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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2015

FORM NUMBER

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(ACADEMIC SESSION 2014-2015)

ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE

PAPER CODE 0 0 C M 3 1 4 0 0 3

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2015

Corporate Office

CAREER INSTITUTE

“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

+91-744-2436001 [email protected]

www.allen.ac.in

ALL INDIA OPEN TEST # 01 DATE : 19 - 04 - 2015

Test Type : Major Test Pattern : AIIMS

Path to Success

CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)

T M

ALL INDIA OPEN TEST/Pre-Medical /AIIMS/19-04-2015

1/3500CM314003

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. A particle moves towards east with velocity 5 m/s.

After 10 seconds its direction changes towards

north with same velocity. The average

acceleration of the particle is :-

(1) Zero

(2) 21

m /s N W2

(3) 21

m / s N E2

(4) 21

m / s S W2

2. An air capacitor of capacity C = 10F is connected

to a constant voltage battery of 12V. Now the

space between the plates is filled with a liquid of

dielectric constant 5. The charge that flows now

from battery to the capacitor is :-

(1) 120C (2) 600C

(3) 480C (4) 24C

3. A vessel is half filled with a liquid of refractive

index µ. The other half of the vessel is filled with

an immiscible liquid of refractive index 1.5µ. The

apparent depth of vessel is 50% of the actual

depth. The value of µ is

(1) 1.8 (2) 1.67 (3) 1.5 (4) 1.4

4. The ratio of the radii of the planets P1 and P2 is

k1. The ratio of the acceleration due to the gravity

on their surface is k2. The ratio of the escape

velocities from them will be

(1) k1 k2 (2) 1 2k k

(3) 1 2(k / k ) (4) 2 1(k / k )

1. 5 10 :-

(1) Zero

(2) 21

m /s N W2

(3) 21

m / s N E2

(4) 21

m / s S W2

2. C = 10F 12V 5

(1) 120C (2) 600C

(3) 480C (4) 24C

3. µ 1.5µ

50% µ

(1) 1.8 (2) 1.67 (3) 1.5 (4) 1.4

4. P1 P2 k1

k2

(1) k1 k2 (2) 1 2k k

(3) 1 2(k / k ) (4) 2 1(k / k )

00CM3140032/35


5. With the usual notations, the following equation

tht

1S u a(2t 1)

2 is :-

(1) Only numerically correct

(2) Only dimensionally correct

(3) Both numerically and dimensionally correct

(4) Neither numerically nor dimensionally correct

6. In the figure below, what is the potential difference

between the points A and B and between B and

C respectively in steady state :-

A C

100V1µF

3µF

3µF B 1µF

1µF

20

(1) 100 volts both

(2) VAB

= 75volts, VBC

= 25 volts

(3) VAB

= 25volts, VBC

= 75 volts

(4) VAB

= 50volts, VBC

= 50 volts

7. A glass convex lens (µg = 1.5) has a focal length

of 8 cm when placed in air. What would be the

focal length of the lens when it is immersed in

water (µw = 1.33)

(1) 2 m (2) 4 cm

(3) 16 cm (4) 32 cm

8. The resultant amplitude due to superposition

of two waves y1 = 5sin (wt kx) and

y2 = 5 cos (wt kx 150°)

(1) 5 (2) 5 3

(3) 5 2 3 (4) 5 2 3

9. A point initially at rest moves along x-axis. Its

acceleration varies with time as a = (6t + 5)m/s2.

If it starts from origin, the distance covered in 2s

is :-

(1) 20 m (2) 18 m

(3) 16 m (4) 25 m

5.

tht

1S u a(2t 1)

2 :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6. A B B C

A C

100V1µF

3µF

3µF B 1µF

1µF

20

(1) 100

(2) VAB

= 75, VBC

= 25

(3) VAB

= 25, VBC

= 75

(4) VAB

= 50, VBC

= 50

7. (µg = 1.5)

8 (µ

w = 1.33)

(1) 2 m (2) 4 cm

(3) 16 cm (4) 32 cm

8. y1 = 5sin (wt kx) y

2 = 5 cos

(wt kx 150°)

(1) 5 (2) 5 3

(3) 5 2 3 (4) 5 2 3

9. x-

a = (6t + 5)/2.

2 :-

(1) 20 m (2) 18 m

(3) 16 m (4) 25 m


3/3500CM314003

10. The temperature (T) dependence of resistivity ()

of a semi conductor is represented by :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

11. A thin lens has focal length f and its aperture has

diameter d. It forms an image of intensity I. Now,

the central part of the aperture upto diameter d

2

is blocked by an opaque paper. The focal length

and image intensity will become

(1) (f/2) and (I/2)

(2) f and (I/4)

(3) (3f/4) and (I/2)

(4) f and (3I/4)

12. One mole of an monoatomic gas is taken through

a process A to B as shown in figure. The molar

heat capacity of the gas for this process is

p

2p0

p0

B

A

V0 2V0V

(1) R (2) 2R (3) 3R (4) 4R

13. A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of

radius 10 m with a constant speed of 10 m/sec.

A plumb bob is suspended from the roof of the

car by a light rigid rod of length 1.00 m. The angle

made by the rod with track is :-

(1) Zero (2) 30º (3) 45º (4) 60º

10. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

11. f d I

d

2

-(1) (f/2) (I/2)

(2) f (I/4)

(3) (3f/4) (I/2)

(4) f (3I/4)

12. A B

p

2p0

p0

B

A

V0 2V0V

(1) R (2) 2R (3) 3R (4) 4R

13. 10

10

1 m

:-

(1) Zero (2) 30º (3) 45º (4) 60º

00CM3140034/35


14. A current passes through a wire of non uniform

cross section which of the following quantities are

independent of the cross section :-

(1) The charge crossing in a giving time interval

(2) Drift speed

(3) Current density

(4) None of these

15. A point object O is placed in front of a glass rod

having spherical end of radius of curvature 30 cm.

The image would be formed be

15cm 30cm

GlassAirO

(1) 30 cm left

(2) infinity

(3) 1 cm to the right

(4) 18 cm to the left

16. A mass is at the center of a square, with four

masses at the corners as shown.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Rank the choices according to the magnitude of

the gravitational force on the center mass.

(1) FA = FB < FC = FD

(2) FA > FB < FD < FC

(3) FA = FB > FC = FD

(4) None

17. A particle is observed from two frames S1 and S

2.

The graph of relative velocity of S1 with respect

to S2 is shown in figure. Let F

1 and F

2 be the

pseudo forces on the particle when seen from S1

and S2 respectively. Which one of the following

is not possible ?

(1) F1 = 0, F

2 0

TimeO

(2) F1 0, F

2 = 0

(3) F1 0, F

2 0

(4) F1 = 0, F

2 = 0

14. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

15. 30 O

15cm 30cm

GlassAirO

(1) 30 (2) (3) 1 (4) 18

16.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) FA = FB < FC = FD

(2) FA > FB < FD < FC

(3) FA = FB > FC = FD

(4) None

17. S1 S

2

S2S

1

F1 F

2

S1 S

2

(1) F

1 = 0, F

2 0

TimeO

(2) F1 0, F

2 = 0

(3) F1 0, F

2 0

(4) F1 = 0, F

2 = 0


5/3500CM314003

18. Two infinitely long linear conductors are arranged

perpendicular to each other and are in mutually

perpendicular planes as shown in fig. If I1 = 2A

along the y axis and I2 = 3A along –ve Z axis and

AP = AB = 1 cm. The value of magnetic field

strength B

at P is :-

(1) 5 5ˆ ˆ3 10 T j 4 10 T k

(2) 5 5ˆ ˆ3 10 T j 4 10 T k

(3) 5 5ˆ ˆ4 10 T j 3 10 T k

(4) 5 5ˆ ˆ3 10 T j 4 10 T k

19. A hollow pipe of length 0.8 m is closed at one

end. At its open end a 0.5 m long uniform string

is vibrating in its second harmonic and it resonates

with the fundamental frequency of the pipe. If the

tension in the wire is 50N and the speed of sound

is 320 ms–1, the mass of the string is

(1) 5 grams (2) 10 grams


20. The circuit shown in following figure contains two

diode D1 and D

2 each with a forward resistance

of 50 ohms and with infinite backward resistance,

if the battery voltage is 6V, the current through

the 100 ohm resistance (in amperes) is :

