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Faculty of Business Management & Commerce (1068)

1. Which of the following is NOT a longitudinal study?

A) Census study B) Panel study C) Cohort study D) Trend study

2. Testing is most likely to negatively affect internal validity when_______.

A) The information tested is attitudinal in nature

B) The time between pre- and posttest is short

C) The instrument is unreliable

D) The participants are very low scorers

3. “Skepticism” is a norm of science. It is better explained by which of the following statement?

A) Combining the previous knowledge

B) Critical reading of the previous researches

C) Providing the proper references of quoted text

D) Locating research reports in libraries

4. Which section of a research report sets the stage for the report and indicates where in the report

each component, tables, and figures can be found?

A) Preliminary pages B) Table of contents

C) Main body D) Appendices

5. Which of the following is newer method of survey?

A) Mail survey B) E-mail survey

C) Field survey D) Experimental survey

6. The factor that should determine whether you decide to prepare a research report of your study

for a conference or for publication is

A) Whether the study is free from flaws

B) Whether the study is important enough to justify presentation or publication

C) Whether others would be interested in the work

D) All of the above

7. It is in this section that you fully interpret and evaluate your results.

A) Introduction B) Method C) Results D) Discussion

8. Which of the following are principles of questionnaire construction?

A) Consider using multiple methods when measuring abstract constructs

B) Use multiple items to measure abstract constructs

C) Avoid double-barreled questions

D) All of the above

9. Which of these is not a method of data collection?

A) Interviews B) Experiments C) Observations D) Questionnaire

10. Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to collect data. Which of the

following statements is true?

A) Open-ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the researcher’s

predetermined response categories

B) Closed-ended questions provide quantitative data in the participant’s own words

C) Open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participant’s own words

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D) Closed-ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the participants’ own words

11. Which of the following is not a major method of data collection?

A) Questionnaires B) Focus groups

C) Correlational method D) Secondary data

12. When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected, this is called:

A) A nonrandom sampling method

B) A quota sample

C) A snowball sample

D) An Equal probability selection method

13. Which of the following is not true about stratified random sampling?

A) It involves a random selection process from identified subgroups

B) Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population proportions

C) Disproportional stratified random sampling is especially helpful for getting large enough

subgroup samples when subgroup comparisons are to be done

D) Proportional stratified random sampling yields a representative sample

14. Which of the following is not a form of nonrandom sampling?

A) Snowball sampling

B) Convenience sampling

C) Quota sampling

D) They are all forms of nonrandom sampling

15. Which of the following will give a more “accurate” representation of the population from which a

sample has been taken?

A) A large sample based on the convenience sampling technique

B) A small sample based on simple random sampling

C) A large sample based on simple random sampling

D) A small cluster sample

16. Which of the following would generally require the largest sample size?

A) Cluster sampling

B) Simple random sampling

C) Systematic sampling

D) Proportional stratified sampling

17. In which of the following nonrandom sampling techniques does the researcher ask the research

participants to identify other potential research participants?

A) Snowball B) Convenience C) Purposive D) Quota

18. A number calculated with complete population data and quantifies a characteristic of the

population is called which of the following?

A) A datum B) A statistic C) A parameter D) A population

19. ___________ is a set of elements taken from a larger population according to certain rules.

A) Sample B) Population C) Statistic D) Element

20. The nonrandom sampling type that involves selecting a convenience sample from a population

with a specific set of characteristics for your research study is called _____.

A) Convenience sampling B) Quota sampling


C) Purposive sampling D) Snowball sampling

21. Which research paradigm is least concerned about generalizing its findings?

A) Quantitative research B) Qualitative research

C) Mixed research D) None of these

22. Research in which the researcher uses the qualitative paradigm for one phase and the quantitative

paradigm for another phase is known as ______.

A) Action research B) Basic research

C) Quantitative research D) Mixed method research

23. Which of the following can best be described as a categorical variable?

A) Age B) Annual income

C) Grade point average D) Religion

24. Which correlation is the strongest?

A) +.10 B) -.95 C) +.90 D) -1.00

25. The correlation between intelligence test scores and grades is:

A) Positive B) Negative C) Perfect D) They are not correlated

26. Which of the following is the best hypothesis statement to address the research question, "What

impact will the new advertising campaign have on use of Brand B?"

A) The new advertising campaign will increase Brand B usage.

B) The new advertising campaign will impact Brand B usage.

C) The new advertising campaign will increase Brand B trial.

D) The new advertising campaign will cause increased Brand B usage at the expense of Brand C

27. Which of the following should not be a consideration in writing a proposal?

A) Understanding the purpose behind the request for proposal

B) Understanding the problem situation

C) The appearance/form of the proposal

D) Responding to every element exactly as specified by the client

28. A ________ scale only assigns numbers to objects to classify the objects according to the

characteristic of interest.

