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VAJIRAM & RAVI

GS-TEST 4 PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2017 1

GS TEST-4 (05.03.2017)

Q1. Which of the following is/are the function(s) of RBI?

1. Formulation and execution of monetary policy.

2. Securing the monetary stability in India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. ‘Top-heavy stocks of food grains on one hand and pervasiveness of widespread

hunger and malnutrition on the other, call for a revamping of the PDS operations.’ This

was stated by the survey report of which Indian agency?

A. IHDS (Indian Health Development Survey)

B. NFHS (National Family Health Survey)

C. NCHS (National Centre for Health Statistics)

D. NIH (National Institute of Health)

Q3. Consider the following statements:

1. Round Tripping refers to investments channelized by a company through a tax

haven to avoid taxes that it would have to pay as a domestic investor.

2. Treaty Shopping refers to investments channelized by a ‘mailbox’ company of

India located in a foreign country to avoid taxes, as India has an investment

treaty with that country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

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Q4. The Government has recently set up the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC).

Consider the following statements in this regard:

1. Both the RBI and the Government will appoint equal number of members in

the Committee with the RBI Governor having a casting vote.

2. The MPC will be entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy interest rate.

3. This will be a unique practice adopted by India.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q5. The multi-national companies in pharmaceutical industry adopt a practice called

ever-greening. In this context consider the following statements:

1. This practice is adopted in order to prevent the generic drug makers to

produce and market the drug at a cheaper price.

2. Indian patent law has a clause against ever-greening that rejects patents on

substantial inventions.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q6. Different governments the world over have introduced a new kind of tax

known as ‘google tax’ to tackle excessive avoidance measures adopted by digital

companies in recent times. Consider the following statements in this regard:

1. The Indian version of google tax known as ‘equalisation levy’ was introduced

in the Budget 2016-17 to tap tax from income accruing to foreign e-commerce

companies through advertisements.

2. It is in the nature of a withholding tax.

3. It applies to both Business to Consumer (B2C) and Business to Business

(B2B) transactions.

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A. 1 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q7. Recently Government has notified Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016. Which

of the statements given below are correct in this regard?

1. Bankruptcy Code will help make it easier for companies to exit.

2. Sick companies will have to settle their future course of action within 180 days.

3. In case 75% of creditors don’t agree on a revival plan, the firm will automatically go

into liquidation, and its assets will be distributed among creditors.

4. All types of firms will have same rules applicable to them.


A. 1 and 4 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Q8. Which among the following statements regarding Multilateral Investment

Guarantee Agency (MIGA) are correct?

1. It is an arm of the IMF.

2. It is an arm of the World Bank Group.

3. It encourages foreign investment in both private and public sector

4. It provides insurance to foreign private investors against the loss caused by political

risks.


A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 2, 3 and 4 only

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Q9. Which among the following is/are matched correctly?

1. World Development Report - UNCTAD

2. Global Financial Stability Report - IMF

3. World Investment Report - IBRD (World Bank)

4. Global Competitiveness Report - World Economic Forum


A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q10. Which banks have been identified as Domestic Systematically Important Bank by

the RBI?

1. ICICI Bank

2. HDFC Bank

3. Axis Bank

4. SBI Bank


A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 4 only

Q11. The World Bank Group (WBG) is a family of five international organizations that

make leveraged loans to developing countries. Its five organizations are the

1. International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)

2. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

3. International Development Association (IDA)

4. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)

5. International Finance Corporation (IFC)

India is not a member of

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1 only

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Q12. The 92-year-old practice of presenting a separate Rail Budget is set to come to

an end from the 2017, with the Finance Ministry accepting Railway Ministry proposal to

merge it with the General Budget. Which of the following statements is/are

correct about the Railway budget?

1. The origin of the railway budget goes back to a report by British politician

William Ackworth in 1924.

2. A separate railway budget was recommended because most of the

infrastructure spending by the British government went towards building railway lines.

3. The Union budget and the Railway budget are a Constitutional requirement

and are presented under Article 112 of the Indian Constitution.


A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1 and 3 only

Q13. UDAN is an innovative scheme to develop the regional aviation market. Which

one of the following is NOT its feature?

