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CONTENT

BASIS ENGLISH……………………………………………………………………………....2 1. ARTICLES………………………………………………………………………………………………………..3 2. VERB…………………………………………………………………………………………………………….....8 3. PREPOSTION………………………………………………………………………………………………….13 4. READING COMPREHENSION…………………………………………………………………………...18 5. SYNONYMS……………………………………………………………………………………………………..25 6. ANTONYMS…………………………………………………………………………………………………….34 7. SENTENCE……………………………………………………………………………………………………...49 8. SPELLING……………………………………………………………………………………………………….53 9. DETERMINERS……………………………………………………………………………………………….57

BASIS REASONING…………………………………………………………………………61 1. ANALOGIES…………………………………………………………………………………………………….62 2. RELATIONSHIP CONCEPT……………………………………………………………………………….70 3. VENN DIAGRAM……………………………………………………………………………………………...76 4. DIRECTION SENSE…………………………………………………………………………………………..82 5. CODING DECODING…………………………………………………………………………………………88 6. NUMBER SERIES……………………………………………………………………………………………...97 7. FIGURE SERIES COMPLETION………………………………………………………………………….104 8. FIGURE ODD ONE OUT…………………………………………………………………………………….110

BASIS MATHEMATICS……………………………………………………………………114 1. PERCENTAGE………………………………………………………………………………………………….115 2. AVERAGE………………………………………………………………………………………………………..125 3. TIME, SPEED AND DISTANCE…………………………………………………………………………..135 4. RATIO AND PROPORTIONS……………………………………………………………………………...147 5. MENSURATION……………………………………………………………………………………………….157 6. PROBABILTY…………………………………………………………………………………………………..171 7. PROBLEM OF AGES………………………………………………………………………………………….180 8. LCM & HCF……………………………………………………………………………………………………...185

GENERAL AWARENESS AND SCIENCE…………………………………………….190 1. HISTORY OF J&K………………………………………………………………………………………………………….191 2. GEOGRAPHY OF J&K…………………………………………………………………………………………………....201 3. CULTURE OF J&K………………………………………………………………………………………………………...205 4. CAPITALS AND STATES…………………………………………………………………………………………….…210 5. INDIA CULTURE……………………………………………………………………………………………………….…217 6. INDIA HISTORY…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..222 7. INDIA GEOGRAPHY…………………………………………………………………………………………………….230 8. HEALTH, HYGIENE AND SANITATION………………………………………………………………………....239 9. SPORTS……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………....245 10. GENERAL SCIENCE……………………………………………………………………………………………………..254



11. GENERAL CURRENT EVENTS OF INDIA…………………………………………………………………….....257

MOCK TEST…………………………………………………………………………………..258 MOCK TEST…………………………………………………………………………………..277 MOCK TEST…………………………………………………………………………………..292 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS…………………………………………………….307



“ENGLISH”

CHAPTER

1 ARTICLES



What Are Articles?

Articles are words that define a noun as specific or unspecific. Consider the following

examples:

Example: -After the long day, the cup of tea tasted particularly good.

By using the article the, we’ve shown that it was one specific day that was long and one specific cup of tea that tasted good.

Example: -After a long day, a cup of tea tastes particularly good.

By using the article a, we’ve created a general statement, implying that any cup of tea would taste good after any long day.

The words ‘a, an and the’ are called articles. Articles are used before noun.

Use of ‘A’ or ‘An’

The articles A are used before a word beginning with a consonant sound.

e.g., a) Raj is a university student.

b) Billu is a one-eyed old person in this village.

A/An is used before a singular countable noun which is used as the representative of a

class of thing or persons.

e.g. , a) A tiger is a fierce beast.

b) A pupil should obey his teacher

The article An is used before a word beginning with a vowel sound.

e.g., a) my neighbour is a Daniel.

b) Ritu is a Lata Mangeshkar because she sings well.

Use of ‘The’

‘The’ is definite article.

The definite article ‘The’ is such ways.

When we talk about a particular person or thing or one already mentioned.

e.g., a) Get me the story book which you lent yesterday

b) The mobile you want is out of stock today.

Before name of historical buildings, places and events.



e.g., The Taj Mahal, The Red Fort, The Pyramids, The Kaba, The Kururshetra, The

French Revolution.

Before names of religious and mythological books.

e.g., The Vedas, The Ramayana, The Bible, The Quran.

Before names of newspapers and magazines.

e.g., The times of India, The Stateman

Before names of groups of islands

e.g., The Andamans, The Hebries, The West Indies

Zero Articles

Here, Zero articles means no articles are required.

Before man, life, death, art, science, when these words are used in the widest sense.

e.g.., a) Man is normal.

b) Science has developed much in the past fifty years.

Before the names of persons, villages, cities, districts, states and countries

e.g., a) Rakesh is a Postmaster.

b) Kashmir is heaven of India

Before names of subjects.

e.g., a) I like to solve Mathematics

b) Chemistry is her favourite subject.

Before names of Sports

e.g., a) Siddartha likes to play badminton

b) Many youth likes to play cricket.

EXERCISE



Direction: Find out the error in each of the following sentences, if there is no error,

answer is (e). Avoid punctuation mistakes (if any).

1. (a) It is only after/ (b) the movie is over/ (c) that people realize/(d) how good or

bad it was/ (e) No error.

2. (a) Of the two/ (b) cars, this/ (c) is definitely/ (d) better./ (e) No error.

3. (a) Rajeev is unfortunate enough/ (b) to lose/ (c) few friends he made/ (d) during

his stay at Delhi./(e) No error.

4. (a) There were a number/ (b) of pretty girls in the party/ (c) but it was Neelam/ (d)

who remained a centre of attraction./ (e) No error.

5. (a) I have been / (b) informed that/ (c) Dr Sharma visits Mumbai/ (d) the following

week. / (e) No error.

6. (a) He is / (b) the best singer/ (c) of the time but unfortunately/ (d) least

recognized / (e) No error.

7. (a) Raju said that he felt ecstatic/ (b) because a friend of his/ (c) had given him/ (d)

a very good news./(e) No error.

8. (a) I don’t like/ (b) that kind of a man/ (c) who does nothing but/ (d) find out faults

in others. / (e) No error.

9. (a) Little knowledge/ (b) of art that she possessed/(c) proved to be a boon for her/

(d) when she was utterly helpless. / (e) No error.

10. (a) Don’t talk to her/ (b) she always/(c) remains in temper/ (d) these days./ (e) No

error.

11. (a) She boasts of/ (b) having good knowledge/ (c) of Physics but everybody/ (d)

knows how far she is good at it./ (e) No error.

12. (a) It was/ (b) by a mistake/ (c) that she caught/ (d) his hand./ (e) No error.

13. (a) The order of/ (b) the commander/(c) may put the lives of/(d) many soldiers in a

danger./No error.

14. (a) She Inspired me/ (b) to take the heart/ (c) in all adverse situations/ (d) and

deserve to be called a real hero./ (e) No error.

15. (a) The most happy/ (b) marriage would be/ (c) a union of a deaf/ (e) man to a

blind woman. / (e) No error

16. (a) Sam suggested to/ (b) his siblings that they should/(c) go to the school

regularly/ (d) and do their home work sincerely/(e) No error.

17. (a) Her father/ (b) forbade her to go/ (c) to circus / (d) late at night./ (e) No error.

18. (a) There was little milk/(b) in the bottle and she gave it/(c) to her son when he/(d)

started weeping./ (e) No error.

19. (a) In a hour’s time/ (b) when I had finished the work/ (c) I got up and/ (d) slipped

out unnoticed./ (e) No error.



20. (a)People in Pakistan/ (b) had become so accustomed to bomb blasts/ (c) that few

of them paid any attention to the explosions/ (d) which they heard this morning/

(e) No error.

SOULTIONS


8 WWW.CAREERSUCCESSJAMMU.COM

1. (b); ‘A movie’ should be used in

place of ‘the movie because we are

not talking about any particular

movie. Hence article ‘a’ will be

used in place of the.

2. (d); ‘The better’ should be used in

place of ‘better’. Because when a

choice is to be made, we use ‘the’

before a comparative degree

3. (c); ‘The’ should be used before

few. Since, ‘the few’ means ‘some’

and ‘few friends’ means ‘almost no

friends’

4. (d); ‘a centre of attraction’ should

be replaced with ‘the centre of

attraction’. Since, ‘the’ follows the

former noun in sentence with the

structure ‘none + of + noun’. For

e.g. ‘The art of living.’

5. (e); No error

6. (d); ‘The’ should be used before

‘least’ since superlatives degrees

are always preceded by the’.

7. (d); ‘a’ should not be used, since

‘news’ is an uncountable noun.

8. (b); ‘a’ should not be used because

an ‘Article’ is not used with nouns

followed by ‘type of’, ‘kind of’,

‘sort of’ etc.

9. (a); ‘The’ should be used before

‘little’. ‘The little’ means ‘all that is’

whereas, ‘little means almost none.

10. (c); ‘in a temper’ should be used in

place of ‘in temper’. Since it is the

correct phrasal use.

11. (b); ‘a good knowledge’ is correct

phrase.

12. (b); ‘By mistake’ should be used

instead of ‘by a mistake’ as it is

correct idiomatic usage.

13. (d); ‘in danger’ is correct phrase.

14. (b); ‘the’ should not be used. Since

‘take heart’, ‘take action’, ‘take

care’, etc. are correct phrases.

15. (c); ‘the union’ should be used in

place of ‘a union’ for explanation

refer to question - 4.

16. (c); ‘the’ should not be used before

‘school’ since, here, school is

mentioned in relation to its

primary motive.

17. (c); ‘Go to the circus’ is correct

idiomatic usage.

18. (a), ‘a’ should be used before

‘little’. ‘A little’ means ‘some

though not much’ whereas ‘little’

means ‘almost none’

19. (a); ‘an’ should be used in place of

‘a’ since ‘hour’ starts with a vowel

sound.

20. (e); No error.

CHAPTER VERBS



Verb

Verb is one of the main parts of a sentence or question in English. The verb in a sentence

expresses action or being.

There is a main verb and sometimes one or more helping verbs

e.g., He can swim. ‘Swim’ is the main verb can is the helping verb.

A verb must agree with its subject in number (both are singular or both are plural). Verbs

also take different forms to express tense.

Types of Verb

As we’ve covered, a verb can be categorized as a physical verb (e.g. to run), a mental verb

(e.g. to think) or state-of-being verb (e.g. to be).

Action verb An action verb expresses an activity that a person or thing can do. e.g.

i. Pinki eats cutlets

ii. The tiger chased the rabbit in the shallow rapids

Compare those verbs with these

iii. Parveen likes cake.

iv. The cat is hungry

Stative Verb A stative verb expresses a state rather than an action. A stative verb typically relates to a

state of being, a thought or an emotion.

e.g.

i. I am at home.

ii. She believes in fairies

iii. He feels elated

Transitive Verb A Transitive verb is one that acts on something (i.e., it has a direct object)

e.g.

i. I saw a dog

2



(Here, the direct object is the ‘dog’)

ii. Laxman ate a pie.

(Here, the direct object is the ‘pie’)

iii. The postman will give Sanoj a letter

(Here, the direct object is the ‘letter’)

Intransitive verb An intransitive verb is one that does not act on something (i.e., there is no direct object)

i. The rain fell

ii. My throat hurts

iii. The cat sneezed

Auxiliary Verb An auxiliary verb (or helping verb) accompanies a main verb to help to express tense, voice

or mood. The most common auxiliary verbs are be, do and have (In their various forms).

Here are some examples of auxiliary verb

i. Rahul has eaten all the fruits.

(Here, the auxiliary verbs ‘has been’ help to express tense)

ii. The table has been prepared.

(Here, the auxiliary verbs ’has been’ help to express voice (in this case, the

passive voice)

iii. If he were to arrive in the next 10 minutes, we would be on schedule.

(Here the auxiliary verb ‘were and would’ help to express mood (in this case, the

subjective mood)

EXERCISE





1. (a) He is very / (b) drunk, so he / (c) cannot tell / (d) you his name. / (e) No error.

2. (a) A few selfish leaders are / (b) bent to harm the / (c) very foundation / (d) of the

democracy. / (e) No error.

3. (a) You should avoid / (b) to go to office as you / (c) have severe / (d) eye infection.

/ (e) No error.

4. (a) Everyone considered him as / (b) a brave man / (c) but he fled from / (d) the

battlefield. / (e) No error.

5. (a) My father does not / (b) mind to be disturbed / (c) while he is reading/ (d) the

newspaper. / (e) No error.

6. (a) Perhaps you do not know / (b) I am having a car and a jeep / (c) besides a big

house/ (d) in a good locality./ (e) No error.

7. (a) I bade him / (b) to submit all the / (c) important documents / (d) before he left

the job. / (e) No error.

8. (a) Mrs. Dorai would rather / (b) spend a quiet evening / (c) than attending/ (d) a

party / (e) No error.

9. (a) The life-guard would not / (b) let the children / (c) to swim at the / (d) deep end

of the pool. / (e) No error.

10. (a) Walking along the / (b) bank of the river / (c) the road / (d) began to rise. / (e)

No error.

11. (a) His assistants have and / (b) are still doing / (c) excellent work/ (d) for the

organisation. / (e) No error.

12. (a) After the teacher had told the boys / (b) how to pronounce the word / (c) all of

them in one voice / (d) repeated the word again. / (e) No error

13. (a) I declined the invitation / (b) not because I did not / (c) want to go, but because

/ (d) I have no time / (e) No error.

14. (a) Even after sixty years of independence / (b) lakhs of people / (c) do not have /

(d) bed to sleep / (e) No error.

15. (a) It being a stormy night, / (b) you must thought of postponing / (c) all your

programmes / (d) till tomorrow morning. / (e) No error.

16. (a) We would also like to help you / (b) if you intend to execute / (c) such lofty plans

for the welfare / (d) of the society./ (e) No error.

17. (a) The unreasonable behavior / (b)of his daughter / (c) was thoroughly / (d upset

Mr. Gupta./ (e) No error

18. (a) Rajan abided by all / (b) the rules which were / (c) explained to him / (d) before

the programme. / (e) No error.



19. (a) They did not came / (b) out victorious / (c) yet they were not disappointed/ (d)

rather satisfied because they had played well. /(e) No error.

20. (a) He complained to the police/ (b) that his briefcase had been stolen / (c) and that

was lift / (d) without any money. / (e) No error

SOLUTIONS

1. (d); No correction required.



2. (b); Change ‘bent to harm’ on ‘bent

to harming’. ‘Bent on’ means

determined to do.

3. (b); Change ‘to go’ to ‘going’.

Gerund comes after ‘avoid’.

4. (a); Remove ‘as’. ‘Considered’ is

not followed by ‘as’.

5. (b); ‘Gerund’ will come after

‘mind’. Change ‘be’ into ‘being’.

6. (b); Change ‘am having’ into ‘have’.

When ‘have’ means ‘to possess’, it

does not take ‘ing’ form.

7. (b); ‘Bade’ (V2 of bid) takes ‘plain

infinitive’ (V1) after it and not

‘infinitive’ (to + V1). Change ‘to

submit’ into ‘submit’.

8. (c); Use ‘attend’ after ‘than’.

Because ‘would rather’ is followed

by 'V1' and after ‘than’ the form

'V1'will come.

9. (c); Use V1 after ‘let’. Remove ‘to’.

10. (a); Add ‘while I was’ before

‘walking alone’.

11. (a); Add ‘done’ after 'have'

Different forms of verbs should be

used in a sentence if required.

12. (a); Remove ‘again’. ‘Repeat’

should not be followed by ‘again’

because this will make the

sentence superfluous.

13. (d); Change ‘have’ to ‘had’. The

sentence is in past.

14. (c); Add ‘in’ after ‘sleep’. If

‘infinitive’ is used after ‘noun’ then

appropriate preposition should

follow ‘infinitive’.

15. (b); Change ‘thought’ to ‘think’ as

‘must’ is a modal which is always

followed by V1.


17. (c); Remove ‘was’


19. (a); Replace ‘came’ with, ‘come’ as

did not is always followed by V1.

20. (c); Replace ‘lifted’ with ‘left’ as

‘lift’ means raise to a higher

position or level and ‘left’ means

go away from.

CHAPTER PRERPOSITION



A Preposition is the word used before a noun or pronoun to show its relation with other

words of the sentence.

Use of Some important prepositions

On and Upon

On is used for the things at rest while upon donates motion. e.g.,

a) The knife is on the table

b) The dog jumped upon the bed.

In and Into

In donates position at rest while into donates motion.

a) She is in the industry.

b) She came into the library.

With and By

With is used for the instruments or tools and by is used for the agents or doer e.g.,

a) I am writing a letter with a pen.

b) The robber was killed by him with an axe.

Since and For

Since is used for a point of time and for is used for a period of time.

a) She has been sleeping since 5o’clock.

b) He has been coming to us for three days.

Since and From

Since is used for time while from is used for both timer and lace. e.g.,

a) I have not met him yet since last week.

b) They played from 6 am to 8 am.

c) We travelled from Meerut to Jaipur.

3



Till and To

Till is used to indicate time while to is used to indicate place e.g.,

a) I slept till 8 am

b) We went t to the park.

At and In

At is used for small towns and villages while in is used for big cities and countries.

a) She lives at Kasauli in Mathura.

b) I live in Delhi.

At is used for a point in time and in is used for a wider period of time. e.g.,

a) They will go at 6o’clock

b) They will go in the evening

c) We left at 9 o’clock in the morning

In and Within

In donates at the close of some future time and within denotes sometime short of the close.

e.g.,

a) They will return in two days.

b) She will return within a week.

Between and Among

Between is used for two persons or things while among is used for more than two persons

or things e.g.,

a) Those two girls quarreled between themselves

b) I like to spend my evening among my friends.

Beside and Besides

Beside means by the side of, while besides means in addition to. e.,g

a) She came and sat beside me.

b) Besides being fined, she was sentenced to term of imprisonment.



EXERCISE




answer is (e). Avoid punctuation mistakes (if. any).

1. (a) She along with / b) her friends took/ (c) leave of/ (d) a week. / (e) No error.

2. (a) One should always/ (b) listen the advice of/ (c) one’s elders/ (d) and, well wishers

/ (e) No error.

3. (a) She will/ (b) not listen what / (c) you say/ (d) to her. / (e) No error.

4. (a) Nobody denies/ (b) that / (c) my ideas are/ (d) different than yours / (e)No error.

5. (a) It was she/ (b) who was responsible of /(c) making all the arrangement for/ (d) the

successful completion of his business tip / (e) No error.

6. (a) He was m the bathroom/ (b) when the burglars/ (c) entered into/ (d) his house /

(e) No error.

7. (a) Their teacher/ (b) emphasized on/ (c) the use of / (d) correct grammar / (e) No

error.

8. (a) On the time/ (b) of the opening ceremony/ (c) of the theatre, / (d) a large crowd

had assembled. / (e) No error.

9. (a) While Rajesh was returning/ (b) from school/ (c) a stalker attacked on him/ (d)

with a knife. / (e) No error.

10. (a) The decline of/ (b) her moral values has caused/(c) a lot of / (d) pain to her

parents. /(e) No error.

11. (a) Without thinking/ (b) for a moment/ (c) she entrusted him in/ (d) all the

responsibilities./(e) No error.

12. (a) Sandy and her sister/ (b) fell in/ (c) the well and nobody/ (c) tried to save them. /

(e) No error.

13. (a) I/ (b) prefer coffee/ (c) than/ (d) tea/ (e) No error.

14. (a) Sumit is busy/ (b) in his/ (c) preparations for/ (d) his exams. / (e) No error.

15. (a) While crossing the road/ (b) a child was /(c) run out by/ (d) a speeding car. /(e) No

error.

16. (a) We were taught that/ (b) amphibians can live/ (c) in water/ (d) as well as land. /

(e) No error.

17. (a) My father is/ (b) fond off/(c) cooking different/(c) types of cakes. / (e) No error.

18. (a) Your teacher/ (b) cannot/ (c) control on/ (d) the students. / (e) No error.

19. (a) The Jury has been/ (b) waiting for/(c) the prisoner/ (d) for 2 P.M. / (e) No error.

20. (a) Mr. Uniyal has/ (b) great affection towards/ (c) his family / (d) and friends. / (e)

No error.

SOLUTIONS



1. (c); “Leave for a week” should be used.

2. (b); ‘To’ should be added after ‘listen’.

Since ‘listen’ is always followed by ‘to’.

3. (b); ‘To’ should be added after ‘Listen’.

4. (d); ‘different from’ should be used in

place of ‘different then’. Since different

is always followed by form.

5. (b); ‘for’ should be used in place of ‘of’

since responsible is always followed

by ‘of’

6. (c); Use of 'into' is wrong since

entered is not followed by ‘into’

7. (b); ‘On’ should be removed since

emphasized is not followed by ‘on’.

8. (a), ‘At’ should be used in place of 'on'.

Since we are talking about a particular

Point of time (i.e. the time of the

opening ceremony).

9. (c); ‘on’ should not be used. Since

‘attack’ is not followed by ‘on’.

10. (a); ‘in’ should be used in place of ‘of’

since ‘decline’ is followed by ‘in’

11. (c); ‘entrusted him with’ should be

used in place of ‘entrusted him in’.

Since, entrusted is followed by ‘with’.

12. (b); ‘fell into’ should be used in place

of 'fell in' since into denotes the

movement inside something.

13. (c); ‘to’ should be used in place of

‘than’ since ‘to’ is used after ‘prefer’.

14. (b); ‘With’ should be used in place of

'in' Since ‘busy’ is followed by ‘with’

15. (c); ‘Run over’ should be used in place

of ‘Run-on’. ‘Run over’ means ‘to come

under the wheels of’.

16. (d); ‘On’ should be used before land.

Since ‘on land’ is correct phrasal

usage.

17. (b); ‘found of’ should be used in place

of ‘fond off’ since ‘found’ is followed

by ‘on’.

18. (c); ‘Control’ should not be followed

by ‘on’ since, when words like control,

discuss. Etc. are used as verb, then

they are not followed by ‘on’.

19. (d); ‘Since’ should be used, in place of

‘for’ since, we use ‘since’ to denote a

point of time.

20. (b); ‘for’ should be used in place of

‘towards’ since, ‘affection’ is followed

by ‘for’.



Directions (Q 1-20) you have brief passages with 5/10 questions following each passage.

Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer to the each question out of the four

alternatives.

PASSAGE 1

As my train was not due to lead for another hour, I had plenty of time to spare. After buying

some magazines to read on the journey. I made my way to the luggage office to collect the

heavy suitcase; I had left there three day before. There were only a few people waiting and

I took out my wallet to find the receipt for my case. the receipt did not seem to be where I

had left it. I emptied the contents of the wallet and the railway tickets, money, scraps of

paper and photographs tumbled out of it; but no matter how hard I searched, the receipt

was nowhere to be found.

I explained the situation sorrowfully to the assistant. The man looked to be suspiciously as

if to say he heard this type of story many timed and asked me to describe the case. I told

him that it was an old, brown looking object no different from the many suitcases I could

see on the shelves. The assistant then gave me form and told me to make a list of the

contents of the case. If they were correct, he said, I could take a case away. I tried to

remember all the articles I had hurriedly packed and wrote them down.

After I had done this, I went to look among the shelves. There were hundreds of cases there

and for one dreadful moment, it occurred to me that if someone had picked the receipt up,

he could easily have claimed the case already. Fortunately this had not happened, for after

the time, I found the case lying on its side high up in the corner. After examining the articles

inside, the assistant gave me the case.

I took out my wallet to pay him. I pulled out a ten shilling note and out slipped my ‘lost’

receipt with it! I could not help blushing. The assistant nodded his head knowingly, as if to

say that he had often seen this happen too!!

1. The writer had plenty of time to spare because

a) he had arrived three days before

b) he had arrived an hour earlier

c) he had to collect his luggage

d) he needed to by magazines

CHAPTER

4

READING COMPREHENSION



2. The writer needed the receipt

a) to claim the suit case

b) to pay at the luggage office

c) to prove that he had paid at the luggage office

d) to prove that he had brought the suitcase

3. The writer felt foolish because

a) he could not find his receipt

b) he hadn’t really lost this receipt at all

c) he had to fill in a form

d) the assistant eyed him suspiciously

4. There weren’t …………………. people waiting at the luggage office.

a) very much

b) a great deal of

c) lots of

d) very many

5. ‘wrote them down’ means

a) copied them

b) signed them

c) made a note of them

d) pointed at them

6. The writer found the receipt

a) on the high shelf near the case

b) among the contents of his suitcase

c) nestled with the money in his wallet

d) trapped between the photographs in his wallet

7. The writer took out his wallet the first time to

a) buy some magazines

b) ‘look for the receipt

c) fill out the form given by the assistant

d) pay the assistant

8. The assistant asked the writer to make a list of the contents to

a) ascertain his ownership of the case



b) test his memory

c) charge him extra money

d) embarrass the writer

9. ‘I explained the situation sorrowfully to the assistant’ means

a) the writer found the situation tragic

b) he explained the situation to the assistant who was very sorrowful

c) with great distress the writer explained his unfortunate situation to the

assistant

d) the assistant found the situation tragic

10. In this passage ‘situation’ means

a) place

b) event

c) condition

d) position

PASSAGE 2

We know that Eskimos have 50 different words for ‘snow’ Or it is 500? Anyway, an awful

lot. It is one of those interesting little facts that say something about the amazing ingenuity

of humans. Whereas we snow, the Eskimos perceive an endlessly varying realm of white

textures and possibilities. Except that is not true. Talk to the average number of words for

snow as we do. I discovered this when I took a sledge dog team through the Russian Arctic

and asked the locals. And it gets worse the Eskimo-Inuit do not live in igloos. They do not

even rub heir myths surround the world’s far flung places.

Shelters made out of snow are indeed constructed and fashioned from snowy bricks, just as

we like to imagine. Except the Eskimos- Inuit rarely lived in them for long periods and

disappointingly, the elders that I met had never heard of them. In truth, these are coastal

peoples who traditionally foraged for driftwood, whalebones, stones and turf to construct

their camps, saving snow-houses for hunting excursions or migrations.

Chameleons also attract numerous myths. While many of them change colour, this often

less to do with camouflage and more to do with their mood and temperature. A chameleon

might, if too cold, turn a darker shade to absorb more heat. Or it might turn a lighter colour

to reflect the sun and so cool down. Moreover, chameleons often change colour as a signally

device some such as panther chameleon, transform into vivid orange to scare off predators,

while other flash bright colours to attract a mate. The brighter the colour a mate is able to



display, the more dominant. Thus the act o standing out can be more important than that of

blending in.

11. The author was surprised by the fact that

a) Eskimos have 500 word for ‘snow’

b) the ingenuity of humans

c) the Eskimo-Inuit do not live in igloos

d) the Eskimo-Inuit rub their noses together

12. The author discovered that

a) igloos are not fashioned from snowy bricks

b) only the Eskimos-Inuit elders live in igloos

c) snow houses are reserved for hunting migrants

d) the coastal people foraged for firewood

13. The changing colour of a chameleon is more to do with

a) camouflage

b) mood and temperature

c) transformation

d) protection

14. A chameleon warms itself by

a) Residing in bright areas

b) turning a darker colour to absorb more heat

c) matching its colour with the environment

d) adjusting its body temperature with that of the environment

15. A male chameleon is believed to be more dominant if

a) he has colours of the panther

b) he exhibits vivid orange color

c) if he can blend in with the others

d) if he displays flashing bright colours

PASASGE 3

In the 16th century, an age of great marine and terrestrial exploration, Ferdinand Magellan led the first expedition to sail around the world. As a young Portuguese noble, he served the king of Portugal, but he became involved in the quagmire of political intrigue at court



and lost the king’s favor. After he was dismissed from service by the king of Portugal, he offered to serve the future Emperor Charles V of Spain.

A papal decree of 1493 had assigned all land in the New World west of 50 degrees W longitude to Spain and all the land east of that line to Portugal. Magellan offered to prove that the East Indies fell under Spanish authority. On September 20, 1519, Magellan set sail from Spain with five ships. More than a year later, one of these ships was exploring the topography of South America in search of a water route across the continent. This ship sank, but the remaining four ships searched along the southern peninsula of South America. Finally they found the passage they sought near 50 degrees S latitude. Magellan named this passage the Strait of All Saints, but today it is known as the Strait of Magellan.

One ship deserted while in this passage and returned to Spain, so fewer sailors were privileged to gaze at that first panorama of the Pacific Ocean. Those who remained crossed the meridian now known as the International Date Line in the early spring of 1521 after 98 days on the Pacific Ocean. During those long days at sea, many of Magellan’s men died of starvation and disease.

Later, Magellan became involved in an insular conflict in the Philippines and was killed in a tribal battle. Only one ship and 17 sailors under the command of the Basque navigator Elcano survived to complete the westward journey to Spain and thus prove once and for all that the world is round, with no precipice at the edge.

16. The 16th century was an age of great ______ exploration. a) cosmic b) land c) mental d) common man e) None of the above

17. Magellan lost the favor of the king of Portugal when he became involved in a

political ________. a) entanglement b) discussion c) negotiation d) problem e) None of the above

18. The Pope divided New World lands between Spain and Portugal according to their

location on one side or the other of an imaginary geographical line 50 degrees west of Greenwich that extends in a _________ direction. a) north and south b) crosswise



c) easterly d) south east e) north and west

19. One of Magellan’s ships explored the _________ of South America for a passage across

the continent. a) coastline b) mountain range c) physical features d) islands e) None of the above

20. Four of the ships sought a passage along a southern ______.

a) coast b) inland c) body of land with water on three sides d) border e) Answer not available



ANSWERS

1. b

2. a

3. b

4. d

5. c

6. c

7. b

8. a

9. c

10. c

11. c

12. b

13. b

14. b

15. d

16. b

17. a

18. a

19. c

20. c



Questions based on Synonyms are usually of two types. In the first type, four alternatives

are suggested for a given word. You have to choose the alternatives which best expresses

the meaning of the given word. In the questions of second type, a sentence is given with a

word printed in bold, italics or underlined. Below the sentence, four alternatives are

suggested for this word. You have to choose the alternative which is similar in meaning to

that word in the sentence.

Synonyms are the word which is similar to each other in meaning.

Amazing — incredible, unbelievable, improbable, fabulous, wonderful, fantastic, astonishing, astounding, extraordinary Anger — enrage, infuriate, arouse, nettle, exasperate, inflame, madden Angry — mad, furious, enraged, excited, wrathful, indignant, exasperated, aroused, inflame Answer — reply, respond, retort, acknowledge Ask– — question, inquire of, seek information from, put a question to, demand, request, expect, inquire, query, interrogate, examine, quiz Awful — dreadful, terrible, abominable, bad, poor, unpleasant Bad — evil, immoral, wicked, corrupt, sinful, depraved, rotten, contaminated, spoiled, tainted, harmful, injurious, unfavorable, defective, inferior, imperfect, substandard, faulty, improper, inappropriate, unsuitable, disagreeable, unpleasant, cross, nasty, unfriendly, irascible, horrible, atrocious, outrageous, scandalous, infamous, wrong, noxious, sinister, putrid, snide, deplorable, dismal, gross, heinous, nefarious, base, obnoxious, detestable, despicable, contemptible, foul, rank, ghastly, execrable Beautiful — pretty, lovely, handsome, attractive, gorgeous, dazzling, splendid, magnificent, comely, fair, ravishing, graceful, elegant, fine, exquisite, aesthetic, pleasing, shapely, delicate, stunning, glorious, heavenly, resplendent, radiant, glowing, blooming, sparkling Begin — start, open, launch, initiate, commence, inaugurate, originate Big — enormous, huge, immense, gigantic, vast, colossal, gargantuan, large, sizable, grand, great, tall, substantial, mammoth, astronomical, ample, broad, expansive, spacious, stout, tremendous, titanic, mountainous Brave — courageous, fearless, dauntless, intrepid, plucky, daring, heroic, valorous, audacious, bold, gallant, valiant, doughty, mettlesome Break — fracture, rupture, shatter, smash, wreck, crash, demolish, atomize Bright — shining, shiny, gleaming, brilliant, sparkling, shimmering, radiant, vivid, colorful, lustrous, luminous, incandescent, intelligent, knowing, quick-witted, smart, intellectual Calm — quiet, peaceful, still, tranquil, mild, serene, smooth, composed, collected, unruffled, level-headed, unexcited, detached, aloof Come — approach, advance, near, arrive, reach

CHAPTER

5 SYNONYMS



Cool — chilly, cold, frosty, wintry, icy, frigid Crooked — bent, twisted, curved, hooked, zigzag Cry — shout, yell, yowl, scream, roar, bellow, weep, wail, sob, bawl Cut — gash, slash, prick, nick, sever, slice, carve, cleave, slit, chop, crop, lop, reduce Dangerous — perilous, hazardous, risky, uncertain, unsafe Dark — shadowy, unlit, murky, gloomy, dim, dusky, shaded, sunless, black, dismal, sad Decide — determine, settle, choose, resolve Definite — certain, sure, positive, determined, clear, distinct, obvious Delicious — savory, delectable, appetizing, luscious, scrumptious, palatable, delightful, enjoyable, toothsome, exquisite Describe — portray, characterize, picture, narrate, relate, recount, represent, report, record Destroy — ruin, demolish, raze, waste, kill, slay, end, extinguish Difference — disagreement, inequity, contrast, dissimilarity, incompatibility Do — execute, enact, carry out, finish, conclude, effect, accomplish, achieve, attain Dull — boring, tiring„ tiresome, uninteresting, slow, dumb, stupid, unimaginative, lifeless, dead, insensible, tedious, wearisome, listless, expressionless, plain, monotonous, humdrum, dreary Eager — keen, fervent, enthusiastic, involved, interested, alive to End — stop, finish, terminate, conclude, close, halt, cessation, discontinuance Enjoy — appreciate, delight in, be pleased, indulge in, luxuriate in, bask in, relish, devour, savor, like Explain — elaborate, clarify, define, interpret, justify, account for Fair — just, impartial, unbiased, objective, unprejudiced, honest Fall — drop, descend, plunge, topple, tumble False — fake, fraudulent, counterfeit, spurious, untrue, unfounded, erroneous, deceptive, groundless, fallacious Famous — well-known, renowned, celebrated, famed, eminent, illustrious, distinguished, noted, notorious Fast — quick, rapid, speedy, fleet, hasty, snappy, mercurial, swiftly, rapidly, quickly, snappily, speedily, lickety-split, posthaste, hastily, expeditiously, like a flash Fat — stout, corpulent, fleshy, beefy, paunchy, plump, full, rotund, tubby, pudgy, chubby, chunky, burly, bulky, elephantine Fear — fright, dread, terror, alarm, dismay, anxiety, scare, awe, horror, panic, apprehension Fly — soar, hover, flit, wing, flee, waft, glide, coast, skim, sail, cruise Funny — humorous, amusing, droll, comic, comical, laughable, silly Get — acquire, obtain, secure, procure, gain, fetch, find, score, accumulate, win, earn, rep, catch, net, bag, derive, collect, gather, glean, pick up, accept, come by, regain, salvage Go — recede, depart, fade, disappear, move, travel, proceed Good — excellent, fine, superior, wonderful, marvelous, qualified, suited, suitable, apt, proper, capable, generous, kindly, friendly, gracious, obliging, pleasant, agreeable, pleasurable, satisfactory, well-behaved, obedient, honorable, reliable, trustworthy, safe, favorable, profitable, advantageous, righteous, expedient, helpful, valid, genuine, ample,



salubrious, estimable, beneficial, splendid, great, noble, worthy, first-rate, top-notch, grand, sterling, superb, respectable, edifying Great — noteworthy, worthy, distinguished, remarkable, grand, considerable, powerful, much, mighty Gross — improper, rude, coarse, indecent, crude, vulgar, outrageous, extreme, grievous, shameful, uncouth, obscene, low Happy — pleased, contented, satisfied, delighted, elated, joyful, cheerful, ecstatic, jubilant, gay, tickled, gratified, glad, blissful, overjoyed Hate — despise, loathe, detest, abhor, disfavor, dislike, disapprove, abominate Have — hold, possess, own, contain, acquire, gain, maintain, believe, bear, beget, occupy, absorb, fill, enjoy Help — aid, assist, support, encourage, back, wait on, attend, serve, relieve, succor, benefit, befriend, abet Hide — conceal, cover, mask, cloak, camouflage, screen, shroud, veil Hurry — rush, run, speed, race, hasten, urge, accelerate, bustle Hurt — damage, harm, injure, wound, distress, afflict, pain Idea — thought, concept, conception, notion, understanding, opinion, plan, view, belief Important — necessary, vital, critical, indispensable, valuable, essential, significant, primary, principal, considerable, famous, distinguished, notable, well-known Interesting — fascinating, engaging, sharp, keen, bright, intelligent, animated, spirited, attractive, inviting, intriguing, provocative, though-provoking, challenging, inspiring, involving, moving, titillating, tantalizing, exciting, entertaining, piquant, lively, racy, spicy, engrossing, absorbing, consuming, gripping, arresting, enthralling, spellbinding, curious, captivating, enchanting, bewitching, appealing Keep — hold, retain, withhold, preserve, maintain, sustain, support Kill — slay, execute, assassinate, murder, destroy, cancel, abolish Lazy — indolent, slothful, idle, inactive, sluggish Little — tiny, small, diminutive, shrimp, runt, miniature, puny, exiguous, dinky, cramped, limited, itsy-bitsy, microscopic, slight, petite, minute Look — gaze, see, glance, watch, survey, study, seek, search for, peek, peep, glimpse, stare, contemplate, examine, gape, ogle, scrutinize, inspect, leer, behold, observe, view, witness, perceive, spy, sight, discover, notice, recognize, peer, eye, gawk, peruse, explore Love — like, admire, esteem, fancy, care for, cherish, adore, treasure, worship, appreciate, savor Make — create, originate, invent, beget, form, construct, design, fabricate, manufacture, produce, build, develop, do, effect, execute, compose, perform, accomplish, earn, gain, obtain, acquire, get Mark — label, tag, price, ticket, impress, effect, trace, imprint, stamp, brand, sign, note, heed, notice, designate Mischievous — prankish, playful, naughty, roguish, waggish, impish, sportive Move — plod, go, creep, crawl, inch, poke, drag, toddle, shuffle, trot, dawdle, walk, traipse, mosey, jog, plug, trudge, slump, lumber, trail, lag, run, sprint, trip, bound, hotfoot, high-tail, streak, stride, tear, breeze, whisk, rush, dash, dart, bolt, fling, scamper, scurry, skedaddle, scoot, scuttle, scramble, race, chase, hasten, hurry, hump, gallop, lope, accelerate, stir,



budge, travel, wander, roam, journey, trek, ride, spin, slip, glide, slide, slither, coast, flow, sail, saunter, hobble, amble, stagger, paddle, slouch, prance, straggle, meander, perambulate, waddle, wobble, pace, swagger, promenade, lunge Moody — temperamental, changeable, short-tempered, glum, morose, sullen, mopish, irritable, testy, peevish, fretful, spiteful, sulky, touchy Neat — clean, orderly, tidy, trim, dapper, natty, smart, elegant, well-organized, super, desirable, spruce, shipshape, well-kept, shapely New — fresh, unique, original, unusual, novel, modern, current, recent Old — feeble, frail, ancient, weak, aged, used, worn, dilapidated, ragged, faded, broken-down, former, old-fashioned, outmoded, passe, veteran, mature, venerable, primitive, traditional, archaic, conventional, customary, stale, musty, obsolete, extinct Part — portion, share, piece, allotment, section, fraction, fragment Place — space, area, spot, plot, region, location, situation, position, residence, dwelling, set, site, station, status, state Plan — plot, scheme, design, draw, map, diagram, procedure, arrangement, intention, device, contrivance, method, way, blueprint Popular — well-liked, approved, accepted, favorite, celebrated, common, current Predicament — quandary, dilemma, pickle, problem, plight, spot, scrape, jam Put — place, set, attach, establish, assign, keep, save, set aside, effect, achieve, do, build Quiet — silent, still, soundless, mute, tranquil, peaceful, calm, restful Right — correct, accurate, factual, true, good, just, honest, upright, lawful, moral, proper, suitable, apt, legal, fair Run — race, speed, hurry, hasten, sprint, dash, rush, escape, elope, flee Say/Tell — inform, notify, advise, relate, recount, narrate, explain, reveal, disclose, divulge, declare, command, order, bid, enlighten, instruct, insist, teach, train, direct, issue, remark, converse, speak, affirm, suppose, utter, negate, express, verbalize, voice, articulate, pronounce, deliver, convey, impart, assert, state, allege, mutter, mumble, whisper, sigh, exclaim, yell, sing, yelp, snarl, hiss, grunt, snort, roar, bellow, thunder, boom, scream, shriek, screech, squawk, whine, philosophize, stammer, stutter, lisp, drawl, jabber, protest, announce, swear, vow, content, assure, deny, dispute Scared — afraid, frightened, alarmed, terrified, panicked, fearful, unnerved, insecure, timid, shy, skittish, jumpy, disquieted, worried, vexed, troubled, disturbed, horrified, terrorized, shocked, petrified, haunted, timorous, shrinking, tremulous, stupefied, paralyzed, stunned, apprehensive Show — display, exhibit, present, note, point to, indicate, explain, reveal, prove, demonstrate, expose Slow — unhurried, gradual, leisurely, late, behind, tedious, slack Stop — cease, halt, stay, pause, discontinue, conclude, end, finish, quit Story — tale, myth, legend, fable, yarn, account, narrative, chronicle, epic, sage, anecdote, record, memoir Strange — odd, peculiar, unusual, unfamiliar, uncommon, queer, weird, outlandish, curious, unique, exclusive, irregular Take — hold, catch, seize, grasp, win, capture, acquire, pick, choose, select, prefer, remove, steal, lift, rob, engage, bewitch, purchase, buy, retract, recall, assume, occupy, consume



Tell — disclose, reveal, show, expose, uncover, relate, narrate, inform, advise, explain, divulge, declare, command, order, bid, recount, repeat Think — judge, deem, assume, believe, consider, contemplate, reflect, mediate Trouble — distress, anguish, anxiety, worry, wretchedness, pain, danger, peril, disaster, grief, misfortune, difficulty, concern, pains, inconvenience, exertion, effort True — accurate, right, proper, precise, exact, valid, genuine, real, actual, trusty, steady, loyal, dependable, sincere, staunch Ugly — hideous, frightful, frightening, shocking, horrible, unpleasant, monstrous, terrifying, gross, grisly, ghastly, horrid, unsightly, plain, homely, evil, repulsive, repugnant, gruesome Unhappy — miserable, uncomfortable, wretched, heart-broken, unfortunate, poor, downhearted, sorrowful, depressed, dejected, melancholy, glum, gloomy, dismal, discouraged, sad Use — employ, utilize, exhaust, spend, expend, consume, exercise Wrong — incorrect, inaccurate, mistaken, erroneous, improper, and unsuitable



EXERCISE

DIRECTIONS (1-30): In each of the questions below, choose the alternatives which is most

nearly the same in meaning to the given word

1. Mendicant

a) Reformer

b) Dealer

c) Beggar

d) Advisor

2. Instinctive

a) Helpful

b) inherent

c) Crucial

d) Strong

3. Clone

a) Trace

b) Copy

c) Make

d) Mould

4. Thrive

a) Flourish

b) Raise

c) Create

d) Destroy

5. Dissuade

a) Worry

b) Disturb

c) Discourage

d) Encourage

6. Anguish

a) Conflict

b) Anger

c) Agony

d) Trouble

7. Fortitude

a) prudence

b) Support

c) Courage

d) Sincerity

8. Imply

a) Conclude

b) Connote

c) Confirm

d) Comply

9. vigilant

a) intelligent

b) Ambitious

c) Smart

d) Watchful

10. Adorn

a) Trust

b) Writer

c) Suspect

d) Beautify

11. Repose

a) place

b) Keep

c) Rest

d) Replace

12. Commotion

a) Cheer



b) imbalance

c) Disturbance

d) Movement

13. Irrevocable

a) Changed

b) Done

c) Unalterable

d) Reversible

14. Anger

a) Calmness

b) Vagueness

c) Leisure

d) Displeasure

15. Defer

a) Indifferent

b) Defy

c) Differ

d) Postpone

16. Cease

a) Begin

b) Stop

c) Create

d) Dull

17. Pious

a) Religious

b) Sympathetic

c) Afraid

d) Faithful

18. Abandon

a) Forsake

b) Keep

c) Cherish

d) Enlarge

19. Cancel

a) Abolish

b) Approve

c) Allow

d) Break

20. Savor

a) Taste

b) Protector

c) Sour

d) Flavor

21. Rivalled

a) Hatred

b) Revised

c) Competed

d) Contradicted

22. Trimming

a) Skimming

b) Arranging

c) Planning

d) Cutting

23. Pester

a) Annoy

b) Insect

c) Upset

d) Paste

24. Wondrous

a) Winning

b) Roaming

c) Marvelous

d) Forceful

25. Pragmatic

a) Practical



b) Wise

c) Intelligent

d) Proper

26. Disparity

a) Disseminate

b) Difference

c) Discord

d) Difficulty

27. Baneful

a) Loss

b) Evil

c) Profit

d) Benefit

28. Insolent

a) Insulting

b) Wasteful

c) Hard

d) Difficult

29. Lethal

a) Unlawful

b) Sluggish

c) Deadly

d) Smooth

30. Bounty

a) Gift

b) Donation

c) Pleasure

d) Bribe



ANSWERS

1. c 2. b 3. b

4. a

5. c

6. c

7. c

8. b

9. d

10. d

11. c

12. c

13. c

14. d

15. a

16. b

17. a

18. a

19. a

20. a

21. c

22. d

23. a

24. c

25. a

26. b

27. b

28. a

29. c

30. a



Questions based on Antonyms are usually of two types. In the first type, four alternatives

are suggested for a given word. You have to choose the alternatives which is opposite in

meaning to the given word. In the questions of second type, a sentence is given with words

printed bold, italics and underlined. Below the sentence, four alternatives are suggested for

this word. You have to choose the alternatives which is opposite in meaning to that word in

the sentence.

Antonyms are the words which are opposite to each other in meaning.

А

Above - below

absent - present

abundant - scarce

accept - decline, refuse

accident – intent

accomplishment - failure

accurate – inaccurate

achieve – fail

add – subtract

adjacent – distant

admire - detest

admit – deny, reject

adore – hate

advance - retreat

advantage – disadvantage

affirm – deny

afraid – confident

after – before

aid - hinder

against - for

agree – disagree

alert - asleep

alive - dead

all - none, nothing

allow – forbid

alone – together

amateur - professional

ally - enemy

always – never

amuse - bore

ancient - modern

CHAPTER

6 ANTONYMS



answer - question

antonym - synonym

apart – together

apparent - obscure

appear - disappear, vanish

approve – disapprove

argue - agree

arrive – depart

arrogant - humble

artificial - natural

ascend – descend

attack - defend

attractive – repulsive

attract - repel

awake – asleep

awkward – graceful

B

back - front

backward - forward

bad – good

backward - forward

beautiful - ugly

before - after

begin - end

below - above

bent - straight

best - worst

better - worse, worst

big - little, small

birth – death

bitter - sweet

black - white

blame - praise

bless - curse

bitter – sweet

blunt – sharp

bold – timid, meek

borrow - lend

bottom - top

bound - unbound, free

boundless – limited

bravery – cowardice

break – repair

brief - long

bright - dim, dull

brighten - fade

broad – narrow

build – destroy



busy – idle

buy - sell

C

calm - windy, troubled

can - cannot, can't

capable - incapable

captive – free

capture – release

careful – careless

cause – effect

cautious – careless

centre - edge

cheap – dear, expensive

cheerful - sad, discouraged, dreary

child – adult

chilly – warm

clean - dirty

clear – vague, cloudy, opaque

clever – stupid

clockwise – anti-clockwise

close – distant, open

cold – hot

combine – separate

come – go

comfort – discomfort

common – rare

complex – simple

compliment – insult

conceal – reveal

constant – variable

continue – interrupt

cool – warm

cope - original

correct – incorrect

courage – cowardice

crazy – sane

crooked - staight

cruel – kind

cry - laugh

cunning – simple

D

dainty – clumsy

damage - improve

danger – safety

dark – light

dawn – sunset

day - night

decrease - increase



deep - shallow

definite - indefinite

demand - supply

despair – hope

destroy – create

difficult - easy

dim - bright

disappear - appear

discourage - encourage

disease – health

dismal – cheerful

divide – unite

doubt - trust

down - up

downwards - upwards

dreary - cheerful

dry - moist, wet

dull - bright, shiny

dusk - dawn

E

early - late

East - West

easy - hard, difficult

economise - waste

empty - full

encourage - discourage

end - begin, start

entrance - exit

even – odd

evil - good

excited - calm

expand – contract, shrink

export - import

exterior - interior

external - internal

F

fade - brighten

fail - succeed

false - true

famous – unknown

fancy - plain

far - near

fast - slow

fat - thin

feeble – sturdy, strong, powerful

few – many

fiction - fact

find – lose



finish – start

firm - flabby

first – last

fix - break

float – sink

follow - lead

foolish - wise

fore – aft

forgive - blame

free - bound, captive, restricted

fold - unfold

forget - remember

found – lost

frank - secretive

fresh - stale

frequent - seldom

friend - enemy

for - against

fortunate - unfortunate

full – empty

funny – empty

future – present, past

G

gather - distribute

generous – stingy, mean

gentle – rough, violent

get - give

giant - tiny, small, dwarf

give - receive, take

glad - sad, sorry

gloomy - cheerful

go – stop, come

good - bad, evil

grant - refuse

great - tiny, small, unimportant, minute

grow - shrink

guest - host

guilty – innocent

H

handsome - ugly

happy – sad, miserable

hard – easy

hard - soft

harmful - harmless

harsh – mild

hasten - dawdle

hate - love

healthy - diseased, ill, sick, unhealthy



heat - cold

heaven - hell

heavy - light

help - hinder

here - there

hero - coward

high - low

hill - valley

hinder - help

honest – dishonest

hopeful - hopeless

horizontal - vertical

hot - cold

humble – proud

huge – tiny

I

ignore - notice

ill - healthy, well

imitation - genuine

immense – minute, tiny, small

immigrate - emigrate

important – trivial

imprison - free

in - out

include - exclude

increase - decrease

inferior - superior

inhale - exhale

inner – outer

innocent - guilty

inside - outside

intelligent - stupid, unintelligent

interesting – boring, dull, uninteresting

interior - exterior

internal - external

intentional – accidental

J

jeopardize - secure

join - separate

junior - senior

just - unjust

justice – injustice

K

keen – uninterested

kind – cruel, nasty

knowledge - ignorance

known – unknown

L



lack – abundance, plenty

landlord - tenant

large - small

last – first

late -early

laugh - cry

lawful - unlawful, illegal

lazy - industrious

leader - follower

left - right

lend -borrow

lengthen - shorten

lenient - strict

left - right

less - more

light - dark, heavy

life - death

like - dislike, hate

likely - unlikely

limited - boundless

little – big

live - die

lofty - lowly

long - short

loose - tight

lose – find

loser - winner

loss – win

loud - quiet

love - hate

low – high

lower - raise

loyal - disloyal

M

mad - happy, sane

major - minor

many - few

mature - immature

maximum – minimum

mean - generous

melt – freeze

mend - break

merry - sad

messy - neat

minor - major

minority - majority

miser – spendthrift

miss - catch



misunderstand - understand

more – less

much - little

N

narrow – wide, broad

native – foreigner, stranger

natural - artificial

near - far, distant

neat - messy, untidy

negative - affirmative

never - always

new – old, ancient

nice – awful, nasty

night - day

no – yes

nobody - everybody

noisy - quiet

none – some

nothing – everything

notice – ignore

now - then

North - South

O

obedient – disobedient

occasionally - frequently

odd - even

offer – refuse

often – seldom, sometimes

old - young

old - new

on - off

open - closed, shut

opposite- same, similar

optimist – pessimist

order - mess

out - in

outer – inner

outside – inside

outskirts - centre

over – under

P

pass - fail

past - present

patient - impatient

peace - war

permanent – temporary

permit - forbid

please - displease



plentiful - scarce

plural - singular

poetry - prose

polite - rude, impolite

poor – rich, wealthy

poverty - wealth

possible - impossible

poverty - wealth, riches

powerful – weak, feeble

presence – absence

pretty – ugly

private - public

prudent - imprudent

pure - impure, contaminated

push - pull

Q

qualified – unqualified

quick - slow

question - answer

quiet - loud, noisy

R

raise - lower

rapid - slow

rare – common

rear – front

receive – send

reduce – increase

refuse – agree, accept

regular - irregular

real – fake

rest - work

rich - poor

right - left, wrong

right-side-up - upside-down

rough – smooth, soft, gentle

rude – courteous

S

sad - happy

safe – unsafe, dangerous

same – opposite, different

satisfy – unsatisfied, dissatisfy

secure – insecure

seldom - often

scatter – collect

senior - junior

separate - join, connect, together

serious – trivial, funny

second-hand – new



security – insecurity

sense - nonsense

shallow – deep

sharp - blunt

shrink – grow

short – long

shut - open

sick - healthy, ill

simple - complex, hard, complicated

singular - plural

sink - float

slim - fat, thick, stout

slow – fast

smooth - rough

sober - drunk

soft – hard

solid - liquid

some - none

sorrow - joy

sour - sweet

sow -reap

straight – crooked

stand - lie

start - finish

stop - go

strict – lenient, indulgent

strong - weak

success - failure

sunny - cloudy

synonym - antonym

sweet - sour

T

take - give

tall - short

tame - wild

them - us

there - here

thick – thin

throw - catch

tight - loose, slack

tiny - big, huge

together - apart

top - bottom

tough - easy, tender

transparent - opaque

true - false

truth - lie, untruth

U



under - over

unfold – fold

unity - division

unknown - known

unqualified - qualified

unsafe - safe

up - down

upside-down - right-side-up

upstairs - downstairs

us - them

useful - useless

V

vacant – occupied

valuable - valueless

vanish - appear

vast - tiny

victory - defeat

virtue - vice

visible - invisible

voluntary – compulsory

vowel – consonant

W

war - peace

wax - wane

weak - strong

wet - dry

white – black

weak – strong, powerful

white - black

wide - narrow

win - lose

wisdom - folly, stupidity

within – outside

worse – better

worst - best

wrong - right

Y

yes - no

young - old

Z

zip - unzip



EXERCISE

DIRECTIONS (1-30): In each of the questions below, choose the alternative which is

opposite in meaning to the given word.

1. Innate

a) Acquired

b) Natural

c) Inborn

d) Unusual

2. Reprisal

a) Forgiveness

b) ‘Relief

c) Exemption

d) Relaxation

3. Permit

a) Control

b) Leadership

c) Subordination

d) Discipline

4. Lead

a) Guide

b) Follow

c) Direct

d) Conduct

5. Permit

a) Approve

b) Certify

c) Forbid

d) Endorse

6. Insolent

a) Arrogant

b) Overbearing

c) Disdainful

d) Submissive

7. Feeble

a) Rickety

b) Weak

c) Infirm

d) Robust

8. Adulterate

a) Contaminate

b) Purify

c) Wash

d) Stain

9. Vain

a) Conceited

b) Egoistic

c) Humble

d) Proud

10. Explicit

a) Elusive

b) Allusive

c) Ambidextrous

d) Ambiguous

11. Immune

a) Free

b) Vulnerable

c) Powerful

d) Weak

12. Bleak

a) Dull



b) Dark

c) Bright

d) Exposure

13. Fastidious

a) Fussy

b) Cooperative

c) Promising

d) Adjustable

14. Shallow

a) High

b) Long

c) Wide

d) Deep

15. Stingy

a) Clean

b) Tight

c) Generous

d) Cheap

16. Barren

a) Fertile

b) Rich

c) Prosperous

d) Positive

17. Virtue

a) Vice

b) failure

c) Fault

d) Offence

18. Nervous

a) Flawless

b) Immature

c) Smooth

d) Composed

19. Meagre

a) Numerous

b) Large

c) Plentiful

d) Enormous

20. Professional

a) Amateur

b) Tradesman

c) labour

d) Customer

21. Scarcity

a) Scanty

b) Prosperity

c) Majority

d) Plenty

22. Stale

a) Fresh

b) Old

c) Steal

d) Stalk

23. Confident

a) Worried

b) Pessimistic

c) Diffident

d) Depressed

24. Vacate

a) Evacuate

b) Validate

c) Occupy

d) Empty



25. Macbare

a) Grueesome

b) Attractive

c) Splendour

d) Trash

26. Remiss

a) Cheerful

b) Active

c) Dutiful

d) Careful

27. Obligation

a) Compulsion

b) Responsibility

c) Covenant

d) Choice

28. Bigoted

a) Tolerant

b) Democratic

c) Flexible

d) Open

29. Thwart

a) Encourage

b) Obstruct

c) Strife

d) Baffle

30. Scarce

a) Excessive

b) Excel

c) Jemmy

d) Moist



ANSWERS

1. a

2. a

3. c

4. c

5. b

6. d

7. d

8. b

9. c

10. d

11. b

12. c

13. d

14. d

15. c

16. a

17. a

18. a

19. c

20. a

21. d

22. c

23. a

24. c

25. c

26. c

27. d

28. c

29. a

30. a



Sentence A sentence is a group of words giving a complete thought. A sentence must contain

a subject and a verb (although one may be implied).

