REPORT ON TRAINING OF PAPER-SETTERS INLATEST TRENDS,ISSUES AND PRACTICES IN THE EVALUATION OF SCHOOL SUBJECTS AT

SECONDARY LEVEL OF ANDHRA-PRADESH AND TAMIL-NADU.

Dr.G.AnwarProgramme Coordinator

TEAM-MEMBERSDr.P.Veerappan Reader in Tamil

Mr.Ramakant Mohalik Lecturer in Educationkvai-t.-a

tflMCWSRT

REGIONAL INSTITUTE OF EDUCATION(NATIONAL COUNCIL OF EDUCATIONAL RESEARCH AND TRAINING)

MYSORE-570006 FEBRUARY-2006.

CONTENTS

Page No

Foreword iPreface iiList of Resource Persons from Andhra Pradesh iiiList of Resource Persons from Tamil Nadu ivList of Participants from Andhra Pradesh viList of Participants from Tamil Nadu ix

Concept of Evaluation 1 1Concept of Evaluation 2 33

ANDHRA PRADESHEnglish 38Physical Science 79Biology 99Mathematics 134Social Studies 160

TAMIL NADUTamil 176English 204Science 236Mathematics 249Social Science 271

FOREWORD

Evaluation is basically thought of as a process by which a teacher brings

together information from a number of different sources for the purpose of mak.ng

value-judgement about particular pupil or groups of pupils. Evaluation, therefore, is

a comprehensive process which involves both testing and measurement about

pupils' learning outcomes at various stages of Education. To measure pupils'

achievement in classroom, teachers may use various evaluation procedures.

There are Public Examinations at various stages of education, for eg.

Elementary (VII Standard), secondary (X Standard) and Senior Secondary (XI1

Standard or PUC). Time to time, the Board of Secondary School Examination in

every State changes the question paper pattern. The SCERT, DSERT or the

Department of School Education and Government Examination Boards organize

training programmes for paper setters in all subjects. During 2005, similar

programme was recommended by the State Coordination Committee meeting of

Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu and under the coordinatorship of Dr.G.Anwar,

Reader, Education a training package was developed in a workshop mode from 3-7

October 2005 involving expert teachers from Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and from

DIET, Mysore, assisted by RIE and DMS faculty.

‘ his report prepared by the Coordinator on the basis of training programmes

conducted in SCERT, Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh from 5- 9 December 2005 and

DIET, Triplicane, Chennai from 19 - 23 December 2005 contains model question

papers developed by the participants under the guidance of resource persons from

Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu and my colleagues from RIE, Mysore. This report

would prove as a useful device for paper-setters.

PRINCIPAL

i

PREFACE

Testing has a direct bearing on Teaching. Therefore, Teaching and Testing go hand in hand in the classroom. Learning outcomes of students at all levels of formal schooling can be evaluated by conducting tests and examinations.

State Board of Examination at secondary level conducts Public Examinations for X Standard students. The board gets the examination paper set by expert- teachers who have vast experience in classroom teaching and testing. The Board appoints thi'm as Examiners and Moderators of question papers.

The Director, SCERT and the Director, School Education and Director Examination Board will organize evaluation workshop, training programme for paper setters to discuss and improve the model question papers in each State from time to time.

As per the requests from the State Governments of both Andhra Pradesh and fan ill Nadu for training of paper-setters in the latest trends, issues and practices in the evaluation of school subjects at secondary school level of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu 1 have been given the responsibility as Coordinator to train paper setters.

In this connection, I had met and discussed with state officials and organized following activities :

a) A workshop was conducted to develop "Training Package to train paper- setters in latest trends, issues and practices in school subjects at secondary level of both Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu states from 3-7 October 2005.

b) The package was used to train paper setters of Andhra Pradesh from5.12.2005 to 9.12.2005 at SCERT, Hyderabad. 17 participants and 4 Resource Persons from different districts of A.P. participated in the Training Programme and through very good interaction among participants, resource persons and the Coordinator. Model question papers and suggestions are developed which is enclosed in this report for further use by the State. The State may also use the expertise of trained experts in paper-setting. The Director, Govt, examination has encouraged the participants to come out with a good model paper in all school subjects.

c) The package was also used to train paper setters of Tamil Nadu from19.12.2005 to 23.12.2005 at DIET, Lady Wellington Complex, Triplicane, Chennai - 25, participants from different districts of Tamil Nadu participated and four resource persons and with the support from the Institute faculty

i

they came out with a better model question paper in English, TamilLanguage, Science, Social Science and Mathematics which is enclosed in this report ;for the use by the State Board of Examination of Tamil Nadu.

1 express my deep sense of gratitude to the Director, SCERT, Hyderabad and the Director of Government Examinations Board, Hyderabad, Andhra Pradesh and all the resource persons and the participants of the training programme.

1 also express my sincere gratitude to the Director, School Education, DPI Complex, Chennai, Dileclor, Government Examinations at Secondary School, DPI Complex, Chennai and resource persons and participants of Tamil Nadu for their help in conducting the training programme. 1 am also thankful to Dy. Director, Government Examination, Chennai and Principal, DIET, Triplicate, Chennai.

1 am thankful to my team members for their full cooperation and support for the successful organization of the programme - Dr.P.Veerappan, Prof.B.S.P.Raju, Dr Manjula P.Rao, Prof.V.Keshavan, Prof. C.K.Vishwanath, Principal, Maharani College, Mysore and DIET faculty of Mysore and DMS Teachers, Dr Subhadra and Mrs Rohini.

Mv special thanks are due to Prof.G.T.Bhandage for helping me and encouraging me from time to time from its inception to its completion.

I am thankful to our beloved Principal Prof.G.Ravindra for his full support and cooperation in this programme at all levels of this programme. My thanks are also due to Prof.B.S.Upadhyaya and his team for their total support for organizing this programme.

My sincere thanks are also due to Prof.S.S Raghavan, Smt S Imavathi, Mr.V.Prabhakaran, the staff of CPU and all those who helped in the completion of this report.

G Anwar13,h March 2006 Academic Coordinator

iii

LIST OF RESOURCE PERSONS

Training programme at SCERT, Hyderabad from 5-9 Dec 2005

A. Internal Resource Persons1. Dr. G. Anwar

Reader in Education RIE, Mysore.

2. Mr. Ramakanta Mohalik Lecturer in Education RIE, Mysore - 6

B. External Resource Person1. M. Deepika, Resource Person, Biological Science

Curriculum and Text Book Department SCERT, Hyderabad,Andhra Pradesh

2. Sri Ramabhadracharyalugaru EnglishSpecial Officer for EnglishOffice of the Director School Education Hyderabad.

3. Dr. G. Jagan Mohan Social StudiesRetired Professor, SCERT,Hyderabad

4. Mr. Sree Rama Murthy MathematicsRetired Joint DirectorDirectorate of School Education Hyderabad

IV

LIST OF RESOURCE PERSONS

Training Programme at DIET, Chennai for Tamil Nadu from 19-23 Dec. 2005

A. Internal Resource Persons

1. Dr P Veerappan,Reader in Tamil,RIE, Mysore

2. Dr G Anwar Reader in Education RIE, Mysore - 6

3. Mr Ramakanta Mohalik Lecturer in Education RIE, Mysore

B. External Resource Persons

1. Mr S Kandasamy Headmaster, Govt. High School Moon Gilpatti Kilvani Post Bharani taluk, Erode District Tamil Nadu

2. Mr Manickam Asst. HeadmasterSenguthar Higher Secondary School Thuraiyur, Tiruchirappalli 621 010 Tamil Nadu

3. Mr D gunasekaran B.T.AssistantGovt. High School, Serugudi Tiruchirappalli Dist621 208 Tamil Nadu

4. Mr J Lawrence B.T.AssistantSt. Antony’s Higher Secondary School Coonoor, The Nilgiris Tamil Nadu

Tamil

English

Science

Mathematics

v

I- LIST OF PARTICIPANTS

ANDHRA PRADESH

(5-9 December 200$ (2-u

SI.No.

Name & Address (Official) with Phone Nos. Residential with Phone Nos.

1 C. Bhairaiah M.A., M.Ed. S.A (Social Studies)Z.P. High School PERKITMdl Armoor, Dist. Nizamabad-503224

C. Bhairaiah M.A. M.Ed.H. No. 3-1-39/12/3/3,Teacher’s Colony,Armoor - 503224Dist Nizamabad APPhone: 08463-223431

2 T.S. Jehosheba. S.A., B.A., B.Ed.(Social Studies)GBH schoolShah Ali - BandaHyderabad - 4

T.S.Jehosheba S AH.No. 1-6-226/7/4RamnagarMusheerabadHyderabad- 48.Phone: 27633383

3. K. Nageswara Reddy (S.A. Maths)Govt. High SchoolKoilkuntlaKurnool Dt.Cell: 9441264110

K. Nageswara Reddy S.AH.No. 10-82Behind Ravi Public SchoolKoilkuntlaKurnoor Dt.

4 Vishnu Kumar S.A. (N.S)Govt. High SchoolBanaganapalleKurnool (Dt.)

N. Vishnu Kumar S.A. (N.S) TeacherH.No. 11-121Near L.I.C. OfficeBanaganapalleKarnool (Dt)

5 M. Dada Basha MSc., MEd.,S.A. (P S)Z.P. High SchoolI. KothapetaBanaganapalleKurnool (Dt)

M. Dada Bhasha MSc., MEd.,S.A. (P.S)H.No. 17-187Konda petaBanagana palleKurnoor (Dt)Phone 08515-227644

6 A. Mallikarjunaiah B.A., B.Ed.School Assistant (Social)Z.P. High SchoolCh. MalkapuramDhone mandalKurnoolPin-515922Phone - 08516-239368

A. Mallikarjunaiah B.A., B.Ed.School Assistant (Social)R.S. RangapuramBethamcherla mandalKurnool (Dt)Pin-518598Phone-08516-287583

vi

7 P. Pochadry, B.Sc . B.Ed., (Maths)Head MasterZPHS. AchampetMandal: NizamsagarDist: NizamabadPhone - 08465-275780

P. Pochadry, B.Sc., B.Ed., (Maths)Head MasterAPLIGH 'B' type - 7Kanteshwer Housing Board (old)Near Kanteshwer TempleNizamabadDist: Nizamabad (A.P)Pin - 503002Phone-08462-238701

8 K. Jaya chander S.A. (Maths)Govt. High SchoolSeethafamandiSecanderabad - 500061Hyderabad (Dist)Phone 27075843

K. Jaya ChanderH. No. 12-11-592,WarasingnadaSecunderabadHyderabad (Dist)

9 D. Prabhudas M.Sc., M Ed., M.A.,M.Phil., M.Div., Ph DEng AsstZPHS (Boys)Veldurkhy, Kurnool (Dt)

D Prabhudas51-917-D8 opp. RTC Bus - standChellarari streetKurnool city - 518001Cell: 9440554192Phone-08518-256227

10 B. SatyanarayanaHead Master (English)ZPHS KotagiriKotagiri (Mondal)NIZAMABAD (DT)Cell: 9347399531

B. SatyanarayanaHead Master (English)H.No. 9-48/1 S.N. PunVARNIXNizamabad (Dt)Pin-503201Cell: 934739931Phone-08467-281186

11 Smt. K. SudhaOffice in-charge,ECTC, DIET,HyderabadPh. No. 9849698291

Smt. K. Sudha16 2-147/64/2 behind Rice MillsMalakpet,Hyderabad - 36040-24556868

12 G. Vara Prasad RaoTutorDistrict Centre for EnglishDIET, Mahabub negar - 509001Phone-08542-245771 (O)

H.No. 4-9-47/1,Brahminwadi,Mahabubnegar(AP) - 509001Phone - 08542-246523

13 B. Asha RaniSchool Assistant (English)Z.P.H.S. JeedimetlaQuthbullapur (MP)Ranga Reddy (Asst)

B. Asha RaniPlot No. 27Anand Rao NagarOld AlwalSecunderabadAndhra Pradesh - 500010Ph.9441110662, 04027962101

vii

14 N.V. RamanaM.A., BSc., B.Ed.Sr. trained Gradate teacherRailway Mixed High SchoolS. Lalaguda, Secundarabad-500017 Phone - 27789237

N.V. RamanaFlat # 203, Pratibha Apts Raod,No. 8, Mallikarjuna NagarMalkajgiriHyderabad - 500047Phone 27055907

15 A. Devender REddyS.A (Physical Science)ZPHS PalwanchaMacharedder (Mandal)Nizamabad 503111Phone: 08468 220034

A. Devender REddyH.No. 5-3-85/GVidyanagarKarnareddyNizamabad - 50311Cell: 9440091960

16 Ch. Venkat RajaiahS.A. (Bio. Sci)ZPHS UppalwaiMdl. Sadasiva Nagar,Dist: Nizamabad (AP)-503145

Ch. Venkat RajaiahH.No. 4-4-04Hanuman Mandir Raod,KamaredoyDist: Nizamabad (AP)Phone - 08468 224282

17 M. Bhramarambha S.A. (Biology)Govt. Girls High SchoolBansilelpet, Sec. Bad.Hyderabad - 500 080 A.P

M. BhramarambhaF-304, Vivek Apts.50, P&T colonyGandhinagar Hyderabad - 080 (AP)Cell: 9848661955

18. Sri N. Vishnu Kumar S AGovt. High SchoolBanganna , KarnoolAndhra Pradesh

viii

II - LIST OF PARTICIPANTS

Training programme at DIET, Lady Wellington College, Triplicane- Chennai

19-23 December 2006

1. G. SampathTamil PanditGovt. Hr. Secondary SchoolPoondi village and postThiruvallur Dt.4 - Radhakrishna Street, PoondiPin-602023

Tamil

2. K. SampandamB.T. Asst. TamilDRBCCCH Hr. Secondary SchoolThiruvallur-602001

Tamil

3. A. Banumathi, Tamil PanditGovt. Hr. Secondary School NanganallurKanchipuram Dt.Tamil Nadu

Tamil

4. R. Kasturi Bai,B.T. Asst. Jaigopal Goanodia, Hr. Secondary School, Nanganallur, Kanchipuram (District)

Tamil

5. V.V. VenkataswamyB.T. Assistant (Science) and EnglishPoondi (P) Thiruvallur (Dist)Tamil Nadu

English

6. P. PanchavananB.T. Assistant (English)M.B.N. Govt. Girls Hr. Secondary SchoolChromepet,Chennai-44.Kanchipuram (Dist)

English

7. S. Irene Elizebeth PadminiB.T. Assistant (English)Bentick Hr. Secondary School for publicVedery, Chennai - 7

English

8. Vasanthi Devadasan,B.T. Assistant J.G. Govt. Girls Hr. Secondary School Nanganallur - 600061.

English

ix

19. G. DeviB.T. Asst. (English) Presidency Hr. Sec. School,Chennai

English

20. V.V. JayalakshmiGovt. Boys Hr. Secondary SchoolChennai.

Mathematics

21. A. AshaGovt. Model Hr. Secondary SchoolTriplicane, Chennai-5Ph. 28445565

Mathematics

22. S. John Santiago RaniGovt. Hr. Secondary SchoolNandanam, Chennai-35.Ph. 24351815

Mathematics

23. S.N. Jaya KumarGovt. Hr. Secondary SchoolAthimanjeripetPin 631202.

Mathematics

22. P. Tamil SelviB.T. Asst. (Science)Govt. Model Hr. Secondary SchoolChromepetPh.22368795

Science

23. R. JayalakshmiGovt. Model Hr. Secondary SchoolPalicat - 601205 Thiruvattore (Dt)

Science

24. A. Siva, Govt. High SchoolKesvaraja puram, Pallipat (Taluk)Thiruvallur (Dt)

Science

25 M. Vetri ChelviJ.G.G. Hr. Secondary schoolNanganallurKanchi Puram (Dt)

Science

26. N. MohanAringar Anna Govt. Hr. Secondary School,Poonamalli - 600056.

SocialScience

27. T. KarunakaranB.T. Asst.Govt. Girls Hr. Secondary schoolAravi 601101.

SocialScience

X

28. M. MallikaAringar Anna Govt. Hr. Secondary SchoolPoonamalli - 600056.

SocialScience

29. L. SuseelaAringar Anna Govt. Hr. Secondary SchoolPorur Adyan BesantaChennai - 600090.

SocialScience

30. T. KalaiyalsiNehru Govt. Hr. Secondary schoolChromepet, Chennai

SocialScience

31. K. DeviGovt. Boys Hr. Secondary SchoolChromepet, Chennai

SocialScience

XI

1. Concept of Evaluation

Evaluation is universally accepted as an integral part of teaching and learning process. It is one of the basic components of any curriculum. Through evaluation a teacher can judge the growth and development of students, the changes taking place in their behaviour, the progress they are making and also the effectiveness of teaching in the class. In fact, evaluation plays a pivotal role in deciding what the learners learn and what the teachers teach. It is, therefore, acknowledged as a powerful means of improving the quality of education in schools.

Meaning of Evaluation

The word ‘evaluation’ is often confused with testing and measurement. Therefore, many a time teachers who give a test to the students, think that they are evaluating the achievement of the students. Testing is only a technique to collect evidences regarding pupil behaviour. Measurement, on the other hand, is limited to quantitative description of the pupil behaviour. Evaluation is a more comprehensive term which includes testing and measurement and also qualitative description of the pupil behaviour. It also includes value judgement regarding the worth or desirability of the behaviour measured or assessed. Therefore, Gronlund (1981) has indicated this relationship in the following equations :

Evaluation = Quantitative description of pupils (measurement) +Value judgement

Evaluation = Qualitative description of pupils (non-measurement)+ value judgement

Thus, evaluation may not be based on measurement alone but it goes beyond the simple quantitative score. For example, if a child gets 60 marks in English language test, it alone does not tell us whether his achievement is satisfactory or not. It is only when we compare this mark of 60 percent with the marks obtained by other children in the class or with certain criteria laid down in advance, or with the child’s own marks in previous tests, we are able to judge or evaluate whether his achievement in English is satisfactory or not. Thus, a students’ achievement may be viewed at three different levels :

1. Self-referenced - how the students is progressing withreference to himself/herself.

2. Criterion-referenced- how the student is progressing withreference to the criteria set by the teacher

3. Norm-referenced - how the student is progressing withreference to his/her peer group.

Evaluation has been defined by various educationists in different ways.

Tyler (1950) defined evaluation as “a systematic process of determining the extent to which educational objectives are achieved by pupils”, which indicates that evaluation is a systematic process. However, this omits the casual, informal or uncontrolled observation of the pupils. The definition also implies that objectives of education have been identified in advance. Without predetermined objectives, it is not possible to judge the progress, growth and development of students.

According to another well known definition, evaluation is providing information for decision making.

Thus evaluation is a systematic process of collecting evidences about students’ progress and achievement in both cognitive and non-cognitive areas of learning on the basis of which judgements are formed and decisions are made. It has the following three components :

• information gathering• information processing• judgement forming and decision making

Evaluation is not always the end of a course. We not only want to know whether a student has developed a certain ability stated in the educational objectives or not but we also need to know about the progress during the course of teaching and learning. Thus, it is a continuous process.

Evaluation in Teaching and Learning

Evaluation is an integral part of any teaching and learning programme. Whenever a question is asked in a class and answered by a student and the answer is judged by the teacher, evaluation takes place. Thus, both teaching and evaluation go hand in hand with each other. In fact, it is not possible to have teaching and learning without evaluation.

Both teaching and evaluation are based on the instructional objectives which provide direction to them. Instructional objectives are those desirable behaviours which are to be developed in students through the learning experiences. These are reflected in the form of syllabus, instructional material and information given by the teacher. Instructions are given for achieving the objectives and evaluation is done to see whether the instructional objectives have been achieved and to what extent. The interrelationship of objectives, instructional process or the learning experiences and evaluation in a programme of teaching can be expressed more clearly through the following diagram:

2

The above diagram illustrates that the three components of education- instructional objectives, learning experiences and evaluation constitute an integrated network in which each component depends on the other. Thus, through evaluation, the teacher not only assesses as to how far the students has achieved the objectives but also examines the effectiveness of the teaching strategy such as methodologies, means and materials used for achieving those objectives.

Purposes of Evaluation

A number of important purposes are served by evaluation, which ultimately contribute to the improvement of the instructional methods, textbooks, the curriculum and even an advancement of our educational goals. Evaluation helps us to set tasks and goals which are bigger than what we aspired for earlier thus giving leadership in education. Certification, selection and classification of pupils, guidance and diagnosis of strengths and weaknesses are some of the important purposes of evaluation.

Evaluation is helpful to the teacher and the taught. The teacher comes to know how far his teaching is successful, his methodology effective. The pupil also knows where he is and how far his efforts have become successful. This enables him to renew his efforts or revise his study habits to facilitate better achievement.

Evaluation, therefore, implies objective-based instruction and continuous assessment of the progress of the pupils, leading to the improvement of instruction and learning which in turn contributes to the total growth of the child.

Defining the objectives in clear terms, organizing appropriate learning procedures, continuous and comprehensive appraisal of pupil achievement through suitable techniques and tools and using the information thus gained for modifying and improving ail aspects of education constitute the process of evaluation.

3

Characteristics of Evaluation

Evaluation is one of the most important aspects of education. It can be defined as the process of collecting evidences of pupil growth in desirable directions. In order that it is meaningful and effective, it should satisfy some criteria. These could be enunciated as follows :

1. Evaluation is objective-based: The desirable directions in which education directs pupil growth are indeed the objectives of instruction. And evaluation is aimed at knowing the degrees of success that the entire teaching-learning process has been able to achieve in realizing these instructional objectives.

2. Evaluation is continuous : Evaluation does not operate in strokes, but it is a continuous process. It thus yields a constant flow of feedback both for the student and the teacher for further improving their performance.

3. Evaluation is comprehensive - Unlike other commonly used terms in the field of measurement, evaluation is by far the most comprehensive process in terms of its coverage. It covers all the aspects of pupil growth, scholastic as well as non-scholastic. This essentially involves the use of a great variety of tools and techniques several of which have to be specifically developed for the situation.

4. Evaluation is dynamic - With its coverage extending to all the aspects of pupil growth and also since it has to be continuous process, evaluation situations keep on changing. Each new situation presents a challenge to the teacher who has to be innovative for meeting it by developing new strategies, techniques and tools.

5. Evaluation can be a learning experience - Good evaluation situation can prove to be an excellent learning experience. In trying to find solutions to evaluation situations, the students may take recourse to several resources which may not otherwise do. Many of these could provide valuable learning to them.

6. Evaluation results have a wider usage — Examinations are almost sole means of evaluation today. Examination results are used only for purposes of grading, classification and certification. Results of evaluation can, however admit wider purposes like diagnosis, guidance and academic prediction as well besides those to which examination results are being currently used.

To conclude, it may be said that evaluation is a much wider concept than both measurement and examination for both of which it is often erroneously used as a synonym. The above characteristics indeed

4

distinguish it from not only these two but several other terms mistakenly deemed to be equivalent or interchangeable.

3. Instructional Objectives in Testing

What are Instructional Objectives ?

Education is a process of bringing about change in the individual in a desired direction to enable him to develop certain skills, certain understandings, thinking processes, insights, attitudes, etc. Our educational objectives, therefore, are the changes we wish to produce in the child. The changes that must take place through education are represented in the knowledge children acquire, the skills and abilities children attain, the interests children develop and the attitudes children manifest.

E.J.Furst defined educational objectives as “the desired changes in behaviour in a persons that we try to bring about through education".

According to Edwin Harper, “objectives are the statements of expected results”. This means that the objectives state in what way a pupil will be different at the end of a particular course or lesson. Therefore, objectives are also known as learning outcomes. They are the products of learning and represent what the pupil does after undergoing instruction. Instructional objectives, are, therefore, the predetermined targets of learning.

The terms like goals, aims and objectives are related terms. Educational goals are broad and nebulous e.g. goal of education may be to prepare a good man. Goals are divided into a number of aims e.g. the aim of education may be to prepare a good citizen. The aims are further specified into objectives. The objectives are tangible and achievable in educational terms.

Purpose of Instructional Objectives

Instructional objectives serve as the guide posts in teaching and learning. These are required for the purpose of clarifying to the teachers as to what they are expected to teach and to the students as to what is expected to them at the end of a given period of study. A teacher, therefore, needs to be clear about the objectives of his/her subject with a view to :

bring about desired changes in the pupils - decide how to bring about these changes

evaluate whether the changes have taken place

Both teaching and evaluation are based on instructional objectives. The instructional objectives provide directions to them. Instruction is provided to achieve the objectives and evaluation is carried out to find whether the objectives have been achieved and to what extent. Thus,

5

an objective is the first step in teaching and learningit is also the last step as it validates the instructional process

- it provides the basis for planning the learning experiences- it helps in selection of evaluation Dr jcedures

Sources of Objectives

The educational objectives are derived from basically three sources - society, individual and nature of knowledge. Some educationists like to point out economic order, religion, philosophy of life as sources of objectives. These and many such others can be considered as the parts of the above three sources. For instance, economic order, political structure, religion, etc. can be combined under society. The variety of sources is required to work out practicable and useful instructional objectives.

Society : The objectives of education in the broad sense are determined by society at the national level, its problems, needs and requirements. For instance, there may be a need to preserve and transmit cultural heritage, transforming the existing culture, instilling democratic values of life and augmenting the use of information technology. The analysis of social needs, thus, leads to the development of certain competencies and qualities among its members both to develop it and also to survive in it. In this way, society is a rich source of working out relevant instructional objectives.

Individual : If the society determines the basic requirements of education, it is in terms of the individual that these are mainly executed. In addition, there are certain needs of the individual too such as self-development which includes physical and psychological growth. Psychological growth in turn encompasses cognitive, affective and psychomotor aspects. Various theories of learning try to explain how growth takes place. Needless to say psychology of learning has much to offer in choosing, grading and sequencing objectives to suit the individual growth.

Knowledge : Knowledge is the most important characteristic of agrowing civilization. Knowledge has its categories like facts, processes, ideas, concepts, thought systems etc. Knowledge is organized and classified into various disciplines. These disciplines are an important source for deriving instructional objectives.

Classification of Objectives

The taxonomy of educational objectives by B.S.Bloom was a major breakthrough in the history of objectives. All instructional objectives fall under three main domains of human personality - cognitive, affective and psychomotor. These are related to head, heart and hand. Thus, cognitive domain includes objectives related to intellectual aspect; affective domain is

6

related to feeling i.e. with attitudes, interests and values and psychomotor domain is concerned with physical, motor and manipulative skills.

The classification of objectives in these three domains is as follows:

Affective Domain

Characterizing

Cognitive Domain Evaluation

Synthesis OrganizingA ▲

ValuingAnalysis▲ iL

Application Responding

t i LI

ComprehensionKnowledge

Receiving

(By B S Bloom) (By Krathwohl)

Psychomotor Domain Natural^ation

T

ArticulationrPrecision

Manipu

Imita

ation

ion

(By R H Dave)

In the cognitive domain Bloom has classified the objectives in six categories.

1. Knowledge - This is the information level and is essential foreverything. It requires recall and recognition of facts, principles, concepts. It is based on simple memory and in other words can be called remembering information.

2. Comprehen- - This includes knowledge and something more,sion Some thinking process starts at this level.

3. Application - This includes both knowledge and comprehension ofthe learnt material and ability to use it in unfamiliar situations.

4. Analysis - This means breaking the problem in parts or itsconstituent units and seeing their interrelationship. This includes all the above three objectives i.e. knowledge, comprehension and application.

7

5. Synthesis - This includes putting together elements and parts ofconcepts and forming a whole in order to form a theory or seek a salutation to a problem.

6. Evaluation - Evaluation is the highest level in cognitive domain. Itis concerned with making value judgement about people, methods, processes, materials, ideas, purpose, etc.

Characteristics of Instructional Objectives

From the above discussion of the objectives of cognitive domain, it is clear that instructional objectives are hierarchical in nature. For example, in the cognitive domain, knowledge is at the base. It is the lowest level objective whereas evaluation is the highest level objective.

Another characteristic of these objectives is that they are cumulative in nature which means that each next objective includes the lower one. For example, comprehension subsumes knowledge, and application includes both understanding and knowledge. Without the base of knowledge and understanding, one cannot apply the knowledge in a new situation.

Objectives at Different Levels

Objectives can be defined at various levels, from national level to lesson or unitwise objectives. The main purpose of stating objectives at national level is to provide a basic platform to an educational programme. They lay fundamental guidelines for curriculum development. But, such objectives do not serve much purpose for a specific educational activity.

To be practical and to ensure functionality the objective have to be stated at various levels e.g.

• National level objectives• Stage wise objectives• Subject wise objectives• Classwise objectives• Unitwise objectives• Lesson wise objectives

The lowest level objectives are stated in more specific terms - both from behaviour as well as content point of view. But considerable know-how is needed to accomplish such a task successfully.

8

How to select instructional objectives ?

The instructional objectives for a particular unit or course are to be selected carefully keeping in mind the following factors.

• Objectives should be attainable by the pupils under school conditions.

• They should be testable in terms of observable and verifiable changes.

• They should be comprehensive enough to cover all areas of human development.

• They should be in conformity with the broader goals of education.• They should be in accordance with the psychology of learning.• They should be acceptable to teachers from the point of view of

teaching resources, instructional time and materials available to them.

• They should be socially acceptable.

How to formulate objectives ?

Below are given some suggestions for stating the instructional objectives in clear and definite terms.

1. The objective should be stated in terms of pupil behaviour rather than in terms of teacher activity because the aim of both teaching and learning is the achievement of the students. Thus the end product of teaching i.e. the change in the pupil behaviour is to be stated in the form of the objective.

2. An objective should be stated in a complete statement form so as to give definite guidance to the teacher. For example, ‘ Comprehension of Spoken English' does not indicate as to what is to be done with this comprehension. If the same objective is stated in full statement like, ‘The student comprehends English when spoken at normal conversational speed’, it avoids all confusion and gives a direction to the teacher that he has to teach oral comprehension in such a way that at the end of the teaching learning process the student is able to comprehend spoken English.

3. The statement of objectives should contain both the modification in behaviour and content part. It is not enough to say, ‘The student acquires knowledge’. It should also specify what knowledge. Thus, the objectives should be stated like this, ‘The student acquires knowledge of the elements of English language’.

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4. The objective should be stated in a non-composite manner. Only one behaviour should be stated at a time e.g. ‘The student locates key words, phrases and sentences in a passage’.

When an objective is defined in the above stated way, it helps the teacher in determining the learning experiences that should be provided to the students for attaining that objective. It also helps him in identifying the appropriate evaluation procedure to find out if the desired change has taken place in the pupil or not.

Classification of Objectives by the NCERT

Based on the Bloom's model of the Taxonomy of Educational Objectives, the National Council of Educational Research and Training, New Delhi developed a simpler and more practical taxonomy in which the first two categories of Bloom’s objectives under the cognitive domain are kept as it is but remaining four categories are assembled under one name i.e. ‘Application’. Thus application in the NCERT model includes application, analysis, synthesis and evaluation of Bloom’s model. The NCERT model also takes skill from the psychomotor domain and combines it with the objectives of cognitive domain. Thus, NCERT model has four objectives for the subjects like sciences, social sciences and mathematics. These are knowledge, understanding, application and skill. The skill in this case refers to the translation of verbal and tabular information into graphics i.e. in the form of diagrams, maps, graphs, circuits, etc. On the other hand, laboratory and project work and practical examinations involve other skills in addition to the drawing skills. In languages, the objectives are different from the content subjects. The instructional objectives in languages are categorized as knowledge (of the elements of language), comprehension and expression.

Specification of Objectives

To be practicable and useful in teaching and testing broader objectives are broken down in more specific objectives which are called ‘specifications’. Specification of an objective indicates the specific behavioural outcomes which are expected as a result of the teaching learning process. For example,

Pupil reads English with comprehension.

This broad objective may have many specifications which indicate as to what the pupil should be able to do at the end of the course in order to provide evidence that “he reads English with comprehension”. This objective may have the following specifications :

• Grasps the meaning of words, phrases and sentences from the context

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Locates key words, phrases and sentences in a passage Distinguishes between related words and ideas Infers the mood of the author or character, etc.

Description of the Specifications for Different Objectives

A brief explanatory description of the specifications of different instructional objectives is given below :

Objective Specification Explanatory DescriptionKnowledge 1. Recalls It involves responding to a given stimulus,

primarily on the basis of memory. The nature of information requires precision and exactness. It should not differ too much from the way it was originally learnt.

2. Recognizes It requires identifying the correct response merely on the basis of memory without going into the basis of inappropriateness of alternative responses.

Under­standing

3. Translates Renders in the required medium material from another given medium faithfully, giving the closest possible equivalent of the original.

4. Illustrates/ Cites examples

Cites (produces) some similar material verbal or otherwise to clarify a point.

5. Identifies relationships

Shows in a familiar situation as to what is the correspondence between two sets of familiar data.

6. Detects errors Pinpoints a mistake or fallacy in a communication, representation, apparatus, etc. suggests or carries out necessary corrections.

7. Compares Draws out similarities and dissimilarities between sets of data, terms, trends, etc. It can be both on the basis of given criteria or unspecified criteria.

8. Discriminates Draws distinctions on some basis between closely related facts, events, ideas, etc.

9. Classifies Groups together facts, terms, etc. into homogeneous categories on the basis of criteria provided or implied.

10. Interprets Draws meaning from extracts, maps, charts, graphs, table, data, etc.

11. Extrapolates Extends the trend beyond the given data.12. Solves Finds out solutions to numerical problems

using appropriate formulae, etc.13. Summarizes Condenses a communication by picking up

main ideas and deleting trivial details.

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Objective Specification Explanatory DescriptionApplication 14. Establishes

relationshipBrings out new association(s) or relationship between sets of facts, principle, etc. for the understanding of the new problem.

15. Gives reasons for cause effect relation

Using the systematic knowledge, explains why and how some process, procedure, material is taking place along with the underlying relationships.

16. Analyses Breaks down a communication or situation into components and according to the required criteria solves the issue. Clarifies communications, discovers basis for its organization and/or underlying assumptions.

17. Sifts relevant data for given purposes.

It presupposes analysis of the given situation but goes beyond it so as to choose relevant fact to the problem in hand.

18. Hypothesizes Gives a probable explanation of the phenomenon or even the absence of confirmed generalizations.

19. Predicts Considers the situation in the light of available data and infers about the future events of phenomena, trends, etc.

20. Evolves appropriate procedureZ plan of action

Draws up or prepares a design or method or set of procedures to tackle a problem and resolves it displaying in genuity.

21. Infers Analyses and examines the data and arrives at certain conclusions of decisions pertaining to a situation.

22. Generalizes Observes similarities in otherwise different things in a way to derive a principle inductively.

23. Reorganizes the materials

Puts together various items of information (arranges and combines) in a way that a pattern emerges clearly which may not be there before.

24. Judges adequacy Examines a new set of data and arrives at a decision about the appropriateness, completeness, relevance, essentially for drawing any warranted conclusion.

25. Justifies Judges comprehensively an argument, idea, material, method, hypothesis of generalization, etc. against the criterion or standard provided to justify its use of value in the system.

26. Display originality Applies the knowledge of the principles underlying a certain known appliance to design another on his own or designs an altogether new appliance to solve a problem.

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Objective Specification Explanatory DescriptionSkill 27. Draws diagrams Draws diagrams accurately and neatly, etc.

displaying the quality of skill expected of the class concerned.

28. Labels diagrams Puts correct names, etc. in the map, methodologically and in a systematic manner for recognition as desired.

EVALUATION(E)

SYNTHESIS(S)

ANALYSIS(AN)

APPLICATION(A)

UNDERSTANDINGOR

COMPREHENSION(U)/(C)

KNOWLEDGE(K)

Recalls terms facts, definitionsa

Recognises specimens Instruments used for experiments

AnalysesFormulatesSuggestsEstablishes relationships InfersGeneralisesPredictsHypothesise

Translates (T} Interprets (I)Cites Examples (CE) Detect errors (DE) Identifies (I) Compares © Classifies Calculates ExplainsDiscriminates (D)Sv Ives Problems (SP) Dist'iguishes ID)

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DrawingSkills

ounts slides prepares

Permanent slides

ExperimentalSkills

T Draws Neatly —> Accurate figures —► Labelling correctly —► Methodically draws

Prepares Chart, model ► Prepares Graphs r Records results carefully -> Observes carefully -►Handles Apparatuses carefully

ArrangingApparatusesSystematically

RepairsApparatuses

Selection of Apparatuses correctly

Instructional objectives of Teaching all the School subjects At the secondary stage

I Knowledge:1.0 The pupil KNOWS terms, facts, concepts, principles, formulae, etc.,

Specifications

The Pupil -1.1 Recalls terms, facts concepts, principles and processes.1.2 Recognises facts, concepts, specimens, instruments, apparatus, etc.

II Understanding:2.0 The pupil UNDERSTANDS terms, facts, concepts, principles,

processes etc.

SpecificationsThe pupil -2.1 Translates tables, floral diagrams, symbols, equations, words, etc. from

one form to the other2.2 interpret charts, graphs, data, etc2.3 cites examples of scientific concepts, principles, etc.2.4 detects errors in faculty statements, diagrams, concepts and rectifies

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2.5 Identifies relationship between various facts, concepts, processes etc.2.6 Compares scientific facts, concepts, processes etc.2.7 Discriminate between closely related concepts.2.8 Explains scientific concepts, principles, processes, etc.2.9 Classifies substances, terms, specimens, organisms, apparatus, etc.2.10 Calculates, using appropriate units, in a familiar problematic situations

involving quantitative relationships.

III Application :3.0 The pupil applies knowledge in new situations

SpecificationsThe pupil3.1 analyses the given data or the problem3.2 formulates hypotheses based on observations3.3 suggests designs, appropriate methods and materials for a given

purpose.3.4 Establishes relationship between cause and effects.3.5 Infers or generalizes from the given data3.6 Predicts results from the given data

IV SkillsA. Drawing skills Specifications4.0 the pupil exhibits SKILL in drawing and experimentation

The pupil4.1 Draws neat and accurate diagrams sketches, charts etc. at

reasonable speed.4.2 labels the different parts of diagrams, charts, sketches, etc correctly

and methodically.4.3 Uses appropriate scales in making graphs neatly4.4 Prepares charts and graphs neatly from the given data4.5 Reads charts and graphs with correctness and quickness

B Experimental Skills Specifications The pupil

4.6 Arranges the apparatus systematically for practical work.4.7 Checks the instruments, apparatus, etc. accurately to rectify errors if

any4.8 Carries out simple repairs efficiently4.9 Handles apparatus, instruments and substances, etc. carefully4.10 Makes observations of volumes, heights, temperature, specimens, etc.

carefully and in a planned manner.4.11 Records relevant data systematically in a tabulated form.4.12 Improvises apparatus and models to illustrate scientific concepts or

principles.4.13 Collects, mounts and preserves specimens carefully.

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V Affective - Area : Feeling about the subject:5.0 The pupil show Interest in the subject and in their natural environments

Both plants and animals

SpecificationsThe pupil -5.1 collects, mounts and preserves various type of specimens of his own.

Live specimens, Dry specimens5.2 enjoys observing, living organisms and natural phenomena5.3 voluntarily participates in science fairs, science exhibitions, etc5.4 contributes scientific material for school and other magazines

voluntarily5.5 Reads extra books and journals on science and biologies of scientists

with delight and satisfaction.

Statement of ObjectivesObjectives when stated in terms of learning outcomes indicate the

direction of pupils growth. They guide selection of subject matter, teaching methods and instructional materials. They also provide basis for developing tests and other instruments of evaluation. Objectives in terms of learning outcomes (specific behaviours) can be stated like the following :

The pupil defines technical terms in his own words.The pupil distinguishes between technical terms having similar meanings The pupil identifies meaning of technical terms when used in a context.

In this case the objectives are stated as an ends in themselves. We can instruction directly for the specific behaviour and test the same for that specific behaviour on one to one basis. For example the pupil may be told the definition of 'germination' during instruction and may be asked to define ‘germination’ to measure the learning outcomes. It is possible to teach for all such specific behaviour but teaching would be the training level only.

