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CONTENT
BASIS ENGLISH……………………………………………………………………………....2 1. ARTICLES………………………………………………………………………………………………………..3 2. VERB…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….....8 3. PREPOSTION………………………………………………………………………………………………….13 4. READING COMPREHENSION…………………………………………………………………………...18 5. SYNONYMS……………………………………………………………………………………………………..25 6. ANTONYMS…………………………………………………………………………………………………….34 7. SENTENCE……………………………………………………………………………………………………...49 8. SPELLING……………………………………………………………………………………………………….53 9. DETERMINERS……………………………………………………………………………………………….57
BASIS REASONING…………………………………………………………………………61 1. ANALOGIES…………………………………………………………………………………………………….62 2. RELATIONSHIP CONCEPT……………………………………………………………………………….70 3. VENN DIAGRAM……………………………………………………………………………………………...76 4. DIRECTION SENSE…………………………………………………………………………………………..82 5. CODING DECODING…………………………………………………………………………………………88 6. NUMBER SERIES……………………………………………………………………………………………...97 7. FIGURE SERIES COMPLETION………………………………………………………………………….104 8. FIGURE ODD ONE OUT…………………………………………………………………………………….110
BASIS MATHEMATICS……………………………………………………………………114 1. PERCENTAGE………………………………………………………………………………………………….115 2. AVERAGE………………………………………………………………………………………………………..125 3. TIME, SPEED AND DISTANCE…………………………………………………………………………..135 4. RATIO AND PROPORTIONS……………………………………………………………………………...147 5. MENSURATION……………………………………………………………………………………………….157 6. PROBABILTY…………………………………………………………………………………………………..171 7. PROBLEM OF AGES………………………………………………………………………………………….180 8. LCM & HCF……………………………………………………………………………………………………...185
GENERAL AWARENESS AND SCIENCE…………………………………………….190 1. HISTORY OF J&K………………………………………………………………………………………………………….191 2. GEOGRAPHY OF J&K…………………………………………………………………………………………………....201 3. CULTURE OF J&K………………………………………………………………………………………………………...205 4. CAPITALS AND STATES…………………………………………………………………………………………….…210 5. INDIA CULTURE……………………………………………………………………………………………………….…217 6. INDIA HISTORY…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..222 7. INDIA GEOGRAPHY…………………………………………………………………………………………………….230 8. HEALTH, HYGIENE AND SANITATION………………………………………………………………………....239 9. SPORTS……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....245 10. GENERAL SCIENCE……………………………………………………………………………………………………..254
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11. GENERAL CURRENT EVENTS OF INDIA…………………………………………………………………….....257
MOCK TEST…………………………………………………………………………………..258 MOCK TEST…………………………………………………………………………………..277 MOCK TEST…………………………………………………………………………………..292 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS…………………………………………………….307
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“ENGLISH”
CHAPTER
1 ARTICLES
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What Are Articles?
Articles are words that define a noun as specific or unspecific. Consider the following
examples:
Example: -After the long day, the cup of tea tasted particularly good.
By using the article the, we’ve shown that it was one specific day that was long and one specific cup of tea that tasted good.
Example: -After a long day, a cup of tea tastes particularly good.
By using the article a, we’ve created a general statement, implying that any cup of tea would taste good after any long day.
The words ‘a, an and the’ are called articles. Articles are used before noun.
Use of ‘A’ or ‘An’
The articles A are used before a word beginning with a consonant sound.
e.g., a) Raj is a university student.
b) Billu is a one-eyed old person in this village.
A/An is used before a singular countable noun which is used as the representative of a
class of thing or persons.
e.g. , a) A tiger is a fierce beast.
b) A pupil should obey his teacher
The article An is used before a word beginning with a vowel sound.
e.g., a) my neighbour is a Daniel.
b) Ritu is a Lata Mangeshkar because she sings well.
Use of ‘The’
‘The’ is definite article.
The definite article ‘The’ is such ways.
When we talk about a particular person or thing or one already mentioned.
e.g., a) Get me the story book which you lent yesterday
b) The mobile you want is out of stock today.
Before name of historical buildings, places and events.
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e.g., The Taj Mahal, The Red Fort, The Pyramids, The Kaba, The Kururshetra, The
French Revolution.
Before names of religious and mythological books.
e.g., The Vedas, The Ramayana, The Bible, The Quran.
Before names of newspapers and magazines.
e.g., The times of India, The Stateman
Before names of groups of islands
e.g., The Andamans, The Hebries, The West Indies
Zero Articles
Here, Zero articles means no articles are required.
Before man, life, death, art, science, when these words are used in the widest sense.
e.g.., a) Man is normal.
b) Science has developed much in the past fifty years.
Before the names of persons, villages, cities, districts, states and countries
e.g., a) Rakesh is a Postmaster.
b) Kashmir is heaven of India
Before names of subjects.
e.g., a) I like to solve Mathematics
b) Chemistry is her favourite subject.
Before names of Sports
e.g., a) Siddartha likes to play badminton
b) Many youth likes to play cricket.
EXERCISE
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Direction: Find out the error in each of the following sentences, if there is no error,
answer is (e). Avoid punctuation mistakes (if any).
1. (a) It is only after/ (b) the movie is over/ (c) that people realize/(d) how good or
bad it was/ (e) No error.
2. (a) Of the two/ (b) cars, this/ (c) is definitely/ (d) better./ (e) No error.
3. (a) Rajeev is unfortunate enough/ (b) to lose/ (c) few friends he made/ (d) during
his stay at Delhi./(e) No error.
4. (a) There were a number/ (b) of pretty girls in the party/ (c) but it was Neelam/ (d)
who remained a centre of attraction./ (e) No error.
5. (a) I have been / (b) informed that/ (c) Dr Sharma visits Mumbai/ (d) the following
week. / (e) No error.
6. (a) He is / (b) the best singer/ (c) of the time but unfortunately/ (d) least
recognized / (e) No error.
7. (a) Raju said that he felt ecstatic/ (b) because a friend of his/ (c) had given him/ (d)
a very good news./(e) No error.
8. (a) I don’t like/ (b) that kind of a man/ (c) who does nothing but/ (d) find out faults
in others. / (e) No error.
9. (a) Little knowledge/ (b) of art that she possessed/(c) proved to be a boon for her/
(d) when she was utterly helpless. / (e) No error.
10. (a) Don’t talk to her/ (b) she always/(c) remains in temper/ (d) these days./ (e) No
error.
11. (a) She boasts of/ (b) having good knowledge/ (c) of Physics but everybody/ (d)
knows how far she is good at it./ (e) No error.
12. (a) It was/ (b) by a mistake/ (c) that she caught/ (d) his hand./ (e) No error.
13. (a) The order of/ (b) the commander/(c) may put the lives of/(d) many soldiers in a
danger./No error.
14. (a) She Inspired me/ (b) to take the heart/ (c) in all adverse situations/ (d) and
deserve to be called a real hero./ (e) No error.
15. (a) The most happy/ (b) marriage would be/ (c) a union of a deaf/ (e) man to a
blind woman. / (e) No error
16. (a) Sam suggested to/ (b) his siblings that they should/(c) go to the school
regularly/ (d) and do their home work sincerely/(e) No error.
17. (a) Her father/ (b) forbade her to go/ (c) to circus / (d) late at night./ (e) No error.
18. (a) There was little milk/(b) in the bottle and she gave it/(c) to her son when he/(d)
started weeping./ (e) No error.
19. (a) In a hour’s time/ (b) when I had finished the work/ (c) I got up and/ (d) slipped
out unnoticed./ (e) No error.
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20. (a)People in Pakistan/ (b) had become so accustomed to bomb blasts/ (c) that few
of them paid any attention to the explosions/ (d) which they heard this morning/
(e) No error.
SOULTIONS
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1. (b); ‘A movie’ should be used in
place of ‘the movie because we are
not talking about any particular
movie. Hence article ‘a’ will be
used in place of the.
2. (d); ‘The better’ should be used in
place of ‘better’. Because when a
choice is to be made, we use ‘the’
before a comparative degree
3. (c); ‘The’ should be used before
few. Since, ‘the few’ means ‘some’
and ‘few friends’ means ‘almost no
friends’
4. (d); ‘a centre of attraction’ should
be replaced with ‘the centre of
attraction’. Since, ‘the’ follows the
former noun in sentence with the
structure ‘none + of + noun’. For
e.g. ‘The art of living.’
5. (e); No error
6. (d); ‘The’ should be used before
‘least’ since superlatives degrees
are always preceded by the’.
7. (d); ‘a’ should not be used, since
‘news’ is an uncountable noun.
8. (b); ‘a’ should not be used because
an ‘Article’ is not used with nouns
followed by ‘type of’, ‘kind of’,
‘sort of’ etc.
9. (a); ‘The’ should be used before
‘little’. ‘The little’ means ‘all that is’
whereas, ‘little means almost none.
10. (c); ‘in a temper’ should be used in
place of ‘in temper’. Since it is the
correct phrasal use.
11. (b); ‘a good knowledge’ is correct
phrase.
12. (b); ‘By mistake’ should be used
instead of ‘by a mistake’ as it is
correct idiomatic usage.
13. (d); ‘in danger’ is correct phrase.
14. (b); ‘the’ should not be used. Since
‘take heart’, ‘take action’, ‘take
care’, etc. are correct phrases.
15. (c); ‘the union’ should be used in
place of ‘a union’ for explanation
refer to question - 4.
16. (c); ‘the’ should not be used before
‘school’ since, here, school is
mentioned in relation to its
primary motive.
17. (c); ‘Go to the circus’ is correct
idiomatic usage.
18. (a), ‘a’ should be used before
‘little’. ‘A little’ means ‘some
though not much’ whereas ‘little’
means ‘almost none’
19. (a); ‘an’ should be used in place of
‘a’ since ‘hour’ starts with a vowel
sound.
20. (e); No error.
CHAPTER VERBS
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Verb
Verb is one of the main parts of a sentence or question in English. The verb in a sentence
expresses action or being.
There is a main verb and sometimes one or more helping verbs
e.g., He can swim. ‘Swim’ is the main verb can is the helping verb.
A verb must agree with its subject in number (both are singular or both are plural). Verbs
also take different forms to express tense.
Types of Verb
As we’ve covered, a verb can be categorized as a physical verb (e.g. to run), a mental verb
(e.g. to think) or state-of-being verb (e.g. to be).
Action verb An action verb expresses an activity that a person or thing can do. e.g.
i. Pinki eats cutlets
ii. The tiger chased the rabbit in the shallow rapids
Compare those verbs with these
iii. Parveen likes cake.
iv. The cat is hungry
Stative Verb A stative verb expresses a state rather than an action. A stative verb typically relates to a
state of being, a thought or an emotion.
e.g.
i. I am at home.
ii. She believes in fairies
iii. He feels elated
Transitive Verb A Transitive verb is one that acts on something (i.e., it has a direct object)
e.g.
i. I saw a dog
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(Here, the direct object is the ‘dog’)
ii. Laxman ate a pie.
(Here, the direct object is the ‘pie’)
iii. The postman will give Sanoj a letter
(Here, the direct object is the ‘letter’)
Intransitive verb An intransitive verb is one that does not act on something (i.e., there is no direct object)
i. The rain fell
ii. My throat hurts
iii. The cat sneezed
Auxiliary Verb An auxiliary verb (or helping verb) accompanies a main verb to help to express tense, voice
or mood. The most common auxiliary verbs are be, do and have (In their various forms).
Here are some examples of auxiliary verb
i. Rahul has eaten all the fruits.
(Here, the auxiliary verbs ‘has been’ help to express tense)
ii. The table has been prepared.
(Here, the auxiliary verbs ’has been’ help to express voice (in this case, the
passive voice)
iii. If he were to arrive in the next 10 minutes, we would be on schedule.
(Here the auxiliary verb ‘were and would’ help to express mood (in this case, the
subjective mood)
EXERCISE
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Direction: Find out the error in each of the following sentences, if there is no error,
answer is (e). Avoid punctuation mistakes (if any).
1. (a) He is very / (b) drunk, so he / (c) cannot tell / (d) you his name. / (e) No error.
2. (a) A few selfish leaders are / (b) bent to harm the / (c) very foundation / (d) of the
democracy. / (e) No error.
3. (a) You should avoid / (b) to go to office as you / (c) have severe / (d) eye infection.
/ (e) No error.
4. (a) Everyone considered him as / (b) a brave man / (c) but he fled from / (d) the
battlefield. / (e) No error.
5. (a) My father does not / (b) mind to be disturbed / (c) while he is reading/ (d) the
newspaper. / (e) No error.
6. (a) Perhaps you do not know / (b) I am having a car and a jeep / (c) besides a big
house/ (d) in a good locality./ (e) No error.
7. (a) I bade him / (b) to submit all the / (c) important documents / (d) before he left
the job. / (e) No error.
8. (a) Mrs. Dorai would rather / (b) spend a quiet evening / (c) than attending/ (d) a
party / (e) No error.
9. (a) The life-guard would not / (b) let the children / (c) to swim at the / (d) deep end
of the pool. / (e) No error.
10. (a) Walking along the / (b) bank of the river / (c) the road / (d) began to rise. / (e)
No error.
11. (a) His assistants have and / (b) are still doing / (c) excellent work/ (d) for the
organisation. / (e) No error.
12. (a) After the teacher had told the boys / (b) how to pronounce the word / (c) all of
them in one voice / (d) repeated the word again. / (e) No error
13. (a) I declined the invitation / (b) not because I did not / (c) want to go, but because
/ (d) I have no time / (e) No error.
14. (a) Even after sixty years of independence / (b) lakhs of people / (c) do not have /
(d) bed to sleep / (e) No error.
15. (a) It being a stormy night, / (b) you must thought of postponing / (c) all your
programmes / (d) till tomorrow morning. / (e) No error.
16. (a) We would also like to help you / (b) if you intend to execute / (c) such lofty plans
for the welfare / (d) of the society./ (e) No error.
17. (a) The unreasonable behavior / (b)of his daughter / (c) was thoroughly / (d upset
Mr. Gupta./ (e) No error
18. (a) Rajan abided by all / (b) the rules which were / (c) explained to him / (d) before
the programme. / (e) No error.
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19. (a) They did not came / (b) out victorious / (c) yet they were not disappointed/ (d)
rather satisfied because they had played well. /(e) No error.
20. (a) He complained to the police/ (b) that his briefcase had been stolen / (c) and that
was lift / (d) without any money. / (e) No error
SOLUTIONS
1. (d); No correction required.
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2. (b); Change ‘bent to harm’ on ‘bent
to harming’. ‘Bent on’ means
determined to do.
3. (b); Change ‘to go’ to ‘going’.
Gerund comes after ‘avoid’.
4. (a); Remove ‘as’. ‘Considered’ is
not followed by ‘as’.
5. (b); ‘Gerund’ will come after
‘mind’. Change ‘be’ into ‘being’.
6. (b); Change ‘am having’ into ‘have’.
When ‘have’ means ‘to possess’, it
does not take ‘ing’ form.
7. (b); ‘Bade’ (V2 of bid) takes ‘plain
infinitive’ (V1) after it and not
‘infinitive’ (to + V1). Change ‘to
submit’ into ‘submit’.
8. (c); Use ‘attend’ after ‘than’.
Because ‘would rather’ is followed
by 'V1' and after ‘than’ the form
'V1'will come.
9. (c); Use V1 after ‘let’. Remove ‘to’.
10. (a); Add ‘while I was’ before
‘walking alone’.
11. (a); Add ‘done’ after 'have'
Different forms of verbs should be
used in a sentence if required.
12. (a); Remove ‘again’. ‘Repeat’
should not be followed by ‘again’
because this will make the
sentence superfluous.
13. (d); Change ‘have’ to ‘had’. The
sentence is in past.
14. (c); Add ‘in’ after ‘sleep’. If
‘infinitive’ is used after ‘noun’ then
appropriate preposition should
follow ‘infinitive’.
15. (b); Change ‘thought’ to ‘think’ as
‘must’ is a modal which is always
followed by V1.
16. (d); No correction required.
17. (c); Remove ‘was’
18. (d); No correction required.
19. (a); Replace ‘came’ with, ‘come’ as
did not is always followed by V1.
20. (c); Replace ‘lifted’ with ‘left’ as
‘lift’ means raise to a higher
position or level and ‘left’ means
go away from.
CHAPTER PRERPOSITION
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A Preposition is the word used before a noun or pronoun to show its relation with other
words of the sentence.
Use of Some important prepositions
On and Upon
On is used for the things at rest while upon donates motion. e.g.,
a) The knife is on the table
b) The dog jumped upon the bed.
In and Into
In donates position at rest while into donates motion.
a) She is in the industry.
b) She came into the library.
With and By
With is used for the instruments or tools and by is used for the agents or doer e.g.,
a) I am writing a letter with a pen.
b) The robber was killed by him with an axe.
Since and For
Since is used for a point of time and for is used for a period of time.
a) She has been sleeping since 5o’clock.
b) He has been coming to us for three days.
Since and From
Since is used for time while from is used for both timer and lace. e.g.,
a) I have not met him yet since last week.
b) They played from 6 am to 8 am.
c) We travelled from Meerut to Jaipur.
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Till and To
Till is used to indicate time while to is used to indicate place e.g.,
a) I slept till 8 am
b) We went t to the park.
At and In
At is used for small towns and villages while in is used for big cities and countries.
a) She lives at Kasauli in Mathura.
b) I live in Delhi.
At is used for a point in time and in is used for a wider period of time. e.g.,
a) They will go at 6o’clock
b) They will go in the evening
c) We left at 9 o’clock in the morning
In and Within
In donates at the close of some future time and within denotes sometime short of the close.
e.g.,
a) They will return in two days.
b) She will return within a week.
Between and Among
Between is used for two persons or things while among is used for more than two persons
or things e.g.,
a) Those two girls quarreled between themselves
b) I like to spend my evening among my friends.
Beside and Besides
Beside means by the side of, while besides means in addition to. e.,g
a) She came and sat beside me.
b) Besides being fined, she was sentenced to term of imprisonment.
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EXERCISE
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Direction: Find out the error in each of the following sentences, if there is no error,
answer is (e). Avoid punctuation mistakes (if. any).
1. (a) She along with / b) her friends took/ (c) leave of/ (d) a week. / (e) No error.
2. (a) One should always/ (b) listen the advice of/ (c) one’s elders/ (d) and, well wishers
/ (e) No error.
3. (a) She will/ (b) not listen what / (c) you say/ (d) to her. / (e) No error.
4. (a) Nobody denies/ (b) that / (c) my ideas are/ (d) different than yours / (e)No error.
5. (a) It was she/ (b) who was responsible of /(c) making all the arrangement for/ (d) the
successful completion of his business tip / (e) No error.
6. (a) He was m the bathroom/ (b) when the burglars/ (c) entered into/ (d) his house /
(e) No error.
7. (a) Their teacher/ (b) emphasized on/ (c) the use of / (d) correct grammar / (e) No
error.
8. (a) On the time/ (b) of the opening ceremony/ (c) of the theatre, / (d) a large crowd
had assembled. / (e) No error.
9. (a) While Rajesh was returning/ (b) from school/ (c) a stalker attacked on him/ (d)
with a knife. / (e) No error.
10. (a) The decline of/ (b) her moral values has caused/(c) a lot of / (d) pain to her
parents. /(e) No error.
11. (a) Without thinking/ (b) for a moment/ (c) she entrusted him in/ (d) all the
responsibilities./(e) No error.
12. (a) Sandy and her sister/ (b) fell in/ (c) the well and nobody/ (c) tried to save them. /
(e) No error.
13. (a) I/ (b) prefer coffee/ (c) than/ (d) tea/ (e) No error.
14. (a) Sumit is busy/ (b) in his/ (c) preparations for/ (d) his exams. / (e) No error.
15. (a) While crossing the road/ (b) a child was /(c) run out by/ (d) a speeding car. /(e) No
error.
16. (a) We were taught that/ (b) amphibians can live/ (c) in water/ (d) as well as land. /
(e) No error.
17. (a) My father is/ (b) fond off/(c) cooking different/(c) types of cakes. / (e) No error.
18. (a) Your teacher/ (b) cannot/ (c) control on/ (d) the students. / (e) No error.
19. (a) The Jury has been/ (b) waiting for/(c) the prisoner/ (d) for 2 P.M. / (e) No error.
20. (a) Mr. Uniyal has/ (b) great affection towards/ (c) his family / (d) and friends. / (e)
No error.
SOLUTIONS
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1. (c); “Leave for a week” should be used.
2. (b); ‘To’ should be added after ‘listen’.
Since ‘listen’ is always followed by ‘to’.
3. (b); ‘To’ should be added after ‘Listen’.
4. (d); ‘different from’ should be used in
place of ‘different then’. Since different
is always followed by form.
5. (b); ‘for’ should be used in place of ‘of’
since responsible is always followed
by ‘of’
6. (c); Use of 'into' is wrong since
entered is not followed by ‘into’
7. (b); ‘On’ should be removed since
emphasized is not followed by ‘on’.
8. (a), ‘At’ should be used in place of 'on'.
Since we are talking about a particular
Point of time (i.e. the time of the
opening ceremony).
9. (c); ‘on’ should not be used. Since
‘attack’ is not followed by ‘on’.
10. (a); ‘in’ should be used in place of ‘of’
since ‘decline’ is followed by ‘in’
11. (c); ‘entrusted him with’ should be
used in place of ‘entrusted him in’.
Since, entrusted is followed by ‘with’.
12. (b); ‘fell into’ should be used in place
of 'fell in' since into denotes the
movement inside something.
13. (c); ‘to’ should be used in place of
‘than’ since ‘to’ is used after ‘prefer’.
14. (b); ‘With’ should be used in place of
'in' Since ‘busy’ is followed by ‘with’
15. (c); ‘Run over’ should be used in place
of ‘Run-on’. ‘Run over’ means ‘to come
under the wheels of’.
16. (d); ‘On’ should be used before land.
Since ‘on land’ is correct phrasal
usage.
17. (b); ‘found of’ should be used in place
of ‘fond off’ since ‘found’ is followed
by ‘on’.
18. (c); ‘Control’ should not be followed
by ‘on’ since, when words like control,
discuss. Etc. are used as verb, then
they are not followed by ‘on’.
19. (d); ‘Since’ should be used, in place of
‘for’ since, we use ‘since’ to denote a
point of time.
20. (b); ‘for’ should be used in place of
‘towards’ since, ‘affection’ is followed
by ‘for’.
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Directions (Q 1-20) you have brief passages with 5/10 questions following each passage.
Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to the each question out of the four
alternatives.
PASSAGE 1
As my train was not due to lead for another hour, I had plenty of time to spare. After buying
some magazines to read on the journey. I made my way to the luggage office to collect the
heavy suitcase; I had left there three day before. There were only a few people waiting and
I took out my wallet to find the receipt for my case. the receipt did not seem to be where I
had left it. I emptied the contents of the wallet and the railway tickets, money, scraps of
paper and photographs tumbled out of it; but no matter how hard I searched, the receipt
was nowhere to be found.
I explained the situation sorrowfully to the assistant. The man looked to be suspiciously as
if to say he heard this type of story many timed and asked me to describe the case. I told
him that it was an old, brown looking object no different from the many suitcases I could
see on the shelves. The assistant then gave me form and told me to make a list of the
contents of the case. If they were correct, he said, I could take a case away. I tried to
remember all the articles I had hurriedly packed and wrote them down.
After I had done this, I went to look among the shelves. There were hundreds of cases there
and for one dreadful moment, it occurred to me that if someone had picked the receipt up,
he could easily have claimed the case already. Fortunately this had not happened, for after
the time, I found the case lying on its side high up in the corner. After examining the articles
inside, the assistant gave me the case.
I took out my wallet to pay him. I pulled out a ten shilling note and out slipped my ‘lost’
receipt with it! I could not help blushing. The assistant nodded his head knowingly, as if to
say that he had often seen this happen too!!
1. The writer had plenty of time to spare because
a) he had arrived three days before
b) he had arrived an hour earlier
c) he had to collect his luggage
d) he needed to by magazines
CHAPTER
4
READING COMPREHENSION
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2. The writer needed the receipt
a) to claim the suit case
b) to pay at the luggage office
c) to prove that he had paid at the luggage office
d) to prove that he had brought the suitcase
3. The writer felt foolish because
a) he could not find his receipt
b) he hadn’t really lost this receipt at all
c) he had to fill in a form
d) the assistant eyed him suspiciously
4. There weren’t …………………. people waiting at the luggage office.
a) very much
b) a great deal of
c) lots of
d) very many
5. ‘wrote them down’ means
a) copied them
b) signed them
c) made a note of them
d) pointed at them
6. The writer found the receipt
a) on the high shelf near the case
b) among the contents of his suitcase
c) nestled with the money in his wallet
d) trapped between the photographs in his wallet
7. The writer took out his wallet the first time to
a) buy some magazines
b) ‘look for the receipt
c) fill out the form given by the assistant
d) pay the assistant
8. The assistant asked the writer to make a list of the contents to
a) ascertain his ownership of the case
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b) test his memory
c) charge him extra money
d) embarrass the writer
9. ‘I explained the situation sorrowfully to the assistant’ means
a) the writer found the situation tragic
b) he explained the situation to the assistant who was very sorrowful
c) with great distress the writer explained his unfortunate situation to the
assistant
d) the assistant found the situation tragic
10. In this passage ‘situation’ means
a) place
b) event
c) condition
d) position
PASSAGE 2
We know that Eskimos have 50 different words for ‘snow’ Or it is 500? Anyway, an awful
lot. It is one of those interesting little facts that say something about the amazing ingenuity
of humans. Whereas we snow, the Eskimos perceive an endlessly varying realm of white
textures and possibilities. Except that is not true. Talk to the average number of words for
snow as we do. I discovered this when I took a sledge dog team through the Russian Arctic
and asked the locals. And it gets worse the Eskimo-Inuit do not live in igloos. They do not
even rub heir myths surround the world’s far flung places.
Shelters made out of snow are indeed constructed and fashioned from snowy bricks, just as
we like to imagine. Except the Eskimos- Inuit rarely lived in them for long periods and
disappointingly, the elders that I met had never heard of them. In truth, these are coastal
peoples who traditionally foraged for driftwood, whalebones, stones and turf to construct
their camps, saving snow-houses for hunting excursions or migrations.
Chameleons also attract numerous myths. While many of them change colour, this often
less to do with camouflage and more to do with their mood and temperature. A chameleon
might, if too cold, turn a darker shade to absorb more heat. Or it might turn a lighter colour
to reflect the sun and so cool down. Moreover, chameleons often change colour as a signally
device some such as panther chameleon, transform into vivid orange to scare off predators,
while other flash bright colours to attract a mate. The brighter the colour a mate is able to
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display, the more dominant. Thus the act o standing out can be more important than that of
blending in.
11. The author was surprised by the fact that
a) Eskimos have 500 word for ‘snow’
b) the ingenuity of humans
c) the Eskimo-Inuit do not live in igloos
d) the Eskimo-Inuit rub their noses together
12. The author discovered that
a) igloos are not fashioned from snowy bricks
b) only the Eskimos-Inuit elders live in igloos
c) snow houses are reserved for hunting migrants
d) the coastal people foraged for firewood
13. The changing colour of a chameleon is more to do with
a) camouflage
b) mood and temperature
c) transformation
d) protection
14. A chameleon warms itself by
a) Residing in bright areas
b) turning a darker colour to absorb more heat
c) matching its colour with the environment
d) adjusting its body temperature with that of the environment
15. A male chameleon is believed to be more dominant if
a) he has colours of the panther
b) he exhibits vivid orange color
c) if he can blend in with the others
d) if he displays flashing bright colours
PASASGE 3
In the 16th century, an age of great marine and terrestrial exploration, Ferdinand Magellan led the first expedition to sail around the world. As a young Portuguese noble, he served the king of Portugal, but he became involved in the quagmire of political intrigue at court
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and lost the king’s favor. After he was dismissed from service by the king of Portugal, he offered to serve the future Emperor Charles V of Spain.
A papal decree of 1493 had assigned all land in the New World west of 50 degrees W longitude to Spain and all the land east of that line to Portugal. Magellan offered to prove that the East Indies fell under Spanish authority. On September 20, 1519, Magellan set sail from Spain with five ships. More than a year later, one of these ships was exploring the topography of South America in search of a water route across the continent. This ship sank, but the remaining four ships searched along the southern peninsula of South America. Finally they found the passage they sought near 50 degrees S latitude. Magellan named this passage the Strait of All Saints, but today it is known as the Strait of Magellan.
One ship deserted while in this passage and returned to Spain, so fewer sailors were privileged to gaze at that first panorama of the Pacific Ocean. Those who remained crossed the meridian now known as the International Date Line in the early spring of 1521 after 98 days on the Pacific Ocean. During those long days at sea, many of Magellan’s men died of starvation and disease.
Later, Magellan became involved in an insular conflict in the Philippines and was killed in a tribal battle. Only one ship and 17 sailors under the command of the Basque navigator Elcano survived to complete the westward journey to Spain and thus prove once and for all that the world is round, with no precipice at the edge.
16. The 16th century was an age of great ______ exploration. a) cosmic b) land c) mental d) common man e) None of the above
17. Magellan lost the favor of the king of Portugal when he became involved in a
political ________. a) entanglement b) discussion c) negotiation d) problem e) None of the above
18. The Pope divided New World lands between Spain and Portugal according to their
location on one side or the other of an imaginary geographical line 50 degrees west of Greenwich that extends in a _________ direction. a) north and south b) crosswise
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c) easterly d) south east e) north and west
19. One of Magellan’s ships explored the _________ of South America for a passage across
the continent. a) coastline b) mountain range c) physical features d) islands e) None of the above
20. Four of the ships sought a passage along a southern ______.
a) coast b) inland c) body of land with water on three sides d) border e) Answer not available
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ANSWERS
1. b
2. a
3. b
4. d
5. c
6. c
7. b
8. a
9. c
10. c
11. c
12. b
13. b
14. b
15. d
16. b
17. a
18. a
19. c
20. c
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Questions based on Synonyms are usually of two types. In the first type, four alternatives
are suggested for a given word. You have to choose the alternatives which best expresses
the meaning of the given word. In the questions of second type, a sentence is given with a
word printed in bold, italics or underlined. Below the sentence, four alternatives are
suggested for this word. You have to choose the alternative which is similar in meaning to
that word in the sentence.
Synonyms are the word which is similar to each other in meaning.
Amazing — incredible, unbelievable, improbable, fabulous, wonderful, fantastic, astonishing, astounding, extraordinary Anger — enrage, infuriate, arouse, nettle, exasperate, inflame, madden Angry — mad, furious, enraged, excited, wrathful, indignant, exasperated, aroused, inflame Answer — reply, respond, retort, acknowledge Ask– — question, inquire of, seek information from, put a question to, demand, request, expect, inquire, query, interrogate, examine, quiz Awful — dreadful, terrible, abominable, bad, poor, unpleasant Bad — evil, immoral, wicked, corrupt, sinful, depraved, rotten, contaminated, spoiled, tainted, harmful, injurious, unfavorable, defective, inferior, imperfect, substandard, faulty, improper, inappropriate, unsuitable, disagreeable, unpleasant, cross, nasty, unfriendly, irascible, horrible, atrocious, outrageous, scandalous, infamous, wrong, noxious, sinister, putrid, snide, deplorable, dismal, gross, heinous, nefarious, base, obnoxious, detestable, despicable, contemptible, foul, rank, ghastly, execrable Beautiful — pretty, lovely, handsome, attractive, gorgeous, dazzling, splendid, magnificent, comely, fair, ravishing, graceful, elegant, fine, exquisite, aesthetic, pleasing, shapely, delicate, stunning, glorious, heavenly, resplendent, radiant, glowing, blooming, sparkling Begin — start, open, launch, initiate, commence, inaugurate, originate Big — enormous, huge, immense, gigantic, vast, colossal, gargantuan, large, sizable, grand, great, tall, substantial, mammoth, astronomical, ample, broad, expansive, spacious, stout, tremendous, titanic, mountainous Brave — courageous, fearless, dauntless, intrepid, plucky, daring, heroic, valorous, audacious, bold, gallant, valiant, doughty, mettlesome Break — fracture, rupture, shatter, smash, wreck, crash, demolish, atomize Bright — shining, shiny, gleaming, brilliant, sparkling, shimmering, radiant, vivid, colorful, lustrous, luminous, incandescent, intelligent, knowing, quick-witted, smart, intellectual Calm — quiet, peaceful, still, tranquil, mild, serene, smooth, composed, collected, unruffled, level-headed, unexcited, detached, aloof Come — approach, advance, near, arrive, reach
CHAPTER
5 SYNONYMS
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Cool — chilly, cold, frosty, wintry, icy, frigid Crooked — bent, twisted, curved, hooked, zigzag Cry — shout, yell, yowl, scream, roar, bellow, weep, wail, sob, bawl Cut — gash, slash, prick, nick, sever, slice, carve, cleave, slit, chop, crop, lop, reduce Dangerous — perilous, hazardous, risky, uncertain, unsafe Dark — shadowy, unlit, murky, gloomy, dim, dusky, shaded, sunless, black, dismal, sad Decide — determine, settle, choose, resolve Definite — certain, sure, positive, determined, clear, distinct, obvious Delicious — savory, delectable, appetizing, luscious, scrumptious, palatable, delightful, enjoyable, toothsome, exquisite Describe — portray, characterize, picture, narrate, relate, recount, represent, report, record Destroy — ruin, demolish, raze, waste, kill, slay, end, extinguish Difference — disagreement, inequity, contrast, dissimilarity, incompatibility Do — execute, enact, carry out, finish, conclude, effect, accomplish, achieve, attain Dull — boring, tiring„ tiresome, uninteresting, slow, dumb, stupid, unimaginative, lifeless, dead, insensible, tedious, wearisome, listless, expressionless, plain, monotonous, humdrum, dreary Eager — keen, fervent, enthusiastic, involved, interested, alive to End — stop, finish, terminate, conclude, close, halt, cessation, discontinuance Enjoy — appreciate, delight in, be pleased, indulge in, luxuriate in, bask in, relish, devour, savor, like Explain — elaborate, clarify, define, interpret, justify, account for Fair — just, impartial, unbiased, objective, unprejudiced, honest Fall — drop, descend, plunge, topple, tumble False — fake, fraudulent, counterfeit, spurious, untrue, unfounded, erroneous, deceptive, groundless, fallacious Famous — well-known, renowned, celebrated, famed, eminent, illustrious, distinguished, noted, notorious Fast — quick, rapid, speedy, fleet, hasty, snappy, mercurial, swiftly, rapidly, quickly, snappily, speedily, lickety-split, posthaste, hastily, expeditiously, like a flash Fat — stout, corpulent, fleshy, beefy, paunchy, plump, full, rotund, tubby, pudgy, chubby, chunky, burly, bulky, elephantine Fear — fright, dread, terror, alarm, dismay, anxiety, scare, awe, horror, panic, apprehension Fly — soar, hover, flit, wing, flee, waft, glide, coast, skim, sail, cruise Funny — humorous, amusing, droll, comic, comical, laughable, silly Get — acquire, obtain, secure, procure, gain, fetch, find, score, accumulate, win, earn, rep, catch, net, bag, derive, collect, gather, glean, pick up, accept, come by, regain, salvage Go — recede, depart, fade, disappear, move, travel, proceed Good — excellent, fine, superior, wonderful, marvelous, qualified, suited, suitable, apt, proper, capable, generous, kindly, friendly, gracious, obliging, pleasant, agreeable, pleasurable, satisfactory, well-behaved, obedient, honorable, reliable, trustworthy, safe, favorable, profitable, advantageous, righteous, expedient, helpful, valid, genuine, ample,
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salubrious, estimable, beneficial, splendid, great, noble, worthy, first-rate, top-notch, grand, sterling, superb, respectable, edifying Great — noteworthy, worthy, distinguished, remarkable, grand, considerable, powerful, much, mighty Gross — improper, rude, coarse, indecent, crude, vulgar, outrageous, extreme, grievous, shameful, uncouth, obscene, low Happy — pleased, contented, satisfied, delighted, elated, joyful, cheerful, ecstatic, jubilant, gay, tickled, gratified, glad, blissful, overjoyed Hate — despise, loathe, detest, abhor, disfavor, dislike, disapprove, abominate Have — hold, possess, own, contain, acquire, gain, maintain, believe, bear, beget, occupy, absorb, fill, enjoy Help — aid, assist, support, encourage, back, wait on, attend, serve, relieve, succor, benefit, befriend, abet Hide — conceal, cover, mask, cloak, camouflage, screen, shroud, veil Hurry — rush, run, speed, race, hasten, urge, accelerate, bustle Hurt — damage, harm, injure, wound, distress, afflict, pain Idea — thought, concept, conception, notion, understanding, opinion, plan, view, belief Important — necessary, vital, critical, indispensable, valuable, essential, significant, primary, principal, considerable, famous, distinguished, notable, well-known Interesting — fascinating, engaging, sharp, keen, bright, intelligent, animated, spirited, attractive, inviting, intriguing, provocative, though-provoking, challenging, inspiring, involving, moving, titillating, tantalizing, exciting, entertaining, piquant, lively, racy, spicy, engrossing, absorbing, consuming, gripping, arresting, enthralling, spellbinding, curious, captivating, enchanting, bewitching, appealing Keep — hold, retain, withhold, preserve, maintain, sustain, support Kill — slay, execute, assassinate, murder, destroy, cancel, abolish Lazy — indolent, slothful, idle, inactive, sluggish Little — tiny, small, diminutive, shrimp, runt, miniature, puny, exiguous, dinky, cramped, limited, itsy-bitsy, microscopic, slight, petite, minute Look — gaze, see, glance, watch, survey, study, seek, search for, peek, peep, glimpse, stare, contemplate, examine, gape, ogle, scrutinize, inspect, leer, behold, observe, view, witness, perceive, spy, sight, discover, notice, recognize, peer, eye, gawk, peruse, explore Love — like, admire, esteem, fancy, care for, cherish, adore, treasure, worship, appreciate, savor Make — create, originate, invent, beget, form, construct, design, fabricate, manufacture, produce, build, develop, do, effect, execute, compose, perform, accomplish, earn, gain, obtain, acquire, get Mark — label, tag, price, ticket, impress, effect, trace, imprint, stamp, brand, sign, note, heed, notice, designate Mischievous — prankish, playful, naughty, roguish, waggish, impish, sportive Move — plod, go, creep, crawl, inch, poke, drag, toddle, shuffle, trot, dawdle, walk, traipse, mosey, jog, plug, trudge, slump, lumber, trail, lag, run, sprint, trip, bound, hotfoot, high-tail, streak, stride, tear, breeze, whisk, rush, dash, dart, bolt, fling, scamper, scurry, skedaddle, scoot, scuttle, scramble, race, chase, hasten, hurry, hump, gallop, lope, accelerate, stir,
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budge, travel, wander, roam, journey, trek, ride, spin, slip, glide, slide, slither, coast, flow, sail, saunter, hobble, amble, stagger, paddle, slouch, prance, straggle, meander, perambulate, waddle, wobble, pace, swagger, promenade, lunge Moody — temperamental, changeable, short-tempered, glum, morose, sullen, mopish, irritable, testy, peevish, fretful, spiteful, sulky, touchy Neat — clean, orderly, tidy, trim, dapper, natty, smart, elegant, well-organized, super, desirable, spruce, shipshape, well-kept, shapely New — fresh, unique, original, unusual, novel, modern, current, recent Old — feeble, frail, ancient, weak, aged, used, worn, dilapidated, ragged, faded, broken-down, former, old-fashioned, outmoded, passe, veteran, mature, venerable, primitive, traditional, archaic, conventional, customary, stale, musty, obsolete, extinct Part — portion, share, piece, allotment, section, fraction, fragment Place — space, area, spot, plot, region, location, situation, position, residence, dwelling, set, site, station, status, state Plan — plot, scheme, design, draw, map, diagram, procedure, arrangement, intention, device, contrivance, method, way, blueprint Popular — well-liked, approved, accepted, favorite, celebrated, common, current Predicament — quandary, dilemma, pickle, problem, plight, spot, scrape, jam Put — place, set, attach, establish, assign, keep, save, set aside, effect, achieve, do, build Quiet — silent, still, soundless, mute, tranquil, peaceful, calm, restful Right — correct, accurate, factual, true, good, just, honest, upright, lawful, moral, proper, suitable, apt, legal, fair Run — race, speed, hurry, hasten, sprint, dash, rush, escape, elope, flee Say/Tell — inform, notify, advise, relate, recount, narrate, explain, reveal, disclose, divulge, declare, command, order, bid, enlighten, instruct, insist, teach, train, direct, issue, remark, converse, speak, affirm, suppose, utter, negate, express, verbalize, voice, articulate, pronounce, deliver, convey, impart, assert, state, allege, mutter, mumble, whisper, sigh, exclaim, yell, sing, yelp, snarl, hiss, grunt, snort, roar, bellow, thunder, boom, scream, shriek, screech, squawk, whine, philosophize, stammer, stutter, lisp, drawl, jabber, protest, announce, swear, vow, content, assure, deny, dispute Scared — afraid, frightened, alarmed, terrified, panicked, fearful, unnerved, insecure, timid, shy, skittish, jumpy, disquieted, worried, vexed, troubled, disturbed, horrified, terrorized, shocked, petrified, haunted, timorous, shrinking, tremulous, stupefied, paralyzed, stunned, apprehensive Show — display, exhibit, present, note, point to, indicate, explain, reveal, prove, demonstrate, expose Slow — unhurried, gradual, leisurely, late, behind, tedious, slack Stop — cease, halt, stay, pause, discontinue, conclude, end, finish, quit Story — tale, myth, legend, fable, yarn, account, narrative, chronicle, epic, sage, anecdote, record, memoir Strange — odd, peculiar, unusual, unfamiliar, uncommon, queer, weird, outlandish, curious, unique, exclusive, irregular Take — hold, catch, seize, grasp, win, capture, acquire, pick, choose, select, prefer, remove, steal, lift, rob, engage, bewitch, purchase, buy, retract, recall, assume, occupy, consume
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Tell — disclose, reveal, show, expose, uncover, relate, narrate, inform, advise, explain, divulge, declare, command, order, bid, recount, repeat Think — judge, deem, assume, believe, consider, contemplate, reflect, mediate Trouble — distress, anguish, anxiety, worry, wretchedness, pain, danger, peril, disaster, grief, misfortune, difficulty, concern, pains, inconvenience, exertion, effort True — accurate, right, proper, precise, exact, valid, genuine, real, actual, trusty, steady, loyal, dependable, sincere, staunch Ugly — hideous, frightful, frightening, shocking, horrible, unpleasant, monstrous, terrifying, gross, grisly, ghastly, horrid, unsightly, plain, homely, evil, repulsive, repugnant, gruesome Unhappy — miserable, uncomfortable, wretched, heart-broken, unfortunate, poor, downhearted, sorrowful, depressed, dejected, melancholy, glum, gloomy, dismal, discouraged, sad Use — employ, utilize, exhaust, spend, expend, consume, exercise Wrong — incorrect, inaccurate, mistaken, erroneous, improper, and unsuitable
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EXERCISE
DIRECTIONS (1-30): In each of the questions below, choose the alternatives which is most
nearly the same in meaning to the given word
1. Mendicant
a) Reformer
b) Dealer
c) Beggar
d) Advisor
2. Instinctive
a) Helpful
b) inherent
c) Crucial
d) Strong
3. Clone
a) Trace
b) Copy
c) Make
d) Mould
4. Thrive
a) Flourish
b) Raise
c) Create
d) Destroy
5. Dissuade
a) Worry
b) Disturb
c) Discourage
d) Encourage
6. Anguish
a) Conflict
b) Anger
c) Agony
d) Trouble
7. Fortitude
a) prudence
b) Support
c) Courage
d) Sincerity
8. Imply
a) Conclude
b) Connote
c) Confirm
d) Comply
9. vigilant
a) intelligent
b) Ambitious
c) Smart
d) Watchful
10. Adorn
a) Trust
b) Writer
c) Suspect
d) Beautify
11. Repose
a) place
b) Keep
c) Rest
d) Replace
12. Commotion
a) Cheer
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b) imbalance
c) Disturbance
d) Movement
13. Irrevocable
a) Changed
b) Done
c) Unalterable
d) Reversible
14. Anger
a) Calmness
b) Vagueness
c) Leisure
d) Displeasure
15. Defer
a) Indifferent
b) Defy
c) Differ
d) Postpone
16. Cease
a) Begin
b) Stop
c) Create
d) Dull
17. Pious
a) Religious
b) Sympathetic
c) Afraid
d) Faithful
18. Abandon
a) Forsake
b) Keep
c) Cherish
d) Enlarge
19. Cancel
a) Abolish
b) Approve
c) Allow
d) Break
20. Savor
a) Taste
b) Protector
c) Sour
d) Flavor
21. Rivalled
a) Hatred
b) Revised
c) Competed
d) Contradicted
22. Trimming
a) Skimming
b) Arranging
c) Planning
d) Cutting
23. Pester
a) Annoy
b) Insect
c) Upset
d) Paste
24. Wondrous
a) Winning
b) Roaming
c) Marvelous
d) Forceful
25. Pragmatic
a) Practical
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b) Wise
c) Intelligent
d) Proper
26. Disparity
a) Disseminate
b) Difference
c) Discord
d) Difficulty
27. Baneful
a) Loss
b) Evil
c) Profit
d) Benefit
28. Insolent
a) Insulting
b) Wasteful
c) Hard
d) Difficult
29. Lethal
a) Unlawful
b) Sluggish
c) Deadly
d) Smooth
30. Bounty
a) Gift
b) Donation
c) Pleasure
d) Bribe
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ANSWERS
1. c 2. b 3. b
4. a
5. c
6. c
7. c
8. b
9. d
10. d
11. c
12. c
13. c
14. d
15. a
16. b
17. a
18. a
19. a
20. a
21. c
22. d
23. a
24. c
25. a
26. b
27. b
28. a
29. c
30. a
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Questions based on Antonyms are usually of two types. In the first type, four alternatives
are suggested for a given word. You have to choose the alternatives which is opposite in
meaning to the given word. In the questions of second type, a sentence is given with words
printed bold, italics and underlined. Below the sentence, four alternatives are suggested for
this word. You have to choose the alternatives which is opposite in meaning to that word in
the sentence.
Antonyms are the words which are opposite to each other in meaning.
А
Above - below
absent - present
abundant - scarce
accept - decline, refuse
accident – intent
accomplishment - failure
accurate – inaccurate
achieve – fail
add – subtract
adjacent – distant
admire - detest
admit – deny, reject
adore – hate
advance - retreat
advantage – disadvantage
affirm – deny
afraid – confident
after – before
aid - hinder
against - for
agree – disagree
alert - asleep
alive - dead
all - none, nothing
allow – forbid
alone – together
amateur - professional
ally - enemy
always – never
amuse - bore
ancient - modern
CHAPTER
6 ANTONYMS
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answer - question
antonym - synonym
apart – together
apparent - obscure
appear - disappear, vanish
approve – disapprove
argue - agree
arrive – depart
arrogant - humble
artificial - natural
ascend – descend
attack - defend
attractive – repulsive
attract - repel
awake – asleep
awkward – graceful
B
back - front
backward - forward
bad – good
backward - forward
beautiful - ugly
before - after
begin - end
below - above
bent - straight
best - worst
better - worse, worst
big - little, small
birth – death
bitter - sweet
black - white
blame - praise
bless - curse
bitter – sweet
blunt – sharp
bold – timid, meek
borrow - lend
bottom - top
bound - unbound, free
boundless – limited
bravery – cowardice
break – repair
brief - long
bright - dim, dull
brighten - fade
broad – narrow
build – destroy
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busy – idle
buy - sell
C
calm - windy, troubled
can - cannot, can't
capable - incapable
captive – free
capture – release
careful – careless
cause – effect
cautious – careless
centre - edge
cheap – dear, expensive
cheerful - sad, discouraged, dreary
child – adult
chilly – warm
clean - dirty
clear – vague, cloudy, opaque
clever – stupid
clockwise – anti-clockwise
close – distant, open
cold – hot
combine – separate
come – go
comfort – discomfort
common – rare
complex – simple
compliment – insult
conceal – reveal
constant – variable
continue – interrupt
cool – warm
cope - original
correct – incorrect
courage – cowardice
crazy – sane
crooked - staight
cruel – kind
cry - laugh
cunning – simple
D
dainty – clumsy
damage - improve
danger – safety
dark – light
dawn – sunset
day - night
decrease - increase
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deep - shallow
definite - indefinite
demand - supply
despair – hope
destroy – create
difficult - easy
dim - bright
disappear - appear
discourage - encourage
disease – health
dismal – cheerful
divide – unite
doubt - trust
down - up
downwards - upwards
dreary - cheerful
dry - moist, wet
dull - bright, shiny
dusk - dawn
E
early - late
East - West
easy - hard, difficult
economise - waste
empty - full
encourage - discourage
end - begin, start
entrance - exit
even – odd
evil - good
excited - calm
expand – contract, shrink
export - import
exterior - interior
external - internal
F
fade - brighten
fail - succeed
false - true
famous – unknown
fancy - plain
far - near
fast - slow
fat - thin
feeble – sturdy, strong, powerful
few – many
fiction - fact
find – lose
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finish – start
firm - flabby
first – last
fix - break
float – sink
follow - lead
foolish - wise
fore – aft
forgive - blame
free - bound, captive, restricted
fold - unfold
forget - remember
found – lost
frank - secretive
fresh - stale
frequent - seldom
friend - enemy
for - against
fortunate - unfortunate
full – empty
funny – empty
future – present, past
G
gather - distribute
generous – stingy, mean
gentle – rough, violent
get - give
giant - tiny, small, dwarf
give - receive, take
glad - sad, sorry
gloomy - cheerful
go – stop, come
good - bad, evil
grant - refuse
great - tiny, small, unimportant, minute
grow - shrink
guest - host
guilty – innocent
H
handsome - ugly
happy – sad, miserable
hard – easy
hard - soft
harmful - harmless
harsh – mild
hasten - dawdle
hate - love
healthy - diseased, ill, sick, unhealthy
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heat - cold
heaven - hell
heavy - light
help - hinder
here - there
hero - coward
high - low
hill - valley
hinder - help
honest – dishonest
hopeful - hopeless
horizontal - vertical
hot - cold
humble – proud
huge – tiny
I
ignore - notice
ill - healthy, well
imitation - genuine
immense – minute, tiny, small
immigrate - emigrate
important – trivial
imprison - free
in - out
include - exclude
increase - decrease
inferior - superior
inhale - exhale
inner – outer
innocent - guilty
inside - outside
intelligent - stupid, unintelligent
interesting – boring, dull, uninteresting
interior - exterior
internal - external
intentional – accidental
J
jeopardize - secure
join - separate
junior - senior
just - unjust
justice – injustice
K
keen – uninterested
kind – cruel, nasty
knowledge - ignorance
known – unknown
L
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lack – abundance, plenty
landlord - tenant
large - small
last – first
late -early
laugh - cry
lawful - unlawful, illegal
lazy - industrious
leader - follower
left - right
lend -borrow
lengthen - shorten
lenient - strict
left - right
less - more
light - dark, heavy
life - death
like - dislike, hate
likely - unlikely
limited - boundless
little – big
live - die
lofty - lowly
long - short
loose - tight
lose – find
loser - winner
loss – win
loud - quiet
love - hate
low – high
lower - raise
loyal - disloyal
M
mad - happy, sane
major - minor
many - few
mature - immature
maximum – minimum
mean - generous
melt – freeze
mend - break
merry - sad
messy - neat
minor - major
minority - majority
miser – spendthrift
miss - catch
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misunderstand - understand
more – less
much - little
N
narrow – wide, broad
native – foreigner, stranger
natural - artificial
near - far, distant
neat - messy, untidy
negative - affirmative
never - always
new – old, ancient
nice – awful, nasty
night - day
no – yes
nobody - everybody
noisy - quiet
none – some
nothing – everything
notice – ignore
now - then
North - South
O
obedient – disobedient
occasionally - frequently
odd - even
offer – refuse
often – seldom, sometimes
old - young
old - new
on - off
open - closed, shut
opposite- same, similar
optimist – pessimist
order - mess
out - in
outer – inner
outside – inside
outskirts - centre
over – under
P
pass - fail
past - present
patient - impatient
peace - war
permanent – temporary
permit - forbid
please - displease
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plentiful - scarce
plural - singular
poetry - prose
polite - rude, impolite
poor – rich, wealthy
poverty - wealth
possible - impossible
poverty - wealth, riches
powerful – weak, feeble
presence – absence
pretty – ugly
private - public
prudent - imprudent
pure - impure, contaminated
push - pull
Q
qualified – unqualified
quick - slow
question - answer
quiet - loud, noisy
R
raise - lower
rapid - slow
rare – common
rear – front
receive – send
reduce – increase
refuse – agree, accept
regular - irregular
real – fake
rest - work
rich - poor
right - left, wrong
right-side-up - upside-down
rough – smooth, soft, gentle
rude – courteous
S
sad - happy
safe – unsafe, dangerous
same – opposite, different
satisfy – unsatisfied, dissatisfy
secure – insecure
seldom - often
scatter – collect
senior - junior
separate - join, connect, together
serious – trivial, funny
second-hand – new
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security – insecurity
sense - nonsense
shallow – deep
sharp - blunt
shrink – grow
short – long
shut - open
sick - healthy, ill
simple - complex, hard, complicated
singular - plural
sink - float
slim - fat, thick, stout
slow – fast
smooth - rough
sober - drunk
soft – hard
solid - liquid
some - none
sorrow - joy
sour - sweet
sow -reap
straight – crooked
stand - lie
start - finish
stop - go
strict – lenient, indulgent
strong - weak
success - failure
sunny - cloudy
synonym - antonym
sweet - sour
T
take - give
tall - short
tame - wild
them - us
there - here
thick – thin
throw - catch
tight - loose, slack
tiny - big, huge
together - apart
top - bottom
tough - easy, tender
transparent - opaque
true - false
truth - lie, untruth
U
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under - over
unfold – fold
unity - division
unknown - known
unqualified - qualified
unsafe - safe
up - down
upside-down - right-side-up
upstairs - downstairs
us - them
useful - useless
V
vacant – occupied
valuable - valueless
vanish - appear
vast - tiny
victory - defeat
virtue - vice
visible - invisible
voluntary – compulsory
vowel – consonant
W
war - peace
wax - wane
weak - strong
wet - dry
white – black
weak – strong, powerful
white - black
wide - narrow
win - lose
wisdom - folly, stupidity
within – outside
worse – better
worst - best
wrong - right
Y
yes - no
young - old
Z
zip - unzip
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EXERCISE
DIRECTIONS (1-30): In each of the questions below, choose the alternative which is
opposite in meaning to the given word.
1. Innate
a) Acquired
b) Natural
c) Inborn
d) Unusual
2. Reprisal
a) Forgiveness
b) ‘Relief
c) Exemption
d) Relaxation
3. Permit
a) Control
b) Leadership
c) Subordination
d) Discipline
4. Lead
a) Guide
b) Follow
c) Direct
d) Conduct
5. Permit
a) Approve
b) Certify
c) Forbid
d) Endorse
6. Insolent
a) Arrogant
b) Overbearing
c) Disdainful
d) Submissive
7. Feeble
a) Rickety
b) Weak
c) Infirm
d) Robust
8. Adulterate
a) Contaminate
b) Purify
c) Wash
d) Stain
9. Vain
a) Conceited
b) Egoistic
c) Humble
d) Proud
10. Explicit
a) Elusive
b) Allusive
c) Ambidextrous
d) Ambiguous
11. Immune
a) Free
b) Vulnerable
c) Powerful
d) Weak
12. Bleak
a) Dull
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b) Dark
c) Bright
d) Exposure
13. Fastidious
a) Fussy
b) Cooperative
c) Promising
d) Adjustable
14. Shallow
a) High
b) Long
c) Wide
d) Deep
15. Stingy
a) Clean
b) Tight
c) Generous
d) Cheap
16. Barren
a) Fertile
b) Rich
c) Prosperous
d) Positive
17. Virtue
a) Vice
b) failure
c) Fault
d) Offence
18. Nervous
a) Flawless
b) Immature
c) Smooth
d) Composed
19. Meagre
a) Numerous
b) Large
c) Plentiful
d) Enormous
20. Professional
a) Amateur
b) Tradesman
c) labour
d) Customer
21. Scarcity
a) Scanty
b) Prosperity
c) Majority
d) Plenty
22. Stale
a) Fresh
b) Old
c) Steal
d) Stalk
23. Confident
a) Worried
b) Pessimistic
c) Diffident
d) Depressed
24. Vacate
a) Evacuate
b) Validate
c) Occupy
d) Empty
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25. Macbare
a) Grueesome
b) Attractive
c) Splendour
d) Trash
26. Remiss
a) Cheerful
b) Active
c) Dutiful
d) Careful
27. Obligation
a) Compulsion
b) Responsibility
c) Covenant
d) Choice
28. Bigoted
a) Tolerant
b) Democratic
c) Flexible
d) Open
29. Thwart
a) Encourage
b) Obstruct
c) Strife
d) Baffle
30. Scarce
a) Excessive
b) Excel
c) Jemmy
d) Moist
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ANSWERS
1. a
2. a
3. c
4. c
5. b
6. d
7. d
8. b
9. c
10. d
11. b
12. c
13. d
14. d
15. c
16. a
17. a
18. a
19. c
20. a
21. d
22. c
23. a
24. c
25. c
26. c
27. d
28. c
29. a
30. a
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Sentence A sentence is a group of words giving a complete thought. A sentence must contain
a subject and a verb (although one may be implied).
Types of Sentence
A sentence can convey a statement, a question, an exclamation, or a command. There are four types of sentence: A Declarative Sentence.
A declarative sentence states a fact and ends with a period (full stop). For example: He has every attribute of a dog except loyalty. (Politician Thomas P Gore) I wonder if other dogs think poodles are members of a weird religious cult.
(Comedian Rita Rudner) (Remember that a statement which contains an indirect question (like this example) is not a question.)
An Imperative Sentence. An imperative sentence is a command or a polite request. It ends with an exclamation mark or a period (full stop). For example: When a dog runs at you, whistle for him. (Philosopher Henry David
Thoreau, 1817-1862) An Interrogative Sentence.
An interrogative sentence asks a question and ends with a question mark. For example: Who knew that dog saliva can mend a broken heart? (Author Jennifer Neal)
An Exclamatory Sentence. An exclamatory sentence expresses excitement or emotion. It ends with an exclamation mark. For example: In Washington, it's dog eat dog. In academia, it's exactly the opposite!
(Politician Robert Reich)
Kinds of Sentences There are three kinds of sentences according to their structure: 1. Simple Sentence: It is a sentence which consists of a subject, a predicate and one and only one finite verb.
e.g. (i) There are chairs vacant here. (ii) The policeman chased the thief.
