SBI JUNIOR ASSOCIATES (CLERK) EXAM-2020.pdf

CSB, Ph:044-24323346 |WWW.CSBINDIA.COM| SBI CLERK (PRE) EXAM“2020”/Page-1

WRITTEN EXAMINATION STRUCTURE

Sr. No.

Name of Tests (Objective)

No. of Questions

Maximum Marks

Allotted Time By SBI

1. English Language 30 30 20 minutes

2. Quantitative Aptitude 35 35 20 minutes

3. Reasoning Ability 35 35 20 minutes

Total 100 100 60 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS

(1) All the sections are available in English only, and the time suggested above for each test is not for guidance, you have to follow the above mentioned time.

(2) Do not use calculators, or any electronic medium for calculations. You may take a clean sheet of paper for rough work and all calculations must be performed manually by the candidate.

(3) There will be penalty for wrong answer marked by you in the objective tests. There are five alternatives in every question of a test.

(4) For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by you, 1/4 or 0.25 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by you, there will be no penalty for that question.

(5) There will be a cut off for each section and an overall cut off as well. Hence, your aim should be to answer maximum number of attempts in all three sections.


TEST-I ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Direction (Qs.1-7): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Giving loans to impoverished women to make ceramics or to farmers to buy milk cows were not seen as great business. Microfinance was an industry championed by antipoverty activists. Today it is on the verge of a revolution, with billions of dollars from big banks, private-equity, shops and pension funds pouring in, driving growth of 30% to 40% this year alone. In 1998, a non-profit microfinance organization in Peru, converted into a bank (called Mibanco). This demonstrated that the poor are good risks who repay loans on time and getting them together, not only chips away at poverty but also turns a profit. The success of Mibanco has piqued the interest of commercial banks, which had previously shunned the country’s poor. Now big banks are going after Mibanco’s clients with low-rate loans and realizing it takes special know-how to work with the unbanked-are hiring away Mibanco’s staff. But with the emergence of players who are only out for profit, microfinance schemes could end up milking the poor. This could happen in countries where lenders don’t have to disclose interest rates. When a Mexican micro financier went public, revealing its loans had rates of about 86% annually, the Consultative Group to Assist the Poor (CGAP) criticized it for putting shareholders ahead of clients. The pressure to turn a profit also forces micro financiers to change their business models in ways that depart from the industry’s core mission: to help poor people lead better lives. Such shifts have caused the average loan size to triple. Moreover smaller loans being costlier to service, a lower percentage of loans go to women because they tend to take out smaller sums. According to CGAP, with the flood of new large entities there is a risk that a large percentage of cross-border funds go to Latin America and Eastern Europe, the world’s most developed microfinance markets. “The poorest of the world’s poor, who are predominantly in Asia and Africa get left out”, says the CEO of the non-profit Grameen foundation, which helps developed microfinance institutions. Segmenting the industry, might be worthwhile if it allows more of the poor to get access to credit. Multinational corporations could take the top microfinance institutions to the next level, and the remained could be the responsibility of development groups and regional banks. Yet making loans to poor people is hardly a poverty cure. Property rights and the rule of law matter too. One cannot over idealize what microfinance alone can do. Most nonprofits started with lending simply because local laws prohibited non banks from offering deposit accounts. With an increase in competition and marketing efforts, poverty-alleviation experts are concerned that people will be talked into loans they would not otherwise want. For example, organisations like Mibanco are providing consumer loans. There is nothing wrong with buying televisions and microwaves on credit, but certain markets, like Mexico, have been flooded with loans that have nothing to do with providing capital to aspiring entrepreneurs-just increasing household debt. 1. What does transformation of Peru’s non-profit organization into a bank illustrate?

A. To compete with commercial banks, microfinance institutions should convert into banks and offer a wide variety of services B. Microfinance institutions turn higher profits as banks since interest rate on loans are at their discretion C. The poor prefer to go to large banks rather than NGOs to obtain loans (1) None (2) Both A and B (3) All A, B and C (4) Only A (5) Both A and C


2. Why did most microfinance institutions initially provide only credit services? (1) They were unable to compete with the interest rates offered on deposits by commercial banks (2) They have to operate purely on a nonprofit basis (3) Government restrictions prevented them from offering additional services (4) To ensure that poor have access to modern necessities like microwaves (5) To maximize their profit in the initial years

3. What was the impact of the non-disclosure of their interest rates by lending institutions?

(1) The Government issued sanctions against such firms (2) Shareholders’ interests were not protected (3) More microfinance institutions were motivated to go public (4) The poor were exploited (5) None of these

4. What is CGAP’s fear with respect to new entities providing microfinance?

(1) NGOs will be unable to survive in an environment of cut throat competition (2) The poor will hesitate to take advantage of credit facilities because of the formalities involved (3) The poor in the developed world will be overlooked (4) The interests of the most deserving among the poor will be neglected (5) Shareholders interests will be ignored