Types of Sentence

A sentence can convey a statement, a question, an exclamation, or a command. There are four types of sentence: A Declarative Sentence.

A declarative sentence states a fact and ends with a period (full stop). For example: He has every attribute of a dog except loyalty. (Politician Thomas P Gore) I wonder if other dogs think poodles are members of a weird religious cult.

(Comedian Rita Rudner) (Remember that a statement which contains an indirect question (like this example) is not a question.)

An Imperative Sentence. An imperative sentence is a command or a polite request. It ends with an exclamation mark or a period (full stop). For example: When a dog runs at you, whistle for him. (Philosopher Henry David

Thoreau, 1817-1862) An Interrogative Sentence.

An interrogative sentence asks a question and ends with a question mark. For example: Who knew that dog saliva can mend a broken heart? (Author Jennifer Neal)

An Exclamatory Sentence. An exclamatory sentence expresses excitement or emotion. It ends with an exclamation mark. For example: In Washington, it's dog eat dog. In academia, it's exactly the opposite!

(Politician Robert Reich)

Kinds of Sentences There are three kinds of sentences according to their structure: 1. Simple Sentence: It is a sentence which consists of a subject, a predicate and one and only one finite verb.

e.g. (i) There are chairs vacant here. (ii) The policeman chased the thief.

(iii) We shall visit him next week.

CHAPTER

7 SENTENCE

https://www.grammar-monster.com/glossary/subject.htm

https://www.grammar-monster.com/lessons/verbs.htm

https://www.grammar-monster.com/glossary/declarative_sentence.htm

https://www.grammar-monster.com/glossary/period_full_stop.htm

https://www.grammar-monster.com/glossary/indirect_questions.htm

https://www.grammar-monster.com/glossary/imperative_sentence.htm

https://www.grammar-monster.com/glossary/interrogative_sentence.htm

https://www.grammar-monster.com/glossary/exclamatory_sentence.htm



2. Compound Sentence: It is a sentence made up of two or more main or principal sentences or clauses joined together by coordinating conjunctions, also called coordinators. The Coordinators are: and, but, or, either, or, neither, nor, yet, therefore, hence, not only buy also, as well as, else, still, so, etc. e.g. (i) Te man entered the train and sat near the window. (ii) The dog barked at the stranger so he ran away. (iii) I saw the match but I did not enjoy it. 3. Complex Sentence: It is a sentence which consists of a main or principal clause and one or more subordinate clauses joined by subordinators or connectors. The subordinators are: how, where, when, why, what, who, whose, which, that, since, if, as, because, though, although, as if, unless, until, before, than, etc. e.g. (i) I told him that I was in a hurry to reach theater. (ii) The deer runs faster than the cheetah.

(iii) Rajiv bought a new jacket which was made from animal skin. Complex Sentences: (because, when, while, where, as, before, after, that, since, as soon as, no sooner, if, unless, as .... though, if .... though, though, even though, although, whether, so .... that, till, only if, so that, until, which, ………) Compound Sentence: (and, but, or, not only ...... but also, either ..... or, neither ..... nor, etc )



Exercise

Identify the kind of sentence, giving and appropriate reason for your choice: 1. I've been asked to bring back a vaccine for a horse 2. But someone always catches me 3. I don't know exactly how much it costs 4. I went in search of a nearby shop where I had seen ties. 5. But I couldn't find it 6. The stores had all sorts of ties, but not the kind I was looking for. 7. Panting, I boarded the plane under the reproachful gaze of the other passengers. 8. Nature soothes and nurtures. 9. When I do, it leaves me in complete awe. 10. We went to a rocky beach and saw the spread of the majestic ocean. 11. It takes the shape that the water commands. 12. Remember, this too shall pass. 13. Their teamwork and perseverance which enriches the atmosphere. 14. Spider webs are delicate, yet very strong. 15. This will generate certain chemicals which enriches the atmosphere. 16. Sahyadri Adventure is a unique and perhaps the first of its kind adventure fiction in

India. 17. I have a very high regard for Indian sports women who excel at the highest level. 18. This strategy looks easy but is difficult to implement. 19. Even though she is a complete player, there is scope for her to work on her forehand

side. 20. What is important is not to get carried away.



SOLUTIONS

1. Simple Sentence

2. Simple Sentence

3. Complex Sentence

4. Complex sentence

5. Simple Sentence

6. Compound Sentence

7. Simple Sentence




11. Complex Sentence


13. Simple Sentence

14. Simple Sentence









Spelling

Spelling is defined as the proper way to write a word, using the correct order of letters.

a. An example of spelling is the spelling of the word "cat" as "C" "A" "T." b. An example of spelling is when you actually say or write the letters of the word

"cat."

Prefixes

A prefix is a letter or a group of letters that we add to the beginning of a word. Prefixes change the meanings of words. For example, the prefix un- (or u-n) can mean "not," "remove," or "opposite." Adding un- to the word "happy" gives you the word "unhappy," which means not happy.

U-n and r-e (or re-) are the two most common prefixes in the English language. Re- means "again" or "back," such as in the words "rethink" "redo" and "repay."

Here are a few things to remember when learning prefixes:

1. Different prefixes in English can have similar meanings, such as un-, in- and non- all of which mean "not" or "opposite of." Also, the prefixes mis- and ir- mean "wrong," "wrongly," or "incorrectly."

2. Notice that double letters are possible. For example, when you add the prefix im- to words that begin with the letter "m," you get two "m"s as in "immeasurable." That's also true when you add un- to words that begin with the letter "n," as in "unnoticeable." The same is true for many other prefixes.

3. When adding a prefix to a word, the spelling of the base word never changes. For example, the prefix un- did not change the spelling of the word "happy." And, the prefix re- would not change the spelling of the word "live" in "relive."

4. Watch out for "lookalikes" – words that look like they contain prefixes but, in fact, do not. For example, the un- in the word "uncle" is not a prefix, nor is the re- in the words "reach" or "real."

CHAPTER

8 SPELLING



Suffixes

A suffix is a letter or group of letters added to the end of a word. Suffixes are commonly used to show the part of speech of a word. For example, adding "ion" to the verb "act" gives us "action," the noun form of the word. Suffixes also tell us the verb tense of words or whether the words are plural or singular.

Some common suffixes are -er, -s, -es, -ed, -ing and -ly.

Here are a few things to remember when learning suffixes:

1. Some suffixes have more than one meaning. For example, the suffix -er may suggest a person who performs an action, like a teacher. But "er" is also commonly added to the ends of adjectives and adverbs. They compare two things and show that one is "more" than the other, such as in "faster" and "stronger."

2. The spelling of a base word can change when a suffix is added. This is true of most base words ending in the letter "y." For instance, when we add the suffix -ness to the word "crazy" to make "craziness," we replace the "y" with an "i." This rule is also true of many base words ending in a silent "e" when the suffix begins with a vowel. For example, in the words "write," "make" and "manage," we drop the "e" in the words when we add -ing to make: "writing," "making" and "managing." We also often drop the silent "e" before the suffix -able such as in "usable." Be careful, though, because with some words, we keep the "e," such as in "changeable" and "loveable."

There are additional suffix rules, but they deal with spelling and can be learned with time and practice.

A thing to keep in mind about both prefixes and suffixes is that some are only used with some words. For example, we add the suffix -ful to some nouns to mean "full of," such as in the words "beautiful" or "helpful." But, we cannot add -ful to just any noun. You could not, for example, say "loveful" to mean full of love.



EXERCISE

In each of the groups of words below, one word may be misspelled or no words may be

misspelled. If a word is misspelled, write it correctly to the right of each group. If none of

the words in the group is misspelled, write "none."

1. fuzzes, laundrys, sufficient

2. turkeys, trophies, arrival, armies

3. acrage, analysis, dosage

4. acompaniment, played, interviewed

5. privilege, excelling, eighth

6. adolescence, contemporary, ninty

7. athletic, conscious, mathmatics

8. performence, fiery, recede

9. leisure, familiar, proffessor

10. undoubtly, experience, succeed

11. seize, acceptance, grammer

12. pleasant, slyly, watches

13. accidentally, embarass, intelligence

14. prejudice, preferred, lieutenant

15. payed, characteristic, intelligence

16. sergeant, noticable, deceit

17. particuler, arbitrarily, attorneys

18. neither, acknowledge, government

19. permmit, referring, foreign

20. halves, accross, attendant



SOLUTIONS

1. laundries

2. none

3. acreage

4. accompaniment

5. none

6. ninety

7. mathematics

8. performance

9. professor

10. undoubtedly

11. grammar

12. none

13. embarrass

14. none

15. paid

16. noticeable

17. particular

18. government

19. permit

20. across


57

Determiners are required before a singular noun but are optional when it comes to

introducing plural nouns. For example, consider the placement and usage of the common

determiner the in the sentences below: The bunny went home. I ate the chocolate cookie for dessert. Metal cans are recyclable. The metal cans are recyclable.

In every example, the determiner is placed before the noun or noun phrase, regardless of

whether the noun in the subject or predicate. In the first example, it comes directly before

the noun, but in the second example, it comes before the adjective ("chocolate") that

describes the noun ("cookie").

Note also that in the third example there is no determiner, as determiners are optional for

plural nouns and noun phrases. When you want to discuss the noun in general (i.e., all

metal cans), you don't need a determiner for plural nouns. However, the fourth example

shows that you may add a determiner to refer to specific nouns (i.e., the metal cans right

here).

Determiners (the, my, some, this)

Grammar > Nouns, pronouns and determiners > Determiners > Determiners (the,

my, some, this)

Determiners are words such as the, my, this, some, twenty, each, any, which are used before nouns:

the countryside some paper this old sofa

my father five green chairs each person

CHAPTER

9 DETERMINERS

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/grammar/british-grammar/grammar

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/grammar/british-grammar/nouns-pronouns-and-determiners

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/grammar/british-grammar/determiners


58

Determiners include the following common types:

Articles: a/an, the

Demonstratives: this, that, these, those

Possessives: my, your, his, her, its, our, their, x’s (possessive ’s)

Quantifiers: (a) few, fewer, (a) little, many, much, more, most, some, any, etc.

Numbers: one, two, three, etc.

Here is a list of the determiners included in this book. Many of them have individual entries:

(a) few, fewer, fewest

every most that

(a) little half much the

(an)other her my their

a/an his neither these

all its no this

any Jim’s, Anna’s, etc.

one, two, three, etc.

those

both least our what

each less several which

either many some whose


59

EXERCISE

Choose the appropriate quantifier / determiner.

1. Can I have a few / some / many butter please?

2. He has a lot of / many / some money. He owns two large apartments.

3. Do you want sugar in your tea? “Just how much / a little / a few ‘please.”

4. I have a lot of / much / a little DVDs.

5. I’ll be ready in some / a few / little minutes.

6. How many / how much time do you need to finish your homework?

7. How many / how much books have you read in the last two months?

8. Do you want much / any / few cosmetics from Avon?

9. We have little / a little / few bread. It is not enough for dinner.

10. We have much / many / few chairs but we need more.


60

ANSWERS

1. Some

2. A lot of

3. A little

4. A lot of

5. A few

6. How much

7. How many

8. Any

9. Little

10. Many


61

“REASONING”


62

ANALOGY

Analogy means similarities or bearing a resemblance. An analogy is a comparison using

two things that are similar to any relation, being compared. It is the inference that if two or

more things agree with one another in some respect they will probably agrees in others.

In question based on Analogy, a particular relationship is given and another similar

relationship has to be identified from the alternatives provided. Questions based on

analogy are set up to test a candidate’s overall knowledge, power of reasoning and ability

to think. These types of questions consist of a pair of words/letters/numbers having a

certain relation. The candidates are required to identity the relation between the elements

pair in the same way as first pair.

Analogy may be divided into following four types:

i. Word Analogy: Word Analogy covers every type of relationship that one can think.

There are many ways of establishing a relationship like quantity and unit, worker and

tools, cause and effect, word synonyms, word antonyms, country and capital, state and

capital, country and currency, animal and the young ones, males and females, animals

and their resting places, games and place of playing etc. here, some relationships are

given, which are useful for solving questions on Analogy.

Word synonyms

Assign Allot Dissipate Squander

Substitute Replace Brim Edge

Abduct kidnap Dearth Scarcity

Haughty Proud

CHAPTER

1 ANALOGIES


63

Word: Anonyms

Robust Weak Gentle Harsh

Deep Shallow Meet Avoid

Chaos Peace lethargy Alertness

Cruel Kind Blunt Sharp

Country: Capital: Currency

Bangladesh Dhaka Taka

Iraq Baghdad Dinar

China Beijing Yuan

India New Delhi Rupee

UK London Pound

Japan Tokyo Yen

USA Washington D.C Dollar

Russia Moscow Ruble

Greece Athens Euro

States of India: Capital

Sikkim Gangtok Tamil Nadu Chennai

West Bengal Kolkata Odisha Bhubaneshwar

Goa Panaji Bihar Patna


64

Male: Female

Dog Bitch Son Daughter

Horse Mare Brother Sister

Bull Cow Nephew Niece

Cock Hen Lord Lady

Worker: Product

Farmer Crops Teacher Education

Architect Designs Tailor Clothes

Producer Films Goldsmith Ornaments

Worker: Name of Working Place

Lawyer Court Waiter Restaurant

Servant House Teacher School

Beautician Parlour Chef Kitchen

Mechanic Garage Sailor Ship

Game: Place of Playing

Tennis Court Race Track

Wrestling Arena Badminton Court

Boxing Ring Skating Rink


65

Individual: Class

Frog Amphibian Man Mammal

Rat Rodent Ostrich Bird

Cup Crockery Whale Mammal

Snake Reptile Pen Stationery

Animal: Class

Cock Crow Snake Hiss

Duck Quack Owl Hoot

Cat Meow Jackal Howl

Frog Croak Donkey Bray

Animal: Young ones

Dog Puppy Cow Calf

Hen Chick Bear Cub

Cat Kitten Lion Cub

Quantity: Unit

power Watt Mass Kilogram

Pressure Pascal Work Joule

Current Ampere Volume litre

Area Hectare Force Newton

Time Second Length Metre


66

Instrument: Measurement

Sphygmomanometer Blood pressure

Seismograph Earthquake

Barometer Pressure

Ammeter Current

Odometer Speed

Thermometer Temperature


67

Exercise

1. Hare is related to Burrow, in the same

way Owl is related to:

a) Hole

b) Hive

c) Nest

d) Barn

2. Duma is related to Russia, in the same

way as Knesset is related to:

a) Malaysia

b) Afghanistan

c) France

d) Germany

3. College is related to Student, in the

same way as Hospital is related to:

a) Doctor

b) Nurse

c) Medicine

d) Patient

4. major is related to Lieutenant, in the

same way as Squadron leader is

related to:

a) Group Captain

b) Flying Attendant

c) Flying Officer

d) Pilot Officer

5. Smell is to Flower, in the same way as

Taste is to:

a) Tongue

b) Water

c) Sweet

d) Food

6. Cyclone is related to Anti-cyclone, in

the same way as Flood is related to:

a) Devastation

b) Havoc

c) River

d) Drought

7. Doctor is related to patient, in the

same way Lawyer is related to:

a) Customer

b) Criminal

c) Magistrate

d) Client

8. As Bald is related to Blond, in the

same way, Barren is related to:

a) Vegetation

b) Farm

c) Fertile

d) Inhibited

9. Atom is related to Molecule, in the

same way as Cell is related to:

a) Matter

b) Nucleus

c) Organism

d) Battery

10. Konkani is related to Goa, in the same

way as Dogri is related to:

a) Madhya Pradesh

b) Odisha

c) Jammu and Kashmir

d) Gujarat


68

Directions (11-15): In each of the

following questions, two words are given

to the left side of the sign (::) and one

word and a question marks are given to

the right side of the sign (::), select one

word from the given alternatives which

bears the same relationship to the word

given to the right side of the sign (::) as

that of the words given to the left side of

the sign (::)

11. Son: Nephew:: Daughter: ?

a) Niece

b) Sister in law

c) Sister

d) Mother

12. Ring: Ear::? : Wrist

a) Pendent

b) Chain

c) Bangle

d) Ribbon

13. Wood: Paper:: Steel: ?

a) Metal

b) Nail

c) Glass

d) Iron

14. Sun: Day:: Moon: ?

a) Stars

b) Nights

c) Planets

d) Darkness

15. Saw:: Carpenter:: Scissors: ?

a) Farmer

b) Tailor

c) Painter

d) Artist

Directions (16-20): The following

questions consist of two words each that

have a certain relationship to each other,

followed by four lettered pairs of words.

Select the lettered pair that has same

relationship as the original pairs of

words.

16. Numismatist: Coins

a) philatelist: Stamps

b) Jeweller : Jewels

c) Cartographer: Maps

d) Geneticist: Chromosomes

17. Train: Track

a) Idea: Brain

b) Bullet: Barrel

c) Water: Boat

d) Fame: Television

18. Cells: Cytology

a) Worm: Ornithology

b) insect: Entomology

c) Diseases: physiology

d) Tissue: Morphology

19. Surgeon: Scalpel

a) musician: Instrument

b) Carpenter: Cabinet

c) Sculptor: Chisel

d) Baker: Oven

20. Elevated: Exalted

a) Dirty: Filthy

b) Disorderly: Unfaithful

c) Raise: Commensurate

d) promoted: Excellence


69

ANSWERS

1. Burrow is the dwelling place of Hare.

Similarly, Barn is the dwelling place of

Owl.

2. Russian parliament is called Duma.

Similarly, Afghanistan’s parliament is

called Knesset.

3. In the College, education is given to

the students, in the same way

treatment given to Patient in the

Hospital.

4. Major and Squadron Leader are

equivalent ranks in the Army and the

Air Force, respectively. Same as

Lieutenant and the flying officer are


Air Force.

5. Smell comes from Flower in the same

way Taste comes from Food.

6. The words in each pair represent

opposite conditions.

7. Doctor deals with Patient, Similarly,

Lawyer deals with the client.

8. As Bald is related to the Blond in the

same way, Barren is related to the

Fertile.

9. First constitute the second. As

combining Atom we get molecules in

the same way combining Cell we get

Organism.

10. Konkani is the language of Goa.

Similarly, Dogri is the language of

Jammu and Kashmir.

11. As, Son is related to nephew. Similarly,

Daughter is related to Niece.

12. As Ring is related to Ear. Similarly,

Bangle is related to Wrist.

13. As, Paper is made from wood.

Similarly, Nail is made of Steel.

14. As, Sun rises in Day. Similarly, Moon

rises in Night.

15. Saw in the tool of Carpenter, Similarly,

Scissors are used by Tailors.

16. Numismatist is the man who collects

coins. In the same way, Philatelist is

the man who collects stamps.

17. Train moves on tracks in the same

way as Bullet travels through the

barrel of gun.

18. Cytology is the science in which we

study about cells in the same way

Entomology is the science in which we

study about insects.

19. Surgeon uses Scalpel to perform his

work in the same way as Sculptor uses

Chisel to perform his work

20. Exalted indicates higher intensity than

the word Elevated, in the same way

Filthy indicates higher intensity than

the word Dirty.


70

Bloods Relation

Blood Relation test depends upon the Knowledge of a candidate towards the relation. This

test shows a picture about a family, thus the candidate should have adequate Knowledge of

Blood Relation in order to solve these questions. It would be easy to solve these questions

through the generation flow chart between two people clear a picture of the relation that

they have.

Types of Relations

Type 1: Relations from Paternal Side

Father’s father Grandfather

Father’s mother Grandmother

Father’s brother Uncle

Father’s sister Aunt

Children of uncle or aunt Cousins

Wife of uncle Aunt

Husband of Aunt Uncle

Type 2: Relations from Maternal Side Mother’s father Maternal Grandfather

mother’s mother Maternal Grandmother

Mother’s brother Maternal uncle

Mother’s sister Maternal aunt

Children of maternal uncle and aunt Cousins

Wife of maternal uncle Maternal aunt

Husband of maternal aunt Maternal uncle

Other Relations Grandfather’s or grandmother’s son Father or Uncle

Grandfather’s or Grandmother’s only Son Father

Grandfather’s or Grandmother’s daughter Aunt

CHAPTER

2 RELATIONSHIP CONCEPTS


71

Mother’s or Father’s Son Brother

Mother’s or father’s daughter Sister

Son’s wife Daughter in law

Husband’s or wife’s sister Sister in law

Daughter’s husband Son in law

Husband’s or wife’s brother Brother in law

Brother’s Son Nephew

Brother’s daughter Niece

Sister’s husband Brother in law

Brother’s wife Sister in law

Grandson’s or granddaughter’s daughter or son Great granddaughter or son


72

EXERCISE

1. Vijay says “Ananda’s mother is the

only daughter of my mother” How is

Ananda related to vijay?

a) Brother

b) Father

c) Nephew

d) Grandfather

2. Pointing towards a person, a man said

to a woman, “His mother is the only

daughter of your father”. How is the

woman related to that person?

a) Daughter

b) Sister

c) Mother

d) Wife

3. Showing the lady in the park, Vineet

said, “She is the daughter of my

grandfather’s only son”. How is vineet

related to that lady?

a) Brother

b) Cousin

c) Father

d) Uncle

4. Ramesh is the brother of Amit.

Sushma is the sister of Satish. Amit is

the son of Sushma. How is Ramesh

related to Sushma?

a) Father

b) Brother

c) Son

d) Nephew

5. Pointing to a lady in the photograph,

shaloo said, “Her son’s father is the

son-in-law of my mother”. How is

Shaloo related to the lady?

a) Aunt

b) Sister

c) Mother

d) Cousin

6. Pointing towards a boy, Veena said,

“He is the son of only son of my

grandfather”. How is that boy related

to Veena?

a) Uncle

b) Brother

c) Cousin

d) Data inadequate.

7. Pointing to a photograph, Suraj said,

“His daughter Shobha is

granddaughter of my mother”. How is

Satish related to Ashok?

a) Son

b) Grandson

c) Nephew

d) None of these

8. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a

woman says, “This man’s son’s sister

is my mother in law”. How is the

woman’s husband related to the man

in the photograph?

a) Grandson

b) Son in law

c) Son


73

d) Nephew

9. Pointing to a girl in photograph,

Umesh said,”Her mother’s sin is the

only son of my mother’s father”. How

the girl’s mother is related to Umesh?

a) Grandmother

b) Sister

c) Aunt

d) Mother/Aunt

10. Deepak is brother of Ravi. Rekha is

sister of Atul. Ravi is son of Rekha.

How is Deepak related to Rekha?

a) Son

b) Brother

c) Nephew

d) Father

11. A is B’s sister. C is B’s mother. D is C’s

father. E is D’s mother. Then, how is A

related to D?

a) Grandmother

b) Grandfather

c) Daughter

d) Granddaughter

12. Rahul’s mother is the only daughter of

Monika’s father. Hw is Monika’s

husband related to Rahul?

a) Uncle

b) Father

c) Grandfather

d) Brother

13. Fatima while introducing Mustafa to

her husband said, “His brother’s father

is the only son of my grandfather”.

How is Fatima related to Mustafa?

a) Aunt

b) Sister

c) Niece

d) mother

14. Raghu and Babu are twins. Babu’s

ister is Reema. Reema’s husband is

Rjan. Raghu’s mother is Lakshmi.

Lakshmi’s husband is Rajesh. How is

Rajesh related to Rajan?

a) Uncle

b) Son in l aw

c) Father in Law

d) Cousin

15. B is the father of Q. B has only two

children. Q is the brother of R. R is the

daughter of P. A is the granddaughter

of P. S is the father of A. How is S

related to Q?

a) Son

b) Son in law

c) Brother

d) Brother in law

16. “A+B” means A is B’s daughter, “A x B’

means A is B’s son, ‘A-B’ means A is B’s

wife. or the relation P x Q –S, which of

the following statements is true?

a) S is P’S father

b) P is Q’s daughter

c) ‘Q is P’s father

d) S is Q’s wife

17. If P + Q mean P is the husband of Q:

‘P+Q’ means P is the sister of Q and P x

Q means P is the son of Q, then which

of the following shows A is the

daughter of B?


74

a) C x B + A

b) B+ C x A

c) D x B + C ÷ A

d) A ÷ D x B

18. If A * B means A is the mother of B; A x

B means A is the husband of B, then

which of the following equations show

that ‘P’ is the father of ‘Q’?

a) Q * M x P

b) P *Q

c) Q* P

d) P x M * Q

19. Pointing to Satish, Ashok said, “He is

the son of my sister’s only brother”.

How is Satish related to Ashok?

a) Son

b) Grandson

c) Nephew

d) None of the above

20. If Teena’s mother was Uday’s mother’s

only daughter, then how was Uday

related to Teena?

a) Maternal grand Father

b) Maternal Uncle

c) Cousin

d) Son


75

ANSWERS

1. c

2. c

3. a

4. c

5. b

6. b

7. d

8. a

9. a

10. a

11. d

12. b

13. b

14. c

15. d

16. a

17. d

18. d

19. a

20. b


76

“A geometrical representation between two articles on the basis of set theory known as

Venn diagram”

Definition of Venn Diagram

The process of presenting things/numbers through the diagrammatic medium form the

given group of elements is called Venn diagram.

According to its characteristics, Venn diagram may be categorized in two types:

1. Identification of Class through circle

2. Identification of Class Through Numbers and Letters.

1. Identification of Class Through Circle.

A class is a group or collection of objects all having something as common. In this type,

Venn diagrams are used to establish relationship between the given groups. Generally, an

independent diagram is used to represent a different class. Candidates are required to

identify the Venn diagram, which most correctly establish a relation between the given

objects.

Keep In Mind

● Concept of group of class.

● Diagrammatic representation of classes like individual and common.

● The individual diagram for any of the class then corelate the diagram, if belongs to group.

CHAPTER

3 VENN DIAGRAM


77

2. Identification of class through numbers and letters

In these types of questions, more than one geometrical figure represents different classes

with the specified numbers or letters. Candidates are required to analyse the figure

carefully and then answer certain question as per the given information.

Keep in Mind

● Only A = P ● A = P + r ● Only B = Q

● B = Q + r ● A ꓵ B = r ● A ꓴ B = P + Q – r

● A + B = P + Q + 2r ● A – B = P + Q


78

EXERCISE

1. Which of the following diagrams correctly represents elephants, wolves and animals?

2. Which one of the following diagrams correctly represents the relationship among tennis fans, cricket players and students.

Direction(3-7): In the following questions, three classes are given. Out of the four figures that follow, you are to indicate which figure will best represent the relationship amongst the three classes.

3. Boys, Students and Athletes

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

4. Sparrows, Birds and Mice

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

5. Women, Mothers and Widows a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

6. Tea, Coffee and Beverages

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

7. Author, Teachers and Men a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Direction (8-14): In the following

questions, three classes are given. Out of

the four figures that follow, you are to

indicate which figure will best represent

the relationship amongst the three

classes.

8. Women, Sister and Wives

a) (1)

b) (2)

c) (3)

d) (4)


79

9. Pulses, Redgram, Moongdal

a) (1)

b) (2)

c) (3)

d) (4)

10. Manager, Labour Union and worker

a) (1)

b) (2)

c) (3)

d) (4)

11. Ornaments, Gold, Silver

a) (1)

b) (2)

c) (3)

d) (4)

12. Table, chair and Furniture

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

13. Human beings, Teachers and

Graduates

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

14. Tiger, Fox and Carnivores

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

Direction (15-20): In the following

questions, three classes are given. Out of

the four figures that follow, you are to

indicate which figure will best represent

the relationship amongst the three

classes.


80

15. Whales, Fishes and Crocodiles

a) (1)

b) (2)

c) (3)

d) (4)

16. Thieves, lawyers and Criminals

a) (1)

b) (2)

c) (3)

d) (4)

17. Deer, Rabbit and Mammal

a) (1)

b) (2)

c) (3)

d) (4)

18. Flowers, Clothes and White.

a) (5)

b) (2)

c) (3)

d) (4)

19. Mountains, Forests and Earth.

a) (1)

b) (2)

c) (3)

d) (4)

20. Rohtak, Haryana and Punjab.

a) (1)

b) (2)

c) (3)

d) (4)


81

ANSWERS

1. d

2. a

3. b

4. d

5. c

6. a

7. b

8. a

9. b

10. d

11. c

12. a

13. c

14. d

15. b

16. c

17. a

18. a

19. a

20. b


82

Direction is the measurement of position of one thing with respect to another thing and

displacement is the measurement of distance between the starting and the final point.

The problems based on direction sense test have instructions regarding the movement of a

person or an object from a starting point upto an end point and the candidate is required to

ascertain the final direction or the distance between two points. This test is designed to

judge the candidate’s ability to trace and follow the logical path correctly and sense the

direction correctly.

Main Directions

There are four main directions, viz., East, West, North and South. Sunrises in the East. Just

opposite of East is west and South is opposite to North.

Cardinal direction

The four cardinal directions or cardinal points are the directions of north, east, south, and west,

commonly denoted by their initials: N, E, S, W. East and west are at right angles to north and

south, with east being in the clockwise direction of rotation and west being directly opposite.

Intermediate points between the four cardinal directions from the points of the compass. The

intermediate directions are northeast, southeast, southwest, and northwest. On Earth, upright

observers facing north will have south behind them, east on their right, and west on their left.

Most devices and methods for orientation therefore operate by finding north first, although any

other direction is equally valid, if it can be reliably located.

CHAPTER

DIRECTION SENSE 4

Left Right

Right Left

Left Right Left Right

North

East West

South


83

Angle of Movement

For solving questions based on angle of movement, it is necessary to know the rotations

which are given below

i. Movement towards the right is called the clockwise movement

ii. Movement towards the left is called Anti-clockwise movement

Shortest Distance For finding shortest distance between two points, it is necessary to know Pythagoras

theorem.

Here, in ∆ ABC,

A

B C


84

AB= Perpendicular

BC= Base and AC= Hypotenuse

Hence, for shortest distance between A and C

Concept of Shadow A shadow is a dark (real image) area where light from a light source is blocked by an

opaque object. It occupies all of the three-dimensional volume behind an object with light

in front of it. The cross section of a shadow is a two-dimensional silhouette, or a reverse

projection of the object blocking the light.


85

EXCERCISE

1. I am facing East. Turning to the right I go 20 m, then turning to the left I go 20 m and turning to the right I go 20 m, then again turning to the right I go 40 m and then again I go 40 m to the right. In which direction am I from my original position? a) North b) West c) South d) East

2. Bhairav walked 30 ft towards North,

then took a left turn and walked 15 ft. He again took a left turn and walked 30 ft. How far and in which direction is Bhairav from the starting point? a) 15 ft to the West b) 45 ft to the South c) 30 ft to the East d) 15 ft to the North

3. Seema started early in the morning on

the road towards the Sun. After some time she turned to her left. Again after some time she turned to her right. After moving some distance she again turned to her right and began to move. At this time, in what direction was she moving? a) South b) North-West c) North-East d) East

4. At dusk, Rohit started walking facing

the sun. After a while, he met his friend and both turned to their left. They halted for a while and started moving by turning again to their right. Finally Rohit waved 'good bye' to his

friend and took a left turn at a corner. At which direction is Rohit moving now? a) South b) West c) North d) East

5. A starts and walks towards south, he

then turns to his right and walks 5 km, then again turn left and walks 3 km and then again turn left and walks 5 km. In which direction is he from the starting point? a) West b) South c) North d) East

6. Two boys Anil and Shyam walk in

opposite directions for three kilometres. Anil is walking towards East. After 3 km each both turn right and walk 3 km each. Both turn to face each other. In which direction is Shyam looking? a) South b) South East c) West d) South East

7. In question number 6 above, which

direction is Anil looking? a) North b) North West c) West d) South East 8. A boy was misdirected from his way

while returning to his home from his school. In order to reach his home, he first moved 3 km in south direction


86

and then turned to his left and moved 2 km in straight direction on the road leading to the east. From there, he moved to his left and walked 3 km. After this, he again turned to his left and moved 1 km. Finally he reached his home. The home of the boy was in which direction from his school?

a) North b) West c) South d) East 9. Ram walks 10 m South from his house,

turns left and walks 25 m, again turns left and walks 40 m, then turns right and walks 5 m to reach the school. In which direction is the school from his house?

a) North-East b) West c) South d) East 10. From his house, Rahul went 25 km to

north. Then he turned towards west and covered 15 km. Then he turned south and covered 10 km. Finally, turning to east, he covered 15 km. In which direction is he from his house?

a) North b) West c) South d) East

11. Satish starts from his house and takes two right turns and then one left turn. Now he is moving towards south. In which direction Satish started from his house?

a) North b) West c) South d) East 12. After walking 10 m, Shankar turned

left and covered a distance of 6 m, then turned right and covered a distance of 20 m. In the end, he was moving towards the south. From which direction did Shankar start his journey?

a) North b) West c) South d) East 13. Sumi ran a distance of 40 m towards

South. She then turned to the right and ran for about 15 m, turned right again and ran 50 m. Turning to right then ran for 15 m. Finally she turned to the left an angle of 45° and ran. In which direction was she running finally?

a) South-East b) South-West c) North-East d) North-West


87

ANSWERS

1. c

2. a

3. c

4. a

5. b

6. a

7. a

8. b

9. d

10. d

11. d

12. a

13. a


88

Definition: In this type of test secret messages or words have to be deciphered or

decoded. They are coded according to a definite pattern or rule which should be identified

first. Then the same rule be applied to decipher another coded word or message.

Types of Coding-Decoding

1. Letter coding.

2. Coding by Analogy

3. Coding in Fictitious Language

4. Coding by substitution

5. Coding by shifting words

6. Coding based on conditions

7. Mathematical operation Based coding.

1. LETTER CODING

(i) Coding by shifting letters

Example 1: In a certain cod language the word METAL is coded as LDSZK. How will word

ZINC be written in that language?

Solution: M E T A L

-1 -1 -1 -1 -1

L D S Z K

Similarly,

Z I N C

-1 -1 -1 -1

Y H M B

Note: For coding concepts, you must know about numerical order of alphabet, which is A

to Z.

Example:

A B C D E F G H I J 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

CHAPTER

5 CODING DECODING


89

K L M N O P

11 12 13 14 15 16

Q R S T U V W X Y Z 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 (ii) Coding by re-arranging letters

Example: In a certain code language the word NUMERICAL is written as

LMUIREACN. How will be the word PUBLISHED be written in that language?

Solution: N U M E R I C A L L M U I R E A C N 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 3 2 6 5 4 8 7 1 Therefore, P U B L I S H E D D B U S I L E H P 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 3 2 6 5 4 8 7 1 2. Coding by Analogy

(i) Coding by shifting letters

Example: In a certain code language PEAR is written as RCCP and AUNT is written as

CSPR. How is LAND written in that code?

Solution: P E A R A U N T +2 -2 +2 -2 and -2 -2 +2 +2 R C C P C S P R Similarly, L A N D +2 -2 +2 -2 N Y P B

(ii) Digit- coding

Example: In a certain code ROAM is written as 5913 and DONE is written as 4962. How is

MEAN written in that code?

Solution:

Letter A D E M N O

Code 1 4 2 3 6 9


90

Similarly,

M E A N 3 2 1 6

(iii) Symbol Coding

Example: In a certain code BROTHER is written as $%53#4% and DREAM is written as

9%47*. How is THREAD written in that code?

Solution:

Letter A B D E H M O R T

Code 7 $ 9 4 # * 5 % 3

Similarly:

T H R E A D 3 # % 4 7 9

3. CODING IN FICTITIOUS LANGUAGE

Example: In a certain code ‘nik ma de’ means ‘he was come’, ‘de lit pa’ means’ come

here fast’ and ‘ma la se’ means ‘she has gone’. What is the code for ‘he’?

Solution: We have,

Nik ma de he has come

de lit pa come here fast

ma la se she has gone

Word Code

He - nik

Has - ma

Come - de

Here - lit/pa

Fast - lit/pa

She - la/se

Gone - la/se

4. CODING BY SUBSTITION

Example: While means black, means red, red means blue, blue means yellow and

yellow means grey, then which of the following represents the color of clear sky?


91

Solution: Clearly, we know that, the actual color of sky is blue, and is given blue means

yellow. Hence, the color of sky is yellow.

5. CODING BY SHIFTING WORDS

Example: If the sentence ‘layman can practice successful psychotherapy without great

training is written as ‘practice without successful layman training psychotherapy can

great’ in a certain code, them how will’ I would have to think all the time’ be written in

that code?

Solution: Layman can practice successful psychotherapy without great training

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Then after coding

3 6 4 1 8 5 2 7

practice without successful layman training psychotherapy

can great

Similarly,

I Would have to think all the time

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

Then after coding

3 6 4 1 8 5 2 7

Have all to I time think would the

6. CODING BASED ON CONDITIONS

Example:

Directions (1-3): Digits in the number given in each of the following questions are to

be coded based on the codes and the condition given below:

Digit 2 9 4 6 3 8 1 7 5 0

Code P M R K T V B W F D

Conditions:

(i) If both the first and the last digits of a number are odd numbers, they should be

coded as ‘Z’.

(ii) If both the first and the last digits of a numbers are even numbers, they should be

coded as ‘A’.

Questions and Solutions:

Q. (1) 9 3 8 7 5 2 No conditions are apply 9 3 8 7 5 2


92

M T V W F P Q. (2) 7 2 5 8 1 Condition (i) Applies 3 7 2 5 8 1 Z W P F V Z Q. (3) 8 4 3 7 2 6 Condition (ii) Applies 8 4 3 7 2 6 A R T W P A

7. MATHEMATICAL OPERATION BASED CODING

Example: If the alphabets are assigned values such as A = 3, D = 6, G = 8, I – 2, L = 4,

and T = 5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?

Solutions:

A D G I L T

3 6 8 2 4 5

6 + 2 + 8 + 2 + 5 + 3 + 4 = 30


93

EXERCISE

1. If in a certain code, LUTE is written as

MUTE and FATE is written as GATE,

then how will BLUE be written in that

code?

a) CLUE

b) GLUE

c) FLUE

d) SLUE

e) None of these

2. If in a certain language, MADRAS is

coded as NBESBT, how BOMBAY

coded in that language?

a) CPNCBX

b) CPNCBZ

c) CPOCBZ

d) CQOCBZ

e) None of these

3. If FISH is written as EHRG in a certain

code, how would JUNGLE be written in

that code?

a) ITMFKD

b) ITNFKD

c) KVOHMF

d) TIMFKD

e) None of these

4. In a certain code, TWINKLE is written

as SVHOJKD then how would FILTERS

be written in that code?

a) EHKSDQR

b) EHKUDQR

c) EGHUDQR

d) GJMSFST

e) None of these

5. In a certain code, ROAD is written as

URDG. How is SWAN written in that

code?

a) VXDQ

b) VZDQ

c) VZCP

d) UXDQ

e) None of these

6. If in a certain code, FAVOUR is written

as EBUPTS. How is DANGER written in

that code?

a) JOWJTJCMF

b) JOWJTHAKD

c) HMUHTJCMF

d) HMUHTHAKD

e) None of these

7. In a certain code, FAVOUR is written


that code?

a) CBFFDS

b) CBMHDS

c) EBFHDS

d) EBHHFS

e) None of these

8. In a certain code, Productions is

written as QQPCVEUHPMT. How is

ORIENTATION written in that code?

a) PQJDOVBSJNO

b) PQJDOUBUJPO

c) PSJFOVBSJNO

d) NSHFMVBSJNO

e) None of these


94

9. If a code, MIND becomes KGLB and

ARGUE becomes YPESC, then what

will DIAGRAM be in that code?

a) BGYEPYK

b) BGYPYEK

c) GLPEYKB

d) LKBGYPK

e) None of these

10. In a certain code, BASIC is written as

DUDDLE. How is LEADER written in

that code?

a) NGCFGT

b) NHCGGU

c) OGDEHT

d) OHDGHU

e) None of these

11. In a certain code, GERMINATION is

written as IMGRENNOAIT. How is

ESTABLISHED written in that code?

a) BEATSLEIHS

b) BAETSLEDIHS

c) BATESLDEIHS

d) BAETSLDEIHS

e) None of these

12. In a certain code language,

COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC.

How is MEDICINE written in that

code?

a) EOJDEJFM

b) EOJDJEFM

c) MFEDJJOE

d) MFEJDJOE

e) None of these

13. If in certain code language,

CONVALENT is written as

BWFDUOFM and FORM is written as

PGNS. How is SILVER be written in

that languages?

a) MJTUDQ

b) KHRSFW

c) MJTWFS

d) MJTSFW

e) None of these

14. If a certain language, CREATIVE is

written as BDSBFUJS. How is

TRIANGLE written in that code?

a) BHSSFKHM

b) BHSSMHHF

c) BSHSFHKM

d) BSSHFMKH

e) None of these

15. In a certain language, CLOUD is

written as GTRKF. How is SIGHT

written in that language?

a) UGHHT

b) UHJFW

c) WFJGV

d) WGJHV

e) None of these

16. In a certain code, “CERTAIN” is

written as “QDBVOJB”. How is

“RELATED” written in that code?

a) QDKCVFE

b) KDQCEFU

c) DKCQEFV

d) KDQCVFE

e) None of these

17. In a certain code, “MADRA” is written

as “NZEQBR” then “CALCUTTA” will

be written as.


95

a) OZMBVSUB

b) BBKBTVSB

c) DZMBVUUZ

d) DZMBVSUZ

e) None of these

18. In a certain code “BROWN” is written

“ZPMUL” then “VOILET” will be

written as.

a) TGMTCR

b) SGMTCQ

c) TGMJCQ

d) TGWCQ

e) TGMJCR

19. If “BRASS” is coded as “CTBUT” ,

“AMIT” is coded as “BOJV” then what

will code of “ADITYA”.

a) BEJUZB

b) CEKVZB

c) BFJZVC

d) BFJVZC

e) None of these

20. In a certain code “UNDER” is written

as “6152@” and “DEAF” is written as

“52#7”. How “FRAUD” is written in

that code.

a) 7@6#5

b) 72#65

c) 7@#65

d) 6@7#5

e) None of these


96

ANSWERS

1. a

2. b

3. a

4. b

5. b

6. c

7. b

8. a

9. a

10. b

11. d

12. b

13. d

14. a

15. d

16. b

17. d

18. e

19. d

20. c


97

Let us

begin by observing the following series:

2, 4, 6, 8, 10…………

Clearly, it is an even number series.

Now, let us observe the following series:

62, 127, 214, 345, 510………

This series is obtained by alternatively subtracting and adding 2 to the cubes of natural numbers beginning with 4.

i.e., 62, 127, 214, 345, 510, ………..

(43-2) (53+2) (63-2) (73+2) (83-2)

This pattern of the first series can be more easily understood as compared to the second one because we are more familiar with the first pattern, i.e. even numbers.

So, let us familiarize ourselves with more such patterns.

Type 1: Even /odd number series.

Example 1: 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, ………

The above series is an even number series. The next term in this series is 12.

Example 2: 1, 3, 5, 7, 9,……….

This is an odd number series. The next term will be 11.

Type 2: Prime number series.

Example 1: 2, 3, 5, 7, ……..

The next term will be 11.

Example 2: 3, 7, 13, 19, ………..

This series is formed by picking up alternate terms from the prime numbers series beginning with 3.

CHAPTER

6 NUMBER SERIES


98

3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29

So, the next term will be 29.

Example 3: 3, 7, 17, ………..

This series is formed by picking up terms from the prime number series beginning with 3 and leaving out one term, two terms, three terms and so on successively in between.

3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31


Type 3: Series formed by squares of numbers

Example 1: 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, ………

This series is formed by squares of successive numbers beginning with 2

22, 32, 42, 52, 62, 72, ………


Example 2: 1, 9, 25, 49, 81, ………

These are squares of odd numbers.

12, 32, 52, 72, 92, 112


Type 4: Series formed by cubes of numbers

Example 1: 64, 125, 216, 343, ……….

These are cubes of successive numbers beginning with 4.


Example 2: 8, 27, 125, 343, ………

These are cubes of prime numbers.

So, the next term will be 113 = 1331.

Type 5: Series formed by addition.

Example 1: 12, 13, 15, 17, ……….


99

This series is formed by adding 10 to each term of the prime numbers beginning with 2.

(2+10), (3+10), 5+10), (7+10)

So, the next term will be (11+10) = 21

Example 2: 1, 3, 4, 8, 15, 27………

Previous three terms are added to find the terms beginning from 8.

1 + 3+ 4 =8, 3+ 4+ 8 = 15, 4+ 8+ 15 = 27, 8 = 15 + 27 = 50


Type 6: Series formed by multiplication

Example 1: 0.5, 1.5, 4.5, 13.5, ……..

Here each is formed by multiplying the previous term by 3. So, the next will be 40.5.

Example 2: 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ………

Each term is formed by multiplying the previous term by 2 and adding 1

So, the next term will be →63 × 2 + 1 = 127.

Type 7: Series formed by division

Example 1: 840, 168, 42, 14, 7, ………

(840 ÷ 5) = 168, (168 ÷ 4) = 42, (42 ÷ 3 ) = 14, (14 ÷ 2) = 7, (7 ÷ 1) = 7.


Example 2: 240, ….?..... 120, 40, 10, 2.

240 ÷ 1 = 240, 240 ÷ 2 = 120, 120 ÷ 3 = 40, 40 ÷ 4 = 10, 10 ÷ 5 = 2.

So, the missing term is 240.

Type 8: Series formed by subtracting or adding something to squares to successive terms.

Example 1: 12, 20, 30, 42……..

This series is formed by squaring a term and adding the same term to the square.

32 +3 = 12, 42 +4 = 20, 52 +5 = 30, 62 +6 = 42, 72 +7 = 56.


100


Example 2: 3, 7, 13, 21………

12 + 2, 2 + 3, 32 + 4, 42 + 5, 52 +6.


Type 9: Series formed by subtracting or adding something to cubes of successive terms.

Example 1: 0, 6, 24, 60, 120………

13 – 1= 0, 23 – 2 = 6, 33 – 3=24, 53 – 5=120, 63 -6 = 210


Example 2: 10, 24, 68, 120………

23 + 2=10, 33 – 3= 24, 43 + 4=68, 53 – 5=120, 63 +6 =222.


Type 10: Combination of two different series.

Example 1: 1

2,

3

4,

5

8,

7

16, … … …

The numerators term a series of odd numbers. The series of denominators is formed by multiplying the previous number by 2.

Numerators: 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 ; Denominators: 2, 4, 8, 16, 32

So, the next term will be 9

32

Example 2: 512, 16, 343, 25……..

It is a combination of two series.

83, 42, 73, 52,…….

So, the next term will be 63 = 216.

Type 11: Series formed by adding terms at more than one level

Example: 5, 12, 27, 58, 121, ………

Sol. 5 12 27 58 121 248

+7 +15 +31 +63 +127


101

+8 +16 +32 +64


Some Important series.

(i) 8, 4, 4, 6, 12………

8 ×1

2= 4, 4×1 = 4, 4 ×

3

2= 6, 6×2=12, 12×

5

2= 30

So, the next term will b 30. (ii) 6, 9, 18, 45……

6 ×3

2= 9, 9×2 = 18, 18 ×

5

2= 45, 45×3=135.

Some point to remember

(i) If a series increases abruptly then it may be a case of series formed by multiplication. Example: 2, 3, 6, 18, 108, 1944. Here, each term is formed by multiplying previous two terms.

(ii) If a series decreases abruptly, then it may be a case of series formed by division. Example: 6120, 1020, 204, 51, 17. 6120 ÷ 6 = 1020, 1020 ÷ 5 = 204, 204 ÷ 4 = 51 and so on.

(iii) If a series decreases in the beginning and then goes on increasing, if may be a case of multiplication by fractional values. Example: 8, 4, 4, 6, 12…….

8 ×1

2= 4, 4×1 = 4, 4 ×

3

2= 6, 6×2=12, and so on.

(iv) The given series may be a combination of two different series in the following cases: (a) Fractional terms are given in the question with numerators

forming one series and denominators forming another series. (b) Series increases and then decreases and again increases and the

decreases and so on. Example: 15, 14, 19, 11, 23, 8, 27……. 1st series ÷ 15, 19, 23, 27………. 2nd series ÷ 14, 11, 8……..

(c) When more terms are given in the question as compared to normal cases. For example in case (b) above we have 7 terms given in the question. In such a situation check for the case of two different series being mixed.


102

EXERCISE

Directions (1-20): What will come in

place of question mark (?) in the

following number series?

1. 2, 3, 5, 7, ?

(a) 9 (b) 10 (c)

(d) 11 (e) None of these

2. 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ?

(a) 17 (b) 18 (c) 20


3. 4, 9, 16, 25?

(a) 49 (b) 30 (c) 36


4. 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23?

(a) 18 (b) 28 (c) 27


5. 41, 43, 47, 53, 59?

(a) 61 (b) 67 (c) 64


6. 3, 6, 11, 18, 27?

(a) 29 (b) 67 (c) 64


7. 4, 9, 19, 34, 54?

(a) 64 (b) 74 (c) 78


8. 2, 3, 5, 8, 12?

(a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15


9. 100, 81, 64, 49?

(a) 48 (b) 46 (c) 40


10. 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, 343?

(a) 443 (b) 612 (c) 512


11. 56, 63, 70, 77?

(a) 84 (b) 91 (c) 80


12. 36, 48, 60, 72?

(a) 80 (b) 91 (c) 80


13. 54, 72, 90, 108?

(a) 110 (b) 115 (c) 120

(d) 126 (e) None of these’

14. 2, 4, 8, 16, 32?

(a) 64 (b) 48 (c) 42


15. 3, 6, 12, 24, 48?

(a) 64 (b) 70 (c) 94

(d) 96 (e) None of these’

16. 10, 14, 18, 22?

(a) 23 (b) 25 (c) 30


17. 100, 99, 97, 94, 90?

(a) 92 (b) 95 (c) 85


18. 3, 9, 27, 81?

(a) 243 (b) 343 (c) 414


19. 24, 48, 72, 96?

(a) 100 (b) 108 (c) 120


20. 78, 88, 99, 111?

(a) 112 (b) 115 (c) 118



103

ANSWERS

1. c

2. c

3. d

4. b

5. c

6. b

7. e

8. c

9. c

10. d

11. c

12. a

13. c

14. b

15. c

16. b

17. d

18. d

19. b

20. b


104

Figure Completion

A transparent sheet carrying design either side of a dotted line when folded along the line

another design known as paper folding and to identify the pattern to complete the given

figure, which contains a set of figures with quarter part left known as figure completion.

Series Completion

A series is a string of items. In math, a series usually involves a string or sequence of numbers. Some series have a pattern and others are random with no pattern. For example, the counting numbers is a series with a pattern, each term has 1 added to the previous number.

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, …

Most series with a pattern will keep going indefinitely. Like the counting numbers, you can keep counting forever, you'll never finish counting as there will always be one more. In math, you'll come across series problems that test your logic skills. Some will ask you to find a pattern and then to complete the series either by finding a missing term or continuing the given series. Other problems will ask you to find which term is the wrong term. To solve these kinds of problems, your first and biggest task is that of finding a pattern. To find a pattern, look for multiplication by a specific number each time or addition of a specific number each time.

Types of series completion

Alphabet series

Number series

Alpha-numeric series

Letter repeating series

Number ranking

CHAPTER

7 FIGURE SERIES COMPLETION


105

EXERCISE

Directions: Each of the following questions consists of four/ five figures as the problem figure followed by four/five figures marked (a), (b), (c), (d), and (e) as the answer figures. Select the correct answer figure which will continue the series as established by the problem figures.

1:

A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) None Of These

2:


3:


4:


Directions: In each item, there are two sets of figures; first four figures named problem figures and next four figures named answer figures indicated as (a), (b), (c) and (d). The problem figures follow a particular sequence. In accordance with the same, which one of the four answer figures should appear as the fifth figure.

https://www.toppr.com/guides/reasoning-ability/images/grouping-of-figures/

https://www.toppr.com/guides/reasoning-ability/number-ranking-time-sequence/number-sequence/


106

5:

A) (a) B) (b) C) (c) D) (d) E) None Of These

6:


Other types of series might be the non-verbal series completion based questions. In the formation of the figure, the candidate has to use the fragmented part to construct the desired figure. Formation of figure requires a high spatial visualization skill. As different fragmented parts of a figure are to be combined to form the desired figure. Let us see some practice questions.

7: Which of the following figures shown below, when folded along the dotted lines, will form a pyramid-shaped box with a rectangular base?


8: Which of the answers figures include the separate components found in the question figure?


9: Among the four answer figures, which one can be formed from the cut-out pieces given below in the question figure?


Directions: In each of the following questions, select the alternative in which the specified components of the problem figure are found?

https://www.toppr.com/guides/fundamentals-of-economics-and-management/group-dynamics/stages-of-group-formation/

https://www.toppr.com/guides/accountancy/application-of-computers-in-accounting/components-computer-system/


107

10:


11:


12: Which of the following figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) when folded along the lines will produce the problem figure?


Q7: Identify the response figure in which the figures given are found.


13: Which of the following answer figures can be combined with the question figure, so as to form a square.


14: In the following question, complete the missing segment by selecting from the given alternatives, (a), (b), (c) and (d).

https://www.toppr.com/guides/maths/squares-and-square-roots/introduction-to-square-roots/


108


15: Select a figure from the four alternatives, which when placed in the missing portion (?) of the original figure as shown by the figure (X), would complete the pattern.


16:


17: Select a figure from the four alternatives, which when placed in the missing portion of the original


Directions: In each of the following problems, select a figure from the given four alternatives which when placed in the black space of problem figure (X) would complete the pattern.

18:



109

ANSWERS

1. b

2. c

3. a

4. c

5. c

6. d

7. b

8. a

9. b

10. b

11. b

12. c

13. b

14. a

15. b

16. c

17. b

18. b


110

The odd one out

UK (also the odd man out)

a person or thing that is different from

or kept apart from others that form a group or set:

Guess which number of the following sequence is the odd one out.

She was always the odd one out at school - she didn't have many friends.

Thesaurus: synonyms and related words

Different and difference

a breath of fresh air idiom

a fine line idiom

a whole new ballgame idiom

a world of difference idiom

alternative

asymmetric

chasm

discordant

disparate

disparity

dissimilar

dissimilitude

distinct

nothing like sb/sth idiom

nuance

otherize

otherness

otherwise

variance

CHAPTER

8 FIGURE ODD ONE OUT

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/person

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/kept

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/apart

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/others

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/form

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/group

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/number

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/following

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/sequence

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/school

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/friend

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/topics/comparing-and-classifying/different-and-difference/

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/a-breath-of-fresh-air?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/a-fine-line?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/a-whole-new-ballgame?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/a-world-of-difference?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/alternative?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/asymmetric?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/chasm?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/discordant?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/disparate?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/disparity?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/dissimilar?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/dissimilitude?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/distinct?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/nothing-like-sb-sth?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/nuance?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/otherize?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/otherness?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/otherwise?topic=different-and-difference

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/variance?topic=different-and-difference


111

yawning

The odd man/one out

British English someone or something that is different from the rest of the group or not

included in it Which shape is the odd one out? I was always the odd one out at school.

