Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019 ...

1 Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019) CSAT

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following five passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

PASSAGE – 1 This year, ten million children will die in low-income and middle-income countries. If child death rates were the same as those in developed countries, this figure would be lower than one million. Conversely, if child death rates were those of rich countries just 100 years ago, the figure would be 30 million. The key difference between now and then is not income but technical knowledge about the causes of disease and interventions to prevent disease, or at least the most pernicious symptoms. Today‘s tools for improving health are so powerful and inexpensive that health conditions could be reasonably good even in poor countries if policymakers spent even relatively little in the right places. 1. What is the most logical inference

that can be made from this passage? (1) Child death rates have not

been controlled globally because of the lack of technological knowledge.

(2) Policymakers in poor countries need to take cognizance of technological innovations in order to reduce alarmingly high child death rates.

(3) Child death rates have reduced more in developing countries than developed countries when compared to 1900s levels.

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above

Answer: (d) Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect as passage clearly says that developed countries have been able to reduce child death rates with the use of technological knowledge. Statement 3 is incorrect as it directly contradicts the passage as the reduction in developed countries has been more than that in developing countries. The passage mentions that if poorer countries were to adopt some of the technological advances, they might be able to cure or even prevent certain diseases and thereby reduce child mortality. This is correctly reflected in Statement 2, which states that if governments and policymakers in poor countries follow technological advances, they can reduce child death rates.

PASSAGE – 2

E-waste is an emerging issue, driven by the rapidly increasing quantities of complex end-of-life electronic equipment. The global level of production, consumption and recycling induces large flows of toxic substances. The international regulations mainly developed under the Basel Convention, focusing on a global ban for transboundary movements of e-waste, seem to face difficulties in being implemented effectively. However, a conclusive account of the situation and trends is not yet possible. On a global scale, some attempts have been made to identify e-waste streams. The focus has been laid on quantities and in some cases on spatial distribution, but a global


perspective is still lacking. 2. Which of the following is the most

suitable conclusion from this passage? (a) E- waste is an imminent

danger for environment and global efforts need to be consolidated to tackle the emerging concern.

(b) Nations have failed to recognise the threat posed by e-waste to our environment and future generations.

(c) E- waste management is an issue to be individually handled by nations, rather than at a global level.

(d) E- waste issue is still not a crisis and the world will be able to tackle it with evolving technologies.

Answer: (a) Explanation: The passage focuses on the challenges posed by e-waste induced by electronic equipment being discarded in large volumes. It does recognize that toxic substances are produced due to the production, consumption and recycling of electronic items. It mentions that while international conventions and efforts have been put into place in order to control e-waste, they have not yet been completely successful. The passage concluded by saying that these efforts are not yet completely successful because a global perspective is lacking. This is most suitably mentioned in option (a), which shows the environmental danger posed by e-waste and the efforts required at a global level. Option (b) is incorrect as the passage clearly that various nations have put in efforts to control e-waste but have not been completely successful. This also

invalidates option (c) as the passage mentions that the individual efforts by nations are not enough and a global perspective is needed. The passage also mentions that the world recognizes the dangers posed by e-waste and has already started taking steps to control the same. However, it does not place too much confidence in the currently evolving technology. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.

3. The following statements have

been made for the Basel Convention: (1) It tries to form basic

guidelines for management of international movement of e-waste.

(2) It has efficiently reduced transportation of e-waste from one country to another.

(3) It is binding on all parties to recycle and manage their e-waste by themselves.

Based on the passage, which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 only

Answer: (d) Explanation: The passage clearly states that the Basel convention places a global ban on transboundary movement of international e-waste. It also states that the convention creates international guidelines for the same. Hence, statement 1 is correct w.r.t. the passage. Statement 2 is incorrect because the passage clearly mentions that the Basel Convention has been ineffective in


regulating transboundary movement of E- waste. Statement 3 is incorrect because the passage does not mention the binding nature of the Convention.

PASSAGE – 3

Some of the larger companies — notably Facebook and Google — engage civil society through the creation of expert task forces and targeted subject matter working sessions dedicated to the problem of online harassment and crime. Organizations such as the Anti-Cyberhate Working Group, Facebook‘s Safety Advisory Board, and Twitter‘s new Trust and Safety Council are all examples of such multidisciplinary gatherings that bring together subject matter experts. However, these debates (unlike say, congressional hearings), are shielded from public view, as both corporate and civil society participants remain nearly silent about the deliberations. Without greater transparency, users, consumers — the public at large — are ill- equipped to understand exactly how platforms work and how their own speech is being regulated and why. This means that the most basic tools of accountability and governance — public and legal pressure — simply don‘t exist. 4. What is the most crucial message

derived from this passage? (a) User data is not safe and

secure on online social media platforms.

(b) Social media platforms give a lot of importance to making users‘ experience safe and harassment free.

(c) Though civil society is involved by social media platforms to reduce online

crime, accountability is still low.

(d) Social media platforms are least concerned about users data safety and security.

Answer: (c) Explanation: The passage starts off by saying that larger social media companies such as Facebook and Google take online crime and harassment very seriously and interact with civil society using various tools to try and reduce the instances of such crimes. This is done through multiple subject matter based working sessions, expert task forces and multidisciplinary groups. This goes on to show that social media platforms are indeed concerned about user security. This makes option (b) correct and option (d) incorrect. The passage focuses more on online crime and harassment, rather than data safety. While the two are related in real life, there is no data in the passage that supports the same. Hence, option (a) cannot be considered the most crucial message. The second half of the passage focuses on showing how most of these interactions between social media platforms and civil society happen behind closed doors or away from the spotlight, thereby leading to minimal transparency and accountability. This supports option (c). Between options (b) and (c), option (c) covers gist of the passage more comprehensively.

PASSAGE – 4

Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) is Government of India's flagship programme for achievement of Universalisation of Elementary Education (UEE) in a time bound manner, as mandated by the 86th amendment to the


Constitution of India making free and compulsory education to the children of the 6-14 years age group, a Fundamental Right. SSA is being implemented in partnership with State Governments to cover the entire country. The programme seeks to open new schools in those habitations which do not have schooling facilities and strengthen existing school infrastructure through provision of additional class rooms, toilets, drinking water, maintenance grant and school improvement grants. Existing schools with inadequate teacher strength are provided with additional teachers, while the capacity of existing teachers is being strengthened by extensive training, grants for developing teaching-learning materials and strengthening of the academic support structure at a cluster, block and district level. SSA seeks to provide quality elementary education including life skills. SSA has a special focus on girl's education and children with special needs. SSA also seeks to provide computer education to bridge the digital divide. 5. Consider the following

assumptions: (1) Right to Education is a

fundamental right for every girl as per the Constitution.

(2) Teacher training institutes set up by private organisations are being encouraged by the Government under the SSA scheme.

With reference to the passage, which of the assumptions given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Explanation: Though the Right to Education includes all girls in the age group 6-14 years, it need not include girls outside this age group. Thus, assumption 1 is incorrect. The passage states that schools with inadequate teachers are being provided with more teachers while existing teachers are being trained. However, nowhere does the passage allude that this is being done through teacher training institutes set up by private organisations. Thus, assumption 2 is also incorrect. 6. According to the passage, what are

the basic requirements to be fulfilled in order to provide education to all? (1) Organising programs where

existing teachers can be recruited.