5. What is the author’s opinion about the competition for customers among micro-financiers?

(1) It benefits the poor by providing them with loans they would have otherwise not had access to (2) It is futile since the poor have to pay high rates of interest on property loans (3) It is not beneficial since firms waste their profits on marketing rather than helping the poor (4) It is a disadvantage since micro financiers use any means possible to recover loans (5) People will be talked into loans they would not otherwise want

6. Which of the following words is most opposite in meaning to the word EMERGENCE given in

bold in the passage? (1) disclosure (2) disappearance (3) advent (4) emanation (5) dawn

7. Which of the following words is most opposite in meaning to the word PREDOMINANTLY

given in bold in the passage? (1) chiefly (2) primarily (3) substantially (4) customarily (5) subsidiary

Direction (Qs.8-12): In the following questions, a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is given which is divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to arrange the four parts to make a contextually and grammatically meaningful sentence and choose your answer out of the given alternatives. 8. A. believed I shared with him

B. his stories suggested that C. problem I D. he was young and struggling E. with youth, which was a (1) ABCED (2) BCDAE (3) CBADE (4) BDECA (5) EBADC


9. A. the common folder B. all the documents and C. me that he will digitalise D. store them in E. the employer has assured (1) ACDBE (2) EBCDA (3) ECBDA (4) DABCE (5) CBEAD

10. A. concluded many people B. claim the credit C. when the event was D. for its astonishing success E. came forward to (1) CAEBD (2) ABDCE (3) EBACD (4) CABDE (5) CAEDB

11. A. contrast to the films of B. for aerial shots of C. Busby Berkeley, known D. his style was in sharp E. hundreds of dancers at a time (1) BCAED (2) EABDC (3) DACBE (4) BAEDC (5) Other than those given as options

12. A. equality before law and the right B. however money and all that money C. today political freedom assures people D. to elect their government E. can buy is not fairly distributed (1) CADBE (2) CDABE (3) DCBAE (4) BEDAC (5) ABDCE

Direction (Qs.13-18): In each of the following questions, read each of the following four sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. Choose the sentence with grammatical error as the correct answer. If all the given sentences are grammatically correct then choose “All are correct”. 13. (1) The predominance of white males in powerful school positions sends a signal to youngsters

about who is going to be successful in life (2) She rare ventured outside, except when she went to stock up on groceries at the cornershop (3) Now that we have a baby, we seldom get the chance to go to the cinema (4) I took her swimming to compensate for having missed out on the theatre (5) All are correct

14. (1) If official data is erroneous, their projections would also turn out to be incorrect

(2) In June, the stock market was at a record high and yet the investment rate did not rose (3) Freedom of speech and individual liberty are enshrined in Articles 19 and 21 of the constitution (4) While Nadal is the king of clay and quite adept on grass, the acrylic has often been his bane (5) All are correct


15. (1) Only certain specific projects or initiatives are undertaken in ‘mission mode’ (2) The Train 18 project required the planners to cut red tape and reduce needless procedural hassles (3) It is futile to expect the techno-bureaucracy of the Brazilian Railways to reform itself (4) RTI filings have increased exponentially and RTI-activism has become parts and parcels of civil society (5) All are correct

16. (1) Recently, the Bombay High Court rejected the plea of GautamNavlakha, an accused in the BhimaKoregaon case (2) The Ceylon Government proclaimed a nation-wide state of emergency last night (3) The Government have ordered the Army to take over key points at oil and power stations (4) Captioning on TV for the aurally-challenged is not new (5) All are correct

17. (1) Rafael Nadal’s relationship with hard courts can be described as tenuous at best

(2) The cost of SLS is negligible for new content when incorporated in the production process itself (3) Civil society has shown how SLS can be implemented cost-effectively (4) The two organisations, ISRO and the Indian Railways, are different as chalk and cheese (5) All are correct

18. (1) The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has witnessed many trials and tribulations (2) Chandrayaan-2 was initially conceived as a collaborative mission between India and Russia (3) The Chandrayaan-2 orbiter carries eight instruments on board to photograph the moon (4) The contribution of manufacturing to GDP in 2017 was only about 16% (5) All are correct

Direction (Qs.19-23): In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful. This year, the world’s largest democracy, India, and the biggest country by …(19)…, Russia, are celebrating the 70th anniversary of establishment of diplomatic relations between them. Russia continues to be among India’s major politico-diplomatic and defence partner nations. While India has …(20)… separate strategic partnership pacts with more than two dozen countries, the Indian and Russian governments in December 2010 …(21)… their bilateral ‘Strategic Partnership’ to what they termed a “Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership”. The New Delhi-based …(22)… ‘Foundation for National Security Research’, which did a comparative assessment of India’s strategic partnerships – meaning, ‘political-diplomatic, defence and economic cooperation’ (during the 10-year period prior to November 2011), had said, “Russia emerges as the most important strategic partner of India (followed by the U.S., France, the U.K., Germany and Japan in that order). “The November 2011 report had found that Russia had provided strong political and diplomatic support to India and helped enormously in building India’s defence capability. However, it warned that the “economic content of the (India-Russia) partnership is extremely weak”, and recommended that “urgent and …(23)… steps need to be taken to improve economic relations if this (India - Russia) partnership is to be sustained and made durable”. 19. (1) Population (2) Density (3) Area (4) Democracy (5) Economy 20. (1) Inked (2) Considered (3) Contemplated (4) Refuted (5) Revoked


