Unit – I

TEACHING APTITUDE*Mrs.P.Thamil Mani

1.1. Education and Teaching

Of all the creations of God, human life is the most

sacred. It has two aspects the biological and the

sociological. While the biological aspects of human life is

maintained and transmitted by nutrition and reproduction,

the social aspects of human life is maintained and

transmitted by Education. Teaching is one of the

instruments of Education and its special function is to

impart understanding and skill.

Teaching is a relationship which is established between

three focal points in education – the teacher, the child and

the subject.

Teaching is the process by which the teacher brings

the child and the subject matter together. The Teacher and

the taught are active – the former in teaching and the

latter in learning.

1.2. Nature of teaching

One of the basic truths in education is that the

quality of education depends upon the quality of the

teacher.

Teaching is more than standing before a class and

applying a few specific techniques. It is not merely

presenting text book information and then testing the

students’ ability to repeat it.

Teaching is not a mechanical process. It is a

challenging job.

Teaching is not a ‘monologue’ but a ‘dialogue’ in

which one partner is vocal but the other partner may part-

take in the dialogue by simple expressions on the face or by

brief participation in the form of a query.

Teaching is an art and the teacher is an artist. As

the artist has certain principles which help him acquire

proficiency in his profession, so a teacher also has certain

principles which help him acquire proficiency in teaching.

The teacher has to be very careful artist.

Finally teaching is an art, a science and skill. The

teacher has to have the creative proficiency of an artist,

precise attitude of a scientist and perfected skill of

craftsmen.

1.3 Objectives of Teaching

Teaching is a planned activity. Teaching is

purposeful for any classroom teaching, the teacher

constructs definite instructional objectives for each

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* Dr.P.Thamil Mani, Principal, A.S.College of Education, Boystown, Madurai – 625 010

content unit. When the teacher plans his teaching on the

basis of instructional objectives, the instruction becomes

objective – based teaching.

Effective teaching depends upon the instructional

objective. Instructional objectives are the actual student

behavior or outcome expected at the end of a content or

unit.

Instructional objectives determine the level of

teaching. The higher the level of instructional objectives,

the higher will be the level of teaching.

A particular unit or content can be taught at the

higher level or lower level. If the teacher wishes to teach

content at higher or lower level, the instructional

objectives should be constructed accordingly.

According to the eminent Educational Psychologist.

Benjamin S.Bloom, the educational objectives describing

student behavior can be classified into three broad

categories or domains and these categories are in

hierarchical order,

The domains are;

i. COGNITIVE DOMAIN (Thinking – intellectual out

comes)

ii. AFFECTIVE DOMAIN (Feelings, Attitudes,

Emotions, Sentiments etc.)

iii. PSYCHOMOTOR DOMAIN (Acting or Doing; motor

skills)

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These domains are hierarchical because when learning

takes place, the first activity is a mental process trying

to understand, analyse, synthesize or associate the

information with something already known. This thought

process comes under the cognitive domain.

In the second stage, the knowledge acquired begins to

produce changes in the interest, aptitudes and feelings of

the individual and objectives describing these changes are

categories belonging to the affective domain.

In the third stage, mental and motor skills such as

writing, talking are acquired under psycho-motor domain.

Besides the above classification, each domain can be

further split up into major categories which are also in the

hierarchical order and these categories are described below;

1.4 Teaching for cognitive domain According to Bloom, a teacher can design his teaching

to present a concept or content for students’ understandings

at six levels on the basis of six instructional objectives.

1.4.1. Knowledge

Knowledge level teaching develops the ability to recall

many things usually without any change.

Examples: i. Name the Prime Minister of India.

ii. Who wrote Thirukkural? Students can answer

who, what, when and

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where, questions, students can recall facts;

1.4.2. Comprehension

Comprehension level teaching develops the ability to

understand things through.

(a) Interpretation (b) Summarization (c) Example

and (d) Definition.

Example: State the meaning of democracy in your own words.

1.4.3. Application

Application level teaching develops the ability to

apply the already understood or known things to a particular

problem or situation.

Example: Write a sentence using the verb ‘can’

1.4.4. AnalysisAnalysis – level teaching develops the ability to

identify the essential parts of the thing. The student

takes part of information and discovers hidden meaning,

relationship or basic structures.

Example: Why cannot a fish live on the land?

1.4.5. SynthesisSynthesis level teaching develops the ability to put

the parts together to predict something new. It is the

ability to assemble parts into a whole.

Example: Write a sentence using a verb and noun.

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1.4.6. EvaluationEvaluation level teaching develops the ability to judge

the worth of a thing “The student judges the value of a

thing for a purpose.

Example: What is your opinion towards inter – caste

marriage?

1.5. Teaching for affective domain: five levels

A teacher can design his teaching to develop student’s

emotions at five levels as follows:

1.5.1. Receiving (Attending)

The learner becomes aware of an idea. He listens for

example, the learner listens to a talk on ‘poetry’.

1.5.2. RespondingThe learner does something after receiving the idea.

Example: The learner reads the poetry for pleasure.

1.5.3. Valuing The learner values the worth of a thing.

Example: The learner holds the view that reading of

poetry provides pleasure.

1.5.4. Organization The learner develops a conscious basis for choice –

making for example, the learner talks about poetry in the

company of friends who like poems.

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1.5.5. Characterization At this level, the learner characterizes, himself as

a young poet.

1.6. Teaching for Psycho – Motor Domain: four levels

A teacher can design his teaching at four levels to

developmental and motor skills among students.

1.6.1. Observing The learner observes the pronunciation of a

particular word.

1.6.2. Imitating The learner begins to imitate the teacher and

pronounce the word.

1.6.3. Practicing The learner follows the method of pronouncing and

practice the skill.

1.6.4. Adapting The learner attains perfection of the skill and

adapts his own style.

1.7. Characteristics of Teaching

Following are the important characteristics of teaching

i. Teaching is an occupation or a profession in whichteacher instructs and educates.

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ii. Teaching is a task which

facilitates learning.

iii. Teaching is observable through

pupil teacher interaction.

iv. Teaching is a linguistic

process communication by the use of a language.

v. Teaching is telling, showing and doing functions.

vi. Teaching is a therapy to

learners.

vii. Teaching is prescription.

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viii. Teaching is an interactive

process or face to face encounter.

ix. Teaching is considered art as well as science.

x. Teaching is measurable and quantifiable by

observational techniques.

xi. Teaching is modifiable by the use of mechanism of

feed back devices.

xii. Teaching can be analyzed in the

following ways.

a. Types of teacher - activity. b. Types of educational objectives.c. Types of learning conditions.d. Types of learning components.

xiii. Teaching is helping the child

to respond to his environment.

xiv. Teaching is stimulation and

encouragement.

xv. Teaching is giving guidance to the child.

xvi. Teaching is training the

emotions of the child.

xvii. Teaching is both a conscious

and unconscious process.

xviii. Teaching is a means of

preparation.

xix. Teaching is formal as well as

informal.

xx. Teaching is a form of social service.

xxi. Teaching is a relationship.

xxii. Teaching is a skilled

occupation.

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1.8. Learner’s Characteristics Learning is a process. It involves changes occurring

over a short period of time which enable the learner to

respond more adequately to the situation.

We can ensure effective learning by paying attention

to the following aspects;

1.8.1. Needs of the learner When the need of the learner is strong enough and he

sets definite goal for achievement, learning will be more

effective.

1.8.2. Readiness to learn Learning readiness is essential for effective

learning, nothing is gained by attempting to teach someone

who is not emotionally, physically, intellectually ready for

what is to be taught.

1.8.3. Situation The main task of the teacher is to organize good

learning situations for the child.

1.8.4. Interaction Interaction can be in the form of observable physical

movements or emotional reactions or verbal reactions.

Following are the main characteristics of learning;

i. Learning is growth

ii. Learning is adjustment

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iii. Learning is organizing

experience.

iv. Learning is purposeful

v. Learning is intelligent.

vi. Learning is action

vii. Learning is both individual and

social,

viii. Learning is a product of the

environment.

ix. True learning affects the

conduct of the learner.

x. Learning is whole.

xi. Learning frequently depends

upon insight.

1.9. Methods of Teaching

Education is a continuous process from pre-primary to

college and university level, curriculum is designed for

different stages of education, curriculum development is a

cyclic process. Method of teaching is the most important

component of the process. Various types of instructional

methods are used in educational process. The instructional

methods are classified on different bases.

Teaching is a group activity teacher, learner and

content are three major components of teaching or variables

of teaching. Teacher is considered as an independent

variable and student is dependent variable when content and

instructional method is known as interfering variable. The

role of these components changes in different instructional

methods.

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Types of instructional methods on the basis of roles of

teaching variables.

i. Teacher – controlled instruction.ii. Learner – controlled Instruction.iii. Group – controlled Instruction.

Teacher controlled Instructions are also known as

autocratic style or authoritarian method. Learner

controlled Instructions are termed as permissive style or

democratic methods.

1.10. General Categorization

i. Inspirational methods.

ii. Expository methods.

iii. Natural Learning method.

iv. Individualized method.

v. Encounter method.

vi. Discovery method.

vii. Group method.

The teaching learning process can be more effective if

the teacher selects and employs appropriate method

considering the situation, student’s age, qualification and

interest.

1.11. Teaching AidsAccording to Devyer “Educationional aids are the

realism of Education. They provide reality to the teaching

learning process.

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1.11.1. Meaning of Audio – Visual Aid

According to Dictionary of Education, “Audio – Visual

aids are any device by means of which the learning process

may be encouraged or carried on through senses of hearing or

sight.”

1.11.2. Where to use Audio – Visual AidA.V.Aids can be used for the following purpose:

i. The subject matter is complex and difficult to explain

ii. The Material is quite lengthy.

iii. The object is not visible to the

naked eyes.

iv. The object is too large to carry

v. To explain the matters in a better way.

1.11.3 When to use A.V.Aidsi. Introducing a lesson

ii. Developing a lesson

iii. Interpreting an idea

iv. Creating real life situation

v. Motivating the student and creating interest among

them.

1.11.4. Characteristics of A.V. Aidsi. It facilitates understanding and comprehension.

ii. It helps in memorizing the material

for a long time.

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iii. It develops the perception and

attention of the learner.

iv. It provides reinforcement to the

learner.

v. It provides positive transfer of learner

1.11.5 Importance of A.V.AidsIt makes teaching – learning effective.

Following are its importance

i. It provides motivation to the pupils by arousingtheir interest and curiousity. It helps to increasethe understanding by removing ambiguities of thesubject.

ii. It provides direct experience to the learner bybringing them in direct contact with the objects.

iii. It makes learning permanent.iv. It gives the students real and complete concept of

the subject matter.v. It saves time, energy and burden of the teacher.vi. It helps to create natural and real environment for

learning.vii. Mere chalk and talk do not help.

It gives variety and provides different tools in thehands of the teacher.

viii. It enables the teacher to followthe maxims of teaching like ‘concrete to abstract’‘known to unknown’ and ‘learning by doing’

ix. It helps in meeting the needs of different types ofstudents – individual differences among learners.

x. It encourages active participation of the studentsand healthy classroom interaction.

1.12. Evaluation Systems

Evaluation is a continuous process. It goes onconstantly during lessons. It is concerned with findingout how far students have learned as a consequence ofteaching. It is of two types.

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i. Criterion – Reference Evaluation:-It assesses the students performance standard or

criterion without any mention of the performance level of the other students of the

group.

ii. Non – Referenced Evaluation:-It assess the students performance relative to other

students of the group. Students are awarded marks and remarks.

1.12.1 Difference between Test, Examination and

EvaluationA ‘test’ aims to enquire whether the material taught is

still in the memory of the pupils or not. It lays more

emphasis on memory and remembrance. Tests are given weekly,

fortnightly and monthly.

An ‘Examination’ aims at realizing a required standard

of attainment.

‘Evaluation’ is the process of gathering interpreting

evidence on changes in the behaviour of all students as they

progress through school.

Thus evaluation means to judge the achievement of the

student. The measurement is generally done through test and

examination.

1.12.2. Purpose and function of Evaluation

1.12.2.1. Diagnosis It helps to locate and identify the weakness in

learning on the part of a learner. It helps in

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producing suitable remedial courses for a given group of

learners. Eg. Test given at the beginning of a Bridge

Course.

1.12.2.1. PredictionIt helps to discover potential abilities and aptitudes

among the examinees. Eg. National Talent Search Test.

1.12.2.3. SelectionIt helps to select suitable persons for a course or

carrier.

1.12.2.4. GradingIt helps to rank – order the learners of a given group.

1.12.2.5. GuidanceIt assists a person in making decision about courses

and careers

1.13. Importance of Evaluation

i. It enables the teachers to know whether the students

have learnt what has been taught to them.

ii. To evaluate the achievement of

students with regard to skills such is listening,

speaking, reading and writing.

iii. To pass a judgment whether teaching

was successful or not.

iv. To judge whether methodology used

was successful or not.

v. It becomes the basis of constant monitoring.

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1.14. Tools for Evaluation i. Achievement test

ii. Intelligence test

iii. Personality test

iv. Aptitude test

v. Questionnaire

vi. Observation

vii. Rating scale

viii. Interview

ix. Check list

x. Socio – metric test

xi. Cumulative records

Model Questions

1. Which one of the following is the main objective of

teaching?

(a) To give information related to the syllabus(b) To develop thinking power of students(c) To dictate notes to students(d) To Prepare students to pass examination.

2. Which one of the following is a good method of teaching?(a) Lecture and Dictation(b) Seminar and Project(c) Seminar and Dictation(d) Dictation and Assignment

3. Teacher uses teaching aids for(a) Making teaching interesting(b) Making teaching within understanding level of students(c) Making students attentive(d) The sake of its use

4. Effectiveness of teaching depends on_(a) Qualification of teacher

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(b) Personality of teacher(c) Handwriting of teacher(d) Subject understanding of teacher

5. Which one of the following is not characteristic of a good question paper?

(a) Objectivity(b) Subjectivity(c) No use of vague words(d) Reliable

6. Bibliography given in a research report(a) Shows vast knowledge of the researcher(b) Helps those interested in further research(c) Has no relevance to research(d) All the above

7. A Research problem is feasible only when__(a) It has utility and relevance(b) It is researchable(c) It is new and adds something to knowledge(d) All the above

8. Micro teaching is most effective for the student-teacher _

(a) During the practice -teaching(b) After the practice -teaching(c) Before the practice -teaching(d) None of the above

9. Teacher uses visual -aids to make learning __(a) Simple(b) More knowledge(c) Quicker(d) Interesting

10. Which is least important factor in teaching(a) punishing the students(b) Maintaining discipline in the class(c) Lecturing in impressive way(d) Drawing sketches and diagrams on the black – board

11. The present annual examination system ___(a) Encourage cramming(b) Does not encourage the habit of studying properly

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(c) Does not encourage the student to attend the class properly

(d) All the above

12. The chief aim of education is__(a) Development of arguing power only(b) Development of meditation only(c) Both ( A ) and ( B)(d) To give information

13. The quality of teaching is reflected in__(a) The attendance of the students in the class(b) The pass percentage of the students(c) The quality of the questions asked by the students(d) The period of silence maintained in the class.

14. The Discussion method can be used when __(a) The subject is very difficult(b) The subject is very easy(c) The subject is difficult(d) All the above

15. A Successful teacher is he who(a) Complete the course before time(b) Motivate the students to learn (c) Creates better result of his class(d) Helps the students in preparing better notes

16. By which of the following groups of subjects can ateacher develop better teaching Methods?(a) Sociology and Philosophy(b) Philosophy and Psychology(c) Psychology and Sociology(d) None of the above

17. To become popular among students, the teacher must __(a) Help them personally(b) Arrange periodical tour programmes(c) Give notes while teaching(d) Maintain good social relations

18. A student is trying to solve a problem without the helpof his teacher. Teacher is must___(a) Advise his student to seek assistance from his friends(b) Be attentive towards his student(c) Rebuke his student for his foolish act

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(d) Appreciate his personal efforts.

19. Which of the following elements has minimum role ineffective teaching?(a) Planning of teaching(b) Organisation of teaching(c) Teaching aids(d) Teaching related feelings

20. Planning of teaching is not related with__(a) Planning of teaching(b) Organisation of teaching(c) Teaching aids(d) Teaching related feelings

21. Analysis of task is related with ___(a) The learning activities of the students(b) The expected learning behaviors of the students(c) The learning conditions(d) The formulation of criterion for expected performance and all the above

22. The advantage of Analysis of task is__(a) To familiarize a teacher with teaching work(b) To familiarize a teacher with learning activities ofthe student(c) Both of the above(d) None of the above

23. The skill analysis is not related with _(a) The function performed during teaching period by a teacher(b) Asking questions(c) Conducting experiments(d) Explanation and

24. During content analysis a teacher focuses upon__(a) The topic(b) The sub topic(c) Content elements(d) All the above

25. The teacher role in higher educational level is to __(a) Provide information to students(b) Promote self-learning in students(c) Encourage healthy competition among students

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(d) Help students to solve their personal problems

26. How will you demonstrate your impartial behaviour?(a) By maintaining his high self – esteem and egoistic behaviour.(b) By making own behaviour more balance: and fair.(c) By assaulting the teacher.(d) By criticizing the teaching community

27. TV is superior to radio as teaching and because it (a) Is costly (b) Invites two senses – hearing and vision

simultaneously leading to more accurate form of learning

(c) Is generally liked by pupils (d) all of the above.

28. The adage of maintaining good relations with others is (a) Kaleidoscopic personality (b) Sycophancy(c) Attractive features and mental make up(d) Control over emotions.

29. An effective teacher adopts the norms of the (a) democratic society (b) autocratic society(c) laizzes faire society (d) all of the above according to the situations.

30. The students who keep on asking questions in the class.(a) should be encoraged to find answers independently(b) should be encoraged to participate in the classroom discussion.(c) Should be advised to meet the teacher after the class.(d) Should be encoraged to continue questioning.

31. Use of telecast materials (a) enhances concentration and learning.(b) Increases retention power(c) reduces the burden of the teacher(d) all of the above.

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32. A teacher who is not able to draw the attention of his students should (a) evaluate his teaching method and improve it(b) find fault in his pupils(c) resign from the post(d) start dictating

33. If a student, wears some odd dress and attends your class, you will (a) ask the student do not to attend the class(b) make a joke on him.(c) Communicate him not to wear such cloths(d) Not give any attention on it.

34. Classroom discipline can be maintained effectively(a) by putting on fancy clothes in the classroom(b) providing a programme which is according to the need and interest of the pupils (c) knowing the cause of indiscipline and handing it withstern hand (d) none of the above.

35. Teachers should study educational philosophy because (a) they do not have their own philosophy (b) they do not know it(c) philosophy is the backbone of all disciplines(d) they may improve their work by clarifying their own philosophy.

36. There will be better communication in a lecture if a teacher.(a) reads from prepared notes(b) prepares the notes well in advance and uses them as aguide(c) talks extempore(d) talks extempore drawing examples from other disciplines.

37. A teacher meeting his students for the first time should (a) develop rapport with the class(b) start teaching without caring the students likes and dislikes

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(c) give a broad outline of the whole subject (d) (b) and (c) both

38. Before starting instruction a teacher should(a) Be aware of the environmental variables acting on themind of the pupils (b) Know the existing knowledge of his students and theirbackground knowledge(c) Be competent enough to arouse the curiosity of his pupils(d) All of the above.

39. A teacher can guide students very much efficiently, because (a) students obey teacher’s orders(b) he is the boss of the students(c) students fear him(d) he understands student’s psychology.

40. The professional requirements of a teacher as explained in the UNESCO publication is/ are(a) Innovativeness in approach and teaching strategies(b) mastery over the subject and competency for eaching(c) justice to the profession(d) All of the above

41. Effective teaching means(a) Corporal punishment given to students at the time of moral offences.(b) Love, cooperation, sympathy, affection and encouragement given to students.(c) Individualized instruction and open classroom discussion(d) both (a) and (c)

42. To stop malpractice of mass-copying in the examinations, what will you do?(a) you will give punishment to student and his parent.(b) You will give severe punishment to students.(c) You will try to give moral education to the students.(d) You will rusticate the students forever from the school.

43. A teacher learns the maximum from the (a) books

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(b) principal(c) well wishers(d) students

44. Why is a teacher is called as a leader of the class?(a) He masters the art of oratory like a politicalleader.(b) He is the autocratic emperor of his class.(c) He belongs to a recognized teacher's union.(d) He is a maker of the future of his students.

45. Quality of education in a school/college can bemeasured through(a) manpower, teachers and principal available(b) infrastructural facilities available(c) students' achievement(d) all of the above

46. An effective teacher is expected to(a) reduce the anxiety level of students to moderatelevel(b) encourage the students to make initiative(c) to make students feel that education is their need(d) all of the above.

47. Sympathy has great educational significance, It leadsto altruism and true fellowfeeling. Thus teachers shoulddevelop(a) a egostic personality(b) neutral feelings(c) good moral conduct.(d) sympathic towards good students only

48. How should a teacher behave with the students ?(a) Father like (b) A friend like (c) General (d) Elder like

49. If a teacher has to establish his credibility in evaluating answer scripts he must be (a) Lenient (b) strict (c) objective (d) prompt

50. A serious minded teacher as a rule(a) allows the mistakes to be committed and explains how

to minimise those mistakes

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(b) takes all precaution so that students never corn, nitmistakes

(c) never allows any mistakes on the part of his students.

(d) should mildly punish students who commit mistakes.

S.No. Key S.No. Key S.No. Key S.No. Key S.No. Key

1 b 11 d 21 d 31 a 41 d

2 b 12 c 22 c 32 a 42 c

3 b 13 c 23 a 33 d 43 d

4 d 14 b 24 d 34 b 44 b

5 b 15 b 25 b 35 d 45 d

6 a 16 b 26 b 36 b 46 d

7 d 17 a 27 b 37 d 47 c

8 a 18 d 28 c 38 d 48 b

9 d 19 d 29 a 39 d 49 c

10 a 20 d 30 b 40 d 50 a

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Unit -II

RESEARCH APTITUDE

* Prof.R.Bernard Shaw2.1. Introduction

Educational research is a systematic and scholarly

application of the scientific method to find out solution to

educational problems.

2.2. Characteristics of Research

i. Gathering of New Knowledge

ii. Employs reliable data

iii. Logical and objective

iv. Organize data in quantitative form

v. Careful generalization

2.3. Types of Research

i. Pure or Basic Research

ii. Applied Research (Action Research)

iii. Historical Research

iv. Analytical Research

v. Descriptive Research (Cash study/Statistical)

vi. Experimental Research

vii. Exploratory Research

viii. Business Research

2.4. Research DesignA research design is the arrangement of conditions for

collection and analysis of data in a manner that aims to

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combine relevance to research purpose with economy in

procedure.

2.4.1 Steps in Research Designi. Nature of study

ii. Sources of Information

iii. Objectives of the study

iv. Formulation of hypothesis

v. Choice of area and period of study

vi. Dimensions of study

vii. Bases for data collection

viii. Sampling design

ix. Questionnaire/Schedule preparation

x. Conceptualization

xi. Statistical tools

xii. Budget (Time/Money)

2.4.2 Features of a Good Design

i. Flexible

ii. Appropriate

iii. Efficient

iv. Economical

v. Minimum bias

vi. Maximum Reliability

2.5. Sampling Method

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* Dr.R.Bernard Shaw, Director, Michael Institute of Management, P & T Nagar Extension, Madurai

Probability Non –

Probability

Unrestricted Restricted (i)

Convenience

(i) Lottery (i) Stratified (ii)

Purposive

(ii) Rotating drum (ii) Cluster (iii) Quota

(iii) Random numbers (iii) Systematic

(iv) Multistage

2.5.1. Characteristics of a good sample

i. True representative

ii. Free from bias

iii. Objective

iv. Accurate

v. Comprehensive

vi. Economical

vii. Approachable

viii. Good Size

ix. Feasible

2.6. Hypothesis

A tentative generalization, the validity of which

remains to be tested.

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2.6.1. Sources of Hypothesis

i. General Culture

ii. Scientific Theory

iii. Analogies

iv. Personal experience

2.6.2. Characteristics of Hypothesis

i. Conceptually clear

ii. Specific

iii. Capable of empirical test

iv. Related to available technique

v. Related to body of theory

vi. Simple

vii. State relation between variables

2.7. Research Ethics

Ethics is one of the three pillars of philosophical

thinking, the other two being Metaphysics and Epistemology.

Research to be ethical is to be free from the following:

i. Prejudices and biases

ii. Fallacies

iii. Imaginary assumptions

iv. Contaminated facts

2.8. Research Papers

i. Research article

ii. Conference

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iii. Workshop

iv. Seminar

v. Symposium

2.9. Thesis writing

Format of Report

2.9.1 Preliminariesi. Title

ii. Preface/Acknowledgment

iii. Table of Contents

iv. List of Table

v. List of Charts/Diagrams

2.9.2 Text (Main body)

i. Introduction, Backdrop, Statement of the problem,

Scope, Objectives, Chapter

scheme.

ii. Review of related literature

(a) Concepts (b) Past studies

iii. Methodology

(a) Data collection (Primary/Secondary)

(b) Tools of collection (Questionnaire/Schedule

(c) Sampling Design

(d) Area of Study

(e) Period of Study

(f) Statistical tools

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(g) Limitations

iv. Profile of study area

v. Data analysis (Interpretation)

vi. Conclusion Part

(a) Conclusion

(b) Major findings (Inferences)

(c) Suggestions

(d) Policy implication

(e) Scope for further study

2.9.3. Referencei. Bibliography

ii. Description of Statistical tools

iii. Copy of Questionnaire/Schedule

2.9.4. Documentation

i. Foot notes

ii. Bibliography

iii. Quotations

iv. Tables

v. Appendices (Technical/Non-Technical)

2.9.5. Editing of final draft

i. Heading

ii. Spacing

iii. Margin

iv. Pagination

v. Final Step (Spell Check)

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Model Questions

1. Research is based upon___________(a) Scientific method (b) Experiments (c) Scientists(d) General principles

2. ‘Research in the method of study of the problems, where the solutions ofthe problems have been carried out through given facts.’ The statement isgiven by ___________(a) Munroe (b) Best (c) Watson (d) Cook

3. A research should be ________(a) Objective (b) Valid (c) Reliable (d) All theabove

4. Generally the data of the research is _______(a) Quantitative only (b) Qualitative only (c) Bothof the above (d) None of the above.

5. The aims of research is _________(a) Factual (b) Verifiable (c) Theoretical (d) All theabove

6. The principles formulated by the Fundamental research are used in _______(a) Applied researches (b) Philosophical researches (c)Action researches (d) None of the above

7. Action – research is _______(a) An applied research (b) A research carried out tosolve immediate problems(c) A longitudinal research (d) All the above

8. The basic principle of problem selection is _________(a) Novelity of a problem (b) Practicality of aproblem(c) Future – orientation of a problem (d) All the above.

9. The synopsis of research is called _________(a) Blue print (b) Mapping of problem (c) Base of problem (d)All the above.

10. A good synopsis is considered as ________(a) A half – way research (b) A complete research (c) Apartial research(d) A beginning of research

11. Hypothesis is _________

33

(a) A thoughtful statement (b) A forwarding statement

(c) A temporary solution (d) It is a temporarysolution

12. The nature of a hypothesis is ___________(a) Conceptual (b) Declarative (c) Action – oriented (d) Allthe above.

13. The advantage of the sample is _______(a) Time – saving (b) Money – saving (c) Energy – saving(d) All the above.

14. The advantage of random sampling is _______(a) It is the excellent method of sample selection.(b) It is an economic method in terms of money, time, and

energy.(c) It produces accurate results.(d) All the above.

15. Systematic sampling is ____________(a) A comprehensive method of sample selection.(b) A simple method of sample selection.(c) An effective method of generalization of data(d) All the above.

16. In stratified sampling the units are selected___________(a) After dividing the population in different groups on

the basis of specific standard and then taking an equal proportion ofunits from each group.

(b) After dissociating the population in different groupson the basis of specific standard and then the units are selected fromthese groups.

(c) After dividing the population in different ‘strata’ andthen selecting any one strata out of them.

(d) None of the above.

17. Suppose you are interested in taking a research projecton B.Ed. pupil teachers and you deserve a judicious sample of thispopulation then what kind of sampling procedure would you like to adopt?(a) Multi – level sampling (b) Systematic sampling (c)Group sampling(d) None of the above.

18. Ex. Post Facto method of research is associated to_________(a) Sample (b) Control (c) Validity (d) All theabove.

34

19. Which one of the following research methods, have thesimilarity in nature when compared in relation to sample, control andvalidity of inferences?(a) Experimental and Ex post Facto method (b) Historical and philosophical method.(c) Survey and Experimental method.(d) None of the above.

20. The important characteristics of the survey method is______(a) It is capable for collecting data from a large group

(population) simultaneously(b) Here the work is being carried out on pre-determined

problem.(c) The aim of this method are fixed and specific.(d) All the above statements are correct.

21. Descriptive study is related with _________(a) Survey research method(b) Experimental research method(c) Case study method(d) All the above.

22. The historical method is related with ________(a) The history oriented researches only(b) The researches of history and Archaeology (c) The historical researches conducted in all the

disciplines.(d) None of the above is correct.

23. Ethics is related with ________(a) Beliefs of the person(b) Nature of law(c) Civic Principles and rights.(d) All the above.

24. The fundamental assumption of experimental method isrelated with ______(a) Law of single variable(b) Law of two variable(c) Controlled conditions(d) Intermediary variables

25. The characteristics of experimental method is _____(a) It follows the law of single variable (b) It is the laboratory method of research and has

borrowed from pure sciences (c) It follows the scientific method

35

(d) All the above statements are correct.

26. Case – study method denotes ____(a) The study of a case in its vicinity (b) The extensive study of a ‘Case’(c) The cumulative study of a case.(d) All the above.

27. The limitation of case-study is _______(a) It has subjectivity (b) It is difficult to formulate assumptions (c) It is difficult to employ complex statistical methods.(d) All the above are correct.

28. The advantage of Random Replication Design is _____(a) It controls almost all types of errors (b) It studies the effects of the institutions

simultaneously (c) It employs in social science researches vigorously (d) All the above are correct.

29. The research is an ethical process’. Here the meaningof ethics is ________(a) The external beauty of the research (b) The quality of the research content (c) The fulfillment of research values in an investigation.(d) None of the above.

30. What will you do to make your research value oriented?(a) You pay the cost of its writing to a ghost writer (b) You will charge the market rate for the work, you have

conducted so far (c) You will ensure honesty and faith in the research work(d) You will make a Paligarism.

31. The value of a research has been lost when _____(a) A researcher behaviour become prejudiced (b) A researcher becomes prey of hallucinations.(c) A researcher feels agreement with imaginary

assumptions.(d) All of the above.

32. The objectivity of the research can be enhanced _______(a) Through its reliability (b) Through its validity (c) Through its impartiality(d) All of the above.

33. The research work is not influenced by ______(a) The researcher himself (b) His pre-established assumptions

36

(c) The curse of some other researchers(d) The wrong calculations

34. The research papers are generally prepared by _______(a) The research scholars(b) The research supervisors(c) The scientists (d) All of the above.

35. The research paper does not has its advantage when itdoes not _____(a) Improve the goal – oriented researches (b) Present for wider criticism of its inferences(c) Nourish the wider cause of the society (d) Imparts fame at regional and national levels

36. The research paper and the research article are _______(a) Two separate name of one and same thing(b) First is factual and later a theoretical in nature(c) First is having survey background the later is

experiment in nature(d) (b) and (c) are the correct statements

37. The background of the research paper may be ______(a) Philosophical (b) Historical (c) Contemporary (d) None of theabove

38. Conference is a __________(a) Provision to discuss on serious matters (b) Adequate solution of research problems (c) Wider manipulation of research inferences(d) All of the above.

39. The main objective of organizing a workshop is _______(a) To improve the skills of the researchers in order to

solve the specific problem (b) To impart practical training to the researchers.(c) To make perfect the researchers in an area of research(d) All of the above.

40. The limitations of a research workshop are _______(a) Need of extra time(b) Extra emphasis on practicality (c) Need of specific research material (d) All of the above.

41. The affective objective of seminar is _________(a) To incorporate the qualities of patience and tolerance

in the researcher

37

(b) To appreciate the research inferences(c) To incorporate emotional stability and motivation in

the researcher (d) All of the above statements are correct.

42. Seminar provides the following opportunity to aresearcher_______(a) Expression of feelings (b) Exchange of ideas(c) Spontaneous learning (d) All of the above.

43. Symposium is ______(a) Intellectual entertainment (b) Hearty entertainment (c) T.V. related entertainment (d) Research with entertainment

44. The characteristic of symposium is _______(a) To develop the comprehensive understanding of about the

specific problems of research and its various dimensions(b) To give freedom to express their ideas by the speakers

as well as the audience (c) To impart training for higher order of thinking (d) All of the above.

45. The main parts of the Body of Research Synopsis are________(a) Title page – Trunk – Posterior Part(b) Title Page and Main Body (c) Title Page and Posterior Part(d) None of the above.

46. The title page of Research thesis should be _______(a) Brief and meaningful (b) Scientific and logical(c) Aesthetic and attractive (d) All the above and‘Catchy’

47. The advantage of the survey of related literature is________(a) It is like a back – bone of the research(b) It helps in formulating objectives and hypotheses of

the research(c) It helps in preparation of research design (d) All of the above are true

48. The research design is related to _______(a) Sample selection (b) Formulation ofExperimental design (c) Selection and construction of the tool (d) All of the above

49. The justifiable scientific list of all references iscalled _______

38

(a) Index (b) Bibliography (c) Reference(d) Neo book reference

50. In primary sources we include ______(a) Hand written manuscripts only (b) The original writings of theauthors(c) Direct collection from the thesis (d) All of the above.

51. A researcher divides the population into PG graduates,UG graduates and 10+2 students and using the random Tipette table sheselects some of them from each group. This is technically called(a) stratified sampling (b) Stratified random

sampling(c) representative sampling (d) none of the above

52. The final result of the study will be more accurate ifthe sample drawn is

(a) taken randomly (b) representative to thepopulation

(c) fixed by quota (d) purposive

53. Hypothesis can NOT be stated in(a) null form (b) declarative terms(c) general terms (d) directionalterms

54. The review of related study is important whileundertaking a research because

(a) it avoids repetition and duplication (b) it helps in understanding the gaps(c) it helps the researcher not to draw illogical conclusions(d) all the above

55. Which of the following includes the references cited inthe thesis alone

(a) Bibliography (b) Footnote (c) Both a. & b. (d) Neither a. nor b.