A) Ratio B) Ordinal C) Nominal D) Interval

29. If a nominal scale is used, it is permissible to calculate which of the following statistics?

A) Mean B) Standard deviation

C) Range D) Mode

30. Multicollinearity occurs when:

A) There are high intercorrelations among the independent variables

B) The independent variables are mutually exclusive

C) The independent variables are irrelevant

D) There are too many independent variables

31. The extent to which we can generalize the results of a study to other participants is called:

A) Sampling validity B) External validity

C) Construct validity D) Internal validity1


32. Which of the following is not an example of a qualitative research method:

A) Ethnography B) Time series

C) Covert Observation D) Informal or Personal Interviews

33. If the most repeated observations recorded are outliers of data then the mode is considered as

A) Intended measure B) Percentage measure

C) Best measure D) Poor measure

34. The measurement techniques used to measure the extent of skewness in data set values are called

A) Measure of distribution width B) Measure of median tail

C) Measure of tail distribution D) Measure of skewness

Answer question number 30-35 from the following table giving information about sales in units of

three companies

Year A Limited B Limited C Limited Total Limited

1990 7900 6390 420 14710

1991 8200 6610 420 15230

1992 8900 6780 420 16100

1993 9100 6965 640 16705

1994 10150 7530 640 18320

1995 11000 8500 640 20140

1996 12000 9200 640 21840

1997 13000 9880 640 23520

1998 15200 10200 800 26200

1999 16700 10450 800 27950

2000 19000 11000 800 30800

35. The two years in which additional sales were generated in C Limited.

A) 1990 and 1991 B) 1993 and 1998 C) 1993 and 1996 D) 1990 and 2000

36. The year in which percentage increase in sales of all the companies taken together over that of the

previous year was the maximum was

A) 1991 B) 1997 C) 1999 D) 1998

37. In 2000, the %age share of C limited in total sales of the three companies was approximately

A) 2.59 B) 10.0 C) 50.42 D) 1.11

38. If we add up 40% of sales of A Limited, 50% of sales of B Limited and of 90% sales of C

Limited in 1998 the answer will be

A) 11900 B) 19835 C) 5015 D) 22100

39. In 1990 the percentage share of sales of A Limited was approximately

A) 50 B) 45 C) 26 D) 54

40. The growth in the sales of C Limited between 1991 and 1999was approximately

A) 130% B) 51% C) 91% D) 103%

41. Which of the following is a qualitative data?


A) Income of an employee

B) Yield of crop

C) Height of students

D) Liking or disliking of a product by students

42. The standard deviation of 100 observation of a sample is 49, its variance would be;

A) 10 B) 7 C) 2401 D) 6561

43. The median, mode, deciles and percentiles are all considered as measures of

A) Mathematical averages B) Averages of position

C) Population averages D) Sample averages

44. Since the mode is the most frequently occurring data value, it

A) Can never be larger than the mean B) Is always larger than the median

C) Is always larger than the mean D) None of the above answers is correct

45. If the arithmetic mean is multiplied to coefficient of variation then the resulting value is classified as

A) Coefficient of deviation B) Coefficient of mean

C) Standard deviation D) Variance

46. If the quartile range is 48 then the quartile deviation is

A) 96 B) 24 C) 48 D) 144

47. Every research proposal, regardless of length should include two basic sections. They are:

A) Research question and research methodology

B) Research proposal and bibliography

C) Research method and schedule

D) Research question and bibliography

48. In an experimental research study, the primary goal is to isolate and identify the effect produced

by the ____.

A) Dependent variable B) Extraneous variable

C) Independent variable D) Confounding variable

49. Cross cultural studies are an example of:

A) Case study design B) Comparative design

C) Experimental design D) Longitudinal design

50. A correlation of or around zero can be interpreted as which of the following?

A) No relationship is present

B) A curvilinear relationship is present

C) A linear relationship is present

D) It could mean either no relationship or a curvilinear one

x-x-x


Dance (1068)

1. The classical dance of Andhra Pradesh.

A) Kathak B)Sattriya C) Odissi D) Chhau

2. Tribhangi Mudra is used

A) Odissi B) Kuchipudi C) Bharatnatyam D) MohniAttam

3. Pallavi is a part of

A) Kuchipudi B) Bharatnatyam C) Kathak D) Odissi

4. Veer Rasa is depicted through

A) Dhir Lalit B) Dhiro Datt C) Dhiro Daata D) Dhir Prashant

5. Padmini Shakhini Chitarni Hastini are nayikas according to

A) Dharam Bheda B) Aayu C) Prakirti D) Jati

6. Who is the Torch bearer of Jaipur Gharana at present

A) Shobha Koser B) Prerna Shrimali C) Rajendra Gangani D) Swati Sinha

7. Who is the first dancer of Jaipur Gharana?

A) Maluji B) Bhanuji C) Kundanlalji D) Sunder Prasad

8. ’’Lambchhad Parans’’ are one of the characteristics of which gharana?

