Chapter- 1 Networks and Their Basic Components

fac.ksu.edu.sa/wdahbour

CompTIA N +

Exam: N10-007

Chapter- 1

Networks and Their Basic Components

Eng. Walid Mahmoud Dahbour

King Saud University

Certified Professional Trainer (CPT)-(TTT)-(TOT)

CISCO Academy Instructor

Microsoft Academy Instructor

Cyber Security Trainer

MTA- MOS TrainerCompTIA Network+ Trainer

1


Chapter Topics

Objectives

• What is the purpose of a network?

• What are some examples of network components?

• How are networks defined by geography?

• How are networks defined by topology?

• How are networks defined by resource location?

2


Defining a Network

• A (computer) network is an interconnection of two or more computing devices.

• It can serve a variety of purposes including:

- File sharing between two computers

- Video chatting across different parts of the world

- Surfing the Web

- Instant messaging (IM) between computer with IM software installed.

- E-mail

- Voice over IP (VoIP)

- A converged network is one that transports multiple forms of traffic (video, voice, and

data)

3


Network Components: 1-1

4


Network Components

The network components are:

• The physical elements, or hardware such as a laptop, switch, router, wireless access point, the

cabling used to connect the devices, … etc.

• The services,called software, that provide information in responseto a request like email hosting

services and web hosting services.

5


Physical Components of the Network:

• End Devices or Hosts: These devices form the interface between users and the underlying

communication network. Examples of end devices are Computers (work stations, laptops, file

servers, web servers), Network printers, VoIP phones, Mobile handheld devices, and … etc.

– A host device is either the source or destination of a message transmitted over the network.

• Intermediary Network Devices: Intermediary devices connect the individual hosts to the

network and can connect multiple individual networks to form an internetwork. Examples of

intermediary devices are switches, wireless access points, routers, firewalls, and … etc.

– These devices use the destination host address to determine the path that messages should take

through the network.

• Network Media: The medium provides the channel over which the message travels from

source to destination. The three types of media are Copper, Fiber Optic, and Wireless.

6


Network Representations:

7


Network Interfaces Card (NIC):

• NIC: is a device installed in a computer, printer, or any other network component

so they can be connected to a network.

8


Network Components

•Client: The term client defines the device an end user uses to access a network.

9


Network Components

•Server: A server provides resources to a network. (Email, Web pages, or files)

10


Hub:

• is a device that contains multiple ports to connect multiple computers or network

devices to each other. When a computer transmit data through a hub, the hub will

broadcast the data to all other computers attached to it.

Broadcast: the data are sent to every device on a network.

11


Switch:

• Switch: is a device that contains multiple ports to connect multiple

computers or network devices to each other. Unlike hub, switch can

send the data to only the destined computer.

12


Bridge:

• Bridge: we can say that the bridge is the old version of the switch, where the

bridge works almost like the switch.

13


Router:

• Router: is a device whose primary purpose is to connect two or more networks and determine the next

network point to which the data should be forwarded toward its destination.

14


Wireless Access Point (WAP)

15


Media:

16


Wide Area Network (WAN) Links

17


Network Resources: 1-2

18


Network Resources

19


Network Resources

20


Network Resources

21


Network Resources

22


Network Resources

23


Network Resources

24


Network Geography: 1-3

25


Network Geography

26


Network Geography

27


Network Geography

28


Network Geography

29


Network Geography

30


Network Geography

31


Wired Network Topology: 1-4

32


Wired Network Topology

33



34



35



36



37



38



Simulation of Network Topology

39

Network-Topology.exe


Wireless Network Topology: 1-5

40


Wireless Network Topology

41



42



43


Internet of Things (IoT): 1-6

44


Internet of Things (IoT)

45


IoT Technologies

46


IoT Technologies

47


Chapter 1- Questions:

48


Question#1:

In a standard Cisco network diagram, what component does the symbol in the

figure represent?

A. A hub

B. A switch

C. A router

D. A gateway

49


Question#2:

Many network diagrams use Cisco symbols to illustrate the locations and

relationships between network components. Cisco symbols are standardized

pictographs that illustrate the basic function of a network component. In a

network diagram that uses Cisco symbols, what component does the symbol in the

figure represent?

A. A hub

B. A switch

C. A router

D. A gateway

50


Question#3:

Can two connected computers be considered a network?

A. Yes.

B. No.

51


Question#4:

The internet is what type of networks?

A. PAN.

B. LAN.

C. WAN.

D. CAN.

52


Question#5:

_____ Area network covers a large geographical area

A. Local.

B. Metropolitan.

C. Wide.

D. Web.

53


Question#6:

Every NIC has a unique serial number called a...

A. WAN

B. MAC address

C. IP address

54


Question#7:

MAC stands for …………

Media Access Control

55


Question#8:

A NIC is...

A. A computer card that offers dedicated full time access to the network.

B. A computer card that offers as needed access to the internet.

C. A computer card that offers a modem connection.

56


Question#9:

NIC stands for …………

Network Interface Card

57


Question#10:

A Firewall considered as:

A. End Device.

B. Intermediary Device.

C. Network Media.

58


Question#11:

In computer networking, the term "Collision" refers to a situation in which two or

more demands are made simultaneously on an equipment that can handle only

one request at any given moment.

A. True.

B. False.

59


Question#12:

Which of the following network topologies is most commonly used in

contemporary Ethernet LANs?

A. Bus topology

B. Star topology

C. Ring topology

D. Mesh topology

60


Question#13:

A network topology in which each node connects to exactly two other nodes is

referred to as:

A. Partial mesh topology

B. Ring topology

C. Full mesh topology

D. Star topology

61


Question#14:

A network topology in which each node has a direct physical connection to every

other node is known as:

A. Star

B. Partial mesh

C. Bus

D. Full mesh

E. Ring

62


Question#15:

Which type of network topology provides the highest level of redundancy?

A. Star

B. Bus

C. Mesh

D. Ring

63


Question#16:

Which of the following answers lists the number of connections in a full mesh

network consisting of 10 nodes?

A. 21

B. 28

C. 36

D. 45

64


Question#17:

In which type of network topology, the main network cable becomes a single point

of failure?

A. Star

B. Full mesh

C. Bus

D. Partial mesh

65


Question#18:

A network connecting computers within a small geographical area such as a

building or group of buildings is known as:

A. PAN

B. LAN

C. MAN

D. WAN

66


Question#19:

A type of network consisting of computers and peripheral devices that use high-

frequency radio waves to communicate with each other is called:

A. MAN

B. WLAN

C. LAN

D. VLAN

67


Question#20:

A computer network connecting multiple LANs over an area of a city or campus is

referred to as:

A. PAN

B. LAN

C. MAN

D. WAN

68


Question#21:

In terms of size and reach, a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) can be placed

between a LAN (smaller type of network) and a WAN (larger type of network).

A. True

B. False

69


Question#22:

A computer network connecting multiple smaller networks over very large

geographical areas is known as:

A. PAN

B. LAN

C. MAN

D. WAN

70


Question#23:

The Internet is an example of a large public WAN.

A. True

B. False

71


Question#24:

A wireless networking topology in which client devices communicate directly with

each other without the use of a controlling Access Point (AP) is called:

A. IEEE 802.3af

B. Star topology

C. Ad hoc mode

D. IEEE 802.3at

E. Infrastructure mode

72


Question#25:

A wireless networking topology consisting of at least one Access Point (AP) is

referred to as:

A. IEEE 802.3af

B. Star topology

C. Ad hoc mode

D. IEEE 802.3at

E. Infrastructure mode

73


Question#26:

Which of the answers listed below refers to a wireless protocol designed to

provide communication between appliances in a home automation network?

A. FCoE

B. SDN

C. Z-Wave

D. SIEM

74


Question#27:

An emerging field of new technologies, such as wearable tech or home

automation is known as:

A. SoC

B. NFC

C. IoT

D. ESN

75


Question#28:

A type of limited-range computer network used for data transmission among

various types of personal devices is generally referred to as:

A. PAN

B. LAN

C. SAN

D. MAN

76


Question#29:

A dedicated local network consisting of devices providing data access is called:

A. PAN

B. CAN

C. SAN

D. MAN

77


Question#30:

Which of the following answers refers to a wireless connectivity technology used

for monitoring sensor data collected from low-powered sports and fitness

equipment?

A. CAN

B. WTLS

C. UAV

D. ANT+

78


Question#31:

A popular, short-range wireless technology used for connecting various personal

devices in a WPAN is called:

A. 802.11

B. NFC

C. Bluetooth

D. Z-Wave

79


Question#32:

Which of the answers listed below refers to a short distance, line-of-sight

technology used for example in home remote controls?

