The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda Faculty of Science

CMB Entrance Exam

Test Registration No. _____________

The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda

Faculty of Science

Invigilator’s signature___________________________

ADMISSION ENTRANCE EXAMINATION

SUBJECT: Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology

DAY: Thursday DATE: 13th June 2019 TIME: 02:00 Pm to 04:00 pm

Important Instructions:

1. This test booklet is to be opened only when instructed by the invigilators to do so.

2. This booklet carries 100 questions on 14 printed pages. All questions carry equal marks.

3. For every correct answer, candidate will earn 1 mark. 0.25 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.

4. Test Registration Number must be entered correctly in the OMR sheet, as advised by the invigilators. The Question Booklet code (A, B, C, or D) must also be mentioned on the OMR sheet (if not printed already) as instructed.

5. Answers must be marked in the OMR sheet using a black or dark blue ball point pen only. The circle should be filled in completely, leaving no gaps.

6. Gadgets (mobile phone, smart watch, ear phone, music players, etc.) are strictly prohibited in the exam hall. If any candidate is found in possession of any of these at his/her exam seat, he/she is liable to be disqualified.

Correct way of marking answer:

A B C D

Booklet

Incorrect ways of marking answer:

A B C D

A B C

A B C D

D

A

code

CMB Entrance Exam

Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology

Faculty of Science

The M. S. University of Baroda

Vadodara

Entrance Test - 2019

Part-A

GENERAL APTITUDE &GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS

No. Questions Ans

wer

1 What is the color of the Golden Gate Bridge located in San Francisco?

A. Red B. International Orange

C. Dark Byzantium D. Earth Yellow

2 Who is the current captain of the Indian football team?

A. Sunil Chhetri B. Pronay Halder

C. Subrata Pal D. Anirudh Thapa

3 How long does a train, 75 m long, moving at 60 km/hr take to pass a certain

telegraph post?

A. 3.5 seconds B. 4 seconds C. 4.5 seconds D. 6 seconds

4 How many words with or without meaning, can be formed by using all the letters

of the word, ‘ORANGE’, using each letter exactly once?

A. 700 B. 720 C. 750 D. 800

5 On an election day Santhosh walked from a place, 10 km towards South to reach

the polling station, then turned left up to 2 km, then took a right turn, and took

another 4 kms walk. Again he turned right and walked for 12 kms and took a 14

km walk by turning to North, and there he could see the polling station at a 12 km

distance after taking a right turn. In which direction is the polling station situated,

with respect to the starting point?

A. North B. East C. South D. West

6 Fill the blank in the series deb ijg nol ___ xyv.

a. rsp b. stp c. rsq d. stq

7 The current ICC cricket world cup in 2019 is being hosted by

A. England B. England and Wales

C. England and Scotland D. England and Ireland

8 Eating 12 grapes at midnight on New Year's Eve is both a tradition and a

superstition in which country

CMB Entrance Exam

A. Norway B. Spain C. Russia D.Bulgaria

9 The GST council has fitted over 1300 goods and 500 services under how many

GST tax slabs in India

A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 4

10 Tom’s age after 15 years will be 5 times his age 5 years back. What is the present

age of Tom?

A. 2.5 years B. 10 years C. 9 years D. 5 years

11 The length of a rectangular plot is 5 1/3, times that of its breadth. If the area of the

plot is 270 square metres, then what is its perimeter?

A. 101 m B. 90 m C. 120 m D. 125 m

12. Rigveda Samhita is divided into ten books. What are the books called?

A. Shreni B. Mandalas

C. Upanishads D. Puranas

13 Which was the first remote sensing mission undertaken by ISRO?

A. IMS1 B. IRS-1A C. SARAL D. Aryabhatt

14 If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West

become?

A. North-East B. North-West C. South-East D. South-West

15. Which of the following nobel laureate also won Bharat Ratna award?

A. Rabindra nath tagore B. Amartya Sen

C. Kailash Satyarthi D. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan

Part B- CHEMISTRY and PHYSICS

16 What is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?

A. (E)-Oct-5-en-3-yne

B. (E)-Oct-3-en-5-yne

C. (Z)-Oct-5-en-3-yne

D. (Z)-Oct-3-en-5-yne

17 Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of reactivity, when

treated with a base.

CMB Entrance Exam

A. I > II > III

B. II > III > I

C. I > III > II

D. III > I > II

18 Which of the following compounds will react with Grignard reagent to give 3o alcohol?

A. I, II and III

B. Only II

C. I and II

D. II and IV

19 What is the major product in the following reaction?

A. PhCH2OCH2Ph

B. PhCH2NHNO

C. PhCH2OH

D. PhCH3

20 On electrolysis which of the following does not give oxygen?

A. Acidic water, using Pt electrodes

B. Fused NaOH using Pt electrodes

C. Dilute H2SO4 using Pt electrodes

D. Dilute H2SO4 using Cu electrodes

21 Bakelite is made from phenol and formaldehyde. The initial reaction between the

two compounds is an example of:

A. Aromatic electrophilic substitution

B. Aromatic nucleophilic substitution

C. Free radical reaction

D. Aldol condensation

22 Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives:

A. D-Ribose B. D-Fructose C. L-Glucose D. D-Glucose

23 If the salt bridge is removed suddenly from a working cell, the voltage:

A. Increases B. Decreases

C. Drops to zero D. May increase or decrease depending on cell reaction

24 A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapours at its boiling point. On average the

molecules in the two phases have equal:

CMB Entrance Exam

A. Intermolecular forces B. Potential energy

C. Kinetic energy D. Total energy

25 99 % of a first order reaction completes in 32 minutes, therefore, 99.9 % reaction

will complete in.

