allen - mole concept

ALLEN JEE (Main) Examination -2021

1

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

JEE(MAIN) 2021 ATTEMPT (PC)MOLE CONCEPT

1. 4.5 g of compound A (MW = 90) was used to make 250 mL of its aqueous solution. The molarity of the solution in M is x × 10–1. The value of x is ________. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

2. The number of significant figures in 50000.020 × 10–3 is _____. 3. The NaNO3 weighed out to make 50 mL of an

aqueous solution containing 70.0 mg Na+ per mL is ______g. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

[Given : Atomic weight in g mol–1 – Na : 23 ; N : 14 ; O : 16]

4. Complete combustion of 750 g of an organic compound provides 420 g of CO2 and 210 g of H2O. The percentage composition of carbon and hydrogen in organic compound is 15.3 and ____ respectively. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

5. In Duma's method of estimation of nitrogen, 0.1840 g of an organic compound gave 30 mL of nitrogen collected at 287 K and 758 mm of Hg pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound is ______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Given : Aqueous tension at 287 K = 14 mm of Hg] 6. The number of chlorine atoms in 20 mL of

chlorine gas at STP is_____1021. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Assume chlorine is an ideal gas at STP R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1, NA = 6.023 ×1023] 7. Complete combustion of 3 g of ethane gives

x × 1022 molecules of water. The value of x is ______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Use : NA = 6.023 × 1023; Atomic masses in u : C : 12.0 ; O : 16.0 ; H : 1.0]

8. 250 mL of 0.5 M NaOH was added to 500 mL of 1 M HCl. The number of unreacted HCl molecules in the solution after complete reaction is _______ ×1021. (Nearest integer)

(NA = 6.022 × 1023)

9. 4g equimolar mixture of NaOH and Na2CO3 contains x g of NaOH and y g of Na2CO3. The value of x is ______ g. (Nearest integer)

10. When 0.15 g of an organic compound was analyzed using Carius method for estimation of bromine, 0.2397 g of AgBr was obtained. The percentage of bromine in the organic compound is _______. (Nearest integer)

[Atomic mass : Silver = 108, Bromine = 80] 11. 100 ml of 0.0018% (w/v) solution of Cl– ion

was the minimum concentration of Cl– required to precipitate a negative sol in one h. The coagulating value of Cl– ion is ______ (Nearest integer)

12. Methylation of 10 g of benzene gave 9.2 g of toluene. Calculate the percentage yield of toluene ______. (Nearest integer)

13. If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in blood is 0.72 g L–1, the molarity of glucose in blood is ______ × 10–3M. (Nearest integer)

[Given : Atomic mass of C = 12, H = 1, O = 16 u] 14. Consider the complete combustion of butane,

the amount of butane utilized to produce 72.0 g of water is ________ × 10–1 g.

(in nearest integer) 15. The number of significant figures in 0.00340 is

__________ . 16. 0.8 g of an organic compound was analysed by

Kjeldahl's method for the estimation of nitrogen. If the percentage of nitrogen in the compound was found to be 42%, then _________ mL of 1 M H2SO4 would have been neutralized by the ammonia evolved during the analysis.

17. The density of NaOH solution is 1.2 g cm–3. The molality of this solution is ________ m.

(Round off to the Nearest Integer)

[Use : Atomic masses : Na : 23.0 u O : 16.0 u H : 1.0 u Density of H2O : 1.0 g cm–3]

JEE (Main) Examination -2021 ALLEN

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

2 18. An organic compound is subjected to

chlorination to get compound A using 5.0 g of chlorine. When 0.5 g of compound A is reacted with AgNO3 [Carius Method], the percentage of chlorine in compound A is _______ when it forms 0.3849 g of AgCl. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

(Atomic masses of Ag and Cl are 107.87 and 35.5 respectively)

19. The ratio of number of water molecules in Mohr's salt and potash alum is ________ × 10–1.

(Integer answer)

20. 100 g of propane is completely reacted with 1000 g of oxygen. The mole fraction of carbon dioxide in the resulting mixture is x × 10–2. The value of x is ______. (Nearest integer)

[Atomic weight : H = 1.008; C = 12.00; O = 16.00]

21. The number of atoms in 8 g of sodium is x × 1023. The value of x is________. (Nearest integer)

[Given : NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1

Atomic mass of Na = 23.0 u]

CONCENTRATION TERMS 1. A 6.50 molal solution of KOH (aq.) has a

density of 1.89 g cm–3. The molarity of the solution is ________ mol dm–3. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Atomic masses: K :39.0 u; O :16.0 u; H :1.0 u] 2. When 35 mL of 0.15 M lead nitrate solution is

mixed with 20 mL of 0.12 M chromic sulphate solution, ________ × 10–5 moles of lead sulphate precipitate out. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

3. The mole fraction of a solute in a 100 molal aqueous solution _______ × 10–2.

(Round off to the Nearest Integer). [Given : Atomic masses : H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u]

4. An aqueous KCl solution of density 1.20 g mL–1

has a molality of 3.30 mol kg–1. The molarity of

the solution in mol L–1 is ________ (Nearest

integer)

[Molar mass of KCl = 74.5]

5. 100 mL of Na3PO4 solution contains 3.45 g of

sodium. The molarity of the solution is

_____×10–2 mol L–1 . (Nearest integer)

[Atomic Masses - Na : 23.0 u, O : 16.0 u, P : 31.0

u]

6. The molarity of the solution prepared by

dissolving 6.3 g of oxalic acid (H2C2O4.2H2O)

in 250 mL of water in mol L–1 is x × 10–2. The

value of x is ________. (Nearest integer)

[Atomic mass : H : 1.0, C : 12.0, O : 16.0]

7. Sodium oxide reacts with water to produce

sodium hydroxide. 20.0 g of sodium oxide is

dissolved in 500 mL of water. Neglecting the

change in volume, the concentration of the

resulting NaOH solution is _______ × 10–1 M.

(Nearest integer)

[Atomic mass : Na = 23.0, O = 16.0, H = 1.0]

8. If 80 g of copper sulphate CuSO4·5H2O is

dissolved in deionised water to make 5 L of

solution. The concentration of the copper

sulphate solution is x × 10–3 mol L–1. The value

of x is _________.

[Atomic masses Cu : 63.54 u, S : 32 u, O : 16 u,

H : 1 u]

ALLEN JEE (Main) Examination-2021

3

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

REDOX REACTIONS

1. (A) HOCl + H2O2 ® H3O+ + Cl– + O2

(B) I2 + H2O2 + 2OH– ® 2I– + 2H2O + O2

Choose the correct option.

(1) H2O2 acts as reducing and oxidising agent

respectively in equation (A) and (B)

(2) H2O2 acts as oxidising agent in equation (A)

and (B)

(3) H2O2 acts as reducing agent in equation (A)

and (B)

(4) H2O2 act as oxidizing and reducing agent

respectively in equation (A) and (B)

(A) HOCl + H2O2 ® H3O+ + Cl– + O2

(B) I2 + H2O2 + 2OH– ® 2I– + 2H2O + O2

2. The reaction of sulphur in alkaline medium is the below:

- 2- -+ ® + +l

28(s) ( aq ) ( aq ) 2 3 ( aq ) 2 ( )S a OH b S c S O d H O

The values of 'a' is _______. (Integer answer)

3. Which of the following equation depicts the

oxidizing nature of H2O2?

(1) KIO4 + H2O2 ® KIO3 + H2O + O2

(2) 2I– + H2O2 + 2H+ ® I2 + 2H2O

(3) I2 + H2O2 + 2OH– ® 2I– + 2H2O + O2

(4) Cl2 + H2O2 ® 2HCl + O2

4. In basic medium 2–4CrO oxidises 2 –

2 3S O to form

SO42– and itself changes into –4Cr(OH) . The

volume of 0.154 M 2–4CrO required to react

with 40 mL of 0.25 M 2 –2 3S O is _______ mL.

(Rounded-off to the nearest integer)

5. In mildly alkaline medium, thiosulphate ion is

oxidized by 4MnO- to "A". The oxidation state

of sulphur in "A" is ______.

6. 2 Mn -4O + b -2

2 4C O + c H+® x Mn2++y CO2+z H2O

If the above equation is balanced with integer coefficients, the value of c is _______.

(Round off to the Nearest Integer). 7. The exact volumes of 1 M NaOH solution

required to neutralise 50 mL of 1 M H3PO3

solution and 100 mL of 2 M H3PO2 solution,

respectively, are : (1) 100 mL and 100 mL (2) 100 mL and 50 mL (3) 100 mL and 200 mL (4) 50 mL and 50 mL 8. 15 mL of aqueous solution of Fe2+ in acidic

medium completely reacted with 20 mL of 0.03 M aqueous Cr2O72–. The molarity of the

Fe2+ solution is _______ × 10–2 M (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

9. The oxidation states of nitrogen in NO, NO2,

N2O and NO3– are in the order of :

(1) 3 2 2NO NO NO N O- > > >

(2) 2 3 2NO NO NO N O-> > >

(3) 2 2 3N O NO NO NO-> > >

(4) 2 2 3NO NO N O NO-> > >

10. When 10 mL of an aqueous solution of Fe2+ ions was titrated in the presence of dil H2SO4 using diphenylamine indicator, 15 mL of 0.02 M solution of K2Cr2O7 was required to get the end point. The molarity of the solution containing Fe2+ ions is x × 10–2 M. The value of x is ________. (Nearest integer)

11. Identify the process in which change in the oxidation state is five :

(1) 2 32 7Cr O 2Cr- +®

(2) 24MnO Mn- +®

(3) 2 34CrO Cr- +®

(4) 22 4 2C O 2CO- ®


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

4 12. 10.0 mL of 0.05 M KMnO4 solution was

consumed in a titration with 10.0 mL of given

oxalic acid dihydrate solution. The strength of

given oxalic acid solution is ........ × 10–2 g/L.

(Round off to the nearest integer)

13. The species given below that does NOT show

disproportionation reaction is :

(1) -4BrO (2) BrO– (3) -

2BrO (4) -3BrO

14. When 10 mL of an aqueous solution of KMnO4

was titrated in acidic medium, equal volume of

0.1 M of an aqueous solution of ferrous

sulphate was required for complete discharge

of colour. The strength of KMnO4 in grams

per litre is ________ × 10–2. (Nearest integer)

[Atomic mass of K = 39, Mn = 55, O = 16]

15. Match List – I with List - II.

List -I (Colloid Preparation

Method)

List -II (Chemical Reaction)

(a) Hydrolysis (i) 2AuCl3 + 3HCHO + 3H2O ® 2Au(sol) + 3HCOOH + 6HC1

(b) Reduction (ii) As2O3 + 3H2S ® As2S3(sol) + 3H2O

(c) Oxidation (iii) SO2 + 2H2S ® 3S(sol) +2H2O

(d) Double Decomposition

(iv) FeCl3 + 3H2O ® Fe(OH)3(sol) + 3HCl

Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below.

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

IDEAL GAS

1. The volume occupied by 4.75 g of acetylene gas

at 50°C and 740 mmHg pressure is _____ L.

(Rounded off to the nearest integer)

[Given R = 0.0826 L atm K–1 mol–1]

2. A car tyre is filled with nitrogen gas at 35 psi at 27°C. It will burst if pressure exceeds 40 psi. The temperature in °C at which the car tyre will burst is _______. (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)

3. Five moles of an ideal gas at 293 K is expanded isothermally from an initial pressure of 2.1 MPa to 1.3 MPa against at constant external pressure 4.3 MPa. The heat transferred in this process is _______ kJ mol–1. (Rounded-off to the nearest integer) [Use R = 8.314 J mol–1K–1]

4. A certain gas obeys P(Vm–b)= RT. The value of

T

ZP

¶æ öç ÷¶è ø

is b

RTx

. The value of x is_____.

(Integer answer) (Z : compressibility factor)

5. The pressure exerted by a non-reactive gaseous mixture of 6.4 g of methane and 8.8 g of carbon dioxide in a 10 L vessel at 27°C is ______ kPa.

(Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Assume gases are ideal, R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1

Atomic masses : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u]

6. At 20°C, the vapour pressure of benzene is 70 torr and that of methyl benzene is 20 torr. The mole fraction of benzene in the vapour phase at 20°C above an equimolar mixture of benzene and methyl benzene is ________ × 10–2. (Nearest integer)

7. The vapour pressures of A and B at 25°C are 90 mm Hg and 15 mm Hg respectively. If A and B are mixed such that the mole fraction of A in the mixture is 0.6, then the mole fraction of B in the vapour phase is x × 10–1. The value of x is ______. (Nearest integer)

8. An LPG cylinder contains gas at a pressure of 300 kPa at 27°C. The cylinder can withstand the pressure of 1.2 × 106 Pa. The room in which the cylinder is kept catches fire. The minimum temperature at which the bursting of cylinder will take place is ________ °C. (Nearest integer)


5

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

9. 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ® 2SO3(g) The above reaction is carried out in a vessel

starting with partial pressur 2SOP 250 m bar= ,

2OP 750m= bar and 3SOP 0 bar= . When the

reaction is complete, the total pressure in the reaction vessel is _____ m bar. (Round off of the nearest integer).

2SO2(g) + O2(g) ® 2SO3(g)

11. Two flasks I and II shown below are connected by a valve of negligible volume.

2.8 g N2300 K

1L

I II

0.2 g N260 K

2L

When the valve is opened, the final pressure of

the system in bar is x × 10–2. The value of x is ______. (Integer answer)

[Assume–Ideal gas; 1 bar = 105 Pa; Molar mass of N2 = 28.0 g mol–1; R = 8.31 J mol–1K–1]

12. Which one of the following is the correct PV vs P plot at constant temperature for an ideal gas ? (P and V stand for pressure and volume of the gas respectively)

(1) PV

P

(2)

PV

P

(3) PV

P

(4) PV

P

13. An empty LPG cylinder weighs 14.8 kg. When

full, it weighs 29.0 kg and shows a pressure of

3.47 atm. In the course of use at ambient

temperature, the mass of the cylinder is reduced

to 23.0 kg. The final pressure inside of the

cylinder is ______atm. (Nearest integer)

(Assume LPG of be an ideal gas)

ATOMIC STRUCTURE

1. A proton and a Li3+ nucleus are accelerated by

the same potential. If lLi and lP denote the de

Broglie wavelengths of Li3+ and proton

respectively, then the value of ll

Li

P

is x × 10–1.

The value of x is ________.


(Mass of Li3+ = 8.3 mass of proton)

2. According to Bohr's atomic theory :-

(A) Kinetic energy of electron is µ 2

2

Zn

.

(B) The product of velocity (v) of electron and

principal quantum number (n), 'vn' µ Z2.

(C) Frequency of revolution of electron in an

orbit is µ 3

3

Zn

.

(D) Coulombic force of attraction on the

electron is µ 3

4

Zn

.


options given below :

(1) (C) Only

(2) (A) Only

(3) (A), (C) and (D) only

(4) (A) and (D) only


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

6 3. The plots of radial distribution functions for

various orbitals of hydrogen atom against 'r' are given below:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

The correct plot for 3s orbital is: (1) (B) (2) (A) (3) (D) (4) (C) 4. Among the following, number of metal/s which

can be used as electrodes in the photoelectric cell is _______ (Integer answer)

(A) Li (B) Na (C) Rb (D) Cs 5. The spin only magnetic moment of a divalent

ion in aqueous solution (atomic number 29) is _______ BM.

6. Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 663 nm is just sufficient to ionise the atom of metal A. The ionization energy of metal A in kJ mol–1 is _______. (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)

[h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, c = 3.00 × 108 ms–1, NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1]

7. The orbital having two radial as well as two angular nodes is -

(1) 3p (2) 4f (3) 4d (4) 5d

8. A ball weighing 10 g is moving with a velocity of 90 ms–1. If the uncertainty in its velocity is 5%, then the uncertainty in its position is_______×10–33 m. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

[Given : h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js]

9. When light of wavelength 248 nm falls on a metal of threshold energy 3.0 eV, the de-Broglie wavelength of emitted electrons is ______ Å. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Use : 3 = 1.73, h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg ; c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1 ;

1eV = 1.6 × 10–19J] 10. A certain orbital has n = 4 and mL = –3. The

number of radial nodes in this orbital is ________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

11. A certain orbital has no angular nodes and two radial nodes. The orbital is :

(1) 2s (2) 3s (3) 3p (4) 2p 12. The oxide that shows magnetic property is : (1) SiO2 (2) Mn3O4

(3) Na2O (4) MgO

13. Given below are two statements : Statement I : Bohr's theory accounts for the

stability and line spectrum of Li+ ion.

Statement II : Bohr's theory was unable to explain the splitting of spectral lines in the presence of a magnetic field.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are true. (2) Statement I is false but statement II is true. (3) Both statement I and statement II are false. (4) Statement I is true but statement II is false.

0

4

8

4r

R(r

)p

22 n,

l

5 10r(Å) ¾®

0

1

2

3

4r

R(r

)p

22 n,

l

5 10r(Å) ¾®

0

4r

R(r

)p

22 n,

l

5 10r(Å) ¾®

1

2

3

0

4r

R(r

)p

22 n,

l

5 10r(Å) ¾®

0.51.0

1.52.0


7

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

14. For a given chemical reaction A ® B at 300 K the free energy change is –49.4 kJ mol–1 and the enthalpy of reaction is 51.4 kJ mol–1. The entropy change of the reaction is ___ J K–1 mol–1.

15. The wavelength of electrons accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 40 kV is x × 10–12 m. The value of x is _____. (Nearest integer)

Given : Mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg Charge on an electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C

Planck's constant = 6.63 × 10–34 Js 16. A source of monochromatic radiation of

wavelength 400 nm provides 1000 J of energy in 10 seconds. When this radiation falls on the surface of sodium, x × 1020 electrons are ejected per second. Assume that wavelength 400 nm is sufficient for ejection of electron from the surface of sodium metal. The value of x is ________ .

(Nearest integer)

(h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js) 17. An accelerated electron has a speed of

5 × 106 ms–1 with an uncertainty of 0.02%. The uncertainty in finding its location while in motion is x × 10–9 m. The value of x is __________ . (Nearest integer)

[Use mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg,

h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, p = 3.14]

18. Given below are two statements : Statement I : Rutherford's gold foil experiment

cannot explain the line spectrum of hydrogen atom.

Statement II : Bohr's model of hydrogen atom contradicts Heisenberg's uncertainty principle.


(1) Statement I is false but statement II is true.

(2) Statement I is true but statement II is false. (3) Both statement I and statement II are false.

(4) Both statement I and statement II are true.

19. If the Thompson model of the atom was correct, then the result of Rutherford's gold foil experiment would have been :

(1) All of the a-particles pass through the gold foil without decrease in speed.

(2) a-Particles are deflected over a wide range of angles.

(3) All a-particles get bounced back by 180o

(4) a-Particles pass through the gold foil deflected by small angles and with reduced speed.

20. Given below are two statements. Statement I: According to Bohr's model of an

atom, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity of electron increases with decrease in positive charges on the nucleus as there is no strong hold on the electron by the nucleus.

Statement II: According to Bohr's model of an atom, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity of electron increases with decrease in principal quantum number.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

21. A metal surface is exposed to 500 nm radiation. The threshold frequency of the metal for photoelectric current is 4.3 × 1014 Hz. The velocity of ejected electron is ________× 105 ms–1 (Nearest integer)

[Use : h = 6.63 × 10–34Js, me = 9.0 × 10–31 kg]

22. The kinetic energy of an electron in the second

Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is equal to 2

20

hxma

.

The value of 10x is ________ . (a0 is radius of Bohr's orbit) (Nearest integer) [Given : p = 3.14]


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

8 23. The number of photons emitted by a

monochromatic (single frequency) infrared range finder of power 1 mW and wavelength of 1000 nm, in 0.1 second is x × 1013. The value of x is _____. (Nearest integer)

(h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, c = 3.00 × 108 ms–1) 24. Ge(Z = 32) in its ground state electronic

configuration has x completely filled orbitals with ml = 0. The value of x is _______.

25. The value of magnetic quantum number of the outermost electron of Zn+ ion is _______.

26. A 50 watt bulb emits monochromatic red light of wavelength of 795 nm. The number of photons emitted per second by the bulb is x × 1020. The value of x is _________.

[Given : h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js and c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1]

SOLID STATE

1. The coordination number of an atom in a body-centered cubic structure is _______.

[Assume that the lattice is made up of atoms.]

2. The unit cell of copper corresponds to a face centered cube of edge length 3.596 Å with one copper atom at each lattice point. The calculated density of copper in kg/m3 is _______.

[Molar mass of Cu : 63.54 g ; Avogadro Number = 6.022 × 1023]

3. The number of octahedral voids per lattice site in a lattice is _____.(Rounded off to the nearest integer)

4. A certain element crystallises in a bcc lattice of unit cell edge length 27 Å. If the same element under the same conditions crystallises in the fcc lattice, the edge length of the unit cell in Å will be ________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Assume each lattice point has a single atom]

[Assume 3 = 1.73, 2 = 1.41]

5. Ga (atomic mass 70 u) crystallizes in a

hexagonal close packed structure. The total

number of voids in 0.581 g of Ga is

_______ × 1021. (Round off to the Nearest

Integer).

6. KBr is doped with 10–5 mole percent of SrBr2. The

number of cationic vacancies in 1 g of KBr crystal

is _____1014. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Atomic Mass : K : 39.1 u, Br : 79.9 u,

NA = 6.023 × 1023]

7. In a binary compound, atoms of element A form

a hcp structure and those of element M occupy

2/3 of the tetrahedral voids of the hcp structure.

The formula of the binary compound is :

(1) M2A3 (2) M4A3 (3) M4A (4) MA3

8. A hard substance melts at high temperature and

is an insulator in both solid and in molten state.

This solid is most likely to be a / an :

(1) Ionic solid (2) Molecular solid

(3) Metallic solid (4) Covalent solid

9. Diamond has a three dimensional structure of C

atoms formed by covalent bonds. The structure

of diamond has face centred cubic lattice where

50% of the tetrahedral voids are also occupied

by carbon atoms. The number of carbon atoms

present per unit cell of diamond is _______.

10. A copper complex crystallising in a CCP lattice

with a cell edge of 0.4518 nm has been revealed

by employing X-ray diffraction studies. The

density of a copper complex is found to be 7.62

g cm–3. The molar mass of copper complex is

______ g mol–1. (Nearest integer)

[Given : NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol–1]

11. The parameters of the unit cell of a substance are a

= 2.5, b = 3.0, c = 4.0, a = 90°, b = 120° g = 90°.

The crystal system of the substance is :

(1) Hexagonal (2) Orthorhombic

(3) Monoclinic (4) Triclinic


9

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

12. Select the correct statements. (A) Crystalline solids have long range order. (B) Crystalline solids are isotropic. (C) Amorphous solid are sometimes called

pseudo solids. (D) Amorphous solids soften over a range of

temperatures. (E) Amorphous solids have a definite heat of

fusion. Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below. (1) (A), (B), (E) only (2) (B), (D) only (3) (C), (D) only (4) (A), (C), (D) only 13. Given below are two statements. One is labelled

as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : Sharp glass edge becomes smooth on heating it upto its melting point.

Reason R : The viscosity of glass decreases on melting.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(1) A is true but R is false (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the

correct explanation of A. (3) A is false but R is true. (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A. 14. Given below are two statements. Statement I: Frenkel defects are vacancy as

well as interstitial defects. Statement II: Frenkel defect leads to colour in

ionic solids due to presence of F-centres. Choose the most appropriate answer for the

statements from the options given below: (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

15. Match items of List–I with those of List–II : List–I List–II

(Property) (Example)

(a) Diamagnetism (i) MnO (b) Ferrimagnetism (ii) O2 (c) Paramagnetism (iii) NaCl (d) Antiferromagnetism (iv) Fe3O4 Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below : (1) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv) (2) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii) (3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i) (4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)

16. The empirical formula for a compound with a cubic close packed arrangement of anions and with cations occupying all the octahedral sites in AxB. The value of x is _________

(Integer answer)

IONIC EQUILIBRIUM

1. The solubility product of PbI2 is 8.0 × 10–9. The

solubility of lead iodide in 0.1 molar solution of lead nitrate is x × 10–6 mol/L. The value of x is ________. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

[ ]=Given : 2 1.41

2. The solubility of AgCN in a buffer solution of pH = 3 is x. The value of x is: [Assume : No cyano complex is formed;

Ksp(AgCN) = 2.2 × 10–16 and Ka(HCN) = 6.2 × 10–10]

(1) 0.625 × 10–6 (2) 1.9 × 10–5 (3) 2.2 × 10–16 (4) 1.6 × 10–6 3. 0.4 g mixture of NaOH, Na2CO3 and some inert

impurities was first titrated with N10

HCl using

phenolphthalein as an indicator, 17.5 mL of HCl was required at the end point. After this methyl orange was added and titrated. 1.5 mL of same HCl was required for the next end point. The weight percentage of Na2CO3 in the mixture is

_______. (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

10 4. The solubility of Ca(OH)2 in water is :

[Given : The solubility product of Ca(OH)2 in

water = 5.5 × 10–6] (1) 1.77 × 10–6 (2) 1.11 × 10–6 (3) 1.11 × 10–2 (4) 1.77 × 10–2 5. Consider titration of NaOH solution versus

1.25M oxalic acid solution. At the end point following burette readings were obtained.

(i) 4.5 mL (ii) 4.5 mL (iii) 4.4 mL (iv) 4.4 mL (v) 4.4 mL If the volume of oxalic acid taken was 10.0 mL

then the molarity of the NaOH solution is _______M. (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)

6. The pH of ammonium phosphate solution, if pKa of phosphoric acid and pkb of ammonium

hydroxide are 5.23 and 4.75 respectively, is ______.

7. Two salts A2X and MX have the same value of

solubility product of 4.0 × 10–12. The ratio of

their molar solubilities i.e. 2S (A X)S (MX)

= _______.

(Round off to the Nearest Integer). 8. Sulphurous acid (H2SO3) has Ka1 = 1.7 × 10–2

and Ka2 = 6.4 × 10–8. The pH of 0.588 M

H2SO3 is ________. (Round off to the Nearest

Integer) 9. 0.01 moles of a weak acid HA(Ka = 2.0 × 10–6)

is dissolved in 1.0 L of 0.1 M HCl solution. The degree of dissociation of HA is _____ × 10–5 (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Neglect volume change on adding HA. Assume degree of dissociation <<1] 10. In order to prepare a buffer solution of pH 5.74,

sodium acetate is added to acetic acid. If the concentration of acetic acid in the buffer is 1.0 M, the concentration of sodium acetate in the buffer is _____ M. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Given : pKa (acetic acid) = 4.74]

11. The solubility of CdSO4 in water is

8.0 × 10–4 mol L–1. Its solubility in 0.01 M

H2SO4 solution is ______× 10–6 mol L–1.