A) Lucknow B) Jaipur C) Banaras D) Raigarh

9. The dancers known as ‘’Dev Pari Ki Jodi’’

A) Rajendra Gangani & Yogesh Gangani B)Birju Maharaj & Shambhu Maharaj

C) Mohanlal & Chiranjilal D)Hanuman Prasad & Hari Prasad

10. Birju Maharaj opened institute for kathak

A) Kala kriti B) Kala Asharam C) Kathak Kendra D) Kala Sangam

11. Pt.RajindraGangani is working presently at

A) Kathak Kendra Jaipur B) Kathak Kendra Delhi

C) Shri Ram Centre D)Triveni Kala Kendra

12. Odd one out

A) Bhanu Ji B) Malu Ji C) Kundan Lal D)Munna Shukla

13. There are _____ types of instruments

A) 3 B) 4 C) 4 D) 2

14. Chhau dance is mainly of _____ types

A) 3 B) 5 C) 4 D) 2


15. Thumri is important part of

A) Bharatnatyam B) Odissi C) Raas Nritya D) Kathak

16. Thumri is divided into _____ categories

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6

17. The largest amount of Ghungrus are used in ___

A) Manipuri B) Kathakali C) Raas D) Kathak

18. In Natya shastra number of rasas are ___

A) 9 B) 8 C) 10 D) 7

19. Name of Shanta Ram’s film that has Kathak dance

A) Nache Mayuri B) Jhanak jhanak payal baje

C) Navrang D) Guide

20. Odd one out:

A) Kaal B) Kriya C) Yati D) Urap

21. Arrange the avatars in order

A) Matsya, Kurma, Narsingh, Vrah B)Matsya, Narsingh, Kurma, Vrah

C) Matsya,Vrah, Kurma, Narsingh D) Matsya, Kurma, Vrah, Narsingh

22. Karan(poses) are in number:

A) 108 B) 32 C) 9 D) 8

23. Sanyog and Viyoga has relevance with

A) Hasya Rasa B) Veer Rasa C) Shingar Rasa D) Rodra Rasa

24. Match the items in list -1 with list -2.

List-1 List-2

a) Sankirna 1. Yati

b) Mridanga 2. Grah

c)Anagat 3. Kriya

d)Nishabda 4. Jati

codes:

a b c d

A) iv i ii iii

B) i ii iii iv

C) iii iv ii i

D) iv iii ii i

25. ‘Javali’ is a short piece of Abhinaya of

A) Kathakali B) Bharatnatyam C) Manipuri D) Sattriya


26. Odd one out:

A) Yakashagana B) Ottan Tullal C) Seraikela Chhau D) Sattriya

27. Match the items in list -1 with list -2 .

List -1 List -2

a) Yajurveda 1. Gaan

b) Samveda 2. Pathya

c) Atharvaveda 3. Abhinaya

d) Rigveda 4. Rasa

codes:

a b c d

A) i ii iii iv

B) iii i iv ii

C) ii iii i iv

D) iv iii ii i

28. ‘Ashtapadi’ is used in

A) Chhau B) Sattriya C) Odissi D) Ghumar

29. Which folk dance form belongs to Bihar ?

A) Santhali B) Saila C) Rai D) Sayana

30. Alokit and Pralokit are:

A) Hasta Bheda B) Bhrukuti Bheda C) Drishti Bheda D) Shiro Bheda

31. Odd one out :

A) Abhigyanshakuntalam B) Malvikagnimitram

C) Vikarmorvashiyam D) Maltimadhav

32. ‘Shillappakaram’ is written by:

A) Kumbhkarna B) IIlangoadigel C) Dhananjaya D) Kumarswami

33. ‘Uddipan’ is

A) Anubahva B) Vibhava C) Sancharibhava D) Satvikabhava

34. Odd one out :

A) Dhamar Taal B) Deepchandi Taal

C) Tiwara Taal D) Jhumara Taal

35. The hand gestures are known as:

A) CHARI B) Hastas C) Karnas D) Pratayanga

36. Narayan Parasd was a well known Guru of:

A) Lucknow Gharana B) Agra Gharana C) Banaras Gharana D) Jaipur Gharana


37. KaishikiVrithi represents:

A) The forceful Style B) The verbal style

C) The grand style D)The graceful style

38. The Avanadha type of instrument used in dance :

A) Sarod B) Cymbols C) Flute D) Pakhawaj

39. Nautanki is a traditional theatre form of:

A) Madhya Pradesh B) Peking Opera C) Bunrcku D) Uttar Pradesh

40. When Anamika finger is folded in Aral Mudra it becomes:

A) Mukul B)Shakutund C)Tripataka D) Katak

41. ‘Chenda’ instrument is used in :

A) Kathakali B) Manipuri C) Kuchipudi D) Odissi

42. Complete absence of heavy stemping as footwork in :

A) Kathak B)Bharatnatyam C) Odissi D) Mohini Yattam

43. In Allaripu invocatory song is in praise of:

A) Krishna B) Shiva C) Ganesha D) Maa kali

44. Serpentine pattern in which the body sways is the technique of:

A) Mohini Yattam B) Kathak C) Odissi D) Chhau

45. Nritta item in Bharatnayam :

A) Shabdam B) Allaripu C) Jatisawaram D) Varnam

46. Match the following :

List-1 List -2

a) Punjab 1. Teratalli

b) Rajasthan 2. Dandiya

c) Maharashtra 3. Sammi

d) Gujrat 4. Lavani

a. b. c. d.

A) 1. 2. 3. 4.

B) 3. 1. 4. 2.

C) 2. 4. 1. 3.

D) 4. 3. 2. 1.