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/dictionary/english/yawning?topic=different-and-difference

https://www.ldoceonline.com/dictionary/rest


112

EXERCISE

1. Iron Box, Mixie, Computer, Gas Stove a) Iron Box b) Mixi c) Computer d) Gas Stove

2. Tortoise, Crab, Frog, Fish

a) Tortoise b) Crab c) Frog d) Fish

3. 13, 17, 23, 63, 71

a) 63 b) 1 c) 1 d) 23

4. (64, 83), (100, 121), (16, 25), (36, 49)

a) 64, 83 b) 100, 121 c) 16, 25 d) 36, 49

5. (9 - 72), (10 - 90), (8 - 56), (11 - 115)

a) 9 – 72 b) 10 – 90 c) 8 – 5 d) 11 – 115

6. Jeevan Raksha Padak, Param Vir Chakra, Padma Bhusan, Bharat Ratna

a) Jeevan Raksha Padak b) Param Vir Chakra c) Padma Bhusan d) Bharat Ratna 7. Milk, Ghee, Paneer, Butter

a) Milk b) Ghee c) Panee d) Butter

8. Which word will appear fourth in the

dictionary? a) Solitaire b) Soliloquy c) Solitary d) Solitude

9. 7, 8, 12, 20, 37, 62

a) 37 b) 62 c) 12 d) 20

10. 1, 8, 27, 65, 125, 216

a) 1 b) 65 c) 12 d) 216


113

ANSWERS

1. d 2. d 3. a 4. a 5. d 6. b

7. a 8. d 9. d 10. b


114

“BASIS MATHEMATICS”


115

Percent: The term ‘percent’ is derived from the Latin word “Per centum”. It implies “out of every

hundred”.

The symbol ‘%’ is used to denote percentage. For example, 15% means 15 out of 100. Each ratio can be

expressed as a percentage.

For example, 1

2 can be expressed as a percentage by multiplying by 100;

1

2×100= 50%

A given percentage value can be converted to corresponding fraction by dividing by 100.

Example: 75% = 75 out of hundred = 75

100=

3

4

Percentage fraction conversion chart:

1

2=50%

5

6=83

1

3%

2

9=22

2

9%

1

3=33

1

3%

1

7 = 14

2

7%

1

10= 10%

2

3=66

2

3%

2

7=28

4

7%

1

11=9

1

11%

1

4=25%

3

7 =42

6

7%

2

11=8

2

11%

3

4=75%

1

8=12

1

2%

1

12=18

2

11%

1

5=20%

3

8=37

1

2%

5

12=41

2

3%

2

5=40%

5

8= 62

1

2%

1

15=6

2

3%

3

5=60%

7

8= 87

1

2%

1

20=5%

4

5=80%

1

9=11

1

9%

1

25=4%

1

6=16

2

3%

CHAPTER

1 PERCENTAGE



Formula to calculate percentage value: y% of x = (𝑦

100) × 𝑥

From the above formula, we have the following result: x% of y = y% of x.

Whenever we have two numbers a and b, one number can be expressed as percentage of the other as follows:

x as a percent of y =𝑥

𝑦× 100.

Percentage increase or decrease.

Percentage increase = increase in the quantity

original quantity× 100

Percentage increase = decrease in the quantity

original quantity× 100

For example, if the net profit of a company grew from 50 crore in 2003 to 75 crore in 2004, then the percentage increase in the net profit from 2003 to 2004 is calculate as follows:

Increase in the net profit = (75-50) crore = 25 crore

This increase is on Rs. 50 crore.

So, Percentage increase = increase in profit from 2003 to 2004

Net profit in 2003× 100 =

25

50× 100 = 50%

When a quantity increase or decreases by some percent, the new value of the quantity can be directly calculated as follows:

If the original quantity is 120 and it increase by 25%, then the new quantity is: 1.25×120=150

(Here, 1.25 = 1+0.25, where 0.25 is equivalent to 25%)

Similarly, if there is a decrease by 25% on 120, then the new quantity is: 0.75×120=90

(Here, 0.75 = 1-0.25, where 0.25 is equivalent to 25%)

Some important conclusions:

i. If x is a% more than y, then y is (a

100+a× 100)% less than x.

ii. If x is a% less than y, then y is (a

100−a× 100)% more than x.



Example: If in an examination, the marks secured by Prerna are 20% less than that of

Vinita, then marks secured by Vinita are how much percent more than Prerna’s marks?

Solution: a = 20%

According to the above formula; required percentage = (𝑎

100−𝑎× 100) % =

20

80× 100=25%.

iii. If a number is first increased by a% and then decreased by a% then the net effect is

always a decrease which is equal to ‘a’% of a’ i.e., 𝑎2

100%

Example: The salary of a worker is first increased by 5% and then it is decreased by 5%.

What is the change in his salary?

Solution: Here a = 5%

There will be a net decrease; Percent decrease = 𝑎2

100% =

52

100% = 0.25%

iv. If a quantity is first changed (increased or decreased) by a% and then changed (

increased or decreased) by b%, then

Net change = [±𝑎 ± 𝑏 +(±𝑎)(±𝑏)

100]%

Net change is an increase or a decrease according to the positive or negative sign,

respectively of the final result.

Example: The price of an article is first increased by 20% and then decreased by 25% due

to reduction in sales. Find the net percent change in the final price of the article.

Solution: a = 20%, b= 25%

Required percentage change = (20 + 25 +20×(−25)

100)% = (-5-5) % = -10%

So, there is a net decrease of 10% in the final price of the article as the final result

is negative.

v. If the price of a commodity increases or decreases by a%, then the decrease or

increase in consumption, so as not to increase or decrease the expenditure is equal

to (𝑎

100±𝑎) ×100%

vi. If the population of a town P and it increases (or decreases) at the rate of R% per

annum, then



i. Population after n years = P (1 ±R

100)

n

ii. Population n years ago = P

(1±R

100)

n

(‘+’ sign for increment; ‘-‘ sign for decrement).

Some tricks to calculate faster:

i. Splitting the percentage into parts.

Example: Find 51% of 128.

Solution: 51% of 128 = (50+1) % of 128 = 50% of 128+1% of 128 = 64+1.28=65.28

ii. Interchanging the percentage value and the number

Example: Find 39% of 12.5

Solution: 39% of 12.5 = 12.5% of 39 = 1

8× 39 = 4.875



MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. How is 3

4 expressed as percentage?

a) 0.75%

b) 7.5%

c) 75%

d) 60%

e) None of these

2. The ratio 5: 4 expressed as a percent

equals

a) 12.5%

b) 40%

c) 80%

d) 125%

e) None of these

3. What is 28% of 36% of 5

7 th of 5000?

a) 360

b) 375

c) 420

d) 480

e) None of these

4. 3.5 can be expressed in terms of

percentage as:

a) 0.35%

b) 3.5%

c) 35%

d) 350%

e) None of these

5. What is 15 percent of Rs. 34?

a) Rs. 3.40

b) Rs. 3.75

c) Rs. 4.50

d) Rs. 5.10

e) None of these

6. 88% of 370+24% of 210-?= 118

a) 256 b) 258 c) 268

d) 358 e) None of these

7. 860% of 50+50% of 860=?

a) 430 b) 516 c) 860


8. 60% of 264 is the same as:

a) 10% of 44 b) 15% of 1056

c) 30% of 132 d) 17% of 544

e) None of these

9. 270 candidates appeared for an

examination, of which 252 passed.

The pass percentage is?

a) 80% b) 831

2% c) 90

1

3%

d) 931

3% e) None of these

10. What percent of Rs. 2650 is Rs.

1987.50?

a) 60% b) 75% c) 80%

d) 85% e) None of these

11. What percent of a day is 3 hours?

a) 121

2% b) 16

1

3% c) 18

2

3%

d) 221

2% e) None of these

12. How many litres of pure acid are there

in 8 litres of a 20% solution?

a) 1.4 b) 1.5 c) 1.6

d) 2.4 e) None of these

13. Which one of the following shows the

best percentage?

a) 384

540 b)

425

500 c)

570

700

d) 480

660 e) None of these

14. 0.15% of 33 1

3% of Rs. 10,000 is?

a) Rs. 0.05 b) Rs. 5 c) Rs. 105

d) Rs. 150 e) None of these

15. 45% of 1500+35% of 1700 = ?% of

3175

a) 30 b) 35 c) 45




16. An Agent gets a commission of 2.5%

on the sales of cloth. If on a certain

day, he gets Rs. 12.50 as commission,

the cloth sold through him on that day

is worth?

a) Rs. 250 b) Rs. 500 c) Rs. 750


17. If Rs. 2800 is 2

7th of the value of a

house, the worth of the house (in Rs.)

is?

a) 8,00,000 b) 9,80,000

c) 10,00,000 d) 12,00,000

e) None of these

18. If 35% of a number is 175, then what

percent of 175 is that number?

a) 35% b) 65% c) 280%


19. If 35% of a number is 12 less than

50% of that number then the number

is:

a) 40 b) 50 c) 60


20. What percentage of numbers from 1

to 70 have squares that end in the

digit 1?

a) 1% b) 14% c) 20%


21. If 75% of a number is added to 75,

then the result is the number itself.

The number is:

a) 50 b) 60 c) 300


22. The sum of two numbers is 2490. If

6.5% of one number is equal to 8.5%

of the other, then the numbers are:

a) 989, 1501 b) 1011, 1479

c) 1401, 1089 d) 1411, 1079

e) None of these

23. When any number is divided by 12,

then dividend comes 1

4th of the other

number. By how much percent first

number is greater than the second

number?

a) 150

b) 200

c) 300

d) Data inadequate

e) None of these

24. If one number is 80% of the other and

the sum of their square is 656, then

the numbers are:

a) 4, 5 b) 8, 10 c) 16, 20

d) 14, 12 e) None of these

25. A person’s salary has increased from

Rs. 7200 to Rs. 8100. What is the

percentage increase in his salary?

a) 25% b) 18% c) 162

3%

d) 121

2% e) None of these

26. A’s salary is 20% less than B’s salary.

Then B’s salary is more than A’s salary

by:

a) 331

2% b) 16

2

3% c) 20%


27. If the price of petrol is increased by

20%, by what percentage should the

consumption be decreased by the

consumer, if the expenditure on petrol

remains unchanged?

a)16 2

3% b) 6

2

3% c) 8%


28. The price of an article Rs. 100 Its price

is increased by 10%, then again its

price is increased by 10%. How much

is increased in total price?



a) 20 b) 21 c) 110


29. An agent sells goods of value of Rs.

15000. The commission which he

receives is 121

2% , is what amount?

a) Rs. 1875

b) Rs. 2125

c) Rs. 2000

b) Rs. 2700

e) None of these

30. The monthly income of a person is Rs.

5000. If his income is increased by

30%, then what is his monthly income

now?

a) Rs. 7000 b) Rs. 5500 c) 4500


31. The price of a certain article is Rs.

15000. But due to slump in the

market, its price decrease by 8%. Find

the new price of the article?

a) Rs. 14000

b) Rs. 13800

c) Rs. 16500

d) Rs. 12600

e) None of these

32. A man losses 20% of his money. After

spending 25% of the remainder, he

has Rs. 480 left. What is the amount of

money he originally had?

a) Rs. 600 b) Rs. 720 c) Rs. 720


33. 15% of 10% 0f 20% of 1000 is?

a) 1.50 b) 67 c) 150


34. If the numerator of a fraction is

increased by 120% and denominator

is also increased by 350% then the

fraction becomes 11

27 what was

fraction?

a) 4

5 b)

5

6 c)

6

5

d) 5

4 e) None of these

35. If 40% of a number is equal to two-

third of another number, what is the

ratio of first number to the second

number?

a) 2:5 b) 3:7 c) 5:3

d) 7:3 e) None of these

36. A batsman scored 110 runs which

included 3 boundaries and 8 sixes.

What percent of his total score did he

make by running between the

wickets?

a) 45% b) 455

11% c) 54

6

11%


37. If 50% of (x-y)= 30% of (x+y), then

what percent of x is:

a) 20% b) 25% c) 30%


38. In expressing a length 81.472 km as

nearly as possible with three

significant digits, find the percentage

error?

a) 0.1% b) 0.034% c) 0.0020%

d) 0.4% e) None of these

39. Difference of two numbers is 1600. If

7.5% of one number is 12.5% of the

other number, find the two numbers?

a) 2490, 4000

b) 2400, 4150

c) 2490, 4150

d) 2500, 4200

e) None of these



40. Sixty-five percent of a number is 21

less than four-fifth of that number.

What is number?

a) 100 b) 120 c) 140




SOLUTIONS

1. (c): 3

4= (

3

4× 100)% = 75%

2. (d): 5: 4 = 5

4= (

5

4× 100)% = 125%

3. (a): Given expression = (28

100×

36

100×

5

7× 5000)

= 360

4. (d): 3.5 can be expressed as

(3.5×100)% = 350%

5. (d): 15

100× 34 = 5.10 Rs.

6. (b): 88

100×370 +

24

100× 210 – x = 118

x = 325.6 + 50.4 - 118 =376 –

118=258

7. (c): 860

100× 50 +

50

100× 860 =

860

100(50 + 50) =860

8. (b): 60

100× 264 = 158.40

15

100×1056=158.40

9. (d): Passing percentage = 252

270×

100=931

3%

10. (b): Required percentage = 1987.50

2650×

100=75%

11. (a): Percentage = 3

24× 100 = 12

1

2%

12. (c): Litres of pure acid = 20

100×8=1.6

litres

13. (b): Best percentage = 425

500

14. (b): 15

100×100×

100

300× 10000 = Rs. 5

15. (e): 45

100× 1500 +

35

100× 1700 =

𝑥

100×

3175

x = 1270×100

3175 = 40

16. (b): Let the worth of cloth be x

x ×2.5

100 = 12.50 x =

12500

25

x = Rs. 500

17. (e): Worth of the house = 2800×7

2 =

9800 Rs.

18. (e): 35% is = 175 100% = 175

35×

100 = 500

Required percentage = 500

175×

100 = 285.71%

19. (d): Let the number is x

50

100𝑥 −

35

100𝑥 = 12

15𝑥

100 =12

x = 12×100

15 x = 80

20. (c): Total such numbers = 14


70× 100 =

20%

21. (c): Let the number be x. 75

100x + 75 = x x−

3

4x = 75

x

4= 75 x=300

22. (d): Let the two numbers be x and y.

x + y = 2490 65

1000x =

85

1000y

x = 17

13y

17

13y + y = 2490

30y

13 = 2490 y =

2490×13

30

y = 1079 x = 2490-1079 x=

1411

23. (b): Let the first and Second number

be x and y

X

12=

y

4

x

y=

3

1

Required percentage = 3−1

1×

100 = 200%

24. (c): Let the numbers be x and y.

x ×80

100= y

4x

4= y



x

y=

5

4 [

x = 5Ky = 4K

]

x2+y2=656 25K +16K =656

K = 656

41 K = 4 x = 4×5=20

y = 4×4 = 16

Numbers are 16 and 20

25. (d): Percentage increase in Salary = 900

7200×100

= 100

8= 12

1

2%

26. (d): Let B’s salary be = 100, A’s salary

= 80


80×

100=25%

27. (a): Let the price of petrol be 100

Increase Price = 120

Required Percentage = 120−100

120×

100

= 100

6= 16

2

3%

28. (d): Increase Price = 110

100×

110

100× 100 =

121

29. (a): Commission = 15000×25

200=

15000

8

= 1875 Rs.

30. (d): Increase Monthly income =

5000×130

100

= 6500 Rs.

31. (b): New Price of the article =

15000×92

100

= 13800 Rs.

32. (e): Money left = 100% -20% -

[100%-20%] 25

100%

= 100% -20% -20% = 60%

60% = 480 100% = 480

60×

100 = Rs. 800

33. (d): 15

100×

10

100×

20

100× 1000 = 3

34. (b): Let the number will be x

y

Increased number = x+

120

100x

y+350

100y

=

11

27

220x

100450y

100

x

y=

11

27×

45

22

Original Fraction x

y=

5

6

35. (c): Let the Numbers be x and y. 40

100x =

2

3y

2

5x =

2

3y

x

y=

5

3 x : y = 5: 3

36. (b): Run scores from boundaries and

sixes

= 3×4+8×6=60

Required percentage by Running

between the wickets = 110−60

110×

100 =500

11= 45

5

11%

37. (b): 50

100(x − y) =

30

100(x + y)

5x-5y = 3x+3y 2x= 8y y

x=

1

4


4× 100 =

25%

38. (b): Error = (81.5-81.472)= 0.028

Required percentage = 0.028

81.472×100=0.034%

39. (e): Let the number be x and y

x-y = 1600 75

1000x =

125

1000y

x = 5

3y

5

3y − y = 1600

2y

3 = 1600 y = 2400

x = 1600 + 2400 =4000

40. (c): Let the number be x

65

100x + 21 =

4

5x

4x

5−

13x

20=21



16x−13x

20 = 21

3x

20 =21 x = 140

Average: Average is defined as the sum of different data (terms) divided by total number

of terms

Average= Sum of given terms(S)

Total number of terms(N)

Example: Find the average of given terms 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

Sol. Total number of terms = 5

Average=2+3+4+5+6

5= 4

Some Basic formulae

1. Average of ‘n’ natural numbers = (𝑛+1)

2

2. Average of ‘n’ even numbers = (n+1)

3. Average of ‘n’ odd numbers = n

4. Average of ‘n’ consecutive natural numbers = First number+Last number

2

5. Average of sum of squares of first ‘n’ natural numbers = (n+1)(2n+1)

6

Some Important Points

1. If the value of each number is increased by the same value ‘a’, then the average of all

numbers will also increase by ‘a’.

2. If the value of each number is decreased by the same value ‘a’, then the average of all

numbers will also decrease by ‘a’.

3. If the value of each number is multiplied by the same value ‘a’, then the average of all

numbers will also get multiplied by ‘a’.

4. If the value of each number is divided by the same value ‘a’, then the average of all

numbers will also get divided by ‘a’.

Some useful Formulae

1. If the average of ‘x’ numbers is a and that of ‘y’ numbers is b, then the average of (x +

y) numbers = xa+yb

x+y

CHAPTER

2 AVERAGE



Example: The average of 10 numbers is 15 and that of 15 numbers is 20. Find the

average of all 25 numbers?

Sol: Average=10×5+15×20

10+15=

150+300

25=

450

25= 18

2. If the average of ‘n’ quantities is equal to ‘x’ when a quantity is removed the average

becomes ‘y’. Then the value of the removed quantity is = [n(x-y)+y]

Example: The average of 24 men and 1 woman is equal to 35 years. If 1 woman left,

the average becomes 34 years. Find the age of woman who left the class?

Sol: Age of women = [25(35-34) +34] =59 years

3. If the average of marks obtained by ‘n’ students in an exam is ‘M’. If the average

marks of passed students is ‘P’ and that of failed students is ‘F’. Then the number of

students who failed in exam is n(P−M)

P−F

No. of failed students =Total students(Passed average−Total average)

Passed average−Failed average

Example: The average marks obtained by 125 students in an exam is 29. If the

average marks of passed students is 36 and that of failed students is 11. Find the

number of failed students?

Sol: No of failed students = 125(36−29)

36−11=

125×7

25= 35

4. If a batsman in his nth innings makes a score of ‘s’ and thereby increased his average

by ‘t’ then the average after ‘n’ innings is [s-t(n-1)]

Example: A batsman in his 44th innings makes a score of 86 and thereby increases

his average by 1. Find the average after 44 innings?

Sol: Average after 44th innings = (86-1(44-1) = 86-43=43




1. The arithmetic mean of 15 numbers is

41.4. Then the sum of these numbers

is

a) 414 b) 420 c) 620


2. If 25a + 25b = 115, what is the average

of a and b?

a) 2.5 b) 3.4 c) 4.5


3. Find the average of all the numbers

between 6 and 34 which are divisible

by 5.

a) 18 b) 20 c) 24


4. A motorist covered the first 20 km of

his journey in 30 minutes and the

remaining 29 km in 40 minutes. His

average speed in km/hr is:

a) 413

4 b) 42 c) 49

d )571

6 e) None of these

5. A cyclist goes from a place to another

and returns by the same route. He

pedals his way uniformly with a speed

u while going and with speed v while

returning. The average speed of his

journey is:

a) 𝑢+𝑣

2 b)

𝑢−𝑣

2 c)

11

2(

1

𝑢+

1

𝑣)

d) 1

1

2(

1

𝑢−

1

𝑣) e) None of these

6. The mean of 19 observations is 4. If

one more observation is 24 is added

to the data, the new mean will be:

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6


7. A student bought 4 books for Rs. 120

from one book shop and 6 books for

Rs. 150 from another. The average

price (in rupees), he paid per book

was:

a) 27 b) 27.50 c) 135


8. The average of the price per kg. of rice

at 10 different places was Rs. 4.85.

After a week, the price per kg was

increased by 20 paise at 3 places and

decreased by 10 paise at one place.

The new average of price per kg is:

a) Rs. 4.88 b) Rs. 4.86 c) Rs. 4.90

d) Rs. 5.35 e) None of these

9. The average weight of a group of 20

boys was calculated to be 89.4 kg and

it was later discovered that one

weight was misread as 78 kg instead

of the correct one 87 kg. The correct

average weight is:

a) 88.95 kg b) 89.25 kg c) 89.55 kg

d) 89.85 kg e) None of these

10. A class has 20 boys and 30 girls. The

average age of boys is 11 years and

that of girls is 12 years. What is the

average age of the whole class?

a) 11.6 years

b) 12 years

c) 10 years

d) 11.2 years

e) None of these

11. Find the average of the following set

of scores 253, 124,255, 534, 836, 375,

101, 443, 760

a) 427 b) 413 c) 141


12. What will be the average of even

numbers between 11 to 63?



a) 37.5 b) 47 c) 42


13. Find average of all prime numbers

between 60 and 90

a) 72 b) 74.7 c) 74


14. Average age of 5 boys is 16 yr of

which that of 4 boys is 16 yr 3 months.

The age of the 5th boy is

a) 15 yr

b) 15yr 6months

c) 15yr 4months

d) 15yr 2months

e) None of these

15. The average age of 30 girls is 13 yr.

The average of first 18 girls is 15 yr.

Find out the average age of remaining

12 girls?

a) 12 yr b) 10 yr c) 16 yr

d) 10.5 yr e) None of these

16. The average of 13 results is 60. If the

average of first 7 results is 59 and that

of last 7 results is 61, what will be the

seventh result?

a) 90 b) 50 c) 75


17. The average of nine numbers is 50.

The average of the first five numbers

is 54 and that of the last three

numbers is 52. Then, the sixth number

is?

a) 34 b) 24 c) 44


18. The average age of 30 women

decreases by 3 months if a new person

Neha is included in place of a 25 yrs

old woman. Calculate the age of Neha?

a) 17.5 yr b) 20 yr c) 30 yr

d) 22 yr e) None of these

19. The average salary per head of all

workers of an institution if Rs. 60. The

average salary per head of 12 officers

is Rs. 400. The average salary per

head of the rest is Rs. 56. Then, the

total number of workers in the

institution is?

a) 1030 b) 1032 c) 1062


20. A cricketer scored some runs in his

continuous 9 innings. He scored 100

runs in his 10th innings and this

increased his average by 8 runs. What

was the average of his runs at the end

of 10th innings?

a) 20 b) 24 c) 28


21. The average age of three boys is 15 yr.

If the ratio of their ages is 3:5:7, what

is the age of the oldest boy?

a) 7 yr b) 14 yr c) 20 yr

d) 21 yr e) None of these

22. Nine friends have a dinner in a hotel.

Eight of them spent Rs. 12 each on

their meals and the ninth spent Rs. 16

more than the average expenditure of

all the nine. Find out the total money

spent by them?

a) Rs. 126 b) Rs. 135 c) Rs. 111


23. The average of certain first

consecutive even number is 101. Find

their sum?

a) 25,000 b) 33,600 c) 10,100

d) 24,960 e) none of these

24. The average of certain first

consecutive natural numbers is 20.5.

Find their sum.



a) 282 b) 450 c) 518


25. If the average of m numbers is n2 and

that of n numbers is m2, then the

average of (m+n) numbers is-

a) 𝑚

𝑛 b) m + n c) mn

d) M – n e) None of these

26. A, B, C, D & E are five consecutive even

numbers. Average of A and E is 46.

What is the largest number?

a) 52 b) 42 c) 50


27. Of the three numbers whose average

is 60, the first is one-fourth of the sum

of the others. The first number is

a) 30 b) 36 c) 42


28. The average salary of 15 persons is Rs.

5,500. If the salary of one person is

added, the average increases to Rs.

5,700. What is the salary of this one

person?

a) Rs. 8,700 b) Rs. 9,500 c) Rs. 7,800

d) Rs. 8,500 e) None of these

29. The average weight of 24 students is

35 kgs. If the weight of teacher is

added the average increased by 400

gms. What is the weight of the

teacher?

a) 45 b) 36 c) 54


30. The average of runs of a cricket player

of 10 innings was 32. How many runs

must he score in his next innings so as

to increase his average of runs by 4?

a) 76 b) 70 c) 4


31. 10kg of rice prices at Rs. 12 per kg is

mixed with 6 kg of rice priced at Rs.

16 per kg. Find the average price of

the whole mixture?

a) Rs. 14 per kg

b) Rs. 14.50 per kg

c) Rs. 13 per kg

d) Rs. 13.50 per kg

e) None of these

32. The average of 5 quantities is 6. The

average of three of them is 4. What is

the average of remaining two

quantities?

a) 2 b) 5 c) 9


33. The average of five numbers is 6.9. If

one of the numbers is deleted, the

average of the remaining numbers is

4.4. What is the value of the number

deleted?

a) 12.5 b) 17.2 c) 16.9


34. The average age of Seema, Asha,

Kavita and Atrye is 40 years. The

average age of Seema and Sapna is 35

years and the average age of Asha and

kavita is 42 years. The age of Atrye is?

a) 48 b) 47 c) 46


35. The average of 11 numbers is 10.9. If

the average of the first six is 10.5 and

the average of last six is 11.4, find the

middle (sixth) number.

a) 11 b) 10.6 c) 11.5


36. The average temperature from

Monday to Thursday is 48C and from



Tuesday to Friday, the average

temperature is 52C. If the

temperature on Monday is 42C, what

was it on Friday?

a) 46C b)58C c) 50C

d) 45C e) None of these

37. Find the average of first 25 multiples

of 5.

a) 65 b) 60 c) 75


38. What was the average daily

expenditure of a man in 1999 who

spent Rs. 76535 in the first half year

and Rs. 88165 in the last?

a) Rs. 450 b) Rs. 451.32

c) Rs. 451.23 d) Rs. Rs. 450.23

e) None of these



SOLUTIONS

1. (d): Sum of numbers = (41.4×15) =

621.

2. (e): 25a + 25b = 115 25 (a + b) =

115

a + b= 115

25=

23

5

Average of a and b = 𝑎+𝑏

2=

23

5×

1

2=

23

10=2.3

3. (b): Average = (10+15+20+25+30

5) =

100

5

= 20

4. (b): Total distance covered = (20+29)

km = 49 km

Total time taken = (30+40) min =

70 min

Average speed = (49

70× 60) = 42

km/hr

5. (c): Let one way distance be ‘x’

Total distance = 2x

Total time taken = (x

u+

x

v)

Average speed = 2𝑥

𝑥

𝑢+

𝑥

𝑣

=1

1

2(

1

𝑢+

1

𝑣)

6. (b): New mean = (19×4+24

20) =

100

20 = 5

7. (a): Cost of 10 books = Rs. (120+150)

= Rs 270

Average cost = Rs. (270

10) = Rs. 27

8. (c): The sum of price of per kg rice at

10 different places = 4.85×10=48.5

Increased price = 20×3-10×1 = 50

paise

Sum of the increased price of rice

at 10 different places = 48.50 + 0.50

= 49.0 Rs.

New Average = 49

10 = 4.90 Rs.

9. (d): Total weight of 20 boys =

89.4×20= 1788 kg

Increase in weight due to

misreading

= 87 – 78 = 9 kg

Correct weight of 20 boys =

1788+9=1797 kg

Correct average weight = 1797

20 =

89.85 kg

Shortcut:

Increase in weight = 9 kg

New average = 89.4 + 9

20 = 89.85 kg

10. (a): Sum of the Age of 20 boys =

20×11= 220 years

Sum of the age of 30 girls = 30×12=

360 years

Total age of 20 boys and 30 girls =

220+360 = 580 years

Average age of the whole class = 580

50

= 11.6 years

11. (e): Average

= 253+124+255+534+836+375+101+443+760

9

= 409

12. (d): Total even no = 63−11

2=

52

2 = 26

Sum of the even number between

11 to 63

= 26

2[2 ×12+ (26-1) ×2] =

13[24+50]

= 13×73 = 962

Average of even numbers between

11 to 63

= 962

26 = 37



13. (b): Average of all prime numbers

between 60 to 90

= 61+67+71+73+79+83+89

7=

523

7 = 74.7

14. (a): Total age of 5 boys = 16×5 = 80

years

Total age of 4 boys = (63

12) × 4=

16.25×4 = 65

The age of the 5th boy = 80-65= 15

years

15. (b): Total age of 30 girls = 30×13=

390 years

Total age of 18 girls = 18×15= 270

years

Average age of remaining 12 girls

= 390−270

12

=120

12 = 10 years

16. (d): Sum of the first 13 Results =

13×60=780

Sum of the first 7 Results = 59×7=

413

Sum of the last 7 Results =

7×61=427

7th Result = Sum of first 7

Results + sum of last 7 Results –

Sum of 13 results = 413+427-780

=840 – 780 =60

17. (b): The sum of 9 numbers = 9×50=

450

Sixth number = sum of 9 numbers –

(Sum of first 5 numbers+ sum of

last 3 numbers)

= 450 - (54×5+52×3) = 450 –

(270+156)

= 450 – 426 = 24

18. (a): Average decreases by 3 months

or 3

12 years.

Sum of the age decreased = 30×3

12=

15

2

= 7.5 years.

Age of Neha = 25 – 7.5 = 17.5

19. (b): Let the total number of workers =

x

According to the question

60x = 12×400+56(x-12)

60x-56x= 4800-672

4x= 4128 x = 1032

20. (c): Let average of 9 innings =x, Total

run = 9x

According to the question 9𝑥+100

10 = x+8

9x+100= 10x+80 x = 20

Average after 10 innings = 20+8 =

28

Shortcut:

Average at the end of 10th innings

= (100-9×8) = 28 runs

21. (d): Total age of all the three boys =

3×15 = 45 years

Given ratio of ages = 3: 5: 7 = 7

3+5+7×45 = 21 years.

22. (a): Let average expenditure of 9

person =x


12×8+(x+16) = 9x 8x = 112

x = 112

8 = 14

23. (c): Let the total consecutive even

number = x

Average of consecutive even no =

x+1

x + 1= 101 x = 100

Sum = 101×100= 10100

24. (d): Let the total consecutive natural

number = N



Average of consecutive natural

number

= 𝑁+1

2

𝑁+1

2 = 20.5 N+1= 41 N

=40

Sum = 40×20.5 = 820

25. (c): Sum of m numbers = n2×m

Sum of n numbers = m2×n

Average of (m + n) = n2×m+m2×n

m+n

= mn(n+m)

(n+m) = mn

26. (c): Let A is x

Then E = x+8

According to question 𝑥+𝑥+8

2 = 46 2x = 84 x= 42

27. (b): Let the first no = x

Sum of the other numbers = 4x

According to question 𝑥+4𝑥

3 = 60 5x=180 x= 36

28. (a): Sum of the salary of 15 persons is

=5500 × 15 =82500

Sum of the salary of 16 persons =

5700×16 = 91200

Salary of this one person is = 91200

– 82500 = 8700

29. (a): Total weight of 24 students =

24×35= 840 kg

Total weight after teacher is added

= 25×35.4

= 885 kg

Weight of teacher = 885 – 840 = 45

kg

30. (a): Let the run scored in 11 th

innings = x


10×32+x = 11×(32+4)

320+x = 36×11 x = 396 – 320 =

76

Shortcut:

He must score 32 runs and some

extra runs.

So, in the next innings he should

score:

32+11×4= 76

31. (d): Total price of 10 kg Rice =

12×10= 120

Total price of 6 kg Rice = 16×6 = 96

Average = 120+96

16=

216

16 = 13.50 kg

32. (c): Let the average of remaining two

quantities is y.

According to the question 3×4+2×𝑦

5 = 6 12+2y=30 y = 9

Hence, the average of remaining

two quantities is 9.

33. (c): Average of five numbers.

𝑎+𝑏+𝑐+𝑑+𝑒

5=6.9 a + b + c + d

+ e= 34.5

Let the number is deleted be e. The

average of remaining 4 numbers is

𝑎+𝑏+𝑐+𝑑

4 = 4.4 a + b + c +

d=17.6

Value of deleted number = 34.5 -

17.6 =16.9

34. (c): Total age of Seema + Sapna +

Asha + Kavita + Atrye = 40×5=200

Seema + Sapna= 35×2=70

Asha + Kavita = 42×2=84

Age of Atrye = 200 – (70+84) = 46

years

35. (c): Total first 6 number = 10.5×6=63

Total of last 6 numbers =

11.4×6=68.4



Total of all 11 number=

11×10.9=119.9

Sixth number = 63+68.4 – 119.9 =

11.5

Hence the middle number is = 11.5

36. (b): Total temp of mon + tues + wed +

thus

= 4×48C= 192C

Temp on Mon = 42C

Temp on Tues + Wed + Thus = 192

– 42 =150C

Total temp for Tues + wed + thus +

Fri

= 52×4= 208C

Tem on Friday = 208 – 150 = 58C

37. (a): Sum of first 25 multiples of 5 =

5(1+2+3…..25)

= 5×25×26

2 = 1625 Average =

1625

25 = 65

38. (c): Total expenditure of a man in

year 1999

= 76535 + 88165 = 164700

Average = 164700

365 = 451.23

39. (a): Let the 7th number be x


6×8+x=7×10 x = 70-48=22

40. (c): Total expenditure for first 5

months = 120×5

= 600 Rs.

Total expenditure for next 7

months = 130×7

= 910 Rs.

Total income = Total expenditure of

the whole year + savings.

= 600+910+290=1800 Rs.

Monthly average income = 1800

12 =

Rs. 150



The concepts of time distance are most important in the terms of competitive exams. The

basic concept of time and distance is used in solving the question based on motion in a

straight line. The applications of time & distance are used to solve the problems related to

trains and races.

The relation between time, distance and speed is:

Distance = Time × Speed

i.e., D = T × S Time (T) = Disatnce

Speed Speed (S) = Distnace

Time

Example: A car covers 200 km in 4 hours, then find the speed of the car.

Sol. We know that, Speed (S) = Distance

Time

Required speed = 200

4 = 50km/h

Conversion of units: (i) When we convert km/h into m/ s, we multiply the speed by 5

18 .

i.e, 1km/h= 5

18 m/s.

(ii) When we convert m/s into km/h, we multiply the speed by 185

. i.e,

1m/s = 185 km/h.

Example: Convert 72km/h into m/s.

Sol. We know that, 72km/h= (72 ×5

18 m/s = 4 ×5 = 20m/s

Concept 1:

Average speed: A certain distance is covered at’x’ km/h and the same distance is covered

at ‘y’ km/h then the average speed during the whole journey.

CHAPTER

3 TIME, SPEED AND DISTANCE



Average speed = 2xyx+y km/h

Example: Rohit covers a certain distance by car driving at speed of 40 km/h and he returns

back to the starting point riding on a scooter with a speed of 10 km/hr. Find the average

speed of the whole journey?

Sol. Average speed = 2×40×10

40+10 = 2×400

50 = 16km/hr

Concept 2: A person covers a distance in T hours and the first half at S1 km/h and the

second half at S2 km/h, then the total distance covered by the person.

D = 2×T×S1×S2

S1+S2

Example: A car covers a distance in 10hrs, the first half at 40km/h and the second half at

20km/h. Find the distance travelled by car?

Sol. Distance = 2×10×40×20

40+20 km/h = 2×10×40×20

60 = 266.67km

Concept 3: If two persons P and Q start at the same time in opposite directions from two

points and after passing each they complete their journeys in ‘a’ and ‘b’ hrs respectively

then

P's speedQ's Speed = √𝑏

√𝑎

Example: Shivam sets out to cycle from Delhi to Ghaziabad and at the same time Hemant

starts from Ghaziabad to Delhi, after passing each other they complete their journeys in 4

and 16 hours respectively. At what rate does Hemant cycle if Shivam cycle at 18km per

hour?

Sol. Shivam's speedHemant's speed =

√16

√4

18Hemant's speed =

42 Hemant’s speed =

182 = 9km/h

Concept 4: If a man travelled a certain distance by bus at a rate of x km/h and walked back

at the rate of ‘y’ km/h. If the whole journey took ‘t’ hours, then the distance he travelled is (

xyx+y ) t km.

Example: A man travelled a certain distance by train at a rate of 15km/h and walked back

at the rate of 12 km/h. The whole journey took 9 hours. Find the distance he travelled?



Sol. Required distance = (xy

x+y ) t = (15×1215+12 ) 9 =

15×12×927 = 60km

Concept 5: If a person changes his speed to ab of its usual speed and late by T minutes,

then the usual time taken by him is 𝑇

𝑏

𝑎−1

[𝑎

𝑏< 1] and when [

𝑎

𝑏> 1] then the usual time taken

by him is 𝑇

1−𝑏

𝑎

Example: Walking 45 of his usual speed, a man is 16 minutes late. Find the usual time taken

by him o cover that distance?

Sol: Usual time = 𝑇

𝑏

𝑎−1

= 16

5

4−1

=16×4

5−4=

16×4

1 = 64 minutes.

Concept 6: (i) If speed is constant, then distance is directly proportional to the time; D∝ T

(ii) If time is constant, ten distance is directly proportional to the speed; D∝ S

(iii) If Distance is constant, then speed is inversely proportional to the time; S ∝1

𝑇

Example: A person covers a certain distance with a speed of 54 km/h in 15 min. If he

wants to cover the same distance in 30 min, what should be his speed?

Sol. We know that, Distance = Speed × Time = 54 × 1560 =

910 × 15 =

272 km

Speed to cover 272 km in 30 min =

27

230

60

=27

2× 2 = 27km/h

Concept 7: (i) When a train passes a pole or any other object, the distance covered by train

is equal to the length of the train.

(ii) If a train passes a bridge, platform etc, then distance travel by train is equal to

the sum of the length of train and the stationary object through which the train is passing.

Example: A 100 m long train passes a platform of 200 m long. Find the distance covered by

the train in passing the platform?

Sol. Required distance= length of train + length of platform = 100 + 200 = 300m



Concept 8: (i) When two trains are moving is opposite directions, then their relative speed

is equal to the sum of the speed of both trains.

(ii) When two trains are moving is same directions, then their relative speed is

equal to the difference of the speed of both trains.

Example: Two trains are moving in the same direction with speed of 40km/ h and 50 km

/h respectively. Find the relative speed?

Sol. Required relative speed = (50-40) km/h= 10km/h

Concept 9: Two trains start at the same time from P and Q and proceed towards each

other at the rate of x km/h and y km/h respectively. When they meet it is found that one as

travelled D km more than the other. The Distance between P and Q is ( x+yx-y ) D,

Distance = Sum of speeds

Difference of speed × Difference in distance

Example: Two trains start at the same time from Kanpur and Delhi and proceed towards

each other at the rate of 74 km/h and 47 km / h respectively. When they meet it is found

that the train has travelled 13km more than the other. Find the distance b/w Kanpur and

Delhi?

Sol. Required Distance = Sum of speeds

Difference of speeds × Difference in Distance = 73+4773-47 × 13 =

12026

×13 = 60km

Concept 10: When the speed of two trains is in the ratio x: y. They are moving in opposite

directions on parallel tracks. The first train crosses a telegraph pole in‘t’ seconds where as

the second train crosses the pole in ‘t2’ seconds. Time taken by the trains to cross each

other completely is given by Time taken = t1x+t2y

x+y = 3×4+3×5

4+5 = 279 = 3 seconds.

Example: The speed of two trains is in the ratio 4:5. They are moving in opposite

directions along the parallel tracks. If each takes 3 seconds to cross a pole. Find the time

taken by the train to cross each other completely?

Sol: Time taken = (𝑡1𝑥+𝑡2𝑦

𝑥+𝑦) =

3×4+3×5

4+5=

27

9= 3 seconds.




1. A man travels first 50 km at 25 kmph,

next 40 km at 20 kmph and then 90

km at 15 kmph. His average speed for

the whole journey (in kmph) is:

(a) 25

(b) 20

(c) 18

(d) 40

(e) None of these

2. A man walks at the rate of 5km/hr for

6 hours and at 4km/hr for 12 hours.

The average speed of the man (in

km/hr) is:

a) 4

b) 412

c) 413

d) 423

e) None of these

3. If a person travels 1015 km in 3 hours,

then the distance covered by him in 5

hours will be:

a) 18 km b) 17km c) 16km

d) 15 km e) None of these

4. If a train 110m long passes a telegraph

pole in 3 seconds, then the time taken

(in seconds) by it to cross a railway

platform 165 m long, is:

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5


5. A train 700 m long is running at the

speed of 72km/hr. If it crosses a

tunnel in 1 minute, then the length of

the tunnel (in meters) is:

a) 700 b) 600 c) 550


6. If a 200 m long train crosses a

platform of the same length as that of

the train in 20 seconds, then the speed

of the train is :

a) 50 km/hr

b) 60 km/hr

c) 72 km/hr

d) 80 km/hr

e) None of these

7. Two trains, each of length 125 meter,

are running in parallel tracks in

opposite directions. One train is

running at a speed 65 km/hour and

they cross each other in 6 seconds.

The speed of the other train is:

a) 75 km/hr

b) 85 km/hr

c) 95 km/hr

d) 105 km/hr

e) None of these

8. A man with 35 of his usual speed

reaches the destination 212 hours late.

Find his usual time to reach the

destination?

a) 4 hours b) 3 hours c) 334

d)412 e) None of these

9. A train running at 7

11 of its normal

speed reached a place in 22 hours.

How much time could be saved if the



train would have run at its normal

speed?

a) 14 hours

b) 7 hours

c) 8 hours

d) 16 hours

e) None of these

10. Walking at three-fourth of his usual

speed, a man covers certain distance

in 2 hours more than the time he takes

to cover the distance at his usual

speed. The time taken by him to cover

the distance with his usual speed is:

a) 4.5 hours

b) 5.5 hours

c) 6 hours

d) 5 hours

e) None of these

11. A man goes from a place A to B at a

speed of 12 km/ hr and returns from

B to A at a speed of 18 km/hr. The

average speed for the whole journey

is:

a) 1425 km/hr

b) 15 km/hr

c) 15 12 km/hr

d) 16 km/hr

e) None of these

12. Two trains started at the same time,

one from A to B and the other from B

to A. If they arrived at B and A

respectively 4 hours and 9 hours after

they passed each other, the ratio of

the speeds of the two trains was:

a) 2:1 b) 3:2 c) 4:3

d)5:4 e) None of these

13. A starts from a place P to go to a place

Q. At the same time B starts from Q to

P. If after meeting each other A and B

took 16 and 25 hours more

respectively to reach their

destinations, the ratio of their speeds

is:

a) 3:2 b) 5:4 c) 9:4


14. A train of 320 m cross a platform in 24

seconds at the speed of 120 km/h.

While a man cross platform in 4

minute. What is the speed of man in

m/s?

a) 2.4 b) 1.5 c) 1.6


15. A car travel first 39 km distance in 45

minute while next 25 km distance in

35 minutes. What is its average speed?

a) 45 km/h

b) 35 km/h

c) 48 km/h

d) 90 km/h

e) None of these

16. A 280 m long train moving with an

average speed of 108 km/h cross a

platform in 12 seconds. A boy crosses

the same platform in 10 seconds.

What is the speed of boy in m/s?

a) 5 m/s b) 8 m/s c) 10 m/s

d) Cannot be determined

e) None of these

17. A truck cover 224 km in 4 hours, the

average speed of a bike is 14 th the

average speed of the truck how much

distance will the bike cover in seven

hour?



a) 96 km b) 98 km c) 95 km


18. If a person walks at 14 km/h instead

of 10 km/h he would have walked 20

km more. The actual distance

travelled by him is:

a) 85 km b) 50 km c) 80 km


19. Train fare between Patna to Munger

for one adult is three times the train

fair of one child. If adult fare is 102

then. What will be the fare of 2 adult

and 3 children together for same

distance?

a) 306 b) 212 c) 206


20. A car travels a distance of 75 km at the

speed of 25 km/h. It covers the next

25 km of its journey at the speed of 5

km/h and the last 50 km of its journey

at the speed of 25 km/h. What is the

average speed of car?

a) 15 km/h

b) 12.5 km/h

c) 40 km/h

d) 25 km/h

e) None of these

21. If the length of the train is 700 m and

length of platform is 500 m. Find the

time taken by the train moving at 54

km/h to cross platform.

a) 75 sec b) 80 sec c) 85 sec

d) 90 sec e) None of these

22. Amit start to go Delhi from Patna at

speed of 50 km/h. Distance between

Delhi and Patna is 1000 km. He takes

rest of 20 minutes every 3 hours of

journey. How much time will he take

to arrive Delhi?

a) 20 hours

b) 21 hours

c) 22 hours

d) 23 hours

e) None of these

23. A car covers a distance of 330 km in a

certain amount of time at speed of 55

km/h. What is the average speed of

bike that cover distance of 15 km less

than car in 1 hour less than time taken

by car?

a) 50 km/h

b) 60 km/h

c) 63 km/h

d) 65 km/h

e) None of these

24. A car travelling at a speed of 40 km/h

can complete a journey in 9 hours.

How long will it take to travel the

same distance at 60 km/h?

a) 6 hours b) 3 hours c) 4 hours

d) 414 hours e) None of these

25. A 75, meter long train is moving at 20

kmph. It will cross a man standing on

the platform in

a) 12 seconds

b) 14 seconds

c) 13.5 seconds

d) 15.5 seconds

e) None of these

26. In what time will a train 100 meter

long cross an electric pole, if its speed

be 144 km/hour?

a) 2.5 seconds

b) 5 seconds

c) 12.5 seconds



d) 3 seconds

e) None of these

27. A train running at a speed of 60 kmph

crosses a platform double its length in

32.4 seconds. What is the length of the

platform?

a) 180 m b) 240 m c) 360 m

d) 90 m e) None of these

28. A train running at the speed of 66

kmph crosses a signal pole in 18

seconds. What is the length of the

train?

a) 330 m b) 300 m c) 360 m


29. Two trains of equal length take 10

seconds and 15 seconds respectively

to cross a telegraph post. If the length

of each train be 120 meters, in what

time (in seconds) will they cross each

other travelling in opposite direction?

a) 16 sec b) 15 sec c) 12 sec

d) 10 sec e) None of these

30. A man covers a certain distance by car

driving at 70 km/hr and he returns to

the starting point riding on a scooter

at 55 km/hr. Find his average speed

for the whole journey.

a) 61.6 km/h

b) 62.8 km/h

c) 63.6 km/h

d) 64.6 km/hr

e) None of these

31. A boy walking at a speed of 10 km/hr

reaches his school 15 minutes late.

Next time he increases his speed by 2

km/hr, but still he is late by 5 minutes.

Find the distance of his school from

his house.

a) 10 km b) 15 km c) 20 km


32. A motor car does a journey in 10 hrs,

the first half at 21 km/hr and the

second half at 24 km/hr. Find the

distance?

a) 224 km b) 225 km c) 226 km


33. Two men A and B starts from a place P

walking at 3 km and 3.5 km an hour

respectively. How many kms will they

be apart at the end of 3 hrs, if they

walk in opposite directions?

a) 13.5 km b) 15.5 km c) 17.5 km

d) 19.5 km e) None of these

34. What is the length of the bridge on

which a man riding 15 km an hour can

cross in 5 minutes?

a) 850 m b) 1050 m c) 1250 m

d) Can’t be determined

e) None of these

35. A train moving with the speed of 180

km/hr. Its speed (in meters per

second) is:

a) 5 b) 40 c) 30


36. If a train, with a speed of 60 km/hr,

crossed a pole in 30 second, the length

of the train (in meters) is:

a) 1000 b) 900 c) 750


37. Two trains are moving in the same

direction at 50 km/hr and 30 km/hr.

The faster train crossed a man in the

slower train 18 seconds. Find the

length the faster train?

a) 80 m b) 90 m c) 100 m


e) None of these



38. A train running at 25 km/hr takes 18

seconds to pass a platform. Next, it

takes 12 seconds to pass a man

walking at 5 km/hr in the opposite

direction. Find the sum of the length of

the train and that of the platform?

a) 125 m b) 135 m c) 145 m


39. A train is travelling at a rate of 45

km/hr. How many seconds, it will take

to cover a distance of 4/5 km?

a) 36 second

b) 64 second

c) 90 second

d) 120 second

e) None of these

40. A 570 metre long train crosses a

platform of equal length in 15

seconds. What is the speed of the train

in metres/second?

a) 38 b) 54 c) 76




SOLUTIONS

1. (c): Average speed = 50+40+9050

25+

40

20+

90

15

=180

2+2+6=

180

10 = 18 kmph

2. (c): Average speed = 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒

𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 =

5×6+4×12

6+12

=30+48

18=

78

18=

13

3= 4

1

3 Km/hr

3. (b): Speed = 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒

𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒=

101

5

3=

51

5×

1

3=

17

5 Km/hr

Required distance = speed × time

= 17

5×5 = 17 km

4. (d): Speed of the train = 110

3 m/sec

Required time = (165+110)

110×3

= 275

110×3 = 7.5 sec

5. (d): ( Length of the 1st train + Length

of the tunnel)

= speed × time

x +700= 72×5

18× (1 × 60)

x + 700= 20×60

x + 700 = 1200 x = 1200-700

x= 500 meters.

6. (c): Speed of the train = 200+200

20

= 400

2 = 20 m/sec = 20×

18

5 km/hr

= 72 km/hr

7. (b): Since the trains are moving in

opposite direction

Relative speed = speed of first train +

speed of second train

Let speed of second train = x km/hr

(65+x) ×5

18=

125+125

6 , (65+x) ×

5

18=

250

6

(65+x)= 150 x = 150-65 x = 85

km/hr

8. (c): Let usual time = t, distance = d,

and speed = s

s = d

t …… (i)

and 3

5s =

d

t+21

2

….. (ii)

From equation (i)÷ equation (ii)

s3

5s

=d

td

t+52

5

3=

t+5

2

t 5t = 3t +

15

2

2t = 15

2 t =

15

4= 3

3

4 hours.

9. (c): At normal speed, Let usual time = t

s = d

t …… (i)

and 7

11s =

d

22 ….. (ii)


s7

11s

=d

td

22

11

7=

22

t t = 14 Hours

Saved time = (22-14) hrs = 8 hrs

10. (c): Let required time = t hours,

s = d

t …… (i)

3

4s =

d

(t+2) ….. (ii)

s3

4s

=d

td

(t+2)

4

3=

t+2

t

4 t = 3t + 6 t = 6 Hours

11. (a): Average speed = 2𝑥𝑦

𝑥+𝑦=

2×12×18

(12+18)

=72

5= 14

2

5 Km/hr

12. (b): From the formula-

Required ratio = √𝑏: √𝑎

= √9 ∶ √4 = 3: 2

13. (b): Required ratio = √𝑏: √𝑎

= √25 ∶ √16 = 5: 4

14. (d): Let length of the platform = x m



120×5

18=

320+𝑥

24

800= 320+x x = 480 m

Speed of the man = 480

4×60=

120

60 = 2.0

m/sec

15. (c): Average speed

= 39+25

(45+35)×1

60

=64×60

80 = 48 km/hr

16. (b): Let length of the platform = x

108×5

18=

280+𝑥

12 360=

280+x

x = 80 meters

Speed of the boy = 80

10 = 8 m/sec

17. (b): Speed of the truck = 224

4 = 56

km/hr

Average speed of the bike = 56

4 = 14

km/hr

Required distance = 14×7= 98 km

18. (b): When person walks at 14 km/hr

14 = 𝑑

𝑡 …… (i)

Now speed = 10 km/hr

10 = (𝑑+20)

𝑡 ….. (ii)

From eq (i)÷ eq (ii)

14

10=

𝑑

𝑡(𝑑+20)

𝑡

14

10=

𝑑

𝑑+20 4d+280= 10d 4d = 280

𝑑 = 70 Km

Actual distance = 70-20=50 km

19. (a): Given adult fair = 102

Child fair = 102

3 = 34

Required fair = 2(102) +3(34) =

204+102=306

20. (a): Average speed

= 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒

𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒=

75+25+5075

25+

25

5+

50

25

=150

3+5+2=

150

10 = 15 kmph

21. (b): Speed = 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒

𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 , 54×

5

18=

700+500

𝑡

t = 1200

15 sec t = 80 sec

22. (c): Running time = 1000

50 = 20 hrs

No. of times that he will rest = 20

3≈6

Rest time = 6×20 = 120 min = 2

hours

Total time = (20+2) = 22 hrs

23. (c): Time taken by car = 330

55 = 6 hrs

Average speed of bike = 330−15

6−1=

315

5

= 63 km/hr

24. (a): distance = 40×9= 360 km

Required time = 360

60 = 6 hrs

25. (c): Speed = 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒

𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 20×

5

18=

75

𝑡

t = 75×18

100=

54

4 = 13.5 seconds

26. (a): Let required time = t

144×5

18=

100

𝑡 t = 2.5 seconds

27. (c): Speed = 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒

𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒

Let length of the platform = 2x m 60×5

18=

𝑥+2𝑥

32.4 3x = 1.8×60×5

3x=90×6

x = 30×6= 180 m

Length of the platform = 2x= 360 m

28. (a): Speed = 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒


5

18=

𝑑

18

d = 330 m

29. (c): Speed of first time (S1) =120

10 = 12

m/sec

Speed of second train (S2) = 120

15 = 8

m/sec



Required time = 120+120

(12+8)=

240

20 = 12

m/sec


𝑥+𝑦 =

2×70×55

125

= 61.6 km/hr

31. (a): Let distance = d, time = t

10 = 𝑑

𝑡+15

60

…… (i)

12 = 𝑑

𝑡+5

60

….. (ii)

From eq (i)÷ eq (ii)

10

12=

𝑡+1

12

𝑡+1

4

10

12=

4×(12𝑡+1)

12(4𝑡+1) t =

3

4 hr

d = 10× (3

4+

15

60) = 10 ×

60

60 = 10 km

Shortcut:

Let distance = d 𝑑

10−

𝑑

12=

10

60 d = 10 km


𝑥+𝑦=

2×21×24

45

=112

5 Km/hr

Distance = 112

5×10 km = 224 km

33. (d): Relative speed = (3+3.5) km/hr =

6.5 km/hr

Time = 3 hrs

Required time = (6.5×3)= 19.5 km

34. (c): Let length of the bridge = x

Speed = 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒

𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 15=

𝑥

5×60

x = 75

60 km =

5

4 km =

5

4×1000 x =

1250 m

35. (d): Speed in meters per second

= 180×5

18 = 50 m/sec

36. (d): Speed = 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒


5

18=

𝑑

30

d = 500m

37. (c): Relative speed of the trains

= (50-30) = 20 km/hr = 20×5

18 m/sec

38. (a): Let length of the train = L1

(25+5) ×5

18=

𝐿1

12

150

18=

𝐿1

12

L1= 100m

25 ×5

18=

100+𝐿2

18 100+L2=125

L2= 25m

Required length (100+25) = 125m

39. (b): Time = 4

5×

1

45 hrs

= 4

5×

1

45× 60 × 60 sec = 64 seconds

40. (c): Speed of the train = 570+570

15

= 1140

15 76 m/sec



The comparison between two quantities in terms of magnitude is called ratio.

For example, Mohit has 5 pens and Amit has 3 pens. It means the ratio of number of pens

between Mohit and Amit is 5 is to 3. It can be expressed as 5:3.

So the ratio of any two quantities is expresses as 𝑎

𝑏 or a: b. The numerator ‘a’ is called the

antecedent and denominator ‘b’ is called as consequent.

Rule of Ratio: The comparison of two quantities is meaningless if they are not of the same

kind or in the same units (of length, volume or currency etc.). We do not compare 5 girls

and 7 toys or 15 kilometers and 3 cows. Therefore, to find the ratio of two quantities (of the

same kind), it is necessary to explain them in same units.