(2) Ensuring that clean surroundings and proper schoolrooms are made available for students.

(3) Providing teachers a support system at their regional level to help them perform better.

(4) The targets set forth by the plan can be implemented as per necessity within a stipulated timeframe.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (b) Explanation: The passage states that the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan aims to provide education to children and some of the things that are being done as part of the programme to achieve this are:


strengthening existing school infrastructure, recruiting new teachers, providing training to existing teachers and supporting the academic support structure at a cluster, district and block level. Thus, if one looks at this information provided in the passage, statements 2 and 3 can be classified as valid basic requirements. Statement 1 becomes incorrect because it talks of recruiting existing teachers while the passage talks of training new teachers. Also, the passage does not mention anything about organising programs for the same. Statement 4 also becomes incorrect because the passage does not mention a time frame at all. 7. On the basis of the passage,

consider the following assumptions: (1) Visually impaired children as

well as autistic children play an important role in the implementation of the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.

(2) The digital revolution has yet to be completely incorporated into mainstream education in India.

(3) Focus groups have been formed to develop a curriculum for this age group.

With reference to the passage, which of the assumptions given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only

Answer: (b) Explanation: The passage clearly mentions that the SSA has a clear focus on girl students and students with special needs.

―Students with special needs‖ includes all students who are impaired in some way and thus covers visually impaired children as well as autistic children. Therefore, assumption 1 is correct. The last line of the passage states that the SSA seeks to impart computer education to help ―bridge the digital divide‖. This phrase implies that there are still large differences in terms of education provided on computers, which further means that the digital revolution is not completely incorporated in mainstream education in India. Therefore, assumption 2 is also correct. The passage does not cover focus groups at all. Therefore, assumption 3 is incorrect.

PASSAGE – 5

The main cause of disequilibrium in the balance of payments arises from imbalance between exports and imports of goods and services, that is, deficit or surplus in balance of trade. When for one reason or another value of exports of goods and services of a country are smaller than the value of its imports, the disequilibrium in balance of payments is likely to occur due to the resultant trade deficit. The value of exports may be small due to the lack of exportable surplus which in turn results from the low production of goods to be exported or the exports may be small because of the high cost and prices of exportable goods and severe competition in the world markets.

8. Which of the following statements

is correct in context of the passage given above? (a) Balance of payments is

inversely proportional to balance of trade.

(b) A trade surplus will always


lead to surplus in Balance of payments.

(c) A trade deficit occurs when imports are lower than exports.

(d) A trade deficit occurs when exports lags behind net imports in the wake of inflation.

Answer: (d) Explanation: The passage starts off by saying that the balance of payments is linked to the balance of trade. It then explains the balance of trade in the context of trade surplus and trade deficit i.e. the net gap between exports and imports. This is supported by option (d), which states that a trade deficit occurs when exports are less than imports due to multiple factors, such as inflation. Though balance of payments is linked to balance of trade, the exact relationship (i.e. direct or inverse proportionality) cannot be established. Hence, option (a) is incorrect. Continuing from the explanation from option a, the exact relationship between trade surplus and balance of payments cannot be established. Hence, option (b) cannot be considered correct. Option (c) is incorrect as it directly contradicts the passage, and mentions the case of a trade deficit rather than a trade surplus. 9. If it does not rain, trains will be on

time. One day, trains are on time. Which of the following is/are correct? (1) It rained on that day. (2) It did not rain on that day. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (d) 10. If it rains, trains will not be on time.

One day, trains are on time. Which of the following is/are correct? (1) It rained on that day. (2) It did not rain on that day. Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) Directions for the following question: In the question given below there are certain statements given followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be correct even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. 11. Statement:

Some files are tables. All tables are chairs. All chairs are desks. Some desks are racks. Conclusion: I. Some racks are table. II. Some desks are tables. III. Some chairs are files. IV. Some racks are files. Codes: (a) Only II and III follow (b) I, III and IV follow (c) Only I and IV follow (d) Only III and IV follow


Answer: (a) Explanation: The statement, Some desks are racks has 4 different scenarios as shown below:

Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Refer to the data below and answer the questions that follow: A butterfly flies from one point to another on the xy plane. It moves in such a way that, if it is at a point (x, y) at any time, the next point it can move to, can only be (x + 1, y + 1) or (x + 1, y – 1). Assume that the butterfly starts moving from the origin. 12. How many times will the butterfly

have to ―take off‖ i.e., fly from one point to another, to reach the point (n + 2, n)? (a) n (b) n+1 (c) n+2 (d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Explanation: The butterfly has to take off ‗n+2‘ times to reach (n+2, n) 13. If ever the butterfly reaches the

point (6789, 1234), what will be the

maximum value of the y coordinate of the point it will land on, on its way? (a) 6789 (b) 1234 (c) It will never reach (6789,

1234) (d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Explanation: It is not possible to reach such a point according to given conditions. 14. A boy has to travel as given below

to reach a coaching institute from his house. He travels 30 km towards North, then 50 km towards West, then 70 km towards South and finally 80 km towards East. How far and towards which direction is the coaching from his house? (a) 50 km, South (b) 50 km, South-East (c) 50 km, North–East (d) 40 km South

Answer: (b) Explanation: According to instructions: 15. Pointing to a person in photograph,

Ramesh said to Suresh, ―He is the father of your sister‘s only sibling‘s wife and is also my wife‘s

50 km 30 km 70 km

50 km

30 km

80 km

House 40 km

Coaching


husband.‖ How is Ramesh‘s wife related to Suresh‘s wife? (a) Mother-in-law (b) Mother (c) Aunt (d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Explanation: Ramesh is Suresh‘s father-in-law and thus Ramesh's wife is Suresh's wife‘s mother. Direction for the following 4 (four) items: These questions are based on the information given below: There is a family of eight persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. Among the family members, there are five females and three males and each married person lives along with his/her spouse. We know the following information about them: (i) Cricketer is the husband of C. (ii) Chartered Accountant, a female,

has only two children, one of whom is a female lecturer and the other a male reporter.

(iii) Each couple has at least one child.

(iv) E, a student, is niece of D‘s spouse.

(v) Singer, A is the sister-in-law of C. (vi) H, a politician, is the father-in-law

of A. (vii) B, married and a reporter is the

uncle of F but not the spouse of C.

(viii) Each person belongs to a different profession and one person, F is a lawyer.

16. Who among the following is the

Chartered Accountant? (a) A (b) G (c) D (d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Explanation: According to the instructions, following family tree can be formed:

17. Who is the wife of the Politician?

(a) A (b) G (c) D (d) Cannot be determined

Answer: (b) 18. Who is the father of the lawyer?

(a) Cricketer (b) Reporter (c) Politician (d) Lecturer

Answer: (a) 19. Which among the following is

correct? (a) F is the nephew of B (b) F is the niece of B (c) F is the son of B (d) F is the daughter of B

Answer: (b) 20. The internal angles of a polygon

are in arithmetic progression. The


smallest angle is 120 degree and the common difference is 5 degree. Find the number of sides of the polygon? (a) 9 (b) 12 (c) 14 (d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Explanation: For any ‗n‘ sided closed figures,

Sum of internal angles = (n-2) And in case angles are in A.P.

