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Questions

• MOCK TEST 1 1.1 – 1.18

• MOCK TEST 2 2.1 – 2.17

• MOCK TEST 3 3.1 – 3.17

• MOCK TEST 4 4.1 – 4.17

• MOCK TEST 5 5.1 – 5.17

• MOCK TEST 6hine Design 6.1 – 6.17

• MOCK TEST 7 7.1 – 7.17

• MOCK TEST 8 8.1 – 8.17

• MOCK TEST 9egrated 9.1 – 9.16

• MOCK TEST 10ated 10.1 – 10.16


• MOCK TEST 12 12.1 – 12.18

• MOCK TEST 13 13.1 – 13.18


• MOCK TEST 15ated 15.1 – 15.16

• CAT Solved Paper 2018 (Slot-1)ated 1 – 28




Answers and Explanations

• MOCK TEST 1 1.1 – 1.10

• MOCK TEST 2 2.1 – 2.9

• MOCK TEST 3 3.1 – 3.10

• MOCK TEST 4 4.1 – 4.11

• MOCK TEST 5 5.1 – 5.11


• MOCK TEST 7 7.1 – 7.10

• MOCK TEST 8 8.1 – 8.13


• MOCK TEST 10ated 10.1 – 10.10


• MOCK TEST 12 12.1 – 12.11

• MOCK TEST 13 13.1 – 13.12


• MOCK TEST 15ated 15.1 – 15.13

Time Allowed : 3 hrs. Maximum Marks : 300

Instructions to Candidates

1. This Test contains 100 questions in all comprising the following three parts:

Section I - VARC (34 Questions)

Section II - LRDI (32 Questions)

Section III - QA (34 Questions)

2. There are two kinds of questions in the Exam, MCQ and non-MCQ. For non-MCQ type questions you willneed to type the answer using the virtual number-board while filling E - OMR.

3. There is only one correct answer to each question.

4. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks i.e. 3 marks for each question.

5. For the MCQ type questions each wrong answer will attract a penalty of one mark. There will be no negativemarking for the non-MCQ type question

6. Answer the questions as quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and otherseasy. Do not spend too much time on any question.

BOOSTER TEST SERIESCAT

Mock Test – 1

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OMR SHEET

VARC1. Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c)

and (d). Of these, three sentences need to bearranged in a logical order to form a coherentparagraph/passage. From the given options, choosethe one that does not fit the sequence.(a) It was barely dawn and I was being driven to the

airport by a woman, who was confident and alsoeager to make conversation.

(b) After a sleepless night, I thought it best to maintainindifference even as she persisted with herexplanations.

(c) Her story, however, hit a deadlock as she abruptlystopped talking - perhaps, realizing she wasrevealing too much to a stranger (a man) - and Ihonestly did not know what to ask next.

(d) However, soon enough, the intrigue started to getto me - my efforts to nap had also proven futile.

2. Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c)and (d). Of these, three sentences need to bearranged in a logical order to form a coherentparagraph/passage. From the given options, choosethe one that does not fit the sequence.(a) The Chinese produced some of the finest Buddhist

monuments, temples and monasteries, andamong the greatest Buddhist sculptures andpaintings in the world.

(b) Turning from science and mathematics to thebroader field of culture, the consequences ofBuddhist connections on China and India werealso extensive.

(c) While these must, at one level, be seen as religiousachievements, one would have to be quite boorishto see in these works of art nothing other thangraphic religiosity.

(d) That Buddhism had an impact on Chineseliterature cannot come as a surprise.

3. Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c)and (d). Of these, three sentences need to bearranged in a logical order to form a coherentparagraph/passage. From the given options, choosethe one that does not fit the sequence.(a) Though aimed at the mass market and a largely

female demograph, they don't want to classify itas chick-lit, which is a term they find derogatoryto women.

(b) Is it fair to call their work chick-lit, a label thatcomes with numerous preconceived notions, notall of them flattering?

M OCK TEST– 1(c) So, for the sake of that inevitable classification

that book-stores and publishers demand, whatare authors like Narayan and Shirodkar writing?

(d) Or should they be classified as a new, hybridgenre, one that has retained the romance, butintroduced with it a whole new layer that doesnot shy away from exploring difficult subjects andgritty issues?

4. Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c)and (d). Of these, three sentences need to bearranged in a logical order to form a coherentparagraph/passage. From the given options, choosethe one that does not fit the sequence.(a) These by and large are curable cancers but

require long-term follow-up as well as a significantamount of expenditure.

(b) While government should initiate a nationwidescreening programme for the most prevalentcancers and invest in more affordable treatmentcenters, we too must meet our obligation to givecancer the stick with more information and lessprejudice.

(c) There is more to this than meets the eye.(d) But perhaps the saddest statistics are those of

childhood survivorship which in our country arealmost half of those in the developed world.

5. Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, Dand E. They need to be arranged in a logical order toform a coherent paragraph/passage. From the givenoptions, choose the most appropriate sequence.A. The silent disintegration of judgments - as an

alternative to the more hard-edged options ofjudicial overruling or legislative repeal- is acommon phenomenon.

B. In the United States, the Supreme Court underJustice John Roberts has narrowed precedentsin many areas, including abortion, campaignfinance and affirmative action.

C. The high court then capitalized on the poorreasoning of the judgment in Koushal to narrowits precedential value, holding that the SupremeCourt's judgment rested significantly on thepresumption of constitutionality and did not castlight on the 'subject matter' of homosexuality ingeneral.

D. In the United Kingdom, the House of Lordsgradually retreated from its controversial decisionin Pepper V Hart (allowing parliamentaryproceedings to be cited for the purposes ofstatutory interpretations).

1.4 MOCK TEST–1

E. These two judgments suggest that the imperfectlegal reasoning adopted in Koushal makes ithighly susceptible to narrowing.

(a) BDCAE (b) BDACE(c) CEBDA (d) CEADB

6. Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, Dand E. They need to be arranged in a logical order toform a coherent paragraph/passage. From the givenoptions, choose the most appropriate sequence.A. With mounting criticism has also come growing

praise for his vision to place Turkey prominentlyon the global map.

B. But is that really the primary concern of the Turkstoday, given that the majority of them, as pollsshow, find Mr. Erdogan's conservative valuesappealing?

C. Are they really proud of the paradoxes?D. So we won't know till the next election.E. The authoritarian and Islamist rule indicates a

reversal of the secular state structure that Ataturkhad succeeded in ushering in.

(a) EBCAD (b) AEBCD(c) EBCDA (d) EABCD

7. The following text is followed by four alternatesummaries. Choose the option that best capturesthe essence of the text.It was a brilliant idea for Garsington Opera, whichhas an orchestra and chorus to hand, to invite theRoyal Shakespeare Company to stage an abridgedversion of the play, A midsummer night's dream, withMendelssohn's entire score attached. Conducted byDouglas Boyd and directed by Owen Horsley, theresult is a perfect marriage of words and music in asetting - with the local woods skirting one side of thetheatre - that is nigh-on ideal.(a) The production of Shakespeare's play, complete

with a live backing of Mendelssohn's score, is asbrilliant as it is rare.

