THE CIVIL AVIATION ACT REGULATIONS (under section 3 ...

CIVIL A VIA TION

THE CIVIL AVIATION ACT

REGULATIONS (under section 3)

The Civil Aviation (Births, Deaths and Missing Persons) Regulations, L N 2W161

1967

The Civil Aviation (Aircraft Landing Fees) Regulations, 1976 L N l ~ i x

The Civil Aviation (Control of Aerodromes and Airstrips) Regulations, L N 270.~4

1984 2,hiSl I D m S

The Civil Aviation (Air Navigation) Regulations, 1995

REGULATIONS (under sections 3, 5, 8 and 9 )

The Civil Aviation Regulations, 2004

ORDER (under section 7 )

The Civil Aviation (Air Transport Licensing Board) (Delegation of L N mm

Functions) Order, 1966


The Civil Aviation (Air Transport Licensing) Regulations, 1966 L.N. 216166 llM9 66CR4 lODl94

lllllDM

ORDER (under section 20A)

The Civil Aviation (Pecuniary Penally) (Prescribed Provisions) Order, L.N 1ISnOw

2004

ORDERS AND REGULATIONS condifionally saved by section 23 (2) ofAct 19 of I966

(made under section 3 of the Airports Law, 1959)

The Sangster International Airport Order, 1959

2 CIVIL AVIATION

L N I01160 The Norman Manley International Airport Order, 1960

(made under section 4 of the Airports Law, 1959)

L N 251159 227161

The Airports Regulations, 1959 178164 290181

REGULATIONS conditionally saved by section 23(2) ofAct 19 of I966

(made under paragraph 9 of the First Schedule to the United Kingdom Colonial Air Navigation (Application of Acts) Order, 1937)

L N 17/51 100lrrr4

The Air Navigation (Investigation o f Accidents) Regulations, 1953

(made under Article 68 of the United Kingdom Colonial Air Novigation Order, 1955)

L N 861% (u",,!m

The Colonial Air Navigation (Radio) Regulations, 1956 (made under the United Kingdom Civil Aviation Act, 1949 and the

United Kingdom Colonial Civil Avration (Application of Act) Order. 1952)

L N 107161 (O"d,,d,

The Air Navigation (General) Regulations, 1963

CIVIL A VIA TION 3



THE CIVIL AVIATION (BIRTHS, DEATHS A N D MISSING mRS0NS) REGULATIONS, 1967

(Made by the Minister on the 10th day of July. 1967) L.N. 204167

[ I s t August, 1967.1

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Civil Aviation (Births, Deaths and Missing Persons) Regulations, 1967.

2 4 1 ) In these Regulations- “Director” means the Director of Civil Aviation; “missing persons” means persons who are missing and with respect

to whom there are reasonable grounds for believing that they have died in consequence of an accident occurring in any part of the world to an aircraft registered in Jamaica;

“Registrar-General” means the Registrar-General of Births and Deaths in Jamaica;

“traveller” in rhtion to an aircraft includes a member of the Crew.

(2) For the p k s e s of these Regulations a journey is deemed to commence when a traveller enters an aircraft for the purpose of the journey and to continue until that traveller alights therefrom on completion of the journey, notwithstanding any intermediate stop or break in the journey.

3.41) The owner of an aircraft registered in Jamaica shall, as soon -as is practicable but not later than one month after the occurrence in any part of the world of a birth or death in the aircraft, or of a death outside Jamaica of a traveller on the aircraft who is killed on the journey in consequence of an accident, transmit to the Director

Wc incl~nion of thia page is authorized by L.N. 4119761

4 THE CIVIL AVIATION (BIRTHS, DEATHS A N D MISSING PERSONS) REGULATIONS, 1967

a return of such birth or death in the form, in accordance with the First instructions, and containing the particulars prescribed in the First Second Schedule (in the case of a birth) or the Second Schedule (in the case

of a death):

Schedule.

Schedule.

Provided that if such particulars are not known to the owner of the aircraft, he shall transmit as aforesaid so many of such particulars as he is reasonably able to ascertain having regard to the circumstances of the birth or death.

(2) To facilitate the rendering of returns in accordance with this regulation the person in command of an aircraft registered in Jamaica shall forthwith on the occurrence in any part of the world of a birth or death in the aircraft, or of the death outside Jamaica of a traveller in the aircraft who is killed on the journey in consequence of an accident, record in the journey log book, or other appropriate document relating to that aircraft, the particulars of such birth or death mentioned in sub-paragraph (1) and shall make such record available to the owner as soon as practicable:

Provided that if all such particulars are not known to the person in command of an aircraft and cannot be readily ascertained by him he shall record and make available as aforesaid so many of such particulars as are readily ascertainable.

(3) Where an aircraft has been born fide demised, let or hired out for a period exceeding fourteen days to any other person by the owner thereof, and no pilot, commander, navigator or operative member of the crew of the aircraft is in the employment of the owner, the provisions of this regulation shall have effect in relation to the period during which the aircraft is so demised, let or hired out as though for references to the owner there were substituted references to the person to whom the aircraft has been so demised, let or hired out.

4. The Director shall keep- Third SChCdUIO.

(a) a separate record of births in the form in the Third Schedule in which shall be recorded the particulars transmitted to him of births occuffing in any part of the world in aircraft registered in Jamaica;

(b) a separate record of deaths in the form in the Fourth Schedule in which shall be recorded the particulars transmitted to him

inclusion of this page ia authorized by L.N. 4119761

Fourth schedule.

THE CIVIL AVIATION (BIRTHS, DEATHS AND MISSING PERSONS) REGULATIONS, I967

of deaths wurring in any part of the world in aircraft registered in Jamaica and of deaths outside Jamaica of travellers on such aircraft killed on the journey in consequence of an accident;

(c) a separate record in the form in the Fifth Schedule of persons Fifth

reported to him as missing persons. Schedule.

5. The Director shall within seven days of the completion of an entry in any record kept in his department pursuant to the provisions of these Regulations cause a certified copy of such entry to be transmitted to the Registrar-General.

6. In the case of the birth of an illegitimate child, the name of any person as father of such child shall not be entered in any return or record of particulars of the birth of such child unless the mother of the child and the person acknowledging himself to be the father of the child have signed a completed form of return as informants.

7.-(1) If the Director is satisfied that there is an error or omission in any entry made in the record of births, deaths or missing persons kept by him pursuant to regulation 4, he may, in accordance with evidence of the true facts relating to the entry, rectify it in such manner as may appear to him appropriate.

(2) Within seven days after the correction of any entry in his records in accordance with this regulation, the Director shall cause a certified copy of such corrected entry to be transmitted to the Registrar -General.

8. Any person who fails to comply with any of the provisions of these Regulations shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a h e not exceeding fifty dollars.

5

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6 THE CIVIL AVIATION (BIRTHS, DEATHS A N D MISSING PERSONS) REGULATIONS. 1967

FIRST XHEDULE (Regulation 3) 1. Registration marking of aircraft

2. Date of birth (a)

3. Place of birth (6) ...................................................... 4. sex (c) ...................................................... 5. Name (4 ...................................................... 6. Name, surname and nationality or

country of father (e) ...................................................... 7. Maiden name and nationality or

country of mother ...................................................... 8. Date and place of marriage of

parents ...................................................... 9. Rank or occupation and address

of father (or, in default, of ...................................................... mother) (e) ......................................................

informant (if any) cf) ......................................................

11. Signature of infonnant(s) ......................................................

......................................................

......................................................

10. Name, description and address of

......................................................

...................................................... 12. Signature and rank of person

completing the return ......................................................

Date (a) ...................................................... ......................................................

NOTES : (a) Day and month in words, year in hgures. (b) Appro-tc positions. e.g. “50 miles south of Port Royal”. (c) “Boy” or “girl”, as the case may be. (d) Full names of child. (e) Personal names in full and followed by surname; surname to be writtm in block

letters If the child is illegitimate (sce (8) above) the particulars relating to the father must ‘not be recorded in the return unless at the joint request of the mother and of the person acknowledging himself to be the father of the child in which CBSC such person shall, as well as the mother, mgn a completed form of return as informant.

(f) The informant’s full names, relationship (if any) to the child, and full postd address should be stated. Except in the circumstances mentioned at (e) above only one pmon (usually the mother or father) should act as informant.

THE CIVIL AVlATlON (BIRTHS, DEATHS AND MISSlNG PERSONS) REGULATIONS, 1967

7

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9. 10.

11.

12.

13.

SECOND SCHEDULE (Regulation 3)

Registration marking of aircraft ...................................................... Date of death (a) ...................................................... Place of death (b) ...................................................... Name and surname (c) ...................................................... Sex (4 ...................................................... Age (4 Rank or occupation (f) Nationality or country Address or abode (g)

Cause of death Name of certifying medical practi-

tioner (if any) Duration of illness

Place of burial

......................................................

...................................................... ...................................................... ...................................................... ......................................................

......................................................

...................................................... .......................................................

14. Signature, description and address of informant (h) ......................................................

......................................................

......................................................

...................................................... 15. Signature and rank of person completing the form ......................................................

.......................................................

...................................................... Date

Nores : (0) Day and month in words, year in fieures. (b) Actual position, if known, othrrwise approximate position. e.g., “50 miles south of

(c) Personal names in full. followed by surname; surname to be written in block letters. (a) “Male” or “female”. (e) To be recorded in complete yean, or in months or days. U, Women and children:

Port Royal”.

In the w e of a married woman or a widow. the words “wife of” or “widow of” shall be entered. followed by the name, rank or occupation and nationality of the husband.

In the case of an unmarried woman, then shall be inserted- (i) the word. “spinster” followed by her profession or occupation (if any), rank

(ii) the words “daughter of” followed by the name, profession, etc., of her father. In the case of children under the age of 8ixt.m yean, the words “son of“ or

or utle (d any) and her nationality; and

“daughter of” shall be followed by the name. profession, ctc., of thc father. (s) The full postal address should be stated. (h) The informant’s full name, relationship (if any) to the deceased, and fuIl postal addresc

should be stated.

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8

1. Registration marking of aircraft

2. Date of birth

3. Place of birth

4. Sex of child

5. Name (if any)

6. Name and nationality or country of father

7. Maiden name and nationality or country of mother

8. Rank or occupation and address of father (or, in default, of mother)

9. Name, description and address of informant

10. Date of registration

11. Signature of Director

12. N q e if added after registration of

- .

birth

THE CIVIL AVIATION (BIRTHS, DEATHS AND MISSING PERSONS) REGULATIONS, 1967

-

THIRD SCHEDULE (Regulation 4)

BIRTHS IN AIRCRAFT REGISTERED IN JAMAICA

p b indudon of this paee ia authorized by L.N. 4119761

THE CIVIL AVIATION (BIRTHS, DEATHS AND MISSING PERSONS) REGULATIONS. 1967

FOURTH SCHEDULE (Regulation 4)

DEATH IN AIRCIMT REGISTERED IN JAMAICA

- 1. Registration marking of aircraft

2. Date of death

3. Place of death

4. Full name

5. sex

6. Age

7. Rank or occupation

8. Nationality or country

9. Address

10. Cause of death

11. Name of certifying medical practitioner

.

(if any)

12. Duration of illness



IS. Signature of Director

9

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10 THE CIVIL AVIATION (BIRTHS, DEATHS AND MISSING PERSONq REGULATIONS, 1967

FIFTH SCHEDULE (Regulation 4)

PERSONS MISSING AND BELIEVED TO HAVE DIED IN CONSEQUENCE OF ACCIDENTS TO AIRCRAFT REGISTERED IN JAMAICA

1. Registration marking of aircraft I I 2. Full name of missing person

I 3. Sex

4. Age I 5. Rank or occupation I 6. Nationality or country I

~ ~~ ~

7. Address ~~ ~

8. Date and place of accident and grounds for presumption of death



11. Signature of Director

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CIVIL AVIATION


11


THB CIVIL AVIATION (htCRAFT LANDING FEES) REGULATIONS, 1976

(Made by the Minister on the 1st day of Mmch, 1976) L.N. 47D/76

[lst March, 1976.1

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Civil Aviation (Aircraft Landing Fees) Regulations, 1976.

2. In these Regulations- “aeroplane” means a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft deriving

its lift in fight mainly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight;

“aircraft” means any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the surface of the earth;

“Director” means the Director of Civil Auiation; “weight of aircraft” means the maximum permissible take-off

weight specified in the certificate of airworthiness or other prescribed document.

3. The fees specified in the First Schedule shall be the landing fees First Schedule. for aircraft at the aerodromes specified in the said Schedule:

Provided that the Minister may generally or in any particular case or class of cases waive such landing fees or any part thereof either absolutely or subject to such conditions as he thii fit.

4.41) The Director may issue, or authorize the issue, to the owner or operator of a locally registered aircraft of which the maximum permissible take-off weight does not exceed 8,000 fB a landing card valid for one year on the payment by such owner or operator of the

Second Schedule.

fees specified in the Second Schedule. P’he of this page is authorized by L.N. %/1!377l

12 CIVIL AVIATION

(2) Any aircraft in respect of which a landing card is in force shall be exempt from landing fees at the aerodromes specified in the First Schedule.

5 .41 ) The owner or operator of any visiting aircraft- (a) not being a locally registered aircraft; and (b) not being used for hire or reward or for aerial work, that is

to say, for commercial, industrial or other lucrative purposes, shall pay the fees specified in the First Schedule in respect of the first landing at any of the aerodromes specified in the said Schedule, and thereafter the requirements to pay landing fees at any of them shall, unless the Minister in any particular case gives a direction to the contrary, be waived for a period not exceeding thirty days or until the aircraft leaves Jamaica, whichever is ,the earlier.

(2) Where an aircraft to which paragraph (1) applies remains in Jamaica beyond the period of waiver granted by this regulation. landing fees shall again become payable from the thirty-first day.

6. Nothing in these Regulations shall confer any right to land in any place as against the owner of the land or other person interested therein.

7. [Omitted].

IThe inclusion of this page is auLhodzed by L.N. 96119771

CIVIL AVIATION 13

FIRST SCHEDULE (Regulations 3 and 5)

At the Tinson Pen, Boscobel and Ken Jones Aerodromes: (a) in respect of aeroplanes, a fee calculated in accordance with the

following s c a l e Weight of aeroplane -- Fee -

Not exceeding 2,500 18 Exceeding 2,500 Tti but not exceeding 4,000 Tti Exceeding 4,000 18 but not exceeding 6,000 Tti

Exceeding 8,000 T1, but not exceeding 10,000 18

s 5.00 s 8.00 512.00 $16.00 $20.00 $20.0 plus

50.40 per 1,OOO fB or part thereof in excess of 10,OOO 18

(b) in respect of aircraft other than aeroplanes, a fee of one-half of the appropriate fee for aeroplanes, calculated in accordance with the scale set out in paragraph (a).

Exceeding 6,000 Tti but not exceeding 8,OOO Tti

Exceeding 10,000 lb

k O N D &HEDULE (Regulation 4)

At the Tinson Pen, Boscobel and Ken Jones Aerodromes: in respect of aeroplanes, a fee calculated in accordance with the following seal-

Private Business Commercial Category Category Category - 7 Weight of aeroplane -

Not exceeding 2,500 fB $150 5250 5300 Exceeding 2,500 18 but

$240 5400 5480 not exceeding 4,000 fB Exceeding 4,000 fB but not exceeding 6,000 fB 5360 5600 5720 Exceeding 6,000 fB but

$480 $800 5960 not exceeding 8,000 18 in respect of aircraft other than aeroplanes. a fee of one-half of the appropriate fee for aeroplanes calculated in accordance with the scale set out in paragraph (a).

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CIVIL AVIATION



L.N. 270-4

(Made by the Minister on the 29th day November, 1984) Amdr LN. 23-5

lOOE45

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Civil Aviation (Control c~esm of Aerodromes and Airstrips) Regulations, 1984.

2. In these Regulations-

"aeroplane" means a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight;

"aircraft" means any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth's surface;

"authorized person" means any constable and any person authorized by the Minister (whether by name, post, class or description) either generally or in relation to a parhcular case or class of cases;

"constable" includes any person having the powers and privileges of a constable;

''customs aerodrome" means an aerodrome designated by the Minister pursuant to regulation 9;

"international flight" means any flight other than a local flight;

"licence" means a licence granted under these Regulations;

"local flight" means a flight which takes off and lands in Jamaica without-

(a) landing at a place outside of Jamaica; or

(b) flying over the territory of another State; or

(c) flying over the high seas so as to be more than fifteen minutes flying time from the nearest shore of Jamaica, such flying time beifig calculated at normal cruising speed with all power units operating;

14.02 CIVIL AVIATION (CONTROL OF AERODROA4ES AND AIRSTRIPS) REGUUTIONS. 1981

"military aerodrome" means any aerodrome established exclusively for military purposes;

"military aircraft" includes the naval, military or air force aircraft of any country:

"notified" means published in- (a) "AIP" (Aeronautical Information Publication);

(6) "NOTAM" (Notices to h e n ) :

( 4 any other official publication issued in Jamaica for distribution in Jamaica or elsewhere for the purpose of enabling the provisions of these Regulations to be complied with;

"operator", in relation to any aircraf?, includes any person on whose behalf (whether consequent on the relationship of employee and employer or on the relationshp of agent and principal or any other relationship) the aircraft was at the relevant time being operated by the pilot or any other person.

Exclusion of military aimaft and militury aerodromes.

Power of Minista to exempt.

Places for landing and take-o6of

3. These Regulations (other than regulation 5 (1) (6) ) shall not apply to military aircraft or military aerodromes or to aircraft operated by the Jamaica Defence Force or for the purposes of the Jamaica Constabulay Force.

4. The Minister may exempt from the provisions of these Regulations, or of any orders made thereunder, any place, aircraft, person or classes of places, aircraft or persons, either absolutely or subject to such conditions as he thinks fit.

5.--(I) Subject to the provisions of these Regulations- an aircraft shall not land or take off at any place in Jamaica other than an aerodrome in respect of which a licence has been granted under these Regulations and remains in force; an aircraft engaged in an international flight shall not land or take off at any place in Jamaica other than at a customs aerodrome; a foreign aircraft shall not land or take off at any place in Jamaica other than a customs aerodrome or an aerodrome licensed for public use pursuant to regulation 13; an aircraft shall not land or take off at any licensed aerodrome at any time other than during the hours of operation of that aerodrome.

CIVIL AVIATION (CONTROL OFAERODROMESAND AIRSTRIPS) REGUL4TIONS, 1984 14.03

(2) The provisions of paragraph (1) shall not apply in relation to a landing due to accident, stress of weather, or to other unavoidable cause the proof of which shall lie upon the pilot or other person in charge of the aircraft.

6. The Minister may detain any aircraft which lands or takes off Esbh or attempts to land or take off in contravention of regulation 5.

7. Where an aircraft lands or takes off or attempts to land or take 2;:: off in contravention of regulation 5, the operator and crew of the resulat10n5

air& shall be gudty of an offence and shall be liable- (a) on sumrnaq conviction in a Resident Magistrate's Court,

to a fine not exceeding twenty thousand dollars or three times the aggregate value of the aircraft, its engines,. accessories and equipment, whichever is the greater, or to imprisonment with or without hard labour for a term not exceeding three years or to both such fine and imprisonment;

(b) on conviction before a Circuit Court, to a fine not exceeding one hundred thousand dollars or three times the aggregate value of the aircraft, its engines, accessories and equipment, whichever is the greater, or to imprisonment with or without hard labour for a term not exceeding five years, or to both such fine and imprisonment.

8.-41) The Minister may license any aerodrome in Jamaica, subject to bcensmgof

such terms and conditions as he thinks fit, for the take-off and landing of a e r o b e s

aircraft engaged in flights for the purpose of the public transport of passengers, instruction in flying, or such other purposes as the Minister may specify in the licence.

(2) Application for a licence under this regulation shall be made to the Minister in such form and manner as may be approved by him and shall be accompanied by the prescribed fee.

(3) Every application for a licence under this regulation shall be examined by the Director of Civil Aviation who shall, after consultation with the Commissioner of Police, make recommendations to the Minister concerning such security arrangements as are considered necessary for the operation of the aerodrome to which the licence relates.

(4) It shall be a condition of any licence under this regulation that the licensee shall comply with such security requirements for the operation of the aerodrome as the Minister may determine.

(5) The Minister may revoke or suspend any licence granted under this regulation if the holder of the licence contravenes any condition of the licence.

14.04 CIVIL AVIATION (CONTROL OF AERODROMES AND AIRSTRIPS) REGULATIONS, 1984

(6) A licence granted under this regulation shall-

(a) specify the aerodrome to which it relates; (6) spec@ the name, title or description of the person responsible

for the operation thereof (hereinafter referred to as "the licensee"); and

(c) unless suspended or revoked-

(i) be for a period of one year; and

(ii) be renewed, on payment of the prescribed fee, for periods of one yeari

(7) The Minister shall cause to be published in the Gazette and in a daily newspaper circulating in Jamaica a list of all aerodromes licensed under paragraph (1).

(8) The operator of an aerodrome licensed under paragraph (I), who contravenes or causes or permits the contravention of any condition of that licence, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on summary conviction in a Resident Magistrate's Court to a fine not exceeding twenty thousand dollars or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years, or to both such fine and imprisonment.

Lksignetim of EUJtmS 9 . 4 1 ) The Minister may designate, subject to such conditions as he ae1-a thinks fif any aerodrome licensed under these Regulations as a customs

aerodrome.

(2) The I h s t e r shall cause the names and hours of operation of all aerodromes in Jamaica which are open to public use or designated as customs aerodromes to be notified and shall also cause to be notrfied any changes thereto. \

(3) The names and hours of operation of all aerodromes referred to in paragraph (2) and any changes thereto shall be published in the Gazette and in at least one issue of a daily newspaper published and circulating in Jamaica.

lo. [Deleted by L.N. 100Ul995.]

Pubhc use of womomes 11.41) Without prejudice to the generality of regulation 8 (1) the

Minister may, if the applicant for the licence so requests, grant a licence (hereinafter referred to as a "licence for public use") which shall be subject to the condition that the aerodrome shall at all times when it is available for the take+ff or landing of aircraft, be so available to all persons on equal terms and conditions.

lT l ie i n c l ~ ~ s i o n 01 this page i s a ~ ~ l l ~ o r i z e d I I ~ I..N. IRAIZOOB]

(2) The licensee of an aerodrome in respect o f . which a licence for public use is in force (hereinafter referred to as a "public aerodrome") shall display. in a prominent place at that aerodronke a copy of that licence and shall furnish to any person on request, information concerning the terms of the licence.

(3) The Minister may,' in relation to any public aerodrome (other than an aerodrome operated by the Auports Authority) or to such aerodromes generally or to'any class thereof, prescribe-

(a) the charges or the maximum charges which may be made for the use of the aerodrome and for any services performed at the aerodrome to or in connection with aircraft; and

(b) the conditions to be observed in relation to those charges and the performance of those services.

(4) The licensee of an aerodrome in relation to which charges have been prescribed pursuant to paragraph (3) shall not make or cause to be made any charges other than those so prescribed and shall cause particulars of the prescribed charges to be exhibited at that aerodrome in such place and manner as to be readily available for the information of any person afTected thereby.

(5) The licensee of a public aerodrome shall furnish the Minister with such information as he may require in relation to aircraft using that aerodrome with respect to-

(a) the number of aircraft landing or taking off;

(b) the number of passengers embarked, disembarked or in transit;

(c) the amount of freight landed and uplifted; and

(d) the amount of he1 delivered.

1 2 4 1 ) No person shall construct an aerodrome without first obtaining the Cmmmion

approval in writing of the Minister. and opwtion of aerodromes and ausnips.

(2) No person shall operate an unlicensed aerodrome.

(3) No person shall clear, delineate, construct or otherwise prepare any land for use as an airstrip.

(4) No person shall utilize any land or area of water as an airstrip.

(5) Any person who contravenes the provisions of paragraph (1): (2). (3) or (4) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable-

- -- - --

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14.06 CIVL AVATION (CONTROL OFAERODROMESAND AIRSTRIPSJ REGUIATIONS. 1984

(a) on summary conviction in a Resident Magistrate's Court to a fine not exceeding twenty thousand dollars or to imprisonment with or without hard labour for a term not exceeding three years or to both such fine and imprisonment;

(6) on conviction before a Circuit Court, to a fine not exceeding one hundred thousand dollars or to imprisonment with or without hard labour for a term not exceeding five years or to both such fine and imprisonment.

P"b'"transpor(of 13.- (1) Subject to paragraph (2), an aircraft engaged on a flight for the pasrengm and -onm purpose of the public transport of passengers or for the purpose of instruction nymB in flying shall not take off or land at any aerodrome in Jamaica other than an

aerodrome licensed for the take-off and landing of aircraft so engaged.

(2) Subject to paragraph (3), paragraph (1) shall not apply in relation to-

(a) any aeroplane of which the maximum total authorized weight does not exceed 8,000 lbs not being engaged on a scheduled journey, on a flight intended to begin and end at the same aerodrome or on a flight for the purpose of instruction in flying;

(b) any helicopter, not being engaged on a journey or flight as aforesaid;

(c) any glider being flown under arrangements made by a flying club and carrying no person other than a member of the flying club;

(d) a landing due to accident, sbess of weather or other unavoidable cause or to the next subsequent departure, with the prior approval of the Minister, from the place in which the landing due to any such cause has been made.

(3) The Minister may by order direct that the pxuvisions of sub-paragraph (a), (b), or (c) of paragraph (2) or more than one of those subparagraphs, shall not apply to aircraft, or to classes of air craft in Jamaicq or in some parts of Jamaica.

(4) Aircraft-

(a) shall not land or take off by night at any customs aerodrome or any public aerodrome unless adequate lighting is in operation at that aerodrome;

(b) when engaged in carrying passengers for hire or reward shall not land or take off by night at any place in Jamaica unless adequate lighting is in operation at that place.

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CIUL AUATION (CONTROL OF AERODROMES AND AIRSTRIPS) REGULATIONS. 1984 14.07

(5) Where an aircraft lands or takes off in contravention of paragraph (1) or (4), the operator and crew of that aircraft shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on summary conviction in a Resident Magistrate's Court to a fine not exceeding five thousand dollars.

(6) Where a person is charged with contravening a provision of this regulation-

if the contravention is by reason only of his having been a member of the flight crew of an amraft engaged on a flight for the public transport of passengers, it shall be a defence for that person to prove that he neither knew nor had reason to suspect that the flight was being made for that purpose;

if the charge relates to a landing contrary to paragraph (4), it shall be a defence for that person to prove that the landing was due to accident, stress of weather or other unavoidable cause.

14.-(1) The Minister may, if he ttunks fit, suspend any licence f-z;'?,","2d granted under these Regulations pending investigation of the case. hcences

(2) The Muuster may revoke any such licence if he is satisfied after due enquiry that the licence should be revoked.

(3) The holder of or any person having possession or custody of a licence which is revoked under ttus regulation shall, upon being required to do so, surrender that licence forthwith to the Minister and if he fails to do so he shall be guilty of an offence.

15.-(1) Subject to paragraph (2), a licence granted under these z,ri:, Regulations shall not be transferred or assigned.

(2) In the event of the death, incapacity, bankruptcy: sequestration or liquidation of the holder of a licence -or the appointment of a receiver, manager or trustee in relation to the business of the holder of the licence, the person for the time being carrying on that business shall, if within tturty days of h s commencing to do so he makes application to the Minister for a new licence, be entitled to carry on the business authorized by the existing licence subject to the conditions thereof until the application is dealt with.

16.--(I) The Minister and any authorized person shall have a right of ::;:,OF: access at all times- elc

-- - - -

I T l w i n c l u s i o ~ ~ of' (his page is authorized by L.N. 18~/20081

14.08 CIl7L A I7ilTION (COIVTROL OF AERODROA4ES AND AIRSTRIPS) REGULATIONS. 1984

Supply of fuel and lubricants at aerodromes

Paymenl of expema on rerum of airmfl detained.

Fint Schedule.

(a) to any aerodrome for the purpose of inspecting the aerodrome; or

(h) to any aerodrome for the purpose of inspecting any aircraft on the aerodrome or for the purpose of detaining the aircraft pursuant to these Regulations:

(c) to any place where an aircraft has landed. for the purpose of inspecting the aircraft and for the purpose of detaining the aircraft pursuant to these Regulations.

(2) Any person who hinders or obstructs a person acting pursuant to paragraph (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on summary conviction in a Resident Magistrate's Court to a fine not exceedmg twenty thousand dollars or imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years or to both such fine and imprisonment.

17.-41) Fuel or lubricants shall not be supplied to aircraft at any place in Jamaica. other than a customs aerodrome, without the prior approval of the Minister and subject to such directions as he may speclfy in that approval.

(2) Any person who contravenes the provisions of paragraph (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on summary conviction in a Resident Magistrate's Court to a fine not exceeding twenty thousand dollars or to imprisonment with or without hard labour for a term not exceeding three years or to both such fine and imprisonment.

18. Where any aircraft is detained pursuant to these Regulations the aircraft shall not be released until the Minister is satisfied that payment has been made or arrangements have been made for the payment of any expenses incurred in connection with the detention, safeguarding and storage of the aircraft.

19.-(1) The Minister may, in relation to any licensed aerodrome, or to such aerodromes generally or to any class thereof, prescribe, as respects the operation of aircraft, the form and particulars of the records which shall be kept, the periods for which such records shall be preserved, the persons to whom they shall be made available for inspection, and the intervals at which and the persons to whom copies of such records shall be furnished.

(2) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraph (I), every licensee shall keep or cause to be kept a record to be called the Daily Traffic Record in the form prescribed in the First Schedule, in which shall be recorded the particulars specified in that Schedule.

(3) A licensee who fails or neglects to cany out his duties in accordance with this regulation shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on summary conviction in a Resident Magistrate's Court to a fine not exceeding ten thousand dollars or to imprisonment with or without hard labour for a term not exceeding eighteen months or to both such fine and imprismment.

- -

lThe inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18~120081

CIML AMATION PONTROL OFAERODROMES AND AIRSTRIPS) REGULATIONS, 19884 14.09

(4) Any person who, with intent to deceive-

(a) makes any false entry in any Daily Traffic Record; (6) alters any such record or omits any information required to

be included therein, shall bk guilty of an offence and shall be liable on summary conviction in a Resident Magistrate's Court to a fine not exceeding twenty thousand dollars or to imprisonment with or without hard labour for a term not exceeding three years or to both such fine and imprisonment.

20.--(I) Subject to the provisions of this regulation, the fees sct out in the EEznd Second Schedule shall be payable in respect of the issue of any licence schedule

granted under these Regulations.

(2) An applicant for such licence may be required before the application is considered, to pay the whole or deposit a portion of the fees chargeable in relation to that application.

(3) If, after such payment or deposit has been made, the application-

(a) is withdrawn by the applicant or othenvise ceases to have effect; or

(b) is refused by the hhister:

theMinister shall, subject as hereinafter provided, refund the amount of such payment or deposit.

(4) Where the amount paid or deposited is wholly or to any extent attributable to a fee chargeable in respect of an investigation which would have been carried out in connection with the application had it not been so withdrawn or ceased to have effect or refused but which was not carried out by reason only of such withdrawal. cessation or refusal, the Minister may refund the amount so attributable or. in a case where an investigation has been partially completed. so much of that amount as in the opinion of the Minister is reasonable having regard to the stage to which the investigation has progressed at the time of such withdrawal. cessation or refusal: i

Provided that if, in any case the amount deposit& by the applicant is not sufficient to cover the fee (as ultimately assessed) chargeable in respect of any investigation in so far as the same has been carried out at the time of such withdrawal, cessation or r eha1 as aforesaid, the amount representing the balance of such fee shall be payable by the applicant.

(5) In this regulation and in the Second Schedule "investigation" includes inspection, examination, calculation or test.

(The inclusion of this page i s authorized by L.N. 18*120081

I Olknces. 21.-(1) A c v person who. with intent to deceive- I .

(a) alters any licence granted pursuant to these Regulations or uses any such icence which has been suspended or revoked: or

1 (h) uses jny licencc granted to some other person pursuant to these

Regu] 3tions: or (c) lends] a licence granted to him pursuant to lhese Regulations

to an; othcr pcrson or permits thc usc of that liccnce by any other1 lerson: or

1 (4 make! any false representation for the purpose of procuring 1 for h,nlself or any other person: the grant or renewal of any

licenc :. I shall be guilty ,f an offence and shall be liable on summary conviction in a

Resident Magis mte's Court to a fine not esceeding ten thousand dollars or to imprisonment i ith or without hard labour for a term not esceeding eighteen

. months or to bo :h such fine and imprisonment. I (2) A q person whol with intent to deceive-

( a ) uponlianding at an" place in Jamaica. gives any false information as to the name of the last place from which the aircraft took { ff immediately prior to landing at that place;

( h ) to take-off from any place in Jamaica gives any fake inforf~ation as to the name of the neA? place of intended land! g of the aircraft:

(c) in relation to an aircraft which lands or takes off at any in Jamaica? gives any false information as to-

(ii its nationality and regstration (i: the name of the ownerl (-! 111 I the name of the charter (if any);

(iv'j the name of the pilot in command; or 4

(v), the number of persons on board,

shall be guilty ! ,f an offence and shall be liable on summary conviction in a Resident ~ a ~ i ! hate's Court to a fme not exceeding twenty thousand dollars or to imprisom, lent for a term not exceeding three years or to both such fine and imprisonm nt.

I i (3) Any; person who contravenes any provision of these Regulations

for which n! special penalty is provided shall be guilty of an offence and sha I1 be liable on summary conviction in a Resident Magistrate's Court to a fink hot exceeding ten thousand dollars or to imprisonment for a term not exceed ing twelve months or to both such fine and imprisonment.

I I

inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18a/t0081

C M L AVIATION yCOhTROL OF AERODROMES AND AIRSTRIP$) REGULATIONS, 1984 14.1 1

provision.

2 2 . 4 ) If

(2) If it otherwise have

any provision of these Regulations or of any order made zOTwd

s proved that an act or omission of any person which would been a contravention by that person of a provision of these

thereunder is a lntravened in relation to any arrcraft, the pilot, the owner of -for that a i r d am the operator thereof, shall (without prejudice to the liability mm-m

of any other 1 erson under these Regulations for that contravention) be deemed to haire contravened that -provision unless he proves that the contravention (carred without his consent or connivance and that he exercised all du : care and diligence to prevent the contravention.

Regulations o{ of any order made thereunder was due to any cause not avoidable by 1 he exercise of reasonable care by that person the act or omission shall] be deemed not to be a contravention by that person of that

14.12 CIVIL A K'ATION (I :ONTROL OFAERODROMESAND AIRTZQIPS) REGVL4TIONS, 1984

FIRST SCHEDULE (Regulation 19) I

Particulars to be entered in Daily Tr@c Record 4 I (To be recorded in duplicate) 1 A On each sheet;

(a) Name of b erodrome (b) Date (Day Month, Year)

B. In respect of ed h Arrival-

(a) Aircraft Ni tionality and Registration Marks I

(b) Type of A, craft

(c) Point of D: parture (Name of Aerodrome)

(4 Arrival ~ i ! re ! ' (e) Runway Nl imber 1

V) Name of Pi ot 1

(g) Name of 0 mator

C. In respect to eai I Departure- I (a) Aircraft N: lionality and Registration Marks

(b) Type of Ai craft I

(c) Destination (Name of Aerodrome)

(d) Departure : 'ime 1

(e) Runway NI mber I

V) Name of Pil >t I

(g) Name of 0, erator

SECOND SCHEDULE ,

Fees

(Regulation 20)

1 There shall be! mid in respect of a license for an aerodrome-

(a) the fees s:, out in paragraph 2; and (b) the amod t of any expenses or costs reasonably incurred in connection with an

applicatio? for the grant, renewal or variation of such a licence, including, but not restricted 1 > the cost of land surveys, security and obstacle surveys and the cost of maps, ch4 s and plans

2. -41) In respe! of an application for the US$100.00 or an equivaled amount in grant of: i licence Jamaican currency at the current rate of

1 exchange in relation to the currency of the United States of America.

4 (2) In respeo of an application for the US$75.00 or an equivalent amount in

renewal f a licence Jamaican currency at the current rate of

1. exchange in relation to the currency of the United States of America.

I (3) In respec\of an application for the US$37.50 or an equivalent amount in variation of a licence Jamaican currency at the current rate of

exchange in relation to the currency of the United States of America.

(4) In respect of each official in- US$50.00 or an equivalent amount in spection of the aerodrome Jamaican currency at the current rate of

exchange in relation to the currency of the United States of America.

3. 1 Deleted by L.N 100Wl995.]


CIML AMATION


THE CIVIL AVIATION (AIR NAVIGATION) REGULATIONS, 1995

163 , [Repealed by L.N. 134/2004.]

PART VIII - Control ofAir Trafic

64. Rules of the Au and Air Tra£lic Control.

65-70. [Repealed by L.N. 134/2004.]

PART IX -Aerodromes, Aeronautical Radio Stations and Aeronautical Lights, Dangerous Lights

7 1. [Repealed by L.N. 134/2004.]

72. Aeronautical radio stations at aerodromes.

73. Aeronautical radlo station records.

74. Noise and vibration caused by aircraft on aerodromes.

75. Aeronautical lights.

76. Dangerous lights.

PART X - General

77. Restriction on carriage of passengers and goods for hire and renewal.

78. Restriction on aerial photography and aerial survey.

79. Provisions regarding flights over foreign countries.

80-84. [Repealed by L.N. 134/2004.]

85. Penalties.

86.-94. [Repealed hv L.h! 134/2004.]

lThe inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18~R0081


REG~'L;\TIONS (under section 3 )

L.N. 12U1995 (.\In& h,v the .2 linister oil the 217d dqv of October, 1995) .41ndt.r:

L.N. I4YIIYY5 13412004.

P . ~ T VIII - Control of.4ir Trqflic

64.-(1) Evcr person and cvcry aircraft shall complj with such of the Rules 5Lf EkL of the Air and Air Traffic Control contained in the Thirteenth Schedule as c o m l

Thuteentl~ ma! bc applicable to that person or aircraft in the circumstances of the case. Schedule

(2) Subject to the provisions of paragraph (3 )> it shall be an offence to contravene. to permit the contravention of. or to fail to comply with, the Rulcs of the Air and Air TrafFic Control.

(3) It shall be l anh l for the Rules of the Air and Air Traflic Control to be departed from to the extent necessary-

for avoiding immediate danger; or

for complying with the law of any country other than Jamaica withm which the aircraft then is: or

for complying with Military Flying Regulations in relation to an aircraft of which the commander is acting in the course of h s duty as a member of such military force.

(4) If any departure from the Rules of the AK and AK Traffic Control is made for the purpose of avoidmg immediate danger, the commander of the aircraft shall cause written particulars of the departure, and of the circumstances giving rise to it+to be given wittun ten days thereafter to the competent authority of the country in whose tenitory the departure was made or if the departure was made over the high seas, to the Minister.

(5) Nothing in the Rules of the AK and AK Traflic Control shall exonerate any person from the consequences of any neglect in the use of lights or signals or of the neglect of any precautions required by or- aviation practice or by the special circumstances of the case.

(6) The Mmister may make rules of the Air and Air Traflic Control supplementary to but not inconsistent with the Rules of the Air and Air Traffic Control contained in the Thirteenth Schedule.

\ lThc inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18~/2008]

65. - 70. [Repenled by L.A! 134/'2004]

PART IX - Aerodromes, Aeronautical Radio Stations and Aeronautical Lights, Dangerous Lights.

71. [Repealed h.v L.A! 134/2004]

Aeronauhcal Tarno 72.--( 1) NO person shall cause or permit an aeronautical radio station to be stanonsat aero- established or used unless its purpose has been approved by the Minister and drorne

the equipment thereof is of a type the specification of which is approved by the Minister in relation to the purpose for which it is to be used.

(2) The person in charge of an aeronautical radio station which provides navigational aid by radio or radar to an aircraft making an approach to land or landing at an aerodrome shall provide at that station such navigational aid unless all aeronautical radio stations operated by him at that aerodrome are-

(a) installed. modified and maintained in a manner approved by the Minister: and

(h) flight checked by the Minister or by a person approved by the Minister for that purpose on such occasions as the Minister may require,

so, however, that the provisions of this paragraph shall not apply to any aeronautical radio station which is used solely for communication between the operator and the commander of the aircraft.

(3) The person in charge of an aeronautical radio station at an aerodrome licensed for public use shall publish the type of operation of any service provided at that aeronautical radio station for use by aircraft and the hours of operation.

(4) For the purpose of this regulation, an approval shall be in writing and may be granted subject to such conditions as the Minister may approve.

(5) The provisions of this regulation shall not apply to any aeronautical radio station of which the Minister is the person in charge.

Aeronauticalradio %-(I) The person in charge of an aeronautical radio station which sbtiOnmmd". provides navigational aid by radio or radar to an aircraft making an approach

to land or landing at an aerodrome shall in respect of all aeronautical radio stations operated by him at that aerodrome-

(a) keep a written record of all functional tests, flight checks and particulars of any overhauls repair, replacement or modification thereof;

(b) preserve the written record for a period of one year or such longer period as the Minister may in any particular case direct and shall, within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by an authorized person, produce such records to that person.

[The inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18~120081

CIVIL A VIA TION (AIR NAVIGATION) REGULATIONS, 1995 19

(2) The person in charge of an aeronautical radio station which is used for the provision of an air mc control service by an air traffic control unit shall provide apparatus which is capable of recordmg the content of any radio message or signal transmitted to any aircraft either alone or in common with other aircraft or received from an aircraft by the air transport unit.

(3) The apparatus provided in compliance with paragraph (2) shall be-

(a) a type the specification of which is approved by the Minister in relation to the particular aeronautical radio station;

(6) installed, modified and maintained in a manner approved by the Minister; and

(c) in operation at all times when the aeronautical radio station is in operation for providing air traffic control service.

(4) The recording referred to in paragraph (2) shall include- (a) the identification of the aeronautical radio station; (6) the date or dates on which the recording is made; (c) the times at which each message or signal is transmitted; (d) the identity of the aircraft to or fkom which and the radio

frequency on which the message or signal was transmitted or received; and

(e) the time when the recording started and finished. (5) If at any time the apparatus provided in compliance with

paragraph (2) ceases to be capable of recording the matters required by this regulation to be included in the recording, the person in charge of the aeronautical station shall ensure that a written record is kept in which the parbculars specified in paragraph (4) are recorded together with a summary of communications exchanged between the aeronautical radio station and aircraft.

(6) The person in charge of the aeronautical radio station shall preserve any recording or record made pursuant to paragraphs (2) and (5), respectively, for a period of thirty days from the date on which the message signal is recorded or for such longer period as the Minister may direct, and shall, within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by an authorized person, produce such record to that person.

(7) A person required by this regulation to preserve any record shall, if he ceases to be such a person, continue to preserve the record as if he had not ceased to be such a person, and in the event of his death, the duty to preserve the record shall fall upon his personal representative:

Provided that if another person becomes the person in charge of the aeronautical mdio station the person who was previously in charge or his personal representative shall deliver the record to that other person on demand and it shall be duty of that other person to deal with the record as if he were that person previously in charge.

(8) The provisions of this regulation shall not apply to any aeronautical radio station of which the Minister is the person in charge.

lThe inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18~f20081

None ind vibrations caused by aircraA on aerodromes

Fourteenth Schedule

Aeronautical lights

Dangerous lights.

74. The Mmister may cause to be notified the conditions under which noise and vibration caused by aircraft (including military aircraft) on Government aerodromes. licensed aerodromes or on aerodromes at whtch the manufacture. repair or maintenance of aircraft is carried out by persons c a q i n g on business as manufacturers or repairers of aircraft. shall be specified in provision 12 of the Fourteenth Schedule.

75.-(1) Except with the permission of the Minister and in accordance with any conditions subject to which the permission may be granted, a person shall not establish. maintain or alter the character 01-

(a) an aeronautical beacon within Jamaica so. however. that in the case of an aeronautical beacon whtch is or may be visible from the waters withtn a11 area of a light house authority. the Minister shall not give hts permission without the consent of that authority

(h) an aeronautical ground light (other than an aeronautical beacon) at an aerodrome licensed under the Civil Aviation (Control of Aerodrome and Airstrips) Regulations. 1984 or which forms part of the lighting system for use by aircraft taking off or landing at such an aerodrome.

(2) A person shall not intentionally or negligently damage or interfere with any aeronautical ground light established by or with the permission of the Minister.

76.-(1) A person shall not exhibit in Jamaica any light which -

(a) by reason of its glare is liable to endanger aircraft talung off from or landing at an aerodrome; or

(h) by reason of its liability to be mistaken for an aeronautical ground light is liable to endanger aircraft.

(2) If any light whtch appears to the Minister to be such a light as aforesaid is exhibited the Mmister may cause a notice to be served upon the person who is the occupier of the place where the light is exhibited or who has charge of the light directing that person, within a reasonable time to be specified in the notice, to take such steps as may be specified in the notice for extinguislung or screening the light and for preventing in the future the exhibition of any other light which may similarly endanger aircraft.

(3) The notice may be served either personally or by post or by affixing it in some conspicuous place near to the light to which it relates.

(4) In the case of a light which is or may be visible from any waters within the area of a lighthouse authority, the powers of the Minister under tlus regulation shall not be exercised except with the consent of that authority.

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CIML AMATION (AIR NA MGATION) REGULATIONS, 1995

PART X- General

77. An aircraft registered in a Contracting State other than Jamaica or a foreign country shall not take on board or discharge any passengers or cargo in Jamaica, being a passenger or cargo carried for hre or reward, except in accordance with a licence or a permit granted under Parl I1 or Part 111 of the Civil Aviation (Air Transport Licensing) Regulations, 1966.

78. An aircraft registered in a Contracting State other than Jamaica or in a foreign country shall not fly over Jamaica for the purpose of aerial photography or aerial survey (whether or not iure or reward is gwen or promised in respect of the flight or the purpose of the .flight) or for the purpose of any other form of aerial work, except in accordance with a permit granted to the operator or charterer of the aircraft under Parl I11 of the Civil Aviation (Air Transport Licensing) Regulations, 1966 and in accordance with any conditions to which such permission may be subject.

7 9 . 4 1) This regulation applies -to--

(a) an aircraft registered in Jamaica; or

(6) any other aircraft (including an aircraft that is unregistered) that is at the relevant time operated by an operator whose principal place of business or permanent address is in Jamaica.

(2) The operator or the commander of an aircraft referred to in paragraph (1) which is being flown over any foreign counm shall not allow that aircraft to be used for a purpose which is prejudicial to the security, public order or public health of or to the safety of air navigation of that country.

(3) A person does not contravene paragraph (2) if he neither knew nor suspected that the aircraft was being used or was to be used for the purpose referred to in that paragraph.

(4) The operator or the commander of an aircraft referred to in paragraph (1) which is being flown over a foreign country shall comply with any hrections given by the appropriate aeronautical authorities of that country-

(a) whenever the flight is required to be authorized by that foreign country and it is not so authorized; or

(6) whenever there are reasonable grounds for the appropriate aeronautical authorities to believe that the aircraft is bcing or will be used for a purpose which is prejudicial to the security, public order or public health of or to the safety of air navigation of that country,

unless the lives of persons on board or the safety of the aircraft would thereby bc endangered.

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CIML A MA TION (AIR NA MGATION) REGULATIONS, 1995

(5) A person aoes not contravene paragraph (4) if he neither knew nor suspected that directions were being given by the appropriate aeronautical authorities of thecountry being overflown.

(6) The requirements in paragraphs (2) and (4) do not affect any other obligation imposed by law, including the law of the foreign country to comply with a direction given by the appropriate aeronautical authority of that foreign country.

(7) In this regulation "appropriate aeronautical authority" includes any person, whether a member of the country's military or civil authority, authorized under the law of the foreign country to issue directions to aircraft flying over that country.

80. - 84. [Repealed by L.N. 134/2004]

penalties. 85-41) [Repealed by L.N. 134/2004]

(2) [Repealed by L.N. 134/2004]

(3) Where a person is charged with contravening a provision of these Regulations by reason of his having been a member of the flight crew of an air& on a flight for the purpose of public transport of aerial work the flight shall be treated (without prejudice to the liability of any other person under these Regulations) as not having been for that purpose if he proves that he neither knew nor had reason to know that the flight was for that purpose.

(4) [Repealed by L.N. 134/2004]

(5) [Repealed by L. N. l34/2OO4]

(6) [Repealed by L. N. 134/2004]

86. - 94. [Repealed by L.N. 134/2004]

lThe inclusion or this page is authorized by L.N. 18d20081

CIWL A KMTION (AlR NA WATION) REGULATIONS, 1995

FIRST SCHEDULE TO TwELFrH SCHEDULE - [Repealed by LN. l34/2Oq

THIRTEENTHSCHEDULE (Regulation 64)

Rules of the Air andAir Tr@c Control

1. - 13. [Repealed by L.N. 134/2004]

14.+1) A captive balloon or kite while flying at night at a height exceeding 60 metres above the surface shall display lights as f o l l o w s and btes.

(a) a group of two steady lights consisting of a white light placed 4 metres above a red light, both being of at least five candela and showing in all directions, the white light being placed not less than 5 metres or more than 10'metres below the basket, or if there is no basket, below the lowest part of the balloon or kite;

(b) on the mooring cable, at intervals of not more than 300 metres measured from the group of lights referred to in sub-paragraph (a), groups of two lights of the colour and power and in the relative positions specified in that sub-paragraph, an4 if the lowest group of lights is obscured by cloud, an additional group below the cloud base; and

(c) on the surface, a group of three flashing lights arranged in a horizontal plane at the apexes of a triangle, approximately equilateral, each side of which measures at least 25 metres, one side of the triangle shall be approximately at right angles to the horizontal projection of the cable and shall be deiimited by two red lights; the third light shall be a green light so placed that the triangle encloses the object on the surface to which the balloon or kite is moored

(2) A captive balloon while flying by day at a height exceeding 60 metres above the surface shall have anached to its mooring cable at intervals of not more than 200 metres measured !iom the basket, or, if there is no basket, !iom the lowest part of the balloon, tubular streamers not less that 40 centimetres in diameter and 2 metres in length, and marked with alternate bands of red and white 50 centimetres wide.

(3) Akite flown in the circumstances referred to in paragraph (2) shall have attached to its m h i n g cable either-

(a) tubular streamers as specified in paragraph (2); or

(b) at intervals of not more than 100 metres measured &om the lowest part of the kite, streamers of not less that 80 centimetres long and 30 centimetres wide at their widest point and marked with alternate bands of red and white 10 centimetres wide.

. 15.+1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), an airship while flying at nights shall display the hhm following lights-

(a). a steady white light of at least five candela showing through angles of 110" &om dead ahead to each side in the horizontal plane;

(b) a steady green light of at least five candela showing to the &board side through an angle of 110" &om dead ahead in the horizontal plane;

(c) a steady red light of at least five candela showing to the port side through an angle of 1 lo0 40m dead ahead in the horizontal plane;

(4 a steady white light of at least five candela showing through angles of 70' &om dead astern to each side in the horizontal plane; and

(e) an anti-collision light.

lThe inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18~/2008]

CIVIL A VIA TION (AIR NA VIGATION) REGULATIONS, 1995

T~URTEENTH SCHEDULE, cont 'd. I i (a) the white lights referred to in paragraph (1) (a) and (4;

(2) An airship while flying at night shall display, if it is not under command, or has voluntarily stopped its engines, or is being towed, the following steady lights-

I

I I

(c) if the ahhip is making way but not otherwise, the green and red lights referred in paragraph (1 (b) and (4:

(b) two red lights, each of at least five candela and showing in all directions suspended below the control car so that one is at least 2 metres above the other and at least 8 metres below the wntrol car, and

Provided that an airship while picking up its moorings, notwithstanding that it is not under command, shall display only the lights specified in paragraph (1).

I I

I I I

(3) An airship, while moored within Jamaica by night, shall display the following steady lights-

(a) when moored to a mooring mast, at or near the rear a white light of at least five candela showing in all diedions;

(b) when moored otherwise than to a mooring rnast-

(i) a white light of at least five candela showing through angles of 110' f h n dead ahead to each side in the horizontal plane;

(ii) a white light of at least five candela showing through angles of 70' from dead astern to each side in the horizontal plane.

(4) An airship while flying by day, if it is not under anmnand, or has voluntarily stopped its engines, or is being towed, shall display two black balls suspended below L e control car so thst one is at least 4 metres above the other and at least 8 metres below the control car.

(5) For the purposes of this rule-

(a) an airship shall be deemed not to be under command when it is unable to execute a m a n o m e which it may be required to execute by or under these Rules;

(b) an airship shall be deemed to be making way when it is not moored and is in m o t h relative to L e air.

[The inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18*120081

CIWL A WATION (AIR NA WGATION) REGUUTIONS, 1995

M T E E N T H SCHEDULE, con? 'd. '

16. - 47. [Repealed by L.N. 134/2004.]

FOURTEENTH SCHEDULE (Regulations 9(3) (iii), 11(3), 6(a#iii), 14, 27(l)(c), 28(4), 29(1), 36,73 and 80(1))

1. - 11. [Repealed by L.N. 134/2004.]

12. With reference to regulation 74, the conditions under which noise and vibration may be caused Noise an* vih-

by aircraft (including military aircraft) on Govemment aerodromes, licensed or on aerodromes at ~ ~ ~ d , ~ ~ whickthe manufacture, repair or maintenance of aircraft is canied out by persons carrying on 'drome business as manufacturers and repairers of aircraft, shall be as follows, that is to say, that, whether in the course of the manufacture of the aircraft or othenvise-

(a) the aircraft is taking off or landing or

(b) the aircraft is moving on the ground or water; or

(c) the engines are being operated in the aircraft-

(i) for the purpose of enswingtheir satisfactory performance;

(ii) for the purpose of bringing them to a proper temperature in preparation for, or at the end of, a flight; or

(iii) for the purpose of ensuring that the instruments, accessories or other components of the aircraft are in a satisfactory condition.

13. - 16. [Repealed by LN. N.34/2004.]

SCHEDULE- [Repealed by LN. 134/2004.]

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C I V I L A VIATION

THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

ARRANGEMENT OF REGULATIONS

Citation. Commencement. Applicable international.convention requirements. ~nter~retation.

PART I. Enforcement ofthese Regulations

Applicability, military aircraft exemption Provisional or emergency decision of Authority. Revocation, suspension and variation of certain aviation document. Revocation, suspension or variation of permits. Contraventions, defences and penalties. Appeals procedure.

PART 11. Flight Safety Division

Establishment and functions of the Flight Safety Division. Delegation of powers. Inspector credentials. Possession of credentials. Authorized person's powers and duties. Access and inspection. Power to inspect and copy. Production of documents and records. Power to prevent aircraft flying.

PART I I I. Reports, Documents and Records

Mandatory reporting. Documents to be carried.

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CIVIL A VIATION

PART 111. Reports, Documents and Records, contd.

22. Preservation of documents.

23. Offences in relation to documents atid records.

PART IV. Registration and Marking ofAircraJ

24. Aircraft to be registered.

25. Registration of aircraft.

26. Nationality and registration marks.

PART V. Airworthiness ofAircraJ

27. Type certificate and airworthiness codes.

28. Certification of Airworthiness.

29. Airworthiness directives, modifications and repairs.

30. Continued airworthiness.

3 1. Aircraft records.

32. Inspection, overhaul, repair, replacement and modification.

3 3. Approval of maintenance organizations.

34. Logbooks.

35. Aircraft weight standard.

PART VI. Aircraff Instruments and Equipment

36. Instruments and equipment.

37. Radio equipment of aircraft.

38. Minimum equipment requirements.

39. Required instruments and equipment.

PART VII. Personnel Licensing

40. Personnel licensing approvals.

41. Validity of licences.


C M L A VIATION

PART VII. Personal Licensing, contd.

42. Instruction in flying.

43. Aircraft maintenance engineer licences.

44. Grant, renewal and effect of flight crew licences.

45. Pilot or flight engineer's licence.

46. Airman medical certificate.

47. Validation of licences.

48. Personal flying logbook.

49. Approval of training organizations.

PART VIU. Operation ofAircrafl

50. Careless aircraft operation action.

5 1. Authority of pilot in command.

52. Interference with a crew member.

53. Applicable aircraft requirements.

54. Applicable flight crew requirements.

55. Crew duties and responsibilities.

56. All passenger carrying operations.

57. Flight planning preparation.

58. Applicable flight rules.

59. Operations in controlled flight

PART IX. Aerial Work

60. Aerial work activity

6 1. Issue of aerial application certificates.

62. Towing, picking up or raising of persons or articles.

63. Dropping of animals and articles.

64. Dropping of persons.

65. Aerial photography or survey from aircraft.

66. Exhibitions of flying, races or contests.

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PART X. Commercial Air Transport Operations

67. Issue of air operator's certificate.

68. Initial certification required.

69. Continued compliance.

70. Air& authorized.

7 1. Security requirements.

72. Maintenance requirements.

73. Passenger requirements.

74. Qualified personnel.

75. Crew fatigue.

76. Flight release requirements.

77. Mass and balance and performance.

PART XI. Carriage of Dangerous Goods

78. Shipping and acceptance of dangerous goods.

79. Munitions of war.

PART X I . General

80. Accident reporting and investigation.

81. Fees.

82. Validation of documents.

83. Extra territorial effect of these Regulations.

84. Application to aircraft not registered in Jamaica.

85. Waivers.

86. Deviations.

87. Exceptions.

88. Power to prohibit or restrict flying.

89. Ultra-small aircraft.

90. Transitional provisions.

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C I V L AVATION

PART XIII. Aerodromes

9 1. Applicability of this Part.

92. Requirement to register aerodromes.

93. Aerodromes certificate.

94. Landing and take off in Jamaica.

95. Scheduled service and private aerodromes.

96. Application for an aerodrome.

97. Issue of aerodrome certificate.

98. Conditions for issue of aerodrome certificate.

99. Written notice of refusal.

100. Conditions to which issue of aerodrome certificate may be subject.

101. Duration of the validity of an aerodrome c e r ~ c a t e .

102. Suspended or revoked.

103. Surrender of aerodrome cerhfkate.

104. Non-transferability of an aerodrome certificate.

105. Issue of temporary aerodrome certificate.

106. Amendment of an aerodrome cemficate.

107. Aerodrome register.

108. Requirement to have an aerodrome operator's manual.

109. Contents of an aerodrome operator's manual.

110. Required form for an aerodrome operator's manual.

1 1 1. Amendment of aerodrome manual.

112. Assignment of person responsible for aerodrome manual.

113. Duty of aerodrome operator to ensure aerodrome is maintained.

114. Access to aerodrome.

1 15. Special inspections.

1 16. Warning notices.

117. Required training for aerodrome personnel.

1 18. Operation and maintenance of aerodrome.

119. Deviations from the aerodrome operator's manual.


CIVIL A WATION

PART XIII. Aerodromes, contd

120. Requirement for aerodrome data.

12 1. Functions of aerodrome operator.

122. Movement area to comply with standards.

123. Aerodrome operator required to have aerodrome markings.

124. Requirement to have signal area.

125. Aerodrome operator to have a wind direction indicator at aerodrome.

126. Requirements for visual aids for navigation.

127. Aerodrome operator to have visual approach slope indicator system installed at aerodrome.

128. Aerodrome operator to have signs installed.

129. Requirement for markers.

130. Aerodrome to have movement area of aerodrome lit.

13 1. Requirement to check lighting system.

132. Requirement equipment and installation.

133. Aerodrome emergency committee.

134. Requirements of emergency and other services at aerodrome.

13 5. Aerodrome to have aerodrome emergency plan.

136. Aerodrome operator to test the aerodrome emergency plan.

137. Requirement to conduct aerodrome serviceability inspection.

13 8. Requirement to conduct technical inspection of an aerodrome.

139. Time frame for the conduct of a technical inspection.

140. Requirement for the conduct of technical inspections.

14 1. Requirement for the planning and execution of aerodrome works.

142. Aerodrome operator shall have a safety management system.

143. Aerodrome operator to collect statistics.

144. Visual aids denoting obstacles to bmply with standards.

145. Aerodrome operator to monitor airspace around aerodrome.

146. Establishment of obstacle limitation surface for aerodrome.

147. Notice requirement for proposed construction of objects.


CIVIL A VIATION

PART XIII. Aerodromes, contd.

148. Exemption from notification.,

149. Notification time.

150. Form of notrfication.

15 1. Acknowledgement of notification.

152. Aerodrome operators to ensure obstacles are detected quickly.

153. Hazards and objects.

154. Exemptions.

155. Security.

PART XIV. Air Traflic %ontrol

156. Air -c control.

157. Flight information senlce manual.

158. Power to prohibit or restrict flying.

159. Balloons, kites, airships, gliders and parascending parachutes.

160. Publication of obstacle data.

161. Prohibition of unlicensed air traffic controllers.

162. Licensing air traffic controllers.

163. Temporary incapacity of air traffic controllers.

PART XV. Security

164. Scope and application of this Part.

165. Powers and responsibilities of the Director General.

166. Requirement to have a security programme.

167. Contents of a security programme.

168. No breach of regulations, etc., or rules, directives, etc., made under Act.

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CIVIL AVIATION


REGULATIONS (under sections 3, 5; 8 and 9)

(Made by the Minister on the 1st day December, 2004)

[Ist December, 2004.1 134'2004 2112005

17312005

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Civil Aviation Regulations, cila1ion

2004.

2. These Regulations shall come into operation on the 1st December, commenm-

2004. men1

3. For the purposes of the Civil Aviation Act and of these Regulations, Appllcable ~nternat~onal

the provisions of the Chicago Convention and the annexes thereto ,on,,n,ion

together with the standards and recommended practices established by requiremen'"

the International Civil Aviation Organization (hereinafter referred to as "ICAO) thereunder and such other internationally recognized standards and practices shall (to the extent necessary to meet Jamaica's international obligations) be adopted and applied in Jamaica.

4.--( 1) In these Regulations, unless the context otherwise requires- Interpretation

"aerial work" means an aircraft operation in which an aircraft is flown only for specialized services such as agriculture, construction, photographing, surveying, observation and patrol, search and rescue, aerial advertisement if valuable consideration is given or promised in respect of the business or purpose of the flight;

"aerodrome" means any area of land or water designed, equipped, set apart or commonly used for affording facilities for the landing, manoeuvering and departure of aircraft and includes any area or space, whether on the ground, on the roof of a building or elsewhere, which is designed, equipped or set apart for affording facilities for the landing, manoeuvering

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C l V l L AVIATION

and departure of aircraft capable of descending or climbing vertically, but shall not include any area the use of which for affording facilities for the landing and departure of aircraft has been abandoned and has not been resumed;

"aerodrome operating minima" in relation to the operation of an aircraft at an aerodrome means the cloud ceiling and runway visual range for take off, and the decision height or minimum descent altitude, runway visual range and visual reference for landing, which are the minimum for the operation of that aircraft at that aerodrome;

"AIC" means Aviation Information Circular;

"AIP" means Aeronautical Information Publication;

LLairman" means any person licensed, or otherwise directly or indirectly authorized by the Authority to perform .a service relating to aircraft flight operations or aircraft maintenance and includes a pilot, flight attendant, an aircraft maintenance engineer, and a flight dispatcher;

"airman licence" means any licence issued to an airman under these Regulations;

"AOC" means an Air Operator Certificate, namely, a certificate issued by the Authority or the competent authority of another State authorizing the holder to conduct flight operations for remuneration, hire or valuable consideration;

"AOC holder" means the person or entity to which the AOC has been issued;

"approach to landing" means that portion of the flight of the aircraft, when approaching to land, in which it is descending below a height of 300 metres (1000 feet) above the relevant specified decision height or specified minimum descent altitude;

"appropriate aeronautical radio station" means, in relation to an aircraft, an aeronautical radio station serving the area in which the aircraft is for the time being;

"appropriate air traffic control unit" means, in relation to an aircraft,

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THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004 36.0 1

the air traffic control unit serving the area in which the aircraft is for the time being;

"Authority" means the Civil Aviation Authority established under section 6 of the Act and includes any member or officer of the Authority or any public officer in relation to any function of the Authority delegated to the member, officer or public officer pursuant to the Act;

"authorized person" means any person authorized by the Minister, the Authority or the Director-General either generally or in relation to a particular case or class of cases, to act in hrtherance of the provisions of these Regulations, and references to a person authorized by the Minister include references to the holder for the time being of any office designated by the Minister;

"cargo" includes mail and animals;

"Certificate of Airworthiness" means the airworthiness certificate issued by the Authority in accordance with the Fifth Schedule, m h

Schedule after an inspection of an aircraft and its maintenance records, which confirms that at the time of issue the aircraft is in conformance with its type certificate and is being maintained in accordance with a maintenance programme approved by the Authority, and includes any validation thereof and any flight, manual, performance standard or other docu-

. - ment, whatever its title, incorporated by reference in that certificates;

"certificate of release to service" means the ently in an aircraft's Technical Logbook, or Journey Log, duly signed by an Aircraft Maintenance Engineer, that certifies that the work performed on an aircraft has been performed in accordance with the applicable Civil Aviation Regulations and that the aircraft is therefore serviceable and fit for flight;

"Class A airspace", "Class B airspace", "Class C airspace", "Class D airspace", "Class E airspace", "Class F airspace", and "Class G airspace" means airspace respectively notified as such pursuant to these Regulations and in accordance with annex 11 of the Chicago Convention;

-- -

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"ceiling" in relation to an aerodrome means the vertical distance from the elevation of the aerodrome to the lowest part of any cloud visible from the aerodrome which is sufficient to obscure more than one-half of the sky so visible;

"commercial air transport" means an operation which involves the carriage by air of passengers or cargo for remuneration, or hire;

"competent authority" means in relation to ~a&ica, the Authority and in relation to any other state the authority responsible under the law of that state for promoting the safety of civil aviation;

"Contracting State" means a state that is a party to the convention;

"controlled aerodrome" means an aerodrome at which an air traffic control dervice is operating;

"controlled airspace" means an airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided in accordance with the airspace classification as specified in the Aeronautical Information Publication (namely, "AIP") Jamaica;

"convention" means the Chicago Convention;

"crewmember" means any person required to perform duties on an aircraft in flight;

"dangerous goods" includes articles or substances which are capable of posing a risk to health, safety, property or the environment when transported by air and which are classified according to the International Civil Aviation Organization's technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air;

"Director of Flight Safety7' means a person appointed by 'the Director General for the purposes of managing the resources relevant to regulation 11;

"flight" and "to fly", in relation to an aircraft, shall be construed in accordance with paragraph (2);

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THE CII,7L AI'IATION REGULATIOA'S. 2004 3 7

"flight crew", in relation to an aircraft, means those members of the crew of the aircraft who respectively undertake to act as pilot and flight engineer of the aircraft;

"flight simulator" means apparatus by means of which flight conditions in an aircraft are simulated on the ground; *

"general aviation operation" means any aircraft flight operation other than for the purpose of business of commercial air transport or aerial work;

"ICAO" means . the International Civil Aviation Organization established under the Chicago Convention;

"licence" includes any certificate of competency or certificate of validity issued with the licence or required to be held in connection with the licence by the law of the state in which the licence is granted;

"logbook", in the case of an aircraft logbook, engine logbook, variable pitch propeller logbook, technical logbook (journey logbook) or personal flying logbook, includes a record kept either in a book, or by any other means approved by the Authority in the particular case;

"maximum total weight authorized" or "MCTOW" or maximum certificated take-off weight", in relation to an aircraft, means the maximum total weight of the aircraft and its contents at which the aircraft may take off anywhere in the world, in the most favorable circumstances in accordance with the certificate of airworthiness in force in respect of the aircraft;

"military aircraft" means the naval, army or air force aircraft of any country and includes any aircraft in respect of which there is in force a certificate issued by the Authority that the aircraft is to be treated for the purposes of these Regulations as a military aircraft;

"night" means the period of time between half an hour after sunset and half an hour before sunrise, where sunset and sunrise are determined at surface level;

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THE CII'IL Ak'lATlON REGULATIONS. 22004

"NOTAMs" means notices to airmen;

"notified" means that the information in question has been published in any of the following publications for the time being in force and issued in Jamaica, whether before or after the 1st of December 2004, namely, NOTAMs (notices to airmen), AIPs, or such other official publications so issued for the purpose of enabling any of the provisions of these Regulations to be complied with;

"Operator" shall be construed in accordance with paragraph (4);

"parascending parachute" means a parachute which is towed by cable in such a manner as to cause it to ascend;

"passenger" means on a flight a person other than a crew member;

"PIC (pilot in command)" means the pilot assigned by an aircraft's owner or operator, as responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft during flight time and there can only be one PIC on a given flight;

"pressurized aircraft" means an aircraft provided with the ability to maintain in any designated compartment a pressure greater than that of the surrounding atmosphere;

"record" includes-

(a) any written entry in a document;

(b) any disc, tape, sound-track or other electronic device in which sounds or signals are embodied so as to be capable (with or without the aid of some other instrument) of being reproduced therefrom;

(c) any film, tape or other electronic device in which visual images are embodied so as to be capable (as aforesaid) of being reproduced therefrom; and

(4 any photograph, drawing or map,

and any reference to a copy of a record includes, in the case of a record falling within-

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THE CIWL AVIATION REGUL.4 TIONS. 2004 3 9

(i) paragraph (6) of this definition, a transcript of the sounds or signals-embodied therein;

(ii) paragraph (c) only of this definition, a still reproduction of the images embodied therein,

(iii) paragraphs (6) and (c) such a transcript together with such a still reproduction;

"replacement" in relation to any part of an aircraft or its equipment includes the removal and replacement of that part whether or not by the same part, and whether or not any work is done on it; but does not include the removal and replacement of a part which is designed to be removable solely for the purpose of enabling another part to be inspected, repaired, remolred or replaced or cargo to be loaded;

"second in command, "SIC" or "Co-pilot" in relation to an aircraft means a pilot who in performing his duties as such is subject to the direction of another pilot carried in the aired-; but excludes a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight instruction;

"to l and in relation to aircraft includes alighting on the water;

"valuable consideration" means the exchange of services, goods, equipment, or money.

(2) An aircraft shall be deemed to be in flight from the moment when after the embarkation of its crew for the purpose of take off, it first moves under its own power, until the moment when it next come to rest after landing and the expressions "a flight", "to fly" and "flight time" shall be construed accordingly.

(3) Every person employed or engaged on an aircraft in flight in the business of the aircraft shall be deemed to be a crew member thereof.

(4) References in these Regulations to the Operator of an aircraft are, for the purposes of the application of any provision of these Regu- lations in relation to any particular aircraft, references to the person who at the relevant time has operational control of that aircraft.

(5) A power to issue directions under these Regulations shall include the power to make different provisions with respect to Merent classes of aircraft, aerodromes, persons or property and with respect to different circumstances and with respect to different parts of Jamaica and to make


Applicabilily, m i l i~nry aircraft exemption


such incidental and supplementary provisions as are necessary or expedient for carrying out the purposes of these Regulations.

(6) For the purpose of these Regulations,

(a) "instrument" means a document issued by the Government, the Minister, the Authority or the Director General as the case may be and includes any regulations, orders, directives, instructions, manuals, flight safety notifications, rules, or other requirements, any notice and any aviation document logbook record or other document;

(b) "instruments" means aircraft components used by the flight crew for the purpose of flight and navigation.

PART I. Enforcement of these Regulations

5.--(I) Subject to paragraphs (I), (3) and (4) these Regulations apply, in respect of aviation, to all-

(a) persons, aeronautical products and items in Jamaica that may affect aviation safety and security including manuals, documents, appliances, lights located at or around airports, signs, fences, air navigation facilities, electronic and communication devices and firearms;

(b) persons outside Jamaica who hold Jamaican aviation documents; and

(c) Jamaican aircraft and passengers and crewmembers thereon even when outside Jamaica.

(2) Where any person is responsible for an act or omission which would constitute an offence if it had taken place in Jamaica then if such person is-

(a) a citizen of Jamaica, and the act or omission occurred-

(i) on board a Jamaican aircraft at any place outside Jamaica; (ii) on board any foreign aircraft to which he does not belong;

or

(b) not a citizen of Jamaica, and the act or omission occurred at any place outside Jamaica,

and that person is found within the jurisdiction of any court in Jamaica which would have had cognizance of the offence if it had been committed on board a Jamaican aircraft within the limits of its ordinary jurisdiction within Jamaica, that court shall have power to try the offence as if it had been so committed.

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THE CIVIL A VIATION REGULATIONS, 2004 4 1

(3) Save as otherwise expressly provided for in a lease agreement approved pursuant to Part X and the Twelfth Schedule hereof, these z;;ze Regulations apply to a foreign registered aircraft leased and operated by a Jamaican operator.

(4) Except for the applicable airspace and air traffic control provisions of PART XIV and the relevant Schedule, these Regulations do not apply to military aircraft, and military personnel, including air& and members of a visiting force while operating under the authority of the Minister responsible for the Jamaican Defence Force.

6 . 4 1 ) In accordance with its powers under the Act or under these R O W I ~

Regulations or any order made by the Minister the Authority may, if it thinks :Gzsv fit, provisionally issue an instruction to take action to enforce any regulations AuLhmv that have been contravened, including but not limited to-

(a) reexamination and re-inspection for origmal certification basis or competence;

(b) assessment of a pecuniary penalty for contravention of the requirements of a regulation or Schedule;

(c) disapproval, suspension or variation an aviation document; (4 revocation, suspension or variation of a certificate, licence

or permit; and

(e) the prevention of flying.

(2) A person provisionally found by the Authority to be in contiavention of these Regulations and subject to civil action that may result in the suspension of their aviation documents, issued under these Regulations, may elect to accept a provisional decision by the Authority to close the matter.

(3) A person provisionally found by the Authority to be in contravention of these Regulations and subject to civil proceedings that may result in the assessment of pecuniary penalties pursuant to an order of the Minister made under section 20A of the Act, may pay a pecuniary penalty assessed by the Authority.

(4) Where a person has-

(a) elected, pursuant to paragraph (2), to accept a provisional decision; or

(b) paid a penalty pursuant to paragraph (3),

then the investigation and all further civil proceedings regarding the alleged contravention of the relevant regulations will be closed without prejudice.

(5) A person provisionally found by the Authority to be in contra-

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THE CIUL A VIA TION REGULA TIONS. 2004

vention of these Regulations and subject to civil proceedings that may result in the assessment of pecuniary penalties or suspension or revocation of any certificates, licences or permits issued under these Regulations, may elect to surrender these documents and such action on the part of that person shall close the investigation.

Revocahonsuspen- 7 . 4 1 ) The Authority may. if it thinks fit provisionally suspend or vary slon and vanahon o~ce.,alnavlallon any aviation documents issued, granted or having effect under these document Regulations (other than those to which regulation 8 applies). pending inquiry

into or consideration of the case.

(2) The Authority may, on sufficient ground being shown to its satisfaction after due inquiry, revoke, suspend or vary any such aviation documents.

(3) The holder or any person having the possession or custody of an aviation document which has been revoked, suspended or varied under these Regulations shall surrender it to the Authority within a reasonable time after being required to do so by the Authority.

(4) The breach of any condition subject to which any aviation document, other than a licence issued in respect of an aerodrome, has been granted or issued, or which has effect under these Regulations shall, in the absence of provision to the contrary in the document, render the document invalid during the continuance of the breach.

(5) Notwithstanding paragraph (I), a flight manual, performance standard or other document incorporated by reference in the certificate of ~ airworthiness may be varied on sufficient ground being shown to the satisfaction of the Authority, whether or not after due inquq.

Revocabq 8 . 4 1 ) Based on the surveillance and recommendations of an authorized suspension or v,,,,atlono~ person, and subject to the prwisions of this regulation, the Authority or the pemllts Director General may revoke, suspend or vary (whether provisionally or

definitively) any permit to which this regulation applies.

(2) Subject to paragraph (3), the Authority or Director General may exercise powers under paragraph (1) only after n o w n g the permit holder of his intention to do so and after examining the particular case.

(3) If, by reason of the urgency of the matter, it appears to the Authority or the Director General to be necessary, the Authority or the Director General may provisionally suspend or vary a permit to which this regulation applies without prior compliance with the requirements of paragraph (2); but he shall in any such case comply with those requirements as soon thereafter as is reasonably practicable.


THE CIYIL A VIA TION REGUU TIONS, 2004 43

(4) In exercise of the powers under paragraph (3) the Authority or the Director General, as the case may be, shall after examining the particular matter, either-

(a) revoke the provisional suspension or variation of the penniq or

(b) substitute therefor-

(i) a definitive revocation;

(ii) a definitive suspension, which may be for the same or a different period as the provisional suspension (if any); or

(iii) a definitive variation, which may be in the same or different terms as the provisional variation (if any).

(5) The powers vested in the Authority or Director General by paragraph (1) or paragraph (3) may be exercised whenever, and whether or not by reason of anytlung done or omitted to be done by the permit-holder or otherwise connected with the permit-holder, it appears necessary or expedient that the permit-holder should not enjoy, or should no longer enjoy, the rights conferred on him by a permit to which this regulation applies or should enjoy them subject to such limitations or qualifications as the Authority or Director General, as the case may be, may determine and without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing, the Authority or the Director General may exercise those powers if it appears to the Authority or the Director General that-

the person to whom the permit was granted has committed a breach of any condition to which it is subject;

any agreement between the Government of Jamaica and the Government of any other country in pursuance of which or in reliance on which the permit was granted is no longer in force or that that other Government has committed a breach thereoc

the person to whom the permit was granted, or the other Government or the aeronautical authorities of the counay cowerned-

(i) have acted in a manner which is inconsistent with or prejudicial to the operation in good faith, and according to its object and purpose, of any such agreement as aforesaid;

(ii) or have engaged in unfair, discriminatory or restrictive practicesto the prejudice of-

(A) the holder of a licence granted under regulation 6 of the Civil Aviation (Air Transport Licensing) Regulations 1966; or

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THE CII/III A IrlATION REGULA TIONS. 2204

(B) the holder of a permit granted under regulation 23 of the aforesaid Regulations in his operation of air services to or from points in the country concerned; or .

(d) the person to whom the permit was granted, having been granted it as a person designated by the Government of a country other than Jamaica for the purposes of any such agreement as aforesaid,

is no longer so designated or the person has so conducted himself, or that such circumstances have arisen in relation to him, as to make it necessaq or expedient to disregard or qualify the consequences of h s being so designated.

(6) The permit-holder or any person having the possession or custody of any permit which has beeri revoked, suspended or varied whether provisionally or definitively under this regulation shall surrender it to the Authority within a reasonable time of being required to do so.

(7) The breach of any condition subject to which any' ptrmit to which this regulation appli6s has been granted shall render the permit invalid during the continuance of the breach.

(8) The permits to which tlus regulation applies are permits issued by the Authority or Director General under the Civil Aviation (Air Transport Licensing) Regulations, 1966 as amended from time to time and any approvals or authorizations of, or consents to, any matter which the Authority has granted, or is deemed to have granted, in pursuance of a pennit which he has so granted.

(9) References in this regulation to the "permit-holder" are references to the person to whom any permit to which this regulation applies has been granted or is deemed to have been granted.

(10) For the purposes of paragraphs (1) and (2) of this regulation the Director General or any authorized person may enter upon and inspect any air& and any documents of the permit holder.

(1 1) The relevant provisions in Schedules 5, 10, 13, 14, 15 and 18 shall apply to an inspection under paragraph (10).

~mhavenhons, 9. -(I) If any provision of these Regulations or any directions thereunder defences and penalas are contravened in relation to an aircraft; the Operator of that aircraft and the

pilot in command thereof shall (without prejudice to the liability of any other person under these Regulations for that contravention) and subject to paragraph (2) be deemed for the purposes of the following provisions of this regulation to have contravened that provision.

(2) Liability under paragraph (1) s'hall not apply to an operator or PIC who proves that the act or omission, which would otherwise have been a contravention-

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THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004 ,

(a) occurred without his consent or connivance and that he exercised all due diligence to prevent the contravention; and

(6) was due to any cause not avoidable with the exercise of reasonable care by that person.

(3) Where a person is charged with contravening any regulation or any relevant Schedule by reason of his having been a crewmember of an aircraft on a flight for the purpose of commercial air transport or aerial work the flight shall be treated (without prejudice to the liability of any other person under these Regulations) as not having been for that purpose if he proves that he neither knew nor suspected that the flight was for that purpose.

(4) If any person contravenes these Regulations or the applicable Schedules, not being a provision referred to in paragraph (5) or (6), he shall be guilty of an offence and liable on summary conviction before a Resident Magistrate to a fine not exceeding five hundred thousand dollars or imprisonment with or without hard labour for a term not exceeding three years for each offence and for each flight while the offence continues, or to both such fine and imprisonment.

(5) Any person who contravenes any provision specified in Part A of the Second Schedule shall be guilty of an offence and liable on summary second

Schedule conviction before a Resident Magistrate to a fine not exceeding two hundred thousand dollars or to imprisonment with or without hard labour for a term not exceeding six months for each offence and each flight while the offence continues, or to both such fine and imprisonment.

(6) Any person who contravenes any provision specified in Part B of the Second Schedule shall be guilty of an offence and liable on summary conviction before a Resident Magistrate to a fine not exceeding four hundred thousand dollars or to imprisonment with or without hard labour for a term not exceeding one year for each offence and each flight while the offence continues, or to both such fine and imprisonment.

(7) Any person who without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with any directive given to him under any provision of these Regulations or directions made thereunder shall be deemed for the purposes of these Regulations to have contravened that provision and where no other penalty is provided is liable-

(a) on summary conviction in a Resident Magistrate's Court to a fine not exceeding five hundred thousand dollars or to imprisonment with or without hard labour for a term not exceeding one year, or to both such fine and imprisonment;

(6) on conviction on indictment in a Circuit Court t o -

(i) a fine noi exceeding one million dollars; (ii) imprisonment with or without hard labour for a term not

exceeding five years; or (iii) to both such fine and imprisonment.


46 THE C I U L A U A TION REGULA TIONS, 2004

Appeals procedure 10. A person aggrieved by a decision of the tribunal under section 25 of the Act may appeal against that decision to the Court of Appeal.

PART 11. Flight Safety Division Esoabhshment and funmom of the 11.-(1) The Authority shall establish a Flight Safety Division within nlBhtsafety the Authority, and shall assign thereto the requisite number of technically D ~ n s ~ o n

qualified Inspectors to conduct the necessary technical evaluations, inspections and investigations required to meet Jamaica's responsibilities under the convention to provide safety oversight for-

(a) registration of aircraft:

(6) airworthiness of aircraft;

(c) personnel licensing:

(6) operations of aircraft;

(e) aerial work;

V) commercial air transport;

(g) carriage of dangerous goods;

(h) accident investigation;

( i ) aviation security; and

(j) aerodromes.

Delegabon of powen

12. -41) The Minister may by order delegate any of his hct ions under the Act to the Director General of Civil Aviation or such other officer of the Authority as may be specified in the order, and thereupon or fiom such date as may be specified in the order, the Director General or other officer, as the case may be, shall have power to perform such hctions.

(2) A delegation made under subsection (1) shall be revocable by the Minister by order and no delegation shall prevent the performance of any function by the Minister.

(3) The Minister, Director General or other officer of the Authority, acting pursuant to a delegation under subsection ( I ) , where required, may, by means of Standards, Documents, Directives, Aviation Information Circulars, Airworthiness Notices, Aeronautical Information Publications, Notices to Airmen, Notices of.Non-Compliance, and other documents, develop, issue and revise instructions, directions, rules and procedures or prescribe requirements to give effect to-

(a) the provisions of the Chicago Convention and the Annexes there- to;

(6) the Standards and Recommended Practices of ICAO;

(c) the provisions of the Act and of these Regulations, relating to the operation, use, possession or maintenance of aircraft--

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THE CIWL A LMTION REGULATIONS, 2004

(i) flying in or over Jamaica; (ii) registered in Jamaica; or (iii) where operated by the holder of an AOC issued under

these Regulations. (4) The Director of Flight Safety may designate persons in the

aviation industry to function as the Flight Test Examiners or as Company Check Pilots, where such persons meet the requirements defined in the Ninth Ninthmd

Schedule and the Fourteenth Schedule. Fourteenth Schedules.

13. The Inspectors assigned to the Flight Safety Division shall by virtue ~~~~~ of their assignment, have the status of authorized persons under these Regulations, and shall each be issued a unique credential in the form of a badge accompanied by a picture identification card to serve to identifj the Inspector and to confirm his authority during the performance of his functions.

14. No person shall possess or use an Inspector's credential unless that Z$',0n0' person is-

(a) appointed by the Director General as an Inspector; and

(h) using the credential in the performance of a specific function of the Flight Safety Division.

15.-41) The Director General or any authorized person, shall have the right tzny to carry out audits or surveillance or to require any person to produce zt;zmd

documents or any other article for the purposes of these Regulations. (2) A person commits an offence if, having been required to

produce such document or article, that person-

(a) fails to produce any document or other article which is in his possession or control or to which he has access; or

(h) without lawful cause makes a statement that is false in any material par&~cular.

(3) An authorized person shall have the right to enter and inspect any aerodrome, hanger or other place (at which an aircraft is located or stored), aircraff or the premises of any organization performing tasks and senices related to aviation safety and to inspect any aircraft, aircraft equipment, components, materials, facilities, and to observe the performance of personnel or crew members for the purpose of ensuring that the provisions of the Act and these Regulations have been, or are being complicd with.

(4) Where it appears to any authorized person that an aircraft is intended or likely to be flown in such circumstances that the flight would involve an offence against these Regulations or be a cause of danger to persons in the aircraft or to persons or property on the ground. the Authority may take such action by way of detention of the aircraft or such other action necessary for the purpose of inspecting the aircraft or causing the circumstances of the

. flight to be investigated.

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THE C M L A VIA TIOhr REGUU TIONS, 2004

(5) Where an aircraft has been detained pursuant to paragraph (4) such aircraft shall not be operated until the Authority. being satisfied that these Regulations are being complied with, approves or until such modifications or repairs have been effected as the Authority considers necessary to render the aircraft fit for flight.

(6) For the purpose of exercising his responsibilities under these Regulations any authorized person shall bc issued with and carry at all times the credential issued under regulation 13.

(7) No person shall wilhlly obstruct or impede any authorized person acting in the exercise of his powers or the performance of his duties under these Regulations.

Access and mpectlon 16. -(I) The Authority may cause such evaluations, inspections, observa-

tions, investigations, tests. experiments. and test flights to bc made as it considers necessary for the purposes of these Regulations: and any person duly authorized by the Authority to conduct these inspections, investigations and observations may, at any reasonable time, freely inspect, observe or examine any aircraft, personnel, facilities, records or operations subject to these Regulations.

(2) The Director General or any authorized person shall, subject to paragraph (3), have the right of access at all reasonable times-

(a) to any aerodrome for the purpose of inspecting the aerodrome or any aircraft on the aerodrome or any document which he has power to demand, or for the purpose of detaining the aircraft;

(b) to any place, whether public or private, where an aircraft is located, for the purpose of inspecting the aircraft or any document he has power, under these Regulations, to demand or for the purpose of detaining the aircraft;

(c) to any aircraft, for the purpose of checking, whilst in flight, the performance of the aucraft, any of its equipment and the competency of the crew members in performance of their duties.

(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (2), the safety of commercial operations of aircraft shall not be unduly prejudiced by the exercise of the right of access under this regulation.

Power to mspect and copy

17. -41) An authorized person shall have the power to ~nspect and copy any certificate, licence, logbook, document or record which he has the power pursuant to these Regulations and any directions issued thereunder to require to be produced.

(2) No person shall obstruct, impede or otherwise interfere with the copying of the documents under paragraph (1) by or on behalf of an authorized person.


W E C M L A VLA TION REGULA TIONS, 2004 49

la-+) Each person involved or participating in an aviation activity shall, mxjucbonof doclrmatb within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by an authorized mdrecords

person, cause to be produced to that person the certificates and documents which he is required to have, carry, complete or preserve during the course of his activities, including such airmen and medical certificates, operational and maintenance manuals and records as required by these Regulations and the relevant Schedules.

(2) The holder of a licence granted or rendered valid under these Regulations shall, within a reasonable time after being requested to do so by an authorized person, cause to be produced to that person his licence, including any certificate of validation.

(3) The requirements of paragraph (2) shall be deemed to have been complied with, except in relation to licences required by these Regulations to be carried in the aircraft or kept at an aerodrome, if the licence requested is produced to the Flight Safety Division within five days after the request has been made.

19.+1) The Director General or an authorized person shall act in POWRIO

accordance with paragraph (2) if it appears that any aircraft is intended or Ezt likely to be flown- m

(a) in such circumstances that the flight would be a cause of danger to any person or property whether or not in the aircraft and in contravention of any provision of these Regulations or any directions issued thereunder; or

(b) while in a condition untit for the flighf whether or not the flight would otherwise be in contravention of any provision of these Regulations or of any directions issued thereunder.

(2) The Director General or authorized person may-

(a) direct the operator or the pilot in command of the aircraft not to permit the aircraft to make the particular flight or any other flight of such description as may be specified in the duection, until the direction has been revoked by the Authority, the Director General or any authorized person; and

(b) take such steps as are necessary to detain the aircraft.

(3) For the purposes of paragraphs (1) and (2). the Director General or any authorized person may enter upon and inspect any aircraft.

(4) If it appears to the Director General or an authorized person that any aircraft is intended or likely to be flown in such circumstances that any provision under these Regulations or provision relating to the licensing of air transport in Jamaica would be contravened in relation to the flight, the Director General or that authorized person may-

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THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGLrL4TIONS, 2004

(a) direct the operator or the pilot in command of the aircraft not to permit the aircraft to make a particular flight or any other flight of such description as may be specified in the direction until the direction has been revoked by the Authority, Director General or any authorized person; and

(b) take such steps as are necessary to detain the aircraft. (5) For the purposes of paragraphs (1). (2) and (4) the Director

General or any authorized person may enter upon any aerodrome, or any other place, where the airraft may be located and may enter and inspect such aircraft.

PART ,111. Reports, Documents and Records

Mandatory 20.41) Paragraph (2) applies to every person who- r e p m

(a) is the operator or pilot in command of an aircraft which is registered in Jamaica or a commercial air transport aircraft not registered in Jamaica but operated by the holder of an AOC issued in Jamaica;

(b) carries on the business of inspecting, manufacturing, repairing or overhauling such an aircraft, or any equipment or part thereof; or

(c) signs a release to sewice, or certif~cate of release to service in respect of such an aircraft, part or equipment.

(2) The person referred to in paragraph (1) shall make the reports to the Authority-

(a) which are specified in these- Regulations and the relevant Schedules; or

(6) upon its request for such information as is specified in a notice in writing sewed upon the person, being information which-

(i) is in this person's possession or control; and (ii) relates to a reportable occurrence which has been reported

by him or by another person to the Authority in accordance with this regulation.

(3) The reports shall-

(a) be made within such time, by such means, and shall contain such information as is so specified; and

(b) be presented in such form as the Authority may require.

(4) In this regulation "reportable occurrence" means--

(a) any incident relating to an air& mentioned in paragraph (1) or any defect in or malfunctioning of such an aircraft or any part or equipment of such an aircraft, being an incident, malfunctioning or defect endangering, or which, if not corrected, would endanger, the aircraft, its occupants, or any other person or property; and


THE CIUL A VLATION REGULA TIONS, 2004 5 1

any defect in or malfunctioning of any facility on the ground used or intended to be used for purposes of or in connection with the operation of such an aircraft, being a defect or malfunctioning endangering or which, if not corrected, would endanger, such an aircraft, its occupants or any other person or property.

(5) Subject to paragraph (2) (a), nothing in this regulation shall require a person to report any occurrence which he has reason to believe has been or will be reported by another person to the Authority in accordance with this regulation.

(6) A person shall not make any report under this regulation if he knows or has reason to believe that the report is false in any particular.

2 1 4 1 ) An aircraft shall not fly in or over Jamaica unless it carries the documents which it is required to cany under the law of the country in which tOb"""*

it is registered.

(2) An aircraft registered in Jamaica shall, when in flight, carry documents in accordance with the Tenth Schedule provided that, if the flight ,,, intended to begin and end at the same aerodrome and does not include Schedule

passage over the territory of any country other than Jamaica, the documents may be kept at that aerodrome instead of being carried in the aircraft.

2 2 4 ) A person required by these Regulations and the relevant ~ m d o n

Schedules to preserve any document or record shall continue to preserve that of d m e n k

document or record, and in the event of his death, bankruptcy, or (in the case of a company) winding up, the duty to preserve the document or record shall fall upon the personal representative of such person or company.

(2) A person assigned under these Regulations and the applicable Schedules to preserve any document or record shall continue to preserve that document or record until such time as the responsibility may be transferred to another assigned person.

23.41) A person shall not with intent to deceive- orences in relabon to use any certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption or dm,

other document issued or required by or under these Regulations which has been forged, altered, revoked or suspended, or to which he is not entitled; or

lend any certificate, licence, approval, permission, exemption or other document issued or having effect or required by or under these Regulations to, or allow it to be used by, any other person; or make any false representation for the purpose of procuririg for himself or any other person the grant, issue, renewal or variation ofany such certificate, licence, approval, permission or exemption or other document, and in this paragraph a reference to a certificate, licence, approval, permission. exemption or other document includes a copy or purported copy thereof.

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W E CIWL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

(2) A person shall not intentionally damage, dter or render illegible any logbook or other record required by or under these Regulations to be maintained or any entry made therein, or-

(a) knowingly make, or procure or assist in the making of any false entry in or material omission fiom any such logbook or record; or

(b) knowingly destroy any such logbook or record during the period for which it is required under these Regulations to.& preserved.

(3) All entries to be made in writing in any logbook or record referred to in paragraph (2) shall be made in ink or indelible pencil.

(4) A person shall not purport to issue any certificate for the purposes of these Regulations or any directions made thereunder unless he is authorized to do so under these Regulations.

(5) A person shall not issue any such certificate as aforesaid unless he is satisfied that all statements in the certificate are correct.

(6) A person commits an offence if that person-

(a) operates an aircraft without being the holder of any aviation document required to be held under these Regulations; or

(6) wilfully destroys any aviation document required to be kept under these Regulations.

(7) A person commits an offence who-

(a) with intent to deceive-

(i) uses any aviation document which has been forged, altered, revoked, or suspended, or to which he is not entitled; or

(ii) lends to any other person any aviation document issued to hm, or having effect or required by or under these Regulations, or allows it to be used by, any other person; or

(iii) makes any false representation for the purpose of procuring for himself or any other person the grant, issue, renewal or variation of any aviation document,


THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004 53

and in this paragraph a reference to an aviation document includes a copy or purported copy thereof;

(6 ) intentionally damages, alters or renders illegible any logbook or other record required by or under these Regulations to be maintained or any entry made therein;

(c) knowingly makes, or procures or assists in the making of, any false entry in or material omission from any such logbook or record;

(d) wilfully destroys any such logbook or record during the period for which it is required to be preserved;

(e ) knowingly makes in a load sheet any entry which is incorrect in any material particular, or any material omission from such a load sheet; or

u> purports to issue any certificate for the purposes of these Regulations when he is not authorized to do so.

(8) A person guilty of an offence under these Regulations is liable-

(a ) on summary conviction in a Resident Magistrate's Court to a fine not exceeding one million dollars or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding one year;

(6 ) on conviction on indictment in a Circuit Court t o -

(i) a fine not exceeding five million dollars or to;

(ii) imprisonment for a term not exceeding five years.

PART IV. Registralion and Marking of Aircrafi 2 4 . 4 1 ) An aircraft shall not fly in or over Jamaica unless it is registered ~ircraft tobe

registered. in-

(a ) Jamaica; (6 ) another Contracting State; or ( c ) another country, in relation to which there is in force an agree-ment

between the Government of Jamaica and the Government of tha: country which makes provision for the flight over Jamaica of aircraft registered in that country:

Provided that this paragraph shall not apply to any kite or captive balloon.

(2) Where an aircraft flies over Jamaica in contravention of paragraph (1 ) in such manner or circumstances that if the aircraft had been registered in Jamaica an offence against these Regulations would have been committed, the like offence shall be deemed to have been committed in respect of that aircraft.

2 5 . 4 1 ) The Authority shall, subject to the provisions of this Part, Registrationof amraft

register aircraft in Jamaica and for this purpose shall cause a register to be kept and shall record therein the particulars specified in paragraph (7).


THE C1 VIL A VIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

(2) Subject to the provisions of this regulation, an aircraft shall not be registered or continue to be registered in Jamaica if it appears to the Authority that-

(a) the aircraft is registered outside Jamaica and that such registration does not cease by operation of law upon the aircraft being registered in Jamaica;

(6) an unqualified person holds any legal or beneficial interest by way of ownership in the aircraft or any share therein pursuant to paragraph (3);

(c) it would be inexpedient in the public interest for the aircraft to be or to continue to be registeted in Jamaica; or

(6) the aircraft does not qualify for the issue of a certificate of airworthiness or flight permit in accordance with the provisions of regulation 28.

(3) The following persons and no others shall be qualified to hold a legal or beneficial interest by way of ownership in an aircraft registered in Jamaica or a share therein-

(a) the Government of Jamaica;

(6) a citizen or permanent resident of Jamaica or other such persons as the Minister shall approve;

(c) a company incorporated in Jamaica under the Companies Act and having its principal place of business in Jamaica.

(4) If any unqualified person residing or having a place of business in Jamaica holds a legal or beneficial interest by way of ownership in an aircraft, or a share therein, the Authority, upon being satisfied that the aircraft may otherwise be properly so registered, may register the aircraft in Jamaica and such person shall not cause or permit the aircraft, while it is registered in pursuance of this paragraph, to be used for the purpose of commercial air transport or aerial work.

(5) If an aircraft is sold under a contract of hire purchase, let on hire or chartered by demise to a person qualified under paragraph (3), the Authority may, whether or not an unqualified person is entitled as owner-to a legal or beneficial interest therein, register the aircraft in Jamaica in the name of the hire purchaser, lessee or charterer upon being satisfied that the aircraft may otherwise be properly so registered in accordance with this regulation, and subject to the provisions of this regulation the aircraft. may remain so registered during the continuation of the contract, lease or charter.

(6) Application for the registration of an aircraft in Jamaica shall-

(a) ' be made in writing to the Authority, and


THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULATIONS, 2004 5 5

(b) include or be accompanied by such particulars and evidence relating to the aircraft and the ownership and contract lease or charter thereof as the Authority may require, in accordance with the Third Schedule, to enable it to determine whether the aircraft i:;:ule may be properly registered in Jamaica and to issue the certificate referred to in paragraph (8).

