NTA ABHYAS NEET MOCK TEST – 65 PHYSICS

1. In Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom, the pairs of quantities that are quantized among the following is 1) Energy and linear momentum 2) Linear and angular momentum 3) Energy and angular momentum 4) None of the above

2. If 1 and 2 are the wave lengths of the first members of the Lyman and Paschen series respectively, then 1 2: is 1) 1:3 2) 1:30 3) 7:50 4) 7:108

3. A sphere of mass m moving with velocity v collides head – on another sphere of same mass which is at rest. The ratio of final velocity of the second sphere to the initial velocity of the first sphere is (e is the coefficient of restitution and collision is inelastic)

1) 1

2e

2) 2e

3) 1

2e

4) e

4. A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest, explodes into two pieces of masses 18 kg and 12 kg. The velocity of 18 kg mass is 16ms . The kinetic energy of the other mass is 1) 324 J 2) 486 J 3) 256 J 4) 523 J

5. A particle of mass m is fixed to one end of a light spring of force constant k and unstretched length l. The system is rotated about the other end of the spring with an angular velocity w , in gravity- free space. Then increase in the length of the spring will be

1) 2mw l

k 2)

2

2

mw lk mw

3) 2

2

mw lk mw

4) None of these

6. The kinetic energy K of a particle moving along a circle of radius R depends on the distance covered s as 2K as . The centripetal force acting on the particle is

1) 2asR 2) 22as 3) 2as 4) 22as

R

7. The masses of three wires of copper are in the ratio of 1:3:5 and their lengths are in the ratio 5:3:1. The ratio of their electrical resistance is 1) 1:3:5 2) 5:3:1 3) 1:15:125 4) 125:15:1

8. Two wires of equal diameters, of resistivities 1 and 2 and length 1l and 2l , respectively are joined in series. The equivalent resistivity of the combination is

1) 1 1 2 2

1 2

l ll l

2) 1 2 2 2

1 2

l ll l

3) 1 2 2 1

1 2

l ll l

4) 1 1 2 2

1 2

l ll l

9. In the adjacent circuit, the instantaneous current equation is

1) 2sin 1004

t

2) 2 sin 2004

t

3) 2 sin 2004

t

4) 2 sin 1004

t

10. In a series LCR circuit, the voltage drop across the resistance is 8V , across the

inductor is 6V and across the capacitor is 12V . Then, 1) the voltage of the source will be leading the current in the circuit 2) the voltage drop across each element will be less than the applied voltage

3) the power factor of the circuit will be 43

4) none of these

11. An electric dipole is kept on the axis of a uniformly charged ring at distance 2

R

from the centre of the ring. The direction of the dipole moment is along the axis. The dipole moment is P, the charge of the ring is Q and the radius of the ring is R. The force on the dipole is nearly

1) 2

43 3

kPQR

2) 3

43 3

kPQR

3) 3

23 3

kPQR

4) Zero

12. If the force exerted by an electric dipole on a charge q at a distance of 1m is F, the force at a point 2m away in the same direction will be

1) 2F

2) 4F

3) 6F

4) 8F

13. A body of mass m is placed at the centre of the spherical shell of radius R and mass M. The gravitational potential on the surface of the shell is

1) G M mR

2) G M mR

3) G mMR M m

4) G mMR M m

14. The weight of a body at the centre of the earth is

1) 29.8ms 2) 0 3) 24.9ms 4) 210ms

15. A body having a temperature of 027 C is kept in a room having a temperature of 027 C . Does the body emit any radiation in this case when the room temperature is

the same as body temperature? 1) Yes 2) No 3) May emit, depends on the material of body 4) Can’t say anything

16. Variation of internal energy with density of 1mol of monatomic gas is depicted in diagram. The corresponding variation of pressure with volume can be depicted as (assume the curve is rectangular hyperbola)

1) 2)

3) 4)

17. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator working between 010 C and 020 C is 1) 28.3 2) 29.3 3) 2 4) 0.5

18. A proton and an particle are projected normally with the same speed into a magnetic field. What will be the ratio of radii of the trajectories of the proton and particle? 1) 2:1 2) 1:2 3) 4:1 4) 1:4

19. When a charged particle moving with velocity v is subjected to a magnetic field of

induction B

, the force on it is non-zero. This implies that 1) Angle between v

and B

is either zero or 0180

2) Angle between v and B

is necessarily 090

3) Angle between v and B

can have any value other than 090

4) Angle between v and B

can have any other than zero and 0180

20. The magnetic needle of a vibration magnetometer makes 12 oscillations per minute

21. A body projected vertically upwards crosses a point at a height h twice in its

journey at instant 1t and 2t second. The maximum height reached by the body is

1) 21 24

g t t

2) 2

1 2

4t tg

3) 2

1 224

t tg

4) 1 24g t t

22. One stone is dropped from a tower from rest and simultaneously another stone is

projected vertically upwards from the tower with some initial velocity. The graph of the distance (s) between the two stones varies with time (t) as (before either stone hits the ground)

1) 2)

1) 61 2) 63 3) 6 4) 67

3) 4)

23. A block of mass 1kg lies on a horizontal surface in a truck. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the surface is 0.6. If the acceleration of the truck is

25ms , the frictional force acting on the block is 1) 5 N 2) 6 N 3) 10 N 4) 15 N

24. A body of mass 8 kg is suspended through two light springs X and Y connected in series as shown in the figure. The reading in X and Y respectively are

1) 8 kg, zero 2) Zero, 8 kg 3) 6 kg, 2 kg 4) 8 kg, 8 kg

25. The particle emitted in the decay of 23892 U to 234

92 U 1) 2 and 2 2) 1 and 2 3) 1 only 4) 2 and 2

26. In the given nuclear reaction 9 4 124 2 6Be He C X .

X represents 1) Neutron 2) Proton 3) Positron 4) Electron

27. The time period of oscillations of a block attached to a spring is 1t . When the spring is replaced by another spring, the time period of the block is 2t . If both the springs are connected in series and the block is made to oscillate using the combination, then the time period of the block is 1) 1 2t t t 2) 2 2 2

1 2T t t 3) 1 1 1

1 2T t t 4) 2 2 2

1 2T t t

28. The phase difference between two waves, represented by

61 10 sin 100 0.550

xy t m

62 10 cos 100 50

xy t m

Where ‘x’ is expressed in metres and ‘t’ is expressed in seconds, is approximately. 1) 1.07 rad 2) 2.07 rad 3) 0.5 rad 4) 1.5 rad

29. The maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron is 3 eV. Its stopping potential is 1) 3 V 2) 1 V 3) 6 V 4) 2 V

30. From the following graph of photocurrent against collector plate potential for two different intensities of light 1I and 2I , one can conclude

1) 1 2I I 2) 1 2I I 3) 1 2I I 4) Comparison is not possible

31. A liquid drop having surface energy E is spread into 512 droplets of the same size. The final surface energy of the droplets is 1) 2E 2) 4E 3) 8E 4) 12E

32. A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. If the whole system falls under gravity, then the upthrust on the body due to liquid is 1) Zero 2) Equal to the weight of the immersed part of the body 3) Equal to the weight of the body in liquid 4) Equal to the weight of the body in air

33. Given that, the velocity of light in quartz 8 11.5 10 ms and the velocity of light in

glycerine 8 19 104

ms . If a slab made of quartz is placed in front of an object kept in

glycerine (as shown in the figure), then the shift of the object produced by slab is

1) 6 cm 2) 3.55 cm 3) 9 cm 4) 2 cm

34. Laser light has the following property 1) Laser light always lies in the X-ray region 2) Laser light does not have directionality property 3) Laser light is white light 4) Laser light is highly coherent

35. A particle of mass m, initial speed u and angle of projection , is projected as shown in the figure. Average torque on the projectile between initial and final positions P and Q about the point of projection is

1) 2 sin 22

mu

2) 2 cosmu 3) 2 sinmu

4) 2 cos 22

mu

36. On the application of a constant torque, a wheel is turned from rest through 400 radians in 10s. The angular acceleration is 1) 28rad s 2) 25rad s 3) 26rad s 4) 27rad s

37. If the ratio of the concentration of electrons and that of holes in a semiconductor is 7/5 and the ratio of their currents is 7/4, then the ratio of their drift velocities is 1) 4/7 2) 5/8 3) 4/5 4) 5/4

38. In the following common emitter configuration, an NPN transistor with current gain 100 is sued. The output voltage of the amplifier will be

1) 10 mV 2) 0.1 V 3) 1.0 V 4) 10 V

39. The coefficient of linear expansions of brass and steel are 1 and 2 respectively.

When we take a brass rod of length 2l at 00 C , then the difference in their lengths 2 1l l will remain the same at all temperatures if 1) 1 1 2 2l l 2) 1 2 2 1l l 3) 2 2

1 2 2 1l l 4) 2 2

1 2 2 1l l

40. A public park, in the form of a square, has an area of 2100 0.2 m . The side of park is 1) 10 0.01 m 2) 10 0.1 m 3) 10.0 0.1 m 4) 10.0 0.2 m

41. In a Young’s double slit experiment, 12 fringes are observed to be formed in a certain segment of the scree when light of wavelength 600nm is used. If the wave length of light is change to 400 nm, number of fringes observed in the same segment of the scree is given by 1) 12 2) 18 3) 24 4) 30

42. If numerical aperture of a microscope is increased then its 1) Resolving power remains constant 2) Resolving power becomes zero 3) Limit of resolution is decreased 4) Limit of resolution is increased

43. A wave of frequency 500Hz has a velocity of 1350ms . The distance between two nearest point on the wave which are 060 out of phase with each other will be around 1) 70 cm 2) 0.7 m 3) 12.0 cm 4) 120.0 cm

44. The direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave is along 1) Electric field vector, E 2) Magnetic field vector, B 3) E B

4) B E

45. The potential energy for a force field F

is given by , cosU x y x y . The force acting on a particle at the position given by coordinates 0, / 4 is

1) 12

i j

2) 12

i j

3) 1 32 2

i j

4) 1 32 2

i j

CHEMISTRY 46. The region where probability density function reduce to zero is called

1) probability density region 2) nodal surface 3) orientation surfaces 4) wave function

47. Which of the following shapes of SF4 is more stable and why?

1) (i), due to 3 1p-bp repulsion at 90° 2) (ii), due to 2 1p-bp repulsion 3) Both are equally stable due to 2 1p-bp repulsions 4) Both are unstable since SF4 has tetrahedral shape

48. IUPAC name of the following compound is

1) 3-Propylbutan-1-01 2) 2-Ethylpentan-1-ol 3) 3-Methyl hydroxyhexane 4) 2-Ethyl-2-propyl ethanol

49. Lewisite is a poisonous gas having formula 1) CHCl CHCl 2) 2CHCl CHAsCl 3) 2CHCl CHCl 4) 2 2CHCl CHCl

50. The types of attractive forces between a polar molecule and non-polar molecule are 1) dipole-dipole forces 2) hydrogen bonds 3) dipole-induced dipole forces 4) dispersion forces

