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TEST Unit - IV 1. The Pre-eminent poet of the Victorian age was
A) Dante Gabriel Rossetti B) Alfred Tennyson
C) A.E. Houseman D) G.M. Hopkins
2. “To strive, to seek, to find and not to yield”. This line is quoted from Tennyson’s
A) The Princes B) The Two Voices C) Ulysses D) Morte ‘d’ Arthur
3. What is the main theme of the poem ‘The Princess’ by Tennyson?
A) Women Society B) Women Education
C) 19th Century Fashion D) Victorian Manhood
4. In the poem ‘The Princess’ the collage / University was turned in to a / an? A)
Union secretary house B) Senate house of England
C) University D) Hospital
5. ‘Sweet and Low’ is one of the insertions of 1850 and it occurs at the end of ………….
canto of ‘The Princess’?
A) I B) II C) III D) VI
6. The Princess Ida has founded a ………….. to which no male was allowed to entrance
A) Women’s house B) Country inn C) Catholic church D) Female Academy
7. Who said, “The Splendor falls is the best of the six intercalary songs in The
Princess?
A) Walter Scott B) T.S. Eliot C) Stopford Brook D) Arnold
8. The lover makes his appeal by pointing out the subtle spiritual attraction exiting
between the restful sky …………?
A) Daring Sky B) Wind Sky C) Starry Sky D) Berry Sky
9. The princess compared the beloved to?
A) Moon and star B) Rose and angel
C) Nymphs and stars D) Sun beam and stars
10. The poem ‘The Princess’ has …………. Cantos.
A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8
11. Andrea del Sarto is a …………. painter of the sixteenth century.
A) Russian B) Florentine C) American D) Indian
12. The protagonist of ‘Abt Vogler’ is a ………………
A) Magician B) Musician C) Mathematician D) Painter
13. Andrea is aware that his work lacks the …………….. that bless his contemporaries
Rafeal and Michel Angelo.
A) Love and Passion B) Beauty and liveliness
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C) Spirit and soul D) Fancy and fashion
14. Andre Del Sarto was first published in the volume entitled ………………
A) Pauline : A Fragment of a Confession B) Sardello
C) Bells and Pomegranates D) Dramatis Personae
15. Andre Sarto is based on Biographical material by ……………
A) Raphael B) Giorgio Vasari C) Michael Angelo D) G.M. Hopkins
16. What crime has Andrea del Sarto Committed?
A) Murder B) Adultery C) Bribery D) Blasphemy
17. The title ‘Men and Women’ was taken from the collection …………
A) O you God B) My fifty Men and Women
C) Thy perfect D) Cry the Queen
18. Keats’s extrodinary vision is exposed in the poem of …………..
A) Memorabilia B) A Grammarian’s Funeral
C) Andrea del Sarto D) Popularity
19. What is the first poem in the collection of ‘Men and Women’?
A) “Love Among the Ruins” B) “A Lover’s Quarrel”
C) Evelyn Hope” D) “Up at a Villa – Down in the City”
20. The collection ‘Men and Women’ was mainly influenced by ……………
A) French Revolution B) Industrial Revolution
C) Italian Renaissance Art D) British Reformation Movement
21. ‘The Scholar Gipsy’ is a ………… poem
A) Lyric B) Occasional C) Pastoral D) Elegiac
22. In ‘Dover Beach’ Arnold hears the melancholy long, withdrawing roar of the sea of
………….
A) Human misery B) faith C) Sadness D) England
23. The ……….. is used in the last stanza of ‘Dover Beach’
A) Pathetic B) Peaceful C) Chaotic and aggressive D) Lethargic
24. The best example of Matthew Arnold’s beautiful lyrical poetry is found in his
…………..
A) Dover Beach B) Thyrsis C) Sohrab and Rustam D) A Summer Night
25. “The sea of Faith, Was once, at the full, round, Earth’s shore ……….. girdle furl’d”.
The above lines echo the author’s lamentations over the lack of faith in the modern
man, revealing the spiritual emptiness of the time. Name the author.
A) A.L. Tennyson B) M. Arnold C) R. Browning D) Rossetti
26. Who among the following are Lytton Strachey’s “Eminent Victorians”?
A) Florence Nightingale, Dr. Arnold B) Arnold and Tennyson
C) Florence Nightingale, Robert Browning D) D.G. Rossetti and Ruskin
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27. In ‘The Study of Poetry’, Arnold advocates the ……………… to recognize great poetry.
A) The historical method B) The intuitive method
C) The touchstone method D) The analytical method
28. Who, according to Mathew Arnold, lacks high seriousness?
A) Geoffrey Chaucer B) Emily Dickinson C) T.S. Eliot D) Walt Whitman
29. ‘The Study of Poetry’ was written by ……………..
A) Thomas Hardy B) Robert Browning C) Mathew Arnold D) G.M. Hopkins
30. Arnold asserts the superiority of poetry over other subjects as it …………
A) Interprets life for us B) Consoles us
C) Sustains us D) All of these
31. According to Arnold, Burns cannot be called a classical writer because his poetry
lacks ………….
A) The truth of matter in it B) The truth of manner in it
C) The accent of the highest order of poetry D) All of these
32. According to Arnold, his father must be living in some …………..
A) Heaven B) Far-shining sphere C) Midst of snow D) Mid of heaven
33. Who has carried a lantern?
A) Church man B) Priest C) Gaunt man or host D) Gate Keeper
34. The poem ‘Rugby Chapel’ starts with the line ……………
A) From a few boys late at their play! B) The lights come out in the street,
C) Coldly, sadly descends / The autumn – evening
D) The chapel – walls, in whose bound / Thou, my father! art laid.
35. “What is the course of the life / Of mortal men on the earth?” These lines are said
by …………..