(7) Upon receiving an application for the registration of an aircraft in Jamaica and being satisfied that the aircraft may properly be so registered, the Authority shall register the aircraft, wherever it may be, and shall include in the register of aircraft the following particulars-

(a) the nationality mark of the aircraft, and the registration mark assigned to it by the Authority;

(b) the name of the constructor of the aircraft and its designation;

(c) the serial number of the aircraft; , . (4 the name and address of each person who is entitled as owner to

a legal interest in the aircraft or a share therein, or in the case of an aircraft which is the subject of a contract of hire-purchase, letting on hire, or charter by demise, the name and address of the hire-purchaser, lessee, or charterer;

(e) an indication that the aircraft is registered pursuant to either paragraph (4) or (5) where applicable; and

V) the number of the certificate [of registration] (if any). (8) The Authority shall furnish to the person in whose name the

aircraft is registered (hereinafter in this regulation referred to as "the registered owner") a certificate of registration, which shall include the particulars specified in paragraph (7) and the date on which the aircraft was registered.

(9) A certificate of registration shall be regarded as a record only of the particulars therein and nothing in these Regulations shall-

(a) constitute the certificate of registration to be a deed of title nor evidence of entitlement to any interest in the aircraft; and

(b) be deemed to permit the recording on the certificate of registration of any mortgage, charge, assignment, caveat or lien against the interest in the aircraft or any parts thereof.

(10) The Authority may grant to any person qualified under paragraphs (3), (4) or ( 9 , an aircraft dealer's certificate if the Authority is satisfied that such person has a place of business in Jamaica for buying and selling aircraft.

(1 1) Subject to paragraphs (4) and (5), if at any time after an aircraft has been registered in Jamaica an unqualified person becomes entitled to a legal or beneficial interest by way of ownership in the aircraft or a share


56 THE C M L A VIA TION REGULA TIONS, 2004

therein, the registration of the aircraft shall thereupon become void and the ceruficate of registration shall forthwith be returned by the registered owner to the Authority.

(12) Any person who is the registered owner of an aircraft registered in Jamaica shall inform the Authority forthwith in writing of-

(a) any change in the particulars which were furnished to the Authority upon application being made for the registration of the aircraft;

(b) the destruction of the aircraft, or its permanent withdrawal fiom use: or

(c) in the case of an aircraft registered in pursuance of pmgraph (9, the termination of the hire purchase, the lease or the demise charter.

(13) Any person who becomes the owner of an aircraft registered in Jamaica or of a share therein shall within ten days thereof inform the Authority in writing to that effect.

(14) Subject to pmgraph (17), the Authority may, whenever it appears to be necessary or appropriate to do so for giving effect to this Part or for up dating or otherwise correcting the particulars entered on the register in relation to an aircraft-

(a) amend the register or;

(b) cancel the registration of the aircraft, and in any case it shall cancel the registration immedicately upon being satisfied that there has been a change in the ownership of the aircraft.

(15) The Authority may issue directions to adapt or modify,the foregoing provisions of this regulation as it deems necessary or e m e n t for the purpose of providing for the temporary transfer of aircraft to or from the register of aircrafts, either generally or in relation to a particular case or class of cases.

(16) In this Regulation- (a) references to an interest in an aircraft do not include references to

an interest in an aircraft to which a person is entitled only by virtue of his membership of a flying club; and

(b) the reference in pmgraph (11) to the registered owner of an aircraft includes in the case of a deceased person, his legal personal representative, and in the case of a body corporate which has been dissolved, its successor.

(17) Nothug in this regulation shall require the Authority to cancel the registration of an aircraft unless in its opinion it would be expedient in the public interest to do so.

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(18) The application mentioned in paragraph (6) shall be made on a form provided by the Authority.

(19) Where joint ownership of the aircraft is accepted by the Authority then the group of ownership shall be identified in accordance with the Third Schedule. T h ~ r d

Schedule

26.-41) An aircraft, other than aircraft permitted by or under these Nallonallty and reglaratlon

Regulations to fly without being registered, shall not fly in or over Jamaica unless it bears painted thereon or affixed thereto, in the manner required by the law of the country in which it is registered, the nationality and registration marks required by that law.

(2) The marks to be borne by aircraft registered in Jamaica shall comply with :he Third Schedule.

(3) An aircraft shall not bear any marks which purport to indicate-

(a) that the aircraft is registered in a country in which it is not registered; or

(6 ) that the aircraft is a State aircraft (within the meaning of Article 3 of the Chicago Convention) of a particular country if it is not such an aircraft, unless the appropriate authority of that country has sanctioned the bearing of such marks.

PART V. Airworthiness of Aircraft 27.-41) Any person who intends to operate an aircraft to be registered in Type

certificale Jamaica for commercial air transport or aerial work, purposes shall apply to the Authority for the issue, acceptance or validation of a Type Certificate for :Lznhiness that aircraft as provided in the Fourth Schedule and in accordance with this eo l~nh

Schedule regulation and the requirements of the Authority from time to time.

(2) An applicant for a Type Certificate for an aircraft, or for the acceptance or validation thereof, shall submit with the application detailed data identifying the airworthiness standards to which the aircraft was designed and data which describes the design, construction and performance of that aircraft.

(3) The Authority shall accept or validate a Type Certificate, in respect of any aircraft, engine or propeller that is imported into Jamaica, subject to such conditions or limitations as it shall consider appropriate and in accordance with the Fourth Schedule:

Provided that-

(a) the airworthiness authority of the State of manufacture has issued a Type Certificate on the basis of the United States Federal Aviation Regulations, the Canadian Aviation Regulations, or European Aviation Safety Agency Requirements; and

\The inclusion of this page i s authorized by L.N. 18a120081


' ( b ) the Type Certificate approval basis meets the airworthiness requirements laid down by the Authority,

and in any other case, the Authority may in its discretion accept or validate a Type Certificate that is issued by the airworthiness authority of the State of manufacture and where the Type Certificate approval basis meets the airworthiness requirements laid down by the Authority.

(4) No person shall operate an aircraft pursuant to Part X, unless that aircraft is Type-Certificated and maintained under the Airworthiness Codes of-

(a) the United States;

(b) Canada; or

(c ) the European Union.

(5) Any person who intends to operate an aircraft, registered in Jamaica, for commercial air transport or aerial work purposes shall apply to the Authority for the issue of a Certificate of Airworthiness as provided for in

F ~ n h the Fifth Schedule in accordance with this regulation and the requirements of

Schedule the Authority from time to time.

(6) It shall be an offence for a person to maintain or operate an aircraft contrary to the Type Certificate that was used in the issuance of the certificate of airworthiness.

(7) In this regulation "Type Certificate", with respect to an aircraft, engine or propeller, means a document issued by the manufacturer, and approved by the appropriate authority of the State of manufacture, or State of design, or a competent authority pursuant to paragraph (4), certifying that the type design of the aircraft, engine or propeller and of the variants specified on the Type Certificate Data Sheet, comply with the certification basis to which the certificate refers.

(8) The Type Certificate includes-

(a) the type certificate data sheet; (b) the type design;

(c) the operating limitations; and

(6) any other conditions or limitations prescribed for the aircraft engine or propeller.

Cmlficmon of 28.-(1) An aircraft shall not fly in or over Jamaica unless there is in force arnwnhmcss

in respect thereof a certificate of airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered, and any conditions subject to which the certificate was issued or rendered valid are complied with:

Provided that the foregoing prohibition shall not apply to flights, beginning and ending in Jamaica without passing over any other country, of-



(a) an aircraft flying in accordance with a Restricted Airworthiness Certificate issued pursuant to the Fifth Schedule; or Finh

Schedule.

(b) an aircraft flying in accordance with the conditions of a Flight Permit issued pursuant to the Fifth Schedule in respect of that aircraft.

(2) In the case of an.aircraft registered in Jamaica the Certificate of Airworthiness referred to in paragraph (1) shall be a certificate issued in accordance with the Fifth Schedule.

(3) The Authority shall issue in respect of any Jamaican aircraft a Certificate of Airworthiness if it meets the specifications of its Type Certificate and the Authority is satisfied that the aircraft is fit to fly having regard to-

(a) the design, construction, workmanship and materials of the aircraft (including in particular any engines fitted therein), and of any equipment carried in the aircraft which it considers necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft; and

(b) the results of any flight test, and such other tests of the aircraft as it may require.

(4) Every Certificate of Airworthiness shall specify such conditions as are, in the opinion of the Authority, appropriate to the aircraft in accordance with the Fifth Schedule and the certificate shall be issued subject to the condition that the aircraft shall be flown only for the purposes indicated on that certificate.

(5) The Authority may issue the Certificate of Airworthiness subject to such other conditions relating to the airworthiness of the aircraft-as it thinks fit.

(6) The Certificate of Airworthiness may designate the performance group of the aircraft.

(7) Subject to the provisions of these Regulations; a certificate of airworthiness or validation issued under this regulation shall remain in force for such period as may be specified on the certificate, but may be reviewed by the Authority fiom time to time to determine that the aircraft conforms to the applicable airworthiness requirements.

(8) A Certificate of Airworthiness or a certificate of validation issued in respect of an aircraft shall cease to be in force-


- - - - .--z&id-:=

THE C11'lL :I I %I Tl0.h' REGULA TIVXS. 2004

( a ) if the aircraft, or such of its equipnient as is necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft, is overhauled. repaired or modified, or if any part of the aircraft or of such equipment is removed or is replaced, otherwise than in a manner and with material of a type approved by the Authority either generally or In relation to a class of aircraft or to the particular aircraft;

( h ) until the completion of any inspection of the aircraft or of any such equipment as aforesaid, being an inspection made for the purpose of ascertaining whether the aircraft remains airworthy and-

(i) classified as mandatory by the Authority; or (ii) required by a maintenance programme approved by the

Authority in relation to that aircraft; or (c) until the completion to the satisfaction of the Authority of any

modification of the aircraft or of any such equipment as aforesaid. being a modification required by the Authority for the purpose of ensuring that the aircraft remains airworthy;

(4 until the completion of any inspection, rectification or repair made necessary as a result of any accident or incident involving the aircraft.

(9) Nothing in these Regulations shall oblige the Authority to accept an application for the issue of a Certificate of Airworthiness or validation or for the variation or renewal of any such certificate when the application is

I - I I I~ not supported by information, material and fees in accordance with the Fifth S~hcdulc Schedule and such reports from such approved persons as the Authority

may specify (either generally or in a particular case or class of cases). A ~ n v o ~ l h ~ n c s s ~ I ICCI IVCS

29.-41) Every owner or operator of a Jamaican aircraft and every holder mod~fica~mnrand of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall ensure that he receives all r e p ~ ~ r s airworthiness directives and mandatory service bulletins that affect his

aircraft and that are issued by the Authority, or by the regulatory authority having jurisdiction over the applicable Type Certificate holder pursuant to regulation 27(7).

(2) The owner or operator of a Jamaican registered aircraft and each holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall take such actions as shall be prescribed by the applicable airworthiness directives or mandatory service bulletin and shall record the details of all actions taken in the log book and other technical records of the aircraft.

(3) All mandatory or optional repairs or modifications shall be carried out on aircraft only in accordance with approved data specified and in accordance with-

(a) an applicable airworthiness directives; or (6) mandatory service bulletin.

(4) All modifications or repairs carried out on aircraft shall be subject to approval by the Authority in accordance with detailed drawings and other technical data adequate to define completely the proposed modification or repair and using approved materials, parts and processes conforming to

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THE CIT7L AL7ATIOA: REG(iLATIOh5. 2004

the aircraft rnanufacturcr's specifications and in accordance with a techrucal assessment showing compliance with an approved design standard.

(5) In h s regulation-

(a) "airworthmess drective" means a directi~re issued by the Authorih or by the applicable Type Certificate holder pursuant to regulation 27(7). that the engine. propeller or componcnt parts of an aircraft. registered in Jamaica or operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Rcgulations. shall be modified or undergo special inspections:

(h) "mandatory senlicc bulletin7' mcans an ordcr issued by thc aircraft manufacturer.

30. -(I) An aircraft regstered in Jamaica in respect of which a certificate =%,& of airworthiness is in force shall not fly unless-

the aircraff is maintained in accordance with a maintenance programme developed in accordance with the regulations applicable to the type of operation;

the required inspections of the aircrafl have been completed in accordance with the regulations applicable to the type of operation; , .

there is a flight manual (or other, approved document) carried on and available in the aircraft, in such form as shall be approved by the Authority, for the use of the flight crew containing the limitations within which the aircraft is considered airworthy, together with such additional instructions and lnformation as may be necessary to show compliance with the regulations relating to performance and for the safe operation of the aircraft.

(2) The holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations, or other operator of an aircraft, shall ensure that-

(a) an aircraft registered in Jamaica shall be maintained and periodically inspected in accordance with the requirements of the approved data and manuals issued by the manufacturer and the maintenance program issued by the manufacturer and approved by the Authority;

(b) all Airworthiness Directives and a and at dry Service ~ullet ins are complied with; and

(c) its aircraft is maintained by an organization, approved by the Authority in an airworthy condition and in accordance with the approved maintenance programme.

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THE CII'IL AVIATION REGULATIONS. 2004

E~ghlh Schedule

(3)-The approved maintenance programme referred to in paragraph (1) shall specify the occasions on which an inspection must be carried out for the purpose of issuing a certificate of release to service in accordance with these Regulations.

(4) A certificate of release to service may be issued for the purpose of this regulation only by-

(a) the holder of an aircraft maintenance engineer licence- (i) granted under these Regulations and the Eighth

Schedule, and entitling the holder to issue that certificate of release to service; or

(ii) granted under the law of a country other than Jamaica and rendered valid under these Regulations in, accordance with the ratings, privileges and limitations of the licence;

(6) a person whom the Authority has authorized to issue a certificate of release to service in a particular case, and in accordance with that authority;

(c) a maintenance organization approved by the Authority; or

(6) a person approved by the Authority as being competent to issue such a certificate of release to service, and in accordance with that approval:

Provided that, in approving a maintenance programme, the Authority may direct that a certificate of release to service relating to that programme, or to any part thereof specified in its direction, may be issued only by the holder of such a licence as is so specified.

(5) A person referred to in paragraph (4) shall not issue a certificate of release to service unless he has first verified that-

(a) maintenance has been carried out on the aircraft in accordance with the maintenance programme approved for that aircraft;

(6) inspections and modifications required by the ~uthority or by the applicable Type Certificate holder pursuant to regulation 27(7) and the applicable requirements have been completed as certified in the relevant certificate of release to service;

(c) defects entered in the technical logbook of the a i r c r a ~ in accordance with the regulations have been rectified or the rectification thereof has been deferred in accordance with procedures approved by the Authority or by the applicable Type Certificate holder pursuant to regulation 27(7); and

(d) all work done has been documented and certified in accordance with the regulations,

and for this purpose the operator of the aircraft shall make available to that person such information as is necessary.

I



(6) A certificate of release to service shall be issued in duplicate and one copy of the most recently issued certificate of release to service shall be carried in the aircraft when the regulations so require, and the other shall be kept by the operator elsewhere than in the aircraft.

(7) Subject to the provisions regarding retention of documents in this regulation and its applicable Schedules, each certificate of release to service shall be preserved by the operator of the aircraft for a period of not less than two years after the aircraft has been permanently removed from service or destroyed.

t 31.-41) An aircraft technical log shall be kept in respect of an aircraft AircraR records

registered in Jamaica or an aircraft operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations.

(2) At the end of every flight by an aircraft operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations, the pilot in cobmand shall enter in the aircraft technical log the information required under these Regulations applicable to the type of operation, and sign and date such entries.

(3) Upon the rectification of any defect which has been entered in a technical log in accordance with paragraph (2), a 'person issuing a certificate of release to service required by these Regulations in respect of that defect shall enter that information in the technical log in such a position as to be readily identifiable with the defect to which it relates. ,

(4) The aircraft technical log referred to in this regulation shall be carried in the aircraft as required by these Regulations and Schedules, and copies of the entries referred to in this regulation shall be kept on the ground:

I

Provided that, in the case of a private aeroplane or h e ~ i c d ~ t e r of which the maximum total weight authorized does not exceed 2,730 kg, if it is not reasonably practicable for the copy of the technical log to be kept on the ground the copy may be carried in the aeroplane or helicopter, as the case may be, in a container approved by the Minister for that purpose.

I

32.--(I) Subject to paragraph (2), an aircraft registered in Jamaica, in Inspeclion. overhaul.

respect of which- repair, replacement

(a) a certificate of airworthiness issued or rendered ,valid under these modification

Regulations is in force; and I

(b) the aircraft or any part of the aircraft or such of: its equipment as is necessary for the airworthiness of the aircraft has beer! overhauled, repaired, replaced, modified, maintained, or has been inspected, as the case may be, as required by these Regulations,

I

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T H E CIC7L A C'IATION REG;GULATIO.VS. 200.1

Scvcn~h Schedule

shall not fly unless there is in force a certificate of release to service issued in accordance with this regulation.

(2) Neither-

(a) equipment provided in compliance with the seventh Schedule; nor

(b) radio apparatus provided for use in an aircraft or in any survival craft carried in an aircraft, whether or not such apparatus is provided in compliance with these Regulations,

shall be installed or placed on board for use in an airhaft registered in Jamaica or operated by a holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations after being overhauled, repaired, modified or inspected, unless there is in force in respect thereof at the time when it is installed or placed on board for use, a certificate of release to service issued in acc,ordance with this regulation.

(3) A certificate of release to service shall-

(a) certify that the aircraft or any part thereof or its equipment has been overhauled, repaired, replaced, modified or maintained, as the case may be, in a manner and with materialof a type approved by the Authority either generally or in relation to a class of aircraft or the particular aircraft and shall identify the overhaul, repair, replacement, modification or maintenance to which the certificate relates and shall include particulars of the work done; or

(6) certify in relation to any inspection required by the Authority that the aircraft or the part thereof or its equipment, as the case may be, has been inspected in accordance with the requirements of the Authority and that any consequential repair, replacement or modification has been carried out.

(4) Subject to the provisions of these Regulations regarding retention of such documents, a certificate of release to service shall be preserved by the operator of the aircraft to which it relates for the period of time for which he is required to preserve the log book relating to the same part of the aircraft or to the same equipment or apparatus as the case may be.

(5) In this regulation, "repair" includes, in relation to a compass, the adjustment and compensation thereof.

I

Approval of rnalnlenancc

33.-41) An organization engaged, or intending to engage, in organmtlons Jamaica, in any stage of the design, manufacture, distribution or maintenance

of aircraft, aircraft components or aircraft materials, or in training activities associated therewith-

(a ) may apply to the Authority for a certificate of approval in respect of those activities; and

(b) shall obtain the approval of the Authority before commencing operation.

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THE CIWL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004 65

(2) A maintenance organization situated outside Jamaica shall not cany out maintenance work or modify or repair an aircraft registered in Jamaica unless approval for such work has been given by the Authority and in granting such approval the Authority may accept, in relation to the organization, the possession of a certificate of approval issued by-

(a) the manufacturer of the aircraft, aircraft components or materials; and

(b) by the competent authority of the State in which the organization is located.

(3) The Authority shall issue an AM0 certificate to an organization that makes an application in accordance with, and complies with. requirements of the Sixth Schedule regarding facilities. resources. tools, s ~ u l

equipment, data and documentation, and systems of quality control. adequate Schh'd"l'

for the activities applied for. (4) The organization shall have in place maintenance manual

approved by the Authority that details the processes, procedures and quality systems applicable to its activities.

(5) An AM0 certificate shall be in such form. be subject to such conditions and limitations including the issuance of satisfactory audit reports and contain such particulars as may be determined from time to time by the Authority.

(6) An AM0 certificate shall remain in force for such period as may be specified on the certificate. but its status may be revicwed by thc Authority from time to time to determine that the holder continues to meet the requiremens of the Sixth Schedule.

(7) In this regulation "AMO" means approvcd maintenance organization.

34.-(1) The following logbooks containing the prescribed information ~ o p b o o k

shall be kept in respect of aircraft registered in Jamaica-

(a) an aircraft logbook (or airframe logbook):

(h ) a separate logbook in respect of each enginc fitted in the aircraft: (c) a separate logbook in respect of cach variable pitch propeller

fitted to the aircraft: and

(4 a t echca l logbook (or journey log). (2) The logbooks shall includc the particulars rcspcctively specified

in the Fifth Schedule and in the case of an aircraft having a maximum total ;;'Jidde weight authorized not cscccding 2.730 kg shall bc of a typc approvcd by thc Authority.

(3) Each cntq in a logbook. othcr than a tlchnici~l log cntq rcfcrred to in thc Fifth Schcdulc. shall bc madc as soon as practicable aftcr Lllc occurrence to rclatcs. but in no cvcnt marc than s c ~ c u days after l l~c occurrence.

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66 T H 6 Cl1,'IL A VIA TION REGULATIONS. 2004

FiAh Schedule.

Aircraft weiphi standard.

Sevenieenih Schedule

Instruments and equipment.

(4) An entry in a technical logbook, being an entry referred to in the Fifth Schedule, shall be made forthwith upon each occasion that any maintenance, overhaul, repair, replacement, modification or inspection is undertaken on the aircraft and prior to its release to service.

(5) Entries in a logbook may refer to other documents, which shall be clearly identified, and any other document so referred to shall be deemed, for the purposes of these Regulations, to be part of the logbook.

( 6 ) It is the duty of the operator of an aircraft to keep or cause to be kept the logbooks required to be kept in accordance with this regulation.

(7) Subject to the provisions of these Regulations regarding retention of such documents, every logbook shall be preserved by the operator of the aircraft until a date two years after the aircraft, the engine or the variable pitch propeller, as the case may be, has been destroyed or has been permanently withdrawn from use.

35.--41) Every aircraft in respect of which there is in force a certificate of airworthiness issued or rendered valid under these Regulations shall be weighed, and the position of its centre of gravity determined, at such times and in such manner as the Authority may require or as provided for in the Seventeenth Schedule.

(2) Upon the aircraft being weighed, the operator of the aircraft shall prepare a weight standard showing-

( a ) either the basic weight of the aircraft, that is to say, the weight of the aircraft empty together with the weight of unusable fuel and unusable oil in the aircraft and of such items of equipment as are indicated in the weight standard, or such other weight as may be approved by the Authority in the case of that aircraft; and

(b) either the position of the centre of gravity of the aircraft when the aircraft contains only the items included in the basic weight or such other position of the centre of gravity as may be approved by the Authority in the case of that aircraft.

(3) Subject to the provisions of these Regulations for retention of such documents, the weight standard shall be preserved by the operator of the aircraft until the expiration of a period of six months following the next occasion on which the aircraft is weighed for the purposes of this regulation.

PART VI. Aircraft Instruments and Equipment

3 6 . 4 1 ) An aircraft shall not fly in or over Jamaica unless it is so equipped as to comply with the law of the country in which it is registered.

(2) In the case of any aircraft cegistered in Jamaica or operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations-

[The inclusion o f this page is authorized by L.N. 18d20081

THE CI WL A VIATION REGULATIONS, 2004 67

(a) the instruments and equipment required to be provided (in addition to any other equipment required by or under these Regulations) shall be that specified in the Seventh Schedule as are applicable in sevm&

the circumstances and shall comply with the provisions of the Seventh Schedule; and

(b) the equipment shall be of a type approved by the Authority either generally or in relation to a class of aircraft or in relation to that aircraft and shall be installed in a manner so approved.

(3) Jn any particular case the Authority may direct that an aircraft registered in Jamaica or operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall carry such additional or special equipment or supplies as it may specify for the purpose of-

(a) facilitating the navigahon of the aircraft; (b) the canying out of search and rescue operations; or (c) the survival of the persons carried in the aircraft.

(4) The equipment carried in compliance with this regulation shall be so installed or stowed and kept stowed, and so maintained and adjusted, as to be readily accessible and capable of being used by the person for whose use it is intended.

(5) The position of equipment provided for emergency use shall be indicated by clear markings in or on the aircraft and in particular in every aircraft operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations.

(6) There shall be provided indwidually for each passenger, or if the Authority so permits in writing, exhibited in a prominent position in every passenger compartment, a notice relevant to the aircraft in question containing the pictonal required by these Regulations.

(7) All instruments and equipment installed or carried in an aircraft, whether or not in compliance with this regulation, shall be so installed or stowed and so maintained and adjusted as not to be a source of danger in itself or to impair the airworthiness of the aircraft or the proper functioning of any equipment or services necessary for the safety of the aircraft.

(8) Without prejuhce to paragraph (2), all nawgational equipment when carried in an aircraft registered in Jamaica (and whether or no1 otherwise in compliance with these Regulations) shall be of a type approved by the Authority either generally or in relation to a class of aircraft or in relation to that aircraft and shall be installed in a manner so approved.

(9) An aircraft registered in Jamaica, or operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations, engaged on a flight for the purpose of commercial air transport shall carry navigational equipmeiit required by the Seventh Schedule. approved by the Authority under the requirements of the applicable Schedules and used in accordance with any conditions subject to which that approval may have been given, if on the route or any diversion


Rad~o equipment of aircrafl

Seventh Schedule

Minimum eqlliprnent requirements

therefrom. being a route or diversion planned before take-off. the aircraft is intcndcd to bc more than 500 nautical miles from thc point of takc-off measured along thc route to bc flown. and to pass any area more than one hour from a rcliable navigation fix using ground aids.

37.-(1) An aircraft shall not fly in or over Janlaica unless it is so equipped with radio and radlo navigation equipmcnt as to comply with the law of thc country in which the aircraft is registered and to enable communications to be made and the aircraft to be navigated. in accordance with the provisions of thcse Regulations and the Schedules.

(2) Without prejudice to paragmph ( I ) , an aircraft registered in Jamaica, or operated by the holder of a Jamaican AOC, shall be equipped with radio and radio navigation equipment in accordance with the Seventh Schedule.

(3) In any particular case the Authority may direct that an aircraft registered in Jamaica or operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall cany such additional or special radio or radio navigation equipment as it may specify for the purpose of-

(a) facilitating thc navigation of the aircraft; (h) the carrying out of search and rescue operations; or (c) the survival of the pcrsons carried in the aircraft.

(4) Subject to such exceptions as may be prescribed, the radio and radio navigation equipment provided in compliance with tlus regulation in an aircraft registered in Jamaica or operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall always be maintained in serviceable condition.

(5) All radio and radio navigation equipment installed in an aircraft registered in Jamaica or operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations or carried on such an aircraft for use in connection with the aircraft shall-

(a) be of type approved by the Authority in relation to the purpose for which it is to be used; and

(6) be installed in a manner approved by the Authority, and neither the equipment nor the manner in which it is installed shall be modified except with the approval of the Authority.

38.-41) The Authority may, subject to such conditions as it thinks fit, grant in respect of any aircraft or class of aircraft registered in Jamaica an authorization to allow such aircraft to commence a - flight in specified circumstances notwithstanding that any specified item of equipment (including radio apparatus) required by or under these Regulations to be carried in the circumstances of the intended flight is not carried or is not in a fit condition for use.

(2) Subjcct to paragraph (I), an aircraft registered in Jamaica or operated by the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall not



commence a flight if any of the equipment (including radio apparatus) required by or under these Regulations to be carried in the circumstances of the intended flight is not carried or is not in a fit condition for use-

(a) otherwise than under and in accordance with the terms of a special authorization which has been granted to the operator;

(6) unless, in the case of an aircraft to which the flight and operations manuals required thereby contain the apritculars specified for such operations; and

(c) the operations are in accordance with a Minimum Equipment List (namely, "MEL") approved by the Authority identifying the minimum equipment and condition for an aircraft to maintain the certificate of airworthiness in force and defining operational procedures necessary to deal with inoperative equipment and prescribing maintenance procedures necessary to maintain the required level of safety and secure any inoperative equipment.

39. No person shall operate an aircraft under these Regulations except in accordance with the minimum instrument and equipment required by the Seventh Schedule and in the case of an AOC holder, an approved MEL, for the route, altitude, and type of operations being conducted.

PART VII. Personnel Licensing

4 0 . 4 1 ) without prejudice to any other provision of these Regulations the Authority may, for the purpose of personnel licensing as provided in the Eighth and Ninth Schedules, either absolutely or subject to such conditions as it thinks fit-

(a) approve any course of training or instruction;

(6) authorize a person to conduct such examinations or tests as it may specify;

(c) approve a person to provide or conduct any course of training or instruction;

(4 approve a person as qualified to furnish reports to it and to accept such reports; and

(e) approve a training organization.

(2) Where any provision of these Regulations permits a test to be conducted in a flight simulator approved by the Authority, that approval may be granted subject to such conditions as the Authority thinks fit.

4 1 . 4 1 ) A licence shall remain in force for the period specified therein, but its status may be reviewed by the Authority from time to time to determine that the holder is fit and qualified in accordance with applicable requirements.

(2) Prior to receiving a licence granted under this regulation, the' holder thereof shall provide his signature for electronic insertion into the licence.

Required instruments and equipment Seventh Schedule.

Personnel licensing approvals

Eighth and Ninth Schedules.

Validity of licences.


THE CD7L AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

Eighth Schedule.

AircraA maintenance engineer licences.

Grant, renewal and effect of flight a e w licences. Eighth Schedule.

(3) A licence granted under this regulation shall not be valid unless it bears thereon the or- signature of the holder, electronically imprinted.

42. Unless othewise permitted under these Regulations, a person shall not give any instruction in flylng to which this regulation applies unless-

(a) he holds a rating endorsed on his licence, granted or rendered valid under the Eighth Schedule, entitling him to act as pilot in command of the aircraft for the purpose and in the circumstances under which the instruction is to be given; and

(b) he holds a flight instructor rating issued pursuant to the Eighth Schedule, entitling the holder to give the level of instruction required.

43.-(1) The Authority shall grant Aircraft Maintenance Engineer (namely, "AME) licences and such ratings relating to maintenance tasks as provided in the Eighth Schedule, subject to such conditions as it thinks fit, upon it being satisfied that the applicant-

(a) is a fit person to hold the licence; and

(b) has furnished such evidence and passed such examinations and tests (including in particular medical examinations) and undertaken such courses of training as the Authority may require of him.

(2) An AME licence shall authorize the holder, subject to such conditions as may be specified in these Regulations, to issue a Certificate of Release to Service.

(3) The Authority may issue a dispensation rendering valid for the purposes of these Regulations any certificate or licence as an aircraft maintenance engineer granted under the law of any country other than Jamaica, and such dispensation may be issued subject to such conditions, and for such periods, as the Authority thinks fit.

44.-(1) The Authority shall grant licences, subject to such conditions as it thinks fit, specified in the Eighth Schedule, authorizing the holder to act as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft registered in Jamaica, upon its being satisfied that the applicant-

(a) is a fit person to hold the licence; and

(6) is qualified by reason of his knowledge, experience, competence, skill, physical and mental fitness to act in the capacity to wbch the licence relates; and

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(c ) has furnished such evidence and undergone such examinations and tests (including in particular medical examinations) and undertaken such courses of training as the Authority may require of him;

(2) The Authority may include in a licence a rating, subject to conditions as it thinks fit, upon being satisfied that the applicant is qualified as aforesaid to act in the capacity to which the rating relates, and such rating shall be deemed to form part of the licence.

(3) Subject to any conditions of the certificate and to the provisions of these Regulations, a licence of any class shall entitle the holder to perform the functions specified in respect of that licence in the regulations.

4 5 . 4 1 ) The holder of a pilot or a flight engineer licence shall not be pllolorfllght

entitled to exercise the privileges of an aircraft rating contained in the licence E:trC'," on a flight, unless he is qualified and current for the functions the holder is to perform on that flight in accordance with these Regulations.

(2) The holder of a pilot licence shall not be entitled to exercise the privileges or functions of an aircraft rating contained in that licence unless he maintains the currency requirements required by these Regulations and evidence of this currency is included in the personal flying log book required to be kept by him.

(3) A person shall not be entitled to exercise the privileges of an instrument rating (aeroplanes), an instrument rating (helicopters), multi- engine rating, night rating or a flight instructor rating, unless-

(a) his licence is appropriate to the functions to which the rating relates in accordance with the Tenth and Eleventh Schedules; and z;;J''n:;d

(b) he otherwise complies with the currency requirements of the Schedu'es

Eighth, Tenth, Eleventh and Fourteenth Schedules as are Elghthand

applicable; Founeenth Schedules

(4) Where a person fails a test taken by him for the purposes of qualification, competency or currency he shall not be entitled to fly in the capacity for which that test would have qualified him had he passed.

4 6 . 4 1 ) The holder of an airman's licence granted under these Airman rned~cal

Regulations for which a valid medical certificate is also a prerequisite to cennficate

perform any of the functions authorized, shall have such a certificate when engaged in those functions.

(2) Every applicant for or holder of such an airman licence shall upon such occasions as the Authority may require submit himself to a medical examination by a person approved by the Authority who shall make a report to the Authority in such form as the Authority may require.

(3) On the basis of the medical examination, the Authority or any person approved by it as competent to do so may issue a medical certificate, subject to the requirements of the First and Eighth Schedules and such &;Cd

Schedules

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72

Vahdalion o f licences

Personal flying log book.

Eighlh Schedule.

Approval of training organizations.


conditions as it thinks fit, to certify the holder of the licence as medically fit to perform the functions to which the licence relates and the certificate shall . be valid for such period as is therein specified and shall be deemed to form part of the licence.

(4) A person shall not be entitled to act as a member of the flight crew of an aircraft registered in Jamaica if he knows or suspects that his physical or mental condition renders him temporarily or permanently unfit to perform such functions or to act in such capacity.

(5) Every holder of a medical certificate issued under these Regulations and the applicable Schedules who-

( a ) suffers any personal injury involving incapacity to undertake his hnctions as a member of the flight crew; or

( b ) suffers any illness involving incapacity to undertake those functions throughout a period of twenty days or more,

shall inform the Authority in writing of such injury or illness, as soon as possible in the case of injury and as soon as the period of twenty days has elapsed in the case of illness and the medical certificate shall be deemed to be suspended upon the occurrence of such injury or the elapse of such period of illness.

(6) The suspension shall cease-

( a ) upon the holder being medically examined under arrangements made by the Authority and pronounced fit to resume his hnctions as a member of the flight crew; or

( b ) upon the Authority exempting, subject to such conditions as it thinks fit, the holder from the requirement of a medical examination.

47. The Authority may issue a certificate rendering valid, for the purposes of these Regulations, any licence as an airman granted under the law of any country other than Jamaica; and such certificate shall be subject to such conditions and for such periods as the Authority deems fit.

48. Every member of the flight crew of an aircraft registered in Jamaica and every person who engages in flying for the purpose of qualifying for a licence or establishing currency under these Regulations shall keep a personal flying logbook in which the information specified in the Eighth Schedule will be entered.

49.-41) An organization engaged, or taking steps to engage, in any programme of training or checking activities, may apply to the Authority fot an approved training organization certificate in respect of those activities and such a training organization within Jamaica shall obtain the approval of the Authority before commencing operation.

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(2) A training organization situated in another ICAO Contracting State shall not cany out training on behalf of the holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations unless approval for such activities has been given by the Authority.

(3) The Authority- (a) shall issue an A T 0 certificate to an organization which complies

with the requirements of the Ninth Schedule as to facilities, resources, simulators, training devices, instructors and examiners, adequate for the activities applied for; and

(b) in granting such approval the Authority may accept, in relation to such organization, the possession of a certificate of approval of equivalent requirements issued by the Authority of the State in which the organization is located.

(4) The organization shall use a training and checking manual written in accordance with the Eighth and Ninth Schedules and approved by the Authority, detailing the processes, procedures and quality systems applicable to its activities.

(5) An A T 0 certificate shall be in such form, be subject to such conditions and limitations and contain the particulars specified in the Ninth Schedule and such other particulars as may be determined from time to time by the Authority.

(6) In this regulation "ATO" means an approved training organization.

PART VIII. Operation ofAircraji

50. No person shall- (a) operate, or cause an aircraft to be operated in such a manner that

causes, or makes it likely to cause injury or death to a person, or damage to property; or

(b) operate an aircraft in such a negligent or reckless manner as to endanger or to be likely to endanger persons or property, or cause an aircraft to be so operated; or

(c) operate as a crewmember of an aircraft when under the influence of drink or drugs to such an extent as to impair his ability to cany out his duties.

51. Every person in an aircraft registered in Jamaica or operating in Jamaica, shall-

(a) obey all lawful commands which the pilot-in-command or any person acting in his stead gives for the purpose of securing-

(i) the safety or security of the aircraft and of persons or property carried therein; or

(ii) the safety or security of .air navigation installations and aviation facilities;

(iii) the safety, security, efficiency or regularity of air navigation; and

Ninth Schedule.

Eighth Schedule.

Careless aircraft operalion aclion.

Authority of pilot-incommand.

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THE CJkYL A VJATJON REGULATONS, 2004

Tenth Schrdule

Applicable aircrafl requirements

Tenth Schedule

Applicable flight crew requirements

Crew duties and responsibilities.

All passenger carrying operations

(b) act in accordance with the 'relevant provisions of the Tenth Schedule.

52. No person shall- while in an aircraft-

(i) use any threatening, abusive or insulting words towards a crew member;

(ii) behave in a threatening, abusive, insulting or disorderly manner towards a crewmember; and

(iii) intentionally interfere with a crewmember in the performance of his duties;

endanger the safety of an aircraft by interfering with, or causing interference to, its navigation or safety equipment;

direct or throw any object, missile, light, signal, or electronic impulse towards an aircraft, unless for the purpose of attracting the attention of air traffic control or search and rescue personnel; interfere with an aircraft, its systems, engines or equipment, or with any facility or support equipment required for the safe operation and navigation of that aircraft.

5 3 . 4 1 ) A person shall not operate an aircraft nor cause an aircraft to be operated over Jamaica unless the aircraft and its operation conform with the operations of the aircraft requirements specified in the Tenth Schedule.

(2) A person shall not operate an aircraft registered in Jamaica and a holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall not operate an aircraft outside of Jamaica unless the aircraft and its operation conform with the operations of the aircraft requirements specified in the Tenth Schedule.

5 4 . 4 1 ) A person shall not operate an aircraft nor cause an aircraft to be operated over Jamaica unless the flight crew conforms with the crew requirements specified in these Regulations.

(2) A person shall not operate an aircraft registered in Jamaica and a holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall not operate an aircraft outside of Jamaica unless the flight crew conforms with the flight crew requirements specified in these Regulations.

5 5 . 4 1 ) A person shall not operate an aircraft nor cause an aircraft to be operated over Jamaica unless the flight crew conforms with the crew duties and responsibilities specitied in these Regulations.

(2) A person shall,not operate an aircraft registered in Jamaica and a holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall not operate an aircraft outside of Jamaica unless the flight crew conforms with the crew duties and responsibilities specified in these Regulations.

5 6 . 4 1 ) A person shall not operate an aircraft nor cause an aircraft to be operated over Jamaica with passengers unless such a flight conforms with the requirements for all passenger carrying operations specified in these Regulations.

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(2) A person shall operate an aircraft registered in Jamaica with passengers in flight and no holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall operate an aircraft outside of Jamaica with passengers in flight unless such a flight conforms with the requirements for all passenger carrying operations specified in these Regulations.

5 7 . 4 1 ) A person shall not operate an aircraft nor cause an aircraft to be m h t plannmg

operated over Jamaica unless the flight plans, flight planning and other pre- p,e,a,at,O,

flight preparation conforms with the requirements specified in these Regulations.

(2) A person shall not operate an aircraft registered in Jamaica and no holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall operate an aircraft outside of Jamaica unless the flight plans, flight planning and pre-flight preparation conforms with the requirements specified in these Regulations.

5 8 . 4 1 ) A person shall not operate an aircraft nor cause an aircraft to be Applicable flight rules

operated over Jamaica unless the flight is conducted in accordance with the flight rules specified in these Regulations.

(2) A person shall not operate an aircraft registered in Jamaica and - no holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations shall operate an aircraft outside of Jamaica unless the flight is conducted in accordance with the flight rules requirements specified in these Regulations unless such compliance would contravene the law of the State being overflown.

(3) No person shall operate an ultra-light aircraft in Jamaican airspace unless that operation is conducted in accordance with the specific requirements detailed for such aircraft in the Tenth Schedule. Tenth

Schedule

5 9 . 4 1 ) A person shall not operate an aircraft nor cause an aircraft to be Operauons In controlled

operated over Jamaica unless the flight is conducted in accordance with the night

requirements for operations in controlled flight specified in these Regulations.

(2) A person shall not operate an aircraft registered in Jamaica and no holder of an AOC issued under these Regulations may operate an aircraft outside of Jamaica unless the flight is conducted in accordance with the requirements for operations in controlled flight specified in these Regulations unless such compliance would contravene the law of the State being overflown.

PART IX. Aerial Work 60. No person shall operate an aircraft for the purpose of carrying out Acrlal work

a c u v q aerial work, except with the written authorization of the Authority and in accordance with the requirements of these Regulations.

6 1 4 1 ) An airciaft shall not be used for the dropping of articles for the Issueof aernal

purposes of agriculture, horticulture or forestry or for training for the ap,~,c,,,o,

dropping of articles for any of such purposes, otherwise than under and in accordance with an Aerial Work Certificate granted to the operator of the aircraft under paragraph (2) and the requirements of the Eleventh Schedule. Schedule


THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS. 2004

Towing. p~clting up and Ginp: of pmom and anicler. Eleventh Scliedulc

Dropping of animals and d c l a .

the certficate as complied with paragraph (5) and is competent, having regard in particular to h s previous conduct and experience, his equipment, organization. stailing and other arrangements, to secure the safe operation of the aircraft specified in the ~ e ~ c a t e on flights for the purposes specified in paragraph ( 1 ). . .

(3) An Aerial Work Certificate may be granted subject to such conditions as the Authority thnks fit including without prejudice to the generality of the foregoing, conditions for ensuring that the aircraft and any article dropped from it do not endanger persons or property in :the aircraft or elsewhere.

(4) An Aerial Work Certificate shall remain in force for the period specified in the issued authorization but may be reviewed by the Authority from time to time to determine that the holder continues to be fit and qualified in accordance with requirements of the Eleventh Schedule.

(5) Evey holder of an Aerial Work Certificate shall- (a) make available for use by every member of his operating staff: an

aerial work manual which shall contain all such ,information and instructions as may be necessary to enable the operating staff to perform their duties as such and

(6 ) make such amendments to the manual as the Authority may require.

62.-(1) Subject to the provisions of this regulation and..the requirements of the Eleventh Schedule, an aircraft in flight over Jamaica shall not, by means external to the aircraft, tow any article, or pick up or raise any person, animal or article. unless the certificate of airworthiness issued or rendered valid in respect of that aircraft under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered expressly provides that it may be used for that purpose.

(2) Nothing in tius regulation prohibits-

(a) the towing in a reasonable manner by an aircraft in flight of any ra&o aerial, any instrument which is being used for experimental purposes. or any signal, apparatus or required or permitted by or under these Regulations to be towed or displayed by an aircraft in flight;

(6) the picking up- or raising of any person animal or article in an emergency or for the purpose of saving life.

63.-41) Articles or animals (whether or not attached to a parachute) shall not be dropped, or allowed to drop from an aircraft in flight so as to endanger persons or property.

(2) Subject to paragraph (3), except under and in accordance with the terms of an Aerial Work Certificate and the requirements of the Eleventh Schedule, articles or animals (whether or not attached to a parachute) shall not be dropped, or allowed to drop, to the ground or other s u r f a ~ from an aircraft flying over Jamaica.

lThe inclusion of this page i s authorized by L.N. 18r\120081

THE CIVIL A VL/ITION REGULATIONS, 2004 77

(2) Paragraph (2) shall not'apply to the dropping of articles by, or with the authority of the pilot-incommand of the aircraft in any of the following cir-ces-

(a) for the purpose of saving life;

(b) the jettisoning, in case of emergency, of fuel or other articles in the aircraft;

(c) for the purpose of navigating the aircraft in accordance with or- practice or with the provisions of these Regulations;

(4 the dropping at an aerodrome of tow ropes, banners, or similar articles towed by aircraft;

(e) for the purposes of public health or as a m e a m against weather conditions, surface icing or oil pollution, or for training for the dropping of articles for any such purposes, with the permission of the Authority and in accordance with any conditions subject to which that permission may have been given;

V) the dropping of wind drift indicators for the purpose of enabling parachute descents to be made, with the permission of the Authority and in accordance with any conditions subject to which J

that permission may have been gwen.

(3) For the purposes of this regulation dropping includes projecting and lowering.

(4) Nothing in this regulation shall prohibit the lowering of any article or animal from a helicopter to the surface, if the certificate of airworthiness issued or rendered valid in respect of the helicopter under the law of the country in which it is registered expressly provide that it may be used for that purpose.

64.-41) A person shall not drop hunself, be dropped or permitted to drop =Or

to the ground or jump fiom an aircraft flying over Jamaica except under and in accordance with the terms of an authorization in writing granted by the Authority.

(2) Notwithstanding the grant of an authorization under paragraph (1). a person shall not drop himself, be dropped or be permitted to drop from an aircraft in flight so as to endanger persons or property on the ground or other surface.

(3) An aircraft shall not be used for the purpose of dropping persons

the certikate of airworthmess issued or rendered valid in respect of that aircraft under the law of the country in which the aircraft is registered provides expressly that it may be used for that purpose; and the aircraft is operated in accordance with the authorization gmted by the Authority under this regulation.



(4) Every applicant for and every holder of an authorization shall, upon request, make available to the Authority, a parachuting manual and shall make such amendments to the manual as the Authority may require.

(5) The holder of an authorization shall make available to every employee or person who is or may become engaged in parachuting activities conducted by him, the manual which shall contain all such information and instructions as may be necessary to enable such employees or persons to perform their duties.

(6) Without affecting any other provision of these Regulations the 1

Authority may, for the purpose of this regulation, accept reports furnished to it by a person whom it may approve, either absolutely or subject to such <,' conditions as it thinks fit, as qualified to furnish such reports. X

(7) Nothing in this regulation shall apply to the descent of persons by parachute from an aircraft in an emergency.

(8) Nothing in this regulation shall prohibit the lowering of any person in an emergency or for the purpose of saving life.

(9) Nothing in this regulation prohibits the lowering of any person to the surface below from a helicopter flying over Jamaica. if the certificate of airworthiness issued or rendered valid in respect of the helicopter under the law of the country in which it is registered expressly provide that it may be used for that purpose.

(10) For the purposes of this regulation "drop" includes project and lower.

Aerial photography or survey from aircran

Exhibitions o f flying, races o! contests

Tenth Schedule

65. No person shall operate an aircraft over Jamaica for the purpose of aerial photography or aerial survey (whether or not valuable consideration is given or promised in respect of the flight or the purpose of the flight) or for the purpose of any other form of aerial work except with an authorization of the Authority granted under this regulation to the operator or the charterer of the aircraft and in accordance with any conditions to which such authorization may be subject.

66.--(I) An exhibition organizer shall not put on an organized event unless at the time at which such an organized event commences the exhibition organizer has obtained the permission in writing from the Authority for that organized event and complies with any conditions therein specified and the requirements of the Tenth Schedule.

(2) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft intending to participate in an organized event shall take all reasonable steps to satisfy himself before he participates that-

(a) the exhibition organizer has been granted permission under paragraph (6);



(6) the flight can comply with any relevant conditions specified in that permission; and

(c) the pilot-incommand has been granted an authorization appropriate to the intended flight.

(3) The pilot-incommand of an air& participating in an organized event for which permission has been granted under paragraph (6) shall comply with any conditions specified in that permission.

(4) No person shall act as pilot of an air& participating in an organized event permitted by the Authority under paragraph (6) unless he holds an authorization appropriate to the intended flight granted to him by the Authority and he complies with any conditions thereof.

(5) The exhibition orgaruzer shall not permit any person to act as pilot of an aircraft which participates in an organized event unless such person holds a display authorization appropriate to the intended flight granted by the Authority.

(6) The Authority shall grant the permission required under paragraph (1) to any applicant therefor if it is satisfied that that person is a fit and competent person, having regard in particular to his previous conduct and experience. his organization, staffing and other arrangements, and his ability to safely organize the proposed exhibition of flying.

(7) The permission may be granted subjectto such conditions. as the Authority deems fit which may include conditions in respect of military aircraft. and shall, if there is continued compliance. remain in force for the period specified in the permission.

(8) The Authority shall, for the purposes of this regulation, either unconditionally or subject to such conditions as it thinks fit-

(a) grant a display authorization authorizing the holder to act as pilot of an aircraft taking part in an exlubition of flying upon his being satisfied that the applicant is a fit person to hold the authorization and is qualified by reason of his knowledge. experience, competence. skill, physical and mental fitness to fly in accordance therewith and for that purpose the applicant shall funzish such evidence and undergo such examinations and tests as the Authority may require of hun: and

(6) authorize a person to conduct such examinations or tests as it may speclfy.

(9) A &splay authorization granted in accordance with this regulation shall. if the Authority finds continued conformance. remain in force for the period indicated in the display authorization.

(10) The exhibition organizer shall not permit any military aircraft to participate in an exhibition of flying unless the person seeking permission complies with any conditions specified in respect of military aircraft subject to which such permission was granted.

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(1 1) In this regulation-

(a) "exhibition organizer" means a person who organizes exhibition of flying, aircraft race or contest at an organized event which consists wholly or partly of an exhibition of flying, aircraft race or contest;

(b) "organized event" means an organized exhibition of flying, aircraft race or contest.

PART X. Commercial Air Transport Operations Issue ora~r operator's c e n h 67.-(1) An operator shall not operate an aircraft for the purpose of cate commercial air transport, otherwise than under and in accordance with the

terms of - (a) an AOC granted to the operator under paragraph (3); and (6) if the operator is not based in Jamaica, an additional AOC issued

by the competent authority of the State of the operator. (2) A person (hereinafter called "the provider") shall be deemed to

be engaged in providing commercial air transport, if the provider, or any person acting on the provider's behalf-

(a) has undertaken any form of advertising to carry passengers or property by aircraft for remuneration or valuable consideration without using the services of an AOC holder;

(6) verbally offers to carry passengers or property by aircraft for remuneration or valuable consideration, without using the services of an AOC holder; or

(c) provides or advertises an arrangement for meals, lodging or travel for compensation, in which the travel by aircraft is included without payment or is compensated, but is not provided by an AOC holder.

(3) The Authority may, subject to the powers of this regulation, grant to any prospective operator applying therefor (hereinafter called the applicant), an AOC if it is satisfied that the applicant is competent and capable, having regard in particular to the applicant's previous conduct and experience, equipment, organization, staffing, maintenance and other arrangements, to secure the safe operation of aircraft of the types specified in the AOC on flights of the description and for the purposes so specified.

(4) An AOC may be granted 'subject to such conditions as the Authority deems appropriate and it shall remain in .force for the period

Twelfth specified in the Twelfth Schedule, but its status may be reviewed by the Schedule Authority from time to time to determine that the holder is fit and qualified in

accordance with requirements of the said Twelfth Schedule.

(5) Without limiting to the generality of paragraph (3), the applicant must-

(a) possess a management organization capable of exercising operational control and supervision over any flight operated under the terms of its AOC;


THE CML A VIA TION REGULATIONS, 2004

(6) have an accountable manager, approved by the Authority, who has responsibility for ensuring that al l maintenance relating to the applicant's aircraft is carried out in accordance with the approved maintenance programme and the requirements of the Fifth Ffi

Schedule; and Schedule

(c) be in compliance with the Schedules specifically applicable to AOC holders prior to issuance of the AOC, including but not Limited to the Seventh, Tenth, Twelfth, Thirteenth, Fourteenth, ,,,,,,,,, Fifteenth, Sixteenth and Seventeenth Schedules; Weltth,Thtr-

mrn FW- teenth,Ftf- (6) In exercising the functions under paragraphs (3) and (4), the teen*sm-

Authority shall have regard to such of the following as are applicable- teenm seventeenth and

I (a) the nationality of the applicant, and whether the grant or refusal Schedules

I of the application is in the public interest;

(6) any uneconomic duplication or uneconomic overlapping of air transport services that might result from the grant of the application;

(c) the ability of the applicant to meet its financial obligations, actual or potential;

(4 the likelihood of the applicant being able to provide air transport services which are satisfactory as regards-

(i) safety, security, regularity and frwluency of operation; i

(ii) level of charges and general standard and efficiency; and (iii) in the case of an application for renewal or variation of a

certificate, whether the applicant's existing air transport services are satisfactory;

(e) whether or not the air& proposed to be used and the air transport senices proposed to be provided are suited to the airports and airport facilities to be used;

V) any obligations imposed upon Jamaica by international &eement or treaty or other international obligation; and

@) any other matter which is, in the opinion of the Authority, relevant to the application.

(7) Each AOC holder shall conduct its commercial air transport operations in accordance with the standards of operations under these Regulations.

(8) The Authority shall establish a system of certification and continued surveillance to ensure that AOC holders maintain the required standards of operations - established in these Regulations.


THE C M L Am TION REGULd TIONS, 2004

lWeltlh Schedule.

melfth and lkmtieth Schedules.

F i Sixth and Twelfth Schedules.

passenger requhanents.

mieenth Schedule. QdiIied

Fourteenth Schedule. Crew Fatigue

Fieenth Schedule.

Fbght releare requirements.

Sixteenth Schedule

Mars and balance and performance.

Seventeenth Schedule.

68. No person shall operate, or cause to be operated in commercial air transport, an aircraft subject to these Regulations unless the AOC holder has completed the initial certification requirements for such operations under the Twelfth Schedule.

69. No person shall operate, or cause to be operated in commercial air transport, an aircraft subject to these Regulations except in accordance with the authorizations and limitations of their AOC issued pursuant to the Twelfth Schedule.

70. No person shall operate, or cause to be operated in commercial air transport, an aircraft subject to these Regulations unless the aircraft is specifically authorized by serial and registration number for the AOC holder's operation in accordance with the Twelfth Schedule.

71. No person shall operate, or cause to be operated in commercial air transport, an aircraft subject to these Regulations unless those operations comply with the applicable requirements of the security programme specified in the Twelfth and Twentieth Schedules.

72. No person shall operate,, or cause to be operated an aircraft in commercial air transport, unless the air& is maintained in accordance with the applicable maintenance requirements of the Fifth, Sixth and Twelfth Schedules.

73. No person shall operate, or cause to be operated an aircraft for the carrying of passengers in commercial air transport, except in accordance with the passenger-canyng requirements of the Thirteenth Schedule.

74. No person shall operate, or cause to be operated an aircraft in commercial air transport, unless the assigned aviation personnel are qualified and current in accordance with the minimum qualification, hining and checking requirements of the Fourteenth Schedule.

75. No person shall operate, or cause to be operated an aircraft in commercial air transport, unless the assigned aviation personnel operate in accordance with the duty and flight time and minimum rest periods specified in the Fifteenth Schedule.

76. No person shall operate in flight, or cause to be so operated an aircraft in commercial air transport, unless the flight was released in accordance with the flight release requirements specified in the Sixteenth Schedule.

77. No person shall operate, o r cause to be operated an air& in commercial air transport, unless the operations comply with the mass and balance and performance' requirements specified in the Seventeenth Schedule.

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THE CIML A VIA TION REGUL.4 TIONS, 2004 83

PART XI. Carriage of Dangerous Goods

7 8 . 4 1 ) No pemm shall ship, caused to be shipped, accept for shipment =yf or allow to be carried on an aircraft any article or substance that may be dangerou~

dangerous goods except in accordance with the Eighteenth Schedule and any gteenm approval granted by the Authority. Schedule.

(2) Each person shipping articles or substances that may constitute dangerous goods shall declare such goods in the shipping papers and cause such articles to be so marked.

( 3 ) No person shall operate or cause to be operated an air& carrying dangerous goods except as approved by the Authority in accordance with the Eighteenth Schedule.

7 9 . 4 1 ) Munitions of war shall not be canied on an air& unless the 52- munitions of war are carried with the written permission of the Autholrty and in accordance with the Eighteeenth and Twentieth Schedules and any other kght-th and

conditions imposed by the Authority relating thereto. ' ~ b ~ ~ ~ e m Schedules

(2) Notwithstanding paragraph (1) weapons or munitions of war shall not be carried on an aircraft in any compartment or apparatus to which passengers have access.

(3) No person shall-

(a) carry or have in his possession or take or cause to be taken on board;

(6) suspend or cause to be suspended beneath, or

(c) deliver or cause to be delivered for carriage on,

an aircraft, any weapon or munitions of war other than in accordance with paralzraph ( 1 ) .

(4) Nothing in this regulation shall apply to any weapon or munitions of war taken or carried on board an aircraft in Jamaica registered in a country other than Jamaica, if the weapon or munitions of war, as the case may be, may under the law of the country in which the air& is registered be lawfully taken or carried on board for the purpose of ensuring the safety of the aircraft or of persons on board

(5) For the purposes of this regulation "munitions of war" means any weapon, ammunition or article containing an explosive or any noxious liquid, gas or other thing which is designed or made for use in warfare or against persons, including parts, whether components or accessories, for such weapon, ammunition or article.

Part XU. General

8 0 . 4 1 ) Every person who- Accident lqmting and invutigatimion.

lThe inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18d2008)


(a) is the operator or pilot-in-command of an aircraft which is registered Jamaica or of a commercial air transport aircraft not registered in Jamaica but operated by the holder of an air operator's cerhticate issued in Jamaica; and

(b) is involved in, observes or knows of an aircraft accident shall make a report thereon to the Authority in accordance with the

Nineteenth Nineteenth Schedule. Schedule.

(2) A person shall not make any report which he knows or has reason to believe is false in any particular.

(3) Each person shall comply with the necessary steps of accident investigation under the Nineteenth Schedule as requested by the Authority or an authorized person assigned to investigate the accident.

Fees Twenlyaeoand 81.-41) The provisions of the Twenty-second Schedule shall have effect Schedule with respect to fees to be charged in connection with the provisions of these

Regulations.

(2) The fees payable under these Regulations shall be paid directly to the Authority or to an agent duly appointed by the Authority for that purpose.

(3) The fees payable hereunder are denominated in the currency of the United States of America and are payable-

(a) in that currency; or

(b) in the equivalent of that amount in the lawful currency of Jamaica converted at the weighted average selling rate of exchange of the business day previous to that of payment.

(4) A fee shall be paid in 111-

(a) with the submission of any application or request for s e ~ c e . t h a t involves the issue of any aviation document including but not limited to, any licence, certificate, permif waiver, validation, extension, deviation or exemption, or involves a manual raiew, flight test, check ride, flight check monitor, or examination;

(b) when applicable, no later than fifteen days after the date indicated on the relevant invoice presented by the Authority.

(5) The Authority may, generally or in any particular c a s e

(a) waive a fee;

(b) demand that a fee be paid prior to the commencement of any service;


THE CIVL A VIA TION REGULATIONS, 2004

where fees are outstanding in respect of one service already provided by the Authority, whether or not an aviation document has been applied for or is issued, refuse to provide to the person liable for the outstanding fees any further services under these Regulations until such time as the fees are paid in full;

keep any fee paid for the processing of any aviation document to be issued pursuant to these Regulations or any action preparatory thereto, whether or not the document is issued, renewed, amended or endorsed; and '

require owners and operators of aircraft who have failed to pay on time any fees payable hereunder, to deposit with the Authority security in the form of a bond or letter of credit and in an amount satisfactory to the Authority to ensure full payment of the fees to be imposed in the next following year in respect of the aircraft or flight operation.

(6) All fees payable under this regulation constitute a debt due to the Crown in right of Jamaica and may be recovered as such in any court of competent juris&ction.

(7) Where a fee is payable under these Regulations, in respect of an aircraft, both the registered owner and operator of the aircraft are jointly and severally liable for payment of the charge.

(8) Where any fee payable under these Regulations has not been paid, the Authority may-

(a) in addition to any other remedy available for the recovery of the fee; and

(6) whether or not a judgment for the recovery of the amount has been obtained,

obtain an order from the Supreme Court, issued on such conditions as the Court sees fit, authorizing the Authority to seize and detain the relevant aircraft.

(9) Where any fee payable hereunder has not been paid and the Authority has reason to believe that the person liable therefor is about to leave Jamaica or take fiom Jamaica any aircraft owned or operated by the person, the Authority may take such steps as necessary to seize and detain such aircraft.

(10) The Authority may, in addition to any other remedy available for the recovery of the amount and whether or not a judgment for the recovery of the amount has been obtained, make an ex parte application to the Supreme Court jurisdiction for an order, issued on such conditions as the Court sees fit, authorizing the Authority to seize and detain the aircraft.


THE CIVIL A VIATION REGULATIONS. 2004

(1 1) Subject to paragraph (lo), except where otherwise directed by an order of the Court, the Authority is not required to release from detention an aircraft seized under this regulation, unless the fee in respect of which the seizure was made together with any additional amounts ordered by a cowt is paid.

(12) The Authority shall release from detention an aircraft seized hereunder if a bond or other security in a form satisfactory to the Authority for the amount in respect of which the aircraft was seized together with any additional amounts ordered by a court are deposited with the Authority.

(

(13) Subject to paragraph (14), where any fees remain outstanding ninety days after the date of the detention of an aircraft, the Authority may sell the aircraft.

(14) The Authority shall not sell an aircraft under paragraph (13) unless acting under an order of the Supreme Court has leave of the Court and has established to the satisfaction of the Court, that default in payinent of the fee lies with the owner or Operator of the aircraft.

(15) The fees payable in respect of the regulatory services set out in Twenty- second

Column I of Tables 1 to 7 of the Twenty-second Schedule are set out in Schedule. Column II of the respective Tables.

(16) Unless there is a separate agreement between an applicant for the regulatory services under these Regulations and the Authority, that the applicant will provide transportation and lodging, when an authorized person,

is required to travel outside of Jamaica to process an application, the applicant shall pay, in addition to the relevant fee, the expenses for transportation, lodging, meal and incidental expenses, as calculated in accordance with the rates for public sector employees set by the Ministry responsible for finance.

(17) The Authority shall, upon the request of an applicant, provide an estimate of the expenses referred to in paragraph (1 6).

(18) In the case of a service that was commenced but not completed before the 1st of December, 2004, the fee payable for such service shall be the lesser of-

(a) the fee payable prior to that date; or

(b) the fee hereunder.

(19) Subject to paragraphs (2 1) and (23), the fees set out in Column I1 of Table 8 of the Twenty-second Schedule are payable in respect of the en route and terminal navigation Services for aircraft opexating within the Kingston flight information region set out in Column I.

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THE CIML AVL4TION REGULITIONS, 2004 87

(20) Without affecting any other provision of these Regulations, the payment for navigational charges set forth in the relevant Tables in respect of all flights (whether or not landing in Jamaica) may be paid on account of the Government of Jamaica in the lawful currency of the United States of America to the Clearing House of the International Air Transport Association

(21) An aircraft engaged in local area pilot flight training in accordance with a pilot training programme approved by the Authority shall pay a fee of one-third of the fee for domestic operation set forth in the Twenty-second Schedule.

I Twenty- second Schedule

(22) This regulation shall not apply to the following flights-

(a) military flights;

(b) flights made by aircraft for diplomatic, customs, immigration, accident investigation, or police purposes of any state, being flights which exclude carriage for hire or reward;

(c) flights made by aircraft operated or chartered by the United Nations or any of its specialized agencies;

(d) flights made for the purpose of checking or testing navigation facilities, and positioning flights made in connection therewith;

(e) flights made by aircraft operated by the Authority, or by any aircraft operated on behalf of the Authority;

(I) flights providmg aid following a natural disaster or major accident of any kind;

(g) flights made for the purpose of search and rescue operations or weather reconnaissance;

(h) flights by aircraft operated by aerial applicators where the aircraft does not use the air navigation services or land at an aerodrome in Jamaica.

(23) The fee payable in respect of the applications, hearings, issuance, renewal, or amendment of licences and permits, set forth in Column I of Table 9 of the Twenty-second Schedule is set forth in Column I1 of the 'iable.

(24) The fees payable under this paragraph are specified in the Table 1 in respect of the MCTOW for the heaviest aircraft specified in the hearing,

licence or permit.

82. The Authority may act in accordance with the First Schedule for the ,"Ezof validation of licences, certificates, approvals, designations, and authorizations ;zedule,. issued by another contracting state.

83. Except where the context otherwise requires, the provisions of these , " ~ ~ ~ ~ Regulation* Regulations.


THE CIK'L A VLA TION REGUU TIONS, 2004

Application to aircraft not registered in Jamaica.

Waivers

Deviations. Fin1 Schedule.

Exemptions.

Powcr to prohibit or resf~ict flying.

(a) in so far as they apply (whether by express reference or otherwise) to aircraft registered in Jamaica, shall apply to such aircraft wherever they may be;

(6) in so far as they apply as aforesaid to other aircraft shall apply to such other aircraft when they are within Jamaica;

(c) in so far as they prohibit, require or regulate (whether by express reference or othenvise) the doing of anythmg by persons in, or by any of the crew of any aircraft registered in Jamaica, shall apply to such persons and crew, wherever they may be; and

(d) in so far as they prohibit, require or regulate as aforesaid the doing of anytlung in relation to any aircraft registered in Jamaica by other persons shall, where such persons are citizens of Jamaica apply to them wherever they may be.

84. The Authority may direct that such of the provisions of these Regulations having effect thereunder as may be specified in the direction shall have effect as if reference in those provisions to aircraft registered in Jamaica included references to the aircraft specified in the direction, being an aircraft not so registered but for the time being under the management of a person who, or of persons each of whom, is qualified to hold a legal or beneficial interest by way of ownership in an aircraft registered in Jamaica

85. The Authority may issue a waiver from any of the requirements of the Schedules to these Regulations where the provision for that waiver is contained in the applicable Schedule.

86. The Authority may pursuant to the First Schedule issue a deviation, from any of the requirements of the Schedules to any grouping of persons, aircraft, or type of operation, subject to such conditions as it determines where the requirement is found not to be consistent with relevant aviation safety standards for that particular grouping and it would be in the public interest to issue such deviation.

87. The Authority may pursuant to the First Schedule-ismean exemption from any of the requirements under these Regulations or any Schedule made thereunder to any individual, aircraft, or company, subject to such conditions as it thinks fit, where the applicant can show that-

(a) it is in the public interest;

(6) an equivalent level of safety can be maintained; and

(c) the exemption ought not be inconsistent with relevant aviation safety or security standards.

88.-41) Where the Authority deems it necessary in the public interest to prohibit flying by reason of-

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THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULATIONS, 2004

the intended gathering or movement of a large number of persons;

the intended holding of an aircraft race or contest or of an exhibition in flying; or

national defence or any other reason affecting the public interest, the Authority may make directions prohibiting, restricting or imposing conditions on flight-

(i) by any aircraft, whether or not registered in Jamaica, in any airspace over Jamaica;

(ii) by aircraft registered in Jamaica, in any other airspace, being airspace in respect of which the Government of Jamaica has in pursuance of international arrangements undertaken to provide navigation services for aircraft.

(2) Directions made under this regulation may apply either generally or in relation to any class of aircraft.

89. The provisions of these Regulations shall not apply to or in relation ultra-small aircraR

t*

(a) any balloon which at any stage of its flight is not more than two metres in any linear dimension including any basket or other equipment attached to the balloon;

(b) any kite weighing not more than 2 kg;

(c) any other aircraft weighing not more than 7 kg without its fuel; or

(d) any parascending parachute.

9 0 . 4 1 ) Subject to the following paragraphs of this regulation any person Translhonal provlslons

who, immediately prior to the relevant date holds a licence, certificate or authorization validly issued under the laws, rules or regulations in force on that date for the registration, operation or maintenance of an aircraft shall be deemed to hold that licence, certificate or authorization in accordance with these Regulations for three months from the relevant date unless his original licence, certificate or authorization expires prior to the end of that three month period in which case his deemed licence under these Regulations shall expire on the same date.

(2) Within one month from the relevant date, every person claiming to be the holder of a licence, certificate or authorization under paragraph (1) shall supply to the Flight Safety Division full details of his licence, certificate or authorization and may notify his request for a new licence under these Regulations failing which his deemed licence shall expire forthwith.


THE CIWL AVIATION REGULATIONS. 2004

Applicability of illis Pan.

Twenty-!kt Schedule.

Requirement to r+tm aerodromes.

Aerodrome certificale.

(3) Where the Flight Safety Division having reviewed any licence, certificate or authorization notified to it under paragraph (2), is satisfied that such licence: certificate or authorization has been validly.issued under the laws. rules or regulations in force at the relevant date, the Flight Safety Division shall, within six months of the date of such notification issue a licence, certificate or authorization to that person to register, operate or maintain an aircraft or aerodrome for at least the unexpired term of the original licence, certificate or authorization, but othenvise subject to conditions duly determined by the Flight Safety Division.

(4) If the Flight Safety Division is not satisfied, for any reason, that a licence, certifkate or authorization notified to it under paragmph (2) was validly issued or that person is still qualified to hold the document, it shall so not@ the person concerned and the document in question shall expire on the date of service of the notification.

(5) In this regulation "the relevant date" means the 1st December, 2004.

PART XIII. Aerodromes

91.-(1) These Regulations prescribe the requirements for- (a) the operation of aerodromes;

(b) c e ~ c a t i o n of aerodromes and the requirements that apply to operators of certified aerodromes;

(c) safety inspections of aerodromes;

(4 the management of obstacles and hazards at aerodromes; and

(e) the obligations of an aerodrome operator. (2) The Twenty-first Schedule provides the minimum standards

which an aerodrome operator is obliged to meet in operating an aerodrome in Jamaica.

92. A person shall not operate any aerodrome in Jamaica, unless the aerodrome is registered in the aerodrome register pursuant to regulation 107.

93. No person shall operate-

(a) an aerodrome used for international operations; (b) a domestic aerodrome used for scheduled non-service for the

transportation of passengers in any aircraft approved to cany ten or more passengers; or

(c) any other aerodrome used for the non-scheduled services for commercial air txansport,

unless the Authority has issued an aerodrome certificate in respect of that aerodrome, speclfylng the type of operations that have been approved for that aerodrome.


THE CIWL A VIATION REGULA TIONS. 2004

94. No person shall cause an aircraft to land at or take off from an aerodrome in Jamaica: without the approval of the Authority, unless the aerodrome is registered for either-

(a) public use; or

(b) private use, and the operation is carried out with the consent of the registered owner.

95. No person shall cause an aircraft involved in service to land at or take off from a private aerodrome without the written permission of the Authority.

96.-41) A person who wishes to obtain an aerodrome certificate to operate an aerodrome shall-

(a) apply to the Authority in the prescribed form;

(b) pay the prescribed fee; and

(c) comply with the other applicable provisions of these Regulations. (2) An application made under paragraph ( I ) , shall be accompanied

by an Aerodrome Operator's Manual as required under regulation 108 that has been developed by the aerodrome operator for its operation of the aerodrome for which the application is made.

97.-41) The Authority shall issue an aerodrome certificate to an applicant under regulation 96 where it is satisfied that-

the faciltties and equipment of the aerodrome are in accordance with the standards specified in the Manual of Aerodrome Standards; the operating procedures of the aerodrome make satisfactory provision for safety and security against acts of violence and unlawful interference of aircraft, passengers, crew and property and of air navigation and air navigation installations and other aviation facilities; the aerodrome is properly and adequately equipped for safe operations in commercial air transport; the aerodrome is properly and adequately equipped for its maintenance; the applicant has sufficient financial resources to conduct safe operations; an Aerodrome Operator's Manual, has been prepared for the aerodrome in accordance with regulation 109 and approved by the Authority; the applicant and staff and the applicant's contracted agents (as the case may be) have the necessary competence and experience, and would be able to properly operate and maintain the aerodrome; and

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, 91

Landing and take off in Jamaica.

Scheduled sewice and private aerodromes.

Application for an aerodrome.

issue of aerodrome certificate.

THE CIVIL A VLATION REGULATIONS. 2004

Conditions fox issue of aerodrome cerb'ficate.

Written notice of rehrsal

Conditions to which issue of aerodrome c e d i .

a t e may be subject

(h) an acceptable safety management system that complies with the standards specified in the Manual of Aerodrome Standards shall be implemented at the aerodrome at a date to be specified in the aerodrome certificate.

(2) An aerodrome certificate issued under paragraph (1): shall contain-

(a) the registration number assigned to the aerodrome by the Authority;

(b) the name and geogmplucal reference points of the aerodrome;

(c) its date of issue; and

(4 the terms of the approval.

98.-(1) The Authority shall not issue an aerodrome certificate under these Regulations where the applicant-

(a) does not satisfy the requirements of these Regulations or any directions given thereunder or

(6) has provided incomplete, inaccumte, fraudulent or false information in applying for the aerodrome certificate.

99. Where the Authority refuses to issue an aerodrome certificate to an applicant, it shall give the applicant written notice of the refusal and the reasons for such refusal no later than fourteen days thereafter.

100.-41) The Authority may issue an aerodrome .certificate subject to any conhtion that the Authority considers necessary in the interests of the safety a d security against acts of violence and unlawful interference of aircraft, passengers, crew and property and of air. navigation and air navigation installations and other aviation facilities.

(2) Where the Authority grants an aerodrome certificate subject to a condition in paragraph (I), it shall give the applicant written notice of the reasons for the decision.

(3) A condition under paragraph (2) shall be set out on the aerodrome certificate or in the notice given to the applicant under that paragraph.

(4) An aerodrome operator shall not contravene a condition contained in his aerodrome certificate.

(5) It shall be a condition to the issue of an aerodrome certificate that-

(a) an aerodrome opemtor shall comply with any directive given by the Authority in respect of aerodrome operations;

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THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGUU TIONS, 2004 93

(b) the Authority shall have access to any place at any time to conduct tests or inspections of aerodrome facilities, equipment or operating procedures at the aerodrome for the purpose of ensuring the safety of aircraft.

(6 ) The Authority shall pursuant to paragraph (5)-

(a) give reasonable notice to the aerodrome operator of any tests to be conducted; and

(6) carry out the tests referred to in sub-paragraph (a) at a reasonable time..

101. An aerodrome certificate issued under these Regulations shall be ~urat ionof the validity

valid for twelve months from the date of issue unless it is previously ofan

surrendered, suspended, or revoked. aerodrome cenificate

102.--(1) In addition to the provisions set out in Part I of these Suspendedor revoked

Regulations the Authority may give written notice to the holder of an aerodrome certificate (hereinafter referred to as an "aerodrome operator"), of the suspension or revocation of his aerodrome certificate where the Authority has reasonable grounds for believing that-

(a) a condition to which the certificate is subject has been breached; (6) the aerodrome facilities, equipment, operations or main-

tenance are not of the standard required in the interests of the safety of air navigation; or

(c) the holder has failed to comply with any directive given under paragraph (5) of regulation 100.

(2) Where an aerodrome certificate is being suspended or revoked under paragraph (1) the Authority, the Director General or an authorized person shall set out the facts and circumstances which justify the suspension or revocation of such aerodrome certificate.

(3) Before suspending or revoking an aerodrome certificate under paragraph (1) the aerodrome operator shall be given a notice which-

(a) sets out the facts and circumstances that justify the suspension or revocation of the aerodrome certificate; and

(6) invites the aerdrome operator to show cause, in w r i h g , within a period stated in the notice, not exceeding ten working days, as to why that certificate should not be suspended or revoked.

(4) The reasons given by the aerodrome operator under paragraph (3)(b) shall be taken into consideration when making a final decision to suspend or revoke the aerodrome certificate.

(5) Where the cause shown by the aerodrome operator under paragraph 3(b) is not satisfactory, the suspension or revocation, as the case may


94 W E CML Am TION REGULATIONS, 2004

surrender of aerodmme Cdficate.

lssue of - m d m m e Cdficate.

Amendment of an aerodmme certificate.

an aerodrome certificate shall take effect from the date specified in the notice of suspension or mocation.

103. Where an aerodrome operator wishes to surrender his aerodrome certificate he shall give the Authority not less than thnty days written notice of the date on which he wishes to surrender his aerodrome c e ~ c a t e .

104. An aerodrome certificate shall not be transferable, and any purpotted transfer of any aerodrome certificate shall be null and void.

105.-41) The Authority may grant a temporary aerodrome certificate to an applicant under these Regulations where-

(a) the application relates to an aerodrome for which an existing aerodrome certificate is in force;

(b) the holder of the existing aerodrome c e ~ c a t e has given the Authority notice under regulation 103 for the surrender of the existing aerodrome certificate;

(c) the cessation of validity of the existing aerodrome certificate will have effect before the Authority can fully consider the application of the applicant; and

(d) it is satisfied that the applicant will be able to properly operate and maintain the aerodrome in accordance with these Regulations for the duration of the temporary aerodrome certificate.

(2) A temporary aerodrome certdicate issued in accordance with paragraph (1) shall not be granted for a duration greater than sixty days.

106. The Authority may amend an aerodrome certificate where the requirements of these Regulations have been met and-

(a) the holder of the aerodrome certificate requests an amendment; (b) there is a change in the ownership or management of the

aerodrome;

(c) there is a change in the use or operation of the aerodrome; or

(4 there is a change in the boundaries of the aerodrome. Aerodrome register 107. The Authority shall cause to be kept a register to be known as the

"aerodrome register", which shall contain-

(a) the names of all registered aerodromes; (b) their aerodrome reference points;

(c) the dates of registration;

(4 the aerodrome reference code; and

(e) the name and principal place of business of. the aerodrome operator.


THE CIUL A U T I O N REGUUTIONS, 2004 95

108.-(1) An aerodrome operator shall have an Aerodrome Operator's Manual, approved by the Authority, prepared in accordance with regulation AB.amt.. 110, and as set out in the Twenty-first Schedule. -6

?+fmnd m - f u S t (2) The aerodrome operator shall give the authority a printed copy of Schedule

his Aerodrome Operator's Manual and keep a printed copy of same at his principal place of business and at the aerodrome.

(3) The aerodrome operator shall make the copy of the Aerodrome Operator's Manual kept at his principal place of business and at the aerodrome available to any authorized person.

I 109.-(1) An Aerodrome Operator's Manual under regulation 108 shall k72z&e

contain but not be limited to the following information applicable to the ~z.6

aerodrome- (a) a general section including-

(i) purpose and scope of the manual; (ii) conditions for use of the aerodrome; (iii) obligations of the aerodrome operator;

(b) the particulars of the aerodrome site including- (i) a plan thereof; (ii) particulars of the aerodrome operator's title to or interest in

the land.

(c) the particulars of the aerodrome required to be reported to the aeronautical information service of the Authority, including aerodrome dimensions and related information;

(d) particulars of the aerodrome operating procedures and safety measures including-

(i) reporting requirements; (ii) access to the aerodrome movement area;

(iii) aerodrome emergency, rescue and firefighting plan; (iv) inspection to be carried out by the aerodrome operator; (v) apron management including safety management thereof;. (vi) vehicle control; (vii) obstacle control; (viii) low-visibility operations; (ix) protection of sites for radar and navigational aids;

(e) aerodrome administration and safety management system as prescribed in the Twenty-first Schedule;

V) the aerodrome security programme; and

(g) any other matter wluch the Authority deems necessary in the interest of safety and security.


THE CIVL A VLA TION REGUL4 TIONS, 2004

Required form for an Aerodrome Opaator's Manual.

Amendment ofAemdmme . Opaator's manual.

(2) Where particular information referred to in paragraph ( 1 ) is not included in the manual because, it is not applicable to the aerodrome, an Aerodrome Operator's Manual shall contain-

(a) a statement to the effect that the information is not applicable; and

(b) the reasons why it is not applicable. (3) Where an exemption has been gmnted by the Authority, under

regulation 154, in relation to the aerodrome, an Aerodrome Operator's Manual shall contain-

(a) any idenwng number given to the exemption by the Authority;

(b) the date on which the exemption came into effect; and (c) any condition subject to which the exemption is gmnted.

110.--(1) An Aerodrome Operator's Manual under this Part shall-

(a) include instructions and information necessary to allow the personnel concerned to perform their duties and responsibilities with a high degree of safety;

(b) be in a form that facilitates its revision and shall contain a system which allows personnel to determine the current revision status of each manual;

(c) have a date of the last revision on each page concerned;

(d) not be contrary to these Regulations; and (e) include a reference, where applicable, to the appropriate

Regulation.

(2) The Aerodrome Operatoh Manual referred to in paragraph (I), may be produced either-

(a) in a series of parts; (6) as a series of volumes; or (c) as a single document

111.-41) To maintain the accuracy of the Aerodrome Operator's Manual, an aerodrome operator shall amend it-

(a) whenever it is necessary to do so; and

(b) upon the written directions of the Authority. (2) Where an aerodrome operator wishes to make an amendment to

his Aerodrome Operator's Manual under paragraph (1) he shall submit the proposed amendment, in writing, to the Authority for its approval.

(3) The Authority may approve an amendment to an Aerodrome Operator's Manual submitted under paragraph (3), where it is satisfied that such amendment will not establish procedures or equipment which will endanger aircraft, persons or the aerodrome.

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THE CIVIL A VIATION REGULATIONS. 2004 97

112.41) An aerodrome operator shall assign a person in the applicant's ~ssignmenl of person res- employ to be responsible for the Aerodrome Operator's Manual. ponsible for Aerodrome

(2) A person assigned responsibility for an Aerodrome Operator's 2;;:'" Manual under paragraph ( I ) , shall ensure that-

(a) a record is kept of the persons who hold copies of the whole or a part of the Aerodrome Operator's Manual; and

(b) amendments or information for the manual are distributed to those persons who require such information.

113. An aerodrome operator shall ensure that his aerodrome is operated ~u1y.f aerodmme

and maintained with a reasonable degree of care and diligence and o,e,torto

compliance with the standards and practices specified in regulation 9 l(2). ;;':;mme,s malntamed

114.41) An authorized person may inspect and cany out any test on the Accnsto aerodmme

aerodrome facilities, services and equipment, inspect the aerodrome operator's documents and records and verify the aerodrome operator's safety management system before the aerodrome certificate is granted or renewed and, subsequently, at any other times, for the purpose of ensuring safety and security at the aerodrome.

(2) An aerodrome operator shall, at the request of the person referred to in paragraph (I), allow access to any part of the aerodrome or any aerodrome facility, including equipment, records, documents and operator's personnel, for the purpose referred to in paragraph (1).

('3) The aerodrome operator shall cooperate with the person conducting the activity referred to in paragraph (1).

115. The aerodrome operator shall inspect his aerodrome as circum- spnial inspections.

stances require to ensure, restore, or to maintain aviation safety and security-

(a) as soon as practicable after any aircraft accident or incident pursuant t o the Nineteenth Schedule; Nineteenth

Schedule.

(b) during any period of construction or repair of the aerodrome facilities or equipment that is critical to the safety of aircraft operation; and

(c) at any time when there are conditions at the aerodrome that could affect aviation safety.

116. When low flying aircraft, at or near an aerodrome, or taxiing aircraft Warning notices

are likely to be hazardous to people or vehicular traffic, the aerodrome operator shall-

(a) post hazard warning notices on any public way that is adjacent to the maneuvering area; or


THE CIWL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

Required k8ini-g for aerodrome persormel.

operation and maintenance of aerodrome.

Dwiatim bom the Aaodrane Opastor's Manual.

Requuement for aaodmme data.

Functions of aaodrane

(b) if such a public way is not controlled by the aerodrome operator, inform the authority responsible for posting the notices on the public way that there is a hazard.

117.41) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that all persons performing duties or providing senices at his aerodrome are trained in accordance with the standards for training aerodrome personnel set out in his Aerodrome Operator's Manual.

(2) An aerodrome operator shall implement a programme to maintain the competency of its personnel.

118.41) Subject to any duections issued under paragraph (2), an aerodrome operator shall operate and maintain an aerodrome in accordance with the procedures set but in the approved aerodrome operator's manual.

(2) The Authority may direct an aerodrome operator to change any procedure set out in the Aerodrome Operator's Manual, where the Authority considers it necessary in the interests of the safety and security of persons at the aerodrome, aircraft, passengers, crew, and property, air navigation installations and aviation facilities.

I (3) An aerodrome operator shall comply with a k c t i o n given to him under paragraph (2).

119.41) Where an aerodrome operator wishes to deviate from the procedures contained in his Aerodrome Operator's Manual he shall apply to the Authority, for approval before the implementation of the new procedures.

(2) Where the Authority is satisfied, after taking into consideration such aeronautical studies as the Authority believes necessary, that the deviation applied for under paragraph (1) would attain the level of safety required by or equivalent to the standards prescribed by these Regulations, the Authority shall approve the deviation.

120. An aerodrome operator shall enswe that aerodrome data appropriate to his aerodrome certificate is in accordance with the Manual of Aerodrome Standards.

121.41) An aerodrome operator shall-

(a) monitor the serviceability of the aerodrome;

(b) report to the Authority any changes in conditions, or any other occurrences at the aerodrome required to be reported under paragraph (e);

(c) review all Aeronautical Infonnation Publication (AIP)s, AIP Supplements, AIP Amendments, Notices to Airmen (NOTAM), Pre-flight Information Bulletins and Aeronautical Information Circulars issued by the Authority on receipt thereof immediately after such reviews, and shall notify Aero-nautical Information Services (hereinafter also referred to as "AIS") of any inaccurate information contained therein that p e m s to the aerodrome;

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TRE CIWL AVL4TION REGULATIONS 2004

notify the Authority, in writing, at least sixty days before effect- ing any changes to the aerodrome facility or equipment or level of service at the aerodrome that has been planned in advance and which is likely to affect the accuracy of the information contained in the AIS publication referred to in pmgraph (1 )(c);

(e) not@ the Authority immediately of any of the following circumstances of which the operator has knowledge, namely-

(i) any obstacle, obstruction or hazards;

(ii) any reduction in the level of senice at the aerodrome;

(iii) any closure of any part of the movement area of the aerodrome; and

(iv) any other condition that could affect aviation safety at the aerodrome and which precautions are warranted.

(2) Where the aerodrome is a controlled aerodrome, the notice s h d also be given to air tmllic control and if the aerodrome is not controlled, notice shall be given to the Authority.

(3) In this regulation "controlled aerodrome" means an aerodrome at which an air traffic control senice is operating.

122. An aerodrome operator shall ensure that the physical characteristics of Pz;:; the movement area appropriate to his aerodrome certificate comply with the s h d d

standards set out in the Manual of Aerodrome Standards. 123.-41) An aerodrome operator shall mark the following areas of the Aoperay

aerodrome in accordance with the standards set out in the Manual of reqdtohave

Aerodrome Standards-- anodrome m a b g s .

(a) the movement area; (b) an unserviceable area; and (c) a work area on or near the movement area. (2) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that all aerodrome markings

are maintained in accordance with the standards set out in the Man& of Aerodrome Standards.

124.-41) An aerodrome operator who does not have a continuous air :=$ traffic senice provided by air W c control during the day shall provide a - signal area in accordance with the standards set out in the Twenty-first T ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ - f u s t

Schedule. Schedule

(2) An aerodrome operator shall display the appropriate signal in the signal area in any circumstances set out in the Manual of Aerodrome Standards that require such a signal to be displayed.

(3) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that the signal area and any signal displayed in it are clearly visible to any aircraft intending to use the aerodrome.

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THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULA TIONS, 2004

Aemdrome operator to have a wind direction indicator at aaodrome. Twenty-6l3t Schedule.

Requirement for visual Bids for navigation.

Aerodrome operator to have visual approach slope indicator system installed at aerodrome.

Aerodrome opemtor to have signs installed.

125.41) An aerodrome operator shall in accordance with the standards for wind direction indicators set out in the Twenty-first Schedule, install and maintain at least one wind direction indicator at the aerodrome.

(2) An aerodrome operator acting under paragraph (1) shall ensure that there is a wind direction indicator installed near the end of the runway.

(3) The Authority may exempt an aerodrome operator under these Regulations from compliance with paragraph (I), only if he is satisfied that surface wind information is passed to the pilots of aircraft approaching the runway by-

(a) an automatic weather observing system that-

(i) is compatible with the weather observing system of the Meteorology Office; and

(ii) provides surface wind information through an aerodrome weather information broadcast; or

(b) an approved observer having a communication link with pilots through which timely information about surface wind can be clearly passed to pilots; or

(c) any other approved means of providing surface wind information.

126.41) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that visual aids for navigation, appropriate to the aerodrome certificate he holds, are in compliance with the Manual of Aerodrome Standards.

(2) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that visual aids for denoting restricted areas appropriate to the aerodrome licence he holds comply with the Manual of Aerodrome Standards.

127.41) An aerodrome operator shall, in accordance with the aerodrome standards for Visual Approach Slope Indicator Systems (hereinafter also referred to as VASIS) set out in the Manual of Aerodrome Standards, provide an approved VASIS for the end of a runway that is regularly used as the approach end for jet-propelled aircraft conducting regular public transport operations or charter operations.

(2) The Authority may direct the aerodrome operator to provide an approved visual approach slope indicator system for the approach end or ends of a runway to which paragraph (1) does not apply, where he considers it necessary in the interests of the safety of air& and air navigation.

(3) The aerodrome operator shall comply with a direction given to him under paragraph (2).

128.-(1) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that signs are provided to convey either-

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THE CIVIL A T.2A TION REGULA TIONS. 2004

a mandatory instruction on a specific location or destination on a movement area; or other information to meet the requirements of the Manual of Aerodrome Standards.

(2) Signs under paragraph (1) may be either fixed or variable message signs and shall meet the requirements set out in ,the Manual of Aerodrome Standards.

129.-41) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that markers are frangible lor

and those located near a runway or taxiway shall be sufficiently low to preserve clearance for propellers and for engine pods of jet aircraft.

(2) Markers under paragraph (1) shall meet the requirements set out in the Manual of Aerodrome Standards.

130.-41) Where an aerodrome is available for an aircraft to land or g$;;Oe take off at night, or in less than visual meteorological conchtions during the havemove-

ment area of day, an aerodrome operator shall provide and maintain a lighting system for a,~o,e

the movement area of the aerodrome that is in accordance with paragraphs "' (2) and (3).

(2) A lighting system under paragraph (1) shall include-

(a) lighting of runways, taxiways and aprons intended for use at night or in less than visual meteorological conditions during the day:

(b) lighting of at least one wind direction indicator; (c) lighting of obstacles within the movement area; and (d) where the aerodrome has a runway intended to serve Category I.

Category I1 or Category I11 precision approach operations approach, runway and taxiway lighting for the runway and taxiway.

(3) A lighting system under t h ~ s regulation shall-

(a) where the lighting system is of a kind for which standards are specified in the Manual of Aerodrome Standards, meet those standards; or

(b) in any other case be of a kind, approved by the Authority. 131.-41) An aerodrome operator shall not put a new lighting system of a F2Ept

kind mentioned in paragraph (3) into senice at an aerodrome unless the 1.iehti.p systm.

following requirements are met-

(a) a pilot approved by the Authority has conducted a flight check of the system; and

(b) an electrical engineer or a licensed electrician has checked the system for compliance with any applicable electrical specifications


THE CIML AVIATION REGULA TIONS. 2004

Required eqlupment and mstallat~on. Twenty-first

. Schedule.

Aerodrome emergency conminee.

Requirements of emergency and other servms at aerodrome

(2) Where checking compliance with a specification requires the use of survey instruments: t& aerodrome operator shall ensure that the checking is done by-

(a) a person with a degree, diploma or certificate in surveying or civil engineering; or

(b) a person with such other qualtfications in surveying that may be acceptable to the Authority.

(3) Pursuant to paragraph , the kinds of lighting systems referred to are as follows-

(a) an approach lighting system;

(b) a runway lighting system for instrument and non-instrument approach runways;

(c) a visual approach slope indicator system for jet-propelled aircraft, other than a system intended for use on a temporary basis for a period not longer than thirty days; and

(4 a pilot-activated lighting system.

132. An aerodrome operator shall ensure that all equipment and installations at his aerodrome appropriate to the aerodrome certificate he holds are in compliance with the Twenty-first Schedule.

133.-31) An aerodrome operator shall establish an aerodrome emergency committee. ,

(2) The aerodrome emergency committee under paragraph (1) shall include a representative from the fire, Police or other emergency service that, having regard to the location of the aerodrome, would be likely to be asked to assist in the event of an emergency at the aerodrome.

1 3 4 . 4 1 ) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that he complies with the requirements for emergency and other services provided for in the Twenty- first Schedule.

(2) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that rescue and fire fighting services are provided at hls aerodrome.

(3) Notwithstanchg the generality of paragraph (2) an aerodrome operator shall ensure that-

(a) where an aerodrome is located close to water or swampy areas or difficult terrain; or

(b) where a sigruficant portion of approach or departure operations take place over areas listed in sub-paragraph (a),

specialist rescue and fire fighting equipment appropriate to the hazards and risks are available.

(4) Where the aerodrome is used in international operations for scheduled service for the transportation of passengers, the .aerodrome operator shall ensure that ambulance services are provided at his aerodrome.

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THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS. 2004 103

135.--(I) An aerodrome cmergency committee established under regulation 133 shall prcparc an acrodromc cmergcncy plan for that aercdrcmc

mcrgency aerodrome that shall includc- plan

(a) procedures for coordinating the responses of all emergency

service organizations referred to in thc plan: and

(6) any othcr mattcrs that are rcquircd to bc includcd m thc cmcr- gency plan as prescribed in the Manual of Aerodrome Standards.

(2) The aerodrome emergency committee shall review an aerodrome emergency plan under paragraph (I), at least once a e r y hvelve months and make any changes to the plan that are necessary to ensure the plan's proper operation.

(3) A revicw urider regulation p ~ g r a p h (2), shall bc carried out in consultation with the emergency service agencies rererred to in the emergency plan.

(4) As soon as practicable after an emergency exercise has been carried out at the aerodrome or if an emergency has occurred a t the aerodrome, as soon' as practicable after such emergency? an aerodrome operator shall arrange for the aerodrome emergency committee te-

(a) review the effectiveness of the responses to the exercise or the emergency;

(6) assess the adequacy of the emergency plan to deal with emergcn- cies at the aerodrome; and

(c) take such corrective action as may be necessary to ensure that the plan operates effectively.

(5) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that-

(a) records of each review of the emergency plan carried out under this regulation are kept; and

(6) each record is retained for at least three years after the review to which the record relates was carried out.

136.-41) An aerodrome operator shall, subject to paragraphs (2), (3) and tzz: (4) conduct an emergency exercise at least once every twenty-four months in ts t rhe

aerodrome order to test- emergency

(a) the co-ordination of the emergency senice agencies referred to plan

in the aerodrome emergency plan; and (6) the adequacy of the procedures and facilities provided for in the

aerodrome emergency plan. (2) Where an emergency occurs at an aerodrome within six months

before the expiration of the twenty-f&r month interval between emergency exercises, the aerodrome operator may request the Authority to extend the period within which t&ae6 emergency exercise shall be conducted.

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THE CI ITL A VIA TION REGULA TIONS. 2004

(3) The Authority may grant the request under paragraph (2), where it is satisfied that-

(a) all emergency service agencies referred to in the plan responded to the emergency; and

(6 ) the emergency adequately tested the plan. (4) In granting a request under paragraph (3) , the Authority may

extend the period until the end of twenty-four months after the emergency occurred. .

Requuement to cond~~ct 1 3 7 . 4 1 ) An aerodrome operator shall conduct an aerodrome servicea- aerodrome serv~ceabrl~ty

bility inspection to ensure that the aerodrome is safe for aircraft operation* lnspechon

( a ) after a gale. storm or other severe weather; (b ) as soon as practicable after any aircraft accident or incident; (c) during any period of construction or repair of the aerodrome

facilities or equipment critical to safety of aircraft operations; (d) at any time that Air Traffic Control or the Authority requires the

inspection; and ( e ) at any other time when there are wndtions at the aerodrome

whch could affect safety.

(2) An aerodrome serviceability inspection under paragraph (I), shall include the following-

( a ) an inspection of the movement area to access its surface condition, including ascertaining the presence of foreign objects;

(6) an inspection of aerodrome markings, lightrng, signs, wind direction indicators and ground signals;

(c) an inspection for any obstacles infringing the take-off, approach and transitional surfaces;

(4 an inspection for any birds or animals on or near the movement area;

( e ) an inspection of any measures, including aerodrome fencing, to control the inadvertent entry of persons or animals into the movement area;

(0 an empirical assessment of the bearing strength of runway pavements;

(g) an empirical assessment of the runway strip or each runway strip where the runway concerned is not marked and the whole runway strip may be used for aircraft operations; and

(h) a check of the accuracy and currency of notices to airmen for the aerodrome;

- -

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THE C M L Am TION REGULITIONq 2004 105

(3) The inspections under paragraph .(2) shall comply with all :I&"' applicable standards for aerodrome serviceability inspections set out in the Twenty-first Schedule; - ,

138.-(1) An aerodrome operator shall conduct an aerodrome techcal E:'ztt inspechon for his aerodrome to ensure that any deterioration that could make technical in-

spection of the aerodrome unsafe for aircraft operations is detected. an aerodrome.

(2) An aerodrome technical i n w o n shall include the following- an instrument survey of the approach, takeoff and transitional surfaces; an -on and testing of the aerodrome lighting and electrical circuits, including the visual approach slope indicator;

an electrical testing of any grounding points at the aerodrome; an impectton and assessment of the movement area, pavements and drainage; an inspection of signs on the movement area; an inspection of facilities at the aerodrome used for any of the following-

(i) aerodrome emergencies;

(ii) the handling of hazardous materials;

(iii) bird and animal hazard management;

(iv) stand-by and emergency aerodrome lighting: an inspection of airside vehicle control arrangements; and

a check of the currency and accuracy of-

(i) aerodrome information published in the Aeronautical Information Publication Jamaica; and

(ii) aerodrome operating procedures specified in the aerodrome manual for the aerodrome.

(3) The inspection under paragraph (2), shall comply with all applicable standards for aerodrome technical inspections set out in the Twenty-first Schedule.

139.- 1) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that- Timefiame for the conduct of a

(a) an aerodrome technical inspection is'conducted at intervals of not technicsl

more than twelve months; or ins@ion.

(6) where the operator has elected under paragraph (2) to have parts of the aerodrome techtllcal inspection conducted at different times, each facility of the aerodrome to be inspected is inspected at intervals of not more than twelve months.

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THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS 2004

(2) An aerodrome operator may elect to have a part of an aerodrome technical inspection conducted at different times fiom other parts.

(3) Where it appears fiom an aerodrome serviceability inspection that a particular facility at the aerodrome requires an aerodrome technical inspection, the aerodrome operator shall ensure that the necessary technical inspection of the facility is conducted as soon as practicable.

(4) An aerodrome operator- I

(a) shall, where the aerodrome operator has elected to have parts of an aerodrome technical inspection conducted at different times under paragraph (2)-

(i) keep records of each part of the inspection; and

(ii) retain each record for at least three years after the part of the inspection to which the record relates was conducted; or

(b) shall, in any other case-

(i) keep records of each inspection; and

(ii) retain each record for at least three years after the inspection to which the record relates was conducted.