56. Bibliography given in a research report(a) helps those interested in further research and studying the problemfrom another angle(b) makes the report authentic (c) shows the vast knowledge of the researcher (d) none of the above

57. The study on the values in advertisements appearing onTV in 2001, is

(a) descriptive research (b) quantitative research (c) qualitative research (d) longitudinal research

39

58. A researcher selects only 10 members as a sample fromthe total population of 1000 and considers each good because(a) she was a good researcher (b) guided by an expert guide(c) the population was homogeneous (d) the population washeterogeneous

59. Which of the following is included in appendix(a) list of books and journals (b) findings of the study (c) tables (d) tables that presentsupporting evidence

60. Foot notes are found.(a) only at the foot of a page (b) only at the end of eachchapter (c) only at the end of the project (d) none of the above

61. A pilot survey helps to get an idea on the (a) quality of the questionnnaire (b) extent of non-response(c) method of tabulation (d) ambiguity in response

62. Data collected from different clusters of villages tostudy the problem for the whole of Tamilnadu is

(a) multi-stage sampling (b) random sampling(c) systematic sampling (d) Quota sampling

63. Which one of the following is a non-random samplingtechnique?

(a) lottery method (b) tippets' table (c) quota sampling (d) stratified sampling

64. The appropriate method for collecting periodicalinformation from a wide area is

(a) direct interview (b) indirect interview (c) schedules sent through enumerators (d) informationfrom correspondents

65. Information on a kidnap should be collected through(a) direct oral interview (b) indirect oralinterview (c) telephone interview (d) none of the above

66. In which of the following reference page number must beincluded

(a) Bibliography (b) Footnote (c) appendix (d)All the above

67. A questionnaire should not have (a) open ended questions (b) personal questions (c)

cross checks (d) yes or no questions

40

68. A sample must be (a) Representative (b) large (c) covering a wider area (d) small in size

69. The list of the entire population of a study is knownas

(a) Population (b) Universe (c)Frame (d) List

70. The data collected for a particular study through thecorrespondents is called

(a) Primary data (b) Secondary data (c)Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

71. If a researcher collects data from every 10th person ofthe respondents of his sample, it is called

(a) Systematic random sampling (b) Stratifiedrandom sampling

(c) Quota sampling (d) Judgement sampling

72. Foot note format is(a) Author's name, title of the reference, publication, year, page number(b) Title, author's name, publication, year, page number(c) Author's name, title of the reference, page number, publication, year(d) Author's name, publication, year, page number

73. The arrangement of the statistical data in rows andcolumns is called

(a) Classification (b) arrangement of data (c) coding (d) Table

74. Which of the following is not true about a hypothesis?(a) A tentative generalisation (b) based on accumulated previousknowledge(c) an imagined idea (d) must be accepted

75. Which of the following is a non-random sampling?(a) Systematic (b) Stratified

(c) Cluster (d) Quota

76. The process of assigning numerals or other symbols toanswers so that responses can be put into a limited number of categoriesor classes is called(a) Editing (b) Coding (c)Categoraisation (d) Tabulation

77. The process of examining the collected raw data(specially in surveys) to detect errors and omissions and correct thesewhen possible is known as(a) Editing (b) Coding (c)Categoraisation (d) Tabulation

41

78. Grouping of related facts into classes on the basis ofcommon characteristics is called

(a) Editing (b) Coding (c)Classification (d) Tabulation

79. Which of the following helps to decide on the basis ofa sample data, whether an assumption about the population is likely to betrue or false(a) Objectives (b) Hypothesis (c) Analysis ofthe data (d) methodology

80. Which of the following is true of the Title Page of athesis

(a) Carries the name of the Project (b) Should becentred (c) Should be typed in capital letters (d) All the above

81. Which of the following provides an analytical overviewof the material included in the study or report together with thesequences of presentation?(a) List of Tables (b) Table of contents (c)Acknowledgement (d) Appendix

82. If reference is made to a different page of thepreceding source, the term used in the footnote is

(a) lbid. (b) Op.cit (c) Loc.cit (d)none of the above

83. Which of the following is the form of group discussion(a) Panel discussion (b) Workshops (c)

Symposium (d) All the above

84. Whose rights include the right to privacy and the rightto be informed about all aspects of the research(a) The researcher (b) The user (c) The

respondent (d) All the above persons

84. Whose rights include the right to privacy and the rightto be informed about all aspects of the research(a) The researcher (b) The user (c) The

respondent (d) All the above persons Question No.

Answer

Question No. Answer Questio

n No. Answer Question No. Answer

1. a 26. d 51. b 52. b2. b 27. d 53. c 54. d3. d 28. d 55. b 56. a4. c 29. c 57. c 58. c5. d 30. c 59. d 60. d

42

6. a 31. d 61. d 62. a7. b 32. d 63. c 64. d8. d 33. c 65. b 66. b9. d 34. d 67. b 68. a10. a 35. c 69. c 70. a11. d 36. d 71. a 72. a12. d 37. d 73. d 74. d13. d 38. d 75. d 76. b14. d 39. d 77. a 78. c15. d 40. d 79. b 80. d16. a 41. d 81. b 82. a17. a 42. d 83. d 84. d18. d 43. a19. d 44. d20. d 45. a21. d 46. d22. c 47. d23. d 48. d24. a 49. c25. d 50. d

Key

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Unit -III

READING COMPREHENSIONProf. S.Gunasekara Pandian

3.1. Introduction The word ‘Comprehension’ is derived from the verb to

‘comprehend’. Its meaning is ‘to understand’. A

comprehension exercise is, therefore, meant to test a

candidate’s ability to understand and retain the contents of

a given passage.

3.2. Different from Other Composition Parts

Comprehension passages are entirely different from

other composition parts. In ‘precis’ you are just

summarizing the main points. In paragraph and essay

writing you are elaborating an idea. But a comprehension

aims at your power, capability and accuracy in answering a

question.

3.3. NET/JRF/SET Reading Comprehension Section

The reading comprehension sections in NET/JRF/SET are

also no different in this respect i.e. you are expected to

read the given passage, understand its content well and

answer the questions given at the end of the passage- all

this to be completed in the limited time that is given.

Two components: Reading Speed and Comprehension

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To perform well in the reading comprehension area you

need a combination of speed and comprehension

A person who can read faster can answer more questions

in the given time than a person with an average reading

speed. It is this reading rate or your speed of reading

that you have to aim at improving. That is no over night

solution to this constant and extensive reading will improve

your reading rate.

45

* Prof.S.Gunasekara Pandian, Head, Department of English, Arul Anandar College, Karumathur.

Then comes the understanding of the passage than

others. But if he is not able to answer the questions

pertaining to the passage, then the speed is of no use.

Think evaluate, reason out, judge and correlate with what

has been already read.

3.4. Subject Matter and Length of Passage

The subjects covered can be as wide ranging as

sciences, social sciences, humanities, current affairs,

incidents, stories, narrations and descriptions. As regards

the length of the passage it is normally in the range of 150

words to 250 words. The passage will be followed by

questions based on the contents of the passage. Questions

are designed to test your ability to spot specific pieces of

information from the passage and your ability to draw

conclusions and inferences from what is stated.

3.5. Practical Techniques to Improve Your Reading Speed

In order to facilitate your regular practice, take a

fresh exercise note book with foolscap pages in it. After

reading a passage write down the time you have taken to

complete the passage at the top of the page. Now count down

the number of words in the passage. Number of words divided

by the number of minutes taken to read the passage gives you

your speed of reading in ‘words per minute’. Maintaining a

list of your reading speeds will give you a clear picture of

how you are progressing in your reading practice over a

period of time.

46

3.6. Practical Technique to Improve Your Reading

Comprehension

While reading you can underline the names, places,

years that are given in the passage. Questions may be asked

about them. If any numerical detail or statistics is given

special attention must be given to it. Every paragraph will

have a sentence wherein you will find the essence of the

paragraph. All the other sentences will either complement

or illustrate it. This is called ‘topic sentence’.

Questions may be asked from the topic sentence. Another way

of arriving at quick reading and comprehension is reading

the questions first and then reading the passage. The key

words you find in the questions will function as pre-reading

activities and will enhance your ability to read quicker,

comprehend better and answer sharper.

47

Examples:

Read the passages carefully and choose the best answerto each question out of choices given

Long passage with multiple questions

The present industrial age is steadily placing into our

hands the power and instruments, which are expected to

relieve us of mechanical drudgery and give us more time for

cultural and artistic pursuits. Machines have undoubtedly

reduced human toil, but have also added somewhat to human

misery. Modem industrialisation based on a minute

subdivision of labour has robbed the worker of the sense of

beauty and craft. The craftsman has become mechanic, a mere

tool for the ends of greater production. The development of

intelligence and character with skilful creative work

procedures is now sought in other activities. The workers

seek their pleasure outside their work. They claim higher

wages and more leisure and opportunities for recreation and

relaxation. But the leisure won after so much effort is

wasted in costly amusements. Leisure is seldom used for

the noble pursuits of the mind.

Besides, the industrial age has made us worshippers of

wealth. In the social hierarchy, anyone who has the luck or

the ability to make money occupies a high place. Before the

Industrial Revolution, we had different standards of social

values. Saints, men of learning, poets and philosophers

were at the top of the social scale. The days when human

values like honesty, sympathy, understanding, justice and

service were considered the most desirable qualities in man

are over. Money - making has become one of the most popular

48

industries of the modern world. And material progress has

resulted in the creation of new wants. The consumer's

appetite grows by what it feeds on. To want more and to get

more is the way of material progress. By means of this

exciting competition we are concealing from ourselves the

barrenness of life.

The most serious consequence of the industrial

movement is the passing away of the home. We see it in many

western countries. Parents pursue their own pleasures with

little consideration of their duties to children. The

poverty of an empty life drives the children into

undesirable channels. Unless some corrective measures are

adopted to reverse this trend, we may see, in the not so

distant future, a total disintegration of the family.

1. In the context of the passage, which of the following statements is not applicable to

the present day workers?(a) Workers find their work more meaningful(b) Workers have lost their sense of beauty.(c) Workers claim higher pay.(d) Workers have become the means for increasing

production.(e) None of these.

2. In the context of the passage, the most serious result ofindustrial development is the ___

(a) Creation of new needs(b) Unreasonable demands of workers(c) Neglect of children by their parents(d) Growing appetite of the consumers(e) Emergence of different standards of social

valuation

49

3. According to the author, children go astray due to ____(a) Poverty of the parents (b) Excessive and uncalled for control by parents.(c) Parents not fulfilling their obligations toward

children(d) Peer group pressures(e) Unchecked consumerism flourishing in the modern

world

4. Before the industrial revolution, poets andphilosophers ____

(a) Were wealthy men from the upper class(b) Did not have the opportunity to make money(c) Were highest in the social hierarchy(d) Had more opportunities for recreation and

relaxation were not worshippers of wealth

5. The statement, "The consumer's appetite grows by what itfeeds on" (second paragraph, sixth sentence), means that;

(a) Consumers are disregarding their appetite andeating more than what is required

(b) It is impossible to satisfy the demands ofconsumers

(c) Consumers' food habits are very different fromwhat they were earlier

(d) Satisfaction of consumer needs leads to furthercreation of new needs

(e) Material progress is responsible for the growinghunger of consumers

6. Which of the following statements is true in thecontext of the passage?

(a) Human values like honesty and sympathy areconsidered as the most desirable qualities in man evento day.

(b) Machines have to some extent contributed to solvehuman problems.

(c) Industrialisation has caused deep divisions withinthe labour force.

(d) After the industrial revolution, intellectualsbegan to occupy the top position on the social scale.

(e) None of these

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7. According to the author, leisure ought to be used byworkers for

(a) Seeking costly amusements (b) increasing industrial production(c) Engaging themselves in intellectual activities(d) Giving proper attention to the family(e) alleviating the problems of society

8. Which of the following statements is not true in thecontext of the passage?

(a) Skilful creative work helps in developingintelligence and character.

(b) Wealthy people occupy a Kigher place in today'ssociety.

(c) Family life has been adversely affected byindustrial advancement.

(d) Social values have considerably deterioratedtoday.

(e) None of these

Short passage with multiple questions

Some years ago, I had the privilege of meeting the

world's oldest man. At least he said he was. And he was so

dogmatic about it that the promoters of a cartoon strip that

specialized in unbelievable oddities brought the old man up

to New York from his native Columbia, to have him examined

by a team of doctors at the Cornell Medical Center. He was

an Indian, he was four feet four inches high, and he had an

alligator-hide complexion and a tendency to swing with his

right whenever he was passed from one medico to another. He

said he was 167, born the same year as the American

Constitution. When the name of George Washington was

suggested to him, to help him fix his generation, he said he

remembered the man well. But he resented coming all the way

to New York. He wanted to be left alone to go about his

business, which at that time was the business of looking for

a sixth wife to comfort him in his approaching old age!

51

9. The old man was 'dogmatic' about the fact that(a) He was four feet four inches tall (b) he was the world's oldest living man(c) He belonged to Columbia (d) he had an alligator-hide complexion

10. The cartoon-strip people got interested in him because(a) He was a comical creature(b) They wanted to feature him in a cartoon strip(c) A person surviving at that age was odd and

unbelievable(d) He had the tendency of swinging with his right

11. The old man claimed that the Americans gave themselvesa Constitution

(a) Before he was born (b) in the year of George Washington's birth(c) Two centuries ago (d) one hundred and sixty seven years ago

12. George Washington's name was mentioned to the old man(a) To teach him a bit of history (b) to know whether lie had any personal equation with

Washington(c) To make fun of his advanced age (d) to determine his age

13. The old man did not like being brought to New Yorkbecause _

(a) At that time he was busy looking for a sixth wife (b) He didn't like traveling much(c) He didn't like New York as a city(d) He preferred to he left alone in his native

village

Short passage with a single question:

Accidents on road can be prevented, provided the quality of

roads is improved and the drivers are instructed in safety

rules which they must follow for their own protection. It is

52

also necessary that the illumination on the roads is

adequate so as to prevent accidents at night.

14. The paragraph best supports the statement that(a) Road accidents are solely due to improper

illumination.(b) Road accidents result in large number of deaths.(c) Road accidents are man-made and are always

avoidable.(d) Safety rules are not always taught properly to all

drivers.(e) Safety must be uppermost in the minds of road

drivers.

Practice Set 1 Solve the following comprehension passages.

Passage 1 Marie Sklodowska Curie (1867-1934) was born in

Warsaw, Poland. As a student, she participated in the

students' revolutionary organization, which was fighting

against the dictatorial regime in Poland. She was forced to

leave Poland for Paris because of her involvement in such

activities. In 1903, she shared with her husband Pierre

Curie and another scientist Henri Becquerel, the Nobel Prize

in Physics for the discovery of radioactivity. Later in

1911, she received the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for the

discovery and isolation of radium. She was the first person

to win two Nobel Prizes. She and her husband discovered

Polonium. This element was named in honour honor of her

motherland, Poland.

Marie and her daughter Irene Joliot Curie died of

radiation-induced illness. These women risked their lives

for the sake of advancement of science, which now greatly

benefits the society and her husband Frederick Joliot-Curie

53

shared the noble prize in Chemistry in 1935. The Curies thus

created a record by four family members having received

Nobel Prizes.

Despite her spectacular contribution to science,

Marie's nomination to the French Academy of Sciences in 1911

was rejected by one vote because she was a woman!

1. Marie Curie won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry for(a) Discovery of radioactivity (b) discovery

and isolation of adium(c) Discovery of X-ray (d) laws of

Radioactive Decay

2. Frederick Joliot-Curie is Marie Curie's(a) Husband (b) brother (c) son (d) son-in-law

3. In what way did Marie Curie and her daughter risk theirlives for the advancement of science'?

(a) They defied the dictators of Poland and France.(b) They discovered Polonium, which had great side

effects.(c) They exposed themselves to radium and died of radium-

induced illness.(d) They joined terrorist organizations.

4. Which of the following is true'?(a) Polonium was named after Marie Curie's motherland.(b) Polonium was Henri Becquerel's contribution to

Science.(c) The discovery of polonium helped Marie Curie get

nominated to the French Academy of Sciences.

(d) She won the Nobel Prize for the discovery of poloniumin 1935.

5. Marie Curie's nomination to the French Academy ofSciences in 1911 was rejected by one vote because

(a) she had already won the Nobel Prize

54

(b) she had won two Nobel Prizes(c) she was a woman (d) she was Polish

Passage 2 The 2002 FIFA World Cup is the world's greatest

sporting event. Thirty-two teams that have reached the

finals will play for the greatest prize'in sport. There is a

33rd team taking part in that tournament however, not a

national team but an international team of referees and

assistants-the team that cannot win. Selection for this team

is difficult-36 referees and the same number of assistants

have been selected from the six confederations. They have

gained their places by performing to a consistently high

level in major matches, both nationally and internationally.

They have been tested in hostile environments during the

qualifying matches and they have proved their ability to

handle the pressure they will face in Korea and Japan.

The composition of the 33rd team will be: Europe-14

referees and 14 assistants; Asia-five referees and 7

assistants; Africa-five referees and five assistants; North

and Central America and the Caribbean- five referees and

four assistants; South America-six referees and four

assistants; and Oceania-one referee and two assistants.

But what types of individuals make up this team? Any

idea that they are faceless characters devoid of personality

or feeling is dispelled by being in their company for less

than five minutes. Many of them know each other very well,

having been together at previous FIFA tournaments. Many are

close friends and humor is never far from the surface when

they are together.

55

Alongside the humor, however, there is professionalism

among the refereeing team. Before the start of France 98, a

fitness test was held. No matter how fit and how confident

the referees are, there is always tension in the air before

the, test begins. On the bus traveling to the sports center

the referees agreed among themselves that since it was only

a few days before the competition began they would run

together at a sensible pace. 2800 meters in the 12 minute

run-that was to be the target. But referees are competitive

and when the whistle went for the start of the run within 10

seconds it had become a race. Still, this was an important

statement about the attitude of the refereeing team. They

were at the World Cup France 98, as athletes in top

condition and they wanted to push themselves to the maximum.

In any team there must be a balance between youth and

experience. This is particularly true of the referees in

2,002 FIFA World Cup. There are the experienced referees

such as AH Bujsaim of the United Arab Emirates, Vitor Mello

Pereira of Portugal, Gamal el Ghandour of Egypt, Kirn Milton

Nielsen of Denmark, Italy's Collina and Scotland's Dallas.

Representing India was Komaleeswaran Sankar- the first

Indian to officiate in a FIFA World Cup ever.

6. According to the passage, how many teams are to participate in the2002 FIFA World Cup?

(a) 34 (b) 32 (c) 33 (d) 16

7. Which is the additional team to participate in thetournament (as per the passage)?

(a) Korea (b) Japan (c) referees (d)administrators

8. Which word means the same as 'hostile' from the following'?(a) Unfriendly (b) different (c) risky (d) competitive

56

9. As per the passage, which group or confederation had the highestrepresentation of referees'?

(a) Europe (b) Asia (c) Africa (d)Oceania

10. Where was the 1998 World Cup held?(a) Brazil (b) Germany (c) France (d)

Cameroon

11. "When the whistle went for the start of the runwithin 10 seconds it had become a race." As per the passage what does the phrase "it had become a race"indicate'?

(a) Referees were walking before the 10 seconds, (b) There was racism amongst the referees.(c) The referees ran at a fast pace. (d) They became competitive.

12. What was Komaleeswaran Sankar's distinction in the2002 FIFA World Cup'? He was the

(a) first Indian to officiate at the World Cup Finals (b) youngest Indian at the World Cup(c) first Asian in the World Cup (d) youngest Asst. referee of the World Cup

Passage 3 Research has shown that the human mind can

process words at the rate of about 500 per minute, whereas

a speaker speaks at the rate of about 150 words a minute.

The difference between the two, at 350, is quite large.

So a speaker must make every effort to retain the

attention of the audience, and the listener should also be

careful not to let his mind wander. Good communication

calls for good listening skills. A good speaker must

necessarily be a good listener.

Listening starts with hearing but goes beyond. Hearing,

in other words, is necessary but is not a sufficient

condition for listening. Listening involves hearing with

57

attention. Listening is a process that calls for

concentration. While listening, one should also be

observant. In other words, listening has to do with the

ears, as well as with the eyes and the mind. Listening is

to be understood as the total process that involves hearing

with attention, being observant and making interpretations.

Listening skills are particularly relevant in oral

communication, as well as non-verbal communication, -

audio-visual communication and other types of non-written

communication. Good communication is essentially an

interactive process. It calls for participation and

involvement. It is quite often a dialogue' rather than a

monologue. It is necessary to be interested and also show

or make it abundantly clear that one is interested in

knowing what the other person has to say. The listener can

and should help the speaker in establishing a wavelength

through which communication traverse smoothly;

Good listening is an art that can be cultivated. It

relates to skills that can be developed. One need not be

born a good listener. A good listener is generally

interested in what the speaker has to convey. A good

listener knows the art of getting much more than what the

speaker is trying to convey. He knows how to prompt, prod.

Persuade but not to cut or interrupt what the other person

has to say. At times, the speaker may or may not be

coherent, articulate, and well organized in his thoughts

and expressions. He may have it in his mind and yet he may

fail to marshal the right words while communicating his

thoughts. Nevertheless, a

58

Good listener put, him at ease, helps him articulate

and facilitates him to get across the message that he wants

to convey. For listening to be effective, it is also

necessary that barriers to listening be removed. Such

barriers can be both physical and, psychological. Physical

barriers generally relate to hindrances to proper hearing,

whereas psychological barriers are more fundamental and

relate to the interpretation and evaluation of the speaker

and the message.

13. According to the passage, goodcommunication is

(a) monologue (b) hearing (c) interactive (d)non-verbal

14. Which of the following is mostappropriate as per the passage?

(a) Listening is the same as hearing. (b) Hearing is a process of the ears, eyes and the mind.(c) Listening is a total process of concentration.(d) Listening involves hearing with attention, being

observant and making interpretations.

15. Listening skills are most essential for(a) Written Communication (b) technical

communication(c) Oral communication (d) negotiations

16. The difference between the numbers ofwords the human mind can process and the number of wordsa speaker can speak in a minute is(a) 35U word, (b) 500 words (c) 150 words

(d) none of the above

17. Which of the following is true with regard to listeningskills as per the passage?

(a) Listening is an art and cannot be developed(b) Most people are born listeners.(c) Listening is an art and a science(d) Listening skills can be cultivated and developed.

18. The meaning of the word marshal as used in the passagedenotes -

59

(a) an officer of the highest rank (b) to arrange in order(c) Control or conduct events (d) think clearly

19. How does a listener get much more thanwhat the speaker is trying to convey?

(a) By prompting, prodding and persuading (b)through timely interruption

(c) Through attentiveness and concentration (d)establishing a wavelength

20. Which of the following is the same as'traverse' as used in the passage?

(a) Reach (b) move back and forth (c)path (d) goes

21. According to the passage, physical barriers relate to(a) Value systems (b) underestimation

of the speaker(c) Behavioral aspects (d) barriers to

hearing clearly

22. What is the word used in the passage which is closest inmeaning to the word 'articulate'?

(a) Coherent (b) observant (c) relevant (d)attention

23. Which ot the following is the most appropriate title forthe passage'?

(a) Barriers to listening (b) Hearing with attention(c) The act of listening (d) Importance of listening in effective communication

Passage 4 Just as the growth of e-business encourages

the development of new business models, it also: encourages

the growth of new marketing ideas to promote the e-

businesses based on those models. One of the most famous

examples of an e-business whose business model successfully

exploits the network effect by using an innovating

marketing idea is Hotmail.

60

Hotmail, a wildly successful e-business that offers

free e-mail services, almost didn't get launched. As with

many e-business start-ups, Hotmail's founders Sabeer Bhatia

and Jack Smith had a problem interesting venture

capitalists in their idea. When they met with Tim Draper,

the founding partner of Draper Fisher Jurvetson (DFJ),

Draper became interested in the idea of free e-mail but

insisted that text be added to the bottom of each outgoing

e-mail message, encouraging recipients to get their free e-

mail at Hotmail. Draper wanted the text to be linked to

the Hotmail site so that message recipients could click the

link, view the Hotmail Web site, and immediately sign up

for the service. At first Bhatia and Smith resisted the

idea of adding the linked message, considering it too much

like spam, which consists of commercial messages or

advertisements blindly posted to a large number of

unrelated and uninterested parties. At this time, the

contents of e-mail were generally considered to be

completely private. Finally, Bhatia and Smith agreed with

Draper on the inclusion of the marketing message link.

Hotmail was quietly launched on July 4, 1996. Because of

the holiday, the launch generated little press coverage.

Also, because of limited seed capital, less than $50,000

was set aside for promotion costs. Despite limited

promotion, customers began signing up in droves. The first

customers to sign up were at colleges and universities. A

single user from a school signed up, and then, the next

day, a hundred users from the same school signed up, and by

the end of the week there would be a thousand users from

61

the same school. Next. Information about Hotmail would

spread to another school, and the process began again.

Soon users from around the world began signing up. For

example; within six weeks after the first user m India

subscribed to the free e-mail service, Hotmail had 100,000

additional subscribers in India. In less than six months,

one million users had subscribed to-Hotmail's free e-mail

services. Less than 18 months after its launch, Hotmail had

12 million subscribers. The network effect allowed Hotmail,

the world's first free e-mail service, to spread like

wildfire. Shortly after recording 12 million subscribers,

Hotmail's founders sold the. company to Microsoft for $400

million in Microsoft stock.

Because of the astounding success of Hotmail, Steve

Jurvetson and Tim Draper of DFJ began analysing what was

unique about Hotmail's success. They realized that Hotmail

spread around the world like an epidemic. When current

users sent messages to others containing the Hotmail link,

they were "infecting" potential users, who in turn

'infected' other potential users. Drawing an analogy to the

effects of a sneeze in a crowd, they coined the phrase

"viral marketing" to describe Hotmail's innovative method

of attracting new customers.

24. According to the passage, the new business model used byHotmail was called

a. network effect b. freebees c.seed-money effect

d. innovative marketing

25. The meaning of 'start-up' as used in the passage is the sameas

a. e-business operation b. new business venture c. toset out on a journey

62

d. to be the first

26. Who were the founders of Hotmail?a. Sabeer Bhatia and Tim Draper b. Sabeer Bhatia andFisher Jurvetsonc. Microsoft and Sabeer Bhatia. d. Sabeer Bhatia andJack Smith

27. What is 'spam'?a. commercial messages b. tightening of musclesc. unsolicited e-mail d. unsolicitedadvertisement

28. "Hotmail was launched on July 4, 1996. Because of theholiday, the launch generated little press

coverage," Which holiday is being referred to here?a. World Literacy Day b. Valentine's Dayc. US Independence Day d. Sabeer Bhatia's

birthday

29. Which of the following has the same meaning as the word'epidemic"?

a. widespread disease b. infection c. cure d. population

30. Which company bought Hotmaii from its founders?a. Draper Fisher Jurvetson (DFJ) b. Microsoft

c.Sabeer Bhatia Incorp d. DFJ.corn

31. Which of the following is not the same as 'wild fire' as usedin the passage.

a. spread b. disperse c. scatterd. converge

32. The term 'viral marketing' is used becausea. It refers to an innovative method of marketing, b. It infects and is contagious on users.c. It caused the effect of 'sneeze in a crowd.' d. Hotmail spreads like an epidemic.

33. Which of the following is the most appropriate title for thepassage'?

a. Innovative web marketing ideas b. Thesuccess of Hotmail

c. Attract new customers d.The Saga of Sabeer Bhatia.

63

Passage 5 It is possible that you had subtle symptoms of

diabetes for years and did not know that you had the disease.

Weight loss, increased thirst, and fatigue may have been

building up over a number of years. Because the disease has been

present for a long time, you may have some complications at the

time diagnosis made. These might include hypertension (high

blood pressure), heart disease, vascular disease

(small blood pressure disease), or kidney disease. Your

physician will treat these problems along with your diabetes. It

is important to treat such complication as early as possible

because a combination of high blood pressure, diabetes, and

kidney disease is a triple threat to your health.

Many people, however, do not have any complications and can

take actions recommended by their physicians concerning diet,

exercise, medication in the form of pills instead of insulin

injection, and good mental health. If you have non-insulin-

dependent diabetes, it is possible that your diabetes may

reverse itself and that your blood sugar levels may return to

no, mal and stay that way, particularly if you maintain good

diet and exercise habits.

Good diet, ideal weight, adequate exercise, adequate

insulin availability, and a stable mental attitude are the keys

to treatment for diabetes.

34. According to the passage which of the following is not asymptom of non-insulin- dependent diabetes?

a. increased thirst b. fatigue c. yellowskin d. weight loss

64

35. Which among the following is the same as 'subtle' in thepassage?

a. not obvious b. clean c. directd. complicated

36. Which of the following statements is false according to thepassage?

a. A diabetic could have complications of hypertension,b. Unnoticed, a diabetic could have vascular disease and heartdisease.c. The physician can treat diabetes along with the othercomplications of heart, kidneys etc.d. A combination of high blood pressure, diabetes and kidneydisease is a threat to your good health.

37. Which of the following is true according to the passage?a. A non-insulin-dependent diabetic can return to normal.b. A non-insulin-dependent diabetic will become insulindependent.c. Those without complications can become normal withouttaking pills.d. Diabetes may reverse itself and become insulin-injection-dependent even after good diet and exercise.

38. Which of the following is the same as the word 'stay' in thepassage? a. Steadfast b. reside c. remain

d. become

Passage 6 Typesetting, also called Desk Top Publishing (DTP),

is a separate industry by itself. In book publishing, the copy-

edited manuscripts are processed by typesetters (in-house or

freelance) for typing and formatting. When authors provide soft

copies of their scripts, typesetters work on formatting alone.

Typesetters use page-making software packages for formatting

texts. Some of the popular page-making software packages are

QuarkXPress, Corel Ventura, PageMaker, TeX/LATeX, 3132. The

popular illustration software are Illustrator, CorelDraw and

65

AutoCAD. Typesetters provide laser outputs of 60011200 dpi

resolution called camera-ready copy (CRC), or negatives,

positives and postscript files, or electronic files for the next

stage of the publishing process.

Scanning is another feature of the typesetting process. With

requirements for online information, electronic publishing and

Internet publishing, typesetters provide HTML, X1VIL, SGML

formats, SGML conversions, SGML tagging, PDF and hypertext links.

39. According to the passage, typesetting isa. processing manuscripts for copyeditingb. typing and formatting on computersc. working on software packages like CorelDrawd. work on soft copies of author scripts

40. Which among the following is the odd one'.'a. PageMaker b. Corel Ventura c. Illustrator

d. Quark Press

41. The use of the word 'process' in the passage means -a. step or stage b. ievel c.technique d. serial

42. Which of the following is false according to the passage?a. Typesetting is also called Desk Top Publishing.b. Typesetters provide laser outputs of high resolution for

the next stage of processing.c. Typesetters cannot provide electronic tiles.d. Scanning is a part of typesetting.

43. The word 'freelance' used in the passage means the same asa. employee b. employer c. self-employed d. in-house

Key

S.No. Key S.No

. Key S.No. Key S.No

. Key S.No. Key

1. b 2. d 3. c 4. a 5. c6. c 7. c 8. a 9. a 10. c

66

11. d 12. a 13. c 14. d 15. c16. a 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. a21. d 22. a 23. d 24. a 25. b26. d 27. a 28. c 29. a 30. b31. d 32. c 33. b 34. c 35. a36. d 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. c41. c 42. c 43. c

67

Model Questions

1. What are the four skills of language learning?

2. How many passive skills are there in language learning?

3. Name the passive skills of language learning

4. How many active skills are therein language learning?

5. Name the active skills in language learning

6. Name the two types of reading?

7. What is the advantage of loud reading?

8. What is the disadvantage of loud reading?

9. How is silent reading advantageous?

10. Why is silent reading disadvantageous?

11. Name the two things one should not do while reading?

12. What is a topic sentence?

13. What is global reading?

14. What is local reading?

15. What is the other name for global reading?

16. What is the other name for local reading?

17. What is regression?

18. How will regression affect reading?

19. How can reading skill be developed?

20. What is the order of the reading skill among the four skills of language learning?

68

Key

1. Listening, speaking, reading , writing

2. Two

3. Listening and Reading

4. Two

5. Speaking and writing

6. Loud reading and silent reading

7. Pronunciation error can be controlled

8. Soon the reader will become tired

9. More pages can be read

10. The teacher cannot know whether the student reads or

not.

11. Lipping, slodding the head , twisting the body etc,

12. The most important sentence. The sentence with the

central idea.

13. An overall speed reading

14. Intensive slow reading

15. Scanning

16. Skimming

17. Going back after reading a few lines.

18. It will affect the concentration and speed.

19. By reading regularly

20. Third one

69

Unit -IV

COMMUNICATION*Prof. S.Gunasekara Pandian

4.1. Introduction

Communication is as basic as the hunger for food and

drink. It is a god’s gift to human beings. It is a

continuous and dynamic interaction that affects may

variables.

4.2. Definition Communication is a process involving a sender who

sends a message in a channel through which a message is

transmitted a receiver. The sender is called encoder and

the receiver is called decoder.

4.3. Two categories of Communication

There are two categories of communication. They are

verbal communication and non-verbal communication. Verbal

communication is done with words. Non-verbal communication

includes signals codes and cues.

4.4. Types of Communication

4.4.1. Intrapersonal communication

70

SenderEncoder

ReceiverDecoder

Channel

This includes reflections, contemplations and

meditations (Example – Transcendal meditation).

4.4.2. Interpersonal Communication

The best examples are talking to parents, friends

participating in a class discussion etc.,

4.4.3. Machine Assisted Interpersonal Communication

The best example is the teller in the banks. For

psychological problems today many computer programmes are

available.

4.4.4. Group Communication

The best examples are group discussions. Small group

is better for good communication.

4.4.5. Mass Communication

The media available to us are basically of two kinds.

Those which use modern means of communication and those

which are known as traditional media. In more specific

terms the different media are (i) print – printed word,

pictures etc., which appeal to the sense of sight

(Newspapers, periodicals, publications, advertisements

etc.,) (ii) radio – sense of sound (iii) Audio visual –

71

* Prof.S.Gunasekara Pandian, Head, Department of English, Arul Anandar College, Karumathur .

appeal to both visual and auditory senses: TV films (IV)

Traditional media – puppetry, folk dance folk lore,

community singing, rural theatre etc., (V) oral

communication – public meetings, group discussions,

individual contacts etc., (VI) outdoor media – printed word

and visual: posters cinema slides, hoardings neon signs

etc.,

4.5. The communication process

The communication process involves a number of steps

which are enumerated below:

i. Sender

ii. Contents

iii. Encoding

iv. Channel

v. Receiver

vi. Decoding

vii. Feed back

4.6. Barriers of effective communication

4.6.1. Language differences

(i) Faulty language

(ii) Defective Translation

(iii) Under lying assumptions not clear

(iv) Specialist language

(v) Different evaluations and meanings

72

4.6.2. Emotional or psychological barriers

(i) Premature evaluation

(ii) In-attention

(iii) Loss in transmission

(iv) Failure of communication

(v) Filtering

(vi) Under reliance on written message

Model Questions1. How did early man communicate?2. Define communication3. From which Latin word does the word communication

originate?4. Why does man need communication?5. How does communication help man?6. What are the various means of communication?7. What is the goal of communication?8. What is transmitting?9. In how many ways man-man communication is transmitted?10. What in encoding?11. What is decoding12. Is communication an art or science?13. Who developed the elementary model of communication?14. According to Aristotle what are the ingredients of

communication?15. Who developed the mathematical theory of communication?16. What are the two types of communication models17. Name some linear models.

18. What is the difference between linear model and intra personal model?

73

19. What is the other name for inter personal model?20. What makes the process of communication circular21. What is feed back?22. Name a few essentials of good communication23. What are the 7 C's of communication?24. What is intra personal communication25. What is noise?26. What are the different types of noise?

Answers

1. Early man communicated through symbols of sounds and

gestures.

