Countdown Cat Mock Test Paper-4 - WordPress.com

Countdown Cat Mock Test Paper-4

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SECTION-I

Directions for questions 1 to 4: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

1. The class X of Vidyaniketan School has four sections-A,B,C and D. The average weights of the

students of A,B,C together and A,C,D together are 45 kg and 55 kg respectively, While the average

weight of the students of A, B, D together and B,C,D together are 50 kg and 60 kg respectively.

Which of the following could be the average weight of the students of all the four sections

together?

a. 47.6 kg b. 49.9 kg c. 53.7 kg d. 56.5 kg e. 57.2 kg

2. In the figure given below, ABCD is a rectangle P is the mid-point of AB, and DX =XY=YC. QR and

ST are parallel to AB. Q and S are the mid-points of AX and BY respectively. What percentage of

the area of rectangle is the area of the shaded region?

a.18.75% b. 12.5% c. 6.25% d. Cannot be determined

e. None of these

3. The costs of a pen and a book are Rs. 3 and Rs.4 respectively. A student has to spend a Sum of

exactly Rs. 100 to buy pens and books, buying at least one pen and one book. How many

combinations of books and pens can he buy?

a. 6 b. 8 c. 12 d.10 e. 18

4. How many prime numbers are there which when divided by another prime number, give a quotient

which is same as the remainder?

a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 e. More than 3

Directions for Questions 5 to 10: Select the correct alternative from the given

choices.

5. “K-triple” is defined as (k/2, k/3, 3K/7) where all three terms in the bracket are positive Integers.

What is the largest value of K1000 for which “K-triple” can be defined?

a. 426 b. 500 c. 948 d. 696 e. None of these

6. Consider the following series 5,5,5,5,5,6,6,6,6,6,6,7,7,7,7,7,7,7,8,8,8,8,8,8,8,8……..and so on.

What is the sum of the first 1000 terms of the series?

a. 33295 b. 30270 c. 32265 d. 30240 e. 30965

7. At an Island, people use a number system to base n such that n<9. When of the following is true

of the remainder obtained when an inhabitant of that island divides (111….n times)n by (n+1)n ?

a. It is 0, if n is odd

b. It is 1, if n is even


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c. Both (1) and (2) are true

d. Neither (1) nor (2) is true

e. Cannot be determined

8. If one of the sides of a right angled triangle with integer sides is 15 cm. Find the largest Possible

area of the triangle.

a. 54 cm2 b. 187.5 cm2 c. 292.5 cm2 d. 720 cm2 e. 840 cm2

9. There are three numbers in arithmetic progression. If the two larger numbers are both

increased by one, then the resulting numbers are prime. the product of these two primes and

the smallest of the original numbers is 598. Find the sum of the three numbers

a. 45 b. 29 c. 42 d. 52 e. 36

10.

In the above figure, if the radius of each circle is 10 cm, find x (in cm).

a. 10 2 b. 10 3 1 c. 10 2 1 d. 10 2 1

e. None of these

Directions for questions 11 to 12: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given

below.

Raju is climbing down an escalator (a moving staircase) which is moving down. From the top he

takes 20 steps to reach the bottom while Rajat, who walks twice as fast as Raju walks, takes 30

steps from the top to reach the bottom.

11. Find the total number of step visible at any point of time on the escalator.

a. 40 b. 48 c. 50 d. 56 e.60

12. Find the number of steps that Rajesh, a friend of Raju, would take to reach the bottom, if he

walks half as fast as Raju

a. 10 b. 12 c. 16 d. 18 e. 20

Directions for questions 13 to 14: Select the correct alternatives from the given

choices.

13. For n2, Pn=2Pn-1-Pn-2. Given that P0=1 and P1=0, find 7 8 9 38P P P ......... P .

a. 31 b. 645 c. 32 d.685 e. 468

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Points A,B,C,D lie on a circle with Centre O. If 1 2 3O B:O C:O D=8:7:2.Find the ratio

AB: BC: CD. AB,BC and CD straight lines

a. 34 : 7 34 b. 53 : 68 : 112 c. 9:10:17 d. Cannot be determined

15. A man walks 10 m towards a lamp post and notices that the angle of elevation of the top of the

top of the post increases from 300 to 450. Find the height of the post.

a. 10 m b. 5 3 1 m c. 5 3 1 m d. 5 2 1 e. 5 3 2

16. If ax2+bx+1=0, where x (xR) is a variable, find the number of ordered pairs (a,b) possible such

that the roots of the equation are equal, given that a and b are integers where a lies between -100

and +100 (both values inclusive).

a. 21 b. 20 c. 10 d. 11 e. None of these

17. A sold cone of maximum possible volume is inserted in a hollow cube of volume is 343 cm3 what is

the approximate percentage of the volume of the cube which is not occupied by the cone?

a. 54% b. 64% c. 66% d. 68% e. 74%

18. If n is a natural number greater than 1, then 1075n-1075n-1 is not divisible by which of the

following?

a.15 b. 23 c. 43 d.179 e. 216

19. A trader gives a discount based on the number of articles bought by a customer. He gives a

discount of 10% when 5 articles are bought and a discount of 12.5% (in Rs.) when 8 articles are

bought. If the profit the makes in each case is the same, then the ratio of the marked price to the

cost price of the article is

a. 4:3 b. 3:2 c. 6:5 d. 7:6 e. None of these

20. Study the following graph and pick the correct statement from the choices.

a. 0f x g x h x

b. f x g x h x

c. g x h x f x


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d. 0f x g x h x

e. None of the above is true

SECTION-II

Directions for questions 21 to 23: Read each of the three problems given below and

choose the best answer from among the five given choices.

21. Five persons with names P,Q,R,S and T are employed as one of the following-Professor,

Engineer, Doctor, Accountant and Scientist, not necessarily in the same order. Each one plays

two different sports from among the following-Cricket, Football, Hockey, Basketball and

Volleyball. R plays Hockey and Cricket S plays Football. The accountant neither plays Football nor

Cricket, P plays Cricket and Football. Q Plays Basketball. T is the Scientist Q is the

a. Doctor b. Professor c. Scientist d. Engineer e. Accountant

22. Ashok, Akash, Akshay, Amar and Anoop are at a party and are having a Cocktail each Each

cocktail is made using exactly two drinks from among-Whisky, Brandy, Rum, Gin and Vodka.