Requirement for the

140.--(I) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that an aerodrome conduct of technical inspection is conducted by persons with appropriate technical techn~cal ,nspK,,ons qualifications and experience.

(2) Without limiting the generality of paragraph (I), an aerodrome operator shall ensure that-

(a) the movement area, other pavements and drainage of the aerodrome are inspected by a person who has a degree, diploma or certificate in civil engineering or other appropriate technical qualifications recognized by the Authority as indicating competence in the particular discipline;

(b) the lighting and electrical facilities are inspected by an electrical engineer or a licensed electrician; and

(c) the obstacle limitation surfaces are inspected by a person who satisfies the Authority that he-

(i) is technically qualified or experienced in surveying; and

(ii) has a sound knowledge and understanding of the standards and survey procedures for obstacle limitation surfaces.


THE CIVlTL A VIATION REGULATIONS, 2204 107

141.--(1) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that any aerodrome works z;yment carried out at the aerodrome are carried out in a way that does not create a p l a m s a n d

hazard to aircraft, or confusion to pilots. esccubon aerodrome or u~orlts

(2) The aerodrome operator shall comply with the standards set out in the Twenty-first Schedule in relation to p l d g and notice requirements -$,"d";',""' that shall be satisfied before aerodrome works may be canied out.

1 4 2 . 4 1 ) The aerodrome operator shall establish a safety management system for the aerodrome describing the structure of the organization and the shall have

a safety duties, powers and responsibilities of the officials in the organizational structure, with the view to ensuring that operations are canied out in a W"

demonstrable controlled way and are improved where necessary.

(2) The aerodrome operator shall require all users of the aerodrome. including fixed-based operators, ground-handling agencies and other organizations that perform activities independently at the aerodrome in relation to flight or aircraft handling, to comply with the requirements laid down by the aerodrome operator with regard to safety at the aerodrome and the aerodrome operator shall monitor such compliance.

(3) The aerodrome operator shall require all users of the aerodrome. including fixed-based operators, ground-handling agencies and other organizations referred to in paragraph (2), to cooperate in the programme of safety at, and the safe use of, the aerodrome by immediately informing the aerodrome operator of any accidents, incidents, defects and faults which have a bearing on safety.

(4) The aerodrome operator shall arrange for-

(a) an internal audit of the safety management system, including an inspection of the aerodrome facilities and equipment and the aerodrome operator's own functions; and

(b) an audit and inspection programme for evaluating all users, including fixed-based operators, ground-handling agencies and other independent organizations operating at the aerodrome as referred to in paragraph (2).

(5) The audit referred to in paragraph (4) shall be canied out at least once every twenty-four months, or more frequently, as agreed between the aerodrome operator and the Authority.

(6) The aerodrome operator shall ensure that the audlt reports, including the report on the aerodrome facilities, services and equipment, are prepared by suitably qualified safety experts.

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Aerodrome operator lo collect statistics.

Visual aids denoting obstacles to comply with standards. Twenty-first Schedule.

Aerodrome operator lo monitor airspace around aerodrome.

Establishment o f obstacle limitation surface for aerodrome.

Notice require. menl proposed cnnstmclion of objects.

(7) The aerodrome operator shall provide a copy of each report referred to in paragraph (6) to the Authority within thirty (30) days for its review and reference and shall retain a copy for a period of no less than three years.

(8) The report referred to in paragraph (6) shall be prepared and signed by the persons who carry out the audits and inspections.

143. Where the Authority considers it necessary in the interests of the safety of air navigation, the Authority may give directions in writing to an aerodrome operator to collect-

(a) statistics about-

(i) the types of aircraft using the aerodrome; and

(ii) the times of aircraft movements at the aerodrome; and

(b) other information specified by the Authority in the directions, that is relevant to deciding what radio communication services or air traffic services should be provided at the aerodrome.

144. An aerodrome operator shall ensure that visual aids for denoting obstacles, appropriate to the aerodrome certificate he holds, comply with standards set out in the Twenty-first Schedule.

145.-41) An aerodrome operator shall monitor the airspace around the aerodrome for infringement of the obstacle limitation surfaces by-

(i) any object, building or structure; or

(ii) any gaseous efflux having a velocity exceeding 4.3 metres per second.

(2) For the purpose of this Part "obstacle limitation surfaces" means the series of surfaces established by the Authority in the Obstacle Evaluation Manual to define the limit to which objects may project into the airspace with the intent that the airspace around aerodromes are maintained free from obstacles so as to permit the intended aircraft operations at each aerodrome to be conducted safely.

146. An aerodrome operator shall ensure that obstacle limitation surfaces are established for the aerodrome in accordance with the standards set out in the Twenty-first Schedule and the Obstacle Evaluation Manual.

147. Subject to regulation 148, a person shall give prior notification to the Authority, of that person's intention to create or alter any structure or object, in any of the following circumstances- .



(a) where the structure or object exceed 30 meters (98.4 feet) in height above the ground level at its site outside the vicinity of the aerodrome or within the vicinity of the aerodrome;

(b) where the structure or object exceeds the height of an imaginary surface extending outward and upward at one of the following slopes-

(i) 1% slope for a horizontal distance of 3000 metres (9,842 feet) fiom the nearest point of the nearest runway of code 3 and 4 public-use airport;

(ii) 2% slope for a horizontal distance of 1500 meters (4,92 1 feet) fiom the nearest point of the nearest runway at a code 1 and 2 registered public-use aerodromes;

(iii) 4% slope for a horizontal distance of 750 meters (2,460 feet) fiom the nearest point of the nearest landing and take off area of each registered heliport,

within the provisions of the Twenty-first Schedule. Twenty-fin1 Schedule.

(c) where the structure or object would be in an instrument approach area, departure route, an en route obstacle clearance area, an airway, or an approved off airway route that would increase the minimum obstacle clearance altitude or is a structure or object within 1 mile radius of a navigational aid;

(d) any air navigation facility, airport visual approach or landing aid, meteorological device, or aeronautical telecommunication device the location and height of which is fixed by its functional purpose.

148. A person is not required to notify the Authority for any construction ~xemption from

or alteration in'the following circumstances- notification

(a) where the structure or object-

(i) would be shielded by existing structures of a permanent and substantial character, natural terrain, topographic features of equal or greater height; and

(ii) is located in the congested area of city, town, or settlement, where it is evident beyond all reasonable doubt that the structure or object so shielded will not adversely affect safety in air navigation.

(b) where the structure is an antenna structure nor exceeding 6 metres in height (other than an antenna that would increase the height of. another structure).

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THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS 2004

Notification time.

Form of notification.

Acknowledgment of notifica~ion.

Aerodrome operator lo ensure obstacles are detected quickly.

Hazards and objects.

149. The notification under regulation 147 shall be submitted to the Authority at least sixty days before the construction or event is to begin.

150. The notification under regulation 147 shall be in the form provided by the Authority.

151.--(1) The Authority shall forthwith acknowledge in writing receipt of each notification.

(2) The Authority shall conduct an aeronautical study of the relevant structure or object and respond to the notification stating its determination that the construction or alteration would-

(a) not exceed any standard and would not be a hazard to air navigation;

(b) exceed a standard but would not be a hazard to air navigation; or

(c) exceed a standard and require hrther aeronautical study to determine whether or not it would be a hazard to air navigation;

152.--(1) An aerodrome operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that obstacles at, or within the vicinity of, the aerodrome are detected as quickly as possible.

(2) Where the aerodrome operator becomes aware of the presence of an obstacle, he shall-

(a) inform the Authority immediately; and

(6) give the Authority details of-

(i) the height and location of the obstacle; and

(ii) if applicable, amendments to the declared distances and gradients which have been the subject of a Notice to Airman or published in the AIP Jamaica.

(3) Where the aerodrome operator becomes aware of any development or proposed construction near the aerodrome that is likely to create an obstacle, he shall-

(a) inform the Authority as soon as practicable; and

(b) give to the Authority details of the likely obstacle.

153.--(1) The Authority may determine, in writing, that an obstacle, or any proposed development or other proposed construction may create an obstacle, having regard to the criteria for determining hazards and obstacle set out in Obstruction Evaluation Manual.

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THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004 1 1 1

( 2 ) The Authority may determine, in writing, that a gaseous efflux having a velocity exceeding 4.3 metres per second is, or will be, a hazard to aircraft operations because of the velocity or location of the efflux.

1 5 4 . 4 1 ) The Authority may exempt in writing an aerodrome operator Exemptions

fiom complying with specific provisions of this Part.

(2 ) Before the Authority decides to exempt an aerodrome operator, the Authority must take into account all relevant safety-related matters.

(3 ) An exemption granted by the Authority under paragraph (1 ) shall be subject to any conditions or procedures specified in the relevant aerodrome certificate as being necessary in the interest of safety.

155. An aerodrome operator shall ensure that all security provisions security

including security contingency plans required by the Authority under Part XV of these Regulations, or instituted by the Authority from time to time, are implemented, maintained, and enforced, by its employees, contractors, agencies, regulated agents and its tenants.

PART XIV. Air Traffic Control

1 5 6 . 4 1 ) Every person and every operator of an aircraft shall comply with ~ s t r a f i c control

such of the Rules of the Air and Air Traffic Control (ATC) contained in the Tenth Schedule as may be applicable to that person or aircraft in the Tenth

circumstances of the case. Schedule

(2 ) Subject to the provisions of paragraph (3), it shall be an offence to contravene, or to permit the contravention of, or to fail to comply with, any of the rules of the Air and .Air Traffic Control contained in the Tenth Schedule.

(3 ) The rules of the Air and Air Traffic Control shall not be enforceable in any particular case where departure therefrom is necessary-

(a ) to avoid immediate danger;

(b) to comply with the law of any country other than Jamaica within which the aircraft then is; or

( c ) to comply with regulations in relation to military aircraft of which the pilot-in-command is- acting in the course of his duty as a member of such military force.

(4 ) If any departure from the rules of the Air and Air Traffic Control is made for the purpose of avoiding immediate danger, the pilot-in-command of the aircraft shall cause written particulars of the departure, and of the circumstances giving rise to it, to be given within ten days thereafter to the competent authority of the country in whose territory the departure was made or if the departure was made over the high seas, to the Authority.

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112 THE CIUL AVLATION REGULA TIONS, 2004

Tenth Schedule.

Wl information service manual.

Power to prohibit or restrict flying.

(5) Nothing in the Tenth Schedule shall exonerate any person from the consequences of any neglect in the use of lights or signals or of the neglect of any precautions required by ordinary aviation practice or by the special circumstances of the case.

157. A person shall not provide an aerodrome flight information at any aerodrome unless the service is provided in accordance with the standards and procedures specified in a Manual of Operations (MANOPS) in respect of that aerodrome.

158.-(1) Where the Authority deems it necessary in the public interest to prohibit flyng by reason of-

(a) the intended gathering or movement of a large number of persons; or

(6) the intended holder of an air race or contest or of an exhibition in flying; or

(c) national defence or any other reason aEecting public interest, the Authority may issue directives prohibiting, restricting or imposing conditions on flight-

(i) by any aircraft, whether registered in Jamaica or not, in the airspace over Jamaica; or

(ii) by aircraft registered in Jamaica, in any other airspace, being an airspace in respect of which the Government of Jamaica has, in pursuance of international amngements, undertaken to provide navigation services for aircraft

(2) Directives made under this regulation my' apply either generally or in relation to any class of aircraft.

(3) If the PIC of an aircraft becomes aware that the aircraft is flying in contravention of any prohibition, restriction or conditions imposed under paragraph (1 ) (c), he shall, unless otherwise instructed pursuant to paragraph (4), cause the aircraft to leave the area to which the directives relate by flying to the least possible extent over such an area and the aircraft shall not begin to descend while over such an area.

(4) The PIC of an aircraft flying within an area to which directives under (1) (c) apply or within airspace notified as a danger area shall forthwith comply with instructions given by-

(a ) radio; (b) one of the prescribed visual signals; (c) the appropriate air traflic control unit; or (4 the person responsible for safety within the relevant airspace

159.-41) Within Jarnaica- (a) a captive balloon or kite shall not be flown at a height of more than

60 metres above the ground level or within 60 me- of any vessel, vehicle or structure;

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W E C M L A VUTION REGULATIONS, 2004 113

(b) a captive balloon shall not be flown within 5 kilometres of an aerodrome;

(c) a balloon exceeding 2 metres in any linear dimension at any stage of its flight, including any basket or other equipment attached to the balloon, shall not be flown in controlled airspace;

(d) a kite shall not be flown within 5 kilometres of an aerodrome; (e) an airship shall not be moved at a height of more than sixty

metres above ground level; and V) a gllder or parascending parachute shall not be launched by

winch and cable, or by ground tow, to a height of more than 60 metres above ground level,

without the permission in writing of the Authority and in accordance with any conditions subject to which that permission may be granted.

(2) A captive balloon when in flight shall be securely moored, and shall not be left unattended unless it is fitted with a device which ensures its automatic deflation if it breaks free of its moorings.

160. The Authority shall publish obstacle data to enable operators to Eg!; develop procedures for take off in the event of a critical power-unit failure. d.t.

161. - (1) No person may, whether by use of radio call sign or in any other FFGe, way, present himself as an air traffic controller, or as a person who may provide any type of service as an air traac controller, unless that person has umtronw

been issued an Air Traffic Controller Licence by the Authority, pursuant to the requirements detailed in ICAO Annex 1, Chapter 4, and in (A) and (B) of Bghm

the Eighth Schedule or unless that person is- Schedule

(a) a student air traflic controller being supervised by the holder of a valid air traflic controller's licence who is authorized to provide that type of service at that place; or

(b) the holder of a valid air traflic controller's licence granted or rendered valid under these Regulations authorizing the holder to provide that service at the place; or

(c) the holder of a valid air traflic controller's licence so granted which does not authorize the holder to provide that type of sqrvice at that place, but who is supervised by a person who is pysent at the time and who is the holder of a valid air tl-affic controller's licence which authorizes him to provide at that place the type of air traffic control service which is being provided.

(2) Nothing in this regulation shall prohibit the holder of a valid air traffic controller's licence from providing information to aircraft in flight in the interests of safety.

(3) A person shall not provide any type of air tratlic control service or aerodrome flight information service unless he identifies himself in such manner as may be notified.


114 THE CIWL A VIA TION REGULA TIONS, 2004

Licensing of air traffic 162.-(1) The Authority may upon application therefor, grant a licence, conhollm. subject to such conltions as it thinks fit, to any person to act as an air traffic

controller upon being satisfied that the applicant is- (a) a fit person to hold the licence; and

Eighth Schedule

(b ) qualified by reason of his knowledge, experience, competence, slall and physical and mental fitness so to act, and for that purpose, the applicant shall funush evidence and undergo such examinations including a medical examination, as the Authority may require.

(2) Every licence to act as an air traffic controller shall include- (a) ratings of one or more of the classes set out in the Eighth

Schedule speclfylng the type of air traffic control s e ~ c e which the holder of the licence is competent to provide,

(b) a list of places at which the rating is valid;

(c) the type of radar equipment, if any, with the aid of which he may provide the s e ~ c e .

(3) If throughout a period of ninety days the holder of a licence to act as an air tratfic controller, has not at any time provided at a particular place the type of air traffic control s e ~ c e specified in the rating, the rating shall cease to be valid for that place at the end of the period, and upon a rating ceasing to be valid for a place the holder of the licence shall forthwith inform the Authority to that effect.

(4) A licence issued under this regulation shall remain in force for the period indicated in the licence and may be renewed from time to time upon the Authority being satisfied that the applicant is fit and qualified as aforesaid;

(5) Every applicant for the holder of an air traffic controller's licence shall, upon such occasions as the Authority may require-

(a) submit himself to such medical examinations, by an aviation medical examiner approved by the Authority, either generally or in a partrcular case, who shall make a report to the Authority in such form as he may require;

(b) submit himself to such examinations and tests, and furnish such evidence as to his knowledge, experience, competence and slull, as specified in the Eighth Schedule and such examinations may be conducted by a person approved by the Authority.

(6) On the basis of the medical examination and report referred to in paragraph (5) (a) the Authority may issue a medical certificate, pursuant to the Eighth Schdule and subject to such conditions as it deems fit, certifying that the holder of the licence has been assessed as fit to perform the functions

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to which the licence relates and the certificate shall be valid for such period as is therein specified not exceeding twenty-four months fiom the date of issue and shall be deemed to form a part of the licence.

(7) The holder of an air traffic controller's licence shall not provide any type of air traffic control service unless his licence includes a valid

~ medical certificate issued under paragraph (6).

163.-(1) Every holder of an air traffic controller's licence issued under Temporary incapacity of regulation 162 who- air I ~ I C

wntmller.

(a) suffers any personal injury or illness involving incapacity to undertake the functions to which his licence relates for a period* of twenty consecutive days; or

(b) in the case of a woman, has reason to believe that she is preg- nant, shall inform the Authority in writing of such injury, illness or pregnancy as soon as possible.

(2) An air traffic controller's licence shall be suspended during the period of such injury or illness referred to in paragraph (1) (a) and the suspension of the licence shall cease-

(a) upon the holder being medically examined under arrangements made by the Authority and pronounced fit to resume his functions under the licence; or

(b) upon the Authority exempting the holder fiom the requirement of a medical examination subject to such conditions as the Authority may think fit.

(3) Upon the confirmation of the pregnancy of the holder of an air traffic controller's licence, the licence shall be suspended and such suspension shall cease upon the holder being medically examined, under arrangements made by the Authority, and pronounced fit to continue or resume her functions under the licence.

I PART XV. Security

164. - (1) ?his Part prescribes the requirements for- S w p e and avvlication

(a) ensuring the safety and security of passengers and crew of aircraft dith1s Pan

operating into and out of Jamaican aerodromes by preventing the boarding of weapons, potential weapons, explosives, components for explosives, and other materials that could be used to commit violence, or acts of unlawful interference, inflict harm, or threaten lives;

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THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGUUTIONS, 2004

(b) ensuring the safety and security of the facilities, equipment, navigation aids, personnel, and physical plant of and at all Jamaican aerodromes;

(c) maint?ining perimeter security and access control at all domestic and international aerodromes.

(2) This Part applies to-

(a) all operators of international aerodromes, and domestic aerodromes which are approved for use by scheduled and unscheduled air operators;

(b) Jamaican air operators;

(c) foreign air operators;

(d) aerodrome tenants;

(e) ' y person who offers goods for transport by air,

V) a person who provides a service to an air operator;

) a peri?n on board an aircraft;

(h) a person in, or within the vicinity of, an aerodrome; , ( i ) regulated agents;

(i) catering organizations; and

(k) an airline crew. Powers and I e5p~ l - 165.-41) The,Director General may, from time to time, issue prohibition bihhes of the MOI

orders, prescribe aviation security standards, and issue security directives, or General information circulars wherever and whenever it appears to the Authority that

security will be enhanced, or that such action is necessary to counter a potential threat to the safety or security of, or unlawful interference with, any person at or in the vicinity of an aerodrome, any air navigation installation or other aviation facility, or any aircraft or person thereon.

(2) The/~irector G e n d shall develop, implement and maintain a National Civil Aviation Security Programme, and shall also be responsible to-

(a) ensure effective security controls with minimum interference with civil aviation activities;

(b) ensure appropriate protection of aviation security information;

(c) support requests from other states for special security controls;

(d) cooperate with other states in the development and exchange of infopnation;

L

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THE C M L AVL4TION REGULA TIONS; 2004

(e) coordinate aviation-related activities between departments, agencies, and other organizations by using the National Civil Aviation Security Committee appointed by the Minister;

V) develop or implement, as applicable, approved national mining and quality assurance programmes for aviation security personnel and organizatians; and

(g) provide ICAO with all pertinent information concerning the security aspects of any act of unlawful interference, d g either at a Jamaican aerodrome, in Jamaican airspace or a Jamaican aircraft

(3) The Director General or an authorized person shall initiate, organize and conduct such impemons, audits, random checks and system tests as may be necessary to ensure that aerodrome operators, air operators, aerodrome tenants, regulated agents and catering organizations, are in and maintain compliance with and adherence to the requirements of these Regulations and Schedules.

166.-41) No person shall operate an aerodrome, or an aircraft in commercial air tmsport service, unless that person has submitted a security - programme to the Authority for approval and has received such approval for p"p""e

such security programme which shall meet the requirements of these Regulations.

(2) Every national air operator, and every aerodrome operator, prior to being granted a certificate to operate, shall prepare a security programme pursuant to the Twentieth Schedule the details of which shall be set forth in a security manual that shall be presented to the Authority for approval. Schedule

(3) A foreign air operator shall not operate an enterprise, or an organization whose purpose is the movement of goods or passengers by air, within and through Jamaica, unless he has submitted a security programme purmant to the Twentieth Schedule for his operations to the Authority for its approval.

(4) A Security Programme made under these Regulations which shall be signed by the applicant and in accordance with the Twentieth Schedule, shall provide for the safety and security for-

(a) passengers, crew and their property;

(b) other persons and property on or in the vicinity of the operations of the aircraft or aerodrome;

(c) the aircraft;

(4 theaerodrome;

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THE C M L AKXTION REGUL4TIONS. 2004

Contab of a security programme.

Twentieth Schedule.

No breach of legu-

latiom. etc.. OT

rules, directives, etc.. made unda Act.

(e) air navigation installation; or Q

V) related aviation support facilities; as the case might be.

(5) An air operator, or aerodrome operator, regulated agent, and catering organization shall adhere to the requirements, standards and procedures as set out in the Security Programme approved for implementation by that operator, agent or organization.

167. An aerodrome operator shall include, as a part of his security programme, the following procedures and measures in accordance with the Twentieth Schedule-

(a) procedures to ensure that all persons, goods, and vehicles, entering airside areas, are screened to prevent the entry of weapons, munitions, explosives, or any other hazardous device or materials that could be used for criminal or terrorist purposes or to commit acts of violence or acts of unlawful interference with civil aviation;

(b) procedures to ensure that all passengers, carry-on baggage, cargo hold baggage, cargo and mail are screened to prevent the carrying on board of any weapons, explosives, or other hazardous device or material intended for unlawful interference with civil aviation.

168. No person shall breach or contravene any regulation in this Part or any relevant Schedules or breach any of the rules, orders, directives, directions, instructions or access restrictions contained in or made, issued or given by the Act, these Regulations or Schedules or in the Security Programme referred to herein

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INDEX of SCHEDULES

FIRST SCHEDULE

SECOND SCHEDULE

THIRD SCHEDULE

FOURTH SCHEDULE

FIFTH SCHEDULE

SIXTH SCHEDULE

SEVENTH SCHEDULE

EIGHTH "A" SCHEDULE

EIGHTH " B SCHEDULE

NINTH SCHEDULE

TENTH SCHEDULE

ELEVENTH SCHEDULE

TWELFTH SCHEDULE

FOURTEENTH SCHEDULE

FIFTEENTH SCHEDULE

SIXTEENTH SCHEDULE

SEVENTEENTH SCHEDULE

EIGHTEENTH SCHEDULE

NINETEENTH SCHEDULE

TWENTIETH SCHEDULE

TWENTY-FIRST SCHEDULE

General Policies, Procedures and Definitions

Penalties

Aircraft Registration

Aircraft & Component Original Certification

Continuing Airworthiness of Aircraft

Approved Maintenance Organizations

Required Instruments & Equipment

Personnel Licensing

Medical Certification

Approved Training Organizations

Operations of Aircraft

Aerial Work Operations

Air Operator Certification & Administration

Passenger Carrylng Requirements for AOC holders

& Operators of Large airtrafl

AOC Operations Personnel Qualification

Requirements

Acceptable Duty, Flight and Rest Periods for AOC

Operations Personnel

Air Operator Operational Control & Flight Release

Requirements

Mass and Balance and Performance Requirements

for Aircraft used in Commercial Transport.

Caniage of Dangerous Goods by Air

Aircraft Accident Reporting and Investigation

Requirements

Aviatlon Security

Contents of and Aerodrome Manual

TWENTY-SECOND SCHEDULE Fees

TWENTY-THIRD SCHEDULE Repeals


THE CIVIL A VIA T/ON REGULATIONS, 2004

FIRST SCHEDULE

GENERAL POLICIES, PROCEDURES AND DEFINITIONS

SUBPART A: GENERAL 1.001 Applicab~lity of These Schedules 1.005 Organization of Schedules (Except Schedule 2) 1.015 Definitions

SUBPART B: GENERAL ADMINISTRATIVE RULES 1.025 Display and Inspection of Licences and Certificate 1.030 Change of Name 1.035 Change of Address 1.040 Replacement of a Lost or Destroyed JCAA-Issued Document 1.045 Falsification, Reproduction, or Alteration of Required Documents 1.050 Surrender, Suspension, or Revocation of Licence or Certificate 1.055 Reapplication After Revocation 1.060 Reapplication After Suspension 1.065 Voluntary Surrender or Exchange of Licence 1.070 Prohibition of Performance During Medical Deficiency 1.075 Drug and Alcohol Testing and Reporting

SUBPART C: VALIDATION OF CERTIFICATES AND AUTHORIZATIONS 1.080 Validation - General 1.085 Term of Validity 1.090 Holders of Validated Documents 1.095 Validation of Type Certificates and Supplemental Type Certificates 1 .I00 Val~dation of Certificates of Aiworthiness 1.105 Validation of Medical Certificates 1 .I 10 Validation of Airman Licences and Ratings 1 .I 15 Validation of Air Operator Certificates 1 .I 20 Validation of Approved Organizations 1 .I25 Validation of Approvals, Authorizations and Designations

SUBPART D: EXEMPTIONS AND DEVIATIONS 1 .I 30 Applicability 1 .I35 Authority to Approve Exemptions and Deviations 1.140 Acting on Unacceptable Authorizations 1.145 Application - General Information 1 .I50 Appllcatlon - Description of Proposal 1 .I55 Application - Justification of Proposal 1 .I60 Processing the Application 1 .I65 Technical Evaluation Results 1 .I70 Publication of Propqsal and Technical Evaluation 1.175 Application for Party Status 1 .I80 Approval of the Alternative Method of Compliance 1 .I85 Disapproval of the Alternative Method of Compliance 1 .I90 Publication and Availability of Approved Alternative Method of Compliance

SUBPART E: DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING - EMPLOYEES PERFORMING SAFElY- SENSITIVE FUNCTIONS

1.195 Definitions 1 .I 98 Safety-Sensitive Function 1.205 Drug and Alcohol Testing 1.21 0 Testing Procedure 1.21 5 Return to Duty

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1.220 Follow-up Testing 1.225 Ten or More Employees 1.230 Enforcement 1.235 Permanent Disqualification 1.240 Breathalyzer Testing

SUBPART A: GENERAL

(a) These Schedules provide specific technical safety requirements prescribed by the Minister in support of these Regulations to ensure that operations in Jamaica meet the international standards for aviation safety for rqistration of aircraft, maintenance of aircraft, personnel licensing and operations of aircrafl in general aviation, aerial work and commercial air transport activities.

(b) Each Schedule shall, as indicated in the particular Schedule, apply to all persons operating or maintaining the following - (1 ) Jamaican-registered aircraft; (2) aircraft registered in another Contracting State that are operated by a person licensed by

Jamaica, and must be maintained in accordance with the standards of the aircraft State of Registry, wherever that maintenance is performed;

(3) aircraft of other Contracting States operating in Jamaica.

(c) Schedule requirements addressing general matters establish minimum standaids for all aircrafl operated in Jamaica. Specific requirements applicable to the holder of a certificate shall apply if they appear to be in conflict with a more general Schedule requirement.

1.005 ORGANIZATION OF SCHEDULES (EXCEPT THE SECOND SCHEDULE)

(a) These Schedules are subdivided into five hierarchical categories - (1) Schedule refers to the primary subject area. (2) Subpart refers to any subdivision of a Schedule. (3) Section refers to any subdivision of a Subpart. '(4) Subsection refers to the title of a regulation and can be a subdivision of a Subpart or Section, (5) paragraph refers to the text describing the regulations. All paragraphs are outhed

alphanumerically in the following hierarchical order: (a), (1). (i), (A). (aa); '

(b) Definitions used throughout these Schedules are organized as follows - 1

(1 1 definitions amlicable to two or more Schedules amear in this Schedule: '

(2) definitions abblicable only toone Schedule appeai'at the beginning of that Schedule; and (3) definitions contained in the Civil Aviation Act of Jamaica take precedence wherever there may be . .

duplication of definitions appearing in these Schedules. (c) Acronyms used within each Schedule are defined at the beginning of those ~chedl les and if a

definition is supplied, a note will indicate the Schedule where the definition is located.

(d) Notes appear in subsections to provide exceptions, explanations and examples of individual requirements.

(e) Subsections may refer to Appendices, which provide detailed requirements that support the purpose of the subsection. and where specifically referenced by the subsection, gain the legal force and effect of the referring subsection. Under the rules of construction, the term "Appendix" is applied to these supplementary requirements.

1 .Of 5 DEFINITIONS

For the purpose of these Schedules, the following definitions shall apply - (1) "acceptable to the Authority". Where used in these Schedules, identifies dbcuments.

portions of documents, formal procedures, facilities, equipment, or personnel that must be found satisfactory by a technical review of the Authority prior to use in aviation; ;

(2) "accountable manager". The manager who exercises authority on behalf of the Authority for ensuring that all prescribed actions are performed to the standard required by the Authority. When authorized by the Authority, the accountable manager may re-delegate all or part of his or

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her authority in writing to another person within in the organization, who becomes the accountable manager for the matters delegated; "aerodrome". means any area of land or water designed, equipped, set apart or commonly used for affording facilities for the landing, manoeuvering and departure of aircraft and includes any area or space, whether on the ground, on the roof of a building or elsewhere, which is designed. equipped or set apart for affording facilities for the landing, manoeuvering and departure of aircraft capable of descending or climbing vertically, but shall notinclude any area the use of which for affording facilities for the landing and departure of aircraft has been abandoned and has not been

(3) "a&obatlc flight". Manoeuvres intentionally performed by an aircraft involving an abrupt .

change in its attitude, an abnormal attitude or an abnormal variation in speed; "aerodrome trafflc". All traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome and all aircraft operating at or in the vicinity of the aerodrome; "aeronautical experience" (Pilots). Pilot time obtained in an aircraft, approved flight simulator, or approved flight-training device for meeting the training and flight time requirements of these Regulations; "aeronautical product". Any aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, or subassembly, appliance, material, part, or component to be installed thereon; "aeroplane" also known as airplane. A powerdriven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given condlions of flight "aircraft". Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other than reactions of the air against the earth's surface; "aircraft category". Classification of aircraft according to specified basic characteristics (e.g., aeroplane, helicopter, glider, free balloon); "aircraft component". Any component part of an aircraft up to and including a complete power plant andlor any operationallemergency equipment; "aircraft flight manual". A manual produced by an aircraft manufacturer that contains information in respect of the operation of an aircraft;

(12) "aircraft maintenance engineer" (ME) . A person issued an Aircraft Maintenance Engineer Licence by the Authority to perform defined maintenance upon aeronautical products; the term 'aircraft maintenance engineer as used herein may also include persons similarly qualified by other Contracting States and referred to as "licensed mechanic." "certificated (or certified) mechanic," or byother terms, all of which mean an aircraft maintenance licence (as per ICAO Annex 1) holder;

(13) "aircraft type". All aircraft of the same basic design including all modifications thereto, except those modifications which result in a change in handling or flight characteristics;

(14) "airframe". The fuselage, booms, nacelles, cowlings, fairings, airfoil surfaces (including rotorcraft rotors but excluding propellers and rotating airfoils of a power plant), and landing gear of an aircraft and their accessories and controls;

(15) "air operator". The holder of an Air Operator Certificate issued pursuant to the Twelfth Schedule;

(16) "airship". A power driven, lighter-than-air aircraft; (17) "air show". An aerial display or demonstration before an invited assembly of persons by one or

more aircraft; (18) "air tlme". With respect to keeping technical records, the time from the moment an aircraft

leaves the surface until it comes into contact with the surface at the next point of landing; (19) "air traffic advisory services". The provision by an air traffic services unit cR aeronautical

safety information, including aviation weather information and serviceability reports in respect of aerodromes and radio navigation aids, but not including the provision of IFR air traffic control messages;

(20) "air trafflc control" (ATC). A service that promotes the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of air traffic including enroute, approach, departure and manoeuvring on the ground;

(21) "air trafflc control clearance". An authorization issued by an air traffic control unit that permits an aircraft to proceed witnin controlled airspace in accordance with the conditions specified by that unit;

(22) "air trafflc control facllity". A building holding the persons and equipment responsible for providing ATC services (e.g., airport tower, approach control, centre);

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"air traffic services unit". A unit providing air traffic control or air traffic advisory services; "air traffic control instruction". Means a directive issued by an air traffic control unit for air traffic control purposes; "airway". The airspace within the boundaries or along the tracks specified in the AIP Jamaica, or equivalent foreign publication, and within which air traffic control servick is provided; "airworthiness data". Any information necessary to ensure that an aircraft or aircraft component can be maintained in a condition such~that'airworthiness of the aircraft, or serviceability of operational and emergency equipment, as appropriate, is assured; "Airworthiness ~irective". An instruhion-issued by a civil aviatibn authority responsible for an aeronautical product type design, or manufacture, or by the Authority that mandates a maintenance or operation action to ensure that an aeronautical product conforms to its type design; "airworthiness limitation". A limitation applicable to an aeronautical product, in the form of a life limit or a maintenance task that is mandatory as a condition of the Type Certificate; "airworthy". In respect of an aeronautical product, means in a condition fit for flight and in conformity with its type design; "alterfiate aerodrome". An aerodrome to which a flight may proceed because landing at the intended aerodrome of destination has become inadvisable; "appliance". Any instrument, mechanism, equipment, part, apparatus, appurtenance, or accessorv. includina communications eauiment. that is used or intended to be used in operatingor controkg an aircraft in flight,'is installed in or attached to the aircraft, and is not part of an airframe, power plant, or propeller; "approval". A formal instrument issued by the Authority based on a prior technical evaluation that authorizes the use of documents, portions of documents, or formal procedures in aviation; "approved by the Authority". As used in these Schedules, this phrase identifies a document, person, facility, policy or procedure for which there must be a formal instrument issued prior to their use in aviation; "approved maintenance organization" (AMO). An organization approved to perform specific aircraft maintenance activities by the Authority. These activities may include the inspection, overhaul, maintenance, repair andlor modification and release'to service of aircraft or - - aeronautical products; "approved continuous maintenance programme". A maintenance programme approved by the State of Registry; "approved standard". A manufacturing, design, maintenance, or quality standard approved by the Authority; "approved training". Training carried out under special curricula and supervision approved by the Authority; "apron". A part of an aerodrome, other than the manoeuvring area, that is intended to be used for the loading and unloading of passengers and cargo, the refuelling, servicing, maintenance and parkina of aircraft and the movement of aircraft. vehicles and persons engaged in services - - necessary Tor those purposes;

(39) "Authority". "Authoriv includes the Director General, Deputy Director General, as well the Director of Flight Safety and the Inspectors of the Flight Safety Division of the Jamaica Civil Aviation Authority. "authorization": A formal instrument issued by a civil aviation authority based on a technical evaluation that officially conveys to the holder certain privileges in aviation under the Civil Aviation Law, Regulations and Schedules; "authorlzed by the Authority". This phrase ident~f~es a requ~rement that involves a technical evaluation and the issuance of a formal instrument; "authorized Instructor". A person who -

holds a current flight instructor rating issued under the Eighth Schedule when conducting flight training; is authorized by the Authority to provide ground training under the Eighth or Ninth Schedules; or has been authorized by the Authority or an AOC holder, under an approved training programme, to conduct ground or flight training for licensed pilots;

"bqiloon". A non-power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft; "category".



(i) when used in reference to flight crew licensing means the classification of an aircraft as an aeroplane, a balloon, a glider, a gyroplane, a helicopter or an ultra-light aeroplane;

(ii) when used in reference to an aircraft, means the certification basis of the aircraft such as normal, utility,,aerobatic, commuter or transport; and

(iii) when used in reference to the issuance of a Jamaican Certificate of Airworthiness, means the intended use of the aircraft such as private, commercial (cargo), or commercial (passenger and cargo);

(45) "category II (CAT II) operations". With respect to the operation of aircraft, means a straight-in ILS approach to the runway of an airport under a Category II ILS instrument approach procedure issued by the Authority or other competent authoriv,

(46) "category Ill (CAT Ill) operations". With respect to the operation of aircraft. means an ILS approach to, and landing on, the runway of an airport using a Category Ill ILS instrument approach procedure issued by the Authority or other competent authority;

(47) "centre-llne thrust aeroplane". An aeroplane that derives its power from two power plants aligned on the centre axis of the aeroplane;

(48) "certificate". A formal instrument issued by a Civil Aviation Authority that authorizes the holder to perform the aviation activities identified in the document;

(49) "certlfylng staff". Those personnel who are authorized by the Approved Maintenance Organization or AOC holder in accordance with a procedure acceptable to the Authority to certify aircraft or aircraft components for release to service;

(50) "check airman". A person authorized by the Authority to conduct specific flight checks required for the issuance of a licence or rating or to conduct proficiency checks as required by these Regulations. Such persons shall be designated as either a company check pilot (CCP) or a designated flight test examiner (DFTE);

(51) "Class". In relation to the classification of aeroplanes means - (i) single-engine land aircraft; (ii) single-engine sea aircraft; (iii) multi-engine land aircraft; (iv) multi-engine sea aircraft; (v) centre-line thrust land aeroplanes; and (vi) centre-line thrust sea aeroplanes;

(52) "commercial air transport". An aircraft operation involving the transport of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire;

(53) "company check pilot". A check airman approved in accordance with the Company Check Pilot Manual to conduct flight tests on pilots of an AOC holder as required by the Fourteenth Schedule;

(54) "contracting states". All States that are signatories to the Convention on International Civil Aviation (Chicago Convention);

(55) "course". A programme of instruction to obtain an airman licence, rating, qualification. authorization or currency;

(56) "courseware". Instructional material developed for each course or curriculum, including lesson plans, flight event descriptions, computer software programmes, audio-visual programmes, workbooks, and handouts;

(57) "crew resource management". A programme designed to improve the safety of flight operations by optimising the safe, efficient and effective use of human resources, hardware and information through improved crew communication and co-ordination;

(58) "critical engine". The engine the failure of which would most adversely affect the performance or handling qualities of the aircraft;

(59) "crosscountry time". That time a pilot spends in flight in an aircraft which includes a landing at a point other than the point of departure and, for the purpose of meeting the cross-country time requirements for a private pilot licence (except with a rotorcraft rating), commercial pilot licence or an instrument rating, includes a landing at an aerodrome that must be a straight-line distance of more than 50 nautical miles from the original point of departure;

(60) "day". The period of time beginning one-half hour before sunrise and ending one-half hour after sunset;

(61) "decision helght". The height specified, in the AIP Jamaica or'equivalent document issued or approved for use by the appropriate foreign authority at which a missed approach procedure


THE CIVIL A VIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

shall be initiated during a precision approach if the required visual reference necessary to continue the approach to land has not been established;

(62) "Designated Fllght Test Examiner". A check airman approved in accordance with the Designated Flight Test Examiner Manual to conduct flight tests as required by the Eighth Schedule for the issuance of a pilot licence or rating;

(63) "designation". A formal instrument issued by the Authority, based on a technical evaluation process, that authorizes the holder to act on behalf of the Authority in the performance of the functions identified in the document;

(64) "designated by the Authority". This phrase identifies a requirement that requires a technical evaluation Drocess and a formal instrument issued bv the Authority before a person mav be used for a specific function in aviation;

(65) "dual instruction time". Flight time during which a person is receiving flight instruction from a properly authorized flight instructor on board an aircraft;

(66) "empty weight". In respect of an aircraft, means the total weight of the following parts or contents that are part of, or carried on board the aircraft, namely -

(i) the airframe, including the rotor in the case of a helicopter or gyroplane; (ii) the power plant; (iii) the fixed ballast; (iv) the unusable fuel; (v) the maximum amount of normal operating fluids, including oil, de-icing and anti-icing

fluid but not including potable water, lavatory pre-charge fluid or fluid for injection into the engines; and

(vi) all if the installed equipment;

(67) "flight authority". A Certificate Of Airworthiness, Special Certificate Of Airworthiness. Flight Permit or validation of a foreign document attesting to an aircraft's fitness for flight, issued pursuant to the Fifth Schedule;

(68) "flight crewmember". A licensed crewmember charged with duties essential to the operation of an aircraft during flight time;

(69) "flight simulator". A devlce that - (i) is a full-size aircraft cockpit replica of a speclfic type of aircraft, or make, model and series

of aircraft; (ii) includes the hardware and software necessary to represent the aircraft in ground

operations and flight operations; (iii) uses a force cueing system that provides cues at least equivalent to those cues provided

by a 3 degree freedom of motion system; (iv) uses a visual system that provides at least a 45 degree horizontal field of view and a 30

degree vertical field of view simultaneously for each pilot; and (v) has been evaluated, qualified and approved by the Authority;

(70) "flight time". The total time from the moment an aircraft first moves under its own power for the purpose of taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight.

(Note: Flight time as here defined is synonymous with the term "block-to-block" time or "chock-to- chock' time in general usage, which is measured from the time an aircrai? moves from the loading point until it stops at the unloading point);

(71) "flight tralning equipment". Flight s~mulators, flight trainlng devlces, and aircraft; (72) "flight training device". A device that -

(i) is a full-size replica of the instruments, equipment, panels and controls of an aircraft, or set of aircraft, open or in an enclosed cockpit, including the hardware and software for the systems installed, that is necessary to simulate the aircraft in ground and flight operations;

(ii) need not have a force (motion) cuking or visual system; and - (iii) has been evaluated, qualified and approved by the Authority;

(Note: A set of aircrai? are those that share similar performance characteristics, such as similar airspeed and altitude operating envelopes, similar handling characteristic and the same number and type of propulsion systems);.



"fllght training". Training, other than ground training, received from an authorized instructor in flight in an aircraft; "glider". A non-power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces, which remain, fixed under given conditions of flight; "gyroplane". A heavier-than-air aircraft that derives its lift in flight from aerodynamic reactions on one or more non-power driven rotors on substantially vertical axes; "helicopter". A heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axis, and includes -

(i) "Class 1 helicopter". A helicopter with performance such that, in case of critical engine failure, it is able to land on the rejected take-off area or safely continue the flight to an appropriate landing area, depending on when the failure occurs;

(ii) "Class 2 helicopter". A helicopter with performance such that, in case of critical engine failure, it is able to safely continue the flight, except when the failure occurs prior to a defined point after take-off or after a defined point before landing, in which case a forced landing may be required;

(iii) "Class 3 helicopter". A helicopter with performance such that, in case of engine failure at any point in the flight profile, a forced landing must be performed;

"hellport". An aerodrome used or intended to be used for the arrival, landing, take-off or departure of aircraft capable of vertical take-off and landing; "high performance aircraft". With respect to a rating, means an aircraft that, in accordance with its Type Certificate, requires only one pilot and that has a maximum speed (Vne) of an indicated airspeed of 250 knots or greater or a stall speed (Vso) of an indicated airspeed of 80 knots or greater; "Inspection". The examination of an aircraft or aeronautical product to establish conformity with a standard approved by the Authority; "instrument approach". The orderly positioning of an IF!? aircraft from the en route phase to a position and altitude relative to a runway.or aerodrome from which a landing may be completed or a missed approach procedure may be initiated; "instrument meteorological conditions" (IMC). The meteorological conditions less than the minima specified in the Tenth Schedule, Subpart J for visual meteorological conditions; "instrument time". Time in which cockpit instruments are used as the sole means for navigation and control. Categories of instrument time are -

(i) "instrument ground time". The time during which a pilot is practising, on the ground, simulated instrument flight in a synthetic training device approved by the Authority;

(ii) "instrument flight time". The time during which a pilot is piloting an aircraft solely by reference to instruments and without external reference points, whether in actual instrument meteorological conditions or by simulation through the use of a hood or other visually limiting device;

"instrument training". Training which is received from an authorized instructor under actual or simulated instrument meteorological conditions; "knowledge test". A test on the aeronautical knowledge areas required for an airman licence or rating that can be administered in written form or by a computer; "licence". A formal instrument issued by a Civil Aviation Authority that authorizes the holder to perform the functions identified on the document, subject to the applicable privileges and limitations; "large alrcraft". An aircraft having a maximum certified takeoff mass of 5,700 kg. (12,500 Ibs.) or more; "maintenance". The tasks required to ensure the continued airworthiness of an aircraft or aeronautical product including any one or combination of overhaul, repair, inspection, replacement, modification, and defect rectification; "maintenance release". A document containing a certification that inspection and maintenance work has been performed satisfactorily in accordance with the methods prescribed by the Authority; "manoeuvring area". That part of an aerodrome, other than an apron, that is intended to be used for the take-off and landing of aircraft and for the movement of aircraft associated with take-off and landing;

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THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULATIONS, 2004 125

(90) "minimum descent altitude" (MDA). The altitude above sea level specified in the AIP Jamaica or equivalent document issued or approved for use by the appropriate foreign authority for a non-precision approach, below which descent shall not be made until the required visual reference to coniinue the approach to land has been established;

(91) "minimum en route altitude" (MEA). The lowest altitude above sea level that is specified in the AIP Jamaica or equivalent document issued or approved for use by the appropriate foreign authority for a designated area or between fixes on airways or air routes, that assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and that meets the obstruction clearance criteria;

(92) "Minimum Equipment List" (MEL). A list approved by the Authority which provides for the operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions, with particular equipment inoperative. prepared by an operator in conformity with, or more restrictive than, the Master Minimum Equipment List established for the aircraft type by the aircraft manufacturer, and approved by the State of Design;

(93) "mlnimum obstruction clearance altitude" (MOCA). The altitude above sea level that will ensure that an IFR aircraft will be clear of the highest obstacle within an airway or air route;

(94) "movement area". A part of an aerodrome that is intended to be used for the surface movement of aircraft, and includes the manoeuvring area and aprons;

(95) "night". See Civil Aviation Regulations 2004. Paragraph 4, Interpretation; (96) "non-precision approach". An instrument approach by an aircraft using azimuth information; (97) "operhonal control". The exercise of authbrity over the initiation, conhuation, diversion or

termination of a fliaht in the interest of the safetv of the aircraft and the reaularitv and efficiencv - " - of the flight; "operatlonal empty weight". In respect of an aircraft, means the empty weight plus the weight of the flight crewmembers and their customary equipment such as navigation bags; "operator". In respect of an aircraft, means the person who has possession of the aircraft as owner, lessee or otherwise; "owner". In respect of an aircraft, means the person who has legal custody and control of the aircraft; "pilot time". That time a person -

(i) serves as a required pilot; (ii) receives training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, approved flight simulator or

approved flight training device; or (iii) gives training as an authorized instructor in an aircraft, approved flight simulator or

approved flight training device;

"powered-llft". A heavier-than-air aircraft capable of vertical takeoff, vertical landing, and low speed flight that depends principally on engine-driven lift devices or engine thrust for lift during these flight regimes and on non-rotating airfoil(s) for lift during horizontal flight; "power plant". An engine that is used or intended to be used for propelling aircraft. It includes turbo-superchargers, appurtenances and accessories necessary for its functioning, but does not include propellers; "practlcal test". A competency test on the areas of operations for a licence, certificate, rating or authorization that is conducted by having the applicant respond to questions and demonstrate manoeuvres in flight, in an approved flight simulator or in an approved flight training device, or in a combination of these; "precision approach". An instrument approach by an aircraft using azimuth and glide path information; "pre-fllght inspection". The inspection carried out before flight to insure that the aircraft is fit for the intended flight; "prescrlbed by the Authority". This phrase denotes a requirement where the Authority may, through Appendix, Directive, Manual, Flight Safety Notification or other means, outline the steps and standards necessary to meet the requirement; "propeller". A device for propelling an aircraft that has blades on a power plant driven shaft and that, when rotated, produces by its action on the air, a thrust approximately perpendicular to its plane of rotation. It includes control components normally supplied by its manufacturer, but does not include main and auxiliary rotors or rotating airfoils of power plants; "qulck donning mask". An oxygen mask that can be secured by a person using one hand on the person's face within five seconds, and that provides an immediate supply of oxygen;

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"rating". An authorization entered on or associated with a licence or certificate and forming part thereof, stating special conditions, privileges or limitations pertaining to such licence or - ~

certificate; "repalf'. The restoration of an aircraftlaeronautical product to a serviceable condition in conformity with an approved standard; Yrequlred visual reference". In respect of an aircraft on an approach to a runway. means that portion of the approach area of the runway or those visual aids that, wheqviewed by the pilot of the aircraft, enable the pilot to make an assessment of the aircraft position and rate of change of position, in order to continue the approach and complete a landing; "second-in-command". A licensed pilot serving in a piloting'capacity other than as pilot-incommand, who is designated as second-in-command and who meets the second-in-command requirements of the Tenth Schedule of these Regulations; "sight-seeing operation". Aerial work in the course of which passengers are disembarked at the point of departure; "small aeroplane". An aeroplane having a maximum certified take-off mass of less than 5,720 kg; "solo flight". Flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft, or that flight time during which the student acts as a PIC of a gas balloon or an airship requiring more than one flight crewmember; "state of design". The Contracting State that approved the original Type Certificate and any subsequent Supplemental Type Certificates for an aircraft, or which approved the design of an aeronautical product or appliance; "state of manufacture". The Contracting State. under whose authority an aircraft was assembled, approved for compliance with the Type Certificate and all extant Supplemental Type Certificates, test flown and approved for operation. The state of manufacture may or may not also be the state of design; "state of registry". The Contracting State on whose registry an aircraft is entered; "take-off'. In respect of an aircraft, means the act of leaving a supporting surface, and includes the take-off run and,the acts immediately preceding and following the leaving of that surface; "technlcal log". A document carried on an aircraft t h h contains information to meet ICAO requirements; a technical log contains two independent sections: a journey record section and an aircraft maintenance record section; "tralnlng programme". Programme that consists of courses, courseware, facilities, flight training equipment, and personnel necessary to accomplish a specific training objective. It may include a core curriculum and a specialty curriculum; "tralnlng the " . The time spent receiving from an authorized instructor flight training, ground training, or simulated flight training in an approved flight simulator or approved flight-training device; "type" -

(i) when used in reference to personnel licensing, means a specific make and model of aircraft, including modifications thereto that do not change its handling or flight characteristics, and

(ii) when used in reference to the certification of aircraft, means classification of aircraft having similar design characteristics;

"type certlflcate". A document issued by the Civil Aviation Authority of the state of manufacture of an aeronautical product certifying that the type design of an aircraft, aircraft engine, aircraft propeller or aircraft appliance meets the applicablestandards for that aeronautical product, as recorded in the Type Certificate data sheets; "validatlon". The acceptance of a certificate, licence, approval, designation or authorization issued by another ICAO Contracting State as the primary basis for the Authority's issuance of a certificate, licence, approval, designation or authorization containing the same or more restrictive privileges.

SUBPART 6: GENERAL ADMINISTRATIVE RULES

1.025 DISPLAY AND ~NSPECTION OF LICENCES AND CERTIFICATES (a) Pilot Licence -



(1) to act as a pilot of a civil aircraft of Jamaica registry, a pilot shall have in his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a valid pilot licence, validation or special purpose authorization issued under these Regulations;

(2) to act as a pilot of a civil aircraft of foreign registry within Jamaica, a pilot shall be the holder of a valid pilot licence issued by the State of Registry and have the pilot licence in his or her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft;

(b) Flight Instructor Rating: A person who holds a flight instructor rating shall have that rating, or other documentation acceptable to the Authority, in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that rating;

(c) Other Airman Licence: A person required by any part of these Regulations to have an airman's licence shall have it in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft or at the work site when exercising the privileges of that licence;

(d) Medical Certificate: A person required by any Schedule of these Regulations to have a current medical certificate shall have it in their physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft or at the work site when exercising the privileges of that certificate;

(e) Aviation Training Organization (ATO) Certificate: Each holder cf an AT0 certificate shall display that certificate in a place in the school that is normally accessible to the public and that is not obscured;

(f) Certificate Of Airworthiness: Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall display that certificate in the cabin of the aircraft or at the entrance to the aircraft flight deck;

(g) Approved Maintenance Organization (AMO) Certificate: Each holder of an AM0 certificate shall prominently display that certificate in a place accessible to the public in the principal business office of the AMO;

(h) Inspection of licence: Each person who holds an airman or crewmember licence, medical certificate or authorization required by these Regulations shall present it for inspection upon a request from - (1) the Authority; or (2) any national or local law enforcement officer.

(a) A holder of a licence or certificate issued under these Regulations may apply to change the name on a licence or certificate. The holder shall include with any such request - (1) the current licence or certificate; and (2) a copy of the marriage licence, court order or other document verifying the name change.

(b) The Authority will return to the airman the documents specified in paragraph (a) of this Subsection.

The holder of an airman licence or AT0 certificate who has made a change in permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days from that date, exercise the privileges of the licence or certificate unless the holder has notified the Authority in writing of the new permanent mailing address or current residential address if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box numoer.

1.040 REPLACEMENT OF A LOST OR DESTROYED JCAA- ISSUED DOCUMENT

(a) An applicant who has lost or destroyed one of the following documents issued under these Regulations shall request a replacement in writing from the licensing office of the JCAA - (1) an airman licence; (2) a medical certificate; or (3) a knowledge test report.

(b) The airman or applicant shall state in the request letter - (1) the name of the airman or applicant; (2) the permanent mailing address, or if the permanent mailing address includes a post office box

number, the person's current residential address; (3) the date and place of birth of the airman or applicant; and (4) any available information regarding the -

(i) type, number'and date of issuance of the licence and any ratings, if applicable;

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THE CIVIL A VIA TlON REGULATIONS, 2004

(ii) date of the medical examination, if applicable; and (iii) date the knowledge test was taken, if applicable.

After receiving a facsimile from the Authority confirming that the lost or destroyed document was issued, an airman may carry the facsimile in lieu of the lost or destroyed document for up to 60 days pending the airman's receipt of a duplicate document.

1.045 FALSIFICATION, REPRODUCTION OR ALTERATION OF REQUIRED DOCUMENTS

(a) No person may make or cause to be made concerning any licence, certificate, rating, qualification or authorization issued under these Regulations, an application for or duplicate thereof, containing - (1) any fraudulent or intentionally false statement; (2) any fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any logbook, record or report that these Regulations

require, or used to show compliance with any requirement of these Regulations; (3) any reproduction for fraudulent purpose; or (4) any alteration;

(b) Any person who commits any act prohibited under paragraph (a) of this Subsection may have his airman licence, rating, certificate, qualification, or authorization revoked or suspended.

1.050 SURRENDER, SUSPENSION, OR REVOCATION OF LICENCE OR CERTIFICATE

(a) Any licence or certificate issued under these Regulations ceases to be effective if it is surrendered. suspended, or revoked.

(b) The holder of any licence or certificate issued under these Regulations that has been suspended or revoked shall return that licence or certificate to the Authority when requested to do so by the Authority.

Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, a person whose licence, certificate, rating or authorization has been revoked may not apply for any licence, certificate, rating or authorization for 1 year after the date of revocation.

1.060 REAPPLICATION AFTER SUSPENSION

Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, a person whose licence has been suspended may not apply for any licence, rating or authorization during the period of suspension.

(a) The holder of a licence or certificate issued under these Regulations may voluntarily surrender it for - ( I ) cancellation; (2) issuance of a lower grade licence; or (3) another licence with specific ratings deleted.

(b) An applicant requesting voluntary surrender of a licence shall include the following signed statement or its equivalent: "This request is made for my own reasons, with full knowledge that my (insert name of licence or rating, as appropriate) may not be reissued to me unless I again meet the requirements prescribed by the Authority for its issuance."

A person who holds a current medical certificate issued under these Regulations shall not act in a capacity for which that medical certificate is required while that person -

(1 ) knows or has reason to know of any medical condition that would make the person unable to meet the requirements for the required medical certificate; or

(2) is taking medication or receiving other treatment for a medical condition that results in the penon being unable to meet the requirements for the required medical certificate.

1.075 DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING AND REPORTING

(a) An employee who performs any function requiring a licence, rating, qualification or authorization prescribed by these Regulations directly or by contract for the holder of a certificate issued by the Authority or refuses to take a drug test as required under these Regulations, may - ( I ) be denied any licence, certificate, rating. qualification or authorization for a period of up to 1 year

after the date of such refusal; and

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(2) have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualification or authorization issued under these Regulations suspended or revoked.

@) Any person subject to these Regulations who is convicted for the violation of any local or national steMe relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale.'disposition, possession, transportation or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances, may - (1) be denled any licence, certificate, rating, qualification or authorization issued under these

Regulations for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or (2) have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualification or authorization issued under these

Regulations suspended or revoked.

(c) Any person subject to these Regulations who refuses to submit to a test to indicate the percentage by weight of alcohol in the blood, when requested by a law enforcement officer or refuses to furnish or to authorire the release of the test results requested by the Authority may - (1) be denled any licence, certificate, rating, qualification or authorization issued under these

Regulations for a period of up to 1 year after the date of that refusal; or (2) have his or her licence, certificate, rating, qualificatiok or authorization issued under these

Regulations suspended or revoked.

(See Subpart E of this Schedule for ON^ and Alcohol Testing Requirements).

SUBPART C: VALIDATION OF CERTIFICATES AND AUTHORIZATIONS

1.080 VIIlIOATION - GENERAL

(a) The Authority may, with prescribed restrictions and after a process of technical evaluation and confirmation, use a certificate, licence approval, designation or authorization issued by another ICAO Contracting State as the basis for the issuance of a certificate, licence approval, designation or authorization containing the same or more restrictive privileges.

@) TheAuthority may not use the process of validation to abdicate its responsibility to ensure that the source documents used are valid and were issued in accordance with applicable ICAO Standards.

(c) The Authority may conduct any additional test or inspection deemed technically or administratively necessary to confirm the competency of the holder and the validity of the certificate, licence. approval. designation or authobtion.

(d) The Authority will not use a document issued by another ICAO Contracting State through that State's validation process as the primary basis for issuance of a Jamaica certificate.

1 .O8S TEW OF V ~ o m

(a) Each certificate, licence, approval, designation or authorization issued by the Authority through a validation pmcess is subject to the same procedures for modification, suspension, revocation or termination applicable to other documents issued by the Authority.

@) Except as prescribed in Section 1 .I 10. each certificate, licence, approval, designation or authorization Issued by the Authority through a validation pmcess will become invalid when the document used as the basis of issuance becomes invalid, non-current or expires or is suspended or revoked by the ICAO Canti-acting State that originally issued it.

(c) The Authority must notify the Authority of the other ICAO Contracting State if; through the processes of certification, inspection, observation or investigation, it determines that the holder of a certificate. licence, approval, designation or authorization issued through the processes of validation is -

,

(1) no longer qualified or competent to hold that document; (2) not in conformance with the applicable ICAO Standards or national Regulations applicable to that

document; or (3) engaged in sub-standard practices with respect to the international safety practices relevant to

that document.

1.090 HOWERS OF V ~ ~ O A E O DOCUMENTS

(a) No act of validation by the Authority relieves the holder of the certificate, licence, approval, designation or authorization from conformance with these Schedules or the applicable laws of the ICAO Contracting State that issued the original document.

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130 THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULATIONS, 2004

(b) No act of validation by the Authority relieves the holder of the certificate, licence, approval, designatlon or authorization from inspection and verification by the Authority for continued competency and conformance with the original basis for issuance.

(c) The holder of a certificate, licence, approval, designation or authorization issued through the process of validation shall submit to any additjonal test or inspection deemed technically or administratively required by the Authority to ensure the continued validity and competency of the holder of the certificate, licence, approval, designation or authorization.

1.095 VALIDATION OF TYPE CERTIFICATES AND SUPPLEMENTAL TYPE CERTIFICATES

With the exception of Experimental or Restricted Certificates of Airworthiness, all Certificates of Airworthiness issued by the Authority will conform to the Type Certificate and Supplemental Type Certificates issued by the State of Design or Manufacture.

1 .lo0 VALIDATION OF CERTIFICATES OF AIRWORTHINESS

Certificates of Airworthiness issued by the Authority may use as the primary basis for original issuance another ICAO Contracting State's certificate, but the continued validity of the Jamaica Certificate of Airworthiness will not be linked to the other State's certificate.

1.105 VALIDATION OF MEDICAL CERTIFICATES

Medical Certificates issued by the Authority with validation of another ICAO Contracting stat23 certificate as the primary basis for issuance will be linked to the continued validity of the other State's.certificate.

\ 1.1 10 VALIDATION OF AIRMAN LICENCES AND RATINGS

Airman licences, ratings and limitations issued by the Authority to citizens of Jamaica with validation of another ICAO Contracting State's certificate as the primary basis for issuance will not be linked to the continued validity of the other State's certificate.

Validation will not be used by the Authority as the primary basis for issuance of an Air Operator Certificate to a Jamaican entity engaged in commercial air transport.

1.120 VALIDATION OF APPROVED ORGANIZATIONS

(a) The holder of an Approved Maintenance Organization Certificate issued by another ICAO Contracting State may be authorized by the Authorityto perform maintenance and repair of aircraft registered in Jamaica (or operated by the holder of AOC issued by Jamaica) using as the primary basis the certificate, privileges and limitations issued by the other State.

(b) The holder of an Approved Training Organization Certificate issued by another ICAO Contracting State may be authorized by the Authority to provide training facilities, equipment, simulators, instructors and examiners to airmen and operators of Jamaica, using as the primary basis the certificate, privileges, designation and limitations issued by the other State.

(c) Other organizations approved by an ICAO Contracting State may be authorized by the Authority to provide services to airmen and operators of Jamaica, using as the primary basis the certificate. privileges and limitations issued by the other State.

(d) The authorizations issued to these Approved Organizations by the Authority through the process of validation are linked to the continued validity of the certificates, privileges and limitations issued by the other State.

1 .I25 VALIDATION OF APPROVALS, AUTHORIZATIONS AND DESIGNATIONS

(a) Documents, facilities, equipment, training devices and simulators separately approved by an lCAO Contracting State through a technical certification process, and subject to continued inspection or revalidation, may be separately approved by the Authority for use of airmen and operators in Jamaica. using as the primary basis the approval, privileges and limitations issued by the other State.

(b) Personnel holding an authorization from an ICAO Contracting State to perform certain functions on behalf of the Authority of that State, based on acceptable technical requirements, qualification processes and subject to continued inspection, may be authorized by the Authority for use of airmen

[The lncluslon of this page I s authorized by L.N. 18d20081


and operators in Jamaica, using as the primary basis the authorization, privileges and limitation issued by the other State.

(c) Personnel holding a designation from an ICAO Contracting State to perform certain functions on behalf of the Authority of that State, based on acceptable technical requirements, qualification processes and subject to continued inspection, may be designated by the Authority for use of airmen and operators in Jamaica. using as the primary basis the designation, privileges and limitations issued by the other State.

(d) The approvals,authorizations and designations issued by the Authority through the process of validation are linked to the continued validity of h e approvals, authorizations and designations issued by the other State.

SUBPART D: EXEMPTIONS AND DEVIATIONS

This Subpart prescribes procedures for the issuance, modification and termination of exemptions or deviations from the requirements of these Schedules as provided in Regulation 86 or 87 of the Civil Aviation Regulations.

1.135 Aun iomnro APPROVE EXEMPTIONS AN0 DEVIATIONS

(a) The Authority may, in accordance with the procedures contained in this Subpart, approve an exemption or deviation or waiver from the Civil Aviation Regulations.

(b) No person may authorize an exemption, deviation or waiver from the requirements of the Schedules to the Civil Aviation Regulations except in accordance with these procedures.

1.140 ACnNo ON UNACCEPTABLE AUTHORIZATIONS

No person may take, or cause to be taken, an action that contravenes the requirements of the Schedules to the CMI Aviation Regulations unless in personal possession of an exemption or deviation that was issued in accordance with the procedures contained in this Subpart.

(a) Each application must be written in English and - ( I ) be submitted in duplicate and, for timely cons~deration, at least 60 days before the requested

effective date to the - Director General, Civil Aviation Authority, 4 Winchester Road, Kingston 10. Jamaica.

(2) that application must contain, for the applicant. the - (i) name; (ii) street address; (iii) mailing address; (iv) telephone number; (v) fax number (optional) ; ,

(vi) email address (optional); and (vii) person designated an agent of the applicant for all purposes related to the application.

(b) If the applicant is not a citizen or legal resident of Jamaica, a designation of a Jamaican agent for service.

1.150 APPUCATION - DESCRIPTION OF PROPOSAL ' .

The application must include the following information as is relevant to the proposal - . .

( I ) a citation of the specific requirement from which the applicant seeks relief; (2) specification of the types of operations that are to be conducted with this relief; (3) a detailed pescription of the proposed alternate requirement to meet an equivalent level of safety

in the public interest;


132 THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

(4) a specification of the proposed duration or schedule of events for which this relief will be needed (5) a statement outlining the applicant's basis for seeking relief from compliance with the specified

requirements and, if the relief is requested for a fixed period, a description of how compliance will be achieved at the end of this period; and

(6) if the applicant seeks emergency processing, a statement of the supporting facts and reasons that it is an emergency.

(a) The application must demonstrate that the alternative proposal - (1) achieves a level of safety at least equal to that of the requirement of the cited Schedule; or (2) if a required safety level does not exist, that it is consistent with the public interest.

(b) At a minimum the application must provide the following - (1) information describing relevant incidents or accident experience of which the applicant is aware

that relates to the application; (2) a statement identifying any increased risk to safety or property that may result if the alternative

proposal is granted and a description of the measures to be taken to address that risk; and (3) substantiation that the argument for public safety and equivalent level of safety is valid.

1 .I60 PROCESSING THE APPLICATION

The Authority will - (1) process the application ior completeness and accuracy of the information; (2) conduct a technical evaluation of the viability of the proposal; (3) if the decision is favourable, publish the proposal, technical evaluation and recommended action

for interested parties; (4) consider the comments of the interested parties; (5) make a final decision as to approval or disapproval of the proposal; and (6) if the decision is for approval -

(i) issue that decision and approval to the applicant; and (ii) publish that decision in final form for the interested parties.

(a) The Authority shall conduct a technical evaluation of the proposed alternative method of compliance.

(b) The person conducting the technical evaluation will author an internal report outlining the findings regarding - (1) the need for the relief from the requirement(s); (2) whether an equivalent level of safety is possible; (3) whether the approval of the alternative method wdl be in the public interest; and (4) recommendations for the final form of a decision.

1.170 PUBLICATION OF PROPOSAL AND TECHNICAL EVALUATION

(a) The Authority shall publish any proposed favourable decision and disseminate this information to - (1) persons that have previously registered with the Authority as being interested in any exemption or

deviation to the requirements of the Civil Aviation which may be approved; (2) persons or organizations that have a similar licence. certificate, operations specifications or other

form of approval or authorization thal might be affected by the decision.

(b) These persons or organizations shall have a period of thirty days to respond favourably or unfavourably to the proposed decision in order for their comments to be considered.

1.1 75 APPLICATION FOR PARTY STATUS

(a) Other persons or organizations may apply for p h y status to the specific proposal or approved exemption or deviation at any time during or following the processing of the original proposal.

(b) That application shall be made in accordance 4 t h the procedures of this Subpart as if the application is an original application. ,

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THE CIVIL AVIATIOlV REGULATIONS, 2004

1.180 APPROVAL OF THE ALTERNA~VE METHOD OF COMPLIANCE The approval of the exemption or deviation request shall be granted by the Authority -

(1) by letter of authorization; or (2) by operations specifications. I,

1.185 DI~PPPROVAL OF THE ALlERNAllVE METHOD OF COMPLIANCE

The disapproval of the exemption or deviation request shall be accomplished by a letter of decision issued by the Authority.

(a) The Authority shall publish any exemption or deviation granted to one entity if it could be applied to other entities through the issuance or amendment of a Flight Safety Notification to - (1) persons that have previously registered with the Authority as being interested in any exemption or

deviation to the requirements of the Civil Aviation which has been granted: (2) persons or organizations that have a similar licence, certificate, operations specifications or other

f o h of approval or authorization; and (3) new applicants for a licence, certificate, operations specifications or related form of approval or

authorization.

(b) The Authority shall publish any exeniption or deviation granted that relates to general requirements for the aviation community in the Aeronautical Information Publication of Jamaica.

SUBPART E: DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING - EMPLOYEES PERFORMING SAFETY- SENSITIVE FUNCTIONS

"alcohol" means an intoxicating liquor that contains more than 2.5 per cent proof spirits; "contractor company" means a company that has employees who perform safety-sensitive functions by contract for an employer; "employee" means a person who performs, either directly or by contract, a safety-sensitive function for an employer; "employer" means the holder of a! approved training organization, aeriai work, air operator, or airport operator certificate; "notice" means a directive issued to an employee by a company supervisor, personnel officer, flight safety officer or company medical officer requiring an employee to report for a drug or alcohol test, or both. and shall contain the information set out in such Drug and Alcohol Testing Standards as may be prescribed (may also be called 'the Drug Standards") : "negative drug test result" means that the test result of a urine sample collected and tested under this Subpart as negative in accordailce with the Drug and Alcohol Testing Standards; "posltlve drug test result" means that the test result of a urine sample collected and tested under this Part as positive in accordance with the Drug end Alcohol Testing Standards; -

"prohlblted drug" means marijuana, cocaine, opiates, phencyclidine (PCP), and amphetamines. or a metabolite of those drugs; 1 , ,

"prohlblted substance" means a proh~b~ted drug or alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater in an emolovee's svstem: t

(10) "random drug testlng" means dru i tests carried out on a selected group of employees by the employer in accordance with this Part at non-specific intervals and in accordance with a programme that meets the Drug and Alcohol Testing Standards;

(1 1) "refusal t o submlt" means that a person failed to provide a breath or a urine sample as required under this Subpart, without a genuine inability to provide a specimen (as determined by a medical evaluation), after he or she has received notice of the requirement to be tested in accordance with this Subpart, or engaged in conduct that clearly obstructed the testing process;

(12) "reportable Incident" as required in the Nineteenth Schedule;

(13) "safety-sensltlve function" means an activity associated with the duties of - (i) a flight crewmember; 1

(ii) an aircraft maintenance engineer; (iii) a Cabin Attendant;


134 THE CI VlL A VIA TION REGULATIONS, 2004

(iv) a Flight Dispatcher; (v) a person tasked with aircraft maintenance, preventive maintenance or servicing; and (vi) at aerodromes certificated pursuant to the Twenty-first Schedule, a person tasked w~th.

aviation airport security, aviation screening, aircraft refuelling or airport emergency response (fire rescue) services.

1.198 SAFEW SENSITIVE FUNCTION

For the purposes of this Subpart, an employee is performing the duties of a safety-sensitive function where that person has reported :o a place of duty and - (1) is about to perform a safety-sensitive function; (2) is performing a safety- sensitive function; or (3) has completed a safety- sensitive function, Subject td paragraph (d) of this Subsection, ea=h employee who reports to a place of duty in Jamaica and who performs a safety-sensitive function directly or by contract for an employer shall be tested in accordance with this Schedule.

Each crew member who performs a safety-sensitive function directly or by contract for an employer certificated pursuant to the Twelfth Schedule shall be tested in accordance with this Schedule.

An employee is not required to be tested pursuant to this Schedule, where that employee is a resident of a foreign state and is under a contract for a term of 6 months or less or is a resident of a foreign State and is subject to a drug testing programme pursuant to the laws of that State.

No employee shall report for duty or remain on duty req;iring the performance of safety-sensitive functions while having an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater in his system.

No employee shall consume alcohol while performing a safety-sensitive function.

No employer shall knowingly allow an employee to perform or continue to perform a safety-sensitive function where - (1) that employee is reasonably suspected of having an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater in his

system; or (2) subject to Subsection 1.235, the employee has refused to submit to an alcohol test required by

this Schedule; Subject to paragraph (i) of this Subsection, no employer shall knowingly ask any employee to perform. nor may any employee perform for an employer, either directly or by contract, any safety-sensitive function - (1) while that enployee has a prohibited drug, in his or her system; or (2) where the employee has a verified positive drug test result, except in accordance with the

provisions of this Part.

Subject to Subsection 1.235, an employee may retum to duty and perform a safety-sensitive function for an employer where that employee has undergone a recognized drug rehabilitation programme and is assessed as fit to return to duty by a medical physician appointed by the employer.

The employer shall advise a person applying to perform a safety-sensitive function at the time of application that the person will be required to undergo pre-employment testing to determine the presence of a prohibited drug.

The employer shall advise each employee that he is subject to drug testing in accordance with this Schedule.

Each employer shall test each employee who performs a safety-sensitive function for evidence of a prohibiied substance in accordance with this Schedule.

(m) Each employer shall conduct the prohibited substance testing of each employee as required by this Schedule in accordance with the procedures set forth in the D N ~ and Alcohol Testing Standards.

(n) All records relating to the results of testing under the provisions of this Subpart shall be maintained in confidence and shall be released only in accordance with the provisions of the D ~ g a n d Alcohol Testing Standards.

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Records concerning drug tests confirmed positive by the laboratory shall be maintained for fwe (5) years.

Records of confirmed negative test results shall be maintained for two (2) years.

All records maintained pursuant to this Subpart are subject to examination by the Authority.

1.205 DRUG AND ALCOHOL TESTING '

(a) An employer shall require the individual to undergo testing for prohibited drug use - (1) prior to the first time an individual performs, or performs under supervision while undergoing

instruction, training or testing, a safety-sensitive function for an employer; or (2) prior to an individual returning to performance of a safety-sensitive function afler an absence of

one year or more.

(b) No employer shall allow an employee required to undergo pre-employment testing under paragraph (a) of this Subsection to perform a safety-sensitive function unless the employer has received a verified negative drug test report for the individual and that report is available on the employee's file.

(c) An employer shall require an employee who performs a safety-sensitive function to undergo periodic testing for the presence of a prohibited drug in accordance with this Schedule.

(d) An employer shall not use an employee in a safety-sensitive function where that employee fails to have the test conducted in the prescribed time period set out in this Subpart.

(e) Each employer shall test an employee's specimen for the presence of a prohibited substance who ~erforms a safety-sensitive function and who is reasonably sus~ected of usina a ~rohibited substance - . - . in contravention of this Schedule.

(f) Where an employee is required to be tested pursuant to paragraph (a) of this Subsection, one of the following persons shall concur in the decision to test an employee who is reasonably suspected of using a prohibited substance - (1) the employee's direct supervisor; (2) the company safety officer; (3) where applicable, the company quality control officer; or (4) a company medical officer.

(g) The decision to test must be based on reasonable and articulated grounds that the employee is using a prohibited substance on the basis of specific observed physical, behavioural or performance indicators of probable drug or alcohol use, and preferably be made by a person who is trained in detection of the symptoms of possible drug and alcohbl abuse.

(h) Where an employee is required to be tested under this section by notice, that employee shall make him or herself available at the designated time and place for the drug or alcohol test as specified by the employer.

(i) An employee who fails to present himself as required by paragraph (h) of this Subsection shall be deemed to have refused to submit to a drug or alcohol test.

(a) Subject to paragraph (d) of this Subsection, wherever the performance of an employee's safety-sensitive duties may have contributed to. or have been a factor in, any accident or reportable aviation incident. the employer shall ehsure that the employee is tested for the presence of a prohibited substance in the employee's system as soon as practicable, but in all cases, within the 24 hour-period immed~ately after the occurrence.

(b) A decision not to administer a test under this Subsection must be based on a determination, using the best information available at the time of the determination, that the employee's performance could not have contributed to the accident.

(c) The Authority may direct that any employee in a safety-sensitive function undergo an immediate test for the presence of a prohibited substance following an accident or reportable incident.

(d) An employer is not required to direct an employee to submit to a test for the presence of a prohibited substance where that employee has been directed to take a test by the Authority pursuant to paragraph (c) of this Subsection.

[The inclusion of this page i s authorized by L.N. 18r\120081


(e) Where an employee is required to be tested under this Subsection by notice, that employee shall make h!mseif available, at the designated time and place, for the drug or alcohol test as specified by the Authority or the employer.

(f) An employee who fails to present himself as required by paragraph (e) of this Subsection shall be deemed to have refused to submit to a drug or alcohol test.

Each employer shall ensure that before ah: employee is retumed to duty to perform a safety-sensitive function after refusing to submit to a drug test required by this Subpart, or who has received a verified positive drug test result on a test conducted under this Subpart, the employee shall first have submitted to a subsequent drug test, where the findings are negative.

(a) Each employer shall implement a programme of unannounced follow-up testing of each employee who has been hired to perform or who has been retumed to the performance of a safety-sensitive function where that employee - (I ) has refused to submit to a drug test required by this Subpart; or (2) has a verified positive drug test result on a test conducted under this Subpart.

(b) An unannounced follow-up testing shall consist of at least three tests in the first twelve months following the employee's retum to duty.

(c) Where an employee is requlred to be tested under this Subsection by notice, that employee shall make hlmseif available at the designated time and place for the drug test as specified by the employer.

1.225 TEN OR MORE EMPLOVEES

(a) Subject to paragraph (b) of this Subsection, each employer with ten or more employees in safety sensitive functions shall establish a random drug testing programme, approved by the Authority.

(b) An employer is not required to include employees who do not hold a licence issued pursuant to the Elghth Schedule in its random drug testing programme where that employee is subject to random testing by another employer in accordance with this Subpart.

(c) Where an employer is exempted by paragraph (b) of this Subsection from including an employee in its random testing programme, the employer must have a file available on each exempt employee that establishes that the employee is subject to another employer's programme and the date and results of the last random test.

(d) Where an employee fails to provide the information required by paragraph (c) of this Subsection on the request of an employer, that employee shall be subject to random testing pursuant to paragraph (a) of thls Subsection.

1.230 ENFORCEMENT

(a) An employer shall immediately notify the Authority of any employee who holds a civil aviation document Issued under the provisions of the Eighth Schedule who has refused to submit to a drug or alcohol test required under this Subpart.

(b) A refusal by the holder of a certificate issued under the Eighth Schedule to take a drug or an alcohol test under h e provisions of this Subpart is grounds for - (1) denial of an application for renewal of any certificate, rating or authorization which has been

issued under the Eighth Schedule for a period of up to one (1) year after the date of such refusal; and

(2) suspension or cancellation of any certifcate, rating or authorization issued under the Eighth Schedule.

(c) A suspension issued pursuant to subparagraph (b) (2) of this Subsection shall state the condition for reinstatement of the certificate, rating or authorization.



1.235 PERMANENT DISQUALIFICATION

(a) An employee who.has verified positive drug test results or alcohol-tests on two consecutive drug tests required by this Schedule shall be permanently precluded from performing any safety-sensitive function for an employer.

(b) An employee who has engaged in prohibited drug or alcohol use during the performance of a safety-sensitkre function shall be permanently precluded from performing any safety-sensitive function for an employer,

1.240 BREATHALYZER TESTING

(a) Where an employee is required to provide a breath test sample pursuant to Subsections 1.210 or 1.21 5. Ule test may be'conducted by a member of the Jamaica Constabulary Force.

(b) Where an employee is tested pursuant to paragraph (a) of this Subsection, the Jamaica Constabulary Force,shall make available a copy of the results of the tests to the Authority and the employee.

(c) An employee tested pursuant to paragraph (a) of this Subsection shall provide his employer with a copy of the results of the test prior to returning to duty.



SECOND SCHEDULE (Regulation 9)

PROVISIONS OF REGULATIONS FOR WHICH THE PENALTIES ARE REFERRED TO IN PARAGRAPHS (5)

AND (6) OF REGULATION 9

SUBPART A: GENERAL 2.001 Appllcabllity

This Table sets out the provisions of regulations to which the offer of pecuniary penalties are applicable for a single violation of a particular provision or, where applicable, for each flight while the violation continues, in accordance with Section 20A of the Civil Aviation Act and any order of the Minister made thereunder.

2.002 General

. PART A Maintenance Manual:

(a) Failure to maintain a current manual (b) Failure to provide adequate instructions & procedures In a

manual (c) Failure to distribute manual to appropriate personnel.

Failure to provide adequately for proper servicing, maintenance, repair, and inspection of facilities and equipment. Training Program:

(a) Failure to have or maintain an effective traininq proqram. - . - (b) Failure to train specific personnel adequately.

Failure to revise aircrafl data afler repair Records and Reports:

(a) Failure to make accurate mechanical interruption summary report.

(b) Failure to make available reports of major alterations or repairs.

(c) Failure to make accurate mechanical reliability reports (d) Failure to keep maintenance records. (e) Failure to make required entry in aircrafl log. (f) Failure to make available ~ i l o t records. . , (g) Failure to make available ioad manifests.

Failure to comply with the maximum du*ty and flight times, or the minimum rest period requirements applicable to personnel in . . commercial ai; transpoi. Failure to cooperate with an accident or incideh investigation.

Failure to comply with the terms of an aerial applicator certificate anc its operations specifications. Dropping persons or objects from an aircrafl without the requirec authorization. Using an aircraft for towing, picking up, or raising, articles or persons without first obtaining the required authorization. - Serving alcoholic beverages to, or accepting on board, a person whc appears to be intoxicated. Failure to perform maintenance according to the applicable maintenance manual or other approved instruction.

Regulation 72 - Twelfth Schedule

Requlation 33 sixth Schedule Regulation 74 Fourteenth Schedule

Regulation 30 Regulation 31

Regulation 75

Regulation 80 Nineteenth Schedule Regulation 61

Regulation 63

Regulation 62

Regulation 56 -

Regulation 30

-- --



Zecords and Reports: (a) Failure to make entry in aircraft log. (b) Failure to make entry in worksheets. (c) Failure to sign off work or inspection performed. (d) Failure to complete and sign a Certificate of Release to

Service. 're-Flight:

(a) Failure to use pre-flight cockpit checklist. (b) Failure to check aircraft logs, flight manifests, weather, etc.

hring Taxi: (a) Fa~lure to adhere to taxi clearance or instruction. (b) Collision while taxiing. (c) Taxiing with passenger standing. (d) Causing damage due to Jet blast

Enroute: (a) Deviation from clearance or instruction. (b) Operating VFR within clouds. (c) Leaving the flight deck for reasons other than duty or

physiological. (d) Operation of un-ailworthy aircraft. (e) Operating within restricted or prohibited area, or within positive

control area without clearance. (f) Operating without required equipment. (g) Fuel misrnanagemenffexhaustion.

:ailure to close and lock cockpit door. 4dmission of unauthorized personnel to the flight deck. Ixceeding fl~ght and duty time limitations.

lenial of authorized entry to flight deck. 'ailure to provide adequately for proper servicing, maintenance epairs, and inspection.

(a) Failure to satisfy housing and fac~lity requirements. (b) Failure to have enough qualified personnel to complete the

volume of work contracted for. (c) Failure to provide an adequate number of personnel to

supervise and inspect the work for which the organization is rated.

(d) Failure to maintain records of supervisory and inspection . personnel.

(e) Failure to maintain performance records and reports. (f) Failure to ensure correct calibration of all inspection and test

equipment is accomplished at prescribed intervals. (g) Failure to set forth adequate description of work performed. (h) Inspection of work performed or approval for retum to service

by a person not qualified or approved. (i) Failure to make log entries, records, or reports. (j) Failure to maintain a quality aksurance system as approved. (k) Maintaining or altering an article for which it is rated, without

using required technical data, equipment, or facilities. (I) Failure to properly perform maintenance, repairs, alterations.

and required inspections. (m) Maintaining or altering an airframe, power plant, propeller,

instrument, radio, or accessory for which it is not rated.

=ailure to report defects or un-airworthy conditions to the Authority in a imely manner. 2hange of location, or facilities without advance written approval.

1

iegulation 23 Zegulation 31 Zegulation &I

reith Schedule

iegulation 59

iegulation 59

-ifleenth Schedule qegulation 16 qegulation 30(2) Sixth Schedule

Reaulation 3112) ~e&lation 55'~enth Schedule Regulation 33(5) sixth Schedule


140 THE CIVIL A VIA TlON REGULATIONS, 2004

Failure to revise aircraft data after major repairs or alterations Failure to perform, or improper performance of, maintenance. Failure to properly accomplish an inspection. Failure of mechanic to record inspection. Failure to make a maintenance record entry.

Failure to set forth an adequate description of work performed. Operation without p~lot and medical certificate in personal possession Failure to close flight plan or file arrival notice

Failure to comply with special conditions of medical certificate

Operation without required instruments andlor equipment Weather Conditions:

(a) Failure to comply with visibility minimums in controlled airspace.

(b) Failure to comply with visibility minimums outside controlled airspace.

(c) Failureto comply with distance from clouds requirements in controlled airspace.

(d) Failure to comply with distance from clouds requirements outside of controlled airspace.

(e) Failure to comply with IFR landing minimums. (f) Failure to comply with instrument approach procedures

PART B

Failure to comply with an Airworthiness Directive. Type Certificate:

(a) Technical non-conformity to type certificate, but no likely effect (potential or actual) on safe operation.

(b) Non-conformity which may have an adverse effect on safety of operation.

(c) Non-conformitv which has an adverse effect factual or . . potential) on safe operation.

Operation of an un-airworthy aircraft: (a) Operating an aircraft with defect outside the limits specified by

the approved MEL. (b) Operating an aircraft when an inspection has not been

accomplished and certified as per the approved maintenance program.

(c) Operating an aircraft with an invalid or expired Certificate of Airworthiness.

Failure to carry out a reauired inspection, or Duplicate Inspection, prio to releasing an aircraft to' service. ' O~eration without the reauired Licence or Ratina:

' (a) Functioning as a'crew member without holding the required Licence or rating.

(b) Operating with an expired Medical Certificate. (c) Operating without a valid proficiency check. (d) Failure to have a current certificate or license in possession.

Wheels up landing Short or long landmg Taxmg collision Fuel mismanagementlexhaustion

~ e r 32:; 1 Fifth Schedule Re ulation 46 1 Regulations 55 & 57. Tenth schedule 10.350 Regulation 46 & 54. Tenth Schedule 10.070

~egulation 58 Regulation 59


Regulation 30

Regulation 30


Regulation 50 Regulation 50 Regulation 50 Regulation 57

(The inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. lSa/20081


Takeoff: (a) Takeoff against instruction or clearance (b) Takeoff below weather minima (c) Takeoff with aircrafl weight higher than MCTOW.

Approach to Landing: (a) Deviation from clearance or instruction in terminal area. (b) Approach below weather minimums. (c) Exceeding speed limitation in airport traftic areas.

Landing: (a) Landing at wrong airport. (b) Landing on the wrong runway. (c) Deviation from instrument approach procedure. (d) Overweight landing in other than an emergency. (e) Inadvertent wheels up landing. (f) Short or long landing resulting in the aircrafl touching the

ground beyond the runway threshold. Failure to comply with the authorizations or limitations prescribed by the Authority for commercial air transport. O~erations Soecificaiions:

' (a) ~a i lu ie to comply with inspection and overhaul time limitations (b) Operations contrary to operations

Failure to comply with the security requirements for commercial air . . transport. Failure to ensure that a maintenance release is completed and signed. lnstalling an unapproved part on an aircrafl. Failure to insure that a Certificate of Release to Service is completed and signed. Improperly releasing an aircrafl to service.

(a) Failure to inspect maintenance performed. (b) lnstalling an unapproved part. (c) lnstalling an unserviceable part. (d) lnstalling a part that does not conform to the aircraft's type

certificate. Failure to perform, or improper performance of, a maintenance task.

Failure to comply with the minimum passenger-carryins requirements . - . for commercial air transport. Failure to comply with the minimum and recurrent qualifications for persons involved in commercial air transport. Releasing an aircrafl to service without the required equipment being installed and functional

Improperly returning an aircraft to service: (a) Release of aircrafl without required equipment. (b) Release of an aircrafl where required work has not been

completed. Failure to comply with the flight release requirements for commercial air transport. Failure to comply with the weight and balance requirements and performance requirements fo;commercial air transport. Exceeding operating limitations for Mass and Balance or Performance.

Failure to make an accident or incident report.

Regulation 59

Regulation 59

Regulation 59

Regulation 67

Regulation 69

Regulation 71

Regulation 72 Regulation 72 Regulation 72 and 76 ~ e n t h Schedule 10.355 Resulation 30 ~eiulat ion 32 Regulation 72 Regulation 76

Regulations 30, 32,8 72 Fiflh Schedule 5.160 Regulation 73 Thirteenth Schedule Regulation 74 Fourteenth Schedule Regulation 76 Seventh Schedule 7.01 5(a) - (e) Regulations 30, 32 8 76 Sixteenth Schedule 16.050

Regulation 76 sixteenth Schedule Regulation 77 I seventeenth Schedule Regu!ation 77 Tenth Schedule 10.493 Regulation 80 ~ineteenth Schedule

(The inclusion of this page i s suthorlzed by L.N. 18d20081


i d e s of the Air and ATC Violations: (a) Taxiing, takeoff. or landing without a clearance where ATC

tower is in open. (b) Failure to comply with ATC instruction. (c) Failure to maintain radio communications in airport traffic area. (d) Failure to comply with airport traffic pattern. (e) Operation in terminal control area without or contrary to a

clearance. (f) Failure to maintain altitude in airport traffic area. (g) Exceeding speed limitations in traffic area. (h) Operation within prohibited or restricted area, or within positive

control area. (i) Failure to comply with VFR cruising altitudes. (j) Failure to adhere to right of way rules. (k) Failure to maintain radio watch while under IFR. (I) Failure to display position lights. (m) Failure to maintain proper altimeter settings. . (n) Failure to report compulsory reporting points. (0) Deviation from ATC instruction or clearance. (p) Failure to maintain required minimum altitudes over structures.

persons. vehicles, or a congested area. Security Violations:

(a) Failure to properly screen baggage (checked or carry-on). cargo, mail, flight catering stores and supplies, company mail, company material or each passenger.

(b) Unauthorized access to airport operations area and terminal restricted areas

(c) Failure to comply with air carrier security program, including failure to detect weapons, incendiary and other dangerous devices.

(d) Management personnel coerce, condone, or encourage falsification of recordslreports.

(e) Deliberate failure lo maintain employee records. ( f ) Failure to challenge. (g) Failure to lest screeners or test equipment. (h) Failure to properly train. (i) Unintentional failure to maintain screener test records. (j) Failure to display identification. (k) Failure to managelcontrol restricted area pass systems. (I) Failure lo conduct employee background check or job history

verification. (m) Failure to detect test objects. (n) Failure to comply with approved or current security programme

Regulation 156 Tenth Schedule 10.605-10.655

Regulation 166(5)


THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULATIONS. 2004

THIRD SCHEDULE (Regulations 23 - 26)

AIRCRAFT REGISTRATION

SUBPART A: General 3.001 Applicability 3.005 Definitions 3.010 Acronyms

SUBPART B: REGISTRATION REQUIREMENTS 3.015 General 3.020 Registration Eligibility 3.025 Application

SUBPART C: NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS 3.030 General 3.035 Display of Marks: General 3.040 Size of Marks 3.045 Deviations for Size and Location of Marks 3.050 Location of Marks on Fixed-wing Aircraft 3.055 Location of Marks on Rotorcraft 3.060 Location on Marks on Lighter-Than-Air Aircraft 3.065 Sale of Aircraft: Removal of Marks 3.070 ldentification Plate Required 3.075 Re-use of Registration Numbers.

SUBPART A: GENERAL

This Schedule prescribes the requirements for registration and marking of Civil Aircraft under these Regulations.

For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply - (1) "fireproof material". A material capable of withstanding heat as well as or better than

steel when the dimensions in both cases are appropriate for the specific purpose. (2) "heavier-thanair aircraft". Any aircrafl deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic

forces. (3) "lighter-than-alr aircraft". Any aircraft supported chiefly by its buoyancy in the air.

3.010 ACRONYMS

The following acronyms are used in this Schedule - (1) ADIZ - Air Defence ldentiicatlon Zone (2) DEWlZ - Distant Early Warning ldentification Zone

SUBPART B: REGISTRATION REQUIREMENTS

3.015 GENERAL

No person may operate a civil aircraft that is eligible for registration under the laws of Jamaica unless it has been registered by Its owner under the provisions of the laws of Jamaica and the Authority has issued a Certificate of Registration for that aircraft which shall be carried aboard that aircraft for all operations.

3.020 REGISTRATION EUGIBILITY

An aircrafl is eligible for registration if it is -

(The inclusion of .this page i s authorized by L.N. 18d20081


(1) owned by a natural citizen, an individual citizen of a foreign State who is lawfully admitted for permanent residence in Jamaica, a corporation lawfully organized and doing business under the laws of Jamaica, or a government entity of ~amaica; and

(2) not registered under the laws of any foreign country.

3.025 APPLICATION

(a) A person who wishes to register an aircraft in Jamaica must submit an application for aircraft registration to the Authority in a form and manner acceptable to the Authority. Each application shall -

(1). certify as to the citizenship of the owner; (2) provide evidence regarding the manufacturer's name, model number and serial number of

the aircraft; (3) show evidence identifying ownership; (4) show evidence that the aircraft is not registered in any other State; and (5) be signed in ink.

(b) The fee provided for by law will be submitted for processing as prescribed by the Authority.

(c) Upon an applicant meeting all requirements for registration, a Certificate of Aircraft Registration shall be issued by the Authority.

SUBP-ART C: NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS

3.030 GENERAL

(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft registered in Jamaica unless it d i s p l a ~ nationality and registration marks in accordance with the requirements of this Subpart. The letter or letters used to identify the nationalitv of the aircraft shall conform to the reauirements outlined in ICAO Annex 7. he-nationality maiks for Jamaica are "6Y-" and the idenification marks are formed by a three letter code starting with "J" and followed by two letters assigned by the Authority.

(b) Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, no person may place on any aircraft a design, mark, or symbol that modifies or confuses the nationality and registration marks. The marks shall not be confused with the International Five Letter Code of Signals or Distress Codes.

(c) Permanent marking of aircrafl nationality and registration shall - (1). be painted on the aircrafl or affixed by other means insuring a similar degree of

permanence; (2) have no omamentation; (3) contrast in colour with the background; and (4) be legible;

(a) Each owner shall display on that aircraft marks consisting of the Roman capital letter denoting nationality of Jamaica followed by the registration number of the aircrafl in Arabic numerals. Each suffix letter used in the marks displayed must also be a Roman capital letter.

(b) Where, because of the aircrafl configuration, it is not possible to mak the aircrafl in accordance with this Schedule, the owner may apply to the Authority for a different procedure.

(c) No person shall operate an aircrafl where the nationality and registration makings affixed to the aircraft do not correspond to the nationality and registration maks on a valid certificate of registration carried on board that aircraft.

3.040 SEE OF MARKS

(a) Every operator of an aircraft shall display marks on the aircrafl meeting the size requirements of thls Section.

(b) Height. The character marks shall be of equal height and on -



( I ) fixed-wing aircraft shall be at least 50 centimeters high on the wings and at least 30 centimeters high on the fuselage side or vertical fin;

(2) rotorcraft shall be at least 50 centimeters high on the underside of the fuselage and at least 30 centimeters high on the fuselage side;

(3) lighter-than-air and powered-lift aircraft it shall beat least 50 centimeters high.

(c) Width. Characters shall be two-thirds as wide as they are high, except the number "I", which shall be one-sixth as wide as it is high, and the letters "M" and "W" which may be as wide as they are high.

(d) Thickness. Characters shall be formed by solid lines one-sixth as thick as the character is high.

(e) Spaclng. The space between each character may not be less than one-fourth of the character width.

(9 Uniformity. The marks required by this Part for fixed-wing aircraft shah have the same height, width, thickness, and spacing on both sides of the aircraft.

3.045 DEVIATIONS FOR SUE AND LOCATION OF MARKS

(a) Where either one of the surfaces authorized for displaying required marks is large enough for display of marks meeting the size requirements of this Section and the other is not, the operator shall place full-size marks on the larger surface.

(b) Where neither surface i s large enough for full-size marks, the Authority may approve marks as large as practicable for display on the larger of the two surfaces.

3.050 LOCATION OF MARKS ON FIXED-WING AIRCRAFT

(a) The operator of a fixed-wing aircraft shall display the required marks on h e vertical tail surfaces or the sides of the fuselage, as well as on h e lower left surface of the wing structure.

(b) The marks required by paragraph (a) of this Section shall be displayed as follows - ( I ) where displayed on the vertical tail surfaces, horizontally on both surfaces of a single

vertical tail or on the outer surfaces of a multi-vertical tail. (2) where displayed on the fuselage surfaces, horizontally on both sides of the fuselage

between the trailing edge of h e wing and the leading edge of the horizontal stabilizer. (3) where engine pods or other appurtenances are located in the area described in paragraph

(b)(2) and are an integral part of the aircraft. the operator may place the marks on those pods or appurtenances.

(4) where displayed on the wing structure, the marks shall be located as near as possible, equidistant from the leading and trailing edges of the left wing, with the tops of the letters and numbers towards the leading edge of the wing.

Every operator of a rotorcraft shall display marks horizontally on both surfaces of thecabin, fuselage, boom or tail, and on the underside of the fuselage, such that the rotorcraft can be readily identified.

3.060 LOCATION OF MARKS ON LIGHTER-THAN-~R AIRCRAFT

(a) Airships. The operator shall place marks on an airship to appear on - ( I ) h e hull, located lengthwise on each side of the hull and on its upper surface on the line of

symmetry; or (2) the horizontal and vertical stabilizers surfaces -

(i) for the horizontal stabilizer, located on the right half of the upper surface and on the left half of the lower surface, with the tops of the letters and numbers toward the leading edge; and

(ii) for the vertical stabilizer, located on each side of the bottom half stabilizer, with the letters and numbers placed horizontally.

(b) Spherical balloons (other than unmanned free balloons). The operator shall apply marks to appear in two places diametrically opposite each other and located near the maximum horizontal circumference of the balloon.

JTheinclusion of this page i s authorized by L.N. 18~/20081

146 THE CIVIL AVIATmN REGULATIONS. 2004

(c) Non-spherical balloons (other than unmanned free balloons). The operator shall apply marks to appear on each side, located near the maximum cross-section of the balloon immediately above either the rigging band or the points of attachment of the basket suspension cables.

(d) Lighter-than-air aircraft (other than unmanned free balloons). The operator shall apply side marks to be visible both from the sides and from the ground.

(e) Unmanned free balloons. The operator shall apply'marks to appear on the identification plate.

When an aircraft that is registered in Jamaica is sold, the holder of the Certificate of Registration shall remove, before its delivery to the purchaser, all nationality and registration marks of Jamaica, unless the purchaser is a citizen of Jamaica or other legal entity of this country.