A. The objective of the scheme is regional connectivity.

B. UDAN will be applicable on flights which cover between 200 km and 800 km with no

lower limit set for hilly, remote, island and security sensitive regions on reverse bidding

process.

C. The scheme seeks to reserve a minimum number of UDAN seats i.e. seats at

subsidized rates and also cap the fare for short distance flights.

D. The scheme UDAN envisages to develop Greenfield airports in major

districts of the country.

Q14. Irrigation is a critical input for increasing agriculture production and productivity in

India.

In this context consider the following statements:

1. Implementation of 89 irrigation projects under AIBP, which have been languishing,

will be fast tracked.

2. A dedicated Long Term Irrigation Fund will be created in Ministry of Agriculture with

an initial corpus of about Rs. 20,000 crore.

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3. Programme for sustainable management of ground water resources is being

implemented through World Bank finance.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Q15. With respect to REITS (Real Estate Investment Trusts) which was recently in

news, consider the following statements:

1. They are regulated by the SEBI.

2. They can invest only in completed projects and not under construction projects.

3. It has the objective to allow small investors to participate in real estate boom of

country.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


1. Depreciation of Rupee increases imports.

2. To prevent depreciation the RBI must buy foreign exchange from the exchange

banks.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q17. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Global

Competitiveness Report (2016-17)?

1. It assesses competitiveness in 140 economies and provides unique insight into the

drivers of their productivity and prosperity.

2. It ranked India at 39 among the most competitive economies in its report.

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A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q18. Recently, the Government of India announced two schemes ‘Lucky Grahak

Yojana’ and ‘Digi-Dhan Vyapar Yojana’. In this context, consider the following

statements:

1. Schemes give cash awards to consumers and merchants who utilize digital

payment instruments for personal consumption expenditures.

2. The prizes range from Rs. 1,000 to Rs. 1 crore and transactions permitted are from

Rs. 50 to Rs. 3,000 to keep focus on the common man.

3. The schemes will not only give a boost to cashless transactions, but will particularly

bring the poor, lower middle class and small businesses into digital payment fold.


A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. None of the above


1. Department of Disinvestment has been renamed as DIPAM from Budget

2016-17 (Department of Investment and Public Asset Management).

2. DIPAM will be responsible for disinvestment and also operational activities of

enterprises in the public sector and their restructuring.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

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Q20. Consider the following statements related to Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram

Jyoti Yojana:

1. It focuses on strengthening the sub-transmission and distribution infrastructure

including metering at all levels in rural areas only.

2. It focuses on feeder separation (rural household and agriculture).

3. It aims for minimum 6 hours of electricity in all villages.


A. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


1. Stressed companies are defined as those companies whose earnings are

insufficient to cover their interest obligations.

2. Stressed companies are defined as those companies whose loans have

become Non Performing Assets

3. In India the debt owned by stressed companies has increased in 2015 as compared

to 2014.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Q22. “Tax Terrorism” implies”

A. Avoiding payment of taxes by aggressive tax planning.

B. Raising tax rates to very high levels.

C. Harassing tax payers through frequent investigations search/seizure

operations, raids, penalties, etc.

D. Treating these who evade taxes as terrorists.

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Q23. Consider the following statements with regard to GST:

1. It will be imposed on the basis of input tax credit on value added only.

2. Input tax credit will be available in the entire supply chain from the first

stage of manufacturing up to the final consumption.

3. It will be destination based tax whose burden will fall on the final consumer.

4. It will also be imposed on imports.


A. 1, 2, 3 and 4

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 3 and 4 only

Q24. Buoyancy of a tax implies:

A. Assessing the impact of increase in GDP on increase in tax revenue.

B. Correlating rise or fall in rate of tax on fall or rise in demand and thereby tax

revenues.

C. Assessing the impact of inflation on tax revenues.

D. Assessing the impact of fall in tax rates on tax revenues.

Q25. Measures to unearth ‘black money’ include:

1. Demonetisation

2. Seizure, search and raids

3. Income Disclosure Scheme

4. Changes in Tax Treaties with countries like Mauritius and Singapore


A. 1, 2, 3 and 4

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 4 only

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Q26. Black Money economy is also called Parallel Economy because:

A. Its size may be as big as that of white money.

B. Those who have it in abundance are in a position to run a parallel government.

C. It is as important for the development of the economy as white money.

D. It circulates side by side with white money economy so that it becomes

difficult to distinguish at any point of time how much is white and how much is black.

