MASTER QUESTION PAPER WITH KEY

Exam Code : MECON_170319_MECH Exam Date : 17-03-2019

Duration : 150 Exam Time : 10:00:00

1. Which word will best complete the relationship given below? Power : Watt :: Energy : ?

A). Joule B). Ohm

C). Ampere D). Mho

Answer : A

2. Which word will best complete the relationship given below? Eye : Myopia :: Ear : ?

A). Presbycusis B). Cataract

C). Trachoma D). Eczema

Answer : A

3. Choose the pair in which the words show the same relationship as in the pair given below. Virology : Virus

A). Entomology : Insects B). Histology : Fungi

C). Anthropology : Blood D). Mycology : Fish

Answer : A

4. Complete the series. DWI, ESM, FOQ, GKU, (…)

A). GIY B). GYH

C). IGY D). HGY

Answer : D

5. Find the wrong pair of alphabets in the given series. GT, KP, CX, FT, HS

A). CX B). KP

C). FT D). HS

Answer : C

6. Find the ODD one out.

A). Microbe B). Microfilm

C). Microphone D). Microscope

Answer : A

7. Find the ODD one out.

A). Cricket B). Volleyball

C). Billiards D). Football

Answer : C

8. Find the ODD one out.

A). BXD B). QRK

C). HRJ D). JPL

Answer : B

9. If in a certain code 'CABLE' is written as 24-26-25-15-22, then how will 'JUMP' be written in that code?

A). 16-5-15-10 B). 6-11-14-17

C). 17-6-14-11 D). 15-16-5-10

Answer : C

10. In a certain code 24587 is written as 33678. How is 63195 written in that code?

A). 52284 B). 72286

C). 78226 D). 74286

Answer : B

11. If in a certain code language, 'ICE ' is coded as 'JDF', then 'PXM' is the code for which word?

A). OWE B). OWN

C). OWL D). OUR

Answer : C

12. Arjun, Bala, Deepan, Gokul, Ravi and Raja have different cars. Arjun has more cars than only Gokul and Ravi but less than Bala. Deepan has more cars than Raja but less than Bala. Who among them has the least number of cars?

A). Gokul B). Deepan

C). Ravi D). Either (A) or (C)

Answer : D

13. Karthik ranks eighth in the class while Sundhar ranks fourth from the end. If Chandru is at the ninth place after Karthik and in the middle of Karthik and Sundhar, then how many students are there in the class?

A). 27 B). 28

C). 29 D). 30

Answer : C

14. Madhu is taller than Anitha, Shruthi is taller than Meera but not as tall as Anitha. Harini is taller than Madhu. Who among the following is the shortest?

A). Meera B). Shruthi

C). Harini D). Cannot be determined

Answer : A

15. Mohan and Ravi start from a point towards north and walk 15 km. Mohan turns left, and Ravi turns right; Mohan walks 8 km and Ravi walks 2 km. Mohan then turns left, and Ravi turns right. Both now walk 20 km. How far is Mohan from Ravi now?

A). 8 km B). 10 km

C). 12 km D). 15 km

Answer : B

16. Vimal starts walking towards south. After a while, he turns right and then to his left. Finally, after walking some distance, he turns left. In which direction is he moving now?

A). North B). South

C). East D). West

Answer : C

17. A watch reads 9:30. If the minute hand points to the east, what direction will the hour hand point?

A). South B). North

C). West D). East

Answer : A

18.

Answer : C

19.

Answer : B

20.

Answer : D

21. In this question, four statements are given followed by four conclusions. Choose the conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically. Statements: 1) Shiva and Ramu are friends. 2) Ramu is friendly with all. 3) Shiva has many enemies. 4) Rajesh and Shiva do not like each other. Conclusions: I. Shiva, Rajesh and Ramu form a clique. II. Ramu is friendly with Shiva's friends. III. Shiva and Rajesh are both friends of Ramu. IV. Rajesh and Ramu are friends.

A). Only conclusion I follows B). Only conclusions I and II follow

C). Only conclusions I and III follow D). Only conclusions II, III and IV follow

Answer : D

22. In this question, a statement is given followed by two conclusions. Choose the conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically. Statement: G > O ≤ E = Y < P Conclusions: I. Y = O II. Y > O

A). Only conclusion I follows B). Only conclusion II follows

C). Either conclusion I or II follows D). Both conclusions I and II follow

Answer : C

23. In this question, three statements are given followed by two conclusions. Choose the conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically. Statements: 1) All buildings are whites. 2) Some whites are blacks. 3) Some blacks are huts. Conclusions: I. Some whites are buildings. II. Some huts are whites.

