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BASIC DIAGNOSTIC THERAPY (BDT) 2010

Question 1 to 3

A child 7 years old have symptoms for 6 days, feel

weak, dizzy, coughing is not slimy, whole body feel

pain, nausea but no vomiting, never defecate In 3days. The result of his DDR test examination has

negative, platelets and haematocrite within the

confined of normal units.

1) From the above case, the most likely diagnosis

that may be made based on anamnesis and physical

examination and lab is:

a. Malaria

b. TB

c. Dengue fever

d. Typhoide. Leptospira

2) Specimen which is more representative for

diagnosing this patient is:

a. Sputum

b. Blood

c. LCS

d. Bone Marrow

f. Feces

3) Based on the above case, if gram staining is

carried out, what is the morphology of bacteria that

will be seen, if the widal test of child is positive?

a. Bacillus

b. Coccus

c. Coccobacil

d. Spiral

e. Diplococcus

Question 4 to 6

Woman, 32 yrs old has cough, fever, night sweatsand little tiredness. Has previously taken

antibiotic. Chest x- ray shows white patch at left

upper lung.

4)What is the best method to determine the

diagnosis?

a. Smear preparation

b. Culture

c. ELISA

d. Rapid test `

e. Sequencing

5. In this case, the specimen that are most likely to

be used to indicate the primary diagnosis is:

a) Saliva

b) Blood

c) feces

d) urine

e) sputum

6) In this case if the bacteria is Acid Fast, it is

resulted :

a. existence of excessive fat in cytoplasm.

b. existence of thinner layer of peptidoglycan in

membrane cell.

c. existence of khitin layer in cell wall.d. existence of thicker layer of peptidoglycan in cell

wall.

e. existence of thicker layer of peptidoglycan in

membrane cell.

Question 7 to 11

A woman who was admitted to hospital with a

chief complains of itchy and hot on the genitals

site. Sometimes fell pain urinating. On routine

blood tests no found signs of dangerous pliers

except the LED increase. On examination of urine,did not found any stones in the urinary tract, only

a sign of infection found.

7) In this cases, the support examination for the

accurate diagnosis is

a. PCR

b. Smear

c. ELISA

d. sensitivity test

8) The most representative specimens that can be

taken is:

a. Blood

b. Urine

c. Vaginal swab

d. LCS

e. Sputum

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9) If you suspect the cause, the most likely and

fastest examination to see the morphology of

bacteria is:

a. Simple staining

b. KOH staining

c. Acid-fast staining

d. Gram staining

e. Spore staining

10) If the case above is tested, what kind of germ

will be determined?

a) Only the species

b) Only the genus

c) Subspecies

d)

e)

11) Most likely technique to detect only one germis:

a. Fluorescent microscope

b. Acid fast staining

c. Sputum culture

d. Sputum PCR

e. Gram staining

12) Something which can give true positive in

laboratory test:

a. Hormone

b. Agec. Sex

d. Drugs

e. Disease

13) A test is good in specificity if:

a. Only to determine no have disease group

b. Only to determine have disease group

c. Undetermined have and no have disease in the

human group

d. Can give to right information about a disease

e. Result of test can not to apply

14) A kind of urinalysis test:

a. Albumin

b. Cretin kinase

c. Gamma GT

d. Alkali phosphatase

e. Bilirubin

15. A kind of hematology test

a) trombosit count

b) Alkalis fosfatase

c) Albumin

d) alfa feto protein

e) transaminase

16. A kind of liver function test:

a. Serum Glutamic Pyruvic Transaminase (SGPT)

b. Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)

c. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)

d. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration

(MCHC)

e. Blood Sedimentation Rate (BSR)

17. Radiologic modalities which produce x-ray are:

a) ultrasonography

b) nuclear medicinec) MRI

d) CT scan

e) ultrasound

18) The important component in ultrasound is:

a. Computer

b. Keyboard

c. Monitor

d. X-ray tube

e. Transducer

19. In conventional radiography, PA position means:

a. film placed just in front of the chest

b. film placed just behind of the chest

c. x-ray tube placed in front of the chest

d. x-ray tube placed behind of the chest

20) Following object is seen as hyperdensity in CT-

scan

a) Acute hematoma

b) Edema (hypodensity)

c) Fat tissue (hypodensity)

d) Water (hypodensity)

e) free-air

21) Hypoechoic lesion in ultrasound examination

represents:

a) Edema

b) Compact bone

c) Free fluid

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33.skin lesion found in acute vesicular

a.macule

b.apule

c.vesicular

34.Frequent opthalgia causes of otolgia in children

is?