(Round off to the Nearest integer) (Assume that

solubility is much less than 0.01 M)

12. 10.0 ml of Na2CO3 solution is titrated against

0.2 M HCl solution. The following titre values

were obtained in 5 readings.

4.8 ml, 4.9 ml, 5.0 ml, 5.0 ml and 5.0 ml

Based on these readings, and convention of

titrimetric estimation of concentration of

Na2CO3 solution is ________mM.

(Round off to the Nearest integer)

13. A solution is 0.1 M in Cl– and 0.001 M in -2

4CrO . Solid AgNO3 is gradually added to it

Assuming that the addition does not change in

volume and Ksp(AgCl) = 1.7 × 10–10 M2 and

Ksp(Ag2CrO4) = 1.9 × 10–12 M3.

Select correct statement from the following :

(1) AgCl precipitates first because its Ksp is high.

(2) Ag2CrO4 precipitates first as its Ksp is low.

(3) Ag2CrO4 precipitates first because the

amount of Ag+ needed is low.

(4) AgCl will precipitate first as the amount of

Ag+ needed to precipitate is low.

14. The water having more dissolved O2 is :

(1) boiling water

(2) water at 80°C

(3) polluted water

(4) water at 4°C

15. Assuming that Ba(OH)2 is completely

ionised in aqueous solution under the given

conditions the concentration of H3O+ ions in

0.005 M aqueous solution of Ba(OH)2 at 298 K

is __________ × 10–12 mol L–1.

(Nearest integer)


11

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

16. Given below are two statements. Statement I: In the titration between strong

acid and weak base methyl orange is suitable as an indicator.

Statement II: For titration of acetic acid with NaOH phenolphthalein is not a suitable indicator.


(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

17. The OH– concentration in a mixture of 5.0 mL of 0.0504 M NH4Cl and 2 mL of 0.0210 M NH3 solution is x × 10–6 M. The value of x is _______. (Nearest integer)

[Given Kw = 1 × 10–14 and Kb = 1.8 × 10–5]

18. The overall stability constant of the complex ion [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is 2.1 × 1013. The overall dissociations constant is y × 10–14. Then y is ____.(Nearest integer)

19. The number of moles of NH3, that must be added to 2 L of 0.80 M AgNO3 in order to reduce the concentration of Ag+ ions to 5.0 × 10–8 M (Kformation for [Ag(NH3)2]+ = 1.0 × 108) is ________ . (Nearest integer)

[Assume no volume change on adding NH3]

20. A3B2 is a sparingly soluble salt of molar mass M (g mol–1) and solubility x g L–1 . The

solubility product satisfies Ksp = æ öç ÷è ø

5xM

a . The

value of a is ________. (Integer answer)

21. The pH of a solution obtained by mixing 50 mL of 1 M HCl and 30 mL of 1 M NaOH is x × 10–4. The value of x is __________. (Nearest integer) [log 2.5 = 0.3979]

22. The molar solubility of Zn(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH solution is x × 10–18 M. The value of x is _____(Nearest integer)

(Given : The solubility product of Zn(OH)2 is 2 × 10–20)

THERMODYNAMICS

1. Assuming ideal behaviour, the magnitude of log K for the following reaction at 25°C is x × 10–1. The value of x is _______.

(Integer answer) º =

l( g) 6 6( )3HC CH C H

[Given: DƒGo(HC º CH) = –2.04 × 105 J mol–1;

DƒGo(C6H6) = –1.24 × 105 J mol–1;

R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1]

2. The reaction of cyanamide, NH2CN(s) with

oxygen was run in a bomb calorimeter and DU was found to be –742.24 kJ mol–1. The

magnitude of DH298 for the reaction

NH2CN(s) + 32

O2(g) ® N2(g) + O2(g) + H2O(l)

is _______ kJ. (Rounded off to the nearest integer) [Assume ideal gases and R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1]

3. For the reaction A(g) B(g) at 495 K,

DrGo = –9.478 kJ mol–1.

If we start the reaction in a closed container at 495 K with 22 millimoles of A, the amount of B is the equilibrium mixture is _______ millimoles. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1; ln 10 = 2.303]

4. At 25°C, 50 g of iron reacts with HCl to form

FeCl2. The evolved hydrogen gas expands

against a constant pressure of 1 bar. The work done by the gas during this expansion is ____ J.

(Round off to the Nearest Integer) [Given : R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1. Assume,

hydrogen is an ideal gas] [Atomic mass of Fe is 55.85 u]

�


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

12 5. During which of the following processes, does

entropy decrease ?

(A) Freezing of water to ice at 0°C

(B) Freezing of water to ice at –10°C

(C) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ® 2NH3(g)

(D) Adsorption of CO(g) and lead surface

(E) Dissolution of NaCl in water

(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

(2) (B) and (C) only

(3) (A) and (E) only

(4) (A), (C) and (E) only 6. The gas phase reaction

2A(g) �� A2(g)

at 400 K has DGº = + 25.2 kJ mol–1.

The equilibrium constant KC for this reaction is

______× 10–2. (Round off to the Nearest integer)

[Use : R = 8.3 J mol–1K–1 , ln 10 = 2.3

log10 2 = 0.30, 1 atm = 1 bar]

[antilog (–0.3) = 0.501] 7. If the standard molar enthalpy change for

combustion of graphite powder is –2.48 × 102 kJ mol–1, the amount of heat generated on combustion of 1 g of graphite powder is _______ kJ. (Nearest integer)

8. At 298.2 K the relationship between enthalpy of bond dissociation (in kJ mol–1) for hydrogen (EH) and its isotope, deuterium (ED), is best described by :

(1) EH = 12

ED (2) EH = ED

(3) -H DE E 7.5; (4) EH = 2ED

9. At 298 K, the enthalpy of fusion of a solid (X) is 2.8 kJ mol–1 and the enthalpy of vaporisation of the liquid (X) is 98.2 kJ mol–1. The enthalpy of sublimation of the substance (X) in kJ mol–1 is ________ .

(in nearest integer)

10. A home owner uses 4.00 × 103 m3 of methane (CH4) gas, (assume CH4 is an ideal gas) in a year to heat his home.

Under the pressure of 1.0 atm and 300 K, mass of gas used is x × 105 g. The value of x is ________ . (Nearest integer)

(Given R = 0.083 L atm K–1 mol–1)

11. A system does 200 J of work and at the same time absorbs 150 J of heat. The magnitude of the change in internal energy is __________ J. (Nearest integer)

12. For water at 100°C and 1 bar,

Dvap H – Dvap U = ________ × 102 J mol–1.

(Round off to the Nearest Integer) [Use : R=8.31 J mol–1 K–1] [Assume volume of H2O(l) is much smaller than

volume of H2O(g). Assume H2O(g) treated as an ideal gas]

13. An average person needs about 10000 kJ energy per day. The amount of glucose (molar mass = 180.0 g mol–1) needed to meet this energy requirement is _________ g.

(Use : DCH(glucose) = –2700 kJ mol–1)

THERMOCHEMISTRY

1. For the reaction A(g) ® (B)(g), the value of the

equilibrium constant at 300 K and 1 atm is

equal to 100.0. The value of DrG for the reaction

at 300 K and 1 atm in J mol–1 is – xR, where x is ______ (Rounded off to the nearest integer) (R = 8.31 J mol–1 K–1 and ln 10 = 2.3)

2. The ionization enthalpy of Na+ formation from

Na(g) is 495.8 kJ mol–1, while the electron gain

enthalpy of Br is –325.0 kJ mol–1. Given the lattice enthalpy of NaBr is –728.4 kJ mol–1. The energy for the formation of NaBr ionic solid is (–) _______ × 10–1 kJ mol–1.


13

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

3. For a chemical reaction A + B � C + D

(DrH0 = 80kJ mol–1) the entropy change

DrS0 depends on the temperature T (in K) as

(DrS0 = 2T (J K–1 mol–1).

Minimum temperature at which it will become spontaneous is ______K.(Integer)

4. The average S–F bond energy in kJ mol–1 of SF6 is ______.(Rounded off to the nearest

integer)

[Given : The values of standard enthalpy of formation of SF6(g), S(g) and F(g) are –1100,

275 and 80 kJ mol–1 respectively.]

5. The standard enthalpies of formation of Al2O3

and CaO are –1675 kJ mol–1 and –635 kJ mol–1 respectively.

For the reaction

3CaO + 2Al ® 3Ca + Al2O3 the standard

reaction enthalpy DrH0= _______ kJ.


6. For the reaction C2H6 ® C2H4 + H2

the reaction enthalpy DrH = ______ kJ mol–1.


[Given : Bond enthalpies in kJ mol–1 : C–C : 347, C=C : 611; C–H : 414, H–H : 436]

7. The Born-Haber cycle for KCl is evaluated with the following data :

1H for KCl = – 436.7kJ mol ;-D f!

subHD ! for K = 89.2 kJ mol–1;

Dionization H! for K = 419.0 kJ mol–1; Delectron gain H!

for Cl(g) = –348.6 kJ mol–1; Dbond H! for

Cl2 = 243.0 kJ mol–1

The magnitude of lattice enthalpy of KCl in kJ mol–1 is _______ (Nearest integer)

8. For water Dvap H = 41 kJ mol–1 at 373 K and 1 bar pressure. Assuming that water vapour is an ideal gas that occupies a much larger volume than liquid water, the internal energy change during evaporation of water is_____kJ mol–1

[Use : R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1] 9. 200 mL of 0.2 M HCl is mixed with 300 mL

of 0.1 M NaOH. The molar heat of neutralization of this reaction is –57.1 kJ. The increase in temperature in °C of the system on mixing is x × 10–2. The value of x is ________ . (Nearest integer)

[Given : Specific heat of water = 4.18 J g–1 K–1

Density of water = 1.00 g cm–3] (Assume no volume change on mixing)

10. Data given for the following reaction is as follows:

FeO(s) + C(graphite) ¾® Fe(s) + CO(g)

Substance DH°

(kJ mol–1)

DS°

(J mol–1K–1)

FeO(s) –266.3 57.49

C(graphite) 0 5.74

Fe(s) 0 27.28

CO(g) –110.5 197.6

The minimum temperature in K at which the reaction becomes spontaneous is ________ .

(Integer answer) 11. The incorrect expression among the following

is:

(1) System

Total

GT(at constant P)

SD

= -D

(2) o oH T Sln KRT

D - D=

(3) oG /RTK e-D=

(4) For isothermal process wreversible

= – V

nRTlnV

f

i


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

14 12. For the reaction 2NO2(g) �� N2O4(g), when

DS = –176.0 JK–1 and DH = –57.8 kJ mol–1, the

magnitude of DG at 298 K for the reaction is_____ kJ mol–1. (Nearest integer)

CHEMICAL KINETICS

1. Sucrose hydrolyses in acid solution into glucose and fructose following first order rate law with a half-life of 3.33 h at 25°C. After 9 h, the fraction of sucrose remaining is f. The value of

æ öç ÷è ø

101logƒ

is _______ × 10–2. (Rounded off to

the nearest integer)

[Assume : ln 10 = 2.303, ln 2 = 0.693]

2. For the reaction, aA + bB ® cC + dD, the plot

of log k vs 1T

is given below :

The temperature at which the rate constant of the reaction is 10–4 s–1 is _______ K.


[Given : The rate constant of the reaction is 10–5 s–1 at 500 K.]

3. The rate constant of a reaction increases by five times on increase in temperature from 27°C to 52°C. The value of activation energy in kJ mol–1

is _______ (Rounded-off to the nearest integer) [R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1]

4. An exothermic reaction X ® Y has an activation energy 30 kJ mol–1. If energy change

DE during the reaction is –20 kJ, then the activation energy for the reverse reaction in kJ is _______.(Integer answer)

5. If the activation energy of a reaction is 80.9 kJ mol–1, the fraction of molecules at 700 K, having enough energy to react to form products is e–x. The value of x is _______.


[Use R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1]

6. Gaseous cyclobutene isomerizes to butadiene in a first order process which has a 'k' value of 3.3 × 10–4s–1 at 153°C. The time in minutes it takes for the isomerization to proceed 40% to completion at this temperature is _____. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

7. The decomposition of formic acid on gold surface follows first order kinetics. If the rate constant at 300 K is 1.0 × 10–3 s–1 and the activation energy Ea = 11.488 kJ mol–1, the rate

constant at 200 K is _______ × 10–5 s–1. (Round of to the Nearest Integer).

(Given : R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1)

8. A and B decompose via first order kinetics with half-lives 54.0 min and 18.0 min respectively. Starting from an equimolar non reactive mixture of A and B, the time taken for the concentration of A to become 16 times that of B is ______ min. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

9. For a certain first order reaction 32% of the reactant is left after 570 s. The rate constant of this reaction is _______ × 10–3 s–1. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Given : log102 = 0.301, ln10 = 2.303]

10. The reaction 2A + B2 ® 2AB is an elementary

reaction.

For a certain quantity of reactants, if the volume of the reaction vessel is reduced by a factor of 3, the rate of the reaction increases by a factor of _____. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

slope = –10000 Klog k

1/T


15

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

11. 2 NO(g) + Cl2(g) � 2 NOCl(s)

This reaction was studied at –10°C and the following data was obtained

run [NO]0 [Cl2]0 r0 1 0.10 0.10 0.18 2 0.10 0.20 0.35 3 0.20 0.20 1.40 [NO]0 and [Cl2]0 are the initial concentrations

and r0 is the initial reaction rate. The overall order of the reaction is ______.


2 NO(g) + Cl2(g) � 2 NOCl(s)

12. A reaction has a half life of 1 min. The time required for 99.9% completion of the reaction is ______ min. (Round off to the Nearest integer)

[Use : ln 2= 0.69, ln 10 = 2.3] 13. The inactivation rate of a viral preparation is

proportional to the amount of virus. In the first minute after preparation, 10% of the virus is inactivated. The rate constant for viral inactivation is __________ × 10–3 min–1.

(Nearest integer) [Use : ln 10 = 2.303 ; log10 3 = 0.477; property of logarithm : log xy = y log x] 14. PCl5(g) ® PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) In the above first order reaction the

concentration of PCl5 reduces from initial concentration 50 mol L–1 to 10 mol L–1 in 120 minutes at 300 K. The rate constant for the reaction at 300 K is x × 10–2 min–1. The value of x is _______. [Given log5 = 0.6989]

PCl5(g) ® PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

15. 2 5(g) 2(g) 2(g)1N O 2NO O2

® +

In the above first order reaction the initial concentration of N2O5 is 2.40 × 10–2 mol L–1 at 318 K. The concentration of N2O5 after 1 hour was 1.60 × 10–2 mol L–1. The rate constant of the reaction at 318 K is _________ × 10–3 min–1. (Nearest integer)

[Given : log 3 = 0.477, log 5 = 0.699]

2 5(g) 2(g) 2(g)1N O 2NO O2

® +

16. For the following graphs,

(a)

Time

Rate

(b) Initial

concentration

t1/2

(c)

TimeCon

cent

ratio

n

(d)

Time Con

cent

ratio

n

(e)

Concentration

Rate

Choose from the options given below, the correct one regarding order of reaction is :

(1) (b) zero order (c) and (e) First order

(2) (a) and (b) Zero order (e) First order

(3) (b) and (d) Zero order (e) First order

(4) (a) and (b) Zero order (c) and (e) First order

17. For a chemical reaction A ® B, it was found that concentration of B is increased by 0.2 mol L–1 in 30 min. The average rate of the reaction is __________ × 10–1 mol L–1 h–1. (in nearest integer)

18. The number of neutrons and electrons, respectively, present in the radioactive isotope of hydrogen is :-

(1) 1 and 1

(2) 3 and 1

(3) 2 and 1

(4) 2 and 2

19. In a solvent 50% of an acid HA dimerizes and the rest dissociates. The van't Hoff factor of the acid is _____ × 10–2.



E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

16 20. For the first order reaction A ® 2B, 1 mole of

reactant A gives 0.2 moles of B after 100 minutes. The half life of the reaction is ...... min. (Round off to the nearest integer).

[Use : ln 2 = 0.69, ln 10 = 2.3 Properties of logarithms : ln xy = y ln x ;

xln ln x ln y]y

æ ö= -ç ÷

è ø


21. The reaction that occurs in a breath analyser, a device used to determine the alcohol level in a person's blood stream is

2K2Cr2O7 + 8H2SO4 + 3C2H6O ® 2Cr2(SO4)3 + 3C2H4O2 + 2K2SO4 + 11H2O

If the rate of appearance of Cr2(SO4)3 is 2.67 mol min–1 at a particular time, the rate of disappearance of C2H6O at the same time is ________ mol min–1. (Nearest integer)

22. The first order rate constant for the decomposition of CaCO3 at 700 K is 6.36 × 10–3s–1 and activation energy is 209 kJ mol–1. Its rate constant (in s–1) at 600 K is x × 10–6. The value of x is ___. (Nearest integer)

[Given R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1; log 6.36 × 10–3 = –2.19, 10–4.79 = 1.62 × 10–5]

23. For a first order reaction, the ratio of the time for 75% completion of a reaction to the time for 50% completion is _______. (Integer answer)

24. According to the following figure, the magnitude of the enthalpy change of the reaction

A + B ® M + N in kJ mol–1 is equal to _________. (Integer answer)

x

y

z

Reaction Coordinate

Ener

gy

A+B x=20 kJ mol–1

y=45 kJ mol–1

z=15 kJ mol–1

M+N

–

25. For the reaction A ® B, the rate constant k(in s–1) is given by

´= -3

10(2.47 10 )log k 20.35

T

The energy of activation in kJ mol–1 is _______. (Nearest integer)

[Given : R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1]

26. Which one of the following given graphs represents the variation of rate constant (k) with temperature (T) for an endothermic reaction ?

(1)

k

T

(2) k

T

(3) k

T

(4) k

T

SURFACE CHEMISTRY

1. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm, slope of AB line is :

(1) log n with (n > 1) (2) n with (n, 0.1 to 0.5)

(3) ( )1log with n 1n

<

(4) 1n

with 1 0 to 1n

æ ö=ç ÷è ø

2. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm at moderate

pressure, the extent of adsorption æ öç ÷è ø

xm

is

directly proportional to Px. The value of x is

(1) zero (2) 1n

(3) 1 (4) ¥

log

x m

AB

log P


17

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

3. Which one of the following statements is FALSE for hydrophilic sols ?

(1) Their viscosity is of the order of that of H2O. (2) The sols cannot be easily coagulated. (3) They do not require electrolytes for stability. (4) These sols are reversible in nature. 4. 3.12 g of oxygen is adsorbed on 1.2 g of

platinum metal. The volume of oxygen adsorbed per gram of the adsorbent at 1 atm and 300 K in L is______.

[R = 0.0821 L atm K–1 mol–1] 5. The nature of charge on resulting colloidal

particles when FeCl3 is added to excess of hot water is :

(1) Positive (2) Sometimes positive and sometimes negative (3) Neutral (4) Negative 6. The INCORRECT statements below regarding

colloidal solutions is : (1) A colloidal solution shows colligative

properties. (2) An ordinary filter paper can stop the flow of

colloidal particles. (3) The flocculating power of Al3+ is more than

that of Na+. (4) A colloidal solution shows Brownian motion

of colloidal particles. 7. A colloidal system consisting of a gas dispersed

in a solid is called a/an : (1) solid sol (2) gel (3) aerosol (4) foam 8. For the coagulation of a negative sol, the

species below, that has the highest flocculating power is :

(1) 2–4SO (2) Ba2+ (3) Na+ (4) 3–

4PO

9. The charges on the colloidal CdS sol and TiO2 sol are, respectively :

(1) positive and positive (2) positive and negative (3) negative and negative (4) negative and positive

10. The conditions given below are in the context of observing Tyndall effect in colloidal solutions:

(A) The diameter of the colloidal particles is comparable to the wavelength of light used.

(B) The diameter of the colloidal particles is much smaller than the wavelength of light used.

(C) The diameter of the colloidal particles is much larger than the wavelength of light used.

(D) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are comparable.

(E) The dispersed phase has a very different refractive index from the dispersion medium.

Choose the most appropriate conditions from the options given below:

(1) (A) and (E) only (2) (C) and (D) only (3) (A) and (D) only (4) (B) and (E) only 11. Match List I with List II : List-I List-II Example of colloids Classification (a) Cheese (i) dispersion of liquid in liquid

(b) Pumice stone (ii) dispersion of liquid in gas (c) Hair cream (iii) dispersion of gas in solid (d) Cloud (iv) dispersion of liquid in solid Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

12. CO2 gas adsorbs on charcoal following Freundlich adsorption isotherm. For a given amount of charcoal, the mass of CO2 adsorbed becomes 64 times when the pressure of CO2 is doubled.

The value of n in the Freundlich isotherm equation is _________ × 10–2.



E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

18 13. Given below are two statement : one is labelled

as Assertion A and the other is labelled as

Reason R.

Assertion A : SO2(g) is adsorbed to a large

extent than H2(g) on activated charcoal.

Reason R : SO2(g) has a higher critical

temperature than H2(g).

In the light of the above statements, choose the

most appropriate answer from the options given

below.

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the

correct explanation fo A

(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct

explanation of A.

(3) A is not correct but R is correct.

(4) A is correct but R is not correct.

14. Which one of the following is correct for the

adsorption of a gas at a given temperature on a

solid surface?

(1) DH > 0, DS > 0 (2) DH > 0, DS < 0

(3) DH < 0, DS < 0 (4) DH < 0, DS > 0

15. The sol given below with negatively charged

colloidal particles is :

(1) FeCl3 added to hot water

(2) KI added to AgNO3 solution

(3) AgNO3 added to KI solution

(4) Al2O3.xH2O in water

16. Tyndall effect is more effectively shown by :

(1) true solution (2) lyophilic colloid

(3) lyophobic colloid (4) suspension

17. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic

sols because :

(1) there is a strong electrostatic repulsion

between the negatively charged colloidal

particles.

(2) the colloidal particles have positive charge.

(3) the colloidal particles have no charge.

(4) the colloidal particles are solvated.

18. Select the graph that correctly describes the

adsorption isotherms at two temperatures T1 and

T2 (T1 > T2) for a gas :

(x – mass of the gas adsorbed ; m – mass of

adsorbent ; P – pressure)

(1)T2

T1

P

(2) T1

T2

P

(3) T1

T2

P

(4) T2

T1

P

19. CH4 is adsorbed on 1 g charcoal at 0°C

following the Freundlich adsorption isotherm.

10.0 mL of CH4 is adsorbed at 100 mm of Hg,

whereas 15.0 mL is adsorbed at 200 mm of Hg.

The volume of CH4 adsorbed at 300 mm of Hg

is 10x mL. The value of x is ____ × 10–2.

(Nearest integer)

[Use log102 = 0.3010, log103 = 0.4771]

ELECTROCHEMISTRY

1. The electrode potential of M2+ / M of 3d-series

elements shows positive value of :

(1) Zn (2) Fe (3) Co (4) Cu

2. The magnitude of the change in oxidising

power of the - +24MnO / Mn couple is x × 10–4 V,

if the H+ concentration is decreased from 1 M to

10–4 M at 25°C. (Assume concentration of - +24MnO and Mn to be same on change in H+

concentration). The value of x is _______.


é ù=ê úë û2.303 RTGiven : 0.059

F


19

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

3. Copper reduces –3NO into NO and NO2

depending upon the concentration of HNO3 in

solution. (Assuming fixed [Cu2+] and

PNO = 2NOP ), the HNO3 concentration at which

the thermodynamic tendency for reduction of –3NO into NO and NO2 by copper is same is

10x M. The value of 2x is _______.


[Given, 2oCu /Cu

E + = 0.34 V, –3

oNO /NO

E = 0.96 V,

–3 2

oNO /NO

E = 0.79 V and at 298 K,

RTF

(2.303) = 0.059]

4. Consider the following reaction

4MnO- + 8H+ + 5e– ® Mn2+ + 4H2O, Eº = 1.51 V.

The quantity of electricity required in Faraday

to reduce five moles of 4MnO- is____.

5 Emf of the following cell at 298 K in V is

x × 10–2. Zn|Zn2+ (0.1 M)||Ag+ (0.01 M)| Ag

The value of x is ______. (Rounded off to the

nearest integer)

[Given :2

0 0Zn /Zn Ag /Ag

2.303RTE 0.76V; E 0.80V; 0.059]F+ += - = + =

6. A 5.0 m mol dm–3 aqueous solution of KCl has

a conductance of 0.55 mS when measured in a

cell constant 1.3 cm–1. The molar conductivity

of this solution is _______ mSm2 mol–1.


7. A KCl solution of conductivity 0.14 S m–1

shows a resistance of 4.19 W in a conductivity

cell. If the same cell is filled with an HCl

solution, the resistance drops to 1.03 W. The

conductivity of the HCl solution is

____× 10–2 S m–1. (Round off to the Nearest

Integer).

8. For the reaction

2Fe3+(aq) + 2I–(aq) ® 2Fe2+(aq) + I2(s)

the magnitude of the standard molar free energy

change, DrG°m = – ______ kJ (Round off to the

Nearest Integer).

2 3

2

o oFe /Fe(s) Fe /Fe(s)

oI /2I

E 0.440 V; E 0.036 V

E 0.539 V; F 96500 C

+ +

-

é ù= - = -ê úê ú= =ë û

9. The molar conductivities at infinite dilution of

barium chloride, sulphuric acid and

hydrochloric acid are 280, 860 and 426 Scm2

mol–1 respectively. The molar conductivity at

infinite dilution of barium sulphate is

________S cm2 mol–1(Round off to the Nearest

Integer).

10. Potassium chlorate is prepared by electrolysis of

KCl in basic solution as shown by following

equation.

6OH– + Cl– ® ClO3– + 3H2O + 6e–

A current of xA has to be passed for 10h to

produce 10.0g of potassium chlorate. the value

of x is _______. (Nearest integer)

(Molar mass of KClO3 = 122.6 g mol–1,

F = 96500 C)

11. Assume a cell with the following reaction

Cu(s) + 2Ag+(1 × 10–3 M)®Cu2+(0.250 M) + 2Ag(s)

=1cellE 2.97V

Ecell for the above reaction is ___________V.