21. (1) Called (2) Elevated (3) Refreshed (4) Nullified (5) Revived 22. (1) NIGO (2) Startup (3) Personnel (4) Think Tank (5) Avenue 23. (1) Various (2) Precarious (3) Vigorous (4) Minuscule (5) Exhilarating Direction (Qs.24-30): Each question has a blank, indicating that something has been omitted, choose the word for each blank that best fits in the context of the sentence. 24. No _____ than fifty girls took part in the dance competition for the University’s anniversary

celebration. (1) lesser (2) less (3) few (4) below (5) None of the above

25. Before long, we will be an old and realize that health is _____ to wealth. (1) Preferable (2) More preferable (3) the most preferable (4) much preferable (5) None of the above

26. I think that the _____ the sweetest of all flowers. (1) rose was (2) roses are (3) rose is (4) roses were (5) Roses have been

27. Reputation was the one thing that she _____ without merit and lost without fault. (1) left (2) given (3) got (4) taken (5) accepted

28. He is one of the best and _____ teachers that the school ever had. (1) great (2) the most hard-working (3) more hard-working (4) hard-working (5) None of the above

29. If you don’t pay the rent, you _____ thrown out, bag and baggage. (1) will (2) will be (3) are (4) are being (5) have

30. He didn’t look like the sort of man you should _____ your luggage to. (1) entrust (2) trust (3) entrusted (4) entrusting (5) trusted


TEST-II QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Direction (Qs.31-35): What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value) 31. 2 (11.925 × 6.05) + (5 × 85.87) = ?

(1) 569 (2) 468 (3) 574 (4) 497 (5) 523

32. ?92.32399.12005.8589.1019 =+×÷ (1) 120 (2) 160 (3) 180 (4) 210 (5) 150

33. ?01.933.322.22

11.1133.3396.18 =−⎟

⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛×⎟

⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛+

(1) 30 (2) 45 (3) 76 (4) 22 (5) 56

34. 59.89% of 4500 + 39.96% of 6500 – 79.87% of 5500 = ? (1) 900 (2) 700 (3) 800 (4) 750 (5) 1000

35. 9.09% of 1331 + 14.28% of 343 = ?

(1) 140 (2) 150 (3) 130 (4) 170 (5) 120

36. A man takes 4 hours to row a boat 16 km downstream of a river and 2 hours to cover a distance of 6 km upstream. What is the speed of the river current? (in km/hr) (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 2.8 (4) 1.3 (5) 0.5

37. Pipe A can fill 60% of an empty tank in 2 hours, while pipe B can fill 90% of the empty tank in 3

hours. What percentage of the tank will they together fill in 32 hour?

(1) 20% (2) 30% (3) 40% (4) 50% (5) 60%

Direction (Qs.38-42): In the following questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and Give answer (1): If x > y Give answer (2): If x ≥ y Give answer (3): If x < y Give answer (4): If x ≤ y Give answer (5): If x = y or the relationship between x and y cannot be established. 38. I. 63 )4(=x II. 3612 =y 39. I. 04885 2 =−− xx II. 032 2 =−+ yy 40. I. 0120432 2 =−+ xx II. 0100452 2 =+− yy 41. I. 069202 =−− xx II. 021102 =++ yy 42. I. 010293 2 =−− xx II. 07132 2 =−− yy


43. A container contained 90 litres of milk. Then 9 litres of milk was replaced by water. The process was repeated one more time. The volume of the milk in the container is _____. (1) 72 litres (2) 72.9 litres (3) 62.9 litres (4) 63 litres (5) 81 litres

44. M started a business by investing Rs.9000 and N joined him after 6 months with an investment of Rs.45000. The total profit at the end of the year was Rs.8400. What is the share of M in the total profit? (1) Rs.1820 (2) Rs.4551 (3) Rs.3115 (4) Rs.2000 (5) Rs.2400

Direction (Qs.45-50): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given questions? 45. (71 × 8) + 90 = 132 × 4 + ?

(1) 160 (2) 140 (3) 132 (4) 130 (5) 135

46. ?)25()6()5( 222 =−× (1) 175 (2) 275 (3) 265 (4) 185 (5) 280

47. (74 × 4 – 66) ÷ 5 = 89 + 37 - ? (1) 80 (2) 85 (3) 90 (4) 100 (5) 70

48. 22 )8(?)6(81144 +=−× (1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 12 (5) 16

49. 784?122 =− (1) 126 (2) 136 (3) 125 (4) 116 (5) 120

50. 25-(?)180 of 25% 120 of 15% =× (1) 840 (2) 810 (3) 835 (4) 785 (5) 825

51. When an article is sold for Rs.116 the profit is thrice as much as when it is sold for Rs.80. Find the cost price of the article. (1) Rs.60 (2) Rs.64 (3) Rs.62 (4) Rs.66 (5) Rs.65