A) Dr. Arnold B) Mathew Arnold
C) Arnold’s Mother D) Arthur Hugh Clough
36. Robert Buchanan’s classification of D.G. Rosetti as a member of the fleshy school of
poetry is found in the following set.
A) D.G. Rosetti, Cloeridge, Byron, Shelley
B) D.G. Rosetti, John Berryman, Robert Lowell and Sylvia Plath
C) D.G. Rosetti, Swinburne, William Morris and John Payne
D) D.G. Rosettim, Bryant, Whittier, Lowell
37. ‘The Blessed damozal’ is an example of …………….
A) Raphaelite poetry B) Romantic poetry
C) Movement poetry D) Pre-Raphaelite poetry
38. Damozel realizes at the end, that:
A) She could be united with her lover B) She would kill her lover
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C) She would enter heaven D) Her love was not perfect
39. Match.
List – I List – II
a. The Blessed Damozel - 1. Dramatic Monologue
b. The Wreck of Deutschland - 2. Lyric
c. My Last Duchess - 3. Quest Poem
d. Dover Beach - 4. Pindaric Ode
Codes: a b c d a b c d
A) 3 4 1 2 B) 4 1 3 2
C) 2 4 1 3 D) 1 2 4 3
40. In ‘The Blessed Damozal’ the lady asks Christ ……………..
A) To go away from heaven B) Only to live with her lover on Earth
C) To bring her lover to heaven D) To Live without her lover in Heaven
41. The ‘Citherns and Citoles’ in “The Blessed Damozel” refers to ……….. musical
instruments.
A) Ancient B) Modern C) Medieval D) Colonial
42. ‘The Blessed Damozal’ was published in ……………….
A) The Egoist B) The Germ C) The Cornhill Magazine D) The Tatler
43. The locale of the poem ‘The Blessed Damozal’ is ……………
A) Hell B) Heaven C) Earth D) Moon
44. the blessed Damozel has …………. in her hand and ……….. in her hair.
A) 4 lilies; 7 stars B) 3 lilies; 7 stars C) 7 lilies; 4 stars D) 2 lilies;
6 stars
45. What is the gift of Virgin Mary to the blessed Damozel?
A) White Lilly B) Red Rose C) White Rose D) Bud Rose
46. “I heard her tears”. The figure of speech in this line is …………
A) Simile B) Metaphor C) Allusion D) Synecdoche
47. The five handmaidens of Virgin Mary are compared to ……………….
A) Five Angels B) Five Nymphs C) Five Symphonies D) Five Lilies
48. The leaves of the Tree of Life proclaim the name of ……………
A) God B) Damozel C) Good angel D) Evil Spirit
49. “But a white rose of Mary’s gift, For service meetly worn”. These lines occurred in
………………
A) Rose Mary B) The King’s Tragedy
C) The White Ship D) The Blessed Damozel
50. In ‘Blessed Damozel’ Dove refer to …………….
A) Virgin Mary B) Poet’s lover C) Holy Mother D) Holy Ghost
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51. When was Mary Anne Evans (George Eliot) born?
A) 22 November 1819 B) 14 May 1799 C) 1 October 1820 D)5 January 1821
52. Which novel was written first by Mary Anne Evans?
A) Adam Bede B) Scenes of Clerical Life
C) Daniel Deronda D) Romola
53. Mary Anne Evans alternatively known as ………….
A) Mariamma B) Marian C) Maria D) Dollabella
54. George Eliot born at the estate of ………………..
A) Clehil Estate B) South Farm C) Tea Estate D) East Farm
55. Who is insular, non religious and immersed in classical?
A) Pamela B) Romola C) Tessa D) Melema
56. Who is the adoptive father of Melema?
A) Bardi B) Tido C) Savonarola D) Baldassarre Calvo
57. Savonarola preaches in …………….
A) Florida B) Fissaca C) Fiskin D) Florence
58. Who is a good friend to Romola and he is distrust Tido?
A) Dinode Bardi B) Piero di Cosimo C) Bratty Ferravecchi D) Melema
59. George Eliot’s Romola was set in …………. century.
A) 16 B) 19 C) 15 D) 17
60. Romola is a ……….. novel by George Eliot.
A) Historical B) Social C) Adventurous D) Bildungsroman
61. The reaction Rebecca has to drawings Amelia had sent from the Academy can best
be described as ………………..
A) Sadness in remembering her father
B) Fondness for those depicted in the drawings
C) Indifference
D) Anger at the torment she received while living there
62. Joseph Sedley leaves town following the party ……………
A) After George describes his behavior B) To accept a military commission
C) After Rebecca rebukes him D) On direct orders from his father
63. Soon after entering the Crawley household, Rebecca ………………..
A) Becomes a favorite of Sir Pitt Crawley
B) Is pursued romantically by Young Pitt Crawley
C) Began her duties as governess to the young Crawley boys
D) None of the above
64. George’s sisters thought of Amelia with ………………
A) George blurted out her name while drunk
B) Dobbin defended Amelia’s honor at breakfast
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C) Correspondence from Amelia was mistakenly delivered to Ensign Stubbles
D) George mentioned her to the assistant – surgeon Cackle
65. Miss Crawley disinherits Rawdon due in large part …………………
A) To the efforts of Reverend Bute
B) To the efforts of Mrs. Reverend Bute’s Wife
C) To her mental illness
D) None of the above
66. Upon receiving money from his father shortly after the wedding, George instructs
Amelia to …………….
A) buy some clothes and other goods B) hide the money from his creditors
C) travel to see her parents D) invest the money
67. What is the name of the other main female protagonist of ‘Vanity Fair’, the
daughter of a wealthy merchant, whose fortunes take a decided turn for the worse
following her father’s financial ruin and her own imprudent marriage?