3.070 IDENMICATlON PLATE REQUIRED The operator shall affix to each aircraft registered under the laws of Jamaica an identification plate-

(1) containing the aircrafl type, model, serial number, marks of nationality, and owner's name; (2) made of fireproof metal or other fireproof material of suitable physical propert~es; (3) secured to the aircraft in a prominent position, near the main entrance, or, in the case of a

free balloon, affixed conspicuously to the exterior of the payload.

(a) Registration Marks may be re-issued by the Authority, provided that not less than five years have passed since the aircraft to which they were last issued was de-registered (removed from the Jamaican Civil Aircraft Register).

(b) The Authority shall keep a continuous record of all aircraft removed from the Register for the preceding f ~ e years.,

lThe lneluslon of this page is authorized by L.N. 18~/20081


FOURTH SCHEDULE (Regulation 27)

AIRCRAFT AND COMPONENT ORIGINAL CERTIFICATION

SUBPART A: GENERAL 4.001 Applicability 4.010 Acronyms

SUBPART B: TYPE CERTIFICATES 4.015 Validation of Type Certificates 4.020 Type Certificate Issuance by Jamaica 4.025 validation of Supplemental ~ y p e Certificates

SUBPART C: AIRCRAFT CERTIFICATION REGULATIONS 4.035 Applicable Aircraft Certification Regulations

SUBPART A: GENERAL

4.001 APPLlCAelLln (a) This Schedule prescribes the Type-Certificate and Supplemental Type Certificate standards that

will be applied during the issuance and renewal of airworthiness certificates.

(b) This Schedule describes the policies of Jamaica and the designation of applicable rules for original certification of aircraft and components.

4.010 . ACRONYMS

The following acronyms are used in this Schedule (1) AOC -Air Operator Certificate (2) TSO -Technical Standard Order

SUBPART B: TYPE CERTIFICATES

4.01 5 VALIDATION OF TYPE CERTIFICATES

(a) The Authority will validate the Type Certificate of the State of Design or State of Manufacture when issuing a Certificate of Airworthiness for an aircraft on the Jamaican Register.

(b) The Authority may, after technical evaluation to ensure that ICAO Standards are properly met. validate a Type Certificate issued by an ICAO Contracting State other than the State of Design or Manufacture.

4.020 W E CERTIFICATE ISSUANCE BY JWAICA

(a) The Authority will hold this Subpart reserved until such time as it has received an application for Twe Certificates. Production Certificates or other related ap~rovals. At this time. Jamaica does not issue Type ~ertificates:

(b) Any applicant for a Production certificate for any aircraft or aeronautical product thereof for manufacture in Jamaica shall comply with the Type Certificate as required by the State of Design for approval.

(c) At such time as the ap~lication for production is presented, the Authority will make available . . suitable schedules ~;~rovisions f& the issuance of a Cetiificate of ~i iorthiness, or other airworthiness document as appropriate for the product concerned.

4.025 VALIDATION OF SUPPLEMENTAL TYPE CERTIFICATES

Any person who alters a product by introducing a major change in type design, not great enough to requlre a new application for a Type Certificate, shall apply for a Supplemental Type Certificate



(STC) to the regulatory agency of the State of Design that approved the type certificate for that product. The JCAA will accept and validate such an STC.

SUBPART C: AIRCRAFT CERTIFICATION REGULATIONS

4.035 APPLICAFILE AIRCRAFT CERTlFlCATlON REGULATIONS The Authority will apply the detailed and comprehensive aircraft certification regulations of the ICAO Contracting State which issued the Type Certificate to the determination of continued airworthiness of an aircraft, provided that - (1) these Regulations are in conformance with the Standards of ICAO Annex 8; (2) these Regulations are in English or a certified translation to Englsh; (3) a copy of these regulations is provided with the application for the Certificate of

Airworthin6ss; and (4) there is a satisfactory method of updatmg the Authority's copy of these Regulations

throughout the period of time the aircraft is registered in Jamaica. The aircraft certification regulations which are available to, and applied by the ~ u t h o r h in the determination for issuance of a Certificate of Airworthiness and continuing airworthiness are those of the - (1) United States Federal Aviation Administration; (2) European Joint Aviation Authorities; and (3) Canadian Ministry of Transport.



FIFTH SCHEDULE (Regulations 27,28,29, 30)

CONTINUING AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT

SUBPART A: GENERAL

5.001 Applicability

5.005 Definition

5.010 Acronyms I

SUBPART B: AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATES

5.01 5 Applicability

5.020 Eligibility

5.025 Classifications of Airworthiness Certificate

5.030 Amendment of Airworthiness Certificate

5.035 Transfer or Surrender of Airworthiness Certificate

5.040 Period of Validity of Airworthiness Certificate and Flight Permits

5.045 Arcraft Identification

5.050 lssue of an Airworthiness Certificate

5.055 Airworthiness Directives

5.060 lssue of Noise Certificate

5.065 lssue of a Flight Permit

SUBPART C: CONTINUED AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT AND COMPONENTS

5.070 Applicability

5.075 Responsibility

5.080 General

5.085 Reporting of Failures, Malfunctions, and Defects

SUBPART D: AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE REQUIREMENTS

5.090 Applicability

5.095 Repair Assessment for Pressurized Fuselages

5.1 00 Maintenance Required

5. 105 Inspections

5.1 10 Progressive inspection

5.1 12 Inspection Programs for Large and Turbine Aircraft

5.1 15 Changes To Aircraft Maintenance Programs

5.120 Duplicate Inspections

5.130 Aircraft Parts and Materials



SUBPART E: PERFORMANCE STANDARDS

5.135 Applicability

5.140 Persons Authorised to Perform Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance, and

Modifications ....... . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . .. . . .. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ... . . . . .. . . . . ..... . . . . . . ... . .... . . . .. . . . ... . .. . .. ... 5.145 Persons Authorised to Perform Maintenance

5.150 Authorised Personnel to Approve for Return to Service

5.155 Persons Authorised to Perform lnspections

5.160 Performance Rules: Maintenance

5.165 Performance Rules: lnspections [General

5.167 Performance Rules: lnspections Unique to Rotorcraft

5.169 Performance Rules: Annual and 100 Hour lnspections

5.170 Performance Rules: Airworthiness Limitations

SUBPART F: MAJNTENANCE RECORDS AND ENTRIES

5.200 Owner Maintenance Records

5. 205 Owner Maintenance Records Retention

5.210 Transfer of Maintenance Records by Owner

5. 215 Maintenance and Modification Record Entries

5. 220 Entries Required Following Overhaul and Rebuilding

5. 225 Entries for Approval for Return to Service

5.230 Content and Form for Entries Following Inspection

APPENDICES

Appendix 1 to 5.005: Major Modifications (Definition)

Appendix 2 to 5.005: Major Repairs (Definition)

Appendix 3 to 5.005: Preventive Maintenance (Definition)

Appendix 1 to 5.105: Altimeter System Tests and lnspections

Table I to Appendix 1 to 5.105: Altitude & Equivalent Barometric Pressure

Table II to Appendix 1 to 5.105: Test Tolerances

Table Ill to Appendix 1 to 5.105: Friction

Table IV to Appendix 1 to 5.5105: PressurelAltitude Difference

Appendix 2 to 5.1 05: Transponder Tests and lnspections

Appendix 3 to 5.105: VOR Receiver Tests and lnspections

Appendix 1 to 5.165: Performance Rules: Annual and 100-Hour lnspections

Appendix 1 to 5.215: Recording of Major Repairs and Major Modifications

[The inclusion of this page Is authorized by L.N. 18d20081


SUBPART A: GENERAL

5.001 APPLICABILITY

This Schedule prescribes the requirements for -

(1) Certification of aircraft and aeronautical components;

(2) Issuance of Airworthiness Certificates and other certifications for aeronau!ical

products;

(3) Continued airworthiness of aircraft and aeronautical components;

(4) Rebuilding and modifications of aircraft and aeronautical components;

(5 ) Maintenance and preventive maintenance of aircraft and aeronautical components;

(6) Aircraft inspection requirements; and

(7) Air operator aircraft maintenance and inspection requirements.

For the purpose of the Schedule, the following definitions shall apply -

(1) "Duplicate Inspections" means a Duplicate Inspection of the system that is required

wherever any system that can affect the flight path, attitude, or propulsive force of an

aircraft is disturbed, including the flight, engine, propeller, and landing gear controk,

and the associated operating and support mechanisms, or whenever any defect is

reported on such a system;

(i) after re-assehbly, or satigactory operational check, and prior to flight;

(ii) first carried out and certified by one appropriately type-rated AME and then subseauentlv carried out and certified bv a second appropriately type-rated AME who took no part inthe re-assembly;

(2) "Major modification" is as described in Appendix 1 to 5.005;

(3) "Major repalr" is as described in Appendix 2 to 5.005;

(4) "Modification" means the alteration of an aircraftlaeronautical product in conformity

with an approved standard;

(5) "Noncertlflcated Aircraft" means an aircraft, being an ultra-light aircraft, amateur-

built; aircraft, kit-plane, or experimental aircraft, which has not been issued with a

Type Cetiicate pursuant to Part V, Regulation 27, of these Regulations and therefore

does not qualify for the issue of an Airworthiness Certificate;



(6) "Overhaul" means the restoration of an aircrafUaeronautical product using methods.

techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority. including disassembly.

cleaning, and inspection as permitted, repair as necessary, and reassembly; and

tested in accordance with approved standards and technical data, or in accordance

with current standards and technical data acceptable to the Authority, which have

been developed and documented by the State of Design, holder of the type

certificate, supplemental type certificate, or a material, part, process, or applianw

approval under Parts Manufacturing Authorisation (PMA) or Technical Standard

Order (TSO);

(7) "Preventative maintenance" is as described in Appendix 3 to 5.005;

(8) "Rebulld" means the restoration of an aircrafUaeronautical product by using

methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority, when it has been

disassembled, cleaned, inspected as permitted, repaired as necessary, reassembled,

and tested to the same tolerances and limits as a new item, using either new parts or

used parts that conform to new part to\lerances and limits. This work will be

performed by only the manufacturer or an organization approved by the manufacturer.

and authorised by the State of Registry;

(9) "State of Design" means the Contracting State which approved the original type

certificate and any subsequent supplemental type certificates for an aircraft, or which

approved the design of an aeronautical product or appliance.

(10) "State of Manufacture" means the Contracting State, under whose authority an

aircraft was assembled, approved for compliance with the type certificate and all

extant supplemental type certificates, test flown and approved for operation. The

state of manufacture may or may not also be the state of design;

(1 1) "State of Registry means the Contracting State on whose register the aircraft is

entered.

5.010 ACRONYMS The following acronyms are used in this Schedule -

(1) AOC - Air Operator Certificate;

(2) AM0 -Approved Maintenance Organization ;

(3) MEL - Minimum Equipment List;

(4) PIC - Pilot in command;

(5) TSO -Technical Standard Order;

IThe Inclusion of this page Is authorized by L.N. 18dZ0081


SUBPART B: AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATES

5.01 5 APPLICABILITY

This Subpart prescribes procedures required for the issue of airworthiness certificates.

5.020 ELIGIBILITY

(a) Any registered owner of a Jamaican registered aircraft, or agent of the owner, may apply for an

airworthiness certificate for that aircraft.

(b) Each applicant for an airworthiness certificate shall apply in a form and manner acceptable to

the Authority.

(a) An Airworthiness Certificate (or Certificate of Airworthiness) will be issued for aircraft in the

specific category and model designated by the State of Design in the Type Certificate.

(b) The Authority may issue an Airworthiness Certificate that includes restrictions or limitations.

(c) The Authority may issue a Flight Permit where an aircraft is safe for flight but does not meet all

the requirements for the issue of an ~irwoihiness Certificate.

The Authority may amend or modify an Airworthiness Certificate - (1) upon application from an operator;

(2) on its own initiative.

(a) An owner shall transfer an Airworthiness Certificate - (1) to the lessee upon lease of an aircraft within or outside of Jamaica;

(2) to the buyer upon sale of the aircraft within Jamaica.

(b) An k e r shall surrender the Airworthiness Certificate for the aircraft to the issuing Authority

upon sale of that aircraft outside of Jamaica.

5.040 PERIOD OF VALIDITY OF AIRWORTHINESS CERTIFICATES AND FLIGHT PERMITS

(a) Airworthiness Certiflcates and Flight Permits are effective as follows, unless sooner

surrendered, suspended or revoked, or a special termination date is otherwise established by

the Authority -

( 1 a Flight Permit is valid for the period of time specified in the permit;

(2) a Certificate of Airworth~ness shall remain valid for the period of time specified on the

certificate, provided that the aircraft is maintained according to the approved



maintenance program of the operator, and that continuing airworthiness of the aircraft

is determined by a periodical inspection at appropriate intervals specified in the

maintenance schedule that forms a part of the program.

(b) The Authority may validate an airworthiness certificate issued by another Contracting State

upon registration of the aircraft in Jamaica, provided that the period of validity shall not exceed

the period specified in the certificate issued by the Contracting state. .

Each applicant for an airworthiness certificate shall show that the aircraft is properly registered

and marked, including all required markings and identification plates.

(a) The Authority will issue an Airworthiness certificate if -

(1) the applicant presents evidence to the Authority that the aircraft conforms to a type

design approved under a type certificate or a supplemental type certificate and to the

applicable Airworthiness Directives of the State of Manufacture;

(2) the aircraft has been inspected in accordance with the performance rules of this

schedule for inspections and found airworthy by persons authbrised by the Authority

to make such determinations within the last 30 calendar days; and

(3) the Authority finds after an inspection that the aircraft conforms to the type design and

is in condition for safe operation.

(b) When an aircraft is being imported for registration in Jamaica, the Authority will request an

export certificate of airworthiness, or certificate of conformity, from the exporting state.

(a) Upon regstration of an aircraft in Jama~ca, the Authority will notify the State of Des~gn of the

aircraft of the registration in Jamaica, and request that the Authority receives any and all

airworthiness directives addressing that aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance.

or component part.

(b) Whenever the State of Design considers that a condition in an aircraft, airframe, aircraft

engine, propeller, appliance, or component part is unsafe as shown by the issuance of an

airworthiness directive by that State, the Authority will make the requirements of such

directives apply to Jamaica registered civil aircraft of the type identified in that airworthiness

directive.

(c) The Authority may identify manufacturer's service bulletins and other sources of data, or

develop and prescribe inspection< procedures and limitations, for mandatory compliance

pertaining to affected aircraft in Jamaica.


THE CIVIL AVIATION REGLIL;ATIONS, 2004

(d) No person may operate any Jamaica registered civil aircraft to which the measures of this

subsection apply, except in accordance with the applicable directives.

5.060 ISSUE OF NOISE CERTIFICATE

The Authority will issue a noise certificate for each aircraft to be operated internationally, based

on confirmation from the manufacturer, that the aircraft's noise signature meets the Stage 3

international standard.

5.065 ISSUE OF A FLIGHT PERMIT

(a) The Authority may issuea Flight Permit to an aircraft that does not qualify for an ~irworthiness

Certificate.

(b) Aircraft holding Flight Permits shall be subject to operating limitations within Jamaicaand may

not make international flights unless the operator has obtained authorization in writing from

each state in whose airspace the aircraft will be flying. The Authority shall issue specific

operating limitations for each Flight Permit.

(c) The Authority may issue a Flight Permit to an aircraft that is capable of safe flight, but unable to

meet applicable airworthiness requirements, for the purpose of -

flying to a base where repairs, modifications, maintenance, or inspections are to be

performed, or to a point of storage;

testing after repairs, modifications, or maintenance have been performed;

delivering or exporting the aircraft;

evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger; and

operating at a weight in excess of the aircraft's maximum Certified Takeoff Weight

for flight beyond normal range over water or land areas where adequate landing

facilities or appropriate fuel is not available. The excess weight is limited to

additional fuel, fuel-carrying facilities, and navigation equipment necessary for the

flight;

private recreational flying, in the case of ultra-light aircraft, kit-planes, or amateur - built aircraft that are not issued with Type Certificates and are therefore classified as

"Non-certificated Aircraft".

(d) The Authority may issue a special Flight Permit with continuing authorisatic.. 'or aircraft that

may not meet applicable airworthiness requirements but are capable of safe flight, for the

purpose of flying aircraft to a base where maintenance or alterations are to be performed. The

permit issued under this paragraph is an authorisation, including conditions and limitations for

flight, which is set forth in the AOC Holder's specific operating provisions. This permit under . .Mis paragraph may be issued to an AOC Holder certificated under Schedule 12.



(e) In the case of all Flight Permits except those issued under paragraph (c) (6) above, the

Authority shall require a properly executed maintenance endorsement in the aircrafi permanent

record, by a person or organization, authorised in accordance with this Schedule, stating that

the subject aircraft has been inspected and found to be safe for the intended flight.

(f) In the case of Flight Permits issued pursuant to paragraph (c)(6), the Authority shall impose

such conditions, restrictions, andlor limitations, when issuing and/or renewing the Permit, as

are necessary to ensure the safe operation of the aircraft.

SUBPART C: CONTINUED AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT AND

COMPONENTS

5.070 . APPLICABILITY

This Subpart prescribes rules governing the continued airworthiness of civil aircrafi registered in

Jamaica whether operating inside or outside the borders of Jamaica

The owner of an aircraft or, in the case of a leased aircrafi, the lessee, shall be responsible for

maintaining the aircrafi in an airworthy condition by ensuring that -

(1) all maintenance, inspections, overhauls. modifications and repalrs which affect

airworthiness are performed as prescribed by the State of Registry;

(2) maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircrafi maintenance records

certifying that the aircrafi IS airworthy;

(3) the approval for return to service (maintenance release) is completed to ttie effect

that the maintenance work performed has been completed satisfactorily and in

accordance with the prescribed methods; and

(4) in the event there are open discrepancies, the maintenance release includes a list of

the uncorrected maintenance items and these items are made a part of the aircrafi

permanent record.

(a) No person may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications on an aircrafi

other than as prescribed in this schedule.

(b) No person may operate an aircrafi for which a manufacturer's maintenance manual or

instructtons for continued airworthiness has been issued that contains an airworthiness

limitation section unless the mandatory replacement times, inspection intervals, and related

procedures specified in that section or alternative inspection intervals and related procedures

set forth in the specific operating provisions approved under Schedule 12, or in accordance with

the inspection program approved under this Schedule has been complied with.


THE CIVIL AVIATION REGUM TIONS, 2004

No person may operate an aeronautical product to which an Airworthiness Directive applies,

issued either by the State of Design, or State of Manufacture and adopted for Jamaican-

registered aircraft by the Authority, or by the State of Registry for aircrafl operated within

Jamaica, except in accordance with the requirements of that Airworthiness Directive.

When the Authority determines that an airframe or aeronautical product has exhibited an unsafe

condition and that condition is likely to exist or to develop in other products of the same type

design, the Authority may issue an Airworthiness Directive prescribing inspections and the

conditions and limitations, if any, under which those products may continue to be operated.

5.085 REPORTING OF FAILURES, MALFUNCTIONS, AND DEFECTS

(a) Owners or operators of airplanes over 5,700 kg and helicopters over 3180 kg maximum take-off

weight shall report to the Authority any failures, malfunctions, or defects that result in at least the

following -

fires during flight and whether the related fire-warning system properly operated;

fires dur~ng flight not protected by a related fire-warning system;

false fire warning during flight;

an engine exhaust system that causes damage during flight to the engine, adjacent

structure, equipment, or components;

an aircrafl component that causes accumulation or circulation of smoke, vapour, or

toxic or noxious fumes in the crew compartment or passenger cabin during flight;

engine shutdown during flight because of flameout; ,

engine shutdown during flight when external damage to the engine or aircrafl

structure occurs;

engine shutdown during flight due to foreign object ingestion or icing;

shutdown during flight of more than one engine;

(10) a propeller feathering system or ability of the system to control overspeed during

flight;

(1 1) a fuel or fuel-dumping system that affects fuel flow or causes hazardous leakage

during flight;

(1 2) an unintended landing gear extension or retraction, opening or closing of landing gear

doors during flight, or failure of the landing gear to extend normally.

(13) brake system components that result in loss of brake actuating force when the aircrafl

is in motion on the ground;

(14) aircraft structure that requires major repair;

(1 5) cracks, permanent deformation, or corrosion of aircraft structure, if more.than the

maximum acceptable to the manufacturer or the Authoriv,

lThe Inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18.420081


(16) aircraft components or systems malfunctions that result in taking emergency actions

during flight (except action to shut down an engine);

(17) each interruption to a flight, unscheduled change of aircraft en route, or unscheduled

stop or diversion from a route, caused by known or suspected technical difficulties or

malfunctions;

(1 8) any abnormal vibration or buffeting caused by a structural or system malfunction,

defect, or failure;

(19) a failure or malfunction of more than one attitude, airspeed, or altitude instrument

during a given operation of the aircraft.

(20) the number of engines removed prematurely because of malfunction, failure or

defect, listed by make and model and the aircraft type in which it was installed; or

(21) the number of propeller featherings in flight, listed by type of propeller and engine and

aircrafl on which it was installed.

(22) failure or malfunction of any system, structure, component, equipment, or appliance.

inside the aircrafl cabin, that endangered, or could have endangered a passenger or

crew member.

(b) Each report required by this subsection shall -

(1) be made within 3 days after determining that the failure. malfunction, or defect

required to be reported has occurred; and

(2) include as much of the following information as is available and

applicable - (i) aircrafl serial number;

(ii) when the failure, malfunction, or defect is associated with an article approved under a

TSO authorisation, the article serial number and model designation, as appropriate;

(iii) when the failure. malfunction or defect is associated with an engine or propeller, the

engine or propeller serial number, as appropriate;

(iv) product model;

(v) identification of the part, component, or system involved, including the part number;

and

(vi) natures of the failure. malfunction, or defect.

(c) The Authority, if the State of Registry of the aircrafl, will submit all such reports upon receipt to

the State of Design.

(d) The Authority, if not the State of Registry of the aircrafl, will submit all such reports upon receipt

to the State of Registry.



SUBPART D: AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE REQUIREMENTS

(a) This Subpart prescribes the rules governing the maintenance and inspection of Jamaican

registered civil aircraft operating within or outside Jamaica.

(b) Unless otherwise approved by the Authority, this Subpart prescribes the minimum requirements

that apply to aircraft operated by the holder of an AOC issued by Jamaica.

(c) Subsections 5.105 and 5.1 10 do not apply to aircraft subject to an approved continuous

maintenance program approved by the Authority for an AOC holder in Schedule 12.

5.095 REPAIR ASSESSMENT FOR PRESSURIZED FUSELAGES

No person may operate an aeroplane with a gross takeoff weight of 5700 Kg beyond the fl~ght

cycles prescribed by the Authority for such aircraft unless repair assessment guidelines

applicable to the fuselage pressure boundary (fuselage skin, door skin and bulkhead webs) that

have been approved by the competent Authority of the State of Design or Manufacture having

cognizance over the type certificate for the affected aeroplane are incorporated within its

inspection program.

Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall -

(1) have that aircraft inspected as prescribed in this Schedule and discrepancies repaired

as prescribed in the Performance Rules of this Schedule;

(2) repair, replace, remove, or inspect any inoperative instruments or items of equipment

at the next required inspection, except when permitted under the provisions of an

Minimum Equipment List (MEL);

(3) ensure that a placard has been installed on the aircraft when listed discrepancies

include inoperative instruments or equipment; and

(4) ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft

maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c), no person may operate an aircraft unless, within the

preceding 12 calendar months, the aircraft has had - .

(1) an annual inspection in accordance with this Schedule and has been approved for

return to service by a person authorised under this Schedule; or



(2) an inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate in accordance with this

Schedule.

Note:. No inspection performed under paragraph (b) of this section may be substituted for any

inspection required by this paragraph unless it is performed by a person authorised to perform

annual inspections and is entered as an "annual" inspection in the required maintenance record.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c), no person may operate an aircraft carrying any person

(other than a crew member) for hire, and no person may give flight instruction for hire in an

aircraft which that person provides, unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service - (1) the aircraft has received an annual or 100-hour inspection and been approved for

return to service in accordance with this Schedule; or

(2) has received an inspection for the issuance of an airworthiness certificate in

accordance with this Schedule.

Note: The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en mute to

reach a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where

the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next I00 hours of time h service.

(c) Paragraphs (a) and (b) of this section do not apply to -

(1) an aircraft that is operating under a flight permit;

(2) an aircraft subject to the requirements of subsections 5.110 and 5.1 12 of this section;

or

(3) turbine-powered rotorcraft when the operator elects to inspect that rotorcraft in

accordance with 5.1 10 of this section.

(d) Other Inspections. No person may operate an aircraft unless the following ELT, altimeter

system, transponder and VOR inspections required by Schedule 10 have been accomplished

within the previous;

(1) 24 calendar months, for altimeter and pilot-static system inspections if the aircraft is

to be used in IFR operations;

(2) 24 calendar months for the transponder check for transponder equipped aircraft;

(3) 24 calendar months for the ELT check for ELT equipped aircraft;

(4) 30 days for the VOR receiver check for aircraft to be used in IFR operations;

Note: IFR aircraff maintained under a continuous maintenance pmgram will have a different

requirement other than the 30day requirements.

Note: For these tests and inspections, see Appendix 1 to 5.105 for the altimeter system;

Appendix 2 to 5.105 for the ATC transponder; Appendix 3 to 5.105 for the VOR mcelver.

IThe.inclusion of thls page i s authorized by L.N. 18A/2008]


5.1 10 PROGRESSIVE INSPECTION

Each registered owner or operator of an aircraft desiring to use a progressive inspection program shall

submit a wrltten request to the Authority, and shall provide - (1) a type-rated AME, licensed in accordance with Schedule 8, or an AM0 appropriately

rated In accordance with Schedule 6, to supervise or conduct the progressive

inspection;

(2) a current inspection procedures manual available and readily understandable to pilot

end maintenance personnel containing. In detail - (I) an explanation of the progressive inspection, including the continuity of inspection

responsibility, the making of reports, and the keeping of records and technical

reference material;

(ii) an inspection schedule, specifying the intervals in hours or days when routine and

detailed inspections will be performed and including instructions for exceeding an

Inspection interval by not more than 10 hours while en-route and for changing an

lnspection interval because of service experience;

(hi) sample routine and detailed inspection forms and instructions for their use; and

(iv) sample reports and records and instructions for their use;

(3) enough houslng and equipment for necessary disassembly and proper inspection of

the aircraft; and

(4) appropriate current technical information for the aircraft.

Noh 1: The frequency and detail of the progressive inspection shall provide for the complete

inspection of the aircraft within each 12 calendar months and be consistent with the current

manufacturer's recommendations, field service experience, and the kind of operation in which

the aircraft is engaged.

Note 2: The progressive inspection schedule shall ensure that the aircraff, at all times, will be

almorthy and will conform to aN applicable aircraff specifications, type certificate data sheets.

airworthiness directives, and other approved data acceptable to the Authority. I f the progressive

inspection Is discontinued, the owner or operator shall immediately notify the Authority, in

wrlting, of the discontinuance.

Note 3: After the discontinuance, the first annual inspection under Schedule 10 is due within. 12

calendar months after the last complete inspection of the aircraff under the progressive

inspection.

Note 4: The 100-hour inspection under this Subpart is due within 100 hours affer that complete

Inspectlon.



Note 5: A complete inspection of the aircraf?, for the purpose of determining when the annual

and 100 hour inspections are due, requires a detailed inspection of the aircraf? and all its

components in accordance with the progressive inspection.

Note 6: A routine inspection of the aircraf? and a detailed inspection of several components is , not considered to be a complete inspection.

5.1 12 lNSPECTlON PROGRAMS FOR LARGE AND TURBINE AIRCRAFT

Except for aircrafl operated under an AOC, the registered owner or operator of each large

aeroplane, turbojet multi-engine aeroplane, turbo propeller-powered multi-engine aeroplane, and

turbine-powered rotorcrafl shall select, identify in the aircrafl maintenance records, and use one of

the following progiams for the inspection of the aircrafl- ..

(1) a current inspection program recommended by the manufacturer;

(2) a inspection program that is part of a continuous maintenance program for that make

and model of aircrafl currently approved by the Authority for use by an AOC holder; or

(3) any other inspection program established by the registered owner or operator of that

aircrafl and approved by the Authority.

Each ownerloperator shall include in the selected program the name and address of the person

responsible for the scheduling of the inspections required by the program and provide a copy of

the program to the person performing inspection on the aircrafl.

No aircrafl shall be approved for return to service unless the replacement times for life-limited

parts specified in the aircrafl specification-type data sheets are complied with and the aeroplane,

including airframe, engines, propellers, rotors, appliances, and survival and emergency

equipment, is inspected in accordance with an inspection program selected.

Each person wishing to establish or change an approved inspection program shall submit the

program for approval by the Authority a;;d shall include in writing - (1) instructions and procedures for the conduct of inspection for the particular make and

a . m e e l aircrafl, including necessary tests and checks. The instructions shall set forth in

detail the parts and areas of the aeronautical products, including survival and

. emergency equipment required to be inspected; and

(2) a schedule for the inspections that shall be performed expressed in terms of time in

service, calendar time, number of system operations or any combination of these.

(0) When an operator changes from one inspection program to another, the operator shall apply the

time in service. calendar times, or cycles of operation accumulated under the previous program, in

I determining time the inspection Is due under the new program.

[The inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18d2008j


(a) Whenever the Authority finds that revisions to an approved inspection program are necessary for

the continued adequacy of the program, the owner or operator shall, after notification by the

Authority, make any changes in the program found to be necessary.

(b) The owner or operator may petition the Authority to reconsider the notice, within 30 days after

receiving that notice.

(c) Except in the case of an emergency requiring immediate action in the interest of safety, the filing

of the petition stays the notice pending a decision by the Authority.

(a) No shall operate an aircraft except as provided in the following -

(i) whenever any system which can affect the attitude, flight path, or propulsive force of

that aircraft is disturbed, or a defect in operation of the system is reported, a Duplicate

lnspection is carried out on the system before the aircraft is returned to service.

(ii) whenever any major repair, or major modification, is performed on any part of the

structure of that aircraft, the failure of which may result in the aircraft's inability to

continue in safe flight, a Duplicate lnspection is performed on the repair or

modification.

(b) A Duplicate lnspection shall be performed and certified, by two Aircraft Maintenance Engineers.

independently, both of whom shall be either type or class rated on the aircraft.

(c) The lnspection shall consist of a visual inspection and a functional check, to confirm the integrity,

security, freedom from interference, and correct functioning of all parts of the system, from the

pilot's control input to the operating surface or component. Where a repair or modification is

being inspected, the inspection shall confirm compliance of the repair or modification with all

aspects of the approved data.

(d) The lnspection shall be carried out first by one AME and then subsequently by the second AME.

The system being inspected shall not be disturbed during the time lapse between the first and

second inspections, and any such time lapse shall be kept to a minimum.

(e) At least one of the Inspectors performing the Duplicate lnspection shall not have been involved in

the performance of the work being inspected.

(f) An Inspector assigned to the Quality section of a maintenance organization may perform the

second part of a Duplicate Inspection.

(g) Each air operator shall develop a list of the systems on its aircraft that will require Duplicate

lnspection and shall include this list in its Maintenance Control Manual. This list shall at a

minimum, include the following systems -



aileron and aileron trim ;

elevator and elevator trim

rudder and rudder trim

horizontal stabilizer

flaps

slats

speed brakes I Spoilers

engine power lever (Throttle)

engine fuel shut-off (HP Cock)

engine fuel Mlxture

englne thrust reverser

landing gear extension and retraction

(h) Each owner of a private aircraft shall include such a list in the maintenance program approved for

his aircraft.

5.1 30 hRCRAFT PARTS AND MATERIALS

All aeronautical parts and materials being installed or used on Jamaican-registered aircraft must

be traceable to an approved source and must be supplied with documentation to attest to the fact.

All rotable parts must be supplied with an original or certified copy of an Authorised Release

Certificate that complies with the requirements of the JCAA. FAA, Transport Canada, or EASA

(European Aviation Safety Agency).

All expendable parts must be supplied with either an Authorised Release Certificate as in (b) or a

signed Certificate of Conformity that carries an appropriate statement that the part complies with

airworthiness requirements. Packing slips that incorporate signed conformance certification are

also acceptable.

Segments of bulk parts covered under a single certification document may be supplied with a

copy of the document along with the necessary certification stating the location where the original . documentation is being held on file.

Uncertified photocopies of documentation are not acceptable.

Whenever a part or item of material is installed on an aircraft, the documentation specified in (a)

through (d) above, as applicable, must be included in the aircraft records along with the

worksheet, job card, or logbook page that carries the entry for the work performed.

[The Inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18d20081

THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004 ~

SUBPART E: PERFORMANCE STANDARDS

This Subpart prescribes performance standards governing the maintenance and inspection of any

aircraft having a Airworthiness Certificate issued by Jamaica or associated aeronautical products.

5.140 PERSONS AUTHORISED TO PERFORM MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE,

AND MODIFICATIONS

(a) The persons authorised to perform maintenance subject to this Subpart include -

(1) a pilot licensed by the Authority;

(2) a person performing maintenance under the supervision of an Aircraft Maintenance

Engineer;

(3) an Aircraft Maintenance Engineer;

(4) an AOC holder approved to perform maintenance under an equivalent system; and

(5) an AMO.

(b) This Subpart outlines the privileges and limitations of these entities with respect to the extent and

type of work they may perform regarding - (1) maintenance;

(2) preventive maintenance;

(3) modification;

(4) inspection; and

(5) approvals for return to service.

PERSONS AUTHORISED TO PERFORM MAINTENANCE

(a) No person may perform any task defined as maintenance on an aircraft or aeronautical products.

except as provided in the following - a pilot licensed by the Authority may perform preventive maintenance on any aircrafl

owned or operated by that pilot, if that aircraft is not approved for use by an AOC

holder.

a person working under the supervision of an Aircrafl Maintenance Engineer (AME),

may perform the maintenance, pre\ientiie maintenance, and modifications that the

supervisory aircraft maintenance engineer is authorised to perform - if the supervisor personally observes the work being done to the extent necessary to

ensure that it is being done properly, and

if the supervisor is readily available, in person, for consultation.



(3) an aircraft maintenance engineer may perform or supervise the maintenarice or

modification of an aircraft or aeronautical product for which he or she is rated subject

to the limitation of this Schedule.

(4) an AM0 may perform aircraft maintenance within the limits specified by the Authority.

(5) the AOC holder may perform aircraft maintenance as specified by the Authority.

-(6) a manufacturer holding an AM0 may - (i) rebuild or alter any aeronautical product manufactured by that manufacturer

under a type or production certificate;

(ii) rebuild or alter any aeronautical product manufactured by that manufacturer /

under a TSO Authorisation, a Parts Manufacturer Approval by the State of

Design, or Product and Process Specification issued by the State of Design;

and

(iii) perform any inspection required by this Schedule on aircraft it

mdnufacturers, while currently operating under a production certificate or

uhder a currently approved production inspection system for such aircraft.

(b) No person may perform any task defined as maintenance on an aircrafl or aeronautical product,

unless that has satisfactorily completed a course of training approved by the Authority,

sufficient to allow that person to perform the task as specified in 5.160. Persons who are

participants in an approved course may be allowed to carry out tasks for which they have been

trained, but only under the direct supervision of an AME.

(c) No person shall be employed by an AOC holder, or an AMO, in a capacity where that person may

be asked to perform any task defined as a maintenance task, unless the educational standard

achieved by that person is sufficient to allow that person to;

(i) read and understand clearly the maintenance instructions published by the

manufacturer of an aeronautical product, or instructions for continued airworthiness

publishee by an Airworthiness Authority,

(ii) carry out the task as intended by, and to a standard acceptable to the manufacturer or

the applicable Authority, end

(iii) document on a worksheet, or in a maintenance logbook, the work that he or she has

performed in a manner that can be clearly understood by another person.

No person or entity, other than the Authority, may approve an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine,

propeller, appliance, or component part for retum to service after it has undergone maintenance.

preventive maintenance, rebuilding. or modification, except as provided in the following:

(1) a pilot licensed by the Authority may retum his or her aircraft to service after

performing authorlsed preventive maintenance.

lThe Inclusion of this page 1s authorized by L.N. 18fl0081


(2) an aircraft maintenance engineer, appropriately qualified, may approve aircraft and

aeronautical products for retum to service after he or she has performed, supervised. '

or inspected its maintenance subject to the limitations of this Schedule.

(3) an AM0 may approve aircraft and aeronautical products for return to service as

provided in the specifications approved by the Authority.

(4) an AOC holder may approve aircraft and aeronautical products for return to service as

specified by the Authority.

No person, other than the Authority, may perform the inspections required in this Schedule for aircraft

and aeronautical products prior to or after it has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance,

rebuilding, or modification, except as provided in the following -

(1) an aircraft maintenance engineer may conduct the required inspections of aircraft and

aeronautical products for which he or she is rated and current;

(2) an AM0 may perform the required inspections of aircraft and aeronautical products as

provided in the specifications approved by the Authority;

(3) an AOC holder may perform the required inspections of aircraft and aeronautical

products in accordance with specifications issued by the Authority.

(a) Every person performing maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification on an

aeronautical product shall use the methods, techniques, and practices prescribed in - (1) the current manufacturets maintenance manual or instructions for

Continued Airworthiness prepared by its manufacturer; and

(2) additional methods, techniques and practices required by the Authority; or methods,

techniques and practices designated by the Authority where the manufacturer's

documents were not available.

(b) Each person shall use the tools, equipment, and test apparatus necessary to assure completion

of the work in accordance with accepted industry practices. -If the manufacturer involved

recommends special equipment or test apparatus, the person performing maintenance shall use

that equipment or apparatus or its equivalent acceptable to the Authority.

(c) each person performing maintenance, preventive maintenance. or modification on an aeronautical

product shall do that work in such a manner, and use materials of such a quality, that the

condition of the aeronautical product worked on will be at least equal to its origlnal or properly

altered condition with regard to aerodynamic function, structural strength, resistance to vibraHon

and deterioration, and other qualities affecting aimorthlness.

lThe Inclusion of this page i s authorized by L.N. 18*120081


id) the methods, techniques, and practices contained in an AOC holder's maintenance control

manual and continuous maintenance program, as approved by the Authority, will constitute an

acceptable means of compliance with the requirements of this subsection.

(e) each person performing a major modification or repair defined in this Schedule will use data

approved by the Authority as follows - (1) the approved data used must be referenced on the form or log entry used to approved

the modification or repair for return '.o service.

(2) 'Approved data" is data specifically approved by the following for the modification or

repair - (i) the Authority;

(ii) the State of Manufacture;

(iii) a Designee authorized by the State of Manufacture for that type modification or

repair;

(iv) the State of Design; or

(v) a Designee authorized by the State of Design for that type modification or

.repair.

General. Each person performing an Inspection required by the Authority shall - (1) perform the inspection so as to determine whether the aircraft, or portion(s) thereof

under inspection, meets all applicable airworthiness requirements; and

(2) where there is an inspection program required or accepted for the specific aircraft

being inspected, perform the inspection in accordance with the instructions and

procedures set forth in the inspection program.

Rotorcraft. Each person performing an inspection required on a rotorcraft shall inspect the following

systems In accordance with the maintenance manual or Instructions for Continued Airworthiness of the

manufacturer concerned -

(1) the drive shafts or similar systems.

(2) the main rotor transmission gear box for obvlous defects,

(3) the main rotor and centre section (or the equivalent area), and

(4) the auxiliary rotor on helicopters.

5.169 PERFORMANCE RULES: ANNUAL AND 100 HOUR INSPECTIONS . .

(a) Each person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall use a checklist while performing

the inspection.

1The inclusion of this page Is authorized by L.N. 18~t20081

- ,> 3;-,,;1 . \.> !; 3':.,q, ;,;T,w' (,-i, i: : \ ' i \ ' ~ > : THE CIVIL AVIATION RE~;ULATIONS, 2004

:..\ the checklist may be of the person's own design, one provided by the manufacturer of

the equipment being inspected, or one obtained from another,sr?,urce. .,i.

this checklist shall include the scope and detail of the items prescribed by the W j

Authority.

Note: Appendix 1 to 5.165 lists the components to be included in an annual or 100-hour

inspection. * !J ;

:i;,

(b) Where person approving a reciprocating-engine-powered aircraft for return'fo service after an

annual or 100-hour inspection shall, before that approval, run the aircraft e'ri$ne or engines to

determine satisfactory performance in accordance with the current manuf&%rer8s

recommendations of - ;:3? <,$j"$&$ it:;

(1) power output (static and idle rpm);

' (2) magnetos;

(3) fuel and oil pressure; and

(4) cylinder and oil temperature. paPd =i?by& 3 3 % 3

(c) Every person approving a turbine-engine-powered alrcraft for return to service after an annual or

100-hour inspection shall, before that approval, run the aircraft engine or,engines tvdetermine3)

satisfactory performance in accordance with the current manufacturer's recommendations.

>8.{011F35 16

5.1 70 PERFORMANCE RULES: AIRWORTHINESS LIMITATIONS +" ' . F l r ~ ~ ~ ' j ' < b )

Each person performing an inspection or other maintenance ~peCi~ed~i$Qe,;a'I,rworthiness

limitations section of a current manufacturer's maintenance man\a!; ,%r h&~$~ons for Continued

Airworthiness, shall perform the inspection or other maintenance,$acgy~;~_e with that section,

or in accordance with specifications approved by the Authority. t : ? Z: :i l

:E+? Y? !,hi! 5.200 OWNER MAINTENANCE RECORDS

0i fWi2.3

The ownerloperator of an aircraft shall keep a maintenance record of - ;..J I ~ 3 ~ + . t ~ : i;.~:on,?ip.:l 4p5~3 (Cf

(1) the entire aircraft including - ::.& iir.r!i 233! io:! 70 !MI'%.

(i) total time in service (hours, calendar time and cycles, as app~prjate) of the

aircraft and all life limited parts; W ~ I .,y? iji zi t6rU ( b )

(ii) current inspection status of the aircraft, including the time since required or

approved inspections were last performed: m . 7 i~to! ?fii {i)

(iii) current empty mass and the location of the centre of gravity when empty; , 0:Cx

(iv) addition or removal of equipment; ;2 ;!~?n;,z yd! (:j;

"- - --- -- - -"--

, I, ..ill',,, ,," 1

lThe itidusion of this page is authorized by L.N 18d20081


(v) type and extent of maintenance and alteration, including the time in service

and date;

(vi) when work was performed; and

(vii) a chronological list of compliance with Airworthiness Directives, including

methods of compliance.

(2) l i e limited products - (i) total time in service;

(ii) date of the last overhaul;

(iii) time in service since the last overhaul; and

(Iv) date of the last inspection.

(3) instruments and equipment, the serviceability and operating life of which are

determined by their time in service including, - (i) records of the time in service as are necessary to determine their serviceability

or to compute their operating life; and

(ii) date of last inspection.

(a) Every registered owner. operator or lessee, of an aircraft shall retain the following records for a

period of not less than two years after the aircraft has been permanently removed from service

or destroyed - (1) records of the maintenance, preventive maintenance, minor modifications. and records

of the 100-hour, annual, and other required or approved inspections, as appropriate,

for each aircraft (including the airframe) and each engine, propeller, rotor. and

appliance of an aircraft to include - (i) a description (or reference to data acceptable to the Authority) of the work

performed,

(ii) the date of completion of the work performed; and

(iii) the signature and certificate number of the person approving the aircraft for

return to service.

(b) Every registered owner, operator or lessee, of an aircraft shall retain the following records for a

period of not less than two years after the aircraft has been permanently removed from service,

or destroyed.

(1) that is to say, records containing the following information-

(i) the total time-in-service of the airframe, each engine, each propeller, and each

rotor.

(ii) the current status of all life-limited aeronautical products;

ITbt inclusion o f this page is autl~orizetl by L.N. 18~120081


(iii) the time since last overhaul of all items installed on the aircraft which are

required to be overhauled on a specified time basis;

(iv) the current inspection status of the aircraft, including the time since the last

inspection required by the inspection program under which the aircraft and its

appliances are maintained;

(v) the current status of applicable Airworthiness Directives including, for each, the

method of compliance, the Airworthiness Directlve number, and revision date. If

the Airworthiness Directive involves recurring action, the time and date when

the next action is required;

(vi) Copies of the forms prescribed by this chapter for each major modification to

the airframe and currently installed engines, rotors, propellers, and appliances.

(c) Every AOC holder, whether owner or lessee, shall retain the additional records as required by

Schedule 12.560.

5.210 TRANSFER OF MAINTENANCE RECORDS BY OWNER

An owner or operator who sells or leases a Jamaica registered aircraft shall transfer to the

purchasernessee, at the time of sale or lease, the records identified in this Subpart for that aircraft, in

plain language form or in coded form at the election of the purchasernessee if the coded form provides

for the preservation and retrieval of information in a manner acceptable to the Authority.

5.21 5 MAJNTENANCE AND MODIFICATION RECORD ENTRIES

(a) Every person who maintains, performs preventive maintenance, rebuilds, or modifies an aircraft or

aeronautical product shall, when the work is performed satisfactorily, make an entry in the

malntenance record of that equipment as follows -

(1) a description (or reference to data acceptable to the Authority) of work performed;

(2) completion date of the work performed;

(3) name, signature, certificate number, and kind of license held by the person

approving the work.

Note: The signature constitutes the approval for return to service only for the work performed.

(b) The person performing the work shall enter records of major repairs and major modifications, and

dispose of that form in the manner prescribed by the Authority.

Note: See Appendix I to 5.215 for additional maintenance form completion requirements.

(c) A person working under supervision of an aircraft maintenance engineer may not perform any

inspection required in this Schedule or any Inspection performed after a major repair or

modfflcatlon.

lThe inclusion o f this page is authorized by L.N. 18d20081


5.220 E N T ~ C S REQUIRED FOLLOWING OVERHAUL AND REBUILDING

(a) No person may describe in any required maintenance entry or form, an aeronautical product as

being overhauled unless -

(1) it has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected as permitted, repaired as necessary.

and reassembled using methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the

Authority; and

(2) it has been tested in accordance with approved standards and technical data, or in

'accordance with current standards and technical data acceptable to the Authority,

which have been developed and documented by the holder of the type certificate,

supplemental type certificate, or a material, part, process, or appliance manufacturing

approval.

(b) No person may describe in any required maintenance entry or form an aircraft or other

aeronautical product as being rebuilt unless it has been disassembled, cleaned, inspected as

permitted, repaired as necessary, reassembled, and tested to the same tolerances and limits as a

new item, using either new parts or used parts that conform to new part tolerances and limits.

5.225 ENTRIES FOR APPROVAL FOR RETURN TO SERVICE

No person may approve for retum to service or execute a maintenance release for any aeronautical

product that has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or modification unless -

(1) the appropriate maintenance record entry has been made;

(2) the repair or modification form authorised by or furnished by the Authority has been

executed in a manner prescribed by the Authority;

(3) If a repair or modification results in any change in the aircraft operating limitations or

flight data contained in the approved aircraft flight manual, those operating limitations

or flight data are appropriately revised and set forth as prescribed.

Note: Appendix 1 to 5.215 provides the repair or modification requirements and form.

5.230 CONTENT AND FORM FOR ENTRIES FOLLOWING ~NsPECTION

(a) Maintenance record entries.

The person approving or disapproving the return to service of an aeronautical product after any

inspection performed in accordance with this Schedule, shall make an entry in the maintenance

record of that equipment containing the following information - type of inspection and a brief description of the extent of the inspection;

date of the inspection and aircraft total time in service;

signature, the license number, and kind of license held by the person approving or

disapproving for return to service the aeronautical product;

[The inclusion pf this page Is authorized by L.N. 18~/20081


(4) if the aircraft is found to be airworthy and approved for retum to service, the following

or a similarly worded statement- 'I cedi& that this aircraff has been inspected in

accordance with (insert type) inspection and was determined to be in airworthy

condition ";

(5) if the aircraft is not approved for return to service because of needed maintenance,

non-compliance with the applicable specifications, airworthiness directives, or other

approved data, the following or a similarly worded statement4 cedw that this aircrat?

has been inspected in accordance with (insert type) inspection and a list of

discrepancies and unairworthy items dated (date) has been provided for the aircraff

owner or operator; and

(6) if an inspection is conducted under an inspection program provided for in this

Schedule, the person performing the inspection shall make an entry identifying the

inspection program accomplished, and containing a statement that the inspection was

performed in accordance with the inspections and procedures for that particular

program.

(b) Listing of discrepancies.

The person,performing any inspection required in this Schedule who finds that the aircraft is not

airworthy or does not meet the applicable type certificate data sheet, airworthiness directives or

other approved data upon which its airworthiness depends, shall give the ownerloperator a signed

and dated list of those discrepancies.

(c) The list of defects of defects described in paragraph (b) shall be retained until the defects are

repaired and the aircraft is approved for return to service.

APPENDICES

(a) Airframe Major Modifications. Major modifications include modifications to the listed aircraft

parts, or the listed types of modifications (when not included in the applicable aircraft

specifications) - (1) Wings;

(2) tail surfaces;

(3) fuselage;

(4) engine mounts;

(5) control system;

(6) landing gear;

lThe inclusion o f thls page is authorized by L.N. 18~L?008)


(7) hull or floats;

(8) elements of an airframe including spars, ribs, fittings, shock absorbers, bracing,

cowlings, fairings, and balance weights;

(9) hydraulic and electrical actuating system of components;

(10) rotor blades;

(1 1) changes to the empty weight or empty balance which result in an increase in the

maximum Certified weight or centre of gravity limits of the aircraft;

(12) changes to the basic design of the fuel, oil, cooling, heating, cabin pressurisation,

electrical, hydraulic, de-icing, or exhaust systems;

(13) changes to the wing or to fixed or movable control surfaces which affect flutter and

vibration characteristics;

(b) Power Plant Major Modlflcatlons. Major power plant modifications, even when not listed in the

applicable engine specifications, include -

' (1) conversion of an aircraft engine from one approved model to another, involving any

changes in compression ratio, propeller reduction gear, impeller gear ratios or the

substitution of major engine parts which requires extensive rework and testing of the

engine;

(2) changes to the engine by replacing aircraft engine structural parts with parts not

supplied by the original manufacturer or parts not specifically approved by the

Authority;

(3) installation of an accessory which is not approved for the engine;

(4) removal of accessories that are listed as required equipment on the aircraft or

engine specification;

(5) installation of structural parts other than the type of parts approved for the

installation;

(6) conversions of any sort for the purpose of using fuel of a rating or grace other than

that listed in the engine specifications.

(c) Propeller Major Modlflcatlons. Major propeller modifications, when not authorised in the

appllcable propeller speclfications, include - (1) changes in blade deslgn;

(2) changes in hub deslgn;

(3) changes in the governor or control design;

(4) lnstallation of a propeller governor or feathering system;

(5) lnstallation of propeller de-icing system;

(6) Installetlon of parts not approved for the propeller.

/The inclusion of this page is authorized byL.N. l8J20081

THE C I ~ ~ L AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

(d) Appliance Major Modlflcatlons.

Modifications of the basic design not made in accordance with recommendations of the appllance

manufacturer or In accordance with applicable Airworthiness Oitecthre are appliance major

modifications. In addition, changes in the basic design of radio communication and navigation

equipment approved under type certification or other authorisation that have an effect on

frequency stability, noise level, sensitivity, seiectMty, distortion, spurious radiation, AVC

characteristics. or ability to meet environmental test conditions and other changes that have an effect on the performance of the equipment are also major modications.

(a) "AIHrame Major Repairsn

Repaiis to the following parts of an airframe and repairs of the following types, InvoMng the

strengthening, reinforcing, splicing, and manufacturing of primary structural members of their

replacement, when replacement is by fabrication such as riveting or welding. are altframe major

box beams;

monocoque or semi-monocoque wings or control surfaces;

wing stringers or chord members;

spars;

spar flanges;

members of truss-type beams;

thin sheet webs of beams;

keel and chine members of boat hulls or floats;

cormgated sheet compression members which act as flange material of wings

or tail surfaces;

wing main ribs and compression members;

wing or tail surface brace struts;

engine mounts;

fuselage iongerons;

members of the side truss, horizontal truss, or bulkheads;

main seat support braces and brackets;

landing gear brace struts;

axles;

wheels;

parts of the control system such as control columns, pedals, shafts, brackets,

or horns;



(20) repairs involving the substitution of material;

(21 ) the repair of damaged areas in metal or plywood stressed covering exceeding

six inches in any direction;

(22) the repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.

(23) the splicing of skin sheets;

(24) the repair of three or more adjacent wing or control surface ribs or the leading

edge of wings and control surfaces, between such adjacent ribs;

(25) repair of fabric covering involving an area greater than that required to repaii

two adjacent ribs;

(26) replacement of fabric on fabric covered parts such as wings, fuselages.

stabilisers, and control surfaces;

(27) repairing, including re-bottoming, of removable or integral fuel tanks and oil tanks.

(b) "Power Plant Major Repairs."

Repairs of the following parts of an engine and repairs of the following types, are power plant

major repairs -

(1) separation or disassembly of a crankcase or crankshaft of a reciprocating engine

equipped with an integral supercharger;

(2) separation or disassembly of a crankcase or crankshaft of a reciprocating engine

equipped with other than spur-type propeller reduction gearing;

(3) special repairs to structural engine parts by welding. plating, metalising, or other

methods;

(c) "Propeller Major Repalrs"

Repairs of the following types to a propeller are propeller major repairs - (1) any repairs to or straightening of steel blades;

(2) . repalring or machining of steel hub;.

(3) shortening of blades;

(4) re-tipping of wood propellers;

(5) replacement of outer laminations on flxed pitch wood propellers;

(6) repalring elongated bolt holes in the hub of fixed pitch wood propellers;

(7) inlay work on wood blades;

(8) repalrs to composition blades;

(9) replacement of tip fabric;

(10) replacement of plastic covering;

(1 1) repalr of propeller governors;

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(1 2) overhaul of controllable pitch propellers;

(13) repairs to deep dents, cuts, scars, nicks, etc.. and straightening of aluminium

blades;

(14) the repair or replacement of internal elements of blades.

(d) "Appliance Major Repairs."

Repairs of the following types to appliances are appliance major repairs -

(1) calibration and repair of instruments;

(2) calibration of avionics or computer equipment;

(3) rewinding the field coil of an electrical accessory;

(4) complete disassembly of complex hydraulic power valves;

(5) overhaul of pressure type carburettors, and pressure type fuel, oil, and hydraulic

pumps.

(a) "Preventive Maintenance."

Preventive maintenance is limited to the following work, provided it does not involve complex

assembly operations - removal, installation and repair of landing gear tires;

replacing elastic shock absorber cords on landing gear;

servicing landing gear shock struts by adding oil, air, or both;

servicing landing gear wheel bearings, such as cleaning and greasing.

replacing defective safely wiring or cotter keys;

lubrication not requiring disassembly other than removal of non-structural items

such as cover plates, cowlings, and fairings;

making simple fabric patches not requiring rib stitching or the removal of structural

parts or control surfaces;

replenishhg hydraulic fluid in h e hydraulic reservoir;

refinishing decorative coating of fuselage, wings, tail group surfaces (excluding

balanced control surfaces), falrlngs, cowling, landing gear, cabin, or cockpit interior

when removal or disassembly of any primary structure or operating system is not

required;

(lo) applying preservative or protect've material to components where no disassembly

of any prlrnary structure or operating system is involved and where such coating is

(The lncluslon of this page Is authorized by L.N. l8~/2008]


not prohibited or is not contrary to good practices;

(1 1) repairing upholstery and decorative furnishings of the cabin or cockpit when the

.repairing does not require disassembly of any primary structure or operating system

or interfere with an operating system or affect primary structure of the aircraft.

(12) making small simple repairs to fairings, non-structural cover plates, cowlings, and

small patches and reinforcements not changing the contour so as to interfere with

proper airflow;

(13) replacing side windows where that work does not interfere with the structure of any

operating system such as controls, electrical equipment, etc.;

(14) replacing safety belts;

(15) replacing seats or seat parts with replacement'parts approved for the aircraft, not

involving disassembly of any primary structure or operating system;

(16) troubleshooting and repairing broken circuits in landing light wiring circuits;

(1 7) replacing bulbs, reflectors, and lenses of position and landing lights;

(18) replacing wheels and skis where no weight and balance computation is involved;

(19) replacing any cowling not requiring removal of the propeller or disconnection of

flight controls;

(20) replacing or cleaning spark plugs and setting of spark plug gap clearance;

(21) replacing any hose connection except hydraulic connections;

(22) replacing prefabricated fuel lines;

(23) cleaning fuel and oil strainers;

(24) replacing and servicing batteries

(25) replacement or adjustment of non-structural fasteners incidental to operations.

(26) the installation of anti-misfueling devices to reduce the diameter of fuel tank filler

openings provided the specific device has been made a part of the aircraft type

certificate data by the aircraft manufacturer, the manufacturer has provided

appropriately approved instructions acceptable to the Authority for the iristallation of

the specific device, and installation does not involve the disassembly of the existing

filler opening.

APPENDIX 1 TO 5.105: ALTIMETER SYSTEM TESTS AND ~NSPECTIONS

(a) The Altimeter system and alt~tude reporting equipment tests and inspections must be conducted

by-

(1) the manufacturer of the a~rplane, or helicopter. on which the tests and

inspections are to be performed;

(2) a certificated repair station properly equipped to perform those functions and

[The lncluslon of this page Lo authorized by L.N. l8~/2008]


holding -

(i) an instrument rating, Class I;

(ii) a limited instrument rating appropriate to the make and model of appliance

to be tested;

(iii) a limited rating appropriate to the test to be performed;

(Iv) an airframe rating appropriate to the airplane, or helicopter, to be tested; or

(3) any 'E" licence AME (for aircraft with an MCTOW 5700 Kg or less) or an "E" licence

AME trained on the type of aircraft with an MCTOW greater than 5700kg.

(b) Altimeter and altitude reporting equipment approved under Technical Standard Orders are

considered to be tested and inspected as of the date of their manufacture.

(c) Each person performing the altimeter system tests and inspections required by schedule 10 shall

comply with the following:

I. Static pressure system - (1) ensure freedom from entrapped moisture and restrictions.

(2) determine that leakage is within the tolerances established in the aircraft certification

rule.

(3) determine that the static port heater, if installed, is operative.

(4) ensure that no alterations or deformations of the airframe surface have been made

that would affect the relationship between air pressure in the static pressure system

and true ambient static air pressure for any flight condition.

II. AIUmeter-

(5) test by an appropriately rated repair facility in accordance with the following

subparagraphs. Unless otherwise specified, each test for performance may be

conducted with the instrument subjected to vibration. When tests are conducted with

the temperature substantially different from ambient temperature of approximately 25

degrees C, allowance shall be made for the variation from the specified condition.

(1) Scale error.

With the barometric pressure scale at 29.92 inches of mercury, the altimeter shall be

subjected successively to pressures corresponding to the altitude specified in Table I

up to the maxlmum normally expected operating altitude of the airplane in which the

altimeter Is to be installed. The reduction in pressure shall be made at a rate not in

excess of 20,000 feet per minute to within approximately 2,000 feet of the test point.

The test point shall be approached at a rate compatible with the test equipment. The

(The inclusion of thls page is authorized by L.N. 18d20081


altimeter shall be kept at the pressure corresponding to each test point for at least 1

minute, but not more than 10 minutes, before a reading is taken. The error at all test

points must not exceed the tolerances specified in Table I.

(ii) "Hysteresis."

The hysteresis test shall begin not more than 15 minutes after the altimeter's initial

exposure to the pressure corresponding to the upper limit of the scale error test

prescribed in subparagraph (i); and while the altimeter is at this pressure, the

hysteresis test shall commence. Pressure shall be increased at a rate simulating a

descent in altitude at the rate of 5.000 to 20,000 feet per minute until within 3,000 feet

of the first test point (50 percent of maximum altitude). The test point shall then be

approached at a rate of approximately 3.000 feet per minute. The altimeter shall be

kept at this pressure for at least 5 minutes, but not more than 15 minutes, before the

test reading IS taken. After the readmg has been taken, the pressure shall be

mcreased further, in the same manner as before, until the pressure corresponding to

the second test point (40 percent of maxlmum altttude) is reached. The altimeter shall

be kept at this pressure for at least 1 minute, but not more than 10 minutes, before the

test readmg is taken. After the reading has been taken, the pressure shall be

increased further, in the same manner as before, until atmospheric pressure is

reached. The reading of the altimeter at either of the two test points shall not differ by

more than the tolerance specified in Table II from the reading of the altimeter for the

corresponding altitude recorded durmg the scale error test prescr~bed in paragraph

(b)(O.

(iii) "After effect"

Not more than 5 minutes after the completion of the hysteresis test prescribed in

paragraph (b)(ii), the reading of the altimeter (corrected for any change in atmospheric

pressure) shall not differ from the original atmospheric pressure reading by more than

the tolerance specified in Table II.

(iv) "Friction."

The altimeter shall be subjected to a steady rate of decrease of pressure

approximating 750 feet per minute. At each altitude listed in Table Ill, the change in

reading of the pointers after vibration shall not exceed the corresponding tolerance

listed in Table Ill.

b"' "Case leak."

The leakage of the altimeter case, when the pressure within it corresponds to an

altitude of 18.000 feet. shall not change the altimeter reading by more than the

tolerance shown in Table II during an interval of 1 minute.



(vi) "Barometric scale error.",

At constant atmospheric pressure, the barometric pressure scale shall be set at each

of the pressures (falling within its range of adjustment) that are listed in Table IV, and

shall cause the pointer to indicate the equivalent altitude difference shown in Table IV

with a tolerance of 25 feet.

(6) Altimeters which are the air data computer type with associated computing systems, or which

incorporate air data correction internally, may be tested in a manner and to specifications

developed by the manufacturer which are acceptable'to the Administrator.

Ill. lntegration Test

Automatic Pressure Altitude Reporting Equipment and ATC Transponder System lntegration Test.

The test must be conducted by an appropriately rated person under the conditions specified in

paragraph (a). Measure the automatic pressure altitude at the output of the installed ATC

transponder when interrogated on Mode C at a sufficiect number of test points to ensure thatthe

altitude reporting equipment, altimeters, and ATC transponders perform their intended functions as

installed in the aircraft. The difference between the automatic reporting output and the altitude

displayed at the altimeter shall not exceed 125 feet.

IV. Records:

Comply with the provisions of the fifth Schedule as to content, form, and disposition of the

records. The person performing the altimeter tests shall record on the altimeter the date and

maximum altitude to which the altimeter has been tested and the persons approving the airplane

for return to se&e shall enter that data in the airplane log or other permanent record.

TAEILE I TO APPENDIX 1 TO 5.105: ALTITUDE EL EQUIVALENT BAROMETRIC PRESSURE

Altitude

-1,000

0

500

1,000

1,500

2.000

3.000

4.000

6,000

8.000

Equivalent pressure (inches of Mercury) Tolerance *(feet)

31.018 20

29.921 20

29.385 20

28.856 20

28.335 25

27.821 30

26.817 30

25.842 35

23.978 40

22.225 60

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182 THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS. 2004

Test Tolerance (feet)

Case Leak Test f 100

Hysteresis Test

- First Test Point (50 percent of maximum altitude) 275

- Second Test Point (40 percent of maximum altitude) 275 After Effect Test - +30

Altitude (feet)

1,000

2.000

3.000

5.000

10,000

15,000

20,000

25,000

30,000

35,000

40,000

50,000

Tolerance (feet)

f70

+70 - +70 - +70 - +80 - +90 - +loo - +I20 - +I40 - +I60 - +I80 - +250 -

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Pressure (inches of Hg)

28.10

28.50

29.00

29.50

29.92

30.50

30.90

30.99

Altitude difference (feet)

-1,727

-1.340

-863

-392

0

+531

+893

+974

Appendix 2 to 5.105 Transponder Tests and Inspections

(a) No person may use an ATC Transponder that is specified in Subpart C. Paragraph 7.1 10 of the

Seventh Schedule unless, following any installation.or maintenance on an ATC transponder i

where data correspondence error could be introduced, the integrated system has been tested,

inspected. and found to comply with paragraph (c). of Appendix 2 to 5.105.

(b) The tests and inspections specified in this section must be conducted by

(1) an Approved Maintenance Organization properly equipped to perform those functions

and holding-

(i) a radio rating. Class Ill;

(ii) a limited radio rating appropriate to the Gake and model transponder to

be tested;

(iii) a limited rating appropriate to the test to be performed, or

(2) a holder of a continuous airworthiness maintenance program as provided in

Schedule 12, or

(3) the manufacturer of the aircraft on which the transponder to be tested is installed, if

the transponder was installed by that manufacturer.

Note: The ATC transponder tests may be conducted using a bench check or portable test

equipment and must meet the requirements prescribed in paragraphs (a) through 0) of this

appendix. If portable test equipment with appropriate coupling to the aircraft antenna system is

used, operate the test equipment for ATCRBS transponders at a nominal rate of 235

interrogations per second to avoid possible A TCRBS interference. Operate the test equipment at

a nominal rate of 50 Mode S interrogations per second for Mode S. An additional 3 dB loss is

allowed to compensate for antenna coupling errors during receiver sensitivity measurements

conducted in accordance with paragraph (c)(I) when using portable test equipment.

(c) Radio Reply Frequency -



(1) for all classes of ATCRBS transponders, interrogate the transponder and verify that

the reply frequency is 1090 f 3 Megahertz (MHz);

(2) for classes lB , 28. and 38 Mode S transponders. interrogate the transponder and

verify that the reply frequency is 1090 *3 MHz;

(3) for classes 1B,2B, and 38 Mode S transponders that incorporate the optional 1090

*1 MHz reply frequency, interrogate the transponder and verify that the reply

frequency is correct;

(4) for classes 1A. 2A. 3A, and 4 Mode S transponders, interrogate the transponder and

verify that the reply frequency is 1090 *1 MHz.

(d) Suppression -

When Classes 1 B and 28 ATCRBS Transponders, or Classes 1B,2B, and 38 Mode S

transponders are interrogated Mode 3lA at an interrogation rate between 230 and 1.000

interrogations per second; or when Classes 1A and 2A ATCRBS Transponders. or Classes 1B.

2A. 3A. and 4 Mode S transponders are interrogated at a rate between 230 and 1.200 Mode 3lA

interrogations per second -

(1) verify that the transponder does not respond to more than 1 percent of ATCRBS'

interrogations when the amplitude of P2 pulse is equal to the P1 pulse.

(2) verify that the transponder replies to at least 90 percent of ATCRBS interrogations

when the amplitude of the P2 pulse is 9 dB less than the P I pulse. If the test is

conducted with a radiated test signal, the interrogation rate shall be 235 *5

interrogations per second unless a higher rate has been approved for the test

equipment used at that location.

(e) Receiver Sensitivity - (1) verify that for any class of ATCRBS Transponder, the receiver minimum triggering

level (MTL) of the system is -73 *4 dbm. or that for any class of Mode S transponder

the receiver MTL for Mode S format (P6 type) interrogations is -74 *3 dbm by use of a

test set either - (i) connected to the antenna end of the transmission line;

(ii) connected to the antenna terminal of the transponder with a correction for

transmission line loss; or

(iii) utilized radiated signal

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(2) Verify that the difference in Mode 3lA and Mode C receiver sensitivity does not

exceed 1 db for either any class of ATCRBS transponder or any class of Mode S

transponder.

(f) Radio Frequency (RF) Peak Output Power - (1) Verify that the transponder RF output power is within specifications for the class of

transponder. Use the same conditions as described in (c)(l) (i), (ii), and (iii)above.

(1) for Class 1A and 2A ATCRBS transponders, verify that the minimum RF peak

output power Is at least 21.0 dbw (125 watts);

(ii) for Class 1B and 28 ATCRBS Transponders, verify that the minimum RF peak

output power is at least 18.5 dbw (70 watts);

(iii) for Class 1 A, 2A, 3A, and 4 and those Class lB, 28, and 38 Mode S

transponders that include the optional high RF peak output power, verify that

the minimum RF peak output power is at least 21.0 dbw (125 watts);

(iv) for Classes lB,2B, and 38 Mode S transponders, verify that the minimum RF

peak output power is at least 18.5 dbw(70 watts);

(v) for any class of ATCRBS or any class of Mode S transponders, verify that the

maximum RF peak output power does not exceed 27.0 dbw (500 watts).

Note: The tests in (8) through 0) apply only to Mode S transponders.

(g) Mode S Diversity Transmission Channel Isolatlon: For any class of Mode S transponder that

incorporates diversity operation, verify that the RF peak output power transmitted from the

selected antenna exceeds the power transmitted from the non-selected antenna by at least 20 db.

(h) Mode S Address: lnterrogate the Mode S transponder and verify that it replies only to its

assigned address. Use the correct address and at least two incorrect addresses. The

interrogations should be made at a nominal rate of 50 interrogations per second.

(i) Mode S Formats: lnterrogate the Mode S transponder with uplink formats (UF) for which it is

equlpped and verify that the replies are made in the correct format. Use the surveillance formats

UF = 4 and 5. Verify that the altitude reported in the replies to UF = 4 are the same as that

reported in a valid ATCRBS Mode C reply. Verify that the identity reported in the replies to UF = 5

are the same as that reported in a valid ATCRBS Mode 3lA reply. If the transponder is so

equipped, use the communication formats UF = 20, 21, and 24.

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u) Mode S AllCalI Interrogations: lnierrogate the Mode S transponder with the Mode S only all-call

format UF = I I. and the ATCRBSlMode S all-call formats (1.6 microsecond P4 pulse) and verify

that the correct address and capability are reported in the replies (downlink format DF = 11).

(i) ATCRBS Only AllCall Interrogatlon: Interrogate the Mode S transponder

with the ATCRBS only all-call interrogation (0.8 microsecond P4 pulse) and

verify that no reply is generated.

(ii) Squltter: Verify that the Mode S transponder generates a correct squitter

approximately once per second.

(iii) Records: Comply with the provisions of Schedule 5 as to content, form, and

disposition of the records.

Appendix 3 to 5.105: VOR Receiver Tests and Inspections

(a) Each VOR system of radio navigation used in IFR operations must be;-

(1) maintained, checked, and inspected under an approved procedure; or

(2) has been operationally checked within the preceding 30 days, and was found to be

within the limits of the permissible indicated bearing error set forth in paragraph (b) or

(c) of this section.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, each person conducting a VOR check under

paragraph (a)(2) of this section shall -

(1) use, at the airport of intended departure, an approved test signal or a test signal

radiated by a certificated and appropriately rated radio approved maintenance

organization or, outside Jamaica a test signal operated or approved by an appropriate

authority to check the VOR equipment (the maximum permissible indicated bearing

error is k4"); or

(2) use, at the airport of intended departure, a point on the airport surface designated as a

VOR system checkpoint by the Authority, or, outside Jamaica, by an appropriate

authority (the maximum permissible bearing error is i4");

(3) if nelther a test signal nor a designated checkpoint on the surface is available, use an

airborne checkpoint designated by the Authority or, outside Jamaica, by an appropriate

authority (the maximum permissible bearing error is i6"); or

(4) if no check signal or point is available, while in flight - (i) a VOR radial that lies along the centerline of an established VOR airway;

(ii) select a prominent ground point along the selected radial preferably more

than 20 nautical miles from the VOR ground facility and manoeuvre the

aircraft directly over the point at a r6asonably low altitude; and

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THE CIVIL AVIATION kEGULATIONS, 2004

(lii) note the VOR bearing indicated by the receiver when over the ground point

(the maximum permissible variation between the published radial and the

Indicated bearing is 6").

Where dual system VOR (units independent of each other except for the antenna) Is Installed in

the aircraft, the person checking the equipment mey check one system against the other in place

of the check procedures specified in paragraph (b) of this section. Both systems shall be tuned to

the same VOR ground facility and note the indicated bearings to that station. The maximum

permissible variation between the two lndicated bearings is 4".

Every person making the VOR operational check, as specified in (b) or (c) of this

section, shall enter the date, place, bearing error, and sign the aircraft log or other record. In

addition, if a test signal radiated by an approved maintenance organization, as specified In

paragraph (b)(l) of this section, is used, an entry must be made in the aircraft log or other recor,d

by the organization's representative ce t i i ng to the bearing transmitted by the approved

maintenance organization for the check and the date of transmission.

Appendix I to 5.165: Performance Rules - Annual and 100-hour Inspections

(e) Every person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall, before that inspection, thoroughly

dean the aircraft and aircraft engine and remove or open all necessary inspection plates, access

doors, fairings, and cowlings.

(f) Every person performing an annual or 100-hour inspection shall inspect, where applicable, the

following components -

(1) fuselage and hull group - fabric and skin - for deterioration, distortion, other evidence of failure, and

defective or insecure attachment of fittings;

systems and components - for improper installation, apparent defects, and

unsatisfactory operation;

the cabin and cockpit group;

generally - for uncleanness and loose equipment that might foul the

Controls;

seats and safety belts - for poor condition and apparent defects;

windows and windshields - for deterioration and breakage;

instruments -for poor condition, mounting, marking, and (where practicable)

for improper operation;

(viii) flight and engine controls - for improper installation and improper operation;

(ix) batteries - for improper installation and improper charge;

(x) all systems - for improper Installation, poor general condition, apparent and

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(xi) obvious defects, and insecurity of attachment.

(2) Englne and nacelle group -

(i) engine section - for visual evidence of excessive oil, fuel, or hydraulic leaks.

and sources of such leaks;

(ii) studs and nuts -for improper torquing and obvious defects;

(iii) internal engine - for cylinder compression and for metal particles or foreign

matter on screens and sump drain plugs. If there is weak cylinder

compression, for improper internal conditionand improper internal tolerances;

(Iv) engine mount - for cracks, looseness of mounting, and looseness of engine

to mount;

(v) flexible vibration dampeners - for poor condition and deterioration;

(vi) englne controls - for defects, improper travel, and improper safew

(vii) Ilnes, hoses, and clamps - for leaks, improper condition, and looseness;

(viil) exhaust stacks -for cracks, defects, and improper attachment.

(ix) accessories - for apparent defects in security of mounting;

(x) all systems - for improper installation, poor general condition, defects, and

insecure attachment;

(xi) cowling - for cracks and defects.

(3) Landing gear group -

all units -for poor condition and insecurity of attachment;

shock absorbing devices - for improper oleo fluid level;

linkage, trusses, and members - for undue or excessive wear.

fatlgue. distortion;

retracting and locking mechanism - for improper operation;

hydraulic lines - for leakage;

elecbical system - for chafing and Improper operation of switches;

wheels -for cracks, defects, and condition of bearings;

tires - for wear and cuts;

brakes - for improper adjustment;

floats and skis - for insecure attachment and obvious or apparent

defects.

(4) Wlng and wntre d o n assembly tor - (i) poor general condition;



(ii) fabric or skin deterioration;

(iii) distortion;

(iv) evidence of failure; and

(v) insecurity of attachment.

(5) Complete empennage assembly for - (i) poor general condition,;

(ii) fabric or skin deterioration.

(iii) distortion.

(iv) evidence of failure,

(v) insecure attachment,

(vi) improper component installation, and

(vii) improper component operation.

(6) Propeller group - (i) propeller assembly - for cracks, nicks, binds, and 011 leakagei

(ii) bolts - for improper torquing and lack of safety.

(iii) anti-icing devices - for improper operations and obvious defects; and

(iv) control mechanisms - for improper operation, insecure mounting, and

restricted travel.

(7) Avlonicsllnstrument group -

(i) avionicslinstruments equipment - for improper installation and insecure

mounting;

(ii) wiring and conduits -for improper routing, insecure mounting, and obvious

defects;

(iii) bonding and shielding - for improper installation and poor condition.

(iv) antenna including trailing antenna - for poor condition, insecure mounting,

and improper operation.

(8) ElectronlclelectrlcaI group - (i) wiring and conduits - for improper routing, insecure mounting, and obvious

defects.

(ii) bonding and shielding - for improper installation and poor condition.


(9) Each installed miscellaneous item that is not otherwise covered by this listing andlor '

has instructions for continued airworthiness - for Improper installation and improper

operation.

APPENDIX 1 TO 5.21 5: RECORDING OF MAJOR REPAIRS AND MAJOR MODIFICATIONS

(a) Each person performing a major repair or major modification shall - (1) execute the major repair and modification form prescribed by the Authority at least in

duplicate that references the approved data used;

(2) give a signed copy of that form to the aircraft ownerloperator; and

(3) forward a copy of that form to the Authority, in accordance with Authority instructions,

within 48 hours after the aeronautical product is approved for return to service.

(b) In place of the requirements of paragraph (a), major repairs made in accordance with a manual or

specifications acceptable to the Authority, an AM0 may - (1) use the customer's work order upon which the repair is recorded;

(2) ~ i v e the aircraft owner a signed copy of the work order and retain a duplicate copy

for at least one year from the date of approval for return to service of the

aeronautical product;

(3) give the aircraft owner a maintenance release signed by an authorised

representative of the AM0 and incorporating the following information -

(i) identity of the aeronautical product;

(ii) if an aircraft, the make, model, serial number, nationality and registration

marks, and location of the repaired area;

(iii) if an aeronautical product, give the manufacturer's name, name of the part,

model, and serial numbers (if any); and

(4) include the following or a similarly worded statement -

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The aeronautical product identified above was repaired, overhauled and inspected in accordance

~ i t h currently effective, applicable instructions of the State of Design and regulatory requirements

,f the Authority, and is approved for return to service.

Dertinent details of the repair are on file at this maintenance organization.

Order No. Date

Signed

'Signature of authorised representative)

(Facility Name) (AM0 Certificate Number)

(Address)

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SIXTH SCHEDULE (Regulations 33,72)

APPROVED MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATIONS

SUBPART A: GENERAL 6.001 Applicability 6.005 Definitions 6.010 Acronyms

SUBPART B: AM0 CERTIFICATE 6.016 Issue of Certification 6.020 Certificate and Operations Specifications 6.025 Advertising 6.030 Deviation Authority

SUBPART C: CERTIFICATION 6.035 Application for an AM0 Certificate 6.040 Issuance of an AM0 Certificate 6.045 Duration and Renewal of Certificate 6.050 Continued Validity of Approval 6.055 Changes to the AM0 and Certificate Amendments 6.060 Ratings of the AM0 6.065 AM0 Limited Ratings

SUBPART D: HOUSING, FACILITIES, EQUIPMENT 8 MATERIALS 6.070 General 6.075 Housing and Facility Requirements 8 6.080 Equipment, Tools and Material

SUBPART E: ADMINISTRATION 6.085 Personnel and Training Requirements 6.090 Record of Certifying Staff

SUBPART F: AM0 OPERATING RULES 6.095 Maintenance Organization Procedures Manual 6.100 Maintenance Procedures and Independent Quality Assurance System 6.105 Capability List 6.1 10 Privileges of the Approved Malntenance Organization 6.1 15 Limitations on the AM0 6.120 Certificate of Release to Service/Maintenance Release 6.1 25 Maintenance Records 6.130 Airworthiness Data 6.135 Reporting of Un-airworthy Conditions 6.140 lnsbections By Authority 6.145 Performance Standards

APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 6.060: Expanded Requirements of AM0 Ratings h ~ e n d i x 1 to 6.075: Housina and Facilitv Reauirements GPendix 1 to 6.080: ~ ~ u i ~ i e n t , Tools, and ater rial h ~ e n d i x 1 to 6.085: Personnel Reauirements GPendix 1 to 6.090: Records of certifying Staff Appendix 1 to 6.095: Contents of a Maintenance Organization Procedures Manual Appendix 1 to 6.120: Certificate of Release to Service (CRS) Appendix 1 to 6.130: Airworthiness Data



SUBPART A: GENERAL

6.001 APPLtcAelLln

This Schedule prescribes the requirements for issuing approvals to organizations for the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and modifications of aircraft and aeronautical products and prescribes the general operating rules for an Approved Maintenance Organization (AMO). The approval, when granted, shall apply to the whole organization, which shall be headed by an accountable manager.

6.005 DEFINITION

(a) For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply - "accountable manager (malntenance)". The manager who has corporate authority for ensuring that all maintenance, preventive maintenance, and modification required by the aircraft ownerloperator can be financed and carried out to the standard required by the Authority. The accountable manager may delegate to another person in the organization, in writing. to become the accountable manager, when so authorised by the Authority; "approved data". Technical information approved by the Authority; "Article". Any item, including but not limited to, an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, accessory, assembly, subassembly, system. subsystem, component, unit, product, or part; "calibration". A set of operations, performed in accordance with a definite documented procedure, that compares the measurement performed by a measurement device or working standard for the purpose of detecting and reporting or eliminating by adjustment errors in the measurement device, working standard, or aeronautical product tested; s'composite". Structural materials made of substances, including, but not limited to, wood, metal, ceramic, plastic, fiber-reinforced materials, graphite, boron. or epoxy, with built-in strengthening agents that may be in the form of filaments, foils, powders, or flakes, of a different material; "computer system". Any electronic or automated system capable of receiving, storing. and processing external data, and transmitting and presenting such data in a usable form for the accomplishment of a specific function; "faclllty". A physical plant, in'cluding land, buildings, and equipment, which provide the means for the performance of maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of anv article; "housing". Buildings, hangars, and other structures to accommodate the necessary equipment and materials of a maintenance organization that - (i) provide working space for the performance of maintenance, preventive maintenance

or modifications for which the maintenance organization is certificated and rated; and (ii) provide structures for the proper protection of aircraft, airframes, aircraft engines.

propellers, appliances, components, parts, and subassemblies thereof during dlsassembly, cleaning, inspection, repair, modification, assembly and testing; and

(iii) provide for the proper storage, segregation, and protection of materials, parts, and supplies;

"measurement device". A calibrated instrument, tool, standard, or item of test equipment that is intended to be used to test, measure, or calibrate other measurement devices. It is not to be used to test, measure. or calibrate an aeronautical product;

(10) "prlmary standard". A standard defined and maintained by a State Authority and used to calibrate secondary standards;

(1 1) "reference standard". A standard that is used to maintain working standards; (12) "secondary standards". A standard maintained by comparison with a primary standard; (13) "signature". An individual's unique identification used as a means of authenticating a

maintenance record entry or maintenance record. A signature may.be hand-written, electronic, or any other form acceptable to the Authority;

(The lncluslon of this page i s authorized by L.N. 18d20081


(14) "specialised maintenance". Any maintenance performed on an aircraft or its components, authority for the performance of which is not granted under the privileges of an AME Licence (e.g.. tire re-treading, plating. welding, engine overhaul involving the splitting of a crankcase or the separation of modules, etc.);

(1 5) "operatlons speclficatlons". Also identified as 'Ops Specs", the Operations Soecifications describe the ratinas Class andlor Limited) in detail and will contain or reference material and process ip&ifications used in pe;forming repair work, along with anv limitations aoolied to the maintenance oraanization. This document is issued to the operator or the ;<MO by the Authority;

- (16) "standard". An object, artifact, tool, test equipment, system, or experiment that stores,

embodies, or otherwise provides a physical quantity, which serves as the basis for measurement of the quantity. It also includes a document describing the operations and process that must be performed in order for a particular end to be achieved;

(17) "tools, equipment and test equipment". Used by an AM0 for the performance of maintenance or calibration on an aircraft or aeronautical product. See also working standard;

(18) "traceabillty". A characteristic of a calibration, analogous to a pedigree. A traceable calibration is achieved when each Measurement ~ e v i c e and working Standard, in a hierarchy stretching back to the National Standard, was itself properly calibrated, and the results properly documented. The documentation provides the information needed to show that all calibrations in the chain of calibrations were properly performed;

(19) "transfer standard". Any standard that is used to compare a measurement process. system, or device at one location or level with another measurement process, system or device at another location or level;

(20) "working standard". A calibrated standard that is used in the performance of maintenance andlor calibrations in any work area for the purpose of forming the basis for product acceptance or for making a finding of airworthiness (approval for retum to service) to an aircraft or aeronautical product. A working standard may be maintained by comparison with primary standards, secondary standards, reference standards or transfer standards, as appropriate. A working standard is not to be used to test, measure, or calibrate other working standards or measurement devices.

The following acronyms are used in this, Schedule - (1 ) AM0 - Approved Maintenance Organization; (2) PMA - Parts Manufacturing Authorization; and (3) TSO - Technical Standard Order.

SUBPART B: AM0 CERTIFICATE

The issue of a maintenance organization certificate shall be dependent on the organization completing initial certification and demonstrating conformance to the requirements of this Schedule to the Authority,

6.020 CERTIFICATE AND OPERATIONS SPECIFICATIONS

(a) The AM0 certificate will consist of two documents -

(1) a one page certificatesigned by the Authority; and '(2) a multi-page Operations Specifications, issued by the Authority, containing the terms,

conditions, and authorizations.

. (b) No person may operate as an AM0 without, or in violation of, a maintenance organization certificate issued under this Schedule.

[The inclusion of this page is authorlzed by L.N. 18*12008\


(c) An AM0 may perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications on an aircraft. airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part thereof only for which it is rated and within the limitations placed in its specific operations specifications.

(d) The AM0 certificate will contain - (1) the certificate number specifically assigned to the AMO; (2) the name and location (main place of business) of the AMO; (3) the date of issue and period of validity; (4) the ratings issued to the AMO; and (5) the approving signature and stamp of the Authority.

(e) The AM0 Operations Specifications will contain- (1) the certificate number specifically assigned to the AMO; (2) the class or limited ratings issued in detail, including special approvals and limitations

Issued; (3) the date issued or revised; and (4) the approving signature and stamp of the Authority.

(f) The certificate issued to each AM0 must be available in the premises, prominently displayed, for inspection by the public and the Authority.

6.025 ADVERTISING

(a) No maintenance organization may advertise as an AM0 until a maintenance organization certificate has been issued to that facility.

(b) No AM0 may make any statement, either in writing or orally, about itself that is false or is deslgned to mislead any person.

(c) Whenever the advertising of a maintenance organization indicates that it is certificated, the advertisement must clearly state the maintenance organization's certificate number.

6.030 DEVIATION AUTHORITY

(a) The Authority may; upon consideration of the circumstances of a particular maintenance organization, issue a deviation providing relief from specified sections of these Standards, prodded that the Authority finds that the circumstances presented warrant the deviation and that a level of safety will be maintained equal to that provided by the rule from which the deviation is sought. This deviation authority will be issued as a Letter of Deviation Authority.

(b) A Letter of Deviation Authority may be terminated or amended at any time by the Authority.

(c) A request for deviation authority must be made in a form and manner acceptable to the Authority and submitted to the Authority at least 60 days before the date the deviation from specified sections in this part is necessary for the intended maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modification. A request for deviation authority must contain complete statement of the circumstances and justifications for the deviation requested, and show that a level of safety will be maintained equal to that provided by the rule from which the deviation is sought.

(d) Each AM0 that receives a Letter of Deviation Authority must have a means of notifying the appropriate management, certifying staff, and personnel of the deviation, including the extent of the deviation and when the deviation is terminated or amended.

SUBPART C: CERTIFICATION

(a) The Authority will require an applicant for an AM0 certificate to submit the following - (1) an application in a form and manner prescribed by the Authority; (2) its maintenance procedures manual in duplicate;

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(3) a list of the maintenance functions to be performed for it, under contract, by another AMO; (4) a list of all AM0 certificates and ratings pertinent to those certificates issued by any

contracting State other than Jamaica; and (5) any additional information the Authority requires the applicant to submit.

(b) An application for the amendment of an existing AM0 certificate shall be made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Authority. If applicable, the AM0 shall submit the required amendment to the maintenance procedure manual to the Authority for approval.

An applicant may be issued an AM0 certificate if, after investigation, the Authority finds that the applicant -

(1) meets the applicable regulations and standards for the holder of an AMO; and (2) is properly and adequately equipped for the performance of maintenance of aircraft or

aeronautical product for which it seeks approval.

6.045 DURATION AND RENEWAL OF CERTIFICATE

(a) A certificate or rating issued by the Authority to a maintenance organization is effective from the date of issue until - (1) the last day of the 121h month after the date on which it was issued; (2) the maintenance organization surrenders the certificate; or (3) the Authority suspends or revokes the certificate.

(b) The holder of a certificate that expires or is surrendered, suspended, or revoked by the Authority must return the certificate and Operations Specifications to the Authority.

(c) An AM0 that applies for a renewal of its maintenance organization certificate for aircraft registered in Jamaica must submit its request for renewal no later than 60 days before the maintenance organization's current certificate expires. If a request for renewal is not made within this period, the maintenance organization must follow the application procedure prescribed by the Authority.

6.050 Continued Validity of Approval

(a) Unless the approval has previously been surrendered, superseded, suspended, revoked or expired by virtue of exceeding any expiration date that may be specified in the approval certificate, the continued validity of approval is dependent upon - (1) the AM0 remaining in compliance with this Schedule; (2) the Authority being granted access to the organization's facilities to determine continued

compliance with this regulation; and (3) the payment of any charges prescribed by the Authority.

(b) The holder of an AM0 certificate that expires or is surrendered, suspended, or revoked, shall return it to h e Authority.

6.055 CHANGES TO THE AND CERTIFICATE AMENDMENTS

(a) To enable the Authority to determine continued compliance with this Schedule, the AM0 shall provide mitten notification to the Authority either prior to, or within a time period determined by the Authority to be as soon as practicable after, any of the following changes - (I) the name of the organization; (2) the location of the organization; (3) the housing, facilities, equipment, tools, material, procedures, work scope and certifying

staff that could affect the AM0 rating or ratings; (4) the ratings held by the AMO, whether granted by the Authority or held through an AM0

certification Issued by another contracting State; (5) . additional locations of the organization; (6) the accountable manager; or

[The lncluslon of this page is authorlzed by L.N. 18~fZ008j


(7) the list of management personnel identified as described in the maintenance procedure manual.

The Authority will amend the AM0 certificate if the AM0 notifies the Authority of a change in - (1) location or housing and facilities; (2) additional locations of the organization; (3) rating, including deletions; (4) name of the organization with same ownership; or (5) ownership.

The Authority may amend the AM0 certificate if the AM0 notifies the Authority of a change in - (1) the accountable manager; or (2) the list of management personnel identified.as described in the maintenance procedure

manual.

When the Authority issues an amendment to an AM0 certificate because of new ownership of the AMO, the Authority will assign a new certificate number to the amended AM0 certificate.

The Authority may - (1) prescribe, in writing. the conditions under which the AM0 may continue to operate during

any period of implementation of the changes noted in paragraph (a); and (2) hold the AM0 certificate in abeyance if the Authority determines that approval of the AM0

certificate should be delayed; the Authority will notify the AM0 certificate holder, in writing, of the reasons for any such delay.

If changes are made by the AM0 to the items listed in paragraph (a) without notification to the Authority, the AM0 certificate may be suspended by the Authority until such time as the changes are reviewed and approved if found to be in compliance.

6.060 RATINGS OF THE AM0

(a) The following ratings are issued under this Subpart - Airframe ratings. An aircraft rating on a maintenance organization certificate permits that maintenance organization to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or

modifications on an aircraft, including work on the power plant of that aircraft up to, but not including, overhaul as that term is defined in the Continuing Airworthiness Standards. under the following classes -

Class 1 - aircraft (other than rotorcraft and aircraft composed primarily of composite material) of 5,700 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight or less. Class 2 - aircraft (other than rotorcraft and aircraft composed primarily of composite material) over 5.700 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight and up to, and including, 34,200 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight. Class 3 - aircraft (other than rotorcraft and aircraft composed primarily of. composite material) over 34,200 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight. Class 4 - rotorcraft (other than rotorcraft composed primarily of composite material) of 2,736 kg maximum ceqificated takeoff weight or less. Class 5 - rotorcraft (other than rotorcraft composed primarily of composite material) over 2.736 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight. Class 6 - aircraft composed primarily of composite material. of 5.700 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight or less. Class 7 - aircraft composed primarily of composite material, over 5,700 kg maximum certificated takeoff weight.

Power plant ratings. A power plant rating on a maintenance organization certificate permits that maintenance organization to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance. or modifications of power plant under the following classes - (i) Class 1 - reciprocating engines.

(ii) Class 2 - turbo-propeller and turbo-shaft engines.



(iii) Class 3 - turbojet and turbofan engines.

(3) Propeller ratings. A propeller rating on a maintenance organization certificate permits that maintenance organization to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of propellers under the following classes - (i) Class 1 - fixed-pitch and ground-adjustable propellers. (ii) Class 2 - variable-pitch propellers.

(4) Avionics ratings. An avionics rating on a maintenance organization certificate permits that maintenance organization to maintenance, prev6ntive maintenance, or modifications of avionics equipment under the following ratings - (i) Class 1 - Communication equipment: Any radio transmitting equipment or receiving

equipment, or both, used in aircrafl to send or receive communications, regardless of carrier frequency or type of modulation used; including auxiliary and related aircraft interphone systems, amplifier systems, electrical or electronic intercrew signalling devices, and similar equipment; but not including equipment used for navigation of the aircraft or as an aid to navigation, equipment for measuring altiide or terrain clearance, other measuring equipment operated on radio or radar principles, or mechanical, electrical, gyoscopic, or electronic instrurnents that are a part of communications avionics equipment.

(ii) Class 2 - Navigational equipment: Any avionics system used in aircrafl for en-route or approach navigation, except equipment operated on radar or pulsed radio frequency principles, but not including equipment for measuring altitude or terrain clearance or other distance equipment operated on pulsed radh frequency principles.

(iii) Class 3 - Pulsed equipment: Any aircraft electronic system operated on pulsed radio frequency principles.

(5) Computer systems ratings. A computer systems rating on a maintenance organization certificate permits that maintenance organization to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of digital computer systems and components thereof, that have the function of receiving external data, processing such data, and transmitting and presenting the processed data under the following classes - (i) Class 1 - alrcraft computer systems. (ii) Class 2 - power plant computer systems. (iii) Class 3 - avionics computer systems.

(6) Instrument ratings: An Instrument rating on a maintenance organization certificate permits that maintenance organization to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of instrurnents under the following classes - (i) Class 1 - Mechanical: Any diaphragm, bourdon tube, aneroid, optical, or

mechanically driven centrifugal instrument that is used on aircrafl or to operate aircrafl, including tachometers, airspeed indicators, pressure gauges. drift sights, magnetic compasses, altimeters or similar mechanical instruments.

(ii) Class 2 - Electrical: Any self-synchronous and electrical indicating Instruments and systems, including remote indicating instruments, cylinder head temperature gauges & similar electrical instruments. -

(iil) Class 3 - Gyroscopic: Any instrument or system using gyroscopic principles and motivated by air pressure or electrical energy, Including automatic pllot control units. turn and bank indicators, directional gyros, and their parts, and flux gate and ~yrosyn compasses.

(iv) Class 4 - Electronic: Any instrurnents whose operation depends on electron tubes. transistors, or similar devices including capacitance type quantity gauges, system . . . - -

amplifiers and engine analysers.

(7) Accessory ratings: An accessory rating on a maintenance organization certiR~tite pennits that maintenance organization to ~erform maintenance. ~reventive maintenance, or modiications of ac&ssory equipment under the following classes -

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(i) Class 1 - Mechanical. The ac;cessories that depend on friction, hydraulics, mechanical linkage or ~neumatic Dressure for o~eration. - .

(ii) Class 2 - Electrical. The accessoies that depend on electrical energy. (iii) Class 3 - Electronic. The accessories that depend on the use of an electron tube

transistors. lasers. fiber optics, solid-state, integrated circuits, vacuum tubes or similar electronic controls.

(iv) Class 4 - Auxiliary power units (APU's) that may be installed on aircraft as self- contained units to supplement the aircraft's engines as a source of hydraulic, pneumatic or electrical power.

6.065 AM0 LIMITED RATINGS

(a) Whenever the Authority finds it appropriate, it may issue a limited rating to an AM0 that maintains or alters only a particular type of airframe, power plant, propeller, radio, instrument, or accessory, or parts thereof, or performs only specialised maintenance requiring equipment and skills not ordinarily found in an AMO. Such a rating may be limited to a specific model aircraft, engine, or constituent part, or to any number of parts made by a particular manufacturer.

(b) Limited ratings are issued for - aircraft; airframe; power plank.; propellers; avionics equipment; computer systems; instruments; accessories; and any other purpose for which the Authority finds the applicant's request appropriate.

(c) Specialised Maintenance ratings. A specialised maintenance rating may be issued to a maintenance organization to perform specific maintenance or processes. The Operations Specifications of the maintenance organization must identify the specification used in performing that specialised service. The specification may be - (1) a civil or military specification that is currently used by industry and approved by the

Authority; or (2) a specification developed by the maintenance organization and approved by the Authority.

SUBPART D: HOUSING, FACILITIES, EQUIPMENT 8 MATERIALS

An AM0 must provide personnel, facilities, equipment. and materials in quantity and quality that meet the standards required for the issuance of the certificate and ratings that the maintenance organization holds.

6.075 HOUSING AND FACILITY REQUIREMENTS

(a) Housing and facilities shall be provided appropriate for all planned work ensuring, in particular. protection from weather. An AM0 providing maintenance services for aircraft shall therefore provide a hangar that can enclose the largest aircraft type for which it provides a service.

(b) All work environments shall be appropriate for the task carried out and shall not impair the effectiveness of personnel.

(c) Office accommodation shall be appropriate for the management of planned work including, in particular, the management of quality, planning, and technical records.

(d) Specialised workshops and bays shall be segregated, as appropriate, to insure that environmental and work area contamination is unlikely to occur.

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(e) Storage facilities shall be provided for parts, equipment, tools and material.

(f) Storage conditions shall be provided that shall ensure the security of serviceable parts, total segregation of serviceable parts from unserviceable parts, and the segregation of aircraft parts from commercial goods. The area shall be enclosed and environmentally controlled in order to prevent any deterioration of, or damage to, stored items.

(See Appendix 1 to 6.075 for detailed requirements pertaining fo housing and facilities.)

The AM0 shall have available the necessary equipment, tools, and material to perform the '

approved scope of work and these items shall be under full control of the AMO. The availability of equipment and tools means permanent availability except in the case of any tool or equipment that is so rarely needed that its permanent availability is not necessary.

The Authority may exempt an AM0 from possessing specific tools and equipment for maintenance or repair of an aircraft or aeronautical product specified in the organization's approval, if these items can be acquired temporarily, by prior arrangement, and be under full control of the AM0 when needed to perform required maintenance or repairs.

(NOTE: The Authority may elecf not to amend the approval to delefe fhe aircraft or aeronautical producf on the basis that it is a femporary situation and fhere is a formal agreement from the AM0 to re-acquire tools, equipment, etc. before performing any maintenance or repair.)

The AM0 shall control all applicable tools, equipment, and test equipment used for product acceptance andlor for making a finding of airworthiness.

The AM0 shall ensure that all applicable tools, equipment, and test equipment used for product acceptance andlor for making a finding of airworthiness are calibrated to ensure correct calibration to a standard acceptable to the Authority and traceable to the State National Standards.

The AM0 shall keep all records of calibrations and the standards used for calibration.