Criteria for stating objectivesa. Write down general objectives/instruction using verbs like knows,

understands, applies, appreciates, etc.b. Objectives should be written in terms of students performance rather

than teachers performance.c. Objectives should indicate the learning outcomes (product) rather than

the learning processes (Learning experience)d. Objectives should indicate terminal behaviour rather than the subject.e. Objectives should be stated in non-composite manner, i.e. reflecting

unitary character by avoiding overlapping of different objectives.f. Objectives should be stated at a proper level of generality. It should

neither be to general to become vague not too specific to becomefragmentary.

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g. Objectives should be written in full statements rather than in the form of phrases.

h. Objectives should be followed by specifications.i. Different organizing unit of work as for the construction of evaluation

tools.

4. Writing Objective Based Questions

In any comprehensive programme of examination, reform improvement in the quality of question paper is a foregone conclusion. Individual questions, would, therefore have to be framed in such a way that when put together in the form of a question paper they fulfill all the requisites of a good measuring instrument. There are two main categories of questions.

i) Supply Type Questions where the student is required to supply the answer ranging from one word to a number of paragraphs. Supply type of questions can be further sub-divided into Very Short Answer, Short Answer and Essay type questions.

ii) Selection type questions where the student is required to choose one out of a number of choices. Such questions are also known as objective type questions.

We may make use of essay type, short-answer type, very short answer type or objective type questions or all of them together. But they should all conform to the characteristics of a good question.

Characteristics of Questions

1. Objective: A good question should be framed on a predetermined objective and it should test it effectively. The essay type question may sometimes test more than one objective. It may also test one or more specifications of a particular objective on which that question is based. Care has to be taken that a question tests the same ability which it is designed to test and not some other ability. Moreover as far as possible writing of questions testing single objectives based on single specification should be encouraged.

2. Content: The content of a question is closely related to the objective being tested. The framer of the question has, therefore, to take into account the topic or the sub-topic he is going to test. He should also see that the question samples exactly the same area of content which he wants to test.

3. Form of question - Essay type, short answer type, very short answer type and objective type questions are the main forms is use. In a question the form depends considerably on the kind of ability as well as the content to be tested. Some forms are more amenable than others in testing abilities. Essay type questions are more suited than others to test abilities like

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organization of thoughts, interpreting, commenting, etc. Therefore, a judicious use of appropriate form of question will have to be made while setting questions.

4. Language : To bring objectivity in evaluation, there is need for using clear, precise and unambiguous language while framing questions. Use of unfamiliar and difficult terminology may be avoided so that the comprehension of the question itself may not become a problem for the students. The question should be so worded that by and large all students may make the same meaning out of it. Here special care may be taken in using directional words like ‘write short notes on’, ‘what do you know of, etc. They should not be used indiscriminately.

5. Structuring the situation - Selection of appropriate situation is an important step in framing questions. Textbook situation amounts to the testing of only knowledge. Other situations discussed in the class may be suitable to test knowledge or understanding. But to test application of knowledge, some new situations have to be provided. Although in such a case, situations go beyond the textbook yet they should be in keeping with the ability levels of students. It will be advisable if the teacher collects such situations and keeps a record of these so that they may be available as and when the need arises.

6. Difficulty level - While writing a question the setter should be conscious of the difficult level of the question in relation to the ability of pupils for whom the question is meant. The difficulty level of a question usually depends upon the complexity of mental processes involved, the area of content to be tested, and the time available to answer it. It can be estimated fairly well. Actual difficulty index, of course, is obtained only after the question is really tried out and analyzed.

7. Discriminating value - It is not possible to estimate the discriminating value of question unless it is tried out. Nevertheless when some novel situations are involved and common place questions are avoided, the questions definitely go a long way in discriminating bright students from the poor ones. Questions at either extreme of the difficulty continuum are poor discriminators, while those in the middle have been found to be good in this respect.

8. Delimiting scope of the answer - The question writer should see that while framing a question he gives some thought to the expected answer. He may prefer to even write the answer. This would sometimes reveal the weaknesses in the question itself. It should be specific and precise in language so that the scope of the expected answer is clearly delimited.

9. Key, outline answer and marking scheme - In case of objective type questions key must be prepared along with the questions. In case of essay type, short answer and very short answer questions outline answers and the

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marking scheme should also be prepared. Weightage to each value point in terms of marks may also be mentioned.

10. Translatability - Sometimes an item written in one language has to be translated into another for use. It is, therefore, desirable that the wording of the question should be such that it tends itself to translation without affecting the import of the item and the difficulty.

Paper setter, therefore, while constructing a question should be conscious of the various dimensions of a question discussed above as also the other considerations peculiar to a particular form of the question which are discussed hereafter.

Constructing Supply Type Questions

1. Essay Type Questions

An essay type question is one where the response to a question is extended. There is no single correct response. Accuracy and quality of response can be evaluated by a person who knows the topic. These questions require the candidate to select relevant facts, organize them and write the answer in his own words. They generally open with such words as “Explain”, “Describe”, “Interpret”, “Campare", “Discuss", etc.

Essay type tests have been repeatedly criticized by those who are interested in the scientific measurement of achievement but little effort has been made to improve their reliability in spite of the fact that they are widely used by the classroom teacher. If properly constructed, they can measure important outcomes of learning, which cannot be measured otherwise. They have other potential values and unique advantages as an educative influence. On account of their usefulness, there is a need to further improve these questions.

Essay type questions are easy to administer. They can be easily adapted to the various school subjects. Higher mental processes like ability to organize, interpret, summarize, etc. are better evaluated by essay type questions. For constructing better essay type questions, the following considerations may be kept in view :

Requisites of Essay Type Questions

1. Essay type questions should be set to test only those instructional objectives, which are not amenable to testing, by other forms.

2. Each question should be set to test specific mental processes or learning outcomes implied by the objectives in view.

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3. Phrase questions in such a way that their meaning and intent are clear to the examinee.

4. Structure questions in such a way that the scope of the expected answer is clear.

5. Directional words like “What do you know of, "Give an account of,“Write short notes” may be avoided or clearly defined to avoid vagueness of answers and consequent subjectivity of scoring.

6. Maturation level of examinee must be taken into consideration while constructing an essay question. Length and nature of answer will differ from class to class. For example, questions requiring discussion, interpretation, summarization and valuation may be asked in higher classes whereas questions like listing, describing, selecting etc. may be considered for lower classes.

7. Marks should be clearly allocated part-wise, whenever there are more than one parts in the same essay type question.

Need for Training of the Students

Reliability of essay type examinations can further be improved if the students are trained properly through the use of such questions in day to day testing programme in home examinations. They need to be familiarized with the method of attempting such questions in accordance with the connotation of the various words especially the directional words used to circumscribe the nature and scope of the answers expected. This will ensure to a great extent, the consistency in each students’ understanding of what he is required to write in response to a particular question and the way the teacher is going to grade it.

Short Answer Questions

Essay type questions suffer from the lack of objectivity and reliability while objective type questions are often too small to test certain aspects of growth. Short answer questions are a good via-media between the two extremes and serve a useful purpose in overcoming the shortcomings of either type, if understood and framed properly by the teachers. Limits of short answer question cannot be clearly demarcated. For the sake of convenience we can adopt the following criteria. It may be a question whose answer

1. may be within 50-60 words2. may be two to six-seven lines3. may have 2 to 4 credit points4. can be answered in 3 to 5 minutes

The advantages of short answer questions are as under:• Short answer question can be used profitably in both external and

internal examinations.• It can be used to test almost all the objectives of teaching.

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• It helps students to develop the ability of organizing and selecting relevant facts.

• They can be scored more objectively than essay type questions and thereby ensure reliability.

• These questions help in covering more syllabus because more number of these questions can be put in place of one essay type question. This improves the validity of the question paper also.

Constructing Short Answer Questions

Following suggestions can help in formulating good short answer questions :

• Determine the ability to be tested and frame the question based on it. Generally questions of understanding are best suited to short answer question. Compare and contrast, classify, explain in short, summarize, etc. are the key words which can be used as directional words. Ability to express precisely can also be tested.

• Do not write short answer question like short notes in a global structure. The question should be pinpointed with a specific task.

A short answer question should be framed in such a way that it has definite answer. Complicated questions involving discussion and explanations can be broken down into several short answer questions. To make the questions more precise, the writer should keep in mind the language and the directional words to be used and the scope of the intended answer.

Short answer questions are of two varieties :

i) Why is it that Iceland and Tasmania celebrate their Christmas in different seasons ? (Question Form).

ii) Give two differences between rocks and minerals (Statement Form) They may be framed to test various abilities. For example,

Q. Why is the core of the earth solid even though it is hot and has a very high temperature of 4000°C ? (Give reason).

Q. Person 'A' purchases an electric iron which has an ISI mark and person ‘B’ purchases an electric iron without an ISI mark. In your opinion, who is correct and why ? (Analyses).

3. Very Short Answer Questions

Very short answer type questions are those which require one word, one phrase or at the most one sentence answer. These questions generally are for one or half mark each and have one testing point.

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Very short answer type questions can be profitably used in internal as well as external examinations. They ensure better validity because more syllabus can be covered by using a number of V.S.A. questions than an essay type question. Moreover, these questions can be scored more objectively than essay type questions, hence providing better reliability to the test.

Very short answer questions are very useful in testing language achievement, especially for testing the knowledge of structure and vocabulary. But in the other subjects too, they can be used equally profitably.

Very short answer questions may be of many types :

1. Fill up the blanks : This is a very useful type for testing grammatical structures and vocabulary in languages and knowledge of terminology in other subjects.i) I am not satisfied---------------- your explanation.ii) Ann dropped a cup while she-------------------- (wash) the dishes.iii) The most commonly used method for prevention of soil erosion

in hill area is called-------------------

2. Completion Type It is particularly useful for testing expression in language. For example :i) I was so worried------------------ii) She does not know when---------------------

3. Analogy Type :i) Cat: Kitten :: Lion :----------------ii) Soyabean : Protein :: Rice :--------------

4. Location Type : In Geography these questions are used for map reading or map filling.In languages, it can be used for locating key ideas, key words or synonyms or antonyms, etc.

5. Transformation Type : This type is used only in language testing. Areas like Reported speech, Voice, Synthesis or Transformation of sentences can be easily tested through these type of items.

6. Question Form : The item can be asked in a question form or statement form :i) Which of the Akbar’s monuments commemorates his victory

over Gujarat ?ii) What is meant by ‘golden time’ in the following lines ?

"And listen till I do begetThat golden time again”.

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7. Statement Form :i) Mention the name of one Mughal Prince who distinguished

himself in getting many Sanskrit books translated into Persian.

8. Usage type : This is used only in language testing e.g. Use the following words in your own language : ‘feature’, ‘ensure’, etc.

Constructing Very Short Answer Question

The following points are suggested for constructing very short answer type questions.

• To require a single and unique answer, word the question or incomplete statement carefully.

• Before writing a question think of the intended answer first. Then write the question to which that answer is the only appropriate response.

• Use a direct question, unless the complete sentence permits a more concise or clearly defined correct answer.

• Avoid unintended clues to the correct answer.• Word the item as precisely as possible without losing the meaning it

intends to convey.• Avoid using the textbook language in working of an important idea

as the basis for a very short answer item.

Constructing Selection Type Questions

Selection type questions are all objective type questions. Objective- based and objective type tests are often confused with each other. When a question is framed with deliberate attention to the objective which we want to measure, it is an objective-based or objective centred question. Such questions may be of any form like Essay type, Short answer type, Very short answer type or Objective type. But when a question is designed to test the students' achievement in an objective way rather than subjective we can call it objective type question. In an objective type question, there is no space for the evaluator’s subjectivity. Whoever scores such questions, scores them the same way as the answers are not supplied by the student but selected by them.

Forms of objective Type Questions

There are various forms of objective type tests.

True/False or Yes/No Type questions

Questions with two alternatives commonly known as true false or yes no type question is a form in which a statement is given and the student is

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asked to say whether it is right or wrong or true or false. The main disadvantage of T/F items is that there is a 50% chance of guessing and even poor students may score 50% just by guessing. Therefore, these should not be used in formal annual examinations. They are useful in classroom testing as they are quick to construct and score. Such items provide a fairly reliable measure of students’ comprehension of the text particularly in language teaching.

An example of TZF items is given below :

“The day - time temperature in the Sahara is very high, but the nights are very cold. The desert is very dry except in the oases”.

Indicate whether these sentences are true or false by writing T or F in the brackets.

1. Sahara is very hot during the day. ( )2. The oases are very dry. ( )3. There is no water in the desert. ( )

In other subjects also, such questions can be prepared fruitfully for example,

i) Both animals and plants are living things. ( )ii) All animals eat small animals. ( )

2. Matching Type

Matching type items have two or more columns. In a two columnmatching question in one column are written certain facts, concepts, principles, examples, etc. and in the second the related phenomena. For example, we can give principles in one column and the illustrations based on these principles in the other. The student is required to write the matching number of principle involved against the illustration or examples given. In languages, it can be used for testing vocabulary, for example

Direction : Match the words given in column A with the meanings given in column B.

Ai) Barberii) Waiteriii) Baker

Ba) One who makes bread / biscuits, etc.b) One who is incharge of a placec) One who cuts people’s haird) One who serves food in a hotele) One who looks after sick people

In matching type questions more content area may be covered. It reduces reading and response tile as well as provides objective measurement of

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students' learning. Scoring of such questions can be done efficiently and accurately, therefore, test scores are highly reliable. However, these questions are difficult to construct due to the problem of selecting a common set of stimuli and response. Further, it is difficult to measure higher level learning objectives through these questions. Therefore, such questions are more useful in classroom testing rather than in formal annual examination.

3. Multiple Choice Questions

The basic form of all the objective tests is the multiple choice type. As said earlier, it consists of a stem which may be in the question form or in an incomplete statement. The students’ task is to select from the given alternatives the one that is correct. For example :

i) An incomplete statement:He was very much interested ------------------- the story.a) by b) onc) in d) at

ii) Question FormWhich of the following diseases is a non-infectious disease ? a) Small pox b) heart attackc) malaria d) cholera

The effectiveness of the item should depend on how best the item is framed to test the desired objective.

Constructing Multiple Choice questions

Following points may be kept in view while constructing the multiple choice items :

1. Do not use multiple choice type items when only some memorized fact has to be recalled or when answer in mathematical problem has to be got by simple calculation.

2. Give three or more but not more than five choices.3. See that there is only one choice which is correct and avoid choices

overlapping with one another.I Have a clear central problem in each item. Multiple choice item should

not be mere four or more unrelated true false statements connected by a leading question like “which is true”.

5. Make the stem part of the item containing the central problem including in it as much of the items as possible. Choices should not contain anything which would have better been out in the stem.

6. If possible, avoid negatively stated item, as it is likely to confuse the examinee. When it is given, the word, ‘not’ may be either given in capitals or underlined.

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7. Avoid the use of textbook language. Mislead the rote learner by using familiar or stereotyped phrases for distractors.

8. See that all choices provided are sufficiently plausible to be selected by a fair proportion of the examinee. Both correct and incorrect choices should be homogeneous in their mode of expression, length and other external characteristics. The distractors should represent errors commonly made by the students who are to be tested.

9. Avoid making the correct response consistently longer or consistently shorter than the distractors.

10. The correct choice must be different from the distractors consistently in meaning only with no superficial verbal clues.

11. Make sure that articles that 'a', 'an', 'the', do not serve as clues to the correct choice.

12. Arrange the choices in logical order, if one exists.13. See that the position of the correct answer in the series is chosen

entirely at random. Use first and last places as often as the intermediate places.

Table 1Summary comparison of different Forms of Questions

SI.No.

Aspect Essay Short Answer ObjectiveType

1. Objectivestested

Can be used for testing all objectives, more effective for certain higher objectives.

Can be used equally effectively for all objectives.

Cannot be used for testing expression, ability to organize skill, etc.

2. Sampling of content

Gives a very poor sampling of content.

Helps in increasing the sample.

The use of a large number of items results in broad coverage, which makes representative sampling possible.

3. Subjectivity of scoring.

There is a lot of subjectivity of scoring.

Subjectivity of scoring is controlled.

No subjectivity of scoring.

4. Ease of scoring

Very difficult to score Comparatively easy to score

Extremely easy score

5. Ease of preparation

Very easy to prepare Moderately easy to prepare

Difficult to prepare

6. Bluffing in answers

Quite possible Limited Not at all

7. Guessing Not possible Very little Quite possible8. Halo effect Predominant Controlled Impossible

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Action Verbs for testing different objectives

Different action verbs or instructional words are used for testing different objectives. Some action verbs are given below objectivewise.

Knowledge : For testing knowledge of information, following action words may be used. Define, describe, explain, name, list, outline, state, select, recognize, pinpoint, reproduce, identify, match, relate, narrates, find errors, etc.

Understanding : As the abilities involved in understanding are translation, interpretation, inference, extrapolation, comparison, etc. the following action verbs can be used while framing different types of questions.

Write in your own words, rephrase, illustrate, give example, translate, convert, distinguish, compare, contrast, differentiate, classify, arrange, rearrange the sequence, give reasons, justify, discuss, explain, summarise, express, estimate, predict, identify, give the title, identify the main idea or theme, select etc.

Application : For testing application, the student has to analyze, synthesize, apply in an unfamiliar situation, solve problems and evaluate. The action words used for testing application will depend on the context. However, some commonly used action verbs are given below :

Analyse, categorize, synthesize, design, argue, appraise, rate, evaluate, support, defend, judge, value, predict, estimate, discuss, determine, formulate, construct, compose, assemble, combine, etc. It may be noted that many of the action verbs may overlap with different objectives and this will depend on the context in which these terms are being used. It is the context that will in fact decide the actual objective that is being tested.

Considerations for deciding a particular form of question :

Each form of question has its own specific nature and its own strengths and limitations. In fact it is the situation in which a question is used that gives it its advantages or disadvantages.

While selecting a particular form one should keep in mind :• the purpose of testing• the objective of testing• the level of students• the time and resources available

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1. Purpose of Testing

The purpose of testing is also important while deciding a question form. If the purpose is to improve learning and to see the depth of understanding of the students, essay type question is very useful.

When the purpose is to diagnose the difficulties of pupils, each and every teaching point should be covered in the test. In this case very short answer and short answer questions are most suitable. These questions reveal the nature of difficulties that the student is facing because he has to supply the answers. The use of objective type questions in such a situation would be able to tell only what the fault is and not the nature of difficulties.

In an examination situation, where a large amount of content is to be covered and the time available is limited, a variety of question forms may be used. As the purpose here is to classify the students and discriminate between good and poor achievers, these questions should be constructed in such a manner that they reveal their maximum and minimum achievement.

For the purpose of selecting the candidates for some scholarship or posts and in examinations where the examinees are large in number, objective type questions are the most suitable form. These are not only easy and quick to score (they can be scored mechanically too) but also ensure hundred percent objectivity. Hence, the results are very reliable.

2. Objective of Testing

Theoretically speaking almost all objectives can be tested by using any form of question. However, each question form is better suited for testing some specific objectives than any other form. For example, if the objective is to test the ability to organize, integrate, summarize, apply, interpret, present arguments, narrating an even or describing a process, essay type question is a good form to select. On the other hand, if the objective to identify relationship, analyse, make predictions, appraise or evaluate, objective type questions prove to be more useful. In fact, this form can be used to measure a variety of objectives ranging from the lowest level of understanding to higher mental abilities. To use an objective type question for testing simple recall or recognition of facts and information is to misutilize its potentiality. It can be said in reference to the use of objective type questions for testing simple recall that why should one use a sword when only a needle is required.

3. Level of Students

The level of students is also a consideration for selecting a particular form of question. If the students are small, too much writing will not be possible for them. In that case the questions to be selected are objective type, very short answer and short answer type. The use of essay type questions frequently will not be feasible at lower stages of schooling. At

28

higher level, more essay type questions can be used in combination with other forms to test various abilities of students.

4. Time and Resources Available

Time and resources available are also important considerations for selecting a form of question. Time here means the time spent in constructing the test and scoring the answer scripts. If the time is short and the teacher wants a quick review of the lesson, short answer and very short answer questions are a good choice as they are easy to construct and not very time consuming to score.

Resources include man power available and computers, etc. When a test is to be administered on a large number of students and manpower is in short supply, objective type questions should be employed as they can be scored fast without losing on objectivity. They can also be scored by computer. Contrary to this the supply type questions will require a large number of evaluators and longer time.

Whatever be the weaknesses and strengths of different forms of questions, the most vital aspect is that the teacher or the examiner should select particular form keeping in mind the purpose of testing. Prior to constructing the test one should first define the objective, identify the content to be covered and see the time and resources available. Then only one should decide on a particular form of question which in turn should be precisely worded and clear cut in meaning and scope.

5. Preparing a Good Question Paper

A question paper is not just a random assortment of questions. To be an effective instrument of evaluating academic achievement, it has to be framed according to a pattern decided upon in advance. The following steps are necessary for setting good question papers :

A. Preparing a Design of the PaperThe design is not only the first, but also the most important step of

paper setting. It lays down the following dimensions of the question paper.

1. Weigh tage to Objectives

This means the selection of objectives desired to be tested and allotment of marks to each objective according to its relative importance. This will help reduce emphasis on memory alone and ensure testing of higher abilities.

29

2. Weightage to different areas of content

This entails the analysis of the syllabus and the delimitation of the scope of each topic and in the light of that allotment of marks to each such topic for the purpose of framing questions.

3. Weightage to different forms of Questions

Working on the principle that for testing a particular ability and content the most suitable form of question alone should be used, the teacher decides to use different forms of questions in the question paper instead of just the single traditional form, i.e. the essay type question. He also decides on the marks to be allotted to each form of question.

4. Scheme of Options

The design may also indicate the pattern of options i.e. (i) complete elimination of overall options and (ii) the retention, within limits, of internal options. These among themselves may be comparable in respect of the objectives to be tested, the major area of content covered, the form of the question, and the difficulty level of the questions.

5. Sections in the Question paper

Inclusion of objective type questions may necessitate the division of the question paper into sections and the allotment of a separate time limit for answering each. These questions are usually answered in a shorter time and therefore, should not remain with the pupils for longer than just the time necessary for attempting them.

In view of the above consideration, the design may suggest the division of the question paper into two sections, both to be administered simultaneously, but the one containing objective type and very short answer questions to be collected at the end of the given time limit.

B. Preparing a Blue print of the P.iper

A blueprint gives the detail of the design in concrete, operational terms. It is a three-dimensional chart giving the placement of different questions in respect of

1. the objective tested by each2. the content area covered by each and3. the form of question which is most suitable for testing 1

and 2 aboveIn addition to the above three dimensions the blueprint should also indicate:

1. the numerical weightage to each question individually and2. the scheme of options to be adopted in framing the questions.

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C. Preparing a Question Paper based on the blueprint

The next step is the preparation of questions on the basis of the blueprint referred to above.

The framing of questions based on the blueprint would necessitate the knowledge of objectives and their specifications, a mastery over the subject matter and skill in framing different forms of questions.

While writing or selecting questions for the paper it should be kept in mind that the question

1. is based on some specific objective of teaching2. relates to a specific content area3. is written in the form as required by the blueprint and satisfied the

rules for framing that form of question4. is at the desired level of difficulty5. is written in clear, correct and precise language which is well within

the comprehension of pupils and6. clearly indicates the scope and length of the answer

D. Editing the Question Paper

Editing the question paper is a step of crucial importance. It consists of the following measures.

1. Assembling the QuestionsAssembling the questions into sections is usually done on the basis of

their forms, i.e. the objective type and/or the very short answer type may be put in one section and the short answer and the essay type may be placed in another section.

Within each section again, there could be sections based on the content area. The questions may preferably be organized in a graded order of difficulty.

2. Instructions to ExamineeThe editing may have important implications for the administration of

the question paper, that is, in view of the division of the question paper into sections based on forms of questions, it may be necessary to give a specific time limit to the section containing fixed response type of questions. This will obviate chances of malpractices to a very great extent.

E. Preparing Scoring Key, Outline Answers and Marking SchemeIt is essential to prepare the scoring key, outline answers and the

marking scheme before finalizing the paper for administration. This will help

31

in detecting errors and vagueness, if any and contribute to greater objectivity and reliability of scoring.

The scoring key is to be prepared for the objective type questions and the marking scheme for the essay, short answer and very short answer questions. The marking scheme gives the expected outline of the answer and the marks that each point or aspect of the answer deserves. In case there are more points than provided for in the marking scheme and the students has the freedom to choose only a limited number of them, it should be indicated that any of the points given in the expected answers or similar other points given by them may be taken as correct. As far as possible, effort should be made to give all the points that may be relevant to the question, irrespective of the number asked for in the question.

F. Preparing the Questionwise analysis

The questionwise analysis will enable the paper setter to know the strengths and weaknesses of the question paper more thoroughly. It will also ensure a check as to how far the question paper conforms to the blueprint. Each question has to be analysed in terms of the following elements :

1. Objective tested by the question2. Specification on which the question is based3. Topic and sub-topic covered by the question4. Form of the question5. Estimated difficulty level6. Approximate time required for answering7. Marks allotted to questions

These details are given in a tabular form and each column of the table, duly filled in, will give a precise picture of the distribution of questions either over the different objectives or the areas of content or the forms of questions.

32

2. CONCEPT OF EVALUATION

From educational view point evaluation may be defined as a systematic process of determining the extent to which educational objectives are achieved by the pupils.

The expected competencies developed through teaching are to be measured periodically, which will reflect the academic performance/ scholastic achievement of the child. This is done through the testing process. Testing is a component of teaching-learning process. Testing is to test a few/sample competencies only.

Testing discloses/reveals the academic performance of the child in terms of quality, i.e. numerals/grades. These numerals are the basis for a teacher/institution to convert them into the quality. This is done based on values. The first element of this activity i.e. awarding marks or grades in valuation. Valuation strengthens the hands of teachers to offer judgement about child's progress. Value judgement is based on the values obtained through valuation. Valuation plus value judgement, within the prevailing norms, leads to evaluation.

VA + VJ -> EVA

Evaluation is a comprehensive and continuous process to assess the behavioural changes which includes knowledge, competencies and changes in attitude, aptitude, interests, values and skills.

Evaluation is a sequential process with four stages, viz. input, process, diagnostic and product. In educational terms, these are called the types of evaluation.

The input evaluation is to know the capacities of the child at the entry level and coping up strategies. That is why this is called 'Placement Evaluation'. The child is processed through teaching and learning throughout the academic year. The progress of the child is measured periodically through process of evaluation. In case, the performance of the child is not upto the expected level or it falls down from time to time, the necessity of diagnostic evaluation arises. This helps us in knowing the factors or causes responsible for the decline/ deficiency in achievement. This helps the teacher to find remedies to overcome the problem and help the child for proper growth. This is a diagnostic evaluation, at the end of the academic year. There is a need to assess the overall performance of the child which is termed as summative evaluation. This enables the teacher/system to qualify/ certify the child for further upward movement in career or further promotion to higher classes.

In oral approach, the teachers employ tools like questioning, discussion, debate and more frequently quiz.

33

Firstly evaluation implies a systematic process, distinct from casual, uncontrolled observations of pupils.

Secondly, evaluation assumes previously identified educational objectives.

Evaluation is a much more comprehensive term than ‘measurement’ which is limited to quantitative descriptions of pupils’ behaviour. Evaluation includes both qualitative and quantitative descriptions of pupil behaviour with value judgement concerning the desirability of that behaviour. Measurement does not include judgements concerning the value of the behaviour observed.

Purpose of Evaluation

The main purpose of evaluation in a classroom situation is to change pupil behaviour in a desired direction. Thus evaluation becomes an integral part of the teaching-learning situation. The desired directions are educational objectives established by curriculum. Thus evaluation becomes the process of determining the extent to which these objectives are achieved :

Teaching Learning

P = Process

The interdependence of these three facets of education is clearly recognizable from the following steps.

1. Identifying and defining the objectives in terms of desired changes in pupil behaviour.

2. Planning and directing learning experiences in harmony with the stated educational objectives.

3. Determining pupil progress towards the stated educational objectives.4. Using the results of evaluation to improve learning and instruction.

34

Types of Evaluation Procedures

There are wide varieties of procedures

Qualitative techniques Quantitative techniques(results expressed only (results are reduced toin verbal technique) numerical scores)

In addition to this broad classification, there are two major ways of

classification of evaluation procedures.

In terms of aspects of Behaviour to be evaluated

Aptitudes (test designed to predict future learning activity)

In terms of evaluative method

Testing Procedure

Oral WrittenAchievement (test designated to indicate degree of success in some part learning activity

Self Report technique

Interests Interview Questionnaire

Observation techniquesAttitudes

Personal - social adjustments

fo evaluate pupils’ interests, Attitudes, skills and personal activities

General Principles of Evaluation1. Determining and clarifying what is to be evaluated has priority in

evaluation process.2. Evaluation techniques should be selected in terms of purposes to be

served.3. Comprehensive evaluation requires a variety of evaluation techniques.4. Evaluation is means to an end but not an end in itself, henceforth it

should be comprehensive and continuous.

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Relating Evaluation Procedures to Objectives

The following sequence of steps summaries this procedure.

General Objectives (goals which direct our teaching)

Specific learning outcomes (pupil's behaviours are accepted as

evidences of attainment of objectives)

Evaluation Techniques (procedures for obtaining samples of pupil

behaviour described in the learning outcomes)

All the procedures used in evaluation programme should possess certain common characteristics. They are of validity, reliability and objectivity.

Validity

Any good test should be measured what it claims to measure.

In construction the following points are to be followed.

1. Determine the scope of the testDoes the test cover a lesson, a unit, a phase, a specific job or some

other measurable part of the training activities.

2. Determine what is to be measuredDesign a test that measures attitudes, abilities, skills, knowledge,

understanding are application or mastery of principles and facts.

3. Select the test itemsWrite items for each topic and/or sub-topic without regard for the

number of test items that will be used in the final draft or prepare as many examination items as possible.

4. Select the techniqueTry to select the testing technique most suitable for the purpose of the

test. Always keep in mind the objectives of the training programme.

5. Fix the length of the testChoose the number of items that will cover the instructional material

adequately.

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6. Selection of the final itemsChoose those items that treat the most essential and significant

portions of instructions. Never use a test item to measure material not covered by the instructional activities.

7. Arrange the test items in final formGroup similar items together and arrange them in an appropriate and

approximate order of their difficulty.

8 Prepare directions for the testThe instructor is obliged to make it perfectly clear what the trainee is to

do and how the trainee is to do it.

a) Prepare the scoring divides aid in the speed and accuracy of evaluating the pupils.

Reliability

A good test item is one that is reliable and made on the basis of validity. It gives the same rating to a candidate even if he is examined by different examiners at different times. The other criteria involved in evaluation are comprehensive practicability and acceptability.

Objectivity

A test can be considered to be objective, if the scoring of the test is not affected by the examiner’s personal judgement. Thus the opinion, bias or judgement of the examiner can have no influence on the results of the objective test.

Functions of Assessment

Two main functions of assessment can be perceived. One is norm referenced in which the main function is to discriminate among students and place them in an order of merit. It is essentially competitive, the result being used for selection purpose. The second is criterion-based or referenced. It is essentially diagnostic, describing the knowledge or skill, which students have attained or not.

37

Dean is addressing the participants

Dr.G.Anwar thanked the participants for developing the training package'in a short period.

p

Dr P Veerappan, Incharge Head, DEE is addressing the participants from Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

p- 2-

From left to right ((Prof Viswanath, Principal, Maliarani College, Mysore; Prof.G.T.Bhanilage, Dean of Instruction, RIE, Mysore;

Prof.Ra main u rtliy from Hyderabad and Dr.G.Anwar, Coordinatorof the programme)

Prof Viswanath expressing his views about the workshop

TRAINING OF PAPER-SETTERS IN LATEST TRENDS, ISSUES AND PRACTICES IN THE EVALUATION OF SCHOOL SUBJECTS AT

SECONDARY LEVEL OF ANDHRA PRADESH AT SCERT, HYDERABAD

5-9 DECEMBER 2005

Model Question Papers Developed During Training by the Participants

TRAINING OF PAPER SETTERS

SSC (ENGLISH) - TELUGU MEDIUM

Recommendations I Suggestions

1. As it is clear from the opinions of many English teachers regarding

14lh question of I paper, we want to suggest to keep this question

between 20 and 23 since the difficulty level of this question is high

and it is troubling the pupils psychologically.

2. Concerning the question No.16 i.e. Comprehension, Passage,

many teachers felt that the compression passage itself is very

lengthy and unfamiliar and kinds of questions are too many. Pupils

are facing a lot of difficulty to understand and answer. Hence we

suggest that this comprehension passage should be short and

simple, and the kinds of questions to be minimized to two kinds of

questions. The first one is one-word answer questions four; the

second one is fill in the blanks questions four. Each carries one mark.

38

SSC ENGLISH PAPER I MODEL BLUE PRINT

Q.No.

Subject. - Unit / Sub Unit

UnitNo

MarksAllotted

Knowledge ContentComprehension

Expression Skill Total

E SA VSA O E SA VSA O E SA VSA O E SA VSA O1. Main Reader 20 5(10) 5(15) 1(5) 11(20)2. Supple­

mentaryReader

10 5(5) 5(5) 10(10)

3. ReadingCompre­Hensiona) Familiarb) Unfamiliar

0515

5(5)15(15)

5(5)15(15)

4. Writing Tasks 20 2(20) 2(20)5. Structure Z

Grammar04 4(04) 4(04)

8 Vocabulary 14 5(6) 4(8; 9(14,7. Language use/

Functions12 8(12, 8(12)

Total 100 10(15) 5(6) 5(5) 25(25) 2(20) 4(4) 12(20) 1(5) 64(10021% 3:% 44% 5%

39

SSC ENGLISH PAPER II MODEL BLUE PRINT

Q.No.

Subject. - Unit /Sub Unit

UnitNo

MarksAllotted

Knowledge ContentComprehension

Expression Skill Total

E SA VSA O E SA VSA O E SA VSA O E SA VSA O1. Main Reader2. Supple­

mentaryReader

10 5(5) 5(5) 10(10)

3. ReadingCompre­hensionc) Familiard) Unfamiliar

0515

5(5)15(15)

5(5)15(15)

4. Writing Tasks 20 2(20) 2(20)5. Structure /

Grammar6. Vocabulary7. Language use/

FunctionsTotal 50 5(5) 5(5) 20(20) I 2(20) 32(50)

40

SSC ENGLISH PAPER I MODEL BLUE PRINT

Q.No.

Subject. - Unit / Sub Unit

; Unit No

MarksAllotted

Knowledge ContentComprehension

Expression Skill Total

E SA VSA O E SA VSA O E SA VSA O E SA VSA O1- Main Reader 20 5(10) 5(5) 1(5) 11(20)2. Supple­

mentaryReader

3. ReadingCompre­Hensione) Familiarf) Unfamiliar

! 4. Writing Tasks5. Structure Z

Grammar04 4(4) 4(4)

6. Vocabulary 14 5(6) 4(8) 9(14)7. Language use/

Functions12 8(12) 9(12)

Total 50 5(10) 5(6) 5(5) 4(4) 12(20) 1(5) 32(50)21% 30% 44% 5% 100

41

SSC PUBLIC EXAMINATIONS

ENGLISH

PAPER - ITime : 2 % Hours Max. Marks: 50

PART AMax. Marks : 20 Time:11/2hrs

Note : Answer the questions under Part A on a separateanswer paper.

1. Answer any FIVE of the following questions in one or two sentences each. (5x2 = 10)

1. Why did the people grew poorer and sadder? (The King and the Tamarind Drum).

2. What did Ivan bring home one day ? What did Ivan’s wife do with it? (Polya).

3. What is the main aim of Chipko Movement ? What does the word Chipko mean? (Chipko)

4. How did the narrator behave whenever he entered into a bank? (My Financial Career).

5. Why did Hollis Meynell refuse to send her photograph to lieutenant Blandford? (A test of True Love)

6. When and how did Howard Carter die ? (The Curse of Tutenkhamen).

7. What did a young girl give Sudha in Washington? Why ? (Daring on).

8. Why was the old woman happy when the young man walked into her room ? (Christmas meeting).

9. In what way were the dogs different from their masters / (Dog is man’s best friend).

42

10. How many times did the man fire at Gandhiji? Who fired the shots?

11. Complete the following stanza : (1x5 = 5 times)

a) Each, for his own.......................

To me as music

OR

b) Where the clear stream...............

country awake.

12. Read the following passage carefully.Local Egyptians took this to mean that the spirit of the dead King had left his tomb, cursing those who had opened it.

Now answer the following questions : 2x1 = 2

1. Name the King mentioned in the passage.2. What does 'this' mean in the passage ?

13. Read the following passage carefully. 3x1 = 3

The conversation was important.There had been rumours of disagreements between Patel and Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.

i) Who were the two people taking part in the conversation ?

ii) The disagreements were between two persons? Who are they ?

iii) Where did the conversation take place ?

43

ENGLISH PAPER I

Time : 2 1/2 Hours Max. Marks : 50

PART B

Time : 1 hour Marks : 30

Note : Answer the questions in this part on the question paper itself. Candidates must use the capital letters while answering the multiple choice questions.

14. Complete the following passage choosing the right words from those given below. Each blank is numbered and for each blank, four choices A, B, C and D are given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write A, B, C or D in the blank.

5 x 1/2 = 2 R

Clothes are important------------------------(1) They can tell people

many things----------------------- -(2) us. ---------- --------(3) can

show people what work we — - --------- (4) They can make us

look beautiful---------------------- -(5) ugly.

1. a) So b) because c) as d) for

2. a) about b) on c) among d) for

3. a) we b) those c) they d)l

4. a) did b) done c) are doing d) do

5. a) and b) but c) so d) or

15. Match the parts of sentences under A with those in letter of the sentence is B against the sentence in A.

B. Write the 5 x 1/2 = 2 1/2

1. You can speak English ( ) a)abruptly and dramatically

2. As the house was open ( ) b) so that you don't miss bus

3. The meeting ended ( ) c) a thief came in

4. He fell asleep ( ) d) can’t you ?

44

5.

16.

17.

18

19.

20.

21.

1.2.3.4.

22.

1.

2.

3.

4.

e) while he was watching TVLeave home early ( )

Study the following pair of sentences and answer the question. (1)

i) Sudha stopped to talk to Arunaii) Sita stopped talking to Anitha

Which two girls are not in good terms ?

Combine these sentences using too.....to (1)a) He is weakb) He cannot walk

Add the question Tag. (1)Ravi went home.-----------------------?

Change the following into the passive. (1)I am writing a letter.

Report the following into indirect speech. (1)My father said, "Did you take lunch?”

Fill in the blanks choosing the right words from those given in brackets. 4x 1/2 = 2

He is suffering----------------------fever (with, from, by)Every day he goes to school------------ foot (by, on, with)He left------------- Hyderabad yesterday (to, for, at)He is sitting---------------two girls, (between, among, in)

Choose the right answer from those given in the brackets and fill in the blanks. 4x1/2 = 2

The thief-------------- his crime and surrendered before the police.(agreed, admitted, expected)

Ram and Rahim work in the same office, they are--------------(Partners, Colleagues, allies)

When he asked her to send her photograph, she--------------(refused, rejected, denied)

I am afraid she has made a wrong---------------(chance, choice, occasion)

45

23.

a)

b)

c)

d)

24.

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

25.

1.

2.

3.

4.

26.

Fill in the blanks with words opposite in the meaning to those underlined. 4 x 14 = 2

Rural population is more in our country than---------- population.

The hero in the cinema is physically strong but mentally---------

He wants to be polite but he is often-----------------

These fruits are not natural, they are---------------------------

Fill in the blanks with the right form of the underlined words.4 x 14 = 2

He made the confession in the crime. No one expected him to ------------------------s0 early.

I received the parcel and sent the------------------------back.

