CMB Entrance Exam Page 1
Test Registration No. _____________
The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda
Faculty of Science
Invigilator’s signature___________________________
ADMISSION ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
SUBJECT: Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology
DAY: Thursday DATE: 13th June 2019 TIME: 02:00 Pm to 04:00 pm
Important Instructions:
1. This test booklet is to be opened only when instructed by the invigilators to do so.
2. This booklet carries 100 questions on 14 printed pages. All questions carry equal marks.
3. For every correct answer, candidate will earn 1 mark. 0.25 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
4. Test Registration Number must be entered correctly in the OMR sheet, as advised by the invigilators. The Question Booklet code (A, B, C, or D) must also be mentioned on the OMR sheet (if not printed already) as instructed.
5. Answers must be marked in the OMR sheet using a black or dark blue ball point pen only. The circle should be filled in completely, leaving no gaps.
6. Gadgets (mobile phone, smart watch, ear phone, music players, etc.) are strictly prohibited in the exam hall. If any candidate is found in possession of any of these at his/her exam seat, he/she is liable to be disqualified.
Correct way of marking answer:
A B C D
Booklet
Incorrect ways of marking answer:
A B C D
A B C
A B C D
D
A
code
CMB Entrance Exam Page 2
Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology
Faculty of Science
The M. S. University of Baroda
Vadodara
Entrance Test - 2019
Part-A
GENERAL APTITUDE &GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS
No. Questions Ans
wer
1 What is the color of the Golden Gate Bridge located in San Francisco?
A. Red B. International Orange
C. Dark Byzantium D. Earth Yellow
2 Who is the current captain of the Indian football team?
A. Sunil Chhetri B. Pronay Halder
C. Subrata Pal D. Anirudh Thapa
3 How long does a train, 75 m long, moving at 60 km/hr take to pass a certain
telegraph post?
A. 3.5 seconds B. 4 seconds C. 4.5 seconds D. 6 seconds
4 How many words with or without meaning, can be formed by using all the letters
of the word, ‘ORANGE’, using each letter exactly once?
A. 700 B. 720 C. 750 D. 800
5 On an election day Santhosh walked from a place, 10 km towards South to reach
the polling station, then turned left up to 2 km, then took a right turn, and took
another 4 kms walk. Again he turned right and walked for 12 kms and took a 14
km walk by turning to North, and there he could see the polling station at a 12 km
distance after taking a right turn. In which direction is the polling station situated,
with respect to the starting point?
A. North B. East C. South D. West
6 Fill the blank in the series deb ijg nol ___ xyv.
a. rsp b. stp c. rsq d. stq
7 The current ICC cricket world cup in 2019 is being hosted by
A. England B. England and Wales
C. England and Scotland D. England and Ireland
8 Eating 12 grapes at midnight on New Year's Eve is both a tradition and a
superstition in which country
CMB Entrance Exam Page 3
A. Norway B. Spain C. Russia D.Bulgaria
9 The GST council has fitted over 1300 goods and 500 services under how many
GST tax slabs in India
A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 4
10 Tom’s age after 15 years will be 5 times his age 5 years back. What is the present
age of Tom?
A. 2.5 years B. 10 years C. 9 years D. 5 years
11 The length of a rectangular plot is 5 1/3, times that of its breadth. If the area of the
plot is 270 square metres, then what is its perimeter?
A. 101 m B. 90 m C. 120 m D. 125 m
12. Rigveda Samhita is divided into ten books. What are the books called?
A. Shreni B. Mandalas
C. Upanishads D. Puranas
13 Which was the first remote sensing mission undertaken by ISRO?
A. IMS1 B. IRS-1A C. SARAL D. Aryabhatt
14 If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West
become?
A. North-East B. North-West C. South-East D. South-West
15. Which of the following nobel laureate also won Bharat Ratna award?
A. Rabindra nath tagore B. Amartya Sen
C. Kailash Satyarthi D. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan
Part B- CHEMISTRY and PHYSICS
16 What is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?
A. (E)-Oct-5-en-3-yne
B. (E)-Oct-3-en-5-yne
C. (Z)-Oct-5-en-3-yne
D. (Z)-Oct-3-en-5-yne
17 Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of reactivity, when
treated with a base.
CMB Entrance Exam Page 4
A. I > II > III
B. II > III > I
C. I > III > II
D. III > I > II
18 Which of the following compounds will react with Grignard reagent to give 3o alcohol?
A. I, II and III
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. II and IV
19 What is the major product in the following reaction?
A. PhCH2OCH2Ph
B. PhCH2NHNO
C. PhCH2OH
D. PhCH3
20 On electrolysis which of the following does not give oxygen?
A. Acidic water, using Pt electrodes
B. Fused NaOH using Pt electrodes
C. Dilute H2SO4 using Pt electrodes
D. Dilute H2SO4 using Cu electrodes
21 Bakelite is made from phenol and formaldehyde. The initial reaction between the
two compounds is an example of:
A. Aromatic electrophilic substitution
B. Aromatic nucleophilic substitution
C. Free radical reaction
D. Aldol condensation
22 Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives:
A. D-Ribose B. D-Fructose C. L-Glucose D. D-Glucose
23 If the salt bridge is removed suddenly from a working cell, the voltage:
A. Increases B. Decreases
C. Drops to zero D. May increase or decrease depending on cell reaction
24 A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapours at its boiling point. On average the
molecules in the two phases have equal:
CMB Entrance Exam Page 5
A. Intermolecular forces B. Potential energy
C. Kinetic energy D. Total energy
25 99 % of a first order reaction completes in 32 minutes, therefore, 99.9 % reaction
will complete in.
A. 51 minutes B. 64 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 48 minutes
26 Among LiCl, NaCl, KCl and MgCl, the salt _____ has covalent character.
A. LiCl B. NaCl C. KCl D. MgCl
27 Choose the correct properties of Ψ
A. Finite and imaginary
B. Infinite and multiple value
C. Finite and single value
D. Real and multiple
28 Iodine can exist in the oxidation states:
A. +1, +3, +5 B. -1, +1, +3
C. +3, +5. +7 D. -1, +1, +3, +5, +7
29 Which of the following will form chelate:
A. Ethylenediamine B. Ammonia
C. Aniline D. Cyanide
30 In nature, Mg2+ is present in which of the following Complex/compound?
A. Chlorophyll B. Carotene C. Haemoglobin D. Vitamin-C
31 Octahedral geometry in a complex will be produced by ______ hybridization
A. sp3 B. d2sp3 C. sp2 D. d2sp2
32 Two isotonic solutions will have same:
A. Vapour pressure
B. Boiling point
C. Freezing point
D. Osmotic pressure
33 Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes:
A. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function at very
high temperatures (T ~1000 K).
B. Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in their
action.
C. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned
D. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess well defined active sites.
34 Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol wt 60) in 1000g of water gave a solution of density
1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is
CMB Entrance Exam Page 6
A. 1.78 M B. 2.00 M C. 2.1 M D. 2.22 M
35 Marsh gas is a mixture of
A. H2, O2 and CO2
B. H2O, CH4, CO2
C. CH4, H2S, CO2
D. C2H4, H2S, CO
36 For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number
of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is :-
A. 20 B. 10
C. 30 D. 15
37 A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving
freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of
the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time
period of oscillation is:-
A. 2π s B. π s
C. 2 s D. 1S
38 The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and
boiling point of water, is
A. 26.8% B. 20%
C. 6.25% D. 12.5%
39 The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate
capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is :-
A. independent of the distance between the plates.
B. linearly proportional to the distance between the plates
C. proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates.
D. inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.
40 A geosynchronous satellite is one which
A. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s revolution
around the sun
B. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s rotation
around its axis
C. Its period of revolution matches the period of revolution of the moon
D. None of the above
41 When light waves travel from a denser to a rarer medium, what happens?
A. There is refraction of light irrespective of the angle of incidence
B. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is smaller than
the critical angle
C. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is greater than
the critical angle
D. Both (a) and (b)
CMB Entrance Exam Page 7
42 The ear of some animals can distinguish ultrasonic sound waves, but not human
ear. What is the frequency of ultrasonic sound waves?
A. They have frequency lower than 10 milli Hz
B. They have frequency lower than 10 kilo Hz
C. They have frequency higher than 20 kilo Hz
D. They have frequency higher than 20 milli Hz
43 Two balls of masses 2 kg and 3 kg slide along a frictionless horizontal surface with
speeds of 4 m/s and 2 m/s, respectively. After an inelastic collision, the balls stick
together and move at a speed of 2 m/s. What direction did the two balls move
before the collision?
A. In the same direction
B. In opposite directions
C. At an angle not equal to 0° or 180°
D. Not enough information given to select an answer
44 A loop of current creates a magnetic field. How can you increase the strength of
this magnetic field?
A. By increasing the number of loops
B. By increasing the current flowing through the loop
C. By increasing the diameter of the loop
D. Both (a) and (b)
45 Which of the following two paths need more work to push a unit charge in a
uniform electric field in between two fixed points A and B?
(i) (ii) (iii)
A. Path (i)
B. Path (ii)
C. Path (iii)
D. Work done is same for all the three paths
46 Two resistors, R1 and R2 are connected to a battery producing a voltage V. Then
which of the following is true?
A. unequal current flows through R1 and R2 if connected in series
B. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in series
C. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in parallel
D. There is equal current flowing through R1 and R2 if connected in parallel
47 Which of the following statements is the zeroeth law of thermodynamics?
A. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
CMB Entrance Exam Page 8
B. The entropy of the universe is increasing
C. If two systems A and B are in thermal contact, then they are at the same
temperature with a third body in thermal contact with A and /or B
D. The entropy of the universe is zero at 0 K.
48 What is the viscous drag experienced by a small particle of size 20 Å moving
through a fluid of viscosity 20 Pascal-sec at a constant speed of 20 m/s ?
A. 0.8 X 10-12 kg-m-s-2
B. 1.5 X 10-11 kg-m-s-2
C. 1.5 X 10-11 m-s-2
D. None of the above
49 Which experiment can prove that light consists of particles called photons?
A. Bragg diffraction
B. Interference of light
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Photovoltaic effect
50 If the refractive index of a plano-convex lens is 1.6 and the radius of curvature is 60
cm then the focal length of the lens is
A. 50 B. 100 C. -50 D. -100
51 Which of the following phenomena is used in optical fibre?
A. reflection B. total internal reflection C. interference D. scattering
52 Twelve wires of equal resistance r are joined to form a cube. The effective resistance
between two diagonal ends will be____
A. 3r B. 5r/6 C. 6r/5 (D. 12r
53 A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long, vertical copper tube.
After some time the magnet
A. Will stop in the tube B. will move with constant speed
C.Will move with an acceleration g D. will oscillate
54 Let Cv and Cp are the molar heat capacities of an ideal gas at constant volume and
constant pressure respectively. Which of the following is a universal constant?
A. Cp/Cv B. Cp Cv C. Cp - Cv D. Cp + Cv
55 An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use of
A. NOT gate B. OR gate C. NAND gate D. XOR gate
Part C (for Biology subject)
56 NADPH is generated in which of the following pathway?
A. Kreb’s cycle
B. Pentose Phosphate pathway
CMB Entrance Exam Page 9
C. Glycolysis
D. Urea cycle
57 Reptiles and birds are mainly
A. Ureotelic B. Ammonotelic C. Uricotelic D. None
58 Diabetes insipidus condition
A. occurs due to hyposecretion of insulin by pancreas.
B. urine contains excessive sugar (glucose).
C. occurs due to over-secretion of vasopressin.
D. occurs due to under-secretion of vasopression leading to very dilute urine
and hence constantly feels thirsty.
