS form of logical expression is most suitablefor designing logic circuits using only(a) X-OR gates (b) AND gates(c) NAND gates (d) NOR gates

39. The logic expression F = XY+XZ’+YZ is knownas(a) SSOP form (b) SOP forrn(c) POS form (d) SPOS form

40. The logic expression F = (x+y+z)(x+y)(y z’)(x+z)is known as(a) SOP form (b) SSOP form(c) SPOS form (d) POS form

41. In Boolean Algebra 1' is called (a) Additive identity

(b) Multiplicative identity(c) Either1or2(d) None

42. In Boolean Algebra 0' is called(a) Additive identity(b) Multiplicative identity(c) Both 1and2(d) None

43. A literal in Boolean algebra, is a(a) Primed or unprimed’ Boolean variable(b) primed Boolean variable only(c) Unprimed Boolean-Variable-only(d) None

44. The Boolean expression + y is equal to(a) x (b) x+y(c) y (d) x + y’

45. The Boolean expression_ (x+y)(x+z) is equal to(a) x+z (b) x+y(c) x+yz (d) y+xz

46. A minterm is nothing but(a) Standard sum term(b) Standard product term(c) May be standard sum term or product term

29


(d) None47. A maxterm is nothing but a

(a) Standard sum term(b) Standard product term(c) May be standard sum term or product term(d) None_

48. The Boolean function expressed in standard ,sumof Products form or standard product of sums formis called(a) Canonical form (b) Conical form(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None

49. The sum of products form can be realized by usinglogic(a) NAND-NAND (b) AND-OR(c) Either1or 2 (d) None

50. The dual of x+xy = x is(a) x+y (b) x(c) x(x+y) = x (d) (x+y)(x-y) = x

51. The dual of the exclusive — OR gate is equal to(a) NAND gate (b) X-OR gate(c) X-NOR gate (d) AND gate

52. Identify the degenerative form from the followingtwo level gate networks(a) AND-AND (b) OR-NOR(c) AND-NAND (d) All the above

53. Identify the non-degenerative formfrom the followingtwo level gate networks(a) AND-AND (b) NOR-AND(c) NAND-NOR (d) NOR-NAND

54. Boolean algebra can be used to(a) Simplify any algebraic expressions(b) Minimize the number of switches in a circuits(c) Solve the mathematical problems(d) Perform arithmetic calculations

55. The value of X © 0 is(a) X (b) X’(c) 1 (d) 0

56. De-Morgan’s theorems states that(a) (A+B) ‘ = A’.B’ and (AB) ‘ = A`B`(b) (A+B) ‘A’A-B1 and (AB) ‘ = A’.B’(c) (A+B) ‘A’.B’ and (AB) ‘ = A’+B’(d) (A+B) ‘ = A’+B’ and (AB) ‘ = A’+B’

57. The number of terms in a function of four variableare

(a) 4 (b) 8(c) 16 (d) 12

58. The minterm, designator of the term AB CD is (a) 10 (b) 11

(c) 12 (d) None59. The maxterm, designator of the term A’+B’+C+D’

is(a) 2 (b) 13(c) 10 (d) 15

60. The rninterm corresponds to decimal number 12 is(a) AB C’ D’ (b) A+B+C’+D’(c) A’+B’+C+D (d) A’ B’ C D

61. The rnaxterm corresponds to decimal number 14 is(a) A+B+C+ D (b) A’+B’+C’+D(c) A’ B’ C’ D (d) ABCD

62. 1he number of cells in-a 6-variable K-map is(a) 6 (b) 12(c) 36 (d) 64

63. The code used for labelling the cells of the K-mapis(a) Natural BCD (b) Hexadecimal(c) Gray (d) Octal

64. In K-map simplification, a group of eight adjacentones leads to a term with(a) one literal less than the total number of variables(b) two literals less than the total number of

variables(c) three literals less than the total number of

variables(d) four literals less than the total number of

variables65. Minimization of logic expressions while designing

digital systems helps in reducing(a) Cost (b) Space requirement(c) Power requirement (d) All of these

66. The Boolean expression X + X’Y =(a) X + Y (b) X + XY(c) Y + YX (d) X’Y + Y’X

67. (X+Y)+Z = X+ (Y+Z)(a) shows that the boolean operator OR is

distributive

30


(b) shows that the boolean operator OR isassociative

(c) implies the associativity of the boolean operatorAND(d) none of the above.

68. The boolean expression AB + AB’ + A’ C + ACisindependent of the boolean variable(a) A (b) B(c) (d) none of these

69. Which of the following Boolean algebrastatementrepresent distributive law(a) A+(B+C)=(A+B)+C(b) A(BC)=(AB)C(c) A(B+C)=AB + AC(d) none of these

70. Which of the following Boolean algebra staternerdsrqxesent cornmutalive law(a) A+A’=A+B(b) A+AB = B(c) (A+B) (A+C) = A+BC(d) A+B = B+A

71. The basic gates are (a) AND, OR, NAND

(b) AND,OR, NOR(c) AND, OR, NOT(d) NAND, NOR

72. The output of a gate is 1 if and only if all the inputare high, what is that gate?

(a) NOT (b) NAND(c) NOR (d) AND

73. The output of the gate is 1 only for odd number ofhigh inputs, what is that gate?(a) X-NOR (b) X-OR(c) NAND (d) NOR

74. Identify the universal gate from the following gates(a) OR (b) AND(c) X-OR (d) NAND

75. The output of the gate is zero only when all theinputs are high. What is that gate?(a) AND (b) OR(c) NAND (d) NOR

76. The minimum number of NAND gates required to

realizethe X-OR gate are.(a) 5 (b) 4(c) 3 (d) 6

77. The output of a gate is Y=AB+ A’B’ ,where A andB are inputs, what is that gate?(a) X-NOR (b) NAND(c) X-OR (d) all the above

78. Output of the given two voltage levels, if we choosemore negative voltage level as logic 1 and the otheras logic 0,it is called as(a) positive logic level(b) negative logic level(c) either a or b(d) None

79. The voltage levels -7y and -2v are given, for positivelevel logic systems which voltage value we have totake as logic 1?(a) -7v (b) Ov(c) -2v (d) None

80. The circuit which will work as OR gate in positivelevel logic will work as gate in negative level logic.(a) NOR (b) NAND(c) NAND and NOR (d) AND

81. The number of rem in the truth table of a gatehaving 5 inputs are(a) 32 (b) 64(c) 31 (d) 63

82. The memory unit that is constricting using only gateis(a) ROM (b) RAM(c) Core (d) Disc

18) Which logic cote is similar to the function of twoseries switches%(a) AND (b) OR(c) NAND (d) None

83. Y= (WI is the Boolean function for gate(a) AND (b) NAND(c) OR (d) NOR

84. The output of the Boolean expression for exclusiveORgate is(a) Y=(A+B) ( A’+B’)(b) Y=A B’+ A’ B(c) Y= (A’+ AB)’

31


(d) All the above85. NAND gate is called a universal gate because

(a) it used by every body.(b) any logic function can be realized by

NAND gate alone(c) many digital computers use .NAND gates(d) None

86. In the case of OR gate, no matter what thenumb...:of inputs, a(a) 1 at any input causes the output to be at

logic 1(b) 1 at any input-causes the output’to be at

logic 0(c) 0 at any input causes the output to be at

logic 0(d) None

87. The Boolean expression (xyz + yz+ xz) aftersimplification(a) x (b) y.(c) .z (d) (x + y)z

88. Memory unit which uses only combinational logic inits implementation(a) ROM (b) RAM(c) Core (d) Disc

89. Identify the pair of basic gates from the following(a) OR, NOR (b) NAND, AND(c) AND, NOT (d) NOT, NAND

90. The Boolean expression A+BC is equivalent to(a) AB+AC (b) A+C(c) (A+B) (A+C) (d) None

91. The Boolean expression AB + AB’ + A aftersimplification is(a) A (b) B(c) AB (d) AB’

92. In the following equations th4 equals sign means isequivalent to which of the following is a negativelogic?(a) 0 = 0 V and 1 = +5 V(b) 0 = +5 V and 1 = V(c) 0 = -5 V and 1 = 0 V(d) All of these

93. According to De Morgan’s second theorem

(a) A NAND gate is always complimentary toan AND gate

(b) An AND gate is equivalent to a bubbledNAND gate

(c) A NAND gate is equivalent to ,a bubbledAND gate

(d) A NAND gate is equivalent to a bubbledOR gate

94. NAND-NAND circuits are equivalent to(a) AND-OR circuits (b) OR-XOR circuits(c) OR-NOT circuits (d) All of these

95. The output of a gate is 1 if and only if all the inputsare high, what is that gate?(a) NOT (b) NAND(c) NOR (d) AND

96. The output of a gate is 1 only for odd number ofhigh inputs, what is that gate?(a) X- NOR (b) X-OR(c) NAM (d) NOR

97. Identify the uriversal gate from the following gates(a) OR gate (b) AND gate(c) X-13R (d) NAND

98. The output of a gate is zero if and only if when allthe inputs are high_ What is that gate?(a) AND gate (b) OR gate(c) NAND gate (d) NOR gate

99. he minimum number of NAND gates required torealize X-OR gate are(a) 5 (b) 4(c) 3 (d) 6

100. The output of a gate Y = AB + A’ B’, where A andB are inputs, what is that gate?(a) X-NOR (b) NAND(c) X-OR (d) All of these

101. Identify the operation performed by the gate circuitshown in figure(a) AND (b) OR(c) NAND (d) NOR

102. Out of the given two voltage levels, if we choosemore ne negative voltage level as. logic 1 and theother as logic 0, it is called(a) Positive level logic(b) negative level logic

32


(c) either 1 or 2(d) None

103. Two voltage levels — 7 V and —2 V are given,for positive level logic system which-voltage valuewe have to take as logic 1?(a) - 7 V (b) 0 V(c) -2 V (d) None

104. The circuit which will work as OR gate in positivelevel logic will work as —— gate in negative levellogic(a) NOR gate(b) NAND gate(c) both NAND and NOR gate(d) AND gate

105. The number of rows in the truth table of a gatehaving 5 inputs are(a) 32 (b) 64(c) 31 (d) 63

106. The memory unit which can be constructed by usingonly gates is(a) ROM (b) RAM(c) Core (d) Disk

107. Which logic gate is-similar to the function of twoseries switches?(a) AND gate (b) OR gate(c) NAND gate (d) None

108. Y = (AB)’ is the Boolean function for —— gate(a) AND gate (b) NAND gate(c) OR gate (d) NOR gate

109. The output Boolean expression for the exclusiveOR gate is(a) (A+B)1(b) Y = AB + A’ B’(c) Y= (A +. B) (A’+B’)(d) None of these

110. In the following equations the equals sign means isequal to Which of the following is a positive logic?(a) 0= 0 V and 1= +5 V(b) 0 = 0 V and 1 = -5 V(c) 0 = +5 V and 1 = 0 V(d) None of these

111. XOR gates are ideal for testing parity because even-parity words produce a — output and odd paritywords procedure a output(a) low, high (b) low, low(c) high, high (d) high, low

112. Which gate corresponds to the action of parallelswitches?(a) AND gate (b) OR gate(c) NOR gate (d) NAND gate

113. An AND gate has 7 inputs. How many v. ords arethere Ei its truth table?(a) 7 (b) 49(c) 81 (d) 128

114. The number it input wonis in a truth table akvoysopals — where “ n’ is the number of input Ms(a) 2n (b) 2n+1(c) 2(n+1) (d) 2n

115. A gate can have —input signals and — outputsignals(a) one, One(b) two, two(c) one or more, one(d) two or more, two or more

116. An OR gate has 6 input. How many input wordsare there in its truth table ?(a) 6 (b) 36(c) 64 (d) 64,000,000.

117. The voltage levels for positive logic system(a) must necessarily be positive(b) must necessarily be negative(c) may be positive or negative(d) must necessarily be 0 V and 5 V

118. The voltage levels for negative logic system(a) must necessarily be negative(b) must necessarily be positive(c) need not be negative(d) must necessarily be 0 V and -5 VU

119. Which of the following operations is not associative(a) NOR (b) OR(c) X-OR (d) None

120. The working of a staircase switch is a typicalexample of the logical operation.

33


(a) OR (b) NOR(c) XOR (d) XNOR

121. In which of the folowing gates the output is 1 if atleast one input is 0 or all inputs are Zeros.?(a) NOT (b) AND(c) OR (d) NAND

122. Let X and Y and Z be the inputs and z be theoutput of XOR gate. The value of z is given by(a) (XY)’ (b) X+Y(b) XY (d) none of these

123. What is the minimum number two-input NANDgates used to perform the function of two-input ORgate?(a) one (b) two(c) three (d) four

124. Which of the following gates are added to the inputsof the OR gate to convert it to the NAND gate ?(a) NOT (b) AND(c) OR (d) XOR

125. What logic function is produced by adding invertersto the input of an AND gate?(a) NAND (b) NOR(c) XOR (d) AND

126. Which of the following gates is known ascoincidence detector ?(a) AND gate (b) OR gate(c) NOT gate (d) NAND gate

127. Identify the logic gate family which is currefft modelogic(a) TTL (b) CMOS(c) ECL (d) DCTL

126. Identify the logic gate family which does not useunipolar transistors(a) CMOS (b) MOS(c) TTL (d) All of these

127. Example for unipolar logic gate family is(a) CMOS (b) TTL(c) ECL (d) i2L

128. logic gate family is the example for unsaturatedlogic(a) CML or ECL (b) RTL(c) DTL (d) I IL

129. The fastest logic gate family is

(a) CMOS (b) ECL(c) TTL (d) RTL

130. The logic-gate family which consumes less poweris(a) ECL (b) TTL(c) IIL (d) CMOS

131. Identify the logic gate family which is slowest(a) ECL (b) TTL(c) CMOS (d) IIL

132. ‘The power consumption is more for the followingloeic gate family(a) ECL (b) TTL(c) CMOS (d) DCTL

133. For lame Rzle integration the fo:Ao..-eing logic Gatefamily is preferred(a) MCS (b) TTL(c) ECL (d) RTL

134. n’-channel MOS deviCes are preferred over p-channel MOS devices for digital circuits because(a) lower power dissipation(b) higher power dissipation(c) higher mobility of ‘electrons than holes(d) None of these

135. The propagation-delay time of a non-saturatedbipolar logic family(a) is less than that of a saturated bipolar looic

family(b) is same as that of a saturated bipOlar logic

family(c) is more-than that of a saturated bipolar logic

farnily(d) None of these

136. The log_ic family which is most suitable in theindustrial environment is(a) i2L (b) HTL(c) TTL (d) CMOS

137. The logic family with highest noise margins is(a) HTL (b) IIL(c) TTL (d) CMOS

138. HTL is preferred in the industrial environmentbecause of(a) Low power dissipation(b) high speed

34


(c) low noise margin(d) highest noise margin

139. HTL is the modified version of logic gate famil(a) DCTL (b) TTL(c) CMOS (d) FCL

140. I2L is the modified version of(a) RTL (b) DTL(c) TTL. (d) DCTL

141. The figure of merit of a logic gate family is given by(a) Gain .x bandwidth(b) propagation delay x power dissipation(c) fan-out x propagation delay time(d) noise margin x power dissipation

142. The open input terminal of a TTL gate(a) will assume a very high voltage(b) will behave as if it is connected to logic level(c) will behave as if it is connected to logic 1

level(d) none of these

143. TTTL circuits with active pull-up are preferredbecause of their suitability for(a) wired — AND operation(b) bus operated system(c) wired logic operation(d) reasonable power-dissipation and speed of

operation144. Complementary outputs are amiable in

(a) ECL gates (b) TTL gates(c) DTL gates (d) HTL gates

145. Wired logic is not possible is(a) ECL(b) TTL with active pull-up(c) open-collector TTL(d) TTL with passive pull-up

146. Tristate logic is used for(a) improving the figure of merit(b) increasing the fan-out(c) bus oriented systems(d) improving the speed of operation

147. CMOS logic consists of(a) only n-channel MOS devices(b) only p-channel MOS devices

(c) equal number of n-channel MOS devices(d) None of these

148. In ECL negative supply voltage is used because of(a) reduction in noise at the output(b) saving in power(c) ease of wired-OR operation(d) increase in speed

149. The supply•voltage permissible for CMOS devicesis(a) +5V (b) -5V(c) 3 to 15 V (d) + 12V

150. The logic swing is maximum for the logic family(a) 12L (b) ECL(c) CMOS (d) TTL

151. Which of the following logic family has maximumfan-out?(a) CMOS (b) I2L(c) PMOS (d) ECL

152. If a logic circuit has a fan-out of 4, then the circuit(a) has 4 inputs(b) has 4 outputs(c) can drive maximum of 4 inputs(d) gives output 4 times the input

153. An IC containing more than 100000 gates will bedesignated as(a) LSI (b) VLSI(c) ULSI (d) MSI

154. Which of the following parameters is not specifiedfor digital ICs(a) Bandwidth(b) Noise margin(c) Power dissipation(d) propagation delay

155. Resistor free logic gate family(a) CMOS (b) TTL(c) ECL (d) HTL

156. Which of the following is slowest and the oldesttype?(a) PMOS (b) NMOS(c) CMOS (d) None.

157. Schottky TEL is a(a) non-saturated bipolar logic

35


(b) saturated bipolar logic(c) high threshold logic(d) None of these

158. The logic swing of a gate is about 0.8 V this belongsto the logic family(a) TTL (b) NMOS(c) CMOS (d) ECL

159. ECL circuits have higher fan-out because of their(a) high impedance(b) low output impedance(c) high input and low input impedance(d) complimentary outputs

160. The of active pull-up over passive pull-up facility inthe logic gates is(a) increased delay(b) reduced speed(c) increased speed(d) none of these

161. The negative supply voltage is used in ECL because(a) the effect of noise voltage in the supply

voltage can be reduced(b) the effect of ,noise voltage in the supply

voltage can be increased(c) the speed will be increased(d) the speed will be reduced.

162. Identify the logic gate family which consumes lesspower and which has maximum Fan-out(a) MOS (b) TTL(c) ECL (d) CMOS

163. Identify the logic gate family which consumesmaximum power and which has minimumpropagation delay(a) MOS (b) TTL(c) ECL (d) cmbs

164. Identify Which is not a saturated logic gate familyfrom the following?(a) TTL (b) DTL(c) HTL (d) ECL

165. The allowable supply voltage range for TTL lbgicgate family is(a) 2 to 5.6 V(b) 3.5 to 6.2 V

(c) 4.75 V to 5.25 V(d) 4 to 6 V

166. The switching speed of ECL is very high because(a) it uses positive logic(b) it uses negative logic(c) it uses high speed transistors(d) its transistors remain unsaturated.

167. MOS logic gates have no current hogging problembecause the gate terminals are(a) low input impedance(b) zero- impedance(c) high impedance(d) compensating effect

168. The maximum frequency at which digital data canbe applied to gate is defined as(a) operating speed(b) propagation speed(c) binary level transition period(d) charging time

169. The output 0 and 1 level for TTL logic family isapproximately(a) 0.1 and 5 V(b) 0.6 and 3.5 V(c) 0.9 and 1.75 V(d) -1.75 and -0.9 V

170. The basic building blacks of combinafional digitalcircuits are(a) Gates only(b) Flip-flops only(c) Gates and Flip-flops(d) None

171. ROM is an example for(a) Sequential digital circuit(b) Combinational digital circuit(c) Both combinational and sequential(d) None

172. The memory, which is constructed by using onlygates, is(a) RAM (b) RVVM(c) ROM (d) All of these

173. Half adder can be converted into half subtractorwith

36


(a) an additional inverter(b) an additional.AND gate(c) an additional OR gate(d) None

174. Full subtractor can be implemented by using twohalf subtractors and(a) an OR gate (b) an AND gate(c) an X-OR gate (d) None

175.Full adder can be converted into full subtractor with(a) an additional OR gate(b) an additional AND gate(c) an additional NOT gate(d) All of these

176. Identify the carry expression of full-adder circuit(a) X’ Y YZ + ZX’(b) XY+ YZ + ZX(c) XY’ + YZ’ + ZX(d) X’ Y’ + XZ’ + YZ

177. Identify the borrow expression of full-subtractorcircuit(a) X’ (y+z) + yz(b) x’ (y+z) + y + z(c) x(y+z) + yz(d) None

178. decoder with enable input acts as(a) Multiplexer (b) Encoder(c) Demultiplexer (d) None

179. The number of output lines of an n-input decoder(a) must be equal to 2n

(b) must be less than 2n

(c) must be less than or equal to 2n

(d) None180. BCD to decimal decoder consists of inputs and

outputs(a) three, eight (b) four, sixteen(c) four, ten (d) None

181. 3 to -8 line decoder is also called(a) Binary to Octal code converter(b) 1-of-8 line decoder(c) Either 1 or 2(d) None

182. Decoder can be used to implement

(a) given Boolean function(b) any combinational circuit(c) three input AND gate(d) All the above

183. Active low output type of decoder can beconstructed with(a) AND gates. (b) OR gates(c) NAND gates (d) None

184. Full-subtractor can be implemented by using(a) 3 to 8 line decoder only(b) 3 to 8 line decoder and one OR gate(c) 3 to 8 line decoder and two OR gates(d) All the above

185. A multiplexer with n’ selection lines can have-inputs(a) 2n-1 (b) 2n

(c) 2n +1 (d) log10 n186. Multiplexer can be used to implement

(a) any given Boolean function(b) any combinational circuit1 When a flip-flop is reset, its output will be(a) Q = 0, Q’ = 0(b) Q =1, Q’ =1(c) Q = 0, Q = 1(d) Q = 1, Q’ = 0

187. In a J-K.flip-flop when J Zs 1, K =1 and clock isapplied the output Q will(a) not change(b) becomes 0(c) becomes 1(d) be complement of the output before the

clock was applied188. A transparent latch consists of a

(a) T-type flip-flop(b) D typeflip-flop(c) T ro D type flip-flop(d) T and D-type of flip-flop

189. The output Qn of a J-K flip-flop is 0. It chanqes to1 when a clock pulse is applied.The inputs Jr, and Kr, are respectively.(a) 1 and X (b) 0 and X(c) X and 0 (d) X and 1

37


190. The output Q, of a J-K flip-flop is 1, Its output doesnot change when a clock pulse is applied: The inputsand Kn are respectively.(a) 0 and X (b) X and 0(c) and X (d) 0 and 1

191. In a counter circuit consisting of four J-K flip-flops,all the flip-flops get triggered simultaneously. Thiscounter is(a) combinational circuit(b) an asynchronous circuit(c) is a synchronous circuit(d) may be combinational or sequential

192. Data can be changed from temporal code to spatialcode by using(a) timer circuit(b) synchronous counters(c) shift registers(d) combinational circuit

193. Data can be changed from spatial code to temporalcode by using(a) Shift registers(b) Counters(c) Combinational circuit(d) A/D converts

194. An universal register(a) accepts serial input(b) accepts parallel input(c) gives serial and parallel outputs(d) is capable of all the above .

195. A ring counter consists of 5 flip-flops will have(a) 5 states (b) 10 states(c) 32 states (d) none

196. A twisted ring counter consists of n-flip-flops willhave(a) n states (b) n2

(c) 2n (d) log n197. In a 4-bit binary ripple counter, for every input clock

pulse(a) all the flip-flops get clocked simultaneously(b) only one flip-flop get clocked at a time(c) two of the flip-flops get clocked at a time(d) all the above statements are false

196. A 4-bit binary ripple counter uses flip-flops withpropagation delay time of 25 m sec. each Themaximum possible time required for change of statewill be(a) 25 n sec. (b) 50 n sec.(c) 75 n sec. (d) 100 n sec.

198. A 4-bit synchronous counter uses flip-flops withpropagation delay time of 25 n sec. each Themaximum possible time required for change of statewill be(a) 25 n sec. (b) 50 n sec(c) 75 n sec. (d) 100.n sec.

198. The maximum possible number of states in a ring-counter consisting of 7 flipflops is(a) 4 (b) 7(c) 8 (d) 10

199. The minimum number of flip-flops required for adivide-by-12 circuit is(a) 4 (b) 7(c) 8 (d) 10

200. A Mod-2 counter followed by Mod-5 counter is(a) same as Mod-5(b) a decade counter(c) a mod-7 counter(d) none of these

201. In general sequential digital circuit consists of(a) gates only(b) flip-flops only(c) flip-flops and combinational circuits(d) none of these

202. If you want to design a boundary counter, youshould prefer a flip-flop of(a) D-type (b) S-R(c) T-type (d) J-K type

203. In a ripple counting using edge-triggered J-K flip-flops, the pulse input is applied to the(a) clock input of all flip-flops(b) clock input of one flip-flop(c) J and K inputs of one flip-flop(d) J and K inputs of all flip-flops

204. n’ flip-flops will divide the clock frequency by afactor of(a) n2 (b) n

38


(c) 2n (d) log(n)205. The number of flip-flops required to construct a

decade shift register twisted ring counter(a) 5 (b) 10(c) (d) 3

206. The number of flip-flops required to construct.amod-15 shift register ring counter are(a) 4 (b) 8(c) 15 (d) 10

207. A memory has 16-bit address bus. Then how manymemory locations are there?(a) 64k (b) 65,536(c) 216 (d) All

208. Memory size of a memory IC can be specified as(a) MXN where M= no. of memory locations, N=

no. of bits in each location(b) NXM N= no. of bits in each location, M= no.

of locations(c) 2n X m, n= no. of address bits, m= no. of bits

in each location(d) either a or c

209. Semiconductor memories are preferred for mainmemory because (a) They occupy(a) less space,(b) They are costly(c) They can store more information in small area.(d) both a & c

210. Identify which is not Random-Access memory.(a) R/W Memory (b) ROM(c) CAM (d) None

211. In statiC RAM binary information is stored in termsof(a) voltage (b) current(c) charge (d) None

212. In dynamic RAM binary information is stored interms Of(a) Voltage (b) current(c) charge (d) None

213. The main disadvantage of DRAM over SRAM is(a) High package density(b) costly(c) External memory refresh logic is required

(d) High power consumption214. Identify fast memory

(a) DRAM (b) SRAM(c) both a&b (d) None

215. Identify sequential access memory(a) R/WM (b) Magnetic core(c) Magnetic tape (d) None

216. Floppy disk is an example for(a) Random Access memory(b) sequential Access(c) Direct access(d) None

217. RAM is an example of(a) voltage(b) Non volatile(c) Destructive read out type(d) Non-destructive read out type(e) both a & d

218. Identify the memory which is not non-volatilememory(a) ROM (b) R/W Memory(c) PROM (d) EPROM

219. The desirable characteristic of a memory is(a) low cost(b) high access rates(c) low cost and high access rates(d) low cost and low access rates.

220. The address bus width of a memory of size 2048X8bits is.(a) 10 (b) 11(c) 12 (d) 13.

221. Semiconductor memories are widely used bec’auseof(a) small size(b) low cost(c) compatibility with microprocessor(d) All

222. The decimal equivalent of the highest possibleaddress for an8-bit address bus is(a) 8 (b) 128(c) 255 (d) 256

39


223. It is desired to have a 64X8 memory. The memoryIC’s available is of 16X4 size. The number of Ksrequired —(a) 8 (b) 4(c) 6 (d) 2

224. The write cycle time of a memory is 200 n sec. Themaximum rate at which data can be stored(a) 200 words/sec.(b) 5X103 words/sec.(c) 5X106 words/sec.(d) 5X109 words/sec.

225. The access time of a sequentially accessed memoryis(a) same as that of RAM(b) less than that of a RAM(c) higher than that of a RAM(d) same as that of a ROM

226. In a read-only Memory information can be stored(a) at the time of fabrication(b) by the user only once during its lifetime(c) by the user a number of times(d) any one of the above depending upon the

type of memory227. A charge-coupled device is

(a) A magnetic device(b) a bipolar semiconductor device(c) a MOS device(d) None

228. -A RAM(a) is a random access memory(b) is a volatile memory(c) is either static or dynamic memory(d) has all the above characteristics.

229. A static RAM is fabricated using(a) only the bipular(b) only the MOS technology(c) either a or b(d) None

230. Hard disk is an example of memory of the digitalcomputer(a) Primary memory(b) Secondary memory

(c) Main memory(d) none of these

231. MOS technology is used for, the fabrication of(a) static and dynamic RAMs(b) EPROMs(c) EPROMs(d) All the above

232. Read and write memory is same as(a) RAM(b) ROM(c) PROM(d) EAPROM.

234. Seek operation refers to(a) Moving the,:head to the proper track in a

floppy disk(b) loading the’ head in a floppy disk.(c) accessing a memory location in FROM(d) accessing a memory location in RAM.

235. Speed of rotation of hard disk is(a) 360 RPM (b) 3600 RPM(c) 36000 RPM (d) None.

236. The package density of D4V1, is than-that of SRAM(a) 4 times less (b) 4 tiMes more(c) 8 times less (d) 8 times more

237. DRAM is nothing but 7-(a) a bistable multi(b) simple switch in series with capacitor(c) flip-flop(d) none of these

238. Non-volatility is an important advantage of(a) CCD’S(b) Magnetic tape’s(c) Magnetic bubbles(d) both b and c

239. The desirable characteristic(s) of a memory system.is (are)(a) speed and reliability(b) low power consumption(c) durability and compactness(d) all of the above.

240. The memory which is programmed at the time it ismanufactured is

40


(a) ROM (b) RAM(c) PROM (d) EPROM

241. The memory which is ultraviolet erasable andelectrically programmable is(a) RAM (b) EEROM(c) EPROM (d) PROM

242. Which of the following memory is nonAlatile andmay be written only once?(a) RAM (b) EEPROM(c) EPROM (d) PROM

243. Which of the following memory must be refreshedmany times per second?(a) SRAM (b) DRAM(c) EPROM (d) ROM

244. The refreshing rate of dynamic memory isapproximately once in(a) two micro second(b) two milli seconds(c) fifty milli seconds(d) two seconds

245. Dynamic RAM can be fabricated using(a) MOS technology (b) TTL(c) ECL (d) IIL

246. A ROM is a(a) random-access type(b) non-volatile(c) programmable(d) has all the above characteristics.

247. A mask programmed ROM is(a) programmed at the time of fabrication(b) programmed by the user(c) erasable and programmable(d) erasable electrically

248. A PROM(a) is mask programmed(b) is erasable by ultraviolet(c) can be programmed only once(d) can be programmed any number of times

249. The process of entering information in EPROM iscommonly known as(a) writing(b) programming

(c) storing(d) none of these.

250. A function table is required in very large numbers.The memory most suitable for this purpose wouldbe(a) ROM (b) PROM(c) EPROM (d) EAPROM

251. When the power supply of a ROM is switched off,its eonients(a) become all zeros(b) became atoneess(c) remain intact(d) are unprecrciable

252. Fusible Cask is assoctjted with(a) RAM (b) ROM(c) PROM (d) EPROM

253. A PIA(a) mask programmable(b) field pnxyammable(c) can be programmed by a sewer(d) can be erased and programmed.

254. A PIA consKts of(a) AND matrix_(b) OR matrix(c) invert/non-invert matrix(d) all of the above.

255. A memory of size MxN bits cab store(a) N words of M bits each(b) M words of N bits each(c) M bits(d) N bits

……………………………………………………………………………..

1. Suppose there are two coins. The first coin givesheads with probability 5/8 when tossed, while thesecond coin gives heads with probability 1/4. Oneof the two coins is picked up at random with equalprobability and tossed. What is the probability ofobtaining heads?

41


(a) 7/8 (b) 1/2(c) 7/16 (d) 5/32

3. Consider a weighted undirected graph with positiveedge weights and let uv be an Edge in the graph.It is known that the shortest path from the sourcevertex s to u has weight 53 and the shortest pathfrom s to v has weight 65. Which one of thefollowaing statements is always true?(a) weight (u, v) < 12(b) weight (u, v) < 12(c) weight (u, v) > 12(d) weight (u, v) > 12

4. In the Spiral model of software development, theprimary determinant in selecting activities in eachiteration is(a) Iteration size(b) Cost.(c) Adopted process such as Rational Unified

Process or Extreme Programming(d) Risk.

5. Which of the following systems is a most likelycandidate example of a pipe and filter architecture ?(a) Expert system(b) DB repository(c) Aircraft fight controller(d) Signal processing

6. A processor takes 12 cycles to complete aninstruction 1. The corresponding pipelined processoruses 6 stages with the execution times of 3, 2, 5,4, 6 and 2 cycles respectively.What is the asymptotic speedup assuming that avery large number of instructions are to beexecuted?(a) 1.83 (b) 2(c) 3 (d) 6

7. Which of the following input sequences for a cross-coupled R-S flip-flop realized with two NAND gatesmay lead to an oscillation ?(a) 11, 00 (b) 01,10(c) 10, 01 (d) 00, 11

9. Consider an ambiguous grammar G and itsdisambiguated version D. Let the languagerecognized by the two grammars be denoted by

L(G) and L(D) respectively. Which one of thefollowing is true ?(a) L (D) c L (G) (b) L (D) L (G)(c) L (D) = L (G) (d) L (D) is empty

10. Processes P1 and P2 use critical_flag in thefollowing routine to achieve mutual exclusion.Assume that critical_flag is initialized to FALSE inthe main program.

get_exclusive_access ( ){

if (critical_flag = FALSE){critical_flag = TRUE;critical_region ( );

critical_flag = FALSE;}}Consider the following statements.(i) It is possible for both P1 and P2 to acess

critical_region concurrently.(ii) This may lead to a deadlock.Which of the following holds ?(a) (i) is false and (ii) is true(b) Both (i) and

(ii) are false(c) (i) is true and (ii) is false(d) Both (i) and

(ii) are true11. Let a memory have four free blocks of sizes 4k,

8k, 20k, 2k. These blocks are Allocated followingthe best-fit strategy. The allocation requests arestored in a queue as shown below.

Request No J1 J2 J3 J4 J5 J6 J7 J8

Request sizes 2k 14k 3k 6k 6k 10k 7k 20k

Usage Time 1 40 2 8 4 1 8 6The time at which the request for J7 will becompleted will be(a) 16 (b) 19(c) 20 (d) 37

42


12. The address sequence generated by tracing aparticular program executing in a pure demand pagingsystem with 100 bytes per page is 0100, 0200, 0430,0499, 0510, 0530, 0560, 0120, 0220, 0240, 0260,0320., 0410.Suppose that the memory can store only one pageand if x is the address which causes a page faultthen the bytes from addresses x to x + 99 areloaded on to the memory.How many page faults will occur ?(a) 0 (b) 4(c) 7 (d) 8

13. Consider the following statements about the timeoutvalue used in TCP.(i) The timeout value is set to the RTT (Round

Trip Time) measured during TCP connectionestablishment for the entire duration of theconnection.

(ii) Appropriate RTT estimation algorithm is usedto set the timeout value of a TCP connection.

(iii) Timeout value is set to twice the propagationdelay from the sender to the receiver

Which of the following choices hold?(a) (i) is false, but (ii) and (iii) are true(b) (i) and (iii) are false, but (ii) is true(c) (i) and (ii) are false, but (iii) is true(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are false

14. Consider a TCP connection in a state where thereare no outstanding ACKs. The sender sends twosegments back to back. The sequence numbers ofthe first and second segments are 230 and 290respectively. The first segment was lost, but thesecond segment was received correctly by thereceiver. Let X be the amount of data carried inthe first segment (in bytes), and Y be the ACKnumber sent by the receiver. The values of X andY (in that order) are(a) 60 and 290 (b) 230 and 291(c) 60 and 231 (d) 60 and 230

15. Consider the following two statements:(i) A hash function (these are often used for

computing digital signatures) is an injectivefunction.

(ii) An encryption technique such as DESperforms a permutation on the elements ofits input alphabet. Which one of the followingoptions is valid for the above two statements?

(a) Both are false(b) Statement (i) is true and the other is false(c) Statement (ii) is true and the other is false(d) Both are true

16. The minimum positive integer p such that 3P modulo17 = 1 is (a) 5 (b) 8(c) 12 (d) 16

18. A firewall is to be configured to allow hosts in aprivate network toefrely open TCP connections andsend packets on open connections. However, it willonly allow external hosts to send packets on existingopen TCP connections or connections that are beingopened (by internal hosts) but not allow them toopen TCP connections to hosts in the privatenetwork. To achieve this the minimum capability ofthe firewall should be that of(a) A combinational circuit(b) A finite automaton(c) A pushdown automaton with one stack(d) A pushdown automaton with two stacks

19. Given below are some HTML lines.<img src = “ pict.jpg” width = “256” hight = “256”border = “0” usemap = “#map”/><map name = “map”><area shape = “poly”>

coords = “50, 50, 50, 100, 100, 100, 75, 75, 100, 50”href = “fl . html”›

< area shape= “ circle” coords =” 100, 75, 5"href =”../cgi-bin/f2. pl ? vl= ask abc’s age”›<area shape=” default” href=” fd. html”›</map>With reference to the HTML lines given above,consider the following statements.(i) Clicking on the point <80, 75> does not have

any effect.(ii) The web browser can identify the area

applicable to the mouse-click within theimage and the subsequent action to be taken

43


without additional responses from the webserver.

(iii) The dots in the cgi- bin URL will be resolvedby the web browser before it is sent to theweb server

(iv) The “ fd. html” request when sent to the webserver will result in a GET request. Exactlyhow many of the statements given above arecorrect?

(a) 0 (b) 1(c) 2 (d) 3

20. Consider the XML document fragment given below:<Book><Title> GATE 2K7 Example</Title> <Content>One of many lines </Content><TOC>One of many content entries </TOC></Book>Consider the XPath expression: * [not (self):: TOC]What would be the result of the given XPathexpression when the current node is Book?(a) The Title and Content elements(b) The Content and TOC elements(c) The Title and TOC elements(d) The Title Content and TOC elements

21. Which one of these first-order logic formulae isvalid?(a) V x(P(x)Q(x)) = ((VxP(x)) (VxQ(x)))(b) 3x(P(x) v Q(x)) = ((3xP(x)) = (3xQ(x)))(c) 3 x(P(x) n Q(x)) <7> ((3xP(x)) A (3xQ(x)))(d) V x3yp(x, y) = ayV x p(x, y)

22. The trapezoidal method is used to evaluate thenumerical value of the step size h.(i) 10-2 (ii) 10-3 (iii) 10-4 (iv) 10-5

For which of these values of the step size h, is thecomputed value guaranteed to be correct to sevendecimal places. Assume that there are no round-offerrors in the computation.(a) (iv) only(b) (iii) and (iv) only(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

23. A partial order P is defined on the set of naturalnumbers as follows. Here x / y denotes integerdivision.(i) (0, 0) õ P.(ii) (a, b) õ P if and only if a %10 d” b %10 and

(a/10, b/10) õ P.Consider the following ordered pairs:(i) (101, 22) (ii) (22, 101)(iii) (145, 265) (iv) (0, 153)Which of these ordered pairs of natural numbersare contained in P?(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iv)(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)

24. A depth-first search is performed on a directedacyclic graph. Let d[u] denote the time at whichvertex u is visited for the first time and flu] the timeat which the dfs call to the vertex u terminates.Which of the following statements is always truefor all edges (u, v) in the graph ?(a) d[u] < d[v] (b) d[u] < fly](c) flu] < fly] (d) flu] > f[v]

25. What is the largest integer m such that every simpleconnected graph with n vertices and n edgescontains at least m different spanning trees ?(a) 1 (b) 2(c) 3 (d) n

27. The function f is defined as follows: int f(int n){

if (n < = 1) return 1;else if (n % 2 == 0) return f(n/2);else return f (3n - 1);

Assuming that arbitrarily large integers can bepassed as a parameter to the function, consider thefollowing statements.(i) The function f terminates for finitely many

different values of n > 1.(ii) The function f terminates for infinitely many

different values of n > 1.(iii) The function f does not terminate for finitely

many different values of n > 1.(iv) The function f does not terminate for

infinitely many different values of n > 1.

44


Which one of the following options is trueof the above?

(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (1) and (iv)(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)

28. Consider a hash function that distributes keysuniformly. The hash table size is 20.After hashing of how many keys will the probabilitythat any new key hashed collides with an existingone exceed 0.5.(a) 5 (b) 6(c) 7 (d) 10

29. When searching for the key value 60 in a binarysearch tree, nodes containing the key values 10, 20,40, 50, 70,80, 90 are traversed, not necessarily inthe order given. How many different orders are possible in whichthese key values can occur on The search pathfrom the root to the node containing the value 60?(a) 35 (b) 64(c) 128 (d) 5040

30. Suppose you are given an implementation of a queueof integers. The operations that can be performedon the queue are:(i) i sEmpt y (Q) — returns true if the queue is

empty, false otherwise.(ii) delete (Q) — deletes the element at the front

of the queue and returns its value.(iii) insert (Q, i) — inserts the integer i at the

rear of the queue.Consider the following function:void f(queue Q) {int i;if (!isEmpty (Q)){i = delete (Q) ;f (Q) ;insert (Q, i) ; }}What operation is performed by the above functionf ?(a) Leaves the queue Q unchanged(b) Reverses the order of the elements in the

queue Q(c) Deletes the element at the front of the queue

Q and inserts it at the rear keeping the otherelements in the same order

(d) Empties the queue Q31. Consider the C program given below :

# include <stdio.h>int main H {int sum = 0, maxsum = 0; i, n = 6;int a ( ) = {2, -2, -1, 3, 4, 2};for (i = a; i < n; i ++)if (i == 0 II a [i] < 0 II a[i] < a [i - 1] ) {if (sum > maxsum) maxsum = sum;sum = (a[i] > 0) ? a[i] : 0; }else sum + = a[i];if (sum > maxsum) maxsum = sum ;print f (11 %d\n”, maxsum) }What is the value printed out when this program isexecuted?(a) 9 (b) 8(c) 7 (d) 6

32. Consider the following C program:# include <stdio.h># define EOF -1Void push(int); /* push the argument on the stackint pop (void) ; 1* pop the top of the stack */void flagError - () ; int main () {int c, m, n, r;while ( (c= getchar() ) ! = EOF)(if (isdigit (c) ) push (c) ;else if (( c == ‘+’ ) Ð Ð (c == ‘*’) ) {m = pop () ;n = ‘pop ()r = (c == ‘+’ ? n+m: p*m ; push (r) ; }else if (c ! = )flagError () ;}printf (“% c”, pop () ) ;}What is the output of the program for the followinginput ?52 * 332 + * +(a) 15 (b) 25(c) 30 (d) 150

33. Consider the program below in a hypotheticallanguage which allows global variable and a choice

45


of call by reference or call by value methods ofparameter passing.int i;Program main (){

int j = 60;i = 50;call f (i , j )print i, j ;}procedure f (x, y){i = 100 ;x = 10 ;y = y + i ;}Which one of the following options represents thecorrect output of the program for the two parameterpassing mechanisms?(a) Call by value : i = 70, j =10; Call by reference

: i = 60, j = 70(b) Call by value : i = 50, j = 60; Call by reference

: i = 50, j = 70(c) Call by value : i = 10, j = 70; Call by reference

: i = 100,1 = 60(d) Call by value : i = 100, j = 60; Call by

reference : i = 10, j = 7039. Data forwarding techniques can be used to speed

up the operation in presence of datadependencies.Consider the following replacementsof LHS with RHS.(i) Ri Loc, Loc R2 R1 R2, Ri Loc(ii) Ri Loc, Loc R2 R1 ——> R2(iii) R1 —> Loc, R2 —> Loc R1—> Loc.(iv) R1 Loc, R2 Loc R1 LocIn which of the following options, will the result ofexecuting the RHS be the same as executing theLHS irrespective of the instructions that follow ?(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iv)(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)

41. Following table indicates the latencies of operationsbetween the instruction producing the result andinstruction using the result.

Instruction production Instruction using the Latencythe result result

A L U Operation ALU Operation 2

ALU Operation Store 2

Load ALU Operation

Load Store 0Consider the following code segment.Load R1, Loc 1; Load R1 from memory location LoclLoad R2, Loc 2 ; Load R2 from memory location Loc2Add R1, R2, R1; Add R1 and R2 and save result in R1Dec R2; Decrement R2Dec R1; Decrement R1Mpy R1, R2, R3; Multiply R1 and R2 and save result in R3Store R3, Loc 3; Store R3 in memory location Loc3

What is the number of cycles needed to executethe above code segment assuming each instructiontakes one cycle to execute ?(a) 7 (b) 10(c) 13 (d) 14

42. (C012.25)H - (10.111001110.101)B =(a) (135103.412)o (b) (564411.412)o(c) (564411.205)o (d) (135103.205)o

43. An error correcting code has the following codewords: 00000000, 00001111,01010101, 10101010, 11110000.What is the maximumnumber of bit errors that can be corrected ?(a) 0 (b) 1(c) 2 (d) 3

44. A hard disk system has the following parameters:Number of tracks = 500Number of sectors/track = 100Number of bytes/sector = 500Time taken by the head to move from one track toadjacent track =1 ms Rotation speed = 600 rpm.What is the average time taken for transferring 250bytes from the disk?(a) 300.5 ms (b) 255.5 ms(c) 255 ms (d) 300 ms

46. The two grammars given below generate a languageover the alphabet (x, y, z}G1: S ’! x Ðz Ð xS ÐzS Ð yB

46


B ’! y Ð z ÐyB Ð zBG2: S ’! y Ð z Ð yS Ð zS Ð xBB ’! y Ð ySWhich one of the following choices describes theproperties satisfied by the strings in theselanguages ?(a) Gl: No y appears before any x

G2: Every x is followed by at least one y(b) Gl: No y appears before any x

G2: No x appears before any y(c) G1: No y appears after any x

G2: Every x is followed by at least one y(d) Gl: No y appears after any x

G2: Every y is followed by at least one x47. Consider the following DFA in which so is the start

state and sl, s3 are the final states.

What language does this DFA recognize ?(a) All strings of x and y(b) All strings of x and y which have either even

number of x and even number of y of oddnumber or x and odd number of y

(c) All strings of x and y which have equalnumber of x and y

(d) All strings of x and y with either evennumber of x and odd number of y or oddnumber of x and even number of y

51. The following table shows the time between failuresfor a software system.Error Number 1 2 3 4 5

Time since last failure 6 4 8 5 6The reliability of the system for one hour of operationassuming an exponential model is(a) 0.45 (b) 0.63(c) 0.84 (d) 0.95

52. Given the following algorithm for shorting an arrayX and N numbers:SUBROUTINE SHORT (X, N)IF (N < 2)

RETURNFOR (i = 2) TO N INCREMENT BY1)FOR (j = 1) TO i INCREMENT BY1)IF (X [i] > X [1])CONTINUETEMP = X[i]X[i] = X[j]X[j] = TEMPEND FOREND SUBROUTINEA good approximation of Haistead’s estimatedprogram length is(a) 20 (b) 50(c) 80 (d) 110

57. In a multi-user operating system on an average, 20requests are made to use a particular resource perhour. The arrival of requests follows a Poissondistribution.The probability that either one, three or five requestsare made in 45 minutes is given by(a) 6.9 x 106 x e-20 (b) 1.02 x 106 x e-20

(c) 6.9 x 103 x e-20 (d) 1.02 x 103 x e-20

58. A demand paging system takes 100 time units toservice a page fault and 300 time units to replacea dirty page. Memory access time is 1 time unit.The probability of a page fault is p. In case of apage fault, the probability of page being dirty is alsop.It is observed that the average access time is 3time units. Then the value of p is(a) 0.194 (b) 0.233(c) 0.514 (d) 0.981

59. The contents of the text file tl txt containing fourlines are as follows :al bla2 b2a3 b2a4 blThe contents of the text file t2 txt containing fivelines are as follows :al cla2 c2a3 c3

47


a4 c3a5 c4Consider the following Bourne shell script :awk - F “ {Print $1, $2} tl . txt Iwhile read a b ; doawk -v aV = $ a - v by = $b - F “ aV ==$1 (print aV, bV, $2 ) t2. txtdoneWhich one of the following strings will NOT bepresent in the output generated when the abovescript in run? (Note that the given strings may besubstrings of a printed line.)(a) “b1 c1” (b) “b2 c3”(c) “b1 c2” (d) “bl c3”

65. Consider a selection of the form crA, 100(r), wherer is a relation with 1000 tuples.Assume that the attribute values for A among thetuples are uniformly distributed in the interval [0,500].Which one of the following options is the bestestimate of the number of tuples returned by thegiven selection query ?(a) 50 (b) 100(c) 150 (d) 200

66. Consider the following two transactions: T1 andT2.T1: read (A); T2: read (B);read (B); read (A);if A = 0 then B← B+1; if B ‘“ 0 then A← A-1;write (B); write (A);Which of the following schemes, using shared andexclusive locks, satisfy the requirements for stricttwo phase locking for the above transactions?

(a) S1: lock S(A); S2: lock S(B); (b) S1: lock X(A); S2: lock X(B);read (A); read(B); read (A); read(B);lockS(B); lockS(A); lockX(B); lockX(A);read(B); read(A); read(B); read(A);if A = 0 ifB# 0 if A = 0 ifB*0then B •! B+1; then A •!A-1; then B• !B+1; then A ’!A-1;write (B); write (A); write (B); write (A);commit; commit; unlock (A); unlock (A);unlock (A); unlock (B); commit; commit;unlock (B); unlock (A); unlock (B); unlock (B);

(c) S1:lock S(A); S2: lock S(B); (d) S1: lock S(A); S2: lock S(B);

read (A); read(B); read (A); read(B);lock X(B); lock X(A); lock X(B); lock X(A);read(B); read(A); read(B); read(A);if A=0 if B # 0 if A = 0 ifB*0then B • !B+1; then A • ! A-1; then B • !B +1; then A • ! A-1;write (B); write (A); write (B); write (A);unlock (A); unlock (A); unlock (A); unlock (A);commit; commit; unlock (B); unlock (B);unlock (B); unlock (B); commit ; commit ;

67. Consider the following implications relating tofunctional and multivalued dependencies given below,which may or may not be correct.(i) If A ->> B and A ->>, C then A -> BC(ii) If A -> B and A -> C then A ->> BC(iii) If A ->> BC and A -> B and A -> C(iv) If A -> BC and A -> B and A ->> CExactly how many of the above implications arevalid?(a) 0 (b) 1(c) 2 (d) 3

73. Which one of the regular expressions given belowdefines the same language as defined by the regularexpression R ?(a) (a(ba)’” + b(ab)’”)’”(a + b)+

(b) (a(ba)’” + b(ab)’”)’”(a+b)’”(c) (a(ba)’”(a + bb) + b(ab)’”’”(b+ aa))(a+b)’”(d) (a(ba)’”(a + bb) + b(ab)’”(b + aa))(a+b)+

Common Data for Questions 74, 75.Consider a token ring topology with N stations

(numbered 1 to N) running token ring protocol where thestations are equally spaced. When a station gets the tokenit is allowed to send one frame of fixed size. Ring latencyis tp, while the transmission time of a frame is tt. All otherlatencies can be neglected.74. The maximum utilization of the token ring when tt

= 3 ms, tp = 5 ms, N = 10 is(a) 0.545 (b) 0.6(c) 0.857 (d) 0.961

75. The maximum utilization of the token ring when tt

= 5 ms, tp = 3 ms, N = 15 is(a) 0.545 (b) 0.655(c) 0.9375 (d) 0.961

48


Stement for Linked Answer Questions 82 and 83.The head of a hard disk serves requests following theshortest seek time first (SSTF) policy. The head is initiallypositioned at truck number 180.82. Which of the request sets will cause the head to

change its direction after servicing every requestassuming that the head does not change direction ifthere is a tie in SSTF and all the requests arrivebefore the servicing starts?(a) 11, 139, 170, 178, 181, 184, 201, 265,(b) 10, 138, 170, 178, 181, 185, 201, 265(c) 10, 139, 169, 178, 181, 184, 201, 265(d) 10, 138, 17?, 178, 181, 185, 200, 265

83. What is the maximum cardinality of the request set,so that the head changes its direction after servicingevery request if the total number of tracks are2048 and the head can start from any track?(a) 9 (b) 10(c) 11 (d) 12

1. A set of Boolean connectives is functionally completeif all Boolean functions can be synthesized usingthose. Which of the following sets of connectivesis NOT functionally complete?(a) EX-NOR(b) implication, negation(c) OR, negation(d) NAND

2. A sample space has two events A and B such thatprobabilities P(A n B) =1/2,P(A) =1/3, P( B) = 1/3. What is P(A U B)?(a) 11/12 (b) 10/12(c) 9/12 (d) 8/12

3. What is the size of the smallest MIS(MaximalIndependent Set) of a chain of nine nodes?(a) 5 (b) 4(c) 3 (d) 2

4. Which of the following regular expressions describesthe language over{0, 11 consisting of strings thatcontain exactly two l’s?(a) (0 +1) *11(0 +1) *(b) 0 *110 *(c) 0 *10 * 10 *(d) (0 +1) *1(0 +1) *1 (0 +1) *

5. Let N be an NFA with n states and let M be theminimized DFA with m states recognizing the samelanguage. Which of the following in NECESSARILYtrue?(a) m d” 2n(b) n d” m(c) M has one accept state(d) m = 2n

6. The following bit pattern represents a floating pointnumber in JEEE 754 single precision format1 10000011 10100000000000000000000The value of the number in decimal form is(a) -10 (b) -13(c) -26 (d) None of the above

8. Consider the following Boolean function of fourvariablesf(A, B, C, D) = E(2,3,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13)The function is(a) independent of one variable(b) independent of two variables(c) independent of three variable(d) dependent on all the variables

24. The exponent of 11 in the prime factorization of300! is(a) 27 (b) 28(c) 29 (d) 30

25. In how many ways can b blue balls and r red ballsbe distributed in n distinct boxes?(a) (n+b-1)!(n+r-1)! (b) (n+(b+r)-1)!

(n - 1)!b!(n -1)!r! (n-1)!(n-1)!(b+r)!(c) n! (d) (n+(b+r)-1)!

b!r! n!(b + r -1)!26. Consider the field C of complex numbers with

addition and multiplication.Which of the following form(s) a subfield of C withaddition and multiplication?(S1) the set of real numbers (S2) {a + ib) Ð aand b are rational numbers}(S3) {a + ib Ð (a2+ b2) d” 1} (S4) {ia Ð a isreal)(a) only S1 (b) S1 and S3(c) S2 and S3 (d) S1 and S2

49


27. G is a simple undirected graph. Some vertices of Gare of odd degree. Add a node v to G and makeit adjacent to each odd degree vertex of G. Theresultant graph is sure to be(a) regular (b) complete(c) Hamiltonian (d) Euler

29. If M is a square matrix with a zero determinant,which of the following assertion (s) is (are) correct?(S1) Each row of M can be represented as a linearcombination of the other rows(S2) Each column of M can be represented as alinear combination of the other columns(S3) MX = 0 has a nontrivial solution(S4) M has an inverse(a) S3 and S2 (b) S1 and S4(c) S1 and S3 (d) Sl, S2 and S3

30. Consider the function f(x) = x2 — 2x —1. Supposean execution of the Newton-Raphson method tofind a zero of f(x) starts with an approximation xo=2 of x. What is the value of x2, the approximationof x that algorithm produces after two iterations,rounded to three decimal places?(a) 2.417 (b) 2.419(c) 2.423 (d) 2.425

29. If the fmal states and non-final states in the DFAbelow are interchanged, then which of the followinglanguages over the alphabet {a, b} will be acceptedby the new DFA?

a

(a) Set of all strings that do not end with ab(b) Set of all strings that begin with either an a

or a b(c) Set of all strings that do not contain the

substring ab(d) The set described by the regular expression

b*aa*(ba)*b*41. Assume that a main memory with only 4 pages,

each of 16 bytes, is initially empty. The CPUgenerates the following sequence of virtual addresses

and uses the Least Recently Used (LRU) pagereplacement policy.0,4,8,20,24,36,44,12,68,72,80,84,28,32,88,92How many page faults does this sequence cause?What are the page numbers of the pages presentin the main memory at the end of the sequence?(a) 6 and 1,2,3,4 (b) 7 and 1,2,4,5(c) 8 and 1,2,4,5 (d) 9 and 1,2,3,5

42. The two numbers given below are multiplied usingthe Booth’s algorithm.Multiplicand : 0101 1010 1110 1110Multiplier : 0111 0111 1011 1101How many additions/Subtractions are required forthe multiplication of the above two numbers?(a) 6 (b) 8(c) 10 (d) 12

46. The following three are known to be the preorder,inorder and postorder sequences of a binary tree.But it is not known which is which.I. MBCAFHPYKII. KAMCBYPFH III. MABCKYFPHPick the true statement from the following.(a) I and II are preorder and inorder sequences,

respectively(b) I and III are preorder and postorder sequences,

respectively(c) II is the inorder sequence, but nothing more

can be said about the other two sequences(d) II and III are the preorder and inorder

sequences, respectively47. Consider the following sequence of nodes for the

undirected graph given below.I. abefdgc II.abefcgd III.adgebcf IV. adbcgefA Depth First Seacrh (DFS) is started at node a.The nodes are listed in the order they are firstvisited. Which all of the above is (are) possibleoutput(s)?(a) I and III only (b) II and III only(c) II, III and IV only (d) I, II and III only

48. Consider a hash table of size 11 that uses openaddressing with linear probing. Let h(k) = k mod11be the hash function used. A sequence of recordswith keys

50


43 36 92 87 11 4 71 13 14is inserted into an initially empty hash table, the binsof which are indexed from zero to ten. What is theindex of the bin into which the last record is inserted?(a) 3 (b) 4(c) 6 (d) 7

59. A software engineer is required to implement twosets of algorithms for a single set of matrixoperations in an object oriented programminglanguage; the two sets of algorithms are to provideprecisions of 10-3 and 10-6, respectively. She decidesto implement two classes, Low Precision Matrixand High Precision Matrix, providing precisions 10-3 and 10-6 respectively. Which one of the followingis the best alternative for the implementation?(S1) The two classes should be kept independent.(S2) Low Precision Matrix should be derived fromHigh Precision Matrix.(S3) High Precision Matrix should be derived fromLow Precision Matrix.(S4) One class should be derived from the other;the hierarchy is immaterial(a) S1 (b) S2(c) S3 (d) S4

60. Which of the following requirement specificationscan be validated?(S1) If the system fails during any operation, thereshould not be any loss of data(S2) The system must provide reasonableperformance even under maximum load conditions(S3) The software executable must be deployableunder MS Windows 95, 2000 and XP(S4) User interface windows must fit on a standardmonitor’s screen(a) S4 and S3 (b) S4 and S2(c) S3 and S1 (d) S2 and S1

61. Let R (A, B, C, D) be a relational schema with thefollowing functional dependencies : A → B, B → C,C → D and D B. The decomposition ofR into (A,B), (B,C), (B,D)(a) gives a lossless join, and is dependency

preserving(b) gives a lossless join, but is not dependency

preserving

(c) does not give a lossless join, but isdependency preserving

(d) does not give a lossless join and is notdependency preserving

62. Let R (A, B,C,D,E,P,G) be a relational schema inwhich the following functional dependencies areknown to hold: AB → CD, DE → P, C E, P → Cand B → G. The relational schema R is(a) in BCNF(b) in 3NF, but not in BCNF(c) in 2NF, but not in 3NF(d) not in 2NF

63. Consider the following three schedules oftransactions T1, T2 and T3. [Notation: In thefollowing NYO represents the action Y (R for read,W for write) performed by transaction N on objectO.]

(S1) 2RA 2WA 3RC 2WB 3WA 3WC 1RA 1RB 1WA 1WB(S2) 3RC 2RA 2WA 2WB 3WA 1RA 1RB 1WA 1WB 3WC(S3) 2RA 3RC 3WA 2WA 2WB 3WC 1RA 1RB 1WA 1WB

Which of the following statements is TRUE?(a) Si, S2 and S3 are all conflict equivalent to

each other(b) No two of Si, S2 and S3 are conflict

equivalent to each other(c) S2 is conflict equivalent to S3, but not to S1(d) Si is conflict equivalent to S2,but not to S3

34. A 1Mbps satellite link connects two ground stations.The altitude of the satellite is 36,504 km and speedof the signal is 3 x108m/s. What should be thepacket size for a channel utilization of 25% for asatellite link using go-back-127 sliding windowprotocol? Assume that the acknowledgment packetsare negligible in size and that there are no errorsduring communication.(a) 120 bytes (b) 60 bytes(c) 240 bytes (d) 90 bytes

65. The minimum frame size required for a CSMA/CDbased computer network running at 1 Gbps on a200m cable with a link speed of 2 x108m/s is(a) 125 bytes (b) 250 bytes(c) 500 bytes (d) None of the above

51


66. Data transmitted on a link uses the following 2Dparity scheme for error detection:Each sequence of 28 bits is arranged in a 4x7matrix (rows ro through r3, and columns d7 throughd1) and is padded with a column do and row r4 ofparity bits computed using the Even parity scheme.Each bit of column do (respectively, row r4)givesthe parity of the corresponding row (respectively,column). These 40 bits are transmitted over thedata link.

d7 dg d6 d4 d3 d2 d1 I doro 0 1 0 1 0 0 1 1r1 1 1 0 0 1 1 1 0r2 0 0 0 1 0 1 0r3 0 1 1 0 0 1 0r4 1 0 0 0 1 1 0

The table shows data received by a receiver andhas n corrupted bits. What is the minimum possiblevalue of n?(a) 1 (b) 2(c) 3 (d) 4

67. Two popular routing algorithms are DistanceVedtor(DV) and Link State (LS) routing. Which ofthe following are true?(S1) Count to infmity is a problem only with DVand not LS routing(S2) In LS, the shortest path algorithm is run onlyat one node(S3) In DV, the shortest path algorithm is run onlyat one node(S4) DV requires lesser number of networkMessages than LS(a) S1, S2 and S4 only(b) Si, S3 and S4 only(c) S2 and S3 only(d) S1 and S4 only

68. Which of the following statements areTRUE?(S1) TCP handles both congestion and flow control(S2) UDP handles congestion but not flow control(S3) Fast retransmit deals with congestion but notflow control

(S4) Slow start mechanism deals with bothcongestion and flow control(a) Si, S2 and S3 only(b) S1 and S3 only(c) S3 and S4 only(d) S1, S3 and S4 only

69. The three way handshake for TCP connectionestablishment is shown below.

Client Server

time

Which of the following statements are TRUE?(S1) Loss of SYN + ACK from the server will notestablish a connection(S2) Loss of ACK from the client cannot establishthe connection(S3) The server moves LISTEN -> SYN_RCVD-> SYN_SENT -> ESTABLISHED in the statemachine on no packet loss(S4) The server moves LISTEN -> SYN_RCVD-> ESTABLISHED in the state machine on nopacket loss.(a) S2 and S3 only (b) S1 and S4 only(c) S1 and S3 only (d) S2 and S4 onlyCommon Data QuestionsCommon Data for Questions 71, 72 and 73:A Binary Search Tree (BST) stores values in therange 37 to 573. Consider the following sequenceof keys.I. 81, 537, 102, 439, 285, 376, 305II. 52, 97, 121, 195, 242, 381, 472III. 142, 248, 520, 386, 345, 270, 307 IV 550,

149, 507, 395, 463, 402, 27071. Suppose the BST has been unsuccessfully searched

for key 273. Which all of the above sequences listnodes in the order in which we could haveencountered them in the search?(a) II and III only (b) I and III only

52


(c) III and IV only (d) III only72. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

(a) I,II and IV are inorder sequences of threedifferent BSTs

(b) I is a preorder sequence of some BST with439 as the root

(c) II is an inorder sequence of some BSTwhere 121 is the root and 52 is a leaf

(d) IV is a postorder sequence of some BST with149 as the root

73. How many distinct BSTs can be constructed with3 distinct keys?(a) 4 (b) 5(c) 6 (d) 9Common Data for Questions 74 and 75:Consider the following relational schema:Student (school-id. sch-roll-no, sname, saddress)School (school-id, sch-name, sch-address, sch-phone)Enrolment(school-id, sch-roll-no,erollno, examname)ExamResult(erollno, examname, marks)

74. What does the following SQL query output?SELECT sch-name, COUNT(*)

FROM SchoolC, Enrolment E, ExamResult RWHERE E.school-id = C.school-idANDE. examname=R.examname AND E.Erollno =

R.erollnoANDR.marks =100 AND S.school-id IN (SELECT school-idFROM studentGROUP BY school-idHAVING COUNT (*) > 200)GROUP By school-id(a) for each school with more than 200 students

appearing in exams, the name of the school and thenumber of 100s scored by its students

(b) for each school with more than 200 studentsin it, the name of the school and the number of100s scored by its students

(c) for each school with more than 200 students in it,the name of the school and the number of itsstudents scoring 100 in at least one exam

(d) nothing; the query has a syntax error

Linked Answer Questions :Q.77 to Q.81 carrytwo marks each.

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 76 and ’77:A binary tree with n >1 nodes has n1, n2 and n3 nodesof degree one, two and three respectively. The degree ofa node is defined as the number of its neighbours.77. Starting with the above tree, while there remains a

node v of degree two in the tree, add an edgebetween the two neighbours of v and then removev from the tree. How many edges will remain atthe end of the process?(a) 2*n1-3 (b) n2+2 *n22(c) n2 (d) n2+111-2Statement for Linked Answer Questions 78 and 79:A CFG G is given with the following productionswhere S is the start symbol, A is a non-terminal anda and b are terminals.S’! aSÐ AA’!aAbÐbAaÐõ

78. Which of the following strings is generated by thegrammar above?(a) aabbaba (b) aabaaba(c) abababb (d) aabbaab

79. For the correct answer in Q.78 how many stepsare required to derive the string and how manyparse trees are there?(a) 6 and 1 (b) 6 and 2(c) 7 and 2 (d) 4 and 2Statement for Linked Answer Questions 80 and 81:Consider a computer with a 4-ways set-associativemapped cache of the following characteristics: atotal of 1 MB of main memory, a word size of 1byte, a block size of 128 words and a cache sizeof 8 KB.

80. The number of bits in the TAG, SET and WORDfields, respectively are:(a) 7,6,7 (b) 6,5,7(c) 8,6,6 (d) 9,4,7

82. What does f(173) print?(a) 010110101 (b) 010101101(c) 10110101 (d) 10101101

53


1. Which one of the following is NOT necessarily aproperty of a Group?(a) Commutativity(b) Associativity(c) Existence of inverse for every element(d) Existence of identity

2. What is the chromatic number of an n-vertex simpleconnected graph which does not contain any oddlength cycle ? Assumen n2.(a) 2 (b) 3(c) n – 1 (d) n

3. Which one of the following is TRUE for any simpleconnected undirected graph with more than 2 verti-ces ?(a) No two vertices have the same degree.(b) At least two vertices have the samedegree.(c) At least three vertices have the same degree.(d) All vertices have the same degree.

4. Consider the binary relationR = 1(x, y), (x, z), (z, x), (z, y)} on the set (x, y,z). Which one of the following is TRUE?(a) R is symmetric but NOT anti-symmetric.(b) R is NOT symmetric but anti-symmetric.(c) R is both symmetric and anti-symmetric.(d) R is neither symmetric nor anti symmetric.

5. (1217)8 is equivalent to(a) (1217)16 (b) (028F)16

(c) (2297)10 (d) (0B17)16

6. What is the minimum number of gates required toimplement the Boolean function (AB + C) if wehave to use only 2-input NOR gates ?(a) 2 (b) 3(c) 4 (d) 5

7. How many 32 x 1 RAM chips are needed to providea memory capacity of 256 K-bytes?(a) 8 (b) 32(c) 64 (d) 128

8. A CPU generally handles an interrupt by executingan interrupt service routine(a) as soon as an interrupt is raised.(b) by checking the interrupt register at the end

of fetch cycle.

(c) by checking the interrupt register afterfinishing the executing of the currentinstruction.

(d) by checking the interrupt register at fixedtime intervals.

9. In which one of the following page replacementpolicies, Belady’s anomaly may occur ?(a) FIFO (b) Optimal(c) LRU (d) IVIRU

10. The essential content (s) in each entry of a pagetable is/are(a) virtual page number.(b) page frame number.(c) both virtual page number and page frame

number(d) access right information.

11. What is the number of swaps required to sort nelements using selection sort, in the worst case?(a) 0 (n) (b) 0 (n log n)(c) 0 (n2) (d) 0 (n2 log n)

12. S → aSalbSblalbThe language generated by the above grammar overthe alphabet (a, b} is the set of(a) all palindromes.(b) all odd length palindromes.(c) strings that begin and end with the same

symbol.(d) all even length palindromes.

13. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correctregarding Bellman-Ford shortest path algorithm`?P. A always finds a negative weighted cycle, if oneexists.Q. Finds whether any negative weighted cycle isreachable from the source.(a) P only (b) Q only(c) both P and Q (d) neither P nor Q

27. Given the following state table of an FSM with twostates A and B, one input and one output:

Present Present Input Next Next utputState A State B State C State A State B O

0 0 0 0 0 1

1 0 1 0 0 0

54


1 0 0 0 1 0

1 1 0 1 0 0

0 0 1 0 1 0

0 1 1 0 0 1

1 0 1 0 1 1

1 1 1 0 0 1If the initial state is A = 0, B = 0, what is theminimum length of an input string which will takethe machine to the state A= 0, B =1 with Output= 1?(a) 3 (b) 4(c) 5 (d) 6

S1 S2 S3 S4

II. 2 1 1 1

I2 1 3 2 2

13 2 1 1 3

14 1 2 2 228. Consider a 4 stage pipeline processor. The number

of cycles needed by the four instructions 11,12,13,14 in stages Sl, S2, S3, S4 is shown below:What is the number of cycles needed to executethe following loop?for (i = 1 to 2) {I1; 12; 13; 14}(a) 16 (b) 23(c) 28 (d) 30

29. Consider a 4-way set associative cache (initiallyempty) with tota116 cache blocks. The mainmemory consists of 256 blocks and the requst formemory blocks is in the following order:0, 255,1, 4, 3, 8, 133, 159, 216, 129, 63, 8, 48, 32,73, 92, 155.Which one of the following memory block will NOTbe in cache if LRU replacement policy is used?(a) 3 (b) 8(c) 129 (d) 216

31. Consider a disk system with 100 cylinders. Therequests to access the cylinders occur in followingsequence:4, 34, 10, 7, 19, 73, 2, 15, 6, 20Assuming that the head is currently at cylinder 50,what is the time taken to satisfy all requests if it

takes 1 ms to move from one cylinder to adjacentone and shortest seek time first policy is used ?(a) 95 ms (b) 11.9 ms(c) 233 ms (d) 276 ms

43. Which of the above schedules are conflict-serializable?(a) S1 adn S2 (b) S2 and S3(c) S3 only (d) S4 only

44. The following key values are inserted into a B+ —tree in which order of the internal nodes is 3, andthat of the leaf nodes is 2, is the sequence givenbelow. The 9rder of internal nodes in the maximumnumber of tree pointers in each node, and the orderof leaf nodes is the maximum number of data itemsthat can be stored in it. The B+ —tree is initiallyempty.10, 3, 6, 8, 4, 2, 1The maximum number of times leaf nodes wouldget split up as a result of these insertions is(a) 2 (b) 3(c) 4 (d) 5

47. Which opening a TCP connection, the initial se-quence number is to be derived using a time-of-day(ToD) clock that keeps running even when the hostis down. The low order32 bits of the counter of theToD clock is to be used for the initial sequencenumbers. The clock counter increments once permillisecond. The maximum packet lifetime is givento be 64s.Which one of the choices given below is closest tothe minimum permissible rate at which sequencenumbers used for packets of a connection can in-crease ?(a) 0.015/s (b) 0.064/s(c) 0.135/s (d) 0.327/s

48. Let G(x) be the generator polynomial used for CRCchecking. What is the condition that should besatisfied by G(x) to detect odd number of bits inerror?(a) G(x) contains more than two terms.(b) G(x) does not divide 1 + xk, for any k not

exceeding the frame length.(c) 1+ xis a factor of G(x).(d) G(x) has an odd number of terms.

55


49. Which of the following statements are TRUE ?I. The context diagram should depict the system asa single bubble.II. External entities should be identified clearly atall levels of DFDs.III. Control information should not be representedin a DFD.IV. A data store can be connected either to anotherdata store or to an external entity.(a) II and III (b) L II and IV(c) I and III (d) I, II and III

-----------

P.P. (PROCESS POURING )

1. Process of making hollow castings of desiredthickness by permanent mould without the use ofcores, is called(a) permanent mould casting(b) die casting(c) slush casting(d) centrifugal casting

2. Process of pouring molten metal under high pressureinto mould is called(a) permanent mould casting(b) die casting(c) slush casting(d) centrifugal casting

3. Process of pouring molten into mould and allowedto solidify, when the mould is revolving is called(a) permanent mould casting(b) die casting(c) slush casting(d) centrifugal casting

4. Process of making hollow casting from permanentmould by a close fitting core, is called(a) slush casting(b) die casting(c) pressed casting(d) investment casting

5. Casting process used for ornaments and toys of

non-ferrous alloys is(a) slush casting(b) die casting(c) pressed casting(d) investment casting

6. Casting process being expensive used only wheresmall number of intricate and highly accurate

parts are to be manufactured is(a) slush casting(b) die casting(c) pressed casting(d) investment casting

7. Investment casting uses pattern made of(a) wax (b) clay(c) metal (d) wood

8. Tolerance produced by investment casting methodin average work is(a) +0.05 mm (b) +0.2 mm(c) +0.5 mm (d) +1 mm

9. Misrum is a casting defect which occurs when(a) pauring temperature is very high(b) gases have been absorbed by the liquid metal(c) sufficient superheat has not been provided

to the liquid metal(d) alignment is improper.

10. True centrifugal casting is used to get(a) accurate castings(b) dynamically balanced castings(c) statically balanced castings(d) chilled castings

11. In die casting process(a) any metal can be cast(b) any size casting can be prepared(c) very high production rate is possible(d) die is cheap

12. The addition of coal dust to the green mouldingsand is to improve(a) permeability (b) surface finish(c) mouldability (d) green strength

13. The purpose of adding wood flour or saw dust tofoundry sand is to improve(a) mouldability

56


(b) dry strength(c) hot strength(d) collapsibility

14. Surface finish of casting depends upon(a) mould dressings(b) pattern finish(c) fineness of sand(d) all of these

15. In centrifugal casting method, impurities are(a) forced outisde the surface(b) collected at the centre of the casting(c) uniformly distributed(d) none of these

16. Squeezing machine is used to(a) ram the sand harder at the back of the

mouldand softer on the pattern face(b) ram the sand harder at the pattern face with

decreasing hardness towards the back of themould

(c) produce uniform packing of sand in the mould(d) give uniform sand hardness throughout the

mould17. A Jolt machine is used to

(a) ram the sand harder at the back of the mouldand softer on the pattern face

(b) ram the sand harder at the pattern facewith decreasing hardness towards the backof the mould

(c) produce uniform packing of sand in the mould(d) give uniform sand hardness throughout the

mould18. A sand slinger is used to


(b) ram the sand harder at the pattern face withdecreasing hardness towards the back of themould

(c) produce uniform packing of sand in themould

(d) give uniform sand hardness throughout themould

19. A diaphragm moulding machine is used to


(b) ram the sand harder at the pattern face withdecreasing hardness towards the back of themould

(c) produce uniform packing of sand in the mould(d) give uniform sand hardness throughout

the mould20. Machine used to draw the pattern from the mould

is know as(a) sand slinger(b) Jolt machine(c) stripper-plate machine(d) squeezing machine

21. The addition of Iron Oxide to the foundry sandimproves the(a) bonding (b) green strength(c) hot strength (d) permeability

22. A mesured quantity of molten metal is brought in aladle from the melting pot to a chamber and forcedinto the closed die-section by applying hydraulicpressure upon the plunger, in a(a) hot chamber die casting machine(b) cold chamber die casting machine(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

23. In a cold chamber die casting machine(a) melting pot is separate from the machine(b) only non-ferrous alloys with high melting

temperature are casted(c) aluminium, magnesium, copper base alloys

and other high melting alloys are casted(d) all of these

24. In a hot chamber die casting machine(a) melting pot is an integral part of the machine(b) non-ferrous alloys with low melting

temperatures are casted(c) zinc, tin, lead and other low melting alloys

are casted(d) all of these

25. In the foundry sand ‘Bentonite’ is used as(a) plasticiser(b) surface finish improver

57


(c) binder(d) refractory power

26. Shift is a casting defect which(a) results in a mismatching of the top and

bottom parts of a casting(b) is due to enlargement of the mould cavity by

metal pressure causing partial or over allenlargement of the casting

(c) occurs near the ingates as rough lumps onthe surface of the casting

(d) is due to a thin projection of metal notintended as part of the casting

27. Swell is a casting defect which(a) results in a mismatching of the top and

bottom parts of a casting(b) is due to enlargement of the mould cavity

by metal pressure causing partial or overall enlargement of the casting



28. Sand wash is a casting defect which(a) results in a mismatching of the top and





29. Fin is a casting defect which(a) results in a mismatching of the top and





30. Slag inclusion in casting is a

(a) surface defect (b) internal defect(c) superficial defect (d) none of these

31. Slush casting process is used to produce(a) hollow castins (b) intricate castings(c) large size castings (d) thin walled castings

32. Casting defect development due to inadequateventing is(a) inclusions (b) blow holes(c) cold shuts (d) none of these

33. Sever quenching can cause(a) blow holes(b) warping(c) crack formation(d) none of these

34. Casting defect caused by the molten metal is(a) blow holes (b) swell(c) scad (d) all of these

35. Casting defect caused by mixing of two streams ofmolten metal that are too cold to fuse properly, is(a) scab (b) swell(c) colds shots (d) shrinkage

36. Down spruce in casting is given a tapered shapefor(a) easy flow of molten metal(b) easy withdrawal of casting(c) preventing aspiration of gases through

spruce(d) preventing bulging of spruce during pouring.

37. Gas generated in mould with synthetic sand ascompared to silica sand is(a) more (b) less(c) same (d) unpredictable

38. Riddle is(a) round sieve(b) a long, flat metal plate fitted with an offset

handle(c) used to make or repair corners in a mould(d) used to scoop sand deep in the mould

39. The most suitable material for die casting is(a) steel (b) cast iron(c) nickel (d) copper

40. Draft on pattern for casting is

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(a) shrinkage allowance(b) identification number marked on it(c) taper to facilitate its removal from mould(d) for machining allowance.

41. Casting process is preferred for parts having(a) a few details(b) many details(c) no details(d) non-symmetrical shape

42. In order to facilitate withdrawal of pattern(a) pattern is made smooth(b) water is applied on pattern surface(c) allowances are made on pattern(d) draft is provided on pattern

43. Loose piece patterns are(a) a sort of split patterns(b) used when the pattern cannot be drawn

from the mould(c) similar to core prints(d) never used in foundry work

44. Cores are used to(a) make desired recess in castings(b) strengthen moulding sand(c) support loose pieces(d) remove pattern easily

45. Trowel is(a) round sieve(b) a long, flat metal plate fitted with an offset

handle(c) used to make or repair corners in the mould(d) used to scoop sand deep in the mould

46. Shrinkage allowance is made up by(a) adding to external and internal dimensions(b) subtracting from external and internal

dimensions(c) subtracting from external dimensions and

adding to internal dimensions(d) adding to external dimensions and

subtracting from internal dimensions47. Wood for pattern is considered dry when moisture

content is(a) zero (b) 5%

(c) less than 15% (d) less than 25%48. The purpose of gate is to

(a) feed the casting at a rate consistent withthe rate of solidification

(b) act as reservoir for molten metal(c) help feed the casting unitl all solidification

takes place(d) feed molten metal from pouring basin to gate

49. Lifter is(a) round sieve(b) a long, flat metal plate fitted with an offset

handle(c) used to make or repair corners in the mould(d) used to scoop sand deep in the mould

50. Facing sand used in foundry work comprises of(a) silica and clay(b) clay and alumina(c) silica and alumina(d) clay and silica

51. Loam sand comprises of(a) 50% sand and 10% moisture(b) 40% sand and 10% moisture(c) 50% sand and 18% moisture(d) 80% sand and 20% moisture

52. The purpose of sprue is to(a) feed the casting at a rate consistent with the

rate of solidification(b) act as a reservoir for molten metal(c) help feed the casting until the solidificationtakes place(d) feed molten from pouring basin to gate

53. Accuracy of shell moulding is of the order of(a) 0.001 m/m(b) 0.003 to 0.005 m/m(c) 0.01 m/m(d) 0.1 m/m

54. Hexamethylene tetramine is added to the resin sandas a(a) binder (b) releasing agent(c) dispersant (d) catalyst

55. Sand slinger gives(a) better packing of sand near pattern

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(b) better packing of sand near the flask(c) uniform sand density in the mould(d) none of these

56. When using disposable pattern, the metal should bepoured(a) very slowly(b) rather rapidly(c) at same rate as for other casting processes(d) at any rate

57. The purpose of pouring basin is to(a) feed the casting at a rate consistent with the

rate of solidification(b) act as a reservoir for molten metal(c) help feed the casting until the solidification

takes place(d) feed molten from pouring basin to gate

58. Match plate pattern is used in(a) green sand moulding(b) bench moulding(c) pit moulding(d) machine moulding

59. For steel castings, which of the following type ofsand is better ?(a) fine-grain(b) coarser-grain(c) medium grain(d) all are equally good

60. As the size of castings increases, it is often betterto use increasingly(a) fine-grain (b) medium grain(c) coarser-grain (d) any of these

61. The purpose of riser is to(a) feed the casting at a rate consistent with the

rate of solidification(b) act as a reservoir for molten metal(c) help feed the casting until the solidification

takes place(d) feed molten metal from pouring basin to gate

62. Slick is(a) a round sieve(b) a long, flat metal plate fitted with an offset

handle

(c) used to make or repair corners in themould

(d) used to scoop sand deep in the mould63. Linseed oil is used in the core sand as a

(a) catalyst (b) parting agent(c) flux (d) binder

64. In permanent mould casting method(a) molten metal is fed into the cavity in

metallic mould by gravity(b) metal is poured into die cavity, and at a

predetermined time the mould is inverted topermit a part of metal still in molten state tolfow out of cavity

(c) cavity is filled with a precalculated quantityof metal and a core or plunger is inserted toforce the metal into cavity

(d) metal is forced into mould under highpressure

65. Investment casting is used for(a) shapes which are made by difficulty using

complex patterns in sand casting(b) mass production(c) shapes which are very complex and

intricate and can’t be cast by any othermethod

(d) there is nothing like investment casting66. Pipes subjected to very heavy pressures of the order

100 kg/cm2 are made by(a) electric resistance welding process(b) centrifugal casting(c) die casting(d) extrusion process, as seamless pipes

67. Water pipes of large length and diameter are madeby(a) semi-centrifugal casting(b) continuous casting(c) sand casting(d) electric resistance welding

68. Strongest components are produced by(a) die casting (b) hot rolling(c) cold rolling (d) forging.

69. Longitudinal joint of drums of 150 mm thick sheetsare made by

60


(a) electric arc welding(b) plaska arc welding(c) electro-slag welding(d) resistance welding

70. Antioch process is a(a) continuous casting process(b) welding process(c) process of making porous moulds(d) there is nothing like antioch

71. Semi-centrifugal casting is used to(a) ensure purity and density at extremities

of a casting(b) cast symmetrical objects(c) obtain high density and pure castings(d) use heavy cast iron mould to act as chill

72. Surfaces to be machined are marked on the patternby the(a) black colour(b) yellow colour(c) red colour(d) blue colour

73. Blue colour on the pattern is marked for(a) machined surfaces(b) unfinished surfaces(c) loose piece pattern(d) never used in pattern marking operation.

74. Chilled surfaces are marked on the pattern by(a) oblique red trips(b) yellow cross strips(c) black cross strips on yellow(d) oblique red strips on yellow

89. Scabs or buckles are the casting defects(a) which occur due to some sand shearing

from the cope surface(b) which take the form of voids of surface

depression due to excessive gaseous materialnot able to escape

(c) which occur due to discontinuity in metalcasting resulting from hindered contraction

(d) casued by two streams of metals that are toocold to fuse properly

90. The provision of pattern shrinkage is to compensatethe shrinkage of(a) mould cavity(b) pattern(c) casting during solidification(d) casting after solidification

91. The ratio between the pattern shrinkage allowanceof steel and cast iron is about(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 1.5

92. Large and heavy castings are made by(a) green sand moulding(b) pit moulding(c) dry sand moulding(d) pressure moulding

93. Graphite moulds are used for continuous castingprocess in order to provide(a) non-wetting agent(b) self-lubricating qualities(c) chilling effect(d) heat resisting medium

94. Ferrous alloys are usually cast by(a) hot chamber machine(b) cold chamber machine(c) die casting machine(d) none of these

95. Suitable pattern for large size and symmetrical shapecastings such as wheel and bell is(a) split pattern(b) skeleton pattern(c) solid pattern(d) sweep pattern

96. Fludity is greatly influenced by(a) melting temperature(b) tapping temperature(c) pouring temperature(d) solidification temperature

97. Sweep pattern is used for moulding parts having(a) rectangular shape(b) elliptical shape(c) circular shape(d) complicated shape having intricate details

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98. Centrifuging process is(a) limited to symmetrical object about horizontal

axis(b) limited to symmetrical objects about vertical

axis(c) used for producing castings of irregular

shape(d) used for producing one casting at a time

99. Hot tears are casting defects(a) which occur due to some sand shearing from

the cope surface(b) which take the form of internal voids of

surface depression due to excessive gaseousmaterial not able to escape

(c) which occur due to discontinuity in metalcasting resulting from hindere contraction

(d) casued by two streams of metals that aretoocold to fuse properly

100. Fettling is an operation performed(a) before casting(b) during casting(c) after casting(d) after heat treatment

101. Vertical centrifugal castings as compared tohorizontal centrifugal castings are spun at(a) higher speed(b) slower speed(c) same speed(d) unpredictable

102. Sheel moulding process requires(a) wooden patterns(b) sand patterns(c) plastic patterns(d) metal patterns

103. Cold shots are casting defects(a) which occur due to some sand shearing from

the cope surface(b) which take the form of internal voids of


(c) which occur due to discontinuity in metalcasting resulting from hindered contraction

(d) casued by two streams of metals that aretoo cold to fuse properly

104. Draft on pattern means(a) locating aid(b) allowance for machining(c) facility for stripping(d) compensation for shrinkage

105. Core prints are used to(a) strengthen core(b) form seat to support and hold the core in

place(c) fabricate core(d) none of these

106. Jolt machines produce(a) uniform ramming about the pattern(b) uniform ramming about the flask(c) uniform distribution throughout(d) pack sand loosely all around

107. Blow holes are casting defects(a) which occur due to some sand shearing from

the cope surface(b) which takes the form of internal voids of

surface depression due to excessiveg a s e o u s

material not able to escape(c) which occur due to discontinuity in metal

casting resulting from hindered contraction(d) casued by two streams of metals that are too

cold to fuse properly108. The main advantage of shell moulding is

(a) Strong mould(b) Ability to cast thin sections(c) High production rate(d) Ability to cast large sizes

109. Amount of gas generated while pouring hot metalin mould made with resin sand as compared to CO2

sand is(a) more (b) less(c) same (d) umpredictable

110. The purpose of chaplets is to(a) provide benting(b) induce directional solidification(c) compensate shrinkage

62


(d) support the core111. Sand are graded according to their

(a) source of origin(b) strength(c) permeability(d) clay content and grain size

112. In sand moulding, the bottom most part of thelfask is called(a) drag (b) flask bottom(c) cope (d) check

113. Cow dung is some times used in(a) bench moulding(b) dry sand moulding(c) green sand moulding(d) all of the above

114. Moulding sands can contain which of the followingpercentage of maximum quantity of moisture ?(a) 2.5% (b) 5%(c) 8% (d) 12%

115. Cope in foundary practice refers to(a) bottom half of moulding box(b) top half of moulding box(c) middle portion of the moulding box(d) heavy weight kept on moulding box to

overcome buoyant effect of molten metal116. Which of the following material has more shrinkage

allowance ?(a) cast iron (b) brass(c) lead (d) steel

117. The mould is housed in a(a) flask (b) cope(c) drug (d) check

118. Loose piece patterns are(a) a sort of split patterns(b) used when the pattern cannot be drawn

from the mould(c) similar to core print(d) never used in foundry work

119. Core are used to(a) make desired recess in casting(b) strengthen moulding sand(c) support loose pieces

(d) remove pattern easily120. In order to facilitate the withdrawal of pattern

(a) pattern is made smooth(b) water is applied on pattern surface(c) allowances are made on pattern(d) draft is provided on pattern

121. Least shrinkage allowance is provided in case of(a) brass (b) aluminium(c) cast iron (d) steel

122. The purpose of sprue is to(a) act as a reservoir for molten metal(b) feed molten metal from pouring basin to

gate(c) removing pattern from the mould(d) split pattern in two parts.

123. Aluminium is the best of the metals for makingpattern because it is(a) easy to work(b) light in weight(c) resistant to corrosion(d) all of these

124. Process of making hollow casting from permanentmould by a closed fitting core is known as(a) die casting (b) slush casting(c) pressed casting (d) centrifugal casting

125. The process of pouring molten metal in the metallicmould by gravity, is called(a) die casting(b) slush casting(c) pressed casting(d) permanent mould casting

126. For ornamental parts and toys of non-ferrous alloys,casting used is(a) die casting(b) slush casting(c) centrifugal casting(d) permanent mould casting

127. The tolerance obtained by investment casting is ofthe order of(a) ± 0.5 mm (b) ± 0.05 mm(c) ± 0.005 mm (d) ± 0.0005 mm

128. Pipes of large length and diameters are made by

63


(a) pressed casting(b) semi-centrifugal casting(c) slush casting(d) extrusion process

129. Pipes subjected to very high pressure of the order11120 kgf/cm2 are made by(a) pressed casting(b) semi-centrifugal casting(c) slush casting(d) extrusion process

130. To obtain high density and pure casting, whichof the following method is used?(a) Die casting(b) Centrifugal casting(c) Slush casting(d) Permanent mould casting

131. ‘lb cast symmetrical object, which of the followingcasting method is used ?(a) Die casting(b) True centrifugal casting(c) Investment casting(d) None of these

132. The colour marked on the surface of a patternnot to be machined is(a) black (b) green(c) red (d) blue

133. For reinforcement of sand in the top part ofmoulding box,(a) riddle is used (b) slick is used(c) swab is used (d) lifter is used

134. Which of the following is not a casting process ?(a) Carthias process(b) Extrusion(c) Semi-centrifugal method(d) Slush process

135. The purpose of gate is to(a) feed the casting at a rate consistent with

the rate of solidification(b) act as reservoir for molten metal(c) help feed the casting until to the solidification

takes place(d) feed molten metal from pousing basin

136. Facing-sand used in foundary work comprises(a) Alumina, Silica, Clay(b) Silica and Clay(c) Clay and Alumina(d) Silica and Alumina

137. Loam sand comprises of(a) 50% sand and 10% moisture(b) 40% clay and moisture(c) 50% clay and 18% moisture(d) 80% clay and 20% moisture

138. Dilatometer is used to find out which thefollowing property of moulding sand ?(a) permeability(b) moisture content(c) hot strength(d) compactness

139. Accuracy of shell moulding is of the order of(a) 0.001 min/mm(b) 0.003 to 0.005 mm/mm(c) 0.01 mm/mm(d) 0.1 mm

140. Moulding of casting ferrous material in continuouscasting process is made of(a) low carbon steel(b) medium carbon steel(c) high carbon steel(d) copper

141. When using disposable pattern, the metal should bepoured(a) very slowly(b) rather rapidly(c) at same rate as for other casting processes(d) any rate

142. For steel casting, which of the following type ofsand is better ?(a) Fine grain (b) Coarse grain(c) Medium grain (d) All are equally good

144. Hot tear refers to(a) casting defect(b) process of fabrication(c) process of heat treatment(d) weathering of non-ferrous materials

64


145. Slag inclusion in casting is a(a) surface defect (b) internal defect(c) crack (d) notch

146. Blow holes are casting defects,(a) which occur due to some sand shearing from

the cope surface(b) which takes the form internal voids or

surface depression due to excessiveg a s e o u s

material not able to escape(c) which occur due to discontinuity in metal

casting resulting from hindered contraction(d) which are caused by two stream of metals

that are too cold to fuse properly.147. Cold ducts are

(a) a forging defects due to insufficient filling(b) bores is welds(c) casting defects due to two streams not able

to fuse due to being cool(d) casting defect due to moisture

148. Slabs or buckles are the casting defects(a) which occur due to some sand shearing

from the cope(b) which take the form of internal voids or


(c) which occur due to discontinuity in metalcasting resulting from hindred contraction

(d) caused by which streams of metals that aretoo cold to fuse property

149. Sweep pattern is used for moulding parts having(a) rectangular shape(b) elliptical shape(c) uniform symmetrical shape(d) complicated shape having intricate details

150. The internal cracks in casting can be easily foundout by which of the following method ?(a) Magnatic particle inspection(b) Fluorescent penetrant(c) Dry penetrant(d) Ultrasonic

151. The internal hot tears defects in casting can beinspected by the method of

(a) radiography (b) visual inspection(c) damping test (d) hardness test

152. The surface and subsurface cracks in non-magneticalloys can be easily located and detected by theinspection method of(a) X-ray testing(b) ultrasonic testing(c) magnetic particle inspection testing(d) dye-penetrant

153. Hot tear are casting defects(a) which occur due to some sand shearing from

the cope surface(b) which take the from of internal voids or

surface depression due to excessive gas asmaterial not able to escape

(c) which occur due to discontinuity in metalcasting resulting from hindred contraction

(d) none of these154. During the freezing of pure metal, the possible

casting structure is(a) columnar structure(b) equi-axed grain structure(c) dendritic structure(d) dendritic and columnar

155. When an alloy solidify over a short range oftemperatures, the resulting casting structure will be(a) dendritic(b) partially columnar and partially equ-iaxed(c) wholly equi-axed(d) wholly columnar

156. Flogging in boundary practice refers to(a) type of moulding method(b) removal of spine and risers(c) removal of slag during pouring(d) casting defect

157. Vertical centrifuegal castings as compared tohorizontal centrifugal casting are spun at(a) higher speed (b) slower speed(c) same speed (d) none of these

158. Shell moulding process requires(a) wooden pattern (b) sand pattern(c) plastic pattern (d) none of these

65


159. Sand is packed on pit moulds with(a) manually (b) squeezers(c) jolt machines (d) sand slinger

160. For grey cast iron, the pattern shrinkageallowance is of the order of(a) 2 to 5 mm/m (b) 5 to 7 minim(c) 7 to 10.5 mm/m (d) 13.5 to 18 mm/m

1. Melting process is carried out by heating the metalpieces to plastic or fusion state bringing themtogether(a) with the application of pressure and filler(b) without the application of pressure and

without filler(c) with application of pressure and without filler(d) all of these

2. The process of welding, where the metal piecesto be joined are heated to plastic state and thenjoined together by application of pressure is called(a) Thermit welding(b) Arc welding(c) Gas welding(d) Plastic welding

3. The process of welding where the metal piecesare heated to molten state at the joint and thenallowed to solidify with the application of fillermaterial is called(a) Forge welding(b) Cold welding(c) Thermit welding(d) Fusion welding

4. The forging temperature in forge welding processis about(a) 350°C (b) 500°C(c) 1000°C (d) 1350°C

5. The flux commonly used in forge welding is amixture of borok, clean fine sand, and iron fillingsit the proportion of(a) 40 : 40 : 20 (b) 20 : 60 : 20(c) 20 : 40 : 40 (d) 40 : 20 : 40

6. Iron and low carbon steels are commonly joined byforge welding(a) without the application of flux(b) with the application of flux(c) both (a) and (b)(d) something else

7. In cold welding, the metal pieces are joined(a) by heating upto 500°C(b) by heating upto 1000°C(c) by heating upto 1350°C(d) without heating them

8. In cold welding the pressure range varies from(a) 300 kg/cm2 to 500 kg/cm2(b) 1300 kg/cm2 to 13,000 kg/cm2(c) 200 kg/cm2 to 300 kg/cm2(d) 100 kg/m2 to 1000 kg/m2

9. Oxygen to acetylene ratio in case of neutral flameis(a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1(c) 1 : 2 (d) 0.8 : 1

10. In resistance arc welding, the requirement is(a) heavy current, low voltage(b) heavy current, heavy voltage(c) low current, low voltage(d) low current, heavy voltage

11. Resistance welding include(a) Butt welding(b) Spot welding(c) Seam welding(d) all of these

12. For welding rods, wires or small pipes which ofthe following is used ?(a) Butt welding (b) Spot welding(c) Seam welding (d) Forge welding

13. In spot welding, the sheets are pressed together by(a) Air pressure(b) Hydraulic pressure

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(c) Mechanical pressure(d) Something else

14. For constructing a tank or bucket, welding used is(a) Seam welding(b) Forge welding(c) Cold welding(d) Pressure gas welding

15. After mixing with pure oxygen, atylene burns toproduce a flame temperature varying between(a) 320°C to 1320°C(b) 350°C to 2500°C(c) 2000°C to 3000°C(d) 3200°C to 3500°C

16. Oxyacetylene flame is obtained through the tip ofthe welding torch into(a) one stage (b) two stages(c) three stages (d) four stages

17. Carburising flame has(a) 3 zones (b) 2 zones(c) 4 zones (d) 1 zone only

18. Neutral flame has(a) 2 zones (b) 1 zone(c) 3 zones (d) 4 zones

19. For welding materials upto 25 mm thickness, thejoint generally used is(a) Butt joint(b) T-joint(c) Plug weld joint(d) Jogged welded joint

20. In case, where longitudinal shear is present, forwelding the joint generally used is(a) Butt joint (b) Plug weld joints(c) Joggled joint (d) T joint

21. Arc length in arc welding should be equal to(a) Rod diameter(b) Half diameter of electrode rod(c) 2.5 times the diameter 7 rod(d) 3 times the diameter 7 rod

22. In arc welding temperature of following order isgenerated ?(a) 500°C (b) 5500°C

(c) 50°C (d) 55,000°C23. Projection welding is

(a) continuous sport welding process(b) multi spot welding process(c) used to form rectangle(d) something else

24. For welding materials like aluminium, stainless steel,zinc die casting, nickel, monel etc., the flame usedis(a) carburising flame(b) neutral flame(c) oxidising flame(d) something else

25. For welding materials like copper and brass, thelfame used is(a) oxidising (b) neutral flame(c) carburising (d) something else

26. For welding materials like steel, the flame used is(a) oxidising (b) neutral(c) carburising (d) something else

27. Oxygen to acetylene ratio in case of oxidising flameis(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1.5 : 1(c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1

28. Oxygen to acetylene ratio in case of carburisinglfame is(b) 0.6 : 1(d) 0.8 : 1

29. The positive pressure type of torch works on(a) Equal pressure principle(b) Differential pressure principle(c) Equal volume principle(d) Something else

30. As compared to lower conductivity materials, thehigh conductivity materials requires a torch head of(a) smaller diameter(b) larger diameter(c) equal diameter(d) has no relationship

31. For welding horizontal and over head joints whichwelding technique is used ?(a) Fore hand welding technique

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(b) Back hand welding technique(c) both (a) and (b)(d) something else

32. For welding thinner metals (thickness less than5mm) which welding technique is used ?(a) Fore hand welding technique(b) Back hand welding technique(c) both (a) and (c)(d) something else

33. In arc welding, the voltage applied is(a) 4 volts (b) 40 volts(c) 4000 volts (d) 4000 volts

34. In arc welding, the voltage supplied is(a) A.C.(b) D.C.(c) Both A.C. and D.C.(d) something else

52. In resistance welding, two copper electrodes arcused. The electrode arc cooled by(a) air(b) water(c) either air or water(d) both air and water

53. The number of zones of heat generation in spotwelding are(a) two (b) three(c) four (d) five

54. Spot welding is most suitable for joining parts havingthickness upto(a) 50 mm (b) 30 mm(c) 20 mm (d) 10 mm

55. Which of the following welding processes uses non-consumable electrodes ?(a) MIG welding(b) TIG welding(c) CIG welding(d) Sub-merged arc welding

56. Which of the following welding processes useconsumable electrodes ?(a) MIG welding(b) TIG welding(c) CIG welding

(d) Sub-merged arc welding57. In arc-welding process, penetration is deepest for

(a) DCRP(b) DCSP(c) A.C.(d) None of these

58. In arc-welding processes, penetration is least for(a) DCRP (b) DCSP(c) A.C. (d) none of these

59. The welding process is which heat is produced forwelding chemical reaction is called(a) Forge welding (b) Resistance welding(c) Gas welding (d) Thermit welding

60. In thermit welding, a very high temperature isdeveloped. This temperature is of the order of(a) 1000°C (b) 2000°C(c) 2700°C (d) 3600°C

61. In thermit welding, the aluminium and iron oxideare mixed in the proportion of(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 2(c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 1

62. For welding heavy parts such as trucks, brokenmotor castings connecting rods etc., the weldingprocess used in generally(a) resistance welding(b) gas welding(c) thermit welding(d) spot welding

63. The process of joining two pieces of metals in whicha non-ferrous alloy is introduced in a liquid statebetween the pieces of metals to be joined andallowed to solidify is called(a) welding (b) soldering(c) brazing (d) lancing

64. The process of joining two or more pieces of metalsheets, by means of a fusible alloy or metal appliedin the molten state, is called(a) welding (b) wiping(c) GMAW (d) lancing

65. Soldering of lead-pipe is known as(a) lancing (b) soldering(c) brazing (d) GTAW

68


66. After the welding operation, the residual flux mustbe removed from the metal surface immediatelyotherwise the presence of residual f l ux will promote(a) crack formation (b) corrosion(c) diffusion (d) undercutting .

67. Inadequate penetration in case of welding operationwill lead to(a) crack formation(b) corrosion(c) diffusion(d) undercutting

68. For welding steel by MIG process, the gas used is(a) pure argon gas(b) CO,(c) argon-oxygen mixture(d) nitrogen

1. Side rake angle of single point tool is the angle(a) between surface of flank immediately below

point and straight line from the point inclinedat 90° to the base.

(b) by which face of the tool is machined sideways

(c) by which face of the tool leans backwards(d) none of these

2. Back rack angle of a single point tool is the angle(a) between surface of flank immediately below

the point and a straight line from the pointinclined at 90° to the base.

(b) by which face of the tool is inclinedtowards back

(c) by which face of the tool leans sidways(d) none of these

3. Helix angle of a drill for ferrous materials is(a) 45° (b) 70°(c) 90° (d) 30°

4. For softer materials , the point angle of drill is(a) decreased

(b) increased(c) 120°(d) material does not affect the point angle

5. When the speed goes above 20 r.p.m in metal cutting,the maximum heat is carried by(a) tool (b) chip(c) work (d) tailstock

6. In cemented carbides, the binding material used is(a) Cobalt (b) Chromium(c) A1203 (d) Araldite

7. When the cutting speed increases, the powerrequirement(a) increases linearly(b) varies randomly(c) remain constant(d) decreases

8. When cutting speed increases, the cutting force(a) increases linearly(b) varies randomly(c) decreases(d) more or less remain constant

9. The broaching process in which the broaching toolmoves past the stationary work is called(a) Straight broaching(b) Continuous broaching(c) Pull broaching(d) Counter broaching

10. The tailstock and carriage, in a lathe are guided on(a) different guideways(b) rails(c) same guideway(d) magnets

11. The rake angle in a drill(a) decreases from centre to periphery(b) increase from centre to periphery(c) remain constant(d) is irrelevant to the drilling operations

12. Plain milling of mild steel plates produces(a) irreguler shaped discontinuous chips(b) regular shaped discontinuous chip(c) continuous chips without build up edge(d) jointed chips

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13. Among the conventional processes, maximumspecific energy is consumed in(a) turning (b) drilling(c) plaining (d) grinding

14. The 18 : 4 : 1 high speed steel has a compositionof(a) 18% Ni, 4% Mo, 1% C(b) 18% Cr, 4% Mo, 1% C(c) 18% W, 4% Cr, 1% C(d) 18% Ni, 4% Cr, 1% V

15. While cutting aluminium with high speed steel, therecommended average cutting speed in Metre/minutes is(a) 20 (b) 25(c) 75 (d) 90

16. The milling machine cutting tool has(a) reciprocating motion(b) horizontal motion(c) rotational motion(d) vertical motion

35. Depth of finishing cut on milling machine is of theorder of(a) 0.01 to 0.1 mm (b) 0.4 to 0.8 mm(c) 0,01 to 0.3 mm (d) 0.8 to 1.2 mm

36. Best coolant and lubricant for Aluminium is(a) water soluble oils for sulpher based mineral

oils(b) mineral and fully oils or soluble oils(c) soluble oils(d) dry

37. For ferrous material , the_helix angle of drill is takenas(a) 30° (b) 45°(c) 60° (d) 90°

38. The cut per tooth while broaching steel in a keyway broach is by the order of(a) 0.01 to 0.05 mm(b) 0.05 to 0.2 mm(c) 0.001 to 0.01 mm(d) 0.02 to 0.08 mm

39. Cylindrial part held on planner by(a) V-block and arrestors

(b) angle plates(c) V-block, T-bolts, and clamps(d) T-bolt and clamps

40. The feeding of job in a shaper is done by(a) movement of the clapper box(b) table movement(c) V-block(d) tool movement

41. Discontinuous chips will be formed whenmachining speed is(a) high(b) low(c) medium(d) irrespective of cutting speed

42. Continuous chip will be formed when machiningspeed is(a) high(b) Low(c) medium(d) irrespective of cutting speed

43. For the same amount of metal removal, the shearstress is induced in orthogonal as compared tooblique cutting is(a) more(b) less(c) equal(d) there is no such correlation

44. Which of the following is used as cutting fluid forthe turning and milling operation on alloy steels?(a) CO2

(b) Kerosene(c) Soluble oil(d) Sulphurised mineral oil

45. Which of the following is the chip removal process?(a) Rolling (b) Extruding(c) Die casting (d) Broaching

46. Ceramic tools are made from(a) Tungsten oxide (b) Silicon carbide(c) Cobalt (d) Aluminium oxide

47. The angle between lathe centre is(a) 15° (b) 30°(c) 45° (d) 60°

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48. The movement of the various slides as well as thefeeding of the stock is entirely automatic on screwmachine and is obtained by the action of(a) gear (b) toilet(c) roller (d) cam

49. The grit, grade and structure of grinding wheels forspecific operation are based on(a) grinder clearance(b) spindle size of the grinder(c) diameter of wheel(d) speed at which the wheel is to be used

50. For grinding high tensile strength materials, whichof the following abrasive is recommended ?(a) A1203 (b) SiC(c) Diamond (d) Corundum

51. A 5mm thick shoulder on a 100mm diameter shaftwill be ground by which of the following operation?(a) Cylindrical grinding(b) Centreless grinding(c) Plunge grinding(d) Surface grinding

52. Operation of sharpening a grinding wheel is called(a) truing(b) dressing(c) aligning(d) balancing

53. Honing operation produces normal quality of finishof the order of(a) 0.01 to 0.08 mm CLA value(b) 0.08 to 0.2 mm CLA value(c) 0.2 to 0.4 mm CIA value(d) 0.8 to 1.5 mm CIA value

54. Which of the following is the natural abrasive ?(a) A1203 (b) SiC(c) Boron-carbide (d) Corundum

55. Which of the following abrasive will be used forgrinding ceramics ?(a) Diamond (b) A1203

(c) SiC (d) Boron carbide56. Which of the following is fastest method of cutting

gear ?(a) Milling (b) Gear shaping

(c) Gear bobbing (d) All of these57. Holes is parts which have been hardened by heat

treatment can be finished to accurate size only by(a) drilling(b) boring(c) internal grinding(d) reaming

58. A grinding wheel gets glazed due to(a) wear of abrasive grinds(b) wear of bond(c) breaking of abrasive(d) cracks

59. Drilling brass and bronze, the lubricant used is(a) keroscene(b) a flood of soluble oil(c) dry(d) sodawater

60. For drilling brass, a drill with(a) zero helix angle is required(b) low helix angle is required(c) high helix angle is required(d) any helix angle can be used

61. The accuracy of surface finish in case of broachingis of the order of(a) 8.0 microns (b) 0.8 microns(c) 0.08 microns (d) 0.008 microns

62. Maximum cut per tooth in case of broaching is(a) 1 mm (b) 0.5 mm(c) 0.15 mm (d) 0.01 mm

63. Which of the following pitch leads to chatter incase of broaching ?(a) Fine pitch (b) Large pitch(c) Uniform pitch (d) All of these

64. Process used for completing job in one stroke ofthe machine is(a) milling (b) drilling(c) broaching (d) boring

65. The drills are made in(a) Number sizes (b) letter sizes(c) metric sizes (d) all of these

66. The main cutting edge of a drill that are formed byintersection of the flank and surface is called

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(a) shanks (b) lips(c) webs (d) none of these

67. The best angle to grind a drill for work on extremelyhard and soft material is(a) 70, 70 (b) 59, 59(c) 59, 70 (d) 30, 59

68. With the increase of helix angle the cutting edgebecomes(a) weak (b) story(c) normal (d) none of these

69. For harder material, helix angle are of the order of(a) 50 to 60° (b) 35 to 45°(c) 20 to.30° (d) 10 to 13°

70. In grinding carbon-steel drill(a) no water should be used(b) plenty of water should be used(c) cold air should be used(d) none of these

71. For drilling aluminium and copper the lubricant usedis(a) keroscene (b) soda water(c) turpentine (d) dry

72. For drilling malleable carbon, the lubricant used is(a) keroscene (b) sodawater(c) turpentine (d) dry

89. Average thickness of the cut in one travel of thereciprocating saw is

(a) 1.5 mm (b) 3.0 mm(c) 6.25 mm (d) 8.0 mm

90. The operation of cutting a metal to some specifiedlength before the metal is presented to a machinetool, is called(a) broaching (b) milling(c) sawing (d) boring

91. In order to obtain a high surface finish, the machineshould(a) have vibration of maximum amplitude(b) have vibration of minimum aplitude(c) be free from vibration(d) none of these

92. Ray digram is a graph showing the relation between(a) cutting speed and speed of spindle

(b) cutting speed and diameter of workpiece(c) diameter of workpiece and spindle speed(d) cutting speed, diameter of job and spindle

93. A twist drill is specified by its shank, material and(a) diameter (b) dia angle(c) size of flute (d) length of body

96. Depth of cut is shaper should not be less than(a) 0.1 mm (b) 0.2 mm(c) 0.01 mm (d) 0.4 mm

97. The overhand of the tool slide in case of a shapershould be(a) maximum (b) minimum(c) zero (d) none of these

98. The front clearance angle is case of shaper whenthe tool is in the cutting position could be(a) 10 to 12° (b) 8 to 10°(c) 4 to 6° (d) 3 to 4°

99. Stroke of slotting machine ranges from(a) 100 to 200 mm(b) 200 to 300 mm(c) 300 to 1800 mm(d) 1800 to 30000 mm

100. In case of slotting machine, the cutting action takesin(a) upward stroke(b) forward stroke(c) downward stroke(d) backward stroke

101. The longitudinal and transverse power feeds in caseof slotting machine varies from(a) 2 to 4 mm /stroke(b) 0.05 to 2.5 mm / stroke(c) 1 to 2 mm/ stroke(d) 0.5 to 1.0 mm/ stroke

106. The length of approach in case of drilling operationis equal to(a) 0.8 D (b) 0.6 D(c) 0.29 D (d) 0.14 D

109. If speed of workpiece is increased, the grain depthof cut in case of grinding(a) decreases(b) increases

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(c) remain constant(d) first decrease and then increases

110. Temperature in fine grinding can be reduced by(a) decreasing wheel speed and increasing chip

thickness(b) decreasing wheel speed and chip thickness(c) increasing wheel speed and decreasing

chip Thickness(d) increasing wheel speed and chip thickness

111. The temperature in normal grinding can be reducedby(a) decreasing wheel speed(b) decreasing wheel speed and chip thickness(c) increasing wheel speed(d) increasing wheel speed and chip thickness

112. Electro-chemical forming machining works on theprinciple of(a) Faraday’s law of electrolysis(b) Joule’s law(c) Ohm’s law(d) Charle’s law

113. The flow of abrasive particles is controlled byamplitude of vibration of honing chamber (AJM)which is generally(a) 30 cps (b) 60 cps(c) 100 cps (d) 2000 cps

114. AJM is used where(a) materials are sensitive heat(b) thin sections of hard material(c) intricate holes which are difficult to produces

by other machining processes(d) all of these

115. Drilling of hole (0.025) in fuel injection nozzle canbe done by(a) ECF (b) ECG(c) ECM (d) EDM

116. Drilling holes with curved axis as well as machiningof non-symmetrical mterial section, trepanningrectan-gular holes is thin value sleeves in moreeffectively done by(a) EDM (b) ECM(c) EBM (d) LBM

117. In EDM, the current density in the discharge ofchannel is of the order of(a) 10 amp. per cm2(b) 100 amp. per cm2(c) 1000 amp per cm2(d) 10,000 amp per cm2

118. Mechanical driven presses range in capacity(a) 2-5T (b) 5-100T(c) 100-200T (d) 0.5-2T

119. Hydraulic driven presses use the hydraclic powerstored is an accumulator. The pressure in pipe linemay vary from(a) 800-300 kg/cm2(b) 25-75 kg/cm2(c) 10-25 kg/cm2(d) 300 — 700 kg/cm2

120. LASER beam machining process is used formachining(a) very thick material(b) thin material(c) heavy section(d) is not used for machining

121. Sintered and tungsten carbides can be machined by(a) brazing(b) grinding(c) diamond tools(d) Electro-machining process

122. Spark errosion machining method can be used forthe machining of(a) conducting materials-only(b) non-conducting materials only(c) semi-conductors only(d) any metal

123. Chemical milling operation is carried out on(a) grinder(b) milling machine(c) tank containing etching solution(d) surface table

124. Which of the following electrolyte is used in electrochemicals machining process ?(a) Brine solution (b) Keroscene(c) Transformered (d) Water

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125. For machining of tungsten carbide by ultrasonicmachining, which abrasive is used for maximummachining rate?(a) Silicon carbide (b) Boron carbide(c) Aluminium oxide (d) Glass

126. In electro-chemical milling operation, the gapbetween tool and work kept is of the order of(a) no gap, two are in contact with each other(b) 0.25 mm(c) 0.75 mm(d) 1.25 mm

127. In spark errosion machining process, gap betweentool and workpiece is filled with(a) photo etchant(b) brine solution(c) acid solution(d) liquid dielectric

128. In electro-discharge machining process, theworkpiece and the electrode are submerged in(a) dielectric fluid(b) abrasive slurry(c) electrolytic solution(d) vaccum

129. The cutting tool used in the spark errosion machiningprocess is called(a) arc (b) capacitor(c) electrode (d) dielectric

130. The machining process in which the metal of aworkpiece is dissolved, is(a) electro-discharge machining(b) ultra sonic machining(c) electro-chemical machining(d) chemical machining

131. The machining method which uses abrasive slurryis called(a) Electro-discharge machining(b) Laser machining(c) Plasma arc machining(d) Ultrasonic machining

132. A big advantage of ELM over EDM is that(a) it can cut harder material(b) it is more accurate and precise

(c) it consumes less power(d) tool wear is negligible

133. A hole ‘1 mm’ is to be drilled is glass. It could bestbe done by(a) laser drilling(b) plasma arc drilling(c) ultrasonic method(d) electro beam drilling

134. In ultrasonic drilling process, the tool is usually given(a) rotary motion(b) reciprocating motion(c) linear motion(d) both rotary and reciprocating motion

135. Ultrasonic machine finds application for(a) production of tapped holes and threads in

brittle materials(b) die casting(c) machining sintered carbides diamonds etc(d) all of these

136. In spark errosion machining process which is usedfor die sinking, the usual tool material is(a) high speed steel(b) brass(c) tungsten carbide(d) diamond

137. Spark errosion machining method can be used forthe machining of(a) conducting material only(b) non-conducting materials(c) semi-conducters only(d) both conducting and non-conducting materials

138. Metal in machining operation is removed by(a) tearing chips(b) distorsion of metal(c) shearing the metal across a zone(d) cutting the metal across a zone

139. In EDM process, if both the electrodes (one tooland the other workpiece) are made of the samematerial, then errosion of the metal(a) greatest at positive electrode (anode)(b) greatest at negative electrode (cathode)(c) same at both anode and cathode

74


(d) minimum at anode and cathode141. In ECG process, the metal is removed by

(a) abrasion of metal only(b) electro chemical decomposition only(c) 10% electro-chemical decomposition are

90% abrassion of the metal(d) 90% electro-chemical decomposition and

10% abrassion of the metal142. Reverse of electro-plating process is

(a) EDM (b) ECM(c) ECG (d) LBM

143. In ECG process(a) grinding pressure is low(b) pressure is lest but temperature is high(c) temperature is very low(d) both grinding pressure and temp are low

144. In chemical milling process, chemical etching reagentis used. The chemical reagent for aluminiumworkpiece is(a) Nitric acid (b) Sodium sulphate(c) Caustic soda (d) Sodium chloride

145. In chemical milling process, the chemical reagentfor steel workpiece is(a) Nitric acid (b) Sodium sulphate(c) Castic soda (d) Sodium chloride

146. In USM process, the cutting rate will be factor ifamplitude of vibration is(a) minimum (b) maximum(c) constant (d) none of these

147. In AJM process, inside diameter of the nozzlethrough which abrassive particle flow, is about(a) 10 mm (b) 5 mm(c) 1 mm (d) 0.04 mm

148. USM process is used for machining(a) hard metal (b) brittle metal(c) conduction (d) all of these

149. In electro-discharge machining, the tool is made of(a) castiron (b) copper(c) brass (c) all of these

150. In EDM process, in order to remove maximum metaland have minimum wear on the tool(a) tool is made cathode and workpiece as anode

(b) tool is made anode and workpiece as cathode(c) tool and workpiece should be of different

metals(d) none of these

1. Sheet metal cutting operations include operation for(a) producing blanks(b) cutting holes(c) progressive working like notching, lancing

etc.(d) all of these

2. In shearing process(a) no dies are required(b) shear cut is along a straight line(c) no scrap is produced(d) all of these

3. Cutting operations during which the punch does notcut on all the sides are called(a) slotting (b) blanking(c) notching (d) lancing

4. Semi-notching is(a) similar to notching(b) used to free the metal for drawing or forming(c) process in which metal is cut about a closed

contour(d) all of these

5. When a cut is made partway across the metal, theoperation is called(a) trimming (b) lancing(c) slotting (d) notching

6. Cutting off of the excess metal is called(a) trimming (b) lancing(c) slotting (d) none of these

7. Shaving of metals is done in order to remove(a) burr and improve accuracy(b) excess metal(c) scrap(d) all of these

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8. Sum of the burnish height and the vertical dish-shaped deformation is called(a) clearance (b) penetration(c) slitting (d) none of these

9. Clearance is(a) space between the punch cutting edge and

the die cutting edge.(b) more in thicker sheet metal(c) more in the softer sheet metal(d) all of these

10. For softer metals, the proper clearance is between(a) 6 and 10% of the sheet metal thickness(b) 8 and 12% of the sheet metal thickness(c) 10 and 18% of the sheet metal thickness(d) 20 and 30% of the sheet metal thickness

11. For harder metals, the amount of plasticdeformation is(a) less (b) more(c) moderate (d) uncertain

12. As the metal becomes softer, the angle of fracturing(a) increases(b) decreases(c) remains constant(d) none of these

13. Cold welding occurs(a) to a greater degree when cutting soft metals(b) between the punch and the hole in the sheet

metal(c) between the die and the slug cut out(d) all of these

14. Proper functioning of cutting die may beascertained by minimum of(a) plastic deformation of edge of sheet metal(b) burnish area on edges of sheet metal(c) burr height on edge of sheet metal(d) all of these

15. Inclinable or open back inclinable press(a) aid to remove parts or scrap by gravity(b) has more rigid base(c) has adjustable table(d) all of these

16. Vertical frame position is in

(a) straight sided (b) horning(c) open-end frame (d) all of these

17. The force that the press ram is able to exert iscalled(a) tonnage of the press(b) horning(c) stroke of the press(d) none of these

36. Jigs and fixtures may be done by(a) casting iron(b) fabricating from steel plates and machined

parts by welding(c) building up bolting sections and bolting parts

together.(d) all of these

37. The method used to manufacture jigs and fixturesdepends on(a) size of the equipment(b) shape of the equipment(c) time allowed to manufacture it(d) all of these

38. A body which is free in space has degrees offreedom(a) two (b) three(c) six (d) zero

39. A body which is free in space has freedom oftranslation.(a) two (b) three(c) six (d) zero

40. The choice of location system depends on the(a) operation being performed(b) workpiece before the operation(c) degree of freedom necessary(d) all of these

41. A redundant location is said to exist when twolocators are attempting to constrain(a) one freedom from two location points(b) two freedoms from one location point(c) two freedoms from two location points(d) one freedom from one location point

42. Locators are

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(a) usually made separate from the fixture or jigbody

(b) of direct or casehardened steel accuratelyground to size

(c) accurately positioned in jig or fixture body(d) all of these

43. Clamping(a) must be at thick sections of the workpiece to

avoid distortion due to clamping forces(b) must provide necessary support if the

workpiece is too thin to resist deformationby clamping forces

(c) screw must be strong enough not to becomedistorted under the clamping force.

(d) all of these44. Drill jigs are used to hold the workpiece when

(a) drilling and reaming(b) spotfacing and tapping(c) counterboring and countersinking(d) all of these

45. Head drill bushes are used when(a) the hole depth must be controlled(b) a hole is to be drilled in a face that is at

some distance from the drill plate(c) the workpiece is lightly clamped in the region

of cutting(d) all of these

46. A jig in which the workpiece is located from itsoutside in a bush and the drill bush is located on thepost, is(a) angular post jig (b) pot jig(c) latch jig (d) post jig

48. Angular post jig is made(a) from a block of steel(b) of welded construction(c) from the channel section(d) none of these

49. In milling fixtures, the cutting forces are(a) high(b) interrupted(c) tend to lift the workpiece(d) all of these

50. Setting block

(a) is located relative to the fixture locationsystem

(b) is retained in position by screw(c) has two hardened setting faces(d) all of these

51. To give maximum convenience for the operatorduring setting, the setting block is so positioned thatthe cutter is between vertical face of the block and(a) operator (b) spindle nose(c) fixture body (d) setting face

52. Two tenons(a) are made by hardened steel(b) should be as far as possible to produce

maximum accuracy(c) are located on the underside of the fixture

base(d) all of these

97. When punch diameter is equal to stock thickness,the unit compressive stress in punches rises asmultiple of shear stress of material equal to(a) 4 times (b) 2 times(c) 6 times (d) 10 times

98. The compressive stress is high for punch toolmaterials and hence the value of punch dia/ thicknessof stock ratio should not fall below(a) 1.00 (b) 1.5(c) 0.5 (d) 0.25

99. Generally die shoe is made of(a) C.I. (b) Bronze(c) Brass (d) Copper

100. Die shoe thickness varies in between(a) 5-10 mm (b) 25 — 75 mm(c) 75 — 125 mm (d) 10 — 15 mm

101. Upper part of the punch holder is provided with ashank(a) equal in diameter to the ram hole(b) half in diameter to the ram hole(c) double in diameter to the ram hole(d) one fourth in diameter to the ram hole

102. The die holder should be at least(a) 2.5 mm larger all round that the die element(b) 5 mm larger all round than the die

clearance

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(c) 5 mm large all round than punch element(d) 2.5 mm larger all round than the punch

clearance.103. In drawing operation, with the increase of die radius

(a) punch load increases(b) has no impact on punch load(c) has much influence and it decreases(d) none of these

105. Bending operation should be performed(a) parallel to the grain direction(b) at 30° to the grain direction(c) at 90° to the grain direction(d) there is no direction

106. Deep drawing operations are those in which(a) height equals or exceeds the diameter of

the ifnished part.(b) height equals or less than diameter of the

ifnished part(c) height is half the diameter of the finished

part(d) none of these

107. Under no circumstances, the die plate should bethinner than the(a) 0.25 mm (b) 8.5 to 9.5 mm(c) 4 mm — 5 mm (d) 20 mm to 30 mm

108. Most practical method for taking care of springback during bending is to(a) punching the inside corner of bend(b) try a sample make the necessary

adjustments and try again(c) use hollow can came punches(d) undercutting the punches so that material is

free to over bend109. In drawing operation, increase of punch radius

(a) does not influence the punch load much(b) has much influence on punch decrease(c) punch load increase(d) none of these

110. Bulging is the operation(a) of providing contours in sheet metal and of

bending previously rolled formed section(b) employed to expand a tubular or

cylindrical part

(c) in which edges of sheet are turned over toprovide stiffness and a smooth edge

(d) none of these111. In combination dies

(a) two or more cutting operations can beperformed simultaneously

(b) work piece moves from one station to otherwith separate operation performed at eachstation

(c) cutting and formation operations arecombined and carried out in singleoperation

(d) combination punch does not exist 112. The combination dies perform

(a) two or more dissimilar operation(b) two or more similar operations(c) only one operations(d) none of these

113. In design of tools and dies, often the weakest linkis(a) die (b) punch(c) fasteners (d) something else

114. In progressive dies for-(a) two or more cutting operations may be

performed simultaneously(b) cutting and formations are combined and

carried out in a single operation(c) workpiece moves from on station to other

with separate operation performed at eachstation

(d) something else115. In press operation, process of shearing gives rise to

a sheared edge that has characteristics of(a) corner radius(b) clean brushed radius(c) rough taper surface(d) all of these

116. Too small clearance in press operation require(a) excessive force to shear the material(b) less force to shear the material(c) only ductile materials can be punched(d) none of these

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117. There is a possibility of cracking of die block duringhardening process if(a) too little space is provided between holes

and edges of parts(b) too much space is provided between holes

and edges of parts(c) too much space on one side of hole and edges

of parts(d) all these

118. In each block or element that require accurate andpermanent positioning, if dowels are used, then(a) only two dowels be provided(b) only 4 dowels be provided(c) only one dowel be used(d) only 10 dowels be provided

119. The press capacity must be(a) higher than cutting force required to

punch the material(b) lesser than the cutting force required to punch

the material(c) equal to the cutting force required to punch

the material(d) none of these

120. In metal working, machines — Lathes, shapers etcare called(a) jigs (b) fixtures(c) machine tools (d) tooling up

121. The devices in which a component is held andlocated for a specific operation in such a way thatit will guide one or more cutting tools in the samezone of machining is called(a) jigs (b) fixtures(c) machine tools (d) templates

122. Devices designed for locating and holding cuttingtools are usually called(a) gauges (b) templates(c) fixtures (d) tool holders

123. The device which locates and hold the componentfor a specific operation but it does not guide thecutting tool is called(a) templates (b) Fixture(c) top holders (d) Machine tool

124. Jigs and fixtures make the machine tool automatic

(a) in full way (b) partly(c) not at all (d) either fully or partly

125. To take care of variation in dimensions in massmanufacture, the clearance between jig and fixtureshould be kept as(a) plenty (b) minimum(c) zero (d) something else

126. In small drill Jigs swarf clearance is kept as(a) zero (b) minimum(c) plenty (d) something else

127. The application of jigs and fixtures(a) widens the technological capacity of machine

tools(b) either fully or partly automates the machine

tools(c) increases the production and productivity(d) all these

147. Generally clamps are used to control(a) 3 freedoms(b) 6 freedoms(c) 9 freedoms(d) 12 freedoms

148. Locating points should be chosen as far as part aspossible an any work surface, is called the principleof(a) extreme positions(b) least point(c) mutually perpendicular planes(d) location of accurate work

149. Points more than necessary should not be used toscure location in any plane is called principle of(a) least point(b) extreme positions(c) mutually perpendicular planes(d) something else

150. A vee locator should easily be built up with the helpof(a) one dowel pin and two allen screws(b) two dowels pins and two alien screws(c) 4 dowel pins and two alien screws(d) 4 dowels pins and 4 allen screws

151. All types of pins support the work and loaded in

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(a) compression(b) tension(c) shear(d) bending

152. Round head rest buttons used for locating a(a) finish surface(b) rough surface(c) super finish surface(d) something else

153. Flat rest buttons or pads are used for locating(a) flat machined surfaces(b) cylindrical machined surfaces(c) grooved surface(d) something else

154. If diameter of the hole is subject to considerablevariation, then use(a) conical location(b) vee blow(c) pin(d) plain located pin

155. When reamed or finally finished small holes areavailable for positioning purposes, use(a) vee blocks(b) pin(c) conical locators(d) plain locating pin

156. A component incorporating a circular or semicircularprofile may be located by means of a(a) vee block(b) pin(c) conical Locators(d) plain locating pin

157. V-blocks usually have an angle of(a) 45° (b) 90°(c) 115° (d) 60°

158. All sheets and angles used in wagon manufacturingare clamped to the frames by(a) wedges(b) clamp(c) hinged clamps(d) tuggle clamp

159. To hold sheet metal arts in position while they arebeing welded or otherwise fastened use(a) tuggle clamps(b) clamps(c) wedges(d) hinged clamps

160. Total throw of a cam is about(a) 140° (b) 180°(c) 90° (d) 110°

161. For drilling holes in long strip use(a) plate jigs(b) channel jig(c) leaf jig(d) box and tumbling jig

162. To drill a series of holes in a circular on the faceof a work piece, use(a) Index jigs(b) Leaf jig(c) Lot type jigs(d) Box and tumble jig

1. The ease with which observations can be madeaccurately is called(a) readability (b) sensitivity(c) accuracy (d) presision

2. Accuracy of measuring equipment is(a) the closeness with which a measurement can

be read directly from a measuring instrument(b) measure of low close the reading is to the

true size(c) the difference between measured value and

actual value(d) the small change in measure and that can be

measured.3. Which of the following errors are generally

distributed in accordance with the gaussiandistribution?(a) Controllable errors(b) Calibration errors

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(c) Avoidable errors(d) Random errors

4. Tolerance are specified(a) to obtain derived fit(b) became it is not possible to manufacture a

size exactly(c) to obtain high accuracy(d) to have proper inspection

5. Which of the following is the most importantcharacteristics of a measuring instrument in general?(a) Precision (b) Accuracy(c) Repeatability (d) Sensitivity

6. Sensitivity and range of measuring instrument have(a) direct relation ship(b) linear relationship(c) inverse relationship(d) no relationship

7. Systematic errors are(a) randomly distribution(b) regularly repetitive in nature(c) distributed on both the and ve sides of mean

value(d) unknown errors

8. Precision of measuring equipment is(a) closeness with which a measurement can

be read directly from a measuringinstrument

(b) measure of close the reading is to the truesize

(c) difference between measured value and actualvalue

(d) smallest change in material9. The maximum amount by which the result differ

from the true value is called(a) correction (b) descrepancy(c) accuracy (d) error

10. Which of the following can be used to scribe linesparallel to the edge of a part ?(a) Vernier calliper(b) Screw gauge(c) Divider(d) Hermaphrodite calliper

11. Which of the following can’t fall under the head-controllable errors ?(a) Caliberation(b) Environmental errors(c) Avoidable errors(d) Random errors

12. Which of the following errors are regularly repetitivein nature ?(a) Systematic errors(b) Random errors(c) Illegitimate error(d) Controllable error

13. Which of the following errors are inevitable in themeasuring system and it would be vainful exerciseto avoid them ?(a) Systematic errors(b) Random errors(c) Caliberation errors(d) Environmental errors

14. Which of the following instrument is most accurate?(a) Vertical calliper(b) Manometric screw gauge(c) Optical projector(d) Mechanical comparator

30. Taper internal dovetail can be measured with thehelp of(a) sine bar(b) combination set(c) balls of standard dimension and slip gauge(d) dial gauge

31. External taper can be accurately measured withthe help of(a) sin bar and slip gauge(b) dividing end(c) precision ball and height gauge(d) combination net

32. Stick micrometer are designed for measuring(a) bore of cylinder(b) longer external length(c) cylindering(d) longer internal length

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33. Differential screw micrometer is used(a) to give direct indication of difference between

reading(b) to measure gap between grooves(c) for digital layout(d) to very high degree of accuracy

34. A sine bar ;s specified by(a) its total length(b) centre distance between the two roller(c) size of the roller(d) weight of sine bar

35. The dia of very large bore can be measured by(a) flexible graduated tape(b) cylindrical gauge(c) flexi part gauge(d) swinging a pin gauge in the bore

36. The number of slip gauge in a set are(a) 87 (b) 45(c) 103 (d) 31(e) All of theses

37. Profile of gear tooth can be checked by(a) sine bar (b) bench micrometer(c) optical pyrometer (d) optical projector

38. Gear tooth calliper is used to find the chordalthickness of which of the following type ?(a) Spur gear (b) Helical gear(c) Worm gear (d) Sevel gear

39. The M and E system in metrology are related withmeasurement of(a) gears (b) screw threads(c) flatness (d) thread gauge

40. Advantage of vernier calliper over micrometer isthat it(a) is easier and quicker to use(b) is more accurate(c) can be used to make both inside and

outside measurement over a range of size(d) all of these

41. Standards to be used for reference purposes inlaboratories and workshops are called(a) primary standard(b) secondary standard

(c) tertiary standards(d) working standard

42. The combinaticn set C211 be used to(a) check angular surfaces(b) draws circle and arcs(c) scribe line(d) all of these

43. All the thread characteristics can be measuredprecisely with(a) screw pitch gauge(b) micrometer with anvil(c) tool room microscope(d) thread gauge

44. The term traceability in engineering metrology isconcerned with(a) measuring machine(b) optical instruments(c) pneaumatic comparator(d) standards

45. The advantage of wavelength standard is that itwould be possible to repeat measurements to a veryhigh degree of accuracy. The wavelength standardcan be reproduced to an accuracy of about onepart is(a) 1000 (b) 105(c) 107 (d) 109

46. The basic unit in angular measurement is(a) degree (b) minute(c) second (d) right angle

47. Optical gauge works on the principle of(a) refraction(b) reflection(c) dispersion(d) interference of light rays

48. Millimeter scale in a micrometer is marked on(a) barrel (b) thimble(c) spindle (d) anvil

49. Circular scale of the micrometer is marked on(a) anvil (b) barrel(c) ratchet (d) thimble

50. Which of the following type of gauge has gaugingsection combined on one end ?

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(a) Combination gauge(b) Limit gauge(c) GO and NOT GO gauge(d) Progressive gauge

51. The vernier reading should not be taken at its facebefore an actual check has been taken for(a) zero error(b) its caliberation(c) flatness of measuring(d) temperature equilisation

52. Which comparator utilises the principle of a bultonspinning on a loop of string ?(a) Sigma comparator(b) Aramson comparator(c) Optical comparator(d) Zeiss interferrometer

53. Gear teeth vernier is used to measure(a) circular pitch (b) depth of tooth(c) tooth thickness (d) pith line thickness

54. Error of measuring equipment is(a) closeness with which a measurement can be

read directly from a measuring instrument(b) measure of how close the reading is to the

true size(c) difference between measured value and

actual value(d) smallest change in measured that can be

measured55. Fiducial indicators contain

(a) caliberated scale(b) single index mark(c) micrometer screw movement(d) optical head

56. Random errors follows which of the followingdistribution(a) Gaussian (b) Hyperbolic(c) Parabolic (d) t-student(e) B-distribution

57. Which one of the following is the least accuratemeasuring device ?(a) Air gauge(b) Micrometer screw gauge

(c) Steel scale(d) Vernier micrometer

58. A comparator for its working depends on(a) accurately caliberated scale(b) compansion with standard such as slib

gauge(c) accurate micrometer(d) optical head

59. Precision is(a) repeatability of a measuring process(b) agreement of the result of a measurement with

the true value of measured quantity(c) the ability of measuring device to detect small

difference in a quanity being measured(d) error of judgement in reading unobservation

60. The thickness of oil film at the surface of slip gaugesis of the order of(a) 0.005 micron (b) 0.1 micron(c) 1 micron (d) 10 micron

61. In case of high pricesion surface plates of diameterupto 200 mm, the working surface should lie betweentwo parallel planes, whose maximum distance apartis(a) 0.005 mm (b) 0.0005 mm(c) 0.05 mm (d) 0.5 mm

63. Which of the following is not the accessory of slipgauge ?(a) Scribing and centre points(b) Measuring jaws(c) Holder(d) Calliper

64. The lateral faces of slip gauge are at right anglescorrect to within(a) ± 1 degree(b) ± 30 degree(c) ± 10 minute(d) ± 1 minute

65. Projector gauge blocks in slip gauge are(a) use as reference block(b) mounted in the centre of pile(c) never touched(d) wrung the end of combination

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66. According to accuracy, slip gauge are classifiedunder which of the following number of accuracyclasses ?(a) two (b) three(c) five (d) seven

67. Projector slip gauge is provided to(a) protect slip gauges when not in use(b) take up all wear when in use(c) clean the slip gauge(d) facilitate wringing of slip gauge

69. The two slip gauges in precision measurement arejoined by(a) assembling (b) sliding(c) adhesion (d) wringing

70. Plug gauge are used to(a) measure the diameter of the workpiece(b) measure the diameter of the holes in the

workpiece(c) check diameter of the hole in theworkpiece(d) check the length of the holes in the workpiece

71. Pickout the wrong statement about Taylor’s principleof gauging(a) Go gauge should be full form gauge(b) Go gauge should check all the related

dimension simultaneously(c) It is sufficient to use GO gauge on the

width and length of the component(d) NOT GO gauges should check only one

dimension at a time72. The term “Allowance” in limits and fits are usually

referred to as(a) minimum clearance between shaft and

hole(b) maximum clearance between shaft and hole(c) difference of tolerance of hole and shaft(d) difference between maximum size and

minimum size of the hole73. Drilled holes and honed holes could be designated

by which of thefollowing grades ?(a) H5, Hi, (b) H6, H10(d) 118, H6 (d) H10, 115

76. New all system of limits and fits is the oldest systemworking on hole basis system. The grades of holesand shaft specified respectively are(a) 2, 6 (b) 1, 8(c) 4, 12 (d) 6, 20

77. Sensitivity of measuring equipment is(a) the closeness with which a measurement can

be read directly from a measuring instrument(b) a measure of low close the reading is to the

size(c) the difference between measured value and

at actual value(d) the smallest change is measured can be

measured78. Expressing a dimension as 25.31 ‘Dm mm is the

case of(a) unilateral tolerance(b) bilateral tolerance(c) limiting dimesnions(d) all of these

79. ISA tolerance system consist of following numbersof qualities of tolerance, and grades of fitrespectively(a) 6, 15 (b) 8, 20(c) 12, 21 (d) 16, 21

80. Surface roughness is represented by(a) triangles (b) circles(c) squares (d) rectangles

82. A bore of 14.67 mm in a workpiece can be measuredby(a) steel rule (b) vernier calliper(c) pneumatic gauge (d) micrometer

83. The diamenter of finish turned shaft can best bechecked with a(a) combination set(b) slip gauge(c) height gauge(d) micrometer screw gauge

84. Accurate centring of work mounted in anindependent check can be determined by using(a) centre gauge (b) height gauge(c) dial indicator (d) surface gauge

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85. In limits and fits system, basic shaft system is onewhose(a) lower deviation is zero(b) upper deviation is zero(c) minimum clearance is zero(d) maximum clearance is zero

86. Which of the following is not the angle measuringdevice(a) Angle plate (b) Sine bar(c) Bevel protector (d) Angle gauge

87. To check the diameter of a twist drill with amicrometer, the measurement must be taken(a) margin of the drill(b) flutes of drill(c) cutting edge of the drill(d) lips of the drill

88. Expressing a dimension as 18.312 mm in the caseof(a) unilateral tolerance(b) bilateral tolerance(c) limiting dimension(d) all of these

89. Many external comparators have anvils or worktables which are grooved. The purpose of this is to(a) facilitate supporting of work(b) provide three points support to the work(c) not to pass on in accuracy of surface to the

measurement(d) avoid sticking of standards on the table

90. Straight edges are used to measure(a) straight length of parts(b) flatness(e) parallelism(d) perpendicularity

91. IS : 919 on limits and fits, specifies following numbersof grades of fundamental tolerance and fundamentaldeviation respectively(a) 25, 18 (b) 25, 16(c) 18, 22 (d) 18, 25

108. Polygon in metrology are concerned with(a) method of circular dividing(b) testing of parallelism

(c) testing of circularity(d) interferrometry measurement

109. Bevel protector are used for(a) angular measurement(b) linear measurement(c) height measurement(d) flatness measurement

110. Clinometer is related with(a) Engineer’s parallels(b) angle gauge(c) sprit level(d) bevel protector

111. A comparator(a) needs to be caliberated(b) need not be caliberated(c) contains a caliberated(d) a best suited for measurement of absolutedimension

112. Auto collimator is used for(a) parallelism measurement(b) straightness measurement(c) flatness measurement(d) angular measurement

113. The long straight edge are supported at two pointsfor minimum deflection at centre. The distancebetween support compared to the length:— ofstraight edge should be(a) 0.5 (b) 0.554(c) 0.577 (d) 0.6

114. Filar microscope(a) have no reticles(b) have fixed reticles(c) have moving reticles(d) can be moved relative to work by means of

f i ne pitch lead screw116. Angle dekkor is another types of

(a) auto collimator(b) optical square(c) clinometer(d) angle gauge

117. Wickman gauge of used for inspection of(a) holes (b) shafts

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(c) gears (d) screw thread118. The reflector combined with autocollimator can be

used for checking(a) alignment (b) parallelism(c) circularity (d) surface finish

119. The more sensitive instrument(a) has fast oscillation(b) oscillates more slowly(c) has no oscillation(d) is never stable

120. Which of the following methods is not concernedwith surface finish measurement ?(a) Spectro photometry method(b) Ultrasonic method(c) Field emission method(d) Talysurf principle

121. A sprit level is required to have 2 mm of bubblemovement of 2" inclination. The radius of tube shouldbe around(a) 2 m (b) 20 mm(c) 80 m (d) 120 m

122. The only natural material producing a spectral line(6440° A red) almost completely symmetrical is(a) Cadmium (b) Mercury(c) Krypton (d) Helium

123. Universal surface gauge is used for(a) checking straightness(b) checking flatness(c) checking parallelism(d) layout work and inspection

124. Tomilson recorder is associated with measurementof(a) surface flows(b) surface perpendicularity(c) surface finish(d) surface curvature

125. Some substance generate voltage when they aresubjected to mechanical forces or stresses alongspecific \plane. Such substance are known as(a) thermo-electric (b) magneto-electric(c) piezo-electric (d) photo-electric

126. A three-lobed part is checked on 60° V-block wouldprovide which of the following magnification of theradial out-of-round characteristic ?