Properties of Ratio:

1. The nature of ratio does not change when the numerator and denominator both are

multiplied by same quantities.

i.e., 𝑎

𝑏=

𝑘𝑎

𝑘𝑏=

𝑙𝑎

𝑙𝑏 etc e.g.

3

4=

6

8=

9

12….. etc have the same ratio.

2. The value of a ratio does not change when the numerator and denominator both are

divided by same quantities.

i.e., 𝑎

𝑏=

𝑎/𝑘

𝑏/𝑘=

𝑎/𝑙

𝑏/𝑙 etc e.g.

3

4=

3/2

4/2=

3/3

4/3….. etc are in the same ratio.

3. The ratio of two fractions can be expressed in ratio of integers.

e.g. 3/4

5/4=

3

4×

4

5=

3

5 etc

𝑎/𝑏

𝑏/𝑎=

𝑎

𝑏×

𝑑

𝑐

4. When two or more than two ratio are multiplied with each other, then it is called

compounded ratio e.g., 2

3×

4

5×

6

7=

16

35 is compounded ratio of

2

3,

4

5,

6

7

So, 𝑎

𝑏×

𝑑

𝑐×

𝑒

𝑓 …. =

𝑘

𝑚 (compound ratio)

5. When the ratio is compounded with itself, it is called as duplicate, triplicate ratio etc.

𝑎

𝑏×

𝑑

𝑐=

𝑎2

𝑏2=(𝑎

𝑏)

2

is called duplicate ratio of 𝑎

𝑏 and

𝑎

𝑏×

𝑎

𝑏×

𝑎

𝑏= (

𝑎

𝑏)

3

is called triplicate

ratio of 𝑎

𝑏 similarly √(

𝑎

𝑏)=(

𝑎

𝑏) is called as sub-duplicate ratio and √(

𝑎

𝑏)

3= (

𝑎

𝑏)

1

3 is

called as sub-triplicate ratio of 𝑎

𝑏.

CHAPTER

4 RATION AND PROPORTION



If four quantities a, b, c and d form a proportion, many other proportions may be

deduced by the properties of fraction. The results of these operations are very

useful. These operations are

1. Inverterdo: if 𝑎

𝑏=

𝑐

𝑑 the

𝑏

𝑎=

𝑑

𝑐

2. Alternado: if 𝑎

𝑏=

𝑐

𝑑 then

𝑎

𝑐=

𝑏

𝑑

3. Componendo: if 𝑎

𝑏=

𝑐

𝑑 , then (

𝑎+𝑏

𝑏) = (

𝑐+𝑑

𝑑)

4. Dividendo: if 𝑎

𝑏=

𝑐

𝑑 , then (

𝑎−𝑏

𝑏) = (

𝑐−𝑑

𝑑)

5. Componendo and Dividendo: if 𝑎

𝑏=

𝑐

𝑑 , then (

𝑎+𝑏

𝑎−𝑏) = (

𝑐+𝑑

𝑐−𝑑)

Concept 1: If two numbers are in the ratio of a:b and the sum of these numbers

is x, then these numbers will be 𝑎𝑥

𝑎+𝑏 and

𝑏𝑥

𝑎+𝑏 respectively.

Example: Two numbers are in the ratio of 4:5. If sum of these two numbers is

810, find the numbers?

Sol: Ratio of two numbers = 4:5

Sum= 810

First number = 𝑎𝑥

𝑎+𝑏=

4×810

4+5=360

Second number = 𝑏𝑥

𝑎+𝑏=

5×810

4+5=450

Example: a: b=3:4 and b: c=2:5. Find the a: b: c?

Sol: a : b = 3 : 4

b : c = 2 : 5

a : b : c =3×2: 4×2: 4×5

=6: 8: 20

=3: 4: 10

Example: a: b= 1:2, b: c = 3:2, and c: d=1:3. Find a: b: c: d?

Sol: a b c d

1 2 2 2

3 3 2 2

1 1 1 3

a: b: c: d=1×3×1:2×3×1:2×2×1:2×2×3

=3: 6: 4: 12




1. The total number of students in a

school is 2140. If the number of girls

in the school is 1200, then what is the

ratio of the total number of boys to the

total number of girls in the school?

a) 18: 13 b) 26: 25 c) 47: 60

d) 31: 79 e) None of these

2. A person spends Rs. 8100 in buying

some tables at Rs. 1200 each and

some chairs at Rs. 300 each. The ratio

of the number of chairs to that of

tables when the maximum possible

number of tables is purchased is

a) 1: 2 b) 1: 4 c) 2: 1


3. The ratio of boys and girls in a club is

3:2. Which of the following could be

the actual number of members?

a) 16 b) 18 c) 24


4. One year ago the ratio of Ramu and

Somu age was 6:7 respectively. Four

years hence their ratio would become

7:8. How old is Somu?

a) 24 years b) 30 years

c) 32 years d) 36 years

e) None of these.

5. If 33% of A is equal to 55% of B then

find the ratio of A and B?

a) 3:5 b) 5:3 c) 3:4


6. What is the value of 68% of two fifth

of 550?

a) 149.6 b) 150 c) 154


7. If 24 is deducted from 45% of a

number result becomes 48. What will

be 3

8 part of that number?

a) 140 b) 130 c) 145

d) 150 e) 60

8. 30% of a number is 190.8. What will

be 175% of that number?

a) 1113 b) 1115 c) 1502


9. What will be 32% of 3

8 th of 1000?

a) 115 b) 125 c) 120


10. Two numbers are respectively 20%

and 50% more than a third number.

The ratio of the two numbers is:

a) 2:5 b) 3:5 c) 4:5


11. A sum of money is to be distributed

among A, B, C, D in the proportion of

5: 2: 4: 3. If C gets Rs. 1000 more than

D, what is B’s share?

a) Rs 500 b) Rs 1500 c) Rs 2000

d) Rs 2400 e) None of these

12. If 0.75: x: : 5:8, then x is equal to:

a) 1.12 b) 1.2 c) 1.25


13. The sum of three numbers is 98. If the

ratio of the first to second is 2: 3 and

that of the second to the third is 5: 8,

Then the second number is:

a) 20 b) 30 c) 48


14. If Rs. 872 is divided into three parts,

proportional to 1

2:2

3:3

4, then the first part

is:

a) Rs 182 b) Rs. 190 c) Rs. 196




15. The fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 is:

a) 18 b) 24 c) 19


16. Two numbers are in the ratio 3: 5. If 9

is subtracted from each, then new

numbers are in the ratio 12: 23. The

smallest number is:

a) 27 b) 33 c) 49


17. If a number is reduced by 40% it

become two third of another number.

What is ratio of the second number to

first number?

a) 6: 10 b) 9:8 c) 8:9


18. 5𝑎+3𝑏

2𝑎−3𝑏=

23

5 then the value of a: b is:

a) 1:2 b) 1:3 c) 1:4

d)2:3 e) None of these

19. If P:Q=8:15 and Q: R = 3:2, then find

P:Q:R?

a) 8:15:7 b) 7:15:8 c) 8:15:10

d) 10:15:8 e) None of these

20. If P:Q = 8:15, Q:R = 5:8, and R:S = 4:5,

then P:S is equal to:

a) 4:15 b) 2:15 c) 3:19


21. Find the 4th proportional to 4, 16 and

7?

a) 28 b) 29 c) 22


22. Find the mean proportional between 9

and 64?

a) 25 b) 24 c) 27


23. What will be the duplicate ratio of 2:7?

a) 4:49 b) 49:4 c) 4:14


24. Find the sub-duplicate ratio of 81: 64?

a) 8:9 b) 4:9 c) 9:8


25. Find the triplicate ratio of 7:5?

a) 125:343 b) 343:125 c) 344:125


26. What will be the inverse ratio of 17:

19?

a) 19:17 b) 18:17 c) 17:18


27. Find the compound ratio of 2:7, 5:3

and 4:7?

a) 147:40 b) 40:147 c) 147:30


28. If A: B = 3:4 and B: C= 8:9, then find

the value of A :B:C?

a) 3:4:5 b) 1:2:3 c) 7:12:17

d) 6:8:9 e) None of the above

29. If a:b = 3:5 and b:c = 4:7, then a:c is

equal to:

a) 11:35 b) 35:11 c) 35:12

d) 12:35 e) None of the above

30. If P: Q: R =2:3:4, then find 𝑃

𝑄 :

𝑄

𝑅:

𝑅

𝑃?

(a) 8:9:24 (b) 9:8:24 (c) 24:8:9

(d)8:24:9 (e) None of these

31. If 𝑎

3=

𝑏

8, then (a+3): (b=8) is equal to:

a) 3:8 b) 8:3 c) 5:8


32. The ratio of 43.5:25 is same is:

a) 2:1 b) 4:1 c) 7:5


33. If 2:x :: 5:7, then x is equal to:

a) 1.12 b) 2.80 c) 1.25


34. The salaries of A, B, C are in the ratio

of 2:3:5. If the increments of 15%,

10% and 20% are allowed

respectively in their salaries, then



what will be the new ratio of their

salaries?

a) 3:3:10 b) 10:11:20 c) 23:33:60

d)25:27:29 e) None of these

35. If Rs. 782 be divided into three parts,

proportional to 1

2:

2

3:

3

4, then the first

part is:

a) Rs. 182 b) Rs. 190 c) Rs. 196


36. Two numbers are in the ratio 1:2. If 7

is added to both, they changes to 3: 5.

The greater number is:

a) 24 b) 26 c) 28


37. The ratio of three numbers is 3:4:5

and the sum of their squares is 1250.

The sum of the numbers is:

a) 30 b) 50 c) 60


38. Sachin is younger than Rahul by 4

years. If their ages are in the

respective ratio of 7:9, how old is

Sachin?

a) 16 years

b) 18 years

c) 14 years

d) 15 years

e) None of these

39. At present, the ratio between the ages

of Arun and Deepak is 4:3. After 6

years. Arun’s age will be 26 years.

What is the age of Deepak at present?

a) 12 years

b) 15 years

c) 19 1

2 years

d) 21 years

e) None of these

40. Present ages of X and Y are in the ratio

of 5: 6 respectively. Seven year hence

this ratio will become 6: 7

respectively. What is X’s present age

in years?

a) 35 b) 42 c) 49


e) None of these



SOLUTIONS

1. (c): Number of girls = 1200. Number of boys = 2140 – 1200 = 940 Require Ratio = 940: 1200 = 47: 60

2. (a): Maximum possible number of tables = 6 [∵1200×6=7200] Number of chairs purchased = 8100−7200

300=

900

300 = 3

Hence, required ratio = 3: 6 = 1: 2 3. (d): The total number of members

must be a multiple of the sum of the ratio terms. 3+2=5 and 25 is a multiple of 5.

4. (d); Let present ages of Ramu and Somu be R and S respectively.

(R-1) : (S-1)6:7

One year ago→ R : S

↓ : ↓ Four years hence

(R+4) : (S+4) 7:8

R−1

S−1=

6

7

R+4

S+4=

7

8

7R-7= 6S-6 8R+32= 7S+28

7R-6S=1 8R-7S=-4

7R-6S=1 …..(i)

8R-7S=-4 …..(ii)

Multiplying equation (i) by 8 and equation (ii) by 7, we get →

56R-48S=8 …(iii)

56R-49S= -28 …(iv)

Subract (iv) from (iii) : S= 36 years

Shortcut:

One year ago→ R: S 6:7 S=7

Only option (d) has a number from which, if we subtract ‘1’, we get a number divisible by 7.

5. (b); 33% of A= 33×𝐴

100 =

55×𝐵

100= 55% of B

=33×A

100 =

55×B

100

A

B =

55

33

A: B 5: 3

6. (a); 68% of two fifth of 550

=68 × (2

5× 550) =

68×220

100 =

748

5 =

149.6

7. (e); Let, number is ‘n’

45𝑛

100 - 24 = 48

9𝑛

20 -24 =48

9n-480 =48 x 20 9n =960 +480

n = 1440

9=160

3

8𝑛=

3

8×160 = 60

8. (a); 30% of the number = 190.8

1% of that number = 190.8

30

175% of that number = 1908

300×175 =

159×7= 1113

9. (c); 3

8×1000 = 375 32% of

(3

8th of 1000)

= 32% of 375 = 32×375

100 = 120

10. (c); Let the third number be n.

20% more than n = n + n

5 =

6n

5

50% more than n = n + 𝑛

2 =

3𝑛

2



Ratio of 6n

5 and

3n

2

6n

5×

2

3n = 4:5

Shortcut

Let the third number be 100

Then the two numbers are,

20% more than 50% more

⇓ ⇓

120 150

Ratio = 120: 150 = 4:5

11. (c); A:B:C:D 5:2:4:3

C gets 1 unit more than D.

Given, C gets Rs. 1000 more than D.

1 unit = Rs, 1000 B’s share = 2 units

= 2 × 1000 = Rs 2000

12. (b); 0.75 : x : : 5:8

0.75

𝑥=

5

8 5x = 6.00 x = 1.2

13. (b); Three numbers = I, II, III I+II+III=98, I: II→ 2: 3, II: III→5: 8 10:15 ⇐ (2:3) x 5 ← (I: II) × 5 15:24 ⇐ (5:8) x 3← (II: III) × 3 I: II : III, 10:15:24, 10 +15+ 24 =49 Given I+II+III = 98, 98÷ 49 = 2 1 unit = 2 Second number = 15 x 2 = 30

14. (e); 1

2:

2

3:

3

4

LCM of 2, 3 and 4 = 12 On multiplying by a number throughout, the ratio remains same. Here, we multiply by 12 1

2 × 12:

2

3×12:

3

4×12

6: 8: 9 6+8+9 =23 23 units = 872 1 unit = 37.91

1st part = 6 units = 6 × 37.91 = 227.46

15. (b); Fourth proportional to 5, 8, 15 5: 8:: 15: ? 5

8 =

15

𝑥 x = 24

16. (b); Let the two numbers be a and b 𝑎

𝑏 =

3

5 5a = 3b … (i)

𝑎−9

𝑏−9 =

12

23 23a – 207 = 12b – 108

23a -12b = 99 …. (ii)

b = 5𝑎

3 From (i) …. (iii)

Using (ii) and (iii)

23a – 12 × 5𝑎

3 = 99 3a = 99 a =33

Shortcut Given = Two numbers are in the ratio = 3: 5 ↓ Smaller number must be a multiple of 3 Only options (a) and (b) have ‘3’ as a factor. Given: On subtracting 9 from each, the two numbers are in the ratio 12:23 On subtracting 9 from 27 → option (a), We get 18, but the ratio becomes 12: 23, So option (a) → discarded. On subtracting 9 from 33 → option (b), We get 24 ↓ Multiple of 12.

17. (e); Let the two numbers be a and b.

a- (40% of a) = 2

3b

a- 40𝑎

100=

2

3b

60𝑎

100 =

2

3b

𝑏

𝑎 =

60×3

2×100=

9

10

Ratio of the second number to the first number =9:10



18. (e); 5a+3b

2a−3b =

23

5

Dividing numerator and denominator by ‘b’ 5(

a

b)+3

2(a

b)−3

= 23

5

Let 𝑎

𝑏 = x

5x−3

2x−3 =

23

5

25x + 15 = 46x -69 21x = 84

x = 4 𝑎

𝑏 = 4 a: b 4:1

19. (c) ; P: Q = 8:15 P: Q: R =? Q: R = 3:2) × 5 Q: R = 15: 10 P: Q = 8: 15 15:10 = Q: R P: Q: R = 8:15:10

20. (a); P: Q = 8: 15 ….(i) Q: R = 5: 8) × 3 Q: R = 15:24 … (ii) From (i) and (ii) P: Q: R = 8: 15: 24 … (iii) R: S = 4: 5) × 6 24:30 …. (iv) P: Q: R = 8: 15: 24 24: 30 = R: S P: Q: R: S = 8: 15: 24: 30 P: S = 8: 30 = 4:15

21. (a); Le the fourth proportional to 4, 16, 7 be x. 4: 16:: 7: x 4

16 =

7

𝑥 4x = 16 × 7 x= 4 × 7 = 28

22. (b); Let the mean proportion be = r

9: r: : r: 64 9

𝑟 =

𝑟

64

r2 = 9 ×64 r = 3 × 8 = 24 23. (a); Duplicate ratio = ratio of squares

Duplicate ratio of 2: 7 = 22: 72 = 4: 49

24. (c); Sub-duplicate ratio = ratio of square roots Sub-duplicate ratio of

81: 64 =√81: √64 = 9: 8 25. (b); Triplicate ratio = Ratio of cubes.

Triplicate ratio of 7:5 = 73: 53 = 343: 125

26. (a); Inverse ratio of 17: 19 = 19: 17 27. (b); Compound ratio of = 2: 7, 5: 3 and

4: 7 will be

2 × 5 × 4 × 7 ×3 ×7 = 40: 147 28. (d); B: C = 8: 9

A: B= 3: 4) × 2 A: B = 6: 8 8: 9 = B: C A: B: C = 6: 8: 9

29. (d); a: b = 3: 5 ) × 4 a: b= 12: 20 b: c = 4: 7 ) × 5 b: c= 20: 35

30. (a); P: Q: R = 2: 3: 4 P→ 2, Q → 3, R → 4 𝑃

𝑄=

2

3,

𝑄

𝑅=

3

4,

𝑅

𝑃=

4

2

𝑃

𝑄:

𝑄

𝑅:

𝑅

𝑃 =

2

3:

3

4:

4

2 = (

2

3∶

3

4:

4

2) × 12 = 8: 9:

24

31. (a); 𝑎

3 =

𝑏

8

𝑎

𝑏 =

3

8

a→ 3, b→ 8, a+3 → 6

b+8 → 16 𝑎+3

𝑏+8=

6

16 =

3

8

32. (b); 43.5: 25 =?

47/2: 25= (22) 7/2 : 25 =22×7

2: 25

= 27 : 25 = 27/25 = 22 = 4 4: 1 33. (b); 2: x :: 5: 7

2

𝑥 =

5

7, x =

2×7

5 x = 2.80

34. (c); Ratio of salaries → A: B: C = 2: 3: 5 A→ 2x, B→ 3x, C → 5x

A +15% of A = 2x + 15×2𝑥

100 =

46𝑥

20

B+10% of B = 3x + 3𝑥×10

100

C +20% of C = 5x + 5𝑥×20

100 = 6x

New ratio of their salaries

A: B: C = 46𝑥

20 :

33𝑥

10 : 6x

↓ Multiply by 20 46x: 66x: 120x 23x: 33x: 60x 23: 33:60 Shortcut Ratio of salaries of A, B and C → 2: 3: 5 Let the salaries be

200 300 500

↓15%↑ ↓ 10% ↑ ↓20% ↑

230 330 600

New ratio = 230: 330: 600 = 23: 33: 60



35. (d); 782

1

2 :

2

3 :

3

4

LCM of 2, 3 and 4 = 12

(1

2:

2

3:

3

4) ×12 6: 8: 9 6 +8 +9 = 23

23 units = 782 1 unit = 782

23 = 34

First part = 6 units = 6 × 34 = 204

36. (c) ; Let the two numbers be a and b a: b = 1: 2 𝑎

𝑏 =

1

2 2a = b …. (i)

𝑎+7

𝑏+7=

3

5 5a + 35 = 3b +21 … (ii)

From (i) and (ii) 5a +35 = 3 x 2a +21 5a +35 = 6a +21 A = 14 Greatest number = b = 2a = 28 Shortcut: On adding 7 to both, ratio changes to 3: 5 On adding 7 to the greatest number, the resulting number must be a multiple of 5 Only option (c) has the number 28, in which, if we add 7, we get 35, which is a multiple of 5. 3: 5 :: ? : 35

21

Smaller number = 21- 7 = 14

14:28 = 1:2

37. (c); Ratio of 3 numbers is 3: 4: 5 Let the numbers be 3x, 4x, 5x

Sum of their squares = 1250 9x2 +16x2 +25x2 = 1250 50x2 = 1250 x2 = 25 x = 5 3x +4x +5x = 12x = 60

38. (c); Let age of Sachin = S Age of Rahul = R S=R-4 …. (i) 𝑆

𝑅 =

7

9 9S = 7R …. (ii)

From (i) 9S = 9R – 36 9S = 7R 7R = 9R -36 2R = 36 R = 18 Age of Sachin = S=R – 4 = 18 – 4 = 14 years Shortcut Sachin : Rahul S : R 7 : 9 Difference = 2 units = 4 years 1 unit = 2 years Sachin’s age = 7 units = 7 × 2 = 14 years

39. (b); Arun : Deepak A : D = 4: 3 Let A = 4x D = 3x After 6 years, Arun’s age = 4x + 6 Deepak’s age = 3x + 6 4x + 6 = 26 (given) 4x = 20 x = 5 Deepak’s present age = 3x = 3 × 5 = 15 years Shortcut After 6 years Arun’s age will be 26 years. Present age of Arun = 20 years Ratio of present ages = Arun : Deepak

4 : 3

↓x 5 ↓x 5

20 years 15 years



40. (a); Present Ages X: Y 5: 6 Let the ages be 5x and 6x ↓ ↓ 5x + 7 6x +7

5x+7

6x+7 =

6

7

35x + 49 = 36x + 42 = 0 x = 7 X’s present age = 5x = 5 x 7 = 35 years

Shortcut Present ages 5 : 6 ↓+1 ↓+1 = 1 unit = 7 After 7 years 6 : 7



SQUARE

Side (S)

Area = side× side = (S)2

S = √Area

Perimeter = 4 (side)

Diagonal = (side) × √2

RECTANGLE

Brea

Breadth(b)

Length (l)

Area = l×b

Perimeter = 2 (l + b)

Diagonal = √𝑙2 + 𝑏2

b1 l1

Area of track = l1 b1 – l2 b2

CHAPTER

5 MENSURATION

Square

Rectangle

b2

l2



Triangle

A

b

B a C

Height

Area and perimeter of Right angled

Isosceles Triangle

Area = 1

2×base× height

Perimeter =√𝑠(𝑠 − 𝑎)(𝑠 − 𝑏)(𝑠 − 𝑐)

Where, s = semi-perimeter = 𝑎+𝑏+𝑐

2

A

B C

√𝟐a

Area = 1

2𝑎2

Perimeter = (2a+√2a)

Height = 𝑎

√2

Area of equilateral Triangle

A

B a C

Area = √3

4× (𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒)2 =

√3

4𝑎2

Altitude = √3

2× side =

√3

2𝑎

Perimeter = 3×side = 3a



Circle

Circumference = 2𝜋r = 𝜋D

Area = 𝜋

4𝐷2

Semi- Circle

O r

Area of semi-circle = 1

2𝜋𝑟

Perimeter of semi-circle = 𝜋r+2r = 𝜋r +

D

Area of sector

S

P Q

R

If be the angle at the centre of a circle

of radius r

Length of the arc PQ = 2𝜋r×𝜗

360

Area of sector OPRQO = 𝜋r2×𝜗

360

Volume

CUBE

a

edge of cube = length = breadth =

height = a

Volume of cube = (edge)2 = a2

Total surface area = 6×(edge)2 = 6a2

Diagonal of a cube = √3 ×edge = √3a

r

O

O

𝛝



CUBOID

h

h

b

V = l×b×h

Surface area = 2 (lb + bh + hl)

Diagonal = √𝑙2 + 𝑏2 + ℎ2

Right Circular Cylinder

Volume = 𝜋r2h

Curved surface area = 2𝜋rh

Total surface area = 2𝜋rh + 2𝜋r2 =

2𝜋r(r+h)

Right Circular Cone

h l

Volume = 1

3𝜋𝑟2ℎ

Curved Surface area = 𝜋rl

Total surface Area = 𝜋rl + 𝜋r2 = 𝜋r (l +r

)

r

r



SPHERE

Volume = 4

3𝜋𝑟3

Surface Area = 4𝜋r2

Hemi-Sphere

r

Volume = 2

3𝜋𝑟3

Surface Area = 2𝜋r2

Total Surface Area = 2𝜋r2 + 𝜋r2=3𝜋r2

r

r O

r O r




1. up to a depth of 1 m 25 cm. The total

area of the wet surface is?

a) 49 m2

b) 50 m2

c) 53.5 m2

d) 55 m2

e) None of these

2. The breadth of a room is twice its

height and half its length. The volume

of the room is 512 cu. m. The length of

the room is

a) 16 m

b) 18 m

c) 20 m

d) 32 m

e) None of these

3. A Rectangular plot is 180 m2 in area. If

its length is 18m then, its perimeter

is?

a) 20 m b) 56 m c) 360 m


4. The side of a square exceeds the side

of another square by 4 cm and the

sum of the areas of the two squares is

400 cm2. The dimensions of the

square are?

a) 8cm and 12cm

b) 6cm and 10cm

c) 12cm and 16cm

d) 10cm and 18cm

e) None of these

5. The area of the floor of a rectangular

hall of length 40m is 960m2. Carpets of

size 6m × 4m are available. Then, how

many carpets are required to cover

the hall?

a) 20 b) 30 c) 40


6. A lawn is in the shape of rectangle of

length 60m and width 40m. Inside the

lawn there is a footpath of uniform

width 1m bordering the lawn. The

area of the path is:

a) 194 m2 b) 196 m2 c) 198 m2

d) 200 m2 e) None of these

7. ABCD is a parallelogram as shown in

figure, then its area is?

D 3cm C

90

90

A B

a) 12 cm2 b) 14 cm2 c) 15 cm2

d) 660 cm2 e) None of these

8. What is the area of a triangle whose

sides are 9cm, 12cm and 15cm?

a) 45 cm2 b) 54 cm2 c) 56 cm2


9. What is the perimeter of an

equilateral triangle whose area is

4√3cm2?

a) 4cm b) 3cm c) 12cm

d) 7cm e) None of these

10. The circumference of a circle whose

area is 24.64 m2 is

a) 17.2m b) 17.4m c) 17.6m

d) 18.0m e) None of these

11. If the radius of a circle is decreased by

20%, then the percentage decrease in

its area is?

a) 26% b) 32% c) 36%




12. If the perimeter of a semi-circular

protractor is 36cm, then its diameter

is?

a) 6 cm b) 7 cm c) 7.5 cm

d) 14 cm e) None of these

13. The ratio of the area of the incircle

and circumcircle of a square are?

a) 1:1 b) 2:1 c) 1:2


14. The diagonal of a square of field

measures 50m. The area of square

field is?

a) 1250 m2

b) 1200 m2

c) 1205 m2

d) 1025 m2

e) None of these

15. The circumference of a circle is 176m.

Then the area is

a) 2464 m2

b) 2164 m2

c) 2346 m2

d) 2246 m2

e) None of these

16. In a circle of radius 42 cm, an arc

subtends an angle of 72 at the center.

The length of the arc is

a) 52.8 cm b) 53.8 cm c) 72.8 cm

d) 79.8 cm e) None of these

17. An isosceles right angle triangle has

area 200 cm2. Then length of its

hypotenuse is

a) 15√2 cm b)10

√2 cm c) 10√2

d) 20√2 cm e) None of these

18. The least number of square slabs that

can be fitted in a room of 10.5 m long

and 3 wide, is?

a) 12 tiles b) 13 tiles c) 14 tiles

d) 15 tiles e) None of these

19. The length of a rectangle is 2 cm more

than its breadth. The perimeter is 48

cm. The area of the rectangle (in cm2)

is?

a) 96 cm2 b) 128 cm2 c) 143 cm2


20. The cost of leveling a rectangular

ground at Rs. 1.25 per sq. meter is Rs.

900. If the length of the ground is 30

meters, then the width is?

a) 330 meters b) 34 meters

c) 24 meters d) 18 meters

e) None of these

21. The length of a rectangle is twice its

breadth. If its length is decreased by 5

cm and breadth is increased by 5 cm,

the area of the rectangle is increased

by 75 cm2. Then the length of the

rectangle is:

a) 20cm

b) 30cm

c) 40cm

d) 50cm

e) None of these

22. The dimensions of the floor of a

rectangular hall are 4m × 3m. The

floor of the hall is to be tiled fully with

8cm × 6cm rectangular is without

breaking tiles to smaller size. The

number of tiles required:

a) 4800 b) 2600 c) 2500


23. The number of marble slabs of size

20cm × 30cm required to pave the

floor of a square room of side 3m, is:

a) 150 b) 100 c) 25




24. If the perimeter of a rectangular field

is 200 m and its breadth is 40m then

its area is (in m2).

a) 1200 b) 2400 c) 4800


25. Find the area of a triangle in which

base is 1.5m and height is 75cm?

a) 5625 sq.cm.

b) 5265 sq.cm.

c) 5635 sq.cm.

d) 5525 sq.cm.

e) None of these


each side measures 8cm?

a) 2√3 sq.cm

b) 8√3 sq.cm

c) 16√3 sq.cm

d) 12√3 sq.cm

e) None of these

27. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle

is equal to 14 cm; the lateral side and

the base are in the ratio 5 to 4. The

area in cm2 of the triangle is:

a) 1

2 √21 b) √21 c)

3

2√21

d) 2√21 e) None of these

28. Height of an equilateral triangle is 6

cm. Find its side.

a) 4 cm b) 3√3cm c) 4√3cm

d) 5√3 cm e) None of these

29. Height of an equilateral triangle is 9

cm. Find its area.

a) 27√3 cm2

b) 36√3cm2

c) 54√3cm2

d) Data inadequate

e) None of these

30. Perimeter of a square and an

equilateral triangle is equal. If the

diagonal of the square is 12√2 cm,

then find the area of the equilateral

triangle?

a) 64√3 cm2

b) 32√3cm2

c) 16√3cm2

d) 128√3 cm2

e) None of these

31. A lawn in the form of a rectangular

has length twice its width. The area of

the lawn is 2

3 hectares. The length of

lawn is:

a) 100 m

b) 331

3 m

c) 662

3 m

d) 200

√3 m

e) None of these

32. Two roads XY and YZ of 15 meters and

20 meters length respectively are

perpendicular to each other. What is

the distance between X and Z by the

shortest route?

a) 35 metres

b) 30 metres

c) 24 metres

d) 25 metres

e) None of these

33. How many bricks, each measuring 25

cm × 11.25 cm × 6cm, will be needed

to build a wall 8 cm × 6 cm ×22.5 cm?

a) 5600 b) 6000 c) 6400




34. The sum of the length, breadth and

depth of a cuboid is 19 cm and its

diagonal is 5√5 cm. It surface area is

a) 125 cm2

b) 236 cm2

c) 361 cm2

d) 486 cm2

e) None of these

35. The base of triangular field is three

times its altitude. If the cost of

cultivating the field at 50 per hectare

be Rs. 675, then its base and height

are?

a) 900m and 300m

b) 600m and 300m

c) 500m and 200m


e) None of these

36. The perimeter of a right triangle is

12cm. The hypotenuse is 5cm. The

other two sides and area of the

triangle are?

a) 3, 4 and 6 cm2

b) 4, 3 and 12 cm2

c) 6, 2 and 6 cm2


e) None of these

37. The area of a ring whose outer and

inner radii are respectively 20cm and

15 cm is :

a) 400 cm2

b) 550 cm2

c) 565 cm2

d) 675 cm2

e) None of these

38. The minute-hand of a clock is 14 cm

long. The area covered by the minute

hand in 30 min is?

a) 308 cm2

b) 312 cm2

c) 412 cm2

d) 416 cm2

e) None of these

39. Two circle touch internally. The sum

of their area is 116𝜋 cm2 and distance

between their center is 6cm. Then, the

radii of the circle are?

a) 4cm and 9cm

b) 5cm and 10cm

c) 4cm and 8cm

d) 4cm and 10cm

e) None of these

40. A bed of roses is like the figure given

below. In the centre is a square and on

each side there is a semi-circle. The

side of the square is 21m. If each rose

plant needs 6m2 of space, then the

number of plants in the bed is?

a) 190 plants

b) 199 plants

c) 201 plants

d) 200 plants

e) None of these

21 m



SOLUTIONS

1. (a): Area of the wet surface = [2(lb

+ bh + lh) – lb]

= 2 (bh + lh)

+lb

= [2 (4×1.25 + 6×1.25) + 6×4]

m2 = 49 m2

2. (a): Let the height of the room be x

meters.

Then, breadth = 2x metres and

length = 4x metres

Volume of the room = (4x×2x×x)

m3 = (8x3) m2

8x3= 512 x3= 64 x = 4

Length of the room is 16 m

3. (b): Breadth = Area

Length=

180

18=10 m

Perimeter = 2 (length + breadth)

= 2 (18+10)

= 56

4. (c): Let side of square = x cm

Side of another square = (x+4)

cm

x2+(x+4)2 = 400

x2+x2+16+8x = 400

2x2+8x-384 = 0 x2+4x-

192=0

x2+16x-12x-192=0

x (x+16) -12 (x+16) = 0

(x - 12) (x+16) = 0

x = 12 (-16 not possible)

Side of one square = 12 cm

Side of another square = 16 cm

5. (c): Given, 6

4

Area of the floor = 960 m2

Area of one carpet = 6×4= 24 m2

No of carpet required = Area of floor

Area of one carpet

=960

24= 40

6. (b): Length of the outer rectangle =

60 m

40m

60 m

Breadth of the outer rectangle =

40m

Area = 60×40 = 2400 m2

Width of path = 1m

Length of the inner rectangle

=60m –(1+1) m

= 58

m

Breadth of the inner rectangle =

40 – 2 =38m

Area = 58×38= 2204 m2

Area of path

= [Area of outer rectangle] –

[Area of inner rectangle]

= 2400 – 2204 = 196 m2

7. (a): Area of parallelogram,

ABCD = (Area of ∆ABD+ ∆Area

of BDC)

= 2 (Area of ∆ABD)

= 2×1

2× 3 × 4 = 12 cm2

1m

38

58



8. (b): Here, s = 9+12+15

2=18 cm

Area = √𝑠(𝑠 − 𝑎)(𝑠 − 𝑏)(𝑠 − 𝑐)

=

√18(18 − 9)(18 − 12)(18 − 15)

= √18 × 9 × 6 × 3 =54

cm2

9. (c): By formula

Area = √3

4× (𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒)2

√3

4×

(𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒)2 = 4√3

(side) 2= 16 side = 4 cm

Perimeter = 3×side = 3×4= 12

cm

10. (c): Let, radius of the circle = r m

𝜋r2 = 24.64

22

7× 𝑟2= 24.64 r2 =

7×24.64

22

r = √7×24.64

2= 2.8

Thus, circumference = 2𝜋r

= 2×22

7×2.8= 17.6 m

11. (c): Let initial radius of circle = r

Now new radius = 80% of r = r×80

100=

4r

5

Initial area = 𝜋r2

New area = π (4r

5)

2

=16

25πr2

Decrease in Area = (πr2 −

16

25πr2) =

9

25πr2

Percentage decrease =9

25πr2

πr2 ×100

= 9

25×100= 9×4=

36%

Shortcut:

% = x+y+𝑥𝑦

100

= -20 – 20 +(−20) (−20)

100

= -40 +4 = 36% (-ve sign show %

decrease)

12. (d): Let the radius of the protractor

= r cm

Perimeter = (𝜋r+2r) = (𝜋+2) r =

36

36

7𝑟 =36 r = 7 cm

Diameter of the protractor =

2×7= 14 cm

13. (c): Let side of square = x

Diagonal = √2𝑥

Radius of incircle = 𝑥

2

Radius of circumcircle = √2𝑥

2=

𝑥

√2

Required ratio = (𝜋𝑟2

4:

𝜋𝑥2

2) =2: 4

= 1: 2

14. (a): Given diagonal of square = 50

m

√2 × side = 50 side =50

√2

Area = side2 (50

√2)

2

=2500

2= 1250

m2

15. (a): Given, circumference (2𝜋r) =

176

r = 176

2×22×7 r =

8×7

2 r = 28

m

Area =𝜋r2 = 22

7× 28 × 28 = 2464

m2

16. (a): Length of the arc = 2𝜋r×𝜗

360

= 2𝜋 × 42 ×72

360= 2 ×

22

7× 42 ×

72

360=52.8 cm

17. (d): Area of isosceles triangle wide

side (a) 1

2𝑎2

200 = 1

2a2 a2= 400 a =

20 cm



Hypotenuse = √𝑎2 + 𝑎2 =

√2. 𝑎

= √2 × 20 = 20√2 cm

18. (c): Side of greatest square title.

=GCM of length and breadth of

the room

= GCM of 10.5 and 3 = 1.5 cm

Area of room = 10.5×3 m

No. of titles needed = 10.5×3

1.5×1.5=

10.5×3

2.25= 14 titles

19. (c): Let breadth = x cm

Length = (x+2) cm

2 (x+x+2) = 48 2 (2x+2) =

48

2x+2=24 2x= 22 x = 11

cm

Area = 11×(11+2) = 11×13=

143 cm2

20. (c): Area of ground = 900

1.25= 720 m2

Length × width = 720 width = 720

30= 24 m

21. (c): Let breath = x length = 2x

Area = x×2x = 2x2

New length = (2x – 5) cm

New breadth = (x+5) cm

New Area = (2x-5) (x+5)

(2x-5) (x+5) = 2x2+75

2x2+10x-5x-25= 2x2+75

5x = 100 x = 20 cm

Length = 2×20 = 40 cm

22. (c): Area of wall = 4m×3m= 12 m2

= 12×10000 cm2

Area of tiles = 8cm×6cm = 48

cm2

No. of tiles required = 12×10000

48=2500

23. (a): Area of square room =

3m×3m= 9 m2

= 9×10000 cm2

Area of marble slab =20×30 =

600cm2

No. of marbles slab required = 9×10000

600=150

24. (b): Given, perimeter of rectangle =

200

2(l + b) = 200 l + b= 100 l

= 100-b

l = 100 – 40 l = 60 m

Area = lb

= 40×60= 2400 m2

25. (a): Area = 1

2× base × height =

1

2(1.5) ×100×75

= 75×75= 5625 cm2

26. (c): Area of equilateral triangle = √3

4×side2

= √3

4×82=16√3 cm2

27. (d): Let lateral side = 5x, and base =

4x

Perimeter = 5x+ 5x+4x= 14x

14x = 14 x = 1

So, the sides are 5 cm, 5cm, and 4

cm

Now, s = 1

2(5 + 5 + 4)= 7 cm

Area = √s(s − a)(s − b)(s − c)

= √7 × 2 × 2 × 3 = 2√21

cm2

28. (c): Let side = x cm

x2= 62+ (𝑥

2)

2

x2−𝑥2

4=36

3x=144

x2= 144

3 x =

12

√3 x = 4√3 cm

Shortcut:



Altitude = √3

2× side

Side = 2×Altitude

√3=

2×6

√3=4√3cm

29. (a): Side = 2×Altitude

√3=

2×9

√3= 6√3cm

Area = √3

4×side2 =

√3

4×(6√3)2 =

√3

4×36×3

= 27√3 cm2

30. (a): For square, diagonal =√2 ×side

12√2 = √3 ×side side(x) = 12

cm

Perimeter = 4x= 48 cm

Perimeter of triangle = 48 cm

Side of triangle = 48

3=16 cm

Required Area = √3

4×side2 =

√3

4×16×16

= 64√3 cm2

31. (d): Let length = x breadth = 𝑥

2

Area = 2

3×10000 m2 x×

𝑥

2=

2

√3×10000

x2 = 4

3×10000 x =

200

√3 , length

= 200

√3 m

32. (d):

z

20 m

x 15 m y

Shortest route between x and z =

√152 + 202

= √400 + 225 = √625 =25 m

33. c): Number of bricks =

Volume of the wall

Volume of 1 brick= (

800×600×22.5

25×11.25×6)

= 6400

34. (b): (l + b + h) = 19 and

√l2 + b2 + h2 = 5√5 and so (l2 + b2

+ h2) = 125

Now, (l + b + h)2 = 192 (l2+b2+h2)

+

2(lb +bh +

lh) = 361

2(lb + bh + lh) = (361 – 125) =

236

Surface area = 236 cm2

35. (a): Area = Total cost

Rate=

675

50=13.5

hectares

= 13.5×(10000) m2=

135000 m2

Let Altitude = x m

Base = 3x m Area = 1

2×

base × altitude

= 1

2× 3x × x

3𝑥2

2=135000

x2 = 90000 x = 300

Base = 3x= 900m, Altitude = x = 300

m

36. (a): A

b 5

B a C

Perimeter = 12 cm, a+b+5=12, a +

b= 7 cm

Also, a2+b2= 25

(a + b)2 + (a – b)2 = 2(a2+b2)



(a – b)2 = 2(a2 + b2) – (a + b)2

2 (25) – (7)2= 50 – 49 = 1 a – b =

±1

a + b = 7 and a – b= 1 or a – b = -

1

a= 4 cm and b = 3 cm

or a=3 cm and b = 4 cm

Area of triangle = 1

2× a × b =

1

2×3×4= 6 cm2

37. (b): Radius of outer circle (R) = 20

cm

Radius of inner circle (r) = 15 cm

Area of ring

= (Area of outer circle – Area of

inner circle)

= 𝜋R2-𝜋r2= 𝜋(R2-r2) = 22

7(202 −

152)

= 22

7(20+15) (20 – 15) =

22

7(35)

(5) = 25×22

= 550 cm2

38. (a): Angle covered by the minute

hand in 60 min = 360

Angle covered by the minute hand

in 30 min =180

𝜗= 180, r = 14 cm

Required area = 𝜋r2×𝜗

360

= 180

360×

22

7×14×14=

1

2×

22

7×14×14=

308 cm2

39. (d): Let the radius of inner circle =

r

Let the radius of outer circle = R

𝜋R2+ 𝜋r2= 116𝜋 R2+r2 =

116

Distance between their center =

6 cm

R – r = 6 cm

(R + r)2 + (R – r)2 = 2(R2+r2)

(R + r)2 = 2 (116) – 36 = 196

R + r = 14 R – r = 6

R = 10 cm, r = 4 cm

40. (e): Given,

Side of square = 21 m

Radius of each semi-circle = 21

2=10.5 m

Area = (21×21) + 4×1

2×

22

7×10.5×10.5

= 441 + 693 = 1134 m

Area of one rose plant = 6 m2

No. of required Rose plant = 1134

6=189

21 m



Probability: If a random experiment has n possible outcomes, which are mutually

exclusive, exhaustive & equally likely, and m of these are favourable to an event A, then the

probability of the event is defined as the ratio m/n & is denoted by

P (A) = m

n=

Number of favourable cases to A

Total number of possible cases

Probability of an event always lies between 0& 1; i.e. 0 ≤ P ≤ 1

Addition Theorem of Probability: If two events A and B are mutually exclusive, then the

probability of occurrence of either A or B is given by the sum of their probability, i.e.,

P (A or B0 = P (A) + P (B)

1. For only two events A and B, the probability of occurrence of at least one of the two

given events is given by

P (A ∪ B) = P (A) + P (B) – P (A∩B)

2. For any three events A, B and C, the probability of occurrence of at least one of the

three events is given by

P (A ∪ B ∪ C) = P (A) + P (B) +P (C) – P (A ∩ B)-P (B ∩ C) - P (B ∩ C) + P (A ∩ B ∩ C)

3. Conditional Probability: The probability that the event A will occur, it being

known that B has occurred, is called the conditional probability of A

P (A/B) = P (A ∩ B)

P (B)=

n(A ∩ B)

n(B)

CHAPTER

6 PROBABILITY




1. (75P2 – 75C2) = ?

a) 0 b) 75 c) 150

d) 2775 e) 5550

2. In how many different ways can the

letters of the word DISPLAY be

arranged?

a) 720 b) 1440 c) 2520



letters of the word “TABLE” be

arranged?

a) 24 b) 48 c) 120



letters of the word “MATHEMATICS”

be arranged?

a)10!

2 b)

11!

2 c)

11!

4

d) 11!

8 e) None of these

5. In how many ways can 6 letters be

posted in 5 letter boxes available in

the locality?

a) 56 b) 65 c) 66


6. How many 3-digit numbers are there,

with distinct digits, with each digit

odd?

a) 120 b) 200 c) 60


7. In how many ways can the letters of

the word ‘UNIVERSAL’ be arranged

when E, R, S are always together?

a) 31240 b) 32240 c) 30240



the word ‘ALGEBRA’ be arranged

when both A do not come together?

a) 1800 b) 1600 c) 1500



the word ‘NUTAN’ be arranged when

consonants occupy odd places and

vowels come on even places?

a) 120 b) 60 c) 24


10. There are seven candidates for 3

posts. In how many ways can the posts

be filled?

a) 210 b) 120 c) 73


11. How many 3-digit numbers can be

formed using 0, 2, 3, 5, 7 when

repetition is allowed?

a) 40 b) 21 c) 120


12. There are 6 items in column A and 6

items in column B. A student is asked

to match each item in column A with

an item in column B. How many

possible (correct or incorrect)

answers are there to this question?

a) 720 b) 450 c) 66


13. Find the number of all even 2-digit

numbers, not having 0 at the unit’s

place?

a) 50 b) 21 c) 36


14. How many 3-digit numbers are there

with no digit repeated?

a) 720 b) 648 c) 256



with distinct digits?



a) 90 b) 91 c) 80



with distinct digits?

a) 4536 b) 5182 c) 4886



letters of the word ‘DETAIL’ be

arranged in such a way that the

vowels occupy the odd positions?

a) 32 b) 48 c) 36

d) 60 e) 120

18. A single die is tossed. What is the

probability of a 2 turning up?

a) 1

6 b)

2

6 c) 0


19. Two cards are drawn from a well-

shuffled ordinary deck of 52cards.

What is the probability that they are

both aces if the first card is replaced?

a) 4

52

b) 4

52×

4

51

c) 4

52×

4

52

d) 4

52×

4

51

e) None of these

20. Two cards are drawn from a well-

shuffled ordinary deck of 52cards.

What is the probability that they are

both aces if the first card is not

replaced?

a) 3

52

b) 4

52×

3

51

c) 4

52×52

d) 4

52×

3

52

e) None of these

21. A ball is drawn at random from a box

containing 6 red balls, 4 white balls

and 5 blue balls. What is the

probability that it is red?

a) 2

5 b)

2

13 c)

5

7

d) 5

2 e) None of these

22. Find the probability of a 4 turning up

at least once in two tosses of a fair die

a) 1 b) 1

36 c) 11

d) 11

36 e) None of these

23. One bag contains 4 white balls and 2

black balls; another contains 3 white

balls and 5 black balls. If one ball is

drawn from each bag, find the

probability that both are white.

a) 1

4 b)

1

36 c)

4

11

d) 11

36 e) None of these

24. A die is rolled, find the probability that

an even number is obtained.

a) 1

4 b)

1

6 c)

1

2

d) 1

3 e) None of these

25. Two coins are tossed, find the

probability that two heads are

obtained.

a) 1

4 b)

1

6 c)

1

2

d) 1

5 e) None of these

26. A dice is rolled and a coin is tossed,

find the probability that the die shows

an odd number and the coin shows a

head.

a) 1

4 b)

1

2 c)

1

3

d) 1

12 e) None of these



27. A Card is drawn at random from a

deck of cards. Find the probability of

getting the 3 of diamond.

a) 1

52 b)

3

52 c)

1

26

d) 3

26 e) None of these

28. A person draws a card from a pack of

playing cards, replaces it and shuffles

the pack. He continues doing this until

he draws a spade. The chance that he

will fail in two times is

a) 9

64 b)

1

64 c)

1

16

d) 9

16 e) None of these

29. A speaks truth is 60 percent cases and

B speaks truth in 70 percent cases.

The probability that they will say the

same thing while describing a single

event is

a) 0.56 b) 0.54 c) 0.38


30. In a box there are 2 red, 3 black and 4

white balls. Out of these three balls

are drawn together. The probability of

these being of the same color is

a) 1

84 b)

1

21 c)

5

84

d) 3

84 e) None of these

31. If two regular six-sided dice are

thrown, the probability that the sum

will be a prime number is

a) 5

36 b)

1

6 c)

5

12

d) 1

2 e) None of these

32. Two coins are tossed. Find the

probability that at least one head and

one tail are obtained?

a) 5

18 b)

1

3 c)

4

9

d) 1

2 e) None of these

33. ½ The probability of event equal to zero is called;

a) Unsure event

b) Sure Event

c) Impossible event

d) Independent event

34. The probability that cannot exist among the following:

a) ⅔

b) -1.5

c) 15%

d) 0.7

35. If P(E) = 0.07, then what is the probability of ‘not E’?

a) 0.93

b) 0.95

c) 0.89

d) 0.90

36. A bag has 3 red balls and 5 green balls. If we take a ball from the bag, then what is the probability of getting red balls only?

a) 3

b) 8

c) ⅜

d) 8/3

37. A bag has 5 white marbles, 8 red marbles and 4 purple marbles. If we take a marble randomly then what is the probability of not getting purple marble?

a) 0.5

b) 0.66



c) 0.08

d) 0.77

38. A dice is thrown in the air. The probability of getting odd numbers is

a) ½

b) 3/2

c) 3

d) 4

39. If two dice are thrown in air, the probability of getting sum as 3 will be

a) 2/18

b) 3/18

c) 1/18

d) 1/36

40. A card is drawn from the set of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting queen card.

a) 1/26

b) 1/13

c) 4/53

d) 4/13



SOLUTIONS

1. (d): (75P2 – 75C2) = {75!

(75−2)!−

75×75

2}

=75!

73!−(75×37)

= 75×74×73!

73!−(73×37)

= (75×74 – 75×37) =

75×37×(2-1)

= (75×37) = 2775

2. (d): The given word contains 7 letters,

all different

Required number of ways = 7P7 =

7!

= (7×6×5×4×3×2×1) = 5040

3. (c): No of ways in which the letters of

the word “TABLE” can be arranged =

5! = 120

4. (d): No of ways of arranging the

letters of word MATHEMATICS = 11!

2!×2!×2!=

11

8!

5. (a): No of ways in which 6 letters can

be posted 5 letter boxes =

5×5×5×5×5×5=56

6. (c): There are 5 odd digits in total

No. of ways to form 3-digit

numbers with distinct digits =

5×4×3=60

7. (c): UNIVERSAL has 9 letters,

No of ways E R S can be arranged =

3!

Taking E R S as 1 letter, then no of

letters is 7

Required no. of ways = 7! ×3!

=5040×6=30240

8. (a): Total no of ways in which the

letters of the word ‘ALGEBRA’ can be

arranged = 7!

2! = 2520

Total no. of ways such that both

A’s are together = 6! = 720

Required no of ways = 2520 – 720

=1800

9. (e): In the word ‘NUTAN’ there are 3

odd places and 2 even places so

No. of ways in which consonants

occupy at odd place = 3!

2! = 3 (2!

Because of Repetition of N)

No. of ways in which vowels

occupy at even places = 2! =2

Total no. of ways = 3×2=6

10. (a): No. of ways in which the posts

can be filled = 7×6×5=210

11. (e): At the 100th place ‘0’ is not

allowed.

So, number of ways to form 3 digit

numbers:

=100

4 × 5 × 5

No. of ways = 100

12. (a): 1st item in column A can be

matched with 6 items in column B

2nd item in column A can be


3rd item in column A can be


4th item in column A can be







matched with 1 item in column B

So total = 6×5×4×3×2×1=720

13. (c): 2-digit even number where ‘0’

can’t come at unit place at ten’s place.

So, the possible number at 10 ten’s

place = 9 at unit place = 4 (2, 4, 6,

8)


14. (b): In 3-digit no ‘0’ can’t come at

hundreds place

So, possible no of digits at

hundreds place = 9

No. of digits at ten’s place = 9

No. of digits at unit place = 8

Total No. of ways = 9×9×8=648

15. (d): In 2 digit no zero can’t come at

ten’s place

So, total possible no. of digits at

ten’s place = 9

Total possible no. of digits at unit

place = 9


16. (a): In 4 digit no. zero can’t come at

1000s place

Total no. of ways

= 9

1000s place×

9

100s place×

8

10s place×

7

units place

= 4536

17. (c): In the word ‘DETAIL’ there are

three vowels (AEI) and 3 consonants

(D, T, L)

No. of ways vowels can be

arranged at odd place =3! = 6

And number of ways consonants

can be arranged at even places = 3!

= 6

Total no of ways in which

letters of the word DETAIL can be

arranged = 6×6=36

18. (a): Numbers of favourable out comes

= 1 {2}

Total number of possible

outcomes = 6 {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}

Probability of a 2 turning up = 1

6

19. (c): Total no of aces in a deck of 52

cards = 4

Probability of getting ace = 4

52

Probability of getting both the aces

with replacement = 4

52×

4

52

20. (b): Probability of getting first ace = 4

52

Getting scored ace without

replacement = 3

51

(One card already down)

Required probability = 4

52×

3

51

21. (a): Total no. of Red balls = 6

Total no. of balls = 6+4+5=15


15=

2

5

22. (d): Probability of not getting 4 in a

single toss = 5

6

Probability of not getting 4 in two

tosses

= 5

6×

5

6=

25

36

Probability of getting 4 atleast

once

= 1−25

36=

11

36

23. (a): Probability of getting white balls

from 1st bag = 4

4+2=

4

6=

2

3

Probability of getting white ball

from 2nd bag =3

8



Probability that both balls are

white = 2

3×

3

8=

1

4

24. (c): Even numbers in a die = (2, 4, 6)

Sample space = (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6)

Probability of getting an even

number = 3

6=

1

2

25. (a): Total sample space when two

coins are tossed = {HH, HT, TH, TT}

No. of favourable outcomes of

getting two heads = {HH}


4

26. (a): There are 3 odd numbers out of 6

i.e. (1, 3, 5)

Probability of getting odd number

= 3

6=

1

2

Probability of getting head = 1

2


2×

1

2=

1

4

27. (a): Total sample space of a deck of

cards = 52

There is only one 3 of diamond.

So, required Probability = 1

52

28. (d): The probability of not getting a

spade first time = 39

52=

3

4

The probability of not getting a

spade second time= 39

52=

3

4


4×

3

4=

9

16

29. (b): Let A = Event that A speaks the

truth

B = Event that B speaks the

truth

Then, P(A) = 60

100 = 0.6

P(B) = 70

100 = 0.7

Probability that A speaks lie is

P(�̅�)

= 1 – P(A) = 0.4

Probability that B speak lie is P(�̅�)

= 1 – P(B) = 0.3

Probability of saying the same

thing in a single Event = P(A)

×P(B)+ P(�̅�)× (�̅�)

= 0.6×0.7+0.4×0.3=0.54

Required probability = 0.54

30. (c): Given: No of Red balls = 2

No of Black balls = 3

No of White balls =4

Therefore total no. of balls =

2+3+4=9

No. of ways to draw 3 balls out of

9=9C3

= 9!

3(9−3)!=

9×8×7

3×2×1 = 84

Since the red balls are only 2,

therefore it is not possible to draw

3 red balls.

We also know that no of ways to

draw 3 black balls out of 3 balls = 3C3=1

4 white balls = 4C3= 4!

3!1!= 4

Therefore probability that 3 balls

are of the same color

(P) = 3𝐶3+4𝐶3

9𝐶3

=1+4

84=

5

84

31. (c): Minimum number obtained from

2 die = 2

Maximum number obtained from 2

dice = 12

Prime nos. between 2 and 12= {2,

3, 5, 7, 11}

Different combinations of the

two dice such that the above prime

numbers are obtained are

{2} = {1, 1}

{3} = {1, 2} {2, 1}



{5} = {2, 3} {3, 2} {4, 1} {1, 4}

{7} = {6, 1} {1, 6} {2, 5} {5, 2} {3, 4}

{4, 3}

{11} = {6, 5} {5, 6}

Total sample space of 2 dice =

62=36


36=

5

12

32. (d): Sample space of two coins

= {TT, HT, TH, HH} = 4

No. of favourable events {HT, TH}

= 2


4=

1

2

33. b

34. a

35. c

36. d

37. a

38. b

39. c

40. b



PROBLEMS OF AGES

Age is defined as a period of time that a person has lived or a thing has existed. Ages is

measured in months, years, decades and so on.

In problem based ages usually relationships between the age of two or more person at two

different times are given and we required to find the ages of these persons.