59 A linear peptide is made up of 6 residues of an amino acid of molecular weight
118Da. The molecular weight of the peptide will be
A. 618 B. 690 C. 600 D. 708
60 The causative agent of scalded skin syndrome is
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Shigella sonnie
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Mycobacterium fortuitum
61 Which of the following is an imino acid:
A. Proline B. Histidine C. Cysteine D. Glycine
62 In SDS-PAGE, the SDS imparts
A. Uniform negative charge per unit length of protein
B. Uniform negative charge irrespective of protein length
C. Uniform positive charge per unit length of protein
D. Uniform positive charge irrespective of protein length
63 BCG vaccine is derived by attenuating
A. Mycobacterium avium B. Mycobacterium bovis
C. Mycobacterium vaccae D. Mycobacterium fortuitum
64 Average molecular weight of an amino acid is
A. 11 dalton B. 110 dalton C. 1100 dalton D. 110 kilodalton
65 Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was invented by
A. Fredrick Sanger B. Kary Mullis
C. David Baltimore D. Arthur Kornberg
66 Antibody present in colostrum (milk secreted by mother during initial days of
lactation) is.
A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgM
CMB Entrance Exam Page 10
67 Syphilis is caused by
A.Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Treponema pallidum
C.Trichomonas vaginalis D. Candida albicans
68 In the Stanley Miller’s experiment, the formation of ….. was observed.
A.Nucleotides B. Polypeptides
C.Amino acids D. Nucleic acids
69 Which of the following techniques will be useful for tracing the origin of particular
tribe?
A. blood grouping.
B. mitochondrial DNA analysis.
C. DNA fingerprinting.
D. karyotyping.
70 Bacterial infection can be treated by an antibiotic that blocks protein synthesis. why
it does not affect human cell?
A. Human and bacterial ribosomes are different
B. Antibiotic molecules can’t enter human cells.
C. Antibiotic gets degraded by human cell.
D. different genetic code of human and bacteria.
71 In phloem and xylem the transport is
A. Unidirectional ,bidirectional respectively
B. Bidirectional and active transoport respectively
C. Active transport and unidirectional respectively
D. Bidirectional and unidirectional respectively
72 In an animal cell after removal of nuclei DNA is still present. The source is
A. Peroxisome B. Lysosome C. Chloroplast D. Mitochondria
73 A heterozygous colorblind woman marries a color blind man. What is the ratio of
carrier daughters, color blind daughters, normal sons and color blind sons in F1
generation?
A. 1:2:2:1 B. 1:1:1:1 C. 2:1:1:2 D. 1:1:2:2
74 Full form of RNAi is
A. Ribonucleic acid interference
B. Ribonucleic acetate inhibition
C. Ribonucleic aspartate integration
D. Ribosome nucleic acid inhibition
75 Polysome is involved with
A. Transcription B. Replication
C. Translation D. Post transcription
76 The glucose homeostasis is maintained in the body by
A. Insulin B. Glucagon
CMB Entrance Exam Page 11
C. Insulin & Glucagon D. Somatostatin
77 Respiratory pathways are more appropriately called
A. amphibolic pathway B. catabolic pathway
C. anabolic pathway D. none of the above
78 Erythroblastosis foetalis, mismatch of the blood grouping can happen with
A. Rh negative mother with Rh positive first child
B. Rh positive mother with Rh positive first child
C. Rh negative mother with Rh positive second child
D. Rh positive mother with Rh negative second child
79 HIV is a retrovirus, and it incorporate
A. Its DNA into the host genome
B. Its RNA into the host genome
C. Its protein into the host genome
D. none of the above
80 MRSA refers to
A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
B. Methicillin-responsive Staphylococcus aureus
C. Most resistant Staphylococcus aureus
D. Minimal responsive Staphylococcus aureus
81 Which of the following is a polysaccharide of animal origin
A. Pectin
B. Cellulose
C. Chitin
D. Arabinoxylans
82 At meta phase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by
A. Satellites B. Centromere
C. Kinetochore D. None of the above
83 An organic substance bound to an enzyme and required for its activity is
A. Apoenyzme
B. Holoenzyme
C. Co enzyme
D. Iso enzyme
84 Phylogenetic system of classification is based on
A. Morphological features
B. Chemical Constitutes
CMB Entrance Exam Page 12
C. Evolutionary relation ships
D. All of the above
85 Which of the following hormone is released by posterior lobe of pituitary?
A. FSH
B. ADH
C. ACTH
D. MSH
86 Humoral immunity is mediated by
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Plasma Cells
D. NK cells
87 Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is
A. Sigmoid
B. Hyperbola
C. Bell shaped
D. Linear
88 A connecting link between plant and animal is
A. Euglena
B. Plasmodium
C. Chlorella
D. None of the above
89 Gonads are derived from
A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. None of the above
90 In Arabidopsis thaliana, the haploid chromosome number is 05. How many
chromosomes would you expect to find in the endosperm?
A. 05
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
91 Cell wall of cyanobacteria is mainly composed of
A. Chitin
B. Cellulose
C. Chitosan
D. Peptidoglycan
CMB Entrance Exam Page 13
92 Rust disease is caused by
A. Mucor
B. Phytophthora
C. Puccinia
D. Ustilago
93 Chlorophyll b is found in
A. land plants
B. green algae
C. cyanobacteria
D. All of these
94 Which of the following cell organelle is partially autonomous, encoding and
synthesizing some of their own proteins
A. Chloroplast
B. Nucleolus
C. nucleus
D. Plasmid
95 Which of the following is not the advantage of vegetative propagation
A. Production of large and complete plants
B. Plants produced are genetically same as the mother plant
C. Avoid transmission of pathogens
D. Bypasses juvenile characteristics
96 Nitrogen fixing microorganism associated with water fern Azolla is
A. Anaebena
B. Rhizobium
C. Nostoc
D. Azotobactor
97 The ultimate source of genetic variation in a population is
A. Gene flow
B. Mutation
C. Selection
D. Genetic drift
98 How many pairs of characters/traits Gregor John Mendel studied in Pea?
A. 5 traits
B. 9 traits
C. 7 traits
D. 3 traits
99 Energy is brought into ecosystems by which of the following?
A. Fungi and other decomposers
B. Animals that graze on grass
C. Carnivores animals
D. Plants that photosynthesize
100 How many Barr bodies would you see in the nuclei of a person with XXY
chromosomes?
A. One
CMB Entrance Exam Page 1
Test Registration No. _____________
The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda
Faculty of Science
Invigilator’s signature___________________________
ADMISSION ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
SUBJECT: Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology
DAY: Thursday DATE: 13th June 2019 TIME: 02:00 Pm to 04:00 pm
Important Instructions:
1. This test booklet is to be opened only when instructed by the invigilators to do so.
2. This booklet carries 100 questions on 14 printed pages. All questions carry equal marks.
3. For every correct answer, candidate will earn 1 mark. 0.25 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
4. Test Registration Number must be entered correctly in the OMR sheet, as advised by the invigilators. The Question Booklet code (A, B, C, or D) must also be mentioned on the OMR sheet (if not printed already) as instructed.
5. Answers must be marked in the OMR sheet using a black or dark blue ball point pen only. The circle should be filled in completely, leaving no gaps.
6. Gadgets (mobile phone, smart watch, ear phone, music players, etc.) are strictly prohibited in the exam hall. If any candidate is found in possession of any of these at his/her exam seat, he/she is liable to be disqualified.
Correct way of marking answer:
A B C D
Booklet
Incorrect ways of marking answer:
A B C D
A B C
A B C D
D
B
code
CMB Entrance Exam Page 2
Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology
Faculty of Science
The M. S. University of Baroda
Vadodara
Entrance Test - 2019
Part-A
GENERAL APTITUDE &GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS
No. Questions Ans
wer
1 Fill the blank in the series deb ijg nol ___ xyv.
a. rsp b. stp c. rsq d. stq
2 The current ICC cricket world cup in 2019 is being hosted by
A. England B. England and Wales
C. England and Scotland D. England and Ireland
3 Eating 12 grapes at midnight on New Year's Eve is both a tradition and a
superstition in which country
A. Norway B. Spain C. Russia D.Bulgaria
4 The GST council has fitted over 1300 goods and 500 services under how many
GST tax slabs in India
A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 4
5 What is the color of the Golden Gate Bridge located in San Francisco?
A. Red B. International Orange
C. Dark Byzantium D. Earth Yellow
6 Who is the current captain of the Indian football team?
A. Sunil Chhetri B. Pronay Halder
C. Subrata Pal D. Anirudh Thapa
7 Rigveda Samhita is divided into ten books. What are the books called?
A. Shreni B. Mandalas
C. Upanishads D. Puranas
8 Which was the first remote sensing mission undertaken by ISRO?
A. IMS1 B. IRS-1A C. SARAL D. Aryabhatt
9 If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West
become?
CMB Entrance Exam Page 3
A. North-East B. North-West C. South-East D. South-West
10 Which of the following nobel laureate also won Bharat Ratna award?
A. Rabindra nath tagore B. Amartya Sen
C. Kailash Satyarthi D. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan
11 Tom’s age after 15 years will be 5 times his age 5 years back. What is the present
age of Tom?
A. 2.5 years B. 10 years C. 9 years D. 5 years
12. The length of a rectangular plot is 5 1/3, times that of its breadth. If the area of the
plot is 270 square metres, then what is its perimeter?
A. 101 m B. 90 m C. 120 m D. 125 m
13 How long does a train, 75 m long, moving at 60 km/hr take to pass a certain
telegraph post?
A. 3.5 seconds B. 4 seconds C. 4.5 seconds D. 6 seconds
14 How many words with or without meaning, can be formed by using all the letters
of the word, ‘ORANGE’, using each letter exactly once?
A. 700 B. 720 C. 750 D. 800
15. On an election day Santhosh walked from a place, 10 km towards South to reach
the polling station, then turned left up to 2 km, then took a right turn, and took
another 4 kms walk. Again he turned right and walked for 12 kms and took a 14
km walk by turning to North, and there he could see the polling station at a 12 km
distance after taking a right turn. In which direction is the polling station situated,
with respect to the starting point?
A. North B. East C. South D. West
Part B- CHEMISTRY and PHYSICS
16 Bakelite is made from phenol and formaldehyde. The initial reaction between the
two compounds is an example of:
A. Aromatic electrophilic substitution
B. Aromatic nucleophilic substitution
C. Free radical reaction
D. Aldol condensation
17 Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives:
A. D-Ribose B. D-Fructose C. L-Glucose D. D-Glucose
18 If the salt bridge is removed suddenly from a working cell, the voltage:
A. Increases B. Decreases
C. Drops to zero D. May increase or decrease depending on cell reaction
CMB Entrance Exam Page 4
19 A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapours at its boiling point. On average the
molecules in the two phases have equal:
A. Intermolecular forces B. Potential energy
C. Kinetic energy D. Total energy
20 On electrolysis which of the following does not give oxygen?
A. Acidic water, using Pt electrodes
B. Fused NaOH using Pt electrodes
C. Dilute H2SO4 using Pt electrodes
D. Dilute H2SO4 using Cu electrodes
21 What is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?
A. (E)-Oct-5-en-3-yne
B. (E)-Oct-3-en-5-yne
C. (Z)-Oct-5-en-3-yne
D. (Z)-Oct-3-en-5-yne
22 Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of reactivity, when
treated with a base.
A. I > II > III
B. II > III > I
C. I > III > II
D. III > I > II
23 Which of the following compounds will react with Grignard reagent to give 3o alcohol?
A. I, II and III
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. II and IV
24 What is the major product in the following reaction?
CMB Entrance Exam Page 5
A. PhCH2OCH2Ph
B. PhCH2NHNO
C. PhCH2OH
D. PhCH3
25 99 % of a first order reaction completes in 32 minutes, therefore, 99.9 % reaction
will complete in.