(Nearest integer)

[Given : log 2.5 = 0.3979, T = 298 K]

12. Consider the cell at 25°C

Zn | Zn2+(aq), (1 M) || Fe3+(aq), Fe2+(aq) | Pt(s)

The fraction of total iron present as Fe3+ ion at

the cell potential of 1.500 V is x × 10–2. The

value of x is ________ .

(Nearest integer)

(Given : + + += = -3 2 20 0Fe /Fe Zn /Zn

E 0.77V, E 0.76V )


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

20 13. The conductivity of a weak acid HA of

concentration 0.001 mol L–1 is 2.0 × 10–5 S cm–l. If -L =o 2 1

m (HA) 190 S cm mol , the ionization

constant (Ka) of HA is equal to _________ × 10–6.


14. For the cell Cu(s) | Cu2+(aq) (0.1M) || Ag+ (aq) (0.01M) | Ag(s) the cell potential E1 = 0.3095 V For the cell Cu(s) | Cu2+ (aq) (0.01 M) || Ag+(aq) (0.001 M) | Ag(s) the cell potential = ______ × 10–2 V. (Round off

the Nearest Integer).

[ 2.303 RTUse : 0.059F

= ]

15. Given below are two statements : Statement I : The limiting molar conductivity

of KCl (strong electrolyte) is higher compared to that of CH3COOH (weak electrolyte).

Statement II : Molar conductivity decreases with decrease in concentration of electrolyte.


(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

16. For the galvanic cell,

Zn(s)+Cu2+(0.02 M)®Zn2+ (0.04 M)+ Cu(s),

Ecell =_______ × 10–2 V. (Nearest integer)

[Use : 20

Cu /CuE + = –0.34 V, 2

0Zn /Zn

E + =+0.76 V,

2.303 RTF

= 0.059 V]

17. The resistance of a conductivity cell with cell constant 1.14 cm–1, containing 0.001 M KCl at 298 K is 1500 W. The molar conductivity of 0.001 M KCl solution at 298 K in S cm2 mol–1 is_______. (Integer answer)

18. Consider the following cell reaction :

Cd(s)+Hg2SO4(s)+ 2 ( )9 H O5 l +�� 4 2 ( ) ( )

9CdSO . H O 2Hg5 s l

The value of 0cellE is 4.315 V at 25°C. If

DH° = –825.2 kJ mol–1, the standard entropy

change DS° in J K–1 is ______. (Nearest integer) [Given : Faraday constant = 96487 C mol–1] 19. Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II

(Parameter) (Unit)

(a) Cell constant (i) S cm2 mol–1 (b) Molar conductivity (ii) Dimensionless (c) Conductivity (iii) m–1

(d) Degree of dissociation (iv) W–1 m–1 of electrolyte Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below : (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

20. If the conductivity of mercury at 0°C is 1.07 × 106 S m–1 and the resistance of a cell containing mercury is 0.243 W, then the cell constant of the cell is x × 104 m–1. The value of x is _______.(Nearest integer)

LIQUID SOLUTION

1. When 9.45 g of ClCH2COOH is added to 500 mL

of water, its freezing point drops by 0.5°C. The dissociation constant of ClCH2COOH is

x × 10–3. The value of x is ________. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

2

-1f(H O)K = 1.86 K kg molé ùë û

2. C6H6 freezes at 5.5°C. The temperature at which

a solution 10 g of C4H10 in 200 g of C6H6 freeze

is _______ °C. (The molal freezing point depression constant of C6H6 is 5.12°C/m.)


21

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

3. 1 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte A2B3

is 60% ionised. The boiling point of the solution

at 1 atm is _______ K. (Rounded-off to the

nearest integer)

[Given Kb for (H2O) = 0.52 K kg mol–1]

4. If a compound AB dissociates to the extent of

75% in an aqueous solution, the molality of the

solution which shows a 2.5 K rise in the boiling

point of the solution is ______ molal.


[Kb = 0.52K kg mol–1]

5. 224 mL of SO2(g) at 298 K and 1 atm is passed

through 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution. The

non-volatile solute produced is dissolved in

36 g of water. The lowering of vapour pressure

of solution (assuming the solution is dilute)

( )2(H O)P 24 mm of Hg= is x × 10–2 mm of Hg,

the value of x is ______. (Integer answer)

6. When 12.2 g of benzoic acid is dissolved in 100 g

of water, the freezing point of solution was found

to be –0.93°C (Kf (H2O) = 1.86K kg mol–1). The

number (n) of benzoic acid molecules associated

(assuming 100% association) is ____.

7. AB2 is 10% dissociated in water to A2+ and

B–. The boiling point of a 10.0 molal aqueous

solution of AB2 is _______oC. (Round off to the

Nearest Integer).

[Given : Molal elevation constant of water

Kb = 0.5 K kg mol–1 boiling point of pure water

= 100oC]

8. At 363 K, the vapour pressure of A is 21 kPa

and that of B is 18 kPa. One mole of A and 2

moles of B are mixed. Assuming that this

solution is ideal, the vapour pressure of the

mixture is ________ kPa. (Round of to the

Nearest Integer).

9. The oxygen dissolved in water exerts a partial pressure of 20 kPa in the vapour above water.

The molar solubility of oxygen in water is _______ × 10–5 mol dm–3.

(Round off to the Nearest Integer). [Given : Henry's law constant = KH = 8.0 × 104 kPa for O2. Density of water with dissolved oxygen

= 1.0 kg dm–3] 10. A 1 molal K4Fe(CN)6 solution has a degree of

dissociation of 0.4. Its boiling point is equal to that of another solution which contains 18.1 weight percent of a non electrolytic solute A. The molar mass of A is_____ u. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Density of water = 1.0 g cm–3] 11. 2 molal solution of a weak acid HA has a

freezing point of 3.885°C. The degree of dissociation of this acid is _____ × 10–3. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Given : Molal depression constant of water = 1.85 K kg mol–1 Freezing point of pure

water = 0°C] 12. A solute a dimerizes in water. The boiling point

of a 2 molar solution of A is 100.52ºC. The percentage association of A is.____.

(Round off to the Nearest integer) [Use : Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol–1

Boiling point of water = 100°C] 13. Which one of the following 0.06 M aqueous

solutions has lowest freezing point ? (1) Al2(SO4)3 (2) C6H12O6 (3) KI (4) K2SO4 14. CO2 gas is bubbled through water during a soft

drink manufacturing process at 298 K. If CO2 exerts a partial pressure of 0.835 bar then x m mol of CO2 would dissolve in 0.9 L of water. The value of x is ________ .

(Nearest integer) (Henry's law constant for CO2 at 298 K is

1.67 × 103 bar)


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

22 15. When 3.00 g of a substance 'X' is dissolved in

100 g of CCl4, it raises the boiling point by 0.60 K. The molar mass of the substance 'X' is ________ g mol–1. (Nearest integer).

[Given Kb for CCl4 is 5.0 K kg mol–1] 16. 1.46 g of a biopolymer dissolved in a 100 mL

water at 300 K exerted an osmotic pressure of 2.42 × 10–3 bar.

The molar mass of the biopolymer is _____ × 104 g mol–1.

(Round off to the Nearest Integer) [Use : R = 0.083 L bar mol–1 K–1] 17. When 400 mL of 0.2M H2SO4 solution is mixed

with 600 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution, the increase in temperature of the final solution is _____ × 10–2 K. (Round off to the nearest integer).

[Use : H+ (aq) + OH–(aq) ® H2O :

DgH = – 57.1 kJ mol–1] Specific heat of H2O = 4.18 J K–1 g–1 density of H2O = 1.0 g cm–3 Assume no change in volume of solution on

mixing.

18. Of the following four aqueous solutions, total number of those solutions whose freezing point is lower than that of 0.10 M C2H5OH is ________ (Integer answer)

(i) 0.10 M Ba3(PO4)2

(ii) 0.10 M Na2SO4

(iii) 0.10 M KCl

(iv) 0.10 M Li3PO4

19. 83 g of ethylene glycol dissolved in 625 g of water. The freezing point of the solution is _______K. (Nearest integer)

[Use : Molal Freezing point depression constant of water = 1.86 K kg mol–1]

Freezing Point of water = 273 K

Atomic masses : C : 12.0 u, O : 16.0 u, H : 1.0 u]

20. 1 kg of 0.75 molal aqueous solution of sucrose

can be cooled up to –4°C before freezing. The

amount of ice (in g) that will be separated out is

________ . (Nearest integer)

[Given : Kf(H2O) = 1.86 K kg mol–1]

21. 40 g of glucose (Molar mass = 180) is mixed

with 200 mL of water. The freezing point of

solution is _____ K. (Nearest integer)

[Given : Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1 ; Density of

water = 1.00 g cm–3; Freezing point of

water = 273.15 K]

22. Which one of the following 0.10 M aqueous

solutions will exhibit the largest freezing point

depression ?

(1) hydrazine

(2) glucose

(3) glycine

(4) KHSO4

23. 1.22 g of an organic acid is separately dissolved

in 100 g of benzene (Kb = 2.6 K kg mol–1) and

100 g of acetone (Kb = 1.7 K kg mol–1). The

acid is known to dimerize in benzene but

remain as a monomer in acetone. The boiling

point of the solution in acetone increases by

0.17°C. The increase in boiling point of solution

in benzene in °C is x × 10–2. The value of x is

_______.(Nearest integer)

[Atomic mass : C = 12.0, H = 1.0, O= 16.0]

CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

1. At 1990 K and 1 atm pressure, there are equal

number of Cl2 molecules and Cl atoms in the

reaction mixture. The value KP for the reaction

Cl2(g) � 2Cl(g) under the above conditions is

x × 10–1. The value of x is _______. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)


23

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

2. The stepwise formation of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is

given below

+ ++ ��1K2 2

3 3Cu NH [Cu(NH )]

+ ++ ��2K2 2

3 3 3 2[Cu(NH )] NH [Cu(NH ) ]

+ ++ ��3K2 2

3 2 3 3 3[Cu(NH ) ] NH [Cu(NH ) ]

+ ++ ��4K2 2

3 3 3 3 4[Cu(NH ) ] NH [Cu(NH ) ]

The value of stability constants K1, K2, K3 and

K4 are 104, 1.58 × 103, 5 × 102 and 102

respectively. The overall equilibrium constants

for dissociation of [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is x × 10–12.

The value of x is ________. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

3. A homogeneous ideal gaseous reaction

AB2(g) � A(g) + 2B(g) is carried out in a 25 litre

flask at 27°C. The initial amount of AB2 was 1

mole and the equilibrium pressure was 1.9 atm.

The value of KP is x × 10–2. The value of x

is______.(Integer answer)

4. Consider the reaction N2O4(g) 2NO2(g).

The temperature at which KC = 20.4 and

KP = 600.1, is_____K. (Round off to the

Nearest Integer). [Assume all gases are ideal and R = 0.0831 L

bar K–1 mol–1]

5. 2SO2(g) + O2(g) � 2SO3(g)

In an equilibrium mixture, the partial pressures

are =3SOP 43 kPa ; =

2OP 530 Pa and

=2SOP 45 kPa. The equilibrium constant

KP = ______ × 10–2. (Nearest integer)

2SO2(g) + O2(g) � 2SO3(g)

6. Value of KP for the equilibrium reaction

N2O4 (g) � 2NO2(g) at 288 K is 47.9. The KC for

this reaction at same temperature is _______. (Nearest integer)

(R = 0.083 L bar K–1 mol–1)

7. For the reaction

A + B � 2C

the value of equilibrium constant is 100 at 298 K. If the initial concentration of all the three species is 1 M each, then the equilibrium concentration of C is x × 10–1 M. The value of x is ________ .

(Nearest integer) 8. Presence of which reagent will affect the

reversibility of the following reaction, and change it to a irreversible reaction :

CH4 + I2

hv CH3 – I + HI Reversible

(1) HOCl (2) dilute HNO2 (3) Liquid NH3 (4) Concentrated HIO3

9. PC15 � PCl3 + Cl3 ; Kc = 1.844

3.0 moles of PCl5 is introduced in a 1 L closed reaction vessel at 380 K. The number of moles of PCl5 at equilibrium is ___ × 10–3.


PC15 � PCl3 + Cl3 Kc = 1.844

10. The equilibrium constant for the reaction

21A(s) M(s) O (g)2

+��

is Kp = 4. At equilibrium, the partial pressure of O2 is ___ atm. (Round off to the nearest integer)

11. The following data was obtained for chemical reaction given below at 975 K.

(g) 2(g) 2(g) 2 (g)2NO 2H N 2H O+ ® +

[NO] [H2] Rate mol L–1 mol L–1 mol L–1s–1 (A) 8 × 10–5 8 × 10–5 7 × 10–9

(B) 24 × 10–5 8 × 10–5 2.1 × 10–8

(C) 24 × 10–5 32 × 10–5 8.4 × 10–8 The order of the reaction with respect to NO is

_______. [Integer answer]

��


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

24 12. The equilibrium constant Kc at 298 K for the

reaction A + B �� C + D

is 100. Starting with an equimolar solution with concentrations of A, B, C and D all equal to 1M, the equilibrium concentration of D is_____ × 10–2 M. (Nearest integer)

13. The reaction rate for the reaction

[PtCl4]2– + H2O �� [Pt(H2O)Cl3]– + Cl–

was measured as a function of concentrations of different species. It was observed that

[ ]2

4d PtCl

dt

-é ù- ë û = 4.8 × 10–5 [ ]24PtCl -é ù

ë û –2.4 ×

10–3 [ ] –2 3Pt(H O)Cl Cl-é ù é ùë ûë û

.

where square brackets are used to denote molar concentrations. The equilibrium constant Kc=_____. (Nearest integer)

14. When 5.1 g of solid NH4HS is introduced into a two litre evacuated flask at 27°C, 20% of the solid decomposes into gaseous ammonia and hydrogen sulphide. The Kp for the reaction at 27°C is x × 10–2. The value of x is _______. (Integer answer)

[Given R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1]

EUDIOMETRY

1. The formula of a gaseous hydrocarbon which requires 6 times of its own volume of O2 for

complete oxidation and produces 4 times its own volume of CO2 is CxHy. The value of y is

_______.

2. Complete combustion of 1.80 g of an oxygen containing compound (CxHyOz) gave 2.64 g of

CO2 and 1.08 g of H2O. The percentage of

oxygen in the organic compound is: (1) 51.63 (2) 63.53 (3) 53.33 (4) 50.33

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 2 8 13 3 19 1 18 226 1 68 1 78 4 464 3Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21Ans. 12 5 19 5 19 2

ANSWER KEYMOLE CONCEPT

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8Ans. 9 525 64 3 50 20 13 64

CONCENTRATION TERMS

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 3 12 70 173 6 16 3 24 1 18 2 1575 1 316 2

REDOX REACTIONS

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13Ans. 5 70 15 1 150 78 1 927 875 4 84 4 2

IDEAL GAS

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 2 4 3 1 2 181 4 1 9 0 2 2 2 360 6Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26Ans. 2 58 4 4 3 5 3155 50 7 0 2

ATOMIC STRUCTURE

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 8 9076 1 33 15 5 2 4 8 106 3 4 2 3 3Q.No. 16Ans. 1

SOLID STATE


25

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\PC

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 141 2 4 3 6 7 50 1 2 10 64 50 4 4 1Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22Ans. 2 3 5 4 108 6021 2

IONIC EQUILIBRIUM

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13Ans. 855 741 20 2218 1 166 21 3 101 26 50 31 667

THERMODYNAMICS

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12Ans. 1380 5576 200 309 230 128 718 38 82 964 2 5

THERMOCHEMISTRY

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 81 526 52 50 14 26 10 108 2 27 3 10 106 1 7Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26Ans. 4 4 3 125 300 4 16 2 45 47 3

CHEMICAL KINETICS

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 4 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 4 1 4 17 2 3 3Q.No. 16 17 18 19Ans. 3 4 4 128

SURFACE CHEMISTRY

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 4 3776 4 25 147 14 54 46 288 1 3 24 12 28 4Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20Ans. 109 760 25 1 26

ELECTROCHEMISTRY

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 36 1 375 3 24 2 106 19 25 85 50 100 1 25 250Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23Ans. 15 2 4 269 518 271 4 13

LIQUID SOLUTION

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14Ans. 5 1 73 354 172 2 25 4 1396 16 1 182 50 6

CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

Q.No. 1 2Ans. 8 3

EUDIOMETRY


1

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

JEE(MAIN) 2021 ATTEMPT (OC)GOC

1. Which one of the following compounds is non-aromatic ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

2. The correct order of acid character of the following compounds is :

Options: (1) III > II > I > IV (2) IV > III > II > I (3) I > II > III > IV (4) II > III > IV > I 3. A. Phenyl methanamine B. N,N-Dimethylaniline C. N-Methyl aniline D. Benzenamine Choose the correct order of basic nature of the

above amines. (1) A > C > B > D (2) D > C > B > A (3) D > B > C > A (4) A > B > C > D 4. Compound(s) which will liberate carbon

dioxide with sodium bicarbonate solution is/are:

(1) B only (2) C only (3) B and C only (4) A and B only

5. Among the following, the aromatic compounds are :

(A) (B)

(C)

(D)

Choose the correct answer from the following options :

(1) (A) and (B) only (2) (B) and (C) only (3) (B), (C) and (D) only (4) (A), (B) and (C) only

6. Statement I : Sodium hydride can be used as an oxidising agent.

Statement II : The lone pair of electrons on nitrogen in pyridine makes it basic.

Choose the CORRECT answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are false (2) Statement I is true but statement II is false (3) Statement I is false but statement II is true (4) Both statement I and statement II are true 7. Which of the following is least basic ? (1) (CH3CO) (2) (C2H5)3

(3) (CH3CO)2 (4) (C2H5)2

8. Which of the following is an aromatic compound?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

9. In the following molecules,

Hybridisation of carbon a, b and c respectively

are : (1) sp3, sp, sp (2) sp3, sp2, sp (3) sp3, sp2, sp2 (4) sp3, sp, sp2

OÅ

Å

NH2 COOH

NH2 NH2

OH

A = B =

OHNO2 NO2

NO2

C =

CH2

! Å

NHC H2 5

:

N

:NH

:

NH:

C = C – OH C3

H

a

H

b c


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

2 10.

CH2 Å

(A)

CH2

(B)

Å

H

H

(C)

CH2 Å

(D)

CH2 Å

O

Among the given species the Resonance stabilised carbocations are:

(1) (C) and (D) only (2) (A), (B) and (D) only (3) (A) and (B) only (4) (A), (B) and (C) only 11. Which of the following compounds does not

exhibit resonance?

(1) CH3CH2OCH=CH2

(2)

CH2OH

(3) CH3CH2CH2CONH2 (4) CH3CH2CH=CHCH2NH2

12. Which one among the following resonating structures is not correct?

(1)

ÅN

O

O

Å

(2) ÅN

O

OÅ

(3)

ÅN

O

O

Å

(4)

ÅN

O

O

Å

13. Which among the following is the strongest acid ?

(1) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (2)

(3)

(4)

14. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Aniline is less basic than

acetamide.

Statement II : In aniline, the lone pair of

electrons on nitrogen atom is delocalised over

benzene ring due to resonance and hence less

available to a proton.

Choose the most appropriate option ;

(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false.

(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true.

(3) Both statement I and statement II are true.

(4) Both statement I and statement II are false.

15.

A

CH2=CH

CH2Å

CH3–CH2 HCºCÅ Å Å

B C D

The correct order of stability of given

carbocation is :

(1) A > C > B > D (2) D >B > C > A

(3) D > B > A > C (4) C > A > D > B


Statement I : Hyperconjugation is a permanent

effect.

Statement II : Hyperconjugation in ethyl cation

3 2CH CH+æ ö-ç ÷

è ø involves the overlapping of

2 1sspC H- bond with empty 2p orbital of other

carbon.

Choose the correct option :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are false

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is

true

(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is

false

(4) Both Statement I and statement II are true.


3

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

NOMENCLATURE

1. The number of compound/s given below which

contain/s –COOH group is _______.

(A) Sulphanilic acid (B) Picric acid

(C) Aspirin (D) Ascorbic acid

2. In 1 2 3 4

2 3CH C C H C H= = - molecule, the

hybridization of carbon 1, 2, 3 and 4

respectively are :

(1) sp3, sp, sp3, sp3

(2) sp2, sp2, sp2, sp3

(3) sp2, sp, sp2, sp3

(4) sp2, sp3, sp2, sp3

3. Mesityl oxide is a common name of :

(1) 2,4-Dimethyl pentan-3-one

(2) 3-Methyl cyclohexane carbaldehyde

(3) 2-Methyl cyclohexanone

(4) 4-Methyl pent-3-en-2-one

4. The total number of C–C sigma bond/s in

mesityl oxide (C6H10O) is_____. (Round off to

the Nearest Integer).

5. Which one of the following compounds is not

aromatic ?

(1)

!

(2)

!

:

(3)

(4) O

H

: :

6. The compound/s which will show significant

intermolecular H–bonding is/are :

NO2

OH

(a)

O

CH3

HN

HO

(b)

OH

(c) (1) (b) only (2) (c) only

(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)

7. Choose the correct name for compound given below :

Br

(1) (4E)-5-Bromo-hex-4-en-2-yne

(2) (2E)-2-Bromo-hex-4-yn-2-ene

(3) (2E)-2-Bromo-hex-2-en-4-yne

(4) (4E)-5-Bromo-hex-2-en-4-yne 8. Which one of the following compounds is

aromatic in nature ?

(1) (2)

(3)

+

CH3

(4)

!

fuEu ;kSfxdksa esa ls dkSulk ,d ,sjkseSfVd izÑfr dk

gS ?

(1) (2)

(3)

+

CH3

(4)

!

ISOMERISM

1. Assertion A : Enol form of acetone [CH3COCH3] exists in < 0.1% quantity. However, the enol form of acetyl acetone [CH3COCH2OCCH3] exists in approximately 15% quantity.

Reason R : enol form of acetyl acetone is stabilized by intramolecular hydrogen bonding, which is not possible in enol form of acetone.

Choose the correct statement : (1) A is false but R is true (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the

correct explanation of A (4) A is true but R is false


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

4 2. Compound with molecular formula C3H6O can

show : (1) Positional isomerism (2) Both positional isomerism and metamerism (3) Metamerism (4) Functional group isomerism 3. Which one of the following pairs of isomers is

an example of metamerism ?

(1)

CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 and H3C–C–CH3

CH3

CH

(2)

O

C6H5 and H5C6

O

H

(3)

OH

H5C6 OH and H5C6

(4) O

andO

4. Which of the following molecules does not show stereo isomerism ?

(1) 3,4-Dimethylhex-3-ene (2) 3-Methylhex-1-ene (3) 3-Ethylhex-3-ene (4) 4-Methylhex-1-ene 5. The number of acyclic structural isomers

(including geometrical isomers) for pentene are ____

6. Staggered and eclipsed conformers of ethane are :

(1) Polymers (2) Rotamers (3) Enantiomers (4) Mirror images 7. The dihedral angle in staggered form of

Newman projection of 1, 1, 1-Trichloro ethane is ......... degree. (Round off to the nearest integer)


8. The number of stereoisomers possible for 1,2-

dimethyl cyclopropane is :

(1) One (2) Four (3) Two (4) Three

9. Arrange the following conformational isomers

of n-butane in order of their increasing potential

energy :

CH3H H

H HCH3

I

CH3

H H

CH3

H HII

CH3H

H HH

CH3

III

H H

H3C HH

CH3

IV (1) II < III < IV < I (2) I < IV < III < II

(3) II < IV < III < I (4) I < III < IV < II

HALOGEN DERIVATIVE

1. The product formed in the first step of the reaction of

with excess

Mg/Et2O(Et = C2H5) is : (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2. What is the final product (major) 'A' in the

given reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CH –CH –CH–CH –CH–CH 3 2 2 3

Br

Br


CH –CH–CH –CH–CH –CH3 2 2 3


CH –CH –CH–CH –CH–CH3 2 2 3

CH – CH3

CH2

CH–CH3

CH CH –CH–CH –CH–CH3 2 2 3

MgBr

MgBr

CHCH3

CH3

OH

HCl 'A'(major product)

CH3Cl

CH2 CH3

CH3

CHCH3

CH3

CH CH2

CH3 CHCH3

Cl


5

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

3. What is the major product formed by HI on

reaction with

?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4. Identify A and B in the chemical reaction.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5. For the given reaction :

2BrUV light (major product)

monobrominated

'A '¾¾¾¾®

What is 'A'?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6. Identify A in the given reaction.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7.

(1)

(2)

(3) (4)

CH3

CH3

CCH

CH2

CH3

CH3 C CH CH I2

CH3

CH3 H

CH3 C CH CH3

CH3

CH3 I

CH3 C CH CH3

CH3

I CH3

CH3 CH CH CH2

CH3

CH3

I

OCH3

NO2

HCl [A](major)

NaIdry acetone [B]

(major)

OCH3

NO2

ClA =

OCH3

NO2

ClB =

OCH3

NO2

A =

I

NO2

ClB =

Cl

OCH3

NO2

A =

I

NO2

B =Cl Cl

OCH3

NO2

A =

OCH3

NO2

B =Cl I

CN

CH CH2 3

CN

BrCH CH2 3

CNBr

CH CH2 3

CN

CHBr CH3

CNBr

CH CH2 3

HO CH OH2

OH

SOCl2 A (Major Product)

OH CH Cl2

OH

Cl CH Cl2

OH

Cl CH Cl2

Cl

OH CH OH2

Cl

CH3

HBrCCl4

A(Major product)

CH3

BrCH3

Br

CH3

Br

CH3

CH3

BrCH3

CH3


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

6 8. The correct pair(s) of the ambident nucleophiles

is (are) :

(A) AgCN/KCN

(B) RCOOAg/RCOOK

(C) AgNO2/KNO2

(D) AgI/KI

(1) (B) and (C) only (2) (A) only

(3) (A) and (C) only (4) (B) only

9. Choose the correct statement regarding the

formation of carbocations A and B given :-

(1) Carbocation B is more stable and formed

relatively at faster rate

(2) Carbocation A is more stable and formed

relatively at slow rate

(3) Carbocation B is more stable and formed

relatively at slow rate

(4) Carbocation A is more stable and formed

relatively at faster rate

10.