47. Both hand Mudaras known as:

A) Aasamyukta B) Samyukta C) Nritta Hasta D) Ntya Hasta

48. God of shingar rasa:


A) Pramath B)Yama C) Vishnu D) Inder

49. Varan of karun rasa:

A) Kapot B) Shyam C) Shawet D) Krishn

50. Chatustra stage according to Bharat is:

A) Biggest B) Medium C) Smallest D) Round

x-x-x


Music (1068)

1. ‘Chatushchatushchatushchaiv shadja madhyam panchm’ this principal propounded by:-

A) Kohal B) Bharat C) Narad D) Matang

2. Gandharva swaras associated with udatt swaras:-

A) Rihabh- Dhaivat B) Shadaj- Pancham

C) Nishad- Gandhar D) Madhyam- Shadaj

3. Alpatva is a lakshan of :-

A) Jati B) Tala C) Dhrupad D) Prabandh

4. Name of the Audav raga consisting both gandhar:-

A) Lalit B) Bhopali C) Jaijaiwanti D) Jog

5. Bimlakant Rai Chaudhary is the author of :-

A) Pranav Bharti B) Bhartiya Sangeet Vadya

C) Bhartiya Sangeet Kosh D) Bharat Kosh

6. Most soothing samvad is known as:-

A) Shadj- Rishabh Samvad B) Shadj- Pancham samvad

C) Shadj- Dhaivad Samvad D) Shadj- Nishad Samvad

7. How many swaras are used in Samagana:-

A) Five B) Three C) Four D) Seven

8. Number of Shuddha Jatis according to Bharat:-

A) Seven B) Six C) Eleven D) Eighteen

9. Name of the tala which has khali o n first matra:-

A) Tivra B) Roopak C) Tilwada D) Dhamar

10. Which is Pushkar vadya:-

A) Tabla B) Damru C) Mridang D) Dhol

11. How many Angas are there in Prabandh:-

A) Four B) Six C) Five D) Three

12. Dwadhashswara Murchhna was propounded by:-

A) Bharat B) Narad C) Dattil D) Matang

13. Kallinath wrote commentary on:-

A) Sangeet Darpan B) Sangeet Ratnakar

C) Sangeet Samayasar D) Sangeet Sarmrit


14. Famous vocalist of Kirana Gharana on whose name a Gurukul is opened in Karnataka state is

A) Roshanara Begum B) Hirabai Barodekar

C) Saraswati Bai Rane D) Gangu Bai Hangal

15. Who is known as ‘Chatur’ Pandit:-

A) V.N. Bhatkande B) V.D. Paluskar

C) Moreshwar Khare D) S.N. Ratanjankar

16. Which Veena is invented by Matang:-

A) Ghoshika B) Mattkokila C) Kinnari D) Tritantri

17. Author of Nagmatasfi:-

A) Mohammad Raja B) K.C.D. Brihaspati

C) Mirja Khan D) Vazid Ali

18. The book deals directly with practical music:-

A) Dhwani aur Sangeet B) Rag Vigyan

C) Sangeet Chintamani D) Bhartiya Sangeet Ka Itihas

19. Allia-Fattoo belong to:-

A) Patiala Gharana B) Delhi Gharana C) Agra Gharana D) Jaipur Gharan

20. Shorimian invented:-

A) Khyal B) Dhamar C) Thumari D) Tappa

21. Who defined the raga for the first time :-

A) Bharat B) Kohal C) Matang D) Dattil

22. Which is Sandhiprakash Raga:-

A) Bhairav B) Lalit C) Mian Ki Todi D) Asawari

23. Avartan is:-

A) Cercle of specific matra B) Vibhag

C) Shruti D) Tana

24. The instrument used for singing Gurbani by Guru Nanak Dev Ji:-

A) Dilruba B) Rabab C) Sarangi D) Veena

25. Which part of the day ‘Poorvangvadi Raga’ belong to:-

A) 12:00 midnight to 12:00 noon B) 4 a:m to 4 p:m

C) 4 p:m to 4 a:m D) 12:00 noon to 12:00 midnight


26. Key signature is used for:-

A) Time B) Scale

C) Flat and Sharp notes D) Rhythem

27. Sarnachatushtai experiment was done to prove:-

A) Shruti B) Tala C) Raga D) Murchhna

28. Karnatak sangeet raga mohanam is similar to Hindustani raga:-

A) Deshkar B) Bhopali C) Durga D) Khamaj

29. Author of Ramayan is:-

A) Valmiki B) Tulsidas C) Surdas D) Krishndvaipayan Vyas

30. How many Ratnakosh are there in Sangeet Raj:-

A) Six B) Seven C) Four D) Five

31. Which is adhvadarshak swara:-

A) Shadja B) Gandhar C) Madhyam D) Pancham

32. Which prakar of raga Todi belong to Bhairvi Thaat:-

A) Desi Todi B) Bilashkhani Todi

C) Gujri Todi D) Mian Ki Todi

33. Which pair of raga have similar swaras:-

A) Madhumad sarang- Vrindavani sarang

B) Puriya Kalyan- Puriya Dhanashri

C) Rageshri- Bageshri

D) Madhumad sarang- Megh Malhar

34. Chand khan- Suraj Khan belong to:-

A) Patiala Gharana B) Delhi Gharana

C) Shamchaurasi Gharana D) Talwandi Gharana

35. The name of Agra Gharana vocalist famous for Nom-Tom Alapshaily is :-

A) Faiaz Khan B) Azmat Hussain

C) Nissar Hussain D) Ato Hussain

36. Journal/ Magazine published from Hathras is:-

A) Sangeet Kala Vihar B) Sangeet

C) Sangeet Natak D) Chhayanat

37. Which grantha is not authored by Bhavbhatt:-

A) Ragmanjari B) Anoop Sangeet Vilas

C) Anoop Sangeet Ankush D) Murliprakash


38. Which chapter of Sangeet Ratnakar deals with ragas:-