A. 51 minutes B. 64 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 48 minutes
26 Among LiCl, NaCl, KCl and MgCl, the salt _____ has covalent character.
A. LiCl B. NaCl C. KCl D. MgCl
27 Choose the correct properties of Ψ
A. Finite and imaginary
B. Infinite and multiple value
C. Finite and single value
D. Real and multiple
28 Two isotonic solutions will have same:
A. Vapour pressure
B. Boiling point
C. Freezing point
D. Osmotic pressure
29 Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes:
A. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function at very
high temperatures (T ~1000 K).
B. Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in their
action.
C. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned
D. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess well defined active sites.
30 Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol wt 60) in 1000g of water gave a solution of density
1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is
A. 1.78 M B. 2.00 M C. 2.1 M D. 2.22 M
31 Marsh gas is a mixture of
A. H2, O2 and CO2
B. H2O, CH4, CO2
C. CH4, H2S, CO2
D. C2H4, H2S, CO
32 Iodine can exist in the oxidation states:
A. +1, +3, +5 B. -1, +1, +3
C. +3, +5. +7 D. -1, +1, +3, +5, +7
CMB Entrance Exam Page 6
33 Which of the following will form chelate:
A. Ethylenediamine B. Ammonia
C. Aniline D. Cyanide
34 In nature, Mg2+ is present in which of the following Complex/compound?
A. Chlorophyll B. Carotene C. Haemoglobin D. Vitamin-C
35 Octahedral geometry in a complex will be produced by ______ hybridization
A. sp3 B. d2sp3 C. sp2 D. d2sp2
36 For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number
of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is :-
A. 20 B. 10
C. 30 D. 15
37 A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving
freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of
the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time
period of oscillation is:-
A. 2π s B. π s
C. 2 s D. 1S
38 The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and
boiling point of water, is
A. 26.8% B. 20%
C. 6.25% D. 12.5%
39 The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate
capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is :-
A. independent of the distance between the plates.
B. linearly proportional to the distance between the plates
C. proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates.
D. inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.
40 A geosynchronous satellite is one which
A. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s revolution
around the sun
B. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s rotation
around its axis
C. Its period of revolution matches the period of revolution of the moon
D. None of the above
41 When light waves travel from a denser to a rarer medium, what happens?
A. There is refraction of light irrespective of the angle of incidence
B. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is smaller than
the critical angle
CMB Entrance Exam Page 7
C. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is greater than
the critical angle
D. Both (a) and (b)
42 The ear of some animals can distinguish ultrasonic sound waves, but not human
ear. What is the frequency of ultrasonic sound waves?
A. They have frequency lower than 10 milli Hz
B. They have frequency lower than 10 kilo Hz
C. They have frequency higher than 20 kilo Hz
D. They have frequency higher than 20 milli Hz
43 Two balls of masses 2 kg and 3 kg slide along a frictionless horizontal surface with
speeds of 4 m/s and 2 m/s, respectively. After an inelastic collision, the balls stick
together and move at a speed of 2 m/s. What direction did the two balls move
before the collision?
A. In the same direction
B. In opposite directions
C. At an angle not equal to 0° or 180°
D. Not enough information given to select an answer
44 A loop of current creates a magnetic field. How can you increase the strength of
this magnetic field?
A. By increasing the number of loops
B. By increasing the current flowing through the loop
C. By increasing the diameter of the loop
D. Both (a) and (b)
45 Which of the following two paths need more work to push a unit charge in a
uniform electric field in between two fixed points A and B?
(i) (ii) (iii)
A. Path (i)
B. Path (ii)
C. Path (iii)
D. Work done is same for all the three paths
46 Two resistors, R1 and R2 are connected to a battery producing a voltage V. Then
which of the following is true?
A. unequal current flows through R1 and R2 if connected in series
B. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in series
C. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in parallel
CMB Entrance Exam Page 8
D. There is equal current flowing through R1 and R2 if connected in parallel
47 Which of the following phenomena is used in optical fibre?
A. reflection B. total internal reflection C. interference D. scattering
48 Twelve wires of equal resistance r are joined to form a cube. The effective resistance
between two diagonal ends will be____
A. 3r B. 5r/6 C. 6r/5 (D. 12r
49 A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long, vertical copper tube.
After some time the magnet
A. Will stop in the tube B. will move with constant speed
C.Will move with an acceleration g D. will oscillate
50 Let Cv and Cp are the molar heat capacities of an ideal gas at constant volume and
constant pressure respectively. Which of the following is a universal constant?
A. Cp/Cv B. Cp Cv C. Cp - Cv D. Cp + Cv
51 Which of the following statements is the zeroeth law of thermodynamics?
A. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
B. The entropy of the universe is increasing
C. If two systems A and B are in thermal contact, then they are at the same
temperature with a third body in thermal contact with A and /or B
D. The entropy of the universe is zero at 0 K.
52 What is the viscous drag experienced by a small particle of size 20 Å moving
through a fluid of viscosity 20 Pascal-sec at a constant speed of 20 m/s ?
A. 0.8 X 10-12 kg-m-s-2
B. 1.5 X 10-11 kg-m-s-2
C. 1.5 X 10-11 m-s-2
D. None of the above
53 Which experiment can prove that light consists of particles called photons?
A. Bragg diffraction
B. Interference of light
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Photovoltaic effect
54 If the refractive index of a plano-convex lens is 1.6 and the radius of curvature is 60
cm then the focal length of the lens is
A. 50 B. 100 C. -50 D. -100
55 An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use of
CMB Entrance Exam Page 9
A. NOT gate B. OR gate C. NAND gate D. XOR gate
Part C (for Biology subject)
56 Syphilis is caused by
A.Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Treponema pallidum
C.Trichomonas vaginalis D. Candida albicans
57 In the Stanley Miller’s experiment, the formation of ….. was observed.
A.Nucleotides B. Polypeptides
C.Amino acids D. Nucleic acids
58 Which of the following techniques will be useful for tracing the origin of particular
tribe?
A. blood grouping.
B. mitochondrial DNA analysis.
C. DNA fingerprinting.
D. karyotyping.
59 Bacterial infection can be treated by an antibiotic that blocks protein synthesis. why
it does not affect human cell?
A. Human and bacterial ribosomes are different
B. Antibiotic molecules can’t enter human cells.
C. Antibiotic gets degraded by human cell.
D. different genetic code of human and bacteria.
60 In phloem and xylem the transport is
A. Unidirectional ,bidirectional respectively
B. Bidirectional and active transoport respectively
C. Active transport and unidirectional respectively
D. Bidirectional and unidirectional respectively
61 In an animal cell after removal of nuclei DNA is still present. The source is
A. Peroxisome B. Lysosome C. Chloroplast D. Mitochondria
62 A heterozygous colorblind woman marries a color blind man. What is the ratio of
carrier daughters, color blind daughters, normal sons and color blind sons in F1
generation?
A. 1:2:2:1 B. 1:1:1:1 C. 2:1:1:2 D. 1:1:2:2
63 Full form of RNAi is
A. Ribonucleic acid interference
B. Ribonucleic acetate inhibition
C. Ribonucleic aspartate integration
D. Ribosome nucleic acid inhibition
64 Polysome is involved with
A. Transcription B. Replication
C. Translation D. Post transcription
CMB Entrance Exam Page 10
65 The glucose homeostasis is maintained in the body by
A. Insulin B. Glucagon
C. Insulin & Glucagon D. Somatostatin
66 NADPH is generated in which of the following pathway?
A. Kreb’s cycle
B. Pentose Phosphate pathway
C. Glycolysis
D. Urea cycle
67 Reptiles and birds are mainly
A. Ureotelic B. Ammonotelic C. Uricotelic D. None
68 Diabetes insipidus condition
A. occurs due to hyposecretion of insulin by pancreas.
B. urine contains excessive sugar (glucose).
C. occurs due to over-secretion of vasopressin.
D. occurs due to under-secretion of vasopression leading to very dilute urine
and hence constantly feels thirsty.
69 A linear peptide is made up of 6 residues of an amino acid of molecular weight
118Da. The molecular weight of the peptide will be
A. 618 B. 690 C. 600 D. 708
70 The causative agent of scalded skin syndrome is
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Shigella sonnie
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Mycobacterium fortuitum
71 Which of the following is an imino acid:
A. Proline B. Histidine C. Cysteine D. Glycine
72 In SDS-PAGE, the SDS imparts
A. Uniform negative charge per unit length of protein
B. Uniform negative charge irrespective of protein length
C. Uniform positive charge per unit length of protein
D. Uniform positive charge irrespective of protein length
73 BCG vaccine is derived by attenuating
A. Mycobacterium avium B. Mycobacterium bovis
C. Mycobacterium vaccae D. Mycobacterium fortuitum
74 Average molecular weight of an amino acid is
A. 11 dalton B. 110 dalton C. 1100 dalton D. 110 kilodalton
75 Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was invented by
CMB Entrance Exam Page 11
A. Fredrick Sanger B. Kary Mullis
C. David Baltimore D. Arthur Kornberg
76 Antibody present in colostrum (milk secreted by mother during initial days of
lactation) is.
A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgM
77 Respiratory pathways are more appropriately called
A. amphibolic pathway B. catabolic pathway
C. anabolic pathway D. none of the above
78 Erythroblastosis foetalis, mismatch of the blood grouping can happen with
A. Rh negative mother with Rh positive first child
B. Rh positive mother with Rh positive first child
C. Rh negative mother with Rh positive second child
D. Rh positive mother with Rh negative second child
79 HIV is a retrovirus, and it incorporate
A. Its DNA into the host genome
B. Its RNA into the host genome
C. Its protein into the host genome
D. none of the above
80 MRSA refers to
A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
B. Methicillin-responsive Staphylococcus aureus
C. Most resistant Staphylococcus aureus
D. Minimal responsive Staphylococcus aureus
81 Humoral immunity is mediated by
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Plasma Cells
D. NK cells
82 Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is
A. Sigmoid
B. Hyperbola
C. Bell shaped
D. Linear
83 A connecting link between plant and animal is
CMB Entrance Exam Page 12
A. Euglena
B. Plasmodium
C. Chlorella
D. None of the above
84 Gonads are derived from
A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. None of the above
85 In Arabidopsis thaliana, the haploid chromosome number is 05. How many
chromosomes would you expect to find in the endosperm?
A. 05
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
86 Which of the following is a polysaccharide of animal origin
A. Pectin
B. Cellulose
C. Chitin
D. Arabinoxylans
87 At meta phase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by
A. Satellites B. Centromere
C. Kinetochore D. None of the above
88 An organic substance bound to an enzyme and required for its activity is
A. Apoenyzme
B. Holoenzyme
C. Co enzyme
D. Iso enzyme
89 Phylogenetic system of classification is based on
A. Morphological features
B. Chemical Constitutes
C. Evolutionary relation ships
D. All of the above
90 Which of the following hormone is released by posterior lobe of pituitary?
A. FSH
B. ADH
C. ACTH
D. MSH
CMB Entrance Exam Page 13
91 Cell wall of cyanobacteria is mainly composed of
A. Chitin
B. Cellulose
C. Chitosan
D. Peptidoglycan
92 Rust disease is caused by
A. Mucor
B. Phytophthora
C. Puccinia
D. Ustilago
93 Chlorophyll b is found in
A. land plants
B. green algae
C. cyanobacteria
D. All of these
94 Which of the following cell organelle is partially autonomous, encoding and
synthesizing some of their own proteins
A. Chloroplast
B. Nucleolus
C. nucleus
D. Plasmid
95 Which of the following is not the advantage of vegetative propagation
A. Production of large and complete plants
B. Plants produced are genetically same as the mother plant
C. Avoid transmission of pathogens
D. Bypasses juvenile characteristics
96 Nitrogen fixing microorganism associated with water fern Azolla is
A. Anaebena
B. Rhizobium
C. Nostoc
D. Azotobactor
97 The ultimate source of genetic variation in a population is
A. Gene flow
B. Mutation
C. Selection
D. Genetic drift
98 How many pairs of characters/traits Gregor John Mendel studied in Pea?
A. 5 traits
B. 9 traits
C. 7 traits
D. 3 traits
99 Energy is brought into ecosystems by which of the following?
A. Fungi and other decomposers
CMB Entrance Exam Page 14
B. Animals that graze on grass
C. Carnivores animals
D. Plants that photosynthesize
100 How many Barr bodies would you see in the nuclei of a person with XXY
chromosomes?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. None
CMB Entrance Exam Page 1
Test Registration No. _____________
The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda
Faculty of Science
Invigilator’s signature___________________________
ADMISSION ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
SUBJECT: Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology
DAY: Thursday DATE: 13th June 2019 TIME: 02:00 Pm to 04:00 pm
Important Instructions:
1. This test booklet is to be opened only when instructed by the invigilators to do so.
2. This booklet carries 100 questions on 14 printed pages. All questions carry equal marks.
3. For every correct answer, candidate will earn 1 mark. 0.25 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
4. Test Registration Number must be entered correctly in the OMR sheet, as advised by the invigilators. The Question Booklet code (A, B, C, or D) must also be mentioned on the OMR sheet (if not printed already) as instructed.
