NEET - IIB

FINAL STAGE PREPARATION

This is to certify that, the entries of NEET-IIB 2019-20 Roll No. and Answer Sheet No. have been correctly written and

verified.

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

1. This questions booklet contains 180 Objective Type Questions (Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) in the subjects

of Physics (45), Chemistry (45) & Biology (90).

2. Tile questions paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the

examination.

3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.

4. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Questions Booklet and Answer Sheet and make

the correct entries on the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheet are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER

(OMR) SYSTEM, special care should be taken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be taken to fill

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION, SERIAL No. and NEET-IIB-2019-20 Roll . accurately. The candidate must sign on

the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.

5. Read each question carefully.

6. Determine the one correct answer from out of the four available options given for each question,

7. Fill the appropriate circle completely like this , for answering a particular question. Mark with Black ink ball

point pen only.

8. Each question with correct response shall be awarded Four (4) mark. There shall be negative marking. One (1)

mark will be deducted for each wrong response.

No mark shall be granted for marking two or more answers of same question, scratching or overwriting.

09. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.

10. Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answers once marked.

11. Rough work should be done only one the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should not

be done on the Answer Sheet.

12. The required mathematical tables (Log etc.) will be allowed in the examination hall.

13. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over. the Question Booklet and Answer sheet is to be

returned to the invigilator. Confirm that both the candidate and invigilator have signed on question booklet and

Answer Sheet.

14. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of examination.

Roll No. Question Booklet Sr. NoQuestion Booklet Version

4320(Write this number on

your Answer Sheet)P

Mark720

GroupPCB

Date : 26/08/2020Time : 3 Hours FINAL ROUND-09

0

NEET - 2020THINK NEET THINK IIB

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

01. Which of the following is not a disaccharide?

(1) Maltose

(2) Starch

(3) Sucrose

(4) Lactose

02. Mark out the correct statement

I. Hind III cuts a specific sequence of four basepairs in the DNA

II. In ECoRI, the letter ‘R’ is devided from thename of strain.

III. Origin of Replication is the site recognized

by Restriction enzyme only

IV. Recombinant DNA technology allow to select

a set of desirable genes for introduction into the

target organism.

(1) II & IV

(2) III & IV

(3) I, II & IV

(4) I, III & IV

03. What is the incorrect about ecosystem?

(1) Smallest functional unit of nature is ecosystem

(2) These may be anthropogenic in origin

(3) These may be permanent or temporary

(4) These involve flow of energy but not recycling

of nutrients

04. Which are not correctly matched ?

(A) Normal blood pressure = 80/120 mm Hg

(B) Stroke volume = 70 mL

(C) Cardiac output = 5000 mL

(D) Normal Breathing rate = 44 - 46 times / min.

(E) Normal Heart beat rate = 72 times / min

(F) Duration of a normal cardiac cycle = 0.8 sec

(1) A, B, D, F (2) B, C, E

(3) A, D (4) Only D

05. Sclerenchymatous hypodermis, starch sheath,

scattered vascular bundles, presence of water

containing cavity in vascular bundles, conjoint

vascular bundles, exarch xylem, intrafascicular

cambium. Out of these how many features are

found in maize stem?

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 2

(4) 6

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TOPIC :- XIth + XIIth Biology Whole Syllabus (PCB)

EMPOWERING NATION THROUGH EDUCATION ! THINK NEET THINK IIB

06. Which of the following is used to deliver desirablegene into animal cell ?

(1) Normal retrovirus

(2) Disarmed retrovirus

(3) Agrobacterium

(4) E.coli.

07. NAD is

(1) Nicotinamide adenine diphosphate

(2) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide

(3) Nicotinamide adenosine Diphosphate

(4) Nicotinamide adenine diphosphate

08. In some plants like soybean fixed nitrogen isexported into the transpiration stream as

(1) Arginine

(2) NH4

(3) Ureides

(4) Glutamine

09. Which of the following pair of functions arecaused due to root pressure ?

(1) Guttation and pushing up water to small heightin stem

(2) Guttation and transpiration

(3) Transpiration and ascent of sap

(4) Ascent of sap and translocation of organicfood

10. For an ecosystem to work, first primary need is–

(1) Constant input of solar energy

(2) Constant input of nutrients

(3) Decomposition

(4) Predation

11. Which of the following organisms breed only oncein life?

(1) Birds & reptiles

(2) Birds & Oysters

(3) Pacific Salmon fish & bamboo

(4) Pacific Salmon fish & pelagic fishes

12. Refer the given reaction.

2H2O4H+ +O

2 + 4 e-

Where does this reaction take place inchloroplasts of plants.?

(1) Outer surface of thylakoid membrane

(2) Inner surface of thylakoid membrane

(3) In stroma

(4) In lumen

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13. Identify the respiratory capacities marked as A,

B, C and D in the group shown below :

(1) A-VC, B-ERV, C-IC, D-EC

(2) A-ERV, B-VC, C-IC, D-EC

(3) A-ERV, B-IC, C-EC, D-VC

(4) A-IC, B-ERV, C-EC, D-IC

14. Choose incorrect statement

(1) Muscle fibers are covered with endomycium.

(2) Myofibrils are arranged parallely to each

other

(3) Sarcomer are arranged parallely to each other

in a myofibril

(4) Myofilaments are arranged parallely to each

other

15. N-linked glycosylation in proteins of eukaryotesis initiated in the :

(1) Lumen of endoplasmic reticulum (ER)

(2) Lumen of the golgi apparatus

(3) Inside the nucleus

(4) Within endosome.

16. Which of the following statements is NOT anecessary consequence of meiosis ?

(1) Chromosome number remains constantgeneration after generation

(2) Each daughter cell receive the same numberand kinds of chromosomes

(3) Each generation has different genetic makeup than the previous one

(4) Four dauther cells are produced at the endof the process

17. Correct sequence of meninges of brain from

inside to outside is :

(1) Duramater Arachnoid Piamater

(2) Piamater Duramater Arachnoid

(3) Piamater Arachnoid Duramater

(4) Duramater Piamater Arachnoid

18. Aedes is the vector of viral disease(s) :

(1) Dengue (2) Chikungunya

(3) Malaria (4) Both (1) and (2)

19. The most abundant type of antibody is.

(1) IgG

(2) IgM

(3) IgE

(4) IgA

20. The figure below shows an angiogram of the

coronary blood vessel. Which one of the following

statements correctly describs, what is being done

?