(iii) We shall visit him next week.
CHAPTER
7 SENTENCE
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2. Compound Sentence: It is a sentence made up of two or more main or principal sentences or clauses joined together by coordinating conjunctions, also called coordinators. The Coordinators are: and, but, or, either, or, neither, nor, yet, therefore, hence, not only buy also, as well as, else, still, so, etc. e.g. (i) Te man entered the train and sat near the window. (ii) The dog barked at the stranger so he ran away. (iii) I saw the match but I did not enjoy it. 3. Complex Sentence: It is a sentence which consists of a main or principal clause and one or more subordinate clauses joined by subordinators or connectors. The subordinators are: how, where, when, why, what, who, whose, which, that, since, if, as, because, though, although, as if, unless, until, before, than, etc. e.g. (i) I told him that I was in a hurry to reach theater. (ii) The deer runs faster than the cheetah.
(iii) Rajiv bought a new jacket which was made from animal skin. Complex Sentences: (because, when, while, where, as, before, after, that, since, as soon as, no sooner, if, unless, as .... though, if .... though, though, even though, although, whether, so .... that, till, only if, so that, until, which, ………) Compound Sentence: (and, but, or, not only ...... but also, either ..... or, neither ..... nor, etc )
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Exercise
Identify the kind of sentence, giving and appropriate reason for your choice: 1. I've been asked to bring back a vaccine for a horse 2. But someone always catches me 3. I don't know exactly how much it costs 4. I went in search of a nearby shop where I had seen ties. 5. But I couldn't find it 6. The stores had all sorts of ties, but not the kind I was looking for. 7. Panting, I boarded the plane under the reproachful gaze of the other passengers. 8. Nature soothes and nurtures. 9. When I do, it leaves me in complete awe. 10. We went to a rocky beach and saw the spread of the majestic ocean. 11. It takes the shape that the water commands. 12. Remember, this too shall pass. 13. Their teamwork and perseverance which enriches the atmosphere. 14. Spider webs are delicate, yet very strong. 15. This will generate certain chemicals which enriches the atmosphere. 16. Sahyadri Adventure is a unique and perhaps the first of its kind adventure fiction in
India. 17. I have a very high regard for Indian sports women who excel at the highest level. 18. This strategy looks easy but is difficult to implement. 19. Even though she is a complete player, there is scope for her to work on her forehand
side. 20. What is important is not to get carried away.
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SOLUTIONS
1. Simple Sentence
2. Simple Sentence
3. Complex Sentence
4. Complex sentence
5. Simple Sentence
6. Compound Sentence
7. Simple Sentence
8. Compound Sentence
9. Compound Sentence
10. Compound Sentence
11. Complex Sentence
12. Complex Sentence
13. Simple Sentence
14. Simple Sentence
15. Complex Sentence
16. Complex Sentence
17. Complex Sentence
18. Compound Sentence
19. Complex Sentence
20. Complex Sentence
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Spelling
Spelling is defined as the proper way to write a word, using the correct order of letters.
a. An example of spelling is the spelling of the word "cat" as "C" "A" "T." b. An example of spelling is when you actually say or write the letters of the word
"cat."
Prefixes
A prefix is a letter or a group of letters that we add to the beginning of a word. Prefixes change the meanings of words. For example, the prefix un- (or u-n) can mean "not," "remove," or "opposite." Adding un- to the word "happy" gives you the word "unhappy," which means not happy.
U-n and r-e (or re-) are the two most common prefixes in the English language. Re- means "again" or "back," such as in the words "rethink" "redo" and "repay."
Here are a few things to remember when learning prefixes:
1. Different prefixes in English can have similar meanings, such as un-, in- and non- all of which mean "not" or "opposite of." Also, the prefixes mis- and ir- mean "wrong," "wrongly," or "incorrectly."
2. Notice that double letters are possible. For example, when you add the prefix im- to words that begin with the letter "m," you get two "m"s as in "immeasurable." That's also true when you add un- to words that begin with the letter "n," as in "unnoticeable." The same is true for many other prefixes.
3. When adding a prefix to a word, the spelling of the base word never changes. For example, the prefix un- did not change the spelling of the word "happy." And, the prefix re- would not change the spelling of the word "live" in "relive."
4. Watch out for "lookalikes" – words that look like they contain prefixes but, in fact, do not. For example, the un- in the word "uncle" is not a prefix, nor is the re- in the words "reach" or "real."
CHAPTER
8 SPELLING
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Suffixes
A suffix is a letter or group of letters added to the end of a word. Suffixes are commonly used to show the part of speech of a word. For example, adding "ion" to the verb "act" gives us "action," the noun form of the word. Suffixes also tell us the verb tense of words or whether the words are plural or singular.
Some common suffixes are -er, -s, -es, -ed, -ing and -ly.
Here are a few things to remember when learning suffixes:
1. Some suffixes have more than one meaning. For example, the suffix -er may suggest a person who performs an action, like a teacher. But "er" is also commonly added to the ends of adjectives and adverbs. They compare two things and show that one is "more" than the other, such as in "faster" and "stronger."
2. The spelling of a base word can change when a suffix is added. This is true of most base words ending in the letter "y." For instance, when we add the suffix -ness to the word "crazy" to make "craziness," we replace the "y" with an "i." This rule is also true of many base words ending in a silent "e" when the suffix begins with a vowel. For example, in the words "write," "make" and "manage," we drop the "e" in the words when we add -ing to make: "writing," "making" and "managing." We also often drop the silent "e" before the suffix -able such as in "usable." Be careful, though, because with some words, we keep the "e," such as in "changeable" and "loveable."
There are additional suffix rules, but they deal with spelling and can be learned with time and practice.
A thing to keep in mind about both prefixes and suffixes is that some are only used with some words. For example, we add the suffix -ful to some nouns to mean "full of," such as in the words "beautiful" or "helpful." But, we cannot add -ful to just any noun. You could not, for example, say "loveful" to mean full of love.
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EXERCISE
In each of the groups of words below, one word may be misspelled or no words may be
misspelled. If a word is misspelled, write it correctly to the right of each group. If none of
the words in the group is misspelled, write "none."
1. fuzzes, laundrys, sufficient
2. turkeys, trophies, arrival, armies
3. acrage, analysis, dosage
4. acompaniment, played, interviewed
5. privilege, excelling, eighth
6. adolescence, contemporary, ninty
7. athletic, conscious, mathmatics
8. performence, fiery, recede
9. leisure, familiar, proffessor
10. undoubtly, experience, succeed
11. seize, acceptance, grammer
12. pleasant, slyly, watches
13. accidentally, embarass, intelligence
14. prejudice, preferred, lieutenant
15. payed, characteristic, intelligence
16. sergeant, noticable, deceit
17. particuler, arbitrarily, attorneys
18. neither, acknowledge, government
19. permmit, referring, foreign
20. halves, accross, attendant
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SOLUTIONS
1. laundries
2. none
3. acreage
4. accompaniment
5. none
6. ninety
7. mathematics
8. performance
9. professor
10. undoubtedly
11. grammar
12. none
13. embarrass
14. none
15. paid
16. noticeable
17. particular
18. government
19. permit
20. across
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Determiners are required before a singular noun but are optional when it comes to
introducing plural nouns. For example, consider the placement and usage of the common
determiner the in the sentences below: The bunny went home. I ate the chocolate cookie for dessert. Metal cans are recyclable. The metal cans are recyclable.
In every example, the determiner is placed before the noun or noun phrase, regardless of
whether the noun in the subject or predicate. In the first example, it comes directly before
the noun, but in the second example, it comes before the adjective ("chocolate") that
describes the noun ("cookie").
Note also that in the third example there is no determiner, as determiners are optional for
plural nouns and noun phrases. When you want to discuss the noun in general (i.e., all
metal cans), you don't need a determiner for plural nouns. However, the fourth example
shows that you may add a determiner to refer to specific nouns (i.e., the metal cans right
here).
Determiners (the, my, some, this)
Grammar > Nouns, pronouns and determiners > Determiners > Determiners (the,
my, some, this)
Determiners are words such as the, my, this, some, twenty, each, any, which are used before nouns:
the countryside some paper this old sofa
my father five green chairs each person
CHAPTER
9 DETERMINERS
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Determiners include the following common types:
Articles: a/an, the
Demonstratives: this, that, these, those
Possessives: my, your, his, her, its, our, their, x’s (possessive ’s)
Quantifiers: (a) few, fewer, (a) little, many, much, more, most, some, any, etc.
Numbers: one, two, three, etc.
Here is a list of the determiners included in this book. Many of them have individual entries:
(a) few, fewer, fewest
every most that
(a) little half much the
(an)other her my their
a/an his neither these
all its no this
any Jim’s, Anna’s, etc.
one, two, three, etc.
those
both least our what
each less several which
either many some whose
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EXERCISE
Choose the appropriate quantifier / determiner.
1. Can I have a few / some / many butter please?
2. He has a lot of / many / some money. He owns two large apartments.
3. Do you want sugar in your tea? “Just how much / a little / a few ‘please.”
4. I have a lot of / much / a little DVDs.
5. I’ll be ready in some / a few / little minutes.
6. How many / how much time do you need to finish your homework?
7. How many / how much books have you read in the last two months?
8. Do you want much / any / few cosmetics from Avon?
9. We have little / a little / few bread. It is not enough for dinner.
10. We have much / many / few chairs but we need more.
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ANSWERS
1. Some
2. A lot of
3. A little
4. A lot of
5. A few
6. How much
7. How many
8. Any
9. Little
10. Many
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“REASONING”
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ANALOGY
Analogy means similarities or bearing a resemblance. An analogy is a comparison using
two things that are similar to any relation, being compared. It is the inference that if two or
more things agree with one another in some respect they will probably agrees in others.
In question based on Analogy, a particular relationship is given and another similar
relationship has to be identified from the alternatives provided. Questions based on
analogy are set up to test a candidate’s overall knowledge, power of reasoning and ability
to think. These types of questions consist of a pair of words/letters/numbers having a
certain relation. The candidates are required to identity the relation between the elements
pair in the same way as first pair.
Analogy may be divided into following four types:
i. Word Analogy: Word Analogy covers every type of relationship that one can think.
There are many ways of establishing a relationship like quantity and unit, worker and
tools, cause and effect, word synonyms, word antonyms, country and capital, state and
capital, country and currency, animal and the young ones, males and females, animals
and their resting places, games and place of playing etc. here, some relationships are
given, which are useful for solving questions on Analogy.
Word synonyms
Assign Allot Dissipate Squander
Substitute Replace Brim Edge
Abduct kidnap Dearth Scarcity
Haughty Proud
CHAPTER
1 ANALOGIES
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Word: Anonyms
Robust Weak Gentle Harsh
Deep Shallow Meet Avoid
Chaos Peace lethargy Alertness
Cruel Kind Blunt Sharp
Country: Capital: Currency
Bangladesh Dhaka Taka
Iraq Baghdad Dinar
China Beijing Yuan
India New Delhi Rupee
UK London Pound
Japan Tokyo Yen
USA Washington D.C Dollar
Russia Moscow Ruble
Greece Athens Euro
States of India: Capital
Sikkim Gangtok Tamil Nadu Chennai
West Bengal Kolkata Odisha Bhubaneshwar
Goa Panaji Bihar Patna
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Male: Female
Dog Bitch Son Daughter
Horse Mare Brother Sister
Bull Cow Nephew Niece
Cock Hen Lord Lady
Worker: Product
Farmer Crops Teacher Education
Architect Designs Tailor Clothes
Producer Films Goldsmith Ornaments
Worker: Name of Working Place
Lawyer Court Waiter Restaurant
Servant House Teacher School
Beautician Parlour Chef Kitchen
Mechanic Garage Sailor Ship
Game: Place of Playing
Tennis Court Race Track
Wrestling Arena Badminton Court
Boxing Ring Skating Rink
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Individual: Class
Frog Amphibian Man Mammal
Rat Rodent Ostrich Bird
Cup Crockery Whale Mammal
Snake Reptile Pen Stationery
Animal: Class
Cock Crow Snake Hiss
Duck Quack Owl Hoot
Cat Meow Jackal Howl
Frog Croak Donkey Bray
Animal: Young ones
Dog Puppy Cow Calf
Hen Chick Bear Cub
Cat Kitten Lion Cub
Quantity: Unit
power Watt Mass Kilogram
Pressure Pascal Work Joule
Current Ampere Volume litre
Area Hectare Force Newton
Time Second Length Metre
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Instrument: Measurement
Sphygmomanometer Blood pressure
Seismograph Earthquake
Barometer Pressure
Ammeter Current
Odometer Speed
Thermometer Temperature
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Exercise
1. Hare is related to Burrow, in the same
way Owl is related to:
a) Hole
b) Hive
c) Nest
d) Barn
2. Duma is related to Russia, in the same
way as Knesset is related to:
a) Malaysia
b) Afghanistan
c) France
d) Germany
3. College is related to Student, in the
same way as Hospital is related to:
a) Doctor
b) Nurse
c) Medicine
d) Patient
4. major is related to Lieutenant, in the
same way as Squadron leader is
related to:
a) Group Captain
b) Flying Attendant
c) Flying Officer
d) Pilot Officer
5. Smell is to Flower, in the same way as
Taste is to:
a) Tongue
b) Water
c) Sweet
d) Food
6. Cyclone is related to Anti-cyclone, in
the same way as Flood is related to:
a) Devastation
b) Havoc
c) River
d) Drought
7. Doctor is related to patient, in the
same way Lawyer is related to:
a) Customer
b) Criminal
c) Magistrate
d) Client
8. As Bald is related to Blond, in the
same way, Barren is related to:
a) Vegetation
b) Farm
c) Fertile
d) Inhibited
9. Atom is related to Molecule, in the
same way as Cell is related to:
a) Matter
b) Nucleus
c) Organism
d) Battery
10. Konkani is related to Goa, in the same
way as Dogri is related to:
a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Odisha
c) Jammu and Kashmir
d) Gujarat
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Directions (11-15): In each of the
following questions, two words are given
to the left side of the sign (::) and one
word and a question marks are given to
the right side of the sign (::), select one
word from the given alternatives which
bears the same relationship to the word
given to the right side of the sign (::) as
that of the words given to the left side of
the sign (::)
11. Son: Nephew:: Daughter: ?
a) Niece
b) Sister in law
c) Sister
d) Mother
12. Ring: Ear::? : Wrist
a) Pendent
b) Chain
c) Bangle
d) Ribbon
13. Wood: Paper:: Steel: ?
a) Metal
b) Nail
c) Glass
d) Iron
14. Sun: Day:: Moon: ?
a) Stars
b) Nights
c) Planets
d) Darkness
15. Saw:: Carpenter:: Scissors: ?
a) Farmer
b) Tailor
c) Painter
d) Artist
Directions (16-20): The following
questions consist of two words each that
have a certain relationship to each other,
followed by four lettered pairs of words.
Select the lettered pair that has same
relationship as the original pairs of
words.
16. Numismatist: Coins
a) philatelist: Stamps
b) Jeweller : Jewels
c) Cartographer: Maps
d) Geneticist: Chromosomes
17. Train: Track
a) Idea: Brain
b) Bullet: Barrel
c) Water: Boat
d) Fame: Television
18. Cells: Cytology
a) Worm: Ornithology
b) insect: Entomology
c) Diseases: physiology
d) Tissue: Morphology
19. Surgeon: Scalpel
a) musician: Instrument
b) Carpenter: Cabinet
c) Sculptor: Chisel
d) Baker: Oven
20. Elevated: Exalted
a) Dirty: Filthy
b) Disorderly: Unfaithful
c) Raise: Commensurate
d) promoted: Excellence
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ANSWERS
1. Burrow is the dwelling place of Hare.
Similarly, Barn is the dwelling place of
Owl.
2. Russian parliament is called Duma.
Similarly, Afghanistan’s parliament is
called Knesset.
3. In the College, education is given to
the students, in the same way
treatment given to Patient in the
Hospital.
4. Major and Squadron Leader are
equivalent ranks in the Army and the
Air Force, respectively. Same as
Lieutenant and the flying officer are
equivalent ranks in the Army and the
Air Force.
5. Smell comes from Flower in the same
way Taste comes from Food.
6. The words in each pair represent
opposite conditions.
7. Doctor deals with Patient, Similarly,
Lawyer deals with the client.
8. As Bald is related to the Blond in the
same way, Barren is related to the
Fertile.
9. First constitute the second. As
combining Atom we get molecules in
the same way combining Cell we get
Organism.
10. Konkani is the language of Goa.
Similarly, Dogri is the language of
Jammu and Kashmir.
11. As, Son is related to nephew. Similarly,
Daughter is related to Niece.
12. As Ring is related to Ear. Similarly,
Bangle is related to Wrist.
13. As, Paper is made from wood.
Similarly, Nail is made of Steel.
14. As, Sun rises in Day. Similarly, Moon
rises in Night.
15. Saw in the tool of Carpenter, Similarly,
Scissors are used by Tailors.
16. Numismatist is the man who collects
coins. In the same way, Philatelist is
the man who collects stamps.
17. Train moves on tracks in the same
way as Bullet travels through the
barrel of gun.
18. Cytology is the science in which we
study about cells in the same way
Entomology is the science in which we
study about insects.
19. Surgeon uses Scalpel to perform his
work in the same way as Sculptor uses
Chisel to perform his work
20. Exalted indicates higher intensity than
the word Elevated, in the same way
Filthy indicates higher intensity than
the word Dirty.
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Bloods Relation
Blood Relation test depends upon the Knowledge of a candidate towards the relation. This
test shows a picture about a family, thus the candidate should have adequate Knowledge of
Blood Relation in order to solve these questions. It would be easy to solve these questions
through the generation flow chart between two people clear a picture of the relation that
they have.
Types of Relations
Type 1: Relations from Paternal Side
Father’s father Grandfather
Father’s mother Grandmother
Father’s brother Uncle
Father’s sister Aunt
Children of uncle or aunt Cousins
Wife of uncle Aunt
Husband of Aunt Uncle
Type 2: Relations from Maternal Side Mother’s father Maternal Grandfather
mother’s mother Maternal Grandmother
Mother’s brother Maternal uncle
Mother’s sister Maternal aunt
Children of maternal uncle and aunt Cousins
Wife of maternal uncle Maternal aunt
Husband of maternal aunt Maternal uncle
Other Relations Grandfather’s or grandmother’s son Father or Uncle
Grandfather’s or Grandmother’s only Son Father
Grandfather’s or Grandmother’s daughter Aunt
CHAPTER
2 RELATIONSHIP CONCEPTS
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Mother’s or Father’s Son Brother
Mother’s or father’s daughter Sister
Son’s wife Daughter in law
Husband’s or wife’s sister Sister in law
Daughter’s husband Son in law
Husband’s or wife’s brother Brother in law
Brother’s Son Nephew
Brother’s daughter Niece
Sister’s husband Brother in law
Brother’s wife Sister in law
Grandson’s or granddaughter’s daughter or son Great granddaughter or son
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EXERCISE
1. Vijay says “Ananda’s mother is the
only daughter of my mother” How is
Ananda related to vijay?
a) Brother
b) Father
c) Nephew
d) Grandfather
2. Pointing towards a person, a man said
to a woman, “His mother is the only
daughter of your father”. How is the
woman related to that person?
a) Daughter
b) Sister
c) Mother
d) Wife
3. Showing the lady in the park, Vineet
said, “She is the daughter of my
grandfather’s only son”. How is vineet
related to that lady?
a) Brother
b) Cousin
c) Father
d) Uncle
4. Ramesh is the brother of Amit.
Sushma is the sister of Satish. Amit is
the son of Sushma. How is Ramesh
related to Sushma?
a) Father
b) Brother
c) Son
d) Nephew
5. Pointing to a lady in the photograph,
shaloo said, “Her son’s father is the
son-in-law of my mother”. How is
Shaloo related to the lady?
a) Aunt
b) Sister
c) Mother
d) Cousin
6. Pointing towards a boy, Veena said,
“He is the son of only son of my
grandfather”. How is that boy related
to Veena?
a) Uncle
b) Brother
c) Cousin
d) Data inadequate.
7. Pointing to a photograph, Suraj said,
“His daughter Shobha is
granddaughter of my mother”. How is
Satish related to Ashok?
a) Son
b) Grandson
c) Nephew
d) None of these
8. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a
woman says, “This man’s son’s sister
is my mother in law”. How is the
woman’s husband related to the man
in the photograph?
a) Grandson
b) Son in law
c) Son
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d) Nephew
9. Pointing to a girl in photograph,
Umesh said,”Her mother’s sin is the
only son of my mother’s father”. How
the girl’s mother is related to Umesh?
a) Grandmother
b) Sister
c) Aunt
d) Mother/Aunt
10. Deepak is brother of Ravi. Rekha is
sister of Atul. Ravi is son of Rekha.
How is Deepak related to Rekha?
a) Son
b) Brother
c) Nephew
d) Father
11. A is B’s sister. C is B’s mother. D is C’s
father. E is D’s mother. Then, how is A
related to D?
a) Grandmother
b) Grandfather
c) Daughter
d) Granddaughter
12. Rahul’s mother is the only daughter of
Monika’s father. Hw is Monika’s
husband related to Rahul?
a) Uncle
b) Father
c) Grandfather
d) Brother
13. Fatima while introducing Mustafa to
her husband said, “His brother’s father
is the only son of my grandfather”.
How is Fatima related to Mustafa?
a) Aunt
b) Sister
c) Niece
d) mother
14. Raghu and Babu are twins. Babu’s
ister is Reema. Reema’s husband is
Rjan. Raghu’s mother is Lakshmi.
Lakshmi’s husband is Rajesh. How is
Rajesh related to Rajan?
a) Uncle
b) Son in l aw
c) Father in Law
d) Cousin
15. B is the father of Q. B has only two
children. Q is the brother of R. R is the
daughter of P. A is the granddaughter
of P. S is the father of A. How is S
related to Q?
a) Son
b) Son in law
c) Brother
d) Brother in law
16. “A+B” means A is B’s daughter, “A x B’
means A is B’s son, ‘A-B’ means A is B’s
wife. or the relation P x Q –S, which of
the following statements is true?
a) S is P’S father
b) P is Q’s daughter
c) ‘Q is P’s father
d) S is Q’s wife
17. If P + Q mean P is the husband of Q:
‘P+Q’ means P is the sister of Q and P x
Q means P is the son of Q, then which
of the following shows A is the
daughter of B?
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a) C x B + A
b) B+ C x A
c) D x B + C ÷ A
d) A ÷ D x B
18. If A * B means A is the mother of B; A x
B means A is the husband of B, then
which of the following equations show
that ‘P’ is the father of ‘Q’?
a) Q * M x P
b) P *Q
c) Q* P
d) P x M * Q
19. Pointing to Satish, Ashok said, “He is
the son of my sister’s only brother”.
How is Satish related to Ashok?
a) Son
b) Grandson
c) Nephew
d) None of the above
20. If Teena’s mother was Uday’s mother’s
only daughter, then how was Uday
related to Teena?
a) Maternal grand Father
b) Maternal Uncle
c) Cousin
d) Son
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ANSWERS
1. c
2. c
3. a
4. c
5. b
6. b
7. d
8. a
9. a
10. a
11. d
12. b
13. b
14. c
15. d
16. a
17. d
18. d
19. a
20. b
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“A geometrical representation between two articles on the basis of set theory known as
Venn diagram”
Definition of Venn Diagram
The process of presenting things/numbers through the diagrammatic medium form the
given group of elements is called Venn diagram.
According to its characteristics, Venn diagram may be categorized in two types:
1. Identification of Class through circle
2. Identification of Class Through Numbers and Letters.
1. Identification of Class Through Circle.
A class is a group or collection of objects all having something as common. In this type,
Venn diagrams are used to establish relationship between the given groups. Generally, an
independent diagram is used to represent a different class. Candidates are required to
identify the Venn diagram, which most correctly establish a relation between the given
objects.
Keep In Mind
● Concept of group of class.
● Diagrammatic representation of classes like individual and common.
● The individual diagram for any of the class then corelate the diagram, if belongs to group.
CHAPTER
3 VENN DIAGRAM
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2. Identification of class through numbers and letters
In these types of questions, more than one geometrical figure represents different classes
with the specified numbers or letters. Candidates are required to analyse the figure
carefully and then answer certain question as per the given information.
Keep in Mind
● Only A = P ● A = P + r ● Only B = Q
● B = Q + r ● A ꓵ B = r ● A ꓴ B = P + Q – r
● A + B = P + Q + 2r ● A – B = P + Q
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EXERCISE
1. Which of the following diagrams correctly represents elephants, wolves and animals?
2. Which one of the following diagrams correctly represents the relationship among tennis fans, cricket players and students.
Direction(3-7): In the following questions, three classes are given. Out of the four figures that follow, you are to indicate which figure will best represent the relationship amongst the three classes.
3. Boys, Students and Athletes
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
4. Sparrows, Birds and Mice
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
5. Women, Mothers and Widows a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
6. Tea, Coffee and Beverages
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
7. Author, Teachers and Men a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Direction (8-14): In the following
questions, three classes are given. Out of
the four figures that follow, you are to
indicate which figure will best represent
the relationship amongst the three
classes.
8. Women, Sister and Wives
a) (1)
b) (2)
c) (3)
d) (4)
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9. Pulses, Redgram, Moongdal
a) (1)
b) (2)
c) (3)
d) (4)
10. Manager, Labour Union and worker
a) (1)
b) (2)
c) (3)
d) (4)
11. Ornaments, Gold, Silver
a) (1)
b) (2)
c) (3)
d) (4)
12. Table, chair and Furniture
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
13. Human beings, Teachers and
Graduates
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
14. Tiger, Fox and Carnivores
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Direction (15-20): In the following
questions, three classes are given. Out of
the four figures that follow, you are to
indicate which figure will best represent
the relationship amongst the three
classes.
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15. Whales, Fishes and Crocodiles
a) (1)
b) (2)
c) (3)
d) (4)
16. Thieves, lawyers and Criminals
a) (1)
b) (2)
c) (3)
d) (4)
17. Deer, Rabbit and Mammal
a) (1)
b) (2)
c) (3)
d) (4)
18. Flowers, Clothes and White.
a) (5)
b) (2)
c) (3)
d) (4)
19. Mountains, Forests and Earth.
a) (1)
b) (2)
c) (3)
d) (4)
20. Rohtak, Haryana and Punjab.
a) (1)
b) (2)
c) (3)
d) (4)
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ANSWERS
1. d
2. a
3. b
4. d
5. c
6. a
7. b
8. a
9. b
10. d
11. c
12. a
13. c
14. d
15. b
16. c
17. a
18. a
19. a
20. b
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Direction is the measurement of position of one thing with respect to another thing and
displacement is the measurement of distance between the starting and the final point.
The problems based on direction sense test have instructions regarding the movement of a
person or an object from a starting point upto an end point and the candidate is required to
ascertain the final direction or the distance between two points. This test is designed to
judge the candidate’s ability to trace and follow the logical path correctly and sense the
direction correctly.
Main Directions
There are four main directions, viz., East, West, North and South. Sunrises in the East. Just
opposite of East is west and South is opposite to North.
Cardinal direction
The four cardinal directions or cardinal points are the directions of north, east, south, and west,
commonly denoted by their initials: N, E, S, W. East and west are at right angles to north and
south, with east being in the clockwise direction of rotation and west being directly opposite.
Intermediate points between the four cardinal directions from the points of the compass. The
intermediate directions are northeast, southeast, southwest, and northwest. On Earth, upright
observers facing north will have south behind them, east on their right, and west on their left.
Most devices and methods for orientation therefore operate by finding north first, although any
other direction is equally valid, if it can be reliably located.
CHAPTER
DIRECTION SENSE 4
Left Right
Right Left
Left Right Left Right
North
East West
South
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Angle of Movement
For solving questions based on angle of movement, it is necessary to know the rotations
which are given below
i. Movement towards the right is called the clockwise movement
ii. Movement towards the left is called Anti-clockwise movement
Shortest Distance For finding shortest distance between two points, it is necessary to know Pythagoras
theorem.
Here, in ∆ ABC,
A
B C
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AB= Perpendicular
BC= Base and AC= Hypotenuse
Hence, for shortest distance between A and C
Concept of Shadow A shadow is a dark (real image) area where light from a light source is blocked by an
opaque object. It occupies all of the three-dimensional volume behind an object with light
in front of it. The cross section of a shadow is a two-dimensional silhouette, or a reverse
projection of the object blocking the light.
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EXCERCISE
1. I am facing East. Turning to the right I go 20 m, then turning to the left I go 20 m and turning to the right I go 20 m, then again turning to the right I go 40 m and then again I go 40 m to the right. In which direction am I from my original position? a) North b) West c) South d) East
2. Bhairav walked 30 ft towards North,
then took a left turn and walked 15 ft. He again took a left turn and walked 30 ft. How far and in which direction is Bhairav from the starting point? a) 15 ft to the West b) 45 ft to the South c) 30 ft to the East d) 15 ft to the North
3. Seema started early in the morning on
the road towards the Sun. After some time she turned to her left. Again after some time she turned to her right. After moving some distance she again turned to her right and began to move. At this time, in what direction was she moving? a) South b) North-West c) North-East d) East
4. At dusk, Rohit started walking facing
the sun. After a while, he met his friend and both turned to their left. They halted for a while and started moving by turning again to their right. Finally Rohit waved 'good bye' to his
friend and took a left turn at a corner. At which direction is Rohit moving now? a) South b) West c) North d) East
5. A starts and walks towards south, he
then turns to his right and walks 5 km, then again turn left and walks 3 km and then again turn left and walks 5 km. In which direction is he from the starting point? a) West b) South c) North d) East
6. Two boys Anil and Shyam walk in
opposite directions for three kilometres. Anil is walking towards East. After 3 km each both turn right and walk 3 km each. Both turn to face each other. In which direction is Shyam looking? a) South b) South East c) West d) South East
7. In question number 6 above, which
direction is Anil looking? a) North b) North West c) West d) South East 8. A boy was misdirected from his way
while returning to his home from his school. In order to reach his home, he first moved 3 km in south direction
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and then turned to his left and moved 2 km in straight direction on the road leading to the east. From there, he moved to his left and walked 3 km. After this, he again turned to his left and moved 1 km. Finally he reached his home. The home of the boy was in which direction from his school?
a) North b) West c) South d) East 9. Ram walks 10 m South from his house,
turns left and walks 25 m, again turns left and walks 40 m, then turns right and walks 5 m to reach the school. In which direction is the school from his house?
a) North-East b) West c) South d) East 10. From his house, Rahul went 25 km to
north. Then he turned towards west and covered 15 km. Then he turned south and covered 10 km. Finally, turning to east, he covered 15 km. In which direction is he from his house?
a) North b) West c) South d) East
11. Satish starts from his house and takes two right turns and then one left turn. Now he is moving towards south. In which direction Satish started from his house?
a) North b) West c) South d) East 12. After walking 10 m, Shankar turned
left and covered a distance of 6 m, then turned right and covered a distance of 20 m. In the end, he was moving towards the south. From which direction did Shankar start his journey?
a) North b) West c) South d) East 13. Sumi ran a distance of 40 m towards
South. She then turned to the right and ran for about 15 m, turned right again and ran 50 m. Turning to right then ran for 15 m. Finally she turned to the left an angle of 45° and ran. In which direction was she running finally?
a) South-East b) South-West c) North-East d) North-West
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ANSWERS
1. c
2. a
3. c
4. a
5. b
6. a
7. a
8. b
9. d
10. d
11. d
12. a
13. a
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Definition: In this type of test secret messages or words have to be deciphered or
decoded. They are coded according to a definite pattern or rule which should be identified
first. Then the same rule be applied to decipher another coded word or message.
Types of Coding-Decoding
1. Letter coding.
2. Coding by Analogy
3. Coding in Fictitious Language
4. Coding by substitution
5. Coding by shifting words
6. Coding based on conditions
7. Mathematical operation Based coding.
1. LETTER CODING
(i) Coding by shifting letters
Example 1: In a certain cod language the word METAL is coded as LDSZK. How will word
ZINC be written in that language?
Solution: M E T A L
-1 -1 -1 -1 -1
L D S Z K
Similarly,
Z I N C
-1 -1 -1 -1
Y H M B
Note: For coding concepts, you must know about numerical order of alphabet, which is A
to Z.
Example:
A B C D E F G H I J 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
CHAPTER
5 CODING DECODING
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K L M N O P
11 12 13 14 15 16
Q R S T U V W X Y Z 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 (ii) Coding by re-arranging letters
Example: In a certain code language the word NUMERICAL is written as
LMUIREACN. How will be the word PUBLISHED be written in that language?
Solution: N U M E R I C A L L M U I R E A C N 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 3 2 6 5 4 8 7 1 Therefore, P U B L I S H E D D B U S I L E H P 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 3 2 6 5 4 8 7 1 2. Coding by Analogy
(i) Coding by shifting letters
Example: In a certain code language PEAR is written as RCCP and AUNT is written as
CSPR. How is LAND written in that code?
Solution: P E A R A U N T +2 -2 +2 -2 and -2 -2 +2 +2 R C C P C S P R Similarly, L A N D +2 -2 +2 -2 N Y P B
(ii) Digit- coding
Example: In a certain code ROAM is written as 5913 and DONE is written as 4962. How is
MEAN written in that code?
Solution:
Letter A D E M N O
Code 1 4 2 3 6 9
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Similarly,
M E A N 3 2 1 6
(iii) Symbol Coding
Example: In a certain code BROTHER is written as $%53#4% and DREAM is written as
9%47*. How is THREAD written in that code?
Solution:
Letter A B D E H M O R T
Code 7 $ 9 4 # * 5 % 3
Similarly:
T H R E A D 3 # % 4 7 9
3. CODING IN FICTITIOUS LANGUAGE
Example: In a certain code ‘nik ma de’ means ‘he was come’, ‘de lit pa’ means’ come
here fast’ and ‘ma la se’ means ‘she has gone’. What is the code for ‘he’?
Solution: We have,
Nik ma de he has come
de lit pa come here fast
ma la se she has gone
Word Code
He - nik
Has - ma
Come - de
Here - lit/pa
Fast - lit/pa
She - la/se
Gone - la/se
4. CODING BY SUBSTITION
Example: While means black, means red, red means blue, blue means yellow and
yellow means grey, then which of the following represents the color of clear sky?
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Solution: Clearly, we know that, the actual color of sky is blue, and is given blue means
yellow. Hence, the color of sky is yellow.
5. CODING BY SHIFTING WORDS
Example: If the sentence ‘layman can practice successful psychotherapy without great
training is written as ‘practice without successful layman training psychotherapy can
great’ in a certain code, them how will’ I would have to think all the time’ be written in
that code?
Solution: Layman can practice successful psychotherapy without great training
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Then after coding
3 6 4 1 8 5 2 7
practice without successful layman training psychotherapy
can great
Similarly,
I Would have to think all the time
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Then after coding
3 6 4 1 8 5 2 7
Have all to I time think would the
6. CODING BASED ON CONDITIONS
Example:
Directions (1-3): Digits in the number given in each of the following questions are to
be coded based on the codes and the condition given below:
Digit 2 9 4 6 3 8 1 7 5 0
Code P M R K T V B W F D
Conditions:
(i) If both the first and the last digits of a number are odd numbers, they should be
coded as ‘Z’.
(ii) If both the first and the last digits of a numbers are even numbers, they should be
coded as ‘A’.
Questions and Solutions:
Q. (1) 9 3 8 7 5 2 No conditions are apply 9 3 8 7 5 2
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M T V W F P Q. (2) 7 2 5 8 1 Condition (i) Applies 3 7 2 5 8 1 Z W P F V Z Q. (3) 8 4 3 7 2 6 Condition (ii) Applies 8 4 3 7 2 6 A R T W P A
7. MATHEMATICAL OPERATION BASED CODING
Example: If the alphabets are assigned values such as A = 3, D = 6, G = 8, I – 2, L = 4,
and T = 5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
Solutions:
A D G I L T
3 6 8 2 4 5
6 + 2 + 8 + 2 + 5 + 3 + 4 = 30
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EXERCISE
1. If in a certain code, LUTE is written as
MUTE and FATE is written as GATE,
then how will BLUE be written in that
code?
a) CLUE
b) GLUE
c) FLUE
d) SLUE
e) None of these
2. If in a certain language, MADRAS is
coded as NBESBT, how BOMBAY
coded in that language?
a) CPNCBX
b) CPNCBZ
c) CPOCBZ
d) CQOCBZ
e) None of these
3. If FISH is written as EHRG in a certain
code, how would JUNGLE be written in
that code?
a) ITMFKD
b) ITNFKD
c) KVOHMF
d) TIMFKD
e) None of these
4. In a certain code, TWINKLE is written
as SVHOJKD then how would FILTERS
be written in that code?
a) EHKSDQR
b) EHKUDQR
c) EGHUDQR
d) GJMSFST
e) None of these
5. In a certain code, ROAD is written as
URDG. How is SWAN written in that
code?
a) VXDQ
b) VZDQ
c) VZCP
d) UXDQ
e) None of these
6. If in a certain code, FAVOUR is written
as EBUPTS. How is DANGER written in
that code?
a) JOWJTJCMF
b) JOWJTHAKD
c) HMUHTJCMF
d) HMUHTHAKD
e) None of these
7. In a certain code, FAVOUR is written
as EBUPTS. How is DANGER written in
that code?
a) CBFFDS
b) CBMHDS
c) EBFHDS
d) EBHHFS
e) None of these
8. In a certain code, Productions is
written as QQPCVEUHPMT. How is
ORIENTATION written in that code?
a) PQJDOVBSJNO
b) PQJDOUBUJPO
c) PSJFOVBSJNO
d) NSHFMVBSJNO
e) None of these
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9. If a code, MIND becomes KGLB and
ARGUE becomes YPESC, then what
will DIAGRAM be in that code?
a) BGYEPYK
b) BGYPYEK
c) GLPEYKB
d) LKBGYPK
e) None of these
10. In a certain code, BASIC is written as
DUDDLE. How is LEADER written in
that code?
a) NGCFGT
b) NHCGGU
c) OGDEHT
d) OHDGHU
e) None of these
11. In a certain code, GERMINATION is
written as IMGRENNOAIT. How is
ESTABLISHED written in that code?
a) BEATSLEIHS
b) BAETSLEDIHS
c) BATESLDEIHS
d) BAETSLDEIHS
e) None of these
12. In a certain code language,
COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC.
How is MEDICINE written in that
code?
a) EOJDEJFM
b) EOJDJEFM
c) MFEDJJOE
d) MFEJDJOE
e) None of these
13. If in certain code language,
CONVALENT is written as
BWFDUOFM and FORM is written as
PGNS. How is SILVER be written in
that languages?
a) MJTUDQ
b) KHRSFW
c) MJTWFS
d) MJTSFW
e) None of these
14. If a certain language, CREATIVE is
written as BDSBFUJS. How is
TRIANGLE written in that code?
a) BHSSFKHM
b) BHSSMHHF
c) BSHSFHKM
d) BSSHFMKH
e) None of these
15. In a certain language, CLOUD is
written as GTRKF. How is SIGHT
written in that language?
a) UGHHT
b) UHJFW
c) WFJGV
d) WGJHV
e) None of these
16. In a certain code, “CERTAIN” is
written as “QDBVOJB”. How is
“RELATED” written in that code?
a) QDKCVFE
b) KDQCEFU
c) DKCQEFV
d) KDQCVFE
e) None of these
17. In a certain code, “MADRA” is written
as “NZEQBR” then “CALCUTTA” will
be written as.
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a) OZMBVSUB
b) BBKBTVSB
c) DZMBVUUZ
d) DZMBVSUZ
e) None of these
18. In a certain code “BROWN” is written
“ZPMUL” then “VOILET” will be
written as.
a) TGMTCR
b) SGMTCQ
c) TGMJCQ
d) TGWCQ
e) TGMJCR
19. If “BRASS” is coded as “CTBUT” ,
“AMIT” is coded as “BOJV” then what
will code of “ADITYA”.
a) BEJUZB
b) CEKVZB
c) BFJZVC
d) BFJVZC
e) None of these
20. In a certain code “UNDER” is written
as “6152@” and “DEAF” is written as
“52#7”. How “FRAUD” is written in
that code.
a) 7@6#5
b) 72#65
c) 7@#65
d) 6@7#5
e) None of these
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ANSWERS
1. a
2. b
3. a
4. b
5. b
6. c
7. b
8. a
9. a
10. b
11. d
12. b
13. d
14. a
15. d
16. b
17. d
18. e
19. d
20. c
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Let us
begin by observing the following series:
2, 4, 6, 8, 10…………
Clearly, it is an even number series.
Now, let us observe the following series:
62, 127, 214, 345, 510………
This series is obtained by alternatively subtracting and adding 2 to the cubes of natural numbers beginning with 4.
i.e., 62, 127, 214, 345, 510, ………..
(43-2) (53+2) (63-2) (73+2) (83-2)
This pattern of the first series can be more easily understood as compared to the second one because we are more familiar with the first pattern, i.e. even numbers.
So, let us familiarize ourselves with more such patterns.
Type 1: Even /odd number series.
Example 1: 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, ………
The above series is an even number series. The next term in this series is 12.
Example 2: 1, 3, 5, 7, 9,……….
This is an odd number series. The next term will be 11.
Type 2: Prime number series.
Example 1: 2, 3, 5, 7, ……..
The next term will be 11.
Example 2: 3, 7, 13, 19, ………..
This series is formed by picking up alternate terms from the prime numbers series beginning with 3.
CHAPTER
6 NUMBER SERIES
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3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29
So, the next term will be 29.
Example 3: 3, 7, 17, ………..
This series is formed by picking up terms from the prime number series beginning with 3 and leaving out one term, two terms, three terms and so on successively in between.
3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31
So, the next term will be 31.
Type 3: Series formed by squares of numbers
Example 1: 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, ………
This series is formed by squares of successive numbers beginning with 2
22, 32, 42, 52, 62, 72, ………
So, the next term will be 49.
Example 2: 1, 9, 25, 49, 81, ………
These are squares of odd numbers.
12, 32, 52, 72, 92, 112
So, the next term will be 121.
Type 4: Series formed by cubes of numbers
Example 1: 64, 125, 216, 343, ……….
These are cubes of successive numbers beginning with 4.
So, the next term will be 512.
Example 2: 8, 27, 125, 343, ………
These are cubes of prime numbers.
So, the next term will be 113 = 1331.
Type 5: Series formed by addition.
Example 1: 12, 13, 15, 17, ……….
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This series is formed by adding 10 to each term of the prime numbers beginning with 2.
(2+10), (3+10), 5+10), (7+10)
So, the next term will be (11+10) = 21
Example 2: 1, 3, 4, 8, 15, 27………
Previous three terms are added to find the terms beginning from 8.
1 + 3+ 4 =8, 3+ 4+ 8 = 15, 4+ 8+ 15 = 27, 8 = 15 + 27 = 50
So, the next term will be 50.
Type 6: Series formed by multiplication
Example 1: 0.5, 1.5, 4.5, 13.5, ……..
Here each is formed by multiplying the previous term by 3. So, the next will be 40.5.
Example 2: 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ………
Each term is formed by multiplying the previous term by 2 and adding 1
So, the next term will be →63 × 2 + 1 = 127.
Type 7: Series formed by division
Example 1: 840, 168, 42, 14, 7, ………
(840 ÷ 5) = 168, (168 ÷ 4) = 42, (42 ÷ 3 ) = 14, (14 ÷ 2) = 7, (7 ÷ 1) = 7.
So, the next term will be 7.
Example 2: 240, ….?..... 120, 40, 10, 2.
240 ÷ 1 = 240, 240 ÷ 2 = 120, 120 ÷ 3 = 40, 40 ÷ 4 = 10, 10 ÷ 5 = 2.
So, the missing term is 240.
Type 8: Series formed by subtracting or adding something to squares to successive terms.
Example 1: 12, 20, 30, 42……..
This series is formed by squaring a term and adding the same term to the square.
32 +3 = 12, 42 +4 = 20, 52 +5 = 30, 62 +6 = 42, 72 +7 = 56.
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So, the next term will be 56.
Example 2: 3, 7, 13, 21………
12 + 2, 2 + 3, 32 + 4, 42 + 5, 52 +6.
So, the next term will be 31.
Type 9: Series formed by subtracting or adding something to cubes of successive terms.
Example 1: 0, 6, 24, 60, 120………
13 – 1= 0, 23 – 2 = 6, 33 – 3=24, 53 – 5=120, 63 -6 = 210
So, the next term will be 210.
Example 2: 10, 24, 68, 120………
23 + 2=10, 33 – 3= 24, 43 + 4=68, 53 – 5=120, 63 +6 =222.
So, the next term will be 222.
Type 10: Combination of two different series.
Example 1: 1
2,
3
4,
5
8,
7
16, … … …
The numerators term a series of odd numbers. The series of denominators is formed by multiplying the previous number by 2.
Numerators: 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 ; Denominators: 2, 4, 8, 16, 32
So, the next term will be 9
32
Example 2: 512, 16, 343, 25……..
It is a combination of two series.
83, 42, 73, 52,…….
So, the next term will be 63 = 216.
Type 11: Series formed by adding terms at more than one level
Example: 5, 12, 27, 58, 121, ………
Sol. 5 12 27 58 121 248
+7 +15 +31 +63 +127
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+8 +16 +32 +64
So, the next term will be 248.
Some Important series.
(i) 8, 4, 4, 6, 12………
8 ×1
2= 4, 4×1 = 4, 4 ×
3
2= 6, 6×2=12, 12×
5
2= 30
So, the next term will b 30. (ii) 6, 9, 18, 45……
6 ×3
2= 9, 9×2 = 18, 18 ×
5
2= 45, 45×3=135.
Some point to remember
(i) If a series increases abruptly then it may be a case of series formed by multiplication. Example: 2, 3, 6, 18, 108, 1944. Here, each term is formed by multiplying previous two terms.
(ii) If a series decreases abruptly, then it may be a case of series formed by division. Example: 6120, 1020, 204, 51, 17. 6120 ÷ 6 = 1020, 1020 ÷ 5 = 204, 204 ÷ 4 = 51 and so on.
(iii) If a series decreases in the beginning and then goes on increasing, if may be a case of multiplication by fractional values. Example: 8, 4, 4, 6, 12…….
8 ×1
2= 4, 4×1 = 4, 4 ×
3
2= 6, 6×2=12, and so on.
(iv) The given series may be a combination of two different series in the following cases: (a) Fractional terms are given in the question with numerators
forming one series and denominators forming another series. (b) Series increases and then decreases and again increases and the
decreases and so on. Example: 15, 14, 19, 11, 23, 8, 27……. 1st series ÷ 15, 19, 23, 27………. 2nd series ÷ 14, 11, 8……..
(c) When more terms are given in the question as compared to normal cases. For example in case (b) above we have 7 terms given in the question. In such a situation check for the case of two different series being mixed.
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EXERCISE
Directions (1-20): What will come in
place of question mark (?) in the
following number series?
1. 2, 3, 5, 7, ?
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c)
(d) 11 (e) None of these
2. 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ?
(a) 17 (b) 18 (c) 20
(d) 21 (e) None of these
3. 4, 9, 16, 25?
(a) 49 (b) 30 (c) 36
(d) 42 (e) None of these
4. 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23?
(a) 18 (b) 28 (c) 27
(d) 22 (e) None of these
5. 41, 43, 47, 53, 59?
(a) 61 (b) 67 (c) 64
(d) 65 (e) None of these
6. 3, 6, 11, 18, 27?
(a) 29 (b) 67 (c) 64
(d) 36 (e) None of these
7. 4, 9, 19, 34, 54?
(a) 64 (b) 74 (c) 78
(d) 36 (e) None of these
8. 2, 3, 5, 8, 12?
(a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15
(d) 16 (e) None of these
9. 100, 81, 64, 49?
(a) 48 (b) 46 (c) 40
(d) 36 (e) None of these
10. 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, 343?
(a) 443 (b) 612 (c) 512
(d) 36 (e) None of these
11. 56, 63, 70, 77?
(a) 84 (b) 91 (c) 80
(d) 85 (e) None of these
12. 36, 48, 60, 72?
(a) 80 (b) 91 (c) 80
(d) 85 (e) None of these
13. 54, 72, 90, 108?
(a) 110 (b) 115 (c) 120
(d) 126 (e) None of these’
14. 2, 4, 8, 16, 32?
(a) 64 (b) 48 (c) 42
(d) 45 (e) None of these
15. 3, 6, 12, 24, 48?
(a) 64 (b) 70 (c) 94
(d) 96 (e) None of these’
16. 10, 14, 18, 22?
(a) 23 (b) 25 (c) 30
(d) 26 (e) None of these
17. 100, 99, 97, 94, 90?
(a) 92 (b) 95 (c) 85
(d) 93 (e) None of these
18. 3, 9, 27, 81?
(a) 243 (b) 343 (c) 414
(d) 425 (e) None of these
19. 24, 48, 72, 96?
(a) 100 (b) 108 (c) 120
(d) 140 (e) None of these
20. 78, 88, 99, 111?
(a) 112 (b) 115 (c) 118
(d) 124 (e) None of these
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ANSWERS
1. c
2. c
3. d
4. b
5. c
6. b
7. e
8. c
9. c
10. d
11. c
12. a
13. c
14. b
15. c
16. b
17. d
18. d
19. b
20. b
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Figure Completion
A transparent sheet carrying design either side of a dotted line when folded along the line
another design known as paper folding and to identify the pattern to complete the given
figure, which contains a set of figures with quarter part left known as figure completion.
Series Completion
A series is a string of items. In math, a series usually involves a string or sequence of numbers. Some series have a pattern and others are random with no pattern. For example, the counting numbers is a series with a pattern, each term has 1 added to the previous number.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, …
Most series with a pattern will keep going indefinitely. Like the counting numbers, you can keep counting forever, you'll never finish counting as there will always be one more. In math, you'll come across series problems that test your logic skills. Some will ask you to find a pattern and then to complete the series either by finding a missing term or continuing the given series. Other problems will ask you to find which term is the wrong term. To solve these kinds of problems, your first and biggest task is that of finding a pattern. To find a pattern, look for multiplication by a specific number each time or addition of a specific number each time.
Types of series completion
Alphabet series
Number series
Alpha-numeric series
Letter repeating series
Number ranking
CHAPTER
7 FIGURE SERIES COMPLETION
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EXERCISE
Directions: Each of the following questions consists of four/ five figures as the problem figure followed by four/five figures marked (a), (b), (c), (d), and (e) as the answer figures. Select the correct answer figure which will continue the series as established by the problem figures.
1:
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) None Of These
2:
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) None Of These
3:
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) None Of These
4:
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) None Of These
Directions: In each item, there are two sets of figures; first four figures named problem figures and next four figures named answer figures indicated as (a), (b), (c) and (d). The problem figures follow a particular sequence. In accordance with the same, which one of the four answer figures should appear as the fifth figure.
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5:
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
6:
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
Other types of series might be the non-verbal series completion based questions. In the formation of the figure, the candidate has to use the fragmented part to construct the desired figure. Formation of figure requires a high spatial visualization skill. As different fragmented parts of a figure are to be combined to form the desired figure. Let us see some practice questions.
7: Which of the following figures shown below, when folded along the dotted lines, will form a pyramid-shaped box with a rectangular base?
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
8: Which of the answers figures include the separate components found in the question figure?
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
9: Among the four answer figures, which one can be formed from the cut-out pieces given below in the question figure?
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
Directions: In each of the following questions, select the alternative in which the specified components of the problem figure are found?
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10:
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
11:
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
12: Which of the following figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) when folded along the lines will produce the problem figure?
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
Q7: Identify the response figure in which the figures given are found.
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
13: Which of the following answer figures can be combined with the question figure, so as to form a square.
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
14: In the following question, complete the missing segment by selecting from the given alternatives, (a), (b), (c) and (d).
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A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
15: Select a figure from the four alternatives, which when placed in the missing portion (?) of the original figure as shown by the figure (X), would complete the pattern.
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
16:
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
17: Select a figure from the four alternatives, which when placed in the missing portion of the original
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
Directions: In each of the following problems, select a figure from the given four alternatives which when placed in the black space of problem figure (X) would complete the pattern.
18:
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
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ANSWERS
1. b
2. c
3. a
4. c
5. c
6. d
7. b
8. a
9. b
10. b
11. b
12. c
13. b
14. a
15. b
16. c
17. b
18. b
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The odd one out
UK (also the odd man out)
a person or thing that is different from
or kept apart from others that form a group or set:
Guess which number of the following sequence is the odd one out.
She was always the odd one out at school - she didn't have many friends.
Thesaurus: synonyms and related words
Different and difference
a breath of fresh air idiom
a fine line idiom
a whole new ballgame idiom
a world of difference idiom
alternative
asymmetric
chasm
discordant
disparate
disparity
dissimilar
dissimilitude
distinct
nothing like sb/sth idiom
nuance
otherize
otherness
otherwise
variance
CHAPTER
8 FIGURE ODD ONE OUT
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yawning
The odd man/one out
British English someone or something that is different from the rest of the group or not
included in it Which shape is the odd one out? I was always the odd one out at school.
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EXERCISE
1. Iron Box, Mixie, Computer, Gas Stove a) Iron Box b) Mixi c) Computer d) Gas Stove
2. Tortoise, Crab, Frog, Fish
a) Tortoise b) Crab c) Frog d) Fish
3. 13, 17, 23, 63, 71
a) 63 b) 1 c) 1 d) 23
4. (64, 83), (100, 121), (16, 25), (36, 49)
a) 64, 83 b) 100, 121 c) 16, 25 d) 36, 49
5. (9 - 72), (10 - 90), (8 - 56), (11 - 115)
a) 9 – 72 b) 10 – 90 c) 8 – 5 d) 11 – 115
6. Jeevan Raksha Padak, Param Vir Chakra, Padma Bhusan, Bharat Ratna
a) Jeevan Raksha Padak b) Param Vir Chakra c) Padma Bhusan d) Bharat Ratna 7. Milk, Ghee, Paneer, Butter
a) Milk b) Ghee c) Panee d) Butter
8. Which word will appear fourth in the
dictionary? a) Solitaire b) Soliloquy c) Solitary d) Solitude
9. 7, 8, 12, 20, 37, 62
a) 37 b) 62 c) 12 d) 20
10. 1, 8, 27, 65, 125, 216
a) 1 b) 65 c) 12 d) 216
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ANSWERS
1. d 2. d 3. a 4. a 5. d 6. b
7. a 8. d 9. d 10. b
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“BASIS MATHEMATICS”
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Percent: The term ‘percent’ is derived from the Latin word “Per centum”. It implies “out of every
hundred”.
The symbol ‘%’ is used to denote percentage. For example, 15% means 15 out of 100. Each ratio can be
expressed as a percentage.
For example, 1
2 can be expressed as a percentage by multiplying by 100;
1
2×100= 50%
A given percentage value can be converted to corresponding fraction by dividing by 100.
Example: 75% = 75 out of hundred = 75
100=
3
4
Percentage fraction conversion chart:
1
2=50%
5
6=83
1
3%
2
9=22
2
9%
1
3=33
1
3%
1
7 = 14
2
7%
1
10= 10%
2
3=66
2
3%
2
7=28
4
7%
1
11=9
1
11%
1
4=25%
3
7 =42
6
7%
2
11=8
2
11%
3
4=75%
1
8=12
1
2%
1
12=18
2
11%
1
5=20%
3
8=37
1
2%
5
12=41
2
3%
2
5=40%
5
8= 62
1
2%
1
15=6
2
3%
3
5=60%
7
8= 87
1
2%
1
20=5%
4
5=80%
1
9=11
1
9%
1
25=4%
1
6=16
2
3%
CHAPTER
1 PERCENTAGE
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Formula to calculate percentage value: y% of x = (𝑦
100) × 𝑥
From the above formula, we have the following result: x% of y = y% of x.
Whenever we have two numbers a and b, one number can be expressed as percentage of the other as follows:
x as a percent of y =𝑥
𝑦× 100.
Percentage increase or decrease.
Percentage increase = increase in the quantity
original quantity× 100
Percentage increase = decrease in the quantity
original quantity× 100
For example, if the net profit of a company grew from 50 crore in 2003 to 75 crore in 2004, then the percentage increase in the net profit from 2003 to 2004 is calculate as follows:
Increase in the net profit = (75-50) crore = 25 crore
This increase is on Rs. 50 crore.
So, Percentage increase = increase in profit from 2003 to 2004
Net profit in 2003× 100 =
25
50× 100 = 50%
When a quantity increase or decreases by some percent, the new value of the quantity can be directly calculated as follows:
If the original quantity is 120 and it increase by 25%, then the new quantity is: 1.25×120=150
(Here, 1.25 = 1+0.25, where 0.25 is equivalent to 25%)
Similarly, if there is a decrease by 25% on 120, then the new quantity is: 0.75×120=90
(Here, 0.75 = 1-0.25, where 0.25 is equivalent to 25%)
Some important conclusions:
i. If x is a% more than y, then y is (a
100+a× 100)% less than x.
ii. If x is a% less than y, then y is (a
100−a× 100)% more than x.
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Example: If in an examination, the marks secured by Prerna are 20% less than that of
Vinita, then marks secured by Vinita are how much percent more than Prerna’s marks?
Solution: a = 20%
According to the above formula; required percentage = (𝑎
100−𝑎× 100) % =
20
80× 100=25%.
iii. If a number is first increased by a% and then decreased by a% then the net effect is
always a decrease which is equal to ‘a’% of a’ i.e., 𝑎2
100%
Example: The salary of a worker is first increased by 5% and then it is decreased by 5%.
What is the change in his salary?
Solution: Here a = 5%
There will be a net decrease; Percent decrease = 𝑎2
100% =
52
100% = 0.25%
iv. If a quantity is first changed (increased or decreased) by a% and then changed (
increased or decreased) by b%, then
Net change = [±𝑎 ± 𝑏 +(±𝑎)(±𝑏)
100]%
Net change is an increase or a decrease according to the positive or negative sign,
respectively of the final result.
Example: The price of an article is first increased by 20% and then decreased by 25% due
to reduction in sales. Find the net percent change in the final price of the article.
Solution: a = 20%, b= 25%
Required percentage change = (20 + 25 +20×(−25)
100)% = (-5-5) % = -10%
So, there is a net decrease of 10% in the final price of the article as the final result
is negative.
v. If the price of a commodity increases or decreases by a%, then the decrease or
increase in consumption, so as not to increase or decrease the expenditure is equal
to (𝑎
100±𝑎) ×100%
vi. If the population of a town P and it increases (or decreases) at the rate of R% per
annum, then
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i. Population after n years = P (1 ±R
100)
n
ii. Population n years ago = P
(1±R
100)
n
(‘+’ sign for increment; ‘-‘ sign for decrement).
Some tricks to calculate faster:
i. Splitting the percentage into parts.
Example: Find 51% of 128.
