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NATIONAL LAW SCHOOL OF INDIA UNIVERSITY, BANGALORE LAW SCHOOL ADMISSION TEST 2001 SUNDAY, THE 6 TH MAY 2001 Centre:_________________. Time: 3 P.M. to 5 P.M (2 hours) Registration No_________. TOTAL MARKS: 200 INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. No Duplicate Booklet will be issued. 2. Write your Registration No. at the place indicated 3. The question paper consists of two parts. Part I is Objective type. There are 4 sections (Section I - IV) comprising of 112 objective type questions. Part II is Descriptive type. There are 3 sections (Section V - VII) comprising of 33 descriptive type questions. 4. All Sections have to be answered. 5. Specific instructions are given in the beginning of each section. Read them carefully and answer accordingly. 7. In respect of objective type questions, the students are required to shade on a separate answer sheet provided for the purpose. No additional answer sheet will be given. Especially, in this regard, all the candidates are required to comply with the following instructions: · Before answering, rad the details carefully. · Write your Registration Number in the appropriate Squares and shade the corresponding Ovals. · Use only HB Pencil for shading from the options provided. · Erase clearly any answer choice you wish to change. · Indicate only one answer by shading from the options provided. · The answer Ovals should be shaded completely without leaving any space. · The shaded answer will be taken as final. · Do not make stray marks. No rough work shall be done on the sheet. · Handle the seet with care. Do not fold/staple. · If needed, consult the Invigilator. · Those questions which are not marked as per the instructions, such questions will not be evaluated. In respect of descriptive part, all the candidates are required to write legibly (with the help of pen**) in the space provided in the question paper itself. 7. WARNING: There is negative marking in Section I - Part B and Part C: Section II: Section IV - Part A, Part B and Part C. 8. For rough work there is a blank page at the end. 9. Total number of pages: 40. 10. Adoption of any unfair means during the test will disquietly the candidate. The decision of the Superintendent of the Centre shall be final in this regards. SIGNATURE OF THE CENTRE SUPERINTENDENT Registration No_________. Centre:_________________.

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NATIONAL LAW SCHOOL OF INDIA UNIVERSITY, BANGALORE LAW SCHOOL ADMISSION TEST 2001

SUNDAY, THE 6TH MAY 2001 Centre:_________________. Time: 3 P.M. to 5 P.M (2 hours) Registration No_________. TOTAL MARKS: 200

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. No Duplicate Booklet will be issued. 2. Write your Registration No. at the place indicated 3. The question paper consists of two parts. Part I is Objective type. There are 4 sections (Section

I - IV) comprising of 112 objective type questions. Part II is Descriptive type. There are 3 sections (Section V - VII) comprising of 33 descriptive type questions.

4. All Sections have to be answered. 5. Specific instructions are given in the beginning of each section. Read them carefully and answer

accordingly. 7. In respect of objective type questions, the students are required to shade on a separate answer

sheet provided for the purpose. No additional answer sheet will be given. Especially, in this regard, all the candidates are required to comply with the following instructions:

· Before answering, rad the details carefully. · Write your Registration Number in the appropriate Squares and shade the corresponding Ovals. · Use only HB Pencil for shading from the options provided. · Erase clearly any answer choice you wish to change. · Indicate only one answer by shading from the options provided. · The answer Ovals should be shaded completely without leaving any space. · The shaded answer will be taken as final. · Do not make stray marks. No rough work shall be done on the sheet. · Handle the seet with care. Do not fold/staple. · If needed, consult the Invigilator. · Those questions which are not marked as per the instructions, such questions will not be

evaluated. In respect of descriptive part, all the candidates are required to write legibly (with the help of

pen**) in the space provided in the question paper itself. 7. WARNING: There is negative marking in Section I - Part B and Part C: Section II: Section IV -

Part A, Part B and Part C. 8. For rough work there is a blank page at the end. 9. Total number of pages: 40. 10. Adoption of any unfair means during the test will disquietly the candidate. The decision of the

Superintendent of the Centre shall be final in this regards.

SIGNATURE OF THE CENTRE SUPERINTENDENT

Registration No_________. Centre:_________________.

MARKS SHEET

PART – II

Section Max Marks Marks secured Total

V 10

VI 20

VII 39

Total 69

Signature of the Examination In-charge

SECTION I PART - A

Direction: This section consists of two passages and a set of questions after each based on the content of the passage. Read the passage and answer the questions by shading the most suitable one from a among the options given.

Example: If the appropriate answer is ‘a’ shade the space provided for it in a separate answer sheet provided for the purpose. Marking: Each question carries 1 mark.