The cocktails are named A,B,C,D and E. Whisky and Vodka cannot be mixed together. Brandy

cannot be mixed with Rum or Vodka. Amar takes drinks made only from among Brandy, Rum,

Gin and Vodka. Akash‟s cocktail is made by mixing Whisky and Brandy. Ashok does not take

anything containing Whisky, Rum or Vodka Akash, Ashok and Anoop are having cocktails A,B

and C respectively. Cocktails A and E have exactly one drink in common, Only cocktails C and D

are made from the same two drinks. The cocktail of Akshay can contain

a. Gin and Rum b. Rum and Vodka c. Gin and Whisky d. Gun and Brandy

e. None of these

23. 60 burgers are to be made at a bakery which can use any of three machines-A,B or C to make

them Machine. A can make 5 burgers per minute and the operating costs are Rs. 20 per

minute. Machine B can make 10 burgers per minute and the operating costs are Rs. 45 per minute

and Machine C can make 15 burger‟s per minute and the operating costs are Rs. 65 per minute.

What is the minimum cost of making 60 burgers, if each burger costs an extra four rupees other

than the operating costs of the machines?

a. 240 b. 460 c. 360 d. 480 e. 500

Direction for 24-28: A map representing countries R, S, W, X, Y and Z is to be drawn. Adjacent

countries can‟t be of the same colour on the map.

The only countries adjacent to each other are as follows:

I. R, S, X and Y are each adjacent to W.

II. X is adjacent to Y.

III. R and S are each adjacent to Z.


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24. Which of the following is a pair of countries that must be different in colour from each other?

a. R and X b. S and X c. S and X d. X and Z e. Y and Z

25. If X is the same colour as Z, then it must be true that:

a. R is the same colour as Y

b. S is the same colour as X

c. X is the same colour as Y

d. S is a different colour from any other country

e. W is different colour from any other country

26. Which of the following is a pair of countries that can be the same colour as each other?

a. R and S b. S and W c. W and X d. W and Y e. X and Y

27. Which of the following countries can be the same colour as W?

a. R b. S c. X d. Y e. Z

28. If the fewest possible colours are used and one of the countries is the only one of a certain colour,

that country could be:

a. W, but not any of the other countries

b. Z, but not any of the other countries

c. R or S, but not any of the other countries

d. W or X or Y, but not any of the other countries

e. W or Y or Z, but not any of the other countries

Direction for 29-30: A house inspection company must inspect each of seven houses F, G, H,

J,K, L and M. The company will use two inspectors, each of whom will be assigned a group of

houses to inspect.

The houses will be divided into group 1 and group 2 according to the following conditions:

Each group must include at least three houses.

No house can be in both groups.

F must be in the same group as M.

If H is in group 1, L must be in group 1.

If J is in group 2, G must be in group 1.

29. Which of the following is an acceptable assignment of houses to groups?

Group 1 Group 2

a. F, H, J, L G, K, M

b. F, H, L, M G, J, K

c. G, H, K, L F, J, M

d. G, K, L, M F, H, J

e. H, K, L F, G, J, M

30. If G and L are in group 2, which of the following must be together in one of the groups?

a. F and H b. F and K c. H and J d. H and K e. J and M


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SECTION-III

Directions for questions 31 to 34: Answer the questions based on the table given below.

A company has six regional dealers. 7 wholesale dealers and 9 sub dealers. The regional

dealers are A,B,C,D,E and F. The wholesale dealers are G,H,I,J,K,L and M and the sub

dealers are N,O,P,Q,R,S,T,U and V. Table A gives the cost of transporting one truckload of the

company‟s products from the regional dealers to the wholesale dealers. Table B gives the cost

of transporting the same quality from wholesale dealers to the sub dealers.

Table A (in Rupees)

A B C D E F

G 4641 2685 2839 2949 2949 4001

H 1555 2984 4428 3799 3799 3969

I 2255 0 1601 3901 3603 5001

J 1855 751 1751 3751 3252 4901

K 5568 1572 0 5788 5788 5117

L 3085 2584 3782 5329 5329 2032

M 3222 1496 2686 5466 5466 3119

Table B (in Rupees)

G H I J K L M

N 2814 4216 1572 4446 0 3774 2686

O 2664 4016 1423 3953 476 3298 2210

P 2503 3901 0 2286 1028 2746 1658

Q 1164 1811 1431 1377 2618 2626 3358

R 1726 1343 1581 816 2779 2086 1139

S 2251 3221 1731 1861 4663 2014 1891

T 3272 0 2983 1113 4428 1938 1742

U 4021 748 3136 1802 5172 2686 2491

V 3230 1275 2168 688 3488 566 808

31. What is the least cost of sending one truckload from any regional dealer to any sub dealer?

a. Rs. 476 b. Rs. 0 c. Rs. 1028 d. Rs.1423 e. Rs.1568

32. What is the least cost of sending one truckload from any regional dealer to the sub dealer „O‟?


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a. Rs. 0 b. Rs. 1423 c. Rs. 476 d. Rs.1028 e. None of these

33. What is the least cost of sending one truckload from A to any sub dealer?

a. Rs. 1423 b. Rs. 1555 c. Rs. 2255 d. Rs. 475 e. None of these

34. What is the least cost of sending one truck load from A to N?

a. Rs. 3827 b. Rs.5568 c. Rs.5771 d. Rs. 4235 e. None of these

Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions based on the information given

below.

XYZ Ltd products watches, a product for which there is a maximum demand of 8,000 units per

month. The graph given below indicates the variable costs and fixed costs per month, for producing

the watches.

By definition, Average cost (AC)=Total cost

Total production

Marginal cost (MC)=Rate of change in total cost per unit change in quantity produced.

According to the company policy, watches are produced only in batches of thousands.

The fixed costs in operating the plant for the range of production [0,1999] units are Rs. 2 lakh.

However, in the range [2000, 3999], the fixed costs are Rs. 4 lakh. In the range [4000, 4999]

the fixed costs are Rs.5 lakh while from 5000 units to 8000 units the fixed costs are Rs. 8 lakh.