(1) It is coronary artery which has a cancerous

growth that is being removed

(2) It is coronary artery which is blocked by a

plaque and the same is being cracked

(3) It is coronary vein in which the defective valves

are being opened

(4) It is coronary vein blocked by a parasite (blood

fluke) that is being removed

21. Number of bones present in human Jaw are

(1) 2

(2) 4

(3) 3

(4) 1

22. Assertion (A) : Normally developing embryo not

implanted in fallopian tube

Reason (R) : Zono pellucida prevents the

exposure of cells of rauber to maternal tissue

(1) ‘A’ is correct but ‘R’ is not appropriate reason

(2) ‘A’ is incorrect, ‘R’ is correct

(3) ‘A’ is correct and ‘R’ is appropriate reason

(4) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are incorrect.

23. Which germ layer is established first duringgastrrulatin.

(1) Ectoderm

(2) Mesoderm

(3) Endoderm

(4) Epiderm.

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24. Match the Column-I with Column-II and selectthe correct option about them.

Column-I Column -II

A.Labrum i. Lower lip

B. Labium ii. Jaw

C. Mandible iii. Tongue

D. Hypopharynx iv. Upper lip

(1) A- i , B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv.

25. Penis is external genitalia. Which has threecylindrical erectile masses. The erect penis shows

(1) Two dorsal corpus spongiosum and oneventral corpora cavernosa

(2) Two dorsal corpora cavernosa and oneventral corpus spongiosum

(3) Two ventral corpora cavernosa and onedorsal corpus spongiosum

(4) One dorsal corpora cavernosa nd two ventralcorpus spongiosum.

26. Read the following sentences carefully and findout correct option.

A. Femidom is latex device

B. Femidom is cover vagina and cervix in female

C. Nirodh is popular brand of femidom.

D. Femidome prevents conception but can’tprotect from STD.

(1) A, B, C, D are incorrect

(2) A, B are correct

(3) C, D are incorrect

(4) B, C, D are incorrect.

27. Haversian canals are interconnected by meansof

(1) Canaliculi

(2) Volkman’s canal

(3) Trabeculae

(4) Epiphyseal plate.

28. Select incorrect statement

(1) Tetradynamous stamens are found in radish

(2) In members of family Cucurbitaceae stemtendrils are found

(3) A flower can be regarded as perfect whenboth essential floral whorls are present

(4) Bicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium is foundin Liliaceae

29. As we move from one geographical region tonext neighboring region, species diversity tendsto change. It is termed as

(1) -Diversity

(2) γ -Diversity

(3) -Diversity

(4) -Diversity

30. What is the inheritance of colour blindness if bothparents having a normal vision but mother has arecessive gene for colour blindness :-

Son Daughter

1 50% Nil

2 100% Nil

3 Nil 100%

4 Nil Nil

31. Baldness in man is a :-

(1) Autosomal character

(2) Sex linked character

(3) Sex influenced character

(4) 1 and 3 both

32. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) In a polypeptide chain the last amino acid iscalled the C-terminal amino acid

(2) The backbone of B-DNA is formed by thesugar–Phosphate–sugar chain

(3) According to double helix model, the nitrogenbases are projected more or less perpendicularto backbone but face outside

(4) Living state is a non equilibrium steady stateto be able to perform work.

33. Assertion : Holandric traits are passed from onegeneration to the next generation.

Reason : These traits appear more frequently inone sex than in other.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and thereason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true and thereason is not the correct explanation of theassertion.

(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason isfalse

(4) If both Assertion & Reason are falsestatement.

34. Number of Bar Body in XXXX female :-

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

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35. A technique used to make numerous copies of aspecific segment of DNA quickly and accurately

(1) Ligase chain reaction

(2) Transcription

(3) Polymerase chain reaction

(4) Translation

36. Assertion : Non-allosomic genic determinationof sex is found in bacteria

Reason : Sex is dependent on some environmentalfactors in prokaryotes.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and thereason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true and thereason is not the correct explanation of theassertion.

(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason isfalse

(4) If both Assertion & Reason are falsestatement.

37. Identify the correct match from Column I, II andIII.

Column -I Column-II Column-III

A. Copper

Releasing

IUD

a. Prevent

ovulationi. LNG-20

B. Hormone

Releasing IUDb. Destroy sperms ii. Today

C. Daily oral pill c. Prevent implanation iii. Mala-D

D. Vaginal tubletsd. Supress sperm

motilityiv. Multiload-375

(1) A-d-iv, B-a-i, C-c-iii, D-b-ii

(2) A-b-iv, B-c-ii, C-a-i, D-d-iii

(3) A-d-iv, B-c-i, C-a-iii, D-b-ii

(4) A-d-i, B-a-ii, C-c-iv, D-b-iii

38. The fluid which is rich in calcium, phosphate,profibrinolysin and contributes about 30% of thetotal volume of semen is released by

(1) Seminal vesicle

(2) Prostate gland

(3) Cowper’s gland

(4) Bartholin gland

39. Among the following which is not the correct ex-planation for high biodiversity in tropical rain for-ests ?

(1) Long evolutionary time

(2) Minimum competition

(3) High productivity

(4) More surface area

40. Which one of the following equations suggests

that O2 released during photosynthesis comes

from water?

(1) 6 CO2

18 + 12H2O 6O

218+ C

6H

12 O

6 +

6H2O18

(2) 6CO2 + 12 H

2O186O

2 + C

6H

12O

6 +

6H2O18

(3) 6CO218+12H

2O6O

218 + C

6H

12O

6+ 6H

2O

(4) 6CO2+ 12H

2O18 6O

218 +

C6H

12O

6+6H

2O

41. Assertion: The number of male gametes

produced is several thousand times than the

number of female gametes produced.

