TEST Unit - IV 1. The Pre-eminent poet of the Victorian age ...

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TEST Unit - IV 1. The Pre-eminent poet of the Victorian age was

A) Dante Gabriel Rossetti B) Alfred Tennyson

C) A.E. Houseman D) G.M. Hopkins

2. “To strive, to seek, to find and not to yield”. This line is quoted from Tennyson’s

A) The Princes B) The Two Voices C) Ulysses D) Morte ‘d’ Arthur

3. What is the main theme of the poem ‘The Princess’ by Tennyson?

A) Women Society B) Women Education

C) 19th Century Fashion D) Victorian Manhood

4. In the poem ‘The Princess’ the collage / University was turned in to a / an? A)

Union secretary house B) Senate house of England

C) University D) Hospital

5. ‘Sweet and Low’ is one of the insertions of 1850 and it occurs at the end of ………….

canto of ‘The Princess’?

A) I B) II C) III D) VI

6. The Princess Ida has founded a ………….. to which no male was allowed to entrance

A) Women’s house B) Country inn C) Catholic church D) Female Academy

7. Who said, “The Splendor falls is the best of the six intercalary songs in The

Princess?

A) Walter Scott B) T.S. Eliot C) Stopford Brook D) Arnold

8. The lover makes his appeal by pointing out the subtle spiritual attraction exiting

between the restful sky …………?

A) Daring Sky B) Wind Sky C) Starry Sky D) Berry Sky

9. The princess compared the beloved to?

A) Moon and star B) Rose and angel

C) Nymphs and stars D) Sun beam and stars

10. The poem ‘The Princess’ has …………. Cantos.

A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8

11. Andrea del Sarto is a …………. painter of the sixteenth century.

A) Russian B) Florentine C) American D) Indian

12. The protagonist of ‘Abt Vogler’ is a ………………

A) Magician B) Musician C) Mathematician D) Painter

13. Andrea is aware that his work lacks the …………….. that bless his contemporaries

Rafeal and Michel Angelo.

A) Love and Passion B) Beauty and liveliness


C) Spirit and soul D) Fancy and fashion

14. Andre Del Sarto was first published in the volume entitled ………………

A) Pauline : A Fragment of a Confession B) Sardello

C) Bells and Pomegranates D) Dramatis Personae

15. Andre Sarto is based on Biographical material by ……………

A) Raphael B) Giorgio Vasari C) Michael Angelo D) G.M. Hopkins

16. What crime has Andrea del Sarto Committed?

A) Murder B) Adultery C) Bribery D) Blasphemy

17. The title ‘Men and Women’ was taken from the collection …………

A) O you God B) My fifty Men and Women

C) Thy perfect D) Cry the Queen

18. Keats’s extrodinary vision is exposed in the poem of …………..

A) Memorabilia B) A Grammarian’s Funeral

C) Andrea del Sarto D) Popularity

19. What is the first poem in the collection of ‘Men and Women’?

A) “Love Among the Ruins” B) “A Lover’s Quarrel”

C) Evelyn Hope” D) “Up at a Villa – Down in the City”

20. The collection ‘Men and Women’ was mainly influenced by ……………

A) French Revolution B) Industrial Revolution

C) Italian Renaissance Art D) British Reformation Movement

21. ‘The Scholar Gipsy’ is a ………… poem

A) Lyric B) Occasional C) Pastoral D) Elegiac

22. In ‘Dover Beach’ Arnold hears the melancholy long, withdrawing roar of the sea of

………….

A) Human misery B) faith C) Sadness D) England

23. The ……….. is used in the last stanza of ‘Dover Beach’

A) Pathetic B) Peaceful C) Chaotic and aggressive D) Lethargic

24. The best example of Matthew Arnold’s beautiful lyrical poetry is found in his

…………..

A) Dover Beach B) Thyrsis C) Sohrab and Rustam D) A Summer Night

25. “The sea of Faith, Was once, at the full, round, Earth’s shore ……….. girdle furl’d”.

The above lines echo the author’s lamentations over the lack of faith in the modern

man, revealing the spiritual emptiness of the time. Name the author.

A) A.L. Tennyson B) M. Arnold C) R. Browning D) Rossetti

26. Who among the following are Lytton Strachey’s “Eminent Victorians”?

A) Florence Nightingale, Dr. Arnold B) Arnold and Tennyson

C) Florence Nightingale, Robert Browning D) D.G. Rossetti and Ruskin


27. In ‘The Study of Poetry’, Arnold advocates the ……………… to recognize great poetry.

A) The historical method B) The intuitive method

C) The touchstone method D) The analytical method

28. Who, according to Mathew Arnold, lacks high seriousness?

A) Geoffrey Chaucer B) Emily Dickinson C) T.S. Eliot D) Walt Whitman

29. ‘The Study of Poetry’ was written by ……………..

A) Thomas Hardy B) Robert Browning C) Mathew Arnold D) G.M. Hopkins

30. Arnold asserts the superiority of poetry over other subjects as it …………

A) Interprets life for us B) Consoles us

C) Sustains us D) All of these

31. According to Arnold, Burns cannot be called a classical writer because his poetry

lacks ………….

A) The truth of matter in it B) The truth of manner in it

C) The accent of the highest order of poetry D) All of these

32. According to Arnold, his father must be living in some …………..

A) Heaven B) Far-shining sphere C) Midst of snow D) Mid of heaven

33. Who has carried a lantern?

A) Church man B) Priest C) Gaunt man or host D) Gate Keeper

34. The poem ‘Rugby Chapel’ starts with the line ……………

A) From a few boys late at their play! B) The lights come out in the street,

C) Coldly, sadly descends / The autumn – evening

D) The chapel – walls, in whose bound / Thou, my father! art laid.