35. If the production in a certain month is 4000 units. What is the average cost per unit?

a. Rs. 75 b. Rs. 150 c. Rs. 175 d. Rs. 250 e. Rs. 200

36. If the production is increased from 4000 units to 5,000 units, what is the marginal cost incurred?

a. Rs. 100 b. Rs. 350 c. Rs. 300 d. Rs. 400 e. Rs. 250

37. Suppose a watch sells for Rs. 600, what is the total profit (in Rs.) earned by the company. When it

produces 4000 watches a month?

a. Rs. 1400,000 b. Rs. 16,00,000 c. Rs. 1750,000 d. Rs. 20,00,000

e. Rs. 12,50,000

38. If selling price of a watch is Rs. 600, what should be the production level so that the profit is the

highest?


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a. 4,000 b. 5,000 c. Rs. 8,000 d. Rs. 10,000 e. None of these

Directions for question 39 & 40: Each question is followed by two statements, A and B.

Answer each question using the following instructions.

Choose 1 if the question can be answered by using statement A alone, but cannot be

answered by using statement B alone.

Choose 2 if the question can be answered by using statement B alone. but cannot be

answered by using statement A alone.

Choose 3 if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.

Choose 4 if the question can be answered by using both statements together, but

cannot be answered by using either statement alone.

Choose 5 if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements

together.

39. In a Football Match, Manchester United was behind Arsenal by 2 goals with 5 minutes

remaining. Did they win the match?

A. Wayne Rooney, the Manchester United striker, scored 3 goals in the last five minutes of the

match.

B. Arsenal scored a total of 3 goals in the match

a. a b. b c. c d. d e.e

40. Is a=b

A. 1 1

4a ba b

B. 2 2

50 50a b b

a. 1 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2 e. 5

SECTION-IV

Directions for Questions 41 to 43: In each question, there are five sentences of parts of

sentences that form a paragraph. Identify the sentences or parts (s) of sentences (s) that is/are

correct in terms of grammar and usage then, choose the most appropriate option.

41. A. It is often charged that the military brass spends its time

B. Preparing to flight the last war over again.

C. We have learned, in recent times, that the same charge can be

D. hurled towards the intellectuals, Politicians, and protesters who claim to speak for peace.

E. The fact is much of what is now publicly said or written about both war and peace, was

obsolete.

a. A & C b. A, D & E c. B & C d. B & D e. B C & E

42. A. During almost half a century the doomsday clock ticked and the world held its breath

B. It is therefore, easy to understand the mindless joy

C. that greeted the end of the Cold War, as symbolized


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D. By the bringing down of the Berlin Wall and the opening of the Brandenburg Gate

E. Normally, sober politicians sang odes to the new era of peace supposedly upon us.

a. B & E b. B & D c. A, D & E d. A & D e. A & E

43. A. A Computer-driven cutting tool, operating through

B. exquisite precision, wastes less cloth or steel than

C. it‟s predecessor, the pre-intelligent cutting machine.

D. „Smart‟ automated presses that print or bind books.

E. use less paper than the brute-force machines they replace.

a. A & E b. A & B c. A, C & D d. C & E e. C & D

Directions for questions 44 & 46: In each of the following sentences, parts of a sentence are

left blank. Beneath each sentence, five different ways of completing the sentences are indicated

Choose the best alternative from among the five.

44. The company should be looking at __________ the right strategies in the short run so as to be

able to successfully ___________ foreign competition.

a. embracing, ward off

b. adopting, ward off

c. adopting, stave off

d. implementing, defend against

e. espousing …………fend off

45. American‟s recent combination of a/an ___________boom in business investment together with

a deep slump in household saving is historically ____________.

a. unrelenting, exceptional

b. sustained, unparalleled

c. sustained, unprecedented

d. persistent, unmatched

e. prolonged, unrivalled

46. In the earlier game, he was ___________ to build an innings and here he played ____ but had to

keep taking risks

a. attempting admirably

b. trying, magnificently

c. trying, carefully

d. striving, magnificently

e. aspiring, splendidly

Directions for questions 47 to 49: In each question there are six sentences. The sentence

impelled 1 is in its correct place. The five that follow are labelled A, B, C, D and E and need to

be arranged in the logical order to form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the

most appropriate option.

47. a. A nation like an individual, has many personalities and many approaches to life.

b. If there is strong organic bond between different personalities, it well.

c. Otherwise this could lead to disintegration and trouble.


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d. In the mind and spirit of India, there has been this fundamental conflict due to a long period of

arrested growth.

d. If normal development is arrested, then conflict arises between different personalities.

e. Normally, some kind of equilibrium is eventually established.

a. ABEDC b. BDCAE c. ECABD d. DBACE e. CDABE

48. a. Prediction and planning are not neutral processes but ideological ones.

A. Prediction is not therefore a simple concept.

B. The issues those in power want forecasts about are not likely to correspond to what the

disadvantages are most concerned with

C. Prediction is rarely done for its own sake.

D. What is predicted and how prediction is done is a deeply political process involving those in

power.

E. Prediction is almost always undertaken for some specific reason, and carried out by middle class

pundits, academics and politicians.

a. CABDE b. ABDCE c. DEBCA d. CEDBA e. CDABE

49. a. Why is the Haldia Project so important?

A. “The indirect employment potential,” says a government spokesman, “could be 100,000 jobs.”

B. In a state with a crippling overhang of joblessness, the Haldia project should be able to wonders.

C. Consider: This Rs. 5,170 crore Project is the single biggest investment in the state in

decades.

D. This is turn is expected to sire several more thousand crore worth of downstream projects.

E. In their turn these are expected to engender innumerable medium and small industries with

an erroneous employment potential.

a. ACEDB b. AECDB c. AECBD d. CABDE e. CDEAB

Directions for questions 50 to 52: Read the Passages given below and answer the

questions that follow.