The structure of X is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11. In the given reaction 3-Bromo-2, 2-dimethyl

butane ¾¾¾¾®2 5C H OH

(Major Product )'A ' Product A is:

(1) 2-Ethoxy-3, 3-dimethyl butane (2) 1-Ethoxy-3, 3-dimethyl butane (3) 2-Ethoxy-2, 3-dimethyl butane (4) 2-Hydroxy-3, 3-dimethyl butane 12. To synthesise 1.0 mole of 2-methylpropan-2-ol

from Ethylethanoate ________ equivalents of CH3MgBr reagent will be required.

(Integer value)

13.

H3C H

H H3C + Br2

CCl4 Product "P"

Consider the above chemical reaction. The total number of stereoisomers possible for Product 'P' is __________ .

14. Presence of which reagent will affect the reversibility of the following reaction, and change it to a irreversible reaction :

CH4 + I2

hv CH3 – I + HI Reversible

(1) HOCl (2) dilute HNO2 (3) Liquid NH3 (4) Concentrated HIO3 15. The major product formed in the following

reaction is :

HBr Major product(excess)

(1) Br

(2)

Br

Br

(3)

Br

(4)

BrBr

OCH3

CN(i) C H MgBr (1.0 equivalent),

6 5 Etherdry

(ii) H O3+ X

Major Product

NH2

C H6 5

NH2

OCH3

C H6 5

O

C H6 5

C H6 5

O

OCH3


7

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

16. Among the following compounds I-IV, which

one forms a yellow precipitate on reacting

sequentially with (i) NaOH (ii) dil. HNO3 (iii)

AgNO3?

Cl

H3C

I

Cl

II CH3

Br

III

CH3

Cl

IV

CH2I

(1) II (2) IV (3) I (4) III

17. Excess of isobutane on reaction with Br2 in

presence of light at 125°C gives which one of

the following, as the major product?

(1)

Br

CH3 – C – CH

2 – Br

CH3

(2)

CH3 – CH – CH

2Br

CH2Br

(3)

CH3 – CH – CH

2Br

CH3

(4)

CH3

CH3 – C – Br

CH3

18. In the following sequence of reactions the P is :

Cl

dry ethanolether (Major Pr oduct)

Mg [A] P+ ¾¾¾® ¾¾¾®

(1)

(2) O–CH2CH3

(3) CH2CH3

(4)


Statement I : Ethyl pent–4–yn–oate on reaction

with CH3MgBr gives a 3°–alcohol.

Statement II : In this reaction one mole of

ethyl pent–4–yn–oate utilizes two moles of

CH3MgBr.


most appropriate answer from the options

given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are

false.

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is

true.

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is

false.

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are

true.

20. The major product (A) formed in the reaction

given below is :

CH3–CH2–CH–CH2–Br

+ CH3O CH3OH A (Major product)

(1)

CH3–CH2–CH–CH2Br

OCH3

(2)

CH3–CH2–C=CH2

(3) CH3–CH2–CH–CH2–OH

(4) CH3–CH2–CH–CH2–OCH3


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

8 21. The major product of the following reaction, if

it occurs by SN2 mechanism is :

OH

+

Br2 3K CO

acetone¾¾¾®

(1)

O

O

(2)

O

(3) O

(4)

O

22. The correct order of reactivity of the given

chlorides with acetate in acetic acid is :

(1) Cl

CH3

ClCH3

Cl CH3 CH2Cl> > >

(2) CH2Cl ClCH3

Cl CH3

> > >

CH3

Cl

(3)

Cl

CH3

CH2Cl

CH3

Cl CH Cl> > >

(4) Cl

CH3

ClCH3

Cl CH3CH2Cl > > >

23. Given below are two statements : one is labelled

as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as

Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Treatment of bromine water

with propene yields 1-bromopropan-2-ol.

Reason (R) : Attack of water on bromonium

ion follows Markovnikov rule and results in

1-bromopropan-2-ol.



given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT

the correct explanation of (A)

(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the

correct explanation of (A)

(4) (A) is true but (R) is false

24. The major product of the following reaction is :

CH3

Cl NaOH C2H5OH Major Product

(1)

CH3

HO

(2)

CH3

OH

(3)

OH

CH3

(4)

CH3

25. The stereoisomers that are formed by

electrophilic addition of bromine to trans-but-2-

ene is/are :

(1) 2 enantiomers and 2 mesomers

(2) 2 identical mesomers

(3) 2 enantiomers

(4) 1 racemic and 2 enantiomers


9

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

ALCOHOL & ETHER

1. Ceric ammonium nitrate and CHCl3 / alc. KOH

are used for the identification of functional groups present in ______ and ___ respectively.

(1) Alcohol, phenol (2) Amine, alcohol (3) Alcohol, amine (4) Amine, phenol 2. Given below are two statements : Statement-I : 2-methylbutane on oxidation

with KMnO4 gives 2-methylbutan-2-ol.

Statement-II : n-alkanes can be easily oxidised to corresponding alcohol with KMnO4.

Choose the correct option : (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is

incorrect (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is

correct 3. _____ grams of 3-Hydroxy propanal (MW=74)

must be dehydrated to produce 7.8 g of acrolein (MW = 56) (C3H4O) if the percentage yield is

64. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). [Given : Atomic masses : C : 12.0 u,

H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u] 4. Main Products formed during a reaction of

1-methoxy naphthalene with hydroiodic acid are:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5. Given below are two statements : Statement I : C2H5OH and AgCN both can

generate nucleophile. Statement II : KCN and AgCN both will

generate nitrile nucleophile with all reaction conditions.

Choose the most appropriate option : (1) Statement I is true but statement II is false (2) Both statement I and statement II are true (3) Statement I is false but statement II is true (4) Both statement I and statement II are false 6. Reaction of Grignard reagent, C2H5MgBr with

C8H8O followed by hydrolysis gives compound "A" which reacts instantly with Lucas reagent to

give compound B, C10H13Cl. The Compound B is :

(1) (2)

(3)

(4)

7.

OH

H3PO4

120°CA

Major Product

(BH3)2

H2O2/OH, H2O– P

Major Product Consider the above reaction and identify the

Product P :

(1)

OH

(2)

OHCH3

(3)

OH

OH

(4)

CH3

OH

I

and CH OH3

OH

and CH I3

OH

and CH OH3

I

and CH I3

CH3

Cl

CH3

Cl

CH3

CH3

Cl

CH3

CH3Cl


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

10

8. H3C

OHC–OCH3

O

Conc.HBr "P" (Major Product)

Consider the above reaction, the major product

"P" formed is :-

(1) CH3

BrC–OCH3

O

(2)

CH3

C–OCH3

O

Br

(3) CH3

OBrC–OCH3

O

(4) CH3

BrC–Br

O

9.

OH Conc. H2SO4

DA

+

B

consider the above reaction, and choose the

correct statement :

(1) The reaction is not possible in acidic

medium

(2) Both compounds A and B are formed equally

(3) Compound A will be the major product

(4) Compound B will be the major product



Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Synthesis of ethyl phenyl ether

may be achieved by Williamson synthesis.

Reason (R): Reaction of bromobenzene with

sodium ethoxide yields ethyl phenyl ether.



given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the


(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT


11. Which one of the following is the major product

of the given reaction?

ONC

CH3

(i) 2CH3MgBr (ii) H3O+ (iii) H2SO4, heat

Major product

CH3

(1)

CH3

CH3

CH3O

CH3

(2) CH3

CH3

CH3

NC

(3) CH3

CH3

CH3NC

(4)

CH3

CH3

CH3O

CH3


11

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

HYDROCARBON

1. The major product of the following reaction is: 2H /CO

3 2 2 Rh catalystCH CH CH CH= ¾¾¾¾® (1) CH3CH2CH=CH–CHO (2)

(3) CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO (4) CH3CH2CH2CHO 2. For the given reaction :

(1) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (2)

(3)

(4)

3. Which of the following is Lindlar catalyst ? (1) Zinc chloride and HCl (2) Cold dilute solution of KMnO4 (3) Sodium and Liquid NH3 (4) Partially deactivated palladised charcoal

4.

The product "A" and "B" formed in above

reactions are :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5.

Identify the reagent(s) 'A' and condition(s) for

the reaction :

(1) A = HCl; Anhydrous AlCl3

(2) A = HCl, ZnCl2

(3) A = Cl2; UV light

(4) A = Cl2; dark, Anhydrous AlCl3

6. An unsaturated hydrocarbon X on ozonolysis

gives A. Compound A when warmed with

ammonical silver nitrate forms a bright silver

mirror along the sides of the test tube. The

unsaturated hydrocarbon X is :

(1) (2)

(3) HCºC–CH2–CH3 (4) CH3–CºC–CH3

7. The major product formed in the following

reaction is :

CH3—C——CH—CH3

CH3

CH3

OH

¾¾ ¾ ¾®2 4conc .H SOa few drops Major product

(1) CH3—C==CH—CH2CH3

CH3

(2)

CH3 CH3

CH3 H3C

(3)

C==CH—CH3

CH3

CH3

(4) CH3—C——CH==CH2

CH3

CH3

HC CHBrCH3

A1. NaNH2

2. Red hot iron tube , 873 K (major product)

CH=CH NH2

CH3

H3C CH3

CH3

20% H PO3 4

358 K"A"

(Major Product)

H C3 OH

,

H C3 Cl(CH ) CO K3 3

– +

"B"(Major Product)

,

CH2

A-

CH2

B-

CH3

A- B-

CH3

CH3

A- B-

CH2

CH3

A- B-

CH2

A

Cl

Cl

CH –C = C–CH3 3

CH3 CH3

CH –C=3

CH3


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

12 8. Experimentally reducing a functional group cannot

be done by which one of the following reagents

(1) Pt-C/H2 (2) Na/H2

(3) Pd-C/H2 (4) Zn/H2O

AROMATIC COMPOUND

1. 'A' and 'B' in the following reactions are :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2. In the following reaction the reason why

meta-nitro product also formed is :

(1) low temperature

(2) –NH2 group is highly meta-directive

(3) Formation of anilinium ion

(4) –NO2 substitution always takes place at

meta-position

3. Which of the following compound gives pink colour on reaction with phthalic anhydride in conc. H2SO4 followed by treatment with NaOH ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4. What is the correct sequence of reagents used for converting nitrobenzene into m-dibromobenzene ?

(1) NaNO2¾¾¾¾® / HCl¾¾¾® / ¾¾¾®KBr / ¾¾¾®

+H

(2) ¾¾¾® ¾¾¾® ¾¾¾¾® ¾¾¾¾®2 2Br /Fe NaNO /HClSn/HCl CuBr /HBr/ / /

(3) +

¾¾¾® ¾¾¾® ¾¾® ¾¾®2BrSn /HCl KBr H/ / /

(4) ¾¾¾® ¾¾® ¾¾¾® ¾¾¾®2 2Br NaNOSn/HCl NaBr/ / / 5. The correct order of the following compounds

showing increasing tendency towards nucleophilic substitution reaction is :-

(1) (iv) < (iii) < (ii) < (i) (2) (iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii) (3) (iv) < (i) < (iii) < (ii) (4) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) 6. The diazonium salt of which of the following

compounds will form a coloured dye on reaction with b-Naphthol in NaOH ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

NaNO /HCl2

KCN (A)SnCl /HCl/H O2 3

+

(B)

NH2

N Cl2–

+

(A) :

CHO

(B) :

N Cl2–

+

(A) :

Cl

(B) :

CN

(A) :

CHO

(B) :

CN

(A) :

Cl

(B) :

NH2

Conc.HNO3

Conc.H SO , 288K2 4

NH2

NO2

+

NH2

NO2

+NO2

NH2

[A]51%

[B]47%

[C]2%

CH3

OHHO

HO

CH3

CH3

H C3

HO

CH3

OH

HO

CH3

NO2 Br

Br

Cl Cl

NO2

Cl

NO2

NO2

Cl

NO2

NO2O N2

(ii)(i) (iii) (iv)

CH NH2 2 N CH3

CH3

NH2 NH–CH3


13

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

7. Which of the following reaction/s will not give

p-aminoazobenzene?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(1) A only (2) B only

(3) C only (4) A and B

8. Identify A in the given chemical reaction.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9. Consider the following chemical reaction.

The number of sp2 hybridized carbon atom(s)

present in the product is _______.

10. The major product of the following reaction is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11. The correct sequence of reagents used in the

preparation of 4-bromo-2-nitroethyl benzene

from benzene is :

(1) HNO3/H2SO4, Br2/AlCl3, CH3COCl/AlCl3,

Zn-Hg/HCl

(2) Br2/AlBr3, CH3COCl/AlCl3, HNO3/H2SO4,

Zn/HCl

(3) CH3COCl/AlCl3, Br2/AlBr3, HNO3/H2SO4,

Zn/HCl

(4) CH3COCl/AlCl3, Zn-Hg/HCl, Br2/AlBr3,

HNO3/H2SO4

12.

Correct statement about the given chemical

reaction is :

(1) group is ortho and para directive, so

product (B) is not possible.

(2) Reaction is possible and compound (B) will

be the major product.

(3) The reaction will form sulphonated product

instead of nitration.

(4) Reaction is possible and compound (A) will

be major product.

NO2

(i) Sn/HCl(ii) HNO(iii) Aniline

2

NO2

(i) NaBH4

(ii) NaOH(iii) Aniline

NH2

(i) HNO2

(ii) Aniline, HCl

CH CH3

CH3

CH3

CH2

CH2

CH2 Mo O2 3

773 K, 10-20 atm'A'

major product

CH3

CH3

CH CHº(1) Red hot Fe tube, 873 K(2) CO, HCl, AlCl3

Product

–NH2


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

14 13. Identify the major products A and B respectively

in the following reactions of phenol.

(1) and

(2)

and

(3) and

(4)

and

14. Match List-I with List-II List-I

(a)

2 2C u C l¾ ¾ ¾®

(b)

Cu , H Cl¾ ¾ ¾®

(c) 2CH3CH2Cl + 2Na Ether¾ ¾® C2H5–C2H5+2NaCl (d) 2C6H5Cl + 2Na Ether¾ ¾® C6H5–C6H5 + 2NaCl List-II (i) Wurtz reaction (ii) Sandmeyer reaction (iii) Fittig reaction (iv) Gatterman reaction Choose the correct answer from the options

given below : (1) (a) ® (iii), (b) ® (i), (c) ® (iv), (d) ® (ii) (2) (a) ® (ii), (b) ® (i), (c) ® (iv), (d) ® (iii) (3) (a) ® (ii), (b) ® (iv), (c) ® (i), (d) ® (iii) (4) (a) ® (iii), (b) ® (iv), (c) ® (i), (d) ® (ii)

15.

In the above chemical reaction, intermediate

"X" and reagent/condition "A" are :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16.

The above reaction requires which of the

following reaction conditions?

(1) 573 K, Cu, 300 atm

(2) 623 K, Cu, 300 atm

(3) 573 K, 300 atm

(4) 623 K, 300 atm

17.

In the above reaction, 3.9 g of benzene on

nitration gives 4.92 g of nitrobenzene. The

percentage yield of nitrobenzene in the above

reaction is _______ %. (Round off to the

Nearest Integer).

(Given atomic mass : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0u, O :

16.0 u, N : 14.0 u)

B(i) CHCl3, NaOH

(ii) H3O+

OH

Br2 in CS2273K

A

OH

Br

OH

CHOOH

Br

OH

CHO

OH

Br

OH

CHO

OH

Br

OH

CHO

N Cl2 –+

+ N2

Cl

N Cl2 –+

+ N2

Cl

NaNO , HCl2

273 – 278 K "X" "A"

OH

Major Product

NH2

N Cl+ –2

X- ; A- H O/NaOH2

NO2

X- ; A- H O/2 D

N Cl+ –2

X- ; A- H O/2 D

NO2

X- ; A- H O/NaOH2

Cl O Na– +

+ NaOH

NO2

HNO3

H SO2 4


15

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

18.

In the above reaction, the structural formula of (A), "X" and "Y" respectively are :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19.

Considering the above reaction, X and Y respectively are :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20.

Consider the given reaction, percentage yield of : (1) C > A > B (2) B > C > A (3) A > C > B (4) C > B > A

21. + Br2 ¾¾¾¾®3FeBr

+ HBr

Consider the above reaction where 6.1 g of benzoic acid is used to get 7.8 g of m-bromo

benzoic acid. The percentage yield of the product is_____.

(Round off to the Nearest integer) [Given : Atomic masses : C = 12.0u, H : 1.0u,

O : 16.0u, Br = 80.0 u] 22. The correct structure of Rhumann's Purple, the

compound formed in the reaction of ninhydrin with proteins is :

(1)

O

O–

N

O–

O

(2)

O

O–

N

O–

O

(3)

O

O– O

O

N=N–N+

(4)

O

O O–

O

N

NH2

NaNO2,HCl

273K - 278 K'X'

(Major Product)

NCH3H3C

'Y'(Major Product)

N2Cl—+

NN

N

CH3

CH3

and

N2Cl—+

NN

andN

CH3

CH3

ClN

Nand

NCH3

CH3

Cl

NN

and

NCH3H3C

NH2

HNO , H SO3 2 4

288 K

NH2

NO2

+

NH2

NO2

+

NH2

NO2

CBA

COOH COOH

Br


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

16 23. Benzene on nitration gives nitrobenzene in

presence of HNO3 and H2SO4 mixture,

where :

(1) both H2SO4 and HNO3 act as a bases

(2) HNO3 acts as an acid and H2SO4 acts as a base

(3) both H2SO4 and HNO3 act as an acids

(4) HNO3 acts as a base and H2SO4 acts as an acid

24.

NH2

SO3H

A (major

product)

273 K

NaNO2,HCl

273 - 278 K

NCH3

CH3

B (major

product)

Consider the above reaction, compound B is :

(1)

HO3S N = N

NCH3

CH3

(2) N = N NCH3

CH3

(3)

N = N NCH3

CH3

HO3S

(4) N

CH3

CH3

HO3S

25.

Br

(i) (C6H5CO)2O2,HBr(ii) CoF2

P (major product)

Major product P of above reaction, is :

(1) Br

F

(2) F

F

(3) Br

F

(4) Br

F

26. Which of the following compounds will provide

a tertiary alcohol on reaction with excess of

CH3MgBr followed by hydrolysis?

(1)

O CH3

O

(2)

C

CH

NC

OCH2CH3

(3)

OH

CH3

O

(4)

O

O

27.

CH2CH3

N2+Cl–

+ A + H2O

B, Anhyd. AlCl3

Major product

In the chemical reactions given above A and B

respectively are :

(1) H3PO2 and CH3CH2Cl

(2) CH3CH2OH and H3PO2

(3) H3PO2 and CH3CH2OH

(4) CH3CH2Cl and H3PO2


17

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

28. An organic compound A (C6H6O) gives dark green colouration with ferric chloride. On treatment with CHCl3 and KOH, followed by acidification gives compound B. Compound B can also be obtained from compound C on reaction with pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC). Identify A, B and C .

(1)

OH A =

CHO B =

ACl

OH CH2OH

C= A

OH

(2)

A =

A

OH OH

CH2OH

B = A

CHO

OH

C = A

(3)

C = A

OH OH

CH2OH

A =

A

CHO

OH

B = A

(4)

C = A

OH

OH

CH2OH

B= A

CHO

HO

A =

A

29. Which one of the following reactions does not occur ?

(1)

NH2

+ (CH3CO)2O/Pyridine

NHCOCH3

(2)

NH2

+ H2SO4 ®

NH2

SO3H

(3)

NH2

+ AlCl3 + CH3Cl ®

NH2

CH3

(4)

NH2

+ HNO3/H2SO4 ®

NH2

NO2

30.

OH OH

Br (Major product)

The given reaction can occur in the presence of :

(a) Bromine water (b) Br2 in CS2, 273 K

(c) Br2/FeBr3 (d) Br2 in CHCl3, 273 K

Choose the correct answer from the options

given below :

(1) (b) and (d) only

(2) (a) and (c) only

(3) (b), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

31. Which one of the products of the following

reactions does not react with Hinsberg reagent

to form sulphonamide?

(1)

CN

NO2

+ Na/Hg C2H5OH

(2)

CN

+ SnCl2 + HCl

(3)

CN

CHO

+ LiAlH4 H3OÅ

(4)

CN

CH3

+ H2/Ni


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

18 32. The correct decreasing order of densities of the

following compounds is :

Cl

(A) (B)

Cl

Cl(C)

Br

Cl(D)

(1) (D) > (C) > (B) > (A) (2) (C) > (D) > (A) > (B) (3) (C) > (B) > (A) > (D) (4) (A) > (B) > (C) > (D)

33.C6H5NO2Sn + HCl "A" C6H5N2Cl

HÅ

Å P

(Yellow coloured compound)

Consider the above reaction, the Product "P" is :

(1)

N=N

NH2

(2)

N=N NH2

(3)

N

H

(4)

N=N–N

H

34. The correct sequence of correct reagents for the following transformation is :-

Cl

OHNO2

(1) (i) Fe, HCl (ii) Cl2, HCl, (iii) NaNO2, HCl, 0°C (iv) H2O/H+ (2) (i) Fe, HCl (ii) NaNO2, HCl, 0°C (iii) H2O/H+ (iv) Cl2, FeCl3 (3) (i) Cl2, FeCl3 (ii) Fe, HCl (iii) NaNO2, HCl, 0°C (iv) H2O/H+

(4) (i) Cl2, FeCl3 (ii) NaNO2, HCl, 0°C (iii) Fe, HCl (iv) H2O/H+

35. The correct options for the products A and B of the following reactions are :

OH

Br2 (Excess)H2O

ABr2

CS2, < 5°CB

(1)

OH

A= , B=Br Br

Br

OH

Br

Br

(2)

OH

A= , B=Br Br

Br

OH

Br

(3)

OH

A= , B=Br

Br

Br

OHBr Br

(4)

OH

A= , B=

Br

OH

Br

36. The correct sequential addition of reagents in the preparation of 3-nitrobenzoic acid from benzene is:

(1) Br2/AlBr3, HNO3/H2SO4, Mg/ether, CO2, H3O+

(2) Br2/AlBr3, NaCN, H3O+, HNO3/H2SO4

(3) Br2/AlBr3, HNO3/H2SO4, NaCN, H3O+

(4) HNO3/H2SO4, Br2/AlBr3, Mg/ether, CO2, H3O+

37. Which one of the following phenols does not give colour when condensed with phthalic anhydride in presence of conc. H2SO4 ?

(1) OH

(2)

OH

CH3

(3) OH

OH

(4) OH

OH


19

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

38.

O

Br2

AlBr3(C2H5)2O 'A'

(Major product)

Consider the given reaction, the product A is:

(1)

O

Br

(2)

O

Br

(3)

O

Br

(4)

O

Br

39. The structure of product C, formed by the

following sequence of reactions is :

CH3COOH+SOCl2 ¾®A ¾¾ ¾®3

BenzeneAlCl B -¾¾¾®KCN

OH C

(1)

OH

CH3

NC

(2) CH3

O

CN

(3)

CH

CH3

COOH

(4) CH2–CH2CN

40. The total number of reagents from those given below, that can convert nitrobenzene into aniline is ______. (Integer answer)

I. Sn – HCl II. Sn – NH4OH III. Fe – HCl IV. Zn – HCl V. H2 – Pd VI. H2 – Raney Nickel 41. The structures of A and B formed in the

following reaction are : [Ph = – C6H5]

+ O

O

O

¾¾ ¾ ¾® ¾¾ ¾®3AlCl (2 eq ) Zn /HgHClA B

(1)

Ph

O

O

OH ,Ph

O

OHB = A =

(2)

Ph O

A = Ph

OH

, B =

(3)

PhOHA = , B =PhO

OHO

(4)

PhA = , B =

O

Ph

42. For the following :

D

¾¾ ¾ ¾¾®2

3

1. Br /Fe /2. Mg/dry ether3. CH OH Products

(1)

OCH3

+ HMgBr

(2)

H+ Mg

OCH3

Br

(3)

CH3

+ MgOH

Br

(4)

Br+ Mg

H

OCH3


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

20 43. Identify correct A, B and C in the reaction

sequence given below :

+

D¾¾¾¾® ¾¾¾¾¾® ¾¾¾®3

2 4 2

3

conc.HNO

conc.H SO Cl Fe/HClAnhyd.AlClA B C

(1) A= NO2, B= ClNO2 ,C=

NH2Cl

(2) A = NO2, B =

NO2

Cl

, C =

Cl

OH

(3) A= NO , B=NO2

Cl

, C=NH2

Cl

(4) A =

NO2

, B =

NO2

Cl

, C =

NH2

OH

44. Identify A in the following reaction.

NH2

K2Cr2O7 A

(1)

O

O

(2)

KO

NH2

(3) NO2

(4) NO2

H

CARBONYL COMPOUNDS

1. Which of the following reagent is used for the

following reaction ? ?

3 2 3 3 2CH CH CH CH CH CHO¾ ¾®

(1) Manganese acetate

(2) Copper at high temperature and pressure

(3) Molybdenum oxide

(4) Potassium permanganate

2. Identify products A and B :

(1) A :

B :

(2) A :

B :

(3) A :

B :

(4) A :

B:

3. Which one of the following carbonyl compounds cannot be prepared by addition of water on an alkyne in the presence of HgSO4

and H2SO4 ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

4.

Which of the following reagent is suitable for

the preparation of the product in the above reaction ?

(1) NaBH4

(2) NH2–NH2/Å

2 5C H ONa!

(3) Ni/H2

(4) Red P + Cl2

5. Which one of the following reactions will not form acetaldehyde?

(1) CH3CH2OH Cu573K¾¾¾®

(2) CH3CN 2

( i ) DIBAL H(ii ) H O

-¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾®

(3) CH2=CH2 + O2 2

Pd ( II ) /Cu ( II)H O¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾®

(4) CH3CH2OH 3 2 4CrO H SO-¾¾¾¾¾®

CH3 dil. KMnO4 ACrO3 B273 K

CH3

OHOH

CH3

OCH3

OHOH

CH3

OHO

OHC—CH CH —C—CH2 2 2 3CH

O

HOOC—CH CH CH —C—CH2 2 2 3

O

CH3

OH

CH3

O

CH –C–H3

OC–CH3

O

CH –CH –C–H3 2

OCH –C–CH CH3 2 3

O

O

?