A). Only conclusion I follows B). Only conclusion II follows

C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows D). Both conclusions I and II follow

Answer : A

24. In this question, three statements are given followed by two conclusions. Choose the conclusion(s) which best fit(s) logically. Statements: 1) No doll is gift. 2) All gifts are gems. 3) Some gems are boxes. Conclusions: I. No doll is gem. II. At least some gifts are boxes.

A). Only conclusion I follows. B). Only conclusion II follows

C). Neither conclusion I nor II follows D). Both conclusions I and II follow

Answer : C

25.

Answer : A

26.

Answer : D

27.

Answer : A

28. Pointing to a boy, Nandhini says, "He is the son of my grandfather's only child." How is the boy related to Nandhini?

A). Grandfather B). Son

C). Brother D). Father

Answer : C

29. If Raja is the brother of Arun, Anu is the sister of Suman and Arun is the son of Anu, then how is Raja related to Anu?

A). Father-in-law B). Son

C). Husband D). Grandfather

Answer : B

30. If L + M means M is the brother of L, L × M means M is the husband of L, L - M means L is the mother of M and L ÷ M means L is the father of M, then which of the following expression indicates 'A' is the grandmother of 'E'?

A). B - A + C ÷ E B). A × B ÷ C - E

C). A + B ÷ C - E D). A × B ÷ C + E

Answer : B

31. In the following question, the given sentence has four parts marked P, Q, R and S. Choose the part of sentence with the error and mark as your answer. If there is no error, mark 'No error (S)' as your answer. My father give me (P)/ a box of chocolates (Q)/ on my birthday. (R)/ No error (S)

A). P B). Q

C). R D). S

Answer : A

32. In the following question, the given sentence has four parts marked P, Q, R and S. Choose the part of sentence with the error and mark as your answer. If there is no error, mark 'No error (S)' as your answer. Sunil's behaviour (P)/ was not (Q)/appropriately yesterday. (R)/ No error (S)

A). P B). Q

C). R D). S

Answer : C

33. Fill in the blank with most appropriate word which will suit the context of the sentence. Firefighters tried to _________ the flames.

A). Obscure B). Extinguish

C). Cancel D). Expatriate

Answer : B

34. Fill in the blank with most appropriate word which will suit the context of the sentence. Meera made a/an _________ attempt to save the drowning child that everybody appreciated her.

A). Disagreeable B). Cowardly

C). Unsociable D). Gallant

Answer : D

35. Choose the correct word to complete the following sentence. Ravi __________ for the birthday party yesterday.

A). Can be late B). Will be late

C). Was late D). Is late

Answer : C

36. Choose the correct synonym of the given word from the options given below. ABBREVIATE

A). Digest B). Enlarge

C). Shorten D). Review

Answer : C

37. Choose the correct synonym of the given word from the options given below. ABOLISH

A). Establish B). Destroy

C). Commence D). Schedule

Answer : B

38. Choose the correct antonym of the given word from the options given below. AUDACIOUS

A). Resolute B). Obvious

C). Venture D). Cowardly

Answer : D

39. Choose the correct antonym of the given word from the options given below. FORESTALL

A). Avert B). Thwart

C). Encourage D). Preclude

Answer : C

40. Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase given below. "Read between the lines"

A). To do useless things B). To read hastily

C). To believe everything without questioning D). To understand the hidden meaning of a writing

Answer : D

41. Choose the MISSPELT word.

A). Business B). Beginning

C). Congradulate D). Difference

Answer : C

42. Rewrite the sentence in indirect speech. Ajith said, "I will attend the graduation day tomorrow"

A). Ajith said that he may attend the graduation day the next day

B). Ajith said that he would attend the graduation day the next day

C). Ajith said that he shall attend the graduation day the next day

D). Ajith said that he wants to attend the graduation day the next day

Answer : B

43. Rewrite the sentence in passive voice. The postman delivered a letter.

A). A letter should be delivered by the postman B). A letter is delivered by the postman

C). A letter will be delivered by the postman D). A letter was delivered by the postman

Answer : D

44. Choose from the four options, the word that best substitutes the given phrase. "Easily broken or damaged"

A). Fragile B). Healthy

C). Futile D). Fertile

Answer : A

45. The following sentence is divided into four parts (L, M, N and O). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence. (L) Actively searching for (M) Until today (N) Undiscovered artefacts (O) Archaeologists are still

A). NOML B). MOLN

C). LOML D). LNOM

Answer : B

46.