(a) 1 time (b) 2 times(c) 3 times (d) 4 times

127. A five-lobed part if gauged in the 60° V-block wouldproduce which of the following magnification of theradial out-of-round characteristic ?(a) zero time (b) 1 time(c) 3 times (d) 5 times

129. A master gauge is(a) a screw gauge(b) an international reference standard(c) a gauge used by experienced techniques(d) a standard gauge for checking accuracy

of gauges used on shop floors130. Moire fringes are observed when

(a) an optical flat is placed over smooth surface(b) a microscope is used to observe surface

texture(c) index grating is moved over scale grating(d) white light is diffused through a prism.

131. Inside and outside diameters of a thin tube areto be measured. Only one of the following tools isto be selected. Which one would you choose ?(a) Inside calliper (b) Outside calliper(c) Trummel (d) Vernier calliper

132. Electronic level contain(a) pendulum (b) sprit level(c) micrometer (d) clinometers

133. If the correctness of profile of a thread is to bechecked which instrument would you choose ?(a) Bench micrometer(b) Screw pitch gauge(c) 18.3102 Optical projector(d) Telescopic gauge

134. Grating are used in connection with(a) flatness measurement(b) roundness measurement(c) surface texture measurement(d) linear displacement measurement

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135. The method of fractional coincidence ininterferrometry techniques is used for(a) measurement of end gauge(b) flatness of surface(c) linear displacement measurement(d) surface roughness measurement

136. An optical gauge works on the principle of(a) reflection of light rays(b) polarisation(c) interference of light rays(d) refraction of light rays

137. Involute function of a gear is defined as(a) (cosa — a) radian(b) (sina — a) radian(c) (tana — a) radian(d) (cota — a) radian

138. Addendum of gear is equal to(a) pitch p (b) 0.3 p(c) 0.6866 p (d) 0.3183 p

139. Optical flats are used in conjuction with(a) angular measurement(b) surface flats(c) surface parallelism(d) interferrometric measurement

140. The normal chordal tooth thickness of a gear is theshortest distance from the(a) tooth crest to the point of the chord(b) tooth crest to the mid point of the chord(c) midpoint of constant chord to the tip of the

tooth(d) from the tooth crest to any point on the chord

141. The NPL gauge interferrometer is designed andused for(a) absolute measurement of length of slip

gauge(b) judging flatness of surface(c) comparing height with standard reference(d) parallelism of two ends of slip gauge

142. A 20 mm diameter international metric thread withhave a pitch of(a) 1 mm (b) 1.25 mm(c) 2.5 mm (d) 2.0 mm

143. Wear allowance is provided on(a) GO gauge(b) NOT GO gauge(c) both GO and NOT GO gauge(d) when both are combined to one gauge

144. Accuracy of setting a sine bars(a) poor for smaller angles(b) is maximum when angle of measurement is

45°(c) decrease appreciably with steep angle(d) is function of size of roller of sine bar

145. Inspection by attributes(a) good quantities are separated from bad(b) variation due to assignable factors are

determined(c) theory of probability is applicable(d) variation due chance factors are determined

146. A scale in which the distance between graduationis proportional to the value that graduation is called(a) equidistant scale(b) regular scale(c) linear scale(d) non-linear scale

148. Profilometer is an instrument used to measure(a) gear involve (b) thread profile(c) taper (d) surface roughness

1. Injection mould is the ideal method of processing(a) plastics(b) thermo-setting plastic(c) thermo plastics(d) non-ferrous materials

2. Compression moulding is the ideal method ofprocessing(a) plastics(b) thermo-setting plastic(c) thermo plastics(d) non-ferrous materials

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3. Which of the following is not generally employedfor shaping of thermoplastic materials ?(a) Injection moulding(b) compression moulding(c) Blow moulding(d) Extrusion

4. Which of the following commonly used items arenot produced using thermo setting plastics ?(a) Household buckets(b) Electric switches used in domestic wiring(c) Dining table tops(d) Both (b) and (c)

5. The process of growing large molecules from smallmolecules is called(a) polymerization (b) polymorphism(c) hystresis (d) allotropy

6. The small molecules, which combine end-to-end tofrom a large molecule, is called(a) polymers (b) manomer(c) ceramic (d) stellite

7. The small molecules combine end-to-end to form alarge molecule. The large molecule is called(a) polymer (b) manomer(c) ceramic (d) stellite

8. Which of the following are exmaples of polymers?(a) Starch (b) Nylon(c) Resin (d) All of these

9. The polymetric materials composed of carboncompounds are called(a) organic materials(b) ceramic materials(c) ferrous materials(d) non-ferrous materials

10. All composite materials are(a) isotropic (b) orthotropic(c) anisotropic (d) rhombohedral

11. An elastomer is a polymer whose percentageelongation should be(a) more then 200 % (b) more than 100 %(c) less than 50 % (d) more than 50 %

12. GFRP means glass fibre(a) reinforced polymers (b) ribbon polymers

(c) reinforced plastics (d) ribbon plastics13. The individual components in composite materials

(a) do not retain their characteristics(b) retain their characteristics(c) may or may not retain their characteristics(d) have no effect on the composite

characteristics14. Plastics (P), Steel (S), cast iron (C), Aluminium

(A).The order of use of these material for householdgoods is(a) C>S>A>P (b) P>C>S>A(c) S>A>P>C (d) A>P>C>S

15. Polymers can(a) be vapourised and recycled(b) not be vapourised and recycled(c) be vapourised but cannot be recycled(d) neither be vapourised but can be recycled

16. Plastics are(a) bad conductor of heat and electricity(b) good conductor of 1, at and electricity(c) good conductor of heat and bad conductor of

electricity(d) bad conductor of heat good conductor of

electricity17. Thermosetting plastics are material which

(a) becomes soft on application of heat and canbe moulded again

(b) do not become hard with the application ofheat and pressure and no chemical changeoccurs

(c) permanently set with heat and pressureand can not deformed when againsubjected to heat

(d) produced on synthesis basic18. Thermoplastic materials are those which

(a) becomes soft an application are those which(b) do not become hard with the application

of heat and pressure and no chemical changeoccurs

(c) permanently set with heat and pressure andcan not deformed when again subject to heat

(d) produced on synthesis basic19. Thermosetting materials are produced by

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(a) cast moulding process(b) injection moulding process(c) extrusion process(d) none of these .

20. Thermoplastic materials cannot be produced by(a) Injection moulding process(b) extrusion process(c) blow moulding process(d) both (a) and (b)

21. Thermoplastic materials can be produced by(a) blow moulding(b) ‘cast moulding(c) compression moulding(d) calendering

22. Difference between thermoplastic and thermosettingmaterials is of(a) mechanical behaviour(b) thermal behaviour(c) glass transition temperature(d) none of these

23. Other than elasticity and rubber like material, theimportant property of polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is(a) odourless (b) colourability(c) non-flammable (d) impervious to water

24. Filler is used in plastics to(a) fill up completely the voids created during

manufacturing(b) improve colour, strength and toughness(c) provide colour, strength, impact and

resistance and reduce cost(d) accelerate the condensation and

polymerisation25. The moulding process employed for thermoplastic

material is(a) injection and extrusion methods(b) compression and transfer moulding(c) similar to thermosetting plastic except that

higher temperature is used(d) similar to thermosetting plastics except that

a lower temperature is used26. The main disadvantage of thermosetting and

thermoplastic plastics is that

(a) they deform under heat and pressure(b) they are resistant to water upto 100°C only(c) they do not possess a high mechanical

strength(d) their shape cannot be changed without

application of heat27. Polyesters belong to the group of

(a) thermoplastic plastics(b) thermo-setting plastics(c) phenolics(d) PVC

28. The dominant property of cellulosics, a form ofthermoplastic is(a) ease of working and toughness(b) corrosion resistance and mechanical strength(c) high heat and wear resistance and fine grain

structure(d) good colour, good surface finish, texture and

light transmissibility28. Poly merisation is associated with

(a) cast Iron(b) aluminium(c) thermosetting plastic(d) thermoplastics

30. Synthetic resins is /are(a) polyethylenes(b) polystyrene(c) acrylic resins(d) all of these

1. Computer-aided design can be defined as the useof computer systems to(a) assist in creation of design(b) modification of a design(c) analysis of a design(d) all of these

2. The evaluation in the general design process requires(a) optimisation of the design(b) fabrication and testing of a prototype

model to access

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(c) material specification(d) none of these

3. General design process of CAD does not consist ofusing phase(a) implementation (maintenance)(b) synthesis(c) presentation(d) optimization

4. Volume of work produced in FMS environment isdetermined from(a) number of machine used in the FMS(b) kind of material handling equipment used in

FMS(c) kind of layout used in FMS(d) all of these

5. The advantage of implementing CAD is to(a) increase quality of design(b) expertize in the area of data base

manufacturing management(c) increase productivity(d) improve communication

6. Which one of the following items, best describesthe CAM technology ?(a) Numerical control(b) Documentation(c) Drafting(d) Geometric modelling

7. CAD/CAM is nothing but the relationship between(a) marketing and design(b) manufacturing and marketing(c) engineering and marketing(d) engineering and manufacturing

8. What key hardware items ties a CAD/CAM systemtogether ?(a) Keyboard(b) Graphic work station(c) Digitizer(d) Plotter

9. Robots consist of three basic components : Powersupply, control (memory) console and(a) Micro computer(b) Coaxial cable

(c) Mechanical unit (arm)(d) Software

10. In CAD process more than one phase of designare closed related and highly interactive. Thesephases are(a) recognition and evaluation(b) analysis and presentation(c) synthesis and analysis(d) definition and presentation

31. A NC machine tool system has replaced(a) hand action of the operator(b) brain of the operation(c) hand and Brain of the operator(d) none of these

32. The NC system in a NC machine tool has to performmany tasks such as(a) to read and decode the tapes information(b) to read, decode and pass on the information

to control tools(c) to read, decode and control the machine

tool actions towards completion of the job(d) none of these

33. While producing a few parts with an accuracy of0.01 mm, it would be preferable to select(a) a automatic machine tool(b) numerical controlled machine tool(c) transfer machine(d) none of these

34. NC machine is economical to use especially whenone has to manufacture(a) small quantity of parts products(b) new product(c) large variety with small number of

products/parts(d) none of these

35. In point-to-point NC machine tool system themovement of tool to the next point(a) is of most significance(b) is of no significance(c) next position of the work is achieved by

moving the job(d) both (a) and (c)

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36. In a closed loop control NC machine, tool systemis the design of control loop that decides(a) position error, accuracy and repeatability(b) cost of the machine tool, cost of maintenance

and cost of operation(c) programming of a part, load and torque, cost

of machining(d) none of these

37. In point-to-point NC system, it is not the entiremovement of the job that is controlled, but controlis made only on(a) final position of the job movement(b) final position of the tool movement(c) movement of the job and tool both(d) none of these

38. The use of NC machine tools in manufacturing isa major step towards automation so as to(a) reduce the machine time(b) reduced cost per piece(c) increase quality of work(d) all of these

39. In CNC systems editing is easier as compared tothat of NC system because in the former(a) the part programme is stored in computer

accuracy(b) the part programme can be easily checked

and corrected in the former(c) data tape in case of NC system cannot be

reused, whereas disc in CNC system can bereused

(d) all of these40. The use of NC system in manufacturing has

enhanced productivity by way of automation suchthat it has(a) reduced the infallibility of the operator(b) relieved the operator from constant

supervision(c) inhanced quantity and accuracy of the work(d) all of these

41. Numerical control system are same as directnumerical control systems but they differ from oneon another only to the extent that

(a) tape is used as storage device for partprogramme in the former whereas computeris used in the later

(b) the former does not allow integration ofvarious machining processes, whereas thelater allows to do so

(c) the former is altogether a hardware system,whereas the later is a software system

(d) all of these42. Computer numerical control and direct numerical

control system are characterised with very smalldifference such as(a) size of computer in DNC system is much

smaller than that of CNC system(b) size of computer used in CNC system is

restricted by cost consideration which is nottrue in case of DNC

(c) DNC system operates in a time share madewhereas CNC system operates on dedicatedon line system mode

(d) all of these

1. Product engineering is concerned with(a) initiation of the need for the product(b) product design, development and

manufacturing(c) product’s use and final disposal(d) all of these

2. Choice of manufacturing technology is based on(a) unit cost of production(b) quantity and uniformity of product(c) quantity of manufacturing envisaged(d) all of these

3. For an envisaged design item, a lather is able toproduce 10 units per hour and if a semi-automat isused one could produce 50 units per hour. The costanalysis has indicated that the total cost of prducingN units in the lathe and Automat are as CL = 40+ 1.5 N and CA = 320 + 0.5 N repectively. If the

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demand is 200 units, then choice of the process willbe(a) Lathe(b) Semi-automat

4. Womb to tomb is(a) life cycle of a proeduct(b) choice of manufacturing process(c) aspect of product design(d) none of these

5. A continuous products of the same design on a lineof machines arranged according to therequiredsequence of operations, in known as(a) flow production(b) mass production(c) line production(d) continuous production(e) all of these

6. Life cycle cost includes cost involved in(a) manufacturing (b) disposal(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

7. “A process of formulating and applying rules fororderly approach to a specific activity for the benefitand with the cooperation of all concerned and inparticular for the promotion of overall economy,taking due account of functional conditions andsafety requirement” is(a) standardisation (b) simplification(c) specialisation (d) diversification

8. Simplification is a process of(a) application of preferred numbers(b) variety reduction(c) product development(d) none of these

9. A product is having a lengthy active life under thegiven working conditions, then we say that it is(a) not durable (b) less durable(c) more durable (d) none of these

10. Standardisation helps in(a) making longer production runs possible(b) The process of application of interchangea-

bility of parts(c) The process of variety production

(d) none of these11. Which of the following statements is wrong?

(a) It is not necessary that every product has topass through every stage of the life cycle.

(b) Standardisation helps in making longerproduction runs possible.

(c) Life cycle cost is the sum total costs ofoperation and maintenance of the productthroughout its active life.

(d) The outcome of standardisation issimplification; and the easiest step to take instandradisation is to use the technique knownas simplification.

12. In industries, the modifications from the functionaldesign to production design are made(a) improve the production capacity of the

product(b) make it easy to manufature(c) tighten the tolerance limits(d) improve the sales.

13. Product Life Cycle refers to(a) all the stages from its acquiring, operation,

maintenance, use and final dosposal(b) all the stages from the initiation of an idea

until it has become a reality(c) from initiation of the idea and goes

through all the stages of design,production, use and final disposal

(d) from intial picking up of sales, rapid increase,then becoming steady with marginal increaseand final fall due to superceeding of improvedproduct in the market.

16. A rupee received one year, hence is not theequivalent of a rupee received today, because theuse of money has a value; this is the principle under(a) pay-back method(b) average return on investment method(c) present value method(d) discounted cash flow method

17. The equal payments series sinking fund factor fora given number of years (n) is used to calculate

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(a) equal payments to be made at the end ofeach year when compound amount aftern years is given

(b) compound amount after n years whenpayments to be made each year are given

(c) present net work when payments to be madeeach year are given

(d) none of these18. All financial decisions on any project appraisal are

based on the(a) future value of money(b) present value of money(c) opportunity cost of money(d) anyone of these

19. The capital and running costs of similar machineshaving unequal service life can be compared by(a) present net work method(b) rate of return method(c) equivalent annual cost method(d) capitalised cost method

22. Capitalised cost comparison method is used forcomparing alternatives having(a) high initial cost(b) high maintenance cost(c) high service life(d) high running cost

23. Internal rate of return is that discount rate whichmakes the value of net present value equal to(a) zero(b) 1(c) some +ve value(d) some —ve value

24. For a project to be feasible, internal rate of returnshould be greater than(a) zero(b) 1(c) rate of interest for loan(d) expenses

25. Depreciation of machines is categorised under thehead(a) direct expenses(b) indirect expenses(c) receipts

(d) administrative expenses26. Depreciation of machines, according to income tax

regulations is calculated on the basis of(a) straight line method(b) sinking fund method(c) rate of return method(d) declining balance method

27. Cash discounts are reduction in the price’of goods(a) sold on credit(b) which depends on assurance of payment(c) which depends on prompt cash payment(d) obtainable on bad debt loans

28. In a capital intensive production system, thedominant position is occupied by(a) replacement policy(b) labour policy(c) capital investment policy(d) material procurement policy

29. Salvaging means(a) writing off the assets(b) adjusting losses against assets(c) mortgaging property(d) disposing off perperty which is no longerc

useful in present situation30. The most flexible criteria for analysing an economic

investment is(a) present value method(b) future value method(c) salvage value(d) rate of return criteria

31. A company spends considerable amount on publicityto promote sales. This expenditure in break evenchart is shown below the(a) fixed cost line(b) variable cost line(c) total cost line(d) sales revenue line

32. Break even point is the point where(a) fixed and variable cost lines intersect(b) fixed and total cost lines intersect(c) variable and total cost lines intersect

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(d) sales revenue and toal expenditure linesintersect

33. Direct expenses include(a) factory expenses(b) selling expenses(c) administrative expenses(d) none of these

34. Indirect expenses include(a) factory expenses(b) selling expenses(c) administrative expenses(d) all of these

35. The diminishing balance method of providing fordepreciation is one according to which(a) the rate percent at which depreciation is

written off goes on declining from year toyear

(b) the amount of depreciation and theamount of which depreciation charged isreduced from year to year

(c) the rate percent and also the amount arereduced from year to year

(d) none of these36. Choose the wrong statement

(a) Break even analysis consists of fixed andvariable costs

(b) Break-even analysis represents relationshipbetween cost and volume

(c) At the break-even point, total cost is equal tosales revenue

(d) If variable cost is less than fixed cost, thenbreak-even analysis shows profit

37. Product cost implies(a) primary costs(b) primary cost + factory overheads(c) factory expenses(d) primary cost + factory expenses

38. If fixed expenses of a company are Rs. 138,00,000,variable expenses are Rs 270,00,000, total salesvolume is Rs 500,00,000. Break even sales volumewould be(a) Rs 330,00,000(b) Rs 300,00,000

(c) Rs 30,00,000(d) Rs 3,00,000

39. Initial cost for machine A is Rs 1.5 lakh and theunit production cost on the machine is Rs 75 each.For another machine B, the initial cost is Rs 6 lakh,and the unit production cost on this machine is Rs15 only. The volume of production at the breakeven point is(a) 6000 units(b) 9000 units(c) 7500 units(d) 10500 units

40. A manufacturer produces 15000 consumer productwhich are sold at Rs. 300/- each. At this volume,fixed costs were Rs. 15.2 lakhs and variable costswere Rs. 21 lakhs. What is the break-even quantity?(a) 4000(b) 7800(c) 8400(d) 9500

42. The indirect cost of a plant is Rs 4,00,000 per year.The direct cost is Rs. 20 per product. If the averagerevenue per product is Rs. 60, the break-even pointis

(a) 10000 products(b) 20000 products(c) 40000 products(d) 60000 products

43. The initial cast of an equipment is Rs. 20,000. Itslife is estimated as 10 years. What is rate ofdepreciation by straight line depreciation method,when scrap value after its life becomes zero ?(a) 1000(b) 2000(c) 3000(d) 4000

44. An automatic screw cutting machine has beenpurchased for Rs. 60000. Its scrap value at the endof 10 years is estimated as Rs. 12000. Fixed percent depreciation is (by sinking fund method)(a) 13.9%(b) 14.9%(c) 15.9%

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(d) 14%45. The initial cost of an equipment is Rs. 11,000 an

estimated solvage value Rs. 1000 and the estimatedlife of 10 years. The rate of interest, 6%. What isbook value after two years ?(a) Rs 8438(b) Rs. 9438(c) Rs. 9538(d) Rs 8458

46. A bench drilling machine has been purchased forRs 7000. Its estimated life is assumed as 5 years.What is depreciation at the end of 2nd year bysum of year’s digits method ?(a) Rs 2000(b) Rs 1600(c) Rs 1200(d) Rs 800

1. Net force on a control volume due to uniform normalpressure alone(a) depends upon the shape of the control volume(b) translation and rotation(c) translation and deformation(d) deformation only

3. One kilomole of an ideal gas is throttled from aninitial pressure of 0.5 MPa to 0.1 MPa. The initialtemperature is 300 K. The entropy change of theuniverse is(a) 13.38 kJ/K(b) 401.3 kJ/K(c) 0.0446 kJ/K(d) —0.0446 kJ/K

4. A heat reservoir at 900 K is brought into contactwith the ambient at 300 K for a short time. Duringthis period 9000 kJ of heat is lost by the heatreservoir. The total loss in availability due to thisprocess is(a) 18000 kJ(b) 9000 kJ

(c) 6000 kJ(d) None of these

5. The specific heats of an ideal gas depend on its(a) temperature(b) pressure(c) volume(d) molecular weight and structure

7. For two cycles coupled in series, the topping cyclehas an efficiency of 30% and the bottoming cyclehas an efficiency of 20%. The overall combinedcycle efficiency is(a) 50% (b) 44%(c) 38% (d) 55%

8. A system undergoes a state change from 1 to 2.According the second law of thermodynamics forthe process to be feasible, the entropy change, S2— S1 of the system(a) is positive or zero(b) is negative or zero(c) is zero(d) can be positive, negative or zero

9. When an ideal gas with constant specific heats isthrottled adiabatically, with negligible changes inkinetic and potential energies.(a) Ah = 0, AT = 0 (b) Ah > 0, AT = 0(c) Ah > 0, As > 0 (d) Ah = 0, As > 0

Linked Answers Q. 10-11At a place where the surroundings are at 1 bar 27°C, aclosed rigid thermally insulated tank contains 2 kg air at2 bar, 27°C. This air is then churned for a while, by apaddle wheel connected to an external motor. If it is giventhat the irreversibilityof the process is 100 kJ, Assume forair, cv = 0.718 kJ/kg K.

10. The final temperature will be(a) 90°C (b) 95°C(c) 100°C (d) 105°C

11. The increase in availibility will be(a) 11.5 kJ (b) 12 kJ

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(c) 12.5 kJ (d) 13 kJ12. Availability of a system at any given state is

(a) a property of the system(b) the maximum work obtainable as the system

goes to dead state(c) the total energy of the system(d) the maximum useful work obtainable as

the system goes to dead state13. In steam and other vapour cycles, the process of

removing non -condensables is called(a) scavenging process(b) dearation process(c) exhause process(d) condensation processCommon Data Q. 15-16The velocity of steam exiting the nozzels of theimpulse stage of a turbine is 400 in/s. The bladesoperate closeto the maximum blading efficiency. The nozzle angleis 20.. Consider equiangular blades and neglectingblade friction, for a steam flow of 0.6 kg/s.

15. The diagram power will be(a) 32 kW (b) 40 kW(c) 48 kW (d) 64 kW

16. The diagram efficiency will be(a) 80% (b) 84%(c) 88% (d) 92%

17. Which among the following is the boiler mounting?(a) Blow off cock (b) Feed pump(c) Economiser (d) Superheater

18. The following data pertain to a single stage impulsesteam turbine :Nozzle angle = 20°,Blade velocity = 200 m/sRelative steam velocity at entry = 350 m/sBlade inlet angle = 30° Blade exit angle = 25°If blade friction is neglected, the work done perkg steam is(a) 124 kJ (b) 164 kJ(c) 169 kJ (d) 174 kJ

20. A Curtis stage, Rateau stage and a 50% reactionstage in a steam turbine are examples of(a) different types of impulse stages

(b) different types of reaction stages(c) a simple impulse stage, a velocity

compounded impulse stage and reaction stage(d) a velocity compounded impulse stage, a

simple impulse stage and a reaction stage21. The isentropic heat drop in the nozzle of an impulse

steam turbine with a nozzle efficiency 0.9, bladevelocity rati 0.5, and mean blade velocity 150 m/sin kJ/kg is(a) 50 (b) 40(c) 60 (d) 75

22. A steam turbine receives steam steadily at 10 barwith an entrhlpy of 3000 kJ/kg and discharges at 1bar with an enthalpy of 2700kJ/kg. The work outputis 250 kJ/kg. The changes in kinetic and potentialenergies are negligible. The heat transfer from theturbine casing to the surroundings is equal to(a) 0 kJ (b) 50 kJ(c) 150 kJ (d) 250 kJ

23. Which of the the following is a pressue compoundedturbine ?(a) Parsons(b) Curtis(c) Rateau(d) All the three

24. A simple impulse turbine expands steam frictionlesslyfrom 12 bar, 250°C with an enthalpy of 2935 kJ/kgto an enthalpy of 2584 kJ/kg at 0.1 bar. Assumingthat the nozzle makes an angle of 20° with theblade motion, and that the blades are symmetrical,find the blade velocity that produces maxiumumefficiency for a turbine speed of 3600 rev/min.Assume that the steam enters the nozzle withnegligible velocity.(a) 638 m/s (b) 688m/s(c) 724 m/s (d) 928 m/s

25. The Rateau turbine belongs to the categrory of(a) pressure compounded turbine(b) reaction turbine(c) velocity compounded turbine(d) radial flow turbine

26. Steam at 300 kPa and 500. C (h = 3486.0 kJ/kg)enters a steam turbine and exits at atmospheric

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pressure and 350. C (h = 3175.8 kJ/kg). Heat lossesin the turbine are 50 kW and the mass lfow rate is0.25 kg/s. Power output of the turbine if kineticenergy losses are negligible, will br(a) 27.55 kW (b) 30.55 kW(c) 35.56 kW (d) 40.55 kW

39. The air standard diesel cycle is less efficient thanthe Otto cycle for the(a) same compression ratio and heat addition(b) same pressure and heat addition(c) same rpm and cylinder dimensions.(d) same pressure and compression ratio

40. Cetane is(a) C16 1134 (b) C12 H32(C) C10 H32 (d) C8 1116

41. Higher proportion of residual gases in the Cylinderwould mean.(a) smooth operation of engine.(b) lower operating speeds(c) lower volumetric efficiency(d) higher thermal efficiency

42. In internal combustion engines, the approximatepercentage of the combustion heat that passes tothe cylinder walls is nearly(a) 5% (b) 10%(c) 25-30% (d) 45-50%

43. Which part is not common between the petrol anddiesel engines?(a) Air cleaner(b) Exhaust silencer(c) Battery(d) Fuel injector.

44. The actual volume of fresh mixture admitted in afour stroke petrol engine is(a) more than the stroke volume(b) equal to the stroke volume(c) equal to stroke volume plus clearance volume(d) less than stroke volume

45. Reduced knocking tendency in SI engines isobserved(a) with increased rate of burning(b) with rich air fuel mixtures(c) with increased charge dinsity

(d) with reduced charge temperature46. Knocking tendency of SI engine increases

(a) as the length of the carbon chain in fuelstructure increases

(b) as the carbon atoms in the fuel structure arecentralized.

(c) when methyl group is added to the side ofcarbon chain in the centre.

(d) any of the above.47. The calorific value of which of the following fuels

is expected to be nearly equal ?(a) Coal gas and lignite coal(b) Natural gas and coal gas.(c) Anthracite coal and lignite coal(d) Petrol and diesel.

48. The major constituent of natural gas is(a) methane(b) acetylene(c) hydrogen(d) carbon monoxide.

49. In a four stroke diesel engine, for combustion ofone litere of fuel, the volume of air required wouldbe approximately.(a) 1 cu.m. (b) 2 cu.m(c) 5 to 7 cu.m (d) 9 to 10 cu.m

50. In a SI engine, when most economical mixture issupplied, the colour of exhaust can be expected tobe(a) bluish(b) dark red(c) dark blue to reddish yellow(d) yellow

51. In which engine, the charge consists of air + fuel+ lubricating oil ?(a) Four stroke petrol engine(b) Two stroke petrol engine(c) Two stroke diesel engine.(d) Supercharged diesel engine

52. In case of a four stroke diesel engine, the heatcarried away by the exhaust gases will be around.(a) 5 to 7 percent (b) 7 to 10 percent(c) 10 to 20 percent (d) 20 to 35 percent

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53. The reduced knocking in SI engines is generallyobserved with(a) increased exhaust pressure(b) reduced atmospheric humidity(c) increased cylinder carbon deposits.(d) increased atmospheric humidity

54. For minimising knocking tendency in SI engines, thespark plug should be located(a) near the inlet valve.(b) away from inlet valve.(c) near the exhaust valvel(d) midway between inlet and exhaust valve

55. In the following, choose the correct word out of is/ is not and then fill in the blanks : For the samemaximum pressure and temperature, the Otto cycleis / is not more efficient than the diesel cycle,because(a) is not, of reduced compression ratio of Otto

cycle(b) is, of reduced compression ratio of Otto cycle.(c) is, of increased compression ratio of Otto

cycle.(d) is not, of increased compression ratio of Otto

cycle.56. An automobile heats up while lying in a parking lot

on a sunny day. The process can be assumed to be.(a) isothermal (b) isobaric(c) isometric (d) isentropic

57. All of the following factors will have the tendencyto increase the possibility of knock in the CI engineexcept(a) lowering the compression ratio(b) lowering the intel air temperature.(c) lowering the coolant temperature(d) increasing the temperature of the cylinder

and combustion chamber walls.58. By adding tetraethyl lead to iso-octane

(a) exhaust smoke can be reduced.(b) knocking can be completely supressed(c) octane number above 100 can be obtained.(d) specific fuel consumption can be reduced.

59. Alcohols are unsuitable as diesel engine fuelsbecause

(a) the cetane number of alcohol fuels is verylow which preventes their ignition bycompression

(b) the cetane number of alcohol fuels is veryhigh which prevents their ignition bycompression

(c) the cetane number of alcohol fuels is verylow which prevents their ignition bycompression

(d) none of the above60. Brake thermal efficiency of the three types of

reciprocating engines commonly used in road vehiclesare given in the increasing order as(a) 2 stroke SI engine, 4 stroke SI engine, 4

stroke CI engine(b) 2 stroke SI engine, 4 stroke CI engine, 4

stroke SI engine(c) 2 stroke SI engine, 4 stroke SI engine, 4

stroke CI engine(d) 2 stroke CI engine, 2 stroke SI engine, 4

stroke SI engine61. Blowers deliver gaseous fluids at pressure ratios

(below / above) 1, 15, and (have / have no ) artificialcooling arrangement.The appropriate words for the blanks are(a) below , have no (b) above, have no(c) below, have (d) above, have

62. A gas turbine cycle with heat exchanger andreheating improves(a) only the thermal efficiency.(b) only the specific power output.(c) both thermal efficiency and specific power

output(d) neither thermal efficiency nor specific power

output63. Knocking tendency in a S. I. engine reduces with

increasing(a) compression ratio (b) wall temperature(c) supercharging (d) engine speed

64. A gas turbine cycle with infinitely large number ofstages during compression and expansion leads to(a) Stirling cycle (b) Atkinson cycle(c) Ericsson cycle (d) Brayton cycle.

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66. With increasing temperature of intake air, IC engineefficiency(a) decreases.(b) increases(c) remains same(d) depends on other factors

67. An IC engine has a bore and stroke of 2 unitseach. The area to calculate heat loss can be takenas(a) 4 it (b) 5 7E(C) 6 ‘it (d) 8 n

69. Alcohols are unsuitable as diesel engine fuelsbecause(a) the cetane number of alcohol fuels is very

low which prevents their ignition bycompression

(b) the cetane number of alcohol fuels is veryhigh which prevents their ignition bycompression

(c) the cetane number of alcohol fuels is verylow which prevents their ignition bycompression

(d) none of the above70. The theoretical mechanical efficiency of a jetengine

(neglecting frictional and thermal losses), whendriving a vehicle, has its maxium(a) only when the vehicle moves at sonic velocity(b) when outlet gases approach zero absolute

velocity(c) when the vehicle speed approaches the

magnitude of the relative velocity fo gasesat nozzle exit

(d) only when the relative velocity at nozzle exitis at its maximum.

71. In order to burn 1 kilogram of CH, comletely, theminimum number of kilograms of oxygen needed is(take atomic weights of H, C and 0 as 1, 12 and 16respectively).(a) 3 (b) 4(c) 5 (d) 6

72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correctanswer from the codes given below the listsList I List II

(a) Cetane number 1. Ideal gas(b) Approach and range 2. VAn der Waals gas(c) (LT)0 3. S.I. engine 813 h(d) dh = CpdT,even 4. C.I.engine

when pressurevaries

5. Cooling towers 6. Heat exchangers

Codes :A BC D(a) 1 2 3 4(b) 1 2 4 5(c) 4 5 2 1(d) 5 4 1 2

Common Data Q. 73-74Afour cylinder,, four-stroke S.1. engine has a compressionratio of 8 and bore of 100 mm, with stroke equal to thebore. The volumetric efficiency of each cylinder is equalto 75%. The engine operates at a speed of 4800 rpm, withan air-fuel ratio of 15.Given that the calorific value of fuel = 42 MJ/kg,atmospheric air density = 1.12 kg/m3, mean effectivepressure in the cylinder = 10 bar and mechanicalefficiency of the engine = 80%,73. Brake power will be

(a) 20.6 kW (b) 24.6 kW(c) 32.2 kW (d) 48.6 kW

74. With increasing temperature of intake air, IC engineefficiency(a) decreases(b) increases(c) remains same(d) depends on other factors

Common Data Q. 76-77A turbocharged six cylinder diesel engine has thefollowing performance details :

(i) Work done during compression andexpansion = 820 kW.

(ii) Work done during intake and exhust = 50kW.

(iii) Rubbing friction in the engine = 150 kW.(iv) Net work done by turbine = 40 kW.

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The brake mean effective pressure is 0.6 MPa, theratio of bore to stroke as 1 and engine speed as1000 rpm.

76. The bore of engine will be(a) 15 cm ( b ) 20 cm(c) 30 cm (d) 40 cm

77. The stroke of the engine will be(a) 20 cm (b) 30 cm(c) 40 cm (d) 50 cm

78. The silencer of an internal combusion engine.(a) reduces noise(b) decreases brake specific fuel consumption

(BSFC)(c) increases BSFC(d) has no effect on its efficiency

81. A fuel represented by the formula C81116 is usedin an I.C. Engine. Given that the molecular weightof air is 29 and that 4.76 kmols of air contain 1kmol of oxygen and 3.76 kmols of nitrogen, theAir/Fuel ratio by mass is(a) 11.47 (b) 12.78(c) 14.79 (d) 19.52

82. For the following “Matching” exercise, choose thecorrect oneGroup I Group IIA. Marine Diesel Engine 1. Two stroke engineB. Air conditioning 2. Four stroke engineC. Steam Power Plant 3. Rotary engineD. Gas Turbine Power 4. Cooling andPlant dehumidification

5. Cooling tower 6. Brayton cycle 7. Rankine cycle 8. D-slide valve

Codes :A BC D(a) 3 5 7 2(b) 4 6 8 1(c) 5 2 3 4(d) 2 5 6 8

83. In a spark ignition engine working on the ideal Ottocycle, the compression ration is 5.5. The workoutput per cycle (i.e., area of the P.V. diagram) is

equal to 23.625 x 105 x V, J, where V, is theclearance volume in m3. The indicated meaneffective pressure is(a) 4.285 bar (b) 5.250 bar(c) 86.870 bar (d) 106.300 bar

84. Two insulating materials of thermal conductivity Kand 2K are available for lagging a pipe carrying ahot fluid. If the radial thickness of each material isthe same(a) material with higher thermal conductivity

should be used for the inner layer and onewith lower thermal conductivity for the outer.

(b) material with lower thermal conductivityshould be used for the inner layer andone with higher thermal conductivity forthe outer.

(c) it is immaterial in which sequence theinsulating materials are used.

(d) it is not possible to judge unless numericalvalues of dimensions are given.

85. The practice to use steam on the shell side andcooling water on the tube side in ondensers of steampower plant is because(a) to increase overall heat transfer coefficient

water side velocity can be increased ifwater is on the tube side.

(b) condenser can act as a storage unit forcondensed steam.

(c) rate of condensation of steam is invariablysmaller than the mass flow rate of coolingwater.

(d) it is easier to maintain vacuum on the shellside than on the tube side.

86. For a given heat flow and for the same thickness,the temperature drop across the material will bemaximum for(a) copper (b) steel(c) glass-wool (d) refractory brick

87. For a current wire of 20 mm diameter exposed toair (h = 20 W/m2 K), maximum heat dissipationoccurs when thickness of insulation (k = 0.5 W/mK) is(a) 20 mm (b) 25 mm(c) 20 mm (d) 10 mm

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88. In radiative heat transfer, a gray surface is one(a) which appears gray to the eye(b) whose emissivity is independant of

wavelength(c) which has reflectivity equal to zero(d) which appears equally bright from all

directions.89. In a certain heat exchanger, both the fluids have

identical mass flow rate-specific heat product. Thehot fluid enters at 76°C and leaves at 47°C and thecold fluid entering at 26°C leaves at 55°C. Theeffectiveness of the heat exchanger is(a) 0.16 (b) 0.58(c) 0.72 (d) 1.0

90. Heat transfer coefficients for free convection ingases, forced convection in gases and vapours, andfor boiling water lie, respectively in the ranges of

(a) 5 - 15, 20 - 200 and 3000 - 50,000 W/m2K.(b) 20 - 50, 200 - 500, and 50,000 -105 W/m2K.(c) 50 -100, 500 - 1000, and 105 - 106 W/m2K.(d) 20 - 100, 200 - 1000, and a constant 106

W/m2K.91. A steel ball of mass 1 kg and specific heat 0.4 kJ

kg is at a temperature of 60°C. It is dropped into1 kg water at 20°C. The final steady statetemperature of water is(a) 23.5°C (b) 30°C(c) 35°C (d) 40°C

Linked Answer Q. 92-93.A copper tube of 20 mm outer diameter, I mm thicknessand 20 m long (thermal conductivity = 400 W/m-K) iscarrying saturated steam at 150 °C (convective heattransfer coefficient = 150 W/m2-K). The tube is exposedto an ambient temperature of 27 °C. The convective heattransfer coefficient of air is 5 W/ m2-K. Glass wool isused for insulation (thermal conductivity = 0.075 W/m-K).

Thickness of the insulation used is 5 mm higher than thecritical thickness of insulation (enthalpy of condensationof steam = 2230 kJ/kg).

92. The rate of heat lost by the steam will be(a) 132.2 kJ/hr-m (b) 136.5 kJ/hr.m(c) 139.2 kJ/hr-m (d) 142.7 kJ/hr-m

93. The rate of steam condensation (in kg/hr-m) will be(a) 0.022 (b) 0.43(c) 0.62 (d) 0.84

94. Ina pula*erised-fuel large power boiler, the heattransfer from the burning fuel to the walls of thefurnace is(a) by conduction only(b) By convection only(c) by conduction and convection(d) predominantly by radiation

95. Kinematic viscosity of air at 20°C is given to be 1.6x 10-5 m2/s. Its kinematic viscosity at 70°C will bevary approximately(a) 2.2 x 10-5 m2/s (b) 1.6 x 10-5 m2/s(c) 1.2 x 10-5 m2/s (d) 10-5 x m2/s

96. It is proposed to coat a 1 mm diameter wire withenamel paint (k = 0.1 W/mK) to increase heattransfer with air. If the air side heat transfercoefficient is 100 W/m2 K, the optimum thicknessof enamel paint should be(a) 0.25 mm (b) 0.5(c) lmm (d) 2 mm

97. A steel steam pipe 10 cm inner diameter and 11 cmouter diameter is covered with an insulation havinga thermal conductivity of 1 W/mK. If convectiveheat transfer coefficient between the surface ofinsulation and the surrounding air is 8 W/m2K, thecritical radius of insulation will be(a) 10 cm (b) 11 cm(c) 12.5 cm (d) 15 cm

98. Air enters a counterflow heat exchanger at 70°Cand leaves at 40°C. Water enters at 30°C and leavesat 50°C. The LMTD in dev °C will be(a) 5.65 (b) 4.43(c) 19.52 (d) 20.17

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99. Lumped heat transfer analysis of solid objectsuddenly exposed to a fluid medium at a differenttemperature is valid when(a) Biot number < 0.1(b) Biot number > 0.1(c) Fourier number < 0.1(d) Fourier number > 0.1

------------------

E C FIGURE ENGLISH-2

192. When a number of 2 port networks are connectedin cascade, the individual(a) Zoe matrices are added(b) Vsc matrices are added(c) Chain matrices are multiplied(d) H-matrices are multiplied

201. In a two-port network containing linear bilateralpassive circuit elements, which one of the followingconditions for z-parameters would hold ?(a) Z11 = Z22

(b) Z12Z21 = Z11Z22

(c) Z11Z12 = Z22Z21

(d) Z12 = Z21

202. The two electric sub-networks N1 and 2 areconnected through three resistors as shown in thefigure below. The voltage across 5Q resistor and152 resistor are given to be 10V and 5V respectively.Then voltage across 15Q resistor is

(a) -105 V (b) +105 V(c) -15 V (d) + 15 V

213. When a number of 2-port networks are connectedin cascade, the individual(a) z. matrices are added(b) z.-matrices are added(c) chain matrices are multiplied(d) h-matrices are multiplied

212. The V-I relation for the network shown in theV = 4I – 9 If now a resistor R = 2 W is connectedacross it, then the value of I will be

I

R = 2W(a) - 4.5 A (b) - 1.5 A(c) 1.5 A (d) 4.5 A

217. For a two-port reciprocal network, the output open-circuit voltage divided by the input current equal to(a) B (b) Z12

(c) 1 / y12 (d) h12

218. In the circuit shown in the figure, for R = 20 W thecurrent I is 2 A. When R is 10 W the current Iwould be(a) 1A (b) 2A(c) 2.5 A (d) 3 A

220. The short-circuit test of a 2-port network is shownin Fig-I. The voltage across the terminals AA’ inthe network shown in Fig-II will be

10A

20V 2AFig-I

10V

(a) 20 V (b) 10V(c) 5 V (d) 2 V

223. A two-port network i.. defined by the relationsI1= 2V1 + V2, I2= 2I1+ 3V2 Then Z12 is(a) -2 W (b) -1WWWWW

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(c) -1/2 W (d) -1/4 W224. With the usual notations, a two-port resistive network

satisfies the condition A = D = 3 / 2 B = 4/3C Thez11 of the network is(a) 5/3 (b) 4 / 3(c) 3/4 (d) 1/3

227. For a two-port symmetrical bilateral network, if A= 3 and B =1W, the value of parameter C will be(a) 4 s (b) 6 s(c) 8 s (d) 16 s

229. The h parameters h11 and h222 are related to z anyy parameters as(a) h11=z11 and h22 = 1/z22

(b) h11 = z11 and h22 = y22

(c) h11 = 1/y11 and h22 = 1/z22

(d) h11 = 1/ y11 and h22 = y22

241. The circuit shown in the given figure in resonatesat

4H 1F

(a) all frequencies(b) 0.5 rad/sec(c) 5 rad/sec(c) 1 rad/sec

242. A current impulse, 55 (t) is forced through acapacitor C. The voltage Vc(t) across the

Capacitor is given by(a) 5t (b) 5u(t) – C(c) 5/C t (d) 5u(t) / C

244. In the circuit of given figure, the current iD throughthe ideal diode (zero cut in voltage and forwardresistance) equals

b

10V 2A(a) 0 A (b) 4 A

(c) 1 A (d) none of these245. The voltage Vc p Vc2 and Vc3 across the

capacitors in the circuit in the given figure, understeady state are respectively

+ 100 3F

_ -(a) 80 V, 32 V, 48 V (b) 80 V, 48 V, 32 V(c) 20 V, 8 V, 12 V (d) 20 V, 12 V, 8 V

246. In the given figure, A1, A2 and A3 are idealammeters. If Ai reads 5A, A2 reads 12A, then A3

should read

(a) 7 A (b) 12 A(c) 13 A (d) 17 A

247. A fixed capacitor of reactance -j 0.02 W isconnected in parallel across a series combination ofa fixed inductor j 0.01 W and a variable resistanceR. As R is varied from zero to infinity, the locusdiagram of the admittance of this L-C-R circuit willbe(a) a semi circle of diameter j 100 and centre

at zero.(b) a semi circle of diameter j 50 and centre at(c) a straight line inclined at an angle.(d) a straight line parallel to the x-axis.

248. An 11 V pulse of 10 xis duration is applied to thecircuit shown in the figure. Assuming that thecapacitor is completely discharged prior to applyingthe pulse, the peak value of the capacitor voltage is

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11µF(a) 11 V (b) 5.5 V(c) 6.32V (d) 0.96 V

249. Consider the circuit shown in the figure. If thefrequency of the source is 50 Hz, then a value ofto which results in a transient free response is

sin (cot)(a) 0 ms (b) 1.78 ms(c) 2.71 Ms (d) 2.91 ms

250. A sinusoidal voltage V and frequency f is connectedto a series circuit at variable resistance R and afixed reactance X. The locus of the tip of the currentphasor I as R is varied from 0 to co is(a) a semicircle with a diameter V / X(b) a straight line with a slope R/X(c) an ellipse with V/R as major axis(d) a circle at radius R/X and origin at (0, V/2)

251. A circuit with a resistor, inductor and capacitor inseries is resonant off. Hz. If all the componentvalues are now doubled, the new resonant frequencyis(a) 2 f0 (b) stil f0

(c) f0 / 2 (d) f0 / 4254. A water boiler of home is switched on to the a.c.

mains supplying power at 230 V/50 Hz. Thefrequency of instantaneous power consumed by theboiler is(a) 0 Hz (b) 50 Hz(c) 100 Hz (d) 150 Hz

256. In the network shown in the figure, the circuit wasinitially in the steady-state condition with the switchK closed. At the instant when the switch is opened,the rate of decay of current through the inductancewill be

2A 2H

(a) Zero (b) 0.5 A/s(c) 1 A/s (d) 2 A/s

257. In the circuit shown in the figure, the switch S hasbeen opened for long time. It is closed at t = 0. Fort> 0, the current flowing through the inductor willbe given by

12W 6W

36 15H(a) iL (t) = 1.2 + 0.8 e2t

(b) iL (t) = 0.8 + 1.2 e-2t

(c) iL (t) = 1.2 - 0.8 e-2t

(d) iL(t) = 0.8 - 1.2 e-2t

----------

SUPERVISER SCIENCE

1. A vast collection of stars held together by mutualgravitation is called(a) a galaxy (b) universe(c) constellations (d) nebula

2. The stars which appear in the form of closed groupsand form recognisable shapes and patterns areknown as(a) supernova (b) neutron stars(c) Milky Way (d) constellations

3. During the formation of a star, the cloud of gasesbegins to contract under its own gravity. Thecontracting mass is known as(a) Supernova (b) Orion

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(c) Protostar (d) Meteor4. The smallest planet in the solar system is

(a) Mars (b) Mercury(c) Earth (d) Pluto

5. Super dense planetary material formed due to thedeath of a star of mass more than five molar massesis called(a) asteroid (b) meteorite(c) black hole (d) binary stars

6. Constellations appear to change their positions atdifferent times of night because(a) the earth rotates about its axis(b) the earth revolves round the sun(c) the earth and the constellations move in opposite

directions(d) the constellations move faster than the earth

7. The Pole Star does not seem to move because(a) it rotates very rapidly(b) it moves round the sun and not the earth(c) it is in line with the earth's axis of rotation(d) it does not move

8. The gases from which a star begins to be formedare(a) hydrogen and nitrogen(b) nitrogen and oxygen(c) oxygen and helium(d) hydrogen and helium

9. Light from the nearest star (other than the sun)reaches the earth in(a) 42 years (b) 42 seconds(c) 4.2 years (d) 4.2 seconds

10. Unlike the fluid core of the earth, the core of themoon is(a) plasma (b) volatile gas(c) viscous liquid (d) solid

11. The brightest star in the sky is(a) Sirius (b) Alpha Centauri(c) Proxima Centauri (d) Venus

12. The planet which shows phases is(a) Earth (b) Venus(c) Jupiter (d) none

13. Light from the sun reaches us in(a) 8 minutes (b) 8 seconds

(c) 8 hours (d) 1 year14. Stars of extremely high densities are called

(a) Supernova (b) Neutron stars(c) Binary stars (d) Asteroids

15. What is the source of electric energy in an artificialsatellite ?(a) A thermophile(b) Solar cells(c) A dynamo(d) A mini nuclear reactor

16. Innumerable small bodies revolving round the sunchiefly between Mars and Jupiter are called(a) meteors (b) planetoids(c) comets (d) galaxies

17. The moons of the planet 'Jupiter' were discoveredby(a) Newton (b) Galileo(c) Kepler (d) Copernicus

18. Which one of the following planets takes the longestperiod of time for one revolution round the sun?(a) Earth (b) Saturn(c) Jupiter (d) Mars

19. Which of the following theories has no connectionwith the origin of the earth?(a) Nebular hypothesis of Laplace(b) Tidal hypothesis of Jeans and Jeffreys(c) Binary star theory of Lyttleton(d) Convection current theory of Holmes

20. On re-entry of the space shuttle into earth'satmosphere, a situation of 'radio blackout' ariseswhich means(a) the sound cannot be heard on radio(b) a situation of no light(c) a situation of no communication(d) none of the above

21. The fact that the night sky is dark shows that theuniverse(a) is infinitely old(b) is not infinitely old(c) is infinite in extent(d) originated in a big bang

22. Which of the following statements are correct aboutthe Milky Way galaxy?

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I. It contains two components, the disc and thespherical It is roughly 10,000 light years indiameter At the very centre is a radio source,Sagittarius A

IV. Many astronomers believe that the central objectin the Milky Way is a black hole

(a) I and II (b) I, II and III(c) II, III and IV (d) I, III and IV

23. Which of the following is/are the final states of theremains of a star?Black holeNeutron StarWhite DwarfBrown Dwarf(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV(c) I and II (d) I, II, III and IV

24. The apparent path of the sun around the sky iscalled(a) revolution (b) parallax(c) ecliptic (d) precession

25. Which of the following is/are true of earth'sprecession?1. Precession is caused by the gravitational pull

of the sun and moon2. In about 13,000 years, the north celestial will

be near the star Vega and not Polaris3. The direction of earth's axis of rotation changes

because of precession(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only

27. The New Moon(a) rises at dawn and sets at sunset(b) rises at sunset and sets at dawn(c) rises at noon anti sets at midnight(d) rises at midnight and sets at noon

28. Due to the moon's gravity,I. the rocky .surface of the near side is drawn up

into a bulge a few centimetres highII. sea water flows into a bulge of water on the

side of earth facing the moonIII. earth is pulled away from the oceans, which

flow into a bulge on the far side(a) II and III (b) II only(c) I and II (d) I, II and III

29. Nova is(a) a new star(b) the eruption of an old star(c) a pulsar(d) none of the above

30. The periodic flashing of pulsars is linked to(a) pulsation (b) rotation(c) orbit (d) age of star

31. On what does the escape velocity of a bodydepend?I. Mass of celestial bodyII. The distance from the centre of mass to the

escaping object(a) Only I (b) 011-1Y 11(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor H

32. Regarding Mercury, we may sayI. it is too small to retain a true atmosphereII. lack of atmosphere causes extreme highs of

temperature in direct sunlight and lows indarkness lack of atmosphere has allowed theplanet to retain the features since the last lavahardened

(a) I only (b) II only(c) III only (d) I, II and III

33. Although Venus is earth's twin in size, it is the mostinhospitable of planets. The present atmosphere ofVenus is mainly due to(a) its size(b) its shape(c) its proximity to the sun(d) volcanism

34. Aurorae are a result of the interaction of earth'smagnetosphere with(a) the solar wind(b) the ozone layer(c) radio waves(d) none of the above

35. The ring of Jupiter is(a) most likely composed of silicates(b) non-existent(c) very thick and opaque(d) all of the above

36. Oort Cloud Theory is connected with(a) comets (b) pulsars

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(c) Jupiter (d) Saturn37. Hubble Law is associated chiefly with

(a) red shifts(b) sun(c) eclipses(d) magnetosphere

38. The more distant a galaxy is, the faster it recedesfrom us. This is the implication of the(a) Milankovitch theory(b) Olbers' paradox(c) Hubble 'taw(d) Titius-Bode rule

39. A rubber balloon is filled with hydrogen. Which ofthe following will be true when it goes up?1. Its volume increases2. Pressure within the balloon decreases3. There is no change in the volume of the balloon(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 only(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

40. The fact that some salt can be added to a full glassof water without causing any overflow shows thatmatter(a) has weight (b) has energy(c) takes up space (d) is not continuous

41. The inertia of an object depends only on its(a) bulk (b) shape(c) mass (d) physical state

42. The mass of a body is different from its weightbecause(a) mass is constant but weight decreases as the

body moves from equator to the poles(b) mass is a variable quantity whereas weight is

constant(c) weight varies very little at different places

whereas mass varies a lot(d) mass is a measure of quantity of matter in a

body whereas weight is the force with whichthe earth attracts bodies

43. Match the following products and methods by whichthey can be obtained from their sources:

Products MethodI. Pure water 1. Sublimation

from seaII. Gasoline 2. Evaporation

from crude oilIII. Table salt 3. Distillation

from sea waterIV. Purified 4. Fractional

camphor distillation(a) I-2, II-3, III-4, IV-1(b) I-4, II-3, IV-1(c) I-3, II-4, IV-1(d) I-4, II-3, III-1, IV-2

44. An atom has 17 de toots, 17 protons, 18 neutrons.Therefore which of the follow:Ws/am true?I. Its atomic abet is 17II. Its mass number is 35(a) I (b) II(c) I and II (d) Neither I nor II

45. Choose the odd man out of the following:(a) Common salt (b) Epsom salts(c) Baking powder (d) Citric acid

46. Match the columns:Type of Mixture Method of SeparationI. Insoluble A. Distillation

solid and liquidII. Two immiscible - B. Evaporation

liquidsIII. Soluble solid C. Use of separating

and liquid funnelIV. Completely D. Decantation

miscible liquids(a) I-A, II-B, IV-D(b) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A(c) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D(d) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

47. Of the following, the one representing a physicalchange is the(a) rusting of iron (b) freezing of water(c) burning of coat (d) souring of cream

48. Which type of chemical change is illustrated byboric acid or vinegar solution 'treating' a lye burnon the skin?(a) Double displacement(b) Replacement(c) Combination(d) Decomposition

49. A chemical equation does not tell us about

107


(a) which reactants are taking part in a reaction(b) the relative number of molecules and products(c) the relative masses of the reactants and

products(d) the concentration of the reactants and products

50. A deuterium nucleus consists of(a) one proton and two electrons(b) one proton and one neutron(c) one proton and three neutrons(d) one neutron and two. protons

51. Which of the following is/are matched wrongly?1. Washing soda-sodium carbonate2. Baking soda-sodium bicarbonate3. Caustic soda-sodium thiosulphate4. Lime-sodium hydroxide(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

52. Oxidation involves(a) gain in electrons (b) gain of hydrogen(c) loss of electrons (d) combustion

53. Dialysis is used for people with defective kidneys.It involves the process of(a) adsorption (b) osmosis(c) electropheresis (d) diffusion

54. Silver halides are used in photographic plates. Thechemical reaction is by influence of(a) contact (b) heat(c) light (d) water

55. In addition to the idea that matter consists ofmolecules, the kinetic theory of matter assumesthat these molecules(a) are perfectly stationary in solids(b) are always in motion(c) move only when struck by other molecules(d) are usually closer together in a gas than in a

liquid56. Absolute zero is

(a) a temperature(b) a point when matter ceases to exist(c) absence of matter(d) a number

57. Two solutions are isotonic when they

(a) are of the same concentration(b) have the same osmotic pressure(c) have the same number of isotopes(d) have the same substance saturating them

58. The noble gases do not react with any other atombecause(a) they are heavy elements(b) they are stable compounds(c) their outermost orbits contain eight electrons(d) of none of the above

59. The speed with which molecules move inside a gasdepends on(a) mass and pressure(b) pressure and temperature(c) mass and temperature(d) none of the above

60. The pressure exerted by a real gas is less than thepressure exerted by an ideal gas because the(a) molecules of a real gas possess more kinetic

energy(b) molecules of a real gas attract each other(c) molecules of a real gas have finite sizes(d) real gas is more viscous than an ideal gas

61. Which of the following gives the correct descendingorder of elasticity in the substances?(a) Rubber, silver, glass(b) Silver, rubber, steel(c) Steel, silver, rubber(d) All have equal elasticity

62. The vapour pressure of a liquid(a) increases with increase in temperature(b) decreases with increase in temperature(c) is independent of temperature(d) has none of the above features

63. When two mercury drops are brought into contact,they form a bigger drop because liquids have atendency to possess(a) minimum surface area(b) minimum volume(c) maximum size(d) maximum surface area

108


64. On a smooth glass surface, a drop of water spreadswhereas a drop of mercury remains almost sphericalbecause(a) mercury is metallic,(b) mercury is more viscous than water(c) cohesion of mercury is ggrlaesaster than its

adhesion with(d) cohesion of water is greater than its adhesion

with glass65. A drop of water is spherical due to

(a) surface tension(b) low temperature(c) air resistance(d) viscosity of water

66. A blotter and a towel work(a) by evaporation(b) by capillary action(c) by surface tension(d) by none of the above

67. Soap is used in washing because(a) it lowers the surface tension of water(b) it increases the surface tension of water(c) it increases the viscosity of water(d) it decreases the viscosity of water

68. When iron rusts, its weight(a) decreases(b) increases(c) shows no change(d) decreases and then increases

69. Cast iron is(a) elastic (b) plastic(c) brittle (d) none of the above

70. Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?(a) Milk (b) Gasoline(c) Vegetable soup (d) Smog

71. Which of the following is most viscous?(a) Alcohol (b) Water(c) Honey (d) Gasoline

72. Match the following:Process Changes

A. Evaporation gas 1. Liquid intoB. Sublimation liquid 2. Gas intoC. Freezing gas 3. Solid intoD. Melting lquid 4. Solid into

5. Liquid into solid(a) A-3, B-4, C-5, D-2(b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-5(c) A-1, B-3, C-5, D-4(d) A-1, B-5, C-3, D-4

73. If a body starts its motion from a point and comesback to its initial position after a certain time thensince,(a) its displacement is zero, average velocity is zero(b) its displacement is zero average speed is zero(c) total distance travelled is not zero, average

speed is not zero(d) total distance travelled is zero, average velocity

is not zero75. A jet engine works on the principle of

(a) conservation of energy(b) conservation of mass(c) conservation of linearMOmentum(d) conservation of angular 1110mentum

76. You are standing in a lift. The force on the floor ofthe lift due to your weight will(a) become zero when the lift moves up with an

acceleration of 9.8 in/s2(b) become zero when the lift moves down with

an acceleration of 9.8 m/s2(c) become zero when the lift moves with an

acceleration of 9.8 m/s' in any direction(d) remain unchanged whatever be the value of

acceleration of the lift77. A block of wood resting on a table is pulled by two

cords attached to it. One exerts a force of 100 gm,the other a force of 50 gm. In order to get thegreatest net force on the body, the two cords shouldbe pulled(a) in opposite directions(b) at right angles to each other(c) in nearly opposite directions(d) in the same direction

109


78. If the earth were 3 times as far from the sun as itis now, how would the gravitational attractioncompare with its present Value?(a) The gravitational attraction would be 9 times

its present amount(b) The gravitational attraction would be double its

present amount(c) The gravitational attraction would be 1/9 of its

present amount(d) None, of the above would be true

79. The sensation of weightlessness in a spacecraft inorbit is due to(a) the absence of gravity(b) the spacecraft in orbit having no energy(c) the presence of gravity outside but not inside

the spacecraft(d) the acceleration in orbit being equal to

acceleration of gravity outside80. Which one of the following describes the motion of

a bullet that has been fired horizontally by asupersonic jet fighter flying almost parallel to theground (neglect air resistance)?(a) Irregular motion(b) Motion along a straight line(c) Circular motion(d) Projectile motion

81. A body weighs less at the equator than at the polesbecause1. earth rotates about its axis2. the ice cap at the poles increase gravitational

pull equatorial diameter is greater than polardiameter

4. of some unknown factors(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3(c) 1 and 3 (d) 4

82. When two bodies, a heavy one and a light one, areacted upon by the same force for the same timethen(a) the light body builds up a lower velocity than

the heavy one and the momentum gained isdifferent in both cases

(b) the light body builds up a higher velocity thanthe heavy one and the momentum gained isdifferent in both cases

(c) the light body builds up a higher velocity thanthe heavy one and the momentum gained is thesame in both cases

(d) none of the above is correct83. A ball tied with a string to a rotating shaft revolves

at uniform speed. As the shaft is suddenly broughtto rest, the string starts getting round the shaft withthe angular velocity of the ball(a) increasing (b) becoming zero(c) decreasing (d) remaining constant

84. The fall of a man due to a sudden break of therope while lifting water from a well is explained byNewton's(a) law of gravitation(b) first law of motion(c) second law 'of motion(d) third law of motion

85. A person riding a bicycle along a level road doesnot come to rest as soon as he stops pedalling. Thisis due to(a) inertia of motion(b) inertia of rest(c) Newton's second law of motion(d) Newton's third law of motion

86. For an electron circulating about an atomic nucleus,the centripetal force is provided by(a) electrostatic force of repulsion(b) electrostatic force of attraction(c) nuclear charge(d) none of the above

87. A liquid rises in a syringe when its piston is pulledup because(a) of the property of surface tension(b) of capillary action(c) of the action of atmospheric pressure(d) there is a force of cohesion between the liquid

molecules and the glass syringe88. A small weight is put on the pressure cooker. It

increases the pressure of the steam because(a) the weight is proportionate to the steam required(b) area of contact is small(c) the weight stops the steam from escaping

110


(d) of Bernoulli's principle89. In a barometer, mercury is pre ferred over water

because(a) mercury is a good conductor of heat(b) mercury shines and therefore its level can be

read easily(c) mercury has high density and low vapour

pressure(d) mercury is available in pure form

90. What happens to the level of mercury in thebarometer tube when it is taken down a coal mine?It(a) falls (b) remains unaltered(c) rases (d) rises and then falls

91. By keeping the barometer tube slanting, thebarometer reading will(a) increase(b) decrease(c) first increase and then decrease(d) remain the same

92. A body floating in oil always displaces its own(a) weight of oil(b) volume of oil(c) surface area of oil(d) depth ofoil

93. If a stone tied to a string is whirled in a verticalcircle at constant speed, the tension in the string(a) is minimum when the stone is at the lowest

point(b) is maximum when the stone is at the lowest

point(c) is same throughout(d) is indeterminate

94. The density of sea water decreases as(a) depth and salinity increase(b) depth increases and salinity decreases(c) depth and salinity decrease(d) depth decreases and salinity increases

95. When a ship enters a sea from a river, it(a) rises(b) remains at the same level

(c) sinks a little(d) rises or sinks depending on the material it is

made of96. A football bounces when it falls on the ground

because(a) it is hollow(b) it is made of rubber(c) of its property of elasticity(d) it is very light and is able to overcome theresistance of air

97. A steel ball floats on mercury because(a) the density of mercury is higher than that of

steel(b) mercury is a metal in theliquid form(c) mercury has a high surface tension(d) the density of mercury is higher than that of

water98. Rise of mercury in a barometer indicates

(a) fair weather(b) storm(c) rain(d) both (b) and (c)

99. Two cars, passing each other at high speed, are indanger of side swiping because(a) of the increase in air pressure in _the space

between them(b) of decrease in the velocity of air molecules

between them(c) of decrease in air pressure in the space between

them(d) of increase in the velocity of air molecules

between them100. A physical balance works on the

(a) principle of moments(b) law of conservation of momentum(c) law of parallelogram of forces(d) law of conservation of energy

101. A bullet is fired from a gun. The kinetic energy ofthe bullet is(a) more than that of the gun(b) equal to that of the gun

111


(c) less than that of the gun(d) none of the above

102. No work is done by a force applied(a) parallel to a motion(b) along the direction of motion(c) at right angles to a motion(d) in any of the above cases

103. The energy of the winds and the waves is(a) potential(b) kinetic(c) electrical(d) potential and kinetic

104. A porter carries a box from the ground floor to thefirst using a slanting staircase. The work he doesdepends onI. the weight of the boxII. the actual distance he traverses up the staircase

the vertical height of the first lfoor(a) I and II (b) I only(c) III only (d) I and III

105. A ball is floating on water. What kind of equilibriumdoes it possess?(a) Stable equilibrium(b) Unstable equilibrium(c) Neutral equilibrium(d) Both stable and unstable equilibrium

106. A nail extractor is an example of(a) a lever of the first kind(b) a lever of the second kind(c) a lever of the third kind(d) a combination of levers of the first and second

kinds107. The moment of a force is a measure of

(a) the capacity to turn a body(b) the stability of a body(c) the change in momentum of a body(d) the impulse of the force

108. Kinetic energy depends on(a) the mass of the moving body(b) the velocity or speed of the moving body(c) the pressure of the moving body(d) both mass and velocity of the moving body

109. All balls, cylinders and cones lying on their sidesroll because they are in(a) stable equilibrium

(b) unstable equilibrium(c) both stable and unstable equilibrium(d) neutral equilibrium

110. A body is stable if it has a(a) broad base and a high centre of gravity(b) broad base and a low centre of gravity(c) narrow base and a high centre of gravity(d) narrow base and a low centre of gravity

111. When the speed of a body is halved, its kineticenergy becomes(a) half (b) one-fourth(c) quadruple (d) double

112. A person climbing a hill tends to bend forward soas to(a) increase stability (b) reduce friction(c) increase speed (d) stop slipping

113. A man stands holding a weight of 10 kg at a distanceof 2m from the ground. The work done is(a) 20 J (b) 5 J(c) 200 J (d) zero

114. In an ideal machine,A. mechanical advantage is greater than velocity

ratioB. mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratioC. mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratioD. efficiency is always less than 100%(a) A and B (b) A and C(c) A and D (d) Only B

115. Match the following:Energy Device/process conversion1. Heat to electric A. Car braking2. Electric to sound B. Nuclear reactor3. Mass to heat C. Loudspeaker4. Chemical to D. Solar cell

heat + light5. Kinetic to heat E. Fuel burning(a) I-A, II-B, IV-D, V-E(b) I-D,. II-C, IV-E, V-A(c) I-B, II-A, IV-E, V-D(d) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D, V-E

116. In which of the following objects does the centre ofgravity lie outside the material of the body?(a) A solid disc(b) A hollow ring

112


(c) A hollow sphere(d) In none of the above

117. Steam of 100 °C causes.more severe burns thanwater at the same temperature because(a) steam is highly combustible(b) steam cannot do more work(c) steam can provide more heat(d) steam is a gas

118. A silver spoon and a book are both at roomtemperature. The spoon feels colder to the touchbecause(a) of an illusory effect(b) silver is an almost pure material(c) silver is a very good heat conductor(d) it is made of a denser material

119. Every object at a temperature above absolute zero(a) radiates energy(b) occupies less space than it would at absolute

zero(c) is a good heat insulator(d) must receive heat by convection

120. The ice in glaciers always starts melting from(a) the top surface(b) the layers in the middle(c) the bottom layer(d) all over the surface simultaneously

121. Air is blown rapidly through some ether at roomtemperature_ The ether(a) becomes cold(b) condenses and latent heat is given out(c) dissolves in the air(d) boils

122. Energy we receive from the sun is not transportedby conduction or convection because(a) there are always some clouds in the atmosphere(b) air is less dense at high altitudes(c) interplanetary space is a good vacuum(d) the sun is gradually cooling off

123. If a saturated vapour is compressed to half itsvolume without changing the temperature the resultis that(a) the pressure doubles(b) the pressure remains unchanged but the vapour

condenses(c) all the vapour condenses to liquid(d) the pressure becomes half its initial value

124. Food is cooked faster in a pressure cooker because(a) high pressure increases the boiling point of water(b) heat cannot escape from the cooker(c) steam is hotter than boiling water(d) water starts boiling at a lower temperature

125. The source of our energy is basically the(a) ocean (b) sun(c) atmosphere (d) space

126. The quantity of water vapour the atmosphere canhold(a) decreases with increase of temperature(b) is independent of temperature(c) increases with increase of temperature(d) lfuctuates with increase of temperature

127. It takes much longer to cook things in the hills thanin the plains, because(a) atmospheric pressure is high in the hills and

water boils at a higher temperature(b) atmospheric pressure is lower in the hills and

water boils at a lower temperature(c) due to low atmospheric pressure in the hills the

boiling point of water is raised, and thereforewater takes longer to boil

(d) the humid atmosphere in the hills absorbs a lotof heat, leaving very little for the cooking

128. Perspiration is maximum when(a) temperature is low and air is dry(b) temperature is lovs, and air is humid(c) temperature is high and air is dry(d) temperature is high and-eir is humid

129. Mica is a(a) good conductor of heat and bad conductor of

electricity(b) good conductor of heat and good conductor of

electricity(c) bad conductor of heat and good conductor of

electricity(d) bad conductor of heat and bad conductor of

electricity130. A cup of hot tea on a metal table in a room loses

heat by(a) conduction and convection

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(b) conduction, convection, radiation andevaporation

(c) conduction and evaporation(d) conduction and radiation

131. During summers, we feel cornfortable under a fanbecause it(a) produces convection currents(b) sets the air in motion, thereby increasing the

evaporation of sweat(c) circulates air which carries heat away from

the body(d) circulates cool air on us

132. Drinks remain hot or cold for a long time in athermos flask because of theI. vacuum between the double wallsII. presence of air, which is a bad conductor of

heat, in between the double wallsIII. silver coating on the inside of the double walls(a) I (b) II and III(c) III (d) I and III

133. The temperature at the top of a frozen lake is 15"C. What is the temperature of the water in thelake in contact with the ice layer?.(a) 0 °C (b) 4 °C(c) -4 "C (d) 1 °C

134. The ratio of the sizes of a Fahrenheit degree to aCelsius degree is(a) 9/5 (b) 5/9(c) 2/6 (d) 3/9

135. The quantity of heat energy taken up by a bodydepends on(a) density, mass and temperature of the body(b) mass, specific heat of the material and the

temperature change(c) density, volume and temperature change(d) surface area, volume and . temperature of the

body136. If water in a lake were to behave like other liquids,

then in extremely cold weather, it would freeze(a) from top to bottom(b) from bottom to top(c) 'simultaneously throughout the depth(d) first on the surface, bottom and sides and then

in the interior

137. In the process of fusion,I. the temperature does not changeII. the kinetic energy changesIII. the _potential energy increasesIV. the distance between molecules on an average

increases(a) I and IV (b) I, II and III(c) 11 and IV (d) I, III and IV

138. 'Arrange in descending order of wavelength (longto short) :I. InfraredII. UltravioletIII. Gairima raysIV. 'Microwaves(a) IV, I, II, III (b) I, IV, II, III(c) I, II, III, IV (d) III, II, I, IV

139. In'the visible spectrum, the lowest frequency is for(a) violet (b) blue(c) orange (d) red

140. Radio reception is adversely affected during daybecause of(a) the magnetic field of the earth(b) noise from traffic(c) sunlight(d) too many radio stations

142. broadcasting at the same time Television signalscan be received these days at any place on earthRadio signals are unaffected by earth's curvature(a) A and R are true and R explains A(b) A and R are true but R does not explain A(c) A is true but R is not true(d) A is not true but R is true

142. A wave in which the particles of the material moveup and down as the waves goes from left to rightis known as(a) longitudinal (b) transverse(c) sound (d) compressional

143. Which one of the following gives the correctascending order by energy content?(a) Radio, gamma, X-ray, infrared(b) Radio, micro, ultra-violet, X-ray

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(c) Micro, radio, infra-red, X-ray(d) Infra-red, ultraviolet, X-ray, micro

144. The shadow of a cloud on the ground is the samesize and shape as the cloud itself because the sun'srays are(a) not very numerous(b) highly diverging(c) practically parallel(d) all coming to a single point

145. The sun and 'moon appear elliptical near the horizon.It is(a) because of refraction(b) an optical illusion(c) interference phenomenon(d) their actual shape

146. The length of time it takes for light to go from thesun to the earth is about(a) 173 hrs. (b) 8 min(c) 50 sec (d) 2 min

148. A person's spectacles have a power of -2.0. Thespectacles have and are1. converging lens2. diverging lens3. for short sight4. for long sight(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

150. A standard candle and an electric lamp are foundto produce equal illumination on a screen when thecandle is 1 ft away and the lamp is 5 ft away. Therating of the lamp, in candles, is(a) 0.2 (b) 0.04(c) 5 (d) 25

151. The working of optical fibres is based on theof electromagnetic waves.(a) refraction (b) reflection(c) total internal reflection (d) polarisation

152. A device for comparing the luminous intensities oftwo light sources is(a) photometer (b) projection lantern(c) camera (d) epidiascope

153. A small hole in the window of a closed room formsan inverted image of an outside tree on the opposite

wall of the room. This happens because(a) of the rectilinear propagation of-tight(b) the hole acts as a prism(c) the rays suffer refraction(d) the rays of light suffer lateral inversion on

entering the hole154. When a man walks directly towards a vertical plane

mirror at a speed of 4 ft/sec, he(a) approaches his image at the rate of 4 ft/sec(b) recedes from his image at the rate of 4 ft/sec(c) approaches his image at the rate of 8 ft/sec(d) stays at a constant distance from his image

155. Which part of the camera is analogous to the retinain the human eye?(a) Aperture (b) Lens(c) Films (d) Shutter

157. A convex mirror makes a good rear-view mirrorfor a car because(a) it does not form diminished images(b) it has no focal point(c) its images can be thrown on a screen(d) it forms erect, reduced images

158. The comic mirrors seen in amusement parks havereflecting surfaces that are(a) entirely concave(b) irregularly curved(c) convex and spherical(d) plane at all points

159. When a person enters a dark room from brightlight, he is not able to see clearly for a little whilebecause the(a) eye is unable to adjust itself immediately(b) his iris is unable to dilate the pupil immediately(c) distance between the lens and retina takes time

to adjust(d) retina becomes insensitivemomentarily

160. What is the principal difference in constructionbetween reflecting and refracting astronomicaltelescopes?(a) In the reflecting instrument, a concave mirror

replaces the objective lens (converging) of therefracting telescope

(b) In the reflecting instrument, a convex mirror

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replaces the objective lens (converging) of therefracting telescope

(c) In the reflecting instrument, a convex lensreplaces the objective lens (converging) of therefracting telescope

(d) In the reflecting instrument, a concave lensreplaces the objective lens (converging) of therefracting telescope

161. The colour of the outer edge of the rainbow will be(a) purple (b) red(c) violet (d) yellow

162. The effect produced in the eye by a mixture ofpurple and yellow light will be(a) white (b) blue-violet(c) green (d) blue-green

163. To an astronaut, outer space appears(a) white (b) black(c) deep blue (d) crimson

164. A tailor, wishing to match thread for a blue overcoat,should do so(a) under a blue light (b) under a yellow light(c) near a window (d) in any light

165. A certain piece of paper looks red in red light butblack in blue light. When seen in daylight, it mayappear(a) colourless (b) white(c) blue (d) red

166. The sun appears deep orange-red before insetsbecause(a) it is hotter at the end of the day(b) red light is least scattered(c) it emits only orange-red light(d) the other colours get absorbed

167. When seen through a piece of red glass, the leavesof a plant(a) appear almost black(b) become nearly invisible(c) are seen in their natural\ colour(d) take on a bluish hue

168. The phenomenon of polarisation demonstrates thatlight waves are(a) transverse

(b) longitudinal(c) both longitudinal and transverse(d) none of the above

169. The sensation of colour is associated with the(a) frequency of light(b) wavelength of light(c) speed of light(d) amplitude of light wave

170. All the colours in a TV screen are produced from1. red 2. blue3. green 4. yellow(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 arid 4(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4

171. The factors responsible for the refraction of lightare(a) frequency of light(b) optical density(c) angle of incidence of the medium(d) mean density

172. At about 500°C, a body emits(a) white light(b) infra-red radiation(c) ultraviolet rays(d) all the above

173. The focal length of a lens is 50 cm. Its power is(a) 50 dioptres (b) 20 dioptres(c) 2 dioptres (d) 0.2 dioptre

174. If the angle of incidence is equal to the criticalangle, the angle of refraction will be(a) 45" (b) 180°(c) 90° (d) 250

175. Red light differs from blue light in(a) velocity (b) wavelength(c) intensity (d) pitch

176. The colour of light which is bent the least by theprism in a spectrum of white light is(a) red (h) green(c) violet (d) white

177. Which of the following statements are correct?1. In dim light, the pupils of the eye dilate to

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admit more light2. The two sets of images of an object seen by

the two eyes are identical3. The lens in the eye can alter its focal length4. Stereoscopic vision helps one to judge vision(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

178. If the density of a matter is 80 kg/m3 then whatwill be its relative density?(a) 8 (b) 0.8(c) 0.08 (d) 0.008

179. An electric iron of 750 W is operated at 250 V. Itscurrent rating is(a) 3A (b) 5A(c) 7A (d) 10A

180. A lens acts as a divergent lens when placed inwater and as a convergent lens when placed in air.The refractive index of the lens could be(a) 1.01 (h) 1.3(c) 1.33 (d) 1.50

181. On which of the following factors does thetemperature of steam in a pressure cooker depend?(a) Material of which cooker is made(b) Temperature of the flame(c) Quantity of cooking material(d) Size of the pressure cooker

182. A bomb is dropped at a point from a movingaeroplane. The pilot observes that(a) the bomb traverses a curved path and falls

some distance behind that point(b) the bomb traverses a curved path and falls

some distance ahead(c) the bomb drops vertically downward(d) the bomb remains stationary in the air for some

time183. Consider the two statements given below, one

labelled the Assertion(A) and the other Reason (R).(A): Radio does not work in a moving train unless

aerial is put outside the window

(R): The train compartment acts as a hollow cylinderand charge is centred which does not allow aradio to work Which one of the followingstatements is correct?