I doubt him because he is always--------------------

I could not imagine this collapse, it was beyond my-----------------

His views were wrong and they were received--------------------bythe others.

Put the following words under the correct headings: 8 x 14 = 2

nurse, student, station, clerk, businessman, auditorium, hospital, garden

Persons Places

-------------------------------- 2. -----------------------------

--------------------------------- 3 -----------------------------

--------------------------------- 4-----------------------------

Complete the following words using ui, iu, ia or ai. 2x 14 = 1a) mosq------ to b) million — re

46

27. Complete the following words with the correct letters in thebrackets. 2 x 1Z- = 1

a) immedia--------------(tly / tely)b) Pat------- (ient / iant)

28. One word in each list is wrongly spelt. Underline the wrongly speltword. 2 x >2 = 1

a) courage, marriage, village, damageb) strange, narrow, unusual, alive

29. Look at the two sets of words given below. In each set the letters underlined in two words are pronounced in the same way. Find the words and copy them out. 2 x !6 = 1a) claim, learn, lane, breastb) human, support, rule, cute

30. Arrange the following words in alphabetical order. 4 x >2 = 2 Contract, comrade, control, costume

31. Your neighbour is watching T.V. at high volume. How do you ask him/ her to reduce the volume in a polite way ? (1)

32. What do the following sentences mean ? Put (S) against the right answer. 2 x 1/2 = 1

a) There is a knock on the door.Would you please open the door ?........................a) question ......................c) request.........................b) advice ......................d) offer

b) May I help you ?

a) asking a question (-------------------)b) making a request (-----------------------)c) offering help (------------------------)d) making a suggestion (------------- )

33. Change the following into a polite request. Permit me to use yourcellphone. (1)

34. Suppose your brother has passed SSC. How would you wish ?Put a (^) mark against right answer.

a) best of luck ( )b) All the best ( )c) Congratulations ( )d) Keep it up ( )

47

ENGLISH PAPER-II (Third language)

PARTS A & B

Time : 2 % Hours Max. Marks: 50

Instructions :1. Answer the questions under Part A on a separate answer book.2. Write the answers to the questions under Part B on the question

paper itself.3. Start answering the questions as you read them.

PART A

Time : 1 !4 Hours Marks : 30

I. Answer any five of the following questions. Each answer must be in one or two sentences. 5x1=5

1. Why was Bassanio always in need of money ?2. Why was Portia unhappy about the arrangement for her marriage ?3. Describe briefly how Jessica escaped from her father’s house ?4. What did the golden casket contain ?5. What good news did Portia bring for Antonio?6. Why did Portio ask Shylock to arrange a doctor ?7. Why was Antonio arrested and thrown into prison ?8. What kind of a ;bond did Shylock want from Antonio ?9. How did the lawyer’s clerk get the ring from Gratiano ?10. Portio made an appeal to Shylock at the beginning. What was the

appeal ?

11. Read the following passage carefully."As soon as you go on”, he told her, “shut all the doors and windows from inside. The more safely you fasten them, the better it is for you. There may be a procession tonight. If you hear the noise of the drum, do not come out. Let not such foolish sounds enter my sober house. Remember I may come back any moment”.

Now answer the questions.

1. Who is the speaker ?2. Who does ’her’ refer to here ?3. Why did he want all doors and windows to be shut ?4. What warning does he give her ?5. What kind of a person do you think the speaker is ?

48

12. Write a story using the hints given below in about 200 words.Divide it into three paragraphs. (10)

Hungry fox - goes here and there - cannot find anything to eat - comes to a grape garden - sees bunches of grapes high up - jumps up several times - cannot reach it - gives up - walks away saying, grapes are not sweet - sour.

OR

Crocodile in a river - wants to eat monkey on tree - difficult - thinks of a plan - invites money to his house - offers to carry on its back - half way into river - tells money that his wife fond of monkey’s liver - monkey clever - says it has left liver on tree - asks to take him back - climbs up the tree and escapes.

13. There have been many thefts in the neighbouring houses in yourlocality. There was a theft in the temple, another house was broken open when the owners went away. Write a letter to the Sub-Inspector of Police drawing his attention to this. (10)

ORYour friend met with an accident but escaped with minor injuries. Write a letter to him/her consoling him/her. Wish him/her a speedy recovery.

ENGLISH PAPER- (Third language)

PARTS A & B

Time : 2 1/z Hours

PART A

Time : 1 Hour

Max. Marks: 50

Marks : 20

Note: Write answers to the questions in this part on the question paper itself.

14. Read the following passage carefully

Immediately, many American Universities offered him scholarships but he turned down all the offers. The burden of poverty was still

49

very weary. His father had just then been removed from a job. Jessee Owens finally joined Ohio State University only when his father was given a job by the State of Ohio. At the University, he was coached by Larry Snyder and in just two years, he hit the peak of his own. And what a peak it was! It brought him nine world records and four Olympic gold medals.

Now answer the following questions in a word or phrase each.5x1=5

a) What did the Universities want Jesse to do ?

b) Why could not Jesse accept the offers ?

c) Why was Jesse able to join Ohio University ?

d) What was Jesse's achievements in two year’s time ?

e) ‘.......................... he hit the peak of his form'. What does theexpression mean ?

15. Read the following passage carefully.

The Dinosaurs were cold-blooded creatures. They could not heat their own bodies. They needed the heat from the sun to stay alive and move about. When the weather gets colder, their bodies became slower and they could not even more to collect their food. But crocodiles are also cold-blooded animals. The crocodile is a water animal as well. When the weather was cold, the crocodile shipped deep into the water and kept warm. But most Dinosaurs were land animals. They could not stay under water, and when the land was covered in deep snow, the Dinosaurs were in great trouble. They could not adapt the changing conditions and could not survive.Now answer the following.

a) Each of the following questions has three choices. Put a tick (^) mark against the right answer. 4x1=4

1. The greatest problem that the cold blooded animals face is thata) they cannot warm up their body on their own. [ ]b) they cannot live without the help of sun or [ ]

waterc) they cannot survive in the snow [ ]

2. All animals need--------------for survivala) sun light [ ]b) warm water [ ]

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c) food [ ]3.

a)b)c)

4.a)b)c)

b)

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

16.

The Dinosaurs have disappeared whereas the crocodiles have survived because

they could live on land as well as in water they were smaller than Dinosaurs they could defeat the Dinosaurs in the battle for survival

[ ]

The word “adapt" here meansadoptacceptadjust [ 1

Given below are six statements. Three of them are true according to the passage. Find the three statements and write (T) against them in brackets. 3x1 = 3

The sun decreases the body heat of the cold [ ]blooded animals.Cold weather slows down the animals’ [ ]ability to move.Crocodiles are cold-blooded because they [ ]are water animals.At great depths, water must be warm because [ ]the crocodiles stay there.The Dinosaurs stayed under water when there [ ]was heavy snow over the land.The crocodiles and the Dinosaurs belong to [ ]the same family of animals.

Read the following passage carefully.

Some people like doing dangerous things. Some of them love diving deeper to the bottom of the oceans. Some others are fond of climbing higher to the tops of mountains.

Mount Everest is the highest peak in this world. It is 8848 metres high. It is named after Colonel Everest.

In 1924, a team lead by Mallory started climbing the peak. Mallory’s team almost reached the top when Mallory and a friend disappeared in a cloud of snow.

Man finally conquered Everest in 1953. Edmond Hillary and Sherpa Tenzing set foot on the top of the peak on 29th May 1953 at

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11.30 a.m. They stood on the highest point on the surface of the earth.

a) Now answer the following questions in a word or a phrase.4 x 1=4

1. Which is the highest peak in the world ?

2. Name the two men who finally climbed the Everest.

3. How high is the Mount Everest ?

4. When was the Everest conquered ?

b) Complete the following sentences using a word or a phrase?4x1=4

1. In 1924, a team lead by Mallory started----------------the peak.

2. Some people love diving deeper to the----------- of the oceans.

3. Mallory’s friend disappeared in a-------------------

4. Mount Everest is named after-----------------------

*******

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TRAINING OF PAPER SETTERS

SSC ENGLISH (ENGLISH MEDIUM)

ENGLISH PAPER-I (Third Language)

Time : 2 ’A Hours Max. Marks: 50

(1-8) Answer each of the following questions in about THREE sentences. 8x2 = 16

1. Who do you think was the man who waved out to Schwamm’s son from the train ? Why do you think so ? (The Night at the Hotel)

2. What do you think is the lesson [jr.Christian Barnard learnt from his two young patients ? (In Celebration of being Alive)

3. Who found Anna and her child starving and begging on a Daryaganj Street ? What did that person do ? (Circus Cat, alley Cat)

4. The author tells Mother Teresa that there are too many poor people and that she cannot possibly help them ail. What was Mother Teresa's response? Do you think this is a good response ? Why do you think so ? (Mother Teresa)

5. Describe Rex, briefly. (Snapshot of a Dog)

6. What are the poet’s views on ‘education’ in the poem Snake? (Snake)

7. Do you think Vinoba was a true disciple of Mahatma Gandhi? Why? (Vinoba - A Portrait Sketch)

8. Two kinds of lives are depicted in the poem Upagupta. What are they? (Upagupta)

(9-13) Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the word on the left and write it in your answer book. (5x 1/2 = 2%)

9. Brutal : damage, cruesl, tear, destroy

10. demonstrate : spread out, bring in, criticize, show

11. tranquil confusing, energetic, peaceful, unusual

12. innovate : invent, invite, insist, impress

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13. transformation: insult, change, attraction, improvement

(14-18) Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the underlined word from the options given and write it in your answer book.

(5 x % = 2Ya)

14. The friendly website helped people access the government's policy easily.a) evaluate b) understandc) strengthen

15. The teacher focused on spoken English.a) concentrated on b) dealt exclusively withd) ignored

16. The students responded enthusiastically,a) with great interest b) without any interestc) disinterestedly

17. The silly cock perceives itself as the harbinger of dawn,a) falsely assumes b) rightly believesc) looks upon

18. The reference by the student to films was out of place.a) incorrect b) unnecessaryc) inappropriate

(19-24) Choose the alternate that best fits the blank in each sentence and write it in your answer. (6 x !6 = 3)

19. Ramesh was the most---------------------------student in his class.(indistinct, intelligent, intellectual)

20. Steffi Graff was a--------------------tennis player.(dedicated, decided, directed)

21. The river Ganga is a-------------------river for the Hindus.(holi, wholly, holy)

22. After her husband's death, the old woman has been living a--------life, (lonely, alone, by herself)

23. Neeta could not--------------------her wishes to her father.(describe, express, narrate)

24. The old man had a / an-----------------------expression on his face.(occupied, preoccupied, unoccupied)

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(25-28) Find the wrongly - spelt word in each of the following sets and write it correctly in your answer book. 4 x 1/<= 1

25. greif perceive relieve receive

26. ordinary prominence ambulence stationary

27. disciple disease discipline diception

28 harmony musican rhythm venerate

(29-36) Write out in your answer book the words of your choice against the question numbers.

(29-32) In each set, find the words in which the underlined part is pronounced in the same way as in the key word. 4x%= 1

29. seem : height leap indure tier

30. boil : high fry employ Srlil

31. talked : heated dump thought dived

32 annual : numbers guarded cured funny

(33-36) Find the word in each set that rhymes with the keyword.

33. shirt : start hurt

(4x56 = 1)

art heart

34. staff : tough rough laugh stuff

35. west : least breast taste waist

36. brow : now show know love

37. Read the following passage in which the end of each sentence isnot indicated. Decide where each sentence ends. Write out the last words of each sentence and the appropriate punctuation marks(.), (!) or (?). 4 x 56 = 2

How interesting who gave you this news thank you for telling me.

38. Use commas, full stops, question/ quotation/ exclamation markswherever necessary and rewrite the sentences in your answer book. 3 x 56 = 1 56

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The teacher raised her finger and warned no talking Ramesh cleared his throat and said excuse me madam.

(39-43) Read sentence (a). Then complete sentence (b) using the ideas in sentence (a). Keep sentence (b) as close in meaning as possible to sentence (a). Write it in your answer be ok. 5x1=5

39. a) It was raining heavily. The mourners turned out in large numbers.

b) Despite..................................................................................

40. a) “I have had a nice holiday”, said the teacher, smiling.

b) The teacher smiled and said...........................................

41. a) The car was expensive. The car was gifted to him by his father.

b) The car.................................................................................

42. a) You must reach the station within fifteen minutes or you will miss the train.

b) If......................................................................................

43. a) The poor man used to carry his heavy load to the market every day.

b) The heavy load....................................................................

44. Identify the part of speech of each underlined word. Write down the words and their parts of speech in your answer book. 4x1/2 =2

He bought a new flat and they quickly moved into it.

45. Rewrite the following after making necessary corrections. 1x1=1

This only is the house that we are owning.

46. Rewrite the following passage making improvements you think arenecessary. 1x2=2

Yesterday we went visiting our relatives. Our relatives live in another town. We travelled by train to that town. We spent our weekend with our relatives. We ate lots of good food. We played many games. We enjoyed our trip and our stay with our relatives.

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(47-51) Read the following passage and answer the questions given below it. (5x1=5)

In small primitive societies, nobody needed money because everybody worked together and shared things, but in bigger societies people specialize. For example, one person spends all his time making pots and another spends all his time fishing. The fisherman needs pots and the potter needs fish. So they exchange or barter. However, this system can become very complicated if, for instance, the potter wants ten fish but the fisherman wants only one pot. For this reason, people began to use money. They agreed to take a valuable object, such as a shell, a stone or a piece of metal in exchange for what they were selling. They could collect the object and wait until they found something they really wanted to buy. Gold and silver were often used as money because they could be divided into very small quantities and they were not damaged by water or air. Gold is especially valuable because there is not very much of it in the world and it is expensive to take it out of the ground where it is mixed with rock.

47. What does the passage talk mainly about ?

48. What is the 'barter' system ?

49. What were the things used for money at first ?

50. What are the two reasons why gold and silver were used as money?

51. Why is gold especially valuable as money ?

52. Read the following passage.

The king of Magdha was known for his wisdom and justice.

“Do you believe in luck?” said the King one day to one of his officers."Yes,” answered the office, "I do”.“Ah!" laughed the King. “I am afraid you could not prove to me that there is such a thing in this world”.“That may be, your Majesty,” answered the officer, “but, if it pleases you, we may try to find out. I have thought even now of a plan”.He whispered in the King’s ear, and his Majesty replied : “Very good, very good, indeed; let us try it without any loss of time”.So that night the officer hung a bag from the ceiling of one of the rooms in the palace. What it contained none but the King and the officer knew. Then two men were put into the room. When the

57

door was shut, one of the men who believed in luck laid himself down in a corner and prepared for sleep; the other looked about him and at once saw the bag hanging from the ceiling.He reached up and put in his hand and found some peas. “One might have a worse supper", he thought as he took out a handful and ate them.Presently he came on some diamonds, but in the dark he thought they were stones and of no value. So he threw them towards his companion saying : You may take these stones for your idleness”.In the morning the King and his officer came to the room, and told each man he may keep what he had found. One man got the peas which he had eaten; the other got the diamonds.

“Now your Majesty", said the officer.“Truly”, said the King, "you seem to have the best argument. There may be such a thing as luck; but it is as rare as peas mixed with diamonds and so let none hope to live by luck".

Now read the following statements and find SIX of them which are in agreement with the passage. Write only the letters of the TRUE statements. 6 x 1/2 = 3

a) The King was a wise and just ruler.b) No one knew what was in the bag.c) The bag contained diamonds and peas.d) The bag was kept in the corner of the room.e) The King did not believe in luck.f) The officer had a plan to test the working of luck in men’s lives.g) The person who ate the peas shared them with his companion.h) The officer believed in luck.i) The person who believed in luck got ready to sleep in the dark

room.j) The moral of the story is that luck will always help us.

(53-55) Read the following passage.

Horsley Hills is not very well known as a tourist spot. It is this feature which makes the place interesting for the traveller. The climate is pleasant for most parts of the year, barring a few weeks in winter when we need to take out the heavy sweaters. Horsley Hills is 144 km from Tirupati, 150 km from Bangalore and 25 kms from Madanapalle. There are regular buses from all these places. Taxis are available from Tirupati and Madanapalle. The nearest airport, Tirupati is well connected to other cities and towns across India.

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Horsley Hills is located in Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh. When the British were ruling India, W.D.Horsley, the Collector of Cuddapah, accidentally wandered off into the hill ranges of Chittoor and discovered this pristine tract of hill country. He was fascinated by the natural beauty and the pleasant climate and constructed a cottage and spent his summers there. Soon the region came to bear his name. In 1958 a road was laid to the cottage to the top of the hill and it was the summer resort of the Governor of Andhra Pradesh.

Now complete the following statements. In each case write down the number of the statement and your choice in your answer book.

3 x % = 1 1/2

53. Horsley Hills is interesting becausea) it was the Governor’s summer resortb) it is relatively unknownc) it is near Tirupati

54. The closest town to Horsley Hills isa) Tirupatib) Bangalorec) Madanapalle

55. Horsley Hills has been known by that name sincea) W D Horsley, the collector of Cuddapah, set up residence

there.b) 1958c) the Governor made it his summer resort.

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SSC ENGLISH PAPER I Third Language - English Medium

MODEL BLUE PRINT

Q.No.

Content Area MarksAllotted

Knowledge Comprehension Expression Appreciation TotalSA VSA P SA VSA P SA VSA P SA VSA P

1. Main Reader 4(8) 2(4) 2(4) 8(16)2. Vocabulary 8(2) 10(5) 4(1) 22(8)

3. Structures/GrammarItems

5(5) 5(5)

4. ReadingComprehension

5(5) 4(4 %) 9 (9%)

5. Language Use 2 (4 %) 9(7) 11(11 %)

Total 9(13) 8(2) 5(5) 4(41/2

)

4(8 %) 19(12) 2(4) 4(1) 55(60

17(1 5) 9(9 % ) 23 (20 1/2 ) 6(5)

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WEIGHTAGE TO THE CONTENT

SI.No.

Content Areas No. of Questions

Marks Percentage

1. Main Reader 08 16 322. Vocabulary 22 08 163. Structure/ Grammar Items 05 05 104. Reading Comprehension 09 09 1/2 195. Language use 11 11 1/2 23

Total 55 50 100

WEIGHTAGE TO THE OBJECTIVES

SI.No.

Objectives No. of Questions

Marks Percentage

1. Knowledge 17 15 302. Comprehension 09 9 1/2 193. Expression 23 20 1/2 414. Appreciation 06 05 10

Total 55 50 100

WEIGHTAGE TO THE TYPES OF QUESTIONS

SI.No.

Types of Questions No. of Questions

Marks Percentage

1. Very Short Answer (VSA) 35 19 1/2 392. Short Answer (SA) 20 30 1/2 613. Paragraph (P) — — —

Total 55 50 100

WEIGHTAGE TO THE DIFFICULTY LEVEL

SI.No.

Difficulty Level No. of Questions

Marks Percentage

1. Easy(E) 11 10 202. Average (A) 33 30 603. Difficulty (D) 11 10 20

Total 55 50 100

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CHANGES SUGGESTED IN PAPER - I

I. Changes suggested with regard to weightage in Paper I :

SI.No.

Objectives PresentWeightage

SuggestedWeightage

1. Knowledge 41% 30%2. Comprehension 19% 19%3. Expression 34% 41%4. Appreciation 6% 10%

II. Suggestions with regard to Type of Questions.

1-8 : There were 8 questions on assessing the knowledge of thecontent. But in language, usage and expression are more important than knowledge of the content. Therefore, number of Recall type questions have been reduced to 5. Remaining 3 questions have been changed to Referential type to check expression.

9-13 : Meanings of certain words are asked to evaluate theknowledge relating to vocabulary in isolation. But the meanings are to be found out from the content given in the form of a paragraph.

14-18: There are two test items on meanings of certain words. Onesuch question has been converted into testing of antonyms in the context.

33 - 36 : Identifying Rhyming words is to evaluate appreciation. Butnot in isolation. They are changed so as to locate / identify the Rhyming words in a given poem.

44 : There is stress on form. Therefore, the question has beenchanged to test the ability of students in using the words in right form.

45 : This question has been changed to “Identify the part of thesentence where the error lies” so that there is focus on language structure without any ambiguity.

47-51 : Keeping the number of test-items same, the number ofReading Passages has been reduced to 2 to lessen the strain.To evaluate the reading comprehension of a student, 2 Reading Passages are more than sufficient.

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ENGLISH PAPER-I (Third Language

Time : 2 Hrs Max. Marks : 50

1-5 Answer each of the following questions in about THREE sentences. 5x2=10

1. Why did not Schwamm catch the morning train the next day and do what he had planned to do ? (The Night at the Hotel)

2. What had the writer heard about Nanny ? What confirmed this? (Circus Cat, Alley Cat)

3. How did Mother prepare herself to work for the poor? (Mother Teresa)

4. What are the five factors that contribute to wisdom? (Knowledge and wisdom)

5. Why does the poet use the 'kill' rather than ‘destroy’? What do you think is his attitude to trees ? (On killing a tree)

1-8 Read the lines given under each question and answer the questions followed. 3x2=6

6. “Suddenly I realized ’ fhaf these two children had given me a profound lesson”, says Dr.Barnard.i) Who were the children ?ii) What lesson did they give ?

7. “A suspicious man would believe his eyes instead of his heart".i) What did the farmer John Byto’s eyes tell him ?ii) Why did he not suspect the boys ?

8. I alone am shy and flustered,A solitary, cowardly custard,Shaggy as a prize Angora Overrun with creeping flora.

i) Why does the poet compare himself to an Angora ?ii) Why does the poet say he is ‘shy and flustered’ ?

9-13 Choose the word/phrase that is closest in meaning to the underlined word from the options given and write it in your answer book. 5 x % = 2 Yj

63

He lived in seclusion (9) in a village in Central India. The day of my visit, I remember, was a day of perishing (10) heat and dust. Vinoba, undeterred (11) sat spinning on the verandah of his mud hut. He had a quick nervous smile and blinked at me over the top of battered (12), steel-rimmed spectacles. I was told that he had once been a scholar and given up everything to lead the life of an obscure (13) peasant.

9. a)c)

ignoreddisinterested

b)d)

living away from others screen from view

10. a) confounded b) freezing coldc) very severe d) suffering

11. a) not discouraged b) preventedc) feared d) urged

12. a) rusty b) shabbyc) in a bad condition d) damaged

13. a) indistinct b) unnoticedc) hard to understand d) conceal

14-18 Write the word that is an antonym to the underlined wordthe given sentences in your answer book. 5 x 1/a = 2 1A

14. Raghav is very bold but his brother Anubhav is very---------------

15. Everyone enjoys their---------------, no one likes slavery.

16. The King is very proud whereas his Minister is very----------------

17. The roads in Delhi are very broad but the roads in Hyderabad arevery-------------------

18. The Karnataka Government ordered its police to arrest Veerappandead or-------------------

19-24 Choose the alternative that best fits the blank in each sentence and write it in your answer book. 6 x V2 = 3

19. Sachin Tendulkar is a----------------cricket player.(decided, directed, dedicated)

20. I want to---------------my shoes, (mend, repair, correct)

21. He was rich by sheer---------------of birth.(incidence /accidence / coincidence)

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22. Hari---------------- Latha on her beautiful new dress.(complimented, compiled, complicated)

23. Calcutta is a highly------------------- city in India.(populated, populous, population)

24. The River Ganga is a--------------- river for Hindus.(holi, wholly, holy)

25-28 Find the wrongly -spelt word in each of the following sets and write it correctly in your answer book. 4 x 1/«= 1

25. exhibition inhibition confution prohibition

26. receive deceive relieve percieve

27. pleasure teasuer measure curser

28. ryhme musical rhythm compose

29-32 In each set, find the words in which the underlined part is pronounced in the same way as in the key word. 4 x 1/4 = 1

29. father : gather, ear, starve, caught

30. eight : straight, fight, girl, middle

31. talked : dump, heated, thought, dived

32. taste : pleasure, sheep, fish, swine

33-36 Read the poem and find the rhyming words. Write them in your answer book. 4 x 1/« = 1

Each, for his own remembering, has a list Of lovely things, and yours may be unlike Mine as the day from night: a river, kissed By sun is in my own, flaming spike.Of hollyhocks may be in yours, while snow,Light-swirling but persistent, is as fair.To me as music. You have hours that glow Jewel-like and exquisite and I have rare Mornings and afternoons and midnights, too

37-38 Use Commas, full stops, exclamation/question/ quotation marks wherever necessary. Rewrite the sentences in your answer book. 2x1 = 2

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37. The funeral Mrs Bates jumped what funeral

38. Alas what shall I do now cried the traveller.

39-43 Read sentence (a). Then complete the sentence (b) using the ideas in (a). Keep sentence (b) as close in meaning as possible to sentence (a).

39. a) He was not careful; so he could not avoid the accident,

b) If he------------------------------------------------------------------

40. a) He was ill. But he worked hard.

b) Though--------------------------------------------------------------

41. a) “Are you free this afternoon?” he asked.

b) He asked me-----------------------------------------------------

42. a) Some people live in glass house; they should not throwstones at others.

b) People who-------------------------------------------------------

43. a) They have invented a new medicine for diabetes.

b) A new medicine--------------------------------------------------

44. Fill in the blanks with the right form of the underlined word.4 x 1/2 = 2

i) He is an honest man; this year he has got an award for his--------

ii) The beggar was very hungry. His--------------- drove him to stealfood from the hotel.

iii) He talks too much. He is a------------------------persons.

iv) Rain interrupted the match several times, the crowd got angry at the-----------------------

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45. Read each sentence, there will be an error in one part of thesentence. Find out the error and write the alphabet given against it as the answer. 4 x % = 1

i) I saw / him / cross / the road.(a) (b) (c) (d)

ii) The jelabis were / so sweet / that we / could eat them.(a) (b) (c) (d)

iii) If my mother goes/ to the shop / she will be buying / a gold chain,(a) (b) (c) (d)

iv) people which live/ in glass house / shod not throw/stones at others,(a) (b) (c) (d)

46. Rewrite the following passage making improvements you thinknecessary. 4 x % = 2

Rustum went and stood up in front of the enemy soldiers. He called out to Sohrab. Sohrab came out. He met him. Rustum saw him. He felt a deep pity for the brave youth. “Oh Sohrab", he said, “Why do you wish to hurry to your death”.

47-51 Read the following passage and answer the questions given below it. 5x1=5

The trait they followed was narrow and the men walked in a single file. The leader carried a spear and a kerosene flare - a narrow bamboo tube filled with kerosene and cloth soaked in kerosene stuffed at the opening.

The man directly behind the leader was laden with a pair of fishing nets. The three just behind him carried huge wicker baskets balanced on their heads.

The last individual in the file carried a spear in one hand a large canister in the other.

47. How did the men walk on the trail ?48. What was the leader carrying ?49. What was the man behind the leader carrying ?50. What was the last individual carrying ?51. Where was the cloth stuffed ?

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52. Read the following passage.

The group's progress was swift. They trudged along with an unmistakable sense of purpose and soon reached their destination. This was a small ‘bed’, a shallow reed-fringed pool of water. The leader barked out a command and the men put down their equipment. He then looked round for possible danger. There was none. The landscape darkened abruptly. The leader uttered a curse. He scanned the sky to gauge how long the cloud would hide the moon. It was a large patch, and there were other clouds approaching. The moon would ;remain hidden for a long time.

Now read the following statements and find SIX of them which are in agreement with the passage. Write only the letters of the TRUE statements. 6 x 1/2 = 3

a) The group’s progress was very slow.b) The group was sure where it wanted to go.c) The leader found no possible danger near the shallow pool of

water.d) The moon would remain hidden only for a short while.e) The leader was happy to see that the moon would remain hidden.f) The group hadg) At the leader’s command, the men put down the things they were

carrying.h) There was only a single large patch of cloud.i) The landscape darkened because the moon went behind a cloud.j) The leader wanted to find out how long the landscape would

remain dark.

Complete the following statements. In each case, write down the number of the statement and your choice in your answer book.

3 x 1/2 = 1 1/2

Q. The group reached their destination becausea) their progress was slow in reaching the destinationb) the group knows its destinationc) the group’s sense of purpose was mistakable.

Q. There was none. What is ‘none’ here ?a) no threat was there to the group.b) No person was there.c) No water was found there.

Q. The leader scanned the sky becausea) he wanted to know when it rains.b) He wanted to know how the clouds are approaching.c) He wanted to know how long it would be dark.

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ENGLISH - PAPER II (Third Language)

Time : 2 1/2 Hours Max. Marks : 50

SECTION -1

1-5 Read the passage given below. Then answer the questions that follow it. Write the answers in your answer book. 5x1=5

I got up and opened my door and peeped out. It was Barrymore with a candle in his hand. There was something indescribably guilty and secretive about him. I followed him and saw him enter one of the rooms at the farther end of the corridor. Now, all these rooms are unfurnished and unoccupied. I peeped through the door and saw Barrymore crouched with the candle held against the glass. He was staring onto the dark moor rather expectantly. He stood there for a few minutes. Then he gave a groan and impatiently put the light out.

(Arthur Conan Doyle: The Hound of the Baskervilles)

1. Who is the narrator ?2. What made the narrator follow Barrymore ?3. Why was Barrymore carrying a candle?4. Why was Barrymore staring out of the window ?5. Why did Barrymore groan as he put out the light ?

6-10 Read the passage given below. Then answer the questions that follow it. Write the answers in your answer book. 5x1=5

I accept this award today with an abiding faith in America and an audacious faith in the future of mankind. I refuse to accept the idea that the ‘isness’ of man's present nature makes him morally incapable of reaching for the eternal 'oughtness' that forever confronts him. I refuse to accept the idea that man is mere flotsam and jetsam in a river of life, unable to influence the unfolding events which surround him. I refuse to accept the view that mankind is so tragically bound to the starless midnight of racism and war that the bright daybreak of peace and brotherhood can never become a reality.

(Martin Luther King Jr: The Beauty of Brotherhood)

6. What award has Martin Luther King been given ?7. Why does King refer to his faith in mankind as 'audacious' ?8. What does King mean when he refers to the ‘isness’ of man’s

present nature ?9. What is the difference between man and ‘flotsam and jetsam’ in a

river ?10. What is the 'bright daybreak’ that King looks forward to ?

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SECTION - II

11-19 Answer FIVE questions choosing atleastTWO from each set.5 x 2 = 10

SETA

11. What was the truth behind the mysterious disappearance of Sir Henry’s boots ? Why did two different boots go missing ?

12. What was the explanation behind the mysterious sobbing that Dr.Watson heard on his first night at Baskerville Hall ?

13. Why did Laura Lyons write the note to Sir Charles ?14. Why did Holmes disguise himself as the mysterious ‘man on the

hill’ ?15. How did Stapleton use the hound to keep up the belief in the Curse

of the Baskervilles ?

SET B

16. Why did Laurie create the character of Charles ? (Charles)17. Why does the writer, M.N.Srinivas, refer to the villagers as ‘frogs in

the well’? (The Villagers’ Curiosity)18. In what ways was Miss Leslie unlike the usual stenographers ?

(The Romance of Busy Broker)19. What according to Salim Ali, makes bird watching an exciting

activity ? (The Thrills of Bird Watching)

SECTION - III

20-21 Rearrange the scrambled sentences in each set (A and B) to form meaningful paragraphs. Do not copy the actual sentences in your answer book. Write only the letters corresponding to the sentences in the proper order. 2 x 2 1/2 = 5

SETA

20 a) Advertising has come a long way.b) companies today are not allowed to make false claims for

their products.c) Naturally, it was not always the truth.d) When advertising was young, its simple aim was to provide

you with information.e) So, the advertisers of today use other tricks to make us part

with our money.

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SET B

21. a) But not many people know that it was in India that finger­prints were first used for catching animals.

b) He was Edward Henry, an Inspector-General of the Indian Police.

c) It is a very important aid in fighting crime.d) Today, we are all familiar with the use of finger-printing.e) This method was first developed in the 1980s by an

Englishman.

22. Read the following advertisement which appeared in a newspaper.(5)

WANTEDThe organizers of a household appliances exhibition require smart young boys and girls to work as salespersons.Duration : 1 month

Timings: Daily 3 pm to 8 pm; Sundays: 10 am to 8 pm

Candidates should be proficient in English and Telugu. Previous experience will be an added qualification.Salary : Rs.3000/- + sales - linked bonus

P.O.Box 6565, The Daily Chronicle, 32-1-432, Fardeen House, Hyderabad 500032

Write a letter to the address above applying for the job. State your qualifications and any other details that you consider necessary.

23. Read the following dialogue. Then write a paragraph expressing your views on the topic discussed in the dialogue.

Deepa : My cousin Vikas has a job in a cell centre. He is getting a really fat salary. 1 would not mind a job like that.

Elizabeth : My sister used to work in a cell centre. The salary is great. But she had to work long hours. She hardly got time to spend the money she earned.

Deepa : Think of what you can do with the money. Clothes....movies.... a car........

Elizabeth : My sister spent a lot of money on the doctor. She constantly had pain in the neck, arms and fingers from sitting in front of a computer and stomach upsets. She gave it up and now works as a receptionist in a hotel.

71

Deepa : That is it. First, make your money, then go and dosomething else.

24-25 Read the newspaper report given below :

Computers in classroom Instruction

Vijayawada, July 22 : Students of Blue Birds Public School will soon find learning fun. The school has just received 32 computers donated by InfoBridge Technologies. Speaking on the occasion, Mr.Vikram Sanghvi, CEO, said that ‘learning and computers go together in the modern world’. InfoBridge also conducted workshops for teachers to train them in the use of computers for making lessons more meaningful and interactive. Workshops to introduce students to the role of computers in learning will also be conducted. The Principal, Ms.Vedavathi, in her closing remarks, thanked InfoBridge for their contribution and hoped that more institutions would undertake similar programmes in other schools as well so that computers are completely integrated into the classroom.

24. Imagine that you are one of the students who participated in theworkshop when it was held. Write a letter to your friend in Nellore describing the programme and how you felt about it. 10

25. Write a letter to the editor of the newspaper in which the reportappeared. Give your views about the role of computers in classroom learning. 5

72

SSC ENGLISH PAPER II Third Language - English Medium

MODEL BLUE PRINT

Q.No.

Content Area MarksAllott

ed

Knowledge Comprehension Expression Appreciation TotalSA

VSA P SA VSA P SA VSA P SA VSA

P

1. SupplementaryReader

5(10) 5(10)

2. ReadingComprehension

10

(10)

10

(10)3. Writing

Comprehension2(5) 4(25) 6(30)

Total 5(10) 10

(10)2(5) 4(25)

20% 30% 50%

73

WEIGHTAGE TO THE CONTENT

SI.No.

Content Areas No. of Questions

Marks Percentage

1. Supplementary Reader 05 10 202. Reading Comprehension 10 10 203. Writing Comprehension 06 30 60

Total 21 50 100

WEIGHTAGE TO THE OBJECTIVES

SI.No.

Objectives No. of Questions

Marks Percentage

1. Knowledge 05 10- 202. Comprehension 12 15 303. Expression 04 25 504. Appreciation — — —

Total 21 50 100

WEIGHTAGE TO THE TYPES OF QUESTIONS

SI.No.

Types of Questions No. of Questions

Marks Percentage

1. Very Short Answer (VSA) 05 20 202. Short Answer (SA) 10 10 203. Paragraph (P) 06 30 60

Total 21 50 100

WEIGHTAGE TO THE DIFFICULTY LEVEL

SI.No.

Difficulty Level No. of Questions

Marks Percentage

1. Easy (E) 05 10 202. Average (A) 14 30 603. Difficulty (D) 02 10 20

Total 21 50 100

74

ENGLISH PAPER - II

I. Changes suggested with regard to Type of Questions.

21. There are two test-items on sequencing of ideas. One has been converted into ‘dialogue writing on the given situation’ so as to bring variety and scope for creativity

25. There are three questions on letter-writing. Therefore, one has been changed to ‘Expansion of the Proverb’ to give scope for creativity and liberty in using language. (Own expression).

ENGLISH PAPER II (Third Language)

Time : 2 Vi Hours Max.Marks: 50

1-5 Read the passage given below. Then answer the questions that follow it. 5x1=5

I had a long day and feeling very tired, I retired to bed about 10 p.m. hoping for a good night’s rest. I was about to drop off when I heard a familiar voice calling me. “Ayyanore! Ayyanore!” (Oh Brahmin! Oh Brahmin!) It was my neighbour, Shive Gowda, the youngest of the three peasant brothers.

Questions :1. Where was the author living ?2. Why did Shive Gowda call him ?3. Did the author open the door at once? Why ?4. When did he open it? Why did he do so ?5. Mention any one thing that Shive Gowda talked about that night.

6-10 Read the passage given below. Then answer the questions that follow it. Write the answers in your answer-book. 5x1=5

The villagers went to bed early, and I took advantage of this to bring my notes uptodate. After an early dinner, I sat in my room, writing by the light of two hurricane lamps which, however, attracted many insects. But insects or no insects, I had to finish my notes and entries for the day. This was the ideal, however, and occasionally, I accumulated arrears I disliked the task as I did not trust my memory and also my sleep was troubled if some fact or event which I thought important had not been recorded.

(M N Srinivas, The Villager’s Curiosity)

6. Why does the writer wait till the villagers go to bed ?7. What doe she make notes about ?

75

CD 00 Why does he write by the light of hurricane lamps ?

Why does the writer say that he always tried to write up his notes everyday ?

10. Why is it important for such a writer to make notes regularly ?

SECTION - II

11-19 Answer any FIVE questions choosing at least TWO from each set.

SET A (5 x 2 = 10)

11. Why was Sir Henry’s new boot returned and an old boot stolen the second time ?

12. Why did Barrymore wait at the window at night with a candle in his hand ?

13. Why did Holmes come to Devonshire in disguise ?14. Why did Stapleton plan to kill Sir Charles and Sir Henry ?15. Why did Stepleton force his wife to pretend that she was his sister?

SET B

16. Why does Martin Luther King Jr. call himself a trustee when he accepts the Nobel Prize ? (The Beauty of Brotherhood).

17. If it is not possible to protect endangered animals in the wild state, what else can we do ? (Animals Forever).

18. What are the two kinds of grooming mentioned by Morris? How do they differ ? (Grooming)

19. Why was Gopal so happy to go to school on a Sunday ? (The Day the Viceroy Came)

SECTION III

Rearrange the scrambled sentences to form meaningful paragraph. Do not copy the actual sentences in your answer book. Write only the letters corresponding to the sentences in the proper order.

1 X 2 % = 2 %

20. a) But the Professors who thought they understood science said that Pasteur was wrong.

b) In the middle of the 19th century, people laughed at Pasteur when he said that microbes are man’s worst enemies.

c) It was possible, therefore, to protect human beings, milk, wine and so on, from microbes.

d) They said that microbes were produced naturally by old milk (or wine) and did not come from outside.

e) Pasteur said that all microbes come from the air.

76

21. Read the following situation and write a dialogue (Note: Thereshould be atleast five dialogues for each). 1x2 !4=2 1/2

You are going to attend an important marriage in Delhi and you want to book a train ticket. Get the information from the clerk concerned, regarding the name and number of the train, fare and timings, etc.

22. Read the following advertisement which appeared in a newspaper.(5)

WANTED

A reputed chain of hotels needs smart young receptionists to work at its branches in Andhra Pradesh.

Candidates should have good proficiency in English and knowledge of the local language.

For details write to : Post Box No.717, AP Koti, Tank Bund Road, Hyderabad.

23. Read the following dialogue. Then write a paragraph expressingyour views on the topic discussed in the dialogue. (5)

Parent 1 : It is appalling that children are forced to carry heavyLoads of books on their backs.

Parent 2 : Indeed, in my view, much of it is avoidable, if only theschools are willing to give some serious thought to the problem.

Parent 1 : True, if there is a will, there is a way.