51. Oxidation number of iodine in 3 4, ,IO IO KI and 2I respectively are 1) 2, 5, 1,0 2) 5, 7, 1,0 3) 2, 5, 1,0 4) 1, 1,0, 1

52. Zn gives hydrogen with 2 4H SO and HCl but not with 3HNO because 1) Zn acts as oxidising agent when reacts with 3HNO 2) 3HNO is weaker acid than 2 4H SO and HCl 3) Zn is above the hydrogen in electrochemical series 4) 3NO is reduced in preference to H ion

53. It is recommended that ammonia bottle should be opened after cooling in ice for some time because 1) it has high vapour pressure 2) it comes out with brisk effervescence 3) it is a corrosive fluid 4) it vaporises at room temperature

54. Sodium chloride has a crystalline structure made up of Na+ and Cl— ions. Why does NaCl not conduct electricity in solid state? 1) Solid s do not conduct electricity 2) The ions of NaCl become mobile only in molten state and are not free to move in solid state 3) The crystalline structure does not have ions 4) When a bond is formed between ions they lose their charge

55. Two reactions are given below

(i) 2 212g g gCO O CO

(ii) 2 2122s s gAg O Ag O

Which of the following statements is true? 1) For (i) H E and for (ii) H E 2) For (i) H E and for (ii) H E 3) For both (i) and (ii) H E 4) For both (i) and (ii) H E

56. Cellulose present in plants as a food for cattle but not for human beings because 1) human body does not contain cellulase hence cellulase cannot be broken into D-glucose 2) human saliva cannot break down plant cellulose in small pieces 3) bile juice present in cattle helps them to digest cellulose 4) human beings have a smaller stomach than cattle

57. Identify (X), (Y) and (Z) in the given reaction

1) 3, ,HCHO CH CHO KOH 2) 3 3, ,CH CHO CH CHO NaOH 3) 3 2 2 4, ,CH CH OH HCHO H SO 4) 3 2 , , Dry etherCH CH CHO HCHO

58. According to Werner's theory of coordination compounds, 1) primary valency is ionisable 2) secondary valency is ionisable 3) primary and secondary valencies are ionisable 4) neither primary nor secondary valency is ionisable

61. Which of the following orbitals will not form sigma bond after overlapping? [given: z-axis is the internuclear axis] 1) s-orbital and s-orbital 2) s-orbital and pz-orbital 3) pz -orbital and pz, -orbital 4) py -orbital and py, -orbital

62. Chorine exists in two isotopic forms, Cl-37 and Cl-35 but its atomic mass is 35.5. This indicates the ratio of Cl-37 and Cl-35 is approximately 1) 1:2 2) 1:1 3) 1:3 4) 3:1

63. Which step is chain propagation step in the following mechanism? (i) 2

. .hvCl Cl Cl (ii) 4 3

. .Cl CH CH HCl (iii) 2

. .Cl Cl Cl (iv) 3 3

. .CH Cl CH Cl 1) (i) 2) (ii) 3) (iii) 4) (iv)

64. Among the following, which are ambidentate ligands? (i) SCN (ii) 3NO (iii) 2NO (iv) 2

2 4C O 1) (i) and (iii) 2) (i) and (iv) 3) (ii) and (iii) 4) (ii) and (iv)

65. Which of the following statements is true? 1) Soda lime is a mixture of sodium hydroxide and potassium hydroxide 2) Methane can be prepared by Wurtz reaction 3) In alkanes all carbon atoms are sp3 hybridised 4) neo-Pentane yields three different monochloro derivatives

60. Effective nuclear charge (Zeff) for a nucleus of an atom is defined as 1) shielding of the outermost shell electrons from the nucleus by the innermost shell electrons 2) the net positive charge experienced by electron from the nucleus 3) the attractive force experienced by the nucleus from electron 4) screening of positive charge on nucleus by innermost shell electrons

59. The process of production of syngas from sewage, saw-dust, scrap wood, etc. is quite common these days. The production of syngas from coal is called 1) carbonisation 2) water gas shift 3) coal gasification 4) synthesis gas shift

66. Which of the following is not correct for enzyme catalysis? 1) The enzyme activity is maximum at optimum pH which is between 5-7 2) Each enzyme is specific for a given reaction 3) The favourable temperature range of enzyme activity is between 50-60 °C 4) The enzymatic activity is increased in presence of certain substances called to co-enzymes

67. the correct IUPAC name of the following compound 3 45Cr NH NCS ZnCl is

68. The value of Henry's law constant for some gases at 293 K is given below. Arrange the gases in the increasing order of their solubility. He: 144.97 kbar, H2 : 69.16 kbar, N2 : 76.48 kbar, O2 : 34.86 kbar 1) He < N2 < H2 < O2 2) O2 <H2 <N2 < He 3) H2 < N2 < O2 < He 4) He < O2 < N2 < H2

69. If the instantaneous rate of appearance of 2 gNO is 0.0400M/s at some moment in

time, what is the rate of disappearance of 2 5 gN O in M/s?

2 5 2 2122g g gN O NO O

1) 0.02 2) 0.01 3) 0.04 4) 0.08

70. The process of combining metals present in their native ores with mercury to form an alloy is called 1) alloying 2) galvanisation 3) amalgamation 4) crystallisation

71. Ammonia is used in detection of Cu2+ ion because 1) aqueous solution of NH3 reacts with Cu2+ ion to form deep blue coloured complex 2) NH3 reacts with Cu2+ ion to give blue precipitate of CuO 3) aqueous solution of NH3 reacts with Cu2+ ion to form white coloured complex 4) NH3 reacts with Cu2+ ion to give green precipitate

72. Which of the following statements regarding hydrides is not correct? 1) Ionic hydrides are crystalline, non-volatile and non-conducting in solid state 2) Electron-deficient hydrides act as Lewis acids or electron acceptors 3) Elements of group-13 form electron-deficient hydrides 4) Elements of group 15-17 form electron-precise hydrides

73. 0.2 g of an organic compound contains C, H and O. On combustion, it yields 0.15 g CO2 and 0.12 g H2O. The percentage of C, H and O respectively is 1) C = 15%, H = 20%, O = 65% 2) C = 10%, H = 8.2%, O = 81.8% 3) C = 12.2%, H = 8.8%, O = 79% 4) C = 20%, H = 6.66%, O = 73.34%

1) penta ammine isothio cyanato chromium (III) tetra chlorozincate (II) 2) penta ammine isothio cyanatezinc chloride chromate (III) 3) penta ammine isothio cyanato chromate (II) 4) isothio cyanatopenta ammine chromium (II) zinc chloride (IV)

74. BF3 is used as a catalyst in various organic reactions because 1) it is a strong reducing agent 2) it is highly reactive compound 3) it is a weak Lewis acid 4) it is a strong Lewis acid

75. Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of their boiling points (i) CH3Br (ii) CH3CH2Br (iii) CH3CH2CH2Br (iv) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br 1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) 2) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i) 3) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv) 4) (iii) > (iv) > (i), > (ii)

76. K2CO3 cannot be prepared by Solvay's process because 1) KHCO3 is less soluble than NaHCO3 2) KHCO3 is too soluble to get separated from solution 3) K2CO3 is too soluble to be precipitated by KCl 4) K2CO3 is less soluble than Na2CO3

77. Match the column I with Column II and mark the appropriate choice. Column-I Column-II p) Bacteriostatic (i) Crucial to body's communication process q) Bactericidal (ii) Inhibit growth of microbes r) Narrow spectrum antibodies (iii) Kill microbes s) Receptors (iv) Effective against single disease

1) (p)-(i), (q)-(ii), (r)-(iv), (s)-(iii) 2) (p)-(ii), (q)-(iii), (r)-(iv), (s)-(i) 3) (p)-(iii), (q)-(iv), (r)-(i), (s)-(ii) 4) (p)-(iv), (q)-(i), (r)-(ii), (s)-(iii)

78. Which of the following statements regarding the SN1 reaction shown by alkyl halide is not correct? 1) the added nucleophile plays no kinetic role in SN1 reaction 2) The SN1 reaction involves the inversion of configuration of the optically active substrate 3) the SN1 reaction on the chiral starting material end up with recemization of the product 4) The more stable the carbocation intermediate the faster the SN1 reaction

79. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) are I. non-carcinogenic in nature II. carcinogenic in nature III. used as cleansing solvent Choose the correct options 1) Both I and Ill 2) Both II and III 3) only II 4) only III

80. The dissociation constant of a substituted benzoic acid is 1.0 × 10-4 at 25°C. The pH of 0.01 M solution of its sodium salt is 1) 7 2) 6 3) 8 4) 4

81. The C — 0 — H bond angle in alcohols is slightly less than the tetrahedral angle whereas the C — 0 — C bond angle in ether is slightly greater because 1) of repulsion between the two bulky R groups 2) atom in both alcohols and ethers is spa -hybridised 3) lone pair-lone pair repulsion is greater than bond pair-bond pair repulsion 4) None of these

82. When acetone and chloroform are mixed together, which of the following observation is correct?

1) A — A and B — B interactions are stronger than A — B interactions 2) A— A and B— B interactions are weaker than A — B interactions 3) A — A,B — B and A — B interactions are equal 4) The liquids form separate layers and are immiscible

83. What will be the molar conductivity of 3Al ions at infinite dilution if molar conductivity of 2 4 3

Al SO is 2 1858S cm mol and ionic conductance of 24SO is

2 1160 S cm mol at infinite dilution? 1) 2 1189 S cm mol 2) 2 1698S cm mol 3) 2 11018S cm mol 4) 2 1429 S cm mol

84. 0.6 mole of 5PCl , 0.3 mole of 3PCl and 0.4 mole of 2Cl are taken in a 1 L flask to obtain the following equilibrium 5 3 2g g gPCl PCl Cl . If the equilibrium constant

cK for the reaction is 0.15. Predict the direction of the reaction. 1) Forward direction 2) Backward direction 3) Direction of the reaction cannot be predicted 4) Reaction does not move in any direction

85. What is the end product in the following sequence of reactions?

1) Aniline 2) Phenol 3) Benzene 4) Benzenediazonium chloride

86. Which of the following is not true for thermoplastic polymers? 1) Thermoplastics are linear polymers

2) They soften and melt on heating 3) Molten polymer can be remoulded into any shape 4) They have cross-linkage which break on heating

87. Arrange the following alcohols in order of increasing reactivity towards sodium metal. (i) (CH3)3C — OH (ii) (CH3)2CH - OH (iii) CH3CH2OH 1) (iii) < (ii) < (i) 2) (ii) < (i) < (iii) 3) (i) < (ii) < (iii) 4) (iii) < (i) < (ii)

88. Study the given reactions and identify the process which is carried out

1) It is used for purification of aldehydes and ketones 2) It is used to distinguish aldehydes and ketones 3) It is used to prepare cyclic aldehydes and ketones 4) It is used to study polar nature of aldehydes and ketones

89. Canonical structures of anilinium ion obtained by accepting a proton are given below. Choose the correct statements.

1) Anilinium ion has two stable canonical structures I and III 2) II is not an acceptable structure because carbonium ion is less stable 3) Only I and III are acceptable aromatic canonical structures since II is non-aromatic 4) Anilinium ion has three stable canonical structures I, II and III