If ratio of present age of A and B is x:y and n yr ago, the ratio of their ages was p:q. then

x – n = p

y – n q

If the ratio of present ages A and B is x:y and after n yr, the ratio of their ages will be p:q,

then

x + n = p

y + n q

Example: The present age of A is 9 times the present age of B. 3 yrs hence A’s age will be 5

times that of B. Find their present ages

a) 3 yr, 27 yr

b) 3 yr, 3 yr

c) 3 yr, 24yr

d) None of these

Solution: (a) let the present age of B be x yr Then, the present age of A= 9x yr 3 yr hence, B’s age= (x +3) yr A’s age= (9x+3) yr But it is given that 3yr hence A’s age will be 5 times the age of B. ∴ 9x + 3 =5 (x+3) = 9x+ 3 =5x+15 4x=12 = x=3 So, B’s present age= 3 yr and A’s present age= 9x3=27 yr

CHAPTER

7 PROBLEM OF AGES




1. Father is four times the age of his

daughter. If after 5 years, he would be

threee times of daughter’s age, then

further after 5 years, how many times

he would be of his daughter’s age?

a) times

b) 2 times

c) 2.5 times

d) 3 times

2. What is Aman's present age, if after 20

years his age will be 10 times his age

10 years back?

a) 6.2 years

b) 7.7 years

c) 13.3 years

d) 10 years

3. Nisha is 15 years elder to Romi. If 5

years ago, Nisha was 3 times as old as

Romi, then find Nisha’s present age.

a) 32.5 years

b) 27.5 years

c) 25 years

d) 24.9 years

4. One year ago, the ratio of Honey and

Piyush ages was 2: 3 respectively.

After five years from now, this ratio

becomes 4: 5. How old is Piyush now?

a) 5 years

b) 25 years

c) 10 years

d) 15 years

5. Ten years ago, the age of mother was

three times the age of her son. After

ten years, mother’s age will be twice

that of his son. Find the ratio of their

present ages.

a) 11 : 7

b) 9 : 5

c) 7 : 4

d) 7 : 3

6. Saransh is 50 years old and Nazma is

40 years old. How long ago was the

ratio of their ages 3:2?

a) 20 years

b) 30 years

c) 40 years

d) 25 years

7. The ratio of the present ages of Pranav

and Qureshi is 4:5. Five years ago, the

ratio of their ages was 7:9. Find their

present ages? (In years)

a) 40, 50

b) 18, 25

c) 40, 60

d) 20, 25

8. A man said to his son, "I was one-third

of your present age when you were

born". If the present age of the man is



48 years, find the present age of the

son.

a) 25.7 years

b) 28 years

c) 29.3 years

d) 36 years

9. Dinesh is younger to Roshan by 9

years. If their ages are in the

respective ratio of 4:5, how old is

Dinesh?

a) 36 years

b) 23years

c) 29 years


10. The ratio of Sara’s age 4 years ago and

Vaishali’s age after 4 years is 1: 1.

Presently, the ratio of their ages is 5:

3. Find the ratio between Sara’s age 4

years hence and Vaishali’s age 4 years

ago.

a) 1 : 3

b) 3 : 1

c) 4 : 3

d) 3 : 4



SOLUTIONS

1. Option C

Let the daughter's age be x and

father's age be 4x.

So as per question, 4x + 5 = 3(x + 5).

So x = 10.

Hence present age of daughter is 10

years and present age of father is 40

years.

So after 5 + 5 = 10 years, daughter age

would be 20 years and father’s age

would be 50 years.

Hence father would be 50/20 = 2.5

times of daughter’s age.

2. Option C

Let Aman's present age be x

Aman's age before 10 years = x - 10)

Aman's age after 20 years = (x + 20)

We are given that, Aman's age after 20

years (x + 20) is 10 times his age 10

years back (x – 10)

Therefore, (x + 20) = 10 (x – 10)

Solving the equation, we get x + 20 =

10x – 100

9x = 120, x = 13.3 years

3. Option B

Let age of Romi be y

Nisha is 15 years elder than Romi = (y

+ 15). So Nisha's age 5 years ago = (y +

15 – 5).

Romi's age before 5 years = (y – 5)

5 years ago, Nisha is 3 times as old as

Romi

(y + 15 – 5) = 3 (y – 5)

(y + 10) = (3y – 15)

2y = 25 ⇒ y = 12.5

Romi's age = 12.5 years

Nisha's age = (y + 15) = (12.5 + 15) =

27.5 years.

4. Option C

We are given that age ratio of Honey:

Piyush = 2: 3

Honey’s age = 2x and Piyush’s age = 3x

One year ago, their age was 2x and 3x.

Hence at present, Honey's age = 2x +1

and Piyush's age = 3x +1

After 5 years, Honey’s age = (2x +1) +

5 = (2x + 6)

Piyush's age = (3x +1) + 5 = (3x + 6)

After 5 years, this ratio becomes 4: 5.

Therefore,

(2x+6) / (3x+6) = 4/5

10x + 30 = 12x + 24 ⇒ x = 3

Piyush's present age = (3x + 1) = (3x 3

+ 1) = 10 years

Honey's present age = (2x + 1) = (2x 3

+ 1) = 7 years

5. Option D

10 years ago, age of mother was three

times the age of her son. Say, the age

of son was x and mother's age was 3x.

At present: Mother's age is (3x + 10)

and son’s age is (x + 10)

After ten years: Mother's age will be

(3x + 10) +10 and son’s age will be (x

+ 10) + 10. Given that, mother’s age is

twice that of son after ten years.

(3x + 10) +10 = 2 [(x + 10) + 10]

(3x + 20) = 2[x + 20]

Solving the equation, we get x = 20

(3x + 10): (x + 10) = 70: 30 = 7: 3.

6. Option A

Here, we have to calculate: How many

years ago the ratio of their ages was



3:2. Let us assume x years ago

At present: Saransh is 50 years and

Nazma is 40 years

x years ago: Saransh’s age = (50 – x)

and Nazma's age = (40 – x)

Given, the ratio of their ages was 3:2

(50-x) / (40-x) = 3/2

Solving, we get: x = 20

Therefore, the answer is 20 years.

7. Option A

Their present ages be 4X and 5X.

5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was

7:9, then (4X - 5) :( 5X - 5) = 7:9

X = 45 - 35 ⇒ X = 10.

Their present ages are: 40, 50.

8. Option D

Present age of the son be P, he was

born P years ago.

The age of the man was: (48 - P).

His age when the son was born should

be equal to 1/3 of P.

(48 - P) =1/3 P ⇒ P = 36

9. Option A

Let Roshan's age be x years.

Then, Dinesh 's age = (x - 9) years.

(x - 9)/x = 4/5

x = 45 Hence, Dinesh's age = (x - 9) =

36 years.

10. Option B

Currently, the ratio of their ages is 5:

3. Suppose, their ages are: 5x and 3x.

Sara’s age 4 years ago = 5x – 4

Vaishali’s age after 4 years = 3x + 4

Ratio of Sara’s age 4 years ago and

Vaishali's age after 4 years is 1 : 1

Therefore,

(5x - 4) / (3x + 4) = 1/1

Solving, we get x = 4

We are required to find the ratio

between Sara’s age 4 years hence and

Vaishali’s age 4 years ago.

Sara's age: (5x + 4)

Vaishali's age: (3x – 4)

Putting the value of x, we get:

(5x + 4) / (3x - 4) = 3/1 = 3:1



Definition of LCM and HCF

Lowest Common Multiple (LCM): The least or smallest common multiple of any two or more given natural numbers are termed as LCM. For example, LCM of 10, 15, and 20 is 60.

Highest Common Factor (HCF): The largest or greatest factor common to any two or more given natural numbers is termed as HCF of given numbers. Also known as GCD (Greatest Common Divisor). For example, HCF of 4, 6 and 8 is 2.

4 = 2 × 2

6 =3 × 2

8 = 4 × 2

Here, the highest common factor of 4, 6 and 8 is 2.

Both HCF and LCM of given numbers can be found by using two methods; they are division method and prime factorization.

HCF and LCM Formulas

Property 1: The product of LCM and HCF of any two given natural numbers is equivalent to the product of the given numbers.

LCM × HCF = Product of the Numbers

Suppose A and B are two numbers, then.

LCM (A & B) × HCF (A & B) = A × B

Property 2: HCF of co-prime numbers is 1. Therefore LCM of given co-prime numbers is equal to the product of the numbers.

LCM of Co-prime Numbers = Product Of The Numbers

Property 3: H.C.F. and L.C.M. of Fractions

LCM of fractions = LCM of numerators HCF of denominators HCF of fractions = HCF of numerators LCM of denominators

CHAPTER

8 L.C.M AND H.C.F

https://byjus.com/maths/lcm/

https://byjus.com/maths/hcf/



Example : - Prove that: LCM (9 & 12) × HCF (9 & 12) = Product of 9 and 12

Solution: 9 = 3 × 3 = 3² 12 = 2 × 2 × 3 = 2² × 3 LCM of 9 and 12 = 2² × 3² = 4 × 9 = 36

HCF of 9 and 12 = 3

LCM (9 & 12) × HCF (9 & 12) = 36 × 3 = 108

Product of 9 and 12 = 9 × 12 = 108

Hence, LCM (9 & 12) × HCF (9 & 12) = 108 = 9 × 12




1. If the product of two numbers is 2496 and HCF is 8,then the ratio of HCF and LCM is

a) 1:32 b) 39:1 c) 1:39 d) 4:63 e) None of these

2. The greatest possible length which can be used to measure exactly the lengths 1m 92cm,3m 84cm ,23m 4cm

a) 23 b) 32 c) 36 d) 34 e) None of these

3. HCF of 4/3, 8/6, 36/63 and 20/42

a) 4/126 b) 4/8 c) 4/36 d) 4/42 e) None of these

4. Find the LCM of 3/8, 9/32, 33/48, 18/72

a) 3/8 b) 8/33 c) 198/8 d) 8/3 e) None of these

5. The HCF of 2511 and 3402 is

a) 31 b) 42 c) 76


6. A gardener had a number of shrubs to plant in rows. At first he tried to plant 8,then 12 and then 16 in a row but he had always 3 shrubs left with him. On trying 7 he had none left. Find the total number of shrubs.


7. If m and n are two whole numbers and if m^n= 49. Find n^m, given that n ≠ 1


8. What will be the least number which when doubled will be exactly divisible by 12,18, 21 and 30?


9. HCF and LCM of two numbers are 11 and 385 .If one number lies between 75 and 125 then that number is

a) 123 b) 73 c) 77




10. If the L.C.M of x and y is z, their H.C.F is

a) xy/z b) xyz c) (x + y)/z d) z/xy e) None of these



SOLUTIONS

1. C) 1:39

Explanation:

HCF = 8

LCM = Product/HCF

Product of the 2 number = 2496

HCF:LCM = 8 : (2496/8) => 8 : 312

=> 1: 39

2. B) 32

Explanation:

192 = 4^2×2^2×3

384 = 4^2×2^2×6

2304 = 4^2×2×6^2

HCF = 4^2×2 = 16×2 = 32

3. A. 4/126

Explanation:

HCF of numerator(4,8,36,20) = 4

LCM of denominator(3,6,63,42) =

126

4. C) 198/8

Explanation :

LCM of numerator(3,9,33,18) = 198

HCF of denominator(8,32,48,72) = 8

5. D) 81

Explanation :

2511 = 81×31

3402 = 81×42

Hence HCF is 81

6. B) 147

Explanation :

7. D) 128

Explanation :

49 = 7^2 = m^n

n^m = 2^7 = 128

8. A) 630

Explanation :

LCM of 12,18,21 and 30 = 1260

Doubled (divide by 2) = 1260/2 =

630

9. C) 77

Explanation :

Product of the two number =

11a×11b = 4235

11a×11ab = 4235/121 = 35

35 = 7 × 5 (co prime)

77 × 11 = 77

10. A) xy/z

Explanation :

HCF = Product of the 2

number/LCM = XY/Z



“GENERAL AWARENESS AND SCIENCE”



HISTORY OF JAMMU (A Brief Perspective) SOURCES OF JAMMU REGION Vansavalis of the ruling families and chief of Jammu. Vansanucharita sections of Puranas. The Lords of Hills by G.C. Smith. A History of the Ruling Family of Lahore by Ganesh Dass Badehra . Gulabanama by Diwan Kirpa Ram. Rajdarshani by Ganesh Dass [1847]. Ashtadhyayi by Panini [700 BC] Rajatarangini contains details about Pruntsa[Poonch] Lohara[Loran] Rajapuri[Rajori], Kashtwata[Kishtwar], Vallapur[Billawar], Badravaksha[Bhadarwah]. Chinese pilgrim Huen Trang’s travel accont. Tahqiqal Hind by Al-Beruni. Malfuzt-i-Timuri[Biography of Timur]. Akbarnama & Badshahnama. Tarikh-i-Kishtwar by Sheoji Dhar. Tarikh-i-Rajgan-i-Jammu wa Kashmir by Thakur Kahu Singh Balaria. Tarikh-i-Aqwam-i-punch Muhammad Din Fauq. Travelogues of George Forestor [1783], Mooncraft, Trebeck, Hugel, Jacquemout, Vigne, Drew etc. JAMMU RULERS The ancient tradition as described in Rajdarshni is that Jammu Rajya had a small beginning when Agnigir [ or Agnivarna ] the younger son of king Sudarshan [who was 20th descendant in line of Rama of Ayodhya migrated from Oopa [Ayodhya] to the Shalala Hills and reached the bank of the Ravi in the region of present day Kathua. He subjugated the people of the surrounding villages and founded and ruled over the towns Pushpavati and Airava. Probable year 550 of Kali Yuga. He was succeeded by his son Vayu-Shrava who extended his rule upto the Ujh. His successors I line were Parmetra, Puran Singh, Lakhan-Khat-Joshan, and Agnigarbh. 111 Agnigarbh was very ambitious. With the help of his 18 sons he extended his rule up to the Tawi. His elder son Bahu Lochan succeeded him. He founded the new town Dharanagri and transferred his capital from Airava. He also built Bahufort on the left bank of Tawi River. He tried to extend the empire towards Madar Desh(Modern Punjab) and attacked the Raja at Shallakote (Sialkote) but was defeated and killed. He died issueless. His younger brother Jambu Lochan took over the ruler ship. He defeated Chandrahas, the

CHAPTER

1

HISTORY OF J&K STATE



Sialkote King and annexed territories upto the Sindh to his empire. He became the powerful ruler in the region. Once on hunting expedition across the river Tawi he was amazed to see a tiger and goat drinking water at the same pond. He thought that the place may have some virtue so he founded a town there named Jambupura which later changed to Jamboo, Jambu and Jammu. Jambu Lochan (1500 B.C) succeeded by Purankarn who shifted capital from Bahu to Jammu. Dharam Karan-- Kirpa Karan—Agni Karan Shakti Karan—He invented Dogri script.He was well versed in scriptures. He extended his empire up to Bhanihal ( Pir Panjal). Shiv Prakash (the last of this dynasty) was defeated by Raja Shal of Sialkote who annexed Jammu. Raja Shal was maternal uncle of Pandavas and was killed in Mahabharata war. Jammu then governed by Babru-Vahan (Arjun’s son). He founded Babaur. His descendents ruled for 500 years. During their rule Jammu became desolate and tribals occupied it and had their sway. Jyoti Prakash & Sarv Prakash reconquered Jammu.They were local descendants of Shakti Karan. They & their descendants ruled till sixth century B.C. their last king being Bali Karan. First Historical Dynasty: 500 B.C. to 143 B.C. Raja Bodh Arjun:A great conqueror, he subdued all chiefs in surrounding areas. He was a benevolent ruler and in his rule Jammu gained its glory. He ruled for 80 years. Raja Bodh dynasty ruled for 357 years. The later king saw great upheaval. Raja Mangal Chand of Kangra-Nagarkot occupied Jammu after killing Rajvallab, the seventh descendant of Bodh Arjun. Bhanu Jakh if Bharakh then killed Mangal Chand and tried to restore order but failed. People fled and deserted the towns during period of upheavals. Punjab chieftains raided Jammu which made life uncertain & people fled to jungles. Raja Bhoomi Dutt& his six descendants could not restore peace. Jammu was reduced to small principalities ruled by Ranas. The sovereignty passed on a Sialkote or Takshila Raja A long line of kings from Damodar Dutt to Nand Gupta ruled Jammu from Gandhara. At the time of Alexandar’s invasion in 326 B.C. Damodar Dutt’s seventh descendant Raja Ajay Singh ruled Jammu. He was Raja Puru’s (Porus)??? Son-in-Law. He was killed in fighting for Puru against Alexander. After Ajay Singh his son Bijoy Singh ascended the throne. He extended his way upto Jhelum in Punjab. His descendant Ram Gupta constructed Ramgarh fort and started Ramgaria Rajput clan. RAI DYNASTY About 50 B.C. the Rai Dynasty of Sialkote annexed Jammu to their kingdom. Adi-Rai – Independent ruler of Jammu (58 B.C. to 10 B.C.) Devi Rai- (10 B.C. to 40 A.D.). Andrew one of the 12 Disciples of Christ came to his court and cured his son of a disease with his prayers in 39 A.D. Gandharb Rai - (40 A.D. to 75 A.D.). Kadamb Rai - (75 A.D. to 124 A.D.). Karam Rai-(124 A.D. to 204 A.D.). Buried his new born daughter alive and started tradition in hill Rajputs. Khir Rai-(204 A.D. to 229 A.D.).



Khakhar Rai-(229 A.D. to 261 A.D.). Sind Rai-(261 A.D. to 310 A.D.). Jagat Rai-(310 A.D. to 330 A.D.). Dudh Rai-(330 A.D. to 342 A.D.). Jog Rai- He had two sons. Malhan Hans and Suraj Dhar. Malhan Hans moved to Sialkote and formed the Manhas tribe of Rajputs while the younger son Suraj Dhar became ruler of Jammu. Dhar Dynasty (430 A.D. to 840 A.D) SuraJ Dhar – 430 A.D. to 485 A.D. Ganga Dhar- 495 A.D. to 530 A.D. (His brother Sojla Dhar started the Charak Clan) Devala Dhar- 530 A.D. 585 A.D Sarbia Dhar- 590 A.D to 650 A.D. During the reign Peer Roshan Shah Wali, a Muslim Saint from Arab came and settled in Gumat. The Raja held him in great respect. Kirat Dhar- 650A.D to 700 A.D. Ajay Dhar-> Bijay Dhar-> Vajar- 785 A.D. TO 840 A.D. (He could not hold out against constant attacks & fled to Garh-Babaor when he was in 850 A.D.) DevDynasty (840 A.D. to 912 A.D) Vajar Dhar’s successor, Suraj Dev was the first King of Jammu to use the surname Dev. The Dev Dynasty remained in power till around 1816. SURAJDEV (840 A.D. to 912 A.D): He ruled from Babaur. He was wise, brave and efficient administrator. He conducted administrative reforms and raised a trained army. He went to the help of Shailya King(of Sialkote), but was captured and buried alive in a masonry tower by Sherif Khan. His wife Neella Rani committed Sati. BHUJDEV (912 A.D. to 982 A.D): Succeeded Suraj Dev. During his reign. Nasar-ud-din Sinbaktgin invaded Punjab and Jammu. But Raja Bhuj Dev gave him a tough fight and made him to retreat in another battle, he fought against Sabuktign on Jaipal’s side and was killed. AVTARDEV (982 A.D. to 1030 A.D): After Bhuj Dev his brother Avtar Singh ascended the throne. Mahmud of Gazni invaded Jammu in his time. First time his son Masud beat a hastry retreat against combined resistance of all Jammu Hill chiefs. Second time they succeeded in carrying away 300 camel loads of body. JASDEV (1030 A.D. to 1053 A.D): Founder of Jasrotia town and Jasrotia clan. He introduced the worship of Bhair (Varun) devta and Kali Devi Bahu Fort. Manak Dev, another descendent of Bhuj, founded the Mankot State and Mankotia clan. SANGRAMDEV (1053 A.D. to 1094 A.D): A just ruler. He defeated king of Kashmir, Ananta and Billawar. JASAKARA (CHAKRA) DEV (1094 A.D. to 1164 A.D): BRIJ (BIJAY) DEV (1164 A.D. to 1215 A.D): He became allies to Muhammad Ghori and fought on his side against Prithivi Raj Chauhan in the battle of Tarain. He founded Baj (Biay) pur and present Vijaypur. Narsing DEV (1215 A.D. to 1258 A.D): Son of Brij Dev. The Rajdarshini narrates that Prithvi Raj’s brother, Khande Rao, was killed at the hands of Narsing Dev in the Battle of Tarain. ARJANDEV (1258 A.D. to 1313 A.D):



JODHDEV (1313 A.D. to 1361 A.D): He was contemporary of Feroz Shah Tuglak of Delhi. When Sahdeva, the ruler of Kashmir fled to Kishtwar, he sustained him and helped him return to Kashmir, Rinchin ruled Kashmir then. MALDEV (1361 A.D. to 1400 A.D): The hero of Dogri ballads. He shifted the Dogri Capital to Jammu. Raja Mal Dev was a powerful king and he made a great effort for the welfare of his subjects. During this period economy of the region became strong and in history of Jammu it is regarded as “golden period”. Tawi Riverwas placed by him. He erected a building at Puani Mandi which was named Mal Mandi. He sat on gaddi first time there and the tradition continued with all Dogra Kings. Timur’s invasion took place during his rule and the Dogras gave him a tough time. He avoided a confrontation with Mal Dev and retreated after plundering villages. But there after, the rulers of Jammu remained vassals of the Mughals, until the early 18th Century. HAMIRDEV (1400 A.D. to 1423 A.D): Contemporary of Muhammad Tuglak in Delhi and Ali Shah (son of Sikandar, the prosecutor of Hindus) of Kashmir. He struggled to eliminate the Khokhar menace by helping Ali Shah to regain his throne to Kashmir from Shahi Khan (Zain-ul-Abidin) who was assisted by Khokhar chief Jasrath Khokhar. AJABDEV (1423 A.D. to 1454 A.D): Raja Ajaib Dev was a great was a great warrior. He extended Jammu Kingdom up Gujrat. Made friends with Zain-ul-Abidin of Kashmir and remained safe from Khokhar troubles. BAIRAMDEV (1454 A.D. to 1489 A.D): Contemporary of Bahol Lodhi of Delhi with whom he entered into a conspiracy to eliminate Jasrath, the Khokhar chief whom he got murdered. During his reign Sayyed Qutub Alam came to Jammu from Sabazwar. He made a large number of Hindus and Muslims his followers. He was not spoken; sweet tongued Faqir and was fond of milk and sugar. So his devotees called him Pir Mitha and offered him sugarcane. Another Pir, Jogi Garib Dass came and lived at Jamwant Cave (Khoh), it came to be called as Pir Khoh. Two grandchildren of Bairam Dev Hasal Dev and Shera who showed great velour at Delhi court of Bahol Lodhi were honoured with titles. They started the Rajput clans Slathia and Sarkhania. GHOGHARDEV (1500 A.D. to 1530 A.D): In his time Babur occupied Delhi and Agra . He mad friends with Babur and sent him gifts. He won battles for him and earned the title of Isa Khan. He started the clan of Isakhania Rajputs. KAPURDEV (1530 A.D. to 1571 A.D): He had two sons Jagdeep & Samhel Dev . They were born of two queens on the same day. So he divided his kingdom in two parts. With headquarter at Jammu and Bahu and installed Jagdev at Bahu and Samhak Dev at Jammu. JAGDEV (1571 A.D. to 1590 A.D): Was killed by Mughal Hakim of Sialkote Sadiq Khan in a conspiracy by Lal Dev, his half brother. SAMHALDEV (1595 A.D): He was simple minded. SANGRAMDEV (1594 A.D. to 1626 A.D): He was one of the favourite of Mughal king Jahangir and got favors from him. He accompanied Mughal forces on many expeditions and breath his last in the Deccan expedition with Prince Khurram. BHUPATDEV (1616 A.D. to 1656 A.D): He was Shahjahan’s contemporary. His brother Dalpat became the ancestor of Dalpatia Rajputs. HARIDEV (1656 A.D. to 1692 A.D): He was mansabdar of Aurangzeb & fought many of his



battles. GAJE SINGH (1692 A.D. to 1703 A.D): Carried on the work of his father with Aurangzeb and strengthen Jammu Raj. Guru Gobind Singh came to Jammu during his time as a ruler. DHRUVDEV (1703 A.D. to 1733 A.D): He threw away the yoke of Mughals and became independent ruler. He gave shelter to Banda Bahadur from Mughals and helped him against Mughals. He consolidated his territory and grew a powerful king. He built the Mubarak Mandi Complex and shifted his palace from Maldev Mandi( now called Purani Mandi ) to the new complex. He had four sons and a daughter. MAHARAJA RANJITDEV (1733 A.D. to 1782 A.D): He was the elder son of Dhruv Dev and the most notable ruler of Jammu before Gulab Singh. He provided stability to Jammu and rules sway over the politics of Punjab and Shivalik Hills. He captivated twice, once by the Mughals for disobeying their commands and second time by the Afghans for looting a caravan. But at both the times he was released after negotiations and his kingdom restore to him. He became the keyman for the Afghan in their power struggle against the hills Rajas and Kashmir. He was ambitious and extended his rule in hills as well as plains. He was the first who conquered most of the states of Jammu and became the Maharaja of all 22 hill states. His reign was an era of prosperity and people of all religions were treated equally by him. According to Rajdarshani Ranjit Dev had enforced law & order very effectively and Jammu was called Dar-ul-Aman( Abode of Peace) during his period. Sufis were of firm believe that in the soil of Jammu, there is some virtue of peace. Its seems that Sufis found congenial atmosphere in the Jammu region for their philosophy of Wahadut-ul-wujud(Unity of being) and serving 114

HISTORY OF KASHMIR (A Brief Perspective) SOURCES OF KASHMIR REGION Nilamat Purana by Nila the Lord of Kashmir Nagas is the earliest known text of Kashir. Rajtarngni of Kalhana Pandit (Originally written in Sanskrit & Sultan Zain-ul-Abidin got it translated into Persian by Mula Ahmad). Hara Charitrachintamani of Jayadarth gives sacred sites in the Kashmir. Twarikh-i-Kashmir by Malik Haider. Samayatrika of Kshemendra gives the topological details of Kashmir. Nrapavali of Kshemendra. Kitab-ul-Hindof Alberuni. Waqat-i-Kashmir by Khawaja Mohd. Azam Kaul. Tarrikh-i-Hassan by Pir Hassan Shah. Mukhtsar-Tarrikh-i-Kashmir by Pandit Birbal Kachru. Zafar Nama by Shrif-ud-Din-Yazdi The valley of Kashmir by Sir Waller Lawrence. The “Land of Lamas” (on Ladhakh) by Alexandar Cunningham. Tarikh-i-Hind by Alberuni.



Travel account of Huen-Tsang- Al- Masudi, Al-Qazwini, Ou-Kong etc. HISTORY OF KASHMIR According to most popular legend Kashmir Valley was a big lake called “Satisar”,(The Pond of Sati , consort of Lord Shiva). As mentioned in Rajtarangani and Nilmatpurana one morning when demigods were in playful mood, there appeared a demon Sangrahustra who espied Sachi, the India’s consort amidst the heavenly host. Struck by her beauty, Sangrahustra seed fell into the lake which sprouted in the form of bony babe which was brought by the celestial folk of Kashmir the Nagas. He was named Jalodbhowa meaning born from water in Sanskrit. The child Jalodbhowa grew up to be giant cannibalistic fiend who tortured and devoured the people. The harassed and terrified Nagas approached Nilangana and requested him to save them from the Tyranny of this cannibal. The Nilangana then decide to approach his father Kashyap a great sage and grand son of Brahma. He did a long penance to rescue the people from the suffering. The saint was blessed and was able to cut the mountain near Baramulla(Varamukha) the lake was drained and the demon was killed by a pebble divinely cast, which today stand as the hills upon which towers the fortress built by the Mughal Emperor Akbar and known as “Hari Parbat”. After the Kashyap Rishi imported Brahamans and Rishis from India 116 to live there and the reclaimed land was called Kashyappura and Kashyap-Mar and later Kashmir. It seems that the name Kashmir comes from the two Sanskrit words “Ka”(water) and “Shimira” (dry up) i.e dried up land. The Nilmata Purana tells that the early inhabitants of Kashmir were the tribal Nagas, who were the worshippers of the serpent. Most of these tribes lived in the mountains around the Satissara Lake. Their celebrated king was Nila. Some tribes like Pishachas and Yakshas lived in the Northern Mountains. They used to trouble the settlers and the Nagas. Ultimately king Nila with the help of Brahaman Chadradeva freed the country from their menance. Gradually other races came to settle in the valley, chief among these being the Aryans. Later settlers included Persians, Greeks, Dards while Punjabis, Mughals, Pathans and Paharis were still later settlers. RULERS OF KASHMIR The earliest record nanda-Is are lost in Pre-historic oblivion the first king mentioned by Kalhana in Gonanda-I who came to the throne in 653 kali which is about 3000 B.C. He was a relative of Jarasand and fought in a war for Jarasand against Krishna at Mathura and was killed. Gonananda was succeeded by his son Dhamoder to the throne of Kashmir . He also suffered at the hands of Krishna in the neighbouring territory of Gandhara. The Krishna got Gonanada’s pregnant widow Yasovati installed on the throne by the Brahman. Later when Yasovati gave birth to a son, he was put on the throne as GonandaII. There after it was ruled by Pandavas. Pandavas: The 35 kings of this dynasty ruled over Kashmir. But they have been emerged in the ocean of oblivion their names and deeds having perished through the destruction of the records. Somehow the famous ruins of Martand and other old temples are still called Pandav-lari, or buildings of the Pandavas, by the people. The ancient temple of the Shankara Charya hills is believed to be built by Sandiman, one of the Pandavas Kings. The first of these Pandavas king was Harandev, son of Parikshit, the grandson of Arjuna. One of



the Pandavas kings of Kashmir was Sundarsena. The beautiful city of Sandimatnagar is said to have been submerged during the reign by an earthquake, which created the Wullar Lake over the capital. Cyrus: Probably Kashmir came under the rule of Achaemenians of Persia for some time in the ancient period. Cyrus(558-530-B.C.) the founder of the Persian Empire extnds his conquests up to the Hindukush and Gandhara formed a part of his empire. Later Darius conquered a part of the Punjab and annexed it into Persian Empire. It is Probable that by the time of Alexandar’s invasion in 326 B.C. the Persians had lost their control over these parts of India. When Alexandar left India, Kashmir was ruled by a king named Abhisara. Mauryas: Chronologically Ashoka is the first name that has a geniuine historical basis. In the 3rd century (250 B.C.) King Ashoka “ The Great” conquered Kashmor and he introduced Buddhism, built numerous viharas & stupas. Ashoka was succeeded by his son , Jaluka who restored Hiduism. He was a great warrior who freed Kashmir of the Miechhas (foreigners , who were probably Indo-Greek hordes) and conquered the country up to Kanauj. Shivism flourished during his reign. After Jalika his son Damodar II ascended. -A gap of 200 years- unaccounted (The scholars accept the theory that the valley for over 200 years was ruled by Indo-Greek kings before the start of the Kushans. Kushans: in 1st century A.D. Kashmir was occupied by Kushans. Prominent among the Kushans was Kanishka who convened the 4th Buddhist council at Kunalvana in Kashmir. It is at this council that Buddhism got divided into two sectors Mahayana ( followers of the greater vehicle) & Hinayana (followers of the lesser vehicle) the commentaries were deposited by Kanishka in special stupa. Kanishka Hushak Jushik up to 178 A.D. Gonanda Dynasty: with the decline of Kushna, local chieftains regained their sovereignty. Abhimanyu-I Gaonanda III Vibhishin –I etc. Six Kings of Different Lineage: When Guptas ruled rest of India Kashmir was an independent state. However on the fall of Gupta Empire Kashmir fell into the hands of Huns. Huns: The Huns gained control of the valley in the early sixth century and the name most remembered among the Huns was of Mihira Kula, a prince as cruel as death. He favoured shivism and built a shrine of Shiva near Srinagar. Other notable kings of this dynasty. Baka Nara Aksha (founder of Achhabal)? Gopaditya (founder of Gopkar) Gakarna (founder of Gokarnesa) Gopaiditya Yudhistra Yudhistra was an oppressive ruler. He was forced to flee the country by his ministers and subjects. Kings of lineage of Vikramaditya of Ujjain: After Yudhistra, Pratapaditya, a king of India a relation of Harsha Vikramaditya of Ujjain) was offered the throne of Kashmir. From Pratapaditya to Jayendra (there were 5 kings in between). After Jayendra this dynasty was succeeded by his minister named Samdhimati. He assumed the title of Aryaraja. According to Kalhana, Samdhimati was a devotee of Siva and promoted Shivism; Sammdhimati voluntarily abdicated in favour of Megghvahana and



became a recluse. Gonanda Family Again: Till the advent of Karkota dynasty the Gonanda Dynasty gave Kashmir only two notable rules.viz Megghavahna and Pravarsein, Megghvahana , great grandson of Yudhistra was influenced by Buddhism and built many vaharas , a firm believer to Ahimsa and remembered for the prohibition of animal slaughtering even for the sacrificial purposes. His chief queen Amrit Prabha built “Amrit Bhawan “Vihar, Megghvahanaa was succeeded by Sresthasena. He succeeded by his elder son Hiryana while his younger son was put into prison for introducing his own coins as the prince. The throne of Kashmir was then occupied a King Vikramaditya of Ujjain. He was a kind ruler. He maintained peace and won goodwill of the people. After ruling for the 5 years he retired in favour of his son, Praversena II of Kangra—He founded the city of Srinagar (old name Praversena). Praversena ruled ably for 60 years. He was then succeeded by Yudhistra-II --- Ranaditya (3 years) Baladitya Baladitya was the last king of his dynasty. He married his daughter to one Durlabhvardhana, petty official who proved to be descendent of Nagarkote and the throne finally passed on to his hands. Korkota Dynasty (Naga Dynasty) Durabhvardhana (625-661 A.D.). Founder of this dynasty as home out of his coins. Hieun Tsang, the great Chinese pilgrim, visited the country during his rule. Pratpaditya: (661AD-711 AD) Son of Durlabha vardhana founder the town of Partapapura now called Tapar, about 24km to west of Srinagar . He was succeeded by his three sons: Chandrapida, Tarapida and Muktapida respectively. Chandrapida: (711-719). He was kind ruler & was also known by Vajraditya. He met death by witchcraft. Tarapida (720-724) His rule was full of cruel and bloody deeds. Muktapida: (724-260) greatest king of Karakote dynasty was Lalitaditya (Muktapida). He is reputed to have conquered Punjab, Kannauj, Tibet, Badakshan and nearly by territories. Built famous temple of Matand and dedicated to sun. He is remembered as great conqueror, great builder and people loving personality; Vakpatiraja & Bhavabhuti adorned his court. Jayapida: (Grand Son of Lalitaditya) (782-795) was the onlycapable ruler of this dynasty after Lalitaditya. He built a city, Jayapura and Andarkot Fort. According to Kalhana, he was a man of learning and a warrior at the same time. Laments by D.C. Rays say that “Never before the Karkota period had Kashmir performed such a feat, nor was she able to repeat it in future.” During the last fifty years of Karakota Dynasty, there was no stable ruler/government in Kashmir. After the fall of this dynasty, Kashmir came under the rule of the Utpala Dynasty. 118 UTPALA DYSNASTY (855 A.D to 1003 A.D.) Avantivaram (855-83) founder of Avantipura is remembered for the wonderful progress in drainage in the valley made during this period. Thanks to the engineering genius of sage called Surya, who founded Sopore (Suyyapur). Avantipuram died in June-883 A.D. near the shrine of Jayashtheswara at Triphar.Avantipuram was succeeded by his son Shankaravarman .He led many expeditions in the south and north of his kingdom. In the



latter days of his rule the king turned to be notorious and started exorting money from his subjects. For the pupose he organized a special office by the name of Grahkrtya. It was during this period that forced labours came into existence. Shankaravarman was killed during his invasion of Hazara near Uri 904 AD. After Shankaraverman his queen Sugandha ascended the throne however she was soon deposed. The last ruler of Utpala Dynasty was Suravarman. He was forced to run away by his commander in chief in 939 939.A.D. At this stage a council of Brahmins place Yashaskardeva in the throne. With this ended the rule of Utpala Dynasty. BRAHMANIC RULE (939 A.D to 948 A.D.) The Brahmin King Yashaskaradeva ruled over Kashmir for nine years and during this period the country enjoyed peace. The country obtained a respite from civil war and internal troubles from which it had suffered for a long time. After the reign of Yashaskaradeva , the country was again plunged into grief. He was succeeded by his son. Sangram who was murdered by powerful and scheming minister of Parvagupta. GUPTA DYSNASTY(948 A.D to 1003 A.D.) This dynasty was founded by Parvagupta who started his career and clerk of low origin but after the murder of Sangram, in 949 A.D. he ascended the throne. His rule lasted for two years only. During this, period he, oppressed the people and exorted money from them by all means. To perpetuate, his memory he built with his riches accumulated through evil means, the Shrine of Shiva, called Parvagupteshvara at the Sikandabhavana-vihara. He died in 950 A.D. and was succeeded by his son Kshamagupta. Gupta Dynasty ruled for about 50 years. Paravgupta was succeeded by Kshamagupta who ruled from 950-958-A.D. Kshamagupta married Didda the daughter of Samharaja, the rule of Lohara. The marriage of Kshamagupta and Didda influenced the historical scene of Kashmir for next 50 years. Didda dominated the historical scene of Kashmir and Kshamagupta’s queen. Her husband was a mere puppet in her hands so Kshamagupta was nick named as Deed-Khema. Didda Rani (Daughter of Samharaja) wife of Kshamagupta Didda influenced the historical scene first as a queen, then as queen mother and ultimately as a ruler. Kshamagupta was succeeded by his infant son Abhimanyu (AD 958 – 972). After Abhimanyu’s death, didda placed her grandsons one after another on the throne, and eventually took the reign in her hand in AD 981. She brought up her brother’s son Sangamraja who after the death of queen founded Lohara dynasty. LOHARA DYSNASTY 1003 AD TO 1171 AD (14 KINGS) Notable kings: Kalasha, Harsaha, Sussala, Jayasimha in whose reign Kalhana wrote Rajtarangni. After the end of Utpala dynasty, the history of Kashmir is written in decay. During the rule of Gupta Kula, there was quick succession of brief and oppressive reigns, intrigues and rebellions, civil wars and political murders. The kingdom of Kashmir was virtually reduced to a minor principality shorn of its past glory and of all the territories tributary to it. During the reign of Sangrama, Mohammad Ghazni made his second campaign against Kashmir but again he was forced to retreat by ensuing winter.



In 1099 AD when Harsha was the king of Kashmir, plague raged the country and disastrous flood destroyed the crops. A serve famine followed which added to the miseries of the people. The famous historian of Kashmir viz. Kalhana Pandit is said to have lived during the reign of Jayasimha 1128-1149 A.D.



LOCATION, AREA. EXTENT The state is located between 32°.15’ and 37°.05’ north latitude and 72°.35’ east and 83°.20’ east longitude. It is 640 km in length from north to south and 480 km from east to west. The total of Princely State of J&K on 15th August 1947 was 2, 22, 236 Sq. km. Area under illegal occupation of Pakistan is 78, 114 Sq. km, 5180 Sq. km illegally handed over by Pakistan to China and 37,555 sq. km under illegal occupation of China. GEOGRAPHICAL POSITION The state is the northern most part of India and looks like its crown. To its east is Tibet; to its north is China and Afghanistan; to its west is Pakistan. To its south lie the states of Punjab and Himachal Pradesh. The state ranks 6th in area and 17th in population among the States and Union Territories of India. HEIGHT Height from sea-level varies from 1000 ft to 28,500 ft. (305 meters to 9610 meters.) STANDARD TIME The standard time is the same as in the rest of the Indian union. It is 5hrs. 30 mm. ahead of Greenwich Time. But there is a difference of 30 minutes in the local time. DISTRICT PROFILE Jammu and Kashmir is the Northern most State of India. Situated mostly in the Himalayan mountains, Jammu and Kashmir shares a border with the Indian States of Himachal Pradesh and Punjab to the South, Pakistan to the West, Afghanistan to the North and China to the North and East. Some of its territory was forcibly captured by Pakistan, which is called Pakistan occupied Kashmir (PoK). Jammu and Kashmir State is situated between 32° 15’ and 37° 5’ North latitudes and 72°31’ and 8O2O’ East longitudes. Geographically, the state can be divided into four zones First The mountainous and semi-mountainous plains commonlyknown as Kandi belt Second The hills including Shiwalik ranges Third The mountains of Kashmir valley and Pir Panjal range Fourth The fourth is Tibetan tract of Ladakh and Kargil AREA The total area of the State of Jammu and Kashmir is about222236 sq km. of which 78114 sq km area is under illegal occupation by Pakistan and 37555 sq km by China, In addition to this, 5180 sq km of Jammu and Kashmir was illegally ceded to China by Pakistan under March, 1963, Sino-Pak Boundary Agreement. The state shares a221 Km, international boundary with Pakistan in the Jammu region and365 km with China in its Ladakh sector. The Line of Control (LoC),which divides the India and Pakistan occupied parts of the state, is 1001km long (Jammu : 205 km, Kashmir Valley: 460 km and Ladakh/Siachen area : 336 km). It has 22 districts.

CHAPTER

2

GEOGRAPHY OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR



The border with China is 465 km long. Pakistan has annexed the districts of Dianer, Baltistan, Gilgit, Muzaffarabad, Kotil, Mirpur, Poonch and Bagh. Almost all the people in the Pakistan occupied territory are Muslims. The Chinese held territory is called Aksai Chin (un-inhabited). JAMMU AND KASHMIR REGIONS Jammu and Kashmir is divided mainly in to three regions namely Jammu, Kashmir and

Ladakh. The state ranks 6th in the area and 19th in population among states and Union

Territories of India.

REGIONS The state comprises three main regions, namely, Jammu, Kashmir and Ladakh. A brief description of these three regions provides necessary understanding about each of them JAMMU REGION Jammu region comprises the plains, hills and mountains South and West of the mighty Pit Panjal range that separates Kashmir valley from the plains of the sub-continent. Today, the Jammu region comprises 10 districts; Kathua, Jammu, Udhampur, Doda, Rajouri, Poonch, Reasi, Ramban, Samba and Kishtwar. The main attraction of Jammu region is the Mata Vaishnav Devi shrine. KATHUA DISTRICT It is situated on the Jammu-Pathankot National Highway at a distance of about 87 km East of Jammu and about 25 km West of Pathankot. The district shares its boundary with Punjab in the South, Himachal Pradesh in the East and Udhampur and Doda district in the North. The geographical area of the district is 2651 sq km with 5 tehsils. The majority of the population of Kathua district is dependent on agriculture. About 80% of agricultural land in the district is non-irrigated. Population-615711 Density-246 inhabitants per sq km Sex ratio-862 females Literacy rate-73.09% The district consists of 8 blocks and 5 tehsils The district has 5 assembly constituencies The traditional language of Kathua is Dogri. JAMMU DISTRICT It is extended along the whole length of the international border with Pakistan. It shares its border with Rajouri, Udhampur and Kathua district in the North, in the East and in the South-East respectively. The geographical area of the district is 2336 sq km with 4 tehsils. The literacy rate stands at 83.45% which is not only highest among all the districts in the state, but higher than the national average also. It is home to the winter capital (Jammu) ofJammu and Kashmir. Except for the Kandi area, the land is irrigated and fertile. Population- 1526406 Density-653 inhabitants per sq km Sex ratio-880 females Literacy rate- 83.45%



The most populous district of Jammu and Kashmir The district of 8 blocks and 4 tehsils The most, widely spoken language of Jammu is Dogri UDHAMPUR DISTRICT It is situated in Jammu and Kashmir at an altitude of 2134 ft above mean sea level. Rajouri bounds the district in the West, Jammu in the South-West, Doda in the East and Kathua in the South-East. It also shares its boundary with Anantnag in the North. The geographical area of the district is 2473 sq km with 4 tehsils. Vaishno Devi Cave near Katra is the most famous tourist attraction of this district. Population-555357 Density-210 inhabitants per sq km Sex ratio-870 females Literacy rate- 68.9% Udhampur district consists of 7 block and 4 tehsils. The major languages spoken in the district are Gojri, Dogri, Hindi, Urdu and Kashmiri.

DODA DISTRICT It is the second largest district in the Jammu region. Doda town, after which the district is named, is situated at an altitude of 5000 ft above sea level. The district shares borders with Anantnag district of Kashmir valley and the Chamba District of Himachal Pradesh. The entire area of this region is hilly. The area of the district is 11691 sq km. The district comprises 4 tehsils. Population-409936 Density-59 inhabitants per sq km Sex ratio-919 females Literacy rate-64.68% The third largest district in Jammu and Kashmir after Leh and Kargil. The district consists of 8 blocks and 4 tehsils. Language - Bhadrawabi, Adogri, Kangri RAJOURI DISTRICT This district was carved out of Poonch District in 1968. It shares a long border from Sunderbani to Bhimbergali with Pakistan occupied Kashmir (PoK) in the West. It is bounded by Udhampur district in the East and by Jammu in the South-East. The Northern part of the district consists of hi1iy terrain. The geographical area of the district is 2630 sq km. Population-642415 Density-244 inhabitants per sq km Sex ratio-860 females Literacy rate-68.17% The district consists of 8 blocks and 7 tehsils. Language spoken-Gujri, Pahari, Dogri POONCH DISTRICT Poonch town, the headquarters of the district by the same name, is sithated at a distance of 246 km NorthWest of Jammu. The Poonch town is at a height of 3287 ft above sea level. It is surrounded by the Line of Control (LoC) on three sides and, is separated from Kashmir vey



by the migh Pir Panjal Range in the North. The geographical area of the district is 1674 sq km comprising 4 tehsils. There is no industrial unit in the district. The terrain is hilly with, little fertile land and therefore there is great dependency on government jobs. Population-476835 Density-285 inhabitants per sq km Sex ratio-893 females Literacy rate—6674% The district consists of 6 blocks and 4 tehsils. Language spoken-Gujri, Pahari RAMBAN DISTRICT It is a newly formed district of Indian State of Jammu and Kashmir North to Udhampur. Ramban district has an average elevation of 1156 m the boundary lines of the district have Patnitop on its South, Assar on its East, Gool on its West and Banihal on its North. River Chenab passes through the district. National Highway-lA (Now 44) that connects Jammu with Srinagar passes through the district. Population_283713 Density-213 inhabitants per sq km Sex ratjo-902 females Literacy rate-54.27% The district consists of 4 blocks and 2 tehsils.



Kashmir lifestyle is essentially, irrespective of the differing religious beliefs, slow paced. Generally peace-loving people, the culture has been rich enough to reflect the religious diversity as tribes celebrate festivities that divert them from their otherwise monotonous way of life. Kashmiris are known to enjoy their music in its various local forms, and the dress of both sexes is quite colourful. However, the rise of Islamic fundamentalism in Muslim-dominated Kashmir, Hindu-dominated Jammu and Buddhist-dominated Ladakh poses a grave danger to the security of the region where mixed population lives in regions such as Doda and Kargil. Kashmir is famous for its woven carpets, silk carpets, rugs, woolen shawls, pottery and hand-embroidered kurtas. The traditional clothes worn by women usually the pherans are usually hand-embroidered with colourful threads and floral motifs. Kashmiri woodwork is very popular. Extensive carving is done on wooden furniture, wooden boxes and other decorative and useful items made of wood. Kashmiri Papier-mache work is also very popular Kashmir art form. Papier-mache vases, bowls and other decorative items have exquisite traditional designs in vibrant colours on them. Hand woven willow baskets are very common in Kashmir and the locals utilize these for their everyday use. Kashmiri silk and woolen carpets have intricate designs woven on them. The wall hangings have naqqashi work done on them. The jamavar work that is done by artisans on silk and woolen shawls is characteristic of the state of Kashmir. The Kashmiri jaal work is quite popular. It takes months to complete thread work on one shawl, stole or bedspread. Artisans stitch decorative motifs of birds, maple leaves, and other decorative designs. The most popular form of thread work is the chain stitch that is done on shawls and clothes. Kashmiri jamavar shawls with intricate thread work are in demand all over the world the special feature of this type of thread work is that these shawls can be worn on both sides, that is, the patterns stitched on one sides come out with the same finish on the other side, with no threads sticking out. The sozoni style embroidery stitching is also very popular. Gold thread is also is used for zardori work on phirans, saris, gowns and shawls. The sozoni thread work is usually done on the border of the shawls. Through the Bassohli School and other paintings, Dogras have made a notable contribution to the development of painting in India. From the 18th to the 19th centuries, the hill state of Jammu produced works of art which were closely connected with other schools of India. Basohli emerged as a great centre of painting early in the 18th century. Many of the paintings gave pictorial expression to the Bhakti movement; some were Shaivistic in theme. Out-standing paintings of this school depict Krishna’s frolics, scenes from the Ramayana, the Mahabharata, the Bhagvata Gita, etc. The Basohli painting in “Laughing colours” evince a remarkable blend of line and colour.

They have been characterized as ‘poems in colour’ for their extraordinary lyrical quality.

Distinguished by decorative harmony and intensity of expression, these works (whether

CHAPTER

3

CULTURE OF JAMMU AND KASHMIR



portraits of princes and other nobles or illustrations of scriptures) evinced rare

verisimilitude. No wonder then that Dr. Herman Goetz described Basohli paintings as “the

great achievements of Indians, nay, of human art”.



EXERCISE (1ST TO 3RD CHAPTER)

1. The territories of J&K were transferred to

Raja Gulab Singh of Jammu as a result of:

a) Treaty of Amritsar 1846

b) Treaty of Lahore-1846

c) Treaty of J&K- 1846

d) Treaty of Bhairowal 1846

2. The constitution of J&K, came into force on:

a) 15th Aug,1947

b) 17th Nov,1956

c) 26th Jan, 1950

d) 26th Jan,1957

3. 73rd Constitutional Amendment does not

apply to which of the following states?

a) Meghalaya

b) Goa

c) Sikkim

d) Himachal Pardesh

4. As per Article Act, the legislature of a state, may

by Law, provide for making grants-in0aid to the

Panchayats from:

a) Contingency Fund of the President

contingency

b) Fund of the Governor

c) Consolidated Fund of the state

d) Consolidated Fund of India

5. Various employment programmes have been

launched in India, namely, IRDP, NREP,RLEQP,

FWP. They are meant to improve

a) Rural Employment

b) Urban Employment

c) Rural and Urban Employment

d) Educated Employment

6. Which committee was set up to

review the concept of the poverty

line?

a) Chakarvarty Committee

b) lakdawala Committee

c) Wanchoo Committee

d) Dutt Committee

7. According to the traditions,

Kashmir takes its name from:

a) Scenery

b) Sage

c) Temple

d) King

8. Who founded the city of Srinagar?

a) Janaka

b) Swarna

c) Pravarsena


9. One of the objectives of Industrial

Licensing Policy in India was to

ensure:

a) Creation of adequate

employment opportunities

b) free flow of foreign capital in

Indian industries

c) Use of modern technology d) Balanced industrial development across

regions

10. A committee appointed in 1977 to

review working of the Panchayati

Raj was chaired by:



a) Balwant Rai Mehta

b) Ashok Mehta

c) K.N Katju

d) JagjivanRam



ANSWERS

1. a

2. d

3. a

4. c

5. c

6. b

7. b

8. c

9. d

10. b



List of States and Capitals of India

As a responsible citizens we should know about the States and capitals of India. The states and the capitals are very commonly asked as the General Awareness Questions in a number of competitive exams held all over the country. The 28 Indian States and their capitals are as follows.

States and Capitals of India 2020

S.No States Name Capital Founded on

1 Andhra Pradesh Hyderabad (Proposed Capital Amaravati) 1 Nov. 1956

2 Arunachal Pradesh Itanagar 20 Feb. 1987

3 Assam Dispur 26 Jan. 1950

4 Bihar Patna 26 Jan. 1950

5 Chhattisgarh Raipur 1 Nov. 2000

6 Goa Panaji 30 May. 1987

7 Gujarat Gandhinagar 1 May. 1960

8 Haryana Chandigarh 1 Nov. 1966

CHAPTER

4 CAPITALS AND STATES



9 Himachal Pradesh Shimla 25 Jan. 1971

10 Jharkhand Ranchi 15 Nov. 2000

11 Karnataka Bengaluru (formerly Bangalore) 1 Nov. 1956

12 Kerala Thiruvananthapuram 1 Nov. 1956

13 Madhya Pradesh Bhopal 1 Nov. 1956

14 Maharashtra Mumbai 1 May. 1960

15 Manipur Imphal 21 Jan. 1972

16 Meghalaya Shillong 21 Jan. 1972

17 Mizoram Aizawl 20 Feb. 1987

18 Nagaland Kohima 1 Dec. 1963

19 Odisha Bhubaneswar 26 Jan. 1950

20 Punjab Chandigarh 1 Nov. 1956

21 Rajasthan Jaipur 1 Nov. 1956

22 Sikkim Gangtok 16 May. 1975



23 Tamil Nadu Chennai 26 Jan. 1950

24 Telangana Hyderabad 2 Jun. 2014

25 Tripura Agartala 21 Jan. 1972

26 Uttar Pradesh Lucknow 26 Jan. 1950

27 Uttarakhand Dehradun (Winter)

Gairsain (Summer)

9 Nov. 2000

28 West Bengal Kolkata 1 Nov. 1956

Indian States: Union Territories and Capitals

At Present India has 8 Union Territories and 28 States. The erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir has been bifurcated into two Union Territories (UT) of J&K and Ladakh. The newly formed union territories have been formed under a reorganization act passed by the Parliament on 5-6 August 2020. At present India has 8 Union Territories.

Union Territories Names Capital Founded on

Andaman and Nicobar Islands Port Blair 1 Nov. 1956

Chandigarh Chandigarh 1 Nov. 1966

Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu Daman 26 Jan. 2020



Delhi New Delhi 9 May. 1905

Jammu and Kashmir Srinagar (Summer)

Jammu (Winter)

31 Oct 2019

Lakshadweep Kavaratti 1 Nov. 1956

Puducherry Pondicherry 1 Nov. 1954

Ladakh Leh 31 Oct 2019



EXERCISE

1. What is the capital of Maharashtra?

a. Mumbai b. New Delhi c. Chennai d. None of the above

2. ________________ is the capital of Uttarakhand.

a. Lucknow b. Prayagraj (Allahabad) c. Dehradun d. Shimla

3. Dispur is the capital city of which north-eastern state?

a. Assam b. Tripura c. Meghalaya d. Mizoram

4. Which city is known as the “summer capital” of Jammu and Kashmir?

a. Jammu b. Srinagar c. Shimla d. Anantnag

5. Kavaratti is the capital of which Union Territory?

a. Daman and Diu b. Lakshadweep c. Dadar and Nagar Haveli d. Chandigarh

6. Port Blair is the capital of which Union Territory?

a. Andaman and Nicobar Islands b. Daman and Diu c. Puducherry d. None of the above

7. Itanagar is the capital of _______________ .

a. Bihar b. Goa c. Chattisgarh d. Arunachal Pradesh

8. Ranchi is the capital of which Indian state?

a. Bihar b. Telangana c. Jharkhand d. Madhya Pradesh

9. ________________ is the capital of Odisha (Orissa).

a. Kolkata b. Shillong c. Bhubaneshwar d. Cuttack

10. Silvassa is the capital of which Union Territory?

a. Mumbai b. Puducherry c. Daman and Diu d. Dadar and Nagar Haveli

11. What is the capital of Uttar Pradesh?

a. Prayagraj (Allahabad) b. Kanpur c. Gorakhpur d. Lucknow



12. _________________ is the capital of Meghalaya.

a. Aizawl b. Kohima c. Shillong d. Agartala

13. Gandhinagar is the capital of which state?

a. Gujarat b. Maharashtra c. Telangana d. Goa

14. Thiruvananthapuram is the capital of __________________.

a. Telangana b. Andhra Pradesh c. Jammu and Kashmir d. Kerala

15. Gangtok is the capital of which state?

a. Sikkim b. Arunachal Pradesh c. Nagaland d. Mizoram

16. _________________ is the capital of Chattisgarh.

a. Bengaluru (Bangalore)

b. Ranchi c. Raipur d. Patna

17. The capital of Goa is _____________________.

a. Imphal b. Itanagar c. Hyderabad d. Panaji

18. What is the capital of Himachal Pradesh?

a. Shimla b. Chandigarh c. Manali d. Bhopal

19. _______________ is the capital of Punjab.

a. Delhi b. Jaipur c. Chandigarh d. Chennai

20. Kolkata is the capital of which eastern state?

a. West Bengal b. Odisha (Orissa) c. Jharkhand d. Tripura



ANSWERS

1. a

2. c

3. a

4. b

5. b

6. a

7. d

8. c

9. c

10. d

11. d

12. c

13. a

14. d

15. a

16. c

17. d

18. a

19. c

20. a



India's culture is among the world's oldest; civilization in India began about 4,500 years ago. Many sources describe it as "Sa Prathama Sanskrati Vishvavara" — the first and the supreme culture in the world, according to the All World Gayatri Pariwar (AWGP) organization.