A. 51 minutes B. 64 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 48 minutes

26 Among LiCl, NaCl, KCl and MgCl, the salt _____ has covalent character.

A. LiCl B. NaCl C. KCl D. MgCl

27 Choose the correct properties of Ψ

A. Finite and imaginary

B. Infinite and multiple value

C. Finite and single value

D. Real and multiple

28 Iodine can exist in the oxidation states:

A. +1, +3, +5 B. -1, +1, +3

C. +3, +5. +7 D. -1, +1, +3, +5, +7

29 Which of the following will form chelate:

A. Ethylenediamine B. Ammonia

C. Aniline D. Cyanide

30 In nature, Mg2+ is present in which of the following Complex/compound?

A. Chlorophyll B. Carotene C. Haemoglobin D. Vitamin-C

31 Octahedral geometry in a complex will be produced by ______ hybridization

A. sp3 B. d2sp3 C. sp2 D. d2sp2

32 Two isotonic solutions will have same:

A. Vapour pressure

B. Boiling point

C. Freezing point

D. Osmotic pressure

33 Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes:

A. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function at very

high temperatures (T ~1000 K).

B. Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in their

action.

C. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned

D. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess well defined active sites.

34 Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol wt 60) in 1000g of water gave a solution of density

1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is

CMB Entrance Exam

A. 1.78 M B. 2.00 M C. 2.1 M D. 2.22 M

35 Marsh gas is a mixture of

A. H2, O2 and CO2

B. H2O, CH4, CO2

C. CH4, H2S, CO2

D. C2H4, H2S, CO

36 For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number

of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is :-

A. 20 B. 10

C. 30 D. 15

37 A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving

freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of

the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time

period of oscillation is:-

A. 2π s B. π s

C. 2 s D. 1S

38 The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and

boiling point of water, is

A. 26.8% B. 20%

C. 6.25% D. 12.5%

39 The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate

capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is :-

A. independent of the distance between the plates.

B. linearly proportional to the distance between the plates

C. proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates.

D. inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.

40 A geosynchronous satellite is one which

A. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s revolution

around the sun

B. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s rotation

around its axis

C. Its period of revolution matches the period of revolution of the moon

D. None of the above

41 When light waves travel from a denser to a rarer medium, what happens?

A. There is refraction of light irrespective of the angle of incidence

B. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is smaller than

the critical angle

C. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is greater than

the critical angle

D. Both (a) and (b)

CMB Entrance Exam

42 The ear of some animals can distinguish ultrasonic sound waves, but not human

ear. What is the frequency of ultrasonic sound waves?

A. They have frequency lower than 10 milli Hz

B. They have frequency lower than 10 kilo Hz

C. They have frequency higher than 20 kilo Hz

D. They have frequency higher than 20 milli Hz

43 Two balls of masses 2 kg and 3 kg slide along a frictionless horizontal surface with

speeds of 4 m/s and 2 m/s, respectively. After an inelastic collision, the balls stick

together and move at a speed of 2 m/s. What direction did the two balls move

before the collision?

A. In the same direction

B. In opposite directions

C. At an angle not equal to 0° or 180°

D. Not enough information given to select an answer

44 A loop of current creates a magnetic field. How can you increase the strength of

this magnetic field?

A. By increasing the number of loops

B. By increasing the current flowing through the loop

C. By increasing the diameter of the loop

D. Both (a) and (b)

45 Which of the following two paths need more work to push a unit charge in a

uniform electric field in between two fixed points A and B?

(i) (ii) (iii)

A. Path (i)

B. Path (ii)

C. Path (iii)

D. Work done is same for all the three paths

46 Two resistors, R1 and R2 are connected to a battery producing a voltage V. Then

which of the following is true?

A. unequal current flows through R1 and R2 if connected in series

B. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in series

C. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in parallel

D. There is equal current flowing through R1 and R2 if connected in parallel

47 Which of the following statements is the zeroeth law of thermodynamics?

A. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed

CMB Entrance Exam

B. The entropy of the universe is increasing

C. If two systems A and B are in thermal contact, then they are at the same

temperature with a third body in thermal contact with A and /or B

D. The entropy of the universe is zero at 0 K.

48 What is the viscous drag experienced by a small particle of size 20 Å moving

through a fluid of viscosity 20 Pascal-sec at a constant speed of 20 m/s ?