90. Which of the following compounds will have highest melting point?

1) I 2) II 3) III 4) All have equal melting point

BIOLOGY 91. Select the correct statements.

a. The most common form of prion disease that affects sheep is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease. b. A prion is a type of glycoprotein that can trigger normal proteins in the liver to fold abnormally. c. Prions attack nerve cells producing neurodegenerative brain disease. 1) a and b only 2) c only 3) b only 4) a, b and c

92. Match the following and identify the correct match. The dinosaur Era In millions of years before a) Triassic i) 175 b) Jurassic ii) 225 c) Cretaceous iii) 125

1) a-ii; b-i; c-iii 2) a-iii; b-i; c-ii 3) a-i; b-ii; c-iii 4) a-ii; b-iii; c-i

93. Match the following and identify the correct match. Column-I Column-II 1) Copper A) Needed for the synthesis of Auxin 2) Boron B) Pollen germination 3) Zinc C) Association with an enzyme involved in Redox reaction

1) 1 — A, 2 — B, 3 — C 2) 1 — B, 2 — C, 3 — A 3) 1 — C, 2 — B, 3 — A 4) 1 — B, 2 — A, 3 — C

94. The natural selection that acts against change in the form and keeps the population constant through the time is 1) Disruptive 2) Directional 3) Not acting 4) Stabilizing

95. With reference to enzymes, turn over number means 1) The number of substrate molecules that a molecule of an enzyme converts into products per hour 2) The number of substrate molecules that a molecule of an enzyme converts into products per second 3) The number of substrate molecules that a molecule of an enzyme convert into products per minute 4) The number of substrate molecules that a molecule of an enzyme converts into products per day

96. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? 1) Darwin finches show convergent evolution 2) Homo erectus evolved earlier than Homo sapiens 3) Homo sapiens appeared in African grassland 4) Archaeopteryx is connecting link between the birds and reptiles

97. Which one of the following belongs to the same class? 1) Mucor, Alternaria and Yeast 2) Morchella, Truffles and Saccharomyces 3) Agaricus, Rhizopus and Aspergillus 4) Rhizopus, Colletotrichum and Yeast

99. Identify the type of vector represented in the diagram given below.

1) An expressable plasmid 2) A tumor inducing plasmid 3) Plasmid which expresses in two hosts 4) The plasmid to be constructed

100. Which of the following antibody shows the strongest agglutination? 1) IgA 2) IgD 3) IgE 4) IgM

101. Which of the following suggests the main role of bacteria in the carbon cycle? 1) photo oxidation 2) photosynthesis 3) carbon fixation 4) decomposing

98. Health complication caused by protein deficiency is 1) Marasmus, impaired mental problem, hair loss, abnormal blood coagulation, deep vein thrombosis 2) Goiter, Kwashiorkor, dwarfism, hair loss, abnormal blood coagulation, deep vein thrombosis. 3) Myasthenia gravis, edema, wasting and shrinkage of muscle tissues, organ failure 4) Lymphoma, weak immune system, Kwashiorkor, Marasmus,dwarfism, hair loss, abnormal blood coagulation, deep vein thrombosis

102. Match the following: Set-I Set-II a) Rancher's rule i) Body size b) Bergman's rule ii) Wings c) Allen's rule iii) Vertebra number d) Jordan's rule iv) Organ size

1) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3 2) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1 3) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4 4) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

103. A newly discovered plant was found to be a gymnosperm because it 1) lacks ovary but possesses exposed ovules 2) possesses xylem vessels 3) bears pollen grains 4) develops fruits

104. The ________ hormone is secreted by the _________ cells of kidneys and stimulates the formation of erythrocyte. 1) Erythropoietin, JG 2) Erythropoietin, Interstitial fibroblasts 3) Renin, JG 4) Renin. Macula densa

105. Which of the following factors affect the rate of transpiration? 1) Temperature, wind speed 2) Humidity, stomatal density 3) Both a and b 4) Shape of subsidiary cells

106. Which of the following hormone is responsible for the release of bile from the gall bladder? 1) Secretin 2) Pancreozymin 3) Enterogastrone 4) Gastrin

107. Algae and fungi are characterized by the possession of 1) mitospores 2) chloroplast 3) multicellular jacketed sex organs 4) unicellular jacketed sex organs

108. Which cells are responsible for the phagocytosis of antigens and removal of cellular debris? 1) T helper cells 2) Plasma cells 3) Fibroblast 4) Macrophages

109. Mesogamy is 1) Entry of the pollen tube in the ovule through micropyle 2) Entry of the pollen tube in the ovule through integuments 3) Entry of the pollen tube in the ovule through chalaza 4) Entry of the pollen tube in the stigma and style

110. Epimysium is the outermost covering of following tissue/organ 1) Nervous tissue 2) Muscular tissue 3) Cartilage 4) Intestine

111. Apomixis is found in 1) Asteraceae but not in grasses 2) grasses but not in Asteraceae 3) both Asteraceae and grasses 4) neither in Asteraceae nor in grasses

112. The epithelium found in hollow organs (like bronchioles) are originally __________ epithelium bearing fine brush-like structures on its free surface. 1) columnar 2) glandular 3) squamous 4) compound

113. Fill in the blanks: i. The morphology of the chromosome is studied at A___. ii. Recombination nodule appears at __B__ stage of prophase-l. iii. __C__ induces polyploidy by inhibiting polymerisation of spindles. iv. True reduction in number of chromosome occurs in __D__ stage. 1) A - Anaphase, B - Pachytene 2) C - Mustard gas, D – Metaphase I 3) A - Prophase, C - Colchicine 4) B - Pachytene, D - Anaphase I

114. Which of the following sets consist of pseudocoelomate organisms? 1) Ascaris, Ancylostoma 2) Fasciola, Earthworm 3) Roundworm, Tapeworm 4) Taenia, Fasciola

115. Hormones have the following features: I. Adenohypophysis produces gonadotropins II. Besides sex cells, hormones are also produced by testis and ovary III. Testosterone is produced by Leydig cells IV. Estrogen is produced by the ovary Which of the above factors influence secondary sexual characters? 1) III and IV 2) II,III and IV 3) II and IV 4) All

116. The amino acid found only in bacterial and blue-green algae is 1) methionine 2) diamino-pimelic acid 3) aspartic acid 4) glutamic acid

117. Select the correct order of phyla on the basis of the number of species. 1) Mollusca > Arthropoda > Chordata 2) Arthropoda > Mollusca > Chordata > Aschelminthes 3) Arthropoda > Chordata > Mollusca 4) Arthropoda > Aschelminthes > Chordata

118. In a DNA molecule, nitrogenous base is linked to pentose sugar by 'A' linkage and the pentose sugar is linked to phosphate by 'B' linkage. Correctly identify A and B. Column-A Column-B 1) N-Glycoside linkage Amide linkage 2) N-Glycoside linkage Phosphodiester linkage 3) Phosphoester linkage Phosphoester linkage 4) Amide linkage Phosphodiester linkage

119. During spermatogenesis, secondary spermatocytes are result of

1) Mitosis 2) Meiosis – I 3) Meiosis – II 4) Growth

121. Which of these pairs of organisms are bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic? 1) Ascaris, Planaria 2) Spongilla, Limulus 3) Fasciola, Echinus 4) Hirudinaria, Ctenoplana Hint : Members of phyla Aschelminthes and Platyhelminthes are triploblastic and bilaterally symmetrical. Ascaris is a roundworm, while Planaria is a freshwater flatworm.

122. Identify the living plant tissues, whose main function is to provide buoyancy to the plant. 1) Sclerenchyma fibres 2) Sclereids 3) Collenchyma 4) Modified parenchyma

120. Select the incorrect statement. 1) The cell envelope consists of a tightly bound three layered structure, of which plasma membrane is the innermost layer. 2) A specialised differentiated form of cell membrane called mesosome is the characteristic of prokaryotes. 3) Surface structures of the bacteria, like flagella, pili and fimbriae play a major role in motility. 4) Gas vacuoles are found in blue green and purple and green photosynthetic bacteria.

123. A vascular bundle which lacks cambium is called 1) Conjoint, and collateral 2) Conjoint, but not collateral 3) Closed, and collateral 4) Bicollateral

124. Which of the following factors contributes to the increase of the pulmonary volume? 1) Relaxation of the external intercostal muscles 2) Relaxation of the internal intercostal muscles 3) Contraction of the internal intercostal muscles 4) Relaxation of the diaphragm

125. Which of the following is the basis of phylogenetic classification? 1) Nutrition related adaptations 2) Descent from a common origin 3) Habitat adaptations 4) Morphological similarities in the organisms

126. Choose the incorrect match in the following. 1) Inspiratory capacity = IRV + TV 2) Functional residual capacity = RV ± ERV 3) Total lung capacity = VC — TV 4) Vital capacity = ERV + TV + IRV

127. Gonyaulax is a protist which 1) causes an algal bloom where its rapid multiplication changes the sea colour 2) leads to the formation of diatomaceous earth 3) behaves like a heterotroph in the absence of sunlight 4) has an infectious spore-like stage in their life cycle and has a staggering effect on the human population.

128. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor? 1) Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin 2) Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen 3) In the absence of HCI secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active enzyme pepsin 4) Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen is not converted to trypsin

129. Out of the following animals, how many show the oestrous cycle? [Lizard, Lion, Goat, Rat, Human, Apes, Monkeys] 1) Four 2) Five 3) Two 4) Three

130. Which of the following parts of the human eye comprises of densely packed cones? 1) Fovea 2) Blind spot 3) Macula lutea 4) Retina

131. After the stage, cell walls are laid down leading to the organisation of the typical female gametophyte or embryo sac. 1) 4-nucleate 2) 8-nucleate 3) 2-nucleate 4) 6-nucleate

132. The association areas of the brain are responsible for 1) intersensory associations, memory and communication. 2) the coordination for sensory and motor signaling. 3) regulation of respiration and circulation. 4) body temperature, urge for eating and drinking.

133. Which type of endosperm is observed in the white kernel of coconut? 1) Cellular 2) Nuclear 3) Helobial 4) Endosperm is absent

134. Refer to the diagram given below and identify A and B.

1) A - posterior aorta, B - haemocoel 2) A - anterior aorta, B - ostia 3) A - anterior aorta, B - alary muscles 4) A - posterior aorta, B - sinuses

135. With respect to the picture given below, which of the following methods will be implemented to obtain more progeny of this animal?