Q27. Consider the following statements about Capital Gains Tax:

1. There is no long term capital gains tax on equity.

2. There is no short term capital gains tax on physical property viz. real estate, etc.

3. Foreign investors shall be subjected to short term capital gains tax under revised

DTAAs w.e.f. April 2017.

4. There is both short-term and long term capital gains tax on physical property

viz. real estate, etc.


A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1 and 4 only

Q28. Consider the following statements on measures to prevent generation of further

black money in an economy like India:

1. Providing deterrent punishment

2. Reducing stamp duty on real estate transactions

3. State funding of elections

4. Breaking the nexus between corporates and politicians.


A. 1, 2, 3 and 4

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 2 and 3 only

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Q29. “Hawala” refers to transactions relating to:

A. Unofficial dealings in foreign exchange.

B. Generation of black money in real estate transactions.

C. Indulging in converting demonetised currency into new currency at a premium.

D. Evasion of taxes and duties in exports and imports.

Q30. “Shadow Banking” implies:

A. Activities outside the formal banking system that perform similar functions as banks.

B. Setting up of different kinds of banks like Payment Banks, Small Finance

Banks, to spread banking network.

C. Activities that cannot be performed by formal banking system.

D. Activities like smuggling that may be carried out through the banking system.

Q31. Consider the following statements about Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):

1. Higher SLR tends to increase commercial banks' investment in government

securities.

2. SLR is more effective monetary policy instrument than Cash Reserves Ratio (CRR)

as it is significantly higher than CRR.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q32. Which of the following statements are correct about Quantitative Easing (QE)?

1. It is an unconventional contractionary monetary policy.

2. It is generally implemented by developed countries.

3. The focus of QE is on purchasing of long-term securities by the central bank.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

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Q33. Which of the following factors can lead to the Double Financial

Repression in the Indian Banking Sector?

1. Higher Inflation

2. Higher levels of Priority Sector Lending

3. Higher Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)

4. Higher levels of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs)


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q34. With which of the following ministries/ institutions is the publication

'Handbook of Statistics on the Indian Economy' associated?

A. Ministry of Finance

B. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

C. Central Statistical Organization

D. Reserve Bank of India

Q35. Which of the following is/are direct instruments of monetary policy?

1. Cash Reserves Ratio (CRR)

2. Statutory Reserves Ratio (SLR)

3. Repo Rate

4. Open Market Operations


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Q36. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding NITI Aayog?

1. It has been set up as a government think-tank to advice both Central and

State governments.

2. It aims to follow 'bottom up' approach to development rather than a 'top down'

approach.

3. It will provide higher amount of funds to the states to promote cooperative

federalism


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2, and 3

Q37. Consider the following statements about Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending

Rate (MCLR):

1. A bank cannot give any loan at an interest rate below MCLR.

2. MCLR is likely to fall if Repo Rate is decreased by the RBI.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2


1. Loans given by the commercial banks are their liabilities towards the borrowers.

2. Capital and Reserves held by the commercial banks are their assets.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

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Q39. Which of the following are constituents of foreign exchange reserves of

the Indian Economy?

1. Foreign Currency Assets

2. Gold

3. Special Drawing Rights

4. Reserve Position in the IMF


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q40. Which of the following are included in GDP calculation from Expenditure Method?

1. Consumption Expenditure

2. Investment Expenditure

3. Government Expenditure

4. Tax Expenditure


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q41. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Simon Commission?

1. There were no Indian members in the Commission.

2. It explicitly advocated for dominion status for India.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

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Q42. Consider the following pairs:

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q43. During Civil disobedience movement, defiance of salt laws started all over the

country.

Which of the following statements is/are correct about salt marches?

1. In Malabar, C Rajagopalachari led a march from Calicut to Payyanur.

2. In Tamilnadu, K Kelappan led a march from Tiruchirapalli to Vedaranniyam.

3. In Assam, Satyagrahis walked from Sylhet to Noakhali to make salt.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q44. Who among the following was NOT one of the three INA prisoners held guilty by

the British government in the “Red Fort Trial”?