A. 0.8 X 10-12 kg-m-s-2

B. 1.5 X 10-11 kg-m-s-2

C. 1.5 X 10-11 m-s-2


49 Which experiment can prove that light consists of particles called photons?

A. Bragg diffraction

B. Interference of light

C. Photoelectric effect

D. Photovoltaic effect

50 If the refractive index of a plano-convex lens is 1.6 and the radius of curvature is 60

cm then the focal length of the lens is

A. 50 B. 100 C. -50 D. -100

51 Which of the following phenomena is used in optical fibre?

A. reflection B. total internal reflection C. interference D. scattering

52 Twelve wires of equal resistance r are joined to form a cube. The effective resistance

between two diagonal ends will be____

A. 3r B. 5r/6 C. 6r/5 (D. 12r

53 A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long, vertical copper tube.

After some time the magnet

A. Will stop in the tube B. will move with constant speed

C.Will move with an acceleration g D. will oscillate

54 Let Cv and Cp are the molar heat capacities of an ideal gas at constant volume and

constant pressure respectively. Which of the following is a universal constant?

A. Cp/Cv B. Cp Cv C. Cp - Cv D. Cp + Cv

55 An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use of

A. NOT gate B. OR gate C. NAND gate D. XOR gate

Part C (for Biology subject)

56 NADPH is generated in which of the following pathway?

A. Kreb’s cycle

B. Pentose Phosphate pathway

CMB Entrance Exam

C. Glycolysis

D. Urea cycle

57 Reptiles and birds are mainly

A. Ureotelic B. Ammonotelic C. Uricotelic D. None

58 Diabetes insipidus condition

A. occurs due to hyposecretion of insulin by pancreas.

B. urine contains excessive sugar (glucose).

C. occurs due to over-secretion of vasopressin.

D. occurs due to under-secretion of vasopression leading to very dilute urine

and hence constantly feels thirsty.

59 A linear peptide is made up of 6 residues of an amino acid of molecular weight

118Da. The molecular weight of the peptide will be

A. 618 B. 690 C. 600 D. 708

60 The causative agent of scalded skin syndrome is

A. Salmonella typhi

B. Shigella sonnie

C. Staphylococcus aureus

D. Mycobacterium fortuitum

61 Which of the following is an imino acid:

A. Proline B. Histidine C. Cysteine D. Glycine

62 In SDS-PAGE, the SDS imparts

A. Uniform negative charge per unit length of protein

B. Uniform negative charge irrespective of protein length

C. Uniform positive charge per unit length of protein

D. Uniform positive charge irrespective of protein length

63 BCG vaccine is derived by attenuating

A. Mycobacterium avium B. Mycobacterium bovis

C. Mycobacterium vaccae D. Mycobacterium fortuitum

64 Average molecular weight of an amino acid is

A. 11 dalton B. 110 dalton C. 1100 dalton D. 110 kilodalton

65 Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was invented by

A. Fredrick Sanger B. Kary Mullis

C. David Baltimore D. Arthur Kornberg

66 Antibody present in colostrum (milk secreted by mother during initial days of

lactation) is.

A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgM

CMB Entrance Exam

67 Syphilis is caused by

A.Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Treponema pallidum

C.Trichomonas vaginalis D. Candida albicans

68 In the Stanley Miller’s experiment, the formation of ….. was observed.

A.Nucleotides B. Polypeptides

C.Amino acids D. Nucleic acids

69 Which of the following techniques will be useful for tracing the origin of particular

tribe?

A. blood grouping.

B. mitochondrial DNA analysis.

C. DNA fingerprinting.

D. karyotyping.

70 Bacterial infection can be treated by an antibiotic that blocks protein synthesis. why

it does not affect human cell?

A. Human and bacterial ribosomes are different

B. Antibiotic molecules can’t enter human cells.

C. Antibiotic gets degraded by human cell.

D. different genetic code of human and bacteria.

71 In phloem and xylem the transport is

A. Unidirectional ,bidirectional respectively

B. Bidirectional and active transoport respectively

C. Active transport and unidirectional respectively

D. Bidirectional and unidirectional respectively

72 In an animal cell after removal of nuclei DNA is still present. The source is

A. Peroxisome B. Lysosome C. Chloroplast D. Mitochondria

73 A heterozygous colorblind woman marries a color blind man. What is the ratio of

carrier daughters, color blind daughters, normal sons and color blind sons in F1

generation?