Sum of internal angles= 𝑛

2 2𝑎 + 𝑛 − 1 𝑑

Thus, (n-2)180°=𝑛

2 2 × 120° + 𝑛 − 1 5°

= 360 n - 720 = 240 n + 5n2 – 5n 5n2 – 125n + 720 = 0 n2 – 25n + 144 = 0 (n-16) (n-9) = 0 n = 9 or n = 16 From the options n = 9 21. P can run 1 km in 4 min 54 sec, Q

in 5 min. How many meters start can P give Q in 2 km race so that the race may end in a dead heat? (a) 20 m (b) 12 m (c) 40 m (d) 60 m

Answer: (c) Explanation: P can run 2 km in 2 x 4 minutes 54 seconds = 588 seconds. Distance covered by Q in 588 seconds

= 588

600 × 2000 𝑚 = 1960 𝑚

Thus, P can give Q, 2000 – 1960 m = 40 metres start. 22. The average weight of a class is 60

kg. Which of the following can be concluded?

(a) If 3 students whose weight are 69 kg, 57 kg and 56 kg join the class, the average weight of the class will decrease.

(b) If 3 students whose weight are 69 kg, 57 kg and 56 kg leave the class, the average weight of the class will increase.

(c) Neither (a) nor (b) (d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (c) Explanation: The average weight of 69 kg, 57 kg and 56 kg is 60.67 kg. Thus, if they join the class, the average weight of class will increase and if they leave the class, average weight will decrease. Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Six schools in a city are situated as follows: T is 20 km to the east of P which is 50 km to the north of U. R is 40 km to the west of S. U is 10 km to the west of Q and 20 km to the south of S.

23. Which three schools lie in a straight

line? (a) PSU (b) RSU (c) PST (d) PTU

Answer: (a) Explanation: P 20 km T 30 km 40 km

R S 20 km 10 km U Q


24. Which two are the farthest from each other as the crow flies? (a) Q and P (b) R and T (c) R and U (d) U and T

Answer: (b) Explanation: (R&T are farthest) 25. An automobile dealer buys an old

motorcycle marked at 25,000 with 20% and 5% off successively. He spends 1,000 on its repairs and sells the motorcycle for 25,000. Find his gain percent. (a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 25% (d) 28%

Answer: (c) Explanation:

Cost Price = Rs. 25000 x 100−20

100 ×

100−5

100

= Rs. 25,000 x 80

100 ×

95

100

Rs. 19,000. Effective cost price = Rs. 19000 + Rs. 1000 = Rs. 20,000 Profit = Rs. 25,000 – Rs. 20,000 = Rs. 5,000

Profit % = 5000

20000 × 100

= 25%. Directions for the following 4 (four) items: Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

PASSAGE – 6

Exclusion happens at different levels in

the societal space. In the Indian context, people are marginalised on the basis of caste, class, gender (male and female), culture, region, religion and so on. But the whole question is why? The process of marginalisation or social exclusion is to systematically keep individuals and communities away from resources, opportunities and their rights. As a result of this, individuals and communities are kept away from social, political, economic and cultural activities. Thus, society sees to it that the power is restricted with one individual or one community so that they have extreme control over the others and resources. So, technically, the majority of Indian people are kept away from productivity because of varied forms of social exclusion/marginalisation. One such exclusion is exclusion of the transgender communities across the globe as well as in India. They have been the subject of mockery and social rejection. At the same time, they are subjected to violence. Transgenders face staggering levels of discrimination and violence. In 2012, 53% of anti-LGBT homicide victims were transgender women. Transgenders are four times more likely to live in poverty because of non-employability and unemployment. 90% of transgenders report experiencing harassment, mistreatment or discrimination on the job. Many transgenders are harassed by the police. Many of them commit suicide because of rejection at multiple levels. Transgenders also face shockingly high rates of murder, homelessness, and incarceration. 26. Which of the following statements

has the author mentioned as the most logical rationale behind discrimination at different levels? (1) To concentrate authority over

resources among select few


in the society. (2) To avenge historical wrongs

and address long-standing grievances.

(3) The lack of legal protection against discrimination.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) Explanation: The passage states that discrimination ensures that the discriminated individual or group stays away from social, political, cultural and economic activities. It also states that this ensures that discrimination ends up achieving the purpose of restricted access to resources to a few selected people and groups. This validates statement 1 as a rationale. Statements 2 and 3 may be technically correct but they are both unsupported in the passage. In that context, neither can be considered a valid rationale. 27. With regard to the transgender

community, which of the following statements is/are not correct? (1) Transgenders face less

discrimination as they live isolated from the society.

(2) It is easy for transgenders to seek protection against discrimination.

(3) Government systems are efficiently equipped to tackle discrimination against transgenders in India as well as in other countries.

(4) Transgenders are easy targets of discrimination because of lack of empathy

among people, institutional and infrastructural lacunae in the system towards their protection.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (a) Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect as the passage states that transgenders face staggering (or very high levels) of discrimination. Also, the passage does not throw light on whether they live in isolation or not. The passage mentions that transgenders are often harassed by the police. A direct implication of this statement is that the transgenders are wary of approaching the police. This directly precludes transgenders from getting protection easily. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The passage also states that most countries do not provide enough legal protection across multiple areas for people who are discriminated against on the basis of gender. Since transgenders are discriminated against on the basis of their gender, this implies that the government and legal systems are actually insufficiently equipped to tackle discrimination against them. This makes statement 3 incorrect. Statement 4 correctly sums up the discrimination against transgenders by attributing it to personal biases, lack of empathy and support from the government, police and the legal community as well. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

PASSAGE – 7


At the time of Indian independence, India was divided into two sets of territories, the first being the territories of "British India", which were under the direct control of the India Office in London and the Governor-General of India, and the second being the "Princely states", the territories over which the Crown had suzerainty, but which were under the control of their hereditary rulers. In addition, there were several colonial enclaves controlled by France and Portugal. The political integration of these territories into India was a declared objective of the Indian National Congress, which the Government of India pursued over the next decade. Through a combination of factors, Vallabhbhai Patel and V. P. Menon convinced the rulers of almost all of the hundreds of princely states to accede to India. Having secured their accession, they then proceeded to, in a step-by- step process, secure and extend the central government's authority over these states and transform their administrations until, by 1956, there was little difference between the territories that had formerly been part of British India and those that had been part of princely states. Simultaneously, the Government of India, through a combination of diplomatic and military means, acquired de facto and de jure control over the remaining colonial enclaves, which too were integrated into India. 28. What was/were the major issues

with the political integration of India? (1) India was ruled by too many

different players. To achieve unity, it was necessary to eliminate those territories not under Indian government control.

(2) India was divided on the

basis of colonial rule over territories by France, Portugal and England, and their cultural differences posed a problem.

(3) India was ruled by too many different players. To achieve unity, it was necessary to convince them to consent to being ruled by the Indian government– by force or by persuasion.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (c) Explanation: The passage mentions that some territories in India were under the direct control of the India office in London while there were some enclaves controlled by France and Portugal. However, the passage does not provide any evidence to show that their cultural differences created issues in governing or integrating them in the Indian Union. This makes statement 2 incorrect. The passage mentions that India was ruled by too many different players but does not say that any of them were to be eliminated in order to achieve unity. In fact, it shows how the India Government used a combination of diplomacy, force and persuasion to get all the princely states under the Indian Government‘s control. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect while statement 3 is correct.