A. NFC

B. 802.3

C. IR

D. Z-Wave

80


Question#33:

Which of the following wireless technologies enables identification and tracking of

tags attached to objects?

A. WAF

B. RFID

C. GPS

D. WTLS

81


Question#34:

Which type of technology enables contactless payment transactions?

A. NFC

B. SDN

C. PED

D. WAP

82


End of Chapter (1)

For more training, Practicing and online Exams, log on to https://www.comptia.org

83


CompTIA N +

Exam: N10-007

Chapter- 2

Open System Interconnection

(OSI Model)

Walid Mahmoud Dahbour







84


OSI Model Overview: 2-1

85


OSI Model Overview

86


Data Types in OSI Model

87


Purpose of Reference Model

88


OSI Layers

All People Seems To Need Data Processing

Please Do Not Throw Sausage Pizza Away

89


Data Types in OSI Model

90


The Physical Layer: 2-2

Layer (1)

91


Layer1- Physical Layer

92



How are bits represented on the medium?

93



How are the cables wired?

Straight ThroughCross Over Cable

Page (95)

94

أساسيات الشبكات.pdf



How are the cables connected?

95



How is communication synchronized?

96



How is bandwidth utilized?

, Telephone call

97



How can we get more out of a limited network?

(Bathroom)

98



Examples at Layer-1

Stupid Devices

99


The Data Link Layer: 2-3

Layer (2)

100


Layer 2- Data Link Layer

101



Media Access Control (MAC)

102



Logical Link Control (LLC)

103



Examples at Layer 2

• NICs

• Bridges.

• Switches.

104


The Network Layer: 2-4

Layer (3)

105


Layer 3- Network Layer

106



Logical Address

107



How Should data be forwarded or Routed?

108



Route Discovery and Selection

109



Connection Services

110



Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

111



Examples at Layer 3

112


The Transport Layer: 2-5

Layer (4)

113


Layer 4- Transport Layer

114



TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)

115



UDP (User Datagram Protocol)

116



Windowing

117



(TCP VS UDP)

118



Buffering

119



Examples at Layer- 4

120


The Session Layer: 2-6

Layer (5)

121


Layer 5- Session Layer

122



Setting up Session

123



Maintaining a Session

124



Examples at Layer 5

Face Time- SkypeWhich Operates over Real

Time Protocol (RTP) using Port 1720 over TCP.

125


The Presentation Layer: 2-7

Layer (6)

126


Layer 6- Presentation Layer

127



Data Formatting

128



Encryption

129



Examples at Layer 6

130


The Application Layer: 2-8

Layer (7)

131


Layer 7- Application Layer

132



Application Services

133



Service Advertisement

134



Examples at Layer 7

135



136


Question#1:

Which of the following reside at the physical layer of the OSI model? (Select 2 answers)

A. IP address

B. Switch

C. Bit

D. Router

E. Network cabling

F. Frame

137


Question#2:

The application layer of the OSI model is also known as:

A. Layer 1

B. Layer 3

C. Layer 6

D. Layer 7

138


Question#3:

What are the characteristic components of the OSI data link layer? (Select 3 answers)

A. MAC address

B. Packet

C. Switch

D. Network cabling

E. Router

F. Frame

139


Question#4:

Layer 5 of the OSI model is also referred to as:

A. Session layer

B. Application layer

C. Transport layer

D. Presentation layer

140


Question#5:

Which of the answers listed below refer to the components that can be found at

the OSI network layer? (Select 3 answers)

A. Router

B. Network cabling

C. IP address

D. TCP/UDP protocols

E. Switch

F. Packet

141


Question#6:

The term "Presentation layer" refers to:

A. Layer 7 of the OSI model

B. Layer 5 of the OSI model

C. Layer 6 of the OSI model

D. Layer 4 of the OSI model

142


Question#7:

Layer 2 of the OSI model is known as:

A. Transport layer

B. Network layer

C. Data link layer

D. Physical layer

143


Question#8:

Which of the following terms refers to the OSI network layer?

A. Layer 2

B. Layer 5

C. Layer 3

D. Layer 4

144


Question#9:

Which of the protocols listed below reside at the OSI transport layer? (Select 2 answers)

A. UDP

B. SSL/TLS

C. ICMP

D. TCP

E. ATM

145


Question#10:

Which OSI layer assumes the responsibility for managing network connections

between applications?

A. Network layer

B. Data link layer

C. Application layer

D. Session layer

146


Question#11:

Physical layer of the OSI model is also known as:

A. Layer 2

B. Layer 7

C. Layer 1

D. Layer 4

147


Question#12:

Layer 4 of the OSI model is also referred to as:

A. Network layer

B. Data link layer

C. Session Layer

D. Transport layer

148


Question#13:

Which of the following protocols reside at the application layer of the OSI model?(Select 3 answers)

A. ATM

B. HTTP

C. FTP

D. IP

E. SMTP

F. TCP/UDP

149


Question#14:

In telecommunications, Protocol Data Unit (PDU) is a term used for describing a specific unit of data passed across a network.

A. True

B. False

150


Question#15:

Which of the statements listed below is not true?

A. OSI physical layer PDU is the bit

B. OSI data link layer PDU is the frame

C. OSI network layer PDU is the packet

D. OSI transport layer PDU is the segment

E. PDUs between OSI session and application layers are referred to simply as the data

F. All of the above statements are true

151


Question#16:

Character encoding, data compression and encryption/decryption take place at the:

A. Application layer of the OSI model

B. Presentation layer of the OSI model

C. Session layer of the OSI model

D. Transport layer of the OSI model

152


Question#17:

A dedicated communication channel used exclusively between two connected hosts is a

characteristic feature of packet-switching networks.

A. True.

B. False.

153


Question#18:

Circuit-switching networks move data divided into small blocks over a shared connection.

A. True.

B. False.

154


Question#19:

The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model consists of:

A. 7 Layers.

B. 3 Layers.

C. 9 Layers.

D. 5 Layers.

155


Question#20:

In the OSI model, physical addressing takes place at the:

A. Data link layer

B. Layer 4

C. Physical layer

D. Session layer

156


Question#21:

What is the name of a data unit used at the OSI physical layer?

A. Frame

B. Segment

C. Bit

D. Packet

157


Question#22:

In the OSI model, Media Access Control (MAC) and Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayers are

the components of:

A. Session layer

B. Data link layer

C. Transport layer

D. Network layer

158


Question#23:

User Datagram Protocol (UDP) resides at: (Select 2 answers)

A. Transport layer

B. Layer 3

C. Layer 4

D. Network layer

E. Layer 6

F. Data link layer

159


Question#24:

Which OSI layer is responsible for breaking up data into segments?

A. Network layer

B. Transport layer

C. Presentation layer

D. Data link layer

160


Question#25:

Transport layer resides between which two other layers of the OSI model?

A. Network and Session

B. Presentation and Application

C. Physical and Network

D. Physical and Data link

161


Question#26:

Routers operate at: (Select 2 answers)

A. Physical layer of the OSI model

B. Application layer of the OSI model

C. Layer 3 of the OSI model

D. Network layer of the OSI model

E. Layer 5 of the OSI model

162


Question#27:

At which of the OSI layers IP addressing takes place?

A. Layer 3

B. Layer 1

C. Layer 4

D. Layer 6

163


Question#28:

Which of the following devices resides at the data link layer of the OSI model?

A. Router

B. Passive hub

C. Ethernet switch

D. Repeater

164


Question#29:

In the OSI model, Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) resides at: (Select 2 answers)

A. Transport layer

B. Layer 3

C. Application layer

D. Layer 4

E. Network layer

F. Layer 7

165


Question#30:

Which of following protocols reside(s) at the OSI network layer? (Select all that apply)

A. IPv4

B. UDP

C. IPsec

D. TCP

E. IPv6

F. ICMP

166


Question#31:

Which of the protocols listed below resides at the session layer of the OSI model?