Solution: 51% of 128 = (50+1) % of 128 = 50% of 128+1% of 128 = 64+1.28=65.28
ii. Interchanging the percentage value and the number
Example: Find 39% of 12.5
Solution: 39% of 12.5 = 12.5% of 39 = 1
8× 39 = 4.875
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. How is 3
4 expressed as percentage?
a) 0.75%
b) 7.5%
c) 75%
d) 60%
e) None of these
2. The ratio 5: 4 expressed as a percent
equals
a) 12.5%
b) 40%
c) 80%
d) 125%
e) None of these
3. What is 28% of 36% of 5
7 th of 5000?
a) 360
b) 375
c) 420
d) 480
e) None of these
4. 3.5 can be expressed in terms of
percentage as:
a) 0.35%
b) 3.5%
c) 35%
d) 350%
e) None of these
5. What is 15 percent of Rs. 34?
a) Rs. 3.40
b) Rs. 3.75
c) Rs. 4.50
d) Rs. 5.10
e) None of these
6. 88% of 370+24% of 210-?= 118
a) 256 b) 258 c) 268
d) 358 e) None of these
7. 860% of 50+50% of 860=?
a) 430 b) 516 c) 860
d) 960 e) None of these
8. 60% of 264 is the same as:
a) 10% of 44 b) 15% of 1056
c) 30% of 132 d) 17% of 544
e) None of these
9. 270 candidates appeared for an
examination, of which 252 passed.
The pass percentage is?
a) 80% b) 831
2% c) 90
1
3%
d) 931
3% e) None of these
10. What percent of Rs. 2650 is Rs.
1987.50?
a) 60% b) 75% c) 80%
d) 85% e) None of these
11. What percent of a day is 3 hours?
a) 121
2% b) 16
1
3% c) 18
2
3%
d) 221
2% e) None of these
12. How many litres of pure acid are there
in 8 litres of a 20% solution?
a) 1.4 b) 1.5 c) 1.6
d) 2.4 e) None of these
13. Which one of the following shows the
best percentage?
a) 384
540 b)
425
500 c)
570
700
d) 480
660 e) None of these
14. 0.15% of 33 1
3% of Rs. 10,000 is?
a) Rs. 0.05 b) Rs. 5 c) Rs. 105
d) Rs. 150 e) None of these
15. 45% of 1500+35% of 1700 = ?% of
3175
a) 30 b) 35 c) 45
d) 50 e) None of these
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16. An Agent gets a commission of 2.5%
on the sales of cloth. If on a certain
day, he gets Rs. 12.50 as commission,
the cloth sold through him on that day
is worth?
a) Rs. 250 b) Rs. 500 c) Rs. 750
d) Rs. 1250 e) None of these
17. If Rs. 2800 is 2
7th of the value of a
house, the worth of the house (in Rs.)
is?
a) 8,00,000 b) 9,80,000
c) 10,00,000 d) 12,00,000
e) None of these
18. If 35% of a number is 175, then what
percent of 175 is that number?
a) 35% b) 65% c) 280%
d) 420% e) None of these
19. If 35% of a number is 12 less than
50% of that number then the number
is:
a) 40 b) 50 c) 60
d) 80 e) None of these
20. What percentage of numbers from 1
to 70 have squares that end in the
digit 1?
a) 1% b) 14% c) 20%
d) 21% e) None of these
21. If 75% of a number is added to 75,
then the result is the number itself.
The number is:
a) 50 b) 60 c) 300
d) 400 e) None of these
22. The sum of two numbers is 2490. If
6.5% of one number is equal to 8.5%
of the other, then the numbers are:
a) 989, 1501 b) 1011, 1479
c) 1401, 1089 d) 1411, 1079
e) None of these
23. When any number is divided by 12,
then dividend comes 1
4th of the other
number. By how much percent first
number is greater than the second
number?
a) 150
b) 200
c) 300
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
24. If one number is 80% of the other and
the sum of their square is 656, then
the numbers are:
a) 4, 5 b) 8, 10 c) 16, 20
d) 14, 12 e) None of these
25. A person’s salary has increased from
Rs. 7200 to Rs. 8100. What is the
percentage increase in his salary?
a) 25% b) 18% c) 162
3%
d) 121
2% e) None of these
26. A’s salary is 20% less than B’s salary.
Then B’s salary is more than A’s salary
by:
a) 331
2% b) 16
2
3% c) 20%
d) 25% e) None of these
27. If the price of petrol is increased by
20%, by what percentage should the
consumption be decreased by the
consumer, if the expenditure on petrol
remains unchanged?
a)16 2
3% b) 6
2
3% c) 8%
d) 15% e) None of these
28. The price of an article Rs. 100 Its price
is increased by 10%, then again its
price is increased by 10%. How much
is increased in total price?
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a) 20 b) 21 c) 110
d) 121 e) None of these
29. An agent sells goods of value of Rs.
15000. The commission which he
receives is 121
2% , is what amount?
a) Rs. 1875
b) Rs. 2125
c) Rs. 2000
b) Rs. 2700
e) None of these
30. The monthly income of a person is Rs.
5000. If his income is increased by
30%, then what is his monthly income
now?
a) Rs. 7000 b) Rs. 5500 c) 4500
d) Rs. 6500 e) None of these
31. The price of a certain article is Rs.
15000. But due to slump in the
market, its price decrease by 8%. Find
the new price of the article?
a) Rs. 14000
b) Rs. 13800
c) Rs. 16500
d) Rs. 12600
e) None of these
32. A man losses 20% of his money. After
spending 25% of the remainder, he
has Rs. 480 left. What is the amount of
money he originally had?
a) Rs. 600 b) Rs. 720 c) Rs. 720
d) Rs. 840 e) None of these
33. 15% of 10% 0f 20% of 1000 is?
a) 1.50 b) 67 c) 150
d) 3 e) None of these
34. If the numerator of a fraction is
increased by 120% and denominator
is also increased by 350% then the
fraction becomes 11
27 what was
fraction?
a) 4
5 b)
5
6 c)
6
5
d) 5
4 e) None of these
35. If 40% of a number is equal to two-
third of another number, what is the
ratio of first number to the second
number?
a) 2:5 b) 3:7 c) 5:3
d) 7:3 e) None of these
36. A batsman scored 110 runs which
included 3 boundaries and 8 sixes.
What percent of his total score did he
make by running between the
wickets?
a) 45% b) 455
11% c) 54
6
11%
d) 55% e) None of these
37. If 50% of (x-y)= 30% of (x+y), then
what percent of x is:
a) 20% b) 25% c) 30%
d) 40% e) None of these
38. In expressing a length 81.472 km as
nearly as possible with three
significant digits, find the percentage
error?
a) 0.1% b) 0.034% c) 0.0020%
d) 0.4% e) None of these
39. Difference of two numbers is 1600. If
7.5% of one number is 12.5% of the
other number, find the two numbers?
a) 2490, 4000
b) 2400, 4150
c) 2490, 4150
d) 2500, 4200
e) None of these
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40. Sixty-five percent of a number is 21
less than four-fifth of that number.
What is number?
a) 100 b) 120 c) 140
d) 160 e) None of these
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SOLUTIONS
1. (c): 3
4= (
3
4× 100)% = 75%
2. (d): 5: 4 = 5
4= (
5
4× 100)% = 125%
3. (a): Given expression = (28
100×
36
100×
5
7× 5000)
= 360
4. (d): 3.5 can be expressed as
(3.5×100)% = 350%
5. (d): 15
100× 34 = 5.10 Rs.
6. (b): 88
100×370 +
24
100× 210 – x = 118
x = 325.6 + 50.4 - 118 =376 –
118=258
7. (c): 860
100× 50 +
50
100× 860 =
860
100(50 + 50) =860
8. (b): 60
100× 264 = 158.40
15
100×1056=158.40
9. (d): Passing percentage = 252
270×
100=931
3%
10. (b): Required percentage = 1987.50
2650×
100=75%
11. (a): Percentage = 3
24× 100 = 12
1
2%
12. (c): Litres of pure acid = 20
100×8=1.6
litres
13. (b): Best percentage = 425
500
14. (b): 15
100×100×
100
300× 10000 = Rs. 5
15. (e): 45
100× 1500 +
35
100× 1700 =
𝑥
100×
3175
x = 1270×100
3175 = 40
16. (b): Let the worth of cloth be x
x ×2.5
100 = 12.50 x =
12500
25
x = Rs. 500
17. (e): Worth of the house = 2800×7
2 =
9800 Rs.
18. (e): 35% is = 175 100% = 175
35×
100 = 500
Required percentage = 500
175×
100 = 285.71%
19. (d): Let the number is x
50
100𝑥 −
35
100𝑥 = 12
15𝑥
100 =12
x = 12×100
15 x = 80
20. (c): Total such numbers = 14
Required percentage = 14
70× 100 =
20%
21. (c): Let the number be x. 75
100x + 75 = x x−
3
4x = 75
x
4= 75 x=300
22. (d): Let the two numbers be x and y.
x + y = 2490 65
1000x =
85
1000y
x = 17
13y
17
13y + y = 2490
30y
13 = 2490 y =
2490×13
30
y = 1079 x = 2490-1079 x=
1411
23. (b): Let the first and Second number
be x and y
X
12=
y
4
x
y=
3
1
Required percentage = 3−1
1×
100 = 200%
24. (c): Let the numbers be x and y.
x ×80
100= y
4x
4= y
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x
y=
5
4 [
x = 5Ky = 4K
]
x2+y2=656 25K +16K =656
K = 656
41 K = 4 x = 4×5=20
y = 4×4 = 16
Numbers are 16 and 20
25. (d): Percentage increase in Salary = 900
7200×100
= 100
8= 12
1
2%
26. (d): Let B’s salary be = 100, A’s salary
= 80
Required percentage = 20
80×
100=25%
27. (a): Let the price of petrol be 100
Increase Price = 120
Required Percentage = 120−100
120×
100
= 100
6= 16
2
3%
28. (d): Increase Price = 110
100×
110
100× 100 =
121
29. (a): Commission = 15000×25
200=
15000
8
= 1875 Rs.
30. (d): Increase Monthly income =
5000×130
100
= 6500 Rs.
31. (b): New Price of the article =
15000×92
100
= 13800 Rs.
32. (e): Money left = 100% -20% -
[100%-20%] 25
100%
= 100% -20% -20% = 60%
60% = 480 100% = 480
60×
100 = Rs. 800
33. (d): 15
100×
10
100×
20
100× 1000 = 3
34. (b): Let the number will be x
y
Increased number = x+
120
100x
y+350
100y
=
11
27
220x
100450y
100
x
y=
11
27×
45
22
Original Fraction x
y=
5
6
35. (c): Let the Numbers be x and y. 40
100x =
2
3y
2
5x =
2
3y
x
y=
5
3 x : y = 5: 3
36. (b): Run scores from boundaries and
sixes
= 3×4+8×6=60
Required percentage by Running
between the wickets = 110−60
110×
100 =500
11= 45
5
11%
37. (b): 50
100(x − y) =
30
100(x + y)
5x-5y = 3x+3y 2x= 8y y
x=
1
4
Required percentage = 1
4× 100 =
25%
38. (b): Error = (81.5-81.472)= 0.028
Required percentage = 0.028
81.472×100=0.034%
39. (e): Let the number be x and y
x-y = 1600 75
1000x =
125
1000y
x = 5
3y
5
3y − y = 1600
2y
3 = 1600 y = 2400
x = 1600 + 2400 =4000
40. (c): Let the number be x
65
100x + 21 =
4
5x
4x
5−
13x
20=21
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16x−13x
20 = 21
3x
20 =21 x = 140
Average: Average is defined as the sum of different data (terms) divided by total number
of terms
Average= Sum of given terms(S)
Total number of terms(N)
Example: Find the average of given terms 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
Sol. Total number of terms = 5
Average=2+3+4+5+6
5= 4
Some Basic formulae
1. Average of ‘n’ natural numbers = (𝑛+1)
2
2. Average of ‘n’ even numbers = (n+1)
3. Average of ‘n’ odd numbers = n
4. Average of ‘n’ consecutive natural numbers = First number+Last number
2
5. Average of sum of squares of first ‘n’ natural numbers = (n+1)(2n+1)
6
Some Important Points
1. If the value of each number is increased by the same value ‘a’, then the average of all
numbers will also increase by ‘a’.
2. If the value of each number is decreased by the same value ‘a’, then the average of all
numbers will also decrease by ‘a’.
3. If the value of each number is multiplied by the same value ‘a’, then the average of all
numbers will also get multiplied by ‘a’.
4. If the value of each number is divided by the same value ‘a’, then the average of all
numbers will also get divided by ‘a’.
Some useful Formulae
1. If the average of ‘x’ numbers is a and that of ‘y’ numbers is b, then the average of (x +
y) numbers = xa+yb
x+y
CHAPTER
2 AVERAGE
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Example: The average of 10 numbers is 15 and that of 15 numbers is 20. Find the
average of all 25 numbers?
Sol: Average=10×5+15×20
10+15=
150+300
25=
450
25= 18
2. If the average of ‘n’ quantities is equal to ‘x’ when a quantity is removed the average
becomes ‘y’. Then the value of the removed quantity is = [n(x-y)+y]
Example: The average of 24 men and 1 woman is equal to 35 years. If 1 woman left,
the average becomes 34 years. Find the age of woman who left the class?
Sol: Age of women = [25(35-34) +34] =59 years
3. If the average of marks obtained by ‘n’ students in an exam is ‘M’. If the average
marks of passed students is ‘P’ and that of failed students is ‘F’. Then the number of
students who failed in exam is n(P−M)
P−F
No. of failed students =Total students(Passed average−Total average)
Passed average−Failed average
Example: The average marks obtained by 125 students in an exam is 29. If the
average marks of passed students is 36 and that of failed students is 11. Find the
number of failed students?
Sol: No of failed students = 125(36−29)
36−11=
125×7
25= 35
4. If a batsman in his nth innings makes a score of ‘s’ and thereby increased his average
by ‘t’ then the average after ‘n’ innings is [s-t(n-1)]
Example: A batsman in his 44th innings makes a score of 86 and thereby increases
his average by 1. Find the average after 44 innings?
Sol: Average after 44th innings = (86-1(44-1) = 86-43=43
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The arithmetic mean of 15 numbers is
41.4. Then the sum of these numbers
is
a) 414 b) 420 c) 620
d) 621 e) None of these
2. If 25a + 25b = 115, what is the average
of a and b?
a) 2.5 b) 3.4 c) 4.5
d) 4.6 e) None of these
3. Find the average of all the numbers
between 6 and 34 which are divisible
by 5.
a) 18 b) 20 c) 24
d) 30 e) None of these
4. A motorist covered the first 20 km of
his journey in 30 minutes and the
remaining 29 km in 40 minutes. His
average speed in km/hr is:
a) 413
4 b) 42 c) 49
d )571
6 e) None of these
5. A cyclist goes from a place to another
and returns by the same route. He
pedals his way uniformly with a speed
u while going and with speed v while
returning. The average speed of his
journey is:
a) 𝑢+𝑣
2 b)
𝑢−𝑣
2 c)
11
2(
1
𝑢+
1
𝑣)
d) 1
1
2(
1
𝑢−
1
𝑣) e) None of these
6. The mean of 19 observations is 4. If
one more observation is 24 is added
to the data, the new mean will be:
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6
d) 7 e) None of these
7. A student bought 4 books for Rs. 120
from one book shop and 6 books for
Rs. 150 from another. The average
price (in rupees), he paid per book
was:
a) 27 b) 27.50 c) 135
d) 138 e) None of these
8. The average of the price per kg. of rice
at 10 different places was Rs. 4.85.
After a week, the price per kg was
increased by 20 paise at 3 places and
decreased by 10 paise at one place.
The new average of price per kg is:
a) Rs. 4.88 b) Rs. 4.86 c) Rs. 4.90
d) Rs. 5.35 e) None of these
9. The average weight of a group of 20
boys was calculated to be 89.4 kg and
it was later discovered that one
weight was misread as 78 kg instead
of the correct one 87 kg. The correct
average weight is:
a) 88.95 kg b) 89.25 kg c) 89.55 kg
d) 89.85 kg e) None of these
10. A class has 20 boys and 30 girls. The
average age of boys is 11 years and
that of girls is 12 years. What is the
average age of the whole class?
a) 11.6 years
b) 12 years
c) 10 years
d) 11.2 years
e) None of these
11. Find the average of the following set
of scores 253, 124,255, 534, 836, 375,
101, 443, 760
a) 427 b) 413 c) 141
d) 490 e) None of these
12. What will be the average of even
numbers between 11 to 63?
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a) 37.5 b) 47 c) 42
d) 37 e) None of these
13. Find average of all prime numbers
between 60 and 90
a) 72 b) 74.7 c) 74
d) 73.6 e) None of these
14. Average age of 5 boys is 16 yr of
which that of 4 boys is 16 yr 3 months.
The age of the 5th boy is
a) 15 yr
b) 15yr 6months
c) 15yr 4months
d) 15yr 2months
e) None of these
15. The average age of 30 girls is 13 yr.
The average of first 18 girls is 15 yr.
Find out the average age of remaining
12 girls?
a) 12 yr b) 10 yr c) 16 yr
d) 10.5 yr e) None of these
16. The average of 13 results is 60. If the
average of first 7 results is 59 and that
of last 7 results is 61, what will be the
seventh result?
a) 90 b) 50 c) 75
d) 60 e) None of these
17. The average of nine numbers is 50.
The average of the first five numbers
is 54 and that of the last three
numbers is 52. Then, the sixth number
is?
a) 34 b) 24 c) 44
d) 30 e) None of these
18. The average age of 30 women
decreases by 3 months if a new person
Neha is included in place of a 25 yrs
old woman. Calculate the age of Neha?
a) 17.5 yr b) 20 yr c) 30 yr
d) 22 yr e) None of these
19. The average salary per head of all
workers of an institution if Rs. 60. The
average salary per head of 12 officers
is Rs. 400. The average salary per
head of the rest is Rs. 56. Then, the
total number of workers in the
institution is?
a) 1030 b) 1032 c) 1062
d) 1060 e) None of these
20. A cricketer scored some runs in his
continuous 9 innings. He scored 100
runs in his 10th innings and this
increased his average by 8 runs. What
was the average of his runs at the end
of 10th innings?
a) 20 b) 24 c) 28
d) 32 e) None of these
21. The average age of three boys is 15 yr.
If the ratio of their ages is 3:5:7, what
is the age of the oldest boy?
a) 7 yr b) 14 yr c) 20 yr
d) 21 yr e) None of these
22. Nine friends have a dinner in a hotel.
Eight of them spent Rs. 12 each on
their meals and the ninth spent Rs. 16
more than the average expenditure of
all the nine. Find out the total money
spent by them?
a) Rs. 126 b) Rs. 135 c) Rs. 111
d) Rs. 141 e) None of these
23. The average of certain first
consecutive even number is 101. Find
their sum?
a) 25,000 b) 33,600 c) 10,100
d) 24,960 e) none of these
24. The average of certain first
consecutive natural numbers is 20.5.
Find their sum.
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a) 282 b) 450 c) 518
d) 820 e) None of these
25. If the average of m numbers is n2 and
that of n numbers is m2, then the
average of (m+n) numbers is-
a) 𝑚
𝑛 b) m + n c) mn
d) M – n e) None of these
26. A, B, C, D & E are five consecutive even
numbers. Average of A and E is 46.
What is the largest number?
a) 52 b) 42 c) 50
d) 48 e) None of these
27. Of the three numbers whose average
is 60, the first is one-fourth of the sum
of the others. The first number is
a) 30 b) 36 c) 42
d) 45 e) None of these
28. The average salary of 15 persons is Rs.
5,500. If the salary of one person is
added, the average increases to Rs.
5,700. What is the salary of this one
person?
a) Rs. 8,700 b) Rs. 9,500 c) Rs. 7,800
d) Rs. 8,500 e) None of these
29. The average weight of 24 students is
35 kgs. If the weight of teacher is
added the average increased by 400
gms. What is the weight of the
teacher?
a) 45 b) 36 c) 54
d) 63 e) None of these
30. The average of runs of a cricket player
of 10 innings was 32. How many runs
must he score in his next innings so as
to increase his average of runs by 4?
a) 76 b) 70 c) 4
d) 2 e) None of these
31. 10kg of rice prices at Rs. 12 per kg is
mixed with 6 kg of rice priced at Rs.
16 per kg. Find the average price of
the whole mixture?
a) Rs. 14 per kg
b) Rs. 14.50 per kg
c) Rs. 13 per kg
d) Rs. 13.50 per kg
e) None of these
32. The average of 5 quantities is 6. The
average of three of them is 4. What is
the average of remaining two
quantities?
a) 2 b) 5 c) 9
d) 7 e) None of these
33. The average of five numbers is 6.9. If
one of the numbers is deleted, the
average of the remaining numbers is
4.4. What is the value of the number
deleted?
a) 12.5 b) 17.2 c) 16.9
d) 16.8 e) None of these
34. The average age of Seema, Asha,
Kavita and Atrye is 40 years. The
average age of Seema and Sapna is 35
years and the average age of Asha and
kavita is 42 years. The age of Atrye is?
a) 48 b) 47 c) 46
d) 32 e) None of these
35. The average of 11 numbers is 10.9. If
the average of the first six is 10.5 and
the average of last six is 11.4, find the
middle (sixth) number.
a) 11 b) 10.6 c) 11.5
d) 10.45 e) None of these
36. The average temperature from
Monday to Thursday is 48C and from
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Tuesday to Friday, the average
temperature is 52C. If the
temperature on Monday is 42C, what
was it on Friday?
a) 46C b)58C c) 50C
d) 45C e) None of these
37. Find the average of first 25 multiples
of 5.
a) 65 b) 60 c) 75
d) 80 e) None of these
38. What was the average daily
expenditure of a man in 1999 who
spent Rs. 76535 in the first half year
and Rs. 88165 in the last?
a) Rs. 450 b) Rs. 451.32
c) Rs. 451.23 d) Rs. Rs. 450.23
e) None of these
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SOLUTIONS
1. (d): Sum of numbers = (41.4×15) =
621.
2. (e): 25a + 25b = 115 25 (a + b) =
115
a + b= 115
25=
23
5
Average of a and b = 𝑎+𝑏
2=
23
5×
1
2=
23
10=2.3
3. (b): Average = (10+15+20+25+30
5) =
100
5
= 20
4. (b): Total distance covered = (20+29)
km = 49 km
Total time taken = (30+40) min =
70 min
Average speed = (49
70× 60) = 42
km/hr
5. (c): Let one way distance be ‘x’
Total distance = 2x
Total time taken = (x
u+
x
v)
Average speed = 2𝑥
𝑥
𝑢+
𝑥
𝑣
=1
1
2(
1
𝑢+
1
𝑣)
6. (b): New mean = (19×4+24
20) =
100
20 = 5
7. (a): Cost of 10 books = Rs. (120+150)
= Rs 270
Average cost = Rs. (270
10) = Rs. 27
8. (c): The sum of price of per kg rice at
10 different places = 4.85×10=48.5
Increased price = 20×3-10×1 = 50
paise
Sum of the increased price of rice
at 10 different places = 48.50 + 0.50
= 49.0 Rs.
New Average = 49
10 = 4.90 Rs.
9. (d): Total weight of 20 boys =
89.4×20= 1788 kg
Increase in weight due to
misreading
= 87 – 78 = 9 kg
Correct weight of 20 boys =
1788+9=1797 kg
Correct average weight = 1797
20 =
89.85 kg
Shortcut:
Increase in weight = 9 kg
New average = 89.4 + 9
20 = 89.85 kg
10. (a): Sum of the Age of 20 boys =
20×11= 220 years
Sum of the age of 30 girls = 30×12=
360 years
Total age of 20 boys and 30 girls =
220+360 = 580 years
Average age of the whole class = 580
50
= 11.6 years
11. (e): Average
= 253+124+255+534+836+375+101+443+760
9
= 409
12. (d): Total even no = 63−11
2=
52
2 = 26
Sum of the even number between
11 to 63
= 26
2[2 ×12+ (26-1) ×2] =
13[24+50]
= 13×73 = 962
Average of even numbers between
11 to 63
= 962
26 = 37
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13. (b): Average of all prime numbers
between 60 to 90
= 61+67+71+73+79+83+89
7=
523
7 = 74.7
14. (a): Total age of 5 boys = 16×5 = 80
years
Total age of 4 boys = (63
12) × 4=
16.25×4 = 65
The age of the 5th boy = 80-65= 15
years
15. (b): Total age of 30 girls = 30×13=
390 years
Total age of 18 girls = 18×15= 270
years
Average age of remaining 12 girls
= 390−270
12
=120
12 = 10 years
16. (d): Sum of the first 13 Results =
13×60=780
Sum of the first 7 Results = 59×7=
413
Sum of the last 7 Results =
7×61=427
7th Result = Sum of first 7
Results + sum of last 7 Results –
Sum of 13 results = 413+427-780
=840 – 780 =60
17. (b): The sum of 9 numbers = 9×50=
450
Sixth number = sum of 9 numbers –
(Sum of first 5 numbers+ sum of
last 3 numbers)
= 450 - (54×5+52×3) = 450 –
(270+156)
= 450 – 426 = 24
18. (a): Average decreases by 3 months
or 3
12 years.
Sum of the age decreased = 30×3
12=
15
2
= 7.5 years.
Age of Neha = 25 – 7.5 = 17.5
19. (b): Let the total number of workers =
x
According to the question
60x = 12×400+56(x-12)
60x-56x= 4800-672
4x= 4128 x = 1032
20. (c): Let average of 9 innings =x, Total
run = 9x
According to the question 9𝑥+100
10 = x+8
9x+100= 10x+80 x = 20
Average after 10 innings = 20+8 =
28
Shortcut:
Average at the end of 10th innings
= (100-9×8) = 28 runs
21. (d): Total age of all the three boys =
3×15 = 45 years
Given ratio of ages = 3: 5: 7 = 7
3+5+7×45 = 21 years.
22. (a): Let average expenditure of 9
person =x
According to the question
12×8+(x+16) = 9x 8x = 112
x = 112
8 = 14
23. (c): Let the total consecutive even
number = x
Average of consecutive even no =
x+1
x + 1= 101 x = 100
Sum = 101×100= 10100
24. (d): Let the total consecutive natural
number = N
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Average of consecutive natural
number
= 𝑁+1
2
𝑁+1
2 = 20.5 N+1= 41 N
=40
Sum = 40×20.5 = 820
25. (c): Sum of m numbers = n2×m
Sum of n numbers = m2×n
Average of (m + n) = n2×m+m2×n
m+n
= mn(n+m)
(n+m) = mn
26. (c): Let A is x
Then E = x+8
According to question 𝑥+𝑥+8
2 = 46 2x = 84 x= 42
27. (b): Let the first no = x
Sum of the other numbers = 4x
According to question 𝑥+4𝑥
3 = 60 5x=180 x= 36
28. (a): Sum of the salary of 15 persons is
=5500 × 15 =82500
Sum of the salary of 16 persons =
5700×16 = 91200
Salary of this one person is = 91200
– 82500 = 8700
29. (a): Total weight of 24 students =
24×35= 840 kg
Total weight after teacher is added
= 25×35.4
= 885 kg
Weight of teacher = 885 – 840 = 45
kg
30. (a): Let the run scored in 11 th
innings = x
According to the question
10×32+x = 11×(32+4)
320+x = 36×11 x = 396 – 320 =
76
Shortcut:
He must score 32 runs and some
extra runs.
So, in the next innings he should
score:
32+11×4= 76
31. (d): Total price of 10 kg Rice =
12×10= 120
Total price of 6 kg Rice = 16×6 = 96
Average = 120+96
16=
216
16 = 13.50 kg
32. (c): Let the average of remaining two
quantities is y.
According to the question 3×4+2×𝑦
5 = 6 12+2y=30 y = 9
Hence, the average of remaining
two quantities is 9.
33. (c): Average of five numbers.
𝑎+𝑏+𝑐+𝑑+𝑒
5=6.9 a + b + c + d
+ e= 34.5
Let the number is deleted be e. The
average of remaining 4 numbers is
𝑎+𝑏+𝑐+𝑑
4 = 4.4 a + b + c +
d=17.6
Value of deleted number = 34.5 -
17.6 =16.9
34. (c): Total age of Seema + Sapna +
Asha + Kavita + Atrye = 40×5=200
Seema + Sapna= 35×2=70
Asha + Kavita = 42×2=84
Age of Atrye = 200 – (70+84) = 46
years
35. (c): Total first 6 number = 10.5×6=63
Total of last 6 numbers =
11.4×6=68.4
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Total of all 11 number=
11×10.9=119.9
Sixth number = 63+68.4 – 119.9 =
11.5
Hence the middle number is = 11.5
36. (b): Total temp of mon + tues + wed +
thus
= 4×48C= 192C
Temp on Mon = 42C
Temp on Tues + Wed + Thus = 192
– 42 =150C
Total temp for Tues + wed + thus +
Fri
= 52×4= 208C
Tem on Friday = 208 – 150 = 58C
37. (a): Sum of first 25 multiples of 5 =
5(1+2+3…..25)
= 5×25×26
2 = 1625 Average =
1625
25 = 65
38. (c): Total expenditure of a man in
year 1999
= 76535 + 88165 = 164700
Average = 164700
365 = 451.23
39. (a): Let the 7th number be x
According to the question
6×8+x=7×10 x = 70-48=22
40. (c): Total expenditure for first 5
months = 120×5
= 600 Rs.
Total expenditure for next 7
months = 130×7
= 910 Rs.
Total income = Total expenditure of
the whole year + savings.
= 600+910+290=1800 Rs.
Monthly average income = 1800
12 =
Rs. 150
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The concepts of time distance are most important in the terms of competitive exams. The
basic concept of time and distance is used in solving the question based on motion in a
straight line. The applications of time & distance are used to solve the problems related to
trains and races.
The relation between time, distance and speed is:
Distance = Time × Speed
i.e., D = T × S Time (T) = Disatnce
Speed Speed (S) = Distnace
Time
Example: A car covers 200 km in 4 hours, then find the speed of the car.
Sol. We know that, Speed (S) = Distance
Time
Required speed = 200
4 = 50km/h
Conversion of units: (i) When we convert km/h into m/ s, we multiply the speed by 5
18 .
i.e, 1km/h= 5
18 m/s.
(ii) When we convert m/s into km/h, we multiply the speed by 185
. i.e,
1m/s = 185 km/h.
Example: Convert 72km/h into m/s.
Sol. We know that, 72km/h= (72 ×5
18 m/s = 4 ×5 = 20m/s
Concept 1:
Average speed: A certain distance is covered at’x’ km/h and the same distance is covered
at ‘y’ km/h then the average speed during the whole journey.
CHAPTER
3 TIME, SPEED AND DISTANCE
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Average speed = 2xyx+y km/h
Example: Rohit covers a certain distance by car driving at speed of 40 km/h and he returns
back to the starting point riding on a scooter with a speed of 10 km/hr. Find the average
speed of the whole journey?
Sol. Average speed = 2×40×10
40+10 = 2×400
50 = 16km/hr
Concept 2: A person covers a distance in T hours and the first half at S1 km/h and the
second half at S2 km/h, then the total distance covered by the person.
D = 2×T×S1×S2
S1+S2
Example: A car covers a distance in 10hrs, the first half at 40km/h and the second half at
20km/h. Find the distance travelled by car?
Sol. Distance = 2×10×40×20
40+20 km/h = 2×10×40×20
60 = 266.67km
Concept 3: If two persons P and Q start at the same time in opposite directions from two
points and after passing each they complete their journeys in ‘a’ and ‘b’ hrs respectively
then
P's speedQ's Speed = √𝑏
√𝑎
Example: Shivam sets out to cycle from Delhi to Ghaziabad and at the same time Hemant
starts from Ghaziabad to Delhi, after passing each other they complete their journeys in 4
and 16 hours respectively. At what rate does Hemant cycle if Shivam cycle at 18km per
hour?
Sol. Shivam's speedHemant's speed =
√16
√4
18Hemant's speed =
42 Hemant’s speed =
182 = 9km/h
Concept 4: If a man travelled a certain distance by bus at a rate of x km/h and walked back
at the rate of ‘y’ km/h. If the whole journey took ‘t’ hours, then the distance he travelled is (
xyx+y ) t km.
Example: A man travelled a certain distance by train at a rate of 15km/h and walked back
at the rate of 12 km/h. The whole journey took 9 hours. Find the distance he travelled?
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Sol. Required distance = (xy
x+y ) t = (15×1215+12 ) 9 =
15×12×927 = 60km
Concept 5: If a person changes his speed to ab of its usual speed and late by T minutes,
then the usual time taken by him is 𝑇
𝑏
𝑎−1
[𝑎
𝑏< 1] and when [
𝑎
𝑏> 1] then the usual time taken
by him is 𝑇
1−𝑏
𝑎
Example: Walking 45 of his usual speed, a man is 16 minutes late. Find the usual time taken
by him o cover that distance?
Sol: Usual time = 𝑇
𝑏
𝑎−1
= 16
5
4−1
=16×4
5−4=
16×4
1 = 64 minutes.
Concept 6: (i) If speed is constant, then distance is directly proportional to the time; D∝ T
(ii) If time is constant, ten distance is directly proportional to the speed; D∝ S
(iii) If Distance is constant, then speed is inversely proportional to the time; S ∝1
𝑇
Example: A person covers a certain distance with a speed of 54 km/h in 15 min. If he
wants to cover the same distance in 30 min, what should be his speed?
Sol. We know that, Distance = Speed × Time = 54 × 1560 =
910 × 15 =
272 km
Speed to cover 272 km in 30 min =
27
230
60
=27
2× 2 = 27km/h
Concept 7: (i) When a train passes a pole or any other object, the distance covered by train
is equal to the length of the train.
(ii) If a train passes a bridge, platform etc, then distance travel by train is equal to
the sum of the length of train and the stationary object through which the train is passing.
Example: A 100 m long train passes a platform of 200 m long. Find the distance covered by
the train in passing the platform?
Sol. Required distance= length of train + length of platform = 100 + 200 = 300m
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Concept 8: (i) When two trains are moving is opposite directions, then their relative speed
is equal to the sum of the speed of both trains.
(ii) When two trains are moving is same directions, then their relative speed is
equal to the difference of the speed of both trains.
Example: Two trains are moving in the same direction with speed of 40km/ h and 50 km
/h respectively. Find the relative speed?
Sol. Required relative speed = (50-40) km/h= 10km/h
Concept 9: Two trains start at the same time from P and Q and proceed towards each
other at the rate of x km/h and y km/h respectively. When they meet it is found that one as
travelled D km more than the other. The Distance between P and Q is ( x+yx-y ) D,
Distance = Sum of speeds
Difference of speed × Difference in distance
Example: Two trains start at the same time from Kanpur and Delhi and proceed towards
each other at the rate of 74 km/h and 47 km / h respectively. When they meet it is found
that the train has travelled 13km more than the other. Find the distance b/w Kanpur and
Delhi?
Sol. Required Distance = Sum of speeds
Difference of speeds × Difference in Distance = 73+4773-47 × 13 =
12026
×13 = 60km
Concept 10: When the speed of two trains is in the ratio x: y. They are moving in opposite
directions on parallel tracks. The first train crosses a telegraph pole in‘t’ seconds where as
the second train crosses the pole in ‘t2’ seconds. Time taken by the trains to cross each
other completely is given by Time taken = t1x+t2y
x+y = 3×4+3×5
4+5 = 279 = 3 seconds.
Example: The speed of two trains is in the ratio 4:5. They are moving in opposite
directions along the parallel tracks. If each takes 3 seconds to cross a pole. Find the time
taken by the train to cross each other completely?
Sol: Time taken = (𝑡1𝑥+𝑡2𝑦
𝑥+𝑦) =
3×4+3×5
4+5=
27
9= 3 seconds.
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. A man travels first 50 km at 25 kmph,
next 40 km at 20 kmph and then 90
km at 15 kmph. His average speed for
the whole journey (in kmph) is:
(a) 25
(b) 20
(c) 18
(d) 40
(e) None of these
2. A man walks at the rate of 5km/hr for
6 hours and at 4km/hr for 12 hours.
The average speed of the man (in
km/hr) is:
a) 4
b) 412
c) 413
d) 423
e) None of these
3. If a person travels 1015 km in 3 hours,
then the distance covered by him in 5
hours will be:
a) 18 km b) 17km c) 16km
d) 15 km e) None of these
4. If a train 110m long passes a telegraph
pole in 3 seconds, then the time taken
(in seconds) by it to cross a railway
platform 165 m long, is:
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5
d) 7.5 e) None of these
5. A train 700 m long is running at the
speed of 72km/hr. If it crosses a
tunnel in 1 minute, then the length of
the tunnel (in meters) is:
a) 700 b) 600 c) 550
d) 500 e) None of these
6. If a 200 m long train crosses a
platform of the same length as that of
the train in 20 seconds, then the speed
of the train is :
a) 50 km/hr
b) 60 km/hr
c) 72 km/hr
d) 80 km/hr
e) None of these
7. Two trains, each of length 125 meter,
are running in parallel tracks in
opposite directions. One train is
running at a speed 65 km/hour and
they cross each other in 6 seconds.
The speed of the other train is:
a) 75 km/hr
b) 85 km/hr
c) 95 km/hr
d) 105 km/hr
e) None of these
8. A man with 35 of his usual speed
reaches the destination 212 hours late.
Find his usual time to reach the
destination?
a) 4 hours b) 3 hours c) 334
d)412 e) None of these
9. A train running at 7
11 of its normal
speed reached a place in 22 hours.
How much time could be saved if the
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train would have run at its normal
speed?
a) 14 hours
b) 7 hours
c) 8 hours
d) 16 hours
e) None of these
10. Walking at three-fourth of his usual
speed, a man covers certain distance
in 2 hours more than the time he takes
to cover the distance at his usual
speed. The time taken by him to cover
the distance with his usual speed is:
a) 4.5 hours
b) 5.5 hours
c) 6 hours
d) 5 hours
e) None of these
11. A man goes from a place A to B at a
speed of 12 km/ hr and returns from
B to A at a speed of 18 km/hr. The
average speed for the whole journey
is:
a) 1425 km/hr
b) 15 km/hr
c) 15 12 km/hr
d) 16 km/hr
e) None of these
12. Two trains started at the same time,
one from A to B and the other from B
to A. If they arrived at B and A
respectively 4 hours and 9 hours after
they passed each other, the ratio of
the speeds of the two trains was:
a) 2:1 b) 3:2 c) 4:3
d)5:4 e) None of these
13. A starts from a place P to go to a place
Q. At the same time B starts from Q to
P. If after meeting each other A and B
took 16 and 25 hours more
respectively to reach their
destinations, the ratio of their speeds
is:
a) 3:2 b) 5:4 c) 9:4
d) 9:13 e) None of these
14. A train of 320 m cross a platform in 24
seconds at the speed of 120 km/h.
While a man cross platform in 4
minute. What is the speed of man in
m/s?
a) 2.4 b) 1.5 c) 1.6
d) 2.0 e) None of these
15. A car travel first 39 km distance in 45
minute while next 25 km distance in
35 minutes. What is its average speed?
a) 45 km/h
b) 35 km/h
c) 48 km/h
d) 90 km/h
e) None of these
16. A 280 m long train moving with an
average speed of 108 km/h cross a
platform in 12 seconds. A boy crosses
the same platform in 10 seconds.
What is the speed of boy in m/s?
a) 5 m/s b) 8 m/s c) 10 m/s
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
17. A truck cover 224 km in 4 hours, the
average speed of a bike is 14 th the
average speed of the truck how much
distance will the bike cover in seven
hour?
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a) 96 km b) 98 km c) 95 km
d) 92 km e) None of these
18. If a person walks at 14 km/h instead
of 10 km/h he would have walked 20
km more. The actual distance
travelled by him is:
a) 85 km b) 50 km c) 80 km
d) 70 km e) None of these
19. Train fare between Patna to Munger
for one adult is three times the train
fair of one child. If adult fare is 102
then. What will be the fare of 2 adult
and 3 children together for same
distance?
a) 306 b) 212 c) 206
d) 214 e) None of these
20. A car travels a distance of 75 km at the
speed of 25 km/h. It covers the next
25 km of its journey at the speed of 5
km/h and the last 50 km of its journey
at the speed of 25 km/h. What is the
average speed of car?
a) 15 km/h
b) 12.5 km/h
c) 40 km/h
d) 25 km/h
e) None of these
21. If the length of the train is 700 m and
length of platform is 500 m. Find the
time taken by the train moving at 54
km/h to cross platform.
a) 75 sec b) 80 sec c) 85 sec
d) 90 sec e) None of these
22. Amit start to go Delhi from Patna at
speed of 50 km/h. Distance between
Delhi and Patna is 1000 km. He takes
rest of 20 minutes every 3 hours of
journey. How much time will he take
to arrive Delhi?
a) 20 hours
b) 21 hours
c) 22 hours
d) 23 hours
e) None of these
23. A car covers a distance of 330 km in a
certain amount of time at speed of 55
km/h. What is the average speed of
bike that cover distance of 15 km less
than car in 1 hour less than time taken
by car?
a) 50 km/h
b) 60 km/h
c) 63 km/h
d) 65 km/h
e) None of these
24. A car travelling at a speed of 40 km/h
can complete a journey in 9 hours.
How long will it take to travel the
same distance at 60 km/h?
a) 6 hours b) 3 hours c) 4 hours
d) 414 hours e) None of these
25. A 75, meter long train is moving at 20
kmph. It will cross a man standing on
the platform in
a) 12 seconds
b) 14 seconds
c) 13.5 seconds
d) 15.5 seconds
e) None of these
26. In what time will a train 100 meter
long cross an electric pole, if its speed
be 144 km/hour?
a) 2.5 seconds
b) 5 seconds
c) 12.5 seconds
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d) 3 seconds
e) None of these
27. A train running at a speed of 60 kmph
crosses a platform double its length in
32.4 seconds. What is the length of the
platform?
a) 180 m b) 240 m c) 360 m
d) 90 m e) None of these
28. A train running at the speed of 66
kmph crosses a signal pole in 18
seconds. What is the length of the
train?
a) 330 m b) 300 m c) 360 m
d) 320 m e) None of these
29. Two trains of equal length take 10
seconds and 15 seconds respectively
to cross a telegraph post. If the length
of each train be 120 meters, in what
time (in seconds) will they cross each
other travelling in opposite direction?
a) 16 sec b) 15 sec c) 12 sec
d) 10 sec e) None of these
30. A man covers a certain distance by car
driving at 70 km/hr and he returns to
the starting point riding on a scooter
at 55 km/hr. Find his average speed
for the whole journey.
a) 61.6 km/h
b) 62.8 km/h
c) 63.6 km/h
d) 64.6 km/hr
e) None of these
31. A boy walking at a speed of 10 km/hr
reaches his school 15 minutes late.
Next time he increases his speed by 2
km/hr, but still he is late by 5 minutes.
Find the distance of his school from
his house.
a) 10 km b) 15 km c) 20 km
d) 25 km e) None of these
32. A motor car does a journey in 10 hrs,
the first half at 21 km/hr and the
second half at 24 km/hr. Find the
distance?
a) 224 km b) 225 km c) 226 km
d) 228 km e) None of these
33. Two men A and B starts from a place P
walking at 3 km and 3.5 km an hour
respectively. How many kms will they
be apart at the end of 3 hrs, if they
walk in opposite directions?
a) 13.5 km b) 15.5 km c) 17.5 km
d) 19.5 km e) None of these
34. What is the length of the bridge on
which a man riding 15 km an hour can
cross in 5 minutes?
a) 850 m b) 1050 m c) 1250 m
d) Can’t be determined
e) None of these
35. A train moving with the speed of 180
km/hr. Its speed (in meters per
second) is:
a) 5 b) 40 c) 30
d) 50 e) None of these
36. If a train, with a speed of 60 km/hr,
crossed a pole in 30 second, the length
of the train (in meters) is:
a) 1000 b) 900 c) 750
d) 500 e) None of these
37. Two trains are moving in the same
direction at 50 km/hr and 30 km/hr.
The faster train crossed a man in the
slower train 18 seconds. Find the
length the faster train?
a) 80 m b) 90 m c) 100 m
d) Can’t be determined
e) None of these
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38. A train running at 25 km/hr takes 18
seconds to pass a platform. Next, it
takes 12 seconds to pass a man
walking at 5 km/hr in the opposite
direction. Find the sum of the length of
the train and that of the platform?
a) 125 m b) 135 m c) 145 m
d) 155 m e) None of these
39. A train is travelling at a rate of 45
km/hr. How many seconds, it will take
to cover a distance of 4/5 km?
a) 36 second
b) 64 second
c) 90 second
d) 120 second
e) None of these
40. A 570 metre long train crosses a
platform of equal length in 15
seconds. What is the speed of the train
in metres/second?
a) 38 b) 54 c) 76
d) 70 e) None of these
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SOLUTIONS
1. (c): Average speed = 50+40+9050
25+
40
20+
90
15
=180
2+2+6=
180
10 = 18 kmph
2. (c): Average speed = 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 =
5×6+4×12
6+12
=30+48
18=
78
18=
13
3= 4
1
3 Km/hr
3. (b): Speed = 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒=
101
5
3=
51
5×
1
3=
17
5 Km/hr
Required distance = speed × time
= 17
5×5 = 17 km
4. (d): Speed of the train = 110
3 m/sec
Required time = (165+110)
110×3
= 275
110×3 = 7.5 sec
5. (d): ( Length of the 1st train + Length
of the tunnel)
= speed × time
x +700= 72×5
18× (1 × 60)
x + 700= 20×60
x + 700 = 1200 x = 1200-700
x= 500 meters.
6. (c): Speed of the train = 200+200
20
= 400
2 = 20 m/sec = 20×
18
5 km/hr
= 72 km/hr
7. (b): Since the trains are moving in
opposite direction
Relative speed = speed of first train +
speed of second train
Let speed of second train = x km/hr
(65+x) ×5
18=
125+125
6 , (65+x) ×
5
18=
250
6
(65+x)= 150 x = 150-65 x = 85
km/hr
8. (c): Let usual time = t, distance = d,
and speed = s
s = d
t …… (i)
and 3
5s =
d
t+21
2
….. (ii)
From equation (i)÷ equation (ii)
s3
5s
=d
td
t+52
5
3=
t+5
2
t 5t = 3t +
15
2
2t = 15
2 t =
15
4= 3
3
4 hours.
9. (c): At normal speed, Let usual time = t
s = d
t …… (i)
and 7
11s =
d
22 ….. (ii)
From equation (i)÷ equation (ii)
s7
11s
=d
td
22
11
7=
22
t t = 14 Hours
Saved time = (22-14) hrs = 8 hrs
10. (c): Let required time = t hours,
s = d
t …… (i)
3
4s =
d
(t+2) ….. (ii)
s3
4s
=d
td
(t+2)
4
3=
t+2
t
4 t = 3t + 6 t = 6 Hours
11. (a): Average speed = 2𝑥𝑦
𝑥+𝑦=
2×12×18
(12+18)
=72
5= 14
2
5 Km/hr
12. (b): From the formula-
Required ratio = √𝑏: √𝑎
= √9 ∶ √4 = 3: 2
13. (b): Required ratio = √𝑏: √𝑎
= √25 ∶ √16 = 5: 4
14. (d): Let length of the platform = x m
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120×5
18=
320+𝑥
24
800= 320+x x = 480 m
Speed of the man = 480
4×60=
120
60 = 2.0
m/sec
15. (c): Average speed
= 39+25
(45+35)×1
60
=64×60
80 = 48 km/hr
16. (b): Let length of the platform = x
108×5
18=
280+𝑥
12 360=
280+x
x = 80 meters
Speed of the boy = 80
10 = 8 m/sec
17. (b): Speed of the truck = 224
4 = 56
km/hr
Average speed of the bike = 56
4 = 14
km/hr
Required distance = 14×7= 98 km
18. (b): When person walks at 14 km/hr
14 = 𝑑
𝑡 …… (i)
Now speed = 10 km/hr
10 = (𝑑+20)
𝑡 ….. (ii)
From eq (i)÷ eq (ii)
14
10=
𝑑
𝑡(𝑑+20)
𝑡
14
10=
𝑑
𝑑+20 4d+280= 10d 4d = 280
𝑑 = 70 Km
Actual distance = 70-20=50 km
19. (a): Given adult fair = 102
Child fair = 102
3 = 34
Required fair = 2(102) +3(34) =
204+102=306
20. (a): Average speed
= 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒=
75+25+5075
25+
25
5+
50
25
=150
3+5+2=
150
10 = 15 kmph
21. (b): Speed = 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 , 54×
5
18=
700+500
𝑡
t = 1200
15 sec t = 80 sec
22. (c): Running time = 1000
50 = 20 hrs
No. of times that he will rest = 20
3≈6
Rest time = 6×20 = 120 min = 2
hours
Total time = (20+2) = 22 hrs
23. (c): Time taken by car = 330
55 = 6 hrs
Average speed of bike = 330−15
6−1=
315
5
= 63 km/hr
24. (a): distance = 40×9= 360 km
Required time = 360
60 = 6 hrs
25. (c): Speed = 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 20×
5
18=
75
𝑡
t = 75×18
100=
54
4 = 13.5 seconds
26. (a): Let required time = t
144×5
18=
100
𝑡 t = 2.5 seconds
27. (c): Speed = 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
Let length of the platform = 2x m 60×5
18=
𝑥+2𝑥
32.4 3x = 1.8×60×5
3x=90×6
x = 30×6= 180 m
Length of the platform = 2x= 360 m
28. (a): Speed = 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 66×
5
18=
𝑑
18
d = 330 m
29. (c): Speed of first time (S1) =120
10 = 12
m/sec
Speed of second train (S2) = 120
15 = 8
m/sec
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Required time = 120+120
(12+8)=
240
20 = 12
m/sec
30. (a): Average speed = 2𝑥𝑦
𝑥+𝑦 =
2×70×55
125
= 61.6 km/hr
31. (a): Let distance = d, time = t
10 = 𝑑
𝑡+15
60
…… (i)
12 = 𝑑
𝑡+5
60
….. (ii)
From eq (i)÷ eq (ii)
10
12=
𝑡+1
12
𝑡+1
4
10
12=
4×(12𝑡+1)
12(4𝑡+1) t =
3
4 hr
d = 10× (3
4+
15
60) = 10 ×
60
60 = 10 km
Shortcut:
Let distance = d 𝑑
10−
𝑑
12=
10
60 d = 10 km
32. (a): Average speed = 2𝑥𝑦
𝑥+𝑦=
2×21×24
45
=112
5 Km/hr
Distance = 112
5×10 km = 224 km
33. (d): Relative speed = (3+3.5) km/hr =
6.5 km/hr
Time = 3 hrs
Required time = (6.5×3)= 19.5 km
34. (c): Let length of the bridge = x
Speed = 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 15=
𝑥
5×60
x = 75
60 km =
5
4 km =
5
4×1000 x =
1250 m
35. (d): Speed in meters per second
= 180×5
18 = 50 m/sec
36. (d): Speed = 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 60×
5
18=
𝑑
30
d = 500m
37. (c): Relative speed of the trains
= (50-30) = 20 km/hr = 20×5
18 m/sec
38. (a): Let length of the train = L1
(25+5) ×5
18=
𝐿1
12
150
18=
𝐿1
12
L1= 100m
25 ×5
18=
100+𝐿2
18 100+L2=125
L2= 25m
Required length (100+25) = 125m
39. (b): Time = 4
5×
1
45 hrs
= 4
5×
1
45× 60 × 60 sec = 64 seconds
40. (c): Speed of the train = 570+570
15
= 1140
15 76 m/sec
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The comparison between two quantities in terms of magnitude is called ratio.
For example, Mohit has 5 pens and Amit has 3 pens. It means the ratio of number of pens
between Mohit and Amit is 5 is to 3. It can be expressed as 5:3.
So the ratio of any two quantities is expresses as 𝑎
𝑏 or a: b. The numerator ‘a’ is called the
antecedent and denominator ‘b’ is called as consequent.
Rule of Ratio: The comparison of two quantities is meaningless if they are not of the same
kind or in the same units (of length, volume or currency etc.). We do not compare 5 girls
and 7 toys or 15 kilometers and 3 cows. Therefore, to find the ratio of two quantities (of the
same kind), it is necessary to explain them in same units.
Properties of Ratio:
1. The nature of ratio does not change when the numerator and denominator both are
multiplied by same quantities.
i.e., 𝑎
𝑏=
𝑘𝑎
𝑘𝑏=
𝑙𝑎
𝑙𝑏 etc e.g.
3
4=
6
8=
9
12….. etc have the same ratio.
2. The value of a ratio does not change when the numerator and denominator both are
divided by same quantities.
i.e., 𝑎
𝑏=
𝑎/𝑘
𝑏/𝑘=
𝑎/𝑙
𝑏/𝑙 etc e.g.
3
4=
3/2
4/2=
3/3
4/3….. etc are in the same ratio.
3. The ratio of two fractions can be expressed in ratio of integers.
e.g. 3/4
5/4=
3
4×
4
5=
3
5 etc
𝑎/𝑏
𝑏/𝑎=
𝑎
𝑏×
𝑑
𝑐
4. When two or more than two ratio are multiplied with each other, then it is called
compounded ratio e.g., 2
3×
4
5×
6
7=
16
35 is compounded ratio of
2
3,
4
5,
6
7
So, 𝑎
𝑏×
𝑑
𝑐×
𝑒
𝑓 …. =
𝑘
𝑚 (compound ratio)
5. When the ratio is compounded with itself, it is called as duplicate, triplicate ratio etc.
𝑎
𝑏×
𝑑
𝑐=
𝑎2
𝑏2=(𝑎
𝑏)
2
is called duplicate ratio of 𝑎
𝑏 and
𝑎
𝑏×
𝑎
𝑏×
𝑎
𝑏= (
𝑎
𝑏)
3
is called triplicate
ratio of 𝑎
𝑏 similarly √(
𝑎
𝑏)=(
𝑎
𝑏) is called as sub-duplicate ratio and √(
𝑎
𝑏)
3= (
𝑎
𝑏)
1
3 is
called as sub-triplicate ratio of 𝑎
𝑏.
CHAPTER
4 RATION AND PROPORTION
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If four quantities a, b, c and d form a proportion, many other proportions may be
deduced by the properties of fraction. The results of these operations are very
useful. These operations are
1. Inverterdo: if 𝑎
𝑏=
𝑐
𝑑 the
𝑏
𝑎=
𝑑
𝑐
2. Alternado: if 𝑎
𝑏=
𝑐
𝑑 then
𝑎
𝑐=
𝑏
𝑑
3. Componendo: if 𝑎
𝑏=
𝑐
𝑑 , then (
𝑎+𝑏
𝑏) = (
𝑐+𝑑
𝑑)
4. Dividendo: if 𝑎
𝑏=
𝑐
𝑑 , then (
𝑎−𝑏
𝑏) = (
𝑐−𝑑
𝑑)
5. Componendo and Dividendo: if 𝑎
𝑏=
𝑐
𝑑 , then (
𝑎+𝑏
𝑎−𝑏) = (
𝑐+𝑑
𝑐−𝑑)
Concept 1: If two numbers are in the ratio of a:b and the sum of these numbers
is x, then these numbers will be 𝑎𝑥
𝑎+𝑏 and
𝑏𝑥
𝑎+𝑏 respectively.
Example: Two numbers are in the ratio of 4:5. If sum of these two numbers is
810, find the numbers?
Sol: Ratio of two numbers = 4:5
Sum= 810
First number = 𝑎𝑥
𝑎+𝑏=
4×810
4+5=360
Second number = 𝑏𝑥
𝑎+𝑏=
5×810
4+5=450
Example: a: b=3:4 and b: c=2:5. Find the a: b: c?
Sol: a : b = 3 : 4
b : c = 2 : 5
a : b : c =3×2: 4×2: 4×5
=6: 8: 20
=3: 4: 10
Example: a: b= 1:2, b: c = 3:2, and c: d=1:3. Find a: b: c: d?
Sol: a b c d
1 2 2 2
3 3 2 2
1 1 1 3
a: b: c: d=1×3×1:2×3×1:2×2×1:2×2×3
=3: 6: 4: 12
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The total number of students in a
school is 2140. If the number of girls
in the school is 1200, then what is the
ratio of the total number of boys to the
total number of girls in the school?
a) 18: 13 b) 26: 25 c) 47: 60
d) 31: 79 e) None of these
2. A person spends Rs. 8100 in buying
some tables at Rs. 1200 each and
some chairs at Rs. 300 each. The ratio
of the number of chairs to that of
tables when the maximum possible
number of tables is purchased is
a) 1: 2 b) 1: 4 c) 2: 1
d) 5: 7 e) None of these
3. The ratio of boys and girls in a club is
3:2. Which of the following could be
the actual number of members?
a) 16 b) 18 c) 24
d) 25 e) None of these
4. One year ago the ratio of Ramu and
Somu age was 6:7 respectively. Four
years hence their ratio would become
7:8. How old is Somu?
a) 24 years b) 30 years
c) 32 years d) 36 years
e) None of these.
5. If 33% of A is equal to 55% of B then
find the ratio of A and B?
a) 3:5 b) 5:3 c) 3:4
d) 5:4 e) None of these
6. What is the value of 68% of two fifth
of 550?
a) 149.6 b) 150 c) 154
d) 158 e) None of these
7. If 24 is deducted from 45% of a
number result becomes 48. What will
be 3
8 part of that number?
a) 140 b) 130 c) 145
d) 150 e) 60
8. 30% of a number is 190.8. What will
be 175% of that number?
a) 1113 b) 1115 c) 1502
d) 1002 e) None of these
9. What will be 32% of 3
8 th of 1000?
a) 115 b) 125 c) 120
d) 129 e) None of these
10. Two numbers are respectively 20%
and 50% more than a third number.
The ratio of the two numbers is:
a) 2:5 b) 3:5 c) 4:5
d) 6:7 e) None of these
11. A sum of money is to be distributed
among A, B, C, D in the proportion of
5: 2: 4: 3. If C gets Rs. 1000 more than
D, what is B’s share?
a) Rs 500 b) Rs 1500 c) Rs 2000
d) Rs 2400 e) None of these
12. If 0.75: x: : 5:8, then x is equal to:
a) 1.12 b) 1.2 c) 1.25
d) 1.30 e) None of these
13. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the
ratio of the first to second is 2: 3 and
that of the second to the third is 5: 8,
Then the second number is:
a) 20 b) 30 c) 48
d) 58 e) None of these
14. If Rs. 872 is divided into three parts,
proportional to 1
2:2
3:3
4, then the first part
is:
a) Rs 182 b) Rs. 190 c) Rs. 196
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d) Rs. 204 e) None of these
15. The fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 is:
a) 18 b) 24 c) 19
d) 20 e) None of these
16. Two numbers are in the ratio 3: 5. If 9
is subtracted from each, then new
numbers are in the ratio 12: 23. The
smallest number is:
a) 27 b) 33 c) 49
d) 55 e) None of these
17. If a number is reduced by 40% it
become two third of another number.