1) Cross-breeding 2) Outcrossing 3) Interspecific hybridization 4) MOET

136. Which of the following is not a medicinal plant of commercial use? 1) Mulatthi 2) Rauwolfia 3) Belladonna 4) Indigofera

137. Which one of the following conditions indicates Klinefelter's syndrome? 1) 44 + XXY 2) 44 + XO 3) 44 + XY 4) 44 + XX

138. In the process of treating sewage and industrial wastewaters using air and a biological floc, the sediment obtained is called: 1) Activated sludge 2) Biogas 3) Bear 4) Wine

139. Throughout the country, since October 2010, all 2 wheelers and 3 wheelers have to follow _________ and ___________ respectively. 1) Bharat stage III and IV 2) Bharat stage IV and III 3) Bharat stage II and III 4) Bharat stage III and III

140. Three basic steps are required for making GMO are: I. Identification of DNA with a desirable gene. II. Introduction of identified DNA into the host. III. Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny. What is the correct sequence of involvement? 1) II I III 2) I III II 3) II III I 4) I II III

141. During gel electrophoresis, which chemical is used for visualizing the fragmented DNA - 1) Ethylene bromide 2) NaBr 3) NaCl 4) Ethidium bromide

142. Select the incorrect match. Column-I Column-II 1) Taq polymerase Annealing of DNA 2) Chitinase Obtaining DNA by lysis of fungal cell 3) Exonucleases Remove nucleotides from the ends of DNA 4) DNA ligase Joining the fragments of DNA

143. Which of the following is not an invasive alien plant species in India? 1) Parthenium 2) Eichhornia 3) Lantana 4) Clarias

144. 190 countries pledged to achieve a significant reduction in the current rate of biodiversity loss at global levels by 2010 in on sustainable development held in 2002 in Johannesburg, South Africa 1) World summit 2) Earth summit 3) Kyoto Protocol 4) Montreal Protocol

145. The amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by the plants during photosynthesis is called 1) Primary productivity 2) Secondary productivity 3) Standing state 4) Standing crop

147. Which of the following describes the function of the skin bag which encloses the testis? 1) It synthesises and secretes testicular hormones called androgens. 2) It provides nutrition to the germ cells. 3) It maintains the low temperature of the testes necessary for spermatogenesis. 4) It is made up of a special tissue that helps in erection of the penis to facilitate insemination.

148. To determine the type of organic compounds found in a living organism, the living tissue is ground with the help of a mortar and a pestle in 1) Trichloroacetic acid 2) Trichloroamino acid 3) 2,4 -D 4) 2,4,5 -T

149. Which of the following polysaccharide is wrongly matched with its monomer? 1) Glycogenh Glucose 2) Chitin N-Acetyl glucosamine (NAG) 3) Inulin Mannose 4) Mucopolysaccharide Amino sugars and other chemically modified sugars

150. MTP Act was passed by the Indian Government in

1) 1963 2) 1971 3) 1975 4) 1986

146. Which of the following best explains the abiotic components in a pond ecosystem? 1) Water with dissolved inorganic substances 2) Water with dissolved inorganic and organic substances 3) Water with dissolved inorganic and organic substances and also the soil at the bottom 4) Water without any dissolved substances.

151. An enzyme catalyses a reaction by _________ activation energy of the reaction. 1) increasing 2) decreasing 3) first decreasing and then increasing 4) first increasing and then decreasing

152. Which of the following is the set of hormone-releasing IUDs? 1) Multiload 375, LNG - 20 2) Progestasert, LNG - 20 3) Progestasert, Lippes loop 4) LNG - 20, Lippes loop

153. A monocarpellary or multicarpellary, the syncarpous ovary develops into only one fruit. Such fruit is termed as 1) simple fruit 2) multiple fruit 3) composite fruit 4) aggregate fruit

154. Identify the placentation and select the options with suitable examples in which it is found?

1) Primrose, Dianthus 2) Marigold, Sunflower 3) Tomato, Primrose 4) Pea, China rose

157. If a superior competitor is removed from the area, there is always an increased population of the otherwise exploited species". Above given phenomenon is according to - 1) principle of competitive exclusion. 2) principle of resource partioning. 3) principle of competitive release. 4) More than one option is correct.

156. According to Bergmann's rule, the mammals from cold climate have 1) larger body and short extremities 2) larger body and extremities. 3) shorter body and extremities. 4) shorter body and larger extremities.

155. The outermost layer of endosperm in monocots made up of proteins is called 1) aleurone layer 2) scutellum 3) coleoptile 4) coleorrhizae

158. Which treaty is related to the control of the emission of ozone-depleting substances (ODS)? 1) Montreal Protocol (Canada) in 1987 and effective in 1989 2) The air (prevention and control of pollution) act, 1981 3) The environment (protection) act, 1986 4) Earth summit, 1992

159. Eutrophication is often seen in 1) deserts 2) fresh water lakes 3) ocean 4) mountains

160. T. W. Engelmann performed his experiments on which of the following? 1) Cladophora - a green algae 2) Cladophora - an aerobic bacteria 3) Chlorobium - a green algae 4) Chlorobium - an aerobic bacteria

161. If the light is made unavailable then the biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis 1) will immediately stop. 2) will stop after sometime. 3) will stop after few hours. 4) will have no effect and continue.

162. Correctly identify the energy-yielding step of glycolysis. 1) 2-phosphoglycerate to 2- phosphoenolpyruvate 2) Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate to PGAL and DHAP 3) Fructose to fructose-6-phosphate 4) Phosphoenolpyruvic acid to pyruvic acid

163. Select the correct statement about cellular respiration. 1) Most of the energy is liberated as heat. 2) Most of the energy is stored in the form of ADP. 3) All liberated energy is stored as ATP. 4) All liberated energy is stored as heat.

164. Which of the following curves corresponds to maximum growth? 1) Logistic curve 2) Exponential curve 3) Lag curve 4) Stationary phase

165. How many of the following auxins are synthetic? 1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) All

166. Which vitamin is added during curdling of milk? 1) Vitamin A 2) Vitamin E 3) Vitamin B1 4) Vitamin B12

167. During agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA moves 1) towards anode, as it is negatively charged. 2) towards anode, as it is positively charged. 3) towards cathode, as it is negatively charged. 4) towards cathode, as it is positively charged.

168. A syndrome is characterized by the furrowed tongue, characteristic palm crease, mental retardation and short-statured with a small round head. It is due to the anomaly of which of the following chromosome? 1) X 2) Y 3) 18th 4) 21st

169. Identify the number of Mendelian disorders from the given list: Sickle cell anaemia, Colour blindness, Thalassemia, Phenylketonuria, Cystic Fibrosis, Haemophilia, 1) Four 2) Six 3) Five 4) Three

170. Select the correct statement. 1) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show higher recombinations 2) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations 3) Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked ones 4) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations

171. Which set of cells in our body exhibit amoeboid movement? 1) RBC but not lymphocytes 2) RBC and lymphocytes 3) Macrophages but not leucocytes 4) Leucocytes and macrophages

172. Fertilized embryo sac is shown in the diagram. P and Q are results of __________ and _________, respectively.

1) double fertilization, syngamy 2) triple fusion, syngamy 3) syngamy, parthenocarpy 4) syngamy, triple fusion

173. Which of the following is a fibrous joint? 1) Saddle joint 2) Sutures joint 3) Ball and socket joint 4) Hinge joint

174. Which of the following plant can be propagated by leaf and bulbils respectively? 1) Bryophyllum, Agave 2) Citrus, Ginger 3) Bougainvillea, Potato 4) Potato, Bryophyllum

176. Find the odd one out about sickle-cell anemia. 1) It is an example of point mutation 2) Glutamate is replaced by valine 3) Change occurs in single base pair in gene for globulin chain. 4) It is an example of allosomal recessive mutation.

177. Zona glomerulosa is the region of which of the following gland? 1) Adrenal gland 2) Pituitary gland 3) Hypothalamus 4) Testis

178. In garden pea, starch synthesis is regulated by B and b alleles. Bb genotype produces: 1) Large sized round seeds 2) Small sized wrinkled seeds. 3) Intermediate sized round seeds 4) Large sized wrinkled seeds

179. Which of the following tissue is possessed by a blue whale which lies beneath the skin and helps during hibernation? 1) Adipose connective tissue 2) Mineralized connective tissue 3) Dense fibrous connective tissue 4) Areolar connective tissue

180. Select the incorrect statement about nucleolus. 1) It is membrane-less cell organelle. 2) It is active site for m-RNA synthesis. 3) These may be more than 1 in cells which are involved in active protein synthesis. 4) Found in nucleus

175. Identify the gland in which two lobes are interconnected with thin flap of connective tissue. 1) Hypothalamus 2) Parathyroid gland 3) Thyroid gland 4) Pineal gland

NTA ABHYAS NEET MOCK TEST – 65 Answers and Explanations

PHYSICS

1) 3 2) 4 3) 3 4) 2 5) 2 6) 4 7) 4 8) 1 9) 2 10) 4

11) 4 12) 4 13) 1 14) 2 15) 1 16) 4 17) 1 18) 2 19) 4 20) 2

21) 3 22) 1 23) 1 24) 4 25) 2 26) 1 27) 2 28) 1 29) 1 30) 3

31) 3 32) 1 33) 1 34) 4 35) 1 36) 1 37) 4 38) 3 39) 1 40) 1

41) 2 42) 3 43) 3 44) 3 45) 2

CHEMISTRY

46) 2 47) 2 48) 2 49) 2 50) 3 51) 2 52) 4 53) 1 54) 2 55) 1

56) 1 57) 2 58) 1 59) 3 60) 2 61) 4 62) 3 63) 2 64) 1 65) 3

66) 3 67) 1 68) 1 69) 1 70) 3 71) 1 72) 4 73) 4 74) 4 75) 2

76) 2 77) 2 78) 2 79) 2 80) 3 81) 1 82) 2 83) 1 84) 2 85) 1

86) 4 87) 3 88) 1 89) 1 90) 2

BIOLOGY

91) 2 92) 1 93) 3 94) 4 95) 3 96) 1 97) 2 98) 1 99) 1 100) 4

101) 4 102) 4 103) 1 104) 2 105) 3 106) 2 107) 1 108) 4 109) 2 110) 2

111) 3 112) 1 113) 4 114) 1 115) 4 116) 2 117) 4 118) 2 119) 2 120) 3

121) 1 122) 4 123) 2 124) 2 125) 2 126) 3 127) 1 128) 3 129) 4 130) 1

131) 2 132) 1 133) 1 134) 3 135) 3 136) 4 137) 1 138) 1 139) 1 140) 4

141) 4 142) 1 143) 4 144) 1 145) 1 146) 3 147) 3 148) 1 149) 3 150) 2

151) 2 152) 2 153) 1 154) 1 155) 1 156) 1 157) 3 158) 1 159) 2 160) 1

161) 2 162) 4 163) 1 164) 1 165) 2 166) 4 167) 1 168) 4 169) 2 170) 4

171) 4 172) 4 173) 2 174) 1 175) 3 176) 4 177) 1 178) 3 179) 1 180) 2

PHYSICS 1. According to Bohr's theory of the H atom, electrons can revolve only in those orbits

in which their angular momentum is an integral multiple of 2h

, where h is Plank's

constant.

Angular momentum = 22

hmvr

Hence, angular momentum is quantized. The energy of an electron in nth orbit of the hydrogen atom,

2RhcE Jn

Thus, it is obvious that the hydrogen atom has some characteristics of energy state. In fact, this is true for the atom of each element, i.e., each atom has its energy quantized. Hence, both energy and angular momentum are quantised.