35. “What is the course of the life / Of mortal men on the earth?” These lines are said

by …………..

A) Dr. Arnold B) Mathew Arnold

C) Arnold’s Mother D) Arthur Hugh Clough

36. Robert Buchanan’s classification of D.G. Rosetti as a member of the fleshy school of

poetry is found in the following set.

A) D.G. Rosetti, Cloeridge, Byron, Shelley

B) D.G. Rosetti, John Berryman, Robert Lowell and Sylvia Plath

C) D.G. Rosetti, Swinburne, William Morris and John Payne

D) D.G. Rosettim, Bryant, Whittier, Lowell

37. ‘The Blessed damozal’ is an example of …………….

A) Raphaelite poetry B) Romantic poetry

C) Movement poetry D) Pre-Raphaelite poetry

38. Damozel realizes at the end, that:

A) She could be united with her lover B) She would kill her lover


C) She would enter heaven D) Her love was not perfect

39. Match.

List – I List – II

a. The Blessed Damozel - 1. Dramatic Monologue

b. The Wreck of Deutschland - 2. Lyric

c. My Last Duchess - 3. Quest Poem

d. Dover Beach - 4. Pindaric Ode

Codes: a b c d a b c d

A) 3 4 1 2 B) 4 1 3 2

C) 2 4 1 3 D) 1 2 4 3

40. In ‘The Blessed Damozal’ the lady asks Christ ……………..

A) To go away from heaven B) Only to live with her lover on Earth

C) To bring her lover to heaven D) To Live without her lover in Heaven

41. The ‘Citherns and Citoles’ in “The Blessed Damozel” refers to ……….. musical

instruments.

A) Ancient B) Modern C) Medieval D) Colonial

42. ‘The Blessed Damozal’ was published in ……………….

A) The Egoist B) The Germ C) The Cornhill Magazine D) The Tatler

43. The locale of the poem ‘The Blessed Damozal’ is ……………

A) Hell B) Heaven C) Earth D) Moon

44. the blessed Damozel has …………. in her hand and ……….. in her hair.

A) 4 lilies; 7 stars B) 3 lilies; 7 stars C) 7 lilies; 4 stars D) 2 lilies;

6 stars

45. What is the gift of Virgin Mary to the blessed Damozel?

A) White Lilly B) Red Rose C) White Rose D) Bud Rose

46. “I heard her tears”. The figure of speech in this line is …………

A) Simile B) Metaphor C) Allusion D) Synecdoche

47. The five handmaidens of Virgin Mary are compared to ……………….

A) Five Angels B) Five Nymphs C) Five Symphonies D) Five Lilies

48. The leaves of the Tree of Life proclaim the name of ……………

A) God B) Damozel C) Good angel D) Evil Spirit

49. “But a white rose of Mary’s gift, For service meetly worn”. These lines occurred in

………………

A) Rose Mary B) The King’s Tragedy

C) The White Ship D) The Blessed Damozel

50. In ‘Blessed Damozel’ Dove refer to …………….

A) Virgin Mary B) Poet’s lover C) Holy Mother D) Holy Ghost


51. When was Mary Anne Evans (George Eliot) born?

A) 22 November 1819 B) 14 May 1799 C) 1 October 1820 D)5 January 1821

52. Which novel was written first by Mary Anne Evans?

A) Adam Bede B) Scenes of Clerical Life

C) Daniel Deronda D) Romola

53. Mary Anne Evans alternatively known as ………….

A) Mariamma B) Marian C) Maria D) Dollabella

54. George Eliot born at the estate of ………………..

A) Clehil Estate B) South Farm C) Tea Estate D) East Farm

55. Who is insular, non religious and immersed in classical?

A) Pamela B) Romola C) Tessa D) Melema

56. Who is the adoptive father of Melema?

A) Bardi B) Tido C) Savonarola D) Baldassarre Calvo

57. Savonarola preaches in …………….

A) Florida B) Fissaca C) Fiskin D) Florence

58. Who is a good friend to Romola and he is distrust Tido?

A) Dinode Bardi B) Piero di Cosimo C) Bratty Ferravecchi D) Melema

59. George Eliot’s Romola was set in …………. century.

A) 16 B) 19 C) 15 D) 17

60. Romola is a ……….. novel by George Eliot.

A) Historical B) Social C) Adventurous D) Bildungsroman

61. The reaction Rebecca has to drawings Amelia had sent from the Academy can best

be described as ………………..

A) Sadness in remembering her father

B) Fondness for those depicted in the drawings

C) Indifference

D) Anger at the torment she received while living there

62. Joseph Sedley leaves town following the party ……………

A) After George describes his behavior B) To accept a military commission

C) After Rebecca rebukes him D) On direct orders from his father

63. Soon after entering the Crawley household, Rebecca ………………..

A) Becomes a favorite of Sir Pitt Crawley

B) Is pursued romantically by Young Pitt Crawley

C) Began her duties as governess to the young Crawley boys

D) None of the above

64. George’s sisters thought of Amelia with ………………

A) George blurted out her name while drunk

B) Dobbin defended Amelia’s honor at breakfast


C) Correspondence from Amelia was mistakenly delivered to Ensign Stubbles

D) George mentioned her to the assistant – surgeon Cackle

65. Miss Crawley disinherits Rawdon due in large part …………………

A) To the efforts of Reverend Bute

B) To the efforts of Mrs. Reverend Bute’s Wife

C) To her mental illness

D) None of the above

66. Upon receiving money from his father shortly after the wedding, George instructs

Amelia to …………….

A) buy some clothes and other goods B) hide the money from his creditors

C) travel to see her parents D) invest the money

67. What is the name of the other main female protagonist of ‘Vanity Fair’, the

daughter of a wealthy merchant, whose fortunes take a decided turn for the worse

following her father’s financial ruin and her own imprudent marriage?