What is ratio of the second number to
first number?
a) 6: 10 b) 9:8 c) 8:9
d) 10: 9 e) None of these
18. 5𝑎+3𝑏
2𝑎−3𝑏=
23
5 then the value of a: b is:
a) 1:2 b) 1:3 c) 1:4
d)2:3 e) None of these
19. If P:Q=8:15 and Q: R = 3:2, then find
P:Q:R?
a) 8:15:7 b) 7:15:8 c) 8:15:10
d) 10:15:8 e) None of these
20. If P:Q = 8:15, Q:R = 5:8, and R:S = 4:5,
then P:S is equal to:
a) 4:15 b) 2:15 c) 3:19
d) 7:15 e) None of these
21. Find the 4th proportional to 4, 16 and
7?
a) 28 b) 29 c) 22
d) 25 e) None of these
22. Find the mean proportional between 9
and 64?
a) 25 b) 24 c) 27
d) 35 e) None of these
23. What will be the duplicate ratio of 2:7?
a) 4:49 b) 49:4 c) 4:14
d) 8:343 e) None of these
24. Find the sub-duplicate ratio of 81: 64?
a) 8:9 b) 4:9 c) 9:8
d) 7:8 e) None of these
25. Find the triplicate ratio of 7:5?
a) 125:343 b) 343:125 c) 344:125
d) 343:126 e) None of these
26. What will be the inverse ratio of 17:
19?
a) 19:17 b) 18:17 c) 17:18
d) 19:5 e) None of these
27. Find the compound ratio of 2:7, 5:3
and 4:7?
a) 147:40 b) 40:147 c) 147:30
d) 30:147 e) None of these
28. If A: B = 3:4 and B: C= 8:9, then find
the value of A :B:C?
a) 3:4:5 b) 1:2:3 c) 7:12:17
d) 6:8:9 e) None of the above
29. If a:b = 3:5 and b:c = 4:7, then a:c is
equal to:
a) 11:35 b) 35:11 c) 35:12
d) 12:35 e) None of the above
30. If P: Q: R =2:3:4, then find 𝑃
𝑄 :
𝑄
𝑅:
𝑅
𝑃?
(a) 8:9:24 (b) 9:8:24 (c) 24:8:9
(d)8:24:9 (e) None of these
31. If 𝑎
3=
𝑏
8, then (a+3): (b=8) is equal to:
a) 3:8 b) 8:3 c) 5:8
d) 3:5 e) None of these
32. The ratio of 43.5:25 is same is:
a) 2:1 b) 4:1 c) 7:5
d) 7:10 e) None of these
33. If 2:x :: 5:7, then x is equal to:
a) 1.12 b) 2.80 c) 1.25
d) 1.30 e) None of these
34. The salaries of A, B, C are in the ratio
of 2:3:5. If the increments of 15%,
10% and 20% are allowed
respectively in their salaries, then
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what will be the new ratio of their
salaries?
a) 3:3:10 b) 10:11:20 c) 23:33:60
d)25:27:29 e) None of these
35. If Rs. 782 be divided into three parts,
proportional to 1
2:
2
3:
3
4, then the first
part is:
a) Rs. 182 b) Rs. 190 c) Rs. 196
d) Rs. 204 e) None of these
36. Two numbers are in the ratio 1:2. If 7
is added to both, they changes to 3: 5.
The greater number is:
a) 24 b) 26 c) 28
d) 32 e) None of these
37. The ratio of three numbers is 3:4:5
and the sum of their squares is 1250.
The sum of the numbers is:
a) 30 b) 50 c) 60
d) 90 e) None of these
38. Sachin is younger than Rahul by 4
years. If their ages are in the
respective ratio of 7:9, how old is
Sachin?
a) 16 years
b) 18 years
c) 14 years
d) 15 years
e) None of these
39. At present, the ratio between the ages
of Arun and Deepak is 4:3. After 6
years. Arun’s age will be 26 years.
What is the age of Deepak at present?
a) 12 years
b) 15 years
c) 19 1
2 years
d) 21 years
e) None of these
40. Present ages of X and Y are in the ratio
of 5: 6 respectively. Seven year hence
this ratio will become 6: 7
respectively. What is X’s present age
in years?
a) 35 b) 42 c) 49
d) Cannot be determined
e) None of these
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SOLUTIONS
1. (c): Number of girls = 1200. Number of boys = 2140 – 1200 = 940 Require Ratio = 940: 1200 = 47: 60
2. (a): Maximum possible number of tables = 6 [∵1200×6=7200] Number of chairs purchased = 8100−7200
300=
900
300 = 3
Hence, required ratio = 3: 6 = 1: 2 3. (d): The total number of members
must be a multiple of the sum of the ratio terms. 3+2=5 and 25 is a multiple of 5.
4. (d); Let present ages of Ramu and Somu be R and S respectively.
(R-1) : (S-1)6:7
One year ago→ R : S
↓ : ↓ Four years hence
(R+4) : (S+4) 7:8
R−1
S−1=
6
7
R+4
S+4=
7
8
7R-7= 6S-6 8R+32= 7S+28
7R-6S=1 8R-7S=-4
7R-6S=1 …..(i)
8R-7S=-4 …..(ii)
Multiplying equation (i) by 8 and equation (ii) by 7, we get →
56R-48S=8 …(iii)
56R-49S= -28 …(iv)
Subract (iv) from (iii) : S= 36 years
Shortcut:
One year ago→ R: S 6:7 S=7
Only option (d) has a number from which, if we subtract ‘1’, we get a number divisible by 7.
5. (b); 33% of A= 33×𝐴
100 =
55×𝐵
100= 55% of B
=33×A
100 =
55×B
100
A
B =
55
33
A: B 5: 3
6. (a); 68% of two fifth of 550
=68 × (2
5× 550) =
68×220
100 =
748
5 =
149.6
7. (e); Let, number is ‘n’
45𝑛
100 - 24 = 48
9𝑛
20 -24 =48
9n-480 =48 x 20 9n =960 +480
n = 1440
9=160
3
8𝑛=
3
8×160 = 60
8. (a); 30% of the number = 190.8
1% of that number = 190.8
30
175% of that number = 1908
300×175 =
159×7= 1113
9. (c); 3
8×1000 = 375 32% of
(3
8th of 1000)
= 32% of 375 = 32×375
100 = 120
10. (c); Let the third number be n.
20% more than n = n + n
5 =
6n
5
50% more than n = n + 𝑛
2 =
3𝑛
2
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Ratio of 6n
5 and
3n
2
6n
5×
2
3n = 4:5
Shortcut
Let the third number be 100
Then the two numbers are,
20% more than 50% more
⇓ ⇓
120 150
Ratio = 120: 150 = 4:5
11. (c); A:B:C:D 5:2:4:3
C gets 1 unit more than D.
Given, C gets Rs. 1000 more than D.
1 unit = Rs, 1000 B’s share = 2 units
= 2 × 1000 = Rs 2000
12. (b); 0.75 : x : : 5:8
0.75
𝑥=
5
8 5x = 6.00 x = 1.2
13. (b); Three numbers = I, II, III I+II+III=98, I: II→ 2: 3, II: III→5: 8 10:15 ⇐ (2:3) x 5 ← (I: II) × 5 15:24 ⇐ (5:8) x 3← (II: III) × 3 I: II : III, 10:15:24, 10 +15+ 24 =49 Given I+II+III = 98, 98÷ 49 = 2 1 unit = 2 Second number = 15 x 2 = 30
14. (e); 1
2:
2
3:
3
4
LCM of 2, 3 and 4 = 12 On multiplying by a number throughout, the ratio remains same. Here, we multiply by 12 1
2 × 12:
2
3×12:
3
4×12
6: 8: 9 6+8+9 =23 23 units = 872 1 unit = 37.91
1st part = 6 units = 6 × 37.91 = 227.46
15. (b); Fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 5: 8:: 15: ? 5
8 =
15
𝑥 x = 24
16. (b); Let the two numbers be a and b 𝑎
𝑏 =
3
5 5a = 3b … (i)
𝑎−9
𝑏−9 =
12
23 23a – 207 = 12b – 108
23a -12b = 99 …. (ii)
b = 5𝑎
3 From (i) …. (iii)
Using (ii) and (iii)
23a – 12 × 5𝑎
3 = 99 3a = 99 a =33
Shortcut Given = Two numbers are in the ratio = 3: 5 ↓ Smaller number must be a multiple of 3 Only options (a) and (b) have ‘3’ as a factor. Given: On subtracting 9 from each, the two numbers are in the ratio 12:23 On subtracting 9 from 27 → option (a), We get 18, but the ratio becomes 12: 23, So option (a) → discarded. On subtracting 9 from 33 → option (b), We get 24 ↓ Multiple of 12.
17. (e); Let the two numbers be a and b.
a- (40% of a) = 2
3b
a- 40𝑎
100=
2
3b
60𝑎
100 =
2
3b
𝑏
𝑎 =
60×3
2×100=
9
10
Ratio of the second number to the first number =9:10
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18. (e); 5a+3b
2a−3b =
23
5
Dividing numerator and denominator by ‘b’ 5(
a
b)+3
2(a
b)−3
= 23
5
Let 𝑎
𝑏 = x
5x−3
2x−3 =
23
5
25x + 15 = 46x -69 21x = 84
x = 4 𝑎
𝑏 = 4 a: b 4:1
19. (c) ; P: Q = 8:15 P: Q: R =? Q: R = 3:2) × 5 Q: R = 15: 10 P: Q = 8: 15 15:10 = Q: R P: Q: R = 8:15:10
20. (a); P: Q = 8: 15 ….(i) Q: R = 5: 8) × 3 Q: R = 15:24 … (ii) From (i) and (ii) P: Q: R = 8: 15: 24 … (iii) R: S = 4: 5) × 6 24:30 …. (iv) P: Q: R = 8: 15: 24 24: 30 = R: S P: Q: R: S = 8: 15: 24: 30 P: S = 8: 30 = 4:15
21. (a); Le the fourth proportional to 4, 16, 7 be x. 4: 16:: 7: x 4
16 =
7
𝑥 4x = 16 × 7 x= 4 × 7 = 28
22. (b); Let the mean proportion be = r
9: r: : r: 64 9
𝑟 =
𝑟
64
r2 = 9 ×64 r = 3 × 8 = 24 23. (a); Duplicate ratio = ratio of squares
Duplicate ratio of 2: 7 = 22: 72 = 4: 49
24. (c); Sub-duplicate ratio = ratio of square roots Sub-duplicate ratio of
81: 64 =√81: √64 = 9: 8 25. (b); Triplicate ratio = Ratio of cubes.
Triplicate ratio of 7:5 = 73: 53 = 343: 125
26. (a); Inverse ratio of 17: 19 = 19: 17 27. (b); Compound ratio of = 2: 7, 5: 3 and
4: 7 will be
2 × 5 × 4 × 7 ×3 ×7 = 40: 147 28. (d); B: C = 8: 9
A: B= 3: 4) × 2 A: B = 6: 8 8: 9 = B: C A: B: C = 6: 8: 9
29. (d); a: b = 3: 5 ) × 4 a: b= 12: 20 b: c = 4: 7 ) × 5 b: c= 20: 35
30. (a); P: Q: R = 2: 3: 4 P→ 2, Q → 3, R → 4 𝑃
𝑄=
2
3,
𝑄
𝑅=
3
4,
𝑅
𝑃=
4
2
𝑃
𝑄:
𝑄
𝑅:
𝑅
𝑃 =
2
3:
3
4:
4
2 = (
2
3∶
3
4:
4
2) × 12 = 8: 9:
24
31. (a); 𝑎
3 =
𝑏
8
𝑎
𝑏 =
3
8
a→ 3, b→ 8, a+3 → 6
b+8 → 16 𝑎+3
𝑏+8=
6
16 =
3
8
32. (b); 43.5: 25 =?
47/2: 25= (22) 7/2 : 25 =22×7
2: 25
= 27 : 25 = 27/25 = 22 = 4 4: 1 33. (b); 2: x :: 5: 7
2
𝑥 =
5
7, x =
2×7
5 x = 2.80
34. (c); Ratio of salaries → A: B: C = 2: 3: 5 A→ 2x, B→ 3x, C → 5x
A +15% of A = 2x + 15×2𝑥
100 =
46𝑥
20
B+10% of B = 3x + 3𝑥×10
100
C +20% of C = 5x + 5𝑥×20
100 = 6x
New ratio of their salaries
A: B: C = 46𝑥
20 :
33𝑥
10 : 6x
↓ Multiply by 20 46x: 66x: 120x 23x: 33x: 60x 23: 33:60 Shortcut Ratio of salaries of A, B and C → 2: 3: 5 Let the salaries be
200 300 500
↓15%↑ ↓ 10% ↑ ↓20% ↑
230 330 600
New ratio = 230: 330: 600 = 23: 33: 60
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35. (d); 782
1
2 :
2
3 :
3
4
LCM of 2, 3 and 4 = 12
(1
2:
2
3:
3
4) ×12 6: 8: 9 6 +8 +9 = 23
23 units = 782 1 unit = 782
23 = 34
First part = 6 units = 6 × 34 = 204
36. (c) ; Let the two numbers be a and b a: b = 1: 2 𝑎
𝑏 =
1
2 2a = b …. (i)
𝑎+7
𝑏+7=
3
5 5a + 35 = 3b +21 … (ii)
From (i) and (ii) 5a +35 = 3 x 2a +21 5a +35 = 6a +21 A = 14 Greatest number = b = 2a = 28 Shortcut: On adding 7 to both, ratio changes to 3: 5 On adding 7 to the greatest number, the resulting number must be a multiple of 5 Only option (c) has the number 28, in which, if we add 7, we get 35, which is a multiple of 5. 3: 5 :: ? : 35
21
Smaller number = 21- 7 = 14
14:28 = 1:2
37. (c); Ratio of 3 numbers is 3: 4: 5 Let the numbers be 3x, 4x, 5x
Sum of their squares = 1250 9x2 +16x2 +25x2 = 1250 50x2 = 1250 x2 = 25 x = 5 3x +4x +5x = 12x = 60
38. (c); Let age of Sachin = S Age of Rahul = R S=R-4 …. (i) 𝑆
𝑅 =
7
9 9S = 7R …. (ii)
From (i) 9S = 9R – 36 9S = 7R 7R = 9R -36 2R = 36 R = 18 Age of Sachin = S=R – 4 = 18 – 4 = 14 years Shortcut Sachin : Rahul S : R 7 : 9 Difference = 2 units = 4 years 1 unit = 2 years Sachin’s age = 7 units = 7 × 2 = 14 years
39. (b); Arun : Deepak A : D = 4: 3 Let A = 4x D = 3x After 6 years, Arun’s age = 4x + 6 Deepak’s age = 3x + 6 4x + 6 = 26 (given) 4x = 20 x = 5 Deepak’s present age = 3x = 3 × 5 = 15 years Shortcut After 6 years Arun’s age will be 26 years. Present age of Arun = 20 years Ratio of present ages = Arun : Deepak
4 : 3
↓x 5 ↓x 5
20 years 15 years
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40. (a); Present Ages X: Y 5: 6 Let the ages be 5x and 6x ↓ ↓ 5x + 7 6x +7
5x+7
6x+7 =
6
7
35x + 49 = 36x + 42 = 0 x = 7 X’s present age = 5x = 5 x 7 = 35 years
Shortcut Present ages 5 : 6 ↓+1 ↓+1 = 1 unit = 7 After 7 years 6 : 7
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SQUARE
Side (S)
Area = side× side = (S)2
S = √Area
Perimeter = 4 (side)
Diagonal = (side) × √2
RECTANGLE
Brea
Breadth(b)
Length (l)
Area = l×b
Perimeter = 2 (l + b)
Diagonal = √𝑙2 + 𝑏2
b1 l1
Area of track = l1 b1 – l2 b2
CHAPTER
5 MENSURATION
Square
Rectangle
b2
l2
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Triangle
A
b
B a C
Height
Area and perimeter of Right angled
Isosceles Triangle
Area = 1
2×base× height
Perimeter =√𝑠(𝑠 − 𝑎)(𝑠 − 𝑏)(𝑠 − 𝑐)
Where, s = semi-perimeter = 𝑎+𝑏+𝑐
2
A
B C
√𝟐a
Area = 1
2𝑎2
Perimeter = (2a+√2a)
Height = 𝑎
√2
Area of equilateral Triangle
A
B a C
Area = √3
4× (𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒)2 =
√3
4𝑎2
Altitude = √3
2× side =
√3
2𝑎
Perimeter = 3×side = 3a
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Circle
Circumference = 2𝜋r = 𝜋D
Area = 𝜋
4𝐷2
Semi- Circle
O r
Area of semi-circle = 1
2𝜋𝑟
Perimeter of semi-circle = 𝜋r+2r = 𝜋r +
D
Area of sector
S
P Q
R
If be the angle at the centre of a circle
of radius r
Length of the arc PQ = 2𝜋r×𝜗
360
Area of sector OPRQO = 𝜋r2×𝜗
360
Volume
CUBE
a
edge of cube = length = breadth =
height = a
Volume of cube = (edge)2 = a2
Total surface area = 6×(edge)2 = 6a2
Diagonal of a cube = √3 ×edge = √3a
r
O
O
𝛝
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CUBOID
h
h
b
V = l×b×h
Surface area = 2 (lb + bh + hl)
Diagonal = √𝑙2 + 𝑏2 + ℎ2
Right Circular Cylinder
Volume = 𝜋r2h
Curved surface area = 2𝜋rh
Total surface area = 2𝜋rh + 2𝜋r2 =
2𝜋r(r+h)
Right Circular Cone
h l
Volume = 1
3𝜋𝑟2ℎ
Curved Surface area = 𝜋rl
Total surface Area = 𝜋rl + 𝜋r2 = 𝜋r (l +r
)
r
r
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SPHERE
Volume = 4
3𝜋𝑟3
Surface Area = 4𝜋r2
Hemi-Sphere
r
Volume = 2
3𝜋𝑟3
Surface Area = 2𝜋r2
Total Surface Area = 2𝜋r2 + 𝜋r2=3𝜋r2
r
r O
r O r
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. up to a depth of 1 m 25 cm. The total
area of the wet surface is?
a) 49 m2
b) 50 m2
c) 53.5 m2
d) 55 m2
e) None of these
2. The breadth of a room is twice its
height and half its length. The volume
of the room is 512 cu. m. The length of
the room is
a) 16 m
b) 18 m
c) 20 m
d) 32 m
e) None of these
3. A Rectangular plot is 180 m2 in area. If
its length is 18m then, its perimeter
is?
a) 20 m b) 56 m c) 360 m
d) 60 m e) None of these
4. The side of a square exceeds the side
of another square by 4 cm and the
sum of the areas of the two squares is
400 cm2. The dimensions of the
square are?
a) 8cm and 12cm
b) 6cm and 10cm
c) 12cm and 16cm
d) 10cm and 18cm
e) None of these
5. The area of the floor of a rectangular
hall of length 40m is 960m2. Carpets of
size 6m × 4m are available. Then, how
many carpets are required to cover
the hall?
a) 20 b) 30 c) 40
d) 45 e) None of these
6. A lawn is in the shape of rectangle of
length 60m and width 40m. Inside the
lawn there is a footpath of uniform
width 1m bordering the lawn. The
area of the path is:
a) 194 m2 b) 196 m2 c) 198 m2
d) 200 m2 e) None of these
7. ABCD is a parallelogram as shown in
figure, then its area is?
D 3cm C
90
90
A B
a) 12 cm2 b) 14 cm2 c) 15 cm2
d) 660 cm2 e) None of these
8. What is the area of a triangle whose
sides are 9cm, 12cm and 15cm?
a) 45 cm2 b) 54 cm2 c) 56 cm2
d) 64 cm2 e) None of these
9. What is the perimeter of an
equilateral triangle whose area is
4√3cm2?
a) 4cm b) 3cm c) 12cm
d) 7cm e) None of these
10. The circumference of a circle whose
area is 24.64 m2 is
a) 17.2m b) 17.4m c) 17.6m
d) 18.0m e) None of these
11. If the radius of a circle is decreased by
20%, then the percentage decrease in
its area is?
a) 26% b) 32% c) 36%
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d) 53% e) None of these
12. If the perimeter of a semi-circular
protractor is 36cm, then its diameter
is?
a) 6 cm b) 7 cm c) 7.5 cm
d) 14 cm e) None of these
13. The ratio of the area of the incircle
and circumcircle of a square are?
a) 1:1 b) 2:1 c) 1:2
d) 3:1 e) None of these
14. The diagonal of a square of field
measures 50m. The area of square
field is?
a) 1250 m2
b) 1200 m2
c) 1205 m2
d) 1025 m2
e) None of these
15. The circumference of a circle is 176m.
Then the area is
a) 2464 m2
b) 2164 m2
c) 2346 m2
d) 2246 m2
e) None of these
16. In a circle of radius 42 cm, an arc
subtends an angle of 72 at the center.
The length of the arc is
a) 52.8 cm b) 53.8 cm c) 72.8 cm
d) 79.8 cm e) None of these
17. An isosceles right angle triangle has
area 200 cm2. Then length of its
hypotenuse is
a) 15√2 cm b)10
√2 cm c) 10√2
d) 20√2 cm e) None of these
18. The least number of square slabs that
can be fitted in a room of 10.5 m long
and 3 wide, is?
a) 12 tiles b) 13 tiles c) 14 tiles
d) 15 tiles e) None of these
19. The length of a rectangle is 2 cm more
than its breadth. The perimeter is 48
cm. The area of the rectangle (in cm2)
is?
a) 96 cm2 b) 128 cm2 c) 143 cm2
d) 144 cm2 e) None of these
20. The cost of leveling a rectangular
ground at Rs. 1.25 per sq. meter is Rs.
900. If the length of the ground is 30
meters, then the width is?
a) 330 meters b) 34 meters
c) 24 meters d) 18 meters
e) None of these
21. The length of a rectangle is twice its
breadth. If its length is decreased by 5
cm and breadth is increased by 5 cm,
the area of the rectangle is increased
by 75 cm2. Then the length of the
rectangle is:
a) 20cm
b) 30cm
c) 40cm
d) 50cm
e) None of these
22. The dimensions of the floor of a
rectangular hall are 4m × 3m. The
floor of the hall is to be tiled fully with
8cm × 6cm rectangular is without
breaking tiles to smaller size. The
number of tiles required:
a) 4800 b) 2600 c) 2500
d) 2400 e) None of these
23. The number of marble slabs of size
20cm × 30cm required to pave the
floor of a square room of side 3m, is:
a) 150 b) 100 c) 25
d) 225 e) None of these
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24. If the perimeter of a rectangular field
is 200 m and its breadth is 40m then
its area is (in m2).
a) 1200 b) 2400 c) 4800
d) 6000 e) None of these
25. Find the area of a triangle in which
base is 1.5m and height is 75cm?
a) 5625 sq.cm.
b) 5265 sq.cm.
c) 5635 sq.cm.
d) 5525 sq.cm.
e) None of these
26. Find the area of a triangle in which
each side measures 8cm?
a) 2√3 sq.cm
b) 8√3 sq.cm
c) 16√3 sq.cm
d) 12√3 sq.cm
e) None of these
27. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle
is equal to 14 cm; the lateral side and
the base are in the ratio 5 to 4. The
area in cm2 of the triangle is:
a) 1
2 √21 b) √21 c)
3
2√21
d) 2√21 e) None of these
28. Height of an equilateral triangle is 6
cm. Find its side.
a) 4 cm b) 3√3cm c) 4√3cm
d) 5√3 cm e) None of these
29. Height of an equilateral triangle is 9
cm. Find its area.
a) 27√3 cm2
b) 36√3cm2
c) 54√3cm2
d) Data inadequate
e) None of these
30. Perimeter of a square and an
equilateral triangle is equal. If the
diagonal of the square is 12√2 cm,
then find the area of the equilateral
triangle?
a) 64√3 cm2
b) 32√3cm2
c) 16√3cm2
d) 128√3 cm2
e) None of these
31. A lawn in the form of a rectangular
has length twice its width. The area of
the lawn is 2
3 hectares. The length of
lawn is:
a) 100 m
b) 331
3 m
c) 662
3 m
d) 200
√3 m
e) None of these
32. Two roads XY and YZ of 15 meters and
20 meters length respectively are
perpendicular to each other. What is
the distance between X and Z by the
shortest route?
a) 35 metres
b) 30 metres
c) 24 metres
d) 25 metres
e) None of these
33. How many bricks, each measuring 25
cm × 11.25 cm × 6cm, will be needed
to build a wall 8 cm × 6 cm ×22.5 cm?
a) 5600 b) 6000 c) 6400
d) 7200 e) None of these
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34. The sum of the length, breadth and
depth of a cuboid is 19 cm and its
diagonal is 5√5 cm. It surface area is
a) 125 cm2
b) 236 cm2
c) 361 cm2
d) 486 cm2
e) None of these
35. The base of triangular field is three
times its altitude. If the cost of
cultivating the field at 50 per hectare
be Rs. 675, then its base and height
are?
a) 900m and 300m
b) 600m and 300m
c) 500m and 200m
d) Can’t be determined
e) None of these
36. The perimeter of a right triangle is
12cm. The hypotenuse is 5cm. The
other two sides and area of the
triangle are?
a) 3, 4 and 6 cm2
b) 4, 3 and 12 cm2
c) 6, 2 and 6 cm2
d) Can’t be determined
e) None of these
37. The area of a ring whose outer and
inner radii are respectively 20cm and
15 cm is :
a) 400 cm2
b) 550 cm2
c) 565 cm2
d) 675 cm2
e) None of these
38. The minute-hand of a clock is 14 cm
long. The area covered by the minute
hand in 30 min is?
a) 308 cm2
b) 312 cm2
c) 412 cm2
d) 416 cm2
e) None of these
39. Two circle touch internally. The sum
of their area is 116𝜋 cm2 and distance
between their center is 6cm. Then, the
radii of the circle are?
a) 4cm and 9cm
b) 5cm and 10cm
c) 4cm and 8cm
d) 4cm and 10cm
e) None of these
40. A bed of roses is like the figure given
below. In the centre is a square and on
each side there is a semi-circle. The
side of the square is 21m. If each rose
plant needs 6m2 of space, then the
number of plants in the bed is?
a) 190 plants
b) 199 plants
c) 201 plants
d) 200 plants
e) None of these
21 m
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SOLUTIONS
1. (a): Area of the wet surface = [2(lb
+ bh + lh) – lb]
= 2 (bh + lh)
+lb
= [2 (4×1.25 + 6×1.25) + 6×4]
m2 = 49 m2
2. (a): Let the height of the room be x
meters.
Then, breadth = 2x metres and
length = 4x metres
Volume of the room = (4x×2x×x)
m3 = (8x3) m2
8x3= 512 x3= 64 x = 4
Length of the room is 16 m
3. (b): Breadth = Area
Length=
180
18=10 m
Perimeter = 2 (length + breadth)
= 2 (18+10)
= 56
4. (c): Let side of square = x cm
Side of another square = (x+4)
cm
x2+(x+4)2 = 400
x2+x2+16+8x = 400
2x2+8x-384 = 0 x2+4x-
192=0
x2+16x-12x-192=0
x (x+16) -12 (x+16) = 0
(x - 12) (x+16) = 0
x = 12 (-16 not possible)
Side of one square = 12 cm
Side of another square = 16 cm
5. (c): Given, 6
4
Area of the floor = 960 m2
Area of one carpet = 6×4= 24 m2
No of carpet required = Area of floor
Area of one carpet
=960
24= 40
6. (b): Length of the outer rectangle =
60 m
40m
60 m
Breadth of the outer rectangle =
40m
Area = 60×40 = 2400 m2
Width of path = 1m
Length of the inner rectangle
=60m –(1+1) m
= 58
m
Breadth of the inner rectangle =
40 – 2 =38m
Area = 58×38= 2204 m2
Area of path
= [Area of outer rectangle] –
[Area of inner rectangle]
= 2400 – 2204 = 196 m2
7. (a): Area of parallelogram,
ABCD = (Area of ∆ABD+ ∆Area
of BDC)
= 2 (Area of ∆ABD)
= 2×1
2× 3 × 4 = 12 cm2
1m
38
58
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8. (b): Here, s = 9+12+15
2=18 cm
Area = √𝑠(𝑠 − 𝑎)(𝑠 − 𝑏)(𝑠 − 𝑐)
=
√18(18 − 9)(18 − 12)(18 − 15)
= √18 × 9 × 6 × 3 =54
cm2
9. (c): By formula
Area = √3
4× (𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒)2
√3
4×
(𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒)2 = 4√3
(side) 2= 16 side = 4 cm
Perimeter = 3×side = 3×4= 12
cm
10. (c): Let, radius of the circle = r m
𝜋r2 = 24.64
22
7× 𝑟2= 24.64 r2 =
7×24.64
22
r = √7×24.64
2= 2.8
Thus, circumference = 2𝜋r
= 2×22
7×2.8= 17.6 m
11. (c): Let initial radius of circle = r
Now new radius = 80% of r = r×80
100=
4r
5
Initial area = 𝜋r2
New area = π (4r
5)
2
=16
25πr2
Decrease in Area = (πr2 −
16
25πr2) =
9
25πr2
Percentage decrease =9
25πr2
πr2 ×100
= 9
25×100= 9×4=
36%
Shortcut:
% = x+y+𝑥𝑦
100
= -20 – 20 +(−20) (−20)
100
= -40 +4 = 36% (-ve sign show %
decrease)
12. (d): Let the radius of the protractor
= r cm
Perimeter = (𝜋r+2r) = (𝜋+2) r =
36
36
7𝑟 =36 r = 7 cm
Diameter of the protractor =
2×7= 14 cm
13. (c): Let side of square = x
Diagonal = √2𝑥
Radius of incircle = 𝑥
2
Radius of circumcircle = √2𝑥
2=
𝑥
√2
Required ratio = (𝜋𝑟2
4:
𝜋𝑥2
2) =2: 4
= 1: 2
14. (a): Given diagonal of square = 50
m
√2 × side = 50 side =50
√2
Area = side2 (50
√2)
2
=2500
2= 1250
m2
15. (a): Given, circumference (2𝜋r) =
176
r = 176
2×22×7 r =
8×7
2 r = 28
m
Area =𝜋r2 = 22
7× 28 × 28 = 2464
m2
16. (a): Length of the arc = 2𝜋r×𝜗
360
= 2𝜋 × 42 ×72
360= 2 ×
22
7× 42 ×
72
360=52.8 cm
17. (d): Area of isosceles triangle wide
side (a) 1
2𝑎2
200 = 1
2a2 a2= 400 a =
20 cm
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Hypotenuse = √𝑎2 + 𝑎2 =
√2. 𝑎
= √2 × 20 = 20√2 cm
18. (c): Side of greatest square title.
=GCM of length and breadth of
the room
= GCM of 10.5 and 3 = 1.5 cm
Area of room = 10.5×3 m
No. of titles needed = 10.5×3
1.5×1.5=
10.5×3
2.25= 14 titles
19. (c): Let breadth = x cm
Length = (x+2) cm
2 (x+x+2) = 48 2 (2x+2) =
48
2x+2=24 2x= 22 x = 11
cm
Area = 11×(11+2) = 11×13=
143 cm2
20. (c): Area of ground = 900
1.25= 720 m2
Length × width = 720 width = 720
30= 24 m
21. (c): Let breath = x length = 2x
Area = x×2x = 2x2
New length = (2x – 5) cm
New breadth = (x+5) cm
New Area = (2x-5) (x+5)
(2x-5) (x+5) = 2x2+75
2x2+10x-5x-25= 2x2+75
5x = 100 x = 20 cm
Length = 2×20 = 40 cm
22. (c): Area of wall = 4m×3m= 12 m2
= 12×10000 cm2
Area of tiles = 8cm×6cm = 48
cm2
No. of tiles required = 12×10000
48=2500
23. (a): Area of square room =
3m×3m= 9 m2
= 9×10000 cm2
Area of marble slab =20×30 =
600cm2
No. of marbles slab required = 9×10000
600=150
24. (b): Given, perimeter of rectangle =
200
2(l + b) = 200 l + b= 100 l
= 100-b
l = 100 – 40 l = 60 m
Area = lb
= 40×60= 2400 m2
25. (a): Area = 1
2× base × height =
1
2(1.5) ×100×75
= 75×75= 5625 cm2
26. (c): Area of equilateral triangle = √3
4×side2
= √3
4×82=16√3 cm2
27. (d): Let lateral side = 5x, and base =
4x
Perimeter = 5x+ 5x+4x= 14x
14x = 14 x = 1
So, the sides are 5 cm, 5cm, and 4
cm
Now, s = 1
2(5 + 5 + 4)= 7 cm
Area = √s(s − a)(s − b)(s − c)
= √7 × 2 × 2 × 3 = 2√21
cm2
28. (c): Let side = x cm
x2= 62+ (𝑥
2)
2
x2−𝑥2
4=36
3x=144
x2= 144
3 x =
12
√3 x = 4√3 cm
Shortcut:
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Altitude = √3
2× side
Side = 2×Altitude
√3=
2×6
√3=4√3cm
29. (a): Side = 2×Altitude
√3=
2×9
√3= 6√3cm
Area = √3
4×side2 =
√3
4×(6√3)2 =
√3
4×36×3
= 27√3 cm2
30. (a): For square, diagonal =√2 ×side
12√2 = √3 ×side side(x) = 12
cm
Perimeter = 4x= 48 cm
Perimeter of triangle = 48 cm
Side of triangle = 48
3=16 cm
Required Area = √3
4×side2 =
√3
4×16×16
= 64√3 cm2
31. (d): Let length = x breadth = 𝑥
2
Area = 2
3×10000 m2 x×
𝑥
2=
2
√3×10000
x2 = 4
3×10000 x =
200
√3 , length
= 200
√3 m
32. (d):
z
20 m
x 15 m y
Shortest route between x and z =
√152 + 202
= √400 + 225 = √625 =25 m
33. c): Number of bricks =
Volume of the wall
Volume of 1 brick= (
800×600×22.5
25×11.25×6)
= 6400
34. (b): (l + b + h) = 19 and
√l2 + b2 + h2 = 5√5 and so (l2 + b2
+ h2) = 125
Now, (l + b + h)2 = 192 (l2+b2+h2)
+
2(lb +bh +
lh) = 361
2(lb + bh + lh) = (361 – 125) =
236
Surface area = 236 cm2
35. (a): Area = Total cost
Rate=
675
50=13.5
hectares
= 13.5×(10000) m2=
135000 m2
Let Altitude = x m
Base = 3x m Area = 1
2×
base × altitude
= 1
2× 3x × x
3𝑥2
2=135000
x2 = 90000 x = 300
Base = 3x= 900m, Altitude = x = 300
m
36. (a): A
b 5
B a C
Perimeter = 12 cm, a+b+5=12, a +
b= 7 cm
Also, a2+b2= 25
(a + b)2 + (a – b)2 = 2(a2+b2)
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(a – b)2 = 2(a2 + b2) – (a + b)2
2 (25) – (7)2= 50 – 49 = 1 a – b =
±1
a + b = 7 and a – b= 1 or a – b = -
1
a= 4 cm and b = 3 cm
or a=3 cm and b = 4 cm
Area of triangle = 1
2× a × b =
1
2×3×4= 6 cm2
37. (b): Radius of outer circle (R) = 20
cm
Radius of inner circle (r) = 15 cm
Area of ring
= (Area of outer circle – Area of
inner circle)
= 𝜋R2-𝜋r2= 𝜋(R2-r2) = 22
7(202 −
152)
= 22
7(20+15) (20 – 15) =
22
7(35)
(5) = 25×22
= 550 cm2
38. (a): Angle covered by the minute
hand in 60 min = 360
Angle covered by the minute hand
in 30 min =180
𝜗= 180, r = 14 cm
Required area = 𝜋r2×𝜗
360
= 180
360×
22
7×14×14=
1
2×
22
7×14×14=
308 cm2
39. (d): Let the radius of inner circle =
r
Let the radius of outer circle = R
𝜋R2+ 𝜋r2= 116𝜋 R2+r2 =
116
Distance between their center =
6 cm
R – r = 6 cm
(R + r)2 + (R – r)2 = 2(R2+r2)
(R + r)2 = 2 (116) – 36 = 196
R + r = 14 R – r = 6
R = 10 cm, r = 4 cm
40. (e): Given,
Side of square = 21 m
Radius of each semi-circle = 21
2=10.5 m
Area = (21×21) + 4×1
2×
22
7×10.5×10.5
= 441 + 693 = 1134 m
Area of one rose plant = 6 m2
No. of required Rose plant = 1134
6=189
21 m
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Probability: If a random experiment has n possible outcomes, which are mutually
exclusive, exhaustive & equally likely, and m of these are favourable to an event A, then the
probability of the event is defined as the ratio m/n & is denoted by
P (A) = m
n=
Number of favourable cases to A
Total number of possible cases
Probability of an event always lies between 0& 1; i.e. 0 ≤ P ≤ 1
Addition Theorem of Probability: If two events A and B are mutually exclusive, then the
probability of occurrence of either A or B is given by the sum of their probability, i.e.,
P (A or B0 = P (A) + P (B)
1. For only two events A and B, the probability of occurrence of at least one of the two
given events is given by
P (A ∪ B) = P (A) + P (B) – P (A∩B)
2. For any three events A, B and C, the probability of occurrence of at least one of the
three events is given by
P (A ∪ B ∪ C) = P (A) + P (B) +P (C) – P (A ∩ B)-P (B ∩ C) - P (B ∩ C) + P (A ∩ B ∩ C)
3. Conditional Probability: The probability that the event A will occur, it being
known that B has occurred, is called the conditional probability of A
P (A/B) = P (A ∩ B)
P (B)=
n(A ∩ B)
n(B)
CHAPTER
6 PROBABILITY
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. (75P2 – 75C2) = ?
a) 0 b) 75 c) 150
d) 2775 e) 5550
2. In how many different ways can the
letters of the word DISPLAY be
arranged?
a) 720 b) 1440 c) 2520
d) 5040 e) None of these
3. In how many different ways can the
letters of the word “TABLE” be
arranged?
a) 24 b) 48 c) 120
d) 60 e) None of these
4. In how many different ways can the
letters of the word “MATHEMATICS”
be arranged?
a)10!
2 b)
11!
2 c)
11!
4
d) 11!
8 e) None of these
5. In how many ways can 6 letters be
posted in 5 letter boxes available in
the locality?
a) 56 b) 65 c) 66
d) 625 e) None of these
6. How many 3-digit numbers are there,
with distinct digits, with each digit
odd?
a) 120 b) 200 c) 60
d) 45 e) None of these
7. In how many ways can the letters of
the word ‘UNIVERSAL’ be arranged
when E, R, S are always together?
a) 31240 b) 32240 c) 30240
d) 29240 e) None of these
8. In how many ways can the letters of
the word ‘ALGEBRA’ be arranged
when both A do not come together?
a) 1800 b) 1600 c) 1500
d) 2160 e) None of these
9. In how many ways can the letters of
the word ‘NUTAN’ be arranged when
consonants occupy odd places and
vowels come on even places?
a) 120 b) 60 c) 24
d) 12 e) None of these
10. There are seven candidates for 3
posts. In how many ways can the posts
be filled?
a) 210 b) 120 c) 73
d) 37 e) None of these
11. How many 3-digit numbers can be
formed using 0, 2, 3, 5, 7 when
repetition is allowed?
a) 40 b) 21 c) 120
d) 24 e) None of these
12. There are 6 items in column A and 6
items in column B. A student is asked
to match each item in column A with
an item in column B. How many
possible (correct or incorrect)
answers are there to this question?
a) 720 b) 450 c) 66
d) 200 e) None of these
13. Find the number of all even 2-digit
numbers, not having 0 at the unit’s
place?
a) 50 b) 21 c) 36
d) 48 e) None of these
14. How many 3-digit numbers are there
with no digit repeated?
a) 720 b) 648 c) 256
d) 580 e) None of these
15. How many 2-digit numbers are there
with distinct digits?
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a) 90 b) 91 c) 80
d) 81 e) None of these
16. How many 4-digit numbers are there
with distinct digits?
a) 4536 b) 5182 c) 4886
d) 5800 e) None of these
17. In how many different ways can the
letters of the word ‘DETAIL’ be
arranged in such a way that the
vowels occupy the odd positions?
a) 32 b) 48 c) 36
d) 60 e) 120
18. A single die is tossed. What is the
probability of a 2 turning up?
a) 1
6 b)
2
6 c) 0
d) 1 e) None of these
19. Two cards are drawn from a well-
shuffled ordinary deck of 52cards.
What is the probability that they are
both aces if the first card is replaced?
a) 4
52
b) 4
52×
4
51
c) 4
52×
4
52
d) 4
52×
4
51
e) None of these
20. Two cards are drawn from a well-
shuffled ordinary deck of 52cards.
What is the probability that they are
both aces if the first card is not
replaced?
a) 3
52
b) 4
52×
3
51
c) 4
52×52
d) 4
52×
3
52
e) None of these
21. A ball is drawn at random from a box
containing 6 red balls, 4 white balls
and 5 blue balls. What is the
probability that it is red?
a) 2
5 b)
2
13 c)
5
7
d) 5
2 e) None of these
22. Find the probability of a 4 turning up
at least once in two tosses of a fair die
a) 1 b) 1
36 c) 11
d) 11
36 e) None of these
23. One bag contains 4 white balls and 2
black balls; another contains 3 white
balls and 5 black balls. If one ball is
drawn from each bag, find the
probability that both are white.
a) 1
4 b)
1
36 c)
4
11
d) 11
36 e) None of these
24. A die is rolled, find the probability that
an even number is obtained.
a) 1
4 b)
1
6 c)
1
2
d) 1
3 e) None of these
25. Two coins are tossed, find the
probability that two heads are
obtained.
a) 1
4 b)
1
6 c)
1
2
d) 1
5 e) None of these
26. A dice is rolled and a coin is tossed,
find the probability that the die shows
an odd number and the coin shows a
head.
a) 1
4 b)
1
2 c)
1
3
d) 1
12 e) None of these
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27. A Card is drawn at random from a
deck of cards. Find the probability of
getting the 3 of diamond.
a) 1
52 b)
3
52 c)
1
26
d) 3
26 e) None of these
28. A person draws a card from a pack of
playing cards, replaces it and shuffles
the pack. He continues doing this until
he draws a spade. The chance that he
will fail in two times is
a) 9
64 b)
1
64 c)
1
16
d) 9
16 e) None of these
29. A speaks truth is 60 percent cases and
B speaks truth in 70 percent cases.
The probability that they will say the
same thing while describing a single
event is
a) 0.56 b) 0.54 c) 0.38
d) 0.94 e) None of these
30. In a box there are 2 red, 3 black and 4
white balls. Out of these three balls
are drawn together. The probability of
these being of the same color is
a) 1
84 b)
1
21 c)
5
84
d) 3
84 e) None of these
31. If two regular six-sided dice are
thrown, the probability that the sum
will be a prime number is
a) 5
36 b)
1
6 c)
5
12
d) 1
2 e) None of these
32. Two coins are tossed. Find the
probability that at least one head and
one tail are obtained?
a) 5
18 b)
1
3 c)
4
9
d) 1
2 e) None of these
33. ½ The probability of event equal to zero is called;
a) Unsure event
b) Sure Event
c) Impossible event
d) Independent event
34. The probability that cannot exist among the following:
a) ⅔
b) -1.5
c) 15%
d) 0.7
35. If P(E) = 0.07, then what is the probability of ‘not E’?
a) 0.93
b) 0.95
c) 0.89
d) 0.90
36. A bag has 3 red balls and 5 green balls. If we take a ball from the bag, then what is the probability of getting red balls only?
a) 3
b) 8
c) ⅜
d) 8/3
37. A bag has 5 white marbles, 8 red marbles and 4 purple marbles. If we take a marble randomly then what is the probability of not getting purple marble?
a) 0.5
b) 0.66
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c) 0.08
d) 0.77
38. A dice is thrown in the air. The probability of getting odd numbers is
a) ½
b) 3/2
c) 3
d) 4
39. If two dice are thrown in air, the probability of getting sum as 3 will be
a) 2/18
b) 3/18
c) 1/18
d) 1/36
40. A card is drawn from the set of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting queen card.
a) 1/26
b) 1/13
c) 4/53
d) 4/13
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SOLUTIONS
1. (d): (75P2 – 75C2) = {75!
(75−2)!−
75×75
2}
=75!
73!−(75×37)
= 75×74×73!
73!−(73×37)
= (75×74 – 75×37) =
75×37×(2-1)
= (75×37) = 2775
2. (d): The given word contains 7 letters,
all different
Required number of ways = 7P7 =
7!
= (7×6×5×4×3×2×1) = 5040
3. (c): No of ways in which the letters of
the word “TABLE” can be arranged =
5! = 120
4. (d): No of ways of arranging the
letters of word MATHEMATICS = 11!
2!×2!×2!=
11
8!
5. (a): No of ways in which 6 letters can
be posted 5 letter boxes =
5×5×5×5×5×5=56
6. (c): There are 5 odd digits in total
No. of ways to form 3-digit
numbers with distinct digits =
5×4×3=60
7. (c): UNIVERSAL has 9 letters,
No of ways E R S can be arranged =
3!
Taking E R S as 1 letter, then no of
letters is 7
Required no. of ways = 7! ×3!
=5040×6=30240
8. (a): Total no of ways in which the
letters of the word ‘ALGEBRA’ can be
arranged = 7!
2! = 2520
Total no. of ways such that both
A’s are together = 6! = 720
Required no of ways = 2520 – 720
=1800
9. (e): In the word ‘NUTAN’ there are 3
odd places and 2 even places so
No. of ways in which consonants
occupy at odd place = 3!
2! = 3 (2!
Because of Repetition of N)
No. of ways in which vowels
occupy at even places = 2! =2
Total no. of ways = 3×2=6
10. (a): No. of ways in which the posts
can be filled = 7×6×5=210
11. (e): At the 100th place ‘0’ is not
allowed.
So, number of ways to form 3 digit
numbers:
=100
4 × 5 × 5
No. of ways = 100
12. (a): 1st item in column A can be
matched with 6 items in column B
2nd item in column A can be
matched with 5 items in column B
3rd item in column A can be
matched with 4 items in column B
4th item in column A can be
matched with 3 items in column B
5th item in column A can be
matched with 2 items in column B
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6th item in column A can be
matched with 1 item in column B
So total = 6×5×4×3×2×1=720
13. (c): 2-digit even number where ‘0’
can’t come at unit place at ten’s place.
So, the possible number at 10 ten’s
place = 9 at unit place = 4 (2, 4, 6,
8)
Total no. of ways = 9×4=36
14. (b): In 3-digit no ‘0’ can’t come at
hundreds place
So, possible no of digits at
hundreds place = 9
No. of digits at ten’s place = 9
No. of digits at unit place = 8
Total No. of ways = 9×9×8=648
15. (d): In 2 digit no zero can’t come at
ten’s place
So, total possible no. of digits at
ten’s place = 9
Total possible no. of digits at unit
place = 9
Total no. of ways = 9×9=81
16. (a): In 4 digit no. zero can’t come at
1000s place
Total no. of ways
= 9
1000s place×
9
100s place×
8
10s place×
7
units place
= 4536
17. (c): In the word ‘DETAIL’ there are
three vowels (AEI) and 3 consonants
(D, T, L)
No. of ways vowels can be
arranged at odd place =3! = 6
And number of ways consonants
can be arranged at even places = 3!
= 6
Total no of ways in which
letters of the word DETAIL can be
arranged = 6×6=36
18. (a): Numbers of favourable out comes
= 1 {2}
Total number of possible
outcomes = 6 {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
Probability of a 2 turning up = 1
6
19. (c): Total no of aces in a deck of 52
cards = 4
Probability of getting ace = 4
52
Probability of getting both the aces
with replacement = 4
52×
4
52
20. (b): Probability of getting first ace = 4
52
Getting scored ace without
replacement = 3
51
(One card already down)
Required probability = 4
52×
3
51
21. (a): Total no. of Red balls = 6
Total no. of balls = 6+4+5=15
Required probability = 6
15=
2
5
22. (d): Probability of not getting 4 in a
single toss = 5
6
Probability of not getting 4 in two
tosses
= 5
6×
5
6=
25
36
Probability of getting 4 atleast
once
= 1−25
36=
11
36
23. (a): Probability of getting white balls
from 1st bag = 4
4+2=
4
6=
2
3
Probability of getting white ball
from 2nd bag =3
8
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Probability that both balls are
white = 2
3×
3
8=
1
4
24. (c): Even numbers in a die = (2, 4, 6)
Sample space = (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6)
Probability of getting an even
number = 3
6=
1
2
25. (a): Total sample space when two
coins are tossed = {HH, HT, TH, TT}
No. of favourable outcomes of
getting two heads = {HH}
Required probability = 1
4
26. (a): There are 3 odd numbers out of 6
i.e. (1, 3, 5)
Probability of getting odd number
= 3
6=
1
2
Probability of getting head = 1
2
Required probability = 1
2×
1
2=
1
4
27. (a): Total sample space of a deck of
cards = 52
There is only one 3 of diamond.
So, required Probability = 1
52
28. (d): The probability of not getting a
spade first time = 39
52=
3
4
The probability of not getting a
spade second time= 39
52=
3
4
Required probability = 3
4×
3
4=
9
16
29. (b): Let A = Event that A speaks the
truth
B = Event that B speaks the
truth
Then, P(A) = 60
100 = 0.6
P(B) = 70
100 = 0.7
Probability that A speaks lie is
P(�̅�)
= 1 – P(A) = 0.4
Probability that B speak lie is P(�̅�)
= 1 – P(B) = 0.3
Probability of saying the same
thing in a single Event = P(A)
×P(B)+ P(�̅�)× (�̅�)
= 0.6×0.7+0.4×0.3=0.54
Required probability = 0.54
30. (c): Given: No of Red balls = 2
No of Black balls = 3
No of White balls =4
Therefore total no. of balls =
2+3+4=9
No. of ways to draw 3 balls out of
9=9C3
= 9!
3(9−3)!=
9×8×7
3×2×1 = 84
Since the red balls are only 2,
therefore it is not possible to draw
3 red balls.
We also know that no of ways to
draw 3 black balls out of 3 balls = 3C3=1
4 white balls = 4C3= 4!
3!1!= 4
Therefore probability that 3 balls
are of the same color
(P) = 3𝐶3+4𝐶3
9𝐶3
=1+4
84=
5
84
31. (c): Minimum number obtained from
2 die = 2
Maximum number obtained from 2
dice = 12
Prime nos. between 2 and 12= {2,
3, 5, 7, 11}
Different combinations of the
two dice such that the above prime
numbers are obtained are
{2} = {1, 1}
{3} = {1, 2} {2, 1}
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{5} = {2, 3} {3, 2} {4, 1} {1, 4}
{7} = {6, 1} {1, 6} {2, 5} {5, 2} {3, 4}
{4, 3}
{11} = {6, 5} {5, 6}
Total sample space of 2 dice =
62=36
Required probability = 15
36=
5
12
32. (d): Sample space of two coins
= {TT, HT, TH, HH} = 4
No. of favourable events {HT, TH}
= 2
Required probability = 2
4=
1
2
33. b
34. a
35. c
36. d
37. a
38. b
39. c
40. b
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PROBLEMS OF AGES
Age is defined as a period of time that a person has lived or a thing has existed. Ages is
measured in months, years, decades and so on.
In problem based ages usually relationships between the age of two or more person at two
different times are given and we required to find the ages of these persons.
If ratio of present age of A and B is x:y and n yr ago, the ratio of their ages was p:q. then
x – n = p
y – n q
If the ratio of present ages A and B is x:y and after n yr, the ratio of their ages will be p:q,
then
x + n = p
y + n q
Example: The present age of A is 9 times the present age of B. 3 yrs hence A’s age will be 5
times that of B. Find their present ages
a) 3 yr, 27 yr
b) 3 yr, 3 yr
c) 3 yr, 24yr
d) None of these
Solution: (a) let the present age of B be x yr Then, the present age of A= 9x yr 3 yr hence, B’s age= (x +3) yr A’s age= (9x+3) yr But it is given that 3yr hence A’s age will be 5 times the age of B. ∴ 9x + 3 =5 (x+3) = 9x+ 3 =5x+15 4x=12 = x=3 So, B’s present age= 3 yr and A’s present age= 9x3=27 yr
CHAPTER
7 PROBLEM OF AGES
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Father is four times the age of his
daughter. If after 5 years, he would be
threee times of daughter’s age, then
further after 5 years, how many times
he would be of his daughter’s age?
a) times
b) 2 times
c) 2.5 times
d) 3 times
2. What is Aman's present age, if after 20
years his age will be 10 times his age
10 years back?
a) 6.2 years
b) 7.7 years
c) 13.3 years
d) 10 years
3. Nisha is 15 years elder to Romi. If 5
years ago, Nisha was 3 times as old as
Romi, then find Nisha’s present age.
a) 32.5 years
b) 27.5 years
c) 25 years
d) 24.9 years
4. One year ago, the ratio of Honey and
Piyush ages was 2: 3 respectively.
After five years from now, this ratio
becomes 4: 5. How old is Piyush now?
a) 5 years
b) 25 years
c) 10 years
d) 15 years
5. Ten years ago, the age of mother was
three times the age of her son. After
ten years, mother’s age will be twice
that of his son. Find the ratio of their
present ages.
a) 11 : 7
b) 9 : 5
c) 7 : 4
d) 7 : 3
6. Saransh is 50 years old and Nazma is
40 years old. How long ago was the
ratio of their ages 3:2?
a) 20 years
b) 30 years
c) 40 years
d) 25 years
7. The ratio of the present ages of Pranav
and Qureshi is 4:5. Five years ago, the
ratio of their ages was 7:9. Find their
present ages? (In years)
a) 40, 50
b) 18, 25
c) 40, 60
d) 20, 25
8. A man said to his son, "I was one-third
of your present age when you were
born". If the present age of the man is
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48 years, find the present age of the
son.
a) 25.7 years
b) 28 years
c) 29.3 years
d) 36 years
9. Dinesh is younger to Roshan by 9
years. If their ages are in the
respective ratio of 4:5, how old is
Dinesh?
a) 36 years
b) 23years
c) 29 years
d) Cannot be determined
10. The ratio of Sara’s age 4 years ago and
Vaishali’s age after 4 years is 1: 1.
Presently, the ratio of their ages is 5:
3. Find the ratio between Sara’s age 4
years hence and Vaishali’s age 4 years
ago.
a) 1 : 3
b) 3 : 1
c) 4 : 3
d) 3 : 4
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SOLUTIONS
1. Option C
Let the daughter's age be x and
father's age be 4x.
So as per question, 4x + 5 = 3(x + 5).
So x = 10.
Hence present age of daughter is 10
years and present age of father is 40
years.
So after 5 + 5 = 10 years, daughter age
would be 20 years and father’s age
would be 50 years.
Hence father would be 50/20 = 2.5
times of daughter’s age.
2. Option C
Let Aman's present age be x
Aman's age before 10 years = x - 10)
Aman's age after 20 years = (x + 20)
We are given that, Aman's age after 20
years (x + 20) is 10 times his age 10
years back (x – 10)
Therefore, (x + 20) = 10 (x – 10)
Solving the equation, we get x + 20 =
10x – 100
9x = 120, x = 13.3 years
3. Option B
Let age of Romi be y
Nisha is 15 years elder than Romi = (y
+ 15). So Nisha's age 5 years ago = (y +
15 – 5).
Romi's age before 5 years = (y – 5)
5 years ago, Nisha is 3 times as old as
Romi
(y + 15 – 5) = 3 (y – 5)
(y + 10) = (3y – 15)
2y = 25 ⇒ y = 12.5
Romi's age = 12.5 years
Nisha's age = (y + 15) = (12.5 + 15) =
27.5 years.
4. Option C
We are given that age ratio of Honey:
Piyush = 2: 3
Honey’s age = 2x and Piyush’s age = 3x
One year ago, their age was 2x and 3x.
Hence at present, Honey's age = 2x +1
and Piyush's age = 3x +1
After 5 years, Honey’s age = (2x +1) +
5 = (2x + 6)
Piyush's age = (3x +1) + 5 = (3x + 6)
After 5 years, this ratio becomes 4: 5.
Therefore,
(2x+6) / (3x+6) = 4/5
10x + 30 = 12x + 24 ⇒ x = 3
Piyush's present age = (3x + 1) = (3x 3
+ 1) = 10 years
Honey's present age = (2x + 1) = (2x 3
+ 1) = 7 years
5. Option D
10 years ago, age of mother was three
times the age of her son. Say, the age
of son was x and mother's age was 3x.
At present: Mother's age is (3x + 10)
and son’s age is (x + 10)
After ten years: Mother's age will be
(3x + 10) +10 and son’s age will be (x
+ 10) + 10. Given that, mother’s age is
twice that of son after ten years.
(3x + 10) +10 = 2 [(x + 10) + 10]
(3x + 20) = 2[x + 20]
Solving the equation, we get x = 20
(3x + 10): (x + 10) = 70: 30 = 7: 3.
6. Option A
Here, we have to calculate: How many
years ago the ratio of their ages was
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3:2. Let us assume x years ago
At present: Saransh is 50 years and
Nazma is 40 years
x years ago: Saransh’s age = (50 – x)
and Nazma's age = (40 – x)
Given, the ratio of their ages was 3:2
(50-x) / (40-x) = 3/2
Solving, we get: x = 20
Therefore, the answer is 20 years.
7. Option A
Their present ages be 4X and 5X.
5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was
7:9, then (4X - 5) :( 5X - 5) = 7:9
X = 45 - 35 ⇒ X = 10.
Their present ages are: 40, 50.
8. Option D
Present age of the son be P, he was
born P years ago.
The age of the man was: (48 - P).
His age when the son was born should
be equal to 1/3 of P.
(48 - P) =1/3 P ⇒ P = 36
9. Option A
Let Roshan's age be x years.
Then, Dinesh 's age = (x - 9) years.
(x - 9)/x = 4/5
x = 45 Hence, Dinesh's age = (x - 9) =
36 years.
10. Option B
Currently, the ratio of their ages is 5:
3. Suppose, their ages are: 5x and 3x.
Sara’s age 4 years ago = 5x – 4
Vaishali’s age after 4 years = 3x + 4
Ratio of Sara’s age 4 years ago and
Vaishali's age after 4 years is 1 : 1
Therefore,
(5x - 4) / (3x + 4) = 1/1
Solving, we get x = 4
We are required to find the ratio
between Sara’s age 4 years hence and
Vaishali’s age 4 years ago.