21

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

6. The major product of the following chemical

reaction is :

(1) CH3CH2CH3 (2) CH3CH2CH2OH

(3) (CH3CH2CO)2O (4) CH3CH2CHO

7.

B reacts with Hydroxyl amine but does not give

Tollen's test. Identify A and B

(1) 1,1-Dichlorobutane and 2-Butanone

(2) 2,2-Dichlorobutane and Butanal

(3) 1,1-Dichlorobutane and Butanal

(4) 2,2-Dichlorobutane and Butan-2-one

8. 2,4-DNP test can be used to identify :

(1) Amine (2) Aldehyde

(3) Ether (4) Halogens

9. Identify A in the given chemical reaction,

2 5 2

NaOHC H OH , H O

D

¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾® A(Major product)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10. Identify A in the following chemical reaction

3 2

(i) HCHO,NaOH( ii) CH CH Br ,NaH, DMF( iii) HI, D

¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾® A

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11.

2 3

(1) Zn / HCl(2 ) Cr O , 773 K

10 20 atm-

¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾®

considering the above reaction, the major

product among the following is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12.

The product "P" in the above reaction is :

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

CH CH CN3 2

(1) H O , 3+ D

(2) SOCl2

(3) Pd/BaSO ,H4 2?

A Hydrolysis373K(C4H8Cl2)

B(C4H8O)

CH CH CHO2 2

CH CH CHO2 2

CHO

CH CH COOH2 2

CH CH CH OH2 2 2

C–HO

O

O

CHO

CH O3

C – OCH CH2 3

HO

O

CH OH2

CH O3

CH I2

HO

CH OH2

HO

O

CH CH2 3 CH CH2 2CH3

CH3

CH3

COCH CH2 3

OO

i) DIBAL-H, Toluene, –78°Cii) H O3

+"P"

(Major Product)

COOH

OH

CHO

O–C–H

O

CHO


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

22

13.

The product "A" in the above reaction is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14.

dil.NaOH "X"¾¾¾¾® H , Heat+¾¾¾¾® "Y"

Consider the above reaction, the product 'X' and

'Y' respectively are :

(1)

,

(2)

,

(3)

,

(4)

,

15. In Tollen's test for aldehyde, the overall number

of electron(s) transferred to the Tollen's reagent

formula [Ag(NH3)2]+ per aldehyde group to

form silver mirror is_______.(Round off to the

Nearest integer)

16.

(I)

(III)

CHO

(II)

OH

OH

(IV)

OH

O

Which among the above compound/s does/do not form Silver mirror when treated with Tollen's reagent?

(1) (I), (III) and (IV) only (2) Only (IV) (3) Only (II) (4) (III) and (IV) only 17. The major product (P) in the following reaction

is :

O

(major product)

CHO¾¾¾¾® P

(i) KOH (alc.)(ii) H+, D

O

(1)

OOHC

(2)

O

O

(3)

O

CHO

(4)

O

O

18.

(i) C2H5MgBr, dry ether(ii) H2O, HCl

O

P (Major product)

Consider the above reaction, the major product 'P' is:

(1)

OH

(2)

OH

(3)

OH

Cl

(4)

OH

Cl

O O

OC H2 5

Ethylene GlycolH+ A

(Major Product)

OC H2 5

OH

OHO O

OC H2 5

OOO

O

OC H2 5

OH

OH

OOO

O

2

OH

O

O

O

OH

O

O

OH

O

O

OH

O


23

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

19.

CH3CHONaOH

O

'P' (Major

product)

(i) I2/NaOH, Filter(ii) Filtrate + HCl 'X'

Consider the given reaction, the product 'X' is:

(1)

O OH

(2)

O O

(3)OH

CHO(4)

O O

OH

20. An organic compound 'A' C4H8 on treatment with KMnO4/H+ yields compound 'B' C3H6O.

Compound 'A' also yields compound 'B' an ozonolysis. Compound 'A' is :

(1) 2–Methylpropene (2) 1–Methylcyclopropane (3) But–2–ene (4) Cyclobutane 21. A reaction of benzonitrile with one equivalent

CH3MgBr followed by hydrolysis produces a yellow liquid "P". The compound "P" will give positive_____.

(1) Iodoform test (2) Schiff's test (3) Ninhydrin's test (4) Tollen's test 22.

Br CHO ¾¾¾®EtOH excess "A" (major

product)

¾¾¾®tBuO–K+

"B" (major

product)

dry HCl gas

[where Et Þ –C2H5 tBu Þ (CH3)3C–] Consider the above reaction sequence, Product

"A" and Product "B" formed respectively are :

(1)

Br

OEt

OEt

,

OEt

OEt

H2C

(2) EtO,

OtBu

OHCHO EtO

(3) EtOOEt

OEt

,

OEt

OEt

H2C

(4)

Br

OEt

OEt

,

OEt

OEt

tBuO

23. Which one of the following compounds will give orange precipitate when treated with 2,4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine ?

(1)

OH

OCH2CH3

O

(2)

O

OCH2CH3

(3)

C– OH

O

OH

(4)

O

CH3

24. R – CN 2

(i) DIBAL H(ii) H O

-¾¾¾¾¾¾¾® R – Y

Consider the above reaction and identify "Y" (1) –CH2NH2 (2) –CONH2 (3) –CHO (4) –COOH R – CN

2

(i) DIBAL H(ii) H O

-¾¾¾¾¾¾¾® R – Y

25. The major products formed in the following reaction sequence A and B are :

O

CH3Br

2

KOH A + B

(1)

A =

O

OK, B=CHBr3 C

(2)O

Br

,B=C–CH2–Br C–CH2–OH

O

Br

A=

(3)

O

, B=C–CBr3 CHOA=

(4)

O

Br

, B=C–CH3 C–CH3

O

HO

A=

Br HO


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

24 26. Match List-I with List-II :

List-I (Chemical Reaction)

List-II (Reagent used)

(a) CH3COOCH2CH3®CH3CH2OH

(b) CH3COOCH3 ® CH3CHO (c) CH3C º N ® CH3CHO (d) CH3C º N ® CH3 CH3

O

(i) CH3MgBr / H3O+ (1.equivalent) (ii) H2SO4 / H2O (iii) DIBAL-H/H2O (iv) SnCl2, HCl/H2O

Choose the most appropriate match : (1) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i (2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

27.

O

H"X"

HCN,H2O

OH

HCN

LiAlH4H3O+

"Y" (Major Product)

¯

Consider the given reaction, Identify 'X' and 'Y' :

(1) X – NaOH

OH

HNH2Y –

(2) X – HNO3

OH

H NH2Y –

(3) X – NaOH

OH

H NH2Y –

(4) X – HNO3

OH

HNH2Y –

28. A chloro compound "A".

(i) forms aldehydes on ozonolysis followed by the hydrolysis.

(ii) when vaporized completely 1.53 g of A, gives 448 mL of vapour at STP.

The number of carbon atoms in a molecule of compound A is _______.

29. In the following sequence of reactions, the final product D is :

OH

CH3CH

3–CºC–H+NaNH2 A B H2/Pd–C C CrO3 D

Br

(1)

O

H3C–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–C–H

(2) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH2–CH2–COOH (3) H3C–CH=CH–CH(OH)–CH2–CH2–CH3

(4)

O CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–C–CH3

30. The structure of the starting compound P used in the reaction given below is :

1. NaOCl PO

OH

2. H3O+

(1)

O (2)

O

H

(3)

O (4)

O

31. For the reaction given below : CHO

CH2OH

1. NaOH, D 2. H3O+ Product

The compound which is not formed as a product in the reaction is a :

(1) compound with both alcohol and acid functional groups

(2) monocarboxylic acid (3) dicarboxylic acid (4) diol 32. In the following sequence of reactions,

C3H6 2H / H O+

¾¾ ¾¾® A KIOdil KOH¾¾ ¾¾® B + C

The compounds B and C respectively are : (1) CI3COOK, HCOOH (2) CI3COOK, CH3I (3) CH3I, HCOOK (4) CHI3, CH3COOK


25

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C


Statement I : The nucleophilic addition of sodium

hydrogen sulphite to an aldehyde or a ketone

involves proton transfer to form a stable ion.

Statement II : The nucleophilic addition of

hydrogen cyanide to an aldehyde or a ketone

yields amine as final product.



given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

CARBOXYLIC ACID AND

THEIR DERIVATIVES

1. Match list - I and List - II.

R–C–Cl®R–CHOO

(a) Br2/NaOH (i)

R–CH2–COOH®R–CH–COOH

R–C–NH2®R–NH2

R–C–CH3®R–CH2–CH3

(b)

(c)

(d)

H2/Pd–BaSO4

Zn(Hg)/Conc.HCl

Cl2/Red P, H2O

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

ClO

O

List-I List-II


given below :

(1) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)

(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)

(3) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)

(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)

2. What is 'X' in the given reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3.

In the above reaction, the reagent "A" is :

(1) NaBH4, H3O+

(2) LiAlH4

(3) Alkaline KMnO4, H+

(4) HCl, Zn-Hg

4.

Consider the above chemical reaction and

identify product "A"

(1)

(2)

(3) (4)

5.

4Alkaline KMnOH+¾¾¾¾¾¾® "X"

Considering the above chemical reaction,

identify the product "X" :

(1) X-

(2) X-

(3) X-

(4) X-

CH OH2

CH OH2

+ oxalic acid 210°C X(major product)

CH2

CH2

CH–OH

CH2

CHO

CHO

CH2OH

CHO

OCH3

CH3"A"

OCH3

COOH

CºN

H2O

H+"A"

(Major Product)

H2O

H+, D

COOH

CH2NH2 CH2NO2

CONH2 C=N—OH

H

CH3

OCH3

CHO

OCH3

CH OH2

OCH3

COOH

OCH3

CH3

OH


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

26 6.

KMnO4

H2SO4, D 'A'

(major product)

KMnO4

H2O, 273K 'B'

(major product)

For above chemical reactions, identify the

correct statement from the following:

(1) Both compound 'A' and compound 'B' are

dicarboxylic acids

(2) Both compound 'A' and compound 'B' are

diols

(3) Compound 'A' is diol and compound 'B' is

dicarboxylic acid

(4) Compound 'A' is dicarboxylic acid and

compound 'B' is diol

7.

O

Br

NH2 ¾¾®KOBr A

(major product)

O

Br

NH2 ¾¾®LiAlH4 B(major product)

H3O+

In the above reactions, product A and product B

respectively are :

(1)

Br

NH2

NH2

,

(2)

Br

NH2

NH2

,

(3)

NH2

NH2

,

(4)

Br

NH2

NH2

,

Br

8. (A)

O

R Cl (B)

O

R O

O

R

(C)

O

R OR (D)

O

R NH

H

The correct order of their reactivity towards

hydrolysis at room temperature is :

(1) (A) > (B) > (C) > (D)

(2) (D) > (A) > (B) > (C)

(3) (D) > (B) > (A) > (C)

(4) (A) > (C) > (B) > (D)

(A)

O

R Cl

(B) O

R O

O

R

(C)

O

R OR

(D)

O

R NH

H

9.

O

O

O

Maleic anhydride

Maleic anhydride can be prepared by :

(1) Heating trans-but-2-enedioic acid

(2) Heating cis-but-2-enedioic acid

(3) Treating cis-but-2-enedioic acid with

alcohol and acid

(4) Treating trans-but-2-enedioic acid with

alcohol and acid


27

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

10. The major product formed in the following reaction is :

COOHSOCl2, CH3OH

NH2Major

productN H

(1)

CO2CH3

NH2×HClH×HCl N

(2)

CO2M

NH2NH

Cl

(3)

CO2 CH3

NH2×HClNH

(4)

COCl

NH2N H

11. The major product of the following reaction is :

O

CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–C–Cl

CH3 (i) alcoholic NH3(ii) NaOH, Br2 (iii) NaNO2,HCl(iv) H2O

Major product

(1)

CH3–CH–CH–CH2OH

Br

CH3

(2)

CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–CH2OH

CH3

(3) CH3–CH–CH2–CH2OH

CH3

(4)

CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–Cl

CH3

12. Which one of the following reactions will not yield propionic acid?

(1) CH3CH2COCH3 + OI–/H3O+ (2) CH3CH2CH3 + KMnO4 (Heat),OH–/H3O+ (3) CH3CH2CCl3 + OH–/H3O+ (4) CH3CH2CH2Br + Mg, CO2 dry ether/H3O+

13. The major products A and B in the following set of reactions are :

+¬¾ ¾¾4

3

LiAlHH OA

OH

CN

+

¾¾¾®3

2 4

H OH SO B

(1) A =

OH

OH , B =

OH

CHO

(2) A =

OH

CHO , B =

OH

CO2H

(3) A =

OH

NH2

, B = COOH

(4) A =

OH

NH2

, B =

OH

CHO

14. In the following sequence of reactions a compound A, (molecular formula C6H12O2) with a straight chain structure gives a C4 carboxylic acid. A is :

4

3

LiAlH Oxidation4H O

C carboxylic acid+¾¾¾® ¾¾¾¾® -A B

(1) CH3–CH2–COO–CH2–CH2–CH3

(2) CH3–CH2–CH–CH2–O–CH=CH2

OH

(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–COO–CH2–CH3

(4) CH3 –CH2 –CH2–O–CH = CH–CH2–OH

AMINES

1. The total number of amines among the following which can be synthesized by Gabriel synthesis is _______.

(A)

(B) CH3CH2NH2

(C)

(D)

CH3

CH3CH–CH –NH2 2

CH –NH2 2

NH2


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

28 2. Carbylamine test is used to detect the presence

of primary amino group in an organic

compound. Which of the following compound

is formed when this test is performed with

aniline?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

3. An amine on reaction with benzenesulphonyl

chloride produces a compound insoluble in

alkaline solution. This amine can be prepared

by ammonolysis of ethyl chloride. The correct

structure of amine is :

(1)

(2) CH3CH2NH2

(3) CH3CH2CH2NHCH3

(4) 4. 1.86 g of aniline completely reacts to form

acetanilide. 10% of the product is lost during

purification. Amount of acetanilide obtained

after purification (in g) is _______ × 10–2.

5. Which of the following reaction DOES NOT

involve Hoffmann Bromamide degradation ?

(1)

Br2, NaOH CH2–C–NH2 O

CH2–NH2

(2)

(3)

(4)

6. Ammonolysis of Alkyl halides followed by the treatment with NaOH solution can be used to prepare primary, secondary and tertiary amines. The purpose of NaOH in the reaction is :

(1) to remove basic impurities

(2) to activate NH3 used in the reaction

(3) to remove acidic impurities (4) to increase the reactivity of alkyl halide 7. Hoffmann bromomide degradation of

benzamide gives product A, which upon heating

with CHCl3 and NaOH gives product B. The

structures of A and B are :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8. Which of the following reaction is an example

of ammonolysis?

(1) C6H5COCl + C6H5NH2 ¾® C6H5CONHC6H5

(2) C6H5CH2CN [H]¾¾® C6H5CH2CH2NH2

(3) C6H5NH2 HCl¾¾¾® –

6 5 3C H NH Cl+

(4) C6H5CH2Cl + NH3 ¾® C6H5CH2NH2

9. Primary, secondary and tertiary amines can be separated using :-

(1) Para-Toluene sulphonyl chloride

(2) Chloroform and KOH

(3) Benzene sulphonic acid (4) Acetyl amide

NH–CH CH CH2 2 3

CH CH CH N – CH CH3 2 2 2 3

H

i) KOH, H O2

CN NH2

ii) Br , NaOH2

i) Br , NaOH/Hii) NH /

2

3

+

D

CH –C–CH2 3

CH –NH2 2

O

iii) LiAlH /H O4 2

i) NH , NaOH3

NH2

ii) Br , NaOH2

O

Cl

NH2

Br

A -

NH2

Br

B -CHO

NH2

A -

NC

B -

NH2

A -

NH2

B -CHO

NH2

Br

A -

Br

B -CHO

O NH2

O


29

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

10.

Consider the above reaction. The percentage

yield of amide product is _______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

(Given : Atomic mass : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0u, N : 14.0 u, O : 16.0 u, Cl : 35.5 u)

11. A reaction of 0.1 mole of Benzylamine with bromomethane gave 23 g of Benzyl trimethyl ammonium bromide. The number of moles of bromomethane consumed in this reaction are n × 10–1, when n = ____. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

(Given : Atomic masses : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, N : 14.0 u, Br : 80.0 u]

12. In the reaction of hypobromite with amide, the carbonyl carbon is lost as :

(1) 2–3CO (2) HCO3– (3) CO2 (4) CO

13. An organic compound "A" on treatment with benzene sulphonyl chloride gives compound B. B is soluble in dil. NaOH solution. Compound A is :

(1) C6H5–N–(CH3)2 (2) C6H5–NHCH2CH3

(3) C6H5–CH2 NHCH3 (4)

14. Compound A is converted to B on reaction with

CHCl3 and KOH. The compound B is toxic and can be decomposed by C. A, B and C respectively are :

(1) primary amine, nitrile compound, conc. HCl (2) secondary amine, isonitrile compound,

conc. NaOH (3) primary amine, isonitrile compound, conc. HCl (4) secondary amine, nitrile compound, conc. NaOH

15. Given below are two statements, one is labelled

as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as

Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Gabriel phthalimide synthesis

cannot be used to prepare aromatic primary

amines.

Reason (R) : Aryl halides do not undergo

nucleophilic substitution reaction.


correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not the

correct explanation of (A).


(3) Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is correct

explanation of (A).

(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

16. Which one of the following compounds will

liberate CO2, when treated with NaHCO3?

(1) Å

(CH3)3NHCl

(2) Å

(CH3)4NOH

(3) CH3 – C – NH2

O

17. What is the major product "P" of the following

reaction ?

NH2

CH3 2

2

( i) NaNO , HCl, 278K(ii) H O (Major product)

P¾¾¾¾¾¾¾®

(1) CH3

CH3

(2) Cl

CH3

(3)

N2ÅCl1

OH

(4) OH

CH3

CCl

O

0.140g

+ C H NHC H6 5 6 5 C H –C–N–(C H )6 5 6 5 2

O

0.388g 0.210g

C H –CH–NH6 5 2

CH3


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

30 18. What is A in the following reaction ?

CH2Br

O

O

N!KÅ (i)

(ii) !OH/H2O A

(Major Product)

(1)

O

NH–CH2

(2)

CH2OH

(3)

O

O

NH

(4)

CH2NH2

19.

NH2

NH2

O

¾¾¾¾®3 2(CH CO) O

(Major product)P

The major product in the above reaction is :

(1)

NHCOCH3

NHCOCH3

O

(2)

NH2

NHCOCH3

O

(3)

NH3CH3COO–

NHCOCH3

O

Å

(4)

NHCOCH3

NH2

O

20. Which of the following is not a correct statement for primary aliphatic amines?

(1) The intermolecular association in primary amines is less than the intermolecular association in secondary amines.

(2) Primary amines on treating with nitrous acid solution form corresponding alcohols except methyl amine.

(3) Primary amines are less basic than the secondary amines.

(4) Primary amines can be prepared by the Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.

21. The correct structures of A and B formed in the following reactions are :

OH

NO2

H2/Pd C2H5OH

A

O

O

O

1.0 eq.

(Major Product)B

(1)

OH

NH2

O

A : , B :

OH

NH2

CH3

(2)

O

NH2

O

A : , B :

O

NH

CH3

O

CH3

CH3

O

(3)

OH

NH2

O

A : , B :

O

NH2

CH3

(4)

OH

NH2

A : , B :

OH

NH CH3

O


31

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

22. The major products A and B formed in the following reaction sequence are :

NH2O

O

O

A Br2,CH3COOH

Room Temperature B

(1) NH

O

A=

CH3

,NH

O

B=

CH3

Br

(2)

NH

O

A=

CH3

,

NH

O

B=

CH3

Br

(3)

NH2

A= , NH2

B=

COCH3COCH3

Br

(4)

NH2

A= ,NH2

B=

COCH3COCH3

BrBr

23. Which one of the following gives the most stable Diazonium salt ?

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH2 (2)

CH3

NH2

(3)

CH3 C

CH3

NH2

H

(4)

NHCH3

BIOMOLECULES

1. Which of the glycosidic linkage between galactose and glucose is present in lactose?

(1) C-1 of galactose and C-4 of glucose (2) C-1 of glucose and C-6 of galactose (3) C-1 of glucose and C-4 of galactose (4) C-1 of galactose and C-6 of glucose

2. Which of the following is correct structure of a-anomer of maltose ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3. Which of the following vitamin is helpful in delaying the blood clotting -

(1) Vitamin C (2) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin E (4) Vitamin K 4. Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II

(a) Sucrose (i) b-D-Galactose and b-D-Glucose (b) Lactose (ii) a-D-Glucose and b-D-Fructose (c) Maltose (iii) a-D-Glucose and a-D-Glucose Choose the correct answer from the options

given below : Options : (1) (a) ® (i), (b) ® (iii), (c) ® (ii) (2) (a) ® (iii), (b) ® (i), (c) ® (ii) (3) (a) ® (ii), (b) ® (i), (c) ® (iii) (4) (a) ® (iii), (b) ® (ii), (c) ® (i) 5. Seliwanoff test and Xanthoproteic test are used

for the identification of _______and _____ respectively

(1) Aldoses, ketoses (2) Proteins, ketoses (3) Ketoses, proteins (4) Ketoses, aldoses


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

32 6. Which among the following pairs of Vitamins is

stored in our body relatively for longer duration?

(1) Thiamine and Vitamin A

(2) Vitamin A and Vitamin D

(3) Thiamine and Ascorbic afcid

(4) Ascorbic acid and Vitamin D

7. The secondary structure of protein is stabilised by:

(1) Peptide bond

(2) glycosidic bond

(3) Hydrogen bonding

(4) van der Waals forces

8. Which of the following is correct structure of tyrosine?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9. Fructose is an example of :-

(1) Pyranose

(2) Ketohexose

(3) Aldohexose

(4) Heptose

10. C12H22O11+H2O Enzyme A¾¾¾¾® C6H12O6+C6H12O6

Sucrose Glucose Fructose

C6H12O6 Enzyme B¾¾¾¾® 2C2H5OH+2CO2

Glucose

In the above reactions, the enzyme A and enzyme B respectively are :-

(1) Amylase and Invertase

(2) Invertase and Amylase

(3) Invertase and Zymase

(4) Zymase and Invertase

C12H22O11+H2OEnzyme A¾¾¾¾¾® C6H12O6+C6H12O6

Sucrose Glucose Fructose

C6H12O6 Enzyme B¾¾¾¾® 2C2H5OH+2CO2

Glucose

11. A non-reducing sugar "A" hydrolyses to give two reducing mono saccharides. Sugar A is-

(1) Fructose (2) Galactose

(3) Glucose (4) Sucrose

12. Deficiency of vitamin K causes :

(1) Increase in blood clotting time

(2) Increase in fragility of RBC's

(3) Cheilosis

(4) Decrease in blood clotting time

13. Which one of the following statements is not true about enzymes ?

(1) Enzymes are non-specific for a reaction and substrate.

(2) Almost all enzymes are proteins.

(3) Enzymes work as catalysts by lowering the activation energy of a biochemical reaction.

(4) The action of enzymes is temperature and pH specific

14. The water soluble protein is :

(1) Fibrin (2) Albumin

(3) Myosin (4) Collagen

COOHHH N2

OH

COOH

HH N2OH

COOHHH N2

OH

OH

COOH

HH N2


33

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

15. Which one of the following is correct structure for cytosine ?

(1)

ON

N

H3C

H

(2)

ON

N–H

H3CO

H

(3)

O N

N

NH2

H

(4)

ON

N H2N

H

16. Which one among the following chemical tests is used to distinguish monosaccharide from disaccharide ?

(1) Seliwanoff's test (2) Iodine test (3) Barfoed test (4) Tollen's test

17. ON

N

H

H

H3CO

H

(A)

The compound 'A' is a complementary base of __________ in DNA stands.

(1) Uracil (2) Guanine (3) Adenine (4) Cytosine 18. Given below are two statements : Statement I : Penicillin is a bacteriostatic type

antibiotic. Statement II : The general structure of Penicillin

is:

O

N H

R S

N

CH3

CH3

COOHHO

Choose the correct option : (1) Both statement I and statement II are false (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is

true (3) Both statement I and statement II are true (4) Statement I is correct but statement II is

false

19. Compound A gives D-Galactose and D-Glucose on hydrolysis. The compound A is :

(1) Amylose (2) Sucrose (3) Maltose (4) Lactose

20. The total number of negative charge in the tetrapeptide, Gly-Glu-Asp-Tyr, at pH 12.5 will be ________. (Integer answer)

21. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Sucrose is a disaccharide and a non-reducing sugar.

Reason (R) : Sucrose involves glycosidic linkage between C1 of b-glucose and C2 of a-fructose.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true explanation of (A)

(2) (A) is false but (R) is true. (3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true explanation of (A)

22. Out of following isomeric forms of uracil, which one is present in RNA ?

(1)

OH

N

NHO (2)

OH

N

NH

O

(3)

O

HN

NHO (4)

O

HN

NH

O

23. Which one of the following tests used for the identification of functional groups in organic compounds does not use copper reagent ?

(1) Barfoed's test (2) Seliwanoff's test (3) Benedict's test (4) Biuret test for peptide bond


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

34 24. Hydrolysis of sucrose gives :

(1) a-D-(–)-Glucose and b-D-(–)-Fructose

(2) a-D-(+)-Glucose and a-D-(–)-Fructose

(3) a-D-(–)-Glucose and a-D-(+)-Fructose

(4) a-D-(+)-Glucose and b-D-(–)-Fructose

25. Which one of the following compounds contains b-C1-C4 glycosidic linkage ?

(1) Lactose

(2) Sucrose

(3) Maltose

(4) Amylose

26. Which of the following is NOT an example of fibrous protein ?

(1) Keratin (2) Albumin

(3) Collagen (4) Myosin

27. A peptide synthesized by the reactions of one molecule each of Glycine, Leucine, Aspartic acid and Histidine will have ________ peptide linkages.