2. Communication is the process of sending and

receiving information. It is an exchange of facts, ideas

opinions, or emotions by two or more persons.

3. The word communication originates from the Latin

word "Communis" which means common.

4. Man needs communication in order to sustain ( keep

up ) his daily activity

5. Communication helps man increase his knowledge

6. The various means of communication are signs and

words, languages, post and telegraph, media, satellites

and computers.

7. The ultimate goal of communication is to inform and

influence another person

8. Transmitting is the process of converting a message

into a media form and sending it to the receiver.

74

9. In man -to- man communication a message is

transmitted in five ways - gesturing, touching,

speaking, writing, and drawing.

10. Encoding is the process in which the sender converts

the message to symbols recognizable to the receiver.

11. Decoding is the process understanding the meaning of

the received –message and responding to it,

12. It is both an art and science as it contains both

the element of art an science

13. Aristotle

14. According to Aristotle the speaker, the speech and

the audience are the three main ingredients of

communication

15. The Mathematical theory of Communication was

developed by C.E. Shannon and W.Weaver in 1949.

16. The two types of models are linear models and

interpersonal models or interactional models.

17. Aristotle Model, Shannon and Weaver Model., David K.

Berllo's Model, Harold D. Hass Well Model etc.

18. Linear Model does not consider the response or reply

y from the receiver of the message

19. The other name for the interpersonal model is

circular or cyclical model or two way communication.

20. The Feedback.

75

21. Feedback is the revision or alteration of the

original message or sending altogether a new message.

22. Clarity, completeness, consistency. Time, simplicity

etc.

23. Credibility Context m, Content, Clarity, Continuity

and Consistency, Channel sand Capability.

24. Communication within oneself is called intrapersonal

communication

25. Any distortion or destruction preventing the

correctness and effective transmission is called noise

26. The different types of "noise "are tone, cultural

difference, different outlooks, technical noise, visual

noise and social noise.

76

Exercise

1. Effective communication does not require(a) Voice modulation (b) Handsome

appearance (c) Appropriate gestures(d) Students involvement

2. What is Conditional Access System (CAS)(a) A computer related term(b) Security for W I.Ps(c) A system providing selected channels to a TV

subscriber(d) A visa system of U.S.

3. World's first sky bus station was inaugurated recently at(a) Tees Hazari, Delhi (b) Madgaon, Goa (c)

Tallygunj, Kolkata (d) None of these

4. Name the project, which will connect all police stations in the country in one network.

(a) POLNET (b) TOLNET (c) POL.COM(d) IPOL.COM

5. While planning education for development which of the following characteristics will

you stress?(a) All round development of the individual(b) Development sustainable throughout life(c) Transferable to all walks of life(d) All the three above

6. The test effectiveness of instruction is(a) Effectiveness of learning(b) Sufficient use of audio visual aids.(c) Maintenance of discipline in the class(d) Regular attendance of students

7. Discussion in the class will be most effective if the topic of discussion is

(a) Not introduced by the teacher(b) Stated immediately before the start of discussion.(c) Written in the Black Board without introducing it

77

(d) Informed to the students well in advance.

8. Teacher's communication will be more effective if.(a) The teacher is a master in his subject.(b) He prepares a good number of instructional aids.(c) He discusses previous question papers(d) He starts from what students already know.

9. The recently launched "Vidya Vahini" is a project relatedto

(a) School computerization programme(b) TV programme related to mass literacy(c) Establishment of libraries in rural areas(d) None of these

10. The final goal of feed back in a communication system is to

(a) Make necessary modifications in the communication process.

(b) Understand more about the content.(c) Identify the defects of the communicator.(d) Detect the limitation of the receiver.

11. The main function of educational Psychology is to provide prospective teachers with

(a) Rules of thumb to deal with every day class room situation

(b) Insight into the various aspects of modern education.(c) Insight into the 'needs, problems and styles of

behaviour of learners.(d) Research procedures for evaluating current teaching

procedures.

12. Failure of the teacher to communicate his ideas well to the students may result into

(a) Classroom indiscipline(b) Loss of students' interest in the topic being taught.(c) Increased number of absentees in the class.(d) All the above.

13. India's first 100 per cent computer literate village is

(a) Chamravattam village (Kerala)(b) Sasamosa (Bihar)(c) Guru Nagar (Punjab)

78

(d) None of these

14. What role would you take up in the developmental programmes of the society?

(a) Attend discussions and present views(b) Closely watch the programmes and point out lapses in

time.(c) Actively participate in their planning and execution.(d) Encourage social audit and evaluation

15. Major limitation of mass communication is that

(a) It is very costly for the receiver.(b) More time is required produce the message.(c) The success of the Programme mainly depends upon the

producers.(d) The feedback system is weak.

16. Communication will be effective if it is(a) Delivered slowly and clearly(b) Delivered using appropriate media(c) Received as intended by the sender(d) Received immediately

17. The most important reason why the present education system has to be modified is that

(a) It does not provide for harmonious development of a student

(b) It is very old.(c) It is too theoretical (d) It cannot cope up with modern developments.

18. 'Projection' is a defense mechanism in which the individual

(a) Finds justification of one's own action (b) Goes back to the previous stage of development(c) Channelises energy to the 'id' to acceptable

channels.(d) Attributes the reason for one's behaviour to some

other source.

19. Which of the following will not hamper effective communication in the class?

(a) A lengthy statement(b) An ambiguous statement

79

(c) A precise statement(d) A statement, which allows the listener to draw his

own conclusion.

20. The effective means in educational instrument is

(a) Visible means(b) Audio means(c) Audio-visible means(d) Black board writing

21. What is your opinion regarding the teacher planning and preparing every class?

(a) It is meaningless to plan and prepare afresh if the class has been handled earlier.

(b) A teacher having enough experience need not have any preparation and planning.

(c) Classes will be more dynamic if the teacher adjusts to the classroom situation

without planning in advance.(d) Every teacher has to plan and prepare before handling

any lesson.

22. Which of the following things is essential for communicating a research work ?

(a) Procedure(b) Command over language(c) Statement of objectives(d) b and c

23. Which one of the following is the duty of the teacher as a communicator?

(a) to make the students to think(b) to impart knowledge through the lesson(c) to discuss the subject(d) all the above

24. ‘Production emphasis' will be highest ina group, where the leader is

(a) Authoritarian(b) Democratic(c) Laissez faire(d) None of the above

25. Inferential Statistics is based on

80

(a) Deductive reasoning only(b) inductive reasoning only(c) Inductive and deductive reasoning(d) Interpretation of tables

26. The first step in designing a question should be

(a) Referring to question papers of previous years(b) Analysing the course content.(c) Stating the predetermined instructional objectives(d) Structuring of a blue print

27. The phenomenon of forgetting can be bestexplained by

(a) The phenomenon of reminiscence(b) The phenomenon of interference(c) Repression(d) The passage of time

28. A teacher may have better communication in a lecture if

(a) He has written notes in advance to guide him (b) He puts his notes before him and delivers a lecture(c) He has an extempore talk with examples of other

disciplines(d) His lecture is full of eloquent language

29. All informal and formal communications have the following characteristics

(a) structured (b) unstructured (c) different (d) same

30. To teach effectively at the understanding level a teacher must

(a) keep his objective clear(b) understand the proper role of practice(c) practice proper motivational techniques(d) All the above

31. Read the statement given below.“Too much consumption of liquor damages liver which mayprove fatal." Mark in the response sheet; Whether it is(a) An appeal to reason(b) An appeal to sentiments(c) An appeal to emotions(d) Paradoxical

81

32. Which of the following steps would you consider first for an effective communication?

(a) Select the channel of communication(b) Plan the evaluation procedure(c) Specify the objectives of communication(d) Identity various media for communication.

33. Characteristic of all formal and informal communications are

(a) same (b) unstructured (c) structured (d) different

34. An effective communication system does not require

(a) change in speech pattern(b) appropriate gestures(c) mastery of content(d) handsome personality

35. Which of the following statements is notcorrect ?

(a) A good communicator cannot be a good teacher(b) A good communicator has a good sense of humour(c) A good communicator has wide reading(d) A good communicator has command over language.

36. The most powerful barrier of communication in the classroom is

(a) noise in the class room(b) confusion on the part of the teacher(c) more outside disturbances in the class room(d) Mack of teaching aids.

37. Effective communication will make the receivers.

(a) Enjoy it (b) Accept it (c) Pass it on to others (d) Think about it

Key

82

S.No. Key S.No Key S.N

o. Key

1. b 2. c 3. b4. a 5. d 6. a7. d 8. b 9. d10. a 11. c 12. d13. a 14. c 15. d16. c 17. d 18. d19. c 20. c 21. d22. d 23. a 24. a25. c 26. c 27. b28. c 29. d 30. c31. a 32. c 33. c34. d 35. d 36. a37. b

83

Unit –V

REASONING (Including Mathematics)

* Mr.S.NatesapandianNumber serious, letter series, codes, Relationships,

classification

5.1. Introduction The reasoning can be broadly classified into two

category viz. verbal and non-verbal. Under verbal, both

numbers and alphabets are involved and under non-verbal

pictures are involved. However, non-verbal are not included

in the syllabus.

Under verbal the major classifications are (i) Test

Completion series.

Eg: (1) Which of the numbers will replace the question mark?

5, 7, 10, 14, 19, 25, ?

(A) 32 (B) 30 (C) 33 (E) Name of

these.

Answer: AClue: 5 + 2 = 7, 7 + 3 = 10, 10 + 4 = 14; 14 +

5 = 19

19 + 6 = 25, 25 + 7 = 32.

Eg.: (2) Find the missing term

84

DKM, FJP, HIS, JHV, _________ ?

(A) HGY (B) IGZ (C) IGY (D) LGY

Answer: D

Clue: I Letter: D F H J

K J I H

M P S V

You may remember the following key. It will be

useful for test completion serious as well as coding –

decoding.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

A B C D E F G H I J

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

K L M N O P Q R S T

21 22 23 24 25 26

U V W X Y Z

(ii) Spotting out the dissimilar: (Find the odd man out or

classification)

Eg.: 1: The four words out of the following five words are

almost same in nature and they form a group. Which of the

following does not belong to that Group?

85

+2 +2 +2 +2

-1 -1 -1-1

+3 +3 +3+3

L

G

Y

* Mr.S.Natesa Pandian, Principal, Madurai Kamaraj University College, Andipatti.

(A) Wheat (B) Paddy (C) Millets

(D) Maize (E) Mustard

Answer: E – Mustard is only oil seed others are vains

(Corns)

Eg.: 2: Find out the different number from the following:

(A) 41 (B) 45 (C) 47 (D) 29

(E) 31

Answer: B – This is the only composite number. All other

numbers are prime numbers.

Note: Prime numbers are those which will be divisible only

by 1 and by itself; and will not be divisible by any other

number. Eg: 1, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, etc.

(iii) Analogy will be dealt in the next unit VI

(iv) Coding and Decoding: Please remember the serial

number for each alphabet as

given in the keg in pre page.

Eg: (1) If PERILOUS is coded as RGTKNQWIJ; how will you

code OLYMPIC in that language?

(A) QNOAKARE (B) QONARKE (C) QNAORKE (D)

QKNOARE

Cartzet Answer: (C)

Clue: Similarly

K J O Q

E G L N

86

+2

+2

+2

+2

+2

+2

R T Y A

I K M O

L N P R

O Q I K

U W C E

S U

Eg.: 2: If MENTAL is written as NUMGZO in a certain

code language then how will SILVER be written in the same

code Language?

Answer: A

Clue: MENTAL – NUMGZO

Reverse letter for M is N, for E it is V, for N it is

M, for T it is G for A it is Z and for L it is O. Similarly

for SILVER using the reverse letter, the answer will be

HROEVI

Note: Reverse letter means M is 13th letter from the

beginning and its reverse is N; 13th letter from the end. A

is the first letter from beginning its reverse is Z; first

letter form its last.

(v) Relationship: In order to identity, its create

relationship. You may imagine your own kiths and kin

87

+2

+2

+2

+2

+2

+2

+2

+2

+2

(relatives) so that it will be easy to identity. However

the following relationship nomenclature may be remembered.

(1) Mother’s sister – Maternal aunt

(2) Father’s sister - Aunt

(3) Son of father or mother - Brother

(4) Daughter of father or Mother - Sister

(5) Son of Brother - Nephew

(6) Daughter of Brother - Niece

(7) Wife of elder Brother - Sister-in-law

(8) Husband of daughter - Son-in-law

(9) Wife of son - Daughter-in-law

(10) Sister of wife - Sister-in-law

(11) Brother of wife - Brother-in-law

(12) Father of Father - Grand father

(13) Father of Mother - Maternal Grand Father

(14) Mother of father - Grand Mother

(15) Mother of Mother - Maternal Grand Mother

(16) Brother of Father - Uncle

(17) Brother of Mother - Maternal Unle

(18) Son of Father’s Brother - Cousin

(19) Son of Father’s Sister- Cousin

(20) Son of Mother’s Brother - Cousin

88

(21) Son of Mother’s Sister- Cousin

(22) Son of Maternal Grand Father - Maternal

Uncle

(23) The only daughter of maternal grand father –

Mother

(24) Wife of Mother’s Brother or wife of Maternal grand father’s son - Maternal aunt

(25) The only son of Grand father - Father.

(26) Mother of wife - Mother-in-law

(27) Father of Wife - Father-in-law

(28) The only daughter of father-in-law orMother-in-law - wife

(29) Husband of sister - Brother-in-law

(30) Son of sister or Brother-in-law - Nephew

(31) Daughter of sister or brother-in-law - Niece

(32) Son of daughter or son-in-law - Grand

daughter

(33) Son of son or daughter-in-law - Grand son

(34) Son of son or daughter-in-law - Grand son

(35) Daughter of son or daughter-in-law - Grand

daughter

(36) Only daughter-in-law of Grand father - Mother

(37) Only daughter-in-law of father - wife

(38) Husband of daughter-in-law - son

89

Illustration: A is the mother of B and C. If D is the

husband of C. What A is to D?

(A) Mother (B) Sister (C) Mother-in-law (D) Aunt

Answer: CModel Questions

1. If 10 men dig 20 ditches in 30 minutes, how long will ittake 5 men to dig 10 ditches?(a) 50 Minutes (b) 40 Minutes (c) 30 minutes (d) 20minutes

2. THREAD is to CLOTH as WIRE is to:(a) Radio (b) Rope (c) Mesh (d) Metal

3. Robbers rob a bank by:(a) Bombarding it (b)Setting its premises on fire(c) Attacking police head quarters (d) breaking into itat night

4. Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror imageof the given figure when the mirror is held at AB?

(a) (b)(c) (d)

5. Find out the pair which does not match with other pairsfor lack of common property.(a) 11-14 (b) 4-52 (c) 1-13 (d) 7-91

90

Given Figure

Answer Figure

6. The Independence Day in 1988 was celebrated on Wednesday.On which day celebrated in 1989.(a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Friday (d)Thursday

7. The age of the mother is thrice as that of her daughter.After twelve years, the mother shall be twice that of herdaughter, the age of the daughter.(a) 18 years (b) 16 years (c) 14 years (d) 12years.

8. A man travels 12km towards West, then 3km towards Southand then 8 km towards East, How far is he from the start?(a) 23km (b) 20mk (c) 15mk (d) 5km

9. While a train is running at 60km per hour, and a car isspeeding at 100m per which of the tow is faster?(a) The train (b) The Car(c) Both are progressing in the same speed (d)Impossible to determine

10. Which of the following turning sequences will make onewho starts walking the east, walk towards South?(a) Left, Left, Left (b)Left, Left, Right(c) Right, Right, Right (d)Left, Right, Left

11. Indicate the term which is different from the rest ofthe three.(a) Gallon (b) Ton (c) Quintal (d)Kilogram

12. Find out the pair the does not go with other pairs dueto the lack of common property.(a) Plant – Flower (b) Chair-Sofa (c) Head-Eye

(d) Tree-Stem

13. If ‘ROSE’ is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 and‘PREACH’ coded as 961473, then what will be the code for‘SEARCH’?(a) 246173 (b) 214673 (c) 214763 (d) 216473

14. What will come in place of the question mark? 3,12, 10, 19, 17?

91

(a)18 (b) 23 (c) 35 (d) 1 mile

15. Wood is to TREE as Wool is to:(a) Cloth (b) Sheep (c) Fibre (d)Thread

16. Today is 12th June, If after three (3) days it isWednesday, what day was Yesterday?(a) Saturday (b) Sunday (c) Monday (d)Tuesday

17. The Opposite of Courage is _______(a) Humidity (b) Coward (c) Cowardice (d) Fuss

18. If all men have books, then big men have:(a) Fewer books (b) Books (c) Few books (d) Bigbooks.

19. Arrange the following words in an order and pick fromanswer choice the one which falls in the middle. Found, Harsh, Loving, Hateful, Friendly(a) Hateful (b) Friendly (c) Harsh (d) Loving

20. Name the common property among KETTLE, SAUCEPAN,TEAPOTS.(a) Spout (b) Metal bottom (c) Handles (d) Colour

21. If YVZI means BEAR, then DLOU mean:(a) Lion (b) Wolf (c) Deer (d) Pony

22. Complete the series: M, K, J, H, F(a) D (b) C (c) E (d)O

23. What is a common property among MEN, DOGS and FLOWERS?(a) Legs (b) Life (c) Petals (d) eyes

24. Which letter does not belong to the series. Z, Y, X, Q, W, V(a) Y (b) X (c) Q (d)W

25. Which number comes in the series given below: 1, 2,4, 7, ……..?(a) 15 (b) 14 (c) 12 (d)11

92

26. Select one figure out of (a), (b), (c) and (d) which isdifferent from the other three?

(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d

27. Select one alternative out of (a), (b), (c) and (d)which replaces the question mark (?)

(a) (b) (c) (d)

28. Which of the events does not belong to the group?(a) Javelin throw (b) Discus throw (c) Polevault (d) Shot put

29. Which is the seventh letter in the alphabet if we beginthe counting from K.(a) Q (b) N (c) M (d)P

30. If 8 men out of 50 are bald, how many men in 1000 arenot bald?(a) 640 (b) 740 (c) 840 (d) 940

31. Rearrange the jumbled words into sentence and indicatethe middle word of the sentence from the answer choices. SOME LAND WATER PLANES ON(a) Land (b) Water (c) Planes (d) Some

32. In a code Language BADGE is coded as 558119, what willbe the code for AGE?(a) 8911 (b) 5611 (c) 5119 (d) 1159

33. In the series given below which number is wrong?7, 12, 18, 22, 25

J L I

93

: : :

(a) 18 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d)12

34. Which letter should come next?A A B D(a) F (b) G (c) H (d)I

35. Which number is wrong in the series?1, 6, 2, 12, 8, 24(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 2 (d)24

36. Which of the four alternative correctly represents theposition after the problem figure has been rotated in thedirection of the marked arrow?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

37. In the given letter sequence, some letters are missingbut are given in that order as on of the alternatives,find out that alternative.Given sequence, bc________b________c______b_____cc_____b(a) cb cb (b) bb cb (c) cb bc (d) bc bc

38. Which of the following is different from the restthree?(a) Wood (b) Cork (c) Stone (d) Paper

39. Select the odd one out.

94

a b c d

40. Replace the question mark by selecting an appropriatefigure from the alternate

(a) (b) (c) (d)

41. Which one alternative out of (a), (b), (c) and (b)which is analogous to the first Touch : Feel :: Great:?(a) Smile (b) Acknowledge (c) Success (d) Manners

42. Which one set of letters will complete the series?Series : ABP, CDQ, EFR, _____?________(a)HGS (b)MNR (c)PGS(d)GHS

43. Select one of the alternatives which has the sameproperty as in the given figure

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Directions: Each of the questions from 44 to 48 is based onthe following alphabet series:

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

95

GivenFigure :

44. Which letter is seventh to the right of the letter which is eleventh from the right?(a) W (b) V (c) X (d) Y

45. Which letter is seventh to the right of the letter whichis thirteenth from the left?(a) V (b) S (c) T (d) X(e) None of these

46. If the above alphabet is divided in two equal parts thenwhich letter will appear in place of ‘J’ in the second half?(a) Q (b) V (c) X (d) W(e) None of these

47. If the above alphabet is written in reverse order then which letter will be eighth to the left of the letter which is seventh from the right?(a) N (b) O (c) P (d) Q(e) None of these

48. If the alphabet is written in reverse order then which letter will be seventh to the left of the letter which iseighth from the right?(a) L (b) M (c) O (d) P(e) None of these

Directions: (49 – 53): In a certain language the letters are coded as follows:

Directions: (49 – 53): In a certain language the letters are coded as follows:

S B C P N E O H R M0 9 3 7 1 6 4 8 5 2

Find the code of each word in each of the following questions:

49. NOSER(a) 67859 (b) 14065 (c) 14056 (d) 14506 (e) 14605

96

50. PROSE(a) 75496 (b) 75403 (c) 75406 (d) 75046 (e) 70456

51. HORSE(a) 84504 (b) 84506 (c) 89504 (d) 84507 (e) 89504

52. PORSB(a) 74503 (b) 74505 (c) 74506 (d) 74509 (e) 74590

53. COBRN(a) 34956 (b) 34596 (c) 34956 (d) 34951 (e) 31594

54. If 65-54=2; 86-40=10 and 342-312=3, what is 94-82?(a) 3 (b) 12 (c) 20 (d) 10

55. The numbers given below are arranged following certain principles. Find out the missing number:

7 8 3 294 7 3 195 6 - 31

(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 5

56. Which number would replace question mark in the series 7, 12, 19,?, 39.(a) 29 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 24

57. Which is the number that comes next in the sequence: 0, 6,24, 60, 120, 210, ?.(a) 240 (b) 290 (c) 336 (d) 504

58. 1, 6, 13, 22, 33, (…….) (a) 44 (b) 45 (c) 46 (d) 47

59. What terms will fill the blank spaces? Z, X, V, T, R, (----),(----)(a) O, K (b) N, M (c) K, S (d) M, N, (e)P, N

60. aab, ____, aaa, ____, bba, ____,

97

(a) bba (b) abb (c) bab (d) aab(e) bba

61. 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, (…..)(a) 35 (b) 36 (c) 48 (d) 49

62. 1, 9 , 17, 33, 49, 73, (……)(a) 97 (b) 98 (c) 99 (d) 100

63. 1,6, 15, (….), 45, 66, 91(a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (d) 28

64. A, Z, X, B, V, T, C, R,?,?(a) P, B (b) E, O (c) Q, E (d) O, Q(e) Q, O

65. Z, L, X, J, V, H, T, F, ?, ?(a) R, D (b) R, E (c) S, E (d) Q, D

66. W, V, T, S, Q, P, N, M, ? ? ? (a) I, J (b) J, I (c) J, K (d) K, J

67. If in a code language, COULD is written as BNTKC and MARGINis written as LZQFHM, how will MOULDING be written in thatcode?(a) CHMFINTK (b) LNKTCHMF (c) LNTKCHMF (d) NITKHCMF(e) None of these

68. If FULFNHW is the code for CRICKET, then EULGH is the code forwhich be coded as PNIICC?(a) PRIDE (b) BRIDE (c) BLADE (d) BLIND(e) None of these

69.

(a) 35 (b) 37 (c) 45 (d) 47

70. Find out the missing number

98

(a) 40 (b) 50 (c) 85 (d) 75

Direction: Questions 1 to 6 are based on the diagram given below where each square represents a

class/group of people:

71. College students who are artists but not dancers are

represented by (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) F

72. Artists who are neither dancers nor college students arerepresented by(a)A (b) B (c) C (d) F (e) E

73. College Students who are dancers but not artists arerepresented by(a)B (b) C (c) F (d) E (e) D

74. College students who are artists as well as dancers isrepresented by(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E (e) F

75. College students who are neither dancers nor artists both arerepresented by(a) B (b) D (c) A (d) E (e) C

Key

99

DBAC

G E

F

College Students

Artists

Dancers

S.No. Key S.N

o. Key S.No. Key S.No

. Key S.No. Key

1. c 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. d6. d 7. d 8. d 9. b 10. a11. a 12. b 13. b 14. b 15. b16. a 17. b 18. b 19. c 20. a21. b 22. a 23. b 24. c 25. d26. d 27. a 28. c 29. a 30. c31. c 32. c 33. b 34. b 35. c36. a 37. a 38. c 39. d 40. c41. d 42. d 43. b 44. a 45. c46. d 47. b 48. c 49. b 50. c51. b 52. d 53. d 54. a 55. a56. b 57. c 58. c 59. a 60. e61. b 62. a 63. d 64. a 65. a66. d 67. c 68. b 69. b 70. c71. b 72. d 73. e 74. b 75. c

100

Unit -VI

LOGICAL REASONING* Mr.S.Natesa Pandian

6.1. Introduction

Syllogism is a Greek word which means logical

inference. Logical inference or conclusion of any given

statement is arrived at through this. Such statement is

called logical proposition and it is of four kinds namely

i. Universal Affirmativeii. Universal Negativeiii. Particular Affirmativeiv. Particular Negative

i. Universal Affirmative: If a logical proposition starts with the word ‘All’,

it is called Universal Affirmative proposition provided it

affirms the predicate of the subject.

For Example: All kings are beggars.

ii. Universal Negative: If a proposition starts with the word ‘No’, it is

called Universal Negative proposition.

For Example: No king is beggar.

iii. Particular Affirmative: If a proposition starts with the word ‘some’, it is

called particular

Term of the Proposition

S.No The word by which the Sign Quality Quantity

101

.model proposition is

recognized withcertainly

or symbol

1 All A Affirmative Universal

2 No E Negative Universal

3 Some I Affirmative Particular

4 Some not 0 Negative Particular

Logical conclusion of any statement can be drawn by

the following two methods.

(a) By the rules provided by Aristotle

(b) By Venn diagrams which are based on Euler circles.Euler was the

mathematician of Switzerland.

Thus by four available symbols 16 statements (of two

foundational premises) can be had Affirmative proposition

provided it affirms the predicate of the subject.

For example: Some kings are beggars.

iv. Particular Negative: If a proposition starts with the

word ‘some’ followed by ‘not’, it is called particular

Negative Proposition.

For example: Some kings are not beggars. There must be

three things in any proposition.

(1) Subject (2) Predicate (3) Copula

For Example:

All Kings areBeggars

102

* Mr.S.Natesa Pandian, Principal, Madurai Kamaraj University College, Andipatti.

The indicative Subject Copula Predicate

Provided that a pair of two premises is formed. They are

AA EA 1A 0AAE EE 1E 0EA1 E1 11 01A0 E0 10 00

Therefore no conclusion of two premises can be drawn at

all in the following conditions.

(1)No logical conclusion can follow the foundational

premises if the both are particular, either affirmative or

negative i.e., whether they start with ‘some’ or ‘some not’.

Such pairs are 11, 10 and 01.

(2)No conclusion can be derived from two foundational

premises if both are negative either universal or particular

i.e. whether they start with ‘No’ or ‘some not’. Such pars

are EE, 00, E0 and 0E.

(3)No conclusion can follow from two foundational

premises if the first of them is particular affirmative and

the second is universal negative even. Such a pair is 1E.

In this way from among 16 paired foundational premises

only the conclusions of eight foundational premises can be

drawn on the basis of their figures. You can not draw

conversion; sub-alternate relation and conclusion relating

to inference of those foundational premises of which logical

conclusions are not possible.

103

The foundational statements of a syllogism are writtenin four figures.

(1). SP – The statement will be called under SP if the

middle term takes the place of subject in the first premise

and take the place of predicate in the second premise as

All books are pen.All bricks are Books.

(2). PP – if the middle terms takes the place of

predicate in both the premises the statement will be treated

as under PP as

All kings are beggarsAll thieves are beggars.

(3) SS – If the middle term occupies the place of

subject in the first and the second premises both, the

statement will be called under SS. as

All doctors are politicians.All doctors are thieves.

(4) PS – If in any statement in the middle term comes

as predicate in the first premises and comes as subject in

the second premise, the statement will be called under PS as

All crows are ducks.All ducks are letters.

Thus taking into consideration the point of four

figures 16 x 4 = 64 statements can be made. At the same

time in deriving the conclusion of any statement the

distribution of term is also very important.

How to recognize the distributed term?

104

One should remember the formula ‘USNP’ which means

the subject of universal proposition (A&E) and the predicate

of Negative proposition (E & O) are distributed and the rest

are undistributed.

The subject of A (All) is distributed. The subject

and predicate of E (No one) is distributed. Neither the

subject nor the predicate of 1 (some) is distributed. The

predicate of O (some not) is distributed. The subject of O

(Some not) and the predicate of A (All) remain

undistributed.

The following points are to be remembered will when

the conclusion from two foundational premises are drawn.

(1) Logical conclusion of two foundational premises

can be derived only when there are three terms

as – All boys are students.All students are singers.

Here boys is major termStudents is middle term.Singers is minor term.

Major Term:

In the given two foundational premises the first is

called major premise and the term other than the middle term

in it is called major term.

Middle Term:

In two foundational premises what is common to both

and connects both the premises is called the middle term but

105

no conclusion is drawn in respect of the middle term. The

conclusion is drawn about the minor term.

Minor Term:

In two foundational premises the term other than the

middle term in the second premise is called minor term as it

belongs to minor premise.

(2) If in the given two foundational premises both the

middle terms are distributed the logical conclusion about

the particular term and not about the universal term can be

drawn, as.

All cats are litters.All cats are rats.

Conclusion:

(1) Some litters are cats.(2) Some rats are letters.

Example (1) Statement:

“Some labourers are artisans”, if this statement be

true, which one in the given following alternatives will be

definitely logically?

(A) Some artisans are labourers(B) All artisans are labourers(C) All labourers are artisans(D) Some labourers are not artisans(E) None of these.

106

Solution: (E) See the following diagram.

The given statement isparticular affirmative (1).If this is true then no

truth logically follows because ‘1’ being true ‘E’ willbe False and ‘A’ and ‘0’ will be doubtful.

Example (2) – Statement: “Some kings are not beggars.” If

this fact is false then which of the following conclusions

is false.

Conclusions:I. All kings are beggars.II. Some beggars are kings.III. Some kings are beggars.IV. All beggars are kings.V. No king is beggar(A). None(B). All(C). Only I and IV(D). Only II and III(E). Only V

Solution: (E)

The given statement is ‘0’ proposition and as a ruleif ‘0’ is false then ‘E’ must be false. In other words ‘Noking is beggar’ alone is false.

A E 1 0T f t Ff T F td F T dF d d T

107

Example (3): Statement:

All the laborious are jobless.All the jobless are careless.

Conclusions:I. Some careless (men) are jobless.II. All the laborious are jobless.III. Some laborious (men) are not careless.IV. Some careless men are laborious.(A). All (B) Only I and IV (C) Only I and II

(D) Only I(E). None of these.

Solution: (B)

These can be solved by the method of syllogisticreasoning as shown below:

108

The Second method: By Venn diagram

I IIIf ‘Some kings are not beggars’ is false,the new diagram will be as follows:-

Beggars

Kings Beggars

Kings

Kings KingsBeggars

Beggars

Laborious

All the laborious are jobless. All the jobless are careless.

Here in these statements the middle term ‘Careless’

is distributed in the second premise and so the conclusions

must come out. Since both the premises are affirmative the

conclusions must also be affirmative. Therefore one can

draw conclusion by the following syllogistic or deductive

method.

(1) Logical Conclusion:

All laborious (men) are careless.

(2) Conversion:

1. Some careless (men) are laborious.2. Some jobless (men) laborious.3. Some careless (men) are jobless.

(3) Subaltern Relation:

1.Some Laborious (men) are careless.2.Some laborious (men) are jobless.3.Some jobless (men) are careless.

Therefore, the conclusions given in the question having

compared with these conclusions the alternative (B) is

definitely correct.

We can solve it by Venn diagram also.

109

CarelessJobless

Carele

ss

Laborious

Jobless

The following conclusion will come out from Venn diagram(i):

1. Some jobless (men) are not laborious.

2. Some jobless (men) are laborious.

3. Some careless (men) are jobless.

4. Some careless (men) are not jobless.

5. Some careless (men) are laborious

6. Some careless (men) are not laborious

7. Some careless (men) are careless.

Other conclusions can also follow, from Venn diagram(ii) the following conclusions can come out:

1.All laborious (men) are careless.

2.Some careless (men) are laborious

3.All laborious (men) are jobless.

4.All jobless (men) are laborious

5.All jobless (men) are careless.

6.Some careless (men) are jobless.

Therefore, after comparing the Venn diagrams (i) and(ii) if the result is compared with the given conclusion inthe question the alternative (B) comes out to be correct.

The conclusions related to the three combinedfoundational premises can be drawn by Venn diagram easily.By following the syllogistic rules we can draws conclusionsfrom two combined foundational premises as this is validmethod. Therefore, we should sort out a pair of twofoundational premises twice and derive conclusionssuccessively.

110

I I

Example (4): Statement:

Some fowls are insects.

All fowls are butterflies.

All insects are snakes.

Conclusions:I.Some Snakes are fowls.II. Some butterflies are insects.III. Some snakes are butterflies.IV. Some insects are fowls.(A). None(B). All(C). Only IV(D). Either I or III only(E). None of these.

Solution: (B):

First of all let us take the help of Venn diagram.We can compare the conclusions given in the question withthose arrived at by the Venn diagram and can get the rightsolution.

111

Fowls

Butt

erf

ly

Insect Fowls

Butt

erf

ly

Snake

I – √

II– √

III –

√

IV– X

I – √

II– √

III –

√

IV– √I

I

Insect

Note: (Please see the original in drawing these diagrams.)

Therefore the conclusions given in the questions have

been shown as ( √ ) if they are correct and shown as (x) if

they are wrong.

“These can be obtained by deductive method also if

the three foundational premises are grouped into two of two

premises separately.”

(i) Statement:Some fowls are insects.All fowls are butterflies.

In these premises ‘fowls’ is the middle term which is

distributed in the second premise. So conclusion will

follow and this will be particular affirmative as one of the

two foundational premises is particular affirmative.

(1) Logical conclusion (1) Some insects are fowls.

(2) Conversion(1) Some butterflies are insects.(2) Some insects are fowls.(3) Some butterflies are fowls.

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SnakeInsect

Butterf

Fowls I – X

II– √

III –

X

IV– X

II

(3) Sub-alter relation

(1) Some fowls are butterflies.

(ii) Statement:

All fowls are butterflies. All insects are snakes.

In these statements there is no middle term.

Moreover, there is a fallacy of four terms. Therefore

syllogistically speaking no conclusion is possible.

(iii) Statement:

All fowls are insects. All insects are snakes.

Here the middle term is insects which is distributed

in the second premise. As such a particular affirmative

conclusion will follow because one of the premises is

particular affirmative.

(1) Logical conclusion:(1) Some fowls are snake.

(2) Conversion (1) Some snakes are fowls.(2) Some insects are fowls.(3) Some snakes are insects.

(3) Sub-alter relation(1) Some insects are snakes.

(iv) Statement:

Some fowls are insects. All fowls are butterflies. All insects are snakes.

113

Here by observing all the three statement it is clear

that the term ‘fowls’ as the subject of the second premise

and the term ‘insects’ as the subject of the third premise

are distributed. All the other terms are undistributed. It

is well known that no term of the particular affirmative is

distributed. As such the conclusions will be of following

kinds.