(See Appendix 1 to 6.080 for dafailed requirements pertaining to tools, equipment, and test equipment.)

SUBPART E: ADMINISTRATION

6.085 PERSONNEL AND TRAINING REQUIREMENTS

A management person or group of persons acceptable to the Authority, whose responsibilities include ensuring that the AM0 is in compliance with these regulations, shall be nominated.

The person or persons nominated as manager shall represent the maintenance management structure of the AMO, and be responsible for all functions specified in these Standards.

Nominated managers shall be directly responsible to an accountable manager who shall be acceptable to the Authority.

The AM0 shall employ sufficient personnel to plan, perform, supervise and inspect and release the work in accordance with the approval.

The competence of personnel involved in maintenance shall be established in accordance with a procedure and to a standard acceptable to the Authority.

The person signing a Certificate of Release to Service or a Maintenance Release shall be qualified in accordance with Schedules 5 and 8 as appropriate to the work performed and shall be acceptable to the Authority.

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THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004 20 1

(g) The maintenance personnel and the certifying staff shall meet the qualification requirements and receive initial and continuation trainina to their assianed tasks and responsibilities in accordance with a program acceptable to the ~uthority. The training program established by the AM0 shall include training in knowledge and skills related to human performance, including co-ordination with other maintenance personnel and flight crew.

(See Appendix I to 6.085 for detailed personnel requirements.)

6.090 RECORD OF CERTIFYING STAFF

(a) The AM0 shall maintain a roster, as per Appendix 1, of all certifying staff, which includes details of the scope of their authorization.

(b) Certifying staff shall be notified in writing of the scope of their authorization.

6.093 Rest 8 Duty Time Limitations for Certlfylng Staff

Rest and duty time limitations for the certifying staff of an AM0 shall be as specified for all certifying personnel in the Fifth Schedule, Subpart G, Subsection 5.250.

SUBPART F: AM0 OPERATING RULES

6.095 MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATION PROCEDURES MANUAL

(Note: The purpose of the Maintenance Organization Procedures Manual is to set forth the procedures, the means, and methods of the AMO. When approved, compliance with its contents will assure compliance with the requirements of Part V, Regulation 33, which is a prerequisite to obtaining and retaining an AM0 certificate.)

(a) The maintenance organization shall provide for the use and guidance of maintenance personnel concerned a procedures manual containing the contents specified by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 6.095 for the required contents of a Maintenance Organizations Procedures Manual.)

(b) The maintenance organization shall ensure that the procedures manual is amended as necessary to keep the information contained therein up-to-date.

(c) The AM0 Maintenance Procedure Manual and any subsequent amendments thereto shall be approved by the Authority prior to use.

(d) This manual and all amendments shall be furnished promptly to all organizations or persons accomplishing any activity for which the manual applies.

(e) The AM0 Maintenance Procedures Manual shall specify the scope of work required of the AM0 in order to satisfy the relevant requirements needed for an approval of an aircraft or aeronautical product for return to service.

(f) The procedures manual and any other manual it identifies must - (1) include insbuctions and information necessary to allow the p,ersonnel concerned to

perform their duties and responsibilities with a high degree of safety, (2) be in a form that is easy to revise and contains a system which allom personnel to

determine current revision status; (3) have the date of the last revision printed on each page containing the revision; (4) not be contrary to any applicable Civil Aviation Regulations or Operations Specifications;

and (5) include a reference to the appropriate Civil Aviation Regulations.

(See Appendix 1 to 6.095 for the required contents of the maintenance organization procedums manual)



(a) The AM0 shall establish procedures acceptable to the Authority to insure good maintenance practices and compliance with all relevant requirements in these regulations such that aircraft and aeronautical products may be properly released to service.

(b) The AM0 shall establish an independent quality assurance system, acceptable to the Authority, to monitor compliance with and adequacy of the procedures and by providing a system of inspection to ensure that all maintenance is properly performed.

(Note: The quality assurance system may be an independent system under the control of the quality manager that evaluates the maintenance procedures and the correctness of the Equivalent Safety Case process.)

(c) The quality assurance system shall include a procedure to initially qualify and periodically perform audits on persons performing work on behalf of the AMO.

(d) Compliance monitoring shall include a feedback system to the designated management person or group of persons directly responsible for the quality system and ultimately to the accountable manager to ensure, as necessary. corrective action.

(e) The maintenance procedures shall cover all aspects of maintenance activity and describe standards to which the AM0 intends to work. The aircraftlaircraft component design AM0 standards and aircraft operator standards must be taken into account.

(f) The maintenance procedures should address the provisions and limitations of this Schedule.

(g) The quality system shall be sufficient to review, at least once a year for each aircraft type maintained, and in accordance with an approved program, all maintenance procedures as described in the Maintenance Procedures Manual.

(h) The quality system shall indicate when audits are due, when completed, and establish a system of audit reports, which can be reviewed by JCAA Inspectors on request. The audit system shall clearly establish a means by which audit reports containing observations about non-compliance or poor standards are communicated to the accountable manager.

(See Appendix 1 to 6.100 for detailed requirements perlaining to the quality system, including a sample of inspection items.)

(a) Each AM0 shall prepare and retain a current capability list approved by the Authority. The maintenance organization may not perform maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications on an article until the article has been listed on the capability list in accordance with this Schedule.

(b) The capability list shall identify each article by make and model, part number, or other 'nomenclature designated by the article's manufacturer.

(c) An article may be listed on the capability list only if the article is within the scope of the ratings and classes of the maintenance organization's certificate, and only after the maintenance organization has performed a self-evaluation in accordance with this Schedule. The maintenance organization must perform the self-evaluation described in this paragraph to determine that the maintenance organization has all of the facilities, equipment, material. technical data, processes, housing, and trained personnel in place to perform the work on the article as required by this Schedule. If the maintenance organization makes that determination may list the article on the capability list.

(d) The document of the evaluation described in paragraph (c) of this section shall be signed by 11 accountable manager and must be retained on file by the maintenance organizatbn.

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(e) Upon listing an additional article on its capability list, the maintenance organization shall send a copy of the list to the Authority having jurisdiction over the maintenance organization.

(f) The capability list(s) shall be made available in the premises for inspection by the public and the - Authority.

(g) The self-evaluations shall be made available in the premises for inspection by the Authority. . ,,

(h) The AM0 shall retain the capability list(s) and self-evaluation(s) for two years from the date accepted by the accountable manager.

6.110 PRIVILEGES OF THE APPROVED MAINTENANCE ORGANIZATION

(a) The AM0 shall carry out the following tasks as permitted by and in accordance with the AM0 maintenance procedures manual - (1) maintain any aircraft or aeronautical product for which it is rated at the location identified in

the approval certificate; (2) maintain any aircraft for which it is rated at any location subject to the need for such

maintenance arising from unsewiceability of the aircraft; (3) describe the activities in support of a specific AOC holder where that AOC has requested

the services of the AM0 at locations other than the location identified on the AM0 certificate and the AM0 has been rated to maintain the aircraft of that specific AOC holder at the requested location in the AM0 operating provisions approved by the Authority; and

(4) issue a Certificate of Release to service, or a Maintenance Release in respect of ,

subparagraphs (a) (I), (2), and (3) of this Subsection upon completion of maintenance in accordance with limitations applicable to the AMO.

(b) An AM0 may not contract out the maintenance, preventative maintenance, modification or alteration of a complete type-certificated product, and it may not provide only approval for return 'to service of a product following contract maintenance.

(c) The AM0 may maintain or alter any article for which it is rated at a place other than the AMO, if - (1) the function would be performed in the same manner as when performed at the AM0 and

in accordance with this Subpart; (2) all necessary personnel, equipment, material, and technical andlor approved standards are

available at the place where the work is to be done; and (3) the maintenance procedure manual of the station sets forth approved procedures

governing work to be performed at a place other than the AMO.

6.1 15 LlMlTATIONS ON THE A M 0

The AM0 shall maintain an aircraft or aeronautical product for which it is approved only when all necessary housing, facilities, equipment, tools, material, approved technical data and certifying staff are available.

6.120 CERTIFICATE OF RELEASE TO SERVIC~MAINENANCE RELEASE

(a) A Certificate of Release to Service (CRS) shall be issued by appropriately licensed and authorised certifying staff when satisfied that all required maintenance of the aircraft has been properly carried out by the AM0 in accordance with the maintenance procedures manual. Where work is carried out on a component not installed on an aircraft, a Maintenance Release will be issued certifying that the work has been done in accordance with the appropriate maintenance manual or other authorised document. When the component is installed on the aircraft, then a Certificate of Release to Service shall be issued, certifying that the component has been properly installed and inspected, and the applicable system has been function checked.

(b) A Certificate of Release to Service shall contain - (1) basic details of the maintenance carried out; (2) the date such maintenance was completed;

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(3) the identity, including the authorization reference, of the AMO; and (4) the slgnature and identity of the person or persons signing the release.

(See Appendix 1 to 6.120 for detailed requirements concerning a Maintenance Release, along with e sample form.)

8.125 MAINTENANCE RECORDS

The AM0 shall record, in a form acceptable to the Authority, all details for maintenance work performed.

The AM0 shall provide a copy of each return to service to the aircraft operator, together with a copy of any specific airworthiness data used for repairslmodifications performed.

The AM0 shall retain a copy of all detailed maintenance records and any associated airworthiness data for two years from the date the aircraft or aeronautical product to which the work relates was released from the AMO.

(Note: Where an AOC holder contracts an AM0 to keep the aircraft operator's certificates of return to service end any essociated airworthiness data, the retention period will befhat required by Schedule 5.)

Each person who maintains, performs preventive maintenance, rebuilds, or modifies an aircraftlaeronautical product shall make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment as follows - (1) a description and reference to data acceptable to the Authority of work performed; (2) the date of completion of the work performed; (3) the name of the person performing the work if other than'the person specified in this

Subsection; (4) if the work performed on the aircraftlaeronautical product has been performed

satisfactorily, the signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work;

(5) the authorised signature, the AM0 certificate number. and kind of certificate held by the person approving or disapproving for retum to service the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine. propeller, appliance, component pan, or portions thereof;

(6) the signature constitutes the approval for retum to service only for the work performed. (7) in addition to the entry required by this paragraph, major repairs and major modifications

shall be entered on a form in the manner prescribed by the Authority.

No person shall describe in any required maintenance entry or form an aircraft or aeronautical component as being overhauled unless - (1) using methods, techniques, and practices acceptable to the Authority, it has been

disassembled, cleaned, inspected as permitted, repaired as necessary, and reassembled; and

(2) it has been tested in accordance with approved standards and technical data, or in accordance with current standards and technical data acceptable to the Authority, which have been developed and documented by the holder of the type certificate, supplemental type certificate, or a material, part, process, or appliance approval under a TSO.

(Note: For definitions of overhaul see the Fifth Schedule.)

No person may describe in any required maintenance entry or form, an aircraft or other aeronautical product as being rebuilt unless it has been - (1) disassembled, cleaned, inspected as required; (2) repaired as necessary; and (3) reassembled and tested to the same tolerances and limits as a new item, using either new

parts or used parts that either conforms to new part tolerances and limits, or to approve oversized or undersized dimensions.

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THE CIVIL A YIA TION REGULATIONS, 2004

(Note: For definitions of rebuild see the FiRh Schedule.)

(g) No person may approve for retum to service any aircrafl or aeronautical product that has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or modification unless - (1) the appropriate maintenance record entry has been made; (2) the repair or modification form authorised by or furnished by the Authorlty has been

executed in a manner prescribed by the Authority.

(h) If a repair or modification results in any change in the aircrafl operating limitations or flight data contained in the approved aircrafl fliaht manual. those operating limitations or fliaht data shall be appropriately revised and set forth a< prescribed by the Author&.

(i) Maintenance record entriesfor inspections. The person approving or disapproving for return to service an aircraftlaeronautical product, after any inspection performed in-accordance with this regulation. shall make an entry in the maintenan& record ofthat equipment containing the following information -

the type of inspection and a brief description of the extent of the inspection; the date of the inspection andaircrafl total time in service; and the authorised signature, the AM0 certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving or disapproving for retum to service the aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component part, or portions thereof; if the aircrafl is found to be airworthy and is to be approved for retum to service, the following or a similarly worded statement - "I hereby certify that the work detailed above has been carried out in accordance with the current Civil Aviation Regulations, and in that in respect to that work, the aircrafl is considered serviceable"; if the aircrafl is not approved for return to service because of needed maintenance, non- compliance with the applicable specifications, airworthiness directives, or other approved data, the following or a similarly worded statement4 certify that this aircraft has been inspected in accordance with (insert type) inspectionand a list of discrepancies and unairworthy items dated (date) has been provided for the aircraft owner or operator; and if an inspection is conducted under an inspection program provided for in this regulation, the entry shall identify the inspection program accomplished, and contains a statement that the inspection was performed in accordance with the inspections and procedures for that particular program.

(j) Listing of discrepancies. If the person performing any inspection required by this regulation finds that the aircraft is not airworthy or does not meet the applicable type certificate data sheet, airworthiness direct~ves, or other approved data upon which its airworthiness depends, that person shall give the owner or lessee a signed and dated list of those discrepancies.

6.130 AIRWORTHINESS DATA The AM0 shall be in receipt of all airworthiness data appropriate to support the work performed from the Authority, the aircraftlaeronautical product design organization, and any other approved design organization in the State of Manufacture or State of Design, as appropriate.

(Note: The Authority may classify data from another authority or organization as mandatory and may require the AM0 to hold such data.)

Where the AM0 modifies airworthiness data specified in paragraph (a) to a format or presentation more useful for its maintenance activities, the AMO shill submit to the Authority an amendment to the maintenance procedure manual for any such proposed modifications for acceptance.

All airworthiness data used by the AM0 shall be kept current and made available to all personnel whorequire access to that data to perform their duties.

(See Appendix 1 to 6.130 for detailed requirements concerning aimorthiness data.)

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6.135 REPORTING OF UN-AIRWORTHY CONDITIONS

The AM0 shall report to the Authority and the aircraft design organization of the State of Design any identified condition that could present a serious hazard to the aircraft.

Reports shall be made on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Authority and contain all pertinent information about the condition known to the AMO.

Where the AM0 is contracted by an AOC holder to carry out maintenance, that AM0 shall report to the AOC holder any condition affecting the aircraft or aeronautical product.

Reports shall be made as soon as practicable, but in any case within three days of the AM0 identifying the condition to which the report relates.

Each AM0 must allow the Authority to inspect that maintenance organization and any of its contract maintenance facihties at any time to determine compliance with this Schedule. Arrangements for maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications by a contractor must include provisions for inspections of the contractor by the Authority.

6.145 PERFORMANCE STANDARDS

(a) Each AM0 that performs any maintenance, preventive maintenance, modifications for an air operator certificated under the Twelfth Schedule having an approved maintenance program or approved continuous maintenance program shall perform that work in accordance with the air . - operator's manuals.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (a), each AM0 shall perform its maintenance and modification operations in accordance with the applicable standards in the Fifth Schedule. It shall maintain, in current condition, all manufacturer's service manuals, instructions, and service bulletins that relate to the articles that it maintains or modifies.

(c) In addition, each AM0 with an avionics rating shall comply with those sections in the Fifth Schedule that apply to electronic systems, and shall use materials that conform to approved specifications fo;equipment appropriate to its rating. It shall use test apparatus, shop equipment, performance standards, test methods. modifications, and calibrations that conform to'the manufacturer's specifications or instructions, approved specification, and if not otherwise specified, to accepted good practices of the aircraft avionics industry.

APPENDICES

APPENDIX 1 TO 6.060: EXPANDED REQUIREMENTS OF AM0 RATINGS

Except for job functions that are contracted out, each AM0 must provide equipment and material so '

that the job functions listed in this Appendix, as appropriate to the class or limited rating held or applied for, can be performed as required. The job functions are as follows - (a) For an aircraft rating -

(I) Classes 1 ,2 ,3 ,4 , and 5 - (i) metal skin and structural components -

repair and replace steel tubes and fittings using the proper welding techniques. when appropriate; apply anticorrosion treatment to the interior and exterior of parts; perform simple machine operations; fabricate steel fittings; repair and replace metal skin; repair and replace alloy members and components; assemble and align components using jigs or fixtures; make up forming blocks or dies;


THE CI VlL A VIA TION REGULATIONS, 2004

(I) repair or replace ribs. (ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(vii)

wood structure - (A) splice wood spars; (8) repair ribs and spars; (C) align interior of wing;. (D) repair or replace plywood skin; (E) apply treatment against wood decay. fabric covering - (A) repair fabric surfaces. aircrafl control systems - (A) repair and replace control cables; (8) rig complete control system; (C) replace and repair all control system components; (D) remove and install control system units and components. aircrafl systems - (A) replace and repair landing gear hinge-point components and attachments; (8) maintain elastic shock absorber units; (C) conduct landing gear retraction cycle tests; (D) maintain electrical position indicating and wiring systems; (E) repair and fabricate fuel, pneumatic~hydraulic.and oil lines; (F) diagnose electrical and electronic malfunctions; (G) repair and replace electrical wiring and electronic data transmission lines; (H) install electrical and electronic equipment; (1). perform bench check of electrical and electronic components. (Note.: This check is not to be confused with the more compl& functional test afler repair or overhaul.) assembly operations - (A) assemble aircrafl components or parts, such as landing gear, wings, and

controls; (8) rig and align aircrafl components, including the complete aircrafl and control

system; (C) install power plants; (D) install instruments and accessories; (E) assemble and install cowlings, fairings, and panels; (F) maintain and install windshields and windows; (G) jack or hoist complete aircraft; (H) balance flight control surfaces. nondestructive inspection and testing using dye.penetrants and magnetic, ultrasonic. radiographic, or holographic inspection techniques.

(viii) inspection of metal structures - (A) inspect metal structures, using appropriate inspection equipment to perform the

inspections required on an aircraft. (2) Classes 6 and 7 -

(i) In addition to having the capability to perform the appropriate functions set forth for class l ,2 , 3,4 , or 5 aircraft ratings, a maintenance organization holding a dass 6 or 7 aircrafl rating for composite aircrafl must have the following equipment - (A) autoclave capable of providing positive pressure and temperature consistent

with materials used; (8) air circulating oven with vacuum capabiliv, (C) storage equipment, such as freezer, refrigerator, and temperaturecontrol

cabinets or other definitive storage areas; (D) honeycomb core cutters;



(E) non-destructive inspection equipment such as x-ray, ultrasonic, or other types of acoustic test eauipment as recommended by the manufacturer;

(F) cutting tools, such as diamond or carbide saws or router bits, suitable for cutting and trimming composite structures;

(G) scales adequate to ensure proper proportioning by weight of epoxy adhesive and resins;

(H) mechanical pressure equipment such as vacuum bagging or sand bags, as appropriate;

(I) thermocouple probes necessary to monitor cure temperatures; (J) hardness testing equipment using heat guns that are thermostatically controlled

for curing repairs.

(ii) Appropriate inspection equipment to perform inspection of composite structures as recommended by the manufacturer and as required for inspection of an aircraft under this section.

(3) List of maintenance functions that may be contracted out -

(i) For all classes of airframe ratings - (A) metal plating or anodizing; (B) complex machine operation involving the use of planners, shapers, milling

machines, etc.; (C) abrasive air blasting and chemical cleaning operations; (D) heat treatment; (E) magnetic inspection; (F) repair or rebuilt metal tanks; (G) fabricate alloy members and components such as tubes, channels, cowlings,

fittings, attach angles, etc.; (H) fabricate wood spars; (I) overhaul and repair hydraulic-pneumaticshock absorber units; (J) overhaul and repair brake system components; (K) overhaul and repair hydraulic system components; (L) conduct aircraft weight and balance operation (this function will be conducted in

a draft free area); (M) fluorescent inspection of alloy components; (N) recovering and refinishing of components and entire aircraft.

(b) Power Plant rating - (1) Class 1 -

(i) maintain and alter powerplants, including replacement of parts - (A) perform chemical and mechanical cleaning; (B) perform disassembly operations; (C) replace bushings, bearings. pins, and inserts; (D) perform heating operations that may involve the use of recommended

techniques that require controlled heating facilities; (E) perform chilling or shrinking operations; (F) remove and replace studs; (G) inscribe or affix identification information; (H) paint powerplants and components; (I) apply anticorrosion treatment for parts.

(ii) Inspect all parts, using appropriate inspection aids - (A) determine precise clearances and tolerances of all parts; (B) inspect alignment of connecting rods, crankshafts, and impeller shafts.

(iii) Accomplish routine machine work - (A) ream inserts, bushings, bearings, and other similar components; (8) reface valves.

(iv) Accomplish assembly operations -



(A) perform valve and ignition-timing operations; (B) fabricate and test ignition harnesses; (C) fabricate and test rigid and flexible fluid lines; (D) prepare engines for long or short term storage; and (E) hoist engines by mechanical means.

(2) Classes 2 and 3 - (i) In addition to having the capability to perform the appropriate functions as required

for class 1 power plant rating, a maintenance organization holding a class 2 or a class 3 power plant rating must have the following equipment - (A) testing equipment; (B) surface treatment antigallant equipment, including -

(ii) functional and equipment requirements recommended by the manufacturer; and (iii) appropriate inspection equipment.

(3) List of maintenance functions that may be contracted out - (i) class 1 and 2 power plant (reciprocating); (ii) replacement of valve guides and seats; (iii) plating operations (copper, silver, cadmium, etc.); (iv) replacement and repair of power plant alloy sheet metal and steel components such

as air baffles, etc.); (v) magnetic, fluorescent and other acceptable inspection aids; (vi) balancing of parts, including crankshafts, impeller shafts, etc.; (vii) precision grinding, honing and lapping operations (including crankshaft, cylinder

barrels, etc.); (viii) precision drilling, tapping, boring, milling, and cutting operations; (ix) functional check power plant accessories (this check is not to be confused with the

more complex performance test of overhaul); (x) install engines In aircraft; (xi) align and adjust engine controls.

(c) Propeller Rating - (1) Class 1 -

remove and install propellers; maintain and alter propellers, including installation and replacement of parts -

replace bladed tipping; refinish wood propellers; make wood inlays; refinish plastic blades; straighten bent blades within repairable tolerances; modify blade diameter and profile; polish and buff; perform painting operations.

Inspect components using appropriate inspection aids - (A) inspect propellers for conformity with manufacturer's drawings and

specifications; (B) inspect hubs and blades for failures and defects using all visual aids, including

the etching of parts; (C) inspect hubs for wear of splines or keyways or any other defect. Balance propellers - (A) test for proper track on aircraft; (B) test for horizontal and vertical unbalance using precision equipment.

(2) Class 2 -

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(i) remove and install aircraft propellers, which may include installation and replacement of parts - (A) perform all functions listed under Class 1 propellers when applicable to the

make and modelpropeller in this class; (6) properly lubricate moving parts; (C) assemble complete propeller and subassemblies using special tools when

required;

(ii) inspect components using appropriate inspection aids for those functions listed for Class 1 propellers under paragraph (c)(l)(ii) of this Appendix when applicable to the make and model of the propeller being worked on;

(iii) repair or replace components or parts, including - (A) replace blades, hubs, or any of the~r components; (6) repair or replace anti-icing devices; (C) remove nicks or scratches from metal blades; (D) repair or replace electrical propeller components.

(IV) balance propellers, including those functions listed for class 1 propellers under paragraph (c)(l)(iv) of this Appendix when applicable to the make and model of the propeller being worked on;

(v) test propeller pitch-changing mechanism - (A) test hydraulically operated propellers and components; (6) test electrically operated propellers and components;

(3) List of maintenance functions that may be contracted out - (i) Class 1 Propeller -

(A) Inspect hubs and blades for failures and defects, using magnetic or fluorescent inspection devices.

(ii) Class 2 Propeller -

(A) Test of constant speed devices. (d) Avionics rating -

(I) Class I , 2, and 3 - (i) perform physical inspection of avionics systems and components by visual and

mechanical inspection; (ii) perform electrical inspection of avionics systems and components by means of

appropriate electrical and/or electronic test equipment; (iii) check aircraft wiring, antennas, connectors, relays, and other associated avionics

components to detect installation faults; (iv) check engine ignltion systems and aircraft accessories to determine sources of

electrical interference; (v) check aircraft power supplies for adequacy and proper functioning; (vi) remove, repair, and replace aircraft antennas; (vii) measure transmission line attenuation; (viii) Measure avionics component values such as inductance, capacitance, and

resistance; (ix) determine waveforms and phase in avionics equipment when applicable; (x) determine proper aircraft avionics antenna, lead-in, and transmission-line

characteristics and determine proper locations for type of avionics equipment to whlch the antenna is connected;

(XI) determine the operational condition of avionics equipment installed in aircraft by using appropriate portable test apparatus;

(xil) test all types of transistors: solid-state, integrated circuits; or similar devices in equipment appropriate to the class rating;

(xiii) test avionics Indicators. (2) Class 1 -

[The lnetuslon of this page Is authorized by L.N. 18d20081


(I) In addition to having the capability to perform the job functions listed in paragraph (d) (1) - (A) test and repair headsets, speakers, and microphones; (B) measure radio transmitter power output; (C) measure modulation values,'noise, and distortion in communication equipment.

(3) Class 2 - (i) In addition to having the capability to perform the job functions listed in paragraph (d)

(1) - (A) test and repair headsets; (B) test speakers; (C) measure loop antenna sensitivity by appropriate methods; (D) calibrate to approved performance standards any radio navigational equipment,

.en route and approach aids, or similar equipment, as appropriate to this rating. (4) Class 3 -

(i) In addition to having the capability to perform the job functions listed in paragraph -

(A) measure transmitter power output.

(5) List of maintenance functions that may be contracted out - (i) Class 2 Avionics -

(A) repair of speakers. (ii) Class 3 Avionics -

(A) .metal plating of transmission lines, wave guides, and similar equipment in accordance with appropriate specifications.

(iii) For all Class of Avionics ratings - (A) test avionics indicators; (B) overhaul, test, and check dynamotors, inverters. and other radio electrical

apparatus; (C) paint and refinish equipment containers; (D) accomplish appropriate methods of marking calibrations, or other information

on avionics control panels and other components, as required; (E) make and reproduce drawings, wiring diagrams, and other similar material

required to record alteration andlor modifications to avionics (photographs may be used in lieu of drawings when they will serve as an equivalent or better means of recordind;

(F) fabricate tuning shaft assemblies, brackets, cable assemblies, and other similar components used in avionics or aircraft avionics installations;

(G) install complete avionics systems in aircraft and prepare weight and balance reports (that phase of avionics installation reauirina modifications to the aircraft structure must be performed, supervised, and inspected by appropriately ,qualified and authorised person).

(e) Computer systems rating - (1) Classl,2,and3-

(A) maintain computer systems in accordance with manufacturer's specifications. test requirements, and recommendations;

(8) remove, maintain, and replace computer systems in aircraft; (C) inspect, test, and calibrate computer system equipment, including software.

(f) Instrument rating - (1) Class 1 -

(i) diagnose instrument malfunctions on the following instruments - (A) rate-ofclimb indicators; (B) altimeters;

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(C) airspeed indicators; (D) vacuum Indicators; (E) oil pressure gauges; (F) hydraulic pressure gauges; (G) de-icing pressure gauges; (H) pitot-static tube; (I) direct indicating compasses; (J) accelerometer; (K) direct indicating tachometers; (L) direct reading fuel quantity gauges.

(ii) inspect, test, and calibrate the instruments listed under paragraph (f)(l)(i) of this Appendix on and off the aircraft, as appropriate.

(2) Class 2 - (i) Diagnose instrument malfunctions of the following instruments -

(A) tachometers; (B) synchroscope; (C) electric temperature indicators; (D) electric resistance-type indicators; (E) moving magnet-type indicators; (F) warning units (oil and fuel); (G) selsyn systems and indicators; (H) self-synchronous systems and indicators,; (I) remote indicating compasses; (J) quantity indicators; (K) avionics indicators; (L) ammeters; (M) voltmeters; (N) frequency meters.

(ii) Inspect, test, and calibrate instruments listed under paragraph (f) (2) (i) of this Appendix on and off the aircraft, as appropriate.

(3) Class 3 - (i) diagnose instrument malfunctions of the following instruments -

(A) turn and bank indicators; (B) directional gyros; (C) horizon gyros; . (D) auto pilot control units and components.

(ii) inspect, test, and calibrate instruments listed under paragraph (f)(3)(i) of this Appendix on and off the aircraft, as appropriate.

(4) Class 4 - (i) diagnose instrument malfunctions of the following instruments -

(A) capacitance-type quantity gauge; (6) laser gyros; (C) other electronic instruments.

(ii) inspect, test, and calibrate instruments listed under paragraph (f)(4)(i) of this Appendix on and off the aircraft, as appropriate.

(g) Accessory rating - (1) Class 1. 2. 3. and 4 -

(i) perform the following functions in accordance with the manufacturer's specifications and recommendations - '

(A) diagnose accessory malfunctions; (6) maintain and alter accessories, including installing and replacing parts; (C) inspect, test, and calibrate accessories on and off the aircraft as appropriate.

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APPENOIX 1 TO 6.075: HOUSING AND FACILITY REQUIREMENTS

For ongoing maintenance of aircraft, aircraft hangars shall be available and large enough to accommodate aircraft during maintenance activities.

Where the hangar is not owned by the AMO, it is recommended to - (1) establish proof of tenancy; (2) .demonstrate sufficiency of hangar space to carry out planned base maintenance by

preparing a projected aircraft hangar visit plan relative to the maintenance program; (3) update the aircraft hangar visit plan on a regular basis; (4) ensure, for aircraft component maintenance, aircraft component workshops are large

enough to accommodate the components on planned maintenance; (5) ensure aircraft hangar and aircraft component workshop structures prevent the ingress of

rain, hail, ice, snow, wind and dust, etc.; (6) ensure workshop floors are sealed to minimise dust generation; and (7) demonstrate access to hangar accommodation for usage during inclement weather for

minor scheduled work andlor lengthy defect rectification.

Aircraft maintenance staff shall be provided with an area where they may study maintenance instructions and complete maintenance records in a proper manner.

(NOTE: It is acceptable to combine any or all of the above requirements into one office subject to thestaff having sufficient room to carry out assigned tasks.)

Hangars used to house aircraft together with office accommodation shall be such as to insure a clean, effective and comfortable working environment -

(I) temperatures should be maintained at a comfortable level; (2) dust and any other airborne contamination should be kept to a minimum and not permitted

to reach a level in the work task area where visible aircrafucomponent surface contamination is evident;

(3) lighting should be such as to insure each inspection and maintenance task can be carried out;

(4) noise levels should not be permitted to rise to the point of distracting personnel from carrying out inspection tasks. Where it is impractical to control the noise source, such personnel should be provided with the necessary personal equipment to stop excessive noise causing distraction during inspection tasks.

Where a particular maintenance task requires the application of specific environmental conditions different to the foregoing, then such conditions shall be observed. (Specific conditions are identified in the approved maintenance instructions.)

Where the working environment for line maintenance deteriorates to an unacceptable level with respect to temperature, moisture, hail, ice, snow, wind, light, dusuother airborne contamination; the particular maintenance or inspection tasks shall be suspended until satisfactory conditions are reestablished.

For both base and line maintenance where dust or other airborne contamination results in visible surface contamination. all susceptible systems shall be sealed until acceptable conditions are reestablished.

Storage facilities for serviceable aircraft components shall be clean and environmentally controlled at a cool dry temperature (appximately 22 degrees Celsius or 72 degrees Fahrenheit recommended) in order to minimise the effects of condensation. For special items, where 'cool room" storage is recommended, a separate room or storage area, controlled to a maximum temperature as recommended by the manufacturer. must be maintained.

Manufacturer and standards recommendations shall be followed for specific aircraft components.

Storaae racks shall Drovide sufficient support for large aircraft components such that the . . camp&ent is not distorted.


214 THE C l VlL A VIA TlON REGULATIONS, 2004

( k All aircraft components, wherever practicable, shall remain packaged in protective material to minmise damage and corrosion during storage.

(I) Aircraft park shall at all times be physically segregated from non-aircraft goods in all areas of the stores, with visible'and legible signs providing clear indication of which parts are being stored or are in transit in each area.

APPENDIX 1 TO 6.080: EQUIPMENT, TOOLS AND MATERIAL

(a) All applicable lools, equipment, and test equipment used for product acceptance andlor for making a finding of airworthiness shall be traceable to the Standards approved by the Authority.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (a), in the case of foreign manufactured tools, equipment, and test equipment, the standard provided by the county of manufacture may be used if approved by the Authority.

(c) Where the manufacturer specifies a particular tool, equipment, or test equipment then that tool. equipment, or test equipment shall be used ur~less the manufacturer has identified the use of an equivalent.

(d) Except as provided in paragraph (c), tools, equipment, or test equipment other than that recommended by the manufacturer will be acceptable based on at least the following -

(1) the AM0 shall have a procedure in the Maintenance Procedure Manual if it intends to use equivalent tools, equipment, or test equipment other than that recommended by the manufacturer;

(2) the AM0 shall have a program to include -

(i) a descrition of the procedures used to establish the competence of personnel that make the determination of equivalency to tools, equipment, or test equipment;

(ii) conducting and documenting the comparison made between the specification of the tool, equipment or test equipment recommended by the manufacturer and the equivalent tool, equipment, or test equipment proposed;

(iii) ensuring that the limitations, parameters, and reliability of the proposed tool, equipment, or test equipment are equivalent to the manufacturer's recommended tools, equipment, or test equipment;

(iv) ensuring that the equivalent tool, equipment, or test equipment is capable of. performing the appropriate maintenance function, all normal

(v) tests, or calibrations, and checking all parameters of the aircrafl or aeronautical product undergoing maintenance or calibration;

(3) the AM0 shall have full control of the equivalent tool, equipment, ortest equipment (i.e. ownership, lease, etc.) -

(e) An AM0 approved for base maintenance shall have sufficient aircraft access equipment and inspection platformsldocking such that the aircrafl may be properly inspected.

(f) The AM0 shall have a procedure to inspectkervice and, where appropriate, calibrate tools, equipment, and test equipment on a regular basis and indicate to users that an item is within any inspection or service or calibration time limit.

(g) The AM0 shall have a procedure if it uses a standard (primary, secondary or transfer standards) for performing calibration, that standard cannot be used to perform maintenance.

(h) A clear system of labelling all tooling, equipment and test equipment shall be used to give information on when the next i6spection or service or calibration is due, and if the item is unserviceable for any other reason where it may not be obvious.

(i) A clear system of labelling all tooling, equipment, and test equipment shall be used to give information on when such tooling, equipment, and test equipment is not used for product acceptance andlor for making a finding of airworthiness.

(j) A register shall be maintained for all calibrated tools, equipment and test equipment together with a record of calibrations and standards used.

\The inclusion of this page i s authorized by L.N. 18d2008)


(k) Inspection, service, or calibration on a regular basis shall be in accordance with the equipment manufacturers' instructions except where the AM0 can show by results that a different time period is appropriate in a particular case and is acceptable to the Authority.

APPENDIX 1 TO 6.085: PERSONNEL REQUIREMENTS

(a) The AM0 functions shall be subdivided under individual managers or combined in any number of ways, dependent upon the size of the AMO.

(b) The AM0 shall have, dependent upon the extent of approval, the following - (1) a base maintenance manager; (2) a line maintenance manager; (3) a workshop manager and a quality manager, all of whom should report to the accountable

manager.

(NOTE: In small AMOS, one or more of the above positions may be combined subject to approval by the Authority.)

The Accountable Manager shall be responsible for ensuring that all necessary resources are available to accomplish maintenance required to support.the AMO's approval.

The Base Maintenance Manager shall be responsible for - (1) ensuring that all maintenance required to be carried out in the hangar, plus any defect

rectification carried out during base maintenance, is carried out to specified design and quality standards; and

(2) any corrective action resulting from quality compliance monitoring. The Line Maintenance Manager shall be responsible for - (1) ensuring that all maintenance required to be carried out on the line, including line defect

rectification, is performed to the required standards; and (2) any corrective action resulting from quality compliance monitoring. \

The Workshop Manager shall be responsible for - (1) ensuring that all work on aircraft components is performed to required standards; and (2) any corrective action resulting from quality compliance monitoring - The Quality Manager shall be responsible for - (1) monitoring the AMO's compliance with this Schedule; and (2) requesting remedial action as necessary by the base maintenance managerlline

maintenance managerlworkshop manager or the accountable manager, as appropriate.

The AM0 may adopt any title for managerial positions, but shall identify to the Authority the titles and persons chosen to carry out these functions.

Where an AM0 chooses to appoint managers for all or any combinat~on of the identified %.'

functions because of the size of the undertaking, these managers shall report ultimately through either the Base Maintenance Manager or Line Maintenance Manager or Workshop Manager or Quality Manager, as appropriate, to the accountable manager.

The managers specified in this Subsection shall be identified and their credentials submitted to the Authoritv. To be acce~ted, such manaaers shall have relevant knowledae and satisfactow experience ;elated to airc;afUaircraft component maintenance as appropriaik in accordance with these regulations. Where the AM0 is providing maintenance services for aircraft. the Base Manager, Line Manager-and Quality Manager shall all be Aircraft Maintenance Engineers, trained and qualified on aircraft of the Classes for which the AM0 is providing services.

(Note: Certijling staff may report to any of the nianagers specifieb depending upon which type of control the AM0 uses (for example-licensed engineers, independent inspection/dual function supervisors, etc.) so long as the quality compliance monitoring staff remain independent.)

[The inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18~/2008)


The AM0 shall have a production man-hours plan showing that it has sufficient man-hours for the intended work.

If an AM0 is approved for base maintenance, the plan shall relate to the aircraft hangar vis~t plan.

Man-hour plans shall regularly be updated.

(Note: Work performed on any aircraff registered outside Jamaica should be taken into account where it impacts upon the production man-hours plan.)

Quality monitoring compliance function man-hours shall be sufficient to enable the proder monitoring of all the AM03 functions.

Planners, mechanics, supervisors and certifying staff shall be assessed for competence by "on the job" evaluation or by examination relevant to their particular role within the AM0 before unsupervised work is permitted. . .

To assist in the assessment of competence, job descriptions are recommended for each position. The assessment shall establish that - '

(1) planners are able to interpret'maintenance requirements into maintenance tasks, and have an appreciation that they have no authority to deviate from the aircraft maintenance . program;

(2) mechanics are able to carry out maintenance tasks to any stindard specified in the maintenance instructions and will notify supervisors of mistakes requiring rectification to reestablish requiied maintenance standards;

(3) supervisors are able to ensure that all required maintenance tasks are carried out and where not done or where it is evident that a particular maintenance task cannot be carried out to the maintenance instructions, then such problems will be reported to and be addressed by the quality organization;

(4) certifying staff are appropriately licensed Aircraft Maintenance Engineers, trained and qualified on the aircraft type and able to determine when the aircraft or aircraft component is, or is not, ready to return to service.

In the case of planners, supervisors, and certifying staff, knowledge of AM0 procedures relevant to their particular role shall be demonstrated.

Training of certifying staff shall be performed by the AM0 or by an institute selected by the AM0 In either case, the AM0 shall establish the curriculum and standards for training, as well as pre- qualification standards for the personnel intended for training. Pre-qualification-standards are intended to insure that the trainee has a reasonable chance of successfully completing any course.

Examinations shall be set at the end of each training'course.

Training shall include - (1) basic aircraft maintenance training as specified in Schedule 9; (2) aircraft type training, to the ATA 104 Level Ill Standard, including the impact of repairs and

svstemlstructural defects, on anv aircraft that the person will be expected to certifv; (3) cbmpany procedures relevant tdthe certifying staffs tasks.; (4) human factorslMaintenance Resource Management training. Continuation training should cover changes in AM0 procedures and changes in the standard of aircraft andlor aeronautical products maintained.

The training program shall include details of the number of personnel who will receive initial training to qualify as certifying staff over specified time periods.

The training program established for maintenance personnel and certifying staff by the AM0 shall include training in knowledge and skills related to human ~erformance including coordination with other maintenance personnel and flight crew.

'

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THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004 I 217

APPENDIX 1 TO 6.090: RECORDS OF CERTIFYING STAFF I

Records of certifymg staff shall be controlled, but not necessarily run by the AMUS quality department. I

The following minimum information shall be kept on record in respect of each (1) name; (2) date of birth; (3) basic training; (4) type training; (5) continuation training; (6) experience; (7) qualifications relevant to the approval; (8) scope of the authorization; (9) date of first issue of the authorization; (10) expiration date of the authorization ( ~ f appropriate); ( I 1) identification number of the authorization.

I The number of persons authorised to access the system shall be limited to minimise the possibility of records being altered in an unauthorised manner and to limit cdnfidential records from becoming accessible to unauthorised persons. 1

certifying person -

I A certifying person shall be given reasonable access on request to his or he: records.

The Authority is authorised to and may investigate the records system for initial and continued approval, or when the Authority has cause to doubt the competence of a pahicular certifying person. I

I The AM0 shall keep the record of a certifying person for at least two years after that person has .ceased employment with the AM0 or upon withdrawal of his or her authori4tion. Upon request. the certifymg staff shall be furnished with a copy of their record on leaving the AMO.

I The authorization document shall be in a style that makes its scope clear td certifying staff and any authorised person that may be required to examine the document. where codes are used to define-scope, an interpretation document shall be readily available. 1 Certifymg staff are not required to carry the authorization document at all tihes but shall produce it within a reasonable time of a request from an authorised person. I (Note: Authorised persons, epart from the AM03 quality department or daintenance supervisors/managers, include the Authority.) I

The AM0 shall provide a Maintenance Procedures Manual for use by the orgar/ization, containing the following information - 1

a general description of the scope of work authorized under the org&nization8s operations specifications; I . a description of the organization's procedures, acceptable to the Author~ty, to ensure good maintenance practices and compliance with all relevant requiremedts;

I a description of the independent quality assurance system to monitor compliance with and adequacy of the procedures (or a system of inspection to ensure th'at maintenance is properly performed, to include procedures for self-evaluations, inclhding methods and frequency of such evaluations, and procedures for reporting result$ to the accountable manager for review and action; a general description of the organization's facilities; I the names and duties of the management person or persons whose responsibilities included ensuring that the maintenance organization is in compiiadce with the requirements for an approved maintenance organization, to include an organization chart

I

lThe inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18d20081 I


showing associated chains of responsibility of the management personnel. (The current list of the titles and names of the management personnel accepted by the Authority may be separate from the Procedures Manual but must be kept current and available far review by the Authority when requested);

(6) a description of the procedures used to establish the competence of maintenance personnel;

(7) a description of the method used for the completion and retention of maintenance records to show that all requirements for the signing of a return to service have been met;

(8) a procedure to establish and maintain a current roster of certifying personnel.

(Note: Any list required for the contents of the manual which changes regularly may be separate from the procedures manual but must be kept current and available for review by the Authority when requested.)

(9) a description of the procedure for preparing the return to service and the circumstances under which the release is to be signed;

(10) the personnel authorized to sign the release and the scope of their authorization; (1 1) a description of the additional procedures for complying with an operator's maintenance

procedures and requirements; (12) a description of the procedures for complying with the service information reporting

reauirements of Schedule 5: (13) a description of the procedure for receiving, amending and distributing within the

maintenance organization all necessary airworthiness data from the type certificate holder or type design organization;

(141 a statement sianed bv the accountable manager confirming that the maintenance . . organization ~;oced&es Manual and any associated manuals define the AMO's compliance with this regulation and will be complied with at all times;

(15) a list which descrjbes the duties and responsibility of the management personnel and which matters on which they may deal directly with the Authority on behalf of the AMO;

(16) a description of the procedures used to establish the competence of maintenance personnel;

(17) a general description of manpower resources; (18) a description of the method used for the completion and retention of the maintenance

records; (19) a general description of the facilities located at each address specified in the AMO's

approval certificate; (20) the notification procedure for AM0 to use when requesting the approval of changes to the

organization of the AM0 from the Authority; (21) the amendment procedure for the AM0 procedures manual, including the submisslon to

the Authority. (22) a list of operators, if appropriate, to which the AM0 provides an aircraft maintenance

service: (23) a list otorganizations performing maintenance on behalf of the AMO; and (241 the AM0 shall specify in the Procedures Manual who should amend the manual, . .

particularly in the case where the manual consists of several parts; (25) the maintenance procedures covering all aspects of how aircraft components may be

accepted from outside sources and how aircraft will be maintained to the required standard.

&PENDD( 1 TO 6:m: CERTIFICATE OF RELEASE TO SERVICE (CRS)

(a) A CRS is requlred for the following - (1) before flight at the completion of any package of maintenance scheduled by the approved

alrcraft maintenance program on the aircraft, whether such maintenance took place as base or line maintenance.



(Note: Only in exceptional cases may scheduled maintenance be deferred and then only in accordance with procedures specified in the AM08s procedures manual. In all cases, the AM0 must provide the owner/operator with a list of any uncorrected defects that may exist.)

(2) before flight at the completion of any defect rectification, while the aircraft operates between scheduled maintenance; , .

(3) at the completion of any maintenance on an aircraft component when off the aircraft, a Maintenance Release shall be signed certifying the work carried out. When that . component is installed and tested on an aircraft, a CRS shall be signed for the installation.

(b) The CRS shall contain the following, or similarly worded statement - "I hereby certify that the work detailed above was carried out in accordance with the current Civil Aviation Regulations and in respect to 'hat work the aircraft is considered serviceable.".

(c) The CRS shall reference the data specified in the manufacturer's or air carrier operator's instructions or the aircraft maintenance program which itself may cross-reference to a manufacturer's instruction in a maintenance manual, service bulletin, etc.

(d) Where instructions include a requirement to insure that a dimension or test figure is within a specific tolerance as opposed to a general tolerance, the dimension or test figure shall be recorded unless the instruction permits the use of GOlNO gauges. It is not normally sufficient to state that the dimension or the test figure is within tolerance.

(e) The date such maintenance was carried out shall include when the maintenance took place relative to any life or overhaul limitation in terms of datelflying hourslcyclesllandiogs etc., as appropriate.

(f) When extensive maintenance has been carried out, it is acceptable for the return to service to summarise the maintenance as long as there is a cross-reference to the work-pack containing full details of maintenance carried out. Dimensional information shall be retained in the work- pack record.

(g) The person issuing the CRS shall use a full signature and preferably a certification stamp except in the case where a computer return to service system is used. In this latter case, the Authority will need to be satisfied that only the particular person can electronically issue the return to service.

(Note: One such method of compliance is the use of a magnetic or optical personal card in conjunction with a personal identity number (PIN) which is keyed into the computer and known only to the individual.)

Number

(NOW: An example of a model return to service is shown below. Not intended to be used as an Import or export tag.)


3. System Tracking Ref.. No.

5. Work Order. Contract or Invoke

1. Jamalca

I

2. CAA FORM 308 Airworthiness Approval Tag Civil Avlation Administration

4. Organlzabn Name and Address:

12. StatusMlork

13. Remarks:

6, Item 7. Description 8. Part Number

9. Eligibility 10. Quantity 11. SeriaVBatch Number


It is important to understand that the existence of this Document alone does not automatlcallyconstitute authority to install the pa~componentlassemblyf Where the userflnstaller work in accordance with the national regulations of an A~rworthiness Authority different than the Airworthiness Authority of the country specified in block 1 it is essential that the userlinstaller ensures that hisher Alrworthlness Authority accepts parts/componentslassemblies from the Airworthiness Authority of the country specified in block 1. Statements in block 14 and 19 do not constitute installation certification. In all cases aircrafl maintenance records must contain an installation certification issued in accordance with the national regulations by the userlinstaller before the aircrafl mav be flown. Limited life parts must be accomplished by maintenance history including total timeltotal cyclesltime since new. 14. Return to Servlce In Accordance wlth BANR the Fifth Schedule . --. I Certifies that the work specified in block 13 (or attached) above was carr~ed out in accordance with CAA airwotthiness I

CAA AAT (1 2/00) 1

regulations and in respect to the work performed the part(s) is (are) approved for return to service.

LINE-BY-LINE INSTRUCTIONS FOR COMPLETION OF MODEL MO CAA FORM AAT:

16. Authorised Signature:

Block 1. Jamaica (Pre-printed).

Block 2. CAA 308, Airworthiness Approval Tag and Civil Aviation Administration (Pre-printed).

16. Certificate Number:

Block 3. System Tracking Reference Number - (1) fill in the unique number established by the CAA-approved numbeLng system; (2) if the form is computer-generated, it may be produced as programmed by the computer.

(NOTE: Shippers must establish a numbering system for traceability in order to fill out block 3 of the form. This system must also provide a means of cross-referencing the number(s) and product(s) being shipped.)

17. Name (Typed or Printed):

Block 4. Organization - (1) fill in the full name and address of the CAA-approved organization or individual

shipping the product(s)/pa?(s) as applicable -

18. Date:

(i) company name and address; (ii) Production Approval Holder (PAH) approval or certificate numbers, when applicable

(e.g., production certificate number, approved maintenance organization certificate numbers, air operator certificate number -

(2) when a supplier has direct ship authorization from a PAH, the following information should be entered - (i) PAH name and address; (ii) PAH approval or certificate number; (iii) d o Supplier name and address.

(Note: Man individual producVpaII is produced as a spare by a supplier, the supplier must have either direct ship authority or hold a production approval (PMAITSO authorization) for all productdpads shipped. Mthe supplier holds its own production approval, and the productdpaIIs were manufactured and are being shipped under that approval, the information required in paragraph (1) above should be listed.)

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Block 5. Work Order, Contract, or Invoice Number.

(1) Fill in the contract, work order, or invoice number related to the shipment list, or retum to service, and state the number of pages attached to the form, including dates, if applicable. If the shipment list contains the information required in Blocks 6 through 12, the respective blocks may be left blank if an original, or true copy, of the list is attached to the form. In this case, the following statement should be entered in Block 13: "This is the certification statement for the productslparts listed on the attached document dated containing pages through ."

(2) In addition, the shipment list must cross-reference the number located in Block 3. The shipment list may contain more than one item; but it is the responsibility of the shipper to determine if the CAA of the importing jurisdiction will accept bulk shipments under a single Model CAA Form [AATJ. If the CAA does not permit bulk shipments under a single form, Blocks 6 through 12 of each form must be filled in for each product shipped.

Block 6. Item. When Model CAA Form [AATJ IS issued a single item number or multiple item numbers may be used for the same part number. Multiple items should be numbered in sequence. If a separate listing is used, enter "List Attached"

(Note: The blank fonn can be computer-generated. However, the fonnat cannot be changed, nor can any words be added or deleted. Pre-printing of some infonnation is permissible, i.e.; the infonnation in blocks 1, 2, 3, 4, 14, and 19. The size of blocks may be varied slightly, but the fonn must remain readily recognisable. The fonn may also be reduced in overall size to facilitate placement of the wording on the back of the fonn onto the face of the document.)

Block 7. Description. Enter the name or description of the producupart as shown on the design data. For productslparts that do not have design data available, the name as referenced in a part catalog, overhaul manual, etc., can be used.

Block 8. Part Number. Enter each part number of the product.

Block 9. Eligibility. State the aircraft. aircraft engine, or propeller make and model on which the PMA part is eligible for installation. If a part is eligible for installation on more than one model enter the words "to be verified by installer or TBV by installer." Where parts are TSO articles, state "TSO Article NIA" since eligibility for installation for TSO articles is determined at the time of installation.

(Note: For TSO articles CAA Model Form [AATl does not constitute authority to install a product on a particular aircrafl, aircrafl enghe, or propeller. The user or instsler is responsible for confinnins that the ~roduct is elisible for installation bv reference to overttau1 manuals. service bulleiins, etc.. as applicabl~ While the infomatiin in Block 9 is optional, it should be filled out whenever possible. When using CAA Model Fonn [AAT] for CONFORMIN of certification program products, enter N/A.)

Block 10. Quantity. State the quantity of each producupart shipped.

Block 11. Serialh3atch Number. State the serial number or equivalent (identified on the part) on the form for each producupart shipped. If a serial number or equivalent is not required on the part, enter "NIA."

Block 12. Statuslwork. Enter "Newly Overhauled" for those products that have not been operated or placed in service since overhaul. Enter "PROTOTYPE" for productslparts submitted to support type certification programs. Other permissiblelappropriate terms to describe the status of the producupart are: "INSPECTED". "REPAIRED." "REBUILT." or "ALTERED."

Block 13. Remarks. Enter any information or references to support documentation necessary for the user or installer to make a final determination of airworthiness of the productslparts listed in Block 7. Each statement must specify which item identified in Block 6 Is related. Examples of information to be supplied are as follows -

(1) any restrictions (e.g., prototype only);

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(2) alternative approved part number; (3) compliance or non-compliance with airworthiness directives or service bulletins; (4) information on life-limited parts; (5) manufacturing, cure, or shelf-life data; (6) drawing and revision level; (7) when used for conformity the word "CONFORMITY" must be entered in capital letters. In

addition, an explanation of the productslparts use, e.g., pending approved data. TC pending, for test only, etc.. should be provided. Information concerning a conformity Inspection such as design data, revision level, date, project number;

(8) when used for spare parts iden t i whether the parts are PMA. TSO authorised. In addition. . . If the CAA ~ o d e l ~ o r h [AAT] is for spare parts.or sub components of an CAA approved modification or replacement part, the PMA or TSO authorization should be listed in Block 13;

(9) when used for return to service this block should contain the data required by the Fifth Schedule. If other documents such as work orders or travellers, CAA Model Form in accordance with Model regulation IS 6.4.1.8, Return to service Form, are used by the certificate holders to comply with the Fifth Schedule, they should be specifically referenced in thls block and be cross referenced.

Block 14. Return to Service. The information is already pre-printed in the block.

Block 16. Signature. Signature of the individual authorised by the air agency, air carrier, or the manufacturer in accordance with 6.6.1.5 (a)(2), (3), and (4). The approval signature shall be manually applied at the time and place of issuance.

Block 16. Certificate number. Enter the air agency or air carrier operating certificate number. For manufacturers returning to service after rebuilding productslparts the production approval number should be entered.

Block 17. Name. The typed or printed name of the individual identified in Block 20.

Block 18. Date. The date the Model CAA Form [AAT] is signed and the product are returned to servlce. This does not need to be the same as the shipping date, which may occur at a later date.

(a) The AM0 shall be in receipt of all airworthiness data appropriate to support the work performed from the Authority, the aircraftlaeronautical product design organization, and any other approved design organization in the State of Manufacture or State of Design, as appropriate. Some examples of maintenance-related documents are - (1) Civil Aviation Regulations, [2004]; (2) associated advisory material; (3) Airworthiness Directives; (4) manufacturers' maintenance manuals; (5) repair manuals; (6) supplementary structural inspection documents; (7) service bulletins; (8) service letters; (9) service instructions; (10) modification leaflets; (1 1) aircraft maintenance program: (12) NDT Manual, etc.

(Note: Paragraph (a) primarily refers to maintenance data that has been transcribed from the Authority and all Type Certificate (TC) holders into the AMO's format, such as customised maintenance cards or computer base data.)

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(Note: To obtain acceptance from the Authority, it is important that accuracy of transcription Is assured.)

(b) A procedure shall be established to monitor the amendment status of all data and maintain a check that all amendments are being received by being a subscriber to any document amendment scheme.

(c) Airworthiness data shall be made available in the work area in close proximity to the air& or aeronautical product being maintained and for supervisors, mechanics, and certifying staff to study.

(d) Where computer systems are used to maintain airworthiness data, the number of computer terminals shall be sufficient in relation to the size of the work program to enable easy access, unless the computer system can produce paper copies. Where microfilm or microfiche readerslprinters are used, a similar requirement is applicable.

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SUBPART A: 7.001 7.010 7.015

SUBPART B: 7.020 7.025 7.030 7.035 7.040 7.043 7.045 7.050 7.055 7.060 7.065 7.067 7.070 7.075 7.080 7.085

SUBPART C: 7.095 7.100 7.105 7.110 7.115 7.120 7.125

SUBPART D 7.130 7.135 7.140 7.145 7.1 50 7.160

SUBPART E: 7.165 7.170 7.172 7.175

SUBPART F: 7.178 7.180 7.181 7.182 7.183


SEVENTH SCHEDULE (Regulations 36,37,38,67)

REQUIRED INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT

GENERAL Applicability Acronyms General lnstruments and Equipment Requirements AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT Power Supply. Distribution and Indication System Engine Instruments - All Flights Flight Instruments - All Flights light lnstruments - ~ontr&ed or Night Flight Flight Instruments and System Requirements for IFR Requirements for Single Pilot IFR or Night Operations lnstruments for Operations Requiring Two Pilots Standby Attitude indicator - commercial Air Transport Autopilot IFR Helicopter Stabilization System for Commercial Air Transport Equipment for Night Flights Equipment for Special Altimetry Accuracy (RVSM) Windshield Wipers Flight in Icing Conditions Weather Radar - Commercial Air Transport Special Seaplane Equipment COMMUNICATIONS AND NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT Radio Communication Equipment - General Radio Communication EauiDment - Commercial Air Trans~ort Boom Microphone - commercial Air Transport Altitude Reporting Transponder Navigation Equipment - General Special Navigation Accuracy (RNP and MNPS) Navigation Equipment - IFR Approach WARNING EQUIPMENT AND INDICATORS Warning Systems - General Landing Gear Aural Warning Device Altitude Alerting System Ground ~ r o x i i t y warning System Airborne Collision Avoidance System (ACAS) Radiation Indicator - ~ommerckl Air ran sport RECORDERS Flight Data and Voice Recorders - General Flight Deck Voice Recorders Recording of Data Link Communications Flight Data Recorders

CREW PROTECTION EQUIPMENT Securitv of the Fliaht Deck Flight drew safe6 Harness Quick Donning Type Oxygen Mask Cabin Crew Seats and Safety Harness Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE)

SUBPART G: PASSENGER RELATED EQUIPMENT 7.185 Passenger Seats and Seat Belts 7.186 Restraint System Requirements 7.190 Passenger Information 7.195 Public Address System

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7.200 lnterphone Systems 7.205 Megaphones - Commercial Air Transport 7.210 Emergency Exits 7.21 5 Passenger Compartment And Exits 7.220 Materials for Cabin Interiors 7.225 Materials for Cargo and Baggage Compartments 7.230 Emergency Lighting System

SUBPART H: EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT 7.235 Emergency Equipment: All Aircraft 7.240 First Aid Kit 7.245 Medical Kit - Commercial Air Transport 7.250 Portable Fire Extinguishers 7.255 Lavatory Fire Extinguisher 7.260 Lavatory Smoke Detector 7.265 Crash Axe - Commercial Air Transport 7.268 Flashlights 7.270 Oxygen Storage and Dispensing Apparatus 7.273 Individual Flotation Devices 7.275 Life Rafts 7.280 Survival Kit 7.285 Devices for Emergency Signalling 7.290 Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) 7.295 Helicopter Emergency Flotation Means 7.300 Marking of Break-In Points 7.305 First Aid Oxygen Dispensing Units

APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 7.175: Parameters for Flight Deck Recorders Appendix 1 to 7.210: Emergency Exit Equipment Appendix 1 to 7.240: First Aid Kit Required Contents Appendix 1 to 7.245: Medical Kit Required Contents Appendix 1 to 7.270: Supplemental Oxygen - Non Pressurized Aircraft Appendix 2 to 7.270: Supplemental Oxygen - Pressur~zed Aircraft

SUBPART A: GENERAL

This Schedule outlines the instruments and equipment requirements that pertain to all domestic and international flight operations of Jamaica-registered aircraft and all aircraft operated in commercial air transport by the holder of an Air 0perator.Certificate issued by Jamaica.

The following acronyms are used in this Schedule - AOC - Alr Operator Certificate; 6VR - Cockpit Voice Recorder; DME - Distance Measuring Equipment; ELT - Emergency Locator Transmitter; FDR - Flight Data Recorder ILS - Instrument Landing System; IFR - lnstrument Flight Rules; IMC - lnstrument Meteorological Conditions; MEL - Minimum Equipment List; MNPS - Minimal Navigation Performance Specifications; PBE - Protective Breathing Equipment; RNP - Required Navigation Performance; RVSM - Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum;

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THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULAI'IONS, 2004

SSR - Secondary Surveillance Radar; VFR - Visual Flight Rules; VMC -Visual Meteorological Conditions; and VOR - VHF Omnidirectional Range.

7.015 GENERAL INSTRUMENT AND EQUIPMENT REQUIREMENTS

(a) All aircraft shall be equipped with instruments which wlll enable the flight crew to - (1) control the flight path of the aircraft, (2) carry out any required manoeuvres, and (3) observe the operatmg limrtat~ons of the arcraft in the expected operating conditions

(b) In addition to the minimum equipment necessary for the issuance of a Certificate of Airworthiness, the instruments and equipment prescribed in this Schedule shall be installed or carried, as appropriate, in aircraft accord~ng to the nature of the aircraft's operation and to the circumstances under which the flight is to be conducted.

(c) All required instruments and equ~pment shall be approved and installed in accordance with applicable airworthiness requirements.

(d) Prior to operation in Jamaica of any aircraft not registered in Jamaica that uses an airworthiness inspection program approved or accepted by the State of Registry, the ownerloperator shall ensure that instruments and equipment required by Jamaica but not installed in the aircraft are properly installed and Inspected In accordance with the requirements of the State of Registry.

(e) No flight shall be allowed to commence unless the required equipment - '

(1) meets the minimum performance standard and the operational and airworthiness requirements of all relevant standards, including Annex 10. Volume I of the International Civil Aviation Organization;

(2) is installed such that the failure of any single unit required for either communicationor navigation purposes, or both, will not result in the inability to communicate andlor navigate safely on the route being flown; and

(3) is in operable condition for the kind of operation being conducted, except as provided in the MEL.

(f) . Where equipment is to be used by one flight crewmember at his station during flight, it shall be installed so as to be readily operable from his or her station.

(g) When a single item of equipment is required to be operated by more than one flight crewmember, it shall be installed so that the equipment is readily operable from any station at which the equipment is required to be operated.

(h) The aircraft shall be equipped with spare fuses and bulbs of appropriate ratings for the replacement of those accessible in flight.

(i) An airborne collision avoidance system shall operate in accordance with the relevant provisions of ICAO Annex 10. Volume IV.

(j) In addition to the requirements of this Schedule, the Authority may prescribe such additional instruments or equipment as necessary for the safety of particular flight operations.

SUBPART B: AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT

7.020 POWER SUPPLY, DISTRIBUT~ON AND INDlCATlON SYSTEM

(a) No person shall operate an aeroplane unless it is equipped with - . (1) a power supply and distribution system that meets the airworthiness requirements for

certification of an aeroplane in the applicable category as specified by the Authority; or

(2) for large and turbine powered aircraft, a power supply and distribution system ihat is able to produce and distribute the load for the required instruments and equipment, with use of an external power supply if any one power source or component of the power distribution system fails.

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(Note: The use of common elements in the power system may be approved i f the Authority finds that they are designed to be reasonably protected against malfunctioning.

(3) a means for indicating the adequacy of the power being supplied to required flight instruments.

(b) For large and turbine powered aircraft, engine-driven sources of energy when used, shall be on separate engines.

(c) All aeroplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 5,700 kg (12,500 Ibs) newly introduced into service after January 1. 1975 shall be fined with an emergency power supply. independent of the main electrical generating system, for the purpose of operating and illuminating, for a minimum period of 30 minutes, an attitude indicating instrument (artificial horizon), clearly visible to the PIC. The emergency power supply shall be automatically operative afler the total failure of the main electrical generating system and clear indication shall be given on the instrument panel that the attitude indicator(s) islare being operated by emergency power.

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft in flight unless it is equipped with - (1) a tachometer for each engine; (2) an oil pressure gauge for each engine using pressure system; (3) a temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled system; (4) an oil temperature gauge for each air-cooled system; (5) a manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine; and (6) a means for indicating the fuel quantity in each tank to be used.

(b) For commercial air transport, no person shall operate a reciprocating engine aircrafl with a maximum gross weight of more than 5,700 kg (12,500 Ibs) max takeoff mass unless it also is equipped with - -

(1) a device for each reversible propeller, to indicate to the pilot when the propeller is in reverse pitch - . .

(i) the device may be actuated at any point in the reversing cycle between the normal low pitch stop position and full reverse pitch, but it may not give an indication at or above the normal low pitch stop position; and

(ii) the source of indication shall be actuated by the propeller blade angle or be directly responsive to it;

(2) e carburettor air temperature indicator for each engine; (3) a cylinder head temperature indicator for each aircooled engine; (4) a fuel pressure indicator for each engine; (5) a fuel flow meter; (6) an oil quantity indicator for each oil-tank when a transfer or separate oil reserve supply is used; (7) an oil temperature indicator for each engine; and (8) an independent fuel pressure waming device for each engine or a master warning device for

all engines with a means for isolating the individual warning circuits from the master waming ,device.

(c) The Authority may allow or require different instrumentation for turbine engine powered aircraft to provide an equivalent level of safety.

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft in flight unless it is equipped with - (1) a magnetic compass; (2) an accurate clock indicating the time In hours, minutes and seconds; (3) a sensw~e pressure altimeter calibrated in feet with sub-scale settings, calibrated in

hectopascals or millibars, adjustable for any barometric pressure likely to be set in flight; and (4) an airspeed indicator calibrated in knots.

(b) No person shall operate an aeroplane with speed limitations expressed in terms of Mach number



unless there is a properly installed Mach number indicator. , (c) Those flight instruments that are used by any one pilot shall be so arranged as to permit that pilot

to see the indications readily from their station with the minimum practical deviation from the position and line of vision normally assumed when looking forward along the flight path.

(d) When a means is provided for transferring an instrument from its primary operating system to an alternative system, the means shall include a positive positioning control and shall be marked to indicate clearly which system is being used.

7.035 FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS - CONTROLLED OR NIGHT FLIGHT

No person shall operate an aircraft in controlled flight or night flight unless it' is equipped with the instruments required by Subsection 7.030 and -

(1) a gyroscopic rate-of-turn indicator; (2) a slip-skid indicator; (3) an attitude indicator (artificial horizon); and (4) a heading indicator (directional gyroscope).

(Note: These requirements may be met by combinations of instruments or integrated flight director systems provided that the safeguards against total feilure in three separate instruments are retained.)

7.040 FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS AND SYSTEM REQUIREMENTS FOR IFR

No person shall operate an aircraft in IFR unless it is equipped with the instruments required by Subsections 7.030 and 7.035 and -

( I ) an airspeed indicating system with a heated pilot tube or equivalent means of preventing malfunctions due to either condensation or icing; , .

(2) a vertical speed indicator; (3) for commercial air transport, a minimum of two sensitive pressure altimeters with counter

drum-pointer or equivalent presentation, except that domestic-only, commercial air transport single pilot operations in propeller driven aircraft of less than 5,700 kg (12,500 Ibs) maximum takeoff mass shall be equipped with at least one sensitive pressure altimeter;

(Note: Neither 3-pointer nor drum-pointer altimeters satisfy this requirement.)

(4) for commercial air transport, two independent static pressure systems except propeller driven aircraft of less than 5.700kg max takeoff mass in which case only one static pressure system which includes an alternate static source is required;

(5) a means of indicating whether the power supply to the gyroscopic instruments is adequate; (6) a means of indicating in the flight crew compartment the outside air temperature; and (7) an adequate source of electrical energy for all installed electrical and radio equipment that, for

commercial air transport shall include - (i) for multi-engine aircraft, at least two generators or alternators each of which Ison a

separate engine, of which any combination of one-half of the total number are rated sufficiently to supply the electrical loads of all required instrurnents and equipment necessary for safe emergency operation of the aircraft except that for multi-engine helicopters, the two required generators may be mounted on the main rotor drive train; and

(ii) two independent sources of energy (with means of selecting either) of which at least one is an engine-driven pump or generator, each of which is able to drive all required gyroscopic instruments powered by, or to be powered by, that particular source and installed so that failure of one instrument or source, does not interfere with the energy supply to the remaining instruments or the other energy source unless, for single-engine aircraft in cargo operations only, the rate of turn indicator has a source of energy separate from the bank and pitch and direction indicators.

(Note: For the purpose of this peragraph, for multi-engine aimran, each englne-driven source of energy must be on a different engine.)

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THE CIVIL A VIATION REGULATIONS, 2004 229

(Note: For the purpose of this paragraph, a continuous innight electrical load includes one that draws current continuously during flight, such as radio equipment, electfically dhen lnstnrments, and lights, but does not include occasional intermittent loads.)

7.043 &QUlREMElrrs FOR SINGLE PILOT IFR OR NIGHT OPERATIONS

AlrcraR approved to be flown by a single-pilot in IFR or night flight shall be equipped with:

(1) a sewiceable autopilot.that has at least altitude hold and heading select modes; _ (2) a headset with boom rnicmphone or equivalent; and (3) a means of displaying charts that enables them to be readable in all ambient light conditions.

7.045 INS~RUMENTS FOR OPERAT~ONS REQUIRING TWO PILOTS

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft in operations requiring two pilots unless each pilot's station has the following flight instruments -

,

(1) an airspeed indicator, (2) a sensitive press altimeter; (3) a vertical speed indicator; (4) a hrm and slip indicator (or tum coordinator); (5) an attitude indicator; and (6) a stabilized direction indicator.

(b) the SIC'S flight instruments shall meet the same requirements for markings, indications and illumination as those required for the PIC.

7.050 STWDBY AmTUDE INDICATOR - COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No person shall operate the following aircraft in commercial air transport unless they are equipped with a standby attitude indicator -

(1) an aircraft,having a maximum certificated takeoff mass of.more than 5,700 kg; or (2) an aircraft having a maximum approved passenger configuration of more than 9 passengers.

(b) This standby attitude indicator shall - (1) operate independently of any other attitude indicating system; (2) be powered continuously during normal operation; (3) after a told failure of the normal electrical generating system, be powered for a minimum of 30

minutes from a source independent of the normal electrical system; and (4) have an indication clearly evident to the night crew when the emergency power source is being

used.

Where this standby attitude indicator is usable through flight attitudes of 360 degrees of pitch and roll, it may be used as basis for not having a rate-of-turn gyroscopic instrument.

Where the standby attitude indicator has its own dedicated power supply there shall be an associated indication, either on the instrument or on the instrument panel when this supply is in Use.

No pe'rson shall operate an aircraft above FL 290 unless that aircraft is equipped with an autopilot capable of automatically maintaining a selected flight level.

No person shall operate an aircraft in airspace for which MNPS are prescribed unless that aircraft is equipped with an autopilot capable of receiving and automat~cally tracking the selected navigational equipment inputs.

For commercial air transport, no person shall operate an aeroplane with a single pilot under IFR unless that aeroplane is equipped with an autopilot with at least altitude hold and heading mode.



7.060 IFR HELICOPTER STABILIZATION SYSTEM FOR COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

No person shall operate a helicopter in IFR commercial air transport operations without a stabilization system, unless that helicopter was certificated by the State of Manufacture as having adequate stability without such a system.

7.065 EQUIPMENT FOR NIGHT FLIGHTS

No person shall operate an aircraft at night unless it is also equipped with properly installed - (1) aircraft navigation lights; (2) an anti-collision beacon; (3) a landing light (for helicopter operations, one landing light shall be trainable in the vertical

plane); (4) illumination for all instruments and equipment that are essential for the safe operation of the

aircraft by the flight crew; (5) a flashlight at each crewmember station; and (6) for international commercial air transport operations -

(i) lights in all passenger compartments; and (ii) two landing lights.

(Note: Aeroplanes which are equipped wifh a single landing light having two separately energized filaments will be in compliance with the two landing light requirement.)

7.067 EQUIPMENT FOR SPECIAL ALTlMETRY ACCURACY (RVSM)

No person shall operate an aircraft In RVSM airspace unless the aircraft is equipped with - (1) two independent altitude reporting systems; (2) an altitude alerting system; (3) an automatic altitude holding system; and (4) a transponder with altitude reporting capability which can be connected to the altitude holding

system.

No person shall operate an aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff mass of more than 5,700 kg (12.500 Ibs) unless it is equipped at each pilot station with a windshield wiper or equivalent means to clear a portion of the windshield during precipitation.

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft in icing conditions unless it is equipped with suitable anti-icing or de-icing devices adequate for flight in the conditions that are reported to exist or are expected to be encountered.

(b) The anti-icing or de-icing equipment shall provide for prevention or removal of ice on windshield. wings, empennage, propellers and other parts of the aeroplane where ice formation will adversely affect the safety of the aircraft.

(c) No person shall operate an aeroplane in expected or actual icing conditions at night unless 1 is e a ~ i ~ ~ e d with a means to illuminate or detect the formation of ice. This illumination must be of a Ge't'hat will not cause glare or reflections that would handicap crewmembers in the performance of their duties.

(a) Except as provided in the Tenth Schedule, Subsection 10.718 or unless operatlng in VMC, no person shall operate an aeroplane having a maximum approved passenger seating of more than nine seats in commercial air transport unless it has an approved weather radar or thunderstom detection device installed.

(b) Unless operating in VMC, no person shall operate an aeroplane having a maximum certificated

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takeoff mass of more than 5,700 kg (12,500 Ibs) in commercial air transport unless it has an approved weather radar installed.

(c) No person shall begin a commercial air transport passenger flight under IFR or night VFR, when current weather reports indicate that thunderstorms, or other potentially hazardous conditions that could be detected by the installed weather radar or thunderstorm detection device may reasonably be expected along the route, unless that equipment is operating satisfactorily.

(d) If the weather radar or thunderstorm detection device becomes inoperative on a commercial air transport passenger aircraft en route, the aircraft must be operated under the instructions and procedures specified in the AOC holder's Operations Manual.

(9) An alternate electrical power supply is not required for the weather radar or thunderstorm detection device.

No person shall operate a seaplane unless it is equipped with - (1) an anchor; (2) a sea anchor (drogue), to assist in manoeuvring; (3) two paddles to assist in manoeuvring the aircraft on the water without the aid of the engine, (4) a hand operated pump to withdraw water from the inside of the floats; (5) an air horn for making the sound s~gnals prescribed in the International Regulat~ons for

Preventing Collisions at Sea; and (6) individual flotation devices as required by 7.273.

(Note: Seaplanes" includes amphibians operated as seaplanes.)

SUBPART C: COMMUNICATIONS AND NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT

7.095 RADIO COMMUNICATION EQUIPMENT - GENERAL

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft that is not equipped with radio communications equipment - (1) in controlled flight; (2) under instrument flight rules; or (3) at night.

(b) The installed radio communications equipment shall be capable of conducting two-way radio communication -

(1) with the appropriate air traffic control service; (2) on the assigned frequencies; and (3) on the aeronautical emergency frequency 121.5 Megahertz.

(c) Aircraft operated under IFR will have two independent methods of receiving communications from air traffic service.

(d) Where more than one radio communications unit is required for the flight operation, each unit shall be independent of the other or others to the extent that a failure in any one will not result in fallure of any other.

(e) No person shall operate an aircraft in IFR operations requiring two pilots unless ~t is equipped with an audio selector panel accessible to both pilots.

(9 Each person operating an aircraft that does not have the required radio communication equipment shall obtain prior permission before operating in airspace requiring such equipment.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this Subsection, no person shall operate an aircraft in commercial air transport unless equipped with two independent radio communications equipment lnstallatlons which, for the route and airspace flown, are capable of conducting two-way radio



communication at any time during flight with - (1) at least one aeronautical station; and (2) any other aeronautical stations and frequencies which may be prescribed by the appropriate

authority of the area being navigated.

(b) No person shall operate an aircrafl in commercial air transport unless equ~pped with radlo communicat~ons equipment capable of receiving meteorological information at any time during the flight.

(c) An aircraft operated in dCmestic commercial air transport, VFR-only operations, shall be equipped with at least one radio communications equipment installation, capable of conducting two-way radio communication at any time during flight with the stations identified in paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this subsection.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this Subsection, no person shall operate an aircraft in commercial air transport unless there is a boom or throat microphone available at each required flight crewmember duty station.

(b) No person shall operate an aircraft with a single pilot under IFR or at night in commercial air transport unless that aircraft is equipped with a headset with a boom microphone or equivalent and a transmit button on the control wheel.

(c) Until March 1, 2006, an aircraft 'operated in domestic commercial air transport, VFR-only operations may be equipped with a communications handset in heu of a boom microphone.

7.110 ALTITUDE REPORTING TRANSPONDER

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft in airspace that requires a pressure altitude reporting . .

transponder unless that equipment is operative.

(b) No person shall operate an aircraft at altitudes above FL 290 unless it is equipped with a system that automatically reports pressure altitudes.

(c) For commercial air transport, no person shall operate an aircraft in commercial air transport unless it is equipped with a pressure-altitude reporting transponder that operates in accordance with the requirements of the appropriate air traffic service requirements.

7.11 5 NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT - GENERAL

(a) No person shall operate an aircrafl unless it is equipped with navigation equipment that will enable it to proceed in accordance with -

(1) the flight plan; (2) prescribed RNP (required navigational performance) types; and (3) the requirements of air traffic services.

(Note: Navigation under VFR may be accomplished without navigation equipment, by visual reference to landmarks, if not precluded by the appropriate authority for the route and airspace.)

(b) No person shall operate an aircraft unless that aircraft is equipped with sufficient navigation equipment to ensure that, in the event of failure of one item of equipment at any stage of the flight, the remaining equipment will enable the aircrafl to continue navigating in accordance with the requirements of this Schedule.

(c) Every radio navigation system shall have an independent antenna installation, except that, where rigidly supported non-wire antenna installations of equivalent reliability are used, only one antenna is required.

(d) No person shall operate navigation equipment predicated on a database management system unless approved by the Authority. The procedures required to be followed to ensure the tlmely distribution and insertion of current and unaltered electronic navigation data to all aircraft that require it shall be published in the operator's Operations Manual andlor Maintenance Control

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Manual. The operator shall establish, as part of its quality assurance programme, a method of ensuring both process and products for its navigation equipment.

(e) No person shall use navigation equipment predicated on electronic navigation data unless that data is current and appropriate for the routes flown and aerodromes used.

7.120 SPECIAL NAVIGATION ACCURACY (RNP AND MNPS)

(a) For flights in defined portions of airspace where MNPS or RNP are prescribed, the navigational equipment shall continuously provide indications to the flight crew of the adherence to or ,. departure from track to the required degree of accuracy at any point along that track.

(b) No person shall operate an aircraft where MNPS are prescribed, unless it is equipped with - (1) for unrestricted operations, two independent long range navigation systems; or (2) for notified special routes, one long range navigation system.

(c) The navigation equipment required for operations in MNPS airspace shall be visible and usable by either pilot seated at their duty stations.

7.125 NAVIGATION EQUIPMENT - IFR APPROACH

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft In situations that would require a landing approach to an airport in IMC unless that aircraft is equipped with the appropriate radio equipment required to accomplish the published instrument approach for the planned destination and alternate airports.

(b) The navigation equipment installed on the aircraft shall be capable of receiving signals providing guidance to a point from which a visual landing can be made.

SUBPART D: WARNING EQUIPMENT AND INDICATORS

(a, No person shall operate a turbojet aircraft unless it is equipped with an installed aural mach overspeed warning.

(b) Pressurized aeroplanes intended to be operated at flight altitudes at which the atmospheric pressure is less than 376 hPa (25,000 ft) shall be equipped with a device to provide positlve warning to the flight crew of any dangerous loss of pr$ssurization.

(c) No person shall operate an aircraft of more than 5.700 kg (12,500 Ibs) certificated takeoff mass in commercial air transport without a means of indicating pitot heater failure.

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft with retractable landing gear unless it is equipped with an aural warning device that functions continuously anytime the landing gear is not fully extended and locked and the wing-flap setting exceeds the position -

(1) specified in the AFM for maximum certificated approach climb configuration; or (2) where landing gear extension is normally performed.

(b) This warning system - (1) shall not have a manual shutoff; (2) must be in addition to any throttle-actuated device; and (3) may utilize any part of the throttle-actuated device.

7.140 ALTITUDE ALERTING SYSTEM

(a) No person shall operate the following aircraft unless it is equipped with an altitude alerting system- . ,.'

( I ) a turbojet powered aeroplane; or (2) a turbine powered aeroplane -

(i) having a maximum approved passenger seating of more than nine seats; or (ii) with a certificated takeoff mass of more than 5.700 kg (1?,500 lbs)

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(b) The alt~tude aiertmg system will be capable of alertmg the flight crew - (1) upon approachmg a pre-selected altitude In e~ther ascent or descent: and (2) by at least an aural s~gnal, when deviatmg above or below a pre-selected altitude

(c) The threshold for the alert shall not exceed plus or minus 90 m.

7.145 GROUND PROXIMIM WARNING SYSTEM

(a) No person shall operate turbine powered aircraft unless they are equipped with a ground proximity warning system, if the aircraft has a maximum -

(1) approved passenger seating of more than nine seats; or (2) certificated takeoff mass of more than 5.700 kg (12.500 Ibs).

(b) The ground proximity warning system must automatically provide by means of aural signals, which may be supplemented by visual signals, a timely and distinctive warning to the flight crew of -

(1) excessive descent rate; (2) excessive terrain closure rate; (3) excessive altitude loss after takeoff or go-around; (4) unsafe terrain clearance while not in landing configuration -

(i) gear not locked down; and (ii) flaps not in landing position; and

(5) excessive descent below the instrument glide path. After April 1. 2005, all turbine-engine powered aeroplanes with a certificated takeoff gross weight of 30,000 kg or a capacity of more than 50 passengers, shall be equipped with a GPWS that has a timely and distinctive predictive terrain hazard warning function.

After January 1. 2007, all turbine powered arcraft w~th a certified takeoff gross weight of greater than 5,700 kg (12.500 Ibs), or arcraft certif~ed for more than 9 passengers be~ng flown on international fl~ghts shall be equ~pped w~th GPWS which has a forward looking terrain avoidance funct~on.

AIRBORNE COLLISION AVOIDANCE SYSTEM (ACAS)

No person may operate a turbine-engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 15.000kg (33,070 Ibs) or authorized to carry more than 30 passengers that is not equipped with an airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS 11).

After January 1.2005, no person shall operate a turbine engine aeroplane with a maximum certificated takeoff mass in excess of 5,700 kg (12.500 Ibs) or,authorized to carry more than 19 passengers, unless it is equipped with an ACAS 11.

RADIATION INDICATOR - COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

No person shall operate an aeroplane above 15,000 m (49,000 fl) unless that aircraft is equipped with equipment to measure and indicate continuously -

( I ) cumulative dose on each flight. (2) the dose rate of total cosmlc radiation being received (i.e. the total of ionizing and neutron

radiation of galactic and solar or~gin; and (3) the display unit of the radiation equipment shall be readily v~sible to a flight crewmember.

SUBPART E: RECORDERS

The flight recorders shall be constructed, located and installed so as to provide maximum practical protection for the recorders in order that the recorded information may be presenred, recovered and transcribed.

The flight recorders shall be checked daily and inspected annually in accordance with ICAO

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Annex 6, Attachment B (as amended)

(c) To facilitate location and identification in case of an accident, the cockpit voice recorder shall - (1) be constructed, located and installed so as to provide maximum practical protection for the

recordings in order that the recorded information may be preserved, recovered and ' transcribed; (2) be either bright orange or bright yellow; (3) have reflective tape affixed to the external surface to facilitate its location under water; and (4) have an approved underwater locating device on or adjacent to the recorder, which is secured

in such a manner that it is not likely to be separated during a crash impact.

(d) Flight recorders shall meet the prescribed crashworthiness and fire protection specifications

(e) Flight recorders shall record in a digital mode

(f) An aircraft required to have both CVR and FDR may alternatively be equipped with - (1) a single combination (CVWFDR) recorder, for aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff

mass of 5.700 kg (12.500 Ibs) or less; or (2) two combination (CVWFDR) recorders, for aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff mass of

more than 5,700 kg (12,500 Ibs).

(a) No person shall operate the following aircraft unless it is equipped with a voice recorder system to record the aural environment of the flight deck during flight time -

(1) all aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff mass of more than 27.000 kg (59.520 Ibs); (2) a turbine powered aeroplane operated in commercial air transport -

(i) having a maximum approved passenger seating of more than nine seats; or (ii) with a certificated takeoff mass of more than 5.700 kg (12,500 Ibs).

(3) a helicopter operated in commercial air transport with a certificated takeoff mass of over - (i) 7,000 kg (15,430 Ibs); or (ii) for international commercial air transport, 2,700 kg (5.950 Ibs).

(b) A CVR shall be capable of retaining the information recorded'during at least the last - (1) 30 minutes; or (2) 2 hours, for aeroplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 5,700 kg (12.500 Ibs) for

. . that receiver type certificated after January I, 2003.

(a) All aeroplanes that utilize data link communications and are required to carry a CVR, shall record on a flight recorder, all data link communications to and from the aeroplane. This requirement is effective -

(1) January 1. 2005, for aircraft for which the initial Certificate of Airworthiness is issued after this date; and

(2) January 1.2007, for all applicable aircrafl.

(b) The minimum recording duration shall be equal to the duration of the CVR, and shall be carrelated to the recorded cockpit audio.

(c) The recording shall contain sufficient information to derive the content of the data link communications message and, whenever practical, the time the message was displayed to or generated by the crew shall be recorded.

7.175 FLIGHT DATA RECORDERS

(a) No person shall operate the following aircrafl unless it is equipped with the appropriate FDR system to record the flight parameters for accident and incident analysis unless otherwise prescribed by the Authority -

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(1) all multi-engine turbojet aeroplanes with a certificated takeoff weight of less than 5,700 kg , (12.500 Ibs) shall be equipped with a Type IIA FDR;

(2) all aeroplanes with a certificated takeoff weight of more than 5,700 kg, up to and including 27,000 kg (59,520 Ibs), shall be equipped with a Type II FDR;

(3) all turbine-engined aeroplanes of a maximum certificated take-off mass of over 27.000 kg (59,520 Ibs) that are of types of which the prototype was certificated by the appropriate national authority after September 30, 1969 shall be equipped with a Type II FDR;

(4) all aeroplanes with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of over 27,000 kg (59,520 Ibs) shall be equipped with a Type I FDR;

(5) all aeroplanes with a gross takeoff weight of more than 5.700 kg (12,500 Ibs) that receive original type certif~cation after January 1, 2005 shall be equipped with a Type IA FDR; and

(6) all helicopters operated in commercial alr transport with a certificated takeoff mass of over 7.000 kg (15,430 Ibs) shall have at least a Type IV FDR.

(b) The Authority has prescribed the minimum parameters that shall be recorded by a FDR.

See Appendix 1 to .7.175 for the parameters that must be monitored by a Type I and Type I1 FDR.

(c) FDRs shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least the last - (1) Type I and II - 25 hours of operation; (2) Type IIA - 30 minutes of operation; and (3) Type IV and V - 10 hours of operations.

(d) The FDR mediums not acceptable for use in aircraft registered in Jamaica, or operated by AOC holders of Jamaica are -

(1) engraving metal fo~l; (2) photographic film; or (3) analogue data using frequency modulation.

SUBPART F: CREW PROTECTION EQUIPMENT

7.178 SECURITYOF THE FLIGHT DECK

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft having a maximum seating capacity of more than 19 passengers unless there is installed a door, lockable from within the flight deck only, to restrict entry to the flight deck.

(b) No person shall operate an aircraft having a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 45.500 kg (100.300 Ibs). or having a maximum seating capacity greater than sixty (60) passengers, unless that aircraft is equipped with -

(1) an approved flight compartment door that is designed to resist penetration by small arms fire and by grenade shrapnel, and with an installation able to resist forcible intrusion by unauthorized persons. This door shall be capable of being locked and unlocked from either pilot's station.

(2) a means of monitoring, from either pilot's station, the entire door area outside the flight crew compartment in order to identify persons requesting entry and to detect suspicious behaviour or potential threat.

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft unless there is an operational safety harness installed for each required flight crewmember.

(b) The safety harness shall incorporate a device that will automatically restrain the occupant's torso in the event of a rapid deceleration.

7.181 QUICK DONNING TYPE OXYGEN MASK

No person shall operate a pressurized aircraft at altitudes above 25.000 feet unless there is available at each flight crew duty station a quick donning type of oxygen mask that will readily supply oxygen upon



demand.

7.182 CBIN CREW SEATS AND SAFETY HARNESS

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft for which a cabin attendant(s) is required unless each seat provided is -

(1) forward or rearward facing (within 15 degrees of the longitudinal axis of the aircraft);

(2) designed to at least meet the inertial load factors established under the original type certification basis of the aeroplane; and

(3) fitted with a seat belt and safety harness

(b) To facilitate emergency evacuation, each seat shall be located at floor level in the passenger compartment, adjacent to floor level emergency exits or, because of exit type and distribution or the access to the communication system, at some other approved exit.

(c) Each seat shall provide access to the communication system when the flight attendant is seated unless the original type certification basis of the aeroplane established different communication system and flight attendant seat installation requirements.

(d) Each seat shall be positioned so that the seat will not interfere with the passageway or exit when the seat is not in use.

7.183 PROTECTIVE BREATHING EQUIPMENT(PBE)

(a) No person shall operate the following aircraft in commercial air transport, unless it is equipped with a PBE to protect the eyes, nose and mouth of all required crewmembers and provide oxygen or breathing gas for a period not less than 15 minutes -

(1) an aircraft with a maximum certified takeoff mass of more than 5,700 kg (12.500 Ibs); or

(2) an aircraft with a maximum seating capacity of more than 19 seats.

(b) Protective breathing equipment shall be conveniently located and easily accessible from each required duty station.

(c) PBE shall be available for use by crewmembers in combatting fires, as follows - (1 ) one unit for use in each cargo compartment that is accessible to crewmembers in the cabin

during flight; (2) one unit for each hand-held fire extinguisher located in each isolated galley; .

(3) one unit on the flight deck; (4) one unit located within one metre of each hand-held fire extinguisher required in the passenger

compartment, except if the Authority has authorized the location of protective breathing equipment more than one metre from each hand-held fire extinguisher where special circumstances exist that make compliance with this subparagraph impractical and that location provides an equivalent level of safety; and

(5) ihe number of units of protective breathing equipment used to satisfy the requirements of this paragraph shall not be less than the minimum number of flight attendants required for the flight.

(d) The PBE for each cabin attendant shall be portable.

(e) The PBE, while in use, shall not prevent required communication.

(f) For cargo aircraft, a PBE shall not be located in the cargo compartment, but immediately prior to entry into that compartment, and near a required fire extinguisher.

SUBPART G: PASSENGER RELATED EQUIPMENT

7.185 PASSENGER SEAfS AND SEAT BELfS

No person shall operate an aircraft carrying passengers unless it is equipped with

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(1) an approved seat or berth for each occupant on board who has reached their second birthday, (2) a seat belt for each seat and a restraining belt for each berth; and (3) a seat belt referred to in sub-paragraph (2) shall include a latching device of the metal-to-metal

type.

7.186 RESWNT SYSTEM REQUIREMENTS

No person shall operate an aircraft canying passengers without being equipped in+ccordance with Subsection 7.185 by a restraint system that is secured to the primary structure of the aircraft and is provided for each person who is -

(1) carried on a stretcher or in an incubator or other similar device; or (2) carried in a child restraint system that meets the requirements of the Authority.

7.190 PASSENGER INFORMATION

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft having an approved passenger seating configuration of more than 9 passengers unless it is equipped with at least one passenger information sign notifying when -

(1) safety belts should be fastened; and (2) smoking is prohibited.

(b) These signs shall be so constructed that a crewmember can turn them on and off from a duty station.

(c) There shall be sufficient signs located in the passenger cabin so that, when illuminated, they will be legible to each passenger under all probable conditions of cabin illumination.

7.195 PUBLIC ADDRESS SYSTEM

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft with a maximum approved seating configuration of more than 19 passengers unless it is equipped with a public address system.

(b) This public address system shall be - (I) audible and intelligible at all passenger seats, to~lets and cabin crew duty and work stations; (2) capable of operation within 10 seconds by any required crewmember; and (3) accessible by at least one seated crewmember at each separate or pair of floor level

emergency exits.

7.200 INTERPHONE SYSTEMS

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft on which a flight crew of more than one is rewired unless it is eqiipped with a flight deck interphone system, including headsets and microphones, which provide audible and intelligible commun~cations between the required crewmembers.

(b) No person shall operate an aircraft having a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of more than 19 passenaers unless ~t is eauioped with a crewmember interphone svstem which provides for sig&lling and two-way comm~k~ations between all required crewmembers.

(c) This crewmember interphone system required by Subsection 7.200 (b) shall - (1) be capable of operation independently of the public address system; (2) be capable of operation within 10 seconds by any required crewmember. including those at . . . . .

remote work stations; (3) be accessible by at least one seated crewmember at each separate or pair of floor level.

emergency exits; (4) have a signalling capability which provides for differentiation between normal and emergency

calls; and (5) provide, on the ground, a means of two-way communication between ground perscnnel and at

least two flight crewmembers.

7.205 MEGAPHONES - COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

I (a) No person shall operate an aircraft carrying more than 59 passengers in commercial air transoort

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unless it is equipped with the required number of battery-powered megaphones readily accessible to the crewmembers assigned to direct emergency evacuation.

(b) The required number and locaiion of megaphones are - (1) . for an aircraft with a seating capacity of 60 to 99 passengers - one megaphone at the most

rearward location readily accessible to a cabin attendant duty station; (2) for an aircraft with more than 99 passengers - an additional megaphone installed at the forward

end of the passenger compartment readily accessible to a cabin attendant duty station.

(a) No person shall operate an aircrafl carrying passengers unless it has adequate emergency exit provisions for emergency evacuations and ditching.

(b) Each passenger emergency exit (other than over-the-wing) that is more than 6 feet from the ground with the aeroplane on the ground and the landing gear extended, shall have an approved means to assist the occupants in descending to the ground.

(c) Each passenger emergency exit, its means of access and its means of opening shall be conspicuously marked both inside and outside.

(d) The location of each passenger emergency exit shall be indicated by a sign visible to occupants approaching along the main passenger aisle.

(e) Each passenger-carrying aeroplane shall be equipped with a slip-resistant escape route that meets the requirements under which that aeroplane was type-certificated.

(See Appendix 1 to 7.210 for specific requirements regarding these standards.)

No penon shall conduct any passenger-carrying operation unless it has - (1) a key for each door that separates a passenger compartment from another compartment that

has emergency exit provisions;

(Note: The key shall be readily available for each crewinember.)

(2) a means for the crew. In an emergency, to unlock each door that leads to a compartment lhat is normally accessible to passengers and that can be locked by passengers; and

(3) a placard on each door used to access a requ~red passenger emergency exrt, indicating that such door shall be open dur~ng takeoff and landlng

7.220 MATERIALS FOR CABIN INTERIORS

(a) upon the first major overhaul of an aeroplane cabin or refurbishing of the cabin interior. all materials in each compartment used by the crew or passengers lhat do no1 meet the current airworthiness requirements pertaining to materials used in the interior of the cabin for type certification in the transport category as cited by the Authority, shall be replaced with materials that meet the requirements specified by the Authority.

(b) Seat cushions, except those on flight crewmember seals, in any compartment occupied by crew or passengers shall meet requirements pertalnlng lo fire protection as specifled by the Authority.

7.225 MATERIALS FOR CARGO AND BAGGAGE COMPARTMENTS Each Class C or D cargo compartment greater than 200 cubic feet in volume in a transport category aeroplane type certified afler January 1, 1958 shall have ceillng and sidewall liner panels which are constructed of -

(1) glass fibre reinforced resln, (2) materials which meet the test requirements for flame resistance of cargo compartment liners

as prescribed for type certlhcatlon, or (3) In the case of installations approved prior to March 20, 1989. alum~nlum.

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(Note: The term "liner" includes any design feature, such as a joint or fastener, which would affect the capability of the liner to safely contain fire.)

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft with a maximum approved passenger configuration of more than nineteen passengers unless it is equipped with an emergency lighting system that is independent of the main lighting system.

(b) The emergency lighting system must - (1) illuminate each passenger exit marking and locating sign; (2) provide enough general lighting in the passenger cabin; and (3) include floor proximity emergency escape path marking.

SUBPART H: EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

Each item of emergency and flotation equipment shall be - (1) readily accessible to the crew and with regard to equipment located in the passenger

compartment, to passengers without appreciable time for preparatory procedures; (2) clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation; (3) marked as to date of last inspection; (4) marked as to contents when carried in a compartment or container; and (5) properly secured in its stowage area.

7.240 FIRST AD KIT

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with at least the minimum number of accessible first aid kits and contents specified as follows -

Number of passenger seats installed ' .

0 to 99

100 to 199

200 to 299

300 and more

Number of first-aid kits required

(b) The installed first aid kit shall contain the minimum contents specified by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 7.240 to determine the required contents of the first aid kit.)

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft authorized to carry more than 250 passengers unless it has a properly installed medical kit for the use of the medical doctors or other qualified persons in treating in-flight medical emergencies.

(b) The installed medical kit shall contain the minimum contents specified by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 7.245 to determine the required contents of the medical kit.)

7.250 PORTABLE FIRE EXTINGUISHERS

(a) No person shall operate an aircraft unless it has the minimum number of portable fire

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extinguishers of a type which, when discharged, will not cause dangerous contamination of the air within the aeroplane. The type and quantity of extinguishing agent shall be suitable for the kinds of fires likely to occur in the compartment where the extinguisher is ~ntended to be used.

(Note: For passenger compartments, the extinguisher shall be designed to minimise the hazard of toxic gas concentrations.)

(b) The minimum number of portable fire extinguishers and their location shall be - (1) one properly installed in the pilot's compartment; (2) at least one portable fire extinguisher shall be provided and conveniently located for use in

each Class E cargo compartment that is accessible to crewmembers during flight, and at least one shall be located in each upper and lower lobe galley; and

(3) one properly installed in each passenger compartment that is separate from the pilot's compartment and that is not readily accessible to the flight crew.

(Note: Any portable fire extinguisher so fRed in accordance with the Certificate of Airworthiness of a helicopter may count as one of the required extinguishers.)

(4) at least one portable fire extinguisher shall be conveniently located in the passenger compartment of aeroplanes having a passenger seating capacity of 30 or less. For each aeroplane having a passenger seating capacity of more than 30, there shall be at least the following number of portable fire extinguishers conveniently located and uniformly distributed throughout the compartment -

r ~ i n i m u m Number of Hand Flre Extinguishers 11

(5) at least two hand-held fire extinguishers shall contain the equivalent to Halon 121 1 (br6mochlorodifluoromethane).

(a) No person shall operate a passenger carrying aircraft of more than 5,700 kg (12,500 Ibs) maximum certificated takeoff mass unless each lavatory is equipped with a built-in fire extinguisher for the wastepaper disposal.

(b) This built-in fire extinguisher must be designed to discharge automatically into each disposal receptacle upon the occurrence of a fire in the receptacle.