Reason: This compensates the loss of male

gametes during movement

(1) Both assertion & reason are true and the

reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason

is not the correct explanation of the assertion

(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.

(4) Both assertion and reason are false

42. Which of the following represents the correct

sequence of phases in the life cycle of wheat?

[Where J – Juvenile phase, R - Reproductive

phase, I - Interflowering period, S- Senescence,

V -Vegetative phase]

(1) V I R S

(2) J R I S

(3) J R S

(4) V R S J

43. If one litre of water introduced in human body

then

(1) Blood volume increases and urine produc-

tion decreases

(2) Blood pressure increases & less urine pro-

duced

(3) RBC collapses & urine production increases

(4) No change in blood volume & blood pres-

sure.

44. Primary target organ of hypothalamic releaseing

hormone

(1) Liver

(2) Kidney

(3) Anterior pituitary

(4) Thyroid

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45. Find the correct statement w.r.t pollen grain ‘the

male gametophyte in angiosperms’.

(1) Cell wall of pollen grain is called sporoderm,

which consist of three layers

(2) They have prominent aperture called germ

pore where sporopollenin is present

(3) Generative cell in two celled pollen grain is

spindle shaped small cell and floats in cytoplasm

of vegetative cell

(4) Shedding of pollen grain takes place at three

celled stage in 60 percent angiosperms

46. Sexual spores are called ascospores which are

produced endogenously in sac like asci. These

spores are present in all except

(1) Aspergillus

(2) Claviceps

(3) Neurospora

(4) Agaricus

47. Which of these enzyme reactions is not

irreversible in glycolysis?

(1) Hexokinase

(2) Glucokinase

(3) 3-Phosphoglycerate mutase

(4) Phosphofructokinase

48. Generally, proteins & carbohydrates components

are found in cow milk

(1) Albumin, lactose

(2) Globulin, casein

(3) Casein, lactose

(4) Casein, fructose

49. Which out of the following statements is not true

about aerobic glycolysis?

(1) The rate limiting enzyme is PFK-1 which

converts fructose-6-P to fructose-1,6-

biphosphate

(2) The pathway is inhibited allosterically by

Glucose-6-P and ATP

(3) The pathway takes place in mitochondria of

every cell

(4) The pathway produces pyruvate & NADH2


(1) Crassulacean acid metabolism occurs in all

plants which grow in xeric conditions

(2) PEPA is regenerated in mesophyll cell

(3) In C4 plants, Calvin cycle enzymes are

present in bundle sheath cells.

(4) Phycobillins are soluble in water

51. Which of the following are the functions of

sympathetic nervous system ?

(a) Stimulates secretion of saliva

(b) Cause dilation of trachea and bronchi

(c) Stimulates micturition

(d) Stimulates secretion of sweat

(e) Leads to Ejaculation

(f) Inhibits adrenal secretion

(g) Inhibits peristalsis

Choose the options :

(1) a, b, c, d, e, f

(2) b, d, e, g

(3) a, b, e, f, g

(4) c, d, e, f

52. ___increases bulk of feces, making of easier to

defecate

(1) Protein

(2) Roughage

(3) Starch

(4) Fats

53. Read the following statements

(I) Photorespiration interferes with the successful

functioning of calvin cycle

(II) Photorespiration oxidises ribulose-1,5 bis-

phosphate which is an acceptor of CO2 in calvin

cycle

(III) Large sized bundle sheath cells are arranged

in a wreath -like manner in one to several layers.

(IV) Succulent xerophyte like Asparagus shows

CAM for CO2 fixation

(1) All statements are correct

(2) Statement I, II, And III are correct

(3) Statement I, II, and IV are correct

(4) All statement except III are correct

54. Best source of casein is

(1) Milk

(2) Cereals

(3) Pulses

(4) Meat

55. Blood vessels with maximum urea & minimum

urea

(1) Hepatoportal vein & renal artery

(2) Hepatic vein & renal artery

(3) Renal artery & hepatoportal vein

(4) Hepatic vein & renal vein.

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56. During repolarization of nerve fibre :

(1) K+- gates closed and Na+- gates opened

(2) Na+- channels closed and K+- channels

opened

(3) Both Na+ and K+- gates opened

(4) Both Na+ and K+- gates closed

57. Which of the following sequence correctlydescribe the cell cycle ?

(1) G1 phase : G

2 phase : Mitosis : Cytokinesis

(2) Mitosis : G1 phase : G

2 phase : Cytokinesis

(3) Cytokinesis : Mitosis : G1 phase : G

2 phase

(4) S phase : G2 phase : Mitosis : Cytokinesis :

G1 phase

58. Arrangement of golgi apparatus in a cell is ?

(1) Convex cis/forming face is towards cell

membrane

(2) Concave cis/forming face is towards call

membrane

(3) Convex cis/forming face is towards nucleus,

while concave trans or maturing face is towards

plasma membrane

(4) Convex is / forming face is towards plasma

membrane while concave trans or maturing face

is towards nucleus.

59. Acid phosphatases is marker enzyme of :

(1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Lysosome

(3) Lumen of golgi body

(4) Matrix of mitochondria

60. Match the following

a Saccharomyces cerevisiae i Statins

b Manascus purpureus ii Commercial

production of ethanol

c Acetobacter aceti iii Butyric acid

d Clostridium butylicum iv Acetic acid

Column I Column II

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

61. Breeding between unrelated animals having no

common ancestor’s for 4-6 generation.

(1) Inbreeding

(2) Out-crossing breeding

(3) Inter-specific hybridization

(4) Out-breeding.