(b) Garsington Opera joined hands with the RoyalShakespeare Company to stage, A midsummernight's dream.

(c) Garsington Opera in collaboration with the RoyalShakespeare Company has created a new versionof A midsummer night's dream.

(d) Royal Shakespeare Company's rendition of Amidsummer night's dream, complete with a livebacking of Mendelssohn's score at theGarsington Opera has reaped great results.

8. The following text is followed by four alternatesummaries. Choose the option that best capturesthe essence of the text.

Thaler is a brilliant scholar, endlessly curious,empirically inclined and public spirited. But he is alsothe perfect spokesman for an approach that has cometo be known as behavioural economics. He does notcome across as someone lecturing others about theirshortcomings, because they feel like hisshortcomings too. Thaler recounts a dispute at anacademic conference with the orthodox economistRobert Barro: "I said that the difference between ourmodels was that he assumed that the agents in hismodel were as smart as he was, and I assumedthey were as dumb as I am. Barro agreed."(a) Thaler has turned his weaknesses into the

subject of a new branch of economic science.(b) Thaler is a scholar of behavioural economics; a

branch of economics which seeks to understandindividuals as they really are - full of weaknesses.

(c) Thaler is a brilliant scholar whose ability to laughat himself has gained him popularity.

(d) Thaler's brilliance lies in his ability to identify withthe subject of his study.

9. The following text is followed by four alternatesummaries. Choose the option that best capturesthe essence of the text.The thought that bacteria or inflammatory chemicalsreleased by immune cells in the gums can enter thebloodstream and influence the behaviour of othertissues or organs is known as the mouth-bodyconnection. In the past decade, there has been anexplosion of new research linking oral health toillnesses such as Type 2 diabetes, cancer and heartdisease. The most likely explanation is inflammation;the same heat, swelling and discomfort youexperience when you stub your toe or get an infectedsplinter, only in this case it isn't switched off. Suchchronic inflammation can be damaging to cells andthe DNA they contain.(a) To avoid diseases like diabetes and cancer, one

must take good care of one's teeth and gums.(b) A mouth-body connection exists which can lead

to inflammation and can hence, damageimportant cells.

(c) A lackadaisical approach to dental care couldcause diabetes, heart disease and cancer.

(d) People should not underestimate how the bodywill react when the mouth is neglected.

10. Read the following argument and answer the questionthat follows."In the Philippines, a study found that workers whoworked both for a piece rate and for a flat wage ate25 percent more food on the day before they workedfor piece rate."

MOCK TEST–1 1.5

Which of the following is the best justification of theabove statement?(a) The flat rates are lesser than the piece rate.(b) The flat rates are higher than the piece rate.(c) There is an inverse relation between the amount

of food one eats on the previous day and theamount of work that one can do on the next day.

(d) There is a direct relation between the amount offood one eats on the previous day and the amountof work that one can do on the next day.

11. Read the following argument and answer the questionthat follows.Stampedes during religious festivals are quitecommon in India. Over a dozen instances of pilgrimsbeing trampled to death have been recorded inindependent India, and the common thread runningthrough every such tragedy is the utter failure of theauthorities and the public alike to learn any lessonfrom previous disasters.Which of the following options justifies the author'sviews?(a) The mistakes made by the authorities are similar

in nature at each of such disasters.(b) The public needs to be actively involved in crowd

management in order to avoid disasters.(c) A feature common to religious festivals in India is

crowd management.(d) Religious festivals are very common in India and

attract a large crowd of believers to certain sacredplaces.

12. Read the following argument and answer the questionthat follows."India is perhaps the only country in the world tohave such a system, where it is punishable by lawto charge a price higher than the printed maximumretail price (MRP)."Which of the following will mitigate the effectivenessof the law mentioned above?A. It is not illegal for the shopkeeper to sell an article

at a price offered by the customer, even if it isgreater than the printed MRP.

B. It is not illegal for the shopkeeper to sell an articleat a high price in absence of an MRP.

C. The absence of a minimum selling price on thearticles allows shopkeepers to charge at will.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.(a) Only A(b) A and B(c) B and C(d) Only C

13. Read the following argument and answer the questionthat follows."It may be largely impossible to avoid getting bittenby a mosquito unless and otherwise one can remainnearly invisible and have a cool body temperature."Which of the following inferences can be drawn fromthis statement?(a) Only visual and thermal signs guide a mosquito

towards its host.(b) There are very few ways for hosts to avoid being

bitten by mosquitoes.(c) Mosquitoes are attracted to certain hosts

irrespective of what they do.(d) Mosquitoes use visual and thermal signs to locate

a host.14. Five sentences are given below, labeled 1, 2, 3, 4

and 5. In the space given below, write the mostappropriate sequence that forms a coherentparagraph/passage.(1) The further news that this book had been chosen

and was being pushed by the Book of the MonthClub, though it occasioned surprise, was pleasantbecause it seemed to herald one of thoseinstances when unusual talent of the sort rarelypopular receives recognition and a great tangiblereward.

(2) George Orwell in his critical writings showsimagination and taste; his wit is both edged andhuman.

(3) The news that he had written a satirical allegory,telling the story of a revolution by farm animalsagainst their cruel and dissolute master, and oftheir subsequent fortunes, was like the smell ofa roast from a kitchen ruled by a good cook,near the end of a hungry morning.

(4) There are times when a reviewer is happy to reportthat a book is bad because it fulfills his hope thatthe author will expose himself in a way thatpermits a long deserved castigation.

(5) Few writers of any period have been able to usethe English language so simply and accuratelyto say what they mean, and at the same time tomean something.

15. Five sentences are given below, labeled 1, 2, 3, 4and 5. In the space given below, write the mostappropriate sequence that forms a coherentparagraph/passage.(1) In such a scenario, Uber may not even have got

all the dope on Yadav, even if it had sought thisinformation.

(2) There are also several specialized agencies whichare hired by major private corporations to getbackground check done on job applicants.

1.6 MOCK TEST–1

(3) Each of these reports costs about Rs. 3000.(4) These agencies confront many stumbling blocks

in the form of bureaucratic indifference andhostility.

(5) Ultimately in most cases they manage to getonly half-baked police reports which they passon to those hiring them because they have noother option.