POLYMER

1. Match List I with List II.

List I List II

(Monomer Unit) (Polymer)

(a) Caprolactum (i) Natural rubber

(b) 2-Chloro-1,3-butadiene (ii) Buna-N

(c) Isoperene (iii) Nylon 6

(d) Acrylonitrile (iv) Neoprene

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a) ® (iv), (b) ® (iii), (c) ® (ii), (d) ® (i)

(2) (a) ® (ii), (b) ® (i), (c) ® (iv), (d) ® (iii)

(3) (a) ® (iii), (b) ® (iv), (c) ® (i), (d) ® (ii)

(4) (a) ® (i), (b) ® (ii), (c) ® (iii), (d) ® (iv)

2. In polymer Buna-S: 'S' stands for :-

(1) Sulphonation

(2) Strength

(3) Sulphur

(4) Styrene

3. Which statement is correct ?

(1) Synthesis of Buna-S needs nascent oxygen.

(2) Neoprene is an addition copolymer used in

plastic bucket manufacturing.

(3) Buna-S is a synthetic and linear

thermosetting polymer.

(4) Buna-N is a natural polymer.

4. The structure of Neoprene is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5. Which of the following polymer is used in the

manufacture of wood laminates ?

(1) cis-poly isoprene

(2) Melamine formaldehyde resin

(3) Urea formaldehyde resin

(4) Phenol and formaldehyde resin

CH2CH=CH CH2 CH2 CHCN n

nCH2 CH

CN

CH2 C = CH CH2

Cl

n

N N

N

NH

NHCN2NHn


35

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

6. Match List-I with List-II :

List-I

(Chemicals)

(a) Alcoholic potassium hydroxide

(b) Pd/ BaSO4

(c) BHC (Benzene hexachloride)

(d) Polyacetylene

List-II

(Use / Preparation / Constituent)

(i) Electrodes in batteries

(ii) Obtained by addition reaction

(iii) Used for b- elimination reaction

(iv) Lindlar's catalyst

Choose the most appropriate match :

(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

7. Orlon fibres are made up of :

(1) Polyacrylonitrile (2) Polyesters

(3) Polyamide (4) Cellulose

8. Identify the incorrect statement from the following

(1) Amylose is a branched chain polymer of glucose

(2) Starch is a polymer of a-D glucose

(3) b-Glycosidic linkage makes cellulose polymer

(4) Glycogen is called as animal starch

9. The number of nitrogen atoms in a semicarbazone molecule of acetone is _________.

10. Bakelite is a cross-linked polymer of formaldehyde and :

(1) PHBV

(2) Buna-S

(3) Novolac

(4) Dacron

11. Match List-I with List-II : List-I List-II

(a) Chloroprene (i)

(b) Neoprene (ii)

Cl

(c) Acrylonitrile (iii)

Cl

( )n

(d) Isoprene (iv) CH2=CH–CN Choose the correct answer from the options

given below : (1) (a) - (iii), (b)-(iv), (c) -(ii), (d) -(i) (2) (a) - (ii), (b)-(iii), (c) -(iv), (d) -(i) (3) (a) - (ii), (b)-(i), (c) -(iv), (d) -(iii) (4) (a) - (iii), (b)-(i), (c) -(iv), (d) -(ii)

12.

––CH2

OHCH2––CH2

OH

is a repeating unit for : (1) Novolac (2) Buna–N (3) Acrilan (4) Neoprene

––CH2

OH CH2––CH2

OH

13. A biodegradable polyamide can be made from: (1) Glycine and isoprene (2) Hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid (3) Glycine and aminocaproic acid (4) Styrene and caproic acid 14. The polymer formed on heating Novolac with

formaldehyde is : (1) Bakelite (2) Polyester (3) Melamine (4) Nylon 6,6


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

36 15. Monomer of Novolac is : (1) 3-Hydroxybutanoic acid (2) phenol and melamine (3) o-Hydroxymethylphenol (4) 1,3-Butadiene and styrene 16. Which among the following is not a polyester (1) Novolac (2) PHBV (3) Dacron (4) Glyptal 17. Monomer units of Dacron polymer are : (1) ethylene glycol and phthalic acid (2) ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid (3) glycerol and terephthalic acid (4) glycerol and phthalic acid

PRACTICAL ORGANIC

CHEMISTY (POC)

1. Using the provided information in the following paper chromatogram :

the calculate Rf value of A _______ × 10–1.

2. Given below are two statements : Statement I : A mixture of chloroform and

aniline can be separated by simple distillation. Statement II : When separating aniline from a

mixture of aniline and water by steam distillation aniline boils below its boiling point.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(1) Statement-I is false but Statement II is true (2) Both Statement-I and Statement II are false (3) Statement-I is true but Statement II is false (4) Both Statement-I and Statement II are true

3. Which of the following is 'a' FALSE statement? (1) Carius tube is used in the estimation of

sulphur in an organic compound (2) Carius method is used for the estimation of

nitrogen in an organic compound (3) Phosphoric acid produced on oxidation of

phosphorus present in an organic compound is precipitated as Mg2P2O7 by adding magnesia mixture.

(4) Kjeldahl's method is used for the estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound

4. In chromotography technique, the purification of compound is independent of :

(1) Mobility or flow of solvent system (2) Solubility of the compound (3) Length of the column or TLC Plate (4) Physical state of the pure compound 5. Given below are two statements : Statement-I : Retardation factor (Rf) can be

measured in meter/centimeter. Statement-II : Rf value of a compound remains

constant in all solvents. Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below: (1) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are true (3) Both statement-I and statement-II are false (4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true 6. Nitrogen can be estimated by Kjeldahl's method

for which of the following compound ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7. In Carius method, halogen containing organic

compound is heated with fuming nitric acid in the presence of :

(1) HNO3 (2) AgNO3 (3) CuSO4 (4) BaSO4

A

B5cm

Solvent front

Spot Base line

2cm

2cm

Figure : Paper chromatographyfor compounds A and B.


37

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

8. Which purification technique is used for high boiling organic liquid compound (decomposes near its boiling point)?

(1) Simple distillation (2) Steam distillation (3) Fractional distillation (4) Reduced pressure distillation

9. In the sulphur estimation, 0.471 g of an organic compound gave 1.44 g of barium sulphate. The percentage of sulphur in the compound is _____%. (Nearest integer)

(Atomic Mass of Ba = 137 u)

10. In Carius method for estimation of halogens, 0.2 g of an organic compound gave 0.188 g of AgBr. The percentage of bromine in the compound is ________ . (Nearest integer)

[Atomic mass : Ag = 108, Br = 80] 11. The number of moles of CuO, that will be

utilized in Dumas method for estimation nitrogen in a sample of 57.5g of N, N-dimethylaminopentane is ________ × 10–2. (Nearest integer)

12. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : A simple distillation can be used to separate a mixture of propanol and propanone.

Reason (R) : Two liquids with a difference of more than 20°C in their boiling points can be separated by simple distillations.


(1) (A) is false but (R) is true. (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not

the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

13. The transformation occurring in Duma's method is given below :

æ ö æ ö+ + ® + + + +ç ÷ ç ÷è ø è ø

2 7 2 2 2y z yC H N 2x CuO xCO H O N 2x Cu2 2 2 2

y

The value of y is ________. (Integer answer)

CHEMISTRY IN

EVERYDAY LIFE

1. The gas released during anaerobic degradation of vegetation may lead to :

(1) Ozone hole (2) Acid rain (3) Corrosion of metals (4) Global warming and cancer 2. Most suitable salt which can be used for

efficient clotting of blood will be :- (1) NaHCO3 (2) FeSO4

(3) Mg(HCO3)2 (4) FeCl3 3. Match List-I and List-II.

(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i) (2) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii) (3) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i) (4) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii) 4. The functions of antihistamine are : (1) Antiallergic and Analgesic (2) Antacid and antiallergic (3) Analgesic and antacid (4) Antiallergic and antidepressant 5. With respect to drug-enzyme interaction,

identify the wrong statement: (1) Non-Competitive inhibitor binds to the

allosteric site (2) Allosteric inhibitor changes the enzyme's

active site (3) Allosteric inhibitor competes with the

enzyme's active site (4) Competitive inhibitor binds to the enzyme's

active site

List-I List-II (a) Valium (i) Antifertility drug (b) Morphine (ii) Pernicious anaemia (c) Norethindrone (iii) Analgesic (d) Vitamin B12 (iv) Tranquilizer


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

38 6. Match List-I with List-II : List-I List-II Chemical Used as Compound (a) Sucralose (i) Synthetic detergent (b) Glyceryl ester (ii) Artificial sweetener of stearic acid (c) Sodium (iii) Antiseptic

benzoate (d) Bithionol (iv) Food preservative Choose the correct match : (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) 7. Match the list -I with list - II List-I List-II (Class of Drug) (Example) (a) Antacid (i) Novestrol (b) Artificial sweetener (ii) Cimetidine (c) Antifertility (iii) Valium (d) Tranquilizers (iv) Alitame (1) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv),(c) – (i), (d) – (iii) (2) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i),(c) – (ii), (d) – (iii) (3) (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii),(c) – (i), (d) – (ii) (4) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv),(c) – (iii), (d) – (i) 8. Match List - I with List - II : List - I List - II (Class of Chemicals) (Example) (a) Antifertility drug (i) Meprobamate (b) Antibiotic (ii) Alitame (c) Tranquilizer (iii) Norethindrone (d) Artificial Sweetener (iv) Salvarsan (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) 9. Thiamine and pyridoxine are also known

respectively as : (1) Vitamin B2 and Vitamin E (2) Vitamin E and Vitamin B2 (3) Vitamin B6 and Vitamin B2 (4) Vitamin B1 and Vitamin B6

10. Sodium stearate CH3(CH2)16COO–Na+ is an anionic surfactant which forms micelles in oil. Choose the correct statement for it from the following :

(1) It forms spherical micelles with CH3(CH2)16 – group pointing towards the centre of sphere.

(2) It forms non–spherical micelles with–COO– group pointing outwards on the surface.

(3) It forms spherical micelles with CH3(CH2)16 – group pointing outwards on the surface of sphere

(4) It forms non–spherical micelles with CH3(CH2)16–group pointing towards the centre.

11. Which one of the following chemical agent is not being used for dry–cleaning of clothes?

(1) H2O2 (2) CCl4 (3) Liquid CO2 (4) Cl2C = CCl2 12. Match List-I with List-II : List-I List-II (Drug) (Class of Drug) (a) Furacin (i) Antibiotic (b) Arsphenamine (ii) Tranquilizers (c) Dimetone (iii) Antiseptic (d) Valium (iv) Synthetic antihistamines Choose the most appropriate match : (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) 13.

N = C

C = NC

NH

CH3H

HO–

Chlordiazepoxide

+Cl

The class of drug to which chlordiazepoxide

with above structure belongs is : (1) Antacid (2) Analgesic (3) Tranquilizer (4) Antibiotic


39

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

14.

O

NCH3

OHHO

(A)

N

CH3

O

N

(B)

Cl

O

N

CH3

OHH3CO

(D)

NH

CH2CH2NH2

(C)

HO

The correct statement about (A), (B), (C) and (D) is :

(1) (A), (B) and (C) are narcotic analgesics (2) (B), (C) and (D) are tranquillizers (3) (A) and (D) are tranquillizers (4) (B) and (C) are tranquillizers

15. Which one of the following chemicals is responsible for the production of HCl in the stomach leading to irritation and pain?

(1)

CO

NH

SO2

(2)

NH2

HN

N

(3)

HO

NH

NH2

(4)

H NNH2

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 1 4 4 3 2 3 3 1 3 3 4 1 4 2 1Q.No. 16Ans. 3

ANSWER KEYGOC

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8Ans. 1 3 4 5 3 1 3 4

NOMENCLATURE

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9Ans. 2 4 4 3 6 2 60 4 4

ISOMERISM

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 4 1 3 4 3 2 4 3 1 4 3 2 2 4 1Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25Ans. 2 4 1 3 2 4 1 3 4 2

HALOGEN DERIVATIVE

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11Ans. 3 3 16 2 1 3 4 2 3 3 1

ALCOHOL & ETHER

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8Ans. 3 4 4 3 3 3 2 2

HYDROCARBON


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\O

C

40

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 3 3 1 2 4 3 2 4 7 3 4 4 2 3 3Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30Ans. 2 80 1 2 4 78 4 4 3 4 1 1 1 3 3Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44Ans. 2 1 2 3 2 4 2 3 1 5 1 2 1 1

AROMATIC COMPOUND

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 3 2 3 2 4 4 4 2 3 3 1 2 2 3 2Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30Ans. 3 2 3 4 1 1 1 4 3 1 3 3 3 4 1Q.No. 31 32 33Ans. 3 4 2

CARBONYL COMPOUNDS

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14Ans. 3 1 3 3 3 4 4 1 2 3 3 4 3 3

CARBOXYLIC ACID AND THEIR DERIVATIVES

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 3 4 4 243 3 3 2 4 1 77 3 1 4 3 3Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23Ans. 1 4 4 4 1 4 2 2

AMINES

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 1 4 4 3 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 1 1 2 3Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27Ans. 3 3 2 4 4 3 4 2 4 1 2 3

BIOMOLECULES

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 3 4 1 3 3 2 1 1 3 3 2 1 3 1 3Q.No. 16 17Ans. 1 2

POLYMER

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13Ans. 4 4 2 4 2 2 4 4 42 40 1125 4 7

PRACTICAL ORGANIC CHEMISTY (POC)

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 4 4 2 2 3 2 1 3 4 1 4 4 3 4 2

CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE


1

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

JEE(MAIN) 2021 ATTEMPT (IOC)

PERIODIC TABLE

1. Consider the elements Mg. Al, S, P and Si, the correct increasing order of their first ionization enthalpy is :

(1) Mg < Al < Si < S < P (2) Al < Mg < Si < S < P (3) Mg < Al < Si < P < S (4) Al < Mg < S < Si < P 2. In which of the following pairs, the outer most

electronic configuration will be the same? (1) Cr+ and Mn2+ (2) Ni2+ and Cu+

(3) Fe2+ and Co+ (4) V2+ and Cr+

3. Match List -I with List - II List - I List - II Electronic configuration Di in kJ mol–1

of elements (a) 1s22s2 (i) 801 (b) 1s22s22p4 (ii) 899 (c) 1s22s22p3 (iii)1314 (d) 1s22s22p1 (iv) 1402 Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below - (1) (a) ® (ii), (b) ® (iii), (c) ® (iv), (d) ® (i) (2) (a) ® (i), (b) ® (iv), (c) ® (iii), (d) ® (ii) (3) (a) ® (i), (b) ® (iii), (c) ® (iv), (d) ® (ii) (4) (a) ® (iv), (b) ® (i), (c) ® (ii), (d) ® (iii) 4. The correct order of electron gain enthalpy is (1) S > Se > Te > O (2) Te > Se > S > O (3) O > S > Se > Te (4) S > O > Se > Te 5. Which pair of oxides is acidic in nature? (1) B2O3, CaO (2) B2O3, SiO2

(3) N2O, BaO (4) CaO, SiO2 6. Identify the elements X and Y using the

ionisation energy values given below : Ionization energy (kJ/mol) 1st 2nd X 495 4563 Y 731 1450 (1) X = Na ; Y = Mg (2) X = Mg ; Y = F (3) X = Mg ; Y = Na (4) X = F ; Y = Mg

7. The characteristics of elements X, Y and Z with atomic numbers, respectively, 33, 53 and 83 are:

(1) X and Y are metalloids and Z is a metal. (2) X is a metalloid, Y is a non-metal and Z is a

metal. (3) X, Y and Z are metals. (4) X and Z are non-metals and Y is a metalloid 8. The absolute value of the electron gain enthalpy

of halogens satisfies: (1) I > Br > Cl > F (2) Cl > Br > F > I (3) Cl > F > Br > I (4) F > Cl > Br > I 9. The correct order of conductivity of ions in

water is : (1) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+ (2) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+ (3) K+ > Na+ > Cs+ > Rb+ (4) Rb+ > Na+ > K+ > Li+

10. The set of elements that differ in mutual relationship from those of the other sets is :

(1) Li – Mg (2) B – Si

(3) Be – Al (4) Li – Na 11. The set that represents the pair of neutral oxides

of nitrogen is : (1) NO and N2O (2) N2O and N2O3

(3) N2O and NO2 (4) NO and NO2

12. The ionic radius of Na+ ions is 1.02 Å. The ionic radii (in Å) of Mg2+ and Al3+, respectively, are-

(1) 1.05 and 0.99 (2) 0.72 and 0.54 (3) 0.85 and 0.99 (4) 0.68 and 0.72 13. The first ionization energy of magnesium is

smaller as compared to that of elements X and Y, but higher than that of Z. the elements X, Y and Z, respectively, are :

(1) chlorine, lithium and sodium

(2) argon, lithium and sodium (3) argon, chlorine and sodium (4) neon, sodium and chlorine

JEE (Main) Examination-2021 ALLEN

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

2 14. The set in which compounds have different

nature is : (1) B(OH)3 and H3PO3 (2) B(OH)3 and Al(OH)3 (3) NaOH and Ca(OH)2 (4) Be(OH)2 and Al(OH)3

15. Outermost electronic configuration of a group 13 element, E, is 4s2, 4p1. The electronic configuration of an element of p-block period-five placed diagonally to element, E is :

(1) [Kr] 3d10 4s2 4p2 (2) [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p2

(3) [Xe] 5d10 6s2 6p2 (4) [Kr] 4d10 5s2 5p2 16. Which one of the following statements for D.I.

Mendeleeff, is incorrect? (1) He authored the textbook – Principles of

Chemistry. (2) At the time, he proposed Periodic Table of

elements structure of atom was known. (3) Element with atomic number 101 is named

after him. (4) He invented accurate barometer.

17. Number of electrons that Vanadium (Z = 23) has in p-orbitals is equal to ______

18. The ionic radii of K+, Na+, Al3+ and Mg2+ are in the order :

(1) Na+ < K+ < Mg2+ < Al3+ (2) Al3+ < Mg2+ < K+ < Na+ (3) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < K+ (4) K+ < Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+

19. The correct order of following 3d metal oxides, according to their oxidation numbers is :

(a) CrO3 (b) Fe2O3

(c) MnO2 (d) V2O5 (e) Cu2O (1) (d) > (a) > (b) > (c) > (e) (2) (a) > (c) > (d) > (b) > (e) (3) (a) > (d) > (c) > (b) > (e) (4) (c) > (a) > (d) > (e) > (b)

20. The ionic radii of F– and O2– respectively are 1.33 Å and 1.4 Å, while the covalent radius of N is 0.74 Å. The correct statement for the ionic radius of N3– from the following is :

(1) It is smaller than F– and N (2) It is bigger than O2– and F– (3) It is bigger than F– and N, but smaller than

of O2– (4) It is smaller than O2– and F–, but bigger than

of N 21. The spin only magnetic moments (in BM) for

free Ti3+, V2+ and Sc3+ ions respectively are (At.No. Sc : 21, Ti : 22, V : 23) (1) 3.87, 1.73, 0 (2) 1.73, 3.87, 0 (3) 1.73, 0, 3.87 (4) 0, 3.87, 1.73 22. Match List - I with List - II : List - I List - II (a) NaOH (i) Acidic (b) Be(OH)2 (ii) Basic (c) Ca(OH)2 (iii) Amphoteric (d) B(OH)3 (e) Al(OH)3 Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i), (e)-(iii) (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i), (e)-(iii) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii), (e)-(iii) 23. The CORRECT order of first ionisation enthalpy

is : (1) Mg < S < Al < P (2) Mg < Al < S < P (3) Al < Mg < S < P (4) Mg < Al < P < S 4. The Azimuthal quantum number for the valence

electrons of Ga+ ion is _______. (Atomic number of Ga = 31) 25. The correct order of ionic radii for the ions,

P3–, S2–, Ca2+, K+, Cl– is : (1) P3– > S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+ (2) Cl– > S2– > P3– > Ca2+ > K+ (3) P3– > S2– > Cl– > Ca2+ > K+ (4) K+ > Ca2+ > P3– > S2– > Cl–


3

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

26. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Metallic character decreases and non-metallic character increases on moving from left to right in a period.

Reason (R) : It is due to increase in ionisation enthalpy and decrease in electron gain enthalpy, when one moves from left to right in a period.



(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

GENERAL CHEMISTRY

1. The number of orbitals with n = 5, m1 = + 2 is ______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

2. What is the spin-only magnetic moment value (BM) of a divalent metal ion with atomic number 25, in it's aqueous solution?

(1) 5.92 (2) 5.0 (3) zero (4) 5.26 3. In the ground state of atomic Fe(Z = 26),

the spin-only magnetic moment is ______ × 10–1 BM. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Given : 3 = 1.73, 2 = 1.41]

CHEMICAL BONDING

1. Which of the following are isostructural pairs ?

A. 24SO - and 2

4CrO -

B. SiCl4 and TiCl4

C. NH3 and 3NO -

D. BCl3 and BrCl3

(1) C and D only (2) A and B only

(3) A and C only (4) B and C only

2. Out of the following, which type of interaction is responsible for the stabilisation of a-helix structure of proteins ?

(1) Ionic bonding

(2) Hydrogen bonding

(3) Covalent bonding

(4) vander Waals forces

3. Number of amphoteric compound among the following is __________

(A) BeO (B) BaO

(C) Be(OH)2 (D) Sr(OH)2

4. The correct shape and I–I–I bond angles respectively in –

3I ion are :-

(1) Distorted trigonal planar; 135° and 90° (2) T-shaped; 180° and 90° (3) Trigonal planar; 120° (4) Linear; 180° 5. The correct set from the following in which

both pairs are in correct order of melting point is :-

(1) LiF > LiCl ; MgO > NaCl (2) LiCl > LiF ; NaCl > MgO (3) LiF > LiCl ; NaCl > MgO (4) LiCl > LiF ; MgO > NaCl 6. Among the following allotropic forms of

sulphur, the number of allotropic forms, which will show paramagnetism is ________.

(A) a-sulphur (B) b-sulphur

(C) S2-form

7. According to molecular theory, the species among the following that does not exist is:

(1) He2+ (2) He2– (3) Be2 (4) O22– 8. The correct statement about B2H6 is:

(1) Terminal B–H bonds have less p-character when compared to bridging bonds.

(2) The two B–H–B bonds are not of same length (3) All B–H–B angles are of 120° (4) Its fragment, BH3, behaves as a Lewis base


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

4 9. Among the following, the number of halide(s)

which is/are inert to hydrolysis is _______. (A) BF3 (B) SiCl4 (C) PCl5 (D) SF6 10. Which among the following species has unequal

bond lengths ? (1) 4BF - (2) 4XeF (3) 4SF (4) 4SiF

11. The correct order of bond dissociation enthalpy of halogens is :

(1) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2 (2) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (3) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (4) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 12. Given below are two statements : one is labelled

as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : Dipole-dipole interactions are the only non-covalent interactions, resulting in hydrogen bond formation.

Reason R : Fluorine is the most electronegative element and hydrogen bonds in HF are symmetrical.


(1) A is false but R is true (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A (3) A is true R is false (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the

correct explanation of A 13. Given below are two statements : Statement I : o-Nitrophenol is steam volatile

due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding. Statement II : o-Nitrophenol has high melting

due to hydrogen bonding. In the light of the above statements, choose the

most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (2) Both statement I and statement II are true (3) Both statement I and statement II are false (4) Statement I is true but statement II is false

14. Given below are two statements :one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A : In TlI3, isomorphous to CsI3, the

metal is present in +1 oxidation state.

Reason R : Tl metal has fourteen f electrons in

the electronic configuration. In the light of the above statements, choose the

most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) A is correct but R is not correct (2) Both A and R are correct and R is the

correct explanation of A. (3) A is not correct but R is correct (4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the

correct explanation of A. 15. Match List-I with List-II. List-I List-II (Molecule) (Bond order) (a) Ne2 (i) 1 (b) N2 (ii) 2 (c) F2 (iii) 0 (d) O2 (iv) 3 Choose the correct answer from the options

given below : (1) (a)®(iii), (b)®(iv), (c)®(i), (d)®(ii) (2) (a)®(i), (b)®(ii), (c)®(iii), (d)®(iv) (3) (a)®(ii), (b)®(i), (c)®(iv), (d)®(iii) (4) (a)®(iv), (b)®(iii), (c)®(ii), (d)®(i) 16. Match List-I with List-II : List-I List-II Name of oxo acid Oxidation state of 'P' (a) Hypophosphorous acid (i) +5 (b) Orthophosphoric acid (ii) +4 (c) Hypophosphoric acid (iii) +3 (d) Orthophosphorous acid (iv) +2 (v) +1 Choose the correct answer from the options

given below : (1) (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)


5

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

17. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :

Assertion A : The H–O–H bond angle in water molecule is 104.5o.

Reason R : The lone pair – lone pair repulsion of electrons is higher than the bond pair - bond pair repulsion.

(1) A is false but R is true (2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the

correct explanation of A (3) A is true but R is false (4) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct

explanation of A 18. The INCORRECT statement regarding the

structure of C60 is : (1) The six-membered rings are fused to both

six and five-membered rings. (2) Each carbon atom forms three sigma bonds. (3) The five-membered rings are fused only to

six-membered rings. (4) It contains 12 six-membered rings and 24

five-membered rings. 19. A central atom in a molecule has two lone pairs

of electrons and forms three single bonds. The shape of this molecule is:

(1) see-saw (2) planar triangular (3) T-shaped (4) trigonal pyramidal 20. Which of the following compound CANNOT

act as a Lewis base? (1) NF3 (2) PCl5 (3) SF4 (4) ClF3 21. Amongst the following, the linear species is : (1) NO2 (2) Cl2O (3) O3 (4) –

3N

22. AX is a covalent diatomic molecule where A and X are second row elements of periodic table. Based on Molecular orbital theory, the bond order of AX is 25. The total number of electrons in AX is ______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

23. The number of species below that have two lone pairs of electrons in their central atom is ____(Round off to the Nearest integer)

SF4, BF4– , CIF3, AsF3, PCl5, BrF5, XeF4, SF6

24. A xenon compound 'A' upon partial hydrolysis gives XeO2F2. The number of lone pair of electrons present in compound A is _______(Round off to the Nearest integer)

25. The number of lone pairs of electrons on the

central I atom in -3I is _________.