A) Annabelle Sidney B) Amelia Sedley
C) Arabella Swanley D) Adela Smithey
68. Who is the youngest son of the wicked old Sir Pitt Crawley and the favourite and
presumed heir of his wealthy aunt Matilda Crawley?
A) Raoul B) Roland C) Rawdon D) Ronald
69. William Makepeace Thackeray was born on 18 July 1811 in ……………..
A) Calcutta B) New Delhi C) Chennai D) Bombay
70. Thackeray wrote a number of papers satirizing his way of life in the series called
………………
A) Men’s Wives B) The Paris Sketchbook
C) The English Humorists of the Eighteenth Century D) The Rose and the
Ring
71. What does Jim’s father do for a living?
A) He is a farmer B) He is a banker
C) He is an innkeeper D) He is a lawyer
72. To whom does Jim first show the map?
A) Pew B) His father C) Captain Smollett D) Dr. Livesey
73. Who interrupts Jim’s narration to tell the story for a while?
A) Smollett B) Silver C) Trelawney D) Livesey
74. Which of the following characters does Silver take hostage?
A) Ben B) Smollett C) Livesey D) Jim
75. What flag does Smollett fly over the stockade?
A) The White Cross B) The Jolly Roger
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C) The Union Jack D) The Green Moon
76. On the journey to Treasure Island, who falls overboard on the ship?
A) Israel Hands B) Mr. Arrow C) No one D) Long John Silver
77. Which pirate is blind?
A) Long John Silver B) Billy Bones
C) Pew D) None of the above
78. What is Long John Silver’s occupation?
A) Innkeeper B) Pirate C) Cook D) All of the above
79. Who kills Alan?
A) It is unknown B) Long John Silver C) Pew D) Jim
80. What type of flag represents the pirates?
A) The Jolly Roger B) The British flag
C) The American Flag D) The French Flag
81. Who is the author of Sesame and Lilies?
A) Root Nibot B) John Ruskin C) Jeremy Roberts D) Butt Wolfgang
82. According to Ruskin, Literature provides food for the ……………
A) Knowledge B) Heart melt C) Mind D) Library
83. According to Ruskin great writers usually hide their?
A) Word power and meaning B) Meaning and message
C) Grammar and syntax D) Syllable and consonant
84. The Greek word ‘Bible’ means in English ……………
A) Bible itself B) Moral book C) Prayer Book D) Testament
85. The bag pipe played by ………………
A) God B) Angel C) Satan D) Devil
86. The books of hour are called ……………….
A) Permanent B) Euphemism C) Ephemeral D) Eternal
87. Ruskin refers to Rossetti’s translation poem that express sentiments similar to
Dantes’s work ………………….
A) Blessed Damozel B) My Sisters Sleep
C) Hand and soul D) Pisan Knight’s Poem
88. Complete the following line: “You cannot think that the bucking of the knight’s
armour by his lady hand ………. of romantic fashion”.
A) Old age B) Middle age C) Modern age D) Post Modern age
89. Englishmen have not written any stories about ……………
A) Island of Aegina B) Mounts Snowdon in Wales
C) Abyssinian sea D) Christ College
90. Ruskin’s Lecture, “Of Kings’ Treasuries,” deals with ……………
A) Books and the way to read them B) Critique of Victorian manhood
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C) Both A and B D) Political issues
91. A Tale of Two Cities opens in 1775. Which of the following does not characterize
this period?
A) The British colonies in America have just presented a list of grievances to the
King of England
B) Crime and capital punishment plague the streets of London
C) The guillotine stands as a much-feared fixture on the streets of Paris
D) The French aristocracy causes great suffering among the lower classes
92. What symbol does Dickens use to portend the bloodshed of the French Revolution?
A) The Dover mail Coach B) The Broken wine cask
C) Tellson’s Bank D) Madame Defarge’s malevolent stare
93. What image does Dickens frequently use to describe Lucie Manette?
A) An earth-bound angel B) A golden thread
C) A tiger lily D) A calm in a storm
94. Who promises Lucie Manette that he would, if necessary, die for her?
A) Jarvis Lorry B) Sydney Carton
C) Charles Darnay D) Monsieur Defarge
95. Why does the Paris mob kill Foulon?
A) Because he is a spy
B) Because he suggested that starving people should eat grass
C) Because his carriage ran down a child in the street
D) Because he collected high taxes from the peasants
96. Which two cities does the title refer to?
A) Paris and Berlin B) London and Paris
C) London and Rome D) London and Liverpool
97. How long was Doctor Manette imprisoned in the Bastille?
A) 8 years B) a day C) 18 years D) 25 years
98. What is Charles Darnay tried for in England?
A) Murder B) Petty theft C) Treason D) Robbery
99. What does Miss Pross call Lucie Manette?
A) “A golden – haired doll” B) “Sweetheart”
C) “My Ladybird” D) “Daughter”
100. Which novel of Dickens is an autobiographical novel which fictionalized elements
of his childhood, career, and love?
A) David Copperfield B) Bleak House
C) Hard Times: For These Times D) A Tale of Two Cities
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VICTORIAN AGE
ANSWER KEY Unit – IV (100)
1 B 21 C 41 C 61 A 81 B
2 C 22 B 42 B 62 A 82 C
3 B 23 C 43 B 63 A 83 B
4 D 24 A 44 B 64 D 84 B
5 B 25 B 45 C 65 B 85 C
6 D 26 A 46 D 66 A 86 C
7 C 27 C 47 C 67 B 87 D
8 C 28 A 48 A 68 C 88 B
9 D 29 C 49 D 69 A 89 B
10 C 30 D 50 D 70 A 90 C
11 B 31 C 51 A 71 C 91 C
12 B 32 B 52 B 72 D 92 B
13 A 33 C 53 B 73 D 93 B
14 C 34 C 54 B 74 D 94 B
15 B 35 B 55 B 75 C 95 B
16 B 36 C 56 D 76 B 96 B
17 C 37 D 57 D 77 C 97 C
18 D 38 C 58 B 78 D 98 C
19 A 39 A 59 C 79 A 99 C
20 C 40 C 60 A 80 A 100 A
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SHRI VIDHYA SHRI COACHING CENTRE
3,T.T Nagar, 5th Street, Near Maharishi Vidhya Manddir Hr.Sec.School Karaikudi-1 Cell: 7200430099 Whats up: 9442738785
POLYTECHNIC TRB –ENGLISH TEST Unit V
MODERN AND CONTEMPORARY PERIODS
1. Who is often hailed as being one of the driving forces behind the Irish literary
revival?