A. HTTP

B. UDP

C. IP

D. SMTP

E. PPTP

167


Question#32:

Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) resides at:

A. Network layer of the OSI model

B. Transport layer of the OSI model

C. Session layer of the OSI model

D. Presentation layer of the OSI model

168


End of Chapter (2)


169


CompTIA N +

Exam: N10-007








Chapter- 3

TCP/ IP Model

170


TCP /IP Overview: 3-1

171


TCP/ IP Model Overview

172


OIS Model to TCP/IP Model

173


Network Interface (Layer-1)

174


Internet Layer (Layer- 2)

175


Transport Layer (Layer- 3)

176


Application Layer (Layer- 4)

177


Data Transfer Over Networks: 3-2

178


Ports:

179


Data Transfer

180


IPV4

181


Overhead of TCP and UDP

182


Ports and Protocols: 3-3

very important for the exam and should be memorized well

183


File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

Port (20, 21)

184


Secure Shell Protocol (SSH)

Port (22)

185


SSH File Transfer Protocol (SFTP)

Port (22)

186


Telnet Protocol

Port (23)

187


Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

Port (25)

RFC: Request For Comments

188


Domain Name Service (DNS)

Port (23)

189


Dynamic Host Control/ Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

Port (67, 68)

190


Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)

Port (69)

191


Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

Port (80)

192


Post Office Protocol V3 (POP3)

Port (110)

193


Network Time Protocol (NTP)

Port (123)

194


NetBIOS Protocol

Port (139)

195


Internet Mail Application (IMAP)

Port (143)

196


Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

Port (161)

197


Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

Port (389)

198


Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

Port (443)

199


Server Message Block (SMB)

Port (445)

200


Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Secure (LDAPS)

Port (636)

201


Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

Port (3389)

202


Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)

Port (5060, 5061)

203


Ports to Remember

204


Ports to Remember

205



206


Question#1:

TCP port 1720 is used by:

A. H.323

B. SMB

C. LDAPS

D. SNMP

207


Question#2:

A network administrator wants to secure the existing access to a directory service with

SSL/TLS encryption. Which of the following TCP ports needs to be opened to implement

this change?

A. 636

B. 389

C. 443

D. 1720

208


Question#3:

TCP port 389 is the default network port for:

A. RDP

B. LDAP

C. SMB

D. LDAPS

209


Question#4:

Which of the TCP port numbers listed below is assigned to the Internet Message Access

Protocol (IMAP)?

A. 143

B. 389

C. 443

D. 636

210


Question#5:

Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) uses:

A. TCP port 110

B. UDP port 123

C. TCP port 143

D. UDP port 161

211


Question#6:

Which of the following protocols runs on TCP port 445?

A. HTTPS

B. SMB/CIFS

C. IMAP

D. H.323

212


Question#7:

Which of the ports listed below are assigned to the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)?

(Select 2 answers)

A. UDP port 67

B. TCP port 5060

C. TCP port 389

D. UDP port 68

E. TCP port 5061

F. TCP port 3389

213


Question#8:

Network Time Protocol (NTP) runs on UDP port:

A. 123

B. 110

C. 161

D. 137

214


Question#9:

A network technician uses Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) client on their Windows OS

to remotely troubleshoot a problem on another Windows machine. Which of the

following ports needs to be opened for the built-in Windows RDP server to allow this

type of network connection?

A. TCP port 1720

B. TCP port 636

C. TCP port 3389

D. TCP port 445

215


Question#10:

SNMP runs on UDP port:

A. 123

B. 137

C. 143

D. 161

216


Question#11:

Which of the following ports is used by HTTPS?

A. TCP port 80

B. TCP port 443

C. UDP port 53

D. UDP port 53

217


Question#12:

TCP port 80 is assigned to:

A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

B. Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS)

C. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

D. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

218


Question#13:

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) runs on: (Select 2 answers)

A. UDP port 53

B. UDP port 67

C. UDP port 68

D. UDP port 69

E. UDP port 161

A. UDP port 53

B. UDP port 67

C. UDP port 68

D. UDP port 69

E. UDP port 161

219


Question#14:

Which of the TCP ports listed below is used by Telnet?

A. 20

B. 21

C. 22

D. 23

220


Question#15:

UDP port 69 is assigned to:

A. TFTP

B. SNMP

C. DHCP

D. LDAP

221


Question#16:

Which port enables the FTP's Data Connection for sending file data?

A. UDP port 20

B. TCP port 20

C. UDP port 21

D. TCP port 21

222


Question#17:

The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) Control Connection for administering a session is

established through:

A. UDP port 20

B. TCP port 20

C. UDP port 21

D. TCP port 21

223


Question#18:

Unblocking TCP port 22 enables what type of traffic? (Select 2 answers)

A. FTPS

B. SSH

C. SFTP

D. FTP

E. HTTP

224


Question#19:

Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is an extension to the Secure Shell protocol (SSH) and

runs by default on TCP port 22.

A. True

B. False

225


Question#20:

TCP port 25 is used by:

A. SNMP

B. Telnet

C. FTP

D. SMTP

226


Question#21:

Which of the following UDP ports is assigned to the Domain Name System (DNS)?

A. 53

B. 67

C. 110

D. 389

227


Question#22:

Secure Shell (SSH) protocol runs on:

A. TCP port 21

B. UDP port 22

C. TCP port 20

D. TCP port 22

228


End of Chapter (3)


229


CompTIA N +

Exam: N10-007








Chapter- 4

Media and Cabling Distribution

230


Media (Copper) : 4 -1

231


Copper Cables- Types of Media

232


Copper Cables- Coaxial Cable (Coax)

233


Copper Cables- Coaxial Cables

234


Copper Cables- Coaxial Connectors

235


Copper Cables- Twisted Pair Cables

236


Copper Cables-Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)

237


Copper Cables-shielded Twisted Pair (STP)

238


Twisted Pair Connectors

239


Twisted Pair Cable Throughput

240


Straight- Through Patch Cables

241


Crossover Cables

If Switch does not support MDIX, You have to use Straight Through Cable

242


Pinouts (568A/ 568B)

243


Plenum and Non- Plenum Cable

244


Media (Fiber) : 4 - 2

245


Fiber Optics Cables

246


Multimode Fiber (MMF)

247


Single- Mode Fiber (SMF)

248


Fiber Optics Connectors

(Stick and Click) (Stick and Twist)

(Usually used by Routers)

249


Specialized SC Connectors

250


Transceivers : 4 - 3

251


Fiber- Optic Advantages

252


Media Converters

253


Transceivers

254


Transceivers

255


Transceivers

256


Cable Distribution : 4- 4

257


Cable Distribution System

MDF:Main Distribution Frame

IDF:Intermediate Distribution Frame

258


Punch Down Blocks

259


Patch Panels (Copper)

260


Patch Panels (Fiber)

261


Example of Cable Distribution

(Typical Copper Cable Installation)

262



263


Question#1:

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to UTP cabling? (Select all that apply)

A. Twisted-pair copper cabling

B. Used in Ethernet networks and telephone systems

C. Low cost and ease of installation

D. Takes advantage of additional protective cover reducing signal interference from outside sources

E. Coaxial cabling

F. Not surrounded by any shielding that would provide protection against interference from outside sources

G. Fiber-optic cabling

H. In Ethernet networks, installed with RJ-45 connector type

264


Question#2:

The main difference between the UTP and STP cabling is that the UTP cable takes advantage

of additional protective cover reducing signal interference from outside sources.

A. True.

B. False

265


Question#3:

Examples of copper cabling types used in Ethernet networks include: (Select all that apply)

A. STP

B. Multimode

C. UTP

D. Single-mode

E. Coax

266


Question#4:

Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristics of multimode fiber optics?

(Select 3 answers)

A. Uses laser as the source of light

B. Transmission distances of up to 2 km

C. More expensive than single-mode fiber optics

D. Transmission distances of up to 100 km

E. Less expensive than single-mode fiber optics

F. Uses LED as the source of light

267


Question#5:

What are the characteristic traits of single-mode fiber optics? (Select 3 answers)

A. Transmission distances of up to 2 km

B. More expensive than multimode fiber optics

C. Uses LED as the source of light

D. Transmission distances of up to 100 km

E. Uses laser as the source of light

F. Less expensive than multimode fiber optics

268


Question#6:

A special type of cabling with fire-retardant jacket placed inside the space between

structural floor and dropped ceiling or inside walls is known as a plenum-rated cabling.

A. True

B. False

269


Question#7:

Plenum-rated cabling features a fire-retardant jacket made of polyvinyl chloride (PVC).

A. True

B. False

270


Question#8:

Which of the following answers refers to a connector type not used with copper cabling?