29. Which of the following is correct

according to the passage? (a) The British Government was

like the feudal overlord of the Indian Princely States.


(b) The Indian Government was like the English Lord, the Indian Princely State was its kingdom.

(c) The Indian Government was like the feudal overlord of the Indian Princely States.

(d) The British Government was like the English Lord, the Indian Princely State was its kingdom.

Answer: (a) Explanation: At the time of independence, there was no relation of kingdom between either the British or Indian government and the princely state. Thus, the Princely State was the kingdom of the Prince ruling it rather than being a Kingdom of the British or Indian government. Hence, statements (b) and (d) are incorrect. The passage uses the word ―suzerain‖ which implies a certain amount of dependency on part of the princely state on the British government. The metaphor that comes closest is that of the British Government being the States‘ feudal overlord. Hence, statement (a) is correct and (c) is incorrect. DIRECTIONS for Q. 30: The following item consists of four statements. Of these four statements, two cannot both be true, but both can be false. Study the statements carefully and identify the two that satisfy the above condition. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 30. Examine the following statements:

(1) All boats are ships. (2) Some boats are not ships. (3) No boats are ships. (4) Some boats are ships. Codes (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only

Answer: (b) 31. The least number which must be

added to the greatest number of 4 digits in order that the sum may be exactly divisible by 307 is (a) 32 (b) 43 (c) 175 (d) 132

Answer: (d) Explanation: On dividing 9999 by 307, we get remainder 175.

Least number which must be added to 9999 to get a number perfectly divisible by 307 = 307 – 175 = 132. 32. A purse contains 225 currency

notes consisting of 5-rupee, 10-rupee and 50-rupee currencies in the ratio 3 : 7 : 5 respectively. Out of this, Rs. 25 is spent and the left out money is exchanged for 500-rupee currency notes then the number of 500-rupee currency notes is (a) 15 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 20


Value of Rs. 5 note = 3

15 × 225 × 5 =

𝑅𝑠. 225


15 × 225 × 10 =

Rs. 1050


15 × 225 × 50 =

𝑅𝑠. 3750


Total money = Rs. 5025 Money remaining = Rs. 5025 – 25 = Rs. 5000

No. of Rs. 500 notes = 𝑅𝑠 .5000

𝑅𝑠 .500= 10

33. In a test, 3 marks are given for

each correct answer and 2 marks are cut for each wrong answer. In that test of 50 questions, a student got 60 marks. How many questions did he solve correctly? (a) 26 (b) 18 (c) 32 (d) 39

Answer: (c) Explanation: Let the number of correct questions be ‗x‘ Then, wrong questions is ―(50-x)‖

3 x – 2 (50-x) = 60 3x – 100 + 2x = 60 => 5x = 160 => x = 32 34. If p = 1 × 2 × 3 × ........ × 100 and q

= 101 × 102 × 103 × 104. Then find the LCM of p and q. (a) 101 pq (b) 103 p (c) 10403 p (d) 10608 p

Answer: (c) Explanation: Given, p = 1 x 2 x 3 x ....... x 100 q = 101 x 102 x 103 x 104 In q, 101 and 103 are prime numbers,

LCM of p and q = p x 101 x 103 = 10403p 35. A, B, C and D are positive

numbers. 60% of A = 75% of B = 90% of C = 30% of D. Find the largest of 3A, 4B, 7C and 2D. (a) 3A (b) 4B

(c) 7C (d) 2D

Answer: (c) Explanation: Given, 60% of A = 75% of B = 90% of C = 30% of D

= 60

100 × 𝐴 =

75

100 × 𝐵 =

90

100 × 𝐶 =

30

100 ×

𝐷 = 𝐾

= 3

5𝐴 =

3

4𝐵 =

9

10𝐶 =

3

10𝐷 = 𝐾

= 𝐴 = 5𝐾

3, 𝐵 =

4𝐾

3, 𝐶 =

10𝑘

9, 𝐷 =

10𝑘

3

3A = 5𝑘

3 × 3 = 5k

4B = 4𝑘

3× 3 =

16𝑘

3

7C = 10𝑘

9 × 7 =

70𝑘

9

2D = 20𝑘

3

so, 7C is the largest. 36. Ratan borrowed a certain sum of

money from his friend at 5% simple interest and in 7 years the interest amounted to 455 less than the sum borrowed. How much money was borrowed by Ratan? (a) 300 (b) 500 (c) 700 (d) 800


We know Simple Interest = 𝑃∗𝑅∗𝑇

100 where

P is the principal amount, R is rate of interest and T is time period. In the given question, Interest is 455 less than the Principal amount i.e. Interest = P – 455 Hence

P - 455 = 𝑃∗5∗7

100 => 100P - 455*100 = 35P

=> P = 455∗100

65 = 700


37. Consider the figures given below:

To fit the question mark, the correct answer is

Answer: (b) Explanation: In each row there are three figures viz. diamond, square and hexagon which contains circle, square and cross inside them. In the 3rd row diamond and square have already appeared; hence in the question figure hexagon will appear. Further, cross and circle have also

appeared hence the hexagon will contain square inside it. Thus, the answer is (b). 38. Consider the sequence given

below: 4, 8, 9, 21, 38, …… What is the next term of the series? (a) 39 (b) 66 (c) 43 (d) 68

Answer: (d) Explanation: The sum of any three consecutive terms of the series gives the next term. So, missing number = 38 + 21 + 9 = 68. These types of question are generally solved with hit and trial method. Generally combination of square, cube, sum and subtraction are used to form a series. If no common pattern is found, try to add certain numbers as done in the above case. 39. While adding a certain number of

consecutive natural numbers starting from 1; Akshit, by mistake, added a natural number twice and obtained the sum as 470. Which number was added twice by Akshit? (a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 5 (d) 10

Answer: (c) Explanation: Natural number are = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5…….and so on. (Used in counting) Let the number of natural numbers Akshit added is n and let the natural number added twice is p. Sum of n natural number is given as = 𝑛 ( 𝑛+1)

2


Hence 𝑛 ( 𝑛+1)

2 + p = 470

As the sum of number is 470, try to find the value of n for which sum is near to 470.

e.g. if n = 10 then sum = 10(11)

2 = 55

when n = 20, sum = 20(21)

2 = 210

when n = 30, sum = 30(31)

2 = 465, it is

near to 470

for n = 31, sum = 31(32)

2 = 496 which is

greater than 470 Hence p = 470 – 465 = 5 40. X‘s weight is 10% less than that of

Y and Z‘s weight is 10% more than that of Y. By what percentage is X‘s weight is less than that of Z?

(a) 182

11%

(b) 222

9%

(c) 1% (d) 20%

Answer: (a) Explanation: Here comparison has been made w.r.t. weight of Y, hence Let weight of Y = 100 kg Then weight of X = 90 kg (10% less than that of Y) and weight of Z = 110 kg (10% more than that of Y)

Percentage difference = 110−90

110 x 100 =

20

110 x 100 = 18

2

11%

This question can also be asked as: By what percentage is Z‘s weight is more than that of X.