2. For first line of Lyman series, 1 1n and 2 2n

2 21

1 1 1 1 311 2 4 4

RR R

For first line of Paschen Series 1 3n and 2 4n

2 21

1 1 1 1 1 73 4 9 16 144

RR R

1

2

7 4 7144 3 108

RR

3.

1 20mu mu mu

1 2v v v ----------------(i)

2 1

0v vev

2 1ev v v ----------------(ii) Add equation (i) & equation (ii)

22ev v v

2

12

v ev

2 12

v ev

4. Form conservation of linear momentum 1 1 2 2 0m v m v

112 2

2

18 6 912

mv v msm

KE 2 22 2

1 1 12 9 4862 2

m v J

5. Let x be increase in length of the spring. The particle would move in a circular path of radius l x . Centripetal force = force due to the spring

2m l x w kx 2

2

mw lxk mw

6. Kinetic energy 2 212

mv K as or 2 22mv as

Centripetal force 2 22mv as

R R

7. lRA

Mass = Volume × density (d=density) l ld

rm

2LRm

8. Wires having frame diameter, hence area of cross-section will be equal, 1 2. .,i e A A A

11 1.

lRA

and 22 2. lR

A

Since, both resistance are joined in series. Hence, 1 2eqR R R

1 21 2. .l l

A A

1 1 2 21

eqR l lA

1 21 1 2 2

1.eq

l ll l

A A

1 1 2 2

1 2eq

l ll l

9. Let is the phase difference between V and i 100 1tan 1

100LX wL

R R

4

Since this is an LR circuit, V will lead i The instantaneous current equation will be

0 sin 100i i t where 4

and 00

ViZ

0

0 2 2 22

200 2100 100 1

ViR wL

2 sin 1004

i t

10. Since, 8 4cos10 5

R IRZ IZ

(Also cos can never be greater than 1) Hence, (3) is wrong

Also C L C LIX IX X X Current will be leading In an LCR circuit,

2 22 26 12 8L C RV V V V 10V V , which is less than the voltage drop across the capacitor.

11. At 2

Rx , the electric field due to the ring is maximum.

The force on a dipole in a non-uniform field is dEF pdx

But at the point of maxima, 0dEdx

This means 0F 12. Force exerted by an electric dipole on a charge in inversely proportional to the cube

of distance of the charge from the centre of the dipole.

31Fr

3''

F rF r

32' 1

FF

'8FF

13. Gravitational potential on the surface of the shell due to the body of mass m is

bGmVR

Gravitational potential on the surface of the shell due to shell itself is sGMV

R

b sGV V V M mR

14. We know that, on going below the earth surface, g decreases, which is given by

' 1e

dg gR

----------------------(i)

where, d depth eR Radius of earth

At the centre of earth, ed R [ from equation (i)]

' 1 e

e

Rg gR

' 0g Hence, weight of the body at the centre,

'w mg 0m

0 15. All bodies emit radiation at all temperatures, governed by the Stefan’s law. 16. Since U constant

P RTM

P constant since is increasing, therefore V is decreasing.

17. 1 2273 20 293 , 273 10 283T K T K Coefficient of performance

2

1 2

283 283 28.3293 283 20

TT T

18. In perpendicular magnetic field Magnetic force = centripetal force

2mv mvqvB rr qB

For proton 1 1,q e m m For particle 2 22 , 4q e m m

1

2

24

r m er e m

1

2

12

rr

19. sinF qvB 0F , if 00 or 0180

20. Magnetic field 60, 512HB T s

Magnetic field 60B, 415HB T s

Let after reversing magnetic needle makes x oscillation/s

Magnetic field 60,HB B T sx

1 54Magnetic field

H

H

B BTB

9 5

16 60 /H

H H

B BBB x B

63x 21. Time taken by the body to reach the point A is 1t (During upward journey)

The body crosses this point again (during the downward journey) after 2t , i.e., the body takes the time 2 1t t to come again at the point A. So, the time taken by the body to reach at point B (a maximum height)

2 11 2

t tt t

[ Time of ascending = Time of descending] 1 2

2t tt

So, maximum height 212

H gt

=2

1 212 2

t tg

21 22

4t tg

22. 21

12

s t gt (downwards) and 22

12

s t ut gt (upwards)

Distance between the two stones will be

1 2s s t s t ut Therefore, s t graph will be a straight line passing through origin.

23. Maximum friction 0.6 10 1 6m g N

Pseudo force 5ma N So required friction force is only 5 N although maximum friction force available is 6N

24. As the springs are light in weight, therefore, the tension in both springs will be the same. So, both springs will show the same reading 8 kg.

25. 234 238 2341 123892 91 9292 U U U U

Number of particle = 1 Number of particle = 2

26. Balancing atomic number and mass number on both sides 10 n (neutron)

27. When springs are in series, 1 2

1 2

k kkk k

For first spring, 11

2 mtk

For second spring, 22

2 mtk

2 2

2 2 2 1 21 2

1 2 1 2

4 4 4 k km mt t mk k k k

or

2

1 22 21 2

1 2

2m k k

t tk k

or 2 2 21 2t t T

28. 61 10 sin 100 0.550

xy t

62 10 cos 100 50

xy t

610 sin 100 50 2xt

610 sin 100 1.5750xt

using cos sin2

x x

The phase difference 1.57 0.5 1.07

or using sin cos .We get the same res2

x

29. Here, max 3K eV Maximum kinetic energy is given by:

max 0K eV

03eV e V

03V V Stopping potential 0 3V V

30. The value of photocurrent depends on the intensity of incident light. Hence, when the intensity of incident light increases, then the value of photocurrent is increased. i.e., the intensity of light I photocurrent

From graph

1 2I I

31. The surface area of the liquid drop is 24A R . Its surface energy is E When the drop splits in 512 droplets, the surface area of each droplet is 24A r Total surface area 2

2 512 4A r

The volume of the bigger drop is 343

R and the volume of small droplets is 345123

r

3 34 45123 3 8

RR r r

22

2 1512 4 512 4 88RA r A

Surface energy .E AT (T is surface tension and A is area) 2 1

0 1 1

. 8 8

.nE A T A

E A T A

8nE E 32. In freefall the effective acceleration due to gravity is zero and hence the upthrust is

zero. 33.

velocity of light in vaccumvelocity of light in medium

n ,

the velocity of light in vacuum 8 13 10 ms

quartz glycerine42;3

n n

quartzrel

glycerine

2 34 / 3 2

nn

Shift rel

1 11 18 1 6cm3 / 2

t

34. Laser is a process by which we get a light beam which is coherent, highly monochromatic and almost perfectly parallel. A beam of laser can go to the Moon and return to the Earth without much loss of intensity.

35. v t L

-----------------(1)

Here, t time of flight 2 sinug

f iL L L

about the point of projection.

sin range 0mu

2sin sin 2mu ug

3 2sin sin 2 sin 22 sin 2

avmu muL g

t g u

36. Here, 0 0; 400 rad;t=10sw

Now, 20

12

w t t -----------------(i)

21400 0 10 102

or 2400 2

10

or 28rad s

37. Drift velocity dIv

nAe

7 5 54 7 4

d electron e h

d h ehole

v l nv l n

38. Voltage gain Output voltageInput voltage

Voltage gainout inV V Current gain×Resistanceout inV V

30 1010 100 11in

i

RV VR

39. Let T be increase in the temperature of brass wire. Then the length of brass wire. '

1 1 11l l T

'2 2 21l l T

' '2 1 1 2 1 1 2 2l l l l l l T

' '2 1l l is constant at all temperature

1 1 2 2l l

40. 2A l 10l A m

2A lA l

12

l Al A

12

Al lA

1 0.2 10 0.012 100

l m

41. In Young’s double slit experiment, a fringe width Dd

Given, that 1

2 1 12 Dx xd

--------------(i)

1Where 600nm

Also, 22 1

Dx x kd

(Where k is the number of fringes)

Dividing (i) and (ii)

1

2

121k

12 600 18400

k

The number of fringes observed now = 18

42. 1.22 1

2 sind

n NA

Limit of resolution d is decreases if NA of microscope increased.

43. Given, frequency f= 500Hz, velocity v = 350 m/s, Phase 060

By the formula, 350 0.7500

v mf

Also we know that 2

x

0.860180 2

0.12 metre 12 cm 44. The direction of propagation of the electromagnetic wave is always perpendicular to

the plane in which E

and B

lies. So the direction is along the direction of E B

45. sinxuF x yx

,

sinyuF x yy

0, /4

1sin2xF x y

,

0, /4

1sin2yF x y

12

F i j

Chemistry Hints and Solutions

46. Probability density region defines the electron density around the nucleus. Nodal surfaces are defined as the region of absence of electron i.e. the region where probability density function reduces to zero.

47. The structure (ii) is more correct as in lone pair of electrons are assigned at equatorial position which means electronic repulsion will be less here so it will be more stable also. In case of trigonal pyramidal geometry lone pairs are place at

equatorial positions.

48.

49. Lewisite is a poisonous gas having formula 2CHCl CHAsCl which can be prepared

as follows

50. It is the type of force between the polar molecule and a non-polar molecule. Dipole

of polar molecule induces dipole on the electrically neutral molecule.

51. 3 3 2 1IO x

5x 4 4 2 1IO x

7x 1 0KI x

2 0I 0x

52. Hydrogen gas is not released when metal reacts with 3HNO . This is because 3HNO

is a strong oxidising agent and it immediately oxidises the H ion in hydrogen to form water, while its 3NO ion gets reduced.

3 3 2 224 2 2Zn HNO Zn NO NO H O

53. The vapour pressure of ammonia at room temperature is very high and hence the ammonia will evaporate unless the vapour pressure is decreased. Cooling decreases, the vapour pressure so that the liquid remains in the same state. Hence, the bottle is cooled before opening.

54. Sodium chloride has a crystalline structure made up of Na+ and Cl— ions but NaCl does not conduct electricity in solid state as due to electrostatic force of attraction, the ions do not move when electric current is applied in solid state.

55. As gH E n RT For (i) gn is negative (-1/2) so H E

For (ii) gn = 1 102 2

As here gn is positive (+1/2) so H E 56. The enzyme cellulase present in the stomach of cattle break cellulose into D-

glucose and is easily digested. But, it is not present in the human body hence cellulose cannot be broken down into D-glucose in human body and cannot act as food for human beings.

57.

58. Primary valency is ionisable while secondary valency is non-ionisable according to

Werner's theory of coordination compounds. 59. Since the water gas mixture (CO + H2) is used in hydrocarbon synthesis, it is also

called synthesis gas or syngas. The process of production of syngas from coal is known as coal gasification.

60. Effective nuclear charge is the net positive charge experienced by the electrons from the nucleus. Due to presence of electrons in the innermost shells the electrons in the outermost shell do not experience the full positive charge from the nucleus. This is known as shielding of the outermost shell electrons from the nucleus by the innermost shell electrons.

61.