Answer : D

47.

Answer : B

48.

Answer : A

49.

Answer : C

50.

Answer : D

51. Where was the first Global Aviation Summit (GAS-2019) held?

A). New Delhi B). Mumbai

C). Kolkata D). Ahmedabad

Answer : B

52. Which Indian bowler was the highest international wicket-taker in 2018?

A). Harbhajan Singh B). Jasprit Bumrah

C). Ravichandran Ashwin D). Anil Kumble

Answer : B

53. R.K. Narayan was a famous Indian-

A). Writer B). Painter

C). Singer D). Film Director

Answer : A

54. In which of the following cities did Jallianwala Bagh Massacre take place?

A). Indore B). Amritsar

C). Chandigarh D). Jaipur

Answer : B

55. When was Burma separated from India?

A). 1937 B). 1939

C). 1942 D). 1947

Answer : A

56. Panna, which is famous for diamond mines, is located in the state of-

A). Karnataka B). Madhya Pradesh

C). Andhra Pradesh D). Gujarat

Answer : B

57. The Radcliffe line is a boundary between-

A). India and Pakistan B). India and China

C). India and Sri Lanka D). India and Nepal

Answer : A

58. The Council of Members has to resign if a no-confidence motion is passed by a majority of members of-

A). Rajya Sabha B). Lok Sabha

C). Both the houses separately D). Both the houses in joint sitting

Answer : B

59. Which of the following states has the highest number of elected members in the Rajya Sabha?

A). Andhra Pradesh B). Bihar

C). Uttar Pradesh D). Rajasthan

Answer : C

60. METSAT-1 launched by PSLV is the first exclusive ___________ satellite built by ISRO.

A). Remote Sensing B). Meteorological

C). Navigation D). Ground

Answer : B

61. What is the name of the instrument that measures wind speed?

A). Barometer B). Anemometer

C). Hygrometer D). Ammeter

Answer : B

62. Which state government has launched 'Krishak Bandhu' scheme to address farmers' distress?

A). Rajasthan B). West Bengal

C). Maharashtra D). Odisha

Answer : B

63. Which program has been launched by NITI Aayog to initiate transformation in the education and health sectors with the State Governments?

A). SATH B). DSSS

C). SETU D). All of these

Answer : A

64. Reserve Bank of India was set up in the year-

A). 1932 B). 1933

C). 1934 D). 1935

Answer : D

65. What is the full form of NEFT?

A). National Electrical Funds Transfer B). National Electronic Funds Transfer

C). National Electronic Foreign exchange Transfer D). National Electronic Funds Transport

Answer : B

66. Where was the first session of the Constituent Assembly held?

A). New Delhi B). Lahore

C). Kolkata D). Jaipur

Answer : A

67. Which part of the Indian Constitution talks about fundamental rights?

A). Part I B). Part II

C). Part III D). Part IV

Answer : C

68. What is the classical dance of Andhra Pradesh?

A). Mohiniyattam B). Kuchipudi

C). Kathak D). Kathakali

Answer : B

69. Which city is the venue of the 2019 Indian Panorama Film Festival (IPFF)?

A). Mumbai B). Chennai

C). New Delhi D). Goa

Answer : C

70. Which of the following was the First Indian talkie film produced in 1931?

A). Alam Ara B). Toofan

C). Neel Kamal D). Chintamani

Answer : A

71. The sum of four numbers is 560. If you add 3 to the first number, 3 is subtracted from the second number, the third is multiplied by 3 and the fourth is divided by 3, then all the results are equal. What is the difference between the largest and the smallest of the original numbers?

A). 256 B). 280

C). 348 D). 396

Answer : B

72. The sum of three numbers is 308. The first number is twice the second number and the third number is one-third of the first number. Find the second number.

A). 72 B). 76

C). 80 D). 84

Answer : D

73. The sum of Rs.500 is invested at the rate of 5% per annum at Simple Interest for a certain period. It fetches Rs.180 more than the amount of interest accrued on Rs.380 for the same period and rate. Find the time.

A). 18 years B). 26 years

C). 30 years D). 35 years

Answer : C

74. Find the Compound Interest on Rs.15000 at 8% per annum for 2 years, compounded annually.

A). Rs.2392 B). Rs.2496

C). Rs.2522 D). Rs.2592

Answer : B

75. Two ships are sailing on the sea at either sides of a lighthouse. The angles of elevation of the top of the lighthouse is observed from the ships are 30° and 45° respectively. If the lighthouse is 50 m high, find the distance between the two ships.