A) Annabelle Sidney B) Amelia Sedley

C) Arabella Swanley D) Adela Smithey

68. Who is the youngest son of the wicked old Sir Pitt Crawley and the favourite and

presumed heir of his wealthy aunt Matilda Crawley?

A) Raoul B) Roland C) Rawdon D) Ronald

69. William Makepeace Thackeray was born on 18 July 1811 in ……………..

A) Calcutta B) New Delhi C) Chennai D) Bombay

70. Thackeray wrote a number of papers satirizing his way of life in the series called

………………

A) Men’s Wives B) The Paris Sketchbook

C) The English Humorists of the Eighteenth Century D) The Rose and the

Ring

71. What does Jim’s father do for a living?

A) He is a farmer B) He is a banker

C) He is an innkeeper D) He is a lawyer

72. To whom does Jim first show the map?

A) Pew B) His father C) Captain Smollett D) Dr. Livesey

73. Who interrupts Jim’s narration to tell the story for a while?

A) Smollett B) Silver C) Trelawney D) Livesey

74. Which of the following characters does Silver take hostage?

A) Ben B) Smollett C) Livesey D) Jim

75. What flag does Smollett fly over the stockade?

A) The White Cross B) The Jolly Roger


C) The Union Jack D) The Green Moon

76. On the journey to Treasure Island, who falls overboard on the ship?

A) Israel Hands B) Mr. Arrow C) No one D) Long John Silver

77. Which pirate is blind?

A) Long John Silver B) Billy Bones

C) Pew D) None of the above

78. What is Long John Silver’s occupation?

A) Innkeeper B) Pirate C) Cook D) All of the above

79. Who kills Alan?

A) It is unknown B) Long John Silver C) Pew D) Jim

80. What type of flag represents the pirates?

A) The Jolly Roger B) The British flag

C) The American Flag D) The French Flag

81. Who is the author of Sesame and Lilies?

A) Root Nibot B) John Ruskin C) Jeremy Roberts D) Butt Wolfgang

82. According to Ruskin, Literature provides food for the ……………

A) Knowledge B) Heart melt C) Mind D) Library

83. According to Ruskin great writers usually hide their?

A) Word power and meaning B) Meaning and message

C) Grammar and syntax D) Syllable and consonant

84. The Greek word ‘Bible’ means in English ……………

A) Bible itself B) Moral book C) Prayer Book D) Testament

85. The bag pipe played by ………………

A) God B) Angel C) Satan D) Devil

86. The books of hour are called ……………….

A) Permanent B) Euphemism C) Ephemeral D) Eternal

87. Ruskin refers to Rossetti’s translation poem that express sentiments similar to

Dantes’s work ………………….

A) Blessed Damozel B) My Sisters Sleep

C) Hand and soul D) Pisan Knight’s Poem

88. Complete the following line: “You cannot think that the bucking of the knight’s

armour by his lady hand ………. of romantic fashion”.

A) Old age B) Middle age C) Modern age D) Post Modern age

89. Englishmen have not written any stories about ……………

A) Island of Aegina B) Mounts Snowdon in Wales

C) Abyssinian sea D) Christ College

90. Ruskin’s Lecture, “Of Kings’ Treasuries,” deals with ……………

A) Books and the way to read them B) Critique of Victorian manhood


C) Both A and B D) Political issues

91. A Tale of Two Cities opens in 1775. Which of the following does not characterize

this period?

A) The British colonies in America have just presented a list of grievances to the

King of England

B) Crime and capital punishment plague the streets of London

C) The guillotine stands as a much-feared fixture on the streets of Paris

D) The French aristocracy causes great suffering among the lower classes

92. What symbol does Dickens use to portend the bloodshed of the French Revolution?

A) The Dover mail Coach B) The Broken wine cask

C) Tellson’s Bank D) Madame Defarge’s malevolent stare

93. What image does Dickens frequently use to describe Lucie Manette?

A) An earth-bound angel B) A golden thread

C) A tiger lily D) A calm in a storm

94. Who promises Lucie Manette that he would, if necessary, die for her?

A) Jarvis Lorry B) Sydney Carton

C) Charles Darnay D) Monsieur Defarge

95. Why does the Paris mob kill Foulon?

A) Because he is a spy

B) Because he suggested that starving people should eat grass

C) Because his carriage ran down a child in the street

D) Because he collected high taxes from the peasants

96. Which two cities does the title refer to?

A) Paris and Berlin B) London and Paris

C) London and Rome D) London and Liverpool

97. How long was Doctor Manette imprisoned in the Bastille?

A) 8 years B) a day C) 18 years D) 25 years

98. What is Charles Darnay tried for in England?

A) Murder B) Petty theft C) Treason D) Robbery

99. What does Miss Pross call Lucie Manette?

A) “A golden – haired doll” B) “Sweetheart”

C) “My Ladybird” D) “Daughter”

100. Which novel of Dickens is an autobiographical novel which fictionalized elements

of his childhood, career, and love?

A) David Copperfield B) Bleak House

C) Hard Times: For These Times D) A Tale of Two Cities


VICTORIAN AGE

ANSWER KEY Unit – IV (100)

1 B 21 C 41 C 61 A 81 B

2 C 22 B 42 B 62 A 82 C

3 B 23 C 43 B 63 A 83 B

4 D 24 A 44 B 64 D 84 B

5 B 25 B 45 C 65 B 85 C

6 D 26 A 46 D 66 A 86 C

7 C 27 C 47 C 67 B 87 D

8 C 28 A 48 A 68 C 88 B

9 D 29 C 49 D 69 A 89 B

10 C 30 D 50 D 70 A 90 C

11 B 31 C 51 A 71 C 91 C

12 B 32 B 52 B 72 D 92 B

13 A 33 C 53 B 73 D 93 B

14 C 34 C 54 B 74 D 94 B

15 B 35 B 55 B 75 C 95 B

16 B 36 C 56 D 76 B 96 B

17 C 37 D 57 D 77 C 97 C

18 D 38 C 58 B 78 D 98 C

19 A 39 A 59 C 79 A 99 C

20 C 40 C 60 A 80 A 100 A


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POLYTECHNIC TRB –ENGLISH TEST Unit V

MODERN AND CONTEMPORARY PERIODS

1. Who is often hailed as being one of the driving forces behind the Irish literary

revival?