Passage-1

Gather a single blade of grass, and examine for a minute, quietly, its narrow sword-shaped strip

of fluted green. Nothing, as it seems, there of notable goodness or beauty. A very little strength,

and a very little tallness, and a few delicate long lines meeting in a point-not a perfect point either

but blunt and „unfinished, by no means a creditable or apparently much-cared for example of

Nature‟s workmanship; made, as it seems, only to be trodden on today, and tomorrow to be

cast into the oven; and a little pale and hollow stalk, feeble and flaccid, leading down to the dull

brown fibres or roots. And yet, think of it well, and judge whether of all gorgeours flowers that

beam in summer, air, and of all strong and good trees, pleasant to the eyes or good for food-

stately palm and pine, strong ash and oak, scented citron, burdened vine-there be any by man so

deeply loved, by God so highly graced, as that narrow point of feeble green. It seems to me not to

have been without a peculiar significance that our Lord. When about to work the miracle which, of

all that He showed appears to have been felt by the multitude as the most impressive-The miracle

of the loaves –commanded the people to sit down by companies “upon the green grass”. He was

about to feed them with the principal produce of earth and the sea, the simplest

representations of the food of mankind. He gave them the seed of the herb; He bade them sit


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down the herb itself. Which was as great a gift in its fitness for their joy and rest, as its perfect

fruit for their sustenance; Thus in this single order and act, when rightly understood, Indicating

for evermore how the Creator had entrusted the comfort, consolation, and sustenance of man

to the simplest and most despised of all the leafy families of the earth, And well does it fulfill its

mission.

Consider what we owe merely to the meadow grass, to the covering of the dark ground by that

glorious enamel, by the companies of those soft, and countless and peaceful spears. The fields!

Follow but forth for a little time the thoughts of all that we ought to recognize in those words. All

spring and summer is in them-the walks by silent, scented paths-The tests in noonday heat –the

Joy of herds and flocks-the power of all shepherd life and meditation- the life of sunlight upon the

world, falling in emerald streaks, and falling in soft blue shadows, where else it would have struck

upon the dark mould, or scorching dust-pastures besides the pacing brooks-soft banks and knolls

of lowly hills-thymy slopes of down overlooked by the blue line of lifted sea-crisp lawns all dim

with early dew, or smooth in evening warmth of barred sunshine, dinted by happy feet, and

softening in their fall the sound of loving voices; all these are not all. We may not measure to the

full the depth of this heavenly gift in our own land; through still, as we think of it longer, the

infinite of that meadow sweetness, Shakespeare‟s peculiar joy, would open on us more and more,

yet we have it but in part. Go out, in the spring time, among the meadows that slope from the

shores of the Swiss lakes to the roots of their lower mountains. There, mingled with the taller

gentians and the white narcissus, the grass grows deep and free; and as you follow the

winding mountain paths, beneath arching boughs all veiled and dim with blossom-paths that

for ever droop and rise over the green banks and mounds sweeping down in scented undulation,

steep to the blue water, studded here and there with new-mown heaps, filling all the air with

fainter sweetness-look up towards the higher hills, where the waves of everlasting green roll

silently into their long inlets among the shadows of the pines, and we may, perhaps, at last know

the meaning of those quiet words of the 147th Psalm, “ He make the grass to grow upon the

mountains.”

There are also several lessons symbolically connected with this subject, which we must not allow to

escape us. Observe, the peculiar characters of the grass, which adapt it especially for the service of

man, are its apparent humility and cheerfulness. It humility, in that it seems created only for

lowest service-appointed to be trodden on, and fed upon. Its cheerfulness, in that it seems to exult

under all kinds of violence and suffering. You roll it and it is stronger the next day; you mow it, and

it multiplies its shoots, as if it were grateful; you tread upon it, and it only sends up richer

perfume. Spring comes, and it rejoices with all the earth-glowing with variegated flame of flowers-

waving is soft depth of fruitful strength. Winter comes, and though it will not mock its fellow-

plants by growing then, it will not pine and mourn, and turn colourless or leafless as they. it is

always green; and is only the brighter and gayer for the hoar-frost.

50. The „mission‟ of grass, as understood from the passage, includes

a. satiating people‟s hunger.

b. soothing painful feet.

c. providing comfort to people who rest.

d. None of these

51. With reference to grass, the author talks about seasons in order to


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a. depict that the grass, despite its humble appearance, is superior when compared to all other

plants

b. Show that it is as good as any other species of plants.

c. Point out the transient nature of other plants.

d. make people realize the unique importance of each being-whether big or small.

e. demonstrate how it is in good spirits even in the face of adversity.

52. In the author‟s view a blade of grass is most deeply loved and most highly graced of all plants

because

a. of the symbolic lessons it teaches us.

b. it is seen as a heavenly gift.

c. of the entity that has chosen it to fulfill certain tasks.

d. It is a multipurpose plant.

e. It can survive even adverse weather conditions.

Passage-II

In a contretemps indicative of the political struggle over global climate change, a recent study

suggested that humans may not be warming the earth. Greenhouse skeptics, pro-industry groups

and political conservatives have seized on the results, Proclaiming that the science of climate

change is inconclusive and that agreements such as the Kyoto Protocol, which set limits on the

output of industrial heat-trapping gases, are unnecessary, by mainstream climatologists, as

represented by the Intergovernmental panel on Climate Change (IPCC), are perturbed that the

report has received so much attention. They say that the study‟s conclusions are scientifically

dubious and coloured by politics.

Sallie Baliunas and Willie Soon, of the Harvard-Smithsonian Centre for Astrophysics reviewed

more than 200 studies that examined climate “Proxy” records –data from such phenomena as the

growth of tree, rings, or coal, which are sensitive to climatic conditions. They said in the January

„Climate Research‟ that “across the world, many records reveals that the 20th Century is

probably not the warmest nor a uniquely extreme climate period of the last millennium.” They said

that two extreme climate periods-the Medieval Warming period between 800 and 1300 and the

Little Ice Age of 1300 to 1900-occurred worldwide, At a time before industrial emission of

greenhouse gases became abundant.

In contrast, the consensus view among paleoclimatologists is that the Medieval Warming Period

was regional. That the worldwide nature of the little ice age is open to question and that the late

20th century saw the most extreme global temperature averages. Scientists skeptical of human –

induced warming applaud the analysis by soon and Baliunas. “It has been painstaking and

meticulous”, says Williams Kininmonth, a meteorological consultant in kew, Australia and former

head of Australian National Climate Centre. But he says that “from a purely statistical viewpoint,

the work can be criticized.