A). 136.6 m B). 140.2 m

C). 144.5 m D). 153.3 m

Answer : A

76. A shopkeeper mixed 3 kg of tea powder at Rs.180 per kg with 2 kg of tea powder at Rs.130 per kg. If he sells the mixture at Rs.224 per kg, what is his profit percentage?

A). 25% B). 32%

C). 35% D). 40%

Answer : D

77. The population of a city is 149400. For every 1000 men, there are 1075 women. If 40% of men and 24% of women are literate, then find the total number of illiterate people in the city.

A). 47376 B). 54242

C). 94504 D). 102024

Answer : D

78. The tax on a commodity is diminished by 20%, and its consumption is increased by 15%. Find the effect on revenue.

A). 2% increase B). 2% decrease

C). 6.5% decrease D). 8% decrease

Answer : D

79.

Answer : C

80. If the following fractional numbers are arranged in descending order of magnitude, then which will be the third number? 9/17, 10/19, 19/34, 21/38, 44/85, 42/95

A). 21/38 B). 44/85

C). 42/95 D). 9/17

Answer : D

81.

Answer : B

82. The average price of 10 books is Rs.12, and the average price of 8 of these books is Rs.11.75. Of the remaining two books, if the price of one book is 60% more than the price of the other, what is the price of each of these two books?

A). Rs.5 and Rs.7.50 B). Rs.8 and Rs.12

C). Rs.10 and Rs.16 D). Rs.12 and Rs.14

Answer : C

83. The average of ten numbers is 7. If each number is multiplied by 12, then find the average of the new set of numbers.

A). 7 B). 19

C). 82 D). 84

Answer : D

84.

Answer : A

85. Find the cube of 320.

A). 31744000 B). 32768000

C). 32870400 D). 33280000

Answer : B

86.

Answer : C

87. If m and n are whole numbers such that mn = 144, then find (m - 1)n + 1.

A). 999 B). 1000

C). 1221 D). 1331

Answer : D

88. Find the HCF of 76, 114 and 152.

A). 4 B). 16

C). 32 D). 38

Answer : D

89. The HCF of two numbers is 11 and their LCM is 7700. If one of the numbers is 308, then find the other number.

A). 260 B). 275

C). 285 D). 300

Answer : B

90. Find the LCM of 22, 108, 135 and 198.

A). 4520 B). 5520

C). 5940 D). 6380

Answer : C

91. A number when divided by 36, 24 and 16, leaves the remainder 13 in each case. Find the smallest value of this number.

A). 157 B). 153

C). 149 D). 144

Answer : A

92. In an examination, a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. If he attempts all 80 questions and secures 120 marks, how many questions does he answer correctly?

A). 30 B). 40

C). 50 D). 60

Answer : B

93. A total of 162 coins of 20 paise and 25 paise make a sum of Rs.35.50. Find the number of 25 paise coins.

A). 34 B). 54

C). 62 D). 82

Answer : C

94. Roshan got twice as many marks in Science as in Computer science. The proportion of his marks in Science and English is 5 : 3. If his total of marks in Science, Computer science and English is 210, what is his marks in English?

A). 32 B). 50

C). 60 D). 70

Answer : C

95. For a certain article, if the discount is 10%, then the profit is 50%. If the discount is 25%, then what will be the profit percentage?

A). 15% B). 25%

C). 30% D). 35%

Answer : B

96. A trader offers his customers 10% discount and still makes a profit of 26%. If the marked price of an article is Rs.560, then find the cost price of the article.

A). Rs.392 B). Rs.400

C). Rs.416 D). Rs.427

Answer : B

97. Find the value of (4.7 × 13.26 + 4.7 × 9.43 + 4.7 × 77.31).

A). 0.47 B). 47

C). 470 D). 4700

Answer : C

98. If 2 + 6.3 ÷ 0.7(3) + 2.5 × a - 0.5 = 17, find the value of 'a'.

A). 0.2 B). 1.3

C). 3 D). 5

Answer : D

99. Pipe A can fill a tank in 10 hours while pipe B alone can fill it in 20 hours and pipe C can empty the same tank in 40 hours. If all the pipes are opened together, what will be the time needed to fill the tank?