62. Honey bees species reared most widely in Indiais

(1) Apis indica

(2) Apis florea

(3) Apis dorsata

(4) Apis mellifera

63. Identify (a), (b), (c) and (d) in the given diagram?

Options:-

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1 RNA DNA Protein Transcription

2 DNA RNA Protein Reverse

Transcription

3 RNA DNA RNA Reverse

Transcription

4 RNA Protein DNA Transcription

64. Cyclosporin -A, used as immunosupressive agent

in organ transplant patient is obtained from

(1) Fungus - monasscus purpureus

(2) Fungus- Trichoderma polysporum

(3) Bacteria- Streptocuss sp

(4) Bacteria - Clostridium butyricum.

65. Loss of biodiversity may lead to all except :

(1) Decline in plant production

(2) Increased resistance to environmental

perturbance

(3) Increased variability in water use

(4) Increased variability in pest and disease cycle.

66. The most effective means of conservation of

biodiversity is :

(1) Remove predators

(2) Preserve habitats

(3) Vaccinate against disease

(4) Census the species during breeding season

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67. Which one of the following is a wrong statement?

(1) Greenhouse effect is a natural phenomenon

(2) Eutrophication is a natural phenomenon infreshwater bodies

(3) Most of the forests have been lost in tropicalareas

(4) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is harm-ful to animals.


(1) Monadelphous stamens are found inMalvaceae

(2) Synandrous stamens are found in gourds.

(3) Axile placentation is found in Solanaceae andLiliaceae

(4) Epipetalous and synandrous stamens arefound in Asteraceae.

69. Following all given characters of Sphagnum arecorrect except

(1) Haploid generation produces gametes

(2) Rhizoids are developed to diploid phase

(3) Haploid phase is dominant

(4) Spore of sporophyte produces dominant gen-eration.

70. Which one of the following statements is wrongin case of Bhopal tragedy?

(1) It took place in the night of December 2/3/1984

(2) Methyl Isocyanate gas leakage took place

(3) Thousands of human beings died

(4) Radioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal

71. Select the evolutionary phenomenon that can notbe applied to Darwin’s finches .

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Divergent evolution

(3) Natural selection

(4) Adaptive radiation.

72. If a large population is not satisfying the criteriafor Hardy-Weinberg’s equillibrium, then it islikely that the population is undergoing /showing

(1) Random mating

(2) Absence of mutation

(3) Speciation

(4) No genetic drift

73. Androphore structure is formed by

(1) Internode (2) Node

(3) Sepals (4) Petals

74. Assertion : An ovule generally has a single em-bryo sac in angiosperms

Reason : The process of formation of embryosac is called megasporogenesis

(1) Both assertion & reason are true and the rea-

son is the correct explanation of the assertion

(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason

is not the correct explanation of the assertion

(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.

(4) Both assertion and reason are false

75. What is antisense technology?

(1) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used forsynthesis of anti bodies.

(2) Production of somaclonal variants in tissueculture

(3) A complimentary RNA used to stopexpression of a specific gene

(4) RNA polymerase producing DNA.

76. Correct expression of DPD for plasmolysed cellis :-

(1) DPD = OP + TP

(2) DPD = OP

(3) DPD = TP

(4) DPD = OP – TP

77. The structure which is not associated withstomatal apparatus: -

(1) Guard cell

(2) Complementary cells

(3) Subsidiary cell

(4) Stomatal aperture

78. Select the pair which contains monocotyledonousfamily

(1) Solanaceae and Brassicaceae

(2) Fabaceae and Ateraceae

(3) Liliaceae and Asteraceae

(4) Liliceae and Orchidaceae

79. If the gynoecium is present in the top mostposition of the thalamus the flower is referred toas-

(1) Hypogynous (2) Perigynous

(3) Epigynous (4) Actino morphic

80. Phosphate pollution in a waterbody is broughtabout by

(1) Phosphate rock weathering

(2) Fertilizers

(3) Phosphate rocks and sewage

(4) Fertilizers and sewage.

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81. Read the following statements.

(1) High H+ concentration and higher temperature

are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from

oxyhaemoglobin.

(2) Partial pressure of oxygen in Alveoli is higher

than in tissue.

(3) The maximum volume of air a person can

breathe in after a forced expiration is vital

capacity.

(4) In alveoli pCO2 low and pO2 high are for

dissociation of CO2 from carbaminohaemoglobin.

How many statements are correct ?

(1) One

(2) Two

(3) Three

(4) Four

82. In exarch vascular bundles-

(1) Protoxylem lies towards the center andmetaxylem lies towards the periphery

(2) Protoxylem lies towards the periphery andmetaxylem lies towards the center

(3) Protoxylem and metaxylem both lies towardsthe center.

(4) Protoxylem surrounded by metaxylem

83. Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) Cytokinin promote senescence.

(ii) Auxins control apical dominance.

(iii) Gibberellins promote shoot elongation.

(iv) Abscisic acid enables seeds to withstanddesiccation.

(1) (i) and (ii) only

(2) (ii) and (iii) only

(3) (i) and (iii) only

(4) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only

84. Match the columns and pick out the correctanswer

(i) Atlas /axis (a) Saddle joint

(ii) 1st

carpal/metacarpal of joint (b) Hinge joint

(iii) Between phalanges (c) Fibrous joint

(iv) Femur/acetabulum (d) Ball and socket joint

(v) Between cranial bones (e) Pivot joint

Column -A Column -B

(1) (i)-e, (ii)-a, (iii)-b, (iv)-c, (v)-d

(2) (i)-e, (ii)-a, (iii)-b, (iv)-d, (v)-c

(3) (i)-e, (ii)-a, (iii)-d, (iv)-b, (v)-c

(4) (i)-e, (ii)-a, (iii)-d, (iv)-c, (v)-b

85. Fruit drop is prevented by sprayingof……………

(1) Florigen

(2) Ethylene

(3) Gibbrellins

(4) Cytokinins

86. Which of the following statement is correctregarding ethylene?

(1) It delays senescence.

(2) It decreases the respiration rate during fruitripening.

(3) It breaks seed and bud dormancy.

(4) It inhibits flowering in mango.