24. Read the newspaper report given below. (10)

BOYS TO THE RESCUE

Hyderabad, March 20 : The whole town is talking about the courage of three students of the Government High School, Nampally. A daring attempt was made during the busy morning time to snatch the chain of a young woman in the crowded Hospital Street. The miscreants, two hefty men, were however chased by the boys and caught at great risk to their lives. At a meeting held in the school ground in the afternoon, the boys were felicitated.

77

Imagine that you were an eye-witness to the incident. Write a letter to your friend describing the event and praising the courage of the boys.

25. Write a short paragraph on any ONE of the given proverbs. (5)

A STITCH IN TIME SAVES NINE

OR

ALL THAT GLITTERS IS NOT GOLD.

*****

78

LATEST TRENDS - ISSUES - PRACTICES IN THE EVALUATION OF SCHOOL SUBJECTS AT SECONDARY LEVEL

PHYSICAL SCIENCE

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

Part Type Marks Phy­sics

Che­mistry

Noof

Qns

TotalMarks

AMainParaTime:75mts

VSA 1 2 2 4 4.1 4SA 2 3 2 5 9.2 10LA 3

4 2 241

4.31.4

124

30BObjectiveTypeTime:45mts

MCQ 8 7 15 15% 7 %Fin B 5 5 10 10% 05Mat Q 5 5 5 10% 05Iden­tificationQuestions

3 2 5 5% 2 %

20TotalTime2 hours

Part A: Estimated TimeEssay / Long Answei 4x8 min = 32Short Answer Questions : 5x4 min = 20Very Short Answer : 4x3 min = 12Diagram : 1 x 8 min = 08Reading : 3 min = 03Total = 75

40 Questions x 1 mark each = 40Reading + Tagging = 05

= 45Total Time : 75 + 45 = 120 Mts = 2 Hours

79

SUGGESTED PATTERN PHYSICAL SCIENCE

Max. Marks: 50 Time: 2 hrs

Object Speci­fication

Q.No.

Section -1Very Short Answer type Questions

4x1=4 M

U 1Answer all questions.Write the principle behind the working of launory driers.

K 2 What is electromagnetic spectrum?

K 3 State Mandeleep s Periodic Law.

U 4 [H+] = 0.01 M Calculate pH.

Section - IIShort Answer Type Questions

5x2=10 M

K Recall&Recog­nise

5 Mention the Assumption of Corpuscular Theory ?ORMention the Assumption of Eving's Molecular Theory ?

U 6 In resonating Sir Columon Expt li=10cm, b=12 cm for a tuning fork of frequency 8-Hzs, calculate velocity of air.ORDistance between node and next antinode is 10cm. Calculate wavelength.

A 7 Day breaks and night falls gradually and never become suddenly done and suddenly bright. Why ?ORExplain interference of light.

S 8 Draw a diagram showing the formation of PCI5 molecule.ORDraw a diagram showing the formation of O> molecular.

80

K 9 Define a) Polymerisation, b)CatenationORWrite properties of Alkane.

Section IIIEssay Type Questions

4x3=12 M

K 10 Define Mutual Induction and state uses of transformer.ORWhat is Electromagnetic induction. Which device works as Electromagnetic induction ?

U 11 What is Isotope? At mass, number of an element is 235. Its atomic number is 92. Infer number of protons, electrons and neutrons.ORWhat is Radioactivity ? How is radio activity used in daily life ?

K

-

12 What are postulates of Bohr Model of Atom.ORWhat is electronic configuration? Write the electronic configuration of Na and P.

U 13 How are solution classified on the basis of solubility ?ORHow the concentration of solution is calculated in different methods ?

Skill 14

Section - IV (Essay Type Question)(Diagrams)Draw Diagrams Screw Gauge and label the parts.ORDraw structure of a) Aspirin, b) Paracetamol

1x4=4 M

81

PHYSICAL SCIENCE

SECTION - I

Very Short Answer Type (1 mark each)

1. Water molecules separated from cloth to dry work on principle of centrifuge.

2. A bunch or group of different frequencies of wavelength make a spectrum.

3. The physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic weight.

4. pH = - log 0.01= -log 10'2 = - (-2). log 10 = 2.1 =2

SECTION - II (2 marks each)

5. (i) a) Light is a stream of elastic particles - corpuscles.b) Liquid is emitted in the form of corpuscles from

sources of light.c) When corpuscles reach retina they cause the

sensation of vision.d) Colour of the light is due to angle of corpuscles.

(ii) a) Every molecule of a magnetic material behaves like a tiny magnet.

b) Isolated magnetic poles do not exist.c) Magnetic poles exist in pairs only.d) Magnetism can be saturate.e) When magnet is broken, each piece acts as a

magnet.f) Magnets can be destroyed.

6. a) U = (l2 -10 2V : V = (12 - 10) 2.80 = 320 mt /sec.ORDistance between node and antinode =10 X/4= 10 X = 4x 10 = 40

7. Light bands at the corners and edges. Light on touching the curved surface of earth it further bands along the curve. Hence light spreads on edges and enters other side.OR

82

When light of same frequency and wavelength originate from two sources, they superpose to produce region of higher intensity and lower intensity causing dark and bright bands. This is interference.

8.

9. a) Each alkene molecule gets attached to other molecules and form giant molecule. This process of forming a bigger molecule is polymerization.b) Carbonation joining together to form a long chain is catenation.

ORAlkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with general formula CaHm+2. Alkanes undergo substitution reaction.Alkanes form homologous...................Alkanes react with oxygen and produce heat.

SECTION IIILong Answer questions (3 marks) Each Point % Mark

10.• Production of emf in the coil by the flow of current in a

neighbouring coil is mutual induction.• Transformer is a device which work on the principle of mutual

induction.• Transformer is used to convert low voltage high current to high

voltage low current and vice versa.• Transformers are used in poorer transmission.• Step up transformers are used to increase voltage.• Step down transformers are used to decrease the P.D. voltage.

OREstablishing emf in a coil due to relative motion of a coil in a magnetic field or magnetic field in a coil is electromagnetic induction. Dynamo works on principle of electromagnetic induction.

11. a) Atoms of same elements which have same atomic number but have different atomic numbers are called Isotopes.Mass No = No of protons + No. of neutrons.235 = 92 + n

83

n = 235-92= 143No. If protons : 92, No. of electrons 92 Number of Neutrons : 143

OR

Spontaneous disintegration of atom of elements with unstable nucleus bv emission of energy radiation is called radio activity.

Radioactive isotopes are used in the cure of cancer., Radioactive isotopes are used in biological research.Radioactive isotopes are used in metereological survey.Radioactive isotopes are used in defects of....... :...............

12. Postulates of Bohr’s Atomic Model :1. Electrons run with great velocity in specific paths called

stationary orbits.2. Each stationary orbit corresponds to a definite energy.

3. Angular Momentum of electron = n y- where ’n’ is

.........................number and ‘h’ is Planck Constant.4. Electron jumps from higher energy level to lower energy

level and vice versa.5. Difference of energy = E2 - Ei = hv.

OR

Distribution of electrons into various energy levels by following certain rules in the atom is electronic configuration.Na = 11 1s22s22p63s1P = 15 1s22s22p63s23p3

13. a) On the basis of solubility, solutions are of three types. They are (i) unsaturated, (ii) saturated, (iii) super saturated.Those which possess less amount of solute than its solubility level- unsaturated.Those which contain exactly same amount of solute equal to its solubility level - Saturated.Solution which contains more solute than its solubility level are super saturated.

OR

Concentration

a) Molarity : No. of moles present in one litre of solvent.

84

No. of moles 1 litre

— x 1000 n

b) Percentage weight % = No. of gram of solute present in 100 gm of solution.

c) Percentage volume% = No. of ml of solute present in 100ml of solution.

d) Mole Fraction = Number of moles of soluteNo. of Moles of solute+No. of moles of solvent

Indicate the correct answer in the space provided.

Object

K

Specifi­cation

Recall

Q.No.

1

MCQ 15x 1/2 = 71/2'O'

U Translation/ 2 Explain

K Recall

A GivesReasons

K Recognises 5

U Identifies 6

Screw Gauge work on the principle of

A B C D

What is the least count of scale used in Geometry box ?A B C D

What are units of G ?A B C D

When a body is thrown up, it is slowed down. Why ?A B C D

Which among the following is aFictitious force----------------A B C D

Sunlight is warmed due to presence of

A B C D

K Recall Sound waves are-----A B C D

waves

U Identify/Explain

8 Which among the following is anexample of ‘n’ type semiconductor ? A B C D

85

u Identify 9 In which group do you feel the alkalic Earth metalsA B C D

u Identify 10 Ammonia Boran tri fluoride contains— Bond.A B C D

K Recall 11 In which group Noble gases arePlaced-------------------A B C D

K Recognise 12 Which solutions are unstable to

A B C D

U Compares 13 By use of which litmus paper we canIdentify acids----------------A B C D

K Recalls 14 Formula of “Glucose”-----------------A B C D

A Formulas/Analysis

15 Out of the 26 amino acids, how manyare essential amino acids------------A B C D

Fill in the blanks : 10 x 1/z = 5

U Distinguishes 16 Value of 'g’ increases when we move Towards-----------------

K Recalls 17 Write the equations of the velocity of a body on reaching ground------------

U Explains 18 Banking of roads protect vehicleFrom----------------------

K Recalls 19 Who proposed the molecular theoryOf Magnetism-------------------

U Interprets 20 For intrinsic semiconductor becomes extrinsic semiconductors by additionOf - - .........

K Recalls 21 By which process Alkaline earth metals are extracted-------

86

u Identifies 22 Give an example of compound containing s-p overlap--------------

K Recalls 23 Lanthanides and Actinides belongs to ---------------block of p-Table

A Interprets 24 Sweet smell of flowers and fruits is dueto the presence of —

A Interprets 25 Aqueous solution of which oxidesbehave like bases. -—

K Recalls 26

Matching Type Questions (10 x V2 =5)

Quantity UnitsAcceleration a) Hertz

K* <

Recalls

%

27

Due to gravity ( )

Current ( )• b) Weber

K 28 Pole strength( ) c) Volt

K 29 Frequency ( ) d) Ampere

K 30 Potential ( ) e) Cm/sec2

K Recalls 31

Difference

Name of Scientist

Neil Bohr ( )

TheoryProposed

a) Acids & Bases

K 32 Rutherford ( ) b) pH value

K 33 Arrhenius ( ) c) Elliptical orbits

K 34 Soren San ( ) d) Nucleus of atom

K 35 Sommerfled ( ) e) Principle ofQuantum No.

87

Identification (5 x !4 = 2 Vi)

LI

Identify the answer and write agent number.

37. 37 X/2>

U 38. Forward Bias/Reverse Bias

----------------•

----------------- -F—

U 39. What is the name of the element whoseatom shown.39 Beryling/carbon

U 40. What kind of bond is represented in theFigure ?71 bond / sigma bond

88

SCORING KEY FOR PART B

SI. No. SI. No.1. Screw 21. Electrolysis

2. 1 mm 22. Any example, HCI

3. Nm2/Kg2 or Nm2.Kg'2 23. T

4. It travels against

gravitation.

24.

5. Centrifugal force 25. Non-metals

6. Infra Red rays 26. Cm/sec2

7. Longitudinal waves 27. Ampere

8. Any of the example given

28. Weber

9. II A 29. Hertz

10. Coordinate Covalent

Bond

30. Volts

11. Zero 31. Principal Quantum Number

12. Super saturated 32. Nucleus of atom13. Blue litmus 33. Acids and Bases14. CeH^Oe 34. PH15. 35. Elliptical orbital16. Poles 36. Pitch scale17. 37. X/2

18. Skidding/ sliding/ accident

38. Forward Bias

19. Weber 39. Carbon20. Impurity 40. Sigma

89

SUGGESTED PATTERN - TWO PAPERS OF 2 HOURS DURATION FOR A MAXIMUM OF 50 MARKS BLUE PRINTQ.No.A

Q. No. Subject. - Unit 1 Sub

Unit

UnitNo

MarksAllotted

Knowledge; Understanding Application Skill TotalE SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA O E SA VSA 0

14 36,1,2,16 Measurements 1 6 1(1/2) 3(1/2) 1(4) 626,3 Our Universe 2 1 2(1/2) 14,17 Kinematics 3 1 1(1/2) 1(1/2) 1

1 5,18 Dynamics 4 2 1(1/2) 1(1) 1(1/2) 22 6 Ele.Magnetic

Spectrum5 1 % 1(D 1(1/2) 1 %

6 29,37,7 Sound 6 3% 2(1/2) 1(2) 1Q'2) 3%5,7 Light 7 4 1(2) 1(2) 4

28. 8, 19 Magnestim 8 1 % 2(1/2) 1(1/2) 1 %10 30, 27 Current, 9 4 '/, 1(3) 2(1/2) 1(1/2) 4%11 Modern

Physics10 3 1(3) 3

38, 20 Electronics 11 % 1(1/2) %28%(57%)

CHEMISTRY12 31, 39,

32, 35AtomicStructure

1 5 1(3) 3(1/2) 1(1/2) 5

8 40, 10,22

ChemicalBond

2 3M 3(1/2) 1(21 3%

3 11, 23 Periodic class 3 2 1(D 2(1/2)

2

9, 21 Al Earth Metal 4 1 1(1/2) 1(1/2) 113 12 Solution 5 31/2 1(1/2) 1(3) 31/24 33,34,

13, 25Acids, Bases 6 3 2(1/2) 1(1) 1(1/2) 1(1/2) 3

9 24 Carboncompounds

7 2% 1(2) 1(1/2) 2(1/2)

14 Carbohydrates 8 % 1(1/2) %15 Oils and Fats 9 % 1(1/2) %

Chemistry 10 0 021 %43%

Total 12 + 10 % = 22 '/, 10+ 7% = 17% 2 + 2 = 4 6 + 0 = 6Percentage 45% 35% 8% 12%

90

Existing Model and Suggested Model of Question Paper

Existing Model1. No. o* Section : 42. Choice : General3. Marks allotted

Section I 10 for 5 questions (2 marks each)Section II 4 for 4 questions (1 mark each)Section III 16 for 6 questions (4 marks each)Section IV 5 for 1 question (5 mark)In the existing Model: Part A 35 marks.

4. Part A weightage to subject content Physics 50%, Chemistry 50%

5. In the existing model, Part B is for 15 marks for 30 questions ((10 Multiple choice, 10 Fill in the blanks,10 Match the following)

6. Existing Model for 2 Vz HoursPart A - 120 Min, Part B - 30 Min Total 150 Min

Suggested Model1. 42. Internal choice for each alternative given3. Section I 4 marks for 4 questions (1 mark each)

Section II 10 marks for 5 questions (2 marks each) Section III 12 marks for 4 questions (3 marks each) Section IV 4 marks for 1 question (4 marks )Total : 30 MarksIn the suggested model Part A is for 30 marks.

4. Part A suggested weightage Physics 55%, Chemistry 45%

5. In the suggested model, Part B is for 20 marks for 40 questions(15 Multiple choice, 10 Fill in the blanks, 10 Matching the items, 5 Identification questions)

3. Suggested Model is for 2 hoursPartA:7Min, Part B 45 Min Total 120 Min

91

Rationale Behind Change

1. Objectivity of essay type questions is limited since answer is narrative. Hence no. of marks obtained are reduced to 3 (instead of 4) without changing the number of questions to answer.

2. When General Choice is given, there is chance that the student may omit certain chapters and yet score better by putting more emphasis on selected chapters. To avoid this, all chapters are covered and alternate questions of some objective with more difficulty level is given.

3. General observation is that Essay type questions are putting more pressure on students. To avoid the stress on students less weightage is given.

4. In the present textbook the content of physics is more than chemistry though the number of chapters are mostly equal. In the existing set up, both physics and chemistry are given equal weightage. This ratio is slightly altered and 55% and 45% are suggested.

Estimated Time :

Part A Long answer (Essay Type question 8 mts per question8 x 4 = 32 Min

Short Answer questions 4 minutes for each question 4 x 5 = 20 Min Very short answer - 3 minutes per question 3x4=12 MinDiagram 8 minutes 8 x 1 = 08 MinTotal 72 Min3 Minutes spare for reading 03

75 Min

Part B 40 Objective questions 40 Minutes For reading the questions

4005 Min

Total 120 Min (2 hours)

92

GENERAL SCIENCE, PAPER I (English Version)

Parts A and B

Time : 2 V2 Hours Max. Marks : 50

Instructions:1. Answer the questions under Part A on a separate answer book.2. Write the answers to the questions under Part B on the question

paper itself and attach it to the answer book of Part A.

PART A

Time : 2 hours Marks: 35

SECTION-I (5x2 = 10)

Note :1. Answer ANY FIVE questions, choosing atleast TWO from each

GROUP.2. Each question carries TWO marks.

GROUP A1. What is Centrifuge ? How does it work ?2. State Inverse Square Law of Magnetism.3. What are Isobars ? Give an example.4. What is Doping ?

GROUP B

5. What is the shape of Ammonia molecule ? Draw it.6. Calculate the number of moles of NaOH present in 750 ml of 0.4 M

solution. (Molecular weight of NaOH is 40).7. What is Polymerization ?8. What are the advantages of hydrogenation of oil ?

SECTION- II (4 x 1 = 4)

Note :1. Answer ANY FOUR of the following questions.2. Each question carries ONE mark.

9. State Hooke’s Law.10. In a resonating air column experiment with a closed-end tube, first

resonance occurs when the length of the air column is 10 cm. Find

93

out the length of the air column for the occurrence of second resonance.

11. Define the term “Mass Defect”.12. Write the electronic configuration of Chromium.13. What is ionic product of water ?14. What are Adhesives ?

SECTION-III (4x4 = 16)

Note:1. Answer ANY FOUR questions, choosing at least TWO from each

group.2. Each question carries FOUR marks.

GROUP - A

15. Compare the values of relative permeability and magnetic susceptibility of dia, para and ferro-magnetic substances.

16. What are the important applications of Laser light in science and technology?

17. Show that effective resistance of a series combination in a circuit is equal to sum of the individual resistances.

18. Explain different stages of TV communication with a block diagram.

GROUP -B

19. Explain the formation of a triple bond in Nitrogen molecule.20. How does the following properties vary in a Period and in a Group

?A. Atomic radiusB. Oxidising propertyC. ElectronegativityD. Electropositive character

21. What is a Drug ? Classify drugs depending upon their therapeuticaction.22. Define the Ionization energy. Mention the factors that influences it.

SECTION - IV (1 x 5 = 5)

Note:1. Answer ANY ONE of the following questions.2. This question carries (5) Five marks.

23. Sketch the diagram of a Nuclear Reactor showing various parts.24. Draw a diagram showing the manufacture of sugar from

sugarcane. Label its parts.

94

PART B

Time : 30 Min Marks : 15

Note:1. Answer all the questions.2. Each question carries % mark.3. Candidates must use the Capital letters while answering the

multiple choice questions.4. Marks will not be awarded in case of any over-written or re­

written or erased answers.

I. Pick up the correct answer and fill in the bracket with the capital letter of the correct answer chosen.

1. Which of the following rays are used to take photographs of objectsin darkness ? [ ]A. Infra-red rays B. Micro WavesC. Ultra-Violet rays D. Gamma rays

2. A body is project vertically upwards with a velocity 40 m/s. The maximum height reached by the body is (Take g = 10 m/s2)

[ ]A.C.

90 m60 m

B.D.

80 m50 m

3. The distance between successive node and antinode is[A. A72 B. 1/8C. A74 D.

4. Solid angle is measured in [ ]A. Lumen B. CandelaC. Phot D. Steradian

5. The energy gap is highest in the case of [ 1A. Metal B. InsulatorC. Semi-conductor D. Diode

6. CaO is [ 1A. acidic B. basicC. neutral D. amphoteric

7 If the pH of a solution is 10, its [H+] is [ 1A. logw B. logw 10C. 10-i° D. HO]

95

8. -COOR is called [ ]A. acid group B. amine groupC. ester group D. ketone group

9. Which of the following is the sweetest sugar ? [ ]A. Sucrose B. GlucoseC. Fructose D. Maltose

10. The catalyst used in hydrogenation of oils is [ ]A. Al B. NiC. Zn D. Mg

11. Fill in the blanks. [ ]

11. Screw gauge works on the principle of........................12. Time of ascent is directly proportional to.................13. The Ozone layer protects us from ............... radiations from the

Sun.14. The S I. unit of magnetic moment is.......................15. A sensitive instrument used to measure the small changes in the

value of ‘g’ at a given location is..................16. The number of sub-shells present in L-shell are.................17. After filling the 3d orbital, the electron enters into.......orbital18. Alkenes undergo addition reactions because...................19.20.

The -CO-NH bond is called as..................H2SO4 + Ca(OH)2 . ................+ 2H2O

III. Match the following :

PHYSICS

Group A Group B

21. Mouse [ ] a) Machine Language22. Assembler [ l b) 'O' or 123. Programme [ ] c) Output device24. BIT [ ] d) Machine

independent25. Compiler [ ] e) Input device

f) Set of instructionsg) Translates

programme from high-level language to machine language

96

CHEMISTRY

Group A Group B

26. Aldehyde [ 1 a) CH3COCH327. Ether [ ] b) CH3COOC2H528. Amine [ ] c) CH3OH29. Ester I ] d) CH3COOH30. Ketone I ] e) CH3CHO

0 CH3OCH3g) C3H7NH2

97

BLUE PRINT - PHYSICAL SCIENCE - MARCH 2004

Q. Q. Subject. - Unit / Unit Marks Knowledge Understanding Application Skill TotalNo. No. Sub Unit No Allotted■A' ■B' E SA VSA O E SA VSA O E SA VSA O E SA VSA 0

PHYSICS11 Measurement 1 ’/a 1(1/2) %

Our Universe 2 - -9 2,13 Kinematics 3 2 KD 1(1/2) 1(1/2) 21 15 Dynamics 4 2’/a 1(1/2) 1(2, 2 %

13 ElectromagneticSpectrum

5 y. 1(1/2) %

10 3 Sound 6 1 % 1(1/2) KD 1 %16 1,4 Light 7 5 1(1/2) 1(1/2) 1(4) 5

2.15 14 Magnetism 8 6 1/a 1(2) 1(1/2) 1(4) 6’/a17 Current Elect. 9 4 1(4) 4

3,11,23 Modem Physics 10 8 KD 1(2) 1(5) 84,18 5,21-25 Electronics 11 9 1(2) 6(1/2) 1(4) 9

39’/a 50%

CHEMISTRY12,22 16,17 Atomic Structure 1 6 1(4) 1(1/2) 1(1/2) KD 65.13 Chemical Bond 2 6 1(4) 1(2) 620 Periodic

classification3 4 1|4p 4

6 Al. Earth Metals 4 % 1(1/2) '/a6 Solutions 5 2 1(2) 2

13 17,20 Aclds-bases 6 2 KD 2(1/2) 27 8,18, 26

to 30Carboncompounds

7 5’/a 1(1/2) 1(2) 6(1/2) 51/2

24 9 Carbohydrates 8 5 ’/a 1(1/2) I 1(5) 51/28 10, 19 Oils and Fats 9 3 2(1/2) 1(2) 3

14,21 Chemistry andIndustries

10 5 1(1) 1(4) 5

24 30 Total 21 79 2(4) 1(2) 4(1) 12(1/2, 3(4) 5(2) KD 18(1/2) 2(4) 1(2) KD • 2(5)1(4)

1(2) • -

8 2 4 6 12 10 1 9 8 2 1 0 14 2 0 0Total 20 32 11 16 79Percentage 25.32%(25) 40.51% (41) 13.92% (14) 20.25% (20) 100%

98

TRAINING TO TRAIN PAPER SETTERS IN EVALUATION OF SCHOOL SUBJECT

AT SECONDARY LEVEL FOR A.P.

08.12.2005 TO 9.12.2005

SUBJECT: GENERAL SCIENCE PAPER - II

LIST

1. OLD Question Paper (May / June 2005)

2. OLD Model Question paperPrepared by the group (Changed weightages)

3. Suggested Model Question Paper with Blue print.

4. Report of Biology Group.

99

Report of Biology Group

The group comprised of Smt M Deepika, SCERT, (Resource Person), Smt.Bhramaramba, GHS, Bansilalpet, N Vishnukumar, GHS, Banganapally and Ch.Venkat Rajaiah, ZPHS, Uppalwai, Dist NZB. The Group worked on the Biology question Paper - May/June 2005 and prepared Blue print as suggested by director for Examinations. It is found that the weightages given to the content and objectives are appropriate keeping in view the nature of the subject.

A Model paper on the same pattern which is followed at present in our State is prepared which provided adequate experience in paper setting to the participants.

As a present paper is not in a position to discriminate the above average and average students, the group felt that there is every meet to change the present paper to some extent, the changes suggested are as follows:

1. Instead of having two groups names Group ‘A’ - 4q and Group ‘B’ - 4 q inSection-I, there will be no division into groups. Under Section-I 7 (Seven) questions will be given covering all the Units.

2. Instead of having two groups namely Group A - 4q and Group B - 4 q inSection III, there will be no division into groups. Under Section III 6(Six) questions will be given covering all Units.

In Part ‘B’ , i.e., Objective type under Multiple choice item, three items on “Skill" are given. Matching type items reduced to one from two. Analogous type items covering (5) all the five Units are given.

If this Suggestive paper is implemented the child is expected to learn more concepts than earlier type. Further, the intelligent students can score more marks than the average.

The group object fusion of physical Science and Biology into one. As there are two separate books handling by different teachers, it is better to have two papers only.

100

This question paper contains 3 printed pages.

20T (A)GENERAL SCIENCE, Paper-II

(Telugu Version)

Parts A and BTime:2j Hours Maximum Marks : 50

Instructions:1. Answer the questions under Part Aon a separate answer hook.2. Write the answers to the questions under Part B on the question paper

itself and attach it to Part 'A'.

Part-ATime: 2 Hours

SECTION -I

Marks: 35

5x2 = 10

1.

2.

3.

to

£© StpKo (A 3o0c£x B) 3oo<i 2t3o 3o£i

(jFC&X&iO.

(3© cJoCo 3PC^.ex>.

Group A

1. eK3(5capQ»0’oo eoe3 '33oti? 3o£3

2. Tot) ej£)gOrs j£’?o$§0rT»©S

3. '3oo2JJ.t)d~s IoCoAoOo X)oQoo(©n 3a»<gex) diO’Xr’Onoo oj3^oi.

4. '3c3P©^ 25otoo ea3/P ^3o?

20T (A) ' P.T.O.

rt»{

[2]

Group B

5. Softs (2<&Aji$}0 63xS>r (SoSJ’s^’oo 3S)o£.

6. EJ’S’X ipt>&2Srj eso«^ ^aot3? So<2o &O’£’0t5Q3ijC0?.

7. 3guS1,cQooex> &&> %&G toOc^), aOaj’rso OfPoo^ 02j §^2c (S3 £T> ,'iOda?

8. 23'T’SoO 30^0 ao3o3e3 23^ dioioooQ?

SECTION -Il 4x1=4

2p33e« :-

L -S-s ioQ (2‘2,os'* cT’eoZls (2-^'ySo 33J’<5',33x><ao ^o3w2w.

2. (20 |2-2}So £-2 aj’Ofy..

9.,.' 0^.o0 (Sc&oo S2o(T’03330o?

10. Aa 2o j 2i Sx^eSi 3»«3o 3cbw 03°c&3o &0?

11. (2&3?0 3CM J23x 55>od '22it5?

12. ;, oj’vcLcCcSc e>3fp ^2o?

13. c t °§^2, 2o!§^o«3o gs<y a^no 2oS2x«w Ida?

14. atcaoS" Bj j o^c u o s ^ao^ay?

f(?220T (A)

[3]

SECTION -III 4x4=16

iSXSSoo:-

1. (20 2ood 3OC& ..roSo Oo oOo iyoofa (OtfjoSo

22J’Q’22oooo (jy>cQoo2oo.

2. (20 2<^So 2’eotto 2J’Cc^.oo.

Group A

15. 2p5tt^fc^6 33$ 0g fc’aSp 20o2o&.

16. 2to 204c uo2o o2^^3’o (£c &5’ Oo^rsOoo^o 320o2o$.

17. 20rsK2<j 2ca3J'fi(2o3oSo S'0^S2uS^ 4s2202o3 Otoo 30p2^^?

18. 3zoo$2 2’»PO (2020^o KoOoO So§ e>to<3 3ibS (2cuJ’K2oo2o KoOoO

(2’cUx2x>.

Group B

19. 2’2 ’2x5 $o£>S0r5 Oq ’22x2o 32Qo2o2o o .

20. 2-3 2^51 HIV ^5.3 OOo^O ei>0£o AIDS 2S2o '3c&> $3w feoff ^OoS’oO’iOo?

21. ‘3o c pS2&>’ 2°£$ foOoO (2',cOoo2oo.

22. (2$2o 3^0' 31ito2)o£o 2o3£< (f>cT>oo S’^Otff’31 'Oo3o Oo j o Oj ’o o

SECTION -IV / t5=52p25po :-

1. 0-3 So 3 (O^uS-5 '3<53 J-gCFOS 22J',Q’32o o (jffcOooOoo.

2. (2¥}So oCo (5) 2ff0o^oo.

23. tsSo «<£?£*# 2to2oo ftO <^K3xoo KoCo3o2oo.

O* .24. 32) (20o£0)0 2£2g 2to2oo fto, foOo2o2oo.

20T (A,

16 A

This question paper contains 4 printed pages.^Before you begin to answer, fill in your' Roll No. and Centre of Examination.

Roll No.............................................. Centre of Examination.........................................

20T (B)GENERAL SCIENCE, Paper-II

Time : 2 j Hours

(Telugu Version)

Parts A and BMaximum Marks : 50

Part-BTime : 30 minutes Marks : 15

Note :1. (Soft 30o3o3 aijJ’Q’SSxSi ^5?©

(A, B, C, D) "ig £i^O',o6"s (Capital Letters) (p’dtood.

2. (3© * 1 2 3 4/2

3. Ogw&5 Sj OoSm SOL

4. es^j [S'J'.sj So Esa’wooo (»7

I. t>, (5oQ SSFQVPeM (jJ'C&iJSM.

1. 3od3J’fi(3a&£’5 esfo^S 1......1

(A)

(B) s’qyS S

(C) ^o©

(D) _o

2. £2>0&><y fio £§© [......1

[2]

3. /13 no aotSo^j [..... ]

(A) isoft

(B)

(C) x&—o(D) £^gcS

4. • 3x^.0 StS 3&o 220KSo o £® 31s [......]

(A) sSw^gS

(B) NAA

(C) qoisr6^"^jbfcSl^os^sx

(D) ABA

5. [......]

(A) 30

(B) 31

(C) 32 .

(D) 33

6. tpfr’^odo£^ Sj'Oo^a [......]

(A) jpo SSw

(B) (3$i5o iSc^o&o

(C) v’er'i^

(D) ba CisT’o j

7. S3) &o&) [......]

(A) e>o£ 2cr°oo

(B) &(5 3Pi5) Srt’oo

(C) &^Scr>oo

(D) 3oc&oS tjaSrso—D

10^

20T (B)

[3]

8. #0 o3x^. SoG’pS, SSls [..... ]

(A) £3O’’C$33§)

(B) .3'$ Cd^)

(C) ^’SftxifcS'

(D)

9. AIDS S3 Se)Ao#3 !§a [......]

(A)

(B) zJ^QcuP

(C) skotfSx

(D)

10. $c3J’£oS"£i"52>o [......]

(A) SOSQ

(B) 73«£|fP

(C) 0jtp3#

(D) S2t§ ■

11. &i l$oQ $Pv >w 33 IgJ-'So^SM. OC5 eso i&’Cfy..

11. Suo Oofo OSo Jfo i5S............. ......................................................i............._0

12. ■-F’^^cuo 3o <5 .................................................................eiJotT’do.

13. 0.9% §T^3£ ^a’#cT’^......................................................... eaotO’Oo.

14.................................................................. S"5 esgo2odO)&$ fooS, S&j o S.

15. #ot3 a^d^oS"5 3t£o i 33o3Eod Scvew...............................................V

16. 3x^03 3-J\$3...................................................................................

17. ~33^. ScT'e 33O& SopC 333*^.03 fr G’As j ............................................... esoer’&i.

18.' O3J'':o£^......... '........................................ '.................. o^CF esejf AS"5#)©

20T (B) P.T.O.

mO

[4]

19. '3n' ...........................................^Co^'So^o tofiS^BSatf*

Se)cttiivj3 'S0)&j 35.

20. aoOd^&o S’S UoftS aoiooQ’oo e>a.T>.............................................. tiacSPftoSO ^OSo.

III. Si |2oa a*SS atf 30C5oci. (30 Vz Sf O^..

GROUP-A GROUP-B

21. "aoofo&o a^^ssfya [.... (A) (ItSSssSi*-

22. ^(^SSA^ [........] (B) tStJ’S

23. SS^S go*|)£ [...,....] (C) OJ’akS £(c3s’c q 2

24. [........] (Di

25. S^aOS . [...,....] (E) <&Q &J5S’C&)S$O

(F) esO 3oJ"(S Saga

(G) £odofc<jgsao

IV. Si (Soft O«SS ta4> 303o<i. (30 (3$& Vz Sf O^■ ** .

GROUP-A

26. StcSo^'D' sj^aa

GROUP-B

2 7. -3^%X)5’ 6*2)00- 65

28. ScOr&S’ 6*2o

29. 3cOJ'5*§*2J'oSoS"6*3o

30. £f io ^5*$3§’ es^o 6*2c

[..... (A)

[..... ..] (B) 3*S20 og t^aa —©(Pernicious Anaemia)

[..... ..] (C)

[..... ..] (D) S1“<?)6* Sootoeo

(Burning of feet )

[.... ...] (E) sees(F) ivTsc^o (5*<£^pS)

(G) 02 b’aa _0

(Anaemia)

20T (B) MAY-JVNE, 2005

I C’ ’7

10th Biological ScienceOLD PAPER ANALYSIS

WEIGHTAGE TO CONTENT PAPER - II

SI.No. Title of the Unit Marks Percentage

1. Life Process 12 1/2 25%

2. Control and Coordination 11 22%

3. Reproduction 1 r/2 23%

4. HIV-AIDS 05 10%

5. Nutrition 10 20%

WEGHTAGE TO OBJECTIVES

SI.No. Name of the Objective Marks Percentage

1. Knowledge 14/4 292. Understanding 22% 45

3. Application 08 164. Skill 5 10

WEIGHTAGE TO FORM OF QUESTIONS

SI.No. Type of Questions Marks Percentage1. Essay type 16 32%2. Short answer Type (SA) 10 20%3. Very short Answer (VSA) 04 08%4. Objective type (O) 15 30%

108

GENERAL SCIENCE, PAPER-II

Old Model

Biological Sciences

Time: 21/a Hrs Max Marks : 50

Instructions:

1. Answer the questions under part ‘A’ on a separate answer book.2. Write the answers to the questions under Part ‘B’ on the question paper

itself and attach it to answer book of part ‘A’.

Part “A”SECTION -1

Time: 2 Hrs Marks: 355x2= 10

Note:1. Answer “any five” questions, choosing at least “Two” from each Group

‘A’ & 'B'.2. Each question carries Two Marks.

Group “A”

1. Write one equation for photosynthesis showing all the requirements and the products form?

2. Draw a diagram of an animal showing Respiration through diffusion.3. What are the differences between left Auricle and Right Auricle.4. What is apical dominance?

Group“B”

5. Write the major differences between Sexual and asexual Reproduction.6. What are the viral enzymes present in “HIV”?7. Why ‘Encephalitisis” is total disease?8. Describe the duties of Village Health Guide?

109

SECTION-II4x1=4

Note: 1. Answer “ANY FOUR" questions from the following.2. Each question carries ONE (1) mark.

9. What is the chemical name of B 12?10. Expand the HIV and AIDS?11. What is fertilization?12. What is “Callus”?13. What are “Nissal granules”?14. By which instrument B.P. is measure?

SECTION-III

Note: 1. Answer ANY FOUR questions, choosing at least TWO from each group.

2. Each question carries “Four"(4) marks.

Group “A”4 x4 16

15. How can we prove experimentally that "O2” is released during photosynthesis?

16. What are the differences between Photosynthesis and Respiration?17. What is the importance of pituitary gland in the body? Mention the

hormones and their functions of their gland?18. Iron Pavlov’s experiment on dog to demonstrate conditioned reflexes?

Group “B”

19. Mention the routes of entry of HIV Virus into human body?20. Give an account menstrual cycle in human beings?21 .What is the aim of giving first aid to save a drown persons?22. What are the effects of Kwashiorker on children?

SECTION - IV1x5 = 5

Note: 1. Answer ANY ONE question.2. The question carries FIVE (5) marks.

23. Draw the diagram of Transverse Section of “Spinal Cord” and Label the Parts.

24. Draw a neat labeled diagram of L.S. of Datura.

110

MODEL PAPER General Science Paper - II

Time: 1/z Hr.

Note: 1. Answer all the questions.2. Each question carries 1/2 mark.3. Candidates must use the Capital letters while answering

multiple choice questions.4. Marks will not be awarded in case of any over written or

rewritten or erased answers.

I. Answer the following:

1. Karl Land Steiner discovered ( )

A. Blood CarpusclesB. Blood groupsC. Blood VesselsD. Proteins in blood

2. Melvin Calvin got Nobel Prize for his studies on ( )

A. Light reactionB. Plant hormonesC. Carbon fixationD. Photons

3. Photosynthesis occurs in which organule of plant cell. ( )

A. ChloroplastsB. MitochondrioxC. CytoplasmD. Nucleus

4. Maximum rate of Respiration takes place at ( )

(A) 0°C (B) 45° C (C) 100°C (D) 60° C

5. The rate of Respiration per minute in a born child ( )

A. 18 timesB. 32 timesC. 26 timesD. 16 times

6. Photo Phospo relation occurs in

A. MitochondriaB. CytoplasmC. ChloroplastD. Nucleus

( )

7. White coloured blood occurs in ( )

A. LizardB. EarthwormC. FrogD. Cockroach

8. “Heart attach” is caused by the blocking of ( )

A. Pulmonary ArteryB. Coronary ArteryC. Coronary VeinD. Pulmonary Vein

9. HIV can be detected through

A. Blood TestB. Urine TestC. ‘X’ rayD. Stool Test

10. Deficiency of Vitamin ‘A’ causes

A. BlindnessB. RicketsC. PellagraD. None of the above

( )

( )

II. Fill in the blanks, each question carries Vz Marks:

11. In earthwork fertilization occurs in___________________

12. In normal blood pressure 120/80,

80 indicates_________________pressure.

13. In women______________play a major role in respiratory movements.

112

14. ‘Auxins’ promote root_____________

15. The decade from 1990-2000 is known as________________

16. Deficiency of Iodine in food results in the enlargement of_____________gland.

17. The ampluxory pads of Frog held in_______________

18. Buds in Bryophyllum are known as__________________buds.

19. Milk sugar is called as_______________

20. Mumps is caused by__________________Virus.

III. Match the following. Each question carries Vs marks:

Group A Group B

21. Photons ( ) A. Root buds

22. Leucocytes ( ) B. Anemia

23. Insulin ( ) C. W.B.C.

24. Curry leaf ( ) D. Night blindness

25. Encephalitis ( ) E. Diabetes Mellitus

F. Light rays

G. Arbovirus

113

Group BIV

Group A

26. Acrosome ( ) A. Female Frog

27. Amplexory pads ( ) B. Male Frog

28. Ismark ( ) C. Heploid plants

29. Satish Maheshwari ( ) D. First Aid

30. Ivan Pavlav ( ) E. Sperm

F. Un-conditional Reflex

G. Conditional Reflex

Part - B Key Paper

Multiple Choice Fill in the blanks

I. 1. B

2. A

3. A4. B

5. B

6. A

7. B

8. B

9. A

10. A

Old Model

ll4

II. Fill in the Blanks:

11. Clitellum 16 Thyroid

12. Diastole 17. Copulation

13. Ribs 18. Epiphyllus

14. Growth 19. Lactose

15. Brain Decade 20. Mixovirus Parotidits

III. Match the following:

21. F 26. E

22. C 27. B

23. E 28. D

24. A 29. C

25. G 30. G

General Science Paper - II

WEITAGE TO CONTENT

SI.No. Title of Unit Marks %

1. Life Process 141/2 29%

2. Control and co-ordination 9/4 19%

3. Reproduction 12 24%

4. HIV-AIDS 514 11%

5. Nutrition 81/2 17%

115

Weigtage of Objectives

SI.No. Name of the Objective Marks %

1. Knowledge 14 28%

2. Understanding 19 38%

3. Application 20 20%

4. Skill 07 14%

Weightage to Form of Questions

SI.No. Form of Questions Marks %

1. Essay Type E 16 32%

2. Short Type (S.A) 10 20%

3. Very Short Type (VSA) 04 08%

4. Objective (0) 15 30%

116

General Science Paper - II (Model Paper)

(Suggestive paper)

Instructions:1. Answer the questions under Part A on the separate answer book.2. Write the answers to the questions under Part-B on the question paper

itself and attach it to answer book of Part A.