D1

D2

150

50

100

6V

(1) Zero (2) 0.02 (3) 0.03 (4) 0.036

18. I1 = 2A y I2 = 3A z P :-

(1) 5 5ˆ ˆ3 10 T j 4 10 T k

(2) 5 5ˆ ˆ3 10 T j 4 10 T k

(3) 5 5ˆ ˆ4 10 T j 3 10 T k

(4) 5 5ˆ ˆ3 10 T j 4 10 T k

19. 0.8 m 0.5 m

50N 320 ms–1



20. D1 D

2

50 6V 100

D1

D2

150

50

100

6V

(1) (2) 0.02 (3) 0.03 (4) 0.036

Key Filling

00CM3140036/35


21. A block of mass m = 0.1 kg is released from a

height of 4 m on a curved smooth surface. On the

horizontal surfaces, path AB is smooth and path

BC offers coefficient of friction µ = 0.1. If the

impact of block with the vertical wall at C be

perfectely elastic, the total distance covered by the

block on the horitzontal surface before coming to

rest will be (take g = 10 m/s–2)

4m

A B C

2m1m

(1) 29 m (2) 49 m

(3) 59 m (4) 109 m

22. All magnetic materials lose their magnetic

properties when :-

(1) Dipped in water

(2) Dipped in oil

(3) Brought near a piece of iron

(4) Strongly heated

23. An ideal gas is taken through the cycle A B

C A, as shown in the figure. If the net heat

supplied to the gas in the cycle is 5J, the work

done by the gas in the process C A is

V(m )3

C B2

1

10 P(N/m )2

A

(1) –5J (2) –10 J

(3) –15 J (4) –20 J

24. Figure gives a system of logic gates. From the

study of truth table it can be found that to produce

a high output (1) at R, we must have :

O

RP

X

Y

(1) X = 0, Y = 1 (2) X = 1, Y = 1

(3) X = 1, Y = 0 (4) X = 0, Y = 0

21. 4 m m = 0.1 kg

AB

BC µ = 0.1

C

(g = 10 m/s–2 )

4m

A B C

2m1m

(1) 29 m (2) 49 m

(3) 59 m (4) 109 m

22. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

23. A B C A

5J C A

V(m )3

C B2

1

10 P(N/m )2

A

(1) –5J (2) –10 J

(3) –15 J (4) –20 J

24. R (Output) (1) (Input)

O

RP

X

Y

(1) X = 0, Y = 1 (2) X = 1, Y = 1

(3) X = 1, Y = 0 (4) X = 0, Y = 0


7/3500CM314003

25. A uniform circular disc has radius R. A square

portion of diagonal R is cut from it. The centre

of mass of the remaining portion from the center

is :-

(1)R

– 2

x

y

(2) –R

2 – 2

(3) R

4 – 2

(4) –R

4 – 2

26. OABC is a current carrying square loop an

electron in projected from the centre of loop along

its diagonal AC as shown. Unit vector in the

direction of initial acceleration will be :-

(1) K A B

v

x

y

OC

(2) ˆ î J

2

(3) K

(4) ˆ î J

2

27. Cut off potentials for a metal in photoelectric

effect for light of wavelength 1, 2 and 3 is found

to be V1, V2 and V3 volts if V1, V2 and V3 are in

Arithmetic Progression and 1, 2 and 3 will be:

(1) Arithmetic Progression

(2) Geometric Progression

(3) Harmonic Progression

(4) None

28. A transistor is used in common emitter mode as

an amplifer. Then–

(a) The base-emitter junction is forward biased

(b) The base-emitter junction is reverse biased

(c) The input signal is connected in series with

the voltage applied to the base emitter junction

(d) The input signal is connected in series with

the voltage applied to bias the base collector

junction

(1) a,b (2) a,c

(3) c,d (4) a,b,d

25. RR

:-

(1)R

– 2

x

y

(2) –R

2 – 2

(3) R

4 – 2

(4) –R

4 – 2

26. OABC AC :-

(1) K A B

v

x

y

OC

(2) ˆ î J

2

(3) K

(4) ˆ î J

2

27. 1, 2 3 V1, V2 V3 V1, V2 V3 (Arithmetic

Progression) 1, 2 3 (1) (2) (3) (4)

28. (a) (b) (c)

(d)

(1) a,b (2) a,c

(3) c,d (4) a,b,d

00CM3140038/35


29. A overhead tank of capacity 1000 liter has to be

filled in 1

2 hour using water pump. Tank is kept

at a height 10 m above ground and water level is

10 m below ground. The opening of inlet pipe

inside tank is 1.11 cm2. Assuming the efficiency

of motor to be 60%, the electric power used is

(Neglect viscosity) :-

(1) 118 W (2) 130 W

(3) 146 W (4) 198 W

30. The figure shows three circuits with identical

batteries, inductors, and resistors. Rank the circuits

according to the current through the battery (i) just

after the switch is closed and (ii) a long time later:-

(1)

i1

(2)

i2

(3)

i3

(1) (i) i2 > i

3 > i

1 (i

1 = 0) (ii) i

2 > i

3 > i

1

(2) (i) i2 < i

3 < i

1 (i

1 0) (ii) i

2 > i

3 > i

1

(3) (i) i2 = i

3 = i

1 (i

1 = 0) (ii) i

2 < i

3 < i

1

(4) (i) i2 = i

3 > i

1 (i

1 0) (ii) i

2 > i

3 > i

1

31. In a sample of hydrogen like atoms all of which

are in ground state, a photon beam containing

photons of various energies is passed. In

absorption spectrum, five dark lines are observed.

The number of bright lines in the emission

spectrum will be (Assume that all transitions take

place)

(1) 5 (2) 10

(3) 15 (4) none of these

32. A body is rolling down an inclined plane. If K.E.

of rotation is 40% of K.E. in translatory state, then

the body is a

(1) Ring (2) Cylinder

(3) Hollow ball (4) Solid ball

29. 1000 liter

1

2

10 m 10 m 1.11 cm2 60%

( ) :-

(1) 118 W (2) 130 W

(3) 146 W (4) 198 W

30. (i) (ii) :-

(1)

i1

(2)

i2

(3)

i3

(1) (i) i2 > i

3 > i

1 (i

1 = 0) (ii) i

2 > i

3 > i

1

(2) (i) i2 < i

3 < i

1 (i

1 0) (ii) i

2 > i

3 > i

1

(3) (i) i2 = i

3 = i

1 (i

1 = 0) (ii) i

2 < i

3 < i

1

(4) (i) i2 = i

3 > i

1 (i

1 0) (ii) i

2 > i

3 > i

1

31.

(1) 5 (2) 10

(3) 15 (4)

32. 40%

(1) (2)

(3) (4)


9/3500CM314003

33. An electric dipole is placed at the origin O and

is directed along the x-axis . At a point P, far away

from the dipole, the electric field is parallel to

y-axis. OP makes an angle with the x-axis

then :-

(1) tan 3 (2) tan 2

(3) = 45° (4) 1

tan2

34. An inductance of 2H and a resistance of 10 ohm

are connected in series to a battery of 5 V. The

initial rate of change of current is :-

(1) 2.5 amp/sec

(2) 2.0 amp/sec

(3) 0.5 amp/sec

(4) 0.25 amp/sec

35. The intensity of X-rays from a coolidge tube is

plotted against wavelength as shown in the

figure. The minimum wavelength found is c and

the wavelength of the K line is k. As the

accelerating voltage is increased

l

c

(1) k – c increases

(2) k – c decreases

(3) k increases

(4) k decreases

36. The position of a particle is given by :

ˆ ˆ ˆr (i 2 j k)

and momentum ˆ ˆ ˆP(3i 4 j 2k)

.