87. H-shaped excretory organ found in

(1) Flat worms

(2) Round worms

(3) Sponges

(4) Mollusca

88. Which of the following protozoans has silicashells in their marine forms ?

(1) Sporozoans

(2) Amoeboid protozoans

(3) Ciliated protozoans

(4) Flagellated protozoans

89. Hormone responsible for contraction of smoothmuscles

(1) ANF

(2) Oxytocin

(3) Epinephrine

(4) Aldosterone.

90. Acetabulum found in

(1) Fasciola

(2) Sea anemone

(3) Ascaris

(4) Chalina.

CHEMISTRY

Question 91 The pair of electron in the given carbanion 3CH C C

is present in which of the

following orbitals

(1) 2p

(2) sp3

(3) sp2

(4) sp

Question 92 Which of the following can not exhibit enatiomerism

(1) Diphenyl methanol

(2) 1-bromo-2-chlorobutane

(3) 2-butanol

(4) Tartaric acid

Question 93 Each successive condensation and vaporization unit in the fractionating columns is called….

(1) Theoretical plate

(2) Practical plate

(3) Vaporization plate

(4) Absorbing plate

Question 94 Oxidation of ethane in presence of manganese acetate gives …

(1) Formaldehyde

(2) Acetaldehyde

(3) Acetic acid

(4) CO2 and H2O

Question 95 The magnitude of torsional strain depends upon the angle rotation about carbon carbon single bond this angle is also called as …..

(1) Dihedral angle

(2) Rotation angle

(3) Torsional angle

(4) Both 1 and 3

Question 96 The correct order of increasing acidic strength of the following compounds :

H H H

(I) (II) (III)

(1) I > II > III

(2) II > II > I

(3) I > III > II

(4) III > II > I

Question 97 Which is most suitable reagent among the following to distinguish compound (3) from rest of the compounds.

3 3CH C C CH 3 2 3CH CH CH 3 2CH CH C CH 3 2CH CH CH

1 2 3 4

(1) Bromine in carbon tetrachloride

(2) Br2/CH3COOH

(3) Alk. KMnO4

(4) Ammonical silver nitrate

Question 98 The bond length of C – C bond in benzene is ….

(1) 154 pm

(2) 139 pm

(3) 133 pm

(4) 120 pm

Question 99 Which of the following is organic toxins (pesticide)

(1) Ephedrine

(2) Nicotine

(3) Codeine

(4) Aldrin

Question 100 Identify Z in the following reaction 2 3 2 2/.

3 2 2

Al O Cl H Oaq NaOHCH CH CH Br X Y Z

(1)

Mixture of

H3C CH CH2 Cl

Cl and H3C CH CH2 Cl

OH

(2) H3C CH CH2 Cl

OH

(3) H3C CH CH2 Cl

Cl

(4) H3C CH CH2

Cl Cl

Question 101 Which of the following alcohols gives the best yield of dialkyl ether on heating with trace of H2SO4

(1) 2-pentanol

(2) Cyelopentanol

(3) 2-methyl-2-butanol

(4) 1-pentanol

Question 102 Which of the following product is formed when cyclohexanone under go aldol condensation

Type Multiple_choice

(1) O

(2)

OH O

(3) O

(4)

O O

Question 103 For osazone formation the effective structural unit necessary is …

(1) H2C OCH3

C O

(2) H2C OH

CO

(3) H2C OH

CH OCH3

(4) CHO

CHOCH3

Question 104 Which of the following is bacteriostatic

(1) Penicillin

(2) Aminoglycosides

(3) Ofloxacin

(4) Tetracycine

Question 105 Which of the following major class of ester is biodegradable

(1) Aliphatic polyester

(2) Aromatic polyester

(3) Heteropolyester

(4) All are correct

Question 106 The electronic configuration of gadolinium (atomic number 64) is :

(1) 3 5 2[ ]4 5 6Xe f d s

(2) 7 2 1[ ]4 5 6Xe f d s

(3) 7 1 2[ ]4 5 6Xe f d s

(4) 8 6 2[ ]4 5 6Xe f d s

Question 107 In 34PO ion, the formal charge on the oxygen atom of P – O bond is

(1) + 1

(2) – 1

(3) – 0.75

(4) + 0.75

Question 108 Which of the following order of energies of molecular orbitals of N2 is correct?

(1) ( 2 ) ( 2 ) ( *2 ) ( *2 )y z x yp p p p

(2) ( 2 ) ( 2 ) ( *2 ) ( *2 )y z x yp p p p

(3) ( 2 ) ( 2 ) ( *2 ) ( *2 )y z x yp p p p

(4) ( 2 ) ( 2 ) ( *2 ) ( *2 )y z x yp p p p

Question 109 Which of the following compounds is used for water softening?

(1) Ca3(PO4)2

(2) Na3PO4

(3) Na6P6O18

(4) Na2HPO4

Question 110 Which of the carbonates given below is unstable in air and is kept in CO2 atmosphere to avoid decomposition.

(1) BeCO3

(2) MgCO3

(3) CaCO3

(4) BaCO3

Question 111 Which of the following statements is true about Ca(OH)2?

(1) It is used in the preparation of bleaching powder

(2) It is a light blue solid

(3) It does not possess disinfectant property.

(4) It is used in the manufacture of cement.

Question 112 Silicon has a strong tendency to form polymers like silicones. The chain length of silicone polymer can be controlled by adding

(1) MeSiCl3

(2) Me2SiCl2

(3) Me3SiCl

(4) Me4Si

Question 113 A compound X, of boron reacts with NH3 on heating to give another compound Y which is called inorganic benzene. The compound X can be prepared by treating BF3 with Lithium aluminium hydride. The compounds X and Y are represented by the formulas.

(1) B2H6, B3N3H6

(2) B2H3, B3N3H6

(3) BF3, B3N3H6

(4) B3N3H6, B2H6

Question 114 Choose the correct option of temperature at which carbon reduces FeO to iron and produces CO.

(1) Below temperature at point A

(2) Approximately at the temperature at point A

(3) Above temperature at point A but below temperature at point D

(4) Above temperature at point A

Question 115 Which of the following acids forms three series of salts?