(1) Some butterflies are snakes. (2) Some snakes are butterflies.

As such if all these conclusions are compared with

the conclusions given in the question, the alternative (B)

is correct.

Model Questions

Directions: (1 – 5) in making decisions about importantquestions it is desirable to be able to distinguish between‘strong’ arguments and ‘week’ arguments so far as theyrelate to the questions. ‘Strong’ arguments must be bothimportant and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’arguments may not be directly related to the question andmay be of minor importance or may be related to the trivialaspects of the question. Each question below is followed bytwo arguments numbered I and II. You have to decided whichof the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a‘weak’ argument. Give answer (A) if only argument I isstrong; give answer (B) if only argument II is strong; giveanswer (C) if either I or II is strong; give answer (D) ifneither I nor II is strong and give answer (E) if both I andII are strong.

1. Should there be a complete ban on manufacture of firecrackers in India?

Arguments: I. No. This will render thousands of workers jobless.II. Yes. The firecracker manufacturers use child labour to a large extent.

114

2. Should the tuition fees in all post-graduate courses be hiked considerably?

Arguments: I. Yes. This will bring in some sense of seriousness among the students

and will improve the quality.II. No. This will force the meritorious poor students to stay away from

postgraduate courses.

3. Should India allow the multinationals to explore the resources available under sea in its vast economic zone?

Arguments: I. Yes. India does not haveenough technical and financial resources to

conduct such explorations. II. No. This will endanger

the sovereign status of the country.

4. Should the private companies be allowed to operatepassenger train services in India?

Arguments: I. Yes. This will improvethe quality of service in Indian Railways and it

will be faced with be faced will severecompetition.II. No. The Private

companies may not agree to operate in the non-profitable sectors.

5. Should school education be made free in India?Arguments: I. Yes. This is the only

way to improve the level of literacy.II. No. It should add to thealready heavy burden on the exchequer.

Directions:(6 – 10) Each questions below is followed bytwo arguments numbered I and II. You have todecide which of the arguments I a ‘Strong’ argumentand which is a ‘weak’ argument.

Give answer (A) if only argument I is ‘strong’.

Give answer (B) if only argument II is ‘strong”.

Give answer (C) if either I or II is ‘strong”.

Give answer (D) if neither I or II is ‘strong”.

115

and Give answer (E) if both I or II are ‘strong”.

6. Should the age of voting be raised to 21 years in India?Arguments: I. No, it is difficult to

change any practice.II. Yes, by that age peopledevelop sense of responsibility and higher level

of maturity.

7. Statement : Should open book examinations be introducedfor professional courses in

India?Arguments: I. No, it will not seriously

improve the value and importance of present examination system.

II. Yes, all candidates canpass easily and can start their professional life.

8. Statement : Should system of reservation of posts forsocially and economicaly disadvantaged groups/castes beintroduced in the private sector?

Arguments: I. Yes, this would give moreopportunities of development to these

groups/castes.II. No, nowhere else in theworld such a practice is being followed.

9. Statement: Should school teachers be banned to take any

private tuitions?Arguments: I. Yes, only then the

quality of teaching in schools will improve.II. Yes, now salary of these teachers is reasonable.

10. Statement: Should children be legally made

responsible to take care of their parents during theirold age.

Arguments: I. Yes, such matter can onlybe solved by legal means.II. Yes, only this will bringsome relief to poor parents.

Directions : (11 – 15) Each questionbelow is followed by two arguments numbered I and II youhave to decide which of the arguments is a strong argumentand which is a weak argument.

116

Give answer (A) if only argument I is ‘strong’.Give answer (B) if only argument II is ‘strong”.Give answer (C) if either I or II is ‘strong”.Give answer (D) if neither I or II is ‘strong”.

and Give answer (E) if both I or II are ‘strong”.

11. Statement : Should getting primary educationbe incorporated as a fundamental right in India?

Arguments: I. No, what is the use? Have we fulfilled our duties regarding other

fundamental rights?II. Yes, this is what all thedeveloped countries have done.

12. Statement: Shopudl scheme of lotteries becompletely stopped in India?

Arguments: I. No, many stategovernments will have to stop some of their

developmental activities which they fund fromsurplus generated by

their lottery scheme.II. No, many unemployed youthwho sell lottery tickets to earn their

livelihood will face hardship.

13. Statement: Should dependents of India’sfreedom fighters be given benefits of reservation injobs?

Arguments: I. Yes. We should keep the dependents happy as the freedom fighters have

fought for a noble cause.II No. We already have too many reservations – letus not add to it.

14. Statement: With opening of the economy inIndia, should all workers unions be banned?

Arguments: I. No, workers unions are not banned in the other economically advanced

countries.II. No, a level headed worker’s union can really do wonders both for

workers and economy.

117

15. Statement: Should we grant permission to reputed private companies to construct civil airports forgeneral use in India?

Arguments: I. Yes, why not? It would be both economical and effective.II. No, it may pose danger tosecurity and safety of India.

Answers with Explanations:

1. (A) Argument I is strong because its relation is clearfrom the statement but the statement does not clarifythat child labour is used in the manufacturing offirecrackers.

2. (C) Arguments I and II are directly related to thestatement. But these two arguments are complementary

3. (D) Both the arguments are not related to statement.

4. (A) Argument I is strong because it is directly related tothe statement

5. (A) The only way to improve the level of literacy in Indiais free education. Therefore, arguments I is strong.

6. (B) Through voting we elect a responsible candidate,therefore, a voter should have proper understanding ofcorrect choice. This sense of responsibility isdeveloped by the age of 21 years.

7. (D) None of the argument is strong. Professional coursesdo not need knowledge of books only but requiredspecialization in vocational education. Argument IIdeals with the trivial aspect of the statement so itcan be rejected out rightly.

8. (A) Argument I is strong. For wholesome development of thenation every class of people should be improvedsocially and economically. For this we must takespecial care for the uplift of underprivileged classes.Argument II is not strong because rules and regulationsof every country cannot be same. They always differaccording to the need.

9. (D) Both of the arguments are weak. It is not necessarythat with the ban on private tuition, the quality of

118

teaching will be improved. On the other hand argumentII pin-points some irrelevant aspects due to which itcan be rejected.

10. (D) None of the arguments is strong, becausesuch sensitive and emotional issues cannot be solvedlegally.

11. (D) Both the arguments are weak. Argument Iis based on an individual opinion. Argument II can bedenie because it is based on an example of developedcountries whereas India is also a developing country.So India’s right need to be different with otherdeveloped countries.

12. (D) None of the arguments is strong.Lottery is an evil practice prevailing in the society.Its negative effects can be seen everywhere. So itshould be discouraged. To finance the developmentalactivities the Government can collect revenue fromother sources. Argument II is not favorable for theright development of society so it can be rejected.

13. (A) Argument I is strong. It seems to belogically convincing because they have served thenation. They laid down their lives to make nation’sfuture bright. Therefore their dependents should begiven some special provisions. Argument II is notappropriate, therefore, it is not a strong argument.

14. (D) None of the Arguments is strong.Argument I can be denied as it is based on an exampleand citing an example is bad argumentation. ArgumentII is weak because it is based on an assumption.

15. (D) Both the arguments are weak. If privatecompanies construct civil airports for general use thenin what way it will prove itself economical andeffective? Thus argument I is weak. Argument IIcannot be strong because it does not clear the ideathat how it will pose danger to security and safety.

Model Questions

1. Find the missing term in the following letter series:ACE, GIK, ?, SUM, YAC

119

(a) MOQ (b) MNP (c) MOP (d) MPQ

2. When and where are related to each other in the same wayas Time is related to:(a) Reason (b) Process (c) Place (d) Length

3. RIVER is related to DAM exactly in the same way asTRAFFIC is related to:(a) Signal (b) Vehicle (c) Motion (d) Lane

4. In the following letter sequence, some letters aremissing but are given in that order as one of thealternative here under. Find this alternatives.

a________bbc__________aac________cca______bbc(a) bacb (b) acba (c) abba (d) caba

5. If A stand for +, B for -, and c stand for x, what isthe value of

(10 C 4) A (4 C 4) B 6?(a) 46 (b) 50 (c) 56 (d)

60

6. Sheela has a few candies to be distributed. If she kept2, 3 and 4 in pack, she is left with one candy. If shekept 5 in a pack, she is left with none. What is theminimum number of candies she can have to pack anddistribute?(a) 54 (b) 65 (c) 37 (d)25

7. From the following select the one which is differentfrom the other three.(a) Rain (b) Mist (c) Smoke (d) Fog

8. Here in under is a statement given followed by fouralternative inferences. Find out the one whichdefinitely follows from the given statement.

‘Solders serve their country’(a) Those who serve their country are soldiers.(b) Women don’t serve their countries because they aresoldiers (c) Men generally serve their country.(d) Some men who are soldiers serve their country.

9. Which of the answer figures (a), (b), (c) and (d)completes the figure matrix?

120

(a) (b) (c) (d)10. Selected the alternative which replaces the sign of

interrogation Thunder: Rain :: Night :: ?(a) Day (b) Dusk (c) Dark (d)

Evening

11. From the alternative (a), (b), (c) and (d) indicate the onewhich is analogus to first two: Flying : Bird : Creeping ______?(a) Aeroplane (b) Snail (c) Ground (d) Flower

12. Find the pair that does not have common property withthe other three.(a) 100 – 25 (b) 90 – 14 (c) 160 – 10 (d) 250 – 10

13. Which of the following is different from other three?(a) Administrator (b) Doctor (c)Engineer (d) Professor

14. Shyam biked 9km to the west, then turned right and biked7km; he then, turned left and cycled 2km; then turned backto speedily bike 11km; again he turned right and biked 7km.How far is he from the starting him?(a) 3km (b) 6km (c) 7km (d) 9km

15. Which of the following (alternative) words cannot be formedfrom the letters contained in RECOMMENDATION?(a) Comment (b) Normal (c) Mandated (d)Menter

121

16. Fill in the missing number choosing from thealternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d)

3 x 2 = 10

4 x 3 = 14

5 x 4 = 18

6 x 5 = 22

7 x 6 = ?

(a) 26 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d)42

17. Insert the missing number at the sign of interrogation.

(a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d)19

18. Which one of the alternatives shall be a meaningfulorder of:1. Birth 2. death 3. funeral 4.marriage 5. education(a) 1 3 4 5 1 (b) 4 5 3 1 2 (c) 1 5 4 2 3 (d) 2 3 45 1

19. Which answer figure has the elements of the givenfigure?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1 2 3

11 7 5

120 45 ?

122

20. Find the odd one out:(a) USUAL (b) USAGE (c) URINE (d) UKASE

21. Boat is related sails in the same way as Balloon is to_______?(a) Rubber (b) Nylon (c) Rope (d) Hotair

22. Shoe is to Foot as Glove is to:(a) Arm (b) Hand (c) Elbow (d) Palm

23. Scissors is to the Cloth as Sycthe is to:(a) Wood (b) Steel (c) Grass (d) Metal

24. Find the missing number in the series given:4, 6, 3, 5, 2 ?

(a) 6 (b) 3 (c) 8 (d)4

25. If the third date of a particular month is Sunday, whatdate will be three days after the fourth Wednesday inthat month?(a) 30 (b) 24 (c) 29 (d)27

26. Rajnesh starts walking towards South. After covering 5km he turns left at right angles. In which direction isRajneesh finally moving?(a) West (b) East (c) South (d)North

27. Three of the following numbers are alike in some way,but one is not. Find that number.(a) 81 (b) 64 (c) 55 (d)49

28. Mohini has more money that Reema but she does not have as muchmoney as Suman. Who of them has maximum amount of money?(a) Mohini (b) Suman (c) Reema (d) It isdifficult to know

29. The relationship between Glory and Shame is the same asbetween:

123

(a) High and mighty (b)Garland and Belt (c) Head and Heart (d)Pride and Humility

30. What is the number of triangles in the following figure?

(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d)14

31. The corrected number of rectangles in the followingfigure is:

(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d)9

32. Complete the following series:Q, P, O, N, M, L____

(a) K (b)J (c) I (d)R

33. What number will complete the following series?1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 13, 17 ____

(a) 21 (b) 23 (c) 19 (d)20

34. Find the odd man out. 182, 208, 221, 234, 238(a) 208 (b) 182 (c) 234 (d)238

35. Insert the word that completes the first word and startsthe second Gold (….) ERY(a) Fish (b) Nail (c) Man (d)Flat

124

36. Pick from the answer figures which completes thesequence of the problem figure it if is put in the blankfigure.

(a)8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d)14

37. Find the odd man out.Hen, dog, man, women, child

(a) Man (b) Hen (c) Dog (d)Child

38. Find out the word that goes with these words Mother,Father,……..(a) Daughter (b) Son (c) Child (d) Nephew

39. If X2 G means GAT then DOG should be written as:(a) OWT (b) GAD (c) XOG (d) WLT

40. ICE is to Water as Water is to:(a) Land (b) River (c) Steam (d) Rain

41. If Swamy is coded as 13427, WARSAW, will be coded as:(a) 346143 (b) 342143 (c) 346134 (d)346734

42. Complete the series: 7, 9, 8, 11, 9, 13………..(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d)17

43. Complete the series A, Z, B, Y, C, X, D,………..(a) e (b) f (c) w (d)v

Key

125

S.No

.Key

S.No

.Key

S.No

.Key

S.No

.Key

S.No

.Key

1. a 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. b

6. d 7. c 8. d 9. a 10. c

11. b 12. b 13. a 14. d 15. b

16. a 17. b 18. c 19. d 20. a

21. d 22. b 23. c 24. d 25. a

26. b 27. c 28. b 29. d 30. c

31. d 32. a 33. c 34. d 35. a

36. a 37. d 38. c 39. d 40. c

41. b 42. a 43. c

126

Unit -VII

DATA INTERPRETATION*Mrs.C.Kavitha

Sources, Acquisition and Interpretation of data

Quantitative and Quantitative data

Graphical representation and mapping of data

7.1. Introduction to Data Interpretation

Raw facts are called data. Datum is a singular form

of data. Data may be in the form of table, Pie charts, Bar

charts, Line graph or any form of graphical representation.

Data interpretation understands of documented data.

Data sufficiency is the analysis of qualitative data.

For example: Situation Analysis. Qualitative data are those

data which cannot be measurable in number.

7.2. Sources and Acquisition of Data

Data may be collected either from the primary source

or secondary source. Primary data refers to those data

which are collected 1st hand by the investigator concerned,

such data are original in character.

The following are the methods of primary data collection

127

i. Direct personal Interview

ii. Indirect oral Interview

iii. Information through correspondent

iv. Mailed Questionnaire

v. Schedule

Data which are not originally collected but collected

either from published or unpublished sources are called

secondary data.

7.3. Interpretation of Data

After the data are collected, next step in to classify

the collected data, in order to reveal the salient futures of

the collected data are called interpretation of data. If we

try to analyse the un-widely data, there are chances of

drawing wrong interpretation and conclusion about the nature

of data. Thus, the need arises to reduce and simplify the

data in required form called Tables, Charts and Graphs. These

procedures are called Classification and Tabulation of data.

Classification in the process of arranging a huge

mass of heterogenous data into homogeneous group to depict

the salient features of the data.

The following are the advantages of classification

i. Simplification of raw data

ii. Facilitates comparison

128

* Mrs.C.Kavitha, Lecturer, Department of Management Studies, Mother Teresa Women’s University,Kodaikanal.

iii. Depicts salient features of the data

iv. Makes the data more intelligible

v. Easy to

interpret

7.4. Types of

classification

7.4.1. Qualitative classification: Classification through

qualitative data and the method of interpretation in known

as data sufficiency.

Student Population

Genius Highly Average Below Dull Intelligent

Average

7.4.2. Quantitative classification: Classification on the

basis of the phenomenon which is capable of quantitative

measurement. For example; Weight, Height, Age, Marks etc.,

Marks Number ofStudents.

0 – 5 7 5 – 10 310 – 20 2120 – 25 9

129

7.4.3. Geographical classification – classification based on

the geographical region or locality.

7.4.4.

Chronological classification: Classification on the basis

of time of occurrences (Year, Month, Quarterly and Weekly

etc.,)

In all the types of classification, the 2nd column is called

“frequency distribution”. But in the Quantitative

classification only the Quantitative elements are available

in both the column.

Country Average output(Per Hectare)

India 120

USA 1150

China 250

UK 800

Year Production(in tones)

1985 3001986 3151987 3601988 3701989 4101990 420

130

This Quantitative phenomenon generally classified into 3

groups

(a) Individual Series

(b) Discrete Series

(c) Continuous Series

(a) In the Individual series or distribution, only one

column (i.e.) the variable will be available, normally the

frequency.

For example:

Marks of 10 students in a class of 10

413, 417, 404, 385, 401,

408, 395 and 356

(b) In the discrete

series, single

variable with respect to frequency distribution will be

available

For example:

Marks obtained of 20 students in a class of 6th standard out

of 100.

Marks Number of Students

99 1298 397 496 295 1

131

(c) In the continuous series, classes will be in the 1st

column

For example:

What is a class? Class interval? Mid Point?

Class is a group of related variable; For example: “5 – 10

Marks” is a class. In a class, one lower limit and one

upper limit with certain Class Interval (I) will be

available.

For example:

5 – 10 marks - is

a Class

5 - Lower limit

10 - Upper limit

The difference between the upper limit and the lower

limit is called Class Interval. Here, 5 is the class

Marks Number of Student

0 – 5 1 5 – 10 310 – 15 715 – 20 1220 – 25 7

132

Generally called class limits

interval (i.e.) the difference between upper limit and lower

limit (10 – 5 = 5)

For example:

If the salary of 100 employees ‘in a bank varied from

Rs.500/- to Rs.5500/- per day and if we want to form 10

classes (or called groups) than the class interval (I) would

be

I (Class Interval) =

S – Smallest value

L – Largest Value

K – Required classes or groups

Here: I – 5,500 – 500

10

/ We can have 10 classes by having 500 as the Class Interval

(i.e.)

500 - 1000

1000 – 1500

1500 - 2000

There are 2 method of preparing classes.

(a) Exclusive method

(b) Inclusive method

(a) In the exclusive method: The upper limit of the one

class will be the lower limit of the next class

133

L –S

=

For Example:

Wages(Per hour)

No. ofworker

10 - 20 1520 - 30 2530 - 40 35

Under this method, a worker getting wage 30 would be

included in the classes of 30 – 40. He/She will be excluded

from the grouper class 20 – 30.

(b) In the Inclusive method: The upper in the lower limit

are included in that class itself.

Income (Per Day)

No. ofworker

40 – 49 2050 – 59 3060 – 69 40

Suppose, the income of a worker is Rs.50/- he/she is

included in the class 50 – 59 and thus in this method, there

will not be any confusion in classifying values like 50, 60,

etc.

Mid point:

The central or middle value of the 2 class limits is

called mid point. It lies half way between the lower limit

and the upper limit of a Class Interval (I).

Mid point =

134

Upper limit of a class – Lower limit ofthe same class

2

Opened Ended classes:

When the lower limit of the 1st class and the upper

limit of the last class are not given, then it is known as

open – ended classes.

Below 50

50 – 100

100 – 150

150 – 200

Above 200

Bi-variate or Two Way Frequency Distribution:

Frequency Distribution involving only one variable is

called univariate frequency distribution. When the

frequency distribution involves simultaneous study of two

variables at a time are generally termed as Bi-variate or

two way frequency Distribution. If we want to classify the

date relating to height and weight of a student

For example:

Height

Weight

155

c.m.

156

c.m.

157

c.m.

158

c.m.

159

c.m.

160

c.m.45 –

50kg 5 12 7 1 5 5

50 –

65kg10 8 2 8 2 2

55 –

60kg 1 7 3 2 4 2

7.5 Types of tables

135

i. Simple or one way table:

ii. Two way table:

AgeNo. of workers

Male Female25 – 35 30 1035 – 45 20 1045 – 55 5 555 – 65 4 1

ii. Higher order table:

Religi

onAge

Male FemaleP T Total P T Total

Hindu

25 –

3512 8 20 8 0 8

35 –45

6 6 12 8 0 8

45 –55

2 2 4 4 0 4

55 –65

1 1 2 1 0 1

Age No. of workers

25 – 35 40

35 – 45 30

45 – 55 10

55 – 65 5

136

Muslim

25 –

358 2 10 1 1 2

35 –45

4 4 8 1 1 2

45 –55

1 0 1 1 0 1

55 –65

1 1 2 0 0 0

7.6 Calculation of Averages

i. The following table gives the marks of 10 students in an

examination. Find out the average

S.No

.1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Mark

s35 33 44 34 41 45 39 40 38 37

Average =

Average = 40.2 marks

ii. Find the average No. of children per family from the

following table.

No. of Children perfamily(x)

No. of Families(f)

4 176 93 58 209 155 12

137

Total of the Marks

10

402 =

40.2 Marks

To find the average number of children per family: multiply

the no. of the children per family say (x) and the No. of

the families say (f) – frequency

fx

68 54 15 Here, 78 = Total No. of families ( ∑f )100 492 = Total No. of Children ( ∑fx)135 60 Hence, Average No. of Children per family is 6-----492-----

iii. From the following table compute the average weight of

fish:

Fish Weights (in Grooms) No. of Fishes

185 – 195 2195 – 205 1205 – 215 3215 – 225 5225 – 235 2235 – 245 6245 – 255 4

Steps:

1. Calculate mid point (m)

138

Average = 492 = 6.3 (or) 678

2. Multiply mid point with the frequency (i.e) No. of

fishes (f)

3. Find the average

MidPoint(m)

fm

190 380200 200210 630220 1100230 460240 1440250 1000∑fm 5210

Here,

5210 = ∑fm

23 = ∑f

Hence, the average weight of fish is 226.5gm.

7.7. Data Interpretation through TablesIllustrations:

a. The following table gives the sales of batteries

manufactured by a company over the years. Study the

table and answer the question that follows:-

YearTypes of Batteries

4AH 7AH 32AH 35AH 55AH Total92 75 144 114 102 108 54393 90 126 102 84 126 52894 96 114 75 105 135 52595 105 90 150 90 75 51096 90 75 135 75 90 46597 105 60 165 45 120 49598 115 85 160 100 145 605

139

Average = 5210 = 226.5gm78

1. The total sales of all the seven years is the maximum ofwhich year battery(a) 4AH (b) 7AH (c) 32AH (d)35AH (e)55AH

2. What is the difference in the No. of 35AH batteries soldin 1993 and 1997.(a) 25 (b) 25 (c) 35 (d) 39 (e) 42

3. The percentage of 4AH batteries sold to the total No. ofbatteries sold was maximum in the year?(a) 1994 (b) 1995 (c) 1996 (d) 1997 (e) 1998

4. In the case of which battery there was a continuousdecrease in sales from 1992 to 1997.(a)4AH (b) 7AH (c) 32AH (d) 35AH (e) 55AH

5. What was the approximate percentage increased in the salesof 55AH batteries in 1998 compared to that in 1992?(a) 28% (b) 31% (c) 33% (d) 34% (e) 37%

Answers:

1. Answer (c)

Total sales of all seven years for varies batteries are

For 4AH = 75 + 90 + 96 + 105 + 90 + 105 + 115 = 676

For 7AH = 144 + 126 + 114 + 90 + 75 + 60 + 85 = 694

For 32AH = 114 + 102 + 75 + 105 + 135 + 165 + 160 = 901

For 35AH = 102 + 84 + 105 + 90 + 75 + 45 + 100 = 601

For 55AH = 108 + 126 + 135 + 75 + 90 + 120 + 145 = 799

Clearly, the sales are maximum in case of 32AH batteries,

therefore, the answer is (c)

2. Answer (d)

1993 sales of 32AH batteries = 84

1997 sales of 32AH batteries = 45

The required difference = 84 – 45 = 39

Therefore the answer is (d)

3. Answer (d)

140

The percentage sales of 4AH batteries to the total

sales in different years are

For 1992

For 1993

For 1994

For 1995

For 1996

For 1997

For 1998

Clearly, the % maximum is in the year 1997, therefore the

answer is (d).

4. Answer (b)

From the table itself, it is clear that the sales of

7AH batteries have been decreasing continuously from

1992 to 1997, therefore, the answer is (b)

5. Answer (d)

Sales of 55AH batteries during 1998 = 145

Sales of 55AH batteries during 1992 = 108

Required percentage =

Therefore the answer is (d)

141

7554 X 100 = 13.81%

9052 X 100 = 17.05%

9652 X 100 = 18.29%

105 X 100 = 20.59%

9646 X 100 = 19.35%

105 X 100 = 21.21%

1156 X 100 = 19.01%

145 –108 X 100 = 34.26%

b. The following table shows India’s rice export:

Year Quantity (In lakh kg)

Value (in Rs.Crore)

93 110 23094 95 21095 125 34096 130 43097 200 450

1. In which year was the value per kg maximum

(a) 1993 (b) 1994 (c) 1995 (d) 1996 (e) 1997

2. If the price of rice where to go up to 40% in the year

1997 and the quantity of rice exported to fall by 30%,

what would have been India’s earning from rice export in

this condition.

(a) 442cr (b) 438cr (c) 460cr (d) 441cr (e) None of

these

Answers:

1. Answer: 4

Value per keg in

1993 =

1994 =

1995 =

1996 =

142

230110= 2.09

21095 = 2.21

340125= 2.72

430130 = 3.3 (Maximum

Value)

1997 =

2. Answer (4)

India’s earning in 1997 = 450 x x

= 441cr

c. Study the following table carefully and answer the

questions given below:

Classes/Games XIA XIB XIC XID XIE Total

Chess 8 8 8 4 4 32Badminton 8 12 8 12 12 52Table Tennis 12 16 12 8 12 60

Hockey 8 4 8 4 8 32Foot Ball 8 8 12 12 12 52Total No. of boys. 44 48 48 40 48 228

Note:

1. Every Student (boy or girl) of each class of std. XI

participates in a game.

2. In each class, the number of girls participating in

each game in 25 % of the number of boys participating

in each game.

3. Each student (boy or girl) participates in one and only

one game.

1. All the boys of class XI – D passed the annualExamination but a few girls failed. It all the boys andgirls who passed and entered XII – D are in the ratio ofboys to girls at 5:1, what would be the number of girlswho failed in class XI – D?

143

450220= 2.25

100 +40

100 –30

(a) 8 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 1(e) None of there

2. Girls playing which of the following games need to bycombined to yield a ratio of boys to girls of 4:1 if allboys playing Chess and Badminton are combined?

(a) Table Tennis and Hockey (b) Badminton and Table Tennis(c) Chess and Hockey(d) Hockey and Foot Ball(e) None of these

3. What should be the total number of students in the schoolif all the boys and girls of class XI – A together willall the girls of class XI – B and XI – C were to be equalto 25% of the total number of students?(a) 272 (b) 560 (c) 656 (d) 340 (e) Noneof these

4. Boys of which of the following classes need to becombined to equal four times the number of girls in classXI – B and class XI – C?

(a) XI – D and XI – E(b) XI – A and XI – B(c) XI – A and XI – C(d) XI – A and XI – D(e) None of these

5. If for social work every boy of class XI - D and classXI – C in paired with a girl of the same class, what % ofthe boys of these two classes cannot participate insocial work?(a) 33 (b) 66 (c) 50 (d) 75

(e) None of these

Answer:

Before proceeding to solve the questions, let us

analyze the significance of the note given at the end of the

table 1 and 3 together imply that each boy or girl must be

participates in one and only one game. Now, therefore, 2

implies that (a) the no. of girls participating in each game

is one – fourth and (b) The number of Girls in each class in

one – fourth of the no. of boys.

144

1. Answer: (c)Total No. of boys in XI- D = 40No. of girls in XI – D is 20% of 40 = 10Since, all the boys of XI-D passed, so the no. of boysin XI – D = 10Ratio of boys and girls in XI – D is 5:1Number of girls in XI – D = 1/5 x 40 = 8Therefore, number of girls who failed = 10 – 8 = 2Therefore the answer is (c).

2. Answer: (d)Total number of boys playing chess and badminton =32+52 = 84Number of girls playing Hockey and Foot Ball = 25% 84=25/100 x 84 = 21Since, 84:21 in 4:1, so the girls playing Hockey andFoot Ball are combined to yield a ratio of boys togirls in 4:1 so the answer is (d)

3. Answer (a)Number of boys in XI – A = 44Number of girls in XI – B = 25% of 48 = 12Number of girls in XI – C = 25% of 48 = 12Therefore, 44 + 12 + 12 = 68Let ‘x’ be the total number of studentsThen 25% of X = 68

Then X = = 272

Total number of students in the school = 272

Therefore the answer is (a)

4. Answer (e)

4 times the number of girls in XI – B and XI – C = 4 (12

+ 12) = 96

But none of the pairs of classes given through (A) to (D)

has this as the number of boys. Therefore answer is (e)

is the correct.

5. Answer – (d)

145

68 x100

Since, the number of girls = 25% of the number of boys,

so only 25% of the boys can participate in social work.

Therefore the answer is (d).

Data can be presented by making use of diagrams and

graphs. Diagrams and graphs are the devices of presenting

the statistical data in convincing appealing and easily

understandable manner. For examples.

i. Line

ii. Bar

iii. Pie Chart

Example:

i. Line DiagramDrawing vertical lines, each vertical lines being equal

to the frequency. Here the variables are presented along

‘x’ axis and the corresponding frequencies are presented

along ‘y’ axis.

Examples.

1. In a School, the periodical examinations are held every

second month. In a session during April – 2001 – March

2002, a student of class IX appeared for each of the

periodical exams. The aggregate marks obtained by him

in each periodical Exam are represented in the line

diagram given below. Study the graph below and answer

the questions based on it. The maximum total marks in

each periodical exam is 500.

146

1. The Total number of marks obtained in February – 2002 iswhat percentage of the total marks obtained in April –2001?(a) 110% (b) 112.5% (c) 115% (d) 116.5% (e) 117.5%

2. What are the average marks obtained by the student in allthe periodical exams during the session (a) 373 (b) 379 (c) 381 (d) 385 (e) 389

3. What is the percentage of marks obtained by the studentsin the periodical exams of August 2001 and October – 2001taken together (a) 73.25% (b) 75.5% (c) 77% (d) 78.75% (e) 79.5%

4. In which periodical exams. There is a full in percentageof marks compared to the pervious periodical exams?(a) None (b) June-01(c) October-01 (d)February-02 (e) None of these

5. In which periodical exam did the student obtain thehighest percentage increase in marks over the previousperiodical exam.(a) June-01(b) August-01 (c) October-01 (d)December-01 (e) February-02

Answer:

1. Answer (d)

Required percentage = x 100 = 112.5%

147

405360

2. Answer (c)

Average Marks obtained in all the periodical exams.

= 380. 83 therefore 381

3. Answer (b)

Required % = x 100 =

x 100 = 75.5%

4. Answer (a)

5. Answer (c)

Percentage increase in Marks in various periodical

exams compared to the previous exams are

For June – 2001 = x 100 = 1.39%

For August – 2001 = x 100 =

1.37%

For October – 2001 = x 100 = 4.05%

For December – 2001 = x 100 = 3.90%

For February – 2002 = x 100 = 1.25%

It is clear that the highest percentage increase in

marks is in October – 2001 (i.e.) Answer (c).

ii. Bar Diagram:In the Bar Diagram, instead of lines, bars will be

available.

The following are the types of bar diagrams.

148

360 + 365 + 370 + 385 + 400 +405

370 + 385500 + 500

7551000

365 -360

370 -365

405 -400

400 -385

385 –370

A. Simple bar diagram : Under this

(a) Vertical bar diagram

(b) Horizontal Bar Diagram

(a) For Example

(b) For Example:

B. Sub

divided or

component

bar diagram:

Diagram

with total of the given variable

For example.

149

Production

Production

17,500 21,000

C. Percentage Bar DiagramFor Example:

Here there is a need to convert the Rs. or given variable

unit into % so that percentage bar Diagram can be drawn.

Item Expenditure(in Rs.)

X 300Y 200z 500

X 100 = 20%

X 100 = 20%

X 100 = 50%

150

301000

2001000

5001000

Here 1000 in the total Expenditure for all the 3 items (x y z)

Percentage

In this % Bar Diagram y axis variable are always the %

(i.e. up to 100 only)

D. Multiple Bar Diagram:

Bar diagram for 2 inter related variables to these

variable in the y axis.

For Example

E. Deviation Bar Diagrams:

Diagram for difference between 2 variables (when the

difference in both + and Negative)

CountryBirth Rate

(InThousand)

Death rate(in

Thousand)

India 30 20

Germany 15 10

UK 20 15

China 40 30

151

For Example:

Year Sales (in Rs.)

Cost(in Rs.)

95 120 10096 130 140

97 140 110

98 160 180

Here there is 0 need to calculate the profit or loss by

making the difference between the salves and the cost

[ Profit/Loss

+20

-10

+30

-20

Example for all the types of Bar Diagram:

1. The bar graph given below shows the foreign exchange

reserve of a country from 1991 – 92 to 1998 – 99.

Answer the questions based on the graph.

152

1. The foreign exchange reserve in 1997 – 98 was low many

times that in 1994 – 95

(a) 0.7 (b) 1.2 (c) 1.4 (d) 1.5 (e) 1.8

2. What was the percentage increase in the foreign exchange

reserve in 1997 – 98 over 1993 – 94

(a) 100 (b) 150 (c) 200 (d) 620 (e) 2520

3. For which year, the % increase of foreign exchange

reserve over the previous year is the highest?

(a) 1992 – 93 (b) 1993 – 94 (c) 1994 –

95 (d) 1996 – 97 (e) 1997 –

98

4. The foreign exchange reserve in 1996 – 97 were

approximately what % of the average foreign exchange

reserves over the period understudy.

5. The ratio of the no. of years, in which the foreign

exchange reserve are above the average reserves, to

those in which the reserve are below the average

reserve.

(a) 2:6 (b) 3:4 (c) 3:5 (d) 4:4

(e) 5:3

Answers:

1. Answer: (d)

Required rate (or times) = = 1.5

153

50403360

2. Answer: (a)

Foreign Exchange reserve in 1997 – 98 = 5040

Foreign Exchange reserve in 1993 – 94 = 2520

Increased by (5040 – 2520) = 2520

Increased % = x 100 = 100%

3. Answer: (a)

There is an increase in foreign Exchange Reserve during

the year 1992 – 93, 1994 – 95, 1996 – 97 and 1991 – 98

as compared to the previous year (as shown by bar

diagram). Therefore the increased % in the foreign

Exchange Reserve during the above mentioned periods

are:

For 1992 – 93 = x 100 = 40.91%

For 1994 – 95 = x 100 = 33.33%

For 1996 – 97 = x 100 = 38.46%

For 1997 – 98 = x 100 = 16.67%

Clearly the % Increase over the previous year is

highest for the year 1992 – 93 (i.e.) answer (a).

4. Answer: (d)

1st Calculate the average of foreign Exchange Reserve

PER average =

= 3480.

Then calculate the % of the 1996 – 97over the

average.

The required % = x 100 = 124.14

= 125%

154

25202520

3720 -2640

5040 -4320

4320 -3120

3360 -2520

2640 + 3720 + 2520 + 3360 + 3120 + 4320 + 5040+ 3120

43203480

5. Answer (c)

In the previous calculation itself we have calculated

the average of all the years foreign Exchange Reserve

(i.e.) 3480.

