– Medical – - apex

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Entrance Preparation Booklet

Salient Features of AEACourses specially designed for BE, IOE (TU) & CEE Distinguished faculties of various Universities/Colleges Distribution of books/reading materials Well equipped, spacious, peaceful and lighted modern classrooms Daily/Weekly model test based on IOE (TU) & CEE Facilities and easy access for entrance exams in various Medical/BE colleges Affordable fee structure Scholarship for deserving students Discount for group students Effective information about scholarship schemes at foreign Medical/BE colleges Counselling for the admission for various Medical/BE programs Separate hostel facilities for boys and girls

Course of StudyAEA has especially designed BE/Medical courses to suit the entrance examination of the following

universities. Institute of Medicine (CEE) Ministry of Education (CEE) Kathmandu University (CEE) BPKIHS (CEE) PAHS (CEE) IOE TU For BE IOE TU Pokhara University, Purbanchal University, Kathmandu University, Madhyapaschim University

and Far Western Universtiy

Course DurationAEA offers 4 months package course for the students immediately after their +2 examination. All

the courses are designed to suit the entrance examination of Medical and BE. Courses are designed by the Professors & Lectures of Universities and reputed Colleges which help the students to sharpen their knowledge.

– Medical –SYLLABUS

Undergraduate Common Entrance Examination2020

General consensus:A common consensus on relevant issues related to syllabus were generated with brainstorming

and regular discussions as per above mentioned process involving all stakeholders related to training of undergraduate academic programs.Experts agreed to develop the syllabus for four groups representing all the undergraduate programs:

1. MBBS/BDS/BSc Nursing/BASLP/ B Perfusion Technology2. BAMS/BSc MLT/BSc MIT/BPT/BPharm/B Optometry3. BPH (Bachelor in Public Health)4. BNS (Bachelor in Nursing Science)

A consensus was generated to have entrance test paper with 200 multiple choice questions to improve content coverage as well as to match with the recent practice. This will also help

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differentiation of the candidates by minimizing the tie in the marks among the candidates. Multiple choice questions (MCQs) will be of Single Best Response Type (Type A) with four options. Adopt Criterion Referenced Test with 50% pass mark with no negative marking. A consensus was generated to allow 3 hours with instruction to paper setter that the stem or vignette

of the MCQs should not exceed 60 words. All agreed to include 20 MCQs from Mental Agility Test for all the academic programs. For the programs with eligibility also from PCL in Health Sciences, a consensus was generated to

include 20 MCQs related to the specific subject as per the respective PCL programs. Difficulty level of the items should be set from the time of item preparation as:

1. Recall: 30%2. Understanding: 50%3. Application and above: 20%

1. MBBS/BDS/BSc Nursing/BASLP/B Perfusion TechnologyA. Eligibility

a. Passed 10+2 Science (Biology Group) or Equivalent securing at least 50% separately in Physics, Chemistry and Biology with 50% aggregate in total marks OR Secured at least C+ grade separately in Physics, Chemistry and Biology with at least C grade in remaining individual subjects along with GPA 2.4 OR Secured the Percentage equivalent to above eligibility in regards to the certificate level programs (A-Level) with different grading system

ORb. Applicants who have passed the Health Science Proficiency Certificate Level /Diploma (General

Medicine, Medical Lab Technology, Ophthalmic Science, Dental Science, Pharmacy, Ayurveda, Radiography, Physiotherapy) with Certificate of Equivalence to Grade 12 Science program from National Examination Board AND

c. Secured at least 50% separately in Physics, Chemistry and Biology with 50% aggregate in total marks both in Diploma and the Examination for Equivalence AND

d. Registered in Nepal Health Professional council or Nepal Pharmacy Council or Nepal Ayurveda Council as per related educational program.

B. Examination Formata. Question type: Single best response type of multiple-choice questionsb. Option: Four options (A, B, C, D)c. Number of questions: 200d. Full marks: 200e. Cognitive ratio: Recall: Understanding: Application - 30:50:20f. Duration: 3 hours

C. WeightageS.N. Content/Domain Question

a. Zoology 401. Biology, origin and evolution of life 42. General characteristics and classification of protozoa to chordata. 83. Plasmodium, earthworm and frog, 84. Human biology and human diseases 145. Animal tissues 46. Environmental pollution, adaptation and animal behavior, application of zoology 2b. Botany 407. Basic component of life and biodiversity 118. Ecology and environment 59. Cell biology and genetics 12

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10. Anatomy and physiology 711. Developmental and applied botany 5 c. Chemistry 5012. General and physical chemistry 1813. Inorganic chemistry 1414. Organic chemistry 18 d. Physics 5015. Mechanics 1016. Heat and thermodynamics 617. Geometrical optics and physical optics 618. Current electricity and magnetism 919. Sound waves, electrostatics and capacitors 620. Modern physics and nuclear physics 621. Solid and semiconductor devices (electronics) 422. Particle physics, source of energy and universe 3 e. Mental Agility Test (MAT) 2023. Verbal reasoning 524. Numerical reasoning 525. Logical sequencing 526. Spatial relation / Abstract reasoning 5

Total 200

2. BAMS/BSc MLT/BSc MIT/BPT/BPharm/B OptometryA. Eligibility

a. Passed 10+2 Science (Biology Group) or Equivalent securing at least 50% separately in Physics, Chemistry and Biology with 50% aggregate in total marks OR Secured at least C+ grade separately in Physics, Chemistry and Biology with at least C grade in remaining individual subjects along with GPA 2.4 OR Secured the percentage equivalent to above eligibility in regards to the certificate level programs (A-Level) with different grading system

ORb. Applicants who have passed the Health Science Proficiency Certificate Level in respective PCL

program (General Medicine, Medical Lab Technology, Ophthalmic Science, Dental Science, Pharmacy) with at least 50% aggregate in total marks AND

c. Registered in Nepal Health Professional Council or Nepal Pharmacy Council or Nepal Ayurveda Council as per related educational program.

B. Examination Formata. Question type: Single best response type of multiple-choice questionsb. Option: Four options (A, B, C, D)c. Number of questions: 200d. Full marks: 200e. Cognitive ratio: Recall: Understanding: Application - 30:50:20f. Duration: 3 hours

C. WeightageS.N. Content/Domain Question

a. Zoology 401. Biology, origin and evolution of life 42. General characteristics and classification of protozoa to chordata. 8

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3. Plasmodium, earthworm and frog, 84. Human biology and human diseases 145. Animal tissues 46. Environmental pollution, adaptation and animal behavior, application of zoology 2 b. Botany 407. Basic component of life and biodiversity 118. Ecology and environment 59. Cell biology and genetics 1210. Anatomy and physiology 711. Developmental and applied botany 5 c. Chemistry 4012. General and physical chemistry 1513. Inorganic chemistry 1014. Organic chemistry 15 d. Physics 4015. Mechanics 916. Heat and thermodynamics 517. Geometrical optics and physical optics 518. Current electricity and magnetism 719. Sound waves, electrostatics and capacitors 520. Modern physics and nuclear physics 521. Solid and semiconductor devices (electronics) 222. Particle physics, source of energy and universe 2 e. Contents from PCL level course of specific subject 2023. Contents from PCL/ diploma level course of specific subject 20 f. Mental Agility Test (MAT) 2024. Verbal reasoning 525. Numerical reasoning 526. Logical sequencing 527. Spatial relation / Abstract reasoning 5

Total 200

3. BPH (Bachelor in Public Health)A. Eligibility

a. Passed 10+2 Science (Biology Group) or Equivalent securing at least 50% separately in Physics, Chemistry and Biology with 50% aggregate in total marks OR Secured at least C+ grade separately in Physics, Chemistry and Biology with at least C grade in remaining individual subjects along with GPA 2.4 OR Secured the grades equivalent to above eligibility in regards to the certificate level programs (A-Level) with different grading system

ORB. Applicants who have passed the Health Science Proficiency Certificate Level/ Diploma in respective

PCL program (General Medicine, Medical Lab Technology, Ophthalmic Science, Dental Science, Pharmacy, Ayurveda, Nursing, Radiography, Physiotherapy) with at least 50% aggregate in total marks. AND

C. Registered in Nepal Health Professional Council or Nepal Pharmacy Council, Nepal Nursing Council or Nepal Ayurveda Council as per related educational program.

D. Examination Format

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a. Question type: Single best response type of multiple-choice questionsb. Option: Four options (A, B, C, D)c. Number of questions: 200d. Full marks: 200e. Cognitive ratio: Recall: Understanding: Application - 30:50:20f. Duration: 3 hours

E. Weightage S.N. Content/Domain Question

a. Zoology 401. Biology, origin and evolution of life 42. General characteristics and classification of protozoa to chordata. 83. Plasmodium, earthworm and frog, 84. Human biology and human diseases 145. Animal tissues 46. Environmental pollution, adaptation and animal behavior, application of zoology 2b. Botany 407. Basic component of life and biodiversity 118. Ecology and environment 59. Cell biology and genetics 1210. Anatomy and physiology 711. Developmental and applied botany 5 c. Chemistry 4012. General and physical chemistry 1513. Inorganic chemistry 1014. Organic chemistry 15 d. Physics 4015. Mechanics 916. Heat and thermodynamics 517. Geometrical optics and physical optics 518. Current electricity and magnetism 719. Sound waves, electrostatics and capacitors 520. Modern physics and nuclear physics 521. Solid and semiconductor devices (electronics) 222. Particle physics, source of energy and universe 2e. Pre-requisite Health Knowledge (Basic Concepts) 2023. Determinants of health and illness 524. Communicable diseases including vector borne diseases and zoonotic diseases 525. Non-communicable diseases 326. Water, sanitation and hygiene (WASH) 227. Basic concept of biostatistics and epidemiology 5 f. Mental Agility Test (MAT) 2028. Verbal reasoning 529. Numerical reasoning 530. Logical sequencing 531. Spatial relation / Abstract reasoning 5

Total 200

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Medical Colleges of Tribhuvan UniversityColleges University

1.

Maharajgunj Medical Campus (MMC, IOM), Maharajgunj, Kathmandu01-4413729/4410911

TU

2.

Nepalese Army Institute of Health Sciences (NAIHS), Kathmandu01-4881259

TU

3.

Chitwan Medical College(CMC), Chitwan056-532933

TU

4.

Universal College of Medical Sciences (UCMS), Bhairawa071-522896/522938

TU

5.

National medical college(NMC), Birgunj051-532260

TU

6.

Kist Medical College,Imadol, Lalitpur01-6916201

TU

7.

Gandaki Medical College(GMC), Pokhara061-538595

TU

8.Janaki Medical College (JMC), Janakpur041-524724/524214

TU

Program in NepalS.N Colleges University

1.

Kathmandu University School of Medical Science (KUSMS), Dhulikhel, Kavre011-490497/490727

KU

2.Kathmandu Medical College(KMC), Kathmandu01-4469064/44779

KU

3.

Manipal College of Medical Sciences(MCOMS), Pokhara061-440387/440600

KU

4.Nepalgunj Medical College(NGMC), Nepalgunj081-529119/529116

KU

5.Nepal Medical College (NMC), Kathmandu01-4486008/4486009

KU

6.Nobel Medical College(NMC), Biratnagar021-535120/533806

KU

7.College of Medical Sciences(COMS), Bharatpur056-520367/521886/525013

KU

8.Birat Medical College(BMC), Biratnagar021-421063/421182

KU

9.Devdaha Medical College(DMC), Butwal071-403001

KU

10.

Lumbini Medical College(LMC), Palpa075-520840/522217

KU

1. Patan Academy of Health Sciences (PAHS)

Patan, Lalitpur - Ph: 01-5545112

Autonomous Institutes Offering MBBS Programs

2. B.P. Koirala Institute of Health Sciences (BPKIHS)

Sunsari, Dharan - Ph: 025-525555/521017

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BE B. Arch B.Sc. CSIT BCA

Engineering Entrance Preparation

B.E./B.Arch. Entrance Examination Syllabus -20771. Subject: English Full Marks: 20

Comprehension of reading passages on a variety of topics and style with special references to (i) General English and (ii) Technical English.Grammar – Familiarity with the following aspects:

Parts of Speech, Basic Grammatical Patterns / Structures, Tense and Aspect, Conditional sentences, Verbals: infinitives, Participles and Gerunds, Direct and Indirect Speech, Active and Passive Voice, Kinds of Sentences, Transformation of sentences, Concord /Agreement, Vocabulary, Use of Prepositions, Idiomatic expressions, Punctuation, Phonemes and phonetic symbols, Word Stress.

2. Subject: Chemistry Full Marks: 25Language of Chemistry & Physical Chemistry: Symbol, formulate valency and chemical questions,

Problems based on chemical equations (relation with weight and weight, and weight and volume); Atomic Structure: Study of Cathode rays, and discovery of electrons, Rutheford's X-ray scattering experiment and discovery of nucleus. Rutherford model of atom., Bohr model of atom, Elementary concept of quantum numbers, Electron configuration of the elements.; Electronics Theory to Valency: Octet rule, Electrovalency, covalency and coordinate valency, General characteristics ionic and covalent compounds; Oxidation and Reduction: Classical definitions, Electronic interpretations of oxidation and reduction, Balancing of redox equations by oxidation number method; Periodic Classification of Elements: Mendeleev's periodic law, anomalies of Mendeleev's periodic table, Modern periodic Law, Periodic Properties viz. ionization potential, electronegativity and atomic radii, and their variation in the periodic table; Equivalent Weight and Atomic Weight: Concept of equivalent weight, and its determination by hydrogen displacement method and oxide

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method, Concept of atomic weight, equivalent weight and valency, determination of atomic weight using Dulong and Petit's rule; Molecular Weight and Mole: Avogardo's hypothesis and its deductions, Avogadro number and concept of mole, Determination of molecular weight by Victor Meyer's method; Electro–Chemistry; Electrolytes and non-electrolytes, strong electrolytes and weak electrolytes, Faraday's laws of electrolysis, Solubility product principle and its applications in qualitative analysis; Theories of Acids and Bases: Arrhenius theory, Bronsted and Lowry theory, Lewis theory; Volumetric Analysis Equivalent weights of acids, base and salts, Principles of acidimetry and alkalimetry, pH and pH scale

Non-MetalsWater: Hard water and soft water, Causes and removal of hardness of water; Nitrogen and its

Compounds:Nitrogen cycle, Preparation of ammonia and nitric acid in the lab, and their properties, Manufacture of ammonia and nitric acid, Sulphur and its Compound. Allotropy of sulphur, Preparation of hydrogen sulphide, sulphure dioxide in the lab, and their properties, Manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process; Halogens and Their Compound: Position of halogens in the periodic table, Preparation of chlorine and hydrogen chloride in the lab, and their properties.

MetalsCompounds of Metals: General methods of preparation and properties of oxides, hydroxides, chlorides,

nitrates, sulphates and carbonates of metals; Sodium: Extraction of Sodium (Down's process), Manufacture of caustic soda sodium carbonate; Copper: Extraction of copper from copper pyrite, Manufacture of Blue vitriol; Zinc: Extraction of zinc from zinc blend, Galvanization; Iron: Extraction of cast iron from hematite, Cast iron, steel and wrought iron, Types of steel, Manufacture of steel

Organic ChemistrySources and Purification of organic Compounds: Characteristics of organic compounds, Sources

of organic compounds, Purification of organic compounds; Classification and nomenclature of organic Compounds: Functional group, homologous series, and isomerism (structural only), Classification of organic compounds, Common names, and I.U.P.A.C. naming system

Saturated and unsaturated Hydrocarbons & Aromatic compoundPreparation and properties of methane, Preparation and properties of ethylene and acetylene,

Alkyl Halides: Preparation and properties of ethyl iodide; Aromatic Compounds: Structure of benzene, Preparation of benzene in the laboratory, Properties of benzene

3. Subject: Physics Full Marks: 45

MechanicsDimensions, Equations of motion, Motion of a projectile. Laws of motion. Addition and subtraction of

vectors. Relative velocity. Equilibrium of forces. Moments. Centre of mass. Centre of gravity. Solid friction. Work, power and energy. Conservation of energy. Angular speed. Centripetal force. Moment of inertia. Torque on a body. Angular momentum. Rotational kinetic energy. Laws of gravitation. Gravitational intensity, Gravitational potential. Velocity of escape. Simple harmonic motion. Energy of SHM. Hooke’s Law. Breaking stress. Modules of elasticity. Energy stored in stretched wire. Surface tension phenomenon. Surface energy. Capillarity. Fluid pressure. Pascal law of transmission of fluid pressure. Archimedes' principle. Flotation Stokes' law. Terminal velocity,

HeatHeat and temperature. Temperature scale. Measurement of heat energy. Specific heat capacity. Latent

heat. Saturated and Unsaturated vapour. Relative humidity and dew point. First law of thermodynamics. Reversible isothermal and adiabatic changes. Gas laws. Kinetic theory of gases. Second Law of thermodynamics. Carnot's engine. Transfer of Heat. Conduction, convection and radiation. Expansion of solid, liquid and gas.

9


OpticsFormation of images by plane and curved mirrors. Refraction of light through plane surfaces. Total

internal reflection. Critical angle. Refraction through prism. Maximum and minimum deviation. Formation of images by lenses. Dispersion. Achromatic combination of lenses visual angle. Angular magnification. Defect of vision. Telescope and microscope. Wave theory of light: introduction to Huygen's principle and its application interference diffraction and polarization of light. Sound

Damped vibration. Forced oscillation. Resonance. Progressive waves, Principle of superposition. Velocity of sound in solid, liquid and gas: Laplace’s correction. Characteristics of Sound wave. Beat phenomenon. Doppler effect. Stationary waves. Waves in pipes. Waves in String.

ElectricityElectric Charge. Gold leaf electroscope. Charging by induction Faraday's ice pail experiment.

Coulomb's law. Permitivity. Electric field. Gauss's law and its application. Electric potential. Capacitors. Ohm's Law. Resistance–combination of resistances. emf. Kirchhoff 's law and its application. Heating effect of current. Thermoelectricity. Chemical effect of current. Potentiometer. Wheatstone bridge. Galvanometer. Conversion of galvanometer into voltmeter and ammeter. Magnetic Field. Earth's magnetism. Magnetic Flux. Force on a current carrying conductor. Ampere's law, Biot-Savart's law and their applications. Solenoid. Electromagnetic induction.AC circuits.

Atomic Physics and Electronics:Discharge electricity through gases. Cathode rays. Electronic mass and charge Bohr's theory of

atomic structure. Energy level. X-rays. Photoelectric effect Radioactivity. Nuclear – fission and fusion. Semiconductors. Junction Transistor.

4. Subject: Mathematics Full Marks: 50

Set and FunctionSet and relations, Functions and graphs, Algebraic, Trigonometric, Exponential, Logarithmic and

hyperbolic functions and their inverses.

AlgebraDeterminants, matrices, Inverse of a matrix, uses of complex numbers, Polynomial equations, sequence

and series, Permutation and combination, Binomial theorem, exponential, Logarithmic series.

TrigonometryTrigonometric equations and general values, Inverse trigonometric functions, Principal values,

Properties of triangles; Centroid, incentre, Orthocentre and circumcentre and their properties.

Coordinate GeometryCoordinates in a plane, Straight lines, Pair of lines, Circles, Conic sections: Parabola, ellipse and

hyperbola. Standard equations and simple properties, Coordinates in space, Plane and its equation.

CalculusLimit and continuity of functions, Derivatives and application of derivative – Tangent and normal, Rate of change, differentials dy and actual change Dy. Maxima and Minima of a function.; Antiderivatives (Integrations): rules of Integration, Standard Integrals, Definite integral as the limit of a sum. Application to areas under a curve and area between two curves.

VectorsVectors in space, addition of vectors. Linear combination of vectors, Linearly dependent and independent set of vectors, Scalar and vector product of two vectors, simple applications.