A) T.S. Eliot B) W.B. Yeats C) Ezra Bound D) W.H. Auden
2. Who sang ‘so I meet you at the cemetery gates / Keats and Yeats are on your side /
while Wilde is on mine’?
A) Rufus Wainwright B) Anthony Hegarty
C) Kate Tempest D) Morrissey
3. What year did Yeast win the Nobel Prize for literature?
A) 1918 B) 1921 C) 1923 D) 1925
4. Which theatre was founded by Y.B. Yeats in 1904?
A) Globe Theatre B) Abbey Theatre C) Swan Theatre D) Fay Reznick
5. “Sailing to Byzantium” is a poem by …………, first published in the 1928 collection
The Tower.
A) Thomas Westropp Bennett B) James Campbell
C) Andrew Jameson D) William Butler Yeats
6. At the end of “Sailing to Byzantium”, the speaker imagines transformation into
………..
A) A mechanical bird B) An auto C) A god D) A woman
7. W.B. Yeats wants to be re-born as …………….
A) Diamond bird B) Silver bird C) Golden bird D) Ancient bird
8. Yeats’s “Sailing to Byzantium” was written in ……………..
A) Ottava Rima B) Heroic Stanza C) Free Verse D) Blank Verse a
9. The poet asks the sages to purify his heart which is stick with ……….. and fastened
to the aging body.
A) Love B) Desire C) Anger D) Jealousy
10. The direction that the spirits would move around the speaker in “Sailing to
Byzantium” is in a ………………….
A) Gyre B) Straight line C) Circle D) Zig-zag
11. Which poem in Thomas Hardy deals with Napoleonic Wars?
A) The Grave by the Handpost B) A Changed Man
C) The Dynasts D) Enter a Dragoon
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12. Which Thomas Hardy novel is subtitled: A Pure Woman Faithfully Presented?
A) The Return of the Native B) The Hand of Ethelberta
C) Far From the Maddening Crowd D) Tess of the D’Urbervilles
13. The line “Far from the madding crowd’s ignoble strife” is from:
A) “Crowd Behaviour” by Sigmund Freud
B) “Far From the Madding Crowd” by Thomas Hardy
C) “Elegy Written in a Country Churchyard” by Thomas Gray
D) “Troilus and Cressida” by William Shakespeare
14. Thomas Hardy’s The Woodlanders was serialized in ………………..
A) Macmillan’s Magazine B) The London Magazine
C) The Gentleman’s Magazine D) European Magazine
15. Who is a country doctor and would – be scientist?
A) Grammer Oliver B) Robert Creedle
C) Tim Tangs D) Edred Fitzpiers
16. Who is cider maker?
A) Grammer Oliver B) Edred Fitzpiers
C) Giles Winterborne D) Percomb
17. ‘The Woodlanders’ was classified by Hardy himself as …………….
A) A romance B) A novel of ingenuity
C) A novel of Character and environment D) A fantasy
18. Thomas Hardy in ‘The Woodlanders’ features:
A) The snobbishness of Grace towards Marty
B) Marty’s sexual desires for Giles
C) Fitzpier’s fidelity and love for Mrs. Charmond
D) Melbury’s fixation on Grace’s social position
19. Edred Fitzpiers is :
A) A philanderer B) A Poet C) A merchant D) A villager
20. ‘The Woodlanders’ is flanked:
A) The Trumpet Major and Jude the Obscure
B) Jude the Obscure and The Dynasty
C) The Mayor of Casterbridge and Tess of the D’urbervilles
D) The Return of the Native and Two on a Tower
21. Who said “My name is Brown, Catch me if you can”?
A) Mr. Arnold Bennet B) Jones C) Virginia Woolf D) Brown
22. According to Virginia Woolf, Who are Georgians?
A) Mr. Jones, Virginia Woolf B) Mr. Arnold Bennet, Mr. Smith
C) Mr. Wells, Mr. Bennet, Mr. Galsworthy
D) Mr. Forester, Mr. Lawrence, Mr. Straches, Mr. Joyce, Mr. Eliot
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23. Who lived like a leviathan in the lowerdepths, formiable, silent, obscure,
inscrutable?
A) The Jacobean Cook B) The Elizabethan Cook
C) The Georgian Cook D) The Victorian Cook
24. How was Mr. Bennet and Mrs. Brown originally published as?
A) Character in Non – fiction B) Character in Novel
C) Character in fiction D) Character Drama
25. Who organized the seminal exhibition ‘Manet and the post-Impressionists’ on
December 1910?
A) Well B) Bennet C) Galsworthy D) Roger fry
26. Who is Arnold Bennet?
A) Father of Drama B) An English Novelist
C) A famous essayist D) A Nobel prize winner
27. Why did the author like Corn-Chandor from the North?
A) He dressed in the Blue Colour B) He spoke kindly
C) He has good manner
D) He dressed in good blue serge with a pocket – Knife and a silk hand kerchief and
a stout leather bag.