The angular momentum is perpendicular to

(1) X-axis

(2) Y-axis

(3) Z-axis

(4) Line at equal angles to all the three axes

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

33. O

X-

P Y- OP

X-

(1) tan 3 (2) tan 2

(3) = 45° (4) 1

tan2

34. 2 10 5 :-

(1) 2.5 /

(2) 2.0 /

(3) 0.5 /

(4) 0.25 /

35. X- X- c K

k

l

c

(1) k – c

(2) k – c

(3) k

(4) k

36. : ˆ ˆ ˆr (i 2 j k)

ˆ ˆ ˆP(3i 4 j 2k)

(1) X-

(2) Y-

(3) Z-

(4)

00CM31400310/35


37. A square of side 20 cm is enclosed by a surface

of sphere of 80cm radius. Square and sphere have

the same centre. Four charges +2 × 10–6C,

–5 × 10–6C, – 3 × 10–6C, + 6 × 10–6 C are located

at the four corners of a square, then out going total

flux from spherical surface in N–m2/C will be :-

(1) zero (2) (16) × 10–6

(3) (8) × 10–6 (4) 36 × 10–6

38. An AC source of angular frequency is fed across

a resistor R and a capacitor C in series. The current

registered is I. If now the frequency of source is

changed to /3 (but maintaining the same

voltage), the current in the circuit is found to be

halved. Calculate the ratio of reactance to

resistance at the original frequency :-

(1)3

5(2)

2

5(3)

1

5(4)

4

5

39. In which of the following cases can the body

execute SHM for small displacement about the

mean position? All constants are positive.

(P) 2kU(x) (x a)

2

(Q) U(x) = k1x + k2x2 + k3x

3

(R) U(x) = Aexp (–bx)

(1) P,Q,R (2) P only

(3) R only (4) P and Q

40. A U-tube in which the cross-sectional area of the

limb on the left is one quarter, the limb on the right

contains mercury (denstiy 13.6 g/cm3). The level

of mercury in the narrow limb is at a distance of

36 cm from the upper end of the tube. What will

be the rise in the level of mercury in the right limb

if the left limb is filled to the top with water :-

Mercury

Wat

er

(1) 1.2 cm (2) 2.35 cm

(3) 0.56 cm (4) 0.8 cm

37. 20 80 +2 × 10–6 ,

–5 × 10–6 , – 3 × 10–6 + 6 × 10–6 N–m2/C (1) zero (2) (16) × 10–6

(3) (8) × 10–6 (4) 36 × 10–6

38. R C I /3 :-

(1)3

5(2)

2

5(3)

1

5(4)

4

5

39.

(P) 2k

U(x) (x a)2

(Q) U(x) = k1x + k2x2 + k3x

3

(R) U(x) = Aexp (–bx)

(1) P,Q,R (2) P(3) R (4) P Q

40. U-U- ( 13.6 g/cm3) 36 cm :-

Mercury

Wat

er

(1) 1.2 cm (2) 2.35 cm

(3) 0.56 cm (4) 0.8 cm


11/3500CM314003

41. Which of the following is found in placenta :-

(1) Only chorionic villi

(2) Only uterine tissue

(3) Chorionic villi and uterine tissue

(4) Trophoblast and chorionic villi

42. The size of VNTR varies from :-

(1) 0.1 to 20 kb (2) 0.25 to 200 kb

(3) 10 kb to 1000 kb (4) 20 kb to 1000 kb

43. Which type of respiration probably arose first

during origin of life :-

(1) Anaerobic as it releases more energy

(2) Aerobic as it releases more energy

(3) Aerobic as it is more complex

(4) Anaerobic as early atmosphere contains little

or no oxygen.

44. The total biomass in a terrestrial ecosystem will

be greatest for which trophic level –

(1) Herbivores

(2) Producers

(3) Top Consumers

(4) Secondary consumer

45. Which structure differentiate tertiary follicle from

secondary follicle :-

(1) Presence of theca interna

(2) Presence of theca externa

(3) Presence of oocyte

(4) Presence of antrum

46. When we make a cross between two hetrozygous

tall pea plant then what fraction of dwarf progeny

will be homozygous :-

(1)1

4(2)

3

4

(3)1

3(4)

1

1

47. If green revolution is concerned with an effort to

raise crop production then white revolution is

related with

(1) Milk production

(2) Egg production

(3) Meat production

(4) Fish production

41. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

42. VNTR :-

(1) 0.1 to 20 kb (2) 0.25 to 200 kb

(3) 10 kb to 1000 kb (4) 20 kb to 1000 kb

43. (1) (2) (3)

(4)

44. –(1) (2) (3) (4)

45. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

46. :-

(1)1

4(2)

3

4

(3)1

3(4)

1

1

47.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

00CM31400312/35


48. In which process of decomposition enzymatic

conversion of the decomposing detritus to simpler

compound and inorganic substances occur :-

(1) Fregmentation of detritus

(2) Leaching

(3) Catabolism

(4) Mineralisation

49. The term hematocrit means the :-

(1) % of blood that is RBCs

(2) % of blood that is WBCs

(3) Ratio of blood volume to extracellular spaced

(4) % of new blood cells formed every 120

days.

50. When we use EcoRI restriction enzyme to cut both

plasmid and gene of interest then after ligation

which of the following act as selectable marker

to differentiate b/w recombinent and

non-recombinent :-

(1) ampR gene

(2) tetR gene

(3) Both ampR & tetR

(4) Neither ampR & tetR

51. Read the following list carefully ....

Neutrophils, erythrocytes, monocytes,

macrophages, B-lymphocyte, NK cells,

T lymphocytes, thrombocytes

How many of the above cells constitute cellular

barrier of innate immunity.

(1) Three (2) Four

(3) Five (4) Six

52. According to the lindeman which one is remain

constant in food chain :-

(1) Ecological efficiency

(2) Biomass

(3) Amount of energy

(4) All of above

53. Bone kept in 10% KOH solution for three days

will :-

(1) Disolve in it

(2) Will crack down

(3) Remains the same

(4) Become soft and elastic

48. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

49. :-

(1) RBCs

(2) WBCs

(3)

(4) 120

50. EcoRI :-

(1) ampR

(2) tetR

(3) ampR & tetR

(4) ampR tetR

51.

B-,NK cells , T ,

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

52. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

53. 10% KOH :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


13/3500CM314003

54. In prokaryote the predominant site for control

Gene expression could be exerted at :-

(i) Transcriptional level

(ii) Processing level

(iii)Transport of mRNA from nuclues to the

cytoplasm

(iv) Translation level

(1) I (2) I & III

(3) I, II & III (4) I, II, III & IV

55. Which of the following is true for cyclosporin-A?

(1) It is a clot buster used for removing clots from

the blood vessel.

(2) Blood cholesterol lowering agent

(3) Immunosuppresor agent

(4) Used in treatment of SCID

56. List of some of the meristematic and permanent

tissues is given below :

Cork cambium, Secondary phloem, Phellem,

Secondary xylem, Inter fascicular cambium &

Phelloderm.

How many are the products of redifferentiation.

(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Two

57. Gut Liver HeartA B

Find A and B in human body

(1) A - Hepatic artery, B - Hypetic vein

(2) A - Hepatic portal vein, B - Hepatic artery

(3) A - Hepatic portal vein B - Hepatic vein

(4) A - Cystic vein, B - Hepatic vein

58. Which technique is being used to detect specific

antigen for diagnosis of a disease upto maximum

accuracy :-

(1) ELISA (2) PCR

(3) Blood Analysis (4) PAGE

59. Secondary lysosomes are also called :-

(1) Autophagic vacuoles

(2) Liposfusion granules

(3) Residual body

(4) Heterophagosomes

60. List of some of the plants is given below :

Petunia, Tulip, Gloriosa, Lupin, Tomato, Soyabean.

How many are ornamental plants :-

(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six

54. :-

(i) (ii) (iii)

(iv) (1) I (2) I III

(3) I, II III (4) I, II, III IV

55. A (1)

(2) (3) (4) SCID

56. :

?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

57. A B

A B (1) A - , B - (2) A - , B - (3) A - B - (4) A - , B -

58. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

59. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

60. : :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

Time Management is Life Management

00CM31400314/35


61. When there is a sudden loss of blood from the

body, the organ which supplies blood is :-

(1) Heart (2) Lung (3) Spleen (4) Liver

62. In 1963, Sonalika and Kalyan Sona were introduce

in India. Which of follow statement is correct

about it :-

(I) They are GMO

(II) They are verify of Rice

(III) They are high yielding and disease resistance

variety

(IV) They are derived from IR-8

(1) II and III (2) I, II and III

(3) III only (4) III and IV

63. Which of the following is present both in

prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells :-

(1) Mitochondria

(2) Endoplasmic reticulum

(3) Ribosomes

(4) Nucleus

64. List of some of the plants is given below :

Potato, Tomato, Aloe, Soyabean, Allium cepa,

Mustard.