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;+Vof egf

;+Vof

l;len 96 96 96 96 96 96 96 96 48 48

cfls6Sr/ – 48 48 – – – – – –

On]lS6«sn – 48 – 48 48 – – 48 – –

On]S6«f]lgS;, sDo'lgs]zg P08

OGkm/d]zg

96 96 48 96 48 48 48 – 48 –

sDKo'6/ 96 96 48 96 48 48 48 48 48 48

hDdf 288 384 240 336 240 192 192 192 144 96

2304

;DaGwg–k|fKtsn]hx¿sf] egf nIo

sfoqmd

s'n hDdf

b|i6JoM

s_ cf+lus SofDk;n] cfGtl/s ;|f]t–kl/rfng u/L ;~rfng u/]sf sfoqmdx¿ dWo] s'g–s'g sfoqmddf k"0fz'NsLo / k|fof]lht sf]6f k"/f x'g] jf gx'g] egL ;+lbUwtf ePdf ltgsf] cg'dflgt klxrfg ug] / To:tf

lqe'jg ljZjljBfno OlGhlgol/ª cWoog ;+:yfg cGtutsf cflËs SofDk;x¿df :gfts -aL=O=÷aL=cfs=_ txdf cWofkg ul/g] ljleGg sfoqmdsf] egf–nIo M

ljleGg SofDk;÷sn]hx¿sf] egf–nIo

11


8 | P a g e

cflËs SofDk;x¿sf] ljleGg sfoqmdx¿df dlxnfx¿sf nflu 5'6\ofOPsf] sf]6f lgDg adf]lhd x'g]5 M

lgoldt k"0fz'NsLo lgoldt k"0fz'NsLo lgoldt k"0fz'NsLo lgoldt k"0fz'NsLo lgoldt k"0fz'NsLo

-;+Vof_ -;+Vof_ -;+Vof_ -;+Vof_ -;+Vof_ -;+Vof_ -;+Vof_ -;+Vof_ -;+Vof_ -;+Vof_

1 l;len 11 8 3 10 2 7 2 7 — —

2 On]lS6«sn 3 3 1 4 1 4 — — — —

3On]S6«f]lgS;,

sDo'lgs]]zg P08

OGkm/d]zg

3 3 1 4 1 4 1 4 — —

4 sDKo'6/ 3 6 1 4 2 7 1 4 — —

5 d]sflgsn 2 2 1 4 2 7 1 4 — —

6 cfls6]Sr/ 2 2 — — 1 4 1 4 1 27 Plu|sNr/ — — — — 1 4 — — — —

8 OG8l:6«on — — — — — — 1 4 — —

9 lhof]d]l6S; — — 1 4 — — — — — —

10 c6f]df]jfOn OlGhlgol/ª — — 1 4 — — 1 4 — —

11 P/f]:k]; OlGhlgol/ª 1 4 — — — — — — — —

12 s]ldsn OlGhlgol/ª 1 4 — — — — — — — —

26 32 9 34 10 37 8 31 1 2hDdf

k'Nrf]s SofDk;, k'Nrf]s klZrdf~rn SofDk; lrtjg OlGhlgol/+u SofDk;k"jf~rn SofDk; yfkfynL SofDk;

sfoqmdl;=g+=

^=@ lzIfs÷sdrf/L sf]6f OlGhlgol/ª cWoog ;+:yfg cGtut :yfoL lgo'lQm kfO sfo/t k/LIf0fsfn xl6;s]sf lzIfs / sdrf/Lsf] cfTdf]Ggltsf nflu aL=O=÷aL=cfs= txdf O=c=;+=sf SofDk;x¿df hDdf b'O :yfg ;'/lIft ul/Psf] 5 . s'g lzIfs÷sdrf/Lsf] cfj]bg gk/]sf] v08df pQm l/Qm :yfgdf OlGhlgol/ª cWoog ;+:yfgsf :yfoL -lgo'lQm kfO k/LIf0fsfn xl6;s]sf_ lzIfs tyf sdrf/Lx¿sf 5f]/f÷5f]/Lx¿nfO of]Uotfqmdfg';f/ egf ul/g]5 .

^=# ;dfj]zL ljkGg cf/If0f sf]6f s_ lqe'jg ljZjljBfno ;+u7g tyf zlIfs k|zf;g ;DaGwL lgod @)%) sf] !!-s_ tyf !!-v_ df tf]lsP

adf]lhd lgoldt tkmsf s'n l;6x?dWo] aL; k|ltzt l;6 ljkGg b]xfosf ;d'bfosf JolQmnfO cf/If0f ul/Psf] 5 .

v_ ;dfj]zL cfwf/df egf lnOg] aL; k|ltzt sf]6fnfO ;tk|ltzt dfgL lgDgfg';f/ cf/If0f sf]6f ;'/lIft ul/Psf] 5 .

dlxnf @)Ü dWo] #Ü blnt dlxnfnfO / @Ü d'l:nd dlxnfnfO 5'6\ofOg]5 .

hghflt !^Ü

dw];L !$Ü dWo] #Ü dw];L blnt dlxnfnfO 5'6\ofOg]5 .

blnt (Ü

ckfË (Ü

lk5l8Psf] b'ud If]q & Ü

d'l:nd & Ü

yf? !)Ü

cGo * Ü

hDdf !)) Ü

– lqe'jg ljZjljBfno ;+u7g tyf zlIfs k|zf;g ;DaGwL lgod @)%) sf] !!s tyf !!v Pjd\ lqe'jg ljZjljBfnosf] cf/If0f ;DaGwL l;6df egf ug] ljlgod @)&$ cg';f/ o; O= c= ;+= cGtutsf cf+lus SofDk;x?df ;dfj]zL cfwf/df egf lnOg] l;6x? lgDg adf]lhd x'g]5g\ .

k|j]z–k/LIffsf] cfj]bgsf nflu Go"gtd of]Uotflq=lj= jf o;af6 dfGotf k|fKt lzIf0f–;+:yfaf6 eflts zf:q, /;fog zf:q tyf sIff !! / !@ df ul0ft ljifo lnO k|jL0ftf k|df0fkq

tx, pRr dfWolds tx, A Level jf OlGhlgol/+u l8Knf]df tx jf ;f] ;/xsf] k/LIffdf s"n k"0ffÍsf] slDtdf $%Ü / Letter Grading ePdf NEB sf] xsdf ;j laifox?df Final Grade df Go'gtd C Grade k|fKt u/L pQL0f u/]sf] nAwfÍkq (Transcript) jf clGtd k/LIffdf ;lDdlnt ePsf ljBfyLx?n] klg cfj]bg lbO k|j]z–k/LIffdf ;xefuL x'g kfpg]5g\ .

cflËs SofDk;x¿sf ljleGg sf]6f / ;'/lIft :yfgdlxnf sf]6f

lgoldt tyf k"0fz'NsLo sfoqmdx¿df !)% :yfg dlxnf cfj]bsx¿nfO ;'/lIft ul/Psf] 5 . k|sflzt egf– ;"rLdf !) % dlxnf cfj]bs 5gf]6 gePsf] v08df Go"gtd of]Uotf k'u]sf dlxnf cfj]bsx¿ dWo]af6 of]Uotfqmdsf] cfwf/df !)% dlxnf cfj]bsx¿sf] gfd egf–;"rLdf k|sflzt ul/g]5 .

cflËs SofDk;x¿sf] ljleGg sfoqmdx¿df dlxnfx¿sf nflu 5'6\ofOPsf] sf]6f lgDg adf]lhd x'g]5 M

9 | P a g e

u_ lqe'jg ljZjljBfno ;+u7g tyf zlIfs k|zf;g ;DaGwL lgod @)%) sf] !!s tyf !!v Pjd\ lqe'jg ljZjljBfnosf] cf/If0f ;DaGwL l;6df egf ug] ljlgod @)&$ cg';f/ o; O= c= ;+= cGtutsf cf+lus SofDk;x?df ;dfj]zL cfwf/df egf lnOg] l;6x? lgDg adf]lhd x'g]5g\ .

;+Vof dlxnf cflbaf;L, hghftL

dw];L blnt ckf+élk%l*Psf] b'ud If]q

d'l:nd yf? cGo

1 l;len 22 4 3 3 2 2 2 2 2 22 On]l^<sn 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

3On]S^ «f]lgS;, sDo'lgs]]zg P)* OGkm/d]zg

5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

4 sDKo'^/ 7 1 1 1 1 1 — — 1 15 d]sflgsn 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

6 cfls^]Sr/ 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

7 P/f]:k]z 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

8s]ldsn

2 1 1 — — — — — — —

k'Nrf]s SofDk;



d'l:nd yf? cGo

1 l;len 7 1 1 1 1 1 — — 1 12 On]l^<sn 2 1 1 — — — — — — —


2 1 1 — — — — — — —

4 sDKo'^/ 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

5 d]sflgsn 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

6 lhof]d]l^S; 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

7 c^f]df]jfOn 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

klZrdf`rn SofDk;



d'l:nd yf? cGo

1 l;len 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

2 On]l <sn 2 1 1 — — — — — — —


2 1 1 — — — — — — —

4 sDKo'^/ 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

5 d]sflgsn 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

6 cfls ]Sr/ 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

7 Plu|sNr/ 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

k'jf`rn SofDk;

12


egf x“'bf k]z ug'kg] sfuhkqx¿– egfsf nflu gfd k|sflzt ePsf cfj]bsx¿n] lgDglnlvt sfuhkqx¿sf ;fy cfkm+ jf cfˆgf] k|ltlglwdfkmt tf]lsPsf]

ldltleq egf x'g'kg]5 .– k|j]lzsf -P;=Pn=;L=_ jf ;f] ;/xsf] k/LIffsf] nAwfÍkq, ;DjlGwt jf]8n] k|bfg u/]sf] k|df0fkq jf Provisional Certificate

/ rfl/lqs k|df0fkqsf] ;Ssn / k|dfl0ft k|ltlnlk !÷! k|lt .– dfGotf k|fKt lzIf0f–;+:yfaf6 eflts zf:q, /;fog zf:q tyf !! / !@ sIffdf ul0ft ljifo lnO k|jL0ftf k|df0fkq tx,

pRr dfWolds tx jf A Level jf OlGhlgol/+ª l8Knf]df tx jf ;f] ;/xsf] k/LIffdf s"n k"0ffÍsf] slDtdf $%Ü tyf Letter Grading ePdf NEB sf] xsdf ;j laifox?df Final Grade df Go'gtd C Grade k|fKt u/L pQL0f u/]sf] nAwfÍkq (Transcript), ;DjlGwt jf]8n] k|bfg u/]sf] k|df0fkq jf Provisional Certificate / rfl/lqs k|df0fkqx¿sf] ;Ssn / k|dfl0ft k|ltlnlk !÷! k|lt .

– g]kfnL gful/stfsf] k|df0fkqsf] ;Ssn / k|dfl0ft k|ltlnlk ! k|lt .– lq=lj= afx]s cGo ljZjljBfnoaf6 k|jL0ftf k|df0fkq tx jf /fli6«o k/LIff af]8÷pRr df= lj= kl/ifb afx]s cGo af]8af6

!)±@ jf ;f] ;/xsf] k/LIff pQL0f ug]x¿n] ;DalGwt lgsfoaf6 ;dsIftfsf] k|df0f kq, ;DalGwt af]8sf] dfOu|];g ;l6lkms]6sf] ;Ssn / k|dfl0ft k|ltlnlk !÷! k|lt .

– ljb]zL cfj]bsx¿n] /fxbfgLsf] k|dfl0ft k|ltlnlk k]z ug'kg]5 .

9 | P a g e




d'l:nd yf? cGo

1 l;len 22 4 3 3 2 2 2 2 2 22 On]l^<sn 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —


5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

4 sDKo'^/ 7 1 1 1 1 1 — — 1 15 d]sflgsn 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

6 cfls^]Sr/ 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

7 P/f]:k]z 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

8s]ldsn

2 1 1 — — — — — — —

k'Nrf]s SofDk;



d'l:nd yf? cGo

1 l;len 7 1 1 1 1 1 — — 1 12 On]l^<sn 2 1 1 — — — — — — —


2 1 1 — — — — — — —

4 sDKo'^/ 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

5 d]sflgsn 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

6 lhof]d]l^S; 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

7 c^f]df]jfOn 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

klZrdf`rn SofDk;



d'l:nd yf? cGo

1 l;len 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

2 On]l <sn 2 1 1 — — — — — — —


2 1 1 — — — — — — —

4 sDKo'^/ 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

5 d]sflgsn 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

6 cfls ]Sr/ 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

7 Plu|sNr/ 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

k'jf`rn SofDk;

9 | P a g e




d'l:nd yf? cGo

1 l;len 22 4 3 3 2 2 2 2 2 22 On]l^<sn 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —


5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

4 sDKo'^/ 7 1 1 1 1 1 — — 1 15 d]sflgsn 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

6 cfls^]Sr/ 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

7 P/f]:k]z 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

8s]ldsn

2 1 1 — — — — — — —

k'Nrf]s SofDk;



d'l:nd yf? cGo

1 l;len 7 1 1 1 1 1 — — 1 12 On]l^<sn 2 1 1 — — — — — — —


2 1 1 — — — — — — —

4 sDKo'^/ 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

5 d]sflgsn 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

6 lhof]d]l^S; 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

7 c^f]df]jfOn 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

klZrdf`rn SofDk;



d'l:nd yf? cGo

1 l;len 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

2 On]l <sn 2 1 1 — — — — — — —


2 1 1 — — — — — — —

4 sDKo'^/ 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

5 d]sflgsn 5 1 1 1 1 — — — 1 —

6 cfls ]Sr/ 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

7 Plu|sNr/ 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

k'jf`rn SofDk;

10 | P a g e



d'l:nd yf? cGo

1 l;len 7 1 1 1 1 1 — — 1 1

2On]S^ «f]lgS;, sDo'lgs]]zg P)* OGkm/d]zg 2

1 1 — — — — — — —

3 d]sflgsn 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

4 cfls^]Sr/ 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

5 O)*li^<on 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

6 c^f]df]jfOn O= 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

7 sDKo'^/ 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

yfkfynL SofDk;



d'l:nd yf? cGo

1 cfls ]Sr/ 1 1 — — — — — — — —


b|i6AoM

s'g cfj]bsn] v'Nnf ;lxt Ps eGbf a9L cf/If0f sf]6fdf cfj]bg lbPdf dfly lbOPsf] ljkGg sf]6fsf] qmdfg';f/ kl5Nnf] sf]6fnfO k|yd k|fyldstf / To; eGbf cufl8sf] sf]6fx¿sf] k|fyldstf 36\bf] qmddf /flv v'NnfnfO clGtd k|fyldstfdf /fv]/ egf ;'rLdf gfd k|sfzg ul/g]5 . h:t s'g cfj]bsn] v'Nnf ;lxt dlxnf tyf hghflt b'j sf]6fdf cfj]bg u/]sf] v08df lghsf] hghflt sf]6fdf :jtM k|yd k|fyldstf tyf To;kl5 dlxnf sf]6fdf k|fyldstf x'g]5 tt\ kZrft dfq lghsf] v'Nnf tkm k|fyldstf x'g]5 .

cf/lIft sf]6fdf cfj]bg lbg] cfj]bsx?af6 pQm sf]6fx? gel/Psf] v08df v'Nnf cfj]bsx?sf] gfd egf ;"rLdf k|sflzt ul/g]5 .

u_ cf/If0f sf]6fdf egf x'g rfxg] cfj]bs O= c= ;+= k|j]z k/LIff af]8n] ;+rfng u/]sf] k|j]z k/LIffdf clgjfo pQL0f ePsf] x'g'kg]5 . egf ;"rL k|sfzg ubf k|j]z k/LIffsf] glthfsf] of]Uotfqmdsf] cfwf/df ul/g]5 .

3_ cf/If0f ;'ljwf s'g cfj]bsn] s'g klg Ps txdf dfq pkef]u ug kfpg]5 . ª_ cf/If0f sf]6fdf egf x'g rfxg] cfj]bsx?n] lgDg cg';f/ sfuhftx? clgjfo ?kdf k]z ug'kg]5 .

!= pDd]bjf/n] clgjfo ?kdf ;/sf/L÷;fd'bflos ljBfnodf cWoog u/]sf] x'g'kg]5 . o;sf] k|df0f :j?k sIff cf7, gf tyf P;=Pn=;L=÷P;=O=O= txsf] nAwfÍkq tyf pQm ljBfno ;/sf/L÷;fd'bflos ljBfno ePsf] egL ;DalGwt lhNnf lzIff sfofno jf lzIff ;DaGwL ;DalGwt ;/sf/L lgsfo af6 k|fKt k|df0f kq k]z ug'kg]5 .

@= sIff !! / !@ jf ;f] ;/xsf] txdf cWoog ubf ;fd'bflos jf ;/sf/L laBfno jf lqe'jg ljZjljBfnosf] cf+lus SofDk;df u/]sf] x'g'kg] cyjf g]kfn ;/sf/ jf g]kfn ;/sf/sf] dfGotf k|fKt ;+:yfaf6 5fqj[lQ k|fKt u/]sf] x'g'kg]5 . o;sf] k|df0f :j?k sIff !! / !@ sf] nAwfÍkq (Transcript) tyf pSt laBfno ljBfno ;/sf/L÷;fd'bflos ljBfno ePsf] egL ;DalGwt lhNnf lzIff sfofno jf lzIff ;DaGwL ;DalGwt ;/sf/L lgsfo af6 k|fKt k|df0f kq tyf 5fqa[lQ k|fKt u/]sf] eP lzIff ;DjGwL ;DalGwt ;/sf/L lgsfon] lgh 5fqa[lQdf cWoog u/]sf] k|df0f kq k]z ug'kg]5 .

#= sIff !! / !@ jf ;f] ;/xsf] txdf Go"gtd $% k|ltzt tyf NEB sf] xsdf ;j laifox?df Final Grade df Go'gtd C Grade k|fKt u/L lgoldt ?kd -klxnf] k|of;d_ pQL0f ePsf] x'g'kg]5 .

10 | P a g e



d'l:nd yf? cGo

1 l;len 7 1 1 1 1 1 — — 1 1

2On]S^ «f]lgS;, sDo'lgs]]zg P)* OGkm/d]zg 2

1 1 — — — — — — —

3 d]sflgsn 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

4 cfls^]Sr/ 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

5 O)*li^<on 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

6 c^f]df]jfOn O= 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

7 sDKo'^/ 2 1 1 — — — — — — —

yfkfynL SofDk;



d'l:nd yf? cGo

1 cfls ]Sr/ 1 1 — — — — — — — —


b|i6AoM

s'g cfj]bsn] v'Nnf ;lxt Ps eGbf a9L cf/If0f sf]6fdf cfj]bg lbPdf dfly lbOPsf] ljkGg sf]6fsf] qmdfg';f/ kl5Nnf] sf]6fnfO k|yd k|fyldstf / To; eGbf cufl8sf] sf]6fx¿sf] k|fyldstf 36\bf] qmddf /flv v'NnfnfO clGtd k|fyldstfdf /fv]/ egf ;'rLdf gfd k|sfzg ul/g]5 . h:t s'g cfj]bsn] v'Nnf ;lxt dlxnf tyf hghflt b'j sf]6fdf cfj]bg u/]sf] v08df lghsf] hghflt sf]6fdf :jtM k|yd k|fyldstf tyf To;kl5 dlxnf sf]6fdf k|fyldstf x'g]5 tt\ kZrft dfq lghsf] v'Nnf tkm k|fyldstf x'g]5 .

cf/lIft sf]6fdf cfj]bg lbg] cfj]bsx?af6 pQm sf]6fx? gel/Psf] v08df v'Nnf cfj]bsx?sf] gfd egf ;"rLdf k|sflzt ul/g]5 .

u_ cf/If0f sf]6fdf egf x'g rfxg] cfj]bs O= c= ;+= k|j]z k/LIff af]8n] ;+rfng u/]sf] k|j]z k/LIffdf clgjfo pQL0f ePsf] x'g'kg]5 . egf ;"rL k|sfzg ubf k|j]z k/LIffsf] glthfsf] of]Uotfqmdsf] cfwf/df ul/g]5 .

3_ cf/If0f ;'ljwf s'g cfj]bsn] s'g klg Ps txdf dfq pkef]u ug kfpg]5 . ª_ cf/If0f sf]6fdf egf x'g rfxg] cfj]bsx?n] lgDg cg';f/ sfuhftx? clgjfo ?kdf k]z ug'kg]5 .

!= pDd]bjf/n] clgjfo ?kdf ;/sf/L÷;fd'bflos ljBfnodf cWoog u/]sf] x'g'kg]5 . o;sf] k|df0f :j?k sIff cf7, gf tyf P;=Pn=;L=÷P;=O=O= txsf] nAwfÍkq tyf pQm ljBfno ;/sf/L÷;fd'bflos ljBfno ePsf] egL ;DalGwt lhNnf lzIff sfofno jf lzIff ;DaGwL ;DalGwt ;/sf/L lgsfo af6 k|fKt k|df0f kq k]z ug'kg]5 .