52. The length and the width of a rectangle are 24 cm and 7 cm. If the diagonal of this rectangle is the side of a square, then find the area of the square. (In sq.cm.) (1) 576 (2) 676 (3) 625 (4) 961 (5) 976

53. A train running at a speed of 63 km/hr crosses a 88 metre long bridge in 12 seconds. In how much time will it cross a platform that is 64 metre longer than the train? (1) 16.8 seconds (2) 17.6 seconds (3) 18.2 seconds (4) 19.5 seconds (5) 20.4 seconds

54. The cost of Basmati rice is Rs.30 per kg and that of Ponni rice is Rs.20 per kg. Both varieties of rice are mixed in the ratio of 2 : 3. Then the price of 2 kg of the mixed variety of rice is _____. (1) Rs.24 (2) Rs.25 (3) Rs.48 (4) Rs.20 (5) Rs.30


0100200300400500600700800900

Num

ber o

f tou

rists

Foreigners 640 520 440 680 320

Indians 460 580 540 840 390

Goa Shimla Manali Agra Pondicherry

Direction (Qs.55-59): Study the following bar graph carefully and answer the given questions. The following bar graph gives the information about the number of foreigners and Indians who visited five different places – Goa, Shimla, Manali, Agra and Pondicherry – in India during the year 2017 55. The number of foreign tourists who visited Goa during the year 2017 is approximately what

percentage more than the number of foreign tourists who visited Pondicherry during the year 2017? (1) 50% (2) 200% (3) 125% (4) 150% (5) 100%

56. What is the difference between the number of foreigners who visited the given five places during the year 2017 and the number of Indians who visited the given five places during the year 2017? (1) 240 (2) 280 (3) 210 (4) 270 (5) 260

57. By what percentage the number of Indians who visited Shimla during the year 2017 is less than the number of Indians who visited Agra during the year 2017? (1) 31% (2) 34% (3) 39% (4) 27% (5) 24%

58. What percentage of total people who visited Goa during the year 2017 were Indians? (1) 43.33% (2) 44.67% (3) 41.82% (4) 38.21% (5) 48.88%

59. The number of foreigners who visited Agra during the year 2017 was approximately what percent of the sum of the total number of foreigners who visited the given five places during the year 2017? (1) 24.25% (2) 28.34% (3) 16.15% (4) 26.15% (5) 29.85%

60. The number 6336 is divided into four parts such that, one-eighth of first part, two-fifth of second part, three-eighth of third part, two-third of fourth part are equal to one another. What is the value of sum of highest and third highest part? (1) 4536 (2) 4608 (3) 2232 (4) 4566 (5) 3236


Direction (Qs.61-65): What should come in place of question mark (?) in the given number series? 61. 3 10 29 66 127 ?

(1) 206 (2) 218 (3) 248 (4) 169 (5) 270

62. 4 2 5 41 ? 10513 (1) 653 (2) 655 (3) 649 (4) 651 (5) 657

63. 55440 55440 27720 9240 ? 462 77 (1) 2140 (2) 2280 (3) 2310 (4) 2460 (5) 2520

64. 3 33 137 363 759 ? (1) 1346 (2) 1354 (3) 1373 (4) 1342 (5) 1331

65. 228 19 ? 20.9 188.1 23.5125 (1) 211 (2) 215 (3) 243 (4) 207.5 (5) 209


TEST-III REASONING ABILITY

Direction (Qs.66-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:

Four students A, B, C and D like different colours viz., Yellow, Orange, Black and Blue but not necessarily in the same order. All students have exam of different subjects: History, Maths, English and Science on different days viz., Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday but not necessarily in the same order. C likes Yellow colour. D’s exam is on Monday. The one who likes Blue color has an exam of History. B likes Orange colour. The one who likes Yellow colour has English exam. The one who likes Black colour has Science exam. A has exam on Wednesday and B has exam on Tuesday. D likes Black colour. 66. Who does have Science exam?

(1) B (2) C (3) None (4) A (5) D 67. Who among the following likes Blue colour?

(1) B (2) A (3) C (4) D (5) Data inadequate

68. On which of the following days does C have the exam? (1) Monday (2) Wednesday (3) Thursday (4) None of these (5) Tuesday

69. In which of the following subjects does B have an exam? (1) Maths (2) Science (3) English (4) History (5) Data inadequate

70. On which of the following days, the exam of History is conducted? (1) Monday (2) Tuesday (3) Wednesday (4) Friday (5) Thursday

Direction (Qs.71-73): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: The weights of six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are measured. All of them have different weights. D is lighter than only one person. E is heavier than B but lighter than F. A is heavier than F. B is not the lightest one. The person who is the third lightest has a weight of 73 kg and the person who is the heaviest is of 96 kg. 71. Who among the following is the heaviest one?