26. The hybridisations of the atomic orbitals of nitrogen in 2 2NO , NO- + and +

4NH respectively

are. (1) sp3, sp2 and sp (2) sp, sp2 and sp3

(3) sp3, sp and sp2 (4) sp2, sp and sp3

27. Match List-I with List-II : List-I List-II (Species) (Hybrid Orbitals) (a) SF4 (i) sp3d2

(b) IF5 (ii) d2sp3

(c) +2NO (iii) sp3d

(d) +4NH (iv) sp3

(v) sp Choose the correct answer from the options

given below : (1) (a)-( i), (b)-( ii), (c)-(v) and (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv) and (d)-(v) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-( i), (c)-( v) and (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii) and (d)-(v) 28. The number of sigma bonds in

H3C – C = CH – C º C – H

H

is _________ .

29. In the following the correct bond order sequence is:

(1) - + -> > >22 2 2 2O O O O

(2) + - -> > >22 2 2 2O O O O

(3) + - -> > > 22 2 2 2O O O O

(4) - - +> > >22 2 2 2O O O O

30. Identify the species having one p-bond and maximum number of canonical forms from the following :

(1) SO3 (2) O2

(3) SO2 (4) -23CO


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

6 31. The oxidation states of 'P' in H4P2O7, H4P2O5

and H4P2O6, respectively, are : (1) 7, 5 and 6 (2) 5, 4 and 3 (3) 5, 3 and 4 (4) 6, 4 and 5

32. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : Lithium halides are some what covalent in nature.

Reason R : Lithium possess high polarisation capability.


(1) A is true but R is false

(2) A is false but R is true

(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

33. In gaseous triethyl amine the "–C–N–C–" bond angle is ________ degree.

34. The difference between bond orders of CO and

NOÅ is x2

where x = _______.

(Round off to the Nearest Integer) 35. Number of Cl=O bonds in chlorous acid, chloric

acid and perchloric acid respectively are (1) 3, 1 and 1 (2) 4, 1 and 0 (3) 1, 1 and 3 (4) 1, 2 and 3 36. The total number of electrons in all bonding

molecular orbitals of 22O - is ........ .


37. AB3 is an interhalogen T-shaped molecule. The number of lone pairs of electrons on A is _______. (Integer answer)

38. The interaction energy of London forces between two particles is proportional to rx, where r is the distance between the particles. The value of x is :

(1) 3 (2) –3 (3) –6 (4) 6 39. The number of non-ionisable hydrogen atoms

present in the final product obtained from the hydrolysis of PCl5 is :

(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 3 40. The bond order and magnetic behaviour of 2O -

ion are, respectively : (1) 1.5 and paramagnetic (2) 1.5 and diamagnetic (3) 2 and diamagnetic (4) 1 and paramagnetic 41. Given below are two statements : one is labelled

as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Barium carbonate is insoluble in water and is highly stable.

Reason (R) : The thermal stability of the carbonates increases with increasing cationic size.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the true explanation of (A)

(2) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the

true explanation of (A) (4) (A) is false but (R) is true. 42. Match List–I with List–II : List–I List–II (Species) (Number of lone pairs of

electrons on the central atom)

(a) XeF2 (i) 0 (b) XeO2F2 (ii) 1 (c) XeO3F2 (iii) 2 (d) XeF4 (iv) 3 Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below : (1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iii) (2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i) (3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i) (4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)


7

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

43. In which one of the following molecules strongest back donation of an electron pair from halide to boron is expected?

(1) BCl3 (2) BF3 (3) BBr3 (4) BI3

44. The number of species having non–pyramidal shape among the following is_______.

(A) SO3

(B) -3NO

(C) PCl3

(D) -23CO

45. The number of hydrogen bonded water molecule(s) associated with stoichiometry CuSO4.5H2O is _______.

46. Which one of the following correctly represents the order of stability of oxides, X2O; (X = halogen) ?

(1) Br > Cl > I (2) Br > I > Cl (3) Cl > I > Br (4) I > Cl > Br

47. According to molecular orbital theory, the

number of unpaired electron(s) in -22O is :

48. Number of paramagnetic oxides among the following given oxides is __________.

Li2O, CaO, Na2O2, KO2, MgO and K2O (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 0

49. The spin-only magnetic moment value of

2B+ species is ________×10–2 BM.

(Nearest integer) *-[Given : 3 1.73= ]

COORDINATION CHEMISTRY

1. The calculated magnetic moments (spin only value) for species [FeCl4]2–, [Co(C2O4)3]3– and

2–4MnO respectively are :

(1) 5.82, 0 and 0 BM (2) 4.90, 0 and 1.73 BM (3) 5.92, 4.90 and 0 BM (4) 4.90, 0 and 2.83 BM

2. The hybridization and magnetic nature of

[Mn(CN)6]4– and [Fe(CN)6]3–, respectively are:

(1) d2sp3 and diamagnetic (2) sp3d2 and diamagnetic (3) d2sp3 and paramagnetic (4) sp3d2 and paramagnetic 3. In which of the following order the given

complex ions are arranged correctly with respect to their decreasing spin only magnetic moment ?

(i) [FeF6]3– (ii) [Co(NH3)6]3+

(iii) [NiCl4]2– (iv) [Cu(NH3)4]2+

(1) (i) > (iii) > (iv) > (ii) (2) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv) (3) (iii) > (iv) > (ii) > (i) (4) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv) 4. Given below are two statements : Statement I : The identification of Ni2+ is carried out by

dimethyl glyoxime in the presence of NH4OH.

Statement II : The dimethyl glyoxime is a bidentate neutral

ligand. In the light of the above statements, choose the

correct answer from the options given below: (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

5. Number of bridging CO ligands in [Mn2(CO)10]

is _______.

6. The number of stereoisomers possible for [Co(ox)2(Br)(NH3)]2– is _______.[ox = oxalate]

7. The equivalents of ethylene diamine required to replace the neutral ligands from the coordination sphere of the trans-complex of CoCl3.4NH3 is _______. (Round off to the

Nearest Integer).


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

8 8. Arrange the following metal complex/

compounds in the increasing order of spin only

magnetic moment. Presume all the three, high

spin system.

(Atomic numbers Ce = 58, Gd = 64 and Eu = 63.)

(a) (NH4)2[Ce(NO3)6] (b) Gd(NO3)3 and

(c) Eu(NO3)3

Answer is :

(1) (b) < (a) < (c) (2) (c) < (a) < (b)

(3) (a) < (b) < (c) (4) (a) < (c) < (b)

9. [Ti(H2O)6]3+ absorbs light of wavelength

498 nm during a d – d transition. The octahedral

splitting energy for the above complex is _____

× 10–19 J. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). h =

6.626 × 10–34 Js; c = 3 × 108 ms–1.


List-I List-II

(a) [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] (i) Linkage

isomerism

(b) [Co(NH3)3 (NO2)3] (ii) Solvate

isomerism

(c) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (iii) Co-ordination

isomerism

(d) cis-[CrCl2(ox)2]3– (iv) Optical isomerism

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below

(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

11. On complete reaction of FeCl3 with oxalic acid

in aqueous solution containing KOH, resulted in

the formation of product A. The secondary

valency of Fe in the product A is ____.


12. Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II

(a) Chlorophyll (i) Ruthenium (b) Vitamin-B12 (ii) Platinum

(c) Anticancer drug (iii) Cobalt (d) Grubbs catalyst (iv) Magnesium Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below : (1) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i 13. The correct structures of trans-[NiBr2(PPh3)2]

and meridonial-[Co(NH3)3(NO2)3], respectively, are

(1)

and

(2)

and

(3)

and

(4)

and

14. The total number of unpaired electrons present in the complex K3[Cr(oxalate)3] is ______.

15. The secondary valency and the number of hydrogen bonded water molecule(s) in CuSO4×5H2O, respectively, are :

(1) 6 and 4 (2) 4 and 1 (3) 6 and 5 (4) 5 and 1 16. According to the valence bond theory the

hybridization of central metal atom is dsp2 for which one of the following compounds?

(1) NiCl2.6H2O (2) K2[Ni(CN)4] (3) [Ni(CO)4] (4) Na2[NiCl4]

Ni

Br PPh3

BrPh3PCo

H N3 NO2

NO2H N3

NO2

NH3

NiPh P3

Br

BrPh3PCo

O N2 NH3

NH3O N2

NO2

NH3

NiPh P3

Br

BrPh3PCo

O N2 NO2

NH3O N2

NH3

NH3

NiBr PPh3

BrPh3PCo

O N2 NH3

NO2H N3

NO2

NH3


9

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

17. The correct order of intensity of colors of the compounds is :

(1) [Ni(CN)4]2– > [NiCl4]2– > [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (2) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ > [NiCl4]2– > [Ni(CN)4]2– (3) [NiCl4]2– > [Ni(H2O)6]2+ > [Ni(CN)4]2– (4) [NiCl4]2– > [Ni(CN)4]2– > [Ni(H2O)6]2+ 18. The spin-only magnetic moment value for the

complex [Co(CN)6]4– is ________ BM. [At. no. of Co = 27] 19. Spin only magnetic moment of an octahedral

complex of Fe2+ in the presence of a strong field ligand in BM is :

(1) 4.89 (2) 2.82 (3) 0 (4) 3.46 20. Which one of the following species doesn't

have a magnetic moment of 1.73 BM, (spin only value) ?

(1) +2O (2) CuI

(3) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 (4) -2O

21. An aqueous solution of NiCl2 was heated with excess sodium cyanide in presence of strong oxidizing agent to form [Ni(CN)6]2–. The total change in number of unpaired electrons on metal centre is _______.

22. The total number of unpaired electrons present in [Co(NH3)6]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 is

23. Which one of the following species responds to an external magnetic field?

(1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Ni(CN)4]2– (3) [Co(CN)6]3– (4) [Ni(CO)4] 24. Three moles of AgCl get precipitated when one

mole of an octahedral co-ordination compound with empirical formula CrCl3.3NH3.3H2O reacts with excess of silver nitrate. The number of chloride ions satisfying the secondary valency of the metal ion is________ .

25. Which one of the following metal complexes is most stable?

(1) [Co(en) (NH3)4]Cl2

(2) [Co(en)3]Cl2

(3) [Co(en)2(NH3)2]Cl2

(4) [Co(NH3)6]Cl2

26. The type of hybridisation and magnetic property of the complex [MnCl6]3–, respectively, are :

(1) sp3d2 and diamagnetic (2) d2sp3 and diamagnetic (3) d2sp3 and paramagnetic (4) sp3d2 and paramagnetic 27. The number of geometrical isomers found in the

metal complexes [PtCl2(NH3)2], [Ni(CO)4], [Ru(H2O)3Cl3] and [CoCl2(NH3)4]+ respectively, are : (1) 1, 1, 1, 1 (2) 2, 1, 2, 2 (3) 2, 0, 2, 2 (4) 2, 1, 2, 1 28. The number of geometrical isomers possible in

triamminetrinitrocobalt (III) is X and in trioxalatochromate (III) is Y. Then the value of X + Y is _______.

29. Given below are two statements : Statement I : [Mn(CN)6]3–, [Fe(CN)6]3– and

[Co(C2O4)3]3– are d2sp3 hybridised. Statement II : [MnCl6]3– and [FeF6]3– are

paramagnetic and have 4 and 5 unpaired electrons, respectively.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is false (2) Both statement I and statement II are false

(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

(4) Both statement I and statement II are are true

30. 3 moles of metal complex with formula Co(en)2Cl3 gives 3 moles of silver chloride on treatment with excess of silver nitrate. The secondary valency of Co in the complex is _____. (Round off to the nearest integer)

31. Which one of the following complexes is violet in colour?

(1) [Fe(CN)6]4–

(2) [Fe(SCN)6]4– (3) Fe4[Fe(CN6)]3×H2O (4) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4–


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

10 32. Indicate the complex/complex ion which did not

show any geometrical isomerism : (1) [CoCl2(en)2] (2)[Co(CN)5(NC)]3–

(3) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] (4) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ 33. Arrange the following Cobalt complexes in the

order of increasing Crystal Field Stabilization Energy (CFSE) value.

Complexes : 3 2 3

6 2 6 3 6A B C

[CoF ] ,[Co(H O) ] ,[Co(NH ) ]- + +

33and[Co(en) ] +

Choose the correct option : (1) A < B < C < D (2) B < A < C < D (3) B < C < D < A (4) C < D < B < A 34. 1 mol of an octahedral metal complex with

formula MCl3 · 2L on reaction with excess of AgNO3 gives 1 mol of AgCl. The denticity of Ligand L is ________ . (Integer answer)

35. The number of optical isomers possible for [Cr(C2O4)3]3– is ______.

36. The denticity of an organic ligand, biuret is : (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 6 37. Spin only magnetic moment in BM of

[Fe(CO)4(C2O4)]+ is : (1) 5.92 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 1.73 38. The Crystal Field Stabilization Energy (CFSE)

and magnetic moment (spin-only) of an octahedral aqua complex of a metal ion (Mz+) are –0.8 D0 and 3.87 BM, respectively. Identify (MZ+) :

(1) V3+ (2) Cr3+ (3) Mn4+ (4) Co2+

39. The sum of oxidation states of two silver ions in [Ag(NH3)2] [Ag(CN)2] complex is _______.

METALLURGY

1. Which of the following ore is concentrated using group 1 cyanide salt ?

(1) Sphalerite (2) Calamine (3) Siderite (4) Malachite

2. Al2O3 was leached with alkali to get X. The

solution of X on passing of gas Y, forms Z. X,

Y and Z respectively are :

(1) X = Na[Al(OH)4], Y = SO2, Z = Al2O3

(2) X = Na[Al(OH)4], Y = CO2, Z = Al2O3.xH2O

(3) X = Al(OH)3, Y = CO2, Z = Al2O3

(4) X = Al(OH)3, Y = SO2, Z = Al2O3.xH2O

3. The major components in "Gun Metal" are :

(1) Cu, Zn and Ni (2) Cu, Sn and Zn

(3) Al, Cu, Mg and Mn (4) Cu, Ni and Fe

4. Match List-I with List-II.


given below:

(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)

(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)

(3) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)

(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)

5. Ellingham diagram is a graphical representation

of:

(1) DH vs T (2) DG vs T

(3) DG vs P (4) (DG – TDS) vs T

6. The major components of German Silver are :

(1) Ge, Cu and Ag (2) Zn, Ni and Ag

(3) Cu, Zn and Ni (4) Cu, Zn and Ag

7. The method used for the purification of Indium

is :

(1) van Arkel method

(2) liquation

(3) zone refining

(4) vapour phase refining

List-I (Metal)

List-II (Ores)

(a) Aluminium (i) Siderite (b) Iron (ii) Calamine (c) Copper (iii) Kaolinite (d) Zinc (iv) Malachite


11

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

8. Match List -I with List - II

List - I List - II

(Ore) (Element Present)

(a) Kernite (i) Tin

(b) Cassiterite (ii) Boron

(c) Calamine (iii)Fluorine

(d) Cryolite (iv) Zinc


options given below.

(1) (a) ® (i), (b) ® (iii), (c) ® (iv), (d) ® (ii)

(2) (a) ® (ii), (b) ® (i), (c) ® (iv), (d) ® (iii)

(3) (a) ® (ii), (b) ® (iv), (c) ® (i), (d) ® (iii)

(4) (a) ® (iii), (b) ® (i), (c) ® (ii), (d) ® (iv)


List-I List-II

(a) Siderite (i) Cu

(b) Calamine (ii) Ca

(c) Malachite (iii) Fe

(d) Cryolite (iv) Al

(v) Zn


given below :

(1) (a)®(iii), (b)®(i), (c)®(v), (d)®(ii)

(2) (a)®(i), (b)®(ii), (c)®(v), (d)®(iii)

(3) (a)®(iii), (b)®(v), (c)®(i), (d)®(iv)

(4) (a)®(i), (b)®(ii), (c)®(iii), (d)®(iv)

10. The process that involves the removal of

sulphur from the ores is :

(1) Smelting (2) Roasting

(3) Leaching (4) Refining

11. Which of the following reduction reaction

CANNOT be carried out with coke ?

(1) Al2O3 ® Al (2) ZnO ® Zn

(3) Fe2O3 ® Fe (4) Cu2O ® Cu

12. The point of intersection and sudden increase in the slope, in the diagram given below,

respectively, indicates :

(1) DG = 0 and melting or boiling point of the

metal oxide

(2) DG > 0 and decomposition of the metal

oxide

(3) DG < 0 and decomposition of the metal

oxide

(4) DG = 0 and reduction of the metal oxide

13. Match List-I and List-II :

List-I List-II

(a) Haematite (i) Al2O3.xH2O

(b) Bauxite (ii) Fe2O3

(c) Magnetite (iii) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2

(d) Malachite (iv) Fe3O4


given below :

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

14. The chemical that is added to reduce the melting point of the reaction mixture during the

extraction of aluminium is :

(1) Cryolite (2) Bauxite

(3) Calamine (4) Kaolite

0–100–200–300–400–500–600–700–800–900

–1000–1100–1200

4/3Al+O 2/3Al O2

23

®

2Mg+O 2MgO2®

2Zn+O 2ZnO2®2CO+O2CO

2

2

®

2Fe+O 2FeO2®

4Cu+O 2Cu O2

2®

2C+OCO2®2

C+O CO2 2®

0°C273K

400°C673K

800°C1073K

1200°C1473K

1600°C1873K

2000°C2273K

Temperature

DG/k

J mol

of

O0

–12

A


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

12 15. Match list-I with list-II :

List-I List-II

(a) Mercury (i) Vapour phase refining

(b) Copper (ii) Distillation refining

(c) Silicon (iii) Electrolytic refining

(d) Nickel (iv) Zone refining


option given below :

(1) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

16. The metal that can be purified economically by

fractional distillation method is:

(1) Fe (2) Zn (3) Cu (4) Ni

17. Consider two chemical reactions (A) and (B)

that take place during metallurgical process :

(A) D¾¾® +3(s) ( s) 2 ( g)ZnCO ZnO CO

(B) D+ ¾¾® +( s ) 2 ( g ) ( s) 2 ( g )2 ZnS 3O 2 ZnO 2SO

The correct option of names given to them

respectively is :

(1) (A) is calcination and (B) is roasting

(2) Both (A) and (B) are producing same

product so both are roasting

(3) Both (A) and (B) are producing same

product so both are calcination

(4) (A) is roasting and (B) is calcination

18. Sulphide ion is soft base and its ores are

common for metals.

(a) Pb (b) Al (c) Ag (d) Mg


given below :

(1) (a) and (c) only (2) (a) and (d) only

(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (c) and (d) only

19. In the leaching of alumina from bauxite, the ore

expected to leach out in the process by reacting

with NaOH is :

(1) TiO2 (2) Fe2O3

(3) ZnO (4) SiO2

20. Match List I with List II : (Both having metallurgical terms)

List-I List-II

(a) Concentration of Ag ore

(i) Reverberatory furnace

(b) Blast furnace (ii) Pig iron

(c) Blister copper (iii) Leaching with dilute NaCN solution

(d) Froth floatation method

(iv) Sulfide ores


(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iv) (2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii) (3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(ii) (4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i) 21. The statement that is INCORRECT about

Ellingham diagram is (1) provides idea about the reaction rate. (2) provides idea about free energy change. (3) provides idea about changes in the phases

during the reaction. (4) provides idea about reduction of metal

oxide. 22. The addition of silica during the extraction of

copper from its sulphide ore :- (1) converts copper sulphide into copper silicate (2) converts iron oxide into iron silicate (3) reduces copper sulphide into metallic copper (4) reduces the melting point of the reaction

mixture 23. Given below are two statements. Statement I: The choice of reducing agents for

metals extraction can be made by using Ellingham diagram, a plot of DG vs temperature.

Statement II: The value of DS increases from left to right in Ellingham diagram.


(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false


13

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

24. Given below are two statements : Statement I : Sphalerite is a sulphide ore of zinc

and copper glance is a sulphide ore of copper. Statement II : It is possible to separate two

sulphide ores by adjusting proportion of oil to water or by using 'depressants' in a froth flotation method.


(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

25. Which refining process is generally used in the purification of low melting metals ?

(1) Chromatographic method (2) Liquation (3) Electrolysis (4) Zone refining 26. Match List-I with List – II :

List-I

(Name of

ore/mineral)

List-II

(Chemical

formula)

(a) Calamine (i) Zns

(b) Malachite (ii) FeCO3

(c) Siderite (iii) ZnCO3

(d) Sphalerite (iv) CuCO3 · Cu(OH)2


(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

27. In the electrolytic refining of blister copper, the total number of main impurities, from the following, removed as anode mud is ______

Pb, Sb, Se, Te, Ru, Ag, Au and Pt

28. Calamine and Malachite, respectively, are the ores of :

(1) Nickel and Aluminium (2) Zinc and Copper (3) Copper and Iron (4) Aluminium and Zinc

HYDROGEN &

IT'S COMPOUND

1. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the Universe, but it is not the most abundant gas in the troposphere.

Reason R : Hydrogen is the lightest element. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A is true but R is false

(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(3) A is false but R is true

(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

2. Statements about heavy water are given below. A. Heavy water is used in exchange reactions

for the study of reaction mechanisms. B. Heavy water is prepared by exhaustive

electrolysis of water C. Heavy water has higher boiling point than

ordinary water. D. Viscosity of H2O is greater than D2O

(1) A, B and C only (2) A and B only (3) A and D only (4) A and C only

3. Which of the following forms of hydrogen

emits low energy b– particles?

(1) Deuterium 21 H (2) Tritium 3

1 H

(3) Protium 11H (4) Proton H+


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

14 4. Calgon is used for water treatment. Which of

the following statement is NOT true about Calgon?

(1) Calgon contains the 2nd most abundant element by weight in the Earth's crust.

(2) It is polymeric compound and is water soluble.

(3) It is also known as Graham's salt

(4) It does not remove Ca2+ ion by precipitation.

5. Given below are two statements : Statement I : H2O2 can act as both oxidising and

reducing agent in basic medium. Statement II : In the hydrogen economy, the

energy is transmitted in the form of dihydrogen. In the light of the above statements, choose the

correct answer from the options given below : (1) Both statement I and statement II are false (2) Both statement I and statement II are true (3) Statement I is true but statement II is false (4) Statement I is false but statement II is true 6. The correct statements about H2O2 are : (A) used in the treatment of effluents. (B) used as both oxidising and reducing agents. (C) the two hydroxyl groups lie in the same plane. (D) miscible with water. Choose the correct answer from the options

given below : (1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) (2) (A), (B) and (D) only (3) (B), (C) and (D) only (4) (A), (C) and (D) only 7. The INCORRECT statement(s) about heavy

water is (are) (A) used as a moderator in nuclear reactor (B) obtained as a by-product in fertilizer industry. (C) used for the study of reaction mechanism (D) has a higher dielectric constant than water Choose the correct answer from the options

given below : (1) (B) only (2) (C) only (3) (D) only (4) (B) and (D) only

8. The functional groups that are responsible for the ion-exchange property of cation and anion exchange resins, respectively, are :

(1) –SO3H and –NH2

(2) –SO3H and –COOH

(3) –NH2 and –COOH

(4) –NH2 and –SO3H

9. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other labelled as reason R

Assertion A : During the boiling of water having temporary hardness, Mg(HCO3)2 is

converted to MgCO3.

Reason R : The solubility product of Mg(OH)2

is greater than that of MgCO3.


(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(2) A is true but R is false (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A (4) A is false but R is true 10. In basic medium, H2O2 exhibits which of the

following reactions ? (A) Mn2+ ® Mn4+

(B) I2 ® I–

(C) PbS ® PbSO4


(1) (A), (C) only (2) (A) only (3) (B) only (4) (A), (B) only 11. The single largest industrial application of

dihydrogen is : (1) Manufacture of metal hydrides (2) Rocket fuel in space research (3) In the synthesis of ammonia (4) In the synthesis of nitric acid


15

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

12. Metallic sodium does not react normally with

(1) gaseous ammonia

(2) But-2-yne

(3) Ethyne

(4) tert-butyl alcohol

13. Isotope(s) of hydrogen which emits low energy b–

particles with t½ value > 12 years is/are

(1) Protium

(2) Tritium

(3) Deuterium

(4) Deuterium and Tritium



Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Heavy water is used for the

study of reaction mechanism.

Reason (R) : The rate of reaction for the

cleavage of O - H bond is slower than that of O-

D bond.


options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the

true explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true

explanation of (A).


(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

15. Deuterium resembles hydrogen in properties but

(1) reacts slower than hydrogen

(2) reacts vigorously than hydrogen

(3) reacts just as hydrogen

(4) emits b+ particles

16. Which one of the following methods is most

suitable for preparing deionized water?

(1) Synthetic resin method

(2) Clark's method

(3) Calgon's method

(4) Permutit method

17. Given below are two statements : Statement-I : The process of producing syn-gas

is called gasification of coal. Statement-II : The composition of syn-gas is

CO + CO2 + H2 (1 : 1 : 1) In the light of the above statements, choose the


(1) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true (2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false

(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false

(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true 18. Which one of the following statements is

incorrect ? (1) Atomic hydrogen is produced when H2

molecules at a high temperature are irradiated with UV radiation.

(2) At around 2000 K, the dissociation of dihydrogen into its atoms is nearly 8.1%.

(3) Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2 is highest among diatomic gaseous molecules which contain a single bond.

(4) Dihydrogen is produced on reacting zinc with HCl as well as NaOH(aq).

SALT ANALYSIS

1. Given below are two statements : Statement I : Colourless cupric metaborate is

reduced to cuprous metaborate in a luminous flame.

Statement II : Cuprous metaborate is obtained by heating boric anhydride and copper sulphate in a non-luminous flame.


(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

16 2. Which of the following compound is added to

the sodium extract before addition of silver nitrate for testing of halogens?