No person'shell operate a passenger carrying aircraft of more than 5.700 kg (12,500 Ibs) maximum certificated takeoff mass unless each lavatory in the aeroplane is equipped with a smoke detector system that provides -

(1) a warning light in the flight deck; or (2) a warning light or audio warning in the passenger cabin, taking into account the position of the

cabin attendants during various phases of flight.

' 7.265 CWH AXE - COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

No person shall operate en aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff mass of more than 5,700 kg (12,500 Ibs) unless it is equipped with a crash axe appropriate for effective use in that aircraft and

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stowed so as not to be accessible to passengers while in flight.

7.268 FLASHLIGHTS

(a) No person shall operate a passenger carrying aircraft unless the aircraft is equipped with flashlight stowage provisions that are accessible from each required flight attendant seat.

(b) No person shall operate a passenger carrying aircraft unless each flight attendant required to be on board the aircraft has a flashlight readily available for use.

7.270 OXYGEN STORAGE AND DISPENSING APPARATUS

(a) All aircraft intended to be operated at altitudes requiring the use of supplemental oxygen shall be equipped with adequate oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus.

(b) The oxygen apparatus, the minimum rate of oxygen flow and the supply of oxygen shall meet applicable airworthiness standards for type certification in the transport category as specified by the Authority.

(c) No AOC holder shall operate an aeroplane at altitudes above 10,000 feet unless it is equipped with oxygen masks, located so as to be within the immediate reach of flight crewmembers while at their assigned duty station.

(d) No person shall operate a pressurized aeroplane at altitudes above 25.000 feet unless - '

(1) flight crewmember oxygen masks are of a quick donning type; (2) sufficient spare outlets and masks andlor sufficient portable oxygen units with masks are

distributed evenly throughout the cabin to ensure immediate availability of oxygen to each required cabin crewmember regardless of his location at the time of cabin pressurisation failure; and

(3) an oxygen-dispensing unit connected to oxygen supply terminals is installed so as to be automatically deployed and immediately available to each occupant, wherever seated. The total number of dispensing units and outlets shall exceed the number of seats by at least 10%. , The extra units are to be evenly distributed throughout the chbin.

(e) The amount of suppl~mental oxygen for sustenance required for a particular operation shall be determined on the basis of flight altitudes and flight duration, consistent with the operating procedures established for each operation in the Operations Manual and with the routes to be fl?wn, and with the emergency procedures specified in the Operations Manual.

(f) Supplemental oxygen bottles required by passengers for medical reasons shallbe supplied by the air operator and must be properly secured in the cabin for all phases of the ground operation and in flight.

(See kppendix I and Appendix 2 to 7.270 to determine the amount of supplemental oxygen needed for non-pressurized and pressurized aircraft.)

(a) No person shalloperate an aircraft on the following flights unless it is equipped with one life jacket or equivalent individual flotation device for each person on board -

(1) for multi-engine aircraft capable of maintaining flight in the event of a failure of one engine; (2) while operating over water at a distance of more than 50 nm from a shoreline; or (3) for all other aircraft, while operating beyond gliding distance from a shoreline.

(b) All life jackets or equivalent individual flotation devices shall be stowed in a position easily accessible from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided. ,

(c) For all fl~ghts in which a hfe jacket or equivalent individual flotation device is required, such l i e jacket or equivalent individual flotation device shall be fitted with an approved survivor locator light and a whistle.

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7.275 LIFE RAFTS

(a) Within the airspace of Jamaica, no person shall operate a single engine or restricted-performance , multi-engine aircraft carrying passengers in commercial air transport outside of gliding or autorotation distance from land unless it is equipped with life rafls in sufficient number to accommodate all of the persons on board in the event of ditching.

(b) No person shall operate an aircraft other than designated in paragraph (a) unless it is equipped with life rafts in sufficient number to accommodate all of the persons on board In the event of ditching when the route of flight will be over water for -

(1) 120 minutes at cruising speed or 400 nautical miles, whichever is lesser. for multi-engine aircraft capable of continuing the flight to an airport with the critical power unit(s) becommg Inoperative at any point along the route or planned diversions;

(2) 30 minutes at cruising speed or 100 naut~cal miles, whichever is lesser, for multi-engine aircrafl not capable of continumg the flight to an airport with the critical power unit(s) becoming inoperative at any point along the route or planned diversions; or

(3) 15 minutes or the time to descend from cruise altitude to sea level In the event of an englne failure, whichever is greater, for all other aircraft.

(c) For commercial air transpod passenger-carrying operations in aircraf7 of more than 5,700 kg (12,500 Ibs), the buoyancy and seating capacity of the rafts must accommodate all occupants of the aircraft in the event of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity.

(d) For commercial air transpod passenger-carrying operations in helicopters, 50% of all required rafts (where the quantity is two or more) will have a means of deployment by remote control.

(e) The required life rafts and associated equipment must be easily accessible in the evknt of ditching without appreciable time for preparatory procedures. This equipment must be installed in . . conspicuously marked, approved locations.

Lie rafts which are not deployable by remote control and which have a mass of more than 40 kg (88 Ibs) shall be equipped with some means of mechanically assisted deployment.

SURVIVAL KIT

No person shall operate an aircraft over designated.land areas where search and rescue would be especially difficult without carrying life saving equipment including means of sustaining life.

No person shall operate over water at distances that require the carriage of life rafts unless each raft is equipped with life saving equipment including means of sustaining life.

The survival kit shall contain the minimum contents specified by the Authority.

No person shall operate an aircraft over designated land areas where search and rescue would be especially difficult without carrying devices to make the necessary ground-to-air emergency . signals to facilitate rescue.

No person shall operate over water at a distance that requires the carriage of life rafts unless each raft contains the equipment for making the necessary pyotechnical distress signals.

The devices for emergency signalling shall be acceptable to the Authority.

EMERGENCY LOCATOR TRANSMI~ER (ELT) No person shall operate an aircraft over water at distances that require the carriage of hfe rafts unless that aircraft is equipped with at least two ELTs, one of which shall be an automatically activated ELT.

No person shall operate an aircraft over designated land areas where search and rescue would be especially difficult unless it is equipped with at least one automatically activated ELT.

No person shall operate an aircraft over water at distances that require the carnage of life rafts unless it is equipped with a survival type ELT for the life raft. In situations requiring two or more

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THE CIVIL.AVIATI0N REGULATIONS, 2004

life rafts, only two survival-type ELTs are required to be carried on the aircraft.

(d) The expirat~on date for a replacement or recharged ELT battery shall be legibly marked on the outside of the transmitter. Batteries used in ELTs shall be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable) when -

(1) the transmitter has been in use for more than one cumulative hour; or (2) 50 percent of their useful life (or for rechargeable batteries, 50 percent of their useful life of

charge) has expired.

(Note: The battery useful life (or useful life of charge) requirements do not apply to batteries (such as water-activated batteries) that are essentially unaffected during probable storage intervals.)

7.295 HELICOPTER EMERGENCY FLOTATION MEANS

No person shall operate a helicopter intentionally over water unless it has a properly installed permanent or rapidly deployable means of flotation to ensure a safe ditching of the helicopter when the flight is -

(1) more than 10 minutes from shore, in the case of hehcopters capable of sustained flight with one engine inoperative; or

(2) beyond autorotational or gliding distance to shore, in the case of singleengine helicopters.

No person shall operate an aircraft for which areas of the fuselage suitable for break-in for rescue in an emergency are marked unless those markings correspond to the following figure and meet the following requirements -

(1) the colour of the markings shall be red or yellow, and if necessary, they shall be outlined in white to contrast with the background; and

(2) if the corner markings arc more than 2 m apart, intermediate lines 9 cm x 3 cm shall be inserted so that there is no more than 2 m between adjacent markings.

(Note: This regulation does not require any aircrafl to have break-in areas.)

7.305 FIRST AID OXYGEN DISPENSING UNITS

(a) No AOC holder shall conduct a passenger carrying operation in a pressurized aeroplane unless it is equipped with -

(1) undiluted first-aid oxygen for passengers who, for physiological reasons, niay require oxygen following a cabin depressurization; and

(2) when a cabin crewmember is carried, a sufficient number of dispensing units, but in no case less than two, with a means for cabin crew to use the supply. .

(b) The amount of first-aid oxygen required in paragraph (a) for a particular operation and route shall be determined on the basis of -

(1) flight duration afler cabin depressurisation at cabin altitudes of more than 8,000 feet; (2) an average flow rate of at least 3 litres Standard Temperature Pressure Dry1 minutelperson;

and (3) at least 2% of the passengers carried, but in no case for less than one person.

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APPENDICES

APPENDIX 1 TO 7.175: PARAMETERS FOR FLIGHT DECK RECORDERS The following table summarizes the parameters prescribed by the Authority and shall be recorded in Type I, IA. 11, IIA, IV, IVA and,V FDR.s -

(1) the parameters without an asterisk are mandatory parameters that shall be recorded regardless of aircraft complexity.

(2) those parameters designated by an asterisk (*) are to be recorded if an information source for the parameter is used by the aircraft systems andlor flight crew toeperate the aircraft.

TYPE OF FLIGHT DATA RECORDER:

Requirements for FLIGHT PATH AND

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246 THE CIVIL A VIA TION R E G U L A T I O N 2004

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Gearbox 011 temperature" main gearbox oil temperature, ~ntermediate gearbox oil temperature, tail rotor gearbox oil temperature Eng~ne exhaust gas temperature (T4)' Turbme mlet temperature (TIT)' Requirements for CONFIGURATION:

X X

X X


Each navigation receiver frequency selectton

Hydraulics low pressure

Stability augmentation system engagement'

Indicated sling load force'

Altitude rate'

Ice detector liquid water content'

TYPE OF FLIGHT DATA RECORDER:

Helicopter health and usage monitor system (HUMS)': engine, data chip detectors, track timing, exceedance discretes, broadband average engine vibration

Manual radio transmission keying and CVRIFDR synchronization reference

AutopiloVautothrottlelAFCS mode and engagement status'

Selected barometric setting*: pilot, first officer

Selected altitude (all pilot selectable modes of operation)'

Selected speed (all pilot selectable modes of operation)'

Selected Mach (all pilot selectable modes of operation)'

Selected vertical speed (all pilot selectable modes of operation)'

Selected heading (all pilot selectable modes of operation)'

Selected flight path (all pilot selectable modes of operation)': courselDSTRK, path angle

Selected decision height'

EFlS display format*: pilot, first officer

Multi-functionlenginelalerts display format'

GPWS/TA WWGCAS status': selection of terrain display mode including pop-up display status, terrain alerts, both cautions and warnings, and advisories, onloff switch position

Low pressure warning*: hydraulic pressure. pneumatic pressure

Computer failure'

Loss of cabin pressure

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. 248 THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

(a ) The assisting means for a floor level emergency exit shall meet the requirements under whlch the aeroplane was type cert~f~ed.

perational stall protection, stick shaker and

. (b) The location of each passenger emergency exit shall be - '.

(I) recognisable from a distance equal to the width of the cabin; .

(2) indicated by a sign visible to occupants approaching along the main passenger aisle.

(c) There shall be an emergency exit locating sign - (1) above the aisle near each over-the-wing passenger emergency exit, orat another ceiling

location if it is more practical because of low headroom; (2) next to each floor level passenger emergency exit, except that one sign'kay serve two ~ u c h

exits if they both can be seen readily from that sign; and (3) on each bulkhead or divider that prevents fore and aft vision along the passenger cabin, to

indicate emergency exits beyond and obscured by it, except that if this is not possible, the sign

Date'

Event Marker*

Head-up display in use*

Para visual display on'

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. .

X

X

X

X

. .


may be placed at another appropriate location.

Each passenger emergency exit marking and each locating sigri shall be manufactured to meet the interior emergency exit marking requirements under which the aeroplane was type certified. unless the Authority cites different requirements for compliance with this paragraph.

(Note: NO sign shell continue to be used if its luminescence (bnghtness) decreases to below 250 micmlemberts.)

Sources of general cabin illumination may be common to both the emergency and the main lighting systems if the power supply to the emergency light system is independent of the power supply to the main lighting system.

The emergency lighting system shall provide enough general lighting in the passenger cabic so that the average illumination, when measured at 40-inch intervals at seat armrest height, on the centerline of the main passenger aisle, is at least 0.05 foot-candles.

Each emergency light shall - (1) be operable manually both from the flight crew station and from a point in the passenger

compartment that is readily accessible to a normal flight attendant seat; (2) have a means to.prevent inadvertent operation of the manual controls; (3) h e n armed or turned on at either station, remain lighted or become lighted upon interruption

of the aeroplane's normal electric power; (4) provide, the required level of illumination for at least 10 minutes at the critical ambient

conditions after emergency landing; and (5) have a cockpit control device that has an "on", " o r , and "armed" position.

(h) The location of each passenger emergency exit operating handle and instructions for opening the exit shall be shown in accordance with the requirements under which the aeroplane was type certified, unless the Authority cites different requirements for compliance with this paragraph.

(i) No operating handle or operating handle cover shall continue to be used if its luminescence (brightness) decreases to below 100 microlamberts.

(j) Access to emergency exits shall be provided as follows for each passenger carrying aeroplane - (1) each passageway between individual passenger areas, or leading to a Type I or Type II

emergency exit, shall be unobstructed and at least 20 inches wide; (2) ' there shall be enough space next to each Type I or Type II emergency exit to allow a

crewmember to assist in the evacuation of passengers without reducing the unobstructed width of the passageway below that required in paragraph (Jl. of this section;

(3) there shall be access from the main aisle to each Type Ill and Type JV exit. The access from the aisle to these exits shall not be obstructed by seats, berths, or other protrusions in a manner that would reduce the effectiveness of the exit. In addition, the access shall meet the emergency exit access requirements under which the aeroplane was type certificated, unless the Authority cites different requirements for compliance with this paragraph;

(4) if it is necessary to pass through a passageway between passenger compartments to reach any required emergency exit from any seat in the passenger cabin, the passageway shall not be obstructed. However, curtains may be used if they allow free entry through the passageway;

(5) no door shall be installed in any partition between passenger compartments; (6) if it is necessary to pass through a doorway separating the passenger cabin from other areas

to reach any required emergency exit from any passenger seat, the door shall have a means to latch it in the open position, and the door shall be latched open during each takeoff and landing. The latching means shall be able to withstand the loads imposed upon it when the door is subjected to the ultimate inertia forces, relative to the surrounding structure, prescribed in the airworthiness standards for type certification in the transport category as cited by the Authority.

(k) Each passenger emergency exit and the means of opening that exit from the outside shall be marked on the outside of the aeroplane with a 2-inch coloured band outlining the exit on the side



of the fuselage.

(I) Each passenger emergency exit marking, including the band. shall be readily distinguishable from the surrounding fuselage area by contrast in colour and shall comply with the following -

(1) if the reflectance of the darker colour is 15 percent or less, the reflectance of the lighter colour shall be at least 45 percent;

(2) if the reflectance of the darker colour is greater than 15 percent, at least a 30 percent difference between its reflectance and the reflectance of the lighter colour shall be provided; and

(Note: "Reflectance" is the ratio of the luminous flux reflected by a body to the luminous flux il receives.)

(3) exits that are not in the side of the fuselage shall have external means of opening and applicable instructions marked conspicuously in red or, if red is inconspicuous against the background colour, in bright chrome yellow, and when the means of opening such an exit is located-on only one side of the fuselage. a conspicuous marking to that effect shall be prdvided on the other side.

(m) Each passenger-carrying aeroplane shall be equipped with exterior lighting that meets the requirements under which that aeroplane was type certificated, unless the Authority cites different requirements for compliance with this paragraph.

(n) Each passenger-carrylng aeroplane shall be equipped with a slip-resistant escape route that meets the requirements under which that aeroplane was type certificated, unless the Authority cites different requirements for comphance with this paragraph.

(0) Each floor level door or exit in the side of the fuselage (other than those lead~ng into a cargo or baggage compartment that is not accessible from the passenger cabin) that is 44 or more inches high and 20 or more inches wide, but not wider than 46 inches and each passenger ventral exit and each tail cone exit shall meet the requirements of this section for floor level emergency exits.

(Note: The Authority may grant a deviation from this paragraph i f it is deemed that circumstances make full compliance impractical and that an acceptable level of safety has been achieved.)

(p) Approved emergency exits in the passenger compartments thal are in excess of the minimum number of required emergency exits shall meet all of the applicable provisions of this subsection section and shall be readily accessible.

(q) On each large passenger-carrying turbojet powered aeroplane each ventral exit and tail cone exit shall be -

(1) designed and constructed so that it cannot be opened during flight; and (2) marked with a placard readable from a distance of 30 inches and installed at a conspicuous

location near the means of opening the exit. stating that the exit has been designed and constructed so that it cannot be opened during flight.

APPENDIX 1 TO 7.240: FIRST AID KIT REQUIRED CONTENTS

The following is the minimum contents that shall be in a first aid kit for carriage on board an aircraft - ( I ) a handbook on first aid; (2) ground to air visual signal code for use by survivors as contained in ICAO Annex 12; (3) materials for treating injuries; (4) ophthalmic ointment; (5) a decongestant spray; (6) insect repellent; (7) emollient eye drops; (8) sunburn cream; (9) water-miscible antisepticlskin cleanser; (10) materials for treatment of extensive burns; ( I 1) oral drugs as follows: analgesic, antispasmodic, central nervous system stimulant, circulatory

-

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stimulant, coronary vasodilator, antidiarrhoeic and motion sickness medications; and (12) an artificial plastic airway and splints.

The following is the minimum contents that shall be in a medical kit for carriage on board an Aircraft - (1) Equipment -

(i) one pair of sterile surgical gloves; (ii) sphygmomanometer; (iii) stethoscope; (iv) sterile Scissors; (v) haemosatic forceps; (vi) haemosatic bandages or tourniquet; (vii) sterile equipment for suturing wounds; (viii) disposable syringes and needles; and (ix) disposable scalpel handle and blade.

(i) coronary vasodilators; (ii) analgesics; (iii) diuretics; (iv) anti-allergies; (v) steroids; (vi) sedatives; (vii) ergometrine; (viii) injectable broncho dilator; and (ix) where compatible with the regulations of the appropriate Authority, a narcotic drug in

injectable form.

(Note: The United Nations Conference for adoption of s Single Convention on narcotic drugs in March 1961 adopted such a convention, Article 32 of which contains special provisions concerning the carriage of drugs in medical kits of aircrafl engaged in international flight.)

The supplemental oxygen supply requirements for non-pressurized aircraft are as follows - (1) Flight Crewmembers. Each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty shall be supplied with

supplemental oxygen in accordance with Table 1. If all occupants of flight deck seats are supplied from the flight crew source of oxygen supply then they shall be considered as flight crewmembers on flight deck duty for the purpose of. oxygen supply; and

(2) Cabin Crewmembers, Additional Crewmembers and Passengers. Cabin crewmembers and passengers shall be supplied with oxygen in accordance with Table 1. Cabin crewmembers carried in addition to the minimum number of cabin crewmembers required, and additional crewmembers! shall be considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen supply.

Table 1 - Requirements for Supplemental Oxygen - Non-Pressurized Aircraft

SUPPLY FOR: I D U R A T I O ~ P R E S S U R E ALTITUDE 1. All occu~ants of fl~aht deck seats on fl~aht I Ent~re fl~aht h e at oressure altitudes above 1

1 1 13.000 ft and for any period exceeding 30 minutes (1

- deck duty - ( 10.000 fget

2. All required cabin crewmembers I Entire flight time at pressure alt~tudes above

I 1 at ~ressure altitudes above 10.000 ft.but not 11 1

I exbeeding 13,000 ft 3. 100% of passengers ) Entire flight time at pressure altitudes above


I 4 10% of passengers

13.000 ft Ent~re fllght t~me after 30 m~nules at pressure alt~tudes greater than 10,000 ft, but not exceedmg


&PENDlX 2 TO 7.270: SUPPLEMENTAL OXYGEN - PRESSURIZED AIRCRAFT

The supplemental oxygen supply requirements for pressurized aircraft are as follows - the amount of supplemental oxygen required shall be determined on the basis of cabin pressure altitude, flight duration and the assumption that a cabin pressurisation failure will occur at the altitude or point of flight that is most critical from the standpoint of oxygen need. and that after the failure, the aeroplane will descend in accordance with emergency procedures specified in the Aeroplane Flight Manual to a safe altitude for the route to be flown that will allow continued safe flight and landing; following a cabin pressurisation failure, the cabin pressure altitude shall be considered the same as the aeroplane altitude, unless it is demonstrated to the Authority that no probable failure of the cabin or pressurisation system will result in a cabin pressure altitude equal to the aeroplane altitude. Under these circumstances, this lower cabin pressure altitude may be used as a basis for determination of oxygen supply; Flight Crewmembers. Each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen in accordance with Table 2. If all occupants of flight deck seats are supplied from the flight crew source of oxygen supply then they shall be considered as flight crewmembers on flight deck duty for the purpose of oxygen supply. Flight deck seat occupants, not supplied by the flight crew source, are to be considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen supply. Cabin Crewmembers, Additional Crewmembers and Passengers. (i) cabin crewmembers and passengers shallbe supplied with supplemental oxygen in

accordance with Table 2. Cabin crewmembers carried in addition to the minimum number of cabin crewmembers required, and additional crewmembers, shall be considered as passengers for the purpose of oxygen supply; and

(ii) the oxygen supply requirements, as specified in Table 2, for aeroplanes not certificated to fly at altitudes above 25,000 ft, may be reduced to the entire flight time between 10,000 ft and 14.000 ft cabin pressure altitudes for all required cabin crewmembers and for at least 10% of the passengers if at all points along the route to be flown, the aeroplane is able to descend safely within 4 minutes to a cabin pressure altitude of 14,000 ft.

Table 2 - Requirements for Supplemental Oxygen - Pressurized Aeroplane During and Followlng Emergency Descent (Note 1)

exceed~l0.000 ft but does not exceed 14.000 Rafter the first 30 minutes at these altitudes.

duty &ht

All required cabin crewmembers

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100% of passengers 10 minutes or the entire flight time when thecabin pressure altitude exceeds 15,000 ft whichever is the

exceed;13,000 and entire time when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10.000 ft but does not exceed 13.000 ft after the first 30 minutes at those altitudes. bul in no case less than: (i) 30 minutes for aeroplanes certificated to fly at

altitudes not exceeding 25,000 ft (Note 2) (ii) 2 hours for aeroplanes certificated to fly at

altitudes more than 25.000 ft (Note 3). Entire flight time when cabin pressure altitude exceeds 13.000 ft but not less than 30 minutes (Note 2). and entire flight time when cabin pressure altitude is gr6ater than 10,000 ft but does not exceed 13.000 ft after the first 30 minutes at these altitudes.

I

THE CIVIL A VIA TlON REGULATIONS, 2004 253

(Note 1: The supply provided shall take account of the cabin pressure altitude and descent profile for the routes concerned.)

(Note 2: The required minimum supply is that quantity of oxygen necessary for a constant rate of descent from the aeroplane's maximum certificated operating altitude to 10.000 I? in 10 minutes and followed by 20 minutes at 10,000 fi.)

(Note 3: The required minimum supply is that quantity of oxygen necessary for a constant rate of descent from the aeroplane's maximum certificeted o~eratinp altitude to 10.000 I? in 10 minutes and followed by 110 minutes at 10,000 I?. The oxygen required 6 meet the Crew Protective Breathing Equipment provisions of this Schedule may be included in determining the supply required.)

(Note 4: The required minimum supply is that quantity of oxygen necessary for a constant rate of descent from the aeroplane's maximum certificated operating altitude to 15,000 I?.)



EIGHTH "A" SCHEDULE (Regulations 40 - 48)

PERSONNEL LICENSING

SUBPART A: GENERAL 8.001 Applicability 8.005 Definitions 8.010 Acronyms

SUBPART B: LICENCES, RATINGS AND AUTHORIZATIONS 8.01 5 Applicability 8.016 General 8.01 7 lssuance and Endorsement of Licences. Ratings or Authorizations 8.018 Licences Authorized to be Issued 8.019 Crediting of Flight Time 8.020 Privileges of These Licences, Ratings and Authorizations 8.022 lssuance of Aircraft Category Ratings 8.024 lssuance of Aircraft Class Ratings 8.026 lssuance of Aircraft Type Ratings 8.028 lssuance of Aircraft lnstrument Ratings 8.030 lssuance of Fhght Instructor Ratings 8.032 lssuance of Flight Engineer Category Ratings 8.036 lssuance of Aircraft Maintenance Engineer Category Ratings 8.038 lssuance of Aircraft Maintenance Engineer Type Ratings 8.040 lssuance of Air Traffic Controller Licences 8.044 Authorizations Issued By Special Endorsement 8.046 Validity Periods of Licences. Ratings. Authorizations and Exams 8.048 Special Limitations To Licences. Ratings and Authorizations

SUBPART C: CONVERSION AND VALIDATION OF FOREIGN AIRMAN LICENCES AND RATINGS 8.050 Conversion - General 8.060 Conversion of Non-Citizen Airman Licences For Work In Jamaica 8.065 Conversion of Non-Citizen Airman Licences For Private Pilot Privileges 8.070 Validation of Foreign Licences

SUBPART D: GENERAL TRAINING REQUIREMENTS 8.080 Records of Training Time 8.085 Flight Training Received From Flight Instructors Not Licensed by the Authority 8.090 Graduates of a Training Program Approved Under Other Schedules: Special Rules

SUBPART E: GENERAL TESTING REQUIREMENTS 8.100 Tests: General Procedure 8.105 Knowledge test: Prerequisites and Passing Grades 8.1 10 Practical Test: Prerequisites 8.1 15 Practical Tests: General Procedures 8.120 Practical Tests: Required Aircraft and Equipment 8.125 Limitations on the Use of Flight Simulators and Flight Training Devices 8.130 Retesting After Failure

SUBPART F: CERTIFICATION: FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS Section I: Aircraft Ratings and Pilot Authorizations

8.140 General Requirement 8.145 lnstrument Rating Requirements 8.1 50 Category Ratings 8.1 55 Class Ratings 8.160 Type Ratings 8.163 Category II and Ill Pilot Authorization Requirements 8.165 Flight Crew Radiotelephone Operator Endorsement 8.166 Night Rating

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8.167 Multi-engine Rating 8.168 Seaplane Rating

Section II: Student Pilots 8.170 Applicability 8.173 Student Pilot Eligibility Requirements - General 8.175 Student Pilot Licence Application 8.177 Student Pilot Solo Requirements 8.179 Student Pilot Solo Cross-Country Flight Requirements

Sectlon Ill: Private Pilots 8.1 80 Applicability 8.185 Private Pilot Eligibility Requirements - General 8.190 Private Pilot Aeronautical Knowledge Requirements 8.195 Private Pilot Flight lnstruction Requirements 8.200 Private Pilot Aeronautical Experience Requirements 8.205 Private Pilot Licence Issuance Limitations

Section IV: Commercial Pilots 6.220 Applcability 8.225 Commercial Pilot Eligibility Requirements - General 8.230 Commercial Pilot Aeronautical Knowledge Requirements 8.235 Commercial Pilot Flight Instruction Requirements 8.240 Commercial Pilot Aeronautical experience Requirements 8.245 Commercial Pilot Licence Issuance Limitations

Section V: Airline Transport Pilots 8.255 Applicability 8.260 Airline Trans~ort Pilot Elis~biliW Reauirements - General 8.265 Airline ~rans '~or t Pilot gon nautical '~nowled~e 8.270 Airline Trans~ort Pilot Fliaht Proficiencv Reauirements 8.275 Airline ~rans '~or t Pilot gon nautical ~xperience Requirements 6.290 Additional Aircrafl Category, Class and Type Ratings

Section VI: Class 1 and Class 2 Flight Instructors 8.300 Applicability 8.305 , . Flight lnstructor Rating Eligibility Requirements 8.310 Flight lnstructor Aeronautical Knowledge 8.315 Flight lnstructor Flight Proficiency Requirements 8.320 Flight lnstructor Records 8.325 ' Additional Flight lnstructor Ratings .8.330 Flight lnstructor Limitations and Qualifications and Additional Privileges 8.335 Renewal of Flight lnstructor Ratings 8.340 Expired Flight lnstructor Ratings 8.345' Credits for Applicants who hold or have held a Flight lnstructor Rating 8.350 Credits for Jamaica Defence Force Applicants 8.355 Credits for Foreign Applicants 8.360 Aerobatic Aeroplane lnstructor Rating 8.365 . Flight lnstructor Rating - Balloon 8.370 Flight lnstructor Rating - Glider

Section VII: Flight Engineers 8.415 Applicability 8.417 Flight Engineer Eligibility Requirements 8.420 light ~ngineer ~eronautical Knowledge Requirements 8.425 Flight Engineer Aeronautical Experience Requirements 8.427 light ~ngineer Operational Experience Requirements 8.430 Flight Engineer Aeronautical Skill Requirements 8.435 Additional Flight Engineer Aircrafl Ratings

SUBPART G: LICENSING: AIRMEN OTHER THAN FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS Section I: General

8.445 Applicability

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Section II: Flight Dispatcher 8.485 Applicability 8.487 Flight Dispatcher Eligibility Requirements: General 8.490 Flight Dispatcher Knowledge Requirements 8.495 Flight Dispatcher Experience or Training Requirements 8.500 Flight Dispatcher Skill Requirements 8.505 Flight Dispatcher Licence Issuance Limitations

Section Ill: Aircraft Maintenance Engineer 8.51 5 A~~licabil itv 8.51 7 ~jrcraft ~ahtenance Engineer Eligibility Requirements 8.520 Aircraft Maintenance Enqineer Knowledqe Requirements 8.525 8.530 8.535 8.536 8.540 8.545 8.550

Section IV: 8.625

~ircraft Maintenance ~ngineer Experience & Training ~equirements Aircraft Maintenance Engineer Skill Requirements Aircraft Maintenance Engineer Type Rating Renewal of an AME Licence Rest and Duty Limitations for Aircraft Maintenance Engineers AME Privileges and Limitations' AME Recent Experience Requirements

Aeronautical Station Operator Aoplicabilitv

8.627 ~e;onautical Station Operator Eligibility Requirements: General 8.630 Aeronautical Station Operator Knowledqe Reauirements 8.635 Aeronautical Station ber rat or Experience ~equirements 8.640 Aeronautical Station Operator Skill Requirements

Section V: Air Traffic Controller 8.660 Applicabilitv 8.662 ~ j i ~ r a f f i c controller Eligibility Requirements: General 8.665 Air Traffic Controller Knowledqe Reauirements 8.670 Air Traffic Controller ~ x ~ e r i e 6 e ~equirements 8.675 Air Traffic Controller Skill Requirements 8.676 Air Traffic Controller Rating Privileges and Requirements '

APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 8.01 8 Appendix 2 to 8.018 Appendix 1 to 8.1 10 Appendix I to 8.120 Appendix 1 of 8.1 25 Appendix 1 to 8.145 Appendix 2 to 8.145 Appendix 3 to 8.145 Appendix 1 to 8.163 Appendix 2 to 8.163 Appendix 3 to 8.163 Appendix 4 to 8.163

' Appendix 1 to 8.1 77 Appendix 1 to 8.179 Appendix 1 to 8.190 Appendix 1 to 8.195 Appendix 1 to 8.200 Appendix I to 8.205 Appendix 2 to 8.205 Mpendix 1 to 8.230 Appendix 1 to 8.235 Appendix 1 to 8.240 Appendix 1 to 8.265 Appendix 1 to 8.270

Detailed Information to be Included on a Licence Colours to be Included on a Licence Prerequisites for Practical Tests Practical Tests: Required Aircraft, Simulation and Equipment, Use of an Approved Flight Simulator or an Approved Flight Training Device Instrument Rating Aeronautical Knowledge Requirements Instrument Rating Flight Instruction Requirements Instrument Rating Aeronautical Experience Requirements Category II or Ill Authorization General Requirements Category II or Ill Authorization Practical Oral Examination Category II or Ill Authorization Practical Flight Examination General Requirements for Category II and Category,lll Pilot Authorizations Manoeuvres and Procedures for Student.Pilot Pre-Solo Flight Training Manoeuvres and Procedures for Student Pilot Cross-country Flight Training Private Pilot Aeronautical Knowledge Requirements . .

Private Pilot Flight Instruction Requirements Private Pilot Experience Requirements Licence Limitations for Private Pilots Based on Small Islands Licence Limitations for Private Pilots with Balloon Ratings Commercial Pilot Aeronautical Knowledge Requirements Commercial Pilot Flight lnstruction Requirements Commercial Pilot Aeronautical Experience Requirements Airline Transport Pilot Aeronautical Knowledge Requirements . . Airline Transport Pilot Flight Proficiency Requirements , . .



Appendix 1 to 8.275 Appendix 1 to 8.310 Appendix 1 to 8.315 Appendix 1 to 8.330- Appendix 1 to 8.420 Appendix 1 to 8.425 Appendix 1 to 8.427 Appendix 1 to 8.430 Appendix 1 to 8.490 Appendix 1 to 8.495

Airline Transport Pilot Aeronautical Experience Flight lnstructor Knowledge Requirements Class 2 Flight Instructor Flight Instruction Requirements Flight lnstructor Limitations and Quaiifcations Flight Engineer Aeronautical Knowledge Requirements Flight Engineer Aeronautical Experience Requirements Flight Engineer Operational Experience Requirements Flight Engineer Aeronautical Skill Requirements Flight Dispatcher Knowledge Requirements Flight Dispatcher Aeronautical Experience Requirements

Appendix 1 to 8.500 r light ~isbatcher Skill Requirements Appendix 1 to 8.520 Alrcraft Malntenance Engineer Knowledge Areas Appendix 1 to 8.525 AME Basic Maintenance Training Course Approval Appendix 1 to 8.535 AME Type Training Course Approval Appendix 1 to 8.540 ComDass Compensation Appendix 1 to 8.630 ~eronautical s k i o n Operator Knowledge Requirements Appendix 1 to 8.635 Aeronautical Station Operator Experience Reauirements Appendix 1 to 8.640 Aeronautical Station operator skill ~e~uirements

SUBPART A: GENERAL

8.001 APPLICABILITY

This Schedule prescribes, for Jamaica citizens, other persons authorized to work commercially in Jamaica on behalf of Jamaica entities, and persons operating aircraft registered in Jamaica -

(1) the requirements for issuing airman licences and ratings and authorizations to those licences. as applicable;

(2) the conditions under which those licences, ratings and authorizations are necessary; and (3) the limitations for issuance to holders of those licences, ratings and authorizations.

(Note: All licences require a current aviation medical certificate in order to exercise the privileges of licences. The requirements for the aviation medical certificate are provided in the Eighth Schedule - 8.)

8.005 DEFINITIONS

For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply - "Aircraft certified for single pilot operation". A type of aircraft that the State of Registry has determined, during the certification process, can be operated safely with a minimum crew of one pilot; "Advanced fllght training devlce". A fllght training device that has a cockpit that accurately replicates a specific make, model, and type arcraft cockpit, and handling characteristics that accurately model the aircraft handling characteristics; "Complex airplane". An airplane having retractable landing gear (except in seaplanes), flaps and a wntrollable propeller. "Core curriculum". A set of courses approved by the Authority, for use by an FTU and its satellite FTUs. The core curriculum consists of training that is required for licensing or aircraft ratings. It does not include training for tasks and circumstances unique to a particular user; "Dual instruction time". Flight time during which a person is receiving fl~ght instruction from a properly authorized pilot on board the aircraft; "Human performance". Human capabilities and limrtations that have an impact on the safety and efficiency of aeronautical operations; "Medical assessment". The evidence issued by the Author~ty that the l~cence holder meets specific requirements of medcal fitness. It is issued following an evaluation by the Authority of the report submitted by the designated medical examlner that conducted the examination of the applicant for the licence;

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(8) "Pilot" (to). To manipulate the flight controls of an arcraft during flight time; (9) "Problematic use of substances". The use of one or more psychoactive substances by aviation

personnel in a way that constitutes a direct hazard to the user or endangers the lives. health or welfare of others, andlor causes or worsens an occupational, social, mental or physical problem or disorder;

(10) "Psychoactive substances". (Refer to 8.705) (1 1) "Rated air trafflc controller". An air traffic controller holding a licence and valid ratings

appropriate to the privileges to be exercised. (12) "Synthetic flight trainer". Any one of the following three types of apparatus in which flight

conditions are simulated on the ground:

(i) a "flight simulator", which provides an accurate representation of the flight deck of a particular aircrafl type to the extent that the mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc. aircraft svstems control functions. the normal environment of fliaht crew members. and the performance and flight characteristics of that type of aircraft are realisticall; simulated. A flight simulator can be either a level A, B, C or 0.

(See the Fourteenth Schedule, Appendix 4 to 14.090, Note 2, (1) - (3) for a description ofthe flight simulator levels.)

(ii) a "fl~ght procedures trainet', which provides a real~stic flight deck environment, and which simulates instrument responses, simple control functions of mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc. aircraft systems and the performance and flight characteristics of aircraft of a particular class.

(iii) a "basic instrument flight trainer", which is equipped with appropriate instruments, and which simulates the flight deck environment of an aircraft in flight in instrument flight conditions.

(13) "Tralnlng flight". A dual instruction flight or a solo practice flight that is conducted under the direction and supervision of a flight instructor.

8.010 ACRONYMS The following acronyms are used in this Schedule --

AIP - Aeronautical Information Publication; AM0 - Approved Maintenance Organization; AME - Aircrafl Maintenance Engineer; AOC - Air Operator Certificate; ATC - Air Traffic Control; AT0 - Approved Training Organization; FTU - Flight Training Unit; IFR - Instrument Flight Rules; ICAO - International Civil Aviation Organization;

(10) MTU - Maintenance Training Unit; (1 1) NOTAM - Notice To Airmen; (12) PIC - Pilot In Command; (13) SIC - Second In Command; (14) VFR - Visual Flight Rules.

I

This Subpart describes the personnel licences, ratings and authorizations that are issued by the Authority, and prescribes the requirements for testing such licences, ratings and authorizations.

8.016 GENERAL

(a) No person may be issued any authorization, licence or rating unless they meet the requirements of this Schedule or another applicable Schedule of the Civil Aviation Safety Regulations in respect of age,

C

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THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULATIONS. 2004 259

knowledge, experience, flight instruction, skill and medical fitness that are specified for that authorization. licence or rating.

, (b) No person may be issued any authorization, licence or rating unless they have satisfactorily demonstrated, in a manner determined by the Authority, their ability to meet the requirements for knowledge and skill as are specified for that authorization, licence or rating.

(c) NO person may be issued an aircraft category, class or type rating on a pilot licence unless that rating reflects the appropriate category, class, or type of aircraft used to demonstrate skill and knowledge for its issuance.

8.011 ISSUANCE AND ENDORSEMENT OF LICENCES, RATINGS OR AUTHORlZATlONS The Authority may require'any or all of the following items of proof before Issuing a licence, rating, or authorization:

(1) Proof of Citizenship - One of the following documents is required to establish proof of citizenship - (i) a Citizenship Certificate; (ii) a Certificate of Registration of Birth Abroad issued by the Police Department lmmigration and

Passport Division; (iil) a Birth Certificate or Baptismal Certiicate Issued in Jamaica or in a state whose citizens do not

require a passport to travel in Jamaica. A copy certified by the issuing state or duly notarized is acceptable;

(iv) a Passport. If no explry date is indicated on the passport, an attestation that the passport is valid is required from the applicant's state of citizenship;

(v) an aviation personnel licence showing the citizenship of the holder and issued by the state of which the applicant is a citizen; or

(vi) a Jamaica lmmigration Record and Visa, issued to a landed immigrant by the Police Department lmmigration and Passport Division.

(2) Proof of Age - One of the following documents is acceptable proof of age - (i) a Citizen Certificate; (ii) a Certificate of Registration of Birth Abroad issued by the Police Department, lmmigration and

Passport Division; (iii) a Birth Certificate or Baptismal Certificate, or a duly notarized copy; (iv) a Passport; (v) a personnel aviation certificate, either a permit or licence, showing the date of birth, issued by

the state of which the applicant is a citizen; or (Vi) a Jamaicaa lmmigration Record and Visa issued to a landed immigrant by the Police

Department lmmigration and Passport Division.

(3) Proof of Identity - An applicant for the initial issue of a Jamaica pilot licence shall submit photographic identification, issued by a governmental body, as proof of identity; for example, a passport, driver's licence or voter identification card. In the absence of governmental photographic identification, the applicant shall submit a passport-sized photograph, certified by a Justice of the Peace to be a true photograph of the applicant.

(4) Proof of Experience - Pilot logbook entries are required to be certified in order to validate the times claimed in the logbooks for the issuance of a pilot licence or the addition of ratings to a licence. The accuracy of entries shall be certified in the pilot logbook by -

(i) a qualified flightinstr~ictor for student pilots; (ii) the Chief Pilot or Operations Manager of an AOC holder for pilots employed by that holder; (iii) a flight simulator instructor at a recognized flight simulator training facility,for crediting

.instrument ground time; or (iv) -the registered owner of the aircraft in all other cases.

8.018 LICENCES AUTHORIZED TO BE ISSUED

(a) The Authority may issue the following licences under this Schedule - (1) Pilot licences -

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(i) student pilot; (ii) private pilot; (iii) commercial pilot; and (iv) airline transport pilot; (v) flight engineer licence; (vi) AME licence; (vii) Flight Dispatcher Licence; (viii) Air Traffic Controller Licence.

(Note: The privileges associated with these licences are contained in Subsection 8.020).

(b) The Authority shall issue the licenses on first quality paper or equivalent, or on hard plastic cards

(Note: 7Be licence shall contain the detail shown in Appendix I to Subsection 8.018 and the colours shown in Appendix 2 to Subsection 8.018.)

(a) A student pilot or the holder of a pilot licence shall be entitled to be credited in full with all solo, dual instruction and pilot:incommand flight time towards the total flight time required for the initial issue of a pilot licence or the issue of a higher grade of pilot licence.

(b) The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as SIC of an aircraft required to be operated with an SIC, shall be entitled to be credited with not more than 50 per cent of the SIC flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.

(c) The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as SIC performing under the supervision of the PIC the functions and duties of a PIC, shall be entitled to be credited in full with this flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.

(d) flight time logged in a pilot's logbook shall be certified correct by the persons as follows:

(1) for student pilots, by the Chief Flight Instructor of the AT0 at which the training was received or by the flight instructor approved to give training if not part of an ATO;

(2) for pilots in General Aviation, by the aircraft owner; and (3) for pilots involved in commercial flying, by the company Director of Operations or Chief Pilot.

(See the Tenth Schedule, Subsection 10.102 for crediting of flight time guidance.)

8.020 PRMLEGES OF THESE LICENCES, RATINGS AND AUTHORWllONS

(a) General. No person may exercise privileges in aviation for which a licence, rating or authorization is required under the Civil Aviation Safety Regulations unless that licence, rating or authorization was issudd in accordance with the specifications of the Eighth Schedule andlor, where applicable, the Standards of ICAO Annex 1.

(b) Pilot Licences and Flight Instructor Ratings. The privileges of these licences and ratings are contained in Subpart C to the Tenth Schedule.

(c) Aircraft Maintenance Engineer Licences. he privileges of these licences are contained in Subpart G to the Eighth Schedule.

(d) Flight Dispatcher Licence. The privileges of this licence may be exercised as authorized In the Sixteenth Schedule.

(e) Aeronautical Station Operator Authorization. The privileges of the holder of an aeronautical station operator authorization shall be to act as an operator in an aeronautical station. Before exercising the privileges of the authorization, the holder shall be familiar with all pertinent and current information regarding the types of equipment and operating procedures used at that aeronautical station.

(9 Air Traffic Controller Licence. The privileges of the holder of ari Air Traffic Controller licence are contained in Subpart G to the Eighth Schedule.



8.022 ISSUANCE OF AIRCRAFT CATEGORY RATINGS

(a) The Authority may issue the followmg aircraft category ratings for pilots - (1 ) aeroplane; (2) rotorcraft; (3) glider; or (4) lighter-than-air.

(b) The holder of a pilot licence on one aircraft category who wishes to add another aircraft category shall be issued a separate licence by the Authority upon the applicant meeting the requirements specified in this Schedule for the additional aircraft category.

8.024 lSSUANCE OF AIRCRAFT CLASS RATINGS

(a) The Authority may issue aircraft class ratings in the following aeroplanes . (1) single-engine. land; (2) single-engine, sea; (3) - multi-engine, land; and (4) multi-engine. sea.

(b) The Authority may issue aircraft class ratings in the following rotorcraft - (1) helicopter; and (2) gyroplane.

(c) The Authority may issue aircraft class ratings in the following lighter-than-air aircraft - (1) airship; and (2) free balloon.

8.026 ~SSUANCE OF AIRCRAFT TYPE RATINGS

(a) The following type ratings may be issued to a person toexercise the privileges of PIC of the following aircraft - .

(1) large aircraft, other than lighter-than-air; (2) high performance aeroplanes; (3) small helicopters for operations requiring an airline transport licence; (4) aircraft certified for at least two pilots; and (5) any aircraft considered necessary by the Authority.

(b) All limitations applicable to the exercise of the type rating shall be entered on the licence

(c) Special endorsements'for aircraft type ratings may be issued to persons to exercise the privileges of PIC or SIC during commercial air transport operations in aircraft of less than 5,760 kilograms (12.500 pounds).

8.028 ISSUANCE OF AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT RATINGS

The Authority may issue Instrument Ratings for the following aircraft categories - (1) instrument - aeroplane, and (2) instrument - helicopter.

The Authority may issue the following ratings for Flight Instructor - (1 ) aeroplane; (2) rotorcraft - helicopter; (3) balloon; and (4) glider.

8.032 ISSUANCE OF FLIGHT ENGINEER CATEGORY RATINGS

The Authority may issue the following ratings for Flight Engineers -



(1) reciprocating engine powered; (2) turbo-propeller powered; and (3) turbojet powered.

8.036 lSSUANCE OF AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE ENGINEER CATEGORY RATINGS

The Authority may issue the following ratings for Aircraft Maintenance Engineers - (1) "M" Aeroplanes and their included power plants: (2) "R" Rotorcraft-and their included power plants; and (3) "E" Avionics systems.

8.038 ISSUANCE OF AIRCWT MAINTENANCE ENGINEER TYPE RATINGS

The Authority may issue the following class and type ratings for Aircraft Maintenance Engineers - (1) aircraft (including installed power plants) type ratings for aeroplanes with a maximum take-off weight .

of more than 5700 kg, for lurbine-powered aeroplanes, for multi-engine aeroplanes, for pressurized aeroplanes, and for rotorcraft;

(2) aircraft class ratings for piston-engine, unpressurized, aeroplanes (including-installed power planls) with a maximum take-off weight of 5700 kg or less;

(3) aircraft class ratings for single piston-engine, unpressurized, aeroplanes (including installed power plants) with a maximum take-off weight of 2730 kg or less;

(4) avionics systems (excluding inertial reference, flight management and auto-flight systems) for all aircraft;

(5) avionics systems (including inertial reference, flight management and auto-flight systems) for all aircraft;

(6) compass compensation (for Direct Reading Compasses); or (7) any other specialized ratings as may be determined by the Authority.

8.040 ISSUANCE OF AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER LICENCES

(a) The Authority may issue the following ratings for Air Traffic Control licences - (1) Aerodrome Control; (2) Approach Control; (3) Area Control; (4) Approach Radar Control; (5) Area Radar Control; and (6) Precision Approach.Radar Control.

(b) The Authority may issue any of the above ratings, for one or more aerodromes or control areas as applicable, subject to the holder having satisfied the specific training and examination requirements.

(c). No person shall exercise the privileges of an ATC licence unless that person holds at least a current Class 3 medical certificate.

8.044 AUTHORIZATIONS ISSUED B Y SPECIAL ENDORSEMENT

The Authority may issue the following authorizations and ratings under this Schedule - (1) Category II pilot authorization; (2) Category Ill pilot authorization; (3) flight crew radiotelephone operator authorization (radiolicence); (4) multi-engine flight instruction authori-+on; (5) instrument flight instruction authorization; (6) night flight instruction authorization; (7) aerobatic flight instruction rating; (8) Flight Instructor flight instruction authorization; (9) Aeronautical Station Operator authorization; and (10) other specialized authorizations or ratings as may be determined by the ~u tho r i k .

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8.046 VALlDln PERIODS OF LICENCES, RATINGS, AUTHORIZATIONS AND EXAMS

(a) Except as shown in the following paragraphs, the Authority issues all licences, ratings, authorizations and exams without a specific expiration date.

(b) The Authority may, upon request, extend by a maximum of 30 days, thevalidity period of any licence. rating or certificate.

(c) Student Pilot Licence. A student pilot licence expires 24 calendar months from the month in which it is issued.

(d) Class 2 Flight lnstructor Rating. A Class 2Flight lnstructor Rating expires 12 calendar months from the month in which it is issued and is effective only while the holder has a valid pilot licence.

(e) Class 1 Flight lnstructor Rating. A Class 1 Flight lnstructor Rating expires 24 calendar months from the month in which it is issued and is effective only while the holder has a valid pilot licence.

(f) Category II and Ill Pilot Authorization. A Category II or Ill pilot authorization expires at the end of the sixth calendar month after the month in which it was issued or renewed.

(g) A licence granted under these Regulations shall not be valid unless it bears thereon the ordinary signature of the holder in ink, or by electronic imprint.

(h) Examinations. All tests, skill letters and examinations, including all sections of a sectionalized examination that are required for the issuance of a licence or for the endorsement of a licence with a rating, shall be completed during the 24 month period immediately preceding the date of application for the licence or rating. This does not apply in respect of the written examinations that are required for the issuance of a student pilot permit.

(I) Rewriting of examinations.

(1) subject to subparagraph (2), a person who fails an examination or a section of a sectionalized examination required,for the issuance of a licence, rating or foreign licence validation certificate shall be ineligible to rewrite the examination or the failed section for a period of - (i) in the case of a first failure, 14 days; (ii) in the case of a second failure, 30 days; and (iii) in the case of a third or subsequent failure, 30 days plus an additional 30 days for each failure in

excess of two failures, up to a maximum of 180 days.

(2) a person who fails the student pilot examination is eligible to rewrite the examination at any time , after notice of the failure has been received and the weak knowledge areas have been reviewed.

(3) a person who passes a sectionalized examination but fails one or more sections of that examination shall rewrite the failed section or sections in one sitting.

(4) where a person requests to rewrite an examination, the Authority shall inform the person in writing of the date on which the person may rewrite the examination and whether the person is required to provide evidence of further study or instruction before rewriting the examination.

(j) instrument Rating. An Instrument Rating is valid until the ls'day of the 25Ih month following the flight test.

(k) Aircraft Maintenance Engineer Licence. An AM€ Licence shall be valid for 24 calendar months after it is issued or renewed.

, (Note: Refer to Section 8.536 for renewal requirements for AM€ licences)

(I) Air Traffic Controller Licence. An Air Traffic Controller's licence shall be valid for 24 calendar months after the date of issue or renewal.

I 8.048 SPECIAL LIMITATIONS TO LICENCES, RATINGS AND AUTHORWTIONS

(a) The Authority may issue to an applicant who cannot comply with certain eligibility requirements or areas of operations required for the issue of a licence because of physical limitations, or for other reasons. licence, rating, or authorization with an appropriate limitation provided the - (1) applicant is able to meet all other certification requirements for the licence, rating, or authorization

sought;

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(2) physical limitation, if any, has been recorded with the Authority on the applicant's medical records; and

(3) Authority determines that the applicant's inability to perform the particular area of operation wlll not adversely affect safety.

(b) The Authority may remove a limitation placed on a person's licence provided that person demonstrates to an examiner or inspector satisfactory proficiency in the area of operation to which the limitation applies. or otherwise shows compliance with conditions to remove the limitation, as applicable.

SUBPART C: CONVERSION AND VALIDATION OF FOREIGN AIRMAN LICENCES AND RATINGS

8.050 CONVERSION - GENERAL (a) A person who is the holder of a current airman licence issued by another ICAO Contracting State is

eligible for consideration for issuance of a Jamaican licence based on the validation of the other State's licence subject to the provisions of this Subpart and Subpart C of the First Schedule.

(b) An applicant for a licence under this Subpart shall provide proof of identity as required by (a)(3) of Subsection 8.017, a foreign pilot licence printed in the English language or accompanied by an English language transcription that has been signed by an official or representative of the foreign aviation authority that issued that licence and a valid Jamaican medical certificate and shall have obtained not less than 70% in the appropriate written Aviation Law, Flight Rules and Procedures examination.

(c) That person may apply for and be issued a Jamaican airman licence with the appropriate ratings from that foreign licence added to his Jamaican airman licence, if the applicant - (1) is not under an order of revocation or suspension by the country that issued the licence; (2) holds a licence that does not contain an endorsement stating that the applicant has not met all of

the standards of ICAO for that licence; and (3) is able to read, speak, write and understandthe English language.

(d) The Authority shall decide, afler a review of the applicant's licence, supporting documents, interview and contact with the civil aviation authority of the issuing State, what further showing of knowledge or proficiency will be required.

(e) Operating privileges and limitations. A person who receives a licence under the provisions of this Subpart and Subsections 8.060 or 8.065 - (1) shall be limited to the privileges placed on the licence by the Authority; (2) shall be subject to the limitations and restrictions on the person's licence issued by the Authority and

foreign licence when exercising the privileges of that licence within Jamaica and with respect to aircrafi registered in Jamaica; and

(3) shall not exercise the privileges of the licence issued by the Authority when the person's foreign licence has seen revoked, suspended or otherwise becomes invalid, except when the foreign licence beconids invalid for failure to renew the medical fitness certification of the Contracting State.

8.055 CONVERSION OF AIRMAN LICENCES AND RATINGS FOR JAMAICAN CITIZENS

(a) General. A person who is a citizen of Jamaica and is the holder of a current airman licence issued by another Contracting State is eligible to apply for and be issued a Jamaican airman licence with'the appropriate ratings, or have ratings from that foreign licence added to his Jamaican airman licence. For aircrafi type ratings to be transferred from a foreign airman licence to a Jamaican airman licence, that aircraft type must be operated within Jamaica.

(b) Foreign pilot licence no longer applicable. upon issuance of a Jamaican airman licence or added ratings those airman licences andlor ratings are - (1) effective for operation of aircraft registered in Jamaica regardless of the status of the foreign pilot

licence; and are (2) subject to the re-examination for fitness as provided in the Jamaican Civil Aviation Safety

Regulations.

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(c) Same privileges and limitations. A citizen of Jamaica who receives an airman licence or added ratings under the provisions of this Subsection has the same privileges as if those airman licences and ratings were issued on the basis of a showing of knowledge, competency and proficiency to the Authority.

(a) General. A person who is not a citizen of Jamaica and is the holder of a current airman licence issued by another Contracting State is eligible to apply for and be issued an airhan licence with the appropriate ratings for the purpose of working in aviation for a Jamaican operator.

(b) The applicant must be sponsored by a Jamaican business or government entity and, if required for the '

speciflc tasks or period of time, hold a work visa issued by Immigration. (c) Ratings issued. The Authority may place upon the airman licence that it issues only the ratings listed on

that person's foreign licence that are appropriate to the tasks to be performed.

General. A person who is not a citizen of Jamaica and is the holder of a current pilot licence issued by another Contracting State is elig~ble to apply for and be issued a Jamaican private pilot licence with the appropriate ratings, without any furlher showing of proficiency Aircraft ratlngs issued. The Author~ty may place upon a private pilot licence that it issues, the aircraft ratings listed on that pilot's foreign pilot licence. Instrument ratings issued The Authority may issue an lnstrument Rating on a private pilot licence to a person who holds an Instrument Rating on a licence issued by another Contracting State provided - (1) within 24 months preceding the month in which the person applies for the Instrument Rating, the

applicant passed the appropriate practical test; and

(2) the applicant is able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language.

Operating privileges and limitations. A person who receives a private pilot licence under the provisions of this Subsection may act as a pilot of a civil aircraft of Jamaican registry in accordance with the private pilot privileges authorized by the Tenth Schedule of the Civil Aviation Safety Regulations.

8.070 VALIDATION OF FOREIGN LICENCES

(a) /+Foreign Licence Validation Certificate may be issued to an applicant who provides the following - a foreign licence valid under the laws of a Contracting State and valid for the requested privileges; a valid medical certificate; photographic proof of identity issued by a governmental body; a letter requesting issue of the Foreign Licence Validation Certificate and specifying the purpose for which the foreign licence is to be validated; and a letter from the Jamaican ownerloperator of the aircraft to be flown that the applicant has been fully briefed on Jamaican Air Law, procedures, airspace restrictions or local practices of which the applicant should be aware that may differ from the ICAO Annexes. The Foreign Licence Validation Certificate shall be issued for a period of up to 90 days, unless the applicant specifically requests a longer period due to operational requirements, in which case the validity period shall not extend beyond one year, or the validity period of the foreign licence, whichever comes first.

(b) Purposes for which Foreign Licence Validation Certificates may be issued are as follows - a flight test; private recreational flying; ferry of a Jamaican aircraft to or from a foreign country; authorization of a foreign licensed holder to give flight training to a Jamaican flight crew on a Jamaican aircraft; authorization of a foreign licensed holder to act as a flight crew member of a foreign registered aircraft operated by a Jamaican air operator;

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266 THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULATIONS,

(6) authorization to fly as a crew member while undertraining in a Jamaica aircraft: or (7) operation of Jamaican aircraft in,urgent circumstances such as fire suppression operations, emergency

': agricultural and forestry aerial application, airlift in relief of domestic natural disasters and search and rescue operations. Such validations require the approval of the Director General Civil Aviation.

(c) The ~ u h o r i t ~ shall specify in a foreign licence validation certificate the privileges that may be exercised by the holder of the certificate.

SUBPART D: GENERAL TRAINING REQUIREMENTS

8.080 . . RECORDS'OF T ~ N I N G TIME

Each person snall document and record the following time in a manner acceptable to the Authority:

(1) Training and aeronautical experience used to meet the requirements of these Schedules for a licence, rating, qualification, authorization or flight review.

(2) The aeronautical experience gained in order to meet the recent flight experience requirements of these Schedules.

(See the Tenth Schedule, Subsection 10.101for flight time to be rxorded.)

(See the Eighth Schedule, Subsection 8.019 ior the log book entry certification requirements.)

8.085 FLIGHT TRAINING RECEIVED FROM FLIGHT lNSTRUCTORS NOT LICENSED BY THE AUTHORITY

(a) A person may credit flight training toward the requirements of a pilot licence or rating if that person - received the training from - (1) a flight instructor of an Armed Force in a programme for training military pilots of either;

(i) Jamaica; or (ii) another Contracting State; or

(2) a flight instructor authorized to give such training by the licensing authority of a Contracting State. provided that the flight training is given outside Jamaica

(b) A flight Instructor described in paragraph (a) of this Subsection is authorized to give only the endorsements to show training given.

The Authority will consider that a person who presents a graduation certificate from a certificate holder under the Ninth Schedule of the Civil Aviation Safety Regulations within 60 days after the date of graduation, is considered to have met the applicable aeronautical experience and aeronautical knowledge and areas of operational training requirements of this Schedule appropriate to the rating sought.

SUBPART E: GENERAL TESTING REQUIREMENTS

8.100 TESTS: GENERAL PROCEDURE

(8) Tests prescribed by or under this Schedule are given at times and places, and by persons designated by the Authority.

(b) A written test for a licence or rating shall have been completed within the preceding 24 month period prior to the practical test.

8.105 KNOWLEDGE TEST: PREREQUISITES AND PASSING GRADES

(a) An applicant for a knowledge test shall have - (1) accomplished a ground-training or a home-study course covering the topics required by this

Schedule for the licence or rating sought; (2) met the medical standards for the issue of the licence, rating or authorization sought and shall

produce proof of medical fitness in one of the following forms:



(i) A medical certificate in the appropriate medical class; (ii) A medical assessment Letter in the appropriate medical class; (iii) A temporary medical certificate in the appropriate medical class; or (iv) A medical examination report assessed to the appropriate medica; class by the Civil Aviation

Medical Examiner; (3) 'completed all ground school training requirements; and (4) proper identification at the time of application that contains the applicant's -

(i) proof of Citizenship as stated in paragraph (a)(l) of Subsection 8.017; (ii) proof of Age as stated in paragraph (a)(2) of Subsection 8.017; (iii) proof of Identity as stated ~n paragraph (a)(3) of Subsection 8.017; (iv) proof of Experience as stated in paragraph (a)(4) of Subsection 8.01 7; and (v) actual residential address, if different from the applicant's mailing address.

(b) The Authority will specify the minimum passing grade for the knowledge test.

8.1 10 PRACTICAL TEST: PREREQUISITES

(a) To be eligible for a practical test, an applicant shall meet all applicable requirements for the licence or rating sought.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.110 for fhe eligibilify requiremenfs of a practical fest)

(b) If an applicant does not complete all increments of a practical test for a l~cence or rating on one date. the applicant shall complete all remaining increments of the test not more than 60 calendar days after that date provided the initial test and the subsequent test is completed with the same Flight Test Examiner. Otherwise, a complete re-test shall be completed.

(c) If an applicant does not satisfactorily complete all increments of the practical test for a licence or a rating within 60 calendar days after beginning the test, the applicant shall retake the entire practical test. including those increments satisfactorily completed.

8.115 PRACTICAL 'TESTS: GENERAL PROCEDURES

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this Subsection, the Authority will determine an applicant's ability to hold a licence or rating issued under this Subpart based upon the applicant's ability to safely perform the following during a practical test - (1) perform the tasks specified in the areas of operation for the licence or rating sought within the

prescribed standards; (2) operate the airplane within its limitations; (3) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy; (4) exercise good judgement and airmanship; (5) apply aeronautical knowledge; (6) maintain control of the airplane at all times in a manner such that the successful outcome of each

task is:

(i) never seriously in doubt for the private pilot and commerkial pilot tests; and (ii) never in doubt for the Airline Transport Pilot Licence and aircraft type rating tests;

(7) demonstrate single-pilot competence if the aircraft is type certified for single-pilot operations; and (8) for commercial pilots and airline transport pilots in aircraft requiring more than one crewmember:

(i) communicate effectively with the other flight crew members; (ii) understand and apply crew coordination procedures; and (iii) understand and apply crew incapacitation procedures.

(b) If an applicant fails any area.of operation, that applicant fails the practical test (c) An applicant is not eligible for a licence or rating sought until all the areas of operation are passed. (d) The examiner or the applicant may discontinue a practical test at any time -

(1) when the applicant fails one or more of the areas of operation; or (2) due to inclement weather conditions, aircraft aiworthiness or any other safety-of-flight concern.

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8.120 PRACTICAL TESTS: REQUIRED AIRCRAFT AND EQUIPMENT

Except when permitted to accomplish the entire flight increment of the practical test in an approved flight simulator or an approved flight training device, an applicant for a licence or rating issued under this Schedule .shall furnish an aircraft with the necessary equipment and controls.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.0120 for required equipment and controls for practical tests.)

8.125 LIMITATIONS ON THE USE OF FLIGHT SIMULATORS AND FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICES

(a) Except as specified in paragraphs (b) or (c) of this Subsection, no airman may receivesredit for use of any flight simulator or flight training device for satisfying any training, testing or checking requirement of this Scheduleunless that flight simulator or flight training device is approved by the Authority for - .

(1) the training, testing and checking for which it is used; (2) each particular manoeuvre, procedure or crewmember function performed; and (3) the representation of the specific category and class of aircraft, type of aircraft, particular variation

within the type of aircraft or set of aircraft for certain flight training devices. (b) The Authority will consider as a flight training device any device used for flight training. testing or

checking that the Authority has accepted or approved prior to April 17,2001, which any user can show to function as originally designed. provided it is used for the same purposes for which it was originally accepted or approved and only to the extent of such acceptance or approval.

(c) The Authority may approve a device other than a flight training simulator or flight training device for specific purposes.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.125 for requirements on the use of approved simulators and flight training devices.)

8.130 RETESTING AFTER FAILURE

(a) An applicant for a knowledge or practical test who fails that test may reapply for the test only after the applicant has received - (1) the necessary training from an authorized instructor who has determined that the applicant is

proficient to pass the test; and (2) an endorsement from an authorized instructor who gave the applicant the additional training

(Note: The ineligibility periods for the rewriting of failed knowledge tests are set out in paragraph (i) of Subsection 8.046.)

An applicant for a Flight Instructor Rating with an airplane category rating. a Flight Instructor Rating with a glider category rating or a Flight lnstructor Rating with a helicopter category rating, who has failed the practical test due to deficiencies in instructional proficiency in any safety manoeuvre, emergency procedure or recovery to safe flight technique, shall - (1) comply with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this Subsection before being retested; and (2) bring an aircraft to the retest that is of the appropriate aircraft category for the rating sought and is

certified for practical demonstration of the failed items.

SUBPART F: CERTIFICATION: FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS

Section I: Aircraft Ratings and Pilot Authorizations

To be eligible for an aircraft rating or authorization to a pilot licence, an applicant shall meet the appropriate requirements of this Section for the aircraft rating or authorization sought.

(a) An applicant for an lnstrument Rating shall - (1) hdd a pilot licence with an aircraft category and class rating for the lnstrument Rating sought;



(2) hold a Class I or 2 medical certificate; (3) present a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying that the

person is prepared to take the required practical test; (4) pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas. unless the applicant already

holds an Instrument Rating in another category; and (5) pass the required practical test as specified in the Flight Test Guide - lnstrument Rating in -

(i) the aircraft category, class, and type if applicable, appropriate to the rating sought; or (ii) a flight simulator or a flight training device appropriate to the rating sought and approved for the

specific manoeuvre or procedure performed. (Note: For pilots of multi-engine aircraft, the required practical test shall include at least one instrument

approach and landing with an engine failed or simulated failed.)

(b) Aeronautical knowledge. An applicant for an lnstrument Rating shall have received and logged ground training, as prescribed by the Authority, from an authorized instructor on the areas of aeronautical knowledge that apply to the instrument rating.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.145 for the aeronautical knowledge requirements.)

(c) Flight proficiency. An applicant for an lnstrument Rating shall receive and log. as prescribed by the Authority, training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, or in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device, in accordance with paragrap! (e) of this Subsection.

(See Appendix 2 to 8.145 for the flight proficiency requirements.)

(d) Aeronautical experience. An applicant for an lnstrument Rating shall have logged a minimum of 40 hours of instrument flight time and other required aeronautical experience prescribed by the Authority.

(See Appendix 3 to 8.145 for the aeronautical experience requirements.)

(e) Use of'approved flight s~mulators or approved flight training devices. If the instrument training was provided by an authorized instructor in an approved flight simulator or an approved flight training device. an applicant may log a maximum of - (1 ) 20 hours; or (2) 30 hours, if the training was accomplished in accordance with a training program approved under

the Ninth Schedule.

A pilot seeking a category rating - (1) shall have received the required training and possess the aeronautical experience prescribed by this

Schedule for the aircraft category and, if applicable, class and type rating sought; (2) shall have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record from an authorized instructor that

the applicant has been found competentin the following areas, as appropriate to the pilot licence for the aircraft category and, if applicable. class and type rating sought: (i) aeronautical knowledge areas; and (ii) areas of operation.

(3) shall pass the practical test applicable to the pilot licence for the aircrafl category and, I applicable. class and type rating sought; and

(4) need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the applicant holds an airplane, rotorcraft. powered-lift, or airship rating at that pilot licence level.

A pilot seeking an additional class rating - (1) shall have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record from an authorized instructor that

the applicant has been found competent in the following areas, as appropriate to the pilot llcence and for the aircraft class rating sought - (i) aeronautical knowledge areas; and



(ii) areas of operation;

(2) shall pass the practical test applicable to the pilot licence for the aircraft class rating sought; (3) need not meet the training time requirements prescribed by this Schedule for the aircraft class rating

sought; and (4) need not take an additional knowledge test, provided the applicant holds an airplane, rotorcraft.

powered-lift, or airship rating at that pilot licence level.

8.160 TWE RATINGS

(a) Except as specified in this paragraph, a pilot seeking an aircraft type rating to be added on a pilot licence, or the addition of an aircraft type rating that is accomplished concurrently with an additional aircraft category or class rating - - (1) shall have acquired at least 200 hours in the category of aircrafl for which the type rating is sought; (2) shall have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record from an authdrized instructor that

the applicant has been found competent in the following areas, as appropriate to the pilot licence for the aircraft category, class and type rating sought:

(i) normal flight procedures and manoeuvres during all phases of flight; (ii) abnormal and emergency procedures and manoeuvres in the event of failures and malfunctions

of equipment, such as powerplant, systems and airframe; (iii) where applicable, instrument procedures, including 'instrument approach, missed approach and

landing piocedures under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions, including simulated engine failure; and

(iv) procedures for crew incapacitation and crew coordination including allocation of pilot tasks, crew cooperation and use of checklists.

(Note: The experience required in (2) will be gained under appropriate supervision in the applicable type of aircreff and/or flight simulator.)

(3) shall demonstrate to the Authority or a check airman - (i) for pilots of large aircraft or aircraft certificated for two pilots, knowledge of the aircraft type and

general aviation knowledge equivalent to that required for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence; and

. . (ii) for pilots of helicopters and high performance aircraft certificated for one pilot, knowledge of the

aircraft type; (4) shall pass the practical test applicable to the pijot licence for the aircraft category:.class and type

rating sought.

(b) An applicant for a type rating who provides an aircraft not capable of the instrument manoeuvres and procedures required by the appropriate requirements for the practical test may - (1) obtain a type rating limited to YFR only"; and (2) remove the 'VFR only limitation for each aircraft type in which the applicant demonstrates

compliance with the appropriate instrument requirements of these Schedules.

(c) The Authority may issue to an applicant for a type rating a licence with the limitation YFR only" for each aircrafl type not equipped for the applicant to show instrument proficiency.

(d) An applicant for a type rating in a multiengine, single-pilot station airplane may meet the requirements of paragraph (b) in a multi-seat version of that multiengine airplane.

(e) An applicant for a type rating in a single-engine, single-pilot station airplane may meet the requirements of paragraph (b) in a multi-seat version of that single-engine airplane.

(f) Unless the Authority requires certain or all tasks to be performed, the examiner who conducts the practical test may waive any of the tasks for which the Authority approves waiver authority.

8.163 CATEGORY II AND 111 PILOT AUTHORKATION REQUIREMENTS

(a) General. An applicant for a Category II or Category Ill pilot authorization shall - (1) Hold a pilot licence with an Instrument Rating or an Airline Transport Pilot Licence;



(2) Hold a category and class rating, and type rating, if applicable, for the aircraft for which the authorization is sought; and

(3) Complete the practical test requirements.

(b) Experience requirements. An applicant for a Category II or Category Ill pilot authorization shall have at least - (1) 50 hours of night flight time as PIC; (2) 75 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated instrument conditions that may include not

more than - (i) a combination of 25 hours of simulated instrument flight time in an approved flight simulator or

an approved flight training device; or (ii) 40 hours of simulated instrument flight time if accomplished in an approved course conducted

by an appropriately rated FTU; and (iii) 250 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC;

(c) Upon passing a practical test for a Category II or Ill pilot authorization, a pilot may renew that authorization for each type of aircrafl for which the pilot holds authorization.

(d) The Authority may not renew a Category II or Category Ill pilot authorization for a specific aircrafl type for which an authorization is held beyond 12 calendar months from the month the applicant satisfactorily passed a practical test in that aircrafl type.

(e) If the holder of a Category II or Category Ill pilot authorization passes the practical test for a renewal in the month before the authorization expires, the Authority will consider that the holder passed it during the month the authorization expired.

(See Appendix f to 8.163 for additional requirements concerning Category I1 and 111 pilot authorizations.)

(See Appendix 2 to 8. f 63 for the practical test requirements for Category I1 pilot authorizations.)

(See Appendix 3 to 8.163 for the practical test requirements for Category 111 pilot authorizations.)

(a) General. Flight crew members are eligible for a radiotelephone endorsement on their pilot or flight engineer licence.

(b) Eligibility. The flight crewmember shall - (1) be at least 16 years of age; (2) be able to read, write and speak the Englishlanguage; (3) complete ground instruction from a licensed flight instructor on the phonetic alphabet, radio

telephony procedures and phraseology as applied to VFR operations; (4) demonstiate the skill requiied by (3) and ~ n i i i s h language proficiency meeting the level 6

reauirements of Appendix 1 to ICAO Annex 1 under the observation of a licensed flioht instructor: (5) haie that flight instkctor endorse a record of the satisfactory ~~~~~~~~~~~~~and - (6) present that endorsed record to the Authority for issuance of the flight crew licence endorsed for in-

flight radiotelephone privileges.

(a) General. An applicant for a night rating shall acquire dual night and instrument flight time for this rating from the holder of a Flight Instructor Rating endorsed for night flying instruction.

(b) Experience. Except as provided in paragraph (d), the applicant shall have acquired in the same category of aircraft, not less than 20 hours of pilot flight time which shall include not less than - (1) 5 hours of night flight time including not less than -

(i) 2.5 hours dual flight time, including 1 hour of cross-country flight time; (ii) 2.5 hours solo flight time, including 5 takeoffs, circuits and landings, and

(2) 10 hours dual instrument time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time. Instrument time shall be in add~tion to the 5 hours night flight time in paragraph (b)(l) of this

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Subsection and where the instrument time includes instrument ground time, the 5 hours night flight time shall be increased by an amount equivalent to the instrument ground time.

(c) Skill. An applicant for a night rating shall be recommended by a qualified Flight Instructor. (d) Credits. An applicant for a night rating who holds a licence endorsed with a night rating in one of the

other aircraft categories shall have the total 20 hour pilot flight time reduced to a minimum of 5 hours in aeroplanes including a minimum of -

( I ) 2 hours dual fight flight time; (2) 1 hour solo night flight time; and (3) I hour dual instrument flight time, which shall be in addition to the flight time required by (1) and

(2) of this paragraph. (Note: This training shall include a minimum of 5 takeoffs, circuits and landings.)

8.167 MULTI-ENGINE RATING

General. An applicant for the add~tion of a multi-engine rating to a pilot licence shall apply to the Authority in the form and manner prescribed. Experience. An applicant shall have completed not less than 10 hours of dual instruction from the holder of a Flight lnstructor Rating endorsed for multi-engine instruction. This instruction shall be conducted in accordance w~th the JCAA Flight lnstructor Guide, Multi-engine Class Rating. Skill. Except as noted in paragraphs (d) and (e), applicants for a multi-engine rating shall demonstrate skill through successful completion of a flight test conducted in accordance with the JCAA Flight Test Guide - Multiengine Class Rating.

Credits for Active and Retired Personnel of the Jamaica Defence Force. Applicants who are qualified to the 'pilot-aeroplane-wings" standard shall be deemed to have satisfied the skill requirements as set forth in paragraph (c) provided that - ( I ) the applicant has acquired not less than 50 hours flight time as pilot-in-command in multi-engine

aeroplanes during the 24 months preceding the date of application for the endorsement; or (2) the applicant has met the prescribed standards of the Jamaica Defence Force to act as Pilot-in-

command of multi-engine aeroplanes during the 24 months preceding the date of application for the endorsement.

(Note: Military aeroplanes, for which no Jamaican Civil type approval has been issued, am acceptable for the application of these requirements.)

Credits for Foreign Applicants. The holder of a .valid pilot licence aeroplane category endorsed for mulU- engine or multi-engine centre thrust aeroplanes, issued by another Contracting State shall be deemed to have satisfied the requirements as set forth in paragraph (c). provided that - (1) The applicant has acquired not less than 50 hours flight time as pilot-in-command in multi-engine or

multi-engine centre thrust aeroplanes during the 12 months preceding the date of application for the endorsement to the Jamaican licence; or

(2) The applicant has met the prescribed standards, of the State concerned, for issue of a multi-englne or multi-engine centre thrust class rating during the 12 months preceding the date of application for the endorsement to the Jamaican licence.

~eneral: An applicant for a seaplane rating shall apply to the Authority in the form and manner prescribed.

Experience. An applicant for a seaplane rating shall complete a minimum of 10 hours of seaplane flight treining from the holder of a Flight lnstructor Rating endorsed for seaplane instruction. This treinlng shall include - (1) A minimum of 7 hours of dual instruction from the holder of a Flight lnstructor Rating endorsed for

seaplane instruction; (2) A minimum of 3 hours of solo flight to include a minimum of 5 takeoffs from water, circuits and

water landings as sole occupant of the aeroplane, except for two crew aeroplanes, in whlch case the takeoffs and landings shall be done as pilot-in-command; and

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(3) The instruction shall be conducted in accordance with the JCAA Flight lnstructor Guide - Seaplane Rating.

(c) Skill. Applicants for a seaplane rating shall demonstrate skill through successful completion of a flight test conducted in accordance with the JCAA Flig? lnstructor Guide - Seaplane Rating.

Section II: Student Pilots

Thls Section prescribes the requirements for the issuance of student pilot licences, the conditions under which those licences are necessary and the general operating rules and limitations for the holders of those licences. ,

8.173 STUDENT PILOT ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS - GENERAL To be eligible for a student pilot licence, an applicant shall - -

( I ) be at least 16 years of age for other than the operation of a glider or balloon; (2) be at least 15 years of age for the operation of a glider or balloon; (3) be able to read, speak, write and understand the English language; and (4) when required by the Tenth Schedule, Subsection 10.070, hold at least a Class 1 or 2 medical

certificate.

8.175 STUDENT PILOT LICENCE APPLICATION

An applicant for a Student Pilot Licence shall apply to the Authority in the form and manner prescribed prior to undertaking any flight training.

8.177 STUDENT PILOT SOLO REQUIREMENTS.

(a) Aeronautical knowledge. ( I ) A student pilot shall satisfactorily pass an aeronautical knowledge test on the following subjects:

(i) Applicable sections of this Schedule and the Tenth Schedule; (ii) Airspace rules and procedures for the airport where the student will perform solo flight; (iil) Flight characteristics and operational limitations for the make and model of aircraft to be flown;

and (iv) The Jamaican Civil Aviation Regulations.

(2) The student's authorized instructor shall - (I) administer the test; and (ii) at the conclusion of the test, review all incorrect answers with the student before authorising

that student to conduct a solo flight.

(b) Pro-solo flight training. Prior to conducting a solo flight, a student pilot shall have - ( I ) received and logged flight training for the manoeuvres and procedures of this Subsection that are

appropriate to the make and model of aircraft to be flown; and (2) demonstrated satisfactory proficiency and safety, as judged by an authorized instructor, on the

manoeuvres and procedures required by this Subsection in the make and model of aircraft or ' similar make and model of aircraft to be flown.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.177 for required manoeuvres and procedures for a student pilot.)

8.179 STUDENT PILOT SOLO CROSS-COUNTRY FLIGHT REQUIREMENTS

(a) General.

( I ) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this Subsection, a student pilot shall meet the requirements of this Subsection before:

(I) conducting a solo cross-country flight or any flight greater than 25 nautical miles from the airport from where the flight originated; and

(ii) making a solo flight and landing at any location other than the airport of origin.

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(2) except as provided in paragraph (b) of this Subsection, a student pilot who seeks solo cross-country flight privileges shall - (i) have received flight training from an authorized instructor on the manoeuvres and procedures of

this Subsection that are appropriate to the make and model of aircrafl for which solo cross- country privileges are sought;

(ii) .have demonstrated cross-country proficiency on the appropriate manoeuvres and procedures of this Subsection to an authorized instructor;

(iii) have satisfactorily accomplished the required pre-solo flight manoeuvres and procedures in the make and model of aircraft or similar make and model of aircraft for which solo cross-country privileges are sought; and

(iv) comply with any limitations included in the instructor's endorsement that are required by paragraph (c) of this Subsection.

(3) a student pilot who seeks solo cross-country flight privileges shall have received ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the cross-cou41fry manoeuvres and procedures listed in this Subsection that are qppropriate to the aircraft to be flown.

(b) Authorization to perform certain solo flights and cross-country flights. A student pilot shall obtain an endorsement from an authorized instructor to make solo flights, subject to the following conditions - (1) a student pilot may make solo flights to another airport that is within 25 nautical miles from the

airport where the student pilot normally receives training, provided - (i) the authorized instructor who makes the endorsement gave the student pilot flight training at the

other airport, and that training included flight in both directions over the route, entering and exiting the traffic pattern and takeoffs and landings at the other airport;

(ii) the student pilot has a current solo flight endorsement. (iii) the instructor has determined that the student pilot is proficient to make the flight; and (iv) the purpose of the flight is topractice takeoffs and landings at that other airport.

(2) a student pilot may make repeated specific solo cross-country flights to another airport that is within 50 nautical miles of the airport from which the flight originated, provided - (i) the authorized instructor who gave the endorsement gave the student flight training in both

directions over the route, including entering and exiting the traffic patterns, takeoffs and landings at the airport to be used;

(ii) the student has current solo flight endorsements; and (iii) the student has a current solo cross-country flight endorsement in accordance with paragraph

(c) of this Subsection, except that separate endorsements are not required for each flight made under this paragraph.

(c) Endorsements for solo cross-cguntry flights. Except as specified in paragraph (b)(2), a student pilot shall have the endorsements prescribed in this paragraph for each make and model aircraft the student will fly on each cross-country flight.

(1) student pilot's training records endorsement:

(i) a student pilot shall have a solo cross-country endorsement placed on the student's training records by the authorized instructor who conducted the training.

(2) logbook endorsement:

(i) a student pilot shallhave a solo cross-country endorsement placed in the student pilot's logbook by the authorized instructor who conducted the training; and

(ii) a licensed pilot who is receiving training for an additional aircrafl category and class rating shall have an endorsement placed in the pilot's logbook by the authorized instructor who conducted the training.

(d) ~knoeuvrek and procedures for cross-country flight training. A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight shall receive and log flight training in the required manoeuvres and procedures.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.179 for list of required manoeuvres and pmcedures.)

- - -

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Section Ill: Private Pilots

This Section prescribes the requirements for the issuance of private pilot licences and ratings, and the conditions under which those licences and ratings are necessary.

8.185 PRNATE PILOT ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS - GENERAL To be eligible for a Private Pilot Licence, a person shall -

(1) be at least 17 years of age for a rating in other than a glider or balloon; or. (2) be at least 16 years of age for a rating in a glider or balloon; and. (3) be able to read, speak, write and understand the English language; (4) when required by the Tenth Schedule, Subsection 10.070. hold at least a Class 2 medical

certificate; (5) receive a logbook endorsement for the knowledge test from an instructor who:

(i) conducted the training or reviewed the person's home study on the prescribed aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to the aircraft rating sought; and

(ii) certified that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test.

(6) pass the required knowledge test on the prescribed aeronautical knowledge areas. (7) receive flight training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who: '

(i) conducted the flight training in the areas of operation that apply to the aircraft rating sought; and (ii) certified that the person is prepared for the required practical test.

(8) meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this Subpart that apply to the aircraft rating sought before applying for the practical test.

(9) pass a practical test as specified in the Flight Test Guide - Private Pilot in an aircraft of the category, class and type applicable to the aircraft rating sought.

(10) comply with the appropriate sections of this Subpart that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(a) General. The Authority will administer a knowledge test for a Private Pilot Licence based on the aeronautical knowledge areas prescribed by the Authority appropriate to the aircraft categoq and class rating sought.

. (b) An applicant for a Private Pilot Licence shall receive and log a minimum of 40 hours ground training from an instructor on the aeronautical knowledge areas prescribed by the Authority that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.190 for the.prescribed private pilot aeronautical knowledge requirements0

8.195 PRIVATE PILOT FLIGHT lNSTRUCTlON REQUIREMENTS

An applicant for a Private Pilot Licence shall receive and log flight training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation prescribed by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.195 for the private pilot flight instruction requirements.)

8.200 PRIVATE PILOT AERONAUTlCAL EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for a Private Pilot Licence with an airplane or rotorcraft category rating shall receive and log the minimum dual instruction, solo, cross-country and night time prescribed by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.200 for the minimum requirements for specific categories and classes.)

(b) The minimum total hours of flight shall not be less than - (1) at least 45 hours of flight time that includes at least 20 hours of flight training from an authorized

instructor, and (2) 12 hours of solo flight training in the areas of operation prescribed by the Authority,

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(c) An applicant who has satisfactorily completed a private pilot course conducted by an FTU need have only a total of 40 hours of aeronautical experience.

(d) An applicant for a Private Pilot Licence may credit one of the following in an approved flight simulator or an approved flight training device representing the category, class and type, if applicable, of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought - (1) a maximum of 2.5 hours of training, if received from an authorized instructor other than an FTU: or (2) a max imu~ of 5 hours of training if the training is accomplished in a course conducted by an FTU.

(e) Credits for holders of a pilot licence in another category (aeroplane or helicopter category only). (1) Knowledge.

(i) an applicant who holds a Private or higher type pilot licence for either aeroplanes or helicopters . may, when applying for the issue of a Private Pilot Licence for the other category, have the 40

hour ground school instruction requirement reduced-to 20 hours. (ii) an applicant who holds a Private or higher type pilot licence for either aeroplanes or helicopters

shall in lieu of completing the written examination subjects for the Private Pilot Licence for the aircraft category being sought, obtain a minimum of 70% in the written examination Private Pilot Licence airmanship section for the aircraft category sought.

(2) ~xperience. (See Appendix 1, to 8.200 for experience credits.)

(f) Credits for Jamaica Defence Force Applicants. Active orretired Jamaica Defence Force personnel who have qualified to pilot wings standard shall be deemed to have met the ground school instruction requirement, the written examination requirement, the course requirement and the skill requirement provided that:

(1) the applicant meets the experience requirements of which a minimum of 10 hours flight time in the category of aircraft for which the licence is sought shall have been acquired in the 12 months preceding the date of application, and

(2) the applicant obtains a minimum of 70% in the appropriate written Air Law examination.

(g) Credits for Foreign Applicants. The holder of a licence issued by a Contracting State shall be deemed to have met the ground school instruction requirement, the written examination requirement and the skill requirement provided that the applicant meets the experience requirements and obtains a minimum of 70% in the written Air Law examination.

-8.205 PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE ISSUANCE LIMITATIONS The Authority may prescribe limitations that are to be included on the licence based on limited experience of the applicant.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.205 for limitations regarding pilots based on small islands.)

(See Appendix 2 to 8.205 for limitations regarding the pilots of balloons.)

Section IV: Commercial Pilots

This Section prescribes the requirements for the issuance of a Commercial Pilot Licence and ratings and the conditions under which those licences and ratings are necessary.

To be eligible for a Commercial Pilot Licence, a person shall - (1) be at least 18 years of age: (2) be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. (3) if required by the Tenth Schedule, Subsection 10.070 for the category, class and type rating sought,

hold a Class I medical certificate. (4) receive a logbook endorsement from an instructor who:

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(i) conducted the required ground training or reviewed the person's home study on the aeronautical knowledge areas prescribed by the Authority that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and

(ii) certified that the person is prepared for the required knowledge test that applies to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(5) pass the required knowledge test on the aeronautical knowledge areas prescribed by the Authority; (6) receive the required flight training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who-

(i) conducted the flight training prescribed by the Authority that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought; and

(ii) certified that the person is prepared for the required practical test. - (7) meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this Subpart that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought before applying for the practical test;

(8) pass the required practical test as specified in the Flight Test Guide - Commercial Pilot (Aeroplane or Helicopter) on the prescribed areas of operation that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought;

(9) hold a Private Pilot Licence issued under this Subpart or meet the requirements pertaining to military licences; and

(10) comply with all sections of this Subpart that apply to the aircraft category and class ratmg sought.

8.230 COMMERCIAL PILOT AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS

(a) General. The Authority will administer a knohledge test for a Commercial Pilot Licence based on the class rating sought.

(b) An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall receive and log a minimum of 40 hours of ground training from an instructor, or complete a home-study course on the required aeronautical knowledge areas prescribed by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.230 for specific aeronautical knowledge area requirements.)

8.235 COMMERCIAL PILOT FLIGHT INSTRUCTION REQUIREMENTS

An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall receive and log ground and flight training from an instructor as prescribed by the Authority to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.235 for detailed mquirements concerning training for aircraff category and class ratings sought.)

8.240 COMMERCIAL PILOT AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall obtain the required flight hours of aeronautical experience prescribed by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.240 for specific mquired aeronautical experience.)

(b) AT0 exception. Except when fewer hours are approved by the Authority, an applicant who has satisfactorily completed a commercial pilot course conducted by an AT0 must have the following total aeronautical experience to meet the requirements of this Subsection - (1) 200 hours for an aeroplane rating; and (2) 150 hours for a helicopter rating. Flight Simulator exception. An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence may credit one of the maximum times for training in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device representlng the applicable category, class, ahd type of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought - (I) 10 hours for an aeroplane rating; and (2) 10 hours for a helicopter rating.

(d) Credits for holders of a Commercial Pilot Licence in another category (aeroplane or hellcopter only). (1) Knowledge:

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278 THE CIVIL A VIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

(i) an applicant who holds a Commercial Pilot Licence either aeroplane or helicopter may, when applying for the issue of a Commercial Pilot Licence for the other category have the 40 hour ground school instruction requirement reduced to 20 hours: and

(ii) an applicant who holds a Commercial Pilot Licence for either aeroplane or helicopter shall, in lieu of completing the written examination Commercial Pilot Licence for the category sought. obtain a minimum of 70% in the written examination segment Commercial Pilot Licence, Aircraft Operations, Airmanship and principles of Flight section for the category sought.

(2) Experience.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.240 for experience credits.)

(e) Credits for Jamaica Defence Force Applicants. Active or retired Jamaica Defence Force personnel who have qualified to pilot wings standard shall be deemed to have met the ground school instruction requirement, the written examination requirement, the skill requirement and the requirement to hold a Private Pilot Licence, provided that the applicant - (1) meets the experience requirements of which a minimum of 10 hours flight time was acquired in the

category of aircraft for which the licence is sought in the 12 months preceding the date of application, and

(2) obtains a minimum of 70% in the written Air Law examination.

(f) Credits for Foreign Applicants. Provided that the applicant can provide proof of having met the applicable expelience requirements, the holder of a Commercial or higher type pilot licence in any category issued by a Contracting State shall be deemed to have met the ground school instruction requirement and with the exception of the written Air Law examination, the knowledge requirement.

8.245 COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE ISSUANCE LIMITATIONS

The Authority shall issue to an applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence with an aeroplane or rotorcraft category rating who does not hold an Instrument Rating in the same category and class a Commercial Pilot Licence that contains the limitation: "The cam'age ofpessengers for hire in (eeroplanes) (powered- lifis) on cmsscountry flights in excess of 50 nautical miles or at night is prohibited."

(Note: A pilot may remove this limitation by satisfactorily accomplishing the requirements prescribed by the Authority for an Instrument Rating in the same category end class of aircrafi that has the limitation.)

If an applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a balloon with an airbome heater, the Authority shall place upon the pilot licence a limitation restricting the exercise of the privileges of that licence to a balloon with an airbome heater.

(Note: The prlot may remove this limnetion by obtaining the required aeronautical experience in a gas balloon and receiving a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who atfests lo the pilot's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a gas balloon.)

If an applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence with a balloon rating takes a practical test in a gas balloon, the Authority shall place upon the pilot licence a limitation restricting the exercise of the ~rivileqes of that . - licence to a-gas balloon. .

(Note: The pilot may remove this limitation by obtaining the required aeronautical experience in a beloon with an airborne heater and receiving a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who etfests to the person's accomplishment of the kqu ihd aemnautical experience and ability to satisfectorily operate a balloon with en airborne heater.)

Section V: Airline Transport Pilots

This Section prescribes the requirements for the issuance of an Airline Transport Pilot Licence and ratings, and the conditions under which those licences and ratings are necessary.

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8.260 AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT ELIGIBILIN REQU~REMENTS - GENEW

To be eligible for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence, a person shall - (1) be at least 21 years of age; (2) be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language; (3) hold a Class 1 medical certificate or its equivalent; (4) meet al least one of the following requirements:

(i) hold a valid and current Commercial Pilot Licence and an lnstrument Rating; (ii) meet the military experience requirements to qualify for a Commercial Pilot Licence, and an

Instrument Rating if the person is an active or retired pilot of Jamaica Defence Force; or (iii) hold either a foreign Airline Transport Pilot or foreign Commercial Pilot Licence and an

lnstrument Rating issued by another Contracting State;

(5) meet the aeronautical applicable experience requirements of this Subpart before applying for the practical test;

(6) pass a knowledge test on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas prescribed by the Authority that apply to the aircrafl category and class rating swght; and

(7) pass the practical test as specified in the Flight Test Guide - Airline Transporl Pilot (Aeroplane or Helicopter) that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

8.265 AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE , , (a) General. The Authority will administer a knowledge test for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence based on

the aeronautical knowledge areas prescribed by the Authority appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating sought.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.265 for the seronautical knowledge requirements for airline transporl pilot.)

(b) An applicant for an Airline Transport Rlot Licence shall.receive and log ground training from an instructor, or complete a home-study course on the required aeronautical knowledge areas prescribed by the Authority.

8.270 ARUNE TRANSPORT PILOT FLIGHT PROFICIENCY REQUIREMENTS An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have received and logged flight training from an authorized instructor as reauired to attain a Commercial Pilot Licence and lnstrument Ratina and that amlies - . . to the aircraft category and'class rating sought.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.270 for the flight proficiency requirements for srrline transporl pilot.)

8.275 &RUNE TRANSPORT PILOT AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pllot Licence with: ( I ) an aeroplane category rating shall obtain the minimum aeronautical experience of 1,500 hours total

flight time of which a minimum of 900 hours shall have been completed in aeroplanes. The 1500 hours may include a maximum of 100 hours of training in a flight training device or flight simulator of which not more than 25 houd may have been obtained in a flight training devlce. The 1500 hours shall also include the additional minimum experience prescribed by the Authority.

(2) a mtorcraft-helicopter category rating shall obtain the minimum aeronautical experience of 1.000 hours totd flight time of which a minimum of 600 hours shall have been completed in helicopters. The 1000 hours may include a maximum of 100 hours of trainlng in a fl~ght training device or flight simulator of which not more than 25 hours may have been obtained in a flight training device. The 1000 hours shall also include the minimum experience prescribed by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.275 for the breakout of the aeronaut~cal experience prescnbed for an airline transport rating.)

(b) Credits for Jamaica Defehce Force Applicants. Active or retired Jamaica Defence Force personnel who hold a Jamaica Defence Force unrestricted lnstrument Rating for either a multi-engine aeroplane or a helicopter required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall be deemed to have met the skill requirement.

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THE CIVIL A YIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

(c) Credits for Foreign Applicants. Provided that the apphcant can provide proof of having met the applicable experience requirements, the holder of an Airline Transport Pilot Licence in either the aeroplane or helicopter category issued by a Contracting State shall be deemed to have met the ground school instruction requirement and with the exception of the written Air Law examination. the knowledge requirement.

8.290 ADDITIONAL AIRCRAFT CATEGORY, CUSS AND TYPE RATINGS

(a) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence with a category rating who holds an Airline Transport Pilot Licence with another aircraft category rating shall - (1) meet the applicable eligibility requirements; (2) pass a knowledge test on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas; (3) meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements; and (4) pass the practical test on the areas of operation.

(b) An applicant for an aircraft type rating to an Airline Transport Pilot Licence is not required to pass a knowledge test if that pilot's Airline Transport Pilot Licence lists the aircraft category and class rating that is appropriate to the type rating sought.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.275 for experience credits toward an additional Airline Transport Licence eircreff category.)

Sectlon VI: Class 1 and Class 2 Flight Instructors

This Section prescribes the requirements for the issuance of the Class 1 and Class 2 Flight lnstructor Rating and the conditions under which those ratings are necessary. and the limitations on those ratings.

8.305 FUGHT INSTRUCTOR RATING EUQIEIUN REQUIREMENTS

(a) To be eligible for a Class 2 Flight lnstructor Rating a person shall - (1) be at least 18 years of age; (2) be able to read, speak, write and understand the English language; (3) hold either a Commercial Pilot Licence or Airline Transport Pilot Licence with an aircraft category

and class rating that is appropriate to the Flight lnstructor Rating sought; (4) receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized Class 1 Flight lnstructor that the applicant has

received a minimum of 40 hours of instruction on the fundamentals of instructing prescribed by the Authority appropriate to the required knowledge test;

(5) pass with a minimum mark of 70% a knowledge test on the areas prescribed by the Authority. (6) receive a logbook endowment from an authorized Class 1 Flight lnstructor that the applicant has

received a minimum of 25 houn of dual ~nstruction on the areas of operation prescribed by the Authority appropriate to the Fl~ght lnstructor Rating sought, and receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized Class 1 Flight lnstructor indicating that the applicant is competent and possesses instructional proficiency in all the required manoeuvres;

(7) pass the required practical test as specified in the Flight Test Gulde - Flight Instmdor Rating that Is appropriate to the Flight lnstructor Rating sought in an aircraft that is representative d t h e category and class of aircraft for the aircraft rating sought and that is certified and capable of performing all of the required manoeuwes as set out in the flight test guide:

(8) an examiner may accept the endorsement specified in paragraph (a)(6) of this Subsection as satisfactory evidence of mstructional proficiency in all of the required manoeuvres for the practical test, provided that the practical test is not a retest as a result of the applicant falllng the previous test for deficienaes in those knowledge or skill areas;

(9) if a retest is the result of defiaenaes in the ability of an applicant to demonstrate the requisite knowledge or skill, the applicant shall demonstrate the knowledge and skill to anexaminer in an aircraft that Is certified and capable of performing the manoeuvres that are being re-tested; and

(10) log at least 15 houn as PIC in the category and class of aircraft that Is appropriate to the Flight Instructor Rating sought.

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THE CIVIL AVIATION XEGULATIONS, 2004

(b) To be eligible for a Class 1 Flight lnstructor Rating an applicant shall - (1) hold a Class 2 Flight lnstructor Rating in the aircraft category sought; (2) pass with a minimum mark of 80% a knowledge test on the areas prescribed by the Authority; (3) have conducted a minimum of 400 hours of dual flight instruction toward the granting of private

licences in the appropriate aircraft category; (4) have recommended a minimum of 10 students for their private licence flight test and have had a

minimum of 8 students successfully pass this flight test on their first attempt; and (5) pass the required practical test that is appropriate to the Flight Instructor rating sought in an aircraft

that is representative of the category and class of aircraft for the aircraft rating sought and is certified and capable of performing all of the required manoeuvres as set out in the appropriate flight test guide.

8.310 . FLIGHT lNSTRUCTOR ~RONAUTICAL.KNOWLEDGE An applicant for a Class 1 or 2 Flight lnstructor Rating shall demonstrate a level of knowledge in subjects presaibed by the Authority appropriate to the privileges requested to be granted.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.310 forprescribed Class 1 or 2 Flight Instructor knowledge requirements.)