Passage - 1 ...... Soft-bodied animals like Caterpillars often fall a prey to voracious hunters like birds or reptiles. Despite having no means to ‘actively’ defend themselves with weapons like claws or jaws they have, nevertheless, evolved other equally effective deterrents. A particular species of the caterpillar lives at an altitude of over 2500 meters in the Himalayas. It used prominent colours to inform wound-be predators of its in-edibility. In the event that an inexperienced or adventurers bird did eat the caterpillar, it would probably vomit it out soon after and subsequently desist from attacking similar species in the future. Though this would do the unfortunate victim no good the species benefits. A rare example of the martyr among animals. 1. Caterpillars cannot defend themselves because they (a) are passive animals (b) are lazy (c) cannot acquire weapons (d) have no claws or jaws 2. The expression ‘other equally effective deterrents’ means (a) preventive weapons which have equal affect on others (b) mechanism which scares everyone equally well (c) preventive equipment which is as effective as something that has already been mentioned (d) deterrents that are as powerful as those the caterpillars have. 3. The Himalayan caterpillar uses prominent colours to (a) invite the predator (b) attack the predator (c) reveal itself (d) defend itself 4. Experienced birds do not attack the Himalaya Caterpillar because they are (a) replusive (b) inedible (c) aggressive (d) diseased 5. In the context of the passage, a martyr is one who dies. (a) without putting up resistance (b) without any gain to oneself (c) while defending one’s homeland (d) to save others

Passage - 2 ..... Lincoln’s revulsion for slavery left him without any moral indignation or passion against the slave-owners. The guilt of slave-owners he felt, should be shared by the whole country the North and the South for it seemed to him that every one in the nation was an accomplice in perpetuating that system. To have whipped up any hatred against salve-owners would to him, have been an act of malice.

I shall do nothing in malice,’ what I deal with is too vast for malicious dealing. As the Civil War was coming to successful conclusion, a Norhterner demanded of Lincolon: ‘Mr. President, how are you going totreat the Southerners when the war is over? ‘Lincoln replied: ‘As if they never went to war?’ 6. The incidents in the passage prove that Lincoln was (a) not a firm administrator (b) afraid of the majority of slaves (c) sympathetic and kind-hearted statesman (d) unreasonable in favour of slaves 7. According to Lincoln, the culprits of the system of slavery were (a) the slave-owners alone (b) the slaves alone (c) both the slaves and the slave-owners (d) all the people in the country 8. Lincoln’s reply to the Northerners’ question regarding the Southerners proves that (a) the Southerners were wicked in their dealings (b) Lincoln did not have revengeful attitude towards the Southerners (c) the Northerners were in favour of the Southerners (d) Lincoln could control his anguish against the Southerners while expressing himself. 9. Lincoln did not have any hatred for the slave-owners because (a) they were a vast majority (b) they all belonged to upper caste (c) they would have treated him with malice (d) none of these 10. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as “revulsion’ used in the passage (a) disgust (b) avenge (c) apathy (d) violence

PART - B Direction: Chose the word which is nearest in meaning to the keyword, by shading the space provided for the appropriate alphabet, in the separate answer sheet provided for the purpose. Warning: For correct identification of the meaning one mark and for wrong identification of the meaning, there shall be a minus one mark in each instance. 11. Assiduous (a) ambitious (b) adament (c) diligent (d) anxious 12. Provoke (a) excite (b) encourage (c) persuade (d) precipitate 13. Trivial (a) trifling (b) important (c) momentous (d) troublesome 14. Virulent (a) malignant (b) infectious (c) benign (d) benevolent 15. Interpret (a) define (b) explain (c) claborate (d) support

Direction: Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the keyword, by shading the appropriate option, in each of the following, in the separate answer sheet provided for the purpose. Warning: For correct identification of the meaning one mark and for wrong identification, there shall be a minus one mark in each instance. 16. Antediluvian (a) spartan (b) liberal (c) celebrated (d) modern 17. Apparent (a) comprehensive (b) clear (c) obscure (d) ostensible 18. Callous (a) oblivious (b) sensitive (c) compact (d) hardened 19. Candid (a) Secretive (b) frank (c) vague (d) shallow 20. Apprehend (a) catch (b) set free (c) understand (d) comprehend

PART - C Direction: In each sentence given below, a word/group of words has been underlined. Below each sentence, four choices are given. Shade the space provided for the alphabet the one which can substitute the underlined word / groups of words correctly without changing the meaning of the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required shade (d) is your answe. Warning: For every right answer one mark for every wrong answe you would lose one mark. 21. Had I realized how close I was to the edge of the valley. I would not have carried the bags there. (a) If I would have realized (b) When I realized (c) If I had realized (d) No correction required 22. By such time you finish that chapter, I will write a letter. (a) The time when (b) By the time (c) By that time (d) No corrections required 23. Any one interested in the use of computers can learn much if you have access to a personal

computer. (a) he or she has access (b) they have access (c) one of them have access (d) No corrections required 24. She cooks, washes, dishes, does her homework and then is relaxing (a) then relaxes (b) then relaxing (c) relaxing then (d) No corrections required 25. The chemist hadn’t hardly any-of those kind of medicines (a) had hardly any of those kinds (b) had hardly not any of those kinds (c) had scarcely any of those kind (d) No corrections required

Direction: From among the options, shade the alphabet that correctly and meaningfully completes each of the following sentences in the separate answer sheet provided for the purpose. Warning: For every right answer one mark and for every wrong answer you would lose one mark. 26. Al of us must endeavour to_____the miseries of poor. (a) augment (b) mitigate (c) exhibit (c) discourage 27. I like to talk to him. He is_____ to reason (a) accessible (b) conducive (c) congenial (d) amenable 28. The ship waited till the storm_____before sailing out to sea. (a) abated (b) normalized (c) disappeared (d) blew over 29. Al the respondents should express theier____views in the questionnaire. (a) confident (b) favourable (c) candid (D) convenience 30. The chief guest came into the room____by the Chairman of the company. (a) watched (b) joined (c) preceded (d) allowed

SECTION - II

Direction: From among the options given, shade the appropriate alphabet in the space provided for it, in the separate answer sheet provided for the purpose.