@= sIff !! / !@ jf ;f] ;/xsf] txdf cWoog ubf ;fd'bflos jf ;/sf/L laBfno jf lqe'jg ljZjljBfnosf] cf+lus SofDk;df u/]sf] x'g'kg] cyjf g]kfn ;/sf/ jf g]kfn ;/sf/sf] dfGotf k|fKt ;+:yfaf6 5fqj[lQ k|fKt u/]sf] x'g'kg]5 . o;sf] k|df0f :j?k sIff !! / !@ sf] nAwfÍkq (Transcript) tyf pSt laBfno ljBfno ;/sf/L÷;fd'bflos ljBfno ePsf] egL ;DalGwt lhNnf lzIff sfofno jf lzIff ;DaGwL ;DalGwt ;/sf/L lgsfo af6 k|fKt k|df0f kq tyf 5fqa[lQ k|fKt u/]sf] eP lzIff ;DjGwL ;DalGwt ;/sf/L lgsfon] lgh 5fqa[lQdf cWoog u/]sf] k|df0f kq k]z ug'kg]5 .

#= sIff !! / !@ jf ;f] ;/xsf] txdf Go"gtd $% k|ltzt tyf NEB sf] xsdf ;j laifox?df Final Grade df Go'gtd C Grade k|fKt u/L lgoldt ?kd -klxnf] k|of;d_ pQL0f ePsf] x'g'kg]5 .

13


14 | P a g e

(= cflËs SofDk;x¿sf] :gfts -aL=O=÷aL=cfs=_ txsf] z'Ns ljj/0f M cwjfl i f s -; ]d ]:6/_ z'Ns lgoldt ljBfyL x¿sf

nflu

k"0 f z'NsLo ljBfyL x¿sf nflu ljb]zL ljBfyL x¿sf nflu

k|of]uzfnf–z'Ns 50.00 50.00 2,000.00 lzIf0f–z'Ns 2,126.00 32,500.00 100,000.00 k|j]z–kq–z'Ns 125.00 125.00 200.00 kl/ro–kq z'Ns 175.00 175.00 175.00 ljBfyL o'lgog–z'Ns 10.00 10.00 20.00 k':tsfno–z'Ns 37.50 37.50 1,500.00 v]ns'b–z'Ns 15.00 15.00 100.00 k/LIff–z'Ns * 1,500.00 1,500.00 1,500.00 k/LIff–s]Gb|–z'Ns 100.00 100.00 100.00 k/LIff–kmf/d– z'Ns 100.00 100.00 100.00 ljBfyLsNof0f–sf]if 10.00 10.00 100.00 v]ns'b–ljsf;–sf]if 25.00 25.00 25.00 lq=lj= btf–z'Ns **hDdf 4,273.50 34,647.50 105,820.00 k':tsfno–w/f6L 1,200.00 5,000.00 5,000.00 k|of]uzfnf–w/f6L 500.00 10,000.00 10,000.00 SofDk;–w/f6L M

-cWoog k"/f u/]kl5 dfq lkmtf

x'g]_hDdf 3,400.00 40,000.00 115,000.00 SofDk; lasf; sf]if 450.00 600.00 600.00 SofDk; ddt sf]if 450.00 600.00 600.00

5fqfjf; ddt sf]if

hDdf 900.00 1,200.00 1,200.00 laBfyL :jf:Yo ljdf z'Ns 500.00 500.00 500.00 hDdf 500.00 500.00 500.00 s'n hDdf 9,073.50 76,347.50 222,520.00 s'n hDdf -cf7 ;]d ]:6/_ 38,988.00 318,880.00 963,260.00

Nofjf]/]6/L z'Ns -P/f]:k]z

OlGhlgol/+u / s]ldsn OlGhlgol/+u

sf] nflu Psk6s dfq_30,000.00 286,720.00 529,034.00

s'n hDdf z'Ns -P/f]:k ]zsf] nflu dfq_

68,988.00 605,600.00 1,492,294.00

1,700.00 25,000.00 100,000.00

* of] z'Ns @)&^÷)&& egf ;d"x b]lv nfu' ul/Psf] 5 .

** o; eGbf cufl8 lq=lj= df btf gePsfx¿nfO dfq b]xfo cg';f/ of] z'Ns nfUg]5 M

:jb]zaf6 k/LIff pQL0f u/]sf ljBfyLx¿sf nflu ?= %)).))

ljb]zjf6 k/LIff pQL0f u/]sf ljBfyLx¿sf nflu ?= !,))).))

*** 5fqfjf; ddt–sf]if–z'Ns 5fqfjf;df egf x'g] ljBfyLx¿sf nflu dfq nfUg]5 .

b|i6Jo M 14 | P a g e

(= cflËs SofDk;x¿sf] :gfts -aL=O=÷aL=cfs=_ txsf] z'Ns ljj/0f M cwjfl i f s -; ]d ]:6/_ z'Ns lgoldt ljBfyL x¿sf

nflu

k"0 f z'NsLo ljBfyL x¿sf nflu ljb]zL ljBfyL x¿sf nflu

k|of]uzfnf–z'Ns 50.00 50.00 2,000.00 lzIf0f–z'Ns 2,126.00 32,500.00 100,000.00 k|j]z–kq–z'Ns 125.00 125.00 200.00 kl/ro–kq z'Ns 175.00 175.00 175.00 ljBfyL o'lgog–z'Ns 10.00 10.00 20.00 k':tsfno–z'Ns 37.50 37.50 1,500.00 v]ns'b–z'Ns 15.00 15.00 100.00 k/LIff–z'Ns * 1,500.00 1,500.00 1,500.00 k/LIff–s]Gb|–z'Ns 100.00 100.00 100.00 k/LIff–kmf/d– z'Ns 100.00 100.00 100.00 ljBfyLsNof0f–sf]if 10.00 10.00 100.00 v]ns'b–ljsf;–sf]if 25.00 25.00 25.00 lq=lj= btf–z'Ns **hDdf 4,273.50 34,647.50 105,820.00 k':tsfno–w/f6L 1,200.00 5,000.00 5,000.00 k|of]uzfnf–w/f6L 500.00 10,000.00 10,000.00 SofDk;–w/f6L M

-cWoog k"/f u/]kl5 dfq lkmtf

x'g]_hDdf 3,400.00 40,000.00 115,000.00 SofDk; lasf; sf]if 450.00 600.00 600.00 SofDk; ddt sf]if 450.00 600.00 600.00

5fqfjf; ddt sf]if

hDdf 900.00 1,200.00 1,200.00 laBfyL :jf:Yo ljdf z'Ns 500.00 500.00 500.00 hDdf 500.00 500.00 500.00 s'n hDdf 9,073.50 76,347.50 222,520.00 s'n hDdf -cf7 ;]d ]:6/_ 38,988.00 318,880.00 963,260.00

Nofjf]/]6/L z'Ns -P/f]:k]z

OlGhlgol/+u / s]ldsn OlGhlgol/+u

sf] nflu Psk6s dfq_30,000.00 286,720.00 529,034.00

s'n hDdf z'Ns -P/f]:k ]zsf] nflu dfq_

68,988.00 605,600.00 1,492,294.00

1,700.00 25,000.00 100,000.00

* of] z'Ns @)&^÷)&& egf ;d"x b]lv nfu' ul/Psf] 5 .

** o; eGbf cufl8 lq=lj= df btf gePsfx¿nfO dfq b]xfo cg';f/ of] z'Ns nfUg]5 M

:jb]zaf6 k/LIff pQL0f u/]sf ljBfyLx¿sf nflu ?= %)).))

ljb]zjf6 k/LIff pQL0f u/]sf ljBfyLx¿sf nflu ?= !,))).))

*** 5fqfjf; ddt–sf]if–z'Ns 5fqfjf;df egf x'g] ljBfyLx¿sf nflu dfq nfUg]5 .

b|i6Jo M

cflËs SofDk;x?sf] :gfts -aL=O÷aL=cfs=_ txsf] z'Ns ljj/0fM

– OlGhlgol/ª cWoog ;+:yfg cGtut sfo/t :yfoL -k/LIf0fsfn xl6;s]sf_ lzIfs÷sdrf/Lx¿sf nflu ;'/lIft l;6df cfj]bg lbg] cfj]bsn] sfo/t SofDk;af6 k"j–:jLs[lt–kq lnO cfj]bg;fy ;f]sf] k|dfl0ft k|ltlnlk k]z ug'kg] 5 . s'g lzIfs tyf sdrf/Lsf 5f]/f÷5f]/Ln] cfj]bg lbg] ePdf tL lzIfs÷sdrf/Ln] cfkm"n] sfd u/]sf] sfofnosf] l;kmfl/z kq lgj]bg;fy k]z ug'kg]5 .

– s'g cfj]bsn] Ps ;dodf Pp6 jf ;dfg:t/sf] sf]if b'O ljZjljBfno jf ;+:yfdf btf u/]sf] kfOPdf g]kfnsf] lzIf0f–;+:yf jf ljZjljBfnodf btf u/L k|fKt u/]sf] k|df0fkqnfO dfq dfGotf lbOg]5 .

14


Common Entrance Examination (CEE)Model Questions

1. Aristotle is considered as a. Father of biology b. father of zoologyc. Father of embryology d. All the above

2. Black water fever is caused by a. Protozoa b. Porifera c. Ascaris d. Arthropoda

3. All stage in the life history of malarial parasite are haploid except a. Gametocyte b. Ookinete c. Schizont d. Sporozoite

4. Totipotent cells of sponges are a. Chromocytes b. Myocytes c. Thesocytes d. Archeocytes

5. Cnidoblast cells of hydra is derived from a. Interstitial cell b. Follicle cells c. Oogonia d. Germ mother cells

6. Bladderworm larva of tapeworm is known as a. Onchosphere b. Sporocyst c. Cysticercus d. Miracidium

7. In earthworm, septa are absent in segment a. 5-8 b. 17-21 c. 1-4 d. 14-26

8. Arrangement of setae in a segment of Pheretima is a. Oligochaetine b. Perichaetinec. Octochaetine d. None

9. Forelimbs of horse and human arm are a. Analogous organs b. Homologous organsc. Atavistic organs d. Vestigial organs

10. Gill slits present in embryonic stage of vertebrate representsa. Recapitulation b. Metamorphosisc. Biogenesis d. Organic evolution

11. Germplasm theory is given by a. Darwin b. Weishmann c. Haeckel d. Hugo de vries

12. Migration of fish from fresh water to sea water is a. Catadramous b. Anadromous c. Potamodromous d. Oceanodromous

13. Suctoria is a class of the Phylum a. Protozoa b. Platyhelminthesc. Mollusca d. Echinodermata

14. In Paramecium cyclosis is associated with a. Locomotion b. Circulation of food c. Digestion d. Excretion

15. Mouth parts of cockroach is

a. Chewing and lapping type b. Piercing and sucking type c. Biting and chewing type d. Siphoning type.

16. Which of the following animal is a Mollusca?a. Silver fish b. Cuttle fish c. Flying fish d. Star fish

17. Aristotle’s lantern is found ina. Jelly fish b. Star fish c. Sea lily d. Sea urchin

18. Acid rain will not affecta. Lithosphere b. Plants c. Ozone layer d. Animals.

19. Harderian gland is found in the eye of a. Rabbit b. Frog c. Hare d. Toad

20. Amphibians are not founda. On land b. In freshwaterc. Both on land and in water d. In sea water

21. Teeth in frog are meant for a. Preventing prey from slipping out b. Chewing c. Cutting d. Tearing

22. Wrinkling of skin in old age is due to a. Collagen b. Keratin c. Actin d. Myosin

23. Germinal epithelium of ovary is formed ofa. Columnar epithelium b. Squamous epitheliumc. Cuboidal epithelium d. Stratified epithelium

24. Striped muscles have a. One nucleus b. Many nucleic. Two nuclei d. No nucleus

25. Hunger and thrust are under direct control ofa. Cerebrum b. Cerebellumc. Hypothalamus d. Midbrain.

26. The Nissl’s granules of nerve cells are related toa. Immune system b. Protein synthesisc. Nutrition d. Mechanical support.

27. Meibomian glands are present in a. Eyes b. Ears c. Skin d. Lungs.

28. SA node is found in

~ Zoology ~ Full Marks 200Times: 3 hrs

15


a. Left ventricle b. Right ventriclec. Left atrium d. Right atrium.

29. FSH and LH are secreted bya. Anterior lobe of pituitary gland b. Posterior lobe of pituitary glandc. Thyroid gland d. Gonads.

30. Carbonic Anhydrase enzyme is required for the transportation ofa. O2 b. CO2 c. Hormones d. Minerals

31. The depression of the nervous activity is caused by which of the following drug?a. LSD b. Sedativec. Narcotic d. Stimulant

32. Shoulder and hip joints are of the type of:a. Ball and socket b. Hinge jointc. Pivot joint d. Gliding joint.

33. Paneth cells are present ina. Hepatic lobules b. Pancreatic Isletsc. Crypts of Lieberkühn d. Payer’s patches.

34. The kidneys develop froma. Ectoderm b. Mesoderm

c. Endoderm d. From above all layer.35. The head of epididymis is called

a. Vas deferens b. Gubernaculum c. Cauda epididymis d. Caput epididymis.

36. Archenteron in frog’s embryo is developed due to. a. Epiboly b. Emboly c. Cleavage divisions d. Neurulation.

37. Infective form of Ascariasis is a. Embryonated egg b. Rhabditiform larva c. Mamillated egg d. Unfertilized egg

38. The major group of cells depleted in AIDS isa. Helper T-lymphocytes (CD4 cells)b. Macrophages T-lymphocytesc. Lymphocytes d. Supporter T-lymphocytes (CD8 cells).

39. Most common site of cancer among females worldwide isa. Cervix b. Breastc. Lungs d. Oral

40. Recent transplant of Kidney of our PM. K. P. Oli is a. Autograft b. Isograftc. Allograft d. Xenograft.

~ Botany ~41. Every carbohydrate is

a) Ribose and deoxyribose b) Triose and tetrose c) Pentose and hexose d) Aldose and ketose

42. Maximum energy is produced by the oxidation of a) Carbohydrates b) Mineralsc) Fats d) Proteins

43. The protein that is a structural material is a) Albumin b) Oxytocinc) Haemoglobin d)Keratin

44. The commonest disaccharide has the molecular formula a) C10H18O9 b) C10H20O10 c) C18H22O11 d) C12H22O11

45. β-oxidation occurs ina) Nucleus b)Cytoplasmc) Mitochondria d)Chloroplast

46. Plasmid is (a) Small extrachromosomal circular self replicating

DNA that can carry genes into host organism(b) Bacteriophage(c) DNA found in bacteriophage (d) DNA incorporated in bacterial

chromosome

47. When a virus enters a cell but does not replicate immediately, the situation is called?(a) Lysogeny (b) Fermentation(c) Symbiosis (d) Synergism

48. The antherozoid of Marchantia are provided with(a) 2 flagella (b) 1 flagellum(c) 5 flagella (d) 6 flagella

49. In Pteriodophytes, phloem is without(a) Sieve cells (b) Phloem parenchyma(c) Companion cells (d)Bast fibres

50. Agar- agar is obtained from (a) Sargassum (b)Gellidium (c)Polysiphonia (d)Fucus

51. Tear promoting ingredient of onion is (a)Allin (b)Allicin (c)Propenyl sulphenic acid (d) Syn Propanethial s-oxide

52. The abundance of a species population, within its habitat, is calleda) Relative density b) Regional densityc) Absolute density d) Niche density

53. Inbreeding is possible between two members of (a) Order (b) Family(c) Genus (d) Species

16


54. The succession starts from sandy soil is called (a) Pedosere (b) Edaphosere(c) Psammosere (d) Halosere

55. Homeostasis isa) Tendency of biological systems to change

with change in environmentb) Tendency of biological systems to resist

changec) Disturbance of self-regulatory system and

natural controlsd) Biotic materials used in homeopathic

medicines.56. Sunken stomata are present in

(a) Hydrophytes (b) Mesophytes(c) Sciophytes (d) Xerophytes

57. Smallest cell organelle is a) Lysosome b) Dictyosomec) Polysome d) Monosome

58. Currency of cell is a) Mitochondria b) Chloroplastc) ATP d) Glucose

59. The mitochondrial DNA differs from the nuclear DNA because ofa) Being linear b) Having A = T and C - G c) Lacking binding histones d) Being highly twisted

60. When all organelles are removed from a cell, the remaining fluid like portion left is called? a) Cytoplasm b) Protoplasmc) Hyaloplasm d) None

61. Which of the following is associated with cell division? a) Centrioles b) Mitochondria c) Ribosome d) Chloroplast

62. The evolutionary advantage of meiosis can be best explained by which of these statements? (a) Meiosis alternates with mitosis from one

to the next generation(b) Meiosis is essential for sexual

reproduction(c) Passing of the same genetic system from

one to next generation(d) Genetic recombination is possible from

one to next generation63. If you know that the base-sequence of one

strand is AATTCG,the sequence of the complementary strand must be (a) AATTCG (b) TTGGAC (c) TTAAGG (d) TTAAGC

64. There are 4 pairs of chromosomes in a Drosophila. The linkage groups present in it are (a) One more than the pair of chromosomes(b) One less than the pair of chromosomes(c) Four (d) Eight

65. What is the unit of crossing overa) Cistron b) Mutonc) Recon d) None of the above

66. X is the chromosome with gene for haemophilia and X is the chromosome with normal gene. Which of the following individuals will act as carrier for haemophilia a)XhY b)X Y c)xhxh d)XhX

67. In case of mitochondrial genetic code UGA is a ____________ codon. a) Tryptophan b) Arginine c) Proline d) Stop

68. Which meristem helps in increasing girth?(a) Lateral meristem (b) Intercalary meristem (c) Primary meristem (d) Apical meristem.

69. Pith and cortex do not differentiate in(a) Monocot stem (b) Dicot stem(c) Monocot root (d) Dicot root.

70. What is true about a monocot leaf?(a) Reticulate venation(b) Absence of bulliform cells from epidermis(c) Mesophyll not differentiated into palisade

and spongy tissues(d) Well differentiated mesophyll.

71. The age of the tree can be determined by(a) Measuring its diameter (b) Counting the number of annual

rings(c) Counting the number of leaves(d) Finding out the number of branches

72. In C3 and C4 plants, primary carboxylation takes place with the help of(a) PEP carboxylse and pyruvate

carboxylase (b) RuBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase(c) PEP carboxylase and RuBP carboxylase(d) RuBP carboxylase and pyruvate

carboxylase73. The ultimate gain of light reaction is

a) ATP and NADPH2 b)NADPH2c) Only ATP d) Only O,”

74. The hormone responsible for phototropism isa)Ethylene b)Abscisic acid c) Auxin d) Gibberellin acid

75. In a type of apomixis known as adventive embryony, embryos develop directly from the(a) nucellus or integuments (b) zygote(c) synergids or antipodals in an embryo sac(d) accessory embryo sacs in the ovule

76. If there are 4 cells in anthers, what will be the number of pollen grains?

17


~ Chemistry ~

(a) 16 (b) 12 (c) 8 (d) 4.77. The anthesis is a phenomenon, which refers

to (a) development of anthers (b) opening of flower bud(c) stigma receptors(d) all of these.