A). 8 hours B). 12 hours

C). 15 hours D). 20 hours

Answer : A

100. In a train with 24 carriages, each carriage of 60 m length with an engine of 60 m length is running at a speed of 70 km/hr. Find the time taken by the train to cross the bridge of length 2 km.

A). 2 minutes B). 3 minutes

C). 6 minutes D). 8 minutes

Answer : B

101. The deformation per unit length is called-

A). Tensile stress B). Poissons ratio

C). Youngs modulus D). Strain

Answer : D

102.

Answer : D

103.

Answer : A

104. Longitudinal stress in a thin cylinder is ___________ the hoop stress.

A). Equal to B). Twice

C). Half D). One-fourth

Answer : C

105.

Answer : D

106.

Answer : A

107. The ratio of the pressure force to the __________ is called Euler's number.

A). Inertial force B). Elastic force

C). Viscous force D). Surface tension force

Answer : A

108. The ratio of volumetric stress to the corresponding volumetric strain in a body is always constant is known as-

A). Surface tension B). Bulk modulus of elasticity

C). Compressibility D). Viscosity

Answer : B

109. One stoke is equal to-

A). 10-2 m2/s B). 10-3m2/s

C). 10-4 m2/s D). 10-6 m2/s

Answer : C

110. Coefficient of velocity is defined as the ratio of-

A). Area of jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice B). Actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the theoretical velocity

C). Actual discharge through an orifice to the theoretical discharge

D). Actual discharge through an orifice to the area of orifice

Answer : B

111. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic amorphous solids __________ with decrease in temperature.

A). Increases B). Decreases

C). Remains constant D). May increase or decrease depending on temperature

Answer : B

112. Which of the following is the case of heat transfer by radiation?

A). Touching a stove and being burned B). Ice cooling down your hand

C). Heat from a light bulb D). Hot air rising, cooling and falling

Answer : C

113. The refrigerant widely used in domestic refrigerators is-

A). R-12 B). Ammonia

C). Carbon dioxide D). Sulphur dioxide

Answer : A

114. LMTD in case of counterflow heat exchanger as compared to parallel flow heat exchanger-

A). Is lower B). Is higher

C). Is the same D). Depends on the area of heat exchanger

Answer : B

115. Fourier's law of heat conduction is valid for-

A). One dimensional only B). Two dimensional only

C). Three dimensional only D). All of these

Answer : A

116. The value of the wavelength for the maximum emissive power is given by-

A). Wien's displacement law B). Stefan's law

C). Planck's law D). Fourier's law

Answer : A

117. Stefan Boltzmann law is applicable for heat transfer by-

A). Conduction B). Convection

C). Radiation D). Both (A) and (C)

Answer : C

118. Forced convection in a liquid bath is caused by-

A). Intense stirring by an external agency B). Molecular energy interactions

C). Density difference brought about by temperature gradients D). Flow of electrons in a random fashion

Answer : A

119. Critical radius of insulation of cylinder with thermal conductivity(k) and heat transfer coefficient(h) is given by-

A). k/h B). 2k/h

C). h/k D). 2h/k

Answer : A

120. The size of a gear is usually specified by-

A). Circular pitch B). Pitch circle diameter

C). Pressure angle D). Diametral pitch

Answer : B

121. When two elements of a pair have surface contact while in motion and the relative motion is purely turning or sliding, then the pair is called a ________ pair.

A). Higher B). Lower

C). Turning D). Sliding

Answer : B

122. The number of degrees of freedom for five bar mechanism with five links and five binary joints is-

A). 0 B). 1

C). 2 D). 3

Answer : C

123. Which of the following is an inversion of four bar chain?

A). Watts indicator mechanism B). Oscillating cylinder engine

C). Whitworth quick return motion mechanism D). Scotch yoke mechanism

Answer : A

124. In a spur gear, the product of diametral pitch and circular pitch is equal to-

A). 1/π B). 1

C). 2π D). π

Answer : D

125. The maximum frictional force, which comes into play, when a body just begins to slide over the surface of the other body, is known as __________ friction.

A). Static B). Dynamic

C). Limiting D). Rolling

Answer : C

126. In case of friction, the formula to find the maximum efficiency of a screw jack is-

A). (1 + sinφ)/(1 - sinφ) B). (1 - sinφ)/(1 + sinφ)

C). (1 - tanφ)/(1 + tanφ) D). (1 + tanφ)/(1 - tanφ)

Answer : B

127. If the direction of force component and displacement is opposite, then the work done is-

A). Positive B). Negative

C). Zero D). Both (B) and (C)

Answer : B

128. When the spring of a watch is wound, it will possess ___________ energy.

A). Strain B). Kinetic

C). Heat D). Electrical

Answer : A

129. Work done by an engine in 20 sec is 1000 Joules. What is the power generated by the engine in Watt?

A). 50 Watt B). 70 Watt

C). 100 Watt D). 120 Watt

Answer : A

130.