A. 1:2:2:1 B. 1:1:1:1 C. 2:1:1:2 D. 1:1:2:2

74 Full form of RNAi is

A. Ribonucleic acid interference

B. Ribonucleic acetate inhibition

C. Ribonucleic aspartate integration

D. Ribosome nucleic acid inhibition

75 Polysome is involved with

A. Transcription B. Replication

C. Translation D. Post transcription

76 The glucose homeostasis is maintained in the body by

A. Insulin B. Glucagon

CMB Entrance Exam

C. Insulin & Glucagon D. Somatostatin

77 Respiratory pathways are more appropriately called

A. amphibolic pathway B. catabolic pathway

C. anabolic pathway D. none of the above

78 Erythroblastosis foetalis, mismatch of the blood grouping can happen with

A. Rh negative mother with Rh positive first child

B. Rh positive mother with Rh positive first child

C. Rh negative mother with Rh positive second child

D. Rh positive mother with Rh negative second child

79 HIV is a retrovirus, and it incorporate

A. Its DNA into the host genome

B. Its RNA into the host genome

C. Its protein into the host genome

D. none of the above

80 MRSA refers to

A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

B. Methicillin-responsive Staphylococcus aureus

C. Most resistant Staphylococcus aureus

D. Minimal responsive Staphylococcus aureus

81 Which of the following is a polysaccharide of animal origin

A. Pectin

B. Cellulose

C. Chitin

D. Arabinoxylans

82 At meta phase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by

A. Satellites B. Centromere

C. Kinetochore D. None of the above

83 An organic substance bound to an enzyme and required for its activity is

A. Apoenyzme

B. Holoenzyme

C. Co enzyme

D. Iso enzyme

84 Phylogenetic system of classification is based on

A. Morphological features

B. Chemical Constitutes

CMB Entrance Exam

C. Evolutionary relation ships

D. All of the above

85 Which of the following hormone is released by posterior lobe of pituitary?

A. FSH

B. ADH

C. ACTH

D. MSH

86 Humoral immunity is mediated by

A. T cells

B. B cells

C. Plasma Cells

D. NK cells

87 Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is

A. Sigmoid

B. Hyperbola

C. Bell shaped

D. Linear

88 A connecting link between plant and animal is

A. Euglena

B. Plasmodium

C. Chlorella


89 Gonads are derived from

A. Ectoderm

B. Endoderm

C. Mesoderm


90 In Arabidopsis thaliana, the haploid chromosome number is 05. How many

chromosomes would you expect to find in the endosperm?

A. 05

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20

91 Cell wall of cyanobacteria is mainly composed of

A. Chitin

B. Cellulose

C. Chitosan

D. Peptidoglycan

CMB Entrance Exam

92 Rust disease is caused by

A. Mucor

B. Phytophthora

C. Puccinia

D. Ustilago

93 Chlorophyll b is found in

A. land plants

B. green algae

C. cyanobacteria

D. All of these

94 Which of the following cell organelle is partially autonomous, encoding and

synthesizing some of their own proteins

A. Chloroplast

B. Nucleolus

C. nucleus

D. Plasmid

95 Which of the following is not the advantage of vegetative propagation

A. Production of large and complete plants

B. Plants produced are genetically same as the mother plant

C. Avoid transmission of pathogens

D. Bypasses juvenile characteristics

96 Nitrogen fixing microorganism associated with water fern Azolla is

A. Anaebena

B. Rhizobium

C. Nostoc

D. Azotobactor

97 The ultimate source of genetic variation in a population is

A. Gene flow

B. Mutation

C. Selection

D. Genetic drift

98 How many pairs of characters/traits Gregor John Mendel studied in Pea?

A. 5 traits

B. 9 traits

C. 7 traits

D. 3 traits

99 Energy is brought into ecosystems by which of the following?

A. Fungi and other decomposers

B. Animals that graze on grass

C. Carnivores animals

D. Plants that photosynthesize

100 How many Barr bodies would you see in the nuclei of a person with XXY

chromosomes?

A. One

CMB Entrance Exam

B. Two

C. Three

D. None

CMB Entrance Exam Page 1



Faculty of Science













A B C D

Booklet


A B C D

A B C

A B C D

D

B

code



Faculty of Science


Vadodara


Part-A


No. Questions Ans

wer











A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 4







7 Rigveda Samhita is divided into ten books. What are the books called?






become?



10 Which of the following nobel laureate also won Bharat Ratna award?




age of Tom?


12. The length of a rectangular plot is 5 1/3, times that of its breadth. If the area of the


A. 101 m B. 90 m C. 120 m D. 125 m


telegraph post?




A. 700 B. 720 C. 750 D. 800

15. On an election day Santhosh walked from a place, 10 km towards South to reach




































A. I > II > III

B. II > III > I

C. I > III > II

D. III > I > II


A. I, II and III

B. Only II

C. I and II

D. II and IV



A. PhCH2OCH2Ph

B. PhCH2NHNO

C. PhCH2OH

D. PhCH3


will complete in.










A. Vapour pressure

B. Boiling point

C. Freezing point

D. Osmotic pressure





action.





A. 1.78 M B. 2.00 M C. 2.1 M D. 2.22 M


A. H2, O2 and CO2

B. H2O, CH4, CO2

C. CH4, H2S, CO2

D. C2H4, H2S, CO


A. +1, +3, +5 B. -1, +1, +3

C. +3, +5. +7 D. -1, +1, +3, +5, +7











A. 20 B. 10

C. 30 D. 15





A. 2π s B. π s

C. 2 s D. 1S



A. 26.8% B. 20%

C. 6.25% D. 12.5%









around the sun


around its axis






the critical angle



the critical angle

D. Both (a) and (b)




















D. Both (a) and (b)



(i) (ii) (iii)

A. Path (i)

B. Path (ii)

C. Path (iii)













A. 3r B. 5r/6 C. 6r/5 (D. 12r
















A. 0.8 X 10-12 kg-m-s-2

B. 1.5 X 10-11 kg-m-s-2

C. 1.5 X 10-11 m-s-2









A. 50 B. 100 C. -50 D. -100












tribe?

A. blood grouping.



D. karyotyping.
















generation?

A. 1:2:2:1 B. 1:1:1:1 C. 2:1:1:2 D. 1:1:2:2














A. Kreb’s cycle


C. Glycolysis

D. Urea cycle











A. 618 B. 690 C. 600 D. 708


A. Salmonella typhi

B. Shigella sonnie




















lactation) is.