8.315 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR FLIGHT PROFICIENCY REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for a Class 1 or 2 Flight lnstructor Rating shall - (1) reoeive and log flight time as prescribed by the Authority. and

(See Appendix 1 to 8.315 for the flight instruction requirements.) ,

(2) have an endorsement from an authorized Class 1 Flight lnstructor that the person is proficient to pass a practical test for the Flight lnstructor rating sought.

(b) An applicant must accomplish the flight training required by this Subsection in an aircraft that is representative of the category and class of aircraft for the rating sought.

8.320 FUQ'HT INSTRUCTOR RECORDS . .

A ilight lnstructor shall - (1) sign the logbook of each student to whom helshe has given flight training or ground training; (2) maintain a record in a logbook or a separate document that contains the following:

(I) the name of each student whose logbook or student pilot licence that helshe has endorsed for solo flight privileges, and the date of the endorsement; and

(ii) the name of each student that helshe has endorsed for a knowledge test or practical test, and a record of the kind of test, the date, and the results; and

(3) retain the records required.by this Subsection for at least 3 years.

8.325 ADDITIONAL FUGHT INSTRUCTOR RATINGS '

(a) An applicant for an additional Flight lnstmctor Rating shall meet the eligibility requirements prescribed by the Authority mat apply to the Flight lnstmctor Rating sought.

(b) An applicant for an additional rating on a Flight lnstructor Rating is not required to pass the knowledge test on the areas prescribed by the Authority.

8.330, FUGHT INSTRUCTOR LIMITATIONS AND ~UWF~CATIONS AND ADDITIONAL PRIVILEGES

(a) The holder of a Flight Instructor Rating shall observe the limitations and qualifications applicable to flight Instructors that are prescribed by the Authority.

(b) Additional privileges may be added to a Flight lnstmctor Rating.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.330 for the limitations and qualihcations that are applicable to exercising additional flight instructor privileges.)



8.335 RENEWAL OF FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR RATINGS

A Class 2 Flight lnstructor Rating that has not expired may be renewed for an additional 12 Calendar months or a Class 1 Flight Instructor Rating thaf has not expired may be renewed for an additional 24 calendar months if the holder - (1) Passes a practical test for -

(i) renewal of the Flight Instructor Rating; or (ii) an additional Flight lnstructor Rating; or

(2) Presents to the Authority a graduation certificate showing that the pilot has successfully completed an approved flight instructor refresher course consisting of ground training or flight training, or both. within the 90 days preceding the expiration month of his or her Flight 1nstructor.rating.

If the holder of either Flight Instructor Rating accomplishes the renewal requirements within the 30 days preceding the expiration month of his or her Flight lnstructor Rating the Authority shall consider that the person accomplished the renewal requirement in the month due.

A holder of either Flight lnstructor rating may accomplish the practical test required by paragraph (a)(l) of lhis Subsection in an approved course conducted by an FTU.

The holder of an expired Flight lnstructor, Rating may renew that rating by passing the prescribed praciical test.

8.345 CREDITS FOR APPLICANTS WHO HOLD OR HAVE HELDA FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR RATING

(a) Knowledge.

(1) an applicant who holds or has held within the preceding 24 calendar months, a Flight Instructor Rating on a different aircraft category than the one sought, shall be deemed to have met 15 hours of the 40 hours ground school instruction requirement.

(2) an applicant who holds or has held within the preceding 24 calendar months, a Flight Instructor Rating and wishes to renew on the same category of aircraft, shall be deemed to have met the written examination requirement.

(b) Experience. An applicant who holds dr has held within the preceding 24 calendar months, a Flight lnstructor Rating, shall have the 25 hours of dual flight instruction reduced to 15 hours. If the Flight lnstructor Rating was endorsed for extra privileges, the experience requirements for those extra privileges shall be deemed to have been met.

8.350 CREDITS FOR JAMAICA DEFENCE FORCE APPUCANTS

(a) Knowledge.

(1) active or retired Jamaica Defence Force personnel who hold or have held within the preceding 24 calendar months, a Jamaica Defence Force lnstructor Category on the same aircraft category as the one sought, shall be deemed to have met the written examination requirement.

(2) aclive or relired Jamaica Defence Force personnel who hold or have held within the preceding 24 calendar months, a Jamaica Defence Force lnstructor Category on a different aircraft category than the one sought, shall be deemed to have met 20 hours of the 40 hour ground school instruction requirement.

(b) Experience. Active or retired Jamaica Defence Force personnel who hold or have held within the precedmg 24 calendar months, a Jamaica Defence Force Instructor Category for initial flight training, shall be deemed to have met the required 25 hours of dual flight instruction. If the flight instructor category was endorsed for extra privileges, the experience requirements for those extra privileges shall be deemed to have been met.

8.355 CREDITS FOR FOREIGN APPLICANTS

(a) now ledge.



(1') an applicant who holds or has held within the preceding 24 calendar months, a Flight lnstructor Rating on a different aircraft category than the one sought, shall be deemed to have met 15 hours of the 40 hours ground school instruction requirement.

(2) an applicant who holds or has held within the preceding 24 calendar months, a Flight lnstructor Rating and is seeking a Flight lnstructor rating on the same category of aircraft, shall be deemed to have met the 40 hours ground school instruction requirement.

(b) ~xperience. An applicant who holds or has held within the preceding 24,calendar months, a Flight lnstructor Rating, shall have the 25 hours of dual flight instruction reduced to 15 hours. If the Flight lnstructor Rating was endorsed for extra privileges, theexperience requirements for those extra privileges shall be deemed to have been met:

8.360 AEROBATIC AEROPWE INSTRUCTOR RATING

(a) Prerequisites. Before commencing training for an Aerobatic Airplane lnstructor Rating, an applicant shall hold a Commercial or higher Pilot Licence - Aeroplane.

(b) Knowledge.

( I ) An applicant shall have completed a minimum of 15 hours of Aerobatic lnstructor Rating ground school instruction which shall include - (i) the practical application of the basic techniques of instruction and principles of learning as

outlined in Section 1 of the Flight lnstructor Guide; (ii) lesson planning; (iii) theory of flight applicable to aerobatics; (iv) preparatory ground instruction procedures; (v) pre and post flight briefing procedures; (vi) teaching aerobatic flight manoeuvres; (vii) aircraft structural limitations; (viii) r?edical factors and human tolerances; (ix) aerobatic pre-flight inspection; (x) considerations for recovery from unplanned manoeuvres; (xi) flight safety considerations; (xii) regulations and airspace restrictions relating to aerobatic flight; and (xiii) presentation of pilot decision making concepts.

(2) An applicant shall have obtained'lO% in the Air Law written examination, unless previously completed.

(c) Experience.

( I ) An applicant shall provide evidence of having completed a minimum of 10 hours of.dual flight instruction on the teaching of aerobatic manoeuvres including -

(i) aerobatic spin entry and recovery (minimum 1 turn): (ii) loop; (iii) barrel roll; (iv) slow roll; (v) snap roll; (vi) hammerhead turn; (vii) combination manoeuvres including -

(A) %loop followed by % roll (Immelmann Turn); (0) X roll followed by % loop (Split S); (C) 518 loop followed by 45 degree descending % roll (112 Cuban 8); and (D) 45 degreeclimbing %roll followed by 518 loop (112 Reverse Cuban 8;. and

(viii) recovery techniques from unplanned aerobatic manoeuvres.

(d) Skill. The applicant shall complete a flight test to the standard outlined in the JCAA Flight Test Standad- Flight Instructor Rating -Aeroplane.

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(e) Credits.

( I ) ~nowled~e. An applicant who holds, or has held within the preceding 24 months, a Flight Instructor Rating -Glider - Aerobatic or a Flight Instructor Rating for aeroplanes or helicopters shall be deemed to have met 10 hours of the 15 hours ground school instruction requirement.

(2) Experience. An applicant who holds, or has held a Flight lnstructor Rating - Gliders - ~erobatic or Flight lnstructor Rating for aeroplanes or helicopters, shall be deem to have met h e experience requirement.

(1) Credits for Jamaica Defence Force Applicants.

(1) Knowledge. An applicant who holds, or has held within the preceding 24 months, a Jamaica Defence Force Instructor Category - Aeroplanes, shall be deemed to have met 10 hwrs of the 15 hours ground school instruction requirement.

(2) Expe"ence. An applicant who holds or has held within the preceding 24'months, a Jamaica Defence Force Qualified Flight lnstructor category valid for training on single engine aeroplanes shall be deemed to have met the experience requirement.

(g) Credits for Foreign Applicants.

(1) Knowledge. An applicant who holds, or has held within the preceding 24 months, a Flight lnstructor Rating -Aeroplane issued by a Contracting State shall be deemed to have met 10 hours of the required 15 hours of ground school instruction.

(2) Experience.

(i) an applicant who holds or has held a Flight lnstructor Rating issued by a Contracting State shall be deemed to have met the experience requirement.

(ii) an applicant who holds or has held an International Council of Airshows (ICAS) Aerobatic Competency Recommendation from the FAA shall be deemed to have met the experience requirement

8.365 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR RATING - BAUOON To be eligible for a Flight lnstructor Rating - Balloon, a person shall -

( I ) be at least 18 yean of age and hold a Class I or 2 medical certificate; (2) be able to read, speak, write and understand the English language; .

(3) hold a Commercial or higher Pilot Licence; (4) receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized Class 1 Flight lnstructor that the applicant has

received at least 10 hours of ground training on the fundamentals of instructing to include:

(i) the plinciples of learning and techniques of instruction; (ii) preparation and use of lesson plans; (iii) flight preparatory instruction; (iv) pre and post flight briefing procedures relative to air exercises and weather conditions; and (v) normal and emergency procedures.

(5) pass with a minimum of 80% a written examination on Flight lnstructor Rating instructional techniques; '

(6) Experience.

(i) an applicant shall have completed a minimum of 50 hours of flight time in balloons and hithin 12 months preceding the date of application, shall have completed flight training of a minimum . . of 5 hours including I (A) 3 dual flights on instructional techniques of a minimum of 30 minutes each between

takeoff and landing: (B) 2 dual tethered flights on instructional techniques of a minimum of 30 minutes each; (C) 4 flights as PIC of a minimum of 30 minutes each between takeoff and landing; and (D) 1 tethered flight as PIC of a minlmum of 30 minutes.

(ii) the 50 hours of flight time referred to above shall include not more than 10 hours of tethered flight time.

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(7) Skill. An applicant shall submit a letter of recommendation from the holder of a Class 1 Flight lnstructor Rating - Balloon certifying that the applicant has reached a standard of skill to instruct in balloons.

(8) Credit. The ground school and written examination specified above shall be deemed to have been met if the applicant holds or has held within the preceding 24 months, a valid,Commercial or higher pilot licence with a Class 1 or Class 2 Flight lnstructor Rating.

(9) Validity. A Flight Instructor Rating - Balloon shall be valid to the first day of the 37'"onth following the month in which the letter of recommendation was dated.

(10) Renewal. An applicant for renewal of a Flight lnstructor Rating - Balloon shall:

(i) have completed a minimum of 3 hours of balloon flight instructor experience during the preceding 12 months; or

(ii) provide a recommendation from the holder of a Flight Instructor Rating - Balloon, certifying that the applicant is familiar with current instructional techniques and is competent to act as a balloon flight instructor.

8.370 FUGHT INSTRUCTOR RATING - GLIDER To be eligible for a Flight lnstructor Rating - Glider a person shall -

( I ) be at least 18 years of age and hold a Class I or 2 Medical Certificate; (2) be able to read, speak, write and understand the English language; (3) hold a Commercial or higher Pilot Licence; (4) receive a logbook endorsement from an authorized Class I Flight lnstructor that the applicant has

received at least 10 hours of ground training on the fundamentals of instructing to include - (i) the principles of learning and the techniques of instruction; (ii) preparation and use of Lesson Plans; (iii) flight preparatory instruction; (iv) pre and post flight briefing procedures relative to air exercises and weather conditions; and (v) normal and emergency procedures.

(5) pass with a minimum of 80% a written examination on Flight lnstructor Rating instructional techniques.

(6) Experience.

(i) An applicant shall have completed in gliders a minimum of - (A) 20 hours flight time including a minimum of 125 flights of which no fewer than 10 flight have been completed in a tweseat glider, or (0) 10 hours flight time including a minimum of 200 flights of which no fewer than 10 flights have been completed in a tweseat glider.

(7) Skill. An applicant shall submit a letter of recommendation from the holder of a Flight lnstructor Rating -Glider certifying that the applicant has reached a standard of skill to instruct in gliders.

(8) credits. The following Ledits shall be given to an applicant who has - (i) a Private or higher Pilot Licence - Aeroplane shall have the total flight time and the total number

of flights specified in the experience requirement above reduded by 25%; (ii)' aeroplane pilot experience in excess of 100 hours who holds a Private or higher Pilot Licence -

Aeroplane shall be issued a Flight lnstructor Rating - Glider after completing a minimum of 10 hours flight time in gliders and at least 50 flights with no fewer than 10 of these flights in two- seat gliders;

(iii) a Commercial or higher Pilot Licence - Aeroplane who holds a valid Class I or 2 Flight lnstructor Rating - Aeroplane shall be issued a Flight lnstructor Rating - Glider after completing a minimum of at least 25 flight in gliders with no fewer than 10 of these flights in tweseat gliders.

(9) Validity. A Flight Instructor Rating - Glider shall be valid to the first day of the 37Ih month following the month in which the letter of recommendation was dated.

(10) Renewal. An applicant for renewal of a Flight Instructor Rating - Glider shall -

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(i) have completed a minimum of 3 hours of flight time as a glider flight instructor during the preceding 12 months; or

(ii) provide a recommendation from the holder of a flight instructor Rating - Glider, certifying that the applicant is familiar with current instructional techniques and is competent to act as a glider flight instructor.

S e c t i o n VII: Flight E n g i n e e r s

8.415 AppLlcnelLln This Section prescribes the requirements for issuing a Flight Engineer Licence.

To be eligible for a Flight Engineer Licence, a person shall -

(1) be at least 18 years of age for a rating in other than a glider or balloon; (2) be able to read, speak, write and understand the English language; (3) pass the required knowledge test on the prescribed aeronautical knowledge areas; (4) meet the aeronautical experience requirements of this Subpart that apply to the aircraft rating

sought before applying for the practical test; (5) pass a practical test on the areas of operation that apply to the aircraft rating sought; and (6) comply with the appropriate sections of this Subpart that apply to the arcraft categoly and class

rating sought.

(a) An applicant for a Flight Engineer Licence shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a Flight Engineer Licence in subjects prescribed by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.420 for the aeronautical knowledge requirements prescribed for flight engineers.)

(b) Before taking the knowledge tests prescribed in paragraph (a) of this Subsection, an applicant for a Flight Engineer Licence shall present satisfactory evidence of having completed one of the experience requirements.

(c) An applicant may take the knowledge tests before acquiring the flight training prescribed by the Authority.

(d) Except as provided in paragraph (9 of this Subsection, an applicant for a Flight Engineer Licence or rating shall have passed the knowledge tests required by paragraph (a) of this Subsection since the beginning of the 24th calendar month before the month in which the practical test is taken.

(e) An applicant who within the period ending 24 calendar months after passing the knowledge test. is employed as a flight crewmember or mechanic by a Jamaica AOC holder need not comply with the time limit set in paragraph (d) of this Subsection if the applicant - (1) is employed by such a certificate holder at the time of the practical test; and (2) if employed as a flight crewmember, has completed initial training, and if appropriate, transition,

upgrade, recurrent training; or (3) if employed as an AME, meets the recency of experience requirements.

(9 An AOC holder may, when authorized by the Authority, provide as part of an approved training programme a knowledge test that it may administer to satisfy the test required for an additional rating under paragraph (a)(l) of Subsection 8.435.

8.425 FLIGHT ENGINEER &RONAUTlCAL EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

(a) The applicant for a Flight Engineer Licence shall present satisfactory evidence showing kompletion of the practical experience prescribed by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.425 for the aeronauticel experience requirements prescribed for flight engineers.)



(b) Except as otherwise prescribed or approved by the Authority, an applicant for a Flight Engineer Licence shall obtain and log the flight time used to satisfy the aeronautical experience requirements of paragraph (a) of this Subsection on an aeroplane on which a flight engineer is required by the Civil Aviation Regulations.

8.427 FLIGHT ENGINEER OPERATIONAL EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS The applicant for a Flight Engineer Licence shall present satisfactory evidence showing completion of the operational experience prescribed by the Authority in the aircraft to be used for the rating sought.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.427 for the operational experience requirements prescribed for flight engineers.)

8.430 FLIGHT ENGINEER AERONAUTICAL SKILL REQUIREMENTS

An applicant for a Flight Engineer Licence with a class rating shall pass a practical test prescribed by the Authority on the duties of a flight engineer -

(1) in the class of aeroplane for which a rating is sought; and (2) only on an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator replicating such an aeroplane

(See Appendix 1 to 8.430 for the aeronautical skill requirements prescribed for flight engineers.)

To add another aircraft class rating to a flight engineer licence, an applicant shall - (1) pass the knowledge test and practical test that is appropriate to the class of aeroplane for which an

additional rating is sought, or (2) satisfactorily complete an approved flight engineer training program that 1s appropriate to the

additional class rating sought.

SUBPART G: LICENSING: AIRMEN OTHER THAN FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS

Section I: General

8.445 &PLlcAelLln

This Subpart prescribes the requirements for issuing the following licences, ratings and authorizations for: (1) Flight Dispatcher; (2) Aircraft Maintenance Engineer; (3) Air Traffic Controller; or (4) Aeronautical Radio Station Operator.

Section II: Flight Dispatchers

8.485' & ~ L l c m L l n

This Section prescribes the requirements for issuance of a Flight Dispatcher Licence.

(a) An applicant for a Flight Dispatcher Licence shall - (1) be at least 21 years of age; (2) be able to read, speak, write and understand the English language at a profic~ency level meeting the

level 6 requirements of Append~x 1 to ICAO Annex 1; (3) have the documented prerequisite experience or training required; (4) pass the required knowledge test on the prescribed aeronautical knowledge areas; (5) pass the required practical examination on the areas of operations that apply to the aircraft

dispatcher lcence; and (6) be in possession of a radio operator licence or endorsement.



(b) The knowledge and skill requirements of paragraph (a) of this Subsection shall be demonstrated to a person authorized by the Authority.

8.490 FLIGHT DISPATCHER KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for a Flight Dispatcher Licence shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an aircraft dispatcher licence in subjects prescribed by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.490 for the aeronautical knowledge requirements for flight dispatchers.)

(b) The Authority will accept evidence of satisfactory completion of a knowledge test for 24 months after the date the test for ehgibility to take the practical test.

8.495 FLIGHT DISPATCHER EXPERIENCE OR TRAINING REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for a Flight Dispatcher Licence shall present satisfactory documentary evidence that the applicant has the experience or training prescribed by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.495 for the minimum prerequisite experience prescribed for flight dispatcher applicants.)

(b) An applicant using the completion of an approved course as the basis for the experience must complete the practical exam within 90 days after successful completion of the knowledge exam.

8.500 FLIGHT DISPATCHER SKILL REQUIREMENTS

An applicant for a Flight Dispatcher Licence shall be able to demonstrate the skill requirements prescribed by. the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.500 for the prescribed skill requirements for flight dispatcher applicants.)

8.505 FLIGHT DISPATCHER LICENCE ISSUANCE LIMITATIONS

Unless the applicant has served under the supervision of an authorized flight dispatcher for at least 90 working days within the six months immediately preceding the application, the licence will be issued with the limitation "Not valid for unsupervised dispatch of large aircrafl in commercial air transpoh" This limitation will be removed upon presentation to the Authority of completion of this requirement.

Section Ill: Aircraft Maintenance Engineer

This Section prescribes the requirements for issuance of an Aircraft Maintenance Engineer (AME) Licence and associated ratings.

An applicant for an AME Licence shall - (1) be at least 18 years of age; (2) provide proof of citizenship; (3) be able to speak, read, understand and write the English language; (4) have completed a course of study, approved by the Authority; , (5) have accumulated not less than four (4) years of aircraft maintenance experience; (6) pass the required written andlor multichoice knowledge tests; and (7) pass the required practical andlor oral tests.

8.520 AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE ENGINEER KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for an AME Licence shall demonstrate a level of knowledge satisfactory to the Authority, in the areas in which the privileges of the licence will be exercised.



(b) The Authority will accept evidence of satisfactory completion of a knowledge test for 24 months after the applicant has been approved to take the test. (See Appendix 1 to 8.520 for the knowledge requirements for an AME.)

( a ) An applicant for an AME Licence shall present satisfactory documentary evidence to the Authority that the applicant has completed an approved course of study, including both theoretical and practical components, under the supervision of a licensed AME, or a qualified instructor, who has been approved by the Authority to carry out the function.

(b) Where an applicant has completed an approved course at a Maintenance Training Organization, the applicant shall present his certificate or diploma to the Authority for verification.

(c) An applicant for an AME Licence shall present satisfactory documentary proof that he has obtained at least four years of experience in the field of aircraft maintenance, covering a sufficiently wide range of tasks that will enable a level of competency suitable to the privileges of the licence being granted.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.525 for the experience and training requirements for an AME.)

8.530 AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE ENGINEER SKILL REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for an AME Licence shall be required to demonstrate the skill requirements prescribed by the Authority, in the manner prescribed.

(b) A demonstration of skill, appropriate to the privileges to be granted to the licence holder, may be made in an oral examination, a practical examination or a combination of both, as specified by the Authority.

(a) An applicant for a Type Rating endorsement on an AME Licence will be required to demonstrate to the Authority that helshe has obtained sufficient training and experience to allow the applicant to make a determination that the aircraft meets the specifications of its type certificate and that it is serviceable and fit for flight.

(b) The Authority shall, once the training and experience requirements are met, convene a panel of not less than two persons to conduct an oral examination of the applicant. The applicant will be expected to demonstrate familiarity with the aircraft, its systems, and its power plant(s), commensurate with the ATA 104 Level Ill training standards.

(See Appendix 1 to 8.535 for the training and experience requirements for aircrat? type rating endorsements.)

8.536 RENEWAL OF AN AME LICENCE

(a) Unless suspended or revoked by the Authority, or surrendered by the holder, an AME Licence shall be valid for twenty-four calendar months following the issue or renewal of the licence.

(b) The holder of an AME Licence may apply to the Authority for renewal of the licence at any time during the sixty-day period prior to the expiry of the licence.

(c) Application for renewal shall be made using the prescribed form issued by the Authority. (d) The following information shall be supplied on the application form -

[I) name of aDDlicant: . , . . (ii) licence number, with details of the category and ratings currently held; (iii) permanent place of residence and telephone contact number; (ivj nature of employment since last application; (v) certification from another licence holder that the information provided is correct; and (vi) applicant's signature.

(8) The applicable fee for the renewal of the licence, as specified in the Twenty-Second Schedule, shall be submitted along with the application.

(f) Where deemed necessary, the Authority may request a current picture of the applicant for the licence.

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8 . m REST AND DUTY LIMITATIONS FOR AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE ENGINEERS

(a) No person may assign, nor shall any person perform anycertification functions for aircraft, unless that person has had a minimum rest period of 8 hours prior to the beginning of duty.

(b) No person may schedule a person performing certification functions for aircraft for more than twelve and a half (12%) consecutive hours of duty.

(c) In situations involving unscheduled duty due to aircraft unserviceability, persons performing certification functions for aircrafl may be continued on duty for - (1) a maximum of fifteen (15) consecutive hours; or (2) a maximum of seventy -two (72) hours in any sevenday (7) period.

(d) Following any duty period of more than 12 hours, the person performing maintenance functions for aircrafl shall have a minimum mandatory rest period of 10 hours.

(e) An AM0 or AOC holder shall relieve the person performing maintenance functions from all duties for least one twenty-four (24) consecutive hour period during any seven (7) consecutive days.

8.545 AME PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

(a) Except as provided for in paragraph (d), an AME may perform, supervise, and certify for, any maintenance, preventive maintenance, component replacement, repair, modification, and inspection completed on, and approve for return to service, any aircraft, airframe, power plant, propeller, appliance, component, or part thereof, for which he or she is type-rated, provided that the AM€ - (1) has received formal training acceptable to the Authority on the tasks to be performed; (2) has either satisfactorily performed the work at an earlier date while working under the direct

supervision and instruction of an AME; or (3) has demonstrated the ability to perform the work to the satisfaction of the Authority; and (4) holds valid and current Licence,, appropriate to the task being performed

(b) A Type-rated AME may - (I) perform an annual inspection, or perform or supervise a progressive, inspection, according to this

Schedule on any aircraft for which his licence is endorsed, except those aircrafl on a continuous maintenance program, and approve the aircrafl for return to service.

(2) perform a Duplicate Inspection on any system of any aircrafl for which his Licence is endorsed. (3) carry out and certify a Certificate of Maintenance Review on an aircrafl for which his Licence is

endorsed, provided that helshe has been so authorised by the ownerloperator and approved for that function by the Authority in the operator's approved MCM.

(c) When exercising the privileges of his Licence, the holder of a Type-rated AM€ Licence shall keep it .available for inspection by the aircraft ownerloperator and shall present it at the request of the Authority or any authorised representative of the Director Geqeral, or at the request of any law enforcement ofticer.

(d) An AME may not - (1) perform, supervise. or certify (unless under the direct supervision and control of an AOC holder or

AM0 that is authorised for such maintenance, preventative maintenance, repairs, replacements, or modifications):

( I ) A major repair to, or major modification of, a propeller; (ii) any repair or alteration of instruments, radios, or other electrical or electronic equipment; (iii) the return to service of a piston engine, where the crankcase has been separated and

reassembled; (iv) the return to service of a turbine engine, where any module has been separated and reinstalled.

(2) approve for return to service any aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component. or part thereof after completion of a major modification. or major repair, unless acting under the authority of an AMO.

(3) approve for return to service any aircraft where a weld repair has been carried out, unless acting under the authority of an AMO.



(4) approve for return to service any aircraft where a compass compensation adjustment has been carried out, unless hislher Licence is endorsed for that function, or helshe is acting under the authority of an AMO.

(5) exercise the privileges of the licence unless the AME understands the current instructions for continued airworthiness and the maintenance instructions for the specific operation concerned.

(6) exercise the privileges of hislher L~cence while employed to the Civil Aviation Authority as an Inspector, except when those privileges are being exercised on an aircraft operated in the Private Category and owned by the Inspector.

(7) certify for any repairs, adjustments, or replacements carried out on Direct-Reading Compasses. unless the Licence has been endorsed for "Compass Compensation & Adjustment" by the Authority.

(e) An "E" Licence encompasses all avionics systems on all aircraft of 5700kgs MCTOW or less unless otherwise limited or restricted. An "E" licensed AM€ is therefore a "Type Rated" AME. As such, an "E" Licensed AME may exercise all the privileges specified in paragraphs (a) and (b) above with respect to avionics systems on all aircraft of 5700kgs or less MCTOW, and on any aircraft of more than 5700kgs MCTOW on which the holder has received ATA 104 Level Ill endorsement training and has achieved an 80% or better examination grade.

8.550 AME RECENT EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

A type-rated AME may not exercise the privileges of hislher license or rating unless, within the preceding 24 months -

(1) the Authority has found that helshe is able to do that work; or (2) for at least 6 months withinlhe preceding 24 months. helshe has-

(i) served as an AM€ under hislher license and rating; (ii) technically supervised other AME's; (iii) provided aviation maintenance instruction or served as the direct supervisor of persons

providing aviation maintenance instruction for an AME course or program acceptable to the Authority;

(iv) supervised the maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alteration of any aircraft. airframe. aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component, or part thereof; or

(v) been engaged in any combination of sub-paragraphs (2) (i) through (2) (iv) of this Subsection; or

(vi) undergone a refresher program approved by or acceptable to the Authority.

Section IV: Aeronautical Station Operator

This Section prescribes the requirements for issuance of an authorization to operate radio equipment in an aeronautical station and the conditions under which this authorization is necessary.

8.627 AERONAUTICAL STATION OPERATOR ELIGIBILITY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL To be eligible for an Aeronautical Station Operator authorization, a person shall - #

(1) be at least 18 years of age; and (2) be able to read, speak, write and understand the English language meeting the proficiency level

6 requirements of Appendix I to ICAO Annex I; and (3) comply with the sections of this Subpart that apply to the authorization that they seek.

8.630 AERONAUTlCAL STATION OPERATOR KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS An applicant for an Aeronautical Station Operator Authorization shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an aeronautical station operator authorization in subjects prescribed by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 630 for prescribed aeronautical station operator knowledge requirements.)

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8.635 AERONAUTICAL STATION OPERATOR EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS An applicant for an Aeronautical Station Operator Authorization shall provide records demonstrating that they meet the minimum experience requirements for an aeronautical station operator prescribed by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 635 for prescribed aeronautical station operator experience requirements.)

8.640 AERONAUTICAL STATION OPERATOR SKILL REQUIREMENTS

An applicant for an Aeronautical Station Operator Authorization shall demonstrate the levelskill prescribed by the Authority for anaeronautical station operator.

(See Appendix 1 to 640 for prescribed aeronautical station operator skill requirements.)

Section V: Air Trafflc Controller

8.660 APPLlCAelLln

This Section prescribes the requirements for issuance of an Air Traffic Controller Licence and the conditions under which the licence and any ratings are necessary.

8.662 AR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER ELIGIBIUTY REQUIREMENTS: GENERAL An applicant for an Air Traffic Controller Licence shall -

(1) be not less than 21 years of age; (2) be able toread, write, understand, and speak the English language by meeting the level 6

proficiency requirements of Appendix 1 to ICAO Annex 1; and (3) hold at least a class 3 medical certificate.

8.665 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER KNOWLEDGE REQUIR~MENTS

(a) An applicant for an Air Traffic Controller Licence shall have demonstrated, to the satisfaction of the Authority, a level of knowledge in the following areas - (1) principles of flight; pr~nciples of operation and functioning of aircraft, powerplants and systems;

aircraft perfonance relevant to air traffic control operations; (2) human performance and l~mitat~ons relevant to air traffic control; (3) aeronautical meteorology; use and appreciation of meteorological documentation and information;

origin and characteristics of weather phenomena affecting flight operations and safety; altimetry. (4) principles of air navigation, limitation and accuracy of navigation systems and visual aids; and (5) air traffic control, communication, radiotelephony and phraseology procedures (routine, non routine

and emergency); use of the relevant aeronautical documentation; and safety practices associated with flight.

(b) An applicant for an Air Traffic Controller Licence shall have demonstrated, to the satisfaction of the Authority, a level of knowledge in the followmg areas appropriate to the rating that will be endorsed - (1) airspace structure; (2) applicable rules, procedures and information sources; (3) Jamaica Civil Aviation Regulations and the Manual of Operations; (4) air navigation facilities; (5) air traffic control equipment and its use; (6) terrain and prominent landmarks; (7) characteristics, of air traffic and traffic flow; (8) meteorology and weather phenomena; (9) emergency and search and rescue plans; (10) principles, use and limitations of radar and other surveillance systems and associated equipment;

and (1 1) procedures for the provision of approach or area radar control services, as appropriate, including .

procedures to ensure appropriate terrain clearance.

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THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004 . - 8.670 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for an Air Traffic Controller Licence shall have completed an approved training course.

(b) An applicant shall have met the experience requirements detailed in Chapter 4 of ICAO Annex 1 for each rating that is to be endorsed on the licence. I

8.675 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER SKILL REQU~REMENTS An applicant shall have demonstrated, at a level appropriate to the privileges being the skill, judgement and performance required to provide a safe, orderly and expeditious air traffic control service.

8.676 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROLLER RATING PRIVILEGES AND REQUIREMENTS Provided he or she has met the requirements for a rating, the holder of a current Air Traffic Controller Licence and a valid medical may exercise the privileges of that rating as follows -

Aerodrome Control Rating: to provide or to supervise the provision of aerodrome control service for the aerodrome for which the licence holder is rated; Approach Control Rating: to provide or to supervise the provision of approach control service for the aerodrome or aerodromes for which the licence holder is rated, within the airspace or portion thereof, under the jurisdiction of the unit providing approach control service; Approach Radar Control Rating: to provide andlor supervise the provision oflapproach control service with the use of radar or other surveillance systems for the aerodrome or aerodromes for which the licence holder is rated, within the airspace or portion thereof. under the jurisdiction of the unit providing approach control service and subject to meeting the experience requirements specified in Subsection 8.670(b); Approach Precision Radar Control Rating: to provide andlor supervise the of precision approach radar service at the aerodrome for which the licence holder is rated; Area Control Rating: to provide andlor supervise the provision of area control service within the control area,or portion thereof, for which the licence holder is rated; and : Area Radar Control Rating: to provide andlor supervise the provision of area control servicewith the use of radar, within the control area or portion thereof, for which the licence holder is rated.

When twocair traffic controller ratings are sought concurrently, the knowledge, skill and experience requirements for both shall be met.

Before exercising the privileges of a rating, the licence holder shall be familiar with all pertinent and current information.

The holder of an Air Traffic Controller Licence shall not carry out instruction in an operational environment unless such holder has received authorization from the Authority.

A rating shall become invalid when an air traffic controller has ceased to exercise the privileges of the rating for a period exceeding 90 days or more. A rating shall remain invalid until the controller's ability to exercise the privileges of the rating has been re-established.

A person may exercise the privileges of a rating without having an Air Traffic Controller Licence provided that person:

(1) is undergoing training under the supervision of a qualified air traffic controller; and

(2) has met the requirements specified in Subsections 8.662 and 8.665.

APPENDICES .

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.018: DETAILED ~NFoRMATIoN TO BE INCLUDED ON A LICENCE I

The following details shall appear on the licence using the roman numerals shown - I (1) name of State (in bold type); (2) title of licence (in very bold type); i

(3) serial number of the licence, in arabic numerals, given by the authority issuing the licence; (4) name of holder In full (in Roman alphabet; also if script of national language is other than Roman);

I

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(5) address of holder; (6) nationality of holder' (7) signature of holder; (8) authority and, where necessary, conditions under which the licence is issued; (9) certification concerning validity and authorization for holder to exercise privileges appropriate to

licence; (10) signature of officer issuing the licence and the date of such issue; (1 1) seal or stamp of authority issuing the licence; (12) ratings, e.g. category, class, type of aircraft, airframe, aerodrome control, etc.; (13) remarks, i.e. special endorsements relating to limitations and endorsements for privileges, including

from March 5. 2008, an endorsement of language proficiency; (14) any other details desired by the State issuing the licence.

APPENDIX 2 TO 8.018: COLOURS TO BE ~NCLUDED ON A LICENCE The following colours shall appear on the licence -

(1) Private pilot aeroplane ....................... light brown.

(2) Commercial pilot aeroplane-------------- light blue. (3) Airline transport pilot aeroplane------------ dark green. (4) private pilot helicopter ........................ light grey (5) Commercial pilot helicopter------------------ dark grey (6) Airline transport pilot helicopter-------------- two or more dark grey stripes on white background (7) Glider pilot ----- - ----------------------------- pink (8) Free balloon pilot ---- ........................... violet

(9) Flight engineer ---- ---- ---------------- brown (10) Aircraft maintenance engineer---------------maroon (1 1) Air traffic controller ---------------------- yellow (12) Flight operations officer------------------------ light green (13) Aeronautical station operabr---------------- two or more orange stripes on white background

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.1 10: PREREQUISITES FOR PRACTICAL TESTS

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), to be eligible for a practical test for a licence or rating issued under this Schedule, an applicant shall - (1) pass the required knowledge test within the 24-calendar-month period preceding the month the

applicant completes the practical test, if a knowledge test is required; (2) present the knowledge test report at the time of application for the practical test, if a knowledge test

is required; (3) have satisfactorily accomplished the required flight training and obtained a minimum of 75% of the

aeronautical experience prescribed by this Schedule for the licence or rating sought, with the exception of first time applicants for an Instrument Rating or a Class 2 ~ l i ~ h t lnshuctor Rating who shall have completed all of the required Right training and aeronautical experience;

(4) meet the prescribed age requirement of this Subpart for the issuance of the licence or rating sought; and

(5) have an endorsement in his or her logbook or training record that has been signed by an authorized Class 2 Flight Instructor who certifies that the applicant -

(i) has received and logged training time within 60 days preceding the date of application in preparation for the practical test;

(ii) is prepared for the required practical test; and (iii) has demonstrated satisfactory knowledge of the subject areas in which the applicant was

deficient on the airman knowledge test.

(b) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence or an additional rating to an Airline Transport Pilot Licence may take the practical test for that licence or rating with an expired knowledge test report. provided that the applicant -

lThe Inclusion 01 thla page Is nuthorkd by L.N. 18r\n0081

THE Cl VIL A VIA TlON REGULATIONS, 2004

(1) is employed as a flight crewmember by a certificate holder under the Twelfth Schedule at the time of the practical test and has satisfactorily accomplished that operator's approved:

(i) PIC aircraft qualification training program that is appropriate to the licence and rating sought; and

(ii) Qualification training requirements appropriate to the licence and rating sought; or

(2) is employed as a flight crewmember in scheduled military air transport operations of Jamaica at the time of the practical test, and has accomplished the PIC aircraft qualification training program that is appropriate to the licence and rating sought.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.120: PRACTICAL TESTS: REQUIRED AIRCRAFT, SIMULATION AND EQUIPMENT

(a) General. Except as provided in paragraph (a)(2), or when permitted to accomplish the entire flight increment of the practical test in an approved flight simulator or an approved flight training device, an applicant for a licence or rating issued under this Schedule shall furnish - (1) an aircraft of Jamaica registry for each required test that -

(i) is of the category, class and type (if applicable) applicable to the'licence or rating sought; and (ii) has a current standard, limited or primary airworthiness certificate; and

(2) at the discretion of the examiner who administers the practical test:

(i) an aircraft that has a current airworthiness certificate other than standard, limited or primary but that otherwise meets the requirement of paragraph (a)(l);

(ii) an aircraft of the same category, class and type, if applicable, of foreign registry that is properly certified by the country of registry; or

(iii) a military aircraft of the same category. class and type, if applicable, for which the applicant is applying for a licence or rating.

(b) Required equipment (other than controls). Each applicant for a practical test shall use an aircraft that has - (1) the equipment for each area of operation required for the practical test; (2) no prescribed operating limitations that prohibit its use in any of the areas of operation required for

the practical test; (3) except as provided in paragraph (e), at least two pilot stations with adequate visibilityfor each

person to operate the aircraft safely; and (4) cockpit and outside visibility adequate to evaluate the performance of the applicant when an

additional jump seat is provided for the examiner.

(c) Required controls. Each applicant for a practical test shall use an aircraft (other than a lighter-than-air aircraft) that has engine power controls and flight controls that are easily reached and operable in a conventional manner by both pilots, unless the examiner determines that the practical test can be conducted safely in the aircraft without the controls being easily reached.

(d) Simulated instrument flight equipment. An applicant for a practical test that involves manoeuvring an aircraft solely by reference to instruments shall furnish - (1) equipment on board the aircraft that permits the applicant to pass the areas of operation that apply

to the rating sought; and . (2) a device that prevents the applicant from having visual reference o~itside the aircraft, but does not

prevent the examiner from having visual reference outside the aircraft, and is otherwise acceptable to the Authority.

(e) Aircraft with single controls. An applicant may complete a practical test in an aircraft having a single set of controls, provided the - (1) examiner agrees to conduct the test; (2) test does not involve a demonstration of instrument skills; and (3) proficiency of the applicant can be observed by an examiner who is in a position to observe the

applicant.

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(9 Aircraft with a single seat. An applicant may complete a practical test in an aircrafl having a single seat provided that the practical test is conducted in an area that will allovr the aircraft in flight to be observed by the examiner on the ground.

APPENDIX 1 OF 8.125: USE OF AN APPROVED FLIGHT SIMULATOR OR AN APPROVED FLIGHT TRAINING DEVICE

General. If an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device is used for accomplrshing any of the training and the required practical test for a pilot licence for a category, class and type rating. the flight simulator or flight training device shall be used in accordance with an approved course at an FTU;

Preflight inspection demonstration. The preflight inspection shall be satisfactorily demonstrated as approved by the Authority.

Practical test demonstration. ( I ) the applicant may be issued a rat~ng after successful completion of the required pract~cal tests

prescribed by the Authority, if the simulator was Level D, or (2) if the simulator was not Level D, the following tasks must be satisfactorily demonstrated in the

aircrafl in flight as prescribed by the Authority - (i) normal takeoff; (ii) rejected landing; and (iii) three landings to include one landing with an engine out.

In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.145, an'applicant for an Instrument Rating shall have received .and logged ground training from an authorized instructor on the following aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to thelnstrument Rating sought: (see Appendix 2 to 8.145 (c) for "authorized instructor) -

( I ) rules and regulations relevant to flight under IFR; related air traftic services pradices and procedures; 4

(2) use, limitation and serviceability of avionics and instruments necessary for the control and navigation of aeroplanes or helicopters (as appropriate) under IFR and in instrument meteorological conditions; use and limitations of an autopilot; I

(3) compasses, turning and acceleration errors; gyroscopic instruments, operational limits and precession effects; practices and procedures in the event of malfunctions of various flight instruments;

(4) pre-flight preparations and checks appropriate to flight under IFR; ,

(5) operational flight planning; preplration and filing of air traftic services flightplans under IFR; altimeter setting procedures;

(6) human performance relevant to instrument flight in aeroplanes or helicopters (as appropriate); (7) aeronautical decision making and judgement; (8) crew resource management, including crew communication and coordination; :

. . (9) application of aeronautical meteorology; interpretation and use of reports, charts and forecasts; codes and abbreviations; use of, and procedures for obtaining meteorological information; altimetry;

(10) procurement and use of aviation weather reports and forecasts and the elements of forecasting weather trends based on that information;

( I I ) personal observation of weather conditions; (12) causes, recognition and effects of engine, propeller or rotor icing and airframe:icing; frontal zone

penetration procedures; hazardous weather avoidance; (13) recognition of critical weather situations and windshear avoidance; I

(14) practical air navigation using radio navigation aids; (15) use, accuracy and reliability of navigation systems used in departure, en-route, approach and

landing phases of flight; identification of radio navigation aids; (16) interpretation and use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP, NOTAM, aeronautical codes and

abbreviations. and instrument procedure charts for departure. en-route, descent and approach: . . (1 7) precautionary and emergency procedures; safety pradtices associated with flight under IFR; (18) radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as applied to aircraft operattons under IFR; action to be

taken in case of communication failure.

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(19) appropriate information in advisory material published by the Authority that applies to flight operations under IFR;

(20) air traftic control system and procedures for instrurnent flight operations; (21) IFR navigation and approaches by use of navigation systems; (22) use of IFR en route and instrument approach procedure charts; and (23) safe and efticient operation of aircraft under instrument flight rules and conditions.

(a) In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.145, an applicant for an Instrument Rating shall receive and log training from an authorized instructor in an aircraft, or in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device that includes the following areas of operation -

pre-flight procedures, including the use of the flight manual or equivalent document, and appropriate air traftic services documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan; pre-flight Inspection, use of checklists, taxiing and pre-take-off checks; procedures and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at least: (i) transition to instrument flight on take-off; (ii) standard instrument departures and arrivals; (iii) enroute IFR procedures; '

(iv) holding procedures; (v) instrument approaches to specified minima; (vi) missed approach procedures; (vii) landings from instrument approaches; and (viii) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics. air traftic control clearances and procedures; flight by reference to instruments; navigation systems; instrument approach procedures; emergency operations; and postflight procedures.

(b) Addlonally, for multi-engine aeroplanes - operation of the aeroplane or helicopter (as appropriate) solely by reference to instruments with one engine inoperative or simulated inoperative throughout an approach and landing.

(c) An authorized instructor for lnstrurnent Rating training purposes is - (i) a Flight Instructor who holds a valid lnstrurnent Rating for the applicable aircraft category and dass

- and in the case where the student does not hold a Multi-Engine Rating, the instructor must have at least 50 hours of multi-engine experience as pilot-in-command with at least 10 hours as pilot-incommand on the type of aeroplane used, or

(ii) the holder of a Commercial or higher Pilot Licence endorsed with a valid lnstrurnent Rating for the applicable aircraft category and class provided the holder has at least 500 hours PIC experience Of which at least 100 hours shall be in the applicable aircraft group and at least 10 hours as PIC on the type of aeroplane being used.

(a) In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.145, an applicant for an lnstrurnent Rating shall have logged the following -

(1) at least 50 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC, of which at least 10 hours shall be in the alrcraft category for the lnstrurnent Rating sought; and

(2) a total of 40 hours of actual or simulated instrument time on the areas of operation of this Subsection, to include:

(i) at least 10 hours of Instrument flight training from an authorized instructor in the aircraft category for which the lnstrurnent Rating is sought;

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(ii) at least 3 hours of instrument training that is appropriate to the Instrument Rating sought from an authorized instructor in preparation for the practical test within the 60 days preceding the date of the test;

(b) The instrument training on cross-country flight procedures specific to the category and class of aircraft shall include at least one cross-country fl~ght in the aircraft that is performed under IFR, and consists of - (1) a distance, along airways or ATCdirected routing, of at least 100 nautical miles; (2) an instrument approach to published minimums at each of at least two different airports; and (3) three different kinds of approaches with the use of navigation systems.

APPENDK 1 fO 8.163: CATEGORY II OR Ill AUTHORIZP.TlON GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for an authorization for Category II or Ill operations shall pass a practical test for - (1) Issuance or renewai of a Category II or Ill pilot authorization; and (2) the addition of another type aircraft to a Category II or Ill pilot authorization.

(b) To be eligible for the practical test for an authorization under this Subsection, an applicant shall - (1) meet the prescribed requirements; and (2) If the applicant has not passed a practical test for this authorization during the 12 calendar months

preceding the month of the test:

(i) meet the prescribed requirements; and (11) have perfomed at least six ILS approaches during the 6 calendar months preceding the month

of the test, of which at least three of the approaches shall have been conducted without the use of an approach coupler.

(c) An applicant shall accomplish the prescribed approaches - Under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions; to the minimum decision height for the ILS approach in the type aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted, except that the approaches need not be conducted to the decision height authorized for Category II operations; to the decision height authorized for Category II operations only if conducted in an approved flight stmulator or an approved flight training device; and in an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the practical test is to be conducted or in an approved flight simulator that:

(I) represents an aircraft of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircraft in which the authorization is sought; and

(ii) is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by an FTU. (d) The flight time acquired in meeting the prescribed requirements may be used.

APPENDIX 2 TO 8.163: CATEGORY 11 OR 111 AUTHORIZATION PRACTICAL ORAL EXAMINATION Durlng the practical test, the applicant shall demonstrate knowledge requirements of Table 14.163 through oral queslonlng. An Inspector or evaluator may conduct oral questioning at any time during the practical test.

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X

..

they are normally discernible at reduced RVR readings The expected sequence of visual cues during an approach in which visibility is at or above landing minima Recoanitlon of the decision height or alert height. as a~~l icable, usinq a

. .

Missed approach procedures and techniques using computed or fixed attitude guidance displays Procedures and techniques related to transition from non-visual to visual flight during a final approach under reduced RVR

Table 1 - 8.163

X

..

Demonstrated Aeronautical Knowledge Requirements

X

X

Category ll 111

prior ib and afler reachkg the alert heigk or decision height, as Cc applicable

Recoonition of the limits of acceotable aircraft oosition and fliaht oath

X

x . Category

Recoonition of and orooer reaction to sianificant failures encountered I I

- . trackGg during approach. flare, and. if applicable, rollout

APPENDIX 3 TO 8.163: CATEGORY 11 OR 111 AUTHORIZATION PRACTICAL FLIGHT EXAMINATION

(a) The practical flight test shall be conducted in an aircrafl of the same category, class and type, as applicable, as the aircrafl in which the authorization is sought or in an approved flight simulator that - (1) represents an aircrafl of the same category and class, and type, as applicable, as the aircrafl in

which the authorization is sought; and (2) is used in accordance with an approved course conducted by an FTU.

(b) All approaches performed during the flight phase shall be made with the use of an approved flight control guidance system, except as noted in Table 2 - 8.163 included in this section.

(c) For an authorization for an aircrafl that requires a Type Rating, the applicant shall pass a practical test In cowdination with a SIC who holds a Type Rating in the aircrafl in which the authorization is sought.

(d) An inspector or evaluator may not conduct oral questioning at any time during a practical test.

(e) The practical tests shall include the prescribed manoeuvres and procedures: (1) under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions that replicate, throughout the practical test, the

minimum weather conditions for the category of approach, landing and rollout; and (2) to the minimum height for the category or ILS approach in the type aircrafl in which the practical test

is to be conducted;

(Note: If the practical test is conducted in the aircrafi, the examining official may exercise the discretion to set a higher minimum height appropriate to the circumstances.)

X

x

abnokalities, particularly afler passing alert height or decision height, as applicable Unexpected deterioration of conditions to less than minimum RVR during approach, flare, and rollout Assigned duties of the SIC during Category II or Ill operations, unless the aircrafl for which authorization IS sought does not require an SIC Effects of vertical and horizontal windshear


X

--

Recognition of, and reaction to, airborne or ground system faults or

X

X

I X

X

X

X

3 00 THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS. 2004

APPENDIX 4 TO 8.163: GENERAL REQUIREMENTS FOR CATEGORY 11 AND CATEGORY 111 PILOT AUTHORWTIONS

disconnect at touchdown Normal hand-flown landing Missed approach s Missed approach with inoperative engine (if aircraft has performance caaabiliM

The Authority will issue a Category II or Category Ill pilot authorization by letter, as a part of an applicant's Instrument Rating or Airline Transport Pilot Licence.

Upon original issue the authorization will contain the following limitations - (1) for Category II operations, 1.600 feet RVR and a 150-foot decision height; and (2) for Category Ill operations, as specified in the authorization document. To remove the limitations on a Category II or Category Ill pilot authorization: (1) a Category II limitation holder may remove the limitation by showing that, since the beginning of the

sixth preceding month, the holder has made three Category II ILS approaches with a 150-foot decision height to a landing under actual or simulated instrument conditions; or

(2) a Category Ill limitation holder may remove the limitation by showing experience as specified in the authorization.

An authorization holder or an applicant for an authorization may use a flight simulator or flight training devlce If It is approved by the Authority for such use, to meet the prescribed experience requirements or for the practical test required by this Schedule for a Category II or a Category Ill pilot authorization, as applicable.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.177: MANOEUVRES AND PROCEDURES FOR STUDENT PILOT PRESOLO FLIGHT TWNING In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.177, a student pilot who is receiving training for solo flight shall recelve and log flight training listed in Table 14.177 for the following manoeuvres and procedures, as applicable, for each category and class rating:

(Note: In the table below the abbreviations indicated the category and/or class of aircrafi as follows: A=Aemplane; RH=Rotorcrafi-Helicopter; RG=Rotorcrafi-Gymplane; G=Glider; LA=Airship; FB=Free Balloon.)

X X X

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X X


A student pilot who is receiving training for cross-country flight shall receive and log flight training in the manoeuvres and procedures listed in Table 1-8.179.

(Note: In the table below the abbreviations indicated the category and/or class of aircmt? as follows: A=Aemplane; RH=Rotorcrat?-Helicopter; RG=Rotorcraft-Gymplane; G=Glider; U\=Airship; FB=Free Belloon.)

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Table 1 - 8.179 I Specific Manoeuvres and Procedures I A

(1) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR naviaation usino I piiotage and dead reckoning with the aid of a magnetic compass (2) Use of aircraft performance charts pertaining to cross- country flight (3) Procurement and analysis of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts, including recognition of critical weather situations and estimating visibility while in flight (4) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions favourable for cross-country soaring, ascending flight, descending flight, and altitude control (5) Recognition of weather and upper air conditions conducive for the direction of'cross-country flight (6) Recognition, avoidance, and operational restrictions of hazardous terrain features in the aeoara~hical area where

X

X

X

X the student pilot will conduct cross-ckniry flight

descending flight and altitude control (10) Control and manoeuvrina solelv bv reference to fliaht I

(7) Use of radios for VFR navigation and two-way communications (8) Climbs at best angle and best rate (9) Control of air pressure with regard to ascending and

" A

X

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.1 90: PRIVATE PILOT AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS

kstruments, including straight and kvel flight, turns, -

descents, climbs, use of radio aids, and ATC directives (1 1) Landings accomplished without the use of the altimeter from at least 2.000 feet above the surface

In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.190, the required aeronautical knowledge ereas for private pilots, as appropriate to the category and class of aircraft rating sought, are provided in the following table:

X

(Note: In the table below the abbreviations indicated the category and/or class of elmar? as foiiows: A=Aeroplane; RH=Rotorcrafl-Helicopter; RG=Rotorcmr?-Gyroplane; G=Glider; LA=Alrship; FB=Free Balloon.)


3 04 THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

Speclflc+Knqwledge Subjects (5) Effects of load and mass distribution on flight characteristics; mass and balance calculations (6) Use and application of take-off (or launch, as appropriate), landing and other performance data, including the effect of temperature (7) D~fferent launch methods and associated procedures Pre-fl~ght and enroute flight planning appropriate to private

-A: a

X

X X X

pilot (17) Principles of flight (18) Radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as applied to VFR operations; action to be taken in case of

X X X X X X

X X X X X X communication failure (19) Accident reporting procedures (20) Use of the applicable portions of advisory material published by the Authority, including use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP, NOTAM, aeronautical codes and abbreviations (21) Use of aeronautical charts for VFR navigation. including practical aspects of air navigation through pilotage

1 procedures and legendsfor obtaining, meteorological -'. 1 X ( X I X I X I X I X I

kHq

X

and dead-reckoning techniques (22) Altimetry (23) Amlications of elementaw aeronautical meteoroloav:

X

X X X X X X

1 (30) Stall awareness, spin entry, spins, and spin recovery 1 B@$j..+GY.;;gj ~ . ~ ~ . ~ = S J .%. ..,. :.... ..?,

information (24) Procurement and use of aeronautical weather reports and forecasts

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X

RG*

x x x x x x

X

X

x x x x x x

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X

X X X X X X

X

L;A

X

X X X

THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, ,2004 305

In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.195, an applicant for a Private Pilot Licence shall receive and log ground and flight training listed in the following table from an authorized instructor appropriate to the category and class of aircraft.

be take to avoid rotorcraft operating hazards, such as settling with power, ground resonance, roll-over and other operating hazards (32) Appropriate precautionary and emergency actions to take to avoid operating hazards specifically relevant to lighter-than-air aircraft

(Note: In the table below the abbreviations indicated the category and/or class of aircraft as follows: A=Aemolane: RH=Rotorcraft-Helico~tec RG=Rotorcraft-Gvro~lane; G=Glidec LA=Airshio: FB=Free Balloon. J

X

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X

radiotelephony procedures and phraseology (11) Collision avoidance precautions and procedures (13) Techniques and procedures for the launching and ascent method used, including appropriate airspeed limitations, emergency procedures and signals used; (14) Normal and cross-wind take-offs (or launches) (15) Maximum performance (short field and obstacle clearance) takeoffs (16) Take-offs with minimum necessary power; out of wind;

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recovery techniques from low-rotor rpm within the normal I 1 X I I I I 1

nautical miles, with takeoff and landings at three separate

APPENDM 1 TO 8.200: PRIVATE PILOT EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENIS The requirements specified in this table are in addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.200.

(Note 1: In the table below the abbreviations indicated the categov andlor class of aircrafl as follows: A=Aeroplane; RH=Rotonmfl-Helicopter; RG=Rotorcmfl-Gyroplane; G=Glider; LA=Airship; FB=Free Balloon.)

(Note 2: TR=Transition fmm Aeroplane to Rotorcrafl; TG=Tmnsition from Aeroplane to Glider TA=Tmnsition from Aeroplane or Rotorcmfl to Airship.)

(4) Flight Instruction - Night 1 3 1 I 1 3 1 3 1 1 . 1 3 1 (5) Flight Instruction - Instruments l 3 l i I 1 2 / 3 1 1 1 1 3 1

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Table 1 - 8.200 Speclflc Experience A TR T ' RH

stkervisionf an instructor I IL I J I L I IL

18; Solo Fliaht Time - Cross-Countrv 1 5 1 1 1 5

(9) Night takeoffs and landings to a full I I ,I I stop (with each landing involv~ng a flight in the traffic pattern) at an airportwith 1 lo 1 I I Right instructor. 1 (10) Solo takeoffs and landinas to a full I I I I stop (with each landing involving a flight in the traffic ~attern) at an aimort with an 1 1 I ' 1 operating control tower ( I I ) Solo cross-country flight (of minimum s~ecified nautical miles). in the 1 1 course of vhich landings at two different 1 (1 50) 1 I :. -.I (1001 points shall be made (12) Free Balloon Ascent, if gas used, to 2000 R AGL (13) Free Balloon Ascent, if airborne

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.205: LICENCE LIMITATIONS FOR PRNATE PILOTS BASED ON SMALL ISLANDS

(a) The requirements of this Appendix are in addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.205.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this Subsection, an applicant located on an island from which the required cross-country flight training cannot be accomplished without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline need not comply with the req;irements of that section.

(c) If other airports that permit civil operations are available to which a flight may be made without flying over water for more than 10 nautical miles from the nearest shoreline, the applicant shall show completion of two round-trip solo flights between those two airports that are farthest apart, including a landing at each airport on both flights.

(d) The Authority shall issue to an applicant who complies with paragraph (b) or paragraph (c) of this Subsection, and meets all requirements for the issuance of a Private Pilot Licence, except the cross- country training requirements of this Subpart, a pilot licence with an endorsement containing the following limitation. "Passenger carrying prohibited on flights more than 10 nautical miles from (the appropriate island)."

(Note: The Authority may subsequently amend the limitation to include another island i f the applicant complies with the requirements of paragreph (a) or paragraph (b) of this Subsection for another island.)

(e) Upon meeting the cross-country training requirements, an applicant may have the limitation in paragraph (d) of this Subsection removed.

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APPENDIX 2 TO 8.205: LICENCE LIMITATIONS FOR PRNATE PILOTS WITH BALLOON RATINGS

(a) The requirements of this Appendix are in addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.205. (b) If an applicant for a Private Pilot Licence - Balloon Rating takes a pract~cal test in a balloon with an

airborne heater - (1) the Authority shall place upon the pilot licence a limitation restncting the exercise of the privileges of

that licence to a balloon with an airborne heater; and (2) the pilot may remove the limitation by obtaining the required aeronautical experience in a gas

balloon and receiving a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the person's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a gas balloon.

(c) If an applicant for a Private Pilot Licence - Balloon Rating takes a practical test in a gas balloon - (1) the Authority shall place upon the pilot licence a limitation restricting the exercise of the privilege of

that licence to a gas balloon; and (2) the pilot may remove the limitation by obtaining the required aeronautical experience in a balloon

with an airborne heater and receiving a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor who attests to the pilot's accomplishment of the required aeronautical experience and ability to satisfactorily operate a balloon with an airborne heater.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.230: COMMERCIAL PILOT AERONAUTICAL KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS

In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.230, an applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall receive and log ground training from an authorized instructor, on the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in the following table that apply to the aircrafl category and class rating sought..

(Note: In the table below the abbreviations indicated the category and/or class of aircrafl as follows: A=Aeroplane; RH=Rotorcrafl-Helicopter; RG=Rotorcmfl-Gyroplane; G=Glider; LA=Airship; FB=Free Sellmn.)

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Speclfic Knowledge Subjects (10) Use and practical application of take-off, landing and other performance data (1 1) Effects of loadinq and mass distribution lincludina external loads) on the handling of the aircraft: flight characteristics and performance: mass and balance calculations (12) Interpretation and application of aerunautical meteorological reports. charts and forecasts; use of, and procedures for obtaining, meteorological information, pre- flight and in-flight (13) Aeronautical meteorology; climatology of relevant areas in respect of the elements having an effect upon aviation; the movement of pressure systems, the structure of fronts, and the origin and characteristics of significant weather phenomena which affect take-off, en-route and landing conditions (14) Hazardous weather avoidance; to include recognition of critical weather situations, windshear recognition and avoidance. (15) Air navigation, including the use of aeronautical charts a magnetic compass for pilotage and dead reckoning. instruments and navigation aids (16) An understandina of the principles and characteristics of appropriate navigacon sysiems; operation of airborne equipment (171 Use of aeronautical documentation such as AIP. NOTAM, aeronautical codes and abbreviations (18) Pre-flight and en-route fl~ght planning appropriate to operations under VFR (19) Preparation and filina of air traffic services fliaht ~lans: - . . appropriate air traffic ser&es procedures (20) Altimeter setting procedures (21) Human performance, aeronautical decision making and judgement relevant to the commercial pilot (22) Basic aerodynamics and the principles of flight relating to the aircraft (24) Manoeuvres, procedures, and emergency operations - - .

appropriate to the aircraft 1251 Amro~riate orecautionarv and emeraencv procedures: - ,. inchdig for the helicopter; s&ling with power, ground resonance, roll+ver and other operating hazards (26) O~erational procedures for carriaae of freiaht (inciuding external loads); potential hazards associated with dangerous goods; (27) Requirements and practices for safety briefing to passengers, including precautions to be observed when embarking and disembarking from the aircraft (281 Radiotelephony pr0~edureS and phraseoloov as applied to VFR opeitions; action to be taken incase of


3 10 THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULATIONS, 2004

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(30) Night operations (31) High-altitude operations (32) Procedures for flight and ground training for lighter- than-air ratings

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.235: COMMERCIAL PILOT FLIGHT lNSTRUCTlON REQUIREMENTS

General. In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.235, an applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall receive and log ground and flight training from an authorized instructor on the areas of operation that apply to the aircraft category and class rating sought, as shown in the table below.

(Note: In the table below the abbreviations indicated the category and/or class of aircrafl as follows: A=Aeroplane; RH=Rotorcraff-Helicopter; RG=Rotorcraff-Gyroplane; G=Glider; LA=AiBhip; FB=Free Balloon.)

X X X X X X

X X

X X


APPENDIX 1 TO 8.240: COMMERCIAL PILOT AERONAUT~CAL EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

points. (46) Night flying, including take-offs, landings and navigation. (47) Night flying, including take-offs, landings and navigation, if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night (48) Post-flight procedures

In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.240 and, unless prescribed by the Authority otherwise for a specific category or class, an applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall log at least the following hours of flight time as a pilot in each category and class applied for, including at least the following:

(Note 1: In the table below the abbreviations indicated the category and/or class of aircrafi as follows: A=Aeroplane; RH=Rotorcrafi-Helicopter; RG=Rotorcrafi-Gyroplane; G=Glider; LA=Airship; FB=Free Balloon.)

X X X

(Note 2: TR=Transition from Aeroplane to Rotorcrafi or Rotorcrafi to Aeroplane; TG=Transition from Aeroplane to Glider; TA=Trensition from Aeroplane or Rotorcrafi to Airship.)

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X X X X X X

X X X


(a) Both Aeroplane and Helicopter. In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.265, the applicant shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an Airline Transport Pilot Licence (aeroplane or helicopter), in at least the following subjects - (1) rules and regulations relevant to the holder of an Airline Transport Pilot Licence: rules of the air;

appropriate air traffic services practices and pmcedures: (2) flight instruments: compasses, turning and acceleration errors; gyroscopic instruments, operational

limits and precession effects; practices and pmcedures in the event of malfunctions of various flight instruments: .. - - .

(3) pre-flight and en-route operational flight planning; preparation and filing of air traffic s e ~ c e s flight plans; appropriate air traffic services procedures; altimeter setting procedures;

(4) human performance relevant to the airline transport pilot;

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(5) interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports, charts and forecasts; codes and abbreviatlons: use of, and procedures for obtaining, meteorological information, pre-flight and in-flight; altimetry;

(6) aeronautical meteorology; climatology of relevant areas in respect of the elements having an effect upon aviation; the movement of pressure systems; the structure of fronts, and the origin and characteristics of significant weather phenomena which affect take-off, en-route and landing condlond

(7) causes, recwnitlon and effects of engine and airframe icing; frontal zone penetration procedures; hazardops weather avoidance;

(6) air navigation, including the use of aeronautical charts, radio navigation aids and area navigation systems; specific navigation requirements for long-range flights;

(9) use, accuracy and reliability of navigation systems used indeparture, en-route, approach and landing phases of flight; identification of radio navigation aids;

(10) principles and characteristics of self-contained and external-referenced navigation systems; operation of airborne equipment; codes and abbreviations, and instrument procedure charts for departure, en-route, descent and approach;

(1 1) precautionary and emergency procedures; safety practices associated with flight under IFR; (12) operational procedures for carriage of freight and dangerous goods; (13) requirements and practices for safety briefing to passengers, including precautions to be observed

when embarking and disembarking from aircraft; (14) radlofelephony procedures and phraseology; action to be taken in case of communication failure; (15) interpretation and use of aeronautical documentalion such as AIP, NOTAM, aeronautical codes and

abbreviations, and instrument procedure charts for departure, en-route, descent and approach.

(b) Additional Aeroplane Knowledge Areas. The applicant shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an Airline Transport Pilot Licence (aeroplane or helicopter), in at least the following subjects:

(1) general characteristics and limitations of electrical, hydraulic, pressurization and other aeroplane systems; flight control systems, including autopilot and stability augmentation;

- (3) prlnclples of operation, handling procedures and operating limitations of aeroplane powerplants; effects of atmospheric conditions on engine performance; relevant operational information from the flight manual or other appropriate document;

(4) operating procedures and limitations of appropriate aeroplanes; effects of atmospheric conditions on aeroplane performance;

(5) use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appropriate aeroplanes; (6) maintenance procedures for airframes, systems and powerplants of appropriate aeroplanes; (7) effects of loading and mass distribution on aeroplane hxdling, flight characteristics and

performance; mass and balance calculations; (8) use and practical application of take-off, landing and other performance data, including procedures

for cruise control; (9) practical high altitude meteorology, including interpretation and use of weather reports, charts and

forecasts; jetstreams; (10) use, limitation and serviceability of avionics and instruments necessary for the control and

navigation of aeroplanes; (11) principles of flight relating to aeroplanes; subsonic aerodynamics; compressibility effects.

manoeuvre boundary limits, wing design characteristics, effects of supplementary lift and drag devices; relationships between lift, drag and thrust at various airspeeds and in different flight configurations;

(c) Additional Helicopter Knowledge Areas. The applicant shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of an Airline Transport Pilot Licence, in at least the following subjects: (1) general characteristics and limitations of electrical, hydraulic, 2nd other helicopter systems; flight

control systems, including autopilot and stability augmentation;



(2) principles of operation, handling procedures and operating limitations of helicopter powerplants; transmission (power-trains); effects of atmospheric conditions on engine performance; relevant operational information from the flight manual;

(3) operating procedures and limitations of appropriate helicopters; effects of atmospheric conditions on helicopter performance; relevant operational information from the flight manual;

(4) use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appropriate helicopters; (5) maintenance procedures for airframes, systems and powerplants of appropriate helicopters; (6) effects of loading and mass distribl~tion, including external loads, on helicopter handling, flight

. . characteristics and performance; mass and balance calculations; . . (7) use and practical application of take-off, landing and other performance data, including procedures

for cruise control; (8) causes, recognition and effects of engine, airframe and rotor icing; hazardous weather avoidance; (9) use, limitation and serviceabilityof avionics and instruments necessary for the control and

navigation of helicopters; ' (10) precautionary and emergency procedures; senling with power, ground resonance, retreating blade

- stall, dynamic roll-over and other operating hazards; safety practices associated with flight under VFR;

(1 1) operational procedures for carriage of freight, including external loads, and dangerous goods; (12) requirements and practices for safety briefing to passengers, including precautions to be observed

when embarking and disembarking from helicopters; (13) principles of flight relating to helicopters; . .

(14) radiotelephony procedures and phraseology as applied to VFR operations; action to be taken in case of communication failure.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.270: AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT FLIGHT PROFICIENCY REQUIREMENTS

(a) In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.270, the applicant shall have demonstrated the ability to perform, as PIC of a multi-engine aeroplane required to be operated with a SIC, the procedures and manoeuvres prescribed by the ~uthority, including at a minimum--

(1) Pre-flight procedures, including the preparation of the operational flight plan and filing of the air traffic services flight plan;

(2) Normal flight procedures and manoeuvres during all phases of flight; (3) Procedures and manoeuvres for IFR operations under normal, abnormal and emergency

conditions, including simulated engine failure,'and covering at least the following:

(i) Transition to instrument flight on take-off; (ii) I Standard instrument departures and arrivals; . .

(iii) En-route IFR procedures and navigation; (iv) Holding procedures; (v) Instrument approaches to specified minima; (vi) Missed approach pmcedures; (vii) Landings from instrument approaches;

(4) Abnormal and emergency pmcedures and manoeuvres related to failures and malfunctions of equipment, such as powerplant, systems and airframe; and

(5) Procedures for crew incapacitation and crew coordination, including allocation of pilot tasks, crew cooperation and use of checklists.

(b) For all other eligible category and class of aircraft, the applicant shall have demonstrated the ability to perform, as pilot-in-command, the procedures and manoeuvres of (a), except for (a)(5) as prescribed by the Authority in the Practical Test Standards.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.275: AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT &RONAUTICk ~PERIENCE

(a) In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.275 and, an applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have at least the experience listed for that category of aircraft in the following table--

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(Note I: In the table below the abbreviations indicated the category and/or class of aircraft as follows: A=Aeroplane; RH=Rotorcraft-Helicopter; RG=Rotorcraft-Gyroplane; G=Glider; LA=Airship; FB=Free Balloon.)

(Note 2: TR=Transition from Aeroplane to Rotorcraft and Rotorcraft to Aeroplane; TG=Transition from Aeroplane to Glider; TA=Tmnsition from Aeroplane or Rotorcraft to Airship).

(b) A pilot who has performed at least 20 night takeoffs and landings to a full stop may substitute each additional night takeoff and landing to a full stop for 1 hour of night flight time to satisfy the requirements of night flight time of this table, not to exceed 25 hours of night flight time.

(c) A commercial pilot applicant may credit pilot-in-command under supervision flight time toward the 250 hours of pilot-in-command time as required by paragraph (a) of this Subsection.

(See the Tenth Schedule, Subsection 10.102 for crediting of flight time guidance)

(d) A commercial pilot applicant may credit the following flight engineer flight time toward the 1.500 hours of total time as a pilot required by paragraph (a) of thls Subsection - (1) flight-engineer time acquired -

(i) in an aeroplane required to have a flight engineer by the aeroplane's flight manual or type certificate;

(ii) while engaged in operations under the Twelfth Schedule for which a flight engineer is required: (iii) while the pilot is participating in a pilot training program approved under the Twelfth Schedule;

and (iv) that does not exceed 1 hour for each 3 hours of flight engineer flight time for a total credited

time of no more than 500 hours.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.310: FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS

(a) In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.310, an applicant for a Class 2 Flight Instructor Rating shall receive and log a minimum of 40 hours of ground training from an instructor who is authorized to give instructor training. The ground training shall cover instruction in, and applicant's practice of - (1) except as provided in paragraph (b) of this Subsection, the fundamentals of instructing, including -

(i) the learning process;

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(ii) elements of effective teaching; (iii) course development; (iv) lesson planning; (v) use of training aids; (vi) classroom instructional techniques; (vii) techniques of applied instruction; (viii) training programme development; (ix) human performance relevant to flight instruction; and (x) analysis and correction of student errors; (xi) assessment of student performance in those subjects in which ground instruction is given; (xii) student evaluation and testing, training philosophies;

(2) The aeronaut~cal knowledge areas for a Private and Commercial-Pilot Licence applicable to the aircraft category for which flight instructor privileges are sought; and

(3) The aeronautical knowledge areas for the Instrument Rating applicable to the category for which instrument flight instructor privileges are sought.

(b) The following applicants do not need to comply with paragraph (a)(l) of this Subsection - (1) The holder of a current teacher's certificate issued by a national or local authority that authorizes the

person to teach at an educational level of the 7th grade or higher; or (2) A person employed as a teacher at an accredited college or university.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.315: CLASS 2 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR FLIGHT INSTRUCTION REQUIREMENTS

This Appendix contains requirements in addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.315

The applicant for a Class 2 Flight lnstructor Rating shall have received a minimum of 20 hours of dual flight instruction (or 25 hours if a night instruction endorsement is sought) in flight instructional techniques including demonstration, student practices, recognition and correction of common student errors from an instructor who is authorized to give instructor training.

The applicant shall have practised instructional techniques in those flight manoeuvres and procedures in which it is intended to provide flight instruction

The applicant for a Class 2 Flight Instructor Rating shall receive and log flight and ground training in accordance with an approved syllabus and shall obtain an endorsement from the instructor trainer that the applicant is proficient to pass a practical test on h e following areas of operation that apply to the Flight Instructor Rating sought.

(Note: In the table below the abbreviations indicated h e category andlor class of aircraft as follows: A=Aeroplane: RH=Rotorcraft-Helicopter; RG=Rotorcraft-Gyroplane; G=Glider; lA=Airship; FB=Free Balloon.)

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APPENDIX 1 TO 8.330: FLIGHT ~NsTRuCTOR LIMITAT~ONS AND ~uALIFICAT~ONS

(a) Each holder of any Flight lnstructor Rating shall observe the following limitations and qualifications- (1) Hours of training. In any 24 consecutive hour period, a flight instructor may not conduct more than 9

hours of flight training, ground training or a combination of both; (2) Required ratings. A Flight Instructor may not conduct flight tralning in any aircraft for which the

Flight lnstructor does not hold-

(i) a pilot licence with h e applicable category and class and a Flight lnstructor Rating; and (ii) if appropriate, a Type Rating; and (iii) for advanced training. an endorsement to the instructor rating as required below.

(3) lnstrument lnstruction Endorsement. A holder of any Flight lnstructor rating may apply for the instrument instruction endorsement provided that - (i) the applicant shall have logged not less than 150 hours PIC flight time; (ii) the applicant shall have logged not less than 100 hours of flight instruction; and (iii) the applicant shall have completed not less than 15 hours of ground training in the theory of

instrument flight and not less than 5 hours of dual flight lnstruction in instrument flying techniques from the holder of an instructor rating endorsed for instrument flight instruction and instructor training.

(iv) the holder of h e instrument instruction endorsement may conduct instrument flight training for a Private or Commercial Licence. To conduct instrument training for an Instrument Rating, the applicant must also hold an lnstrument Rating in h e category of aircraft for which the instructor rating is held.

(4) Night Flying lnstruction Endorsement. A holder of any Flight lnstructor Rating may appbfor h e Night Flying lnstruction endorsement provided that -

the applicant shall hold a Night Rating on his or her licence; the applicant shall have logged not less than 150 hours PIC flight time; the applicant shall have logged not less than 100 hours of flight instruction; and the applicant shall have completed not less than 5 hours of ground training which shall include night flying techniques, night flying instructional techniques, sensory illusions of night flying. aerodrome lighting, aircraft lighting and night visual navigation techniques. The applicant shall also complete not less than 3 hours of dual night flight instruction in these subjects from the holder of a Flight lnstructor Rating endorsed for night flying and instructor training.



(v) the holder of the Night Flying lnstruction endorsement may conduct night flying training for the issue of a Night Rating to a licence.

(5) Seaplane Flying Instruction Endorsement. A holder of any aeroplane Flight lnstructor Rating may apply for the Seaplane Flying lnstruction endorsement provided that:

(i) the applicant shall hold a Seaplane class rating on his or her licence; (ii) the applicant shall have logged not less than 100 hours PIC flight time in seaplanes; (iii) the applicant shall have logged not less than 100 hours of flight instruction; and (iv) the applicant shall have completed not less than 5 hours of ground training which shall include

water taxiing, sailing, docking, takeoffs, landings, and operations on glassy water, rough water and crosswind conditions. The applicant shall also complete not less than 5 hours of dual flight training in a seaplane from the holder of a Flight Instructor Rating endorsed for seaplanes and instructor training.

(v) the holder of the Seaplane Flying Instruction endorsement may conduct seaplane training for the issue of a Seaplane class rating to a licence. ,

(6) Multi-Engine Rating.

(i) a holder of any aeroplane Flight lnstructor Rating may conduct flight training in multi-engine aeroplanes to train licensed and unlicensed pilots, who may or may not be endorsed for aemplanes, toward the qualifications for a Multi-Engine Rating provided that the instructor is endorsed for the type of aeroplane and has logged at least 50 hours of multi-engine PIC flight time with at least 10 hours as PIC on the type of aeroplane used.

(ii) a holder of a valid Commercial Pilot Licence or higher, may conduct flight training in multi- engine aeroplanes to train licensed pilots who are endorsed for aemplanes, toward the qualifications for a Multi-Engine Rating provided that the person conducting the flight training is endorsed for the type of aeroplane used and has logged at least 50 hours of multi-engine experience as PIC flight time with at least 10 hours as PIC on the type of aeroplane used.

(b) Liniitations on endorsements. A Flight Instructor may not endorse a - (1) student pilot's licence or logbook for solo flight privileges, unless that Flight lnstructor has -

(i) given that student the flight training required for solo flight privileges required by this Subparl; (ii) determined that the student is prepared to conduct the flight safely under known circumstances,

subject to any limitations listed in the student's logbook that the instructor considers necessary for the safety of the flight;

(iii) given that student pilot training in the make and model of aircraft or a similar make and model of aircraft in which the solo flight is to be flown; and

(iv) endorsed the student pilot's logbook for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown.

(2) student pilot's licence and logbook for a solo cross-country flight, unless that Flight Instructor has determined that-

(i) the student's flight preparation, planning, equipment, and proposed procedures are adequate for the proposed flight under the existing conditions and with~n any limitations listed in the logbook that the instructor considers necessary for the safety of the flight; and

(ii) the student has the appropriate solo cross-country endorsement for the make and model of aircraft to be flown.

(3) stud.ent pilot's licence and logbook for solo flight in a Class B airspace area or at an airporl within Class B airspace unless that Flight lnstructor has-

(i) given that student ground and flight training in that Class B airspace or at that airporl; and (ii) determined that the student is proficient to operate the aircraft safely.

(4) logbook of a pilot for aflight review, unless that instructor has conducted a review of that pilot in accordance with the requirements; or

(5) logbook of a pilot for an instrument proficiency check, unless that instructor has tested that pilot in accordance with the requirements.



(Note: A Class 2 Flight lnstructor may not recommend a student pilot for a flight test or authorize a student pilot for solo flight until aner he/she has given at least 100 hours of flight instruction to student

' pilots.)

Training first-time flight instructors. No Flight lnstructor may apply for a Flight lnstructor Flight Instruction Authorization unless that Flight lnstructor - (1) holdqa current Flight lnstructor Rating, has held that rating for at least 24 months and has given at

least 100 hours of ground training in a course which has been approved by the Authority; (2) meets the prescribed eligibility requirements; (3) for training in preparation for an aeroplane or rotorcraft, has given at least 500 hours of flight training

as a Flight Instructor; and (4) for training in preparation for a glider rating, has given at least 100 hours of flight training as a Flight

Instructor.

Prohibition against self-endorsements. A Flight lnstructor may not make any self-endorsement for a licence, rating, flight review, authorization, operating privilege, practical test, or knowledge test that is required by this Schedule.

Category II and Category Ill instructions: A Flight lnstructor may not give training in Category II or Category Ill operations unless the Flight lnstructor has been trained and tested in Category II or Category Ill operations as appl~cable.

(a) In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.420, an applicant for a Flight Engineer Licence shall have demonstrated a basic level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a flight engineer licence, in at least the following subjects - (1) rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a Flight Engineer Licence; rules and regulations

governing the operation of civil aircraft pertinent to the duties of a flight engineer; (2) fundamentals of aerodynamics; (3) operational aspects of meteorology. (4) effects of loading and mass distribution on aircraft handling, flight characteristics and performance;

mass and balance calculations;

(b) To complete the aeronautical knowledge portion of the Flight Engineer Licence, the applicant shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge appmpriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a Flight Engineer Licence, in at least the following subjects:

basic principles of powerplants, gas turbines andlor piston engines; characteristics of fuels, fuel systems including fuel control; lubricants and lubrication systems; afterburners and injection systems, function and operation of engine ignition and starter systems; principles of operation, handling procedures and operating limitations of aircraft powerplants; effects of atmospheric conditions on engine performance; airframes, flight controls, structures, wheel assemblies, brakes and anti-skid units, corrosion and fatigue Me; identification of structural damage and defects; ice and rain protection systems; pressurization and air-conditioning systems, oxygen systems; hydraulic and pneumatic systems; basic electrical theory, electric systems (AC and DC), aircraft wiring systems, bonding and screening; pdnciples of operation of instruments, compasses, autopilots, radio mmmunic;.'ion equipment. radio and radar navigation aids, flight management systems, displays and avion~cs;

(9) l~mitations of appropriate aircraft; (10) fire protection, detection, suppression and extinguishing systems; (11) use and serviceability checks of equipment and systems of appmpriate aircraft: (12) use and practical application of performance data including procedures for cruise control; (13) human performance.relevant to the night engineer;


THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULA TIONS. 2004

(14) principles of maintenance, procedures for the maintenance of airworthiness, defect reporting. p i e flight inspections, precautionary procedures for fuelling and use of external power; installed equipment and cabin systems;

(15) normal, abnormal and emergency procedures; (16) operational procedures for carriage of freight and dangerous goods; (17) radiotelephony procedures and phraseology; (18) fundamentals of navigation; principles and operation of self-contained systems; and

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.425: FLIGHT ENGINEER AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.425, an applicant for a Flight Engineer Licence with a class rating shall present,.for the rating sought, satisfactory evidence.of one of the following-

(1) at least 3 years of practical experience in aircraft and aircraft engine maintenance and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer; or

(2) graduation from at least a 2-year specialized aeronautical training course in maintaining aircraft and aircraft engines and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer; or

(3) experience as a pilot of an aircraft certificated for 20 or more passengers and at least 5 hours of flight training in the duties of a flight engineer; and

(4) at least 100 hours of flight time as a flight engineer of which not more than 50 hours may have been acquired in a flight simulator: and

(5) within the 90-day period before application, successful completion of an approved flight engineer ground and flight course of instruction.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.427: FLIGHT ENGINEER OPERATIONAL EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.427 an applicant for a Flight Engineer Licence with a class rating shall present, for the aircraft to be used for the rating sought, satisfactory evidence of operational experience in the performance of the duties of a flight engineer, under the supervision of a flight engineer accepted by the Authority for that purpose, in at least the following areas-

(1) Normal procedures:

(i) pre-flight inspections; (ii) Fuelling procedures, fuel management; (iii) inspection of maintenance documents; (iv) normal flight deck procedures during all phases of flight; (v) crew co-ordination and procedures in case of crew incapacitation; and (vi) defect reporting;

(2) Abnormal and alternate (standby) procedures:

(i) recognition of abnormal functioning of aircraft systems; and (ii) use of abnormal and alternate (standby) procedures; and

(3) Emergency procedures:

(i) recognition of emergency conditions; and (ii) use of appropriate emergency procedures.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.430: FLIGHT ENGINEER AERONAUTICAL SKILL REQUIREMENTS In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.430, an applicant shall -

(1) show satisfactorily performance in preflight inspection, servicing, starting, pre-takeoff, and postlanding procedures:

(2) in flight, show satisfactorily performance of the normal duties and procedures relating to the aeroplane, aeroplane engines, propellers (if appropriate), systems, and appliances;

(3) in flight, in an aeroplane simulator, or in an approved training device, show satisfactorily performance on emergency duties and procedures and recognize and take appropriate action for malfunctions of the aeroplane, engines, propellers (if appropriate), systems and appliances.

(4) use aircraft systems within the aircraft's capabilities aild limitations; (5) exercise good judgement and airmanship;



(6) apply aeronautical knowledge; (7) perform all the duties as part of an integrated crew with the successful outcome never in doubt; and (8) communicate effectively with the other flight crewmembers.

APpEnmx 1 TO 8.490: FLIGHT DISPATCHER KNOWLEDGE REQUIREMENTS In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.490, the applicant shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of a Flight Dispatcher Licence, in at least the following subjects -

(1) rules and regulations relevant to the holder of a Flight Dispatcher Licence; approprlate air traffic services practices and procedures;

(2) principles of operation of aeroplane powerplants, systems and instruments; (3) operatlng limitations of aeroplanes and powerplants; (4) application of minimum equipment lists; (5) flight performance calculation and planning procedures; (6) effects of loading and mass distribution on aircraft performance and flight characteristics; mass and

balance calculations; (7) operational flight planning; fuel consumption and endurance calculations; alternate airport selection

procedures; ekmute cruise control; extended range operation; (8) preparation and filing of air traffic services flight plans; (9) basic principles of computer-assisted planning systems;

(10) human performance relevant to dispatch duties; (1 1) aeronautical meteorology; the movement of pressure systems; the structure of fronts, and the origin

and characteristics of significant weather phenomena which affect take-off, en-route and landing conditions;

(12) interpretation and application of aeronautical meteorological reports, charts and forecasts: codes and abbreviations; use of, and procedures for obtaining, meteorological information;

(13) principles of air navigation with particular reference to instrument flight; (14) use of aeronautical documentation; (15) operational procedures for the carnage of freight and dangerous goods; (16) procedures relating to aircraft accidents and Incidents; emergency flight procedures; (17) procedures relating to unlawful Interference and sabotage of aircraff; (18) principles of flight relating to the appropriate category of aircraft (19) radio communication; and (20) procedures for communicating with aircrafl and relevant ground stations.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.495: FUGHT DISPATCHER AERONAUTICAL EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

(a) The applicant shall have satisfactorily completed a course of training approved by the Authority; or

(b) In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.495, must be able to show a total experience of at least - (1) on6 year as an assistant in the dispatching of commercial air transport; or (2) at least two years' service in any one or in any combination of the capacities specified in (i) to ('N)

inclusive. provided that in any combination of experience the period serviced in any capacity shall be at least one year:

ti) a fliiht crewmember In commercial air transmrt: . . (ii) a m~teorologist in an organization dispatching aircrafl in commercial air transport; (iii) an air traffic controller; or a technical supeNisor of flight dispatchers or commercial air transport . . - .

flight operations systems; or (iv) other duty that the Authority determines to provide equivalent experience.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.500: FLIGHT DISPATCHER SKILL REWIREMENTS In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.500, the applicant shall have demonstrated the ability to -

(1) make an accurate and operationally acceptable weather analysis from a series of dally weather maps and weather reports: provide an operationally valid briefing on weather conditions prevailing in

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the general neighbourhood of a specific air route: forecast weather trends pertinent to air transportation with particular reference to destination and alternates;

(2) determine the optimum flight path for a given segment and create accurate manual andlor computer generated flight plans; and

(3) provide operating supervision and all other assistance to a flight in actual or simulated adverse weather conditions, as appropriate to the duties of the holder of a Flight Dispatcher Licence.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.520: AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE ENGINEER KNOWLEDGE AREAS

In keeping with the requirements of Subsection 8.520, the applicant shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge relevant to the privileges to be granted and appropriate to the responsibilities of an Aircraft Maintenance Engineer Licence holder, in at least the following subjects-

(1) rules and regulations relevant to an airkraft maintenance licence holder including applicable airworthiness requirements governing/cert'fication and continuing airworthiness of aircraft and approved aircraft maintenance organizations and procedures;

(2) basic mathematics; units of measurement; fundamental principles and theory of physics and chemistry applicable to aircraft maintenance;

(3) characteristics and applications of the materials of aircraft construction including principles of construction and functioning of aircraft structures, fastening techniques; power plants and theif associated systems; mechanical, fluid, electrical and electronic power sources; aircraft instrument and display systems; aircraft control systems: and airborne navigation and communication systems;

(4) tasks required to ensure the continuing airworthiness of an aircraft including methods and procedures for the overhaul, repair, inspection, replacement, modification or defect rectification of aircraft structures. components and systems in accordance with the methods prescribed in the relevant Maintenance Manuals and the applicable Standards of airworthiness; and

(5) human performance and limitations relevant to the duties of an aircraft maintenance licence holder.

(Note: A more detailed breakdown of the technical areas to be covered may be found in the Ninth Schedule, Subsection 9.260.)

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.525: AME BASIC MAINTENANCE TRAINING COURSE APPROVAL

(a) Applicability: This requirement applies to courses conducted by aircraftmaintenance training institutions for persons wishing to apply for Aircraft Maintenance Engineer Licences.

(b) Course Guidelines: No credit will be given to any candidate for training or experience received while attending a course that has not been approved by the Authority. Such approval will only be given to basic aircraft maintenance courses that meet the following cliteria;

(1) Instruction shall be given by trained instructors, assisted if and when necessary, by licensed aircraft maintenance engineers.

(2) Classroom time must be spent In an enclosed, climatecontrolled, well-lit environment, with no distraction, and suitable seating and writing facilities must be available to each student.

(3) Training manuals and handouts shall be made available to each student, sufficient to allow each student to study on hidher own time.

(4) A complete set of course material, including the syllabus and lesson plans, course time allocation. and instructoh credentials, shall be made available to the authoiity at least 60 days in advance of the planned starting date of the course.

(5) 'Closed Book' written andlor multi-choice examinations shall be held at the end of each module. with an invigilator in attendance and with a passing grade of not les than 80%.

(6) The final examination results of each course, as well as a copy of the attendance records, and the cert'ficate issued to each successful student, must be retained on file.

(c) Minimum Time Requirements: In order for an aircraft maintenance training course to be accepted by the Authority. the following time requirements must be met:

(1) time allocated to classmom (theory) and time allocated to practical work (workshop Z hangar) shall be equal. with the total hours being not less than 1800.

(2) the maximum time that must be allocated for instruction in any one day must not exceed 8 hours. and at least one day in every seven must be allocated as a day 'off.

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(3) no student shall be allowed to graduate with a certificate unless helshe has completed at least 85% of the total required hours.

(d) Basic Training Syllabus: the training organization may obtain a recommended list of topics from the Authority, or may submit its own syllabus for review and approval.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.535: AME TYPE TRAINING COURSE APPROVAL

Applicability: This requirement applies to courses conducted by aircraft maintenance training institutions, air bperators, or maintenance organizations, either in-house or contracted out, that are training maintenance personnel either as a prerequisite to issuing company approvals that include Certificates of Release to Service for aircraft, or are preparing them to sit the Authority's type rating endorsement examinations. Applications for type ratings, for aircraft other than piston-engine, un-pressurized aircraft, with an MCTOW of 5700 kg or less, will not be considered unless the applicant provides documentary evidence of having completed a type course meeting the requirements detailed in this appendix.

Standards and Objectives: The ATA 104 specification is used as the reference for setting the standard acceptable for aircraft Type Endorsement training courses. For a course to be approved by the Authority. for the purpose of the students subsequently certifying the aircraft, the course must meet the Level Ill standard of ATA 104. The course objectives must prepare the student to:

cany out functional and operational checks on the aircraft's systems, power plants, and components, as specified in the aircraft maintenance manual, including engine ground runs and all associated system checks. interpret readings and indications provided by Built-in Test Equipment (BITE) and other information systems. correlate information for the' purpose of making decisions in respect to fault diagnosis and rectification. recall the safety precautions to be observed when working on, or near, the aircraft and its systems. be familiar with the normal functions, indications and maintenance procedures associated with, each aircraft and power plant system. recall the location of all principal components and the procedures for replacement of components peculiar to the aircraft type. be familiar with, and able to carry out, all emergency procedures that may be required during the operation of the aircraft, its power plant(s) and its systems. identify and use the family of A1 A 100 reference manuals.

Course Guidelines: Each course submitted for approval by an Operator. Training Organization, or Maintenance Organization, will be treated individually on its own merit. The following basic guidelines must however, be first satisfied before approval can be considered -

the duration of the course must satisfy the time indicated in Table 1 of this Appendix. time allocated to visits to the actualaaircraft, or system mock-ups, should be no less than one (1) hour per each seven (7) hours of classroom time. instruction must be given by trained instructors, however, assistance may be provided by an AME licensed on the type as necessary. classroom time must be spent in an enclosed, adequately lit, climate-controlled or well ventilated area, free from distraction, with suitable seating and writing facilities available. "Closed Book" examinations must be held at the end of each section of the course, with an invigilator in attendance and with a pass mark of not less than eighty (80) percent. training manuals and handouts must be available for each student, sufficient to allow the student to study each section on his own time. a complete set of course material, including the syllabus, course time allocation, and credentials of the Instructors (or the organization) must be provided to the Authority. the final examination results of each course, as well as a copy of the Certificate issued to each successful candidate must be retained by the operator on the student's training record file. persons requesting.licence.endorsements must submit certified copies of the above results to the Authority.

(10) space tor one representative from the Authority must be made available on the first course, should this be thought necessary by the Authority. . .

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324 THE CIVIL A VIA TlON REGULATIONS. 2004

(d) Minimum Type Course Time Requirements.

Table 1 - Re~resentative Aircraft Tvrws Hours Recommended [Mlnlmuml Britten-Norman Islander (or similar twe) 40 hours Domier 228TTwin Otter1 shorts 360 -. ' 80-120 hours De Havilland DHC8 120-160 hours Boeing B727lDouglas DC9 160-200 hours Airbus A320lA340 200-280 hours

(Note 1: Some aircran type courses include airframe and engine interface only, with engine courses being required on a supplemental basis, relative to the individual student's previous experience and qualifications. Other courses may include Avionics Modules that may add up to two weeks, or eighty (80) hours, to the bask airframe and power plant course. Each course, therefore, needs to be assessed on an individual basis.) (Note 2: Once a course has been approved, as many repeat courses as the Operator requires may be held without consultation wiih the Authority, provided that the same standards are maintained and that there is no change in content, time or instruction.)

(e) Minimum Experience Requirements for Type Endorsement: An applicant for an aircraft type rating endorsement shall be required to produce documentary evidence that helshe has obtained a level of experience working on the aircraft that meets or exceeds the standard indicated in Table 2 below

Aircraft Group Classiflcatlon Experience Reauired

M -Aeroplanes Aircraft maintenance experience Fixed wing experience Experience on the type

R - Rotorcrafi Aircraft maintenance experience Rotary wing experience Experience on the type

E -Avionics Aircraft maintenance experience Experience on avionics systems Experience on Auto-flight IlRSlFMS

Calendar Time -

48 months 12 months 6 months 48 months 12 months 6 months 48 months 24 months 12 months

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.540: COMPASS COMPENSATION

(a) %ompass Compensation' is a rating that may be added by the Authority to either an 'M" or an 'E' Licence, pmvided that the holder of the Licence has met the following criteria - (1) Satisfactorily completed a course of training, which has been approved by the Authority, with a

passing grade of 80% or higher, on the installation, adjustment and compensation of Direct Reading Compasses.

(2) Pmvided documentary evidence to the Authority verifying that the applicant has satisfactorily completed a minimum of three compass swings on at least two different aircraft. during the preceding six months, under the supervision of an AME holding a Compass Compensation Rating

(3) Pmvided a completed 'application for ratlng addition' form to the Authority, certified by the AME referred to in (2), along with the applicable fee for the issue of the rating.

(b) The rating entitles the holder to certify for the removal and replacement of. adjustment to, and compensation computation for, Direct Reading Compasses.

In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.630, the applicant shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge appropriate to the holder of an Aeronautical Station Operator Authorization, in at least the following subjects -

(1) air traffic services pmvided within the State:

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(2) the language or languages nationally designated for use in air-ground communications (3) ability to speak such language or languages without accent or impediment which would adversely

affect radio communication; (4) radiotelephony procedures: phraseology; telewmmunication network; (5) rules and regulations applicable to the aeronautical station operator; and (6) principles, use and limitations of telecommunication equipment in an aeronautical station.

APPENDIX 1 TO 8.635: AERONAUllCAL STATION OPERATOR EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENTS

In addition to the requirements of Subsection 8.635, the applicant shall have - (1) satisfactorily completed an approved training course within the 12-month period immediately

preceding application, and have served satisfactorily under a qualified Aeronautical Station Operator for not less than two months; or

(2) satisfactorily served under a qualified Aeronautical Station Operator for not less than six months durlng the 12-month period immediately preceding application.

APPEND^ 1 TO 8.640: AERONA~CAL STAnon OPERATOR SKILL REQUIREMENTS

In adclrtion to the requirements of Subsection 8.640, the applicant shall demonstrate, or have demonstrated, competency in -

(1) operating the telecommunication equipment in use; and (2) bansmilfing and receiving radiotelephony messages with efficiency and accuracy

- - -


SUBPART A: 8.701 8.705 8.710 8.715 8.716

SUBPART B: 8.725 8.730

SUBPART C: 8.745 8.750 8.755 8.760 8.765 8.770 8.780 8.785

SUBPART D:


EIGHTH "6" SCHEDULE (Regulations 44,46)

MEDICAL CERTIFICATION

GENERAL Applicability Definitions Acronyms Medical Certificates Medical Examination Requirements

AVIATION MEDICAL EXAMINERS Aviation Medical Examiner: Definition and Authority Delegation of Authority MEDICAL CERTIFICATION PROCEDURES Applicability Medical Records CAME Submission of Signed Medical Evaluatipn Report Issuance of Medical Certificate Denial of Medical Certificate Special Issuance of Medical Certificate Renewal of Medical Certificate Special Renewal of Medical Certificate PHYSICAL AND MENTAL STANDARDS Applicability General Medical Requirements Mental Standards Visual Requirements - General Vision Testing Requirements Acceptability of Correcting Lenses Distance Vision Requirements Near Vision Requirements Colour Perception Requirements Auditory Requirements Cardiovascular - General Blood Pressure and Circulation Electro-Cardiogram Examination Neurological Requirements Respiratory Capability Radiology (Xray) Evaluation Vestibular Apparatus Bones. Muscles and Tendons Endocrine System Gastrointestinal and Digestive Tract Kidneys and Urinary Tract Lymphatic Glands or Disease of the Blood Female Issues Pregnancy Speech Defects Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)

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SUBPARTA: GENERAL 8.701 . AwucAelLm

This Schedule prescribes the medical standards and certification procedures for issuing and reissuing Class 1, Class 2 and Class 3 medical certificates.