PART-A

Note: 1. Answer “any five” Questions.2. Each question carries ‘2’ marks.

SECTION -1

1. Write an equation for photosynthesis showing all the requirements and the products form?

2. Draw a diagram of a animal showing Respiration through diffusion.

3. What are the differences between left auricle and right auricle?

4. What is apical dominance?

5. Write the major differences between sexual and asexual Reproduction?

6. What are the viral enzymes present in the HIV?

7. Why “Encephalitis” is total disease?

Section - II

Note: 1. Answer “any four” questions from the following: 2. Each question carries 'One' (1) mark:

8. What is the chemical name of B12?

9. Expand the HIV and AIDS?

10. What is Fertilization?

11. What is Callus?

12. What are “Nissal Granules”?117

13. By which instrument B.P. is measured?

Section - III

Note : 1. Answer “any four” questions.2. Each question carries Four (4) Marks.

14. How can we prove experimentally that “Oxygen" is released during photosynthesis.

15. Ivonpavlovis experiment on dog to demonstrate conditioned reflexes?

16. Mention routes of entry of HIV Virus into human body?

17. What is the aim of giving first aid to save drowned person?

18. What are the effects of Kwashivorker on children?

19. What are the differences between photosynthesis and Registration?]

Section IV

Note: 1. Answer ANY ONE Question.2. The question carries Five (5) Marks.

20. Draw the diagram of Transverse Section of Spinal Cord and Label the Parts.

21. Draw the neat labeled diagram L.S. of Datura.

I IK

Model PaperGeneral Science - Paper II

Note:1. Answer all the questions.2. Each question carries 1/2 mark.3. Candidates must use the capital letters while answering

multiple choice questions.4. Marks will not be awarded in case of any over written or

rewritten or erased answers.

I. Answer the following:

1. Heart attach is caused by blocking of ( )

A. Pulmonary arteryB. Coronary ArteryC. Coronary VeinD. Pulmonary Vein

2. HIV can be detected through ( )

A. Blood TestB. Urine TestC. 'X' rayD. Stool test

3. The rate of respiration per minute in new born child ( )

A. 18 timesB. 32 timesC. 26 timesD. 16 times

4. Photo phosporelation occurs in ( )

A. MitochondriaB. CytoplasmC. ChloroplastD. Nucleus

5. Deficiency of Vitamin‘A’Causes ( )

A. BlindnessB. RicketsC. PellagraD. None of the above

119

6. White Coloured blood occurs in )

A. LizardB. Earth wormC. FrogD. Cockroach

7. Photo synthesis occurs in which organelle of plant cell )

A. ChloroplastB. MitochondriaC. Cytoplasm

B. CorollaC. StamensD. Anther

10.

A. VentricleB. AuricleC. VeinD. Arota

120

II.

11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

20.

III.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

Fill in the blanks, each question carries V2 Mark.

“Auxins” promote root____________________

In normal blood pressure 120/80, 80 indicates______________pressure.

In the Earth work fertilization occurs in______________________

In women_______________. play a major role in respiratory movements.

Buds in Bryophyllum are known as___________________buds.

The decade from 1990 - 2000 is known as_________________

Deficiency of Iodine in food results in the enlargement of_________gland.

Mumps is caused by__________________.

Milk Sugar is called as_________________.

The amplexory pads of Frog help in ______________________.

Write suitable answer:

Mitochondria : Respiration : : Chloroplast: _____________

R.B.C. : Biconcave and Circular : : W.B.C. : _______________

Thyroid : Thyroxin : : Parathyroid : _____________

Ovary : Ovules : : Anther :_____________

Vitamin E : Tocoforal : : Vitamin ‘R’ :

121

IV. Match the following

26. Acrosome ( ) A. Female frog

27. Amplexory pads ( ) B. Male Frog.

28. Ismark ( ) C. Haploid plants

29. Satish Maheshwari ( ) D. First aid

30. Ivopavlov ( ) E. Sperm

F. Un-conditional reflex

G. Conditional reflex.

Part- B Key Paper Suggestive

Multiple Choice Fill in the Blanks

1. B 11. Growth2. A 12. Diastole3. B 13. Clitellum4. A 14. Ribs5. A 15. Ephyllus6. D 16. Brain Decade7. A 17. Thyroid8. B 18. Mixovirus parotidits9. A 19. Lactose10. B 20. Capulation

Match the following Analogy

26. E 21. Photosynthesis27. B 22. Amiboid28. D 23. Parathormone29. C 24. Pollen grain30. G 25. Calciferol

122

10th Biological Science

Suggested Paper Analysis NEW

WEITAGE TO CONTENT

SI.No. Title of the Unit Marks Percentage

1. Life Process 14 28%

2. Control & Co-ordination 10 20%

3. Reproduction 12 24%

4. HIV-AIDS 5% 11%

5. NutritionO 8/2 17%

WEITAGE TO OBJECTIVES

SI.No. Title of the Unit Marks Percentage

1. Knowledge 13 26%

2. Understanding 201/z 41%

3. Application 08 16%

4. Skill 81/2 17%

WEIGHTAGE TO FORM OF QUESTIONS

SI.No. Title of the Unit Marks Percentage

1. Essay Type (E) 16 32%

2. Short Answer (SA) 10 20%

3. Very short Answer (VSA) 04 08%

4. Objective (O) 15 30%

123

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TRAINING OF PAPER-SETTERS IN NEW ISSUES, TRENDS AND PRACTICES IN EVALUATION OF SCHOOL SUBJECT AT

SECONDARY LEVEL OF ANDHRA PRADESH

(5.12.2005 TO 9.12.2005)

MATHEMATICS

Demerits of Present Question paper

1. Mainly it is a quantity based question paper rather than quality based question paper.

- Present question paper facilitates choice of units in teaching as well as learning.Overall choice in Main Question Paper I and II leads to eliminate some difficult units like linear programming, Geometry, Computing, etc. in classroom teaching.Students who do not even touch these units are able to get high scores in Mathematics examination because of these external choice.Present question paper is not identifying the intelligent students. This choice is making the students to learn some chapters which in turn lead to lack of knowledge in higher education.

Due to these reasons, we proposed a new model which is eliminating all these kinds of defects.

Merits of Proposed Question Paper

It is a quality based paper which is rectifying the defects of the present question paper.

1. Gives priority to all chapters by giving internal choice as per the cognitive load of the content.

2. Number of questions are reduced to 14 from 24 (psychological advantage).

3. Marks weightage is distributed equally. There is no scope of learning any chapter either in teaching or learning.

4. Difficulty level kept in mind to improve the pass percentage as well as the discriminating the intelligents.Difficult - 20%Average - 44%Easy - 36%

134

5. Objectives covered as Knowledge - 27%Understanding - 36%Application - 24%Skill - 13%

6. Part B question paper consists of Four Typesa) Multiple Choice - 10 questionb) Fill in the blanks - 5 questionsc) True or False - 5 questionsd) Matching with 2 groups - 10 questions

MATHEMATICS PAPER I (English Version)

Parts A and 3

Time : 2 1/z Hours Max. Marks : 50

Instructions :1. Answer the questions under Part A on a separate answer book.2. Write the answers to the questions under Part B on the

question paper itself and attach it to the answer book of Part A

PART A

Time : 2 hours Marks : 35

SECTION-I (Marks 5 x 2 = 10)

Note :1. Answer ANY FIVE questions, choosing ATLEAST TWO from

each of the following Groups, i.e. A and B.2. Each question carries 2 marks.

Group - A(Statement and Sets, Functions, Polynomials)

1. Prove the following statement by using Direct Proof

“If x is even, then x2 is even”

2. If A <z B, then show that B' c= A'.

135

3. f: R -> R; g : R -> R be defined by f(x) = 1 +2x; g(x) = 3 - 2x. Find (g o f) (x).

4. Find the remainder, when x4 + 4x3 - 5x2 - 6x + 7 is divided by (x+2).

GROUP-B(Linear Programming, Real Numbers, Progressions)

5. The vertices of convex polygon OABC are 0(0,0), A(3,0), B(2,3), C(0,5). Find the maximum value of the objective function f = 2x + 3y-

6. Show that Lt ——- = 3x -* 00 2x + 5

7. If ax = b, by = c, cz = a; then show that xyz = 1.

8. Determine K, so that K + 2, 4K - 6 and 3K - 2 are the three consecutive terms of an A.P.

SECTION II (MARKS 4x1=4)

Note : 1. Answer ANY FOUR of the following SIX questions.2. Each question carries 1 mark.

9. p, q are two statements, Write truth table of the compound statement p A (~q).

10. Show that (A')" = A.

11. Let f: A -> B and let f have an inverse function f1 : B -> A. State the properties of f for which its inverse exists.

12. Write the quadratic equation, whose roots are 3 + 75, 3 - 75.

13. (x2/3)p = x2, then find p.

14. Sum of the first three terms of A.P. is 36. Find the first term.

136

SECTION - III (Marks : 4 x 4 = 16)

Note : 1. Answer ANY FOUR questions, choosing TWO from each of the following Groups, i.e. Group A and B.2. Each question carries 4 marks.

GROUP-A(Statements and Sets, Functions, Polynomials)

15. Prove: A-(B u C) = (A-B) n (A-C).

16. Let f,g,h be functions defined by f(x) = x; g(x) = 1 - x and h(x) = x+1, show that (h o g) o f = h o (g o f).

17. Find the values of b and c, if the division of x2 + bx + c byi) x - 1 leaves remainder zeroii) x + 2 leaves remainder 12.

18. Find the constant term in the expansion of

GROUP B(Linear Programming, Real Numbers, Progressions)

19. Maximise f = 5x + 7y, subject to the conditions 2x + 3y<12, 3x + y<12, x > 0, y > 0.

20. Imn= 1, then show that ------?—— +------ '----- - + ------5——.]+l + m 1 + m + n \ + rt + l

21. If the sum of the first ‘n’ natural numbers is Si and that of their squares is S2 and cubes is S3, show that 9S22 = S3 ( 1 + 8S1),

22. The A.M., G.M. and H.M. of two numbers are A, G, H respectively. Show thatA>G>H.

SECTION - IV (Marks : 1 x 5 = 5)

Note : 1. Answer ANY ONE question from the following.2. Marks are 5.

23. A shopkeeper sells not more than 30 shirts of two colours. Atleast twice as many Green ones are sold as White ones. If the profit on each of the White be Rs.20 and that of Green be Rs.25, how many of each kind be sold to give him a maximum profit ?

24. Using graph of y= x2, solve x2 - 4x + 3 = 0.

137

MATHEMATICS PAPER - I

(English Version)

Parts A and B

Time : 2 % hours

Part B

Max. Marks: 50

Time : 30 Min. Marks : 15

Note :1. Each question carries % mark.2. Answers are to be written in the question paper only.3. All questions are to be answered4. Marks will not be given for over-written, re-written or erased

answers.

1. Write the CAPITAL LETTERS showing the answer in the bracketprovided against each question.

1. p => q ® [ ]

A. q => P B. ~q => ~PC. ~p => ~q D. p A~q

2. A-B' = [ 1A. An B B. B-AC. A' - B D. A-B

3. ‘f is bijection means it is............A. ‘one to one’ and ‘constant’B. ‘into’ and ‘one to one’C. ‘onto’ and ‘into’D. ‘one to one’ and ‘onto’

.......................[ 1

4. Inequation having solution “ -3 < x < 4 “ [ ]A. xz + x-12>0 B. x2 -x + 12 < 0C. x2-x -12<0 D. x2 + x + 12 < 0

138

5. Remainder when ax + b divides f(x) is

B.

D. / —

6. The point belongs to 2x - 3y > 0 is A. (3,2) B. (2,3)C. (-3, -2) D. (3, -2)

7. If VV3X - 81, then x =

A. 16 C. 4

B.D

8. If ax 1 = be; by‘1 = ca; cz'1 = ab, then xy + yz + zx = A. x + y + z B. xyzC. 1 D O

9. If there are “n" Arithmetic Means between a and b, [ then d =...............- a - b ... b -a

B.

C. a + b zz —1

D. A-a n -I

n + 1 n + 1

]

10.

11.

11.12.13.14.

15.

16.

17.

If arithmetic mean and geometric means of two numbers are 16 and 8; then their harmonic mean is A. 4 B. 12C. 32 D 64

Fill in the blanks with suitable answers.

The symbol for Existential Quantifier is..................................If A q B and B c A, then........................The range of the function f(x) = 3 is.........................A function f: A -> B is said to be.......................... function if for ally g B there exists x e A, such that f(x) = y.If the sum of the co-efficients of a polynomial is zero, then.............is a factor to it.If ISO profit line coincides with a side of polygon, then it has....................solutions.If x3'2 = 0.027, then x =...................

139

18. Li —------ -.....................1 ->2 x -4

19. If x,y, z are in Harmonic Progression, then y =....................20. 1+1 + - +.....,oo =..................................................

2 4 8

III. For the following questions under Group A, choose the correct answer from the master list (Group B) and write the letter of the correct answer in the bracket provided against each item.

(0 Group A Group B

21. If A c B and n(A) = 5; n(B) = 6 then n (Au B) =.................

[ ] A. 8

22. If “I" is an identify function, then I"1 (4) =...............

[ ] B. 0

23. If f(x) = 2x, then f o f(2) = [ ] C. 524. Sum of the roots 6x2-5=0 is [ ] D. 1125. If x - 2 is factor of [ ] E. 6

x2 - 3x + K, then K = F. 4G. 2H. 5/6

ii) Group A Group B

26. The value of f=2x + y at the intersection point of x=2 and y=3.

[ ] I. -3

27. If | x + 1 | = 2, then x =....... [ ] J. 3

28. Ll - =............ [ ] K. 4

29.

- ........... L Jx -> “> X

If the first and 4th terms of a G.P. [ ]are 1 and 27 respectively, then the common ratio r =......

I

I L.

*t

7

30. In an A.P. if 4 times of 4th [ ] M 0term is equal to 5 times of5lh term then...... term is zero.

N. 9O. 10P. 8

******

140

MATHEMATICS - PAPER I - BLUEPRINTQ. Subject. - Unit / Unit Marks Knowledge Understanding Application Skill TotalNo. Sub Unit No Allotted E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 01. Statement 1 2(1) 2(1)2. Sets 1 2(1) 2(1)3. Function 2 2(1) 2(1)4. Polynomial 3 2(1) 2m5. Linear

Programming4 2(1) 2(1)

6. Real Number 5 2(1) 2(1)7. Real Number 5 2(1) 2(1)8. Progression 6 2(1)9. Statement 1 1(1) 1(1)

10. Sets 1 1(1) 1(1)11. Function 2 1(1) 1(1)12. Polynomial 3 1(1) 1(1)13. Real Numbers 5 1(1)14. Progression 6 1(1) 1(D15. Sets 1 4(1) 4(1)16. Function 2 4(1) 4(1)17. Polynomial 3 4(1) 4(D18. Polynomial 3 4(D 4(1)19. Linear

Programming4 4(1) 4(1)

20. Real Number 5 4(1) 4(1)21. Progression 6 4(1) 4(1)22. Progression 6 4(1) 4(1)23. Linear

Programming4 5(1) 5(1)

24. Polynomial 3 5(DTotal ■ 2(2) 20(5) 14(7) 4(4) 12(3) 2(1) 10(2)

141

MATHEMATICS - PAPER I

MARCH 2004

SI.No.

Unit Marks EssayType

ShortAnswer

Very Short Answer

ObjectiveType

Total %

1. Statements and Sets 10 - - 2 5 1/2 7 1/2 10% Knowledge

2. Functions Mapping 7 20 14 4 3 41 54% Understanding

3. Polynomial 16 12 2 - 6 1/2 20 1/2 24% Applications

4. Linear Programming 11 10 — — — 1- 12% Skill

5. Real Numbers 9

6. Progressions 11Total 42 16 05 15 79 100

142

SSC MATHEMATICS PAPER -1 MODEL BLUE PRINT

OBJECTIVE TYPE, MARCH 2004

Q.No.

Subject. - Unit / Sub Unit

UnitNo

MarksAllotted

Knowledge Understanding Application Skill TotalE SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 0

1. StatementsSets

1 1/2(4)

1/2(4)

2. Functions 2 1/2(2)

3 Polynomial 3 1/2C)

%(2)

1/2(3)

I4' LinearProgramming

4 1/2(2)

1/2fi)

5. Real Numbers 5 1/2(1)

Vz

(4)6. Progressions 6 1/2

(2)y2(2)

1/2(2)

Total 5%(11)

3(6) 6 % (13)

143

MATHEMATICS - PAPER I (English Version)

Parts A and B

Time : 2 1/2 Hours Max. Marks : 50

Time : 2 hoursPART A

Marks : 35

SECTION-I (Marks : 5 x 2 = 10)

Answer all the questions. (Statements Sets, functions, Real Numbers, progressions)

1. Show that P V (~P) is a Tautology.OR

Write the Converse and Inverse of the Conditional Statement.“In a triangle ABC, AB = AC, then ZB = ZC.

2. If n (A u B) = 51, n(A) = 20, n(B) = 44, find n (A n B).OR

Prove that (A')' = A.

3. Define one-one function with an example.OR

If f(x) = for x * -1, find f(2) and f(3).1 + x

4. If an = b, by = c, cz = a , show that xyz = 1.OR

Simplify (xpq)r . (xq r)p . (xr p)q

5. Determine K so that K+2, 4K - 6 and 3K - 2 are the three consecutive terms of an A.P.

ORIf g 1, g2, ga are three G.M.s between m and n show that gi ga = g22 = mn.

SECTION - II (Marks : 4 x 1 = 4)

Answer the following questions: (Statements and Sets, Functions, Linear Programming)

6. "All prime numbers are odd”. Give a counter example.

7. Prove that (A n B) c A for any two sets A, B.

144

8. State the condition for a function to become Inverse function.

9. Define ISO profit line.

SECTION -III (Marks 4x4 = 16)

Answer the following questions : (Functions, Polynomials, Real Numbers, Progressions)

10. Let f, g, h be functions defined as follows :f(x) = x + 2, g(x) = 3x - 1 and h(x) = 2x, show that h o (g o f) = (h o g) o f

ORLet f : R -> R be defined by f(x) = 3x - 4. Show that f has an inverse function f1.

11. Find the constant term in the expansion of ^3x ——

ORUsing the Remainder Theorem find the factors of x4 + 5x3 + 5x2 - 5x - 6.

12.

13.

If y = V3 + , show that 3y3 - 9y = 10

Evaluate

ORyjx + a - 42. ax

x -a1 1 IIf (b+c), (c+a) and (a+b) are in H.P., show that —, —, — will also

a h cbe in H.P.

ORFind the sum of the following sequence to n terms.9, 99, 999, 9999......

SECTION - IV (Marks : 5 x 1 = 5)

Answer the following questions. (Linear Programming)

14. Maximise f = 3x + 2y subject to the constraints 5x + 8y < 40, 5x + 4y < 30, x > 0 and y > 0

ORA shop keeper sells not more than 30 shirts of each colour. Atleast twice as many white ones are sold as green ones. If the profit on each of the white be Rs.20 and that of Green be Rs.25, how many of each kind be sold to give him a maximum profit ?

145

MATHEMATICS-PART I (English Version)

Part B

Time : 30 Min. Max.Marks: 15

1. Write the CAPITAL LETTER showing the correct answer forthe following questions in the brackets provided against them.

1. If A cz B, then A n B = [ ]A. A B. BC. A uB D. An B

2. f = {(x, 3) | x e N } then f is a---------- -function. [ 1A. one-one B. ontoC. constant D. Identity

3. (2, -3) lies in------------------ quadrant. [ ]A. Qi B. q 2C. q 3 D. q 4

4. No. of terms in the expansion of (x - 2y)7 ( ]A. 7 B. 8C. 9 D. 6

5. Product of the roots of the 73 x7 + 9x + 6 73 = 0 is [ ]A. 73 B. 6C. 9 D. 6 73

6. The point does not belong to x + y < 3 [ ]A. (2,1) B. (1,1)C. (2,0) D. (0.2)

7. (16)125- [ ]A. 32 B. 64C. 16 D. 125

Lt 5x2 =--------•X —> 3A. 225 B. 64C. 30 D. 45

If Ln = 10, then £n3 = --- - ■__A. 1 B. 10C. 100 D. 1000

146

10. Arithmetic mean of a,b is [ ]

A. \ab

C. ab

B.

D.

2ab a + b a + b

2

Fill in the blanks.

11. Symbol of the Universal Quantifier is--------------------12. If A c B and BczA, then-----------------13. If a set A contains *m’ elements and B contains ‘n’ elements then

the number of elements in A x B is---------------------14. Range of the function f= {(1,1), (2.1). (3,2)} is------------------15. If the sum of the co-efficients of a polynomial is zero, then------------

is a factor to it

True or False

18. If A and B are disjoint sets, A n B = (|> [

19. The expression ax + by + c is homogeneous. [ ]

20. 6C2 = 20 I ]

Match the following :

21.Group AG.M. of 3 and 27 [ ]

Group Ba) 1

22. A.M. of 4 and 6 [ ] b) 0

23. If —, x, — are in GP [ ] c) 9

24.

7 2then x =(49)°5 [ 1 d) co

25. Lt - = 0 [ ] e) 7

f) 5

147

Group B

26. x > 0, y > 0 lies in [ ] g) m

27. y = 0 represents —axis [ ] h) X

28. Slope of y = mx + c [ ] i) 18

29. x° = [ ] j) y

30. If f(x) = 3x then f o f(2) [ ] k)

1)

Qi

1

148

MATHEMATICS - PAPER I - PROPOSED BLUE PRINT

Q.No.

Subject. - Unit / Sub Unit

UnitNo

MarksAllotted

Knowledge Understanding Application Skill TotalE SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 0

1. Statements/Sets

1 2 2

2. Sets 1 2 2 r3. Function 2 2 24. R.N 5 2 25. Progression 6 2 26. Statement 1 1 17. Sets 1 1 18. Function 2 1 19. Linear

Programming4 1 1

10. Function 2 4 411. Polynomial 3 4 412. R.N. 5 4 413. Prog. 6 4 414. Linear

Programming4 5 5

Objectives-1. Statements/Sets 1/2 4(1/2)2. Functions 1/2 2(1/2) 3(1/2)3. Polynomial % 2(1/2) I 2(1/2) 1(1/2) 1(1/2)4. Linear

Programming1/2 2(1/2) 1(1/2) 2(1/2)

5. R.N. 1/2 2(1/2) 2(1/2) 1(1/2)6. Progression 1/2 1(1/2) 3(1/2) 1(1/2)

Total 4 3 61/2 8 4 1 5 8 2 2 5 11/213 % 18 12 6 1/227% 36% 24% “73% I J

149

MATHEMATICS - PAPER I

SI.No.

Type of Question

TotalMarks

Allotted

Marksfor

EachQuestion

No. of Questions

Timerequired

inminutes for each question

TotalTime(Mts)

1. Objective 15 1/2 30 1 30

2. Very Short

Answer

4 1 4 3 12

3. Short

Answer

10 2 5 5 25

4. Long

Answer

16 4 4 10 40

5. Very long

answer

5 5 1 20 20

Time for Reading ques

answersion paper and review or revision of 23

Total 150

Difficulty levelDifficult 20%Average 44%Easy 36%

150

MATHEMATICS - PAPER I

ANALYSIS-I

ANALYSIS OF WEIGHTAGE OF MARKS IN PRESENT AND PROPOSED BLUE PRINT

SI.No.

Chapter No. ofPeriodsAllotted

MarksAllottedAs per

Present Blue Print

Proposed Allotment

of Marks in Maths Paper I

1. Statements and

Sets

10 11 1/2 8

2. Functions or

mapping

14 13 1/2 8 1/2

3 Polynomials 15 14 1/2 84. Linear

Programming

12 14 1/2 8

5. Real Numbers 12 11 1/2 8 1/2

6. Progressions 18 13 1/2 9

Total 81 79 50

151

MATHEMATICS PAPER - II (English Version)

Parts and B

Time : 2 hrs Max.Marks: 50

PART A

Time : 2 hours Marks : 35

SECTION -1

Answer the following questions.(Geometry, Analytical Geometry, Trigonometry, Computing)

1. There is a circle of radius 3 from a point P which is at a distance of 5 cm from the centre of the circle. A tangent is drawn to the circle. Find the length of the tangent.

ORA ladder 25 cm long reaches a window of a building 20 m above the ground. Determine the distance of the foot of the ladder from the building.

2. If the three points A(P, 2), B(-3, 4) and C(7, -1) are collinear. Find the value of P.

ORFind the intercepts made by the line 3x + y + 4 = 0.

3. Evaluate 3 sin2 45° + 2 cos2 60°.OR

Eliminate 0 from x = cos 0 + sin 0, y = cos 0 - sin 0.

4. Write the characteristics of a computer.OR

What are the essential components of a computer ?

5. State any four languages that are used in a computer.OR

What are the different boxes used in a flow chart ?

SECTION - II (Marks : 4 x 1 = 4)

Answer the following questions : (Statistics, Matrices, Computing)

6. Write the relation among Mean, median and Mode.

152

1 3 2 P

_ 0 L -1 -1, find P.

find A28. lfA =1 40 -1

7

9. Define Algorithm.

SECTION - III (Marks : 4 x 4 = 16)

Answer the following questions. (Analytical Geometry, Trigonometry, Statistics, Matrices)

10. Find the equation of the line which passes through the point (1,-6) and whose product of the intercepts on the coordinate axes is one.

ORIn what ratio does P(4,6) divide the Join of A(-2,3) and B(6,7).

11. Express all trigonometrical ratios in terms of sec 0.OR

A glider is flying at an altitude of 500" mts. The angle of depression of the control tower of the airport from the glider is 18°. What is the horizontal distance between the glider and the control tower ?

0' 6' 12' 18' 24' 30' 36' 42' 48' 54' Mean Differences0.0° 0.1° 0.2° 0.3° 0.4° 0.5° 0.6° 0.7° 0.8° 0.9° 1' 2' 3' 4' 5'

18C cn O) co r- r- co CO m ’’t3 6 10 13 16

xr CD co o CM CO co o CNCN CM CM CO co co co co MCO co CO co co co co co coO o O o ci ci o ci ci o

12. The frequency distribution of Marks scored by 50 students in a test is given below. Find the Mean.

Marks 0-19 20-39 40-59 60-79 80-99No.of 5 15 22 06 02Students

ORThe Frequency Distribution of the weight of 100 persons are given below. Find the Median.

Weights 60-64 65-69 70-74 75-79 80-84 85-89 Frequency 13 28 35 12 09 03

153

13. If A =ii b 1 0= , / =c d 0 I

, then A2 - (a+d) A = (be - ad) I.

ORSolve the following linear system using Craner Method, x + 5y = 17, 5x + y = 13

SECTION - IV (Marks : 5 x 1 = 5)

Answer the following questions : (Geometry)

13. Construct a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD in which AC = 4 cm, ZABC = 57°, AB = 1.5 cm and AD = 2 cm.

ORState and prove Basic Proportionality theorem.

MATHEMATICS - PAPER 11 (English Version)

PART -B

Time : 30 Min Max. Marks: 15

Write the CAPITAL LETTER showing the correct answer for the following question in the brackets provided against them.

1. In triangle ABC, BC2 + AB2 = AC2 then — angle.A. ZA B.C. ZC D.

-—is the right [ ]

3.

ZBNone

The centroid of the triangle, whose sides are given by x=0, y=0 andx+y = 6 isA. (0,0)C. (3,3)

Tan250 - Sec250 =----------A. 1C. -1

B.D.

B.D.

(2,2)(6,6)

[ ]

4. Range of 20, 18, 37, 42, 3, 12, 15, 26 isA. 45 B. 34C. 39 D. 40

154

5.

6.

7.

A Histogram consists of A. SectorsC. Triangle

A . A'1 =--------------------

A. Non matrixC. A

cos 0 -sin 0 sin 0 cos 0

A. 0C. 1

[ ]B. RectangleD. Squares

[ ]

B. IdentityD. A'1

[ ]

B. cos2 0D. -1

8. In ------------------------------used.A. 1C. 3

Generation of computers transistors are [ ]

B. 2 D. 4

9. cos 0° + V2 sin 45° + sin A = 3 then A is A. 90° B.C. 45° D.

30°60°

]

10. Determinant of

A. 7 C. 4

3 -1 1 2 [ 1

B. 5D. 6

11.

11.

12.

13.

Fill in the blanks.

Information is stored in---------------------unit of a computer.

All parts of a computer are controlled by-------------------unit.

----------------------------js used to make a diagrammaticrepresentation of an algorithm.

14.

15.

III.

16.

17.

If A = [5,2], B = , then AB =-----------

The mode of 10, 15, 15, 10, 12, 13, 19, 15 is

True or False.

Angle in a semicircle is 180°.

y =mx passes through origin.

[

[

]

]

155

18. sin2/ [ ]

19. Arithmetic mean is not based on all observations. [ ]

20. Computer is an electronic device. [ ]

IV. Match the following.Group A

21. ZB [ ] A. 15°

22. If sinO —, then 0 =....... [ ] B. -22

23. Tan (A+B) = 73 and [ ] C. 1Tan A 1 then, Tan B=

24. Slope of x - y = 0 [ ] D. -1

25. Slope of a line perpendicular [ ] E. 30°to x-2y + 5 = 0 F. 60°

Group B

26. Arithmetic Mean of a+2 and rL ] G. 14.5a and a - 2.

27.Mode is / + A' X c [ ] H. 3A, + A2

then Ai is

28. Mid value of C.I. 10-19 [ ] I. I

3 O'29. P = is a non- [ ] J. a0 2

scalar matrix then X is

30. Inverse of the Identity [ ] K. f-lMatrix I is

L. f-fi

156

MATHEMATICS - PAPER II

PROPOSED BLUE PRINTQ.No.

Subject. - Unit / Sub Unit

UnitNo

MarksAllotted

Knowledge Understanding Application Skill TotalE SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 0

1. Geometry 7 2 22. Analvtic 8 2 23. Triqonometry 9 2 24. Computing 12 2 25. Computing 12 2 26. Statistics 10 1 17. Matrices 11 1 18. Matrices 11 1 19. Computation 12 1 1

10. AnalyticalGeometry

8 4 - 4

11. Trigonometry 9 4 412. Statistics 10 4 413. Matrices 11 4 414. Geometry 7 5 5

Objectives 1/21. Geometry 7 2 12. Analytic 8 2 13. Trigonometry 9 1 1 44. Statistics 10 5 1 15. Matrices 11 46. Computing 12 5

Total 4 2 81/2 8 4 2 21/2 8 2 3% 5 %14 % 16 % 1 3 % 5 %29% 33% 27% 11%

157

MATHEMATICS - PAPER II

SI.No.

Type of Question

TotalMarks

Allotted

Marksfor

EachQuestion

No. of Questions

Timerequired

inminutes for each question

TotalTime(Mts)

1. Objective 15 1/2 30 1 30

2. Very Short

Answer

4 1 4 3 12

3. Short

Answer

10 2 5 5 25

4. Long

Answer

16 4 4 10 40

5. Very long

answer

5 5 1 20 20

Time for Reading quesanswers

tion paper and review or revision of 23

Total 150

Difficulty levelDifficult 20%Average 44%Easy 36%

158

MATHEMATICS - PAPER II

ANALYSIS -1

ANALYSIS OF WEIGHTAGE OF MARKS IN PRESENT AND PROPOSED BLUE PRINT

SI.No.

Chap.No.

Chapter No. ofPeriodsAllotted

Marks AllottedAs per

Present Blue Print

Proposed Allotment of Marks in Maths Paper II

PartA

PartB

Total

1. 7 Geometry 18 12 12 1/2 14 1/2 81/22. 8 Analytical

Geometry

14 13 2 y? 15 1/2 8

3. 9 Trigonometry 15 12 2 1/2 14 1/2 8 1/24. 10 Statistics 13 7 2 1/2 9 1/2 91/2

5. 11 Matrices 13 11 2 1/2 13 1/2 9

6. 12 Computing 10 9 21/2 11 1/2 8

Total 83 64 15 79 50

159

TRAINING TO TRAIN PAPER SETTERS IN EVALUATION OF SCHOOL SUBJECTS AT

SECONDARY SCHOOL LEVEL OF ANDHRA PRADESH

MODEL QUESTION PAPER

SOCIAL STUDIES, PAPER II (Geography and Economics)

Time : 2 1/2 Hours Marks: 50

PART A (Marks : 35)

SECTION-l(5x 2 = 10)

Note : Answer any FIVE questions, choosing atleast TWO from each group.

GROUP-A

1. Mention four reasons for calling India “A country having Unity in Diversity".

2. Name any four important forest-based industries.3. Mention two problems of Indian agriculture.4. Mention four important challenges the Indian railways face.

GROUP-B

5. Mention any four programmes launched by the Government for promotion of employment.

6. What are the reasons for regional imbalances ?7. What is meant by ‘planning’ ?8. Name any four services where the ‘Tertiary’ sector generate

occupations ?

SECTION- II (4 x 1 = 4)Note : Answer any FOUR questions in one or two sentences each.

9. What is a ‘dune’? Give one example.10. What do you mean by sheet erosion ?11. What is an industrial region ?12. Define poverty line.13. What is meant by ‘Green Revolution' ?14. How do you measure income inequalities ?

160

SECTION III (4x 4 = 16)

Note:Answer any FOUR questions choosing any TWO questions from each group.

GROUP-A

15. Mention any eight benefits accrued to this country by Himalayas.16. Explain the problems of 'Population Explosion’.17. What are the favourable factors for the development of cotton

textiles in and around Mumbai and Ahmedabad ?18. What are the chief exports and imports of India ?

GROUP-B19. Explain the meaning of organized and unorganized sectors with

suitable examples.20. Explain the significance of service sector in Indian economy.21. What are the achievements and failures of planning ?22. Distinguish various economic systems.

SECTION - IV

Note : Locate the following in the given outline map of India.

23. Group A1. Aravalli Mountains2. Capital city of Karnataka3. Malva Plateau4. Delhi5. River Godavari

Group B1. ‘Thar’desert2. Vishakhapatnam harbour3. 7,h National Highway4. Nagarjuna Sagar Project5. Vindhya Mountains

161

SOCIAL STUDIES - PAPER II

PART B

Time : 30 Minutes Marks : 15

Note : 1. Answer all the questions.2. Each question carries (1/2) mark)

I. Choose the right answer.

1. K2 Peak is located in ( )a)c)

KarakoramHindukush

b)d)

PamirLadhakh

2. The exact difference between Greenwich and Indian StandardTime ( )a) 4 1/2 Hours b) 5 >2 Hoursc) 3 1/2 Hours d) 5 hours

3. The largest area of forestland is found in this State ? ( )a) Haryana b) Andhra Pradeshc) Madhya Pradesh d) Orissa

4. The Headquarters of South-Central Railway Zone is ( )a) Kolkota b) Chennaic) Mumbai d) Secunderabad

5. ‘Bhilai’ is famous for ( )a) cement industry b) ship-building industryc) iron-steel industry d) paper industry

6. Income earned by work or labour is ( )a) National Income b) Unearned incomec) Per-capital Income d) Earned income

7. The organizations run by Government comes under ( )a) Public sector b) Private sectorc) Foreign sector d) Personal sector

8. India’s per capital income in 1995 was ( )a) 430 Dollars b) 304 Dollarsc) 620 Dollars d) 340 Dollars

9. Chemicals and Aluminium industries are called as ( )a) Intermediate Goods Industriesb) Consumer Goods Industriesc) Basic Industries d) Capital Goods Industries

162

10. The slogan “Garibi Hatao” is related to ( )a) Fourth Five Year Plan b) Second Five Year Planc) Sixth Five Year Plan d) First Five Year Plan

11. Fill in the blanks with suitable answers :

11. Terai is a-------------------12. India is the------------------most populous country in the world.13. The tribal agriculture is called as----------------14. Silk industry is predominant in--------------- State.15. International Air Services are run by-----------------------16. Structural inflation is rampant in-------------------17. The backbone of Indian economy is---------------18. Construction, manufacturing comprise ------------ sector of the

economy.19. As regards the Industrial Development Index -­

State occupies the first place.20. Presently we are in--------------------- five year plan.

III. Match the following :

Group AA

Group B

21. Blue Revolution ( ) A Commercial Crop22. Hirakud Project ( ) B. Milk23. Sugarcane ( ) C. Waterway24. Kolar ( ) D. Fish25. Buckingham ( ) E. Gold

F. Orissa

Group AB

Group B

26. Agriculture ( ) A. Growth of towns27. Heavy Industries Sector ( ) B. Economic drain28. Urbanisation ( ) C. Fourth Five-year

Plan29. D.R.Gadgil ( ) D. Agarbathi making30. Unorganised sector ( ) E.

F.

Second five-year planPrimary sector Sector

16.3

SOCIAL STUDIES PAPER II (Geography and Economics) - BLUE PRINT

Pari B Part A MarksAllotted

Knowledge Understanding Application Skill TotalQ.

No.Subject Unit / SubUnitUnit

Q.

No.Subject Unit / SubUnitUnit

E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 0

1 G-l-2 1 G 1-1 >4(1) 2(1) 2 %

2 G-l-1 2 G I-4 2(1) 'Ad)

2 >4

3 G-l-4 3 >4(1) %

4 G-l-11 4 G 1-11 2(1) % (1) 2 >4

5 G-l-10 5 E 11-1 % (1) 2(1) 2 >4

6 E-l-7 6 E II-3 2(1) >4(1) 2%

7 E-lll-2 70)

%

8 E-ll 8 >4(1) 'A

9 E-lll-2 9 G I-2 >4(1) KD 1 >4

10 E-IV-3 10 G I-5 1(D >4 (D 1 y,

11 G-l-2 11 >4(1) ’/»

12 G-l-6 12 E II-4 1(1) >4 (1) 1 ’/>

13 G-l-8 13 >4(1) ’/j

14 G-l-10 14 E I-7 KD y,(D

1 ’/,

15 G-l-11 15 G I-2 4(1) >4 (D 4 ’/,

16 E-ll-4 16 G I-6 % (1) 4(1) 4 'A

17 E-lll-1 17 % (1) 'A

18 E-Ill 18 >4 (1) 'A

164

19 E-Ill-2 19 E-l-2 %(1) 4(1) 4 >4

20 E-IV-3 20 %(D

'/,

21 G-l-8 21 E-IV-4 4(1) >4(1) 4’Z,

22 G-l-7 22 %(1, >4

23 G-l-8 23 Mappointing

’/4(1)

1(5) 5%

24 G-l-9 >4(1) %

25 G-l-11 >4(1) >4

26 E-Ill-1 >4 (1) >4

27 E-Ill-2 Total >4(1) %

28 E-l-4 %(1)

%

29 E-l >4(1) >4

30 E-ll-2 >4(1) >4

4(2) 2(2, 1(2) >4(14) 4(1) 2(2)’ 1(1) >4(10) 4(1) 2(1) 1(1) >4(6)

1(5)

8 4 2 7 4 4 1 5 4 2 1 3 5 50

165

WEIGHTAGE TO THE CONTENT

SI.No.