_______________________________________

35. The common sites reffered otalgia in adults are:

(1) temporomandibular joint

(2) lung

(3) cervical spine

(4) larynx

36. Mucopuralent discharge from ear occurs in

(1)acute otitis externa

(2)exema of ear canal(3)furunculosis

(4)chronic suppurative otitis media

37. Primary factor for drug

a. route of ingestion

b. metabolism

c. effective dose

d. recceptor

e. patologic condition

38. The type of hearing loss from external eardisease is

a.sensironeural

b.conductive

c.mixed

d.complex

e.age-related

39. Mucoid nasal discharge origin from

(1)allergic

(2)bacterial infective

(3)vasomotor rhinitis

(4)neoplasm

40. The ophthalmic examination use to evaluate

visual acuity is

a. Snellen chart

b. slit lamb biomicroscope

c. ophthalmoscope

d. perimeter

e. ampimeter

41) If you work in a place without any eye

examination equipment you still can evaluate field

of vision with:

a) perimetry test

b) campimetry test

c) confrontation test

d) gonioscopy test

e) funduscopy test

42. the most important factor in determining drug

of choice for

a.disease

b.physical form

c.kind of abnormalities

d.severity of disease

e.drug pieces

43. We have to place distant visual activity test

_____meter from patient

a.3m

b.4m

c.5m

d.6m

e.7m

44. The widest outer border of field of vision is

located in:a. Medial side

b. Inferior side

c. Superior side

d. Superonasal side

e. Lateral side

45.A man 56 year come to eye clinic with protusion

at his right eye. To measure large of protusion we

can use

a.Hetel exopthahometer

b.slit lamp biomicroscope

c.smear chat test

d.Humphey perimeter

e.camperimeter

46.patients who are need nutrition intervention

a. have fever

b. have a naviea

c. lost weight 5%in 10 months

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d. lost weight 10%in 6 months

e. patients have vomiting

47.to identify if the patient have high risk of

malnutrition in clinical assessment we can use

a. biochemical data

b. subjective global assessment (SGA)

c. anthropometry assess

d. BW measurement

e.serum of albumin

48.patients in risk malfunction if biochemical data in

she risk level such as:

a.albumin

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59) Patient came to doctor because weak half of his

body. On palpation, his body considered cool. The

doctor thinks that he experienced low blood

pressure. To confirm this assumption briefly the

doctor should perform:

a. Guided anamnesis

b. Eye pupil reflex inspection

c. Heart rate palpation

d. Ictus cordis inspection

e. Heart sound auscultation

60) A 45 years old man has a history of coughing,

short breath and bronchial asthma. He comes to the

ward and complaint shortness of breath. The

following is the finding of the examination:

a) Wheezing sound on auscultation

b) Decrease heart rate

c) Dullness of breathing

61) When performing heart auscultation, doctor

found sound result from direct mitral sound is

higher than spreading sound. He would write on

clinical report:

a. M1 > M2

b. P1 > P2

c. A1 > A2

d. M1 > A1

e. P1 > A2

62) Performing anamnesis, doctor found, patient he

suffered from valve stenosis. To confirm:

a. Inspect location venoussus cardiac

b. Inspect and palpate ictus cordis

c. Auscultate left heart

d. Auscultate sound kind of murmur and punctum

maximum

e. Percusse absolute and relative heart border

63) Symptom and signs of GI tract originally come

from:

a. Disturbance of major function of GI tract

b. Processing the fluid and nutrition consume with

efficiency

c. A function to elimination of wasting products

d. Intrinsic properly from gastrointestinal tract

e. Manifestation of systemic disease

64) The cardinal symptoms of patients with

gastroesophagal reflux disease (GERD):

a. Heartburn and regurgitation

b. Heartburn and non cardiac chest pain (NCCP)

c. NCCP

d. Burning mouth syndrome

e. Dyspepsia

65. The term of Lys= bad, pepsis = digestion,

from Greek, associated with:

a) definition is according to Rome III criteria

b) the term can be used if the symptom occur

outside of UGI disorder

c) the absence lesion in upper endoscopy that could

explain the symptom in organic classification

d) peptic ulcer, GERD, gastroduodenitis, VGI cancer

include in organic disease

e) 2 subtype functional based on Rome II criteria

66. Dyspepsia present with:

a. Epigastric pain for at least 12 week in the last 12

months

b. Discomfort in abdominal region

c. The absence of any organic, systemic, or

metabolic disease not included upper endoscopy

that could explain the symptoms in organic

classification

d. Symptoms centered in upper abdomen with pain

or discomfort major complaine. Subjective negative feeling, non-painful, not

incooperate a variety symptom

67. The differentiated mechanism between

vomiting and regurgitation?