Then answer will be = 110−90

90 x 100 =

20

90 x

100 = 222

9%

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

PASSAGE – 8

Many people believe that because wages are lower in developing countries than in developed countries, competition from developing countries in goods traded internationally will soon eliminate large numbers of jobs in developed countries. Currently, developed countries' advanced technology results in higher productivity, which accounts for their higher wages. Advanced technology is being transferred ever more speedily across borders, but even with the latest technology, productivity and wages in developing countries will remain lower than in developed countries for many years because developed countries have better infrastructure. When productivity in a developing country does catch up, experience suggests that wages there will rise. Some individual firms in developing countries have raised their productivity but kept their wages (which are influenced by average productivity in the country's economy) low. However, in a developing country's economy as a whole, productivity improvements in goods traded internationally are likely to cause an increase in wages. Furthermore, if wages are not allowed to rise, the value of the country's currency will appreciate, which (from the developed countries' point of view) is the equivalent of increased wages in the developing country. And although in the past a few countries have deliberately kept their currencies undervalued, that is now much harder to do in a world where capital moves more freely.


41. It can be inferred from the passage that if the movement of capital across the world is restricted, which of the following is likely to occur? (1) Advanced technology could

move more quickly from developed countries to developing countries.

(2) A country's productivity could increase without significantly increasing the value of its currency.

(3) Workers could obtain higher wages by increasing their productivity.

Select the correct answer from the code given below: (a) 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (b) Explanation: The movement of capital across the world is discussed in the context of currency valuation and its consequent effect on wages. Since it is unclear as to what effect it has on technology, Statement 1 is incorrect. At present, capital moves freely and makes it difficult to undervalue currencies. This causes increases in the currency‘s value and hence wages. Thus, if capital movement was restricted, currency valuation and wages could remain low even if productivity increased. 42. Why do some firms, in a

developing country, that have raised their productivity continue to pay low wages? (a) Wages are influenced by the

extent to which productivity increases are based on the latest technology.

(b) Wages are influenced by the extent to which labour unions have organized the country's workers.

(c) The average productivity of the workers in the country has not risen.

(d) The education level of the workers in the country determines wages.

Answer: (c) Explanation: Since wages are influenced by average productivity in the country's economy, low wages despite increased productivity imply that the average productivity has not risen. The role of technology, labour unions or education levels on wage levels in developing countries is not mentioned.

PASSAGE – 9 Recent research has brought out sharply the impact of early undernourishment on long-term health, and even on the development of cognitive functions and skills. The fact that India has such a high rate of childhood undernourishment- one of the highest in the world- makes this a particularly alarming consideration. Aside from protein-energy malnourishment, there are also issues of particular nutritional deficiencies, such as iron and iodine, the consequences of which can be silently serious. Various studies have confirmed the connection between low head circumference or low ponderal index at birth and mortality rates later in life from cardiovascular diseases. There has also been some evidence showing a greater tendency towards high blood pressure for people whose birth weight was particularly low. Since the Indian population is known to be relatively more susceptible to cardiovascular diseases,


the connection with the lowness of birth weight would be certainly worth examining. There are also observed connections between low birth weight and the ponderal index (that is, birth weight divided by birth length) and the incidence, later in life, of impaired glucose tolerance and non-insulin dependent diabetes. The population is not in the grips of famines; the country does not have to import food to survive; we do not see starving people in the streets. But India still has remarkably high levels of child undernourishment judged in terms of standard clinical criteria, and to dismiss this worry on the alleged grounds that ―we seem to be doing alright‖ is gloriously stupid. A medical problem deserves some medical analysis, and not just self-satisfied visual observation. 43. On the basis of the passage,

consider the following statements: (1) The Indian Government is

satisfied to rest on its laurels and is not inclined to analyse the effects of undernourishment on its geriatric population.

(2) The Indian Government has come a long way since days when famine claimed lives of innumerable citizens and the import of food-grains was the only way to meet its food requirements.

(3) Images of cattle on the street and malnourished children is the image of how India is symbolised the world over.

(4) In spite of its technological and economic success, India is still unable to provide its future citizens a healthy tomorrow.

Which of the statements given

above are correct? (a) 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (a) Explanation: The passage mainly focuses on the theme that India is facing a crisis of undernourishment as far as its children are concerned. It links undernourishment to multiple disorders and lifestyle diseases. It also shows how India should not actually be facing this crisis as it has moved beyond famines and large-scale import of food grains but does so due to lack of enough scientific research on this topic. Thus, it can be validly said that India has come a long way since the days of famine and import of food grains, but despite this progress, it is unable to provide a safe future to its children. This validates both statements 2 and 4. Statement 1 would have been correct had it focused on paediatric (i.e. child) population rather than geriatric (i.e. old age) population. Statement 3 is incorrect as there is no data to support it in the passage. Also, the passage gives an impression of an India that is way more advanced than the one depicted in statement 3.

44. Which of the following can be

inferred from the passage? (a) Perception, thinking and

learning skills can be developed at any age provided the right nourishment is provided.

(b) Insufficient nutrition to pregnant women can lead to diabetic children.

(c) The genetic makeup of Indians makes them prone to


heart attacks. (d) Although India is self

sufficient in terms of food, its people still have less to eat as compared to other countries.

Answer: (c) Explanation: The passage clearly mentions that the Indian population has been known to be relatively more susceptible to cardiovascular diseases. Thus, the reason for this enhanced risk seems to be the genetic makeup of the Indian population. Hence, option c becomes a valid inference in the context of the passage. Option (a) is incorrect as the passage clearly establishes a link between development of cognitive skills and adequate nourishment in childhood. It states the development does get impaired if proper nourishment is not available in childhood. Hence, option a contradicts the passage and is, hence, invalid. Option (b) also contradicts the passage, which states that low birth weight (which can possibly be due to undernourished mothers) can lead to a greater risk of diabetes later. It does not say that is leads to children being diabetic. Hence, option (b) (though possible) is not as suitable as option (c). Option (d) generalizes the entire premise of the passage by saying people have less to eat, instead of just saying that children have insufficient nutrition. Hence, option (d) is also incorrect. 45. According to the passage, what

could be the effects of undernourishment of children? (1) There could be a reduction in

average lifespan of people in the country.

(2) There could be an increase in demand for health care services.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Explanation: The passage states that undernourishment has been linked to cardiovascular diseases, increased blood pressure, impaired glucose tolerance and non-insulin dependent diabetes. Thus, the lack of nourishment has been directly linked to various lifestyle based diseases. This can mean that the average lifespan of the people could be reduced and there would be a higher requirement for health care. Thus, both the statements are correct.

PASSAGE – 10

While the dominant species within a particular ecosystem is often crucial in perpetuating the ecosystem, a ―keystone‖ species, defined as one whose effects are much larger than would be predicted from its appearance, also plays a vital role. But because complex species interactions may be involved, identifying a keystone species by removing the species and observing changes in the ecosystem is problematic. It might seem that certain traits would clearly define a species as a keystone species; for example, Pisaster ochraceus is often a keystone predator because it consumes and suppresses mussel populations, which in the absence of this starfish can be a dominant species. But such predation on a dominant species occurs in systems that do as well as in systems


that do not have species that play keystone roles. Moreover, whereas Pisaster ochraceus occupies an unambiguous keystone role on wave-exposed habitats, in wave-sheltered habitats the impact of Pisaster ochraceus predation is weak or nonexistent. Keystone status appears to depend on context, whether of particular geography or of such factors as community diversity (for example, a reduction in species diversity thrusts more of the remaining species into keystone roles) and length of species interaction (since newly arrived species dramatically affect the ecosystem). 46. Consider the following statements:

(1) Identifying a species as a keystone species can be achieved simply by removing the species from a particular ecosystem and observing changes that occur in the ecosystem.