78. out the odd one (a) nucellus (b) embryo sac (c) micropyle (d) pollen grain

79. A linear tetrad of 4 cells lying in an axial row is formed during the development of a)Embryo Sac b) Pollen Grainsc) Ovary d) Ovule

80. In bisexual flowers when the gynoecium matures earlier than the androecium, it is calleda) Protandry b) Protogyny c) Heterogamy d) Autogamy

81. The balancing of chemical equation is based on law ofa. Combining volumes b. Multiple proportions c. Conservation of mass d. Definite proportions

82. Mass of one atom of hydrogen isa. 1.008 g b. 1.008 amu c. 0.16 x 10-23 g d. Both b and c

83. The orbital providing the most efficient overlap area. s-s b. sp-sp c. sp

2-sp2 d. sp3-sp3

84. The outermost electronic configuration of most electronegative atom isa. ns2np1 b. ns2np5

c. ns1 d. ns2np3

85. In which of the following there is change is 5 oxidation statea. MnO 4

- → Mn2+ b. Cr2O42- → Cr3+

c. MnO 42- → MnO2 d. Cr2O7

2- → 2Cr3+

86. Conjugate base of hydrazoic acid isa. NH2

- b. N2-

c. N3- d. N3-

87. The range of phenolphthalein as an indicator is in between pHa. 6-8 b. 8-10c. 3-5 d. 2-4

88. Particles in solids havea. least energy b. lesser energyc. greatest energy d. greatest distances

89. A gas diffuses 4 times as fast as oxygen gas. The molecular weight of gas isa. 4.2 b. 8 c. 16 d. 2

90. Hydrogen bonding is not present ina. water b. hydrogen sulphidec. glycerol d. hydrogen fluoride

91. There is no effect of pressure in the equilibrium of the reaction.a. N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 b. 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3

c. H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl d. PCl3 + Cl2 → PCl392. When 100 cc of 1M H2SO4 is mixed with 20 cc

of 5M NaOH, the resulting solution isa. acidic b. slightly basicc. strongly basic d. neutral

93. A catalyst accelerates reaction becausea. it increased the activation energy b. it forms complex with one of the reactantc. it lowers the activation energy d. it brings the reactant closer

94. 96500 C will liberatea. 1 gram equivalent of substance b. 1 mole of substancec. 1 gram of substance d. 1 electron

95. In adiabatic system, if work is done by the system, the temperature musta. decrease b. increase c. remain constant d. increase then decrease

96. Rutherford’s alpha particle scattering experiment eventually lead to the conclusion that,a. heavy mass is present at the centre of an

atom.b. negative particles are present at the centre

of an atom.c. proton moves around the electron.d. electrons occupy space around the

nucleus.97. The pH of a solution containing 4 g of NaOH

per litre of water will bea. 1 b. 13 c. 4 d. 10

98. Which one is the correct relation for Gibb’s energy change?a. ΔH = ΔG + TΔS b. ΔG = ΔH - TΔSc. ΔH = ΔG - TΔS d. ΔG = ΔH + TΔS

99. The correct order for the size of I, I+, I– isa. I > I– > I+ b. I > I+ > I–

c. I– > I > I+ d. I+ > I– > I100. Which metal can be found as the free element?

a. Na b. Mn c. Cr d. Pt

18


101. Ortho and para hydrogen are distinguished bya. spin of electron b. spin of protonc. atomic number d. spin of nucleus

102. What happens when ZnCl2 is treated with NaOH?a. black ppt is formedb. no ppt is formedc. white ppt is formed which is soluble in

excess NaOHd. white ppt is formed which is insoluble in

excess NaOH103. Antichlor is

a. chlorine releaser b. bleaching agentc. chlorine absorber d. dehydrating agent

104. Borax isa. Na2B4O710H2O b. H3BO3c. BN d. B2H6

105. Producer gas is the mixture ofa. CO + H2 b. CO + H2 + N2c. CO2 + N2 d. CO + N2

106. The coloured gas isa. NO2 b. N2O c. NO d. N2O4

107. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric?a. BeO b. Na2O c. MgO d. FeO

108. When Cl2 gas is passed through hot and conc. NaOH, we geta. NaCl only b. NaClO + NaClc. NaClO3 + NaCl d. NaClO3 + NaClO

109. Which of the following is most reactive?a. He b. Ar c. Xe d. None

110. Maximum number of unpaired electrons ina. Cr3+ b. Sc3+

c. Ti3+ d. Fe2+

111. Which of the following metals gives golden yellow colour on flame test?a. Ca b. Ba c. K d. Na

112. The compound which is yellow when hot and white when cold isa. PbO b. HgO c. ZnO d. CaO

113. Which has the highest knocking property?a. aromatic hydrocarbons b. branched chain olefinsc. heterocyclic compounds d. straight chain olefins

114. The IUPAC name of CH3-O-CH2-CH2-O-CH3 isa. 1, 2-dimethoxy ether b. 2-methoxy-3-oxybutanec. 2-ketobutanoic acid d. 1, 2-dimethoxyethane

115. Optical isomerism occurs whena. 4 different atoms or groups are attached

to 4 different carbon atoms.b. 4 different atoms or groups are attached

to the same carbon atom.c. 4 identical atoms or groups are attached

to 4 different carbon atoms.d. 4 identical atoms or groups are attached

to the same carbon atom.116. Nitration of benzene is

a. electrophilic addition b. electrophilic substitutionc. nucleophilic addition d. nucleophilic substitution

117. Which of the following is not an ambident nucleophile?a. OH- b. CNS-

c. CN- d. NO2-

118. Which of the following reacts with sodium?a. CH3-CH-C C-CH3 b. HC C-CH3c. CH3-CH-C C-CH2-CH3 d. CH2=CH2

119. Iodoform test detectsa. ethanol b. acetic acid c. benzoic acid d. none

120. Lucas test is done fora. alkyl halides b. aldehydesc. alcohols d. esters

121. The ether formed by the reaction of t-butyl alkoxide and methyl iodide isa. methyl tert-butyl ether b. tert-butyl methyl etherc. di-tert-butyl ether d. tert-butyl ethyl ether

122. Which of the following takes place during the Cannizaro reaction?a. aldehyde gets oxidized to acid b. aldehyde gets oxidized to basec. aldehyde gets reduced to alcohol d. both a and c

123. The reverse of esterification is known ada. fermentation b. transesterificationc. neutralization d. ester hydrolysis

124. Which one shows a carbylamine reaction?a. primary amine b. secondary aminec. tertiary amine d. All of the above

125. Aspirin is formed by the action ofa. phenol b. benzaldehydec. alcohol d. None

126. Which of the following is not aromatic in nature?a. Benzene hexachloride b. Benzene

19


~ Physics ~

c. Cyclopropenyl cation d. Chlorobenzene

127. Nylons area. polyethylene b. polyestersc. polyamides d. polyvinyl chloride

128. Acetylene containsa. 3 σ and 2 π bonds b. 4 σ and 1 π bondsc. 2 σ and 4 π bonds d. σ bonds only

129. Heterolysis of a carbon-chlorine bond

producesa. two free radicals b. two carbanionsc. two carbocations d. one cation and one anion

130. H-C-H bond angle in ethane isa. 109° 28’ b. 118° c. 180° d. 111°

131. The dimension formula for bulk modulus of elasticity is a. M L2 T-2 b. M L2 T2

c. M L-1 T d. M L-1 T-2

132. The angle of projection at which the horizontal range and maximum height of projectile are equal is a. 450 b. tan-10.25 c. tan-1 4 d. tan-10.5

133. If a block moving up at θ =300 with a velocity 5 m/s, stops after 0.5 sec, then value of μ isa. 0.5 b. 1.25 c. 0.6 d. none

134. A particle moves along a circular path under the action of a force. The work done by the force is a. zero b. –ve and non zeroc. + ve and non zero d. finite, may be + ve and-ve

135. A tunnel is dug along a diameter of the earth. Then the force on a particle of mass m placed in the tunnel at a distance x from the centre. a. GMmx/2R2 b. zero c. GMmx2 \R d. none

136. Upthrust acting on body immersed in liquid depends on a. atmospheric pressure b. depth of body below free surface of water.c. density of body d. temperature of liquid

137. On a smooth inclined plane , a body of mass M is attached between two springs . The other ends of the springs are fixed to firm supports. If each spring has force constant K, the period of oscillation of the body (assuming the springs as mass less) is

138. A solid sphere is rotating in free space. If the radius of sphere is increased keeping mass same then the quantity which is not affected is a. moment of inertia b. angular momentum c. angular velocity d. rotational K.E

139. The minimum number of vectors of unequal magnitude required to produce zero resultant isa. two b. threec. four d. more than 4

140. Three blocks of masses m1 m2 and m3 are connected by massless strings on a horizontal frictionless table. They are pullled with a force f3 = 40N. If m1 = 10kg, m2 = 6kg and m3 =4 kg, the tension t2 will be a. 20N b. 40N c. 10N d. 32N

141. The temperature of body increases by 500C then the increases in temperature in absolute scale will bea) 323K b) 223k c) 50k d)35k

142. Heat required to convert 1 gm of ice at 100C into steam at 1000C is a. 0.01 kcal b. 100 cal c.716 cal d.1 kcal

143. A wall has two layers A and B, each made of different material. Both the layers have the same thickness. The thermal conductivity of the material of A is twice that of B. Under thermal equilibrium, the temperature difference across the wall is 360C. The temperature difference across the layer A in 0C is a. 6 b. 12 c.18 d.24

144. The efficiency of a Carnot engine working between steam point and ice point is a. 16.8% b. 26.81% c. 36.8% d. 46.8%

145. What is the ratio of r.m.s. velocity for O2 to

20


H2 ?a.1/4 b.4 c.1/2 d.1/8

146. A man can melt 60g of ice by chewing in one minute. The power of man isa. 80W b.4800W c.336W d.19 W

147. An object is initially at a distance of 100 cm from a plane mirror. If the mirror approaches the object at a speed of 5 cm/s, then after 6 s the distance between the object and its image will be (a) 60 cm (b) 140 cm(c) 170 cm (d) 150 cm

148. To produce magnified erect image of a far object, we will be required along with a convex lens, is (a) Another convex lens (b) Concave lens(c) A plane mirror (d) A concave mirror

149. In stationary waves, antinodes are the points where there is a) Minimum displacement and minimum

pressure change(b) Minimum displacement and maximum

pressure change(c) Maximum displacement and maximum

pressure change(d) Maximum displacement and minimum

pressure change150. The condition for observing Fraunhofer

diffraction from a single slit is that the light wavefront incident on the slit should be (a) Spherical (b) Cylindrical(c) Plane (d) Elliptical

151. Two sound waves of slightly different frequencies propagating in the same direction produces beats due to (a) Polarization (b) Diffraction(c) Interference (d) Refraction

152. A star is going away from the earth. An observer on the earth will see the wavelength of light coming from the star (a) Decreased (b) Increased (c) Neither decreased nor increased (d) Decreased or increased depending upon

the velocity of the star 153. A steady current flow in a metallic conductor

of non-uniform cross section. The quantity is constant along the length of the conductor is/area. a current electric field and drift velocityb. drift speed only c. current and drift speedd. current only

154. If in a Wheatstone bridge the battery and Galvanometer in interchange the condition for balancea. is disturbedb. is not disturbedc. depends on the internal resistance of the

bridged. depends on the value of the resistance of

the bridge155. A bulb with 220V consume the power of 66

watt. If it will be connected with 160V then the power consumed by the bulb will bea. 10 watt b. 40 wattc. 60 watt d. 35 watt

156. Magnetic field is caused bya. stationary chargeb. a moving positive charge onlyc. a moving negative charge onlyd. moving positive and negative charge both

157. The core of an electromagnet is made of soft iron, because a. the susceptibility of soft iron is very high b. coercivity of soft iron is very lowc. both of these d. none of these

158. The power loss in transformer working on 220V a.c. supply is 30%. The ratio of primary to secondary current when output voltage is 110V is a. 1:2 b. 2:1 c. 1:1 d. 5:7

159. The voltage of domestic AC is 220 volt. What does this represent? a. Mean voltageb. peak Voltage c. root mean voltage d. root mean square voltage

160. In a Ballistic galvanometer the deflection is proportional to a. charge b. current c. potential difference d. none

161. The neutral temperature of a thermocouple is 3000C. What is the inversion temperature if the temperature of cold junction is 100C ?a. 5900 b.6100 c. 3100 d. 2900

162. Which of the following cannot be the units of electric field intensity?a. V/m b. J/C-mc. J/C d. N/C

163. A capacitor is charged to store an energy U. The charging battery is then disconnected and an identical capacitor is connected in parallel. The energy in each capacitor is nowa. U /2 b. 3U/2 c. U d. U /4

21


164. Inserting a non-conducting medium between two charges, the force between them?a. becomes zerob. increasesc. remains samed. decreases

165. The electric lines of force due to charged particles area. Always straightb. Always curvedc. Sometimes curved and sometimes straightd. None of above

166. Two coherent sources of light produce destructive interference when phase difference between them is(a)2π (b) π (c) π/2 (d) 0

167. If the ratio of amplitude of two waves is 4 : 3, then the ratio of maximum and minimum intensity is (a) 16 : 18 (b) 18 : 16(c) 49 : 1 (d) 94 : 1

168. A proton and an α particle are injected into a uniform magnetic field at right angle to the direction of field with equal kinetic energies . Then the ratio of radii of their circular paths will be. a. 1:1 b. 2:1c. 1:2 d.:1

169. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron h a v i n g 8 0 e V o f e n e r g y i s nearly ( JeV 19106.11 −×= , Mass of electron kg31109 −× and Plank’s constant 34106.6 −× J-sec) (a)140 Å (b) 0.14 Å (c)14 Å (d) 1.4 Å

170. The lattice constant for a crystal is 10-7 cm. The upper limit for the wavelength of X- rays with this crystal which can be studied is a. 1A b. 2A c. 10A d. 20 A

171. The half – life of radium is 1600 years. The fraction of a sample of radium that would remain after 6400 years is a. 1/4 b. 1/8 c. 1/16 d. 1/64

172. Packing fraction is given by the relation a. A/(M-A) b. (A-M)/A c. M/(M-A) d. (M- A/(A)

173. The major carrier of current in a p-type semiconductor will be. a. neutrons b. protons c. electrons d. holes.

174. Which of the following gates can be served as a building block for any digital circuit? a. OR b. NOT c. AND d. NAND.

175. At absolute zero Si acts asa. metals b. non metal c. insulator d. none of thes

176. In insulatorsa. valence band is partially filled with elec-

tronsb. conduction band is partially filled with

electronsc. conduction band is filled and valence band

is emptyd. conduction band is empty and valence

band is filled177. Which of the following is the weakest kind of

the bonding in solids?a. ionic b. metallicc. vander waals d. covalent

178. Proton is made up of a. uud quarks b. udd quarksc. uus quarks d. none of them

179. The minimum energy required for pair production isa. 1.02MeV b. 52MeVc. 2.04MeV d. none of above

180. Acid rain happens becausea. Sun heats up the upper layer of the

atmosphereb. burning of fossil fuels releases oxides

of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur in the atmosphere

c. electrical charges are produced due to friction against clouds

d. earth atmosphere contains acids

MAT (2021.02.19) 1. Complete the series : 0, 1, 2, 5, 20, 25, ?, ? A.31, 217 B.35, 40 C.150, 157 D. 125, 130 2. Fill in the missing character in the following figures.

A .45 B. 41 C. 32 D. 40 3. Which of the following options best fits the '?' mark ?

7 11 13

17 19 23

29 ? 37

A. 33 B.10 C. 30 D. 31

4. Parts : Strap :: Wolf : ? A. Fox B. Animal C. Flow D. Wood 5. Find the wrong number in the given sequence of the numbers ? 1, 2, 6, 15, 31, 56, 91

A. 6 B. 31 C. 56 D. 91 6. In a certain code if HOTEL= 12 then PIANO = ? A. 10 B. 11 C. 15 D. 22 7. How many digits are there in the book containing 1150 pages? A. 3000 B. 4334 C. 3535 D. 3493 8. In a row of 40 students when santosh was shifted to his left by 4 places, his number from the left end of the row became 10, what was the number of Sakshyam from the right end of the row if Sakshyam was 3 places to the right of Santosh’s original position? A. 21 B. 22 C. 23 D. 24 9. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

A. 1 & 2 only B. 2 & 4 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1 & 4 only

10. An assertion 'A' and the reason 'R' are given. Read them carefully and choose the correct alternative that follows. Assertion (A) : Diamond is used for cutting glass.

3

15

27

6

31

56

9

?

81

~ Mat ~

22




7 11 13

17 19 23

29 ? 37

A. 33 B.10 C. 30 D. 31





3

15

27

6

31

56

9

?

81



7 11 13

17 19 23

29 ? 37

A. 33 B.10 C. 30 D. 31





3

15

27

6

31

56

9

?

81

Reason ® : Diamond has a high refractive index. A.A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B. A and R both are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. C. A is true and R is false. D. A is false and R is true. 11. Find the next figure that completes the series of the figures A, B, C, D and E .

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5

12. Find the number of the triangles in the following figure.

A) 28 B) 30 C) 24 D) 31

13. Choose the odd figure out.

A. A B. b C. d D. e

14. Choose the appropriate analogy.

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

15. In which of the given options is the figure 'X' embedded ?

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4


A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5


A) 28 B) 30 C) 24 D) 31


A. A B. b C. d D. e


A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4


(X) (1) (2) (3) (4) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

23



A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5


A) 28 B) 30 C) 24 D) 31


A. A B. b C. d D. e


A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4


(X) (1) (2) (3) (4) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4


A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5


A) 28 B) 30 C) 24 D) 31


A. A B. b C. d D. e


A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4


(X) (1) (2) (3) (4) A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

16. What is the average of first 20 multiples of 7 ?A. 73.3 B. 73.5 C. 73.8 D. 74

17. If the length of the rectangle is increased by 30% and the breadth is decreased by 20%, then what is the total increment or decrement in area ?A. 2.5% increase B. 2.5 % decrease C. 4 % increase D. 4 % decrease

18. A can do twice as much as B can do a work and C can do thrice as much as B can do the same work. If they all together can do the work in 10 days. How long does B alone take to do the work?A. 45 days B. 60 days C. 70 days D. 90 days

19. In a game of 100 points, A can give B 20 points and C 28 points, then B can give how many points to C ?A. 8 points B. 10 points C. 12 points D. 14 points

20. A train 360 m long is running at a speed of 45 km/hr. In what time will it pass a bridge 140 m long ?A. 40 sec B. 42 sec C. 45 sec D. 48 sec

24


Answers Key Botany41. D 42. C 43. D 44. D 45. C46. A 47. A 48. A 49. C 50. B51. D 52. D 53. D 54. B 55. B56. D 57. D 58. C 59. C 60. C61. A 62. D 63. D 64. C 65. C66. D 67. A 68. A 69. A 70. C71. B 72. B 73. A 74. C 75. A76. A 77. B 78. D 79. A 80. B

Answers Key Zoology1. D 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. A6. C 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. A11. B 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. C16. B 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. D21. A 22. A 23 C 24. B 25. C26. B 27. A 28. D 29. A 30. B31. B 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. D36. B 37. A 38. A 39. B 40. C

Answers Key Chemistry81. C 82. D 83. A 84. B 85. A86. C 87. B 88. A 89. D 90. B91. C 92. A 93. C 94. A 95. A96. A 97. B 98. B 99. C 100. D101. D 102. C 103. C 104. D 105. D106. A 107. A 108. C 109. C 110. D111. D 112. C 113. D 114. D 115. B116. B 117. A 118. B 119. A 120. C121. B 122. D 123. D 124. A 125. A126. A 127. C 128. A 129. D 130. A

Answers Key MAT181. C 182. A 183. D 184. C 185. D186. B 187. D 188. D 189. C 190. B191. A 192. A 193. D 194. C 195. D196. B 197. C 198. B 199. B 200. A

Answers Key Physics131. D 132. C 133. C 134. A 135. A136. D 137. B 138. B 139. B 140. D141. C 142. A 143. B 144. B 145. A146. C 147. B 148. B 149. D 150. A151. C 152. A 153. A 154. B 155. D156. D 157. C 158. D 159. D 160. C161. D 162. C 163. A 164. D 165. B166. C 167. B 168. A 169. D 170. D171. C 172. D 173. D 174. D 175. A176. A 177. C 178. A 179. A. 180. B

25


16. What is the average of first 20 multiples of 7 ? A. 73.3 B. 73.5 C. 73.8 D. 74 17. If the length of the rectangle is increased by 30% and the breadth is decreased by 20%, then what is the total increment or decrement in area ? A. 2.5% increase B. 2.5 % decrease C. 4 % increase D. 4 % decrease 18. A can do twice as much as B can do a work and C can do thrice as much as B can do the same work. If they all together can do the work in 10 days. How long does B alone take to do the work? A. 45 days B. 60 days C. 70 days D. 90 days 19. In a game of 100 points, A can give B 20 points and C 28 points, then B can give how many points to C ? A. 8 points B. 10 points C. 12 points D. 14 points 20. A train 360 m long is running at a speed of 45 km/hr. In what time will it pass a bridge 140 m long ? A. 40 sec B. 42 sec C. 45 sec D. 48 sec

Answers : 1.C 2.A 3.D 4.C 5.D 6.B 7.D 8.D 9.C 10.B 11.A 12.A 13.D 14.C 15.D 16.B 17.C 18.B 19.B 20.A

Explanations :

1. +1 ×2 +3 ×4 +5 ×6 +7 so 25 × 6= 150 & 150 + 7 = 157

2. 9+81

2 = 45

3. As we move along the row from top to bottom the numbers form the series of prime numbers from 7 to 37. So the missing number is 31.