A. RJ-11/RJ-45

B. BNC

C. MT-RJ

D. DB-9/DB-25

E. F-Connector

271


Question#9:

What are the characteristic features of the RJ-45 connector? (Select 2 answers)

A. Used with telephone cabling

B. Coaxial cabling connector

C. Used with Ethernet network cabling

D. Copper cabling connector

E. Fiber-optic cabling connector

272


Question#10:

Which of the answers listed below refer to the RJ-11 connector? (Select 2 answers)

A. Used with telephone cabling

B. Copper cabling connector

C. Used with Ethernet network cabling

D. Fiber-optic cabling connector

E. Coaxial cabling connector

273


Question#11:

Bayonet Neill–Concelman (BNC) connector is used with:


B. Single-mode fiber-optic cabling

C. Coaxial copper cabling

D. Multimode fiber-optic cabling

274


Question#12:

Which of the following connector types are used for RS-232 serial communications?(Select 2 answers)

A. DB-9

B. RG-59

C. RJ-45

D. DB-25

E. RG-6

F. RJ-11

275


Question#13:

A type of coaxial connector commonly used for cable television and cable modems is called:

A. RG-6

B. F-Connector

C. DB-9

D. MT-RJ

276


Question#14:

Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to example(s) of fiber-optic connectors(Select all that apply)

A. LC

B. DB-25

C. ST

D. SC

E. MT-RJ

F. RG-6

277


Question#15:

Which of the following answers refers to a modular network device designed to provide a seamless link between different types of network interfaces (e.g. copper and fiber, or vice versa)?

A. Bridge

B. Transceiver

C. Active hub

D. Managed switch

278


Question#16:

What are the characteristic traits of GBIC? (Select all that apply)

A. Data transfer of 10 Gbps

B. Modular (hot swappable) interface

C. Converts optical signals to electrical signals

D. Fixed physical interface

E. Converts electrical signals to optical signals

F. Data transfer of 1 Gbps

279


Question#17:

Which of the following answers refers to a fiber transceiver equipped with the capability to

transmit and receive signals over a single fiber strand?

A. Simplex

B. Bidirectional

C. Half duplex

D. Unidirectional

280


Question#18:

The 66 block (older type/primarily used in analog telephone systems) and the 110 block

(newer type/used in computer networks) are examples of punch-down blocks used for

connecting sets of wires.

A. True

B. False

281


Question#19:

A simple device consisting of multiple connector blocks and ports used for cable

management is known as:

A. Media converter

B. Demarc

C. Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

D. Patch panel

282


Question#20:

What is the typical cable segment length for a copper twisted-pair Ethernet cable?

A. 33 meters

B. 55 meters

C. 100 meters

D. 250 meters

283


Question#21:

Category 3 (Cat 3) cable is a 10 Mbps twisted-pair copper cable used in telephone wiring and

older Ethernet (10BaseT) networks

A. True

B. False

284


Question#22:Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristic feature(s) of Category 5

(Cat 5) cabling? (Select all that apply)

A. Coaxial cabling

B. 100 Mbps transfer rate over 2 pairs of cables (100BaseT networks)

C. F-type connector

D. 55-meter cable segment length

E. 1 Gbps transfer rate over all 4 pairs of cables (1000BaseT networks)

F. BNC connector

G. 100-meter cable segment length

H. 10 Gbps transfer rate over all 4 pairs of cables (10GBaseT networks)

I. Twisted-pair copper cabling

J. RJ-45 connector

K. Fiber-optic cabling

285


Question#23:Which of the following answers refers to the minimum requirement for twisted-pair copper

cabling in modern Ethernet networks?

A. Cat 3

B. Cat 5

C. Cat 5e

D. Cat 6

E. Cat 6A

286


Question#24:Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristic feature(s) of Category 5e

(Cat 5e) cabling? (Select all that apply)

A. BNC connector

B. 100-meter cable segment length

C. Coaxial cabling

D. Twisted-pair copper cabling

E. Fiber-optic cabling

F. 1 Gbps transfer rate over 2 pairs of cables (1000BaseT networks)

G. RJ-45 connector

H. 55-meter cable segment length

I. 1 Gbps transfer rate over 4 pairs of cables (1000BaseT networks)

J. F-type connector

287


Question#25:

Which of the following answers refer to the RG-6 cabling specification? (Select 3 answers)


B. Suitable for short-distance cable runs

C. Used for analog video and CCTV installations

D. Coaxial cabling

E. Suitable for long-distance cable runs

F. Used for cable television, satellite television and cable modems

288


Question#26:

What are the characteristics of the RG-59 cabling specification? (Select 3 answers)

A. Coaxial cabling

B. Suitable for short-distance cable runs

C. Used for analog video and CCTV installations

D. Twisted-pair copper cabling

E. Suitable for long-distance cable runs

F. Used for cable television, satellite television and cable modems

289


Question#27:

Which of the answers listed below refer to copper cabling termination specifications? (Select 2 answers)

A. TIA/EIA 568a

B. IEEE 802.3ab

C. TIA/EIA 568b

D. IEEE 802.3af

290


Question#28:

What type of Ethernet cable would be used for establishing a direct communication link

between two PCs?

A. Patch cable

B. Crossover cable

C. Rollover cable

D. Straight-through cable

291


Question#29:

Which of the following answers refer to common cabling type used for connecting

workstations to network devices? (Select 2 answers)

A. Patch cable

B. RG-59 cable

C. Crossover cable

D. RG-6 cable

E. Straight-through cable

292


Question#30:

An Ethernet straight-through cable is also commonly referred to as:

A. Rollover cable

B. Crossover cable

C. Patch cable

D. Yost cable

293


Question#31:

A type of Ethernet interface that automatically detects the required cable connection type

(straight-through vs. crossover) and configures the connection appropriately is known as:

A. GBIC

B. Basic-Rate Interface (BRI)

C. UC gateway

D. Auto MDI-X

294


End of Chapter (4)


295


CompTIA N +

Exam: N10-007








Chapter- 5

Ethernet Fundamentals

296


Ethernet Fundamentals : 5 -1

297


Ethernet Fundamentals:

298


Origins of Ethernet:

299


How Should devices access the network:

300


Carrier Sense Multiple Access/ Collision Detection (CSMA/CD):

301


Example of CSMA/ CD:

302


Example of CSMA/ CD:

303


Collision Domain:

304


Collision Domains with Switches:

305


Speed Limitations:

Category

Cat-3

Cat-5

Cat-5e, cat-6

Cat-6a, Cat-7

Fiber Network

306


Network Infrastructure Devices: 5 - 2

307


Network Infrastructure:

308


Hub:

309


Collision Domains:

310


Bridges:

(One)Broadcast Domain

(Two)Collision Domains

311


Switches:

312


Layer-2 Switches:

4: Collision Domain

1: Broadcast Domain

313


How Switches Improve Network Performance:

314



315



316



317



318



319



320



321



322



323


Routers:

324


Routers:

325


Layer-3 Switches:

326


Summary of Network Infrastructure:

327


Additional Ethernet Switch Features : 5 - 3

328


Additional Ethernet Switch Features:

** VLANs, Trunking, and STP will be covered in other lessons **

329


Link Aggregation (802.3ad):

330


Link Aggregation (802.3ad):

331


Power Over Ethernet (PoE 802.3af, PoE+ 802.3at):

332


Port Monitoring or Mirroring:

333


User Authentication (802.1x):

334


User Authentication (802.1x):

335


Management Access and Authentication:

336


First- Hop Redundancy

337


MAC Filtering:

338


Traffic Filtering:

339


Quality of Service (QoS):

** Quality of Service (QoS) will be covered in other lessons **

340


Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN): 5- 4

341


VLAN:

342


Before VLANs:

343


Using VLANs:

344


VLAN Trunking (802.1q):

345


VLAN Trunking (802.1q):

346


Specialized Network Devices: 5- 5

VPN concentrators

FirewallsDNS Server

DHCP Server

Proxy Server

Content Engines

and Switches

347


Specialized Network Devices:

348


VPN Concentrator:

349


Firewalls:

350


Next- Generation Firewall (NGFW):

351


Intrusion Detection or Intrusion Prevention System (IDS/IPS):

352


Domain Name System (DNS):

Who is https://www.google.com?

216.239.38.120

353


Fully- Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)

(Service.Name.Top Level Domain)

yahoo

Service: www, mail, ftp

Name: yahoo, Google, Amazon

Top Level Domain: .com, .mil, .edu

FQDN Example:

www.yahoo.com

FQDN Structure

1 2 3

1 2 3

354


Uniform Resource Locator (URL):

yahoo

• The URL contains the FQDN with method of accessing

information (Secured (https://) or not Secured (http://).

https://www.yahoo.com

355


Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP):

356


Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP):

D.O.R.A

357


Proxy Server:

358


Content Switches:

Exp:Requests comes to

AMAZON

359



360


Question#1:

Which device improves network performance by dividing a given network segment

into separate collision domains?

A. Hub

B. Repeater

C. Switch

D. Router

361


Question#2:

Which of the devices listed below is used for separating broadcast domains?

A. Hub

B. Repeater

C. Switch

D. Router

362


Question#3:

The purpose of the Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA) protocol is to verify the

absence of other traffic on a shared medium before transmitting to prevent

collisions and loss of data.