Marking: For each right answer you score 1

2mark. For every wrong answer, you lose

1

2mark.

31. India shares its borders with: (a) Pakistan Afghanistan & Russia (b) China, Thailand & Myanmar (c) Bangladesh, Bhutan & Afghanistan (d) Nepal, Kirghizthan & Tibet 32. The following new states came into existence recently: (a) Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand & Uttranchal (b) Uttarkhand, Jharkhand & Pondicherry (c) Karaikal, Chhattisgarh & Uttarkhand (d) Vidarbha, Jharkhand & Chhattisgarh 33. _____holds the portfolio of Defence in the Union Cabinet: (a) Geroge Fernandes (b) L. K. Advani (c) Jaswant Singh (d) A. B. Vajpayee 34. Tarun Tejpal is associated with (a) Match-fixing scandal (b) B.B.C,. as a news reader (c) Prasar Bharathi Bill (d) Release of Hostages a Kandahar 35. William Jefferson Clinton is a member of this organization: (a) Naliya Peace Initiative (b) Milk Producers Cooperative at Nylaa (c) Students Union at London University

(d) Natural Disaster Management Committee(Gujarat) 36. CNG stands for: (a) Compressed Nitrogen Gas (b) Compressed Natural Gas (c) Commission for Natural Gas (d) Compute Network Guideline 37. The Minister Law, Justice & Company Affairs in the Central Cabinet is (a) Ram Jethmalani (b) H. R. Bhardwaj (c) Arun Jaitley (d) Soli Sorabjee 38. Dewang Mehta’s name is associated with: (a) Nasdaq (b) INFOSYS (c) Nasscom (d) Microsoft 39. The National Calender adopted by the Government of India is (a) Geregorian Calendar (b) Saka Calendar (c) English Calendar (d) Indo-Arabic Calender 40. The Chairman of the Upper House in Indian Parliament is (a) G. M. C. Balyogi (b) Ramakrishan Hegde (c) P. A. Sangma (d) Krishnakant 41. Elections to the Lok Sabha have been held____times, so far (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13 42. The First Five Year Plan was lunched in India in 1951. Which Five Year Plan is in progress

now? (a) Tenth Plan (b) Eighth Plan (b) Ninth Plan (d) Eleventh Plan 43. The Sardar Sarovar Project concerns the following states (a) Madhyan Pradesh, Rajasthan & Gujrat (b) Madhya Pradesh, Maharshtra & Gujrat (c) Maharashtra, Gujrat & Rajasthan (d) Orissa, Madhya Pradesh & Gujarat 44. The Constitution of India was adopted on (a) November 26,1949 (b) January 26, 1950 (c) August 15, 1947 (d) January 30, 1948 45. Under the Constitutional System of Governance the following constitute the third tier of

governance: (a) Civil Service and Military Service (b) Civil Service Police Administration & Military Service (c) Panchayats & Union Territories (d) Panchayats & Nagarpalikas 46. Who is the President of Pakistan? (a) General Parvez Musharraf (b) Leghari (c) Ghulam Ishq Khan (d) Muhammad Rafiq Tarar 47. Which planet in the Solar system has the maximum number of moons? (a) Neptune (b) Saturn (c) Jupiter (d) Uranus

48. Richter Scale is associated with (a) Measuring Earthquakes (b) Measuring distance between heavenly bodies (c) Measuring the depths of oceans (d) Measuring the water content in milk 49. Rio-Summit, 1992 is associated with (a) hosting of Miss Universe contest in which Sushmita Sen won the Crown (b) the peace initiative of President George Bush to end hostilities among a number of Latin

American countries (c) The UN Environment Conference (d) the hosting of Soccer World Cup 50 Every year on 10th December.._____Day is celebrated (a) Human Rights (b) Aids Awareness (c) United Nations (d) Women’s Rights 51. The Human Genome Project is related to (a) Cloning (b) Plastic Surgery (c) mapping of human genes (d) mutations 52. Bamiyan in Afghanistan was in news recently for (a) capture of administration by the Taliban (b) happy ending of the hostage crisis (c) failed attempt in capturing Osman Bin Laden (d) destruction of Statues of Buddha 53. The Spacecraft NEAR landed at this asteroid recently: (a) Eros (b) Mars (c) Ceres (d) Mathilde 54. The destruction of the protective ozone layer in the stratosphere is on account of the release of