How many plants possesse trimerous flower :

(1) Three (2) Four (3) Two (4) Five

65. Maximum amount of CO2 is transported from the

tissues to lung in form of :-

(1) Bicarbonates

(2) Carbonic anhydrase

(3) Carbamino haemoglobin

(4) Dissolved in plasma

66. Choose the incorrect statement out of the following:-

(1) Compared to many other organisms, bacteria

as a group show the most extensive metabolic

diversity.

(2) Many bacteria have small circular DNA inside

the genomic DNA

(3) Mesosomes are infloldings of cell membrane

(4) Bacteria have thin filamentous extensions

from their cell wall.

67. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place on :-

(1) Ribosomes (2) Chloroplast

(3) Mitochondria (4) Chromoplast

61. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

62. 1963 :-(I) GMO (II) (III)

(IV) IR-8 (1) II III (2) I, II III(3) III (4) III IV

63. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

64. :

:

(1) (2) (3) (4)

65. CO2 :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

66. :-

(1)

(2) DNA

DNA

(3)

(4)

67. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)


15/3500CM314003

68. In the process of carbon fixation, RUBP attaches

CO2 to produce 6-carbon molecules which is then

split in two. After phosphorylation and reduction,

what more needs to happen in the calvin

cycle ?

(1) Addition of a pair of electrons from NADPH

(2) Inactivation of RUBP carboxylase enzyme

(3) Regeneration of ATP from ADP

(4) Regeneration of RUBP

69. Read the following statements (A-D) :-

(A) A very important part of hindbrain called

hypothalamus controls the body temperature.

(B) The midbrain receives and integrates visual,

tactile and auditory inputs.

(C) The cerebellum integrates information received

from the semicircular canals of the ear.

(D) The nerve impulse is conducted along the

axon membrane in the form of a wave of

depolarisation and repolarisation.

How many of the above statements are true -

(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1

70. Which is a correct statement ?

(1) Perithecium is a closed fruiting body.

(2) Sexual reproduction in Albugo is oogamous.

(3) Ascomycetes are known as club fungi.

(4) Sexual reproduction in Helminthosporium is

oogamous.

71. How many statements are not correct :-

(a) Salamandra have eyelids

(b) Sexes are not separate in Aschelmenthes

(c) Air bladder is absent in Exocoetus

(d) Circulation is closed in cyclostomates

(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4

72. Find a correct set of requirements to fix a

molecule of atmospheric nitrogen (N2)

(1) 8e–, 8H+, 8ATP (2) 16e–, 16H+, 16ATP

(3) 8e–, 8H+, 16ATP (4) 16e–, 16H+, 8ATP

73. Which of the following statement is false :-

(1) Insulin deficiency and / or insulin resistance

result in a disease called diabetes mellitus.

(2) Insulin stimulates glycogenolysis and

gluconeogenesis resulting in hyperglycemia.

(3) Mineralocorticoids regulate water and

electrolyte balance of the body.

(4) Estrogen stimulates growth and development

of female accessory sex organs and secondary

sex characters

68. RUBP, CO2

6-c

?

(1) NADPH e–

(2) RUBP carboxylase enzyme

(3) ATP ADP

(4) RUBP 69. (A-D) :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

-

(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1

70. ?

(1)

(2)

(3) (club)

(4) 71. :-

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4

72. (N2) set(1) 8e–, 8H+, 8ATP (2) 16e–, 16H+, 16ATP

(3) 8e–, 8H+, 16ATP (4) 16e–, 16H+, 8ATP

73. :-(1) /

(2)

(3)

(4)

00CM31400316/35


74. Study the given statements carefully and give the

answer :-

(A) Both Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae are

primarily found in marine habitats.

(B) Gemmae are green and multicellular buds,

produced on ventral surface of thallus for

sexual reproduction.

(C) In pteridophytes spores germinate to give rise

to inconspicuous, small but multicellular and

free living nonvascular sporophyte.

(D) In gymnosperms formation of pollen tube is

there for carrying male gametes i.e.

siphonogamy.

Which of the following options is most correct

form the following :

(1) A,B - correct & C,D - incorrect

(2) A,D - correct & B,C - incorrect

(3) A,C,D - correct & B - incorrect

(4) A,B,C - correct & D - incorrect

75. Which of the following is/are similarity between

Periplaneta and Pheretima?

(A) Open blood vascular system

(B) Internal fertilisation

(C) Dioecious

(D) Double ventral nerve cord

(E) Indirect development

(1)Only B (2) B, C and E

(3)Only D (4) A, C and D

76. Acquisition of ability to flower by chilling

treatment is called :

(1) vernalization (2) yarovization

(3) springification (4) All of these

77. A B C D E

The above given diagram show the arrangment of

DNA fragment during electrophorosis. In which

A lane is of sample and another 4 is the lane of

suspect. which of the above lane is the lane of the

criminal :-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) E

74. :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

:

(1) A,B - & C,D -

(2) A,D - & B,C -

(3) A,C,D - & B -

(4) A,B,C - & D - 75.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1)B (2) B, C E(3)D (4) A, C D

76. :(1) vernalization (2) yarovization

(3) springification (4) All of these

77. A B C D E

A

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) E


17/3500CM314003

78. Identify the (a), (b) & (c) in given life cycle of

angiosperm:-

(a)

(b)

(c)

Anther Microspore mother cell

(n)

(2n)

FlowerOvary

Megasporangium(ovule)

Stigma

Microsporangium

Microspore

GAMETOPHYTIC

GENERATION

Malegametophyte

EggZygote

Sporophyte

GENERATION

SPOROPHYTIC

a b c

(1) Megaspore Egg Embryo

(2) Male gametes Pollen tube Female

gametophyte

(3) Male mega pollen grain

gametophyte sporangium

(4) Microspore Male gamets Embryo

(pollen grain)

79. In fresh water lakes, the dissolved nutrients are

mixed and redistributed primarily by :-

(1) Fish

(2) High and low tides

(3) The spring and Autumn turnover

(4) The thermocline

80. Which of the following does not happen during

stomatal opening ?

(1) Accumulation of K+ ions in guard cells

(2) increase of turger pressure of guard cell

(3) Creation of water potential gradient between

Gurad cell & Subsidiary cell

(4) Increased thickening of inner wall of guard

cell

78. (a), (b) (c)

:-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(n)

(2n)

FlowerOvary

Megasporangium(ovule)

Stigma

a b c

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

()

79. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

80. ?

(1) K+ ions

(2)

(3)

(4)

00CM31400318/35


81. Matching type questions :

List I List II

Principle Discover

(I) Exclusion principle (A) Hund

(II) Multiplicity rule (B) Heisenberg

(III) Uncertainty principle (C) Einstain

(IV) Quantum theory (D) Plank

(E) Pauli

(1) I – A, II – B, III – C, IV – E

(2) I – D, II – A, III – B, IV – C

(3) I – E, II – B, III – C IV – E

(4) I – E, II – A, III – B, IV – D

82. 0.2 g of a sample of H2O

2 required 10 ml of

N-KMnO4 in a titration in the presence of H

2SO

4.