A. Prem Sehgal

B. Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon

C. Shah Nawaz Khan

D. Mohan Singh Deb

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Q45. With reference to the Ahrar movement in the early decades of the 20th

century consider the following statements:

1. It was a militantly nationalistic movement under the leadership of Maulana

Mohammed Ali, Hakim Ajmal Khan and Hasan Imam.

2. It disliked the loyalist politics of the Aligarh School.

3. It advocated active participation in the nationalist movement.

4. It was moved by the modern ideas of self- government.


A. 1 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q46. With reference to the ‘Deepavali Declaration’ issued by Lord Irwin in 1929 which

of the following statements is correct?

A. It was a declaration that would grant India dominion status in due course.

B. It was a declaration that due representation was to be given to all sections in the

round table conference.

C. It was a declaration that one-third of the seats in the Central Legislature

would be reserved for the Muslims.

D. It was a declaration that measures will be taken to improve the relations between

Indian States and the Central Government.

Q47. During British rule, the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act was

passed which was highly protested by the Indians. The reason behind its opposition

was:

A. The act did not give Indian judges and magistrates the jurisdiction to try British

offenders in criminal cases

B. The act authorized the government to imprison any person suspected of terrorism

for up to two years without a trial.

C. The act banned all the political parties accused of causing anarchy or

spreading revolutionary terrorism


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Q48. After the outbreak of Second World War, Gandhiji was not in the favour

of an immediate mass struggle against the British government because:

1. According to him, Britain was fighting for a just cause.

2. At that time, lack of Hindu-Muslim unity could have resulted into communal riots.

3. The Indian National Congress was not fully prepared to conduct a mass struggle.


A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q49. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Home Rule League

Programme?

1. It was launched to demand complete independence for India.

2. It was started by the Indian National Congress in 1915.

3. Its members later contributed towards Gandhiji-led Khilafat struggle.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q50. Consider the following statements about August Offer:

1. Lord Linlithgow was the Viceroy at the time.

2. It proposed dominion status as the objective for India.

3. It agreed to set up constituent assembly consisting only of Indians after the war.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only


VAJIRAM & RAVI


Q51. With reference to the Lucknow Pact (1916), consider the following statements:

1. It agreed on the principle of separate electorates for communities until a

community demanded joint electorate.

2. It asked for self-government in India.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q52. Match the following:

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 3 only

Q53. Consider the following statements about Salt Satyagraha:

1. It was a form of civil disobedience

2. The participation of women in this movement exceeded the previous figures


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

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Q54. Black Hole tragedy was related to

A. Battle of Plassey in which hundreds of soldiers of Nawab were killed

mercilessly by officials of the Company

B. Siraj-ud-daula is believed to have imprisoned English persons who were lodged in a

tiny room due to which 123 of them died of suffocation.

C. After Revolt of 1857 the Company arrested all the members of Mughal ruler

and imprisoned them in a overcrowded room with a small window which resulted into

death of most members of the family

D. Battle of Buxar during which the armies of Nawab of Bengal and Nawab of

Oudh imprisoned more than 100 company officials in a small room in a fort leading to

their death by suffocation.

Q55. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Tipu Sultan?

1. He showed keen interest in the French Revolution.

2. He planted a ‘Tree of Liberty’ at Srirangapatnam.

3. He became a member of the Jacobin Club.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1 only

Q56. Raja Ram Mohan Roy is considered as the pioneer of modern Indian

Renaissance for the remarkable reforms he brought in the 18th and 19th century India.

Which of the following statements is/are correct about him?

1. In 1809, he wrote Gift to Monotheists in Persian, where he put forward weighty

arguments for belief in many gods and against the worship of a single God.

2. According to him the philosophy of Vedanta was based on principle of reason.

3. In 1828 he founded his first society named Brahmo Samaj which was based on the

twin pillars of reason, and the Vedas and Upanishads.

4. He was a pioneer of Indian journalism and also the initiator of public agitation on

political questions in the country.

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A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Q57. Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of ‘Indigo

Revolt of 1859’?

1. Din Bandhu Mitra’s play, Neel Darpan, gained great fame for vividly

portraying the oppression by the planters.

2. Missionaries and Intellectuals found the Indigo revolt very violent in character and

stayed away from it.

3. Government response to Indigo Revolt was extremely harsh and repressive.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q58. Which of the following is correct in context of separate electorates introduced by

Indian Council Act 1909?