And that criticism from many scientists who feel that soon and Baliunas produced a deeply flawed

work has been unusually strident. “The fact that it has received any attention at all is a result,

again in my view of its utility to those groups who want the global warning issue to just go away,”

comments Tim Barnett, a marine Physicist at the Scripps Institution of Oceanography, Whose work

soon and Baliurg refer to similar sentiments came from Malcolm Hughes of the Laboratory of


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Tree-Ring Research of the University of Arizona, whose work is also discussed. “The soon et al.

Paper is so fundamental misconceived and contains so many egregious errors that it would take

weeks to list and explain them all.

Rather than seeing. Global anomalies, many paleoclimatologists subscribe to the conclusion of

Phil Jones of the university of East Anglia, Michael Mann of the University of Virginia and their

colleagues, who began in 1998 to quantitatively splice together the proxy records. They have

concluded that the global average temperature over the past thousand years has been

relatively stable until the 20th century “Nothing in the paper undermines in any way the

conclusion of earlier studies that the average temperature of the late twentieth century in the

Northern Hemisphere was anomalous against the background of the past millennium,” wrote Mann

and Princeton University‟s Michael Oppenheimer in a privately circulated statement.

The most significant criticism is that soon and Baliunas do not present their data

quantitatively-instead they merely categories the work of others primarily into one of two sets.

either supporting or not supporting their particular definitions of Medieval Warming period of

Little Ice age. “I was stating outright that I‟m not able to give too may quantitative details.

especially in terms of aggregating all the result.” Soon says.

Specifically, they define a “Climate anomaly” as a period of 50 or more years of wetness or dryness

or sustained warmth (or, for the Little Ice age, coolness). The problem is that under this broad

definition a wet or dry spell would indicate a climate anomaly, even if the temperature

remained perfectly constant. Soon and Beliunas are “mindful” that the Medieval Warming period

and the Little Ice age should be defined by temperature, but we emphasizes that great bias would

result if those thermal anomalies were to be dissociated” from other climate conditions. (Asked to

define “wetness” and “dryness”. Soon and Baliunas say only that they “referred to the

standard usage in English.”)

What is more, their results were non-synchronous. “Their analysis doesn‟t consider whether the

warm/cold periods occurred at the same time.” says Peter Stott, a climate scientist at the U.K‟s

Hadley Centre for Climate Prediction and Research in Bracknell. For example, if a proxy record

indicated that a drier condition existed in one part of the world from 800 to 850, it would be

counted as equal evidence for a Medieval Warming period as a different proxy record that

showed wetter conditions in another part of the world from 1250 to 1300. Regional conditions do

not necessarily mirror the global average, Stott notes. “Iceland and Greenland had their warmest

periods in the 1930s. Whereas the warmest for the globe was the 1990s.

Soon and Baliunas also take issue with the IPCC by contending that the 20th century saw on unique

patterns. They found few climatic anomalies in the proxy records. But they looked for 50 years

long anomalies, The last century‟s warming. The IPCC concludes, occurred in two periods of about

30 years each (with cooling in between). The warmest period occurred in the late 20th century-too

short to meet soon and Baliunas‟s selected required. The two researches also discount

thermometer reading and “gave great weight to the paleo data for which the uncertainties are

much greater,” Stott says.

The conclusion of soon and Baliunas that the warming during the 20th century is not unusual has

engendered sharp debate and intense reactions on both sides. Soon and Baliunas responded

primarily via-email and refused follow-up questions. The charges illustrate the polarized nature of

the climate change debate in the U.S. “You‟d be challenged, I‟d bet, to find someone who supports

the Kyoto Protocol and also thinks that this paper is good science, or someone who thinks that the


14

paper is bad science and is opposed to Kyoto.” Predicts Roger Pielke. Jr. of University of Colorado

Expect more or such flares as the stakes- and the World‟s temperatures continue to rise.

53. Many people/groups may try to take advantage of the conclusions of Soon and Baliunas

because

a. It reflects the opinion of a vast majority of People.

b. The conclusions are supported by political parties.

c. It is in keeping with the findings of paleoclimatologists.

d. the warming during the 20th century is not unusual.

e. It helps them shirk their responsibility with regard to tackling global warming.

54. Which of the following lines and argument have not been used to criticize the conclusions

of soon and Baliunas?

a. They have slotted the work of others as supporting or not supporting their views.

b. They have ignored the fact that regional conditions do not necessarily mirror the global

average.

c. They have failed to consider that two extreme climate periods had occurred, before the

industrial emission of greenhouse gases became widespread.

d. None of these

55. Scientists who do not subscribe to the theory that global warming is caused by human

activity.

a. will cite the quantitative aggregates given by Soon and Baliunas to prove their profit.

b. will definitely not be a part of IPCC.

c. are supported by the established temperature fluctuations recorded during the Medieval

Warming Period and the Little Ice Age.

d. Are not against the Kyoto Protocol which suggests a cap on the emission of gases that

cause global warming.

e. are likely to agree that the science of climate change is inconclusive.

Directions for questions 56 to 59: The following question has a paragraph from which the last

sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph

in the most appropriate way.

56. The Polar Basin is not a flat, unbroken plain of ice. As new ice forms below the old, it heaves

upward, cracking the surface into a tangle of ice floes. Driven by wind and tide, these floes are

forever churning and grinding. now freezing together, again cracking apart. __________

a. On occasions, a floe may drift away from this mejee.

b. This renders the area truly uninhabitable.

c. They form the polar ice pack, a jigsaw puzzle of pinnacles, caverns and precipices.

d. Thunderous rumbles are heard when this happens.

e. It would seem that this part of the earth‟s surface has a life of its own.

57. One of the more fortunate among wild creatures is the lamming, a furry animal considerably

smaller than the hare. This weacel-like creature has habits that make it difficult to capture, and a

beautiful pelt that fragile and hard to match. _________

a. It is also a gregarious creature, living in large groups.

b. For these reasons even up-market stylists have never tried to make the lemming fashionable.