(2) The Pisaster ochraceus is a starfish that does not always enjoy a keystone role.

With reference to the passage, which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because the second sentence states that removing the species from a particular ecosystem is problematic, not simple. Statement 2 is correct because in wave-sheltered habitats, the impact of Pisaster ochraceus predation is nonexistent.

47. Consider the following statements: (1) Gaining a keystone status

becomes easier as an ecosystem becomes less diverse.

(2) The introduction of new species cannot displace an established keystone species.

With reference to the passage, which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) Explanation: Statement 1 is correct because a reduction in species diversity thrusts the remaining species into keystone roles. Statement 2 is incorrect because newly arrived species dramatically affect the ecosystem.

PASSAGE – 11

Readers of factual material should bear in mind this aspect: their authors, like authors of fiction, have beliefs and theories that affect the way they present their subject matter. For example, a British historian's account of the Revolution of 1857 would be different from the version written by a historian from India. Because of national loyalties, the two scholars might look at the events from different angles: the former as a colonial rebellion on a distant continent, and the second as a struggle for personal freedom. The two authors would write from different points of view and express certain opinions because they have different ways of looking at the subject.


48. With reference to the passage, which of the following statements would not be considered correct? (1) Even facts can be interpreted

differently by different people.

(2) Scholars from the India understand their history better than British scholars do.

(3) An author's point of view is less important than the facts he presents.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Explanation: Statement 1 follows from the first sentence of the passage. Statement 2 is incorrect because no such comparison is made. Statement 3 is incorrect since the author‘s background will influence the manner in which he presents the facts. 49. Consider the following statements

followed by two conclusions: Statement: (1) Some pens are pencils. (2) Some pencils are cows. Conclusion: (I) Pencils are either pens or

cows. (II) Some pens are cows. Which of the following is correct? (a) Conclusion I is valid (b) Conclusion II is valid (c) Both the conclusions are

valid (d) None of the conclusion is

valid.

Answer: (d) 50. Consider the following statements:

(1) Some apples are bananas. (2) All bananas are oranges. (3) No oranges are lemons. From the above three statements it may be concluded that (a) Some apples are lemons. (b) All lemons are apples. (c) All apples are oranges. (d) No bananas are lemons.

Answer: (d) 51. Riya works 25% more efficiently

than Rita and Rita works 50% more efficiently than Rima. To complete a certain project, Riya alone takes 60 days less than Rita alone. If, in this project Riya alone works for 72 days and then Rita alone works for 150 days, in how many days can Rima alone complete the remaining work? (a) 75 days (b) 90 days (c) 85 days (d) 80 days

Answer: (b) Explanation: This question can be solved in many ways but the simplest method is as under: Ratio of times taken by Riya, Rita and Rima = 80a : 100a : 150a = 8a : 10a : 15a 100a is 25 % more than 80a as Riya is 25 % more efficient than Rita. Similarly 150a is 50% more than 100a Note: Here, in the ratio, we have taken 100 for Rita as it makes the ratio simple, if you take 100 for Riya, the ratio will be 100 : 125 : 187.5 which will make the calculation difficult.


In the question it is given that Riya alone takes 60 days less than Rita alone which means 10a-8a = 60 => 2a = 60 => a = 30 Hence, actual time taken by Riya, Rita and Rima = 8x30, 10x30, and 15x30 = 240, 300 and 450 days respectively. Rita alone can complete the work in 300 days i.e. in 150 days she will complete ½ of the work. Hence half the work is remaining which is to be completed by Riya and Rima.

Work done by Riya in 72 days = 72

240 =

3

10

Work left for Rima = 1

2 -

3

10 =

1

5

The full work is completed by Rima in 450 days and the 1/5th of the work will be completed in 450/5 = 90 days. 52. Each of three persons P, Q and R

is ranked 1 to 3 in the order of their heights as well as in the order of their weights, not necessarily in the same order. No person has same rank in both weight and height. R is heavier than Q but shorter than P who is not the tallest. Who is the heaviest? (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) Cannot be determined

Answer: (d) Explanation: Let‘s make two table; one for weight and another for height Step 1 (Weight table): R is heavier than Q, this can be represented in three way

Rank Option 1

Option 2

Option 3

1 P R R

2 R P Q

3 Q Q P

Step 2 (Height table): R is Shorter than P, this can also be represented in three ways

Rank Option 1

Option 2

Option 3

1 P P Q

2 R Q P

3 Q R R

It is given that P is not the tallest hence Option 1 and Option 2 of the Height table are ruled out. Now the new height table is

Rank Option 3

1 Q

2 P

3 R

Step 3: It is also given that no person has same rank in both weight and height. In the option 2 of the Weight table the rank of P is 2 which is same as rank of P in the height table, hence option 2 of the weight table is also ruled out. In option 1 and 3 all the rank P, Q and R are different, therefore either P is heaviest or R is heaviest. Thus it cannot be determined who is the heaviest. Directions for the following 3 (three) items: Consider the given information and answer the three items that follow: Water pipelines are laid between 7 different cities viz. A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Some amount of water (in million litres [ML]) is required by each city and the rest is pumped forward to the next cities. The

total supply is equal to the total requirement. The direction of the water pumped is represented by arrows. R represents the


main water reservoir; the numbers adjacent to pipelines represent the amount of water pumped through them and the number in the circle shows the water required at that city. 53. What is the requirement of water at

city D? (a) 40 ML (b) 20 ML (c) 60 ML (d) Cannot be determined

Answer: (d) Explanation: 200 ML water is received by city A from the reservoir, out of which it retains 10 ML and pumps out 100 ML to C and 30 ML to B = 140 ML water (10 + 100 +30) has been consumed, hence remaining 60 ML ( 200-140) is pumped to city D. As it is not known how much water is pumped from E to G, the water requirement at D cannot be determined. 54. If the water requirement at city D is

20 million litres, then what is the requirement of water at city G? (a) 10 ML (b) 20 ML (c) 60 ML (d) 40 ML

Answer: (a) Explanation: As given above the water received by City D is 60 ML and if it retains 20 ML water it will pump out 40 ML to E which in turn retains all the 40 ML, and thus pump no water to city G. As city G receives 10 ML water from F and 0 ML from city E, the total requirement of G is 10ML. 55. If the water requirement at city F is

equal to that of city E, then how much water is pumped from city F to B?