A. Muslims could only vote for Muslim candidates in all constituencies.

B. Muslims could only vote for Muslim candidates and depressed class could only vote

for a candidate belonging to depressed class in all constituencies.

C. Muslims and depressed class could only vote for Muslim candidates and depressed

class candidates respectively, in constituencies specially reserved for them.

D. Muslims could only vote for Muslim candidates in constituencies specially

reserved for them.


1. The East India Company received a Royal Charter from Queen Elizabeth I

on 31 December 1600 to trade in India.

2. Sir Thomas Roe obtained a firman from Jehangir to establish a factory at Surat.

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A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q60. Which of the following statements regarding the ‘Ilbert Bill’ are correct?

1. It was introduced under the reign of the Viceroy Lord Lytton.

2. Introduction of this bill led to the ‘White Mutiny’.

3. In this bill, an amendment was proposed to allow Indian judges and

magistrates the jurisdiction to try British offenders in criminal cases at the district level.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q61. During Lord Dalhousie’s tenure

1. First Telegraph line was introduced from Calcutta to Delhi in 1853.

2. Postage stamp was introduced.

3. First Railway line was opened to traffic in 1853.


A. 2 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

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Q62. Consider the following policies through which British extended their

paramountcy in India:

Which of the pairs given above is/are matched correctly?

A. 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q63. Consider the following Political Associations prior to INC:

Which of the pairs given above is/are matched incorrectly?

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

VAJIRAM & RAVI


Q64. Consider the following statements pertaining to Lord Curzon’s rule:

1. Appointed Police Commission under Andrew Frazer.

2. Appointed Universities Commission under W. W. Hunter.

3. Established Department of Commerce and Industry.

4. Founded Archaeological Survey of India.


A. 2 and 3 only

B. 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Q65. Match the following:

Which of the pairs given above is/are matched correctly?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D


1. Singh Sabha movement was founded at Amritsar in 1873.

2. The Akali movement was an offshoot of the Singh Sabha movement.

3. The Akali movement was a regional movement.


A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only


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Q67. Consider the following statements regarding Indian National Congress (INC):

1. A.O. Hume presided over the first session of INC.

2. The President was chosen from the same province in which the Congress session

was held.

3. Old aristocracy – people like Rajas, Zamindars, wealthy merchants did not

participate in the first session of INC.


A. 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Q68. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian National Movement:

1. The Congress was split into two factions at Surat session in 1907.

2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak revived the festivals of Ganpati and Shivaji in Maharashtra to

arouse a new spirit among the youth of country.

3. Aurobindo Ghosh was arrested in connection with Alipore bomb case.


A. 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3


1. The Congress supported the Boycott Movement for Bengal at its Benaras session

which was presided over by GK Gokhale.

2. In 1906 INC session at Kolkata, Dadabhai Naoroji declared the aim of Congress to

be “Swaraj like that of UK colonies.”

3. To mark Hindu-Muslim unity Raksha Bandhan was celebrated on the day of partition

of Bengal.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

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Q70. Consider the following statements about the Government of India Act of 1919:

1. It declared for the first time, that the objective of the Act was the gradual introduction

of responsible government in India.

2. It provided for appointment of a statutory commission to enquire into and

report on its working after 10 years of its coming into force.

Which of statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q71. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the Karachi Conference

of all-India National Congress held in March 1931?

A. The Congress endorsed the Gandhi- Irwin pact at this Conference.

B. The Resolution on the fundamental rights of citizen was passed for the first time at

this Conference.

C. The Congress passed a Resolution on National Economic Plan at the Conference.

D. At this Conference the people, especially the youth, pledged their absolute

support to Mahatma Gandhi to lead the National Movement.

Q72. The Swaraj Party was divided into factions and its “Responsivist” faction desired

to

1. Cooperate with the British Government to safeguard the Hindu interests.

2. Maintain a separate identity of the Swaraj party.

3. Become members of Legislative Assembly

4. Co-operate with Simon Commission.


A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 only


VAJIRAM & RAVI


Q73. The core of the safety-valve thesis rests on the assumption that:

A. A violent anti-colonial revolution was bound to occur unless a constitutional platform

like the Congress was founded.