Western societies did not always see the culture of India very favorably, according to

Christina De Rossi, an anthropologist at Barnet and Southgate College in London. Early

anthropologists once considered culture as an evolutionary process, and "every aspect of

human development was seen as driven by evolution," she told Live Science. "In this view,

societies outside of Europe or North America, or societies that did not follow the European

or Western way of life, were considered primitive and culturally inferior. Essentially this

included all the colonized countries and people, such as African countries, India, and the

Far East."

However, Indians made significant advances in architecture (Taj Mahal), mathematics (the invention of zero) and medicine (Ayurveda). Today, India is a very diverse country, with more than 1.2 billion people, according to the CIA World Factbook, making it the second most populous nation after China. Different regions have their own distinct cultures. Language, religion, food and the arts are just some of the various aspects of Indian culture. Here is a brief overview of the culture of India.

Language

India has 28 states and seven territories, according to the World Health Organization. There is no official language in India, according to a Gujarat High Court ruling in 2010, though Hindi is the official language of the government. The Constitution of India officially recognizes 23 official languages. Many people living in India write in Devanagari script. In fact, it is a misconception that the majority of people in India speak Hindi. Though many people speak Hindi in India, 59 percent of India residents speak something other than Hindi, according to The Times of India. Bengali, Telugu, Marathi, Tamil and Urdu are some other languages spoken in the country. Sanskrit, an ancient Indo-European language usually referred to in action movies, came from Northern India. How the language started has been a point of argument amongst linguists. It shares many similarities with English, French, Farsi and Russian languages. New DNA research in 2017 found that an Aryan invasion may have introduced the beginnings of Sanskrit. "People have been debating the arrival of the Indo-European

CHAPTER

5 INDIA CULTURE

http://indianculture.awgp.org/IndianScriptures/HinduScriptures/WhatIndianCulture/

https://www.livescience.com/27146-taj-mahal-the-jewel-of-india.html

https://www.livescience.com/27853-who-invented-zero.html

https://www.livescience.com/27853-who-invented-zero.html

https://www.livescience.com/42153-ayurveda.html

https://www.cia.gov/library/publications/the-world-factbook/geos/in.html

http://www.who.int/healthinfo/sage/SAGEWorkingPaper5_Wave1Sampling.pdf

http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/Theres-no-national-language-in-India-Gujarat-High-Court/articleshow/5496231.cms

http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/Nearly-60-of-Indians-speak-a-language-other-than-Hindi/articleshow/36922157.cms

http://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/india/Nearly-60-of-Indians-speak-a-language-other-than-Hindi/articleshow/36922157.cms



languages in India for hundreds of years," said study co-author Martin Richards, an archaeogeneticist at the University of Huddersfield in England. "There's been a very long-running debate about whether the Indo-European languages were brought from migrations from outside, which is what most linguists would accept, or if they evolved indigenously." [Aryan Invasion May Have Transformed India's Bronze-Age Population]

Religion

India is identified as the birthplace of Hinduism and Buddhism, the third and fourth largest religions. About 84 percent of the population identifies as Hindu, according to the "Handbook of Research on Development and Religion," edited by Matthew Clarke (Edward Elgar Publishing, 2013). There are many variations of Hinduism, and four predominant sects — Shaiva, Vaishnava, Shakteya and Smarta. About 13 percent of Indians are Muslim, making it one of the largest Islamic nations in the world. Christians and Sikhs make up a small percentage of the population, and there are even fewer Buddhists and Jains, according to the "Handbook."

The CIA cited similar figures. According to its World Factbook, around 80 percent of the population is Hindu, 14.2 percent is Muslim, 2.3 percent is Christian, 1.7 percent is Sikh and 2 percent is unspecified.

Food

When the Moghul Empire invaded during the sixteenth century, they left a significant mark on the Indian cuisine, according to Texas A&M University. Indian cuisine is also influenced by many other countries. It is known for its large assortment of dishes and its liberal use of herbs and spices. Cooking styles vary from region to region.

Wheat, Basmati rice and pulses with chana (Bengal gram) are important staples of the Indian diet. The food is rich with curries and spices, including ginger, coriander, cardamom, turmeric, dried hot peppers, and cinnamon, among others. Chutneys — thick condiments and spreads made from assorted fruits and vegetables such as tamarind and tomatoes and mint, cilantro and other herbs — are used generously in Indian cooking.

Many Hindus are vegetarian, but lamb and chicken are common in main dishes for non-vegetarians. The Guardian reports that between 20 percent and 40 percent of India's population is vegetarian. Much of Indian food is eaten with fingers or bread used as utensils. There is a wide array of breads served with meals, including naan, a leavened, oven-baked flatbread; and bhatoora, a fried, fluffy flatbread common in North India and eaten with chickpea curry.

Architecture and art

The most well-known example of Indian architecture is the Taj Mahal, built by Mughal emperor Shah Jahan to honor his third wife, Mumtaz Mahal. It combines elements from

https://www.livescience.com/59703-north-india-populated-by-central-asian-invaders.html

https://books.google.com/books?id=k-WA7_Avc_MC&pg=PA79&lpg=PA79&dq=84+percent+of+the+population+identifies+as+Hindu+in+india&source=bl&ots=Ssr_7-FxJ-&sig=Steo5ZTJ-xl5KkQ_PzN8eXVkPEg&hl=en&sa=X&ei=1Wu5VPf7AYywggTwyIMw&ved=0CF0Q6AEwCQ#v=onepage&q=84%252520percen

http://www.theguardian.com/lifeandstyle/wordofmouth/2013/sep/23/best-countries-to-be-vegetarian



Islamic, Persian, Ottoman Turkish and Indian architectural styles. India also has many ancient temples.

India is well known for its film industry, which is often referred to as Bollywood. The country's movie history began in 1896 when the Lumière brothers demonstrated the art of cinema in Mumbai, according to the Golden Globes. Today, the films are known for their elaborate singing and dancing. Indian dance, music and theater traditions span back more than 2,000 years, according to Nilima Bhadbhade, author of "Contract Law in India" (Kluwer Law International, 2010). The major classical dance traditions — Bharata Natyam, Kathak, Odissi, Manipuri, Kuchipudi, Mohiniattam and Kathakali — draw on themes from mythology and literature and have rigid presentation rules. A study published in April 2016 in the Journal of Indian Ocean Archaeology found that some Indian horns have many similarities with horns made in Ireland. This research may suggest that the two countries may have exchanged ideas and techniques in making musical instruments during the Bronze Age. "Some horns are frankly shockingly similar, to the point where it is like witnessing time travel," study author Billy Ó Foghlú, an archaeologist and doctoral student at the Australian National University in Canberra, told Live Science. "If I were to find one of these modern Indian instruments in an Irish archaeological excavation and I didn't know what I was looking at, I would likely assume it was a Late Bronze Age Irish artifact." [Surprising Echo of Ancient Irish Horns in Indian Instruments]

Clothing

Indian clothing is closely identified with the colorful silk saris worn by many of the country's women. A traditional piece of clothing for men is the dhoti, an unstitched piece of cloth that is tied around the waist and legs. Men also wear a kurta, a loose shirt that is worn about knee-length. For special occasions, men wear a sherwani or achkan, which is a long coat that with a collar having no lapel. It is buttoned up to the collar and down to the knees. A shorter version of a sherwani is called a Nehru jacket. It is named after Jawaharlal Nehru, India's prime minister from 1947 to 1964, but Nehru never wore a Nehru jacket. He preferred the achkan, according to Tehelka, an Indian newspaper. The Nehru jacket was primarily marketed to Westerners.

Customs and celebrations

Diwali is the largest and most important holiday to India, according to National Geographic. It is a five-day festival known as the festival of lights because of the lights lit during the celebration to symbolize the inner light that protects them from spiritual darkness. Holi, the festival of colors, also called the festival of love, is popular in the spring. The country also celebrates Republic Day (Jan. 26), Independence Day (Aug. 15) and Mahatma Gandhi's birthday (Oct. 2).

http://www.goldenglobes.com/global/brief-history-indian-cinema-5625

https://books.google.com/books?id=kAFZ6D6bWY4C&pg=PA34&lpg=PA34&dq=Indian+dance+has+a+tradition+of+more+than+2,000+years&source=bl&ots=H_Z4fA_M76&sig=g6i91nAdsvxB4xb9WG_JHyvfTbk&hl=en&sa=X&ei=VXG5VIjNOILngwTEi4GoDg&ved=0CEIQ6AEwBQ#v=onepage&q=Indian%252520danc

http://www.anu.edu.au/news/all-news/ancient-irish-musical-history-found-in-modern-india

https://www.livescience.com/54937-ancient-irish-horns-resemble-indian-instruments.html

https://www.livescience.com/54937-ancient-irish-horns-resemble-indian-instruments.html

http://www.tehelka.com/2016/01/nehrus-style-statement/

http://kids.nationalgeographic.com/explore/diwali/

https://www.livescience.com/2851-gandhi-changed-world.html



EXERCISE

1. Lal Ded (Lalla Yogeshwari) was a practitioner of which of the following traditions? a) Tibetan Buddhism b) Kashmir Shaivism c) Sri Sampradaya d) Smartism

2. The Nuakhai festival is predominantly

observed in which state? a) Uttar Pradesh b) Odisha c) Karnataka d) Sikkim

3. Raut Nacha is folk dance performed

mainly by the tribal communities of which state? a) Rajasthan b) Jammu & Kashmir c) Assam d) Chhattisgarh

4. Which of the following is not a

classical dance of India? a) Kathak b) Sattriya c) Manipuri d) Bhangra

5. In which of the following paintings, a

paste made of Zinc Oxide and Arabic Gum called “gesso paste” is used? a) Tanjore painting b) Madhubani painting c) Pattachitra d) Mysore painting

6. Which of the following features of

Indian temples resembles pylons of the Egyptian temples? a) Lat b) Vimana c) Gopura d) Shikhara

7. Kambala Sport is held in which state?

a) Karnataka b) Gujarath c) Tamilnadu d) Kerala

8. Which among the following Sikh

Gurus introduced the Gurmukhi Script? a) Guru Angad b) Guru Gobind Sing c) Guru Arjun Singh d) Guru Harrai

9. The first novel written by Sunil

Gangopadhyay is : a) Athmo Prakash (Self-Revelation) b) Pratham Alo (First Light) c) Purba Pachim (East and West) d) Shei Shomay (Those Days)

10. World’s largest religion (population

wise) is ____: a) Hindu b) Muslim c) Christian d) Buddhists



ANSWERS

1. b 2. b 3. d 4. d 5. d 6. c 7. a

8. a 9. a 10. c



History of India Located in the continent of Asia, India covers 2,973,193 square kilometers of land and 314,070 square kilometers of water, making it the 7th largest nation in the world with a total area of 3,287,263 square kilometers. Surrounded by Bhutan, Nepal, and Bangladesh to the North East, China to the North, Pakistan to the North West and Sri Lanka of the South East coast. India is a land of ancient civilizations. India's social, economic, and cultural configurations are the products of a long process of regional expansion. Indian history begins with the birth of the Indus Valley Civilization and the coming of the Aryans. These two phases are usually described as the pre-Vedic and Vedic age. Hinduism arose in the Vedic period. The fifth-century saw the unification of India under Ashoka, who had converted to Buddhism, and it is in his reign that Buddhism spread in many parts of Asia. In the eighth century, Islam came to India for the first time and by the eleventh century had firmly established itself in India as a political force. It resulted in the formation of the Delhi Sultanate, which was finally succeeded by the Mughal Empire, under which India once again achieved a large measure of political unity. It was in the 17th century that the Europeans came to India. This coincided with the disintegration of the Mughal Empire, paving the way for regional states. In the contest for supremacy, the English emerged 'victors'. The Rebellion of 1857-58, which sought to restore Indian supremacy, was crushed; and with the subsequent crowning of Victoria as Empress of India, the incorporation of India into the empire was complete. It was followed by India's struggle for independence, which we got in the year 1947. Here is a brief timeline about the history of India:

Ancient India History

The History of India begins with the Indus Valley Civilization and the coming of the Aryans.

These two phases are generally described as the pre-Vedic and Vedic periods. The earliest

literary source that sheds light on India's past is the Rig Veda. It is difficult to date this work

with any accuracy on the basis of tradition and ambiguous astronomical information

contained in the hymns. Indus valley civilization, which flourished between 2800 BC and

1800 BC, had an advanced and flourishing economic system. The Indus valley people

practiced agriculture, domesticated animals, made tools and weapons from copper, bronze,

and tin and even traded with some Middle East countries.

CHAPTER

6 INDIA HISTORY



The Indus Valley Civilization

A long time ago, in the eastern world, there rose a few civilizations. The main reasons for

the rise of these urban civilizations were access to rivers, which served various functions of

human beings. Along with the Mesopotamian civilization and the Egyptian civilization, rose

the Indus Valley civilization spanning Northwest India and modern-day Pakistan. The

largest amongst the three civilizations, the Indus Valley civilization flourished around 2600

BC, at which time agriculture in India started flourishing. The fertile Indus valley made it

possible for agriculture to be carried out on a large scale. The most well-known towns of

the Indus Valley in today’s date are Mohenjo Daro and Harappa. Unearthing these two

towns showed excavators glimpses into the richness of the Indus Valley civilization,

evidenced in ruins and things like household articles, war weapons, gold and silver

ornament - and so on. The people of the Indus Valley civilization lived in well-planned

towns and well-designed houses made of baked bricks. In an era of developments and

prosperity, civilization, unfortunately, came to an end by around 1300 BC, mainly due to

natural calamities.

Vedic Civilization

The next era that India saw was that of the Vedic civilization, flourishing along the river Saraswati, named after the Vedas, which depict the early literature of the Hindus. The two greatest epics of this period were the Ramayana and the Mahabharata, still held in great reverence by the followers of Hinduism. Buddhist Era

Next came the Buddhist era, during the time of the Mahajanapadas which were the sixteen great powers, during the 7th and the 6th centuries BC. Prominent powers at the time were the Sakyas of Kapilavastu and the Licchavis of Vaishali. Buddha, whose original name was Siddhartha Gautam, was born in Lumbini near Kapilavastu and was the founder of Buddhism - a religion based on spiritualism. He died at the age of 80 in 480 BC but his teachings spread throughout southern and eastern Asia and are followed across the world today.

The Invasion of Alexander

When Alexander invaded India in 326 BC, he crossed the Indus river and defeated the Indian rulers in battle. Noteworthy of the Indians’ attempts at war, was the use of elephants, something that the Macedonians had never seen before. Alexander then took over the lands of the defeated kings.



The Gupta Dynasty

The Gupta period has been referred to as the Golden Age of Indian history. When Chandragupt I received the gift of Pataliputra in dowry when he married the daughter of the chief of the ‘Licchavis’, he started to lay down the foundation of his empire, which extended from the river Ganges or the Ganga to the city of Allahabad. He ruled for 15 years and was also referred to as the ‘king of kings’ for his strategic conquests and the flourishing state of India.

Harshavardhana

The last of the ancient kingdoms in India was by the king Harshavardhana, who ascended

the throne at Thanneshwar and Kannauj after his brother died. While successful in a few of

his conquests, he eventually got defeated by the Chalukya Kingdom of Deccan India.

Harshavardhana was well-known for establishing relations with the Chinese, and also for

having high religious tolerance and strong administrative capabilities.

Medieval Indian History

The medieval history of India is renowned for deriving a lot of its character from Islamic kingdoms. Extending across almost three generations, medieval India included a number of kingdoms and dynasties: - The Chalukyas - The Pallavas - The Pandyas - The Rashtrakutas - The Cholas The Cholas were the most important rulers at this time, the 9th Century AD. Their kingdom covered a large part of South India, including Sri Lanka and the Maldives. While the rulers ruled bravely and carried out the annexation of multiple territories in India, the empire came to an end in the 14th Century AD with an invasion by a man named Kafur Malik. The monuments from the Chola Dynasty are still intact and are known for their rustic charm. The next major empire was that of the Mughals, preceded by a rise in Islamic rulers. The invasion of Timur was a significant point in Indian history before a Hindu revival movement called the Bhakti movement, came to be. Finally, in the 16th Century, the Mughal empire started to rise. One of the greatest empires of India, the Mughal empire was a rich and glorious one, with the whole of India united and ruled by one monarch. The Mughal Kings were Babar, Humayun, Sher Shah Suri (not a Mughal king), Akbar, Jehangir, Shah Jahan, and Aurangzeb. They were responsible for setting up efficient public administration,



laying out infrastructure, and promoting the arts. A large number of monuments in India today exist from the Mughal period. The death of the last Mughal King, Aurangzeb, sowed the seeds of disintegration within India. Influencers of Islamic architecture in India, the Mughal kings are still looked back in awe. Akbar

Emperor Akbar, also known as Akbar the Great or Jalaluddin Muhammad Akbar, was the

third emperor of the Mughal Empire, after Babur and Humayun. He was the son of

Nasiruddin Humayun and succeeded him as the emperor in the year 1556 when he was

only 13 years old.

Shah Jahan

Shah Jahan, also known as Shahbuddin Mohammed Shah Jahan, was a Mughal Emperor

who ruled in the Indian Subcontinent from 1628 to 1658. He was the fifth Mughal ruler,

after Babur, Humayun, Akbar, and Jahangir. Shah Jahan succeeded the throne after

revolting against his father, Jahangir.

Chhatrapati Shivaji

Chatrapati Shivaji Maharaj was the founder of the Maratha Empire in western India. He

is considered to be one of the greatest warriors of his time and even today, stories of his

exploits are narrated as a part of the folklore. King Shivaji used the guerrilla tactics to

capture a part of, the then, dominant Mughal empire.

Modern Indian History

During the late 16th and the 17th Centuries, the European trading companies in India

competed with each other ferociously. By the last quarter of the 18th Century, the English

had outdone all others and established themselves as the dominant power in India. The

British administered India for a period of about two centuries and brought about

revolutionary changes in the social, political and economic life of the country. However, the

zenith of colonisation was achieved when the British arrived in the early 1600s as traders.

Capitalizing on the disintegration that existed in India after the Mughal rule, the British

actively used the strategy of ‘divide-and-rule’ to rule over India for over 2 centuries. While

the British had come in earlier, they only achieved political power in 1757 AD after the

Battle of Plassey. They took a keen interest in the resources that India had to offered and



have been looked back at as plunderers of India’s wealth of resources - as they took cotton,

spices, silk, and tea, amongst numerous other resources. While they did lay out a massive

chunk of India’s infrastructure, by also bringing the Indians steam engines, it is seldom

looked back at as an equal relationship. The British Raj was divisive and pit Indians against

one another, on the basis of religion; and also mistreated the laborers. The Indians were

essentially slaves of the British rule and were working hard without any returns on their

work. This, naturally, led to multiple mutinies; and prominent freedom fighters came to the

forefront. Different ideologies of thought believed that there were different ways of gaining

freedom; however, they all had one common goal - freedom. The British queen had

asserted that the aim of the British was to help India progress - however, multiple

problems arose without the consultation of Indian leaders. One important instance of this

was when in the First World War, Britain launched an attack on Germany on behalf of

India, even though India did not wish for that to happen; and millions of Indian soldiers

were at the forefront of the British Indian Army during both the world wars - further

fuelling the Indian resistance. Over a million Indian soldiers were killed in both the World

Wars.



EXERCISE

1. The Venetian traveler who travelled with his wife and reached Vijayawada around 1420 was…. a) Anthanasius Nikitin b) Nicolo de Conti c) Ibn Batuta d) Ferishta

2. The Uprising of 1857 was described as the first Indian war of Independence by …….

a) S.N. Sen

b) R.C. Mazumdar

c) B.G. Tilak

d) V.D. Savakar

3. The Turko-Afghan rule in India lasted

for about….

a) two centuries

b) three centuries

c) four centuries

d) a little over one century

4. Though Ashoka had many sons, the

inscriptions mentioned only one who

is not mentioned in any other source.

He is…….

a) Kunala

b) Tivara

c) Mahendra

d) Jalauka

5. The Vijayanagara king who employed

skilled archers of the Turkish clan and

raised the fighting capacity of his

bowmen was……..

a) Bukka I

b) Devaraya I

c) Krishnadevaraya

d) Ramaraya

6. Visakhadatta sketches the event after

the death of Samudragupta in his

work……

a) Mudrarakasam

b) Devi Chand Gupta

c) Mrichekakatika

d) Malavikagnimitra

7. To evolve a peaceful settlement of the

conflict between India and China,

which of the following non-aligned

Afro-Asian nations participated in a

conference held in December 1962?

a) Burma (now Myanmar),

b) Combodia, Indonesia and UAR

c) Burma, Sri Lanka, Combodia and

Indonesia

d) Burma, Indonesia, Ghana and Sri

Lanka

8. The Vijayanagara ruler, Kirshnadev

Raya’s work Amuktamalyada, was

in…..

a) Telugu

b) Sanskrit

c) Tamil

d) Kannada

9. The use of spinning wheel (Charkha)

became common during the ……..

a) 9th century AD

b) 10th century A

c) 12th century AD

d) 14th century AD



10. Velu Thampi led a revolt against the

British in state of………

a) Travancore

b) Baroda

c) Hyderabad

d) Mysore



ANSWERS

1. b 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. b

6. a 7. d 8. a 9. d 10. a



India's total land mass is 2,973,190 square kilometers and is divided into three main geological regions: the Indo-Gangetic Plain, the Himalayas, and the Peninsula region. The Indo-Gangetic Plain and those portions of the Himalayas within India are collectively known as North India. South India consists of the peninsular region, often termed simply the Peninsula. On the basis of its physiography, India is divided into ten regions: the Indo-Gangetic Plain, the northern mountains of the Himalayas, the Central Highlands, the Deccan or Peninsular Plateau, the East Coast (Coromandel Coast in the south), the West Coast (Konkan, Kankara, and Malabar coasts), the Great Indian Desert (a geographic feature known as the Thar Desert in Pakistan) and the Rann of Kutch, the valley of the Brahmaputra in Assam, the northeastern hill ranges surrounding the Assam Valley, and the islands of the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.

Indo-Gangetic Plain

In social and economic terms, the Indo-Gangetic Plain is the most important region of India. The plain is a great alluvial crescent stretching from the Indus River system in Pakistan to the Punjab Plain (in both Pakistan and India) and the Haryana Plain to the delta of the Ganga (or Ganges) in Bangladesh (where it is called the Padma). Topographically the plain is homogeneous, with only floodplain bluffs and other related features of river erosion and changes in river channels forming important natural features.

Two narrow terrain belts, collectively known as the Terai, constitute the northern boundary of the Indo-Gangetic Plain. Where the foothills of the Himalayas encounter the plain, small hills known locally as ghar (meaning house in Hindi) have been formed by coarse sands and pebbles deposited by mountain streams. Groundwater from these areas flows on the surface where the plains begin and converts large areas along the rivers into swamps. The southern boundary of the plain begins along the edge of the Great Indian Desert in the state of Rajasthan and continues east along the base of the hills of the Central Highlands to the Bay of Bengal. The hills, varying in elevation from 300 to 1,200 meters, lie on a general east-west axis. The Central Highlands are divided into northern and southern parts. The northern part is centered on the Aravalli Range of eastern Rajasthan. In the northern part of the state of Madhya Pradesh, the Malwa Plateau comprises the southern part of the Central Highlands and merges with the Vindhya Range to the south. The main rivers that flow through the southern part of the plain--the Narmada, the Tapti, and the Mahanadi--delineate North India from South India.

Some geographers subdivide the Indo-Gangetic Plain into three parts: the Indus Valley (mostly in Pakistan), the Punjab (divided between India and Pakistan) and Haryana plains,

CHAPTER

7 INDIA GEOGRAPHY



and the middle and lower Ganga. These regional distinctions are based primarily on the availability of water. By another definition, the Indo-Gangetic Plain is divided into two drainage basins by the Delhi Ridge; the western part consists of the Punjab Plain and the Haryana Plain, and the eastern part consists of the Ganga-Brahmaputra drainage systems. This divide is only 300 meters above sea level, contributing to the perception that the Indo-Gangetic Plain appears to be continuous between the two drainage basins. The Punjab Plain is centered in the land between five rivers: the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas, and the Sutlej. (The name Punjab comes from the Sanskrit pancha ab , meaning five waters or rivers.)

Both the Punjab and Haryana plains are irrigated with water from the Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej rivers. The irrigation projects emanating from these rivers have led to a decrease in the flow of water reaching the lower drainage areas in the state of Punjab in India and the Indus Valley in Pakistan. The benefits that increased irrigation has brought to farmers in the state of Haryana are controversial in light of the effects that irrigation has had on agricultural life in the Punjab areas of both India and Pakistan.

The middle Ganga extends from the Yamuna River in the west to the state of West Bengal in the east. The lower Ganga and the Assam Valley are more lush and verdant than the middle Ganga. The lower Ganga is centered in West Bengal from which it flows into Bangladesh and, after joining the Jamuna (as the lower reaches of the Brahmaputra are known in Bangladesh), forms the delta of the Ganga. The Brahmaputra (meaning son of Brahma) rises in Tibet (China's Xizang Autonomous Region) as the Yarlung Zangbo River, flows through Arunachal Pradesh and Assam, and then crosses into Bangladesh. Average annual rainfall increases moving west to east from approximately 600 millimeters in the Punjab Plain to 1,500 millimeters around the lower Ganga and Brahmaputra.

The Himalayas

The Himalayas, the highest mountain range in the world, extend along the northern frontiers of Pakistan, India, Nepal, Bhutan, and Burma. They were formed geologically as a result of the collision of the Indian subcontinent with Asia. This process of plate tectonics is ongoing, and the gradual northward drift of the Indian subcontinent still causes earthquakes (see Earthquakes, this ch.). Lesser ranges jut southward from the main body of the Himalayas at both the eastern and western ends. The Himalayan system, about 2,400 kilometers in length and varying in width from 240 to 330 kilometers, is made up of three parallel ranges--the Greater Himalayas, the Lesser Himalayas, and the Outer Himalayas--sometimes collectively called the Great Himalayan Range. The Greater Himalayas, or northern range, average approximately 6,000 meters in height and contain the three highest mountains on earth: Mount Everest (8,796 meters) on the China-Nepal border; K2 (8,611 meters, also known as Mount Godwin-Austen, and in China as Qogir Feng) in an area claimed by India, Pakistan, and China; and Kanchenjunga (8,598 meters) on the India-Nepal border. Many major mountains are located entirely within India, such as Nanda Devi (7,817 meters) in the state of Uttar Pradesh. The snow line averages 4,500 to 6,000 meters on the



southern side of the Greater Himalayas and 5,500 to 6,000 on the northern side. Because of climatic conditions, the snow line in the eastern Himalayas averages 4,300 meters, while in the western Himalayas it averages 5,800 meters.

The Lesser Himalayas, located in northwestern India in the states of Himachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, in north-central India in the state of Sikkim, and in northeastern India in the state of Arunachal Pradesh, range from 1,500 to 5,000 meters in height. Located in the Lesser Himalayas are the hill stations of Shimla (Simla) and Darjiling (Darjeeling). During the colonial period, these and other hill stations were used by the British as summer retreats to escape the intense heat of the plains. It is in this transitional vegetation zone that the contrasts between the bare southern slopes and the forested northern slopes become most noticeable.

The Outer or Southern Himalayas, averaging 900 to 1,200 meters in elevation, lie between the Lesser Himalayas and the Indo-Gangetic Plain. In Himachal Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, this southernmost range is often referred to as the Siwalik Hills. It is possible to identify a fourth, and northernmost range, known as the Trans-Himalaya. This range is located entirely on the Qinghai-Xizang Plateau, north of the great west-to-east trending valley of the Yarlung Zangbo River. Although the Trans-Himalaya Range is divided from the Great Himalayan Range for most of its length, it merges with the Great Himalayan Range in the western section--the Karakoram Range--where India, Pakistan, and China meet.

The southern slopes of each of the Himalayan ranges are too steep to accumulate snow or support much tree life; the northern slopes generally are forested below the snow line. Between the ranges are extensive high plateaus, deep gorges, and fertile valleys, such as the vales of Kashmir and Kulu. The Himalayas serve a very important purpose. They provide a physical screen within which the monsoon system operates and are the source of the great river systems that water the alluvial plains below (see Climate, this ch.). As a result of erosion, the rivers coming from the mountains carry vast quantities of silt that enrich the plains.

The area of northeastern India adjacent to Burma and Bangladesh consists of numerous hill tracts, averaging between 1,000 and 2,000 meters in elevation, that are not associated with the eastern part of the Himalayas in Arunachal Pradesh. The Naga Hills, rising to heights of more than 3,000 meters, form the watershed between India and Burma. The Mizo Hills are the southern part of the northeastern ranges in India. The Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia hills are centered in the state of Meghalaya and, isolated from the northeastern ranges, divide the Assam Valley from Bangladesh to the south and west.

The Peninsula

The Peninsula proper is an old, geologically stable region with an average elevation between 300 and 1,800 meters. The Vindhya Range constitutes the main dividing line between the geological regions of the Indo-Gangetic Plain and the Peninsula. This range lies



north of the Narmada River, and when viewed from there, it is possible to discern the prominent escarpments that rise between 800 and 1,400 meters. The Vindhya Range defines the north-central and northwestern boundary of the Peninsula, and the Chota Nagpur Plateau of southern Bihar forms the northeastern boundary. The uplifting of the plateau of the central Peninsula and its eastward tilt formed the Western Ghats, a line of hills running from the Tapti River south to the tip of the Peninsula. The Eastern Ghats mark the eastern end of the plateau; they begin in the hills of the Mahanadi River basin and converge with the Western Ghats at the Peninsula's southern tip.

The interior of the Peninsula, south of the Narmada River, often termed the Deccan Plateau or simply the Deccan (from the Sanskrit daksina , meaning south), is a series of plateaus topped by rolling hills and intersected by many rivers. The plateau averages roughly 300 to 750 meters in elevation. Its major rivers--the Godavari, the Krishna, and the Kaveri--rise in the Western Ghats and flow eastward into the Bay of Bengal.

The coastal plain borders the plateau. On the northwestern side, it is characterized by tidal marshes, drowned valleys, and estuaries; and in the south by lagoons, marshes, and beach ridges. Coastal plains on the eastern side are wider than those in the west; they are focused on large river deltas that serve as the centers of human settlement.

Offshore Islands

India's offshore islands, constituting roughly one-quarter of 1 percent of the nation's territory, lie in two groups located off the east and west coasts. The northernmost point of the union territory of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands lies 1,100 kilometers southeast of Calcutta. Situated in the Bay of Bengal in a chain stretching some 800 kilometers, the Andaman Islands comprise 204 islands and islets, and their topography is characterized by hills and narrow valleys. Although their location is tropical, the climate of the islands is tempered by sea breezes; rainfall is irregular. The Nicobar Islands, which are south of the Andaman Islands, comprise nineteen islands, some with flat, coral-covered surfaces and others with hills. The islands have a nearly equatorial climate, heavy rainfall, and high temperatures. The union territory of Lakshadweep (the name means 100,000 islands) in the Arabian Sea, comprises--from north to south--the Amindivi, Laccadive, Cannanore, and Minicoy islands. The islands, only ten of which are inhabited, are spread throughout an area of approximately 77,000 square kilometers. The islands are low-lying coral-based formations capable of limited cultivation.

Coasts and Borders

India has 7,000 kilometers of seacoast and shares 14,000 kilometers of land frontier with six nations: Pakistan, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, and Burma. India claims a twelve-nautical-mile territorial sea and an exclusive economic zone of 200 nautical miles. The territorial seas total 314,400 square kilometers.

In the mid-1990s, India had boundary disagreements with Pakistan, China, and



Bangladesh; border distances are therefore approximations. The partition of India in 1947 established two India-Pakistan frontiers: one on the west and one on the east (East Pakistan became Bangladesh in 1971).

Disputes over the state of Jammu and Kashmir led to hostilities between India and Pakistan in 1947. The January 1, 1949, cease-fire arranged by the United Nations (UN) divided control of Kashmir. India controls Jammu, the Vale of Kashmir, and the capital, Srinagar, while Pakistan controls the mountainous area to the northwest. Neither side accepts a divided Kashmir as a permanent solution. India regards as illegal the 1963 China-Pakistan border agreement, which ceded to China a portion of Pakistani-controlled Kashmir. The two sides also dispute the Siachen Glacier near the Karakoram Pass. Further India-Pakistan hostilities in the 1965 war were settled through the Soviet-brokered Tashkent Declaration.

In 1968 an international tribunal settled the dispute over the Rann of Kutch, a region of salt flats that is submerged for six months of the year in the state of Gujarat. The following year, a new border was demarcated that recognized Pakistan's claim to about 10 percent of the area.

In 1992 India completed fencing most of the 547-kilometer-long section of the boundary between the Indian state of Punjab and the Pakistani province of Punjab. This measure was undertaken because of the continuing unrest in the region caused by both ethnic and religious disputes among the local Indian population and infiltrators from both sides of the frontier. The more rugged terrain north of Punjab along the entire cease-fire line between India and Pakistan in Jammu and Kashmir continues to be subject to infiltration and local strife (see Political Issues, ch. 8; South Asia, ch. 9; Insurgent Movements and External Subversion, ch. 10).

The 2,000-kilometer-long border with China has eastern, central, and western sections. In the western section, the border regions of Jammu and Kashmir have been the scene of conflicting claims since the nineteenth century. China has not accepted India's definitions of the boundary and has carried out defense and economic activities in parts of eastern Kashmir since the 1950s. In the 1960s, China finished construction of a motor road across Aksai Chin (a region under dispute between India and China), the main transportation route linking China's Xinjiang-Uygur Autonomous Region and Tibet.

In the eastern section, the China-India boundary follows the McMahon Line laid down in 1914 by Sir Arthur Henry McMahon, the British plenipotentiary to a conference of Indian, British, and Chinese representatives at Simla (now known as Shimla, Himachal Pradesh). The Simla Convention, as the agreement is known, set the boundary between India and Tibet. Although the British and Tibetan representatives signed the agreement on July 3, 1914, the Chinese delegate declined to sign. The line agreed to by Britain and Tibet generally follows the crest of the eastern Himalayas from Bhutan



to Burma. It serves as a legal boundary, although the Chinese have never formally accepted it. China continued to claim roughly the entire area of Arunachal Pradesh south of the McMahon Line in the early 1990s. In 1962 China and India fought a brief border war in this region, and China occupied certain areas south of the line for several months (see Nehru's Legacy, ch 1; The Experience of Wars, ch. 10). India and China took a major step toward resolving their border disputes in 1981 by opening negotiations on the issue. Agreements and talks held in 1993 and 1995 eased tensions along the India-China border (see China, ch. 9). Sikkim, which became an Indian state in 1975, forms the small central section of India's northern border and lies between Nepal and Bhutan.



EXERCISE

1. The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-

electric project, completed with the

help of Japan, is on the river.

a) Ganga

b) Cauver

c) Godavari

d) Narmada

2. The percentage of irrigated land in

India is about.

a) 45

b) 65

c) 35

d) 25

3. The southernmost point of peninsular

India, that is, Kanyakumari, is

a) north of Tropic of Cancer

b) south of the Equator

c) south of the Capricorn

d) north of the Equator

4. The pass located at the southern end

of the Nilgiri Hills in south India is

called

a) the Palghat gap

b) the Bhorghat pas

c) the Thalgat pas

d) the Bolan pass

5. Which of the following factors are

responsible for the rapid growth of

sugar production in south India as

compared to north India?

I. Higher per acre field of sugarcane

II. Higher sucrose content of sugarcane

III. Lower labour cost

IV. Longer crushing period

a) I and I

b) I, II and II

c) I, III and IV

d) I, II and IV

6. The principal copper deposits of India

lie in which of the following places?

a) Hazaribag and Singbhum of Bihar

b) Khetri and Daribo areas of

Rajastha

c) Anantapur in Andhra Prades

d) Siwaliks in Uttar Pradesh and in

Karnataka

7. Which of the following are true

regarding Jhum cultivation in India?

I. It is largely practiced in Assam

II. It is referred to as 'slash and burn'

technique

III. In it, the fertility is exhausted in a

few years

a) I, II and III

b) II and III

c) I and II

d) I and III

8. The Yarlung Zangbo River, in India, is

known as

a) Ganga

b) Indus

c) Brahmaputra

d) Mahanadi



9. The Salal Project is on the river

a) Chena

b) Jhelum

c) Ravi

d) Sutlej

10. The only zone in the country that

produces gold is also rich in iron is

a) North-eastern zone

b) North-western zone

c) Southern zone




ANSWERS

1. c

2. c

3. d

4. a

5. d

6. a

7. c

8. a

9. c

10. c



Introduction to Hygiene and Sanitation

Health risks: Look carefully at this drawing and become familiar with all these seven possible ways in which microbes from faeces can make us ill. (c) Tearfund 2005, Encouraging good hygiene and sanitation

1. Background

Sanitation is enshrined in the Millennium Development Goals and is a cornerstone of the fight against poverty. Lack of basic sanitation puts millions of lives at risk and is responsible for a quarter of all child deaths in developing countries every year.1 Lack of sanitation and poor hygiene also severely limit the impact of other development interventions in education, health, rural and urban development. An enormous amount of resources has been expended on providing sanitation facilities, yet still over 2.5 billion people do not have access to basic sanitation services (WHO/UNICEF - JMP, 2008). Throughout the developing world the low sanitation coverage figures paint a stark picture. Furthermore, sanitation hardware alone is not sufficient: in many instances even though new toilets and washing facilities have been built, and coverage is recorded by officials as relatively high, proper usage remains low and little or no benefit is derived. Indeed, awareness is growing amongst public health practitioners that, until hygiene is properly practiced, both at home and in the community as a whole, the desired impact of improved water and sanitation services in terms of community health benefits cannot be realised. Over the past four decades practitioners have strived to find ways to reduce not only the huge number who remain without access to a toilet but also the huge number who do not

CHAPTER

8 HEALTH, HYGIENE AND SANITATION



use facilities hygienically even when they are available. The methods used to address this problem endeavour to engage target groups (individuals, households, communities, institutions or even organisations) in development programmes that enable a change in behaviours or create a demand for services. These methods or approaches are generally referred to as "software" activities to distinguish them from the provision of hardware.

2. What are hygiene and sanitation?

The terms hygiene and sanitation can mean different things to different people. For the

purposes of this document the term 'sanitation' is used to refer to the management of

human excreta. The term hygiene is used to refer to the behaviours/measures, including

but beyond the management of human faeces, which are used to break the chain of

infection transmission in the home and community. Whereas most people recognise that

hygiene means 'handwashing', there is some confusion as to what else is involved. In

reality, all of the following contribute in some measure to reducing the burden of infectious

diseases circulating in the community:

Hand hygiene and personal hygiene; Food hygiene (cooking, storing, preventing cross contamination); Ensuring safe water at 'point of use'; Respiratory hygiene; Safe disposal of faeces (both human and animal); General hygiene (laundry, surfaces, toilets, baths, sinks); and Disposal of solid waste, control of wastewater and rainwater

Although ideally all aspects of home hygiene are important, there is a general consensus that hygiene promotion programmes are more likely to be successful in changing behaviour if they focus on a small number of activities at a time. This means understanding how infectious diseases are being transmitted, and prioritizing practices which carry the greatest risk: In communities where facilities for safe disposal of faeces are inadequate, the major part of the diarrhoeal disease burden originates from infected faeces. Infectious agents are transmitted from faeces to hands to mouth (which can occur directly, or indirectly via other surfaces e.g. toilet surfaces), or by consumption of food or water which has become contaminated with faecal organisms. 'Faecal:oral' transmission is illustrated by the F-diagram shown in the image above. Breaking the chain of faecal-oral transmission is achieved by a combination of improved sanitation and good hygiene practices. Animal faeces can also be the source of diarrhoeal disease, as can contaminated food purchased from a market or a contaminated community water supply. Respiratory tract infections such as colds and flu, result either from inhalation of infected mucous droplets, or by rubbing the nasal mucosa or the eye with mucouscontaminated hands. Data now shows that good respiratory hygiene (safe disposal

https://www.infonet-biovision.org/taxonomy/term/391





of nasal mucous and handwashing) can reduce the risks of respiratory infections; for instance, a study by Luby et al (2005) showed associations between hand hygiene and Acute Respiratory Infections (ARI) in children under five; when children?s hands were washed at the recommended times significant reductions in ARIs were noted. The association between hand hygiene and ARIs is very topical with worldwide concern over the spread of SARS (severe acute respiratory syndrome) in 2003 and more recently Influenza A H1N1 (commonly known as swine flu). The World Health Organization (WHO) has raised the swine flu virus outbreak to a category 6 or global pandemic level (WHO, 2009) and as a consequence national governments are now running health information campaigns in order to try and limit its spread. These campaigns demonstrate how the association between handwashing and the spread of ARIs is being used to encourage people to change behaviours and follow good hygiene practices; for examples see the British government's 'Catch It, Bin It, Kill It' slogan (UK Government, 2009) and the Information on Influenza A H1N1 displayed on the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India (2009) webpage. For skin and eye infections, the hands are probably the major route of spread of infection. Trachoma is largely preventable through hygiene (face washing breaks the infection cycle). Fly control through hygienic latrines is also important. For intestinal helminths, the hands, along with human faeces, are the major route for spreading a variety of intestinal helminths, which, while they do not necessarily contribute to mortality do contribute significantly to morbidity in children under 15 years of age.

Out of the above infections diarrhoeal disease is the most deadly, especially for children (see Pruss-Ustun et al, 2008) and consequently the WASH sector's primary focus is on reducing its spread. Establishing the relative impact (and thus relative importance) of different interventions is difficult, but it is generally accepted that, for reducing the risks of diarrhoeal disease transmission, priority should be given to promoting the three interventions which break the chain of faecal:oral transmission as shown in Figure 1 (Bloomfield, 2007):

Safe disposal of faeces by sanitation; Handwashing at critical times; and Ensuring access to adequate safe water at point of use.

Other hygiene practices such as improved food hygiene and solid waste management are important as well; practitioners generally introduce these once the three primary interventions are in place. Of course the ranking of risks may vary from one community to another, for example in some communities risks associated with poor food hygiene may be greater than those associated with poor household water quality.





Faecal - oral transmission of germs(the F-diagram) and how to break the

transmission routes

(c) Water Supply and Sanitation Collaborative Council (WSSCC)



EXERCISE

1. Which are the good sources of Protein? a) Green vegetables b) Rice c) Fruits d) Eggs

2. Which food item provide energy?

a) Rice b) Sugar c) Bread d) All of these

3. Which food item has calcium?

a) Honey b) Milk c) Sugar d) Potato

4. Which food item has fat?

a) Butter b) Fish c) Green vegetable d) None of these

5. We get vitamin A from which of the

following? a) Beet root b) Lemon c) Yellow fruit d) Pulses

6. Which of the following is a

communicable disease?

a) Typhoid b) Dibeates c) Obesity d) Heart diseases

7. Which food item has carbohydrates

and fats? a) Bread and butters b) Rice and pulses c) Egg and fish d) All of these

8. Which of the following is a good

source of iron? a) Green vegetables b) Potato c) Tomato d) Beet root

9. Which food item has protein, fat and

minerals? a) Fruits b) Bread c) Honey d) Milk

10. Which food item has roughage?

a) Eggs b) Fish c) Corn d) Milk



ANSWERS 1. d 2. d 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. a

7. a 8. d 9. d 10. c



Top 10 popular sports in India

We now move to the list of the most popular sports in India. Before delving into the list, it is essential to first know that these sports have been ranked on the basis of their pure popularity in India. The placement of any sport on the list is not indicative of India’s performance in general.

Though cricket might dominate headlines for the clamor it creates in India, there are a number of other sports which have a decent following amongst many demographics in India. List of sports in India rated by popularity will be displayed below.

Top 10 popular sports in India are-

1. Cricket

The popularity of cricket in India is unparalleled compared to interest generated by a particular sport in any other country. Brazil and Argentina do come close in terms of a similar obsession with football, but the sheer number of cricket followers in India tilts the balance eastwards.

The reasons behind the sustained popularity of cricket are many. Aside from cricket matches being regularly telecasted and promoted by premier sporting channels, India’s performance in cricket has a huge role to play in its sustained popularity.

From the World Cup in 1983 to the Champions Trophy in 2013, India has remained in contention for the top prize in international cricket. This era has been marked with some of the best cricketers Indian cricket and the world have ever seen in the likes of Sachin Tendulkar, Anil Kumble, Rahul Dravid, VVS Laxman, MS Dhoni and many more.

The popularity of cricket and cricketers is also attributed to the mega endorsement deals cricketers tend to land regularly.

In a country obsessed with fame and exclusivity, cricketers are amongst the most revered personalities in the country.

With a new generation of cricketers being led by Virat Kohli, one can expect many good things from the current crop of Indian players in the future. The most popular sport in India is expected to be cricket for the foreseeable future considering the regular inflow of talent with every passing generation.

CHAPTER

9 SPORTS

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2. Football

The most popular sport in the world, football remains an enigma in India. Famously called the ‘sleeping giant’ of the foot balling world by former FIFA president Sepp Blatter, football is primarily a spectator sport in India. While the ISL has garnered a hefty base of followers in India, it is the huge following of European club tournaments which forms the roots of football’s popularity in India.

The Indian football team is currently ranked 105 in the world. Considering the population of India and the demographics of some of the other countries who have qualified for the World Cup in the past few years, the failure to qualify even once can be called a monumental failure on a professional and institutional level.

The popularity of football in India remains stoked by the sizable following of European football in urban centers of the country. The Premier League is one of the most watched sports leagues in India. To encourage a culture of football in the subcontinent and India in particular, many top European clubs such as Manchester United, Liverpool, Arsenal, Real Madrid, Barcelona, Bayern Munich, and Chelsea have dedicated fan groups in which are connected with supporters across the world.

These efforts made by European foot balling bodies have created a whole generation of young Indians who follow and support top clubs based in England, Spain, Germany, and Italy.

Following the example set by European clubs, India has its own football league now, the Indian Soccer League (ISL). The tournament recorded a viewership of nearly 160 million during its first season in 2014.

3. Kabaddi

While different sports in India like badminton and hockey would have nabbed the third spot a few years back, kabaddi has returned to the center stage of Indian sports.

Amongst the traditional Indian sports, kabaddi has returned to the mainstream with the unforeseen rise of the Pro-Kabaddi League held annually across various cities in India. In 2014, the PKL became the second most popular league in India, bested only by the Indian Premier League (IPL).

Having established a strong viewer base and a set of willing sponsors, kabaddi is uniquely positioned to gain viewership in rural areas due to its obvious popularity there and establishing new viewers who slowly learning more about the sport.

India and Iran are the two top kabaddi playing nations in the world at the moment. India has won all the Kabaddi World Cups until 2017.

4. Badminton

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Though badminton had always been a sport of great interest amongst the general public, success on the international stage had been less forthcoming.

This trend has changed as a crop of Indian players have made a name for themselves and India on the international stage. After establishing herself across various tournaments, Saina Nehwal etched her name in history books at the London Olympics in 2012 by picking up a bronze medal.

Nehwal’s achievement was surpassed by her younger counterpart, PV Sindhu. The latter won a silver medal in the Rio Games in 2016. Besides picking up medals at the Olympics, there have been other shutters who have brought him top honors such as K Srikant, Jwala Gutta, Ashwini Ponnappa and yesteryear legends in Prakash Padukone and Pulella Gopichand.

Seeing the rise of Indian talents on the international stage, the Badminton Association of India (BAI) oversaw the institution of the Premier Badminton League in 2013. The league generated a fair amount of viewership down to its fast-paced format and presence of top rated Indian players.

With the next Olympics in two years time, expect Indian badminton players to make a major bid for the top prize.

5. Hockey

The national sport of India, hockey is still trying to find a way back to the golden years when it brought back gold medals from every passing Olympic Games. Led by Dhyan Chand, India dominated the hockey world with over eight Olympic gold medals.

The change of rules which included the introduction of an artificial playing turf became a bane for Indian players used to playing on regular grass tops. To compound to this problem, incessant infighting in the hockey federation led to the gradual decline of Indian hockey as other nations like Australia, Netherlands and Germany caught up to the Indian dominance.

The decline of hockey has since been apparent. While there are certain blips when the hockey scene does show signs of revival, the overwhelming systemic problems tend to bog the sport down every time.

Like many other sports in India, hockey too has its own league based on the IPL model. The Hockey India League (HIL) began in 2013 to create a ground-based following amongst the general public for hockey.

The tournament was recognized by the Federation of International Hockey (FIH) and granted a 30-day window to allow top players from all nations to participate.

6. Tennis

One of the most popular sports in the world, tennis has a keen following in India. Though we haven’t seen a large amount of success on the singles circuit, India has been



traditionally known for creating top quality doubles players. Leander Paes and Mahesh Bhupathi together have a number of Grand Slam doubles titles to their name.

However, India’s dependence on these two legends is now being realized. With Bhupathi having retired a few years back and Paes aging with every passing season, the Indian tennis scene faces a shortage of experienced talents. Rohan Bopanna and Sania Mirza remain the only two experienced professionals on the ATP circuit representing India with Somdev Devvarman having retired a few months back.

To increase the viewership of tennis in India, Mahesh Bhupathi launched International Premier Tennis League in 2014. Comprising of four teams from four countries in Asia, namely the Indian Aces, Japan Warriors, Singapore Slammers and UAE Royals, the IPTL was inspired from the success of the IPL in India and the World Team Tennis from the 1970s.

The league was a moderate success as it depended on the appearance of tennis stars such as Roger Federer and Pete Sampras for viewership. The Singapore Slammers are the most successful team in the league having won the title twice.

7. Wrestling

Like kabaddi, wrestling has a striking undercurrent of rural India to it. Wrestling has brought India a number of medals from many major tournaments.

Wrestling with Indians is synonymous with the akhadda-style sport. Though professional wrestling differs greatly from the traditional Indian style of wrestling, the fundamentals of the sport remain the same.

Indian grapplers have recently made a strong impression on the international stage with at least a medal at every Olympics since the 2008 Beijing Games. Sushil Kumar, one of India’s most successful Olympian is a two-time Olympic medalist. Sushil is not the only one, with a sizable number of grapplers having won medals at international tournaments.

Wrestling has gained even more popularity with the success of box-office hits like Sultan and Dangal.

The latter was based on the real-life story of women wrestler Geeta Phogat and her journey to winning a gold medal at a major international event.

Movies such as these play a crucial role in educating the general public about sports they have little knowledge about. Though surpassing the popularity of cricket may seem far-fetched, creating a sports culture in the country is crucial for future success at major tournaments.

8. Boxing

Most young Indians will have nostalgic memories of associating boxing with WWE.



In reality, boxing is a professional sport very different from the like of WWE and other combat-based shows. The sport shot to fame in India after Vijender Singh brought home a bronze medal in the 2008 Beijing Games.

Boxing has since been a source of many medals on the international stage with the fruition of core group of talented boxers carrying India’s flag. Besides Vijender, women boxer MC Mary Kom won a bronze medal at London Games in 2012 against all odds.

Another aspect one needs to understand about boxing is that the Olympics –approved version of boxing is actually known as amateur boxing.

Professional boxing involves boxers who compete under their name and not the country in general.

Vijender Singh also turned pro in 2015 when he began his career in professional boxing. Since he began his career, Vijender has fought nine bouts and emerged victorious in all of them. He also won the Asia-Pacific title in the process, an achievement which has seen him move to number 10 in the world in professional boxing.

9. Motorsports

India sports fans have always had a keen interest in motorsports which has developed steadily over the years. The main source of this development has been the craze behind Formula One, the biggest motorsports spectacle in the world.

Formula One first sparked interest from the Indian public in 2005 when driver Narain Karthikeyan became the first Indian to ever compete in the event when he was signed by the Jordan Formula One team. Though Narain never made it to the podium during his time at Jordan, much of it was down to the relative standard of the car he was driving when compared to the other top teams.

Karun Chandhok was the second-ever Indian driver to compete in Formula One when he signed for HRT Formula One in 2011. After a series of poor performances, he was dropped in favor of the reserve driver. Besides drivers, India also has its own Formula One team called Force India. 2017 was a great year for the team as it finished fourth and recorded its highest points tally ever at 187.

Besides Formula One, India also has its own racing team in Moto GP in the form of Mahindra Racing. Rally driver Gaurav Gill is another representative of the country on the motorsports stage. Gill is primarily known for rally race driving. In 2013, he became the first Indian to win an Asia-Pacific Rally Championship. He repeated the feat in 2016 with the same team, MRF Skoda.

10. Basketball

Basketball has always been a key part of Indian sports culture. One of the most popular sports which is played regularly in schools and colleges, it is strange to see the lack of involvement of Indian basketball players on the international stage.

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The past few years have seen some sort of success for India on the basketball scene. The Indian Woman’s Basketball Team qualified for the FIBA Women’s Asia Cup in Division A. This is the first time an Indian basketball team has recorded such an achievement on the international stage.

In 2015, Satnam Singh Bhamara became the first Indian player to be drafted by an NBA team Dallas Mavericks. He was drafted in the 52nd round of the NBA draft. Besides being the first Indian to be a part of NBA, he was also the first player to be drafted while being a high school postgraduate.

The Importance of Sports in India

In a country rife with complexities and nuances, sports in India offer something uniquely straightforward and remarkably exciting. The chance to enjoy an unadulterated and pure spectacle is a prospect every India looks forward to whether he/she is a cricket, football or any other sports fan.

The importance of sports is on the same lines as the importance of cinema, art or theatre. Besides being spectator sports for the general public, sports professional serve as inspiration for young Indians. This is one of the most important contributions the sporting sector has made to India.

In a country which has lacked personalities appreciated and accepted across the nation since independence, Indian sports personalities have served as a great inspiration to many Indians. From Sachin Tendulkar and Dhyan Chand to Saina Nehwal and Sushil Kumar, sportsmen and sportswomen have brought pure joy to a nation otherwise embroiled in the hustle and bustle of climbing the socio-economic ladder.

Besides serving as an inspiration to Indians, learning a sport instills a healthy level of self-discipline in children from a young age. Aside from learning the trait, children learn the value of team ethic, hard work, preparation, and practice.

This is one of the key reasons why sports should be encouraged in schools and colleges. The current system is too focused on theoretical studies while sport remains a luxury at best. If we want to win medals at future Olympics, ingratiating a sports culture in schools from the grassroots level is of primary importance.