(1) A (2) F (3) E (4) C (5) D

72. Who among the following is the second lightest? (1) A (2) D (3) E (4) B (5) F

73. What could be the weight of D? (1) 97 kg (2) 85 kg (3) 73 kg (4) 62 kg (5) 70 kg


Direction (Qs.74-76): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below: 134 625 735 387 881 74. If 1 is added to the first digit of each number, and then the first and the third digits are

interchanged, which of the following will give the lowest number? (1) 881 (2) 134 (3) 735 (4) 387 (5) 625

75. Which of the following is the third highest number in the given arrangement? (1) 134 (2) 625 (3) 981 (4) 735 (5) None of these

76. If the digits of each number are reversed and then 3 is subtracted from each number, which of the following numbers will be the second highest number? (1) 981 (2) 625 (3) 387 (4) 134 (5) 735

Direction (Qs.77-80): In each question below are given two/three statements followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two/three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (1): If only conclusion I follows Give answer (2): If only conclusion II follows Give answer (3): If either conclusion I or II follows Give answer (4): If neither conclusion I nor II follows Give answer (5): If both the conclusions I and II follow 77. Statements: Only highways are roads Only a few highways are flyovers

Conclusions: I. Some roads are not highways II. All highways are not flyovers

78. Statements: Only a few stumps are grounds All bats are stumps

All balls are grounds

Conclusions: I. Some stumps are bats II. Some balls are bats 79. Statements: Only a few capacitors are diodes Only a few diodes are resistors All resistors are inductors

Conclusions: I. All capacitors are resistors II. Some inductors are diodes 80. Statements: All machines are transformers All transformers are motors Only a few machines are generators

Conclusions: I. Some generators are transformers II. Some motors are machines


Direction (Qs.81-85): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: Ten persons – L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T and U – are sitting around a circular table with equal number of people facing the centre and facing outside the centre but not necessarily in the same order. Note: Every person faces opposite to its neighbouring person. L and N are facing towards the centre. T is three places to the left of L who is third to the right of his mother S. Q is the neighbour of T’s sister. T’s sister M sits to the immediate right of L and there is only two people between her and O. T’s wife U sits second to the right of him. Only three people sit between T’s sister and wife. P sits two places to the left of O. 81. Who amongst the following faces outward direction?

(1) N (2) L (3) P (4) Q (5) R

82. Who among the following is T’s sister? (1) R (2) M (3) L (4) U (5) S

83. Who amongst the following face inward direction? (1) L, N, P (2) L, R, T (3) P, Q, R (4) Q, R, T (5) P, R, T

84. Between which of the following is T’s wife seated? (1) P and S (2) N and R (3) S and T (4) P and N (5) Can’t say

85. Which amongst the following statements is true with respect to the given information? (1) R is sitting between Q and L (2) P sits to the immediate right of T (3) L sits between Q and O (4) Q is facing outside the centre (5) R faces the centre

Direction (Qs.86-90): Study the following alphanumeric-symbol series carefully and answer the questions given below: U 9 P I % 1 8 R 4 $ M E 7 Q W 3 Z 5 T # A 2 J @ 6 * 86. Which of the following is seventh to the right of eighteenth element from the right end?

(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) # (4) (5) 4

87. If the last sixteen elements of the series are reversed, which of the following will be sixteenth element from the left end? (1) # (2) J (3) 2 (4) A (5) @

88. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given question? U*6 9@J P2A I#T ? (1) %5Z (2) %Z5 (3) 13 (4) 13 (5) %3

89. If all the symbols are dropped from the given arrangement, which of the following will be tenth element from the left end? (1) 7 (2) M (3) E (4) Q (5) 4

90. How many such symbols are there in the given arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4 (5) 5

91. In the following series, what is the missing term as per the English alphabet? MOQ, NPR, OQS, PRT, ? (1) QSU (2) SOQ (3) SQO (4) QSO (5) OQS


92. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word STAMHOPE each of which has as many letters between its two letters in the word as there are between them in the English alphabet? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

Direction (Qs.93-95): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, J and N are nine places in a city. Place A is 7 km north of E. B and D are 5 km away from each other. C is 4 km south of A and 2 km west of D. D is in east direction of B and 4 km south of F. N is 4 km south of D and 5 km east of G. J is 8 km north of G. 93. What is the distance between E and C?

(1) 1 km (2) 2 km (3) 3 km (4) 4 km (5) 5 km

94. F is _____ and _____ from A and J respectively. (1) 1 km, 2 km (2) 2 km, 3 km (3) 2 km, 4 km (4) 5 km, 3 km (5) 2 km, 5 km

95. If you are at F and want to go to E, and for that you have to choose path ‘F-A-J-B-C-E’ then how many kilometers will you have to travel? (1) 9 km (2) 11 km (3) 14 km (4) 15 km (5) 16 km

Direction (Qs.96-100): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: There are eight boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H containing different soaps, viz., Nirma, Hamam, Santoor, Liril, Lux, Cinthol, Dove and Wildstone but not necessarily in the same order. Boxes are placed one above other. Box D is kept immediately above Liril box. More than three boxes are kept between Lux and Dove boxes. There are two boxes between B and E which contains Nirma. There is only one box between E and G. Box containing Wildstone is placed at the bottom. There are three boxes between G and A which contains Hamam. Box H does not contain Santoor. There are two boxes between A and C, which contains Cinthol. The box containing Dove is kept immediately above G. More than three boxes are placed between the boxes containing Liril and Lux soaps. 96. Which box is kept at fourth position from the top?