Answer : A

131. The taper provided on the vertical surfaces of a pattern to facilitate its removal from the mould without excessive rapping or breaking of cavity edges is known as-

A). Machining allowance B). Shrinkage allowance

C). Distortion allowance D). Draft allowance

Answer : D

132. The increase in hardness due to cold working is called-

A). Work-hardening B). Flame hardening

C). Induction hardening D). Age-hardening

Answer : A

133. It is impossible to construct a device which operates on a cycle and produces no other effect than the transfer of heat from a cooler body to hotter body. This statement is given by-

A). Kelvin B). Joule

C). Clausius D). Gay-Lussac

Answer : C

134. Which of the following statements is WRONG?

A). Otto cycle consists of two constant volume and two isentropic processes

B). Joule cycle consists of two constant volume and two isentropic processes

C). Stirling cycle consists of two isothermal and two constant volume process

D). Carnot cycle consists of two isothermal and two adiabatic process

Answer : B

135. A process carried out in such a manner that the system, undergoing the change does not exchange heat with the surroundings is called a/an ________ process.

A). Isobaric B). Isothermal

C). Polytrophic D). Adiabatic

Answer : D

136. Which of the following equations is a non-flow energy equation in case of reversible process?

A). dv = dQ + pdu B). du = dQ + pdv

C). dQ = du + pdv D). dp = dQ + udv

Answer : C

137. A moderator, in nuclear power plants, is a medium introduced into the fuel mass in order to-

A). Slow down the speed of fast moving neutrons B). Control the reaction

C). Reduce the temperature D). Extract heat from nuclear reaction

Answer : A

138. The operation of forcing additional air under pressure into the engine cylinder is known as-

A). Supercharging B). Carburation

C). Turbulence D). Delay period

Answer : A

139. The pattern which is made in two or more pieces are called-

A). Follow board pattern B). Split pattern

C). Gated pattern D). Sweep pattern

Answer : B

140. Which of the following is a line standard of measurement?

A). Measuring tape B). Slip gauge

C). Micrometer D). End bars

Answer : A

141. The amount by which the actual size of a shaft is less than the actual size of mating hole in an assembly is called-

A). Clearance B). Interference

C). Allowance D). Tolerance

Answer : A

142. When a liquid and its vapour are in equilibrium at a certain pressure and temperature, then which of the following is required to identify the saturation state?

A). Pressure B). Temperature

C). Pressure or temperature D). Both (A) and (B)

Answer : C

143. Which of the following method(s) can be used to improve the thermal efficiency of open cycle gas turbine plant?

A). Inter cooling B). Reheating

C). Regeneration D). All of these

Answer : D

144. Efficiency of a heat engine is defined as the ratio of-

A). Total heat input / Net work output B). Net work input / Total heat output

C). Total heat output / Net work input D). Net work output / Total heat input

Answer : D

145. The thermal boundary layer and velocity boundary layer are related by-

A). Prandtl number B). Reynolds number

C). Peclet number D). Nusselt number

Answer : A

146. Side rake angle of a single point cutting tool is the angle-

A). By which the face of the tool is inclined sideways B). By which the face of the tool is inclined towards back

C). Between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a plane at right angles to the centre line of the point of the tool

D). Between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and a line drawn from the point perpendicular to the base

Answer : A/D

147. The orthogonal shear angle is equal to the normal shear angle in-

A). Orthogonal cutting B). Oblique cutting

C). Simple cutting D). Uniform cutting

Answer : B

148. The facing is an operation of-

A). Embossing a diamond shaped pattern on the surface of a workpiece

B). Reducing the diameter of a workpiece over a very narrow surface

C). Machining the ends of a workpiece to produce a flat surface square with the axis