Sara's age: (5x + 4)
Vaishali's age: (3x – 4)
Putting the value of x, we get:
(5x + 4) / (3x - 4) = 3/1 = 3:1
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Definition of LCM and HCF
Lowest Common Multiple (LCM): The least or smallest common multiple of any two or more given natural numbers are termed as LCM. For example, LCM of 10, 15, and 20 is 60.
Highest Common Factor (HCF): The largest or greatest factor common to any two or more given natural numbers is termed as HCF of given numbers. Also known as GCD (Greatest Common Divisor). For example, HCF of 4, 6 and 8 is 2.
4 = 2 × 2
6 =3 × 2
8 = 4 × 2
Here, the highest common factor of 4, 6 and 8 is 2.
Both HCF and LCM of given numbers can be found by using two methods; they are division method and prime factorization.
HCF and LCM Formulas
Property 1: The product of LCM and HCF of any two given natural numbers is equivalent to the product of the given numbers.
LCM × HCF = Product of the Numbers
Suppose A and B are two numbers, then.
LCM (A & B) × HCF (A & B) = A × B
Property 2: HCF of co-prime numbers is 1. Therefore LCM of given co-prime numbers is equal to the product of the numbers.
LCM of Co-prime Numbers = Product Of The Numbers
Property 3: H.C.F. and L.C.M. of Fractions
LCM of fractions = LCM of numerators HCF of denominators HCF of fractions = HCF of numerators LCM of denominators
CHAPTER
8 L.C.M AND H.C.F
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Example : - Prove that: LCM (9 & 12) × HCF (9 & 12) = Product of 9 and 12
Solution: 9 = 3 × 3 = 3² 12 = 2 × 2 × 3 = 2² × 3 LCM of 9 and 12 = 2² × 3² = 4 × 9 = 36
HCF of 9 and 12 = 3
LCM (9 & 12) × HCF (9 & 12) = 36 × 3 = 108
Product of 9 and 12 = 9 × 12 = 108
Hence, LCM (9 & 12) × HCF (9 & 12) = 108 = 9 × 12
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. If the product of two numbers is 2496 and HCF is 8,then the ratio of HCF and LCM is
a) 1:32 b) 39:1 c) 1:39 d) 4:63 e) None of these
2. The greatest possible length which can be used to measure exactly the lengths 1m 92cm,3m 84cm ,23m 4cm
a) 23 b) 32 c) 36 d) 34 e) None of these
3. HCF of 4/3, 8/6, 36/63 and 20/42
a) 4/126 b) 4/8 c) 4/36 d) 4/42 e) None of these
4. Find the LCM of 3/8, 9/32, 33/48, 18/72
a) 3/8 b) 8/33 c) 198/8 d) 8/3 e) None of these
5. The HCF of 2511 and 3402 is
a) 31 b) 42 c) 76
d) 81 e) None of these
6. A gardener had a number of shrubs to plant in rows. At first he tried to plant 8,then 12 and then 16 in a row but he had always 3 shrubs left with him. On trying 7 he had none left. Find the total number of shrubs.
a) 154 b) 147 c) 137 d) 150 e) None of these
7. If m and n are two whole numbers and if m^n= 49. Find n^m, given that n ≠ 1
a) 118 b) 94 c) 561 d) 128 e) None of these
8. What will be the least number which when doubled will be exactly divisible by 12,18, 21 and 30?
a) 630 b) 360 c) 603 d) 306 e) None of these
9. HCF and LCM of two numbers are 11 and 385 .If one number lies between 75 and 125 then that number is
a) 123 b) 73 c) 77
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d) 154 e) None of these
10. If the L.C.M of x and y is z, their H.C.F is
a) xy/z b) xyz c) (x + y)/z d) z/xy e) None of these
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SOLUTIONS
1. C) 1:39
Explanation:
HCF = 8
LCM = Product/HCF
Product of the 2 number = 2496
HCF:LCM = 8 : (2496/8) => 8 : 312
=> 1: 39
2. B) 32
Explanation:
192 = 4^2×2^2×3
384 = 4^2×2^2×6
2304 = 4^2×2×6^2
HCF = 4^2×2 = 16×2 = 32
3. A. 4/126
Explanation:
HCF of numerator(4,8,36,20) = 4
LCM of denominator(3,6,63,42) =
126
4. C) 198/8
Explanation :
LCM of numerator(3,9,33,18) = 198
HCF of denominator(8,32,48,72) = 8
5. D) 81
Explanation :
2511 = 81×31
3402 = 81×42
Hence HCF is 81
6. B) 147
Explanation :
7. D) 128
Explanation :
49 = 7^2 = m^n
n^m = 2^7 = 128
8. A) 630
Explanation :
LCM of 12,18,21 and 30 = 1260
Doubled (divide by 2) = 1260/2 =
630
9. C) 77
Explanation :
Product of the two number =
11a×11b = 4235
11a×11ab = 4235/121 = 35
35 = 7 × 5 (co prime)
77 × 11 = 77
10. A) xy/z
Explanation :
HCF = Product of the 2
number/LCM = XY/Z
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“GENERAL AWARENESS AND SCIENCE”
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HISTORY OF JAMMU (A Brief Perspective) SOURCES OF JAMMU REGION Vansavalis of the ruling families and chief of Jammu. Vansanucharita sections of Puranas. The Lords of Hills by G.C. Smith. A History of the Ruling Family of Lahore by Ganesh Dass Badehra . Gulabanama by Diwan Kirpa Ram. Rajdarshani by Ganesh Dass [1847]. Ashtadhyayi by Panini [700 BC] Rajatarangini contains details about Pruntsa[Poonch] Lohara[Loran] Rajapuri[Rajori], Kashtwata[Kishtwar], Vallapur[Billawar], Badravaksha[Bhadarwah]. Chinese pilgrim Huen Trang’s travel accont. Tahqiqal Hind by Al-Beruni. Malfuzt-i-Timuri[Biography of Timur]. Akbarnama & Badshahnama. Tarikh-i-Kishtwar by Sheoji Dhar. Tarikh-i-Rajgan-i-Jammu wa Kashmir by Thakur Kahu Singh Balaria. Tarikh-i-Aqwam-i-punch Muhammad Din Fauq. Travelogues of George Forestor [1783], Mooncraft, Trebeck, Hugel, Jacquemout, Vigne, Drew etc. JAMMU RULERS The ancient tradition as described in Rajdarshni is that Jammu Rajya had a small beginning when Agnigir [ or Agnivarna ] the younger son of king Sudarshan [who was 20th descendant in line of Rama of Ayodhya migrated from Oopa [Ayodhya] to the Shalala Hills and reached the bank of the Ravi in the region of present day Kathua. He subjugated the people of the surrounding villages and founded and ruled over the towns Pushpavati and Airava. Probable year 550 of Kali Yuga. He was succeeded by his son Vayu-Shrava who extended his rule upto the Ujh. His successors I line were Parmetra, Puran Singh, Lakhan-Khat-Joshan, and Agnigarbh. 111 Agnigarbh was very ambitious. With the help of his 18 sons he extended his rule up to the Tawi. His elder son Bahu Lochan succeeded him. He founded the new town Dharanagri and transferred his capital from Airava. He also built Bahufort on the left bank of Tawi River. He tried to extend the empire towards Madar Desh(Modern Punjab) and attacked the Raja at Shallakote (Sialkote) but was defeated and killed. He died issueless. His younger brother Jambu Lochan took over the ruler ship. He defeated Chandrahas, the
CHAPTER
1
HISTORY OF J&K STATE
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Sialkote King and annexed territories upto the Sindh to his empire. He became the powerful ruler in the region. Once on hunting expedition across the river Tawi he was amazed to see a tiger and goat drinking water at the same pond. He thought that the place may have some virtue so he founded a town there named Jambupura which later changed to Jamboo, Jambu and Jammu. Jambu Lochan (1500 B.C) succeeded by Purankarn who shifted capital from Bahu to Jammu. Dharam Karan-- Kirpa Karan—Agni Karan Shakti Karan—He invented Dogri script.He was well versed in scriptures. He extended his empire up to Bhanihal ( Pir Panjal). Shiv Prakash (the last of this dynasty) was defeated by Raja Shal of Sialkote who annexed Jammu. Raja Shal was maternal uncle of Pandavas and was killed in Mahabharata war. Jammu then governed by Babru-Vahan (Arjun’s son). He founded Babaur. His descendents ruled for 500 years. During their rule Jammu became desolate and tribals occupied it and had their sway. Jyoti Prakash & Sarv Prakash reconquered Jammu.They were local descendants of Shakti Karan. They & their descendants ruled till sixth century B.C. their last king being Bali Karan. First Historical Dynasty: 500 B.C. to 143 B.C. Raja Bodh Arjun:A great conqueror, he subdued all chiefs in surrounding areas. He was a benevolent ruler and in his rule Jammu gained its glory. He ruled for 80 years. Raja Bodh dynasty ruled for 357 years. The later king saw great upheaval. Raja Mangal Chand of Kangra-Nagarkot occupied Jammu after killing Rajvallab, the seventh descendant of Bodh Arjun. Bhanu Jakh if Bharakh then killed Mangal Chand and tried to restore order but failed. People fled and deserted the towns during period of upheavals. Punjab chieftains raided Jammu which made life uncertain & people fled to jungles. Raja Bhoomi Dutt& his six descendants could not restore peace. Jammu was reduced to small principalities ruled by Ranas. The sovereignty passed on a Sialkote or Takshila Raja A long line of kings from Damodar Dutt to Nand Gupta ruled Jammu from Gandhara. At the time of Alexandar’s invasion in 326 B.C. Damodar Dutt’s seventh descendant Raja Ajay Singh ruled Jammu. He was Raja Puru’s (Porus)??? Son-in-Law. He was killed in fighting for Puru against Alexander. After Ajay Singh his son Bijoy Singh ascended the throne. He extended his way upto Jhelum in Punjab. His descendant Ram Gupta constructed Ramgarh fort and started Ramgaria Rajput clan. RAI DYNASTY About 50 B.C. the Rai Dynasty of Sialkote annexed Jammu to their kingdom. Adi-Rai – Independent ruler of Jammu (58 B.C. to 10 B.C.) Devi Rai- (10 B.C. to 40 A.D.). Andrew one of the 12 Disciples of Christ came to his court and cured his son of a disease with his prayers in 39 A.D. Gandharb Rai - (40 A.D. to 75 A.D.). Kadamb Rai - (75 A.D. to 124 A.D.). Karam Rai-(124 A.D. to 204 A.D.). Buried his new born daughter alive and started tradition in hill Rajputs. Khir Rai-(204 A.D. to 229 A.D.).
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Khakhar Rai-(229 A.D. to 261 A.D.). Sind Rai-(261 A.D. to 310 A.D.). Jagat Rai-(310 A.D. to 330 A.D.). Dudh Rai-(330 A.D. to 342 A.D.). Jog Rai- He had two sons. Malhan Hans and Suraj Dhar. Malhan Hans moved to Sialkote and formed the Manhas tribe of Rajputs while the younger son Suraj Dhar became ruler of Jammu. Dhar Dynasty (430 A.D. to 840 A.D) SuraJ Dhar – 430 A.D. to 485 A.D. Ganga Dhar- 495 A.D. to 530 A.D. (His brother Sojla Dhar started the Charak Clan) Devala Dhar- 530 A.D. 585 A.D Sarbia Dhar- 590 A.D to 650 A.D. During the reign Peer Roshan Shah Wali, a Muslim Saint from Arab came and settled in Gumat. The Raja held him in great respect. Kirat Dhar- 650A.D to 700 A.D. Ajay Dhar-> Bijay Dhar-> Vajar- 785 A.D. TO 840 A.D. (He could not hold out against constant attacks & fled to Garh-Babaor when he was in 850 A.D.) DevDynasty (840 A.D. to 912 A.D) Vajar Dhar’s successor, Suraj Dev was the first King of Jammu to use the surname Dev. The Dev Dynasty remained in power till around 1816. SURAJDEV (840 A.D. to 912 A.D): He ruled from Babaur. He was wise, brave and efficient administrator. He conducted administrative reforms and raised a trained army. He went to the help of Shailya King(of Sialkote), but was captured and buried alive in a masonry tower by Sherif Khan. His wife Neella Rani committed Sati. BHUJDEV (912 A.D. to 982 A.D): Succeeded Suraj Dev. During his reign. Nasar-ud-din Sinbaktgin invaded Punjab and Jammu. But Raja Bhuj Dev gave him a tough fight and made him to retreat in another battle, he fought against Sabuktign on Jaipal’s side and was killed. AVTARDEV (982 A.D. to 1030 A.D): After Bhuj Dev his brother Avtar Singh ascended the throne. Mahmud of Gazni invaded Jammu in his time. First time his son Masud beat a hastry retreat against combined resistance of all Jammu Hill chiefs. Second time they succeeded in carrying away 300 camel loads of body. JASDEV (1030 A.D. to 1053 A.D): Founder of Jasrotia town and Jasrotia clan. He introduced the worship of Bhair (Varun) devta and Kali Devi Bahu Fort. Manak Dev, another descendent of Bhuj, founded the Mankot State and Mankotia clan. SANGRAMDEV (1053 A.D. to 1094 A.D): A just ruler. He defeated king of Kashmir, Ananta and Billawar. JASAKARA (CHAKRA) DEV (1094 A.D. to 1164 A.D): BRIJ (BIJAY) DEV (1164 A.D. to 1215 A.D): He became allies to Muhammad Ghori and fought on his side against Prithivi Raj Chauhan in the battle of Tarain. He founded Baj (Biay) pur and present Vijaypur. Narsing DEV (1215 A.D. to 1258 A.D): Son of Brij Dev. The Rajdarshini narrates that Prithvi Raj’s brother, Khande Rao, was killed at the hands of Narsing Dev in the Battle of Tarain. ARJANDEV (1258 A.D. to 1313 A.D):
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JODHDEV (1313 A.D. to 1361 A.D): He was contemporary of Feroz Shah Tuglak of Delhi. When Sahdeva, the ruler of Kashmir fled to Kishtwar, he sustained him and helped him return to Kashmir, Rinchin ruled Kashmir then. MALDEV (1361 A.D. to 1400 A.D): The hero of Dogri ballads. He shifted the Dogri Capital to Jammu. Raja Mal Dev was a powerful king and he made a great effort for the welfare of his subjects. During this period economy of the region became strong and in history of Jammu it is regarded as “golden period”. Tawi Riverwas placed by him. He erected a building at Puani Mandi which was named Mal Mandi. He sat on gaddi first time there and the tradition continued with all Dogra Kings. Timur’s invasion took place during his rule and the Dogras gave him a tough time. He avoided a confrontation with Mal Dev and retreated after plundering villages. But there after, the rulers of Jammu remained vassals of the Mughals, until the early 18th Century. HAMIRDEV (1400 A.D. to 1423 A.D): Contemporary of Muhammad Tuglak in Delhi and Ali Shah (son of Sikandar, the prosecutor of Hindus) of Kashmir. He struggled to eliminate the Khokhar menace by helping Ali Shah to regain his throne to Kashmir from Shahi Khan (Zain-ul-Abidin) who was assisted by Khokhar chief Jasrath Khokhar. AJABDEV (1423 A.D. to 1454 A.D): Raja Ajaib Dev was a great was a great warrior. He extended Jammu Kingdom up Gujrat. Made friends with Zain-ul-Abidin of Kashmir and remained safe from Khokhar troubles. BAIRAMDEV (1454 A.D. to 1489 A.D): Contemporary of Bahol Lodhi of Delhi with whom he entered into a conspiracy to eliminate Jasrath, the Khokhar chief whom he got murdered. During his reign Sayyed Qutub Alam came to Jammu from Sabazwar. He made a large number of Hindus and Muslims his followers. He was not spoken; sweet tongued Faqir and was fond of milk and sugar. So his devotees called him Pir Mitha and offered him sugarcane. Another Pir, Jogi Garib Dass came and lived at Jamwant Cave (Khoh), it came to be called as Pir Khoh. Two grandchildren of Bairam Dev Hasal Dev and Shera who showed great velour at Delhi court of Bahol Lodhi were honoured with titles. They started the Rajput clans Slathia and Sarkhania. GHOGHARDEV (1500 A.D. to 1530 A.D): In his time Babur occupied Delhi and Agra . He mad friends with Babur and sent him gifts. He won battles for him and earned the title of Isa Khan. He started the clan of Isakhania Rajputs. KAPURDEV (1530 A.D. to 1571 A.D): He had two sons Jagdeep & Samhel Dev . They were born of two queens on the same day. So he divided his kingdom in two parts. With headquarter at Jammu and Bahu and installed Jagdev at Bahu and Samhak Dev at Jammu. JAGDEV (1571 A.D. to 1590 A.D): Was killed by Mughal Hakim of Sialkote Sadiq Khan in a conspiracy by Lal Dev, his half brother. SAMHALDEV (1595 A.D): He was simple minded. SANGRAMDEV (1594 A.D. to 1626 A.D): He was one of the favourite of Mughal king Jahangir and got favors from him. He accompanied Mughal forces on many expeditions and breath his last in the Deccan expedition with Prince Khurram. BHUPATDEV (1616 A.D. to 1656 A.D): He was Shahjahan’s contemporary. His brother Dalpat became the ancestor of Dalpatia Rajputs. HARIDEV (1656 A.D. to 1692 A.D): He was mansabdar of Aurangzeb & fought many of his
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battles. GAJE SINGH (1692 A.D. to 1703 A.D): Carried on the work of his father with Aurangzeb and strengthen Jammu Raj. Guru Gobind Singh came to Jammu during his time as a ruler. DHRUVDEV (1703 A.D. to 1733 A.D): He threw away the yoke of Mughals and became independent ruler. He gave shelter to Banda Bahadur from Mughals and helped him against Mughals. He consolidated his territory and grew a powerful king. He built the Mubarak Mandi Complex and shifted his palace from Maldev Mandi( now called Purani Mandi ) to the new complex. He had four sons and a daughter. MAHARAJA RANJITDEV (1733 A.D. to 1782 A.D): He was the elder son of Dhruv Dev and the most notable ruler of Jammu before Gulab Singh. He provided stability to Jammu and rules sway over the politics of Punjab and Shivalik Hills. He captivated twice, once by the Mughals for disobeying their commands and second time by the Afghans for looting a caravan. But at both the times he was released after negotiations and his kingdom restore to him. He became the keyman for the Afghan in their power struggle against the hills Rajas and Kashmir. He was ambitious and extended his rule in hills as well as plains. He was the first who conquered most of the states of Jammu and became the Maharaja of all 22 hill states. His reign was an era of prosperity and people of all religions were treated equally by him. According to Rajdarshani Ranjit Dev had enforced law & order very effectively and Jammu was called Dar-ul-Aman( Abode of Peace) during his period. Sufis were of firm believe that in the soil of Jammu, there is some virtue of peace. Its seems that Sufis found congenial atmosphere in the Jammu region for their philosophy of Wahadut-ul-wujud(Unity of being) and serving 114
HISTORY OF KASHMIR (A Brief Perspective) SOURCES OF KASHMIR REGION Nilamat Purana by Nila the Lord of Kashmir Nagas is the earliest known text of Kashir. Rajtarngni of Kalhana Pandit (Originally written in Sanskrit & Sultan Zain-ul-Abidin got it translated into Persian by Mula Ahmad). Hara Charitrachintamani of Jayadarth gives sacred sites in the Kashmir. Twarikh-i-Kashmir by Malik Haider. Samayatrika of Kshemendra gives the topological details of Kashmir. Nrapavali of Kshemendra. Kitab-ul-Hindof Alberuni. Waqat-i-Kashmir by Khawaja Mohd. Azam Kaul. Tarrikh-i-Hassan by Pir Hassan Shah. Mukhtsar-Tarrikh-i-Kashmir by Pandit Birbal Kachru. Zafar Nama by Shrif-ud-Din-Yazdi The valley of Kashmir by Sir Waller Lawrence. The “Land of Lamas” (on Ladhakh) by Alexandar Cunningham. Tarikh-i-Hind by Alberuni.
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Travel account of Huen-Tsang- Al- Masudi, Al-Qazwini, Ou-Kong etc. HISTORY OF KASHMIR According to most popular legend Kashmir Valley was a big lake called “Satisar”,(The Pond of Sati , consort of Lord Shiva). As mentioned in Rajtarangani and Nilmatpurana one morning when demigods were in playful mood, there appeared a demon Sangrahustra who espied Sachi, the India’s consort amidst the heavenly host. Struck by her beauty, Sangrahustra seed fell into the lake which sprouted in the form of bony babe which was brought by the celestial folk of Kashmir the Nagas. He was named Jalodbhowa meaning born from water in Sanskrit. The child Jalodbhowa grew up to be giant cannibalistic fiend who tortured and devoured the people. The harassed and terrified Nagas approached Nilangana and requested him to save them from the Tyranny of this cannibal. The Nilangana then decide to approach his father Kashyap a great sage and grand son of Brahma. He did a long penance to rescue the people from the suffering. The saint was blessed and was able to cut the mountain near Baramulla(Varamukha) the lake was drained and the demon was killed by a pebble divinely cast, which today stand as the hills upon which towers the fortress built by the Mughal Emperor Akbar and known as “Hari Parbat”. After the Kashyap Rishi imported Brahamans and Rishis from India 116 to live there and the reclaimed land was called Kashyappura and Kashyap-Mar and later Kashmir. It seems that the name Kashmir comes from the two Sanskrit words “Ka”(water) and “Shimira” (dry up) i.e dried up land. The Nilmata Purana tells that the early inhabitants of Kashmir were the tribal Nagas, who were the worshippers of the serpent. Most of these tribes lived in the mountains around the Satissara Lake. Their celebrated king was Nila. Some tribes like Pishachas and Yakshas lived in the Northern Mountains. They used to trouble the settlers and the Nagas. Ultimately king Nila with the help of Brahaman Chadradeva freed the country from their menance. Gradually other races came to settle in the valley, chief among these being the Aryans. Later settlers included Persians, Greeks, Dards while Punjabis, Mughals, Pathans and Paharis were still later settlers. RULERS OF KASHMIR The earliest record nanda-Is are lost in Pre-historic oblivion the first king mentioned by Kalhana in Gonanda-I who came to the throne in 653 kali which is about 3000 B.C. He was a relative of Jarasand and fought in a war for Jarasand against Krishna at Mathura and was killed. Gonananda was succeeded by his son Dhamoder to the throne of Kashmir . He also suffered at the hands of Krishna in the neighbouring territory of Gandhara. The Krishna got Gonanada’s pregnant widow Yasovati installed on the throne by the Brahman. Later when Yasovati gave birth to a son, he was put on the throne as GonandaII. There after it was ruled by Pandavas. Pandavas: The 35 kings of this dynasty ruled over Kashmir. But they have been emerged in the ocean of oblivion their names and deeds having perished through the destruction of the records. Somehow the famous ruins of Martand and other old temples are still called Pandav-lari, or buildings of the Pandavas, by the people. The ancient temple of the Shankara Charya hills is believed to be built by Sandiman, one of the Pandavas Kings. The first of these Pandavas king was Harandev, son of Parikshit, the grandson of Arjuna. One of
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the Pandavas kings of Kashmir was Sundarsena. The beautiful city of Sandimatnagar is said to have been submerged during the reign by an earthquake, which created the Wullar Lake over the capital. Cyrus: Probably Kashmir came under the rule of Achaemenians of Persia for some time in the ancient period. Cyrus(558-530-B.C.) the founder of the Persian Empire extnds his conquests up to the Hindukush and Gandhara formed a part of his empire. Later Darius conquered a part of the Punjab and annexed it into Persian Empire. It is Probable that by the time of Alexandar’s invasion in 326 B.C. the Persians had lost their control over these parts of India. When Alexandar left India, Kashmir was ruled by a king named Abhisara. Mauryas: Chronologically Ashoka is the first name that has a geniuine historical basis. In the 3rd century (250 B.C.) King Ashoka “ The Great” conquered Kashmor and he introduced Buddhism, built numerous viharas & stupas. Ashoka was succeeded by his son , Jaluka who restored Hiduism. He was a great warrior who freed Kashmir of the Miechhas (foreigners , who were probably Indo-Greek hordes) and conquered the country up to Kanauj. Shivism flourished during his reign. After Jalika his son Damodar II ascended. -A gap of 200 years- unaccounted (The scholars accept the theory that the valley for over 200 years was ruled by Indo-Greek kings before the start of the Kushans. Kushans: in 1st century A.D. Kashmir was occupied by Kushans. Prominent among the Kushans was Kanishka who convened the 4th Buddhist council at Kunalvana in Kashmir. It is at this council that Buddhism got divided into two sectors Mahayana ( followers of the greater vehicle) & Hinayana (followers of the lesser vehicle) the commentaries were deposited by Kanishka in special stupa. Kanishka Hushak Jushik up to 178 A.D. Gonanda Dynasty: with the decline of Kushna, local chieftains regained their sovereignty. Abhimanyu-I Gaonanda III Vibhishin –I etc. Six Kings of Different Lineage: When Guptas ruled rest of India Kashmir was an independent state. However on the fall of Gupta Empire Kashmir fell into the hands of Huns. Huns: The Huns gained control of the valley in the early sixth century and the name most remembered among the Huns was of Mihira Kula, a prince as cruel as death. He favoured shivism and built a shrine of Shiva near Srinagar. Other notable kings of this dynasty. Baka Nara Aksha (founder of Achhabal)? Gopaditya (founder of Gopkar) Gakarna (founder of Gokarnesa) Gopaiditya Yudhistra Yudhistra was an oppressive ruler. He was forced to flee the country by his ministers and subjects. Kings of lineage of Vikramaditya of Ujjain: After Yudhistra, Pratapaditya, a king of India a relation of Harsha Vikramaditya of Ujjain) was offered the throne of Kashmir. From Pratapaditya to Jayendra (there were 5 kings in between). After Jayendra this dynasty was succeeded by his minister named Samdhimati. He assumed the title of Aryaraja. According to Kalhana, Samdhimati was a devotee of Siva and promoted Shivism; Sammdhimati voluntarily abdicated in favour of Megghvahana and
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became a recluse. Gonanda Family Again: Till the advent of Karkota dynasty the Gonanda Dynasty gave Kashmir only two notable rules.viz Megghavahna and Pravarsein, Megghvahana , great grandson of Yudhistra was influenced by Buddhism and built many vaharas , a firm believer to Ahimsa and remembered for the prohibition of animal slaughtering even for the sacrificial purposes. His chief queen Amrit Prabha built “Amrit Bhawan “Vihar, Megghvahanaa was succeeded by Sresthasena. He succeeded by his elder son Hiryana while his younger son was put into prison for introducing his own coins as the prince. The throne of Kashmir was then occupied a King Vikramaditya of Ujjain. He was a kind ruler. He maintained peace and won goodwill of the people. After ruling for the 5 years he retired in favour of his son, Praversena II of Kangra—He founded the city of Srinagar (old name Praversena). Praversena ruled ably for 60 years. He was then succeeded by Yudhistra-II --- Ranaditya (3 years) Baladitya Baladitya was the last king of his dynasty. He married his daughter to one Durlabhvardhana, petty official who proved to be descendent of Nagarkote and the throne finally passed on to his hands. Korkota Dynasty (Naga Dynasty) Durabhvardhana (625-661 A.D.). Founder of this dynasty as home out of his coins. Hieun Tsang, the great Chinese pilgrim, visited the country during his rule. Pratpaditya: (661AD-711 AD) Son of Durlabha vardhana founder the town of Partapapura now called Tapar, about 24km to west of Srinagar . He was succeeded by his three sons: Chandrapida, Tarapida and Muktapida respectively. Chandrapida: (711-719). He was kind ruler & was also known by Vajraditya. He met death by witchcraft. Tarapida (720-724) His rule was full of cruel and bloody deeds. Muktapida: (724-260) greatest king of Karakote dynasty was Lalitaditya (Muktapida). He is reputed to have conquered Punjab, Kannauj, Tibet, Badakshan and nearly by territories. Built famous temple of Matand and dedicated to sun. He is remembered as great conqueror, great builder and people loving personality; Vakpatiraja & Bhavabhuti adorned his court. Jayapida: (Grand Son of Lalitaditya) (782-795) was the onlycapable ruler of this dynasty after Lalitaditya. He built a city, Jayapura and Andarkot Fort. According to Kalhana, he was a man of learning and a warrior at the same time. Laments by D.C. Rays say that “Never before the Karkota period had Kashmir performed such a feat, nor was she able to repeat it in future.” During the last fifty years of Karakota Dynasty, there was no stable ruler/government in Kashmir. After the fall of this dynasty, Kashmir came under the rule of the Utpala Dynasty. 118 UTPALA DYSNASTY (855 A.D to 1003 A.D.) Avantivaram (855-83) founder of Avantipura is remembered for the wonderful progress in drainage in the valley made during this period. Thanks to the engineering genius of sage called Surya, who founded Sopore (Suyyapur). Avantipuram died in June-883 A.D. near the shrine of Jayashtheswara at Triphar.Avantipuram was succeeded by his son Shankaravarman .He led many expeditions in the south and north of his kingdom. In the
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latter days of his rule the king turned to be notorious and started exorting money from his subjects. For the pupose he organized a special office by the name of Grahkrtya. It was during this period that forced labours came into existence. Shankaravarman was killed during his invasion of Hazara near Uri 904 AD. After Shankaraverman his queen Sugandha ascended the throne however she was soon deposed. The last ruler of Utpala Dynasty was Suravarman. He was forced to run away by his commander in chief in 939 939.A.D. At this stage a council of Brahmins place Yashaskardeva in the throne. With this ended the rule of Utpala Dynasty. BRAHMANIC RULE (939 A.D to 948 A.D.) The Brahmin King Yashaskaradeva ruled over Kashmir for nine years and during this period the country enjoyed peace. The country obtained a respite from civil war and internal troubles from which it had suffered for a long time. After the reign of Yashaskaradeva , the country was again plunged into grief. He was succeeded by his son. Sangram who was murdered by powerful and scheming minister of Parvagupta. GUPTA DYSNASTY(948 A.D to 1003 A.D.) This dynasty was founded by Parvagupta who started his career and clerk of low origin but after the murder of Sangram, in 949 A.D. he ascended the throne. His rule lasted for two years only. During this, period he, oppressed the people and exorted money from them by all means. To perpetuate, his memory he built with his riches accumulated through evil means, the Shrine of Shiva, called Parvagupteshvara at the Sikandabhavana-vihara. He died in 950 A.D. and was succeeded by his son Kshamagupta. Gupta Dynasty ruled for about 50 years. Paravgupta was succeeded by Kshamagupta who ruled from 950-958-A.D. Kshamagupta married Didda the daughter of Samharaja, the rule of Lohara. The marriage of Kshamagupta and Didda influenced the historical scene of Kashmir for next 50 years. Didda dominated the historical scene of Kashmir and Kshamagupta’s queen. Her husband was a mere puppet in her hands so Kshamagupta was nick named as Deed-Khema. Didda Rani (Daughter of Samharaja) wife of Kshamagupta Didda influenced the historical scene first as a queen, then as queen mother and ultimately as a ruler. Kshamagupta was succeeded by his infant son Abhimanyu (AD 958 – 972). After Abhimanyu’s death, didda placed her grandsons one after another on the throne, and eventually took the reign in her hand in AD 981. She brought up her brother’s son Sangamraja who after the death of queen founded Lohara dynasty. LOHARA DYSNASTY 1003 AD TO 1171 AD (14 KINGS) Notable kings: Kalasha, Harsaha, Sussala, Jayasimha in whose reign Kalhana wrote Rajtarangni. After the end of Utpala dynasty, the history of Kashmir is written in decay. During the rule of Gupta Kula, there was quick succession of brief and oppressive reigns, intrigues and rebellions, civil wars and political murders. The kingdom of Kashmir was virtually reduced to a minor principality shorn of its past glory and of all the territories tributary to it. During the reign of Sangrama, Mohammad Ghazni made his second campaign against Kashmir but again he was forced to retreat by ensuing winter.
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In 1099 AD when Harsha was the king of Kashmir, plague raged the country and disastrous flood destroyed the crops. A serve famine followed which added to the miseries of the people. The famous historian of Kashmir viz. Kalhana Pandit is said to have lived during the reign of Jayasimha 1128-1149 A.D.
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LOCATION, AREA. EXTENT The state is located between 32°.15’ and 37°.05’ north latitude and 72°.35’ east and 83°.20’ east longitude. It is 640 km in length from north to south and 480 km from east to west. The total of Princely State of J&K on 15th August 1947 was 2, 22, 236 Sq. km. Area under illegal occupation of Pakistan is 78, 114 Sq. km, 5180 Sq. km illegally handed over by Pakistan to China and 37,555 sq. km under illegal occupation of China. GEOGRAPHICAL POSITION The state is the northern most part of India and looks like its crown. To its east is Tibet; to its north is China and Afghanistan; to its west is Pakistan. To its south lie the states of Punjab and Himachal Pradesh. The state ranks 6th in area and 17th in population among the States and Union Territories of India. HEIGHT Height from sea-level varies from 1000 ft to 28,500 ft. (305 meters to 9610 meters.) STANDARD TIME The standard time is the same as in the rest of the Indian union. It is 5hrs. 30 mm. ahead of Greenwich Time. But there is a difference of 30 minutes in the local time. DISTRICT PROFILE Jammu and Kashmir is the Northern most State of India. Situated mostly in the Himalayan mountains, Jammu and Kashmir shares a border with the Indian States of Himachal Pradesh and Punjab to the South, Pakistan to the West, Afghanistan to the North and China to the North and East. Some of its territory was forcibly captured by Pakistan, which is called Pakistan occupied Kashmir (PoK). Jammu and Kashmir State is situated between 32° 15’ and 37° 5’ North latitudes and 72°31’ and 8O2O’ East longitudes. Geographically, the state can be divided into four zones First The mountainous and semi-mountainous plains commonlyknown as Kandi belt Second The hills including Shiwalik ranges Third The mountains of Kashmir valley and Pir Panjal range Fourth The fourth is Tibetan tract of Ladakh and Kargil AREA The total area of the State of Jammu and Kashmir is about222236 sq km. of which 78114 sq km area is under illegal occupation by Pakistan and 37555 sq km by China, In addition to this, 5180 sq km of Jammu and Kashmir was illegally ceded to China by Pakistan under March, 1963, Sino-Pak Boundary Agreement. The state shares a221 Km, international boundary with Pakistan in the Jammu region and365 km with China in its Ladakh sector. The Line of Control (LoC),which divides the India and Pakistan occupied parts of the state, is 1001km long (Jammu : 205 km, Kashmir Valley: 460 km and Ladakh/Siachen area : 336 km). It has 22 districts.
CHAPTER
2
GEOGRAPHY OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR
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The border with China is 465 km long. Pakistan has annexed the districts of Dianer, Baltistan, Gilgit, Muzaffarabad, Kotil, Mirpur, Poonch and Bagh. Almost all the people in the Pakistan occupied territory are Muslims. The Chinese held territory is called Aksai Chin (un-inhabited). JAMMU AND KASHMIR REGIONS Jammu and Kashmir is divided mainly in to three regions namely Jammu, Kashmir and
Ladakh. The state ranks 6th in the area and 19th in population among states and Union
Territories of India.
REGIONS The state comprises three main regions, namely, Jammu, Kashmir and Ladakh. A brief description of these three regions provides necessary understanding about each of them JAMMU REGION Jammu region comprises the plains, hills and mountains South and West of the mighty Pit Panjal range that separates Kashmir valley from the plains of the sub-continent. Today, the Jammu region comprises 10 districts; Kathua, Jammu, Udhampur, Doda, Rajouri, Poonch, Reasi, Ramban, Samba and Kishtwar. The main attraction of Jammu region is the Mata Vaishnav Devi shrine. KATHUA DISTRICT It is situated on the Jammu-Pathankot National Highway at a distance of about 87 km East of Jammu and about 25 km West of Pathankot. The district shares its boundary with Punjab in the South, Himachal Pradesh in the East and Udhampur and Doda district in the North. The geographical area of the district is 2651 sq km with 5 tehsils. The majority of the population of Kathua district is dependent on agriculture. About 80% of agricultural land in the district is non-irrigated. Population-615711 Density-246 inhabitants per sq km Sex ratio-862 females Literacy rate-73.09% The district consists of 8 blocks and 5 tehsils The district has 5 assembly constituencies The traditional language of Kathua is Dogri. JAMMU DISTRICT It is extended along the whole length of the international border with Pakistan. It shares its border with Rajouri, Udhampur and Kathua district in the North, in the East and in the South-East respectively. The geographical area of the district is 2336 sq km with 4 tehsils. The literacy rate stands at 83.45% which is not only highest among all the districts in the state, but higher than the national average also. It is home to the winter capital (Jammu) ofJammu and Kashmir. Except for the Kandi area, the land is irrigated and fertile. Population- 1526406 Density-653 inhabitants per sq km Sex ratio-880 females Literacy rate- 83.45%
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The most populous district of Jammu and Kashmir The district of 8 blocks and 4 tehsils The most, widely spoken language of Jammu is Dogri UDHAMPUR DISTRICT It is situated in Jammu and Kashmir at an altitude of 2134 ft above mean sea level. Rajouri bounds the district in the West, Jammu in the South-West, Doda in the East and Kathua in the South-East. It also shares its boundary with Anantnag in the North. The geographical area of the district is 2473 sq km with 4 tehsils. Vaishno Devi Cave near Katra is the most famous tourist attraction of this district. Population-555357 Density-210 inhabitants per sq km Sex ratio-870 females Literacy rate- 68.9% Udhampur district consists of 7 block and 4 tehsils. The major languages spoken in the district are Gojri, Dogri, Hindi, Urdu and Kashmiri.
DODA DISTRICT It is the second largest district in the Jammu region. Doda town, after which the district is named, is situated at an altitude of 5000 ft above sea level. The district shares borders with Anantnag district of Kashmir valley and the Chamba District of Himachal Pradesh. The entire area of this region is hilly. The area of the district is 11691 sq km. The district comprises 4 tehsils. Population-409936 Density-59 inhabitants per sq km Sex ratio-919 females Literacy rate-64.68% The third largest district in Jammu and Kashmir after Leh and Kargil. The district consists of 8 blocks and 4 tehsils. Language - Bhadrawabi, Adogri, Kangri RAJOURI DISTRICT This district was carved out of Poonch District in 1968. It shares a long border from Sunderbani to Bhimbergali with Pakistan occupied Kashmir (PoK) in the West. It is bounded by Udhampur district in the East and by Jammu in the South-East. The Northern part of the district consists of hi1iy terrain. The geographical area of the district is 2630 sq km. Population-642415 Density-244 inhabitants per sq km Sex ratio-860 females Literacy rate-68.17% The district consists of 8 blocks and 7 tehsils. Language spoken-Gujri, Pahari, Dogri POONCH DISTRICT Poonch town, the headquarters of the district by the same name, is sithated at a distance of 246 km NorthWest of Jammu. The Poonch town is at a height of 3287 ft above sea level. It is surrounded by the Line of Control (LoC) on three sides and, is separated from Kashmir vey
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by the migh Pir Panjal Range in the North. The geographical area of the district is 1674 sq km comprising 4 tehsils. There is no industrial unit in the district. The terrain is hilly with, little fertile land and therefore there is great dependency on government jobs. Population-476835 Density-285 inhabitants per sq km Sex ratio-893 females Literacy rate—6674% The district consists of 6 blocks and 4 tehsils. Language spoken-Gujri, Pahari RAMBAN DISTRICT It is a newly formed district of Indian State of Jammu and Kashmir North to Udhampur. Ramban district has an average elevation of 1156 m the boundary lines of the district have Patnitop on its South, Assar on its East, Gool on its West and Banihal on its North. River Chenab passes through the district. National Highway-lA (Now 44) that connects Jammu with Srinagar passes through the district. Population_283713 Density-213 inhabitants per sq km Sex ratjo-902 females Literacy rate-54.27% The district consists of 4 blocks and 2 tehsils.
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Kashmir lifestyle is essentially, irrespective of the differing religious beliefs, slow paced. Generally peace-loving people, the culture has been rich enough to reflect the religious diversity as tribes celebrate festivities that divert them from their otherwise monotonous way of life. Kashmiris are known to enjoy their music in its various local forms, and the dress of both sexes is quite colourful. However, the rise of Islamic fundamentalism in Muslim-dominated Kashmir, Hindu-dominated Jammu and Buddhist-dominated Ladakh poses a grave danger to the security of the region where mixed population lives in regions such as Doda and Kargil. Kashmir is famous for its woven carpets, silk carpets, rugs, woolen shawls, pottery and hand-embroidered kurtas. The traditional clothes worn by women usually the pherans are usually hand-embroidered with colourful threads and floral motifs. Kashmiri woodwork is very popular. Extensive carving is done on wooden furniture, wooden boxes and other decorative and useful items made of wood. Kashmiri Papier-mache work is also very popular Kashmir art form. Papier-mache vases, bowls and other decorative items have exquisite traditional designs in vibrant colours on them. Hand woven willow baskets are very common in Kashmir and the locals utilize these for their everyday use. Kashmiri silk and woolen carpets have intricate designs woven on them. The wall hangings have naqqashi work done on them. The jamavar work that is done by artisans on silk and woolen shawls is characteristic of the state of Kashmir. The Kashmiri jaal work is quite popular. It takes months to complete thread work on one shawl, stole or bedspread. Artisans stitch decorative motifs of birds, maple leaves, and other decorative designs. The most popular form of thread work is the chain stitch that is done on shawls and clothes. Kashmiri jamavar shawls with intricate thread work are in demand all over the world the special feature of this type of thread work is that these shawls can be worn on both sides, that is, the patterns stitched on one sides come out with the same finish on the other side, with no threads sticking out. The sozoni style embroidery stitching is also very popular. Gold thread is also is used for zardori work on phirans, saris, gowns and shawls. The sozoni thread work is usually done on the border of the shawls. Through the Bassohli School and other paintings, Dogras have made a notable contribution to the development of painting in India. From the 18th to the 19th centuries, the hill state of Jammu produced works of art which were closely connected with other schools of India. Basohli emerged as a great centre of painting early in the 18th century. Many of the paintings gave pictorial expression to the Bhakti movement; some were Shaivistic in theme. Out-standing paintings of this school depict Krishna’s frolics, scenes from the Ramayana, the Mahabharata, the Bhagvata Gita, etc. The Basohli painting in “Laughing colours” evince a remarkable blend of line and colour.
They have been characterized as ‘poems in colour’ for their extraordinary lyrical quality.
Distinguished by decorative harmony and intensity of expression, these works (whether
CHAPTER
3
CULTURE OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR
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portraits of princes and other nobles or illustrations of scriptures) evinced rare
verisimilitude. No wonder then that Dr. Herman Goetz described Basohli paintings as “the
great achievements of Indians, nay, of human art”.
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EXERCISE (1ST TO 3RD CHAPTER)
1. The territories of J&K were transferred to
Raja Gulab Singh of Jammu as a result of:
a) Treaty of Amritsar 1846
b) Treaty of Lahore-1846
c) Treaty of J&K- 1846
d) Treaty of Bhairowal 1846
2. The constitution of J&K, came into force on:
a) 15th Aug,1947
b) 17th Nov,1956
c) 26th Jan, 1950
d) 26th Jan,1957
3. 73rd Constitutional Amendment does not
apply to which of the following states?
a) Meghalaya
b) Goa
c) Sikkim
d) Himachal Pardesh
4. As per Article Act, the legislature of a state, may
by Law, provide for making grants-in0aid to the
Panchayats from:
a) Contingency Fund of the President
contingency
b) Fund of the Governor
c) Consolidated Fund of the state
d) Consolidated Fund of India
5. Various employment programmes have been
launched in India, namely, IRDP, NREP,RLEQP,
FWP. They are meant to improve
a) Rural Employment
b) Urban Employment
c) Rural and Urban Employment
d) Educated Employment
6. Which committee was set up to
review the concept of the poverty
line?
a) Chakarvarty Committee
b) lakdawala Committee
c) Wanchoo Committee
d) Dutt Committee
7. According to the traditions,
Kashmir takes its name from:
a) Scenery
b) Sage
c) Temple
d) King
8. Who founded the city of Srinagar?
a) Janaka
b) Swarna
c) Pravarsena
d) None of the above
9. One of the objectives of Industrial
Licensing Policy in India was to
ensure:
a) Creation of adequate
employment opportunities
b) free flow of foreign capital in
Indian industries
c) Use of modern technology d) Balanced industrial development across
regions
10. A committee appointed in 1977 to
review working of the Panchayati
Raj was chaired by:
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a) Balwant Rai Mehta
b) Ashok Mehta
c) K.N Katju
d) JagjivanRam
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ANSWERS
1. a
2. d
3. a
4. c
5. c
6. b
7. b
8. c
9. d
10. b
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List of States and Capitals of India
As a responsible citizens we should know about the States and capitals of India. The states and the capitals are very commonly asked as the General Awareness Questions in a number of competitive exams held all over the country. The 28 Indian States and their capitals are as follows.
States and Capitals of India 2020
S.No States Name Capital Founded on
1 Andhra Pradesh Hyderabad (Proposed Capital Amaravati) 1 Nov. 1956
2 Arunachal Pradesh Itanagar 20 Feb. 1987
3 Assam Dispur 26 Jan. 1950
4 Bihar Patna 26 Jan. 1950
5 Chhattisgarh Raipur 1 Nov. 2000
6 Goa Panaji 30 May. 1987
7 Gujarat Gandhinagar 1 May. 1960
8 Haryana Chandigarh 1 Nov. 1966
CHAPTER
4 CAPITALS AND STATES
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9 Himachal Pradesh Shimla 25 Jan. 1971
10 Jharkhand Ranchi 15 Nov. 2000
11 Karnataka Bengaluru (formerly Bangalore) 1 Nov. 1956
12 Kerala Thiruvananthapuram 1 Nov. 1956
13 Madhya Pradesh Bhopal 1 Nov. 1956
14 Maharashtra Mumbai 1 May. 1960
15 Manipur Imphal 21 Jan. 1972
16 Meghalaya Shillong 21 Jan. 1972
17 Mizoram Aizawl 20 Feb. 1987
18 Nagaland Kohima 1 Dec. 1963
19 Odisha Bhubaneswar 26 Jan. 1950
20 Punjab Chandigarh 1 Nov. 1956
21 Rajasthan Jaipur 1 Nov. 1956
22 Sikkim Gangtok 16 May. 1975
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23 Tamil Nadu Chennai 26 Jan. 1950
24 Telangana Hyderabad 2 Jun. 2014
25 Tripura Agartala 21 Jan. 1972
26 Uttar Pradesh Lucknow 26 Jan. 1950
27 Uttarakhand Dehradun (Winter)
Gairsain (Summer)
9 Nov. 2000
28 West Bengal Kolkata 1 Nov. 1956
Indian States: Union Territories and Capitals
At Present India has 8 Union Territories and 28 States. The erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir has been bifurcated into two Union Territories (UT) of J&K and Ladakh. The newly formed union territories have been formed under a reorganization act passed by the Parliament on 5-6 August 2020. At present India has 8 Union Territories.
Union Territories Names Capital Founded on
Andaman and Nicobar Islands Port Blair 1 Nov. 1956
Chandigarh Chandigarh 1 Nov. 1966
Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu Daman 26 Jan. 2020
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Delhi New Delhi 9 May. 1905
Jammu and Kashmir Srinagar (Summer)
Jammu (Winter)
31 Oct 2019
Lakshadweep Kavaratti 1 Nov. 1956
Puducherry Pondicherry 1 Nov. 1954
Ladakh Leh 31 Oct 2019
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EXERCISE
1. What is the capital of Maharashtra?
a. Mumbai b. New Delhi c. Chennai d. None of the above
2. ________________ is the capital of Uttarakhand.
a. Lucknow b. Prayagraj (Allahabad) c. Dehradun d. Shimla
3. Dispur is the capital city of which north-eastern state?
a. Assam b. Tripura c. Meghalaya d. Mizoram
4. Which city is known as the “summer capital” of Jammu and Kashmir?
a. Jammu b. Srinagar c. Shimla d. Anantnag
5. Kavaratti is the capital of which Union Territory?
a. Daman and Diu b. Lakshadweep c. Dadar and Nagar Haveli d. Chandigarh
6. Port Blair is the capital of which Union Territory?
a. Andaman and Nicobar Islands b. Daman and Diu c. Puducherry d. None of the above
7. Itanagar is the capital of _______________ .
a. Bihar b. Goa c. Chattisgarh d. Arunachal Pradesh
8. Ranchi is the capital of which Indian state?
a. Bihar b. Telangana c. Jharkhand d. Madhya Pradesh
9. ________________ is the capital of Odisha (Orissa).
a. Kolkata b. Shillong c. Bhubaneshwar d. Cuttack
10. Silvassa is the capital of which Union Territory?
a. Mumbai b. Puducherry c. Daman and Diu d. Dadar and Nagar Haveli
11. What is the capital of Uttar Pradesh?
a. Prayagraj (Allahabad) b. Kanpur c. Gorakhpur d. Lucknow
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12. _________________ is the capital of Meghalaya.
a. Aizawl b. Kohima c. Shillong d. Agartala
13. Gandhinagar is the capital of which state?
a. Gujarat b. Maharashtra c. Telangana d. Goa
14. Thiruvananthapuram is the capital of __________________.
a. Telangana b. Andhra Pradesh c. Jammu and Kashmir d. Kerala
15. Gangtok is the capital of which state?
a. Sikkim b. Arunachal Pradesh c. Nagaland d. Mizoram
16. _________________ is the capital of Chattisgarh.
a. Bengaluru (Bangalore)
b. Ranchi c. Raipur d. Patna
17. The capital of Goa is _____________________.
a. Imphal b. Itanagar c. Hyderabad d. Panaji
18. What is the capital of Himachal Pradesh?
a. Shimla b. Chandigarh c. Manali d. Bhopal
19. _______________ is the capital of Punjab.
a. Delhi b. Jaipur c. Chandigarh d. Chennai
20. Kolkata is the capital of which eastern state?
a. West Bengal b. Odisha (Orissa) c. Jharkhand d. Tripura
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ANSWERS
1. a
2. c
3. a
4. b
5. b
6. a
7. d
8. c
9. c
10. d
11. d
12. c
13. a
14. d
15. a
16. c
17. d
18. a
19. c
20. a
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India's culture is among the world's oldest; civilization in India began about 4,500 years ago. Many sources describe it as "Sa Prathama Sanskrati Vishvavara" — the first and the supreme culture in the world, according to the All World Gayatri Pariwar (AWGP) organization.
Western societies did not always see the culture of India very favorably, according to
Christina De Rossi, an anthropologist at Barnet and Southgate College in London. Early
anthropologists once considered culture as an evolutionary process, and "every aspect of
human development was seen as driven by evolution," she told Live Science. "In this view,
societies outside of Europe or North America, or societies that did not follow the European
or Western way of life, were considered primitive and culturally inferior. Essentially this
included all the colonized countries and people, such as African countries, India, and the
Far East."
However, Indians made significant advances in architecture (Taj Mahal), mathematics (the invention of zero) and medicine (Ayurveda). Today, India is a very diverse country, with more than 1.2 billion people, according to the CIA World Factbook, making it the second most populous nation after China. Different regions have their own distinct cultures. Language, religion, food and the arts are just some of the various aspects of Indian culture. Here is a brief overview of the culture of India.
Language
India has 28 states and seven territories, according to the World Health Organization. There is no official language in India, according to a Gujarat High Court ruling in 2010, though Hindi is the official language of the government. The Constitution of India officially recognizes 23 official languages. Many people living in India write in Devanagari script. In fact, it is a misconception that the majority of people in India speak Hindi. Though many people speak Hindi in India, 59 percent of India residents speak something other than Hindi, according to The Times of India. Bengali, Telugu, Marathi, Tamil and Urdu are some other languages spoken in the country. Sanskrit, an ancient Indo-European language usually referred to in action movies, came from Northern India. How the language started has been a point of argument amongst linguists. It shares many similarities with English, French, Farsi and Russian languages. New DNA research in 2017 found that an Aryan invasion may have introduced the beginnings of Sanskrit. "People have been debating the arrival of the Indo-European
CHAPTER
5 INDIA CULTURE
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languages in India for hundreds of years," said study co-author Martin Richards, an archaeogeneticist at the University of Huddersfield in England. "There's been a very long-running debate about whether the Indo-European languages were brought from migrations from outside, which is what most linguists would accept, or if they evolved indigenously." [Aryan Invasion May Have Transformed India's Bronze-Age Population]
Religion
India is identified as the birthplace of Hinduism and Buddhism, the third and fourth largest religions. About 84 percent of the population identifies as Hindu, according to the "Handbook of Research on Development and Religion," edited by Matthew Clarke (Edward Elgar Publishing, 2013). There are many variations of Hinduism, and four predominant sects — Shaiva, Vaishnava, Shakteya and Smarta. About 13 percent of Indians are Muslim, making it one of the largest Islamic nations in the world. Christians and Sikhs make up a small percentage of the population, and there are even fewer Buddhists and Jains, according to the "Handbook."
The CIA cited similar figures. According to its World Factbook, around 80 percent of the population is Hindu, 14.2 percent is Muslim, 2.3 percent is Christian, 1.7 percent is Sikh and 2 percent is unspecified.
Food
When the Moghul Empire invaded during the sixteenth century, they left a significant mark on the Indian cuisine, according to Texas A&M University. Indian cuisine is also influenced by many other countries. It is known for its large assortment of dishes and its liberal use of herbs and spices. Cooking styles vary from region to region.
Wheat, Basmati rice and pulses with chana (Bengal gram) are important staples of the Indian diet. The food is rich with curries and spices, including ginger, coriander, cardamom, turmeric, dried hot peppers, and cinnamon, among others. Chutneys — thick condiments and spreads made from assorted fruits and vegetables such as tamarind and tomatoes and mint, cilantro and other herbs — are used generously in Indian cooking.
Many Hindus are vegetarian, but lamb and chicken are common in main dishes for non-vegetarians. The Guardian reports that between 20 percent and 40 percent of India's population is vegetarian. Much of Indian food is eaten with fingers or bread used as utensils. There is a wide array of breads served with meals, including naan, a leavened, oven-baked flatbread; and bhatoora, a fried, fluffy flatbread common in North India and eaten with chickpea curry.
Architecture and art
The most well-known example of Indian architecture is the Taj Mahal, built by Mughal emperor Shah Jahan to honor his third wife, Mumtaz Mahal. It combines elements from
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Islamic, Persian, Ottoman Turkish and Indian architectural styles. India also has many ancient temples.
India is well known for its film industry, which is often referred to as Bollywood. The country's movie history began in 1896 when the Lumière brothers demonstrated the art of cinema in Mumbai, according to the Golden Globes. Today, the films are known for their elaborate singing and dancing. Indian dance, music and theater traditions span back more than 2,000 years, according to Nilima Bhadbhade, author of "Contract Law in India" (Kluwer Law International, 2010). The major classical dance traditions — Bharata Natyam, Kathak, Odissi, Manipuri, Kuchipudi, Mohiniattam and Kathakali — draw on themes from mythology and literature and have rigid presentation rules. A study published in April 2016 in the Journal of Indian Ocean Archaeology found that some Indian horns have many similarities with horns made in Ireland. This research may suggest that the two countries may have exchanged ideas and techniques in making musical instruments during the Bronze Age. "Some horns are frankly shockingly similar, to the point where it is like witnessing time travel," study author Billy Ó Foghlú, an archaeologist and doctoral student at the Australian National University in Canberra, told Live Science. "If I were to find one of these modern Indian instruments in an Irish archaeological excavation and I didn't know what I was looking at, I would likely assume it was a Late Bronze Age Irish artifact." [Surprising Echo of Ancient Irish Horns in Indian Instruments]
Clothing
Indian clothing is closely identified with the colorful silk saris worn by many of the country's women. A traditional piece of clothing for men is the dhoti, an unstitched piece of cloth that is tied around the waist and legs. Men also wear a kurta, a loose shirt that is worn about knee-length. For special occasions, men wear a sherwani or achkan, which is a long coat that with a collar having no lapel. It is buttoned up to the collar and down to the knees. A shorter version of a sherwani is called a Nehru jacket. It is named after Jawaharlal Nehru, India's prime minister from 1947 to 1964, but Nehru never wore a Nehru jacket. He preferred the achkan, according to Tehelka, an Indian newspaper. The Nehru jacket was primarily marketed to Westerners.
Customs and celebrations
Diwali is the largest and most important holiday to India, according to National Geographic. It is a five-day festival known as the festival of lights because of the lights lit during the celebration to symbolize the inner light that protects them from spiritual darkness. Holi, the festival of colors, also called the festival of love, is popular in the spring. The country also celebrates Republic Day (Jan. 26), Independence Day (Aug. 15) and Mahatma Gandhi's birthday (Oct. 2).
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EXERCISE
1. Lal Ded (Lalla Yogeshwari) was a practitioner of which of the following traditions? a) Tibetan Buddhism b) Kashmir Shaivism c) Sri Sampradaya d) Smartism
2. The Nuakhai festival is predominantly
observed in which state? a) Uttar Pradesh b) Odisha c) Karnataka d) Sikkim
3. Raut Nacha is folk dance performed
mainly by the tribal communities of which state? a) Rajasthan b) Jammu & Kashmir c) Assam d) Chhattisgarh
4. Which of the following is not a
classical dance of India? a) Kathak b) Sattriya c) Manipuri d) Bhangra
5. In which of the following paintings, a
paste made of Zinc Oxide and Arabic Gum called “gesso paste” is used? a) Tanjore painting b) Madhubani painting c) Pattachitra d) Mysore painting
6. Which of the following features of
Indian temples resembles pylons of the Egyptian temples? a) Lat b) Vimana c) Gopura d) Shikhara
7. Kambala Sport is held in which state?
a) Karnataka b) Gujarath c) Tamilnadu d) Kerala
8. Which among the following Sikh
Gurus introduced the Gurmukhi Script? a) Guru Angad b) Guru Gobind Sing c) Guru Arjun Singh d) Guru Harrai
9. The first novel written by Sunil
Gangopadhyay is : a) Athmo Prakash (Self-Revelation) b) Pratham Alo (First Light) c) Purba Pachim (East and West) d) Shei Shomay (Those Days)
10. World’s largest religion (population
wise) is ____: a) Hindu b) Muslim c) Christian d) Buddhists
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ANSWERS
1. b 2. b 3. d 4. d 5. d 6. c 7. a
8. a 9. a 10. c
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History of India Located in the continent of Asia, India covers 2,973,193 square kilometers of land and 314,070 square kilometers of water, making it the 7th largest nation in the world with a total area of 3,287,263 square kilometers. Surrounded by Bhutan, Nepal, and Bangladesh to the North East, China to the North, Pakistan to the North West and Sri Lanka of the South East coast. India is a land of ancient civilizations. India's social, economic, and cultural configurations are the products of a long process of regional expansion. Indian history begins with the birth of the Indus Valley Civilization and the coming of the Aryans. These two phases are usually described as the pre-Vedic and Vedic age. Hinduism arose in the Vedic period. The fifth-century saw the unification of India under Ashoka, who had converted to Buddhism, and it is in his reign that Buddhism spread in many parts of Asia. In the eighth century, Islam came to India for the first time and by the eleventh century had firmly established itself in India as a political force. It resulted in the formation of the Delhi Sultanate, which was finally succeeded by the Mughal Empire, under which India once again achieved a large measure of political unity. It was in the 17th century that the Europeans came to India. This coincided with the disintegration of the Mughal Empire, paving the way for regional states. In the contest for supremacy, the English emerged 'victors'. The Rebellion of 1857-58, which sought to restore Indian supremacy, was crushed; and with the subsequent crowning of Victoria as Empress of India, the incorporation of India into the empire was complete. It was followed by India's struggle for independence, which we got in the year 1947. Here is a brief timeline about the history of India:
Ancient India History
The History of India begins with the Indus Valley Civilization and the coming of the Aryans.