15

c. It displays what we term as „herd behaviour‟ in all aspects of its life.

d. It lives in labyrinthine burrows, often those originally excavated by hares.

e. Its fur protects it against the severe could of winner.

58. Of the several varieties of Penguins, the Emperor Penguin is the most Unusual. Standing Four feet

or more unusual. Standing four feet or more in height. Weighing up to eighty pounds, these birds

appear to wear black coats and yellowish waistcoats, and have orange stained breaks. They walk

with pompous gravity, bow to one another, and appear to be making solemn speeches.

___________

a. Their calls are akin to those of the other birds of the penguin family.

b. The females are very protective of their young.

c. Gentle through they seem, they can used their fippers for lethal strikes if threatened.

d. In them the manless Antarctic has outstanding citizens that look absurdly manlike.

e. They have always evoked awe in the explorers and sailors who have come upon them.

59. The Western version of development and wealth creation promotes itself as a purely secular

phenomenon. The violence it provokes in many pious or devout followers of religious strikes its

proponents as gratuitous and inexplicable ______________

a. The modern creed of consumerison is perceived as an assault on ancient conviction and

practice.

b. The truth is, the global way of wealth is not secular.

c. Those who want to remark the whole world in the image of western societies base their project

on perpetual economic growth and a limitless capacity to produce.

d. This religion of materialism is obviously unsustainable.

e. Fanatics and extremists perceive consumerison as an invasive trespass upon the realm

of religion.

Directions for question 60: The sentences given in each of the following questions. When

properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. From

among the four choices given below each question, choose the most logical Order of sentences that

constructs a coherent paragraph.

60. A. The initiative, launched two years ago has brought a smile on the faces of traffic authorities.

B. Cops can also determine if the vehicle was stolen or whether the driver had incurred any fines

that were still unpaid.

C. Simputers designed by incore, software Ltd enable policeman not only to punish errant Drivers

on the spot but also track repeat offenders.

D. They can then write out a bill and print it with the help of a hard held printer.

E. Software experts have extended a helping hand to stressed-out traffic cops to better equip them

in the management or Bangalore‟s burgeoning traffic.

a. EACBD b. ECBDA c. CDBEA d. CBDEA e. ACDBE


16

SECTION-I

1. c 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. e 6. d 7. d 8. e 9. e 10. c

11. e 12. b 13. d 14. a 15. b 16. b 17. e 18. b 19. c 20. c

SECTION-II

21. e 22. c 23. d 24. c 25. e 26. a 27. e 28. d 29. c 30. e

SECTION-III

31. b 32. c 33. b 34. a 35. e 36.d 37. b 38. c 39. e 40. a

SECTION-IV


17

41. b 42. e 43. c 44. b 45. c 46.c 47. a 48. d 49. e 50. d

51. e 52. b 53. e 54. d 55. b 56. c 57. b 58. d 59.b 60.b

Solutions for questions 1 to 4:

1. Let the number of students in section A, B, C, D be a,b,c, d respectively. We have the following results.

Section Average Total

A B C 45 45 (a+b+c)

A C D 55 55 (a+c+b)

A B D 50 50 (a+b+c

BC D 60 60 (a+c+d)

(total weight of all sections)=(45+55+50) a

+(45+50+60) b

+(45+55+60) c

+(55+50+60) d

=150a+155b+160c+165 d

Average of all sections


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150 5 10 1550 ,

3 3

5b+10c+15d=Where k=

3 a+b+c+d

The average can only be between 50 and 55 Choice c

a b c d b c dk

a b c d a b c d

2.

Let the area of the rectangle ABCD be a

1BYC

6

3 1STCY

4 6 8

APX 1/ 2

3 1 3, APRQ

4 2 16

Now, QR=1/2 AP

ar QRP 1/ 2 AQP

ar QRP 1/ 3 APRQ

1 3

3 16 16

a 3Total area of the shaded region=

8 16 16

Required percentage

3a

16= 100 18.75% Choice aa

a

aar a

ar a

and ar a a

ar

aa

a a

3. Let the number of pens bought=p

and the number of books bought=b

3p+4b=1004b=100-3p

b=25 -3

p4

So, p is a multiple of 4.

The possible values of p are 4,8,12,…………………32.

So, a total of 8 combinations can be bought. Choice (b)

4. Let n and m be the two prime numbers


19

n+m gives, say r as quotient and also r as remainder

n=mr+r=r (m+1)

but n is prime r=1 and m+1=n

m,n are consecutive and prime, this is true only for n

=3.m=2. Only 1 case. Choice (b)

5. As all the three numbers k/2, K/3, 3k/7 are integers, the least value of k=LCM(2,3,7)=42.

The largest value of K1,000 is the largest multiple of 42. Which is less than or equal to

1,000.

K=966. Choice (e)

6. The given series is

T: 5,5,5,5,5,6,6,6,6,6,6,7,7,……………….7; etc

If we append the terms 1,2,2,3,3,3,4,4,4,4 at the beginning we get the series

S: 1,2,2,3,3,3; 4,4,4;5,5,5,5,5,…………etc

The required sum is

100 1010 1010S 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 S 30, where S is the sum of the first 1010 temp of S.

If the last term in S is n+1

1 1 21010

2 2

1 2020 1 2

As 44 45 1980 and 45 46 2068, 44

The series S is 1:2,2;..............;44,44..........44;

45............45 20 times

The number of terms is

44 45;20 990 20 1010

2

The sum of t

n n n n

n n n n

n

2 2 2 2hese terms is 1 2 3 ............. 44 45 20

44 45 89900 29.370 900 30.270

6

The required sum is 30.240 Choice (d)

7. 111.........n timesn


20

1 2

2 1

n

.........1

1 ...............

1

1

Remainder when

n 1is divided by n+1 is f -1

1

1 1 1 1 if n is even

2 2

1-1Remainder = 0 1 is false

2

if n is odd.