the following substance into the atmosphere: (a) methyl Iso Cyanate (b) Chlorofluro carbons (c) Carbon Dioxide (d) Methane 55. The first Indian woman to win a Olympic medal (a) P. T. Usha (b) Jyotimory Sikdar (c) Karnam Malleswari (d) Kunjarani Devi 56. In ‘X-Rays”, what X” means? (a) ultraviolet (b) infra-red (c) unknown (d) laser 57. Who has scored over ten thousand runs in One-Day Cricket International? (a) Allan Border (b) Sachin Tendulkar (c) Sunil Gavaskar (d) Mohamad Azaruddin 58. Who recently won the English Open Championship in Badminton? (a) Prakash Padukone (b) Liem King (c) Mortin F. Hansen (d) P. Gopichand 59. The author who created the detective Sherlock Holmes (a) Erle Stanley Gardner (b) A. G. Gardner (c) Arthur Conan Doyle (d) Agatha Christie 60. Julia Roberts won Best Actress Oscar for which movie? (a) Erin Brockovich (b) The Pelican Brief (c) Pretty Woman (d) Runaway Bride 61. Who is the first Indian World Professional Billiards Champion? (a) Wilson Jones (b) Geet Sethi

(c) Michael Ferira (d) Manoj Kothari 62. What does ‘Stockhom Syndrome’ stand for? (a) AIDS (b) Getting nominated for Nobel Prize, without winning it (c) The tendency of a hostage to cooperate with and start liking his captors (d) Getting assassinated attaining an exalted position 63. From which Upanishad are the words “Satyameva Jayate” taken? (a) Allopanishad (b) mundukapanisad (c) Kenopanishad (d) Taithriyopanishad 64. The study of human population is called: (a) Population (b) Cartography (c) Demography (d) Democracy 65. Who is the author of” Interpretation of Dreams” (a) Shobha (b) Dipak Chopra (c) Jhumpa Lahiri (d) Sigmund Freud 66. She is the first woman Chief Election Commissioner of India (a) Fatima Beewi (b) Chokila lyer (c) V. S. Ramadevi (d) Suchetha Kriplani 67. Mahendra Chaudhry’s name is associated with (a) Prime Ministership Fiji (b) Father of Mahima Chaudhry (c) Leadership of Kisan Mazdoor Lok Paksha (D) Prime Ministership of Singapore 68. Playing time of the full version of Indian National Anthem (a) Fifty two seconds (b) Fifty four seconds (c) Forty seven seconds (d) forty four seconds 69. The Astrophysicist who is a victim of a degenerative nerve disease and can communicate only

through a computer (a) Dr. Diksheet (b) Issac Assimov (c) Carl Segan (d) Stephen Hawking 70. Globalization stands for (a) removal of tariff and non-tariff barriers to international trade (b) integration of national economics into global economy (c) Structural Adjustment Programmes (d) removal of Government control over economy 71. The Indian National Army (INA) came into existence in 1943 in (a) Japan (b) Burma (Mayanmar) (c) Singapore (d) Malaya (Malaysia) 72. Which State has the lengthiest Coastline in India? (a) Gujrat (b) Kerala (c) Tamilnadu (d) Andhra Pradesh

SECTION - III Direction: Study the following mathematical problems. Shade the space provided for the appropriate alphabet in the separate answer sheet provided for the purpose.

Marking: For every right answer you will secure 2 marks. 73. A rail Engine started from Station A and proceeded towards station B at a speed of 48 kmph.

Forty five minutes later, another Engine started from station B and proceeded towards A and 50 kmph. If the distance A & B is 232 kms, at what distance from A will the trains meet?

(a) 132 kms (b) 144 kms (c) 160 kms (d) 108 kms 74. The day after tomorrow is my birth-day. Next week, the same day is the day of holi”. If yesterday

was Sunday, what day would be the day after “holi”? (a) Monday (b) Wednesday (c) Thursday (d) Friday 75. Three men and six boys can do a piece of work in two days. A man can do the work in 5 days

less time than a boy. How many days can a man take to do the entire work? (a) 15 days (b) 20 days (c) 5 days (d) 10 days 76. Nandimath starts from a point and walks 10 kms to his east turning to his left he moves 5 kms.

He then turns to his right and walks 5 kms. Turning to his right he walks for another 15 kms. Finally, turning to his right he walks a further distance of 15 kms. Now how far is he from his starting point?

(a) 15 kms (b) Nil distance (c) 10 kms (d) 5 kms 77. In the college canteen, 6 colleagues are sitting to the six chairs regularly placed around a round-

table. It is observed that Nagaraj is between Ashfaq and Sudhir, Nandimath is opposite Ashfaq, Ashfaq and Elizabeth are not on neighbouring chairs. The person sitting opposite Cauvery is

(a) Nagraj (b) Ashfaq (c) Elizabeth (d) Sudhir 78. In a row of ten boys, when Anil was shifted by two places towards the left he become 7 from the

left end. What was his earlier position from the right end of the row? (a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 6 79. Four pens are arranged in a line so that the first one is green second blue third red and fourth

black. The position of 1 and 3 are interchanged and then those of 2 and 4 finally those of 2 and 3. What will be the position of black?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 80. If x is 80% of y, then what percent of 2x is y?