Directions for questions 16 to 19: The passage givenbelow is followed by a set of four questions. Choose themost appropriate answer to each question.The gospels of the New Testament, compiled somewherebetween AD 50 and 110, get older every year. They alsostay strikingly new, fuelled by a literary experimentalismthat keeps them alive not as religious artefacts but aspieces of writing.The Gospel of John stands apart, with no mention of thenativity or the breaking of bread at the last supper. Buteven though the synoptic gospels of Matthew, Mark andLuke share many of the same incidents, or "pericopes",these short, self-contained passages appear in a differentorder in each one. In Matthew, the pericopes of the Sermonon the Mount, for example, are gathered together in asingle block. In Luke, they're separate. Each gospel istherefore a reworking of predetermined material for literaryeffect. Sound familiar?The postmodern cut-up technique, as used by writersfrom William Burroughs to Julio Cortázar, is often tracedback to Dada experiments of the 1920s. Think again.The word 'pericope' comes from the Greek, meaning "cutaround", placing the gospels a mere preposition awayfrom the cut-ups of the 20th century.This resemblance to postmodern texts goes further. Thepericopes are a mash-up of genres, including exorcisms,miracle stories, parables, sayings (prophetic andapocalyptic), proverbs, instructions for church discipline,and rules for communities. With a little more typographicalflamboyance, the gospels could look like the kind ofmosaic text readers might expect from Jennifer Egan.These ancient avant-garde techniques mean that acomposite picture of Jesus and his activities are createdat the expense of a fixed realist portrait. The early churchdid consider merging the four gospels into a single linearstory. The theologian Tatian compiled a version calledthe Diatessaron ("made of four") in the second century,condensing the four gospels into a single narrative knownas a "gospel harmony". It didn't catch on.Already by AD155, Justin Martyr is comfortable referringto the gospels in the plural. He and other church leaderspreferred the narrative flexibility of four separate versions.To paraphrase Einstein, the story of Jesus should bemade as simple as possible, but no simpler than that.

The four perspectives of the New Testament offer aprefiguration of another postmodern commonplace - thereis no single incontrovertible truth. This multiple Jesusstory leaves space for interpretation between therepetitions, revisions and contradictions that punctuatefour distinct gospels.It's a notion that glints with postmodern playfulness,undermining the traditional vision of the evangelion as anauthoritative proclamation definitively announced by aherald. Instead, the one truth is announced in four differentways, a sophisticated narrative strategy that takesadvantage of the fact that unreliable narrators are simplymore plausible because they're more recognisablyhuman. Uncertainty and inconsistency better reflect theworld as it is, in AD100 just as now.The word gospel comes from the Old English "godspel",a good story. The longevity and power of the NewTestament gospels are deeply reassuring for literaryexperimentalists. Structural experiments are worthpursuing because they work - if they add to a story theauthentic textures of lived experience, then the story maylast for 2,000 years.No wonder, then, that the repeatable story of Jesusseems to invite attempts to tell it again. The ongoing21st-century renewal of the New Testament is aconstructive reaction to the original material. Don't befrightened, that's the literary message of the four pre-postmodern gospels. Be bold, writers, because there'smore than one way to approach the truth.16. Which of the following can be inferred about the

'literary experimentalism' that the author refers to inthe first paragraph?(a) There is a predetermined quality in the gospels

with the structure having been worked out for aparticular effect.

(b) The gospels of the New Testament have beenplaced through experimental literary techniquesand this has ensured a long literary shelf life forthem.

(c) Each testament is not like the other in terms ofcontent and structure.

(d) The gospels were written by four differentindividuals but structured by one.

17. Which of the following has not been stated as aresemblance between the gospels and post-moderntexts?(a) A reworking of the predetermined material for

literary effect(b) A mix of various sections including miracle stories,

parables, and proverbs(c) Multiple perspectives on a particular story that

opens the mind to interpretation(d) A typographical flamboyance that is particular to

a few postmodern authors

MOCK TEST–1 1.7

18. Why, according to the passage, would inconsistencyhelp the case of the New Testament?(a) It reflects the credibility of the text as it indicates

a lived experience and one that is more human.(b) There is no single truth and the gospel is also

open to the manifestation of many truths.(c) The gospel was to be read by many and hence it

was necessary to leave it open for interpretation.(d) They help in ensuring the longevity of the story.

19. Which of the following options would the author mostagree with?(a) The simpler the story the better acceptance it

will have.(b) Readers are willing to accept a story that has

been written through experimental techniques.(c) Addition of authenticity of an experience may

increase the longevity of a story.(d) Circumvention is a technique in story telling that

has been gaining acceptance in the postmodernworld.

Directions for questions 20 to 23: The passage givenbelow is followed by a set of four questions. Choose themost appropriate answer to each question.Colour has been used to make symbolic statements incinema since the days when "talkies" were tinted, tonedor hand-coloured. From the Wizard of Oz, with its vibrantEmerald City and yellow brick road, to the dramatic andground-breaking use of colour in Gone with the Wind,the most famous, early technicolour films harnessed thepower of colour, not only to stimulate the senses, but toenhance and express the themes of the story.Throughout cinematic history, the tradition of colourstorytelling thrived. In 1951's A Streetcar Named Desire,director Elia Kazan used colour to convey themes of classand superficiality; dressing characters of a lower classin vibrant hues to symbolise their rise to power in thecase of the former, and using Blanche DuBois' love ofcolour as metaphor for her desire to gloss over life's grittyrealities in the case of the latter.In 1968, Roman Polanski explored the relationshipbetween colour and Christianity, dressing his protagonist,Mia Farrow's Rosemary Woodhouse, in white (purity),yellow (hope) and red (martyrdom). In 1979's ApocalypseNow, Francis Ford Coppola lashed the audience withdeep red napalm flames, enveloping green jungle foliageand the foreboding, pitch black of Colonel Kurtz's lair, alloversaturated to increase the claustrophobia and senseof death. In the 90s, M. Night Shyamalan first revealedhis signature use of colour symbolism - in the SixthSense, for example, vivid pops of red show up in everyscene where living characters connect with the dead.

And in 2000, two acclaimed movies used colour as abroad storytelling device. In Christopher Nolan's Memento,colour sequences contrast with black and white to marka simple differentiation between chronological and reverse-chronological events (in an otherwise complex and brain-teasing tale), and in Steven Soderbergh's Traffic, each ofthe three separate story strands has its own palette. Butsince the turn of the century, there has been a shift. Withthe rise of superhero blockbusters and action-packedcelebrity vehicles, cinema seats have been filled at theexpense of subtlety. The craft of colour symbolism hasbeen relegated to independent moviemakers, whilemainstream jaunts blaze a 3D-enhanced trail.Colour storytelling is far from passé, however. From thecomfort of our sofas, we've watched the ambitions of smallscreen creativity explode. As competing broadcasters,including new players Netflix and Amazon, have luredmovie stars and directors into TV contracts, the limitations(and stigma) of serial television has been obliterated.Those early adopters who devoured Lost, The Wire andThe Sopranos have been rewarded with a boom in "boxset culture". And this eruption in television scope, reachand budget can be seen in a riot of thematic hues.Take Breaking Bad. Vince Gilligan's cult behemothdepicted a downtrodden, cancer-ravaged teacher'stransformation into a pork-pie-hat-wearing drug overlord,using "hot" colour to punch Walter White's modern-dayfable into living rooms across the globe. From the acidyellow of the meth makers' jumpsuits to the bright blueshade of the "product" itself, Walter's epic fall intocriminality is characterised by larger-than-life colour.Gilligan's use of colour continued in spin-off series, BetterCall Saul, with fans picking up on a "fire and ice" code;colder colours are used in scenes that convey themes ofauthority and respectability.20. Which of the following options can be best said to

express the central idea of the passage?(a) The use of colour as a symbolic statement in

cinema is not new, though the degree and typeof symbolism has varied with time.