The foreign Exchange Reserve above the average (i.e.)

3480 are for the following

3 years:

1. 1992 – 93

2. 1996 – 97

3. 1997 – 98

The Reserve below the average are for the following 5

years. (remaining 5 years)

(1) 1991 – 92 (2) 1993 – 94 (3) 1994 – 95 (4)

1995 – 96 (5) 1998 – 99

Hence the required ratio is 3:5. Therefore the answer

is (c).

For Example:

The following pie-chart shows the sources of finds to

be collected by the national highway authority of India for

its phase II Project. Study the

pie chart and answer the

questions that follow. (Amt in

crores)

Total funds to be arranged is

Rs.57600 crores

1. Near about 20% of the funds are to be arranged through.(a) SPVS (b)External assistance

155

(c) Annuity (d) Market Borrowing

2. The Central Angle corresponding to market borrowing is (a) 52o (b) 137.8% (c) 187.2o (d)192.4o

3. The approximate ratio of the funds to be arranged throughtoll and that through market borrowing.(a) 2:9 (b) 1:6 (c) 3:11 (d)2:5

4. If NHAI could receive total of Rs.9695 crores as externalassistance, b what % should it increase market borrowingsto arrange for the shortage of funds?(a) 4.5% (b) 7.5% (c) 6% (d) 8%

5. If the toll in to be collected through an out sourced aagency by allowing a maximum of 10% commission, how muchamount should be permitted to be collected by the outsourced agency, so that the project in supported withRs.4,960 crores?(a) Rs.6213 crores (b) Rs.5,827 crores (c) Rs.5456 crores(d) Rs.5216 crores

Answers

1. Answer – (b)

20% of the total funds to be arrange= Rs. (20% of 57600) Crores= 20/100 X 57600 = 11520 crores

2. Answer – (c)

The central angle corresponding to market borrowing

The required % = x 360 = 187.2o

3. Answer – (b)

The require ratio is Toll and market borrowing

156

2995257600

491029952

= = 1/6.1 = 1/6 = 1:6

4. Answer (c)

The shortage of funds arranged through external Assistance.

= Rs.11486 – 9695 = 1791 crores.

In creased rate in market = Rs.1791 + 29952

Increase % = x 100 = 5.98 = 6%

5. Answer (c)

Amount of commission = 10% 4960 = 496Total amount requires from toll for the project =

4960 + 496 = 5456Therefore the answer is (c)

….

Dealing with data / statistics is indispensable in anyacademic discourse. Understanding and presenting data /statistics are basic / essential skill in academiccommunications. Knowledge about reading presenting data /statistics in various forms is desired for a career inacademics. The most common forms are:

i. Tables

ii. Charts

iii. Graphs

Hence, SET / NET Exams assess these skills of the aspirantsin the line of GRE. This lecture attempts to prepare theaspirants of SET to deal with problems related tounderstanding tables, charts and graphs.

7.8. Basics of Statistics

i. Types of statistics: Cross Section Statistics, TimeSeries Statistics and Pooled Statistics.

ii. Primary and Derived Statistics: Aggregates, Totals &Complements.

157

179129952

iii. Absolute and Relative Numbers: Proportions,Ratios (Percentages) and Growth rates.

iv. Titles, Units of Measurements & Notes.v. Approximations: The figures could be rounded off to

integers, 10’s, 100’s and 1000’s if the inferencewarrants.

7.9. Common representation of data / statistics

(i) Tables : Statistics arranged in a systematic array formis called the table.

(ii) Charts:

a. Pie ChartA graphical form in which various components inthe whole system are represented as a wedge ina pie. Circle graph is usually representingeach component in terms of percentage.

b. Bar ChartQuantities can be compared by the height or length of a bar in a bar graph.

(iii) Graphs:

Line graphs:

Line graphs are used to show how a quantity changes

continuously in time. If the line goes up the quantity

increasing, if the line goes down, the quantity is

decreasing, if the line is horizontal the quantity is not

changing.

7.10. Tabulation

158

One of the main purposes of tables is to make

complicated information easier to understand. Purpose of

tabulation

i. To condense the mass of data in such a manner thatsimilarities and dissimilarities can be readily seen.

ii. To facilitate comparison.iii. To pinpoint significant features of the data at a

glance.

Read the Title Carefully: The table title gives general idea

of the type and often the purpose of the information

presented.

Read the Caption: Column Heading – It is very important in

table data presentation - Units of measurements are given

along with the captions. It tells the specific type of

information given in that column.

Read the Stub:

Types of Classification (or) Ordering

One-way: Ordering in Stub

i. Geographical ordering, i.e., Country, State, District, Region, Area and City wise, etc.

ii. Chronological ordering, i.e., On the basis oftime.

iii. Qualitative, i.e, according to some attributes like, literacy, games, faculty, age groups and defectiveness etc.,

Two Way: Ordering in Stub and in Caption

Bivariate Classification, i.e, any one of the abovecriteria is taken on column wise and another on row wise.

Note:

159

i. The scale of measurements for the items would be given in

the column heading.

ii. The figures could be rounded off to integers,

10’s, 100’s and 1000’s if the inference warrants.

iii. The summaries of the items Total & % would be

placed in the last row (or) last column (or) on both

places.

iv. Using the last row or column i.e., % or Total we

can fill in the blank cell.

v. Usually problems related to % of certain attribute of a

phenomenon according to row wise items or growth rate of

the phenomenon would be asked. % (ratio) of certain

attribute of a phenomenon = (Cell item/ Total in its

row)*100.

From % --> quantity of a phenomenon according a phenomenon =

Total * % on its row

Growth Rate = [(y1-y0)/y0]*100 or Decrease Rate = [(y0-y1)/y0]*100

(i) Charts:1. Pie Chart

A graphical form inwhich various components inthe whole system are

160

The Population, Literates and Illiterates and the percentage of literacy in three

states in a year

Title

Captions With Unit Of Measurements

Stubs

represented as a wedge in a pie. Circle graph isusually representing each components in terms ofpercentage.

2. Bar ChartQuantities can be compared by the height or length

of a bar in a bar graph.

(ii) Graphs:

Line graphs:Line graphs are used to show

how a quantity changes continuouslyin time. If the line goes up thequantity increasing, if the line goesdown, the quantity is decreasing, ifthe line is horizontal the quantityis not changing.

Part I

Tabulation: One of the main purposes of tables is to make

complicated information easier to understand. Purpose of

tabulation

i. To condense the mass of data in such a manner that

similarities and dissimilarities can be readily

seen.

ii. To facilitate comparison.

iii. To pinpoint significant features of the data

at a glance.

Read the Title Carefully : The table title gives general

idea of the type and often the purpose of the information

presented.

161

Read the Caption: Column Heading – It is very important in

table data presentation - Units of measurements are given

along with the captions. It tells the specific type of

information given in that column.

Read the Stub :

Types of Classification (or) Ordering

One-way: Ordering in Stub

a. Geographical ordering, i.e., Country, State, District,Region, Area and City wise, etc.

b. Chronological ordering, i.e., On the basis of time.

c. Qualitative, i.e, according to some attributes like,literacy, games, faculty, age groups and defectivenessetc.,

Two Way: Ordering in Stub and in Caption

Bivariate Classification, i.e, any one of the above

criteria is taken on column wise and another on row wise.

Note:

i. The scale of measurements for the items would be

given in the column heading.

ii. The figures could be rounded off to integers, 10’s,

100’s and 1000’s if the inference warrants.

iii. The summaries of the items Total & % would be

placed in the last row (or) last column (or) on both

places.

iv. Using the last row or column i.e., % or Total we can

fill in the blank cell.

162

v. Usually problems related to % of certain attribute of

a phenomenon according to row wise items or growth

rate of the phenomenon would be asked.

% (ratio) of certain attribute of a phenomenon =(Cell item/ Total in its row)*100. From % --> quantity of a phenomenon according aphenomenon = Total * % on its rowGrowth Rate = [(y1-y0)/y0]*100 or Decrease Rate =[(y0-y1)/y0]*100

EXAMPLES: The table given below shows the population, literates and illiterates (in thousands) and the percentage of literacy in three states, in a year

State Population Literates Illiterates % LiteracyMadras 49342 6421 --- ---Bombay --- 4068 16790 ---Bengal 60314 --- --- 16.1

After reading the table, mark a tick the correct answer in each question given below and hence complete the table.1. Percentage of literacy in Madras is : (a) 14.9% (b) 13.01% (c) 12.61% (d) 15.04%

2. Percentage of literacy in Bombay is (a) 19.5% (b) 16.7% (c) 18.3% (d) 14.6%

3. Number of literates in Bengal (in thousands) is : (a) 50599 (b) 9715 (c) 76865 (d) 9475

Filling these entries, the complete table is given below.

State Population(in thousands)

Literates (in thousands)

Illiterates(in thousands)

PercentageOf Literacy

Madras 49342 6421 42921 13.01%Bombay 20858 4068 16790 19.5%Bengal 60314 9715 56599 16.1%

163

1. (b) : Percentage of literacy in Madras = (6421/49342) x 100 = 13.01 %.2. (a) : Population of Bombay = (4068 + 16790) thousands = 20858 thousands.:. Percentage of literacy in Bombay = (4068/20858) x 100 = 19.5%.3. (b) : Number of literates in Bengal =16.1/100 x 603141= 9715 thousands. Remark : Number of illiterates in Bengal = (60314 - 9715) thousands = 50599 thousands.

DIRECTION(Questions 4 to 7): The following table shows the production of food grains (in million tonnes) in a state for the period from 1989-90 to 1993-94.

YearProduction in million tonnes

TotalWheat Rice Maize Othercereals

1989-90 580 170 150 350 13501990-91 600 220 234 400 14741991-92 560 240 228 420 15381992-93 680 300 380 460 16601993-94 860 260 340 500 1910Total 3280 1190 1332 2130 7932

Note: 1. Production is given in obsolute numbers – in million tonnes.

2. Various grains are given in caption3. Chronologically ordered

So you can expect time series related questions. GROWTH / DECLINE / COMPARISON

Read the above table and mark the correct answer in each of the following questions :

4. During the period from 1989 - 90 to 1993 - 94, what percent of total production is the wheat ? (a) 42.6% (b) 43.1% (c) 41.3% (d) 40.8%

5. During the year 1993 - 94, the percentage increase in production of wheat over the previous year was : (a) 26.4% (b) 20.9% (c) 23.6% (d) 18.7%

164

6. In the year 1992 - 93, the increase in production was maximum for (a) wheat (b) rice (c) maize

(d) Other cereals

7. During 1991 - 92, the percentage of decrease in the production of Maize, was : (a) 2.63% (b) 2.56% (c) 2.71% (d) 2.47%

8. The increase in the production of other cereals was minimum during the year : (a) 1990 - 91 (b) 1991 - 92 (c) 1992 - 93

(d) 1993-94

ANSWER:

4. (c) : Total production = 7932 million tonnes. Wheatproduction = 3280 million tonnes. Required percentage = (3280/7932) x 100 % =41.3 %.

5. (a) Production of wheat in 1993 - 94 = 860 million tonnesProduction of wheat in 1992 - 93 = 680 million tones.Therefore increase % = ( 860-680 )/860 x 100 % =(180/680) x 100% = 26.4%.

6. (c) : It is clear from the table that during theyear 1992 - 93, the increase in the production ofwheat, rice, maize and other cereals is (680 -560) = 120, (300 - 240) = 60, (380 - 228) = 152 and(460 - 420) = 40 million tonnes respectively.Clearly, increase in maize production is maximum.

7.(b) : Production of maize in 1991 - 92 = 228 milliontonnes Production of maize in 1990 - 91 = 234 milliontonnes Decrease in production = ((6/234) x 100)% =2.56%.

8. (b) : Increase in production of other cereals overprevious year was 50, 20, 40 and 40 million tonnesduring 1990 - 91, 1991 - 92, 1992 - 93 & 1993 - 94respectively. So, it is minimum in 1991 – 92.

165

DIRECTION (Questions 14 to 19): The following table shows the details of numberof students participating in various games in a XI Standard class is given.

Note: 1. Number of students is given in obsolute numbers.

2. Different sections are indicated in captions and Various games are given in stubs.

14. All the boys of class XI D passed at the annualexamination but a few girls failed. If all the boys andgirls who passed and entered class XII D and if in classXII D, the ratio of boys to girls is 5 : 1, what would bethe number of girls who failed in class XI D ?(a) 8 (b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 1

(e) None of these

15. Girls playing which of the following games need to becombined to yield a ratio of boys to girls of 4 : 1, ifall boys playing Chess and Badminton are combined ?(a) Table Tennis and Hockey (b) Badminton and Table

Tennis(c) Chess and Hockey (d) Hockey and Football (e)

None of these

16. What should be the total number of students in the school if all the boys of class XI A together with all the girls of class XI B and class XIC were to be equal to 25% of the total number of students ? (a) 272 (b) 560 (c) 656 (d) 340

(e) None of these

166

Note: (i). Every student (boy or girls) of each class of standard XI participates in a game. (ii) In each class,the number of girlsparticipating in each game is 25% ofthe number of boys

17. Boys of which of the following classes need to be combined to equal to four times the number of girls in class XI B and XI C ? (a) XI D and XI E (b) XI A and XI B (c) XI A and XIE (d) XI A and XI D (e) None of these

18. If boys of class XI E participating in Chess togetherwith girls of class XI B and XI C participating in Tabletennis and Hockey respectively are selected for a courseat the college of sports, what percent of the studentswill get this advantage approximately ?(a) 4.38 (b) 3.51 (c) 10.52 (d) 13.5

(e) None of these

19. If for social work, every boy of class XI D and class XIC is paired with a girl of the same class, what percentageof the boys of these two classes cannot participate insocial work ?(a) 88 (b) 66 (c) 60 (d) 75

(e) None of these

ANSWER:

14. (c) : Number of boys in XI D = 40Number of girls in XI D = 25% of 40 = 10.As all boys in XI D passed, so number of boys in XII D = 40.Ratio of boys and girls in XII D is 5 : 1.Therefore, Number of girls in XII D = (1/5 x 40) = 8.Number of girls failed in XI D = (10 - 8) = 2.

15. (d) : Number of boys playing Chess & Badminton = (32 + 52) = 84. Number of girls playing hockey & football =25% of 84=(25 / 100) x 84 =21.Required ratio = 84 : 21 = 4 : 1

16. (a) : Number of boys in XI A = 44, Number of girls in XI B = 25 % of 48 = 12, Number of girls in XI C= 25% of 48 =12. Let total number of students = x. .'. 25% of x = (44 + 12 + 12) or 25x / 100 = 68 or x = 272. .'. Total number of students in the school is 272.

167

17. (e) : 4 times the number of girls in XI B & XI C = 4 (12 + 12) = 96. But, none of the pairs of classes given through (a) to (d) has this as the number of boys.

18. (b) : Number of boys of XI E playing chess = 4 ;Number of girls of XI B playing table tennis = 25% of 16 = 4; Number of girls of XI C playing hockey = 25% of 8 = 2.Number of those selected at the college of sports = (4 + 4 +2) = 10. Total number of students = (228 + 25% of 228) = 285.Let x% of 285 = 10. Then, x = (10 X 100)/285 = 3.51.

19. (d) : Number of girls = 25% of the number of boys. .'. 25% of the boys can participate in social work..'. 75% of the boys cannot participate in social work.

Study the following table carefully and answer the questionsgiven below it:Direction (Questions 20 to 24):

Number of candidates appeared (App.) and ofcandidates percentage qualified (Qual.) under

different disciplines over the years.Year

Arts Commerce Science Engineer AgricultureApp Qual App Qual App Qual App Qual% App. Qual%

198 842 29 908 21 192 40 579 45 843 42198 1019 27 878 28 202 38 608 38 719 36198 985 31 115 31 253 42 492 42 645 41198 1215 28 129 32 211 45 714 55 720 39199 1429 34 102 24 172 36 801 48 586 48199

11128 24 141

635 182

039 726 51 620 35

20. Approximately, what was the percentage decrease in the number of candidates

appeared under Arts discipline from 1990 to 1991.(a) 40 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 25

(e) 35

21. Approximately, how many candidates qualified underScience discipline in 1989 ?(a) 950 (b) 1050 (c) 650 (d) 1000 (e) 850

22. In which of the following pairs of years wasapproximately the number of candidates qualified underAgriculture discipline the same ?(a) 1986 and 1989 (b) 1987 and 1991 (c) 1988 and 1990 (d)

1989 and 1991 (e) 1989 and 1990

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23. Approximately what was the percentage increase in thenumber of candidates qualified under Commerce discipline,from 1987 to 1991 ?(a) 80 (b) 200 (c) 150 (d) 100(e) 50

24. In which of the following pairs of years was the totalnumber of candidates appeared under Arts disciplineexactly equal to the number of candidates appeared underScience discipline in I989(a) 1988 and 1990 (b) 1988 and 1991, (c) 1989 and 1990

(d) 1987 and 1991 (e) 1986 and 1990

ANSWER:

20. (c): Candidates appeared in arts in 1990 = 1429.Candidates appeared in arts in 1991 = 1128. Decrease % = ((301 / 1429) x 100) % =

21.06 = 20 % (approximately).

21. (a) : Candidates qualified in Science in 1989 = ((45 / 100) x 2113 ) = 950.

22. (e) : Candidates qualified in Agriculture in various years:In 1986 à ((42/100) x 843) = 354 ; In 1987 à ((36/100) x 719) = 258 ; In 1988 à ((41/100) x 645) = 264; In 1989 à ((39/100) x 720) = 280; In 1990 à ((48/100) x 586) = 281; In1991 à ((35/100) x 620) = 217. Clearly, it is the same in 1989 and 1990.

23. (d) : Candidates qualified in Commerce in 1987 = ((28/100) x 878) = 245. Candidates qualified in Commerce in 1991 = ((35/100) x 1416) = 495. Increase % = ((250/245) x 100) = 100 % (nearly).

24. (b) : Candidates appeared in Science discipline in 1989= 2113 . Total number of candidates appeared in arts in 1988and 1991 =2113.

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Direction (Questions 25 to 29): A table showing the percentage of the total population of a state in different age groups is given below:

AgeGroup

Upto15

16-25 26-35 36-45 46-55 56-65 66 andabove

Total

Percent 30 17.75 17.25 14.5 14.25 5.12 1.13 100

25. Which one of the age groups listed below accounts forthe maximum population in the state :(a) 16-25 (b) 26-35 (c) 36-45 (d) 56-65 (e) None

of these

26. Out of every 4200, the number of persons below 25 yearsis :

(a) 2005 (approx.) (b) 1260 (approx.) (c) 746(approx.) (d) 515 (approx,)

27 .There are 200 million people below 36 years. How manymillion people (approx.)are in the age group 56-65 ?(a) 30.07 (b) 15.75 (c) 12.72 (d) 59.30

28 .If there are 10 million people in the age group 56 andabove, what is the difference between the total number ofpeople in the age group 16-25 and 46-55 ?(a) 6.8 million (approx.) (b) 5.6 million (approx.) (c)

28.4 million (approx.)(d) 34.7 million (approx.)

29. If the difference between the number of people in the age groups 46-55 and 26-35 is 11.75 million, then the total population of the state is :(a) 400 million (approx.) (b) 391.67 million (approx.) (c) 360 million (approx.) (d) 460 million (approx.)

ANSWER:

25. (e): Clearly, the maximum population consists of persons in the age group upto 15 years.

26. (a) : Number of persons below 25 years out of 4200 = ((30+17.75)/100 x 4200) = 2005 (approx.)

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27. (b) : Let total population be X. Then, ((30 + 17.75 + 17.25)/100 ) x X = 200 million. => x = (200 x 100)/65 million = (4000/13) million. People in age group 56-65 = (5.12/100)x(4000/13) million = 15.75 million.

28. (b) : Let total population = X. Then, ((5.12 + 1.13)/100) x X = 10 million => X =((10 x 100)/6.25) million = 160 million.Diff. in age groups 16-25 & 46-55 = (17.75 - 14.25) % of 160= ((3.5/100)x 160) million = 5.6 million.

29. (b) : Let total population = X.. Then, (17.25 - 14.25)/100 x X = 11.75 million or X = ((11.75 x 100)/3) = 391.67 million

Directions (Questions 30 to 34) Study the following table and answer questions Il to 15 given below it

Sources ofIncome K L M N O

Salary 12000

6000 21000

9000 12000

Bonus 2400 1200 4500 2400 3000Over time 5400 2100 6000 5100 6000Arrears 6000 5400 1200

04200 7500

Miscellaneous

1200 300 1500 300 1500

Total 27000

15000

45000

21000

30000

30. Who among the following employees has minimum ratio of income from arrears to income from salary ?(a) K (b) L (c) M (d) N (e) O

31. Who among the following employees earns maximum bonus in comparison to his total income ?

(a) K (b) L (c) M (d) N (e) O

32. Who among the following employees has maximum percentage of his salary out of the total income ?(a) K (b) L (c)M (d) N (e) O

33. How many employees have their salary less than four times the income from bonus ?

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(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) 4

34. The income from overtime is what percent of the income from arrears in case of employees in category O ?(a) 8 (b) 25 (c) 20 (d) 125 (e) None

ANSWER:

30. (d) : Ratio of income from arrears to income from salary : K à 6000/12000 = ½=0.5, Là5400/6000=9/10=0.9 Mà 12000/21000=4/7= 0.57, N à4200/9000 =7/15=0.46, Oà7500/12000 = 5/8 = 0.625The ratio is clearly minimum in case of N.

31. (d) : The ratio of bonus and total income is :K à2400/27000=4/45= 0.08, L à1200/15000 =2/25 = 0.08, Mà4500/45000=1/10=0.1, N à2400/21000=4/35= 0.11, 0 --> 3000/30000=0.1Clearly, it is maximum in case of N.

32. (c) : Percentage of salary out of total income is :K -->(12000/27000)*100=44.4%, Là(6000/15000)*100=40%,Mà(21000/45000)*100=46.6 %,N à(9000/21000)*100= 42.8 %, 0à(12000/30000)*100= 40 %.Clearly, it is maximum for M.

33. (b) :[(4 x Bonus) - salary] is equal to:K à (9600 - 12000) < 0, L à (4800 - 6000) < 0, M = (18000 - 21000) < 0Nà(9600 - 9000) > 0, 0à(12000 -12000) = 0 . :. Salary is less than 4 times bonus in case of N.

34. (e) : For employee O :Required percentage = (6000/7500)*100=80%.

Directions (Questions 35 to 38) : Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.Loan Disbursed by Five Banks (rupees in crores)

Banks

Year1990

1991

1992

1993

1994

A 18 23 45 30 70B 27 33 18 41 37

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C 29 29 22 17 11D 31 16 28 32 43E 13 19 27 34 42

Total

118 120 140 154 203

35. In which year was the disbursement of loans of allthe banks put together least compared to the average disbursement of loans over the years ? (a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) 1992 (d) 1993 (e) 1994

36. What was the percentage increase of disbursement of loans of all banks together from 1992 to 1993 ?(a) 110 (b) 14 (c) 10 (d) 901 (e) None

37. In which year was the total disbursement of loans of the banks A and B exactly equal to the total disbursement of banks D and E?(a) 1991 (b) 1992 (c) 1990 (d) 1994 (e) None of these

38. In which of the following banks did the disbursement of loans continuously increase over the years?(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

ANSWER:

35. (a) : Average disbursement of loans = (1/5) *(118 + 120+ 140 + 154 + 203) = 147 crores. Clearly, it is least in theyear 1990.

36. (c) : Increase of loans from 1992 to 1993=[(154 -140)/140x100]=10%.

37. (e) : In none of the years, the sum of loans of A and B is equal to the sum of loans of D and E.

38. (e) : In bank E, the disbursement of loans continuouslyincrease over the years.

7.11. Bar diagram: A strip or band is used to show a

phenomenon in this bar diagram. The quantity is represented

in height of the strip or band. These stripes or bands can

173

be used in their vertical or horizontal forms. Different

bands can represent different phenomenon or same phenomenon

in different times.

Note: Only the length of the bar matters (Not the width). The

quantity is proportional to length The bar may be horizontal and vertical in orientation. The unit of measurement would also be given.

7.11.1. Types of Bar diagram

1. Simple Bar diagram:

The entire quantity is one phenomenon and represented

by a monolithic bar.

2. Sub-divided Bar diagram:

The bar representing the magnitude of a given

phenomenon is further subdivided in its various components.

Each item is represented by a part of the bar proportional

to its share in the total. The various components of each

bar must be kept in the same order. This type can be used to

represent either the absolute values or the percentages of

the components. This is an excellent method for presenting a

set of distribution ratios diagrammatically.

3. Multiple Bar

In a multiple bar diagram two or more set of inter

related data are represented. Here more than one phenomenon

is represented in different shades, colors, dots, or crosses

are used to distinguish between the bars.

Problems Related to Bar Charts

174

Directions (Questions 39 to 43) : Study the given graph and

answer the following questions :

39. During which year the percent increase in production was lowest as compared to previous year ?(a) 1990-91 (b) 1991-92 (c) 1993-94 (d) 1994-95

40. The percent decrease in the production from 1991-92 to 1992-93 is :

(a)10% (b) 11 9 % (c) 88 9 % (d) 90%

41. During which year, the percent increase in production was highest as compared to the previous year ?(a) 1989-90 (b) 1990-91 (c) 1991-92 (d) 1993-94

42. The production in 1989-90 in comparison to the production in 1988-89 was :

(a) 100% more (b) 75% more (c) 50% more (d) None of these

43. The percent increase in production from 1988-89 to 1994-95 is :

(a) 1000% (b) 600% (c) 500% (d) 300%

ANSWER:

39. (d) Increase in 1989 - 90 = [(400 - 200) / 200 x 100] % = 100%;

Increase in 1990 - 91 = [(600 - 400) /400) x 100]%=50%;Increase in 1991 - 92 = [(900 - 600) / 600 x 100]%=50%;There is a decrease in production in 1992 - 93 ;

175

Increase in 1993 - 94 = [(1000 - 800) / 800 x 100] % = 25%; Increase in 1994 - 95 = [(1200 - 1000) / 1000 x 100] % = 20%;So, the increase percent is lowest in 1994 - 95.

40. (b) : Percent Decrease from 1991 - 92 to 1992 - 93= [(900 - 800) / 900 x 100] % = 100%;

41. (a) : From Q. 1, it is obvious that the percentage increase in the production was highest in 1989 - 90.

42. (a) : Production in 1988 - 89 = 200 tonnes. Production in 1989 - 90 = 400 tonnes.

Increase % = [200 / 200 x 100] % = 100%; So, the production in 1989 -90 is 100% more than that in 1988 - 89.

43. (c) : Increase in production from 1988 - 89 to 1994 - 95

= [1200 - 200) / 200 x 100] % = 500%;

Directions (Questions 44 to 48) : Study the given graph and answer the questions given below it. The bar diagram shows the income and expenditure of a firm for five years.

44. What was the difference in profit between 1991 and 1992?

(a) Rs. 10 lakh (b) Rs. 5 lakh (c) Rs. 15 lakh (d) No profit

176

- Income

- Expenditu

45. In the case of how many years was the income more than the average income of the given years ?(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four

46. What was the percentage increase in expenditure from 1992 to 1993 ?

(a) 10% (b) 33.3 % (c) 66.3 % (d) 2.0%

47. The income in 1992 was equal to the expenditure of which of the following years ?

(a) 1990 (b) 1991 (c) 1993 (d) 1994

48. In-which of the following years was the profit maximum ?

(a) 1990 (b) 1994 (c) 1992 (d) 1993

ANSWER:

44. (a) : Profit in 1991 = (50 lakh - 30 lakh) = 20 lakh: Profit in 1992 = (40 lakh - 301akh) = 10 lakh. Difference in profit = (20- 10) lakh = 10 lakh.

45. (c): Average income = 1/4 (30 + 50+ 40 + 60 + 60) lakh = 48 lakh Clearly, the income more than the average income is in the years 1991, 1993 and 1994, i.e. during 3 years.

46. (b) : Expenditure in 1992 = 30 lakh. Expenditure in 1993 = 40 lakh.Percentage increase = [10 lakh / 30 lakh x 100] % = 100%;

47. (c) : Income in 1992 = 40 lakh = Expenditure in 1993.

48. (b) : Profits in various years are :1990 - (30 - 20) lakh = 10 lakh,1991 - (50 - 30) lakh = 20 lakh,1992 - (40 - 30) lakh = 10 lakh,1993 - (60 - 40) lakh = 20 lakh,1994 - (60 - 35) lakh = 25 lakh. .°. Profit is maximum in the year 1994.

Directions (Questions 48 to 53) : The subdivided bar diagramgiven below depicts the result of B.Com. students of a college for three years. Study the above diagram and answer the questions given below.

177

48. How many percent passed in first division in 1993 ?(a) 20% (b) 34% (c) 14.28% (d) 11.76%

49. What was the pass percentage in 1993 ?(a) 65% (b) 70% (c) 74.6% (d) 82.3%

50. In which year, the college had the best result for B.Com. ?

(a) 1993 (b) 1994 (c) 1995 (d) Can't be determined

51. What is the number of third division in 1995 ?(a) 160 (b) 70 (c) 60 (d) 65

52. What is the percentage of students in 1995 over 1993, ?(a) 30% (b) 17.6% (c) 117.6% (d) 85%

53. What is the aggregate pass percentage during three years?

(a) 51.6% (b) 80.3% (c) 82.5% (d) 77.6%

ANSWER:

48. (d): Percentage of first division in 1993 = [20 / 170 x 100] % = 11.76%

49. (d): pass percentage in 1993 = [140 / 170 x 100] % = 82.3 %.

50. (c): Pass percentage in 1993 = 82.3 %.Pass percentage in 1994 = [150 / 190 x 100] % = 78.9 %. Pass percentage in 1995 = [170 / 200 x 100] % = 85 %. :. The college had best result for B.Com in 1995.

178

51. (c): Number of third division in 1995 = (160 - 100) = 60.

52. (c): Percentage of students in 1995 over 1993 =[200 / 170 x 100] % =117.6%.

53. (b): Number of students who passed=(140+150 +160)=450.Number of students who appeared=(170+190+200)= 560. : . Aggregate pass percentage = [450 / 560 x 100] % = 80.3 %.

Pie Diagram

Pie diagrams are very popularly to show percentage

breaks downs of items. While making comparisons, pie

diagrams should be used on a percentage basis and not on an

absolute basis. The component sectors are placed in

clockwise succession in descending order of magnitude. In

constructing a pie chart the first step is to prepare the

data so that the various component values can be transposed

into corresponding degrees on the circle. Suppose there are

four components representing the following values: (i) 60%

(ii) 25% (iii) 10% (iv) 5%. Total is taken as 360O.(ie

represents 100%). Therefore, 1% need to be represented as

3.6O (ie 360/100) in a pie chart.

So, 60% = 60 x 3.6O = 216O , 25% = 25 x 3.6O = 90O ,

10% = 10 x 3.6O = 36O and 5% = 5 x 3.6O = 18O . The

percentage values (in relation to the total quantity)

individual components are assigned degrees in proportions to

its relative magnitudes (More the percentage more the

degree). In laying out the sectors for a pie chart it is a

convention that the largest component ( 60%) is placed at

179

the top and others in sequence running clockwise in a

descending order. The labels are given along side / inside

the pie of each components with the degrees or percentage.

Note:

In a pie diagram, the size of the circle need not beimportant for inference.

A rough idea about the angles and its correspondingper cent ages may be required to infer in terms of % .

Problems Related to Pie ChartsDirections (Questions 54 to 57) : The following circle graphshows the distribution of workers of two industries A and B.

Study the graphs carefully and answer the questions given below.

54. Hindu workers in A are :(a) 50% (b) more than 50% (c) less than 50% (d)

unknown

180

12.5 % 25

%37.5%

50%

55. Christian workers in A are how many percent of Christianworkers in B?

(a) 114.3% (b) 87.5% (c) 12.5% (d) 112.5%

56. If there are 1500 Sikh workers in B, then the total number of workers in B is:

(a) 3600 (b) 4800 (c) 8000 (d) 7200

57. If there are 7200 workers in each one of A and B, then how many Muslim workers are more in A, then those in B ?(a) 22.22% (b) 28.57% (c) 23.47% (d) 33.61%

ANSWER:

54. (c) : Hindu workers in A =[160/360 x 100]% = 44.44 % < 50 %.

55. (a) : Christian Workers in A = [40/360 X100]% = 1% . Christian workers in B = [35/360 x 100]% = 175/18 %.Required percentage =[100/9x18/175x100]% = 114.3 %.

56. (d) : Percentage of Sikh workers in B = [75 / 360 x 100]% = 125/6 %. 125/6 : 100= 1500: X or X=[100x 1500x 6/125]=7200. .-. Totalnumber of workers in B = 7200.

57. (b) : Muslim workers in A = [90/360 x 7200]= 1800.Muslim workers in B =[7/360 x 7200]= 1400. Excess of Muslimworkers in A over those of B= [400/1400 x 100) % = 28.57 %.

Directions (Questions 58 to 61) : The gross investments of

Life Insurance Corporation of India (in crores of rupees) in

different sectors are shown in the pie chart given below.

181

On the basis of the above information answer the following questions.

58. The percentage of gross investments in State Government Securities js nearly :

(a) 7.1 % (b) 7.8% (c) 8.6% (d) 9.2%

59. The magnitude of áAOC is nearly :(a) 123° (b) 132° (c) 126° (d) 1150

60. The investment in socially oriented sectors (plan andnon plan) is ......than the investment in Governmentsecurities (Central and State) by(a) more, 4 crore (b) more, 1 crore(c) more, 111 crore (d) less, 106 crore

61. The investment in private sectors is nearly ....percenthigher than the investment in State GovernmentSecurities?(a) 66 (b) 54 (c) 46 (d)

40

ANSWER:

58. (a) : Total investment = (458 + 107 + 183 + 454 + 110 +227) crores = 1539 croresInvestment in State Government securities = 110crores.Required percentage = [110/1539 x 100]% = 7.1 %.

59. (b)ÐAOC=[(458 + 107) crores/1539 crores x 360]°=[565/1539 x 360]° = 132°.

60. (b) : Investment m socially oriented sectors= (458 +107) crores = 565 crores. Investment in GovernmentSecurities= (454 + 110) crores = 564 crores. Investment in sociallyoriented sectors is more than investment in Governmentsecurities by 1 crore.

61. (a) : Investment in Private Sector = 183 crores.

182

Investment in State Government Securities = 110 crores. .'.Required excess = [73/110x100]%=66%.

Directions (Questions 62 to 63) : Study the following graphscarefully and answer the questions that follow :

62. In the human body, what part is made of neither bones nor skin ?

(a) 2/5 (b)3/5 (c) 1/40 (d) 3/80

63. What is, the ratio of the distribution of proteins in the muscles to that of the distribution of proteins in the bones ?(a) 1 : 8 (b) 18 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2

ANSWER:

62. (a) : Part of body made of neither bones nor Skin =1 – [1/3+1/10+1/6]=[1-

6/10]=4/10=2/5.

63. (c) : Required ratio = 1/3 : 1/6 = 2 : 1.

Graphs:

Types of graphs:

i. Graphs of time series.

ii. Graphs having two scales:

iii. Graphs of frequency distributions.