A. True

B. False.

363


Question#4:

Which of the following allows for verifying the absence of traffic on a shared

transmission medium in 802.3 networks?

A. CDMA

B. CSMA/CA

C. CWDM

D. CSMA/CD

364


Question#5:

Which of the terms listed below refers to a logical grouping of computers that

allow computer hosts to act as if they were attached to the same broadcast

domain regardless of their physical location?

A. VLAN

B. DNS

C. SNMP community

D. VPN

365


Question#6:

A network segment utilizing only this type of device is the most prone to network

performance degradation due to large number of network collisions.

A. Bridge

B. Hub

C. Switch

D. Router

366


Question#7:

In computer networking, the term "Collision" refers to a situation in which two or

more demands are made simultaneously on an equipment that can handle only

one request at any given moment.

A. True.

B. False.

367


Question#8:

Which of the following standards implements PoE+?

A. IEEE 802.1d

B. IEEE 802.3at

C. IEEE 802.1X

D. IEEE 802.3ab

368


Question#9:

A solution that allows to supply electricity over standard Ethernet cables is known

as: (Select 2 answers)

A. IEEE 802.3ab

B. PoE

C. IEEE Metro-Ethernet

D. IEEE 802.3af

E. PSTN

369


Question#10:

Which of the following allows an administrator to inspect the traffic passing

through a network switch?

A. Port mirroring

B. VLAN tagging

C. Fault-tolerant mode

D. Port scanning

370


Question#11:

To allow traffic from multiple VLANs on a single communication link, frames from

individual VLANs must be identified. The most common and preferred method, IEEE

802.1Q, adds a tag to the Ethernet frame header, labeling it as belonging to a certain

VLAN.

A. True

B. False

371


Question#12:

A type of port assigned to carry traffic from all the VLANs connected to a specific network

switch is known as:

A. Default gateway

B. Trunk port

C. Registered port

D. Mirrored port

372


Question#13:

An Ethernet switch forwards LAN traffic from connected devices based on the information

stored in:

A. DNS table

B. Routing table

C. MAC address table

D. All of the Above.

373


Question#14:

An Ethernet switch table containing IP-to-MAC address mappings is called:

A. ARP table

B. Routing table

C. MAC address table

D. DNS table

374


End of Chapter (5)


375


CompTIA N +

Exam: N10-007








Chapter- 6

Virtualization and Cloud Computing

376


Virtual Network Devices : 6 -1

377


Virtual Network Devices:

378


Virtual Servers:

379


Hypervisor:

- Examples:

1. VMWare ESXi

2. Microsoft Hyper-V

3. Virtual Box

4. VMWare Workstation

380


Voice Over IP (VoIP): 6 - 2

381


Voice over IP (VoIP):

382


How does VoIP work? (VoIP Topology):

12

34

5- Request sent by using

(SIP).

- The call established by

a Real Time Protocol

(RTP)

383


Virtual Private Branch Exchange (PBX) and VoIP:

384


Cloud Computing: 6 - 3

385


What is Cloud Computing:

• Cloud Computing is a Paradigm that allows On-Demand Network Access to

shared computing resources.

• A modeling for Managing, Storing, and Processing Data online Via the

Internet

386


Major Types of Cloud Computing:

• Most clouds are mixture of Virtualization technologies, To deal with cloud

computing there are 3 major ways:

• Private Cloud

- Systems and users only have access with other devices inside the same

private cloud or system.

• Public Cloud

- Systems and users interact with devices on public networks, such as the

internet and other clouds.

• Hybrid Cloud

- Combination of private and public clouds.

387


Models of Cloud Computing:

(IaaS)

388


Network as a Service (NaaS):

Virtual Routers,

Virtual Switches

and Virtual

Firewalls.

389


Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS):

System/ IT

Administrators390


Software as a Service (SaaS):

End Users

391


Platform as a Service (PaaS):

Developers

• Developers can create and control

their applications.

392



393


Question#1:

Your employer has a large team of developers that focus on developing an important set

of internal business applications. In an effort to speed up time to market of bugfixes and

new features you have been asked to find a developer focused cloud platform. What type

of cloud computing model has a focus on software development?

A. SaaS

B. IaaS

C. NaaS

D. PaaS

394


Question#2:

Your CIO has asked you to investigate cloud computing vendors. You have been tasked to

find vendors that offer virtual servers on demand and allow administrative access to the

servers so they can be configured with your employer's software as needed. Which cloud

model is your CIO looking for?

A. SaaS

B. IaaS

C. NaaS

D. PaaS

395


Question#3:

Which of the following options is synonymous with the term Hypervisor?

A. gSphere

B. Sandbox

C. Virtual Machine Monitor (VMM)

D. Hyper Host Manager (HHM)

396


Question#4:

In a virtualized environment, what technology is used to run the virtual machines?

A. Virtual Host Machine (VHM)

B. vHost

C. Sandbox

D. Hypervisor

397


Question#5:

It is not possible to install a server operating system in a hypervisor running on a desktop

operating system

A. True

B. False

398


Question#6:

Many hypervisors require special CPU features.

A. True

B. False

399


Question#7:

You are the only IT employee for a small startup. You need to provide email address to all

employees at the startup as soon as possible and with minimal effort. What type of cloud

model is best suited to this situation?

A. SaaS

B. IaaS

C. NaaS

D. PaaS

400


Question#8:

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using Cloud Infrastructure?

A. Pay-as-you-go model requires a lower upfront investment for large amounts of infrastructure

B. Cloud Infrastructure provides elasticity and rapid scalability based on demand

C. The Cloud Provider will handle security on your behalf

D. Cloud Providers offer simple to use versions of complex technology that usually requires specialized technicians

401


Question#9:

“Users only have access with other devices inside the same cloud network”, This is a:

• Private Cloud

• Public Cloud

• Hybrid Cloud

402


End of Chapter (6)


403


CompTIA N +

Exam: N10-007








Chapter- 7

Wireless Networks

404


Wireless Networking (WLAN) : 7 -1

405


Wireless Networks (WLANs)

406


Wireless Networks (WLANs)

407


Ad Hoc:

408


Infrastructure:

409


Wireless Access Point (AP or WAP):

410


Wireless Router:

411


WLAN Service Sets : 7 - 2

412


Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)

Contains only devices/clients with no Aps.

(AD-HOC WLAN)

413


Basic Service Set (BSS):

Only one AP connected to the network.

Exp: Small Office - Home Office (SOHO).

414


Extended Service Set (ESS):

Contains Multiple Aps to provide coverage.

Exp: College Campus.

415


Mesh Topology:

416


AP Placement

417


AP Placement (2.4 Ghz):

418


AP Placement (5 Ghz):

419


Wireless Range Extenders:

Receiver

Transmitter

420


Wireless Antennas: 7 - 3

421


Antennas:

422


Omnidirectional Antenna:

• These Antennas comes built in with the wireless routers or access points.

• The best place to place the Access Point is at the center of the room.

• The Signal Radiate Power goes equally in all Directions.

423


Unidirectional Antenna:

• Uni: Means (ONE).

• All the power focuses in one particular direction.

• The most common unidirectional Antenna is (YAGI) Antenna

• YAGI Antenna connects 2 building or site in a long distance.

• The 2 YAGI Antennas points to each other to establish a connection.

424


Wireless Frequencies: 7 - 3

425


Frequencies and Channels:

426


Multiple Input Multiple Output (MIMO):

In radio, multiple-input and multiple-output, or MIMO, is a method for multiplying the

capacity of a radio link using multiple transmission and receiving antennas to exploit

multipath propagation.

427


Multi User Multiple Input Multiple Output (MU-MMO):

Multi-user MIMO is a set of multiple-input and multiple-output technologies for

wireless communication, in which a set of users or wireless terminals, each with

one or more antennas, communicate with each other.

428


802.11 Wireless Standards:

Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO)

Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)

429


Radio Frequency Interference (RFI):

430


Carrier Sense Multiple Access/ Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)

431


Wireless Security: 7 - 5

432


Wireless Security:

433


Pre- Shared Key:

434


Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)

435


WI-FI Protected Access (WPA):

It needsPre-Shared Key

(PSK)in personal

usage

436


WI-FI Protected Access 2 (WPA2):

It needs Pre-Shared Key

(PSK)in personal

usage

437


Network Authentication (802.1x)

438


MAC Address Filtering:

439


Network Admission Control (NAC):

440


Captive Portals:

441


Geofencing:

442


Disable SSID Broadcast:

443



444


Question#1:

A solution that allows to control access to a shared transmission medium in

802.11 networks is known as:

A. CWDM

B. CSMA/CD

C. CDMA

D. CSMA/CA

445


Question#2:

Which IEEE standard provides the implementation basis for most modern WLANs?