Content Areas No. of Questions

Marks Percentage

1. Main Reader 08 16 322. Vocabulary 22 08 163. Structure/ Grammar Items 05 05 104. Reading Comprehension 09 09 1/2 195. Language use 11 11 1/2 23

Total 55 50 100

WEIGHTAGE TO THE OBJECTIVES

SI.No.

Objectives No. of Questions

Marks Percentage

1. Knowledge 14 40%2. Comprehension 09 30%3. Expression 07 20%4. Appreciation 05 10%

Total 50 100

WEIGHTAGE TO THE TYPES OF QUESTIONS

SI.No.

Types of Questions No. of Questions

Marks Percentage

1. Essay 16 32%2. Short 10 20%3. Very Short 04 08%4. Objective 20 40%

Total 50 100

WEIGHTAGE TO THE CONTENT OF QUESTIONS

SI.No.

Difficulty Level No. of Questions

Marks Percentage

1. Easy(E) 12 24%2. Average (A) 25 50%3. Difficulty (D) 13 26%

Total 50 100

166

SOCIAL STUDIES, PAPER - I (English Version)

Parts A and 13Time : 2 1/z Hours Max.Marks : 50

Instructions

1. Answer the questions under Part A on a separate answer book.2. Write the answers to the question under Part B on the question

paper itself and attach it to the book of Part A.3. Attach the given outline map of India with the answer book of Part

A.

PART - ATime :2 hours Marks : 35

SECTION - I (5 x 2 = 10)Note : Answer any FIVE questions, choosing at least two from each group.

GROUP-A

1. What do you know about Round Table Conference ?2. Mention any four principles guiding the Congress of Vienna.3. Explain Apartheid in South Africa.4. What are the main principles of Bhakti Movement ?

GROUP-B5. What are the rights of a child ?6. What do you mean by‘Rule of law “ ?7. Mention any four malpractices in election.8. Name any four principal organs of the U N.

SECTION - IIAnswer any FOUR questions in one or two questions. 4x1=49. What is Drain Theory ?10. NATO stands for--------------------11. SWAPO. Expand------------------------12. Give the meaning of corruption.13. What is Federalism ?14. Explain the term'Third World’.

167

SECTION-III (4x4 = 16)

Answer ANY FOUR questions, choosing TWO from each group.

GROUP-A

15. What are the factors responsible for the rise of Imperialism ?16. What were the causes for the Russian Revolution of 1905 ?17. What are the causes for the outbreak of World War II ?18. Bring out the factors that contributed to the growth of National

Consciousness in India ?

GROUP-B

19. Describe briefly the factors that contributed to the promotion of national integration ?

20. What are the steps to be taken to realize the objectives of Universal Primary Education ?

21. Describe the problems of environmental pollution and ecological decay.

22. What are the precautions for observance by those who ride motor­cycles and scooters ?

SECTION - IV

23. Mark the following places on the outline map of India. (10x1/2 = 5)Group A

1. Atlantic Ocean2. Berlin3. Venuzula4. Egypt5. New Delhi

ORGroup B

1. Mexico2. Portugal3. Red Sea4. Ghana5. India

168

SOCIAL STUDIES, PAPER I (English Version)

Parts A and BTime : 2 Vz hours Max. Marks : 50

Time : 30 MinutesPART B

Marks : 15

Note :1. Answer all the questions.2. Each question carries Vi mark.3. For questions 1 to 10 answer are given under A, B, C and D.

Candidate must use the capital letters while answering the multiple choice questions.

4. Marks will not be awarded in case of any overwriting or re­writing or erased answers.

Note : Answer the following questions in the space provided and attach it to the main answer book of Part A

Write the letters showing the correct answers in the brackets provided against each questions. (10 x % = 5)

1. The battle of Nations took place in the year a) 1812 b) 1813c) 1815 d) 1913

( )

2. The French King who took away the freedom of press (a) Louis Phillipec) Leopold

b)d)

NapoleanCharles-X

3. The political leader of the Reform Partya) Louis Blanc b) Karl Marksc) Theirs d) Bismark

4.

5.

The emperor of United Germany a) William-I b)c) Joseph Mazzini d)

Congo was discovered by a) Livingston b)c) Washington d)

(Victor Emmanuel Garibaldi

CameronColombus

(

6. Delinking of the State from religious matters is known as( a) Imperialism b) Secularismc) Socialism d) Nationalism

169

7. The First General Elections was held in India during the year( )a) 1951 c) 1952

b)d)

19501953

8. The minimum age of marriage for girls ( )a) 20 b) 18c) 21 d) 16

9. The Andhra State was joined in the year ( )a) 1956 b) 1953c) 1951 d) 1950

10. India - China war took place during the year ( )a) 1965 b) 1962c) 1964 d) 1963

II. Fill in the blanks : (10x14 = 5)11. The European power to gain the final control over Indonesia was

12. The architect of League of Nations was--------------------13. Robert Mugabe became the first President of--------------in 1980.14. During-------------------period Sati was abolished in India.15. Temples at Mahabalipuram were built by---------------------16. I.A.S. stands for------------------------17. Electoral roll means the list of------------------in any election.18. The year in which the Universal Declaration of Human Rights was

adopted by the United Nations--------------------------------19. United Nations came into existence on---------------------------20. The Report of Willy Brandt Commission was published during the

year----------------------------------

III Match the following :

Group A21. Pan Asianism22. Open door policy23. Sukarno24. Tilak

25. A.O.Hume

A

( )( )( )( )

( )

BGroup A

26. Dowry Prohibition Act ( )27. Bandung Conference ( )

28. I.M.F. ( )29. W.T.O. ( )

30. National Literacy Mission ( )

(5 x 1/2 = 2 1/2)

Group Ba) Indonesiab) Japanc) Americad) Indian National

Congresse) Kesari

Group Ba) 1955b) World Trade

Organisationc) 1988d) International

Monetary Funde) 1961

170

SOCIAL STUDIES PAPER I History and Civics - Parts A and B

BLUE PRINT

PartB

PartA

SubjectUnit

Sub­Unit No

MarksAllotted

Knowledge Understanding Application Skill Total

Q.No.

Q No A B E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA

0 E SA VSA

0 E SA VSA 0

1 1 H — VII a 2 'A 2 'A

2 2 H -1 2 2 % 2 'A

3 3 H-V 4 2 'A 2 V,

4 4 H —VI 5 2 'A 'A 25 5 Civics III 6 2 'A 2 'A

6 6 Civics I 2 2 'A 2 'A

7 7 Civics II 2 2 'A 'A 2a 8 Civics V 2 2 'A 2 'A

9 9 Civics VII 1 1 'A 'A 1

10 10 Civics V 1 1 'A 1 'A

11 11 Civics VI 12 1 'A 1 'A

12 12 Civics III 8 1 'A 1 'A

13 13 Civics I 3 1 'A 1 'A

14 14 Civics V 6 1 'A 1 'A

15 15 Civics III 1 4 'A 4 'A

16 16 Civics I e 4 'A 4

17 17 Civics V 8 4 'A 4 'A

18 18 His - li 1 4 'A 'A 4

19 19 His - III 1 4 'A 4 'A

20 20 His - Iv 3 4 'A 4 'A

21 21 His-VII 2 4 'A 4 'A

22 22 Civics-Ill 3 4 % 'A 423 23 Civics-I 5 'A 'A 5

171

24 Civics V­III

’/i 'A

25 Civics VI 'A 'A

26 V, 'A

27 'A A

28 % 'A

29 % 'A

30 'A 'A

59 15 12 10 3 7 5 3

172

WEIGHTAGE TO THE OBJECTIVES

SI.No.

Objectives No. of Questions

Marks Percentage

1. Knowledge 32 43%2. Understanding 23 31%3. Application 14 19%4. Skills 05 07%

Total 74 100

WEIGHTAGE TO THE TYPES OF QUESTIONS

SI.No.

Types of Questions No. of Questions

Marks Percentage

1. Essay 37 50%2. Short 16 22%3. Very Short 06 08%4. Objective 15 20%

Total 74 100

WEIGHTAGE TO THE CONTENT OF QUESTIONS

SI.No.

Difficulty Level No. of Questions

Marks Percentage

1. Easy (E) 18 25%2. Average (A) 37 50%3. Difficulty (D) 19 25%

Total 74 100

An Observation (Critical) on Social Studies

Question Papers

Suggestions and Observations

1. I Paper (21) consists of HISTORY and Civics History Part contains Units : 7, Sub-Units : 69 Civics Part contains Units : 3, Sub-Units : 36Both History and Civics have equal weightage regarding Marks i.e. 25 + 25.

2. II paper (22) consists of Geography and Economics Geography Part contains : Unit 1, Sub units 14Economics Part contains : Units 4, Sub-units - 20 (small sub units)

173

Both Economics and Geography have equal weightage regarding marks i.e. 25 + 25.

3. Analysis on Questions given from Units : I History

Suggestions

• Appropriate weightage is not being given to the chapters.• The content load in History and Civics, Geography and Economics

is not equal but equal weightage is being given in the question papers for all the four areas of Social Studies.

• Even though the content weightage in all the four areas are not equal, keeping in view the significance of Civics and Economics, the weightages could be restructured as :History and Civics : 3 : 2 Geography and Economics : 3:2(Instead of 1:1 as is now being done)

174

PUBLIC EXAMINATIONS

SOCIAL STUDIES, PAPER I, MARCH 2005 (Telugu Version) Parts A and B

Analysis of Questions Unitwise

able 1Q.

No.1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23

Question Given in History Unit

I II III IV I I IV I IV VII V MapPoint

CivicsUnit

- • I II III IV ■ ■ V I II ■ • ■ I II III IV

Marksallotted

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5

Table 2

HISTORY CIVICSUnit Marks

AllottedEssay

(4 marks)Short

(2 marks)VSA (1 mark)

Objective Unit MarksAllotted

Essay (4 marks)

Short(2 marks)

VSA (1mark)

Objective

I 8 1 1 2 - I 7 1 1 1 -II 2 - 1 - - II 7 1 1 1 -III 2 - 1 - - III 6 1 1 - -IV 5 1 - 1 - IV Nil - - - -V 4 1 - - - V 5 1 ---------------- 1 -VI 2 - 1 - - VI 2 - 1 - -VII 4 1 - - - - - - - - -

175

TRAINING Ol« PAPER SETIERS IN EVALUATION OF SCHOOL SUBJECTS AT SECONDARY SCHOOL LEVEL OF ANDHRA

PRADESH

AT

SCERT, HYDERABAD

5.12.2005 TO 9.12.2005

(ORGANIZED AT REGIONAL INSTITUTE OF EDUCATION (NCERT), MYSORE 570006)

GROUP 1 ENGLISH

PAPER SETTERS IN ENGLISH

GROUP III SOCIAL STUDIES

PAPER SETTERS IN SOCIAL STUDIES

GROUP IV MATHEMATICS

> G Anwar, l^.anune Coo.dinator, adCressin,; aU Ibe par.?. ,pants and ..source poisons at SCERT, Conference Room, Hyderabad on 5.12.21HG.

GROUP II SCIENCE

TRAINING OF PAPER-SETTERS IN LATEST TRENDS, ISSUES AND PRACTICES IN THE EVALUATION OF SCHOOL SUBJECTS AT

SECONDARY LEVEL OF TAMIL NADU AT DIET, LADY WELLINGTON COLLEGE,

TRIPLICANE, CHENNAI

19-23 DECEMBER 2005

Model Question Papers Developed During Training by the Participants

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&L-.l—l‘l(olLjrb'fQ16!IT<>riv'llzbT _____

^l&ioSsi&ssrS) j q ) ffeinjg LbsvsflGLD&eineo

26. &LDLJtT

^>l) ^T3:.ST.Sl(TljLLl^<SSTljLr^fTJS}'Sn GsU3,rT)iTUJaLb uhsiinn&T

gg)) &waijr5rrijnujttftfULJ)sn6miiT

27. LfrnrBrf^ir^l sirgn/lb Qg,rri—Gvijij LJItfl&ffiLb (LpsvrD

^{) L]p + p^tyirrv LipprT +^IT£U ypib + ysrr-swyj, + ^yy^jy

28. <9,ml d u &, s-njjuLj&'oiT

UJST6ifllJ ffhlQ g)} U^)Q6WL_(Jl

29. Qurrifiev GrtisiLJgro^LJ Qurr^&r

^>f) 3tt>&ST L£>eV)6V .^j) GjfTto^SU

30. &rfliurr&!r erflsm- mh l iJ) (Surrey Q&iu q ] <iT(Lp#rf&.

LyJd&Q LDpQrorT(n) Quiufr______ (wsmr I wsir)

31. 3L£>snsnr Gurrnj^iib Q^iueuih

^S>i ------ &iisr ((ff, / ffjyJ

VI. &Lfl3,3,iTto?J)!LD efil&5TIT3>'9,{Sn)<oil 6TSmSil(SllJ <g)/Lfi '33l$3)6ine!iT3,(3> WL..(Ql U

(<speij(ol6vrTGsrrfilrbtajLf) eifi<fnrni 6Uzf)A(6n><i(a> Lfil&rTLDGV ) aflani— 6r(Lg3/j3,. 5x2 =10

32. 2_<sneuGiT3}§ilrr)e!nLD 6JiNL-ig] ershizsi?

33. 6^(iT) giGnioaG&iivVhQV aRetr<9i(<9j&.

34. Qurfhurrrr CTOTOTiiih Q^rrev Grgsvan rffwvzteii&f#,#, QarrssuT® 6ii(n)6ug,tTa.jj

^(fyQfJj.^.&S^lffudlQ&fiiDrrrf?

35. ^ijmc.^r aficinsrra/ GTsiuug] u.iiT3)]?

36. &u}.&n& (Lp&giLJLiGoeiirT ^ujiptfluj ^fjev^eh iu it g w s ij ?

37. Q&*V6Vir ^j(jT)<suQj)Lb 6^srr6ineuiurrrf1i_ ib Geusssru^uj^] turret?

38. tyeuQeunqT, ffn.LU—g>f£lQ)]Lb 6U.&-.&1. GrQ&jgj&nrjj^Lb Sjl^atgjrD&r iu it &j ?

VII. ^L£) 9.<3>f75Ji» LL 6lPs5rrr<K«(6TJjfaW GT6lf)Gu(j>lLI (tftflb QpdsTlf)Gj)l&{gf LDL—($)LL

(spdjQsu rT&sTffilrixgjLL ■^gl en ifil&rrLDGti &Slsmi_ 5T(LC3,i3. 3 X 5=15

39. 6iyi7 ypafijD@ffluj ^ehiug3,j6vtr)&<oir uprfjljj lurr&j Jnuru&lprrfr?

40. QurfhurTGijrr® LfliDps) g)rj<smr@ njM^vi&nsTfr^^^rxsir etfieir

41. eu.&-.&l. ^leufrsiefflsiT ussiTLj r^M fsr<Ji6i>. arr <oT(Lg3)i3,.

42. ^l d j )]l i hfsvsuiflasT fisisTiffl wrosumj ussinJlsmssr nflsrr &,(&>&.

43. ^jsvsurrip^sius, srijuap s u s l t ij Gs u^o o t I^Qw ^t s t (Lp.su. surripg&tjSlprnT?

VIII. 8,Lp&>&.rr§$siiLb stflssrrrashStysiT GjGpsspLD spssrrnsvU3>(&) l dl _®l d u Sylsmssrrij&i]

su rfl3>{srf)&>(3) Lfi)&rrwsv siflsmi_ srpp^ps,. 7 X 7 = 744. ^ghurrstfsTST ^uipss)3i susni'iithSfT , sunipAsm#, up^ji (&jLspiurr&$ $ss>svsutfii—W

&>tjr)g>&)}a,ss>sffg) Q^rr^^,^] sr(ip&j&.

45. STsiiQsusuibsmfDU Liup&.Qwrrty wap.su. Qgnt&tfBtysmj.&SlprTrr?

46. s^snssysuiunGij i_iit s t v&sp]3,(3) (ipdaGsumsp stJst i ismj, siflsn&>(&)&>.

47. LDGtoSSltlfltU spiw &>svstfhiiLb o is t Gt ] ansuA^^.

IX. &ijp£&rT6in)iLL ^/smssT&j&ii 6iOsMfra<*(®5«i(a^ib stflsini— s t l u ^ia . 10 X 7=7048. erfliurrssr siflssu_snu.i& GjurrhSig® f,gj GT(Lp&li&.

lf>W firTL-M} SV f^S5TS31/tb ^IJOTII Gsusttrispiu SUST11ZJJi'i'tT______

^j) assflw susn/iiJisiT wsssr!f>rr&>i&,&srr (<£)) «(_6U susfrihjasiT

49. G&rrupLLi— g£)i_£sng, !firruLi&>

q® £-6U<5 _______Qarrpp Gi&it w l ] GuirsiTp^i

50. ^fsssr wrrsin s t s s t ij jSi'/jzi. Q&rrsv

asnip <K6mffD £g)) asmsrr

51. ffapA^a^s^iw surrA&hLiw sussief, surrA&huw ?

^l(/^susrr(Sff)surr [BL-Ss il j , ^s s t l Us s t su^lsu^ G&sssrsmw , srsir/i) ^/ip&ir&rr Qprri—/jTTsu

52. ff,ipj,arrsqg)iw Q&iTL—iflspisrTGfT LnK)w<X'ssttff &>

^I'bQ 3,l t s v^,^)s V ffl^wLiijssmij^ij Q^apGlurTL^S}/ ^s u s u it ^A. l Ll -^s iu^A

<3>rrsisLLj&irfl&j.

53. &ipA&,rrsmpw ssustowfi QftrTL—ir&stosn TL^su&gQgrTt_ fr&STTrra wrr fb ,£)]&■

^/) wSJ(Lp3,W LDSVIJLLp

54. Gsurbnrpsnw B.(iijes)LJ& G&ri A &,i srppgi&i.

r&rw [5shrrDrT3> ^&s s t &stnsu _____ S-smrrrtsGtyrrw

55. ttipA&rrssniw Q^rrp^isf^sfT ^r^Qurr^sfr ^(i^w srGfr&niw ^<75 Q&rrsvsmsv sr(tpffi

^lAQ&nsu gprpb ^(j^QurT^ssysmqw sTppgis,.

^3>i) LiLsp ^,)^nsv ££)) urrrr f t -) &,s s >s v

56. &Lp3><9ursitt)iw surr&ffiiuLb siftssu—iu rr & ^ism-DiLjwrr ii)] siilssri5rrg,Qg,m_ it j s u j t A,$I(Sia .

wstnsvsusrrapw rg}svsusu(Lpw rflijWLfluj&ii ^ta^QibsvGsu&SlA ffsnw.

57. ff.ipAj,rrstt)iw Glprrsm&A Q&rrj)#, sn,sfr srG&ssjiw spsisinpssissr siflrfl^^j sr(ip^]<s>.

£|j)C&©fl«WW (LpA,#,Wiip

Lf /06i7 iu siflsnirr&.&tsii siiLqsv ss>l dl il / (ipst5>:r)

Q&uiuj sit (l / ri) su ui sul s h u t a, a,sii)

1. arfhurr&ST 6iflsv>L. smu j> (J<srT«/ Q&iuajsv

^>f) ^jl—LD a,L-l—SV

Ql j uiit&lLisv

2. ^/) QurKryswsna Giant^T,] ssusnw s^igga Qaiua>sv

3. ^S>l) ST dflSSld, G>&,l Ll —6V

GtDfr65i6iir Ga/Li—cb <g]) (gjsmuji./ (2<9>L_i_d)

4. (&)pstflsbT ^rrsmn—mi) ^ji^smiu l d l L-Ql d Qai^at/d Glarr®#,#!# #7i cfl/fl<s,gi/

5. LCiujtwQairsS'luLflsnifi&stT ^>i) Garret) ST(Lpp,aj s v ,s t t ,Lfi

6. LDiuthiQ^rrsSlijiJlsinLp^siT Qanst) ..^) sr(i££gj s&5r,sw

7. LDlUthjQaaTeGlULfl&S'iLpaSTT ^j) Q a IT 6V 6T(Lga,aj !T),IJ

8. njiT6\) Ql j iu it ^fflrflturf (^svsv^i) ^fflrfliurr Qu iu it lyrst) Qurr^gia/ja,

9. Garret) Gun^err Qurr(irtfiigiai.

(2) (3)

10. Qurr^siT siilsrriEjaai Q&rTLsmiJLJ iJlrfl^ajSV

s t .&t t l L® Ljrnir,nss)ir_ini ((Lpsbrjr)] siflgiLDnaiLJ Lflrfl£g,s\))

3. QsutbjrysGiLD pj ^s v l j ^smsssr^^i ST(Lgjfyig,&)

4. siTl&nsiiLJUtOj&jlsniLi<$ sr&&l o t aGsurr , (yrrbroiraGsurT Lbrrrbrfil surTafshuafSna,

rf,lrjLJLjg>6l)

5. s-sussunsmu sz-uysiiaLDriaeyiii s_(iheiia^esi^i & sus o l d u j it <9>w /l g LDtTrbrfil 6T(Lg<i>a Qatugdb

6. spQrj QurTQTfSTT as s is t it ^ajih C^),3 Qarrevsmsv ST(Lgg>aQauj@j6V

7. sp(iT) Qarreb^iara) (ji'vi, Gun^sir ST(jLQa}a

8. QajtTstr>a,a QaniijassieiT si31rfl^,^i sr(Lgg>a Qaiua}&)

9. Ga,rTL.<ji)a,(al siilssirr ^ssiLDaaa Qaiuajsv

10. arr^LiLilssiLp $a,&tl sragaja Qaiua}so

11. surr&SihuLj l j Is s il j j (sxriTjSsiLD, u s s t s s il d) rfia>£) sr(Lp$a Qatupsv.

L£>rr&drfl <stfl GMrr^^rr^fT

(Lp&>6V &>rT6IT

Gpijii) 230 LDsrafl Ql d t t s,# l d^Il j Qdg s s t 100

fSjtfi'llJLI 1) 6lf?oTM_ <$..« Q^SYf)61/fT<SCl/l_b (&>{&$& ^l]GTTGlilGSTS>TTSGljlb fytyAs, QcUGiST^ILb

2) g iAg n t t s t mt -IA(Sj S QsuJtLjGTr GVLg-GSlG) Gril<smi_ g t (iq £> Qsnsisr(^iii.

I. 3,ypA &>tiGm)]i'c) Gift g u t rr A s,(GTi)&T srss)eu(Sujea)jijD ini' g)iin

Gpaii(olGU TTGhrifiltpf&fijD eLpesTiru g ii tf)&>tgn>A<&> ifisirriDGti 6if?63ic_ Gr^gis,. 8 X 2= 16

1. CTSUSin^siSTLipSU GTGVGVTT ^IfOlhlSHGTTflb S-G1TG1TGHT?

2. 31stTLb GTGUtr)GV>rr)A Q&rreveyjLn?

3. 31n)iGtoLDiurr&&> QsrrGrTGTTS) s,As.sj g t s j }

4. -SI il d s t h s ,g $s t l — fferngtifliaST t£Ig 5)g o ujrr&j?

5. Qs.rraTtM LDrrAsGfT ^)Gu;<9. cnsu GrAjihiGSTLb r£ln)iS)§}lGfrrr?

6. a.t_ aj Lia,GV gJIiu it iu iLinstniju Qup^ehefT^?

7. ^)/PanC. ineBi6UuPsb gJIg idg it g ug t t lurrstnsu?

8. l i t t g g s t Gsfliir l t t t l -GG>i—A G>a,i_L(5) ^/swcBicaru/zn G^frt^ii/Lb tunsj SnjfilGSTrr?

9. @ fljj u 5)«b/)<®@ ^issib l JIidAs A smjGmrtb tu/Tgj?

10. urnjg l il £) Grs,s,Gins,tu / £t£)?

II. 3,rpAa>,i6if)637rrAaten^n eremeuGuiGtpjib ftpdkrjpg)iA{&) mi' (pin

epdiQeun sin fit iKSfib .^nji g u rflaietyAfS) ibIsi/TtEGV siS1s5)i_ GTup&ds,. 3 x 5=15

11. ffitty.GSl.a.LJrbltf)A (SjffilLJL] GUGMJ&.

12. ^mLjGTTGU^^lGST ^ILIGGLjSiGfr ILITTGIDGU?

13. l i&(L£ig is u_ lurrrr GTu'j&,iib (Sidg s t g l d g iu gJIg t t j>(S)S,.

14. @Gtn$GmuA <scisn_ ^/g s j j l c g s t ui&iij'A3)GV)iu GrflGurflAa.

15. S,(l£LDGU GlIGTrfBXtTLJ QlJ(TT)$3tfS)S,G®tLI (QITGST ^LDU^lf GTfbltSlGSTLb QuTTp^lSllftpmT.

III. SiljlA&ilTlpTWlb Gift GS1 IT As,{GI1)Gn GjQs,G^JW G GST IT) 6 .fAtS) lDl^_©lb LI S^GSTGST ftSil

GU ffl<9i(6W(<A(a> l£l&ITlDG\) gS)gSII_ GT(LD &,!&,. 1X7-7

16. v w A&Gl d ffipriig,Q,?)GisTLJGri&}tLiLb ^>is ,g g ig s t £-GM—.iurTijsj 2-iufr AfflGniutiiib g^g t t ASI

GT(L£>3jJSi.17. LdAiS.6U GUTTtfiSjStfLJ UITI—GS'.GV Q<zrfluj GU(f^lb S,GSSTGSSt SI GSiTTGUGVGST UGiiTLI

fbGVGbr&.GSIGTT GiSIg TTAS) GT(LD£ISi .

18. (S)id!j (s^njLJijrT l Sg s t t t l L^Iu j iIig id uTIg t ig s t g t g ug iit t j i)] fflpuiJIfisuGTTGurTrr?

19. g FIg s s t l Eg s t s-i' i in g ig s t g^w $g w s v l j l J)g v GuiTGtisflsjTT&GST Snir^u/GuibGin^)^ Qs,iT(S,Asj

GT(LpS,l&>.

IV. iSloir &j (iijeu saren djssyri) iSlroy^nLDGO 6T(w&i<9>. 2 +2+ 6 = 1020. GWoVt&QlurTLfllU GT&Srfi GlSjiri—rSlfgll ^.lySVGTTtLILLi &6lflrni 6T6ST (LpLqjljlb (<9jrO<SV>eiJUILb

sraggj*.

21. L/ppn6$iffrbjrilLJ l h t L>-v S)&) g,n<sisr G&mu siasifi Q&,rrL_i5i£lu um_hb lyyan&siLDiLiib

6T^O)J^

V. 9,L£>9, 3,rr<fflF)]LD r&J&SISjTgjgfl ^tt<T&,9,{Gtl)3,(&)W »lp6BlL_ 61 (£)<7i/«?i. 10 X 1= 10

22. Sjllfl 0,®3,3}<bTr>fy ^UJfDftlLIGlJ/r ________

^l) arrrfhurr &n<sisr ,-yp rrtwsvrrgtfsrrm

£§)) 3i6asO(SLD6inizujn'fT f f ) &vSifKZLr>6n&jUjrTiT.

23. eSliflLa.^i/'j, (^soisjSli^fiQ^rTsifl^ijSI&siQ&iiesi g)<F Q^iuiq^ir ibl^in

biJsT<JS)iLb &_g u g u il d &L-(blLb Qt-urq^sn

^]) LcsmLp ffemgi ggp u5)6W68r«.u f f ) cKiffoar^)

24. ff.Ljpa aiTGmyLb (^piLumbl&sr f i rbiouj- f f -^&SI&^^u i^ Ginripgjsb 'gfgiajoKM gn$iu

u 5)6U6W€O £jLf)f7<&@.

^j) u5h>b6B)6U 2-tlfll'T<9>('3) ES2J^)(U/j5)6L)65)6U S_uSllT<9,^

g)) u5)d)65)6u &_uf)rr&(3j f f ) tuLfileb&neo ^uSIrr^cg,

25. Loujiii Q&rTs5)u &etfiiF&G}#)(Lg&)i<9,.

e-uJliTGiflQgrfb ^i^tTaJjiib QutT^sirgj^ii) Q&rrsb---- ----------- erejnug^r^ib

^ro^sb)

26. QLfi&sflusni'i ^iij&Shurr (ymnrnuflw iSrEiS)1&irrrrr.

^■fQ&iuiLiGirupiShM ______ ^isMLnrii&iiviTen&ii.

^j) QLDFT&nSST GT&flSVa g) [gfimiLIL/ FT-) (IfilJ 6W

27. 6urT6nf)sb ^rthuGir______ g u ($ Miron g w (aieirib, susoib)

28. Mdtevn _.. 6U(ii)6nfl^,^iLJun(^leu^lM GU6b6UGvrr.

^>j) ^Ig w <s s s t 6WUJ

g) LD^IT,gjfi9,l6WGW5J6WtU

29. (olLJn^fin^M :

Q&rrGb

<°>l) Gey fig,/t

SUIT GW ill

(Ifiib&SXSVg, StanswOTHU

FF) UrT6V6\)fi <5)»8)K>W65)UJ

Qurr^Gtr

^jb^antuib

g) wnpfr

30. i paaGfflGb ^(tyLJUgi id ID (b07, <ofi$T)

31. Qenihiat_ l d it id o d g d GTsii^/iii Qa,m—Gmju itfrf)a(^Lb(ipGr)p

^g)/) (HGlIlhiai LO +LOfT+LO65)6U QGilliiai—LDIT+LDGGIGU

(g))G>61Jt5jai_ +LD/T1£)6TF)6U. IT) (Sei/lbH-ai—lDrTlDGS)6V

VI. 8,bpaarr6ipj)iLD u»Tg u t rraaiGi^Gh g t g id g ii Qa 1 gjltu flgir>g,6X)ia(3) l dL—Ql d

qguGIgu rTGOTftfiQ(&)LD npGtrny eu tfaiGtya^ ifilarTLDGti afilemi— GT(ig&ia. 5 X 2— 10

32. ^rhSthuneiflizb GjijrTGrrLDrra s Grrsrr @,rr &H GUGmaaGiT lurrssieii?

33. Q&ii>t_Drtf l Lg v i— 2-GrJGtnLDiurTaa GlarrotirQ (Lp.Gii. at-frpLb a(n$gi ujrrgj?

34. 6peii(o)Gurr(nj 3G.u.t—aSlGpiih gu.b-&1 GTfffl&ajGmijat&fLb ffltr^a^roGiT gt &j]?

35. ^ij it l o w eiflernsnei] Gifli>rra(§a

36. aetfstflGiL/rr aGitsri— a g s s t g s t l d il i/t ^j ?

37. S^tyQinM (SGuofla ffonLDitfeir ffltDULj ujrrgi?

38. L-ieDeutT&emeiTLJ Lirotf? QaGbGufyb/raGir GTGrrwiDrraa ajtfuisweu lurr&neu?

VII. ^</i«^/TCT3)/Lb GtfGsriraatgnprfT gt gidguQuj gqil d eyiGrsrrnosuar^ l dl _( >l d

6peuGleurr(,isTrolip(&)iii ^jyjeii rf)&,!&£&,(&) iflambti gSIgit h— Grggaja. 3 X 5= 15

39. ^u&i&aGDiTLb gib LD-aaGmorr GTGUGurr ng apsu&nau uQ&gi&lfDmr?

40. GTeurbemr) QiDwQiDGgjLb uisgaaGGUGmQib gt gst (ip.GU. GiilrpgiliLffflprTrr?

41. Qg U^GUO)GiS), ^IjirGSTGUGOGlSl GTGBTLjGlUUJlt (.‘gL.-LSglLIGinLDaaiTGST arTIJGWtbiaGWSfr GlSlGutf.

42. s ~l d ngUL/GOGutf g is t pein rtf] iDfDGvrru u g w l SIg id g is t GtfGira^a.

43. G^GfTGSI&IUJmT gib GUrTlLJ, tUfTlT ILHTGfllJLJ UrTUglUgrTaa S^ftfCl GlU^GSUDUU^ffljOrTIT.

VIII. ^fJpLK<anr^/tjn Gifl GsrrraaigffjGn gtQ ,g il d GpGbrrngniar&t l dlLQl d u^lonGisrg^i

eu tf&t.Gn)&>(&) i£l&>rTLDGD efflGini— GT(tpaja. 1 X 7= 7

44. grruj Ql d it i^)uJ]Qg dQu j (oiujDivmb g t g s t UGingg ffffty.Gifi.a. GTGUGurrng

rgljQjGiifdrDirrr?

45. ^Gsrgg suTGiSIrrmufr umL.Qar&gb (Suaaa^Lb urfla Qurbro r&aLp&fflGsuug

QgrTlgggJ GTQLg&ja.

46. QutfujrrtfGsr l d#j stfGuacgg GigrrGtsr® urbttfg Qarpa^Glgopgia

47. QuGSSTaiGTga^ lDGSIGSTUilllJ6b aGOGlf] ltfa(j>GU GtST UID UTTGD GTGSTUgGGlGiT GlUGIT a(3ja.

IX ^rp<s«rr6OTi/ti) ^/GiDGSTgaj GfflGsrrraatGigaiapb GtflGmi— GT^gja. 10 X 1= 10

48. ff,ipa arTGSWLD Qgrrt_iT GTGUGUGSiaGsuua &nnrrr,g&>l?

S-GTTGUGITg, fy'DGtilLD GTGSILlgj GTGSTGoT

49. arrctfiuihiaGir (Hurra Lrijiir) «6W60«6ir GTGbGomb c_eu©6U a_6TZ6ir ^{GsiGSTGU^acgib ...

50. ffibaarrossuib Qgm—tfGb arrow u Qungib g^q^g s il d u g s t g s il d l j l SIc s u/w u j $a@a.

uiriiiL/a^a aoisrCoGW arrgrra &_gaifflGsrroGsr.

51. &ip&>&>rr6$o)]LC) ^i^LDtLjLDrrjDj '&ii)!D®StesrrT&Gl‘?)rrL-iT ^i&nLDK#,.

euiTip4,6m&>sm]j&, &tbt-J‘9lipjrr<5bi e-iurtrba, <S6b6if?.

52. Qunxnj&jgjg,

<£]) 3,Uu Qs VITl Ll ^UJ blfilLpsh <-?)/> GlHTGV6iV

amsj§ilij6ru Qg,£hu <3jSB)6ua/fr iu.a^.^^LouijssTfTiT

gj) glevaiT

53. pfiSJu LfkmyyiJkBrjrfl 6T(Lpgi<9i

ir-QijmLQl ftis/aib Fr-.QedJjrTGifl&sr 3jSifl fFlrQULiasn £)«j.

54. ^^i—LJLjA^siT Q&rr®3i&ULJL-.®G:ireiT afl&nemj u^^lewiuu Qurrcfyg&jLDriGiT

G)fleiSWSl&U.l<9:3:LDlT3>&l ST(L^3J3,.

^sij^iomTbi5)LC‘o^uj3: &ir&,&i6snTn (SaiTgrftoGM buifthurra______ ^iieirmr

(r£hrj/«p55) QGijQurrQi/oH $(ii)Lb ^(iijQ&ntb&aneii GT(tg3)ia.

(j>L£(nj, Qarrebafl, ^l d il iu d .

56. GajfbnjjanLD Q.(rtj6VLJ& (J>ffTgi3)j 6T(Lg&>i&,.

GWTljp&iSV)#, --------- S-UJITtB#, (fyiruGLD LLoTXoOTUjltlJ&SlOTr 5>G<S(T<ar.

57. tEipa arrsmiiLb Gg,rr Q^iTiTj^net^&r ty^rrtf^wsr 6ifbfl$gi g t p_§j 3,

^3>/) pn etflevii)

3. 10. 2005

&,l £1l p Q&u j u j g t t smswr)

UITL—LJUC^^:

LD.ZTessramy#$uu(f$ 'gJfDSyGWJLJ

u<&@Q^nrjg!.Q&. (oiLcnQud-jiT. usb&emwj

LjrrL—W

LD ^LD^)fr^^}LJLni—tv

GUL£h-irTL-($)ULHTt—CV

QLDrr&giLb

1 — 3 2 — 2 1 2 = 10

2 2 4 4 2 6 2 - = 20

• 5 10 5 5 — — — 5 = 25

7 — 7 7 - 7 7 — = 28

12 19 18 2 15 10 7 83

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ENGLISHGeneral guidelines for question paper setters

1. Maintain uniformity in coverage of content and allotment.

2. Marks should be allotted according to the difficulty level and the effort

involved in answering the questions. While framing the questions,

correct technical terms, appropriate to the unit must be used.

3. While framing the questions, correct technical terms, appropriate to the

unit must be used.

4. Specify the required points/length of the answer in the question.

5. Efforts should see made to avoid the repetition of questions in

successive years to avoid guessing.

6. Questions should be specific, simple and clearly stated.

7. In a case a choice questions, proper objective and difficulty level

should be considered.

8. In language question papers, prose, poetry, supplementary reader and

Grammar should be separated, to ensure proper representation and to

avoid neglect of a particular section.

9. Evaluation of answers must not be merely on their comprehension

facts alone, but on their ability to communicate effectively using

appropriate words and linguistically correct structures.

10. Questions are to be framed in such a way that only a specific answer

is possible. If a question calls for a number of alternative answers,

evaluation of them will lead to unnecessary complication.

11. There should be gradation of questions from easy to difficult level.

There should be variety of question forms.

Eg. Objective type questions, V.S.A. question.

S.A. Question, Essay type and long answer questions

12. Evaluation and testing is a specialist area and it needs a separate orientation to different concepts in testing and practice in test

constructions and teachers. Along with the content areas the teachers

204

must be aware of the value and importance of awarding marks and the

areas, skills to be covered.

13. Visual stimulus like pictures, maps, charts and diagrams, etc. can be

given.

TAMIL NADUANALYSIS OF THE ENGLISH - I PAPER - X STD

OCTOBER - 20051. The question Paper is set up keeping in mind students of all levels.

2. No deviation between the blue print and the Question paper is found.

3.

Objectives Blue printQuestions paper Oct

2005Knowledge 40% 40%

Understanding 18% 18%

Expression/Application 27% 27%

Skill 15% 15%

4. Weightage of knowledge is 40%. It can be reduced and little more

weightage can be given to understanding.

5. In Lesson - 3 i.e. Sambu in London only one short answer question is

asked where as (3) three questions are asked in the same Lesson i.e.

Lesson-1. Master Blaster.

6. Instead of 3 marks short answer Questions, the question paper starts

with one mark (VSA) questions. This has been done to make the

students feel comfortable with easy very short answer questions.

7. 90% of the marks may be given for written examination 10% can be

given for internal assessment by testing the students ability of reading,

pronunciation, pause, stress, and intonation.

205

ANALYZED SUGGESTIONS

1. In the lesson Sambu is London neither paragraph Question nor essay

type question is asked so one more short Answer Question can be

asked in this lesson.

2. Poetry appreciation question:

In V B 1 a the question is vogue i.e. what do you know about the

wicket? The question may be asked as How was the wicket.

206

OCT 2005 SSLC PUB JC EXAMINATIONANALYSIS CF THE ENGLISH - I PAPER OF TAMlLNADU

I SI. Subject - Unit/Sub Unit Unit Marks Knowledge Understanding Application Skill J TotalNo. No Allotted E Sa VSA O E SA VSA 1° E SA VSA I 0 E SA VSA O 1----------------

1 The Master Blaster 1(5) 2(3) I 1 112 The Benevolert 1(10) 1(3) I i 132 Bishop 1(3) i 33 Sambu in London 1(10) 1(3) 134 His First test 15 Traveling Far 1(5) 1(3) 86 Tommy finds a book 1(5) 1(3) 37 My dear PC

Vocabulary1(10) 1(3) H3I

a) Synonyms 5(1) I 5b) Antonyms 5/1) 5c) Prefix/suffix _______ 2d) 2d) Am. B'3r. Ee) Abbreviation and Acronyms _________0 Syllablesg) Compound Words 5(D 5h) Fcreign wordsi) Homophonesj) Nationalities 4(1) 4k) idioms

Section - B Poetrya) Memorization 1(6+4) 10b> Appreciation 4(2) 8C) E.R.C/Match lines 12

Section - C OtherCompetencies

a) Study skill j L 5 5b) OccupationsC) Strategy I 5 5d) Creative 5 5

Total I I■j______________________________ ______________________________________________ _______ _______ _________________ i_______ !_______ i__________________________________ _________ :______________Weightage 40% 18% 27% 15% 100%

207

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER ENGLISH - I X- STD S.S.L.C.