80 MRSA refers to






A. T cells

B. B cells

C. Plasma Cells

D. NK cells


A. Sigmoid

B. Hyperbola

C. Bell shaped

D. Linear



A. Euglena

B. Plasmodium

C. Chlorella



A. Ectoderm

B. Endoderm

C. Mesoderm




A. 05

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20


A. Pectin

B. Cellulose

C. Chitin

D. Arabinoxylans





A. Apoenyzme

B. Holoenzyme

C. Co enzyme

D. Iso enzyme





D. All of the above


A. FSH

B. ADH

C. ACTH

D. MSH



A. Chitin

B. Cellulose

C. Chitosan

D. Peptidoglycan


A. Mucor

B. Phytophthora

C. Puccinia

D. Ustilago


A. land plants

B. green algae

C. cyanobacteria

D. All of these



A. Chloroplast

B. Nucleolus

C. nucleus

D. Plasmid







A. Anaebena

B. Rhizobium

C. Nostoc

D. Azotobactor


A. Gene flow

B. Mutation

C. Selection

D. Genetic drift


A. 5 traits

B. 9 traits

C. 7 traits

D. 3 traits








chromosomes?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. None




Faculty of Science













A B C D

Booklet


A B C D

A B C

A B C D

D

C

code



Faculty of Science


Vadodara


Part-A


No. Questions Ans

wer




become?






age of Tom?




A. 101 m B. 90 m C. 120 m D. 125 m


telegraph post?




A. 700 B. 720 C. 750 D. 800












A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 4

12. What is the color of the Golden Gate Bridge located in San Francisco?









15. On an election day Santhosh walked from a place, 10 km towards South to reach












A. 2π s B. π s

C. 2 s D. 1S



A. 26.8% B. 20%

C. 6.25% D. 12.5%










around the sun


around its axis






the critical angle


the critical angle

D. Both (a) and (b)




















D. Both (a) and (b)




(i) (ii) (iii)

A. Path (i)

B. Path (ii)

C. Path (iii)












A. 3r B. 5r/6 C. 6r/5 D. 12r

















A. 0.8 X 10-12 kg-m-s-2

B. 1.5 X 10-11 kg-m-s-2

C. 1.5 X 10-11 m-s-2









A. 50 B. 100 C. -50 D. -100































A. I > II > III

B. II > III > I

C. I > III > II

D. III > I > II


A. I, II and III

B. Only II

C. I and II

D. II and IV


A. PhCH2OCH2Ph

B. PhCH2NHNO

C. PhCH2OH

D. PhCH3


will complete in.











A. Vapour pressure

B. Boiling point

C. Freezing point

D. Osmotic pressure





action.





A. 1.78 M B. 2.00 M C. 2.1 M D. 2.22 M


A. H2, O2 and CO2

B. H2O, CH4, CO2

C. CH4, H2S, CO2

D. C2H4, H2S, CO


A. +1, +3, +5 B. -1, +1, +3

C. +3, +5. +7 D. -1, +1, +3, +5, +7










A. 20 B. 10


C. 30 D. 15



lactation) is.















60 MRSA refers to






A. T cells

B. B cells

C. Plasma Cells

D. NK cells


A. Sigmoid

B. Hyperbola

C. Bell shaped

D. Linear



A. Euglena

B. Plasmodium

C. Chlorella



A. Ectoderm

B. Endoderm

C. Mesoderm




A. 05

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20


A. Pectin

B. Cellulose

C. Chitin

D. Arabinoxylans





A. Apoenyzme

B. Holoenzyme

C. Co enzyme

D. Iso enzyme





D. All of the above


A. FSH

B. ADH

C. ACTH


D. MSH


A. Chitin

B. Cellulose

C. Chitosan

D. Peptidoglycan


A. Mucor

B. Phytophthora

C. Puccinia

D. Ustilago


A. land plants

B. green algae

C. cyanobacteria

D. All of these



A. Chloroplast

B. Nucleolus

C. nucleus

D. Plasmid







A. Anaebena

B. Rhizobium

C. Nostoc

D. Azotobactor


A. Gene flow

B. Mutation

C. Selection

D. Genetic drift


A. 5 traits

B. 9 traits

C. 7 traits

D. 3 traits








chromosomes?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. None








tribe?

A. blood grouping.



D. karyotyping.
















generation?

A. 1:2:2:1 B. 1:1:1:1 C. 2:1:1:2 D. 1:1:2:2














A. Kreb’s cycle


C. Glycolysis

D. Urea cycle











A. 618 B. 690 C. 600 D. 708


A. Salmonella typhi

B. Shigella sonnie












Faculty of Science













A B C D

Booklet


A B C D

A B C

A B C D

D

D

code



Faculty of Science


Vadodara


Part-A


No. Questions Ans

wer



A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 4


















telegraph post?




A. 700 B. 720 C. 750 D. 800












12. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West

become?






age of Tom?