A) T.S. Eliot B) W.B. Yeats C) Ezra Bound D) W.H. Auden

2. Who sang ‘so I meet you at the cemetery gates / Keats and Yeats are on your side /

while Wilde is on mine’?

A) Rufus Wainwright B) Anthony Hegarty

C) Kate Tempest D) Morrissey

3. What year did Yeast win the Nobel Prize for literature?

A) 1918 B) 1921 C) 1923 D) 1925

4. Which theatre was founded by Y.B. Yeats in 1904?

A) Globe Theatre B) Abbey Theatre C) Swan Theatre D) Fay Reznick

5. “Sailing to Byzantium” is a poem by …………, first published in the 1928 collection

The Tower.

A) Thomas Westropp Bennett B) James Campbell

C) Andrew Jameson D) William Butler Yeats

6. At the end of “Sailing to Byzantium”, the speaker imagines transformation into

………..

A) A mechanical bird B) An auto C) A god D) A woman

7. W.B. Yeats wants to be re-born as …………….

A) Diamond bird B) Silver bird C) Golden bird D) Ancient bird

8. Yeats’s “Sailing to Byzantium” was written in ……………..

A) Ottava Rima B) Heroic Stanza C) Free Verse D) Blank Verse a

9. The poet asks the sages to purify his heart which is stick with ……….. and fastened

to the aging body.

A) Love B) Desire C) Anger D) Jealousy

10. The direction that the spirits would move around the speaker in “Sailing to

Byzantium” is in a ………………….

A) Gyre B) Straight line C) Circle D) Zig-zag

11. Which poem in Thomas Hardy deals with Napoleonic Wars?

A) The Grave by the Handpost B) A Changed Man

C) The Dynasts D) Enter a Dragoon


12. Which Thomas Hardy novel is subtitled: A Pure Woman Faithfully Presented?

A) The Return of the Native B) The Hand of Ethelberta

C) Far From the Maddening Crowd D) Tess of the D’Urbervilles

13. The line “Far from the madding crowd’s ignoble strife” is from:

A) “Crowd Behaviour” by Sigmund Freud

B) “Far From the Madding Crowd” by Thomas Hardy

C) “Elegy Written in a Country Churchyard” by Thomas Gray

D) “Troilus and Cressida” by William Shakespeare

14. Thomas Hardy’s The Woodlanders was serialized in ………………..

A) Macmillan’s Magazine B) The London Magazine

C) The Gentleman’s Magazine D) European Magazine

15. Who is a country doctor and would – be scientist?

A) Grammer Oliver B) Robert Creedle

C) Tim Tangs D) Edred Fitzpiers

16. Who is cider maker?

A) Grammer Oliver B) Edred Fitzpiers

C) Giles Winterborne D) Percomb

17. ‘The Woodlanders’ was classified by Hardy himself as …………….

A) A romance B) A novel of ingenuity

C) A novel of Character and environment D) A fantasy

18. Thomas Hardy in ‘The Woodlanders’ features:

A) The snobbishness of Grace towards Marty

B) Marty’s sexual desires for Giles

C) Fitzpier’s fidelity and love for Mrs. Charmond

D) Melbury’s fixation on Grace’s social position

19. Edred Fitzpiers is :

A) A philanderer B) A Poet C) A merchant D) A villager

20. ‘The Woodlanders’ is flanked:

A) The Trumpet Major and Jude the Obscure

B) Jude the Obscure and The Dynasty

C) The Mayor of Casterbridge and Tess of the D’urbervilles

D) The Return of the Native and Two on a Tower

21. Who said “My name is Brown, Catch me if you can”?

A) Mr. Arnold Bennet B) Jones C) Virginia Woolf D) Brown

22. According to Virginia Woolf, Who are Georgians?

A) Mr. Jones, Virginia Woolf B) Mr. Arnold Bennet, Mr. Smith

C) Mr. Wells, Mr. Bennet, Mr. Galsworthy

D) Mr. Forester, Mr. Lawrence, Mr. Straches, Mr. Joyce, Mr. Eliot


23. Who lived like a leviathan in the lowerdepths, formiable, silent, obscure,

inscrutable?

A) The Jacobean Cook B) The Elizabethan Cook

C) The Georgian Cook D) The Victorian Cook

24. How was Mr. Bennet and Mrs. Brown originally published as?

A) Character in Non – fiction B) Character in Novel

C) Character in fiction D) Character Drama

25. Who organized the seminal exhibition ‘Manet and the post-Impressionists’ on

December 1910?

A) Well B) Bennet C) Galsworthy D) Roger fry

26. Who is Arnold Bennet?

A) Father of Drama B) An English Novelist

C) A famous essayist D) A Nobel prize winner

27. Why did the author like Corn-Chandor from the North?

A) He dressed in the Blue Colour B) He spoke kindly

C) He has good manner

D) He dressed in good blue serge with a pocket – Knife and a silk hand kerchief and

a stout leather bag.

28. Where did Mr. Smith’s brother have a fruit farm?

A) Clapham B) Kent C) Richamond D) Waterloo

29. Virginia Woolf committed suicide by drowning herself into the ………… on March

28, 1941.