4. parts writing the letters of parts in reverse order we get strap. Similarly wolf : flow.

5. every number is obtained by adding the squares. But 56 + 36 = 92. So 92 is odd

6. H+O+T+E+L= 8 + 15+ 20+ 5+ 12 = 60 /5 = 12 i.e, total of the alphabets

number of the alphabets

In the same way PIANO = 16+9+1+14+15

5 = 555 =11

7. 1× 9 = 9 2 × 90 = 180

EXPLANATIONS OF MAT

3× 900 = 2700 4 × 151 = +604 ( 1150 – 999 = 151)

3493 digits

8. Sakshyam is 3 place right to Santosh’s original position. But now santosh is shifted to four places left so his new order becomes 10th from the left.

So Sakshyam’s position from the left end = 10 + 4 + 3 = 17

Now Sakshyam’s position from the right end = Total – left + 1 = 40 – 17 + 1 = 24 San=10th sak=17th T=40

9. the four triangular edges form a side of a box with half of the side with blackened part. So only one half blackened part is seen in picture 2 which can be formed. Similarly picture 3 also can be formed because both the half blackened part and the dotted part can be hidden.

10. both A and R are correct facts but R is not the correct explanation of A. Because of the High refractive index of diamond the light rays get maximum total internal reflection due to the result of which the diamond is seen brighter not harder.

11. In the clockwise side the half piece of the petal is being continuously deleted whereas in the anticlockwise side the half petals are added in the manner +3 +2 +3 +2 . so from the pic E half petal of the clockwise side is removed and 3 half petals i.e, one full and half petal is added in the anticlockwise side of the flower which gives the flower in picture 1.

12. the square contains 6 × 2 = 12 triangles. The outer 4 triangles contain 4 × 3 = 12 triangles. The left and right kites contain 2 triangles each above and below. So total triangles = 12+12+4 = 28

13. all except pic e has two arrows towards the west and one towards the east.

14. the outer circle is made half horizontally and the inner square rotates in 45° and goes outside both changing their colors.

Santosh new position

Santosh original position

Sakshyam’s position

3× 900 = 2700 4 × 151 = +604 ( 1150 – 999 = 151)

3493 digits













The

26


3× 900 = 2700 4 × 151 = +604 ( 1150 – 999 = 151)

3493 digits













The

The

All

Both

27


Engineering Model question for IOE (TU)

13 x 1 = 131. How many vowels and consonants are there

in the word ‘fatigue’?a. two vowels and three consonants b. three eachc. four vowels and three consonantsd. two each

2. The word ‘fratricide’ has its primary stress on the …………………syllable.a. 1st b. 2nd c. 3rd d. none of these

3. The synonym of ‘fleece’ is……………….a. rob b. recoil c. saucy d. brood

4. The antonym of ‘eternal’ is…………….a. transient b. glory c. harmony d. discord

5. These trees are bare………………..leaves.a. off b. of c. from d. with

6. My means………………limited.a. is b. are c. was d. has been

7. ……………………of the four boys has done this work.a. Anyone b. Neither c. Either d. both (a) and (b)

8. The meaning of ‘between the devil and the deep sea’ is………………….a. in a dilemma b. a man who is drowning c. a deep-sea diver d. to be evil tempered

9. The lightning………………….across the sky.a. flashes b. flashed c. has flashed d. had flashed

10. Can I count on your help?a. S + v + o b. S + v + adjective c. S + vt + o d. S + vi + prepositional phrase

11. Choose the correct sentence.a. He bought five dozen mango.b. He bought five dozens mango.c. He bought five dozen mangoes.d. He bought five dozens mangoes.

12. If water boils, …………………………a. it will change into steam.b. it changes into steam.c. it would change into steam.

d. it should change into steam.13. I look forward to………………..my old

friend next month.a. meet b. met c. have met d. meeting

Read the following passage carefully, and find out the correct answers for the questions given below: 4 x 2 = 8

Compact discs (CDs) have revolutionized the music industry with their surprisingly realistic sound. The six-inch discs look like thin plastic sandwiches with aluminium at the centre. They have digitally recorded material that is read by laser beams, so the sound has none of the crackling of vinyl records. CDs are also virtually indestructible and they are lighter and smaller than conventional records. Since their introduction, CDs have become more affordable and widely available. In fact, they are now sold in electronics and video stores that didn’t formerly carry records or cassettes.

There has been a phenomenal growth in the sale of CDs. Sales climbed dramatically during the second half of the 1980s. In the 1990s sales have been even greater, CDs have all but replaced records in stores and in spite of their being less affordable than cassettes, continue to gain in popularity.

14. The author’s main purpose is to…………..a. tell how CDs are made b. discuss the growth of CDsc. compare CDs to sandwiches d. describe the stores that sell CDs

15. The word ‘revolutionised’ as used in line one could best be replaced by………………..a. changed b.) fought c.) surprised d.) marked

16. The author refers to CDs as ‘sandwiches’ because they………………………..a. are light b. are small c. are layered d. don’t crackle

17. According to the passage, which one of the following is true?a. New kinds of stores are selling CDs. b. CDs are available as cassettes.c. Stores are selling more CDs than cassettes.d. Stores are losing money on their cassettes.

~ English ~

28


~ Chemistry ~14 x 1 = 1418. Total no. of molecules of O2 at NTP required

to burn 1 mole of propane completely isa) 5 × NA b) 5 c) NA2 d) NA

19. Which of the following species has max. no. of unpaired electron?a) Cr+++ b) Fe+++ c) Ni d) Cr

20. Which of these is called anamolous pair in Mendeleev's periodic table?a) N & O b) Li & Na c) Te & I d) Hg & Cu

21. Which of these does not have ionic, covalent & co-ordinate covalent bonds?a) NaNO3 b) NH4Cl c) K2SO4 d) Na2CO3

22. Which of the following has presence of peroxide bond?a) H2S4O6 b) H2SO5 c) H2SO4 d) H2SO3

23. Which of the following aq. solutions is acidic in nature?a) KNO3 b) FeCl3 c) Na2CO3 d) none

24. Which of these is not ion-exchanger for removing hardness of water?a) organic process b) Permutit processc) Calgon process d) None

25. Which of the following reactions is incorrect?a) NaNO3 NaNO2 + O2

b) KNO3 KNO2 + O2

c) LiNO3 Li2O + NO2 + O2

d) None26. Which of these is not alloy of iron?

a) steel b) invar c) perm alloy d) pewter

27. The IPUAC name of CH3(CH3)2CHOHCH2CHOa) 3-Hydroxy-4, 4, 4-trimethyl butanolb) 3-Hydroxy-4, 4-dimethyl pentanalc) 4, 4-Dimethyl pentan-3-ol-1-ald) 2,2-Dimethyl-3-hydroxy pentan-5-al

28. Total no. of isomers of formula C2H4O2 isa) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

29. Benzene diazonium chloride is reduced to benzene bya) H2S b) H3PO3 c) H3PO2 d) H3PO4

30. The element of group VA are generally known asa) normal element b) transition elementc) halogens d) picogens

31. Which is manufactured by the electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride?a) NaOH b) NaClO c) Na d) NaClO3

32. Chain isomers differ ina) empirical formula b) molecular weightc) molecular formula d) length of carbon atom

4 x 2 = 1033. Which of the following hydrocarbon can give

positive (i) Bromine test (ii) Baeyer's test and (iii) Tollen's testa) Ethane b) Ethenec) Ethyne d) Both (b) and (c)

34. The time required to deposit all Ag+ ions present in 500 ml of 2M AgNO3 solution using 2 amp current isa) 13.40 hr b) 21.22 hr c) 6.75 hr d) 26.80 hr

35. 0.06 gm of metal liberated 56 cc of dry H2 at NTP. Sp. Heat of metal is 0.55. The atomic weight of metal isa) 12 b) 24 c) 6 d) 26

36. 1 gm of mixture of NaOH 7 Na2CO3 get completely dissolved in 50 ml of 0.03 N H2SO4 solution the % of NaOH & Na2CO3 area) 29% & 71% b) 21% & 79%c) 50% & 50% d) 40% & 60%

ΔΔΔ

29


~ Mathmatics ~ (10X1=10 mark)

37. If a>b>o and a, b ∈R, then which of the following is not true?

a) a-b>0 b) 1𝑎𝑎 <

1𝑏𝑏 c) b-a>0 d)

1𝑏𝑏 -

1𝑎𝑎> 0.

38. If one root of the equation 𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐-ax-1 =0 is 𝜶𝜶 then the other root is

a) 1 𝛼𝛼 b) -

1𝛼𝛼 c) 1-𝛼𝛼 d) 1+𝛼𝛼

39. If cosec²x = cosec²𝜶𝜶 , then the general value of x is a) n𝜋𝜋 + 𝛼𝛼 b) n𝜋𝜋 + (−1)𝑛𝑛𝛼𝛼

c) 2n𝜋𝜋 ± 𝛼𝛼 d) n𝜋𝜋 ± 𝛼𝛼 40. If 𝑨𝑨𝟐𝟐-A+I = 0, then 𝑨𝑨−𝟏𝟏 equals a) A b) I-A

c) I+A d) 𝐴𝐴−2

41. lim𝑥𝑥→0

𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑛𝑛2𝑥𝑥+𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑛𝑛6𝑥𝑥𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑛𝑛5𝑥𝑥−𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑛𝑛3𝑥𝑥

a) 4 b) 1/2 c) 2 d) 1 42. The second derivative of f(x)= 1/x is at point (1,1) is

equal to a) 1 b) -1 c) 2 d) -2 43. ∫ 𝑑𝑑𝑥𝑥

√1−𝑥𝑥2 equals

a) 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡−1x + c b) 𝜋𝜋2 + 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐−1x + c

c) 𝜋𝜋2 − 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐−1x + c d)

𝜋𝜋2 - 𝑐𝑐𝑠𝑠𝑡𝑡−1x + c

44. The number of unit vectors perpendicular to 𝒂 and 𝒃 are

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 45. If the line 2x+3y+4+K (-x+y+5)=0 is horizontal,

then value of K is a) 0 b) 1 c) 3 d) 2 46. If two vectors whose direction ratios are 1, 2, 3 and

–K, 2, 1 are perpendicular to each other then a) K=7 b) K=4 c) K=6 d) K=3

(15x2 =30 mark)

47. If f(x) = 1+𝜶𝜶𝒙𝒙 , 𝜶𝜶 ≠ 0 and (fof) (x) =x, then 𝜶𝜶 is equal to a) -2 b) 1 c) 2 d) -1

48. If A1, A2, A3 are the areas of ex circles and A be the area of in circle then a)

𝐴𝐴1√𝐴𝐴 b)

1√𝐴𝐴

c) 1

√𝐴𝐴1𝐴𝐴2𝐴𝐴3 d) 𝐴𝐴2√𝐴𝐴

49. The number of triangles that can be formed with 10 points as vertices, n of the them being collinear is 110 then n is equal to

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

50. If a, 4, are in A.P; a, 2, b are in G.P then a, 1, b are in

a) A.P b) G.P c) A.G.P d) H.P

51. If Z= cos𝜽𝜽+i sin𝜽𝜽, 𝒕𝒕𝒕𝒕𝒕𝒕𝒕𝒕 𝒛𝒛𝒕𝒕 + 𝟏𝟏𝒁𝒁𝒕𝒕 𝒕𝒕𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒂𝒂𝒆𝒆𝒆𝒆

a) -2sin b) 2sinn𝜃𝜃𝑠𝑠 𝑐𝑐) − 2𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑡𝑡𝜃𝜃 𝑑𝑑) 2𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑡𝑡𝜃𝜃

52. If a = ∑ 𝟐𝟐𝒕𝒕(𝟐𝟐𝒕𝒕−𝟏𝟏)!

∞𝒕𝒕=𝟏𝟏 and b = ∑ 𝟐𝟐𝒕𝒕

(𝟐𝟐𝒕𝒕+𝟏𝟏)!∞𝒕𝒕=𝟏𝟏 Then, and

equals a) 𝑒𝑒2-1 b) 𝑒𝑒2 c) 1 d) 𝑒𝑒2+1 53. If 𝜽𝜽 be the angle between the vectors 𝒂 and 𝒃

then|𝒂 𝐗𝐗 𝒃 | = 𝒂𝒂. 𝒃 then 𝜽𝜽 equals a) 𝜋𝜋 b)

𝜋𝜋4 c)

𝜋𝜋2 d) 0

54. If sum of the slopes of the lines 𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐+𝜽𝜽xy-3y² =0 is twice the product of the slopes then 𝜽𝜽 is equal to

a) 0 b) -2 c) 2 d)1 55. If the line lx+my = 1 be a tangent to the circle 𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐 +

𝒚𝒚𝟐𝟐 = a² , then the locus of the point (l, m) is a) circle b) straight line

c) parabola d) ellipse 56. The equation of direction of the parabola

𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐+8y-2x = 7 is a) y=2 b) y=0 c) y=3 d) y= -3 57. The plane 6x+4y+3z = 12 cuts then axes in A, B, C

then the area of ∆ ABC is a)√61 𝑐𝑐𝑠𝑠. 𝑢𝑢𝑡𝑡𝑠𝑠𝑡𝑡 b) √41 𝑐𝑐𝑠𝑠. 𝑢𝑢𝑡𝑡𝑠𝑠𝑡𝑡

c) √29 𝑐𝑐𝑠𝑠. 𝑢𝑢𝑡𝑡𝑠𝑠𝑡𝑡 d) √45 𝑐𝑐𝑠𝑠. 𝑢𝑢𝑡𝑡𝑠𝑠𝑡𝑡 58. If y= 𝒙𝒙𝒙𝒙𝒙𝒙−−−𝒕𝒕𝒕𝒕 ∞

, then 𝒅𝒅𝒚𝒚𝒅𝒅𝒙𝒙 equals

a) 𝑦𝑦2

𝑥𝑥(1+𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑒𝑒𝑥𝑥) b) 𝑦𝑦

𝑥𝑥(1−𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑒𝑒𝑥𝑥)

c) 𝑦𝑦

𝑥𝑥(1+𝑦𝑦 𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑦𝑒𝑒𝑥𝑥) d) 𝑦𝑦2


59. If the rate of change of volume of a sphere is equal to the rate of change of its radius then its radius equal to

a) 1 b) 1

2√𝜋𝜋 c) 12𝜋𝜋 d) )

1√2

60.∫ (𝒙𝒙+𝟏𝟏)𝒕𝒕𝒙𝒙

𝒄𝒄𝒕𝒕𝒆𝒆𝟐𝟐 (𝒙𝒙𝒕𝒕𝒙𝒙) dx equals a) cos(x𝑒𝑒𝑥𝑥)+c b) sin ex+c

c) tan(xex) + c d) tan ex + c 61. The area of the region between then curve y = 𝒙𝒙𝟑𝟑

and the line y = x lying in the first quadrant is a) 14sq. unit b) 12 𝑐𝑐𝑠𝑠. 𝑢𝑢𝑡𝑡𝑠𝑠𝑡𝑡

c) 1 sq. unit d) 2 sq. unit

(10x1=10 mark) 62. If A⊆B, then 𝑩𝑩′ - 𝑨𝑨′ equals a) 𝐴𝐴′ b) 𝐵𝐵′ c)∅ d) B-A 63. If X𝝐𝝐𝝐𝝐, 𝒕𝒕𝒕𝒕𝒕𝒕𝒕𝒕 the value of 𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐-6x+13 will not be less

than a) 6 b) 4 c) 7 d) 8

64. The general values of x which satisfies sinx= −√𝟑𝟑𝟐𝟐

and cosx = 𝟏𝟏𝟐𝟐 are

a) 2𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛+ (5𝜋𝜋4 ) b) 2𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛+ (

5𝜋𝜋3 )

c)( 2𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛- (7𝜋𝜋6 ) d) 2𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛+ (

7𝜋𝜋6 )

65. If A is a square matrix of order 3 with |𝑨𝑨|=4 then |𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂. 𝑨𝑨| is

a) 8 b) 16 c) 12 d) 20

66. 𝐥𝐥𝐥𝐥𝐥𝐥𝒙𝒙→∞

𝐬𝐬𝐥𝐥𝐬𝐬𝒙𝒙𝒙𝒙 is

a) 1 b) 0 c) ∞ 𝑑𝑑) − 1

67. If y=1 - 𝒙𝒙𝟏𝟏ᴉ+𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐

𝟐𝟐ᴉ –𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐

𝟑𝟑 ᴉ +--- to ∞ then 𝒂𝒂𝟐𝟐𝒚𝒚

𝒂𝒂𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐 is a) y b)-y c)2y d)y/2

68. ∫ 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝐬𝐬𝒙𝒙 𝟑𝟑⁄ −𝒕𝒕𝒂𝒂𝒕𝒕𝟑𝟑𝒙𝒙 𝟑𝟑⁄

𝟏𝟏−𝟑𝟑𝒕𝒕𝒂𝒂𝒕𝒕𝟐𝟐𝒙𝒙 𝟑𝟑⁄ dx is

a)-log secx+c b) log sinx+c c)-log cosx+c d) log tan x + c

69. If 𝒂𝒂. 𝒃 = |𝒂 | |𝒃 | then the vectors 𝒂 𝒂𝒂𝒕𝒕𝒂𝒂 𝒃 𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒂𝒕𝒕 a) null vector b) coincident

c) perpendicular d) parallel 70. If the centroid of the triangle formed by the points

(1,a), (2,1) and (c,-3) lies on the x-axis then a) a=3 b) b=3

c) a-b =3 d) a+b = 3 71. If K, -2K, 3K are dc’s of a line then the a)± 14 b) ± 1

√14

c) ± √14 d) ± 114

(10X1=10 mark) 37. If a>b>o and a, b ∈R, then which of the following is

not true? a) a-b>0 b)

1𝑎𝑎 <


1𝑏𝑏 -

1𝑎𝑎> 0.


a) 1 𝛼𝛼 b) -





41. lim𝑥𝑥→0












(15x2 =30 mark)




1√𝐴𝐴

c) 1



a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6





52. If a = ∑ 𝟐𝟐𝒕𝒕(𝟐𝟐𝒕𝒕−𝟏𝟏)!

∞𝒕𝒕=𝟏𝟏 and b = ∑ 𝟐𝟐𝒕𝒕




𝜋𝜋4 c)

𝜋𝜋2 d) 0









a) 𝑦𝑦2



c) 𝑦𝑦




a) 1 b) 1

2√𝜋𝜋 c) 12𝜋𝜋 d) )

1√2

60.∫ (𝒙𝒙+𝟏𝟏)𝒕𝒕𝒙𝒙





(10X1=10 mark) 37. If a>b>o and a, b ∈R, then which of the following is

not true? a) a-b>0 b)

1𝑎𝑎 <


1𝑏𝑏 -

1𝑎𝑎> 0.


a) 1 𝛼𝛼 b) -





41. lim𝑥𝑥→0












(15x2 =30 mark)




1√𝐴𝐴

c) 1



a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6





52. If a = ∑ 𝟐𝟐𝒕𝒕(𝟐𝟐𝒕𝒕−𝟏𝟏)!

∞𝒕𝒕=𝟏𝟏 and b = ∑ 𝟐𝟐𝒕𝒕




𝜋𝜋4 c)

𝜋𝜋2 d) 0









a) 𝑦𝑦2



c) 𝑦𝑦




a) 1 b) 1

2√𝜋𝜋 c) 12𝜋𝜋 d) )

1√2

60.∫ (𝒙𝒙+𝟏𝟏)𝒕𝒕𝒙𝒙





30



than a) 6 b) 4 c) 7 d) 8




5𝜋𝜋3 )


7𝜋𝜋6 )


a) 8 b) 16 c) 12 d) 20



a) 1 b) 0 c) ∞ 𝑑𝑑) − 1

67. If y=1 - 𝒙𝒙𝟏𝟏ᴉ+𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐

𝟐𝟐ᴉ –𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐



68. ∫ 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝐬𝐬𝒙𝒙 𝟑𝟑⁄ −𝒕𝒕𝒂𝒂𝒕𝒕𝟑𝟑𝒙𝒙 𝟑𝟑⁄







√14

c) ± √14 d) ± 114


than a) 6 b) 4 c) 7 d) 8




5𝜋𝜋3 )


7𝜋𝜋6 )


a) 8 b) 16 c) 12 d) 20



a) 1 b) 0 c) ∞ 𝑑𝑑) − 1

67. If y=1 - 𝒙𝒙𝟏𝟏ᴉ+𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐

𝟐𝟐ᴉ –𝒙𝒙𝟐𝟐



68. ∫ 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝐬𝐬𝒙𝒙 𝟑𝟑⁄ −𝒕𝒕𝒂𝒂𝒕𝒕𝟑𝟑𝒙𝒙 𝟑𝟑⁄







√14

c) ± √14 d) ± 114

P a g e | 1

Full Marks: 140 IOE MODEL ENTRANCE EXAMINATION - Time: 2 Hours

Section - I (60 × 1 = 60 Marks) Sub: PHYSICS (15 × 1 = 15 Marks) 1. A man is sitting with folded hands on a revolving table.