28. Where did Mr. Smith’s brother have a fruit farm?
A) Clapham B) Kent C) Richamond D) Waterloo
29. Virginia Woolf committed suicide by drowning herself into the ………… on March
28, 1941.
A) River Ouse B) River Thammes C) River Trend D) River Severn
30. “A woman must have money and a room of her own if she is to write fiction”. This
line occurs in Virginia Woolf’s ……………..
A) Mrs. Dalloway B) To the Lighthouse
C) Orlando D) A Room of One’s Own
31. Who is Father of Sebastian Barnack?
A) Eustace Barnack B) John Barnack C) Bruno Fontini D) John
32. “Time Must Have a Stop” title is derived from Shakespeare’s play ………….
A) Henry VI B) Henry IV C) Henry VIII D) Henry III
33. Who is an anti-fascist lawyer and socialist politician in Time Must Have a Stop?
A) John Barnack B) Sebastian Barnack
C) Eustace Barnack D) Bruno Rontini
34. What is work of Bruno Rontini in Time Must Have a Stop?
A) Children’s story book seller B) Comic book seller
C) Crime story book seller D) Religious book seller
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35. Where did Sebastian Barnack enjoy his holiday?
A) Florence B) London C) Italy D) Germany
36. What does Sebastian Barnack steal from uncle’s estate?
A) Gold B) Money C) Painting D) Books
37. Who is imprisoned and mistreated by the Fascist police in “Time Must Have a
Stop”? A) Eustace B) Bruno C) Sebastian D) John Barnack
38. When was Aldous Huxley born?
A) 11 March 1884 B) 19 May 1882
C) 26 July 1894 D) 10 October 1895
39. The title of the novel ‘Brave New World’ was taken from Shakespeare’s ………..
A) Twelfth Night B) Tempest
C) A Mid Summer Night’s Dream D) Othello
40. Sebastian Barnack visits to his uncle’s house in ………………
A) London in England B) Florence in Italy
C) Pairs in France D) Washington in USA
41. Who is Lilia Herriton’s travel Companion?
A) Miss Abbott B) Caroline C) Miss Herriton D) Mrs. Theobold
42. Who is guide of Irma?
A) Mrs. Theobold B) Mrs. Herriton C) Miss. Abbott D) Philip
43. What is Gino Carella’s position (Work) in Italy?
A) Lawyer B) Teacher C) Dentist D) Novelist
44. What is the expectation of Lilia from Gino in Italy?
A) Enjoy Everday B) Going out alone
C) Going to church D) Enjoy party with friends
45. When did the Herritons receive news of Lilia’s death?
A) Philip’s twenty – fourth birthday B) Harriet’s twenty – fourth birthday
C) Miss Abbott’s Twenty – fourth birthday D) Irma’s twenty-fourth birthday
46. What is title of the drama that Philip proposes to watch in theatre?
A) The Bride of Lammermoor B) Sir Watcher Scott’s life
C) Lucia di Lammermoor D) Clown dance
47. Miss Abbott has taken refuge at ………………
A) St. Paul Church B) St. Patrick’s Church
C) Santa Deodata Church D) Datholic Church
48. Where does Philip find a bundle?
A) Lying in the mud in darkness B) Under the Carriage
C) Near the Station D) In the Forest
49. E.M. Forester’s Pseudonyms is / are ………………
A) Pharos B) Abinger Harvest C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ D) Clive Hamilton
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50. Who coined the terms “Flat and Round Characters”?
A) E.M. Forester B) T.S. Eliot C) Lionel Trilling D) John Canaday
51. What position does Thomas hold at the time of his murder?
A) Chancellor B) King C) Exchequer D) Archbishop
52. How long has Thomas been gone when he returns?
A) Sixteen months B) Three years
C) Fifteen years D) Seven years
53. Why did Eliot write this play?
A) He read a book about Becket B) He wanted to impress his priest
C) He was commissioned for a festival D) Becket’s family asked him to
54. How can one best describe the Chorus’s attitude at the top of the play?
A) Gleeful B) Pessimistic C) Hopeful D) Angry
55. What is the Third Priest like?
A) Patient B) Worried C) Angry D) Pragmatic
56. Who brings news of Thomas’s return?
A) Chorus B) Thomas himself C) Herald D) First Priest
57. What is Thomas’s main flaw?
A) Pride B) Greed C) Vanity D) Cruelty
58. How does the Chorus describe their lives in Part I?
A) “Living and partly living” B) “Black into light, for all to see”
C) “A long and winding path” D) “One day after another”
59. T.S. Eliot coined the terms ……………………
A) Unification of Sensibility B) Dissociation of Sensibility
C) Objective Correlative D) All the above
60. When did Thomas Stearns Eliot get Nobel Prize for Literature?
A) 1969 B) 1967 C) 1955 D) 1948
61. C.P. Snow earned a doctorate in physics at the ……………….
A) University of Oxford B) University of Edinburgh
C) University of Cambridge D) University of London
62. Which is a novel sequence about the academic, public and private life of an
Englishman named Lewis Eliot?
A) Strangers and Brothers B) The Light and the Dark
C) Time of Hope D) The Masters
63. ‘Corridors of Power’ is the ninth book in C.P. Snow’s series called ……………
A) George Passant B) The Light and the Dark
C) Strangers and Brothers D) Time of Hope
64. The title ‘Corridors of Power’ had become a household phrase referring to the
……………….
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A) Centres of government and power B) Centres of literature and dogma
C) Centres of atomic research D) Centres science and technology
65. The novel ‘Corridors of Power’ centres around………………….
A) First World War B) Second World War
C) Post – War British Nuclear Policy D) Pre – War Atomic Policy
66. Who is a young conservative M.P. in the novel?
A) Roger Quaife B) Lord Reginald Collingwood
C) Lord Gilbey D) Sir Walter Luke
67. Who is the enemy of Lewis Eliot?
A) Sir Francis Getliffe B) Sir Hector Rose
C) Michael Brodzinski D) Caroline Quaife
68. Who was working in Whitehall alongside the new rising star of the Tory cabinet,
Roger Quaife?