These two phases are generally described as the pre-Vedic and Vedic periods. The earliest
literary source that sheds light on India's past is the Rig Veda. It is difficult to date this work
with any accuracy on the basis of tradition and ambiguous astronomical information
contained in the hymns. Indus valley civilization, which flourished between 2800 BC and
1800 BC, had an advanced and flourishing economic system. The Indus valley people
practiced agriculture, domesticated animals, made tools and weapons from copper, bronze,
and tin and even traded with some Middle East countries.
CHAPTER
6 INDIA HISTORY
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The Indus Valley Civilization
A long time ago, in the eastern world, there rose a few civilizations. The main reasons for
the rise of these urban civilizations were access to rivers, which served various functions of
human beings. Along with the Mesopotamian civilization and the Egyptian civilization, rose
the Indus Valley civilization spanning Northwest India and modern-day Pakistan. The
largest amongst the three civilizations, the Indus Valley civilization flourished around 2600
BC, at which time agriculture in India started flourishing. The fertile Indus valley made it
possible for agriculture to be carried out on a large scale. The most well-known towns of
the Indus Valley in today’s date are Mohenjo Daro and Harappa. Unearthing these two
towns showed excavators glimpses into the richness of the Indus Valley civilization,
evidenced in ruins and things like household articles, war weapons, gold and silver
ornament - and so on. The people of the Indus Valley civilization lived in well-planned
towns and well-designed houses made of baked bricks. In an era of developments and
prosperity, civilization, unfortunately, came to an end by around 1300 BC, mainly due to
natural calamities.
Vedic Civilization
The next era that India saw was that of the Vedic civilization, flourishing along the river Saraswati, named after the Vedas, which depict the early literature of the Hindus. The two greatest epics of this period were the Ramayana and the Mahabharata, still held in great reverence by the followers of Hinduism. Buddhist Era
Next came the Buddhist era, during the time of the Mahajanapadas which were the sixteen great powers, during the 7th and the 6th centuries BC. Prominent powers at the time were the Sakyas of Kapilavastu and the Licchavis of Vaishali. Buddha, whose original name was Siddhartha Gautam, was born in Lumbini near Kapilavastu and was the founder of Buddhism - a religion based on spiritualism. He died at the age of 80 in 480 BC but his teachings spread throughout southern and eastern Asia and are followed across the world today.
The Invasion of Alexander
When Alexander invaded India in 326 BC, he crossed the Indus river and defeated the Indian rulers in battle. Noteworthy of the Indians’ attempts at war, was the use of elephants, something that the Macedonians had never seen before. Alexander then took over the lands of the defeated kings.
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The Gupta Dynasty
The Gupta period has been referred to as the Golden Age of Indian history. When Chandragupt I received the gift of Pataliputra in dowry when he married the daughter of the chief of the ‘Licchavis’, he started to lay down the foundation of his empire, which extended from the river Ganges or the Ganga to the city of Allahabad. He ruled for 15 years and was also referred to as the ‘king of kings’ for his strategic conquests and the flourishing state of India.
Harshavardhana
The last of the ancient kingdoms in India was by the king Harshavardhana, who ascended
the throne at Thanneshwar and Kannauj after his brother died. While successful in a few of
his conquests, he eventually got defeated by the Chalukya Kingdom of Deccan India.
Harshavardhana was well-known for establishing relations with the Chinese, and also for
having high religious tolerance and strong administrative capabilities.
Medieval Indian History
The medieval history of India is renowned for deriving a lot of its character from Islamic kingdoms. Extending across almost three generations, medieval India included a number of kingdoms and dynasties: - The Chalukyas - The Pallavas - The Pandyas - The Rashtrakutas - The Cholas The Cholas were the most important rulers at this time, the 9th Century AD. Their kingdom covered a large part of South India, including Sri Lanka and the Maldives. While the rulers ruled bravely and carried out the annexation of multiple territories in India, the empire came to an end in the 14th Century AD with an invasion by a man named Kafur Malik. The monuments from the Chola Dynasty are still intact and are known for their rustic charm. The next major empire was that of the Mughals, preceded by a rise in Islamic rulers. The invasion of Timur was a significant point in Indian history before a Hindu revival movement called the Bhakti movement, came to be. Finally, in the 16th Century, the Mughal empire started to rise. One of the greatest empires of India, the Mughal empire was a rich and glorious one, with the whole of India united and ruled by one monarch. The Mughal Kings were Babar, Humayun, Sher Shah Suri (not a Mughal king), Akbar, Jehangir, Shah Jahan, and Aurangzeb. They were responsible for setting up efficient public administration,
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laying out infrastructure, and promoting the arts. A large number of monuments in India today exist from the Mughal period. The death of the last Mughal King, Aurangzeb, sowed the seeds of disintegration within India. Influencers of Islamic architecture in India, the Mughal kings are still looked back in awe. Akbar
Emperor Akbar, also known as Akbar the Great or Jalaluddin Muhammad Akbar, was the
third emperor of the Mughal Empire, after Babur and Humayun. He was the son of
Nasiruddin Humayun and succeeded him as the emperor in the year 1556 when he was
only 13 years old.
Shah Jahan
Shah Jahan, also known as Shahbuddin Mohammed Shah Jahan, was a Mughal Emperor
who ruled in the Indian Subcontinent from 1628 to 1658. He was the fifth Mughal ruler,
after Babur, Humayun, Akbar, and Jahangir. Shah Jahan succeeded the throne after
revolting against his father, Jahangir.
Chhatrapati Shivaji
Chatrapati Shivaji Maharaj was the founder of the Maratha Empire in western India. He
is considered to be one of the greatest warriors of his time and even today, stories of his
exploits are narrated as a part of the folklore. King Shivaji used the guerrilla tactics to
capture a part of, the then, dominant Mughal empire.
Modern Indian History
During the late 16th and the 17th Centuries, the European trading companies in India
competed with each other ferociously. By the last quarter of the 18th Century, the English
had outdone all others and established themselves as the dominant power in India. The
British administered India for a period of about two centuries and brought about
revolutionary changes in the social, political and economic life of the country. However, the
zenith of colonisation was achieved when the British arrived in the early 1600s as traders.
Capitalizing on the disintegration that existed in India after the Mughal rule, the British
actively used the strategy of ‘divide-and-rule’ to rule over India for over 2 centuries. While
the British had come in earlier, they only achieved political power in 1757 AD after the
Battle of Plassey. They took a keen interest in the resources that India had to offered and
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have been looked back at as plunderers of India’s wealth of resources - as they took cotton,
spices, silk, and tea, amongst numerous other resources. While they did lay out a massive
chunk of India’s infrastructure, by also bringing the Indians steam engines, it is seldom
looked back at as an equal relationship. The British Raj was divisive and pit Indians against
one another, on the basis of religion; and also mistreated the laborers. The Indians were
essentially slaves of the British rule and were working hard without any returns on their
work. This, naturally, led to multiple mutinies; and prominent freedom fighters came to the
forefront. Different ideologies of thought believed that there were different ways of gaining
freedom; however, they all had one common goal - freedom. The British queen had
asserted that the aim of the British was to help India progress - however, multiple
problems arose without the consultation of Indian leaders. One important instance of this
was when in the First World War, Britain launched an attack on Germany on behalf of
India, even though India did not wish for that to happen; and millions of Indian soldiers
were at the forefront of the British Indian Army during both the world wars - further
fuelling the Indian resistance. Over a million Indian soldiers were killed in both the World
Wars.
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EXERCISE
1. The Venetian traveler who travelled with his wife and reached Vijayawada around 1420 was…. a) Anthanasius Nikitin b) Nicolo de Conti c) Ibn Batuta d) Ferishta
2. The Uprising of 1857 was described as the first Indian war of Independence by …….
a) S.N. Sen
b) R.C. Mazumdar
c) B.G. Tilak
d) V.D. Savakar
3. The Turko-Afghan rule in India lasted
for about….
a) two centuries
b) three centuries
c) four centuries
d) a little over one century
4. Though Ashoka had many sons, the
inscriptions mentioned only one who
is not mentioned in any other source.
He is…….
a) Kunala
b) Tivara
c) Mahendra
d) Jalauka
5. The Vijayanagara king who employed
skilled archers of the Turkish clan and
raised the fighting capacity of his
bowmen was……..
a) Bukka I
b) Devaraya I
c) Krishnadevaraya
d) Ramaraya
6. Visakhadatta sketches the event after
the death of Samudragupta in his
work……
a) Mudrarakasam
b) Devi Chand Gupta
c) Mrichekakatika
d) Malavikagnimitra
7. To evolve a peaceful settlement of the
conflict between India and China,
which of the following non-aligned
Afro-Asian nations participated in a
conference held in December 1962?
a) Burma (now Myanmar),
b) Combodia, Indonesia and UAR
c) Burma, Sri Lanka, Combodia and
Indonesia
d) Burma, Indonesia, Ghana and Sri
Lanka
8. The Vijayanagara ruler, Kirshnadev
Raya’s work Amuktamalyada, was
in…..
a) Telugu
b) Sanskrit
c) Tamil
d) Kannada
9. The use of spinning wheel (Charkha)
became common during the ……..
a) 9th century AD
b) 10th century A
c) 12th century AD
d) 14th century AD
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10. Velu Thampi led a revolt against the
British in state of………
a) Travancore
b) Baroda
c) Hyderabad
d) Mysore
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ANSWERS
1. b 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. b
6. a 7. d 8. a 9. d 10. a
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India's total land mass is 2,973,190 square kilometers and is divided into three main geological regions: the Indo-Gangetic Plain, the Himalayas, and the Peninsula region. The Indo-Gangetic Plain and those portions of the Himalayas within India are collectively known as North India. South India consists of the peninsular region, often termed simply the Peninsula. On the basis of its physiography, India is divided into ten regions: the Indo-Gangetic Plain, the northern mountains of the Himalayas, the Central Highlands, the Deccan or Peninsular Plateau, the East Coast (Coromandel Coast in the south), the West Coast (Konkan, Kankara, and Malabar coasts), the Great Indian Desert (a geographic feature known as the Thar Desert in Pakistan) and the Rann of Kutch, the valley of the Brahmaputra in Assam, the northeastern hill ranges surrounding the Assam Valley, and the islands of the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.
Indo-Gangetic Plain
In social and economic terms, the Indo-Gangetic Plain is the most important region of India. The plain is a great alluvial crescent stretching from the Indus River system in Pakistan to the Punjab Plain (in both Pakistan and India) and the Haryana Plain to the delta of the Ganga (or Ganges) in Bangladesh (where it is called the Padma). Topographically the plain is homogeneous, with only floodplain bluffs and other related features of river erosion and changes in river channels forming important natural features.
Two narrow terrain belts, collectively known as the Terai, constitute the northern boundary of the Indo-Gangetic Plain. Where the foothills of the Himalayas encounter the plain, small hills known locally as ghar (meaning house in Hindi) have been formed by coarse sands and pebbles deposited by mountain streams. Groundwater from these areas flows on the surface where the plains begin and converts large areas along the rivers into swamps. The southern boundary of the plain begins along the edge of the Great Indian Desert in the state of Rajasthan and continues east along the base of the hills of the Central Highlands to the Bay of Bengal. The hills, varying in elevation from 300 to 1,200 meters, lie on a general east-west axis. The Central Highlands are divided into northern and southern parts. The northern part is centered on the Aravalli Range of eastern Rajasthan. In the northern part of the state of Madhya Pradesh, the Malwa Plateau comprises the southern part of the Central Highlands and merges with the Vindhya Range to the south. The main rivers that flow through the southern part of the plain--the Narmada, the Tapti, and the Mahanadi--delineate North India from South India.
Some geographers subdivide the Indo-Gangetic Plain into three parts: the Indus Valley (mostly in Pakistan), the Punjab (divided between India and Pakistan) and Haryana plains,
CHAPTER
7 INDIA GEOGRAPHY
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and the middle and lower Ganga. These regional distinctions are based primarily on the availability of water. By another definition, the Indo-Gangetic Plain is divided into two drainage basins by the Delhi Ridge; the western part consists of the Punjab Plain and the Haryana Plain, and the eastern part consists of the Ganga-Brahmaputra drainage systems. This divide is only 300 meters above sea level, contributing to the perception that the Indo-Gangetic Plain appears to be continuous between the two drainage basins. The Punjab Plain is centered in the land between five rivers: the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas, and the Sutlej. (The name Punjab comes from the Sanskrit pancha ab , meaning five waters or rivers.)
Both the Punjab and Haryana plains are irrigated with water from the Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej rivers. The irrigation projects emanating from these rivers have led to a decrease in the flow of water reaching the lower drainage areas in the state of Punjab in India and the Indus Valley in Pakistan. The benefits that increased irrigation has brought to farmers in the state of Haryana are controversial in light of the effects that irrigation has had on agricultural life in the Punjab areas of both India and Pakistan.
The middle Ganga extends from the Yamuna River in the west to the state of West Bengal in the east. The lower Ganga and the Assam Valley are more lush and verdant than the middle Ganga. The lower Ganga is centered in West Bengal from which it flows into Bangladesh and, after joining the Jamuna (as the lower reaches of the Brahmaputra are known in Bangladesh), forms the delta of the Ganga. The Brahmaputra (meaning son of Brahma) rises in Tibet (China's Xizang Autonomous Region) as the Yarlung Zangbo River, flows through Arunachal Pradesh and Assam, and then crosses into Bangladesh. Average annual rainfall increases moving west to east from approximately 600 millimeters in the Punjab Plain to 1,500 millimeters around the lower Ganga and Brahmaputra.
The Himalayas
The Himalayas, the highest mountain range in the world, extend along the northern frontiers of Pakistan, India, Nepal, Bhutan, and Burma. They were formed geologically as a result of the collision of the Indian subcontinent with Asia. This process of plate tectonics is ongoing, and the gradual northward drift of the Indian subcontinent still causes earthquakes (see Earthquakes, this ch.). Lesser ranges jut southward from the main body of the Himalayas at both the eastern and western ends. The Himalayan system, about 2,400 kilometers in length and varying in width from 240 to 330 kilometers, is made up of three parallel ranges--the Greater Himalayas, the Lesser Himalayas, and the Outer Himalayas--sometimes collectively called the Great Himalayan Range. The Greater Himalayas, or northern range, average approximately 6,000 meters in height and contain the three highest mountains on earth: Mount Everest (8,796 meters) on the China-Nepal border; K2 (8,611 meters, also known as Mount Godwin-Austen, and in China as Qogir Feng) in an area claimed by India, Pakistan, and China; and Kanchenjunga (8,598 meters) on the India-Nepal border. Many major mountains are located entirely within India, such as Nanda Devi (7,817 meters) in the state of Uttar Pradesh. The snow line averages 4,500 to 6,000 meters on the
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southern side of the Greater Himalayas and 5,500 to 6,000 on the northern side. Because of climatic conditions, the snow line in the eastern Himalayas averages 4,300 meters, while in the western Himalayas it averages 5,800 meters.
The Lesser Himalayas, located in northwestern India in the states of Himachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, in north-central India in the state of Sikkim, and in northeastern India in the state of Arunachal Pradesh, range from 1,500 to 5,000 meters in height. Located in the Lesser Himalayas are the hill stations of Shimla (Simla) and Darjiling (Darjeeling). During the colonial period, these and other hill stations were used by the British as summer retreats to escape the intense heat of the plains. It is in this transitional vegetation zone that the contrasts between the bare southern slopes and the forested northern slopes become most noticeable.
The Outer or Southern Himalayas, averaging 900 to 1,200 meters in elevation, lie between the Lesser Himalayas and the Indo-Gangetic Plain. In Himachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, this southernmost range is often referred to as the Siwalik Hills. It is possible to identify a fourth, and northernmost range, known as the Trans-Himalaya. This range is located entirely on the Qinghai-Xizang Plateau, north of the great west-to-east trending valley of the Yarlung Zangbo River. Although the Trans-Himalaya Range is divided from the Great Himalayan Range for most of its length, it merges with the Great Himalayan Range in the western section--the Karakoram Range--where India, Pakistan, and China meet.
The southern slopes of each of the Himalayan ranges are too steep to accumulate snow or support much tree life; the northern slopes generally are forested below the snow line. Between the ranges are extensive high plateaus, deep gorges, and fertile valleys, such as the vales of Kashmir and Kulu. The Himalayas serve a very important purpose. They provide a physical screen within which the monsoon system operates and are the source of the great river systems that water the alluvial plains below (see Climate, this ch.). As a result of erosion, the rivers coming from the mountains carry vast quantities of silt that enrich the plains.
The area of northeastern India adjacent to Burma and Bangladesh consists of numerous hill tracts, averaging between 1,000 and 2,000 meters in elevation, that are not associated with the eastern part of the Himalayas in Arunachal Pradesh. The Naga Hills, rising to heights of more than 3,000 meters, form the watershed between India and Burma. The Mizo Hills are the southern part of the northeastern ranges in India. The Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia hills are centered in the state of Meghalaya and, isolated from the northeastern ranges, divide the Assam Valley from Bangladesh to the south and west.
The Peninsula
The Peninsula proper is an old, geologically stable region with an average elevation between 300 and 1,800 meters. The Vindhya Range constitutes the main dividing line between the geological regions of the Indo-Gangetic Plain and the Peninsula. This range lies
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north of the Narmada River, and when viewed from there, it is possible to discern the prominent escarpments that rise between 800 and 1,400 meters. The Vindhya Range defines the north-central and northwestern boundary of the Peninsula, and the Chota Nagpur Plateau of southern Bihar forms the northeastern boundary. The uplifting of the plateau of the central Peninsula and its eastward tilt formed the Western Ghats, a line of hills running from the Tapti River south to the tip of the Peninsula. The Eastern Ghats mark the eastern end of the plateau; they begin in the hills of the Mahanadi River basin and converge with the Western Ghats at the Peninsula's southern tip.
The interior of the Peninsula, south of the Narmada River, often termed the Deccan Plateau or simply the Deccan (from the Sanskrit daksina , meaning south), is a series of plateaus topped by rolling hills and intersected by many rivers. The plateau averages roughly 300 to 750 meters in elevation. Its major rivers--the Godavari, the Krishna, and the Kaveri--rise in the Western Ghats and flow eastward into the Bay of Bengal.
The coastal plain borders the plateau. On the northwestern side, it is characterized by tidal marshes, drowned valleys, and estuaries; and in the south by lagoons, marshes, and beach ridges. Coastal plains on the eastern side are wider than those in the west; they are focused on large river deltas that serve as the centers of human settlement.
Offshore Islands
India's offshore islands, constituting roughly one-quarter of 1 percent of the nation's territory, lie in two groups located off the east and west coasts. The northernmost point of the union territory of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands lies 1,100 kilometers southeast of Calcutta. Situated in the Bay of Bengal in a chain stretching some 800 kilometers, the Andaman Islands comprise 204 islands and islets, and their topography is characterized by hills and narrow valleys. Although their location is tropical, the climate of the islands is tempered by sea breezes; rainfall is irregular. The Nicobar Islands, which are south of the Andaman Islands, comprise nineteen islands, some with flat, coral-covered surfaces and others with hills. The islands have a nearly equatorial climate, heavy rainfall, and high temperatures. The union territory of Lakshadweep (the name means 100,000 islands) in the Arabian Sea, comprises--from north to south--the Amindivi, Laccadive, Cannanore, and Minicoy islands. The islands, only ten of which are inhabited, are spread throughout an area of approximately 77,000 square kilometers. The islands are low-lying coral-based formations capable of limited cultivation.
Coasts and Borders
India has 7,000 kilometers of seacoast and shares 14,000 kilometers of land frontier with six nations: Pakistan, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, and Burma. India claims a twelve-nautical-mile territorial sea and an exclusive economic zone of 200 nautical miles. The territorial seas total 314,400 square kilometers.
In the mid-1990s, India had boundary disagreements with Pakistan, China, and
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Bangladesh; border distances are therefore approximations. The partition of India in 1947 established two India-Pakistan frontiers: one on the west and one on the east (East Pakistan became Bangladesh in 1971).
Disputes over the state of Jammu and Kashmir led to hostilities between India and Pakistan in 1947. The January 1, 1949, cease-fire arranged by the United Nations (UN) divided control of Kashmir. India controls Jammu, the Vale of Kashmir, and the capital, Srinagar, while Pakistan controls the mountainous area to the northwest. Neither side accepts a divided Kashmir as a permanent solution. India regards as illegal the 1963 China-Pakistan border agreement, which ceded to China a portion of Pakistani-controlled Kashmir. The two sides also dispute the Siachen Glacier near the Karakoram Pass. Further India-Pakistan hostilities in the 1965 war were settled through the Soviet-brokered Tashkent Declaration.
In 1968 an international tribunal settled the dispute over the Rann of Kutch, a region of salt flats that is submerged for six months of the year in the state of Gujarat. The following year, a new border was demarcated that recognized Pakistan's claim to about 10 percent of the area.
In 1992 India completed fencing most of the 547-kilometer-long section of the boundary between the Indian state of Punjab and the Pakistani province of Punjab. This measure was undertaken because of the continuing unrest in the region caused by both ethnic and religious disputes among the local Indian population and infiltrators from both sides of the frontier. The more rugged terrain north of Punjab along the entire cease-fire line between India and Pakistan in Jammu and Kashmir continues to be subject to infiltration and local strife (see Political Issues, ch. 8; South Asia, ch. 9; Insurgent Movements and External Subversion, ch. 10).
The 2,000-kilometer-long border with China has eastern, central, and western sections. In the western section, the border regions of Jammu and Kashmir have been the scene of conflicting claims since the nineteenth century. China has not accepted India's definitions of the boundary and has carried out defense and economic activities in parts of eastern Kashmir since the 1950s. In the 1960s, China finished construction of a motor road across Aksai Chin (a region under dispute between India and China), the main transportation route linking China's Xinjiang-Uygur Autonomous Region and Tibet.
In the eastern section, the China-India boundary follows the McMahon Line laid down in 1914 by Sir Arthur Henry McMahon, the British plenipotentiary to a conference of Indian, British, and Chinese representatives at Simla (now known as Shimla, Himachal Pradesh). The Simla Convention, as the agreement is known, set the boundary between India and Tibet. Although the British and Tibetan representatives signed the agreement on July 3, 1914, the Chinese delegate declined to sign. The line agreed to by Britain and Tibet generally follows the crest of the eastern Himalayas from Bhutan
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to Burma. It serves as a legal boundary, although the Chinese have never formally accepted it. China continued to claim roughly the entire area of Arunachal Pradesh south of the McMahon Line in the early 1990s. In 1962 China and India fought a brief border war in this region, and China occupied certain areas south of the line for several months (see Nehru's Legacy, ch 1; The Experience of Wars, ch. 10). India and China took a major step toward resolving their border disputes in 1981 by opening negotiations on the issue. Agreements and talks held in 1993 and 1995 eased tensions along the India-China border (see China, ch. 9). Sikkim, which became an Indian state in 1975, forms the small central section of India's northern border and lies between Nepal and Bhutan.
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EXERCISE
1. The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-
electric project, completed with the
help of Japan, is on the river.
a) Ganga
b) Cauver
c) Godavari
d) Narmada
2. The percentage of irrigated land in
India is about.
a) 45
b) 65
c) 35
d) 25
3. The southernmost point of peninsular
India, that is, Kanyakumari, is
a) north of Tropic of Cancer
b) south of the Equator
c) south of the Capricorn
d) north of the Equator
4. The pass located at the southern end
of the Nilgiri Hills in south India is
called
a) the Palghat gap
b) the Bhorghat pas
c) the Thalgat pas
d) the Bolan pass
5. Which of the following factors are
responsible for the rapid growth of
sugar production in south India as
compared to north India?
I. Higher per acre field of sugarcane
II. Higher sucrose content of sugarcane
III. Lower labour cost
IV. Longer crushing period
a) I and I
b) I, II and II
c) I, III and IV
d) I, II and IV
6. The principal copper deposits of India
lie in which of the following places?
a) Hazaribag and Singbhum of Bihar
b) Khetri and Daribo areas of
Rajastha
c) Anantapur in Andhra Prades
d) Siwaliks in Uttar Pradesh and in
Karnataka
7. Which of the following are true
regarding Jhum cultivation in India?
I. It is largely practiced in Assam
II. It is referred to as 'slash and burn'
technique
III. In it, the fertility is exhausted in a
few years
a) I, II and III
b) II and III
c) I and II
d) I and III
8. The Yarlung Zangbo River, in India, is
known as
a) Ganga
b) Indus
c) Brahmaputra
d) Mahanadi
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9. The Salal Project is on the river
a) Chena
b) Jhelum
c) Ravi
d) Sutlej
10. The only zone in the country that
produces gold is also rich in iron is
a) North-eastern zone
b) North-western zone
c) Southern zone
d) None of the above
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ANSWERS
1. c
2. c
3. d
4. a
5. d
6. a
7. c
8. a
9. c
10. c
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Introduction to Hygiene and Sanitation
Health risks: Look carefully at this drawing and become familiar with all these seven possible ways in which microbes from faeces can make us ill. (c) Tearfund 2005, Encouraging good hygiene and sanitation
1. Background
Sanitation is enshrined in the Millennium Development Goals and is a cornerstone of the fight against poverty. Lack of basic sanitation puts millions of lives at risk and is responsible for a quarter of all child deaths in developing countries every year.1 Lack of sanitation and poor hygiene also severely limit the impact of other development interventions in education, health, rural and urban development. An enormous amount of resources has been expended on providing sanitation facilities, yet still over 2.5 billion people do not have access to basic sanitation services (WHO/UNICEF - JMP, 2008). Throughout the developing world the low sanitation coverage figures paint a stark picture. Furthermore, sanitation hardware alone is not sufficient: in many instances even though new toilets and washing facilities have been built, and coverage is recorded by officials as relatively high, proper usage remains low and little or no benefit is derived. Indeed, awareness is growing amongst public health practitioners that, until hygiene is properly practiced, both at home and in the community as a whole, the desired impact of improved water and sanitation services in terms of community health benefits cannot be realised. Over the past four decades practitioners have strived to find ways to reduce not only the huge number who remain without access to a toilet but also the huge number who do not
CHAPTER
8 HEALTH, HYGIENE AND SANITATION
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use facilities hygienically even when they are available. The methods used to address this problem endeavour to engage target groups (individuals, households, communities, institutions or even organisations) in development programmes that enable a change in behaviours or create a demand for services. These methods or approaches are generally referred to as "software" activities to distinguish them from the provision of hardware.
2. What are hygiene and sanitation?
The terms hygiene and sanitation can mean different things to different people. For the
purposes of this document the term 'sanitation' is used to refer to the management of
human excreta. The term hygiene is used to refer to the behaviours/measures, including
but beyond the management of human faeces, which are used to break the chain of
infection transmission in the home and community. Whereas most people recognise that
hygiene means 'handwashing', there is some confusion as to what else is involved. In
reality, all of the following contribute in some measure to reducing the burden of infectious
diseases circulating in the community:
Hand hygiene and personal hygiene; Food hygiene (cooking, storing, preventing cross contamination); Ensuring safe water at 'point of use'; Respiratory hygiene; Safe disposal of faeces (both human and animal); General hygiene (laundry, surfaces, toilets, baths, sinks); and Disposal of solid waste, control of wastewater and rainwater
Although ideally all aspects of home hygiene are important, there is a general consensus that hygiene promotion programmes are more likely to be successful in changing behaviour if they focus on a small number of activities at a time. This means understanding how infectious diseases are being transmitted, and prioritizing practices which carry the greatest risk: In communities where facilities for safe disposal of faeces are inadequate, the major part of the diarrhoeal disease burden originates from infected faeces. Infectious agents are transmitted from faeces to hands to mouth (which can occur directly, or indirectly via other surfaces e.g. toilet surfaces), or by consumption of food or water which has become contaminated with faecal organisms. 'Faecal:oral' transmission is illustrated by the F-diagram shown in the image above. Breaking the chain of faecal-oral transmission is achieved by a combination of improved sanitation and good hygiene practices. Animal faeces can also be the source of diarrhoeal disease, as can contaminated food purchased from a market or a contaminated community water supply. Respiratory tract infections such as colds and flu, result either from inhalation of infected mucous droplets, or by rubbing the nasal mucosa or the eye with mucouscontaminated hands. Data now shows that good respiratory hygiene (safe disposal
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of nasal mucous and handwashing) can reduce the risks of respiratory infections; for instance, a study by Luby et al (2005) showed associations between hand hygiene and Acute Respiratory Infections (ARI) in children under five; when children?s hands were washed at the recommended times significant reductions in ARIs were noted. The association between hand hygiene and ARIs is very topical with worldwide concern over the spread of SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome) in 2003 and more recently Influenza A H1N1 (commonly known as swine flu). The World Health Organization (WHO) has raised the swine flu virus outbreak to a category 6 or global pandemic level (WHO, 2009) and as a consequence national governments are now running health information campaigns in order to try and limit its spread. These campaigns demonstrate how the association between handwashing and the spread of ARIs is being used to encourage people to change behaviours and follow good hygiene practices; for examples see the British government's 'Catch It, Bin It, Kill It' slogan (UK Government, 2009) and the Information on Influenza A H1N1 displayed on the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India (2009) webpage. For skin and eye infections, the hands are probably the major route of spread of infection. Trachoma is largely preventable through hygiene (face washing breaks the infection cycle). Fly control through hygienic latrines is also important. For intestinal helminths, the hands, along with human faeces, are the major route for spreading a variety of intestinal helminths, which, while they do not necessarily contribute to mortality do contribute significantly to morbidity in children under 15 years of age.
Out of the above infections diarrhoeal disease is the most deadly, especially for children (see Pruss-Ustun et al, 2008) and consequently the WASH sector's primary focus is on reducing its spread. Establishing the relative impact (and thus relative importance) of different interventions is difficult, but it is generally accepted that, for reducing the risks of diarrhoeal disease transmission, priority should be given to promoting the three interventions which break the chain of faecal:oral transmission as shown in Figure 1 (Bloomfield, 2007):
Safe disposal of faeces by sanitation; Handwashing at critical times; and Ensuring access to adequate safe water at point of use.
Other hygiene practices such as improved food hygiene and solid waste management are important as well; practitioners generally introduce these once the three primary interventions are in place. Of course the ranking of risks may vary from one community to another, for example in some communities risks associated with poor food hygiene may be greater than those associated with poor household water quality.
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Faecal - oral transmission of germs(the F-diagram) and how to break the
transmission routes
(c) Water Supply and Sanitation Collaborative Council (WSSCC)
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EXERCISE
1. Which are the good sources of Protein? a) Green vegetables b) Rice c) Fruits d) Eggs
2. Which food item provide energy?
a) Rice b) Sugar c) Bread d) All of these
3. Which food item has calcium?
a) Honey b) Milk c) Sugar d) Potato
4. Which food item has fat?
a) Butter b) Fish c) Green vegetable d) None of these
5. We get vitamin A from which of the
following? a) Beet root b) Lemon c) Yellow fruit d) Pulses
6. Which of the following is a
communicable disease?
a) Typhoid b) Dibeates c) Obesity d) Heart diseases
7. Which food item has carbohydrates
and fats? a) Bread and butters b) Rice and pulses c) Egg and fish d) All of these
8. Which of the following is a good
source of iron? a) Green vegetables b) Potato c) Tomato d) Beet root
9. Which food item has protein, fat and
minerals? a) Fruits b) Bread c) Honey d) Milk
10. Which food item has roughage?
a) Eggs b) Fish c) Corn d) Milk
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ANSWERS 1. d 2. d 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. a
7. a 8. d 9. d 10. c
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Top 10 popular sports in India
We now move to the list of the most popular sports in India. Before delving into the list, it is essential to first know that these sports have been ranked on the basis of their pure popularity in India. The placement of any sport on the list is not indicative of India’s performance in general.
Though cricket might dominate headlines for the clamor it creates in India, there are a number of other sports which have a decent following amongst many demographics in India. List of sports in India rated by popularity will be displayed below.
Top 10 popular sports in India are-
1. Cricket
The popularity of cricket in India is unparalleled compared to interest generated by a particular sport in any other country. Brazil and Argentina do come close in terms of a similar obsession with football, but the sheer number of cricket followers in India tilts the balance eastwards.
The reasons behind the sustained popularity of cricket are many. Aside from cricket matches being regularly telecasted and promoted by premier sporting channels, India’s performance in cricket has a huge role to play in its sustained popularity.
From the World Cup in 1983 to the Champions Trophy in 2013, India has remained in contention for the top prize in international cricket. This era has been marked with some of the best cricketers Indian cricket and the world have ever seen in the likes of Sachin Tendulkar, Anil Kumble, Rahul Dravid, VVS Laxman, MS Dhoni and many more.
The popularity of cricket and cricketers is also attributed to the mega endorsement deals cricketers tend to land regularly.
In a country obsessed with fame and exclusivity, cricketers are amongst the most revered personalities in the country.
With a new generation of cricketers being led by Virat Kohli, one can expect many good things from the current crop of Indian players in the future. The most popular sport in India is expected to be cricket for the foreseeable future considering the regular inflow of talent with every passing generation.
CHAPTER
9 SPORTS
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2. Football
The most popular sport in the world, football remains an enigma in India. Famously called the ‘sleeping giant’ of the foot balling world by former FIFA president Sepp Blatter, football is primarily a spectator sport in India. While the ISL has garnered a hefty base of followers in India, it is the huge following of European club tournaments which forms the roots of football’s popularity in India.
The Indian football team is currently ranked 105 in the world. Considering the population of India and the demographics of some of the other countries who have qualified for the World Cup in the past few years, the failure to qualify even once can be called a monumental failure on a professional and institutional level.
The popularity of football in India remains stoked by the sizable following of European football in urban centers of the country. The Premier League is one of the most watched sports leagues in India. To encourage a culture of football in the subcontinent and India in particular, many top European clubs such as Manchester United, Liverpool, Arsenal, Real Madrid, Barcelona, Bayern Munich, and Chelsea have dedicated fan groups in which are connected with supporters across the world.
These efforts made by European foot balling bodies have created a whole generation of young Indians who follow and support top clubs based in England, Spain, Germany, and Italy.
Following the example set by European clubs, India has its own football league now, the Indian Soccer League (ISL). The tournament recorded a viewership of nearly 160 million during its first season in 2014.
3. Kabaddi
While different sports in India like badminton and hockey would have nabbed the third spot a few years back, kabaddi has returned to the center stage of Indian sports.
Amongst the traditional Indian sports, kabaddi has returned to the mainstream with the unforeseen rise of the Pro-Kabaddi League held annually across various cities in India. In 2014, the PKL became the second most popular league in India, bested only by the Indian Premier League (IPL).
Having established a strong viewer base and a set of willing sponsors, kabaddi is uniquely positioned to gain viewership in rural areas due to its obvious popularity there and establishing new viewers who slowly learning more about the sport.
India and Iran are the two top kabaddi playing nations in the world at the moment. India has won all the Kabaddi World Cups until 2017.
4. Badminton
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Though badminton had always been a sport of great interest amongst the general public, success on the international stage had been less forthcoming.
This trend has changed as a crop of Indian players have made a name for themselves and India on the international stage. After establishing herself across various tournaments, Saina Nehwal etched her name in history books at the London Olympics in 2012 by picking up a bronze medal.
Nehwal’s achievement was surpassed by her younger counterpart, PV Sindhu. The latter won a silver medal in the Rio Games in 2016. Besides picking up medals at the Olympics, there have been other shutters who have brought him top honors such as K Srikant, Jwala Gutta, Ashwini Ponnappa and yesteryear legends in Prakash Padukone and Pulella Gopichand.
Seeing the rise of Indian talents on the international stage, the Badminton Association of India (BAI) oversaw the institution of the Premier Badminton League in 2013. The league generated a fair amount of viewership down to its fast-paced format and presence of top rated Indian players.
With the next Olympics in two years time, expect Indian badminton players to make a major bid for the top prize.
5. Hockey
The national sport of India, hockey is still trying to find a way back to the golden years when it brought back gold medals from every passing Olympic Games. Led by Dhyan Chand, India dominated the hockey world with over eight Olympic gold medals.
The change of rules which included the introduction of an artificial playing turf became a bane for Indian players used to playing on regular grass tops. To compound to this problem, incessant infighting in the hockey federation led to the gradual decline of Indian hockey as other nations like Australia, Netherlands and Germany caught up to the Indian dominance.
The decline of hockey has since been apparent. While there are certain blips when the hockey scene does show signs of revival, the overwhelming systemic problems tend to bog the sport down every time.
Like many other sports in India, hockey too has its own league based on the IPL model. The Hockey India League (HIL) began in 2013 to create a ground-based following amongst the general public for hockey.
The tournament was recognized by the Federation of International Hockey (FIH) and granted a 30-day window to allow top players from all nations to participate.
6. Tennis
One of the most popular sports in the world, tennis has a keen following in India. Though we haven’t seen a large amount of success on the singles circuit, India has been
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traditionally known for creating top quality doubles players. Leander Paes and Mahesh Bhupathi together have a number of Grand Slam doubles titles to their name.
However, India’s dependence on these two legends is now being realized. With Bhupathi having retired a few years back and Paes aging with every passing season, the Indian tennis scene faces a shortage of experienced talents. Rohan Bopanna and Sania Mirza remain the only two experienced professionals on the ATP circuit representing India with Somdev Devvarman having retired a few months back.
To increase the viewership of tennis in India, Mahesh Bhupathi launched International Premier Tennis League in 2014. Comprising of four teams from four countries in Asia, namely the Indian Aces, Japan Warriors, Singapore Slammers and UAE Royals, the IPTL was inspired from the success of the IPL in India and the World Team Tennis from the 1970s.
The league was a moderate success as it depended on the appearance of tennis stars such as Roger Federer and Pete Sampras for viewership. The Singapore Slammers are the most successful team in the league having won the title twice.
7. Wrestling
Like kabaddi, wrestling has a striking undercurrent of rural India to it. Wrestling has brought India a number of medals from many major tournaments.
Wrestling with Indians is synonymous with the akhadda-style sport. Though professional wrestling differs greatly from the traditional Indian style of wrestling, the fundamentals of the sport remain the same.
Indian grapplers have recently made a strong impression on the international stage with at least a medal at every Olympics since the 2008 Beijing Games. Sushil Kumar, one of India’s most successful Olympian is a two-time Olympic medalist. Sushil is not the only one, with a sizable number of grapplers having won medals at international tournaments.
Wrestling has gained even more popularity with the success of box-office hits like Sultan and Dangal.
The latter was based on the real-life story of women wrestler Geeta Phogat and her journey to winning a gold medal at a major international event.
Movies such as these play a crucial role in educating the general public about sports they have little knowledge about. Though surpassing the popularity of cricket may seem far-fetched, creating a sports culture in the country is crucial for future success at major tournaments.
8. Boxing
Most young Indians will have nostalgic memories of associating boxing with WWE.
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In reality, boxing is a professional sport very different from the like of WWE and other combat-based shows. The sport shot to fame in India after Vijender Singh brought home a bronze medal in the 2008 Beijing Games.
Boxing has since been a source of many medals on the international stage with the fruition of core group of talented boxers carrying India’s flag. Besides Vijender, women boxer MC Mary Kom won a bronze medal at London Games in 2012 against all odds.
Another aspect one needs to understand about boxing is that the Olympics –approved version of boxing is actually known as amateur boxing.
Professional boxing involves boxers who compete under their name and not the country in general.
Vijender Singh also turned pro in 2015 when he began his career in professional boxing. Since he began his career, Vijender has fought nine bouts and emerged victorious in all of them. He also won the Asia-Pacific title in the process, an achievement which has seen him move to number 10 in the world in professional boxing.
9. Motorsports
India sports fans have always had a keen interest in motorsports which has developed steadily over the years. The main source of this development has been the craze behind Formula One, the biggest motorsports spectacle in the world.
Formula One first sparked interest from the Indian public in 2005 when driver Narain Karthikeyan became the first Indian to ever compete in the event when he was signed by the Jordan Formula One team. Though Narain never made it to the podium during his time at Jordan, much of it was down to the relative standard of the car he was driving when compared to the other top teams.
Karun Chandhok was the second-ever Indian driver to compete in Formula One when he signed for HRT Formula One in 2011. After a series of poor performances, he was dropped in favor of the reserve driver. Besides drivers, India also has its own Formula One team called Force India. 2017 was a great year for the team as it finished fourth and recorded its highest points tally ever at 187.
Besides Formula One, India also has its own racing team in Moto GP in the form of Mahindra Racing. Rally driver Gaurav Gill is another representative of the country on the motorsports stage. Gill is primarily known for rally race driving. In 2013, he became the first Indian to win an Asia-Pacific Rally Championship. He repeated the feat in 2016 with the same team, MRF Skoda.
10. Basketball
Basketball has always been a key part of Indian sports culture. One of the most popular sports which is played regularly in schools and colleges, it is strange to see the lack of involvement of Indian basketball players on the international stage.
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The past few years have seen some sort of success for India on the basketball scene. The Indian Woman’s Basketball Team qualified for the FIBA Women’s Asia Cup in Division A. This is the first time an Indian basketball team has recorded such an achievement on the international stage.
In 2015, Satnam Singh Bhamara became the first Indian player to be drafted by an NBA team Dallas Mavericks. He was drafted in the 52nd round of the NBA draft. Besides being the first Indian to be a part of NBA, he was also the first player to be drafted while being a high school postgraduate.
The Importance of Sports in India
In a country rife with complexities and nuances, sports in India offer something uniquely straightforward and remarkably exciting. The chance to enjoy an unadulterated and pure spectacle is a prospect every India looks forward to whether he/she is a cricket, football or any other sports fan.
The importance of sports is on the same lines as the importance of cinema, art or theatre. Besides being spectator sports for the general public, sports professional serve as inspiration for young Indians. This is one of the most important contributions the sporting sector has made to India.
In a country which has lacked personalities appreciated and accepted across the nation since independence, Indian sports personalities have served as a great inspiration to many Indians. From Sachin Tendulkar and Dhyan Chand to Saina Nehwal and Sushil Kumar, sportsmen and sportswomen have brought pure joy to a nation otherwise embroiled in the hustle and bustle of climbing the socio-economic ladder.
Besides serving as an inspiration to Indians, learning a sport instills a healthy level of self-discipline in children from a young age. Aside from learning the trait, children learn the value of team ethic, hard work, preparation, and practice.
This is one of the key reasons why sports should be encouraged in schools and colleges. The current system is too focused on theoretical studies while sport remains a luxury at best. If we want to win medals at future Olympics, ingratiating a sports culture in schools from the grassroots level is of primary importance.
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EXERCISE
1. At which of the following tennis tournaments is the Musketeers' Trophy awarded to the winner of Singles title?
a. Australian Open b. US Open c. French Open d. Wimbledon
2. What is the age from which certain category of sports persons winning gold medals at international levels are entitled to receive pension?
a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60
3. Nine time Wimbledon Champion of Women’s Singles Match in Tennis is -
a. Mary Joe Fernandez b. Jana Novotna c. Iva Majoli d. Martina Navrotilova
4. The oldest Football Tournament in India is :
a. Rovers Cup b. I. F. A. Shield c. Durand Cup d. Tata Cup
5. The modern game of polo originated in which of the following Indian states?
a. Nagaland b. Manipur
c. Mizoram d. Tripura
6. Which country has won the World Cup Football the maximum number of times?
a. Germany b. Brazil c. England d. Argentina
7. Which Indian city is associated with the origin of badminton?
a. Poona b. Shimla c. Mussoorie d. Ootacamund
8. Manufacture of sports goods is an important industry in :
a. Punjab b. Andhra Pradesh c. Karnataka d. Uttar Pradesh
9. Which of the following international tennis tournaments is held on grass court?
a. Australian Open b. Wimbledon c. French Open d. US Open
10. Sambo, a form of martial arts is associated with which country?
a. China b. Russia
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c. Japan d. Korea
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ANSWERS 1. c 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. b
6. b 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. b
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General science is science in its basic and pure form. The science which deals with the things related to our day to day life. It includes basic Biology, physics and chemistry. Science is a systematic enterprise that builds and organizes knowledge in the form of testable explanations and predictions about the universe. In an older and closely related meaning, "science" also refers to a body of knowledge itself, of the type that can be rationally explained and reliably applied. A practitioner of science is known as a scientist. Since classical antiquity, science as a type of knowledge has been closely linked to philosophy. In the early modern period the words "science" and "philosophy of nature" were sometimes used interchangeably. By the 17th century, natural philosophy was considered a separate branch of philosophy. In modern usage, "science" most often refers to a way of pursuing knowledge, not only the knowledge itself. It is also often restricted to those branches of study that seek to explain the phenomena of the material universe. In the 17th and 18th centuries scientists increasingly sought to formulate knowledge in terms of laws of nature such as Newton's laws of motion. Science, any system of knowledge that is concerned with the physical world and its phenomena and that entails unbiased observations and systematic experimentation. In general, a science involves a pursuit of knowledge covering general truths or the operations of fundamental laws.
Science can be divided into different branches based on the subject of study.
The physical sciences study the inorganic world and comprise the fields of astronomy, physics, chemistry, and the Earth sciences. The biological sciences such as biology and medicine study the organic world of life and its processes. Social sciences like anthropology and economics study the social and cultural aspects of human behaviour.
Science is further treated in a number of articles. For the history of Western and Eastern science, see science, history of. For the conceptualization of science and its interrelationships with culture, see science, philosophy of. For the basic aspects of the scientific approach, see physical science, principles of; and scientific method.
CHAPTER
10 GENERAL SCIENCE
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EXERCISE 1. The control Centre of the body is the
........................
a) Heart b) Lungs c) Brain d) Kidney e) None of these
2. Which part of the body is connected
with the sense of touch?
a) Nose b) Skin c) Ear d) Eyes e) None of these
3. Which of the following is not a sense
organ?
a) Eyes b) Ears c) Nose d) Teeth e) None of these
4. A Barometer is used to measure
...........................
a) Wind direction b) Rainy Water c) Temperature d) Atmospheric pressure e) None of these
5. Which of the following is the smallest
bird of the world?
a) Humming bird b) Robin c) Curlew d) Greenfinch
e) None of these
6. Which star is nearest to sun?
a) Proxima centauri b) Sirius c) Alpha centauri d) Spole star e) None of these
7. Which is the fastest animal on land?
a) Leopard b) Cheetah c) Deer d) Kangaroo e) None of these
8. Who build the first telescope?
a) Galileo b) Issac Newton c) Alaxender Fleming d) Benjamin Franklin e) None of these
9. Henary Ford invented the first
.................... a) Television b) Telephone c) Motor Car d) Refrigerator e) Aeroplane
10. Jaundice is an infectious disease,
which spreads through ............
a) Air b) Soil c) Water d) Clothes e) None of these
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ANSWERS 1. c 2. b 3. d 4. d 5. a
6. a 7. b 8. a 9. c 10. c
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GENERAL CURRRENT EVENTS OF INDIA ARE
PROVIDED ON
WWW.CAREERSUCCESSJAMMU.COM ON
DAILY BASIS
CHAPTER
11
GENERAL CURRENT EVENTS OF INDIA
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MOCK TEST-1
ENGLISH Direction: Find out the error in each of the following sentences, if there is no error,
answer is (e). Avoid punctuation mistakes (if any).
1. (a) There were a number/ (b) of pretty girls in the party/ (c) but it was Neelam/ (d)
who remained a centre of attraction./ (e) No error.
2. (a) I have been / (b) informed that/ (c) Dr Sharma visits Mumbai/ (d) the following
week. / (e) No error.
3. (a) He is / (b) the best singer/ (c) of the time but unfortunately/ (d) least recognized /
(e) No error.
4. (a) Little knowledge/ (b) of art that she possessed/(c) proved to be a boon for her/
(d) when she was utterly helpless. / (e) No error.
5. (a) Don’t talk to her/ (b) she always/(c) remains in temper/ (d) these days./ (e) No
error.
PASSAGE-1
Directions (6-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
Insurance companies are widening their net and looking at India’s vast hinterland Global
insurance majors such as AIG and Aviva increasingly see rural India as a growth area. One
of the reasons for this is the huge gap in per capita spending on life insurance between
developed and emerging markets. While developed markets spend $1,887 on life
insurance, emerging markets spend only $46. It’s no surprise that many companies are
targeting the rural population and tailoring their policies to meet the requirements of this
segment. So villagers now have the option of insuring their cow or television set for as low
as Rs 20-40 a month. If a cow dies, the policyholder is likely to get as much as Rs 8,000.
Though the premium amounts are very small, insurance companies see this as a way of
entering a market that is sure to grow over the next few years. For long, LIC has had a
market monopoly in India and still holds 90 per cent of the life insurance sector. With
foreign competition the insurance sector is going through a churn. The entry of new players
has meant that there is now intense competition to woo consumers. This is welcome since
even by developing country standards, India is woefully under-insured. Without any sort of
government safety net, a majority of India’s population has no cover for old age or
unforeseen contingencies. This is where micro-insurance schemes can make a difference.
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Such schemes are, however, not without their difficulties. Collecting premium and verifying
claims can be time-consuming, especially in rural India. To get around this, insurance
companies are using locals or self-help groups as agents to access rural markets. For death
insurance claims, companies are willing to forgo the usual death certificates and accept
signatures of a panchayat member or a village elder. Such innovative measures have
ensured that several insurance companies at least have a presence in rural India. The
challenge, however, is to move from micro-insurance to covering crops and health. For this
to happen, it would help if people formed collectives and went in for group insurance. This
would be- particularly useful for farmers who cultivate the same crops on small plots of
land. Health and crop insurance for small farmers would also have the additional benefit of
eliminating the dreaded moneylender who benefits from the precarious condition of the
rural poor.
6. What is attracting the insurance companies towards the villages in India?
(a) Rural areas generate more revenue than urban areas in India.
(b) Indian villages offer immense potential for insurance firms which is still to be
tapped.
(c) Villages in India are more insurance-friendly than even the villages in the developed
world.
(d) Insurance companies see Indian villages as relatively risk-free areas.
(e) None of these.
7. Many insurance companies are tailoring their policies to meet the requirements of
rural people because
(a) they are a more stubborn and rigid lot.
(b) these people are not found in a financially sound position throughout the year.
(c) insurance companies are in fierce competition with each other to capture the rural
segment.
(d) the needs of the rural people are much different from those of the urban people.
(e) None of these
8. What would be the possible outcome if insurance firms launch policies with heavy
premium amounts in village areas?
(a) Such policies would become the of the dreaded moneylender only.
(b) Such policies would become an instant hit with rich and influential segment.
(c) Such an initiative would fail to yield desired results on a large scale.
(d) It would add to the woes of the economically weaker segment.
(e) None of these
9. What does the emerging markets’ per capita spending on life insurance of $46
against developed markets’ $ 1,887 reflect?
(a) Insurance companies have little scope and opportunity in emerging markets.
(b) There are few takers of insurance policies in emerging markets.
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(c) Insurance has not been a profitable area of business in emerging markets.
(d) There is fierce competition in the insurance sector in emerging markets.
(e) None of these.
10. Which of the following is ‘true’ in the context of the passage?
(a) There lies a vast potential for insurance sector in countryside areas of India.
(b) Urban India has more to offer than rural India in the area of insurance.
(c) Global insurance firms eye India as a low-return market.
(d) LIC has prevented the entry of other insurance companies in the Indian market.
(e) None of these
DIRECTIONS (11-15): In each of the questions below, choose the alternatives which is
most nearly the same in meaning to the given word
11. Mendicant
e) Reformer
f) Dealer
g) Beggar
h) Advisor
12. Instinctive
e) Helpful
f) inherent
g) Crucial
h) Strong
13. Clone
e) Trace
f) Copy
g) Make
h) Mould
14. Thrive
e) Flourish
f) Raise
g) Create
h) Destroy
15. Dissuade
e) Worry
f) Disturb
g) Discourage
Identify the kind of sentence, giving and appropriate reason for your choice: 16. I've been asked to bring back a vaccine for a horse 17. But someone always catches me 18. I don't know exactly how much it costs 19. I went in search of a nearby shop where I had seen ties. 20. But I couldn't find it
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REASONING
1. Four of the following five are alike in a
certain way on the basis of their
positions in the English alphabet and
so form a group. Which is the one that
does not belong to the group?
(1) AZ
(2) EV
(3) BY
(4) GT
(5) DU
2. If ‘$’ means ‘×’, ‘#’ means ‘÷’, ‘‘’ means
‘–’ and ‘@’ means ‘+’ then what is the
value of 204 # 6 ‘ 15 $ 8 @ 88?
(1) 8
(2) 2
(3) –6
(4) 12
(5) None of these
3. If the position of the first and the sixth
letters of the word ‘PRESCRIBED’ are
interchanged, similarly position of the
second and the seventh letters are
interchanged and so on. Which letter
will be fourth from the left end after
the rearrangement?
(1) E
(2) S
(3) B
(4) D
(5) None of these
4. How many such pairs of letters are
there in the word INTERNAL, each of
which has as many letters between
them in the word as they have in the
English alphabet?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) None of these
5. In a certain code DIVERT is written as
SCQHDU, how is CONFER written in
that code?
(1) QBDNEO
(2) QDBNEM
(3) QBDNEM
(4) QDBNEO
(5) None of these
Qs. 6-10. In each question below is given
a statement followed by two courses of
action numbered I and II. A course of
action is a step or administrative decision
to be taken for improvement, follow-up or
further action in regard to the problem,
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policy, etc. On the basis of the information
given in the statement, you have to
assume everything in the statement to be
true, then decide which of the suggested
courses of action logically follow(s) for
pursuing. Give answer
(1) if only I follows.
Give answer (2) if only II follows.
Give answer (3) if either I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.
Statement: 6. A country cannot develop
without fast and easy communication.
Courses of action:
I. Govt. should provide communication
facilities to the public at a cheaper rate.
II. More private companies should be
permitted to enter into field of
communication to strengthen the
network.
Statement: 7. “Due to availability of air
tickets at cheaper rates from various
airlines large no. of people now a day’s
prefer to travel by air than travelling by
train.” Courses of action:
I. Railway ministry has to put in its best
efforts to improve the quality of rail
journey in respect of facilities and also the
punctuality
II. Airlines should not be allowed to
introduce various schemes offering
concessional fare. Statement:
8. Continuous use of computers is
affecting the eye sights of many youth.
Courses of action:
I. All the establishments should permit
the people using computer to take a short
break after every hour of work on the
computer.
II. Use of computers should be
discouraged by the managements of the
establishments.
Statement: 9. Proportion of females
compared to that of males in the
population of our country has drastically
gone down in the recent past. Courses of
action:
Social workers should take up the task of
emphasizing the importance of having
atleast one female child in each family in
both rural and urban areas of the country.
II. Government should severely punish
the persons involved in the practice of
female feticide.
Statement: 10. Reading habits in the
children of coming generations is
diminishing day by day. Courses of action:
I. Access to various electronic gadgets
such as television, computer and
particularly the internet should be
controlled. II. Parents should ensure and
cultivate reading habits among their
children.
Qs. 11-15. Study the following
information carefully to answer these
questions. Seven T.V. channels A, B, C, D,
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E, F and G telecast different programmes
P, Q, R, S, T, U and V on different days of
the week from Monday to Sunday, not
necessarily in Questions asked in UCO
Bank P.O. Exam, held on January 29, 2006
64 ‹ AUGUST the same order. Channel A
telecast Programme T on Sunday. Channel
D does not telecast Programme P or U but
telecasts on the day just prior to Channel
F. Channel C telecasts Programme Q but
not on Monday. Channel B telecasts
Programme R on Tuesday. Channel G
telecasts Programme V but not on
Monday. Channel C telecasts on the next
day of Channel G and previous day of
Channel D. Programme ‘P’ is telecast
before Programme ‘U’.
11. Which programme is telecast on
Thursday?
(1) P
(2) S
(3) R
(4) U
(5) None of these
12. Which of the following combination of
day channel-programme is correct?
(1) Thursday—C—R
(2) Tuesday—C—Q
(3) Saturday—E—U
(4) Monday—E—P
(5) None of these
13. Which channel telecasts on
Wednesday?
(1) F
(2) E
(3) G
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
14. Channel ‘C’ telecasts on which day of
the week?
(1) Thursday
(2) Tuesday
(3) Friday
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
15. Which channel telecasts programme
‘S’?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) F
(4) D or E
(5) None of these
Qs. 16-20. In making decisions about
important questions, it is desirable to be
able to distinguish between “strong”
arguments and “weak” arguments.
“Strong” arguments must be both
important and directly related to the
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question. “Weak” arguments may not be
directly related to the question and may
be of minor importance or may be related
to the trivial aspects of the question. Each
question below is followed by two
arguments numbered I and II. You have to
decide which of the arguments is a
“strong” argument and which is a “weak”
argument.
Give answer (1) if only argument I is
strong.
Give answer (2) if only argument II is
strong.
Give answer (3) if either argument I or II
is strong.
Give answer (4) if neither argument I nor
II is strong.
Give answer (5) if both arguments I and II
are strong.
16. Should there be a quota for
underprivileged categories and the
minority communities for admissions into
the premier educational institutions in
India?
Arguments: I. No, admissions to the
premier institutes should be only on
merit and there should be no system for
any special consideration.
II. No, this will put the deserving non-
reserved category students to
disadvantage.
17. Can the total ban on dance bars across
a State be justified?
Arguments: I. Yes, running of dance bars
gives scope for various illegal and
criminal activities.
II. No, the livelihood of the families of
bar-girls is totally dependent on the
dance bars.
18. Should the top officials and politicians
detained by the law enforcement agencies
be given special treatment in jails while
under-trial?
Arguments: I. No, there is no such need
for any special treatment, they should be
treated like all other detainees.
II. Yes, it is necessary to take care of their
special security requirements.
19. Should stricter discipline be imposed
upon all the children by parents and
teachers in view of the increasing
criminal cases among the youth?
Arguments: I. Yes, too much freedom to
the children is leading to such cases of
crime.