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correctexplanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correctexplanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false(d) A is false but R is true

184. Consider the two statements given below, onelabelled the Assertion(A) and the other Reason (R).(A): In a circular motion, linear velocity of object is

not constant.(R): In circular motion, direction of motion changesrapidly.Which one of the following statements is correct?(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A(b) Both A and. R are true but R is not the correct

explanation of A(c) A is true but R is false(d) A is false but R is true

185. If a mirror is rotated through 20 degrees, then thereflected beam will get rotated through an angle of(a) 10° (b) 20"(c) 30" (d) 40"

186. Two columns of equal height and same thicknessare filled with mercury and water. The pressureexerted by the mercury column will be greater thanthe pressure exerted by the water column by(a) 13.6 times (b) 13600 times(c) 1/13600 times (d) 1/13.6 times

187. If the length of a simple pendulum is doubled whatwill happen to its period?(a) It will also be doubled(b) It will become one-fourth(c) It will be ji times(d) It will not change

188. Ultraviolet radiation of the sun does not reach the

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earth extensively as the upper layers of theatmosphere contain(a) oxygen (b) ozone-(c) carbon monoxide (d) fluorocarbon

189. The density of ice is 900 kg m What fraction of thevolume of a piece of ice will be above water, whenfloating in fresh water of density 1000 kg m 1?(a) 0.09 (b) 0.10(c) 0.083 (d) 0.97

190. When the temperature of the liquid increases, thesurface tension of the liquid(a) increases(b) decreases(c) remains the same(d) first increases and then decreases

191. Which one of the following is the correctarrangement in the decreasing order of the refractiveindices of glass, diamond and water?(a) Glass, water, diamond(b) Water, glass, diamond(c) Diamond, water, glass(d) Diamond, glass, water

192. When light passes from air into glass, it experienceschange in(a) frequency and wavelength(b) frequency and speed(c) wavelength and speed(d) frequency, wavelength and speed

193. A laboratory instrument requires the use of a 6 volt,30 watt lamp, but the only potential source availableis 120 volt. In this connection, which of the followingare possible or should be done?1. It is possible to connect a esistor in such a way

as to permit the proper use of a lamp2. Resistor should be connected in series with the

lamp3. Resistor should have a resistance of 18 ohms

Select the correct answer from the codes givenbelow:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

194. The cathode in a vacuum tube is coated with oxide

of barium or thorium. The purpose of the coating isto(a) reduce space charge(b) protect the cathode from overheating(c) give a copious supply of thermo-electrons(d) control the flow of current in the tube

195. When milk is churned, the creamseparates from it due to the(a) cohesive force(b) centrifugal force(c) frictional force(d) gravitational force

196. During the fermentation of sugar, the enzyme whichconverts glucose into ethyl alcohol is(a) invertase (b) diastase(c) zymase (d) maltase

197. A spherical balloon carries a uniform distribution ofelectric charge over its surface. The electric fieldis maximum at a point(a) away from the surface(b) just on the surface(c) just inside the surface(d) very close to its centre

198. Which of the following compounds are responsiblefor "acid rain"?1. Nitrogen dioxide2. Silicon dioxide3. Sulphur dioxide4. Carbon monoxide(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

199. Which one of the following is the most effectivecarrier of information?(a) Cables (b) Microwaves(c) Radiowaves (d) Optical fibres

200. Bionics is the science of(a) application of mathematics to the study of living

things(b) application of the knowledge of the living world

characteristic to the world of machines(c) study of relation of an organism to its

environment(d) study of laws of life

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201. To avoid 'knocking' of the engine of a car, certaincompounds are added to petrol. Which of thefollowing is known as an antiknocking agent?(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) White petrol(c) Tetraethyl lead (d) Butane

202. Which one of the following compounds is used asa sedative ?(a) Potassium bromide(b) Calcium chloride(c) Ethyl alcohol(d) Phosphorus trichloride

203. Which one of the following statements about'Nuclear Fission' is not true?(a) A heavy nucleus breaks up into two smaller

nuclei(b) A large amount of energy is released in the

form of light and heat(c) More than one neutron is released in the process

of nuclear fission(d) Chemical energy is converted into heat and

light energy204. Match List I with List II and select the correct

answer using the codes given below the lists.List I (Device) List II (Conversion)A. Battery charger 1. Electrical energy

into mechanicalenergy

B. Battery 2. Mechanical energyinto electrical energy

C. Washing 3. Chemical enmachineergy into electricalenergy

D. Dynamo 4. Electrical energyinto chemical energy

A B C D(a) 4 3 1 2(b) 4 3 2 1(c) 1 2 3 4(d) 3 4 1 2

205. In certain amino acids, which one of the followingelements is found in addition to carbon, hydrogen,nitrogen and oxygen?

(a) Sulphur (b) Phosphorus(c) Zinc (d) Calcium

206. Which of the following statements is/are true?I. Sound is a form of energyIL Sound stops when vibration of an object stopsIII. Sound is a transverse waveIV. Sound travels better in a heavy gas than in a

light gas(a) I and II (b) I, II and III(c) I, II and IV (d) I and III

207. The quality of a sound depends upon the size of thevibrating body material of the vibrating bodyovertones produced shape of the vibrating bodyI, II and IIII, II, III and IVI and IIIII, III and IV(a) I, II and III (b) I, II, III and IV(c) I and III (d) II, III and IV

208. Ultrasonic waves can1. kill pests and insects2. clean clothes by shaking dirt out of them3. help in diagnosis of diseases4. operate automatic doors(a) 1 and 3 (b) 3 and 4(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

209. The speed of sound in Air with increase intemperature.(a) decreases(b) increases(c) increases or decreases depending upon the

medium(d) is unaffected

210. The throwing back of waves from an obstacle iscalled(a) refraction (b) reflection(c) dispersion (d) scattering

211. Sound is produced in a trumpet by the vibration ofthe(a) air column (b) reed(c) lips (d) metal casing

212. Moon has a gravitation force 6 that of earth. Thevelocity of sound waves on the surface of the moonwill be(a) 340 ms--1 (b) 340/0 ms'(c) 340 ¥ 6 ms-1 (d) 0

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213. Sonar is mostly used by(a) doctors (b) astronauts(c) engineers (d) navigators

214. In a fire siren, a jet of air is directed against aseries of evenly spaced holes in a rotating disc. Asthe disc speeds up, the tone(a) maintains constant pitch(b) drops in pitch(c) increases in wavelength(d) increases in frequency

215. Put in ascending order of speed of sound in medium:I. 'waterII. steelIII. nitrogen(a) III, II, I (b) I, III, II(c) III, I, II (d) II, I, III

216. As a man moves directly away from a steady sourceof sound at constant speed, the sound he hears will(a) remain constant in both pitch and loudness(b) stay constant in pitch but decrease in loudness(c) increase in frequency and intensity(d) decrease in frequency and intensity

217. An apparent change in the frequency of receivedwaves due to relative motion of source and receiveris called(a) seeback effect (b) doppler effect(c) parallax (d) none of these

218. The main factor that determines the pitch of a toneis(a) frequency of sound waves(b) amplitude of sound waves(c) velocity of sound waves(d) intensity of sound waves

219. When the amplitude of a set of sound wavesincreases then the intensity of the sound(a) increases(b) decreases(c) first decreases and then increases(d) first increases and then decreases

220. The unit most commonly used to specify the intensityof a sound is(a) Newton (b) Candela(c) Hertz (d) Decibel

221. Two sound waves of the same amplitude can bedistinguished from each other by knowing their

(a) wavelength (b) time period(c) pitch (d) pitch and wavelength

222. Sound travels faster in air if(a) frequency is higher (b) pitch is smaller(c) humidity is high (d) wavelength is small

223. A concert hall has too long a reverberation time.Of the following, the best way to correct. thecondition would be to(a) hang large mirrors on the walls(b) lay heavy carpeting on the lfoor(c) install a curved ceiling(d) limit the size of the audience

224. The waves produced in the sea when an explosiontakes place at the bottom of the sea will be(a) transverse(b) stationary(c) longitudinal(d) transverse and longitudinal

225. Drums, bells, the, xylophone, marimba, etc., are allexamples of(a) string instruments(b) wind instruments(c) percussion instruments(d) None of the above

226. As the length of a vibrating column increases, itsfrequency(a) increases(b) decreases(c) remains the same(d) increases if the vibrating column is not air

227. Mach number is used in connection with the speedof(a) spacecraft (b) aircraft(c) sound (d) ships

228. The least distance between two walls before adistinct echo can be produced is about(a) 45 ft (b) 65 ft(c) 55 ft (d) 35 ft

229. Galton's whistle produces longitudinal waves offrequencies between(a) 10 KHz and 100 KHz(b) 3 KHz and 50 KHz(c) 50 KHz and .100 KHz

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(d) none of the above230. An instrument constructed basically to study the

behaviour of the vibrating strings is(a) hydrometer (b) fathometer(c) sonometer (d) tachometer

231. A glass rod placed in a colourless liquid seems todisappear when the(a) liquid and the glass have the same colour(b) liquid wets the glass by capillarity .(c) glass and the liquid are of the same density(d) glass and the liquid have the same refractive

index232. Consider the following statement.

If there were no capillarity,1. it would be impossible to use a kerosene lamp2. one would not be able to use a straw to consume

a soft drink3. the blotting paper would fail to function4. there would have been no plants on earth(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct(b) 2 and 4 are correct(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct(d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

234. Which of the following are the conditions of SimpleHarmonic Motion?1. The motion is periodic2. The force is directed towards normal equilibrium

position3. The motion is linear4. Force is proportional to the velocity Select the

correct answer using the codes given below:(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4(c) 1, 2 and. 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

235. A block of ice is floating in a beaker containing aliquid of specific gravity greater than one. Whenthe ice melts completely, the level of the liquid inthe beaker(a) remain the same as before the ice melted(b) will go down(c) will rise up(d) fnay or may not change depending upon the

size of beaker237. When sound waves travel from air to water, the

quantity that remains unchanged is(a) speed (b) frequency(c) wavelength (d) intensity

238. Two converging lenses of equal focal length 'f' areplaced in contact. The focal length of thecombination is(a) f/2 (b) f(c) 2f (d) 4f

239. Two bar magnets of equal length and magneticmoment are placed symmetrically one upon the otherwith their unlike poles in the same direction. Themagnetic moment of the combination is(a) zero (b) m/2(c) m (d) 2m

240. Two identical bar magnets are placed side by side,with like poles together. The combination will(a) repel iron nails(b) pick up bits of steel, but not iron(c) fail to attract a cobalt rod(d) pick up more iron filings than one such magnet

241. If one end of a soft iron rod is held close to the Spole of a strong magnet(a) the far end of the rod will not attract iron filings(b) i the rod will spring away as soon as it is

released(c) there will be, temporarily, a S pole near the

other end of the rod(d) the rod will be a strong magnet after the bar

magnet is removed242. The region near a magnet or magnets where the

(magnetic) effect is appreciable is the(a) magnetic intensity(b) magnetic pole(c) magnetic equator(d) magnetic field

243. The line joining the places of zero declination arecalled(a) isogonic lines(b) agonic lines(c) isoclinic lines(d) aclinic lines

244. At the magnetic poles, the angle of dip is(a) 90° (b) 0°(c) 180° (d) 270°

245. Which of the following statements is/are false?A. Iron is more easily magnetised than steelB. Steel is more easily demagnetised than iron

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C. Steel produces a stronger magnet than ironD. Steel keeps its magnetism such longer than iron(a) A and B (b) A and C(c) B and C (d) C and D

246. A magnetised needle free to pivot in any directionwill come to rest in a horizontal position when at(a) the south magnetic pole(b) the north magnetic pole(c) a place about 1,500 miles from the north

magnetic pole(d) a place about midway between the north and

south magnetic poles247. Iron is used in electromagnets because it

(a) produces a stronger magnet(b) can be magnetised easily(c) can be demagnetised easily(d) keeps its magnetism for a longer time

248. A vertical wire carries a heavy current flowingfrom bottom to top. A compass needle placed on atable just east of the wire will point(a) north (b) east(c) south (d) west

249. In our houses, we get 220 V A.C.What does the value 220 represent?(a) Constant voltage (b) Effective voltage(c) Average voltage (d) Peak voltage

250. The function of fuse in an electrical circuit is(a) to regulate the flow of current(b) to avoid electric shocks(c) to break the circuit in case of overloading or

short circuiting(d) to increase the resistance to lfow of current

251. A spiral coil is wound on an upright post, with thecurrent going around it in a clockwise direction asseen from above. Then it is true that the lines offorce will(a) enter the coil at the top(b) concentrate most just beyond the ends of the

coil(c) begin and end on various turns of a wire(d) decrease in number if the current is increased

252. Commonly used safety fuse-wire is made of(a) tin(b) lead

(c) nickel(d) an alloy of tin and lead

253. The force between two parallel wires carryingcurrent has been used to define the(a) vole (b) coulomb(c) watt (d) ampere

254. In general, when the temperature of a metal israised, its conductance(a) increases(b) decreases(c) remains the same(d) first decreases, then increases

255. One should not connect a number of electricalappliances to the same power socket because(a) this can damage the appliances(b) the appliances will not get full voltage(c) the appliances will not get proper current(d) this can damage the domestic wiring due to

overheating256. When an electric bulb breaks, there is a mild bang

due to(a) the chemical reaction between the enclosed

gases(b) the compressed gases rushing out suddenly(c) the air rushing in to fill the evacuated space(d) none of the above

258. A common fluorescent tube contains(a) sodium vapour(b) argon at low pressure(c) mercury vapour at low pressure(d) mercuric oxide and neon

259. Three resistors of 4, -6 and 12 ohms respectivelyare connected in parallel. The equivalent resistanceis(a) 2 ohms (b) 22 ohms(c) 12 ohms (d) 4 ohms

260. In a circuit containing only pure resistive elements,what becomes of all the energy originally suppliedby the battery?(a) It is converted into mechanical energy(b) It is converted entirely into heat(c) It is converted into light energy(d) None of the above happens

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261. Induced currents, flowing in small closed paths, inany conducting material placed in a varying mageticfield are(a) direct currents (b) indirect currents(c) eddy currents (d) lfow currents

262. What kind of current will be induced in a simple,rectangular coil rotating in a uniform magneticifeld?(a) An alternating current(b) A direct current(c) Both alternating and direct currents(d) Eddy currents

263. In which of the following cases does electromagneticinduction occur?(a) A current is started in a wire held near a loop

of wire(b) A current is stopped in a wire held near a loop

of wire(b) decreases the atomic number by one(c) increases the mass number by one(d) decreases the mass number by one

276. In a stable nucleus, the neutron/ proton ratio isapproximately(a) one(b) two(c) 1/2(d) none of the above

277. Which of the following are the discoveries ofEinsten?(a) Radioactivity and photoelectric effect(b) Radioactivity and theory of relativity(c) Theory of relativity and photoelectric effect(d) X-rays and photoelectric effect

267. Beta rays are(a) high-speed electrons(b) able to penetrate heavy armour plate(c) electromagnetic waves(d) fast protons

269. Radiocarbon dating technique is used to estimatethe age of(a) rocks (b) buildings(c) soil (d) fossils

270. The process by which energy is generated in thesun is

(a) fission of uranium(b) fusion of hydrogen(c) fusion of helium(d) None of the above

271. For every million atoms of radium in existence today,the number that will be left after 3,200 years will beabout (half-life of radium = 1590 yrs)(a) 125,000 (b) 500,000(c) 250,000 (d) 999,999

272. In any nuclear change, the quantities that remainthe same are(a) only the sum of the mass numbers on both

sides(b) only the total electrical charge on both sides(c) the sum of the mass numbers and the total

electrical charge on both sides(d) none

274. An isotope of ‘parent’ element is produced when itloses(a) one 0 particle(b) One a particle(c) two a and one p particle(d) one a and two particles

275. The emission of 0-particle(a) increases the atomic number by one(b) decreases the atomic number by one(c) increases the mass number by one(d) decreases the mass number by one

276. In a stable nucleus, the neutron/ proton ratio isapproximately(a) one (b) two(c) 1/2 (d) none of the above

279. The nuclides having the same number of neutronsbut different number of protons or mass numberare known as(a) isobars(b) isoelectronic(c) isotopes(d) isotones

280. A very high frequency wave originating in thenucleus of the atom and travelling with the speed oflight is the(a) alpha ray

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(b) beta ray(c) X-ray(d) gamma rays

281. The change of atoms of one element into atoms ofanother element accomplished either by bombardingthe atoms with radioactive particles or by naturalradioactive particles or by natural radioactivitydecay-process is known as(a) transfusion(b) transformation(c) transmutation(d) none of the above

282. A device used to accelerate charged particles,protons, deuterons and alpha particles and the nucleiof several of the elements of low mass is a(a) nuclear reactor(b) cyclotron(c) Geiger counter(d) betatron

283. Which of the following statements is/are true?A. The products of fusion reaction are generally

not radioactive.B. Energy liberated in the fusion reaction is much

greater than fission.C. Energy liberated in the fission reaction is much

greater than fusion.D. Products and by-products of fission reactions

can be easily disposed off.(a) A and C (b) A and B(c) B and D (d) Only A

284. A minute amount of a radioisotope is called a/an(a) ounce (b) pint(c) tracer (d) dram

285. Radioactive sodium is used(a) in detecting leaks in water mains(b) in treating thyroid diseases(c) for destroying cancerous growth(d) in dating old archaeological finds

286. The smallest amount of fissionable material whichwill support a self-sustaining nuclear reaction is(a) critical volume(b) critical mass(c) critical weight

(d) none of these287. The fact that the paths of cathode rays can be bent

by both electric and magnetic fields shows that they(a) are small magnets(b) carry an electric charge(c) are electromagnetic waves(d) contain atoms

288. A metal plate located near a hot filament will acquirea negative charge because(a) the filament releases electrons(b) the filament gives off protons(c) the plate gives positive atoms(d) the plate loses electrons by thermionic emission

289. ‘IC chips’ for computers are usually made of(a) lead (b) chromium(c) silicon (d) gold

290. The betatron is a device for(a) giving electrons high speeds(b) rectifying AC(c) detecting weak radio signals(d) charging storage batteries

291. X-rays are produced when electrons are(a) suddenly stopped(b) sent through a wire(c) neutralised(d) made to leave a hot wire

292. A vacuum tube that contains a filament, a grid anda plate is called a(a) diode(b) cathode ray tube(c) triode(d) X-ray tube

293. Emission of electrons from a material by incidentradiation is called(a) thermionic emission(b) photoelectric effect(c) Thomson effect(d) Edison effect

294. A series of changes that the computer makes onthe basic facts we give to it ‘is called(a) input(b) output

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(c) process(d) None of these

295. Which substance can be used as an anaesthetic?(a) Nitrous oxide(b) Carbon dioxide(c) Chlorine(d) Helium

296. Iron pipes are often coated with a layer of zinc toprevent corrosion. This process is termed(a) electroplating(b) galvanisation(c) annealing(d) vulcanisation

297. Chemically dry ice is(a) solid carbon dioxide(b) solid sulphur dioxide(c) ice formed from pure distilled water(d) a mixture of ice and common salt

298. Which of the following statements is not correct?(a) Phosphorus is an- element of the nitrogen family(b) Phosphorus exhibits allotropy(c) Phosphorus does not occur freely in nature(d) Calcium phosphate is used as a fertiliser

299. Of the following different forms of iron carbon ispresent in minimum amounts in(a) pig iron(b) cast iron(c) steel(d) wrought iron

300. Which substance is produced by fermentation?(a) Chlorine(b) Carbon dioxide(c) Nitrogen dioxide(d) Sulphur dioxide

301. ‘Gober gas’ contains mainly(a) carbon dioxide(b) acetylene(c) ethylene(d) methane

302. Rusting of iron is an example of(a) rapid oxidation(b) spontaneous combustion(c) slow oxidation

(d) reduction303. Chemically, vitamin C is

(a) ascorbic acid(b) acetic acid(c) tartaric acid(d) citric acid

304. The substance coated on plastictape-recorder tapes is(a) zinc oxide(b) manganese oxide(c) iron sulphate(d) iron oxide

305. The essential element in all organic compounds is(a) nitrogen (b) sulphur(c) carbon . (d) chlorine

306. The substance present in good amounts in the seaand adminis tered in certain deficiency diseases is(a) sodiun-t chloride(b) iodine(c) fluorine(d) iron

307. Excessive consumption of ethanol causes damageto the(a) lungs (b) liver(c) heart (d) kidneys

308. Proteins give a yellow coloration with(a) oxalic acid(b) nitric acid(c) phosphoric acid(d) hydrochloric acid

309. Acetyl salicyclic acid is commonly used as(a) a pain-killer(b) a sedative(c) a fertiliser(d) tear gas

310. The most abundant source of iron is(a) milk(b) green vegetables(c) beans(d) eggs

311. Starch gives a deep blue coloration with(a) bromine solution(b) chlorine solution(c) iodine solution

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(d) None of the above312. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) Potatoes are an important source of starch(b) Paper is mainly cellulose(c) Egg protein is insoluble in water(d) Fats are lighter than water and insoluble in it

313. For rural electrification and domestic cooking in India,the most appropriate and economic source wouldbe(a) nuclear energy(b) electricity(c) wind mills(d) biogas

314. Which of the following statements is true?(a) The slag formed in the blast furnace consists

of calcium carbonate(b) Annealed steels are softer than untreated

steels(c) Steel contains a higher percentage of carbon

than pig iron(d) The main ore of iron is siderite

315. Enamelware has a coating of(a) red lead (b) borosilicates(c) tin (d) glass

316. The difference between explosion and combustionis that(a) combustion takes place only in air while an

explosion can occur even without air(b) combustion is accompanied by loss of heat while

an explosion is accompanied by absorption ofheat

(c) combustion is a chemical reaction while anexplosion is caused by physical factors

(d) there is rapid increase of pressure inconfined spaces in case of an explosion,but no such change occurs duringcombustion

317. A solution of washing soda in water is(a) acidic (b) neutral(c) bleaching (d) alkaline

318. Match the following metals and their ores:I. Aluminium A. CinnabarII. Iron B. BauxiteIII. Copper C. MagnetiteIV. Mercury D. Malachite

(a) I-D, II-A, IV-C(b) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A(c) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D(d) I-A, II-B, IV-D

319. All acids contain the element(a) hydrogen (b) chlorine(c) oxygen (d) sulphur

320. Match the following columns:A. Haber’s process I. SilverB. Ostwald’s process II. AmmoniaC. Solvay process III. Nitric acidD. Parke’s process IV. Sodium carbonate(a) A-I, B-II, D-IV(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I(c) A-II, C-IV, D-I(d) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

321. Match the following columns:A. Liquid I. Nitrogenousoxygen fertiliserB. Ureaagent II. DehydratingC. Sulphuric acid III. Bleaching agentD. Hydrogen IV. Rocket fuel

peroxide(a) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I(b) A-IV, B-I, C-lI, D-III(c) A-I, B-11, C-III, D-IV(d) A-II, C-IV, D-I

322. In the manufacture of bread, the dough rises becauseof(a) the action of heat in the baking process(b) the releasing action of carbon dioxide

formed during the fermentation process(c) the capillary action of water in the dough(d) the evaporation’of water used in kneading the

dough323. A solution of a pH of 11 is

(a) more alkaline than a solution of pH 8(b) less alkaline than a solution of pH 8(c) more acidic than a solution of pH 8(d) neither acidic nor alkaline

324. An acid used to remove ink-spots is(a) oxalic acid (b) butyric acid(c) lactic acid (d) tartaric acid

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325. Which of the following characterise a virus?1. Mutation2. Replication3. Production of energy4. Can be crystallised(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 4

326. Regarding bacteriophages, it is true to say that1. it is a virus which infects a bacterium2. it consists of protein and nucleic acid3. it has both DNA and RNA(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only

327. Root nodules are formed by the symbioticrelationship between a leguminous plant and(a) bacteria (b) fungus(c) algae (d) retrovirus

328. Green sulphur bacteria and purple sulphur bacteriaobtain their food by(a) chemosynthesis(b) photosynthesis(c) parasitism(d) mutualism with fungi

329. Which of the following would come together in agroup ?1. Bat IL WhaleIII. Silver fish IV. Pigeon(a) I, III and IV(b) I and II(c) I and i4.7(d) II and III

330: The liverfluke could be a serious infection where(a) people eat raw fish(b) people walk barefoot in muddy places(c) there are swamps(d) polished rice is eaten

331. Segmented worms possess1. digestive tract2. circulatory system3. heart4. haemoglobin(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2(c) 2 and3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

332. Which of the following is/are living fossil?1. Pinus 2. Dryoperis3. Ginkgo 4. Cycas(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

333. Chromosome number in a bacteria is(a) 1 (b) 2(c) none (d) variable

334. Where would the bacterium E. coli be readily found?(a) Soil(b) Ponds(c) Human intestine(d) Refuse dumps

335. ‘Sulphur’ shower is associated with(a) volcanic eruptions(b) pollen grains of pinus- forming yellow

clouds in air(c) sudden discharge of sulphur compounds in the

air from mines(d) acid rain

336. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?(a) Ephedrine, a drug for asthmaconifer(b) Dryopteris, a vermifuge-fern(c) Aspergillus, flavouring agent for candies-fungus(d) Irish moss, an ingredient of creams and

shampoos-bryophyte337. Which of the following is wrong?

(a) Bread mould - mucor(b) Thrush disease - yeast(c) Alga-fungal - lichen

symbiosis(d) Mildewing of - Powderymildew

clothing338. Which of the following is capable of flying?

(a) Cassowary (b) Emu(c) Ostrich (d) Albatross

339. The movement of mimosa (touchme-not) is sensitiveto touch. This is an example of(a) chemotropism(b) phototropism(c) turgor changes(d) geotropism

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340. Which of the following groups has a misplaced item?(a) Sea-anemones, jelly-fish, hydra(b) Crayfish, lobsters, prawns, water-flea(c) Grasshoppers, flies, ants, ticks(d) Snails, oysters, slugs

341. Which of the following is/are not homoiothermic?1. Crocodiles 2. Seals3. Penguins 4. Frogs(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4

342. If a bottle cork is chemically analysed it will befound to contain mainly(a) lipids(b) carbohydrates(c) proteins(d) auxins

343. Which of the following are modifications of stems?1. Turmeric 2. Gingers3. Arrowroot 4. Garlic(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

344. If excess fertiliser is applied without water to aplant, the plant(a) will be stunted in growth(b) develops modifications(c) will die due to plasmolysis(d) will remain unaffected

345. A nail is driven into a 6-metre tall tree at a distanceof one metre from the ground. If the tree grows atthe rate of one metre a year at what height fromthe ground will the nail be in five years?(a) 5 metres (b) 6 metres(c) 9 metres (d) 1 metre

346. Which of the following statements regarding nitrogennutrition of plants is wrong?(a) Green plants can fix nitrogen from the

atmosphere into nitrates(b) Only a few prokaryotes can fix atmospheric

nitrogen into nitrates

(c) The problem of nitrogen fertilisers could bereduced if Rhizobium can be grown in the rootsof cereal plants

(d) Legumes do not require nitrogen fertilisers347. Which of the following micro organisms are involved

in nitrogen fixation?1. Blue green algae2. Rhizobium3. Azotobacter(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

348. During sleep, a man’s blood pressure(a) increases(b) decreases(c) remains constant(d) lfuctuates

349. Match List I with List II and select the correctanswer by using the codes given below the lists.

List I List IIA. Laws of Heredity 1. de VriesB. Mutation theory 2. MendelC. DNA double helix 3. DarwinD. Natural selection 4. Watson and Crick(a) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3(d) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

350. Which of the following forms an irreversible complexwith haemoglobin of blood?(a) Carbon dioxide(b) Pure nitrogen gas(c) Carbon monoxide(d) A mixture of carbon dioxide

351. Roundworms can be removed from the intestine ofthe man by administering(a) tetracycline hydrochloride.(b) penicillin (intramuscular)(c) piperazine citrate(d) enteroquinol

352. Sugar syrup is used for the preservation of fruitsbecause it(a) kills the microorganisms present in them(b) helps to improve their taste and flavour

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(c) drains moisture to inhibitg rowth ofmicroorganisms

(d) mixes well with the fruits353. One of the characters that distinguishes a frog from

a toad is(a) tail (b) warts skin(c) tongue (d) external ear

354. Which one of the following combinations ofchromosomes is present in males?(a) XXX (b) XX(c) XYX (d) XY

355. Match List I with List II and select the correctanswer by using the codes given below the lists.

List I List IIA. Vitamin C 1. RicketsB. Vitamin D 2. Blood

coagitationC. Vitamin E 3. ScurvyD. Vitamin K 4. Anti-sterility(a) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2(b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4(c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2(d) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

356. In peas, tall plant habit is dominant over dwarf. Ifa homozygous for tall is crossed with onehomozygous for dwarf what will be the appearanceof the offspring of a cross 171 with its tall parent?(a) All tall(b) All dwarf(c) 50% tall and 50% dwarf(d) 75% tall and 25% dwarf

357. Which one of the following statements is correct?(a) All enzymes are proteins(b) All proteins are enzymes(c) Some enzymes are proteins(d) Only bacterial enzymes are not proteins

358. The red colour of ripe tomatoes is due to thepresence of(a) chlorophyll (b) carotenoids(c) vitamins (d) hormones

359. Which one of the following organisms is requiredfor the preparation of alcohol?(a) Protozoa (b) Fungi

(c) Bacteria (d) Viruses360. Triple antigen is administered to prevent the attack

of(a) diphtheria, tetanus and tuberculosis(b) tetanus, tuberculosis and malaria(c) diphtheria, tetanus and whooping cough(d) diphtheria, tetanus and malaria

361. The study of the interaction of antigens andantibodies is called(a) argiology(b) haematology(c) serology(d) cryobiology

362. A vein is a vessel that carries blood(a) with high concentration of oxygen(b) with high concentration of carbon dioxide(c) towards the heart(d) away from the heart

363. Pace-maker is also known as(a) A.V. Node(b) Bundle of His(c) S.A. Node(d) Chordae tendinae

365. Which one of the following is a ‘Pin worm’?(a) Ankyclostoma(b) Wucheria(c) Ascaris(d) Oxyuris

366. Which one of the following is known as the silentkiller?(a) Blood pressure(b) Tuberculosis(c) Cholera(d) Malaria

367. Protein in food is digested in living tissues in variousstages. An enzyme which helps in the digestion ofproteins is(a) crease (b) sulfatase(c) trypsin ‘ (d) protease

368. In biology, a change which occurs suddenly andwhich will be inherited later is known as(a) Linkage

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(b) Crossing-over(c) Hybridisation(d) Mutation

369. Which of the following characteristics of virus bestdenote its unique nature?1. It can attack bacteria2. It can be crystallised3. It can replicate4. It can invade human body(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

370. A deficiency in the secretion of hormone from thethyroid gland leads to(a) sluggishness and growth retardation(b) high blood pressure(c) delayed development of secondary sex

characteristics(d) defective carbohydrate metabolism

371. Prolonged consumption of pigeon pea (arhar or turdal) adulterated with kesari dal (Lathyrus sativus)leads to(a) dropsy(b) glaucoma.(c) liver cirrhosis .(d) paralysis

372. Which of the following diseases is/are likely to spreadin the entire community if a leaky septic tankcontaminates the water supply?1. Cholera2. Typhoid3. Tuberculosis4. Leprosy(a) 1 (b) 1 and 2(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

373. A scientist was treating pathogenic bacteria withdifferent chemicals to see which of them wouldstop the activity of their ribosomes. Which one ofthe following processes is the target?(a) DNA synthesis(b) Protein synthesis(c) Digestion of proteins(d) Production of adenosine triphosphate

374. The wavelength of light least effective inphotosynthesis is(a) red (b) green

(c) blue (d) violet375. In which of the following plants would metabolism

be hindered if the leaves are coated with wax ontheir upper surface?(a) Lotus (b) Cactus(c) Hydrilia (d) Banana

376. Chlorosis is(a) excess pigmentation in plants(b) the yellowing of leaves due to low

chlorophyll content(c) absence of chlorophyll(d) inability to use chlorophyll

377. Which of the following is the most appropriatereason for storing green coloured apples at lowtemperatures?(a) Inhibit photosynthesis(b) Reduce respiration(c) Ripe them quickly(d) None of the above

378. When the dark period of a short day plant isinterrupted’ by a brief exposure of light, the plant(a) grows taller(b) will not flower(c) will flower immaturely(d) will be unaffected

379. During seed germination, which of the followingtakes place ?(a) Synthesis of fat(b) Synthesis of starch(c) Liberation of heat(d) Absorption of light

380. Which of the following is/are wrongly matched?1. Thigmotropism - contact2. Nastic - chemicals movement3. Parthenocarpic - gibberellins fruits4. Ripening of - acetylene fruits(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3(c) 2 and 4 (d) 4 only

381. Malphigian tubules are excretory organs in(a) annelids (b) birds(c) amphibians (d) insects

382. Consider the following statements:1. The spider is an insect.2. The spider has eight legs.

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3. The spider has no wings.Which of these statements is/are correct?(a) 1 and 5 (b) 2 and 3(c) 2 only (d) 3 only

383. Which of the following is not a characteristic of allarthropods?(a) Exoskeleton(b) Several pairs of jointed legs(c) Segmented bodies(d) Compound eyes

384. Insects need not have(a) three distinct regions in their bodies(b) compound eyes(c) antennae(d) wings

385. The caterpillar is the stage of the butterfly.(a) larval (b) pupal(c) nymph (d) imago

386. Taste-sensitive organs(a) are lacking in insects(b) are located on the lower segments of the

insect’s legs(c) are abundant on the insect’s body(d) are on the antennae of insects

387. Bees are particularly sensitive to(a) red colour(b) green colour(c) ultraviolet light(d) no colour

388. Which of the following statements is/are true aboutthe body temperature of fish?1. It is usually a few degrees above that of its

environment2. It varies with the temperature of its surroundings3. It remains at a constant low temperature(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 only(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 2

389. There are groups of rings on fish scales. If therings lie close together, it indicates(a) a period when food was scarce(b) a period when food was plentiful a period when

the fish grew abruptly nothing special390. The main function of the fins in a fish is to

(a) propel the fish

(b) control the stability and direction of thefish’s movements

(c) provide buoyancy to the fish’s body(d) do all the above

391. A bird’s body has features adapting it for efficientflying. These include1. large and powerful pectoral muscles2. rigid skeleton3. hollow bones reducing the bird’s weight

arrangement of flight feathers(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

392. Birds have no(a) nerves(b) eyelid(c) sweat glands(d) solid bones

393. Which of the following is/are true of enzymes.1. Proteinaceous in nature2. Specific in nature3. Converted in chemical reactions4. Act on the substrate at any temperature(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

394. Which of the following is/are true of bile?1. It is an enzyme secreted by the liver2. It is a watery green fluid3. It is stored in the gall bladder4. It contains sodium chloride, sodium bicarbonate

and complex organic compounds(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

395. The colour of bile pigments is largely derived from(a) breakdown of haemoglobin from worn-out

cells(b) bile salts(c) undigested food(d) xanthophylls 396. Serum is(a) another name for plasma(b) plasma without fibrinogen(c) purified blood(d) None of the above

397. After death, the1. arteries are usually empty of blood

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2. blood in arteries clots3. veins are empty of blood4. veins are full of clots(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 only(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 only

398. The blood enters the aorta from(a) left ventricle(b) left auricle(c) right ventricle(d) right auricle

399. The sympathetic nerves originate from cells in the(a) brain(b) spinal cord(c) brain and spinal cord(d) muscles

400. Co-enzymes are mostly derived from(a) vitamin A(h) vitamin K(c) haemoglobin(d) vitamin B complex

401. The vitamin which is generally excreted by humansin urine is(a) vitamin A (b) vitamin D(c) vitamin C (d) none

402. A person who lives exclusively on milk, egg andbread is likely to become a victim of(a) rickets(b) scurvy(c) xerophthalmia(d) none of these

403. Which of the following vitamins and deficiencydiseases is wrongly matched?(a) Vitamin D - Osteomalacia(b) Niacin - Pellagra(c) Cobalamin anaemia - Pernicious(d) Riboflavin - Beri-beri

404. In rabbit and horse, the appendix(a) is very small(b) helps in digestion of cellulose(c) has no use(d) stores food

405. Salivary amylase acts most effectively in(a) a neutral solution

(b) an acidic solution(c) an alkaline solution(d) any state

406. The blind spot in the eye1. is where the nerve fibres leave the eye2. has no light sensitive cells3. is part of the fovea4. is well-developed in aged people(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and ,4(c). 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2

407. The adjustment of the pupil diameter in relation tointensity of light is(a) a reflex action(b) the work of rods(c) brought about by the ciliary muscle(d) not understood

408. Which of the following is/are true about stereoscopicvision ?1. It gives, a three-dimensional effect to the object

observed2. It helps one to judge distance3. It is well-developed in birds and animals with

eyes in the sides of their heads(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

409. Which of the following statements is/are true abouttears secreted by the glands under the top eyelids?1. It contains sodium bicarbonate2. It contains sodium chloride3. It contains an enzyme lysozyme which can

destroy bacteria4. It supplies oxygen to the cornea and crystalline

lens(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

410. In blue-eyed people, the(a) iris has no pigment(b) iris has black pigment(c) iris has blue pigment(d) choroid has blue pigment

411. A popping sound is heard in the ear when yawningor swallowing. This is caused by

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(a) air in the cochlea(b) the opening of the Eustachian tubes(c) air entering the perilymph(d) the moving of the jaws

412. Which of the following is wrongly matched part ofear and its function?(a) Pinna—help to concentrate and direct sound(b) Utriculus-sense of balance(c) Cochlea-sensory nerve endings which respond

to sound vibrations(d) Semicircular canalsequalising the air

pressure inside with atmospheric pressure413. Which of the following is not in the inner ear?

(a) Eustachian tube(b) Cochlea(c) Semicircular canals(d) Sacculus

414. The invok.ntary actions like breathing, heartbeat andbody temperature are controlled by the(a) cerebrum(b) cerebellum(c) medulla oblongata(d) hindbrain

415. A hormone1. passes directly into the bloodstream2. is catalytic in nature3. is manufactured in the endocrine glands4. is always a protein(a) 1 and 2 are true(b) 1, 2 and 3 are true(c) 1 and 3 are true(d) 1, 3 and 4 are true

416. The body’s thermostat is in the(a) pineal(b) hypothalamus(c) thyroid(d) pituitary

417. Which of the following is wrong regarding thedisease and day of rash appearance after incubation?(a) Chicken pox — 1st day(b) Measles - 1st day(c) German measles - 1st day(d) Scarlet fever - 2nd day

418. A woman exposed to rubella in the early weeks ofpregnancy may have a child who will be(a) blind(b) deaf and dumb(c) haemophilic(d) (a) or (b)

419. Which of the following has the shortest incubationperiod ?(a) Chicken pox(b) Mumps(c) Scarlet fever(d) Rubella

420. The period of isolation for chicken pox is(a) not less than 2 weeks(b) at least one week(c) until all the scabs have fallen off(d) ten days from appearance of rash

421. Which of the following has the shortest gestationperiod ?(a) Goat (b) Cow.(c) Buffalo (d) Camel

422. The kidney’s functions do not include(a) excretion of nitrogenous waste(b) osmoregu I a tion(c) re-absorption of bile salts(d) excretion of toxic materials

424. A victim of a road accident is unconscious. Put incorrect order the steps in first aid:1. Treating for cardiac arrest2. Treating for asphyxia3. Treating for shock4. Arrest haemorrhage5. Cleanse and cover wounds(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5(c) 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 (d) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4

425. Which of the following are involved in making up aDNA nucleotide?1. Phosphoric acid2. Deoxyribose sugar3. Nitrogenous base(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 ,(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3

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426. Which one of the following is an egg-layingmammal?(a) Spiny ant-eater(b) Scaly ant-eater(c) Bat(d) Whale

427. At which one of the following stages of mitosis dothe centromeres divide?(a) Beginning of anaphase(b) Beginning of telophase(c) End of metaphase(d) End of prophase

429. The hormone responsible for the secretion of milkin mothers is(a) Adrenalin(b) Lactogenic hormone(c) ACTH(d) Lentinizing hormone

430. Which of the following statements are true in relationto transpiration and water movements in plants?1. Removing all the leaves from a plant will reduce

the flow of water up the stem2. Covering both sides of leaf with a plastic film

will reduce both stomatal and cuticulartranspiration

3. Injecting detergents (which lower the surfacetension of water) into the xylem of treetrunkcould prevent water from reaching the upperbranches

4. Through most of its route in a plant, watermoves by diffusion either along cell walls oracross protoplasts

Select the correct answer using the codes givenbelow:(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

431. If algae suddenly disappear from the water bodiesthen all the other aquatic organisms like fish, prawnsand protozoans will die. This is because of(a) lack of food(b) lack of shelter(c) lack of food and oxygen(d) lack of algal mass increasing the oxygen demand

----------------

WORD ENGLISHDirections: Each of the following questions consists ofa word or phrase which is italicised bold in the sentencegiven. It is followed by certain words or phraSes: Selectthe word or Fiume which is closest to the opposite inmeaning of the italicised bold word or phrase.

7. Many people try to resist reforms in the Society.(a) repel (b) welcome(c) accept (d) fight

8. He was.always prepared to refute the idea .(a) agree (b) subscribe(c) recommend (d) endorse.

21. His appointment was confirmed last month(a) disappointment (b) discharge(c) suspension (d) dismissal

22. The Ganga is as deep in midstream as at the banks.(a) wide (b) narrow(c) hollow (d) shallow

23. Unsettled conditions in the land led to the exodusof hundreds of its citizens.(a) expulsion (b) invasion(c) immigration (d) entry

24. With the advent of Green. Revolution, India nowproduces sufficient quantity of food grains every year(a) short (b) inadequate(c) small (d) more

25. All his neighbours are aware of his acrimoniousnature.(a) informal (b) sympathetic(c) cooperative (d) charitable

26. Such a scene attracts the on lookers.(a) instigates (b) annoys(c) repels (d) revolts

39. He climbed up a stationary wagon.(a) moving (b) speeding(c) shunting (d) standing

40. He is in the habit of taking a casual leave quiteoften often.(a) futile (b) regular(c) formal (d) systematic

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30. He urges to learn everything.(a) desires (b) denies(c) dislikes (d) recommends

31. He was found guilty(a) true (b) right(b) innocent (d) correct

32. Honesty is the best policy(a) Sobriety (b) Deceit(c) Upristhaaess (d) Rectitude

34. William Wordsworth is celebrated for hi lucid style (a) notorious (b) unpopular (c) unknown (d) renowned35. The king consolidated the empire in to a powerful

nation.(a) divided (b) isolated .(c) fragniented (d) weakened.

36. It used to be said that travel broadens one’s outlook.(a) restricts (b) contracts(c) shrinks (d) narrows

37. He has enrolled himself to anelementary course inComputer.(a) secondary (b) tough(c) advanced (d) simple

41. A serene mind can never be the pioneer of agreat revolution.(a) nervous (b) jocular(c) earnest (d) agitated

42. Of all.the company on s of our joyous ascent ,there were only the two of us left.(a) decent (b) descent(c) descant (d) descendant

44. You must quote examples to support you statement.(a) reveal (b) restrain(c) contradict (d) adduce

45. Only an agile person. Can be a successfulsportsman.(a) brisk (b) emaciated(c) feeble (d) sluggish

46. Such lofty dreams can never come true.(a) puny (b) humble(c) insignificant (d) casual

47. The dccisieri to stop firing cross the border was a.ohilateral one.(a) collective (b) bilateral(c) multilateral (d) multiple

49. You can’t work out this project with nebulous plansin mind.(a) useful (b) practical(c) clear (d) fundamental

50. Be abandoned his family.(a) saved (b) supported(c) pleased (d) encouraged

Directions: In each of the following questions, arelated pair of words or phrases isfollowed by five letters pairs of words or phrases. Selectthe lettered pair thatbest expresses a relationship similarto that expresses in the original pair.

06. PRECIS :: ELABORATIONA. comprehension:: understandingB. revision : correctionC. simplification : decorationD. accuracy : abnormalityE. expurgation : distortion

13. DISINTERESTED :: UNBIASEDA. indulgent : intolerant

B. exhausted : energetic C. languid : lethargic D. unconcerned : involved

E. profligate : flippant01. MUSICIAN : VIRTUOSO

A. poet:: bardB. empress : subject.C. explorer : embarkationD. opportunist.: politicianE. controller : actor

05. BEACON :: LIGHTA. precept : principleB. shroud: cloudC. contradiction : confusionD. command : orderE. dagger : weapon

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06. PERENNIAL :: EPHEMERALA. volatile: evanescentB. mature : ripeC. diurnal : annualD. permanent temporaryE. majestic : mean

07. DIRECTORY :: ADDRESSA. list : numberB. catalogue : shopC. thesaurus : factD. dictionary : spellingE. encyclopedia : solecism

08. PRIMITIVE :: SOPHISTICATE .A. employee superiorB. socialite : recluseC. tyro : expert

09. TAP :: PUMMELA. tiptoe : stampB. hit : hurtC. lumber : stumbleD. talk : chatE. pump : water

10. TRAGEDY :: DRAMAA. farce : actorB. cartoon : filmC. prosody : poemD. accident : ambulanceE. epigram : anecdote

11. BOAST :: LANGUAGEA. glare : angerB. swagger :.gaitC. stare: sightD. groW : heightE. enrage : anger

15. DESECRATE :: HOLYA. despoil : beautifulB. beautify : uglyC. glamorize : richD. damage : corporealE. improve : dull

16. CONSPICUOUS :: VISIBLEA. sensual : audible

B. irrevocable : changedC. elastic : stretchedD. ignominious : denouncedE. sensitive : felt

17. PILOT :: SHIP A. surveyor : landscape

B. conductor : orchestraC. guard : stockadeD. actor : sceneE. philosopher : inspiration

12. BELITTLE : DISPARAGEA. jeopardize : protectB. efface : inscribeC. assuage : increaseD. deride : ridiculeE. decrease : augment

18. AUTHENTIC :: APOCRYPHALA. immune : dangerousB. conventional : unorthodoxC. pious : religiousD. eccentric : strangeE. reticent : chaotic19. TEMPER :: HARD

A. mitigate : severeB. provoke : angryC. endorse : toughD. infer : certainE. scrutinize : clear

20. STANZA :: POEMA. chapter : novelB. prose : verseC. stave : musicD. song : chorusE. overture : opera

03. PROLIFIC :: UNFRUITFULA. new : oldB. blooming : witheredC fertile : barrenD fresh : staleE fecund : fervid

05. NEEDLE :: PINEA. pin : cloth

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B. trunk : treeC. flower:: leafD. spine :cactusE. stalk : root

06. DERIDE :: RIDICULEA: jeopardize : protectB. assuage : increaseC. efface : inscribeD. decrease : augmentE belittle : disparage

07: REPREHENSIBLE : : PRAISEWORTHYA. pretentious : harmfulB. virulent : innocuousC. epidemic : widespreadD antiseptic : medicinalE admirable : laudable

09. EXPEDITE : : HASTENA. consaript downB Error: nuke harderC facilitate : make easierD. Satirize : PraiseE stretch : shrink

10. DIFFIDENT::CONFIDENCEA. obscure : peculiarityB. faithful : securityC. submissive.: equanimityD. fervid : vigorE. unstable.: balance

11. ERUDITE :: LEARNINGA. whinisical : capriceB. elegant : diplomacyC. generous : stinginessD. conscientious objectionE. orthodox : opinion

12. GRANDILOQUENT :: SIMPLEA. palatial : sybariticB. salacious : rumoredC. soporific : sporadicD. circumlocutory.: straightforwardE. magnificent : peaceful

13. APOCRYPHAL :: CERTAINTYA. conventional : orthodoxy

B. religious : pietyC. strange : incongruityD. chaotic : orderE. reticent :.restraint

17. MONOLOGUE :: ACTORA. solo : singerB. performance : orchestraC. prologue :bookD. repertoire : choirE. drama : author

18. STOIC :: FORTITUDEA. benefactor: generosityB. heretic : faithC. eccentric : ineptitudeD. miser : charityE. soldier : bravery

19. PEERS :: UNEQUAL A. comrades : unfriendly

B. compatriots : hostileC. collaborators : helpfulD. kinsfolk : relatedE. inferiors : submissive

20. DIPLOMAT :: TACT A. novice : expertise

B. virtuoso : skillC. sybarite : energyD. philanderer : restraintE. dilettante : profundity

Synonym & Antonym

1. remotea. automatic b. distantc. savage d. mean

2. detesta. argue b. hatec. discover d. reveal

3. graciousa. pretty b. cleverc. pleasant d. present

4. predicta. foretell b. decide

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c. prevent d. discover5. kin

a. exult b. twistc. friend d. relative

6. pensivea. oppressed b. cagedc. thoughtful d. happy

Which of these words is closest in meaning to theword provided?7. banish

a. exile b. hatec. fade d. clean

8. frauda. malcontent b. argumentc. imposter d. clown

9. saccharinea. leave b. sweetc. arid d. quit

10. draga. sleepy b. crushc. proud d. pull

11. joviala. incredulous b. merryc. revolting d. dizzy

12. indifferenta. neutral b. unkindc. precious d. mean

13. simulatea. excite b. imitatec. trick d. apelike

14. charismaa. ghost b. forcec. charm d. courage

15. apportiona. divide b. decidec. cut d. squabble

16. generica. general b. cheapc. fresh d. elderly

17. qualma. distress b. impunity

c. persevere d. scruple18. wary

a. calm b. curvedc. confused d. cautious

19. distorta. wrong b. evilc. deform d. harm

20. sumptuousa. delirious b. gorgeousc. perilous d. luxurious

21. reela. whirl b. ûshc. hit d. mistake

22. inscrutablea. difûcult b. mysteriousc. inûexible d. wary

23. appalla. delirious b. coveredc. dismay d. confuse

24. uprighta. honourable b. horizontalc. humble d. supine

25. reveriea. palimpsest b. phantomc. daydream d. curio

26. loota. destruction b. wastec. spoils d. cavort

27. loquaciousa. talkative b. thirstyc. beautiful d. complicated

28. chimeraa. chimney b. protestc. illusion d. panache

29. temeritya. audacity b. fearfulnessc. shyness d. stupidity

30. educea. demand b. elicitc. ideal d.unlawful

31. naboba. bigwig b. doubter

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c. frolic d. converse32. pall

a. light b. satiatec. carry d. horror

33. sacrosancta. prayer b. sanctuaryc. pious d. sacred

34. louchea. gauche b. ûnec. brilliant d. indecent

35. stentoriana. violent b. misbegottenc. loud d. stealthy

36. withdrawa. reduce b. needc. advance d. want

37. secreta. friendly b. covertc. hidden d. overt

38. heartfelta. loving b. insincerec. unhealthy d. humorous

39. impartiala. hostile b. biasedc. dislike d. worried

40. luminousa. clear b. dimc. brittle d. clever

41. awea. borrow b. shallowc. low d. contempt

Which of these words is most nearly the opposite ofthe word provided?42. pit

a. group b. peakc. select d. marry

43. rotunda. round b. unimportantc. thin d. dull

44. talenta. ungrateful b. silent

c. show d. inability45. common

a. strange b. uneasyc. quick d. fast

46. brazena. bashful b. boisterousc. noisy d. heated

47. expecta. attend b. regretc. despair d. loathe

48. malodorousa. acrid b. pungentc. fragrant d. delicious

49. expounda. besmirch b. confusec. conûne d. condemn

50. piquea. value b. gullyc. smooth d. soothe

51. abatea. free b. augmentc. provoke d. wane

52. eartha. lack b. povertyc. abundance d. foreign

53. peakeda. tired b. arrogantc. pointy d. ruddy

54. abridgea. shorten b. extendc. stress d. easy

55. kindlea. smother b. detestc. enemy d. discourage

56. meagera. kind b. generousc. thoughtful d. copious

57. philistinea. novice b. intellectualc. pious d. debutante

58. zenitha. worst b. apex

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c. nadir d. past59. germane

a. irrelevant b. indifferentc. impartial d. improvident

60. irasciblea. determined b. placid c.reasonable d. pliant

61. approbatea. ingratitude b. condemnc. dissatisfaction d. master

62. superciliousa. unimportant b. relevantc. serious d. meek

63. improvidenta. cautious b. fortunatec. proven d. intelligent

64. demura. embrace b. crudec. boisterous d. falter

65. fatuousa. crafty b. frugalc. sensible d. inane

66. quiescenta. lackadaisical b. activec. dull d. prescient

------

1. sartoriala. cheerful b. sincerec. inelegant d. homespun

2. sapienta. hunched b. strongc. simple d. simian

3. matutinala. paternal b. crepuscularc. maritime d. marsupial

4. impecuniousa. wealthy b. cautiousc. hungry d. tardy

5. modest most nearly meansa. attractive b. clever

c. current d. humble6. custom most nearly means

a. dessert b. habitc. ethic d. deliver

7. prolong most nearly meansa. extend b. inquirec. relax d. wait

8. hustle most nearly meansa. dance b. hurryc. busy d. clean

9. solemn most nearly meansa. amusing b. harmfulc. speech d. serious

10. imply most nearly meansa. suggest b. stabc. thick d. destroy

Select the word that most nearly means the wordprovided.11. ramble most nearly means

a. knot b. confusec. wander d. wonder

12. beneûcial most nearly meansa. help b. advantageousc. charity d. wise

13. ûare most nearly meansa. judicial b. temperc. style d. blaze

14. negligent most nearly meansa. pajamas b. morbidc. careless d. dark

15. aloof most nearly meansa. above b. tidyc. clever d. reserved

16. resolve most nearly meansa. turn b. puzzlec. decide d. want

17. congregate most nearly meansa. worship b. gatherc. disturb d. hurry

18. utter most nearly meansa. express b. defer

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c. borrow d. laugh19. fearless most nearly means

a. powerful b. cowardlyc. brave d. careful

20. negligible most nearly meansa. insigniûcant b. arguablec. careless d. dark

21. placid most nearly meansa. calm b. lazyc. solemn d. devious

22. rake most nearly meansa. thin b. scoundrelc. gentleman d. shovel

23. dupe most nearly meansa. rancher b. trickc. simpleton d. drug

24. stigma most nearly meansa. stain b. trialc. difûculty d. holiness

25. reside most nearly meansa. remain b. homec. dwell d. sediment

26. covetous most nearly meansa. quiet b. sneakyc. lurking d. greedy

27. abide most nearly meansa. endure b. hatec. attendance d. live

28. shrewd most nearly meansa. intractable b. meanc. astute d. intelligent

29. fetter most nearly meansa. rancid b. praisec. hamper d. persist

30. ûagrant most nearly meansa. vibrant b. glaringc. vicious d. pleasant

31. mitigate most nearly meansa. relieve b. blendc. defend d. confuse

32. rail most nearly meansa. scold b. push

c. try d. punish33. meld most nearly means

a. character b. distinctionc. blend d. ûrmness

34. rally most nearly meansa. demonstrate b. musterc. course d. truly

35. abject most nearly meansa. indigent b. desirec. despondent d. extreme

36. bespoke most nearly meansa. gentle b. quietc. tailored d. handsome

37. difûdent most nearly meansa. apathetic b. shyc. arrogant d. quarrelsome

38. proffer most nearly meansa. mendicant b. wastrelc. predict d. tender

39. mordant most nearly meansa. dead b. ruesomec. fetid d. caustic

40. churlish most nearly meansa. childish b. boorishc. tempestuous d. disorderly

41. antediluvian most nearly meansa. antiquated b. parchedc. non-sectarian d. nonsensical

42. picayune most nearly meansa. petty b. spicyc. paltry d. southern

43. smite most nearly meansa. ûee b. speckc. dirt d. strike

44. winnow most nearly meansa. carve b. windc. weed d. carry

45. detain is most opposite toa. release b. silencec. forget d. prosper

46. famous is most opposite toa. boring b. poor

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c. obscure d. untalented47. colossal is most opposite to

a. easy b. tinyc. graceful d. roof

48. ûuid is most opposite toa. solid b. liquidc. afraid d. decent

49. continue is most opposite toa. curve b. arguec. carry d. pause

50. labor is most opposite toa. amuse b. catc. rest d. strive

Select the word that is most opposite to the wordprovided.51. brawny is most opposite to

a. swift b. weakc. strong d. pale

52. ûckle is most opposite toa. steady b. kindc. please d. ûnagle

53. inept is most opposite toa. clumsy b. inferc. competent d. foolish

54. pivotal is most opposite toa. turning b. wavyc. unimportant d. clear

55 cursed is most opposite toa. swore b. piousc. unfortunate d. lucky

56. candid is most opposite toa. unkind b. bluntc. valid d. dishonest

57. ûaunt is most opposite toa. regard b. sinkc. hide d. propose

58 heal is most opposite toa. sew b. footc. good d. maim

59. pacify is most opposite to

a. excite b. landc. coddle d. unhand

60. sullen is most opposite toa. dirty b. cheerfulc. clean d. risen

61. assure is most opposite toa. alarm b. reassurec. quiet d. unsure

62. fallacious is most opposite toa. perfect b. truthfulc. accidental d. disarming

63. gumption is most opposite toa. seriousness b. apathyc. levity d. despair

64. ecstasy is most opposite toa. hate b. agonyc. languor d. fatigue

65. astute is most opposite toa. distraught b. carefulc. generous d. gullible

66. winsome is most opposite toa. dour b. attractivec. mysterious d. clever

67. droll is most opposite toa. forget b. charmc. sedate d. absurd

68. enigmatic is most opposite toa. healthy b. watchfulc. disastrous d. obvious

69. obtuse is most opposite toa. slim b. acutec. opaque d. thick

70. obsequious is most opposite toa. clear b. cleverc. domineering d. dandiûed

71. doleful is most opposite toa. empty b. richc. witty d. vivacious

72. wanton is most opposite toa. merciful b. repastc. brilliant d. vicious

73. banal is most opposite to

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a. sincere b. wealthyc. extraordinary d. trustworthy

74. lugubrious is most opposite toa. quick b. cheerfulc. salubrious d. dry

75. perspicacious is most opposite toa. calm b. easyc. dull d. winsome

76. elan is most opposite toa. inelegance b. stupidityc. obscure d. despair

77. recondite is most opposite toa. manifest b. ûexiblec. provident d. sociable

78. gainsay is most opposite toa. regret b. ownc. prudent d. prude

79. efûuvium is most opposite toa. land b. essentialc. fragrance d. solid

80. parsimony is most opposite toa. generosity b. sinfulnessc. verbosity d. tenderness

81. truculent is most opposite toa. faltering b. gentlec. facile d. submissive

82. spurious is most opposite toa. disingenuous b. thoughtlessc. placid d. genuine

83. welter is most opposite toa. order b. freezec. atron d. sustain

84. eclat is most opposite toa. apathy b. dullnessc. silence d. disinterest

85. depletea. decorate b. begc. exhaust d. hurry

86. voluntarya. willing b. charityc. prisoner d. careless

87. refute

a. garbage b. denyc. offer d. difûcult

88. cheata. stingy b. arguec. freckle d. defraud

89. miserablea. cruel b. wrongc. unhappy d. miss

90. vintagea. classic b. alcoholicc. disease d. spoiled

Which of these words most nearly means the wordprovided?91. tart

a. law b. cidc. angry d. desirable

92. cornera. display b. trapc. paint d. hurry

93. zesta. gusto b. cramc. worry d. trial

94. hagglea. tired b. climbc. decrease d. bargain

95. impela. force b. blockc. hinder d. discredit

96. thronga. garment b. bellc. mass d. weight

97. imperiala. bratty b. oppressivec. regal d. beautiful

98. diffusea. difûcult b. scatterc. incomprehensible d. unplug

99. hindera. lose b. loosec. despair d. check

100. latent

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a. dormant b. recentc. effeminate d. desirable

101. wretcheda. twisted b. forcedc. miserable d. increased

102. irksomea. outrageous b. fearsomec. impoverished d. annoying

103. regulatea. even b. policec. ûow d. position

104. warranta. justify b. burrowc. hide d. integrity

105. protracta. hire b. foldc. delay d. corner

106. laxa. ensure b. slackc. servant d. strive

107. rigora. austerity b. ropec. ûx d. excess

108. discretea. leave b. diminishc. squander d. distinct

109. lissomea. slow b. honestc. supple d. dull

110. misprizea. despise b. devaluec. erroneous d. covet

111. impugna. imply b. fretc. assail d. recalcitrant

112. supervenea. intervene b. overreachc. displace d. follow

113. exigenta. urgent b. treatisec. miser d. expedient

114. fervid

a. delightful b. difûcultc. obstinate d. ardent

115. ersatza. chaotic b. artiûcialc. impromptu d. vague

116. redolenta. ubiquitous b. odorousc. shy d. bellicose

117. turpitudea. lethargy b. honorc. belligerence d. depravity

118. propinquitya. habit b. nearnessc. capacity d. tendency

119. vociferousa. numerous b. bountifulc. strident d. garrulous

120. graciousa. cordial b. rudec. furious d. tactile

121. valora. cowardice b. falsec. drop d. heavy

122. severea. lenient b. cautiousc. join d. one

123. imaginativea. playful b. writtenc. small d. dull

124. knowinga. wasteful b. densec. clumsy d. fast

124. animositya. love b. plantlikec. barren d. tiny

Which word is most dissimilar in meaning to theword provided?125. exact

a. join b. sympatheticc. incorrect d. whole

126. extravagant

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a. unknown b. homebodyc. punctual d. moderate

127. staminaa. weakness b. clearc. decisive d. calmness

128. rougha. tumble b. sleekc. fast d. distant

129. garnera. unravel b. marc. squander d. tarnish

130. prodigala. thrifty b. secondaryc. distant d. squalid

131. tacita. grand b. dictatedc. illicit d. messy

132. repudiatea. argue b. softenc. slander d. admit

133. pristinea. free b. sulliedc. wide d. thorough

134. concedea. sit b. withstandc. dismiss d. elaborate

135. placatea. appease b. stripc. tremendous d. enrage

136. populara. empty b. uncommonc. famous d. feisty

137. felicitousa. morbid b. boorishc. inopportune d. delightful

138. austerea. lavish b. unfavourablec. light d. devout

139. insipida. cold b. bravec. exciting d. bashful

140. wastrel

a. sober b. spendthriftc. mute d. miser

141. temperatea. Celsius b. inordinatec. lukewarm d. safely

142. nebulousa. cloudy b. dimc. distinct d. desirable

143. adroita. clumsy b. leftc. diplomatic d. unpersuasive

144. mitea. weakness b. tendc. bulk d. drive

145. supernala. nocturnal b. specialc. despicable d. hellish

146. reprobatea. sage b. elevatedc. possess d. dismiss

147. speciousa. genuine b. logicalc. common d. deliberate

148. effetea. conquer b. properc. prosperous d. civilized

149. rabblea. order b. clearc. open d. union

150. proteana. unformed b. unchangingc. elaborate d. selective

151. vertiginousa. horizontal b. litigiousc. constant d. lowly

152. parvenua. wallûower b. highwayc. melody d. plan

153. lapidariana. square b. secularc. pasture d. inelegant

154. delirious is most similar to

145


a. manic b. calmc. tasty d. suspicious

155. inûrm is most similar toa. hospital b. weakc. short d. fortitude

156. cautious is most dissimilar toa. reasonable b. carefulc. illogical d. reckless

157. lure is most similar toa. tickle b. decoyc. resist d. suspect

158. perilous is most dissimilar toa. disciplined b. similarc. safe d. honest

159. isolation is most similar toa. fear b. plentitudec. olitude d. disease

Read each question carefully and select the wordthat is most similar or dissimilar in meaning to theword provided.160. lull is most similar to

a. pause b. noisec. boring d. mark

161. outût is most similar toa. indoors b. strongc. special d. furnish

162. punctual is most dissimilar toa. close b. tardyc. sloppy d. precious

163. delude is most dissimilar toa. drought b. cleverc. enlighten d. enrage

164. omit is most similar toa. recluse b. neglectc. mistake d. destroy

165. resilient is most dissimilar toa. stubborn b. carelessc. substantial d. ûimsy

166. mutiny is most similar toa. rebellion b. currencyc. sailor d. hassle

167. naive is most similar toa. rural b. secularc. unsophisticated d. sultry

168. entice is most dissimilar toa. piece b. repulsec. attract d. repeat

169. solemnity is most similar toa. lightheartedness b. gravityc. diligence d. sleepiness

170. stingy is most dissimilar toa. wasteful b. democraticc. spiteful d. liberal

171. malign is most similar toa. evil b. maliciousc. slander d. grandiose

172. impudent is most similar toa. cautious b. haphazardc. gleeful d. insolent

173. vacillate is most dissimilar toa. decide b. teeterc. dilate d. please

174. kinetic is most dissimilar toa. cold b. staticc. lewd d. foolish

175. lambaste is most similar toa. marinade b. commotionc. censure d. tickle

176. kowtow is most dissimilar toa. snub b. pullc. fawn d. forage

177. rudimentary is most similar toa. crass b. graciousc. deliberate d. primitive

178. pitched is most similar toa. undone b. retractedc. heated d. lovely

179. tepid is most dissimilar toa. dispassionate b. scaldingc. crisp d. clever

180. largesse is most similar toa. greatness b. generosityc. miniscule d. clumsiness

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181. insidious is most dissimilar toa. repellent b. purec. charming d. delicious

182. decorum is most similar toa. etiquette b. meritc. parliament d. slipshod

183. succor is most dissimilar toa. genius b. abetc. injure d. deciduous

-------------------------------

184. Principle of surveying followed to preventaccumulation of errors is(a) to work from whole to a part(b) to work from part to whole(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

185. The curvature of the earth’s surface is taken intoaccount only if the extent of survey is more than(a) 60 sq km (b) 160 sq km(c) 260 sq km (d) 500 sq km

186. Geodetic survey is different from plane surveyingbecause of(a) very large area is covered.(b) the curvature of the earth is considered.(c) undulations of the topography.(d) large difference of elevations

187. A scale representing either three units or only oneunit and its fractions upto second place of decimalpoint is(a) Diagonal scale (b) Comparative scale(c) Vernier scale (d) Shrunk scale

188. Difference in the length of an arc and its subtendedchord on earth’s surface for a distance of 18.5 kmis(a) 10 mm (b) 15 mm(c) 22 mm (d) 100 mm

189. Engineering survey is carried out to(a) determine quantities and for collection of

data for resorvoirs

(b) locate boundaries of fields and houses(c) lay out plots and water supply system and

sewers(d) all of these

190. If smallest division of a vernier is longer than thesmallest division of its primary scale, then vernier iscalled(a) direct vernier(b) double vernier(c) simple vernier(d) retrograde vernier.