(1) G (2) E (3) A (4) F (5) None of these

97. How many boxes are kept between box G and the box containing Santoor? (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 3 (5) None of these

98. Which box contains Wildstone soap? (1) G (2) H (3) D (4) B (5) None of these

99. Which box is kept at the top? (1) D (2) C (3) Box containing Dove (4) Both (2) and (3) (5) Both (1) and (3)

100. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to the group? (1) Liril (2) Hamam (3) Santoor (4) Wildstone (5) Nirma


ANSWERS 1. Ans (1): None

2. Ans (3): Government restrictions prevented them from offering additional services

3. Ans (5): None of these

4. Ans (4): The interests of the most deserving among the poor will be neglected

5. Ans (5): People will be talked into loans they would not otherwise want 6. Ans (2): disappearance

Emergence (Noun) = appearance; the fact of something becoming known or starting to exist; disclosure; advent; dawn. Disappearance (Noun) = the fact of something disappearing; extinction. Look at the sentences: The emergence of a new strain of COVID-19 virus is worrisome. The disappearance of the ship, on a routine mission in 1925, has never been explained.

7. Ans (5): subsidiary Predominantly (Adverb) = mostly; mainly; substantially. Subsidiary (Adjective) = subordinate. Look at the sentences: She is predominantly a dancer, but she also sings. All the major record companies had subsidiary labels under their control.

8. Ans (4): BDECA His stories suggested that he was young and struggling with youth, which was a problem I believed I shared with him.

9. Ans (3): ECBDA The employer has assured me that he will digitalise all the documents and store them in the common folder.

10. Ans (1): CAEBD When the event was concluded many people came forward to claim the credit for its astonishing success.

11. Ans (3): DACBE His style was in sharp contrast to the films of Busby Berkeley, known for aerial shots of hundreds of dancers at a time.

12. Ans (1): CADBE Introductory part ⇒ C Second Part ⇒ A (Answer to what ?)

13. Ans (2): She rare ventured outside, except when she went to stock up on groceries at the cornershop To midify a verb, an adverb is used, not an adjective. Hence, correct sentence will be : She rarely (Adverb) ventured outside …


14. Ans (2): In June, the stock market was at a record high and yet the investment rate did not rose Structure of past simple (Negative): Subject + did not + 1V Hence, … rate did not rise … will be used here.

15. Ans (4): RTI filings have increased exponentially and RTI-activism has become parts and parcels of civil society Part and parcel = an essential or fundamental part of something. Hence, … become part and parcel of civil society … will be used here.

16. Ans (3): The Government have ordered the Army to take over key points at oil and power stations The Government is a singular subject. Hence, singular verb i.e., The Government has ordered … will be used.

17. Ans (5): All are correct

18. Ans (5): All are correct

19. Ans (3): area Russia is the biggest country in area.

20. Ans (1): inked Ink (Verb) = to sign an agreement. Look at the sentence: The two sides are getting close to a deal but nothing has been inked yet. Contemplate (Verb) to consider one particular thing seriously; view. Refute (Verb) = disprove; prove wrong. Revoke (Verb) = to officially cancel something.

21. Ans (2): elevated Elevate (Verb) = to make something more important or to improve something. Nullify (Verb) = invalidate. Revive (Verb) = resuscitate; bring to life.

22. Ans (4): think Tank Think tank = a group of experts brought together to provide advice.

23. Ans (3): Vigorous Vigorous (Adjective) = very forceful or energetic: frolic. Precarious (Adjective) = not safe or certain; dangerous. Minuscule (Adjective) = extremely small. Exhilarating (Adjective) = thrilling; exciting.

24. Ans (2): less No less than = at least - used to suggest that a number or amount is surprisingly large.

25. Ans (1): preferable Preferable (Adjective) = better or more suitable.

26. Ans (3): rose is Singular subject and present tense will be used.


27. Ans (3): got Here, 2V i.e. got will be used.

28. Ans (2): the most hard-working

Here, best will be joined by a superlative adjective.