5. Answers must be marked in the OMR sheet using a black or dark blue ball point pen only. The circle should be filled in completely, leaving no gaps.
6. Gadgets (mobile phone, smart watch, ear phone, music players, etc.) are strictly prohibited in the exam hall. If any candidate is found in possession of any of these at his/her exam seat, he/she is liable to be disqualified.
Correct way of marking answer:
A B C D
Booklet
Incorrect ways of marking answer:
A B C D
A B C
A B C D
D
C
code
CMB Entrance Exam Page 2
Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology
Faculty of Science
The M. S. University of Baroda
Vadodara
Entrance Test - 2019
Part-A
GENERAL APTITUDE &GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS
No. Questions Ans
wer
1 Which was the first remote sensing mission undertaken by ISRO?
A. IMS1 B. IRS-1A C. SARAL D. Aryabhatt
2 If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West
become?
A. North-East B. North-West C. South-East D. South-West
3 Which of the following nobel laureate also won Bharat Ratna award?
A. Rabindra nath tagore B. Amartya Sen
C. Kailash Satyarthi D. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan
4 Tom’s age after 15 years will be 5 times his age 5 years back. What is the present
age of Tom?
A. 2.5 years B. 10 years C. 9 years D. 5 years
5 The length of a rectangular plot is 5 1/3, times that of its breadth. If the area of the
plot is 270 square metres, then what is its perimeter?
A. 101 m B. 90 m C. 120 m D. 125 m
6 How long does a train, 75 m long, moving at 60 km/hr take to pass a certain
telegraph post?
A. 3.5 seconds B. 4 seconds C. 4.5 seconds D. 6 seconds
7 How many words with or without meaning, can be formed by using all the letters
of the word, ‘ORANGE’, using each letter exactly once?
A. 700 B. 720 C. 750 D. 800
8 Fill the blank in the series deb ijg nol ___ xyv.
a. rsp b. stp c. rsq d. stq
9 The current ICC cricket world cup in 2019 is being hosted by
A. England B. England and Wales
C. England and Scotland D. England and Ireland
CMB Entrance Exam Page 3
10 Eating 12 grapes at midnight on New Year's Eve is both a tradition and a
superstition in which country
A. Norway B. Spain C. Russia D.Bulgaria
11 The GST council has fitted over 1300 goods and 500 services under how many
GST tax slabs in India
A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 4
12. What is the color of the Golden Gate Bridge located in San Francisco?
A. Red B. International Orange
C. Dark Byzantium D. Earth Yellow
13 Who is the current captain of the Indian football team?
A. Sunil Chhetri B. Pronay Halder
C. Subrata Pal D. Anirudh Thapa
14 Rigveda Samhita is divided into ten books. What are the books called?
A. Shreni B. Mandalas
C. Upanishads D. Puranas
15. On an election day Santhosh walked from a place, 10 km towards South to reach
the polling station, then turned left up to 2 km, then took a right turn, and took
another 4 kms walk. Again he turned right and walked for 12 kms and took a 14
km walk by turning to North, and there he could see the polling station at a 12 km
distance after taking a right turn. In which direction is the polling station situated,
with respect to the starting point?
A. North B. East C. South D. West
Part B- CHEMISTRY and PHYSICS
16 A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving
freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of
the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time
period of oscillation is:-
A. 2π s B. π s
C. 2 s D. 1S
17 The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and
boiling point of water, is
A. 26.8% B. 20%
C. 6.25% D. 12.5%
18 The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate
capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is :-
A. independent of the distance between the plates.
CMB Entrance Exam Page 4
B. linearly proportional to the distance between the plates
C. proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates.
D. inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.
19 A geosynchronous satellite is one which
A. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s revolution
around the sun
B. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s rotation
around its axis
C. Its period of revolution matches the period of revolution of the moon
D. None of the above
20 When light waves travel from a denser to a rarer medium, what happens?
A. There is refraction of light irrespective of the angle of incidence
B. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is smaller than
the critical angle
C. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is greater than
the critical angle
D. Both (a) and (b)
21 The ear of some animals can distinguish ultrasonic sound waves, but not human
ear. What is the frequency of ultrasonic sound waves?
A. They have frequency lower than 10 milli Hz
B. They have frequency lower than 10 kilo Hz
C. They have frequency higher than 20 kilo Hz
D. They have frequency higher than 20 milli Hz
22 Two balls of masses 2 kg and 3 kg slide along a frictionless horizontal surface with
speeds of 4 m/s and 2 m/s, respectively. After an inelastic collision, the balls stick
together and move at a speed of 2 m/s. What direction did the two balls move
before the collision?
A. In the same direction
B. In opposite directions
C. At an angle not equal to 0° or 180°
D. Not enough information given to select an answer
23 A loop of current creates a magnetic field. How can you increase the strength of
this magnetic field?
A. By increasing the number of loops
B. By increasing the current flowing through the loop
C. By increasing the diameter of the loop
D. Both (a) and (b)
CMB Entrance Exam Page 5
24 Which of the following two paths need more work to push a unit charge in a
uniform electric field in between two fixed points A and B?
(i) (ii) (iii)
A. Path (i)
B. Path (ii)
C. Path (iii)
D. Work done is same for all the three paths
25 Two resistors, R1 and R2 are connected to a battery producing a voltage V. Then
which of the following is true?
A. unequal current flows through R1 and R2 if connected in series
B. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in series
C. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in parallel
D. There is equal current flowing through R1 and R2 if connected in parallel
26 Which of the following phenomena is used in optical fibre?
A. reflection B. total internal reflection C. interference D. scattering
27 Twelve wires of equal resistance r are joined to form a cube. The effective resistance
between two diagonal ends will be____
A. 3r B. 5r/6 C. 6r/5 D. 12r
28 A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long, vertical copper tube.
After some time the magnet
A. Will stop in the tube B. will move with constant speed
C.Will move with an acceleration g D. will oscillate
29 Let Cv and Cp are the molar heat capacities of an ideal gas at constant volume and
constant pressure respectively. Which of the following is a universal constant?
A. Cp/Cv B. Cp Cv C. Cp - Cv D. Cp + Cv
30 Which of the following statements is the zeroeth law of thermodynamics?
A. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
B. The entropy of the universe is increasing
C. If two systems A and B are in thermal contact, then they are at the same
temperature with a third body in thermal contact with A and /or B
D. The entropy of the universe is zero at 0 K.
31 What is the viscous drag experienced by a small particle of size 20 Å moving
through a fluid of viscosity 20 Pascal-sec at a constant speed of 20 m/s ?
CMB Entrance Exam Page 6
A. 0.8 X 10-12 kg-m-s-2
B. 1.5 X 10-11 kg-m-s-2
C. 1.5 X 10-11 m-s-2
D. None of the above
32 Which experiment can prove that light consists of particles called photons?
A. Bragg diffraction
B. Interference of light
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Photovoltaic effect
33 If the refractive index of a plano-convex lens is 1.6 and the radius of curvature is 60
cm then the focal length of the lens is
A. 50 B. 100 C. -50 D. -100
34 An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use of
A. NOT gate B. OR gate C. NAND gate D. XOR gate
35 Bakelite is made from phenol and formaldehyde. The initial reaction between the
two compounds is an example of:
A. Aromatic electrophilic substitution
B. Aromatic nucleophilic substitution
C. Free radical reaction
D. Aldol condensation
36 Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives:
A. D-Ribose B. D-Fructose C. L-Glucose D. D-Glucose
37 If the salt bridge is removed suddenly from a working cell, the voltage:
A. Increases B. Decreases
C. Drops to zero D. May increase or decrease depending on cell reaction
38 A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapours at its boiling point. On average the
molecules in the two phases have equal:
A. Intermolecular forces B. Potential energy
C. Kinetic energy D. Total energy
39 On electrolysis which of the following does not give oxygen?
A. Acidic water, using Pt electrodes
B. Fused NaOH using Pt electrodes
C. Dilute H2SO4 using Pt electrodes
D. Dilute H2SO4 using Cu electrodes
40 What is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?
CMB Entrance Exam Page 7
A. (E)-Oct-5-en-3-yne
B. (E)-Oct-3-en-5-yne
C. (Z)-Oct-5-en-3-yne
D. (Z)-Oct-3-en-5-yne
41 Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of reactivity, when
treated with a base.
A. I > II > III
B. II > III > I
C. I > III > II
D. III > I > II
42 Which of the following compounds will react with Grignard reagent to give 3o alcohol?
A. I, II and III
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. II and IV
43 What is the major product in the following reaction?
A. PhCH2OCH2Ph
B. PhCH2NHNO
C. PhCH2OH
D. PhCH3
44 99 % of a first order reaction completes in 32 minutes, therefore, 99.9 % reaction
will complete in.
A. 51 minutes B. 64 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 48 minutes
45 Among LiCl, NaCl, KCl and MgCl, the salt _____ has covalent character.
A. LiCl B. NaCl C. KCl D. MgCl
46 Choose the correct properties of Ψ
A. Finite and imaginary
CMB Entrance Exam Page 8
B. Infinite and multiple value
C. Finite and single value
D. Real and multiple
47 Two isotonic solutions will have same:
A. Vapour pressure
B. Boiling point
C. Freezing point
D. Osmotic pressure
48 Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes:
A. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function at very
high temperatures (T ~1000 K).
B. Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in their
action.
C. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned
D. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess well defined active sites.
49 Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol wt 60) in 1000g of water gave a solution of density
1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is
A. 1.78 M B. 2.00 M C. 2.1 M D. 2.22 M
50 Marsh gas is a mixture of
A. H2, O2 and CO2
B. H2O, CH4, CO2
C. CH4, H2S, CO2
D. C2H4, H2S, CO
51 Iodine can exist in the oxidation states:
A. +1, +3, +5 B. -1, +1, +3
C. +3, +5. +7 D. -1, +1, +3, +5, +7
52 Which of the following will form chelate:
A. Ethylenediamine B. Ammonia
C. Aniline D. Cyanide
53 In nature, Mg2+ is present in which of the following Complex/compound?
A. Chlorophyll B. Carotene C. Haemoglobin D. Vitamin-C
54 Octahedral geometry in a complex will be produced by ______ hybridization
A. sp3 B. d2sp3 C. sp2 D. d2sp2
55 For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number
of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is :-
A. 20 B. 10
CMB Entrance Exam Page 9
C. 30 D. 15
Part C (for Biology subject)
56 Antibody present in colostrum (milk secreted by mother during initial days of
lactation) is.