Suddenly, he stretched his arms. Angular speed of table would a) increase b) decrease c) remains same d) become zero

2. A wire of length L and area of cross-section A is stretched through a certain length l. Y is Young's modulus of the material of the wire, then force constant of the wire is

a) YLA b)

YlA c)

YAl d)

YAL

3. The coefficient of linear expansion of a crystal in one direction is 1 and that in every direction r to it is 2. The coefficient of cubical expansion is a) 31 b) 32 c) 1 + 22 d) 21 + 2

4. A sample of gas expands from volume V1 to V2. the amount of work done by the gas is max. When the expansion is a) isothermal b) adiabatic c) isochoric d) same in all the cases

5. Monochromatic light of wavelength gas refracted from vacuum to a medium of refraction index . The ratio of wavelength of the incident and refracted wave is a) 1: b) 1:1 c) :1 d) 2:1

6. A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes is formed between two atoms having a distance 1.21 between them. The wavelength of the standing wave is a) 1.21 b) 2.42 c) 6.05 d) 3.63

7. An electron and a proton with equal momentum enter perpendicular into a uniform magnetic field. a) The path of proton shall be more curved than that of

electron b) The path of proton shall be less curved than that of

electron c) Both are equally curved d) Path of both will be straight line

8. An ammeter has resistance G and a range i A. The value of resistance used in parallel to convert it into an ammeter of range in 'A' is

a) nG b) Gn c) (n – 1)G d)

Gn – 1

9. If an electron and a photon propagates in the form of waves having the same wavelength it implies that they have the same a) energy b) momentum c) velocity d) angular momentum

10. Barrier potential of p - n junction diode does not depend upon a) diode design b) temperature c) forward bias d) all of above

11. A body moving in a circular motion with constant speed has constant a) velocity b) acceleration c) KE d) displacement

12. Two charged spheres of radii 10 cm and 15 cm are connected by a thin wire. No current flow if they have

a) same charge b) same potential c) same field intensities on surface d) same energy

13. Steam is passed through the water contained in a beaker. The water can boil when steam is at a) atmospheric pressure b) pressure above atmospheric pressure c) pressure below atmospheric pressure d) any pressure

14. The critical angle of light passing from glass to air is minimum for a) red b) green c) yellow d) violet

15. Velocity of sound in a gas is proportional to a) square root of adiabatic elasticity b) adiabatic elasticity c) square root of isothermal elasticity d) isothermal elasticity

Sub: MATHEMATICS (20 × 1 = 20 Marks) 16. If A = , , then the power set P(A) of A is

a) A b) , , A c) , , A d) , , A

17. The value of cos-1(–1) – sin-1(1) equals to

a) 3 b)

2 c)

4 d)

6

18. The distance of the point (x, y) from y-axis is a) x b) y c) | x | d) | y |

19. | ( i

+ j

) × ( k

× i

) | = a) 1 b) 2 c) 2 d) 3

20. If A and B are 3 × 3 matrices then AB = 0 implies a) A = 0 and B = 0 b) | A | = 0 and | B | = 0 c) | A | = 0 or | B | = 0 d) A = 0 or B = 0

21. If y = sinx, then dydx =

a) cosx b)

180 cosx

c) 180 cosx d) –

180 cosx

22.

0

2

dx1 + 5x =

a) 15 ln2 b)

15 ln3 c)

111 ln7 d)

15 ln11

23. If M =

1 2

2 3 and M2 – M – I = 0, then =

a) –2 b) 2 c) – 4 d) 4 24. If f(x) is a function, then f(x) – f(–x) is always

a) an even function b) an odd function c) not a function d) a periodic function

25. The minimum value of f(x) = 3 | x | + 4 | x – 1 | is a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 0

26. The domain of the function f: R R defined by f(x) = 1

9 – x2 , x R

P a g e | 1





a) YLA b)

YlA c)

YAl d)

YAL









a) nG b) Gn c) (n – 1)G d)

Gn – 1










a) A b) , , A c) , , A d) , , A


a) 3 b)

2 c)

4 d)

6


19. | ( i

+ j

) × ( k

× i

) | = a) 1 b) 2 c) 2 d) 3



a) cosx b)

180 cosx

c) 180 cosx d) –

180 cosx

22.

0

2

dx1 + 5x =

a) 15 ln2 b)

15 ln3 c)

111 ln7 d)

15 ln11

23. If M =

1 2

2 3 and M2 – M – I = 0, then =





9 – x2 , x R

P a g e | 1





a) YLA b)

YlA c)

YAl d)

YAL









a) nG b) Gn c) (n – 1)G d)

Gn – 1










a) A b) , , A c) , , A d) , , A


a) 3 b)

2 c)

4 d)

6


19. | ( i

+ j

) × ( k

× i

) | = a) 1 b) 2 c) 2 d) 3



a) cosx b)

180 cosx

c) 180 cosx d) –

180 cosx

22.

0

2

dx1 + 5x =

a) 15 ln2 b)

15 ln3 c)

111 ln7 d)

15 ln11

23. If M =

1 2

2 3 and M2 – M – I = 0, then =





9 – x2 , x R

P a g e | 1





a) YLA b)

YlA c)

YAl d)

YAL









a) nG b) Gn c) (n – 1)G d)

Gn – 1










a) A b) , , A c) , , A d) , , A


a) 3 b)

2 c)

4 d)

6


19. | ( i

+ j

) × ( k

× i

) | = a) 1 b) 2 c) 2 d) 3



a) cosx b)

180 cosx

c) 180 cosx d) –

180 cosx

22.

0

2

dx1 + 5x =

a) 15 ln2 b)

15 ln3 c)

111 ln7 d)

15 ln11

23. If M =

1 2

2 3 and M2 – M – I = 0, then =





9 – x2 , x R

P a g e | 3

54. That which cannot be corrected: a) incurable b) incorrigible c) aquatic d) pedantic

55. I feel the room _____ a) move b) to move c) moved d) being moved

56. Let's hope _____ the best. a) at b) for c) of d) on

57. You are man ____ the job a) for b) at c) of d) onto

58. ______ faithfully a) your's b) yours' c) your d) none of these

59. The cattle _____ grazing in the field. a) is b) are c) was d) has been

60. The – thirds of the books _____ interesting. a) is b) are c) was d) has been

Section - II (40 × 2 = 80 Marks) Sub: PHYSICS (15 × 2 = 30 Marks) 61. Two paper screens A and B are separated by a distance

of 200m. A bullet pierces A and then B. The hole in B is 40 cm below the hole in A. If the bullet is travelling horizontally at the time of hitting A, then the velocity of the bullet at A is a) 200 m/s b) 400 m/s c) 600 m/s d) 700 m/s

62. A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M a

distance d at a constant downward acceleration of g4 .

Then the work done by the cord on the block is

a) Mgd

4 b) 34 Mgd c) –

34 Mgd d) Mgd

63. Two equal masses m and m are hung from a balance whose scale pans differ in height by 'h'. The mean density of earth is

a) zero b) 4Gmh

3

c) 8Gmh

3 d) 2Gmh

3

64. There is a small hole in a hollow sphere. The water enters in it when it is taken to a depth of 40 cm under water. The surface tension of water is 7.0 × 10–2 N/m. the diameter of hole is (g = 9.8 m/s2)

a) 128 mm b)

17 mm c) 14 mm d)

114 mm

65. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute

temperature. The ratio Cp

Cv for gas is

a) 43 b) 2 c)

53 d)

32

66. A ray incident at 15 on one refracting surface of prism of angle 60 suffers a deviation of 55. What is the angle of emergence? a) 100 b) 85 c) 45 d) 30

67. In Young's double slit experiment the ratio of maximum to minimum intensities of the fringe system is 4:1. The amplitude of the coherent sources are in the ratio a) 4:1 b) 3:1 c) 2:1 d) 1:1

68. A whistle revolves in a circle with angular speed = 20 rad/s using a string of length 50 cm. If the frequency of

sound from the whistle is 385 Hz, what is the minimum frequency heard by an observed which is far away from the centre. (vel. of sound in air = 340 m/s) a) 385 Hz b) 374 Hz c) 394 Hz d) 333 Hz

69. The figure below shows a net work of resistance. The equivalent resistance between X and Y is

a) 36 b) 8 c) 6 d) 16

70. A current of 10 ampere is flowing in a wire of length 1.5 metre. A force of 15n acts on it when it is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 2 tesla. The angle between the magnetic field and the direction of the current is a) 30 b) 45 c) 60 d) 90

71. When current changes from +2A to –2A in 0.05s on e.m.f. of 8V is induced in a coil. The coefficient of self inductance of the coil is a) 0.2H b) 0.4H c) 0.8H d) 0.1H

72. An ac source of frequency 50 Hz is connected in series to an inductance of 0.5 H and resistance of 157 ohm. The phase difference between current and voltage is a) 60 b) 45 c) 75 d) 90

73. A particle A has charge +q and particle B has charge +4q with each of them having the same mass m. When allowed to fall from through the same electric p.d., the

ratio of the speed VA

VB will become

a) 2:1 b) 1:2 c) 1:4 d) 4;1 74. Monochromatic light incident on a metal surface emits

electrons with kinetic energies from zero to 2.6eV. What is the least energy of the incident photon if the tightly bound electron needs 4.2eV to remove? a) 1.6eV b) 4.4eV c) 6.8eV d) 8.3eV

75. Percentage of the original number of atoms in a radioactive sample remaining at the end of one mean life is a) 63 b) 37 c) 50 d) 60

Sub: MATHEMATICS (15 × 2 = 30 Marks)

76. In ABC, the value of r1

(s – b) (s – c) =

a) 1r b)

3r c) 3r d) 3

77. If pth term of an A.P. is q and qth term is p, then rth term is a) p – q + r b) q – p + r c) p + q – r d) p + q + r

78. In a cricket championship there are 45 matches. If each team plays one match with other then the number of team is a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 17

79. If a and b are coefficients of xn and xn + 1 respectively in the expansion of (1 + x)2n + 1, then a) a = b b) a = 2b c) b = 2a d) a + b = (2n + 1)!

80. If the point (1,k) lies outside the circle x2 + y2 = 10, then k = a) (–3, 3) b) (3, )

(15 x 2 = 30 Marks)

72

73

74

75

76

77

78

79

80

81

82

83

84

85

86

87

88

89

90

~ Physics ~(1 x 15 = 15 Marks)

31


P a g e | 3













a) Mgd

4 b) 34 Mgd c) –

34 Mgd d) Mgd


a) zero b) 4Gmh

3

c) 8Gmh

3 d) 2Gmh

3


a) 128 mm b)

17 mm c) 14 mm d)

114 mm



Cv for gas is

a) 43 b) 2 c)

53 d)

32






a) 36 b) 8 c) 6 d) 16






VB will become






(s – b) (s – c) =

a) 1r b)

3r c) 3r d) 3





P a g e | 3













a) Mgd

4 b) 34 Mgd c) –

34 Mgd d) Mgd


a) zero b) 4Gmh

3

c) 8Gmh

3 d) 2Gmh

3


a) 128 mm b)

17 mm c) 14 mm d)

114 mm



Cv for gas is

a) 43 b) 2 c)

53 d)

32






a) 36 b) 8 c) 6 d) 16






VB will become






(s – b) (s – c) =

a) 1r b)

3r c) 3r d) 3





P a g e | 3













a) Mgd

4 b) 34 Mgd c) –

34 Mgd d) Mgd


a) zero b) 4Gmh

3

c) 8Gmh

3 d) 2Gmh

3


a) 128 mm b)

17 mm c) 14 mm d)

114 mm



Cv for gas is

a) 43 b) 2 c)

53 d)

32






a) 36 b) 8 c) 6 d) 16






VB will become






(s – b) (s – c) =

a) 1r b)

3r c) 3r d) 3





91

92

93

94

95

96

97

98

99

100

101

32


Answers Key English1 A 2 A 3 A 4 A 5 B 6 B 7 A 8 A9 B 10 D 11 C 12 B 13 D 14 A 15 D 16 C 17 D

4 | P a g e

SEA Engineering Academy Thapathali, Kathmandu

01-4101611, 4101612

Q.N. Ans. Hints & Solution

37. (d) Cr 1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

5 4s

1 (6 unpaired electrons)

Cr+++

1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

3

Fe+++

1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

5

Ni 1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

8 4s

2

38. (c) Anamolous pair Ar & K, Co & Ni and Te & I

39. (c) K2SO4 has ionic & co-ordinate bonds only

40. (b) H2SO5 O.N. of S is calculated to be +8 which is incorrect hence H2SO5 has peroxide

bond

41. (b) Aq. solution of salt of weak base & strong acid is acidic in nature

FeCl3 + H2O Fe(OH)3 + HCl

42. (c) Calgon process removes hardness by complex formation but not ion exchange method.

43. (d) All are correct

44. (d) Pewter → Sn & Pb Steel → Fe & C

Invar → Fe & Ni Permalloy → Fe & Ni

45. (b) The structure formula of the compound is

CH3 —

CH3

|

C —

|

CH3

OH

|

CH — CH2 —

O

||

C — H

The compound is an aldehyde as aldehyde has higher preference than alcohol

46. (b) C2H4O2 → CH3COOH & HCOOCH3

(acid) (ester)

47. (c) C6H5N2Cl + H3PO2 → C6H6 + N2 + HCl + H3PO3 + H2O

48. (d) Group V A → Pnicogens → Nitrogen family

Group VI A → Oxygen family → Chalcogens

Group VII A → Halogens

49. (c) NaCl → Na+ + Cl

–

At cathode; Na+ + e

– → Na; At anode; Cl

– → Cl + e

The net reaction of electrolysis is ; Cl + Cl → Cl2↑

2NaCl → 2Na + Cl2↑

50.(d) 51.(a) 52.(b) 53.(c) 54.(b) 55.(a) 56.(b) 57.(a) 58.(d) 59.(b) 60.(b)

61. (d) For vertical motion

y = 1

2 gt

2 or, t =

2y

g =

2 × 0.4

9.8 = 0.28 sec

∴ Vx = d

t =

200

0.28 = 700 m/s

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01-4101611, 4101612


62. (c) mg – T = ma

or, T = mg – mg

4 =

3mg

4

∴ W = T.d cos180° = – 3

4 mgd

63. (c) ∆wt = mg – mg ( )1 –

2h

R = mg – mg +

2mgh

R = 2m

Gm

R2 ×

h

R

= 2mG × 4π3

R

3ρh

R3 =

8πGρmh

3

64. (d) P.A. = 2πr. T or, ρgh × πr2 = 2πrT or, ρgh.r = 2T

or, ρgh × d

2 = 2T or, d =

4T

ρgh =

4 × 7 × 10–2

103 × 9.8 × 0.4

= 1

14 × 10

–3 m =

1

14 mm

65. (d) P ∝ T3 or, P = KT

3 ............... (i)

For adiabatic process

Tγ ∝ P

γ – 1 or, P ∝

1T

γγ−

or, P = K1T

γγ−

................. (ii)

Comparing (i) and (ii)

3 = γ

γ – 1 or, 3γ – 3 = γ or, γ =

3

2

66. (a) δ = i1 + i2 – A or, 55 = 15 + i2 – 60 or, i2 = 100°

67. (b) Imax

Imin =

4

1 = ( )

a1 + a2

a1 – a2

2

or, a1 + a2

a1 – a2 =

2

1 or, a1 + a2 = 2a1 – 2a2

or, 3a2 = a1 or, a1

a2 = 3:1

68. (b) Minimum frequency is observed if whistle is moving away from person so

fmin = v

v + vs × f =

v

v + rω f =

340

340 + 0.5 × 20 × 385 = 374 Hz

69. (b)

Here, R1 : R2 : R3 = R1'

: R2' : R3'

or, 2 : 4 : 6 = 4 : 8 : 12 or, 1 : 2 : 3 = 1 : 2 : 3

So, AD & BC act as open circuit

So, Req = 12 × 24

12 + 24 =

12 × 24

36 = 8Ω

70. (a) F =

Bi

sinθ or, sinθ =

F

BIl =

15

2 × 10 × 1.5 =

1

2 = sin30° ∴ θ = 30°

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01-4101611, 4101612


71. (d) E = –L

dI

dt or, 8 = –L

(–2 –2)

0.05 or, L =

8 × 0.05

4 = 0.1H

72. (b) tanφ =

XL

R =

2πfL

R or, φ = tan

–1( )2π × 50 × 0.5

157 = 45°

73. (b) For 1st For 2

nd

qV = 1

2 mv1

2 4qV =

1

2mv2

2

or, v1 = 2qV

m ............... (i) or, v2 =

8qV

m = 2

2qV

m = 2v1

∴ v1

v2 =

1

2

74. (c) kEmax = 2.6 ev φ = 4.2 ev E = φ + kEmax = (4.2 + 2.6) ev = 6.8 ev

75. (b) 1

2

1 1 1

2 2 2

1.44Tt T

1.44T T T

o

N 1 1 1 10.368

N 2 2 2 2

= = = = =

% left = N

N0 × 100% = 0.368 × 100% = 36.8%

76. (b) r1

(s – b) (s – c) =

∆(s – a) (s – b) (s – c)

× s

s =

∆s

∆2 = 1

r

r2

(s – a) (s – c) =

1

r and

r3

(s – a) (s – b) =

1

r

adding all we get r1

(s – b) (s – c) =

3

r

77. (c) a + (p – 1)d = q .............. (i) a + (q – 1)d = p .................. (ii)

(i) – (ii) d[p – q] = q – p d = – 1

From (i) and a – p + 1 = q a = p + q – 1

tr = a + (r – 1)d = p + q – 1 – r + 1 = p + q –r

78. (c) nC2 = 45 n(n – 1) = 90

Option 'c' satisfies the above relation

79. (a) Coefficient of xn =

2n + 1Cn = a =

2n + 1C2n + 1 – n =

2n + 1Cn + 1

Coefficient of xn + 1

= 2n + 1

Cn + 1 = b

∴ a = b

80. (c) x12 + y1

2 – 10 > 0 1 + k

2 – 10 > 0

k2 > 9 | k | > 3 k > 3, k < –3

∴ Option 'c' is correct

81. (c)

0

1

dx

1 + x – x .

1 + x + x

1 + x + x =

0

1

1 + x + x

1 dx

( )3/2 3/2

1

1 x x

3 3

2 2 0

+

+

= 2

3 [(1 + 1)

3/2 + 1 – (1 + 0) + 0] =

4 2

3

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01-4101611, 4101612


28. (b) Let α be the other root then product of the roots =

(a – b)

(b – c)

1 × α = a – b

b – c ⇔ a =

a – b

b – c

29. (a) Let f = ax2 + 2hxy + by

2 – 1 = 0

∴ dy

dx = –

( )∂f

∂x

∂f

∂r

= – 2ax + 2hy

2hx + 2by = –

ax + hy

hx + by

30. (d) By using L-Hospital's rule:

= lim

x→0 6(1 + x)

5

2(1 + x) =

3(1 + 0)5

1 + 0 = 3

31. (a)

1

2ax – x2 dx =

1

a2 – (a

2 – 2ax – x

2) dx =

1

a2 – (x – a)

2 dx = sin

–1 ( )

x – a

a

32. (c) A is a singular matrix i.e. |A| = 0

we have,

A (adjA) = |A|.I

null matrix

33. (c) a

→ ⋅ b

→ = b

→ ⋅ c

→ = c

→ ⋅ a

→ = 0

|a| = 1, |b| = 1, |c| = 1

Hence we get

a→

– b→

2

+ b→

– c→

2

+ c→

– a→

2

= 6

34. (a) From the figure:

∆ = 1

2 4.3 = 6 s =

3 + 4 + 5

2 = 6 r =

∆s

= 1

In-centre (r, r) = (1, 1)

35. (a) Option (a) is correct.