A) River Ouse B) River Thammes C) River Trend D) River Severn

30. “A woman must have money and a room of her own if she is to write fiction”. This

line occurs in Virginia Woolf’s ……………..

A) Mrs. Dalloway B) To the Lighthouse

C) Orlando D) A Room of One’s Own

31. Who is Father of Sebastian Barnack?

A) Eustace Barnack B) John Barnack C) Bruno Fontini D) John

32. “Time Must Have a Stop” title is derived from Shakespeare’s play ………….

A) Henry VI B) Henry IV C) Henry VIII D) Henry III

33. Who is an anti-fascist lawyer and socialist politician in Time Must Have a Stop?

A) John Barnack B) Sebastian Barnack

C) Eustace Barnack D) Bruno Rontini

34. What is work of Bruno Rontini in Time Must Have a Stop?

A) Children’s story book seller B) Comic book seller

C) Crime story book seller D) Religious book seller


35. Where did Sebastian Barnack enjoy his holiday?

A) Florence B) London C) Italy D) Germany

36. What does Sebastian Barnack steal from uncle’s estate?

A) Gold B) Money C) Painting D) Books

37. Who is imprisoned and mistreated by the Fascist police in “Time Must Have a

Stop”? A) Eustace B) Bruno C) Sebastian D) John Barnack

38. When was Aldous Huxley born?

A) 11 March 1884 B) 19 May 1882

C) 26 July 1894 D) 10 October 1895

39. The title of the novel ‘Brave New World’ was taken from Shakespeare’s ………..

A) Twelfth Night B) Tempest

C) A Mid Summer Night’s Dream D) Othello

40. Sebastian Barnack visits to his uncle’s house in ………………

A) London in England B) Florence in Italy

C) Pairs in France D) Washington in USA

41. Who is Lilia Herriton’s travel Companion?

A) Miss Abbott B) Caroline C) Miss Herriton D) Mrs. Theobold

42. Who is guide of Irma?

A) Mrs. Theobold B) Mrs. Herriton C) Miss. Abbott D) Philip

43. What is Gino Carella’s position (Work) in Italy?

A) Lawyer B) Teacher C) Dentist D) Novelist

44. What is the expectation of Lilia from Gino in Italy?

A) Enjoy Everday B) Going out alone

C) Going to church D) Enjoy party with friends

45. When did the Herritons receive news of Lilia’s death?

A) Philip’s twenty – fourth birthday B) Harriet’s twenty – fourth birthday

C) Miss Abbott’s Twenty – fourth birthday D) Irma’s twenty-fourth birthday

46. What is title of the drama that Philip proposes to watch in theatre?

A) The Bride of Lammermoor B) Sir Watcher Scott’s life

C) Lucia di Lammermoor D) Clown dance

47. Miss Abbott has taken refuge at ………………

A) St. Paul Church B) St. Patrick’s Church

C) Santa Deodata Church D) Datholic Church

48. Where does Philip find a bundle?

A) Lying in the mud in darkness B) Under the Carriage

C) Near the Station D) In the Forest

49. E.M. Forester’s Pseudonyms is / are ………………

A) Pharos B) Abinger Harvest C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ D) Clive Hamilton


50. Who coined the terms “Flat and Round Characters”?

A) E.M. Forester B) T.S. Eliot C) Lionel Trilling D) John Canaday

51. What position does Thomas hold at the time of his murder?

A) Chancellor B) King C) Exchequer D) Archbishop

52. How long has Thomas been gone when he returns?

A) Sixteen months B) Three years

C) Fifteen years D) Seven years

53. Why did Eliot write this play?

A) He read a book about Becket B) He wanted to impress his priest

C) He was commissioned for a festival D) Becket’s family asked him to

54. How can one best describe the Chorus’s attitude at the top of the play?

A) Gleeful B) Pessimistic C) Hopeful D) Angry

55. What is the Third Priest like?

A) Patient B) Worried C) Angry D) Pragmatic

56. Who brings news of Thomas’s return?

A) Chorus B) Thomas himself C) Herald D) First Priest

57. What is Thomas’s main flaw?

A) Pride B) Greed C) Vanity D) Cruelty

58. How does the Chorus describe their lives in Part I?

A) “Living and partly living” B) “Black into light, for all to see”

C) “A long and winding path” D) “One day after another”

59. T.S. Eliot coined the terms ……………………

A) Unification of Sensibility B) Dissociation of Sensibility

C) Objective Correlative D) All the above

60. When did Thomas Stearns Eliot get Nobel Prize for Literature?

A) 1969 B) 1967 C) 1955 D) 1948

61. C.P. Snow earned a doctorate in physics at the ……………….

A) University of Oxford B) University of Edinburgh

C) University of Cambridge D) University of London

62. Which is a novel sequence about the academic, public and private life of an

Englishman named Lewis Eliot?

A) Strangers and Brothers B) The Light and the Dark

C) Time of Hope D) The Masters

63. ‘Corridors of Power’ is the ninth book in C.P. Snow’s series called ……………

A) George Passant B) The Light and the Dark

C) Strangers and Brothers D) Time of Hope

64. The title ‘Corridors of Power’ had become a household phrase referring to the

……………….


A) Centres of government and power B) Centres of literature and dogma

C) Centres of atomic research D) Centres science and technology

65. The novel ‘Corridors of Power’ centres around………………….

A) First World War B) Second World War

C) Post – War British Nuclear Policy D) Pre – War Atomic Policy

66. Who is a young conservative M.P. in the novel?

A) Roger Quaife B) Lord Reginald Collingwood

C) Lord Gilbey D) Sir Walter Luke

67. Who is the enemy of Lewis Eliot?

A) Sir Francis Getliffe B) Sir Hector Rose

C) Michael Brodzinski D) Caroline Quaife

68. Who was working in Whitehall alongside the new rising star of the Tory cabinet,

Roger Quaife?