A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgM
57 Respiratory pathways are more appropriately called
A. amphibolic pathway B. catabolic pathway
C. anabolic pathway D. none of the above
58 Erythroblastosis foetalis, mismatch of the blood grouping can happen with
A. Rh negative mother with Rh positive first child
B. Rh positive mother with Rh positive first child
C. Rh negative mother with Rh positive second child
D. Rh positive mother with Rh negative second child
59 HIV is a retrovirus, and it incorporate
A. Its DNA into the host genome
B. Its RNA into the host genome
C. Its protein into the host genome
D. none of the above
60 MRSA refers to
A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
B. Methicillin-responsive Staphylococcus aureus
C. Most resistant Staphylococcus aureus
D. Minimal responsive Staphylococcus aureus
61 Humoral immunity is mediated by
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Plasma Cells
D. NK cells
62 Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is
A. Sigmoid
B. Hyperbola
C. Bell shaped
D. Linear
CMB Entrance Exam Page 10
63 A connecting link between plant and animal is
A. Euglena
B. Plasmodium
C. Chlorella
D. None of the above
64 Gonads are derived from
A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. None of the above
65 In Arabidopsis thaliana, the haploid chromosome number is 05. How many
chromosomes would you expect to find in the endosperm?
A. 05
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
66 Which of the following is a polysaccharide of animal origin
A. Pectin
B. Cellulose
C. Chitin
D. Arabinoxylans
67 At meta phase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by
A. Satellites B. Centromere
C. Kinetochore D. None of the above
68 An organic substance bound to an enzyme and required for its activity is
A. Apoenyzme
B. Holoenzyme
C. Co enzyme
D. Iso enzyme
69 Phylogenetic system of classification is based on
A. Morphological features
B. Chemical Constitutes
C. Evolutionary relation ships
D. All of the above
70 Which of the following hormone is released by posterior lobe of pituitary?
A. FSH
B. ADH
C. ACTH
CMB Entrance Exam Page 11
D. MSH
71 Cell wall of cyanobacteria is mainly composed of
A. Chitin
B. Cellulose
C. Chitosan
D. Peptidoglycan
72 Rust disease is caused by
A. Mucor
B. Phytophthora
C. Puccinia
D. Ustilago
73 Chlorophyll b is found in
A. land plants
B. green algae
C. cyanobacteria
D. All of these
74 Which of the following cell organelle is partially autonomous, encoding and
synthesizing some of their own proteins
A. Chloroplast
B. Nucleolus
C. nucleus
D. Plasmid
75 Which of the following is not the advantage of vegetative propagation
A. Production of large and complete plants
B. Plants produced are genetically same as the mother plant
C. Avoid transmission of pathogens
D. Bypasses juvenile characteristics
76 Nitrogen fixing microorganism associated with water fern Azolla is
A. Anaebena
B. Rhizobium
C. Nostoc
D. Azotobactor
77 The ultimate source of genetic variation in a population is
A. Gene flow
B. Mutation
C. Selection
D. Genetic drift
78 How many pairs of characters/traits Gregor John Mendel studied in Pea?
A. 5 traits
B. 9 traits
C. 7 traits
D. 3 traits
79 Energy is brought into ecosystems by which of the following?
CMB Entrance Exam Page 12
A. Fungi and other decomposers
B. Animals that graze on grass
C. Carnivores animals
D. Plants that photosynthesize
80 How many Barr bodies would you see in the nuclei of a person with XXY
chromosomes?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. None
81 Syphilis is caused by
A.Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Treponema pallidum
C.Trichomonas vaginalis D. Candida albicans
82 In the Stanley Miller’s experiment, the formation of ….. was observed.
A.Nucleotides B. Polypeptides
C.Amino acids D. Nucleic acids
83 Which of the following techniques will be useful for tracing the origin of particular
tribe?
A. blood grouping.
B. mitochondrial DNA analysis.
C. DNA fingerprinting.
D. karyotyping.
84 Bacterial infection can be treated by an antibiotic that blocks protein synthesis. why
it does not affect human cell?
A. Human and bacterial ribosomes are different
B. Antibiotic molecules can’t enter human cells.
C. Antibiotic gets degraded by human cell.
D. different genetic code of human and bacteria.
85 In phloem and xylem the transport is
A. Unidirectional ,bidirectional respectively
B. Bidirectional and active transoport respectively
C. Active transport and unidirectional respectively
D. Bidirectional and unidirectional respectively
86 In an animal cell after removal of nuclei DNA is still present. The source is
A. Peroxisome B. Lysosome C. Chloroplast D. Mitochondria
87 A heterozygous colorblind woman marries a color blind man. What is the ratio of
carrier daughters, color blind daughters, normal sons and color blind sons in F1
generation?
A. 1:2:2:1 B. 1:1:1:1 C. 2:1:1:2 D. 1:1:2:2
CMB Entrance Exam Page 13
88 Full form of RNAi is
A. Ribonucleic acid interference
B. Ribonucleic acetate inhibition
C. Ribonucleic aspartate integration
D. Ribosome nucleic acid inhibition
89 Polysome is involved with
A. Transcription B. Replication
C. Translation D. Post transcription
90 The glucose homeostasis is maintained in the body by
A. Insulin B. Glucagon
C. Insulin & Glucagon D. Somatostatin
91 NADPH is generated in which of the following pathway?
A. Kreb’s cycle
B. Pentose Phosphate pathway
C. Glycolysis
D. Urea cycle
92 Reptiles and birds are mainly
A. Ureotelic B. Ammonotelic C. Uricotelic D. None
93 Diabetes insipidus condition
A. occurs due to hyposecretion of insulin by pancreas.
B. urine contains excessive sugar (glucose).
C. occurs due to over-secretion of vasopressin.
D. occurs due to under-secretion of vasopression leading to very dilute urine
and hence constantly feels thirsty.
94 A linear peptide is made up of 6 residues of an amino acid of molecular weight
118Da. The molecular weight of the peptide will be
A. 618 B. 690 C. 600 D. 708
95 The causative agent of scalded skin syndrome is
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Shigella sonnie
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Mycobacterium fortuitum
96 Which of the following is an imino acid:
A. Proline B. Histidine C. Cysteine D. Glycine
97 In SDS-PAGE, the SDS imparts
A. Uniform negative charge per unit length of protein
B. Uniform negative charge irrespective of protein length
C. Uniform positive charge per unit length of protein
CMB Entrance Exam Page 14
D. Uniform positive charge irrespective of protein length
98 BCG vaccine is derived by attenuating
A. Mycobacterium avium B. Mycobacterium bovis
C. Mycobacterium vaccae D. Mycobacterium fortuitum
99 Average molecular weight of an amino acid is
A. 11 dalton B. 110 dalton C. 1100 dalton D. 110 kilodalton
100 Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was invented by
A. Fredrick Sanger B. Kary Mullis
C. David Baltimore D. Arthur Kornberg
CMB Entrance Exam Page 1
Test Registration No. _____________
The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda
Faculty of Science
Invigilator’s signature___________________________
ADMISSION ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
SUBJECT: Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology
DAY: Thursday DATE: 13th June 2019 TIME: 02:00 Pm to 04:00 pm
Important Instructions:
1. This test booklet is to be opened only when instructed by the invigilators to do so.
2. This booklet carries 100 questions on 14 printed pages. All questions carry equal marks.
3. For every correct answer, candidate will earn 1 mark. 0.25 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer.
4. Test Registration Number must be entered correctly in the OMR sheet, as advised by the invigilators. The Question Booklet code (A, B, C, or D) must also be mentioned on the OMR sheet (if not printed already) as instructed.
5. Answers must be marked in the OMR sheet using a black or dark blue ball point pen only. The circle should be filled in completely, leaving no gaps.
6. Gadgets (mobile phone, smart watch, ear phone, music players, etc.) are strictly prohibited in the exam hall. If any candidate is found in possession of any of these at his/her exam seat, he/she is liable to be disqualified.
Correct way of marking answer:
A B C D
Booklet
Incorrect ways of marking answer:
A B C D
A B C
A B C D
D
D
code
CMB Entrance Exam Page 2
Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology
Faculty of Science
The M. S. University of Baroda
Vadodara
Entrance Test - 2019
Part-A
GENERAL APTITUDE &GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS
No. Questions Ans
wer
1 The GST council has fitted over 1300 goods and 500 services under how many
GST tax slabs in India
A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 4
2 What is the color of the Golden Gate Bridge located in San Francisco?
A. Red B. International Orange
C. Dark Byzantium D. Earth Yellow
3 Who is the current captain of the Indian football team?
A. Sunil Chhetri B. Pronay Halder
C. Subrata Pal D. Anirudh Thapa
4 Rigveda Samhita is divided into ten books. What are the books called?
A. Shreni B. Mandalas
C. Upanishads D. Puranas
5 On an election day Santhosh walked from a place, 10 km towards South to reach
the polling station, then turned left up to 2 km, then took a right turn, and took
another 4 kms walk. Again he turned right and walked for 12 kms and took a 14
km walk by turning to North, and there he could see the polling station at a 12 km
distance after taking a right turn. In which direction is the polling station situated,
with respect to the starting point?
A. North B. East C. South D. West
6 How long does a train, 75 m long, moving at 60 km/hr take to pass a certain
telegraph post?
A. 3.5 seconds B. 4 seconds C. 4.5 seconds D. 6 seconds
7 How many words with or without meaning, can be formed by using all the letters
of the word, ‘ORANGE’, using each letter exactly once?
A. 700 B. 720 C. 750 D. 800
CMB Entrance Exam Page 3
8 Fill the blank in the series deb ijg nol ___ xyv.
a. rsp b. stp c. rsq d. stq
9 The current ICC cricket world cup in 2019 is being hosted by
A. England B. England and Wales
C. England and Scotland D. England and Ireland
10 Eating 12 grapes at midnight on New Year's Eve is both a tradition and a
superstition in which country
A. Norway B. Spain C. Russia D.Bulgaria
11 Which was the first remote sensing mission undertaken by ISRO?
A. IMS1 B. IRS-1A C. SARAL D. Aryabhatt
12. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West
become?
A. North-East B. North-West C. South-East D. South-West
13 Which of the following nobel laureate also won Bharat Ratna award?
A. Rabindra nath tagore B. Amartya Sen
C. Kailash Satyarthi D. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan
14 Tom’s age after 15 years will be 5 times his age 5 years back. What is the present
age of Tom?
A. 2.5 years B. 10 years C. 9 years D. 5 years
15. The length of a rectangular plot is 5 1/3, times that of its breadth. If the area of the
plot is 270 square metres, then what is its perimeter?
A. 101 m B. 90 m C. 120 m D. 125 m
Part B- CHEMISTRY and PHYSICS
16 The ear of some animals can distinguish ultrasonic sound waves, but not human
ear. What is the frequency of ultrasonic sound waves?
A. They have frequency lower than 10 milli Hz
B. They have frequency lower than 10 kilo Hz
C. They have frequency higher than 20 kilo Hz
D. They have frequency higher than 20 milli Hz
17 Two balls of masses 2 kg and 3 kg slide along a frictionless horizontal surface with
speeds of 4 m/s and 2 m/s, respectively. After an inelastic collision, the balls stick
together and move at a speed of 2 m/s. What direction did the two balls move
before the collision?
CMB Entrance Exam Page 4
A. In the same direction
B. In opposite directions
C. At an angle not equal to 0° or 180°
D. Not enough information given to select an answer
18 A loop of current creates a magnetic field. How can you increase the strength of
this magnetic field?