36. (a) C3H8 + 5O2 ∆→ 3CO2 + 4H2O

1 mole of propane requires 5 mole of oxygen.

Answers Key Chemistry18

19

202122

23

242526

27

28

29

30

31

32

33


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01-4101611, 4101612


90. (c) α = 2ω, β = 2ω

α2

= ω, β2

= ω2

( )α2

7

= ω7 = ω

∴ The equation is x2 – (ω + ω2

)x + ω = 0 x2 + x + 1 = 0

91. (c) Ethane No positive test Ethene Bromine test Bayer's test

Ethyne All three tests

92. (a) Molarity =

Mass × 100

M.W. × vol. in ml or, 2 =

Mass of Ag × 1000

108 × 500

∴ Mass = 108 gm

# Applying Faraday,

M = E

F It or, 108 =

108

96500 × 2 × t

or, t =96500

2 = 48250 13.40 hr.

93. (a) Mass of H2

2

22400 × 56 0.005 gm

Eq. wt. = 0.06

0.005 × 1 12

∴ Approx atomic wt. = 6.4

0.54 = 11.83

App. valency = 11.83

12 ≈ 1

Atomic wt. 12 × 1 = 12

94. (b) x

40 +

(1 – x)

53 =

50 × 0.03

1000

or, 0.025x + 0.018(1 – x) = 0.015(0.0015)

or, 0.025x + 0.018 – 0.018x = 0.0015

∴ 0.007x = 0.0015

x = 0.0015

0.007 = 0.21 gm

95. (d) C2H6 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O

0.0223 gm = 0.0223

30 mol of C2H6 =

0.0223

30 × 3 mol of O2 = 50 ml

96.(a) 97.(b) 98.(d) 99.(d) 100.(d)

♦

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01-4101611, 4101612

IOE MODEL ENTRANCE EXAMINATION - 2076

Weekly Test - 2076/10/25

Answer Key


1. (b) Iω = constant, As the man stretch his arms, I in increases so ω decreases.

2. (d) F =

YAl

L = Kl ∴ F ∝ l so force constant is k =

YA

L

3. (c) γ = α1 + 2α2

4. (a) During expansion work done will be as Wisobaric > Wisothermal > Wadiabatic

5. (c) λa

λm = µ:1 or,

λλm

= µ:1

6. (a)

d = λ or, λ = 1.21Å 7. (c)

Bev = mv

2

r or, Ber = P

∴ Radius of path will be equal.

8. (d) S =

iG

ni – i =

G

n – 1

9. (b) λc = λp or,

h

Pc =

h

Pp or, Pc = Pp

10. (a) Barrier potential of a diode does not depends on diode design.

11. (c) If an object is in circular motion:

(i) Its speed, angular speed, angular momentum and K.E. remains same.

(ii) Its velocity, momentum, acceleration and force remains constant in terms of

magnitude but changes in direction.

12. (b)

13. (b)

14. (d) R O Y G B I V R O Y G B I V

decreasing order of wavelengths increasing order of refractive index

> > > > > > < < < < < <→ →

Sin C = 1

µ C ∝

1

µ , Also; µ = A +

B

λ2 → Cauchy's relation,

∴ V < G < Y < R (increasing order of critical angle)

15. (a) ν =

γp

ρ ν ∝ γ

16. (c) No. of non-empty proper subsets = 2n – 2 = 2

3 – 2 = 6

17. (a) tan

–1( )tan2π3

= tan–1( )– 3 = –tan

–13 = –tan

–1( )tanπ3

= –π3

33

34

35

36

34


37383940

4142

43

44

454647

48

49

50

51

52

53

54

Answers Key MathmaticsAnswer Hints and Explanations: 1. (c) 2. (a) let other root be 𝛽𝛽, then 𝛼𝛼 𝛽𝛽 =1 , 𝛽𝛽 =1/α. 3. (d) 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2𝑥𝑥 = 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2𝛼𝛼 ⟹ 𝑥𝑥= nπ±𝛼𝛼. 4. (b) I = A-A² ⟹ 𝐴𝐴−1 = I-A.

5. (a) lim𝑥𝑥→0

𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠2𝑥𝑥+𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠6𝑥𝑥𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠5𝑥𝑥−𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠3𝑥𝑥 = lim

𝑥𝑥→0 2𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑠𝑠2𝑥𝑥+6𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑠𝑠6𝑥𝑥5𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑠𝑠5𝑥𝑥−3𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑠𝑠3𝑥𝑥 =

2+65−3 = 4.

6. (c) 𝑓𝑓′ (x) = 1𝑥𝑥2, 𝑓𝑓′′(x) =

2𝑥𝑥3 ⟹ 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎(1,1), 𝑓𝑓′′ (x) =2.

7. (c) ∫ 𝑑𝑑𝑥𝑥√1−𝑥𝑥2 = 𝑐𝑐𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠−1𝑥𝑥 + 𝑐𝑐 =

𝜋𝜋2 – 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐−1𝑥𝑥 + 𝑐𝑐.

8. (b) 2, 𝑎𝑎 × 𝑏 and 𝑏 × 𝑎𝑎 are unit vectors perpendicular to 𝑎𝑎 and 𝑏 .

9. (d) Slope = 0 ⟹ −2−𝑘𝑘3+𝑘𝑘=0 ⟹K = 2

10. (a) 1.(-K)+2.2+3.1 = 0 ⟹ K =7 11. (d) ; f(x) = f-1 (x) i.e. 1+𝛼𝛼𝑥𝑥 =

𝑥𝑥−1𝛼𝛼 which is the true for 𝛼𝛼 = −1

12. (b) 1

√𝐴𝐴1 + 1

√𝐴𝐴2 +1

√𝐴𝐴3 = 1

√𝜋𝜋𝛾𝛾12 +

1


1

√𝜋𝜋𝛾𝛾23

= 1

√𝜋𝜋 (1𝛾𝛾1

+1𝛾𝛾2

+1𝛾𝛾3

)

= 1𝑌𝑌 = 1

√𝜋𝜋𝛾𝛾² =

1√𝐴𝐴 .

13. (c) C(10, 3) – C(n, 3) = 110 120 - C(n, 3) = 110 ⟹ C(n, 3) = 10⟹ n = 5 14. (d) a,1,b are in AP = 4 =

𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏2

a,2,b are in GP= 4 = ab ab=

𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏2

1= 2𝑎𝑎𝑏𝑏 𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏

a,1,b are in HP. 15. (d) 𝑧𝑧𝑠𝑠 +

12𝑛𝑛 = cosn𝜃𝜃 +isinn𝜃𝜃 + 1

cosn𝜃𝜃 +isinn𝜃𝜃 =cosn𝜃𝜃 + isinn𝜃𝜃 + 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑠𝑠𝜃𝜃 − 𝑐𝑐𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝑠𝜃𝜃 =2 cos n𝜃𝜃. 16. (c) a=∑ 2𝑠𝑠

(2𝑠𝑠−1)!∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ 2𝑠𝑠−1+1(2𝑠𝑠−1)!

∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠−1(2𝑠𝑠−1)! + 1

(2𝑠𝑠−1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠−1(2𝑠𝑠−1)! + 1

(2𝑠𝑠−1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1 =e

b= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠+1(2𝑠𝑠+1)! − 1

(2𝑠𝑠+1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1

=∑ [ 1(2𝑠𝑠)! − 1

(2𝑠𝑠+1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1

= 𝑐𝑐−1 Therefore, ab= e 𝑐𝑐−1 =1 17. (b) |𝑎𝑎 x𝑏 | = 𝑎𝑎 . 𝑏 |𝑎𝑎 | |𝑏 | sin𝜃𝜃 = |𝑎𝑎 | |𝑏 | cos 𝜃𝜃 tan𝜃𝜃 = 1 ⟹ 𝜃𝜃 =𝜋𝜋/4. 18. (b) m1+m2 = 2m1 m2

−𝜃𝜃−3 = 2.

1−3 ⟹ 𝜃𝜃 = −2

19. (a) ± 𝑙𝑙.0+𝑚𝑚.0−1√𝑙𝑙2+𝑚𝑚2 = a .

𝑙𝑙² + 𝑚𝑚² =1𝑎𝑎²

20. (c) 𝑥𝑥2 + 2𝑥𝑥 + 8𝑦𝑦 = 7 (x-1)² =-8 (y-1) Equation of directix y – 1 - 2 =0 y=3 21. (a) 6x+4y+3z = 12 𝑥𝑥2 +

𝑦𝑦3 + 𝑧𝑧

4 =1

Area = 12 √𝑎𝑎²𝑏𝑏² + 𝑏𝑏²𝑐𝑐² + 𝑐𝑐²𝑎𝑎²

= 12 √4.9 + 9.16 + 4.16

= √61 22. (d) y=𝑥𝑥𝑦𝑦 ⟹ logy =logx

⟹ 1𝑦𝑦

𝑑𝑑𝑦𝑦𝑑𝑑𝑥𝑥=

𝑦𝑦𝑥𝑥 + logx

𝑑𝑑𝑦𝑦𝑑𝑑𝑥𝑥

⟹ 𝑑𝑑𝑦𝑦𝑑𝑑𝑥𝑥 =

𝑦𝑦2

𝑎𝑎(𝑙𝑙−𝑦𝑦 𝑙𝑙𝑐𝑐𝑙𝑙𝑥𝑥)

23. (b) 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 =

𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 →

43 𝜋𝜋.

𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑3

𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑 = 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑

⟹ 43 𝜋𝜋 .3𝑟𝑟2 𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑


⟹= 1

2√𝜋𝜋 .

24. (c) Put y=x𝑐𝑐𝑥𝑥 ⟹ dy = 𝑐𝑐𝑥𝑥+ x𝑐𝑐𝑦𝑦 dx

Then ∫ (𝑥𝑥+𝑥𝑥𝑒𝑒𝑥𝑥)𝑑𝑑𝑥𝑥cos2 𝑥𝑥𝑒𝑒𝑥𝑥 =∫ 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2ydy;

= tan y + c =tan 𝑥𝑥𝑐𝑐𝑥𝑥+ c.

25. (a) R.A. = ∫ (𝑦𝑦1−𝑦𝑦2) 10 dx

∫ (𝑥𝑥3 − 𝑥𝑥)10 dx =

14.

26. (b) A⊆B ⇒ 𝐵𝐵′ ⊆ 𝐴𝐴′ ⇒ 𝐵𝐵′ − 𝐴𝐴′ =∅ 27. (b) 𝑥𝑥2-6x+13 = 𝑥𝑥2-6x+ 9+4 = (𝑥𝑥 − 3)2+4

28. (b) sinx = −√32 and cosx =

12

There fore, x= 2𝜋𝜋 − 𝜋𝜋3 =

5𝜋𝜋3 . There fore, x= 2n𝜋𝜋+

53 𝜋𝜋

29. (b), |𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝐴𝐴| = |𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠−1| = 43−1 = 16

30.(b) lim𝑥𝑥→∞

sin𝑥𝑥𝑥𝑥 = lim

𝑦𝑦→0𝑦𝑦 sin 1

𝑦𝑦 = 0

31. (a) y= 𝑐𝑐−𝑥𝑥 , 𝑑𝑑𝑦𝑦𝑑𝑑𝑥𝑥 = −𝑐𝑐−𝑥𝑥 ⟹ 𝑑𝑑

2𝑦𝑦𝑑𝑑𝑥𝑥2 = 𝑐𝑐−𝑥𝑥

32. (c) ∫ tan 𝑎𝑎𝑥𝑥 = −𝑙𝑙𝑐𝑐𝑙𝑙𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑥𝑥 + 𝑐𝑐 33. (b) 𝑎𝑎 𝑏 =|𝑎𝑎 |.|𝑏 | ⟹cos𝜃𝜃 =1 ⟹ 𝜃𝜃 =0°

34. (d) centroid = (3+𝑐𝑐3 , 𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏−3

3 )

⟹ 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑠𝑠𝑎𝑎𝑐𝑐𝑟𝑟 𝑙𝑙𝑠𝑠𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐 𝑐𝑐𝑠𝑠 𝑥𝑥 − 𝑎𝑎𝑥𝑥𝑠𝑠𝑐𝑐 So,

𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏−33 = 0 ⟹ 𝑎𝑎 + 𝑏𝑏 = 3.

35. (b) 𝐾𝐾2 + (−2𝐾𝐾)2 + (3𝐾𝐾)2 =1 ⟹14𝐾𝐾2 =1 ⇒ ±

1√14 .

Answer Hints and Explanations: 1. (c) 2. (a) let other root be 𝛽𝛽, then 𝛼𝛼 𝛽𝛽 =1 , 𝛽𝛽 =1/α. 3. (d) 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2𝑥𝑥 = 𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐𝑐2𝛼𝛼 ⟹ 𝑥𝑥= nπ±𝛼𝛼. 4. (b) I = A-A² ⟹ 𝐴𝐴−1 = I-A.




2+65−3 = 4.

6. (c) 𝑓𝑓′ (x) = 1𝑥𝑥2, 𝑓𝑓′′(x) =

2𝑥𝑥3 ⟹ 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎(1,1), 𝑓𝑓′′ (x) =2.




9. (d) Slope = 0 ⟹ −2−𝑘𝑘3+𝑘𝑘=0 ⟹K = 2

10. (a) 1.(-K)+2.2+3.1 = 0 ⟹ K =7 11. (d) ; f(x) = f-1 (x) i.e. 1+𝛼𝛼𝑥𝑥 =


12. (b) 1

√𝐴𝐴1 + 1

√𝐴𝐴2 +1

√𝐴𝐴3 = 1


1


1


= 1


+1𝛾𝛾2

+1𝛾𝛾3

)

= 1𝑌𝑌 = 1


1√𝐴𝐴 .


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏2


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏2





(2𝑠𝑠−1)!∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ 2𝑠𝑠−1+1(2𝑠𝑠−1)!

∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠−1(2𝑠𝑠−1)! + 1

(2𝑠𝑠−1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠−1(2𝑠𝑠−1)! + 1

(2𝑠𝑠−1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1 =e

b= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠+1(2𝑠𝑠+1)! − 1

(2𝑠𝑠+1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1

=∑ [ 1(2𝑠𝑠)! − 1

(2𝑠𝑠+1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1


−𝜃𝜃−3 = 2.

1−3 ⟹ 𝜃𝜃 = −2

19. (a) ± 𝑙𝑙.0+𝑚𝑚.0−1√𝑙𝑙2+𝑚𝑚2 = a .




4 =1


= 12 √4.9 + 9.16 + 4.16


⟹ 1𝑦𝑦





𝑦𝑦2




43 𝜋𝜋.

𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑3




⟹= 1

2√𝜋𝜋 .




25. (a) R.A. = ∫ (𝑦𝑦1−𝑦𝑦2) 10 dx

∫ (𝑥𝑥3 − 𝑥𝑥)10 dx =

14.



12



53 𝜋𝜋

29. (b), |𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝐴𝐴| = |𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠−1| = 43−1 = 16




𝑦𝑦 = 0





3 )


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏−33 = 0 ⟹ 𝑎𝑎 + 𝑏𝑏 = 3.

35. (b) 𝐾𝐾2 + (−2𝐾𝐾)2 + (3𝐾𝐾)2 =1 ⟹14𝐾𝐾2 =1 ⇒ ±

1√14 .

4

K =





2+65−3 = 4.

6. (c) 𝑓𝑓′ (x) = 1𝑥𝑥2, 𝑓𝑓′′(x) =

2𝑥𝑥3 ⟹ 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎(1,1), 𝑓𝑓′′ (x) =2.




9. (d) Slope = 0 ⟹ −2−𝑘𝑘3+𝑘𝑘=0 ⟹K = 2

10. (a) 1.(-K)+2.2+3.1 = 0 ⟹ K =7 11. (d) ; f(x) = f-1 (x) i.e. 1+𝛼𝛼𝑥𝑥 =


12. (b) 1

√𝐴𝐴1 + 1

√𝐴𝐴2 +1

√𝐴𝐴3 = 1


1


1


= 1


+1𝛾𝛾2

+1𝛾𝛾3

)

= 1𝑌𝑌 = 1


1√𝐴𝐴 .


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏2


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏2





(2𝑠𝑠−1)!∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ 2𝑠𝑠−1+1(2𝑠𝑠−1)!

∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠−1(2𝑠𝑠−1)! + 1

(2𝑠𝑠−1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠−1(2𝑠𝑠−1)! + 1

(2𝑠𝑠−1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1 =e

b= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠+1(2𝑠𝑠+1)! − 1

(2𝑠𝑠+1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1

=∑ [ 1(2𝑠𝑠)! − 1

(2𝑠𝑠+1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1


−𝜃𝜃−3 = 2.

1−3 ⟹ 𝜃𝜃 = −2

19. (a) ± 𝑙𝑙.0+𝑚𝑚.0−1√𝑙𝑙2+𝑚𝑚2 = a .




4 =1


= 12 √4.9 + 9.16 + 4.16


⟹ 1𝑦𝑦





𝑦𝑦2




43 𝜋𝜋.

𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑3




⟹= 1

2√𝜋𝜋 .




25. (a) R.A. = ∫ (𝑦𝑦1−𝑦𝑦2) 10 dx

∫ (𝑥𝑥3 − 𝑥𝑥)10 dx =

14.



12



53 𝜋𝜋

29. (b), |𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝐴𝐴| = |𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠−1| = 43−1 = 16




𝑦𝑦 = 0





3 )


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏−33 = 0 ⟹ 𝑎𝑎 + 𝑏𝑏 = 3.

35. (b) 𝐾𝐾2 + (−2𝐾𝐾)2 + (3𝐾𝐾)2 =1 ⟹14𝐾𝐾2 =1 ⇒ ±

1√14 .

r =





2+65−3 = 4.

6. (c) 𝑓𝑓′ (x) = 1𝑥𝑥2, 𝑓𝑓′′(x) =

2𝑥𝑥3 ⟹ 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎(1,1), 𝑓𝑓′′ (x) =2.




9. (d) Slope = 0 ⟹ −2−𝑘𝑘3+𝑘𝑘=0 ⟹K = 2

10. (a) 1.(-K)+2.2+3.1 = 0 ⟹ K =7 11. (d) ; f(x) = f-1 (x) i.e. 1+𝛼𝛼𝑥𝑥 =


12. (b) 1

√𝐴𝐴1 + 1

√𝐴𝐴2 +1

√𝐴𝐴3 = 1


1


1


= 1


+1𝛾𝛾2

+1𝛾𝛾3

)

= 1𝑌𝑌 = 1


1√𝐴𝐴 .


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏2


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏2





(2𝑠𝑠−1)!∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ 2𝑠𝑠−1+1(2𝑠𝑠−1)!

∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠−1(2𝑠𝑠−1)! + 1

(2𝑠𝑠−1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠−1(2𝑠𝑠−1)! + 1

(2𝑠𝑠−1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1 =e

b= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠+1(2𝑠𝑠+1)! − 1

(2𝑠𝑠+1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1

=∑ [ 1(2𝑠𝑠)! − 1

(2𝑠𝑠+1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1


−𝜃𝜃−3 = 2.

1−3 ⟹ 𝜃𝜃 = −2

19. (a) ± 𝑙𝑙.0+𝑚𝑚.0−1√𝑙𝑙2+𝑚𝑚2 = a .




4 =1


= 12 √4.9 + 9.16 + 4.16


⟹ 1𝑦𝑦





𝑦𝑦2




43 𝜋𝜋.

𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑3




⟹= 1

2√𝜋𝜋 .




25. (a) R.A. = ∫ (𝑦𝑦1−𝑦𝑦2) 10 dx

∫ (𝑥𝑥3 − 𝑥𝑥)10 dx =

14.



12



53 𝜋𝜋

29. (b), |𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝐴𝐴| = |𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠−1| = 43−1 = 16




𝑦𝑦 = 0





3 )


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏−33 = 0 ⟹ 𝑎𝑎 + 𝑏𝑏 = 3.

35. (b) 𝐾𝐾2 + (−2𝐾𝐾)2 + (3𝐾𝐾)2 =1 ⟹14𝐾𝐾2 =1 ⇒ ±

1√14 .

55

56

57

58

59

60

61

626364

6566

67686970

71

.