A. IEEE 802.11

B. IEEE 802.1x

C. IEEE 802.3

D. IEEE 802.1q

446


Question#3:

Which of the answers listed below refer to the characteristic features of the IEEE

802.11a wireless standard? (Select 3 answers)

A. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps

B. 5.0 GHz frequency band

C. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method

D. 2.4 GHz frequency band

E. Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps

F. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method

447


Question#4:

Which of the following answers refer to the IEEE 802.11b wireless standard?

(Select 3 answers)

A. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps





F. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method

448


Question#5:

What are the characteristics of the IEEE 802.11g wireless standard?

(Select 3 answers)

A. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method

B. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps




F. 5.0 GHz frequency range

449


Question#6:The characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11n wireless standard include:

(Select all that apply)

A. Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO)

B. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps

C. 2.4 GHz frequency band

D. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method

E. 5.0 GHz frequency band

F. Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)

G. Maximum data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps

H. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method

450


Question#7:Which of the following answers refers(s) to the feature(s) of the IEEE 802.11ac

wireless standard? (Select all that apply)

A. Data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps


C. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) network access method

D. Maximum data signaling rate of up to 6.77 Gbps

E. Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method

F. Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)

G. 2.4 GHz frequency band

451


Question#8:

Frequency band used by 802.11 networks include:

A. 5.0 GHz

B. 5.4 GHz

C. 2.0 GHz

D. 2.4 GHz

452


Question#9:

Setting up a wireless network to operate on a non-overlapping channel allows

multiple networks to coexist in the same area without causing interference.

A. True

B. False

453


Question#10:

Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO) is a wireless technology that allows for

significant increase in data throughput due to the use of multiple antennas and

multiple data streams.

A. True

B. False

454


Question#11:

Which of the answers listed below refer to highly directional antenna type used

for long-range point-to-point bridging links? (Select 2 answers)

A. Yagi antenna

B. Omnidirectional antenna

C. Dish antenna

D. Non-directional antenna

E. Dipole antenna

455


Question#12:

A security protocol designed to strengthen existing WEP implementations without

requiring the replacement of legacy hardware is called:

A. PEAP

B. TKIP

C. CCMP

D. WPA2

456


Question#13:

What is the name of an AES-based encryption mode implemented in WPA2?

A. CCMP

B. ECB

C. CBC

D. TKIP

457


Question#14:

Which of the answers listed below refers to an encryption algorithm used in TKIP?

A. RC4

B. RSA

C. CCMP

D. AES

458


Question#15:

Which of the following acronyms refers to a client authentication method used in

WPA/WPA2 Personal modes?

A. AES

B. PSK

C. RC4

D. IKE

459


Question#16:

A type of technology that provides control over the usage of a mobile device

within a designated area is referred to as:

A. Geofencing

B. Quarantine network

C. Geolocation

D. GPS tagging

460


Question#17:

Which of the choices listed below would allow for setting up three Wireless Access

Points (WAPs) on non-overlapping channels?

A. 1

B. 5

C. 6

D. 9

E. 11

461


Question#18:

A unique WLAN identifier is commonly referred to as:

A. EUI

B. SSID

C. OUI

D. CNAME

462


Question#19:

Disabling SSID broadcast : (Select 2 answers)

A. Is one of the measures used in the process of securing wireless networks

B. Makes a WLAN harder to discover

C. Blocks access to a WAP

D. Prevents wireless clients from accessing the network

463


End of Chapter (7)


464


CompTIA N +

Exam: N10-007








Chapter- 8

IP Addressing

465


IPv4 Addressing : 8 -1

466


Internet Protocol Version 4 (IPv4) Addressing:

467


IPv4 Addressing:

468


Classes of IP Addresses:

469


Routable IPs:

470


Private IPs:

471


Specialized IPs:

472


Identifying Networks and Hosts in IPv4 :

473


IPv4 Data Flows : 8 - 2

474


Data Flows Types:

223- 239Multicast

Range:

475


Unicast Data Flow:

Data travels from a single source device to a single destination device

476


Multicast Data Flow:

Data travels from a single source device to a Multiple (but specific)

destination devices

477


Broadcast Data Flow:

Data travels from a single source device to all devices on a

destination network

478


Assigning IP Addresses: 8 - 3

479


Assigning IP Addresses::

480


Components on an IP Address:

481


Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) Configuration:

482


Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) Configuration:

483


Automatic Private IP Address (APIPA):

484


Computer Mathematics : 8 - 4

485


Computer Mathematics:

486


Converting Binary to Decimal:

487



488



489


Converting Decimal to Binary :

490


Computer Mathematics Practice: 8 - 5

491



492



493



494



495



496



497


Subnetting: 8 - 6

498


Subnetting:

499


Purpose of Subnets:

500


Subnet Masks:

Classful Subnets

501


Subnetting Formulas:

502


Classful VS Subnetted Networks:

503


Calculating Number of Subnets:

504


Calculating Number of IPs:

505


Listing Subnets:

506


Subnetting Tip:

507


Subnetting Practice: 8 - 7

508


Subnetting Practice – 1:

- How many assignable IP addressesexist in a network 172.16.1.0/27?

301.

322.

143.

644.

509



- How many assignable IP addressesexist in a network 192.168.1.0/28?

301.

162.

143.

644.

510


Subnetting Practice – 3:You are a network administrator for a company, The company decided to open a

new departments in its new branch, You will need to subnet the private IP address

range given to you into several smaller networks to serve each department.

The new office location has been assigned the range of 10.10.10.0/24

When you setup the network, You need to configure separate subnets for each

department in the new offices. You should allocate the addressing using CIDR

notation and prove each department the minimum number of IP addresses that

will meet their needs.

The new departments have the following number of users shown in the table

Number of usersDepartment name

54IT

32Instructors

5Sales

3Administrative

------Unused

511



- First, We round up our department number to the next highest multiple of 2.Remember, the numbers provided are for the users (computers), we still need to add 2IPs (one for the Network and the other for the broadcast).

- IT: 54+2 = 56 Now, Round (56) to the nearest multiple of (2) (64)- Instructors: 32+2 = 34 Now, Round (34) to the nearest multiple of (2) (64)- Sales: 5+2 = 7 Now, Round (7) to the nearest multiple of (2) (8)- Administrative: 3+2 = 5 Now, Round (5) to the nearest multiple of (2) (8)- Unused: 256-64-64-8-8 = 112 Now, Round down (112) because it is Unused to the

nearest multiple of (2) (64) Unused IPs.

- The New Subnets CIDR are:

- IT= / 26- Instructors= / 26- Sales= / 29- Administrative= /29- Unused= / 26

Number of users

Departmentname

54IT

32Instructors

5Sales

3Administrative

------Unused

Since you have a CIDR of (10.10.10.0/24), Which means you have 256 IP to work with.

512


IPv6 Addresses: 8 - 8

513


Internet Protocol version 6 (IPV 6):

514


IPv 6 Benefits:

515


Headers (IPv 4 and IPv 6):

Headers IPV 4

Headers IPV 6

516


IPv 6 Address Structure:

2018:0:0:0000:0:000:4815:54ae

2018::4815:54ae

Consecutive groups of 0’s can be

summarized as ::

201b:5c86:11d1:456e:3456:abc0:ddea:12ab

517


IPv 6 Address Types:

518


Do we need DHCP for IPv6?

519



520


Question#1:

A networked host with unknown address can be reached via:

A. Unicast

B. Multicast

C. Broadcast

521


Question#2:

A type of network traffic intended for a particular group of hosts is called:

A. Unicast

B. Multicast

C. Broadcast

522


Question#3:

A type of network traffic intended for a single host identified by a unique IP address is referred to as:

A. Unicast

B. Multicast

C. Broadcast

523


Question#4:

An IPv4 address consists of:

A. 32 bits

B. 48 bits

C. 64 bits

D. 128 bits

524


Question#5:

Which of the answers listed below refers to a binary representation of the decimal

number 192?

A. 10101100

B. 11000000

C. 01100010

D. 10101010

525


Question#6:

IPv4 addresses are expressed with the use of:

A. Octagonal numbers

B. Binary numbers

C. Hexadecimal numbers

D. Decimal numbers

526


Question#7:

Which of the following answers lists a decimal notation of the binary number

10101100?

A. 168

B. 172

C. 192

D. 224

527


Question#8:

Which of the answers listed below refer to an IPv4 loopback address?