(a) 40% (b) 621

2% (C) 80% (d) 160%

81. A reduction of 20% in the price of oranges enables a man to buy 5 oranges more for Rs. 10. The

price of an orange before reduction was (a) 20 paise (b) 40 paise (c) 50 paise (d) 60 paise 82. The average of marks obtained by 22 candidates in an examination are 45. The average marks

of the first ten are 55 and those of the last eleven are 40. The number of marks secured by the

11th candidate is (a) 50 (b) 45 (c) –5 (d) 0 83. A thief running a 8 km/hour is chased by a policeman whose speed is 10 kms/hour. If the thief is

100 meters ahead of the police man at the commencement of the chase then the time required for the policeman to catch the thief will be.

(a) 2 minutes (b) 6 minutes (c) 3 minutes (d) 10 minutes

84. Ravi gets 3 marks for each correctly done question by loses 2 marks for each wrongly done

questions. He attempts 30 questions and gets 40 marks. The number of correctly attempted question is

(a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 15 (d) 21 85. Vivek, Vijay and Babu go on a tour and agree to share the expenses equally. Each starts with

Rs. 1000 and at the end of the tour, Vivek has Rs.576, Vijay has Rs. 448 and Babu has Rs. 512 left with them. How should they settle the accounts?

(a) Vijay should pay Rs. 52 to Babu (b) Vijay should pay Rs. 64 to Babu (c) Vivek should pay Rs. 64 to Babu (d) Vivek should pay Rs. 64 to Vijay 86. 20 litres of a mixture contain mixture contain milk and water in the ratio of 5 : 3. If 4 litres of this

mixture is will be (a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 7 : 3 (d) 8 : 5 87. The area (in sq. cms) of the largest circle that can be drawn inside a square with each side

measuring 28 cms. is (a) 616 (b) 784 (c) 3436 (d) 1400

SECTION IV

PART - A Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement is given followed by two assumptions/conclusions. You are to consider each statement and the assumptions that follow and decide whether the assumptions/s is/are implicit in the statement. Indicate your choice by shading the appropriate alphabet, from among the options given here, in the separate answer sheet provided for the purpose. (a) Only I is implicit (b) Only II is implicit (c) Both I and II are implicit (d) Neither I nor II is implicit Marking: For every right answer you score 2 marks. For every wrong answer you lose one mark. 88. Statement : India’s economy is dependent mainly on forests. Conclusions : I. Trees should be preserved to improve Indian economy. I. India wants only maintenance of forests to improve economic

conditions 89. Statement : If water pollution continues at its present rate, it will eventually make oxygen molecules unavailable to water plants/ Conclusions : I. Water pollution affects the growth of water plants. II. Water pollution reduces the availability of oxygen in water. 90. Statement : There are many Indians who are honest mohan is an Indian. Conclusions : I. Mohan is honest. II. Mohan is not honest.

91. Statement : A good system of education in a country is the flower of economic development it is also its seed. Conclusions : I. Economic development leads to educational development in a

country. II. Educational development leads to economic development in a

country. 92. Statement : Each nation must maintain an army. Conclusions : I. It makes people strong II. It is indispensable for the defence of the nation. 93. Statement : All watches sold in that shop are of high quality. Some of the Titan watches are sold in that shop. Conclusions : I. Some of the Titan watches are of high standard. II. None of the Titan watches is of high standard. 94. Statement : Spicy food damages the live. The patient is advised to take a liver-tonic. Conclusions : I. The patient takes spicy food. II. A healthy live is necessary to digest fat. 95. Statement : Happiness is to be shared. Unhappy people suffer. Conclusions : I. Unhappy people share sufferings II. Happy people do not suffer. 96. Statement : Some children are students. Most students are bright. Children are bright and dull. Conclusions : I. Some students are dull. II. Some children are bright. 97. Statement : Water supply in Wards A and B of the city will be affected by about

50% of Friday because repairing work of the main lines is to be carried out. Conclusions : I. The residents in these wards should economies on water on Friday. II. The residents in these wards should store some water on the

previous day

PART - B Directions: The following questions consist of two statements one labelled as “A”(Assertion) and the other labelled as “R” (Reason). You are to examine the two statements carefully and decide if “A” and “R” are individually true and if so, whether “R” is the correct explanation of “A”. The options for you to choose from are: (a) Both A & R are true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) m Both A & R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true Shade the appropriate alphabet in the separate answer sheet supplied to you. Marking: You secure 2 marks for every correct answer. For every wrong answer one mark will be deducted from your score. 98. A: Lord Linlithgo described the August movement of 1942 as the most serious revolt after the Seepoy Mutiny R: Peasants joined the movement in large numbers in some places.