EXERCISE

1. At which of the following tennis tournaments is the Musketeers' Trophy awarded to the winner of Singles title?

a. Australian Open b. US Open c. French Open d. Wimbledon

2. What is the age from which certain category of sports persons winning gold medals at international levels are entitled to receive pension?

a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60

3. Nine time Wimbledon Champion of Women’s Singles Match in Tennis is -

a. Mary Joe Fernandez b. Jana Novotna c. Iva Majoli d. Martina Navrotilova

4. The oldest Football Tournament in India is :

a. Rovers Cup b. I. F. A. Shield c. Durand Cup d. Tata Cup

5. The modern game of polo originated in which of the following Indian states?

a. Nagaland b. Manipur

c. Mizoram d. Tripura

6. Which country has won the World Cup Football the maximum number of times?

a. Germany b. Brazil c. England d. Argentina

7. Which Indian city is associated with the origin of badminton?

a. Poona b. Shimla c. Mussoorie d. Ootacamund

8. Manufacture of sports goods is an important industry in :

a. Punjab b. Andhra Pradesh c. Karnataka d. Uttar Pradesh

9. Which of the following international tennis tournaments is held on grass court?

a. Australian Open b. Wimbledon c. French Open d. US Open

10. Sambo, a form of martial arts is associated with which country?

a. China b. Russia



c. Japan d. Korea



ANSWERS 1. c 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. b

6. b 7. a 8. a 9. b 10. b



General science is science in its basic and pure form. The science which deals with the things related to our day to day life. It includes basic Biology, physics and chemistry. Science is a systematic enterprise that builds and organizes knowledge in the form of testable explanations and predictions about the universe. In an older and closely related meaning, "science" also refers to a body of knowledge itself, of the type that can be rationally explained and reliably applied. A practitioner of science is known as a scientist. Since classical antiquity, science as a type of knowledge has been closely linked to philosophy. In the early modern period the words "science" and "philosophy of nature" were sometimes used interchangeably. By the 17th century, natural philosophy was considered a separate branch of philosophy. In modern usage, "science" most often refers to a way of pursuing knowledge, not only the knowledge itself. It is also often restricted to those branches of study that seek to explain the phenomena of the material universe. In the 17th and 18th centuries scientists increasingly sought to formulate knowledge in terms of laws of nature such as Newton's laws of motion. Science, any system of knowledge that is concerned with the physical world and its phenomena and that entails unbiased observations and systematic experimentation. In general, a science involves a pursuit of knowledge covering general truths or the operations of fundamental laws.

Science can be divided into different branches based on the subject of study.

The physical sciences study the inorganic world and comprise the fields of astronomy, physics, chemistry, and the Earth sciences. The biological sciences such as biology and medicine study the organic world of life and its processes. Social sciences like anthropology and economics study the social and cultural aspects of human behaviour.

Science is further treated in a number of articles. For the history of Western and Eastern science, see science, history of. For the conceptualization of science and its interrelationships with culture, see science, philosophy of. For the basic aspects of the scientific approach, see physical science, principles of; and scientific method.

CHAPTER

10 GENERAL SCIENCE

https://www.britannica.com/science/physical-science

https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/comprise

https://www.britannica.com/science/astronomy

https://www.britannica.com/science/physics-science

https://www.britannica.com/science/chemistry

https://www.britannica.com/science/Earth-sciences

https://www.britannica.com/science/biology

https://www.britannica.com/science/medicine

https://www.britannica.com/science/life

https://www.britannica.com/topic/social-science

https://www.britannica.com/topic/social-science

https://www.britannica.com/science/anthropology

https://www.britannica.com/topic/economics

https://www.britannica.com/topic/human-behavior

https://www.britannica.com/topic/human-behavior

https://www.britannica.com/science/history-of-science

https://www.britannica.com/topic/concept-formation

https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/culture

https://www.britannica.com/topic/philosophy-of-science

https://www.britannica.com/science/principles-of-physical-science

https://www.britannica.com/science/scientific-method



EXERCISE 1. The control Centre of the body is the

........................

a) Heart b) Lungs c) Brain d) Kidney e) None of these

2. Which part of the body is connected

with the sense of touch?

a) Nose b) Skin c) Ear d) Eyes e) None of these

3. Which of the following is not a sense

organ?

a) Eyes b) Ears c) Nose d) Teeth e) None of these

4. A Barometer is used to measure

...........................

a) Wind direction b) Rainy Water c) Temperature d) Atmospheric pressure e) None of these

5. Which of the following is the smallest

bird of the world?

a) Humming bird b) Robin c) Curlew d) Greenfinch

e) None of these

6. Which star is nearest to sun?

a) Proxima centauri b) Sirius c) Alpha centauri d) Spole star e) None of these

7. Which is the fastest animal on land?

a) Leopard b) Cheetah c) Deer d) Kangaroo e) None of these

8. Who build the first telescope?

a) Galileo b) Issac Newton c) Alaxender Fleming d) Benjamin Franklin e) None of these

9. Henary Ford invented the first

.................... a) Television b) Telephone c) Motor Car d) Refrigerator e) Aeroplane

10. Jaundice is an infectious disease,

which spreads through ............

a) Air b) Soil c) Water d) Clothes e) None of these

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ANSWERS 1. c 2. b 3. d 4. d 5. a

6. a 7. b 8. a 9. c 10. c



GENERAL CURRRENT EVENTS OF INDIA ARE

PROVIDED ON

WWW.CAREERSUCCESSJAMMU.COM ON

DAILY BASIS

CHAPTER

11

GENERAL CURRENT EVENTS OF INDIA

http://www.careersuccessjammu.com/



MOCK TEST-1

ENGLISH Direction: Find out the error in each of the following sentences, if there is no error,


1. (a) There were a number/ (b) of pretty girls in the party/ (c) but it was Neelam/ (d)

who remained a centre of attraction./ (e) No error.

2. (a) I have been / (b) informed that/ (c) Dr Sharma visits Mumbai/ (d) the following

week. / (e) No error.

3. (a) He is / (b) the best singer/ (c) of the time but unfortunately/ (d) least recognized /

(e) No error.

4. (a) Little knowledge/ (b) of art that she possessed/(c) proved to be a boon for her/

(d) when she was utterly helpless. / (e) No error.

5. (a) Don’t talk to her/ (b) she always/(c) remains in temper/ (d) these days./ (e) No

error.

PASSAGE-1

Directions (6-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions

given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while

answering some of the questions.

Insurance companies are widening their net and looking at India’s vast hinterland Global

insurance majors such as AIG and Aviva increasingly see rural India as a growth area. One

of the reasons for this is the huge gap in per capita spending on life insurance between

developed and emerging markets. While developed markets spend $1,887 on life

insurance, emerging markets spend only $46. It’s no surprise that many companies are

targeting the rural population and tailoring their policies to meet the requirements of this

segment. So villagers now have the option of insuring their cow or television set for as low

as Rs 20-40 a month. If a cow dies, the policyholder is likely to get as much as Rs 8,000.

Though the premium amounts are very small, insurance companies see this as a way of

entering a market that is sure to grow over the next few years. For long, LIC has had a

market monopoly in India and still holds 90 per cent of the life insurance sector. With

foreign competition the insurance sector is going through a churn. The entry of new players

has meant that there is now intense competition to woo consumers. This is welcome since

even by developing country standards, India is woefully under-insured. Without any sort of

government safety net, a majority of India’s population has no cover for old age or

unforeseen contingencies. This is where micro-insurance schemes can make a difference.



Such schemes are, however, not without their difficulties. Collecting premium and verifying

claims can be time-consuming, especially in rural India. To get around this, insurance

companies are using locals or self-help groups as agents to access rural markets. For death

insurance claims, companies are willing to forgo the usual death certificates and accept

signatures of a panchayat member or a village elder. Such innovative measures have

ensured that several insurance companies at least have a presence in rural India. The

challenge, however, is to move from micro-insurance to covering crops and health. For this

to happen, it would help if people formed collectives and went in for group insurance. This

would be- particularly useful for farmers who cultivate the same crops on small plots of

land. Health and crop insurance for small farmers would also have the additional benefit of

eliminating the dreaded moneylender who benefits from the precarious condition of the

rural poor.

6. What is attracting the insurance companies towards the villages in India?

(a) Rural areas generate more revenue than urban areas in India.

(b) Indian villages offer immense potential for insurance firms which is still to be

tapped.

(c) Villages in India are more insurance-friendly than even the villages in the developed

world.

(d) Insurance companies see Indian villages as relatively risk-free areas.

(e) None of these.

7. Many insurance companies are tailoring their policies to meet the requirements of

rural people because

(a) they are a more stubborn and rigid lot.

(b) these people are not found in a financially sound position throughout the year.

(c) insurance companies are in fierce competition with each other to capture the rural

segment.

(d) the needs of the rural people are much different from those of the urban people.

(e) None of these

8. What would be the possible outcome if insurance firms launch policies with heavy

premium amounts in village areas?

(a) Such policies would become the of the dreaded moneylender only.

(b) Such policies would become an instant hit with rich and influential segment.

(c) Such an initiative would fail to yield desired results on a large scale.

(d) It would add to the woes of the economically weaker segment.

(e) None of these

9. What does the emerging markets’ per capita spending on life insurance of $46

against developed markets’ $ 1,887 reflect?

(a) Insurance companies have little scope and opportunity in emerging markets.

(b) There are few takers of insurance policies in emerging markets.



(c) Insurance has not been a profitable area of business in emerging markets.

(d) There is fierce competition in the insurance sector in emerging markets.

(e) None of these.

10. Which of the following is ‘true’ in the context of the passage?

(a) There lies a vast potential for insurance sector in countryside areas of India.

(b) Urban India has more to offer than rural India in the area of insurance.

(c) Global insurance firms eye India as a low-return market.

(d) LIC has prevented the entry of other insurance companies in the Indian market.

(e) None of these

DIRECTIONS (11-15): In each of the questions below, choose the alternatives which is

most nearly the same in meaning to the given word

11. Mendicant

e) Reformer

f) Dealer

g) Beggar

h) Advisor

12. Instinctive

e) Helpful

f) inherent

g) Crucial

h) Strong

13. Clone

e) Trace

f) Copy

g) Make

h) Mould

14. Thrive

e) Flourish

f) Raise

g) Create

h) Destroy

15. Dissuade

e) Worry

f) Disturb

g) Discourage

Identify the kind of sentence, giving and appropriate reason for your choice: 16. I've been asked to bring back a vaccine for a horse 17. But someone always catches me 18. I don't know exactly how much it costs 19. I went in search of a nearby shop where I had seen ties. 20. But I couldn't find it



REASONING

1. Four of the following five are alike in a

certain way on the basis of their

positions in the English alphabet and

so form a group. Which is the one that

does not belong to the group?

(1) AZ

(2) EV

(3) BY

(4) GT

(5) DU

2. If ‘$’ means ‘×’, ‘#’ means ‘÷’, ‘‘’ means

‘–’ and ‘@’ means ‘+’ then what is the

value of 204 # 6 ‘ 15 $ 8 @ 88?

(1) 8

(2) 2

(3) –6

(4) 12

(5) None of these

3. If the position of the first and the sixth

letters of the word ‘PRESCRIBED’ are

interchanged, similarly position of the

second and the seventh letters are

interchanged and so on. Which letter

will be fourth from the left end after

the rearrangement?

(1) E

(2) S

(3) B

(4) D

(5) None of these

4. How many such pairs of letters are

there in the word INTERNAL, each of

which has as many letters between

them in the word as they have in the

English alphabet?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) None of these

5. In a certain code DIVERT is written as

SCQHDU, how is CONFER written in

that code?

(1) QBDNEO

(2) QDBNEM

(3) QBDNEM

(4) QDBNEO

(5) None of these

Qs. 6-10. In each question below is given

a statement followed by two courses of

action numbered I and II. A course of

action is a step or administrative decision

to be taken for improvement, follow-up or

further action in regard to the problem,



policy, etc. On the basis of the information

given in the statement, you have to

assume everything in the statement to be

true, then decide which of the suggested

courses of action logically follow(s) for

pursuing. Give answer

(1) if only I follows.

Give answer (2) if only II follows.

Give answer (3) if either I or II follows.

Give answer (4) if neither I nor II follows.

Give answer (5) if both I and II follow.

Statement: 6. A country cannot develop

without fast and easy communication.

Courses of action:

I. Govt. should provide communication

facilities to the public at a cheaper rate.

II. More private companies should be

permitted to enter into field of

communication to strengthen the

network.

Statement: 7. “Due to availability of air

tickets at cheaper rates from various

airlines large no. of people now a day’s

prefer to travel by air than travelling by

train.” Courses of action:

I. Railway ministry has to put in its best

efforts to improve the quality of rail

journey in respect of facilities and also the

punctuality

II. Airlines should not be allowed to

introduce various schemes offering

concessional fare. Statement:

8. Continuous use of computers is

affecting the eye sights of many youth.

Courses of action:

I. All the establishments should permit

the people using computer to take a short

break after every hour of work on the

computer.

II. Use of computers should be

discouraged by the managements of the

establishments.

Statement: 9. Proportion of females

compared to that of males in the

population of our country has drastically

gone down in the recent past. Courses of

action:

Social workers should take up the task of

emphasizing the importance of having

atleast one female child in each family in

both rural and urban areas of the country.

II. Government should severely punish

the persons involved in the practice of

female feticide.

Statement: 10. Reading habits in the

children of coming generations is

diminishing day by day. Courses of action:

I. Access to various electronic gadgets

such as television, computer and

particularly the internet should be

controlled. II. Parents should ensure and

cultivate reading habits among their

children.

Qs. 11-15. Study the following

information carefully to answer these

questions. Seven T.V. channels A, B, C, D,



E, F and G telecast different programmes

P, Q, R, S, T, U and V on different days of

the week from Monday to Sunday, not

necessarily in Questions asked in UCO

Bank P.O. Exam, held on January 29, 2006

64 ‹ AUGUST the same order. Channel A

telecast Programme T on Sunday. Channel

D does not telecast Programme P or U but

telecasts on the day just prior to Channel

F. Channel C telecasts Programme Q but

not on Monday. Channel B telecasts

Programme R on Tuesday. Channel G

telecasts Programme V but not on

Monday. Channel C telecasts on the next

day of Channel G and previous day of

Channel D. Programme ‘P’ is telecast

before Programme ‘U’.

11. Which programme is telecast on

Thursday?

(1) P

(2) S

(3) R

(4) U

(5) None of these

12. Which of the following combination of

day channel-programme is correct?

(1) Thursday—C—R

(2) Tuesday—C—Q

(3) Saturday—E—U

(4) Monday—E—P

(5) None of these

13. Which channel telecasts on

Wednesday?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) G

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

14. Channel ‘C’ telecasts on which day of

the week?

(1) Thursday

(2) Tuesday

(3) Friday

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

15. Which channel telecasts programme

‘S’?

(1) E

(2) D

(3) F

(4) D or E

(5) None of these

Qs. 16-20. In making decisions about

important questions, it is desirable to be

able to distinguish between “strong”

arguments and “weak” arguments.

“Strong” arguments must be both

important and directly related to the



question. “Weak” arguments may not be

directly related to the question and may

be of minor importance or may be related

to the trivial aspects of the question. Each

question below is followed by two

arguments numbered I and II. You have to

decide which of the arguments is a

“strong” argument and which is a “weak”

argument.

Give answer (1) if only argument I is

strong.

Give answer (2) if only argument II is

strong.

Give answer (3) if either argument I or II

is strong.

Give answer (4) if neither argument I nor

II is strong.

Give answer (5) if both arguments I and II

are strong.

16. Should there be a quota for

underprivileged categories and the

minority communities for admissions into

the premier educational institutions in

India?

Arguments: I. No, admissions to the

premier institutes should be only on

merit and there should be no system for

any special consideration.

II. No, this will put the deserving non-

reserved category students to

disadvantage.

17. Can the total ban on dance bars across

a State be justified?

Arguments: I. Yes, running of dance bars

gives scope for various illegal and

criminal activities.

II. No, the livelihood of the families of

bar-girls is totally dependent on the

dance bars.

18. Should the top officials and politicians

detained by the law enforcement agencies

be given special treatment in jails while

under-trial?

Arguments: I. No, there is no such need

for any special treatment, they should be

treated like all other detainees.

II. Yes, it is necessary to take care of their

special security requirements.

19. Should stricter discipline be imposed

upon all the children by parents and

teachers in view of the increasing

criminal cases among the youth?

Arguments: I. Yes, too much freedom to

the children is leading to such cases of

crime.

II. No, freedom to the children is

necessary in the changing social scenario.

20. Should the gender-reassignment

surgeries be legally permitted?

Arguments: I. Yes, it is the genuine need

of the transsexuals.

II. No, people will take disadvantage of

the facility since it is difficult to judge the

genuineness of the requirement



MATHEMATICS

1. How is 3


(a) 0.75% (b) 7.5%

(c) 75% (d) 60%

(e) None of these

2. The ratio 5: 4 expressed as a

percent equals

(a) 12.5%

(b) 40%

(c) 80%

(d) 125%

(e) None of these

3. Find the average of all the

numbers between 6 and 34 which

are divisible by 5.

(a) 18

(b) 20

(c) 24

(d) 30

(e) None of these

4. A motorist covered the first 20 km

of his journey in 30 minutes and

the remaining 29 km in 40

minutes. His average speed in

km/hr is:

(a) 413

4

(b) 42

(c) 49

(d )571

6

(e) None of these

5. A man riding his bicycle covers 150

metres in 25 seconds. What is his

speed in km per hour?

(a) 20

(b) 21.6

(c) 23

(d) 25

(e) None of these

6. A is travelling at 72 km per hour

on a highway while B is travelling

at a speed of 25 meters per second.

What is the difference in their

speeds in meters per second?

(a) 11

2 m/sec

(b) 2 m/sec

(c) 3 m/sec

(d) 5 m/sec

(e) None of these

7. The total number of students in a

school is 2140. If the number of girls

in the school is 1200, then what is the

ratio of the total number of boys to the

total number of girls in the school?

(a) 18: 13

(b) 26: 25

(c) 47: 60

(d) 31: 79

(e) None of these

8. A person spends Rs. 8100 in buying

some tables at Rs. 1200 each and

some chairs at Rs. 300 each. The ratio

of the number of chairs to that of

tables when the maximum possible

number of tables is purchased is

(a) 1: 2

(b) 1: 4

(c) 2: 1



(d) 5: 7

(e) None of these

9. (75P2 – 75C2) = ?

(a) 0

(b) 75

(c) 150

(d) 2775

(e) 5550

10. In how many different ways can

the letters of the word DISPLAY be

arranged?

(a) 720

(b) 1440

(c) 2520

(d) 5040

(e) None of these

11. A cistern 6 m long and 4 m wide

contains water up to a depth of 1

m 25 cm. The total area of the wet

surface is?

(a) 49 m2

(b) 50 m2

(c) 53.5 m2

(d) 55 m2

(e) None of these


height and half its length. The

volume of the room is 512 cu. m.

The length of the room is

(a) 16 m

(b) 18 m

(c) 20 m

(d) 32 m

(e) None of these

13. A Rectangular plot is 180 m2 in

area. If its length is 18m then, its

perimeter is?

(a) 20 m

(b) 56 m

(c) 360 m

(d) 60 m

(e) None of these

14. The side of a square exceeds the

side of another square by 4 cm and

the sum of the areas of the two

squares is 400 cm2. The

dimensions of the square are?

(a) 8cm and 12cm

(b) 6cm and 10cm

(d) 12cm and 16cm

(d) 10cm and 18cm

(e) None of these

15. The area of the floor of a

rectangular hall of length 40m is

960m2. Carpets of size 6m × 4m

are available. Then, how many

carpets are required to cover the

hall?

(a) 20

(b) 30

(c) 40

(d) 45

(e) None of these

16. A lawn is in the shape of rectangle

of length 60m and width 40m.

Inside the lawn there is a footpath

of uniform width 1m bordering the

lawn. The area of the path is:

(a) 194 m2

(b) 196 m2



(c) 198 m2

(d) 200 m2

(e) None of these

17. ABCD is a parallelogram as shown

in figure, then its area is?

D 3cm C

90

90

A B

(a) 12 cm2

(b) 14 cm2

(c) 15 cm2

(d) 660 cm2

(e) None of these

18. What is the area of a triangle

whose sides are 9cm, 12cm and

15cm?

(a) 45 cm2

(b) 54 cm2

(c) 56 cm2

(d) 64 cm2

e) None of these

19. What is the perimeter of an

equilateral triangle whose area is

4√3cm2?

(a) 4cm

(b) 3cm

(c) 12cm

(d) 7cm

(e) None of these

20. The circumference of a circle

whose area is 24.64 m2 is

(a) 17.2m

(b) 17.4m

(c) 17.6m

(d) 18.0m

(e) None of these



GENERAL AWARENESS AND SCIENCE

1. The territories of J&K were transferred to Raja

Gulab Singh of Jammu as a result of:






a) 15th Aug,1947

b) 17th Nov,1956

c) 26th Jan, 1950

d) 26th Jan,1957



a) Meghalaya

b) Goa

c) Sikkim

d) Himachal Pardesh



Panchayats from:


contingency







a) Rural Employment

b) Urban Employment





line?




d) Dutt Committee



a) Scenery

b) Sage

c) Temple

d) King


a) Janaka

b) Swarna

c) Pravarsena




ensure:




Indian industries


regions



Raj was chaired by:


b) Ashok Mehta

c) K.N Katju

d) JagjivanRam














a. Andaman and Nicobar Islands b. Daman and Diu

c. Puducherry d. None of the above














23. Raut Nacha is folk dance performed

mainly by the tribal communities of which state? a) Rajasthan b) Jammu & Kashmir c) Assam d) Chhattisgarh





26. At which of the following tennis

tournaments is the Musketeers' Trophy awarded to the winner of Singles title?



a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60






a. Nagaland b. Manipur c. Mizoram d. Tripura

31. The control Centre of the body is the

........................




a) Nose b) Skin c) Ear

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d) Eyes e) None of these


organ?



...........................



bird of the world?

a) Humming bird b) Robin c) Curlew d) Greenfinch e) None of these




a) Leopard b) Cheetah c) Deer d) Kangaroo e) None of these







a) Air b) Soil c) Water d) Clothes e) None of these

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ANSWERS

ENGLISH







2. (e); No error










6. (b); The passage is silent about

urban areas and urban population.

Hence (a) and (c) are not the

correct options. It is given in the

first paragraph it is given that ‘One

of the reasons for this is the huge

gap in per capita spending on life

insurance between developed and

emerging markets. While

developed markets spend $1,887

on life insurance, emerging

markets spend only $46’ from

which we can conclude that the

insurance companies are attracted

towards the villages because of its

potential which is still to be

tapped. The challenges described

in last paragraph also suggest that

option (d) is not correct. Hence,

(b) is the correct option

7. ‘(d); Option (a) is extreme

judgement which cannot be passed

on the basis of the passage. Hence,

(a) is not the correct option. The

usage of the word ‘precarious’ also

suggests that option (b) is not

correct. Option (c) can also not be

inferred from the passage. Now, in

the first paragraph, it is given that

‘many companies are’ tailoring

their policies to meet the

requirements of this segment’

after which the author has given

examples’ of various things which

a villager can insure. Hence (d) is

the most appropriate option.

8. (c); Option (a) and (d) are extreme

judgements which cannot be

inferred on the basis of the

passage. Hence, they are not the

correct option The passage is

silent about the effects of

insurance policies with high

premium on the rich Hence, (b) is

also not the correct option Now, In

the first paragraph, the statement,

Though the premium amounts are

very small, insurance companies

see this as a way of entering a

market that is sure to grow over

the next few years...’ suggests that

the aim to launch policies with low

premium is to connect more and



more people, from every sphere of

the society, with the insurance

sector. Hence, if insurance firms

launch policies with heavy

premium amounts in village areas,

then such an initiative would fail to

yield desired ‘results on a large

scale. Hence (c) is the correct

option.

9. (e); It’s clearly mentioned in the

passage that’. Global insurance

majors such as AIG and Aviva

increasingly see rural India as a

growth area’ after which, the

author cites the given figures, from

this we can infer that there is a

scope of growth for insurance

companies in the emerging

markets. Hence (e) is the correct

option.

10. c 11. b 12. b

13. a

14. c

15. Simple Sentence

16. Simple Sentence


18. Complex sentence

19. Simple Sentence

20. Complex sentence

REASONING

1. (5) Other pairs occupy the same

place in alphabets from A and Z.

2. (2) 204 ÷ 6 – 15 × 8 + 88 = 34 –

120 + 88 = 2. (Apply BODMAS)

3. (1) Left ← RIBEDPRESS → Right

4. (4) IN, TR and NL.

5. (3) D I V E R T would be TDRIEV

hence CONFER would be RCEOFN.

The preceding letter in alphabets

is the code.

6. (5)

7. (1)

8. (1)

9. (5)

10. (2)

11-15. Days Channel Programme Mon F P

Tue B R Wed G V Thurs C Q Fri D S Sat E U

Sun A T

11. (5)

12. (3)

13. (3)

14. (1)

15. (2)

16. (1)

17. (5)

18. (3)

19. (3)

20. (2)



MATHEMATICS

1. (c): 3

4= (

3

4× 100)% = 75%

2. (d): 5: 4 = 5

4= (

5

4× 100)% =

125%

3. (d): Sum of numbers = (41.4×15) =

621.

4. (e): 25a + 25b = 115 25 (a + b) =

115

a + b= 115

25=

23

5

5. (b): Speed = (150

25)m/sec = 6 m/sec

= (6 ×18

5) km/hr = (

108

5)

km/hr

= 21.6 km/hr

6. (d): A’s speed = 72 km/hr = (72 ×

5

18)m/sec

= 20 m/sec


8. (a): Maximum possible number of tables = 6 [∵1200×6=7200]

9. (d): (75P2 – 75C2) = {75!

(75−2)!−

75×75

2}

=75!

73!−(75×37)

= 75×74×73!

73!−(73×37)

= (75×74 – 75×37) =

75×37×(2-1)

= (75×37) = 2775

10. (d): The given word contains 7

letters, all different


7!

= (7×6×5×4×3×2×1) = 5040

11. (a): Area of the wet surface = [2(lb +

bh + lh) – lb]

= 2 (bh + lh)

+lb

= [2 (4×1.25 + 6×1.25) + 6×4]

m2 = 49 m2


meters.


length = 4x metres


m3 = (8x3) m2

8x3= 512 x3= 64 x = 4



Length=

180

18=10 m


= 2 (18+10)

= 56



cm

x2+(x+4)2 = 400

x2+x2+16+8x = 400

2x2+8x-384 = 0 x2+4x-

192=0

x2+16x-12x-192=0

x (x+16) -12 (x+16) = 0

(x - 12) (x+16) = 0




15. (c): Given, 6

4






Area of one carpet

=960

24= 40

16. (b): Length of the outer rectangle = 60

m

40m

60 m

Breadth of the outer rectangle =

40m

Area = 60×40 = 2400 m2

Width of path = 1m

Length of the inner rectangle

=60m –(1+1) m

= 58

m

Breadth of the inner rectangle =

40 – 2 =38m

Area = 58×38= 2204 m2

Area of path

= [Area of outer rectangle] –

[Area of inner rectangle]

= 2400 – 2204 = 196 m2

17. (a): Area of parallelogram,

ABCD = (Area of ∆ABD+ ∆Area

of BDC)

= 2 (Area of ∆ABD)

= 2×1

2× 3 × 4 = 12 cm2

18. (b): Here, s = 9+12+15

2=18 cm

Area = √𝑠(𝑠 − 𝑎)(𝑠 − 𝑏)(𝑠 − 𝑐)

=

√18(18 − 9)(18 − 12)(18 − 15)

= √18 × 9 × 6 × 3 =54

cm2

19. (c): By formula

Area = √3

4× (𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒)2

√3

4×

(𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒)2 = 4√3

(side) 2= 16 side = 4 cm

Perimeter = 3×side = 3×4= 12

cm

20. (c): Let, radius of the circle = r m

𝜋r2 = 24.64

22

7× 𝑟2= 24.64 r2 =

7×24.64

22

r = √7×24.64

2= 2.8

Thus, circumference = 2𝜋r

= 2×22

7×2.8= 17.6 m

1m

38

58



GENERAL AWARENESS AND SCIENCE

1. a

2. d

3. a

4. c

5. c

6. b

7. b

8. c

9. d

10. b 11. a

12. c

13. a

14. b

15. b

16. a

17. d

18. c

19. c

20. d

21. b 22. b 23. d 24. d 25. d 26. c 27. c

28. c

29. d

30. a

31. d

32. c

33. c

34. d

35. a

36. d

37. a

38. c

39. a

40. c



MOCK TEST-2

ENGLISH

Fill in the blanks with appropriate articles: 1. I checked ___________ mailbox again.

2. Can I have __________ spoon please?

3. I was born into ________ poor family.

4. Have you been to __________ Space

Needle Tower in Seattle?

5. What _________ amazing view!

Direction (6 – 10): Choose the correct

preposition in each sentence.

6. If she left at 4 p.m., she should be here

_________ now.

7. I slept ________only two hours last

night.

8. It was my first trip ___________ Hawaii.

9. I was late ____________ school.

10. The woman is holding a cup _______ her

hands.

Directions (11-15): Read the following

passage carefully and answer the

questions given below it. Certain

words/phrases have been printed in

bold to help you locate them while

answering some of the questions.

Facing mounting criticism, the

government at the Centre has decided to

drop its Budget proposal to tax a portion

of the EPF (Employees’ Provident Fund)

corpus upon withdrawal. An ill-conceived

move both context- and content-wise, it

has deservedly been given a burial. “In

view of the representations received, the

government would like to do a

comprehensive review of this proposal,

and, therefore, withdraw the proposal in

paragraph 138 and 139 of my Budget

speech,” Finance Minister Arun Jaitley

said in a statement m the Lok Sabha The

government has also withdrawn the

proposal to limit tax-free contributions by

the employer to the provident fund

account of an employee to Rs 1.5 lakh a

year. This did not gel with the Budget

speech rationale for taxing EPF savings —

to bring parity in tax treatment between

the EPF and the National Pension System

(or NPS, where employers can pay up to

10 per cent of salary as contribution

without any such cap). By putting the EPF

back into an EEE tax regime (where

contributions, income as well as the

accumulated corpus are all exempt from

tax), the government’s volte-face would

help retain the EPF’s popularity among

the salaried class, most of whom are part

of it not out of choice but by statutory

default. The Finance Minister had himself

called them hostages to the EPF in his

last Budget, but instead of setting them

free, he thought it better to tax them

citing fair taxation principles. It is still not

clear whether the government had

initially thought it could pull the taxation

proposal past its middle-class

constituency. In the event, the tax on EPF

withdrawal gave additional ammunition

to an aggressive opposition, including the

Congress party. Differences within the

National Democratic Alliance and the



Cabinet finally ensured the climb-down

by the Finance Ministry.

While announcing a return to status quo

on the EPF, the Finance Minister has

rightly retained the Budget provision

allowing NPS subscribers to withdraw 40

per cent of the corpus without any tax

liability. The remainder 60 per cent will

attract a combination of withdrawal tax

and deferred tax on the annuity products

one buys. In a way, partial tax relief for

the NPS will narrow the existing tax-

induced gap between the EPF and the

NPS. The strident opposition to EPF tax

must be read in the context of the virtual

absence of a social security net of any

worth in India. There are no two views on

the need to move towards a ‘pensioned

society’. However, this cannot happen

abruptly or in a coercive manner —

people need to be nudged over time to

gear up for such transitions. Whatever the

intention, it was the ‘out-of-the-blue’

approach of the government that

triggered an uproar. A sheepish rollback

is a smart move, ahead of a round of

Assembly elections. It is to be hoped that

this U-turn will trigger a larger debate on

ushering in a holistic social security

ecosystem in the country.

11. Which of the following is/are true

with respect to the expected result(s)

of government’s decision to drop the

proposed tax on EPF?

(i) Contribution, income as well as the

accumulated corpus are all expected

to be exempted from tax.

(ii) A debate to steer for a

comprehensive society.

(iii) It’ll help retaining EPF’s

popularity.

(a) only (i)

(b) only (ii)

(c) only (iii)

(d) both (ii) and (iii)

(e) all (i), (ii) and (iii)

12. Who are the hostages to EPF as per

the Finance Minister?

(a) Tax Payers

(b) Middle Class

(c) Salaried Class

(d) both (b) and (c)

(e) None of the above

13. According to author what kind of

approach was it to impose tax on EPF?

(a) Revolutionary

(b) Avaricious

(c) Trite

(d) Unanticipated

(e) Obligatory

14. According to the given passage why is

it difficult to have a pensioned

society?

(a) Opposition is not cooperative in

her approach.

(b) People are not yet ready for any

radical transmutations.

(c) People need more time to be

financially stable to bear the cost

of taxation.

(d) Most of the people are part of EPFs

not out of choice but by statutory

default.

(e) Political parties are more

interested in their personal gains

than the public welfare.



15. What was/ were the reason(s) the

Finance Minister gave for levying tax

on EPFs?

I. To make EPF more profitable than NPS

II. To bring equality between EPF and NPS

III. To narrow the existing tax-induced

gap between the EPF and the NPS.

(a) only (i)

(b) only (ii)

(c) only (iii)

(d) both (ii) and (iii)

(e) all (i),(ii) and (iii)

16. Innate

e) Acquired

f) Natural

g) Inborn

h) Unusual

17. Reprisal

e) Forgiveness

f) ‘Relief

g) Exemption

h) Relaxation

18. Permit

e) Control

f) Leadership

g) Subordination

h) Discipline

19. Lead

e) Guide

f) Follow

g) Direct

h) Conduct

20. Permit

e) Approve

f) Certify

g) Forbid

h) Endorse

RESAONNING



a) Hole

b) Hive

c) Nest

d) Barn



a) Malaysia

b) Afghanistan

c) France

d) Germany



a) Doctor

b) Nurse

c) Medicine

d) Patient



related to:

a) Group Captain

b) Flying Attendant

c) Flying Officer

d) Pilot Officer




Taste is to:

a) Tongue

b) Water

c) Sweet

d) Food

6. If Teena’s mother was Uday’s mother’s

only daughter, then how was Uday

related to Teena?

(a) Maternal grand Father

(b) Maternal Uncle

(c) Cousin

(d) Son

(e) None of these

7. R told S that U is T’s sibling but not

brother of T. How is U related to T?

(a) Mother (b) Father (c) Aunt

(d) Sister (e) None of these

8. Hema, who is Sahil’s daughter, says to

Anjali, “Your mother, Rekha, is the

younger sister of my father Sahil”.

How is Sahil’s father related to Anjali?

(a) Father

(b) Grandfather

(c) Father-in-law

(d) Brother

(e) None of these

9. Pointing to a photograph, a man said,

“I have no brother or sister but that

man’s father is my father’s son”.

Whose photograph was it?

(a) His own

(b) His son

(c) His father’s

(d) His nephew’s

(e) None of these

10. Pointing towards a boy, Veena said, “

He is the son of only son of my

grandfather.” How is that boy related

to Veena?

(a) Aunt

(b) Uncle

(c) Mother

(d) Data inadequate

(e) None of these

11. If in a certain code, LUTE is written as

MUTE and FATE is written as GATE,

then how will BLUE be written in that

code?

(a) CLUE (b) GLUE (c) FLUE

(d) SLUE (e) None of these




(a) CPNCBX

(b) CPNCBZ

(c) CPOCBZ

(d) CQOCBZ

(e) None of these

13. If FISH is written as EHRG in a certain

code, how would JUNGLE be written in

that code?

(a) ITMFKD

(b) ITNFKD

(c) KVOHMF

(d) TIMFKD

(e) None of these



14. In a certain code, TWINKLE is written

as SVHOJKD then how would FILTERS


(a) EHKSDQR

(b) EHKUDQR

(c) EGHUDQR

(d) GJMSFST

(e) None of these

15. In a certain code, ROAD is written as

URDG. How is SWAN written in that

code?

(a) VXDQ (b) VZDQ (c) VZCP

(d) UXDQ (e) None of these

16. 2, 3, 5, 7, ?

(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 8


17. 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ?

(a) 17 (b) 18 (c) 20


18. 4, 9, 16, 25?

(a) 49 (b) 30 (c) 36


19. 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23?

(a) 18 (b) 28 (c) 27


20. 41, 43, 47, 53, 59?

(a) 61 (b) 67 (c) 64


MATHEMATICS

1. How many litres of pure acid are

there in 8 litres of a 20% solution?

(a) 1.4 (b) 1.5 (c) 1.6

(d) 2.4 (e) None of these

2. Which one of the following shows

the best percentage?

(a) 384

540 (b)

425

500 (c)

570

700

(d) 480

660 (e) None of these

3. 0.15% of 33 1

3% of Rs. 10,000 is?

(a) Rs. 0.05

(b) Rs. 5

(c) Rs. 105

(d) Rs. 150

(e) None of these

4. 45% of 1500+35% of 1700 = ?%

of 3175

(a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 45


5. An Agent gets a commission of

2.5% on the sales of cloth. If on a

certain day, he gets Rs. 12.50 as

commission, the cloth sold through

him on that day is worth?

(a) Rs. 250

(b) Rs. 500

(c) Rs. 750

(d) Rs. 1250

(e) None of these

6. What will be the average of even

numbers between 11 to 63?

(a) 37.5 (b) 47 (c) 42


7. Find average of all prime numbers

between 60 and 90

(a) 72 (b) 74.7 (c) 74

(d) 73.6 (e) None of these



8. Average age of 5 boys is 16 yr, of

which that of 4 boys is 16 yr 3

months. The age of the 5th boy is

(a) 15 yr

(b) 15yr 6months

(c) 15yr 4months

(d) 15yr 2months

(e) None of these

9. The average age of 30 girls is 13 yr.

The average of first 18 girls is 15

yr. Find out the average age of

remaining 12 girls?

(a) 12 yr (b) 10 yr (c) 16 yr

(d) 10.5 yr (e) None of these

10. The average of 13 results is 60. If

the average of first 7 results is 59

and that of last 7 results is 61,

what will be the seventh result?

(a) 90 (b) 50 (c) 75


11. A train running at 7

11 of its normal

speed reached a place in 22 hours.

How much time could be saved if

the train would have run at its

normal speed?

(a) 14 hours (b) 7 hours (c) 8

hours

(d) 16 hours (e) None of these

12. Walking at three-fourth of his

usual speed, a man covers certain

distance in 2 hours more than the

time he takes to cover the distance

at his usual speed. The time taken

by him to cover the distance with

his usual speed is:

(a) 4.5 hours

(b) 5.5 hours

(c) 6 hours

(d) 5 hours

(e) None of these

13. A man goes from a place A to B at a

speed of 12 km/ hr and returns

from B to A at a speed of 18 km/hr.

The average speed for the whole

journey is:

(a) 1425 km/hr

(b) 15 km/hr

(c) 15 12 km/hr (d) 16 km/hr

(e) None of these

14. Two trains started at the same

time, one from A to B and the other

from B to A. If they arrived at B

and A respectively 4 hours and 9

hours after they passed each other,

the ratio of the speeds of the two

trains was:

(a) 2:1 (b) 3:2 (c) 4:3

(d)5:4 (e) None of these

15. The cost of leveling a rectangular

ground at Rs. 1.25 per sq. meter is

Rs. 900. If the length of the ground

is 30 meters, then the width is?

(a) 330 meters

(b) 34 meters

(c) 24 meters

(d) 18 meters

(e) None of these

16. The length of a rectangle is twice

its breadth. If its length is

decreased by 5 cm and breadth is

increased by 5 cm, the area of the

rectangle is increased by 75 cm2.

Then the length of the rectangle is:

(a) 20cm (b) 30cm (c) 40cm

(d) 50cm (e) None of these



17. The dimensions of the floor of a

rectangular hall are 4m × 3m. The

floor of the hall is to be tiled fully

with 8cm × 6cm rectangular is

without breaking tiles to smaller

size. The number of tiles required:

(a) 4800 (b) 2600 (c)

2500


18. The number of marble slabs of size

20cm × 30cm required to pave the

floor of a square room of side 3m,

is:

(a) 150

(b) 100

(c) 25

(d) 225

(e) None of these

19. If the perimeter of a rectangular

field is 200 m and its breadth is

40m then its area is (in m2).

(a) 1200 (b) 2400

(c) 4800



base is 1.5m and height is 75cm?

(a) 5625 sq.cm.

(b) 5265 sq.cm.

(c) 5635 sq.cm.

(d) 5525 sq.cm.

(e) None of these

GENERAL SCIENCE AND AWARENESS

1. Which of the following is the lightest metal ? a) Mercury b) Silver c) Lithium d) Lead

2. The most important ore of Aluminium is– a) Bauxite b) Calamine c) Calcite d) Galena

3. The element present in the largest amount in rocks and minerals is– a) Carbon b) Silicon c) Hydrogen d) Aluminium

4. The chemial name of Uria is– a) Aneurin b) Chloroetane c) Carbamide d) None of these

5. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by adding– a) Potassium Permanganate b) Chlorine c) Bleaching Powder d) Washing Soda

6. The formula of Plaster of Paris is–

a) CaSO4 b) CaSO4, 2H2O c) 2CaSO4, 4H2O d) 2CaSO4, H2O

7. Liquefied Petroleum gas (LPG) consists of

mainly– a) Methane, Ethane and Hexane b) Ethane, Hexane and Nonane c) Methane, Butane and Propane d) Methane, Hexane and Nonane

8. The metal that is present in Photo Films is–



a) Mercury b) Platinium c) Magnesium d) Silver

9. Which of the following is in liquid form at room

temperature ? a) Cerium b) Sodium c) Francium d) Lithium

10. The property of a substance to absorb moisture

from the air on exposure is called– a) Osmosis b) Desiccation c) Efflorescence d) Deliquescene

11. Brass gets discoloured in air due to the presence

of which gas in air– a) Carbon dioxide b) Oxygen c) Hydrogen Sulphide d) Nitrogen

12. Quartz crystals normally used in quartz clocks

etc. is chemically– a) Sodium Silicate b) Silicon dioxide c) Germenium dioxide d) A mixture of (B) and (C)

13. Which of the following elements is non-

radioactive? a) Uranium b) Thorium c) Plutonium d) Zirconium

14. According to Dalton’s atomic theory the smallest

particle which can exist independently is– a) An atom b) A molecule c) A cation

d) An anion e)

15. The recent atomic weight scale is based on– a) 1H1 b) 1H2 c) 6C12 d) 8O16

16. The major ingredient of leather is–

a) Carbohydrate b) Collagen c) Polymer d) Nucleic acid

17. Glass is made from the mixture of–

a) Quartz and mica b) Sand and salt c) Sand and silicates d) None of these

18. Epoxy resins is used as–

a) Moth repellants b) Insecticides c) Detergents d) Adhesives

19. One fathom is equal to–

a) 6 metres b) 6 feet c) 60 feet d) 60 cms

20. What is the unit for measuring the pitch or

frequency of sound ? a) Coulomb b) Hum c) Cycles d) Decible

21. The fastest acting enzyme in the biological

kingdom is– a) lipase b) amylase c) carboxypeptidase d) carbonic anhydrase



22. Lightening cause rainfall because– a) It cause combination of oxygen and nitrogen b) Some of the gas molecules become bigger c) It activate H2O molecule d) Photo-electricity reaction starts

23. Nitrification means–

a) Liquifaction of nitrogen b) Convert the atmospheric nitrogen to

effective nitrogen compound. c) Production of nitrogen from air d) Conversion of nitrogen to nitric acid.

24. Cell membrane is–

a) permeable b) selectively permeable c) semipermeable d) impermeable

25. Polythene is industrially prepared by the

polymerisation of– a) methane b) styrene c) acetylene d) ethylene




a. Aizawl b. Kohima c. Shillong d. Agartala


a. Gujarat b. Maharashtra c. Telangana

d. Goa






a. Bengaluru (Bangalore) b. Ranchi c. Raipur d. Patna




a. Shimla b. Chandigarh c. Manali d. Bhopal







31. The territories of J&K were transferred to

Raja Gulab Singh of Jammu as a result of:

a. Treaty of Amritsar 1846

b. Treaty of Lahore-1846

c. Treaty of J&K- 1846

d. Treaty of Bhairowal 1846


a. 15th Aug,1947

b. 17th Nov,1956

c. 26th Jan, 1950

d. 26th Jan,1957



a. Meghalaya

b. Goa

c. Sikkim

d. Himachal Pardesh



Panchayats from:

a. Contingency Fund of the President

contingency

b. Fund of the Governor

c. Consolidated Fund of the state

d. Consolidated Fund of India




a. Rural Employment

b. Urban Employment

c. Rural and Urban Employment

d. Educated Employment



line?

a. Chakarvarty Committee

b. lakdawala Committee

c. Wanchoo Committee

d. Dutt Committee



a. Scenery

b. Sage

c. Temple

d. King


a. Janaka

b. Swarna

c. Pravarsena

d. None of the above



ensure:

a. Creation of adequate


b. free flow of foreign capital in

Indian industries

c. Use of modern technology d. Balanced industrial development across

regions



Raj was chaired by:

a. Balwant Rai Mehta



b. Ashok Mehta

c. K.N Katju

d. JagjivanRam



ANSWERS

ENGLISH

1. the; Here a particular mailbox is

being talked about. Hence, definite

article ‘the’ should be used.

2. a; Any spoon can be referred here,

hence, indefinite article should be

used-here. Now ‘spoon’ starts with

a consonant sound, hence, ‘a’

should be used here.

3. a; Here, the family is being

introduced for the first time, and

no particular family has been

described, hence, ‘a’ should be

used here.

4. the; Definite article ‘the’ is used

before the name of a building.

Hence, ‘the’ should be used here.

5. an; The word ‘amazing’ starts with

a vowel sound Hence, the article

‘an’ should be used.

6. by; With context to time,

preposition ‘by’ means ‘not later

than’ or ‘at or before a particular

time’. Hence, as per the sense of

the sentence, ‘by’ should be used

here.

7. for; Preposition ‘for’ is used before

‘a period of time’. Hence, ‘for’


8. to; The word ‘trip’ is followed by

the preposition ‘to’. Hence, ‘to’


9. for; Preposition ‘for’ is also used

for ‘purpose’, hence, ‘for’ should be

used here.

10. in; ‘In’ is used before ‘hand’ to

denote something ‘in hold’ or

‘under one’s control’. Hence, ‘in’


11. (c); The statement’…..

government’s volte-face would

help retain the EPF’s popularity

among the salaried class...’ clearly

supports the answer. Hence (c) is

the correct answer.

12. (c); In the statement’..

.government’s volte-face would

help retain the EPF’s popularity

among the salaried class, most of

whom are part of it not out of

choice but by statutory default

whom’ has been used for salaried

class and not for ‘Tax payers’ or

‘Middle class’. Hence (c) is the

correct answer

13. (d); According to author the

decision was an ‘out-of-the-blue’

approach which means an

‘Unanticipated’ approach. Hence

(d) is the correct answer

14. (b); the sentence’... people need to

be nudged over time to gear up for

such transitions...’ clearly supports

the answer. Hence (b) is the

correct answer

15. (b); In the first paragraph, it is

given that’……. This did not gel

with the Budget speech rationale

for taxing EPF savings — to bring

parity in tax treatment between



the EPF and the National Pension

System ‘supports the answer.

16. a

17. a

18. c

19. c

20. b

REASONING

1. Burrow is the dwelling place of Hare. Similarly, Barn is the dwelling place of Owl.



called Knesset.




Hospital.






Air Force.



6. (b): M = Male

F = Female

Mother X (F) Y (F)

Uday’s mother

Son

(Daughter) Teena Uday (M)

(F) Maternal uncle

7. (d): As U is sibling but not brother,

then U has to be female. Therefore,

sister of T.

8. (b): M = Male

F = Female

(M)

Father

Son Daughter

Sister

Grand Father

(M) Sahil Rekha (F)

(F) Hema Anjali (F)

(Daughter) (Daughter)

9. (b): Since the narrator has no brother,

his father’s son is he himself. The

photograph is of his son.

10. (e): “He is the son of only son of my

grandfather” means boy is brother of

Veena. In this question there is

description of grandfather and it is not

mentioned about paternal or

maternal. So by default we will

consider paternal.

11. (a): The first letter of the word is

moved one step forward to obtain the

first letter of the code, while the other

letters remain unaltered.

12. (b): Each letter in the word is moved

one step forward to obtain the

corresponding letter of the code.



13. (a): Each letter in the word is moved

one step backward to obtain the


14. (b): Each letter in the word, except the

middle letter, is moved one step

backward while the middle letter is

moved one step forward to obtain the


15. (b): Each letter in the word is moved

three steps forward to obtain the


16. (d): It is prime number series. Next

prime number is 11.

17. (d): 1 + 2=3, 3 + 3=6, 6 + 4 =10,

10 +5 =15, 15 + 6 =21

18. (c): 22, 32, 42, 52. Next number is 62

=36.

19. (e): 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23

Prime Numbers. Next prime

number is 29.

20. (a): 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, ?; Next prime

number is 61.

MATHEMATICS

1. (c): Litres of pure acid = 20

100×8=1.6

litres

2. (b): Best percentage = 425

500

3. (b): 15

100×100×

100

300× 10000 = Rs. 5

4. (e): 45

100× 1500 +

35

100× 1700 =

𝑥

100×

3175

x = 1270×100

3175 = 40

5. (b): Let the worth of cloth be x

x ×2.5

100 = 12.50 x =

12500

25 x

= Rs. 500

6. (d): Total even no = 63−11

2=

52

2 = 26

Sum of the even number between 11

to 63

= 26

2[2 ×12+ (26-1) ×2] = 13[24+50]

= 13×73 = 962

Average of even numbers between 11

to 63

= 962

26 = 37

7. (b): Average of all prime numbers

between 60 to 90

= 61+67+71+73+79+83+89

7=

523

7 = 74.7

8. (a): Total age of 5 boys = 16×5 =

80 years

Total age of 4 boys = (63

12) × 4=

16.25×4 = 65

The age of the 5th boy = 80-65= 15

years

9. (b): Total age of 30 girls = 30×13=

390 years

Total age of 18 girls = 18×15= 270

years

Average age of remaining 12 girls

= 390−270

12

=120

12 = 10 years

10. (d): Sum of the first 13 Results =

13×60=780

Sum of the first 7 Results = 59×7=

413



Sum of the last 7 Results =

7×61=427

7th Result = Sum of first 7

Results + sum of last 7 Results –

Sum of 13 results = 413+427-780

=840 – 780 =60

11. (c): At normal speed, Let usual time = t

s = d

t …… (i)

and 7

11s =

d

22 ….. (ii)


s7

11s

=d

td

22

11

7=

22

t t = 14 Hours

Saved time = (22-14) hrs = 8 hrs

12. (c): Let required time = t hours,

s = d

t …… (i)

3

4s =

d

(t+2) ….. (ii)

s3

4s

=d

td

(t+2)

4

3=

t+2

t

4 t = 3t + 6 t = 6 Hours


𝑥+𝑦=

2×12×18

(12+18)

=72

5= 14

2

5 Km/hr

14. (b): From the formula-

Required ratio = √𝑏: √𝑎

= √9 ∶ √4 = 3: 2

15. (b): Required ratio = √𝑏: √𝑎

= √25 ∶ √16 = 5: 4

16. (c): Area of ground = 900

1.25= 720 m2

Length × width = 720 width = 720

30= 24 m

17. (c): Let breath = x length = 2x

Area = x×2x = 2x2

New length = (2x – 5) cm

New breadth = (x+5) cm

New Area = (2x-5) (x+5)

(2x-5) (x+5) = 2x2+75

2x2+10x-5x-25= 2x2+75

5x = 100 x = 20 cm

Length = 2×20 = 40 cm

18. (c): Area of wall = 4m×3m= 12 m2

= 12×10000 cm2

Area of tiles = 8cm×6cm = 48

cm2

No. of tiles required = 12×10000

48=2500

19. (a): Area of square room = 3m×3m=

9 m2

= 9×10000 cm2

Area of marble slab =20×30 =

600cm2

No. of marbles slab required = 9×10000

600=150

20. (b): Given, perimeter of rectangle =

200

2(l + b) = 200 l + b= 100 l

= 100-b

l = 100 – 40 l = 60 m

Area = lb

= 40×60= 2400 m2

GENEERAL SCIENCE AND AWARENESS

1. c

2. a

3. b

4. c

5. d

6. d



7. c

8. d

9. c

10. d

11. c

12. b

13. d

14. a

15. c

16. b

17. c

18. d

19. b

20. d

21. c

22. b

23. c

24. d

25. d

26. d

27. c

28. a

29. d

30. a

31. c

32. d

33. a

34. c

35. a

36. a

37. d

38. a

39. c

40. c



MOCK TEST-3

ENGLISH

Direction: Find out the error in each of

the following sentences, if there is no

error, answer is (e). Avoid punctuation

mistakes (if any).

1. (a) He is very / (b) drunk, so he /

(c) cannot tell / (d) you his name. /

(e) No error.

2. (a) A few selfish leaders are / (b)

bent to harm the / (c) very

foundation / (d) of the democracy.

/ (e) No error.

3. (a) Mrs. Dorai would rather / (b)

spend a quiet evening / (c) than

attending/ (d) a party / (e) No

error.

4. (a) The life-guard would not / (b)

let the children / (c) to swim at the

/ (d) deep end of the pool. / (e) No

error.

5. (a) Walking along the / (b) bank of

the river / (c) the road / (d) began

to rise. / (e) No error.

Directions (6-10): Read the following

passage carefully and answer the

questions given below it. Certain

word/phrases in the passage are

printed in bold to help you locate them

while answering some of the

questions.

Banks, it is often said, are the fulcrum of

a robust economy. Healthy banks are an

essential prerequisite for placing the

economy on a higher growth orbit. The

banking scene in India, however, presents

an absolutely scary picture. A

combination of factors ranging from poor

credit appraisal to political interference

and mismanagement by borrowers have

conspired to push the banking industry

into a messy cobweb. Bank after bank,

especially the government-owned, has

come out with poor third-quarter results.

The stressed assets (comprising gross

non-performing assets plus written-off

assets and restructured assets) account

for 14.1 per cent of total bank loans as of

September 2015, up from 13.6 per cent in

March 2015. For public sector banks, the

stressed assets were in the vicinity of 17

per cent at the end of September, while

the figure for private sector banks stood

at 6.7 per cent. The rising stress level, or

increase in bad loans, has yielded a twin

fallout - of declining profitability at banks

and poor credit disbursal. The double

effect is already telling on the economy in

various ways. For long, banks have either

managed to, or rather been allowed to,

keep the stress invisible, giving the

Outside world very little clue as to the

happenings inside the industry The

Reserve Bank of India under Raghuram

Rajan’s stewardship, however, has

decided to clean up banks’ books rather

than letting them camouflage the real

picture. “There are two polar approaches

to loan stress,” he said at the CII Banking

Summit in Mumbai this week. “One is to-

apply band-aids to keep the loan current,

and hope that time and\growth will set

the project back on track. Sometimes this



works. But most of the time, the low

growth that precipitated the stress

persists. The fresh lending intended to

keep the original loan current grows.

Facing large and potentially un-payable

debt, the promoter loses interest, does

little to fix existing problems, and the

project goes into further losses. “Indeed,

legacy problems should be given a burial,

and should not be allowed to persist. So

hinting, Dr. Rajan articulated the need for

surgical action to retrieve the health of

the industry.

Forcing banks to recognise a problem is

one thing, and finding a viable long-term

solution to it is quite another. That

requires not just holistic thinking but an

out-of-the-box approach as well,

especially in the evolving global context. A

meaningful fix can happen only if banks

are given functional autonomy at various

levels. Restricted freedom inevitably

leads to a blame game, making it even

more difficult to fix responsibility. The

concept of arm’s- length relationship

especially needs to be clearly defined and

implemented in letter and spirit in the

banking industry. It is not just about how

much money the Central government will

freshly pump into stressed banks. The

litmus test for the government lies in its

ability, and capacity, to let go of control.

The banking system indeed needs a

change in the way it is managed.

6. According to the passage, which of

the following is the main factor for

pushing the banking industry into

a messy cobweb?

(a) Increase in bad loans and poor

credit disbursal.

(b) Unpayable debt.

(c) Poor credit appraisal to political

interference and mismanagement

by borrowers.

(d) Restricted freedom and rising

stress level.

(e) None of the above.

7. Which of the following can be the

most suitable title of the passage?

(a) NPA at ‘unacceptable’ level for

public sector banks

(b) Rising NPAs put banks in a tight

spot

(c) Containing the rising stressed

assets in Indian banks

(d) Bank ultimately need autonomy


8. Which of the following best explain

the meaning of the idiom ‘arm’s

length relationship’ in context of

the passage?

(a) a relationship lacking intimacy or

friendliness, esp. when possessing

some special connection, such as

previous closeness.

(b) Maintaining a sweet relationship.

(c) To be convinced of one’s sincerity

and act in accordance with his/

her statement.

(d) Selfish friends who are with us

only in comfortable situation.


9. According to the passage, what

is/are the approaches to clean up

banks’ books rather than letting

them camouflage the real picture?



(i) To apply band-aids to keep the loan

current.

(ii) Hope that time and growth will set the

project back on track.

(iii) Facing large and potentially

unpayable debt.

(a) Only (i) (b) Only (i) and (ii)

(c) Only (iii) (d) Only (i) and (iii)

(e) None of the above.