A) Prathan B) Dwitiya C) Tritiya D) Chaturth

39. ‘Ni Sa Dha Ni Re’ is used in which raga:-

A) Nat Bhairav B) Bhairav C) Bairagi Bhairav D) Ahir Bhairav

40. Krishnarao Shankar Pandit belongs to:-

A) Gwalior Gharana B) Jaipur Gharana

C) Banaras Gharana D) Agra Gharana

41. Guru of Kalyani Rai is:-

A) Ustad Allaudin Khan B) Ustad Aliakhar

C) Ustad Uilayat Khan D) Ustad Vahid Khan

42. Which one of following is the devotional composition in western music:-

A) Chamber music B) Palain Song

C) Symphony D) Jazz Music

43. Name of Adarang is:-

A) Niyamat Khan B) Firoj Khan C) Asat Khan D) Lal Khan

44. Brijbhushan kabra plays:-

A) Sitar B) Guitar C) Sarod D) Sarangi

45. Who is not sitarist:-

A) Pt. Balram Pathak B) Pt. Ravi Shankar

C) Pt. Shashimohan Bhatt D) Pt. Ramnarayan

46. Dhamar gayan shaili is related with the festival:-

A) Diwali B) Baisakhi C) Holi D) Pongal

47. Pt. Anokhelal is famous for:-

A) Tabla Vadan B) Sitar Vadan C) Sarangi Vadan D) Bansuri Vadan

48. Who wrote the Ashram Bhajnavali in Gandhiji’s ashram at Ahemedabad:-

A) Narayan Moreshwar Khare B) Narayn Rao Vyas

C) Vishnu Digamber Pluskar D) Vinayak Rao Patvardhan

49. Ustad Mushtak Ali Khan played sitar of how many frets:-

A) 16 B) 17 C) 18 D) 19

50. Who is the main singer in samagana:-

A) Udgata B) Prastota C) Pratiharta D) Hota


Physical Education (1068)

1.

The anticipated outcome of a study or experiment is called:

A) Findings C) Hypothesis

B) Synthesis D) Conclusion.

2. Source of data in which previous research is evaluated and summarized is called:

A) Secondary source C) Easy source

B) Primary source. D) Literary source

3. An estimate of the variability of the scores of a group around the mean is:

A) Standard deviation C) Standard score

B) Standard error. D) Standard tool

4. A statistical technique to assess differences between three groups is:

A) Z-test C) F-test

B) T-test D) ANCOVA.

5. Provides a baseline for comparison, does not receive critical treatment (independent variable)

A) Training group C) Control group

B) Experimental group D) Survey group.

6. Design for research in which neither the experimenter nor the subjects know who is in the

experimental or control group.

A) Quasi-Experimental Design. C) Non-Random Design

B) Pre-Experimental Design D) Double-blind design

7. A technique for ascertaining the self-reported attitudes or behaviors of people, usually by

administering questionnaire or interview on a representative, random sample of them.

A) Description range C) Survey

B) Theory D) Surveillance.

8. Variable the experimenter measures.


A) Independent variable (IV). C) Independent measures design

B) Co-variables D) Dependent variable (DV)

9. Thinking that does not blindly accept arguments and conclusions. Rather, it examines

assumptions, discerns hidden values, evaluates evidence, and assesses conclusions.

A) Replication C) Critical thinking

B) Correlation D) Clinical psychology.

10. Responding, receiving, valuing, and organizing are all categories of the:

A) Cognitive domain C) Affective domain

B) Ethical domain D) Physical domain.

11. Assessment that refers to the quality of the performance, or its form, that is described

qualitatively is referred to as:

A)Product assessment C) Process assessment

B) Alternative assessment D) Authentic assessment.

12. The occurrence of chronic disease is NOT due to which of the following health risk factors:

A) Smoking C) Obesity.

B) High-protein diet D) Stress

13.

Physical Education is often de-emphasized in schools because it is viewed as:

A) Contributing to the holistic C) Increasing the health disparities

development of children between boys and girls.

B)Taking away from time spent in D) Educating our students for

"essential" academic subjects lifelong physical activity

14. Some of the sociological factors that have an impact on an individual's movement are the

following EXCEPT:

A) Self-confidence C) Socioeconomic background


B) Gender roles. D) Membership in a group

15. Bending, turning, and pushing are examples of:

A) Locomotor skills C) Body awareness.

B) Nonlocomotor skills D) Manipulative skills

16. The question, "How did urbanization influence the development of sports in India?" would most

likely be studied by a(n):

A) Sport philosopher C) Sport historian

B) Sport psychologist D) Sports physiologist.