62. Let relative abundance of 37 %Cl x then relative abundance of 35 100 %Cl x

Average atomic mass 37 100 35

35.5100

x x

37 3500 35 3550x x x=25 So, 100-x=75 Thus, the ratio of 37Cl and 35Cl is

: 100 25: 75x x 1: 3

63. Photo chlorination of methane occurs in three steps i.e., initiation, propagation and termination. Chain propagating step is

4 3. . .Cl CH CH HCl

64. SCN and 2NO are ambidentate ligands since they have more than one donor atoms to attach to the central metal atom.

65. Soda lime is a mixture of NaOH and CaO. Methane cannot be obtained by Wurtz reaction. The lowest hydrocarbon prepared by Wurtz reaction is ethane. neo-Pentane yields only one monochloro product.

66. The enzymatic activity is destroyed at about 70°C. The favourable temperature range for enzymatic activity is 25 — 37°C. Rest other statements are correct regarding enzyme catalyst.

67. the correct IUPAC name of the following compound is 3 45Cr NH NCS ZnCl

penta ammine isothiocyanato chromium (III) tetra chlorozincate (II) 68. Higher the value of KH , lower is the solubility of gas in the liquid. The correct

order of solubility of these gases is as follows 2 2 2144.97 76.48 69.16 34.86

He N H O

KH = 144.97,76.48,69.16,34.86 kbar

69. 2 5 2 2122

N O NO O

rate 2 5 2 21 2

2d N O d NO d O

dt dt dt

Rate of disappear of 2

2 0.04d NO

NOdt

2 5 212

d N O d NOdt dt

0.04 0.022

70. The alloy of metal with mercury is known as amalgam and the process of formation of an amalgam is called amalgamation.

71. Ammonia is used in detection of Cu2+ ion because aqueous solution of NH3 reacts with Cu2+ ion to form deep blue coloured complex.

22

33 4Deep blue

4aq aq aqCu NH Cu NH

72. Elements of group 15-17 form electron-rich hydrides. Like NH3, PH3, H2S Electron-deficient hydrides act as Lewis acids or electron acceptors Like BH3, BeH2 Ionic hydrides are crystalline, non-volatile and non-conducting in solid state also. Hence only D statement is wrong.

73.

% of 12 0.15 100 20%44 0.2

C

% of 2 0.12 100 6.66%18 0.2

H

% of 100 20 6.66 73.34%O 74. it is a strong Lewis acid. As a strong Lewis acid, its catalytic properties are used for

suchre actions as alkylation of aromatic hydrocarbons, polymerization of phenolic and epoxy resins as well as other isomerization, esterification, and condensation reactions.

75. Boiling point of the given compounds decreases in the following order as molecular weight decreases magnitude of Van der Waal's forces also decreases. CH3CH2CH2CH2Br > CH3CH2CH2Br > CH3CH2Br > CH3Br

76. KHCO3 is too soluble and cannot be separated by fractional crystallization like NaHCO3.

77. Column-I Column-II p) Bacteriostatic (i) Inhibit growth of microbes q) Bactericidal (ii) Kill microbes r) Narrow spectrum antibodies (iii) Effective against single disease s) Receptors (iv) Crucial to body's communication process

78. In SN1 reaction, rate of substitution depends on the concentration of substrate only and not upon nucleophile. In case of SN1 reaction there is recemization and no inversion. SN1 reaction will be faster, if carbocation formed is more stable.

79. Various industrial chemicals like polychlorinated biphenyls is (PCBs) which are used as cleansing solvent, detergents and fertilisers add to list of water pollutants. PCBs are suspected to be carcinogenic.

80. For a salt of a weak acid and strong base pH 41 17 log1 10 log 0.01 82 2

81. The C — 0 — H bond angle in alcohols is slightly less than the tetrahedral angle whereas the C — 0 — C bond angle in ether is slightly greater because of repulsion between the two bulky R groups.

82. When acetone and chloroform are mixed together, a hydrogen bond is formed between them which increases intermolecular interactions. Hence, A — B interactions are stronger than A — A and A — B interactions.

83. 3+ 2-

2 4 3 4

o o oAl SO Al SO

Λ =2Λ +3Λ

2-2 4 3 4

3

o oAl SOo 2 1

Al

Λ -3Λ 858 3 160Λ = 189

2 2SO S cm mol

84. 5 3 2g g gPCl PCl Cl 0.4 0.3 0.2

0.6cQ

0.15cK since c cQ K reaction will proceed in backward direction. 85.

86. Thermoplastics do not have any cross-linkages hence they are soft and can be

remoulded after heating. 87. More the number of methyl groups (electron releasing) lesser will be the acidity.

Hence the reactivity order towards sodium metal will be as follows tertiary (i) < secondary (ii) < primary (iii).

88. Aldehydes and ketones form insoluble crystalline compounds with NaHSO3 which can be filtered. These on distillation with saturated solution of Na2CO3 again give the aldehydes and ketones.

89. II is not an acceptable canonical structure because nitrogen has 10 valence electrons in the structure. Anilinium ion exists in two canonical structures only which are I and III.

90. Compound II is most symmetrical because it has both -CH3 groups and Cl atoms para to each other. therefore, it fits in the crystal lattice better than the other two isomers and hence it has high melting point.

BIOLOGY 91. Hint : Prions are discovered by Prusiner, these are smallest infectious protein

particle which lacks nucleic acid. Prions cause diseases only in animals, no plant diseases caused by prions are reported. A prion is a type of protein that can trigger normal proteins in the brain to fold abnormally. The most common form of prion disease that affects humans is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, where the prions attack nerve cells and produces the neurodegenerative brain disease.

92. Hint : Dinosaurs went extinct about 65 million years ago (at the end of the Cretaceous Period), after living on Earth for about 165 million years. The Mesozoic Era has three periods, the Triassic, Jurassic and Cretaceous. The first period is Triassic where the first dinosaur got originated around 225 MYA, the Jurassic period had a giant dinosaur and was present around 175 MYA and the last period is Cretaceous where the zenith of the dinosaur was observed around 125MYA and got extinct at around 65MYA.

93. Hint : Zinc is a microelement required to plants for the synthesis of Indole acetic acid (IAA) a universal natural auxin, proteins, and RNA. Copper is also a microelement involved in the electron transport, chlorophyll synthesis and maintenance of carbohydrate/nitrogen balance. Boron, a microelement is required for the formation of pollen tube, root nodule formation, cell elongation and differentiation.

94. Hint : Natural selection of Neo-Darwinism operates through differential reproduction instead of survival of fittest. According to differential reproduction, best-adapted organisms reproduce at a higher rate and produce more offsprings than those which are less adapted. Three types of natural selection is observed and they are: 1. Stabilizing selection 2. Directional selection 3. Disruptive selection Stabilizing selection is operating when the extreme phenotypes contribute fewer offsprings to next generation than those at the average phenotype. When selection acts to eliminate both extremes from an array of phenotypes. The frequency of the intermediate type which is already the most common, is increased.

95. Hint : The number of substrate molecules changed per minute by a molecule or enzyme is called turn over number. The higher the turn-over number, the more efficient an enzyme is. It depends upon the number of active points present over an enzyme, precise collisions between reactants and the rate of removal of end products.

96. Hint : Darwin's finches, named due to their role in Charles Darwin's theories on evolution, are the most renowned land birds of the Galapagos. Fascinated with diversity found among the thirteen species and the speed with which they evolved from a common ancestor to adapt to the varied supply of food available on individual islands, Darwin discovered that these adaptations mainly showed up in the shape and size of beaks.

97. Hint : Rhizopus and Mucor are members of Phycomycetes. Aspergillus, Saccharomyces (Yeast), Morchella (Morels) and Truffles are Ascomycetes fungi. Agaricus (Mushroom) is basidiomycetes fungi. Morchella commonly called as morels and also the truffles are edible ascomycetes fungi and Agaricus is edible basidiomycetes fungi. Colletotrichum and Alternaria are Deutromycetes.

98. Hint : Protein is a macronutrient and major biomolecule required for the development and repair of all body cells. Protein deficiency leads to a disorder of blood coagulating and the person with moderate protein deficiency is at risk of deep vein thrombosis. Marasmus, Kwashiorkor, impaired mental problem, hair loss and weak immune system are all the symptoms of low protein in the body.

99. Hint : Plasmids are extrachromosomal self-replicating DNA present in bacteria. Plasmids are of different types on the basis of different types of genes present. The most common plasmid called R- plasmid carries the antibiotic-resistant gene and

are commonly used as vector in genetic engineering to transfer gene of interest into host organism. Any plasmid becomes expressable when it contains a promoter region. Promoter acts as a regulatory region allowing for the expression of protein.

100. Hint : IgM exists as a pentamer and each molecule possesses 10 antigen-binding sites. IgA is abundant in tears, saliva, breast milk, and in secretions of the gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts. IgM is frequently seen in the immune response to antigenically complex organisms like viruses and bacteria. It also activate complement system.

101. Hint : Bacteria are important decomposers in nature. Type play an important role in the recycling of nutrients by causing the breakdown of dead organic matter thus plays an important role in the carbon cycle. The most important bacteria involved in the carbon cycle is Pseudomonas denitrificans.

102. Hint : (i) Bergman's rule: Warm-blooded animals (birds and mammals) have larger body size in cold climate than in hotter areas. (ii) Allen's rule: Extremities (legs, ears, tail, mouth) of warm blooded animals become smaller in colder areas as compared to animals of warmer areas. (iii) Rancher's rule: In a colder climate, birds possess narrow and acuminate wings as compared to broader wings of birds found in warmer areas. (iv) Jordan's Rule: As the temperature is lowered, some fishes possess a larger size with a larger number of vertebrae.

103. Hint : Gymnosperm word is derived from greek word 'Gynnno" means naked and 'sperma' which means naked , thus gymnosperms are naked seed bearing plants in which seed are not present inside fruits, as gymnosperms are non flowering plants in which ovules are borne directly on mega sporophyll. Thus ovules remains exposed before and after fertilization.

104. Hint : Erythropoietin is a glycoprotein secreted mainly by the kidney in response to cellular hypoxia; it stimulates red blood cell production (erythropoiesis) in the bone marrow. The interstitial fibroblasts are produced in the kidney are present associated with the peritubular capillary and proximal convoluted tubule.

105. Hint : Rate of transpiration increases with increase in temperature, but at very high-temperature transpiration decreases due to closure of stomata. Light promotes the opening of stomata thus increases transpiration. Increases in humidity increases the opening of stomata but decrease diffusion of water vapors out of stomata. Increase in wind speed increase transpiration but very high wind velocity causes closure of stomata.

106. Hint : Pancreozymin is also known as Cholecystokinin which results in contraction of the gall bladder and releases stored bile into the intestine. The gallbladder is a pear-shaped, hollow structure located under the liver and on the right side of the abdomen. Its primary function is to store and concentrate bile, a yellow-brown digestive enzyme produced by the liver. Cholecystokinin is secreted by cells of the upper small intestine. It is secreted when hydrochloric acid, amino acids, or fatty acids enters to the duodenum.

107. Hint : Fungi and algae reproduce asexually by the production of spores and are often termed mitospores. The mitospores are produced through mitotic cell division in the sporangium and in fungi these spores are called conidia; in algae, they are called zoospores.

108. Hint : The macrophage's main role is to phagocytize bacteria and damaged tissue, and they also debride damaged tissue by releasing proteases.