A) Sir Walter Luke B) Lewis Eliot

C) Sir Francis Getliffe D) Sir Hector Rose

69. The novel is set ‘Corridors of Power’ in years …………….

A) 1945 to 1955 B) 1955 to 1957

C) 1960 to 1966 D) 1966 to 1967

70. Quaife obtains his first government post as a ……………….

A) Junior admiral of defence B) Junior minister of defence

C) Senior Lieutenant in army D) Senior colonel in army

71. Who is hated by everyone in “The Devil’s Disciple”?

A) Essie B) Riched Dudgeon C) Judith Anderson D) Mrs. Dudgeon

72. Who is town’s Minister in “The Devil’s Disciple”?

A) Mr. Anderson B) Judith Anderson

C) Dick Dudgeon D) Richard Dudgeon

73. Dick Dudgeon is an outcast from his family ……………….

A) Colonial Webster bridge old Hampshire

B) Colonial Webster bridge New Hampshire

C) Colonial Webster bridge North Hampshire

D) Colonial Webster bridge South Hampshire

74. What did Dick get from his father’s will in “The Devil’s Disciple”?

A) A big house B) A big factory

C) The bulk of his estate D) A new small estate

75. Why the British hanged Essie’s father in “The Devil’s Discipline”?

A) As an enemy B) As a politician C) As a neighbor D) As arebel

76. Who was arrested by British soldiers in Anderson’s home?

A) Essie B) Mrs. Dudgeon C) Mr. Anderson D) Dick


77. In the Devil Disciple’s, the court proceedings are run by the charming …………

A) British General Burgoyne B) British Army General

C) British Court Lawyer D) High Court Lawyer

78. Which country is the setting for George Bernard Shaw’s play The Devil’s Disciple?

A) Ireland B) USA C) Italy D) Israel

79. George Bernard Shaw considered all of the following values important except

……………

A) Vegetarianism B) Socialism

C) Equal rights for women D) Anti-abortionism

80. G.B. Shaw was awarded Nobel Prize in ……………….

A) 1915 B) 1925 C) 1916 D) 1926

81. What year was Ezra Pound born?

A) 1972 B) 1870 C) 1885 D) 1912

82. Which university did Pound transfer to in order to complete his undergraduate

degree?

A) University of Pennsylvania B) Oxford University

C) University College London D) Hamilton College

83. What was the first name of Pound’s wife?

A) Dorothy B) Hilda C) Dora D) Olivia

84. After leaving Paris, which European country did Pound settle in?

A) Italy B) Spain C) Germany D) Greece

85. Which mental hospital was Pound sentenced to in Washington, D.C.?

A) St. Joseph’s B) St. Elizabeth’s C) St. Katherine’s D) St. Francis’s

86. What were some defining characteristics of Imagism?

A) Poems written from the perspective of fictional characters

B) Poems about nature C) Economy of language and a more concise, non-abstract poetic style D) Flowery language and extended metaphor

87. Who is arrested Ezra Pound in 1945?

A) American Partisans B) Italian Partisans

C) British Partisans D) Public Society

88. Who is lover of Sigismondo?

A) Aprodite B) Hagaromo C) Kuanon D) Ixxota

89. Who is famous German Pianist?

A) Faustus B) Gerhart munch

C) Mayer Amschel Rothschild D) James Joyce

90. Which young English Poet died, while he as at war?

A) Dorothy Pound B) Marwell C) G.H. Hopkins D) J.P. Angold


91. In ‘The Importance of Being Earnest’, Algy creates a fictional character called

……………..

A) Worthing B) Fairfax C) Bunbury D) Cardew

92. Match the following:

List – I (Characters) List – II (Aphorisms)

a. Algernon - 1. Dear uncle – Jack is so very serious!

b. Cecily - 2. If I ever get married, I’ll certainly try to forget the fact c. Aunt Augusta - 3. This suspense is terrible, I hope it will last d. Gwendolyne - 4. I’m not in favour of engagements Codes: a b c d a b c d A) 3 4 1 2 B) 4 1 3 2

C) 2 4 1 3 D) 2 1 4 3

93. The setting of the Act III in “The Importance of Being Earnest” is at the Manor

House in …………………

A) Liverpool B) Woolton C) Lancashire D) Wessex

94. Where has Cecily recorded her engagement to Jack’s brother Ernest?

A) In the Time B) In the family bible

C) In a letter to her mother D) In her diary

95. Who is Cecily’s governess?

A) Gwendolen B) Lady Bracknell C) Jack D) Miss Prism

96. What is Jack’s father’s name?

A) John B) Peter C) He doesn’t know D) Ernest

97. What food does Cecily serve to Gwendolen?

A) Bread and butter B) Nothing C) Cake D)

Crackers

98. At what age does Cecily become independent from Jack?

A) 18 B) 21 C) 35 D) 42

99. Where was Oscar Wilde born in 1854?

A) Belfast B) Dublin C) Edinburgh D) London

100. Oscar Wilde was an editor of the magazine ……………..

A) Corn Hill Magazine B) The Criterion

C) The Lady’s World Magazine D) The Morning chronicle


MODERN AND CONTEMPORARY PERIODS

ANSWER KEY -Unit – V (100 )

1 B 21 C 41 A 61 C 81 C

2 D 22 D 42 B 62 A 82 D

3 C 23 D 43 C 63 C 83 A

4 B 24 C 44 B 64 A 84 A

5 D 25 D 45 A 65 C 85 B

6 A 26 B 46 C 66 A 86 C

7 C 27 D 47 C 67 C 87 B

8 A 28 B 48 A 68 B 88 D

9 B 29 A 49 C 69 B 89 B

10 A 30 D 50 A 70 B 90 D

11 C 31 B 51 D 71 B 91 C

12 D 32 B 52 D 72 A 92 D

13 C 33 A 53 C 73 B 93 B

14 A 34 D 54 B 74 C 94 D

15 D 35 A 55 A 75 D 95 D

16 C 36 C 56 C 76 D 96 D

17 C 37 B 57 A 77 A 97 C

18 D 38 C 58 A 78 B 98 C

19 A 39 B 59 D 79 D 99 B

20 C 40 B 60 D 80 B 100 C


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Cell: 7200430099 Whats up: 9442738785 POLYTECHNIC TRB –ENGLISH

TEST Unit – VIII (100) LANGUAGE AND LINGUISTICS.