191. Scale used to measure and to set out the angles is(a) Diagonal scale (b) Comparative scale(c) Vernier scale (d) Scale of chords

192. The smallest length that can be drawn on a map is(a) 0.2 mm (b) 0.6 mm(c) 1 cm (d) 1.2 cm

193. For a survey to be classed as plane, differencebetween sum of angles of spherical triangle andthat of plane triangle is only one second at theearth’s mean surface for an area of(a) 160 km2 (b) 195.5 km2

(c) 260 km2 (d) 282.5 km2

194. In chain survey(a) chainage is the distance of the object along the

chain-line from the zero end of the chain.(b) oblique offsets are used to locate building

corners(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

195. Chain surveying is most suitable when(a) ground is fairly level and open with simple details.(b) area is small in extent.(c) plans are required on a large scale.(d) all of these

196. A well conditioned triangle has angles not lessthan and more than respectively(a) 10° and 90° (b) 20° and 120°(c) 90° and 120° (d) none of these

197. Which of the following statements is/are correct?(a) It is easy to chain distances down the

slopes.(b) Incorrect holding of chain at arrow is

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compensating error.(c) French cross-staff is used to set out 45° offset

with a chain.(d) All of these

198. A discrepancy is the difference between(a) true value and error(b) measured value and actual value(c) two measured values of the same quantity(d) none of these

199. A chain 33' feet long and consisting of 16 linkseach 21/16 feet long is(a) Engineer’s chain (b) Gunter’s chain(c) Bigha chain (d)Revenue chain

200. Every 20 m chain should be accurate to within(a) ± 2 mm (b) ± 5 mm(c) ±8 mm (d) none of these

201. Off sets are(a) chain lines out of alignment(b) small measurements from chain line(c) measurements taken in chain surveying(d) none of these

202. Method used for chaining on sloping ground is(a) Stepping method(b) Hypotenusal allowance method(c) Clinometor method(d) Both (a) and (b)

203. Compensating errors in chaining are(a) proportional to the length of the line(b) proportional to the square root of the

length of the line(c) inversely proportional to the square root of the

length of the line.(d) inversely proportional to the length of the line.

204. Error due to bad ranging is(a) compensating(b) cumulative positive(c) cumulative negative(d) both (b) and (c)

205. Negative errors are caused in chain, when its lengthis(a) more than the standard length(b) less than the standard length

(c) equal to the standard length(d) uncertain

206. An error under the same conditions always of thesame size and sign, is called(a) Systematic error (b) Cumulative error(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

207. Errors which remain after mistakes and systematicerros have been eliminated are called(a) Accidental errors (b) Latent errors(c) Imaginary errors (d) All of these

208. Theory of probability is applied to(a) Cumulative errors (b) Compensative errors(c) Accidental errors (d) None of these

209. Most probable value of an observed quantityavailable from a given set of observation is the onefor which the sum of the square of errors is aminimum. This statement is called(a) Principal of least square(b) Law of errors(c) Principle of square errors(d) None of the above

210. Maximum allowable limit upto that a measurementmay vary from the true value is called(a) Permissible error (b) residual error(c) Expected error (d) Safe error.

211. A 30m chain was found to be 20 cm too long afterchaining 1500 m. The correct length of the totaldistance chained will be(a) 1495 m (b) 1500 m(c) 1505 m (d) none of these

212. If n observations are taken, then accidental errorsare proportional to(a) n (b) n2(c) “n (d) 1 / n

213. The chain length which is not the standard metricchain length is(a) 10 m (b) 20 m(c) 25 m (d) 30 m

214. If a chain is found too short on testing, it can beadjusted by(a) straightening the links(b) inserting additional circular rings

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(c) flattening the circular rings(d) all of these

215. Number of links in a 30 m metric chain is(a) 100 (b) 150(c) 180 (d) 200

216. Ranging is the process of(a) marking some intermediate points in a

straight line, joining the two end points inthe field

(b) fixing ranging rods on the extremities of thearea.

(c) taking offsets from a chain line(d) none of these

217. Important points selected at the ends of the chainlines to command the boundaries of the survey arecalled(a) Main stations(b) Subsidiary stations(c) Tie stations(d) None of the above.

218. The longest chain line passing through the centre ofthe area is called(a) Base line (b) Tie line(c) Check line (d) All of the above.

219. The tie line is run throught the survey to(a) take off sets for detailed surveying(b) take details of nearby objects(c) check accuracy of work(d) none of these

220. Permissible limits of error in chaining formeasurement on rough or hilly ground is(a) 1 : 2000 (b) 1 : 1000(c) 1 : 500 (d) 1 : 250

221. The position of point can be fixed more accuratelyby(a) perpendicular offset(b) optical square(c) prism square(d) oblique offsets.

222. Positive error is caused if(a) length of chain is shorter than the standard.(b) slope and sag corrections is not applied.

(c) measurements are made along the incorrectlyaligned line.

(d) all of these223. During chaining along a straight line, the leader of

the survey party has three arrows and while thefollower has five arrows, distance of the followerfrom the starting point will be(a) Three chains (b) Four chins(c) Five chains (d) None of these

224. The base line is measured with(a) metallic tape (b) steel tape(c) Invar tape (d) chain.

225. Invar tapes are made of an alloy of(a) nickel and steel(b) copper and steel(c) tin and steel -(d) aluminimum and steel

226. Metallic tapes are made of(a) steel (b) invar(c) cloth and wires (d) nickel.

227. Chain surveying is used for(a) small areas in open ground(b) small areas with crowded details(c) small areas with simple details(d) large areas with simple details

228. For accurate work, in comparison to chain, the steelband is used because it is(a) light in weight(b) easy to handle(c) practically inextensible.(d) all of these

229. Normal tension is that pull which(a) neutralizes the effect due to pull and sag.(b) makes sag correction zero.(c) makes pull correction zero.(d) none of these

230. An offset more than 15m in length is called(a) long offset (b) short offset(c) oblique offset (d) right—angled offset

231. Chainage is the distance measured(a) along a chain line(b) perpendicular to a chain line

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(c) perpendicular to a tie line(d) none of these

232. Limiting length of offset depends upon(a) accuracy desired(b) scale of plotting(c) nature of the ground(d) all of these

233. Maximum angular error in laying the direction is 3°,if this maximum displacement of the point on paperis same for both sources of error, then accuracy inthe offset measurement will be(a) 1 in 18 (b) 1 in 19(c) 1 in 25 (d) 1 in 30

234. The angle that can be set by French cross staff is(a) 45° (b) 90°(c) 45° or 90° (d) none of these

235. Method of offset laying involving minimummeasurement on the ground is(a) perpendicular offset method(b) oblique offset method(c) tie offset method(d) none of these

236. The sag correction is always(a) potitive (b) negative(c) zero (d) none of these

237. Open cross staff is used for setting out(a) long offsets (b) short offsets(c) oblique offsets (d) none of these

238. The angle of inter-section of horizon mirror andindex mirror of an optical square is that(a) 30° (b) 45°(c) 105° (d) 120°

239. The main difference between optical square andprism square is(a) No adjustment is required in a prism square

as the angle between the reflecting mirrorsis fixed

(b) Optical square is more accurate(c) Principal of working is different(d) All of these

240. A river is an obstacle to(a) chaining but not ranging

(b) ranging but not chaining(c) both chaining and ranging(d) none of these

241. A building is an obstacel to(a) chaining but not ranging(b) ranging but not chaining(c) both chaining and raning(d) none of these

242. A field is measured with a 1.0 per cent too longchain is found to be 10000 acres. The correctedarea of the field will be(a) 90891 acres (b) 10201 acres(c) 10401 acres (d) none of these

243. In chain survey execution, this first step taken is(a) Reference sketches (b) Marking stations(c) Running survey line (d) Reconnaissance

244. Angles of 45° with chain line may be set out with(a) optical square (b) prismatic square(c) open cross staff (d) French cross staff

245. The optical square is based on the principal of optical(a) reflection (b) refraction(c) double reflection (d) double refraction.

246. In compass surveying(a) direction and lengths of survey line is measured

by compass(b) direction is measured by compass(c) length is measured by the chain or tape(d) both (b) and (c)

247. In a closed traverse(a) difference between fore bearing & back bearing

should be 90°(b) sum of included angles should be (2N —4)

right angle, where N is the number of sides(c) sum of inclined should be (2N — 1), where N

is number of sides(d) none of these

248. Graduations in a prismatic compass are(a) inverted and run clockewise having 0° at

north(b) inverted and run clockwise having 0° at south(c) erect(d) none of these

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249. In a prismatic compass(a) magnetic needle moves with the box(b) magnetic needle and graduated circle do

not move with the box(c) line of sight does not move with box(d) graduated circle is fixed to the box and the

magnetic needle always remains in the N — Sdirection

250. True meridians(a) are parallel to each other(b) converge at a point called pole(c) converge near equator(d) none of these

251. In whole circle system, the bearings are measured(a) clockwise from the north point of the

reference meridian towards the line of sightround the circle

(b) anti-clockwise from the north point(c) with the notations of cardinal points N, E,

S & W(d) none of these

252. A negative declination shows the magnetic meridianto the(a) eastern side of the true meridian(b) western side of the true meridian(c) southern side of the true meridian(d) none of these

253. If magnetic bearing of sun at noon at a place insouthern hemisphere is 150°, then magneticdeclination at that place is(a) 30°E (b) 30°W(c) 20°E (d) 20°W

254. Isogonic lines are lines passing through(a) points having same declination at a given

point(b) point of zero declination(c) point having same dip(d) point having zero dip.

255. In survey works declinations varies from time totime and place to place. The most important variationis(a) Secular variation (b) Annual variation(c) Duirnal variation (d) Irregular variation

256. Angle of dip at pole is(a) 0° (b) 90°(c) 45° (d) 30°

257. Secular variation is important factor because(a) variatioin is due to sasonal changes(b) magnitude of variation is of high order and

the needle after coming to sandstill maymove in opposite direction.

(c) needle will stop(d) variation is less.

258. Duirnal variation depends upon(a) locality (b) time(c) seasons (d) all of these

259. True bearing of a line is qual to(a) magnetic bearing + magnetic declination(b) magnetic bearing — magnetic declination(c) magnetic declination — magnetic bearing(d) none of these where declination is to the east

230. If magnetic declination at a place is 7°20’w, andbearing given by the compass is 45°40’E, then truebearing of the place is(a) N 53°0’E (b) S 53°0’E(c) N 53°0’W (d) S 53°0’W

231. The value of magnetic declination if magnetic bearingof sun at noon is 350° is(a) 10°E (b) 10°W(c) 80°E (d) 80°W

232. While traversing anticlockwise a closed traverse ofn sides, theoretical sum of included angles shouldbe(a) (2n — 4) x 90 (b) (2n + 4) x 90(c) (2n ± 4) x 90 (d) 360°

233. With regards to traversing(a) South co-ordinate is an example of negative

co-ordinate.(b) In an open traverse the angular error is

determined by astronomical observations.(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

234. In Bowditch rule of traverse adjustment it, isassumed that errors in the linear measurements are(a) proportional to

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(b) proportional to L(c) inversely proportional to VT,(d) inversely proportional to L

235. Quadrantal system confines the user to measurebearing from(a) north point clockwise(b) north point or south point whichever is

nearer(c) north point anti-clockwise(d) none of these

236. A bearing noted 45° NE represents(a) quadrantal system(b) whole circle system(c) reduced bearing system(d) none of these

237. Whole circle bearing 338°42' converted into quadrantform is given as(a) N 21°18’W (b) S 21°18’E(c) W 21°18’N (d) none of these

238. If quantrantal bearing of a line is 35°W, then wholecircle bearing is(a) 325° (b) 205°(c) 215° (d) 315°

239. Prismatic compass and surveyor’s compassrespectively give(a) whole circle bearing of a line and quadrantal

bearing of a line.(b) both quadrantal bearing of a line(c) both whole circle bearing of a line(d) quandrantal and whole circle bearing of a line

240. For a line AB, fore bearing(a) and back bearing of line AB differ by 180°(b) of AB and back bearing of line BA differ by

180°(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

241. Local attraction in a compass surveying may bedue to(a) faulty adjustment in compass(b) due to presence of magnetic materials(c) loss of magnetism in the needle(d) friction of the needle at the point.

241. The closing error in a traverse is adjusted by(a) elimination error and modifying the shape(b) error is distributed to all stations

proportionately by shifting the stationparallel to the direction of closing error

(c) error is distributed to all stations proportionatelyby shifting the stations perpndicular to thedirection of closing error.

(d) none of these242. Inclination of the needle to the horizontal towards

the pole is called(a) Dip (b) Declination(c) Azimuth (d) Bearing

243. Dip of the needle(a) is constant(b) varies from place to place and is zero at

the equator and maximum at the poles(c) is zero at the equator and poles(d) none of these

244. The angle which the true meridian makes withmagnetic meridian is called(a) magnetic dclination or declination(b) true declination(c) dip(d) azimuth

245. Magnetic declination(a) remains same at different places(b) varies from place to place(c) does not vary with temperature(d) none of these

246. If magnetic bearing of a line is 65° and the truebearing 45°, then magnetic declination is(a) 10°W (b) 20°W(c) 20°E (d) none of these

247. Foremost work to be executed while traversing witha compass is(a) marking and referencing of stations(b) running survey lines(c) picking up of details(d) reconnaissance(e) booking of fields notes.

248. If needle of the compass is sluggish, then error willbe

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(a) Instrumental error (b) Personal error(c) Natural error (d) None of these

249. Difference between most probable value of aquantity and observed value is(a) conditional error (b) true error(c) resisdual error (d) safe error

250. For a station to be free of local attraction(a) fore and back bearings of line should be

measured accurately(b) fore and back bearings of line should differ

by exactly 180°(c) fore and back bearing of the line should be

exactly same but with opposite signs(d) None of these

251. Survey stations set up during traversing withcompass should be such that(a) they are visible from each other(b) chaining between them is easy(c) the lines joining them are near the objects

to be located(d) they are as long as possible

252. Maximum prmissible diffemce allowed while takingdown the fore bearing and back bearing of a line is(a) 15' (b) 15"(c) no such limit (d) 1°

253. Which one of the following may not be classified aspersonal error?(a) Inaccurate centring(b) Inaccurate levelling(c) Plane of sight not being vertical(d) Carelessness in reading and recording.

253. If needle is truly magnetic and is not sluggish,(a) it will be always oscillating and never stop(b) when it stops it will be exactly on magnetic

meridian(c) it will be always free from local attraction(d) all of these

254. If the sights are vertical, then(a) eye vane and object vane will be in same live(b) eye vane, object vane and string will be

parallel and in same line(c) there will be no local attraction

(d) none of these255. The nedle is adjested for

(a) sensitivity(b) balancing.(c) straightening vertically and horizontally(d) all of these

256. Temporary adjustment of a prismatic compass are(a) centring(b) adjustment of levels(c) adjustment of needle(d) adjustment of van.

257. True meridians are generally preferred over magnetimeridians because(a) they converge to a point(b) these change due to chang in time(c) these remain constant(d) none of these

258. A 10cm theodolite means that(a) length of its telescope is 10cm(b) height of the telescope is 10cm(c) diameter of the graduated circle of its lower

plate is 10cm(d) diameter of the graduated cirde of its vertical

cicle is 10cm259. The process of establishing intermediate points,

betwen two end points which are not intervisible,with the help of a theodolite is known as called(a) ranging (b) interpolation(c) lining-in (d) balancing-in

260. Spire test is used for adjustment of(a) line of sight(b) horizontal axis(c) vertical axis(d) adjustment of altitude bubble

261. In theodolites(a) telescop is said to be normal when its vertical

circle is to the left of the observer and bubbleis down.

(b) levelling is quicker if levelling head is providedwith there foot screws than that with four footscrews.

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(c) error due to line of collimation not beingperpendicular to vertical axis of a theodolite iseliminated by changing face.

(d) repetition method of angle measurementeliminates the error due to displacementof station signals.

262. A level line is a(a) line parallel to the mean spheroidal surface of

earth(b) line normal to the plumb line at all points(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

263. Any arbitrarily assumed level line from whichvertical distances are measured is called(a) level line (b) vertical line(c) horizontal line (d) datum line.

264. Difference between a level line and a horizontalline is that(a) level line is normal to plumb line while horizontal

line is not necessarily.(b) level line is curved but horizontal line is a straight

line(c) both lines are same lines(d) none of these

265. A relatively fixed point of known elevation abovedatum is called(a) datum point (b) bench mark(c) reduced level (d) reference point

266. A staff reading taken on a bench mark or changepoint is called(a) Back sight (b) Fore sight(c) Intermediate sight (d) None of these

267. The observation is taken on a turning point is(a) fore sight(b) back sight(c) Both fore sight and back sight(d) none of these

268. The bench mark established by the survey of Indiadepartment with very high precision with referenceto mean sea level at Karanchi as the datum arecalled(a) G.T.S. Bench Marks.(b) Permanent Bench Marks.

(c) Arbitary Bench Marks.(d) Temporary Bench Marks.

269. An operation for determining relative elevations ofdifferent points on the surface of the earth is called(a) levelling(b) simple levelling(c) Differential levelling(d) longitudinal levelling

270. In a dumpy level, objective and eyepiece lenses aremade of two or more small lenses to obtain(a) distinct image(b) shorter focal length(c) reading even in less light(d) all of these

271. A diagonal eye piece is provided with a(a) reflecting prism(b) mirror fitted at 45° with the axis of telescope(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

272. Cross hairs in surveying telescope are fitted(a) at the centre of telescope(b) in the objective glass(c) in front of eyepiece(d) anywhere between objective and eye piece.

273. Image of the objctive formed should lie(a) at the eyepiece(b) in the plane of cross hairs(c) at the centre of the eyepiece.(d) at the optical centre of the eyepiece.

274. The absence of sphrical aberration in a telescope iscalled(a) Achromation (b) Chr omit ation(c) Aplanation (d) Ablation

275. Magnification of a telescope depends upon(a) focal length of eyepiece(b) focal length of objctive lens(c) ratio of (b) and (a)(d) ratio of inverse of (b) and (a)

276. In an interfocussing type of telescope, the lnsprovided is(a) convex lens(b) concave lens

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(c) plano concave lens(d) convex concave lens.

277. An interfocussing type of telescope is focussed bythe movement of(a) convex lens (b) concave lens(c) plano-concvex lens (d) objective glass.

278. The sensitivity of a bubble tube can be increasedby(a) decreasing the radius of curvature of tube(b) decreasing the length of bubble(c) increasing the diameter of the tube(d) increasing the viscosity of liquid.

279. In a constant level tube, size of the bubble remainsconstant because upper wall of tube has(a) relativley small radius(b) relatively large radius(c) flat(d) none of these

280. If temperature increases, sensitivity of a bubble tube(a) increases (b) decreases(c) remains constant (d) none of these

281. Sensitivity of a level tube is expressed by(a) length of level tube(b) radius of level tube(c) length of bubble of level tube(d) all of these

282. Dummpy level is used when(a) number of observations to be taken are large

from one level position(b) number of observations to be taken are small

from one level position(c) fly levlling is to be done(d) none of these

283. Automatic level has advantage of(a) high precision and speed(b) freedom from errors and external influence(c) comfortable and has large range of application(d) all of these

284. In levelling height of instrument is(a) height of telescope above the ground at the

time of observation(b) height of levelling staff

(c) elevation of plant of collimation(d) sum of the reduced level of B.M. and foresight.

285. With regards to curvature and refraction in levelling(a) combined correction is 0.0673D2, where D isthe distance of staff from the instrument in km.(b) nature of combined correction is negative.(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

286. Sensitivity of the bubble tube increases with(a) increase in length of the vapour bubble(b) increase in diameter of bubble tube(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

287. The height of instrument method is(a) less tedious(b) more rapid(c) includes less calculations(d) all of these

288. Height of instrument method of levelling as comparedto rise and fall method is(a) more accurate(b) less accurate.(c) quicker and less tedious(d) none of these

289. The rise and fall method of levelling provides acomplete check on(a) back sight(b) fore sight(c) intermediate sight(d) all of these

290. The rise and fall method(a) provides a check on the intermediate(b) is preferable for differential and check levelling.(c) suitable for important works.(d) all of these

291. If observed reading of a level staff is 3.83m, and atthe point sighted the staff is 0.15m off the verticalthrough the bottom, then correct reading will be(a) 3.826m (b) 3.830m(c) 3.834m (d) 3.838m

292. The levelling of instrument is done such that(a) line of sight is truly horizontal

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(b) optical axis is truly horizontal(c) vertical axis is truly vertical(d) line of collimation is truly horizontal.

293. Instrtumental error in levelling is error due to(a) imperfect adjustment(b) sluggish bubble(c) movement of objective slide(d) all of these

294. Natural error in levelling is caused due to(a) wind vibration(b) atmospheric refraction(c) temperature variation(d) all of these

295. Permanent adjustments are carried out to(a) set up of the level(b) establish a fixed relatinoship between its

fundamental axes(c) focus the eyepiece(d) focus the object glass.

296. The line of collimation should be parallel to(a) vertical axis (b) bubble axis(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

297. The refraction correction for a distance of 1km is(a) 0.0112m (b) 0.0673m(c) 1.12m (d) 6.73m

298. The type(s) of levelling is (are)(a) sectioning (b) hypsometry(c) cross-sectioning (d) all of these

299. Which is an odd instrument with regards to levelling ?(a) Altimeter (b) Clinometer(c) Abney hand level (d) Planimeter

300. For Y level, Cooke’s and Cushing levels, the line ofcollimation should coincide with(a) bubble tube axis (b) vertical axis(c) axis of telescope (d) none of these

301. For a dumpy level in perfect adjustment, thehorizontal cross hair should be in a plane(a) perpendicular to the vertical axis(b) parallel to the vertical axis(c) parallel to the axis of bubble tube(d) none of these

302. Two peg method is used to check the parallelismbetween(a) line of collimation and axis of bubble tube(b) line of collimation and axis of telescope(c) axis of the bubble tube and vertical axis(d) all of these

303. When it is not possible to set up the level, midwaybetween two points, then difference in elevationbetween them is measured by(a) Fly levelling(b) Precise levelling(c) Differential levelling(d) Reciprocal levelling

304. The method of levelling used to carry out thereconnaissance of area is(a) Check levelling (b) Fly levelling(c) Profile levelling (d) Simple levelling

305. The accuracy required in precise levelling is of theorder of(a) Ail< mm(b) 2A/K mm(c) 5’VK mm(d) none of these where K is distance levelled in

km306. The levels to which the earthwork will have to be

carried out is called(a) finish surface levels(b) original G.L.(c) formation level(d) depth of cutting.

307. If formation level is less than the ground level, thendifference between them at any pont will give(a) height of embankement(b) depth of cutting(c) proposed gradient(d) none of these

308. Reciprocal levelling eliminates(a) error due to curvature and refraction(b) collimation error(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

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309. If distance betweeen two points A and B is 1km,thencombined correction for curvature and refractionwill be(a) 0.673m (b) 0.0673m(c) 1.0673m (d) 1.673m

310. Sensitivity of the bubble tube expressed is terms ofangular value of one division of the bubble is givenby(a) S/D radians (b) D/S(c) S/D seconds (d) none of thesewhere, S = difference between the two staff readingsD = distance between the staff and the instrument

311. Personal error in levelling occur due to(a) careless levelling of the instrument(b) bubble not centred(c) staff not held vertical(d) all of these

312. Levelling across a river is done by(a) fly levelling(b) reciprocal levelling(c) trigonometrical levelling(d) cross levelling.

313. The correction for refration in given by(a) 0.0785 d2 m (b) 0.0112 d2 m(c) 0.0673 d2 m (d) none of these

314. Bench marks are fixed by(a) trigonometric levelling(b) barometric levelling(c) spririt levelling(d) profile levelling.

315. The last reading of leavelling is always a(a) back sight (b) fore sight(c) intermediate sight (d) any of these

316. In levelling, a station is a point where(a) staff is placed(b) instrument is set up(c) bench mark is marked(d) none of these

317. Tilting levels are used for(a) fly levelling (b) precise levelling(c) profile levelling (d) none of these

318. The permissible closing error expressed by ± 641(in(a) precise levelling (b) accurate levelling(c) ordinary (d) rough levelling

319. In levelling across a hill, level should be set up on(a) side of the hill (b) its top(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

320. In diaphragm of techeometers(a) two horizontal stadia wires are provided.(b) graduations on stadia rod are spaced 0.01m

apart.(c) stadia rod may be kept vertical or normal to

the line of sight.(d) all of these

321. In a gradienter when screw is moved by onerevolution, the line of sight moves by(a) 1cm (b) 1mm(c) sin-1 0.01 (d) tan-10.01

322. Glass wedge is used in(a) Double image tacheometer(b) Szepessy tacheometer(c) Jeffcott tacheometer(d) Auto reduction tacheometer

323. In Beaman stadia arc, if V-scale readnig is 50, itindicates(a) depression(b) elevation(c) horizontal position of telescope(d) horizontal distance to be 50m

324. A gradienter is used to(a) determine horizontal distance(b) determine vertical distance(c) set out gradients(d) all of these

325. In Fergusson’s perecentage system of tacheometrythe circle is divided into(a) 4 parts (b) 8 parts(c) 10 parts (d) 100 parts

326. An imaginary line connecting points of equalelevation on the ground surface is called(a) contour line(b) contour interval

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(c) horizontal equivalent(d) contour gradient.

327. The vertical distance between any two consecutivecontours is called(a) conmtour line (b) contour interval(c) contour gradient (d) horizontal equivalent

328. The contour interval depends upon(a) nature of the ground(b) scale of the map(c) purpose and extent of survey(d) all of these

329. Contour interval is proportional(a) directly to the scale of map(b) inversely to the scale of map(c) directly to the flatness of the ground(d) none of these

330. An imaginary line lying throughout the surface ofgound having a constant inclination to the horizontalis called(a) contour line (b) contour gradient(c) contour interval (d) horizontal equivalent.

331. A series of closed contour lines on the map withlower to higher values inside them represents a(a) hill (b) ridge(c) depression (d) steep slope.

332. The contour lines merge or cross one another onthe map in case of(a) vertical surfaces(b) overhang ground surfaces(c) cave(d) all of these

333. A series of closely spaced contour lines representsa(a) steep slope (b) uniform slope(c) horizontal surface (d) gentle slope

334. Contour lines are perpendicular to the(a) ridge line (b) valley line(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

335. Tacheometric method is more suitable method forpreparing the contour map of a(a) valley (b) hill(c) ridge (d) plain surface.

336. Direct method of contouring is(a) very slow method(b) most accurate method(c) suitable for contouring small areas(d) all of these

337. In direct method of coutouring, the process oflocating points lying on a coutour is called(a) horizontal control (b) vertical control(c) ranging (d) none of these

338. The spacing of cross-sections in indirect method ofcontouring depends upon(a) character of the ground(b) scale of map(c) contour intervals(d) all of these

339. Contours are used to determine(a) intervisibility of points on a contour map(b) area of the drainage basin and capacity of the

reservoir(c) quantities of earth work(d) all of these

340. Closed contours with higher value inside representsa(a) depression (b) hill(c) plain surface (d) none of these

341. A series of straight parallel and widely spacedcontours on a map represents a(a) valley(b) ridge(c) curved surface(d) inclined plane surface

342. Instrument used for measuring area on a contourmap is(a) Graphometer (b) Planimeter(c) Areameter (d) Clinometer.

343. The order of accuracy of elevation of points obtainedfrom a contour map is equal to(a) contour interval(b) x contour interval(c) 1/4 x contour interval(d) none of these

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344. The best method of interpolation of contours in Directmethod of contouring is by(a) computations (b) interpolation(c) estimation (d) none of these

345. In double line river, contours are(a) stopped at the banks of the river(b) stopped at the edge of the river(c) drawn across the water(d) none of these

346. The limit of water level in a river represents a(a) contour line (b) horizontal surface(c) contour gradient (d) none of these

347. For any point on the surface with a given inclination,contour gradient possible is(a) one (b) two(c) infinite (d) none of these

348. For route survey of a contour map, method used is(a) square method(b) cross-profile method(c) trace—contour method(d) all of these

349. Plane table surveying is a graphical method ofsurveying in which(a) field work and plotting proceeds

simultaneously(b) plotting is done later while records are taken in

field book(c) only field work is done(d) none of these

350. Setting up the plane table consists of operations(a) levelling(b) centring(c) levelling and centring(d) orienting

351. Placing the table over the station such that thestation plotted on sheet is exactly above thecorresponding station on the ground is(a) centring (b) levelling(c) orienting (d) resection

352. Orientation is the operation of keeping the table atsuccessive stations such that

(a) position of the table at the station is parallelto the position it occupied at the previousstation

(b) position of station plotted on sheet is exactlyabove the corresponding station on ground

(c) table is brought in a horizontal plane(d) none of these

353. The method of plane tabling generally adopted toobtain details and plotting inaccessible points is(a) radiatio (b) intersection(c) resection (d) all of the above

354. In the inter-section method of plane tabling thenumber of stations needed to be set up are(a) 1 (b) 2(c) 3 (d) none of these

355. Resection is the method employed for(a) plotting the details(b) locating the instrument station(c) surveying mountaineous country(d) all of these

356. The two-point problem is(a) a case of resection method where no ray is

required to be drawn from the proceeding stationto the instrument station

(b) locating of position of plane table by means oftwo visible well defined points

(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of thse

357. Three-point problem can be solved by(a) tracing paper method(b) graphical method(c) trial and error method(d) all of these

358. Strength of fix of a plane table is(a) accuracy in centring(b) accuracy in locating the position of

instrument station by taking observationsto three stations

(c) fixity of table while solving two-point problem(d) none of these

359. Fix of table is good when(a) station is within the great triangle

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(b) middle station is much nearer than other twostations

(c) angle subtended between two stations is notvery small

(d) all of these360. A poor ‘fix’ of the table is

(a) when station is within great triangle(b) when station is near the great circle(c) angle subtended is large(d) none of these

361. Two-point problem and three-point problems aremethod of(a) orientation(b) resection(c) orientation and resection(d) none of these

362. Resection by two-point problem as compared to thethree-point problem(a) gives more accurate results(b) takes less time(c) requires more labour(d) none of these

363. If plane table is not horizontal in a direction at rightangles to the alidade, then line of sight is parallel tofiducial edge only for(a) horizontal sights(b) inclined sights upwards(c) inclined sights downwards(d) none of these

364. To orient a plant table without two inaccessiblepoints, the method generally adopted is(a) inter-section (b) resection(c) radiation (d) two-point problem.

365. Which of the following is not a personal et ror ?(a) Lable not being perfectly levelled(b) Lable not being perfectly centred(c) Table not being perfectly clamped(d) None of these

366. The size of a plane table is(a) 600 x 750 mm (b) 450 x 750 mm(c) 450 x 800 mm (d) 350 x 500 mm

367. Detailed plotting is generally done by

(a) radiation (b) inter-section(c) resection (d) traversing.

368. The method most suitable for plotting in hilly areasis(a) radiation (b) inter-section(c) resection (d) traversing.

369. The instrument used for centring the plane tableaccurately is(a) spirit level (b) trough compass(c) plumbing fork (d) alidade.

370. Orientation of the table in done by(a) magnetic—needle (b) backsighting(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

371. In case of telescopic alidade, which of the followingadjustment is done?(a) The line of collimation should perpendicular to

the axis of telescope(b) The horizontal axis should be parallel to the

alidade rule(c) The bubble line of telescope level should be

parallel to the plane of collimation(d) All of these

372. Centring is not necessary when scale of plane isless than(a) 1 : 1000 (b) 1 :2000(c) 1 : 2400 (d) none of these

373. In plane table survey, error due to centring shouldnot exceed the scale divided by(a) 25 (b) 40(c) 50 (d) 80

374. In plane tabling.(a) sighting and plotting are done simultaneously.(b) in resection method, back rays are drawn.(c) table can be oriented by sighting the previous

station(d) all of these

375. An object situated on other side of a river andinaccessible from Plane table station canbe locatedby(a) radiation (b) intersection(c) traversing (d) resection

376. In Plane tabling

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(a) exact orientation of plane table is moreimportant than centring for small scale maps

(b) three point problem fails if the Plane table stationlies on the great circle.

(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

377. In plane table survey(a) irregular objects can be plotted accurately(b) method of radiation is most suited when the

stations to be plotted are visible and accessible(c) method of inter-section is used to plot brokenboundaries.(d) all of these

378. A vernier theodolite consists of(a) levelling-head assembly(b) horizontal-circle assembly(c) alidade assembly(d) all of these

379. In theodolite(a) telescope is internal focussing type to facilitate

transiting.(b) by changing face, error due to line of collimation

not being parallel to the axis of altitude level iseliminated.

(c) error due to the horizontal axis not beingperpendicular to the vertical axis can beeliminated by changing face.

(d) all of these380. Shifting centre is an arrangement provided in

(a) surveyor compass (b) tilting level(c) theodolite (d) plane table

381. Consider the following :1. Cross-hair ring test2. Plate level test3. Collimation in azimuth test4. Spire testThe correct order of the tests for permanentadjustments of a theodolite is(a) 1,2, 3, 4 (b) 2,1,3, 4(c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) 4,3, 2,1

382. In plate level test of theodolite, vertical axis is madetruly vertical by manipulating(a) foot screws

(b) capstan screws(c) wing nuts(d) shifting centre arrangement

383. In optical theodolites, graduated circles are made of(a) brass (b) silver(c) glass (d) invar

384. Departure of a survey line is its(a) measured length corrected for chain/tape

correction(b) measured length(c) orthographic projection on E-W line(d) orthographic projection on N-S line

385. Theodolite is an instrument used for measuring(a) horizontal angles (b) vertical angles(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

386. Process of turning the telescope about the horizontalaxis in a vertical plane by a complete revolutionscalled(a) reversing (b) transiting(c) plunging (d) all of these

387. Process of turning the telescope about the verticalaxis in a horizontal plane is called(a) reversing (b) transiting(c) plunging (d) swinging.

388. The levelling head of to transit theodolite consistsof(a) parallel plates (b) a tribach plate(c) levelling screws (d) all of these

389. The function of levelling head is to(a) attach the theodolite to the tripod(b) provide a bearing for the outer hollow spindle(c) provide a mean of levelling the instrument(d) all of these

390. Size of a theodolite is specified by(a) diameter of lower plate(b) diameter of upper plate(c) length of telescope(d) diameter of vertical circle.

391. The outer spindle attached to the lower plate in atransit theodolite called(a) vernier plate (b) scale plate(c) alidade (d) none of these

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392. In a theodolite, the line passing through the inter-section of the horizontal and vertical cross hairsand the optical centre of the object glass and itscontinuation is called(a) line of collimation (b) line of sight(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

393. The fundamental lines of transit are(a) horizontal axis and line of collimation(b) vertical axis(c) axes of plate levels and bubble line of telescope

of level(d) all of these

394. The upper plate(a) is attached to the inner spindle and is called

vernier plate(b) has two vernier 180° apart for reading the

horizontal angles(c) is also called alidade of theodolite(d) all of these

395. If image formed by the objective of the telescopeis not in the plane of cross hairs, it is called(a) indistinct focussing(b) parallax(c) aberration(d) none of these

396. A straight line tangential to the longitudinal curve ofthe level tube at its center, is called(a) Horizontal axis (b) Line of collimation(c) Bubble line (d) Line of right.

397. The trunnion axis or transverse axis is(a) the axis about which telescope can be

rotated in a vertical plane(b) the axis about wich telescope can be rotated in

a horizontal plane(c) is also called line of collimation(d) none of these

398. If lower clamp screw is tightened and upper clampscrew is loosened, then theodolite may rotate on its(a) outer spindle without relative motion between

vernier and graduated scale of lower plate(b) inner spindle with relative motion between

vernier and graduated scale on lower plate

(c) inner spindle without relative motion betweenvernier and graduated scale on lower plate

(d) none of these399. Telescope is said to be normal when the bubble of

the telescope is(a) down and face of the vertical circle is right(b) up and face of the vertical circle is left(c) up and the face of the vertical circle is right(d) none of these

400. The process of bringing vertical circle to the rightof the observer if it is originally to the left and vice-versa is called(a) face left (b) face right(c) changing face (d) all of these

401. Parallax may be eliminated by(a) focussing the eyepiece(b) focussing the objective(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

402. ‘SPIRE TEST’ is used in permanent adjustment oftheodolite for adjusting the(a) plate levels (b) line of sight(c) vertical axis (d) horizontal axis.

403. The error due to eccentricity of inner and outeraxis can be eliminated by(a) taking mean of both the face observations(b) reading both verniers and taking the mean

of the two observations(c) taking several readings distributed over different

positions of the graduated circle(d) none of these- —

404. Error eliminated by taking mean of both faceobservations is error due to(a) eccentricity of verniers(b) imperfect adjustment of levels(c) line of collimation not being perpendicular

to horizontal axis(d) all of these

405. By method ,of repetition of horizontal anglemeasurement, the error eliminated is the error dueto(a) eccentricity of vernier

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(b) wrong adjustment of line of collimation andturnion axis

(c) inaccurate graduation(d) all of these

406. In the double application of principle of reversionused in the adjustment of vertical hairs, the apparenterror is(a) half the true error(b) equal to true error(c) double the true error(d) four times the true error.

407. Spire test used in the permanent adjustments oftheodiolite for the adjustment of(a) line of sight (b) horizontal axis(c) plate levels (d) altitude bubble.

408. Errors eliminated by taking both face observationsare error due to(a) horizontal axis not being perpendicular to the

veritcal axis(b) non-parallelism of the axis of telescope level

and line of collimation(c) imperfect adjustment of the vertical circle

vernier(d) all of these

409. If altitude bubble is provided both on index frameas well as on telescope of theodolite, then levellingof instrument is done with reference to(a) altitude bubble on index frame(b) altitude bubble on telescope(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

410. A traverse deflection angle is(a) less than 90°(b) between 90° and 180°(c) difference between included angle and 180°(d) none of these

411. The included angles of a theodolite traverse, aregenerally measured(a) clockwise from the back station(b) clockwise from the forward station(c) anticlock wise from the forward station(d) clockwise from the back station.

412. To observe an indluded angle with better accuracy,the method preferred will be(a) reiteration (b) repetition(c) double observation (d) none of these

413. An angle of deflection right, can be directly obtainedby setting the instrument to read(a) zero on the check station(b) zero on the back station(c) 90° on the back station(d) 180° on the back station.

414. In a closed traverse by included angles, the sum ofmeasured interior angles should be equal to(a) (N — 4) right angles(b) (2N — 4) right angles(c) (2N + 4) right angles(d) none of thesewhere N = number of sides of traverse

415. In a traverse, algebraic sum of the deflection angles,taking the right hand deflection angles as positiveand left hand deflection as negative, should be equalto(a) (N - 4) right angles (b) (2N - 4) right angles(c) 180° (d) 360°

416. Ratio of closing error to the permitter of the traverseis called(a) linear closing error(b) permissible closing error(c) relative closing error(d) none of these

417. The angular land linear measurement of the part ofthe traverse can be checked by(a) astronomical error (b) cut off lines(c) well defined objects (d) all of these

418. The distance between terminal points computed froma subsidary traverse run between them is called(a) traverse base (b) transverse base(c) corrected base (d) traverse length.

419. Bearing of the traverse line is calculated by(a) included angle method(b) deflection angle method(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

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420. If included angle is greater than 180°, then deflectionangle is(a) right handed or positive(b) left handed or negative(c) 90°(d) none of these

421. Difference between sum of the measured angelesand theoretical sum of the angles of aclosed traverseis called(a) angular closing error(b) closing error in bearing(c) relative closing error(d) all of these

423. Difference between two bearings of the last line asobserved at the first and the last stations of a traverseis called(a) angular closing error(b) closing error in bearing(c) relative closing error(d) none of these

424. According to Bowditch’s rule, correction to latitudeor departure of any side is equal to(a) total error in latitude or departuer x length

of that side/perimeter of traverse(b) total error in latitude or departure x perimeter

of traverse/length of that side(c) total error in latitude /Periameter of traverse(d) none of these

425. Bowditch rule is applied to(a) an open traverse for graphical adjustment(b) determine effect of local attraction(c) a closed transverse for adjustment of

closing error(d) none of these

426. Transit rule of adjusting the consecutive coordinatesof a traverse is used where(a) linear and angular measurements of the

traverseare of equal accuracy(b) angular measurements are more accurate then

linear measurement(c) linear measurements are more accurate than

angular measurements(d) none.of these

427. If in a closed traverse, sum of the north latitudes ismore than the sum of south latitudes and also sumof west departures is more than the sum of eastdepartures, then bearing of closing line is in the(a) SW quadrant (b) NW quadrant(c) SE quadrant (d) NE quadrant.

428. Angle between prolongation of the preceding lineand the forward line of a traverse is called(a) indluded angle (b) exterior angle(c) deflection angle (d) direct angle.

429. For locating details distant from transit station,suitable method of theodolite traversing is bymeasuring(a) angles to the point from atleast two stations(b) angles and distances from one transit station(c) angle at an station and distance from other(d) distance from two points on traverse line.

430. The multiplying constant of a theodolite is(a) f/d(b) f/i(c) f/(i+d)(d) none of these where f is focal length of object

lens,i is stadia hair interval,d is distance between optical centre of the objectlens and axis of the telescope

431. Maximum number of omitted measurements thatcan be calculated from latitudes and departures ofa closed traverse is(a) one (b) two(c) three (d) four.

432. Axis method of traverse correction in used when(a) angles are measured very accurately(b) lengths are measured very accurately(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

433. If reduced bearing of line AB is N 30 W and lengthis 100 m, then latitude and departure respectively ofthe line AB will be(a) + 86.6 m,+ 50 m(b) + 50 m,+ 86.6m(c) + 86.6 m, — 50.0 m(d) — 86.6 m, + 50.0 m.

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434. If sum of nothings of a traverse exceeds sum ofsouthings by 2m and sum of eastings exceeds sumof westings by 2m, then resulting closing error willbe(a) “2 m (b) 2.”2 m(c) 2 m (d) 4 m.

435. The perpendicular distance of the mid-point of theline from the reference meridian is called(a) double meriedian distance(b) meridian distance(c) departure of the line(d) latitude of the line.

436. If bearing of line AB is 200° and that of CB is270°, then included angle ABC, is(a) 70° (b) 80°(c) 90° (d) none of these

437. The intercept of a staff is(a) minimum if staff is held truly normal to the

line of sight(b) maximum if staff is helf truly normal to the line

of sight(c) decreases if staff is tilted away from normal(d) increases if staff is tilted away from normal.

438. If staff is held vertical and angle of elevation anddepression are kept same, then horizontal distancebetween instrument and staff station is computedby observations will be(a) greater at an angle of elevation(b) greater at an angle of depression(c) same in both case(d) none of these

439. In stadia method, if k is the multiplying factor, s isthe staff intercept, c is the additive constant ofinstruement, then distance equation is given by theexpression(a) D = k + cs (b) D = ks + c(c) D = k/s + c (d) none of these

440. Subtense bar is an instrument used for measurementof horizontal distance in(a) undulated areas (b) flat areas(c) mountains (d) all of these

441. Overturning of vehicles on a curve can be avoidedby using

(a) transition curve (b) vertical curve(c) compound curve (d) reverse curve.

442. A curve of varying radius introduced between twobranches of a compound curve is called(a) transition curve (b) mean curve(c) base curve (d) common curve

443. A transition curve introduced between the tangentand the circular curve should(a) have the same curvature at the junction with

the circular curve as that of the circular curve(b) have zero curvature at the junction.(c) meet the curve tangentially.(d) none of these

444. A curve consists of two areas of different radiibending in the same direction and lying on the sameside of their common tangent and their centers beingon the same side of the curve is called(a) simple curve (b) compound curve(c) reverse curve (d) transition curve.

445. Super elevation depends upon(a) width of the read (b) radius of the road(c) speed of vehicle (d) none of these

446. Different grades are joined together by a(a) compound curve (b) reverse curve(c) vertical curve (d) transition curve.

447. Cubic parabola is a type of(a) compound curve (b) simple curve(c) reverse curve (d) transition cuve.

448. If length of a transition curve is such that full super-elevation is attained at the junction with the circularcurve, then resultant curve is called(a) compound curve (b) combined curve(c) reverse curve (d) simple curve.

449. Angle subteded by the long chord of a simple curveat its centre is equal to(a) deflection angle(b) 2 x deflection angle(c) 21/ x deflection angle(d) none of these

450. A curve tangential to three straight lines andconsisting of areas of different radii is called(a) one centred compound curve(b) two centred compound curve

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(c) three centred compound curve(d) four centred compound curve.

451. The chrod of curve less than peg interval is called(a) small chord (b) shord chord(c) long chord (d) sub chord.

452. The angle of intersection of a curve is the anglebetween(a) forward tangent and long chord(b) back tangent and long chord(c) back tangent and forward tangent(d) none of these

453. Radius of curvature of a 120 m long are is given bythe expression(a) R =1146/D metres(b) R = 540/D metres(c) R = 1/D metres(d) none of these where D is degree of curvature

454. Length of perpendicular offset from a tangent tothe juction of a transition curve and circular curveiE equal to(a) shift (b) 2 x shift(c) 3 x shift (d) 4 x shift

455. Total angle of deflection of transition curve is equalto(a) spiral angle(b) 1/2x spiral angle(c) 1/3 spiral angle(d) 1/4 spiral angle.

456. For ideal transition, distance from the begining ofthe transition curve to any point is(a) directly proportional to the radius of curvature

at that point(b) inversely proportional to the radius of

curvature at that point(c) inversely proportional to the square of the

curvature at that point(d) none of these

457. If radius of circular curve is five times the lengthof the transition curve, then spiral angle is given by(a) 1/5 radian (b) 1/10 radian(c) 1/20 radian (d) 1/25 radian

458. The difference in elevation of points between avertical and a tangent is proportional

(a) directly to the horizontly distance from the pointof tangency.

(b) inversely to the horizontly distance from thepoint of tangency

(c) inversely to the square of horizontaldistance

(d) directly to the square of horizontal distance.459. Two theodolie method of setting out a simple curve

does not include(a) linear measurements(b) angular measurements(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

460. The shift bisects(a) compound curve (b) reverse curve(c) tangential curve (d) none of these

461. Super elevation provided at the point of reversecurvature in a reverse curve is(a) maximum (b) minimum(c) 0 (d) none of these

462. A lemniscate curve will not be transitional throughoutif the deflection angle is(a) 30° (b) 45°(c) 60° (d) 90°

463. If long chord and tangent length of a circular curveof radius R are equal, then angle of deflection willbe(a) 60° (b) 120°(c) 180° (d) 90°

464. “Point of curve” of a simple circular curve, is(a) point of commencement(b) point of tengency(c) point of inter-section(d) all of these

465. The tape used for measuring base line is made ofNickle-iron alloy and nickel(a) 24% (b) 48%(c) 36% (d) 60%

466. The correction applied to base line having negativesign is(a) reduction to mean sea level(b) correction for horizontal alignment

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(c) correction for sag and slope correction(d) all of these

467. Bench Mark is established by(a) trigonometric levelling(b) barometric levelling(c) spirit levelling(d) none of these

468. Due to curvature of earth, an object looks(a) lower than it is(b) higher than it is(c) at the same height(d) curved, concave towards the observer

469. Reduced level of a bench mark is(a) independent quantity(b) dependent quantity(c) conditioned quantity(d) reduced quanity.

470. When observed value is deducted from themeasurement from some related quantities, it iscalled(a) deduced observation(b) indirect observation(c) direct observation(d) none of these

471. The value of a quantity which is absolutely freefrom all types of errors is called(a) true value(b) observed value(c) most probable value(d) residual value

472. The value of a quantity which has more chances ofbeing true than any other is(a) true value(b) observed value(c) most probable value(d) average value.

473. Difference between the true value and observedvalue of a quantity is called(a) true error (b) most probable error(c) residual error (d) observed error.

474. Difference between any measured quantity and themost probable value of that quantity is called

(a) true error(b) most probable error(c) residual error(d) observed error.

475. A number giving an indication of its precision andtrustworthiness of an observation is called(a) observation. index(b) weight of the observation(c) trueness of the observation(d) none of these

476. The equation which gives the relation betweenobserved quantity and its numerical value is called(a) observation equation(b) conditioned equation(c) normal equation(d) derived equation

477. The equation which expreses the relation existingbetween several dependent quntities is called(a) observed equation(b) conditioned equation(c) normal equation(d) dependent equation

478. The law of weight applicable to the method of leastsquares errors is(a) weights of the sum of the quantities added

algebracically is equal to the sum of thereciprocals of the individual weights

(b) weight of the weighted arithmetic mean ofa number of observations is equal to thesum of the individual weights ofobservations is equal to the sum of theindividual weights of observations


479. In observations of equal precision, the most probablevalues of the observed quantities are those thatrender the sum of the squares of the redidual errorsas minimum. This is a fundamental principle of a(a) Gauss’ Mid Latitude formula(b) Least square method(c) Legendr’s method(d) None of these

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480. The independent constants used for finding out mostprobable values of unknowns are called(a) correlates (b) Grace factor(c) adjustment factor (d) none of these

481. A curve between size of error and number of errors,is called(a) error curve (b) probability curve(c) polygraph (d) computation curve.

482. For computation of volumes, if effect of curvatureof the earth is taken into account, then volumeobtained is(a) straight volume (b) curved volume(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

483. Area of the multi-level sections are calculated by(a) cordinate method(b) prismoidal formula(c) trapezoidal formula(d) none of these

484. Volume of earth work computed by the prismoidalformula, as compared to that by the trapezoidalformula is(a) small (b) large(c) equal (d) none of these

485. Volume swept by a constant area rotating about afixed axis is equal to product of area and length ofthe path traced by the centroid of the area. Thisstatement is(a) cordinate theorem (b) Pappu’s theorem(c) prismoidal thorem (d) none of these

486. Reserviour volume is computed by(a) prismoidal formula(b) trapezoidal formula(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

487. While measuring horizontal angles by the method ofrepetition with a theodolite, readings are taken onboth the verniers. Which of the following errors willbe eliminated by reading both the verniers?(a) Error due to eccentricity of the centres(b) Error due to imperfect adjustment of the line of

collimation(c) Error due to imperfect adjustment of the

horizontal axis

(d) Error due to imperfect graduations488. An angle-measuring instrument reading upto one-

sixth of a degree on the main scale is equipped witha vernier having 19 main scale divisions divided into20 parts. The correct least count for the instrumentis(a) 60 seconds (b) 30 seconds(c) 20 seconds (d) 10 seconds

489. It is required to produce a small-scale map of anarea in a magnetic zone by directly plotting andchecking the work in the field itself. Which one ofthe following surveys will be most appropriate forthis purpose?(a) Chain (b) Theodolite(c) Plane Table (d) Compass

490. A 30 m metric chain is found to be 0.1 m too shortthroughout the measurement. If the distancemeasured is recorded as 300 m, then the actualdistance will be(a) 300.1 m (b) 301.0 m(c) 299.0 m (d) 310.0 m

491. Offsets are(a) lateral measurements made with respect

to main survey lines(b) perpendiculars erected from chain lines(c) taken to avoid unnecessary walking between

stations(d) measurements which are not made at right

angles to the chain line492. If “Force bearing” of a line is S 49° 52' E (assuming

there is no local attraction), the “Back bearing” ofthe line will be(a) S 52° 49' E (b) S 49° 52' E(c) N 49° 08' E (d) N 49° 52' W

493. To find the R.L. of a roof slab of a building, staffreading were taken from a particular set-up of thelevelling instrument. The readings were 1.050 mwith staff on the benchmark and 2.300 m with staffbelow the roof slab and held inverted. Taking theR.L. of the B.M. as 135.150 m, the R.L. of theroof slab will be(a) 129.800 (b)131.900(c) 134.400 (d) 138.500

494. Consider the following operations in a spire test :

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1. Depress telescope and sight a point on theground nearer to the instrument.

2. Clamp horizontal plates.3. Sight a well-defined high point on a high building.4. Change face and repeat the procedure.

495. The correct sequence of these operations is(a) 1,2, 3, 4 (b) 3,1,2, 4(c) 3,2, 1, 4 (d) 2,1, 3, 4

496. The combined correction for curvature andrefraction for a distance of 1400 m is(a) 0.153 m (b)0.132 m(c) 0.094 m (d) 0.021 m

497. A lemniscate curve between the tangents istransitional throughout, if the polar deflection angleof its apex is equal to Ô is the deflection anglebetween the initial and final tangents)(a) Ô/2 (b) Ô /4(c) Ô/16 (d) Ô

498. In a closed traverse, the sum of south latitudeexceeds the sum of north latitudes and the sum ofeast departures exceeds the sum of west departures.The closing line will lie in the(a) N-W quadrant (b) N-E quadrant(c) S-E quadrant (d) S-W quadrant

499. An image of the top of the hill is 96 mm from theprincipal point of the photograph. The elevation ofthe top of the hill is 500 m and the flying height is4000 m above the datum. The relief displacementwill be(a) 768 mm (b) 88 mm(c) 12 mm (d) 8 mm

500. Which one of the following methods would giveaccurate results in determining the direction of theobserver’s meridian?(a) Observation of circumpolar stars on the

same vertical(b) Observation of circumpolar stars at culmination(c) Extra-meridian observation of a circumpolar star(d) Observation of the sun at equal altitudes

501. The direction of the magnetic meridian is establishedat each traverse station and the direction of the lineis determined with reference to the magneticmeridian. This method of traversing is called

(a) fast needle method(b) loose needle method(c) bearing method(d) fixed needle method

502. For a chord of 60 m, the mid-ordinate for a circularcurve of 50 m radius will be(a) 10 m (b) 12.5 m(c) 15 m (d) 18.75 m

503. If an overlapping pair of vertical photographs takenwith a 150 mm focal length camera has an air baseof 2100 m and the elevation of the control point“A” on it is 900 m above M.S.L. and the parallaxof the point is 75 mm, then the flying height aboveM.S.L. of the stereop air will be(a) 3000 m (b) 3150 m(c) 5100 m (d) 5250 m

504. The true length of a line is known to be 200 m.When this is measured with a 20 m tape, the lengthis 200.80 m. The correct length of the 20 m tapeis(a) 19.92 m (b) 19.98 m(c) 20.04 m (d) 20.08 m

505. An observer standing on the deck of a ship justsees the top of a lighthouse which is 30 m abovethe sea level. If the height of the observer’s eye is10 m above the sea level, then the distance of theobserver from the lighthouse will be nearly(a) 22.5 km (b) 24.3 km(c) 33.3 km (d) 59.7 km

506. If 8 denotes declination, 0 latitude of the place ofobservation and a altitude of a star at the primevertical, then(a) sin a = sin 8 cos 0(b) sin 0 = sin S cosec a(c) cos a = cos S sin 0(d) sin S = sin a cos 0

507. Which one of the following methods estimates bestthe area of an irregular and curved boundary?(a) Trapezoidal method(b) Simpson’s method(c) Average ordinate method(d) Mid-ordinate method

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508. Two points A and B are 1530 m apart across ariver. The reciprocal levels measured are : Level atReadings on (in m)A BA 2.165 3.810B 0.910 2.355The true difference in levelbetween A and B wouldbe(a) 1.255 m (b) 1.455 m(c) 1.545 m (d) 1.645 m

509. A lighthouse is visible just above the horizon at acertain station at the sea level. The distance betweenthe station and the lighthouse is 40 km. The heightof the lighthouse is approximately(a) 187 m (b) 137.7 m(c) 107.7 m (d) 87.3 m

510. The true bearing of a line is 34° 20' 40" and themagnetic declination at the place of observation is2° 00' 20" W on the date of observation. Themagnetic bearing of the line is(a) 36° 21' 00" (b) 34° 20' 20"(c) 32° 20' 20" (d) 32° 00' 20"

511. Considering the following assumptions of Bowditchmethod1. Angular measurements are more precise than

linear measurements.2. Linear measurements are more precise than

angular measurements.3. Errors in linear measurements are proportional

to4. Correction to latitude or departure of any side

= Total error in L (or D) Lenght of that sidePerimeter of traverse

Which of these statements are correct?(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

512. To determine the length of a bridge proposed to bebuilt across a wide river, the surveying method ofchoice would be(a) tacheometry(b) chain surveying(c) hydrographic surveying(d) triangulation

513. Heliograph is a type of(a) instrument used for recording the movement of

sun(b) instrument used for contouring an area(c) electronic distance measuring device(d) sun signal used in triangulation work

514. A plot of land 60 m x 20 m is measured by a steeltape. If the standard error of length and widthmeasurements is taken as ± 1 cm, then the standarderror of the area of the plot would be(a) ± 0.1414 m2 (b) ± 0.566 m2

(c) ± 0.632 m2 (d) ± 0.8484 m2

515. If a 30 m length can be taped with a precision of± 0.01 m, then the standard error in measuring 1.08km with the same precision will be(a) ± 0.54 m (b) ± 0.45 m(c) ± 0.36 m (d) ± 0.06 m

516. A 30-m steel tape was standardized at 20°C andmeasurements of distances were taken at 15°C. Ifthe coefficient of linear expansion a of the materialof the tape were 0.00,00112 per degree Celsius,then the error, due to temperature, per tape lengthwould be(a) - 0.00,00560 m (b) + 0.00,00560 m(c) + 0.00,16800 m (d) - 0.00,16800 m

517. Which one of the following statements best definesa ‘level surface’?(a) A horizontal surface every element of which is

normal to plumb line.(b) A curved surface every element of which is

perpendicular to the spheroidal shape of theearth.

(c) A plane surface which is perpendicular at allpoints to the direction of gravity.

(d) A curved surface which is perpendicularto the direction of gravity at every point.

518. A 100 m tape is held 1 m out of line. The truelength is(a) 100.0050 m (b) 99.9950 m(c) 100.0100 m (d) 99.9800 m

519. The coordinate of two end-points A and B of atraverse line AB areXA = 1000.00 m, YA = 1000.00 m

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XB = 2000.00 m, YB = 1000.00 mThe bearing of the line AB will be(a) 0° 0' 00" (b) 60° 0' 00'(c) 90° 0' 00" (d) 180° 0' 00"

520. Which of the following statements regarding planetable surveying is correct?(a) It is not necessary to do accurate centering of

plane table for small scale surveys.(b) Compass rule may be made use of for

adjusting the plane table traverse.(c) From the instrument station, resectors are drawn

to plot the position of objects in the field.(d) All of these

521. If gradient of a ground is — 3%, that of anotherground intersecting with the former is 5%, and thehorizontal length of the vertical curve to be drawnis 600 m, then vertical offset ‘e’ from the vertex ofthe vertical curve to the mid-point of the curve willbe(a) 1.5 m (b) 6 m(c) 15 m (d) 75 m

522. Consider the following statements regarding base-line measurements :1. Very precise measurement can be done only

on densely cloudy days or at nights.2. Error due to application of non-standardized pull

on the tape can be either cumulative orcompensating type.

3. Intermediate obstructions in the measurementon base-lines can be cleared by erecting towers.Of these statements

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct(b) 1 and 2 are correct(c) 1 and 3 are correct(d) 2 and 3 are correct

523. The following equipments can be used to lay outhorizontal angles in field1. Microptic theodolite2. Chain and metallic tape3. Vernier theodolite4. Prismatic compassThe correct sequence of the decreasing order oftheir accuracies is

(a) 2,4, 3, 1 (b) 2,3, 4, 1(c) 1,4, 3, 2 (d) 1,3, 4, 2

524. If downhill end of a 20 m tape is held 80 cm toolow, then its horizontal length will be(a) 19.894 m (b) 19.984 m(c) 20.016 m (d) 20.984 m

525. When a theodolite is in proper adjustment, which ofthe following conditions between fundamental linesare satisfied?(a) Axis of the plate level is perpendicular to the

vertical axis.(b) The line of collimation is at fight angles to the

vertical axis.(c) The axis of the altitude level is parallel to the

line of collimation when it is horizontal and thevertical circle reads zero.

(d) All of these526. The following bearings were taken in running a

closed compass traverse ABCDALineF.B. B.B.AB 124°30' 304°30'BC 68°15' 246°0'CD 310°30' 135°15'DA 200°15' 17°45'One would suspect local attraction at stations(a) A and B (b) B and C(c) C and D (d) D and A

527. ABCD is a regular parallelogram plot of land, whoseangle BAD is 60°. If the bearing of the line AB is30°, then the bearing of the line CD is(a) 90° (b) 120'(c) 210° (d) 270°

528. In theodolite traversing, for the calculation ofindependent rectangular co-ordinates from the fieldobservations, some of the computations are indicatedbelow1. Computation of reduced bearing of each

traverse leg2. Calculation of the closing error3. Balancing of consecutive co-ordinates4. Calculation of consecutive co-ordinatesThe correct sequence in which these computationsare to be made is

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(a) 1,2, 3, 4 (b) 2,4, 3, 1(c) 1,4, 2, 3 (d) 3,1, 4, 2

529. Consider the following steps1. Using Lehmann’s rule, an improved position of

station point is obtained.2. Procedure is repeated till the triangle of error

is reduced to a point.3. ‘Triangle of error’ is obtained.4. The plane table is levelled over the station point.5. Three resection lines are drawn from three well-

defined station points.The correct sequence of the “Lehmann’s procedure”for solving the “three point problem” is(a) 4,5, 3,1, 2 (b) 1,2, 4, 3, 5(c) 5,4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 4,1, 3, 2, 5

530. Besides contours, relief on topographic maps isrepresented in general, by(a) hachures (b) hypsometric tints(c) hill shading (d) All of these

531. If in a triangle ABC, b = 300 m and angle ABC =60°, then radius of the circular curve passing throughthe points A, B and C will be(a) 86.6 m (b) 100.0 m(c) 173.2 m (d) 300.6 m

532. If difference in height of two points whose parallaxdifference is (+) 0.8 mm on a pair of stereo pairtaken from a flying height H and having mean photobase 95.2 m is (+) 100 m, then flying height H willbe(a) 8,000 m (b) 10,000 m(c) 12,000 m (d) 14,000 m

533. If staff intercept on a staff located at 100 m fromthe level for five division deviation of the bubble is0.050 m and if length of one division of the bubbleis 2 mm, then radius of curvature of the bubble tubeis(a) 2.02 m (b) 2.20 m(c) 20.00 m (d) 20.20 m

534. The “Back sight” reading on a vertically held staffat a point A on the floor along the centre line of arailway tunnel is 3.465 m, and the “Fore sight” onthe inverted staff held at the roof of the tunnel just

vertically above A is 1.155 m. The height of thetunnel along the centre line at floor point A is(a) 2.310 m (b) 3.465 m(c) 4.620 m (d) 6.930 m

535. A and B are two traverse stations free from localattraction errors. If the true bearing of a line AB is89°, and the magnetic declination at point A is 1°West, then the magnetic bearing of the line BAwould be(a) 88° (b) 90°(c) 268° (d) 270°

536. Which one of the following gives the correctdistance between the lighthouse and a ship, whenthe ilghthouse whose height is 100 m is visible justabove the horizon from the ship?(a) 30.68 km (b) 36.50 km(c) 38.54 km (d) 40.54 km

537. In a plane table survey, the plane table station positionwas to be fixed with respect to three referencepoints.It was found that one of the reference points wasnot visible due to some obstruction. It was, thereforedecided to make use of the other two points only.Which one of the following statements is trueregarding the determination of station position?(a) The work can be done faster.(b) Two settings of the plane table will be needed,

but the work will be accurate.(c) Only one setting of the table is needed, however

the work will be less accurate.(d) The work will be less accurate and time

consuming.538. Contour interval on a map sheet denotes

(a) vertical distance of contour lines above thedatum plane

(b) vertical distance between two successivecontour lines

(c) slope distance between two successive contourlines

(d) horizontal distance between two successivecontour lines

539. Radius of curvature of an ideal transition curveshould be

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(a) inversely proportional to its length fromthe beginning

(b) directly proportional to its length from thebeginning

(c) proportional to the speed of the vehicle(d) proportional to the superelevation

540. For a simple circular curve, which one of thefollowing gives the correct relation between theradius, R and degree of curve D, for 20 m arclength?(a) R = 5729.6/D (b) R = 1718.9/D(c) R = 1145.9/D (d) R = 572.9/D

541. The number of independent conditions required tobe satisfied for the adjustment of a bracedquadrilateral in triangulation survey is(a) 2 (b) 4(c) 6 (d) 8

542. Following data refer to precise measurement of anangle A on the field(i) 2A = 20° 10' - weight 2(ii) 4A = 40° 10' - weight 3What is the most probable value of angle A?(a) 10° 01' 06" (b) 10° 02' 07"(c) 10° 02' 51" (d) 10° 22' 51"

543. In a trigonometric levelling, the height of the signalused is 4.62 m and the instrument height is 1.25 m.If horizontal distance of the target from theinstrument is 5780 m, then axis-signal correction is(a) 206265 x 3.37/5780 seconds(b) 5780 x 5.87/206265 seconds(c) 5780 x 206265/5.87 seconds(d) 206265 x 5780/3.37 seconds

544. The representative fraction 1/2500 means that thescale is 1 cm equal to(a) 0.25 in (b) 2.5 m(c) 25 m (d) 2.5 km

545. Which of the following are the fundamental lines ofa theodolite?(a) The vertical and horizontal axes(b) The line of collimation and axes of the plate

levels(c) The bubble line of the attitude level(d) All of these

546. Which of the following characteristic features maybe used while plotting a contour plan?1. Two contour lines having the same elevation

cannot unite and continue as one line.2. Contour lines close together indicate a gentle

slope.3. Contour lines cross a valley line at right angles.