(a) 10 ML (b) 20 ML (c) 30 ML (d) 40 ML

Answer: (c) Explanation: Similarly we can calculate that 30 ML water has been pumped from city F to E. C to F = 80, F=40, F to G = 10 then F to E = 80-40-10 = 30. 56. A rectangular sheet having length

24 cm and width 9 cm is folded in such a way that a cube is formed. The side of this cube is (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 9

Answer: (b) Explanation: Area of the rectangular sheet is 24 x 9 = 216 sqcm As the cube has 6 faces of equal area and total area is 216 then area of each face = 216/6 = 36 sqcm

Side = √36 = 6cm. 57. If RVQHBN is the code for

NAGPUR, the code for RATLAM is (a) MBMUBR (b) MBSKBR (c) MBUMBN (d) MBMUCR

Answer: (a) Explanation: The letters of the word are written in reverse order and each letter, except the first and the last one, is moved one step forward, to obtain the code. i.e. reverse of NAGPUR is RUPGAN and UPGA are moved one step forward


Similarly reverse of RATLAM is MALTAR and if we move ALTA one step forward we get MBMUBR which is the answer. Note: these type of question are formed using some kind of sequence or pattern, hence try to find the sequence or pattern to solve the question. 58. In a certain language, if SUNIL is

written as 34589 and PRAMIT as 612087, then TRIPURA is written as (a) 7180412 (b) 7186412 (c) 7286412 (d) 7186419

Answer: (b) Explanation: Each letter of the word represents a unique digit as shown below; letter I has appeared two times and it is represented by digit 8

S U N I L P R A M I T

3 4 5 8 9 6 1 2 0 8 7

From the above table, we can easily find out code for TRIPURA which is 7186412. 59. A person walks 7 km due north and

then he takes right turn and walks 5 km. He again takes right turn and walks 11 km and then walks 8 km due west. How far is he from his original position and towards which direction? (a) 4 km, South (b) 5 km, North West (c) 3 km, North West (d) 5 km, South West

Answer: (d) Explanation: The question can easily be solved with the help of the diagram. Let the person starts from point O. The movement of the person is shown in the diagram below:

At last, the person reaches at point F and

he is at a distance OF from the starting point. OFM is a right angled triangle hence OF2 = OM2 + MF2 OF2 = 42 + 32 => OF2 = 25 => OF = 5 It is clear from the above figure that F is in the South West direction. Hence the person is 5 km away from the starting point in South West direction. 60. The sum of the present ages of a

mother and her daughter is 60 years. Six years ago, mother's age was five times the age of the daughter. After 6 years, daughter‘s age will be: (a) 14 years (b) 18 years (c) 20 years (d) 12 years

Answer: (c) Explanation: Method 1: Let the present ages of daughter and mother be x and (60 -x) years respectively. Six years ago, mother's age was five times the age of the daughter then (60 - x) - 6 = 5(x - 6)

54 - x = 5x - 30 6x = 84


x = 14. Daughter‘s age after 6 years = (x+ 6)

= (14+6) = 20 years. Method 2 (require minimum calculations): If the concept is understood, the question can be solved without using paper pen. Go by answer options: The sum of present age of mother and daughter = 60 Sum of age of mother and daughter six years ago = 60 – 6 – 6 = 48 In the answer options age of daughter is given which is six years ahead of present age hence the age of daughter six years ago from the present age was (answer option – 12) = let say d Sum of age of mother and daughter six years ago = 5d + d = 48 Six years ago, mother's age was five times the age of the daughter Option (d) gives value of d zero i.e. 12 -12 hence ruled out. From option (c), we get value of d = 20-12 =8 which satisfy the equation 5d + d = 48. Hence the answer is option (c). 61. Without any stoppage, a person

travels a certain distance at an average speed of 80 km/hr., and with stoppages he covers the same distance at an average speed of 60 km/hr. How many minutes per hour does he stop? (a) 10 minutes (b) 13 minutes (c) 15 minutes (d) 18 minutes

Answer: (c) Solution:

Req. answer = 𝐷𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑

𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑤𝑖𝑡 𝑕𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝑠𝑡𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑎𝑔𝑒

= 80−60

80 =

20

80 =

1

4 hour = 15 minutes

62. A person walks a certain distance and ride back in 6½ hours. If he walks both ways, the time taken is 7¾ hours. How long would it take if he rides both ways? (a) 5 hrs 20 minutes (b) 5 hrs 15 minutes (c) 6 hours (d) 4 hours 20 minutes

Answer: (b) Solution:

= W + R = 13

2 ....... (i)

= W + W = 31

4 ....... (ii)

= 2W = 31

4 or W =

31

8

Putting 𝑊 =31

8 in equation (i) above

31

8+ 𝑅 =

13

2

𝑅 = 13

2−

31

8=

52 − 31

8 =

21

8

2 R = 2 ×21

8 =

21

4 = 5¼ hours = 5

hours 15 minutes

63. Two trains of the same length but

with different speeds pass a static pole in 4 seconds and 5 seconds respectively. In what time will they cross each other when they are moving in same direction? (a) 25 seconds (b) 30 seconds (c) 40 seconds (d) 20 seconds


Req. Answer: 2 ×4 ×5

5−4= 40 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑠


64. The radius of a circular wheel is 1¾ m. How many revolutions will it make to cover a distance of 11 km? (a) 750 revolutions (b) 1250 revolutions (c) 1000 revolutions (d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Solution: Total distance covered

Circumference = No. of

revolutions 11 x 1000

2 ×22

7 ×

7

4

= 1000

65. From a pack of 52 cards, 2 cards

are drawn at randomly. What is the probability that both are aces? (a) 1/242 (b) 1/441 (c) 1/221 (d) None of the above


𝑁 𝑃 = Number of favourable Outcome

Number of possible Outcome

= 4C2 / 52C2 = 1 / 221 66. How many numbers of four digits

can be formed with the digits 0, 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9 if the repetition of the digits are allowed? (a) 1440 (b) 720 (c) 1080 (d) 1800

Answer: (c) Solution: Req. answer: 5 x 6 x 6 x 6 = 1080 67. In a mixture of 80L, the ratio of milk

and water is 3:1. If the ratio of milk

and water is to be 2:3, then how much amount of water is to be added? (a) 70 L (b) 80 L (c) 100 L (d) 140 L

Answer: (a) Solution: In a mixture of 80L, milk = 3x, water = x Total 4x = 80 litres, x = 20

Milk = 60 and water = 20 Let ‗y‘ litre of water be added to the existing mixture.

Now, 60

20+𝑦=

2

3

180 = 40 + 2y 2y = 140 => y = 70 litres 68. The average of five consecutive

numbers is ‗x‘. If the next two numbers are also included, the new average will: (a) Increase by 2 (b) Remain the same (c) Increase by 1 (d) Increase by 1.5


= 𝑛+ 𝑛+1 + 𝑛+2 + 𝑛+3 + (𝑛+4)

5= 𝑥

= 5𝑛+10

5= 𝑥

= 5 𝑛+2

5 = 𝑥

= 𝑛 + 2 = 𝑥

= 𝑛+ 𝑛+1 + 𝑛+2 + 𝑛+3 + 𝑛+4 + 𝑛+5 + (𝑛+6)

7

= 7𝑛+21

7 =

7(𝑛+3)

7= 𝑛 + 3 = 𝑥 + 1

Directions for the next two questions (Qno. 69 and 70): In the questions given below, the given equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. Find the correct answer for the unsolved equation on that basis.