D). Bevelling the extreme end of a workpiece

Answer : C

149. The obtuse angle, included between the chisel edge and the lip as viewed from the end of a drill, is called-

A). Chisel edge angle B). Helix or rake angle

C). Point angle D). Lip clearance angle

Answer : A

150. A single point cutting tool has-

A). Rake angle B). Cutting edge angle

C). Lip angle D). All of these

Answer : D

151. In which milling operation are the entry angle zero and the exit angle nonzero?

A). Up-milling B). Down-milling

C). Slot milling D). Face milling

Answer : A

152. Which of the following is used for making hollow cavities in castings?

A). Core B). Sprue

C). Runner D). Gate

Answer : A

153. Which of the following is NOT a part of carriage in the centre lathe?

A). Tool post B). Compound rest

C). Gear box controls D). Apron

Answer : C

154. Which of the following comes under the arc welding process?

A). Tungsten Inert Gas welding B). Oxy-Hydrogen welding

C). Projection welding D). Electron beam welding

Answer : A

155. Which of the following weldings works on the same principal as electro-slag welding, with the addition of some of the principles of submerged arc welding?

A). Electron-Beam welding B). Electro-gas welding

C). Ultrasonic welding D). Plasma arc welding

Answer : B

156. Which casting process has no size and shape limits?

A). Sand casting B). Plaster mould casting

C). Investment casting D). Die casting

Answer : A

157. Forge welding is best suited for-

A). Stainless steel B). High carbon steel

C). Wrought iron D). Cast iron

Answer : C

158. Which of the following welding processes uses consumable electrodes?

A). Tungsten inert gas welding B). Metal inert gas welding

C). Shielded metal arc welding D). Flux cored arc welding

Answer : B

159. A point ‘P’ is above Horizontal Plane (HP) and in front of Vertical Plane (VP). The point is in the-

A). First quadrant B). Second quadrant

C). Third quadrant D). Fourth quadrant

Answer : A

160. Which of the following methods is/are is used to find the true length and true inclination of a line when its front view and top view are given?

A). Rotation method B). Trapezoidal method

C). Auxiliary plane method D). All of these

Answer : D

161. Which of the following positions is NOT possible for a right solid?

A). Axis perpendicular to HP and parallel to VP B). Axis parallel to VP and perpendicular to HP

C). Axis parallel to both VP and HP D). Axis perpendicular to both VP and HP

Answer : D

162. The development of cylinder is-

A). Rectangle B). Circle

C). Ellipse D). All of these

Answer : A

163. Which of the following methods is/are of projecting the pictorial views?

A). Axonometric projection B). Oblique projection

C). Perspective projection D). All of these

Answer : D

164. In a shaper, the length of stroke is increased by-

A). Increasing the length of the arm B). Increasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin

C). Decreasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin D). Decreasing the length of the slot in the slotted lever

Answer : B

165. In which of the following grindings must the work piece be rotated about its own axis between the centres as it passes lengthwise across the face of a revolving grinding wheel?

A). Internal cylindrical grinding B). External cylindrical grinding

C). Surface grinding D). Form grinding

Answer : B

166. Which of the following lathes is used to machine workpieces of large diameter but short in length in single piece production and in repair shops?

A). Instrument lathe B). Facing lathe

C). Flow turning lathe D). Heavy-duty lathe

Answer : B

167. In oxyacetylene gas welding, temperature at the inner cone of the flame is around-

A). 3500°C B). 3200°C

C). 2900°C D). 2550°C

Answer : B

168. The velocity of tool along the tool face is known as-

A). Shear velocity B). Chip velocity

C). Cutting velocity D). Mean velocity

Answer : B

169. Which of the following is mounted directly on the lathe bed on the same side as a tail stock in the centre lathe?

A). Carriage B). Headstock

C). Turret saddle D). Legs

Answer : C

170. The edge formed by the intersection of flute surface and the body clearance is known as-

A). Heel B). Face

C). Flank D). Web

Answer : A

171. Which of the following machines is used for milling both internal, external short threads and surfaces?

A). Drum type milling machine B). Bed type milling machine

C). Planer type milling machine D). Planetary milling machine

Answer : D

172. The thickness of the layer of material removed in one pass of the work piece under the cutter is known as-

A). Depth of cut B). Feed

C). Cutting speed D). Machining time

Answer : A

173. The mechanism of material removal in EDM process is called-

A). Melting and evaporation B). Melting and corrosion

C). Erosion and cavitation D). Cavitation and evaporation

Answer : A

174. Internal gears can be made by-

A). Hobbing B). Shaping with pinion cutter

C). Shaping with rack cutter D). Milling

Answer : B

175. _____________ setup consists of the tank in which the dielectric fluid is filled.