(b) The thematic use of colour in cinema is nothingnew, but the explosion of the concept in televisionis proof that the ambitions of small screenstorytelling know no bounds.

(c) Each director has a special way in which he/sheuses colour symbolism to depict the themes inthe movie/serial.

(d) Colour symbolism in movies has been used topredict the nature of the scene and to bring in asense of the future.

1.8 MOCK TEST–1

21. According to the passage, colour has been used tosymbolise all of the following except for(a) to symbolise death or a foreboding of it.(b) to symbolise the relationship between religion

and the main character.(c) to symbolise a change in someone's social/

power status.(d) to symbolise someone's longing to artfully

mislead away from life's rough side.22. Which of the following options would the author most

agree with?(a) Colour can even be used to depict stimuli from

other senses in movies and TV serials.(b) Colour symbolism is an outdated idea.(c) The symbolic use of colour in the small screen

is only set to rise as a trend.(d) Colour has been used to help the viewer find a

common thread in a complex story line.23. Which of the following options would complete the

author's explanation of the "fire and ice" code?(a) Hotter colours may be associated with crime and

corruption.(b) Hotter colours convey a feeling of vibrancy and

energy.(c) Hotter colours are associated with crime and

corruptibility.(d) Hotter colours always bring out the aggression

in the viewer.Directions for questions 24 to 27: The passage givenbelow is followed by a set of four questions. Choose themost appropriate answer to each question.Demand-pull theory states that inflation accelerates whenaggregate demand increases beyond the ability of theeconomy to produce (its potential output). Hence, anyfactor that increases aggregate demand can causeinflation. However, in the long run, aggregate demandcan be held above productive capacity only by increasingthe quantity of money in circulation faster than the realgrowth rate of the economy. Another (although much lesscommon) cause can be a rapid decline in the demand formoney, as happened in Europe during the Black Death,or in the Japanese occupied territories just before thedefeat of Japan in 1945.The effect of money on inflation is most obvious whengovernments finance spending in a crisis, such as a civilwar, by printing money excessively. This sometimesleads to hyperinflation, a condition where prices candouble in a month or less. Money supply is also thoughtto play a major role in determining moderate levels of

inflation, although there are differences of opinion on howimportant it is. For example, Monetarist economists believethat the link is very strong; Keynesian economists, bycontrast, typically emphasize the role of aggregatedemand in the economy rather than the money supply indetermining inflation. That is, for Keynesians, the moneysupply is only one determinant of aggregate demand.Some Keynesian economists also disagree with thenotion that central banks fully control the money supply,arguing that central banks have little control, since themoney supply adapts to the demand for bank creditissued by commercial banks. This is known as the theoryof endogenous money, and has been advocated stronglyby post-Keynesians as far back as the 1960s. It hastoday become a central focus of Taylor rule advocates.This position is not universally accepted - banks createmoney by making loans, but the aggregate volume ofthese loans diminishes as real interest rates increase.Thus, central banks can influence the money supply bymaking money cheaper or more expensive, thusincreasing or decreasing its production.A fundamental concept in inflation analysis is therelationship between inflation and unemployment, calledthe Phillips curve. This model suggests that there is atrade-off between price stability and employment.Therefore, some level of inflation could be considereddesirable in order to minimize unemployment. The Phillipscurve model described the U.S. experience well in the1960s but failed to describe the combination of risinginflation and economic stagnation (sometimes referredto as stagflation) experienced in the 1970s.Thus, modern macroeconomics describes inflation usinga Phillips curve that shifts (so the trade-off betweeninflation and unemployment changes) because of suchmatters as supply shocks and inflation becoming builtinto the normal workings of the economy. The formerrefers to such events as the oil shocks of the 1970s, whilethe latter refers to the price/wage spiral and inflationaryexpectations implying that the economy "normally" suffersfrom inflation. Thus, the Phillips curve represents onlythe demand-pull component of the triangle model.Another concept of note is the potential output(sometimes called the "natural gross domestic product"),a level of GDP, where the economy is at its optimal levelof production given institutional and natural constraints.(This level of output corresponds to the Non-AcceleratingInflation Rate of Unemployment, NAIRU, or the "natural"rate of unemployment or the full-employmentunemployment rate.) If GDP exceeds its potential (andunemployment is below the NAIRU), the theory says thatinflation will accelerate as suppliers increase their pricesand built-in inflation worsens. If GDP falls below itspotential level (and unemployment is above the NAIRU),inflation will decelerate as suppliers attempt to fill excesscapacity, cutting prices and undermining built-in inflation.

MOCK TEST–1 1.9

However, one problem with this theory for policy-makingpurposes is that the exact level of potential output (andof the NAIRU) is generally unknown and tends to changeover time. Inflation also seems to act in an asymmetricway, rising more quickly than it falls. Worse, it can changebecause of policy: for example, high unemployment underBritish Prime Minister Margaret Thatcher might have ledto a rise in the NAIRU (and a fall in potential) becausemany of the unemployed found themselves as structurallyunemployed, unable to find jobs that fit their skills. A risein structural unemployment implies that a smallerpercentage of the labor force can find jobs at the NAIRU,where the economy avoids crossing the threshold intothe realm of accelerating inflation.24. Which of the given options best defines structural

unemployment?(a) A situation where people are rendered jobless by

those who possess better skills(b) A situation where people do not find employment

that befits their skills(c) A case where there are more jobs than there are

people(d) A scenario where skills are given lesser

importance than qualifications25. What according to the author is usually a

comparatively uncommon reason for the rise ofinflation?(a) Aggregate demand becoming more than

production capacity(b) A steep fall in the currency value(c) A rapid decline in the amount of money in

circulation(d) Stagnation in money circulation channels

26. Which of the below examples, highlights a prominentfailing of the Philips curve model?(a) Unemployment and inflation following clearly

disparate trends(b) Unemployment leading to an increase in price

stability(c) The steady rise of inflation with slow economic

growth(d) The observed increase in inflation in tandem with

resultant decrease in economic growth27. According to the passage under what circumstances

would built-in inflation rise?(a) High GDP, low unemployment(b) Low GDP, high unemployment(c) Price instability(d) Prevalence of structural unemployment