1. Graphs of Time series:

183

In this type of graphs, on the X-axis time is taken

i.e., a Year, Month, Week or a Day etc., would be given as

measurement. Similarly, on the Y-axis one or more comparable

values are taken. (Unit of measurement would be given

usually). Different values will be distinguished by the use

of thick, thin, dotted lines. Therefore, interpretation of

these graphs depends on the unit of measurements in Y and X

axes.

Note: Trends of population, production, Imports, Exports,

etc., upward/downward direction indicates the

increasing/decreasing trend.

When the line in a line graph goes up the quantity

increases, when the line goes down the quantity

decreases and when it is horizontal, the quantity does

not change.

The steepness or the slopes indicate the extent of

increase or decrease in quantity of the phenomenon.

2. Graphs having two scales:

If two variables are expressed in two different units

then we will have two scales one on the left and the other

on the right. To facilitate comparison, each scale is made

proportional to the respective average of each. The average

values of both the variables are kept in the middle of the

graph; & then scales are determined.

3. Graphs of frequency distributions

The graphs of frequency distributions are the graphical

representation of frequency table. They are usually

represented in the form of Histograms, Frequency Polygons,

184

Frequency Curves (Smoothened Frequency Polygon) and Ogives

(Cumulative frequency Curves).

Problems Related to Graphs

Directions (Questions 64 to 68) : Study the following graph carefully and answer question 1 to 5. Imports and Exports Between Two Countries A and B (in million dollars)

64. The percent increase in exports from 1990 to 1991 is :(a) 400 (b) 40 (c) 200 (d) 4

65. The exports in which year was 50% of the average exports during the given years

(a) 1991 (b) 1992 (c) 1993 (d) 1994

66. What was the approximate percent increase in imports from 1990 to 1991 ?

(a) 44 (b) 100 (c) 200 (c) 400

67. The imports in which year was nearer to the total valueof imports and exports in 1994 ?(a) 1990 (b) 1990 & 1991 (c) 1992 (d) 1991 & 1992

68. The approximate percent decrease in exports from 1992 to 1993 is

(a) 28 (b) 8 (c) 40 (d) 80

ANSWER:

64. (a) : Export in 1990 = 6 million dollars Export in 1991= 30 million dollars Increase % = [24/6 x 100] % = 400%.

185

65. (d) : Average export = [6 + 30 + 36 + 28 + 11] / 5 million dollars = 22.2 million dollars:. 50% of average export = 11 million dollars. This

happens in the year 1994.

66. (b) : Import in 1990 = 22 million dollars. Import in 1991 = 45 million dollars. Increase percent =[23/22 x 100]%=100 % (nearly)

67. (a) : (Import + Export) in 1994 = (11 + 11) million dollars = 22 million dollars= Import in 1990.

68. (a) : Export in 1992 = 36 million dollars. Export in 1993 = 28 million dollars. Decrease % =[8/36 x 100]% = 28% (nearly).

Directions (Questions 69 to 73) : Study the following graph and answer the questions given below it. Sales Of Three Brands Of Cycles Over The Years (in thousands)

69. In which of the following years was the sale of total number of cycles of three brands taken together the lowest ?(a) 1986 (b) 1987 (c) 1989 (c) 1990 (e) None of

these

70. In which of the following years was the sale of cycles of brand A and brand B exactly the same ?(a) 1987 (b) 1990 (c) 1988 (d) 1989 (e) None of

these

186

71. In which of the following years was the sale of cycles of brand C exactly one-fourth of the sale of cycles of brand B '?(a) 1990 (b) 1989 (c) 1988 (d) 1986 (e) None of

these

72. The sale of cycles of brand A in 1988 was what percent of sale of cycles of brand B in 1990 ?(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 100 (d) 150(e) None of these

73. What was the percentage decrease in sale of number of cycles of brand C from 1989 to 1990 ?(a) 50 (b) 125 (c) 70 (d) 20(e) None of these

Answer:

69. (b) : Total sale (in thousands of rupees) in various years was :1986 - (10 + 40 + 50) = 100 ; 1987 - (20 + 30 + 40) = 90 ; 1988 - (30 + 30 + 60) = 120 ; 1989 - (20 + 40 + 50) = 110 ; 1990 - (25 + 40 + 60) = 125 ; 1991 - (30 + 50 + 70) = 150.Sale is lowest in the year 1987.

70. (c) : In 1988, the graphs of A and B intersect at the sale point. Thus in 1988, the sale of A and B was same.

71. (d) : In 1986, sale of brand B = 40 thousands and, saleof brand C = 10 thousands

In 1986, sale of C=1/4 (sale of B).

72. (b) : Sale of A in 1988 = 30 thousands Sale of B in 1990 = 60 thousands. Required percentage =[30/60x100]% =50%.

73. (e) : Sale of C in 1989 = 40 thousands. Sale of C in 1990 = 25 thousands. Decrease % =[15/40x100]% = 37.5%.

* * * *

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Part - VIII

INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY(ICT)

*Mr.R.P.Mahesh8.1. Introduction

ICT permeates the business environment, it underpins

the success of modern corporations, and it provides

governments with an efficient infrastructure. At the same

time, ICT adds value to the processes of learning, and in

the organization and management of learning institutions.

The Internet is a driving force for much development

and innovation in both developed and developing countries.

Countries must be able to benefit from technological

developments.

To be able to do so, a cadre of professionals has to be

educated with sound

ICT backgrounds, independent of specific computer

platforms or software environments.

Technological developments lead to changes in work and

changes in the organization of work, and required

competencies are therefore changing. Gaining in importance

are the following competencies:

i. critical thinking,

ii. generalist (broad) competencies,

iii. ICT competencies enabling expert work,

iv. decision-making,

v. handling of dynamic situations,

vi. working as a member of a team, and

vii. Communica

ting effectively.

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A secondary ICT curriculum should contribute to the

building up of teams of professionals with these new

competencies.

The use of ICT cuts across all aspects of economic and

social life.

Technological developments in ICT are very rapid.

Technology quickly becomes obsolete requiring new skills and

knowledge to be mastered frequently. Adaptation is only

possible when based on a sound understanding of the

principles and concepts of ICT.

The function of information and communication

technology is collection and storage of the

informations,Communication of informations,&processing of

informations.

The objective of information and communication

technology is to propagate more and more the material

related to education and research, to user the present

generation in Cyber Age,& To disseminate and propagate the

informal education.

The role of information and communication technology in

education is to give face-to face counseling, to give

counseling through telephone,&to use audio-visual cassettes

in counseling.

In the stone age people traveled places on foot. At

that time, did not mind spending a lot of time walking from

place to place. When civilization grew, man engaged himself

189

* Mr.R.P.Mahesh, Lecturer, Department of Computer Science, N.M.S.S.V.N.College, Nagamalai, Madurai.

in so many works and he could not afford to waste time in

walking and so he invented automobiles. In the same when we

do a work manually, it takes a lot of time and in order to

save this time we need computers.

Computers affect every human activity and bringing

about many changes in industry, government, education,

medicine, scientific research, law social sciences and even

in arts like music and painting. For doing arithmetic and

logical operations we have to use our brain. To avoid this

intellectual strain we need computers. While doing

calculations we often commit mistakes. These mistakes can

be avoided by the usage of computer.

In short we list below the reasons for the need of a

computer.

i. To save time, that is for quick performance.

ii. To avoid mistakes.

iii. To store data easily.

iv. To get the results in a neat printed form.

v. To store large volume of data.

Today computers have come in a variety of shapes, sizes

and costs. A computer is an electronic device that accepts

input data, processes the data and provides the results.

8.2. Applications of computers

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PROCESS OUTPUTINPUTINPUT

i. In offices and houses for preparing documents and to

perform other data processing jobs.

ii. To prepare pay roll details in factories and offices.

iii. To maintain accounts and transfer funds in banks.

iv. To reserve tickets in Airline, Railway.

v. To regulate traffic lights on roads.

vi. To control machines and robots in factories.

vii. To control Telephone networks.

viii. To create special effects in movies and Television.

8.3. Generation of Computers

Electronic Computers can be divided into five different

generations based on the technologies used.

8.3.1. First Generation ComputersFirst generation computers were developed in the year

1946. It was developed by J. Presper Eckent and john Muchy.

Initially these computers used Vaccum tubes. It was made up

of electronic valves. Built for the U.S. Army, the ENIAC

(Electronic Numerical Integrator and Calculator) was the

first electronic general – purpose computer. It used Vaccum

Tupes (18,000) andcould do 300 multiplications per second.

First generation computers were big in size, very slow,

consumed huge amount of power, generated enormous heat and

had poor reliability and accuracy.

8.3.2. Second Generation Computers (1959-1965)Vaccum Tubes consumed a large amount of electricity

and produced large amount of heat. They were soon to be

replaced by Transistors. The transistor was a solid-state

device made from silicon. Second generation computers were

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smaller, faster and had the advantages of low power

consumption, less disscpation of heat and were highly

reliable.

8.3.3. Third Generation computers (1965-1970)Third generation computer used integrated circuits

(IC’s) in place of transistors, improved input/output

devices and storage devices. Third generation computers

used auxiliary storage devices, also known as secondary

storage devices such as magnetic tapes, magnetic disks,

which are located outside the computer.

8.3.4. Fourth Generation Computers (1970-1995)Fourth generation is characterized by the increased

number of circuits per chip. An increased number of

circuits allows for more data to be stored on a memory chip.

Large scale integration (LSI) and Very Large Scale

Integration (VLSI) allows for memory chips having hundreds

of or thousand s of storage locations. Some of the

microprocessor that could be placed on a single chip was to

arrive. A microprocessor is a processor which as all its

components on a single integrated circuit ship. Zit may be

called the micro computer generation computers.

8.3.5. Fifth Generation ComputersThe lack of thinking power was felt as the greatest

shortcoming of computers. The fifth generation computers

are a step in this direction as these computers are planned

to have “thinking” Power and capacity to take decision. The

concept of Artificial Intelligence (AI) is being used in

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these computers and the processors used are known as

“Knowledge Processors”. Automatic programming,

Computational logic, pattern recognition and control of

robots are the process which require skill and intelligence

are some of the examples of Artificial Intelligence.

8.4. Types of Computers

Computers are classified into 3 types.

i. Analog Computers

ii. Digital Computers

iii. Hybrid Computers

i. Analog Computers

Analog computers are computers that measure physical

quantities (Pressure, temperature, length etc.,) and convert

them to numerical values. For example, a thermometer does

not perform any calculations but measures the temperature of

the body by comparing the relative expansion of mercury. It

is used mainly for scientific and engineering purposes

because they deal with quantities that vary constantly.

They give only approximate results.

ii. Digital Computers

A Digital Computer is a multipurpose programmable

machine. It reads binary instruction from its memory. It

accepts binary data as input and processes data according to

those instructions and provides results as output. The

computer recognizes and operates in binary digits 0 and 1.

It is also called as bits. These digits are represented in

terms of electrical voltage in the machine. The digits 0

and 1 represents to low and high voltage respectively.

193

iii. Hybrid computers

A computer which has the feature of both analog and

digital computer is called “Hybrid Computer”. These

computers store and process analog signals which have been

converted into discrete numbers using analog-to-digital

computers. They can also convert the digital numbers into

analog signals or physical properties using digital-to-

analog converters. Hybrid computers are mainly used in

Artificial Intelligence(robotics) and computer – aided

manufacturing processes.

Size of Computers

The computers can be classified based on their size and

speed as follows.Micro Computers.Mini Computers.Mainframe Computers.Super Computers.

8.4.1. Micro computersA Micro computer has a microprocessor chip as its CPU.

It usually has a floppy disk drive as peripheral memory.

Some latest micro computers have a word length, 16 bits and

32 bits.

Two types of micro computers are in common use. |They

use personal and Home computers. Personal computers are

used in small companies. They have 16 bits processor and

their memory capacity ranges from 640 KB to 4 MB. Home

computers are primarily meant for entertainment, basic

education and home management. The PC’s with hard disk as

auxiliary storage devices are called PC/XTs.

194

8.4.2. Mini ComputersThe Mini Computer has only one CPU but has many

terminals and keyboards. Mini Computers are designed as

faster than micro computers. They have a memory capacity

around 10 mega bytes. Mini computers are used in education

and business. In business, they are being used for

invoicing, stock control, payroll, sales analysis,

production planning and a host of other similar activities.

It may also be used for systems like rail or airline

reservations or banking.

8.4.3. Mainframe computers A main frame computer is generally a large and fast

computer system designed for the processing of huge amounts

of data. It is also called as midi computers are machines

with 32 bits, 48 bit or 64 bit CUP chips with memory

capacities from 1 mega byte to 16 Giga byte (GB) A typical

application is the airline reservation system. The airlines

have a mainframe computer at their head office where

information of all flights are stored.

8.4.4. Super ComputersSuper Computers are used by government agencies. These

machines are suitable for applications which requiring very

large programs and huge amounts of data to be processed

quickly. Super computers are mainly used for weather

forecasting, oil exploration, weapons research, nuclear

energy research, remote sensing, Image processing, bio-

medical sciences, etc. These computers are huge general

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purpose computers having a processing capacity of 10,000

MIPS (Million instructions per second) have a storage

capacity of millions of bytes.

8.5. Application Areas of Computers

8.5.1. Science and TechnologyComputers are used in space research, meteorology,

navigation and all other areas of science.

8.5.2. BusinessComputers are used in share markets, hotels, export and

commercial houses, Government Offices for computerizing

business applications lie payroll inventory management,

financial accounting, management information system (MIS)

etc.

8.5.3. Industry Computers in power, steel, paper, printing,

engineering design and other industries for production

management, inventory control and many other related

applications.

8.5.4. ManufacturingComputers are used in stock control, order entry,

forecasting market analysis, computer aided design, computer

aided manufacturing, production planning etc.

8.5.5. TelecommunicationComputers are used in ISDN, E-mail, Internet, Intranet,

VSAT, Video conferencing, Paging, Cellular Phones etc.

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8.5.6. Banking Computers are used in accounts maintenance, collection

and clearing of cheques, centralized clearing, on-line

credit processing, credit and management, ATM maintenance,

security analysis, electronic fund transfer, reconciliation,

anywhere banking and anytime banking etc.

8.5.7. Publishing IndustryComputers used for desk top publishing (DTP) for

designing and printing of books.

8.5.8. Engineering TechnologiesComputers can be used as teaching/learning tools and as

research and data processing tools. When it is used as a

teaching/learning aid, the process is called computer

Assisted Learning (CAL) or Computer Assisted Instruction

(CAI).

8.5.9. Medicine and Heath careComputer is used for keeping the records of patients

case histories, medical tests, symptoms of common rare

diseases and it is used as a diagnostic tool. Computerized

electro cardiogram (ECG) and computer aided tomography (CAT)

scans are done to monitor the heart and brain conditions of

patients.

8.5.10. Transport and CommunicationThe process of controlling the movement of vehicular

traffic is carried out to prevent overcrowding, traffic

jams, overloading, accidents etc.

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8.6. Components of a ComputerThere are five main units in a computer. These are

i. Input Unit (IU)

ii. Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)

iii. Central Processing Unit (CPU)

a. Main Memory Unit (MMU)

b. Control Unit (CU)

c. Output Unit (OU)

A computer, like the human brain, receives information,

stores it process it, and displays results. A computer

receives information from input devices, stores it in the

main memory, performs the desired operations for the

informations in the central processing unit and displays the

results of processing unit and displays the results of

processing in a useful form through output devices.

(i) Input Unit (IU)Data are entered into the computer system by means of

an input device. The keyboard is one of the most common

input devices. It enable the user to communicate directly

with the machine. The other input devices are punched

cards, paper tape, magnetic tape, magnetic disk, light pen,

optical scanners, MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Recognition),

OCR (Optical Character Recognition) and the mouse. There are

unusual input devices that respond to voices and to touch.

On touch screen the user simply touches the location on the

screen where the description of the desired operation is

displayed, the computer senses where the screen has been

touched and performs the indicated operation.

198

(ii) Output Unit (OU)When a program is executed and the results computed,

those result s must be made available in a human readable

form. The computer system needs an output device to

communicate the processed information to the user. The

output device translates processed data from a machine coded

form to a form that can be read and used by people. The

output devices are monitor, printer, magnetic tape, magnetic

disk and floppy diskette. The printer prints copy from the

computer on to paper.

(iii) Central Processing Unit (CPU)The Central Processing Unit (CPU) sometimes referred to

as the ‘brain’ of the system, is the part of the computer

that contains the electronic circuitry that actually process

the data. Acting on the instructions it receives, the CPU

performs operations on the data. The CPU also controls the

flow of data through the system, directing the data to enter

the system placing data in memory and receiving them when

needed, and directing the output of information.

The CPU consists of 3 units

i. Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)

ii. Memory Unit (MU)

iii. Control Unit (CU)

i. Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU)The ALU performs all the arithmetic calculations and

takes logical decisions. This unit can do addition,

subtraction, multiplication and division and logical

operation.

199

ii. Memory Unit (MU)The memory unit is the area where all data,

intermediate and final results are stored. The data, read

from an input unit or a mass storage unit are transmitted to

the computer’s memory unit where they are available for

processing. This memory unit is used to hold the

instructions to be executed and the data to be processed.

iii. Control Unit (CU)

a. It acts as a supervisor in a computer system. It

performs the following function.

b. It can get instructions out of the memory unit.

c. It can decode the instructions.

d. It sets up the routing, through the internal wiring, of

data to the correct place at the correct time.

e. It can determine the storage from where it is to get

the next instruction after the previous instruction has

been executed.

8.7. Motherboards

The ICs or Chips and other devices making up a computer

circuit are mounted on a printed circuit board. The basic

circuit board for a computer system is the system board or

motherboard, which contains the bus. Along the bus are

mounted edge connectors, seats into which other printed

circuit boards can be inserted edgewise. The edge connectors

200

are sometimes called expansion shots and the boards that

plug into them are expansion boards.

A main memory board must monitor the address bus for

addresses, a control line informs the memory board whether

data is to read from memory or written to memory. For each

peripheraol device, such a printer or disk drive, there is a

device – controller board that plugs into the bus. The

device – controller board is connected by ports or cables to

the peripheral device.

8.8. BIOSBIOS stands for Basic Input / Output System. It’s

software has been encoded on a computer memory chip. Since

the chip is “read only”, meaning that we cannot write to it.

The chip is known as a ROM (Read Only Memory) chip. The

BIOS is a collection of small computer programs built into a

ROM chip. The BIOS has three main functions.

8.9. Power-on self test (POST)

When the PC is initially turned on, is to perform a

system checkout known as Power-on self test or POST.

8.10. Bootstrap Loader

Finds the operating system and loads or books it. This

is called bootstrap loader routine. If an operating system

such as DOS is located, it is loaded and put in control of

your PC.

201

8.11. Low-level interfaces

It provides communication links between the keyboard,

video display and serial and printer ports for the micro

processor.

8.12. CMOS (Complimentary Metal Oxide Semiconductor)

A real time clock is the built in clock complemented by

a special CMOS memory chip on the motherboard that is found

in any AT system. We can have a clock added on some

expansion adapters at a PC system, but DOS will not

recognize the clock unless some special program is run

first. This CMOS memory in the AT system also stores the

system’s basic configuration. On any PC or XT type of

system, these basic configuration options, such as the

amount of installed memory, number and types of floppy

drives and hard disks, and type of video adapter, are all

set through the use of switches and jumbers on the on the

motherboard and various adapters.

8.13. BUS The term bus refers to an electrical pathway through

which bits are transmitted between the various computer

components. This is the communication between two or more

devices such as CPU, storage and peripherals. The bus can

be classified into three types namely.

i. Data bus

ii. Address bus

iii. Control bus

i. Data bus

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The data bus carries data values and control codes from

one computer to another.

ii. Address busThe address bus carries addresses used to designate

memory locations or registers, in various components. The

most important use of addresses is for designation main

memory location. Addresses are also used to designate

registers associated with peripheral devices.

iii. Control busIt carries control and timing signals needed to

coordinate the operations of the various components.

Model Questions1. The third generation of computers coversthe period

(a) 1959-1964 (b) 1965-1971 (c) 1971-1981 (d) 1991-now

2. A compiler means(a) A person who compiles source program (b) The same thing as a programmer(c) Keypunch operator (d) A program which translates source program into object

program

3. An assembler is a(a) Program (b) Person who

assembles the parts(c) Symbol (d) Language

4. The one of the language which consist ofstrings of Is and Os is called

(a) Assembling language (b) High level language

(c) Machine language (d) 4GL

5. The primary units of computer are

203

(a) input, output, CPU, auxiliary storage unit (b) input, output, CPU(c) input, CPU, auxiliary storage unit (d) input, output, memory

6. In MODEMS(a) Several digital signals are multiplexed(b) A digital signal changes some characteristic of a carrier wave(c) Digital signal is amplified (d) All of the above

7. Conversion of an Octal number 134g to a Binary number is(a) 00101101 lz (b)001101100z (c)

00101 HOOz (d)11001l2

8. Conversion of Hexadecimal number 3Aie to Binary number is(a) 11011012 (b) 1110102 (c) 1001102 (d) HOOllz

9. Subtraction of lOOlOHOOz from HlOlOlOlOzis(a) lOOlOlllIOz (b) OlOlOlOOIOz (c) llllOOOOOlz (d) 11110111112

10. A floppy disk contains(a) Circular tracks only (b) Sectors only (c)

Both circular tracks and sector (d) All of the above

11. Which of the following is not an output device of a computer

(a) Printer (b) Keyboard (c) VDU (d) CRT screen

12. In a computer system Which device in functionally opposite of a keyboard

(a) Mouse (b) Track ball (c) Printer (d) Joy stick

13. Wide area networks(WANs) always require(a) High bandwidth communication links (b) High speed processors(c) Same type of processor (d) None of the above

204

14. Personal computers use a number of chipsmounted on a main circuit board . What

is the common name for such boards?(a) Daughter board (b) Mother board (c) Father

board (d) Bread board

15. EEPROM stands for(a) Electrically erasable programmable random only memory(b) Electrically erasable programmable read only memory(c) Electronically erasable programmable read only memory(d) None

16. The different types of monitors are(a) Monochrome (b) Gray-Scale (c) Color

d) All of the above

17. RDBMS stands for(a) Relational Data Management System(b) Relation Data Management System(c) Relational Data Base Management system(d) None of the above.

18. The font sizes range from(a) 8-72 (b)12-72 (c) 8 –

80 (d) none

19. The default font size is(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d)

14

20. ________ evaluate sentence structure(a) Grammar Checker (b)

Spell Checker(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None

21. ____ is a collection of rows and columns(a) Document (b) Macros (c) Table (d) none

22. GUI stands for(a) Graphical User Intelligent (b) Graphical Under

Intelligent(c) Graphical User Interface (d) none of the above

23. SQL stands for

205

(a) Structured Query Language (b) Simple QueryLanguage

(c) Selected Query Language (d)none

24. Packet(a) is any unit of data sent across a network(b) also includes the addresses of the sender and the

recipient as well as error-control information.(c) Normally arrives due to large splitting of piece of

data(d) All the above

25. A Web browser(a) Is a client software for the WWW (b)

Displays HTML and other documents(c) Allows the user to follow hypertext links (d)

All the above

26. BGP stands for(a) Bounded Graphic Protocol (b) Bootstrap Graphic

Protocol(c) Bootstrap Protocol (d) None of the above

27. SIG is(a) An E-mail discussion group(b) One of several technical discussion group sponsored by ACM (ASSOCIATION

FOR COMPUTING MACHINERY)(c) Both (A) and(B)(d) None of the above

28. Usenet(a) Is not the internet(b) Is the collection of computers and networks that

shares news articles(c) Is called the world's largest electronic bulletin

board(d) All the above

29. What type of software is used for creating letters papers and other

documents?(a) Database (b)

Word Processor

206

(c) Spreadsheet (d) Operating Program

30. In latest generation computers, the instructions are executed

(a) Parallel only (b) Sequentially only

(c) Both sequentially and parallel (d) All of above31. Who invented the high level language c?

(a) Dennis M. Ritchie (b) Niklaus Writh

(c) Seymour Papert (d) Donald Kunth

32. When did arch rivals IBM and Apple Computers Inc. decide to join hands?

(a)1978 (b) 1984 (c) 1990 (d) 1991

33. An error in software or hardware is called a bug. What is the alternative computer

jargon for it?(a) Leech (b) Squid (c) Slug (d) Glitch

34. The computer code for the interchange ofinformation between terminals is

(a) ASCII (b) BCD (c) EBCDIC (d) All of above

35. CAD stands for(a) Computer aided design (b) Computer algorithm for

design(c) Computer application in design (d)

All of the above

36. RATS stands for(a) Regression Analysis Time Series (b)

Regression Analysis Time Sharing(c) Real Analysis Series (d)

All of above

37. In which year was chip used inside the computer for the first time?

(a) 1964 (b) 1975 (c) 1999 (d) 1944

207

38. What was the name of the first commercially available microprocessor chip?

(a) Intel 308 (b) Intel 33 (c) Intel 4004 (d) Motorola 639

39. The first digital computer built with 1Cchips was known as

(a) IBM 7090 (b) Apple – 1 (c) IBM System / 360 (d)VAX-10

40. In which language is source program written?

(a) English (b) Symbolic (c) High level (d) Temporary

41. Properly arranged data is called(a) Field (b) Words (c)

Information (d) File

42. Which of the following are (is) considered to be video component?

(a) Resolution (b) Color depth (c) Refresh rate (d) All of the alcove

43. A high quality CAD system uses the following for printing drawing and graphs

(a) Dot matrix printer (b) Digital plotter

(c) Line printer (d) All of the above

44. Who designed the first electronics computer - ENIAC?

(a) Van-Neumann (b) Joseph M. Jacquard

(c) J. Presper Eckert and John W Mauchly (d) All of above

45. What is meant by a dedicated computer?(a) Which is used by one person only (b) Which is assigned one and only one task(c) Which uses one kind of software (d) Which is meant for application software

46. Which of the following will happen when data is entered into a memory location?

208

(a) It will add to the content of the location (b) It will change the address of the memory location(c) It will erase the previous content (d) It will not be fruitful if there is already some data

at the location

47. Which of the following processors use RISC technology?

(a) 486dx (b) Power PC (c) 486sx (d) 6340

48. Which of the following is form of semiconductor memory in which it is possible to change thecontents of selected memory locations by applying suitableelectrical signals?(a) CAM (b) ROM (c) EPROM (d) Abacus

49. A group of magnetic tapes, videos or terminals usually under the control of one master is

(a) Cylinder (b) Surface. (c) Track, (d) Cluster.

50. CD-ROM(a) Is a 'semiconductor memory (b)

Memory register(c) Magnetic memory (d)

None of the above.

51. The first mechanical computer designed by Charles Babbage was called:

(a) Abacus (b) Processor (c) Calculator (d) Analytical engine (e) None

52. Where was India's first computer installed and when?

(a) Institute of Social Science, Agra, 1955.(b) Indian Institute of Statistics, Delhi, 1957(c) Indian Statistical Institute, Calcutta, 1955(d) Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore, 1971(e) None of the above

53. Who was the father of Punched Card Processing

(a) J.Prosper Eckert (b) Charles Babbage (c) Dr. Herman Hollerith

(d) Blaise Pascal (e)None

209

54. The first electronic computer in the world was

(a) UNIVAC (b) EDVAC (c) ENIAC (d) All of the above

(e) None of these.

55. The man considered to be the "father of computing" is

(a). Charles Babbage (b) Herman Hollerith(c) KonralZuse (d). John Atanasoff

56. The analytical engine(a) was designed for specific computations (b) was to be capable of performing any computation(c) was used to help process census data (d) none of the above

57. The difference engine was to be(a) an electronic digital computer (b)

an electromechanical device(c) powered by steam (d) none of the above

58. Babbage's analytical engine(a) was never completed (b) incorporated most of the ideas behind modern

computers(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none the above

59. Herman Hollerith designed machines(a) that could create astronomical tables (b) that were capable of performing any computation(c) that could sort and tabulate punched cards (d) none of the above

60. A person credited with inventing the first electronic computer is

(a) Konred Zuse (b). John Atanasoff (c) JohnMauchly (d). All of the above

61. The ENIAC(a) was totally electronic (b) was

the size of a personal computer

210

(c) was programmed by punched cards (d)both a and c above

62. John von Neumann is credited with(a) inventing the first electronic computer (b) developing the modern concept of the stored program(c) designing the analytical engine (d) none of the above

63. An example of an early stored program computer was

(a) EDVAC (b) ENIAC (c) Both a and b above (d) None of the above

64. To provide electronic circuits, first-generation computers used

(a) vacuum tubes (b) transistors (c)integrated circuits

(d) large-scale integrated circuits

65. Compared to vacuum tubes, transistors(a) were smaller (b) generated less

heat (c) were faster (d) all of the above

66. High-level programming languages were first developed during the

(a) first generation (b) second generation(c) third generation (d) fourth generation

67. The first personal computers(a) could be used by casual users (b) could be used only be programmers(c). were developed in the early 1960's (d) both(b) and (c) above

68. The first microprocessor, the Intel 4004, could process

(a) four bits of information at a time (b) eight bits of information at a time(c) thirty-two bits of information at a time (d) one bit of information at a time

69. CP/M(a). is used to control a keyboard, CRT screen, and disks

211

(b). became the standard programming language for personal computers

(c). was initially designed to be used by non-programmes(d). both (a) and (c) above

70. A computer first sold in kit form was the

(a). Altair (b). Apple II (c). TRS-80 Model I (d). All of the above

71. Personal computers designed specificallyaround a visual operating system include

(a). the IBM PC/AT (b). the Apple Macintosh (c). the TRS-80 Model I (d). all of the above

72. It was predicted that by the end of the 1980s

(a). the equivalent of the processor in a DEC VAX minicomputer will be available on a chip selling for < $1.(b). 4-megabit memory chips will be introduced(c). both a and b above(d). none of the above

73. The ultimate goal of fifth generation computers project is to develop computers that can

(a). understand natural language(b). apply common sense to everyday problems(c). make inferences from facts stored in knowledge bases(d). all of the above

74. Who proposed the stored program concept?(a). T.J. Watson, Sr. (b). Charles Babbage (c). John Von Neumann (d). Bill Gate

75. The punched card used in the IBM system/3 contains

(a). 60 columns (b). 80 columns (c). 100 columns (d). 120 columns

Key

S.No. Key S.No. Key S.No. Key S.No. Key S.No. Key

212

1. b 2. d 3. a 4. c 5. a6. d 7. c 8. b 9. b 10. c11. b 12. c 13. a 14. b 15. c16. d 17. c 18. a 19. c 20. a21. c 22. c 23. a 24. d 25. d26. a 27. c 28. d 29. b 30. c31. a 32. b 33. d 34. a 35. a36. a 37. a 38. a 39. a 40. a41. c 42. d 43. c 44. b 45. b46. a 47. b 48. c 49. c 50. d51. d 52. c 53. c 54. c 55. a56. c 57. a 58. b 59. c 60. d61. a 62. b 63. a 64. a 65. d66. b 67. b 68. a 69. a 70. a71. a 72. c 73. c 74. d 75. b

213

Unit - IX

PEOPLE AND ENVIRONMENT* Mrs.Sridevi Rajalakshmi

9.1. Introduction of Environment

Generally, the word ‘Environment’ means “the external

conditions in which an organism lives”. The word

‘Environment’ comes from a French word ‘Environ’, which

means ‘Around’, ‘Round About’. Environment consists of all

social, economical, biological, physical or chemical factors

which constitute the surroundings of man.

9.2. Definition of Environment

Environment consists of the sum total of the stimulation

that the individual receives from conception until death. It

covers all those circumstances which assert their influence

on the individual since conception to death. Whatever found

around the individual, may be covered by the term

environment. It has been defined by various psychologists as

follows-

"A person's environment consists of the sum total of the stimulation which he

receives from his conception until his death."-Boring

"The environment is everything that affects theindividual except his genes."

-Anastasi

"The term environment is used to describe, in theaggregate, all the external forces,

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influences and conditions, which affect the life,nature, behaviour and the growth,

development and maturity of living organisms."-Douglass and Hollandi

9.3. Types of environment There are two main types of environment.

i. Natural Environment

ii. Man – made environment.

i. Natural environment It operates through self-regulating mechanism, called

homeostatic environment mechanism. Accordingly, when there

is a change in natural ecosystem, it will be counter

balanced by, changes in other component of the environment.

There is a reciprocal relationship among various component

of the environment. Generally, the natural environment

consists of the components like air, water, soil, radiation,

land, forest, wild life etc.

ii. Man-made environment:

The environment is influenced by the most powerful

environmental agent called man. By using modern

technologies, he modifies the environment according to his

needs to a great extent. This process involves technology,

transportation, housing, dam – building, industrial

revolution, colonies in space, computerization of space

labouratories and channelisation of energy sources, such as

hydro, thermal and nuclear energy.

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* Mrs.T.Sridevi Rajalakshmi, Full Time Research Scholar, Department of Management Studies, Madurai Kamaraj University, Madurai

There are three main components, namely, the non-

living, the living and the energy components.

9.4. The non-living components

It is also known as abiotic component, which includes

medium and climate. Medium denotes the substance or

surroundings in which an organism lives and grows. For

example, the plants, animals and microbes live in the soil,

water, air and bodies of other organisms in the case of

parasites. Weather and climate are not identical. Climate,

generally denotes the trend of weather and atmospheric

behaviour over a number of years. Weather means the daily

meteorological conditions, especially temperature, humidity,

wind, rainfall, cloudiness etc.

9.5. Living components

It is called biotic component, which consists of

flora and funna. The plants living in an area is called

flora, whereas the funna refers to the animals present in an

area.

9.6. Energy components

It consists of solar energy, geo-thermal energy, thermo

electrical energy, hydro electrical energy and nuclear or

atomic energy. Besides, the energy created by radiation and

other sources also maintain the life of organisms.

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9.7. Segments of Environment

There are four main segments in an environment.

I. Atmosphere: It denotes the gaseous envelope

surrounding the earth.

II. Hydrosphere: It denotes the watery part of the

earth’s surface.

III. Lithosphere: It represents the rigid outer layer

of earth’s crust, consisting of

rocks and soil.

IV. Biosphere: It denotes the realm of living

things found in atmosphere,

hydrosphere and lithosphere.

The environment is made up of four main parts, namely

I. Atmosphere -AirII. Hydrosphere - WaterIII. Lithosphere - LandIV. Biosphere - Organisms

I. Atmosphere

I. Atmosphere is the gaseous envelope of the Earth.II. It is present around the Earth.III. It extends upto 20,000 km.IV. It consists of gases and some solid and liquid

particles suspended in it.V. The gases include nitrogen, oxygen, ammonia,

neon, krypton, xenon, etc. Of these N2 makes upto78%, O2 makes upto 21 % and Argon makes upto 0.9%.The other gases are found in trace amounts.

217

VI. The atmosphere is divided into the followingfive layers on the basis of vertical distributionof temperature:

i. Trophosphereii. Stratosphereiii. Mesosphereiv. Thermosphere andv. Exosphere

i. Trophosphere

The lowest layer of the atmosphere, in which the tem-

B perature decreases with increasing altitudes is called

trophosphere. Clouds are formed and carried by winds in this

layer. It extends from 6 to 8 km at the poles and to about

17 km at the equator. It contains 90% of the air of the

atmosphere. Seasonal variations are so common.

ii. Stratosphere

The layer of atmosphere above the trophosphere, in

which the temperature increases with increasing altitudes if

called stratosphere. It extends to a height of 50 km.