Select the correct answer using the codes givenbelow.

Codes :(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3

547. Consider the following statements pertaining to planetable survey :1. Two-point problem is solved by mechanical

method.2. Three-point problem is solved by Bessel’s

method.3. In two-point problem, auxiliary station is

required. Of these statements(a) 1 and 2 are correct(b) 1 and 3 are correct(c) 2 and 3 are correct(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

548. Which one of the following specifications for lengthof base line refers to “Third Order Triangulationsystem?(a) 0.5 to 3 km (b) 1.5 to 5 km(c) 5 to 15 km (d) 10 to 20 km

549. Difference between sum of the angles of a planetriangle and sum of the angles of a spherical triangleis one second, when triangle on the earth surfacehas an area of about(a) 105 sq. km (b) 135 sq. km(c) 159 sq. km (d) 195 sq. km

550. A plan of an area drawn with the original scale of1 cm = 10 m, has shrunk such that a line, originally15 cm long on the plan, measures now 14.5 cm.Then shrunk scale is given by 1 cm equal to(a) 0.97 m (b) 9.70 m(c) 10.34 m (d) 10.97 m

551. Two-peg test in the adjustment of a dumpy levelemploys the principle that

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(a) equal lengths at back sight and fore sight donot affect the difference in level.

(b) reciprocal levelling eliminates errors ofnon-parallel instrument and collimationaxes.

(c) two readings from the same station will minimizeerrors in bubble tube axis.

(d) correct is made for vertical axis at one peg andfor horizontal axis at the other peg.

552. Length of a transition curve for a circular curve ofradius 300 m and for a design speed of 15 m/s,when rate of change of centrifugal acceleration is0.3 m/s3, is(a) 30 m (b) 37.5 m(c) 45 m (d) 60 m

553. If line of sight between two stations A and B, onsea, and 80 km apart, makes tangent at point A,then minimum elevation of the signal required at B(consider coefficient of refraction, m = 0.08 andmean radius of earth as 6400 km) will be(a) 42 m (b) 210 m(c) 420 m (d) 840 m

554. In a closed theodolite traverse, sum of the latitudesis + 5.080 m and sum of the departures is - 51.406m, if sum of the traverse legs is 20.525 km, thenaccuracy of traverse is nearly equal to(a) 1 : 300 (b) 1 : 400(c) 1 : 500 (d) 1 : 1000

555. A sewer is laid from a manhole A to a manhole B,250 m apart along a downward gradient of 1 in125. If reduced level of the invert at A is 205.75 mand the height of the boning rod is 3 m, then reducedlevel of the sight rail at B, is(a) 202.75 m (b) 206.75 m(c) 208.75 m (d) 211.75 m

556. An imaginary line passing through the optical centreof the objective and optical centre of the eye-piecein the telescope or a surveying instrument is called(a) horizontal axis(b) line of collimation(c) optical axis of the telescope(d) reference axis

557. In an old map, line PQ was drawn to a magnetic

bearing of 6° 32', the magnetic declination at thattime being 1° East. The present magnetic declinationis 9° 42' East. The magnetic bearing to which theline is set at present is(a) 357°50' (b) 356°50'(c) 3°10' (d) 2°10'

558. The distance between two bench marks is 1000 m.If during levelling, total error due to collimation,curvature and refraction is found to be + 0.120 m,then magnitude of the collimation error is(a) 0.00527 m (b) 0.0527 m(c) 0.527 m (d) 0.673 m

559. When bubble of a level tube was moved by 10divisions, the change in staff intercept was 0.05 m.If distance between staff and the instrument was100 m, then sensitiveness of the bubble tube is givenby(a) 1.03 sec of arc (b) 10.3 sec of arc(c) 20.6 sec of arc (d) 103 sec of arc

560. In trigonometric levelling, if horizontal distancebetween the instrument and object is 3088 m, thecoefficient of refraction is 0.07 and R sin 1" =30.88 m, then refraction correction in angularmeasure would be(a) 0.07" (b) 0.70"(c) 7.0" (d) 1' 10"

561. A circle of radius 7 m has a standard error of 0.02m on the radius. The standard error of its area is(a) 0.04 m2 (b) 0.14 m2

(c) 0.28 m2 (d) 0.88 m2

562. Fore bearings (FB) and back bearings (BB) of linesPQ and QR have been measured asLineFB BBPQ 50° 0' 235° 0'QR 125° 30' 309° 30'The correct value of the interior angle PQR will be(a) 105° 00' (b) 109° 30'(c) 250° 00' (d) 255° 00'

563. Fix of a plane table from three known points isgood if(a) middle station is the nearest(b) middle station is farther than the other two

stations

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(c) either of the extreme stations is the nearest(d) middle station is close to the great circle

564. Consider following statements associated with thelaws of weights in the theory of errors1. If an equation is multiplied by its own weight,

then the weight of the resulting equation is equalto the reciprocal of the weight of that equation.

2. The weight of the algebraic sum of two ormore quantities is equal to the reciprocal of thesum of the individual weights.

3. If the quantity of a given weight is mulftPliedby a factor, then the weight of the result isobtained by dividing its given weight by thesquare root of that factor.

4. If the quantity of a given weight is divided bya factor, then the weight of the result is obtainedby multiplying its given weight by the square ofthat factor. Of these statements

(a) 1 and 4 are correct(b) 2 and 3 are correct(c) 3 and 4 are correct(d) 1 and 3 are correct

565. A Dumpy level is set up with its eyepiece verticallyover a peg A. The height from the top of peg A tothe centre of the eyepiece is 1.540 m and the readingon peg B is 0.705 m. The level is then set up overpeg B. If height of the eyepiece above peg B is1.490 m and reading on A is 2.195 m, then differencein level between A and B is(a) 2.900 m (b) 3.030 m(c) 0.770 m (d) 0.785 m

566. If cross-sectional areas of an embankment at 30 mintervals are 20, 40, 60, 50, and 30 m2 respectively,then volume of the embankment on the basis ofprismoidal rule, is(a) 5300 m3 (b) 8300 m3

(c) 9300 m3 (d) 9400 m3

567. If bearing of a line AB is N 60° 30' and that of BCis 122° of a closed traverse ABCDE, then measureof the interior angle B is(a) 240° 30' (b) 122° 00'(c) 118° 30' ‘ (d) 154

568. If coordinates of A are 100 N and 200 E and thoseof C are 100 S and 200 E, then length AC is

(a) 400.00 (b) 282.84(c) 244.94 (d) 200.00

569. Deflection angle between tangents drawn at theends of a transition curve is 7°, then radius of thecurve at the end is 400 m. What is the length ofthe transition curve?(a) 60.00 m (b) 97.74 m(c) 120.00 m (d) 150.00 m

570. A transition curve is required for a circular curve of200 m radius, the gauge being 1.5 m and maximumsuper elevation restricted to 15 cm. The transitionis to be designed for a velocity such that no lateralpressure is imposed on the rails and the rate of gainof radial acceleration is 30 cm /s2. The requiredlength of transition curve will work out to be(a) 460 m (b) 46 m(c) 4.6 m (d) 0.46 m

571. A parabolic vertical curve is set out connecting a +0.7% grade to a - 0.6% grade. The chainage andR.L. of the point of intersection are 1000 m and250 m respectively. The admissible rate of changeof grade is 0.05% per 20 m. The chainage of thetangent points will be(a) 600 and 1400 (b) 650 and 1350(c) 700 and 1300 (d) 740 and 1260

572. Consider the following statements associated withtriangulation survey.1. In triangulation survey unknown distances

between stations are determined usingtacheometeric relations.

2. The triangulation station at which astronomicalobservations are made for azimuths are calledLaplace stations.

3. In tertiary triangulation, the length of the sidesis in the range of 10 to 25 km.

4. The length of the base line in primarytriangulation is 8 to 12 km. Of these statements

(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 3 and 4 are correct(c) 1 and 4 are correct (d) 2 and 4 are correct

273. The linear error in a 50 m long traverse is 0.01 m.The angular error (in seconds) considering equalprecision will be(a) 81 (b) 41(c) 21.5 (d) zero

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574. Mean sea level-at any place is the average datumof hourly tide height observed over a period of nearly(a) 5 years (b) 10 years(c) 20 years (d) 50 years

575. Excavation is to be made for a reservoir measuring20 m long, 12 m wide at the bottom and 2 m deep.The side slopes are to be 1 : 1 and the top to theflush with the ground which is level in the vicinity.As per prismoidal formula, the volume of excavationwill be(a) 610.33 m3 (b) 618.66 m3

(c) 625.00 m3 (d) 633.66 m3

576. For a sight inclined at 0° with the horizontal and thestaff held normal to the line of sight, the staffintercept is S. The horizontal distance D betweentacheometer attached with an anallatic lens and staffstation will be equal to (other symbols have theusual meanings)(a) kS cos + r sin 0(b) kS sin 0 + r cos 0(c) (kS + c) cos 0 + r sin 0(d) (kS + c) sin 0 + r cos 0

577. Given that for a triangulation surveyD = distance in kmh = visible horizon from a station of known elevationabove the datum (in metres) If there is noobstruction due to intervening ground, then h is equalto(a) 0.6735 D2 (b) 6.735 D2

(c) 0.06735 D2 (d) 0.006735 D2

578. The given table shows the bearings observed whiletraversing with a compass :LineFB BBAB 45° 45' 226° 10'BC 96° 55' 277° 5'CD 29° 45' 209° 10'DA 324° 48' 144° 48'Which one of the following pairs of stations isaffected by local attraction?(a) A and B (b) B and C(c) D and A (d) None of these

-------------

579. The increase in metacentric height(a) increases stability(b) decreases stability(c) increases comfort for passengers(d) all of these

580. If a vessel containing liquid moves down-ward witha constant acceleration equal to ‘g’ then(a) the pressure throughout the liquid mass is

atmospheric(b) there will be vaccum in the liquid(c) the pressure in the liquid mass is greater than

hydrostatic pressure(d) none of these

581. If velocity is zero over half of the cross-sectionalarea and is uniform over the remaining half, thenmomentum correction factor is(a) 1 (b) 3(c) 2 (d) 4

582. The magnitude of the component of velocity at point(1,1) for a stream function ‘I’ = x2— y2is equal to(a) 2 (b) 2(c) 4 (d) 4 -5

583. A fluid is a substance that(a) is essentially incompressible(b) has a viscosity that always decreases with

temperature(c) can not remain at rest when subjected to

a shearing stress(d) can not be subjected to shear forces

584. The mean velocities at two ends of a stream tube10 cm apart are 2.5 m/s and 3 m/s. The convectionaltangential acceleration mid-way is(a) zero (b) 0.5 m/ s2

(c) 13.75 m/s2 (d) not determinable585. When a particular discharge is flowing in a horizontal

pipe, a mercury-water U-tube manometer connectedto the entrance and throat of a venturimeter fittedin the pipe recorded a deflection of 25 cm. If thesame discharge flowed through the same pipe keptat an inclination of 45° to the horizontal, then thecorresponding deflection by the U-tube manometerwill be

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(a) 25,5 cm (b) 25 / -5 cm(c) 22/2 cm (d) 25 cm

586. A harbour model has a horizontal scale of 1/150and a vertical scale of 1/60. The interval betweensuccessive high tides in the model will be nearly(a) 90 mins. (b) 40 mins.(c) 15 mins. (d) 5 hours

587. Which one of the following pressure units representsthej p,st pressure ?(a) Millibar (b) mm of mercury(c) N/mm2 (d) kgf/cm2

588. Two small orifices A and B of diameters 1 cm and2 cm, respectively, are placed on the sides of a tankat depths of h1 and h2 below the open liquidsurface. If the discharges through A and B areequal, then the ratio of h1 and h2 (assuming equalCd values) will be(a) 16 : 1 (b) 8 : 1(c) 4 : 1 (d) 2 : 1

589. A ping-pong ball, having a diameter of 3.6 cm andweighing 2.4 g, is served with a horizontal velocityof 10 m/sec and a spin that gives rise to a co-efficient of lift of 0.2. Assuming the density of airto be 0.00129 gf /cc, the lift experienced by the ballis nearly(a) 13 gf (b) 1.3 gf(c) 0.13 gf (d) 0.013 gf

590. Flow net is drawn for a two-dimensional boundary.The velocity of unifrom flow at approach is 1.2 m/s. The size of the square is 1.2 cm side. The sizeof the square at another location in the stream tubeis 0.5 cm. The velocity at this point is(a) 1.44 m/s (b) 2.4 m/s(c) 2.88 m/s (d) 3.4 m/s

591. A circular surface area 200 cm2 is inclined to thex and y axis such that the unit vector normal to thesurface is given by n = 0.4i + 0.3j. If a force of2000 kg acts on the x-axis, then the normal stresson the surface will be(a) 10 kg/cm2 (b) 5 kg/cm2

(c) 4 kg/cm2 (d) 3 kg/cm2

592. Given the x-component of the velocity u = 6xy -2x2, the y-component of the flow v is given by(a) 6y2 - 4xy (b) - 6xy + 2x2

(c) 5x2 - 2xy (d) 4xy - 3y2

593. A jet of water issues from a 5 cm diameter nozzle,held vertically upwards, at a velocity of 20 m/sec.If air resistance consumes 10% of the inital energyof the jet, then it would reach a height; above thenozzle, of(a) 18.35 m (b) 19.14 m(c) 19.92 m (d) 20.00 m

594. A hollow cylinder made of wood (sp, gr. = 0.88)has an external diameter of 1.0 m and an internaldiameter of 0.6 m. It floats in water with its axisvertical and is in stable equilibrium. This is possibleonly when the length of the cylinderis equal to orless than(a) 0.72 m (b) 0.95 m(c) 1.03 m (d) 1.20 m

595. A velocity field with no components in the y and zdirection is given by V = 6 + 2xy + t2

The• acceleration along the x-direction at a point(3, 1, 2) at time 2, is(a) 8 units (b) 16 units(c) 28 units (d) 36 units

596. A racing car with a partially filled fuel tank movesin the horizontal direction at a uniform accelerationequal to g. The free surface of the liquid fuel in thetank will assume a slope of(a) 20° (b) 30°(c) 45° (d) 60°

597. For laminar flow in a pipe of circular cross-section,the Darcy’s friction factor f is(a) directly proportional to Reynolds number and

independent of pipe wall roughness(b) directly proportional to pipe wall roughness

and independent of Reynolds number(c) inversely proportional to Reynolds number and

directly proportional to pipe wall roughness(d) none of these

598. When time of closure tc = L/vo (where L is lengthof pipe and vo is speed of pressure wave), theportion of pipe length subjected to maximum headis(a) L/4 (b) L/3(c) L/2 (d) L

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599. The Hardy Cross method of hydraulic analysis ofpipe networks, besides satisfying the continuity andenergy principles, must also satisfy the conditionthat the(a) algebraic sum of the head losses around any

closed loop is zero(b) flow into any junction equals the outflow

from it.(c) flow in each pipe has head loss according to

Darcy-Weisbach or any other pipe head lossequation

(d) momentum principle is followed600. A penstock is 3000 metres long. Pressure wave

travels in it with a velocity of 1500 m/s. If theturbine gates are closed uniformly and completelyin a period of 4.5 seconds, then it is called(a) rapidclosure (b) slow closure(c) sudden closure (d) uniform closure

601. Select the non-dimensional parameter of thefollowing(a) specific weight(b) Manning’s coefficient n(c) angular velocity(d) specific gravity

602. Which of the following is not a non-dimensionalparameter ?(a) Froude number(b) Darcy-Weisbach friction factor(c) Chezy’s co-efficient(d) Mach number

603. If the physical quantities involved in a fluid flowphenomenon are discharge Q, diameter D,acceleration due to gravity g, dynamic viscosity IAand density p, then the number of it arameters neededto express the function F (Q D, g, m, p) = 0 are(a) 2 (b) 3(c) 4 (d) 5

604. In a 1 : 100 scale model of a harbour, the timewhich will correspond to the prototypetidal periodof 12 hours will be(a) 0.12 hour (b) 1.2 hours(c) 12 hours (d) 120 hours

605. A ship’s model of scale 1:100 had a wave resistanceof 1 kg at its design speed. The corresponding waveresistance in prototype will be(a) 100 kg (b) 10000 kg(c) 1000000 kg (d) 1000 kg

606. A model of reservoir is emptied in 10 minutes. Ifthe model scale is 1:25, the time taken by theprototype to empty itself, would be(a) 250 minutes (b) 50 minutes(c) 6250 minutes (d) 2 minutes

607. Water having kinematic viscosity of 0.01 stoke flowsat a velocity of 2m/sec in a pipe of 15 cm diameter.For dynamic similarity, the velocity of oil ofkinematic viscosity 0.03 stoke in a pipe of samediameter will be(a) 0.33 m/sec (b) 0.66 m/sec(c) 2 m/sec (d) 6 m/sec

608. In the model of a highway bridge constructed to ascale of 1:25, the force of water on the pier wasmeasured to be 0.5 kg. The force on the prototypepier will be(a) 7501.5 kg (b) 7622.5 kg(c) 7812.5 kg (d) 7916.5 kg

609. The depth ‘d’ below the free surface at which thepoint velocity is equal to the average velocity offlow for a uniform laminar flow with a free surface,will be(a) 0.423 D(b) 0.577 D(c) 0.223 D(d) 0.707 D where D is the depth of flow.

610. The distance y from pipe boundary, at which thepoint velocity is equal to average velocity forturbulent flow, is(a) 0.223 R(b) 0.423 R(c) 0.577 R(d) 0.707 R where R is radius of pipe.

611. In a laminar flow through a circular pipe of diameter20 cm, the maximum velocity is found to be 1 m/s. The velocity at a radial distance of 5 cm fromthe axis of the pipe will be(a) 0.25 m/s (b) 0.50 m/s

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(c) 0.75 m/s (d) 1.0 m/s612. For laminar flow between parallel plates separated

by a distance 2h, head loss varies(a) directly as h (b) inversely as h(c) directly as h2 (d) inversely as h3

613. If Si and 82 denote the boundary layer thicknessesat a point distance x from the leading edge on a flatplate when the Reynolds numbers are 100 and 256respectively, then the ratio of 81 to 62 will be(a) 0.625 (b) 1.6(c) 2.56 (d) 4.96

614. If the specific energy at the upstream section of arectangular channel is 3 m and minimum specificenergy is 2.5 m, the maximum height of jump withoutcausing afflux will be(a) 0.50 m (b) 1.20 m(c) 2.50 m (d) 5.50 m

615. In a 2m wide rectangulAr channel uniform flowoccurs at a depth of 2m, the velocity of flow beingm/sec. The height of jump which can be raisedwithout causing afflux will be(a) 0 (b) 1 m(c) 2m (d) 3m

616. For a steep slope profile Sy the type of flow will be(a) super critical (b) critical(c) subcritical (d) normal

617. Which one of the following is the correctrepresentation of the sequence of surface profilesif the channel slope changes from mild to steep ?(a) M1, S1 (b) M3, S2

(c) M2, S3 (d) M2, S2

618. A hydraulic turbine has a discharge of 5 m3/sec,when operating under a head of 20 m with a speedof 500 rpm. If it is to operate under a head of 15m, for the same discharge, the rotational speed inrpm will approximately be(a) 433 (b) 403(c) 627 (d) 388

619. A turbine works at 20 m head and 500 rpm speed.Its 1 : 2 scale model to be tested at a head of 20m should have a rotational speed of nearly(a) 1000 rpm (b) 700 rpm(c) 500 rpm (d) 250 rpm

620. Cavitations in caused by(a) high velocity (b) low pressure(c) high pressure (d) high temperature

621. If the pump head is 75m, discharge is 0.46m3/s andmotor speed is 1440 rpm at rated condition, thespecific speed of the pump is about(a) 4 (b) 26(c) 38 (d) 1440

622. Water flows at a depth of 0.1m with a velocity of6m/ s in a rectangular channel. The alternate depthis(a) 0.30 m (b) 0.40 m(c) 0.86 m (d) 0.81 m

623. Water flows at a rate of 10m3/s in a rectangularchannel 3 m wide. The critical depth of flow is(a) 1.13 m (b) 2 m(c) 1.45 m (d) 1.04 m

624. In the Bernoulli equation, used in pipe flow, eachterm represents(a) Energy per unit weight(b) Energy per unit mass(c) Energy per unit volume(d) Energy per unit flow length

625. A 15 cm length of steel rod with relative density of7.4 is submerged in a two layer fluid. The bottomlayer is mercury and the top layer is water. Theheight of top surface of the rod above the ilquidinterface in ‘cm’ is(a) 8.24 (b) 7.82(c) 7.64 (d) 7.38

626. A trapezoidal channel with bottom width of 3m andside slope of 1V:1:5H carries a discharge of 8.0m3/sec with the flow depth of 1.5m. The Froudenumber of the flow is(a) 0.066 (b) 0.132(c) 0.265 (d) 0.528

627. In a 1/50 model of a spillway, the discharge wasmeasured to be 0.3m3/sec. The correspondingprototype discharge in m3/sec is(a) 2.0 (b) 15.0(c) 106.0 (d) 5303.0

628. In a lined rectangular canal, the Froude number ofincoming flow is 3.0. A hydraulic jump forms when

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it meets the pool of water. The depth of flow afterthe jump formation is 1.51 m. Froude number offlow after the hydraulic jump is:(a) 0.30 (b) 0.71(c) 0.41 (d) none of these

629. A pump can lift water at a discharge of 0.15 m3/s to a head of 25 m. The critical cavitation number(ad for the pump is found to be 0.144. The pumpis to be installed at a location where the barometricpressure is 9.8 m of water and the vapour pressureof water is 0.30 m of water. The intake pipe frictionloss is 0.40 m. Using the minimum value of NPSH(Net Positive Suction Head), the maximum allowableelevation above the sump water surface at whichthe pump can be located is:(a) 9.80 m (b) 6.20 m(c) 5.50 m (d) none of these

630. A laboratory model of a river is built to a geometricscale of 1:100. The fluid used in the model is oil ofmass denisty 900 kg/m3. The highest flood in theriver is 10,000 m3/s. The corresponding dischargein the model shall be(a) 0.095 m3/s. (b) 0.100 m3/s.(c) 0.105 m3/s. (d) 10.5 m3/s.

631. Water is pumped from a well tapping an uncomfinedaquifer at a certain discharge rate and the steadystate drawdown (X) in an observation well ismonitored. Subsequently, the pumping discharge isdoubled and the steady state drawdown in the sameobservation well is found to be more than double(i.e., more than 2X). This is proportonate drawdownis caused by(a) well losses(b) decrease in the saturated thickness of the

aquifer(c) nonlinear flow(d) delayed gravity yield

632. A solid sphere (diameter 6 mm) is rising through oil(mass density 900 kg /m3, dynamic viscosity 0.7 kg/ ms) at a constant velocity of 1 cm/s. What is thespecific weight of the material from which the sphereis made? (Take g = 9.81 m/s2)(a) 4.3 kN/m3 (b) 5.3 kN/m3

(c) 8.7 kN/m3 (d) 12.3 kN/m3

A very wide rectangular channel carries a dischargeof 8 m3/s per m width. The channel has a bed slopeof 0.004 and Manning’s roughness cofficient,n = 0.015. At a certain section of the channel, theflow depth is 1 m.

633. What Gradually Varied Flow profile exist at thissection ?(a) M2 (b) M3

(c) S2 (d) S3

A pipeline (diameter 0.3 m, length 3 km) carrieswater from point P to point R (see figure). Thepiezometric heads at P and R are to be maintainedat 100m and 80 m, respectively. To increase thedischarge, a second pipe is added in parallel to theexistig pipe from Q to R. The lenght of the additionalpipe is also 2 km. Assume the friction factor,f = 0.04 for all pipes and ignor minor losses.

634. What is the increase in discharge if the additionalpipe has same diameter (0.3 m) ?(a) 0% (b) 33%(c) 41% (d) 67%

634. If there is a no restriction on the diameter of theadditional pipe, what would be the maximumincrease in discharge theoretically possible from thisarrangement ?(a) 0% (b) 50%(c) 67% (d) 73%

636. below, the reservoir is large. Its surface may beassumed to remain at a fixed elevation. A isconnected to a gas pipeline and the deflection notedon the inclined glass tube is 100 mm . Assuming0 = 30° and the manometric fluid as oil with specificgravity of 0.86, the pressure at A is(a) 43 mm water (vacuum)(b) 43 mm water(c) 86 mm water(d) 100 mm water

637. The x component of velocity in a two dimensionalincompressible flow is given by u=1.5 x. At thepoint (x, y) = (1, 0), they component of velocityv = 0. The equation for they component of velocityis(a) v = 0 (b) v =1.5y(c) v = -1.5x (d) v = -1.5y

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638. An aircraft is flying in level flight at a speed of 200km/hr through air (density, p = 1.2 kg/m2, andviscosity m = 1.6 x 10-5 N-s /m2). The lift co-efficient at this speed is 0.4 and the drag co-efficientis 0.0065.The mass of the aircraft is 800 kg. The effectivelift area of the aircraft is(a) 21.2 m2 (b) 10.6 m2

(c) 2.2 m2 (d) 1.1 m2

639. A wide channel is 1 m deep and has a velocity offlow, V, as 2.13 m/s. If disturbance is caused, anelementary wave can travel upstream with a velocityof(a) 1.00 m/s (b) 2.13 m/s(c) 3.13 m/s (d) 5.26 m/s

640. A velocity field is given as V = 2yi + 3xj where xand y are in metres. The acceleration of the a fluidparticle at (x, y) = (1,1) in the x direction is(a) 0 m/s2 (b) 5.00 m/s2

(c) 6.00 m/s2 (d) 8.48 m/s2

641. A thin flat plate 0.5 m x 0.7 m in size settles in alarge tank of water with a terminal velocity of 0.12m/s.The co-efficient of drag CD = 1.328 /4RL for alaminar boundary layer and CD = 0.072/(R01/5 fora turbulent boundary layer, where Rv is the plateReynolds number.Assume µ = 10-3N-s/m2 and p = 1000 kg/m3.The submerged weight of the plate is(a) 0.0115 N (b) 0.0118 N(c) 0.0231 N (d) 0.0376 N

641. A fire protection system is supplied from a watertower with a bent pipe as shown in the figure. Thepipe friction f is 0.03. Ignoring all minor losses, themaximum discharge, Q, in the pipe is(a) 31.7 lit/sec (b) 24.0 lit/sec(c) 15.9 lit/sec (d) 12.0 lit/sec

642. A steep wide rectangular channel takes off from areservoir having an elevation of 101.2 m. Attheentrance, the bottom elevation of the channel is100 m. If the slope of the channel is increased by4%, the discharge per unit length in the channel willbe(a) 2.24 m2/s

(b) higher than 2.24 m2/ s by 4%(c) higher than 2.24 m2/s by 2%(d) choked

643. The velocity in m/s at a point in a two-dimensionalflow is given as V = 2i + 3j. The equation of thestream line passing through the point is(a) 3dx - 2dy = 0 (b) 2x + 3y = 0(c) 3dx + 2dy = 0 (d) xy = 6

644. The allowable net positive suction head (NPSH)for a pump provided by the manufacturer for aflow of 0.05 m3/s is 3.3 m. The temperature ofwater is 30°C (vapour pressure head absolute =0.44m), atmospheric pressure is 100 kPa absoluteand the head loss from the reservoir to pump is 0.3N-m/N. The maximum height of the pump abovethe suction reservoir is(a) 10.19 m (b) 6.89 m(c) 6.15 m (d) 2.86 m

645. The height of a hydraulic jump in the stilling pool of1.25 scale model was observed to be 10 cm. Thecorresponding prototype height of the jump is(a) not determinable from the data given(b) 2.5m(c) 0.5 m(d) 0.1 m

646. An inert tracer is injected continuously from a pointin an unsteady flow field. The locus of locations ofall the tracer particles at an instance of timerepresents(a) Streamline (b) Pathline(c) Streamtube (d) Straldine

647. In a constant head permeameter with cross sectionarea of 10cm2, when the flow was taking placeunder a hydraulic gradient of 0.5, the amount ofwater collected in 60 seconds is 600 cc. Thepermeability of the soil is(a) 0.002 cm/s (b) 0.02 cm/s(c) 0.2 cm/s (d) 2.0 cm/s

648. Critical depth at a section of a rectangular channelis 1.5 m. The specific energy at that section is(a) 0.75 m (b) 1.0 m(c) 1.5 m (d) 2.25 m

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649. A partially open sluice gate discharges water into arectangular channel. The tailwater depth in thechannel is 3 m and Froude number is 1/ 2\J2. If afree hydraulic jump is to be formed at downstreamof the sluice gate after the vena contracta of the jetcoming out from the sluice gate, the sluice gateopening should be (coefficient of contraction)Cc = 0.9(a) 0.3 m (b) 0.4 m(c) 0.69 m (d) 0.9 m

650. A stream function is given by41= 2 x2 y + (x + 1) y2

The flow rate across a line joining pointsA (3, 0) and B (0, 2) is(a) 0.4 units (b) 1.1 units(c) 4 units (d) 5 units

651. Two observation wells penetrated into a confinedaquifer and located 1.5 km apart in the direction offlow, indicate head of 45 m and 20 m. If thecoefficient of permeability of the aquifer is 30 m/day and porosity is 0.25, the time of travel of aninert tracer from one will to another is(a) 416.7 days (b) 500 days(c) 750 days (d) 3000 days

652. A river model is made to a length scale ratio of 1/100 and depth scale ratio of 1/16. A peak dischargeof 25,600 m3/s in the river will be simulated in themodel with a discharge of(a) 10 cumec. (b) 4 cumec.(c) 1.6 cumec. (d) 0.64 cumec.

653. A rectangular channel of 2.5 m width and 2 mdepth of water carries a flow of 10 m3/s. Thespecific energy for the flow is given by(a) 1.18 m (b) 3.4 m/s(c) 2.0 m/s (d) 2.2 m

654. The head over a 90° V-notch weir increases from0.15 m to 0.3 m. the ratio of new discharge to theoriginal discharge is, nearly equal to(a) 5.65 (b) 1.42(c) 4.0 (d) 2.62

655. The velocity distribution for the flow between twoparallel plates 0.3 m apart is parabolic and themaximum velocity at the centre is 0.5 m/s. The rateof flow per unit length is

(a) 1 m3/s (b) 0 .01m3 / s(c) 10 m3/s (d) 0.1 m3/s

656. If the capillary rise of water in a 1 mm diametertube is 3 cm, the height of capillary rise of waterin a 0.2 mm diameter tube in cm will be(a) 1.5 (b) 7.5(c) 15 (d) 75

657. A jet of water of corss-sectional area = 0.015 m2

and velocity 15 m/s impinges normally on a platemoving with a velocity of 5 m/s in the direction ofthe jet. The force on the plate is (mass density ofwater =1000 kg /m3)(a) 70 N (b) 1500 N(c) 2250 N (d) 3375 N

658. A fan operating at n =1800 rpm and a volume flowrate, of 4.5 m3/s develops a head of 15 cm, measuredon a U-tube manometer filled with water. For ageometrically similar fan that will produce the samehead at the same efficiency, but at a speed ofn = 1200 rpm, the flow rate will be(a) 10.12 m3/s (b) 6.75 m3/s(c) 15.18 m3/s (d) 8.27 m3/s

659. A 300 mm diameter pipe of mild steel having 6 mmthickness carries water with a velocity of 3 m/s.What will be the rise in pressure if the valve at thedownstream is closed instantaneously?(E = Volume modulus of elasticity ofwater = 2 x 109 N/m2, p =1000 kg/m3)(a) 2424 kN/m2 (b) 4141 kN /m2

(c) 4242 kN/m2 (d) 4441 kN/m2

660. It has been observed for critical depth Y„ in arectangular channel carrying a constant dischargethat1. specific energy is maximum2. Froude number = 1.03. specific energy =1.33Y„4. specific force is minimumWhich of the above observations are correct?(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

661 The sequent depth ratio in a hydraulic jump formedin a horizontal rectangular channel is 16.48. The

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flow is supercritical. What is the value of the Froudenumber of flow?(a) 4.0 (b) 8.0(c) 12.0 (d) 120.0

662. What is the ratio of the lift coefficient to dragcoefficient of an aerofoil section at stall ?(a) 1.5 (b) 3(c) 15 (d) 30

663. A very tiny sphere is settling down in a viscousfluid at Reynolds number = 0.2. What is the valueof its drag coefficient ?(a) 320 (b) 120(c) 80 (d) 5

664. Which one of the following statements is correct ?As the depth of immersion of a vertical planesurface increases, the location of centre of pressure(a) comes closer to the centre of gravity of

the area(b) moves apart from the centre of gravity of the

area(c) ultimately coincides with the centre of gravity

of the area(d) remains unaffected

665. What is the discharge corresponding to a criticaldepth of 1.20 m in a 3.0 m wide rectangular channel?(a) 4.12 m3/s (b) 4.94 m3/s(c) 8.24 m3/s (d) 12.35 m3/s

666. When the water surface coincides with the top edgeof a rectangular vertical gate 40 m (wide) x 3 m(deep), then the depth of centre of pressure is(a) 1 m (b) 1.5 m(c) 2m (d) 2.5 m

667. If the error in the measurement of head in a ‘Vnotch is 1%, then the error in the measurement ofdischarge will be(a) 1% (b) 1.5%(c) 2% (d) 2.5%

668. A two-dimensional flow is described by velocitycomponents u = 2x and v = -2y. The dischargebetween points (1,1) and (2, 2) is equal to(a) 9 units (b) 8 units(c) 7 units (d) 6 units

669. Given that atmospheric pressure head = 9m, vapourpressure head (max.) = lm, failure head = 40m andcavitation coefficient a = 0.15, the height at whichthe turbine can be set above the tail race level is(a) 6 m (b) 4 m(c) 3 m (d) 2 m

670. If the radius of the centrifugal pump impeller isreduced from 10 cm to 9 cm, the hewl developedby the pump will change from 10m to(a) 9m of water (b) 8.1m of water(c) 9.487m of water (d) 11.111 m of water

371. A spillway of an irrigation project is to be studiedby means of a model constructed to a scale of 1:9.The prototype discharge is 1000 m3/s. Neglectingthe viscous and surface tension effects, the requiredlfow rate for the model is(a) 12.35 m3/s (b) 111.11 m3/s(c) 4.11 m3/s (d) 1.37 m3/s

372. Which of the following fluids can be classified asnon-Newtonian ?1. Kerosene oil2. Diesel oil3. Human blood4. Toothpaste5. WaterSelect the correct answer using the codes givenbelow:(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4(c) 2 and 5 (d) 1 and 5

673. Consider the following statements related tobuoyancy in fluid statics :1. Principle of buoyancy is applicable both to

lfoating bodies and to submerged bodies.2. Archimedes formulated the first theory of

buoyancy3. In analyzing buoyancy of a floating body it is

assumed that the resultant vertical force passesthroligh centre of pressure.

4. In a free-body diagram of a floating bodysummation of all horizontal forces is taken aszero.

Which of these statements are correct ?(a) 1,3 and 4 (b) 1,2 and 4

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(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4674. A thin smooth piate 1 m wide and 2 m long is

towed through water at a velocity of 2 m/s. Assumingthat boundary remains laminar (kinematic viscosity= 10-6m2/s), then drag on both sides of the plate is(a) 5.3 N (b) 26.6 N(c) 53 N (d) 72.5 N

675. The specific speed of a turbine under a head of 150m to develop 2000 HP while running at 300 r.p.m.is(a) 10 - 35 (b) 35 - 60(c) 60 - 300 (d) 300 - 1000

676. Oil (u = 0.44 Pa.s, p = 888 kg/m3) is filled in thespace between two parallel plates which are 18mm apart. The upper plate is moving at a velocityof 4 m/s. What is the shear stress on the plate ?(a) 97.8 Pa (b) 48.9 Pa(c) 79.8 Pa (d) 87.9 Pa

677. The velocity distribution for flow over a 4. plate isgiven by u = 0.5 y - y2 where u is the velocity in!m/s at a distance y meter above the plate. If thedynamic viscosity of the fluid is 0.9 Ns/m2, thenwhat is the shear stress at 0.20 m from theboundary ?(a) 0.9 N/m2 (b) 1.8 Wm2

(c) 2.25 N/m2 (d) 0.09 N/m2

678. A channel with a mild slope is followed by ahorizontal channel and then by a steep channel.What gradually varied flow profiles will occur ?(a) M1, H1, S1 (b) M2, H2, S2

(c) M1, H2, S3 (d) M1, H2, S2

679. Identify the FALSE statement from the following:The specific speed of the pump increases with(a) increase in shaft speed(b) increase in discharge(c) decrease in gravitational acceleration(d) increase in head

680. A thin-walled long cylindrical tank of inside radiusr is subjected simultaneously to internal gas pressurep and axial compressive force F at its ends. Inorder to produce ‘pure shear’ state of stress in thewall of the cylinder, F should be equal to(a) TE pr2 (b) 2rc pr2

(c) 3.7c pr2 (d) 4rt pr2

681. The flow of glycerin (kinematic viscosity v = 5 x 10-4 m2/s) in an open channel is to be modeled in alaboratory flume using water (v = 10 -6 m2/s) asthe flowing fluid. If both gravity and viscosity areimportant, what should be the lenght scale (i.e. ratioof prototype to model dimensions) for maintainingdynamic similarity?(a) 1 (b) 22(c) 63 (d) 500

682. A flat plate of 0.15 m2 is pulled at 20 cm/s relativeto another plate, fixed at a distance of 0.02 cmfrom it with a fluid having = 0.0014 Ns/m2

separating them. What is the power required tomaintain the motion ?(a) 0.014 W (b) 0.021 W(c) 0.035 W (d) 0.042 W

683. A triangular lamina is immersed in water with itsapex downwards and base 1 meter below watersurface. If its base width and height are 1.5 m and1.8 m respectively, total pressure on the trianglewill be(a) 2090 N (b) 21190 N(c) 2290 N (d) 2450 N

Common Data Q . (149-150)A cylindrical gate 3 m in diameter rests on the crest of adam. Assume water level upto the top of gate684. Horizontal components of water pressure acting per

meter length of gate will be(a) 42145 N (b) 43145 N(c) 44145 N (d) 45145 N

685. Vertical component of water pressure acting permeter length of gate will be(a) 46671 N (b) 34671 N(c) 5464 N (d) None of these

Common Data Q. (151-152)A circular plate of 0.3 m diameter is immersed in waterat an water at an inclination of 60° to the free surfacewith its top edge lm below the water surface.151. Total pressure will be

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(a) 962.23 N (b) 80.113 N(c) 783.5 N (d) 866.23 N

686. Centre of pressureon the plate will be(a) 4.69 m (b) 1.337 m(c) 6.496 m (d) 2.336 m

687. A closed cubical box 1 m on edge is made of uniformsheet and weighs 5.34 kN. What will be itsmetacentric height when placed in an oil of sp.gravity 0.90 with sides vertical ?(a) 0.06 m (b) 6.74m(c) 0.09 m (d) 0.674 m

688. An inclined rectangular sluice gate AB (1.2 m x 5m size) is installed to contrl the discharge of water.End A is hinged. What is the force normal to thegate applied at B to open it ? The angle of inclinationof plate is 45°.(a) 198.65 kN (b) 156.68 kN(c) 186.65 kN (d) 138.81 kN

689. Water flows at a velocity of 2m/sec through a 90cm diameter pipe at the rate of which there is areducer connected it to a 60 cm diameter pipe. Ifgauge pressure at the entrance to the reducer is 4.0kg/cm2, what is the resultant thrust assuming thatloss of head in the reducer is 1.5 m of water ?(a) 14451 kgf(b) 14461 kgf(c) 14471 kgf(d) 14481 kgfA 40 nun diameter jet of water strikes normallyagainst a plate held in position and causes a forceof 900 N on the plate.

690. The jet velocity will be(a) 29.854 m/s (b) 26.765 m/s(c) 559.64 m/s (d) 34.846 m/s

691. Discharge will be(a) 0.3964 m3/s (b) 0.0436 m3/s(c) 0.03371 m3/ s (d) 6.049 m3/s

692. Resultant force on the vane shown in figure, if awater jet of 50 mm. diameter and 20.0 m/s velocitystrikes the vane tangential and is deflected withoutfriction, will be(a) 1247 N

(b) 1347 N(c) 1447 N(d) 1547 N

393. For the sluice gate shown in the figure, forcerequired to hold the gate in place will be (assumegate width to be 2.0 m.)(a) 15.2 Nm(b) 16.2 Nm(c) 17.2 Nm(d) 18.2 Nm

394. Given figure indicates a platform which can rotateabout an axis through M (normal to the plane of thefigure). A jet of water is directed out from thecenter of the platform while it is stationary andstrikes a vane at the periphery which turns the jetthrough 90° as shown. The torque developed willbe(a) 1.51 Nm(b) 2.51 Nm(c) 3.51 Nm(d) 4.51 Nm

695. If = 2xy, then IF will be(a) (y2- x2) + C(b) (y2 + x2) + C(c) (x2- Y2) + C(d) none of theseHere C is a numerical constant.

696. Water is flowing through a 20 cm diameter pipewith friction factor, f = 0.04. The shear stress at apoint 4 cm from the pipe axis is 0.0098 N/cm2. Theshear stress at the pipe wall will be(a) 3.5648 N/cm2 (b) 0.0245 N/cm2

(c) 0.0946 N/cm2 (d) 9.620N/cm2

697. What is the velocity of flow of oil u = 0.5 poise,density 800 kg/m’ through a pipe of diameter 9 mmand 12 m long when the head lost is 0.75 m ?(a) 24.8 mm/s (b) 34.6 mm/s(c) 29.6 mrn/s (d) 39.6 mm/s

698. What is the critical velocity of water at 20 °Cflowing through a 20 cm diameter pipe ? Takekinematic viscosity of water at 20 °C = 0.0101stoke. Assume that the changes from laminar toturbulent at R = 2320.

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(a) 1.946 cm/sec (b) 6.239 cm/sec(c) 2.934 cm/sec (d) 1.117 cm/sec

699. Crude oil of kinematic viscosity 2.25 stokes flowsthrough a 20cm diameter pipe, the rate of flowbeing 1.5 litres/sec. The Reynolds number will be(a) 624.29 (b) 742.9(c) 424.4 (d) 26.296

700. Water flows through a 8 mm diameter 350 m longpipe at a velocity of 25 cm per second. Maximumtemperature of water for laminar flow will be.Specific weight may be assumed to be constant.Take the flow to be laminar when the Reynoldsnumber does not exceed 2000.(a) 64.249° C (b) 20.32° C(c) 34.294° C (d) 24.96° C

701. A 0.20 m diameter pipe 20 km long transports oil ata flow rate of 0.01 m3/s. The power required tomaintain the flow if dynamic viscosity and densityof oil are 0.08P and 900 kg/m’, respectively, will be(a) 405 KW (b) 808 KW(c) 908 KW (d) 306 KW

702. A 400 m long horizontal pipe is to deliver 900 kg ofoil (S = 0.9, v = 0.002 m2/s) per minute. If headloss is not to exceeds 8 m of oil, the pipe diameterwill be (Friction factor in laminar flow, f = 64/Re).(a) 0.2728 m (b) 0.394 m(c) 0.7898 m (d) 2.648 m

703. Glycerine (u =1.5 Pas and p = 1260 kg /m3) flowsat a mean velocity of 5 m/s in a 100 mm diameterpipe.What is the power expended by the flow in adistance of 12 m ?(a) 1564.96 W (b) 124.94 W(c) 1409.43 W (d) 11309.73 W

Common Data Q.( 172-173)A rectangular plate lm long and 30 cm wide is draggedlengthwise in a stream with a velocity 4 m/s. Specificweight of liquid = 11.8N/m3 and kinematic viscosity= 1.49 x 10-5 m2s.704. What is the drage on both sides of plate?

(a) 1.649 x 10-3 (b) 1.494 x 10-9

(c) 1.62 x 10-2 (d) 1.94 x 10-6

705. What will be the drag if the plate is towed breadthwise?(a) 4.24 x 10-11 N (b) 6.24 x 10-6N(c) 2.94 x 10-9N (d) 2.94 x 10-2 N

706. A truck having a projected area of 6.5 m2 travellingat 80 km/h experiences a total resistance of 2 kN.Out of this, 25% is due to rolling friction, 15% dueto surface friction and the remaining 60% due toform drage. What is the coefficient of form drage?(assume specific weight of air as 12 N/m2).(a) 0.54 (b) 0.58(c) 0.74 (d) 0.82

Linked Answers Q. (175-176)A ping pong ball weighing 0.025 N and having a diameterof 3.5 cm is served in such a manner that it moves overthe net in a horizontal direction with a velocity of 15 m/s and a forward spin of 90 revolutions/second.707. What is instant acceleration?

(a)79.5 m/s2 (b) 69.5 m/s2

(c) 72.5 m/s2 (d) 62.5 m/s2

708. What is the upward force(a) 0.12 N (b) 0.15 N(c) 0.16 N (d) 0.24 N

Common Data Q. (177-178)Electric transmission towers, 10 m high are fixed 400 mapart to support 10 cables, each of 2 cm diameter,709. What is the moment acting at the base of each

tower when a wind flows with a velocity of 100km/h ?Pair = 1.2 kg/m3 and m(air) = 1.6x 10-5 kg/m s.(a) 29.62 KNm (b) 21.72 KNm(c) 19.6 KNm (d) 17.5 KNm

710. What frequency of vortex shedding?(a) 223 Hz (b) 243 Hz(c) 263 Hz (d) 273 Hz

711. An aeroplane weights 24 kh and has an area of 35m2. If coefficient of lift varies linearly from 0.3 to0.8 while the angle of attack varies from 0° to 8°,then angle of attack for the aeroplane speed of 150km/h, will be (Assume : pair =1.1 kg/m3)(a) 66.24° (b) 9.26°

186


(c) 7.24° (d) 6.67°712. A flat disc of 10 cm diameter rotates on a table

separated by an oil film of 1.5 mm thickness. If thetorque to rotate the disc at 50 RPM is 3 x 10-5 kg-m, What is viscosity of the oil in centipoise?(Assume suitable velociy profile).(a) 0.624 Poise (b) 0.0429 Poise(c) 0.468 Poise (d) 0.0926 Poise

713. What is the shear stress at a point in a glycerinemass in motion if velocity gradient is 0.25 metre persec/per metre? The density and kinematic viscosityof glycerine ate 129.3 slug/metre and 6.30 x 10-4

m2 per second respectively.(a) 0.06492 kgm2 (b) 7.246 kgm2

(c) 0.02036 kg/m2 (d) 2.248 kgm2

714. What power is needed per km length of pipe tomaintain a flow of 600 liters /s in a 60 cm diameterpipe (rough)? Take height of roughness protrusionsas 0.30 cms.(a) 64.5 H.P (b) 91.6 H.P(c) 93.6 H.P (d) 86.4 H.P

Common Data Q. (183-184)A 25 cm diameter pipe cerries air (p = 1.22 kg/m3,v = 1.5 x 10-5m2/s) at an average velocity of 8.0 m/s. Theequivalent and grain roughness on the pipe surface is 0.8mm. The flow is detected to be fully mesh turbulent.715. What is friction factor ?

(a) 0.0165 (b) 0.0195(c) 0.0265 (d) 0.0285

716. What is boundary shear stress ?(a) 0.2 pa (b) 0.24 pa(c) 0.25 pa (d) 0.26 Pa

717. The pipe wall roughness height k for a new castiron pipe is 0.26 mm. After three years of service,it becomes 0.41 mm. What will be its value after 18years ?(a) 1.06 mm (b) 1.16 mm(c) 1.26 mm (d) 1.46 mm

718. Given : Free stream velocity = 10 m/s Boundarylayer thickness = 25 mm Mass density of fluid =1.25 kg/m3; OM= 0.097. The loss of momentumdue to formation of boundary layer will be

(a) 0.1 N/m (b) 0.2 N/m(c) 0.3 N/m (d) 0.4 N/m

719. Water is flowing over a thin smooth plate of length5 m and width 2 m at a velocity if 1.0 m/s. Ifboundary layer flow changes from laminar toturbulent at a Reynolds number of 5 x105, thendistance from leading edge upto which boundarylayer is laminar, will be (Assume ,u = 0.01 poise).(a) 0.2 m (b) 0.4 m(c) 0.5 m (d) 0.6 m

720. The ratio of friction drag on the front half and rearhalf of the flat plate kept at zero incidence in astream of uniform velocity, if the boundary layer islaminar over the whole plate, will be(a) 1.414 (b) 1.824(c) 2.414 (d) 2.824

721. A rectangular channel is to carry 1.3 m3/s at aslope of 0.009. If the channel is lined with galvanizediron, n = 0.0011, what is the minimum of squaremeters of metal needed for each 100 m of channel ?Neglect free board.(a) 171.2 m2 (b) 192.2 m2

(c) 221.2 m2 (d) 326.2 m2

Common Data Q. (191-192)A certain stretch of a lined channel has one vertical sideand the other 45° sloping wall. It is to deliver water at 30m3/s with a velocity of 1 m/s722. Flow depth for minimum lining area will be

(a) 2.96 m (b) 3.24 m(c) 3.96 m (d) 4.38 m

723. Width for minimum lining area will be(a) 3.6 m (b) 3.9 m(c) 4.2 m (d) 5.6 m

724. Two depths having specific energy of 1.83 m for2.80 m3/s-m are(a) 1.69m, 0.516m (b) 1.69m, 0.624 m(c) 1.89m, 0.516m (d) 1.89m, 0.624 m

Common Data Q. (194-195)A rectangular channel is 4m wide and of water is 2 m.The bed slope is 1 in 1000, and water depth at the entranceis not changed

187


725. Minimum width of throat will be(a) 1.98 m (b) 2.98 m(c) 3.98 m (d) 4.28 m

726. Maximum height of hump to produce critical depthwill be (n = 0.015.)(a) 0.4 m (b) 0.3 m(c) 0.2 m (d) none of these

727. If width is reduced to 2.8 m, what will be the changein upstream water level ?(a) 10.7 cm (b) 11.7 cm(c) 12.7 cm (d) 14.7 cm

728. If hump is raised to 45 cm, then upstream depthwill increase by(a) 4.7 cm (b) 5.7 cm(c) 6.7 cm (d) 9.7 cm

729. For the same change in upstream flow depth of 6.7cm, what is the width of constriction will be ?(a) 2.675 m (b) 2.775 m(c) 2.875 m (d) 2.975 m

730. If = 1 and water to be flown is 16.865 m3/s, y1Minimum constricted width, for no changes inupstream flow depth, will be(a) 2.762 m (b) 3.232 m(c) 3.762 m (d) 3.922 m

731. If y1=1 and water to be flown in 16.865m3/s, thenbed slope will be(a) 1 in 15 (b) 1 in 25(c) 1 in 35 (d) 1 in 45

732. If width is reduced to 3.5 m, what will be the changein upstream flow depth?(a) 6 cm (b) 7 cm(c) 8 cm (d) 9 cm

733. If a rectangular cannel 4 m wide and depth ofwater is 1 m carries 16.865 m3/s. What is the slopeof the channel ? What is the type of flow andmaximum height of hump if upstream flow depthhas not to change ?(a) 6.1 cm (b) 7.1 cm(c) 8.1 cm (d) 9.1 cm

734. A rectangular channel has a width of 2 m andcaries a discharge of 4.8 m3/s with a depth of 1.6m. At a certain section, a small smooth hump witha flat top and of height 0.1 m is proposed to be

built. What w:II likely be the change in watersurface ? (Neglect the energy loss).(a) 1.20 m (b) 1.38 m(c) 1.48 m (d) 1.68 m

Linked Answers Q. (204-205)A rectangular 4 m wide carries discharge of 12 m3/s ata depth of 2 m. The flow is suddenly stopped by thecomplete closure gate at the downstream.735. Height of the surge produced will be

(a) 0.527 m (b) 0.627 m(c) 0.727 m (d) none of these

736. Velocity surge produced will be(a) 2.12 m/s (b) 3.12 m/s(c) 4.12 m/s (d) 5.12 m/s

737. What is the slope of free water surface of arectangular stream 15 m wide and 3 m deep, ifslope of the stream bed is 1 in 5000 and totaldischarge is 29 m3/s? Assume Chezy’s C = 65 ?(a) 1 in 3200 (b) 1 in 4800(c) 1 in 6400 (d) 1 in 9200

Linked Answers Q. (207-208)An overflow spilway is 40 m high. At the design energyhead 2 m over the spilway,738. Sequent depths will be

(a) 0.21m, 5.9 m (b) 0.3 m, 5.9 m(c) 0.21m, 6.9 m (d) 0.21m, 7.9 m

739. What is the energy loss in the hydraulic jump onthe horizontal apron at the toe of the spillway?(Neglect energy loss due to flow over spillway face.= 0.738).(a) 24 m (b) 30 m(c) 36 m (d) 48 m

740. The conjugate depths at a location in a horizontalretangular channel 4 m wide are 0.2. and 1.0 m.Discharge in the channel will be(a) 2.23 m3/s (b) 2.83 m3/s(c) 3.23 m3/s (d) 3.83 m3/s

741. A trapezoidal channel with base width 6 m and sideslope 2H to 1V conveys water as 16 m3/s with aflow depth of 1.5 m. Froude number will be(a) 0.18

188


(b) 0.28(c) 0.38(d) 0.48

742. A rectangular channel carrying a supercritical streamis to be provided with a hydraulic-jump type ofeneirtdissipator. If it is desired to have an energyloss of 5m in the jump when inlet Froude numberis 8.5, the sequent depths approximately will be(a) 0.2 m, 2.3 m(b) 0.3 m, 2.3 m(c) 0.2 m, 3.3 m(d) 0.3 m, 3.3 m

------------------

743. What is the safe stopping sight distance for designspeed of 50 kmph two way traffic on a two laneroad assuming co-efficient of friction as 0.37 andreaction time as 2.5 second?(a) 55.2 m (b) 61.4 m(c) 71.5 m (d) 65.6 m

744. What is the stopping sight distance for design speedof 80 kmph for two way traffic on a single laneroad. Assume co-efficient of friction as 0.35 andreaction time as 2 sec?(a) 116.47 m (b) 122 m(c) 232.94 m (d) 244 m

745. What is the minimum sight distance required to avoida head-on collision of two cars approaching fromthe opposite directions at 90 and 60 kmph? It isgiven that the reaction time in 2.5 second, co-efficientof friction is 0.7 and a break efficiency is 50 percentin either case.(a) 153.6 m (b) 82.2 m(c) 71.4 m (d) 235.8 m

746. What is the stopping sight distance on a highway ata ascending gradient of 5% for a design speed of70 kmph assuming co-efficient of friction as 0.35and reaction time as 2 sec ?(a) 80 m (b) 87.14 m(c) 95 m (d) 100 m

747. What is the value of intermediate sight distance fora highway with a design speed of 65 kmph?

Assuming the data for co-efficient of frictionf = 0.36 and for reaction time t = 2.5 sec.(a) 91.4 m (b) 182.8 m(c) 80 m (d) 160 m

748. The speed of overtaking and overtaken vehiclesare 70 and 40 kmph respectively on a two waytraffic road. If acceleration of overtaking vehicle is0.99 respectively, then safe overtaking sight distance,assuming reaction time of 2 sec, will be(a) 278 m (b) 250 m(c) 145 m (d) 160 m

749. What is the minimum length of overtaking zone fora design speed of 96 kmph assuming accelerationas 0.69 m/s2, reaction time as 2 sec and trafficroad as one way ?(a) 342 rn (b) 684 m(c) 1026 m (d) 1710 m

750. The radius of horizontal circular curve is 100 m. Ifdesign speed is 50 kmph and design co-efficient oflateral friction is 0.15, then super elevation requiredif full lateral friction is assumed to develop will be(a) 0.037 (b) 0.047(c) 0.057 (d) 0.067

751. What is the coefficient of friction needed if no superelevation is provided for a horizontal circular curveof radius 190 m and design speed of 65 kmph ?(a) 0.155 (b) 0.165(c) 0.175 (d) 0.185

752. What is the equilibrium superelevation if pressureon inner and outer wheels should be equal? Giventhat radius of the horizontal circular curve is 100 mand design speed is 50 kmph(a) 0.197 (b) 0.187(c) 0.177 (d) 0.207

753. Ruling minimum radius of horizontal curve of anational highway in plain terrain for a ruling designspeed of 100 kmph with e = 0.07. and f = 0.15, isclose to(a) 250 m (b) 360 m(c) 36 m (d) 300 m

754. Design rate of superelevation for horizontal highwaycurve of radius 450 m for a mixed traffic condition,having a speed of 125 km/hour, is

189


(a) 1.0 (b) 0.05(c) 0.07 (d) 0.154

755. The effect of grade on safe overtaking sight distanceis to(a) increase it on descending grades and to

decrease it on ascending grades(b) decrease it on descending grades and to

increase it on ascending grades(c) increase it on both descending and

ascending grades(d) increase it on both descending and ascending

grades756. Which of the following is taken into consideration

while determining overtaking sight distance in fourlane highway ?(a) Distance covered during reaction time(b) Distance covered during overtaking operation(c) Reaction distance plus overtaking distance(d) Distance covered during reaction time plus

distance covered during operation plusdistance covered by the opposing traffic

757. For a constant value of co-efficient of lateral friction,the value of required super elevation increases with(a) increase in both speed and radius of curve(b) decrease in both speed and radius of curve(c) increase in speed and with decrease in

radius of curve(d) decrease in speed and with increase in radius

of curve758. On a horizontal curve, if the pavement is kept

horizontal across the alignment, then the pressureon the outer wheels will be(a) more than the pressure on inner wheels(b) less than pressure on inner wheels(c) equal to the pressure on inner wheels(d) zero

759. What is the mechanical widening required for apavement of width 7 m on a horizontal curve ofradius 250 m if the longest wheel base of vehicleexpected on the road is 7.0 m ?(a) 0.166 m (b) 0.176 m(c) 0.186 m (d) 0.136 m

760. What is the psychological widening of a pavementon a horizontal curve of radius 230 m for rulingdesign speed 80 kmph ?(a) 0.455 m (b) 0.555 m(c) 0.655 m (d) 0.755 m

761. For design, that length of transition curve should betaken which is(a) based on allowable rate of change of centrifugal

acceleration(b) based on rate of change of super elevation(c) higher of (a) and (b)(d) smaller of (a) and (b)

762. Rate of change of centrifugal acceleration for thedesign speed of 65 kmph is(a) 0.67 m/sec3 (b) 0.57 m/sec3

(c) 0.77 m/sec3 (d) 0.60 m/sec3

763. Clearance distance or set back distance requiredfrom the centre line of a horizontal curve to anobstruction on the inner side of the curve dependsupon(a) required sight distance, S(b) radius of horizontal curve R(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

764. Shift of the transition curve of radius 300 m andlength 48 m is(a) 0.32 m (b) 0.42 m(c) 0.52 m (d) 0.62 m

765. In case of summit curve, deviation angle will bemaximum when a/an(a) ascending gradient meets with another

ascending gradient(b) ascending gradient meets with a

descending gradient(c) descending gradient meets with another

descending gradient(d) ascending gradient meets with a level surface

766. Length of a summit curve for a stopping sightdistance of 160 m on a National Highway at thejunction of a rising gradient of 1.5% and a fallinggradient of 2% is approximately(a) 204 m (b) 29 m(c) 13 m (d) 1.3 m

190


767. With increase in speed of the traffic stream, theminimum spacing of vehicles(a) increases(b) decreases(c) first decreases and then increases after reaching

a minimum value at optimum speed(d) first increases and then decreases after reaching

a maximum value at optimum speed768. Length of a vehicle affects

(a) width of traffic lanes(b) extra width of pavement and minimum

turning radius(c) width of shoulders and parking facilities(d) clearance to be provided under structures such

as overbridges, underbridges etc.769. Which of the followings statement (s) is/are correct?

(a) Traffic volume should always be more thantraffic capacity

(b) Traffic capacity should always be more thantraffic volume

(c) Spot speed is the average speed of a vehicle ata specified section

(d) 85th percentile speed is more than 98thpercentile speed

770. With increase in speed of the traffic stream, themaximum capacity of the lane(a) increases(b) decreases(c) first increases and then decreases after reaching

a maximum value at optimum speed(d) first decreases and then increases after reaching

a minimum value at optimum speed771. If stopping distance and average length of a vehicle

are 18 m and 6 m respectively, then theoreticalmaximum capacity of a traffic lane at a speed of10 m/sec is(a) 1500 vehicle per hour(b) 2000 vehicle per hour(c) 2500 vehicle per hour(d) 3000 vehicle per hour

772. When speed of traffic flow becomes zero, thentraffic density

(a) attains maximum value whereas trafficvolume becomes zero

(b) and traffic volume both attain maximum value(c) and traffic volume both becomes zero(d) becomes zero whereas traffic volume attains

maximum value773. If average centre to centre spacing of vehicle is 20

metre, then basic capacity of a traffic lane at aspeed of 50 kmph is(a) 2500 vehicles per day(b) 2000 vehicles per day(c) 2500 vehicles per hour(d) 1000 vehicles per hour

774. On a right angle road inter-section with two waytraffic, the total number of conflict points is(a) 6 (b) 11(c) 18 (d) 24

775. What is the off-tracking of a vehicle of wheel loose6.5 m while negotiating a curved path with a meanradius 32 m?(a) 0.56 m (b) 0.46 m(c) 0.66 m (d) 0.76 m

776. In a braking test, a vehicle travelling at a speed of80 kmph was stopped by applying brakes fully andthe skid marks were 5.8 m in length. Then averageskid resistance of the pavement surface is(a) 0.51 ( (b) 0.61(c) 0.41 ( (d) 0.71

777. If a vehicle travelling at 40 kmph was stopped wtihin1.8 seconds after the application of the brakes, thenaverage skid resistance is(a) 0.43 (b) 0.53(c) 0.63 (d) 0.73

778. A vehicle moving at 40 kmph speed was stoppedby applying the brake and the length of skid markwas 12.2 m. If average skid resistance of thepavement is known to be 0.70, then the brakeefficiency of test vehicle will be(a) 61.2% (b) 51.4%(c) 74% (d) 71.2%

779. In which of the following traffic signal systems,cycle length and cycle division automatically varied ?(a) Simultaneous system

191


(b) Alternate system(c) Simple progressive system(d) Flexible progressive system

780. Drive ways are(a) road connecting highways with commercial

establishments like fuel stations.(b) provided near public conveniences with guide

maps(c) provided along the roads to serve as an

emergency lane for vehicle compelled to betaken out of the road way

(d) also called expressways781. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?