A) Sir Walter Luke B) Lewis Eliot
C) Sir Francis Getliffe D) Sir Hector Rose
69. The novel is set ‘Corridors of Power’ in years …………….
A) 1945 to 1955 B) 1955 to 1957
C) 1960 to 1966 D) 1966 to 1967
70. Quaife obtains his first government post as a ……………….
A) Junior admiral of defence B) Junior minister of defence
C) Senior Lieutenant in army D) Senior colonel in army
71. Who is hated by everyone in “The Devil’s Disciple”?
A) Essie B) Riched Dudgeon C) Judith Anderson D) Mrs. Dudgeon
72. Who is town’s Minister in “The Devil’s Disciple”?
A) Mr. Anderson B) Judith Anderson
C) Dick Dudgeon D) Richard Dudgeon
73. Dick Dudgeon is an outcast from his family ……………….
A) Colonial Webster bridge old Hampshire
B) Colonial Webster bridge New Hampshire
C) Colonial Webster bridge North Hampshire
D) Colonial Webster bridge South Hampshire
74. What did Dick get from his father’s will in “The Devil’s Disciple”?
A) A big house B) A big factory
C) The bulk of his estate D) A new small estate
75. Why the British hanged Essie’s father in “The Devil’s Discipline”?
A) As an enemy B) As a politician C) As a neighbor D) As arebel
76. Who was arrested by British soldiers in Anderson’s home?
A) Essie B) Mrs. Dudgeon C) Mr. Anderson D) Dick
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77. In the Devil Disciple’s, the court proceedings are run by the charming …………
A) British General Burgoyne B) British Army General
C) British Court Lawyer D) High Court Lawyer
78. Which country is the setting for George Bernard Shaw’s play The Devil’s Disciple?
A) Ireland B) USA C) Italy D) Israel
79. George Bernard Shaw considered all of the following values important except
……………
A) Vegetarianism B) Socialism
C) Equal rights for women D) Anti-abortionism
80. G.B. Shaw was awarded Nobel Prize in ……………….
A) 1915 B) 1925 C) 1916 D) 1926
81. What year was Ezra Pound born?
A) 1972 B) 1870 C) 1885 D) 1912
82. Which university did Pound transfer to in order to complete his undergraduate
degree?
A) University of Pennsylvania B) Oxford University
C) University College London D) Hamilton College
83. What was the first name of Pound’s wife?
A) Dorothy B) Hilda C) Dora D) Olivia
84. After leaving Paris, which European country did Pound settle in?
A) Italy B) Spain C) Germany D) Greece
85. Which mental hospital was Pound sentenced to in Washington, D.C.?
A) St. Joseph’s B) St. Elizabeth’s C) St. Katherine’s D) St. Francis’s
86. What were some defining characteristics of Imagism?
A) Poems written from the perspective of fictional characters
B) Poems about nature C) Economy of language and a more concise, non-abstract poetic style D) Flowery language and extended metaphor
87. Who is arrested Ezra Pound in 1945?
A) American Partisans B) Italian Partisans
C) British Partisans D) Public Society
88. Who is lover of Sigismondo?
A) Aprodite B) Hagaromo C) Kuanon D) Ixxota
89. Who is famous German Pianist?
A) Faustus B) Gerhart munch
C) Mayer Amschel Rothschild D) James Joyce
90. Which young English Poet died, while he as at war?
A) Dorothy Pound B) Marwell C) G.H. Hopkins D) J.P. Angold
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91. In ‘The Importance of Being Earnest’, Algy creates a fictional character called
……………..
A) Worthing B) Fairfax C) Bunbury D) Cardew
92. Match the following:
List – I (Characters) List – II (Aphorisms)
a. Algernon - 1. Dear uncle – Jack is so very serious!
b. Cecily - 2. If I ever get married, I’ll certainly try to forget the fact c. Aunt Augusta - 3. This suspense is terrible, I hope it will last d. Gwendolyne - 4. I’m not in favour of engagements Codes: a b c d a b c d A) 3 4 1 2 B) 4 1 3 2
C) 2 4 1 3 D) 2 1 4 3
93. The setting of the Act III in “The Importance of Being Earnest” is at the Manor
House in …………………
A) Liverpool B) Woolton C) Lancashire D) Wessex
94. Where has Cecily recorded her engagement to Jack’s brother Ernest?
A) In the Time B) In the family bible
C) In a letter to her mother D) In her diary
95. Who is Cecily’s governess?
A) Gwendolen B) Lady Bracknell C) Jack D) Miss Prism
96. What is Jack’s father’s name?
A) John B) Peter C) He doesn’t know D) Ernest
97. What food does Cecily serve to Gwendolen?
A) Bread and butter B) Nothing C) Cake D)