SI.No.

Subject - Unit/Sub Unit UnitNo

MarksAllotted

Knowledge Understanding Application Skill Total

E SA VSA O E SA VSA O E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA OSection A

1 The Master Blaster 1(5) 1(2) 1(1) S2 The Benevolent bishop 1(10) 1(2) KD 133 Sambu in London 1(5) 1(2) 1(1) 64 Traveling Far 1(10) 1(2) KD 135 His First test 1(10) 1(2) 1(1) 136 Tommy finds a book 2(2) 1(1) 57 My dear PC

Vocabulary1(5) 1(2) 7

a) Synonyms 5(1) 5b) Antonyms 5(1) 5cj Prefix/suffix 5(1) 5

J) Syllabification phrases/idioms 2(1) I 2!) Homophones 5(1) T5

Section - B Poetry 3(1) 3a) Memorization 1(6+4)bj Appreciation 4(2)c) E.R.C/Matnh lines 4(3)

Section - C OtherCompetencies

a) Study skillb) OccupationsC) Strategy

Total

Weightage 40% 18% 27% 15% 100%

208

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

Weightage to Objectives

Knowledge 40

Comprehension 26

Expression 19

Skill/Appreciation 15

Total 100

Weightage to Types of Questions

Types of Questions No. of

Questions

Marks

Objective type 25 25

Very short answer 5 5

Short Answer 14 40

Essay/Paragraph 2 15

Skill/Appreciation 15 15

Total 61 100

Weightage to Difficulty Level

Easy questions 37

Average questions 43

Difficult questions 20

Total 100 Marks

Weightage to content

Prose 30 marks

Poem 30 marks

Vocabulary 25 marks

Total 100 marks

209

SAMPLE ENGLISH QUESTION PAPER -1 LANGUAGE PART B

ENGLISH PAPER-I(NEW SYLLABUS)

Time Allowed: 2— Max Marks: 1002

Instructions:

i) Answer all the questions in the answer book given separately.

ii) Read the questions carefully and try to understand them fully before

answering them.

iii) Write down the question numbers correctly in the margin in your answer

book.

SECTION - AI. a) Answer any five of the following questions in a line each. 5x1=5

1. Who was Sachin a great fan of?

2. What kind of a person was the Bishop?

3. Did Sambu solve the black market case by his own knowledge?

4. Which is the best time to start travel by car?

5. Name the book that Gandhi read with interest?

6. How old was Tom?

b) Answer any five of the following questions in about 3 lines each. 5x2=10

1. Who were the Pakistani bowlers that Sachin faced in his first match?

2. What were the feelings of Jean Valjean when he was called a friend?

3. Why did the gang want the suitcase back from Sambu?4. What is the annoying part about traveling by plane?

5. What made Gandhi think geometry was easy?

6. What did Tom find? Where did he find it?

7. What was wrong with the mechanical teacher?

8. How has multimedia helped learning process?

210

II. Answer any one of the following questions in a paragraph of about ten

lines. 5x1=5

1. Sachin’s early life and the beginnings of his cricketing career.

2. Explain how the Black Market case was resolved?

3. Discuss how the computer can be a good friend today.

III. Answer any one of the following in about twenty lines. 1x10=10

1. How did the Bishop change Jean Valjean’s life?

2. Explain how Gandhiji’s experiment with truth starts even from his

school days.3. What does the author say about the merits and demerits of different

modes of travel?

IV. A. Choose the correct synonyms for the underlined words from the

given options.

1. Tendulkar took part in Cricket under the tutelage of his coach.

(Protection, Guidance, Supervision, Support)

2. My name in Jean Valjean. I am a convict

(Criminal, a cruel person, impression)

3. Some anti-social elements were circulating counterfeited currencies,

(new, fresh, fake, genuine)

4. During train journeys there is the bedlam of the station.

(excitement, confusion, scenery, surprise)

5. Margie was Scornful

(delightful, angry, sarcastic, happiness)

B. Choose the correct antonyms for the underlined words from the given

option. 5x1=5

1. They chained me like a wild animal

(huge, tiny, tamed, large)

2. The lamp gives a very dim light

(poor, bright, sufficient, dull)

3. John gave an evasive reply

(blunt, direct, earnest, incorrect)

211

4. The learning capacity is unique to human

(common, sole, special, famous)

5. Computers will behave with some flexibility

(stiffness, rigid, free, tender)

C. Form Five new words from the root words listed below using the given

prefixes or suffixes in brackets. 5x1=5

(-dom, -ity, anti re-, im-, -less, -able)

1. Familiar 2. King 3. Social 4. solve 5. Possible

D. Split the following into syllables: 2x1=2

1. Interesting = dinner

E. Select suitable phrases/idioms from the list given and fill in the blanks:

1. Always______________your answer paper after finishing the exam.

2. There is a garden___________my house.

3. She___________all her responsibilities last week and reported to thenew Manager.

4. Don’t try to___________innocent people.

5. The Manager ordered us to_______________with the work we weredoing.

(handed over, carry on, in front of, find fault with, go through)

F. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word choosing from the words

given in brackets: 3x1=3

1. The Sun_____________(rises, raises) in the east.

2. Today’s_____________(whether, weather) is very bad.

3. The train is going____________(threw, through) a tunnel.

212

SECTION - B (POETRY)

V. A. Quote from Memory 6+4=10

The Road not taken__ 6 lines

From: Two roads_____________________

To

Honest thought and simple truth__ 4 linesFrom:______________________________

To:_______________________accusers great

B. Answer any four of the following as directed. 4x2=8

1. The pitch was only smooth in parts;

a) Where was the pitch?

b) What is the pitch described here?

2. Unto that Ibrahim who slew thy son!

a) Who was Ibrahim?

b) What did he do?

3. Once I taught you geography. Now

I am retired,

a) Whom do “I” and “You” refer to?

b) What did Professor Seth teach?

4. Because it was grassy and wanted wear;

a) What was grassy?

b) Why was it grassy?

5. Lord of himself, though not land’sa) Is the man really a lord?

b) What is he not a master of?

6. Let Nature be your Teacher.

a) Who says this?

b) Why does he say so?

C. Explain with reference to the context any four of the following. 4x3=12

1. As one lamp lights another, nor grows less,

so nobleness enkindleth nobleness.

213

2. I am going out rarely, now and then

Only, this is price of old age.

3. I took the one loss traveled by,

And, that has made all the difference

4. Whose conscience is his strong retreat

Whose state can neither flatterers feed

Nor ruin make accusers great;

5. One impulse form a vernal wood

May teach you more of man,

6. And though we're for its, though we’re all convinced

Some foot will press the button soon or late,

SECTION - CA. Complete the statements suing the graph given below: 5x1=5

1. Runs scored in first over were__________________ .

2. In_____________over maximum runs were taken.

3. In_____________and___________ over no run is taken.

4. The runs scored in eighth over were___________

5. In____________over and__________ over the runs were only 5.

B. Read the following headlines taken from an English daily published during

the life time of Mrs. Indira Gandhi. Complete the following based on the

headlines. 5x1=5

June 2, 1984 Operation Blue Star

Military action on the terrorists

Inside Golden Temple

214

January 19, 1966 Indira Gandhi

Elected as PM of India

April 2 1970 Privy purses established

June 25, 1975 National Emergency was declared

October 31, 1984 Indira Gandhi was short dead

1. Indira Gandhi was elected as PM in______________year.

2. __________was abolished in April 2. 1970.

3. National emergency was declared in_____________.

4. On October 31, 1984______________.

5. On__________ Operation Blue Star took place.

C. From the picture complete the following: 5x1=5

1. A_____________came and saw the cattle grazing.

2. The lion saw___________cows in the field.

3. At first the cows were_____________

4. In the second picture the cows were______________

5. The moral we learn from the two picture is___________

215

LANGUAGE PART B

ENGLISH PAPER-I ANSWER KEY

I. a) 1. John McEnroe 5x1=5

2. Kind Person3. No. He did not solve the black market case by his own knowledge

4. Early Morning

5. Sharavana Pithrubakthi Nataka

6. Thirteen

b) 1. Imran Khan, Wasim Akram, Waqar Younis and Abdul

Qadir. 5x2=10

2. The hard life in the galleys for 19 years had turned Jean Valjean

into a beast. When the Bishop called him ‘Friend’, he felt that he

had become a man again and that he was no more a beast.

3. The gung wanted to get back the suitcase from Sambu because it

contained real given to him by mistake.

4. The continuous roar of the engines is the annoying part about

traveling by plane.

5. When Gandhiji reached the 13th theorem of Euclid, its utter

simplicity was revealed to him. He learnt that the proper use of

one's reasoning powers could make any subject easy.

6. Tom found a very old printed book. He found it in the attic of the house.

7. The Geography Sector of the mechanical teacher had been

geared up too fast for a ten year old student. So her test papers

were not properly valued.

8. The leaning capacity unique to man, can now be infused into the

computers. This artificial intelligence has helped our learning

process.

216

II.

1.5x1=5

Sachin__born__ April 24, 1973__ middle class family. Ajit__ second

brother_ led__ Sachin__ Cricket. Sachin__ showed__ passion _

game. Achekar__coached__ Shivaji Park__ Summer holidays _

Practised_ 12 hours__ day__ 54 matches in a row.

2. Sambu searched_ packet__ impostor__ handkerchief__ gold__

silver spots__ heard sound __ absent mindedly. Stuffed__ kerchief

_ pocket. Hunt__ palmer arrived. Sambu__ took__ kerchief__ wipe

_ face. Palmer resolved__ case.

3. Learning capacity _ infused _ the computers __ exhibit artificial

Intelligence _ play chess__ behave _ same flexibility _ common

sense, insight, creativity__self awareness__ humour__ give company

_ person in loneliness.

II. 1x10=10

1. Jean Valjean_ stole__ bread__ caught__ sentenced__ nineteen

Years

When_ self free__ no one__ employ him. He__ came to__ Bishop

_ called him__ friend__ supper__ cauch.

Jean Viljean_ got up__ night__ thought__ Silver ware__ table __

took_ ran. Next morning__caught__ brought before__Bishop.

The Bishop _ called him__friend__ asked _ why not taken

_ candle sticks. The police__ released. Bishop advised__lead

__honest life.

2. Gandhi__first year__ High School__ Inspector visited__ dictation Test

teacher prompted_ Gandhi__ refused__copy.

217

Gandhi__regard __respect__elders. __read__shravana Pithrubakthi

Nataka_ devotion__ parents.

Gandhi__autobiography__ personal failings__ weaknesses__ lapses

never told lies.

Travelling by car _ best way __ seeing __country. Start __ e

morning_ less frequented roads__can admire_ beauty.

Train journey _ bedlam __ station__coolies__bogies __clanging

banging noises _ rushes__villages__ towns __ fields__ filled

wonder.

Plane__convenient boring. We feeling_ not traveled.

1. Guidance

2. Criminal

3. Fake

4. Confusion

5. Sarcastic

5x1=5

Tamed

Bright

Direct

Common

Rigid

5x1=5

1. Familiarity

2. Kingdom

3. Anti Social4. Resolve

5x1=5

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5. Impossible

D- 2x1=2

1. Poly syllable (4 syllable)2. Di - Syllable (2 syllable)

E. 5x1=51. Go through

2. In front of

3. Carried out

4. Find fault with

5. Looking forward

F. 3x1=31. Rises

2. Weather

3. Through

V. A. Two roads diverged in a yellow wood, 6+4=10

And Sorry I could not travel both

And be one traveler, long I stood

And looked down one as Far as I could

To there it bent in the undergrowth,

Then took the other, as just as fair,

Who hath his life from rumours Freed,Whose conscience is his strong retreat

Whose state can neither flatterers feed,

Nor ruin make accusers great,

B. 4x2=8

1. a. The pitch was in the street.

b. The pitch is uneven and depressed at the crease.

219

2. a. Ibrahim was the Stranger’s name.

b. he had killed Yussoufs first bon son.

3. a. I refer to Professor Seth you refer to one of his old student,

b. Professor Seth taught Geography.

4. a. The second road was grassy.

b. It had more grass in it because many people had not walked on it.

5. a. No, he is not really a lord

b. He is not a master of riches.

6 a. The poet Wordsworth says this.

b. He does think that nature can teach us more than the books.

C. ERC 4x3=12

1. Nobleness Enkindleth Nobleness by James Russe) Lowell.

Explanation: One can light a lamp with another lamp. A person who

shows kindness to another makes him also a kind man.

2. The Professor by Nissim Ezekiel

Explanation: The Professor is old. He is not able to go out often. He

calls this the price of old age.

3. The Road not taken by Robert Frost.

Explanation: The poet got two equally attractive offers of job. But he

chose to join the one tried by others. That only made the difference.

4. Honest Thought and Simple Truth by Sir Henry Wotton.

Explanation: A happy man’s conscience is just and noble. It gives him

refuge in crisis. His mind is mature. He is neither influenced by flattery

nor troubled by adverse criticism. He is above anger and jealousy.

5. The Tables Turned by William Wordsworth

220

Explanation: The green woods in Spring would teach us more about

man - the good and bad things in life.

6. This Excellent Machine by John Lehmann.

Explanation: The entire humanity knows the deactivating influence of the

weapons. But there would be someone who may press a button that

would destroy the world.

SECTION C

A. 5x1=5

1. Three runs

2. Fourth over

3. Sixth and Seventh

4. Seven

5. Third and fifth

B. 5x1=5

1. January 19, 1966

2. Privy Purses

3. June 25, 1975

4. Indira Gandhi was shot dead

5. June 2, 1984

C. 5x1=5

1. Lion

2. Four

3. Grazing together

4. Scattered

5. Union is Strength

221

Analysis of English II Paper of Tamilnadu for the year Oct 2005

1. The Question paper is set up keeping in mind students of all levels.

2. No deviation between the blue print and the Question paper is found.

Suggestions and Modifications done in theII English Sample Question Paper.

1. The team has analyzed the second question paper and modified some

of the questions and prepared a sample question paper.

The modified questions are under III f- are given to help the students

by giving relative pronouns in the bracket.

Under III: Instead of asking the students to write the meaning of the

phrasal verbs, they are asked to rewrite the sentences by filling in the

blanks from the given list of phrasal verbs.

222

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER ENGLISH - II X- STD SSLCBlue Print

SI. No. Subject - Unit/Sub Unit

UnitNo

MarksAllotted

Knowledge Understanding Application Skill TotalE SA VSA 0 E SA VSA O E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 0

I Section Aa Exl-(suppl) 10(1) 10b I nt 5(1) 5II Section B 5a Note Making 5b Jumbled sents 5 3c Developing Hints 5(^ 5d Letter writing 6 5

e Completing a dialoque

5 4

f. Precis writing 6 5g. Punctuation 3h i Sec-C-Grammar 4a. Articles 3(1) 2b. Phrase

preposition5(1) 3

c. Verbs & Tenses 3(1) 5d. Conditional

clauses2(1) 3

e. QuestionFormation

4(1) 2

f. Relative clauses 4(1) 4g. Sentence

patterns6 4

h. Modals (6 3i. Phrasal Verbs 8(2) 3j. Transformation 16

IV. Sec-DTranslation

5(1)

a. Proverbs 5 5b. General passaqe 5

Total 4 I I 10 23 | 55 3 5 1 10CWeightage 14% 81% 5% 100%

223

ENGLISH II PAPER

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Weightage to objectives

Knowledge 0

Comprehension 31

Expression 29

Skills/appreciation 15

Total 100

Weightage to Types of Questions

Types of Questions No. of questions MarksObjectives type 16 13

Very short answer 55 55

Short answer 9 9

Essay/Lang/Para ans 31 23

Skills - appreciation -

111 100

Weightage to difficulty level

Easy questions 35

Average questions 48

Difficult Questions 17

100

224

SAMPLE ENGLISH QUESTION PAPER-II LANGUAGE - PART B - ENGLISH - PAPER - II

(NEW SYLLABUS)

N.B. i) Answer all Questions in the answer - book given.

ii) Write down the Question numbers correctly on the margin and

write your answers against them.

iii) Read and understand each Question carefully before

Answering it.

SECTION-A(READING)

I. a) Choose the best answer to complete the following statements. 5x1=5

1. The Vanar Sena was founded by______________

a) Motilal Nehru b) Jawaharlal Nehru

c) Indira Gandhi d) Feroze Gandhi

2. Helen lost her vision and hearing when she was___________months

old.

a) Six b) ninec) twelve d) eighteen

3. Sarojini wanted to die in the_________

a) Winter b) autumn

c) summer d) spring

4. Aung Sankuu Kyi belong to_____________

a) Hong Kong b) Thailand

c) Sri Lanka d) Myanmar

5. Prince Charles was crowned in_____________a) Orleans b) Rheims

c) Paris d) Roven

ii) State whether the following sentences are true or false.

1. Indira Gandhi was the President of India.

5x1=5

225

2. Sarojini Naidu was an average student.

3. Irrawady is Burma's famous mountain.4. Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy was awarded the Padma Shree in 1956.

5. Joan of Arc was burnt to death.

b) Read the given passage and list out the linkers used. 5x1=5

Sanker passed his B.Sc. last year. At first he could not get a job of

course he tried in several place Initially, he sent a lot of application. Then he

wrote a number of tests. Further he attended quite a few interviews. But all his

attempts seemed to be a failure. Atlast he succeeded.

SECTION - BII. a) Make notes of the following passage: 5x1=5

It was the year 1947 and Aung San Suu Kyi was only two years old.

When her father General Aung San, one of Myanmar’s greatest leaders was

assai rated.... She joined the Lady Srim Ram college in Delhi and later pursued

her studies at oxford after which she married Michael Aris, a British

Tibetologist, and settled down in Britain, with her husband and two sons.

b) Rewrite the statements in meaningful cogent order: 6x^=3

1. Just the, she her husband call her.

2. one day, she was drawing water from the well.

3. His wife Vasuki was well known for her devotion to her husband.

4. The bucket full of water was hanging in the mid-air till she cameback.

5. At once, she let go to the rope and rushed into the house.

6. Thiruvalluvar lived in Mylapore.

c) Develop the hints into a readable passage, give a suitable title. 5x1=5

A hare_ proud of its speed__ mocks at a tortoise__they run a race

__hare fast__ tortoise slow_ hare takes rest __ goes to sleep sleep too

long__hare wakes up__ tortoise near goal_ have runs Lord__tortoise wins.

226

d) Write any one of the following letter. 1x8=8

1. Write a letter to your fiend inviting him for a function in your house.

2. Write a letter to the editor of a newspaper about unsanitary condition of

your area.

3. Write a letter to a company applying for a job.

e) Complete the dialogue. 4 marks

(The dialogue is between the Head Master and an old student)

Old student: Good morning sir

Head master: Good morning what____________ ?

Old student: I want a T.C. sir

Head master: when_____________?

Old student: I studied in 2003-04 in IX

Head master: Did ___________

Old student: Yes, my father came with me

Head master: Why______________?

Old student: I want a TC because I have to join a job.

f) Write a precise of the following passage. 5 marks

One of our most difficult problems is what we call discipline and it is

really very complex. You see, society feels that it must control or discipline the

citizen, shape his mind according to certain religious, social, moral and

economic patterns. Now is discipline necessary at all? Please listen carefully,

don’t immediately say, “yes”, or “No”.

Most of us feel, especially while we are young, that there should be no

discipline, that we should be allowed to do whatever we like and we think that is

freedom. But merely to say that we should be free and so on has very little

meaning without understanding the whole problem of discipline.

The keen athlete is disciplining himself the whole time, isn’t he? His joy

in playing games and the very necessity to keep fit makes him to go to bed early, refrain from smoking, eat the right food and generally observe the rules

227

of good health. His discipline and punctuality is not an imposition but a natural

outcome of his enjoyment of athletics.

g) Punctuate the following sentences. 3 marks

all i was told was get out i want food.

SECTION-A(Grammar)

III. a) Fill in the blanks in the given passage with suitable articles. 4x ' =2

_________ idle mind is__________devil’s workshop__________bus cist man

is often_________happiest man.

b) Fill in the blanks choosing the right phrase prepositions from the list given

below. 3 marks

1. Don’t worry, your mother is__________danger.

2. _________emergency, call the police

3. The Prime Minister of India visited Washington __________ of the

American President.

(On behalf of, at the invitation of, incase of, out of)

c) Rewrite the following passage filling in the blanks with correct tense form of

the verbs given in the brackets. 4x1=4

Jean Valjean__________(be) so exhausted that he________ (fall) asleep

immediately. Towards the middle of the night he (wake) up. It was long ago since he_________(sleep) on a bed.

d) March the clause in column A with those in column B. 3x1=3

Column A Column B

1. If the driver drives carefully a) He would have avoided the accident

2. If the driver drove carefully b) He can avoid accidents

3. If the driver had driven carefully c) HE would avoid accidents

d) He could be avoiding accidents

228

e) Frame questions using the clues given in the brackets. 2x1=2

1. New Delhi is the capital of India (which)

2. I am 15 years old. (How old)

III. f) Combine the following sentences using relative pronoun. 4x1=4

1. Mr. John is my lass teacher

he teaches us English (who)

2. Delhi is capital of India

We can see the particular house there (where)

3. A computer is a novel machine

It helps use to do things quickly (which)

4. My brother works in a cell phone company

His marketing manager appreciates his latent (whose)

g) Identify the pattern of the following sentences. 2x1=2

1. The HM gave me a prize

2. The sky is blue

Write a sentence for the following sentence pattern.

1. S+V+O+A

2. S+V+O

h) Read the following dialogue and fill in the blanks with

auxiliary verbs.

suitable modal

6x —=3 2

(Between Raja and the Librarian)

Raja___________come in sir

Librarian: Yes you___________

Raja: What___________I do to become a member of the Library sir?

Librarian: You________pay Rs. 20 to become a member. You_________

not pay any subscription every month

Raja: Thank you sir.

229

I. Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct phrasal verbs from the list given

below.

1. We call Gandhiji a Mahatma because he_________his principles

2. Will you please __________my luggage when I go for a cup of

coffee?

3. There is a mystery about his death and police are_________it.

4. I have misplaced my watch will you help me_________it?

5. Most people_________a television set as an essential house hold

item.

6. The telephone is ringing please_________the radio.

(Look upon, look after, look for, turn off, looking into, live up to)

j) Rewrite any eight of the following sentences as directed. 8x2=16

1. Mani said to Raju, “Where are you going now?” (into indirect speech)

2. The mother advised her child not to go near water, (into direct speech)

3. J.J. Thompson discovered electrons (into passive voice)

4. The picture was being painted by Ravi (into active voice)

5. Very few boys are as clever as Gopal in our class, (into superlative

class)

6. Ooty is cooler than Kodaikanal (into positive)

7. Mr. Everest is the highest peak in the world (into comparative degree)

8. In spite of poverty, Ganesh is honest (into complex sentence)

9. Murugan was so weak that he would not walk, (into simple sentence)

10. Through Sita studied well, she failed in the exam, (into compound

sentence)

230

SECTION - D

IV. a) Translate the following proverbs into our first language. 5x1=5

1. Knowledge is power

2. Prevention is better than cure.

3. Charity begins at home.

4. Homer too nods.

5. All roads lead to Rome.

b) Translate the following passage into your first language 5 marks

People who play games enjoy good health. They can eat well. They get

good sleep. They are free from disease. Players are physically fit and mentally

alert. A good player takes both victory and defect with a smile.

231

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER SCORING KEY

ENGLISH II PAPER

I. i). 1x5=5

1. Indira Gandhi

2. Nine

3. Spring

4. Myanmar5. Rheims

ii) 1. False 1x5=5

2. False

3. False

4. True

5. True

b) Linkers: At first, of course, Initially then, further, but, at last.

IV. Cogent order (Any five) 1x5=5

1. Thiruvalluvar lived in Mylapore2. His wife Vasuki was well known for her devotion to her husband.

3. One day she was drawing water from the well.

4. Just then she heard here husband calling her.

5. AT once she let go to the rope and rushed in to the house.

6. The bucket full of water was hanging in the mid air till she came back.

a) Making Notes 6x —=3

Muthulakshmi __ orphan children ___ dispensary __ Avvei home

maternity home (any relevant with award mark)

232

c) Any Title__

Suitable Title__

Para graphics

Any four correct sentences

d) Common for three letters

Station and Date - 1 mark

Salutation - 1 mark

Body to the letter - 4 marks

Subscription - mark

Address on the envelope - 1

6 marks

e) 1. What do you want? -1 mark

2. When did you study? - 1 mark

3. Did your father come with you? - 1 mark

4. Why do you want T.C.? - 1 mark

f) Words counting - 1 mark

Roush copy - 1 mark

Fair copy in correct - 3 marks

5 marks

g) Any six

All I was told was, "Get out".

“I want food"

12

1

1

2

6x1=32

III. a) An, a, the, He 4x1=2

b) Out of, in case of, at the invitation of 3x1=3c) Was, fell, woke, slept 4x1=4

d) 1. If the driver drives carefully_ he can avoid accidents 1 mark

2. If the driver drove carefully_ he would avoid accidents 1 mark

233

3. If the driver had driven carefully__ he would have avoided the

accident. 1 mark

e) Which is the capital of India?

How old are you?

1 mark

1 mark

2 marks

III. f) 1) Mr. John, who is my class teacher, teaches us English 1 mark

2) Delhi is a capital of India, where we can see the parliament

house. 1 mark

3) A computer, which helps us to do things quickly, is a novel

machine. 1 mark

g) 1. The HM / gave / me / a prize = S V 1000 1 mark

2. The sky/is/blue = S V C 1z

or

Latha / brought / a novel Z yesterday 1 mark

S V O A

I / loved I my parents

S V O 1 mark

Any suitable sentences - award I

(Any relevant sentences)

h)1.May, 2. can/may 3. must 4. need

5. need 6. may

i) 1. live up to 6x-=32

2. Look after

3. Looking into

234

4. Look for

5. Look upon

6. turn off

j) 1) Man’s asked Raju where he was going then 2 marks

2) The mother said to her child "Don’t go near water” 2 marks

3) Electrons were discovered by J.J. Thompson 2 marks

4) Ravi was painting the picture 2 marks

5) Gopal is one of the cleverest boys in our class 2 marks

6) Kodaikanal is not so cool as Ooty 2 marks

7) Mt. Everest is Lighter than any other peak in the world 2 marks

8) Though Ganesh is poor, he is honest 2 marks

9) Murugan is too weak to walk 2 marks

10) Sita studied well but she failed in the exam 2 marks

235

GROUP - IV

SCIENCE

Question Analysis - X Science

1. March 2005 and April 2005 analysed.

We split all the questions according to specifications.

The N we find the deviations in the Questions.

2. Lessonwise weightage of marks and Questions in physics, chemistry

and biology were analysed.

3. Easy level to difficult level Questions were identified.

4. According to the Blue-print the weightage of percentage in knowledge,

understanding, Application and skill were analysed.

Suggestions

1. Questions should be match with the blue print according to

specification.

2. Weightage of marks in application oriented Questions should be

increased.

3. In very short answer 5 Questions should be included match the following 5 question as True or False.

4. In long answer type Questions all Questions (12) asked as open

choice.

5. Questions should specify clearly what kind of answer is expected.

236

SCIENCE

I ime 2 — hours 2

Maximum Marks =100

Part -1Note:

i) Answer all questions

ii) Choose the best answer

iii) Each question carries one mark.

SI.

No.

Object

1. U Kepler's first law of planetary motion is also called

a) Low periods b) Law of areas

d) Law of orbits d) Law of distances

2. K When a liquid evaporates its temperature

a) rises b) falls

c) does not change d) may rise or fall depending uponthe situation

3. U The unit of specific heat capacity is

a) J kg'1 K'1 b) JK

c) JK 1 d) JKgK'1

4. A When salt is added to ice its freezing point

a) increases b) dioptre

c) remains the same d) cannot be found

5. K The SI unit of power of a less isa) metre b) dioptrec) watt d) calories

6. A The resistance of a conductor carrying a current 3A with a potential

difference of 15V is

a) 5 ohm b) 3 ohm

c) 10ohm d) 2 ohm

237

7. A When gzu2513 emits an alpha particle the new element formed has the

mass number.

aj 90

c) 93

b) 234

d) 238

8. A The value of equilibrium

concentration of

a) reactant is greater

c) product is greater

constant Kc is larger when the

b) reactant is lesser

d) both reactants and products

are equal

9. K The chemical name of baking soda is

a) sodium carbonate b) sodium bicarbonate

c) dry slaked lime d) decarbocylation

11. U The chemical process that takes place during efflorescence is

a) oxidation b) dehydration

c) decomposition d) decarboxylation12. K The most common ore of Aluminum is

a) cryolite b) Bauxite

c) Felspar d) Haematite

13. K Blood platelets help in

a) immunity

c) blood clotting

b) gaseous transport

d) acid base balance

14. K Flavi virus causes

a) Filariasis

c) Dengue fever

b) Cholera

d) Malaria

15. U Which of the following is nol

a) initiation factors

c) Release factors

involved in translation?

b) Elongation factors

d) Promotors16. K Wind pollination takes place

a) Mussaenda

c) Dichogamy

in

b) Allogamy

d) Oryza

238

17. K Rheumatic fever is caused by

a) Streptococcus b) Staphylococcusc) E-Coli d) Vibrio cholerae

18. U The aim of angioplasty treatment is

a) to reduce the body weight b) to treat the chronic renal failurec) to stretch the ortery open d) to control the blood sugar

restoring normal flow

19. U Increase in concentration of heavy metals along the food chain is

called

a) Biological accumulation b) Chemical accumulation

c) Biological magnification d) Chemical magnification

20. A Which of the following machine is used to take sectional images of

the body.

a) Endoscope b) Laproscope

c) CT Scanner d) ECG machine

Part - IIi) Answer all questions 10x1=10

ii) Answer should be in a word or in few words or in one line

iii) Each question carries one mark

21. K Why does a stone released from a moving train follow a parabolic

path?

22. U Why gaps are left in bridge, railway lines and concrete highways?

23. A How do you convert galvanometer into voltmeter?

24. U Gamma rays does not affected by heat. Why?

25. A Why toothpaste becomes green when cabbage juice is added to it?

26. A Why gypsum is added to cement?

27. K What is rectified spirit?

28. U What is responsible for malaria?

29. A How is Leukemia treated?

30. K What is fibre optics?

239

Part-IIINote: 15x2-30

i) Answer any 15 questions

ii) Each question carries two marksiii) Question number 32 and 38 are compulsory not including student's

choice.

31. A State any two applications of viscosity of fluids in daily life32. A How much heat is required to convert 1kg of ice at 0u to water at

0°C?

33. K What is Bimetallic Strip?34. K Define critical angle of a medium?35. A State the relationship between refractive index and real depth?36. U Differentiate the step up and step down transformer?37. U Distinguish between Gamma rays and X-rays (give any two points)38. U The pH of a solution is 6. What is a concentration of OH' ion in the

solution?39. K What is annealing of glass?40. U How does the percentage of carbon in mild steel and hard steel

differ?41. K What are amalgam? Give example.42. U Arrange these metals in the order of activity with most reactive at

the top?43. K What are detergents?44. A Why does alcoholic drink spoil our health?45. A Urine art varies in different climate why?46. K Define Biotechnology?47. U Write short notes on lamp brush chromosomes?48. S Draw a labeled diagram of an egg of hen?49. K What is a dialysis?50. U Mention the names of drugs obtain from leaves and flowers?

240

51. U What are the benefits of rainwater harvesting?52. K Write any four blood group systems?

Part-IV(8x5=40 marks)

Note:i) Answer eight questions by choosing atleast questions from each

Group.

ii) Each question carries five marks.

iii) Draw the diagrams wherever necessary.

Group - A

53. K Explain the applications of surface tension of the liquids in everyday

life.

54. K Explain the variation of melting point with pressure and impurities.

55. U Explain why earthing is required for electrical safety?

56. K Write note on i) infra red rays

ii) Microwaves

iii) Radio waves

Group - B

57. U The formation of ammonia is an exothermic reaction while that of

formation of nitrogen monoxide is an endothermic reaction. Explain.

58. U Describe the preparation of hydrogen sulphur dioxide?

59. K Write the uses of ethanol.

241

Group - C

60. S Draw the diagram of the digestive system of frog and labeled it.

61. K What are the tools used in genetic engineering?

62. U What are the significance of fertilization?

63. K Describe the control measure for noise pollution?

64. U Explain the simple method of vermi composting.

SCIENCE

KEY ANSWERS

Part - I(Each question carries one mark)

1. a) Law of orbits

2. b) falls

3. a) JKg'1K'1

4. a) increases

5. b) Dioptre

6. a) 5 ohm

7. b) 234

8. c) product is greater

9. b) sodium bicarbonate

10. c) dry slaked lime

11. b) dehydration12. b) bauxite

13. c) blood clotting

14. c) dengue fever

15. d) promotors16. d) oxyza

17. a) streptococcus

18. c) to stretch the artery open restoring normal flow.19. c) biological magnification20. c) CT scanner

242

Part-II(Each question carries 1 mark)

21. Stone resealed from moving train behaves like the horizontal

projectile.

22. Due to thermal expansion.

23. High resistance connected in series.

24. It has no charge.

25. Tooth paste is basic in nature.

26. To delay setting of the cement.

27. The aqueous solution of ethanol winch contain 95.6% ethanol 4.4%

water.

28. Parasite plasmodium, vector Anopheles mosquito

29. Vincristine syrup obtained from vincarosea.

30. The transmission of digital data ana image in the form of pulse of

light through glass fibres.

Part-III(15x2=30 marks)

Note:i) Each question carries 2 marks

ii) Question number 32 and 38 must be answered

Answer any two points

31. Application of viscosity of fluids

Problem Q=mL 1 mk32.

= 1x3.34x10

33.

34.

2x1=2

(2 mk)

Ans Q=3.34x10:’J

Bimetallic strip: (2 mk)Two different metals joined together. One expands more than other

ex. iron & brass

Critical angle: (2 mk)The angle of incidence within the denser medium for which angle of

refraction becomes 90° is called critical angle

1

243

35. Refractive index: (2 mk)

realdepthp-

apparentdepth

36. Step up transformer -1-mk (2 mk)

Vs^Vp ns>npNumber of turns of copper wire in secondary is grater than primary.

Output voltage in the secondary is greater than primary.

Step down transformer: -1 mk

X/s *^X/p < ns<npNumber of turns of primary in the transformer is greater than

secondary turns. Output voltage in the secondary is les than primary.

37. ray - 1 mk (2 mk)

i) It produced by the spontaneous emission of radiation from the nucleus.

ii) Wavelength is much shorter than X ray.

X-ray - 1 mk

i) It produced by the transition of electron from higher to lower energy orbits of atom.

ii) Shorter wavelength.

38. Problem

i) Formula pH=6 [H+] [OH ] = 1x1 O’14 -1 mk

1x10 14[OH ] =1x10 6 ii)

ii) Ans: OH‘ = 1x1 O'8 mole L'1 - 1 mk

244

Annealing:39. Slow and uniform cooling of glass. (2 mk)

40. i) 0.1-0.4% carbon - mildsteel - 1 mk

ii) 0.5-1.5% carbon - Hard steel -1 mk

Amalgams:41. The alloys of mercury with other metals (2 mk)

42. K, Al, Fe, Cu, Au (2 mk)

43. Sodium salts of benzene Sulphonic acids (2 mk)

44. Damages the liver and makes the brain dull (2 mk)

45. In summer - sweating more, urine less

winter - sweating less urine more

46. Application of scientific and engineering principles and production of

materials (2 mk)

47. Highly extended lateral loops of DNA seen in animal oocytes (2 mk)

48. Hen - egg

Diagram - 1 mk

Label parts - 1 mk

2 mk

49. Artificial filtering of impurities from blood.

50. i) ABO

v) Kidd

ix) MNS

(2 mk)

(2 mk)ii) Rhesus iii) Dell iv) Duffy

vi) Lutheran vii) Lewis viii) P

x)l

245

Part-IV(8x5=40 marks)

i) At least two questions should be chosen from each group and

answering 8 questions.

ii) Each question carries 5 marks

iii) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

GROUP-A53. Applications of surface tension

Any five points 5x1=5

54. Variation of melting point with pressure and impurities

a) Regelation experiment - 2 mk

b) Diagram - 1 mk > 5 marks

c) Ice skating - 2 mk

55. Earthing or grounding

i) Wire connection in house - 2. mk

ii) Earth wire connection - 1 mk

iii) polarizing - 1 mk

iv) Electrical appliance grounded - 1 mk

56, Infra red ray, Radio wave, microwave

All three should contain

i) Wave length (1 point)

ii) Generate waves device (1 point)

iii) Uses (4 points)

3x — = 1 - mk2 2

Q 13x — 2

= 1 ' mk2

4x — = 2 mk9

5mk

j

246

GROUP-B57. Formation of Ammonia - Exothermic

i) Exothermic Ammonia reaction - 11 mk2

ii) Chemical reaction

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) + Heat - 1 mk

Endothermic reaction

i) Nitrogen monoxide explanation -1-mk2

ii) N2 (g) + D2 (g) + Heat 2n d (g) - 1 mk7

58. Preparation of hydrogen sulphur dioxide

i) Explanation - 3 mk

ii) Closing reaction - 1mk

iii) diagram - 1 mk

59. Uses of ethanol (Any five points)

5 mk

5x1=5

60. Digestive system of frog

i) Diagram -3mk">-

ii) 4 parts - 2 mk

5 mk

61.

62

63.

64.

Tools in Genetic engineering

i) Name of 8 tools - 2 mk "I 5 mk

ii) Explanation for any 6 tools - 3 mk Significance of fertilization (Any 5 points)

Control measure for noise pollution (Any 5 point)

Vermicomposting

5x1=5

5x1=5

i) Vermicompost box explanation - 2 mk

ii) Preparation method - 3 mk

5 mk

247

SI.No.

Subject - Unit/Sub Unit

UnitNo

MarksAllotted

Knowledge Understanding Application Skill Total Totalquestion

MCQ VSA SA I LA MCQ VSA SA LA MCQ VSA SA LA MCQ VSA SA LA

1. Mechanics & properties of mates

9 - KD - 5(1) KD - - - - - 2(1) - - - - - 9 4

2. Heat 8 1f1) - «1) KD KD - - 1(1) - 2(1) - - - - - 8 63. Light 10 1(1) - 2(1) 5(1) 2(1) - - - - 10 44. Electricity & its

effects 9 2(1) 5(1) 1(1) 1(1) - - - - - 9 4

5. Atomic andNuclearphysics

9 5(1) KD 2(1) KD - - - - - 9 4

6. Chemicalreactions 9 2(1) 5(1) 1(1) 1(1) - - - - - 9 4

7. Chemicalcompounds 8 1(2) - 2(1) 1(1) 2(1) 1(1) - - - - - 8 6

8. Metals andnon-materials 10 1(1) - 2(1) - 2(1) 5(1) - - - - - 10 4

9. Carboncompounds 10 - 1(1) 2(1) 5(1) - 2(1) - - - - - 10 4

10. Levels forOrganisation 10 1(2) - - 1(1) 2(1) - - - - 5(1) 10 5

11. Cell B ology 10 2(1) 5(1) 1(1) 2(1) - - 10 412. Reproductive

Biology 9 1(1) - - 5(1) 1(1) - - - 2(1) - 9 4

13. Diseases and immunology 6 KD - 2(1) - 1(1) - 2(1) - - - - - 6 4

14. Ourenvironment 8 5(1) 1(1) - 2(1) - - - - - 8 3

15. Appliec Biology 9 1(1) 2(1) 5(1) 1(1) - - - - 9 4Total 134 1(9) 2(8) 5(6) 1(6) 2(8) 5(5) 1(5) 2(5) - * - 2(1) 5(1) 134 64

K-58 U-50 A-19 S-743% 38% 14% 5% 100%

Blue print - Total marks including options - 134; Total marks to be answered - 100

24$

Time Allowed: 2- Hours]

MATHEMATICS

(English Version)(New Syllabus)

[Maximum Marks: 100

Instructions: i) This question paper consists of four Parts. Answer according

to the note given in each part.

ii) Numbers and letters should be legible. The rough work should

be shown at the bottom of the pages of the answer-scripts.

iii) Only the logarithmic and trigonometric tables issued at the

centre should be used.