109. Hint : During fertilization pollen tube enters the ovule through three pathways, when pollen tube enters the ovule through micropyle it is called porogamy, this is most common pathway. If pollen tube enters the ovule through integuments it is called mesogamy and when pollen tube enters through the chalazal end it is called chalazogamy.

110. Hint : The epimysium is the dense connective tissue that surrounds the entire muscle tissue. The perimysium is the connective tissue that surrounds each bundle of muscle fibers. The endomysium is the connective tissue that covers each single muscle fiber or myofiber or muscle cell.

111. Hint : When diploid cell of nucellus divides to form diploid embryo sac which contains diploid egg cell from which embryo develops without fertilization or gametic fusion than it is called apospory. This mechanism of seed formation without gametic fusion or fertilization is called apomixis. It is commonly present in members of Asteraceae and grasses.

112. Hint : If the columnar or cuboidal cells bear cilia on their free surface they are called ciliated epithelium. Their function is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the epithelium. They are mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles and fallopian tubes.

113. Hint : Recombination takes place at the pachytene stage and reduction of chromosomes takes place in anaphase-1 stage

114. Hint : Members of Phylum Aschelminthes are commonly called roundworms. These are either free-living or endoparasites found in animals including human beings. Roundworms are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and pseudocoelomate animals with organ level of organisation. Examples: Ascaris, Ancylostoma

115. Hint : Adenohypophysis or the anterior pituitary produces gonadotropins like LH and FSH, which triggers the gonads to produce the sex hormones progesterone, estrogen and testosterone. In females, progesterone, estrogen are responsible for controlling the menstrual cycle and also are responsible for the secondary sexual characters during puberty. In males, the testosterone produced by Leydig cells influences the spermatogenesis and secondary sexual characters.

116. Hint : Diaminopimelic acid (DAP) is an amino acid, a carboxy derivative of lysine. It is characteristically present in the cell walls of some gram-negative bacteria within the peptide linkages of NAM-NAG.

117. Hint : Arthropoda is the largest phylum with more than 1.1 million species followed by Mollusca (90000+ species), Aschelminthes (80000+ species) and Chordata (60000+ species). Hint : Structure of polynucleotide chain DNA = Polynucleotide. Nucleotide = Nitrogenous base + Pentose sugar + Phosphate group. As nitrogenous base and pentose sugar when linked, are also termed as nucleoside, so we can also say that : Nucleotide = Nucleoside + Phosphate group. Linkages in a nucleotide molecule:

118. Nitrogenous base --(N-glycosidic linkage)--Pentose sugar --(Phosphodiester linkage)-Phosphate group. Phosphate group is linked to 5' — OH of a nucleoside through the phosphoester linkage.

119. Hint : Having completed the first meiotic division, these cells give rise to daughter cells called secondary spermatocytes, which divide to complete meiosis to form round spermatids.

120. The round spermatids do not divide but undergo a complex metamorphosis, called spermiogenesis, to become spermatozoa that are released into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule by a process called spermiation.

121. Hint : Besides flagella, Pili and Fimbriae are also surface structures of the bacteria but do not play a role in motility. The pili are elongated tubular structures made of a special protein. The fimbriae are small bristle like fibres sprouting out of the cell. In some bacteria, they are known to help attach the bacteria to rocks in streams and also to the host tissues.

122. Hint : Parenchymatous tissue is made up of living cells, it has thin primary wall made up of cellulose and has intercellular spaces. In aquatic plants these

intercellular spaces are large and helps in providing buoyancy to plant which helps the plant in floating. Such modified parenchyma is called aerenchyma.

123. Hint : Vascular bundles having cambium in between xylem and phloem are called open bundles, due to cambium they carries secondary growth. Vascular bundles which lacks cambium are called closed bundles. Open bundles occurs in dicot and closed bundles occurs in monocots.

124. Hint : Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of diaphragm which increases the volume of thoracic chamber in the antero-posterior axis. The contraction of external intercostal muscles and relaxation of the internal intercostal muscles, lifts up the ribs (upwards and outwards) and the sternum causing an increase in the volume of the thoracic chamber in the dorso-ventral axis. The overall increase in the thoracic volume causes a similar increase in pulmonary volume. An increase in pulmonary volume decreases the intra-pulmonary pressure to less than the atmospheric pressure which forces the air from outside to move into the lungs, i.e., inspiration. Relaxation of the diaphragm and the inter-costal muscles returns the diaphragm and sternum to their normal positions and reduce the thoracic volume and thereby the pulmonary volume. This leads to an increase in intra-pulmonary pressure to slightly above the atmospheric pressure causing the expulsion of air from the lungs, i.e., expiration.

125. Hint : Phylogeny is the study of evolutionary history of organism. In phylogentic classification both morphological character and evolutionary history of organism is considered in classification. First phylogenetic classification was proposed by Eichler. It is most important classification which is used for classification.

126. Hint : Residual volume (RV) It is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximum forceful expiration. In other words, it is the volume of air that cannot be expelled from the lungs. This volume remains unchanged regardless of the lung volume at which expiration was started. Inspiratory Capacity (IC = TV + IRV) It is the total volume of air that a person can inspire after a normal expiration. Expiratory Capacity (EC = TV + ERV) It is the total volume of air that a person can expire after a normal inspiration. Functional Residual Capacity (FRC = ERV + RV) It refers to the volume of air that remains in the lungs after a normal expiration. Vital Capacity (VC = ERV + TV + IRV) It is the maximum volume of air that a person can inspire after a forced expiration. Or It is the maximum volume of air a person can expire after a forced inspiration. Total Lung Capacity (TLC = ERV + TV + IRV + RV = VC + RV) It refers to the total volume of air that can be accommodated in the lungs at the end of a forced inspiration.

127. Hint : Red tide is caused due to dinoflagellate Gonyaulax. During favourable season Gonyaulax multiplies rapidly forming huge mass which gives red colour to water known as red tide. It secretes toxic substance called saxitoxin in water which results death of large number of marine fishes.

128. Hint : The oxyntic cells or parietal cells of the gastric glands secrete HCI. This HCI converts pepsinogen and prorennin to pepsin and rennin respectively.

129. Hint : Lion, Goat and Rat show oestrous cycle. Lizard is oviparous. Human, Apes and Monkeys show menstrual cycle.

130. Hint : The optic nerves leave the eye and the retinal blood vessels enter it at a point medial to and slightly above the posterior pole of the eye ball. Photoreceptor cells are not present in that region and hence it is called the blind spot. At the posterior pole of the eye lateral to the blind spot, there is a yellowish pigmented spot called macula lutea with a central pit called the fovea. The fovea is a thinned-out portion

of the retina where only the cones are densely packed. It is the point where the visual acuity (resolution) is the greatest.

131. Hint : The nucleus of the functional megaspore divides mitotically to form two nuclei which move to the opposite poles, forming the 2-nucleate embryo sac. Two more sequential mitotic nuclear divisions result in the formation of the 4-nucleate and later the 8-nucleate stages of the embryo sac. It is of interest to note that these mitotic divisions are strictly free nuclear, that is, nuclear divisions are not followed immediately by cell wall formation. After the 8-nucleate stage, cell walls are laid down leading to the organisation of the typical female gametophyte or embryo sac.

132. Hint : An area of cerebral cortex that lies away from the main areas that are concerned with the reception of sensory impulses and the start of motor impulses but is linked to them by many neurons known as association fibres. The areas of association are thought to be responsible for the elaboration of the information received by the primary sensory areas and its correlation with the information fed in from memory and from other brain areas. They are thus responsible for the maintenance of many higher mental activities.

133. Hint : Cellular type of endosperm is observed in Capsella (Brassicaceae) in which of karyokinesis is followed by cytokinesis forming solid cellular endosperm. In coconut, nuclear endosperm is formed in which karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis initially thus liquid nuclear endosperm is formed. The white kernal is the cellular endosperm.

134. Hint : Blood vessels are poorly developed and open into space (haemocoel). Visceral organs located in the haemocoel are bathed in blood (haemolymph). The haemolymph is composed of colourless plasma and haemocytes. Heart of cockroach consists of elongated muscular tube lying along mid dorsal line of thorax and abdomen. It is differentiated into funnel shaped chambers with ostia on either side. Blood from sinuses enter heart through ostia and is pumped anteriorly to sinuses again.

135. Hint : Interspecific hybridisation: In this method, male and female animals of two different related species are mated. In some cases, the progeny may combine desirable features of both the parents, and may be of considerable economic value, e.g., the mule. The given picture is that of a mule.

136. Hint : Mulatthi (Glycirrhizae) member of Fabaceae, Rauwolfia is a member of Apocynaceae family and Belladonna (Atropa belladonna) member of Solanaceae family are all medicinal plants. Indigofera commonly called Nile is used to obtain dye.

137. Hint : Sex determining mechanism in human is of XY type. Out of 23 pairs of chromosome present, 22 pairs are exactly same in male and females, these are called as autosomes. Two X chromosomes are present in the females, whereas the presence of an X and Y chromosome are determinants of male characteristics. 44 + XO - Turner's syndrome, 44 + XY -Normal human male, 44 + XX - Normal human female

138. Hint : Sewage mixed with bacteria and fungi that thrive and multiply in it and lead to its oxidation. Activation reduces the organic pollution that raw sewage otherwise will impose on the body of water to which it is discharged. Once the BOD of sewage or waste water is reduced significantly, the effluent is passed into a setting tank where the bacterial flocs undergo sedimentation and the sediment is thus called activated sludge.

139. Hint : Bharat Stage II or Euro-II norms (both are almost equivalent) are no more applicable in any of the cities of India. 2 Wheelers

Bharat Stage III

Throughout the country since October 2010

3 Wheelers

Bharat Stage III

Throughout the country since October 2010

4 Wheelers

Bharat Stage III

Throughout the country since October 2010 except 13 mega cities

Bharat Stage IV

13 Mega cities (Delhi and NCR, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Surat, Kanpur, Agra, Lucknow and Sholapur) Since April, 2010

140. Hint : For genetically modifying an organism a specific desired gene is to be isolated, this desired gene should be introduced in specific host cell where it can multiply and get transferred to all the progeny cells.

141. Hint : In gel electrophoresis the fragmented DNA can be visualized only after staining the DNA with a compound known as ethidium Bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation, as pure DNA fragments cannot be seen in visible light without staining.

142. Hint : First step in RDT (Recombinant DNA technology) is lysis of the cell from which the DNA has to be obtained. For this purpose various enzymes are being used : A. Lysozyme for bacteria. B. Cellulase for plant cell. C. Chitinase for fungal cell. DNA polymerase used in PCR is Taq polymerase which is isolated from a bacterium, Thermus aquaticus, which remain active during the high temperature induced denaturation of double stranded DNA. The enzyme extends the primers using the nucleotides provided in the reaction and the genomic DNA as template. If the process of replication of DNA is repeated many times, the segment of DNA can be amplified to approximately billion times, i.e., 1 billion copies are made

143. Hint : When alien species are introduced unintentionally or deliberately for whatever purpose some of them turns invasive and cause decline or extinction of indigenous species. The environmental damage caused and the threat posed to our native species by invasive species like carrot grass (Parthenium), Lantana and water hyacinth (Eichhornia). The recent illegal introduction of the African catfish Clarias gariepinus for aquaculture purposes is posing a threat to the indigenous catfishes in our rivers.