Directions for questions 28 to 31: The passage givenbelow is followed by a set of four questions. Choose themost appropriate answer to each question.Mutations can involve the duplication of large sections ofDNA, usually through genetic recombination. Theseduplications are a major source of raw material for evolvingnew genes, with tens to hundreds of genes duplicated inanimal genomes every million years. Most genes belongto larger families of genes of shared ancestry. Novel genesare produced by several methods, commonly throughthe duplication and mutation of an ancestral gene, or byrecombining parts of different genes to form newcombinations with new functions.Here, domains act as modules, each with a particularand independent function, that can be mixed together toproduce genes encoding new proteins with novelproperties. For example, the human eye uses four genesto make structures that sense light: three for colour visionand one for night vision; all four arose from a singleancestral gene. Another advantage of duplicating a gene(or even an entire genome) is that this increasesredundancy; this allows one gene in the pair to acquire anew function while the other copy performs the originalfunction. Other types of mutation occasionally create newgenes from previously non-coding DNA.Changes in chromosome number may involve even largermutations, where segments of the DNA withinchromosomes break and then rearrange. For example,in the Homininae, two chromosomes fused to producehuman chromosome-2; this fusion did not occur in thelineage of the other apes, and they retain these separatechromosomes. In evolution, the most important role ofsuch chromosomal rearrangements may be to acceleratethe divergence of a population into new species by makingpopulations less likely to interbreed, thereby preservinggenetic differences between these populations.Sequences of DNA that can move about the genome,such as transposons, make up a major fraction of thegenetic material of plants and animals, and may havebeen important in the evolution of genomes. For example,more than a million copies of the Alu sequence are presentin the human genome, and these sequences have nowbeen recruited to perform functions such as regulatinggene expression. Another effect of these mobile DNAsequences is that when they move within a genome,they can mutate or delete existing genes and therebyproduce genetic diversity.Non-lethal mutations accumulate within the gene pooland increase the amount of genetic variation. Theabundance of some genetic changes within the gene poolcan be reduced by natural selection, while other "morefavorable" mutations may accumulate and result inadaptive changes.

1.10 MOCK TEST–1

32. Given below are four sentences that form a paragraph.Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) thatis/are incorrect in terms of grammar, usage, spellingsand punctuation. Then, choose the most appropriateoption.A. If you're tired, you're also likely to feel frustrated,

impulsed and a bit miserable.B. Sleepiness is also often accompanied by finding

it hard to remember things, an inability toconcentrate and tendency to bump into things.

C. Thank goodness there's a cure - even on thebusiest of days.

D. It's the midday nap.(a) A and B (b) C and D(c) B and C (d) A and D

33. Given below are four sentences that form a paragraph.Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) thatis/are incorrect in terms of grammar, usage, spellingsand punctuation. Then, choose the most appropriateoption.A. The best part of my job is seeing people who

start out unfit and overweight and go on to becomehealthy and strong.

B. They often say, "I couldn't have done it withoutyou", but the truth is they have done it all bythemselves.

C. I can't control how much one eats at the end ofeach day, or give them the drive to push thatextra weight.

D. You can't stop people once they are adults.(a) A, B and C (b) B and C(c) Only C (d) D and A

34. Given below are four sentences that form a paragraph.Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) thatis/are incorrect in terms of grammar, usage, spellingsand punctuation. Then, choose the most appropriateoption.A. I ask my mother and my aunt Mary about their

approach, and its the same.B. For Mary, it's obvious: you want to eat something

that is fresh, cooked just right, arranged withpurpose.

C. There's nothing worse than a grey, boiled meal.D. But it's the ingredeints first and foremost that

matter: if it's fresh, it'll be beautiful.(a) B and C (b) A and D(c) C and A (d) D and B

For example, a butterfly may produce offspring with newmutations. The majority of these mutations will have noeffect; but one might change the color of one of thebutterfly's offspring, making it harder (or easier) forpredators to see. If this color change is advantageous,the chance of this butterfly's surviving and producing itsown offspring are a little better, and over time the numberof butterflies with this mutation may form a largerpercentage of the population.Neutral mutations are defined as mutations whose effectsdo not influence the fitness of an individual. These canaccumulate over time due to genetic drift. It is believedthat the overwhelming majority of mutations have nosignificant effect on an organism's fitness. Also, DNArepair mechanisms are able to mend most changesbefore they become permanent mutations, and manyorganisms have mechanisms for eliminating otherwise-permanently mutated somatic cells.And as it has been observed, beneficial mutations, usually,improve reproductive success.28. Which of the following can be attributed to the

emergence of new species as given in the thirdparagraph?(a) Addition of chromosomes(b) Mutations involving chromosomal segments(c) Fusion of chromosomal segments(d) An increased instance of interbreeding

29. Which of the following, if true, would most seriouslyweaken the idea behind natural selection as explainedby the butterfly example in the passage?(a) A black-coloured butterfly thriving in an area where

there are no woods.(b) A black-coloured butterfly thriving in an area where

the woods are black.(c) A white-coloured butterfly thriving in an area where

the woods are black.(d) A white-coloured butterfly thriving in an area where

there are no woods.30. According to the passage, most mutations are-

(a) independent mutations(b) involve gene deletions(c) neutral mutations(d) involve gene additions

31. What purpose has the example of the human eyebeen cited for?(a) To highlight the workings of genetic renewal(b) To give an example for chromosomal duplication(c) To highlight the impact of mutation(d) To differentiate between the genes responsible

for colour vision and night vision

MOCK TEST–1 1.11

DI & LRDirections for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questionson the basis of the information given below.India is a major producer of wheat, and it exports somepart of its production every year. The remaining part isconsumed domestically. When the availability is lessthan demand, government is forced to import wheat inorder to meet the required demand. If availability is equalto or more than demand, then the availability becomesequal to consumption.Following chart shows the per capita availability of wheat(In Kg) in different years.

Per capita availability of wheat( in kg)

28 29.432 32.4

35

05

10152025303540

2005 2006 2007 2008 2009

The following chart gives the information about productionand exports during the given period

Product and Export of Wheat (in Million Kg)

12801400

11001310 1385

575420360

630520

0

500

1000

1500

2005 2006 2007 2008 2009

Production Export

Availability = Production – ExportDuring the given period, India exported wheat at the rateof Rs. 90/Kg and imported at the rate of Rs. 150/Kg.35. In which year, during the given period, was the

consumption of wheat in India as a percentage ofexport the highest? (Assume India did not importwheat during the given period.)(a) 2008 (b) 2007(c) 2005 (d) Data insufficient

36. In which of the following years was the population ofIndia the lowest?(a) 2007 (b) 2006(c) 2009 (d) 2008

37. In 2007, if 20% of demand was met by imports, thenby what percent was earning from exports less/morethan expenditure on import of wheat?(a) 16.75% more (b) 45.95% more(c) 8.25% less (d) 16.75% less

38. What was the average annual increase in production(in terms of percentage) of wheat from 2005 to 2009?(a) 2.56% (b) 2.05%(c) 10.24% (d) None of these

Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questionson the basis of the information given below.The line graph given below shows the profit percentageof three companies – Ibay, Dabong and Syntra – duringthe period 2005-2010.

05

1015202530354045

2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010

Ibay Dabong Syntra

Profit = Revenue – ExpenditureProfit percentage = (Profit/Expenditure) × 10039. If revenue of Ibay in 2008 increased by 40% over that

in the year 2007, then what was the percentagechange in profit of Ibay for the same period?(a) 40% increase (b) 30% decrease(c) 2% decrease (d) 21.9% decrease

40. Revenue of Ibay in 2007 was equal to the expenditureof Syntra in 2006, and profit of Ibay in 2007 exceededthat of Syntra in 2006 by Rs.24 crores, then whatwas the expenditure (in Rs. crore) of Ibay in 2007?(a) 100 (b) 200(c) 10 (d) 280

41. In which year was the percentage increase/decreasein the profit of the company Dabong with respect tothe previous year the highest?(a) 2006 (b) 2009(c) 2008 (d) Data insufficient

42. If revenue of Dabong in 2007 increased by 25% overthat in the year 2006, then what is the approximatepercentage change in expenditure of Dabong in theyear 2007 over 2006?(a) No change (b) 16.66% increase(c) 20% increase (d) 25% increase

1.12 MOCK TEST–1

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questionson the basis of the information given below.The following tables show data related to the investmentsmade by a group of investors comprising 120 Indiansand 80 NRIs in three real estate projects – one each inMumbai, Pune and Nagpur. It is also known that each ofthe 200 investors invested in all the three projects.