10. Which of the following statement

is/are true in context of the

passage?

(i) The banking system indeed needs a

change in the way it is managed.

(ii) Increase in bad loans has yielded a

twin fallout — of declining profitability at

banks and poor credit appraisal.

(iii) Currently, the stressed assets

account for 13.6 % of total bank loans

(a) Only (iii)

(b) Only (ii) and (iii)

(c) Only (i) and (ii)

(d) Only (ii)


11. (a) She boasts of/ (b) having good

knowledge/ (c) of Physics but

everybody/ (d) knows how far she is

good at it. / (e) No error.

12. (a) Her father/ (b) forbade her to

go/ (c) to circus / (d) late at night./

(e) No error.

13. (a) There was little milk/(b) in the

bottle and she gave it/(c) to her son

when he/(d) started weeping./ (e)

No error.

14. (a) In a hour’s time/ (b) when I had

finished the work/ (c) I got up and/

(d) slipped out unnoticed. / (e) No

error.

15. (a) The first Afghans/ (b) to rule

India/ (c) in medieval times/ (d)

were the Lodhis. / (e) No error.

16. The stores had all sorts of ties, but not the kind I was looking for.

17. Panting, I boarded the plane under the reproachful gaze of the other passengers.

18. Nature soothes and nurtures. 19. When I do, it leaves me in

complete awe. 20. We went to a rocky beach and saw

the spread of the majestic ocean

.

REASONING

1. Find the one which does not belong to that group ?

a) Skin b) Eye c) Leg d) Nose

2. Find the odd number / letters / word from the given alternatives.

a) Brick b) Cement c) Sand

d) Wall 3. Three of the following four are same

in a certain way and hence form a group. Find out the one which does not belong to that group.

a) Glacier b) Sea-coast c) Mountain d) Ridge

4. Find the odd number / letters / word from the given alternative.



a) Tomato b) Carrot c) Ginger d) Potato

5. Find the one which does not belong to that group ?

a) 4422 b) 2442 c) 4242 d) 2244

6. Introducing Reena, Monika said, “She

is the only daughter of my father’s

only daughter.” How is Monika

related to Reena?

(a) Aunt

(b) Niece

(c) Cousin

(d) Data inadequate

(e) None of these

7. Pointing to a man a woman said, “His

mother is the only daughter of my

mother.” How is the woman related

to the mother?

(a) Mother

(b) Daughter

(c) Sister

(d) Grandmother

e) None of these

8. If X is the brother of the son of Y’s

son, how is X related to Y?

(a) Son

(b) Brother

(c) Cousin

(d) Grandson

(e) Uncle

9. Pointing towards Rita, Nikhil said. “I

am the only son of her mother’s son.”

How related to Nikhil?

(a) Aunt

(b) Niece

(c) Mother

(d) Cousin

(e) None of these

10. Pointing to lady, a man said, “The son

of her only brother is the brother of

my wife.” How is the lady related to

the man?

(a) Mother’s sister

(b) Grandmother

(c) Mother-in-law

(d) Sister of father-in-law

(e) Maternal aunt

11. If in a certain code, FAVOUR is written


that code?

(a) JOWJTJCMF

(b) JOWJTHAKD

(c) HMUHTJCMF

(d) HMUHTHAKD

(e) None of these

12. In a certain code, FAVOUR is written


that code?

(a)CBFFDS

(b) CBMHDS

(c) EBFHDS

(d)EBHHFS

(d) None of these

13. In a certain code, Productions is

written as QQPCVEUHPMT. How is

ORIENTATION written in that code?

(a) PQJDOVBSJNO

b) PQJDOUBUJPO

(c) PSJFOVBSJNO

(d) NSHFMVBSJNO

(e) None of these

14. If a code, MIND becomes KGLB and

ARGUE becomes YPESC, then what

will DIAGRAM be in that code?



(a) BGYEPYK

(b) BGYPYEK

(c) GLPEYKB

(d) LKBGYPK

(e) None of these

15. In a certain code, BASIC is written as

DUDDLE. How is LEADER written in

that code?

(a) NGCFGT

(b) NHCGGU

(c) OGDEHT

(d) OHDGHU

(e) None of these

16. 3, 6, 11, 18, 27?

(a) 29 (b) 67 (c) 64


17. 4, 9, 19, 34, 54?

(a) 64 (b) 74 (c) 78


18. 2, 3, 5, 8, 12?

(a) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15


19. 100, 81, 64, 49?

(a) 48 (b) 46 (c) 40


20. 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, 343?

(a) 443 (b) 612 (c) 512


MATHEMATICS

1. An Agent gets a commission of 2.5%

on the sales of cloth. If on a certain

day, he gets Rs. 12.50 as commission,

the cloth sold through him on that day

is worth?

(a) Rs. 250

(b) Rs. 500

(c) Rs. 750

(d) Rs. 1250

(e) None of these

2. If Rs. 2800 is 2

7th of the value of a

house, the worth of the house (in

Rs.) is?

(a) 8,00,000

(b) 9,80,000

(c) 10,00,000

(d) 12,00,000

(e) None of these

3. If 35% of a number is 175, then

what percent of 175 is that

number?

(a) 35%

(b) 65%

(c) 280%

(d) 420%

(e) None of these

4. If 35% of a number is 12 less than

50% of that number then the

number is:

(a) 40

(b) 50

(c) 60

(d) 80

(e) None of these

5. What percentage of numbers from

1 to 70 have squares that end in

the digit 1?

(a) 1%

(b) 14%



(c) 20%

(d) 21%

(e) None of these

6. Find the average of all the

numbers between 6 and 34 which

are divisible by 5.

(a) 18

(b) 20

(c) 24

(d) 30

(e) None of these

7. A motorist covered the first 20 km

of his journey in 30 minutes and

the remaining 29 km in 40

minutes. His average speed in

km/hr is:

(a) 413

4

(b) 42

(c) 49

(d )571

6

(e) None of these

8. A cyclist goes from a place to

another and returns by the same

route. He pedals his way uniformly

with a speed u while going and

with speed v while returning. The

average speed of his journey is:

(a) 𝑢+𝑣

2

(b) 𝑢−𝑣

2

(c) 1

1

2(1

𝑢+1

𝑣)

(d) 1

1

2(1

𝑢−1

𝑣)

(e) None of these

9. The mean of 19 observations is 4.

If one more observation is 24 is

added to the data, the new mean

will be:

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) 7

(e) None of these

10. A student bought 4 books for Rs.

120 from one book shop and 6

books for Rs. 150 from another.

The average price (in rupees), he

paid per book was:

(a) 27 (b) 27.50 (c) 135


11. A man riding his bicycle covers

150 metres in 25 seconds. What is

his speed in km per hour?

(a) 20

(b) 21.6

(c) 23

(d) 25

(e) None of these

12. A is travelling at 72 km per hour

on a highway while B is travelling

at a speed of 25 meters per second.

What is the difference in their

speeds in meters per second?

(a) 11

2 m/sec

(b) 2 m/sec

(c) 3 m/sec

(d) 5 m/sec

(e) None of these



13. A car covers a distance of 432 km

at the speed of 48 km/hr. In how

many hours will the car cover this

distance?

(a) 6 hours

(b) 7 hours

(c) 9 hours

(d) 12 hours

(e) None of these

14. A man travels first 50 km at 25

kmph, next 40 km at 20 kmph and

then 90 km at 15 kmph. His

average speed for the whole

journey (in kmph) is:

(a) 25 (b) 20 (c) 18


15. A man walks at the rate of 5km/hr

for 6 hours and at 4km/hr for 12

hours. The average speed of the

man (in km/hr) is:

(a) 4 (b) 412 (c) 4

13

16. A cistern 6 m long and 4 m wide

contains water up to a depth of 1

m 25 cm. The total area of the wet

surface is?

(a) 49 m2 (b) 50 m2

(c) 53.5 m2

(d) 55 m2 (e) None of these


height and half its length. The

volume of the room is 512 cu. m.

The length of the room is

(a) 16 m

(b) 18 m

(c) 20 m

(d) 32 m

(e) None of these

18. A Rectangular plot is 180 m2 in

area. If its length is 18m then, its

perimeter is?

(a) 20 m

(b) 56 m

(c) 360 m

(d) 60 m

(e) None of these

19. The side of a square exceeds the

side of another square by 4 cm and

the sum of the areas of the two

squares is 400 cm2. The

dimensions of the square are?

(a) 8cm and 12cm

(b) 6cm and 10cm

(d) 12cm and 16cm

(d) 10cm and 18cm

(e) None of these

20. The area of the floor of a

rectangular hall of length 40m is

960m2. Carpets of size 6m × 4m

are available. Then, how many

carpets are required to cover the

hall?

(a) 20 (b) 30 (c) 40





1. The fastest acting enzyme in the biological kingdom is– a) lipase b) amylase c) carboxypeptidase d) carbonic anhydrase

2. Lightening cause rainfall because–

a) It cause combination of oxygen and nitrogen b) Some of the gas molecules become bigger c) It activate H2O molecule d) Photo-electricity reaction starts

3. Nitrification means–

a) Liquifaction of nitrogen b) Convert the atmospheric nitrogen to

effective nitrogen compound. c) Production of nitrogen from air d) Conversion of nitrogen to nitric acid.

4. Cell membrane is–

a) permeable b) selectively permeable c) semipermeable d) impermeable

5. Polythene is industrially prepared by the

polymerisation of– a) methane b) styrene c) acetylene d) ethylene




a. Aizawl

b. Kohima c. Shillong d. Agartala


a. Gujarat b. Maharashtra c. Telangana d. Goa






a. Bengaluru (Bangalore) b. Ranchi c. Raipur d. Patna




a. Shimla



b. Chandigarh c. Manali d. Bhopal





16.The territories of J&K were transferred to Raja







a. 15th Aug,1947

b. 17th Nov,1956

c. 26th Jan, 1950

d. 26th Jan,1957



a. Meghalaya

b. Goa

c. Sikkim

d. Himachal Pardesh



Panchayats from:


contingency







a. Rural Employment

b. Urban Employment





line?




d. Dutt Committee



a. Scenery

b. Sage

c. Temple

d. King


a. Janaka

b. Swarna

c. Pravarsena




ensure:






Indian industries

c. Use of modern technology d. Balanced industrial development across

regions



Raj was chaired by:


b. Ashok Mehta

c. K.N Katju








a. 15th Aug,1947

b. 17th Nov,1956

c. 26th Jan, 1950

d. 26th Jan,1957



a. Meghalaya

b. Goa

c. Sikkim

d. Himachal Pardesh



Panchayats from:


contingency







a. Rural Employment

b. Urban Employment





line?




d. Dutt Committee



a. Scenery

b. Sage

c. Temple

d. King


a. Janaka

b. Swarna

c. Pravarsena




ensure:




Indian industries

c. Use of modern technology



d. Balanced industrial development across regions



Raj was chaired by:


b. Ashok Mehta

c. K.N Katju

d. JagjivanRam


37. The most important ore of Aluminium is–

a) Bauxite b) Calamine c) Calcite d) Galena

38. The element present in the largest amount

in rocks and minerals is– a) Carbon b) Silicon c) Hydrogen d) Aluminium

39. The chemical name of Uria is–

a) Aneurin b) Chloroetane c) Carbamide d) None of these

40. Permanent hardness of water can be

removed by adding– a) Potassium Permanganate b) Chlorine c) Bleaching Powder d) Washing Soda



ANSWERS ENGLISH 1. (d); No correction required.

2. (b); Change ‘bent to harm’ on ‘bent to

harming’. ‘Bent on’ means

determined to do.

3. (c); Use ‘attend’ after ‘than’. Because

‘would rather’ is followed by 'V1' and

after ‘than’ the form 'V1'will come.


5. (a); Add ‘while I was’ before ‘walking

alone’.

6. (c); In the first paragraph, it is

given that “A combination of

factors ranging from poor credit

appraisal to political interference

and mismanagement by borrowers

have conspired to push the

banking industry into a messy

cobweb.” This statement suggests

that the main factors for pushing

the banking industry into a messy

cobweb are ‘poor credit

assessment’, ‘mismanagement of

loans by borrowers’ and ‘political

interference’. Hence, (c) is the

correct option.

7. (d); ‘Bank ultimately need

autonomy’ is the most appropriate

title. Throughout the passage, the

author has discussed the ill-effects

of interference on the banking.

Besides this, the statement. ‘The

banking system indeed needs a

change in the way it is managed.’

given in the last paragraph, also

supports the title. Hence, (d) is the

correct option.

8. (a); ‘Arm’s length relationship’

refers to “a relationship lacking

intimacy or friendliness, esp. when

possessing some special

connection, such as previous

closeness.”. Hence, (a) is the

correct option

9. (b); In the First paragraph it is

given that “There are two polar

approaches to loan stress….. One is

to apply band-aids to keep the loan

current, and hope that time and

growth will set the project back on

track……” which suggests that (i)

and (ii) are true. Now it is also

given in the same paragraph that,

“Facing large and potentially un-

payable debt, the promoter loses

interest, does little to fix existing

problems……” from which, we can

infer that (iii) is not true. Hence,

(b) is the correct option.

10. (c); The last line of the last

paragraph clearly states that, ‘The

banking system indeed needs a

change in the way it is managed.’

Therefore we can conclude that (i)

is true.

Again, in the first paragraph, it is

mentioned that ‘....increase in bad

loans, has yielded a twin fallout — of

declining profitability at banks and

poor credit disbursal ‘Hence (ii) is

also true:

11. (b); ‘a good knowledge’ is correct

phrase.



12. (c); ‘Go to the circus’ is correct

idiomatic usage.

13. (a), ‘a’ should be used before

‘little’. ‘A little’ means ‘some

though not much’ whereas ‘little’

means ‘almost none’

14. (a); ‘an’ should be used in place of

‘a’ since ‘hour’ starts with a vowel

sound.

15. (e); No error.


17. Simple Sentence




REASONING 1. c 2. d 3. a 4. a 5. c 6. (d): My father’s only daughter can be

herself or her brother. In the first case,

she would be the mother. In the

second case, he would become uncle.

So data is inadequate.

7. (b): Only daughter of my mother –

Myself. So, the woman is mother’s

daughter.

8. (d): Son of Y’s son – Grandson;

Brother of Y’s grandson – Y’s

grandson. So X is Y’s grandson.

9. (a): Rita’s mother son – Rita’s brother.

In this case, she becomes aunt.

10. (d): Wife’s brother – Brother-in-law.

Son of lady’s brother is the brother-in-

law of the man. So, lady’s brother is

man’s father-in-law i.e. the lady is the

sister of man’s father-in-law.

11. (d) 12. (e) 13. (e) 14. (e) 15. (e) 16. (c): 3+3=6, 6+5=11, …………..

+3, +5, +7, +9, +11

So, the next number is 27+

11= 38

17. (d): +5, +10, +15, +20

So, the next number is 54 +25

=79

18. (e): +1, +2, +3, +4

So, the next number is 12

+5=17

19. (d): 102, 92, 82, 72; The next number is

62 =36

20. (c): 23, 33, 43, 53, 63, 73; Next number

is 83=512

MATHEMATICS 1. (b): Let the worth of cloth be x

x ×2.5

100 = 12.50 x =

12500

25 x

= Rs. 500

2. (e): Worth of the house = 2800×7

2

= 9800 Rs.

3. (e): 35% is = 175 100% = 175

35× 100 = 500




175×

100 = 285.71%

4. (d): Let the number is x

50

100𝑥 −

35

100𝑥 = 12

15𝑥

100 =12

x = 12×100

15 x = 80

5. (c): Total such numbers = 14


70× 100 =

20%

6. (d): Sum of numbers = (41.4×15) =

621.

7. (e): 25a + 25b = 115 25 (a + b) =

115

a + b= 115

25=

23

5


2=

23

5×

1

2=

23

10=2.3

8. (b): Average = (10+15+20+25+30

5) =

100

5 = 20

9. (b): Total distance covered =

(20+29) km = 49 km


70 min

Average speed = (49

70× 60) = 42

km/hr


Total distance = 2x


u+

x

v)


𝑥

𝑢+

𝑥

𝑣

=1

1

2(1

𝑢+1

𝑣)

11. (b): Speed = (150

25)m/sec = 6 m/sec

= (6 ×18

5) km/hr = (

108

5)

km/hr

= 21.6 km/hr

12. (d): A’s speed = 72 km/hr = (72 ×

5

18)m/sec

= 20 m/sec

B’s speed = 25 m/sec

Difference = (25 – 20) = 5 m/sec

13. (c): Required time = (432

48) hours = 9

hours

14. (c): Average speed = 50+40+9050

25+40

20+90

15

=180

2+2+6=

180

10 = 18

kmph

15. (c): Average speed = Total Distance

total time =

5×6+4×12

6+12

=30+48

18=

78

18=

13

3= 4

1

3 Km/hr

16. (a): Area of the wet surface = [2(lb

+ bh + lh) – lb]

= 2 (bh + lh)

+lb

= [2 (4×1.25 + 6×1.25) + 6×4]

m2 = 49 m2


meters.


length = 4x metres


m3 = (8x3) m2

8x3= 512 x3= 64 x = 4



Length=

180

18=10 m


= 2 (18+10)

= 56



cm



x2+(x+4)2 = 400

x2+x2+16+8x = 400

2x2+8x-384 = 0 x2+4x-

192=0

x2+16x-12x-192=0

x (x+16) -12 (x+16) = 0

(x - 12) (x+16) = 0




20. (c): Given,


6

4




Area of one carpet

=960

24= 40

1. c

2. b

3. c

4. d

5. d

6. d

7. c

8. a

9. d

10. a

11. c

12. d

13. a

14. c

15. a

16. a

17. d

18. a

19. c

20. c

21. d

22. a

23. c

24. c

25. b

26. b

27. c

28. d

29. b 30. a

31. c

32. a

33. b

34. b

35. a

36. d

37. c

38. c

39. d

40. a




ENGLISH




mistakes (if any).

21. (a) It is only after/ (b) the movie is

over/ (c) that people realize/(d)

how good or bad it was/ (e) No

error.

22. (a) Of the two/ (b) cars, this/ (c) is

definitely/ (d) better./ (e) No

error.

23. (a) Rajeev is unfortunate enough/

(b) to lose/ (c) few friends he

made/ (d) during his stay at

Delhi./(e) No error.

24. (a) There were a number/ (b) of

pretty girls in the party/ (c) but it

was Neelam/ (d) who remained a

centre of attraction./ (e) No error.

25. (a) I have been / (b) informed

that/ (c) Dr Sharma visits

Mumbai/ (d) the following week. /

(e) No error.

26. (a) He is / (b) the best singer/ (c)

of the time but unfortunately/ (d)

least recognized / (e) No error.

27. (a) Raju said that he felt ecstatic/

(b) because a friend of his/ (c) had

given him/ (d) a very good

news./(e) No error.

28. (a) I don’t like/ (b) that kind of a

man/ (c) who does nothing but/

(d) find out faults in others. / (e)

No error.

29. (a) Little knowledge/ (b) of art

that she possessed/(c) proved to

be a boon for her/ (d) when

she was utterly helpless. / (e) No

error.

30. (a) Don’t talk to her/ (b) she

always/(c) remains in temper/ (d)

these days./ (e) No error.




mistakes (if any).

21. (a) He is very / (b) drunk, so he /

(c) cannot tell / (d) you his name. /

(e) No error.

22. (a) A few selfish leaders are / (b)

bent to harm the / (c) very

foundation / (d) of the democracy.

/ (e) No error.

23. (a) You should avoid / (b) to go to

office as you / (c) have severe / (d)

eye infection. / (e) No error.

24. (a) Everyone considered him as /

(b) a brave man / (c) but he fled

from / (d) the battlefield. /

(e) No error.

25. (a) My father does not / (b) mind

to be disturbed / (c) while he is

reading/ (d) the newspaper. / (e)

No error.

26. (a) Perhaps you do not know / (b)

I am having a car and a jeep / (c)

besides a big house/ (d) in a good

locality./ (e) No error.



27. (a) I bade him / (b) to submit all

the / (c) important documents /

(d) before he left the job. / (e) No

error.

28. (a) Mrs. Dorai would rather / (b)

spend a quiet evening / (c) than

attending/ (d) a party / (e) No

error.

29. (a) The life-guard would not / (b)

let the children / (c) to swim at the

/ (d) deep end of the pool. / (e) No

error.

30. (a) Walking along the / (b) bank of

the river / (c) the road / (d) began

to rise. / (e) No error.




mistakes (if. any).

21. (a) She along with / b) her friends

took/ (c) leave of/ (d) a week. / (e) No

error.

22. (a) One should always/ (b) listen the

advice of/ (c) one’s elders/ (d) and,

well wishers / (e) No error.

23. (a) She will/ (b) not listen what / (c)

you say/ (d) to her. / (e) No error.

24. (a) Nobody denies/ (b) that / (c) my

ideas are/ (d) different than yours /

(e)No error.

25. (a) It was she/ (b) who was

responsible of /(c) making all the

arrangement for/ (d) the successful

completion of his business tip / (e) No

error.

26. (a) He was m the bathroom/ (b) when

the burglars/ (c) entered into/ (d) his

house / (e) No error.

27. (a) Their teacher/ (b) emphasized on/

(c) the use of / (d) correct grammar /

(e) No error.

28. (a) On the time/ (b) of the opening

ceremony/ (c) of the theatre, / (d) a

large crowd had assembled. / (e) No

error.

29. (a) While Rajesh was returning/ (b)

from school/ (c) a stalker attacked on

him/ (d) with a knife. / (e) No error.

30. (a) The decline of/ (b) her moral

values has caused/(c) a lot of / (d)

pain to her parents. /(e) No error.

Directions (Q 31-35) you have brief

passages with 5/10 questions following

each passage. Read the passage carefully

and choose the best answer to the each

question out of the four alternatives.

PASSAGE

As my train was not due to lead for

another hour, I had plenty of time to

spare. After buying some magazines to

read on the journey. I made my way to the

luggage office to collect the heavy

suitcase; I had left there three day before.

There were only a few people waiting and

I took out my wallet to find the receipt for

my case. the receipt did not seem to be

where I had left it. I emptied the contents

of the wallet and the railway tickets,

money, scraps of paper and photographs

tumbled out of it; but no matter how hard

I searched, the receipt was nowhere to be

found.

I explained the situation sorrowfully to

the assistant. The man looked to be



suspiciously as if to say he heard this type

of story many timed and asked me to

describe the case. I told him that it was an

old, brown looking object no different

from the many suitcases I could see on

the shelves. The assistant then gave me

form and told me to make a list of the

contents of the case. If they were correct,

he said, I could take a case away. I tried to

remember all the articles I had hurriedly

packed and wrote them down.

After I had done this, I went to look

among the shelves. There were hundreds

of cases there and for one dreadful

moment, it occurred to me that if

someone had picked the receipt up, he

could easily have claimed the case

already. Fortunately this had not

happened, for after the time, I found the

case lying on its side high up in the

corner. After examining the articles

inside, the assistant gave me the case.

I took out my wallet to pay him. I pulled

out a ten shilling note and out slipped my

‘lost’ receipt with it! I could not help

blushing. The assistant nodded his head

knowingly, as if to say that he had often

seen this happen too!!

31. The writer had plenty of time to spare

because

e) he had arrived three days

before

f) he had arrived an hour earlier

g) he had to collect his luggage

h) he needed to by magazines

32. The writer needed the receipt

e) to claim the suit case

f) to pay at the luggage office

g) to prove that he had paid at

the luggage office

h) to prove that he had brought

the suitcase

33. The writer felt foolish because

e) he could not find his receipt

f) he hadn’t really lost this receipt

at all

g) he had to fill in a form

h) the assistant eyed him

suspiciously

34. There weren’t …………………. people

waiting at the luggage office.

e) very much

f) a great deal of

g) lots of

h) very many

35. ‘wrote them down’ means

e) copied them

f) signed them

g) made a note of them

h) pointed at them

DIRECTIONS (36-40): In each of the

questions below, choose the alternatives

which is most nearly the same in meaning

to the given word

36. Mendicant

i) Reformer

j) Dealer

k) Beggar

l) Advisor



37. Instinctive

i) Helpful

j) inherent

k) Crucial

l) Strong

38. Clone

i) Trace

j) Copy

k) Make

l) Mould

39. Thrive

i) Flourish

j) Raise

k) Create

l) Destroy

40. Dissuade

h) Worry

i) Disturb

j) Discourage

k) Encourage

In each of the groups of words below, one

word may be misspelled or no words may

be misspelled. If a word is misspelled,

write it correctly to the right of each

group. If none of the words in the group is

misspelled, write "none."

41. fuzzes, laundrys, sufficient

42. turkeys, trophies, arrival, armies

43. acrage, analysis, dosage

44. acompaniment, played, interviewed

45. privilege, excelling, eighth

Choose the appropriate quantifier /

determiner.

46. Can I have a few / some / many

butter please?

47. He has a lot of / many / some

money. He owns two large

apartments.

48. Do you want sugar in your tea? “Just

how much / a little / a few ‘please.”

49. I have a lot of / much / a little DVDs.

50. I’ll be ready in some / a few / little

minutes



ANSWERS

21. (b); ‘A movie’ should be used in

place of ‘the movie because we are

not talking about any particular

movie. Hence article ‘a’ will be

used in place of the.

22. (d); ‘The better’ should be used in

place of ‘better’. Because when a

choice is to be made, we use ‘the’

before a comparative degree

23. (c); ‘The’ should be used before

few. Since, ‘the few’ means ‘some’

and ‘few friends’ means ‘almost no

friends’







25. (e); No error




27. (d); ‘a’ should not be used, since

‘news’ is an uncountable noun.

28. (b); ‘a’ should not be used because

an ‘Article’ is not used with nouns

followed by ‘type of’, ‘kind of’,

‘sort of’ etc.








32. (b); Change ‘bent to harm’ on ‘bent

to harming’. ‘Bent on’ means

determined to do.

33. (b); Change ‘to go’ to ‘going’.

Gerund comes after ‘avoid’.

34. (a); Remove ‘as’. ‘Considered’ is

not followed by ‘as’.

35. (b); ‘Gerund’ will come after

‘mind’. Change ‘be’ into ‘being’.

36. (b); Change ‘am having’ into ‘have’.

When ‘have’ means ‘to possess’, it

does not take ‘ing’ form.

37. (b); ‘Bade’ (V2 of bid) takes ‘plain

infinitive’ (V1) after it and not

‘infinitive’ (to + V1). Change ‘to

submit’ into ‘submit’.

38. (c); Use ‘attend’ after ‘than’.

Because ‘would rather’ is followed

by 'V1' and after ‘than’ the form

'V1'will come.


40. (a); Add ‘while I was’ before

‘walking alone’.

21. (c); “Leave for a week” should be

used.

22. (b); ‘To’ should be added after

‘listen’. Since ‘listen’ is always

followed by ‘to’.

23. (b); ‘To’ should be added after

‘Listen’.

24. (d); ‘different from’ should be used

in place of ‘different then’. Since

different is always followed by form.

25. (b); ‘for’ should be used in place of

‘of’ since responsible is always

followed by ‘of’



26. (c); Use of 'into' is wrong since

entered is not followed by ‘into’

27. (b); ‘On’ should be removed since

emphasized is not followed by ‘on’.

28. (a), ‘At’ should be used in place of

'on'. Since we are talking about a

particular Point of time (i.e. the time

of the opening ceremony).

29. (c); ‘on’ should not be used. Since

‘attack’ is not followed by ‘on’.

30. (a); ‘in’ should be used in place of ‘of’

since ‘decline’ is followed by ‘in’

31. b

32. a

33. b

34. d

35. c

36. c 37. b 38. b

39. a

40. c

41. laundries

42. none

43. acreage

44. accompaniment

45. none

46. Some

47. A lot of

48. A little

49. A lot of

50. A few



REASONING



e) Hole

f) Hive

g) Nest

h) Barn



e) Malaysia

f) Afghanistan

g) France

h) Germany



e) Doctor

f) Nurse

g) Medicine

h) Patient



related to:

e) Group Captain

f) Flying Attendant

g) Flying Officer

h) Pilot Officer


Taste is to:

e) Tongue

f) Water

g) Sweet

h) Food

6. Vijay says “Ananda’s mother is the

only daughter of my mother” How is

Ananda related to vijay?

e) Brother

f) Father

g) Nephew

h) Grandfather

7. Pointing towards a person, a man said

to a woman, “His mother is the only

daughter of your father”. How is the

woman related to that person?

e) Daughter

f) Sister

g) Mother

h) Wife

8. Showing the lady in the park, Vineet

said, “She is the daughter of my

grandfather’s only son”. How is vineet

related to that lady?

e) Brother

f) Cousin

g) Father

h) Uncle

9. Ramesh is the brother of Amit.

Sushma is the sister of Satish. Amit is

the son of Sushma. How is Ramesh

related to Sushma?

e) Father

f) Brother

g) Son

h) Nephew

10. Pointing to a lady in the photograph,

shaloo said, “Her son’s father is the



son-in-law of my mother”. How is

Shaloo related to the lady?

e) Aunt

f) Sister

g) Mother

h) Cousin

11. Which of the following diagrams correctly represents elephants, wolves and animals?

12. Which one of the following diagrams correctly represents the relationship among tennis fans, cricket players and students.

Direction(13-15): In the following questions, three classes are given. Out of the four figures that follow, you are to indicate which figure will best represent the relationship amongst the three classes.

13. Boys, Students and Athletes

e) 1

f) 2

g) 3

h) 4

14. Sparrows, Birds and Mice

e) 1

f) 2

g) 3

h) 4

15. Women, Mothers and Widows e) 1

f) 2

g) 3

h) 4

16. I am facing East. Turning to the right I go 20 m, then turning to the left I go 20 m and turning to the right I go 20 m, then again turning to the right I go 40 m and then again I go 40 m to the right. In which direction am I from my original position? e) North f) West g) South h) East

17. Bhairav walked 30 ft towards North,

then took a left turn and walked 15 ft. He again took a left turn and walked 30 ft. How far and in which direction is Bhairav from the starting point? e) 15 ft to the West f) 45 ft to the South g) 30 ft to the East h) 15 ft to the North

18. Seema started early in the morning on

the road towards the Sun. After some time she turned to her left. Again after



some time she turned to her right. After moving some distance she again turned to her right and began to move. At this time, in what direction was she moving? e) South f) North-West g) North-East h) East

19. At dusk, Rohit started walking facing

the sun. After a while, he met his friend and both turned to their left. They halted for a while and started moving by turning again to their right. Finally Rohit waved 'good bye' to his friend and took a left turn at a corner. At which direction is Rohit moving now? e) South f) West g) North h) East

20. A starts and walks towards south, he

then turns to his right and walks 5 km, then again turn left and walks 3 km and then again turn left and walks 5 km. In which direction is he from the starting point? e) West f) South g) North h) East

21. If in a certain code, LUTE is written

as MUTE and FATE is written as

GATE, then how will BLUE be

written in that code?

f) CLUE

g) GLUE

h) FLUE

i) SLUE

j) None of these




f) CPNCBX

g) CPNCBZ

h) CPOCBZ

i) CQOCBZ

j) None of these

23. If FISH is written as EHRG in a

certain code, how would JUNGLE


f) ITMFKD

g) ITNFKD

h) KVOHMF

i) TIMFKD

j) None of these

24. In a certain code, TWINKLE is

written as SVHOJKD then how

would FILTERS be written in that

code?

f) EHKSDQR

g) EHKUDQR

h) EGHUDQR

i) GJMSFST

j) None of these

25. In a certain code, ROAD is written

as URDG. How is SWAN written in

that code?

f) VXDQ

g) VZDQ

h) VZCP

i) UXDQ

i) None of these



Directions (26-30)What will come in

place of question mark (?) in the

following number series?

26. 2, 3, 5, 7, ?

(a) 9 (b) 10 (c)


27. 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, ?

(a) 17 (b) 18 (c) 20


28. 4, 9, 16, 25?

(a) 49 (b) 30 (c) 36


29. 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23?

(a) 18 (b) 28 (c) 27


30. 41, 43, 47, 53, 59?

(a) 61 (b) 67 (c) 64


31. Tortoise, Crab, Frog, Fish e) Tortoise f) Crab g) Frog h) Fish

32. 13, 17, 23, 63, 71

e) 63 f) 1 g) 1 h) 23

33. (64, 83), (100, 121), (16, 25), (36, 49)

e) 64, 83 f) 100, 121 g) 16, 25 h) 36, 49

34. (9 - 72), (10 - 90), (8 - 56), (11 - 115)

e) 9 – 72 f) 10 – 90

g) 8 – 5 h) 11 – 115

35. Jeevan Raksha Padak, Param Vir

Chakra, Padma Bhusan, Bharat Ratna a) Jeevan Raksha Padak b) Param Vir Chakra c) Padma Bhusan d) Bharat Ratna 36. Milk, Ghee, Paneer, Butter

e) Milk f) Ghee g) Panee h) Butter

37. Which word will appear fourth in the

dictionary? e) Solitaire f) Soliloquy g) Solitary h) Solitude

38. 7, 8, 12, 20, 37, 62

e) 37 f) 62 g) 12 h) 20

39. 1, 8, 27, 65, 125, 216

e) 1 f) 65 g) 12 h) 216

Directions: Each of the following questions consists of four/ five figures as the problem figure followed by four/five figures marked (a), (b), (c), (d), and (e) as the answer figures. Select the correct answer figure which will continue the series as established by the problem figures.

https://www.toppr.com/guides/reasoning-ability/images/grouping-of-figures/



40.


41.


42.


43.


Directions: In each item, there are two sets of figures; first four figures named problem figures and next four figures named answer figures indicated as (a), (b), (c) and (d). The problem figures follow a particular sequence. In accordance with the same, which one of the four answer figures should appear as the fifth figure.

45.


https://www.toppr.com/guides/reasoning-ability/number-ranking-time-sequence/number-sequence/



46.


Other types of series might be the non-verbal series completion based questions. In the formation of the figure, the candidate has to use the fragmented part to construct the desired figure. Formation of figure requires a high spatial visualization skill. As different fragmented parts of a figure are to be combined to form the desired figure. Let us see some practice questions.

7: Which of the following figures shown below, when folded along the dotted lines, will form a pyramid-shaped box with a rectangular base?


47. Which of the answers figures include the separate components found in the question figure?


48. Among the four answer figures, which one can be formed from the cut-out pieces given below in the question figure?


Directions: In each of the following questions, select the alternative in which the specified components of the problem figure are found?

49.

https://www.toppr.com/guides/fundamentals-of-economics-and-management/group-dynamics/stages-of-group-formation/

https://www.toppr.com/guides/accountancy/application-of-computers-in-accounting/components-computer-system/




50.




ANSWERS

21. Burrow is the dwelling place of Hare.

Similarly, Barn is the dwelling place of

Owl.



called Knesset.




Hospital.






Air Force.



21. c

22. c

23. a

24. c

25. b

26. d

27. a

28. b

29. d

30. c

31. c

32. a

33. c

34. a

35. b

36. a

37. b

38. a

39. b

40. b

41. a

42. b

43. a

44. b

45. b

46. a

47. b

48. a

49. b

50. b

51. d 52. a 53. a 54. d 55. b 56. b

57. c

58. a

59. c

60. c

61. d

62. b

63. a

64. b

65. b

66. b

67. c

68. b

69. a

70. b



MATHEMATICS

1. How is 3


a) 0.75%

b) 7.5%

c) 75%

d) 60%

e) None of these

2. The ratio 5: 4 expressed as a percent equals

a) 12.5%

b) 40%

c) 80%

d) 125%

e) None of these

3. What is 28% of 36% of 5

7 th of 5000?

a) 360

b) 375

c) 420

d) 480

e) None of these

4. 3.5 can be expressed in terms of percentage as:

a) 0.35%

b) 3.5%

c) 35%

d) 350%

e) None of these

5. What is 15 percent of Rs. 34?

a) Rs. 3.40

b) Rs. 3.75

c) Rs. 4.50

d) Rs. 5.10

e) None of these

4. The arithmetic mean of 15 numbers is 41.4. Then the sum of these numbers is

a) 414 b) 420 c) 620


5. If 25a + 25b = 115, what is the average of a and b?

a) 2.5 b) 3.4 c) 4.5




6. Find the average of all the numbers between 6 and 34 which are divisible by 5.

a) 18 b) 20 c) 24


7. A motorist covered the first 20 km of his journey in 30 minutes and the remaining 29

km in 40 minutes. His average speed in km/hr is:

a) 413

4 b) 42 c) 49d )57

1

6 e) None of these

8. A cyclist goes from a place to another and returns by the same route. He pedals his way

uniformly with a speed u while going and with speed v while returning. The average

speed of his journey is:

a) 𝑢+𝑣

2 b)

𝑢−𝑣

2 c)

11

2(

1

𝑢+

1

𝑣)

d) 1

1

2(

1

𝑢−

1

𝑣) e) None of these

9. A man travels first 50 km at 25 kmph, next 40 km at 20 kmph and then 90 km at 15

kmph. His average speed for the whole journey (in kmph) is:

(a) 25

(b) 20

(c) 18

(d) 40

(e) None of these

10. A man walks at the rate of 5km/hr for 6 hours and at 4km/hr for 12 hours. The average

speed of the man (in km/hr) is:

a) 4

b) 412

c) 413

d) 423

e) None of these

11. If a person travels 1015 km in 3 hours, then the distance covered by him in 5 hours will

be:

a) 18 km b) 17km c) 16km


12. If a train 110m long passes a telegraph pole in 3 seconds, then the time taken (in

seconds) by it to cross a railway platform 165 m long, is:

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5




13. A train 700 m long is running at the speed of 72km/hr. If it crosses a tunnel in 1 minute,

then the length of the tunnel (in meters) is:

a) 700 b) 600 c) 550


14. The total number of students in a school is 2140. If the number of girls in the school is

1200, then what is the ratio of the total number of boys to the total number of girls in

the school?

a) 18: 13 b) 26: 25 c) 47: 60


15. A person spends Rs. 8100 in buying some tables at Rs. 1200 each and some chairs at Rs.

300 each. The ratio of the number of chairs to that of tables when the maximum

possible number of tables is purchased is

a) 1: 2 b) 1: 4 c) 2: 1


16. The ratio of boys and girls in a club is 3:2. Which of the following could be the actual

number of members?

a) 16 b) 18 c) 24


17. One year ago the ratio of Ramu and Somu age was 6:7 respectively. Four years hence

their ratio would become 7:8. How old is Somu?

a) 24 years b) 30 years

c) 32 years d) 36 years

e) None of these.

18. If 33% of A is equal to 55% of B then find the ratio of A and B?

a) 3:5 b) 5:3 c) 3:4


19. The total area of the wet surface is?

a) 49 m2

b) 50 m2

c) 53.5 m2

d) 55 m2

e) None of these

20. The breadth of a room is twice its height and half its length. The volume of the room is

512 cu. m. The length of the room is

a) 16 m

b) 18 m

c) 20 m

d) 32 m



e) None of these

21. A Rectangular plot is 180 m2 in area. If its length is 18m then, its perimeter is?

a) 20 m b) 56 m c) 360 m


22. The side of a square exceeds the side of another square by 4 cm and the sum of the

areas of the two squares is 400 cm2. The dimensions of the square are?

a) 8cm and 12cm

b) 6cm and 10cm

c) 12cm and 16cm

d) 10cm and 18cm

e) None of these

23. The area of the floor of a rectangular hall of length 40m is 960m2. Carpets of size 6m ×

4m are available. Then, how many carpets are required to cover the hall?

a) 20 b) 30 c) 40


24. (75P2 – 75C2) = ?

a) 0 b) 75 c) 150

d) 2775 e) 5550

25. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DISPLAY be arranged?

a) 720 b) 1440 c) 2520


26. In how many different ways can the letters of the word “TABLE” be arranged?

a) 24 b) 48 c) 120


27. In how many different ways can the letters of the word “MATHEMATICS” be arranged?

a)10!

2 b)

11!

2 c)

11!

4

d) 11!

8 e) None of these

28. In how many ways can 6 letters be posted in 5 letter boxes available in the locality?

a) 56 b) 65 c) 66


29. How many 3-digit numbers are there, with distinct digits, with each digit odd?

a) 120 b) 200 c) 60


30. In how many ways can the letters of the word ‘UNIVERSAL’ be arranged when E, R, S

are always together?

a) 31240 b) 32240 c) 30240




31. In how many ways can the letters of the word ‘ALGEBRA’ be arranged when both A do

not come together?

a) 1800 b) 1600 c) 1500


32. In how many ways can the letters of the word ‘NUTAN’ be arranged when consonants

occupy odd places and vowels come on even places?

a) 120 b) 60 c) 24


33. There are seven candidates for 3 posts. In how many ways can the posts be filled?

a) 210 b) 120 c) 73


11. Father is four times the age of his daughter. If after 5 years, he would be threee times of

daughter’s age, then further after 5 years, how many times he would be of his

daughter’s age?

a) times

b) 2 times

c) 2.5 times

d) 3 times

12. What is Aman's present age, if after 20 years his age will be 10 times his age 10 years

back?

a) 6.2 years

b) 7.7 years

c) 13.3 years

d) 10 years

13. Nisha is 15 years elder to Romi. If 5 years ago, Nisha was 3 times as old as Romi, then

find Nisha’s present age.

a) 32.5 years

b) 27.5 years

c) 25 years

d) 24.9 years

14. One year ago, the ratio of Honey and Piyush ages was 2: 3 respectively. After five years

from now, this ratio becomes 4: 5. How old is Piyush now?

a) 5 years



b) 25 years

c) 10 years

d) 15 years

15. Ten years ago, the age of mother was three times the age of her son. After ten years,

mother’s age will be twice that of his son. Find the ratio of their present ages.

a) 11 : 7

b) 9 : 5

c) 7 : 4

d) 7 : 3

16. Saransh is 50 years old and Nazma is 40 years old. How long ago was the ratio of their

ages 3:2?

a) 20 years

b) 30 years

c) 40 years

d) 25 years

17. The ratio of the present ages of Pranav and Qureshi is 4:5. Five years ago, the ratio of

their ages was 7:9. Find their present ages? (In years)

a) 40, 50

b) 18, 25

c) 40, 60

d) 20, 25

18. A man said to his son, "I was one-third of your present age when you were born". If the

present age of the man is 48 years, find the present age of the son.

a) 25.7 years

b) 28 years

c) 29.3 years

d) 36 years

19. Dinesh is younger to Roshan by 9 years. If their ages are in the respective ratio of 4:5,

how old is Dinesh?

a) 36 years

b) 23years



c) 29 years


20. The ratio of Sara’s age 4 years ago and Vaishali’s age after 4 years is 1: 1. Presently, the

ratio of their ages is 5: 3. Find the ratio between Sara’s age 4 years hence and Vaishali’s

age 4 years ago.

a) 1 : 3

b) 3 : 1

c) 4 : 3

d) 3 : 4

11. If the product of two numbers is 2496 and HCF is 8,then the ratio of HCF and LCM is

a) 1:32 b) 39:1 c) 1:39 d) 4:63 e) None of these

12. The greatest possible length which can be used to measure exactly the lengths 1m 92cm,3m 84cm ,23m 4cm


13. HCF of 4/3, 8/6, 36/63 and 20/42

f) 4/126 g) 4/8 h) 4/36 i) 4/42 j) None of these

14. Find the LCM of 3/8, 9/32, 33/48, 18/72

a) 3/8 b) 8/33 c) 198/8 d) 8/3



e) None of these

15. The HCF of 2511 and 3402 is

f) 31 g) 42 h) 76 i) 81 j) None of these



ANSWERS

41. (c): 3

4= (

3

4× 100)% = 75%

42. (d): 5: 4 = 5

4= (

5

4× 100)% = 125%

43. (a): Given expression = (28

100×

36

100×

5

7× 5000)

= 360

44. (d): 3.5 can be expressed as

(3.5×100)% = 350%

45. (d): 15

100× 34 = 5.10 Rs.

46. (d): Sum of numbers = (41.4×15) =

621.

47. (e): 25a + 25b = 115 25 (a + b) =

115

a + b= 115

25=

23

5


2=

23

5×

1

2=

23

10=2.3

48. (b): Average = (10+15+20+25+30

5) =

100

5

= 20

49. (b): Total distance covered = (20+29)

km = 49 km


70 min

Average speed = (49

70× 60) = 42

km/hr


Total distance = 2x


u+

x

v)


𝑥

𝑢+

𝑥

𝑣

=1

1

2(

1

𝑢+

1

𝑣)

51. (c): Average speed = 50+40+9050

25+

40

20+

90

15

=180

2+2+6=

180

10 = 18 kmph

52. (c): Average speed = 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒

𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 =

5×6+4×12

6+12

=30+48

18=

78

18=

13

3= 4

1

3 Km/hr

53. (b): Speed = 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒

𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒=

101

5

3=

51

5×

1

3=

17

5 Km/hr

Required distance = speed × time

= 17

5×5 = 17 km

54. (d): Speed of the train = 110

3 m/sec

Required time = (165+110)

110×3

= 275

110×3 = 7.5 sec

55. (d): ( Length of the 1st train + Length

of the tunnel)

= speed × time

x +700= 72×5

18× (1 × 60)

x + 700= 20×60

x + 700 = 1200 x = 1200-700

x= 500 meters.


15. (a): Maximum possible number of tables = 6 [∵1200×6=7200] Number of chairs purchased = 8100−7200

300=

900

300 = 3

Hence, required ratio = 3: 6 = 1: 2 16. (d): The total number of members

must be a multiple of the sum of the ratio terms. 3+2=5 and 25 is a multiple of 5.

17. (d); Let present ages of Ramu and Somu be R and S respectively.



(R-1) : (S-1)6:7

One year ago→ R : S

↓ : ↓ Four years hence

(R+4) : (S+4) 7:8

R−1

S−1=

6

7

R+4

S+4=

7

8

7R-7= 6S-6 8R+32= 7S+28

7R-6S=1 8R-7S=-4

7R-6S=1 …..(i)

8R-7S=-4 …..(ii)

Multiplying equation (i) by 8 and equation (ii) by 7, we get →

56R-48S=8 …(iii)

56R-49S= -28 …(iv)

Subract (iv) from (iii) : S= 36 years

Shortcut:

One year ago→ R: S 6:7 S=7

Only option (d) has a number from which, if we subtract ‘1’, we get a number divisible by 7.

18. (b); 33% of A= 33×𝐴

100 =

55×𝐵

100= 55% of B

=33×A

100 =

55×B

100

A

B =

55

33

A: B 5: 3

21. (a): Area of the wet surface = [2(lb +

bh + lh) – lb]

= 2 (bh + lh)

+lb

= [2 (4×1.25 + 6×1.25) + 6×4]

m2 = 49 m2


meters.


length = 4x metres


m3 = (8x3) m2

8x3= 512 x3= 64 x = 4



Length=

180

18=10 m


= 2 (18+10)

= 56



cm

x2+(x+4)2 = 400

x2+x2+16+8x = 400

2x2+8x-384 = 0 x2+4x-

192=0

x2+16x-12x-192=0

x (x+16) -12 (x+16) = 0

(x - 12) (x+16) = 0




25. (c): Given, 6

4




Area of one carpet

=960

24= 40

26. (d): (75P2 – 75C2) = {75!

(75−2)!−

75×75

2}



=75!

73!−(75×37)

= 75×74×73!

73!−(73×37)

= (75×74 – 75×37) =

75×37×(2-1)

= (75×37) = 2775

27. (d): The given word contains 7 letters,

all different


7!

= (7×6×5×4×3×2×1) = 5040

28. (c): No of ways in which the letters of

the word “TABLE” can be arranged =

5! = 120

29. (d): No of ways of arranging the

letters of word MATHEMATICS = 11!

2!×2!×2!=

11

8!

30. (a): No of ways in which 6 letters can

be posted 5 letter boxes =

5×5×5×5×5×5=56

31. Option C

Let the daughter's age be x and

father's age be 4x.

So as per question, 4x + 5 = 3(x + 5).

So x = 10.

Hence present age of daughter is 10

years and present age of father is 40

years.

So after 5 + 5 = 10 years, daughter age

would be 20 years and father’s age

would be 50 years.

Hence father would be 50/20 = 2.5

times of daughter’s age.

32. Option C

Let Aman's present age be x

Aman's age before 10 years = x - 10)

Aman's age after 20 years = (x + 20)

We are given that, Aman's age after 20

years (x + 20) is 10 times his age 10

years back (x – 10)

Therefore, (x + 20) = 10 (x – 10)

Solving the equation, we get x + 20 =

10x – 100

9x = 120, x = 13.3 years

33. Option B

Let age of Romi be y

Nisha is 15 years elder than Romi = (y

+ 15). So Nisha's age 5 years ago = (y +

15 – 5).

Romi's age before 5 years = (y – 5)

5 years ago, Nisha is 3 times as old as

Romi

(y + 15 – 5) = 3 (y – 5)

(y + 10) = (3y – 15)

2y = 25 ⇒ y = 12.5

Romi's age = 12.5 years

Nisha's age = (y + 15) = (12.5 + 15) =

27.5 years.

34. Option C

We are given that age ratio of Honey:

Piyush = 2: 3

Honey’s age = 2x and Piyush’s age = 3x

One year ago, their age was 2x and 3x.

Hence at present, Honey's age = 2x +1

and Piyush's age = 3x +1

After 5 years, Honey’s age = (2x +1) +

5 = (2x + 6)

Piyush's age = (3x +1) + 5 = (3x + 6)

After 5 years, this ratio becomes 4: 5.

Therefore,

(2x+6) / (3x+6) = 4/5

10x + 30 = 12x + 24 ⇒ x = 3

Piyush's present age = (3x + 1) = (3x 3

+ 1) = 10 years

Honey's present age = (2x + 1) = (2x 3

+ 1) = 7 years



35. Option D

10 years ago, age of mother was three

times the age of her son. Say, the age

of son was x and mother's age was 3x.

At present: Mother's age is (3x + 10)

and son’s age is (x + 10)

After ten years: Mother's age will be

(3x + 10) +10 and son’s age will be (x

+ 10) + 10. Given that, mother’s age is

twice that of son after ten years.

(3x + 10) +10 = 2 [(x + 10) + 10]

(3x + 20) = 2[x + 20]

Solving the equation, we get x = 20

(3x + 10): (x + 10) = 70: 30 = 7: 3.

36. Option A

Here, we have to calculate: How many

years ago the ratio of their ages was

3:2. Let us assume x years ago

At present: Saransh is 50 years and

Nazma is 40 years

x years ago: Saransh’s age = (50 – x)

and Nazma's age = (40 – x)

Given, the ratio of their ages was 3:2

(50-x) / (40-x) = 3/2

Solving, we get: x = 20

Therefore, the answer is 20 years.

37. Option A

Their present ages be 4X and 5X.

5 years ago, the ratio of their ages was

7:9, then (4X - 5) :( 5X - 5) = 7:9

X = 45 - 35 ⇒ X = 10.

Their present ages are: 40, 50.

38. Option D

Present age of the son be P, he was

born P years ago.

The age of the man was: (48 - P).

His age when the son was born should

be equal to 1/3 of P.

(48 - P) =1/3 P ⇒ P = 36

39. Option A

Let Roshan's age be x years.

Then, Dinesh 's age = (x - 9) years.

(x - 9)/x = 4/5

x = 45 Hence, Dinesh's age = (x - 9) =

36 years.

40. Option B

Currently, the ratio of their ages is 5:

3. Suppose, their ages are: 5x and 3x.

Sara’s age 4 years ago = 5x – 4

Vaishali’s age after 4 years = 3x + 4

Ratio of Sara’s age 4 years ago and

Vaishali's age after 4 years is 1 : 1

Therefore,

(5x - 4) / (3x + 4) = 1/1

Solving, we get x = 4

We are required to find the ratio

between Sara’s age 4 years hence and

Vaishali’s age 4 years ago.

Sara's age: (5x + 4)

Vaishali's age: (3x – 4)

Putting the value of x, we get:

(5x + 4) / (3x - 4) = 3/1 = 3:1

41. C) 1:39

Explanation:

HCF = 8

LCM = Product/HCF

Product of the 2 number = 2496

HCF:LCM = 8 : (2496/8) => 8 : 312 =>

1: 39

42. B) 32

Explanation:

192 = 4^2×2^2×3

384 = 4^2×2^2×6



2304 = 4^2×2×6^2

HCF = 4^2×2 = 16×2 = 32

43. A. 4/126

Explanation:

HCF of numerator(4,8,36,20) = 4

LCM of denominator(3,6,63,42) = 126

44. C) 198/8

Explanation :

LCM of numerator(3,9,33,18) = 198

HCF of denominator(8,32,48,72) = 8

45. D) 81

Explanation :

2511 = 81×31

3402 = 81×42

Hence HCF is 81

46. B) 147

Explanation :

47. D) 128

Explanation :

49 = 7^2 = m^n

n^m = 2^7 = 128

48. A) 630

Explanation :

LCM of 12,18,21 and 30 = 1260

Doubled (divide by 2) = 1260/2 = 630

49. C) 77

Explanation :

Product of the two number = 11a×11b

= 4235

11a×11ab = 4235/121 = 35

35 = 7 × 5 (co prime)

77 × 11 = 77

50. A) xy/z

Explanation :

HCF = Product of the 2 number/LCM =

XY/Z









a) 15th Aug,1947

b) 17th Nov,1956

c) 26th Jan, 1950

d) 26th Jan,1957



a) Meghalaya

b) Goa

c) Sikkim



d) Himachal Pardesh



Panchayats from:


contingency







a) Rural Employment

b) Urban Employment





line?




d) Dutt Committee



a) Scenery

b) Sage

c) Temple

d) King


a) Janaka

b) Swarna

c) Pravarsena




ensure:




Indian industries


regions



Raj was chaired by:


b) Ashok Mehta

c) K.N Katju

d) JagjivanRam














a. Andaman and Nicobar Islands b. Daman and Diu c. Puducherry d. None of the above












28. Raut Nacha is folk dance performed mainly by the tribal communities of which state? a) Rajasthan b) Jammu & Kashmir c) Assam d) Chhattisgarh







31. At which of the following tennis

tournaments is the Musketeers' Trophy awarded to the winner of Singles title?



a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60






a. Nagaland b. Manipur c. Mizoram d. Tripura

41. The control Centre of the body is the

........................




a) Nose b) Skin c) Ear d) Eyes e) None of these


organ?



...........................


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bird of the world?

a) Humming bird b) Robin c) Curlew d) Greenfinch e) None of these




f) Leopard g) Cheetah h) Deer i) Kangaroo j) None of these







a) Air b) Soil c) Water d) Clothes

e) None of these


42. The most important ore of Aluminium is– a) Bauxite b) Calamine c) Calcite d) Galena

43. The element present in the largest amount in rocks and minerals is– a) Carbon b) Silicon c) Hydrogen d) Aluminium

44. The chemial name of Uria is– a) Aneurin b) Chloroetane c) Carbamide d) None of these

45. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by adding– a) Potassium Permanganate b) Chlorine c) Bleaching Powder d) Washing Soda

46. The formula of Plaster of Paris is–

a) CaSO4 b) CaSO4, 2H2O c) 2CaSO4, 4H2O d) 2CaSO4, H2O

47. Liquefied Petroleum gas (LPG)

consists of mainly– a) Methane, Ethane and Hexane b) Ethane, Hexane and Nonane c) Methane, Butane and Propane d) Methane, Hexane and Nonane

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48. The metal that is present in Photo Films is– a) Mercury b) Platinium c) Magnesium d) Silver

49. Which of the following is in liquid

form at room temperature ? a) Cerium b) Sodium

c) Francium d) Lithium

50. The property of a substance to absorb

moisture from the air on exposure is called– a) Osmosis b) Desiccation c) Efflorescence d) Deliquescene

ANSWERS

1. a

2. d

3. a

4. c

5. c

6. b

7. b

8. c



9. d

10. b 11. a

12. c

13. a

14. b

15. b

16. a

17. d

18. c

19. c

20. d

21. b 22. b 23. d 24. d 25. d 26. c 27. c

28. c

29. d

30. a

31. d

32. c

33. c

34. d

35. a

36. d

37. a

38. c

39. a

40. c

41. c

42. a

43. b

44. c

45. d

46. d

47. c



48. d

49. c

50. d

class-4.pdf - Vidhyarthi Coaching

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