(a) Width of all vehicles - 2.50 m(b) Height of single-decked vehicle - 3.80 m(c) Height of double-decked vehicle - 7.5 m(d) Length of single unit truck with two or more

axles -11.00 m782. 30th highest hour volumes is

(a) average of the 30 peak hour volumes in a month(b) hourly volume which is exceeded by only 30

hours in a year(c) hourly volume which is exceeded by only

29 hours in a year(d) average of the 30 highest hourly volumes in a

year.783. Commutative speed distribution curve is usually

adopted for geometric design of highway. Thepercentile speed adopted for geometric design is(a) 85th percentile speed(b) 90th percentile speed(c) 98th percentile speed(d) 99.9th percentile speed

784. Which one of the following pair is not correctlymatched ?Vehicle class Equivalentry Factors (PCU)(a) Passenger car, tampo - 1(b) Bus, Truck - 3(c) Two wheeler automobile - 0.5(d) Small bullock cart - 4

785. If average space gap between vehicles to followthe relation

s = 0.278 Vt,where V = stream speed taken as 40 kmpht = average reaction time = 0.7 secthen theoretical capacity of a traffic lane with oneway traffic flow will be (assume average length ofvehicle = 5.0 m) in vehicle/hour/lane(a) 2520 (b) 3130(c) 3250 (d) 3740

786. If free mean speed on a roadway is found to be 80kmph under stopped condition and average spacingbetween vehicles is 6.9 m, then capacity flow willbe(a) 1500 vehicle /h/lane(b) 2000 vehicle/h/lane(c) 2900 vehicle /h/lane(d) 3200 vehicle/h/lane

787. On a right angled road inter-section with two lane,two-way traffic, total number of potential conflictpoints will be(a) 22 (b) 24(c) 16 (d) 32

788. Traffic conflicts that may occur in a rotary inter-section are(a) merging and diverging(b) crossing and merging(c) crossing and diverging(d) crossing, merging and diverging

789. Gravity model is used in transportation planningprocess for(a) model split (b) trip distribution(c) trip generation (d) trip assignment

790. In desire line diagram(a) width of desire line is proportional to the number

of trips in one direction(b) length of desire line is proportional to the number

of trips in both direction(c) width of desire line is proportional to the

number of trips in both directions(d) both length and width of desire line one

proportional to the number of trips in bothdirections

791. A traffic rotary is justified where

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(a) number of interesting roads is between 4and 7

(b) space is limited and costly(c) when traffic volume is less than 500 vehicles

per hour(d) when traffic volume is more than 5000 vehicles

per hour792. Maximum number of vehicles can be parked with

(a) parallel parking (b) 30° angle parking(c) 45° angle parking (d) 90° angle parking

793. The entrance and exit curves of a rotary have(a) equal radii and equal width of pavement(b) equal radii but pavement width is more at

entrance than at exit curve(c) equal pavement widths but radius is more at

entrance curve than at exit curve(d) different radii and different widths of

pavements794. As per IRC-recommendations, the average level of

illumination on important roads carrying fast trafficis(a) 10 lux (b) 15 lux(c) 20 lux (d) 30 lux

795. A rotary will be more suitable than control by signalsin situations listed against(a) traffic volume entering from all roads is less

than 300 vehicle per hour(b) a road is in a hilly region(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

796. In soil stabilisation(a) sub-grade should be treated if it has a soaked

CBR of 5 or less(b) sub-bases, after treatment, should have plasticity

index not less than 5(c) Base courses after treatment should have

plasticity index of not more than 2 and a VBRin excess of 100

(d) none of these797. If in a Dorry abrasion test the loss in weight is 21

gms, then coefficient of hardness is(a) 9.5 (b) 13(c) 17 (d) 21

798. The best binder material to be used with stoneaggregates for patch repair work to patch pot holeson wet pavements during the rainy season whentraffic is also heavy, is(a) clay soil(b) rapid curing cutback bitumen(c) hot bitumen(d) bituminous emulsion

799. Which of the following statements is/are correct?(a) Float test is conducted to check the consistency

of the bitumen.(b) Pensky-Markens Test is conducted to determine

the fire point of the bitumen.(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

800. Which one of the following pair is not correctlymatched ?(a) Disintegration of aggregates — Soundness

due to weathering(b) The removal of material from—Abrasion the

surface of the road by grinding action(c) Mutual rubbing or grinding — Attrition

within the mass under the action of traffic(d) Breaking up of road surface —

Disintegration layer through cracking intoirregular shaped areas

801. For detecting whether a bitumen is cracked (overheated) or not, the test/(s) performed is/are(a) Spot test(b) Float Test(c) Ductility Test.(d) all of these

802. In which of the following types of bituminousconstructions is proportionating of materialsdetermined from laboratory tests ?(a) Grouted macadam(b) Premix carpet(c) Bituminous or asphaltic concrete(d) Bituminous macadam

803. Recommended grade of tar for grouting purpose is(a) RT - 1 (b) RT - 2(c) RT -3 (d) RT - 5

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804. Correct order of the following layers from top tobottom is1. Sub-base course2. Base course3. Wearing course4. Sub-grade(a) 3,1, 4, 2 (b) 3,2,1, 4(c) 3,2, 4, 1 (d) 3,4,1, 2

805. Bankelman beam deflection method is used fordesign of(a) rigid overlay on rigid pavement(b) flexible overlay on flexible pavement(c) flexible overlay on rigid pavement(d) rigid overlay on flexible pavement

806. In the group index method of flexible pavementdesign, which of the following factors decidesthickness of the base and surface course ?(a) Percentage of sub-grade soil passing 75 micron

sieve(b) Type of surface and base course material(c) Daily volume of commercial vehicles(d) Percentage of liquid limit of sub-grade soil

807. CBR value of sub-grade soil is 5%. If 4100 kgwheel load and tyre pressure 6 kg/cm2, thenthickness of pavement will be (using U.S. corpsformula)(a) 35.5 cm (b) 45.5 cm(c) 55.5 cm (d) 65.5 cm

808. Traffic survey revealed the present ADTcommercial vehicles as 1200. The annual rate ofgrowth of traffic is 8%. If pavement is to becompleted in 3 years after the last traffic count,then number of vehicle / day for design will be(a) 4050 vehicle/day(b) 3260 vehicle/day(c) 2540 vehicle/day(d) 2820 vehicle/day

809. For a WBM base course, if C-value is 15, trafficindex value is 9.5, stabilometer resistance value as56 and numerical constant K is 0.166, thenpavement thickness will be(a) 25.5 cm(b) 30.2 cm

(c) 31.2 cm(d) 41.2 cm

810. If wheel load is 4100 kg, total sub-grade support is2100 kg and base course constant is 90, then totalthickness of the gravel base (in cm) by McLeodmethod will be(a) 26 cm (b) 30 cm(c) 34 cm (d) 38 cm

811. Average daily traffic on a stretch of road is 300commercial vehicle per lane per day. Design trafficrepetitions for 10 years, when vehicle damage factoris 2.5 and traffic growth rate is 7.5%, .is(a) 3.8 msa (b) 23.5 msa(c) 45.4 msa (d) 16 msa

812. Effect of impact on the design of rigid pavement isaccounted for by(a) increasing thickness as would be calculated with

static wheel load(b) prevailing a base course(c) adopting a reduced flexural strength of concrete

through a factor of safety(d) adopting an increased stress relative to

that produced by static wheel load813. If modulus of elasticity of cement concrete is 21 x

104 kg/cm2, Poisson’s ratio for concrete is 0.13 andmodulus of sub-grade reaction is 3.0 kg/cm3, thenradius of relative stiffness of 15 cm thick cementconcrete slab will be(a) 57.0 cm (b) 67.0 cm(c) 77.0 cm (d) 87.0 cm

814. Equivalent radius of resisting section of 20 cm slabfor radius of contact area of wheel load of 15 cmwill be(a) ‘9.5 cm(b) 10.21 cm(c) 14.07 cm(d) 16.02 cm

814. Spacing between contraction joints for 3.5 meterslab width having thickness of 20 cm and f = 1.5for reinforcement cement concrete,1.0 cm diameterbars at 0.30 m spacing will be(a) 6.51 m (b) 7.12 m(c) 8.72 m (d) 9.35 m

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815. The function of an expansion joint in rigid pavementsis to(a) relieve warping stresses(b) relieve shrinkage stresses(c) resist stresses due to expansion(d) allow free expansion

816. The walls which are necessary on the hill side ofroadway where earth has to be retained fromslipping is called(a) retaining wall(b) breast wall(c) parapet wall(d) none of these

817. Which of the following represents a carpet of sand-bitumen mix without coarse aggregates ?(a) Mastic asphalt(b) Sheet asphalt(c) Bituminous carpet(d) Bituminous concrete

818. For a highway with design speed of 180 kmph, safeovertaking sight distance is (assume acceleration as0.53 m/sec2)(a) 300 m(b) 750 in(c) 320 m(d) 470 m

819. A horizontal curve of 480 in for 7.5 m two-laneroad is to be designed for a speed of 80 kmph. Theraising of the outer edge of the pavement withrespect to the inner edge to cater to the mixedtraffic condition to(a) 0.14 m (b) 0.22 m(c) 0.24 m (d) 0.27 m

820. For a circular curve of radius 200 m, co-efficient oflateral. friction of 0.15 and design speed is 40 kmph,then equilibrium super elevation (for equal pressureon inner and outer wheel) would be(a) 21.3 (b) 7(c) 6.3 (d) 4.6

821. If a descending gradient of 1 in 25 meets anascending gradient of 1 in 40, then length of valleycurve required for a headlight sight distance of 100m will be

(a) 30 m (b) 130 m(c) 310 m (d) 620 m

822. An ascending gradient of 1 in 100 meets adescending gradient of 1 in 50. The length of summitcurve required to provide overtaking sight distanceof 500 m will be(a) 938 m (b) 781 m(c) 470 m (d) 170 m

823. Brake is applied on a vehicle which then skids adistance of 16 m before coming to stop. If thedeveloped average co-efficient of friction betweentyres and the pavement is 0.4, then speed of thevehicle before skidding would have nearly(a) 20 kmph (b) 80 kmph(c) 40 kmph (d) 50 kmph

824. While driving at a speed of 30 kmph (with availablefriction 0.4) down the grade, the driver requires abraking distance twice that required for stoppingthe vehicle when he travels up the same grade.The grade is(a) 7% (b) 10.6%(c) 13.3% (d) 33.3%

825. An observer travelling at a constant speed of 70kmph with the traffic stream over a 5 km stretchis passed by 17 vehicles more than what he passed.When observer travels against the stream at thesame speed, number of vehicles he meets is 303.The flow of the traffic stream is(a) 4480 vph(b) 4161 vph(c) 2240 vph(d) 2002 vph

826. Modulus of sub-grade reaction using 30 cm diameterplate is obtained as 200 N/cm3. The value of thesame (in N/cm3) using the standard plate will be(a) 500 (b) 200(c) 85 (d) 80

827. If total seven day traffic volume for the week is3625 and the traffic volume for Monday is 650,then monthly expansion factor for Monday wouldbe(a) 5.6 (b) 1.25(c) 0.8 (d) 0.25

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828. Equivalent C-value of a three layered pavementsection having individual C-values as given belowwill be Material Thickness, cm C-valueBituminous concrete 10 60Cement treated base 20 225Gravel sub-base 10 15(a) 93(b) 103(c) 113(d) 123

829. Ifannual value of equivalent wheel load (EWL) is10 x 106, then traffic index will be(a) 6.21 (b) 7.23(c) 7.949 (d) 8.595

830. Equivalent thickness of 7.5 cm bituminous concretein terms of WBM base course tb will be (C-valueof bituminous concrete Cc = 62 and C-value ofWBM base course C1 = 15)(a) 8 cm (b) 9 cm(c) 10 cm (d) 11 cm

831. If 7.5 cm bituminous concrete surface with Ec =1000 kg/cm2 is equivalent to thickness t1, of basecourse, then equivalent thickness tb of base coursehaving Eb = 400 kg/cm2 will be(a) 3.9 cm (b) 6.5 cm(c) 8.5 cm (d) 10.2 cm

832. What will be the pavement thickness of base courseby triaxial test method using following data ?Wheel locad = 4100 kgRadius of contact area = 15 cmTraffic co-efficient, X = 1.5Rainfall co-efficient, Y = 0.9Design deflection, A = 0.25 cmE-value of sub-grade soil, Es = 100 kg/cm2

E-value of base course material, Eb = 400 kg/cm2

(a) 55.9 cm(b) 65.9 cm(c) 75.9 cm(d) 85.9 cm

833. If width ofexpansion joint gap is 2.5 cm in a cementconcrete pavement, lying temperature is 10° C, andmaximum slab temperature in summer is 54°C, thenspacing between expansion joints will be (Assume

co-efficient of thermal expansion of concrete as10 x 10-6°C.)(a) 20.5 m(b) 28.5 m(c) 32.5 m(d) 35.5 m

834. For plain cement concrete, what is the spacingbetween contraction joints for 3.5 metre slab widthhaving thickness of 20 cm, f = 1.5 and allowablestress in tension in cement concrete Sc = 0.8 kg/cm2? (assume unit wt. of concrete as 2400 kg/m3)(a) 3.44 m (b) 3.80 m(c) 4.20 m (d) 4.44 m

835. For reinforcement cement concrete, 1.0 cm dia.barsat 0.30 m spacing. What is the spacing betweencontraction joints for 3.5 metre slab width havingthickness of 20 cm and f = 1.5. (assume allowabletensile stress in sted as 1400 kg/cm2and unit wt. ofcement concrete as 2400 kg/m3)(a) 6.25 m (b) 7.52 m(c) 8.72 m (d) 9.32 m

836. An index map used in highway project shows(a) proposed and existing roads and important

places to be connected(b) general topography of the area(c) details of various alternate alignments(d) general details of existing structures like

buildings, wells etc337. As per IRC, maximum load of axle of a vehicle

should not exceed(a) 8165 kg (b) 9500 kg(c) 800 kg (d) 7500 kg

838. Cumulative speed distribution curve is usuallyadopted for geometric design of highway. Thepercentile speed adopted for geometric design is(a) 85th percentile (b) 90th percentile(c) 98th percentile (d) 99.9 percentile speed

839. Conflict which may occur in a r6tary inter-sectionis(a) merging and diverging(b) crossing and merging(c) crossing merging and diverging(d) crossing and diverging

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840. On a highway if velocity of moving vehicle is 560kmph, stopping distance is 25 mts and average lengthof a vehicle be 5 metre, then basic capacity of thelane will be(a) 2000 veh/sec(b) 1500 veh/sec(c) 3000 veh/sec(d) 3200 veh/sec

841. With two way, two lane right angled road inter-section, what are the total number of potentialconflict points ?(a) 7 (b) 24(c) 32 (d) 14

842. The mechanical widening of a single lane road at ahorizontal curve of radius 100 metres for vehiclewheel base of 3.0 nits, is(a) .025 m(b) 0.032 m(c) .045 m(d) 0.085 m

843. The psychological widening on a road of radius 81m and with design speed of 100 kmph will be(a) 10/9m(b) 6/7 m(c) 11/13 m(d) 9/8 m

844. If radius of horizontal curve is 80 mts, design speedis 40 kmph and design co-efficient of lateral frictionis 0.15, then rate of super elevation of full lateralfriction is will be(a) 0.30 (b) 0.48(c) 0.60 ( (d) 0.72

845. If rate of change of super elevation is specified as1 is 1/ 20 and road width 10m, then what will be theminimum length of the transition curve ? It is giventhat maximum super elevation on a road curve is 1is 15.(a) 30 m ( (b) 80 m(c) 125 m (d) 180 m

846. A summit curve is formed at the inter-section of5% upgradient and 50% down gradient. To providea stopping distance of 100m, the length of summitcurve needed will be

(a) 180 m (b) 163 m(c) 227 m (d) 327 m

847. In a parabolic vertical curve, if rising grade g1= +0.5%, falling grade is g2 = — 1.5% and rate ofchange of grade is 0.05 per chain, then length ofvertical curve will be(a) 40 m (b) 80 m(c) 70 m (d) 120 m

848. What will be the length of transition curve for amountaineous terrain road with radius of curvature50 m and design speed of 100 kmph according toIRC?(a) 80 m (b) 100 m(c) 150 m ( (d) 200 m

849. For the load on inner and outer wheels to be equalfor a vehicle moving with 60 kmph about a horizontalcircular curve of radius 100 m, super elevation willbe(a) 0.283 (b) 0.350(c) 0.725 (d) 0.863

850. A vehicle travelling on dry level pavement at 100kmph had the brakes applied. If vehicle travelled 10m before stopping, then coefficient of frictiondeveloped will be(a) 0.6 (b) 0.4(c) 0.7 (d) 0.16

851. If safe stopping distance for a vehicle moving at 60kmph is 50 m and average length of a vehicle is5.0m, then what will be the basic capacity of theroadway ?(a) 700 (b) 1200(c) 1090 (d) 1872

852. The critical condition of loading for combination ofstresses in cement concrete roads for corner regionis(a) load stress + frictional stress(b) load stress + warping stress(c) load stress + warping stress + frictional

stress(d) load stress + warping stress - frictional stress

853. The aggregate required for one kilometre length ofwater bound macadam road per metre width andfor 10 mm thickness will be

197


(a) 15 m3 (b) 12 m3

(c) 10 m3 (d) 8 m3

854. If stopping distance and average length of a vehicleare 20 m and 4 m respectively, then what will bethe theoretical maximum capacity of a traffic laneat a speed of 10 m /sec ?(a) 3000 vehicles /how(b) 2500 vehicles/hour(c) 1500 vehicles/hour(d) 2000 vehicles/hour

855. For sandy soils, most common method of stabilizationis(a) soil cement stabilization(b) mechanical stabilization(c) soil lime stabilization(d) soil bitumen stabilization

856. While aligning a hill road with a ruling gradient of1 in 20, a horizontal curve of radius 80 m isencountered. The compensated gradient on thecurve will be(a) 1 in 15(b) 1 in 17(c) 1 in 25(d) 1 in 27

857. In the group index method of flexible pavementdesign, which one of the following factors decidesthe thickness of base and surface course ?(a) Percentage of sub-grade soil passing 75 micron

sieve(b) Type of surface and base course materials(c) Daily volume of commercial vehicles(d) Percentage of liquid limit of sub-grade soil

858. The drain which is provided parallel to roadway tointercept and divert the water from hill slopes iscalled(a) sloping drain(b) ea tchwater drain(c) side drain(d) cross drain

859. In a bituminous pavement, alligator cracking ismainly due to(a) inadequate wearing course

(b) inadequate thickness of sub-base course ofpavement(c) use of excessive bituminous material(d) fatigue arising from repeated stress

applications860. Expansion joints in cement concrete pavements are

provided at an interval of(a) 10 m(b) 15 m(c) 18 m to 21 m(d) 25 m to 30 m

861. Reflection cracking is observed in(a) flexible pavement(b) rigid pavement(c) rigid overlay over flexible pavement(d) bituminous overlay over cement concretepavement

862. In the revised CBR design method recommendedby the IRC for the design of flexible pavement,total thickness depends upon(a) CBR value of soil only(b) CBR value of soil and magnitude of wheel load(c) CBR value of soil and number of

commercial vehicles per day(d) CBR value of soil and cumulative standard axle

loads863. Which of the following statements is correct with

regard to the radius of curvature of an ideal transitioncurve ?(a) It is inversely proportional to the radius of

the main circular curve(b) It is inversely proportional to its distance from

point of tangency(c) It is constant through out the length of the curve(d) It is directly proportional to the longitudinal

section of the curved portion of the road.864. Bankelman beam deflection method is used for

design of(a) rigid overlay on rigid pavement(b) flexible overlay on flexible pavement(c) flexible overlay on rigid pavement(d) rigid overlay on flexible pavement

198


865. While designing super elevation of a highway itsmaximum value is fixed considering the need to(a) avoid toppling of slow moving vehicles in

mixed traffic flow(b) avoid transverse skidding(c) provide drainage(d) counteract centrifugal force due to 75% of

design speed866. Assuming safe stopping sight distance to be 80 m

on a flat highway section and with a set backdistance of 10 m, what would be the radius of thenegotiable horizontal curve ?(a) 800 m (b) 160 m(c) 80 m (d) 70 m

867. It is a common practice to design a highway toaccommodate traffic volume corresponding to(a) 30th hr(b) peak hr(c) ADT(d) 15 min peak period

868. Number of load cycles (Nf) to cause failure of apavement is proportional to (P is respective appliedload)(a) P4 (b) P-4

(c) P2 (d) 1/P869. If in a Dorry abrasion test, loss in weight is 27 gms,

then coefficient of hardness will be(a) 11(b) 12(c) 13(d) 14

870. The ratio of width of car parking area required atkerb for 30° parking relative to 60° parking isapproximately(a) 0.72(b) 0.57(c) 0.83(d) 2.0

871. The stopping sight distance depends upon(a) total reaction time of driver(b) speed of vehicle(c) efficiency of brakes(d) all of these

872. When the path travelled along the road surface ismore than the circumferential movement of thewheels due to rotation, then it results in(a) slipping(b) skidding(c) turning(d) revolving

--------

873. Strength and quality of concrete depends on(a) aggregate shape(b) aggregate grading(c) surface area of the aggregate(d) all of these

874. The lower water-cement ratio in concrete produces(a) more density(b) small creep and shrinkage(c) more bond(d) all of these

875. The entrained air in concrete(a) increases workability(b) decreases workability(c) increases strength(d) none of these

876. The property of fresh concrete, in which the waterin the mix rends to rise to the surface while placingand compaction is called(a) Bleeding (b) Creep(c) Segregation (d) Shrinkage

877. Separation of ingredients from concrete duringtransportation is called(a) Bleeding (b) Creep(c) Segregation (d) Shrinkage

878. For making impermeable concrete, the processcontains(a) through mixing (b) proper compaction(c) proper curing (d) all of these

879. After casting, an ordinary cement concrete on drying(a) shrinks (b) expands(c) remains unchanged (d) can expand or shrink

199


880. Approximate ratio of strength of cement concreteat 3 months to that at 28 days of curing is(a) 1.15 (b) 1.30(c) 1.0 (d) 0.75

881. Workability of concrete can be improved by addition(a) Iron (b) Sodium(c) Zinc (d) Sulphur

882. Split strength of concrete can be determined by(a) Brazilion test (b) Vicat’s apparatus(c) Cube test (d) Briquettes test

883. Workability of concrete can be improved by(a) more sand(b) more cement(c) more fine aggregate(d) fineness of coarse aggregate

884. Workability of concrete can be improved by(a) increasing size of aggregate(b) decreasing aggregate(c) increasing fine aggregate(d) increasing flaky aggregate

885. Compound that helps in obtaining early strength ofcement concrete is(a) Tricalcium silicate (b) Dicalcium silicate(c) Tri aluminate (d) Dicalcium silicate

886. Workability of concrete is directly proportional to(a) grading of the aggregate(b) time of transit(c) aggregate cement ratio(d) none of these

887. Workability of concrete is inversely proportional to(a) water cement ratio (b) size of aggregate(c) time of transit (d) none of these

888. An air entraining agent when added in concreteimproves(a) strength (b) workability(c) density (d) durability

889. Strength of concrete is directly proportional to(a) cement water ratio(b) water cement ratio(c) sand cement ratio(d) water aggregate ratio

890. Strength of concrete increase with increase in

(a) water cement ratio(b) size of aggregate(c) aggregate cement ratio(d) moisture content

891. Strength of concrete increase with(a) increase in water cement ratio(b) increase in fineness of cement(c) decrease in curing time(d) decrease in size of aggregate

892. Strength of concrete increases with(a) increase in water cement ratio(b) -decrease in water cement ratio(c) decrease in size of aggregate(d) decrease in curing time

893. Approx ratio of the strength of the cement cone of7 days to that of 28 days(a) 0.56(b) 0.85(c) 1.0(d) 1.15

894. Approximate ratio of the direct tensile strength todirect compressive strength test is(a) 0.33(b) 0.25(c) 0.10(d) 0.05

895. Approximate ratio of direct tensile strength tolfexural strength is(a) 0.25(b) 0.33(c) 0.5(d) 0.90

896. Approximate ratio of strength of the 30 cm cube tothat of 15 cm cube is(a) 1.10(b) 1.00(c) 0.90(d) 0.75

897. Stress-strain curve for cement concrete is almostlinear upto(a) 0.25 times ultimate stress(b) 0.35 times ultimate stress

200


(c) 0.5 times ultimate stress(d) none of these

898. Strength of concrete show an increase with(a) decrease in rate of loading(b) increase in rate of loading(c) unaffected by rate of loading(d) depends on application of load

899. Durability of concrete is proportional to(a) sand content(b) water cement ratio(c) aggregate ratio(d) cement aggregate ratio

900. Poisson’s ratio for concrete ranges between(a) 0.10 and 0.15 (b) 0.15 and 0.25(c) 0.25 and 0.30 (d) 0.30 and 0.35

901. Fineness modulus of aggregate is between(a) 2- 3.5 (b) 3.5 - 5.0(c) 5 - 6.0 (d) 6 - 7.5

902. Density of concrete(a) increases with a decrease in size of

aggregate(b) is independent of size of aggregate(c) increases with increase in size of aggregate(d) none of these

903. If slump of concrete mix is 60 mm, then itsworkability is(a) low (b) medium(c) high (d) very high

904. Workability of concrete mix with low water cementratio is determined by(a) slump test(b) tensile strength test(c) compaction factor test,(d) flexural strength test

905. Segregation is responsible for(a) honey comb concrete(b) porous layers in concrete(c) sand streaks in concrete(d) all of these

905. If compaction factor is 0.95, then workability ofconcrete is(a) very low (b) low

(c) medium (d) high906. Grade of concrete not recommended by IS : 456 is

(a) M 150 (b) M 200(c) M 250 (d) M 500

907. Durability of concrete is affected by(a) cider (b) vineagar(c) alcohol (d) both (a) and (b)

908. M100 grade of concrete approximates(a) 1:2:4 mix (b) 1:3:4mix(c) 1: 3 : 6 mix (d) both (a) and (b)

909. Slump test is a measure of(a) tensile strength(b) compressive strength(c) impact value(d) consistency

910. Concrete gains strength due to(a) chemical action of cement with coarse

aggregate(b) hydration of cement(c) evaporation of water(d) all of these

911. Size of fine aggregates should not exceed(a) 2.0 (b) 3.0(c) 3.75 (d) 4.75

912. Shrinkage of concrete is directly proportional to(a) water content in the mix(b) sand content(c) aggregate content(d) aggregate to cement ratio

913. Shrinkage of concrete is directly proportional to(a) cement content(b) sand content(c) aggregate content(d) temperature of water

914. Maximum shrinkage takes place in concrete afterdrying for(a) 28 days (b) three months(c) six month (d) one year

915. Shrinkage in cement concrete decreases with(a) addition of load(b) removal of load(c) removal of moisture

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(d) addition of moisture916. Approximate value of shrinkage strain in concrete

is(a) 0.03 (b) 0.003(c) 0.0003 (d) 0.00003

917. According to Water Cement ratio law, strength ofworkable plastic concrete(a) depends on amount of water used in the mix(b) does not depend on the quantity of cement

mixed(c) does not depend on the quality of cement(d) all of these

918. Placing of concrete should preferably be done at atemperature of(a) 10°c (b) 20°c(c) 27 ± 2°c (d) 32°c

919. For a thick and heavily reinforced structure,workability of concrete should be(a) high (b) medium(c) low (d) zero

920. Under constant load, creep strain in concrete is(a) time dependent(b) temperature dependent(c) moisture dependent(d) none of these

921. Creep in concrete increases with(a) increase in cement content(b) decrease in curing time(c) decrease in age of conc at the time of loading(d) all of these

922. Total creep strain in concrete is directly proportionalto(a) elastic strain (b) time of loading(c) duration of loading (d) moisture content

923. Low temperature during concrete laying(a) increases strength(b) decreases strength(c) has no effect on strength(d) depends on other factors

924. Light weight concrete is used in(a) heat resistance(b) air conditioning of buildings

(c) non load bearing wall(d) reducing thickness

925. Light weight concrete is prepared by(a) using light aggregate(b) formation of air voids in cement by omitting

sand(c) formation of air voids in cement paste bythe substances causing foam(d) all of these

926. A concrete in which dry coarse aggregate are firstpacked to have least voids and then cement sandmortar is injected under pressure to fill all the voids,resulting in a very dense concrete, is called(a) pre—packet concrete(b) vacuum concrete(c) no fines concrete (d) aerate concrete

927. Addition of calcium chloride in concrete results in(a) increased strength(b) reduction in curing period(c) retardation of loss of moisture(d) all of these

928. Addition of 1-2% sodium hydroxide in concrete(a) reduces setting time(b) reduces voids(c) gives smooth surface finish(d) gives wear resistant surface

929. For protection from frost, concrete should(a) be dense(b) be free from cracks(c) have adhesion between mortar and aggregate(d) all of these

930. A setting of cement or concrete which occurssuddenly while being mixed and placed, and preventsfurther working of the materials is called(a) Quick set (b) Initial setting(c) Flash set (d) Knocking

931. Adding a thin layer of cement mortar to the surfaceof concrete is called(a) rendering (b) admixing(c) rodding (d) punning

932. The breaking up and remixing of concrete that haslayers to set is called(a) resetting (b) double setting

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(c) knocking (d) time setting933. A concrete mix that causes difficulty in obtaining a

smooth or good contact with forms which may bedue to excess of middle sized particles or adeficiency of fine materials is called(a) uneven mix (b) harsh mix(c) heterogenous mix (d) none of these

934. A watery scum that is formed on top of concretedue to excessive water or excessive use of trowelor float is called(a) laitance (b) flashing(b) punning (d) water facing

935. Inert material of cement concrete mix is(a) water (b) cement(c) aggregate (d) none of these

936. An aggregate is called cylopean aggregate if itssize is more than(a) 4.75 mm (b) 30 mm(c) 60 mm (d) 75 mm

937. An aggregate is called flaky, if its least dimensionis less than(a) 2/3 mean dimension(b) 3/4 mean dimension(c) 3/5 mean dimension(d) 5/8 mean dimension

938. Water cement ratio is generally expressed in volumeof water require per(a) 10 kg (b) 20 kg(c) 30 kg (d) 50 kg

939. ISI has specified full strength of concrete after(a) 7 days (b) 15 days(c) 21 days (d) 28 days

940. High temperature(a) increases the strength of concrete(b) decreases the strength of concrete(c) no effect on the strength of concrete(d) low effect on the strength of concrete

941. Method of voids for determination of the quantityof cement paste assumes(a) voids in coarse aggregate are filled by fine

aggregates(b) voids in fine aggregate are filled by cement

paste

(c) volume of fine aggregate is equal to total voidsin coarse aggregate plus 10% extra

(d) volume of cement paste required is equal tototal volume of voids in fine aggregate plus15% extra

942. Expansion joints are provided if length of theconcrete exceeds(a) 20 m (b) 45 m(c) 60 m (d) 75 m

943. Behaviour of concrete under instantaneous loads is(a) elastic (b) plastic(c) brittle (d) visco-elastic

944. Average value of creep coefficient for concrete is(a) 5.0 (b) 4.0(c) 3.0 (d) 2.0

945. If variation in strength of the cube of concrete duringtesting is +5% of the average, then representativevalue is taken as(a) average value(b) lowest value(c) test is repeated(d) average after highest and lowest is discarded

946. Resonant frequency method is based on theassumption that(a) strength of concrete increases with age(b) richer mix give more stronger concrete(c) resonant frequency is directly proportional

to square of the strength of concrete(d) modulus of elasticity of concrete goes ondecreasing as the concrete quality deteriorates dueto weathering

947. In pulse technique for testing concrete it is assumedthat(a) frequency of pulse is proportional to

compressive strength of concrete(b) time taken by pulse is proportional to modulus

of elasticity(c) amplitude of pulse is proportional to

compressive strength(d) none of these

948. Workability may be defined as the amount of appliedwork required to compact the concrete to itsmaximum density. This principle is used in

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(a) slum test(b) compaction factor test(c) vee Bee consistometer test(d) none of these

949. If 50 kg of fine aggregate and 100 kg of coarseaggregate are mixed in a concrete whose W.0 ratiois 0.6, then weight of water required for a harshmix is(a) 8 kg (b) 10 kg(c) 12 kg (d) 15 kg

950. Water cement ratio by weight is(a) higher as compared to that by volume(b) lower as that compared to volume(c) same as that by volume(d) none of these

951. Modulus of elasticity for concrete improves by(a) shorter curing period(b) age(c) higher W.C. ratio(d) all of these

952. In order to have segregation in concrete droppingheight should not be less than(a) 25 cm (b) 50 cm(c) 100 cm (d) 250 cm

953. Minimum number of test specimens required forfinding the compressive strength of concrete are(a) 3 (b) 5(c) 6 (d) 9

954. At freezing point of water, concrete(a) sets freely (b) sets slowing(c) set rapidly (d) does not set

955. Steam curing is used in(a) columns only(b) long slabs and columns(c) mass production of precast concrete(d) all of these

956. If sea water is used for preparing concrete, it(a) will cause efflorescence(b) may corrode the reinforcement(c) will cause dampness(d) all of these

957. With rise in temperature of atomspheric air, settingtime of cement(a) increases (b) decreases(c) remains affected (d) none of these

958. Coefficient of thermal expansion of cement concreteis(a) 3 x 10-4 per C (b) 3 x 10-5 per C(c) 3 x 10-6 per *C (d) 3 x 10-8 per°C

959. While designing an air entrained concrete(a) W.0 ratio is reduced(b) proportion of aggregates is reduced(c) an allowance for the entrained air is made(d) strength,of concrete is reduced

960. Main object of compaction of concrete is to(a) eliminate air holes(b) achieve maximum density(c) get intimate contact between concrete and

embeded material(d) all of these

961. Too wet concrete may cause(a) segregation (b) lower density(c) weakness of cone (d) all of these

962. Non uniform compaction of the concrete may cause(a) porosity (b) reduced strength(c) non-homogeneous (d) all of these

963. For a constant WC ratio, decrease in aggregatecement ratio causes(a) increase in workability(b) decrease in workability(c) no change in workability(d) none of these

964. Test most suitable for concrete of very lowworkability is(a) Slum test(b) Compaction factor test(c) Vee—Bee test(d) All of these

965. Minimum water-cement ratio required for fullhydration of cement is(a) 0.18 (b) 0.36(c) 0.54 (d) 0.60

966. Presence of entrained air in air’results in

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(a) reduced bleeding(b) lower density(c) decreased strength at all gases(d) all of these

967. Calcium chloride as accelerating admixture is notrecommanded for use with(a) ordinary portland cement(b) high alumina cement(c) rapid hardening cement(d) none of these

968. Reduction in the quantity of mixing water which ispossible by the use of plasticizers and admixturesvaries from(a) 1% to 5% (b) 5% to 15%(c) 15% to 30% (d) 30% to 35%

969. Steam curing is not used with(a) ordinary portland cement(b) rapid hardening cement(c) high alumina cement(d) all of these

970. Curing period is minimum for concrete using(a) rapid hardening cement(b) low heat cement(c) ordinary portland cement(d) slag cement

971. For a satisfactory workable concrete with a constantWC ratio increase in aggregate-cement ratio(a) increases strength of concrete(b) decreases strength of concrete(c) no effect on strength of concrete(d) none of these

972. As compared to moist cured concrete, permeabilityof steam-cued concrete is(a) more (b) less(c) same (d) none of these

973. For a given degree of hydration, the effect ofincreasing w /c ratio in concrete(a) is to increase permeability(b) is to decrease permeability(c) no change in permeability(d) none of these

974. Compressive strength of concrete determined from150 mm x 150 mm cylinders as compared to thatdetermined from 150 mm cube is(a) more (b) less(c) equal (d) none of these

975. Uniformity of stress-distribution over the cross-section of a cylinder as compared to cube is(a) more (b) less(c) same (d) none of these

976. Addition of sugar in concrete results in an(a) increase in setting time by about 1 hr(b) increase in setting time by about 4 hr(c) decrease in setting time by about 1 hr(d) decrease in setting time by about 4 hr

977. In a mix, if desired slump is not obtained, thenadjustment for each concrete slump difference ismade by adjusting water content by(a) 0.25% (b) 0.5%(c) 0.75% (d) 1%

978. Aggregate impact value of the aggregate used in(a) building concrete is less then 45(b) road pavement concrete is less then 30(c) runway concrete is less then 30(d) all of these

979. Permissible compressive strength of M150 concretegrade is(a) 150 kg/cm (b) 200 kg/cm2(c) 250 kg/cm2 (d) none of these

980. For ensuring quality of concrete, we use(a) single sized aggregates(b) two sized aggregates(c) graded aggregates(d) coarsed aggregates

981. In case of hand mixing of concrete, extra cementto be added is(a) 5% (b) 10%(c) 15% (d) 20%

982. Two main basic materials are(a) lime stone and silica (b) lime and alumina(c) lime and clay (d) lime and chalk

983. Three main raw material for used for portlandcement are

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(a) lime stone, sandstone clay(b) lime, silica and clay(c) lime, clay and gypsum(d) silica, alumina, gypsum

984. Three main raw material for the manufacture ofcement are(a) sand stone, limestone (b) chalk, clay(c) chalk, limestone (d) shale, clay

985. Approximate temprature in kiln in which the granulesof cement mmaterial are exposed to is(a) 800°C-1000° C (b) 1000°C-1300°C(c) 1300° C-1500° C (d) 1500°C-1800°C

986. Gypsum is added in cement for(a) setting(b) cementing(c) retarding the setting(d) heat of hydration

987. Two main compounds of portland cement are(a) tricalcuim silicate and dicalcium silicate(b) dicalcuim silicate and aluminate(c) tricalcium aluminate and silicate(d) tricalcium silicate and tricalcium aluminate

988. Appropriate percentage of tricalcium silicate inportland cement is(a) 70 (b) 60(c) 50 (d) 25

989. If contributions of tricalcuim silicate, dicalciumsilicate, tricalcuim aluminate, tetracalcium- aluminoferrite to the 28 days strength of hydrated ordinaryportland cement are respectively W, X, Y and Zthen(a) X>W>Y>Z (b) W>X>Y>Z(c) Y>W>X>Z (d) W>Y>Z>X

990. Early strength of cement is caused by(a) tricalcuim silicate (b) dicalcuim silicate(c) tricalcuim aluminate (d) gypsum

991. Later stage strength of cement is caused by(a) tricalcuim silicate (b) dicalcuim silicate(c) tricalcuim aluminate (d) gypsum aluminate

992. Initial and final setting times for ordinary portlandcement are approximately related by(a) T = 540 + t (b) T=270 +t

(c) T = 90 + 1.2t (d) T=90 +twhere T, t are final and initial setting time in minutes

993. Development of strength of cement and its finenessare(a) directly proportional(b) inversely proportional(c) not related(d) randomly related

994. Flash set of ordinary portland cement paste is(a) premature hardening(b) surface hardening only(c) hardening without development of heat of

hydration(d) all of these

995. Flash set of portland cement is(a) hardening of silicate content(b) flash hardening of calcuim(c) flash hardening of gypsum(d) reaction of tricalcuim aluminate with water

996 Flash set of portland cement can be prevented bythe addition of(a) gypsum (b) pozzolana(c) calcium chloride (d) calcium aluminate

997 Fineness of cement is tested by(a) Le-Chatelier’s apparatus(b) Sieve analysis(c) Vicat’s needle(d) Specific surface air permeability method

998. Rxpansion of portland cement is indicated by itssoundness. It can be tested by(a) Le-Chatelier’s apparatus(b) Vicat’s needle(c) Specific surface air permeability method(d) Normal consistency

999. Soundness test of cement by Le-Chatelier’sapparatus gives unsoundness due to(a) free lime only (b) magnesuim only(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

--------------

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1. Unsoundness of cement due to magnesia can bedetermined by(a) Autoclave test(b) Vicat’s needle(c) Le-Chatelier’s apparatus(d) Normal consistency

2. Maximum permissible unit of magnesiaconcentration in ordinary portland cement is(a) 2% (b) 4%(c) 6% (d) 8%

3. Expansion of portland cement is caused by(a) free lime (b) magnesia(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

4. Normal consistency of portland cement is about(a) 50 % (b) 30 %(c) 25 % (d) 15%

5. Specific gravity of portland cement is(a) 3.50 (b) 3.30(c) 3.15 (d) 3.00

6. Density of portland cement is about in N/m3(a) 25,000 (b) 23,000(c) 20,000 (d) 18,000

7. Percentage void ration of cement is(a) 50 (b) 40(c) 30 (d) 20

8. Soundness of portland cement can be improved by(a) fine grinding(b) addition of gypsum(c) addition of lime(d) addition of calcium chloride

8. Rapid hardening cement can be obtained by(a) fine grinding of clinker(b) addition of gypsum(c) addition of calcium sulphate(d) higher content of lime

10. White cement is produced in(a) flyash kiln (b) coal kiln(c) oil fired kiln (d) electrical form kiln

11. If cement is very fine, then(a) more is the surface area(b) more is the separation of water at top of

concrete

(c) the reaction with water gets retarded(d) less shrinkage and cracking of concrete

12. Insoluble residue in cement should be less than(a) 10% (b) 5%(c) 3% (d) 1.5%

13. During test of portland cement for “loss on ignition”,the sample is heated to(a) 800°C (b) 1000° C(c) 1200° C (d) 1500° C

14. When water is added to cement(a) heat is generated(b) heat is absorbed(c) chemical reaction is started(d) impurities are washed out

15. During test of portland cement for “loss of ignition”the loss in weight occurs due to(a) chemical of reactions(b) burning of ingredients(c) evaporation of moisture and CO2(d) melting of tricacuim aluminate

16. For ordinary portland cement, initial setting timeshould not be less than and final setting should bemore than(a) 5inin and 10 days (b) 30 min and 10 hr(c) 10 hr and 30. hr (d) none of these

17. Heat generated with the setting and hardening ofcement is called(a) heat of hydration(b) heat of vaporisation(c) heat of humidity(d) latent heat

18. Heat of hydration of cement can be reduced by(a) reducing proportion of C3A and C3S(b) increasing proportion of C3A and C3S(c) increasing the fineness of cement(d) both (a) and (b)

19. Increase in the fineness of cement results in(a) increase in the rate of heat of hydration

without changing total amount of heat liberated(b) decrease in the rate of heat of hydration without

changing total amount of heat liberated

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(c) increase in the rate of heat of hydration withan increase in the total amount of heat liberated

(d) decrease in the rate of heat of hydration witha reduced amount of total heat liberated

20. Setting time of cement increases by adding(a) gypsum (b) calcuim chloride(c) calcium sulphate (d) none of these

21. Vicat’s apparatus is used for(a) fineness test (b) consistency test(c) soundness test (d) final setting time

22. Diameter of ‘vicat’ plunge is 10 mm and lengthvanes from(a) 10 nun - 20 mm (b) 20 mm - 30 mm(c) 30 mm - 40 mm (d) 40 mm - 50 mm

23. A warehouse set cement is(a) cement which absorbs moisture in warehouse(b) cement which gets compressed due to load of

several bags of cement above it(c) cement which sets due to being adjacent to

wall(d) there is no such setting

24. Main component of puzzolana is(a) Siliceous (b) Calcium chloride(c) Calcium sulphate (d) Tricalcium sulphate

25. Addition of puzzolana to cement causes(a) increased curing time(b) less heat of hydration(c) reduced permeability(d) all of these

26. The addition of puzzolana to cement causes(a) reduction in bleeding(b) increase in shrinkage(c) less reaction with sulphates(d) None of the above

27. Addition of puzzolana to ordinary cement may cause(a) increase in early strength(b) decrease in early strength(c) decrease in early curing time(d) increase in permeability

28. Material containing puzzolanic property is(a) Shales (b) Fly ash(c) Diatomaceous clay (d) All of these

29. Material containing puzzolanic property is(a) Pumicite (b) Lime(c) Sandstone (d) Dolomite

30. According to Indian Standards, puzzolana contentin portland pozzolana cement is(a) 5 to 10% (b) 10 to 25%(c) 25 to 35% (d) 35 to 50 %

31. The limit of “loss on ignition” for ordinary portlandcement is(a) 4% ( (b) 5%(c) 6% (d) 7%

32. In Vicat’s apparatus, the paste is said to be ofnormal consistency if rod penetrates by(a) 10-15 mm (b) 23-25 mm(c) 33-35 mm (d) 43-45 mm

33. Aerated cement is produced by the addition of(a) sodium silicate(b) powdered aluminium(c) copper sulphate(d) none of these

34. For quality control of portland cement, the testessentially done is(a) setting time(b) tensile strength(c) soundness and consistency(d) all of these

35. Cement becomes useless if it adsorbs moisture morethan(a) 1% (b) 2%(c) 4% (d) 5%

36. Gypsum contains(a) carbon dioxide and calcium(b) water and calcium sulphate(c) hydrogen sulphide and calcium(d) lime

37. Gypsum is a(a) slow setting material(b) quick setting material(c) setting agent(d) heat resisting material

38. A good aggregate should be(a) coloured

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(b) hard and durable(c) strong and chemically inert(d) all of these

39. An aggregate is called cyclopean aggregate if itssize is more than(a) 30 mm (b) 54 mm(c) 60 min (d) 75 mm

40. An aggregate is called elongated aggregate if itslength is not less than(a) 91.5 mm (b) 101.5 mm(c) 11.5 mm (d) 121.5 mm

41. Flakiness of aggregate has which of the followingeffect on the strength of the concrete in which it isused ?(a) Increased strength(b) Decreased strength(c) Decreased Soudness(d) No effect on strength

42. Bulking of aggregates is due to(a) moisture content (b) absorbed water(c) voids (d) less compaction

43. Moisture content and percentage absorption of waterassociated with aggregates are(a) same (b) related(c) unrelated (d) can be related

44. If angularity number of a aggregate is increased,then workability of concrete will(a) increase (b) decrease(c) no change (d) none of these

45. Di-calcium silicate(a) generates high heat of hydration when water is

added(b) is responsible for 28 days strength of concrete(c) hydrates rapidly(d) has resistance to chemical attack

46. Percentage of gypsum added in cement is(a) 0.25 (b) 1(c) 2 (d) 8

47. Quantity of free magnesia in portland cement shouldnot be more than(a) 1% (b) 2.75%(c) 5% (d) none of these

48. Sieve number used in the fineness modulus test ofcement is(a) 1 (b) 5(c) 7 (d) 9

49. Unit weight of cement in kg /m3 is(a) 1600 (b) 2000(c) 2400 (d) 2500

50. Cement is packed in gunny bags of capacity (m3)(a) 0.035(b) 0.05(c) 0.5(d) None of these

51. A compaction factor of 0.85 for a cement concretesample indicates(a) low workability(b) medium workability(c) good workability(d) very good workability

52. A concrete is said to be workable if(a) its consistency is of a paste(b) it can be easily mixed, placed and

compacted(c) bleeding and segregation is there(d) laitance is formed

53. If water/cement ratio is reduced from 0.45 to 3.38,then(a) strength of concrete will decrease(b) strength of concrete will increase(c) shrinkage cracks will develop(d) both (b) and (c)

54. Ratio of tensile to compressive strength of concreteis(a) 0.025 (b) 0.04(c) 0.1 (d) 0.4

55. With 4 per cent of water content, bulking of sandmay be of the order of(a) 5% (b) 10%(c) 15% (d) 20%

56. If air is entrained in cement concrete(a) workability is decreased(b) workability is increased(c) strength is increased

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(d) permeability of concrete is increased57. Which one of the following does not react with

cement concrete ?(a) Sulphuric acid (b) Vegetable oils(c) Alcohol (d) Sewage water

58. The behaviour of cement concrete underinstantaneous loads is(a) elastic (b) plastic(c) visco-elastic (d) brittle

59. The ratio of Young’s modulus of elasticity for steelto that of concrete is called(a) Poisson’s ratio (b) Modular ratio(c) Bulk modulus (d) Elasticity

60. A concrete mix using OPC takes abOut 2 minutesmixing time in a mixer. If hydrophobic cement isused, then mixing time(a) remains the same(b) decreases(c) increases(d) in not effected by the type of cement

61. For making a good concrete, aggregate should be in(a) saturated condition(b) surface dry condition(c) bone dry condition(d) all of these

62. Pick up the correct statement(a) Water/cement ratio by weight is higher as to

that by volume(b) Modulus of elasticity for concrete improves with

age(c) Shrinkage in concrete can be reduced by using

presaturated aggregates(d) Low heat cement is used for mass concrete

63. For reinforced cement concrete, the slump shouldbe(a) 0 to 5 cm (b) 2.5 to 7.5 cm(c) 7.5 to 10 cm (d) 5 to 12.5 cm

64. As per I.S. specifications, size of cube forcompressive strength of cement is approximately(a) 7 cm (b) 10 cm(c) 15 cm (d) none of these

65. Low heat cement is preferred for(a) slabs (b) columns

(c) dams (d) foundations66. If water/cement ratio is 0.5, then quantity of water

required for making concrete using one have cement,two bags sand and four bags properly graded coarseaggregate will be(a) 15 kg (b) 25 kg(c) 35 kg (d) None of these

67. In cold weather countries, cement preferred is(a) ordinary portland cement(b) puzzolana cement(c) calcium chloride cement(d) low heat cement

68. Steam curing is preferably used for(a) columns(b) beams(c) mass concreting(d) mass production of precast units

69. Autoclave method is used to test unsoudness ofcement because of free(a) lime (b) gypsum(c) magnesia (d) all of these

70. Air permeability test of cement is conducted to find(a) unsoundness (b) ignition loss(c) specific gravity (d) fineness

71. Water/cement ratio law was suggested by(a) Power (b) Brownian(c) Duff Abrahm (d) Feret

72. Water/cement ratio does not depend upon(a) aggregate/cement ratio(b) saturation condition of aggregate(c) gel-space ratio(d) both (a) and (c)

73. Strength of any water/cement ratio is a function of(a) temperature at which hydration of cement takes

place(b) air content in case of air entrained concrete(c) formation of cracks due to bleeding shrinkage(d) all of these

74. Workability of concrete is defined as(a) the ease with which concrete can be compacted

100 per cent

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(b) property of concrete which determines theamount of useful internal work necessary toproduce full compaction

(c) the optimum lubrication required for handling,placing, compacting and finishing

(d) all of these75. Segregation means separation of

(a) water from aggregates and cement(b) fine aggregate from coarse aggregate(c) cement paste from coarse aggregate(d) all of these

76. Bleeding in cement concrete can be checked byadding(a) puzzolana, since it breaks the continuous water

channels(b) air entraining agents(c) by using low alkali cement(d) all of these

77. Slump value for mass concrete should rangebetween(a) 0 - 25 mm (b) 25 - 50 mm(c) 50 -100 mm (d) 100 -175 mm

78. For R.C.C. sections with congested reinforcementcompaction factor is(a) 0.8 (b) 0.87(c) 0.92 (d) 0.95

79. Workability can be measured by(a) K-slump tester(b) Compacting factor test(c) Vee-Bee test(d) all of these

80. High alumina cement mixed with portland cementis used(a) when setting time is to be reduced(b) for underwater constructions(c) when pumping time of cement is to be reduced(d) all of these

81. Age factor for permissible compressive stress inconcrete after six months is(a) 1.1 (b) 1.15(c) 1.2 (d) none of these

82. Ratio of percentage of alumina to that of iron oxidein ordinary cement should not be less than(a) 0.55 ( (b) 0.66(c) 1.02 (d) 2.75

83. Which of the following is matched correctly ?Type of Vibrator R.C.C. member(a) Form work - Column(b) Needle -Prefabricated(c) Surface Beams(d) Platform Floors

84. Fineness of medium sand ranges between(a) 1.7 to 2.1 (b) 2.2 to 2.5(c) 2.6 to 2.9 (d) 2.7 to 3.2

85. Flash set in OPC is due to(a) tri-calcium aluminate(b) tetra-calcium aluminoferrite(c) gypsum(d) di-calcium silicate

86. Gypsum is added to OPC during its manufacturingwhich in turn acts primarily as(a) flux(b) set retarder(c) ant-flash setting ingredient(d) water absorbent

87. Gangetic sand having fineness modulus less thanunity can be classified under(a) Zone I of I.S classification for mix design(b) Zone II of I.S classification for mix design(c) Zone III of I.S classification for mix design(d) Zone IV of I.S classification for mix design

88. Effect of the shape of the coarse aggregate onstrength of concretes is(a) significant(b) no effect at all(c) not considerable and hence coarse aggregate

can broadly be classified as crushed anduncrushed

(d) is in combination with w/c ratio by weight89. Admixture in ordinary concrete is

(a) Expoxy resin (b) Fly ash(c) CaO (d) quartzite

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90. The ratio of 28 day strength of cube to that of astandard cylinder is(a) 0.8 (b) 1.25(c) 0.67 (d) 1.00

91. Normal curing period for lime mortar is(a) 3 days (b) 7 days(c) 10 days (d) 14 days

92. In making concrete, maximum density is achievedby(a) using sufficient cement to fill all the voids(b) controlling the particle size of the ingredient(c) controlling the particle size distribution of

the ingredient(d) reducing the quantity of mixing water

93. Curing of concrete at high temperature results in(a) increase in ultimate strength(b) cracking of concrete(c) decrease in ultimate strength(d) early development of ultimate strength

94. Lime mortar mixing is done in(a) Pug mill (b) Hoffmann’s mill(c) Pan mill (d) None of these

95. Use of relatively weak mortar will(a) accommodate movements due to loads and,

cracking if any, and will be distributed as thinhair cracks which are less noticeable orharmful.

(b) result in reduction of stresses due to differentialexpansion of masonry units.

(c) both (a) and (b) are correct(d) none of these

96. Sand in mortar is needed for(a) decreasing the quantity of cement.(b) reducing shrinkage.(c) increasing the strength(d) all of these

97. A high lime content in composite cement-lime mortarresults in(a) slow hardending(b) quick setting(c) both (a) and (b) are correct(d) none of these

98. Compacting factor test of cement concretedetermines its(a) strength(b) porosity(c) degree of compacting under loads(d) workability

99. The effect of sea water hardened concrete is to(a) reduce its strength(b) decrease its durability(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

100. Which of the following is not a mortar ?(a) Lime mortar(b) Surki mortar(c) Surki sand mortar(d) Fire resistant mortar

101. Void ratio of graded coarse aggregate is about(a) 0.66 (b) 0.60(c) 0.40 (d) 0.30

102. Fineness modulus and the bulking of fine sand bears(a) inverse relationship(b) direct linear relationship(c) direct exponential relationship(d) no relationship

103. For all in aggregate designated 20 mm, thepercentage passing 20 mm sieve is(a) 100% (b) 95-100%(c) 80-95% (d) 60-80%

104. Standard sand should be(a) of quartz (b) of light grey colour(c) free from silt (d) all of these

105. Aggregate abrasion value should not exceed A%for concretes for wearing surface and B% for otherconcrete. When A and B are respectively(a) 20 and 25 (b) 30 and 30(c) 30 and 40 (d) 30 and 50

106. Aggregate cushing value of coarse aggregate whichis used for making concrete, which in turn is usedfor purposes exceed(a) 30% (b) 40%(c) 45% (d) 50%

107. Lignosulphonic acids and their salts act as

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(a) Superplasticizers (b) Foaming agents(c) Set retardeners (d) Accelerators

108. Improved workability may be achieved due to useof(a) spherical large size particles(b) spherical small size particles(c) angular large size particles(d) flaky small size particles

109. Maturity of concrete relates compressive Strengthwith(a) age and temperature(b) compaction(c) creep(d) target strength

110. During hydration, the space originally occupied bywater in the concrete is filled with(a) lime(b) calcium silicate hydrate(c) C 4AF(d) none of these

111. Segregation in cement concrete is defined as(a) separation of coarser particles of mix

causing nonhomogenity(b) appearance of cement and water slurry over

surface of finished, concrete(c) formation of capillary pores in fresh cement

concrete(4) none of these

112. Bleeding in cement concrete is caused because of(a) vibrating fresh concrete for long time(b) ifpinishpag hard the fresh concrete(c) transporting concrete by belt conveyor system(d) both (a) and (b)

113. When cement content in cement mortar is reduced,then(a) slump increases(b) consistency decreases(c) compreskve strength decreases(d) none of these

114. An addition of lime to cement concrete(a) is required for the manufacture of cement(b) increases its imperviousness

(c) increases workability(d) all of these

115. Superplasticizer in cement concrete(a) imparts extreme workability(b) reduces amount of water to be added(c) improves bonding properties(d) both (a) and (b)

116. Compressive strength of cement concrete(a) increases as specimen size in increased(b) decreases as specimen size is decreased(c) increases as specimen size is decreased(d) none of these

117. Age factor for gain in strength of concrete withage after 6 months is(a) 1 (b) 1.1(c) 1.15 (d) 1.2

118. Workability of cement concrete is more for(a) big size aggregate(b) round shape aggregate(c) properly graded aggregate(d) all of these

119. Relation between strength of concrete (S) in kg/cm2 and gel space ratio (x) is given by(a) S = 600x (b) S = 1200x2(c) S = 2400x3 (d) none of these

120. Strength of cement concrete decreases(a) if w/c ratio is less than 0.38(b) if w/c ratio is less than 0.6(c) with entrapped air(d) if cement is increased

121. Water cement ratio of cement concrete is dependentof(a) type of cement(b) cement aggregate ratio(c) entrapped air(d) all of these

122. Fly ash when added to cement concrete(a) requires a little more water for maintenance of

slump(b) lowers 28 days strength(c) reduces permeability of concrete at later ages(d) all of these

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123. If aggregate in concrete passes through a sieve of75 mm and is retained on 60 mm sieve, thisaggregate will be flaky if its minimum dimension isless than(a) 10.5 mm (b) 20.5 mm(c) 30.5 mm (d) 40.5 mm

124. Ordinate of grading curveof an aggregaterepresents(a) cumulative ‘)/0 passing through each sieve

plotted on normal scale(b) cumulative % passing each sieve plotted on

logarithmic scale(c) sieve size plotted on normal scale(d) sieve size plotted on logarithmic scale

125. Bulk density of aggregates does not depend on(a) shape and size(b) specific gravity(c) grading(d) size and shape of container

126. Bulk density of aggregates is expressed as(a) kg/litre (b) kg/m3

(c) T/m3 (d) None of these127. The aggregate having moisture in pores and dry

surface is called(a) moist aggregate(b) dry aggregate(c) saturated surface dry aggregate(d) none of these

128. The aggregated of same nominal size which containless void, when compacted, are(a) irregular (b) flaky(c) rounded spherical (d) none of these

129. Increase in finesness modulus of aggregate indicates(a) finer grading(b) irregular grading(c) gap grading(d) none of these

130. Bulking of sand due to formation of thin film of asurface moisture is caused by(a) absorbed moisture(b) moisture content(c) voids

(d) angularity131. Maximum bulking factor of sand is

(a) 1.00 (b) 1.10(c) 1.2 (d) 1.4

132. Maximum bulking of sand generally occurs at apercentage content of(a) 5 (b) 8(c) 11 (d) 14

133. Fineness modulus of sand is 2.5 and is graded as(a) fine sand(b) medium sand(c) coarse sand(d) very coarse sand

134. Los Angeles machine is used to test aggregate for(a) crushing strength(b) abrasion resistance(c) water absorption(d) none of these

135. The aggregate possessing well defined ,edges formedat’the intersection of roughly planar faces are called(a) flaky aggregate(b) elongated aggregate(c) angular aggregate(d) rounded aggregates

136. Percentage of aggregate of fineness modulus 2.6 tobe combined with coarse aggregate of finenessmodulues 6.8 for obtaining the aggregate of finenessmodulues 5.4 is(a) 30%(b) 40%(c) 50%(d) 60%

137. Size of fine aggregate should not exceed(a) 2.75 mm(b) 3.75 mm(c) 4.75 mm(d) 5.75 mm

138. Factor of safety for steel as compared to concreteis(a) same(b) lower(c) higher

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(c) none of these139. Factor of safety for steel is based on its

(a) yield stress(b) ultimate stress(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

140. Factor of safety of concrete is based on its(a) yield stress(b) ultimate stress(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

141. Design mix concrete is preferred over nominal mixconcrete because(a) strength of former is more(b) cement content of latter is more(c) it is easy to prepare former at site(d) none of these

142. Which of the following grades of concrete isrecommended to prepare the base for a foundationof a masonry wall ?(a) M 7.5 (b) M 15(c) M 20 (d) M 30

143. In a M 7.5 nominal mix concrete, if quantity ofwater used per 50 kg of cement is 45 kg, then thatused for M 15 will be(a) < 45(b) > 45(c) 45(d) Quantity of water has no relation to the grade

of concretes144. In a concrete mix, if maximum size of coarse

aggregate is increased,. then proportion of fine tocoarse aggregate should be(a) increased(b) decreased(c) kept the same(d) proportion does not depend on size of the

aggregate145. If a nominal mix prepared at site for M-10 gives a

testing strength of 17.5 MPa, then mix may begraded as(a) M 15 (b) M 20(c) M 10 (d) none of these

146. Batching of fine sand is not done by volume because(a) containers to measure large volumes are not

easily available(b) it is easy to weigh fine sand(c) volume of sand changes depending on site

conditions,(d) none of the above

147. The most significant change that occurs in concreteafter initial set, is that(a) it starts hardening(b) it starts gaining strength(c) it can not be rehandled(d) none of these

148. pH value of water for quality concrete shall not beless than(a) 2(b) 4(c) 6(d) 12

149. Which of the following does not cause unsoudnessin cement ?(a) Free lime(b) Mangesia(c) Calcium sulphate(d) Silica

150. According to IS: 456-1978, maximum compressivelistress in concrete for design purpose is taken as(a) 0.370 fck

(b) 0.416 fck,(c) 0.446 fck

(d) 0.670 fck

151. Maximum compressive stress in concrete for designpurposes is based on a partial safety factor of(a) 1.15(b) 1.50(c) 1.85(d) 2.20

152. According to IS: 456-1978, maximum strain inconcrete at the outermost compression fibre in thelimit state design of flexural member is(a) 0.0020(b) 0.0035

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(c) 0.0050(d) 0.0065

153. For plain concrete used in underground works ofmoderate exposure condition, minimum cementcontent (in kg /m3) of the concrete mix would be(a) 220 (b) 250(c) 290 (d) 310

154. If compaction factor of a concrete is 0.90, thenworkability is(a) very low(b) low(c) medium(d) high

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155. A soil sample is having a specific gravity of 2.60and a void ratio of 0.78. The water contact inpercentage required to fully saturate the soil at thatvoid ratio would be(a) 10 (b) 30(c) 50 (d) 70

156. A loose uniform sand with rounded grains haseffective grain size of 0.05 cm. Co-efficient ofpermeability of the sand is(a) 0.25 cm/sec (b) 0.50 cm/sec(c) 1.00 cm/sec (d) 1.25 cm/sec

157. A horizontal stratified soil deposit consists of threelayers each uniform in itself. The permeabilities ofthe layers are 8 x 10-4, 50 x 10-4 and 15 x 10 cm/sec; and their thicknesses are 6, 3 and 12 mrespectively. Then the average permeability of thedeposit in horizontal and vertical directionsrespectively are(a) 15 x 10-4 cm/sec and 13.04 x 10-4 cm/sec(b) 13.04 x 10-1 cm/sec and 18 x 10-4 cm/sec(c) 18 x 10 cm/sec and 13.04 x 10-4 cm/sec(d) 13.04 x 10-4 cm/sec and 15 x 10-4 cm/sec

158. If the flow net of a coffer dam foundation had 6numbers of flow channels and 16 numbers ofequipotential drops, with the head of water lost duringseepage being 6 m through the foundation having k

= 4 x 10-5 m/minute, the seepage loss (in m3/day)per metre length of the dam will be(a) 2.16 x 10-3 (b) 6.48 x 10-3

(c) 12.96 x 10-2 (d) 25.92 x 10-2

159. Properties of flow net is /are(a) Flow lines are perpendicular to equipotential

lines.(b) No two flow lines or equipotential lines start

from the same point(c) No two flow lines cross each other(d) all of these

160. A flownet is drawn for a weir, the total head lossis 6 m, number of potential drops is 10 and thelength of the flow path for the last square is 1m.The exit gradient is(a) 0.6 (b) 0.7(c) 1.0 (d) 1.6

161. In a saturated soil deposit having a density of 22kN/m3 the effective normal stress on a horizontalplane at 5 m depth will be(a) 22 kN/m2 (b) 50 kN/m2

(c) 60 kN/m2 (d) 110 kN/m2

162. Average pore water pressure in a fully saturatedclay specimen, which was subjected to a pressureof 20 N/cm2 initially, was measured to be 7 N/cm2after a period of time. Degree of consolidationreached at that time is(a) 35% (b) 70%(c) 45% (d) 65%

163. Water is flowing at the rate of 0.1 cc/sec in anupward direction through a sand sample with k = 2x 10 cm/sec. The thickness of sand sample is 10 mand sectional area is 50 cm2. The effective stressat middle of sample if Ysat = 2t/m3 is(a) zero (b) 1.0 t/m2(c) 2.0 t/m2 (d) 1.5 t/m2

164. In a drained triaxial compression test, a saturatedspecimen of a cohesionless sand fails under adeviating stress of 3 kg/cm2 when cell pressure is1 kgf/cm2. The effective angle of shearing resistanceof sand is about(a) 37° (b) 45°(c) 53° (d) 20°

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165. A undrained triaxial compression test is carried outon a saturated clay sample under a cell pressure of100 kN/m2. The sample failed at a deviator stressof 200 IN/m2. The cohension of the given sampleof clay is(a) 50 kN / m2

(b) 100 kN/m2

(c) 200 kN/m2

(d) 300 kN/m2

166. In an undrained triaxial test, a deviator stress of20 kN/m2 was applied and the corresponding changein pore water pressure measured was 10 kN /m2,then the Skempton’s pore pressure parameter A is(a) 2.0 (b) 3.0(c) 1.0 (d) 0.5

167. A slope of infinite extent is made in dense and layerat an angle of 30° to horizontal. The factor of safetyof the slope against shear failure, if the angle ofinternal friction of the sand is 36°, is(a) 1.000 (b) 1.258(c) 1.500 (d) 1.558

168. For a clay slope of height 10 m, the stability numberis 0.05, bulk density = 20 kN/m2, cohesion = 25 kN/m2, the critical height of the slope in this soil is(a) 4.0 m (b) 12.5 m(c) 25.0 m (d) 15.0 m

169. A strip footing of width 1.0 m is resting on a softclay strata at a depth of 1.0 m. The angle of internalfriction is zero, and cohesion is 20 kN/m2. The watertable is at a great depth. The ultimate bearingcapacity of soil according to Terzaghi’s equation is(a) 120 IcN/m2 (b) 114 kN/m2

(c) 571cN/m2 (d) None of these170. A deep cut is made in a soft clay having c= 20 kN/

m2. The depth of the cut is 7 m and width is 3.2 m.The length is fairly long. The factor of safety againstthe heave of the bottom of the cut. Assume the unitweight of the saturated clay as 20 kN/m3(a) 2 (b) 3(c) 1.03 (d) 1.07

171. A rectangular footing 1 m x 2 m is placed at adepth of 2 m in a saturated clay having anunconfined compressive strength of 100 kN/m2.

According to Skempton, the net ultimate bearingcapacity is(a) 420 kN/m2 (b) 412.5 IN /m2

(c) 385 kN/m2 (d) 350 kN/m2

172. The gross bearing capacity of a footing is 450 IcN/m2. if the footing is 1.5 m wide at a depth of 1 min clayey soil with unit weight of 20 kN/m3, thenthe net bearing capacity (in kN/m3) will be(a) 400 (b) 430(c) 435 (d) 440

173. A 30 cm diameter friction pile is embedded 10 minto a homogeneous consolidated deposit. Unitadhesion developed between clay and pile shaft is4 t/m2 and adhesion factor is 0.7. The safe load forfactor of safety 2.5 will be(a) 21.50 t (b) 11.57 t(c) 10.55 t (d) 6.35 t

174. A single acting steam hammer weighing 82.5 kNand falling through a height of 1.2 m drives a pile.If the final set is 12.5 mm, then according toEngineering News formula(a) allowable load for the pile is 300 kN(b) ultimate bearing capacity of the pile is 300 kN(c) allowable load for the pile is 120 kN(d) ultimate bearing capacity of the pile is 120 kN

175. The bearing capacity of a strip footing on a saturatedclay is 120 kN/m2. The bearing capacity of acircular footing (diameter = width) will be(a) more than 120 kN/m2

(b) equal to 120 kN/m2

(c) less than 120 kN/m2

(d) any of the above176. The ratio of total passive earth pressure to the total

active earth pressure for saturated clay deposit ona retaining wall of 10 m height willbe [given unitweight of clay soil = 2 t/m3, cohesion of clay =10112](a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 2(c) 3 : 2 (d) 2 : 1

177. If a flownet of a coffer dam foundation had 6number of flow channels and 12 number ofequipotential drops, with the head of water being 6

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m, through a foundation having k = 4 x 10-5 m/min.,then seepage loss /m length of dam will be(a) 24 x 10-5 m3/min(b) 18 x 10-5 m3/min(c) 12 x 10-5 m3/min(d) 9 x 10-5 m3/min

178. The-relative density of a soil having maximum drydensity yd (max) = 2, minimum dry density 1.2 andnormal dry density 1.6, is(a) 75% (b) 62.50(c) 66.67 (d) 50%

179. The correct increasing order of specific surface i.e.surface area per mass of the given soils is(a) silt, sand, colloids, clay(b) sand, silt, clay, colloids(c) sand, silt, colloids, clay(d) clay, silt, sand, colloid

180. A soil sample is having porosity 40% and degree ofsaturation 80%, then its percentage air voids is(a) 5 (b) 6(c) 7 (d) 8

181. An undisturbed soil sample has a plastic limit 25%,a natural moisture content of 40% and a liquidityindex of 50%. Its liquid limit is(a) 50% (b) 55%(c) 65% (d) 75%

182. A soil sample has been found to have naturalmoisture content of 40% and liquid limit 60% andplastic limit of 30%. It can be said to possess.(a) stiff consistency (b) medium consistency(c) very soft consistency (d) soft consistency

183. Soil are arranged in face to face orientation. Thistype of soil structure is(a) dispersed (b) cohesive matrix(c) honey comb (d) flocculent

184. If in a soil sample piping phenomenon occurs, whatis the most prominent condition to be satisfied ?(a) Soil is fine grained(b) Hydraulic gradient is close to unity(c) Void ratio is more than 2.0(d) Specific gravity of soil solids is more than 2.8

185. Water is flowing in an upward direction throughstructure of sand 5 m thick under a total head

difference of 3m. The sand has a specific gracityof 2.65 and void ratio 0.65. The factor of safetyagainst quick condition would be(a) 2 (b) 1(c) 3 (d) 1.5

186. A soil sample has a shrinkage limit of 15% andspecific gravity of soil solids 2.5. The porosity ofthe soil at shrinkage limit is(a) 27% (b) 36%(c) 20% ( (d) 18%

187. The liquid limit and plastic limit of a soil sample is45% and 25%. In the liquid limit test of the soilsample its water content varied from 5% to 25%when the number of blows increased from 10 to100. The toughness index of the soil is(a) 2 (b) 0.5(c) 0.75 (d) 1.0

188. If during a permeability test on a soil sample witha falling head permeameter equal time intervals arenoted for a drop of head from L1 and L2 and againstfrom L2 to L3, then which of the following relationwill hold good ?(a) L3

2 = L1L2 (b) L22 = L1L3

(c) L12 = L2L3 (d) (L1 - L2) = L2- L3

189. The ratio of specific yield to specific retention of anaquifer with porosity 50% is 1.5, the specific yieldfrom it is(a) 20% (b) 37.5%(c) 30% (d) 25%

190. Water is flowing at the rate of 0.2 cc/sec in anupward direction through a sand sample with k =1x 10-3 cm/sec. The thickness of sand sample is10m and sectional area is 50 cm2. The effectivestress at middle of sample if y sat = 2t/m3 is(a) 75 t/m2 (b) 0 t/m2

(c) 0.025 t/m3 (d) 1.6 t/m2

191. A flownet is drawn in a weir. The total head lossis 8m. Number of potential drop is 8 and the lengthof flow path of last square is 1m. The exit gradientis(a) 1 (b) 1.6(c) 2.3 (d) 2.4

192. The deflection of flow line at the interface of twodissimilar soils having co-efficient of permeability ka

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and kb occurs as the flow line makes 01 and 02angles to the normal to the interface before andafter deflection. If 01= 60° and 02 = 30° then(a) ka = 3 kb (b) ka = 0.5 kb

(c) ka = kb (d) kb = ka

193. In a pumping in test, an open ended pipe with 0.2m diameter is drive into a soil to a depth of 30 m,and water is pumped in the pipe under a pressureof 7.0 m(head) at a steady rate of 5.5 x 10-3 m3/min, then the co-efficient of permeability based onelectrical analogy expression will be(a) 2 x 10-3 m/min (b) 1 x 10-3 m/min(c) 5.5 x 10-3 m/min (d) 2 x 10-3 m/min

194. A concentrated load acting on the surface of a soilproduces a stress 20/kPa at a depth of lm below.The stress at 2m depth will be what whenBoussinesq’s expression is to be taken(a) 3 kPa (b) 5 kPa(c) 61(Pa (d) 8 kPa

195. If Boussinesq’s equation is applied for computationof stress, then the ratio of vertical stresses at depths3m and 5m respectively below and the point ofapplication of load, will be what ? Given that Aconcentrated load of 50t acts vertically at a pointon the soil surface.(a) 1.66 (b) 0.60(c) 0.36 (d) 2.77

196. The vertical stress at failure of soil sample in anunconfined compression test was found to be 1 kg/cm2. The angle between horizontal phase and failureplane was 50° . This would indicate cohesion andangle of internal friction as Cohesion Angle ofinternal friction(a) < 0.5 kg. /cm2 zero(b) < 0.5 kg/cm2 not zero(c) 0.5 kg/cm2 not zero(d) 0.5 kg/cm2 zero

197. A = 0.5 and B = 1.0 (pore pressure parameters ofan embankment). The height of an embankmentwas raised from 2m to 4m. Given y s =18 kN/m3

and and lateral pressure at any point is one third ofvertical pressure, then the value of change in porewater pressure due to increase in height of anembankment is

(a) 12 kN/m2 (b) 48 kN/m2

(c) 36 kN/m2 (d) 24 kN/m2

198. A piezometer inserted under a fill at a point wherepressure due to overlying p material was 300 gm/cm2 should 2m, head of water after a certain intervalof time. The degree of consolidation at that point atthat instant of time is(a) 50% (b) 33%(c) 25% (d) 66%

199. During a laboratory consolidation test on 3cm thickclay specimen 50% consolidation was compelete in15 minutes. The sample was free to drain fromboth sides. If the soil sample was taken from a claystratum 3m thick sandwiched between sand layers,the time to reach 50% consolidation will be(a) 12000 hours (b) 2500 hours(c) 1200 hours (d) 250 hours

200. Two specimen of clay A and B are tested onconsolidation operative if (mv)A = 3.6 x 10-4 m2/kN and (mV)B = 1.8 x 10-4 m2/kV (Cv )A = 3.8x 10-4 cm2/sec (CV )B = 1.9 x 10-4 cm2/sec, thenthe ratio kA/kB is equal to(a) 4.0 (b) 1.0(c) 0.25 (d) 0.0625

201. Stiff clay which is saturated has unit weight 2 gm/cm2 and unconfined compressive strength of 2 kg/cm2. The depth of tension crack that would developis this clay is(a) 10 m ( (b) 20 m(c) 5 m (d) 2 m

202. A residual factor is important in the investigation ofstops. If the peak, residual and in situ shear strengthof a clay are 1.0 kg/cm2 and 0.6 kg/cm2respectively, then the residual factor of the clay willbe(a) 0.60 (b) 0.40(c) 0.67 (d) 1.50

203. A retaining wall retains a sand strat with 0 = 30°upto its top. If a uniform surcharge of 9t/m2 issubsequently put on the sand strata, then the increasefor the lateral earth pressure intensity on an wallwill be(a) 3 t /m2 (b) 8 t /m2

(c) 4 t/m2 (d) 1 t / m2

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204. Taylors stability number curves are used for theanalysis of stability of slopes. The angle of shearingresistance used in the chart is the(a) mobilised angle(b) weighted angle(c) effective angle(d) apparent angle

204. The unconfined compressive strength of a clay inundisturbed and remoulded state are 4.5 kg /cm2

and 1.5 kg/cm2 respectively, the sensitivity of claywill be(a) 2.0 (b) 4.5(c) 0.5 (d) 5.0

205. The ratio of total passive earth pressure to the totalactive earth pressure for saturated clay deposits ona retaining wall of 12 m height will be [given unitweight of clay soil = 2t/m3, cohessionof soil = It/m3].(a) 1.14 (b) 2.23(c) 1.36 (d) 1.8

206. A gravity retaining wall of top width lm, base width3m and total height of 10m is retaining drycohesionless backfill of unit weight 20 kN/m3 andangle of shearing resistance 30°. Then the factor ofsafety against sliding will be (7 wall = 22 kN/m3)(a) 2.5 (b) 3.3(c) 1.3 (d) 2.3

207. A sample of clay failed in anunconfined compressionmachine at a stress of 30 t/m2. The safe value forthe bearing capacity of the clay consuming a factorof safety 3 would be(a) 24 t/m2

(b) 42 t/m2(c) 19 t/m2

(d) 10 t/m2

208. Negative skin friction on a pile under verticalcompressive load acts(a) downward and increases the load carrying

capacity of the pile.(b) downward and reduces the load carrying

capacity of the pile.(c) upwards and increases the load carrying

capacity of the pile.