Purity of H2O

2 is -

(1) 25% (2) 85%

(3) 65% (4) 95%

83. 4NaBH x

H

y, Compound (y) is :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4) (1) and (3) both

84. For each of the following pairs of complexes,

Identify the one that has a large CFSE :-

(i) [Cr(H2O)

6]+2 or (ii) [Mo(H

2O)

6]2+

(iii) [Mn(H2O)

6]2+ or (iv) [Fe(H

2O)

6]3+

(v) [Fe(H2O)

6]3+ or (vi) [Fe(CN)

6]3–

(vii) [Fe(CN)6]3– or (viii) [Ru(CN)

6]3–

(ix) tetrahedral [FeCl4]2– or (x)tetrahedral [CoCl

4]2–

(1) II, IV, VI, VIII, X

(2) II, IV, VI, VIII, IX

(3) II, IV, VI, VII, IX

(4) II, IV, V, VIII, IX

81. :

I II

(I) (A) (II) (B) (III) (C) (IV) (D)

(E) (1) I – A, II – B, III – C, IV – E

(2) I – D, II – A, III – B, IV – C

(3) I – E, II – B, III – C IV – E

(4) I – E, II – A, III – B, IV – D

82. 0.2 g, H2O

2 H

2SO

4

N-KMnO4 10 ml H

2O

2

(1) 25% (2) 85%

(3) 65% (4) 95%

83. 4NaBH x

H

y, (y) :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4) (1) (3)

84. CFSE :-

(i) [Cr(H2O)

6]+2 or (ii) [Mo(H

2O)

6]2+

(iii) [Mn(H2O)

6]2+ or (iv) [Fe(H

2O)

6]3+

(v) [Fe(H2O)

6]3+ or (vi) [Fe(CN)

6]3–

(vii) [Fe(CN)6]3– or (viii) [Ru(CN)

6]3–

(ix) [FeCl4]2– or (x) [CoCl

4]2–

(1) II, IV, VI, VIII, X

(2) II, IV, VI, VIII, IX

(3) II, IV, VI, VII, IX

(4) II, IV, V, VIII, IX

Take it Easy and Make it Easy


19/3500CM314003

85. For two gases, A and B with molecular weights

MA and M

B, it is observed that at a certain

temperature, T, the mean velocity of A is equal

to the root mean squared velocity of B. Thus the

mean velocity of A can be made equal to the mean

velocity of B, if

(1) A is at temperature, T1, and B at T

2, T

1 > T

2

(2) A is lowered to a temperature T2 < T

1 while

B is at T1

(3) Both A and B are raised to a higher temperature

(4) Both A and B are lowered in temperature.

86. In the oxidation of 0.2 mole of FeC2O

4 how many

m of 0.1 M KMnO4 is required in acidic

medium:-

(1) 1200 m (2) 800 m

(3) 600 m (4) 300 m

87. (A)3

KOH

CHCl (B) 4LiAlH

HCH3CH

2NHCH

3

Identify compound A :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3—CH

2—NH

2

88. Which is correct for rosy red ppt, which is very

prominent in the test of nickel :-

(I) dsp2 (II) Strong field ligands are present

(III) sp3 (IV) Weak field ligands are present

(1) F F T T (2) T F T F

(3) F T F T (4) T T F F

(T True, F False)

89. Calculate the number of Cl– and Ca2+ ions in 222

g anhydrous CaCl2.

(1) 2NA, 4N

A(2) 4N

A, 2N

A

(3) 2NA, 2N

A(4) 4N

A, 4N

A

90. The density of a pure substance 'A' whose atoms

are in ccp arrangement is 1 gm/cc. If B atoms can

occupy tetrahedral void and if all the tetrahedral

voids are occupied by 'B' atom. What is the density

of resulting solid in gm/cc.

[Atomic mass (A) = 30 gm/mol & Atomic mass

(B) = 50 gm/mol]

(1) 3.33 (2) 4.33 (3) 2.33 (4) 5.33

85. A B MA M

B

T A

B A

B

(1) A T1 B T

2, T

1 > T

2

(2) A T2 < T

1, B

T1

(3) A B

(4) A B

86. 0.2 mole FeC2O

4

0.1 M KMnO4 (m)

:-(1) 1200 m (2) 800 m

(3) 600 m (4) 300 m

87. (A)3

KOH

CHCl (B) 4LiAlH

HCH3CH

2NHCH

3

A :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3—CH

2—NH

2

88. rosy red :-(I) dsp2 (II) (III) sp3 (IV) (1) F F T T (2) T F T F

(3) F T F T (4) T T F F

(T True, F False)

89. 222 g CaCl2 Cl– Ca2+

(1) 2N

A, 4N

A(2) 4N

A, 2N

A

(3) 2NA, 2N

A(4) 4N

A, 4N

A

90. A(ccp)

1 gm/ccB Bgm/cc[AB(A) = 30 gm/mol & (B) = 50 gm/mol

](1) 3.33 (2) 4.33 (3) 2.33 (4) 5.33

00CM31400320/35


91. 'X'

What will be the 'X' in the reaction :-

(1) Br2

(2) NBS

(3) HBr (4) HBr/Peroxide

92. In [Hg(H2O)

4][Co(NCS)

4] complex, the magentic

moment of Co is 3.87 B.M. :-

(1) EAN of Hg(II) is 86 and Co(II) is 33

(2) EAN of Hg(II) is 68 and Hg(II) is 36



93. For the non-equilibrium process, A + B

products, the rate is first-order w.r.t. A and second-

order w.r.t. B. If 1.0 mole each of A and B

introduced into a 1.0 L vessel and the initial rate

was 1.0 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1, rate when half reactants

have been turned into products is :

(1) 1.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1

(2) 1.0 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1

(3) 2.50 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1

(4) 2.0 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1

94. An aqueous solution of 6.3 g H2C

2O

4.2H

2O is made

up to 250 mL. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH required

to completely neutralise 10 mL of this solution is

(1) 40 mL (2) 20 mL (3) 10 mL (4) 4 mL

95. Terylene is a condensation polymer of ethylene

glycol and :-

(1) Benzoic acid (2) Phthalic acid

(3) Salicylic acid (4) Terephthalic acid

96. Which one of these following complexes will

have five isomers :-

(1) [Co(en)(NH3)

2Cl

2]Cl

(2) [Co(en)2Cl

2]Br

(3) [Co(en)3]Cl

3

(4) [Co(PPH3)

2(NH

3)

2Cl

2]Cl

97. A G.M. counter is used to study the radioactive

process of first-order. In absence of radioactive

substance A, it counts 3 disintegration per second

(dps). When A is placed in the G.M. counter, it

records 23 dps at the start and 13 dps after

10 minutes. It records x dps after next 10 minutes

and A has half-life period y minutes. x and y are:

(1) 8 dps, 10 min (2) 5 dps, 10 min

(3) 5 dps, 20 min (4) 5 dps, 5 min

91. 'X'

'X' :-(1) Br

2(2) NBS

(3) HBr (4) HBr/Peroxide

92. [Hg(H2O)

4][Co(NCS)

4] Co

3.87 B.M.:-(1) EAN of Hg(II) is 86 and Co(II) is 33

(2) EAN of Hg(II) is 68 and Hg(II) is 36



93. A + B A B A B 1.0 1.0 L 1.0 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1

(1) 1.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1

(2) 1.0 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1

(3) 2.50 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1

(4) 2.0 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1

94. 6.3 gmH2C

2O

4.2H

2O250 mL

10 mL0.1N NaOH

(1) 40 mL (2) 20 mL (3) 10 mL (4) 4 mL

95. ______ :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

96. :-(1) [Co(en)(NH

3)

2Cl

2]Cl

(2) [Co(en)2Cl

2]Br

(3) [Co(en)3]Cl

2

(4) [Co(PPH3)

2(NH

3)

2Cl

2]Cl

97. A (d.p.s) A 23 dps 10 13 dps 10 x dps A y x y (1) 8 dps, 10 min (2) 5 dps, 10 min

(3) 5 dps, 20 min (4) 5 dps, 5 min


21/3500CM314003

98. 100 mL of 1 M HCl is mixed with 50 mL of 2

M HCl. Hence, [H3O+] is :

(1) 1.00 M (2) 1.50 M

(3) 1.33 M (4) 3.00 M

99. Predict the product of the reaction of 1-pentyne

and excess HCl in the presence of hydrogen

peroxide :-

(1) 1, 1-dichloropentane



(4) 2-chloro-1-pentene

100. If NO reacts with [Cr(CO)6], how many CO

groups can be replaced by NO:-

(1) All the 3 CO groups are replaced by 2 NO

group


group


group


group

101. The solubility of a sparingly soluble salt AxB

y in

water is 's' moles per liter. The solubility product

has the value

(1) s2 (2) 4s3 (3) xxyysx+y (4) Sx+y

102. What is the IUPAC name for the following

compund :-

(1) cis, trans-2, 4-heptadiene

(2) trans-cis-2,4-heptadiene

(3) cis, cis-2,4-heptadiene

(4) trans, trans-2,4-heptadiene

103. The product/s of the following reaction is/are :-

+ CH3CH

2MgBr ether

(1)