17. This approach to education stressed the development of the total person; "a sound mind in a

sound body."

A) Essentialism. C) Pragmatism

B) Idealism D) Humanism

18. Kinesiology helps prepare physical education, exercise science, and sports professionals do all of

the following EXCEPT:

A) Teach fundamental motor skills

B) Examine the effects of pathogens at the cellular level

C) Evaluate exercises and activities

D) Restore lost function and/or assist in adapted-movements

19. Studying movement patterns and how they change across the lifespan from infancy to old age is

called:

A) Biomechanics of disease. C) Biomechanics of exercise

B) Rehabilitation biomechanics D) Developmental biomechanics

20. Any action that changes or tends to change the motion of an object is called:


A) Work C) Force

B) Energy D) Friction

21. A ________ is a mechanical device used to produce a turning motion about a fixed point called an

axis.

A) Lever C) Goniometer

B) Fulcrum D) Dynamographic wheel

22. The following are topics that exercise physiology encompass EXCEPT:

A) Effects of nutrition on performance

B) Effectiveness of various training programmes

C) Effectiveness of feedback on skill performance

D) Relationship of energy metabolism to performance

23. Knox test is a skill test for

A) Hockey C) Volleyball

B) Basketball D) Tennis

24.

Which of the following is not one of the five components of health-related fitness?

A) Speed C) Muscular endurance

B) Body composition D) Flexibility

25. Which of the following is not present during most episodes of binge eating:

A) Eating much more rapidly than usual. C) Eating until feeling uncomfortably full

B) Feeling disgusted with oneself D) Avoiding eating alone

26. Which of the following fitness components is the ability to perform prolonged, large-

muscle, dynamic exercise at a moderate-to-high level of intensity? A) Muscular strength C) Cardiorespiratory endurance


B) Muscular endurance D) Muscular power

27. By increasing the distance over which the force is applied, the force of impact may be :

A) Decreased C) Increased

B) Sustained D) Continued

28. Which is the validity, when the degree to which a given test compares or correlates with

another test that has an established validity? A) Concurrent. C) Predictive

B) Criterion related D) Construct

29. Which is not static strength endurance test:

A) Straight arm hang C) Bench Press test

B) Chest Raise and Hold D) Sit and Hold.

30. Which is not agility test:

A) Standing sliding C) Side step

B) Shuttle Run D) Right Boomerang

31. The equation for basal metabolic rate per day (BMR/PD) is:

A) = 1 cal x body weight (kg) x 24 C) = 1 cal x body weight (kg) x 2.2.

B) = 1 kcal x body weight (kg) x 24 D) = 1 kcal x body weight (kg) x 2.2

32. Pushing on an immovable object is an example of which type of training?

A) Isotonic exercise C) Isokinetic exercise.

B) Isometric exercise D) Concentric exercise

33. The average male has approximately ____percent storage fat and ____percent essential fat.

A) 18, 6. C) 15, 6


B) 15, 12 D) 12, 3

34. Which of the following indirect methods of measuring body composition can also

determine bone mineral density:

A) Body Pod C) Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry

B) Chemical analysis D) Bioelectrical impedance analysis.

35. To be classified as obese, men and women between the ages of 17 and 50 require a body

fat percentage greater than ______:

A) 30 percent. C) 15 and 20 percent, respectively

B) 12 and 15 percent, respectively D) 20 and 30 percent, respectively

36. “The practice of physical education, physical activity and sport is a fundamental right for

all”, is a part of which charter?

A) UNESCO C) WHO

B) UNO D) IOA

37. Who is the final authority in selecting national team for international sports events:

A) Sports Authority of India C) National Coach alone

B) Concerned National Sports Federation D)President concerned Sports Federation

38. Which of the following is an intrinsic reward of sports?

A) Recognition C) Self esteem

B) Attention D) Status

39. Repeated efforts at a relatively faster pace separated by measured intervals of incomplete

recovery is called :

A) Interval training C) Alternating training

B) Fartlek training D) Competition training

40. Law of Readiness, Law of Exercise and Law of Effect are propounded by:

A) Thorndike C) Pavlov


B) Cattle D) Skinner

41. Cycling on Monday, jogging on Wednesday, and swimming on Saturday is an example of:

A) Cyclic training C) Periodization

B) Cross training D) Interval training

42. The International year of physical education and sports was proclaimed by UNO for health,

education, peace and development in the year:

A) 2001 C) 2015

B) 2005 D) 2006

43. Which piece of equipment is used most often by qualitative movement analysts?

A) A digital video camera C) A tape measured

B) A digital stop watch D) A force plate

44. What forces affect a projectile in flight?

A) Gravity only C) Aerodynamic forces only.