1. The family of indo – European languages has …………. major groups

A) 2 B) 4 C) 7 D) 9

2. English belongs to the ………..

A) East Teutonic B) West Teutonic

C) North Teutonic D) South Teutonic

3. Which period is called as period of full inflexions?

A) Ancient Period B) Old English Period

C) Middle English Period D) Modern Period

4. The Great Vowel Shift was a major change in the pronunciation of the English

language in ………….

A) Old English Period B) Middle English Period

C) Modern Period D) Post Modern Period

5. According to ………. Law is that voiceless fricatives in Germanic became voiced, if

the proceeding syllable was unstressed.

A) Verner’s B) Grimm’s C) Saussure’s D) Jacobson’s

6. Mutation is called as ……..

A) Ablaut B) Gradation C) Apophony D) Umlaut

7. Who says, “The standard English is that which was a spoken within certain social

boundaries with an extraordinary degree of uniformity all over the country”?

A) Daniel Jones B) H.C. Wyld C) Rask D) Verner

8. BBC was set up in ………. in London

A) 1920 B) 1921 C) 1922 D) 1923

9. English of the southern upper class people of England became the …….

A) Local Dialect B) Standard English

C) American English D) Indian English

10. Who used the term Strong Verbs and Weak Verbs?

A) Grimm B) H.C. Wyld C) Rask D) Verner

11. Morphology is the scientific study of the ……….

A) arrangement of words in a sentence B) meaning of words

C) history of words D) formation of words

12. ………. it’s the minimal meaningful units.

A) Phoneme B) Morpheme C) Vowel D) Consonants


13. “Morpheme is a short segment of language that meets three criteria”. Which is not

a criteria of morpheme?

A) It is minimal sound unit of a language

B) It is a word or part of a word that has a meaning

C) It cannot be divided into smaller meaningful units

D) It recurs in differing verbal environments with a relatively stable meaning

14. The morphs which belong to same morpheme are called ………

A) Phoneme B) Syntax C) Allomorphs D) Lexicon

15. The word ‘happy’ is a an example of ….. morpheme

A) Non – syllabic morpheme B) Zero Morpheme

C) Free Morpheme D) Bound morpheme

16. A morpheme which can add another affix is called as ……..

A) Inflextional Morpheme B) Derivational Morpheme

C) Non – Syllabic morpheme D) Zero Morpheme

17. If the original word and new word are different parts of speech, it is called as

…………..

A) Class maintaining B) Circum fix

C) Class changing D) Simul fix

18. ………. is a morpheme that is attached to a word at the end of a root

A) An affix B) A prefix C) A suffix D) An infix

19. ………… is a group of people speaking a common dialect

A) Speech community B) Literal community

C) Linguistic society D) Language Association

20. ……… is the variety of language according to the use

A) Dialect B) Register C) Idiolect D) Lexicology

21. ………. is the scientific study of language, and involves an analysis of language form,

language meaning, and language in context

A) Linguistics B) Morphology C) Phonology D) Lexicography

22. Which is the branch of linguistics that deals with historical development of

language through time?

A) Clinical Linguistics B) Computational Linguistics

C) Comparative Linguistics D) Diachronic Linguistics

23. Which is the branch of linguistics that deals with the study of the language as it

exists at particular point of time?

A) Philosophical Linguistics B) Socio Linguistics

C) Synchronic Linguistics D) Statistical Linguistics

24. ………….. is the study of sign processes (Semiosis), or signification and

communication, signs, and symbols


A) Semiotics B) Lexicography C) Lexicology D)

Philology

25. ……….. is the arrangement of words in a sentence and the study of the principles

and rules for constructing sentences in natural languages

A) Syntax B) Semantics C) Lexis D) Graphics

26. ………. is the study of origin and history of words

A) Phonology B) Morphology C) Etymology D) Dialectology

27. Who distinguished between the nations of langue and parole in his formulation of

structural linguistics?

A) Bloomfield B) Panini C) Noam Chomsky D) Ferdinand de Saussure

28. Sociolinguistics is the study of the relation between …..

A) People and society B) Language and society

C) linguistics and grammar D) grammar and structure

29. The word ‘ Dialect’ comes from language

A) Latin B) Greek C) French D) Celtic

30. Phrase structure grammar is a type of generative grammar in which constituent

structures are represented by ……

A) rewrite rules B) descriptive rules

C) abstract rules D) linguistic rules

31. …….. is a word or group of words that function as a unit and can make up larger

grammatical units

A) Simple sentence B) Compound Sentence

C) Complex Sentence D) Constituent

32. Which of the following pairs not a minimal pair?

A) fan and van B) pin and bin

C) thin and thing D) bank and bank

33. …………………. is the language, especially the vocabulary, peculiar to a particular

trade, profession, or group.