Mumbai Pune

Indian NRI

26(12-30) 11(18-35)

20(31-48) 21(36-50)

34(49-60) 32(51-64)

40(61-90) 16(65-90)

Indian NRI

45(6-18) 18(11-20)

26(19-34) 16(21-35)

34(35-52) 21(36-50)

15(53-70) 25(51-79)

Nagpur

Indian NRI

32(9-22) 16(12-29)

36(23-36) 20(30-44)

21(37-50) 26(45-58)

31(51-65) 18(59-70)

For example, in Nagpur’s project, the investments madeby 32 Indians was in the range of 9 lakhs to 22 lakhs, thelowest investment was 9 lakhs and highest investmentwas 22 lakhs.

43. Which of the following can be true about theinvestments made in the Mumbai project?(a) Total investment made by NRI investors could be

more than that by Indian investors.(b) Average investment made by NRI investors could

be more than that by Indian investors.(c) Average investment made by an Indian investors

could be 42 lakhs.(d) More than one of the above

44. If the investors who invested at least 36 lakhs in eachof the three projects were gifted a car, then thenumber of Indian investors who got a car cannot beless than(a) 16 (b) 12(c) 8 (d) 0

45. The number of NRI investors who invested at least50 lakhs in each of the three projects was at most(a) 25 (b) 43(c) 44 (d) 52

46. Which of the following could be a value of the averageinvestment (in lakhs) made by NRI investors in theMumbai project ?(a) 46.05 (b) 39.5(c) 61.5 (d) None of these

Direction for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.Last year election were held in all the four zones – east, west, north and south zone of Goa. The following table showsthe data related to votes polled across four zones of Goa in the recently held elections.

(in '000)

520

663 640690

460

611 586636

235308 298 320

265323 309 337

0

100

200

300

400

500

600

700

800

North Zone East Zone South Zone West Zone

Total Number of Votes Polled Total Number of Valid Votes

Number of Valid Votes by Male Voters Votes Polled by Females

MOCK TEST–1 1.13

Election Commission of India declares a zone as“Developed Electoral Zone” if it satisfies the following twoconditions–(i) Number of votes polled by female voters should not

be less than the votes polled by male voters in thatzone by more than 5%.

(ii) For both male and female, valid votes cast should beat least 90% of respective votes polled.

47. How many Zones in Goa are declared as “DevelopedElectoral Zones”?(a) 0 (b) 1(c) 2 (d) 3

48. In how many zones, was the number of valid votesas a percent of the total number of votes polled higherfor male voters as compared to that of female voters?

49. In which zone was the number of votes polled bymale voters as a percentage of total number of votespolled in that zone the highest ?(a) South (b) East(c) North (d) West

50. In how many zones was the number of votes polledby female voters more than 25% of the total votespolled by female voters in all the four zones together?(a) 1 (b) 2(c) 3 (d) Cannot be determined

Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questionson the basis of the information given below.In a group of ten students – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I andJ – each pursuing Phd, every student has chosen twosubjects – one as a compulsory subject from amongHistory, Chemistry, English and Politics and the otheras an optional subject from among Economics, History,Geography and Sociology. Each of the compulsorysubjects was chosen by a different number of students,which is at least one, and the same is true for the optionalsubjects. Further it is also known that:1. Three students have chosen History as their compulsory

subject and each of these students has chosen adifferent optional subject but none of them has chosenSociology. I has chosen History as both of his/hersubjects.

2. Both D and H have chosen English as theircompulsory subject and this is the only pair ofstudents in which both the students have chosenthe same compulsory subject as well as sameoptional subjects, which is different from thecompulsory subject. A has chosen the same optionalsubject which has been chosen by both D and H astheir optional subject.

3. Maximum number of students have chosen Historyas their optional subject.No two students who havechosen History as their optional subject have thesame compulsory subject.

4. E has chosen English as his/her compulsory subjectand Economics as the optional subject.

5. No one has chosen the same optional subject whichB has chosen as optional subject. B and C havechosen the same compulsory subjects while G andA have chosen different compulsory subjects.

6. C and F have chosen different compulsory subjectsas well as optional subjects. C has chosenEconomics as his/her optional subject.

7. F and G have chosen different compulsory subjectsbut the same optional subjects. G has chosenPolitics as his compulsory subject.

51. How many students have chosen Geography as theoptional subject?

52. Who has chosen Chemistry and Sociology as his/her compulsory and optional subjects respectively?(a) F (b) B(c) A (d) J

53. The compulsory subject chosen by F is(a) Chemistry (b) English(c) History (d) Either (a) or (b)

54. Which of the following represents the group ofstudents who have chosen History as their optionalsubject?(a) I, D, A and H (b) I, J, F and G(c) I,G and F (d) None of these

Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questionson the basis of the information given below.Four friends – Clarke, Sen, Steve and Richard – are sittingin a row (not necessarily in the same order ) and theirchildren – Clive, Jordan, Mark and Ken – are sitting inthe row behind them. Each child is seated directly behindhis/her respective father. Each friend has exactly onechild. All of them are wearing jackets, the colours ofwhich are from among blue, brown, green and yellow. Notwo friends are wearing jackets of the same colour andthe same holds true for the children. No father is wearingjackets of the same colour as worn by his child. It is alsoknown that:1. Clarke’s child is wearing blue coloured jacket.2. Ken’s father is wearing neither blue nor yellow

coloured jacket.3. Steve is sitting immediately next to the friends who

are wearing green and brown coloured jackets.

1.14 MOCK TEST–1

4. Richard’s child is wearing yellow coloured jacket.5. Clarke and Richard are sitting at the extreme ends.6. Sen is not wearing a brown coloured jacket.7. Mark is Sen’s child.8. The child wearing the green coloured jacket is

immediately left of the child who is wearing the yellowcoloured jacket.