A. ::1

B. FE80::/10

C. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1

D. 169.254/16

E. 127.0.0.1

528


Question#9:

An IPv6 address consists of:

A. 32 bits

B. 48 bits

C. 64 bits

D. 128 bits

529


Question#10:

IPv6 addresses are expressed with the use of:

A. Octagonal numbers

B. Binary numbers

C. Hexadecimal numbers

D. Decimal numbers

530


Question#11:

A double colon in an IPv6 address indicates that part of the address containing

only zeros has been compressed to make the address shorter.

A. True

B. False

531


Question#12:

Which of the following answers refer to IPv6 loopback addresses?

(Select 2 answers)

A. 127.0.0.1

B. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1

C. 169.254/16

D. ::1

E. FE80::/10

532


Question#13:

Which of the answers listed below refers to an IPv6 link-local address?

A. 2002::/16

B. FE80::/10

C. 2001::/32

D. ::1/128

533


Question#14:

Which of the following answers lists a valid address of

FE80:00A7:0000:0000:02AA:0000:4C00:FE9A after compression?

A. FE80:00A7::2AA:0:4C:FE9A

B. FE80:A7::2AA::4C00:FE9A

C. FE80:00A7::2AA:0:4C00:FE9A

D. FE80:A7::2AA:0:4C00:FE9A

534


Question#15:

A limited IPv4-to-IPv6 transition mechanism that allows for encapsulation of IPv6 packets in

IPv4 packets transmitted over IPv4 networks is referred to as:

A. 6to4

B. 802.3af

C. eDiscovery

D. Miredo

535


Question#16:

The term "Dual-stack IP" refers to a solution that relies on implementing both IPv4 and IPv6

protocol stacks on various network devices to facilitate seamless migration from IPv4 to IPv6.

A. True

B. False

536


Question#17:

An IPv6 protocol performing the function of IPv4's Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is called:

A. NCP

B. NDP

C. NTP

D. NDR

537


Question#18:

Which IPv6 protocol is used by networked hosts to determine the link layer address of

adjacent nodes?

A. NCP

B. NDP

C. NTP

D. NDR

538


Question#19:

An IPv6 protocol used by routers to advertise their presence on a network is known as:

A. NCP

B. NDP

C. NTP

D. NDR

539


Question#20:

Which of the following answers refer to the characteristic features of the 10.0.0.0 -

10.255.255.255 (10.0.0.0/8) IPv4 address space? (Select 2 answers)

A. Class A range

B. Public IP address range

C. Class B range

D. Non-routable (private) IP address range

E. Class C range

540


Question#21:

Which of the answers listed below refer to the 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 (172.16.0.0/12)

IPv4 address space? (Select 2 answers)

A. Class A range


C. Class B range


E. Class C range

541


Question#22:

What are the characteristic features of the 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 (192.0.0.0/24) IPv4

address space? (Select 2 answers)

A. Class A range


C. Class B range


E. Class C range

542


Question#23:

Which of the following answers refers to an IPv4 address range used for loopback addresses?

A. 0.0.0.0 – 0.255.255.255 (0.0.0.0/8)

B. 127.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255 (127.0.0.0/8)

C. 169.254.0.0 – 169.254.255.255 (169.254.0.0/16)

D. 240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.254 (240.0.0.0/4)

543


Question#24:

Which of the answers listed below refers to an IPv4 address range reserved for future use?

A. 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 (10.0.0.0/8)

B. 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 (172.16.0.0/12)

C. 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 (192.0.0.0/24)

D. 240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.254 (240.0.0.0/4)

544


Question#25:

In a network using subnets, the term "Default gateway" refers to a network device (e.g.

router) that enables exchange of data between hosts residing in different subnets.

A. True

B. False

545


Question#26:

An IP address that doesn't correspond to any actual physical network interface is called a

virtual IP address (VIP/VIPA).

A. True

B. False

546


Question#27:

Which of the following allows to determine which network segment an IP address belongs to?

A. Physical address

B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

C. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

D. Subnet mask

547


Question#28:

In IPv4 addressing, the leading octet of an IP address with a value of 1 through 126 denotes

that the IP address within that range belongs to the:

A. Class A address space

B. Class B address space

C. Class C address space

D. Class D address space

548


Question#29:

Which of the answers listed below refers to an example of a valid subnet mask?

A. 255.255.225.0

B. 255.255.191.0

C. 255.255.127.0

D. 255.255.64.0

E. None of the above is a valid subnet mask

549


Question#30:

Which of the following answers lists the default (classful) subnet mask for a class A network?

A. 255.0.0.0

B. 255.128.0.0

C. 224.0.0.0

D. 255.224.0.0

550


Question#31:

What is the leading octet value range for an IPv4 address belonging to a class B network?

A. 128 - 191

B. 1 – 126

C. 192 – 223

D. 224 - 239

551


Question#32:

Which of the following answers refer to the IPv4 multicast address block? (Select 2 answers)

A. 128 – 191

B. Class B range

C. 192 – 223

D. Class C range

E. 224 – 239

F. Class D range

552


Question#33:

Which of the answers listed below refers to a solution that replaces the classful network

design?

A. VLAN

B. RSTP

C. SNAT

D. CIDR

553


Question#34:

Which of the following answers lists the CIDR notation of the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?

A. /25

B. /26

C. /27

D. /28

554


Question#35:

Which of the answers listed below refers to a permanent assignment of an IP address?

A. Static IP address

B. Private IP address

C. Dynamic IP address

D. Public IP address

555


End of Chapter (8)


556


CompTIA N +

Exam: N10-007








Chapter- 9

Routing

557


Routing Fundamentals : 9 -1

558


Routing Fundamentals:

559


Routing

• Routing: is the process of forwarding packets from network to network through best paths.

• Routing is a job done by special devices called routers. The routers decide how to forward a

packet based on its destination address, which is compared to information the router keeps in

special routing tables.

10.120.2.0 172.16.1.0

Routing

Table

Routing

Table

Routing

Table

Routing

Table

560


Basic Routing Process:

How does a Packet from a source IP address of 10.0.1.2(PC1) route to a destination IP of 10.0.2.2. (PC2)?

SW1 SW2

R1 R2

561



PC1 need to determine the MAC address of a router, So he sendsan ARP request, The Switch will receive an ARP request and sendan ARP reply to PC1, Then PC1 forwards data frame to router’sMAC address.

SW1 SW2

R1 R2

562



Router 1 Receives data frame from PC1 and look at the IPheader. Determines best path by looking at routing table, thenhe forwards a data frame via Serial 1/1.

SW1 SW2

R1 R2

563



Router 2 receives the data frame, it looks at IP header to determine a destination network,if it is on Router 2’s network, Router 2 sends ARP request to fined destination. Router 2 willreceive ARP reply from Switch 2, then forward data frame to (PC2’s) MAC address. If thedestination does not among Router 2 network, then it forwards it to next Router.

SW1 SW2

R1 R2

564


Routing Table

• Routing table: is a special table contains entries for each of the networks the router knows

about, telling the router which adjacent router the packet should be sent to in order for it to reach

its eventual destination.

565


Types of Networks in the Routing Table

• Directly connectednetworks: These networks are connected directly to the

router.

• Remote networks: These networks are connected to other routers.

566


Directly Connected Networks

• Directly connected Networks: After initial boot up and discovery, the routing

table is updated with all directly connected networks and the interfaces those

networks reside on. Routers add a directly connected route when an interface is

configured with an IP address and is activated.

Connected

Routes

567


Remote Networks

• RemoteNetworks: These are remotenetworks connected to other routers.

Remote and

Connected

Routes

568


Scenario

569


Cont. Directly connected Networks

570


Cont. Remote Networks

571


Routing Process

The router performs the following three major steps on a packet received:1. De-encapsulates the Layer 3 packet by removing the Layer 2 frame header and trailer.

2. Examines the destination IP address of the IP packet to find the best path in the

routing table.

3. Encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into a new Layer 2 frame and forwards the frame out the exit interface.

572


Types of Remote Routing

• Static routing: the network administrator manually constructs the routing table in every router by

putting in the entries for every network that could be a destination. Static routes to network

destinations are unchangeable.

• Dynamic routing: consists of routing tables that are built and maintained automatically through an

ongoing communication between routers. This communication is facilitated by a routing protocol.

– Routing protocols: protocols that used by a router to determine the appropriate path over which

data is transmitted. RIP, EIGRP, OSPF, IS-IS, and BGP are example of routing protocols

573

fac.ksu.edu.sa/wdahbour 574


Dynamic vs. Static Routing

575


Load Balancing

• When a router has two or more paths to a destination with equal cost metrics, then the router

forwards the packets using both paths equally. The routing table contains the single destination

network, but has multiple exit interfaces, one for each equal cost path.