A) A lingua franca B) Jargon C) Elite language D) Dialect

34. Which is back part of mouth called as velum?

A) Alveolar Ridge B) Teeth Ridge C) Hard Palate D) Soft Palate

35. Which is not a division under manner of articulation?

A) Bilabial B) Plosives C) Fricatives D) Affricates

36. How many pure vowels are in English?

A) 44 B) 12 C) 20 D) 24

37. The English Pronouncing Dictionary is written by ….

A) Dr. Johnson B) James Boswell C) John Webster D) Daniel Jones


38. How many cardinal vowels are in English?

A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9

39. The part of the teeth ridge is called as ………(10)

A) Palato – alveolar B) Alveolar Ridge

C) Hard Palate D) Soft Palate

40. A syllable which is arrested by a consonant is called ………..

A) Open syllable B) Closed syllable

C) Open and closed syllable D) Consonant cluster

41. A long vowel is indicated by ……

A) Semi –colon B) colon C) comma D) full stop

42. Semi vowels are called as ……

A) Approximants B) Palatal C) Alveolar D) Dental

43. The term “Broad Phonetic Transcription” was first used by ……..

A) Kruszewski B) Daniel Jones C) Turbetzkey D) Webster

44. The sound variations of the same phoneme are called ……….

A) Allomorphs B) Morphemes C) Allophones D) None

45. Who formed the word ‘Received Pronunciation’?

A) Kruszewski B) Daniel Jones C)Turbetzkey D) Bloomfield

46. Which sound is a combination of two adjacent vowel sounds within the same

syllable?

A) Consonants B) Diphthongs C) Pure Vowels D) Semi Vowels

47. Which speech sounds are produced by the obstruction caused by the vocal organs?

A) Pure Vowels B) Diphthongs C) Consonants D) Morphemes

48. Bilabial sounds are produced when the lips are brought together?

A) Bilabial B) Alveolar C) Palatal D) Palato – alveolar

49. ………… are produced with stricture of open approximation

A) Semi – vowels B) Lateral C) Plosives D) Fricatives

50. Which is central element in syllable and it is called as Nucleus of a syllable?

A) Consonants B) Morpheme C) Plosive D) Vowel

51. The rise and fall of the voice in speaking is called …………

A) Intonation B) Rhythm C) Pause D) Juncture

52. …………… is the branch of linguistics and it is the study of meaning of words,

phrases and sentences

A) Semantics B) Pragmatics C) Etymology D) Phonology

53. The word semantics was first used by ……., a French philologist

A) Daniel Jones B) Bloomfield C) Chomsky D) Michel Breal

54. Which has same spelling but different pronunciation and meaning?

A) Synonymy B) Antonymy C) Homophones D) Homography


55. ……….. is a branch of linguistics concerned with the use of language in social

contexts and the ways in which people produce and comprehend meanings

through language

A) Semantics B) Pragmatics C) Etymology D) Phonology

56. The work ‘pragmatics’ comes from Greek word ‘Pragmatikos’ which means

……………..

A) Fit for action B) use of language C) tongue D) mouth

57. ‘NATO’ is an example of ……..

A) Holonymy B) Clipping word C) Blending word D) An acronym

58. Which of the following skills in not included in LSRW?

A) Learning B) Speaking C) Reading D) Writing

59. Which skill could be enhanced by focusing on making the students listen to the

sounds of that particular language?

A) Speaking B) Reading C) Listening D) Writing

60. Which is the ability to understand language?

A) Expressive language B) Receptive language

C) Phonetic Language D) Fluency

61. Which method is to enable the learner to communicate effectively and

appropriately in the various situations?

A) The Direct Method B) Grammar – Translation Method

C) Audio – lingual D) Communicative Language Teaching

62. Who is called as ‘The father of Modern Linguistics’?

A) Ferdinand De Saussure B) Denial Jones

C) Terrence Deacon D) David Dowty

63. Chomsky called the basic sentence as …….

A) Morpheme B) Phoneme C) Kernel D) Root word

64. Diachronic Linguistics and synchronic Linguistics are introduced by …

A) Bloomfield B) Ferdinand De Saussure

C) Denial Jones D) Terrence Deacon

65. Structural linguistics divided a sentence into ……

A) Simple sentence B) Phrase

C) Immediate Constituents D) Words

66. Transformational Generative Grammar rules are ….. are rewrite rules.

A) Prescriptive rules B) Descriptive rules

C) rewrite rules D) Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

67. The word ‘photo’ is an example of …..

A) Clipping Word B) Composition

C) Syncopation D) Blending Word


68. Which is example of portmanteau word?

A) UGC B) Exam C) Brunch D) Don

69. A vowel elides and the consonants on the either side run together in a word is

known as ……

A) Clipping Word B) Composition

C) Syncopation D) Blending Word

70. Which of the following words is not an ephonym?

A) Boycott B) Sandwich C) Bedlam D) Breakfast

71. The habit of avoiding an unpleasant idea by substituting some indirect word is

known as ….

A) Euphemism B) Prudery

C) Ephonym D) Regeneration


LANGUAGE AND LINGUISTICS.

ANSWER KEY - Unit – VIII (71)

1 D 21 A 41 A 61 D

2 B 22 D 42 A 62 A

3 B 23 C 43 A 63 C

4 B 24 A 44 B 64 B

5 A 25 A 45 A 65 C

6 D 26 C 46 B 66 D

7 B 27 D 47 C 67 A

8 C 28 B 48 A 68 C

9 B 29 B 49 D 69 C

10 A 30 A 50 A 70 D

11 D 31 D 51 A 71 A

12 B 32 D 52 A

13 A 33 B 53 D

14 A 34 D 54 D

15 C 35 A 55 B

16 B 36 B 56 A

17 C 37 D 57 D

18 C 38 C 58 A

19 A 39 B 59 C

20 D 40 A 60 B

TEST Unit - IV 1. The Pre-eminent poet of the Victorian age ...

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