(2) +

(3) + CH3CH

3

(4)

98. 1 M HCl 100 mL 2 M HCl 50 mL

[H3O+] &

(1) 1.00 M (2) 1.50 M

(3) 1.33 M (4) 3.00 M

99. 1-HCl :-(1) 1, 1-(2) 1, 2-(3) 2, 2-(4) 2- -1-

100. [Cr(CO)6]NO

NO CO :-(1) 2NO 3CO

(2) 6NO 4CO

(3) 3NO 2CO

(4) 4NO 6CO

101. AxB

y 's'

(1) s2 (2) 4s3

(3) xxyysx+y (4) Sx+y

102. IUPAC :-

(1) cis, trans-2, 4-heptadiene

(2) trans-cis-2,4-heptadiene

(3) cis, cis-2,4-heptadiene

(4) trans, trans-2,4-heptadiene

103. :-

+ CH3CH

2MgBr ether

(1)

(2) +

(3) + CH3CH

3

(4)

00CM31400322/35


104. In which of the following equations, H2O

2 acts as

a reducing agent in the acidic medium :-

(1) –2 2 2H O 2H 2e 2H O

(2) – –2 2 2 2H O 2OH 2H O O 2e

(3) –2 2 2H O 2H O 2e

(4) – – –2 2H O OH 2e 3OH

105. Consider following terms (m = molality) :

I : mKb ; II : mK

bi III :

i

TbIV : K

b

Terms which can be expressed in degree

(temperature) are

(1) III, IV (2) I, II

(3) I, II, III (4) I, III

106. Which of the following cations is aromatic :-

a b c d

(1) b, d (2) d (3) a, b, d (4) b, c, d

107. Which of the compound will not undergo Friedel

Craft reaction :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

108. Alum is the name used for all double salts having

the composition I III2 4 2 4 3 2M SO M (SO ) 24H O

where MI stands for :-

(1) Li+, Cu+, Ag+ (2) Li+, NH4

+, Na+

(3) Na+, K+, Rb+ (4) Ca+2, Sr+2, Mg+2

109. The standard reduction potential of Cu2+/Cu and

Cu2+/Cu+ are 0.337 and 0.153 respectively. The

standard electrode potential of Cu+/Cu half-cell is-

(1) 0.184 V (2) 0.827 V

(3) 0.521 V (4) 0.490 V

104. H2O

2

:-

(1) –2 2 2H O 2H 2e 2H O

(2) – –2 2 2 2H O 2OH 2H O O 2e

(3) –2 2 2H O 2H O 2e

(4) – – –2 2H O OH 2e 3OH

105. (m = ) :

I : mKb ; II : mK

bi III :

i

TbIV : K

b

()

(1) III, IV (2) I, II

(3) I, II, III (4) I, III

106. :-

a b c d

(1) b, d (2) d (3) a, b, d (4) b, c, d

107. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

108.

I III2 4 2 4 3 2M SO M (SO ) 24H O

MI :-(1) Li+, Cu+, Ag+ (2) Li+, NH

4+, Na+

(3) Na+, K+, Rb+ (4) Ca+2, Sr+2, Mg+2

109. Cu2+/Cu Cu2+/Cu+ 0.337 0.153 Cu+/Cu (1) 0.184 V (2) 0.827 V

(3) 0.521 V (4) 0.490 V


23/3500CM314003

110. Stability order of the following resonating will be-

(i)

O

O(ii)

O

O

(iii)

O

O

(iv)

O

O

(1) i > ii > iii > iv

(2) ii > i > iii > iv

(3) iii > ii > i > iv

(4) i > iii > ii > iv

111. The molecular formula of the first member of the

family of alkenynes and its name is given by the set:-

(1) C3H

2, alkene

(2) C5H

6, pent-1en-3-yne

(3) C6H

8, hex-1-en-5-yne

(4) C4H

4, butenyne

112.0 0,250 C ,120 C

4 2Y CaSO 2H O X

X and Y are respectively :-

(1) Plaster of paris, dead burnt plaster

(2) CaO and plaster of paris

(3) Dead burnt plaster, plaster of paris

(4) Plaster of paris, mixture of gases

113. The solubility of [Co(NH3)4Cl2] ClO4 if the

3 4 2CO(NH ) Cl = 50, 4ClO = 70 and the measured

resistance was 33.5 in a cell with cell constant

of 0.20 is ________

(1) 59.7 mmol/L (2) 49.7 mmol/L

(3) 39.7 mmol/L (4) 29.7 mmol/L

114. 2Cl

h (X) mono chloro product :

(including stereoisomer) :-

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

115. Which of the following is paramagnetic :-

(1) Potassium Ferrocyanide

(2) Potassium Ferricyanide

(3) Hexaammine Cobalt (III) chloride

(4) Tetra carbonyl Nickel (o)

110. :-

(i)

O

O(ii)

O

O

(iii)

O

O

(iv)

O

O

(1) i > ii > iii > iv

(2) ii > i > iii > iv

(3) iii > ii > i > iv

(4) i > iii > ii > iv

111. :-(1) C

3H

2,

(2) C5H

6, -1-3-

(3) C6H

8, -1--5-

(4) C4H

4,

112.0 0,250 C ,120 C

4 2Y CaSO 2H O X

X Y :-(1) (2) CaO and (3) Dead burnt plaster, (4) ,

113. 3 4 2CO(NH ) Cl = 50,

4ClO = 70

0.20 33.5 [Co(NH3)4Cl2] ClO4 ________ (1) 59.7 mmol/L

(2) 49.7 mmol/L

(3) 39.7 mmol/L

(4) 29.7 mmol/L

114. 2Cl

h (X) :

() :-

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

115. :-(1) (2) (3) (III) (4) (o)

00CM31400324/35


116. 2

Conc. H SO2 4

COOH

| X Y H OCOOH

Which of the following option is correct w.r.t.

above equation:-

(1) X is a neutral oxide

(2) Y is an acidic oxide.

(3) Y react with caustic potash gives KHCO3

(4) All of these

117. The polymerisation of ethylene to linear

polyethylene is represented by the reaction

n CH2 = CH2 (CH2 CH2)n where n has a

large integral value. Given that the average

enthelpies of bond dissociation for C = C &

C C at 298 K are 590 & + 331 KJ mol1

respectively. Then the enthalpy of polymerisation

per mole of ethylene at 298 K will be

(1) 72 kJ/mol (2) – 72 kJ/mol

(3) 36 kJ/mol (4) – 36 kJ/mol

118.Na ( A ) 3

2

CH I

SN ( B ) ,

Product (B) is :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

119. Which of the following can act as a monodantate

ligands :-

(1) Hydrazine (2) Urea

(3) Glycinato (4) 1 & 2 both

120. Reactivity of borazole is greater than that of

benzene because :-

(1) Borazole is non-polar compound

(2) Borazole is a polar compound

(3) of localized electron in it

(4) None of these

116. 2

Conc. H SO2 4

COOH

| X Y H OCOOH

:-(1) X (2) Y (3) Y KHCO

3

(4) 117.

n 298 K

C = C C C 590 + 331 KJ mol1 298 K (1) 72 kJ/mol

(2) – 72 kJ/mol

(3) 36 kJ/mol

(4) – 36 kJ/mol

118.Na (A) 3

2

CH I

SN (B),

(B) :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

119. :-(1) (2) (3) (4) 1 & 2

120. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)


25/3500CM314003

DIRECTIONS FOR Q. NO. 121 TO 180

These questions consist of two statements each,

printed as Assertion and Reason.While

answering these Questions you are required to

choose any one of the following four responses.

A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the

Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason

is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

D. If both Assertion & Reason are False.

121. Assertion :- The error in the measurement of

radius of the sphere is 0.3% The permissible error

in its surface area is 0.6%.

Reason :- The permissible error is calculated by

the formula A 4 r

A r

.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

122. Assertion :- If the current in a solenoid is reversed

in direction while keeping the same magnitude,

the magnetic field energy stored in the solenoid

decreases.

Reason :- Magnetic field energy density is not

proportional to square of magnetic field.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

123. Assertion :- A negative acceleration of a body can

be associated with a 'speeding up' of the body.