(1) H3PO2

(2) H3PO3

(3) H3PO4

(4) H3PO3

Question 116 Reduction potentials of some ions are given below. Arrange them in decreasing order of oxidising power.

Iron 4ClO 4IO 4BrO

Reduction potential /E V 1.19E V 1.65E V 1.74E V

(1) 4 4 4ClO IO BrO

(2) 4 4 4IO BrO ClO

(3) 4 4 4BrO IO ClO

(4) 4 4 4BrO ClO IO

Question 117 Generally transition elements form coloured salts due to the presence of unpaired electrons. Which of the following compounds will be coloured in solid state?

(1) Ag2SO4

(2) CuF2

(3) ZnF2

(4) Cu2Cl2

Question 118 Although Zirconium belongs to 4d transition series and Hafnium to 5d transition series even then they show similar physical and chemical properties because___________.

(1) Both belong to d-block

(2) Both have same number of electrons.

(3) Both have similar atomic radius

(4) Both belong to the same group of the periodic table

Question 119 The CFSE for octahedral [CoCl6]4– is 18,000 cm–1. The CFSE for tetrahedral[CoCl4]

2– will be

(1) 18000 cm–1

(2) 16000 cm–1

(3) 8000 cm–1

(4) 20000 cm–1

Question 120 What kind of isomerism exists between [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (violet) and[Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2⋅H2O (greyish-green)?

(1) Linkage isomerism

(2) Solvate isomerism

(3) Ionization isomerism

(4) Coordination isomerism

Question 121 The empirical formula and molecular mass of a compound are CH2O and 180 g respectively. What will be the molecular formula of the compound?

(1) C9H19O9

(2) CH2O

(3) C6H12O6

(4) C2H4O2

Question 122 Atmospheric pressures recorded in different cities are as follows: Cities Shimla, Bangalore, Delhi, Mumbai P in N/m2 1.01×105, 1.2×105, 1.02×105, 1.21×105 Consider the above data and mark the place at which liquid will boil first.

(1) Shimla

(2) Bangalore

(3) Delhi

(4) Mumbai

Question 123 The state of a gas can be described by quoting the relationship between___

(1) pressure, volume, temperature

(2) temperature, amount, pressure

(3) amount, volume, temperature

(4) pressure, volume, temperature, amount

Question 124 The entropy change can be calculated by using the expression .revq

ST

When water

freezes in a glass beaker, choose the correct statement amongst the following

(1) S (system) decreases but S (surroundings) remains the same

(2) S (system) increases but S (surroundings) decreases

(3) S (system) decreases but S (surroundings) increases

(4) S (system) decreases but S (surroundings) also decreases

Question 125 Which of the following will produce a buffer solution when mixed in equalvolumes?

(1) 0.1 mol dm–3 NH4OH and 0.1 mol dm–3 HCl



(4) 0.1 mol dm–3 CH3COONa and 0.1 mol dm–3 NaOH

Question 126 On increasing the pressure, in which direction will the gas phase reaction proceed to re-establish equilibrium, is predicted by applying the Le Chatelier’s principle. Consider the reaction.

2 2 3( ) 3 ( ) 2 ( )N g H g NH g

Which of the following is correct, if the total pressure at which the equilibrium is established, is increased without changing the temperature?

(1) K will remain same

(2) K will decrease

(3) K will increase

(4) K will increase initially and decrease when pressure is very high

Question 127 The largest oxidation number exhibited by an element depends on its outer electronic configuration. With which of the following outer electronic configurations the element will exhibit largest oxidation number?

(1) 3d1 4s2

(2) 3d3 4s2

(3) 3d5 4s1

(4) 3d5 4s2

Question 128 The percentage of empty space in a body centred cubic arrangement is

(1) 74

(2) 68

(3) 32

(4) 26

Question 129 The values of Van’t Hoff factors for KCl, NaCl and K2SO4, respectively, are

(1) 2, 2 and 2

(2) 2, 2 and 3

(3) 1, 1 and 2

(4) 1, 1 and 1

Question 130 On the basis of information given below mark the correct option. Information: (A) In bromoethane and chloroethane mixture intermolecular interactions of A–A and B–B type are nearly same as A–B type interactions. (B) In ethanol and acetone mixture A–A or B–B type intermolecular interactions are stronger than A–B type interactions. (C) In chloroform and acetone mixture A–A or B–B type intermolecular interactions are weaker than A–B type interactions.

(1) Solution (B) and (C) will follow Raoult’s law

(2) Solution (A) will follow Raoult’s law.

(3) Solution (B) will show negative deviation from Raoult’s law.

(4) Solution (C) will show positive deviation from Raoult’s law.

Question 131 Using the data given below find out the strongest reducing agent

2 32 7 /

1.33Cr O Cr

E V

2 /

1.36Cl C

E V

24 /

1.51MnO Mn

E V

3 /0.74

Cr CrE V

(1) Cl

(2) Cr

(3) 3Cr

(4) Mn2+

Question 132 4

0( )m NH OH is equal to …..

(1) 4 4

0 0 0( ) ( ) ( )m NH OH m NH Cl m HCl

(2) 4

0 0 0( ) ( ) ( )m NH Cl m NaOH m NaCl

(3) 4

0 0 0( ) ( ) ( )m NH Cl m NaCl m NaOH

(4) 4

0 0 0( ) ( ) ( )m NaOH m NaCl m NH Cl

Question 133 Consider fig. and mark the correction :

(1) Activation energy of forward reaction is E1 + E2 and product is less stable than reactant.

(2) Activation energy of forward reaction is E1 + E2 and product is more stable than reactant.

(3) Activation energy of both forward and backward reaction is E1 + E2 and reactant is more stable than product.

(4) Activation energy of backward reaction is E1 and product is more stable than reactant

Question 134 Arrange the following diagrams in correct sequence of steps involved in the mechanism of catalysis, in accordance with modern adsorption theory.

(a) (b) (c)

(d) (e)

(1) a b c d e

(2) a c b d e

(3) a c b e d

(4) a b c d d

Question 135 For the electrons of oxygen atom, which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Zeff for an electron in a 1s orbital is the same as Zeff for an electron in a 2p orbital.