55. Which one of the following pairs does not containthe names of person who would be wearing the Yellowcoloured jacket?(a) Clive and ken (b) Mark and ken(c) Ken and Jordan (d) Clive and Jordan

56. Which of the following statement(s) may be true?(i) Ken is sitting immediately next to Sen’s child.(ii) Clive’s father is wearing the brown coloured jacket.(iii) Jordan is wearing the blue coloured jacket.(a) Only (i) and (ii) (b) Only (i)(c) Only (iii) (d) Only (ii) and (iii)

57. How many of the following statements cannot beinferred with certainty from the given information?(i) Colour of Sen’s Jacket(ii) Name of Clive’s father(iii) Colour of Ken’s jacket(iv) Name of the friend whose child is wearing green

coloured jacket(v) Name of the child wearing blue coloured jacket(vi) Name of Steve’s child(a) 2 (b) 3(c) 4 (d) More than 4

58. What is the colour of Richard’s jacket?(a) Brown (b) Blue(c) Yellow (d)Green

Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questionson the basis of the information given below.Six friends – Jatin, Ketan, Lalit, Manoj, Nitin and Pulkit –went to a general shop with Rs. 99,78,90,74,82 and 86respectively. The shopkeeper had seven different typesof chocolates – stix, barone, munch, perk, crackle,snickers and silk – worth Rs. 8, 12, 20, 25, 30, 34 and60 per chocolate respectively. These friends spent theirmoney only on chocolates. It is also known that:1. Each chocolate was purchased by at least two friends

and no one bought more than one unit of the sametype of chocolate.

2. Each friend bought either 3 or 4 chocolates.

3. Only barone was bought by 5 people.4. Except one friend, who spent all his money, each

friend was left with some amount of money after theycompleted their shopping. The amount left with noneof them was sufficient enough to buy any otherchocolate.

5. Nitin bought more number of chocolates than whatPulkit bought. Lalit bought 3 chocolates and snickerswas not one of them.

6. Ketan did not buy crackle and Jatin did not buy silk.59. Who did not buy barone?

(a) Jatin (b) Ketan(c) Lalit (d) Pulkit

60. How many chocolates were bought by the six friendsput together?(a) 22 (b) 19(c) 20 (d) 21

61. How many friends bought both snickers and stix?(a) Zero (b) One(c) Two (d) cannot be determined

62. Who among the following was/were left with Rs.7?(i) Jatin (ii) Ketan(iii) Nitin (iv) Pulkit(a) Both (i) and (iv) (b) Only (iii)(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) only (ii)

Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questionson the basis of the information given below.Six countries – India, Japan, Norway ,Germany, Braziland China – are ranked on the basis of three parameters– Infant mortality rate(IMR), Sex ratio(SR) and Literacyrate(LR). The country with the highest LR value is ranked1 and that with the lowest LR value is ranked 6. Thesame holds true for SR as well. The country with thehighest IMR is ranked 6 and that with the lowest IMR isranked 1. Sex ratio is defined as the number of females(an integral value) for every 1000 males.Some additional information is given below:1. No country is given the same rank on any of the two

parameters out of the three, and no two countriesare given the same rank on any of the three parameters.

2. The number of countries having higher IMR value thanthat of Japan is equal to the number of countrieshaving higher SR value than that of Brazil.

3. Japan is given the same rank on SR as China isgiven on LR and China is given the same rank on SRas Japan is given on LR.

MOCK TEST–1 1.15

4. India has higher SR and LR values as compared toBrazil, China and Germany.

5. Norway is ranked 2 on IMR, Germany is ranked 3 onLR and China is ranked 6 on IMR.

6. The sum of the numerical values of three ranks givento a country is not maximum for Brazil.

7. The number of countries that are given higher rankon LR than what China is given is equal to the numberof countries that are given lower lower rank on SRthan what China is given.

63. What is the rank of Norway on LR?(a) 6 (b) 4(c) 5 (d) 2

64. If females do not outnumber males in any of the sixcountries, then which of the following countries canhave sex ratio of 998?(i) Germany (ii) India(iii) Japan (iv) Norway(v) Brazil(a) Only (ii) and (v) (b) Only (ii)(c) Only (ii),(iii) and (iv) (d) Only (ii) and (iii)

65. If the sum of the three ranks is a prime number forexactly three countries, then what is the rank of Indiaon IMR?

66. If the country having the least sum of the three ranksis given the best rating, then which country is giventhe best rating?(a) Norway (b) India(c) Japan (d) Cannot be determined

QA67. N = a4 + 4a, where ‘a’ is a natural number. For how

many values of ‘a’ is N a prime number?(a) One (b) Two(c) Three (d) Infinitely many

68. A fruit dealer fixes selling price of watermelon juicein such a way that he ends up earning a profit of30% after paying tax, which is 13% of the cost price.A shopkeeper buys watermelon juice from the dealerand marks up the price by 15% and then adds 25%water to the juice. He then gives a discount of 4% onjuice to his customers and thereby sells juice at Rs.98.67 per litre. What is the cost price per litre of thewatermelon juice for the fruit dealer?(a) Rs. 47.50 (b) Rs. 50.00(c) Rs. 52.20 (d) Rs. 87.50

69. If log2(x2 + 3x) = log2(x + 3) + 2, then x = ?(a) 2 (b) 4(c) –3 or 2 (d) 4 or –3

70. In right-angled triangle PQR with Q = 90°, S is themid-point of PR, and QS = 117 cm . The sum ofthe length of sides PQ and QR is 30 cm. What isthe area (in cm2) of PQR?

71. In a landlocked country named Afjanistan, there areonly two banks namely B1 and B2. On fixed deposits,B1 pays interest in the form of simple interest at therate of 10% and B2 pays interest in the form ofcompound interest, compounded annually, at thesame rate. A man deposits 12000 Euros in B1 andwithdraws the amount generated at the end of theyear and deposits it in B2. At the end of the secondyear, he withdraws the amount from B2 and depositsit in B1. At the end of the third year, he withdrawsthe amount from B1 and deposits it in B2. Hecontinues with this strategy. After a minimum of howmany years (approximately) will he get an amountwhich is more than 20400 Euros?(a) 5 (b) 6(c) 7 (d) 8

72. If (x, y, z) R and x 0, y 0 and z 0, then whichof the following statements is necessarily true?

I. If x > y, then y1

x1

II. If x > y and z > 0, then x yz z

(a) Only statement I(b) Only statement II(c) Both the statements I and II(d) Neither statement I nor II

73. If both the equations x2 + 4x + C = 0 and x2 + 4x –C = 0, have rational roots, where ‘C’ is a naturalnumber, then the number of possible values of C are(a) 0 (b) 2(c) 3 (d) 1

74. One of the angles of a triangle is 60° and lengths oftwo of its sides are 6 cm and 7 cm. The length (incm) of the third side of the triangle is

(a) 43

(b) 3 22

(c) 43 or 3 22

(d) 3 22

1.16 MOCK TEST–1

75. If X is the smallest number that is divisible by both 6and 5, then the highest power of 10 that wouldcompletely divide the product of the first 20 multiplesof X is(a) 4 (b) 24(c) 27 (d) 20

76. The game of Doku is played on an array using thenatural numbers 1 to 4. The array is shown as below.

C11 C12 C13 C14

C21 C22 C23 C24

According to the rule of the game, the numbers mustbe filled such that:I. No digit repeats in a row or a column.II. All the four digits must be used in the square

formed by C11, C12, C21 and C22 as well as inthat formed by C13, C14, C23 and C24 also.