A. By increasing the number of loops
B. By increasing the current flowing through the loop
C. By increasing the diameter of the loop
D. Both (a) and (b)
19 Which of the following two paths need more work to push a unit charge in a
uniform electric field in between two fixed points A and B?
(i) (ii) (iii)
A. Path (i)
B. Path (ii)
C. Path (iii)
D. Work done is same for all the three paths
20 Two resistors, R1 and R2 are connected to a battery producing a voltage V. Then
which of the following is true?
A. unequal current flows through R1 and R2 if connected in series
B. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in series
C. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in parallel
D. There is equal current flowing through R1 and R2 if connected in parallel
21 A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving
freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of
the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time
period of oscillation is:-
A. 2π s B. π s
C. 2 s D. 1S
22 The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and
boiling point of water, is
A. 26.8% B. 20%
C. 6.25% D. 12.5%
23 The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate
capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is :-
A. independent of the distance between the plates.
B. linearly proportional to the distance between the plates
C. proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates.
CMB Entrance Exam Page 5
D. inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.
24 A geosynchronous satellite is one which
A. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s revolution
around the sun
B. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s rotation
around its axis
C. Its period of revolution matches the period of revolution of the moon
D. None of the above
25 When light waves travel from a denser to a rarer medium, what happens?
A. There is refraction of light irrespective of the angle of incidence
B. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is smaller than
the critical angle
C. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is greater than
the critical angle
D. Both (a) and (b)
26 Which of the following phenomena is used in optical fibre?
A. reflection B. total internal reflection C. interference D. scattering
27 Twelve wires of equal resistance r are joined to form a cube. The effective resistance
between two diagonal ends will be____
A. 3r B. 5r/6 C. 6r/5 (D. 12r
28 A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long, vertical copper tube.
After some time the magnet
A. Will stop in the tube B. will move with constant speed
C.Will move with an acceleration g D. will oscillate
29 Let Cv and Cp are the molar heat capacities of an ideal gas at constant volume and
constant pressure respectively. Which of the following is a universal constant?
A. Cp/Cv B. Cp Cv C. Cp - Cv D. Cp + Cv
30 Which of the following statements is the zeroeth law of thermodynamics?
A. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
B. The entropy of the universe is increasing
C. If two systems A and B are in thermal contact, then they are at the same
temperature with a third body in thermal contact with A and /or B
D. The entropy of the universe is zero at 0 K.
CMB Entrance Exam Page 6
31 What is the viscous drag experienced by a small particle of size 20 Å moving
through a fluid of viscosity 20 Pascal-sec at a constant speed of 20 m/s ?
A. 0.8 X 10-12 kg-m-s-2
B. 1.5 X 10-11 kg-m-s-2
C. 1.5 X 10-11 m-s-2
D. None of the above
32 Which experiment can prove that light consists of particles called photons?
A. Bragg diffraction
B. Interference of light
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Photovoltaic effect
33 If the refractive index of a plano-convex lens is 1.6 and the radius of curvature is 60
cm then the focal length of the lens is
A. 50 B. 100 C. -50 D. -100
34 An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use of
A. NOT gate B. OR gate C. NAND gate D. XOR gate
35 Bakelite is made from phenol and formaldehyde. The initial reaction between the
two compounds is an example of:
A. Aromatic electrophilic substitution
B. Aromatic nucleophilic substitution
C. Free radical reaction
D. Aldol condensation
36 Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of reactivity, when
treated with a base.
A. I > II > III
B. II > III > I
C. I > III > II
D. III > I > II
37 Which of the following compounds will react with Grignard reagent to give 3o alcohol?
A. I, II and III
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. II and IV
38 What is the major product in the following reaction?
CMB Entrance Exam Page 7
A. PhCH2OCH2Ph
B. PhCH2NHNO
C. PhCH2OH
D. PhCH3
39 99 % of a first order reaction completes in 32 minutes, therefore, 99.9 % reaction
will complete in.
A. 51 minutes B. 64 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 48 minutes
40 Among LiCl, NaCl, KCl and MgCl, the salt _____ has covalent character.
A. LiCl B. NaCl C. KCl D. MgCl
41 Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives:
A. D-Ribose B. D-Fructose C. L-Glucose D. D-Glucose
42 If the salt bridge is removed suddenly from a working cell, the voltage:
A. Increases B. Decreases
C. Drops to zero D. May increase or decrease depending on cell reaction
43 A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapours at its boiling point. On average the
molecules in the two phases have equal:
A. Intermolecular forces B. Potential energy
C. Kinetic energy D. Total energy
44 On electrolysis which of the following does not give oxygen?
A. Acidic water, using Pt electrodes
B. Fused NaOH using Pt electrodes
C. Dilute H2SO4 using Pt electrodes
D. Dilute H2SO4 using Cu electrodes
45 What is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?
A. (E)-Oct-5-en-3-yne
B. (E)-Oct-3-en-5-yne
C. (Z)-Oct-5-en-3-yne
D. (Z)-Oct-3-en-5-yne
46 Choose the correct properties of Ψ
A. Finite and imaginary
B. Infinite and multiple value
CMB Entrance Exam Page 8
C. Finite and single value
D. Real and multiple
47 Two isotonic solutions will have same:
A. Vapour pressure
B. Boiling point
C. Freezing point
D. Osmotic pressure
48 Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes:
A. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function at very
high temperatures (T ~1000 K).
B. Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in their
action.
C. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned
D. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess well defined active sites.
49 Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol wt 60) in 1000g of water gave a solution of density
1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is
A. 1.78 M B. 2.00 M C. 2.1 M D. 2.22 M
50 Marsh gas is a mixture of
A. H2, O2 and CO2
B. H2O, CH4, CO2
C. CH4, H2S, CO2
D. C2H4, H2S, CO
51 Iodine can exist in the oxidation states:
A. +1, +3, +5 B. -1, +1, +3
C. +3, +5. +7 D. -1, +1, +3, +5, +7
52 Which of the following will form chelate:
A. Ethylenediamine B. Ammonia
C. Aniline D. Cyanide
53 In nature, Mg2+ is present in which of the following Complex/compound?
A. Chlorophyll B. Carotene C. Haemoglobin D. Vitamin-C
54 Octahedral geometry in a complex will be produced by ______ hybridization
A. sp3 B. d2sp3 C. sp2 D. d2sp2
55 For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number
of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is :-
A. 20 B. 10
C. 30 D. 15
CMB Entrance Exam Page 9
Part C (for Biology subject)
56 Antibody present in colostrum (milk secreted by mother during initial days of
lactation) is.
A. IgA B. IgG C. IgD D. IgM
57 Respiratory pathways are more appropriately called
A. amphibolic pathway B. catabolic pathway
C. anabolic pathway D. none of the above
58 Erythroblastosis foetalis, mismatch of the blood grouping can happen with
A. Rh negative mother with Rh positive first child
B. Rh positive mother with Rh positive first child
C. Rh negative mother with Rh positive second child
D. Rh positive mother with Rh negative second child
59 HIV is a retrovirus, and it incorporate
A. Its DNA into the host genome
B. Its RNA into the host genome
C. Its protein into the host genome
D. none of the above
60 MRSA refers to
A. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
B. Methicillin-responsive Staphylococcus aureus
C. Most resistant Staphylococcus aureus
D. Minimal responsive Staphylococcus aureus
61 Humoral immunity is mediated by
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. Plasma Cells
D. NK cells
62 Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is
A. Sigmoid
B. Hyperbola
C. Bell shaped
D. Linear
63 A connecting link between plant and animal is
A. Euglena
CMB Entrance Exam Page 10
B. Plasmodium
C. Chlorella
D. None of the above
64 Gonads are derived from
A. Ectoderm
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. None of the above
65 In Arabidopsis thaliana, the haploid chromosome number is 05. How many
chromosomes would you expect to find in the endosperm?
A. 05
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
66 Which of the following is a polysaccharide of animal origin
A. Pectin
B. Cellulose
C. Chitin
D. Arabinoxylans
67 At meta phase, chromosomes are attached to the spindle fibres by
A. Satellites B. Centromere
C. Kinetochore D. None of the above
68 An organic substance bound to an enzyme and required for its activity is
A. Apoenyzme
B. Holoenzyme
C. Co enzyme
D. Iso enzyme
69 Phylogenetic system of classification is based on
A. Morphological features
B. Chemical Constitutes
C. Evolutionary relation ships
D. All of the above
70 Which of the following hormone is released by posterior lobe of pituitary?
A. FSH
B. ADH
C. ACTH
D. MSH
71 Cell wall of cyanobacteria is mainly composed of
CMB Entrance Exam Page 11
A. Chitin
B. Cellulose
C. Chitosan
D. Peptidoglycan
72 Rust disease is caused by
A. Mucor
B. Phytophthora
C. Puccinia
D. Ustilago
73 Chlorophyll b is found in
A. land plants
B. green algae
C. cyanobacteria
D. All of these
74 Which of the following cell organelle is partially autonomous, encoding and
synthesizing some of their own proteins
A. Chloroplast
B. Nucleolus
C. nucleus
D. Plasmid
75 Which of the following is not the advantage of vegetative propagation
A. Production of large and complete plants
B. Plants produced are genetically same as the mother plant
C. Avoid transmission of pathogens
D. Bypasses juvenile characteristics
76 Nitrogen fixing microorganism associated with water fern Azolla is
A. Anaebena
B. Rhizobium
C. Nostoc
D. Azotobactor
77 The ultimate source of genetic variation in a population is
A. Gene flow
B. Mutation
C. Selection
D. Genetic drift
78 How many pairs of characters/traits Gregor John Mendel studied in Pea?
A. 5 traits
B. 9 traits
C. 7 traits
D. 3 traits
79 Energy is brought into ecosystems by which of the following?
A. Fungi and other decomposers
B. Animals that graze on grass
C. Carnivores animals
CMB Entrance Exam Page 12
D. Plants that photosynthesize
80 How many Barr bodies would you see in the nuclei of a person with XXY
chromosomes?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. None
81 NADPH is generated in which of the following pathway?
A. Kreb’s cycle
B. Pentose Phosphate pathway
C. Glycolysis
D. Urea cycle
82 Reptiles and birds are mainly
A. Ureotelic B. Ammonotelic C. Uricotelic D. None
83 Diabetes insipidus condition
A. occurs due to hyposecretion of insulin by pancreas.
B. urine contains excessive sugar (glucose).
C. occurs due to over-secretion of vasopressin.
D. occurs due to under-secretion of vasopression leading to very dilute urine
and hence constantly feels thirsty.
84 A linear peptide is made up of 6 residues of an amino acid of molecular weight
118Da. The molecular weight of the peptide will be
A. 618 B. 690 C. 600 D. 708
85 The causative agent of scalded skin syndrome is
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Shigella sonnie
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Mycobacterium fortuitum
86 Which of the following is an imino acid:
A. Proline B. Histidine C. Cysteine D. Glycine
87 In SDS-PAGE, the SDS imparts
A. Uniform negative charge per unit length of protein
B. Uniform negative charge irrespective of protein length
C. Uniform positive charge per unit length of protein
D. Uniform positive charge irrespective of protein length
88 BCG vaccine is derived by attenuating
A. Mycobacterium avium B. Mycobacterium bovis
CMB Entrance Exam Page 13
C. Mycobacterium vaccae D. Mycobacterium fortuitum
89 Average molecular weight of an amino acid is
A. 11 dalton B. 110 dalton C. 1100 dalton D. 110 kilodalton
90 Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) was invented by
A. Fredrick Sanger B. Kary Mullis
C. David Baltimore D. Arthur Kornberg
91 Syphilis is caused by
A.Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Treponema pallidum
C.Trichomonas vaginalis D. Candida albicans
92 In the Stanley Miller’s experiment, the formation of ….. was observed.
A.Nucleotides B. Polypeptides
C.Amino acids D. Nucleic acids
93 Which of the following techniques will be useful for tracing the origin of particular
tribe?