(1) Nitric acid (2) Ammonia (3) Hydrochloric acid (4) Sodium hydroxide 3. On treating a compound with warm dil. H2SO4,

gas X is evolved which turns K2Cr2O7 paper

acidified with dil. H2SO4 to a green compound

Y. X and Y respectively are - (1) X = SO2, Y = Cr2O3

(2) X = SO3, Y = Cr2O3

(3) X = SO2, Y = Cr2(SO4)3

(4) X = SO3, Y = Cr2(SO4)3

4. Match List-I with List-II

The correct match is : (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) 5. Reagent, 1-naphthylamine and sulphanilic acid

in acetic acid is used for the detection of (1) N2O (2) NO3– (3) NO (4) NO2–

6. An inorganic Compound 'X' on treatment with concentrated H2SO4 produces brown fumes and gives dark brown ring with FeSO4 in presence of concentrated H2SO4. Also Compound 'X' gives precipitate 'Y', when its solution in dilute HCl is treated with H2S gas. The precipitate 'Y' on treatment with concentrated HNO3 followed by excess of NH4OH further gives deep blue coloured solution, Compound 'X' is:

(1) Co(NO3)2 (2) Pb(NO2)2

(3) Cu(NO3)2 (4) Pb(NO3)2

7. When silver nitrate solution is added to potassium iodide solution then the sol produced is :

(1) AgI / I– (2) AgI / Ag+ (3) -

3KI / NO (4) -3 3AgNO / NO

8. Which one of the following set of elements can be detected using sodium fusion extract ?

(1) Sulfur, Nitrogen, Phosphorous, Halogens (2)Phosphorous, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Halogens (3) Nitrogen, Phosphorous, Carbon, Sulfur (4) Halogens, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Sulfur 9. To an aqueous solution containing ions such as

Al3+, Zn2+, Ca2+, Fe3+, Ni2+, Ba2+ and Cu2+ was added conc. HCl, followed by H2S.

The total number of cations precipitated during this reaction is/are :

(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2 10. What are the products formed in sequence when

excess of CO2 is passed in slaked lime? (1) Ca(HCO3)2, CaCO3 (2) CaCO3, Ca(HCO3)2 (3) CaO, Ca(HCO3)2 (4) CaO, CaCO3

11. Acidic ferric chloride solution on treatment with excess of potassium ferrocyanide gives a Prussian blue coloured colloidal species. It is:

(1) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (2) K5Fe[Fe(CN)6]2 (3) HFe[Fe(CN)6] (4) KFe[Fe(CN)6] 12. Consider the sulphides HgS, PbS, CuS, Sb2S3,

As2S3 and CdS. Number of these sulphides soluble in 50% HNO3 is ________.

13. The deposition of X and Y on ground surfaces is referred as wet and dry depositions, respectively. X and Y are :

(1) X = Ammonium salts, Y = CO2 (2) X = SO2, Y = Ammonium salts (3) X = Ammonium salts, Y = SO2 (4) X = CO2, Y = SO2

List-I Test/Reagents/Observation(s)

List-II Species detected

(a) Lassaigne's Test (i) Carbon(b) Cu(II) oxide (ii) Sulphur(c) Silver nitrate (iii) N, S, P, and halogen(d) The sodium fusion extract

gives black precipitate with acetic acid and lead acetate

(iv) Halogen Specifically


17

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

14. Match List-I with List-II : List-I List-II

(Metal Ion) (Group in Qualitative

analysis)

(a) Mn2+ (i) Group - III (b) As3+ (ii) Group - IIA (c) Cu2+ (iii) Group - IV (d) Al3+ (iv) Group - IIB Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below : (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) 15. The potassium ferrocyanide solution gives a

Prussian blue colour, when added to : (1) CoCl3 (2) FeCl2 (3) CoCl2 (4) FeCl3

COMPLETE S-BLOCK



given below : (1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i) (2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii) (3) (a)–(i), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iii) (4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i) 2. Find A, B and C in the following reactions :

NH3 + A + CO2 ® (NH4)2CO3

(NH4)2CO3 + H2O + B ® NH4HCO3

NH4HCO3 + NaCl ® NH4Cl + C

(1) A – O2 ; B – CO2 ; C – Na2CO3

(2) A – H2O ; B – O2 ; C – Na2CO3

(3) A – H2O ; B – O2 ; C – NaHCO3

(4) A – H2O ; B – CO2 ; C – NaHCO3


List-I List-II

(a) Sodium Carbonate (i) Deacon (b) Titanium (ii) Castner-Kellner (c) Chlorine (iii) Van-Arkel

(d) Sodium hydroxide (iv) Solvay Choose the correct answer from the options

given below :

(1) (a)®(iv), (b)®(iii), (c)®(i), (d)®(ii)

(2) (a)®(i), (b)®(iii), (c)®(iv), (d)®(ii)

(3) (a)®(iv), (b)®(i), (c)®(ii), (d)®(iii)

(4) (a)®(iii), (b)®(ii), (c)®(i), (d)®(iv)


Statement I : Both CaCl2.6H2O and

MgCl2.8H2O undergo dehydration on heating.

Statement II : BeO is amphoteric whereas the oxides of other elements in the same group are

acidic.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is false but statement II is true

(2) Both statement I and statement II are false

(3) Both statement I and statement II are true

(4) Statement I is true but statement II is false


List-I List-II

(a) Ca(OCI)2 (i) Antacid

(b) CaSO4. 21 H O2

(ii) Cement

(c) CaO (iii) Bleach

(d) CaCO3 (iv) Plaster of paris


options given below : (1) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii (2) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

List-I (Salt)

List-II (Flame colour wavelength)

(a) LiCl (i) 455.5 nm (b) NaCl (ii) 670.8 nm (c) RbCl (iii) 780.0 nm (d) CsCl (iv) 589.2 nm


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

18 6. Match list-I with list-II :

List-I List-II

(a) Be (i) Treatment of cancer

(b) Mg (ii) Extraction of metals

(c) Ca (iii) Incendiary bombs and signals

(d) Ra (iv) Windows of X-ray tubes

(v) Bearings for motor engines.

Choose the most appropriate answer the option

given below :

(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-v, d-ii (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-v

7. A s-block element (M) reacts with oxygen to

form an oxide of the formula MO2. The oxide is

pale yellow in colour and paramagnetic. The

element (M) is:

(1) Mg (2) Na (3) Ca (4) K


List-I List-II

(Elements) (Properties)

(a) Ba (i) Organic solvent soluble

compounds

(b) Ca (ii) Outer electronic

configuration 6s2

(c) Li (iii) Oxalate insoluble

in water

(d) Na (iv) Formation of very strong

monoacidic base


given below :

(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i) and (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii) and (d)-(iii)

(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv) and (d)-(i)

(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii) and (d)-(iii)


Statement I : None of the alkaline earth metal

hydroxides dissolve in alkali.

Statement II : Solubility of alkaline earth metal

hydroxides in water increases down the group.



given below :

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is

incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is

correct.

(3) Statement I and Statement II both are

incorrect.

(4) Statement I and Statement II both are

correct.

10. Match List I with List II :

List-I

Elements

List-II

Properties

(a) Li (i) Poor water solubility of I– salt

(b) Na (ii) Most abundant element in

cell fluid

(c) K (iii) Bicarbonate salt used in fire

extinguisher

(d) Cs (iv) Carbonate salt decomposes

easily on heating


given below :

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)


19

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

11. Match List - I with List II :

List - I List - II

(a) Li (i) photoelectric cell

(b) Na (ii) absorbent of CO2

(c) K (iii) coolant in fast breeder nuclear reactor

(d) Cs (iv) treatment of cancer

(v) bearings for motor engines


(1) (a) - (v), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv) (2) (a) - (v), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i) (3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) (4) (a) - (v), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

12. These are physical properties of an element

(A) Sublimation enthalpy

(B) Ionisation enthalpy

(C) Hydration enthalpy

(D) Electron gain enthalpy

The total number of above properties that affect the reduction potential is _________ (Integer answer)

13. The number of water molecules in gypsum, dead burnt plaster and plaster of paris, respectively are:

(1) 2, 0 and 1 (2) 0.5, 0 and 2 (3) 5, 0 and 0.5 (4) 2, 0 and 0.5 14. Choose the correct statement from the following (1) The standard enthalpy of formation for

alkali metal bromides becomes less negative on descending the group.

(2) The low solubility of CsI in water is due to its high lattice enthalpy.

(3) Among the alkali metal halides, LiF is least soluble in water.

(4) LiF has least negative standard enthalpy of formation among alkali metal fluorides.



Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Lithium salts are hydrated.

Reason (R) : Lithium has higher polarising

power than other alkali metal group members.



given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT

the correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct .

(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.


correct explanation of (A).

COMPLETE D-BLOCK 1. What is the correct order of the following

elements with respect to their density ?

(1) Cr < Zn < Co < Cu < Fe

(2) Zn < Cu < Co < Fe < Cr

(3) Zn < Cr < Fe < Co < Cu

(4) Cr < Fe < Co < Cu < Zn

2. The incorrect statement among the following is :

(1) VOSO4 is a reducing agent

(2) Cr2O3 is an amphoteric oxide

(3) RuO4 is an oxidizing agent

(4) Red colour of ruby is due to the presence of Co3+

3. Dichromate ion is treated with base, the

oxidation number of Cr in the product formed is

______.

4. Fex2 and Fey3 are known when x and y are :

(1) x = F, Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl, Br

(2) x = F, Cl, Br and y = F, Cl, Br, I

(3) x = Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl, Br, I

(4) x = F, Cl, Br, I and y = F, Cl, Br, I


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

20 5. Given below are two statements: Statement I : Potassium permanganate on

heating at 573 K forms potassium manganate. Statement II : Both potassium permanganate

and potassium manganate are tetrahedral and paramagnetic in nature.


(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false (2) Both statement I and statement II are true (3) Statement I is false but statement II is true (4) Both statement I and statement II are false 6. The common positive oxidation states for an

element with atomic number 24, are : (1) +2 to +6 (2) +1 and +3 to +6 (3) +1 and +3 (4) +1 to +6 7. Match List-I with List-II List-I (process) List-II (catalyst)

(a) Deacron's process (i) ZSM-5 (b) Contact process (ii) CuCl2

(c) Cracking of hydrocarbons (iii) Particles 'Ni' (d) Hydrogenation of vegetable (iv) V2O5

oils Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below - (1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii 8. Cu2+ salt reacts with potassium iodide to give (1) Cu2I2 (2) Cu2I3 (3) Cul (4) Cu(I3)2

9. The set having ions which are coloured and paramagnetic both is -

(1) Cu2+, Cr3+, Sc+

(2) Cu2+, Zn2+, Mn4+ (3) Sc3+, V5+, Ti4+

(4) Ni2+, Mn7+, Hg2+ 10. Which one of the following metals forms

interstitial hydride easily ? (1) Cr (2) Fe (3) Mn (4) Co

11. Number of electrons present in 4f orbital of Ho3+ ion is __________ .

(Given Atomic No. of Ho = 67) 12. Which one of the following when dissolved in

water gives coloured solution in nitrogen atmosphere?

(1) CuCl2 (2) AgCl (3) ZnCl2 (4) Cu2Cl2 13. The nature of oxides V2O3 and CrO is indexed

as 'X' and 'Y' type respectively. The correct set of X and Y is:

(1) X = basic Y = amphoteric (2) X = amphoteric Y = basic (3) X = acidic Y = acidic (4) X = basic Y = basic 14. The addition of dilute NaOH to Cr3+ salt

solution will give : (1) a solution of [Cr(OH)4]– (2) precipitate of Cr2O3(H2O)n (3) precipitate of [Cr(OH)6]3– (4) precipitate of Cr(OH)3 15. Potassium permanganate on heating at 513 K

gives a product which is : (1) paramagnetic and colourless (2) diamagnetic and green (3) diamagnetic and colourless (4) paramagnetic and green 16. In the structure of the dichromate ion, there is a (1) linear symmetrical Cr–O–Cr bond. (2) non-linear symmetrical Cr–O–Cr bond. (3) linear unsymmetrical Cr–O–Cr bond. (4) non-linear unsymmetrical Cr–O–Cr bond. 17. In which one of the following sets all species

show disproportionation reaction ?

(1) 22 2 4 2 7ClO ,F ,MnO and Cr O- - -

(2) 22 7 4 2 2Cr O ,MnO ,ClO and Cl- - -

(3) - - +34 2 2MnO ,ClO ,Cl andMn

(4) 4 4 2 2ClO ,MnO ,ClO andF- - -


21

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

18. In the given chemical reaction, colors of the Fe2+ and Fe3+ ions, are respectively :

5Fe2+ + MnO4– + 8H+ ® Mn2+ + 4H2O + 5Fe3+

(1) Yellow, Orange (2) Yellow, Green (3) Green, Orange (4) Green, Yellow 19. Identify the element for which electronic

configuration in +3 oxidation state is [Ar]3d5: (1) Ru (2) Mn (3) Co (4) Fe

COMPLETE P-BLOCK

1. Given below are two statements : Statement-I : a and b forms of sulphur can

change reversibly between themselves with slow heating or slow cooling.

Statement-II : At room temperature the stable crystalline form of sulphur is monoclinic sulphur.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. (3) Both Statement I is true but Statement II is

false. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. 2. Compound A used as a strong oxidizing agent is

amphoteric in nature. It is the part of lead storage batteries. Compound A is :

(1) PbO2 (2) PbO (3) PbSO4 (4) Pb3O4

3. Match List-I with List-II : List-I List-II Industrial process Application (a) Haber's process (i) HNO3 synthesis (b) Ostwald's process (ii) Aluminium extract ion (c) Contact process (iii) NH3 synthesis (d) Hall-Heroult process (iv) H2SO4 synthesis Choose the correct answer from the options

given below : (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

4. Given below are two statements : Statement I : The E° value of Ce4+ / Ce3+ is + 1.74 V. Statement II : Ce is more stable in Ce4+ state

than Ce3+ state. In the light of the above statements, choose the


(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is

correct (3) Both statement I and statement II are

incorrect (4) Statement I is correct but statement II is

incorrect 5. A group 15 element, which is a metal and forms

a hydride with strongest reducing power among group 15 hydrides. The element is :

(1) Sb (2) P (3) As (4) Bi 6. The reaction of white phosphorus on boiling

with alkali in inert atmosphere resulted in the formation of product 'A'. The reaction 1 mol of 'A' with excess of AgNO3 in aqueous medium gives ________ mol(s) of Ag. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

7. One of the by-products formed during the recovery of NH3 from Solvay process is :

(1) Ca(OH)2 (2) NaHCO3

(3) CaCl2 (4) NH4Cl 9. Given below are two statements : One is labelled

as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : The dihedral angles in H2O2 in

gaseous phase is 90.2° and in solid phase is 111.5° Reason R : The change in dihedral angle in

solid and gaseous phase is due to the difference in the intermolecular forces.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below for A and R.

(1) A is correct but R is not correct. (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the

correct explanation of A. (3) Both A and R are correct and R is the

correct explanation of A. (4) A is not correct but R is correct.


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

22 10. Chemical nature of the nitrogen oxide compound

obtained from a reaction of concentrated nitric acid and P4O10 (in 4 : 1 ratio) is :

(1) acidic (2) basic (3) amphoteric (4) neutral 11. Given below are the statements about diborane (a) Diborane is prepared by the oxidation of

NaBH4 with I2 (b) Each boron atom is in sp2 hybridized state

(c) Diborane has one bridged 3 centre-2-electron bond

(d) Diborane is a planar molecule The option with correct statement(s) is - (1) (c) and (d) only (2) (a) only (3) (c) only (4) (a) and (b) only 12. Which one of the following group-15 hydride is

the strongest reducing agent ? (1) AsH3 (2) BiH3 (3) PH3 (4) SbH3 13. Which one of the following compounds of

Group–14 elements is not known? (1) [GeCl6]2–

(2) [Sn(OH)6]2– (3) [SiCl6]2–

(4) [SiF6]2– 14. Match List - I with List - II :

List - I (compound)

List - II (effect/affected species)

(a) Carbon monoxide (i) Carcinogenic (b) Sulphur dioxide (ii) Metabolized by

pyrus plants (c) Polychlorinated

biphenyls (iii) Haemoglobin

(d) Oxides of Nitrogen (iv) Stiffness of flower buds


(1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) (2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) (3) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) (4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

15. The conversion of hydroxyapatite occurs due to presence of F– ions in water. The correct formula of hydroxyapatite is:

(1) [3Ca3(PO4)2 · Ca(OH)2] (2) [3Ca(OH)2 · CaF2] (3) [Ca3(PO4)2 · CaF2] (4) [3Ca3(PO4)2 · CaF2] 16. The incorrect statement is: (1) Cl2 is more reactive than ClF. (2) F2 is more reactive than ClF. (3) On hydrolysis ClF froms HOCl and HF. (4) F2 is a stronger oxidizing agent than Cl2 in

aqueous solution 17. Chalcogen group elements are : (1) Se, Tb and Pu. (2) Se, Te and Po. (3) S, Te and Pm. (4) O, Ti and Po. 18. In polythionic acid, H2SxO6(x = 3 to 5) the

oxidation state(s) of sulphur is/are : (1) + 5 only (2) + 6 only (3) + 3 and + 5 only (4) 0 and + 5 only 19. The oxide that gives H2O2 most readily on

treatment with H2O is : (1) PbO2 (2) Na2O2 (3) SnO2 (4) BaO2×8H2O 20. Which one of the following is formed (mainly)

when red phosphorus is heated in a sealed tube at 803 K ?

(1) White phosphorus (2) Yellow phosphorus (3) b-Black phosphorus (4) a-Black phosphorus 21. The major component/ingredient of Portland

Cement is : (1) tricalcium aluminate (2) tricalcium silicate (3) dicalcium aluminate (4) dicalcium silicate


23

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

22. Given below are two statements: one is labelled


Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Aluminium is extracted from

bauxite by the electrolysis of molten mixture of

Al2O3 with cryolite.

Reason (R) : The oxidation state of Al in

cryolite is +3.



given below :

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false




(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not


23. The number of halogen/(s) forming halic (V)

acid is __________.

24. The number of S=O bonds present in

sulphurous acid, peroxodisulphuric acid and

pyrosulphuric acid, respectively are :

(1) 2, 3 and 4

(2) 1, 4 and 3

(3) 2, 4 and 3

(4) 1, 4 and 4

25. Hydrogen peroxide reacts with iodine in basic

medium to give :

(1) 4IO-

(2) IO–

(3) I–

(4) 3IO-

26. The oxide without nitrogen-nitrogen bond is :

(1) N2O (2) N2O4

(3) N2O3 (4) N2O5

ENVIRONMENTAL

CHEMISTRY

1. Given below are two statements : Statement I: The value of the parameter

"Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)" is important for survival of aquatic life.

Statement II: The optimum value of BOD is 6.5 ppm.


(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false 2. Given below are two statements: Statement I : An allotrope of oxygen is an

important intermediate in the formation of reducing smog.

Statement II : Gases such as oxides of nitrogen and sulphur present in troposphere contribute to the formation of photochemical smog.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both statement I and Statement II are false (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 3. Water does not produce CO on reacting with: (1) CO2 (2) C (3) CH4 (4) C3H8 4. Given below are two statements : Statement I : The pH of rain water is normally ~5.6. Statement II : If the pH of rain water drops below 5.6, it is

called acid rain. In the light of the above statements, choose the

correct answer from the options given below: (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

24 5. The presence of ozone in troposphere (1) Protects us from the UV radiation (2) Protects us from the X-ray radiation (3) Protects us from greenhouse effect (4) generates photochemical smog 6. The type of pollution that gets increased during

the day time and in the presence of O3 is :

(1) Reducing smog (2) Oxidising smog (3) Global warming (4) Acid rain 7. The green house gas/es is (are) : (A) Carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen (C) Water vapour (D) Methane Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below : (1) (A) and (C) only (2) (A) only (3) (A), (C) and (D) only (4) (A) and (B) only 8. Reducing smog is a mixture of: (1) Smoke, fog and O3

(2) Smoke, fog and SO2

(3) Smoke, fog and CH2=CH–CHO

(4) Smoke, fog and N2O3

9. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) incorrect reason for eutrophication ?

(A) excess usage of fertilisers (B) excess usage of detergents (C) dense plant population in water bodies (D) lack of nutrients in water bodies that

prevent plant growth Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below : (1) (A) only (2) (C) only (3) (B) and (D) only (4) (D) only

10. The satements that are TRUE : (A) Methane leads to both global warming and

photochemical smog (B) Methane is generated from paddy fields (C) Methane is a stronger global warming gas

than CO2

(D) Methane is a part of reducing smog. Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below : (1) (A), (B), (C) only (2) (A) and (B) only (3) (B), (C), (D) only (4) (A), (B), (D) only 11. Given below are two statements : Statement I : Non-biodegradable wastes are

generated by the thermal power plants. Statement II : Bio-degradable detergents leads

to eutrophication. In the light of the above statements, choose the

most appropriate answer from the option given below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are false (2) Statement I is true but statement II is false (3) Statement I is false but statement II is true (4) Both statement I and statement II are true. 12. Green chemistry in day–to–day life is in the use

of: (1) Chlorine for bleaching of paper (2) Large amount of water alone for washing clothes (3) Tetrachloroethene for laundry (4) Liquified CO2 for dry cleaning of clothes 13. Which one of the following gases is reported to

retard photosynthesis ? (1) CO (2) CFCs (3) CO2 (4) NO2

14. The water having more dissolved O2 is : (1) boiling water (2) water at 80°C (3) polluted water (4) water at 4°C


25

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

15. Given below are two statements : Statement I : Chlorofluoro carbons breakdown

by radiation in the visible energy region and release chlorine gas in the atmosphere which then reacts with stratospheric ozone.

Statement II : Atmospheric ozone reacts with nitric oxide to give nitrogen and oxygen gases, which add to the atmosphere.

For the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

(2) Both statement I and II are false (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is

false (4) Both statement I and II are correct 16. Which one of the following statements is NOT

correct ? (1) Eutrophication indicates that water body is

polluted ? (2)The dissolved oxygen concentration below

6 ppm inhibits fish growth (3) Eutrophication leads to increase in the

oxygen level in water (4) Eutrophication leads to anaerobic conditions 17. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as

Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Photochemical smog causes cracking of rubber.

Reason (R) : Presence of ozone, nitric oxide, acrolein, formaldehyde and peroxyacetyl nitrate in photochemical smog makes it oxidizing.


(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true explanation of (A)


(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true explanation of (A)

18. The gas 'A' is having very low reactivity reaches to stratosphere. It is non–toxic and non–flammable but dissociated by UV—radiations in stratosphere. The intermediates formed initially from the gas 'A' are :

(1) · ·

+ 2Cl O C F Cl (2) · ·

+ 3Cl O CH

(3) · ·

+3 2C H CF Cl (4) · ·

+ 2C l CF Cl

19. In stratosphere most of the ozone formation is assisted by :

(1) cosmic rays (2) g–rays. (3) ultraviolet radiation (4) visible radiations 20. Which one of the following is used to remove

most of plutonium from spent nuclear fuel? (1) ClF3 (2) O2F2 (3) I2O5 (4) BrO3

21. BOD values (in ppm) for clean water (A) and polluted water (B) are expected respectively :

(1) A > 50, B < 27 (2) A > 25, B < 17 (3) A < 5, B > 17 (4) A > 15, B > 47 22. Water sample is called cleanest on the basis of

which one of the BOD values given below (1) 11 ppm (2) 15 ppm (3) 3 ppm (4) 21 ppm

F-BLOCK

1. Which one of the following lanthanoids does not form MO2? [M is lanthanoid metal]

(1) Pr (2) Dy (3) Nd (4) Yb 2. Given below are two statements: Statement I : CeO2 can be used for oxidation of

aldehydes and ketones. Statement II : Aqueous solution of EuSO4 is a

strong reducing agent. In the light of the above statements, choose the

correct answer from the options given below: (1) Statement I is false but statement II is true (2) Statment I is true but statement II is false (3) Both statement I and statement II are true (4) Both statement I and statement II are false


E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

26 3. Given below are two statement : one is labelled

as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :

Assertion A : Size of Bk3+ ion is less than Np3+ ion. Reason R : The above is a consequence of the

lanthanoid contraction. In the light of the above statements, choose the

correct answer from the options given below : (1) A is false but R is true (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the

correct explanation of A (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct

explanation of A (4) A is true but R is false

4. The number of 4f electrons in the ground state electronic configuration of Gd2+ is ________.

[Atomic number of Gd = 64]

5. The number of f electrons in the ground state electronic configuration of Np (Z = 93) is ________. (Nearest integer)

6. Which one of the following lanthanides exhibits +2 oxidation state with diamagnetic nature?

(Given Z for Nd=60, Yb=70, La=57, Ce =58) (1) Nd (2) Yb (3) La (4) Ce 7. The Eu2+ ion is a strong reducing agent in spite

of its ground state electronic configuration (outermost) : [Atomic number of Eu = 63]

(1) 4f 76s2 (2) 4f 6 (3) 4f 7 (4) 4f 66s2

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 2 1 1 1 2 1 2 3 2 4 1 2 3 2 4Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26Ans. 2 12 3 3 2 2 2 3 0 1 2

ANSWER KEYPERIODIC TABLE

Q.No. 1 2 3Ans. 3 1 49

GENERAL CHEMISTRY

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 2 2 2 4 1 1 3 1 1 3 3 1 4 4 1Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30Ans. 1 4 4 3 2 4 15 2 19 3 4 3 10 3 4Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45Ans. 3 4 108 0 4 10 2 3 1 1 1 4 2 3 1Q.No. 46 47 48 49Ans. 4 0 1 173

CHEMICAL BONDING

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 2 3 1 3 0 3 2 4 1 1 6 2 4 3 2Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30Ans. 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 1 0 2 4 3 2 4 6Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39Ans. 4 2 2 2 2 1 4 4 2

COORDINATION CHEMISTRY

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 1 2 2 4 2 3 3 2 3 2 1 2 4 1 3Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28Ans. 2 1 1 4 1 1 2 4 2 2 1 6 2

METALLURGY


27

E

node

06\B

0BA

-BB\

Kota

\JEE

MA

IN\T

opic

wis

e JE

E M

AIN

-202

1\Ch

emis

try D

ept.

File

s\IO

C

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 2 1 2 1 2 2 3 1 4 4 3 2 2 4 1Q.No. 16 17 18Ans. 1 2 2

HYDROGEN & IT'S COMPOUND

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 2 1 3 3 4 3 1 1 1 2 4 4 3 2 4

SALT ANALYSIS

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 4 4 1 2 3 2 4 1 2 1 4 3 4 3 1

s-BLOCK

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 1 4 6 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 10 1 4 2 4Q.No. 16 17 18 19Ans. 2 3 4 4

d-BLOCK

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 3 1 3 4 4 1206 3 3 4 1 2 2 3 1 1Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26Ans. 1 2 4 2 4 2 4 3 4 3 4

p-BLOCK

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15Ans. 1 1 1 4 4 2 3 2 4 1 4 4 4 4 2Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22Ans. 3 4 4 3 2 3 3

ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY

Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7Ans. 4 3 4 7 4 2 3

f-BLOCK

allen - mole concept

Documents

Transcript of allen - mole concept