The maximum number of different Doku results thatcan be arrived at without the pattern being repeatedis:(a) 576 (b) 96(c) 48 (d) 24

77. Vikram has a certain number of gold coins with him.He wants to distribute these coins among his 3 sonsand 3 daughters. He also wants to keep some coins

with him. He keeps one coin with him and gives 15

of the remaining to his first son; out of the remaining

coins, he keeps one coin with him and gives 15 of

the remaining to his second son; and he does thesame with his third son. He then distributes theremaining coins among his 3 daughters in the ratio23 : 46 : 55. The number of coins with Vikram couldnot be less than(a) 246 (b) 124(c) 624 (d) 196

78. In the diagram given below, ABC is an equilateraltriangle and all the circles inside it are of the sameradius. Each circle touches at least one side of thetriangle and at least two other circles as shown below.If the radius of each circle is R units, then find thearea of the triangle.

A

B C

(a) 2R (6 7 3) sq. units

(b) 9R2 sq. units

(c) 2R (12 7 3) sq. units

(d) 2R (9 6 3) sq. units

79. If

2

29x 42x 49y9x 42x 64

, then

(a) 0 y < 1 (b) 1–1 y

15

(c) 0 < y < (d) 1 y

1580. If a7! + b8! + c9! + d10! = x, where a, b, c and d are

natural numbers that are not multiples of 10, then howmany distinct values of unit’s digit of x are possible?(a) 10 (b) 9(c) 8 (d) 4

81. A group comprises 11 people namely A1, A2, A3’ ......A11. The ages of 11 people, in the order in whichtheir names are given, are in an arithmeticprogression. If the sum of the ages of A1, A3, A5, A7,A9

and A11is 72, then what is the sum of the ages ofA1, A6 and A11?

82. If f(g(x))= g(f(x)) = h(x), which of the following isdefinitely true?(a) If f(x)= x + 2 then g(x) can’t be x – 10.(b) If f(x) = g(x) then h(x) = [f(x)]2.(c) f(h(x)) = h(f(x)).(d) None of these

83. In the figure given below, altitude PS of triangle PQRmeets the circumcircle of the triangle at T. If ST = 3cm and H is the orthocentre of the triangle PQR,then what is the length of the line segment HT?

Q R

T

S

U

P

H

(a) 4.5 cm(b) 5 cm(c) 6 cm(d) 4 cm

84. From a solution, containing milk and water in theratio 3 : 5, 20% of the solution is taken out andreplaced with milk. How many more times shouldthis process be repeated to make the ratio of milk towater in the final solution 17 : 8 ?

MOCK TEST–1 1.17

85. There are 2n consecutive natural numbers. If (n + 1)numbers are randomly selected, then what is theprobability that their HCF is 1?

(a)12

(b)1n

1

(c)n21

(d) 01

(2n)86. Which of the following graphs represents the function

y = min (x2,|| x | – 3 | )

(a) –3 3 x

y

(b) –3 3 x

y

(c)–3 3 x

y

(d) –3 3 x

y

87. In a relay race between two groups A and B (5 peoplein each group and the speeds of each group memberbeing different), group A defeats group B by 50 m. Ifeach member of group B increases his speed byx%, then group B defeats group A by 125 m. Thespeeds of the last runners of groups A and B are 25km/hr and 20 km/hr respectively and the time takenby group A to complete the race is 4 min. Find theapproximate value of x. (Assume that each runnerhas to run more than 125 m.)(a) 11.75(b) 12.15(c) 10(d) 15

88. In an n-sided regular polygon, how many distinctvalues can the length of diagonals take?

(a)n(n 3)

2

(b)n 3

2

(c)n 2

2

(d) Either (b) or (c)

89. If H.C.F.(n, 4) = 2 and n < 6, which of the followingnumbers does not divide (54n – 32n)?(a) 317 (b) 13(c) 11 (d) 7

90. Raju, a rice dealer, has packets of 10 kg, 50 kg, 100kg and 1000 kg of rice with him. He has to deliver anorder of 1,380 kgs of rice. The cost price of rice forRaju is Re.1/kg. The transportation cost is Rs. 8 perpacket, irrespective of packet’s weight. If he deliversfull packets only, what is the minimum cost (costprice and transportation cost together) that he wouldincur in order to deliver the order?

(a) Rs. 1444 (b) Rs. 1414(c) Rs. 1448 (d) Rs. 1426

91. A group of five men started painting a wall in such away that 3 additional men joined them on the 2nd dayand 2 men left on the third day. Similarly, 3 additionalmen joined the group on the 4th day and 2 men lefton the fifth day. The same process is repeated tillthe completion of the work. If the wall was completelypainted in 15 days, find the number of days that 29men, working simultaneously, would take to paintthe wall completely.(a) 7 (b) 5

(c)173 (d)

9729

92. The sum of 30 terms of an arithmetic progression is0. If the first term is –29, find the sum of the last 3terms of the progression.

93. ‘abc’, a three-digit number, has three factors. Howmany factors of the number ‘abcabc’ are possible?(a) 24 (b) 16(c) 8 (d) Either (a) or (b)

94. In PQR, the incircle touches the sides QR, RP andPQ at T, U and S respectively. If the radius of theincircle is 4 units and the lengths of QT, RU and PSare consecutive integers, the area of the triangle PQR(in sq. units) is(a) 42 (b) 84(c) 21 (d) 48

95. On a planet, named M, one day has 36 hours, and itfollows a 9-hour clock (like we follow a 12-hour clock).In an hour, there are 100 minutes and in a minute,there are 200 seconds. Moreover, the hour hand andthe second hand move in a clockwise direction, whilethe minute hand moves in an anticlockwise direction.On the planet, how many times will the hour handand the minute hand meet in a day?(a) 32 (b) 36(c) 40 (d) 44

96. Find the sum of infinite terms of the series

2 3 44 9 16 251 ...3 3 3 3

(a)92

(b)72

(c)52

(d)32

1.18 MOCK TEST–1

97. In the figure given below, ABC is an equilateraltriangle of side 14 cm. A semicircle, taking BC asits diameter, is drawn and it intersects AB at D andAC at E. Find the area of the shaded region.

A

B C

D E

(a) 2cm32

49

(b) 2cm

23

349

(c) 49 cm2 (d) 2349 cm3 4

98. If (52a)b = (169)11,where a and b are single digit natural

numbers, and the difference between a and b is 2,then find the value of (a + b).(a) 6(b) 8(c) 10(d) 14

99. There are four towns (located in the same directionwith respect to Sunil’s house) namely A, B, C andD, along a highway, at distances 10, 20, 35 and 45miles, respectively. Sunil wants to set up a shop toservice these four towns. If the demand from each ofthese towns is found to be identical and there are noother shops servicing them, where should he set uphis shop to minimize the cost of transportation,considering he travels through the highway only?(a) Anywhere between towns A and B(b) Anywhere between towns B and C(c) at town B(d) at town C

100. For sets A and B the following operations are defined as:A – B is the set of all elements of set A that arenot elements of set B;A B is the set of all elements that appear ineither A or B or both A and B;A B is the set of all elements that are commonto both sets A and B.With the above definitions, if P, Q and R are threesets, then P – (Q – R) is equivalent to(a) (P – Q) (P R) (b) P – (Q R)(c) P – (Q R) (d) (P – Q) (P – R)

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