A. blood grouping.
B. mitochondrial DNA analysis.
C. DNA fingerprinting.
D. karyotyping.
94 Bacterial infection can be treated by an antibiotic that blocks protein synthesis. why
it does not affect human cell?
A. Human and bacterial ribosomes are different
B. Antibiotic molecules can’t enter human cells.
C. Antibiotic gets degraded by human cell.
D. different genetic code of human and bacteria.
95 In phloem and xylem the transport is
A. Unidirectional ,bidirectional respectively
B. Bidirectional and active transoport respectively
C. Active transport and unidirectional respectively
D. Bidirectional and unidirectional respectively
96 In an animal cell after removal of nuclei DNA is still present. The source is
A. Peroxisome B. Lysosome C. Chloroplast D. Mitochondria
97 A heterozygous colorblind woman marries a color blind man. What is the ratio of
carrier daughters, color blind daughters, normal sons and color blind sons in F1
generation?
A. 1:2:2:1 B. 1:1:1:1 C. 2:1:1:2 D. 1:1:2:2
98 Full form of RNAi is
A. Ribonucleic acid interference
B. Ribonucleic acetate inhibition
C. Ribonucleic aspartate integration
D. Ribosome nucleic acid inhibition
CMB Entrance Exam Page 14
99 Polysome is involved with
A. Transcription B. Replication
C. Translation D. Post transcription
100 The glucose homeostasis is maintained in the body by
A. Insulin B. Glucagon
C. Insulin & Glucagon D. Somatostatin
CMB Entrance Exam Page 1
Test Registration No. _____________
The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda
Faculty of Science
Invigilator’s signature___________________________
ADMISSION ENTRANCE EXAMINATION
SUBJECT: Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology
DAY: Thursday DATE: 13th June 2019 TIME: 02:00 Pm to 04:00 pm
Important Instructions:
1. This test booklet is to be opened only when instructed by theinvigilators to do so.
2. This booklet carries 100 questions on 13 printed pages. All questionscarry equal marks.
3. For every correct answer, candidate will earn 1 mark. 0.25 mark willbe deducted for every wrong answer.
4. Test Registration Number must be entered correctly in the OMRsheet, as advised by the invigilators. The Question Booklet code (A, B,C, or D) must also be mentioned on the OMR sheet (if not printedalready) as instructed.
5. Answers must be marked in the OMR sheet using a black or dark blueball point pen only. The circle should be filled in completely, leavingno gaps.
6. Gadgets (mobile phone, smart watch, ear phone, music players, etc.)are strictly prohibited in the exam hall. If any candidate is found inpossession of any of these at his/her exam seat, he/she is liable to bedisqualified.
Correct way of marking answer:
A B C D
Booklet
Incorrect ways of marking answer:
A B C D
A B C
A B C D
D
Acode
Mathematics
CMB Entrance Exam Page 2
Five Year Integrated M.Sc. in Cell & Molecular Biology
Faculty of Science
The M. S. University of Baroda
Vadodara
Entrance Test - 2019
Part-A
GENERAL APTITUDE &GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUESTIONS
No. Questions Ans
wer
1 What is the color of the Golden Gate Bridge located in San Francisco?
A. Red B. International Orange
C. Dark Byzantium D. Earth Yellow
2 Who is the current captain of the Indian football team?
A. Sunil Chhetri B. Pronay Halder
C. Subrata Pal D. Anirudh Thapa
3 How long does a train, 75 m long, moving at 60 km/hr take to pass a certain
telegraph post?
A. 3.5 seconds B. 4 seconds C. 4.5 seconds D. 6 seconds
4 How many words with or without meaning, can be formed by using all the letters
of the word, ‘ORANGE’, using each letter exactly once?
A. 700 B. 720 C. 750 D. 800
5 On an election day Santhosh walked from a place, 10 km towards South to reach
the polling station, then turned left up to 2 km, then took a right turn, and took
another 4 kms walk. Again he turned right and walked for 12 kms and took a 14
km walk by turning to North, and there he could see the polling station at a 12 km
distance after taking a right turn. In which direction is the polling station situated,
with respect to the starting point?
A. North B. East C. South D. West
6 Fill the blank in the series deb ijg nol ___ xyv.
a. rsp b. stp c. rsq d. stq
7 The current ICC cricket world cup in 2019 is being hosted by
A. England B. England and Wales
C. England and Scotland D. England and Ireland
8 Eating 12 grapes at midnight on New Year's Eve is both a tradition and a
superstition in which country
CMB Entrance Exam Page 3
A. Norway B. Spain C. Russia D.Bulgaria
9 The GST council has fitted over 1300 goods and 500 services under how many
GST tax slabs in India
A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 D. 4
10 Tom’s age after 15 years will be 5 times his age 5 years back. What is the present
age of Tom?
A. 2.5 years B. 10 years C. 9 years D. 5 years
11 The length of a rectangular plot is 5 1/3, times that of its breadth. If the area of the
plot is 270 square metres, then what is its perimeter?
A. 101 m B. 90 m C. 120 m D. 125 m
12. Rigveda Samhita is divided into ten books. What are the books called?
A. Shreni B. Mandalas
C. Upanishads D. Puranas
13 Which was the first remote sensing mission undertaken by ISRO?
A. IMS1 B. IRS-1A C. SARAL D. Aryabhatt
14 If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on. What will West
become?
A. North-East B. North-West C. South-East D. South-West
15. Which of the following nobel laureate also won Bharat Ratna award?
A. Rabindra nath tagore B. Amartya Sen
C. Kailash Satyarthi D. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan
Part B- CHEMISTRY and PHYSICS
16 What is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound?
A. (E)-Oct-5-en-3-yne
B. (E)-Oct-3-en-5-yne
C. (Z)-Oct-5-en-3-yne
D. (Z)-Oct-3-en-5-yne
17 Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of reactivity, when
treated with a base.
CMB Entrance Exam Page 4
A. I > II > III
B. II > III > I
C. I > III > II
D. III > I > II
18 Which of the following compounds will react with Grignard reagent to give 3o alcohol?
A. I, II and III
B. Only II
C. I and II
D. II and IV
19 What is the major product in the following reaction?
A. PhCH2OCH2Ph
B. PhCH2NHNO
C. PhCH2OH
D. PhCH3
20 On electrolysis which of the following does not give oxygen?
A. Acidic water, using Pt electrodes
B. Fused NaOH using Pt electrodes
C. Dilute H2SO4 using Pt electrodes
D. Dilute H2SO4 using Cu electrodes
21 Bakelite is made from phenol and formaldehyde. The initial reaction between the
two compounds is an example of:
A. Aromatic electrophilic substitution
B. Aromatic nucleophilic substitution
C. Free radical reaction
D. Aldol condensation
22 Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives:
A. D-Ribose B. D-Fructose C. L-Glucose D. D-Glucose
23 If the salt bridge is removed suddenly from a working cell, the voltage:
A. Increases B. Decreases
C. Drops to zero D. May increase or decrease depending on cell reaction
CMB Entrance Exam Page 5
24 A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapours at its boiling point. On average the
molecules in the two phases have equal:
A. Intermolecular forces B. Potential energy
C. Kinetic energy D. Total energy
25 99 % of a first order reaction completes in 32 minutes, therefore, 99.9 % reaction
will complete in.
A. 51 minutes B. 64 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 48 minutes
26 Among LiCl, NaCl, KCl and MgCl, the salt _____ has covalent character.
A. LiCl B. NaCl C. KCl D. MgCl
27 Choose the correct properties of Ψ
A. Finite and imaginary
B. Infinite and multiple value
C. Finite and single value
D. Real and multiple
28 Iodine can exist in the oxidation states:
A. +1, +3, +5 B. -1, +1, +3
C. +3, +5. +7 D. -1, +1, +3, +5, +7
29 Which of the following will form chelate:
A. Ethylenediamine B. Ammonia
C. Aniline D. Cyanide
30 In nature, Mg2+ is present in which of the following Complex/compound?
A. Chlorophyll B. Carotene C. Haemoglobin D. Vitamin-C
31 Octahedral geometry in a complex will be produced by ______ hybridization
A. sp3 B. d2sp3 C. sp2 D. d2sp2
32 Two isotonic solutions will have same:
A. Vapour pressure
B. Boiling point
C. Freezing point
D. Osmotic pressure
33 Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes:
A. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function at very
high temperatures (T ~1000 K).
B. Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in their
action.
C. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned
D. Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess well defined active sites.
CMB Entrance Exam Page 6
34 Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol wt 60) in 1000g of water gave a solution of density
1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is
A. 1.78 M B. 2.00 M C. 2.1 M D. 2.22 M
35 Marsh gas is a mixture of
A. H2, O2 and CO2
B. H2O, CH4, CO2
C. CH4, H2S, CO2
D. C2H4, H2S, CO
36 For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number
of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is :-
A. 20 B. 10
C. 30 D. 15
37 A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving
freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of
the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time
period of oscillation is:-
A. 2π s B. π s
C. 2 s D. 1S
38 The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and
boiling point of water, is
A. 26.8% B. 20%
C. 6.25% D. 12.5%
39 The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate
capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is :-
A. independent of the distance between the plates.
B. linearly proportional to the distance between the plates
C. proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates.
D. inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.
40 A geosynchronous satellite is one which
A. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s revolution
around the sun
B. Revolves around the earth in the same speed as that of the earth’s rotation
around its axis
C. Its period of revolution matches the period of revolution of the moon
D. None of the above
41 When light waves travel from a denser to a rarer medium, what happens?
A. There is refraction of light irrespective of the angle of incidence
B. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is smaller than
the critical angle
CMB Entrance Exam Page 7
C. There is total internal reflection when the angle of incidence is greater than
the critical angle
D. Both (a) and (b)
42 The ear of some animals can distinguish ultrasonic sound waves, but not human
ear. What is the frequency of ultrasonic sound waves?
A. They have frequency lower than 10 milli Hz
B. They have frequency lower than 10 kilo Hz
C. They have frequency higher than 20 kilo Hz
D. They have frequency higher than 20 milli Hz
43 Two balls of masses 2 kg and 3 kg slide along a frictionless horizontal surface with
speeds of 4 m/s and 2 m/s, respectively. After an inelastic collision, the balls stick
together and move at a speed of 2 m/s. What direction did the two balls move
before the collision?
A. In the same direction
B. In opposite directions
C. At an angle not equal to 0° or 180°
D. Not enough information given to select an answer
44 A loop of current creates a magnetic field. How can you increase the strength of
this magnetic field?
A. By increasing the number of loops
B. By increasing the current flowing through the loop
C. By increasing the diameter of the loop
D. Both (a) and (b)
45 Which of the following two paths need more work to push a unit charge in a
uniform electric field in between two fixed points A and B?
(i) (ii) (iii)
A. Path (i)
B. Path (ii)
C. Path (iii)
D. Work done is same for all the three paths
46 Two resistors, R1 and R2 are connected to a battery producing a voltage V. Then
which of the following is true?
A. unequal current flows through R1 and R2 if connected in series
B. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in series
C. There is equal voltage across R1 and R2 if connected in parallel
CMB Entrance Exam Page 8
D. There is equal current flowing through R1 and R2 if connected in parallel
47 Which of the following statements is the zeroeth law of thermodynamics?
A. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed
B. The entropy of the universe is increasing
C. If two systems A and B are in thermal contact, then they are at the same
temperature with a third body in thermal contact with A and /or B
D. The entropy of the universe is zero at 0 K.
48 What is the viscous drag experienced by a small particle of size 20 Å moving
through a fluid of viscosity 20 Pascal-sec at a constant speed of 20 m/s ?