B. The Congress would assist the British in administering the colony.

C. The Congress leaders would constitute the colonial elite.

D. The Congress as a party would assist the colonial rulers to implement political &

social reform.

Q74. Consider the following Viceroys of India during the British rule:

1. Lord Curzon

2. Lord Chelmsford

3. Lord Hardinge

4. Lord Irvin

Which among the following is the correct chronological order of their tenure?

A. 1, 3, 2, 4

B. 2, 4, 1, 3

C. 1, 4, 2, 3

D. 2, 3, 1, 4


1. The discussion in the Third Round Table Conference eventually led to the passing

of the Government of India Act 1935.

2. The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for establishment of an All India

Federation to be based on a Union of the provinces of British India and the princely

states.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

VAJIRAM & RAVI


Q76. Arrange the following in the chronological order:

1. Partition of Bengal.

2. Lucknow Pact

3. Non-Cooperation Movement

4. Jallianwallah Bagh Tragedy.


A. 1, 2, 3, 4

B. 1, 2, 4, 3

C. 1, 3, 2, 4

D. 1, 4, 2, 3

Q77. Which among the following statements is/are correct?

1. V.D. Savarkar founded the Abhinav Bharat Society.

2. Swadeshi Movement emerged as a reaction against the Partition of Bengal.

3. Khudiram Bose was a revolutionary while Prafulla Chaki was a gandhian.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 only

Q78. Which among the following statements regarding Rajaji Formula is/are correct?

1. It was a formula which sought to divide India into two States – India and Pakistan.

2. This formula would come into force only when the British would leave India.

3. Gandhiji rejected the formula as it had envisaged division of India.

4. M.A. Jinnah rejected the Rajaji formula as it did not provide for complete separation

of the two States.


A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2 and 4 only

VAJIRAM & RAVI


Q79. Consider the following statements regarding Annie Besant:

1. She joined the Indian National Congress in 1914.

2. She helped the Moderates and Extremists come closer to each other, having drifted

apart earlier.

3. She presided over the Congress session in 1916 at Lucknow.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q80. Match lists I and II and select the correct answer using codes given below:

A. 1:a 3:b 4:c 2:d

B. 2:a 3:b 4:c 1:d

B. 1:a 2:b 3:c 4:d

C. 3:a 4:b 1:c 2:d

Q81. Consider the following initiatives undertaken by the Government of India:

1. Progress Panchayat

2. USTTAD (Upgrading the Skills and Training in Traditional Arts/Crafts for

Development)

3. Nai Manzil

4. Roshni

VAJIRAM & RAVI


Which of the initiatives mentioned above cater to minority communities?

A. 1, 2 and 3 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q82. Recently a report stated that 1.46 lakh people were killed in road accidents in

India in 2015. With respect to the road accidents consider the following statements.

1. Brasilia declaration targets to reduce the number of road accidents and deaths by

half by 2020.

2. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) also contain a similar target to be

achieved.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q83. Consider the following statements about Aquila:

1. It is a solar-powered drone.

2. It is developed under the aegis of Google.

3. It is used to beam internet to the remotest locations of the world.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q84. The Union Minister for Agriculture recently launched an e-pashuhaat portal with

certain objectives. Consider the following statements in this regard:

1. An e-market is being established for trading of bovines.

2. Bovines in India include yak, buffalo, cow, goat and sheep.

3. The portal will connect farmers to milk co-operatives.

VAJIRAM & RAVI



A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only


Q85. Consider the following statements on Enayam port:

1. It is the latest and the 13th major port of India to be setup.

2. The primary reason for it being setup is to attract transshipment.

3. It is located in Vizhinjam district.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 2 and 3 only


Q86. Consider the following statements with respect to TAPAS 201 (RUSTOM II)

1. A multi-mission UAV is being developed by Defense Research and

Development Organisation (DRDO).

2. It is a drone meant for meeting the surveillance and combat needs of the forces.


A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q87. Consider the following about LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-wave

Observatory in India)-India project.

1. Gravitational waves are ripples in the curvature of space-time which propagate as

waves, travelling outward from the source at a speed less than that of light.

2. LIGO-India project is piloted by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and

the Department of Science and Technology (DST).

3. Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory Project will be setup in

Hingoli district of Maharashtra.