Crackers
98. At what age does Cecily become independent from Jack?
A) 18 B) 21 C) 35 D) 42
99. Where was Oscar Wilde born in 1854?
A) Belfast B) Dublin C) Edinburgh D) London
100. Oscar Wilde was an editor of the magazine ……………..
A) Corn Hill Magazine B) The Criterion
C) The Lady’s World Magazine D) The Morning chronicle
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MODERN AND CONTEMPORARY PERIODS
ANSWER KEY -Unit – V (100 )
1 B 21 C 41 A 61 C 81 C
2 D 22 D 42 B 62 A 82 D
3 C 23 D 43 C 63 C 83 A
4 B 24 C 44 B 64 A 84 A
5 D 25 D 45 A 65 C 85 B
6 A 26 B 46 C 66 A 86 C
7 C 27 D 47 C 67 C 87 B
8 A 28 B 48 A 68 B 88 D
9 B 29 A 49 C 69 B 89 B
10 A 30 D 50 A 70 B 90 D
11 C 31 B 51 D 71 B 91 C
12 D 32 B 52 D 72 A 92 D
13 C 33 A 53 C 73 B 93 B
14 A 34 D 54 B 74 C 94 D
15 D 35 A 55 A 75 D 95 D
16 C 36 C 56 C 76 D 96 D
17 C 37 B 57 A 77 A 97 C
18 D 38 C 58 A 78 B 98 C
19 A 39 B 59 D 79 D 99 B
20 C 40 B 60 D 80 B 100 C
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Cell: 7200430099 Whats up: 9442738785 POLYTECHNIC TRB –ENGLISH
TEST Unit – VIII (100) LANGUAGE AND LINGUISTICS.
1. The family of indo – European languages has …………. major groups
A) 2 B) 4 C) 7 D) 9
2. English belongs to the ………..
A) East Teutonic B) West Teutonic
C) North Teutonic D) South Teutonic
3. Which period is called as period of full inflexions?
A) Ancient Period B) Old English Period
C) Middle English Period D) Modern Period
4. The Great Vowel Shift was a major change in the pronunciation of the English
language in ………….
A) Old English Period B) Middle English Period
C) Modern Period D) Post Modern Period
5. According to ………. Law is that voiceless fricatives in Germanic became voiced, if
the proceeding syllable was unstressed.
A) Verner’s B) Grimm’s C) Saussure’s D) Jacobson’s
6. Mutation is called as ……..
A) Ablaut B) Gradation C) Apophony D) Umlaut
7. Who says, “The standard English is that which was a spoken within certain social
boundaries with an extraordinary degree of uniformity all over the country”?
A) Daniel Jones B) H.C. Wyld C) Rask D) Verner
8. BBC was set up in ………. in London
A) 1920 B) 1921 C) 1922 D) 1923
9. English of the southern upper class people of England became the …….
A) Local Dialect B) Standard English
C) American English D) Indian English
10. Who used the term Strong Verbs and Weak Verbs?
A) Grimm B) H.C. Wyld C) Rask D) Verner
11. Morphology is the scientific study of the ……….
A) arrangement of words in a sentence B) meaning of words
C) history of words D) formation of words
12. ………. it’s the minimal meaningful units.
A) Phoneme B) Morpheme C) Vowel D) Consonants
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13. “Morpheme is a short segment of language that meets three criteria”. Which is not
a criteria of morpheme?
A) It is minimal sound unit of a language
B) It is a word or part of a word that has a meaning
C) It cannot be divided into smaller meaningful units
D) It recurs in differing verbal environments with a relatively stable meaning
14. The morphs which belong to same morpheme are called ………
A) Phoneme B) Syntax C) Allomorphs D) Lexicon
15. The word ‘happy’ is a an example of ….. morpheme
A) Non – syllabic morpheme B) Zero Morpheme
C) Free Morpheme D) Bound morpheme
16. A morpheme which can add another affix is called as ……..
A) Inflextional Morpheme B) Derivational Morpheme
C) Non – Syllabic morpheme D) Zero Morpheme
17. If the original word and new word are different parts of speech, it is called as
…………..
A) Class maintaining B) Circum fix
C) Class changing D) Simul fix
18. ………. is a morpheme that is attached to a word at the end of a root
A) An affix B) A prefix C) A suffix D) An infix
19. ………… is a group of people speaking a common dialect
A) Speech community B) Literal community
C) Linguistic society D) Language Association
20. ……… is the variety of language according to the use
A) Dialect B) Register C) Idiolect D) Lexicology
21. ………. is the scientific study of language, and involves an analysis of language form,
language meaning, and language in context
A) Linguistics B) Morphology C) Phonology D) Lexicography
22. Which is the branch of linguistics that deals with historical development of
language through time?
A) Clinical Linguistics B) Computational Linguistics
C) Comparative Linguistics D) Diachronic Linguistics
23. Which is the branch of linguistics that deals with the study of the language as it
exists at particular point of time?
A) Philosophical Linguistics B) Socio Linguistics
C) Synchronic Linguistics D) Statistical Linguistics
24. ………….. is the study of sign processes (Semiosis), or signification and
communication, signs, and symbols
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A) Semiotics B) Lexicography C) Lexicology D)
Philology
25. ……….. is the arrangement of words in a sentence and the study of the principles
and rules for constructing sentences in natural languages
A) Syntax B) Semantics C) Lexis D) Graphics
26. ………. is the study of origin and history of words
A) Phonology B) Morphology C) Etymology D) Dialectology
27. Who distinguished between the nations of langue and parole in his formulation of
structural linguistics?
A) Bloomfield B) Panini C) Noam Chomsky D) Ferdinand de Saussure
28. Sociolinguistics is the study of the relation between …..
A) People and society B) Language and society
C) linguistics and grammar D) grammar and structure
29. The word ‘ Dialect’ comes from language
A) Latin B) Greek C) French D) Celtic
30. Phrase structure grammar is a type of generative grammar in which constituent
structures are represented by ……
A) rewrite rules B) descriptive rules
C) abstract rules D) linguistic rules
31. …….. is a word or group of words that function as a unit and can make up larger
grammatical units
A) Simple sentence B) Compound Sentence
C) Complex Sentence D) Constituent
32. Which of the following pairs not a minimal pair?
A) fan and van B) pin and bin
C) thin and thing D) bank and bank
33. …………………. is the language, especially the vocabulary, peculiar to a particular
trade, profession, or group.