A. 0.8 X 10-12 kg-m-s-2
B. 1.5 X 10-11 kg-m-s-2
C. 1.5 X 10-11 m-s-2
D. None of the above
49 Which experiment can prove that light consists of particles called photons?
A. Bragg diffraction
B. Interference of light
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Photovoltaic effect
50 If the refractive index of a plano-convex lens is 1.6 and the radius of curvature is 60
cm then the focal length of the lens is
A. 50 B. 100 C. -50 D. -100
51 Which of the following phenomena is used in optical fibre?
A. reflection B. total internal reflection C. interference D. scattering
52 Twelve wires of equal resistance r are joined to form a cube. The effective resistance
between two diagonal ends will be____
A. 3r B. 5r/6 C. 6r/5 (D. 12r
53 A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long, vertical copper tube.
After some time the magnet
A. Will stop in the tube B. will move with constant speed
C.Will move with an acceleration g D. will oscillate
54 Let Cv and Cp are the molar heat capacities of an ideal gas at constant volume and
constant pressure respectively. Which of the following is a universal constant?
A. Cp/Cv B. Cp Cv C. Cp - Cv D. Cp + Cv
55 An AND gate can be prepared by repetitive use of
CMB Entrance Exam Page 9
A. NOT gate B. OR gate C. NAND gate D. XOR gate
Part C (for Mathematics subject)
56 If 𝐴 is a finite set containing 100 – elements, then the number of elements
in the power set of 𝐴 × 𝐴 is
(A) 210000 (B) 2200 (C) 1002 (D) 200
57 A batch of 60 students is numbered as 1 to 60. All even numbered students opted for
mathematics, those students whose numbers are divisible by 7 opted for Physics and
those students whose numbers are divisible by 9 opted for chemistry. How many
opted for none of the three subjects?
(A) 0 (B) 23 (C) 37 (D) 44
58 Suppose line 𝐿 with the slope 𝑚 is a tangent to the ellipse 𝑥2
16+ 𝑦2 = 1. Then line L
will be tangent to the circle 𝑥2 + 𝑦2 = 16 for the value of 𝑚 =__________.
(A) ±1
4 (B) ±
1
16 (C) ±
1
2 (D) ±1
59 How many 4 – digits numbers can be formed using the digits 1 to 9 without repetition
such that numbers either have all digits less than 6 or all digits greater than or equal
to 5?
(A) 40 (B) 120 (C) 144 (D) 240
60 The equation of the locus of points in a plane such that the sum of the squares of its
distance from the axes is equal to 9 is
(A) 𝑥2 + 𝑦2 = 9 (B) 𝑥2 − 𝑦2 = 9
(C) 𝑦2 − 𝑥2 = 9 (D) 𝑥 + 𝑦 = 9
61 For the natural numbers 𝑥 and 𝑦 consider equation 5𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 4534. Then
(A) 𝑥 is always an odd integer.
(B) 𝑥 is always an even integer.
(C) 𝑥 is an odd integer only if 𝑦 is an even integer.
(D) 𝑥 is an even integer only if 𝑦 is an odd integer.
62 A pair of consecutive even positive integers both of which are larger than 7 and their
sum is less than 25 is
(A) (2, 4) (B) (4,6) (C) (10, 12) (D) (12,14)
63 In a collection of 20 cricket players only 7 can bowl. In how many ways one can
select a cricket team of eleven players which must include exactly 4 bowlers?
(A) 143 (B) 8580 (C) 1100 (D) 60060
64 Consider the circle (𝑥 − 2)2 + (𝑦 − 1)2 = 9. If the line 𝑥 + 𝑘𝑦 + 2 = 0 is a
diameter of this circle, then 𝑘 =____________.
(A) – 4 (B) – 2 (C) 4 (D) 2
CMB Entrance Exam Page 10
65 The positive value of 𝑚 for which coefficient of 𝑥2 in the expansion of (1 + 𝑥)𝑚 is
6 is equal to
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 3
66 Suppose sin 𝑥 − sin 𝑦 = 0 and cos 𝑥 − cos 𝑦 = 0. Then cos 2𝑥 +
cos 2𝑦 =__________.
(A) −2 sin (𝑥 + 𝑦) (B) 2 sin (𝑥 + 𝑦)
(C) 2 cos (𝑥 + 𝑦) (D) −2 cos (𝑥 + 𝑦)
67 Let A, B be two subsets of set of real numbers and 𝑓 ∶ 𝐴 → 𝐵 be a strictly increasing
function. Then the inverse map 𝑓−1 ∶ 𝐵 → 𝐴 is
(A) neither one – one nor an not map
(B) a one – one but not an onto map.
(C) an onto but not a one – one map.
(D) a one – one and an onto map.
68 The value of the limit, lim
𝑥→∞
𝑥3 sin(1
𝑥) − 2𝑥2
1+𝑥2 =
(A) −1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 3
69 Range of the function 𝑓(𝑥) = −2|𝑥| + 1 is
(A) (−∞, 0] (B) (−∞, 1] (C) (−∞, −1] (D) (−∞, 2]
70 The point on the 𝑌 −axis whose distance from the line 3𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 6 is 2 units is
(A) ( −1, 0) (B) ( 0, −4) (C) ( 0,−1) (D) (0, 2)
71 If log10(2𝑥2 + 4𝑥) − log10(𝑥 + 2) = 1, then 𝑥 =__________.
(A) 10 (B) 1 (C) 20 (D) 5
72 If the least positive integer 𝑛 when divided by 12, 15, 21, 24 gives remainder 5, then
the value of 𝑛 is
(A) 845 (B) 840 (C) 1690 (D) 1695
73 The sum of the three integers in arithmetic progression is 36 and the product of first
and third number is 23. The numbers are
(A) 0,12, 23 (B) 1, 12, 23 (C) 11, 12, 23 (D) 12, 23, 35
74 If 1
6cos2 𝜃 , sin 𝜃 , 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝜃 are in geometric progression then the value of 𝜃 such that
0 ≤ 𝜃 ≤ 𝜋 is
(A) 𝜋
3 (B)
𝜋
2 (C)
𝜋
6 (D) 0
75 Complex number (𝑖18 + (
1
𝑖)
28
)5
=
(A) 1 (B) −𝑖 (C) 𝑖 (D) 0
76 If 𝑦𝑥 = 𝑥𝑦 , then 𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥 is equal to
CMB Entrance Exam Page 11
(A) 𝑦(𝑦−𝑥 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑦)
𝑥(𝑥−𝑦 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥) (B)
𝑥(𝑦−𝑥 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑦)
𝑦(𝑥−𝑦 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥)
(C) 𝑦(𝑥−𝑦 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥)
𝑥(𝑦−𝑥 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑦) (D) none of these.
77 The distance of the plane 2𝑥 − 3𝑦 + 4𝑧 − 6 = 0 from origin is
(A) 6 units (B) 6
√29 units (C) 6√29 units (D)
√29
6 units.
78 The value of 𝑐 for which the vectors �⃗� = 𝑖 + 2𝑗 + �⃗⃗� and �⃗⃗� = 𝑖 + 𝑐�⃗⃗� are
orthogonal is
(A) 1 (B) −1 (C) 2 (D) −2 .
79 The general solution of the differential equation 𝑥2 𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑥+ 𝑥𝑦 = 1 , 𝑥 > 0 is
(A) 𝑦 = 𝑥 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 + 𝑐 (B) 𝑥𝑦 = 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 + 𝑐
(C) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥 (D) none of these .
80 The area of the region enclosed by the parabolas 𝑦 = 𝑥2 and 𝑦 = 2𝑥 − 𝑥2 is
(A) 2 (B) 1
2 (C) 3 (D)
1
3 .
81 The value of the integral ∫ 𝑒𝑥𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥(1 + 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥)𝑑𝑥 is
(A) 𝑒𝑥𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 + 𝑐 (B) 𝑒𝑥𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑥 + 𝑐
(C) 𝑒𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 + 𝑐 (D) 𝑒𝑥𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑥 + 𝑐 .
82 The interval in which 𝑦 = 𝑥2𝑒−𝑥 is increasing is
(A) (−∞, ∞) (B) (−2, 0) (C) (2, ∞) (D) (0,2) .
83 If 𝑓: ℝ → ℝ be given by 𝑓(𝑥) = (3 − 𝑥3)1 3⁄ , then 𝑓 ∘ 𝑓 is given by
(A) 𝑥1 3⁄ (B) 𝑥3 (C) 𝑥 (D) 3 − 𝑥2.
84 In a class of 60 students, 30 opted for physics, 32 opted for statistics and 24 opted
for both physics and statistics. If one of the students is selected at random, the
probability that the student has offered neither physics nor statistics is
(A) 11
30 (B)
19
30 (C)
2
30 (D) none of these.
85 The mean and standard deviation of six observations are 8 and 4, respectively. If
each observation is multiplied by 3, then the new mean and standard deviation
of the resulting observations are
CMB Entrance Exam Page 12
(A) 8 and 12 (B) 24 and 4
3 (C)
8
3 and
4
3 (D) 24 and 12.
86 The value of 𝛼 for which the determinant of the matrix (
1 𝛼 04 5 31 0 2
) , is zero, is
(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) 4 .
87 The ratio of two numbers is 13:15 and their LCM 39780, then the numbers are
(A) 2652 , 3060 (B) 884, 1020 (C) 884, 1040 (D) 670, 1340.
88 A batsman has a certain average runs for 11 innings. In the 12th inninghe made a
score of 90 runs and thereby decreases his average by 5 . His average after 12th
inning is
(A) 127 (B) 150 (C) 145 (D) 217 .
89 The value of (3.537−0.948)2+(3.537+0.948)2
(3.537)2+(0.948)2 is
(A) 4.485 (B) 2.589 (C) 4 (D) 2 .
90 A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days; B and C in 15 days; C and A in 20
days; then A alone can do the work in
(A) 152
3 days (B) 30 days (C) 24 days (D) 40 days .
91 A man sells an article at a gain of 10% . If he had bought it at 10% less and sold it
for Rs. 132 less, he would have gained 10%.The cost price of the article is
(A) Rs. 1200 (B) Rs.1320 (C) Rs. 1188 (D) Rs. 1801.
92 The area of an equilateral triangle is 4√3 𝑐𝑚2, then the length of each side of the
triangle is
(A) 4 cm (B) 3 cm (C) √3
4 cm (D)
4
√3 cm .
93 A train covers a distance in 50 minutes if it runs at a speed of 48km/hr on an
average. The speed at which the train must run to reduce the time of journey to
40 minutes will be
(A) 50 km/hr (B) 55 km/hr (C) 60 km/hr (D) 70 km/hr .
94 Find the missing number in the sequence 2 , 9 , 28 , 65 , 126 , − , 344 .
CMB Entrance Exam Page 13
(A) 225 (B) 216 (C) 217 (D) 250
95 If the volumes of two cones are in the ratio 1:4 and their diameters are in the ratio
4:5, then the ratio of their heights is
(A) 1:5 (B) 5:4 (C) 5:16 (D) 25:64.
96 The probability of drawing any two queen cards from a pack of cards is
(A) 6/1326 (B) 1/26 (C) 4/1326 (D) none of these
97 The probability that a leap year selected at random will have 53 Sundays is equal to
(A) 1/7 (B) 2/7 (C) 2/53 (D) 52/53
98 The mean and variance of binomial distribution are 4 and 4/3 respectively. Then n=
(A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 4
99 If a random variable X has the following probability distribution:
X -1 -2 1 2
P(X=x) 1/3 1/6 1/6 1/3
Then the expected value of X is
(A) 3/2 (B) 1/6 (C) 1/2 (D) 1
100 For Bernoulli distribution with probability p of a success and q of a failure, the relation
between mean and variance that holds is:
(A) mean > variance (B) mean < variance
(C) mean = variance (D) mean < variance
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