B) Gravity and aerodynamic forces D) No forces affect a projectile's flight

45. The fundamental functional unit of neuromuscular control is called:

A) A motor end plate. C)A muscle fibre

B) A motor neuron D) A motor unit

46. Which one of the following is an example of a performance enhancing drug?

A) Steroid C) Alcohol

B) Carbohydrate D) Paracetamol

47. Which one of the following is an example of a food high in carbohydrates?

A) Fish C) Tomatoes


B) Bananas D) Eggs

48. What does S.M.A.R.T. goal setting stand for?

A) Specific, Measurable, Attainable, C) Specific, Measurable, Affordable,

Relevant and Timely Replicable and Timely B) Social, Meaningful, Affordable, D) Special, Meaningful, Attainable,

Relevant and Timely Relevant and Timely

49. Which of the following best describes the training principle of overload?

A) Concentrating on specific muscles C) Doing too much exercise.

to make it relevant

B) Putting the body under stress D) Doing less exercise to rest muscles

to improve strength

50. What is the duration of LSD training? At what intensity?

A) 30 mins to 2 hours at <70% of VO2 max; C) 10 mins to 1/2 hours at <70% of VO2 max;

at lower intensity at lower intensity

B) 30 mins to 2 hours at >70% of VO2 max; D) 10 mins to 1/2 hours at >70% of VO2 max;

at higher intensity. at higher intensity

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Law (1068)

1. What characterises an idea or set of ideas in research that is intended to explain facts and

events?

A) Hypotheses B) Laws C) Principles D) Theories

2. Study of legal concepts and principles emanating from cases, statutes and rules is known

as-

A) Doctrinaire research B) Empirical research

C) Doctrinal research D) Socio-legal research

3. Which scientific method follows these steps?

i) Observation/data ii) Pattern iii) theory

A) Inductive B) Deductive C) Qualitative D) None of these

4. Which of the following is a type of survey research?

A) Personal interview B) Mail questionnaire

C) Panel technique D) All of these

5. Which of the following strategies/methods is suitable for drawing generalisations from a

sample to a population?

A) Case studies B) Narrative research

C) Survey research D) All of these

6. Which of the following is not the characteristic feature of qualitative research?

A) Multiple sources of data- such as interview, observations, and documents

B) Inductive data analysis

C) Interpretative

D) Experimental

7. In random sampling-

A) Each subject has the same chance of being included

B) Selective subjects are taken

C) Subjects are taken according to their merit

D) None of the above

8. Which of the following is a non-probability technique of sampling?

A) Stratified random technique B) Cluster sampling

C) Quota sampling D) Systematic sampling

9. What kind of Research Design is best suited to study extent, magnitude and prevalence of

a social phenomenon?

A) Quantitative B) Qualitative C) Mixed method D) All of these

10. Separation of data/people/objects into smaller, more defined/homogeneous and relatable

bits of information is known as-


A) Quantification B) Stratification C) Segregation D) Variation

11. Which of the following judgements of the Supreme Court has read down Explanation 2 to

Section 375 of IPC, holding ‘marital rape’ on a minor wife to be an offence?

A) Independent Thought v. Union of India

B) Common Cause (A regd. Society) v. Union of India

C) PUCL v. Union of India

D) NALSA v. Union of India

12. Who was the first Chairman of the First Law Commission of India (1956)?

A) M. C. Chagla B) S. M. Sikri C) M.C. Setalvad D) K.N. Wanchoo

13. K. S. Puttaswami v. Union of India has been decided by a Bench of how many judges?

A) Five B) Seven C) Nine D) Eleven

14. What is the present number of High Courts in India for twenty nine states?

A) Twenty seven B) Twenty four C) Twenty nine D) Twenty three

15. Who is the first judge of the Supreme Court to be appointed directly from the bar-

A) Justice Rohinton S. Nariman B) Justice S. M. Sikri

C) Justice Kuldeep Singh D) Justice Indu Malhotra

16. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has observed that ‘two adults have the

right to live together even if they have not attained the marriageable age’?

A) Nand Kumar v. State of Kerala B) Seema v. Ashwani

C) Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India D) Narendra v. K. Meena

17. Choose the wrong answer.

The Supreme Court in a landmark judgement in Common Cause v. Union of India, (2018)

has -

A) Allowed “Advance Directive” by a terminally ill patient directing not to prolong life

by medical treatment

B) Declared Right to die with dignity as a fundamental right upholding right to choose

passive euthanasia, voluntary and involuntary

C) Upheld right to choose both active and passive euthanasia, voluntary and involuntary

D) Not upheld right to choose active euthanasia

18. The Chairperson of the National Commission on Minorities shall be deemed member of –

A) Human Rights Council B) National Human Rights Commission

C) Law Commission of India D) International Law Commission


19. How many appellate authorities are there under the Right to Information Act, 2005?

A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four

20. In which of the following cases, talaq-e-biddat (instant triple talaq) was declared

unconstitutional by the Supreme Court?

A) Muhammad Ahmad Khan v. Shah Bano Begum

B) Isharat Jahan v. Union of India

C) Shayara Bano v. Union of India

D) Shamin Ara v. State of U.P.

21. Who among the following has the power to extend functions of the State Public

Service Commission? A) Chief Minister B) Governor

C) Advocate General of the State D) State Legislature

22. What are the grounds for imposing national emergency?

A) War or External aggression or Armed rebellion

B) War or Insurgency or Armed rebellion

C) War or Internal disturbance or Armed rebellion

D) War or breakdown of law and order or Armed rebellion

23. Any dispute arising in connection with the election of the President of India can be

decided by-

A) Speaker, Lok Sabha B) Chairman, Rajya Sabha

C) Election Commission of India D) The Supreme Court of India

24. The prohibition against employment of children below 14 years has been provided as-

A) A fundamental right against exploitation in the Constitution

B) A directive principle of state policy

C) Right to equality

D) A duty on the parents and guardians

25. Which of the following Articles in the Constitution legitimises abrogation of fundamental

rights?