99. A: In Australia, cattle rearing is done more for meat than for milk. R: Australians are traditionally non-vegetarians. 100. A: The frequency of floods in North Indian plains has increased during the last couple of

decades. R: There has been reduction in the depth of rivers due to deposition of silt. 101. A: The rate of growth of India’s exports has shown an appreciable increase after 1991. R: The government of India has resorted to devaluation. 102. A: “DNA Finger Printing” has become a powerful tool to establish paternity and identity of

criminals in rape and assault cases. R: Trace evidences such as hair, saliva and dried seminar adequate for DNA analysis. 103. A: The emphasis of janisim on non-violence prevented agriculturists from embracing

Jainism. R: Cultivation involves killing of insects and pests. 104. A: The origin of feudal system in ancient Indian can be traced to military campaigns. B: There was considerable expansion of the feudal system during the Gupta period. 105. A: Ashoka annexed Kalinga to the Mauryan empire. R: Kalinga controlled the land and the sea routes to South India. 106. A: The basic weakness of the early nationalist movement lay in its narrow social lase. B: It fought for the narrow interests of the social groups who joined it. 107. A: In a motion picture, usually 24 frames are projected every second over the whole length

of the film.

PART - C Directions: Read the statements given below to answer the following questions. Shade the appropriate option that answers the question, in the separate answer sheet supplied to you. Marking: You secure two marks for each answer. One mark would be deducted from your score for every wrong answer. Statement: Captain Madan is choosing the last part of his crew for spaceship VISION EXPLORER, with which he plans to land on the distant heavenly body ASTREA. He needs four more crew members of who at least two must be pilots and the others being engineers. The candidates for pilots are Dora, Elsie and Falgun. The candidates for Engineers are Lata, Mahesh, Naresh and Peenaz. Elsic will not crew with Lata. Dora will not crew with Naresh. 108. If Naresh is chosen, which of the following must be the other members of the crew? (a) Falgun, Lata and Mahesh (b) Dora, Elsic and Mahesh (c) Elsic, Falgun and Mahesh (d) Elsic, Falgun and Peenaz 109. If Peenaz is chosen, which candidates will NOT be chosen to be on the crew? (a) dora, Elsic and Mahesh (b) Dora, Elsic and Falgun (c) Dora, Falgun and Lata (d) Elsic, Falgun Lata 110. If Lata is chosen as a engineer, which of the following could be the other members of the crew?

(a) Dora, Falgunand Mahesh (b) Dora, Falgun and Naresh (c) Elsic, Dora and Naresh (d) Elsic, Falgun and Naresh 111. Which of the following statements must be true? i) If lata is chosen Falgun also must be chosen ii) If Mahesh is chosen, then Naresh must also be chosen. iii) Lata and Naresh never crew together. (a) (i) only (b) (i) & (ii) only (c) (i) & (iii) only (d) (ii) & (iii) only 112. If Peenaz is chosen to be part of the crew and Dora is not, who must be the other members of

the crew? (a) Elsic, Falgun and Lata (b) Elsic, Falgun and Mahesh (c) Elsic, Falgun and Naresh (d) Falgun, Lata and Mahesh

Registration No: ___________________ Centre:______________________________

PART - II

DESCRIPTIVE

SECTION - V Directions: In the following sentences, underline the idiom used therein. Thereafter encircle the word or phrase which best describes the meaning of the idiom from among the given options. Marking: For correct identification of the idiom and its meaning, half-a-mark each would be awarded. For wrong or no identification of the idiom, no marks would be awarded even if the identification of the meaning is right. 1. He is not worth his salt if he fails at this juncture. (a) successful (b) worthless (c) frank (d) tasteful 2. The cost of living has increased so much that he finds it difficult to make both ends meet. (a) live within one’s income (b) less than sufficient length (c) extravagant spending (d) increase in Consumer Price Index 3. At the battle of Marcngo, Napoleon was within an ace of defeat (a) sighting (b) on the verge (c) tricked (d) far away from 4. Your argument will not hold water (a) incomplete (b) cold and weak (c) stand security (d) tasteless 5. These two statements do not hang together (a) inconsistent (b) require to be nailed (c) require to be joined together (d) require to be separated 6. It was Narayan who put a spoke in my wheel (a) to frustrate (b) to enable (c) to take one for a ride (d) to repair one’s vehicle 7. There is no love lost between them (a) they are in love (b) they dislike each other (c) they gained in love (d) they are yet to find love 8. Many people in this country live from hand to mouth (a) a number of people are handicapped (b) many people live only to eat (c) some people live to work (d) existence with very little provision for future 9. Whatever else one may say of Madhav, no one dare call in question his honesty of purpose. (a) dictatorial nature (b) unchallengeable (c) dishonest (d) doubtful 10. The inquiry has brought to light some starting facts. (a) disclosed (b) reveal more clearly (c) shows facts in distorted from (d) inquiry ignored some facts

SECTION - VI

Direction: Describe the following in not more than 20-25 words Marking: Each question carries two marks. Warning: Excess writing will be penalised. 11. Word Trade Organization. ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 12. E-Commerce ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 13. Legal Aid ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 14. Fundamental Rights ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 15. Green House Effect ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 17. Untouchability ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 18. Secularism ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 19. Sovereignty ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 20. Food Security ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________

SECTION - VII Directions: In each of the following questions, there would be statements of a principle and factual situations. You are required to select the most appropriate answer among the alternatives indicated after the statement of facts. Encircle your choice and explain why you think your answer is correct in not more than 3 to 4 lines.