II. No, freedom to the children is
necessary in the changing social scenario.
20. Should the gender-reassignment
surgeries be legally permitted?
Arguments: I. Yes, it is the genuine need
of the transsexuals.
II. No, people will take disadvantage of
the facility since it is difficult to judge the
genuineness of the requirement
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MATHEMATICS
1. How is 3
4 expressed as percentage?
(a) 0.75% (b) 7.5%
(c) 75% (d) 60%
(e) None of these
2. The ratio 5: 4 expressed as a
percent equals
(a) 12.5%
(b) 40%
(c) 80%
(d) 125%
(e) None of these
3. Find the average of all the
numbers between 6 and 34 which
are divisible by 5.
(a) 18
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 30
(e) None of these
4. A motorist covered the first 20 km
of his journey in 30 minutes and
the remaining 29 km in 40
minutes. His average speed in
km/hr is:
(a) 413
4
(b) 42
(c) 49
(d )571
6
(e) None of these
5. A man riding his bicycle covers 150
metres in 25 seconds. What is his
speed in km per hour?
(a) 20
(b) 21.6
(c) 23
(d) 25
(e) None of these
6. A is travelling at 72 km per hour
on a highway while B is travelling
at a speed of 25 meters per second.
What is the difference in their
speeds in meters per second?
(a) 11
2 m/sec
(b) 2 m/sec
(c) 3 m/sec
(d) 5 m/sec
(e) None of these
7. The total number of students in a
school is 2140. If the number of girls
in the school is 1200, then what is the
ratio of the total number of boys to the
total number of girls in the school?
(a) 18: 13
(b) 26: 25
(c) 47: 60
(d) 31: 79
(e) None of these
8. A person spends Rs. 8100 in buying
some tables at Rs. 1200 each and
some chairs at Rs. 300 each. The ratio
of the number of chairs to that of
tables when the maximum possible
number of tables is purchased is
(a) 1: 2
(b) 1: 4
(c) 2: 1
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(d) 5: 7
(e) None of these
9. (75P2 – 75C2) = ?
(a) 0
(b) 75
(c) 150
(d) 2775
(e) 5550
10. In how many different ways can
the letters of the word DISPLAY be
arranged?
(a) 720
(b) 1440
(c) 2520
(d) 5040
(e) None of these
11. A cistern 6 m long and 4 m wide
contains water up to a depth of 1
m 25 cm. The total area of the wet
surface is?
(a) 49 m2
(b) 50 m2
(c) 53.5 m2
(d) 55 m2
(e) None of these
12. The breadth of a room is twice its
height and half its length. The
volume of the room is 512 cu. m.
The length of the room is
(a) 16 m
(b) 18 m
(c) 20 m
(d) 32 m
(e) None of these
13. A Rectangular plot is 180 m2 in
area. If its length is 18m then, its
perimeter is?
(a) 20 m
(b) 56 m
(c) 360 m
(d) 60 m
(e) None of these
14. The side of a square exceeds the
side of another square by 4 cm and
the sum of the areas of the two
squares is 400 cm2. The
dimensions of the square are?
(a) 8cm and 12cm
(b) 6cm and 10cm
(d) 12cm and 16cm
(d) 10cm and 18cm
(e) None of these
15. The area of the floor of a
rectangular hall of length 40m is
960m2. Carpets of size 6m × 4m
are available. Then, how many
carpets are required to cover the
hall?
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 45
(e) None of these
16. A lawn is in the shape of rectangle
of length 60m and width 40m.
Inside the lawn there is a footpath
of uniform width 1m bordering the
lawn. The area of the path is:
(a) 194 m2
(b) 196 m2
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(c) 198 m2
(d) 200 m2
(e) None of these
17. ABCD is a parallelogram as shown
in figure, then its area is?
D 3cm C
90
90
A B
(a) 12 cm2
(b) 14 cm2
(c) 15 cm2
(d) 660 cm2
(e) None of these
18. What is the area of a triangle
whose sides are 9cm, 12cm and
15cm?
(a) 45 cm2
(b) 54 cm2
(c) 56 cm2
(d) 64 cm2
e) None of these
19. What is the perimeter of an
equilateral triangle whose area is
4√3cm2?
(a) 4cm
(b) 3cm
(c) 12cm
(d) 7cm
(e) None of these
20. The circumference of a circle
whose area is 24.64 m2 is
(a) 17.2m
(b) 17.4m
(c) 17.6m
(d) 18.0m
(e) None of these
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GENERAL AWARENESS AND SCIENCE
1. The territories of J&K were transferred to Raja
Gulab Singh of Jammu as a result of:
a) Treaty of Amritsar 1846
b) Treaty of Lahore-1846
c) Treaty of J&K- 1846
d) Treaty of Bhairowal 1846
2. The constitution of J&K, came into force on:
a) 15th Aug,1947
b) 17th Nov,1956
c) 26th Jan, 1950
d) 26th Jan,1957
3. 73rd Constitutional Amendment does not
apply to which of the following states?
a) Meghalaya
b) Goa
c) Sikkim
d) Himachal Pardesh
4. As per Article Act, the legislature of a state, may
by Law, provide for making grants-in0aid to the
Panchayats from:
a) Contingency Fund of the President
contingency
b) Fund of the Governor
c) Consolidated Fund of the state
d) Consolidated Fund of India
5. Various employment programmes have been
launched in India, namely, IRDP, NREP,RLEQP,
FWP. They are meant to improve
a) Rural Employment
b) Urban Employment
c) Rural and Urban Employment
d) Educated Employment
6. Which committee was set up to
review the concept of the poverty
line?
a) Chakarvarty Committee
b) lakdawala Committee
c) Wanchoo Committee
d) Dutt Committee
7. According to the traditions,
Kashmir takes its name from:
a) Scenery
b) Sage
c) Temple
d) King
8. Who founded the city of Srinagar?
a) Janaka
b) Swarna
c) Pravarsena
d) None of the above
9. One of the objectives of Industrial
Licensing Policy in India was to
ensure:
a) Creation of adequate
employment opportunities
b) free flow of foreign capital in
Indian industries
c) Use of modern technology d) Balanced industrial development across
regions
10. A committee appointed in 1977 to
review working of the Panchayati
Raj was chaired by:
a) Balwant Rai Mehta
b) Ashok Mehta
c) K.N Katju
d) JagjivanRam
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11. What is the capital of Maharashtra?
a. Mumbai b. New Delhi c. Chennai d. None of the above
12. ________________ is the capital of Uttarakhand.
a. Lucknow b. Prayagraj (Allahabad) c. Dehradun d. Shimla
13. Dispur is the capital city of which north-eastern state?
a. Assam b. Tripura c. Meghalaya d. Mizoram
14. Which city is known as the “summer capital” of Jammu and Kashmir?
a. Jammu b. Srinagar c. Shimla d. Anantnag
15. Kavaratti is the capital of which Union Territory?
a. Daman and Diu b. Lakshadweep c. Dadar and Nagar Haveli d. Chandigarh
16. Port Blair is the capital of which Union Territory?
a. Andaman and Nicobar Islands b. Daman and Diu
c. Puducherry d. None of the above
17. Itanagar is the capital of _______________ .
a. Bihar b. Goa c. Chattisgarh d. Arunachal Pradesh
18. Ranchi is the capital of which Indian state?
a. Bihar b. Telangana c. Jharkhand d. Madhya Pradesh
19. ________________ is the capital of Odisha (Orissa).
a. Kolkata b. Shillong c. Bhubaneshwar d. Cuttack
20. Silvassa is the capital of which Union Territory?
a. Mumbai b. Puducherry c. Daman and Diu d. Dadar and Nagar Haveli
21. Lal Ded (Lalla Yogeshwari) was a practitioner of which of the following traditions? a) Tibetan Buddhism b) Kashmir Shaivism c) Sri Sampradaya d) Smartism
22. The Nuakhai festival is predominantly
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observed in which state? a) Uttar Pradesh b) Odisha c) Karnataka d) Sikkim
23. Raut Nacha is folk dance performed
mainly by the tribal communities of which state? a) Rajasthan b) Jammu & Kashmir c) Assam d) Chhattisgarh
24. Which of the following is not a
classical dance of India? a) Kathak b) Sattriya c) Manipuri d) Bhangra
25. In which of the following paintings, a
paste made of Zinc Oxide and Arabic Gum called “gesso paste” is used? a) Tanjore painting b) Madhubani painting c) Pattachitra d) Mysore painting
26. At which of the following tennis
tournaments is the Musketeers' Trophy awarded to the winner of Singles title?
a. Australian Open b. US Open c. French Open d. Wimbledon
27. What is the age from which certain category of sports persons winning gold medals at international levels are entitled to receive pension?
a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60
28. Nine time Wimbledon Champion of Women’s Singles Match in Tennis is -
a. Mary Joe Fernandez b. Jana Novotna c. Iva Majoli d. Martina Navrotilova
29. The oldest Football Tournament in India is :
a. Rovers Cup b. I. F. A. Shield c. Durand Cup d. Tata Cup
30. The modern game of polo originated in which of the following Indian states?
a. Nagaland b. Manipur c. Mizoram d. Tripura
31. The control Centre of the body is the
........................
a) Heart b) Lungs c) Brain d) Kidney e) None of these
32. Which part of the body is connected
with the sense of touch?
a) Nose b) Skin c) Ear
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d) Eyes e) None of these
33. Which of the following is not a sense
organ?
a) Eyes b) Ears c) Nose d) Teeth e) None of these
34. A Barometer is used to measure
...........................
a) Wind direction b) Rainy Water c) Temperature d) Atmospheric pressure e) None of these
35. Which of the following is the smallest
bird of the world?
a) Humming bird b) Robin c) Curlew d) Greenfinch e) None of these
36. Which star is nearest to sun?
a) Proxima centauri b) Sirius c) Alpha centauri d) Spole star e) None of these
37. Which is the fastest animal on land?
a) Leopard b) Cheetah c) Deer d) Kangaroo e) None of these
38. Who build the first telescope?
a) Galileo b) Issac Newton c) Alaxender Fleming d) Benjamin Franklin e) None of these
39. Henary Ford invented the first
.................... a) Television b) Telephone c) Motor Car d) Refrigerator e) Aeroplane
40. Jaundice is an infectious disease,
which spreads through ............
a) Air b) Soil c) Water d) Clothes e) None of these
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ANSWERS
ENGLISH
1. (d); ‘a centre of attraction’ should
be replaced with ‘the centre of
attraction’. Since, ‘the’ follows the
former noun in sentence with the
structure ‘none + of + noun’. For
e.g. ‘The art of living.’
2. (e); No error
3. (d); ‘The’ should be used before
‘least’ since superlatives degrees
are always preceded by the’.
4. (a); ‘The’ should be used before
‘little’. ‘The little’ means ‘all that is’
whereas, ‘little means almost none.
5. (c); ‘in a temper’ should be used in
place of ‘in temper’. Since it is the
correct phrasal use.
6. (b); The passage is silent about
urban areas and urban population.
Hence (a) and (c) are not the
correct options. It is given in the
first paragraph it is given that ‘One
of the reasons for this is the huge
gap in per capita spending on life
insurance between developed and
emerging markets. While
developed markets spend $1,887
on life insurance, emerging
markets spend only $46’ from
which we can conclude that the
insurance companies are attracted
towards the villages because of its
potential which is still to be
tapped. The challenges described
in last paragraph also suggest that
option (d) is not correct. Hence,
(b) is the correct option
7. ‘(d); Option (a) is extreme
judgement which cannot be passed
on the basis of the passage. Hence,
(a) is not the correct option. The
usage of the word ‘precarious’ also
suggests that option (b) is not
correct. Option (c) can also not be
inferred from the passage. Now, in
the first paragraph, it is given that
‘many companies are’ tailoring
their policies to meet the
requirements of this segment’
after which the author has given
examples’ of various things which
a villager can insure. Hence (d) is
the most appropriate option.
8. (c); Option (a) and (d) are extreme
judgements which cannot be
inferred on the basis of the
passage. Hence, they are not the
correct option The passage is
silent about the effects of
insurance policies with high
premium on the rich Hence, (b) is
also not the correct option Now, In
the first paragraph, the statement,
Though the premium amounts are
very small, insurance companies
see this as a way of entering a
market that is sure to grow over
the next few years...’ suggests that
the aim to launch policies with low
premium is to connect more and
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more people, from every sphere of
the society, with the insurance
sector. Hence, if insurance firms
launch policies with heavy
premium amounts in village areas,
then such an initiative would fail to
yield desired ‘results on a large
scale. Hence (c) is the correct
option.
9. (e); It’s clearly mentioned in the
passage that’. Global insurance
majors such as AIG and Aviva
increasingly see rural India as a
growth area’ after which, the
author cites the given figures, from
this we can infer that there is a
scope of growth for insurance
companies in the emerging
markets. Hence (e) is the correct
option.
10. c 11. b 12. b
13. a
14. c
15. Simple Sentence
16. Simple Sentence
17. Complex Sentence
18. Complex sentence
19. Simple Sentence
20. Complex sentence
REASONING
1. (5) Other pairs occupy the same
place in alphabets from A and Z.
2. (2) 204 ÷ 6 – 15 × 8 + 88 = 34 –
120 + 88 = 2. (Apply BODMAS)
3. (1) Left ← RIBEDPRESS → Right
4. (4) IN, TR and NL.
5. (3) D I V E R T would be TDRIEV
hence CONFER would be RCEOFN.
The preceding letter in alphabets
is the code.
6. (5)
7. (1)
8. (1)
9. (5)
10. (2)
11-15. Days Channel Programme Mon F P
Tue B R Wed G V Thurs C Q Fri D S Sat E U
Sun A T
11. (5)
12. (3)
13. (3)
14. (1)
15. (2)
16. (1)
17. (5)
18. (3)
19. (3)
20. (2)
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MATHEMATICS
1. (c): 3
4= (
3
4× 100)% = 75%
2. (d): 5: 4 = 5
4= (
5
4× 100)% =
125%
3. (d): Sum of numbers = (41.4×15) =
621.
4. (e): 25a + 25b = 115 25 (a + b) =
115
a + b= 115
25=
23
5
5. (b): Speed = (150
25)m/sec = 6 m/sec
= (6 ×18
5) km/hr = (
108
5)
km/hr
= 21.6 km/hr
6. (d): A’s speed = 72 km/hr = (72 ×
5
18)m/sec
= 20 m/sec
7. (c): Number of girls = 1200. Number of boys = 2140 – 1200 = 940 Require Ratio = 940: 1200 = 47: 60
8. (a): Maximum possible number of tables = 6 [∵1200×6=7200]
9. (d): (75P2 – 75C2) = {75!
(75−2)!−
75×75
2}
=75!
73!−(75×37)
= 75×74×73!
73!−(73×37)
= (75×74 – 75×37) =
75×37×(2-1)
= (75×37) = 2775
10. (d): The given word contains 7
letters, all different
Required number of ways = 7P7 =
7!
= (7×6×5×4×3×2×1) = 5040
11. (a): Area of the wet surface = [2(lb +
bh + lh) – lb]
= 2 (bh + lh)
+lb
= [2 (4×1.25 + 6×1.25) + 6×4]
m2 = 49 m2
12. (a): Let the height of the room be x
meters.
Then, breadth = 2x metres and
length = 4x metres
Volume of the room = (4x×2x×x)
m3 = (8x3) m2
8x3= 512 x3= 64 x = 4
Length of the room is 16 m
13. (b): Breadth = Area
Length=
180
18=10 m
Perimeter = 2 (length + breadth)
= 2 (18+10)
= 56
14. (c): Let side of square = x cm
Side of another square = (x+4)
cm
x2+(x+4)2 = 400
x2+x2+16+8x = 400
2x2+8x-384 = 0 x2+4x-
192=0
x2+16x-12x-192=0
x (x+16) -12 (x+16) = 0
(x - 12) (x+16) = 0
x = 12 (-16 not possible)
Side of one square = 12 cm
Side of another square = 16 cm
15. (c): Given, 6
4
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Area of the floor = 960 m2
Area of one carpet = 6×4= 24 m2
No of carpet required = Area of floor
Area of one carpet
=960
24= 40
16. (b): Length of the outer rectangle = 60
m
40m
60 m
Breadth of the outer rectangle =
40m
Area = 60×40 = 2400 m2
Width of path = 1m
Length of the inner rectangle
=60m –(1+1) m
= 58
m
Breadth of the inner rectangle =
40 – 2 =38m
Area = 58×38= 2204 m2
Area of path
= [Area of outer rectangle] –
[Area of inner rectangle]
= 2400 – 2204 = 196 m2
17. (a): Area of parallelogram,
ABCD = (Area of ∆ABD+ ∆Area
of BDC)
= 2 (Area of ∆ABD)
= 2×1
2× 3 × 4 = 12 cm2
18. (b): Here, s = 9+12+15
2=18 cm
Area = √𝑠(𝑠 − 𝑎)(𝑠 − 𝑏)(𝑠 − 𝑐)
=
√18(18 − 9)(18 − 12)(18 − 15)
= √18 × 9 × 6 × 3 =54
cm2
19. (c): By formula
Area = √3
4× (𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒)2
√3
4×
(𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒)2 = 4√3
(side) 2= 16 side = 4 cm
Perimeter = 3×side = 3×4= 12
cm
20. (c): Let, radius of the circle = r m
𝜋r2 = 24.64
22
7× 𝑟2= 24.64 r2 =
7×24.64
22
r = √7×24.64
2= 2.8
Thus, circumference = 2𝜋r
= 2×22
7×2.8= 17.6 m
1m
38
58
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GENERAL AWARENESS AND SCIENCE
1. a
2. d
3. a
4. c
5. c
6. b
7. b
8. c
9. d
10. b 11. a
12. c
13. a
14. b
15. b
16. a
17. d
18. c
19. c
20. d
21. b 22. b 23. d 24. d 25. d 26. c 27. c
28. c
29. d
30. a
31. d
32. c
33. c
34. d
35. a
36. d
37. a
38. c
39. a
40. c
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MOCK TEST-2
ENGLISH
Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles: 1. I checked ___________ mailbox again.
2. Can I have __________ spoon please?
3. I was born into ________ poor family.
4. Have you been to __________ Space
Needle Tower in Seattle?
5. What _________ amazing view!
Direction (6 – 10): Choose the correct
preposition in each sentence.
6. If she left at 4 p.m., she should be here
_________ now.
7. I slept ________only two hours last
night.
8. It was my first trip ___________ Hawaii.
9. I was late ____________ school.
10. The woman is holding a cup _______ her
hands.
Directions (11-15): Read the following
passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain
words/phrases have been printed in
bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
Facing mounting criticism, the
government at the Centre has decided to
drop its Budget proposal to tax a portion
of the EPF (Employees’ Provident Fund)
corpus upon withdrawal. An ill-conceived
move both context- and content-wise, it
has deservedly been given a burial. “In
view of the representations received, the
government would like to do a
comprehensive review of this proposal,
and, therefore, withdraw the proposal in
paragraph 138 and 139 of my Budget
speech,” Finance Minister Arun Jaitley
said in a statement m the Lok Sabha The
government has also withdrawn the
proposal to limit tax-free contributions by
the employer to the provident fund
account of an employee to Rs 1.5 lakh a
year. This did not gel with the Budget
speech rationale for taxing EPF savings —
to bring parity in tax treatment between
the EPF and the National Pension System
(or NPS, where employers can pay up to
10 per cent of salary as contribution
without any such cap). By putting the EPF
back into an EEE tax regime (where
contributions, income as well as the
accumulated corpus are all exempt from
tax), the government’s volte-face would
help retain the EPF’s popularity among
the salaried class, most of whom are part
of it not out of choice but by statutory
default. The Finance Minister had himself
called them hostages to the EPF in his
last Budget, but instead of setting them
free, he thought it better to tax them
citing fair taxation principles. It is still not
clear whether the government had
initially thought it could pull the taxation
proposal past its middle-class
constituency. In the event, the tax on EPF
withdrawal gave additional ammunition
to an aggressive opposition, including the
Congress party. Differences within the
National Democratic Alliance and the
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Cabinet finally ensured the climb-down
by the Finance Ministry.
While announcing a return to status quo
on the EPF, the Finance Minister has
rightly retained the Budget provision
allowing NPS subscribers to withdraw 40
per cent of the corpus without any tax
liability. The remainder 60 per cent will
attract a combination of withdrawal tax
and deferred tax on the annuity products
one buys. In a way, partial tax relief for
the NPS will narrow the existing tax-
induced gap between the EPF and the
NPS. The strident opposition to EPF tax
must be read in the context of the virtual
absence of a social security net of any
worth in India. There are no two views on
the need to move towards a ‘pensioned
society’. However, this cannot happen
abruptly or in a coercive manner —
people need to be nudged over time to
gear up for such transitions. Whatever the
intention, it was the ‘out-of-the-blue’
approach of the government that
triggered an uproar. A sheepish rollback
is a smart move, ahead of a round of
Assembly elections. It is to be hoped that
this U-turn will trigger a larger debate on
ushering in a holistic social security
ecosystem in the country.
11. Which of the following is/are true
with respect to the expected result(s)
of government’s decision to drop the
proposed tax on EPF?
(i) Contribution, income as well as the
accumulated corpus are all expected
to be exempted from tax.
(ii) A debate to steer for a
comprehensive society.
(iii) It’ll help retaining EPF’s
popularity.
(a) only (i)
(b) only (ii)
(c) only (iii)
(d) both (ii) and (iii)
(e) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
12. Who are the hostages to EPF as per
the Finance Minister?
(a) Tax Payers
(b) Middle Class
(c) Salaried Class
(d) both (b) and (c)
(e) None of the above
13. According to author what kind of
approach was it to impose tax on EPF?
(a) Revolutionary
(b) Avaricious
(c) Trite
(d) Unanticipated
(e) Obligatory
14. According to the given passage why is
it difficult to have a pensioned
society?
(a) Opposition is not cooperative in
her approach.
(b) People are not yet ready for any
radical transmutations.
(c) People need more time to be
financially stable to bear the cost
of taxation.
(d) Most of the people are part of EPFs
not out of choice but by statutory
default.
(e) Political parties are more
interested in their personal gains
than the public welfare.
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15. What was/ were the reason(s) the
Finance Minister gave for levying tax
on EPFs?
I. To make EPF more profitable than NPS
II. To bring equality between EPF and NPS
III. To narrow the existing tax-induced
gap between the EPF and the NPS.
(a) only (i)
(b) only (ii)
(c) only (iii)
(d) both (ii) and (iii)
(e) all (i),(ii) and (iii)
16. Innate
e) Acquired
f) Natural
g) Inborn
h) Unusual
17. Reprisal
e) Forgiveness
f) ‘Relief
g) Exemption
h) Relaxation
18. Permit
e) Control
f) Leadership
g) Subordination
h) Discipline
19. Lead
e) Guide
f) Follow
g) Direct
h) Conduct
20. Permit
e) Approve
f) Certify
g) Forbid
h) Endorse
RESAONNING
1. Hare is related to Burrow, in the same
way Owl is related to:
a) Hole
b) Hive
c) Nest
d) Barn
2. Duma is related to Russia, in the same
way as Knesset is related to:
a) Malaysia
b) Afghanistan
c) France
d) Germany
3. College is related to Student, in the
same way as Hospital is related to:
a) Doctor
b) Nurse
c) Medicine
d) Patient
4. major is related to Lieutenant, in the
same way as Squadron leader is
related to:
a) Group Captain
b) Flying Attendant
c) Flying Officer
d) Pilot Officer
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5. Smell is to Flower, in the same way as
Taste is to:
a) Tongue
b) Water
c) Sweet
d) Food
6. If Teena’s mother was Uday’s mother’s
only daughter, then how was Uday
related to Teena?
(a) Maternal grand Father
(b) Maternal Uncle
(c) Cousin
(d) Son
(e) None of these
7. R told S that U is T’s sibling but not
brother of T. How is U related to T?
(a) Mother (b) Father (c) Aunt
(d) Sister (e) None of these
8. Hema, who is Sahil’s daughter, says to
Anjali, “Your mother, Rekha, is the
younger sister of my father Sahil”.
How is Sahil’s father related to Anjali?
(a) Father
(b) Grandfather
(c) Father-in-law
(d) Brother
(e) None of these
9. Pointing to a photograph, a man said,
“I have no brother or sister but that
man’s father is my father’s son”.
Whose photograph was it?
(a) His own
(b) His son
(c) His father’s
(d) His nephew’s
(e) None of these
10. Pointing towards a boy, Veena said, “
He is the son of only son of my
grandfather.” How is that boy related
to Veena?
(a) Aunt
(b) Uncle
(c) Mother
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
11. If in a certain code, LUTE is written as
MUTE and FATE is written as GATE,
then how will BLUE be written in that
code?
(a) CLUE (b) GLUE (c) FLUE
(d) SLUE (e) None of these
12. If in a certain language, MADRAS is
coded as NBESBT, how BOMBAY
coded in that language?
(a) CPNCBX
(b) CPNCBZ
(c) CPOCBZ
(d) CQOCBZ
(e) None of these
13. If FISH is written as EHRG in a certain
code, how would JUNGLE be written in
that code?
(a) ITMFKD
(b) ITNFKD
(c) KVOHMF
(d) TIMFKD
(e) None of these
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14. In a certain code, TWINKLE is written
as SVHOJKD then how would FILTERS
be written in that code?
(a) EHKSDQR
(b) EHKUDQR
(c) EGHUDQR
(d) GJMSFST
(e) None of these
15. In a certain code, ROAD is written as
URDG. How is SWAN written in that
code?
(a) VXDQ (b) VZDQ (c) VZCP
(d) UXDQ (e) None of these
16. 2, 3, 5, 7, ?
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 8
(d) 11 (e) None of these
17. 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ?
(a) 17 (b) 18 (c) 20
(d) 21 (e) None of these
18. 4, 9, 16, 25?
(a) 49 (b) 30 (c) 36
(d) 42 (e) None of these
19. 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23?
(a) 18 (b) 28 (c) 27
(d) 22 (e) None of these
20. 41, 43, 47, 53, 59?
(a) 61 (b) 67 (c) 64
(d) 65 (e) None of these
MATHEMATICS
1. How many litres of pure acid are
there in 8 litres of a 20% solution?
(a) 1.4 (b) 1.5 (c) 1.6
(d) 2.4 (e) None of these
2. Which one of the following shows
the best percentage?
(a) 384
540 (b)
425
500 (c)
570
700
(d) 480
660 (e) None of these
3. 0.15% of 33 1
3% of Rs. 10,000 is?
(a) Rs. 0.05
(b) Rs. 5
(c) Rs. 105
(d) Rs. 150
(e) None of these
4. 45% of 1500+35% of 1700 = ?%
of 3175
(a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 45
(d) 50 (e) None of these
5. An Agent gets a commission of
2.5% on the sales of cloth. If on a
certain day, he gets Rs. 12.50 as
commission, the cloth sold through
him on that day is worth?
(a) Rs. 250
(b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 750
(d) Rs. 1250
(e) None of these
6. What will be the average of even
numbers between 11 to 63?
(a) 37.5 (b) 47 (c) 42
(d) 37 (e) None of these
7. Find average of all prime numbers
between 60 and 90
(a) 72 (b) 74.7 (c) 74
(d) 73.6 (e) None of these
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8. Average age of 5 boys is 16 yr, of
which that of 4 boys is 16 yr 3
months. The age of the 5th boy is
(a) 15 yr
(b) 15yr 6months
(c) 15yr 4months
(d) 15yr 2months
(e) None of these
9. The average age of 30 girls is 13 yr.
The average of first 18 girls is 15
yr. Find out the average age of
remaining 12 girls?
(a) 12 yr (b) 10 yr (c) 16 yr
(d) 10.5 yr (e) None of these
10. The average of 13 results is 60. If
the average of first 7 results is 59
and that of last 7 results is 61,
what will be the seventh result?
(a) 90 (b) 50 (c) 75
(d) 60 (e) None of these
11. A train running at 7
11 of its normal
speed reached a place in 22 hours.
How much time could be saved if
the train would have run at its
normal speed?
(a) 14 hours (b) 7 hours (c) 8
hours
(d) 16 hours (e) None of these
12. Walking at three-fourth of his
usual speed, a man covers certain
distance in 2 hours more than the
time he takes to cover the distance
at his usual speed. The time taken
by him to cover the distance with
his usual speed is:
(a) 4.5 hours
(b) 5.5 hours
(c) 6 hours
(d) 5 hours
(e) None of these
13. A man goes from a place A to B at a
speed of 12 km/ hr and returns
from B to A at a speed of 18 km/hr.
The average speed for the whole
journey is:
(a) 1425 km/hr
(b) 15 km/hr
(c) 15 12 km/hr (d) 16 km/hr
(e) None of these
14. Two trains started at the same
time, one from A to B and the other
from B to A. If they arrived at B
and A respectively 4 hours and 9
hours after they passed each other,
the ratio of the speeds of the two
trains was:
(a) 2:1 (b) 3:2 (c) 4:3
(d)5:4 (e) None of these
15. The cost of leveling a rectangular
ground at Rs. 1.25 per sq. meter is
Rs. 900. If the length of the ground
is 30 meters, then the width is?
(a) 330 meters
(b) 34 meters
(c) 24 meters
(d) 18 meters
(e) None of these
16. The length of a rectangle is twice
its breadth. If its length is
decreased by 5 cm and breadth is
increased by 5 cm, the area of the
rectangle is increased by 75 cm2.
Then the length of the rectangle is:
(a) 20cm (b) 30cm (c) 40cm
(d) 50cm (e) None of these
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17. The dimensions of the floor of a
rectangular hall are 4m × 3m. The
floor of the hall is to be tiled fully
with 8cm × 6cm rectangular is
without breaking tiles to smaller
size. The number of tiles required:
(a) 4800 (b) 2600 (c)
2500
(d) 2400 (e) None of these
18. The number of marble slabs of size
20cm × 30cm required to pave the
floor of a square room of side 3m,
is:
(a) 150
(b) 100
(c) 25
(d) 225
(e) None of these
19. If the perimeter of a rectangular
field is 200 m and its breadth is
40m then its area is (in m2).
(a) 1200 (b) 2400
(c) 4800
(d) 6000 (e) None of these
20. Find the area of a triangle in which
base is 1.5m and height is 75cm?
(a) 5625 sq.cm.
(b) 5265 sq.cm.
(c) 5635 sq.cm.
(d) 5525 sq.cm.
(e) None of these
GENERAL SCIENCE AND AWARENESS
1. Which of the following is the lightest metal ? a) Mercury b) Silver c) Lithium d) Lead
2. The most important ore of Aluminium is– a) Bauxite b) Calamine c) Calcite d) Galena
3. The element present in the largest amount in rocks and minerals is– a) Carbon b) Silicon c) Hydrogen d) Aluminium
4. The chemial name of Uria is– a) Aneurin b) Chloroetane c) Carbamide d) None of these
5. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by adding– a) Potassium Permanganate b) Chlorine c) Bleaching Powder d) Washing Soda
6. The formula of Plaster of Paris is–
a) CaSO4 b) CaSO4, 2H2O c) 2CaSO4, 4H2O d) 2CaSO4, H2O
7. Liquefied Petroleum gas (LPG) consists of
mainly– a) Methane, Ethane and Hexane b) Ethane, Hexane and Nonane c) Methane, Butane and Propane d) Methane, Hexane and Nonane
8. The metal that is present in Photo Films is–
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a) Mercury b) Platinium c) Magnesium d) Silver
9. Which of the following is in liquid form at room
temperature ? a) Cerium b) Sodium c) Francium d) Lithium
10. The property of a substance to absorb moisture
from the air on exposure is called– a) Osmosis b) Desiccation c) Efflorescence d) Deliquescene
11. Brass gets discoloured in air due to the presence
of which gas in air– a) Carbon dioxide b) Oxygen c) Hydrogen Sulphide d) Nitrogen
12. Quartz crystals normally used in quartz clocks
etc. is chemically– a) Sodium Silicate b) Silicon dioxide c) Germenium dioxide d) A mixture of (B) and (C)
13. Which of the following elements is non-
radioactive? a) Uranium b) Thorium c) Plutonium d) Zirconium
14. According to Dalton’s atomic theory the smallest
particle which can exist independently is– a) An atom b) A molecule c) A cation
d) An anion e)
15. The recent atomic weight scale is based on– a) 1H1 b) 1H2 c) 6C12 d) 8O16
16. The major ingredient of leather is–
a) Carbohydrate b) Collagen c) Polymer d) Nucleic acid
17. Glass is made from the mixture of–
a) Quartz and mica b) Sand and salt c) Sand and silicates d) None of these
18. Epoxy resins is used as–
a) Moth repellants b) Insecticides c) Detergents d) Adhesives
19. One fathom is equal to–
a) 6 metres b) 6 feet c) 60 feet d) 60 cms
20. What is the unit for measuring the pitch or
frequency of sound ? a) Coulomb b) Hum c) Cycles d) Decible
21. The fastest acting enzyme in the biological
kingdom is– a) lipase b) amylase c) carboxypeptidase d) carbonic anhydrase
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22. Lightening cause rainfall because– a) It cause combination of oxygen and nitrogen b) Some of the gas molecules become bigger c) It activate H2O molecule d) Photo-electricity reaction starts
23. Nitrification means–
a) Liquifaction of nitrogen b) Convert the atmospheric nitrogen to
effective nitrogen compound. c) Production of nitrogen from air d) Conversion of nitrogen to nitric acid.
24. Cell membrane is–
a) permeable b) selectively permeable c) semipermeable d) impermeable
25. Polythene is industrially prepared by the
polymerisation of– a) methane b) styrene c) acetylene d) ethylene
21. What is the capital of Uttar Pradesh?
a. Prayagraj (Allahabad) b. Kanpur c. Gorakhpur d. Lucknow
22. _________________ is the capital of Meghalaya.
a. Aizawl b. Kohima c. Shillong d. Agartala
23. Gandhinagar is the capital of which state?
a. Gujarat b. Maharashtra c. Telangana
d. Goa
24. Thiruvananthapuram is the capital of __________________.
a. Telangana b. Andhra Pradesh c. Jammu and Kashmir d. Kerala
25. Gangtok is the capital of which state?
a. Sikkim b. Arunachal Pradesh c. Nagaland d. Mizoram
26. _________________ is the capital of Chattisgarh.
a. Bengaluru (Bangalore) b. Ranchi c. Raipur d. Patna
27. The capital of Goa is _____________________.
a. Imphal b. Itanagar c. Hyderabad d. Panaji
28. What is the capital of Himachal Pradesh?
a. Shimla b. Chandigarh c. Manali d. Bhopal
29. _______________ is the capital of Punjab.
a. Delhi b. Jaipur c. Chandigarh d. Chennai
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30. Kolkata is the capital of which eastern state?
a. West Bengal b. Odisha (Orissa) c. Jharkhand d. Tripura
31. The territories of J&K were transferred to
Raja Gulab Singh of Jammu as a result of:
a. Treaty of Amritsar 1846
b. Treaty of Lahore-1846
c. Treaty of J&K- 1846
d. Treaty of Bhairowal 1846
32. The constitution of J&K, came into force on:
a. 15th Aug,1947
b. 17th Nov,1956
c. 26th Jan, 1950
d. 26th Jan,1957
33. 73rd Constitutional Amendment does not
apply to which of the following states?
a. Meghalaya
b. Goa
c. Sikkim
d. Himachal Pardesh
34. As per Article Act, the legislature of a state, may
by Law, provide for making grants-in0aid to the
Panchayats from:
a. Contingency Fund of the President
contingency
b. Fund of the Governor
c. Consolidated Fund of the state
d. Consolidated Fund of India
35. Various employment programmes have been
launched in India, namely, IRDP, NREP,RLEQP,
FWP. They are meant to improve
a. Rural Employment
b. Urban Employment
c. Rural and Urban Employment
d. Educated Employment
36. Which committee was set up to
review the concept of the poverty
line?
a. Chakarvarty Committee
b. lakdawala Committee
c. Wanchoo Committee
d. Dutt Committee
37. According to the traditions,
Kashmir takes its name from:
a. Scenery
b. Sage
c. Temple
d. King
38. Who founded the city of Srinagar?
a. Janaka
b. Swarna
c. Pravarsena
d. None of the above
39. One of the objectives of Industrial
Licensing Policy in India was to
ensure:
a. Creation of adequate
employment opportunities
b. free flow of foreign capital in
Indian industries
c. Use of modern technology d. Balanced industrial development across
regions
40. A committee appointed in 1977 to
review working of the Panchayati
Raj was chaired by:
a. Balwant Rai Mehta
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b. Ashok Mehta
c. K.N Katju
d. JagjivanRam
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ANSWERS
ENGLISH
1. the; Here a particular mailbox is
being talked about. Hence, definite
article ‘the’ should be used.
2. a; Any spoon can be referred here,
hence, indefinite article should be
used-here. Now ‘spoon’ starts with
a consonant sound, hence, ‘a’
should be used here.
3. a; Here, the family is being
introduced for the first time, and
no particular family has been
described, hence, ‘a’ should be
used here.
4. the; Definite article ‘the’ is used
before the name of a building.
Hence, ‘the’ should be used here.
5. an; The word ‘amazing’ starts with
a vowel sound Hence, the article
‘an’ should be used.
6. by; With context to time,
preposition ‘by’ means ‘not later
than’ or ‘at or before a particular
time’. Hence, as per the sense of
the sentence, ‘by’ should be used
here.
7. for; Preposition ‘for’ is used before
‘a period of time’. Hence, ‘for’
should be used here.
8. to; The word ‘trip’ is followed by
the preposition ‘to’. Hence, ‘to’
should be used here.
9. for; Preposition ‘for’ is also used
for ‘purpose’, hence, ‘for’ should be
used here.
10. in; ‘In’ is used before ‘hand’ to
denote something ‘in hold’ or
‘under one’s control’. Hence, ‘in’
should be used here.
11. (c); The statement’…..
government’s volte-face would
help retain the EPF’s popularity
among the salaried class...’ clearly
supports the answer. Hence (c) is
the correct answer.
12. (c); In the statement’..
.government’s volte-face would
help retain the EPF’s popularity
among the salaried class, most of
whom are part of it not out of
choice but by statutory default
whom’ has been used for salaried
class and not for ‘Tax payers’ or
‘Middle class’. Hence (c) is the
correct answer
13. (d); According to author the
decision was an ‘out-of-the-blue’
approach which means an
‘Unanticipated’ approach. Hence
(d) is the correct answer
14. (b); the sentence’... people need to
be nudged over time to gear up for
such transitions...’ clearly supports
the answer. Hence (b) is the
correct answer
15. (b); In the first paragraph, it is
given that’……. This did not gel
with the Budget speech rationale
for taxing EPF savings — to bring
parity in tax treatment between
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the EPF and the National Pension
System ‘supports the answer.
16. a
17. a
18. c
19. c
20. b
REASONING
1. Burrow is the dwelling place of Hare. Similarly, Barn is the dwelling place of Owl.
2. Russian parliament is called Duma.
Similarly, Afghanistan’s parliament is
called Knesset.
3. In the College, education is given to
the students, in the same way
treatment given to Patient in the
Hospital.
4. Major and Squadron Leader are
equivalent ranks in the Army and the
Air Force, respectively. Same as
Lieutenant and the flying officer are
equivalent ranks in the Army and the
Air Force.
5. Smell comes from Flower in the same
way Taste comes from Food.
6. (b): M = Male
F = Female
Mother X (F) Y (F)
Uday’s mother
Son
(Daughter) Teena Uday (M)
(F) Maternal uncle
7. (d): As U is sibling but not brother,
then U has to be female. Therefore,
sister of T.
8. (b): M = Male
F = Female
(M)
Father
Son Daughter
Sister
Grand Father
(M) Sahil Rekha (F)
(F) Hema Anjali (F)
(Daughter) (Daughter)
9. (b): Since the narrator has no brother,
his father’s son is he himself. The
photograph is of his son.
10. (e): “He is the son of only son of my
grandfather” means boy is brother of
Veena. In this question there is
description of grandfather and it is not
mentioned about paternal or
maternal. So by default we will
consider paternal.
11. (a): The first letter of the word is
moved one step forward to obtain the
first letter of the code, while the other
letters remain unaltered.
12. (b): Each letter in the word is moved
one step forward to obtain the
corresponding letter of the code.
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13. (a): Each letter in the word is moved
one step backward to obtain the
corresponding letter of the code.
14. (b): Each letter in the word, except the
middle letter, is moved one step
backward while the middle letter is
moved one step forward to obtain the
corresponding letter of the code.
15. (b): Each letter in the word is moved
three steps forward to obtain the
corresponding letter of the code.
16. (d): It is prime number series. Next
prime number is 11.
17. (d): 1 + 2=3, 3 + 3=6, 6 + 4 =10,
10 +5 =15, 15 + 6 =21
18. (c): 22, 32, 42, 52. Next number is 62
=36.
19. (e): 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23
Prime Numbers. Next prime
number is 29.
20. (a): 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, ?; Next prime
number is 61.
MATHEMATICS
1. (c): Litres of pure acid = 20
100×8=1.6
litres
2. (b): Best percentage = 425
500
3. (b): 15
100×100×
100
300× 10000 = Rs. 5
4. (e): 45
100× 1500 +
35
100× 1700 =
𝑥
100×
3175
x = 1270×100
3175 = 40
5. (b): Let the worth of cloth be x
x ×2.5
100 = 12.50 x =
12500
25 x
= Rs. 500
6. (d): Total even no = 63−11
2=
52
2 = 26
Sum of the even number between 11
to 63
= 26
2[2 ×12+ (26-1) ×2] = 13[24+50]
= 13×73 = 962
Average of even numbers between 11
to 63
= 962
26 = 37
7. (b): Average of all prime numbers
between 60 to 90
= 61+67+71+73+79+83+89
7=
523
7 = 74.7
8. (a): Total age of 5 boys = 16×5 =
80 years
Total age of 4 boys = (63
12) × 4=
16.25×4 = 65
The age of the 5th boy = 80-65= 15
years
9. (b): Total age of 30 girls = 30×13=
390 years
Total age of 18 girls = 18×15= 270
years
Average age of remaining 12 girls
= 390−270
12
=120
12 = 10 years
10. (d): Sum of the first 13 Results =
13×60=780
Sum of the first 7 Results = 59×7=
413
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Sum of the last 7 Results =
7×61=427
7th Result = Sum of first 7
Results + sum of last 7 Results –
Sum of 13 results = 413+427-780
=840 – 780 =60
11. (c): At normal speed, Let usual time = t
s = d
t …… (i)
and 7
11s =
d
22 ….. (ii)
From equation (i)÷ equation (ii)
s7
11s
=d
td
22
11
7=
22
t t = 14 Hours
Saved time = (22-14) hrs = 8 hrs
12. (c): Let required time = t hours,
s = d
t …… (i)
3
4s =
d
(t+2) ….. (ii)
s3
4s
=d
td
(t+2)
4
3=
t+2
t
4 t = 3t + 6 t = 6 Hours
13. (a): Average speed = 2𝑥𝑦
𝑥+𝑦=
2×12×18
(12+18)
=72
5= 14
2
5 Km/hr
14. (b): From the formula-
Required ratio = √𝑏: √𝑎
= √9 ∶ √4 = 3: 2
15. (b): Required ratio = √𝑏: √𝑎
= √25 ∶ √16 = 5: 4
16. (c): Area of ground = 900
1.25= 720 m2
Length × width = 720 width = 720
30= 24 m
17. (c): Let breath = x length = 2x
Area = x×2x = 2x2
New length = (2x – 5) cm
New breadth = (x+5) cm
New Area = (2x-5) (x+5)
(2x-5) (x+5) = 2x2+75
2x2+10x-5x-25= 2x2+75
5x = 100 x = 20 cm
Length = 2×20 = 40 cm
18. (c): Area of wall = 4m×3m= 12 m2
= 12×10000 cm2
Area of tiles = 8cm×6cm = 48
cm2
No. of tiles required = 12×10000
48=2500
19. (a): Area of square room = 3m×3m=
9 m2
= 9×10000 cm2
Area of marble slab =20×30 =
600cm2
No. of marbles slab required = 9×10000
600=150
20. (b): Given, perimeter of rectangle =
200
2(l + b) = 200 l + b= 100 l
= 100-b
l = 100 – 40 l = 60 m
Area = lb
= 40×60= 2400 m2
GENEERAL SCIENCE AND AWARENESS
1. c
2. a
3. b
4. c
5. d
6. d
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7. c
8. d
9. c
10. d
11. c
12. b
13. d
14. a
15. c
16. b
17. c
18. d
19. b
20. d
21. c
22. b
23. c
24. d
25. d
26. d
27. c
28. a
29. d
30. a
31. c
32. d
33. a
34. c
35. a
36. a
37. d
38. a
39. c
40. c
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MOCK TEST-3
ENGLISH
Direction: Find out the error in each of
the following sentences, if there is no
error, answer is (e). Avoid punctuation
mistakes (if any).
1. (a) He is very / (b) drunk, so he /
(c) cannot tell / (d) you his name. /
(e) No error.
2. (a) A few selfish leaders are / (b)
bent to harm the / (c) very
foundation / (d) of the democracy.
/ (e) No error.
3. (a) Mrs. Dorai would rather / (b)
spend a quiet evening / (c) than
attending/ (d) a party / (e) No
error.
4. (a) The life-guard would not / (b)
let the children / (c) to swim at the
/ (d) deep end of the pool. / (e) No
error.
5. (a) Walking along the / (b) bank of
the river / (c) the road / (d) began
to rise. / (e) No error.
Directions (6-10): Read the following
passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain
word/phrases in the passage are
printed in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the
questions.
Banks, it is often said, are the fulcrum of
a robust economy. Healthy banks are an
essential prerequisite for placing the
economy on a higher growth orbit. The
banking scene in India, however, presents
an absolutely scary picture. A
combination of factors ranging from poor
credit appraisal to political interference
and mismanagement by borrowers have
conspired to push the banking industry
into a messy cobweb. Bank after bank,
especially the government-owned, has
come out with poor third-quarter results.
The stressed assets (comprising gross
non-performing assets plus written-off
assets and restructured assets) account
for 14.1 per cent of total bank loans as of
September 2015, up from 13.6 per cent in
March 2015. For public sector banks, the
stressed assets were in the vicinity of 17
per cent at the end of September, while
the figure for private sector banks stood
at 6.7 per cent. The rising stress level, or
increase in bad loans, has yielded a twin
fallout - of declining profitability at banks
and poor credit disbursal. The double
effect is already telling on the economy in
various ways. For long, banks have either
managed to, or rather been allowed to,
keep the stress invisible, giving the
Outside world very little clue as to the
happenings inside the industry The
Reserve Bank of India under Raghuram
Rajan’s stewardship, however, has
decided to clean up banks’ books rather
than letting them camouflage the real
picture. “There are two polar approaches
to loan stress,” he said at the CII Banking
Summit in Mumbai this week. “One is to-
apply band-aids to keep the loan current,
and hope that time and\growth will set
the project back on track. Sometimes this
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works. But most of the time, the low
growth that precipitated the stress
persists. The fresh lending intended to
keep the original loan current grows.
Facing large and potentially un-payable
debt, the promoter loses interest, does
little to fix existing problems, and the
project goes into further losses. “Indeed,
legacy problems should be given a burial,
and should not be allowed to persist. So
hinting, Dr. Rajan articulated the need for
surgical action to retrieve the health of
the industry.
Forcing banks to recognise a problem is
one thing, and finding a viable long-term
solution to it is quite another. That
requires not just holistic thinking but an
out-of-the-box approach as well,
especially in the evolving global context. A
meaningful fix can happen only if banks
are given functional autonomy at various
levels. Restricted freedom inevitably
leads to a blame game, making it even
more difficult to fix responsibility. The
concept of arm’s- length relationship
especially needs to be clearly defined and
implemented in letter and spirit in the
banking industry. It is not just about how
much money the Central government will
freshly pump into stressed banks. The
litmus test for the government lies in its
ability, and capacity, to let go of control.
The banking system indeed needs a
change in the way it is managed.
6. According to the passage, which of
the following is the main factor for
pushing the banking industry into
a messy cobweb?
(a) Increase in bad loans and poor
credit disbursal.
(b) Unpayable debt.
(c) Poor credit appraisal to political
interference and mismanagement
by borrowers.
(d) Restricted freedom and rising
stress level.
(e) None of the above.
7. Which of the following can be the
most suitable title of the passage?
(a) NPA at ‘unacceptable’ level for
public sector banks
(b) Rising NPAs put banks in a tight
spot
(c) Containing the rising stressed
assets in Indian banks
(d) Bank ultimately need autonomy
(e) None of the above
8. Which of the following best explain
the meaning of the idiom ‘arm’s
length relationship’ in context of
the passage?
(a) a relationship lacking intimacy or
friendliness, esp. when possessing
some special connection, such as
previous closeness.
(b) Maintaining a sweet relationship.
(c) To be convinced of one’s sincerity
and act in accordance with his/
her statement.
(d) Selfish friends who are with us
only in comfortable situation.
(e) None of the above
9. According to the passage, what
is/are the approaches to clean up
banks’ books rather than letting
them camouflage the real picture?
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(i) To apply band-aids to keep the loan
current.
(ii) Hope that time and growth will set the
project back on track.
(iii) Facing large and potentially
unpayable debt.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (iii) (d) Only (i) and (iii)
(e) None of the above.
10. Which of the following statement
is/are true in context of the
passage?
(i) The banking system indeed needs a
change in the way it is managed.
(ii) Increase in bad loans has yielded a
twin fallout — of declining profitability at
banks and poor credit appraisal.
(iii) Currently, the stressed assets
account for 13.6 % of total bank loans
(a) Only (iii)
(b) Only (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (i) and (ii)
(d) Only (ii)
(e) None of the above
11. (a) She boasts of/ (b) having good
knowledge/ (c) of Physics but
everybody/ (d) knows how far she is
good at it. / (e) No error.
12. (a) Her father/ (b) forbade her to
go/ (c) to circus / (d) late at night./
(e) No error.
13. (a) There was little milk/(b) in the
bottle and she gave it/(c) to her son
when he/(d) started weeping./ (e)
No error.
14. (a) In a hour’s time/ (b) when I had
finished the work/ (c) I got up and/
(d) slipped out unnoticed. / (e) No
error.
15. (a) The first Afghans/ (b) to rule
India/ (c) in medieval times/ (d)
were the Lodhis. / (e) No error.
16. The stores had all sorts of ties, but not the kind I was looking for.
17. Panting, I boarded the plane under the reproachful gaze of the other passengers.
18. Nature soothes and nurtures. 19. When I do, it leaves me in
complete awe. 20. We went to a rocky beach and saw
the spread of the majestic ocean
.
REASONING
1. Find the one which does not belong to that group ?
a) Skin b) Eye c) Leg d) Nose
2. Find the odd number / letters / word from the given alternatives.
a) Brick b) Cement c) Sand
d) Wall 3. Three of the following four are same
in a certain way and hence form a group. Find out the one which does not belong to that group.
a) Glacier b) Sea-coast c) Mountain d) Ridge
4. Find the odd number / letters / word from the given alternative.
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a) Tomato b) Carrot c) Ginger d) Potato
5. Find the one which does not belong to that group ?
a) 4422 b) 2442 c) 4242 d) 2244
6. Introducing Reena, Monika said, “She
is the only daughter of my father’s
only daughter.” How is Monika
related to Reena?
(a) Aunt
(b) Niece
(c) Cousin
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
7. Pointing to a man a woman said, “His
mother is the only daughter of my
mother.” How is the woman related
to the mother?
(a) Mother
(b) Daughter
(c) Sister
(d) Grandmother
e) None of these
8. If X is the brother of the son of Y’s
son, how is X related to Y?
(a) Son
(b) Brother
(c) Cousin
(d) Grandson
(e) Uncle
9. Pointing towards Rita, Nikhil said. “I
am the only son of her mother’s son.”
How related to Nikhil?
(a) Aunt
(b) Niece
(c) Mother
(d) Cousin
(e) None of these
10. Pointing to lady, a man said, “The son
of her only brother is the brother of
my wife.” How is the lady related to
the man?
(a) Mother’s sister
(b) Grandmother
(c) Mother-in-law
(d) Sister of father-in-law
(e) Maternal aunt
11. If in a certain code, FAVOUR is written
as EBUPTS. How is DANGER written in
that code?
(a) JOWJTJCMF
(b) JOWJTHAKD
(c) HMUHTJCMF
(d) HMUHTHAKD
(e) None of these
12. In a certain code, FAVOUR is written
as EBUPTS. How is DANGER written in
that code?
(a)CBFFDS
(b) CBMHDS
(c) EBFHDS
(d)EBHHFS
(d) None of these
13. In a certain code, Productions is
written as QQPCVEUHPMT. How is
ORIENTATION written in that code?
(a) PQJDOVBSJNO
b) PQJDOUBUJPO
(c) PSJFOVBSJNO
(d) NSHFMVBSJNO
(e) None of these
14. If a code, MIND becomes KGLB and
ARGUE becomes YPESC, then what
will DIAGRAM be in that code?
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(a) BGYEPYK
(b) BGYPYEK
(c) GLPEYKB
(d) LKBGYPK
(e) None of these
15. In a certain code, BASIC is written as
DUDDLE. How is LEADER written in
that code?
(a) NGCFGT
(b) NHCGGU
(c) OGDEHT
(d) OHDGHU
(e) None of these
16. 3, 6, 11, 18, 27?
(a) 29 (b) 67 (c) 64
(d) 36 (e) None of these
17. 4, 9, 19, 34, 54?
(a) 64 (b) 74 (c) 78
(d) 36 (e) None of these
18. 2, 3, 5, 8, 12?
(a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15
(d) 16 (e) None of these
19. 100, 81, 64, 49?
(a) 48 (b) 46 (c) 40
(d) 36 (e) None of these
20. 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, 343?
(a) 443 (b) 612 (c) 512
(d) 36 (e) None of these
MATHEMATICS
1. An Agent gets a commission of 2.5%
on the sales of cloth. If on a certain
day, he gets Rs. 12.50 as commission,
the cloth sold through him on that day
is worth?
(a) Rs. 250
(b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 750
(d) Rs. 1250
(e) None of these
2. If Rs. 2800 is 2
7th of the value of a
house, the worth of the house (in
Rs.) is?
(a) 8,00,000
(b) 9,80,000
(c) 10,00,000
(d) 12,00,000
(e) None of these
3. If 35% of a number is 175, then
what percent of 175 is that
number?
(a) 35%
(b) 65%
(c) 280%
(d) 420%
(e) None of these
4. If 35% of a number is 12 less than
50% of that number then the
number is:
(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 60
(d) 80
(e) None of these
5. What percentage of numbers from
1 to 70 have squares that end in
the digit 1?
(a) 1%
(b) 14%
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(c) 20%
(d) 21%
(e) None of these
6. Find the average of all the
numbers between 6 and 34 which
are divisible by 5.
(a) 18
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 30
(e) None of these
7. A motorist covered the first 20 km
of his journey in 30 minutes and
the remaining 29 km in 40
minutes. His average speed in
km/hr is:
(a) 413
4
(b) 42
(c) 49
(d )571
6
(e) None of these
8. A cyclist goes from a place to
another and returns by the same
route. He pedals his way uniformly
with a speed u while going and
with speed v while returning. The
average speed of his journey is:
(a) 𝑢+𝑣
2
(b) 𝑢−𝑣
2
(c) 1
1
2(1
𝑢+1
𝑣)
(d) 1
1
2(1
𝑢−1
𝑣)
(e) None of these
9. The mean of 19 observations is 4.
If one more observation is 24 is
added to the data, the new mean
will be:
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
10. A student bought 4 books for Rs.
120 from one book shop and 6
books for Rs. 150 from another.
The average price (in rupees), he
paid per book was:
(a) 27 (b) 27.50 (c) 135
(d) 138 (e) None of these
11. A man riding his bicycle covers
150 metres in 25 seconds. What is
his speed in km per hour?
(a) 20
(b) 21.6
(c) 23
(d) 25
(e) None of these
12. A is travelling at 72 km per hour
on a highway while B is travelling
at a speed of 25 meters per second.
What is the difference in their
speeds in meters per second?
(a) 11
2 m/sec
(b) 2 m/sec
(c) 3 m/sec
(d) 5 m/sec
(e) None of these
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13. A car covers a distance of 432 km
at the speed of 48 km/hr. In how
many hours will the car cover this
distance?
(a) 6 hours
(b) 7 hours
(c) 9 hours
(d) 12 hours
(e) None of these
14. A man travels first 50 km at 25
kmph, next 40 km at 20 kmph and
then 90 km at 15 kmph. His
average speed for the whole
journey (in kmph) is:
(a) 25 (b) 20 (c) 18
(d) 40 (e) None of these
15. A man walks at the rate of 5km/hr
for 6 hours and at 4km/hr for 12
hours. The average speed of the
man (in km/hr) is:
(a) 4 (b) 412 (c) 4
13
16. A cistern 6 m long and 4 m wide
contains water up to a depth of 1
m 25 cm. The total area of the wet
surface is?
(a) 49 m2 (b) 50 m2
(c) 53.5 m2
(d) 55 m2 (e) None of these
17. The breadth of a room is twice its
height and half its length. The
volume of the room is 512 cu. m.
The length of the room is
(a) 16 m
(b) 18 m
(c) 20 m
(d) 32 m
(e) None of these
18. A Rectangular plot is 180 m2 in
area. If its length is 18m then, its
perimeter is?
(a) 20 m
(b) 56 m
(c) 360 m
(d) 60 m
(e) None of these
19. The side of a square exceeds the
side of another square by 4 cm and
the sum of the areas of the two
squares is 400 cm2. The
dimensions of the square are?
(a) 8cm and 12cm
(b) 6cm and 10cm
(d) 12cm and 16cm
(d) 10cm and 18cm
(e) None of these
20. The area of the floor of a
rectangular hall of length 40m is
960m2. Carpets of size 6m × 4m
are available. Then, how many
carpets are required to cover the
hall?
(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 40
(d) 45 (e) None of these
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GENERAL SCIENCE AND AWARENESS
1. The fastest acting enzyme in the biological kingdom is– a) lipase b) amylase c) carboxypeptidase d) carbonic anhydrase
2. Lightening cause rainfall because–
a) It cause combination of oxygen and nitrogen b) Some of the gas molecules become bigger c) It activate H2O molecule d) Photo-electricity reaction starts
3. Nitrification means–
a) Liquifaction of nitrogen b) Convert the atmospheric nitrogen to
effective nitrogen compound. c) Production of nitrogen from air d) Conversion of nitrogen to nitric acid.