69. If 2218 = 12 and 337 = 16 then 569 = ? (a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 39 (d) 18

Answer: (c) Explanation: 2218 = 2 x 2 x 1 + 8 = 12 337 = 3 x 3 + 7 = 16 569 = 5 x 6 + 9 = 39 70. 6 x 4 x 5 = 456

3 x 2 x 8 = 283 4 x 9 x 3 = ? (a) 493 (b) 934 (c) 394 (d) 493

Answer: (b) Explanation: Rewrite 6 x 4 x 5 ignoring the 'x' as Tens placed number (middle number), Unit place number (right number), Hundreds placed number (left number) and we get 456. Similarly from 3 x 2 x 8 we get 283 So, from 4 x 9 x 3 we get 934 Directions for the following 3 (three) items: Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

PASSAGE – 11 The serious balance sheet weaknesses of public sector banks are well-known as is the growing problem of under-capitalisation. Although the government announced a few steps under its "Indradhanush" initiative, they fall far

short of the recommendations of the Nayak Committee. Much more needs to be done if these banks (which still dominate Indian banking) are to be put on a sustainable path towards having healthy balance sheets and realising their potential as efficient, well-governed financial intermediaries, contributing majorly to India's economic development. 71. Which among the following is the

most logical assumption that can be made from the above passage? (a) The Indradhanush initiative

could have been more effective had the recommendations of the Nayak Committee been properly incorporated.

(b) The problem of under-capitalization in public sector banks is due to the total lack of government support and initiative to fix the problem.

(c) India‘s economic development is solely dependent on the performance of and profits generated by the public sector banks.

(d) The government has taken robust measures to improve the health of public sector banks.

Answer: (a) Explanation: From the passage we know that the government has announced some measures to rectify the situation, so there is no lack of measures – although they may be said to be inadequate. Thus, option (b) can be ruled out. Public sector banks are one of the major contributors to India‘s economic development – not the sole contributors. The passage also does not convey or


suggest any such thing. Thus, option (c) can be eliminated. Option (d) is incorrect since the govt. has NOT taken appropriate measures because ―much more needs to be done‖. Option (a) can be inferred from “…"Indradhanush" initiative, they fall far short of the recommendations of the Nayak Committee..”.

PASSAGE – 12 India has a long way to go, with female labour force participation rate at 33%, lower than the global rate of 50% and East Asia‘s 63%. The gender participation gap is at 52%, and the female labour force participation rate has been declining since 2005-in part, because women study longer. Women can be game changers. To actualise this potential, the focus must be on education, easing entry into workforce and providing support to balance work and family. Improved access to schools and better infrastructure like toilets are essential. Improved access to credit will allow women to cultivate economic opportunities. 72. The author‘s viewpoint can be best

summed up in which of the following statements? (a) If women are given the right

support and resources to enter the workforce, they can add to the country‘s economy.

(b) India has the lowest female labour force participation as Indian women find it difficult to find work suitable to their potential.

(c) Other countries have more female participation in the workforce as their women do

not study for as long as Indian women do.

(d) Indian women shy away from joining the workforce due to the familial responsibilities of raising children.

Answer: (a) Explanation: The author is discussing the reasons for low female labour force participation in India. He believes that if given the right support by way of education, work-life balance, and infrastructure etc., they can prove to be game changers for India. This thought is brought out only in option (a). Although B might be true, it only talks about one aspect – difficulty in finding work – the solution that the author gives – making resources and support available is not covered. Thus, option (b) does not give a complete summary. Options (c) and (d) are beyond the scope of the passage and are not supported by it.

PASSAGE – 13

The easy part will be to lock in India‘s good fortune, with fiscal and monetary discipline. In addition, India‘s public-sector banks need capital and, since the state cannot put up the money, the minister must persuade potential shareholders that they will be run at arm‘s length from politicians. If India is to thrive, it needs bold reforms and political courage to match. The tried-and-tested development strategy is to move people from penurious farm jobs to more productive work with better pay. 73. Which among the following is the

most logical corollary to the above passage?


(a) India‘s monetary and fiscal position will improve if everyone left farm jobs and started working at jobs with better pay.

(b) India requires politicians who can enforce bold reforms to address fiscal, monetary and employment problems.

(c) If ministers can persuade shareholders to invest more money in state-run banks, India‘s monetary and fiscal health can improve manifold.

(d) Creating higher-paying jobs is the only way by which India can come out of its current unfavourable economic condition.

Answer: (b) Explanation: Option (a) is illogical. The passage talks about ‗poor‘ farm jobs, which does not mean that all farm jobs are ‗poor‘ and that everyone should leave such jobs. The passage states that ministers must convince shareholders that the banks will be run with minimum interference from the politicians. This may lead to mean that in such an event shareholders may invest more, but it does not mean that India‘s financial and monetary health will definitely improve. Thus, option (c) can also be eliminated. The passage states that getting people to work at more productive and better paying jobs is a tried and tested strategy. This does not mean that it is the only way. Also in the passage this strategy is suggested only for penurious farm jobs, so it cannot be assumed to hold true for the entire economy. Thus, option (d) can also be ruled out. The passage states that to thrive India needs two things - bold reforms and political courage. Reforms are needed in

fiscal, monetary and employment sectors. All this can be done if there is a strong political leadership – ‗political courage‘ – as given in option (b). Directions for the next question (Q no. 74): Consider the given information and answer the question that follows. 74. All talented singers practice since

childhood and all singers who practice since childhood gargle with warm water. Hence, all those singers who do not gargle with warm water are not talented singers. Which conclusion logically follows from these statements? (a) A singer who is not talented

does not practice since childhood.

(b) No singer who does not gargle with warm water is a talented singer.

(c) Every singer who gargles with warm water is a talented singer.

(d) Every singer who practices since childhood is a talented singer.

Answer: (b) 75. Consider the following statement

and the two statements that follow from it: Only a tax exemption can save the company. (1) The tax exemption was

granted and thus, the company was saved.

(2) The tax exemption was not granted and thus, the company was not saved.

Which of these statements follows from the main statement? (a) 1 only


(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 76. In a joint family there is a male

head of the family, his wife, his 3 married sons with their wives and his unmarried daughter. Of his sons, two have 2 daughters each, and one has a son. How many female members are there in the family? (a) 5 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) Can‘t be determined

Answer: (b) Directions for Q no. 77 to 80: Seven representatives of a company – Samir, Nita, Richa, Shweta, Gifty, Paul and Mohit travelled to three different countries i.e. South Africa, Australia and France. Each of them travelled on different days of the week (no two persons travelled on the same day), starting on Monday and ending on Sunday. Minimum two people travelled to each country and South Africa is the only country to which three people travelled. Samir travelled to South Africa on Monday; Paul travelled to Australia but neither on Tuesday nor on Saturday; Mohit travelled on Sunday but not to France. The one who travelled to Australia travelled on Tuesday and the one who travelled to France travelled on Saturday. Gifty travelled on Wednesday; Richa travelled to South Africa but not on Thursday; Nita did not travel to France. 77. If every one‘s trip is postponed by

one day, who will be travelling on Wednesday?

(a) Paul (b) Richa (c) Gifty (d) None of the above

Answer: (d) 78. Who amongst the seven

representatives travelled on Saturday? (a) Shweta (b) Richa (c) Nita (d) None of the above

Answer: (a) 79. To which country and on which day

did Nita travel? (a) South Africa, Wednesday (b) Australia, Tuesday (c) Australia, Thursday (d) Cannot be determined.

Answer: (b) 80. Who was the last one to travel?

(a) Samir (b) Richa (c) Mohit (d) None of the above


Day of the week

Traveller Country travelled

Monday Samir S Africa

Tuesday Nita Australia

Wednesday Gifty France

Thursday Paul Australia

Friday Richa S Africa

Saturday Shweta France

Sunday Mohit S Africa

Prelim IAS Test Series (2019) – CSAT Test 3 (14.04.2019 ...

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