29. Ans (2): will be It is a conditional – I sentence. Hence, Future simple (Passive) should be used here.

30. Ans (1): entrust Entrust (Verb) = give responsibility for. Look at the structure: Subject + Should + 1V

31. Ans (3): 574 ? = 2 (12 × 6) + (5 × 86) = 144 + 430 = 574

32. Ans (5): 150

181185

1020324121851020? +×=+×÷=

⇒ ? = 12 × 11 + 18 ≈ 132 + 18 = 150

33. Ans (1): 30

30920199333

22223199333

22221111333319? =−+=−×+=−×+=

34. Ans (1): 900

900440026002700100

550080100

650040100

450060? =−+=×

−×

+×

=

35. Ans (4): 170

17016848120100

3431410013319? ≈=+=

×+

×=

36. Ans (5): 0.5

Rate downstream kmph 44

16==

Rate upstream kmph 326==

∴ Speed of current 21

= (Rate downstream – Rate upstream) kmph 0.53)(421

=−=

37. Ans (3): 40%

For Pipe A, ∴ 60% = 2 hours

hours 3

10hours 100)602100% =⎟

⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛ ×=∴

For Pipe B, ∴ 90% = 3 hours


hours 3

10hours 100)903100% =⎟

⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛ ×=∴

Part of tank filled by both pipes in 1 hour 53

1033

103

103

=+

=+=

∴ Part of tank filled in hour 32

40%10052partth

52

53

32

=×==×=

38. Ans (5): x = y or the relationship between x and y cannot be established

I. ( ) 16)4()4( 31

663 =⇒=⇒= xxx

II. 19,193612 −=⇒= yy

39. Ans (5): x = y or the relationship between x and y cannot be established

I. SR = 8, PR = -240 4.2,4512,

520

−=−

=⇒ x

II. SR = -1, PR = -6 5.1,123,

22

−=−

=⇒ y

40. Ans (4): x ≤ y

I. SR = -43, PR = -240 2.5 24,25,

248

−=−

=⇒ x

II. SR = 45, PR = 200 2.5 20,25,

240

==⇒ y

41. Ans (2): x ≥ y

I. SR = 20, PR = -69 ⇒ x = 23, -3 II. SR = -10, PR = 21 ⇒ y = -7, -3

42. Ans (5): x = y or the relationship between x and y cannot be established.

I. SR = 29, PR = -30 10,33.03

30,31

−=−

=⇒ x

II. SR = 13, PR = -14 7 0.5,214,

21

−=−

=⇒ y

43. Ans (2): 72.9 liters

Quantity of remaining milk ;1n

⎟⎟⎠

⎞⎜⎜⎝

⎛−=

yxy where x = quantity taken out; y = total initial quantity

litres 72.9109

10990

10990

101190

909190

222=××=⎟

⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛=⎟

⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛ −=⎟

⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛ −=

44. Ans (5): Rs.2400

Rate of shares of M and N = 9000 × 12 : 6 × 45000 = 2 : 5 Sum of the terms of ratio = 2 + 5 = 7

∴ M’s share Rs.2400840072Rs. =⎟

⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛ ×=


45. Ans (4): 130 568 + 90 = 528 + ? ⇒ 658 = 528 + ? ⇒ ? = 658 – 528 = 130

46. Ans (2): 275 2756259006253625)25()6()5(? 222 =−=−×=−×=

47. Ans (1): 80

?12646?1265

230 ? - 126 5 66)- (296 −=⇒−=⇒=÷

⇒ ? = 126 – 46 = 80

48. Ans (2): 8 12 × 9 – 36 = ? + 64 ⇒ 72 = ? + 64 ⇒ ? = 72 – 64 = 8

49. Ans (4): 116 11628144?28?144784?122 =−=⇒=−⇒=−

50. Ans (3): 835

25?451825?100

18025100

12015−=×⇒−=

××

×

⇒ ? = 810 + 25 = 835

51. Ans (3): Rs.62 C.P. of article = Rs.x (let). ⇒ 116 – x = 3(80 – x) ⇒ 116 – x = 240 – 3x ⇒ 3x – x = 240 – 116 ⇒ 2x = 124 ⇒ x = Rs.62

52. Ans (3): 625

Diagonal of rectangle 49576)7()24( 22 +=+=

cm 25625 == ∴ Area of square = 25 × 25 = 625 sq.cm.

53. Ans (2): 17.6 seconds Let the length of train be x metre.

m 12288210185631288

SDT =⇒−=⇒××=+⇒= xxx

seconds 17.6315

18308

18563

186122T =×

=×

+=

54. Ans (3): Rs.48

B P 30 20 x

kg 2460602332

3020

=⇒+=+⇒=−− xxx

xx

∴Cost of 2 kg of mixture = 24 × 2 = Rs.48


55. Ans (5): 100%

Required percent %100100320

320640=×⎟

⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛ −

=

56. Ans (3): 210

Total foreign tourists = 640 + 520 + 440 + 680 + 320 = 2600 Total Indian tourists = 460 + 580 + 540 + 840 + 390 = 2810 Required difference = 2810 – 2600 = 210

57. Ans (1): 31%

Required percent %3142

1300840

100260100840

580840==

×=×⎟

⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛ −

=

58. Ans (3): 41.82%

Required percent %82.4111460

1100100460100

640460460

==×

=×⎟⎠⎞

⎜⎝⎛

+=

59. Ans (4): 26.15%

Required percent %15.2613

3401002600680

==×=

101. The number 6336 is divided into four parts such that, one-eighth of first part, two-fifth of second

part, three-eighth of third part, two-third of fourth part are equal to one another. What is the value of sum of highest and third highest part? (1) 4536 (2) 4608 (3) 2232 (4) 4566 (5) 3236

60. Ans (1): 4536

61. Ans (2): 218

62. Ans (5): 657

63. Ans (3): 2310

64. Ans (3): 1373

55440 55440 27720 9240 2310 462 77

÷1 ÷2 ÷3 ÷4 ÷5 ÷6

3 10 29 66 127 218

213 + 223 + 233 + 243 + 253 + 263 +

213 + 633 + 1253 + 2073 + 3093 + 42113 +

3 33 137 363 759 1373

4 2 5 41 657 10513

141+× ×2+1 ×8+1 ×16+1 ×16+1


65. Ans (5): 209 For (Qs.66-70):

66. Ans (5): D

D does have Science Examination.