15. The length of a rectangular plot is 5 1/3, times that of its breadth. If the area of the


A. 101 m B. 90 m C. 120 m D. 125 m






















D. Both (a) and (b)



(i) (ii) (iii)

A. Path (i)

B. Path (ii)

C. Path (iii)












A. 2π s B. π s

C. 2 s D. 1S



A. 26.8% B. 20%

C. 6.25% D. 12.5%










around the sun


around its axis






the critical angle


the critical angle

D. Both (a) and (b)





A. 3r B. 5r/6 C. 6r/5 (D. 12r

















A. 0.8 X 10-12 kg-m-s-2

B. 1.5 X 10-11 kg-m-s-2

C. 1.5 X 10-11 m-s-2









A. 50 B. 100 C. -50 D. -100











A. I > II > III

B. II > III > I

C. I > III > II

D. III > I > II


A. I, II and III

B. Only II

C. I and II

D. II and IV



A. PhCH2OCH2Ph

B. PhCH2NHNO

C. PhCH2OH

D. PhCH3


will complete in.






























A. Vapour pressure

B. Boiling point

C. Freezing point

D. Osmotic pressure





action.





A. 1.78 M B. 2.00 M C. 2.1 M D. 2.22 M


A. H2, O2 and CO2

B. H2O, CH4, CO2

C. CH4, H2S, CO2

D. C2H4, H2S, CO


A. +1, +3, +5 B. -1, +1, +3

C. +3, +5. +7 D. -1, +1, +3, +5, +7










A. 20 B. 10

C. 30 D. 15




lactation) is.















60 MRSA refers to






A. T cells

B. B cells

C. Plasma Cells

D. NK cells


A. Sigmoid

B. Hyperbola

C. Bell shaped

D. Linear


A. Euglena


B. Plasmodium

C. Chlorella



A. Ectoderm

B. Endoderm

C. Mesoderm




A. 05

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20


A. Pectin

B. Cellulose

C. Chitin

D. Arabinoxylans





A. Apoenyzme

B. Holoenzyme

C. Co enzyme

D. Iso enzyme





D. All of the above


A. FSH

B. ADH

C. ACTH

D. MSH



A. Chitin

B. Cellulose

C. Chitosan

D. Peptidoglycan


A. Mucor

B. Phytophthora

C. Puccinia

D. Ustilago


A. land plants

B. green algae

C. cyanobacteria

D. All of these



A. Chloroplast

B. Nucleolus

C. nucleus

D. Plasmid







A. Anaebena

B. Rhizobium

C. Nostoc

D. Azotobactor


A. Gene flow

B. Mutation

C. Selection

D. Genetic drift


A. 5 traits

B. 9 traits

C. 7 traits

D. 3 traits








chromosomes?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. None


A. Kreb’s cycle


C. Glycolysis

D. Urea cycle











A. 618 B. 690 C. 600 D. 708


A. Salmonella typhi

B. Shigella sonnie


























tribe?

A. blood grouping.



D. karyotyping.
















generation?

A. 1:2:2:1 B. 1:1:1:1 C. 2:1:1:2 D. 1:1:2:2









Faculty of Science






1. This test booklet is to be opened only when instructed by theinvigilators to do so.

2. This booklet carries 100 questions on 13 printed pages. All questionscarry equal marks.

3. For every correct answer, candidate will earn 1 mark. 0.25 mark willbe deducted for every wrong answer.

4. Test Registration Number must be entered correctly in the OMRsheet, as advised by the invigilators. The Question Booklet code (A, B,C, or D) must also be mentioned on the OMR sheet (if not printedalready) as instructed.

5. Answers must be marked in the OMR sheet using a black or dark blueball point pen only. The circle should be filled in completely, leavingno gaps.

6. Gadgets (mobile phone, smart watch, ear phone, music players, etc.)are strictly prohibited in the exam hall. If any candidate is found inpossession of any of these at his/her exam seat, he/she is liable to bedisqualified.


A B C D

Booklet


A B C D

A B C

A B C D

D

Acode

Mathematics



Faculty of Science


Vadodara


Part-A


No. Questions Ans

wer








telegraph post?




A. 700 B. 720 C. 750 D. 800



















A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 4


age of Tom?




A. 101 m B. 90 m C. 120 m D. 125 m

12. Rigveda Samhita is divided into ten books. What are the books called?






become?


15. Which of the following nobel laureate also won Bharat Ratna award?












A. I > II > III

B. II > III > I

C. I > III > II

D. III > I > II


A. I, II and III

B. Only II

C. I and II

D. II and IV


A. PhCH2OCH2Ph

B. PhCH2NHNO

C. PhCH2OH

D. PhCH3























will complete in.










A. +1, +3, +5 B. -1, +1, +3

C. +3, +5. +7 D. -1, +1, +3, +5, +7









A. Vapour pressure

B. Boiling point

C. Freezing point

D. Osmotic pressure





action.






A. 1.78 M B. 2.00 M C. 2.1 M D. 2.22 M


A. H2, O2 and CO2

B. H2O, CH4, CO2

C. CH4, H2S, CO2

D. C2H4, H2S, CO



A. 20 B. 10

C. 30 D. 15





A. 2π s B. π s

C. 2 s D. 1S



A. 26.8% B. 20%

C. 6.25% D. 12.5%









around the sun


around its axis






the critical angle



the critical angle

D. Both (a) and (b)




















D. Both (a) and (b)



(i) (ii) (iii)

A. Path (i)

B. Path (ii)

C. Path (iii)

















A. 0.8 X 10-12 kg-m-s-2

B. 1.5 X 10-11 kg-m-s-2

C. 1.5 X 10-11 m-s-2









A. 50 B. 100 C. -50 D. -100





A. 3r B. 5r/6 C. 6r/5 (D. 12r











Part C (for Mathematics subject)

56 If 𝐴 is a finite set containing 100 – elements, then the number of elements

in the power set of 𝐴 × 𝐴 is

(A) 210000 (B) 2200 (C) 1002 (D) 200

57 A batch of 60 students is numbered as 1 to 60. All even numbered students opted for

mathematics, those students whose numbers are divisible by 7 opted for Physics and

those students whose numbers are divisible by 9 opted for chemistry. How many

opted for none of the three subjects?