(d) downwards and maintains the same loadcarrying capacity of the pile.

209. Which one of the following statement is valid forarriving at a standardized value of N is a standardpenetration test ?(a) For a constant density index, the N value

increases with increase in overburdenpressure.

(b) Density index decreases with depth.(c) Density index increases with depth.(d) Angle of shearing resistance decreases with

depth.210. Pile caps are used on a group of piles to

(a) increase the load bearing capacity of each pile.(b) protect the piles from lateral displacement.(c) protect in case of offshore structure.(d) spread the vertical and horizontal loads to

all the piles.211. For a sandy soil, the angle of internal friction is 45°.

If the major principal stress is 60 kN/m2 at failure,then corresponding minor principal stress in (kN/m2) will be(a) 15.4 kN/m2 (b) 17.6 kN/m2

(c) 18.2 kN/m2 (d) 19.8 kN/m2

212. A soil sample has void ratio of 0.5 and its porositywill be close to(a) 50% (b) 66%(c) 100% (d) 33%

213. A borrow pit soil has a dry density of 17 kN/m3.How many cubic meters of this soil will be requiredto construct an embankment of 100 m3 volume witha dry density of 16 kN/m3.(a) 94 m3 (b) 106 m3

(c) 100 m3 (d) 90 m3

214. The group efficiency of a pile group(a) will be always less than 100%(b) will be always greater than 100%(c) may be less than 100% or more than 100%(d) will be more than 100% for pile groups in

cohesionless soil and less than 100% for thosein cohesive soils.

215. The two criteria for the determination of allowablebearing capacity of a foundation are

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(a) tensile failure and compression failure.(b) tensile failure and settlement.(c) bond failure and shear failure.(d) shear failure and settlement.

216. The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil is 3001(N/m2. The depth of foundation is lm and unit weightof soil is 201(1\1/m3. Choosing a factor of safety of2.5, the net safe bearing capacity is(a) 100 kN / m2 (b) 112 kN/m2

(c) 80 kN / m2 (d) 100.5 kN/m2

217. A deep cut of 7 m has to be made in a clay withweight 16kN/m3 and a cohesion of 251(N/m2. Whatwill be the factor of safety if one has to gave aslope angle of 30°? Stability number is given to be0.178 (from Taylor’s chart) for a depth factor of 3.(a) 0.80 (b) 1.1(c) 1.25 (d) 1.0

218. In a drained triaxial compression test, a saturatedspecimen of a cohesionless sand fails under adeviatoric stress of 3 kg/cm2 when the cell pressureis 1 kg/cm2. The effective angle of shearingresistance of sand is about(a) 37° (b) 45°(c) 53° (d) 20°

219. Two footings, one circular and the other square, arefounded on the surface of a purely cohesionlesssoil. The diameter of the circular footing is same asthat of the side of the square footing. The ratio oftheir ultimate bearing capacities is(a) 3/4 (b) 4/3(c) 1.0 (d) 1.3

220. To have zero active pressure intensity at the tip ofa wall in cohesive sail, one should apply a uniformsurcharge intensity of(a) 2 c tan a (b) 2 c cot a(c) —2 c tan a (d) -2 c cot a

221. In an area of 200 hectare, water table drops by 4m.If the porosity is 0.35 and the specific retention is0.15, change in volume of storage in the aquifer is(a) 160 m3 (b) 1.6 x 106 m3

(c) 8 x 106 m3 (d) 1.6 x 103 m3

223. The following two statements are made with respect

to different sand samples having the same relativedensity. Identify if they are TRUE or FALSE.I. Poorly graded sands will have lower frictionangle than the well graded sands. IL The particlesize has no influence on the friction angle of sand(a) II is TURE but I is FALSE(b) Both are FALSE statements(c) Both are TRUE statements.(d) I is TRUE but II is false.

224. The following tow statements are made withreference to the calculation of net bearing capacitytheory. Identify if they are TRUE or FALSE.I. Increase in footing width will result in increase

in bearing capacity.II. Increase in depth of foundation will result in

higher bearing capacity.(a) Both statements are TRUE(b) Both statements are FALSE(c) I is TRUE but II is FALSE(d) I is FALSE but II is TRUE

225. The width and depth of a footing are 2 and 1.5 mrespectively. The water table at the site is at adepth of 3 m below the ground level. The watertable correction factor for the calculation of thebearing capacity of soil is(a) 0.875 (b) 1.000(c) 0.925 (d) 0.500

226. The void ratio and specific gravity of a soil are 0.65and 2.72 respectively. The degree of saturation (inpercent) corresponding to water content of 20% is(a) 65.3 (b) 20.9(c) 83.7 (d) 54.4

227. With respect to a c-4 soil in an infinite slope, identifyif the following two statements are TRUE orFALSE.I. The stable slope angle can be greater than 4)II The factor of safety of the slope does not depend

on the height of soil in the slope.(a) Both statements are FALSE(b) I is TRUE but II is FALSE(c) I is FALSE but II is TRUE(d) Both statements are TRUE

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228. Identify the two FALSE statements from thefollowing four statements.I. The consolidation of soil happens due to the

change in total stress.II When Standard Penetration Tests are performed

in fine sands below the water table, the dilationcorrection is applied after the overburdencorrection is applied. Over consolidated clayswill have predominantly cohesive strength ascompared to the frictional strength.

IV. Compaction of soils is due to expulsion of water.(a) II & III (b) I & IV(c) I & III (d) II &IV

228. The co-efficients of permeability of a soil in horizontaland vertical directions are 3.46 and 1.5m/dayrespectively. The base length of a concrete damresting in this soil is 100 m. When the flow net isdeveloped for this soil with 1:25 scale factor in thevertical direction, the reduced base length of thedam will be(a) 2.63 m (b) 4.00 m(c) 6.08 m (d) 5.43 m

229. A plate load test was conducted in sand on a 300mm diameter plate. If the plate settlement was 5mm at a pressure of 100 kPa, the settlement (inmm) of a 5 mx 8 m rectangular footing at the samepressure will be(a) 9.4 mm (b) 18.6 mm(c) 12.7 mm (d) 17.8 mm

230. Identify the two TRUE statement from the followingfour statements.I. Negative skin friction is higher on floating piles

than on end bearing piles.II. All other things being the same in footing on

sand, the footing with smaller width will havelower settlement at the same net pressure.

III. The void ratio of soils is always less than 1.0.IV. For determining the depth of embedment of

anchored sheet piles, net moment at the anchorelevation is set to zero.

(a) I &IV (b) I & III(c) II & IV (d)II&III

231. Identify the two TRUE statement from the followingfour statements

I. Negative skin friction is higher on floating pilesthan on end bearing piles.

II. All other things being the same in footing onsand, the footing with smaller width will havelower settlement at the same net pressure.

III The void ratio of soils is always less than 1.0.IV. For determining the depth of embedment of

anchored sheet piles, net moment at the anchorelevation is set to zero.

(a) I & IV (b) I &III(c) II & IV (d) II &III

232. Data from a sieve analysis conducted on a givensample of soil showed that 67% of the particlespassed through 75 micron IS sieve. The liquid limitand plastic limit of the finer fraction was found tobe 45 and 33 percents respectively. The groupsymbol of the given soil as per IS:1498-1970 is:(a) SC (b) M I(c) CH (d) M H

233. The void ratios at the densest, loosest andnaturalstates of a sand deposit are 0.2, 0.6 and 0.4,respectively. The relative density of the deposit is :(a) 100% (b) 75%(c) 50% (d) 25%

234. The following data were obtained from a liquid limittest conducted on a soil sample.Number of blows 17 22 25 28 34Water contents (%) 63.8 63.1 61.9 60.6 60.5The liquid limit of the soil is :(a) 63.1% (b) 62.8%(c) 61.9% (d) 60.6%

235. The specific gravity and insitu void of a soil depositare 2.71and 0.85 respectively. The value of thecritical hydraulic gradient is:(a) 0.82 (b) 0.85(c) 0.92 (d) 0.95

236. The observed value of the standard penetrationnumber (N) at 10m depth of a silty sand deposit is13. The unit weight of the soil is 16 kN/m3. The Nvalue after correcting for the presence of fines willbe:(a) 12 (b) 13(c) 14 (d) 15

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237. An infinite slope is to be constructed in a soil. Theeffec tive stress strength parameters of the soil areC=0 and = 30°. The saturated unit weight of theslope is 20 kN/m3 and the unit weight of water is10kN /m3. Assuming that seepage is occurringparallel to the slope, the maximum slope angle fora factor of safety of 1.5 would be:(a) 10.89° (b) 11.30°(c) 12.48° (d) 14.73°

238. If the effective stress strength parameters of a soilare c-= 10 kPa and o’=30°, the shear strength ona plane within the saturated soil mass at a pointwhere the total normal stress is 300 kPa and porewater pressure is 150 kPa will be:(a) 90.5 kPa (b) 96.6 kPa(c) 101.5 kPa (d) 105.5 kPa

239. The time for a clay layer to achieve 85%consolidation is 10 years. If the layer was half asthick, 10 times more compressible then the timethat would be required to achieve the same degreeof consolidation is(a) 1 year (b) 5 years(c) 12 years (d) 16 years

240. In a triaxial test carried out on a cohesionless soilsample with a cell pressure of 20 kPa, the observedvalue of applied stress at the point of failure was 4kPa. The angle of internal friction on the soil is:(a) 10° (b) 15°(c) 25° (d) 30°

241. In a falling head permeability test the initial head of1.0 m dropped to 0.35 m in 3 hours, the diameterof the stand pipe being 5 mm. The soil specimenwas 200 mm long and of 100 mm diameter. Thecoefficient of permeability of the soil is(a) 4.86 X 10-5cm/s(b) 4.86 x 10-6 cm/s(c) 4.86 x 10-7 cm/s(d) 4.86 x 10-8 cm/s

242. A masonry dam is founded on previous sand havingporosity equal to 45% and specific gravity of sandparticles is 2.65. For a desired factor of safety of3 against sand boiling, the maximum permissibleupwrd gradient will be(a) 0.225 (b) 0.302

(c) 1.0 (d) None of these243. A double draining clay layer, 6m thick, settles by

30mm in three years under the influence of a certainloads. Its final consolidation settlement has beenestimated to be 120mm. If a thin layer of sandhaving negligible thickness is introduced at a depthof 1.5m below the top surface, the final consolidationsettlement of clay layer will be(a) 60 mm (b) 120 mm(c) 240 mm (d) None of these

244. A granular soil possesses saturated density of 20kN/m2. Its effective angle of internal friction is 35degrees. If the desired factor of safety is 1.5, thesafe angle of slope for this soil, when seepageoccures at and parallel to the slope surface, will be(a) 25° (b) 23°(c) 20° (d) 13°

245. In a plate load test conducted on cohesionless soil,a 600 mm square test plate settles by 15mm undera load intensity of 0.2 N/mm2. All conditionsremaining the same, settlement of a lm square footingwill be(a) less than 15 mm(b) greater than 25 mm(c) 15.60 mm(d) 20.50 mm

246. A 25 kN point load acts on the surface of an infiniteelastic medium. The vertical pressure intensity inkN/m2 at a point 6.0 m below and 4.0 m awayfrom the load will be:(a) 132 (b) 13.2(c) 1.32 (d) 0.132

247. Compaction of an embankment is carried out in 500mm thick layers. The hammer used for compactionhas a foot area of 0.05 sq. m and the energy impartedin every drop of hammer is 400 Nm. Assuming50% more energy in each pass over the compactedarea due to overlap, the number of passes requiredto develop compactive energy equivalent to IndianStan-dard light compaction for each layer would be(a) 10 (b) 16(c) 20 (d) 26144.A braced cut, 5m wide and 7.5m deep isproposed in a soil deposit having effective cohesion

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c’= 0 and effective friction angle, (I) ‘= 36°. Thefirst row of struts is to be installed at a depth of 0.5m below ground sur-face and spacing between thestruts should be 1.5m. If horizontal spacing of sturtsis 3m and unit weight of the deposit is 20 kN/m3,the maximum strut load will be(a) 70.871(N (b) 98.72 kN(c) 113.90kN (d) 151.861 kN

248. If Taylor’s Stability Number, Sn is 0.08 and if thecanal flows full, the factor of safety with respect tocohesion a ‘,,ainst failure of the canal bank sloperswill be(a) 3.7 (b) 1.85(c) 1.0 (d) None of these

249. 1f there is a sudden drawdown of water in thecanal and if Taylor’s Number for the reduced valueof (I), is 0.16, the factor of safety with respect tocohesion against the failure of bank slopes will be(a) 1.85 (b) 1.18(c) 0.84 (d) 0.53

250. If the elastic modulus and the Poisson’s ratio of theclay layer are respectiviely 50 x 103 kPa and 0.4and if the influence factor for the strip footing is1.75, the elastic settlement of the footing will be(a) 0.41 mm (b) 1.41 nun(c) 14.1 mm (d) None of these

250. The ratio of saturated unit weight too dry unit weightof a soil is 1.25. If the specific gravity of solids(Gs)) is 2.56, the void ratio of the soil is(a) 0.625 (b) 0.663(c) 0.944 (d) 1.325

251. An unsupported excavation is made to the maximumpossible depth in a clay soil havingYt = 18 kN/m3, c = 100 kN/m3, = 30° .The active earth pressure, according to Rankine’stheory at the base level of the excavation is(a) 115.47 kN/m2 (b) 54.36 kN/m2

(c) 27.18 kN/m2 (d) 13. kN/m2

252. A retaining wall of height 8 m retain dry sand. Inthe intial state, soil is loose and has a void ratio of0.5, yd = 17.8 kN/m3 and cp = 30°. Subsequently,the backfill is campacted to a state where void ratiois 0.4,yd = 18.8 kN/m3 and cp = 35°. The ratio of

initial passive thrust to the final passive, accordingto Rankine’s earth pressure theory, is(a) 0.38 (b) 0.64(c) 0.77 (d) 1.55(In the given below two questions)A group of 16 piles of 10 m length and 0.5 mdiameter is installed in a 10m thick stiff clay layerunderlain by rock. The pile-soil adhesion factor is0.4; average shear strength of soil on the side is100 kPa; undrained shear strength of the soil at thebase is also 100 kPa.

253. The base resistance of a single pile is(a) 40.00 kN (b) 88.35 kN(c) 100.00 kN (d) 176.71 kN

254. Assuming 100% efficiency, the group side resistanceis(a) 5026.5 kN (b) 10000.0 kN(c) 10053.1 kN (d) 20106.0 kN

255. A clayey soil has a maximum dry density of 16 kN/m3 and optimum moisture content of 12%. Acontractor during the construction of core of anearth dam obtained the dry density 15.2 kN/m3 andwater content 11%. This construction is acceptablebecause(a) the density is less than the maximum dry density

and water content is on dry side of optimum(b) the compaction density is very low and water

content is less than 12%(c) the compaction is done on the dry side of the

optimum(d) both the dry density and water content of

the com-pacted soil are within the desirablelimits

256. Root time method is used to determine(a) T, time factor(b) s, co-efficient of consolidation(c) ay, co-efficient of compressibility(d) my, co-efficient of volume compressibility

257. Negative skin friction in a soil is considered whenthe pile is constructed through a(a) fill material(b) dense coarse sand(c) over consolidated stiff clay

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(d) dense fine sand258. There are two footings resting on the ground surface.

One footing is square of dimension ‘B’. The otheris strip footing of width ‘B’. Both of them aresubjectedto loading intensity of ‘q’. The pressureintensity at any depth below the base of the footingalong the centerline would be(a) equal in both footings(b) large for square footing and small for strip

footing(c) large for strip footing and small for square

footing(d) more for strip footing at shallow depth (B) and

more for square footing at large depth (>B)259. A soil mass contains 40% gravel, 50% sand and

10% silt. This soil can be classified as(a) silty sandy gravel having co-efficient of

uniformity less than 60(b) silty gravely sand having co-efficient of

uniformity equal to 10(c) gravelly silty sand having co-efficient of

uniformity greater than 60(d) gravelly silty sand and its co-efficient of

uniformity cannot be determined260. A saturated soil mass has a total density 22 kN/m3

and a water content of 10%. The bulk density anddry density of this soil are(a) 12 kN/3 and 20 kN/m3 respectively(b) 22 kN/3 and 20 kN/m3 respectively(c) 19.8 kN/3 and 19.8 kN/m3 respectively(d) 23.2 kN/3 and 19.8 kN/m3 respectively

261. Assuing that a river bed level dooes not change andthe depth of water in river was 10m, 15 m and 8m during the months of February, July andDecember respectively of a particular year. Theaverage bulk density of the soil is 20 kN /m3. Thedensity of water is 10 kN/m3. The effective stressat a depth of 10 m below the river bed during thesemonths would be(a) 300 kN/m2 in February, 350 kN/m2 in July and

320 kN/m2 in December(b) 100 kN/m2 in February, 100 kN/m2 in July

and 100 kN/m2 in December

(c) 200 kN/m2 in February, 250 kN/m2 in July and180 kN/m2 in December

(d) 300 kN/m2 in February, 350 kN/m2 in July and280kN/m2 in December

262. During the subsurface investigations for design offoundations a standard penetration test wasconducted at 4.5 m below the ground surface. Therecord of number of blows is given belowPenetration depth (cm)0-7.5 7.5-15 15-22.5 22.5-30 30-37.5 37.5-45

No. of blows3 3 6 6 8 7

Assuming the water table at ground level, soil asfine sand and correction factor for overburden as1.0, the corrected ‘N’ value for the soil would be(a) 18 (b) 19(c) 21 (d) 33

263. For two infinite slopes (one in dry condition andother in submerged condition) in a sand deposithaving the angle of shearing resistance 30°, factorof safety was determined as 1.5 (for both slopes).The slope angles would have been(a) 21.05° for dry slope and 21.05° for

submerged slope(b) 19.47° for dry slope and 18.40° for submerged

slope(c) 18.4° for dry slope and 21.05° for submerged

slope(d) 22.6° for dry slope and 19.47° for submerged

slope264. A strip footing (8 m wide) is designed for a total

settlement of 40 mm. The safe bearing capacity(shear) was 150 kN/m2 and safe allowable soilpressure was 100 kN/m2. Due to importance of thestructure, now the footing is to be redesigned for atotal settlement of 25mm. The new width of thefooting willbe(a) 5 m (b) 8 m(c) 12 m (d) 12.8 m

265. A 3 m high retaining wall is supporting a saturatedsank (saturated due to capillary action) of bulkdensity 18 kN/m3 and angle of shearing resistance30°. The change in magnitude of active earthpressure at the basedue to rise in ground water

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table from the base of the footing to the groundsurface shall (y w = 10 kN/m3)(a) increase by 20 kN/m2

(b) decrease by 20 kN/m2

(c) increase by 30 kN/m2

(d) decrease by 30 kN/m2

266. Which of the following tatement is/are correct?(a) Culmann’s graphical method of determining the

earth pressure is based on Coulomb’s wedgetheory.

(b) Rankine’s theory of lateral earth pressure ismore versatile than Coulomb’s theory.

(c) A gravity retaining wall together with theretained backfill and supporting soil is anindeterminate system.

(d) All of these267. Which of these corrections are required while using

standard penetration test values ?(a) Overburden pressure(b) Dilatancy(c) Ground water(d) All of these

268. Which of these are taken into consideration in thefriction ciircle method for the equilibrium of slidingsector in the stability analysis of slope ?(a) Weight of the sliding wedge of slope(b) Resultant reaction ‘R’ of the slip(c) Critical height of slope(d) All of these

269. Active earth pressure will be developed in thebackfill when1. horzontal strain is Lc. 0.5%2. horizontal strain is 1%3. mobilised shearing resistance along the failure

plane is a minimum.4. mobilised shearing resistance along the failure

plane is a maximum. Which of these statementsare correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

270. Which of the statements given are correct ?(a) Hansen’s equation accounts for influence of

depth, shape and inclination of load.

(b) Local shear failure takes place in dense and/orvery dense sand and also in stiff and hard clays.

(c) The region of failure of soil below foundationsconsists of three different zones.

(d) All of these271. A soil has a liquid limit of 40% and plasticity index

of 20%. The plastic limit of the soil will be(a) 20% (b) 30%(c) 40% (d) 60%

272. A strata of 3.5 m thick fine sand has a void ratioof 0.7 and G of 2.7. For a quicks and condition tt3 develop in this strata, the water flowing in upwarddirection wouldrequire a head of(a) 7 m (b) 5.56 m(c) 5 m (d) 3.5 m

273. Aflownet of a Coffer dam foundation has flowchcnnels and 18 equipotential drops. The head ofwater lost during seepage is 6m. If the co-efficientof permeability of foundation is 4x10-5 m/min., thenthe seepage loss per m length of dam will be(a) 2.16 x 10-2 m3/clay(b) 6.48 x 10-2 m3 day(c) 11.52 x 10-2 m3 day(d) 34.56 x 10-2 m3 day

274. A sample of saturated sand has a dry unit weightof 18 kN/m3 and a specific gravity of 2.7. If 7water is 10 kN/m3, the void ratio of the soil samplewill be kN /m3 and a specifi gravity of 2.7. If 7water is 10 kl\l/m3, the void ratio of the soil samplewill be(a) 0.5 (b) 0.6(c) 0.4 (d) 0.9

275. The disadvantages of direct shear test is/are(a) Failure takes place on the predetermined plane.(b) Drainage conditions cannot be changed.(c) Failure of the sample is progressive.(d) All of these

276. Which of the following statements associated withstability of slope is/are correct.1. Stability number is inversely proportional to

cohesion and directly proportional to height.2. Swedish method of analysis is based on circular

failure surfaces.

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3. The Culmann method assumes that rupture willoccur in a plane. Which of these statementsare correct ?

(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3(c) 1 and (d) 1, 2 and 3

277. The settlement analysis for a clay layer drainingfrom top and bottom shows a settlement of 2.5 cmin 4 years and an ultimate settlement of 10 cm.However detailed subsurface investigation revealsthat there is no drainage at the bottom. The ultimatesettlement in this condition will be(a) 2.5 cm (b) 5 cm(c) 10 cm (d) 20 cm

278. A machine foundation weighs 39.24 kN and has aspring constant k = 10000 kN/m. The system willbe critically damped if the damping co-efficient is(acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.81 m2/s)(a) 100 kN.s/m(b) 200 kN.s/m(c) 400kN.s/m(d) 800 kN.s/m

279. A dry soil sample has equal amounts of solids andvoids by volume. Its void ratio and porosity will beVoid ratio Porosity (%)(a) 1.0 100% (b) 0.5 50%(c) 0.5 100% (d) 1.0 50%

280. The plasticity index and the percentage of grainsize finer than 2 microns of a clay sample are 25and 15, respectively. Its activity ratio is(a) 2.5 (b) 1.67(c) 1.0 (d) 0.6

281. The natural void ratio of a sand sample is 0.6 andits density index is 0.6. If its void ratio in the looseststate is 0.9, then the void ratio in the densest statewill be(a) 0.2 (b) 0.3(c) 0.4 (d) 0.5

282. The following data were obtained when a sampleof medium sand was tested in a constant headpermeameter :Cross-section area of sample : 100 cm2

Hydraulic gradient : 10Discharge collected : 10 cc/s

The co-efficient of permeability of the sand is(a) 0.1 m/s (b) 0.01 m/s(c) 1 x 10-4 m/s (d) 1 x 10-8 m/s

283. A soil sample tested in a triaxial compressionapparatus failed when the total maximum andminimum principal stresses were 100 kPa and 40kPa, respectively. The pore pressure measured atfailure was 10 kPa. The effective principal stressratio at failure is(a) 2.5 (b) 3.0(c) 2.75 (d) 2.0

284. Which of the following statements regarding soilstabilisation is/are correct?(a) Subgrade should be treated if it has a

soaked CBR of 5 or less.(b) Sub-bases, after treatment, should have

plasticity index not less than 5.(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of these

285. Which one of the following represents relativedensity of saturated sand deposit having moisturecontent of 25%, if maximum and minimum voidratio of sand are 0.95 and 0.45 respectively andspecific gravity of sand particles is 2.6 ?(a) 40% (b) 50%(c) 60% (d) 70%

286. Theory of consolidation predicts settlement due toprimary consolidation; it cannot include settlementdue to initial compression nor due to secondaryconsolidation.This happens because of which of thefollowing assumptions made by the theory?(a) Soil grains and water are incompressible.(b) Soil is fully saturated.(c) Time lag in consolidation is entirely due to low

permeability of soil.(d) All of these

287. Which of the following statements is/are correct?(a) Quick condition and liquefaction of

saturated sands are based on similarphenomenon.

(b) Quick condition is associated with only earthdams.

(c) Liquefaction is possible in dry sand also.(d) All of these

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288. A well development(a) involves reversal of flow through the well screen(b) increases permeability towards the well(c) is continued till sand/silt free water is pumped

out(d) all of these

289. 0n which of the following factors, does thepopulation growth in a town normally depend?(a) Birth and death rates(b) Migrations(c) Probabilistic growth(d) All of these

290. The collapsible soil is associated with(a) Dune sands(b) Laterite soils(c) Loess(d) Black cotton soils

291. While computing the values of limits of consistencyand consistency indices, it is found that liquidityindex has a negative value because(a) Liquidity index cannot have a negative value

and should be taken as zero.(b) Liquidity index can have a negative value.(c) The soil tested is in medium soft state.(d) All of these

292. A stratified soil ,deposit has three layers ofthicknesses: Z1 = 4, Z2 = 1, Z3 = 2 units and thecorresponding permeabilities of K1 = 2, K2 = 1 andK3 = 4 units, respectively. The average permeabilityperpendicular to the bedding planes will be(a) 4 (b) 2(c) 8 (d) 16

293. A dispersed structure is formed in clay when(a) the net electrical forces between adjacent soil

particles at the time of deposition are repulsive(b) there is concentration of dissolved minerals in

water(c) platelets have face to face contact in more or

less parallel arrays(d) all of these

294. A CD triaxial test was conducted on a granular’soil. At failure all& was 3.0. The effective minor

principal stress of failure was 75 kPa. The principal,stress difference at failure will be(a) 75 kPa (b) 150 kPa(c) 225 kPa (d) 300 kPa

295. Which of the following statements is/are correct?(a) Liquefaction is generally associated with sandy

soils.(b) Liquefaction is not possible in normal clays.(c) Highly sensitive clays may undergo liquefaction

under vibrations.(d) All of these

296. 0n which of the following factors does the behaviourof sand mass to cause liquefaction during aneartquake depend largely ?(a) The number of stress cycles(b) The frequency and amplitude of vibrations of

the earthquake shock(c) Angle of internal friction of sand(d) Relative density of sand

297. Two soil samples A and B have porosities nA =40% and% = 60 % respectively. What is the ratioof void ratios eA:eB?(a) 2: 3 (b) 3: 2(c) 4 : 9 (d) 9 : 4

298. What are the respective values of void ratio, porosityratio and saturated density (in kN/m3) for a soilsample which has saturation moisture content of20% and specific gravity of grains as 2.6 ? (Takedensity of water 10 kNkn3)(a) 0.52, 1.08, 18.07 (b) 0.52, 0.34, 18.07(c) 0.77, 1.08, 16.64 (d) 0.52, 0.34, 20.14

299. Which of the following statements is/are correct?(a) Coarse sand is more than a million times

permeable than a high plasticity clay.(b) The permeability depends on the nature

of soil and not on properties of liquidflowing through soil.

(c) Permeability of soil decreases as the effectivestress acting on the soil increases.

(d) None of these 242.For a certain loadingcondition, a saturated clay layer undergoes 40%consolidation in a period of 178 days.

300. What would be the additional time required forfurther 20%, consolidation to occur ?

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(a) 89 days (b) 222.5 days(c) 329.5 days (d) 400.5 days

301. Which of the following statements is/are correct?(a) Pile foundations are usually provided when loads

coming on the foundation are quite large. Suchpiles may often extend up to a large depthbelow ground level.

(b) Precast piles inserted into the holes bored atthe site do not get damaged while they aredriven into the ground.

(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of these

302. . Prevention or elimination of swelling can be broughtby(a) providing an impervious apron around the

structure(b) making downward loads large enough to exceed

swelling pressures.(c) chemically stabilizing the soil with lime(d) all of these

303. A clay sample has a void ratio of 0.54 dry state.The specific gravity of soil solid is 2.7. What is theshrinkage limit of the soil ?(a) 8.5% (b) 10.0%(c) 17.0% (d) 20.0%

304. A soil deposit has three layers having same thicknesseach but the permeabilities of the layers are in theratio of 1:2:4 from top to bottom. What is the ratioof average permeability in the horizontal directionto that in the vertical direction ?(a) 7:2 (b) 14:6(c) 28:24 (d) 49:36

305. If the time required for 60% consolidation of aremoulded soil sample of clay with single drainageis t, then what is the time required to consolidatethe same sample of clay with the same degree ofconsolidation but with double drainage ?(a) 4/t (b) 2 t(c) t/2 (d) t/4

306. Which of the following statements is/are correct?(a) Obtaining reliable properties of soil isvery

important in geotechnical engineering. Chunk

samples obtained from the field are the bestfor this purpose.

(b) Chunk samples may easily be obtained at alldepths below ground level and for all types ofsoils.

(c) Undisturbed soil samples are enclosed inrug- ged containers. As such, they do notget disturbed easily during transportationand handling.

(d) All of these307. Which of the following statement is/are correct?

(a) A recovery ratio of less than 1 implies thatthe soil has compressed.

(b) A recovery ratio of less than 1 implies that thesoil has swelled.

(c) A recovery ratio greater than 1 implies that thesoil has compressed.

(d) All of these308. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(a) The standard penetration test is a reliablemethod for measuring the relative density ofgranular soils.

(b) For a sand having the same relative density,N- values are different at different depths.

(c) Both (a) and (b)(d) None of these

309. The load carrying capacity of an individual frictionpile is 200 kN. What is the total load carryingcapacity of a group of 9 such piles with groupefficiency factor of 0.8 ?(a) 1800 kN (b) 1640 kN(c) 1440 kN (d) 900 kN

310. Which of the following factors are associated withthe behaviour of sand mass during earthquake tocause liquefaction ?(a) Number of stress cycles(b) The frequency and amplitude of vibration of

waves generated by an earthquake(c) Characteristics of sand and Relative density(d) All of these

311. The laboratory tests on a sample yielded thefollowing results :Plasticity index : 32%,

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Liquidity index : — 0.15,Activity number :1.58.Which of the following inferences can be drawn ?(a) The soil is very stiff.(b) The soil is highly plastic.(c) The soil is active.(d) All of these

312. A point load of 650 kN is applied on the surface ofa thick layer of clay. Using Boussinesq’s elasticanalysis, what is approximate value of the estimatedvertical stress at a depth 2m and a radial distanceof 1.0 m from the point of application of load?(a) 55 kN/m2 (b) 44 kN/m2

(c) 41 kN/m2 (d) 37 kN/m2

313. In a braced vertical excavation of 5m height and2.50m width in a cohesive soil having undrainedcohesion equal to 20 kN /m2 and bulk unit weightof 20 kN /m3, what is the factor of safety againstheave failure at its base ?(a) 1.0 (b) 1.20(c) 1.40 (d) 2.0

314. Factor of safety for(a) steel should be based on its yield stress.(b) concrete should be based on its ultimatestress.(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

315. For a reinforced concrete section, the shape of shearstress diagram is(a) wholly parabolic(b) wholly rectangular(c) parabolic above neutral axis and rectangular

below neutral axis(d) rectangular above neutral axis and parabolic

below neutral axis316. Diagonal tension in beam

(a) is maximum at neutral axis(b) decreases below the neutral axis and increases

above the neutrz,1(c) increases below the neutral axis and decreases

above the neutral axis(d) remains same

317. If a beam fails in bond, then its bond strength canbe increased most economically by(a) increasing depth of beam(b) using thinner bars but more in number(c) using thiciker bars but less in number(d) providing vertical stirrups

318. Ratio of the diameter of reinforcing bars and theslab thickness is(a) 1/4 (b) 1/5(c) 1/6 (d) 1/8

319. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?(a) Minimum cross-sectional area of longitudinal

reinforcement in a column is 0.8%.(b) Spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the

periphery of column should not exceed 300 mm.(c) Reinforcing bars in a column should not be less

than 12 mm in diameter.(d) The number of longitudinal bars provided

in a circular column should not be lessthan four.

320. Minimum pitch of transverse reinforcement in acolumn is(a) the least lateral dimension of the member(b) sixteen times the smallest diameter of

longitudinal reinforcement bar to be tied(c) forty-eight times the diameter of transverse

reinforcement(d) lesser of the above three values

321. The main reason for providing number of, reinforcingbars at a support in a simply supported beam is toresist in that zone(a) compressive stress (b) shear stress(c) bond stress (d) tensile stress

322. The limits of percentage p of the longitudinalreinforce-ment in a column is given by(a) 0.15% to 2% (b) 0.8% to 4%(c) 0.8% to 6% (d) 0.8% to 8%

323. In symmetrically reinforced sections, shrinkagestresses in concrete and steel are respectively(a) compressive and tensile(b) tensile and compressive(c) both compressive(d) both tensile

230


324. The purpose of reinforcement in prestressed concreteis to(a) provide adequate bond stress(b) resist tensile stresses(c) impart initial compressive stress in

concrete(d) all of these

325. Select the incrorrect statement(a) The loss of prestress is more in pretensioning

sys-tem than in posttensioning system.(b) Pretensioning system has greater certainty about

its durability(c) For heavy loads and large spans in buildings or

bridges, post-tensioning system is cheaper thanpretensioning system

(d) none of these326. Cube strength of controlled concrete to be used for

pretensioned and post-tensioned work respectivelyshould not be less than(a) 35 MPa and 42 MPa(b) 42 MPa and 35 MPa(c) 42 MPa and 53 Mpa(d) 53 MPa and 42 MPa

327. Prestressing losses in post-tensioned andpre-tensioned beams are respectively(a) 15% and 20% (b) 20% and 15%(c) 15% and 15% (d) 20°A and 20%

328. Bond strength between steel reinforcement and con-crete is affected by(a) steel properties (b) concrete properties(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

329. Bond strength between steel and concrete is due to(a) friction(b) adhesion(c) both friction and adhesion(d) none of these

330. In limit state design, the maximum‘limit imposed byIS : 456-1978 on the redistribution of moments instatically indeterminate beams is(a) 10% (b) 15%(c) 20% (d) 30%

331. Percentage of steel for balanced design of a singlyreinforced rectangular section by limit state methoddepends on(a) characteristic strength of concrete(b) yield strength of steel(c) modulus of elasticity of steel(d) all of these

332. In reinforced concrete, pedestal is defined as acompression member, whose effective length doesnot exceed its least lateral dimension by(a) 12 times (b) 3 times(c) 16 times (d) 8 times

333. Flexural shear failure in a reinforced concrete beam(a) occurs under large bending moment and

less shear force(b) results in cracks which are normally at 90°

with the horizontal(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

334. The following two statements are made withreference to a simply supported under- reinforcedRCC beam:L Failure takes place by crushing of concrete beforethe steel has yielded.II. The neutral axis moves up as the load isincreased. With reference to the above statements,which of the follwoing aplies?(a) Both the statements are false.(b) I is true but II is false.(c) Both the statements are ture.(d) I is false but II9is true.

335. Read the following two statements L Maximum strainin concrete at the outermost compression fibre istaken to be 0.0035 in bending.II. The maximum compressive strain in concrete in

axial compression is taken as 0.002. Keepingthe provisions of IS 456-2000 on limit state inmind, which of the following is true :

(a) Statement I is true but II is false(b) Statement I is false but II is true(c) Both Statement I and II are true(d) Both Statement I and II are false

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336. As per the provisions of IS 456-2000, the (shortterm) modulus of elasticity of M25 grade concrete(in N/mm2) can be assumed to be,(a) 25000 (b) 28500(c) 30000 (d) 36000

337. As per the provisions of IS 456-2000, in the limitstate method for, design of beams the limiting valUeof the depth of neutral axis in a reinforced concretebeam of effective depth ‘d’ is given as:(a) 0.53d(b) 0.48d(c) 0.46d(d) any of the above depending on the different

grades of steel338. The effective length of a column in a reinforced

concrete building frame, as per IS: 456 2000, isindependent of the(a) frame type, i.e., braced (no sway) )r un-braced

(with sway)(b) span of the beam(c) height of the column(d) loads acting on the frame

339. The working stress method of design specifies thevalue of modular ratio, m = 280/(3 act)), wherecythc is the allowable stress in bending compressionin concrete. to what extent does the above value ofm make any allowance for the creep of concrete ?GATE(a) No compensation(b) Full compensation(c) Partial compensation(d) The two are unrelated

340. Maximum strains in an extreme fibre in concreteand in the tension reinforcement (Fe.415 grade andEs = 200 kN/mm2) in a balanced section at limitstate of flexure are repectively(a) 0.0035 and 0.0038 (b) 0.002 and 0.0018(c) 0.0035 and 0.0041 (d) 0.002 and 0.0031

341. Top ring beam of an Intze tank carries a hooptension of 120 kN. The beam crosssection is 250mm wide and 400 mm ,deep and it is reinforcedwith 4 bars of 20 mm diameter of Fe 415 grade.

Modular ratio of the concrete is 10. The tensilestress in N/mm2 in the concrete is(a) 1.02 (b) 1.07(c) 1.20 (d) 1.32

342. The state of the two dimensional stresses acting ona concrete lamina consists of a direct tensile stress,1.5 N/mm2, and shear stress ‘T = 1.20 N/mm2,which cause cracking of concrete. Then the tensilestrength ofthe concrete in N/mm2 is(a) 1.50 (b) 2.08(c) 2.17 (d) 2.29

343. A concrete column carries an axial load of 450 kNand a bending moment of 60 kN m at its base. Anisolated footing of size 2m by 3m, with 3m sidealong the plane of the bending moment, is providedunder the column Centres of gravity of column andfooting coincide. The net maximum and the minimumpressures in kN/m2 on soil under the footing arerespectively,(a) 95 and 55 (b) 95 and 75(c) 75 and 55 (d) 75 and 75(In below two questions)A reinforced concrete beam, size 200 mm wide and300 mm deep overall is simply supported over aspan of 3 m. It is subjected to two point loads P ofequal magnitude placed at middle third points. Thetwo loads are gradually increased simultaneously.Beam is rein forced with 2 HYSD bars of 16 mmdiameter placed at an effective cover of 40 mm onbottom face and nominal shear reinforcement. Thecharacteristic compressive strength and the bendingtensile strength of the concrete are 20.0 N/mm2

and 2.2 N/mm2respectivey344. Ignoring the presence of tension reinforcement, find

the value of load P in kN when the first flexurecrack will develop in the beam.(a) 4.5 (b) 5.0(c) 6.6 (d) 7.5

345. The theoretical failure load of the beam forattainment of limit state of collapse in flexure is(a) 23.71 kN (b) 25.6 kN(c) 28.71 kN (d) 31.6 kN

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346. In the limit state design method of concretestructures4 the recommended partial material safetyfactor (7m) for steel according to IS : 456-2000 is(a) 1.5 (b) 1.15(c) 1.00 (d) 0.87

347. For avoiding the limit state of collapse, the safety ofR.C. structures is checked for appropriatedcombinations of dead load (DL), imposed load orlive load (IL), wind load (WL) and earthqualde load(EL). Which of the following load combinations isNOT considered ?(a) 0.9 DL + 1.5 WL(b) 1.5 DL + 1.5 WL(c) 1.5 DL + 1.5 WL + 1.5 EL(d) 1.2 DL + 1.2IL + 1.2 WL

348. An R.C.short column with 300 mm x 300 mm squarecross-section is made of M20 grade concrete andhas 4 numbers, 20 mm diameter longitudinal bars ofFe 415steel. It is under th action of a concentricaxial compressive load. Ignoring the reduction inthe area of concrete due to steel bars, the ultimateaxial load carrying capacity of the column is(a) 1659 kN (b) 1548 kN(c) 1198 kN (d) 1069 kN

349. An R.0 square footing of side length 2 m and uniformeffective depth 200rnm is provided for a 300 mm X300mm columm. The line of action of the verticalcompressive load passes through the centroid ofthe footing as well as of the column. If the magnitudeof the load is 320 kN, the nominal transverse (oneway) shear stress in the footing is(a) 0.26 N/mm2 (b) 0.30 N/mm2

(c) 0.34 N/mm2 (d) 0.75 N/mm2

350. The propagation of a shear crak in aprestressedconcrete member depends on(a) tensile reinforCement(b) compression reinforcement(c) shear reinforcement(d) shape of the cross-section of the beam

351. As compared to working stress method of design,limit state method takes concrete to(a) a higher stress level(b) a lower stress level

(c) the same stress level(d) sometimes higher but generally lower stress level

352. For the purpose of design as per IS: 456, deflectionof RC slab or beam is limited to(a) 0.2% ofspan (b) 0.25% of span(c) 0.4% of span (d) 0.45% of span

353. As per IS: 456, side face reinforcement, not lessthan 0.05% of web area, is provided on each sidewhen the depth of web is not less than(a) 300mm (b) 400mm(c) 500mm (d) 750mm

354. The yield line theory is a(a) lower bound method of design of over-

reinforced slabs(b) lower bound method of design of under-

reinforced slabs(c) upper bound method of analysis of under-

reinforced slabs(d) upper bound method of analysis of over-

reinforced slabs355. For a reinforced concrete beam section the shape

of the shear stress diagram is(a) parabolic over the whole section with maximum

value at the neutral axis(b) parabolic above the neutral axis and

rectangular below the neutral axis(c) linearly varying as the distance fromthe neutral

axis(d) dependent on the magnitude of shear

reinforcement provided356. In a reinforced concrete T-beam (in which the flange

is in compression). The position of neutral axis will(a) be within the flange(b) be within the web(c) depend on the thickness of flange in

relation to total depth and percentage ofreinforcement

(d) at the junction of flange and web357. The reinforcement in reinforced concrete shall have

concrete cover, the thickness of such cover shall benot less than(a) 25 mm(b) the diameter of bar

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358. In an axially loaded spirally reinforced short column,the concrete inside the core is subjected to(a) bending and compression(b) biaxial compression(c) triaxial compression(d) uniaxial compression

359. The maximum permissible shear stress Tmax givenin BIS 456-1978 is based on(a) diagonal tension failure(b) diagonal compression failure(c) flexural tension failure(d) flexural compression failure

360. The design for the limit stateof collapse in flexureis based on which of the following assumptions ?(a) Plane sections normal to the axis remain

plane after bending.(b) The relationship between the compressive stress

distribution in concrete and the strain in concretemay be assumed to the rectangular, trapezoidal,parabolic orany other shape which results inprediction of strength in substantial agreementwith the results of tests.


361. In case of deep beam or in thin webbed R.C.C,members, the first crack form is(a) flexural crack(b) diagonal crack due to compression(c) diagonal crack due to tension(d) shear crack

362. The stress block in concrete for an estimate ofultimate strength in flexure of a prestressed beam(a) should be parabolic(b) should be parabolic-rectangular(c) should be rectangular(d) may be of ary shape which provides

agreement with the test data363. The chances of diagonal tension cracks in R.C.C.

member reduce when(a) axial compression and shear force act

simultaneously

(b) axial tension and shear force actsimultaneously

(c) only shear force act(d) flexural and shear force act simultaneously

364. The probability of failure implied in limit state designis of the order of(a) 10-2 (b) 10-3

(c) 10-4 (d) 10-5

365. Which of the following deformations are importantin case of deep beams when compared to flexurealone ?(a) shear (b) axial(c) torsional (d) bearing

366. The maximum depth of neutral axis for a beamwith d as the effective depth, in limit state methodof design for Fe 415 steel is(a) 0.46 d (b) 0.48 d(c) 0.50 d (d) 0.53 d

367. A compression member has a centre to centre lengthof 4.0 m. It is fixed at one end and hinged at theother end. The effective length of the column is(a) 4.0 m (b) 3.2 m(c) 2.8 m (d) 2.6 m

368. Losses in prestress in pre-tensioning system aredue to(a) elastic deformation of concrete when wires are

tensioned successively(b) friction(c) shrinkage and creep of concrete(d) all of these

369. The maximum deflection in timber beams or jointshould not be greater than(a) span/300 (b) span/325(c) span/360 (d) span/380

370. A simply supported rectangular beam of span 20.0m is subjected to u.d.l. The minimum effective depthrequired to check deflection of this beam, whenmodification factor for tension and compression are0.9 and 1.1 respectively, will be(a) 2.0 m (b) 1.8 m(c) 1.3 m (d) 1.0 m

371. Prestressing of indeterminate structures should takecare of

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(a) High strength concrete and High tensile steel(b) Load balancing(c) Partial safety factors(d) All of these

372. A trapezoidal combined footing for two axiaily loadedcolumns is provided when(a) Width of the footing near the heavier column is

restricted.(b) Projections of the footing beyond the

heavier columns are restricted.(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

373. In case of two-way slab, deflection of the slab is(a) primarily a function of the long span(b) primarily a function of the short span(c) independent of the span, long or short(d) mostly long span but sometimes short span

374. A reinforced concrete beam of 10 m effective spanand 1 m effective depth is supported on 500 mm x500 mm columns. If (oral uniformly distributedload on the beam is 10 MN/ m, the design shearforce for the beam is(a) 50 MN (b) 47.5 MN(c) 37.5 MN (d) 43 MN

375. In pre-tensioning process of pre-stressing, thetendons are(a) bonded to the concrete(b) partially bonded to the concrete(c) not bonded to the concrete(d) generally bonded but sometimes remainunbonded to the concrete

376. A reinforced concrete beam is to be post-tensionedin such a way that no tensile stress develops at thetime of post-tensioning. The distance of tendon fromthe nearest face must be(a) between d/5 and d/4(b) < d / 6(c) between d/4 and d/3(d) > d/3 (where d is depth of the beam)

377. A simply supported RC beam carries UDL and isreferred to as beam A. A similar beam is pre-stressed and carries the same UDL as the beam A.

This beam is referred to as beam B. The mid-spandeflection of beam A will be(a) more than that of beam B(b) less than that of beam B(c) same as that of beam B(d) generally less but sometimes more depending

upon the magnitude of UDL378. In pre-stressed concrete, high grade concrete is

used for(a) controlling the pre-stress loss(b) having concrete of low,ductility(c) having concrete of high brittleness(d) having low creep

379: In the Limit state design of pre-stressed concretestructures, strain distribution is assumed to be(a) linear:(b) non-linear(c) parabolic(d) parabolic and rectangular

380. Under-reinforced concrete flexural members(a) are deeper(b) can undergo larger deflection(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

381. A simply supported post-tensioned pre- stressedconcrete beam of span L is prestressed by astraighttendon at a uniform eccentricity ‘e’ below thecentroidal axis. If magnitude of prestressing forceis P and flexural rigidity of beam is El, then maximumcentral deflection of the beam is(a) PeL2/EI (downwards)(b) PeL2/481 (upwards)(c) PeL2/8El (upwards)(d) PeL2/8 El (downwards)

382. Minimum tension steel in RC beam needs to beprovided to(a) prevent sudden failure(b) arrest crack width(c) control excessive deflection(d) prevent surface hair cracks

383. In the limit state design method(a) it ensures adequate safety of structure against

collapse

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(b) actual stresses developed at collapse differconsiderably from the theoretical values


384. Temperature and shrinkage steel is provided inreinforced concrete slabs because(a) it occupies larger area(b) its thickness is less(c) it is a main structural element(d) it is a flexural member

385. Minimum shear reinforcement in beams is providedin the form of stirrups to resist(a) extra shear force due to live load(b) the effect of shrinkage of concrete(c) principal tension(d) shear cracks at the bottom of beam

386. Diagonal tension reinforcement is provided in abeamas(a) longitudinal bars(b) bent up bars(c) helical reinforcement(d) 90° bend at the bends of main bars

387. The critical sectioin for computing design shear forcein an R.C. beam where the supports exert acompressive reaction is at(a) the centre of support(b) the face of support(c) a distance of half of effective depth from

the face of support(d) a distance of effective depth from the face of

support388. Doubly reinforced beams are recommended when

(a) depth of the beam is restricted(b) breadth of the beam is restricted(c) both depth and breadth are restricted(d) shear is high

389. In a reinforced concrete member, the best way toensure adequate bond is to(a) provide minimum number of large diameter bars(b) provide large number of smaller diameter

bars(c) increase the cover for reinforcement(d) provide additional stirrups

390. M 40 concrete is preferred to M 20 concrete forprestressed concrete to(a) overcome bursting stresses at the ends(b) avoid brittle failure of concrete(c) eliminate the effect of shrinkage(d) economise the use of cement

391. Minimum shear reinforcement is provided to(a) resist shear force at the support(b) resist shear on account of accidental torsion(c) arrest the longitudinal cracks on side faces

due to shrinkage and temperature variation(d) resist shear in concrete developing on account

of non-homogeneity of concrete392. In a cantilever beam carrying gravity load, main

reinforcement is provided(a) above the neutral axis(b) as vertical stirrups(c) as a helical reinforcement(d) below the neutral axis

393. Characteristic strength of concrete is(a) higher than the average cube strength(b) lower than the average cube strength(c) the same as the average cube strength(d) higher than 90% of the average cube strength

394. What is the value of minimum reinforcement (incase of Fe 415) in a slab ?(a) 0.1% (b) 0.12%(c) 0.15% (d) 0.2%

395. What is the value of flexural strength of % M25 concrete ?(a) 4.0 MPa (b) 3.5 MPa(c) 3.0 MPa (d) 1.75 MPa

396. What should be the minimum grade of reinforcedconcrete in and around sea coast construction ?(a) M 35 (b) M 30(c) M 25 (d). M 20

397. Which one of the following sections performsbetter on the ductility criterion ?(a) Balanced section(b) Over-reinforced section(c) Under-reinforced section(d) Non-prismatic section

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398. On which of the following concepts is the basicprinciple of structural design based ?(a) Weak column strong beam(b) Strong column and weak beam(c) Equally strong column-beam(d) Partial weak column-beam

399. Which of the following systems of pre-stressingis suitable for pretensioned members ?(a) Freyssinet system(b) Magnel-Blaton system(c) Hoyer system(d) Gifford-Udall system

400. What is the minimum number of longtudinalbarsprovided in a reinforced concrete column of circularcross-section ?(a) 4 (b) 5(c) 6 (d) 8

401. In an under-reinforced concrete beam(a) actual depth of neutral axis is less than the

critical depth of neutral axis.(b) moment of resistance is less than that of

balanced sections.(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

402. Which of the following method is employed tomanufacture pre-stressed concrete sleepers forthe railways ?(a) Post-tensioning(b) Pre-tensioning(c) Pre-tensioning followed by posttension ing(d) Partial pre-stressing

403. As per IS : 456-2000,(a) There is an upper limit on the nominal shearstress in beams (ever withshear reinforcement)due to the possibility of crushing of concrete indiagonal compression.(b) A rectangular slab whose length is equal

to its width may not be a two-way slabforsome

(b) support conditions.(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

404. The distance between theoretical cut-off point andactual cut-off point in respect of the curtailment ofreinforcement of reinforced concrete beams shouldnot be less than(a) Development length(b) 12 x dia of bar or effective depth whichever

is greater(c) 24 x dia of bar or effective depth whichever is

greater(d) 30 x dia of bar or effective depth whichever is

greater405. Shear strength of concrete in a reinforced concrete

beam is a function of(a) compressive strength of concrete(b) percentage of longitudinal reinforcement intension in the section(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

406. An axially loaded column is of 300 x 300 mm size.Effective length of column is 3 m. What is theminimum ecentricity of the axial load for thecolumn ?(a) 0 (b) 10 mm(c) 16 mm (d) 20 mm

407. A beam is designed for uniformly distributed loadscausing compression in the supporting columns.Where is the critical section for shear ? (d iseffective depth of beam and Ld is developmentlength)(a) A distance Ld/3 from the face of the support(b) A distanced from the face of the support(c) At the centre of the support(d) At the mid span of the beam

408. A T-beam behaves as a rectangular beam of widthequal to its flange if its neutral axis(a) coincides with centroid of reinforcement(b) coincides with centroid of T-section(c) remains within the flange(d) remains in the web

409. An ordinary mild steel bar has been prestressed toa working stress of 200 MPa. Young’s modulus ofsteel is 200 GPa. Permanent negative strain due to

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shrinkage and creep is 0.0008. How much is theeffective stress left in steel ?(a) 184 MPa (b) 160 MPa(c) 40 MPa (d) 16 MPa

410. The limits of percentage p of the longitudinalreinforcement in a column is given by(a) 0.15% to 2% (b) 0.8% to 4%(c) 0.8% to 6% (d) 0.8% to 8%

411. In a spherical dome subjected to concentrated loadat crown or uniformly distributed load, the meridionalforce is always(a) zero(b) tensile(c) compressive(d) tensile or compressive

412. In reinforced concrete, pedestal is defined as acompression member, whose effective length doesnot exceed its least lateral dimension by(a) 12 times (b) 3 times(c) 16 times (d) 8 times

413. The purpose of lateral ties in short RC columns isto(a) avoid buckling of longitudinal bars.(b) facilitate construction.(c) facilitate compaction of concrete.(d) increase the load carrying capacity of the

columns.414. In a doubly reinforced rectangular beam, the

allowable stress in compression steel is(a) equal to the permissible stress in tension in steel(b) more than the permissible stress in tension in

steel(c) less than the permissible stress in tension

in steel(d) not related to the permissible concrete

compression stress.415. The side face reinforcement, if required, in a

T-beam will be(a) 0.1% of the web area(b) 0.15% of the web area(c) 0.2% to 0.3% of the web area depending upon

the breadth of the web(d) half the longitudinal reinforcement.

416. In working stress design of under reinforced RCsections(a) The stress in steel in tension will reach its

maximum permissible value first.(b) The moment of resistance will be less than that

of the balanced section.(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

417. Which one of the following sections of equal cross-sectional area can resist the torsional moment ofRCC beam section more efficiently when workingstress design is being adopted?(a) An unsymmetrical I-section(b) A box section(c) A•solid rectangular section(d) A symmetrical I-section

418. Loss of stress with time at constant strain in steelis called(a) relaxation (b) creep(c) shrinkage (d) ductility

419. Deep beams are designed for(a) shear force only(b) bending moment only(c) both shear force and bending moment(d) bearing

420. Hoop stress in a dome subjected to uniformlydistributed load is(a) always compressive(b) tensile at sections whose radius vectors are at

angles less than 51°51' with the vertical.(c) tensile at sections whose radius vectors

are at angles greater than 51°51' with thevertical.

(d) always tensile.421. For normally used values of material properties and

curing conditions, maximum percentage of loss ofprestress in post-tensioned concrete occurs due to(a) elastic shortening and creep of concrete(b) creep and shrinkage of concrete(c) shrinkage of concrete and relaxation of steel(d) relaxation of steel and elastic shortening of

concrete.

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422. Concordant profile represents, for a certain set ofexternal loads to some scale,(a) bending moment diagram(b) Williot-Mohr diagram(c) shear force diagram(d) influence line diagram

423. Loss of prestress due to shrinkage of concrete isthe product of(a) modular ratio and percentage of steel(b) modulus of elasticity of concrete and shrinkage

of concrete(c) modulus of elasticity of steel and shrinkage

of concrete(d) modular ratio and modulus of elasticity of steel

424. Minimum clear cover (in mm) to the main steelbars in slab, beam, column and footing respectivelyare(a) 10, 15, 20, 25 (b) 15, 25, 40, 75(c) 20, 25, 30, 40 (d) 20, 35, 40, 75

425. Which one of the following statements is correct?(a) Maximum longitudinal reinforcement in an

axially loaded short column is 6% of grosssectional area

(b) Columns with circular section are providedtransverse reinforcement of helical type only

(c) Spacing of lateral ties can not be more than 16times the diameter of tie bar,

(d) Longitudinal reinforcement bar need not be incontact with lateral ties

426. Torsion resisting capacity of a given RC section(a) decreases with decrease in stirrup spacing.(b) decreases with increase in longitudinal bars.(c) does not depend upon stirrup and longitudihal

steels.(d) increases with the increase in stirrup and

longitudinal steels.427. If a simply supported concrete beam, prestressed

with a force of 2500 kN, is designed by loadbalancing concept for an effective span of 10 mand , to carry a total load of 40 kN/m, then centraldip of the cable profile should be(a) 100 mm (b) 200 mm(c) 300 mm (d) 400 mm

428. In case of pre-tensioned RC beams(a) shrinkage of concrete is of the order of3 x 10-4.(b) relaxation of steel can be ignored.(c) only one wire can be stretched at a time.(d) even mild steel can be used for prestressing.

429. For prestressed structural elements, high strengthconcrete is used primarily because(a) both shrinkage and creep are more.(b) shrinkage is less but creep is more(c) modulus of elasticity and creep values are

higher.(d) of high modulus of elasticity and low creep.

430. Prestressed, concrete is more desirable in case ofcylindrical pipe subjected to(a) internal fluid pressure(b) external fluid pressure(c) equal internal and external fluid pressure(d) end pressures.

431. Yield line theory results in(a) elastic solution(b) lower bound solution(c) upper bound solution(d) unique solution

432. If nominal shear stress (r ) at a section does notexceed permissible shear stress (re ), then(a) minimum shear reinforcement is still

provided.(b) shear reinforcement is provided to resist the

nominal shear stress.(c) no shear reinforcement is provided.(d) shear reinforcement is provided for the

difference of the two.433. In working stress design and ultimate strength design

of reinforced concrete, it is assumed that(a) plane section before bending remains plane after

bending(b) tensile strength of concrete is ignored(c) both (a) and (b)(d) none of these

434. In limit state design, permissible bond stress in thecase of deformed bars is more than that in plainbars by

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(a) 60% (b) 50%(c) 40% (d) 25%

435. Limit state of serviceability for deflection includingthe effects due to creep, shrinkage and temperatureoccurring after erection of partitions and applicationof finishes as applicable to floors and roofs isrestricted to(a) Span/150 (b) Span/200(c) Span/250 (d) Span/350

436. Shrinkage deflections in case of rectangular beamsand slabs can be eliminated by putting compressionsteel(a) equal to tensile steel(b) more than tensile steel(c) less than tensile steel(d) 25% greater than tensile steel

437. In case of 2-way slab, limiting deflection of the slabis(a) primarily a function of the long span(b) primarily a function of the short span(c) independent of long or short span(d) dependent on both long and short spans

438. From limiting deflection point of view, use of highstrength steel in RC beam results in(a) reduction in depth(b) no change in depth(c) increase in depth(d) increase in width

439. For maximum sagging bending moment at supportin a continuous RC beam, live load should be placedon(a) spans adjacent: to the support plus alternate

spans(b) all the spans except the spans adjacent to the

support(c) spans next to the adjacent spans of the

support plus alternate spans(d) spans adjacent to supports only.

440. Design of one-way RC slabs for concentrated loadis done by(a) using Pigeaud’s moment coefficients(b) taking slab strip of unit width containing the

load

(c) taking slab strip of width effective inresisting the load

(d) taking orthogonal slab strips of unit widthcontaining the load.

441. In Pigeaud’s coefficient method for the analysis ofan interior panel of a T-beam bridge(a) notation for coefficients as ax4 and ay4 includes

suffix 4 since the panel is continuous on all thefour edges.

(b) Poisson’s ratio of concrete has no contri-bution.(c) applicability is restricted, to the case when

wheel load is centrally placed.(d) dispersion of load is considered through wearing

coat only.442. A T-beam roof section has the following particulars :

Thickness of slab = 100 mmWidth of rib = 300 mmDepth of beam = 500 mmCentre to centre distance of beams = 3.0 mEffective span of beams = 6.0 mDistance between points of contraflexure is = 3.60mThe effective width of flange of the beam is(a) 3000 mm(b) 1900 mm(c) 1600 mm(d) 1500 mm

443. In a load balanced prestressed concrete beam underself load, the cross-section is subjected to(a) axial stress(b) bending stress(c) axial and shear stress(d) axial and bending stress

444. A prestressed concrete beam 150 mm x 300 mmsupports a live load of 5 kN/m over a simple spanof 8 m. It has a parabolic cable having aneccentricity of 75 mm at mid span and zero at theends. The prestressing force required to maintainthe net resultant stress at the bottom fibre at midspan as zero under the action of D.L. + L.L. +prestress is(a) 239 kN (b) 293 kN(c) 302 kN (d) 392 kN

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445. A partially prestressed member is one in which(a) tensile stresses and cracking are permitted

under service loads.(b) no tensile stresses are permitted under service

loads.(c) mild steel is used in addition to prestressing

steel.(d) tensile stresses are permitted but not cracking

at service loads.446. If load carrying capacity of a column designed by

working stress method is 500 kN, then collapseload of the column is(a) 500.0 kN (b) 662.5 kN(c) 750.0 kN (d) 1100.0 kN

447. Shear span is defined as the zone where(a) bending moment is zero(b) shear force is zero(c) shear force is constant(d) bending moment is constant.

448. Which one of the following statements is correct?(a) Shear cracks start due to high diagonal

tension in case of beams with their websand high prestressing force.

(b) Shear design for a prestressed concrete beamis based on elastic theory.

(c) In the zone where bending moment is dominantand shear is insignificant, cracks occur at 20°to 30°.

(d) After diagonal cracking, the mechanics of sheartransfer in a prestressed concrete member isvery much different from that in reinforcedconcrete members.

449. For ultimate load design of prestressed concretegirders used for bridges, combination of load factorsused is (here DL and LL are dead and live loadsrespectively)(a) 1.5 D.L. + 2.5 L.L.(b) 1.0 D.L. + 2.5 L.L.(c) 1.0 D.L. + 2.0 L.L.(d) 2.0 D.L. + 2.0 L.L.

450. Deflection can be controlled by using appropriate(a) aspect ratio (b) modular ratio(c) span/depth ratio (d) water/cement ratio

451. In limit state approach, spacing of mainreinforcement controls primarily.(a) collapse (b) cracking(c) deflection (d) durability

452. Unequal top and bottom reinforcement in areinforced concrete section leads to(a) creep deflection(b) shrinkage deflectiOn(c) long term deflection(d) large, deflection.

453. Reduction co-efficient of a reinforced concretecolumn with an effective length of 4.8 m and size250 x 300 mm is(a) 0.80 (b) 0.85(c) 0.90 (d) 0.95

454. If d is effective depth, b is width and D is overalldepth, then maximum area of compressionreinforcement in a beam is(a) 0.04 bd (b) 0.04 bD(c) 0.12 bd (d) 0.12 bD

455. Final deflection due to all loads including the effectsof temperature, creep and shrinkage and measuredfrom as-cast level of supports of floors, roofs andall other horizontal members should not exceed(a) span/350(b) span/300(c) span/250(d) span/200

456. A reinforced concrete slab is 75 mm thick. Themaximum size of reinforcement bar that can beused is(a) 12 mm diameter(b) 10 mm diameter(c) 8 mm diameter(d) 6 mm diameter

457. At the time of initial tensioning, The maximum tensilestress in tendon immediately behind the anchorageshall not exceed.(a) 50% of the ultimate tensile strength of the wire

or bar or strand(b) 80% of the ultimate tensile strength of the

wire or bar or strand

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(c) 40% of the ultimate tensile strength of the wireor bar or strand

(d) 60% of the ultimate tensile strength of the wireor bar or strand.

458. The cable for a prestressed concrete simplysupported beam subjected to uniformly distributedload over the entire span should ideally be(a) placed at the centre of cross-section over the

entire span.(b) placed at some eccentricity over the entire span.(c) varying linearly from the centre of cross-section

at the ends to maximum eccentricity at themiddle section.

(d) parabolic with zero eccentricity at the ends-and maximum eccentricity at the centre ofthe span.

459. For a prestressed concrete bridge beam, minimumclear spacing of the cable or group of cables shouldbe(a) 25 nun(b) 25 mm or 6 aim plus the largest size of the

aggregate(c) 40 mm(d) 50 mm

460. Drops are provided in flat slab to resist(a) bending moment(b) thrust(c) shear(d) torsion

461. Flexural collapse in over reinforced beams is due to(a) primary compression failure(b) secondary compression failure(c) primary tension failure(d) bond failure

462. A reinforced cantilever beam of span 4 m, has across-section of 150 x 500 mm. If checked forlateral stability and deflection, the beam will(a) fail in deflection only(b) fail in lateral stability only(c) fail in both deflection and lateral stability(d) satisfy requirements of deflection and lateral

stability.

463. In an RCC beam, side face reinforcement isprovided if its depth exceeds(a) 300 mm (b) 500 mm(c) 700 mm (d) 750 mm

464. Maximum spacing of vertical reinforcement in RCCwall should not exceed(a) the thickness of wall(b) 1.5 times the thickness of wall(c) 2 times the thickness of wall(d) 3 times the thickness of wall.

465. In a reinforced concrete retaining wall, a shear keyis provided, if(a) shear stress in the vertical stem is excessive.(b) shear force in the toe slab is more than that in

the heel slab.(c) retaining wall is not safe against sliding.(d) retaining wall is not safe against over turning.

466. Magnitude of loss of prestress due to relaxation ofsteel is in the range of(a) zero to 1% (b) 2 to 8%(c) 8 to 12% (d) 12 to 14%

467. In the limit state method of design, the failurecriterion for reinforced concrete beams and columnsis(a) Maximum principal stress theory(b) Maximum principal Strain theory(c) Maximum shear stress theory(d) Maximum strain energy theory

468. Combination of partial safety factors for loads underlimit state of collapse and limit state of serviceabilitywill be(a) 1.5 (D.L + L.L) or 1.5 (D.L. + W.L) or1.2

(D.L. + L.L. + W.L) and D.L. + 0.8 (L.L +W.L.)

(b) 1.5 (D.L. + L.L) and D.L + 0.8 (L.L + W.L)(c) 1.5 (D.L + L.L) or 1.5 (D.L. + W.L) or 1.2

+ L.L. + W.L) and 1.0 + L. L) or 1.0(D.L. + W.L) or D.L + 0.8 (L.L + W.L.)

(d) 1.2 (D.L + L.L + W. L) and 1.0 (D.L. + L.L)or 1.0 (D.L + W.L) or D.L. + 0.8 (L.L + W.L)

469. Bending moment coefficients for continuous RCslabs in IS 456-1978 code is based on(a) Pigeaud’s method

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(b) Marcus’s method(c) Yield-line theory(d) Westerguard’s mathematical analysis

470. Sum of nodal forces at any yield line intersectionina slab is(a) zero(b) infinity(c) independent of the reinforcement(d) indeterminate

471. Ratio of the lateral pressure of the bulk storagematerial at the time of emptying to that at the timeof filling is(a) less than one(b) equal to or less than one(c) equal to one(d) greater than one

472. In the design of prestressed concrete structures,which of the following limit states will come underthe limit states of serviceability?(a) Deflection (b) Cracking(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these

473. In a RCC beam of breadth b and overall depth Dexceeding 750 mm, side face reinforcement requiredand the allowable area of maximum tension ireinforcement shall be respectively(a) 0.2% and 0.02 bD(b) 0.3% and 0.03(c) 0.1% and 0.04 bD(d) 0.4% and 0.01 bD

474. As per IS : 456-1978 the vertical deflection limit forbeams may generally be assumed to be satisfiedprovided that ratio of span to effective depth of acontinuous beam of span up to 10 m is not to begreater than(a) 35 (b) 26(c) 20 (d) 18

475. Negative moment in reinforced concrete beams atthe location of supports is generally much higherthan the positive span moment. This is primarilydue to curvature at the supports being(a) very high (b) very low(c) zero (d) of reversing nature

476. In the conventional prestressing, the diagonal tensionin concrete(a) Increases(b) Decreases(c) does not change(d) may increase or decrease

477. Beam sections of reinforced concrete designed inaccordance with ultimate strength or limit statedesign approach, as compared to section designedby working stress method for the same conditio ofload and span, and the same width, usually hav(a) a larger depth and smaller amoun reinforcement(b) the same depth and same reinforcement(c) smaller depth and more reinforcement(d) same depth as that of a deep beam

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Supervisor Instructor Grade III - GADHAVIS CAREER ...

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