Marking: Each questions carries 3 marks one mark of encircling and two marks for explanation. If the encircling wrong no marks will be given explanation. 21. Principle: A master is liable for the wrongs committed by the servant in the course of his

employment. Facts: Obalesh works as a clerk i a pharmaceutical company Bio-Pharma Ltd. He is required

to take stoke of the goods supplied and maintain the accounts for the Company. Ramachandra a friend of Obalesh from the neighbouring village came to meet Obalesh in the office. Since Ramachndra did not have any other acquaintance in the city he gave Rs. 10,000/-, he had with him, to Obalesh for safe keeping. When Ramachandra returned to the office the next morning to collect the money from Obalesh he learn that the latter had disappeared with his money. Ramchandra brings a legal action against Bio-Pharma Ltd.. for the recovery of the money.

(a) Bio-Pharma Ltd.. would be liable since Obalesh received the money wile being in the office. (b) Bio-Pharma Ltd.. would not be liable as Ramachandra had no business transactions with the

company.. (c) Bio-Pharma Ltd.. would not be liable, as safekeeping of money was not part of Obalesh’s

duty. ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 22. Principle: When the parties to an agreement agree on the same thing in the same sense here

arises a legally binding obligation between them. Facts: Ganesh Gallery was a well known antique shop in the city Shakuntala who had a

penchant for collecting articles of rare beauty was taken up by an intricately designed flower vase in the shop. The shop keep explained to her the vase belonged to the Vijayanager Empire period and although it appeared very delicate It was quite strong and not easily breakable. Shakuntala said that she was attracted to it only for the aesthetic pleasure it gave her and its other characteristics were immaterial to her and bought the piece. She later discovered that it was not a period piece and noticed it

developing cracks as well. She proceeds against the proprietor of Ganesh Gallary for monetary relief.

(a) Ganesh Gallery must compensate Shakuntala since both the characteristics attributed to the article were proved wrong.

(b) Ganesh Gallery need not compensate since Shakuntala was unconcerned about what was attributed to the article.

(c) The proprietor must compensate her for irresponsible statements made by him. ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 23. Principle: No legal remedy exists for an injury caused by an act, for which one has consented. Facts: Vijay a cricket enthusiast, purchases a ticket to watch the one day International

Cricket Match between India and Australia organized by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI). As he is absorbed in watching the exploits of Sachin Tendulkar a ball struck for a six by the latter hits Vijay or his body and injures him. Vijay sues BCCI for reimbursement of the medical bill he paid for treatment of the injury.

(a) Vijay should be compensated as he purchased the ticket to get entertainment and not to get injured

(b) Vijay would lose as he voluntarily exposed himself to the risk (c) BCCI is liable as it did not ensure that the spectators were protected from the risks of such

injuries. ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 24. Principle: A person is guilty of culpable homicide amounting to murder if the act by which the

death is caused is done with in an intention of causing death. Facts: A and B are playing hide and seck. A hides behind a bush. C, who is on a prowl to

hunt for rabbits observing some movement near the bush and assuming a rabbit was hiding there fires and kills A. C does not know that A was hiding behind the bush. The police prosecute C for murder.

(a) C would not be liable for murder, as he did not have the intention to kill A. (b) C would be liable for murder because he should have taken care to find out the target before

sooting. (c) C would bot be liable for murder, because it would be too much to expect him to identify the

target before shooting. ________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 25. Principle: A person is guilty of cheating, when he fraudulently induces another person to deliver

the latter’s property to him. Facts: A falsely represented to B a shop-owner that he was office from the Commercial

Taxes Department. While examining the accounts of the shop, A showed interest in buying a microwave oven on instalment basis. B readily agreed with the hoe that he would get a favourable assessment from A regards his tax liability. A paid the first instalment, took the Microwave oven and disappeared from the scene. The police, however, managed to catch hold of A and prosecute him for cheating

(a) A committed cheating, because he induced B to part with the Microwave oven posing as though that he was from the Commercial Taxes Department.

(b) A committed cheating, because B banded over the article in order to get a favourable assessment from A.

________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 26. Principle: In a contract of agency no liability exists upon the agent towards his Principal

(Master) if he acts with reasonable diligence in the matter of agency Facts: Ganesh, the owner of an estate, instructed Dinesh, an estate agent to find a buyer

for his estate for Rs. 9.50,000/- and the same was promptly communicated to Ganesh. Before the contract of sale was concluded the agent got an offer of Rs. 10.25,00/- from Dayanand. Dinesh did not communication this information to Ganesh. The latter brings an action over the former for not having performed his function as an agent.