4. Cell membrane is–
a) permeable b) selectively permeable c) semipermeable d) impermeable
5. Polythene is industrially prepared by the
polymerisation of– a) methane b) styrene c) acetylene d) ethylene
6. What is the capital of Uttar Pradesh?
a. Prayagraj (Allahabad) b. Kanpur c. Gorakhpur d. Lucknow
7. _________________ is the capital of Meghalaya.
a. Aizawl
b. Kohima c. Shillong d. Agartala
8. Gandhinagar is the capital of which state?
a. Gujarat b. Maharashtra c. Telangana d. Goa
9. Thiruvananthapuram is the capital of __________________.
a. Telangana b. Andhra Pradesh c. Jammu and Kashmir d. Kerala
10. Gangtok is the capital of which state?
a. Sikkim b. Arunachal Pradesh c. Nagaland d. Mizoram
11. _________________ is the capital of Chattisgarh.
a. Bengaluru (Bangalore) b. Ranchi c. Raipur d. Patna
12. The capital of Goa is _____________________.
a. Imphal b. Itanagar c. Hyderabad d. Panaji
13. What is the capital of Himachal Pradesh?
a. Shimla
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b. Chandigarh c. Manali d. Bhopal
14. _______________ is the capital of Punjab.
a. Delhi b. Jaipur c. Chandigarh d. Chennai
15. Kolkata is the capital of which eastern state?
a. West Bengal b. Odisha (Orissa) c. Jharkhand d. Tripura
16.The territories of J&K were transferred to Raja
Gulab Singh of Jammu as a result of:
a. Treaty of Amritsar 1846
b. Treaty of Lahore-1846
c. Treaty of J&K- 1846
d. Treaty of Bhairowal 1846
17. The constitution of J&K, came into force on:
a. 15th Aug,1947
b. 17th Nov,1956
c. 26th Jan, 1950
d. 26th Jan,1957
18. 73rd Constitutional Amendment does not
apply to which of the following states?
a. Meghalaya
b. Goa
c. Sikkim
d. Himachal Pardesh
19. As per Article Act, the legislature of a state, may
by Law, provide for making grants-in0aid to the
Panchayats from:
a. Contingency Fund of the President
contingency
b. Fund of the Governor
c. Consolidated Fund of the state
d. Consolidated Fund of India
20. Various employment programmes have been
launched in India, namely, IRDP, NREP,RLEQP,
FWP. They are meant to improve
a. Rural Employment
b. Urban Employment
c. Rural and Urban Employment
d. Educated Employment
21. Which committee was set up to
review the concept of the poverty
line?
a. Chakarvarty Committee
b. lakdawala Committee
c. Wanchoo Committee
d. Dutt Committee
22. According to the traditions,
Kashmir takes its name from:
a. Scenery
b. Sage
c. Temple
d. King
23. Who founded the city of Srinagar?
a. Janaka
b. Swarna
c. Pravarsena
d. None of the above
24. One of the objectives of Industrial
Licensing Policy in India was to
ensure:
a. Creation of adequate
employment opportunities
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b. free flow of foreign capital in
Indian industries
c. Use of modern technology d. Balanced industrial development across
regions
25. A committee appointed in 1977 to
review working of the Panchayati
Raj was chaired by:
a. Balwant Rai Mehta
b. Ashok Mehta
c. K.N Katju
26. The territories of J&K were transferred to Raja
Gulab Singh of Jammu as a result of:
a. Treaty of Amritsar 1846
b. Treaty of Lahore-1846
c. Treaty of J&K- 1846
d. Treaty of Bhairowal 1846
27. The constitution of J&K, came into force on:
a. 15th Aug,1947
b. 17th Nov,1956
c. 26th Jan, 1950
d. 26th Jan,1957
28. 73rd Constitutional Amendment does not
apply to which of the following states?
a. Meghalaya
b. Goa
c. Sikkim
d. Himachal Pardesh
29. As per Article Act, the legislature of a state, may
by Law, provide for making grants-in0aid to the
Panchayats from:
a. Contingency Fund of the President
contingency
b. Fund of the Governor
c. Consolidated Fund of the state
d. Consolidated Fund of India
30. Various employment programmes have been
launched in India, namely, IRDP, NREP,RLEQP,
FWP. They are meant to improve
a. Rural Employment
b. Urban Employment
c. Rural and Urban Employment
d. Educated Employment
31. Which committee was set up to
review the concept of the poverty
line?
a. Chakarvarty Committee
b. lakdawala Committee
c. Wanchoo Committee
d. Dutt Committee
32. According to the traditions,
Kashmir takes its name from:
a. Scenery
b. Sage
c. Temple
d. King
33. Who founded the city of Srinagar?
a. Janaka
b. Swarna
c. Pravarsena
d. None of the above
34. One of the objectives of Industrial
Licensing Policy in India was to
ensure:
a. Creation of adequate
employment opportunities
b. free flow of foreign capital in
Indian industries
c. Use of modern technology
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d. Balanced industrial development across regions
35. A committee appointed in 1977 to
review working of the Panchayati
Raj was chaired by:
a. Balwant Rai Mehta
b. Ashok Mehta
c. K.N Katju
d. JagjivanRam
36. Which of the following is the lightest metal ? a) Mercury b) Silver c) Lithium d) Lead
37. The most important ore of Aluminium is–
a) Bauxite b) Calamine c) Calcite d) Galena
38. The element present in the largest amount
in rocks and minerals is– a) Carbon b) Silicon c) Hydrogen d) Aluminium
39. The chemical name of Uria is–
a) Aneurin b) Chloroetane c) Carbamide d) None of these
40. Permanent hardness of water can be
removed by adding– a) Potassium Permanganate b) Chlorine c) Bleaching Powder d) Washing Soda
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ANSWERS ENGLISH 1. (d); No correction required.
2. (b); Change ‘bent to harm’ on ‘bent to
harming’. ‘Bent on’ means
determined to do.
3. (c); Use ‘attend’ after ‘than’. Because
‘would rather’ is followed by 'V1' and
after ‘than’ the form 'V1'will come.
4. (c); Use V1 after ‘let’. Remove ‘to’.
5. (a); Add ‘while I was’ before ‘walking
alone’.
6. (c); In the first paragraph, it is
given that “A combination of
factors ranging from poor credit
appraisal to political interference
and mismanagement by borrowers
have conspired to push the
banking industry into a messy
cobweb.” This statement suggests
that the main factors for pushing
the banking industry into a messy
cobweb are ‘poor credit
assessment’, ‘mismanagement of
loans by borrowers’ and ‘political
interference’. Hence, (c) is the
correct option.
7. (d); ‘Bank ultimately need
autonomy’ is the most appropriate
title. Throughout the passage, the
author has discussed the ill-effects
of interference on the banking.
Besides this, the statement. ‘The
banking system indeed needs a
change in the way it is managed.’
given in the last paragraph, also
supports the title. Hence, (d) is the
correct option.
8. (a); ‘Arm’s length relationship’
refers to “a relationship lacking
intimacy or friendliness, esp. when
possessing some special
connection, such as previous
closeness.”. Hence, (a) is the
correct option
9. (b); In the First paragraph it is
given that “There are two polar
approaches to loan stress….. One is
to apply band-aids to keep the loan
current, and hope that time and
growth will set the project back on
track……” which suggests that (i)
and (ii) are true. Now it is also
given in the same paragraph that,
“Facing large and potentially un-
payable debt, the promoter loses
interest, does little to fix existing
problems……” from which, we can
infer that (iii) is not true. Hence,
(b) is the correct option.
10. (c); The last line of the last
paragraph clearly states that, ‘The
banking system indeed needs a
change in the way it is managed.’
Therefore we can conclude that (i)
is true.
Again, in the first paragraph, it is
mentioned that ‘....increase in bad
loans, has yielded a twin fallout — of
declining profitability at banks and
poor credit disbursal ‘Hence (ii) is
also true:
11. (b); ‘a good knowledge’ is correct
phrase.
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12. (c); ‘Go to the circus’ is correct
idiomatic usage.
13. (a), ‘a’ should be used before
‘little’. ‘A little’ means ‘some
though not much’ whereas ‘little’
means ‘almost none’
14. (a); ‘an’ should be used in place of
‘a’ since ‘hour’ starts with a vowel
sound.
15. (e); No error.
16. Compound Sentence
17. Simple Sentence
18. Compound Sentence
19. Compound Sentence
20. Compound Sentence
REASONING 1. c 2. d 3. a 4. a 5. c 6. (d): My father’s only daughter can be
herself or her brother. In the first case,
she would be the mother. In the
second case, he would become uncle.
So data is inadequate.
7. (b): Only daughter of my mother –
Myself. So, the woman is mother’s
daughter.
8. (d): Son of Y’s son – Grandson;
Brother of Y’s grandson – Y’s
grandson. So X is Y’s grandson.
9. (a): Rita’s mother son – Rita’s brother.
In this case, she becomes aunt.
10. (d): Wife’s brother – Brother-in-law.
Son of lady’s brother is the brother-in-
law of the man. So, lady’s brother is
man’s father-in-law i.e. the lady is the
sister of man’s father-in-law.
11. (d) 12. (e) 13. (e) 14. (e) 15. (e) 16. (c): 3+3=6, 6+5=11, …………..
+3, +5, +7, +9, +11
So, the next number is 27+
11= 38
17. (d): +5, +10, +15, +20
So, the next number is 54 +25
=79
18. (e): +1, +2, +3, +4
So, the next number is 12
+5=17
19. (d): 102, 92, 82, 72; The next number is
62 =36
20. (c): 23, 33, 43, 53, 63, 73; Next number
is 83=512
MATHEMATICS 1. (b): Let the worth of cloth be x
x ×2.5
100 = 12.50 x =
12500
25 x
= Rs. 500
2. (e): Worth of the house = 2800×7
2
= 9800 Rs.
3. (e): 35% is = 175 100% = 175
35× 100 = 500
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Required percentage = 500
175×
100 = 285.71%
4. (d): Let the number is x
50
100𝑥 −
35
100𝑥 = 12
15𝑥
100 =12
x = 12×100
15 x = 80
5. (c): Total such numbers = 14
Required percentage = 14
70× 100 =
20%
6. (d): Sum of numbers = (41.4×15) =
621.
7. (e): 25a + 25b = 115 25 (a + b) =
115
a + b= 115
25=
23
5
Average of a and b = 𝑎+𝑏
2=
23
5×
1
2=
23
10=2.3
8. (b): Average = (10+15+20+25+30
5) =
100
5 = 20
9. (b): Total distance covered =
(20+29) km = 49 km
Total time taken = (30+40) min =
70 min
Average speed = (49
70× 60) = 42
km/hr
10. (c): Let one way distance be ‘x’
Total distance = 2x
Total time taken = (x
u+
x
v)
Average speed = 2𝑥
𝑥
𝑢+
𝑥
𝑣
=1
1
2(1
𝑢+1
𝑣)
11. (b): Speed = (150
25)m/sec = 6 m/sec
= (6 ×18
5) km/hr = (
108
5)
km/hr
= 21.6 km/hr
12. (d): A’s speed = 72 km/hr = (72 ×
5
18)m/sec
= 20 m/sec
B’s speed = 25 m/sec
Difference = (25 – 20) = 5 m/sec
13. (c): Required time = (432
48) hours = 9
hours
14. (c): Average speed = 50+40+9050
25+40
20+90
15
=180
2+2+6=
180
10 = 18
kmph
15. (c): Average speed = Total Distance
total time =
5×6+4×12
6+12
=30+48
18=
78
18=
13
3= 4
1
3 Km/hr
16. (a): Area of the wet surface = [2(lb
+ bh + lh) – lb]
= 2 (bh + lh)
+lb
= [2 (4×1.25 + 6×1.25) + 6×4]
m2 = 49 m2
17. (a): Let the height of the room be x
meters.
Then, breadth = 2x metres and
length = 4x metres
Volume of the room = (4x×2x×x)
m3 = (8x3) m2
8x3= 512 x3= 64 x = 4
Length of the room is 16 m
18. (b): Breadth = Area
Length=
180
18=10 m
Perimeter = 2 (length + breadth)
= 2 (18+10)
= 56
19. (c): Let side of square = x cm
Side of another square = (x+4)
cm
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x2+(x+4)2 = 400
x2+x2+16+8x = 400
2x2+8x-384 = 0 x2+4x-
192=0
x2+16x-12x-192=0
x (x+16) -12 (x+16) = 0
(x - 12) (x+16) = 0
x = 12 (-16 not possible)
Side of one square = 12 cm
Side of another square = 16 cm
20. (c): Given,
GENERAL SCIENCE AND AWARENESS
6
4
Area of the floor = 960 m2
Area of one carpet = 6×4= 24 m2
No of carpet required = Area of floor
Area of one carpet
=960
24= 40
1. c
2. b
3. c
4. d
5. d
6. d
7. c
8. a
9. d
10. a
11. c
12. d
13. a
14. c
15. a
16. a
17. d
18. a
19. c
20. c
21. d
22. a
23. c
24. c
25. b
26. b
27. c
28. d
29. b 30. a
31. c
32. a
33. b
34. b
35. a
36. d
37. c
38. c
39. d
40. a
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
ENGLISH
Direction: Find out the error in each of
the following sentences, if there is no
error, answer is (e). Avoid punctuation
mistakes (if any).
21. (a) It is only after/ (b) the movie is
over/ (c) that people realize/(d)
how good or bad it was/ (e) No
error.
22. (a) Of the two/ (b) cars, this/ (c) is
definitely/ (d) better./ (e) No
error.
23. (a) Rajeev is unfortunate enough/
(b) to lose/ (c) few friends he
made/ (d) during his stay at
Delhi./(e) No error.
24. (a) There were a number/ (b) of
pretty girls in the party/ (c) but it
was Neelam/ (d) who remained a
centre of attraction./ (e) No error.
25. (a) I have been / (b) informed
that/ (c) Dr Sharma visits
Mumbai/ (d) the following week. /
(e) No error.
26. (a) He is / (b) the best singer/ (c)
of the time but unfortunately/ (d)
least recognized / (e) No error.
27. (a) Raju said that he felt ecstatic/
(b) because a friend of his/ (c) had
given him/ (d) a very good
news./(e) No error.
28. (a) I don’t like/ (b) that kind of a
man/ (c) who does nothing but/
(d) find out faults in others. / (e)
No error.
29. (a) Little knowledge/ (b) of art
that she possessed/(c) proved to
be a boon for her/ (d) when
she was utterly helpless. / (e) No
error.
30. (a) Don’t talk to her/ (b) she
always/(c) remains in temper/ (d)
these days./ (e) No error.
Direction: Find out the error in each of
the following sentences, if there is no
error, answer is (e). Avoid punctuation
mistakes (if any).
21. (a) He is very / (b) drunk, so he /
(c) cannot tell / (d) you his name. /
(e) No error.
22. (a) A few selfish leaders are / (b)
bent to harm the / (c) very
foundation / (d) of the democracy.
/ (e) No error.
23. (a) You should avoid / (b) to go to
office as you / (c) have severe / (d)
eye infection. / (e) No error.
24. (a) Everyone considered him as /
(b) a brave man / (c) but he fled
from / (d) the battlefield. /
(e) No error.
25. (a) My father does not / (b) mind
to be disturbed / (c) while he is
reading/ (d) the newspaper. / (e)
No error.
26. (a) Perhaps you do not know / (b)
I am having a car and a jeep / (c)
besides a big house/ (d) in a good
locality./ (e) No error.
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27. (a) I bade him / (b) to submit all
the / (c) important documents /
(d) before he left the job. / (e) No
error.
28. (a) Mrs. Dorai would rather / (b)
spend a quiet evening / (c) than
attending/ (d) a party / (e) No
error.
29. (a) The life-guard would not / (b)
let the children / (c) to swim at the
/ (d) deep end of the pool. / (e) No
error.
30. (a) Walking along the / (b) bank of
the river / (c) the road / (d) began
to rise. / (e) No error.
Direction: Find out the error in each of
the following sentences, if there is no
error, answer is (e). Avoid punctuation
mistakes (if. any).
21. (a) She along with / b) her friends
took/ (c) leave of/ (d) a week. / (e) No
error.
22. (a) One should always/ (b) listen the
advice of/ (c) one’s elders/ (d) and,
well wishers / (e) No error.
23. (a) She will/ (b) not listen what / (c)
you say/ (d) to her. / (e) No error.
24. (a) Nobody denies/ (b) that / (c) my
ideas are/ (d) different than yours /
(e)No error.
25. (a) It was she/ (b) who was
responsible of /(c) making all the
arrangement for/ (d) the successful
completion of his business tip / (e) No
error.
26. (a) He was m the bathroom/ (b) when
the burglars/ (c) entered into/ (d) his
house / (e) No error.
27. (a) Their teacher/ (b) emphasized on/
(c) the use of / (d) correct grammar /
(e) No error.
28. (a) On the time/ (b) of the opening
ceremony/ (c) of the theatre, / (d) a
large crowd had assembled. / (e) No
error.
29. (a) While Rajesh was returning/ (b)
from school/ (c) a stalker attacked on
him/ (d) with a knife. / (e) No error.
30. (a) The decline of/ (b) her moral
values has caused/(c) a lot of / (d)
pain to her parents. /(e) No error.
Directions (Q 31-35) you have brief
passages with 5/10 questions following
each passage. Read the passage carefully
and choose the best answer to the each
question out of the four alternatives.
PASSAGE
As my train was not due to lead for
another hour, I had plenty of time to
spare. After buying some magazines to
read on the journey. I made my way to the
luggage office to collect the heavy
suitcase; I had left there three day before.
There were only a few people waiting and
I took out my wallet to find the receipt for
my case. the receipt did not seem to be
where I had left it. I emptied the contents
of the wallet and the railway tickets,
money, scraps of paper and photographs
tumbled out of it; but no matter how hard
I searched, the receipt was nowhere to be
found.
I explained the situation sorrowfully to
the assistant. The man looked to be
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suspiciously as if to say he heard this type
of story many timed and asked me to
describe the case. I told him that it was an
old, brown looking object no different
from the many suitcases I could see on
the shelves. The assistant then gave me
form and told me to make a list of the
contents of the case. If they were correct,
he said, I could take a case away. I tried to
remember all the articles I had hurriedly
packed and wrote them down.
After I had done this, I went to look
among the shelves. There were hundreds
of cases there and for one dreadful
moment, it occurred to me that if
someone had picked the receipt up, he
could easily have claimed the case
already. Fortunately this had not
happened, for after the time, I found the
case lying on its side high up in the
corner. After examining the articles
inside, the assistant gave me the case.
I took out my wallet to pay him. I pulled
out a ten shilling note and out slipped my
‘lost’ receipt with it! I could not help
blushing. The assistant nodded his head
knowingly, as if to say that he had often
seen this happen too!!
31. The writer had plenty of time to spare
because
e) he had arrived three days
before
f) he had arrived an hour earlier
g) he had to collect his luggage
h) he needed to by magazines
32. The writer needed the receipt
e) to claim the suit case
f) to pay at the luggage office
g) to prove that he had paid at
the luggage office
h) to prove that he had brought
the suitcase
33. The writer felt foolish because
e) he could not find his receipt
f) he hadn’t really lost this receipt
at all
g) he had to fill in a form
h) the assistant eyed him
suspiciously
34. There weren’t …………………. people
waiting at the luggage office.
e) very much
f) a great deal of
g) lots of
h) very many
35. ‘wrote them down’ means
e) copied them
f) signed them
g) made a note of them
h) pointed at them
DIRECTIONS (36-40): In each of the
questions below, choose the alternatives
which is most nearly the same in meaning
to the given word
36. Mendicant
i) Reformer
j) Dealer
k) Beggar
l) Advisor
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37. Instinctive
i) Helpful
j) inherent
k) Crucial
l) Strong
38. Clone
i) Trace
j) Copy
k) Make
l) Mould
39. Thrive
i) Flourish
j) Raise
k) Create
l) Destroy
40. Dissuade
h) Worry
i) Disturb
j) Discourage
k) Encourage
In each of the groups of words below, one
word may be misspelled or no words may
be misspelled. If a word is misspelled,
write it correctly to the right of each
group. If none of the words in the group is
misspelled, write "none."
41. fuzzes, laundrys, sufficient
42. turkeys, trophies, arrival, armies
43. acrage, analysis, dosage
44. acompaniment, played, interviewed
45. privilege, excelling, eighth
Choose the appropriate quantifier /
determiner.
46. Can I have a few / some / many
butter please?
47. He has a lot of / many / some
money. He owns two large
apartments.
48. Do you want sugar in your tea? “Just
how much / a little / a few ‘please.”
49. I have a lot of / much / a little DVDs.
50. I’ll be ready in some / a few / little
minutes
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ANSWERS
21. (b); ‘A movie’ should be used in
place of ‘the movie because we are
not talking about any particular
movie. Hence article ‘a’ will be
used in place of the.
22. (d); ‘The better’ should be used in
place of ‘better’. Because when a
choice is to be made, we use ‘the’
before a comparative degree
23. (c); ‘The’ should be used before
few. Since, ‘the few’ means ‘some’
and ‘few friends’ means ‘almost no
friends’
24. (d); ‘a centre of attraction’ should
be replaced with ‘the centre of
attraction’. Since, ‘the’ follows the
former noun in sentence with the
structure ‘none + of + noun’. For
e.g. ‘The art of living.’
25. (e); No error
26. (d); ‘The’ should be used before
‘least’ since superlatives degrees
are always preceded by the’.
27. (d); ‘a’ should not be used, since
‘news’ is an uncountable noun.
28. (b); ‘a’ should not be used because
an ‘Article’ is not used with nouns
followed by ‘type of’, ‘kind of’,
‘sort of’ etc.
29. (a); ‘The’ should be used before
‘little’. ‘The little’ means ‘all that is’
whereas, ‘little means almost none.
30. (c); ‘in a temper’ should be used in
place of ‘in temper’. Since it is the
correct phrasal use.
31. (d); No correction required.
32. (b); Change ‘bent to harm’ on ‘bent
to harming’. ‘Bent on’ means
determined to do.
33. (b); Change ‘to go’ to ‘going’.
Gerund comes after ‘avoid’.
34. (a); Remove ‘as’. ‘Considered’ is
not followed by ‘as’.
35. (b); ‘Gerund’ will come after
‘mind’. Change ‘be’ into ‘being’.
36. (b); Change ‘am having’ into ‘have’.
When ‘have’ means ‘to possess’, it
does not take ‘ing’ form.
37. (b); ‘Bade’ (V2 of bid) takes ‘plain
infinitive’ (V1) after it and not
‘infinitive’ (to + V1). Change ‘to
submit’ into ‘submit’.
38. (c); Use ‘attend’ after ‘than’.
Because ‘would rather’ is followed
by 'V1' and after ‘than’ the form
'V1'will come.
39. (c); Use V1 after ‘let’. Remove ‘to’.
40. (a); Add ‘while I was’ before
‘walking alone’.
21. (c); “Leave for a week” should be
used.
22. (b); ‘To’ should be added after
‘listen’. Since ‘listen’ is always
followed by ‘to’.
23. (b); ‘To’ should be added after
‘Listen’.
24. (d); ‘different from’ should be used
in place of ‘different then’. Since
different is always followed by form.
25. (b); ‘for’ should be used in place of
‘of’ since responsible is always
followed by ‘of’
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26. (c); Use of 'into' is wrong since
entered is not followed by ‘into’
27. (b); ‘On’ should be removed since
emphasized is not followed by ‘on’.
28. (a), ‘At’ should be used in place of
'on'. Since we are talking about a
particular Point of time (i.e. the time
of the opening ceremony).
29. (c); ‘on’ should not be used. Since
‘attack’ is not followed by ‘on’.
30. (a); ‘in’ should be used in place of ‘of’
since ‘decline’ is followed by ‘in’
31. b
32. a
33. b
34. d
35. c
36. c 37. b 38. b
39. a
40. c
41. laundries
42. none
43. acreage
44. accompaniment
45. none
46. Some
47. A lot of
48. A little
49. A lot of
50. A few
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REASONING
16. Hare is related to Burrow, in the same
way Owl is related to:
e) Hole
f) Hive
g) Nest
h) Barn
17. Duma is related to Russia, in the same
way as Knesset is related to:
e) Malaysia
f) Afghanistan
g) France
h) Germany
18. College is related to Student, in the
same way as Hospital is related to:
e) Doctor
f) Nurse
g) Medicine
h) Patient
19. major is related to Lieutenant, in the
same way as Squadron leader is
related to:
e) Group Captain
f) Flying Attendant
g) Flying Officer
h) Pilot Officer
20. Smell is to Flower, in the same way as
Taste is to:
e) Tongue
f) Water
g) Sweet
h) Food
6. Vijay says “Ananda’s mother is the
only daughter of my mother” How is
Ananda related to vijay?
e) Brother
f) Father
g) Nephew
h) Grandfather
7. Pointing towards a person, a man said
to a woman, “His mother is the only
daughter of your father”. How is the
woman related to that person?
e) Daughter
f) Sister
g) Mother
h) Wife
8. Showing the lady in the park, Vineet
said, “She is the daughter of my
grandfather’s only son”. How is vineet
related to that lady?
e) Brother
f) Cousin
g) Father
h) Uncle
9. Ramesh is the brother of Amit.
Sushma is the sister of Satish. Amit is
the son of Sushma. How is Ramesh
related to Sushma?
e) Father
f) Brother
g) Son
h) Nephew
10. Pointing to a lady in the photograph,
shaloo said, “Her son’s father is the
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son-in-law of my mother”. How is
Shaloo related to the lady?
e) Aunt
f) Sister
g) Mother
h) Cousin
11. Which of the following diagrams correctly represents elephants, wolves and animals?
12. Which one of the following diagrams correctly represents the relationship among tennis fans, cricket players and students.
Direction(13-15): In the following questions, three classes are given. Out of the four figures that follow, you are to indicate which figure will best represent the relationship amongst the three classes.
13. Boys, Students and Athletes
e) 1
f) 2
g) 3
h) 4
14. Sparrows, Birds and Mice
e) 1
f) 2
g) 3
h) 4
15. Women, Mothers and Widows e) 1
f) 2
g) 3
h) 4
16. I am facing East. Turning to the right I go 20 m, then turning to the left I go 20 m and turning to the right I go 20 m, then again turning to the right I go 40 m and then again I go 40 m to the right. In which direction am I from my original position? e) North f) West g) South h) East
17. Bhairav walked 30 ft towards North,
then took a left turn and walked 15 ft. He again took a left turn and walked 30 ft. How far and in which direction is Bhairav from the starting point? e) 15 ft to the West f) 45 ft to the South g) 30 ft to the East h) 15 ft to the North
18. Seema started early in the morning on
the road towards the Sun. After some time she turned to her left. Again after
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some time she turned to her right. After moving some distance she again turned to her right and began to move. At this time, in what direction was she moving? e) South f) North-West g) North-East h) East
19. At dusk, Rohit started walking facing
the sun. After a while, he met his friend and both turned to their left. They halted for a while and started moving by turning again to their right. Finally Rohit waved 'good bye' to his friend and took a left turn at a corner. At which direction is Rohit moving now? e) South f) West g) North h) East
20. A starts and walks towards south, he
then turns to his right and walks 5 km, then again turn left and walks 3 km and then again turn left and walks 5 km. In which direction is he from the starting point? e) West f) South g) North h) East
21. If in a certain code, LUTE is written
as MUTE and FATE is written as
GATE, then how will BLUE be
written in that code?
f) CLUE
g) GLUE
h) FLUE
i) SLUE
j) None of these
22. If in a certain language, MADRAS is
coded as NBESBT, how BOMBAY
coded in that language?
f) CPNCBX
g) CPNCBZ
h) CPOCBZ
i) CQOCBZ
j) None of these
23. If FISH is written as EHRG in a
certain code, how would JUNGLE
be written in that code?
f) ITMFKD
g) ITNFKD
h) KVOHMF
i) TIMFKD
j) None of these
24. In a certain code, TWINKLE is
written as SVHOJKD then how
would FILTERS be written in that
code?
f) EHKSDQR
g) EHKUDQR
h) EGHUDQR
i) GJMSFST
j) None of these
25. In a certain code, ROAD is written
as URDG. How is SWAN written in
that code?
f) VXDQ
g) VZDQ
h) VZCP
i) UXDQ
i) None of these
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Directions (26-30)What will come in
place of question mark (?) in the
following number series?
26. 2, 3, 5, 7, ?
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c)
(d) 11 (e) None of these
27. 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ?
(a) 17 (b) 18 (c) 20
(d) 21 (e) None of these
28. 4, 9, 16, 25?
(a) 49 (b) 30 (c) 36
(d) 42 (e) None of these
29. 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23?
(a) 18 (b) 28 (c) 27
(d) 22 (e) None of these
30. 41, 43, 47, 53, 59?
(a) 61 (b) 67 (c) 64
(d) 65 (e) None of these
31. Tortoise, Crab, Frog, Fish e) Tortoise f) Crab g) Frog h) Fish
32. 13, 17, 23, 63, 71
e) 63 f) 1 g) 1 h) 23
33. (64, 83), (100, 121), (16, 25), (36, 49)
e) 64, 83 f) 100, 121 g) 16, 25 h) 36, 49
34. (9 - 72), (10 - 90), (8 - 56), (11 - 115)
e) 9 – 72 f) 10 – 90
g) 8 – 5 h) 11 – 115
35. Jeevan Raksha Padak, Param Vir
Chakra, Padma Bhusan, Bharat Ratna a) Jeevan Raksha Padak b) Param Vir Chakra c) Padma Bhusan d) Bharat Ratna 36. Milk, Ghee, Paneer, Butter
e) Milk f) Ghee g) Panee h) Butter
37. Which word will appear fourth in the
dictionary? e) Solitaire f) Soliloquy g) Solitary h) Solitude
38. 7, 8, 12, 20, 37, 62
e) 37 f) 62 g) 12 h) 20
39. 1, 8, 27, 65, 125, 216
e) 1 f) 65 g) 12 h) 216
Directions: Each of the following questions consists of four/ five figures as the problem figure followed by four/five figures marked (a), (b), (c), (d), and (e) as the answer figures. Select the correct answer figure which will continue the series as established by the problem figures.
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40.
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) None Of These
41.
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) None Of These
42.
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) None Of These
43.
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) None Of These
Directions: In each item, there are two sets of figures; first four figures named problem figures and next four figures named answer figures indicated as (a), (b), (c) and (d). The problem figures follow a particular sequence. In accordance with the same, which one of the four answer figures should appear as the fifth figure.
45.
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
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46.
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
Other types of series might be the non-verbal series completion based questions. In the formation of the figure, the candidate has to use the fragmented part to construct the desired figure. Formation of figure requires a high spatial visualization skill. As different fragmented parts of a figure are to be combined to form the desired figure. Let us see some practice questions.
7: Which of the following figures shown below, when folded along the dotted lines, will form a pyramid-shaped box with a rectangular base?
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
47. Which of the answers figures include the separate components found in the question figure?
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
48. Among the four answer figures, which one can be formed from the cut-out pieces given below in the question figure?
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
Directions: In each of the following questions, select the alternative in which the specified components of the problem figure are found?
49.
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A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
50.
A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These
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ANSWERS
21. Burrow is the dwelling place of Hare.
Similarly, Barn is the dwelling place of
Owl.
22. Russian parliament is called Duma.
Similarly, Afghanistan’s parliament is
called Knesset.
23. In the College, education is given to
the students, in the same way
treatment given to Patient in the
Hospital.
24. Major and Squadron Leader are
equivalent ranks in the Army and the
Air Force, respectively. Same as
Lieutenant and the flying officer are
equivalent ranks in the Army and the
Air Force.
25. Smell comes from Flower in the same
way Taste comes from Food.
21. c
22. c
23. a
24. c
25. b
26. d
27. a
28. b
29. d
30. c
31. c
32. a
33. c
34. a
35. b
36. a
37. b
38. a
39. b
40. b
41. a
42. b
43. a
44. b
45. b
46. a
47. b
48. a
49. b
50. b
51. d 52. a 53. a 54. d 55. b 56. b
57. c
58. a
59. c
60. c
61. d
62. b
63. a
64. b
65. b
66. b
67. c
68. b
69. a
70. b
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MATHEMATICS
1. How is 3
4 expressed as percentage?
a) 0.75%
b) 7.5%
c) 75%
d) 60%
e) None of these
2. The ratio 5: 4 expressed as a percent equals
a) 12.5%
b) 40%
c) 80%
d) 125%
e) None of these
3. What is 28% of 36% of 5
7 th of 5000?
a) 360
b) 375
c) 420
d) 480
e) None of these
4. 3.5 can be expressed in terms of percentage as:
a) 0.35%
b) 3.5%
c) 35%
d) 350%
e) None of these
5. What is 15 percent of Rs. 34?
a) Rs. 3.40
b) Rs. 3.75
c) Rs. 4.50
d) Rs. 5.10
e) None of these
4. The arithmetic mean of 15 numbers is 41.4. Then the sum of these numbers is
a) 414 b) 420 c) 620
d) 621 e) None of these
5. If 25a + 25b = 115, what is the average of a and b?
a) 2.5 b) 3.4 c) 4.5
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d) 4.6 e) None of these
6. Find the average of all the numbers between 6 and 34 which are divisible by 5.
a) 18 b) 20 c) 24
d) 30 e) None of these
7. A motorist covered the first 20 km of his journey in 30 minutes and the remaining 29
km in 40 minutes. His average speed in km/hr is:
a) 413
4 b) 42 c) 49d )57
1
6 e) None of these
8. A cyclist goes from a place to another and returns by the same route. He pedals his way
uniformly with a speed u while going and with speed v while returning. The average
speed of his journey is:
a) 𝑢+𝑣
2 b)
𝑢−𝑣
2 c)
11
2(
1
𝑢+
1
𝑣)
d) 1
1
2(
1
𝑢−
1
𝑣) e) None of these
9. A man travels first 50 km at 25 kmph, next 40 km at 20 kmph and then 90 km at 15
kmph. His average speed for the whole journey (in kmph) is:
(a) 25
(b) 20
(c) 18
(d) 40
(e) None of these
10. A man walks at the rate of 5km/hr for 6 hours and at 4km/hr for 12 hours. The average
speed of the man (in km/hr) is:
a) 4
b) 412
c) 413
d) 423
e) None of these
11. If a person travels 1015 km in 3 hours, then the distance covered by him in 5 hours will
be:
a) 18 km b) 17km c) 16km
d) 15 km e) None of these
12. If a train 110m long passes a telegraph pole in 3 seconds, then the time taken (in
seconds) by it to cross a railway platform 165 m long, is:
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5
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d) 7.5 e) None of these
13. A train 700 m long is running at the speed of 72km/hr. If it crosses a tunnel in 1 minute,
then the length of the tunnel (in meters) is:
a) 700 b) 600 c) 550
d) 500 e) None of these
14. The total number of students in a school is 2140. If the number of girls in the school is
1200, then what is the ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in
the school?
a) 18: 13 b) 26: 25 c) 47: 60
d) 31: 79 e) None of these
15. A person spends Rs. 8100 in buying some tables at Rs. 1200 each and some chairs at Rs.
300 each. The ratio of the number of chairs to that of tables when the maximum
possible number of tables is purchased is
a) 1: 2 b) 1: 4 c) 2: 1
d) 5: 7 e) None of these
16. The ratio of boys and girls in a club is 3:2. Which of the following could be the actual
number of members?
a) 16 b) 18 c) 24
d) 25 e) None of these
17. One year ago the ratio of Ramu and Somu age was 6:7 respectively. Four years hence
their ratio would become 7:8. How old is Somu?
a) 24 years b) 30 years
c) 32 years d) 36 years
e) None of these.
18. If 33% of A is equal to 55% of B then find the ratio of A and B?
a) 3:5 b) 5:3 c) 3:4
d) 5:4 e) None of these
19. The total area of the wet surface is?
a) 49 m2
b) 50 m2
c) 53.5 m2
d) 55 m2
e) None of these
20. The breadth of a room is twice its height and half its length. The volume of the room is
512 cu. m. The length of the room is
a) 16 m
b) 18 m
c) 20 m
d) 32 m
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e) None of these
21. A Rectangular plot is 180 m2 in area. If its length is 18m then, its perimeter is?
a) 20 m b) 56 m c) 360 m
d) 60 m e) None of these
22. The side of a square exceeds the side of another square by 4 cm and the sum of the
areas of the two squares is 400 cm2. The dimensions of the square are?
a) 8cm and 12cm
b) 6cm and 10cm
c) 12cm and 16cm
d) 10cm and 18cm
e) None of these
23. The area of the floor of a rectangular hall of length 40m is 960m2. Carpets of size 6m ×
4m are available. Then, how many carpets are required to cover the hall?
a) 20 b) 30 c) 40
d) 45 e) None of these
24. (75P2 – 75C2) = ?
a) 0 b) 75 c) 150
d) 2775 e) 5550
25. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DISPLAY be arranged?
a) 720 b) 1440 c) 2520
d) 5040 e) None of these
26. In how many different ways can the letters of the word “TABLE” be arranged?
a) 24 b) 48 c) 120
d) 60 e) None of these
27. In how many different ways can the letters of the word “MATHEMATICS” be arranged?
a)10!
2 b)
11!
2 c)
11!
4
d) 11!
8 e) None of these
28. In how many ways can 6 letters be posted in 5 letter boxes available in the locality?
a) 56 b) 65 c) 66
d) 625 e) None of these
29. How many 3-digit numbers are there, with distinct digits, with each digit odd?
a) 120 b) 200 c) 60
d) 45 e) None of these
30. In how many ways can the letters of the word ‘UNIVERSAL’ be arranged when E, R, S
are always together?
a) 31240 b) 32240 c) 30240
d) 29240 e) None of these
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31. In how many ways can the letters of the word ‘ALGEBRA’ be arranged when both A do
not come together?
a) 1800 b) 1600 c) 1500
d) 2160 e) None of these
32. In how many ways can the letters of the word ‘NUTAN’ be arranged when consonants
occupy odd places and vowels come on even places?
a) 120 b) 60 c) 24
d) 12 e) None of these
33. There are seven candidates for 3 posts. In how many ways can the posts be filled?
a) 210 b) 120 c) 73
d) 37 e) None of these
11. Father is four times the age of his daughter. If after 5 years, he would be threee times of
daughter’s age, then further after 5 years, how many times he would be of his
daughter’s age?
a) times
b) 2 times
c) 2.5 times
d) 3 times
12. What is Aman's present age, if after 20 years his age will be 10 times his age 10 years
back?
a) 6.2 years
b) 7.7 years
c) 13.3 years
d) 10 years
13. Nisha is 15 years elder to Romi. If 5 years ago, Nisha was 3 times as old as Romi, then
find Nisha’s present age.
a) 32.5 years
b) 27.5 years
c) 25 years
d) 24.9 years
14. One year ago, the ratio of Honey and Piyush ages was 2: 3 respectively. After five years
from now, this ratio becomes 4: 5. How old is Piyush now?
a) 5 years
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b) 25 years
c) 10 years
d) 15 years
15. Ten years ago, the age of mother was three times the age of her son. After ten years,
mother’s age will be twice that of his son. Find the ratio of their present ages.
a) 11 : 7
b) 9 : 5
c) 7 : 4
d) 7 : 3
16. Saransh is 50 years old and Nazma is 40 years old. How long ago was the ratio of their
ages 3:2?
a) 20 years
b) 30 years
c) 40 years
d) 25 years
17. The ratio of the present ages of Pranav and Qureshi is 4:5. Five years ago, the ratio of
their ages was 7:9. Find their present ages? (In years)
a) 40, 50
b) 18, 25
c) 40, 60
d) 20, 25
18. A man said to his son, "I was one-third of your present age when you were born". If the
present age of the man is 48 years, find the present age of the son.
a) 25.7 years
b) 28 years
c) 29.3 years
d) 36 years
19. Dinesh is younger to Roshan by 9 years. If their ages are in the respective ratio of 4:5,
how old is Dinesh?
a) 36 years
b) 23years
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c) 29 years
d) Cannot be determined
20. The ratio of Sara’s age 4 years ago and Vaishali’s age after 4 years is 1: 1. Presently, the
ratio of their ages is 5: 3. Find the ratio between Sara’s age 4 years hence and Vaishali’s
age 4 years ago.
a) 1 : 3
b) 3 : 1
c) 4 : 3
d) 3 : 4
11. If the product of two numbers is 2496 and HCF is 8,then the ratio of HCF and LCM is
a) 1:32 b) 39:1 c) 1:39 d) 4:63 e) None of these
12. The greatest possible length which can be used to measure exactly the lengths 1m 92cm,3m 84cm ,23m 4cm
a) 23 b) 32 c) 36 d) 34 e) None of these
13. HCF of 4/3, 8/6, 36/63 and 20/42
f) 4/126 g) 4/8 h) 4/36 i) 4/42 j) None of these
14. Find the LCM of 3/8, 9/32, 33/48, 18/72
a) 3/8 b) 8/33 c) 198/8 d) 8/3
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e) None of these
15. The HCF of 2511 and 3402 is
f) 31 g) 42 h) 76 i) 81 j) None of these
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ANSWERS
41. (c): 3
4= (
3
4× 100)% = 75%
42. (d): 5: 4 = 5
4= (
5
4× 100)% = 125%
43. (a): Given expression = (28
100×
36
100×
5
7× 5000)
= 360
44. (d): 3.5 can be expressed as
(3.5×100)% = 350%
45. (d): 15
100× 34 = 5.10 Rs.
46. (d): Sum of numbers = (41.4×15) =
621.
47. (e): 25a + 25b = 115 25 (a + b) =
115
a + b= 115
25=
23
5
Average of a and b = 𝑎+𝑏
2=
23
5×
1
2=
23
10=2.3
48. (b): Average = (10+15+20+25+30
5) =
100
5
= 20
49. (b): Total distance covered = (20+29)
km = 49 km
Total time taken = (30+40) min =
70 min
Average speed = (49
70× 60) = 42
km/hr
50. (c): Let one way distance be ‘x’
Total distance = 2x
Total time taken = (x
u+
x
v)
Average speed = 2𝑥
𝑥
𝑢+
𝑥
𝑣
=1
1
2(
1
𝑢+
1
𝑣)
51. (c): Average speed = 50+40+9050
25+
40
20+
90
15
=180
2+2+6=
180
10 = 18 kmph
52. (c): Average speed = 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 =
5×6+4×12
6+12
=30+48
18=
78
18=
13
3= 4
1
3 Km/hr
53. (b): Speed = 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒=
101
5
3=
51
5×
1
3=
17
5 Km/hr
Required distance = speed × time
= 17
5×5 = 17 km
54. (d): Speed of the train = 110
3 m/sec
Required time = (165+110)
110×3
= 275
110×3 = 7.5 sec
55. (d): ( Length of the 1st train + Length
of the tunnel)
= speed × time
x +700= 72×5
18× (1 × 60)
x + 700= 20×60
x + 700 = 1200 x = 1200-700
x= 500 meters.
14. (c): Number of girls = 1200. Number of boys = 2140 – 1200 = 940 Require Ratio = 940: 1200 = 47: 60
15. (a): Maximum possible number of tables = 6 [∵1200×6=7200] Number of chairs purchased = 8100−7200
300=
900
300 = 3
Hence, required ratio = 3: 6 = 1: 2 16. (d): The total number of members
must be a multiple of the sum of the ratio terms. 3+2=5 and 25 is a multiple of 5.
17. (d); Let present ages of Ramu and Somu be R and S respectively.
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(R-1) : (S-1)6:7
One year ago→ R : S
↓ : ↓ Four years hence
(R+4) : (S+4) 7:8
R−1
S−1=
6
7
R+4
S+4=
7
8
7R-7= 6S-6 8R+32= 7S+28
7R-6S=1 8R-7S=-4
7R-6S=1 …..(i)
8R-7S=-4 …..(ii)
Multiplying equation (i) by 8 and equation (ii) by 7, we get →
56R-48S=8 …(iii)
56R-49S= -28 …(iv)
Subract (iv) from (iii) : S= 36 years
Shortcut:
One year ago→ R: S 6:7 S=7
Only option (d) has a number from which, if we subtract ‘1’, we get a number divisible by 7.
18. (b); 33% of A= 33×𝐴
100 =
55×𝐵
100= 55% of B
=33×A
100 =
55×B
100
A
B =
55
33
A: B 5: 3
21. (a): Area of the wet surface = [2(lb +
bh + lh) – lb]
= 2 (bh + lh)
+lb
= [2 (4×1.25 + 6×1.25) + 6×4]
m2 = 49 m2
22. (a): Let the height of the room be x
meters.
Then, breadth = 2x metres and
length = 4x metres
Volume of the room = (4x×2x×x)
m3 = (8x3) m2
8x3= 512 x3= 64 x = 4
Length of the room is 16 m
23. (b): Breadth = Area
Length=
180
18=10 m
Perimeter = 2 (length + breadth)
= 2 (18+10)
= 56
24. (c): Let side of square = x cm
Side of another square = (x+4)
cm
x2+(x+4)2 = 400
x2+x2+16+8x = 400
2x2+8x-384 = 0 x2+4x-
192=0
x2+16x-12x-192=0
x (x+16) -12 (x+16) = 0
(x - 12) (x+16) = 0
x = 12 (-16 not possible)
Side of one square = 12 cm
Side of another square = 16 cm
25. (c): Given, 6
4
Area of the floor = 960 m2
Area of one carpet = 6×4= 24 m2
No of carpet required = Area of floor
Area of one carpet
=960
24= 40
26. (d): (75P2 – 75C2) = {75!
(75−2)!−
75×75
2}
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=75!
73!−(75×37)
= 75×74×73!
73!−(73×37)
= (75×74 – 75×37) =
75×37×(2-1)
= (75×37) = 2775
27. (d): The given word contains 7 letters,
all different
Required number of ways = 7P7 =
7!
= (7×6×5×4×3×2×1) = 5040
28. (c): No of ways in which the letters of
the word “TABLE” can be arranged =
5! = 120
29. (d): No of ways of arranging the
letters of word MATHEMATICS = 11!
2!×2!×2!=
11
8!
30. (a): No of ways in which 6 letters can
be posted 5 letter boxes =
5×5×5×5×5×5=56
31. Option C
Let the daughter's age be x and
father's age be 4x.
So as per question, 4x + 5 = 3(x + 5).
So x = 10.
Hence present age of daughter is 10
years and present age of father is 40
years.
So after 5 + 5 = 10 years, daughter age
would be 20 years and father’s age
would be 50 years.
Hence father would be 50/20 = 2.5
times of daughter’s age.
32. Option C
Let Aman's present age be x
Aman's age before 10 years = x - 10)
Aman's age after 20 years = (x + 20)
We are given that, Aman's age after 20
years (x + 20) is 10 times his age 10
years back (x – 10)
Therefore, (x + 20) = 10 (x – 10)
Solving the equation, we get x + 20 =
10x – 100
9x = 120, x = 13.3 years
33. Option B
Let age of Romi be y
Nisha is 15 years elder than Romi = (y
+ 15). So Nisha's age 5 years ago = (y +
15 – 5).
Romi's age before 5 years = (y – 5)
5 years ago, Nisha is 3 times as old as
Romi
(y + 15 – 5) = 3 (y – 5)
(y + 10) = (3y – 15)
2y = 25 ⇒ y = 12.5
Romi's age = 12.5 years
Nisha's age = (y + 15) = (12.5 + 15) =
27.5 years.
34. Option C
We are given that age ratio of Honey:
Piyush = 2: 3
Honey’s age = 2x and Piyush’s age = 3x
One year ago, their age was 2x and 3x.
Hence at present, Honey's age = 2x +1
and Piyush's age = 3x +1
After 5 years, Honey’s age = (2x +1) +
5 = (2x + 6)
Piyush's age = (3x +1) + 5 = (3x + 6)
After 5 years, this ratio becomes 4: 5.
Therefore,
(2x+6) / (3x+6) = 4/5
10x + 30 = 12x + 24 ⇒ x = 3
Piyush's present age = (3x + 1) = (3x 3
+ 1) = 10 years
Honey's present age = (2x + 1) = (2x 3
+ 1) = 7 years
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35. Option D
10 years ago, age of mother was three
times the age of her son. Say, the age
of son was x and mother's age was 3x.
At present: Mother's age is (3x + 10)
and son’s age is (x + 10)
After ten years: Mother's age will be
(3x + 10) +10 and son’s age will be (x
+ 10) + 10. Given that, mother’s age is
twice that of son after ten years.
(3x + 10) +10 = 2 [(x + 10) + 10]
(3x + 20) = 2[x + 20]
Solving the equation, we get x = 20
(3x + 10): (x + 10) = 70: 30 = 7: 3.
36. Option A
Here, we have to calculate: How many
years ago the ratio of their ages was
3:2. Let us assume x years ago
At present: Saransh is 50 years and
Nazma is 40 years
x years ago: Saransh’s age = (50 – x)
and Nazma's age = (40 – x)
Given, the ratio of their ages was 3:2
(50-x) / (40-x) = 3/2
Solving, we get: x = 20
Therefore, the answer is 20 years.
37. Option A
Their present ages be 4X and 5X.
5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was
7:9, then (4X - 5) :( 5X - 5) = 7:9
X = 45 - 35 ⇒ X = 10.
Their present ages are: 40, 50.
38. Option D
Present age of the son be P, he was
born P years ago.
The age of the man was: (48 - P).
His age when the son was born should
be equal to 1/3 of P.
(48 - P) =1/3 P ⇒ P = 36
39. Option A
Let Roshan's age be x years.
Then, Dinesh 's age = (x - 9) years.
(x - 9)/x = 4/5
x = 45 Hence, Dinesh's age = (x - 9) =
36 years.
40. Option B
Currently, the ratio of their ages is 5:
3. Suppose, their ages are: 5x and 3x.
Sara’s age 4 years ago = 5x – 4
Vaishali’s age after 4 years = 3x + 4
Ratio of Sara’s age 4 years ago and
Vaishali's age after 4 years is 1 : 1
Therefore,
(5x - 4) / (3x + 4) = 1/1
Solving, we get x = 4
We are required to find the ratio
between Sara’s age 4 years hence and
Vaishali’s age 4 years ago.
Sara's age: (5x + 4)
Vaishali's age: (3x – 4)
Putting the value of x, we get:
(5x + 4) / (3x - 4) = 3/1 = 3:1
41. C) 1:39
Explanation:
HCF = 8
LCM = Product/HCF
Product of the 2 number = 2496
HCF:LCM = 8 : (2496/8) => 8 : 312 =>
1: 39
42. B) 32
Explanation:
192 = 4^2×2^2×3
384 = 4^2×2^2×6
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2304 = 4^2×2×6^2
HCF = 4^2×2 = 16×2 = 32
43. A. 4/126
Explanation:
HCF of numerator(4,8,36,20) = 4
LCM of denominator(3,6,63,42) = 126
44. C) 198/8
Explanation :
LCM of numerator(3,9,33,18) = 198
HCF of denominator(8,32,48,72) = 8
45. D) 81
Explanation :
2511 = 81×31
3402 = 81×42
Hence HCF is 81
46. B) 147
Explanation :
47. D) 128
Explanation :
49 = 7^2 = m^n
n^m = 2^7 = 128
48. A) 630
Explanation :
LCM of 12,18,21 and 30 = 1260
Doubled (divide by 2) = 1260/2 = 630
49. C) 77
Explanation :
Product of the two number = 11a×11b
= 4235
11a×11ab = 4235/121 = 35
35 = 7 × 5 (co prime)
77 × 11 = 77
50. A) xy/z
Explanation :
HCF = Product of the 2 number/LCM =
XY/Z
GENERAL SCIENCE AND AWARENESS
11. The territories of J&K were transferred to Raja
Gulab Singh of Jammu as a result of:
a) Treaty of Amritsar 1846
b) Treaty of Lahore-1846
c) Treaty of J&K- 1846
d) Treaty of Bhairowal 1846
12. The constitution of J&K, came into force on:
a) 15th Aug,1947
b) 17th Nov,1956
c) 26th Jan, 1950
d) 26th Jan,1957
13. 73rd Constitutional Amendment does not
apply to which of the following states?
a) Meghalaya
b) Goa
c) Sikkim
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d) Himachal Pardesh
14. As per Article Act, the legislature of a state, may
by Law, provide for making grants-in0aid to the
Panchayats from:
a) Contingency Fund of the President
contingency
b) Fund of the Governor
c) Consolidated Fund of the state
d) Consolidated Fund of India
15. Various employment programmes have been
launched in India, namely, IRDP, NREP,RLEQP,
FWP. They are meant to improve
a) Rural Employment
b) Urban Employment
c) Rural and Urban Employment
d) Educated Employment
16. Which committee was set up to
review the concept of the poverty
line?
a) Chakarvarty Committee
b) lakdawala Committee
c) Wanchoo Committee
d) Dutt Committee
17. According to the traditions,
Kashmir takes its name from:
a) Scenery
b) Sage
c) Temple
d) King
18. Who founded the city of Srinagar?
a) Janaka
b) Swarna
c) Pravarsena
d) None of the above
19. One of the objectives of Industrial
Licensing Policy in India was to
ensure:
a) Creation of adequate
employment opportunities
b) free flow of foreign capital in
Indian industries
c) Use of modern technology d) Balanced industrial development across
regions
20. A committee appointed in 1977 to
review working of the Panchayati
Raj was chaired by:
a) Balwant Rai Mehta
b) Ashok Mehta
c) K.N Katju
d) JagjivanRam
21. What is the capital of Maharashtra?
a. Mumbai b. New Delhi c. Chennai d. None of the above
22. ________________ is the capital of Uttarakhand.
a. Lucknow b. Prayagraj (Allahabad) c. Dehradun d. Shimla
23. Dispur is the capital city of which north-eastern state?
a. Assam b. Tripura c. Meghalaya d. Mizoram
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24. Which city is known as the “summer capital” of Jammu and Kashmir?
a. Jammu b. Srinagar c. Shimla d. Anantnag
25. Kavaratti is the capital of which Union Territory?
a. Daman and Diu b. Lakshadweep c. Dadar and Nagar Haveli d. Chandigarh
26. Port Blair is the capital of which Union Territory?
a. Andaman and Nicobar Islands b. Daman and Diu c. Puducherry d. None of the above
27. Itanagar is the capital of _______________ .
a. Bihar b. Goa c. Chattisgarh d. Arunachal Pradesh
28. Ranchi is the capital of which Indian state?
a. Bihar b. Telangana c. Jharkhand d. Madhya Pradesh
29. ________________ is the capital of Odisha (Orissa).
a. Kolkata b. Shillong c. Bhubaneshwar d. Cuttack
30. Silvassa is the capital of which Union Territory?
a. Mumbai b. Puducherry c. Daman and Diu d. Dadar and Nagar Haveli
26. Lal Ded (Lalla Yogeshwari) was a practitioner of which of the following traditions? a) Tibetan Buddhism b) Kashmir Shaivism c) Sri Sampradaya d) Smartism
27. The Nuakhai festival is predominantly
observed in which state? a) Uttar Pradesh b) Odisha c) Karnataka d) Sikkim
28. Raut Nacha is folk dance performed mainly by the tribal communities of which state? a) Rajasthan b) Jammu & Kashmir c) Assam d) Chhattisgarh
29. Which of the following is not a
classical dance of India? a) Kathak b) Sattriya c) Manipuri d) Bhangra
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30. In which of the following paintings, a
paste made of Zinc Oxide and Arabic Gum called “gesso paste” is used? a) Tanjore painting b) Madhubani painting c) Pattachitra d) Mysore painting
31. At which of the following tennis
tournaments is the Musketeers' Trophy awarded to the winner of Singles title?
a. Australian Open b. US Open c. French Open d. Wimbledon
32. What is the age from which certain category of sports persons winning gold medals at international levels are entitled to receive pension?
a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60
33. Nine time Wimbledon Champion of Women’s Singles Match in Tennis is -
a. Mary Joe Fernandez b. Jana Novotna c. Iva Majoli d. Martina Navrotilova
34. The oldest Football Tournament in India is :
a. Rovers Cup b. I. F. A. Shield c. Durand Cup d. Tata Cup
35. The modern game of polo originated in which of the following Indian states?
a. Nagaland b. Manipur c. Mizoram d. Tripura
41. The control Centre of the body is the
........................
a) Heart b) Lungs c) Brain d) Kidney e) None of these
42. Which part of the body is connected
with the sense of touch?
a) Nose b) Skin c) Ear d) Eyes e) None of these
43. Which of the following is not a sense
organ?
a) Eyes b) Ears c) Nose d) Teeth e) None of these
44. A Barometer is used to measure
...........................
a) Wind direction b) Rainy Water c) Temperature d) Atmospheric pressure e) None of these
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45. Which of the following is the smallest
bird of the world?
a) Humming bird b) Robin c) Curlew d) Greenfinch e) None of these
46. Which star is nearest to sun?
a) Proxima centauri b) Sirius c) Alpha centauri d) Spole star e) None of these
47. Which is the fastest animal on land?
f) Leopard g) Cheetah h) Deer i) Kangaroo j) None of these
48. Who build the first telescope?
a) Galileo b) Issac Newton c) Alaxender Fleming d) Benjamin Franklin e) None of these
49. Henary Ford invented the first
.................... a) Television b) Telephone c) Motor Car d) Refrigerator e) Aeroplane
50. Jaundice is an infectious disease,
which spreads through ............
a) Air b) Soil c) Water d) Clothes
e) None of these
41. Which of the following is the lightest metal ? a) Mercury b) Silver c) Lithium d) Lead
42. The most important ore of Aluminium is– a) Bauxite b) Calamine c) Calcite d) Galena
43. The element present in the largest amount in rocks and minerals is– a) Carbon b) Silicon c) Hydrogen d) Aluminium
44. The chemial name of Uria is– a) Aneurin b) Chloroetane c) Carbamide d) None of these
45. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by adding– a) Potassium Permanganate b) Chlorine c) Bleaching Powder d) Washing Soda
46. The formula of Plaster of Paris is–
a) CaSO4 b) CaSO4, 2H2O c) 2CaSO4, 4H2O d) 2CaSO4, H2O
47. Liquefied Petroleum gas (LPG)
consists of mainly– a) Methane, Ethane and Hexane b) Ethane, Hexane and Nonane c) Methane, Butane and Propane d) Methane, Hexane and Nonane
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48. The metal that is present in Photo Films is– a) Mercury b) Platinium c) Magnesium d) Silver
49. Which of the following is in liquid
form at room temperature ? a) Cerium b) Sodium
c) Francium d) Lithium
50. The property of a substance to absorb
moisture from the air on exposure is called– a) Osmosis b) Desiccation c) Efflorescence d) Deliquescene
ANSWERS
1. a
2. d
3. a
4. c
5. c
6. b
7. b
8. c
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9. d
10. b 11. a
12. c
13. a
14. b
15. b
16. a
17. d
18. c
19. c
20. d
21. b 22. b 23. d 24. d 25. d 26. c 27. c
28. c
29. d
30. a
31. d
32. c
33. c
34. d
35. a
36. d
37. a
38. c
39. a
40. c
41. c
42. a
43. b
44. c
45. d
46. d
47. c
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48. d
49. c
50. d
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