67. Ans (2): A A likes Blue colour.

68. Ans (3): Thursday C does have the examination on Thursday.

69. Ans (1): Maths B does have an Examination on Maths.

70. Ans (3): Wednesday The Examination of History is conducted on Wednesday.

For (Qs.71-73): Weight order: A (96 kg) > D > F > E (73 kg) > B > C 71. Ans (1): A

A is the heaviest.

72. Ans (4): B B is the second lightest.

73. Ans (2): 85 kg The weight of D would be more than 73 kg and less than 96 kg.

74. Ans (1): 881

Given series : 134 625 735 387 881 1 is added to the first digit : 234 725 835 487 981 After Interchange : 432 527 538 784 189 The lowest number is 189 i.e., 881.

75. Ans (2): 625 Third highest number = 625 881 > 735 > 625 > 387 ? 134

76. Ans (5): 735 Given series : 134 625 735 387 881 After rearrangement : 431 526 537 783 188 After subtracting : 428 523 534 780 185

Day Student Colour Subject Monday D Black Science Tuesday B Orange Maths

Wednesday A Blue History Thursday C Yellow English

228 19 209 20.9 188.1 23.5125

÷12 ×11 ÷10 ×9 ÷8


77. Ans (4): Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Conclusions: I. Some roads are not highways ( )

II. All highways are not flyovers ( ) 78. Ans (1): Only conclusion I follows

Conclusions: I. Some stumps are bats ( )

II. Some balls are bats ( )

79. Ans (2): Only conclusion II follows

Conclusions: I. All capacitors are resistors ( ) II. Some inductors are diodes ( )

80. Ans (5): Both the conclusions I and II follow

Conclusions: I. Some generators are transformers ( )

II. Some motors are machines ( ) For (Qs.81-85): M is sister of T. S is mother of L. U is wife of T. 81. Ans (5): R

R, T, U, S and M face outward direction.

Ball

Ground

Bats Stump

Road Flyover

Highway

Capacitor Diode Resistor

Inductor

Generator

Transformer

Motor Machine

L

O

Q

T

U

P

R

S

M

N


82. Ans (2): M M is sister of T.

83. Ans (1): L, N, P L, O, P, N and Q face inward direction.

84. Ans (4): P and N U is wife of T. U is sitting between P and N.

85. Ans (2): P sits to the immediate right of T P sits to the immediate right of T is true.

86. Ans (4): 7th to the right of 18th element from the right end means 11th from the right end i.e.,

87. Ans (3): 2 New series,

U 9 P I % 1 8 R 4 $ M * 6 @ J 2 A # T 5 Z 3 W Q 7 E Sixteenth element from the left end is 2.

88. Ans (1): %5Z

89. Ans (3): E

The new series would be: U 9 P I 1 8 R 4 M E 7 Q W 3 Z 5 T A 2 J 6 10th from the left end is E.

90. Ans (1): 2

Letter/Symbol/Number Such combinations are: I%1, J@6

91. Ans (1): QSU

92. Ans (5): More than three

U 9 P I %

* @ 2 # 5

6 J A T Z

+1 +1 +1 +1

-2 -2 -2 -2

-2 -2 -2 -2

S T A M H O P E

M N O P Q

O P Q R S

Q R S T U

+1 +1 +1 +1

+1 +1 +1 +1

+1 +1 +1 +1


For (Qs.93-95):

93. Ans (3): 3 km

The distance between E and C is 3 km.

94. Ans (5): 2 km, 5 km FA = 2 km FJ = 5 km

95. Ans (4): 15 km F – A – J – B – C – E = (2 + 3 + 4 + 3 + 3) km = 15 km

For (Qs.96-100):

S. No. Box Soap 1 D Dove 2 G Liril 3 C Cinthol 4 E Nirma 5 F Santoor 6 A Hamam 7 B Lux 8 H Wildstone

96. Ans (2): E

Box E is kept at fourth position from the top.

97. Ans (1): 2 Box F contains Santoor soap. Two boxes – C and E – are kept between G and F.

98. Ans (2): H Box H contains wildstone soap.

99. Ans (5): Both (1) and (3) Box D containing Dove soap is kept at the top.

100. Ans (3): Santoor Except the box containing Santoor soap, all others are at even numbered positions.

- - × - -

C

A

B D

E

F

G N

J 3 km 2 km

3 km 2 km

4 km

4 km

4 km

4 km

5 km

3 km

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