(a) Dinesh is not liable to Ganesh as his job was only to find a buyer and no more. (b) Dinesh is not liable to Ganesh as he got price for the estate which under the prevailing market

conditions, was bonanza. (c) Dinesh is liable to Ganesh as he did not completely perform the function of an agent. ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________

________________________________________________________________________ 27. Principle: An occupier is liable to a trespasser in respect of some wilful act intended to cause

harm or done with reckless disregard. Facts: A farm house belonging to Thotappa had its fencing electrified. The object was to

ensure that the farm was secured from any wild animals in the vicinity. There was a clear warning about the electrical fencing. A cricket bail, hit from a nearby play ground fell within the farm. Muthanna the coach conducting the summer camp for school going children there attempted to jump the fence to retrieve the ball, got injured on account of the electric shock sustained muthnna files a suit against thotappa for relief.

(a) Thotappa will not be liable because Muthanna was a trespasser. (b) Thotappa will not be liable, because he had given sufficient warning about electric fence.

(c) Thotappa will be liable, because he must have taken note of the adjacent playground. ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 28. Principle: A careless person becomes liable for his negligence when he owed a duty of care to

others. Facts: As the bus was leaving the platform Basappa rushed and boarded the bus keeping

the door open. Beerappa, who was standing at the edge of the platform was hit by the door of the moving bus and injured. Beerappa takes Basappa to court demanding monetary compensation.

(a) Basappa is liable to Beerappa for not having taken care to close the door of the moving bus. (b) Basappa is not liable to Beerappa, as it was the duty of the conductor of the bus to close to

door. (c) Basappa is not liable to Beerappa, as it was the duty of the latter to take sufficient care. While

standing on the platform as not to expose oneself to such accidental harm. ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________

29. Principle: Sedition: Whoever by words, signs or otherwise brings into hatred or contempt or excites disaffection towards the government established by law in India shall be punished with imprisonment for life.

Facts: In a public meeting. Yashpal Reddy the leader of an opposition party thunders. “This

is a government of scoundrels, bootleggers and scamsters. They deserve to be unseated. Teach them a lesson in the coming elections by voting them out of power.” The government is contemplating to prosecute yashpal Reddy.

(a) Yashpal Reddy is guilty of sedition fro having made irresponsible and inflammatory statements against the government.

(b) Yashpal Reddy is not guilty of sedition as he is only exercising his freedom of speech in public.

(c) Yashpal Reddy is guilty of sedition as his statement would incite people to violence leading to breakdown of law and other.

________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 30. Principle: The owner of a property who allows its use by another person becomes liable for the

damage caused by its use by the latter. Facts: Tataiah takes his car to the garage for servicing. Since his office is a couple of

kilometers away from the garage he requests the owner of the garage to get him dropped to his office in his car by one of the latter’s assistants. The owner of the garage asks Jaggesh and employee, to do the needful. On the way of dropping Tataiah, the car collides with a motor cycle owing to negligent driving by Jaggesh and injures its rider. The motor cyclist brings a legal action against Tataiah seeking monetary relief.

(a) Moter cyclist will fail in his action, as he should have brought an action against the garage owner in whose employment was Jaggesh.

(b) Moter cyclist will not succeed as Jaggesh, who is not the agent of Tataiah is driving the vehicle.

(c) Motor cyclist will succeed as the car was driven by Jaggesh with the consent fo Tataiah. ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________

31. Principle: If both the parties agree upon the same thing in the same sense, the parties are bound by their agreement.

Facts: Sanjay wrote to Hrithik offering to sell his horse for Rs. 20.000/-. Hrithik wrote back,

“I agree to purchase you black horse for 20.000”. (a) The parties are bound by their agreement as they agree on the price and also on the goods

for sale. (b) The parties are not bound by the agreement as the object is uncertain. (c) The parties are bound by their agreement as the colour of the horse is only a question of

detail. ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 32. Principle: When a person represents to another something as a true fact. Knowing fully went

that it is not true, he is guilty of fraud. The person subjected to fraud may avoid an agreement.

Facts: A presents a horse for sale. The horse is kept on display so that anyone interested

could examine it. The horse has a cracked hoof and it is cleverly concealed by the owner. B tells A “If you do not deny it. I shall assume that the horse is sound”. A keeps silent. B purchases the horse.

(a) B can avoid the agreement on discovery of the defect. (b) B cannot avoid the agreement, as the horse was on display and he could have satisfied

himself of its soundness by personal examination. (c) B cannot avoid the agreement as A did not make any representation to mislead him. He

merely kept silent so that B could find things out by himself. ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ ________________________________________________________________________ 33. Principle: A partner shall share with other partners whatever profits he makes in the course of

partnership business. Facts: A, B and C are partners doing business in sarees. When A went to the manufacturers

to buy sarees, he was told that if he bought 600 sarees, he would get a discount of

Rs. 100 on each sarees. The partnership business required only 500 sarees. However, A bought 600 sarees and kept 100 sarees for himself. He accounted for the sale of 500 sarees to his partners and pocketed the profits he made from the sale of the 100 sarees to himself. On finding this out, B and C are demanding a share in the profits made from the sale of the 100 sarees as well.

(a) A is bound to share the profits over sale of the 100 sarees also, as it was made in the course of partnership business only.

(b) A is not bound to share the additional profit as he was accountable only for 500 sarees to his partners.

(c) A need not share the additional profit, because his additional buying of 100 sarees was to get the discount and help the firm.

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