VAJIRAM & RAVI



A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q88. MAA (Mother’s Absolute Affection) programme was launched to promote

breastfeeding. In this context, consider the following statements about breast milk:

1. Prolactin and oxytocin are the hormones responsible for the production of

milk in a woman's body.

2. Breast milk contains large amount of protein as compared to cow’s milk.

3. Lactating mothers are not permitted to sell breast milk to hospitals.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q89. In 2016, Bihar government prohibited the sale of liquor in the state.

Which of the following States have enacted similar liquor ban laws?

1. Nagaland

2. Gujarat

3. Manipur

4. Kerala

5. Mizoram

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

A. 2, 3, and 5 only

B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 2, 4 and 5 only

D. 1, 2 and 4 only

VAJIRAM & RAVI


Q90. Which among the following criteria are used by the Centre to grant special status

to a State?

1. Hilly and difficult terrain

2. Strategic location along international borders

3. A sizeable tribal population

4. High population density

5. Economic backwardness


A. 1, 2 and 4 only

B. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

C. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q91. The second reactor of Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant recently attained

criticality. What does ‘criticality’ mean?

1. Criticality is a nuclear term that refers to the increase in the population of neutrons in

the system.

2. Criticality is a nuclear term which refers to a situation when the neutron

population remains constant.

3. Criticality means there is a perfect balance between production rate and loss

rate of neutrons.

4. Criticality is a situation where the loss rate of neutrons is greater than the production

rate of neutrons.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 2 and 4 only

Q92. With reference to the Babli Project, which of the following statements is/are

correct?

1. It is a disputed project between Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh.

2. The Project is constructed across the River Tungabhadra.

VAJIRAM & RAVI



A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q93. Regarding the Medium Range Surface to Air Missile (MRSAM), which of the

following statements are correct?

1. It is jointly developed by India and Israel.

2. It can intercept aerial threats upto a range of 70km.

3. It will help in the protection of sensitive places like nuclear plants.

4. It is the land version of LRSAM (long range surface to air missile).


A. 1 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q94. With reference to the Arctic Council, which of the following statements is/are

incorrect?

1. India and China have an observer status in the Arctic Council.

2. Arctic region has vast reserves of oil, gas and minerals.

Select the answer using the codes given below:

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Q95. Which of the following States are involved in the Mahadayi water-sharing

dispute?

1. Maharashtra

2. Goa

3. Karnataka

4. Telangana

5. Andhra Pradesh

VAJIRAM & RAVI



A. 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 3 and 5 only

C. 1, 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Q96. Which of the following statements about ‘Performance on Health Outcomes’

index are correct?

1. It is prepared by the NITI Aayog.

2. It is designed to capture annual incremental improvement by the States in India.

3. It aims to focus on the historical achievements of the States in the health

sector for a holistic picture on health outcomes.

4. Technical assistance for the proper implementation of the programme will be

provided by the WHO (World Health Organisation)


A. 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Q97. Which of the following statements about Raisina Dialouge are correct?

1. It is India’s annual geo-political and geo-economics conference.

2. It is organized by the Ministry of External Affairs in partnership with Observer

Research Foundation.

3. The theme of the Dialogue for 2017 is "The New Normal: Multilateralism

with Multi-Polarity”.

4. It is designed to explore prospects and opportunities for Asia’s integration with the

larger world.


A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 4 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

VAJIRAM & RAVI


Q98. Regarding Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana, which of the following

statements are correct?

1. The scheme is implemented by the Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) of India.

2. The scheme will provide an assured pension based on a rate of return of 8% per

annum for ten years.

3. Senior citizens are provided with an option to avail pension on monthly, quarterly,

half-yearly or annual basis.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q99. Chagos Archipelago was in news recently for which of the following issues?

A. Discovery of oil and natural gas reserves which have been claimed by Maldives.

B. A bid by China to establish a coral reef laboratory in the region.

C. Mauritius refused to recognize it as a British Indian Ocean Territory.

D. Refusal by the Maldives’ government to help Indian navy build its strategic naval

base in the region.

Q100. Consider the following statements about Tangalia:

1. It is an indigenous weaving craftwork done using raw wool yarn.

2. It is only practiced by the Dangasia community of Gujarat.

3. The community has been demanding a geographical indication tag for the Tangalia

shawl.


A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

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