PART - A(Marks: 15)

Note: i) This Part contains fifteen questions. Answer all the questions.ii) Each question carries one mark.iii) Each question has four alternate choices. Choose the correct

or the most appropriate one from among them and write down the alphabet indicating the response.

1. The n,hterm of a sequence is 7n - 3. Its common difference is

a) 7 b)4

c)7n d) -7

2. What month is 19 months after July?

a) January b) February

c) April d) December

3. The total surface area of a sphere is 144n cm2 3 * *. Its radius is

a) 36 cm b) 6 m2

c) 24 cm d) 6 cm

249

A - (BuC) = K

a) (A - B) u (A - C)

c) (A - B) u UCb)(A-B)n (A — C)

d) (A - B) n C

5. The pre-image of 2 under the function

f={(0 - 1), (3,2), (5,3), (7,2)} is

a) 3

c) 3, 7

The L.C.M. of X6, x10 * and X7 is

a) x6

c) x7

7. The square root of 16x2 *y4z16 is

a) 4xy2z4

c) 4xy2z8

8. A point on 2x+y > y > 10 is

a) (2, 3) c) (5, 2)

b)7

d) 5,7

b) x10

d)x23

b) 8xy2z8

d)

b) (2, 5) d) (3, 3)

9. The number of circles that can be drawn through three non-collinear

points.

a) 1 b) 2

c) 0 d) 4

10. If one angle of a cyclic quadrilateral is 65°, then the angle opposite to it

isa) 50° b) 40°

c) 130° d) 115°

250

11. The mid-point of the line segment joining the points (8, 2) and (4, 6) is

a) (2, 2) b) (6, 4)

c) (4, 4) d) (2, -2)

12. The slope of y=5x - 5 is

a) 5

13.

c)1

If sin 0 =

a) 0° c) 60°

b) -5

d)-1

' then the value of 0 is72

b) 30°

d) 45°

14. The largest value of a data is 98. If the range of the data is 73, then the

smallest value of the data is

a) 25

c) 95b) 171

d) 28

15. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability of getting two heads is

9a)7

C)Z

b)i

d) 1

PART -B(Marks:20)

Note: i) Answer any ten from the fifteen questions in this Part.

ii) Show all the steps.

iii) Each question carries two marks.

16. Find the 17th term of the G.P. 3, 6, 12,

17. Solve: 5x=3(mod 8).

251

18. The area of the base of a cylinder is 66 sq. cm. Its height is 20 cm. Find volume.

19. If A={2, 3, 4, 5}; B={-1, 2, 3, 4} and C={2, 1, -5, 3} A - (BnC).

20. f(x) = {(-1,2), (-3, 1), (-5, 6), (-4, 3)}. Write the domain and range.

21. Find m if 5x2 + 9x2 + 3x + m leaves a remainder 7 when divided by x+1.

22. Determine the nature of roots of the equation xz-11x-30=0.

23. Define Network.

24. How far is a chord of length 12 cm away from the centre of a circle of

radius 10 cm?

25. In the figure, m Z OAC=30°, m Z AOB.

26. The mid-point of the line segment PQ is (5, 1). If P is (8, 4), find the

point Q.

27. Find the equation of the straight line whose slope is 4 and which passes

through the point (5, 7).

28. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a place at a distance of 60 m from its foot on a horizontal plane is found to be 45°. Find the

height of the tower.

252

29. The standard deviation of 10 values is 4. If each value is increased by

the standard deviation and the variance of the new set of values.

30. If three coins are tossed, then what is the chance of getting exactly one

head?

PART -C(Marks : 45)

Note: i) This Part contains 10 questions each with two alternatives.

ii) Choose either of the alternatives.

iii) Steps and diagrams should be shown.

iv) Each question carries five marks.

31. Find the sum of 1 + 8 + 27 +........ 8000.

OR

The fourth term of a G.P. is 27 and the seventh term is 729. Find the

first term and the common ratio.

32. A toy is in the form of a cone mounted on a hemisphere of radius 4.5

cm. The total height of the toy is 24.5 cm. Find the total surface area of the toy.

OR

A solid right circular cylinder has a base radius of 12 cm and height of 16

cm. It is melted and made into 8 spherical balls of equal size. Calculate the radius of each spherical ball.

33. 200 persons live in a street. Of them 120 read English newspapers, 80

read Tamil and 30 read Telugu newspapers. If 60 read both English and Tamil, 20 read both Tamil and Telugu, 15 read both Telugu and English

newspapers. 9 read all the three papers, find how many do not read any

of the three newspapers.

ORIf f(x)=x-1, g(x)=2x+1 and h(x)=x2, prove that (fog) oh=fo(goh).

253

34. Factorise: 3x3 - 4x2 - 13x - 6.

35. Find the square root of 16x4 - 24x3 - 31x2 + 30x + 25.

OR

The age of the father is square of the age of his daughter Ramya. Five

years hence, the father will be three times as old as Ramya. Find their

present ages.

36. Minimize Z=5x + 4y

Subject to 4x + y > 40

2x + 3y > 90

x > 0, y > 0

in Linear Programming Graph method.

(Graph sheet need not be used)

OR

The following table gives the activities in a construction project and relevant

information.

Activity 1 -2 1 - 3 2-3 2-4 3-4 4-5

Duration in days 22 27 12 14 6 12

i) Construct the network.

ii) Find the critical path and project duration.

37. State and prove Pythagoras theorem.

OR

Three circles with centres at A, B and C touch each other externally.

AB=4 cm, BC=6 cm, CA=8 cm. Find their radii.

38. Find the area of the quadrilateral whose vertices are (1, 2), (-3, 4), (-5, -

6) and (4, -1).

OR

Find the equation of the straight line joining the point (4, 5) and the point

of intersection of the straight lines 5x - 3y=8 and 2x-3y=5.

254

39. Find the area of right-angled triangle with hypotenuse 10 cm and one of

the acute angles is 66° 48.

OR

From the top of a light house, the angles of depression of two ships

floating in a straight line on either sides of the light house are observed

as 30° and 45°. If the height of the light house is 200 metres, find the

distance between the ships.

40. The marks secured by a student of Std. X in the Public Examination are

as follows:

83, 79, 65, 63, 80

calculate the standard deviation of the marks.

OR

2The probability that a student passes a Mathematics test is —. The

14probability that he passes both Mathematics and Science tests is .

4The probability that he passes at least one test is -. What is the

probability that he passes the Science test?

PART -D(Marks: 20)

Note: i) This Part contains two question each with two alternatives.

ii) Answer two questions choosing either of the alternatives in each

question.

iii) Each equation carries ten marks.

41. Construct a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD given AB=7 cm, BC=5cm,

AC=6cm and BD=6.5 cm.OR

Construct a triangle ABC such that BC=7cm, m Z A=60° and attitude

from A to BC is 4 cm.

255

42. Draw the graph of y=x2 - 2x - 15 and hence find the solution of the

equation x2 - 2x - 24 = 0.

OR

Draw the graph of xy=24, x > 0, y > 0. Use the graph to find y when x=6

and x when y=8.

256

BLUE PRINTSI.No.

Subject - Unit/Sub Unit

UnitNo

MarksAllotted

Knowledge Understanding Application Skill TotalE Sa VSA 0 E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA 0 E SA VSA O

1. Number Theory 1 2(5) 2(2) KD (D 16

2. Menstruation 2 1(2) 1(1) 2(5) 13

3. Set and Fns 3 1(2) 2(1) 1(5) 1(2) 1(5) 16

4. Algebra 4 KD 3(5) 2(2) 1(1) 1(5) 26

5. App. Maths 5 1(2) 1(5) 1(1) 1(5) 13

6. Geometry 6 2(1) 1(5) 1(2) 1(5) 1(2) 16

7. Ana. Geom 7 2(5) 2(2) 2(1) 16

8. Trigonometry 8 1(1) 2(5) 1(2) 13

9. Pract. Geo 9 2(10) 20

10. Statistics 10 2(5) 2(2) 2(1) 16

11. Graph 11 2(10) 20

Total 4 6 60 22 8 35 4 1 45 185

257

ANALYSIS OF QUESTION PAPER MAY 2005

Sub: Mathematics State: Tamilnadu

Weightage to objectiveObjective Percentage

Knowledge 8.7

Understanding 49 7

Application 19.4

I Skill 22.2

Weightage to Difficulty Level

Difficulty level Percentage

Low difficult 28.25

Average difficult 44.75

Very difficult 27.00

1. The question paper gives more chance to subjectivity as the number of

multiple choice test items are less.

2. The weightage given to knowledge level objective is found less.

3. Too many options are found in part C

4. Weightage given to various difficulty levels is found appropriate

5. The question paper is not prepared according to the blue print.

6. Weightage given to the contents is found to be correct.

Suggestions:1. The number of multiple choice test items can be increased.

2. The blue print can also be modified according to the present norms of

NCERT on Education

3. The order of multiple choice test items can be changed from question

paper to question paper to avoid mal practice.

4. OMR sheet can be given to evaluate multiple choice test items.

258

Time allowed: 2 - hrs2

Max. Marks: 100

Instructions:i) This question paper consists of four parts Answer according to

the note given in each.ii) Numbers and letters should be legible. The rough work should be shown at

the bottom of the pages of the answer scripts.

iii) Only the logarithmic and trigonometric tables issued at the center should be

used.

PART A(Marks: 30)

Note: i) This part contains Thirty questions.

Answer all the questions. (30x1=30)

ii) Each question carries one mark.

iii) Each question has four alternate choices. Choose the correct or the

most appropriate one from among them and write down the alphabet

indicating the response.

DL C. No ObjectiveL 1 K 1. The sum of infinite series a, ar, ar2.... Is

a. Soo =--------- b. Soo = a c. I d. '1 - r r -1 r -1 1-/-

A 1 U 2. Sum of 13 + 23 + 33 +.............+ 103 isa. 55 b. 3025 c. 100 d. 1000

L 1 U 3. The value of -20(mod 11) is

a. - b. 2 c. 4 d. 82

L 2 K 4. For a cylinder of radius *r’ and height 'h', the curved surface area isa) n^h b. 2nrh c. n rl d. 7tr(l+r)

A 2 U 5. A cone is made from a sector by joining the radius then the slant height of the cone is of the sector,a. diameter b. radius c. arc length d. angle

A 2 U 6. The ratio of the surface areas of two spheres is 4:9 then the ratio of their volumes isa. 1:2 b. 2:3 c. 8:27 d.8:18

L 2 1) 7. The radius of a hemishere is 5 cm then its curved surface area isa. 75 ncm2 b. 50 7icm2 c. 125 ncm2 d. 25 ncm2

259

L 3 U 8. A={4,5,6} B= {6, 7, 8} find AnBa. {4, 5, 6, 7, 8} b. {6} c. {7, 8} d. { }

L 3 K 9. Au (BnC) isa. (AnB) u (AnC) b. (AuB) u (AnC)c. (AuB) n (AnC) d. (AuB) uC

L 3 K 10. f(x) - {(-1,2), (-3, 1), (-5, 6), (-4, 3)} represents a function from A to B. Then the domain is a. {1,2,6, 3} b. {-1,-2,-6,-3}c. {1,3, 5,4} d. {-1,-3,-5,-4}

A 4 U „ „ x - y11- 3 3ISx -y

1 u 1 13 3 3 b' 2 > C‘ 2 2 d’ 1

X -y x2 + xy+_y X -y

L 4 U 12. Square root of 36 x4y2z8a. 6x2yz3 b. 36 x2yz3 c. 16x2yz3 d. x4y2z8

L 4 U 13. The quadratic equation with roots -7, 3 is a. x 2-10x +21=0 b. x 2-4x +21=0c . x 2-7x +21=0 d. x 2+4x -21=0

L 5 U 14. The point satisfies the inequation x+y < 8 is a. (4,3) b.(4,5) c. (5, 4) d. (3,8)

L 5 K 15. The path that takes the longest duration isa. Project duration b. Critical path c. event d. Network

L 5 K 16. the example of a linear inequation isa. y=x b. x<2 c. y=2 d. x+y=5

L 6 K 17. Angles in the same segment of a circle are a. unequal b. equal c. acute d. obtuse

L 6 K 18. The sum of the opposite angles of a cyclic quadrilateral is a. 180 b. 90 c. 360 d. 0°

L 6 K 19. In AABC DE II BC, AD=3, DB=5 AE=6 then EC is a. 6 b. 5 c. 10 d. 3

L 6 U 20. In the fig. the value of x isa) 30b) 90c) 40d) 60

L 7 U 21. Centroid of the triangle with vertices (1,3), (2,7) and (12,-16) isa. (5,-2) b. (-5,2) c. (5,2) d. (-5,-2)

L 7 U 22. If the straight line 7x-5y=k passes through (1,1) then the value of k isa. 7 b. 1 c. 2 d. 5

L 7 U 23. The slope of the equation 2y=3x-5 is3 5

a. — b. 3 c. -5 d. —2 2

L 8 K24. If cos 0 = - — then the value of ‘0’ is

75a. 60° b. 30° c. 45° d. 0°

L 8 K 25. Sin 70° 12’=0.9409 then cos 19^8^5

260

a 0.9409 b. -0.9409 c. 9 409 d. 94.09L 8 A 26. If sin ()=tan 0 then the value of cos 0 is

a. «■ b. 2 c. 1 d. 0L 10 K 27. If A and B are mutually exclusive events then P(AnB) is

1 , 1a. 1 b 0 c. - d. —

2 3L 10 U 28. A card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards then the probability

that it is a red card is

a. — b. - c. 1 d. —2 3 4

L 10 U 29. The largest value of a data is 98, if the range of the data is73 then the smallest value of the data is a. 98 b. 25 c. 73 d. 171

A 10 U 30. The variance of 5 values is 9. If each value is doubted thenthe standard deviation of new value isa. 9 b. 5 c. 6 d. 3

PART B(Marks: 16)

Note: i) Answer any eight of the following eleven questions.

ii) Show all the steps.

iii) Each question carries two marks

L 1 u 31. tn=7n-4, find the first term and the common differenceL 1 A 32. What month is 19 months after July?L 22 U 33. Find the radius of the spherical ball of volume 36 7tm3A 3 U 34. If f(x) =2x+7 and 9(x) = x2-1 find 9 o fL 4 U 35. Check (x-1) is a factor of x3+8x2-7x-2A 5 K 36. Define linear programming problemA 6 A 37. Prove that every cyclic parallelogram is a rectangleA 7 U 38. Find the equation of a straight line having slope 4 and

through (5. -7)A 8 U 39. Find the value of tan 20. tan 30. tan 45. tan 70. tan60V 8 A 40. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower at a distance of

50m from its foot on horizontal plane is found to be 60°. Find the height of the tower

L 10 U 41. There are 15 oranges in a box. Four oranges are rotten. Find the probability of choosing good apple.

261

PART C(Marks:40)

Note: i) Answer any eight from the eleven questions (8x5=40)

ii) Show all the steps

iii) Each question carries five marks

V 1 A 42. Find the sum of all numbers between 300 and 600 divisible by 7

A 2 A 43. A hemispherical bowl of radius 30cm is filled with soap paste.If this paste is made into cylindrical soap cakes each of radius 5 cm and height 2 cm, how many cakes do we get?

A 3 A 44. Find the value of 'm' if f o 9=9 o f when f(x)=2x+3, 9(x)=5x+mA 4 U 45. Solve: x+y=7; y+z=4, z+x=1A 4 U 46. If 9x4+12x3+40xJ+ax+b is a perfect square, find the value of

a&bL 5 U 47. The following table gives the characteristic of a project

Activity 1-2 1-3 2-3 3-4 3-5 4-6 5-6 6-7

i) Draw the network diagramii) Find the critical path and project duration

A 6 K 48. Prove that angle subtended by an arc at the centre is double the angle subtended by it at any point on the remaining part of the circle

A 7 U 49. Find the area of the quadrilateral whose vertices are (3, 4), (5, -2) (4, -7) and (1,1)

V 7 A 50. Find the equation of the straight line joining the points (4, 5) and the point of intersection of the straight lines 5x-3y=8 and 2x- 3y=551. From the top of a light house, the angles of depression of two ships on either sides of the light house are observed as 30° and 45°. If the height of the light house is 200 meters. Find the distance between the ships.

A 10 U 52. Two dice are rolled once. Find the probability of getting an even number on the second die or the total of face numbers 10.

262

PART D(Marks:14)

Note: i) This part contains two questions each with two alternatives (2x7=14)

ii) Answer two questions choosing either of the alternatives

in each question

iii) Each question carries seven marks.

L

A

9

9

S

S

53. Construct a cyclic quadrilateral PQRS given PQ=8cm, QR=7cm ZQPR = 40° and ZRPS = 60°

ORConstruct a triangle ABC such that AB=6cm mZC = 40' and attitude from C to AB is of length 4cm.

A 11 s 54. Draw the graph of y=xz-3x and use it to solve xz-3x-4=0OR

Use the trapezoidal rule to find the area under the curve y=xzV 11 s between x=0 and x=2 taking n=4 Draw the graph and shade the

required area.

263

BLUE PRINTSI.No.

Subject - Unit/Sub Unit

UnitNo

MarksAllotted

Knowledge Understanding Application Skill TotalE SA VSA 0 E SA VSA O E SA VSA O E SA VSA O

1. Number Theory 1 12 1(1) 1(2) 2(1) 1(5) 12

2. Menstruation 2 11 1(1) 1(2) 3(1) 1(5) 11

3. Set and Fns 3 10 2(1) 1(2) 1(1) 1(5) 10

4. Algebra 4 15 2(5) 1(2) 3(1) 15

5. App. Maths 5 10 1(2) 2(1) 1(5) 1(1) 10

6. Geometry 6 11 1(5) 2(1) 2(1) 1(2) 11

7. Ana. Geom 7 15 3(1) 1(5) 1(2) 1(5) 15

8. Trigonometry 8 12 1(1) 1(5) 1(2) 1(1) 1(2) 1(1) 12

9. Pract. Geo 9 14 2(7) 14

10. Statistics 10 11 1(1) 1(5) 1(2) 3(1) 11

11. Graph 11 14 2(7) 14

Total 135 5 2 13 30 14 16 20 6 1 28 135

264

VALUE POINTS/CRITERIA

Part - A 1 mark (30 questions)

2. b) 3025

3 b)2

4. b) 2rceh

5. b) radius

6. c) 8=27

7. a) 75 ncm2

8. {6}

9. c) (AuB) n (AuB)

10. d) {-1,-3,-5,-4}

11.x’ + xy + y2

12. a) 6x2yz3

13. d) x 2+4x -21=0

14. a) (4, 3)15. b) Critical path

16. b) x<2

17. b) equal

18. a) 180°

19. c) 10

20. d) 60°

21. a) (5, -2)22. a) 2

323. 3,2

24. c) 45°

25. a) 0.9409

26. c)1

27. b) 0

266

MODEL QUESTION PAPER

Sub: Mathematics State: TamilnaduWeightage to objectives

Objectives Percentage

Knowledge 18.1

Understanding 48.0

Application 19.9

Skill 14,0

Weightage to difficulty level

Objectives Percentage

Low difficult 37.4

Average difficult 5u 3

Very difficult 12.3

265

28. a) -2

29. b) 25

30. c) 6

PART -B

31. t,=3,t2=10 (1)

a=3, d=7

32. 7©12 19=2 (1)

February (1)

33. — nr3 = 36 nm3 3 (1)

r=3m d)

34. g of = (2x+7)2-1

= 4x 2+28x+48(D

(1)

35. f(1) = (1)3+8(1)2-7(1)-2 (1)

= 9-9

= 0

yes (x-1) is a factor (1)

36 The L.P.P. is maximize or minimize the objective function subject to the

constraints. (2)

37.

mZA + mZC = 180°= 180°

But m ZA = mZC (D

267

mZA = mZC=90°

Similarly mZB = mZD=90° (1)

38. y-y, =m (x-x0 d)

39. tan 20° tan 30° Ian 45° co+20° cot 30° tan 45° = 1 (1)

40. tan 30° = h6Qin (1)

60h= —= m73

= 20 73/» (1)

41. 4P(A) = —15

(1)

P(A1) = —15

(1)

PART -C

42. 301+308+......................+ 399 (1)

n=50 (1)

Sn=-L« + /l2

(1)

S50=17500 (2)

43. Volume of the hemisphere (1)

Volume of the cylinder (D, , V .oft Ite hemisphere

No of soap cakes = —1------ -—---------y .cylinder

(D

= 360

268

44. fo g = 10+2m+3gof=10x+15+m (2)

m=12 (D

45. x+y+z = 6z = -1 (D

x = 2 (D

y = 5 (1)

46. Square root = 3x2+2x+6 (3)

a = 24; b=36 (2)

47. Diagram + path + Duration (3)

Critical path (1)

Project duration (1)

48. No diagram no mark

diagram with proof (5)

49. Area of the triangle - Formula (1)

Area of the A ABC = +8 unit2

Area of the A ACD = 12.5 unit2 (3)

Area of the quadrilateral = 20.5 unit2 (1)

50. Point of intersection (1,-1) (3)

equation: 2x-y-3 = 0 (2)

51. tan 45° = — (1)x

= x

tan 30° = —-—120-x

269

height of the light house 43.92m (1)

52. n(s)= 36 (1)

P<A)=j (1)

P(B) ~ (1)

p(AuB) = , p(AnB) = 2 (2)36 36

PART -D

Rough diagram (2)Construction of triangle (2)Drawing the circle (2)Drawing the quadrilateral (1)

OR

Rough diagram (2)

Construction of triangle (5)

Scale and axis

Table

Diagram

Solution

OR

Scale and axis (2)

Table (2)

Diagram (1)

Shade the required area (1)

270

SOCIAL SCIENCE (English Version) (New Syllabus)

Time : 21/2 Hrs. Max.Marks : 100

PART - A(Marks : 30 x 1 = 30)

Note: Answer all questions:

Choose the correct answer from the following multiple choices: 4x1=4

1. Vascoda Gama was permitted to land at Calicut by

a) Sultan of Bijapur b) King of Vijayanagarc) King Zamorin d) Ruler of Chandranagaore.

2. The father of local self Government in India is

a) Lord Curzon b) Lord Riponc) Lord Lytton d) Lord Minto

3. The Brahma Samaj was established by

a) Dayananda Sarawathi c) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy d) Dr Annie Besant

4. Swaraj Party was formed at

a) Alipore Prison c) Chauri Chaura

b) Delhi d) Allahabad

5. Match the following:

A.(i)

Fort William (i)B. Robert Clive (ii)C. Monghyr (iii)D. Shah Alam (iv)

4x16 = 2

(ii)GovernorKolkataMughal emperorCapita

271

6. Pick out the correct statement: 2x1 = 2

a) Montague - Chelmsford Reform Act was passed in 1909.b) Montague - Chelmsford Reform introduced Diarchy in the Centre.c) Montague - Chelmsford Reforms expanded the Legislatures at the Centre

and in the provinces.d) The Indian National Congress did not reject the Montague Chelmsford

Reforms.

7. a) The Sarvodaya Movement aimed at the upliftment and welfare of the depressed classes.

b) The Sarvodaya Movement aimed at the upliftment and welfare of the depressed classes.

c) Social Movements, Social Legislations and Education became the key areas of the Sarvodaya movement.

d) The Sarvodaya Movement wanted to bring a silent, non-violent, Socio­economic revolution in India.

Fill in the blanks with the correct words: 4x1=4

8. The troops of Nana Saheb was led by___________________

9. The Second World War came to an end in_________________

10. Dalhousie introduced ______________ postal system.

11. Panch Sheel consists of________ Principles.

Choose the correct answer: 10x1 = 10

12. The State Council of Ministers is headed by

a) The Governor b) The Chief Ministerc) The Speaker d) Home Minister

13. Tenure of Local bodies is

a) Three years c) Four years

b) Six year d) Five years

272

14. The Election Commission of India is situated at

a) Mumbai b) Chennaic) New Delhi d) Kolkata

15. The Union Government consists of

a) Two organsb) One organ

b) Three organsd) Four organs

16. The number of subjects in the Union List are

a) 67 b) 97b) 47 d) 57

17. The word Citizen is derived from

a) Greek b) Latinc) Spanish d) Urdu

18. The land that consists of homogeneous geographical features

a) Region b) Countryc) Continent d) World

19. The dam constructed across the Sutlej is

a) Bhakra - Nangal b) Hirakudb) Damodar dam d) Stanley reservoir

20. The soil found along the Indian littorals

a) Alluvial b) Red soilc) Sand d) Black soil

21. The delta area in Tamil Nadu where Petroleum is found

a) Tamirabarani b) Vaigaic) Cauvery d) Palar

273

4x 1/2 = 222. Match the following:

A(')

Coffee (>)(ii)

Himachal PradeshB Sugarcane (ii) PunjabC Wheat (iii) KarnatakaD Apple (iv) Uttar Pradesh

23. Pick out the correct statement: 2 x 1=2

a) The Vindhya - Satpura mountains run North to South parallel to Narmada Valley.

b) The Vindhya mountains are the side walls of the Narmada Valley.c) The rocks of the Vindhya Mountains are the sedimentary rocks.d) The highest peak on the Vindhya mountains is Mount Abu.

24. a) The Gangetic and the Coastal Plains have high concentration ofpopulation

b) The Gangetic and the Coastal plains receive rainfall from the South West Monsoon.

c) The Gangetic and the Coastal Plains do not have dense transport lines.d) The Gangetic and the Coastal Plains have the fertile black soils.

Fill in the blanks with the correct word: 4x1=4

25. The land lying south of the Tropic of Cancer is known as the_______

26. The Vegetation found in the Indian Plateau regions is___________

27. In India, the Equatorial Rocket Launching Station is at___________

28. The highest Population in India is in_____________State.

PART -B10x1=10

i) Answer ten questions in all taking four questions from History Section, two from Civics Section and Four from Geography Section.

ii) Answer briefly in about 30 words each.

HISTORY

29. Why Prince Henry is called “Henry, the Navigator"?

30. Bring out the causes for the First Carnatic War.

274

31. Give a short note on Keshab Chandra Sen.

32. Why was Bengal Partitioned?

33. Why did the Congress oppose the Rowlatt Act?

34. What was the aim of the Bhoodan Movement?

CIVICS

35. What is meant by Federation?

36. What are the qualifications required for election as President?

37. What is Bye-election?

GEOGRAPHY

38. Why is India called a subcontinent?

39. What is rain water harvesting?

40. What are the natural conditions required for the cultivation of paddy?

41. Write a short note on Deccan Plateau.

42. Write any four minerals found in India.

43. What are the three important activities in the preparation and conduct of Field work?

PART -C6 x 5 = 30

NOTE: i) Answer all the question.ii) Only one of the alternatives in each question should be answered.iii) Each answer should be in about 100 words.

HISTORY

44. Write an essay on the social reforms of Lord William Bentick

OR

Explain the factors that led to the growth of nationalism in India.

275

45. Explain the three stages of Non-co-operation Movement.

OR

What were the causes for the Great Revolt of 1857?

CIVICS

46. Point out the merits and demerits of the Federal Government.

OR

Explain the powers of the Prime Minister.

47. What are the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India?

OR

Write in detail about the Voting right, voter identity Card and the Voting system.

GEOGRAPHY

48. How do we divide the Physiography of India? Write in detail about any one of the landforms.

OR

Write the types of soil in India and Explain.

49. Mention the conditions that favoured the location of the Tata Iron and Steel Industry.

OR

Write elaborately about the population distribution of India.

276

PART -D4 x 5 =20

NOTE: Answer all the Questions:

50. On the outline Map of India, sketch the British territories in India during the time of Lord Wellesley and mark the following places:

a) Oudhb) Nagpurc) Kolkata

51. Draw a time line for the following events

a) Non-cooperation Movementb) Chauri - Chaurac) Swaraj Partyd) Salt satyagrahae) Simon Commission

52. Draw any one of the following in the outline map of India.

a) Paddy growing regions.b) Alluvial soil regionsc) Any five major ports

53. Prepare a sample schedule of questions for collecting information on the sanitation of the local area or the Village.

OR

Represent the following data by means of bar diagram.

PRODUCTION OF SOME MINERALS IN INDIA 2000 -2001 -2001 - 2002

3l.No. Minerals Productions in 100 tonnes1. Bauxite 7,993

Chromite 1.972Gold 712

L Manganese Ore 1,595j. Dolomite 3,078> Gypsum 2,644

277

SOCIAL SCIENCE (English Version)

(New Syllabus)

Time: 214 Hours Total Marks: 100

Part - A(Marks: 30x1=30)

All the questions should be answered:

Choose the correct answer:

1. Vascoda Gama was permitted to land at Calicut by

a) Sultan of Bijapur c) King Zamorin

b) King of Vijayanagarc) Ruler of Chandranagar

2. Bhoodan Movement was started in the year

a) 1960 b) 1950 c) 1952 d) 1951

3. The nation which followed ‘Apartheid Policy’

a) South Africa b) Asia c) China d) Africa

4. Match the following:

a) Shah Alam 1. Venice Merchantb) Warren Hastings 2. Military Commanderc) General Dyer 3. Mughal Emperord) Marco Polo 4. Governor General

Choose the correct answer:

abed

A 2 1 B 4 3 C 3 4 D 4 1

3 41 22 12 3

278

5. Match the following:

Rowlatt Act 1. 1930Dandi March 2. 1946Simon Commission 3. 1919Cabinet Commission 4. 1927

Choose the correct answer:

a b c d

A 4 1 2 3B 1 3 4 2C 3 1 4 2D 2 4 1 3

6. Match the following:

a)b)c)d)

TitoSA[TASAARCEGYPT

c d

1.2.3.4.

1985YugoslaviaNassar1993

a b

A 4 1 2 3B 3 1 4 2C 2 1 3 4D 2 4 1 3

7. Choose the correct answer (Pick out the correct statement from the following:

A) Brahmo Samaj started in 1858.B) Brahmo Samaj was founded by Raja Ram Mohan RoyC) Raja Ram welcomed the practice of SatiD) Brahma Samaj supported child marriage.

8. Choose the correct answer: (pick out the correct statement from the following):

A) Queen Victoria’s declaration in 1858.B) Queen Victoria was Queen of France.C) According this proclamation the policy of annexation of Territories

will be followed .D) According this proclamation Right of adoption was refused to Indian Princes.

270

9. Choose the correct Answer: (Pick out the statement from the following:

A. Kashmir was ruled by King Hari Singh.B. He was a Muslim King.C. Majority of the Kashmir people were Hindus.D. Kashmir joined with India in the Year 1950.

10. Choose the correct Answer (pick out the correct statement from the following)

A. Lord Rippon was narrow minded man.B. Lord Rippon appointed Kothari as President of Education Commission.C. Lord Rippon introduced Vernacular Press Act.D. Lord Rippon got the title as father of local self Government.

Fill in the blanks with suitable answer:

11. Kargil war was fought in the year______________

12. Nuclear Power station is located at_____________ in Tamil Nadu.

13. Parliament consists of______________houses.

14. Indian Election Commission is also called as______________

15. People elect________the Chennai Major.

16. The election commission of India is situated in

A.BCD

MumbaiChennaiNew Delhi Kolkatta

17. The tenure of the member of Lok Sabha in Parliament

A.BCD

Four yearsThree yearsFive years Two years

18 The strength of the Rajya Sabha member

A.BCD

23824825012

280

19. The lie of latitude runs across India

A. Tropic of CapricornB. Tropic of CancerC. EquatorD. Polar Region.

20. The Dam constructed across the River Cauvery is

A. Bakra NangalB. HirakudC. Stanli ReservoirD. Sethu Canal

21. Which is used to interview an Individual

A. ProverbB. QuestionnaireC. PicturesD Field work

22 Match the following:

A Alluvial Soil 1. CottonB. Black Soil 2. PulsesC. Red Soil 3. TeakD. Ever green forest 4. Paddy

Choose the correct answer:

a b c

A 3 2 4B 3 1 4C 4 2 1D 2 3 1

281

23. Match the following;

A. Chittaranjan 1. Iron and Steel IndustryB. Jamshedpur 2. Cotton TextilesC. Nepha nagar 3. Rail Engine IndustryD. Mumbai 4. News Print Industry

Choose the correct answer:

a b c d

A 3 2 4 1

B 3 1 4 2

C 4 2 1 3

D 2 3 1 4

24. Match the following:

A. Coffee 1. Himachal Pradesh

B Sugarcane 2. Punjab

C. Wheat 3. Karnataka

D. Apple 4. Uttar Pradesh

Choose the correct answer:

a b c d

A 2 1 3 4

B 4 3 2 1

C 3 4 2 1

D 1 3 4 2

25. Choose the correct answer (Pick out the correct statement from the following:

A. The River Cauvery originates from Palani hills.B. River Cauvery drains into Bay of Bengal.C. River Cauvery is the longest river in Peninsular India.D. Rivers Narmada, Tapti, drain into the Indian Ocean.

282

26. Choose the correct answer (Pick out the correct statement from the following:

A. Paddy is a wet crop.B. Samba Paddy is a short term crop.C. Tanjore District is called Granery of Tamil Nadu.D. Holi is celebrated after the paddy harvesting.

27. Choose the correct answer (Pick out the correct statement from the following)

A. The Northern boundary of India is Himalaya.B. The Himalayan Mountain extend from Kashmir to Gujarat.C. The Himalayan Mountain formed 300 million years age.D. The Himalayan Mountain is called ‘Young fold mountain’.

28. Choose the correct answer (Pick out the correct statement from the following):

A. Large quantity of Bauxite is mined in Kerala.B. Gold is found in Kolar.C. Mica is found in Damodar Valley.D. Petroleum is found in Orissa.

29. Fill up the blanks with correct answer:

Equatorial Rocket launching Station is in______________

30. If we go higher and higher from the seal level the temperature is _

Part - B

Note: Choose four questions from History, two questions from Civics, four questions from Geography and answer ten questions totally:

HistoryAnswer any four questions only:

31. What is Blue water Policy?

32. Write Short notes on Keshav Chandra Sen.

33. Who were close friends of Tilakar in South India?

283

34. Why was Swaraj party started?

35. What is called mixed economy?

36. Write the nations which are in 'SAARC'.

CIVICS

Choose answer any two questions:

37. What are the qualification to be elected as a president?

38. What is Bye Election?

39. What is Citizenship?

Geography

Choose any four of the following questions

40. On the outline of India Mark the Wellesley administrative territories, regions and also mark the following places:

A. . ChennaiB. BroachC. Kolkatta

41. Draw the time line having the following incidents:

i) Non Co-operation movementii) Swaraj Partyiii) Salt Sathyagrahaiv) Simon Commission

42. Mark out the Paddy Cultivation in the out line map of India.

OR

Mark the wheat cultivation area or sugarcane cultivation area.

284

43. Draw a Bar Diagram from the given data:

Export of Iron Ore from India.

SI.No. Years Export in Million tones

1. 1980- 1981 22.42. 1990- 1991 32.53. 1995- 1996 31.74. 1997 - 1998 29.55. 1999-2000 16.1

NOTE: Blind students can write Short Notes about the areas instead ofmarking the map. They can write note about the time line instead of drawing the time line.

285

SOCIAL SCIENCE

English Version New Syllabus

Time : 2% Hrs. Marks: 100

PART - A (Marks 30x1 = 30)

Answer all the questions:

Choose the correct answer:

1. Questions 1 and 2 are correct.

2. In Question number 3, the English word ‘Apartheid’ is used instead of using Anti-Racialism. So proper Tamil version is not used in the question.

3. In Question No.4, Match the following confuses the students. Under

4. In Question No.7,8,9 & 10, i.e., in Choose the correct answer, the verses given in the bracket can be given as ‘only one answer is correct’ instead of only one. Note is correct. The work ‘Note’ is given instead of ‘statement.

5. Fill up the blanks:

Questions 11 to 15 are correct.

6. Choose the correct answer:

Question No.16, 17 and 18 are correct.

In question No.19, the word ‘Special latitude’ is given in the text book. So it can be given as 'the latitude that runs across India’

Question No.20 and 21 are correct.

7. Question No.22, 23 and 24 are correct.

8. Choose the correct answer:

In Question No.25, 26, 27 and 28 the verses in the bracket can be given as ‘only one answer correct’ instead of 'only one Note is correct’. The word 'note' is given instead of using the word statement'.

Question No.29 and 30 are correct.

2X6

PART -B(marks 10x2 = 20)

Note:i) Answer any 10 Questions choosing 4 from History, 2 from Civics and 4

from Geography.ii) Write short answers.

History (Answer any Four only):

9. In question No.36, the work‘SAARC’is used. The Tamil verses South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation can be used.

Civics (Answer any two only)

10. Questions 37 to 39 are correct:

Geography (Answer any Four only)

Question No.43 is What are the minerals found in India?For easy distribution of marks, this question can be asked as “Write any Four minerals of India” so that it can be a specified one.

PART - C (Marks 6x5 = 30)

Note: i) Answer all the Questions.ii) Only one of the alternatives in each question should be answered.

In question No.47, the Question is ‘Explain the steps taken for women development in India', instead of this the question can be given as follows:

“Explain the steps taken by the Government of India for women development".

Question No.48 and 49 are correct.

In Question No.50 b, regarding the cultivation of wheat the country ‘India’ is not mentioned. So it is specific one.

287

PART -D (Marks 4x5 = 20)

Answer all the Questions:

In Question No.52, it is given as:On the outline map of India, mark the following places and the territories of Wellesley. Instead of this it can be given as follows “ Shade( or Sketch) British territories during the period of Lord Wellesley and mark the following places.

In Question No.53, In Time line Chart 1,2, and 3 are note specific. In 5,h (time line chart question) is ‘Simon Commission'. But it can be given as arrival of Simon Commission".

In Question No.54 and 55 are correct.

Regarding Match the following the following suggestions are brought to your kind perusal. The students take much time to match the correct answer. Moreover in one match the following all the four items are taken from different lessons. This should be taken from one lesson only. Since it is time consuming, two marks can be given (i.e, 4x1/z = 2 marks).

Regarding the question paper the questions are not difficult but some items are very difficult for the students to attend. For eg. in Part D there is no choice for the students. In time line chart it is difficult to remember the events and the year. So we kindly bring our suggestions of giving choice in Part D. Questions are not students friend and rigid in nature. Flexibility should be maintained at least one optional question should be in part D.

28K

GROUP IV SCIENCE

Mr.D.Gunasekaran (Resource Person Dr G Anwar Programme Coordinator

GROUP V SOCIAL SCIENCE

N Mohan - Group Leader Dr G Anwar discussing with the group

Dr I’ Veerappan handing over certificate to Shri G.Sampalh of Group I Tamil - Language

Presentation by J amil Group on Model Question Paper in Jamil

1 ’•’"•v'.’i'fl

GB0UT3

rtfiTHfWJlCS

s-

GROUP III Malliemalics

GROUP III Mathematics

Al work

DRAINING OF 1’AI’CR SI;ITERS IN EVALUATION OF SCHOOL SUBJECTS AT sec o n d a r y SCHOOL LEVEL AT d ie t ;

Dr I’ Veerappan and Dr G Anwar discussing with the English Group

fill

GROUP II ENGLISH

GROUP II al workDr G Anwar discussing with llie Group