1- -1Remainder = 1 is f

2

n n

n

n

n n

n n

n n n

nf n

n

n

b

alse

8. When 15 is the hypoteneuse it limits the other two perpendicular sides to values less than

15. Thereby limiting the area Hence we should take 15 as a non-hypotenuse side.

If 5 is one of the perpendicular sides

152=c2-b2

d is the hypotenuse

=(c+b) (c-b)

=Product of two distinct numbers

c+b=225

c-b=1 so, b=112

largest possible area

2115 112 840 choice (e)

2cm

9. Let the original numbers be x,y,z

x (y+1) (z+1)=598=2 (13),(23)

The original numbers are 2,12 and 22.

Their sum=2+12+22=36 Choice (e)

10.


21

2 2

2

2 10 20

10 20 10

10 10 2 10 2 10 10 2 11 choice (c)

x

x x

x x

11. Let the escalator have a total of n steps and let it have moved through m steps by the time

Raju took 20 steps, therefore, since Rajat runs twice as fast as Raju, the time Rajat takes

30 steps is equal to the time in which Raju takes 15 steps the escalator moved

15 3 m steps

20 4

3m+20=n and 30

4

110 40 steps

4

n=60 steps choice (e)

m

m n

m m

12. If Rajesh walks half as fast as Raju, then let him take „r‟ times the time Raju takes

escalator would move through 40 t steps he would take 1

20 steps 2

40 10 60

50 60

1.2 times

Rajesh would take 12 steps choice (b)

t t

t

t

13. Substituting for Po and P1 we get

2 1 0

3 4

n

7 8 36

P 2 P P 1

Similarly, now P 2, P 3 and on

P 1

P 6, P 7,................. P 37,

Required sum= 6+7+8.........+36+37

326 37 688 choice d

2

n

14.

Let Q,B=8K, then O2C=7K and O3C=2k (K>0)


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Radius of the quadrant=OA=OD=8K+7K+2K=17K

Let P be the projection of O2 and OA.

1

2 2

1 1

2 2

1 1

2 2 2 2

1

2 2

2 22 2

1 1

2 2 2 2

2 2

3 1 2

In OO B

OO

289 64 15

2

4 64

68 1

In OPC,PC=PO O 8 7 15

17 15 81: PO 15 8 7

49 49

98

8 7 15

OB O B

k k k

O A OA OO k

AB OA O B k k

k

C k k k

OP OC PC k k OO OP k k k

BC O B O C k k

k

OO O B O C k k k

3 3

2 2 2 2

3 3

17 15 2

64 4 68

: : 68 : 98 : 68

34 :7 : 34 choice (a)

O B OD QO k k k

CD O C O D k k k

AB BC CD k K k

15. Let AB be the post and let the man move 10 m from D to C. Consider the following figure.

0tan 3010

1

10 3

3 ;10

3 1 10

10 3 15 3 1 . choice b

2

x

x

x

x

x x

x

x

16. 2 1 0 100 100ax bx and a

Since the roots are equal.

b2-4a=0

b2=4a


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a can be any perfect square in the interval [-100,100]

i.e. a can take 10 values (i.e. 1,4,……………100)

For each value of a,b takes two values.

(i.e. when a=1, b= 2)

There are 20 pairs of (a,b) possible Choice (b)

17. Volume of the cube=343 cm2

Side of cube=7 cm

Height of the cone=7 cm and radius=3.5 cm.

Volume of the cone= 21

3r h

=

31 22 7 77 89.83 90 cm

3 7 2 2

Percentage of the cube's volume which is empty

253= 100 73.76% 74% choice e

343

18. 1075n-1. (1075-1)

1075n-1 1074

11075 2 3 179 25 43 2 3 179n

The number is a multiple of 179, 43 and 15 (multiple of 3 and 5). As it is not a multiple of

3 and 5). As it is not a multiple of 23. it is not divisible by 23. Choice (b)

19. The trader gives a discount of 10% when 5 articles are bought and a discount of 12.5%

when 8 articles are bought.

Given the profit is the same

5 0.9 MP-CP 8 0.875 MP-CP

MP 6Choice C

CP 5

20. From the figure f (x)=mx (where m is the slope)

g x 2 and h x 2

clearly g x choice c

mx

h x

21.

P Q R S T

Cricket +Football

Basketball Hockey+Cricket Football

Scientist

Since the accountant neither plays football nor cricket and T is the scientist, Q must be

the accountant Choice (e)


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22.

Ashok Akash Akshay Amar Anoop

Cocktail B A D/E D/E C

Drinks Brandy+Gin Whiskey+Brandy Rum

+Vodka

Since A and E have a drink in common, It must be whisky and Whisky can go with Rum or

Gin. Since Amar does not take Whisky, E is taken by Akshay Hence Choice (c), i.e.

Whisky+Gin is a possible cocktail of Akshay Choice (c)

23. Total operating costs on Machine A=60

20 Rs. 2405

Total operating costs on Machine B=60

45 Rs. 27010

Total operating costs on Machine C=60

65 Rs. 26015

Other costs=6040=240

Minimum cost=240+240=480 Choice (d)

25. This is one of the possible map of these countries

26. c. We find only S and Z are adjacent countries in above figure so they must be of different

color. 27. e. R, S, X and Y are adjacent to W so they must name difference color from W. Given in

this question that Z‟s Color is same to X, so color of Z also differ from W.

28. a. The pair of countries given in options (b), (c), (d) and (e) are adjacent countries in

above figure so they name difference color. 27. e. In the above figure only Z is not adjacent to W, so they may have the same color.

28. d. In The above figure W, X and Y are adjacent to each other. So we have to use at least three different colors.

“W, X, Z, Y,R,S”

“X, W, Z, Y, R, S” “Y,W, Z, X, R, S”.

29. c. Options (a) and (d) will be rejected because F and M are not together. Third condition will reject options (b) and (e) 30. e. Since L is in group 2, so H will not be in group 1. So H, G, L, must be in group 2. and F

and M will be in group 1. Since G is in group 2, so J must be in group 1 therefore J and M will always come together in group 1.