Reason :- The origin and the positive direction

of motion are a matter a choice.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

124. Assertion :- The air bubble shines in water.

Reason :- Air bubble in water shines due to

refraction.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

125. Assertion :- The acceleration of a body down a

rough inclined plane is greater than the

acceleration due to gravity.

Reason :- The body is able to side on a inclined

plane only when its acceleration is greater than

acceleration due to gravity.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

121 180

A.

B.

C. D.

121. :- 0.3% 0.6%

:- A 4 r

A r

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

122. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

123. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

124. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

125. :-

(g)

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

00CM31400326/35


126. Assertion :- If a plane glass slab is placed on the

letters of different colours all the letters appear

to be raised up to the same height.

Reason :- Different colours have different

wavelenghts.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

127. Assertion :- Power of machine gun is determined

by both, the number of bullet fired per second and

kinetic energy of bullets.

Reason :- Power of any machine is defined as

work done (by it) per unit time.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

128. Assertion :- A particle is moving along x-axis.

The resultant force F acting on it at position x is

given by F = – ax – b. Where a and b are both

positive constants. The motion of this particle is

not SHM.

Reason :- In SHM restoring force must be

proportional to displacement from mean position.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

129. Assertion :- On going away from a point charge

or a small electric dipole, electric field decreases

at the same rate in both the cases.

Reason :- Electric field is inversely proportional

to square of distance from the charge or an electric

dipole.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

130. Assertion :- Water cannot be boiled inside a

satellite by convection.

Reason :- In weightlessness conditions, natural

movement of heated fluid is not possible.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

131. Assertion :- The heat produced by a resistor in

any time t during the charging of a capacitor in

a series circuit is half the energy stored in the

capacitor by that time.

Reason :- Current in the circuit is not equal to

the rate of increase in charge on the capacitor.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

132. Assertion :- It is easy to remove a proton from

Ca4020 nucleus as compared to a neutron.

Reason :- Inside nucleus neutrons are acted on

only by attractive forces but protons are also acted

on by repulsive forces.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

126. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

127. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

128. :- x x-

F = – ax – b

a b

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

129. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

130. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

131. :- t

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

132. :- 4020 Ca

:- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


27/3500CM314003

133. Assertion :- A potentiometer of longer length is

used for accurate measurement.

Reason :- The potential gradient for a

potentiometer of longer length with a given source

of e.m.f. becomes small.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

134. Assertion :- It is possible for a thermal neutron

to be absorbed by a nucleus whereas a proton or

an -particle would need a much larger amount

of energy for being absorbed by the same nucleus.

Reason :- Neutron is electrically neutral but

proton and -particle are positively charged .

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

135. Assertion :- If a charged particle is moving in a

circular in a perpendicular magnetic field then

momentum of particle does not change.

Reason :- Velocity of the particle is not changing

in the magnetic field.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

136. Assertion :- Two solid cylindrical rods of

identical size and different thermal

conductivities K1 and K

2 are connected in

series. Then the equivalent thermal

conductivity of two rod system is less than the

value of thermal conductivity of either rod.

Reason :- For two cylindrical rods of identical

size and different thermal conductivities K1 and

K2 respectively connected in series, the

equivalent thermal conductivity K is given by

1 2

2 1 1

K K K

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

137. Assertion :- For making permanent magnet steel

is preferred over soft iron.

Reason :- As retentivity of steel is smaller.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

138. Assertion :- The dominant mechanism for

motion of charge carriers in forwards and reverse

biased silicon P-N junction are drift in both

forward and reverse bias.

Reason :- In reverse biasing, no current flow

through the junction.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

133. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

134. :- - :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

135. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

136. :-K

1 K

2

:-K

1 K

2

1 2

2 1 1

K K K

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

137. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

138. :- P-N

(drift)

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

00CM31400328/35


139. Assertion :- Soft iron is used as a core of

transformer.

Reason :- Area of hysteresis loop for soft iron is

small.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

140. Assertion :- The velocity of flow of a liquid is

smaller when pressure is larger and viceversa.

Reason :- According to Bernoulli's theorem, for

the stream line flow of an ideal liquid, the total

energy per unit mass remains constant.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

141. Assertion :- After ovulation the secondary oocyte

changes into corpus luteum.

Reason :- Corpus luteum is sustained throughout

life if fertilization occurs.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

142. Assertion :- Founder effect is associated with

genetic drift.

Reason :- Genetic drift is significant in small

population.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

143. Assertion :- Exocrine glands are also known as

ductless gland.

Reason :- Thyroid gland directly pour its

secretion in any secretion of the body.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

144. Assertion :- Tasar silk is a protein fibre composed

of fibroin and sericine.

Reason :- Tasar silk is obtained from Antherea

assama

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

145. Assertion :- Invertebrates specially flatworm

excrete through flamecell

Reason :- Flame cell have cilia

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

146. Assertion :- Only IgG type antibodies can passed

through placenta.

Reason :- IgG type antibody is formed by four

polypeptide chains.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

147. Assertion :- Muscularis of alimentary canal is

formed by striated muscles, usually arranged into

an inner circular and an outer longitudinal layer.

Reason :- An oblique muscle layer is also present

in most of the region of alimentry canal.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

139. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

140. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

141. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

142. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

143. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

144. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

145. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

146. :- IgG :- IgG (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

147. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


29/3500CM314003

148. Assertion :- Cell membrane shows quasi fluid

behaviour.

Reason :- Membrane is a mosaic or composite of

diverse lipids and proteins.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

149. Assertion :- During normal swallowing food does

not goes inside the nasal tract.

Reason :- A cartilagenous flap called epiglottis

prevents the entry of food into the nasal tract.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

150. Assertion :- Polyps produce medusae asexually

and medusae form the polyps sexually.

Reason :- Polyps and medusae are the common

feature of corals.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

151. Assertion :- In wheat solid stem lead to non

preference by the stem saw fly.

Reason :- Insect resistance in host crop plant

may be due to, biochemical or physiological

characteristic.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

152. Assertion :- Migration is the genetic attribute of

organism for better survival and reproductive

efficiency in their habitat.

Reason :- Migration is the permanent exit/entry

of organism to overcome extremes in their

environment forever.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

153. Assertion :- Tissue culture is used for increasing

the number of endangered plant species

Reason :- In tissue culture micropropogation is

possible.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

154. Assertion :- Size of population is one of the dynamic

parameters of study-population characteristics.

Reason :- Depending on food availability, predation

pressure and reduce weather it keeps changing.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

155. Assertion :- 23 's' r RNA is a Ribozyme.

Reason :- It is use for the formation of peptide bond.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

156. Assertion :- Wind Pollination is quite rare in

flowering plants and is limited to about 30 genera.

Reason :- In water hyacinth and water lily,

pollination occurs by water.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

148. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

149. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

150. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

151. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

152. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

153. :-

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

154. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

155. :- 23 's' r :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

156. :- 30 :- () () (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

00CM31400330/35


157. Assertion :- Viruses did not find a place in any

classification.

Reason :- Virus contain genetic material that

could be RNA or DNA.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

158. Assertion :- In C4 cycle more ATP is consumed

than the C3 cycle.

Reason :- C4 plants are adapted to the more light

intensity.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

159. Assertion :- Gymnosperm exhibit xerophytic

characters.

Reason :- They have loosely arranged tissues, less

developed xylem and more living tissue in their

plant bodies.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

160. Assertion :- In respiration, O2 is only consumed

in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cell.

Reason :- More ATPs are produced in cytoplasm

than mitochondria.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

161. Assertion :- In the titration of Na2CO3 with HCl

using methyl orange indicator, the volume

required at the equivalence point is twice that of

the acid required using phenolphthalein indicator.

Reason :- Two moles of HCl are required for

the complete neutralization of one mole of

Na2CO3.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

162. Assertion :- Neopentyl chloride undergoes SN2

reaction easily.

Reason :- Neopentyl chloride is a primary halide.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

163. Assertion :- The ground state of configuration of

Cr is [Ar]3d54s1

Reason :- A set of half-filled orbitals containing

one electrons each with their spin parallel provides

extra stability.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

164. Assertion :- Picric acid does not contain –COOH

groups.