Here the air is much thinner. Long-distance-aircrafts

in the lower part of the stratosphere. The top of this layer

contains ozone.

iii. Mesosphere

Mesosphere lies above 50 km upto 100 km. It is

characterized by decrease of temperature.

iv. Thermosphere

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It lies beyond the mesosphere. Here the temperature

rises sharply attaining 1000°C. It extends to a height of

400 km.

v. Exosphere

It lies above thermosphere beyond 400 km. The increase

in temperature ceases at this layer. The density of the

atmosphere is very low here.

vi. Ozone Layer

In the atmosphere, about 30 km above the surface of the

Earth, ozone molecules are concentrated in the stratosphere.

The concentrated layer of ozone is called ozone layer. It

screens off UV light of the Sun. It is often called ozone

umbrella. It protects the life of the Earth from the

damaging effect of UV light.

It is now feared that there is danger of appearing

holes on the ozone umbrella. This is caused by freons and

other chloro-fluoro-carbons (CFC). The appearance of skin

cancer will be the result of ozone depletion.

The ozone umbrella prevents the damaging effects of UV

radiation coming from the Sun.

The Earth has an optimum temperature.

The atmosphere supports life on the Earth. It supplies,

i. O2 for respirationii. CO2 for photosynthesis

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iii. Rainiv. Temperature

The atmosphere prevents the entry of ultraviolet rays

of the Sun into the Earth.

II. Hydrosphere

i. The layer of water on the surface of the Earth is

called hydrosphere. It includes all liquid and frozen

surface waters, groundwater held in rock and soil

and atmospheric water vapour.

ii. It is estimated that the World has 1,46,000 cubickilometre of water.

iii. The oceans and seas constitute about 97% of thewater.

iv. The polar ice caps and glaciers constitute 2%.

v. The freshwater bodies, groundwater and atmosphericvapour constitute 1%.

vi. All these waters of the hydrosphere are in constantcirculation through hydrologic cycle.

vii. Three fourth of the Earth's surface is covered bywater. It includes oceans, seas, ponds, lakes,rivers, dams, etc.

III. Lithosphere

i. The solid component of the Earth is calledlithosphere.

ii.The lithosphere is made up of three layers, an outercrust, middle mantle and an inner core.

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iii. The crust is the outer most solid zone of theEarth and its thickness varies from 12 to 60 km.

iv.The mantle is the middle layer and is in a moltenstate. The thickness of the mantle is estimated to2,900 km.

v. The inner core is about 2,500 km thick. It is in asolid or molten state. It is composed of nickel andiron.

vi.The lithosphere can be compared to a hen's egg. Itis elliptical. The shell of the egg represents the

crust, the white of the egg is compared to the

mantle and the yellow yolk is compared to the core.

vii. The lithosphere is made up of rocks and soil. The

rock is formed of minerals.

IV. Biosphere

Biosphere is the sphere of life. It consists of the

plants, animals and human beings of the Earth. It is also

called Ecosphere.

The biosphere is found in the lithosphere,

hydrosphere and atmosphere.

The total mass of the biosphere is 5xl012 tonnes.

The biosphere consists of organisms, population, community

and ecosystem.

Organisms include the plants and animals. Population is a

group of similar plants or animals living area. Eg. All the teak

trees in a forest.

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A Community refers to all the plants and animals

living in an area. An Ecosystem refers to all the non-

living things, plants and animals of an area and their

interaction.

9.8. Environmental Pollution

Pollution is an undesirable change in the physical,

chemical or biological characteristics of our air, land and

water that will harmfully affect the human life and the

desirable species or that may waste or deteriorate our raw

material resources'-Odum.

Pollution is the deliberate or accidental contamination

of the environment-with man's wasted

Pollution is defined as matter in the wrong place.

According to Melaughlin pollution is defined as the

introduction by man of waste matter or surplus energy into

the environment, which directly or indirectly causes damage

to man and his environment.

Edwards defined pollution as the release of substances

or energy into the environment by man in quantities that

damage either his health or resources.

Continued economic growth, mismanagement of resources

and population explosion have an explosive impact on the

environment. Now our Earth has become a very sick planetand

222

urgently needs a cure. A disaster is looming unless

everybody joins hands to take on the environmental dangers

and to find ways to halt the march to mankinds destruction.

9.9. Biodegradable Pollutants

The pollutants which can be decomposed by natural

process are called biodegradable pollutants. Eg. Selvage,

heat, noise, etc.

On the basis of physical properties, pollutants are

classified into four categories. They are solid pollutants,

liquid pollutants, gaseous pollutants and pollutants without

weight.

9.10. Causes of Pollution

The following are the main causes of pollution

9.10.1. Human Activity

The main cause of pollution is man himself. His

activities, his civilization, culture, etc. bring about

environmental pollution. Hence pollution is said to be a

'necessary evil' in the present age.

9.10.2. Population Explosion

Southwick (1976) stated that population explosion causes pollution

because more people produce more sewage, more solid wastes,

more fuel being burned, more fertilizers and insecticides

being used to produce more food.

9.10.3. Industries

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Paper mills, sugar factories, soap factories, cement

factories, chemical factories, fertilizer factories, oil

plants, rubber factories, blast furnaces, distillaries, oil

refineries, etc. cause pollution to a greater extent.

9.10.4. Automobiles

Automobiles like road vehicles, trains, aircrafts,

etc. cause air pollution and noise pollution.

9.10.5. Smoke

Smoke arises from industries and houses.

9.10.6. Biocides Insecticides, pesticides and other biocides cause

pollution.

9.10.7. Fertilizers

The synthetic fertilizers used for the improvement of

crops cause pollution.

9.11. Pollutants

The substances or factors which affect the normal

functioning of human life and domesticated species when

introduced into the biosphere, are called pollutants. The

important pollutants -are as follows:

i. Garbage

Domestic wastes, municipal wastes, etc.

ii. Deposited Matter Smoke, soot, dust, tar, etc.

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iii. Gases CO, SO2 CO2 H2S, NH3, Fl2, Cl2 nitrogen oxide, methyl

isocyanate, etc.

iv. Chemical Compounds

Aldehydes, arsines, hydrogen fluorides, phosgenes, detergents, etc.

v. Metals Lead, iron, zinc, mercury, etc.

vi. Biocides Pesticides, insecticides, herbicides, fungicides,

nematocides, rodenticides, etc.

vii. Fertilizers

Urea, Ammonium sulphate, etc.

viii. Radioactive Substances

ix. Noisex. Heatxi. Sewagexii. Plasticsxiii. Oils

9.12. What is Air Pollution? Discuss its causes.

When there is a change effected in the composition of

air, either by physical or chemical methods which results in

harmful effects on health is called Air Pollution. The

following are the main sources of air pollution.

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Air pollutions are created by coal and oil combustion

refineries, blast furnaces, fumigation explosives,

fertilizer plants, transportation, solid waste disposal etc.

The following table provides the main pollutants and

their sources.

Pollutants Main Sources1. Carbon monoxide (CO)2. Nitrogen oxides 3. Sulphur oxides4. Hydrocarbon 5. Chlorofluorocarbons 6. Carbonyl chloride

Burning o coal, autoexhausts, etc.Auto exhausts, coalindustriesOil and coal combustionindustries Auto exhausts, fuelcombustionRefrigerator, air conditionerplantsChemical industries

The main pollutants and their harmful effect on human

health is given below.

Pollutants and their harmful effects on human health.

Pollutants Harmful Effect on Human health

1. Oxides ofnitrogen

2. Oxides ofsulphur

3. Carbonmonoxide

4. Ammonia 5. Hydrogen

sulphide

6. Nitrohpenol7. Benzidine8. Benopyrene

Respiratory ailments, lung diseasesChest troubles, headache, vomiting Decreases oxygen carrying capacity ofblood Inflames upper respiratory Causes irritation of eye parts, throat andnausea Responsible for blood cancerResponsible for blood cancerCauses bladder cancerBone cancerIrritation in mucous membrane

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9. Benzene

The following industries cause pollution in the

atmosphere.

9.13. Fertilizer industries

These industries exhaust oxides of nitrogen and dust

particles into the atmosphere.

Fertilizer plant Dust emissionUreaAmmonia Ammonium sulphateCalcium ammonium nitrate

Urea dust coal and coke dustCoal dustSulphur dustLimestone dust

9.14. Cement factories

These industries cause major air pollution in the

atmosphere. The cement dusts released by these industries

spread over to neighboring villages and settle down on the

plants and houses.

9.15. Acid industry

These industries produce sulphuric acid in large

quantities and release sulphur di oxide in air and pollute

the surrounding atmosphere.

9.16. Flights – aviation

When the aeroplane takes off from the land, the

combustion produces sulphur di oxide as pollutant. The

sulphur di oxide gas forms sulphurous and then sulphuric

acid which are poisonous.

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9.17. Fluoride industry

These industries release fluoride compounds into the

atmosphere which have serious effects on plants, animals and

human beings. Hydrogen fluoride gas destroys the leaves and

fruits in the plants.

9.18. Control of air pollution

The air pollution can be controlled in the following

ways:

i. The air contains more hydrocarbons from exhaust.

They will have to be controlled by techniques like

absorption, incineration and combustion.

ii.The air also contains particles released from thedusts. The particle emission can be controlled by

(a) electrostatic separators (b) filters and (c)

cyclone collectors.

iii. The environmental safety legislations like,

Environment Protection Act, Air Pollution Act,

should be applied effectively to industries.

iv.The pollutant industries have to install treatmentplants to check the air pollutants.

v. Instead of using chemical pesticides, biopesticides

can be used in agricultural fields.

vi.The Government should not permit radioactive

explosions.

vii. Afforestation must be undertaken in full length.

9.19. Water Pollution

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The presence of any toxic substance in water which

effects temporarily or permanently its quality to its

usefulness is known as water pollution. The foreign

material found in the water changes either physical or

chemical properties of water and cause pollution.

The following are the major types of water pollution.

Physical

pollution

Organic

pollution

Inorganic

pollution

Oilpollution

Biological

pollution

Garbage

pollution

Pesticide

Pollution

Radioactivepollution

9.20. Physical pollution

When the physical characteristics like colour, smell,

turbidity and taste of water are changed, it is termed

physical pollution.

9.21. Inorganic pollution

The chemical industries are mainly responsible for the

discharge of sulphides, nitri-sulphates, phosphates etc.

These chemicals mix up with river water and make them unift

for drinking. The substances in the water create foul smell

around the area due to decomposition. The pH of water is

reduced, to 4 to 5; water becomes acidic, and it destroys

aquatic plants and animals.

9.22. Organic Pollution

229

The chemical industries discharge the organic

compounds, change the pH and the dissolved oxygen of water.

The pesticides, fungicides and bactericides used in

agriculture create serious water pollution and enhance the

biological oxygen demand of water.

9.23. Biological pollution

The biological pollution is created by plant toxins,

coliform bacteria and algae. The harmful micro organisms

and viruses found in the water spreads water borne disease

like cholera, and hepatitis.

9.24. Oil pollution

This is very common in seas. When oil tankers used to

transport oils from one country to another by sea, explode

due to enemy’s attack or spills out oils due to leakage in

ports and docks. Due to natural thereby prevents the entry

of sunlight into the water so that aquatic plants and

animals die due to the depletion of oxygen.

9.25. Garbage pollution

This pollution is created by the industries, and by

people. Garbage is the major source of pollution of rivers.

9.26. Pesticide pollution

230

In order to have high yield in agriculture, farmers

use pesticides and chemicals like DDT, enderin,

methoxychlor, malathion, parathion which pollute water.

The major industries responsible for water pollution

are given below.

9.27. Sources of Water pollution

i. Paper industry

Generally, the paper units will use the chemicals like

alum, talc, rosin, cholorine, caustic soda etc. dissolve in

water and pollute water.

ii. Distillery wastes

The wastes released by the distillery units are rich in

organic compounds. When these wastes are mixed with the

nearby river without proper treatment, it will spoil the

water qualities.

iii. Electroplating plants.

The electroplanting industries will release the

effluents that contain heavy metals and cyanides, which

cause excessive acidity or alkalinity in waters of rivers

which is very harmful for aquatic life. Besides, asbestos

industry, steel industry also pollutes water.

Water pollution can be controlled by the following

methods.

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9.28. Water pollution control

i.Recycling of the urban seqage, sullage etc. togenerate electricity, fuel and fertilizer instead of

allowing them to mix up with rivers.

ii. The reverse osmosis may be used to purify the

industrial wastes before mixing with rivers.

iii. Solar energy many be employed to kill

microorganisms by using suitable catalysts.

9.29. What is Soil Pollution? How to control it?

Generally, the industries release various types of

wastes, metals oxides, acids, alkalies, aromatic compounds,

phenols and pesticides etc. which destroys the quality of

the soil. When the soil becomes infertile it is called as

soil pollution.

9.30. Sources of Soil pollution

The soil pollution takes place, due to the following

main sources.

i.Chemical pollutants

ii. Metallic pollutants

iii. Industrial effluents

iv. Agricultural wastes

v.Detergents

vi. Pesticides

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9.31. Control of soil pollution

i.By using cobalt and nickel techniques, the garbage andnight soil can be converted into composite manure.

ii. Cowdungs are used as fuel in most of the villages.

This fuel on burning releases benzopyrene which can

cause cancer. However, the cowdung can be used in

fields in increase the crop production.

iii. By pyrolysis method, the industrial and domestic

solid waste may be treated.

iv. The industrial effluents should not be allowed to

mix with soil.

v.By solar oxidation the domestic garbage and industrialwastes can be put into proper treatment like solar

oxidation and then it can be mixed with soil.

9.32. What is Marine pollution? How you control it?

It is learnt that nearly ¾ of the earth’s surface is

conversed by water bodies. Oceans provide food, mineral,

energy, salinity gradient besides coal, oil and gas. Oceans

provide more resource to meet the increasing demand of

population. But, man destroys the aquatic environment

either by mismanaging or by over exploitation. Man is

responsible for measurable and detrimental effects on the

aquatic environment.

233

9.33. What is noise pollution? How do you prevent noise

pollution?

The word ‘noise’ is derived from the latin ‘nausa’. It

means feeling of sickness at the stomach with an urge to

vomit.

Noise can be defined in the following ways.

i.It is a sound without value

ii. It is unwanted or disagreeable sound that

causes discomfort.

iii. It is the wrong sound, in the wrong place and

at the wrong time.

iv. It is that sound which is undesired by the

recipient.

According to Odum, the noise pollution is the unwanted sound

dumped into the environment, without regard to the adverse

effect, it may have, generally the noise pollution is

classified into the following types:

i.Factory noise,

ii. Vehicle Noise

iii. Surrounding noise.

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i. Factory Noise: Due to technical advancement, man uses

high intensity sound machines which causes noise

pollution.

Different Sources of Noise pollutions

ii. Vehicle Noise

The main menace of noise, however, comes from

transport. It mainly includes road traffic noise, rail

traffic noise, air craft noise and rocket launching noise.

iii. Surrounding Noise

The musical instruments, TV, VCR, radio, transistors,

telephones, washing machines, vacuum cleaners, fans,

mixers, coolers, air conditioners and lound speakers etc.

used by the surrounding people create noise pollution.

Noise pollution – Its effects on man

235

NoisePollutions

Thunderclap

Jet Pianceabout 100

MotorCycle

LoanConservation or Other

Sound

Food Blender

Jet Planetake off

RocketEngines

Hootingof Trains

The following measures are suggested for controlling the

noise pollution.

(a) The factories must provide

sufficient ear protection aids such as soft plastic and

rubber ear plugs, headphones, etc. to the workers, who

are working around noisy machines.

(b) The factories can use glass doors

and windows to reduce the noise to a greater extent.

(c) By and large, the noise should be

suppressed, to control pollution

(d) The trees should be grown near

schools, hospitals, public offices, libraries etc. which

may reduce the noise.

(e) Partitions, enclosures, sheds and

barriers also reduce noise pollution.

(f) The noise may be controlled by

making use of sound absorption silencers.

(g) By effective implementation of

legislative measures, the noise pollution can be

controlled, during the marriage and festival seasons.

9.34. What is Thermal Pollution? Discuss its harmful

effects?

It is created by the heated effluents discharged by

various power plants. It destroys the aquatic and

terrestrial environment. The power projects like thermal,

atomic, nuclear, coal fired plants, oil field generators,

factories and mills, utilize water for cooling purposes.

Normally, the effluents are discharged at a temperature 8 to

236

10oC, higher than the temperature of intake waters. The

heated water discharge to the rivers, lakes, streams and

ponds etc. have reduced concentration of dissolved oxygen,

which produces distinct changes in aquatic biota and affects

the ecosystem.

9.35. Resources

9.35.1. What do you mean by ‘Natural Resources’? State its

kinds.

Natural resources are useful to man, who is always

dependent on them for his livelihood. Natural resources

consist of water, soil forests, grasslands, wild animal

life, mineral and others. Human beings, for their existence

depend upon food, shelter, and energy. And hence, the

natural resources are useful for meeting and maintaining the

requirements of human life. Natural resources are of three

kinds.

i) Inexhaustible Natural Resources

Atmosphere, Water

ii) Replaceable and Maintainable Natural Resources

Soil, land, forests, plants, wild – animals, human powers

and surface water.

iii) Irreplaceable Natural Resources

Minerals, metals, fossil fuels and radioactive materials,

miscellaneous non-fuels and non – metals and land in

natural conditions.

9.35.2. Forest Resource

237

Forest products, are generally, useful to the socio –

economic life of the people, and also for their livelihood.

Forest resources help moderating rapid climatic changes.

Besides, maintaining ecological balance and preventing soil

erosion, the forests affect the climate, particularly rain,

wind, heat, cold and moisture. The plants and animals

(including birds and reptiles) get their food from the

forests.

Forest resources are useful for the economic

development of the country through their utilization. The

forests provide timber, fuel, animals, birds, reptiles,

medicinal herbs and plants, orchids etc. The forest affects

wind, rain, cold, vegetation, climate, industries, income

and employment of the state.

We get food, medicines, household equipments and

building materials, raw materials, materials for

agricultural and other production equipment, from the

forests.

9.35.3. Water Resources:

According to Saint Thiruvalluvar when there is no

water there is no life, on earth. Therefore, water is

essential for all human activities. Water is an energy

resource. People’s activities depend on the stable water

supply.

9.35.4. Water supply – at Global Level

238

In the hydrosphere, ocean saltwater accounts for 97%

and 2.8% is fresh water. The fresh water is stored as ice

in the world’s ice sheets and mountain glaciers. It is

nearly 2.15 percent of total global water. Ground water

accounts for 0.70% of the hydrosphere. This small portion

is very important because it includes the water available

for plants, animals and human use. Soil water is held in

the soil with in the reach of plant roots comprises 0.005

percent of the global total water. The water founding

streams, lakes, marshes and swamps is called surface water.

The surface water is about evenly divided between freshwater

lakes and saline lakes. A small proportion is found in the

streams and rivers that flow toward the sea.

9.35.5. Mineral Resources

The abandoned lands which are barren, useless and too

badly damaged are known as derelict land. They are not fit

for vegetation, and they will have stagnant pools of water

or covered with mine tailings or slag.

Dereliction lands are universal phenomenon. By and

large, they are associated mainly with industrial countries

in Europe and North America and also in the developing

countries. For example, Malaysia is popular for ‘tin’

industry. As a result of mining, thousand of hectares of

alluvial land have been used, leaving piles of tailing and

dangerous pools of waste sand. Similarly, to extract

diamond in sierra Leone, large areas of land have been

despoiled and pitted with the holes dug and the land is

useless for mineral extraction and for agriculture.

239

9.35.6. Food Resources

In India, agriculture is the most fundamental activity,

which involves cultivation of crops and the domestication of

animals. We get food from agriculture. Agricultural land

is thus the most basic of the world’s vast and varied

resources. Due to population explosion, we will have to

find ways and means to increase the agricultural

productivity of the land. Water, better seeds and improved

methods of cultivation may help to increase the annual

harvests. As agriculture is a global activity, there has

been a tremendous progress, in every aspect of crop

production. By mechanization and the use of steam, oil, gas

or hydro-electric power, productivity per hectare has

increased and there is an expansion in the total land are

farmed. Though, the mechanization created large crop

surpluses, most of the industrial nations today grow very

little food and survive with the help of food imports.

9.36. Energy Resources

9.36.1. What are Energy resources? Discuss its kinds.

When there is no energy, there is no action.

Therefore, energy activity in the world takes place through

the use of energy. The revolution of planets, the human

struggle to control the world and the universe, the roaming

of animals in the forest, the flying of birds, the fish that

swim, the turbulent sea, the live volcano, the powerful

cyclone – all these happen due to energy.

240

Energy is a basic input for fulfilling all basic

needs and for comfortable life for human beings. A country

is valued in terms of the amount of energy produced and

utilized by it.

By rubbing a stone with another, the primitive man

discovered fire. But, the modern man found energy from

various sources. The coal steam engine triggered industrial

revolution in Western Countries. Today, wood, animals,

agriculture wastes, coal, petroleum products, electricity

and natural gas are some of the energy resources used by

man.

The energy resources, may be divided into two major

types. They are renewable and non-renewable energy

resources.

Energy Resources

9.36.2. Solar Energy

The sun is 93 million miles away from the earth and

this is the primary source of all energy on the earth. As

the temperature of the sun is high, small atoms of hydrogen

are fused, that is, the centres of the two atoms are

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Renewable energyresources include thefollowing: (Wood,solar energy, wind,wave, mini hydroelectric power

Non – renewable energyresources include thefollowing (Coal,petroleum, natural

combined. Fusion release far greater energy than splitting

the atom. The sun is the supplier of energy, which runs the

water cycle. Solar energy can be used to cook food, heat

water and negate electricity. It is hoped that the energy

source of the future will continue to be the solar energy.

The solar energy is used for various purposes due to

modern scientific development. The solar energy is used

more in equatorial and tropical regions which receive more

solar radiation. The solar energy and be trapped in two

systems. Solar photo voltaic power system, Solar thermal

energy system.

9.37. Wind Energy

9.37.1. What is Wind energy?

Like solar energy, wind energy is also available

throughout the world. The wind energy is renewable, and we

can get this energy by operating wind mills the help of wind

blowing in nature. Wind mills are installed and electricity

is produced in high wind zones which have strong wind flow.

According to the speed of the wind, the special blades

mounted on top of the wind mills rotate fastly. This

rotation is coupled to a turbine and electricity is

produced. The water can be pumped from wells by wind pumps.

Though wind mills are used from ancient period, wind

mills got importance in electricity production only

recently. Many countries use wind mills power. For

242

example, in our country, windmills are used to get

electricity in the coastal regions of Tamil Nadu, Gujarat,

Andhrapradesh, Maharashtra, Kerala and Karnataka States.

However, Tamil Nadu and Gujarat are leading in

producing electricity by wind mills in India. With the help

of Danish International Agency (DIA) wind farms are

established in Tamil Nadu, at Kayathar, Muppandal and

Mullaikadu (Kanyakumari District). The ministry of non-

conventional energy, looks after the development of wind

energy. To encourage, the entrepreneurs, import duty

exemption is given for components required for wind mills.

The electricity produced from wind mills gets exemption from

excise duty and sales tax. Besides, various incentives are

given for the first five years.

Model Questions

1. Carbon monoxide is harmful to human beings as it is

(a) Carcinogenic (b) anatagonistic to C02(c) with higher affinity for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen(d) destructive to 03

2. Sound becomes a hazardous noise pollution at levels(a) above 30 dB (b) above 80 dB (c) above 100

dB (d) above 120 dB

3. Fishes die in water bodies polluted by sewage due to(a) pathogens (b) clogging of gills by silt(c) reduction in oxygen (d) foul smell

243

4. Which one of the following is the most important causative pollutant of soil?

(a) Glass junk (b) Iron junk (c)Detergents(d) Plastics

5. UV radiations bring about(a) skin cancer (b) mouth cancer (c) lung

cancer (d) liver cancer

6. Taj Mahal is threatened by pollution from(a) Chlorine (b) Sulphur dioxide (c)

hydrogen (d) oxygen

7. Which one of the following is found is higher concentrations in theatmosphere?

(a) Ozone (b) Nitrogen oxides(c) Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and sulphur dioxide (d) All of the above

8. Pollution is rising due to(a) rains (b) research

institutes (c) population explosion (d) automobiles and industries

9. Pollution can be checked through(a) reducing discharge of wastes (b)

increasing industrial development(c) throwing wastes in open spaces (d) All of

the above

10. Carbon dioxide is a major pollutant in(a) air (b) soil (c) water (d) noise

11. Increasing skin cancer and high mutation rate are due to

(a) acid rain (b) ozone depletion (c) CO pollution (d) COz pollution

244

12. Which pollution causes jaundice?(a) Water (b) Air (c) Land (d) Thermal

13. Ozone day is celebrated on(a) January, 30 (b) September, 16 (c) April, 21(d) December, 25

14. Air pollution affects(a) Leaves (b) Roots (c) Stem (d) Flowers

15. Water pollution causes(a) increased photosynthesis (b) increased

deoxygenation and turbidity(c) decreased turbidity (d) increased

oxygenation

16. Major source of methane in India is(a) rice fields (b) sugarcane

plantation(c) wheat fields (d) fruit

orchards

17. Most harmful types of environmental pollutants are(a) Human organic wastes (b) Natural nutrients in excess(c) Waste animal feed (d) Non-biodegradable chemicals

18. Which is not dangerous to life?(a) Nuclear blast (b) Deforestation (c) Ozone

layer (d) Biopollutants

19. Sewage water is purified by(a) Micro-organisms (b) Light (c) Fishes (d) Aquatic plants

20. Ozone hole refers to(a) Hole in ozone layers

245

(b) Reduction in thickness of ozone layer in stratosphere(c) Reduction of thickness of ozone is troposphere(d) Increase concentration of ozone

21. The most important causative pollutant is(a) plastic (b) glass junk (c) iron junk(d) detergents

22. Pollution indicator plants(a) are resistant to pollution (b) can

purify the atmosphere(c) are very sensitive to pollutants (d) can

indicate onset of rains

23. Most hazardous metal pollutant of the automobile exhaust is

(a) Mercury (b) Lead (c) Cadmium (d) Copper

24. Depletion of ozone layer is due to(a) oxides of nitrogen (b) oxides of carbon (c) oxides

of sulphur (d) None of the above

25. Environmental pollution affects(a) biotic components (b) plants only (c) man only

(d) biotic and abiotic components of environment

26. Anxiety and stress are caused by(a) air pollution (b) noise pollution (c) water

pollution (d) nuclear pollution

27. Water pollution is due to(a) agricultural discharges (b) sewage and other wastes(c) industrial effluents (d) All of

the above

28. The methane gas producing fields is

246

(a) wheat field (b) paddy field (c) cotton field (d) groundnut field

29. Environment can be improved by(a) wind erosion (b) excessive tree fall (c)

conservation (d) None of these

30. In metropolitan cities, the .automobiles cause airpollution in the proportous of

(a) 80% (b) 60% (c) 50% (d) 100%

31. Bhopal gas tragedy was due to(a) air pollution (b) soil pollution (c) water

pollution (d) None of these

32. The maximum air pollution is at(a) Delhi (b) Bhopal (c) Kolkata (d) Bangalore

33. An jet aeroplane releases pollution in air, called(a) smog (b) photo-

chemical oxidants (c) aerosols (d) algae and

bacteria

34. Fertilizers, pesticides and insecticides may cause(a) air pollution (b) water pollution (c) Both

(a) and (b) (d) None of the above

35. The pollutant likely to deplete the ozone layer, is

(a) CO (b) nitrogen oxides (c) chlorofluorocarbons

(d) Both (b) and (c)

36. Acid rain is caused by(a) excess production of coal gas

247

(b) excess release of C02 due to increasing combustion and respiration

(c) excess release of SOz and NOz from burning fossil fuels(d) excess production of gaseous hydrocarbons

37. The maximum atmospheric NOz pollution is found in(a) Baroda (b) Chennai (c) Nagpur(d) Mumbai

38. Inadequate drainage in a soil will lead to(a) Floods (b) soil erosion (c) aridity (d) salination

39. A major reason for soil erosion in India is(a) tilling of land (b) deforestation (c)

overgrazing and deforestation (d) over-grazing

40. Loud noise causes(a) irritation (b) irrationality (c)

impairment of hearing (d) dilation of blood vessels

41. Ultraviolet light causes(a) formation of pyrimidines (b) sticky metaphases(c) photodynamic action(d) destruction of hydrogen honds between complementary DNA strands

42. Sulphur dioxide affects(a) cell wall (b) plasmodesmata (c) all

membrane systems (d) nucleus

43. Air pollution is maximum in(a) sewage and pesticides (b) sewage and effluents(c) detergents and pesticides(d) automobile exhausts and chemicals from industries

44. Carbon monoxide is pollutant as it

248

(a) inactivates nerves (b) inhibits glycolysis

(c) combines with oxygen (d) combines with haemoglobin

45. Acid rains are produced by(a) excess N02 and S02 from burning fossil fuels(b) excess production of NN3 by industry and coal gas(c) excess release of carbon monoxide by incomplete combustion(d) excess formation of COz by combustion and animal respiration

46. Atmospheric content of COz is(a) 0.0034% (b) 0.034% (c) 0.34% (d) 3.4%

47. Ozone layer of upper atmosphere is being destroyedby

(a) chlorofluorocarbon (b) SOz(c) photochemical oxidants / Oz and COz (d) smog

48. Noise pollution is measured in(a) hertz (b) fathoms (c)

nanometers (d) decibels

49. The most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhausts is

(a) mercury (b) cadmium (c) lead (d) copper

50. Major air pollutants in Mumbai and Kolkata are(a) marsh gas and algal spores (b) Oa(c) hydrocarbons and hot air (d) CO and oxides of sulphur

51. Pollution is(a) release of undesirable/toxic substances in the environment(b) removal of top soil(c) conservation of energy

249

(d) all of these

52. Spoiling of biotic and a biotic environment by physical/chemical factors is termed as

(a) contamination(b) adulteration(c) pollution(d) noosphere

53. A normal component of environment which becomespollutant when its concentration crosses a

threshold value is called(a) Quantitative pollutant(b) Qualitative pollutant(c) Degradable pollutant(d) Physical pollutant

54. Pollution can bring about change in(a) biogeochemical cycling(b) abiotic environment(c) biotic environment(d) none of the above

55. Man's urge these days has been1. increase of consumers facilities beyond the reach of man2. to control conmunicable diseases3. to produce bumper crops where nothing grew earlier

Man made activities causing pollution are(a) (1) alone (b)(1)and(2) (c)(1)and(3) (d) (1), (2) and (3)

56. When was the Air prevention and control ofpollution act enforced in India?

(a) 1980 (b)1981 (c) 1982 (d) 1984

57. DDTwas banned in world in 1972. When was the useof DDT banned for agricultural purposes in

India?(a) 1962 (b) 1985 (c) 1974 (d) 1992

58. Ganga Action Plan to restore the quality of theriver Ganga was launched in

(a) 1988 (b) 1992 (c) 1985 (d) 1981

250

59. When was NEPA (National Environmental Policy Act)enforced in India ?

(a) 1968 (b) 1969 (c) 1970 (d) 1959

60. The newspaper contains one of the following toxicmaterials

(a)Cd (b)Pb (c)Mg (d) Hg

61. Which of the following pollutant forms a toxic andstable substance in blood by combining with haemoglobin(a) CO2 (b) CO (c) CH4 (d) O2

62. Carbon monoxide is harmful for man because(a) it is carcinogenic (b) it damages kidney (c)

it competes with oxygen in blood (d) it changes pH of body

63. C02 contents in air is about(a) 0.34% (b)4% (c) 3.34%(d) 0.034%

64. Taj Mahai is threatened due to the effect of(a) chlorine (b) sulphur dioxide (c) oxygen (d) hydrogen

65. Lichen deserts indicate(a) Air pollution due to CO (b) Air pollution due to S02 (c) Pollution due to smoke (d) Noise pollution

66. Highest level of oxides of Nitrogen (NO, NOa) in air is recorded in

(a) Bangalore (b) Chennai (c) Mumbai (d) Kolkata

67. Of the following four metropolitan Indian cities, where polluted air hangs above like a cloud?

(a) Mumbai (b) Delhi (c) Kolkata (d) Chennai

68. Which one of the followings is usually not considered a pollutant?

(a)SO2 (b) CO2 (c) Hydrocarbons (d) CO

69. Safe limit of water fluoride level is

251

(a) 0.1 x 0.4 nig/litre (b) 0.5 X 0.8 mg/litre (c) 0.9 x 1.2 mg/litre

(d) 1.3 x 1.6 mg/litre

70. A mutagenic pollutant is(a) chlorinated hydrocarbons (b) organophosphates (c) nitrogen oxides (d) resins

71. Smog is a combination of (a) air and water vapour (b) water and smoke (c) smoke and fog (d) fire and water

72. Photochemical smog always contain(a) ozone (b) methane (c) CO (d) PAN

73. Sulphurous smog is(a) photochemical smog (b) oxidising smog (c)

classical smog (d) Los Angeles smog

74. In a photochemical smog, which gas causes eye and mucous membrane irritant ?

(a) SO2 (b) O3 (c) CO (d) N2O

75. The main component of photochemical smog is/are(a) PAN (b) O (c) Both (a)

and (b) (d) SO2

Key

S.No. Key S.No. Key S.No. Key S.No. Ke

yS.No. Key

1. c 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. a6. b 7. c 8. d 9. a 10. a11. b 12. a 13. b 14. a 15. b16. a 17. d 18. c 19. a 20. b21. d 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. d26. b 27. d 28. b 29. c 30. d31. a 32. c 33. c 34. c 35. d36. c 37. a 38. d 39. c 40. c

252

41. d 42. c 43. d 44. d 45. a46. b 47. a 48. a 49. c 50. d51. a 52. c 53. a 54. c 55. c56. c 57. b 58. c 59. b 60. b61. b 62. c 63. d 64. b 65. b66. d 67. b 68. b 69. b 70. a71. c 72. a 73. c 74. b 75. c

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Unit -X

HIGHER EDUCATION SYSTEM:GOVERNANCE, POLITY AND ADMINISTRATION

Higher Education in India is one of the most developed in the entireworld.

*Dr.V.Chinniah10.1. Introduction

Central Government is responsible for major policy

relating to higher education in the country. It provides

grants to UGC and establishes central universities in the

country. The Central Government is also responsible for

declaration of Education Institutions as ‘Deemed to be

University’ on the recommendation of the UGC.

i. Main Institutions in the Higher Education System in thecountry

ii. Central Universities iii. Fake Universities/Institutionsiv. Open University Systemv. Inter-University Centres (IUCs)vi. The medical Council of Indiavii. The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)viii. National Council of Educational Research and

Trainingix. National Institutes of Technology x. All India Council for Technical Educationxi. Indian Council for Agriculture Researchxii. Rules and Regulations for Admission

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Higher Education in India Some Statistics (2007 – 2008)

Total Budget1805.10 Crores

ii. There were only 20 Universities and 500 colleges at the time of independence.

iii. At present 415 Universities 251 State Univeristies24 Central Universities 103 Deemed Universities 33 Institutes of National Importance20677 Colleges2166 Women Colleges 116.13 Lakhs Students 15.03 Lakhs Students in Universities

101.10 Lakhs Students in Colleges

10.2. Main Institutions in the higher Education system in the country are

University Grants Commission (UGC) is responsible for

coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of

University education and release of grants.