2+65−3 = 4.

6. (c) 𝑓𝑓′ (x) = 1𝑥𝑥2, 𝑓𝑓′′(x) =

2𝑥𝑥3 ⟹ 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎(1,1), 𝑓𝑓′′ (x) =2.




9. (d) Slope = 0 ⟹ −2−𝑘𝑘3+𝑘𝑘=0 ⟹K = 2

10. (a) 1.(-K)+2.2+3.1 = 0 ⟹ K =7 11. (d) ; f(x) = f-1 (x) i.e. 1+𝛼𝛼𝑥𝑥 =


12. (b) 1

√𝐴𝐴1 + 1

√𝐴𝐴2 +1

√𝐴𝐴3 = 1


1


1


= 1


+1𝛾𝛾2

+1𝛾𝛾3

)

= 1𝑌𝑌 = 1


1√𝐴𝐴 .


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏2


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏2





(2𝑠𝑠−1)!∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ 2𝑠𝑠−1+1(2𝑠𝑠−1)!

∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠−1(2𝑠𝑠−1)! + 1

(2𝑠𝑠−1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠−1(2𝑠𝑠−1)! + 1

(2𝑠𝑠−1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1 =e

b= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠+1(2𝑠𝑠+1)! − 1

(2𝑠𝑠+1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1

=∑ [ 1(2𝑠𝑠)! − 1

(2𝑠𝑠+1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1


−𝜃𝜃−3 = 2.

1−3 ⟹ 𝜃𝜃 = −2

19. (a) ± 𝑙𝑙.0+𝑚𝑚.0−1√𝑙𝑙2+𝑚𝑚2 = a .




4 =1


= 12 √4.9 + 9.16 + 4.16


⟹ 1𝑦𝑦





𝑦𝑦2




43 𝜋𝜋.

𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑3




⟹= 1

2√𝜋𝜋 .




25. (a) R.A. = ∫ (𝑦𝑦1−𝑦𝑦2) 10 dx

∫ (𝑥𝑥3 − 𝑥𝑥)10 dx =

14.



12



53 𝜋𝜋

29. (b), |𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝐴𝐴| = |𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠−1| = 43−1 = 16




𝑦𝑦 = 0





3 )


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏−33 = 0 ⟹ 𝑎𝑎 + 𝑏𝑏 = 3.

35. (b) 𝐾𝐾2 + (−2𝐾𝐾)2 + (3𝐾𝐾)2 =1 ⟹14𝐾𝐾2 =1 ⇒ ±

1√14 .

35


P a g e | 1

IOE MODEL ENTRANCE EXAMINATION - 2076 Weekly Test - 2076/10/25

Answer Key Q.N. Ans. Hints & Solution

1. (b) I = constant, As the man stretch his arms, I in increases so decreases. 2. (d)

F = YAl

L = Kl F l so force constant is k = YAL

3. (c) = 1 + 22 4. (a) During expansion work done will be as Wisobaric > Wisothermal > Wadiabatic 5. (c) a

m = :1 or,

m

= :1

6. (a)

d = or, = 1.21 7. (c)

Bev = mv2

r or, Ber = P

Radius of path will be equal. 8. (d)

S = iG

ni – i = G

n – 1

9. (b) c = p or,

hPc

= hPp

or, Pc = Pp

10. (a) Barrier potential of a diode does not depends on diode design. 11. (c) If an object is in circular motion:

(i) Its speed, angular speed, angular momentum and K.E. remains same. (ii) Its velocity, momentum, acceleration and force remains constant in terms of

magnitude but changes in direction. 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (d) R O Y G B I V R O Y G B I V

decreasing order of wavelengths increasing order of refractiveindex

Sin C = 1 C

1 , Also; = A +

B2 Cauchy's relation,

V < G < Y < R (increasing order of critical angle) 15. (a)

= p

16. (b) 17. (b)

– 2

18. (c)

Answers Key Physics

4 | P a g e


01-4101611, 4101612


37. (d) Cr 1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

5 4s


Cr+++

1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

3

Fe+++

1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

5

Ni 1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

8 4s

2




bond








CH3 —

CH3

|

C —

|

CH3

OH

|

CH — CH2 —

O

||

C — H



(acid) (ester)





49. (c) NaCl → Na+ + Cl

–

At cathode; Na+ + e


– → Cl + e



50.(d) 51.(a) 52.(b) 53.(c) 54.(b) 55.(a) 56.(b) 57.(a) 58.(d) 59.(b) 60.(b)


y = 1

2 gt

2 or, t =

2y

g =

2 × 0.4

9.8 = 0.28 sec

∴ Vx = d

t =

200

0.28 = 700 m/s

P a g e | 5


01-4101611, 4101612


62. (c) mg – T = ma

or, T = mg – mg

4 =

3mg

4

∴ W = T.d cos180° = – 3

4 mgd

63. (c) ∆wt = mg – mg ( )1 –

2h

R = mg – mg +

2mgh

R = 2m

Gm

R2 ×

h

R

= 2mG × 4π3

R

3ρh

R3 =

8πGρmh

3


or, ρgh × d

2 = 2T or, d =

4T

ρgh =

4 × 7 × 10–2

103 × 9.8 × 0.4

= 1

14 × 10

–3 m =

1

14 mm

65. (d) P ∝ T3 or, P = KT

3 ............... (i)


Tγ ∝ P

γ – 1 or, P ∝

1T

γγ−

or, P = K1T

γγ−

................. (ii)


3 = γ

γ – 1 or, 3γ – 3 = γ or, γ =

3

2

66. (a) δ = i1 + i2 – A or, 55 = 15 + i2 – 60 or, i2 = 100°

67. (b) Imax

Imin =

4

1 = ( )

a1 + a2

a1 – a2

2

or, a1 + a2

a1 – a2 =

2

1 or, a1 + a2 = 2a1 – 2a2

or, 3a2 = a1 or, a1

a2 = 3:1


fmin = v

v + vs × f =

v

v + rω f =

340

340 + 0.5 × 20 × 385 = 374 Hz

69. (b)

Here, R1 : R2 : R3 = R1'

: R2' : R3'

or, 2 : 4 : 6 = 4 : 8 : 12 or, 1 : 2 : 3 = 1 : 2 : 3


So, Req = 12 × 24

12 + 24 =

12 × 24

36 = 8Ω

70. (a) F =

Bi

sinθ or, sinθ =

F

BIl =

15

2 × 10 × 1.5 =

1

2 = sin30° ∴ θ = 30°

4 | P a g e


01-4101611, 4101612


37. (d) Cr 1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

5 4s


Cr+++

1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

3

Fe+++

1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

5

Ni 1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

8 4s

2




bond








CH3 —

CH3

|

C —

|

CH3

OH

|

CH — CH2 —

O

||

C — H



(acid) (ester)





49. (c) NaCl → Na+ + Cl

–

At cathode; Na+ + e


– → Cl + e



50.(d) 51.(a) 52.(b) 53.(c) 54.(b) 55.(a) 56.(b) 57.(a) 58.(d) 59.(b) 60.(b)


y = 1

2 gt

2 or, t =

2y

g =

2 × 0.4

9.8 = 0.28 sec

∴ Vx = d

t =

200

0.28 = 700 m/s

P a g e | 5


01-4101611, 4101612


62. (c) mg – T = ma

or, T = mg – mg

4 =

3mg

4

∴ W = T.d cos180° = – 3

4 mgd

63. (c) ∆wt = mg – mg ( )1 –

2h

R = mg – mg +

2mgh

R = 2m

Gm

R2 ×

h

R

= 2mG × 4π3

R

3ρh

R3 =

8πGρmh

3


or, ρgh × d

2 = 2T or, d =

4T

ρgh =

4 × 7 × 10–2

103 × 9.8 × 0.4

= 1

14 × 10

–3 m =

1

14 mm

65. (d) P ∝ T3 or, P = KT

3 ............... (i)


Tγ ∝ P

γ – 1 or, P ∝

1T

γγ−

or, P = K1T

γγ−

................. (ii)


3 = γ

γ – 1 or, 3γ – 3 = γ or, γ =

3

2

66. (a) δ = i1 + i2 – A or, 55 = 15 + i2 – 60 or, i2 = 100°

67. (b) Imax

Imin =

4

1 = ( )

a1 + a2

a1 – a2

2

or, a1 + a2

a1 – a2 =

2

1 or, a1 + a2 = 2a1 – 2a2

or, 3a2 = a1 or, a1

a2 = 3:1


fmin = v

v + vs × f =

v

v + rω f =

340

340 + 0.5 × 20 × 385 = 374 Hz

69. (b)

Here, R1 : R2 : R3 = R1'

: R2' : R3'

or, 2 : 4 : 6 = 4 : 8 : 12 or, 1 : 2 : 3 = 1 : 2 : 3


So, Req = 12 × 24

12 + 24 =

12 × 24

36 = 8Ω

70. (a) F =

Bi

sinθ or, sinθ =

F

BIl =

15

2 × 10 × 1.5 =

1

2 = sin30° ∴ θ = 30°

7273

747576

77

78

79

80

8182

838485

86

87

88

89





2+65−3 = 4.

6. (c) 𝑓𝑓′ (x) = 1𝑥𝑥2, 𝑓𝑓′′(x) =

2𝑥𝑥3 ⟹ 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎(1,1), 𝑓𝑓′′ (x) =2.




9. (d) Slope = 0 ⟹ −2−𝑘𝑘3+𝑘𝑘=0 ⟹K = 2

10. (a) 1.(-K)+2.2+3.1 = 0 ⟹ K =7 11. (d) ; f(x) = f-1 (x) i.e. 1+𝛼𝛼𝑥𝑥 =


12. (b) 1

√𝐴𝐴1 + 1

√𝐴𝐴2 +1

√𝐴𝐴3 = 1


1


1


= 1


+1𝛾𝛾2

+1𝛾𝛾3

)

= 1𝑌𝑌 = 1


1√𝐴𝐴 .


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏2


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏2





(2𝑠𝑠−1)!∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ 2𝑠𝑠−1+1(2𝑠𝑠−1)!

∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠−1(2𝑠𝑠−1)! + 1

(2𝑠𝑠−1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠−1(2𝑠𝑠−1)! + 1

(2𝑠𝑠−1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1 =e

b= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠+1(2𝑠𝑠+1)! − 1

(2𝑠𝑠+1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1

=∑ [ 1(2𝑠𝑠)! − 1

(2𝑠𝑠+1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1


−𝜃𝜃−3 = 2.

1−3 ⟹ 𝜃𝜃 = −2

19. (a) ± 𝑙𝑙.0+𝑚𝑚.0−1√𝑙𝑙2+𝑚𝑚2 = a .




4 =1


= 12 √4.9 + 9.16 + 4.16


⟹ 1𝑦𝑦





𝑦𝑦2




43 𝜋𝜋.

𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑3




⟹= 1

2√𝜋𝜋 .




25. (a) R.A. = ∫ (𝑦𝑦1−𝑦𝑦2) 10 dx

∫ (𝑥𝑥3 − 𝑥𝑥)10 dx =

14.



12



53 𝜋𝜋

29. (b), |𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝐴𝐴| = |𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠−1| = 43−1 = 16




𝑦𝑦 = 0





3 )


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏−33 = 0 ⟹ 𝑎𝑎 + 𝑏𝑏 = 3.

35. (b) 𝐾𝐾2 + (−2𝐾𝐾)2 + (3𝐾𝐾)2 =1 ⟹14𝐾𝐾2 =1 ⇒ ±

1√14 .





2+65−3 = 4.

6. (c) 𝑓𝑓′ (x) = 1𝑥𝑥2, 𝑓𝑓′′(x) =

2𝑥𝑥3 ⟹ 𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎(1,1), 𝑓𝑓′′ (x) =2.




9. (d) Slope = 0 ⟹ −2−𝑘𝑘3+𝑘𝑘=0 ⟹K = 2

10. (a) 1.(-K)+2.2+3.1 = 0 ⟹ K =7 11. (d) ; f(x) = f-1 (x) i.e. 1+𝛼𝛼𝑥𝑥 =


12. (b) 1

√𝐴𝐴1 + 1

√𝐴𝐴2 +1

√𝐴𝐴3 = 1


1


1


= 1


+1𝛾𝛾2

+1𝛾𝛾3

)

= 1𝑌𝑌 = 1


1√𝐴𝐴 .


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏2


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏2





(2𝑠𝑠−1)!∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ 2𝑠𝑠−1+1(2𝑠𝑠−1)!

∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠−1(2𝑠𝑠−1)! + 1

(2𝑠𝑠−1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1

= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠−1(2𝑠𝑠−1)! + 1

(2𝑠𝑠−1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1 =e

b= ∑ [ 2𝑠𝑠+1(2𝑠𝑠+1)! − 1

(2𝑠𝑠+1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1

=∑ [ 1(2𝑠𝑠)! − 1

(2𝑠𝑠+1)!]∞𝑠𝑠=1


−𝜃𝜃−3 = 2.

1−3 ⟹ 𝜃𝜃 = −2

19. (a) ± 𝑙𝑙.0+𝑚𝑚.0−1√𝑙𝑙2+𝑚𝑚2 = a .




4 =1


= 12 √4.9 + 9.16 + 4.16


⟹ 1𝑦𝑦





𝑦𝑦2




43 𝜋𝜋.

𝑑𝑑𝑑𝑑3




⟹= 1

2√𝜋𝜋 .




25. (a) R.A. = ∫ (𝑦𝑦1−𝑦𝑦2) 10 dx

∫ (𝑥𝑥3 − 𝑥𝑥)10 dx =

14.



12



53 𝜋𝜋

29. (b), |𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎 𝐴𝐴| = |𝐴𝐴𝑠𝑠−1| = 43−1 = 16




𝑦𝑦 = 0





3 )


𝑎𝑎+𝑏𝑏−33 = 0 ⟹ 𝑎𝑎 + 𝑏𝑏 = 3.

35. (b) 𝐾𝐾2 + (−2𝐾𝐾)2 + (3𝐾𝐾)2 =1 ⟹14𝐾𝐾2 =1 ⇒ ±

1√14 .

36


4 | P a g e


01-4101611, 4101612


37. (d) Cr 1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

5 4s


Cr+++

1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

3

Fe+++

1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

5

Ni 1s2 2s

2 2p

6 3s

2 3p

6 3d

8 4s

2




bond








CH3 —

CH3

|

C —

|

CH3

OH

|

CH — CH2 —

O

||

C — H



(acid) (ester)





49. (c) NaCl → Na+ + Cl

–

At cathode; Na+ + e


– → Cl + e



50.(d) 51.(a) 52.(b) 53.(c) 54.(b) 55.(a) 56.(b) 57.(a) 58.(d) 59.(b) 60.(b)


y = 1

2 gt

2 or, t =

2y

g =

2 × 0.4

9.8 = 0.28 sec

∴ Vx = d

t =

200

0.28 = 700 m/s

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01-4101611, 4101612


62. (c) mg – T = ma

or, T = mg – mg

4 =

3mg

4

∴ W = T.d cos180° = – 3

4 mgd

63. (c) ∆wt = mg – mg ( )1 –

2h

R = mg – mg +

2mgh

R = 2m

Gm

R2 ×

h

R

= 2mG × 4π3

R

3ρh

R3 =

8πGρmh

3


or, ρgh × d

2 = 2T or, d =

4T

ρgh =

4 × 7 × 10–2

103 × 9.8 × 0.4

= 1

14 × 10

–3 m =

1

14 mm

65. (d) P ∝ T3 or, P = KT

3 ............... (i)


Tγ ∝ P

γ – 1 or, P ∝

1T

γγ−

or, P = K1T

γγ−

................. (ii)


3 = γ

γ – 1 or, 3γ – 3 = γ or, γ =

3

2

66. (a) δ = i1 + i2 – A or, 55 = 15 + i2 – 60 or, i2 = 100°

67. (b) Imax

Imin =

4

1 = ( )

a1 + a2

a1 – a2

2

or, a1 + a2

a1 – a2 =

2

1 or, a1 + a2 = 2a1 – 2a2

or, 3a2 = a1 or, a1

a2 = 3:1


fmin = v

v + vs × f =

v

v + rω f =

340

340 + 0.5 × 20 × 385 = 374 Hz

69. (b)

Here, R1 : R2 : R3 = R1'

: R2' : R3'

or, 2 : 4 : 6 = 4 : 8 : 12 or, 1 : 2 : 3 = 1 : 2 : 3


So, Req = 12 × 24

12 + 24 =

12 × 24

36 = 8Ω

70. (a) F =

Bi

sinθ or, sinθ =

F

BIl =

15

2 × 10 × 1.5 =

1

2 = sin30° ∴ θ = 30°

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71. (d) E = –L

dI

dt or, 8 = –L

(–2 –2)

0.05 or, L =

8 × 0.05

4 = 0.1H

72. (b) tanφ =

XL

R =

2πfL

R or, φ = tan

–1( )2π × 50 × 0.5

157 = 45°

73. (b) For 1st For 2

nd

qV = 1

2 mv1

2 4qV =

1

2mv2

2

or, v1 = 2qV

m ............... (i) or, v2 =

8qV

m = 2

2qV

m = 2v1

∴ v1

v2 =

1

2

74. (c) kEmax = 2.6 ev φ = 4.2 ev E = φ + kEmax = (4.2 + 2.6) ev = 6.8 ev

75. (b) 1

2

1 1 1

2 2 2

1.44Tt T

1.44T T T

o

N 1 1 1 10.368

N 2 2 2 2

= = = = =

% left = N

N0 × 100% = 0.368 × 100% = 36.8%

76. (b) r1

(s – b) (s – c) =

∆(s – a) (s – b) (s – c)

× s

s =

∆s

∆2 = 1

r

r2

(s – a) (s – c) =

1

r and

r3

(s – a) (s – b) =

1

r

adding all we get r1

(s – b) (s – c) =

3

r

77. (c) a + (p – 1)d = q .............. (i) a + (q – 1)d = p .................. (ii)

(i) – (ii) d[p – q] = q – p d = – 1

From (i) and a – p + 1 = q a = p + q – 1

tr = a + (r – 1)d = p + q – 1 – r + 1 = p + q –r

78. (c) nC2 = 45 n(n – 1) = 90

Option 'c' satisfies the above relation

79. (a) Coefficient of xn =

2n + 1Cn = a =

2n + 1C2n + 1 – n =

2n + 1Cn + 1

Coefficient of xn + 1

= 2n + 1

Cn + 1 = b

∴ a = b

80. (c) x12 + y1

2 – 10 > 0 1 + k

2 – 10 > 0

k2 > 9 | k | > 3 k > 3, k < –3

∴ Option 'c' is correct

81. (c)

0

1

dx

1 + x – x .

1 + x + x

1 + x + x =

0

1

1 + x + x

1 dx

( )3/2 3/2

1

1 x x

3 3

2 2 0

+

+

= 2

3 [(1 + 1)

3/2 + 1 – (1 + 0) + 0] =

4 2

3

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28. (b) Let α be the other root then product of the roots =

(a – b)

(b – c)

1 × α = a – b

b – c ⇔ a =

a – b

b – c

29. (a) Let f = ax2 + 2hxy + by

2 – 1 = 0

∴ dy

dx = –

( )∂f

∂x

∂f

∂r

= – 2ax + 2hy

2hx + 2by = –

ax + hy

hx + by

30. (d) By using L-Hospital's rule:

= lim

x→0 6(1 + x)

5

2(1 + x) =

3(1 + 0)5

1 + 0 = 3

31. (a)

1

2ax – x2 dx =

1

a2 – (a

2 – 2ax – x

2) dx =

1

a2 – (x – a)

2 dx = sin

–1 ( )

x – a

a

32. (c) A is a singular matrix i.e. |A| = 0

we have,

A (adjA) = |A|.I

null matrix

33. (c) a

→ ⋅ b

→ = b

→ ⋅ c

→ = c

→ ⋅ a

→ = 0

|a| = 1, |b| = 1, |c| = 1

Hence we get

a→

– b→

2

+ b→

– c→

2

+ c→

– a→

2

= 6

34. (a) From the figure:

∆ = 1

2 4.3 = 6 s =

3 + 4 + 5

2 = 6 r =

∆s

= 1

In-centre (r, r) = (1, 1)

35. (a) Option (a) is correct.

36. (a) C3H8 + 5O2 ∆→ 3CO2 + 4H2O

1 mole of propane requires 5 mole of oxygen.

90

91

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