A) A lingua franca B) Jargon C) Elite language D) Dialect
34. Which is back part of mouth called as velum?
A) Alveolar Ridge B) Teeth Ridge C) Hard Palate D) Soft Palate
35. Which is not a division under manner of articulation?
A) Bilabial B) Plosives C) Fricatives D) Affricates
36. How many pure vowels are in English?
A) 44 B) 12 C) 20 D) 24
37. The English Pronouncing Dictionary is written by ….
A) Dr. Johnson B) James Boswell C) John Webster D) Daniel Jones
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38. How many cardinal vowels are in English?
A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9
39. The part of the teeth ridge is called as ………(10)
A) Palato – alveolar B) Alveolar Ridge
C) Hard Palate D) Soft Palate
40. A syllable which is arrested by a consonant is called ………..
A) Open syllable B) Closed syllable
C) Open and closed syllable D) Consonant cluster
41. A long vowel is indicated by ……
A) Semi –colon B) colon C) comma D) full stop
42. Semi vowels are called as ……
A) Approximants B) Palatal C) Alveolar D) Dental
43. The term “Broad Phonetic Transcription” was first used by ……..
A) Kruszewski B) Daniel Jones C) Turbetzkey D) Webster
44. The sound variations of the same phoneme are called ……….
A) Allomorphs B) Morphemes C) Allophones D) None
45. Who formed the word ‘Received Pronunciation’?
A) Kruszewski B) Daniel Jones C)Turbetzkey D) Bloomfield
46. Which sound is a combination of two adjacent vowel sounds within the same
syllable?
A) Consonants B) Diphthongs C) Pure Vowels D) Semi Vowels
47. Which speech sounds are produced by the obstruction caused by the vocal organs?
A) Pure Vowels B) Diphthongs C) Consonants D) Morphemes
48. Bilabial sounds are produced when the lips are brought together?
A) Bilabial B) Alveolar C) Palatal D) Palato – alveolar
49. ………… are produced with stricture of open approximation
A) Semi – vowels B) Lateral C) Plosives D) Fricatives
50. Which is central element in syllable and it is called as Nucleus of a syllable?
A) Consonants B) Morpheme C) Plosive D) Vowel
51. The rise and fall of the voice in speaking is called …………
A) Intonation B) Rhythm C) Pause D) Juncture
52. …………… is the branch of linguistics and it is the study of meaning of words,
phrases and sentences
A) Semantics B) Pragmatics C) Etymology D) Phonology
53. The word semantics was first used by ……., a French philologist
A) Daniel Jones B) Bloomfield C) Chomsky D) Michel Breal
54. Which has same spelling but different pronunciation and meaning?
A) Synonymy B) Antonymy C) Homophones D) Homography
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55. ……….. is a branch of linguistics concerned with the use of language in social
contexts and the ways in which people produce and comprehend meanings
through language
A) Semantics B) Pragmatics C) Etymology D) Phonology
56. The work ‘pragmatics’ comes from Greek word ‘Pragmatikos’ which means
……………..
A) Fit for action B) use of language C) tongue D) mouth
57. ‘NATO’ is an example of ……..
A) Holonymy B) Clipping word C) Blending word D) An acronym
58. Which of the following skills in not included in LSRW?
A) Learning B) Speaking C) Reading D) Writing
59. Which skill could be enhanced by focusing on making the students listen to the
sounds of that particular language?
A) Speaking B) Reading C) Listening D) Writing
60. Which is the ability to understand language?
A) Expressive language B) Receptive language
C) Phonetic Language D) Fluency
61. Which method is to enable the learner to communicate effectively and
appropriately in the various situations?
A) The Direct Method B) Grammar – Translation Method
C) Audio – lingual D) Communicative Language Teaching
62. Who is called as ‘The father of Modern Linguistics’?
A) Ferdinand De Saussure B) Denial Jones
C) Terrence Deacon D) David Dowty
63. Chomsky called the basic sentence as …….
A) Morpheme B) Phoneme C) Kernel D) Root word
64. Diachronic Linguistics and synchronic Linguistics are introduced by …
A) Bloomfield B) Ferdinand De Saussure
C) Denial Jones D) Terrence Deacon
65. Structural linguistics divided a sentence into ……
A) Simple sentence B) Phrase
C) Immediate Constituents D) Words
66. Transformational Generative Grammar rules are ….. are rewrite rules.
A) Prescriptive rules B) Descriptive rules
C) rewrite rules D) Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
67. The word ‘photo’ is an example of …..
A) Clipping Word B) Composition
C) Syncopation D) Blending Word
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68. Which is example of portmanteau word?
A) UGC B) Exam C) Brunch D) Don
69. A vowel elides and the consonants on the either side run together in a word is
known as ……
A) Clipping Word B) Composition
C) Syncopation D) Blending Word
70. Which of the following words is not an ephonym?
A) Boycott B) Sandwich C) Bedlam D) Breakfast
71. The habit of avoiding an unpleasant idea by substituting some indirect word is
known as ….
A) Euphemism B) Prudery
C) Ephonym D) Regeneration
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LANGUAGE AND LINGUISTICS.
ANSWER KEY - Unit – VIII (71)
1 D 21 A 41 A 61 D
2 B 22 D 42 A 62 A
3 B 23 C 43 A 63 C
4 B 24 A 44 B 64 B
5 A 25 A 45 A 65 C
6 D 26 C 46 B 66 D
7 B 27 D 47 C 67 A
8 C 28 B 48 A 68 C
9 B 29 B 49 D 69 C
10 A 30 A 50 A 70 D
11 D 31 D 51 A 71 A
12 B 32 D 52 A
13 A 33 B 53 D
14 A 34 D 54 D
15 C 35 A 55 B
16 B 36 B 56 A
17 C 37 D 57 D
18 C 38 C 58 A
19 A 39 B 59 C
20 D 40 A 60 B
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