31. From B to I=0


25

From I to P=0 Total cost=Rs 0 Choice (b)

32. From C to K=0 From K to O=476

Minimum total cost=Rs. 476 Choice (c)

33. The minimum cost is when sending from A to H, 1555 and then H to T=0 Total minimum cost =Rs. 1555. Choice (b)

34. Minimum cost is for sending from A to I and then from I to N

Rs. 2255 +Rs. 1572=Rs. 3827. 35. Variable cost=3 lakh

Fixed costs=5 lakh Total costs=8 lakh

Average cost=8 lakh

Rs.200 Choice (e) 4000

36. When production is increased to 5,000 units Fixed costs=8 lakh

Variable cost=4 lakh Total cost=12 lakh

Marginal cost=12lakh-8lakh 4 lakh

Rs. 400.5,000 4,000 1,000

37. Average cost when producing 4,000 units Rs. 200 Selling Price=Rs. 600 Profit (1600-200)4000

=4000+4000=Rs.16,00,000 Choice (b)

38. Since average cost of production is not income. Significantly after 5,000 units, maximum profit obtained when maximum number of watch is produced. Alternatively, one can observe that the AC‟s for volume 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000, 5000,

units, maximum profit obtained when maximum number of watch produced. Alternatively, one can observe that the AC‟s for volume 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000, 5000,

6000, 7000 an unit are Rs. 280, 260, 200, 200, 240, 216, 192 a respectively. Hence, least Average Cost gives maximum volume of 8000 units Choice (c)

39. We can definitely say Manchester United did not loose the match, but even by using both

statements cannot say whether they won or not. Choice (e) 40. From statement A alone we can say a=b as this is the only value that satisfies.

From statement B, cannot definitely say whether a=b Choice (a)

41. In A, „military brass‟ is a collective term (plural) meaning senior military officers. Therefore, „spends its should be replaced by „spend their‟ In D the appropriate phrasal Verb would be „hurled at‟ and not „hurled towards‟ In E, the reference is to the present

day- Therefore, was obsolete‟ should be replaced by is obsolete‟ Choice (b)


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42. Sentences A refers to something that happened all through the period „During should

therefore be replaced by for‟ in E there should be no comma after normally-The statement is about normally sober politicians and not about what sober politicians normally do. Choice (e)

43. In A, a tool would operate „with precision not „through‟ In C, the possessive pronoun it‟s

needs no apostrophe In D, or should be replaced by and‟ –were a press to be used engaged only for binding (i.e. putting together the printed sheets) there should be no reduction in the amount of paper used. Choice (c)

44. The word in the first blank is „adopting‟ (taking up or following). It is not „embracing‟ or

espousing because embrace or espouse, implies doing it willingly (whereas the company may not have any choice here) nor is it implementing since implement means only to put into effect so our answer is choice (b) or (c). In the second blank ward off (to prevent

someone or something from harming or effecting one) would be appropriate with „reign competition since stave off any means to avert to deserve Choice (b)

45. In the first blank „sustained‟ is the most appropriate since it means „keep going continuously‟ the boom is not „persistent‟ (since persist implies continuing obstinately)

nor‟ unrelenting‟ (since unrelenting means without relenting or without mitigating a harsh or cruel treatment). The word „prolonged‟ which means delayed is appropriate. So the

answer is choice (b) or (c). If we now look at the second black we find that „unprecedented‟ (never done or known before) fits better with „historical‟ then „unparalleled‟ (exceptional). Choice (c)

46. The first blank can take any of the given words, so let‟s look at the second blank. The

word in the blank contrasts (but) with taking risks. So carefully is the best word here (he played carefully but had to keep taking risks) Choice (c)

47. A follow 1 by carrying the idea forward B which says what would happen if there is no organic bond is obviously a continuation of A. E is a continuation of B. D follows E by

taking about what will happen if normal development is arrested. This fundamental conflict‟ in C is linked to the conflict‟ referred to in D, hence C is a continuation of D.

Therefore, ABEDC is the correct sequence. Choice (a) 48. C which states that prediction is rarely done for its won sake follow 1 which sates that

prediction and planning one ideological processes. E is a continuation of C. D follows B by carrying the idea forward. B is a continuation of D as the linking word, here, is power.

Statement A which concludes that „prediction‟ is not a simple concept is the appropriate closing line. Further, the DB link is seen only in choice d making it the right answer Choice (d)

49. Statement C which explains why the Haldia protect is so important is a continuation of 1.

D is continuation of C E follows D because these in E refer to the downstream projects mentioned in D, A follows E linked by the words „employment potential‟, B is conclusive in native. Therefore, CDEAB is the correct sequence. Choice (e)

50. Refer to the last 3 lines of para 1-„comfort, consolation and sustenance‟ are given as the

Mission. Choice (d)


27

51. Refer to the last 6 lines of the passage Choice (e)

52. Refer to Para 2, line 11 (heavenly gift). Though it is symbolic. It is loved not for its symbolism but for its divine association. Choice (b)

53. Refer to the fourth paragraph, second line. Choice (e)

54. Choices (a), (b) and (c) represent ways in which the soon and Baliunas report has been

attacked. However, choice (d) does not represent a line of attack. Refer to the sixth, seven and eighth paragraphs. Choice (d)

55. Refer to the first paragraph Choice (b)

56. The author starts the para by stating that the polar Basin is not a flat, unbroken plain of ice. The descriptions that follow point to the features that explain this. The para would then close with a line that would bring out the author‟s view of what the area actually is

like. This makes choice (c) an appropriate closing sentence.

57. The author starts the para stating that the lemming is a fortunate animal. The characteristics and physical features that follow would explain why this so, if the result or Benefits is also provided. This makes choice (b) an appropriate closing sentence.

Choice (b)

58. The author starts the para stating that the Emperor Penguin is an unusual bird. The descriptions that follow point to its features-unusual because they appear human-like in

some aspects. This makes choice (d) an appropriate closing sentence. Choice (d) 59. The given sentences are so worded that it is clear that they are not the author‟s opinion-

the first sentence says, „it promotes itself‟ (not necessary that this is the truth). The second says „strikes its proponents‟ (not others, for instance). Hence it is clear that the

truth is different from what the proponents believed or would have others believe. Choice (b) Thus, becomes the apt concluding line as it says what the truth is. Choice (b)

60. CBD is a sequence. This is found in (a) and (b) after the introductory statement „E‟ it is Better to have a description of how they have extended a helping hand rather than talking

About the „the initiative‟ the „initiative‟ will better follow the description of the help. So ECBDA is the correct order. Choice (b)


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