(2) An electron in the 2s orbital has the same energy as an electron in the 2p orbital.

(3) Zeff for an electron in 1s orbital is the same as Zeff for an electron in a 2s orbital.

(4) The two electrons present in the 2s orbital have spin quantum numbers ms but of opposite sign.

PHYSICS

Question 136 The two vectors have magnitudes 3 and 5. If angle between them is 600, then the dot product of two vectors will be :

(1) 7.5

(2) 6.5

(3) 8.4

(4) 7.9

Question 137 The value of the resistance R in figure is adjusted such that power dissipated in the 2 ohm resistor is maximum. Then the power dissipated in the 2 ohm will be :

(1) 72 W

(2) 40 W

(3) 8 W

(4) 32 W

Question 138 If the potential energy of a gas molecule is

6 12

M NU

r r

M and N being positive constants, then the potential energy at equilibrium must be :

(1) Zero

(2) M2/4N

(3) NM2/4

(4) MN2/4

Question 139 A series R, L C circuit is shown here. The source frequency f is varied, but the current is kept unchanged. Which of the curves showing changes of VC and VL with frequency would be valid for the circuit under consideration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Question 140 For visibility of diffraction pattern wave of light, size of slit or obstacle should be :

(1) Of any order

(2) Of order of wavelength

(3) Very less as compared to wave length

(4) Very high as compared to wave length

Question 141 Dimensional formula of universal gravitational constant :

(1) [M1L3T-2]

(2) [M-1L-3T-2]

(3) [M-1L3T2]

(4) [M-1L3T-2]

Question 142 The charge (in C) on any one of the 2 F capacitor and 1 F capacitor will be

given respectively as :

(1) 1, 2

(2) 2, 1

(3) 1, 1

(4) 2, 2

Question 143 An electron is travelling horizontally towards east. A magnetic field in vertically downward direction exerts a force on the electron along :

(1) East

(2) West

(3) North

(4) South

Question 144 If the earth were to suddenly contract to

1th

n of its present radius without any change

in its mass then duration of the new day will be :

(1) 24hr

n

(2) 24 n hr

(3) 2

24hr

n

(4) 24 n2 hr

Question 145 Two slits separated by 4 mm are illuminated by light of wavelength 6000

0

A . What will be fringe width on screen placed 2 m away from slits :

(1) 0.12 mm

(2) 0.3 mm

(3) 3.0 mm

(4) 4.0 mm

Question 146 Variation in electric potential is maximum if one goes :

(1) Along the line of force

(2) Perpendicular to the line of force

(3) In any direction

(4) No variation in any direction

Question 147 The charge q on a capacitor varies with voltage as shown in figure. The area of the triangle AOB represents :

(1) Electric field between the plates

(2) Electric flux between the plates

(3) Energy density

(4) Energy stored by the capacitor

Question 148 The magnetic induction at the centre O (fig) is :

(1) 0 0

2 2

I I

a b

(2) 0 03

8 8

I I

a b

(3) 0 03

8 8

I I

a b

(4) 0 03

8 8

I I

a b

Question 149 If a solid sphere is rolling the ratio of its rotational energy to the total kinetic energy is given by :

(1) 7 : 10

(2) 2 : 5

(3) 10 : 7

(4) 2 : 7

Question 150 Three identical bodies of equal mass M each are moving along a circle of radius R under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each body is :

(1) GM

R

(2)

3

GM

R

(3)

3

GM

R

(4)

2

GM

R

Question 151 The potential function of an electrostatic field is given by V = 2x2. Determine the electric field strength at the point (2m, 0, 3m).

(1) 14 ( )E i NC

(2) 14 ( )E i NC

(3) 18 ( )E i NC

(4) 18 ( )E i NC

Question 152 When the conductivity of a semiconductor is only due to breaking of covalent bonds, the semiconductor is called :

(1) Intrinsic

(2) Extrinsic

(3) p-type

(4) n-types

Question 153 Two blocks A and B are joined together with a compressed spring. When the system is released, the two blocks appear to be moving with unequal speeds in opposite directions as shown in figure. Select the correct statement :

(1) The centre of mass of the system will remain stationary

(2) Mass of block A is equal to that of block B.

(3) The centre of mass of the system will move towards right.

(4) It is an impossible physical situation

Question 154 P – V diagram o an ideal gas is as shown. Find work done by the gas in ABCD process :

(1) 4 P0V0

(2) 2 P0V0

(3) 3 P0V0

(4) P0V0

Question 155 One end of a spring of force constant k is fixed to vertical wall and the other to a block of mass m resting on a smooth horizontal surface. There is another wall at a distance x0 from the block. The spring is then compressed by 2x0 and released. The time taken to strike the wall is :

(1) 1

6

m

k

(2) m

k

(3) 2

3

m

k

(4)

4

m

k

Question 156 Two charge +q and -3q are placed on x-axis separated by a distance d. (-3q is right of q) Where should a third charge 2 q be placed such that it will not experience any force ?

(1) 1 32

d to the left of q

(2) 1 32

d to the left of q

(3) 1 32

d to the right of q

(4) 1 32

d to the right of q

Question 157 Carbon, Silicon and Germanium atoms have four valence electrons each. Their valence and conduction bonds are separated by energy band gaps represented by (Eg)C, (Eg)Si and (Eg)Ge respectively. Which one of the following relationship is true in their case

(1) (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge

(2) (Eg)C > (Eg)Si

(3) (Eg)C = (Eg)Si

(4) (Eg)C < (Eg)Si

Question 158 The bob A of simple pendulum is released when the string makes as angle of 450 with the vertical. It hits another bob B the same material and same mass kept at rest on the

table. If the collision is elastic, then

(1) Both A and B rise to the same height

(2) Both A and B come to rest at B

(3) Both A and B move with the same velocity of A

(4) A comes to rest and B moves with the velocity of A

Question 159 One mole of a gas expands with temperature as V = KT2/3. What is the work done when temperature changes by 300C.