144. Hint : The earth summit was held in Rio de Janerio in 1992, called upon all nations to take appropriate measures for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of its benefits. In a follow up the world summit, 190 countries pledge their commitment to achieve by 2010.

145. Hint : Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the standing crop. The standing crop is measured as the mass of living organism (biomass) or the number in a unit area. The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh weight or dry weight. Measurement of biomass in terms of dry weight is more accurate. Primary production is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis.

146. Hint : Pond is a shallow water body which is having all the four basic components of an ecosystem. - Abiotic components : Water with dissolved inorganic and organic substances and the rich soil deposited at the bottom of the pond. - Biotic components involve : A. Autotrophs- Phytoplankton, some algae and the floating, submerged and marginal plants found at the edges. B. Consumers- Zooplanktons, the free swimming and bottom dwelling forms. C. Decomposers- Fungi, bacteria and flagellates (usually abundant at the sea floor). - Pond is a self-sustainable unit.

147. Hint : The male gonads, the testes, lie outside the abdomen within the scrotum, which is a sac-like structure derived from the skin and fascia of the abdominal wall. The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes (2-2.5°C lower than the normal internal body temperature) necessary for spermatogenesis.

148. Hint : 2,4 -D and 2,4,5 -T are auxin based pesticides. 149. Hint : Polysaccharides

- Long chain polymers of monosaccharides. - Present in acid insoluble fraction. - Examples : 1. Cellulose : It is a homopolymer with glucose as unit. Cellulose is found in cell wall of plants, algae, etc. 2. Starch : It is also a homopolymer of glucose. It serve as store house of energy in plant tissues. 3. Glycogen : It is a homopolymer of glucose. It serve as store house of energy in animals. 4. Inulin : It is a homopolymer of fructose. 5. Chitin : It is a complex homopolysaccharide made up of N-acetyl glucosamine (NAG). It is found in the exoskeleton of arthropods and cell wall of fungi. 6. Mucopolysaccharides : These are complex polysaccharides and heteropolymer of amino sugars and other chemically modified sugars.

150. Hint : Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, with a view to increase upper gestation limit for termination of pregnancy under certain conditions and to strengthen access to comprehensive abortion care, under strict conditions, without compromising service and quality of safe abortion.

151. Hint : Enzyme catalyses a reaction by lowering down the activation energy of the reaction so that the reaction can occur at normal cellular condition. Activation energy is lowered by using binding energy which is released when substrate binds to active site of enzyme to form ES complex. Thus ES complex formation is very much necessary for enzyme catalysed reaction to occur.

152. Hint : Types of IUDs : 1. Non-medicated IUDs - Lippes loop. 2. Copper releasing IUDs - CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375. 3. Hormone releasing IUDs - Progestasert, LNG-20.

153. Hint : When a single fruit develops from single flower having one or many syncarcpous ovary then it is called simple fruit. It can be dry or fleshy depending on the nature of fruit wall called pericarp.

154. Hint : Placentation (Arrangement of ovules in the ovary) 1. Marginal

Placenta forms a ridge along the ventral suture of the ovary and the ovules are borne in 2 rows on this ridge

Pea, Gram

2. Axile Placenta is axial making the ovary multilocular and the ovules are attached to it.

Tomato, Lemon, China rose

3. Parietal Ovules are attached to the inner part of ovary. Ovary is one chambered but later on becomes 2 chambered due to the development of false septum.

Mustard, Argemone

4. Basal Single ovule is attached to the base of ovary. Sunflower, Marigold

5. Free central

Ovules are borne on central axis and the septa or partitions are absent.

Primrose, Dianthus

155. Hint : The outermost layer of the endosperm of monocots is called aleurone layer. It consists of enzymatic proteins which helps in the breakdown of stored food and supply it to embryo during the germination of seeds. Ploidy of cells of aleurone layer is 3n.

156. Hint : Bergmann's rule states that organisms at higher latitudes should be larger and thicker than those closer to the equator to better conserve heat, and Allen's rule states that they will have shorter and thicker limbs at higher latitudes.

157. Hint : According to Colonell's elegant field experiment, in intertidal are of Scottland Barnacle Balanus are competitively superior species and predominates in the area

and Barnacle Catharmalus is competitively inferior species and in confined to a narrow zone in that area. Removal of superior Balanus led to rapid rise in the population of inferior Cathamalus this is called competitive release.

158. Hint : Recognising the deleterious affects of ozone depletion, and international treaty, known as the Montreal Protocol, was signed at Montreal (Canada) in 1987 (effective in 1989) to control the emission of ozone depleting substances. Subsequently many more efforts have been made and protocols have laid down definite roadmaps for developed and developing countries.

159. Hint : Eutrophication is often seen in fresh water lakes. The main causes of eutrophication in these water systems are sediments and thermal stratification, with agricultural run-off from fertilizers and manure, containing nitrates and phosphates and discharge of partially treated or untreated sewages or phosphate containing detergents.

160. Hint : Engelmann experimented on Cladophora, he illuminated Cladophora with white light after passing through prism. He used aerobic bacteria to detect oxygen evolution site, and observed that maximum bacteria accumulated in blue and red region of the spectrum, indicating that maximum photosynthesis occurs in this region.

161. Hint : Effect of Light on Photosynthesis - Effect of light is categorized under light quality, light intensity and the duration of exposure to light. - At low light intensities, there is a linear relationship between incident light and CO2 fixation rates. - At higher light intensities, the rate gradually does not show further increase as other factors become limiting. - Light saturation occurs at 10% of the full sunlight. Thus, light is rarely a limiting factor in nature (except for plants in shade or in dense forests). - Incident light beyond a point causes the breakdown of chlorophyll and a decrease in photosynthesis.

162. Hint : ATP is synthesizes in reaction when phosphoenol pyruvic acid is converted to pyruvic acid, this direct synthesis of ATP is called transphosphorylation or substrate level phosphorylation.

163. Hint : It is the mechanism of breakdown of food materials within the cell to release energy and the trapping of this energy for synthesis of ATP. Most of the liberated energy goes out as heat while remaining part is utilized to form ATP for future use.

164. Hint : Most living organism under natural condition show sigmoid curve, in which there is initial slow growth called lag phase, followed by log phase or exponential phase and then stationary phase is observed.

165. Hint : Indole acetic acid (IAA) and Indole butyric acid are natural auxin synthesized in plants. Naphthalene acetic acid and 2,4 dichlorophenoxy acetic acid are synthetic auxin. Auxin is mainly synthesized at shoot apex as light is necessary for the synthesis of auxin.

166. Hint : Conversion of milk to curd is done by Lactobacillus which cause coagulation of milk and partial digestion of milk protein casein. It add vitamin B12 and increases nutritional quality of curd. Curd is also useful in checking growth of other diseases causing microbes in stomach.

167. Hint : Treating the purified DNA with a restriction enzyme for digestion. The progression of the digestion is analysed by agarose gel electrophoresis. DNA is negatively charged, it progresses towards the anode. Vector DNA is also treated with the same restriction enzyme. DNA fragment with gene of interest and vector DNA are joined together by the action of DNA ligase enzyme to form recombinant DNA.

168. Hint : Down's syndrome is chromosomal disorder. The cause of this genetic disorder is the presence of an additional copy of the chromosome number 21 (trisomy of 21). This disorder was first described by Langdon Down.

169. Hint : Cystic fibrosis, haemophilia, sickle cell anaemia, colour blindness, thalessemia and phenylketonuria are Mendelian disorder which are determined by alternation or mutation in the single gene. These disorders are transmitted to the offspring on the same lines as principles of inheritance.

170. Hint : Morgan and his group found that when genes were grouped on the same chromosome, some genes were very tightly linked (showed very low recombination), while others were loosely linked (showed higher recombination).

171. Hint : Amoeboid movement. - It is effected by pseudopodia formed by the streaming of protoplasm. - Cytoskeletal elements (e.g. microfilaments) also participate Example: Movement of macrophages and leucocytes.

172. Hint : Double Fertilization: - Pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the cytoplasm of the synergid. Male gamete 1 (n) + Egg cell (n) (Syngamy) Zygote (2n) Male gamete 2 (n) + Central cell (2n) (Triple Fusion) Primary endosperm cell (PEC)(3n) (two nuclei of n each) - Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization.

173. Hint : Sutures are type of joint formed in flat skull bones Which fuse end to end with the help of dense fibrous connective tissue to form the cranium.

174. Hint : Vegetative reproduction - It occurs by structures known as vegetative propagules which are of the following types: (i) Rhizome. Example: Ginger. (ii) Eyes (or buds). Example: Potato. (iii) Bulbils. Example: Agave. (iv) Leaf buds. Adventitious buds arise from the notches present at margins of leaves. Example: Bryophyllum. (v) Offset. Example : Water hyacinth.

175. Hint : The thyroid has two sides called lobes that lie on either side of your windpipe, and is usually connected by a strip of thyroid tissue known as an isthmus.

176. Hint : Sickle cell anemia - It is an autosomal recessive disease. - This disease is controlled by a pair of alleles - HbA (normal dominant allele) and Hbs (affected recessive allele). - Both male and female have either of the three genotypes : 1. HbA HbA - Normal phenotype. 2. HbA Hbs - Normal phenotype. For a heterozygous individual, there are 50% chances of transferring the affected allele to next progeny. 3. Hbs Hbs - Diseased phenotype. - In this disease, due to single base substitution (GAG to GUG), Glutamic acid (Glu) at 6th position of the /3 -globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule is substituted by Valine (Val). - Under low oxygen tension, RBC changes its shape to a elongated sickle like structure due to the polymerization of the affected haemoglobin molecule.

177. Hint : The adrenal cortex is made up of inner, middle and outer layers. Aldosterone is produced in the outer layer. Cortisol, androgen and estrogen are produced in the inner layer (active zone) and stored in the middle layer (storage zone). In times of stress, the storage zone shrinks and the active zone thickens to secrete more hormones.

178. Hint : A single gene product may produce more than one effect. For example, starch synthesis in pea seeds is controlled by one gene. It has two alleles (B and b). Starch is synthesised effectively by BB homozygotes and therefore, large starch grains are

produced. In contrast, bb homozygotes have lesser efficiency in starch synthesis and produce smaller starch grains. After maturation of the seeds, BB seeds are round and the bb seeds are wrinkled. Heterozygotes produce round seeds, and so B seems to be the dominant allele. But, the starch grains produced are of intermediate size in Bb seeds. So if starch grain size is considered as the phenotype, then from this angle, the alleles show incomplete dominance.

179. Hint : Blue whale possess a special tissue - which lies beneath the skin and helps during hibernation Hibernators depend on their fat reserves while cold and to fuel rewarming.

180. Hint : Nucleolus: These membraneless and active site for rRNA synthesis. Nucleoli are found more than 1 and also larger in size if the cells are actively involved in protein synthesis.