Reason :- Picric acid is trinitrophenol.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

157. :- :- ,RNA

DNA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

158. :- C4 C

3 ATP

:- C

4

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

159. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

160. :- Eukaryotic O2

mitochondria :- mitochondria ATP (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

161. :- methyl orange Na2CO3

HCl :- 1 mol Na2CO3.HCl (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

162. :- SN2 :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

163. :- Cr[Ar]3d54s1 :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

164. :- –COOH :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D


31/3500CM314003

165. Assertion :- kp can be equal to or less than or even

grater than the value of kc.

Reason :- kc = kp (RT)–n Relation between kp

and kc depends on the change in the number of

moles of gaseous reactants and products.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

166. Assertion :- LiAlH4 reduces esters to acids.

Reason :- Esters which contain -hydrogen

undergo Claisen condensation.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

167. Assertion :- The addition of silver ions to a mixture

of aqueous sodium chloride and sodium bromide

solution, will first precipitate AgBr rather than AgCl.

Reason :- The value of Ksp of AgCl < Ksp of AgBr.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

168. Assertion :- Amides react with Br2 + KOH to give

1º amine with one carbon less than parent atom.

Reason :- The reaction occurs through a carbene

intermediate.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

169. Assertion :- The standard reduction potential

values of the three metallic cations X, Y and Z

are 0.52V, –3.03V and 1.18V respectively then

highest reducing power metal is Y.

Reason :- More negative or less positive is the

value of the standard reduction potential, greater

is the reducing power of the metal.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

170. Assertion :- Boron always forms covalent bond.

Reason :- The small size of B+3 favours formation

of covalent bond.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

171. Assertion :- Glass is isotropic

Reason :- Glass is supercooled liquid.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

172. Assertion :- In water, orthoboric acid behaves as

a weak monobasic acid.

Reason :- In water, orthoboric acid act as a proton

donar.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

173. Assertion :- Rate of a chemical reaction increases

as the temperature is increased.

Reason :- As the temperature is increased fraction

of molecules occupying ET increases. here ET

threshold energy.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

165. :- kp kc :- kc = kp (RT)–n kp kc (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

166. :- LiAlH4

:- -(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

167. :- NaCl NaBrAg+AgBr AgCl

:- Ksp AgCl < Ksp AgBr

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

168. :- Br2 + KOH

1º :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

169. :- X, Y Z 0.52V, –3.03V 1.18V

Y

:-

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

170. :- :-B+3 (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

171. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

172. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

173. :- :-

ET ET

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

00CM31400332/35


174. Assertion :- Si-Si bonds are much weaker than

Si-O bonds.

Reason :- Silicon forms double bonds with itself

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

175. Assertion :- Benzene is a highly unsaturated

hydrocarbon but it is too stable to be an alkene.

Reason :- Benzene is resonance stabilised.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

176. Assertion :- PCl5 is covalent in gaseous and liquid

state but ionic is solid state.

Reason :- PCl5 in solid state consists of tetrahedral

PCl4

+ cation and octahedral PCl6

– anion.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

177. Assertion :- Acetylene on reacting with sodium

gives hydrogen.

Reason :- sp hybridised carbon atoms of acetylene

are considerable electronegative.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

178. Assertion :- Ammonium nitrate on heating gives

N2O.

Reason :- N2O is a neutral oxide.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

179. Assertion :- Alkanes having more than three

carbon atoms exhibit chain isomerism.

Reason :- All carbon atoms in alkanes are

sp-hybridized.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

180. Assertion :- Anhydrous BaO2 is not used for

preparing H2O

2.

Reason :- H2O

2 is prepared on large scale by air

oxidation of 2-ethylanthraquinol.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

181. The terms "carry and Bully" are associated with

which of the following sports :-

(1) Cricket (2) Football

(3) Hockey (4) Volleyball

182. Who was responsible for the integration of

Princely states with the Indian Union:-

(1) Rajendra Prasad (2) C. Rajagopalachari

(3) Jawaharlal Nehru (4) Vallabhbhai Patel

183. The presiding chairman of the Lok Sabha is the

following:-

(1) Prime Minister

(2) Vice President

(3) President

(4) Elected from the Lok Sabha members

174. :-Si-O Si-Si :-(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

175. :- :- (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

176. :-PCl5

:- PCl

5PCl

4+

PCl6

–(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

177. :- :- sp (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

178. :- N2O

:-N

2O

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

179. :- :- sp-(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) D

180. :-H2O

2 BaO

2

:-H

2O

2

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

181.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

182. (1) (2) (3) (4)

183.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)


33/3500CM314003

184. Which famous American's autobiography is titled

'Moonwalk' ?

(1) Bill Clinton (2) Neil Armstrong

(3) Michael Jackson (4) Michael Collins

185. Which Indian President's birthday is celebrated as

'Teacher's Day':-

(1) Zakir Hussain (2) Rajendra Prasad

(3) S. Radhakrishnan (4) V.V. Giri

186. Which of the following is not correctly matched:-

(1) Pandit Jasraj – Vocalist

(2) Gopi Krishna – Kathak

(3) Dr. Kasturi Rangan – Medicine

(4)B.K.S. Iyengar – Yoga

187. Which cricket player has batted in all positions

from 1-11 :-

(1) Lala Amarnath

(2) Sunil Gavaskar

(3) Sanjay Manjerakar

(4) Vinoo Mankad

188. Which is the largest natural fresh water lake of

India:-

(1) Dal lake (2) Wular lake

(3) Chilika lake (4) Loktak lake

189. Which one of the following is correctly matched:-

(1) Trishul - Surface to surface missile

(2) Prithvi - Surface to air missile

(3) Nag - Anti tank missile

(4) Pinaka - Light combat aircraft

190. Which of the following pairs is not correctly

matched :-

(1) Karpuramanjari - Harsha

(2) Malavikagnimitra - Kalidasa

(3) Mudrarakshasa - Vishakhadatta

(4) Saundarananda - Asvaghosha

191. Ram Mohan Roy was given the title of Raja

by :-

(1) Akbar-II

(2) Lord William Bentinck

(3) Followers of Brahma Samaj

(4) Intellectuals opposing the custom of sati

192. Homi Bhabha award is given for special

contribution in the field of :-

(1) Theoretical Physics

(2) Nuclear Energy

(3) Laser Physics

(4) Space Research

184. ''

(1) (2) (3) (4)

185. (1) (2) (3) (4)

186. (1) – (2) – (3) – (4) –

187. (1-11)(1) (2) (3) (4)

188. (1) (2) (3) (4)

189. :-(1) - (2) - (3) - (4) -

190. :-

(1) -

(2) -

(3) -

(4) -

191. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

192. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

00CM31400334/35


193. Who had proposed for the first time the 'double

helix model' of DNA :-

(1) Watson and Crick (2) Fisher and Haldoni

(3) Lamark and Darwin (4) Hugo de Vries

194. Which of the following countries is not a member

of OPEC :-

(1) Iran (2) Iraq

(3) China (4) Libya

195. Who among the following is known as the

'Grand old man of India' :-

(1) Mahadev Govind Ranade

(2) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi

(3) Rabindranath Tagore

(4) Dadabhai Naoroji

196. Who among these headed the Interim Government

formed in 1946 :-

(1) Rajendra Prasad (2) Jawaharlal Nehru

(3) Vallabhbhai Patel (4) C. Rajagopalachari

197. The two countries separated by MacMohan

boundary line are :-

(1) India - Myanmar

(2) India - Pakistan

(3) India - Afghanistan

(4) India - China

198. Which one of the following electromagnetic

waves is used by the Wi-Fi to exchange/ transmit

data wirelessly :-

(1) U V rays (2) Infrared waves

(3) Radio waves (4) Microwaves

199. Richter scale is used to measure :-

(1) Body heat (2) Wind intensity

(3) Earthquakes (4) Ocean Depth

200. Which amongst the following abbreviations

stands for organization related to Indian Defence

forces :-

(1) DOD (2) RDSO

(3) DRDO (4) DRES

193. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

194. (OPEC) :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

195. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

196. 1946 :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

197. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

198. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

199. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

200. :-(1) DOD (2) RDSO

(3) DRDO (4) DRES

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2015

Your moral duty

is to prove that is


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