The government established University Grants

Commission (UGC) by an Act of Parliament in 1956.

Chairman of UGC – Prof.Sukhadeo Thorat

Vice Chairman– Prof. Ved Prakash

Secretary– R.K.Chauhan

10.3. The UGC’s Mandate includes

i. Promoting and coordinating university education.

ii. Determining and maintaining standards of teaching,

examination and research in universities.

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* Dr.V.Chinniah, Professor, Department of Management Studies, Madurai Kamaraj University, Madurai

iii. Framing regulations on minimum standards of

education.

iv. Monitoring developments in the field of collegiate

and university education; disbursing grants to the

universities and colleges.

v. Serving as a vital link between the Union and state

governments and institutions of higher learning.

vi. Advising the Central and State governments on the

measures necessary for improvement of university

education

10.4. Composition

The commission comprises the Chairperson, Vice-

Chairperson and ten other members appointed by the Central

Government. The Chairperson is selected from among persons

who are not officers of the Central Government or any State

Government. Of the ten members, two are from amongst the

officers of the central Government to represent it. Not

less than four, selected from among persons who are, at the

time they are selected, shall be a teacher in the

Universities. Other are selected from among eminent

educationists, academics and experts in various fields.

Chairperson is appointed for a term of 5 years or

until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Vice-

Chairperson is appointed for a term of 3 years or until the

age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. The other members

are appointed for a term of 3 years. The Chairperson, Vice-

Chairperson and members can be appointed for a maximum of

two terms.

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10.5. The details of the UGC regional office

i. Southern Eastern Regional Office (SERO) Location: HyderabadStates Covered: Andhra Pradesh, Pondicherry, Andman &

Nicobar and Tamil Nadu

ii. Western Regional Office (WRO)Location: PuneStates Covered: Maharashtra, Gujarat, Goa, Dadar &

Nagar Haveli, Daman and Deu

iii. Central Regional Office (CRO)Location: Bhopal   States Covered: Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan

iv. Northern Regional College Bureua (NRCB)Location: Delhi   States Covered: Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh,

Punjab, Chandigarh,Haryana and Uttar Pradesh

v. North-Eastern Regional Office (NERO) Location: Guwahati States Covered: Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Manipur,Tripura, Arunachal

Pradesh and Nagaland

vi. Eastern Regional Office (ERO)Location: Kolkata   States Covered: West Bengal, Bihar, Orissa and Sikkim

vii. South-Western Regional Office (SWRO)Location: Bangalore States Covered: Kerala, Karnataka and Lakshadweep

10.6. Assistant Professor

Arts, Humanities, Sciences, Social Sciences, Commerce,Education, Languages, Law, Journalism and Mass Communication

257

i. Good academic record with at least 55% of the marks orequivalent grade where grading system is practiced atthe Master’s degree level in the relevant subject froman Indian University, or an equivalent degree from anaccredited foreign university.

ii. Besides fulfilling the above qualifications, thecandidate should have cleared the National EligibilityTest (NET) conducted by the UGC, CSIR or similar testaccredited by the UGC.

iii. Holders of Ph.D. degrees as on the date ofnotification of these regulations, along with thosecandidates who are awarded a Ph.D. degree though aprocess of admission, registration, course work andexternal evaluation as have been/or may be laid down byUGC through its regulations, and so adopted by theuniversity shall be exempted from NET. NET shall alsonot be required for such Masters Programmes indisciplines for which NET is not conducted.

iv. A relaxation of 5% may be provided, at thegraduate and master’s level for the SC/ST category forthe purpose of eligibility and for assessing goodacademic record during direct recruitment of teachingpositions.

v. Pre-revised scale of pay of Rs.8000- 13500 shall beplaced in the Pay Band of Rs.15600-39100 with AGP ofRs.6000

10.7. Funding

UGC has no funds of its own. It receives both Plan

and Non-Plan grants from the Central Government to carry out

the responsibilities assigned to it by law. It allocates

and disburses full maintenance and development grants to all

Central Universities, Colleges affiliated to Delhi and

Banaras Hindu Universities and some of the institutions

accorded the status of ‘Deemed to be Universities’. Higher

Education receive support only from the Plan grant for

258

development schemes. Besides, it provides financial

assistance to Universities and colleges under various

schemes/programmes for promoting relevance, quality and

excellence as also promoting relevance, quality and

excellence as also promoting the role of social change by

the Universities.

Professional Councils are responsible for recognition

of courses, promotion of professional instutitions and

providing grants to undergraduate programmes and various

awards. The statutory professional councils are:

i. All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)ii. Distance Education Council (DEC)iii. Indian Council for Agricultural Research (ICAR)iv. Bar Council of India (BCI)v. National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)vi. Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI)vii. Medical Council of India (MCI)viii. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI)ix. Indian Nursing Council (INC)x. Dentist Council of India (DCI)xi. Central Council of Homeopathy (CCH)xii. Central Council of Indian Medicine (CCIM)

Central Government is responsible for major policy

relating to Higher Education in the country. It provides

grants to the UGC and establishes central universities in

the country. The Central Government is also responsible for

declaration of Education Institution as ‘Deemed to be

University’ on the recommendation of the UGC.

Presently there are 24 Central Universities in the

country. In pursuance of the Mizoram Accord, another

Central University in the State of Mizoram is planned.

There are 99 Institutions which have been declared as Deemed

259

to be Universities by the Govt. of India as per the UGC Act,

1956.

State Governments are responsible for establishment

of State Universities and colleges, and provide plan grants

for their development and non-plan grants for their

maintenance.

The coordination and cooperation between the Union

and the States is brought about in the field of education

through the Central Advisory Board of Education (CABE).

Special Constitutional responsibility of the Central

Government: Education is on the ‘Concurrent list’ on the

Entry 66 in the Union List of the Constitution. This gives

exclusive legislative power to the central Govt. for Co-

ordiation and determination of standards in Instutitions of

higher education or research and scientific and technical

instutitons.

10.8. Academic Qualification Framework – DegreeStructure

There are three principle levels of qualifications

within the higher education system in the country. These

are:

Bachelor / Under-graduate level Master’s/ Post-graduate level Doctoral / Pre-doctoral level

Diploma courses are also available at the under

graduate and post-graduate level. At the under – graduate

260

level, it varies between on to three years in length, post-

graduate diplomas are normally awarded after one year’s

study.

Bachelor’s degree in arts, commerece and sciences is

three years of education (after 12 years of School

Education). In some places, there are honours and special

courses available. Thesea are not necessarily longer in

duration but indicate greater depth of study. Bachelor

degree in professional fields of study in agriculture,

dentistry, engineering, pharmacy, technology and veterinary

medicine generally take four years, while for architecture

and medicine, it takes five and five and a half years,

respectively. There are other bachelor degrees in education

journalism and librarianship that are second degrees.

Bachelor’s degree in law can either be taken as an

integrated degree lasting five years or three – year course

as a second degree.

Master’s degree is normally of two years’ duration.

It could be a course work based without thesis or research.

Admission to post-graduate programmes in engineering and

medicine is granted on the basis of Graduate Aptitude Test

in Engineering and Combined Medical Test, respectively.

A pre-doctoral programme – Master of Philosophy

(M.Phil) is taken after completion of the Master’s Degree.

This can either be completely research-based or can include

course work as well Ph.D. is awarded in two years after the

M.Phil. or three years after the Master’s degree. Students

261

are expected to write a substantial thesis based on original

research. It generally takes longer.

10.9. New Initiatives

10.9.1. Vocationalization at the First Degree Level

In conformity with the National Policy on Education,

1986, a scheme to provide career orientation to education at

the first degree level was launched in 1994 – 95. Under the

scheme, a university/college could introduce one to three

vocational courses in 35 identified subjects.

National Eligibility Test (NET) is being conducted by

the UGC Since 1989 for eligibility for lecturership. Around

50,000 students appear for the test every year. Pass

percentage is around 5%. Eight State Level Tests have been

accredited at par with NET.

10.9.2. System of Governance of Higher EducationInstitutions

The Universities are of various kinds with a single

faculty, or multi-faculties; teaching or affiliating, or

teaching-cum-affiliating; single campus or multiple campus.

Most of the Universities are affiliating universities, which

prescribe to the affiliated colleges the course of study, to

hold examinations and award degrees, while under-graduate

and to some extent post the colleges affiliated to them

impart graduate instruction. Many of the universities along

with their affiliated colleges have grown rapidly to the

extent of becoming unmanageable. Therefore, as per National

Policy on Education, 1986, a scheme of autonomous colleges

262

was promoted. In the autonomous colleges, whereas the

degree continues to be awarded by the University, the name

of the college is also included. The colleges develop and

propose new courses of study to the university for approval.

They are also fully responsible for conduct of examination.

There are at present 138 autonomous colleges in the country.

10.10. Central Universities

i. President of India is the Visitor of all CentralUniversities.

ii. President/Visitor nominates some members to theExecutive Committee/Board of Management/Court/SelectionCommittees of the University as per the provisions madein the relevant University Act.

iii. Ministry provides secretariat service forappointment of Vice Chancellor/Executive CommitteeNominees/Court Nominees/ Selection Committee Nomineesetc. by the President.

There are 18 Central Universities under the purview of

the MHRD which have been set up by Acts of Parliament.

The details are as under:

i. University of Delhi, Delhi – 110 007ii. Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi.iii. Jamia Millia Islamia, Jamia Nagar, New Delhi.iv. Indira Gandhi National Open University, Maidan Garhi,

New Delhi,v. Banaras Hindu University, Varanasi – 221 005.vi. Aligarh Muslim University, Aligarh – 202 002.vii. Visva-Bharati, Santiniketan, West Bengal – 731 235viii. Hyderabad University, Hydrabad – 500 046.ix. Pondicherry University, Pondicherry – 605 014.x. North – Eastern Hill University, Shillong – 793 022.xi. Assam University, Silchar, Assam – 788 011.xii. Tezpur University, Napaam, Tezpur – 784 025. Dist.

Sonitpur, Assam.xiii. Nagaland University, Kohima – 797 001.

263

xiv. Babsaheb Bhimrao Ambedkar University, Vidya Vihar,Rae Bareli Road, Lucknow – 226 025.

xv. Maulana Azad National Urdu University, Gachibowli. Hyderabad- 500 032.

xvi. Mahatma Gandhi Antaraashtriya Hindi Vishwa Vidyalaya Wardha, Maharashtra.

xvii. Mizoram University, Aziwal.xviii. University of Allahabad Senate Hall, xix. Allahabad – 211 002.

10.10.1. Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi

Jawaharlal Nehru University came into existence in

1969 by an Act of Parliament. It is primarily concerned

with Post-graduate Education and Research. The university

has been identified by the University Grants Commission as

one of the University in the country with ‘Potential of

Excellence’. It has 9 schools consisting of 27 centres of

studies and 4 special centres. The strength of its teaching

and non-teaching staff are 420 and 1297, respectively. 4890

students were on rolls.

10.10.2. University of Delhi

University of Delhi was established in February, 1922

as a unitary and residential university. It has 14

faculties, 82 teaching departments and 78 college spread

over national Capital Territory of Delhi. A new State

University – Indraprashtha Vishwavidyalaya has come up in

Delhi as an affiliating University.

Jamia Millia Islamia functioned as a deemed

university since 1962. Acquired the status of a Central

University in December 1988 by an Act of Parliament.

Imparts education from Nursery Stage to Post-graduate and

264

Doctorate levels. It has 29 Departments, excluding the

various centres of Studies and Research, grouped under 7

Faculties offering a total of 121 courses at the

undergraduate and post-graduate levels, in addition to Ph.D.

Programmes. It has on its rolls a total of 14,000 students,

including 97 foreign students from 38 countries. The total

strength of the teaching staff is 612 (including 120 for

School Sector) and that of the non –teaching staff is 997.

Apart from providing training at Post-graduate level in Mass

Communication, A.J.Kidwai Mass Communication Research Centre

produces material on different educational aspects/subjects

for the UGC’s INSAT Programme.

The new initiatives taken in the areas of academics

include setting up of the various new Centres, including (i)

Centre for Jawaharlal Nehru Studies, (ii) Centre for West

Asian Studies, (iii) Centre for Dalit and Minorities Studies

(iv) Centre for Spanish and Latin American Studies and (v)

Centre for Comparative Religion.

Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU)

established in 1985 by an Act of Parliament for introduction

and promotion of Open University and distance education

system in the Country. Major objectives include indenting

of access to higher education. During 2005, the university

offered 101 programmes and the total number of students

registered for various programmes reached over 3,60,000.

Its students’ Supports Service consist of 48 Regional

Centres, six Sub-Regional Centres and 1200 Study Centres.

IGNOU programmes are telecast on National Channel (DD-1) in

the morning slot and Gyan Darshan, exclusive education

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channel. At present, the University has bouquet of six

digital channels of Gyan Darshan. Under the Gyan Vani FM

Radio initiative, the University has set up 17 Radio

Stations. Today IGNOU has set up its study centres.

The academic activities of the University are

presently carried out through its sixteen teaching

departments and one constituent college. The total number

of students enrolled in these departments and the

constituent college was 1,187 and the teaching and non-

teaching staff during the year 2004- 05 was 124 and 234

respectively. Besides, the University has 28 affiliated

colleges located in the State of Mizoram. The number of

students studying in these affiliated colleges is 5,579.

10.10.3. Maulana Azad National Urdu University,Hyderabad

The aim of Maulana Azad National Urdu University is

to promote and develop Urdu language and to impart

vocational and technical education in Urdu medium thorough

conventional and distance education system. The University

was established in 1997 by an Act of Parliament. Its

Administrative head quarters has been set up at Hyderabad

and has five Regional Centres and Delhi, Patna, Bangalore,

Bhopal and Dharbhanga. The University has so far

established 84 Study Centres spread over 14 States of the

Country.

10.10.4. National Assessment and Accreditation Council(NAAC)

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National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

is an autonomous institution established by the University

Grants Commission in 1994. NAAC’s responsibility is to

assess and accredit institutions of higher education that

volunteer for the process, based on prescribed certain

criteria. NAAC’s process of assessment and accreditation

involves the preparation of a self-study report by the

institution, its validation by the peers and final decision

by the Council. 122 universities and 2486

colleges/institutions have been accredited by NAAS so far.

For further details, you may see NAAC website: www.naac-

india.com.

10.11. Fake Universities/Institutions

According to the University Grants Commission Act

1956, the right of conferring or granting degrees shall be

exercised only by a University established or incorporated

by or under a Central Act, or a State Act, or an Institutin

deemed to be University or an Institution specially

empowered by an Act of the Parliament to confer or grant

degrees. Thus, any institution which has not been created

by an enactment of Parliament or a State Legislature or has

not been granted the status of a Deemed University, is not

entitled to award a degree.

The Act also provides that no institution, other than

a University, established or incorporated by or under a

Central Act, or a State Act shall be entitled to have the

word ‘University’ associated with its name in any manner

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whatsoever. Under the Act, the contraventions of its

provisions are punishable with fine. Apart form the fine

prescribed, any attempt to cheat the public by offering

unauthorized degrees by ineligible institutions would also

attract the appropriate provisions of the criminal laws.

To curb the functioning of the Fake

Universities/Institutions and to create awareness amongst

the public and the students alike, the UGC issues Press

Release at the beginning of each academic session, advising

aspiring students not to pursue higher education courses

with such institutions. It is emphasized that these fake

institutions have no legal entity to call themselves as

University/Vishwavidyalaya and to award ‘degrees’ which are

not treated as valid for academic/employment purposes.

10.12. Open University System

The advances in information and communication

technology provide great opportunities to enhance teaching

and learning in higher education by both on-campus and

distance education. Even disabled students, who are denied

access to traditional institutions, and all those who

require updating of their knowledge and life-long education,

can now be benefited by the modern facilities of

communication. They also provide increased access to

information sources and facilitate communication among

researchers and teachers and the building of networking of

institutions and scholars.

Through the open universities and distance learning

initiatives, mechanisms are in place to upgrade skills at

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regular intervals and develop new competencies. People’s

needs of life long learning are constantly expanding.

Higher education institutions are offering learning

opportunities to satisfy these diverse demands. Ready

access and flexibility are the hallmark of these

initiatives.

The Open University System was initiated in the

country to augment opportunities for higher education as an

instrument of democratizing education and also to make it a

lifelong process. The first Open University in the country

was established by the State Government of Andhra Pradesh in

1982. In 1985, the central government established the

Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU).

10.13. Indira Gandhi National Open University

The IGNOU designed, developed and delivered high

quality academic programmes in the Humanities, Sciences and

Social Sciences as well as in professional areas like

Computer Applications, Education, Engineering, Management,

Nursing and Tourism. The University has currently 101

programmes comprising 900 courses to offer. Most of the

University’s programmes are structured on modular pattern,

leading to the award of certificates, diplomas and degrees.

The enrolment I the university has been rising

rapidly. From less than 4,000 students in 1987, the

enrolment rose to over 1,60,000 in 1998. The University has

a vastly heterogeneous student body: demographically diverse

(age, gender, region, social background, etc.);

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educationally disadvantaged (most of them without the

traditional qualifications for entering into higher

education and who have had no other opportunities to make up

for the lost time); and economically weak (large majority

belonging to low and lower middle income groups). Most of

these students are in the lower rungs of their career

looking for opportunities to improve their qualifications,

professional competence and/ or in acquiring new skills.

The university has demonstrated that modern

communication technologies can be effectively harnessed in

providing access to educational opportunities and that high

technology need not necessarily be a high cost medium. The

University has, at its inception, set up Audio-Video

production facilities with the generous support provided by

the Governments of UK and Japan. These facilities were

substantially augmented with a major grant given by the

Government of Japan. The current Electronic Media

Production Centre is a state-of-the-art technological

facility that significantly enriches the university’s

learning packages. The media packages of the university are

transmitted on the nation-wide television network as well as

through selected radio stations. A dedicated, satellite-

based teleconferencing network is being developed on an

experimental basis in cooperation with the Indian Space

Research Organisation for providing interactive reaching-

learning support to distance education programmes offered by

open universities in India.

EDUSAT, the first-Indian satellite built exclusively

for serving the educational sector, is a collaborative

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project of Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD),

Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU), Department

of Space – Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). It is

mainly intended to meet the demand for an interactive

satellite-based distance education system for the country.

It strongly reflects India’s commitment to use space

technology for national development, especially for the

development of the population in remote and rural locations.

For the delivery of various services to its students,

the IGNOU has developed a nation-wide network of 48 Regional

Centres, 6 Sub-Regional Centres and over 1,271 study

Centres, all over India. The Study Centres and Work Centres

are located generally with existing educational or training

institutions who have made their facilities and services

available to the IGNOU students.

10.14. Distance Education Council (DEC)

The IGNOU is also a national level apex body for

distance education. Distance Education Council has been

established as a statutory authority under the IGNOU Act.

The DEC is responsible for promotion, coordination and

maintenance of standards of open and distance education

system in the country.

The apex body role envisages the establishment and

development of an Open University Network by sharing the

intellectual and physical resources within the distance

education system among different institutions and enriching

the system by extending its out-reach, on the one hand, and

ensuring the quality standards of its programmes of

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education and training, on the other. In discharging its

responsibility, the Distance Education Council also provides

development funding to Open Universities and distance

education institutions from the funds placed at its disposal

by the Central Government. The DEC has been supporting all

the State Open Universities (SOUs) since eighth plan and

Distance Education Institutions (DEIs) of conventional

Universities since the ninth plan.

Presently, there is one National Open University

(IGNOU), eleven (SOUs) and a number of DEIs in different

States.

10.15. Open University Network

The distance Education Council (DEC) has taken

several initiatives to develop the Open University Network.

The programmes developed and produced by IGNOU are

extensively used by the State Open Universities in the

Country. Efforts have also been made to evolve common

standards for the products as well as processes (programme

structure, credits, examination, grading, etc.) to

facilitate student mobility across programmes as well as

institutions through system of credit transfer. Steps have

also been initiated for credit transfer. Steps have also

been initiated to frame norms and standards for the design,

development and delivery of programmes in specific fields

and to ensure their quality.

10.16. Cost Effectiveness and Pertinence The Open University programmes have proved to be

highly cost-effective. The current indications are that

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their cost is much lower than the cost normally incurred by

the tradidional system on comparable programmes. The open

Universities arrive at lower cost through economies of scale

since a part of its fixed cost will get distributed over a

larger number of students.

The Open Universities in the country have generally

developed their programmes and courses with a view to ensure

that they are relevant to the economic and employment needs.

Most of their programmes are very different from those

offered by the traditional Universities. They are designed

and developed in several modules to assist the potential

students to choose such modules as they perceive, are

relevant to their needs. On their part, the Universities

have also sought to diversify their course provisions and

have developed high quality multi-media open learning

curriculum designed to meet the academic, technical and

vocational needs of diverse student groups. A notable

feature of these programmes, especially those in the

technical, vocational and professional areas is the close

linkages with the industry and other employer groups, not

only in designing and preparing the learning packages, but

also in the delivery of various services to the students at

the work place.

The Open University programmes offered by IGNOU have

received international attention and recognition.

10.17. Higher Education in India

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Higher Education in India has evolved in distinct and

divergent streams with each stream monitored by an apex

body, indirectly controlled by the Ministry of Human

Resource Development. The Universities are mostly funded by

the State Governments. However, there are 24 important

Universities called Central Universities, which are

maintained by the Union Government and because of relatively

large funding, they have an edge over the others.

The engineering education and business schools are

monitored and accredited by the All India Council for

Technical Education (AICTE) while medical education is

monitored and accredited by the Medical Council of India

(MCI). Like-wise, agriculture education and research is

monitored by the Indian Council for Agriculture Research.

Apart from these, National Council for Teacher Education

(NCTE) controls all the teacher training institutions in the

country.

The pre-university education has, of late, seen a

dynamic emergency of the Central Board for Secondary

Education with an increasing role in engineering and medical

admissions. Apart from these, the country has some ace

engineering, management and medical education institutions

which are directly funded by the Ministry of Human Resource

Development of the Union Government.

Model Questions1. The aim of social reform in reflecting in the change of __________

(a) Basic Values of a society(b) Norms in the group

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(c) Religious practices(d) Habits of the individuals

2. Which of the following state of India spending largest amount on primary education is ______

(a) Maharashra (b) Kerala (c) Gujarat (d) Tamil Nadu

3. Still the Higher Education is under the influence of ________(a) Mother Tongue (b) English (c) Hindi(d)

All the above

4. The responsibility of Primary Education in rural region is lying with _______

(a) Village Panchayat (b) Zila Samiti

(c) Cooperative societies (d) Only A andB

5. Which of the following agency grants aid to Higher Education?(a) U.G.C. (b) State Government (c) Municipal

Corporation(d) Central Government

6. The Formal Education is _______(a) Making a man civilized (b) Making a devil out of a man(c) Developing bad behaviour in a man (d) None of

the above.

7. If you observe a new or original activity in your student’s behaviour by which of the following \

alternative do you explain it?(a) Creativity (b) Motivation (c) Intelligence (d)

Specificity

8. IGNOU has _________(a) State status (b) Central Status (c) Federal Status (d) Deemed Status

9. The total number of Deemed Universities in India upto 2008 is ________

(a) 124 (b) 99 (c) 69 (d) 97

10. The number of Agricultural Education Institutes in India till today is _________

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(a) 37 (b) 42 (c) 39 (d) 40

11. The number of Open University in India is _______(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12

12. In India, total number of Women’s University is _______(a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2

13. The UGC has allotted the budget for Higher Education duringfirst annual expenditure of Tenth Five Year Plan is _____(a) 516.75 crores (b) 550.75 crores (c) 501.75

crores (d) 500.75 crores

14. The number of IIM’s in India at present ______ a) 7 b) 6 c) 8 d) 9

15. The total number of Ph.D.’s awarded upto 2001 throughout the

country was _________(a) 11,450 (b) 11,400 (c) 10,450 (d) 10,150

16. The U.G.C. have launched Career Orientation Programme in ________(a) 1994-95 (b) 1995-96 (c) 1986-87 (d) 1992

17. The main aim of vocationalization in Higher Education is ____________

(a) To control the enrollment of students in Post-graduation Courses

(b) To create repulsion towards Higher Education(c) To shift the students attention from the problem

of Unemployment (d) To guard the students from continuing higher

education without purpose.

18. The aim of U.G.C.’s standing Committee of Vocational Education is_______

(a) To identify such institution where vocational courses can be implemented

(b) To impart training to the teachers for vocational education

(c) To prepare study material for vocational courses(d) All of the above.

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19. The U.G.C. has submitted a proposal to the world Bank for seekinggrant in 2001 – 02 for the following plan ______

(a) To implement Vocational Courses in Higher Education

(b) To Co-ordinate the Vocational Courses in Intermediate classes.

(c) To implement Scheme of Vocationalization in Primary Education.

(d) To match the Vocationalization with the process ofglobalization.

20. The aim of Higher Education according to Radhakrishnan Commissionis ______

(a) To develop the great personalities who can give their contributions in politics, administration, profession, industry and commerce

(b) To preserve the democratic values and develop a harmony between individual and society.

(c) To pay respect to old beliefs and develop intellectual giants having faith in new beliefs and ideologies and their co-ordination with old ones.

(d) All the above.

21. The total number of Central Universities in India till date are ________

(a) 39 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 30

22. Which of the following is not related to Indian Education Commission’s (1964-66)

recommendations?(a) University’s Autonomy and Income – Expenditure (b) Role and Appointment of Vice – Chancellor (c) University Legislation (d) Role of Registrar

23. In 1969 the U.G.C. had appointed (a) Administration of Universities (b) Administration of Colleges(c) Administrative legislation for both of the above (d) None of

the above.

24. Who was the Chairman of the U.G.C. Committee 1969 appointed for administrative Legislation of the Universities?(a) Dr.P.B.Gajendragadkar (b) Dr.Laxman Swami Mudaliar(c) Dr.Sarvapalli Radha Krishnan (d) Dr.Zakir Hussain

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25. The important challenge before Open and Distance Education is _______

(a) Use of ICT on a large scale has strengthened the case for wider access to education.

(b) Globalization of education is a great challenge before these institutions

(c) Lack of Research is one of the great challenge before these institutions

(d) All of the above.

26. General support service in Distance Education includes ______(a) Academic and Non-academic services(b) Contractual services(c) Software and Hardware support(d) All of the above.

27. Which one of the following is not an advantage of Distance Education?

(a) No discrimination for getting education (b) If liquidates illiteracy(c) It does not give face-to-face contact in class-

room conditions (d) It is accessible in all remote regions of the

country

28. What is Internet?(a) A global connection of computers (b) A global network of telecommunication linkes to

access a whole resources of data (c) An international entertainment network (d) None of the above.

29. What is a Modem?(a) A device which hooks a computer to the phone-line

and in the usual way to hook up to the internet (b) A device called Modulator – demodulator and used

in computer(c) A computer language (d) None of the above.

30. E – Mail is _______(a) A feature of internet

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(b) A procedure of sending or receiving messages electronically

(c) A system of communication through electronic network between two persons having their E-mail ID’s

(d) All of the above.

31. The Distance Education is _______(a) A non traditional educational process(b) The extension of qualitative instructional process(c) The application of system analysis approach(d) All the above.

32. The first Open University in India was established by the State Government of _______

(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Haryana (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Punjab

33. In which year Indira Gandhi Open University was founded?(a) 1981 (b) 1985 (c) 1995 (d) 1975

34. In Distance Education, the students supportive activities are include as _______

(a) Contract service(b) Library and study centre service (c) Software and Hardware service(d) All of the above.

35. The main aim of Open University is _______(a) To impact vocational and technical education to

maximum persons(b) To impart education to the people residing at

remote places at their door steps(c) To bring in contract the people trough university

curriculum in order to enhance national development (d) All of the above.

36. The advantage of Distance Education is __________(a) To every person, on every place, without any

discrimination (b) An appropriate way of elimination of illiteracy(c) A safe education for women(d) All of the above.

37. The meaning of WWW is _______(a) World Wide Web (b) Would

Women’s Wrestling

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(c) World Without Watt (d) Working Women World

38. When internet services were launched in India?(a) January 2007 (b) January 1995 (c) January 2000 (d) January

2004

39. For what HTML is stand?(a) Hyper Text Mark-up Language (b) Highgrade

Transfer Marked Language(c) Hindustani Terminal Marked Language (d) None of the above.

40. U.R.L. is stand for ______(a) Universal Resource Locator(b) Unique Research Locator (c) Useful Research Location(d) United Resource Laboratory

41. The UGC has established the NAAC in the year_________.a) 1956 b) 1984 c) 1994 d) 2004

42. Delhi University is a ________(a) Central University (b) State University (c) Deemed

University (d) Cannot say

43. During 2004-05 which of the following university get a status of Central University?

(a) Allahabad University (b) Hyderabad University (c) Lucknow University

(d) Jauhar University

44. Unitary Teaching College is called ______(a) Residential University (b) Affiliating University (c)

Residential cum Affiliating University(d) None of the above.

45. ‘Complex of Colleges’ is called ________(a) Federal University (b) Unitary University (c)

Central University (d) State niversity

46. Which of the following is not related to Indian Education Commission’s (1964-66) recommendations?(a) University’s Autonomy and Income Expenditure (b) Role and Appointment of Vice-Chancellor

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(c) University Legislation(d) Role of Register

47. To which committee, the name of Rev. P.T.Chandi was associated?(a) The committee for College Administrative

Legislation (b) The Committee for University Administrative

Legislation(c) Affiliating University’s Standardization Committee(d) Federal University’s Standard Committee.

48. The suggestion given by Dr.Gajendragadkar was _________(b) To review the organization structures of

universities on regular basis(c) To bring timely change in the University’s

organization (d) To bring change in Administrative wings of

Universities (e) All the above.

49. ‘Value’ is having equivalent Sanskrit term _______(a) Isht (b) Est (c) Voluntary (Echchhik) (d)

Interest (Ruchiatmak)

50. Plato’s conception of value is _______(a) Value in intellectually acceptable terminology not

an Empirically acceptable term(b) Value and Sat have clear cut discrimination from

each other(c) Value is absolute and perpetual subject related to

Sat (d) All of the above.

51. A sector plan in education indicates(a) over-all planning (b) a limited

area of planning(c) planning for a region (d) planning for a particular

level of education

52. The ultimate purpose of comparative education is(a) Closely studying the patterns of education in other countries.(b) Finding similarities and differences between systems of education in different areas(c) Adapting feasible educational programmes by scientifically studying these other regions.

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(d) Studying the educational problems of a region in comparison with those of other regions.

53. Social reform aims at(a) Changing basic values of society (b) Changing the norms of the group(c) Changing the religious practices (d) Changing the habits of the individuals.

54. Lesser number of students in primary education in the rural area is more because

(a) girls in villages have their marriages at an early age;(b) boys within the range of age-group 6 to 9 are sent for agricultural works instead of being sent to school(c) pupils avoid going to school (d) a and b

55. Education and population are related as follows :(a) Expansion of education leads to developing trends of small size

family among educated males and females(b) Expansion of education can control growth-rate of population(c) Expansion of education makes population more qualitative, (d) all the above

56. The reason for social change is(a) political power system (b) nature of economy (c) education and laws (d) all of

these

57. In which of the following areas deaf children showrelative inferiority to normal children?

(a) Academic progress (b) Language development(c) Intellectual development (d) Emotional development

58. Individual differences in democracy are encouragedbecause

(a) of the guarantee of all kinds of freedom as a right provided bythe constitution

(b) in the long run individuals will act and think alike(c) they make diverse beneficial contributions to a common cause(d) political leaders want to achieve their selfish ends.

59. It has not been possible for medical science to discover the following

(a) eradication of infectious diseases like cholera, malaria etc.

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(b) prevention of small pox and polio(c) controlling the spread of tuberculosis with isoniazid (d) all the above

60. Which categories of the following women appear in greater proportion in profession of nursing ?

(a) Anglo-Indians (b) Christian (c) Hindu (d) Muslim (e) a and b

61. The responsibility of bringing new technology for encouraging growth of production through higher

education is of(a) educationists (b) experts (c) economists(d) technocrats

62. Which one of the following should have coordination with educational policy ?

(a) planning of human power (b) state policy (c) economic ideology of the state (d) social

forces

63. From the point of view of population control through family planning there should be

(a) more literacy of males than females (b) more literacy of women than men

(c) eradication of illiteracy of the old men (d) emphasis on expansion of education

64. The higher education is still dominated by(a) Mother-tongue (b) English (c) Hindi (d) all of these

65. The new education policy envisages major modifications in the system of education. It is implied

that (a) Present education system is not consistent with national objectives and needs(b) Present education system requires a great change(c) Present education system is outdated (d) a and b

66. The problem of juvenile delinquency is (a) mainly a problem related to low economic areas of society

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(b) primarily a housing problem (c) mainly a problem of foreigners in India (d) a problem with many roots

67. Modern Indian education at Elementary School Levelcan be described as

(a) Child-centered (b) Curriculum centered (c) Subject centered (d) all of these

68. The school-personnel has been entrusted with the following responsibility of

(a) bringing harmony between the needs of the child and the demandsof society;(b) adjusting the child to conform to the demands of the society;(c) changing human nature according to social expectations (d) all the above

69. The modern schools are oriented to the main goal of

(a) development of proper behaviour of students (b) development of ethical values(c) socially acceptable behaviour of students (d) development of creativity and individuality of students

70. Language is supposed to be(a) a nomenclature for cataloging experience (b) a medium of self-development(c) a medium for social communication (d) a system of symbols for problem solving effectively.

71. Industry and Commerce aim at (a) welfare of the public (b) national progress (c) satisfaction of consumers (d) wealth and profit

72. Which one of the following difficulties occur in the rural area for continuing secondary education of

girls?(a) Parents do not desire to give coeducation to their daughters

along with boys (b) Poverty of parents(c) Help of girls household work in agriculture (d) all the above

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73. Which one of the following is needed through educational system

(a) Employment opportunities (b) Students having capacity of self-employment(c) Increasing number of jobs (d) Future generation with enrichment in knowledge

74. "Equal educational Opportunity" means(a) Equality of type of education to all children (b) Equality of standards of education for every child(c) Equal opportunity of the type of education of which one has studied (d) Equality in education opportunity to all the children

75. The education of primitive man was concerned with(a) vocational element (b) religious element (c)

moral element (d) all of these

Keys

S.No. Key S.N

o. Key S.No. Key

1. a 26. d 51. d2. b 27. c 52. c3. b 28. b 53. a4. d 29. a 54. d5. c 30. d 55. d6. b 31. d 56. d7. c 32. a 57. b8. b 33. b 58. c9. a 34. d 59. a10. b 35. d 60. e11. a 36. d 61. c12. a 37. a 62. a13. a 38. a 63. b14. a 39. a 64. b15. a 40. a 65. d16. a 41. c 66. d17. a 42. a 67. a18. d 43. a 68. a19. a 44. a 69. a20. d 45. a 70. a21. a 46. d 71. a22. d 47. a 72. d23. c 48. d 73. b24. a 49. a 74. c25. d 50. d 75. d285