A). Electrochemical machining B). Ultrasonic machining

C). Electro discharge machining D). Laser machining

Answer : C

176. The angle between the portion of the side flank immediately below the side edge and a line perpendicular to the base of the tool measured at right angles to the side is known as-

A). Back rake angle B). Side rake angle

C). End relief angle D). Side relief angle

Answer : D

177. The angle between the lathe centres is-

A). 30° B). 45°

C). 60° D). 90°

Answer : C

178. The radial dimension between the pitch circle and the bottom of a tooth space is known as-

A). Dedendum B). Diametral pitch

C). Addendum D). Circular pitch

Answer : A

179. The saw milling is an operation of-

A). Reproduction of an outline of a template on a workpiece B). Producing grooves around the periphery of a cylindrical or conical workpiece

C). Producing narrow slots or grooves on a workpiece D). Machining several surfaces of a workpiece simultaneously

Answer : C

180. In a single-point turning operation of steel with a cemented carbide tool, Taylor's tool life exponent is 0.25. If the cutting speed is halved, then tool life will increase by-

A). Half B). Two times

C). Eight times D). Sixteen times

Answer : D

181. In which type of casting is the mould completely free of metal as it is spun about its vertical axis and riser and cores may be employed?

A). True centrifugal casting B). Semi-centrifugal casting

C). Slush casting D). Investment casting

Answer : B

182. Which of the following is used for removing loose sand from inside the mould cavity?

A). Lifter B). Swab

C). Bellow D). Trowel

Answer : A

183. In which of the following welding is the material around the joint melted in both the parts to be joined?

A). Fusion welding B). Percussion welding

C). Flash welding D). Resistance spot welding

Answer : A

184. Surface grinding is done to produce-

A). Flat surface B). Tapered surface

C). Internal cylindrical holes D). All of these

Answer : A

185. Which of the following threads is used in railway carriage couplers?

A). Acme thread B). Knuckle thread

C). Buttress thread D). All of these

Answer : B

186. In an orthogonal cutting operation the tool has a rake angle = 30°, chip thickness before the cut = 0.3 mm and the cut yields a deformed chip thickness = 0.6 mm. Calculate the chip thickness ratio.

A). 1/2 B). 1/3

C). 1/4 D). 1/6

Answer : A

187. A clamping device for holding work in the lathe is known as-

A). Apron B). Bed

C). Carriage D). Chuck

Answer : D

188. Tumbler gears in lathe are used to-

A). Cut gears B). Reduce the spindle speed

C). Drill a workpiece D). Change the direction of lead screw and feed rod

Answer : D

189. The governor is said to be _______ when the speed of the engine fluctuates continuously above and below the mean speed.

A). Isochronous B). Hunting

C). Insensitive D). Stable

Answer : B

190. In automobiles, the power is transmitted from gear box to differential through-

A). Universal joint B). Bevel gear

C). Knuckle joint D). Hooke's joint

Answer : A

191. Which of the following would constitute a link?

A). Piston and piston rod B). Piston rod and cross head

C). Piston, piston rod and cross head D). Piston, crank pin and crank shaft

Answer : C

192. The Coriolis component of acceleration exists whenever a point moves along a path that has-

A). Linear displacement B). Rotational motion

C). Gravitational acceleration D). Tangential acceleration

Answer : B

193. In which type of gear train are the first gear and the last gear co-axial?

A). Simple gear train B). Compound gear train

C). Reverted gear train D). Epicyclic gear train

Answer : C

194. In a multiple V-belt drive, when a single belt is damaged, it is preferable to change the complete set to-

A). Reduce vibration B). Reduce slip

C). Ensure uniform loading D). Ensure proper alignment

Answer : D

195. Before starting an isometric drawing in AutoCAD, the drafter needs to ________.

A). Set the grid to isometric B). Set the current layer to Defpoints

C). Turn Object Snap off D). Turn Ortho off

Answer : A

196. Which of the following drawings shows two lines representing the pipe diameter?

A). Single-line B). Double-line

C). Standard piping D). Centerline piping

Answer : B

197. Which of the following is formed where three or more surfaces intersect?

A). Oblique B). Line

C). Edge D). Vertex

Answer : D

198.

Answer : A

199. _______________ is the plane upon which the top view is projected.

A). Horizontal B). Vertical

C). Profile D). Base

Answer : A

200. Which of the following processes involves addition of carbon and nitrogen to the cases of carbon steels and alloy steels?

A). Case carburising B). Cyaniding

C). Nitriding D). Flame hardening

Answer : B