___________________________________

___________________________________

68) Jaundice is:

a. yellowish discoloration in tissue due to serum

bilirubin in epithal

b. indicates that amount of serum bilirubin is less

than 2mg/dl

c. rarely cause by acute or chronic liver disease

d. most commonly due to hemolytic disease

e. can be seen on face,trunk and schlerae (due to

deposition of serum bilirubin)

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69. A man 30 years old, admitted to emergency

disorders that is not suitable for the cause of chest

pain.

a. Hemoptysis

b. pleural effusion

_______________________________________

_______________________________________

70) Aman 18 tahun, bronchial asthma, complaint

shortness breath. Following condition may be

finding on examination

a) lung inspection

b) decrease heart rate

c) vesicular sound diminished on lung

d) dullness on lung percussion

e) wheezing sound on auscultation

71) Pulmonary examination that may assist indifferential diagnosis between fluid & air in pleural

disease:

a) percussion

b) history taking

c) inspection

d) palpation

e) auscultation

72)The accurate objective indicator of respiratory

distress include the following condition,except

a. retractionb. cyanosis

c. tachycardia >130

d. altered mental status

e. Bronchovesicular breath sound

73) The following component play role in the air

movement from the external environment to

alveoli, EXCEPT:

a) lung capillaries

b) chest wall

c) innervations

d) brain

e) diffusion process

74) Evaluation of pulmonary complaint include all of

the following except

a. Onset and provoking factors

b. Quantity of complain

c. Region

d. Severity of complain

e. Time since onset and treatment attempted

75. Anamnesis

a. must be done before asking the patient identity

b. communication between doctor and patient

c. performed after vital sign examination

d. not important in non-cooperative patient

e. produce sound by tapping any part of the body

76) Before physical examination:

a) making anamnesis summary

b) identifying the patient

c) wash hand

d) blood test

e) radiology assessment

Question 77 to 79

A. Inspection

B. Palpation

C. Percussion

D. Auscultation

77. Need equipment : D

78. Using both of our hand : C

79. Can be done by near or far:A

80. Abnormality in the eye

(1)ptosis

(2)edema

(3)nystaginus

(4)perdarahan

81. Important thing in abnormal physical

examination

(1)peristaltic

(2)fluid maxama

(3)vascular murmur

(4)tumor Sgu

82. The most frequent cause of hemoptisis

(coughing with blood) is

a.coagulation abnormally

b.tuberculosis infection

c.lung embolism

d.broken of lung vessel

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e.swollen of the pulmanory intestine

83.animal used for pre-clinical test:

RATS

84.Determine the effectiveness of drug?

_______________________________________

86.an extraordinary resistance with a particular

drug is called

a.idiosyncracy

b.habituation

c,tolerance

d.tachyphylactic

e.dependence

87.which statement is true.?

(1)the most common form of subjective tinnitusorigin from normal pulsatile noise of carotid artery

(2)inner ear disease can cause high pitched tinnitus

(3) subjective tinnitus could be heard by the patient

and observer.

(4) the last majority of subjective tinnitus are

untreateable

88.this location below is not the location of storage

of drugs

a.bone

b.plasma proteinc.connective tissues

d.blood

e.fat tissues

89.drug safety determine by

a.maximal doses

b.minimal doses

c.lethal doses 50

d.effective doses 50

e.ingestion period

90.the most rapid effect of a drug is if taken by

a.intramuscular

b.supersitoria

c.topical

d.sublingual

e.intraperitoneum

91) The most influencing factor for drug absorption:

a) solubility

b) pH

c) route of consumption

d) blood circulation

e) drug form

92.the best way to test visual activity in illiterate

person is by giving

a.Snellen chart

b.E chart

c.Slit lamp

d.counting finger

e.lateral side

93.The last biochemical process in the liver?

a.asetillation

b.oxidationc.hidrolization

d.conjugation

e.reduction

94. Biological varieties of a disease is differentiation

in:

a. Gender/sex

b. Age

c. pathologic condition

d. Genetic

e. Drug effect

95. Drug that enters the brain easily must be:

a. small mol.

b. low concentration

c. water sol.

d. lipophylic charac.

e. rapid ionization

96.the most important factor in rational therapy

a.no.of drug

b.rate of consumption

c.ingestion period

d.kind of disease

e.drug price

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97.the most important thing in giving therapy

a.drug selection

b.dose determination

c.route ofconsumption

d.recipe writing

e.establishing the diagnosis

98.dose given in a recipe

a.maximal

b.minimal

c.common

d.lethal

e.submariginal

99.if the recipe cannot be use repeatedly, in the

recipe will be written

a.Iter IX

b.S.O.S. IXc.S.U.C. IX

d.S.P.R. IX

e.ne Pulv. IX

100) In rational therapy drug selection occur in step:

(BONUS)

a) I

b) II

c) III

d) IV

e) V