A) Articles 31 B) Articles 33 C) Articles 35 D) None of these

26. The administrative expenses of the Supreme Court shall be charged upon-

A) The Consolidated Fund of India B) Public Accounts of India

C) Contingency Fund D) None of these

27. As per section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 any property possessed by a

female Hindu, whether acquired by her before or after the commencement of this

Act, shall be held as- A) Half owner B) Limited owner C) Full owner D) All of these

28. Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with the legitimacy of children of-


A) Voidable marriage B) Void marriage

C) Void and Voidable marriage D) Valid marriage

29. Under Section 19 of the Hindu Succession Act two or more heirs succeed together to the

property of an intestate, they shall take the property –

A) As tenants-in-common B) As joint-tenant

C) As per seniority D) None of these

30. Cognate is a person who is related by blood or adoption-

A) Through males and females both B) Wholly through females

C) Wholly through males D) None of these

31. Under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, a woman can seek divorce from her

husband-

A) If he is impotent at the time of marriage and continues to be impotent after marriage

B) If he becomes impotent after marriage

C) If he was impotent before marriage but is not so at the time of marriage

D) Impotency is not a ground for divorce

32. The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 is applicable to deserted

or separated women where –

A) Marriage was solemnised or dissolved under Special Marriage Act

B) Marriage was dissolved under Indian Divorce Act

C) The marriage and divorce had taken place according to Muslim Law

D) All of the above

33. The performance made by a person who is legally bound to do the same-

A) Forms consideration for a contract

B) Does not form consideration for a contract

C) Is valid performance

D) None of the above

34. When two or more persons have made a joint promise, then unless a contrary intention

appears from the contract, all such persons must fulfil the promise:

A) Jointly B) Severally

C) Jointly and severally D) Jointly or severally

35. Share market transactions with a clear intention not only to settle the price difference but

‘to deliver the shares’ are:

A) Wagering agreements B) Valid agreements

C) Contingent contracts D) Voidable contracts

36. Where there is an unconditional contract for the sale of specific goods in deliverable state,

the property in goods passes to the buyer, when:

A) The goods are delivered B) The price is paid

C) The contract is made D) The parties intend


37. Sometimes a party is entitled to claim compensation in proportion to the work done by

him. It is possible by a suit for:

A) Damages B) Restitution

C) Quantum meruit D) Liquidated damages

38. Software that is downloaded online containing an “End User License Agreement”, to

which a user must agree, by clicking the “I Agree” button is called:

A) Browse Wrap Contract B) Click Wrap Contract

C) Shrink Wrap Contract D) None of these

39. According to the theory of ‘social utilitarianism’ as propounded by Inhering-

A) Greatest number of people should get greatest pleasure

B) The essential body of legal rules is always based upon the “social” facts of law

C) A balance is to be struck between competing interests in society

D) Law is a means to the end of securing the social good

40. Who amongst the following is regarded as the father of philosophical jurisprudence?

A) Hegel B) Locke C) Grotius D) Austin

41. Stare decisis means the previous judgement shall be-

A) Replaced B) Substituted C) Upheld D) Amended

42. Which of the following theories stresses that ‘the law is the practice of courts’?

A) Normative Theory B) Legal Realism

C) Social engineering D) Natural Law

43. Which of the following rights is the right in re propria?

A) Easement B) Lessee’s right

C) Licence D) Ownership of property

44. Which of the following obligations are not legally binding-

A) Contractual obligations B) Moral obligations

C) Delictal obligations D) Quasi-contractual obligations

45. Kidnapping means taking or enticing a girl child of less than 18 years out of the keeping of –

A) Natural guardians B) Foster parents

C) Lawful guardians D) Adoptive parents

46. What does ‘Zero FIR’ mean?

A) FIR can be filed in any Police Station irrespective of place of incident/ jurisdiction

B) FIR even though registered, cannot initiate investigation

C) FIR cannot be registered because of lack of jurisdiction

D) FIR cannot be registered because of lack of evidence

47. Rule of autrefois acquit is applicable when-


A) A second trial is barred when the accused has been prosecuted but acquitted at the first

trial for that offence

B) A second trial is barred only if the accused has been both prosecuted and convicted at

the first trial for that offence

C) A second trial is barred irrespective of previous acquittal or conviction

D) All of the above

48. Section 34 of the IPC relating to common intention is-

A) An offence B) Rule of law C) Rule of evidence D) A crime

49. Under-trial prisoner has to be released if he has undergone detention for a period

extending half of the sentence prescribed for his alleged offence, on personal bond, with

or without sureties under which provision of Cr. P.C?

A) Section 436 A B) Section 437 C) Section 437 A D) Section 439

50. Whoever dishonestly uses any movable property to his own advantage has committed the

offence of-

A) Wrongful gain B) Criminal breach of trust

C) Dishonest Misappropriation D) Theft

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