(A) 0 (B) 23 (C) 37 (D) 44

58 Suppose line 𝐿 with the slope 𝑚 is a tangent to the ellipse 𝑥2

16+ 𝑦2 = 1. Then line L

will be tangent to the circle 𝑥2 + 𝑦2 = 16 for the value of 𝑚 =__________.

(A) ±1

4 (B) ±

1

16 (C) ±

1

2 (D) ±1

59 How many 4 – digits numbers can be formed using the digits 1 to 9 without repetition

such that numbers either have all digits less than 6 or all digits greater than or equal

to 5?

(A) 40 (B) 120 (C) 144 (D) 240

60 The equation of the locus of points in a plane such that the sum of the squares of its

distance from the axes is equal to 9 is

(A) 𝑥2 + 𝑦2 = 9 (B) 𝑥2 − 𝑦2 = 9

(C) 𝑦2 − 𝑥2 = 9 (D) 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 9

61 For the natural numbers 𝑥 and 𝑦 consider equation 5𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 4534. Then

(A) 𝑥 is always an odd integer.

(B) 𝑥 is always an even integer.

(C) 𝑥 is an odd integer only if 𝑦 is an even integer.

(D) 𝑥 is an even integer only if 𝑦 is an odd integer.

62 A pair of consecutive even positive integers both of which are larger than 7 and their

sum is less than 25 is

(A) (2, 4) (B) (4,6) (C) (10, 12) (D) (12,14)

63 In a collection of 20 cricket players only 7 can bowl. In how many ways one can

select a cricket team of eleven players which must include exactly 4 bowlers?

(A) 143 (B) 8580 (C) 1100 (D) 60060

64 Consider the circle (𝑥 − 2)2 + (𝑦 − 1)2 = 9. If the line 𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 + 2 = 0 is a

diameter of this circle, then 𝑘 =____________.

(A) – 4 (B) – 2 (C) 4 (D) 2


65 The positive value of 𝑚 for which coefficient of 𝑥2 in the expansion of (1 + 𝑥)𝑚 is

6 is equal to

(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 3

66 Suppose sin 𝑥 − sin 𝑦 = 0 and cos 𝑥 − cos 𝑦 = 0. Then cos 2𝑥 +

cos 2𝑦 =__________.

(A) −2 sin (𝑥 + 𝑦) (B) 2 sin (𝑥 + 𝑦)

(C) 2 cos (𝑥 + 𝑦) (D) −2 cos (𝑥 + 𝑦)

67 Let A, B be two subsets of set of real numbers and 𝑓 ∶ 𝐴 → 𝐵 be a strictly increasing

function. Then the inverse map 𝑓−1 ∶ 𝐵 → 𝐴 is

(A) neither one – one nor an not map

(B) a one – one but not an onto map.

(C) an onto but not a one – one map.

(D) a one – one and an onto map.

68 The value of the limit, lim

𝑥→∞

𝑥3 sin(1

𝑥) − 2𝑥2

1+𝑥2 =

(A) −1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 3

69 Range of the function 𝑓(𝑥) = −2|𝑥| + 1 is

(A) (−∞, 0] (B) (−∞, 1] (C) (−∞, −1] (D) (−∞, 2]

70 The point on the 𝑌 −axis whose distance from the line 3𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 6 is 2 units is

(A) ( −1, 0) (B) ( 0, −4) (C) ( 0,−1) (D) (0, 2)

71 If log10(2𝑥2 + 4𝑥) − log10(𝑥 + 2) = 1, then 𝑥 =__________.

(A) 10 (B) 1 (C) 20 (D) 5

72 If the least positive integer 𝑛 when divided by 12, 15, 21, 24 gives remainder 5, then

the value of 𝑛 is

(A) 845 (B) 840 (C) 1690 (D) 1695

73 The sum of the three integers in arithmetic progression is 36 and the product of first

and third number is 23. The numbers are

(A) 0,12, 23 (B) 1, 12, 23 (C) 11, 12, 23 (D) 12, 23, 35

74 If 1

6cos2 𝜃 , sin 𝜃 , 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃 are in geometric progression then the value of 𝜃 such that

0 ≤ 𝜃 ≤ 𝜋 is

(A) 𝜋

3 (B)

𝜋

2 (C)

𝜋

6 (D) 0

75 Complex number (𝑖18 + (

1

𝑖)

28

)5

=

(A) 1 (B) −𝑖 (C) 𝑖 (D) 0

76 If 𝑦𝑥 = 𝑥𝑦 , then 𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑥 is equal to


(A) 𝑦(𝑦−𝑥 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑦)

𝑥(𝑥−𝑦 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥) (B)

𝑥(𝑦−𝑥 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑦)

𝑦(𝑥−𝑦 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥)

(C) 𝑦(𝑥−𝑦 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥)

𝑥(𝑦−𝑥 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑦) (D) none of these.

77 The distance of the plane 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 + 4𝑧 − 6 = 0 from origin is

(A) 6 units (B) 6

√29 units (C) 6√29 units (D)

√29

6 units.

78 The value of 𝑐 for which the vectors �⃗� = 𝑖 + 2𝑗 + �⃗⃗� and �⃗⃗� = 𝑖 + 𝑐�⃗⃗� are

orthogonal is

(A) 1 (B) −1 (C) 2 (D) −2 .

79 The general solution of the differential equation 𝑥2 𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑥+ 𝑥𝑦 = 1 , 𝑥 > 0 is

(A) 𝑦 = 𝑥 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 + 𝑐 (B) 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 + 𝑐

(C) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 (D) none of these .

80 The area of the region enclosed by the parabolas 𝑦 = 𝑥2 and 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 𝑥2 is

(A) 2 (B) 1

2 (C) 3 (D)

1

3 .

81 The value of the integral ∫ 𝑒𝑥𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥(1 + 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥)𝑑𝑥 is

(A) 𝑒𝑥𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 + 𝑐 (B) 𝑒𝑥𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥 + 𝑐

(C) 𝑒𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 + 𝑐 (D) 𝑒𝑥𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥 + 𝑐 .

82 The interval in which 𝑦 = 𝑥2𝑒−𝑥 is increasing is

(A) (−∞, ∞) (B) (−2, 0) (C) (2, ∞) (D) (0,2) .

83 If 𝑓: ℝ → ℝ be given by 𝑓(𝑥) = (3 − 𝑥3)1 3⁄ , then 𝑓 ∘ 𝑓 is given by

(A) 𝑥1 3⁄ (B) 𝑥3 (C) 𝑥 (D) 3 − 𝑥2.

84 In a class of 60 students, 30 opted for physics, 32 opted for statistics and 24 opted

for both physics and statistics. If one of the students is selected at random, the

probability that the student has offered neither physics nor statistics is

(A) 11

30 (B)

19

30 (C)

2

30 (D) none of these.

85 The mean and standard deviation of six observations are 8 and 4, respectively. If

each observation is multiplied by 3, then the new mean and standard deviation

of the resulting observations are


(A) 8 and 12 (B) 24 and 4

3 (C)

8

3 and

4

3 (D) 24 and 12.

86 The value of 𝛼 for which the determinant of the matrix (

1 𝛼 04 5 31 0 2

) , is zero, is

(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) 4 .

87 The ratio of two numbers is 13:15 and their LCM 39780, then the numbers are

(A) 2652 , 3060 (B) 884, 1020 (C) 884, 1040 (D) 670, 1340.

88 A batsman has a certain average runs for 11 innings. In the 12th inninghe made a

score of 90 runs and thereby decreases his average by 5 . His average after 12th

inning is

(A) 127 (B) 150 (C) 145 (D) 217 .

89 The value of (3.537−0.948)2+(3.537+0.948)2

(3.537)2+(0.948)2 is

(A) 4.485 (B) 2.589 (C) 4 (D) 2 .

90 A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days; B and C in 15 days; C and A in 20

days; then A alone can do the work in

(A) 152

3 days (B) 30 days (C) 24 days (D) 40 days .

91 A man sells an article at a gain of 10% . If he had bought it at 10% less and sold it

for Rs. 132 less, he would have gained 10%.The cost price of the article is

(A) Rs. 1200 (B) Rs.1320 (C) Rs. 1188 (D) Rs. 1801.

92 The area of an equilateral triangle is 4√3 𝑐𝑚2, then the length of each side of the

triangle is

(A) 4 cm (B) 3 cm (C) √3

4 cm (D)

4

√3 cm .

93 A train covers a distance in 50 minutes if it runs at a speed of 48km/hr on an

average. The speed at which the train must run to reduce the time of journey to

40 minutes will be

(A) 50 km/hr (B) 55 km/hr (C) 60 km/hr (D) 70 km/hr .

94 Find the missing number in the sequence 2 , 9 , 28 , 65 , 126 , − , 344 .


(A) 225 (B) 216 (C) 217 (D) 250

95 If the volumes of two cones are in the ratio 1:4 and their diameters are in the ratio

4:5, then the ratio of their heights is

(A) 1:5 (B) 5:4 (C) 5:16 (D) 25:64.

96 The probability of drawing any two queen cards from a pack of cards is

(A) 6/1326 (B) 1/26 (C) 4/1326 (D) none of these

97 The probability that a leap year selected at random will have 53 Sundays is equal to

(A) 1/7 (B) 2/7 (C) 2/53 (D) 52/53

98 The mean and variance of binomial distribution are 4 and 4/3 respectively. Then n=

(A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 4

99 If a random variable X has the following probability distribution:

X -1 -2 1 2

P(X=x) 1/3 1/6 1/6 1/3

Then the expected value of X is

(A) 3/2 (B) 1/6 (C) 1/2 (D) 1

100 For Bernoulli distribution with probability p of a success and q of a failure, the relation

between mean and variance that holds is:

(A) mean > variance (B) mean < variance

(C) mean = variance (D) mean < variance

The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda Faculty of Science

Documents

Transcript of The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda Faculty of Science