• If configured correctly, load balancing can increase the effectiveness and performance of the

network. Equal cost load balancing can be configured to use both dynamic routing protocols and

static routes.

576


Routing Protocol Metrics

• There are cases when a routing protocol learns of more than one route to the same

destination.

• To select the best path, the routing protocol differentiate between the available paths through

the use of routing metrics.

• A metric is a measurable value that is assigned by the routing protocol to

different routes based on the usefulness of that route.

• Routing protocols determine the best path based on the route with the

lowest cost.

• Different routing protocols use different metrics. The metric used by one routing protocol is not

comparable to the metric used by another routing protocol.

• Examples of metrics are number of hops, delay, bandwidth, Load, reliability,

…etc.

577


Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

• The Routing Information Protocol (RIP), like all routing protocols, is designed

to disseminate network information pertinent to routers.

– RIP uses hop counts to calculate optimal routes (a hop is a router).

– Routing updates are broadcasted (255.255.255.255) full routing table

every 30 seconds.

578


RIP Routing Table

• In this network we have routers A, B and C.

• At the beginning (when a routing protocol is not turned on) there are only directly connected

networks in the routing tables of these routers.

Router A knows networks 1.0.0.0 & 2.0.0.0 with a metric of 0 Router B

knows networks 2.0.0.0 & 3.0.0.0 with a metric of 0 Router C knows

networks 3.0.0.0 & 4.0.0.0 with a metric of 0

579


RIP Routing Table Cont…

• Now we turn on RIP on these routers. Each router receives a routing table from its direct

neighbor. For example, Router B receives information from Router A about network 1 and 2. It

then adds a distance vector metric (such as the number of hops), increasing the distance

vector of these routes by 1.

580



• Router B also exchanges its routing table with Router A about network 2 and 3.

581



• Router B then passes the routing table to its other neighbor, Router C.

582



• Router C also sends its update to Router B and Router B sends it to Router A.

Now the network is converged

583


Scenario

584


Cont. Remote Networks (RIP)

Remote Networks

Load Balancing

585


Types of Routing Protocols:

RIPEIGRP

determines the best route for data packets based on the lowest number of hops

Distance-vector

OSPFcalculates the best path between source and destination nodes based on a map of network connectivity between nodes Link-state

BGPcombines the features of distance-vector and link-state routing protocols.Hybrid

manually-configured routing table entryStatic route

routing tables that are built and maintained automatically through an ongoing communication between routersDynamic route

586



587


Question#1:

Which of the answers listed below refers to a type of routing protocol that

determines the best route for data packets based on the lowest number of hops?

A. Hybrid

B. Link-state

C. Distance-vector

D. Dynamic

588


Question#2:

A type of routing protocol that calculates the best path between source and

destination nodes based on a map of network connectivity between nodes is

called:

A. Dynamic

B. Link-state

C. Static

D. Distance-vector

589


Question#3:

A hybrid routing protocol combines the features of distance-vector and link-state

routing protocols.

A. True

B. False

590


Question#4:

A manually-configured routing table entry is known as:

A. Static route

B. Dynamic route

C. Hybrid route

D. Default route

591


Question#5:

Automatic routing table update is a feature of:

A. Static routing

B. Route redistribution

C. Dynamic routing

D. Route aggregation

592


Question#6:

The term "Default route" refers to a "last resort" network path used by a router for

forwarding all packets with destination addresses not listed in its routing table.

A. True

B. False

593


Question#7:

Examples of distance-vector routing protocols include: (Select 2 answers)

A. EGP

B. OSPF

C. RIP

D. EIGRP

E. BGP

594


Question#8:

Which of the following answers refers to a link-state routing protocol?

A. BGP

B. EIGRP

C. RIP

D. OSPF

595


Question#9:

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) falls into the category of:

A. Hybrid routing protocols

B. Link-state routing protocols

C. Distance-vector routing protocols

D. Static routing protocols

596


End of Chapter (9)


597


CompTIA N +

Exam: N10-007








Chapter- 10

Network Security

598


The CIA Triad : 10 -1

599


Network Security Fundamentals:

600


Network Security Goals:

• Commonly called the CIA Triad• Confidentiality

• Integrity

• Availability

601


Confidentiality:

602


Symmetric Encryption (Confidentiality):

603


Symmetric Encryption (Confidentiality):

604


Asymmetric Encryption (Confidentiality):

605


Asymmetric Encryption (Confidentiality):

606


Integrity:

607


Hashing (Integrity)

608


Hashing (Integrity)

609


Availability:

610


Network Security Attacks : 10 - 2

611


Network Security Attacks:

612


Attacks on Confidentiality:

613


Attacks on Integrity:

614


Man-in-the-Middle:

615


Session Hijacking:

616


Attacks on Availability:

617


Denial of Service (DoS):

618


Botnets –Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS):

619


TCP SYN Flood:

620


Smurf (ICMP Flood):

621


Electrical Disturbance:

622


Physical Environment:

623


Other Attacks to Consider :

624


Insider Threats:

625


Logical Bomb:

626


Phishing:

627


Ransomware:

628


VLAN Hopping:

629


Protecting the Network: 10 - 3

630


Protecting the Network:

631


Physical Control:

632


User Training:

633


Vulnerability Scanners:

634


Zenmap Vulnerability Scanner:

This application used toscan a website addressand see what ports areopen, What passwordsused, What Operating isrunning this website andwhat is the operatingsystem version.

635


Nessus Vulnerability Scanner

This application focuseson a host, it scans thehost and tells which hostis patched or not, andwhich host has a lastupdates.

636


Patching:

637


Honey Pots and Honey Nets:

638


Security Policies : 10 - 4

639


Security Policy:

640


Acceptable use Policy (AUP):

• The company tells the employees what are the things thatare allowed or not allowed for them and these policesmust be known to them.

• The company may say:- Employees are monitored.- Use of mobile phones is prohibited.- you can/ can’t access others personal files.

641


Parts of a Security Policy:

642


Parts of a Security Policy:

• Standards:- Gives the standard that the company is using Such as the

type of encryption approved by the company.• Guidelines:

- Tells the government Polices and gives a step by stepinstructions.

• Procedures:- It tells how to make some thing such as:

- Steps to create a new user.- Steps how to change your password.- Steps a remote access.

643


Bring Your Own Device (BYOD):

644


Data Loss Prevention :

645


System Lifecycle:

646


Licensing Restrictions and Export Controls:

647


Incident Response:

648


Multifactor Authentication: 10 - 5

649


Multifactor Authentication:

650


Something You Know (Knowledge Factor):

651


Weakness of Passwords:

652


Something You have (Possession Factor):

653


Something You Are (Inherence Factor OR Biometrics) :

654


Something You Do (Action Factor):

655


Somewhere You Are (Location Factor):

656


End of Chapter (10)


657


CompTIA N +

Exam: N10-007








Chapter- 11

Networking Tools and the Command Line

658


Hardware Networking Tools: 11 -1

659


Networking Tools:

660


Electrostatic Discharge Strap:

661


Multimeter:

662


Loopback Plug:

663


Crimper:

664


Cable Tester:

665


Cable Certifier:

666


Punch-Down Tool

667


Butt Set:

668


Toner Probe:

669


Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR):

TDR OTDR

670


Software Networking Tools: 11 - 2

671


Speed Test Sites:

672


Environmental Monitoring:

673


Protocol Analyzer:

674


Wireless Analyzer:

675


Remote Connectivity Software:

676


Windows Command Line: 11 - 3

677


Command Line Tools:

678


Accessing the Command Line:

679


ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) Command:

680



681


Ipconfig Command:

682


Ipconfig Command:

683


Ipconfig Command:

684


Ipconfig Command:

685


Ping Command:

686


Ping Command:

687


Tracert Command:

688


Tracert Command:

689


Nbtstat Command:

690


Nbtstat Command:

691


Netstat (Network Statistics) Command:

692



693


Nslookup (Name Server Lookup) Command:

694


Route Command:

695


Route Command:

696


UNIX Command Line: 11 - 4

697


What is UNIX?

698


Command Line Tools:

699


Accessing the Command Line:

700



701


Ifconfig (Interface Configuration) Command:

702


Ifconfig (Interface Configuration) Command:

703


Ping Command:

704


Ping Command:

705


Traceroute Command:

706


Traceroute Command:

707



708



709



710



711


Route Command:

712


Route Command:

713


End of Chapter (11)


714

Chapter- 1 Networks and Their Basic Components

Documents

Transcript of Chapter- 1 Networks and Their Basic Components