(1) 10 R

(2) 20 R

(3) 30 R

(4) 40 R

Question 160 A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion. It maximum acceleration is and maximum velocity is . Then, its time period of vibration will be :

(1) 2

(2) 2

2

(3)

(4) 2

Question 161 A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a) versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The maximum speed of the particle will be :

(1) 110 m/s

(2) 55 m/s

(3) 550 m/s

(4) 660 m/s

Question 162 Two masses of 5 kg and 3 kg are suspended with the help of massless inextensible strings as shown in figure. The whole system is going upwards with an acceleration of 2 sm-2. The tensions T1 and T2 are respectively (Take g = 10 ms-2) :

(1) 96 N, 36 N

(2) 36 N, 96 N

(3) 96 N, 96 N

(4) 36 N, 36 N

Question 163 Two resistance 20 ohm and 50 ohm and a pure inductance of 50 H are connected to a 10 V battery through a key as shown in the figure. The key is taped at t = 0. Find the final value of current in the 50 ohm resistor.

(1) Zero

(2) 1/7 A

(3) 1/10 A

(4) 0.5 A

Question 164 A light ray incident normally on one face of an equilateral prism and emerges out grazingly at the other face. The refractive index of the prism is :

(1) 3

(2) 2

(3) 2 3

5

(4) 2

3

Question 165 The wavelength of the first line of Balmer series of hydrogen atom is

0

A . The wavelength of this line of a double ionized lithium atom (Z = 3) is :

(1) / 3

(2) / 9

(3) / 8

(4) / 27

Question 166 A ball is propped on the floor from a height of 10 m. It rebounds to a height of 2.5 m. If the ball is in contact with the floor for 0.01 sec, the average acceleration during contact is

(1) 2100 m/sec2 downwards

(2) 2100 m/sec2 upwards

(3) 1400 m/sec2

(4) 700 m/sec2

Question 167 A block of mass 1 kg lies on a horizontal surface in a truck. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the surface is 0.6. If the acceleration of the truck is 5 ms-2. The frictional force acting on the block is :

(1) 10 N

(2) 5 N

(3) 2.5 N

(4) 20 N

Question 168 In given circuit, switch is in position a, for what value of R will the circuit have a time constant of 10 s.

(1) 2.0 K ohm

(2) 2.5 K ohm

(3) 1.0 K ohm

(4) None of these

Question 169 A ray of light passes through equilateral prism such that angle of incidence is equal to angle of emergence and the later is equal to 3/4th of prism angle. The angle of deviation is :

(1) 300

(2) 600

(3) 450

(4) 1200

Question 170 Two radioactive substance X and Y initially contain equal number of nuclei. X has a half-life of 1 hour and Y has a half-life of 2 hours. After two hours, the ratio of the activity of X to the activity of Y is :

(1) 1 : 4

(2) 1 : 2

(3) 1 : 1

(4) 2 : 1

Question 171 A ring is made of a wire having a resistance R0 = 12 ohm. Find the points A and B as shown in the figure at which a current carrying conductor should be connected so that

the resistance R of the sub circuit between these points is equal to 8

3 ohm :

(1) 1

2

3

8

(2) 1

2

1

2

(3) 1

2

5

8

(4) 1

2

1

3

Question 172 A body is moving under the action of two forces 1 22 5 ; 3 4F i j F i j

. Its

velocity will become uniform under an additional third force 3F

given by :

(1) 5i j

(2) 5i j

(3) 5i j

(4) 5 9i j

Question 173 Assume a bulb of efficiency 2.5% as a point source. The peak values of electric field produced by the radiation coming from a 100 W bulb at a distance of 3 m is respectively :

(1) 2.5 V m–1

(2) 4.2 V m–1

(3) 4.08 V m–1

(4) 3.6 V m–1

Question 174 A wire of area of cross-section 10–6 m2 is increased in length by 0.1%. The tension produced is 1000 N. The Young’s modulus of wire is :

(1) 1012 N/m2

(2) 1011 N/m2

(3) 1010 N/m2

(4) 109 N/m2

Question 175 The transverse displacement of a string clamped at its both ends is given by

2( , ) 2sin cos(100 )

3y x t x t

Where x and y are in cm and t is in s. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) All the points on the string between two consecutive nodes vibrate with same frequency, phase and amplitude

(2) All the points on the string between two consecutive nodes vibrate with same frequency and phase but different amplitude.

(3) All the points on the string between two consecutive nodes vibrate with different frequency and phase but same amplitude.

(4) All the points on the string between two consecutive nodes vibrate with different frequency, phase and amplitude.

Question 176 The resistance in the two arms of a meter bridge are 5 ohm and R ohm, respectively. When the resistance R is shunted with an equal resistance, the new balance point is at

1.6 1 . The resistance ‘R’ is :

(1) 10 ohm

(2) 15 ohm

(3) 20 ohm

(4) 25 ohm

Question 177 A force F acting on a object varies with distance x as shown here. The force is in N and x in m. The work done by the force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 6 is :

(1) 18.0 J

(2) 13.5 J

(3) 9.0 J

(4) 4.5 J

Question 178 A solenoid has as inductance of 60 henry and a resistance of 30 ohm. If it connected

to a 100 volt battery, how long will it take for the current to reach 1

63.%e

e

of its

final value ?

(1) 1 second

(2) 2 second

(3) e second

(4) 2e second

Question 179 A tank 5 m high is half-filled with water and then is filled to the top with oil of density 0.85 g/cm3. The pressure at the bottom of the tank, due to these liquids is :

(1) 1.85 g dyne/cm2

(2) 89.25 g dyne/cm2

(3) 462.5 g dyne/cm2

(4) 500 g dyne/cm2

Question 180 An organ pipe of length L open at both ends is found to vibrate in its first harmonic when sounded with a tuning fork of 480 Hz. What should be the length of a pipe closed at one end, so that it also vibrates in its first harmonic with the same tuning fork ?

(1)

4

L

(2)

2

L

(3) L

(4) 2L

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