8.705 DEFINITIONS

FoFthe purpose of This Schedule, the following definitions shall apply - "accredited medical conclusion". The conclusion reached by one or more medical experts acceptable to the Licensing Authority for the purposes of the case concerned, in consultation with flight operations or other experts as necessary. "clvll avlatlon medlcal examiner". A physician appointed by the Civil Aviation Authority to examine the medical fitness of candidates for issue or revalidation of Jamaica P~lot and Air Traffic Control personnel licences and who report their findings to the DFS. "likely". In the context of the medical provisions in this Schedule, means with a probability of occurring that is unacceptable to the Medical Assessor. "medlcal assessment". The evidence issued by the Authority that the licence holder meets specific requirements of medical fitness. "medlcal assessor". A physician qualified and experienced in the practice of aviation medicine who evaluates medical reports submitted to the Authority by Civil Aviation Medical Examiners. "medlcal standards flexiblllty". Under special circumstances such as applicants with monocular vision or a Dhvsical handicaP. flexibilitv mav be amlied and the licence issued or validated subject to a su&essful practical test to issure thai ihe applicant's exercising of the privileges of the licence applied for is not likely to affect air safety. Where flexibility is applied, the privileges of the licence may be restricted. See Subsection 8.770. "practlcai test". A practical test is a test in addition to all other standard medical requirements together with the licensing standards of skill, knowledge and experience for the licence applied for. A practical test will only be conducted when requested by the CAME and approved by the DFS. A Practical test shall onlv be reauested when it is necessarv to obtain an accurate evaluation of the applicant's capabilities. The initial practical test ;hall be conducted by an Aviation Safetv Inspector as directed bv the DFS. Subseauent Practical tests for the same applicant withihe same deficiency may at the discretion o'f the DFS. be delegated to a suitably qualified flight instructor. "psychosls". A mental disorder in which the individual has manifested delusions, hallucinations. grossly bizarre or disorganised behaviour or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition; or the individual may reasonably be expected to manifest delusions, hallucinations. grossly bizarre or disorganised behaviour or other commonly accepted symptoms of this condition. "psychoactive substance". Alcohol, sedatives, hypnotics, anxiolytics, hallucinogens, opioids. cannabis, inhalants. central nervous system stimulants such as cocaine, amphetamines and similarly acting sympathomimetics, phencyclidine or similarly acting arylcyclohexylamines and other psychoactive drugs and chemicals.

(10) "rendering (a licence) valld". The action taken by the Authority to accept the license of another ICAO Contracting State (of ICAO) as -

(i) An alternative to issuing its own license or certificate; or (ii)The basis for issuing its own license or certificate.

(11) "slgnlflcant". In the context of the medical provisions in this Schedule, means to a degree or of a nature that is likely to jeopardize flight safety.

(12) "substance abuse". Refers to - (i) The use of a substance in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous, if there

has been at any other time an instance of the use of a substance also in a situation in which that use was physically hazardous:

(ii) A verified positive drug test result acquired under an anti-drug program or internal program of Jamaics government; or

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(iii) Mlsuse of a substance that the Authority, based on case h~story and qualified medical judgement relating to the substance involved, finds will cause a to be unable to safely perform the duties, or exercise the privileges of, an airman certificate.

(13) "substance dependence". A condition in which a person is dependent on a substa"ce, other than tobacco or ordinary xanthine-containing (e.g.. caffeine) beverages, as evidenced by increased tolerance, manifestation of withdrawal symptoms; impaired control of use or continued use despite damage to physical health or impairment of social, personal, or occupational functioning.

8.710 ACRONYMS

The following acronyms are used in this Schedule -

(1) CAME -Civil Aviation Medical Examiner: (2) dB -decibels; (3) DFS - Director. Flight Safety; (4) ICAO - International Civil Aviation Organization.

(a) The Authority issues three classes of medical certificates that are intended to indicate the minimum medical qualification - (1) Class 1, for the exercise of commercial privileges as a flight crewmember. except for glider and

balloon pilots; (2) Class 2, for the exercise of student, private, glider or balloon pilot privileges: and

(3) Class 3, for the exercise of air traffic controller privileges.

(b) The period of validity of the medical examination is calculated from the first day of the month following the date of the medical declaration of the medical examination.

(c) All periods of validity are based on the age of the applicant at the time of undergoing the medical examination.

(d) When a temporary validation form is marked "fit" by a CAME, the licence to which it relates is considered to be validated until a new medical certificate is issued or until the expiration of 90 days following the date of the medical re-examination, whichever is the earlier.

8.716 MEDII E:

Llcence Class Requlred Requlred

Airline Transport, Commercial. Flight Engineer

balloon Student

Controller

IN REQUIREMENTS

~ e d l c a l Report Electrocardiogram Requlred Requlred

Every 12 months- (see Note 1 .)

Every 60 months- (see Note 2.)

At the initial exam and then every two years after age 30 and then every year after age 40. At the initial exam and at the first exam after age 30 and every 2 years until age 50 and annually thereafter.

and every 2 years until age

Audlogram Requlred

As required by paragraphs (a) and (b) (2). of Subsection 8.840.

As required by paragraphs (a) and (b) (1) of Subsection 8.840.

As required by paragraphs (a) and (b) (2) of Subsection 8.840.

(Note 1: Holders o f aidine transport pilot licences end holders of commerciel pilot licences who ere engaged in single pilot commerciel air transport operations who have passed their 4dh birthday require a medical report every 6 months.)

(Noh 2: Holders of private, glider or balloon pilot licences who have passed their 4@ birthday, require a medical report every 24 months. After passing their 5dbbihday, a medical report is required every 12 months.) (Noh 3: Holders o f air traffic controller licences who have passed their 4d%itihday, q u i r e a medical

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reporl every 24 months. Afier passing their 5dh birthday, a medical report is required every 12 months.)

SUBPART 6: AVIATION MEDICAL EXAMINERS

8.725 AVIATION MEDICAL EXAMINER: DEFINITION AND AUTHORITY

(a) The Authority will designate and authorize each CAME within Jamaica to - (1) accept applications for physical examinations necessary for issuing medical certificates under

this Schedule; (2) conduct physical examinations for medical cert~f~cates under the general supervision of the

Authority; and (3) recommend issuance or denial of medical certificates in accordance with this Schedule, subject

to reconsideration by an authorized representative of the Authority.

(b) Each CAME shall be qualified and licensed in the practice of medicine and shall have received. training in aviation medicine and be knowledgeable of the conditions in which the holders of licenses and ratings carry out their duties.

(c) Each CAME shall report to the Authority any individual case where. in the examiner's judgement, an applicant's failure to meet any requirement is not likely to jeopardize flight safety.

8.730 DELEGATION OF AUTHORITY

(a) The Authority will delegate to each CAME the authority to - (1) examine applicants for and holders of medical certificates to determine whether they meet

applicable medical standards; and (2) recommend issuance, renewal, denial or withdrawal of medical certificates, medical waivers or

special authorizations to an applicant based on meeting or failing to meet applicable medical standards.

(b) The Authority may delegate to a qualified medical doctor the authorization as a representative of the Authority, to review medical records submitted to the Authority, re-evaluate applicants' and holders of medical certificates for fitness and on occasion, to visit and review the applicants' files held by a CAME.

(c) The Authority retains the right to reconsider any action of a CAME.

SUBPART C: MEDICAL CERTIFICATION PROCEDURES

This Section prescribes the medical certification procedures required for the issuance of all medical certificates.

(a) Each applicant for a medical certificate shall, in a form and manner prescribed by the Authority, sign and furnish the CAME with a personally certified statement of medical facts concerning personal. familial and'hereditary history that is as complete and accurate as the applicant's knowledge permits

(b) Medical confidentiality shall be respected at all times and all medical reports and records shall be securely held with accessibility restricted to authorized personnel. When justified by operational considerations, the medical assessor shall determine to what extent pertinent medical information is presented to relevant officials of the Authority.

(c) Whenever the Authority finds that additional medical information or history is needed, the Authority will request that the applicant - (1) furnish that information; or (2) authorize any clinic, hospital, physician or other person to release to the Authority all available

information or records concerning that history.



(d) If an applicant or holder of a medical certificate fails to provide the requested medical information or history, fails to authorize the release so requested or provides information that is false, the Authority may - (1) suspend, modify or revoke all medical certificates the airman holds; or (2) in the case of an applicant, deny the application for an airman medical certificate.

(e) If an airman medical certificate is suspended or modified under this Section, that suspension or modification remains in effect until - (1) the holder or applicant provides the requested information, history or authorization to the

Authority; and (2) the Authority determines whether the holder or applicant meets the medical standards.

8.755 CAME SUBMISSION OF SIGNED MEDICAL EVALUATION REPORT

(a) Having completed a medical examination of an applicant, the CAME shall sign the required report and submit directly to the Authority the full details of that evaluation in the form and manner that has been prescribed. If the medical evaluation report is submitted to the Authority in electronic format, adequate identification of the medical examiner shall be established.

(Note: It is critkal to aviation safety that the report, once completed by the CAME, is not handled by . ' the applicant. I f the applicant is hand-delivering the report to the Authority, it must be sealed in an

envelope by the CAME and must be delivered sealed to the Authonyy).

(b) Having begun a medical evaluation of an applicant, the CAME shall submit to the Authority the report required in paragraph, (a) whether the evaluation is terminated prior to completion, yielded sub- standard results or was completed satisfactorily.

(Note: It is critical to aviation safety that the Authority is made aware of the results ofall medical evaluation of persons applying for or holding licenses that require a medical evaluation.)

(c) If the medical examination is carried out by two or more medical examiners, the Authority shall appoint one of these to be responsible for coordination the results of the examination, evaluating the findings with regard to medical fitness, and signing the report.

(a) The Authority will issue the applicable medical certificate to any person who meets the medical standards prescribed in this Subpart, based on medical examination and evaluation of the applicant's history and condition.

(b) Each person to be issued a medical certificate shall undergo a medical examination based on the physical and mental standards contained in this Subpart.

(c) Any person who does not meet the medical standards of this Subpart may apply for the discretionary issuance of a certificate.

(a) The denial of a medical certificate is effective - (1) upon the date of the medical evaluation that determined the applicant was not fit in conformance

with the standards of Subpart D of this Schedule; and (2) until such time that the applicant is again determined by the Authority to be fit to exercise the

privileges through - (i) an accredited medical conclusion; (ii) a special flight test; or (iii) with respect to a transient condition, until a subsequent satisfactory report is acceptable to

the Authority.

(b) Any applicant who is denied a medical certificate by the Authority may, within 30 days after the date of the denial, apply in writing in duplicate to the Authority for reconsideration of that denial.

(c) If the applicant does not ask for reconsideration during the 30-day period after the date of the denial. the Authority will consider that he or she has withdrawn the application for a medical certificate.



(a) The Authority may issue a Special Issuance of a Medical Certificate (Authorization) to an applicant who does not meet the applicable standards for the medical certificate sought if the applicant shows to the satisfaction of the Authority that - (1) an accredited medical conclusion indicates that in special circumstances the applicant's failure to

meet any requirement, whether numerical or otherwise, is such that exercise of the privileges of the licence applied for is not likely to jeopardize flight safety; and

(2) relevant ability, skill and experience of the applicant and operational conditions have been given due consideration.

(b) The Authority will issue a medical limitation on a license when the Authority or a CAME determines the safe performance of the license holder's duties is dependent on compliance with such a limitation.

8.780 RENEWAL OF MEDICAL CERTIFICATE

(a) The requirements for the renewal of a Medical Assessment are the same as those for the initial assessment except where otherwise specifically stated.

(b) When required to obtain or renew correcting lenses, the applicant should advise the CAME conducting the medical examination of the new prescription, including revised reading distances - (1) for Class 1 medical certificates, for the visual flight deck tasks relevant to the types of aircraft in

with the applicant is likely to function. (2) for Class 3 medical certificates, for the duties the applicant is to perform.

(a) A licence holder operating in an area distant from designated Jamaica medical examination'facilities may receive a special renewal of his or her medical certificate at the discretion and with the written

'

permission of the Authority, provided that such renewal shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed - (1) a single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-

commercial operations. (2) in the case of a flight crewmember of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations, two

consecutive periods each of three months provided that in each case a favourable medical report is obtained after examination.

(b) The examination referred to in paragraph (a), subparagraph (2) of this Subsection must be conducted by - (1) a designated CAME of the area concerned; or (2) in cases where such a designated CAME is not available in the State where the crew member is

located, by a physician legally qualified topractise medicine in that area.

(c) The holder of a private pilot certificate will receive special renewal for a single period not exceeding 24 months wherethe medical examination is carried out by an CAME designated under ICAO Annex 1 by the Contracting State in which the applicant is temporarily located.

(d) A report of the medical examination required by this Subsection shall be sent to the Authority before the actual conduct of any aircraft operations during the period specified for special renewal.

SUBPART D: PHYSICAL AND MENTAL STANDARDS

8.810 APPLICABILITY

This Section prescribes the physical medical standards required for all medical certificates.

(a) No person may hold or be issued a medical certificate if he or she suffers from any disease or disability that could render that person likely to become suddenly unable to either perform assigned duties safely or operate an aircraft safely.

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(b) Llcence holders should inform the Authority of confirmed pregnancy or any decrease in medical fitness of a duration of more than 20 days or which requires continued treatment with prescribed medlcation or which has required hospital treatment.

8.815 MEDICAL REQUIREMENTS No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate who -

(1) has any organic, functional or structural disease, defect or hm~tation (active, latent, acute or chronic);

(2) has any wound, injury or sequelae from operation; (3) any abnormality, congenital or acquired; or (4) uses any prescribed or non-prescribed medication or other treatment that, based on the case

history and appropriate qualified medcal judgement relating to the condit~on(s) involved, the Authority finds- (i) makes the applicant unable to safely perform the dut~es or exercise the pr~vileges of the

license(s) or rating(s) applied for or held; or (ii) may reasonably be expected, for the maxlmum duration of the airman medical certificate

applied for or held, to make the applicant unable to perform those duties or exercise those privileges.

(Note: Use of herbal medication and alternative treatment modalities requires particular attention to possible side-effects.)

No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate who has an established medical history or clinical diagnosis of -

a mood (affective) disorder; an organic mental disorder ; a bipolar (manic-depressive) disorder; a mental or behavioural disorder due to use of psychoactive substances; this ~ncludes dependence syndrome induced by alcohol or other psychoactive substances. schizophrenia or a schizolypal or delusional disorder; a neurotic, stress-related or somatoform disorder: a behavioural syndrome associated with physiological disturbances or physical factors; a disorder of adult personality or behaviour, particularly if manifested by repeated overt acts; mental retardation; . .

(10) a disorder of psychological development; or (11) a behavioural or emotional disorder, with onset in childhood or adolescence;

Each person holding or being issued a medical certificate shall have - (1) normally functioning eyes and adnexae; (2) normal fields of vision; (3) normal binocular function; and

(Note: Reduced stereopsis, abnormal convergence not inteffering with near vision and ocular misalignment where the fusional reserves are sufficient to prevent asthenopia and diplopia need not be disqualifying.)

(4) no actwe pathological condition, acute or chronic nor sequelae of surgery or trauma of the eyes or their adnexa which is likely to jeopardise flight safety.

8.827 VISION TESllNG REQUIREMENTS (a) The corrected and uncorrected visual acuity must be measured and recorded at each examination.

(Note: Applicants who use contact lenses may not need to have their uncorrected visual acuity measured at each re-examination provided the history of their contact lens prescffption is known)

(b)' The test for visual acuity must comply with the following -



( I ) for a visual acutty test in a lighted room, use a test illumination level of approximately 50 Ix. normally correspondmg to a brtghtness of 30 cd per square metre; and

(2) visual acuity shall be measured by means of a series of optotypes of Landoh, or similar optotypes, placed at a distance of 6 m from the candidate, or 5 m as appropriate.

(c) The Authority, at its discretion. may require a separate ophthalmic report before issuance of a medical certificate.

(d) Conditions which indicate a need to obtain an ophthalmic report include - ( I a substantial decrease in the uncorrected visual acuitv: , . (2) any decrease in best corrected visual acuity; and (3) the occurrence of eye disease. eye injury or eye surgery.

A person may meet the visual acuity fitness for near or distant vision by using correcting lenses.

Correcting spectacles may be used, prov~ded that - (1 ) not more than one pair of correcting spectacles is used to demonstrate compliance with visual

acuity requirements; (2) single-vision near correction lenses (full lenses of one power only, appropriate to reading) may not

be used for both near and distance vision; and

(Note: Single-vision near correction significantly reduces distant visual acuity and Ulerefore is not acceptable).

(3) in order to read the instruments, or a chart or manual held in the hand, and to make use of distant vision through the windscreen without removing the lenses, the spectacles may be - (i) "lookover;" (ii) bifocal; or (iii) trifocal.

An applicant may use contact lenses to meet the distance vision acuity requirement provided that the lenses are - (1) monofocal; (2) non-tinted; and (3) well tolerated. Any person that is issued a medical certificate that requires correcting lenses or spectacles shall have a limitation placed on that document requiring them, while exercising the privileges of this certificate, to (as appropriate) - (1) wear the distantcorrection lenses at all times; (2) have readily available and use the nearcorrection spectacles as necessary to accomplish near

vision functions; and (3) have a second pair of suitable spectacles (distant- andlor nearcorrection, as appropriate)

available for immediate use.

8.831 DISTANCE VISION REWIREMENTS (a) Each person issued a medical certificate shall have a distant visual acuity in each eye, with or without

carrectlng lenses of at least - (1) for Class 2 certificates. 6112 (20140), with binocular visual acuity of 619 (20130) or better, or (2) for Class 1 or 3 certificates, 619 (20130) with binocular visual acuity of 616 (20120) or better.

(Note: Uncorrected distance visual acuity is not a limiting fedor).

(b) An applicant with a large refractive error shall use contact lenses or hlgh-index spectacle lenses.

(Note: I f spectacles are used, high-index lenses are needed to minimize pe~ipherel fleld distorlfon.)

(c) An applicant whose uncorrected distant visual acuity in either eye is worse than 6160 shall provide a full ophthalmic report prior to initial medical evaluation and every 5 years thereafter.



(d) An applicant who has undergone surgery affecting the refractive siatus of the eye shall free of those sequelae likely to interfere with the safe exercise of their airman licence privileges.

8.833 NEAR VISION REQUIREMENTS

(a) Each person issued a medical certificate shall meet the following minimum visual standards for near visual acuity to read, with or without corrective lenses - (Note 1: When required to obtain or renew correcting lenses, the applicant should advise the CAME of reading distances for (the duties the applicant is to perform).

(Note 2: When required to obtain or renew correcting lenses, an airman should advise the CAME of reading distances for the visual flight deck tasks relevant to the types of aircraft in which the applicant is likely to function)

(1) N14 (N14 refers to "Times Roman" font) chart or its equivalent at a distance of 100 cm; and (2) N5 chart (N5 refers to "Times Roman" font) at a distance of 30 to 50 cm as selected by the

applicant.

(b) If these near-vision requirements are met only by the use of near-correction and the applicant also needs distant-correction, both corrections must be added to a pair of spectacles to be used to meet the requirements.

(c) When near correction is required the applicant shall demonstrate that one pair of speclacles is sufficient to meet both distant and near visual requirements.

8.836 COLOUR PERCEPTION' REQUIREMENTS

(a) The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to perceive readily those colours the perception of which is necessary for the safe performance of duties and in so doing shall be assessed as fit.

(b) The applicant shall be able to correctly identify a series of pseudoisochromatic plates (tables) in dayhght or in artificial light of the same colour temperature such as that provided by llluminant "C" or "D65 as specified by the International Commission on Illumination (CIE).

(c) An applicant failing to obtain a satisfactory score in such a test may nevertheless be assessed as fit provided the applicant is able to readily and correctly identify aviation coloured lights displayed by means of a recognized colour perception lantern in a special test conducted by the Authority.

(d) An applicant unable to satisfactorily complete the special test provided in Subsection 8.836(c) - ( I ) shall only be eligible for a Class 2 medical assessment with the following restriction: "Valid for Day

Operations Only; and (2) should be advised any sunglasses worn during the exercise of airman privileges must be non-

polarizing and of a neutral grey tint.

(a) No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate having any hearing defect that is likely to jeopardise flight safety.

(Note: The Authority shall use such methods of examination as will guarantee reliable testing of a person's ability to hear).

(b) Each person holding or being issued a medical certification shall - .

( I ) demonstrate acceptable hearing by at least one of the following tests - (i) hear an average conversational voice in a quiet room, using both ears, at a distance of 2

meters from the examiner, and with the back turned to the examiner; or

(Note 1: For the purposes of testing hearing in accordance with the requirements, the sound level of an average conversational voice at 1 m from the point of output (lower lip of the speaker) is c. 60 dB (A) and that of a whispered voice C 45 d6 (A). At 2m from the speaker, the sound level is 6 dB (A) lower.

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(Note 2: For the purposes of testing hearing in accordance with the requirement,^ a quiet mom in which the intensity of the background noise is less than 35 dB (A).

(ii) understand speech as determined by audiometric speech discrimlnation testing to a score of at least 70 percent obtained in one ear or in a sound field environment; and

(2) for Class 1 medical certificates, applicants shall be tested on a pure-tone audiometer at first issue of the certificate, not less than once every five years up to the age of 40 years, and thereafter not less than once every two years and for Class 3 medical certificates, applicants shall be tested on a pure-tone audiometer at first issue of the certificate, not less than once every four years up to the age of 40 years, and thereafter not less than once every two years. For Class 2 medical certificetes, applicants should be tested on pure-tone audiometer at first issue of the certificate, and after the age of 50 years, not less than once every two years. These tests shall provide acceptable results of pure tone audiometric testing of unaided hearing acuity according to the following table of minimum acceptable thresholds:

Frequency (Hz) 500 1000 2000 3000 Hz Hz Hz Hz

Better ear (dB) 35 30 30 40 Poorer ear (dB\ 5n 5n 60

(Note: The reference zero for calibration of pure-tone audiometers is that of the pedinent Standards of the cuhn t edition of the Audiometric Test Methods, published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).

(3) for a pilot holding instrument ratings, also be tested in accordance with the timing and standards of the Class 1 medical certificate in paragraph (b), subparagraph (2) of this Subsection.

(Note 1: If a pilot is the holder of an instrument rating, but is not fit to meet the requirements of paragraph (b), subparagraph (2) or (3) of this Subsection, the medical cedificate shall be annotated with the limitation 'not valid for flight in IFR".)

(Note 2: When tested by pure-tone audiometry, an applicant with a hearing loss, in either ear separately, of more than 35 dB at any of the frequencies 500, 1000 or 2000 Hz, or more than 50 dB at 3000 Hz, shall be assessed as unfit.)

Where the results of paragraph (b), subparagraph (2) or (3) of this Subsection did not meet minimum requirements, an acceptable alternative test for fitness may be accomplished by incorporating satisfactory results from test (b)(l) and the satisfactory demonstration of the following hearing performance in each ear separately equivalent to that of a normal person against a background noise that will simulate the masking properties of - (1) For pilots, the flight deck noise upon speech and beacon signals; or (2) For air traffic controllers. the noise experienced in a typical air traffic control working environment.

(Note 1: In the choice of speech material, aviation-type material is not to be used exclusively for the sbove tests. Lists of phonetically balanced words will also be satisfactory).

(Note 2: The frequency composition of the background noise should provide an adequate representation of 600 to 4800 Hz).

8.845 CARD~OVASCULAR - GENERAL

(a) No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate having any abnormality of the heart, congenital or acquired. which is likely to jeopardise flight safety.

(b) No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate having an established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following cardiovascular conditions - (1) myocardial infarction;



(Note: A person may be assessed as fit and issued a Class 3 medical certificate if that person is indicated by accredited medical conclusion to have made a satisfactory.recovery from myocardial infarction.)

(2) angina pectoris; (3) coronary heart disease that has required treatment or, if untreated, that has been symptomatic or

clinically significant; (4) cardiac valve replacement; (5) permanent cardiac pacemaker implantation; or (6) heart replacement.

8.847 BLOOO PRESSURE AND CIRCULATION

No person may hold or be issued a medical certificate if that person has - ( I ) systolic and diastolic blood pressures outside normal limits, or

(Note: The use of drugs for control of high blood pressure shall be disqualifying except for those drugs specified by the Authority, the use of which is compatible with the safe exercise of the applicant's licence and rating privileges.)

(2 ) a significant functional or structural abnormality of the circulatory tree.

(Note: The presence of varicosities does not necessarily entail unfitness.)

Each person holding or being issued a medical certificate shall demonstrate an absence of myocardial infarction and other clinically significant abnormality on an electrocardiographic examination-

(Note: The purpme of routine electrocardiography is case finding. It does not provide sufficient evidence to justify disqualification without further thorough cardiovascular investigation but shall form part of the heart examination for the first issue of a medical certificate).

(1 ) for Class 2 and 3 certificates - (i) at the first application; then (ii) every 2years after the age of 30; and (iii) every year after the age of 50; and (iv) in all doubtfyl cases.

(2) for Class I certificstes - (i) at the first application; then (ii) every 2 years after reaching the 30th birthday; and (iii) every year after reaching the 40th birthday.

(Note 1: An applicant who has undergone coronary by-pass graeing or engioplasty (with or without stenting) or other cardiac intervention or who has a history of myocardial infarction or who suffers from any other potentially incapacitating cardiac condition shall be assessed as unfit unless the applicant's cardiac condition has been investigated and evaluated in accordance with best medical practice end is assessed not likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the applicant's licence or rating privileges.)

(Note 2: An applicant with an abnormal cardiac rhyihm shall be assessed as unfit unless the cardiac anhylhmia has been investigated and evaluated in accordance with best medical practice and is assessed not likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the applicant's licence or rating privileges.)

(a) No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate having any neurological disorder. disturbance of consciousness or neurological condition which is likely to jeopardise flight safety.

(b) No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate having an established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following neurological conditions - (1) epilepsy; (2) a progressive or non-progressive disease of the P-wous system, the effects of which are likely to

interfere with the safe exercise of the applicant's licence and rating privileges;



(3) a disturbance of consciousness without satisfactory medical explanation of the cause; or (4) a 'transient loss of control of nervous system function(s) without satisfactory medical explanation

of the cause. (5) the applicant shall not have suffered any head injury. the effects of which are likely to interfere

with the safe exercise of the applicant's licence and rating privileges.

(a) No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate having an established medical history or clinical diagnosis of the following medical conditions - (1) acute disability of the lungs or any active disease of the structures of the lungs, mediastinum or

pleura;active pulmonary tuberculosis; orasthma causing significant symptoms or likely to cause incapacitating symptoms during normal or emergency operations.

(Note: The use of drugs for control of asthma shall be disquali~ing except for those drugs, the use of which is compatible with the safe exercise of the applicant's licence and rating privileges.)

(b) Unless there is an accredited medical conclusion indicating that the condition is not likely to affect the safe exercise of the applicant's license and rating privileges, the following medical conditions are also disquaI.@ng - (1) Quiescent or healed lesions which are known to be tuberculous, or are presumably tuberculous in

origin; or (2) Pulmonary disease.

8.865 RADIOLOGY (XRAY) EVALUATION

(a) A radiography evaluation shall be accomplished during the initial chest examination.

(b) These evaluations should be conducted as necessary in subsequent medical examinations where there are historical chest cavity issues, symptoms or doubtful clinical cases.

8.870 VESTIBULAR APPARATUS (a) No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate having an established medical history or

clinical diagnosis of any of the following medical conditions - . .

(1) any disturbance of vestibular function; (2) no disease or condition of the middle or internal ear, nose, oral cavity, pharynx or larynx that -

(i) interferes with or is aggravated by flying or may reasonably be expected to do so; or (ii) interferes with, or may reasonably be expected to interfere with, clear and effectiGe speech

communication; (3) a disease or condition manifested by, or that may reasonably be expected to be manifested by.

vertigo or a disturbance of equilibrium; (4) any significant dysfunction of the Eustachian tubes.

(b) Unless there is an accredited medical conclusion indicating that the condition is not likely to affect the safe exercise of the applicant's license and rating privileges, the following medical conditions are also disqualifying - (1) acute or chronic impairment of nasal air entry on either side; (2) serious malformation or serious, acute or chronic affection of the buccal cavity or upper

respiratory tract; or (3) unhealed (unclosed) perforation of the tympanic membranes.

(Note: A single dry perforetion need not render the applicant unrit).

8.873 BONES, MUSCLES AND TENDONS

No person may hold or be issued a medical certificate having an established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the followinQ medical conditions -

(1) any abnormality of the bones, joints, muscles, tendons or related structures.

(Note: Any sequelae efler lesions affecting the bones, joirits, muscles or tendons, and certain anatomical defects will normally require functional assessment to determine fitness.)

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No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate having an established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following medical conditions -

(1) metabolic, nutritional or endocrine disorders that are likely to interfere with safe conduct of flight; (2) diabetes mellitus that requires insulin or any other hypoglycemic drug for control; or

(Note - Applicants with non-insulin treated diabetes mellitus shall be assessed as unfit unless the condition is shown to be satisfactorily controlled by diet alone or by diet combined with oral anti-diabetic medication, the use of which is compatible with the safe exercise of the applicant's licence and rating privileges.)

8.880 GASTROlNTESTlNAL AND DIGESTIVE TRACT

(a) No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate having an established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following medical conditions -

(1) disabling disease with important impairment of function of the gastrointestinal tract or its adnexa; (2) sequelae of disease of, or surgical intervention on, any part of the digestive tract or its adnexae,

likely to cause incapacitation in flight, in particular obstructions due to stricture or compression; or (3) hemias that might cause incapacitating symptoms.

(b) Unless there is an accredited medical conclusion indicating that the condition is not likely to affect the safe exercise of the applicant's license and rating privileges, the following medical condition is also disqualifying -

(1) for Class 1 and 2 medical certificates, an applicant who has undergone a major surgical operation on the biliary passages or the digestive tract or its adnexae with a total or partial excision or a diversion of any of these organs that may cause incapacitation in flight.

No person may hold nor be issued a medical certificate having an established medical history or clinical diagnosis of any of the following medical conditions unless the applicant's condition has been investigated and evaluated in accordance with best medical practice and is assessed not likely to interfere with the safe exercise of the applicant's licence or rating privileges-

(1) urine containing abnormal element considered to be of pathological significance; (2) cases of abnormality of the urinary passages or the genital organs; or (3) any sequelae of disease of surgical procedures on the kidneys or the genitor-urinary tract. in

particular obstructions due to stricture or compression.

(Note 1: Compensated nephrectomy withoot hypertension or uraemia may be assessed as fit.)

(Note 2: Urine examination shall form part of the medical examination and abnormalities shall be adequately investigated.)

8.880 LYMPHATIC GLANDS OR DISEASE OF THE BLOOD

Unless there is an accredited medical conclusion indicating that the condition is not likely to affect the safe exercise of the applicant's license and rating privileges, the following medical condition is also disquallfylng-

(1) renal or genitor-urinary disease; or (2) for Class 1 and 2 certificates. diseases of the blood andlor the lymphatic system, including sickle

cell anemia.

(Note: Sickle cell trait or other haemoglobinopathic traits are usually compatible with a fit assessment.)

Unless there is an accredited medical conclusion indicating that the wndition is not likely to affect the safe exercise of the applicant's license and rating privileges, the following medical wndition is also disquallfylng-

(1) severe menstrual disturbances that have proven unresponsive to treatment; or

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(2) an applicant 60 has been dlagnosed with a gynaecologlcal disorder or who have undergone a gynaecological operation .

8.800 PREGNANCY For Class 1 and 2 medical certificates, pregnancy will be a cause of temporary unfitness to exercise prMleges -

(1) durlng third trimester; (2) during the second trimester, unless an medical evaluation by a qualified doctor attests that no

significant abnormalities are occurring; or (3) following confinement or termination of the pregnancy, until fitness is determined through medical

evaluation by a qualified doctor.

8.905 SPEECH DEFECTS (a) For Class 1 certificates, each applicant seeklng first issuance of a medical certificate who has a

noticeable speech defect and stuttering problem must undergo an operational evaluation to determine what limitations must be applied to the use of pilot privileges.

(b) For Class 3 certificates, cases of speech defects and stuttering shall be assessed as unfit.

8.910 ACQUIRED ~MMUNODEFICIENCY SYNDROME (AIDS)

(a) Applicants with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) shall be assessed as unfit.

(b) Applicants who are seropositive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) shall be assessed as unfit unless full investigation provides no evidence of clinical disease.

(Note: Evaluation of applicants who am seropasitive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) requires padicular attention to their mental state, including the psychological effects of the diagnasis.)

lThe lncluslon of thls page I s authorlzed by L.N. 18d20081


NINTH SCHEDULE (Regulations 40,42,43,44)

APPROVED TRAINING ORGANIZATIONS

SUBPARTA: GENERAL 9.001 Applicability 9.005 Definitions 9.010 Acronyms

SUBPART B: CERTIFICATION AND INSPECTIONS 9.015 Certificate Required 9.020 Application for Issuance or Amendment 9.025 Contents of an AT0 Certificate 9.035 Duration Of Certificate 9.040 Deviations or Waivers 9.045 Advertising Limitations 9.050 Facilities. Equipment, and Material 9.053 Training and Procedures Manual 9.055 FTU Equipment and Courseware 9.060 Satellite ATOs 9.063 Quality Assurance System 9.065 Changes Requiring Notice to the Authority 9.070 Inspection

SUBPART C: ADMINISTRATION 9.075 Record keeping 9.080 Graduation Certificates 9.085 Transcripts

SUBPART D: FLIGHT CREW TRAINING. Section I: General

9.090 Pilot Training Courses 9.093 Special Curricula - Other Crewmembers 9.095 Requirements for an FTU Level 1 or 2 AT0 Certificate 9.100 , Provisional FTU Level 1 or 2 AT0 Certificate 9.105 Renewal of Certificates and Ratings

Section II: Flight Training Equipment Requirements 9.1 10 Applicability 9.1 15 Airport Requirements 9.120 Aircraft Requirements 9.125 Flight Simulators And Flight ~ ra ihng Devices

Section Ill: Curriculum and Syllabus Requirements 9.130 Applicability 9.135 Approval of Training Programme 9.140 Training Programme Curriculum Requirements

Section IV: Personnel Requirements 9.145 Applicability 9.1 55 FTU lnstructor ~ligibility Requirements 9.160 FTU lnstructor Privileges and Limitations 9.165 PTU lnstructor Training and Testing Requirements 9.170 Reserved 9.175 FTU Personnel 9.180 FTU Chief Flight lnstructor Qualifications 9.185 FTU Assistant Chief Flight lnstructor Qualifications 9.190 DFTE Qualifications 9.195 Level 1 FTU Flight Training Provisions 9.198 Level 2 FTU Flight Training Provisions .

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9.200 FTU lnstructor Ground Training 9.205 Level 1 FTU Chief Flight lnstructor Respons~bilities

Section V: Operating Rules 9.210 Applicability 9.21 5 Privileges 9.220 Limitations - AT0 9.225 Limitations: Enrolled Students in Actual Flight Curricula 9.230 Level 1 FTU Enrolment documents

SUBPART E: AIRMEN OTHER THAN FLIGHT CREW Section I: Airmen Other Than Pilots or Aircraft Maintenance Engineers

9.235 Applicability 9.240 Other Training Courses 9.245 Application, Duration and Renewal

Section 11: AME Training Courses 9.250 Applicability 9.255 AME Training Courses 9.260 General Curriculum Requirements 9.265 AME Training Programme Providers 9.270 lnstructor Requirements 9.275 Attendance and Credit for Prior Instruction or Experience

APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 9.020: Application for AT0 Certificate Appendix 1 to 9.050: Facilities for AME Courses Appendix 1 to 9.053: Contents of Training and Procedures Manual Appendix 1 to 9.090: Training Programme - General Appendix 2 to 9.090: Private Pilot Licensing Course Appendix 3 to 9.090: Commercial Pilot Licensing Course Appendix 4 to 9.090: Instrument Rating (IR) Course Appendix 5 to 9.090: Airline Transport Pilot Licensing Course Appendix 6 to 9.090: Class 2 Flight lnstructor Rating Course Appendix 7 to 9.090: Flight lnstructor Instrument Teaching Course Appendix 8 to 9.090: Additional Aircraft Category or Class Rating Course Appendix 9 to 9.090: Aircraft Type Rating Course Appendix 10 to 9.090: Special Preparation Courses Appendix 11 to 9.090: Pilot Ground School Course Appendix 12 to 9.090: Flight Engrneer Course Appendix 1 to 9.1 15: Airport Requirements Appendix 1 to 9.165: ~ e v e l 2 FTU lnstructor Training and Testing Requirements Appendix 1 to 9.180: Chief Flight lnstructor Qualifications Appendix I to 9.185: Level 1 FTU Assistant Chief Flight lnstructor Qualifications Appendix 1 to 9.21 5: Transfer Privileges Appendix 1 to 9.260: AME Airframe andlor Powerplant Rating

SUBPART A GENERAL

This Schedule prescribes the requirements for certifying and administering an Approved Training Organization (ATO).

For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply:

(1) "Accountable manager" (training). The manager who has corporate authority for ensuring that all training can be financed and carried out to the standard required by the Authority. The accountable manager may delegate, in writing, to another person in the organization to become the accountable manager when authorized by the Authority.

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(2) "Fllght Training Equipment" Flight simulators, flight training devices and aircraft. (3) "Flight Training Unit" (FTU) An approved training organization carrying out any flight

training course approved by the Authority for the issuance of a licence or rating. (4) "Line-Operational Slrnulation" Simulation conducted using operational-oriented flight . .

scenarios that accurately replicate interaction among flight crewmembers and between flight crewmembers and dispatch facilities, other crewmembers, air traffic control and ground operations.

(5) "Llne Operatlonal Fllght Tralnlng" (LOFT). Training in a simulator with a complete crew using representative flight segments which contain normal, abnormal and emergency procedures that may be expected in line operations.

(6) "Level 1 Flight Tralnlng Unit "(FTU). A flight training facility which conducts all or substantially all of each flight training course using aircraft.

(7) "Level 2 Flight Tralnlng Unit "(FTU). A flight training facility which conducts all or substantially all of each flight training course using simulation media which are qualified and approved by the Authority.

(8) "Pilot Tralning Record" An approved record of air and ground instruction which shall be maintained by the flight training unit for all pilot trainees.

(9) "Satellite FTU." An FTU at a location other than primary location of the FTU. (10) "Speciality curriculum." A set of courses that is designed to satisfy a requirement of the

civil viat ti on Regulations and that is approved by the Authority for use by a particular FTU Level 2 AT0 or satellite FTU Level 2 ATO. The speciality curriculum includes trainina requirements unique to one or more FTU Level 2 ATO clients.

(1 1) "Training speciflcations." A document issued to a certified FTU by the Authority that prescribes that organization's training, checking and testing authorizations and limitations, and specifies training programme requirements.'

The following acronyms are used in this Schedule - (1) NCFI -Assistant Chief Flight Instructor; (2) AFM - Aircraft Flight Manual; (3) AME - Aviation Maintenance Engineer; (4) AM0 -Aircraft Maintenance Organization; (5) AT0 - Approved Training Organization; (6) CFI - Chief Flight Instructor; (7) DFTE - Designated Flight Test Examiner (approved by the Authority); (8) FSI - Flight Safety Inspector; (9) FTU - Flight Training Unit; (10) IFR - lnstrument Flight Rules ; (1 1) IR - lnstrument Rating; (12) MTU - Maintenance Training Unit; and (13) NOTAM - Notice to Airmen.

SUBPART 6: CERTIFICATION AND INSPECTIONS

I (a) No person may operate an AT0 without, or in violation of, an AT0 certificate and training

specifications issued under this Schedule.

(b) Except for an AOC holder training its own flight crews, no person may conduct training, testing or checking in advanced flight training devices or flight simulators without, or in violation of, the certificate and training specifications required by this Schedule.

(c) The Authority will issue an applicant an AT0 certificate and training specifications if the applicant shows that the requirements of this Schedule have been met.

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9.020 APPLICATION FOR lSSUANCE OR AMENDMENT

(a) An applicant for an AT0 certificate and training specifications shall apply at least 120 calendar days before the beginning of any proposed training.

(b) Each applicant for an AT0 certificate and training specification shall provide the application to the Authority in the correct form.

(See Appendix I to 9.020 for application information to be provided to the Authonly.)

(c) An applicant for a certificate shall ensure that the facilities and equipment described in its application are - (1) available for inspection and evaluation prior to approval; and (2) in place and operational at the location of the proposed AT0 prior to issuance of a

certificate under this Schedule.

id) The Authority will issue to an applicant who meets the requirements and is approved by the Authority - (1) an AT0 certificate containing all business names included on the application under which

thecertificate holder may conduct operations and the address of each place of business used by the certificate holder; and

(2) training specifications, issued by the Authority to the certificate holder, containing - (i) authorization for the AT0 to function as a Level 1 FTU andlor Level 2 FTU or MTU; (ii) the type of training authorized, including approved courses; (iii) the category, class and type of aircraft that may be used for training. testing and

checking; (iv) for each flight simulator or flight training device, the make, model and series of

aeroplane or the set of aeroplanes being simulated and the qualification level assigned, or the make, model and series of rotorcraft or set of rotorcraft being simulated and the qualification level assigned;

(v) for each flight simulator and flight training device subjectto qualification evaluation by the Authority, the identification number assigned by the Authority;

(vi) the name and address of each satellite AT0 and the approved courses offered at each satellite ATO;

(vii) authorized deviations or waivers from this Schedule ; and (viii) any other items the Authority may require or allow.

(e) The Authority may deny, suspend, revoke or terminate a certificate under this Schedule if the Authority finds that the applicant or the certificate holder - (1) held an AT0 certificate that was revoked, suspended or terminated within the previous 5

years: (2) employs or proposes to employ a person who:

(i) was previously employed in a management or supervisory position by the holder of an AT0 certiicate that was revoked, suspended or terminated within the previous 5 years;

(ii) exercised control over any certificate holder whose certificate has been revoked, suspended or terminated within the last 5 years; or

(iii) contributed materially to the revocation, suspension or termination of that certificate and who will be employed in a management or supervisory position or who will be in control of or have substantial own&hip interest in the ATO; or

(3) has provided incomplete, inaccurate, fraudulent or false information for issuance of an AT0 certificate.

(f) At any time, the Authority may amend an AT0 certificate on the Authority's own initiative, under applicable Jamaica legislation or upon timely application by the certificate holder.



(g) The certificate holder shall file an application to amend an AT0 certificate at least 60 calendar days prior to the applicant's proposed effective amendment date unless a different filing period is approved by the Authority.

(h) The Authority may issue an AT0 certificate to an applicant - (1) for an AT0 inside or outside of Jamaica; and (2) whose business office, primary location, or both, are located inside or outside Jamaica.

(i) Each AT0 shall adhere to its approved curriculum.

(j) A certificate holder may not change its approved curriculum unless the change is approved by the Authority in advance.

(k) An applicant for and holder of an AT0 certificate shall show that - (1) for each proposed curriculum, each applicant for and holder of an AT0 certificate has, and

shall maintain, a sufficient number of instructors who meet the prescribed qualifications to perform the duties to which they are assigned;

(2) each applicant for, and holder of, an AT0 certificate shall meet the prescribed personnel requirements;

(I) . Each Level 1 or 2 FTU may apply to Ihe Authority for approval of DFTE authority to conduct required checks and tesls on graduation candidates upon training completion for any curriculum leading to airman licences or ratings, or both.

(m) Each FTU, as indicated, shall have and maintain at least the following management personnel, or their equivalent, who are quahfied and competent to perform their required duties:

(1) an Accountable Manager (Level 1 and 2 FTU); (2) a Chief Flight Instructor (CFI) (Level 1 and 2 FTU); (3) an Assistant Chief Flight lnstructor (NCFI) (Level 1 FTU); (4) a Quality Assurance Manager; and (5) a D~rector of Maintenance (Maintenance Manager), if the AT0 has an AMO. or

Maintenance Coordinator (Level 1 and 2 FTU).

(See Appendix 1 to 9.180 for the qualifications of a CFI.)

(See Appendix 1 to 9.185 for the qualifications of an NCFI.)

(See Appendix 1 to 12.130 for the qualifications of a Maintenance Coordinator and Maintenance Manager.)

(n) Each management representative and all personnel who are designated by the FTU to conduct and direct student training are able to understand, read, write and fluently speak English.

(0) Except for the Quality Assurance Manager, the persons listed in this Subsection may serve In '

more than one position for an ATO, provided that person is qualified for each position.

(a) The AT0 certificate shall consist of two documenls - (1) a certificate for public display signed by the Authority, and (2) training specifications containing the terms, conditions and authorisations applicable to the

AT0 certificate.

(b) The AT0 certificate shall contain - (1) the name and location (main place of business) of the ATO; (2) the date of issue and period of validity for each page issued; (3) the authorized locations of operations; (4) training specifications for the following categories, as applicable -

(i) pilot training; (ii) olher crewman training;

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(iii) other airman training; (iv) AME training; or (v) other training; and

(5) other authorizations, approvals and limitations issued by the Authority in accordance with . the standards which are applicable to the training conducted by the ATO.

(a) The Authority shall issue an AT0 certificate which expires, unless surrendered, suspended or revoked - (1) on the first day b f the 13th calendar month from the month the certificate was issued; (2) except as provided in paragraph (b) of this Subsection, on the date that any change in

ownership of the school occurs; (3) on the date of any significant change in the school's facilities occurs; or (4) upon notice by the Authority that the school has failed for more than 60 days to maintain

the required facilities, aircraft or personnel.

(b) A change in the ownership of an AT0 does not terminate that school's certificate if, within 30 days - (1) the certificate holder makes application for an appropriate amendment to the certificate;

and (2) no significant change in the facilities, operating personnel or approved training courses is

involved.

(c) If the Authority suspends, revokes or terminates a certificate issued under this Schedule, the holder of that certificate shall return the certificate to the Authority within five working days after being notified that the certificate is suspended, revoked or terminated.

(a) The Authority may issue deviations or waivers from any of the requirements of this Schedule

(b) An AT0 requesting a deviation or waiver under this section shall provide the Authority with information acceptable to the Authority that shows - (1) justification for the,deviation or waiver; and (2) that the deviation or waiver will not adversely affect the quality of instruction or evaluation.

9.045 ADVERTISING LIMITATIONS

(a) The AT0 may not - (1) make any statement relating to its AT0 certification and training specifications that IS false

or designed to mislead any person contemplating enrolment in that ATO. (2) advertise that the AT0 is certified unless it clearly differentiates between courses that

have been approved under this Schedule and those that have not been approved under this Schedule.

(b) An AT0 whose certificate has been surrendered, suspended, revoked or terminated shall promptly:

(1) remove all indications, including signs, wherever located, that the AT0 was certified by the Authority; and

(2) notify all advertising agents, and advertising media employed by the certificate holder to cease all advertising indicating that the AT0 is certified by the Authority.

(a) Each certificate holder shall provide facilities, equipment and material acceptable to the Authority and equal to the standards currently required for the issue of the certificate and rating that it holds.



(b) A certificate holder may not make a substantial change in facilities, equipment or material that have been approved for a particular curriculum, unless that change is approved by the Authority in advance.

(c) A certificate holder may not make any change in the AT03 location unless the change is approved by the Authority in advance. If the certificate holder desires to change the location of the ATO, the certificate holder shall notify the Authority, in writing, at least 30 days before the date the relocation. The Authority may prescribe the conditions under which the AT0 may operate whrle it is changing its location or housing facilities. If the certificate holder changes the location of the AT0 without notification, the certificate shall be revoked.

( d ) An applicant for, or holder of, a certificate issued under this Schedule shall establish and maintain a principal business office that is physically located at the address shown on its certificate.

(e) The principal business office may not be shared with, or used by, another person who holds an AT0 certificate.

(f) An applicant for, or holder of, a certificate issued under this Schedule shall ensure that - (1) each room, training booth or other space used for instructional purposes is heated, lighted

and ventilated to conform to local building, sanitation and health codes; and (2 ) the facilities used for instruction are not routinely subject to significant distractions caused

by flight operations and maintenance operations at the airport.

(g) Each certificate holder shall maintain the records required by this Schedule in facilities adequate for that purpose.

(h) An applicant'for, or holder of, an AT0 certificate with-approved AM€ courses shall have and maintain the following instructional equipment as is appropriate to the rating sought - (1) various kinds of airframe structures, airframe systems and components, powerplants and

powerplant systems and compor ents (including propellers), of a quantity and type suitable to complete the practical projects required by its approved curricula;

(2) at least one aircraft of a type acceptable to the Authority; and (3) the equipment required by this paragraph need not be in an airworthy condition, and if

damaged prior to use by the ATO, shall have been repaired enough for complete assembly.

(i) An applicant for, or holder of, an AT0 certificate with an AM€ rating shall have airframes. powerplants, propellers, appliances and components thereof, to be used for instruction and from which students will gain practical working experience, and shall insure that the airframes. powerplants, propellers, appliances and components thereof be sufficiently diversified as to show the different methods of construction, assembly, inspection and operation when installed in an aircraft for use.

(j) Each applicant for, or holder of, an AT0 certificate with an AM€ rating shall ensure that it maintains a sufficient number of units of the material described in paragraph (h) so that no more than eight students will work on any one unit at one time.

(k) Each applicant for, or holder of, an AT0 certificate with an AM€ rating using an aircraft for instructional purposes that does not have retractable landing gear and wing flaps, shall provide training aids, or operational mock-ups of the retractable landing gear and wing flaps which are acceptable to the Authority.

(I) An applicant for an AT0 certificate with an AM€ rating, or an applicant seeking an additional AM€ rating, shall have at least the facilities, equipment and materials appropriate to the rating sought.

(m) An 'applicant for, or holder of. an AT0 certificate with an AM€ rating shall maintain, on the premises and under the full control of the ATO, an adequate supply of material, special tools

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and shop equipment used in constructing and maintaining aircraft as is appropriate to the approved curriculum of the ATO, in order to assure that each student will be properly instructed

(n) An applicant for, or holder of, an AT0 certificate with an AME rating shall insure that the special tools and shop equipment required by paragraph (h) be in satisfactory working condition for instructional and practice purposes.

(See Appendix 1 to 9.050 for specific requirements for facilities for AME courses.)

9.053 TRAINING AND PROCEDURES MANUAL

(a) Each holder of an AT0 certificate shall provide a training and procedures manual for the use and guidance of the ATO's personnel.

(b) The training and procedures manual requ~red by this Subsection shall be amended as necessary to keep the mformat~on contained thereln up to date.

(See Appendix 1 to 9.053 for the contents of a trainrng and procedures manual.)

9.055 FTU EQUIPMENT AND COURSEWARE

(a) An applicant for, or holder of, a Level 2 FTU AT0 certificate shall have available exclusively, for adequate periods of time and at a location approved by the Authority, adequate flight training equipment and courseware, including at least one flight simulator or advanced flight training device.

(b) An applicant for, or holder of, an AT0 certificate that plans to conduct pilot flight training shall show that it has continuous use of a briefing area located at each airport at which training flights originate that is:

( I ) adequate to shelter students waiting to engage in their training flights; (2) arranged and equipped for the conduct of pilot briefings; and (3) for an AT0 with an instrument rating course or commercial pilot course, equipped with

adequate communication to sources of weather and flight planning information. -.-

9.060 Satellite ATOs

(a) The holder of an AT0 certificate may conduct training in accordance with a training programme approved by the Authority at a satellite AT0 if - ( I ) the facilities, equipment, personnel and course content of the satellite AT0 meet the

applicable requirements; (2) the instructors and evaluators at the satellite AT0 are under the direct supervision of

management personnel of the principal ATO; (3) the certificate holder notifies the Authority in writing that a particular satellite AT0 is to

begin operations at least 60 days prior to proposed commencement of operations at that satellite ATO; and

(4) the certificate holder's training specifications reflect the name and address of the satellite AT0 and the approved courses offered at the satellite ATO.

(b) The Authority will issue training specifications which prescribe the operations required and authorized at each satellite ATO.

9.063 QUALITY ASSURANCE SYSTEM

Each AT0 shall establish a quality assurance system acceptable to the Authority, which ensures that training and instructional practices comply with the requirements specified in this Schedule.

9.065 CHANGES REQUIRING NOTICE TO THE AUTHORITY

(a) Each AT0 shall notify the Authority within 30 days of any of the following changes - ( I ) the accountable manager; (2) the CFI;



(3) the NCFl; or (4) the housing, training facilities and equipment, procedures, curricula and work scope that

could affect the approval.

(b) The Authority may prescribe the conditions under which the AT0 may operate during such changes unless the Authority determines that the approval should be suspended.

9.070 INSPECTION (a) The Authority may, at any time, inspect an AT0 holder on the AT0 holder's premises to

determine the AT03 compliance with this Schedule.

(b) Inspections shall be repeated on a twelve month basis, which may be extended to a twenty- four month basis if, in the opinion of the Authority, the holder continues to meet the requirements under which it was originally certificated.

(c) After an inspection is made, the certificate holder shall be notified, in writing, of any deficiencies found during the inspection.

SUBPART C: ADMINISTRATION

9.075 RECORD KEEPING

(a) Each AT0 shall maintain a rkcord for each trainee that contains - the name of the trainee; a copy of the trainee's licence, if any, and medical certificate, if required; the name of the course and the make and model of flight training equipment used, if applicable; the trainee's prerequisite experience and course time completed; the date the student graduated, terminated training or transferred to another ATO; the trainee's performance on each lesson and the name of the instructor providing instruction; a current progress record for each trainee showing the practical projects or laboratory work completed or to be completed for each subject; the date and result of each knowledge test administered by the AT0 and end-of-course practical test and the name of the DFTE conducting the test(s); and the number of hours of additional training that was accomplished after any unsatisfactory practical test.

(b) Each AT0 shall maintain a record for each instructor designated to instruct a course approved in accordance with this Schedule that indicates that the instructor has complied with the applicable requirements of this Schedule.

(c) Each AT0 shall maintain records for each student who attempts a written or practical test for a lcence or rating that shows the following:

(1 ) the date of the test; (2) the type of test; and (3) the results of the test.

(d) Each AT0 shall - (1) maintain the records required by paragraph (a) and (c) of this Subsection for at least 2

years following the completion of training, testing or checking; (2) maintain the qualification records required by paragraph (b) of this Subsection while the

instructor or DFTE is in the employ of the certificate holder and for 2 years thereafter; and (3) maintain the recurrent demonstration of proficiency records required by paragraph (b) of

this Subsection for at least 2 years.

(e) Each AT0 shall provide the records required by this Subpart to the Authority upon request, within a reasonable time, and shall store and maintain the records required by -



( I ) paragraph (a) of this Subsection at the ATO, or satellite AT0 where the training, testing or checking if appropriate. occurred, or at another location acceptable to the Authority; and

(2) paragraph (b) of this Subsection at the AT0 or satellite AT0 where the instructor or DFTE is primarily employed, or at another location acceptable to the Authority.

(f) Each AT0 shall provide to a trainee upon request and at a reasonable time, a copy of his or her training records.

(g) Each AT0 shall keep a current record of each student enrolled, showing, if applicable - ( I) the instruction credited, if any; and (2) the authenticated transcript of grades from a training establishment previously attended.

(a) Each AT0 shall issue upon completion of training a graduation certificate to each student who completes its approved course of training.

(b) Each AT0 shall include in each graduation certificate - ( I ) the name of the AT0 and the certificate number of the ATO; (2) the name of the graduate to whom it was issued; (3) the approved curriculum title; (4) the date of graduation; . (5) a statement that the student has satisfactorily completed each required stage of the

approved course of training including the tests for those stages; (6) an authentication by an official of the ATO; and (7) a statement showing the cross-country flight training that the student received in the

course of training, if applicable.

(c) An AT0 may not issue a graduation certificate to a student, or recommend a student for a licence or rating, unless the student has - (1) completed the training specified in the approved course of training; and (2) passed the required final tests.

(a)' Upon request; each AT0 shall provide a transcript of a student's grades to each student who is graduated from that AT0 or who leaves, it before being graduated.

(b) Each AT0 shall include in the transcript required by paragraph (a) of this Subsection - ( I ) the curriculum in which the student was enrolled; (2) whether the student satisfactorily completed that curriculum; (3) the authentication by an official of the ATO.

SUBPART D: FLIGHT CREW TRAINING

Section I: General

(a) The Authority will issue AT0 certificates and training specifications for Level I or Level 2 FTUs that conduct pilot flight training courses.

(See Appendix 1 to 9.090 for general training programme requirements.)

(b) The Authority may approve the following courses of instruction to an applicant for, or holder of an FTU Level I AT0 certificate, provided the applicant meets the prescribed requirements: ( I ) licensing and rating courses -

(i) Private Pilot course; (Appendix 2 to 9.090) (ii) Commercial Pilot course; (Appendix 3 to 9.090) (iii) Instrument Rating course; (Appendix 4 to 9.090)



(iv) Airline Transport Pilot course; (Appendix 5 to 9.090) (v) Flight Instructor course; (Appendix 6 to 9.090) (vi) Flight lnstructor - Instrument Teaching course; (Appendix 7 to 9.090) (vii) additional aircraft category or class rating course. (Appendix 8 to 9.090) (viii) aircraft Type Rating course. (Appendix 9 to 9.090)

(2) special preparation courses. (Appendix 10 to 9.090) (i) pilot refresher course. (ii) Flight lnstructor refresher course.

(3) pilot ground school course. (Appendix I I to 9.090) (4) Flight Engineer course. (Appendix 12 to 9.090)

(c) The Authority may approve any course for licensing or for any rating requested by an applicant for, or holder of an FTU Level 2 AT0 certificate, provided the applicant can show an effective curriculum and for which the Authority has qualified the simulation media.

An applicant for, or holder of, an AT0 certificate may apply for approval to conduct a special course of airman training for which a curriculum is not prescribed by the Authority, if the applicant shows that the training course contains features that could achieve a level of pilot proficiency equivalent to that achieved by a training course prescribed in the requirements of the Eighth Schedule, as applicable.

9.095 REQUIREMENTS FOR AN FTU LEVEL 1 OR 2 AT0 CERTIFICATE

The Authority will issue to an applicant an FTU Level 1 or 2 AT0 certificate if the applicant meets the applicable requirements of this Subpart for the certificate sought. .

9.100 PROVI~IONAL FTU LEVEL 1 OR 2 AT0 CERTIFICATE

The Authority may issue to-an applicatitthat meetstheapplicable requirements of this Subpart, but does not meet the prescribed recent training activity requirements, a provisional FTU Level 1 or 2 AT0 certificate with ratings.

9.105 RENEWAL OF CERTIFICATES AND RATINGS

(a) A FTU may apply for renewal of its certificate and ratings within 30 days preceding the month the FTU's certificate expires, provided the FTU meets the requirements prescribed in paragraph (b) of this Subsection.

(b) The Authority will renew for an additional 12 calendar months an FTU AT0 certificate and ratings if the Authority determines.

(1) the FTU's personnel, aircraft, facilities, airport, approved training courses, training records ' and training ability and quality meet the requirements of this Schedule; and

(2) within 12 calendar months preceding the month of application, the FTU has trained and had, of the total written and practical tests administered, at least 80 percent of all applicants pass such tests on the first attempt.

SECTION 11: FLIGHT TRAINING EQUIPMENT REQUIREMENTS

9.110 APPLICABILITY

This section prescribes - (1) the personnel and aircraft requirements for an AT0 certificate; and (2) the facilities that an AT0 shall have available on a continuous basis.

Each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU AT0 certificate shall show that it has continuous use of each airport at which training flights originate and that the airport has an adequate runway and the necessary equipment.



(See Appendix 1 to 9.115 for specific runway and equipment requirements.)

9.120 . ARCRAFT REQUIREMENTS

(a) An applicant for, or holder of, an AT0 certificate shall ensure, for each aircraft used for flight instruction and solo flights: (1) . except for flight instruction and solo flights in a curriculum for agricultural aircraft

operations, external load operations and similar aerial work operations, that the aircraft has a Jamaica standard airworthiness certificate or a foreign equivalent of a Jamaica standard airworthiness certificate, acceptable to the Authority;

(2) that each aircraft is maintained and inspected in accordance with the requirements of the Fifth Schedule ; and

(3) that each aircraft is equipped as provided in the training specifications for the approved course for which it is used.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this Subsection, an applicant for, or holder of. an AT0 certificate shall ensure that each aircraft used for fliaht instruction is at least a two- lace aircraft with engine power, controls and flight controls that are easily reached and that ope;ate in a conventional nianner from both pilot stations.

(c) A certificate holder may use aeroplanes with controls such as nosewheel steering, switches. fuel selectors and engine air flow controls that are not easily reached or operated in a conventional manner by both pilots for flight instruction if the certificate holder determines that the flight instruction can be conducted in a safe manner considering the location of controls and their operation, or both.

(d) Each certificate holder shall ensure that each aircraft used in a course involving IFR operations is equipped and maintained for IFR operations.

(e) The Authority may approve aircraft with a restricted airworthiness certificate for use in special operations courses, if its use for training is not prohibited by the aircraft's operating limitations.

(a) An applicant for, or holder of, an AT0 certificate shall show that each flight simulator and flight training device used for training, testing and checking will be or is specifically qualified and approved by the Authority for - (1) each manoeuvre and procedure for the make, model and series of aircraft, set of aircraft

or aircraft type simulated, as applicable; and (2) each curriculum or training course in which the flight simulator or flight training device is

used, if that curriculum or course is used to satisfy any requirement of these regulations.

(b) An applicant for, and holder of, an FTU AT0 certificate shall show that each of its flight simulators and flight training devices - (1) represent the aircraft for which the course is approved; (2) is used only for training given by an authorized instructor; and (3) is not used for more than 25 percent of the total flight training hour requirements.

(c) Each certificate holder shall ensure, prior to use, that the approval required by this section includes:

(1) the set of aircraft or type aircraft; (2) if applicable, the particular variation within type for which the training, testing or checking

is being conducted; and (3) the particular manoeuvre, procedure or crewmember function to be performed.

(d) Each certificate holder shall ensure that each flight simulator or flight training device used by an AT0 is - (1) maintained to ensure the reliability of the performances, functions and all other

characteristics that were required for qualification;



(2) modified to conform with any modification to the aircraft being simulated if the modification results in changes to performance, function or other characteristics required for qualification; '

(3) given a functional preflight check each day before being used; and (4) provided with a discrepancy log in which the instructor or evaluator enters each

discrepancy at the end of each training session.

(e) Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, each certificate holder shall ensure that each component on a flight simulator or flight training device used by an AT0 is operative if the component is essential to, or involved in, the training, testing or checking of airmen.

(f) The Authority will not restrict AT0 instructors or students to specific - (1) route segments during line-oriented flight training scenarios; or (2) visual data bases replicating a specific customer's bases of operation.

(g) An applicant for. or holder of, an AT0 certificate may request evaluation, qualification and continuing evaluation for qualification of flight simulators and flight training devices without:

(1) holding an air carrier certificate; or (2) having a specific relationship to an air carrier certificate holder.

SECTION 111: CURRICULUM AND SYLLABUS REQUIREMENTS

This Section prescribes the curriculum and syllabus requirements for the issuance of an AT0 certificate and training specifications for training, testing and checking conducted to meet the requirements of the Eighth Schedule.

(a) Each applicant for, or holder of, an AT0 certificate shall apply to the Authority for training programme approval.

(b) Each applicant for training programme approval shall indicate in the application: (1) which courses are part of the core curriculum and which courses are part of the speciality

curriculum; (2) which requirements of the Eighth Schedule would be satisfied by the curriculum or

curricula; and (3) which requirements of the Eighth Schedule would not be satisfied by the curriculum or

curricula.

(c) After a certificate holder begins operations under an approved training programme, the Authority may require the certificate holder to make revisions to that training programme if the Authority finds that the certificate holder is not meeting the provisions of its approved training programme.

(d) If the Authority requires an AT0 certificate holder to make revisions to an approved training programme and the certificate holder does not make those required revisions within 30 calendar days, the Authority may suspend, revoke or terminate the AT0 certificate.

Each applicant shall ensure that each training programme curriculum submitted to the Authority for approval meets the applicable requirements and contains -

(1) a svllabus for each D ~ O D O S ~ ~ curriculum: . , . (2) minimum aircraft and hght training equipment requirements for each proposed curriculum;' (3) minimum instructor aualifications for each D ~ O D O S ~ ~ curriculum: (4) a curriculum for initial training and continuing iraining of each instructor employed to

instruct in a proposed curriculum;

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(5) for each curriculum that provides for the issuance of a licence or rating in fewer than the minimum hours prescribed by the Eighth Schedule:

(i) a means of demonstrating the ability to accomplish such training in the reduced number of hours; and

(ii) a means of tracking student performance.

Section IV: Personnel Requirements

This section prescribes the personnel and flight training equipment requirements for a certificate holder that is training to meet the requirements of the Eighth Schedule.

9.155 FTU INSTRUCTOR ELlGlElLln REQUIREMENTS

(a) A certificate holder may not employ a person as an instructor in a flight training course that is subject to approval by the Authority unless that person - '

(1) is at least 18 years of age; (2) Is able to read, write, speak and understand the English language; (3) meets the following requirements, as appropriate -

(i) If instructing a student for the purposes of receiving a Private Pilot Licence. Commercial Pilot Licence. Night Rating or Instrument Rating, holds a Flight Instructor rating; and

(ii) If instructing a student for the purposes of receiving a Type Rating or Multi-Engine rating holds:

(A) a Flight Instructor rating and the appropriate rating for the training given (Type or Multi-Engine); or

(6) an Airline Transport Pilot Licence with the appropriate rating for the training given (Type or Multi-Engine), and has received the training specified in Subsections 9.165 (b)(2) arid (3) or (4), as appropriate.

(b) An AT0 shall designate each instructor in writing for each approved course, prior to that person functioning as an instructor in that course.

9.160 FTU INSTRUCTOR PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

(a) An AT0 may allow an instructor to provide - (1) instruction for each curriculum for which that instructor is qualified; (2) testing, other than for the issuance of a.licence or rating, and evaluating student progress

for which that instructor is qualified and approved; and (3) instruction intended to satisfy the requirements of this Schedule.

(b) An AT0 whose instructor is designated by the Authority to conduct testing for licensing purposes, may allow its instructor to give endorsements required by the Eighth Schedule provided that person is authorized to do so in hisher designation.

(c) An ATO.may not allow an instructor to - ( 1 conduct more than 9 hours of instruction in any 24 consecutive-hour period, or more than

45 hours in any 7 consecutive-day period. This restriction applies to ground training, flight training or a combination of both, but excludes flight briefings and debriefings; or

(2) provide flight instruction in an aircraft unless that instructor: (i) meets the prescribed requirements; (ii) holds a Flight Instructor rating with the endorsements required for the instruction

being given; (iii) holds pilot licences and ratings applicable to the category, class and type aircraft in

which instructing; and (iv) meek the currency requirements of the Tenth Schedule.

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9.165 FTU lNSTRUCTOR TRAINING AN0 TESTING REQUIREMENTS

(a) Each instructor with a Flight lnstructor rating shall meet the requirements of the Eighth Schedule, Subpart F. Section VI with respect to initial issue and renewal of that rating.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this Subsection, prior to designation, a certificate holder shall ensure that each of its instructors meets the following requirements - (1) each flight instructor, who does not have a Flight lnstructor rating, and each ground

instructor shall satisfactorily demonstrate to the certificate holder, knowledge of, and proficiency in, instructing in a representative segment of each curriculum for which that instructor is designated;

(2) each instructor who does not have a Flight lnstructor rating shall satisfactorily complete an approved course of ground instruction;

(3) each instructor shall receive initial and annual recurrent training appropriate to hislher assigned tasks and responsibilities. The training programme shall include training in knowledge and skills related to human performance.

(4) each instructor who instructs in a flight.simulator or flight training device shall satisfactorily complete an approved course of training in the operation of the flight simulator applicable to the training courses the instructor is designated to instruct;

(5) each flight instructor who provides training in an aircraft shall satisfactorily complete an approved course of ground instruction and flight training in an aircraft, which shall include - (i) performance and analysis of flight training procedures and manoeuvres applicable

to the training courses that the instructor is designated to instruct; (ii) technical subjects covering aircraft subsystems and operating rules applicable to the

training courses that the instructor is designated to instruct; (iii) emergency operations;

-

(iv) emergency situations likely to develop during training; and (v) appropriate safety measures.

(c) In meeting the requirements of paragraph (b)(l) of this Subsection, a certificate holder may conduct the test or check during the course of an actual lesson.

(d) Each instructor who does not have a Flight lnstructor rating or is not employed by an AOC holder, and who instructs in flight training equipment, shall pass a knowledge test and a flight proficiency check conducted by the CFI every 24 months - (1) in the flight training equipment in which the instructor will be instructing; and (2) on the subject matter and manoeuvres of a representative segment of each curriculum for

which the instructor will be instructing.

(e) The Authority will consider completion of any test or check required by paragraph (a). (b) or (d) of this Subsection taken in the calendar month before or after the month in which it is due as taken in the month in which it was due for the purpose of computing when the next training is due.

(f) The Authority may give credit for the requirements of paragraph (a) or (b) of this Subsection to an instructor who has satisfactorily completed an instructor training course for a Twelfth Schedule certificate holder if the Authority finds such a course equivalent to the requirements of paragraph (a) or (b) of this Subsection.

(See Appendix 1 to 9.165 specific testing and training requirements for a Level 2 FTU instructor.)

9.175 FTU PERSONNEL

(a) Each applicant for, and holder of, a FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall have adequate personnel, including management personnel, ground school instructors and rated flight instructors who are qualified and competent to perform the duties assigned in each approved training course and who are acceptable to the Authority.

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(b) Each applicant for, and holder of, a FTU Level 2 AT0 certificate shall have adequate personnel. including management personnel, ground school instructors and flight instructors who are qualified and competent to perform the duties assigned in each approved training course and who are acceptable to the Authority.

9.180 FTU CHIEF FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR QUALIFICATIONS

To be designated as a CFI for a FTU, a person shall meet the requirements prescribed by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 9.180 for CFI qualification requirements)

9.185 FTU ASSISTANT CHIEF FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR QUALIFICATIONS

If an AlCFl is required for a FTU ATO, that person shall meet the requirements prescribed by the Authority.

(See Appendix 9.185 for NCFI qualification requirements.)

9.190 DFTE QUALIFICATIONS

DFTEs delegated by the Authority may conduct flight checks for licensing purposes and shall meet the requirements prescribed by the Authority.

(See DFTE Manual for DFTE requirements.)

9.195 LEVEL 1 FTU FLIGHT TRAINING PROVISIONS

(a) No person other than a Flight lnstructor who has the ratings and the minimumqualifications specified in the approved training course outline may give a student flight training under an approved course of training.

(b) No FTU may authorize a student pilot to start a solo flight until the flight has been approved by an authorized instructor who is present at the origination.

(c) Each CFI and AlCFl assigned to a training course shall maintain hislher Flight lnstructor rating in accordance with the requirements specified in theEighth Schedule.

(d) Each flight instructor who is assigned to a flight training course shall, prior to receiving authorization to train students in flight. satisfactorily accomplish with the FTU's CFI - (1) a review of and a briefing on the objectives and standards of that training course; and (2) an initial proficiency check in each make and model of aircraft used in that training course

in which that person provides training.

9.198 LEVEL 2 FTU FLIGHT TRAINING PROVISIONS

(a) No person other than an instructor who has the ratings and the minimum qualifications specified in the approved training course outline may give a student flight training under an approved course of training.

(b) Each flight instructor who is assigned to a flight training course shall, prior to receiving authorization to train students in flight, satisfactorily accomplish with the FTU's CFI - (1) a review of and a briefing on the objectives and standards of that training course; and (2) an initial proficiency check in each make and model of aircraft used in that training course

in which that person provides training.

9.200 FTU INSTRUCTOR GROUND TRAINING

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this Subsection, each instructor who is assigned to a ground training course shall hold a flight instructor rating with the appropriate rating(s) for that course of training.

(b) A person who does not meet the requirements of paragraph (a) of this Subsection may be assigned ground training duties in a ground training course, t

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(1) the CFI finds the person is otherwise qualified to give that training and meets the ground school instructor requirements specified in Subsection 9.165; and

(2) the instructor serves under the supervision of the CFI or the NCFI, who is present at the , place where the training is given, for the instructor's first course. Thereafter, if approved, the instructor may conduct the course without supervision. An instructor may not be used in a ground training course until that instructor has been briefed in regard to the objectives and standards of that course by the CFI or NCFI.

9.205 LEVEL 1 FTU CHIEF FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR RESPONSIBILITIES

During training, each Level 1 FTU shall ensure that the CFI or an NCFI is available - (1) At the FTU facility; or (2) By telephone, radio or other electronic means.

Section V: Operating Rules

This section prescribes the operating rules applicable to a certified AT0 and operating a course or training programme curriculum approved in accordance with this Schedule.

(a) An FTU Level 2 AT0 certificate holder may allow flight-simulator instructors to meet recency of experience requirements through the use of a flight simulator or flight training device if that flight simulator or flight training device Is used in an approved course.

(b) The holder of an AT0 certificate may advertise and conduct approved pilot training courses in accordance with the certificate and any ratings that it holds.

(c) A Level 1 FTU may credit towards the curriculum requirements of a course, previous training and pilot experience and knowledge, provided the student meets the prescribed requirements.

(See Appendix 1 to 9.21 5 for specific transfer credit requirements.)

9.220 LIMITATIONS - AT0 (a) Each AT0 shall -

(1) ensure that a flight simulator's or flight training device's freeze, slow motion or repositioning feature is not used during testing or checking; and

(2) ensure that a repositioning feature is used during line operational simulation for evaluation and line-oriented flight training only to advance along a flight route to the point where the descent and approach phase of the flight begins.

(b) When practical testing. flight checking or line operational simulation is being conducted, the Level 2 FTU shall ensure that one of the following occupies each supporting crewmember position - (1) a crewmember qualified as SIC in the aircraft category and class, provided that no flight

instructor who is giving instruction may occupy a crewmember position; and (2) a student, provided that no student may be used in a crewmember position with any other (2) student not in the same specific course.

(c) Maintenance of Personnel. Facilities and Equipment. The holder of an AT0 certificate may not provide training to a student who is enrolled in an approved course of training unless each airport, all flight training equipment and each authorized instructor continuously meets the . r

requirements and the standards specified in the certificate holder's training specifications.

(d) A certified AT0 may not require any student to attend classes of instruction more-than 8 hours in any day or more than 40 hours in any consecutive 7-day period.



9.225 LIMITATIONS: ENROLLED STUDENTS IN ACTUAL FLIGHT CURRICULA Each student pilot shall carry the following items on each aircraft used for flight training and solo flights in addition to other documents required by regulations:

( I ) a pre-takeoff and pre-landing checklist; and (2) the operator's handbook or AFM for the aircraft if one is furnished by the manufacturer or , copies of the operator's handbook must be available to each student using the aircraft.

9.230 LEVEL 1 E ~ O L M E N T DOCUMENTS

(a) The holder of an FTU Level I AT0 certificate shall furnish each student upon enrolment with a copy of the following - ( I ) a ceti~ficate of enrolment containing :

(i) the name of the course in which the student is e'nrolled; and (ii) the date of that enrolment;

(2) a copy of the student's training syllabus; '

(3) for pilot students, a copy of the safety procedures and practices that describe:

(i) the use of facilities and the operation of its aircraft; (ii) the weather minimums required by the school for dual and solo flights; (iii) the procedures for starting and taxiing aircraft on the ramp; (iv) fire precautions and procedures; (v) redispatch procedures after unprogrammed landings, on and off airports; (vi) aircraft discrepancies and deferrals; (vii) securing of aircraft when not in use; (viii) fuel reserves necessary for local and cross-country flights; (ix) avoidance of other aircraft in flight and on the ground; (x) minimum altitude limitations and simulated emergency landing instructions; , (xi) a description of and instructions regarding the use of assigned practice areas; and

(4) the holder of an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall maintain a monthly listing of persons enrolled in each training course offered by the ATO.

(b) Each Level I FTU applicant shall ensure that each training course for which it seeks approval meets the minimum curriculum requirements.

(See Appendix I to 9.230 for Level I training course contents.)

SUBPART E: AIRMEN OTHER THAN FLIGHT CREW

Sectlon I: Airmen Other Than Pilots or Aircraft Maintenance Engineers

(a) This Subpart provides an alternative means to accomplish flight training required by the Eighth and Ninth Schedules.

(b) certification under this Subpart is not required for training that is - ( I ) approved under the provisions of the Eleventh. Twelfth or Fourteenth Schedules; and (2) conducted under the Eighth Schedule, unless that Schedule requires certification under .

this Schedule.

9.240 . OTHER TRAINING COURSES (a) The Authority may approve the following courses of instruction to an applicant for, or holder of

an AT0 certificate, provided the applicant meels the applicable requirements for: ( I ) operational Control Person; (2) flight engineer; (3) flight attendants;

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(4) material handlers; (5) ground servicing personnel; (6) load controllers; (7) security personnel; or (8) others approved by the Authority.

(b) The Authority will approve a course for which the application is made if the ATO, or AT0 applicant, shows that the course contains a curriculum that will ach~eve a level of competency equal to or greater than that required by the applicable Schedules of these Regulations.

(See Appendix 5 to 9.090 for Flight Engineer training course requirements.)

9.245 APPLICATION, DURATION AND RENEWAL

(a) Application. An AT0 proposing to train Operational Control Persons shall submit an application containing - (1) instruction in the areas of knowledge and topics: . (2) a minimum of 200 total course hours; and (3) an outline of the major topics and subtopics to be covered and the number of hours

proposed for each.

(b) Duration and renewal.

(1) the authority to operate an aircrafl Operational Control Person licensing course expires thf first day of the 13'~ month following issuance of the authority; and

(2) the holder of an approval for an aircrafl Operational Control Person licensing course shall apply to the Authority for renewal within 30 days prior to the expiration date.

(c) Instruction.

(1) the holder of a course approval shall ensure that it maintains an adequate number of instructors who maintain a 12 calendar-month average of at least 80 percent of the graduates of that school passing the practical test on the first attempt.

(See Appendix 1 to 9.250 for course approval requirements.)

Section II: AME Training Courses

This subpart prescribes the requirements for the establishment of training courses for persons wishing to apply for Aircrafl Maintenance Engineer (AME) Licences.

Two types of courses require the approval of the Authority in order to meet the AMELicensing requirements detailed in the Eighth Schedule - A. These are Basic Aircrafl Maintenance training courses and Aircrafl Type endorsement courses:

(1) a Basic Aircrafl Maintenance training course provides instruction on the theory of flight, methods of propulsion, description and operation of aircrafl and powerplant systems. aircrafl construction and repairs, aircrafl handling, inspection procedures and maintenance procedures. A general listing of the major topicscan be found in Subsection 9.260.

(2) an Aircrafl and Powerplant Type endorsement course provides specific and indepth information on a particular aircrafl type. Instruction covers the aircrafl, its powerplants. systems, structure, troubleshooting and maintenance procedures, including engine ground running and system performance checks. The training given is to the ATA 104 Level Ill standard and satisfactory completion of this course allows the attendee to apply to sit the examination for the Type Rating on that aircrafl as specified in the Eighth Schedule. Subsection 8.535.

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The major topics that must be included in an aircraft training course in order for that course to be approved include the following:

(I) Basic Aircraft Maintenance training course topics:

(1) (ii) (iii)

(iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii) (ix) (XI (xi) (xii) (xiii) (xiv)

(xv) ( xvi ) (xvii) (xviii) (xix) (xx) (xxi) (xxii) (xxiii) (xxiv) (xxv) (xxvi)

mathematics; aircraft drawings; mass and balance; fuels and fuel systems; fluid lines and fittings; aircraft hardware, materials and processes; physics; theory of flight; Flight controls; rotorcraft; gliders and balloons; basicelectricity; aircraft generators and motors; inspection fundamentals; ground handling, safety and support equipment; hand tools and measuring devices; aircraft structures; assembly and rigging; aircraft fabric covering; aircraft painting and finishing; aircraft structural repairs; aircraft welding; ice and rain protection; hydraulic and pneumatic power systems; landing gear systems; fire protection systems;

(xxvii) oxygen systems; (xxviii) aircraft electrical systems; (xxix) aircraft instrument systems; (xxx) communications and navigation systems; (xxxi) radar, radio altimeter, collision avoidance and ground proximity systems; (xxxii) aircraft cabin environmental control systems; (xxxiii) water and waste systems; (xxxiv) theory and construction of aircraft engines; (xxxv) induction and exhaust systems; (xxxvi) engine fuel and fuel metering systems; (xxxvii) engine ignition and electrical systems; (xxxviii) engine starting systems; (xxxix) lubrication and cooling systems; (XI) propellers; (xli) engine removal and replacement; (xlii) engine fire protection systems; and (xliii) engine maintenance and operation.

(2) The major topics that must be included in an Aircraft Type Endorsement course include;

(i) aircraft dimensions, servicing and ground handling; (ii) jacking, levelling and weighing; (iii) compartments and equipment location; (iv) air conditioning system;



(v) communications systems; (vi) auto flight and flight management; (vii) navigation systems; (viii) electrical system; (ix) equipment and furnishings; (x) fire protection; (xi) flight controls; (xii) fuel system; (xiii) hydraulic and pneumatic system; (xiv) ice protection system; (xv) instruments; (xvi) landing gear system; (xvii) lights - interior, exterior and warning; (xviii) navigation systems; (xix) oxygen systems; (xx) water and waste systems; (xxi) auxiliary power unit; (xxii) structures and doors; (xxiii) wing, vertical fin and stabilizers; (xxiv) engine - structure and components; (xxv) engine fuel system; (xxvi) engine oil system; (xxvii) air bleed system; (xxviii) engine fire protection; (xxix) engine controls; (xxx) exhaust system and thrust reverser; (xxxi) engine starting system; (xxxii) engine ground running; (xxxiii) aircraft systems operational checks and troubleshooting; and (xxxiv) emergency procedures.

9.265 AME T RAINING PROGRAMME PROVIDERS

(a) An AME training course may be provided by an air operator, a maintenance organization or a dedicated training organization, but must first be approved by the Authority in order for students to obtain credit for the course.

(b) A lype endorsement training course must be provided by a manufacturer, a training organization approved by the manufacturer or an air operator using a manufacturer's course as the baseline. In each case, the course must first be approved by the Authority.

9.270 INSTRUCTOR REQUIREMENTS

lnstktors delivering an AME training course must have received training as instructors and must produce documentary evidence to the Authority, when requested to do so. that they are so qualified. An AME may be used to teach parts of the course where his experience and training in the specific areas can be demonstrated to the authority to be acceptable.

(a) In order to obtain credit for attendance at an aircraft maintenance training course, a student is required to miss no more than 5% of the total hours approved for the course.

(b) In extenuating circumstances, and provided that the student achieves 80% or better in the examinations, a student may apply to the Authority to obtain credit if through no fault of hisher own up to a maximum of 10% of the hours have been missed.

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(c) With the approval of the Authority, credit for prior trainmg or instruction may be granted, provided that acceptable documentary evidence of such training is provided to the Authority. Each case will be assessed on its own merits and the Authority reserves the right to refuse any or all prior training that was not previously approved by the Authority.

APPENDICES

APPENDIX 1 TO 9.020: APPLICATION FOR AT0 CERTIFICATE

Each applicant for an A T 0 certificate and training specification shall provide to the Authority the following information -

( I ) a statement showing that the minimum qualification requirements for each management position are met or exceeded;

(2) a statement acknowledging that the applicant must notify the Authority within 10 working days of any change made in the assignment of persons in the required management positions;

(3) ihe proposed training specifications requested by the applicant; (4) the proposed evaluation authorization; (5) a d&c;iption of the flight training equipment that the applicant proposes to use; (6) a description of the applicant's training facilities, equipment and qualifications of personnel

to be used; (7) a training programme curriculum, including syllabi, outlines, courseware, procedures and

documentation to support the required items; (8) a description of a recordkeeping system that will identify and document the details of

1. training, and qualification of students and instructors; and (9) a description of quality control measures proposed.

APPENDIX 1 . ~ 0 9.050: FACILITIES FOR AM€ COURSES

An applicant for, and holder of, an AT0 certificate shall have facilities the Authority determines are appropriate for the maximum number of students expected to be taught at any time, as follows -

an enclosed classroom; suitable facilities arranged to assure proper separation from the working space, for parts. tools, materials, and similar articles; suitable area for application of finishing materials, including paint spraying; suitable areas equipped with washtank and degreasing equipment with air pressure or other adequate cleaning equipment; suitable facilities for running engines; suitable area with adequate equipment, including benches, tables, and test equipment, to disassemble, service, and inspect:

(i) ignition systems, electrical equipment, and appliances; (ii) carburettors and fuel systems; and (iii) hydraulic and vacuum systems for aircraft, aircraft engines, and their appliances;

and suitable space with adequate equipment, including tables, benches, stands, and jacks for disassembling, inspecting and rigging aircraft. suitable space with adequate equipment for disassembling, inspecting, assembling. troubleshooting, and timing engines.

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APPENDIX 1 TO 9.053: CONTENTS OF ATRAINING AND PROCEDURES MANUAL

The training and procedures manual may be issued in separate parts and shall contain at least the following information:

(1) a general description of the scope of training authorized under the ATO' (2) the content of the training programmes offered, including the courseware and equipment

to be used; (3) a description of the ATO's quality assurance system; (4) a description of the ATO's facitlies; (5) the name, duties and qualification of the Chief Flight Instructor; (6) the name, duties and qualification of the Quality Assurance Manager; (7) a description of the method used for the completion and retention of the training records

for each student and flight instructors; (8) a description of the training programme for students and instructors; and (9) where a Designated Flight Test Examiner has been appointed by the Authority, a

description of the training programme established by the AT0 to prepare that person for hislher role.

APPENDIX 1 TO 9.090: TRAINING PROGRAMME - GENERAL

(a) Each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU AT0 certificate shall ensure that each training course contains - (1 ) a description of each flight simulator or flight training device used for training; (2) a listing of the airports at which training flights originate and a description of the facilities.

including pilot briefing areas that are available for use by the ATO's students and personnel at each of those airports;

(3) a description of the type of aircraft including any special equipment used for each phase of training;

(4) the minimum qualifications and'ratings for each instructor assigned to ground or flight training; and

(5) a training syllabus that includes-

(i) the prerequisites for enrolling in the ground and flight portion of the course that include the pilot licence and rating (if required by this Schedule), training, pilot experience and pilot knowledge;

(ii) a detailed description of each lesson, including the lesson's objectives, standards and planned time for completion;

(iii) course learning objectives; (iv) stage learning objectives and standards; and (v) a description of the checks and tests to be used to measure learning after each

stage of training.

(b) A Level 1 FTU may - (1) include training in a flight simulator or flight training device, provided it is representative of

the aircraft for which the course is approved, meets the requirements of this paragraph and the training is given by an authorized instructor; and

(2) permit a student to credit training in a flight simulator that meets the requirements for a maximum of 25 percent of the total flight training hour requirements of the approved ccurse.

APPENDIX 2 TO 9.090: PRIVATE PILOT LICENSING COURSE

(a) Applicability. This Appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a private pilot licensing course with the following ratings - (1 ) aeroplane single-engine; (2) aeroplane multi-engine; (3) rotorcraft helicopter; (4) rotorcraft gyroplane;

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(5) powered-lift; (6) glider; (7) lighter-than-air airship; and (8) lighter-than-air balloon.

(b) Eligibility for enrolment. A person shall hold a student pilot licence prior to enrolling in the flight portion of the private pilot licensing course.

(c) Aeronautical knowledge training.

(1) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each approved course includes at least the following hours of ground training on the following aeronautical knowledge areas, appropriate tothe aircraft category and class rating:

(i) 40 hours for an aeroplane, rotorcraft or powered-lift category rating; (ii) 15 hours for a glider category rating; (iii) 10 hours for a lighter-than-air category with a balloon class rating; and (iv) 35 hours for a lighter-than-air category with an airship class rating.

(2) ground training shall include the aeronautical knowledge areas specified in the Eighth Schedule. Subsection 8.190.

(d) Flight training.

(1) each applicant for, and holder of, an AT0 certificate with this rating shall include at least the hours of flight training specified in the Eighth Schedule, Subsections 8.195 and 8.205 on the areas of operation listed in paragraphs (d) (2) and (3) of this Appendix, appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating.

(2) each approved course shall include flight training in the following areas of operation that are applicable to the aircraft category and class rating - (i) preflight preparation; (ii) preflight procedures; (iii) airport and seaplane base operations; (iv) takeoffs, landings, and go-arounds; (v) performance manoeuvres;

. . . . . . . (vi) ground reference .. manoeuvres;. ,. . . . ' (vii) navigation; "

(viii) slow flight and stalls; (ix) basic instrument manoeuvres; (x) emergency operations; (xi) night operations; and (xii) postflight procedures.

(3) in addition, for the specific category and class of aircraft shown, each approved course shall include the applicable flight training in the following areas of operation:

(i) for a multiengine aeroplane course - (A) multiengine operations.

(ii) for a rotorcraft helicopter course - (A) hovering manoeuvres and autorotations to power recovery and full-on.

(iii) for a rotorcraft gyroplane course - (A) flight at slow airspeeds.

(iv) for a powered-lift course - (A) hovering manoeuvres.

(v) for a glider course - (A) launchesltows, as appropriate and landings;



(B) performance speeds; and (C) soaringtechniques.

(vi) for a lighter-than-air balloon course - (A) launches and landings

(e) Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (1) each student, to graduate from a private pilot course shall satisfactorily accomplish the

stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the applicable areas of operation listed in paragraphs (d) (2) and (3) for the aircraft category and class rating.

(2) each student shall demonstrate satisfactory proficiency prior to being endorsed to operate an aircraft in solo flight.

APPENDIX 3 TO 9.090: COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENSING COURSE

(a) Applicability. This Appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a commercial pilot licensing course required under this Schedule, for the followingratings -

aeroplane single-engine; aeroplane multi-engine; rotorcraft helicopter; rotorcraft gyroplane; powered-lift; glider; lighter-than-air airship; or lighter-than-air balloon.

(b) Eligibility for enrolment. Prior to enrolling in the flight portion of the commercial pilot licensing course an applicant shall have:

(1) at least a Private Pilot ~icencel and (2) have reached his eighteenth birthday.

(c) Aeronautical knowledge training

(1) each applicant for, and holder of, an ATU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course includes at least the following ground training on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (2) - (i) 40 hours for an aeroplane category rating, powered-lift category rating or a lighter-

than-air category with an airship class rating; (ii) 40 hours for a rotorcrafl category rating; (iii) 20 hours for a glider category rating; or (iv) 20 hours for a lighter-than-air category with a balloon class rating.

(2) ground training shall include the aeronautical knowledge areas specified in the Eighth Schedule , Subsection 8.230.


(1) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course includes at least the following flight training on the applicable areas of operation listed in paragraphs (3) and (4) - (i) 155 hours for an aeroplane, powered-lifl or an airship rating; (ii) 105 hours for a rotorcrafl rating; (iii) 6 hours for a glider rating; or (iv) 10 hours and 8 training flights for a balloon rating.

(2) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level I AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course includes at least the flight training specified in the Eighth Schedule, Subsections 8.235 and 8.240.

(3) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course includes the flight training on the following areas of operation, as applicable:

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(i) for an aeroplane single-engine course - (A) preflight preparation; (B) preflight procedures; (C) airport and seaplane base operations; (D) takeoffs, landings and go-arounds; (E) performance manoeuvres; (F) navigation; (G) slow flight and stalls: (H) emergency operations; (I) high-altitude operations; and (J) postflight procedures.

(4) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course for the following category and class ratings includes flight training on the applicable areas of operation as set out below, and as found in the appropriate Flight Test Guide:

(i) for an aeroplane multiengine course

(A) multiengine operations

(ii) for a rotorcraft helicopter course - (A) hovering manoeuvres; (B) flight manoeuvres; (C) emergency procedures to include full-on and power recovery autorotations; and (D) special operations.

(iii) for a rotorcraft gyroplane course - (A) flight at slow airspeeds.

(iv) for a powered-lift course - (A) hovering manoeuvres; and (8) special operations.

(v) for a glider course - (A) launchesltows, as appropriate and landings; and (B) soaring techniques.

(vi) for a lighter-than-air airship course - (A) fundamentals of instructing; (B) technical subjects; and (C) preflight lessons on a manoeuvre to be performed in flight.

(vii) for a lighter-than-air balloon course - (A) fundamentals of instructing; (B) technical subjects; (C) preflight lesson on a manoeuvre to be performed in fl~ght; and (D) launches and landings.

(e) Stage checks and end-of-course tests.

(1) each student to graduate from a commercial pilot course shall satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests consisting of the applicable areas of operation listed in paragraphs (d) (3) and (4).

(2) each student shall demonstrate satisfactory proficiency prior to being endorsed to operate an aircraft in solo flight.

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APPENDIX 4 TO 9.090: INSTRUMENT RATING (IR) COURSE

(a) Applicability. This Appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for an instrument rating course' and additional instrument rating course required under this Schedule for the following ratings - (1) Instrument - Aeroplane; (2) Instrument - Helicopter; and (3) Instrument - Powered-lift.

(b) Eligibility for enrolment. A person shall hold at least a Private Pilot Licence with an aircraft category and class rating appropriate to the IR for which the course applies prior to enrolling in the flight portion of the instrument rating course.


(1) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each approved course inch~des at least the following hours of ground training on the aeronautical knowledge areas appropriate to the IR sought - (i) 30 hours for an IR rating; or (ii) 20 hours for an additional IR.

(2) ground training shall include the aeronautical knowledge areas specified in the Eighth Schedule. Subsection 8.145.

(d) Flight Training.

(1) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course includes at least the following hours of flight training on the applicable areas of operation listed in paragraph (3) and the appropriate Flight Test Guide -

(i) 40 hours for an initial IR of which not more than 20 hours may be instrument ground time; or

(ii) 30 hours for an additional IR of which not more than 15 hours may be instrument ground time.

(2) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course includes the flight training specified in the Eighth Schedule, Subsection 8.145.

(3) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificateshall ensure that each course includes the flight training on the applicable greas of operation listed in this paragraph appropriate to the instrument aircraft category and class rating - (i) preflight preparation; (ii) preflight procedures; (iii) air traffic control clearances and procedures; (iv) flight by reference to instruments; (v) navigation systems; (vi) instrument approach procedures; (vii) emergency operetions; and (viii) postflight procedures.


(1) hach student, to graduate from an IR course shall satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the areas of operation listed in paragraph (d) (3) that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating.

Appendix 5 to 9.090: Airline Transport Pilot Licensing Course

(a) Applicability. This Appendix prescr~bes the minimum curriculum for an airline transport pilot licensing course under this Schedule, for the following ratings: (1) aeroplane multi-engine; (2) helicopter multi-engine; or



(b) Eligibility for enrolment. Prior to enrolling in the flight portion of the airline transport pilot licensing course, a person shall -

, (1) meet the aeronautical experience requirements prescribed in the Eighth Schedule for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence that is appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies;

(2) hold at least a Commercial Pilot Licence and an IR appropriate to the category and class for which the course applies or be enrolled in an IR course simultaneously with the airline transport licensing course; or

(3) meet the military experience requirements to qualify for a Commercial Pilot Licence and an IR, if the person is a rated military pilot or former rated military pilot of the Jamaica Defence Force.

(c) Aeronautical knowledge areas.

(1) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course includes at least 40 hours of ground training on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (d).

(2) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU AT0 certificate shall ensure that ground training includes the aeronautical knowledge areas specified in the Eighth Schedule , Subsection 8.265.


(1) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course includes flight training and experience specified in the Eighth Schedule. Subsections 8.270 and 8.275 on the applicable areas of operation listed in paragraph (2).

(2) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course includes flight training on the following areas of operation, as'applicable:

(i) preflight preparation; (ii) preflight procedures; (iii) takeoff and departure phase; (iv) in-flight manoeuvres; (v) instrument procedures; (vi) landings and approaches to landings; (vii) normal and abnormal procedures; (viii) emergency procedures; and (ix) postflight procedures.

(e) Stage checks and end-of-course tests. (1) each student, to graduate from an airline transport pilot course shall satisfactorily

accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the areas of operation listed in paragraph (d) that are appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for

' which the course applies.

APPENDIX 6 TO 9.090: CLASS 2 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR RATING COURSE

(a) Applicability. This Appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a Class 2 flight instructor rating course and an additional flight instructor rating course required under this Schedule, for the following ratings - (1 ) aeroplane single-engine; (2) aeroplane multiengine; (3) rotorcraft helicopter; (4) rotorcraft gyroplane; (5) powered-lift; or (6) Glider category.

(b) Eligibility for enrolment. A person shall hold the following prior to enrolling in the flight portion of the Class 2 flight instructor or additional flight instructor rating course -



(1 ) a Commercial Pilot Licence or an Airline Transport Pilot Licence with an aircraft category and class rating appropriate to the Flight lnstructor rating for which the course applies; and

(2) an IR in an aircraft that is appropriate to the aircraft category and class rating for whch the course applies, if the course is for a Flight lnstructor - Instrument rating.


each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course includes at least the following ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (d) (3) -

(i) 40 hours of training if the course is for an initial issuance of an Class 2 Flight lnstructor rating; or

(ii) 20 hours of training if the course is for an additional flight instructor rating.

each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that ground training includes the following aeronautical knowledge areas, in addition to those specified in the Eighth Schedule, Subsection 8.310 - (i) the fundamentals of instructing, including:

(A) the learning process; . (6) elements of effective teaching;

(C) student evaluation and testing; (D) course development; (E) lesson planning; and (F) classroom training techniques.

a Level 1 FTU may credit a student who satisfactorily completes 2 years of study on the principles of education at a college or university with no more than 20 hours of the training required in paragraph (c) (1).


(1 ) each applicant for, and holder of. an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course includes flight training on the applicable areas of operation of paragraphs (d) (2) and (d) (3) and that the applicant meets the hourly requirements set out in the Eighth Schedule . Subsection 8.315.

(2) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each' course includes flight training on the areas of operation set out in the Eighth Schedule , Subsection 8.31 5, as applicable for each category and class.

(3) for the category and class of aircraft shown below, each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course includes flight training in the following areas of operation, as applicable and in accordance with the appropriate Flight Test Guide:

(i) for an aeroplane: multi-engine course - (A) multi-engine operations.

(ii) for a rotorcraft: helicopter course - (A) hovering manoeuvres; and (6) special operations to include emergencies and full-on autorotations.

(iii) for a rotorcraft: gyroplane course - (A) flight at slow airspeeds

(iv) for a powered-lift course - (A) hovering manoeuvres; (8) transition to wing-borne flight; (C) transition to hover; and (D) special operations.

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(v) for a glider course:

(A) launches, landings, and go-arounds; (B) performance speeds; and (C) soaring techniques.


(1) each student,'to graduate from a flight instructor course shall satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the applicable areas of operation listed in paragraph (d) of this Appendix and the appropriate Flight Test Guide.

(2) a student enrolled in a Flight Instructor-Aeroplane rating or Flight Instructor-Glider rating course shall have - (i) received a logbook endorsement from a Flight Instructor-Aeroplane certifying the

student received ground and flight training on stall awareness, spin entry; spins and spin recovery procedures in an aircraft that is certified for spins and that is appropriate b t h e rating sought; and

(ii) demonstrated instructional proficiency in stall awareness, spin entry, spins and spin recovery procedures.

(3) a student enrolled in a Flight Instructor-Helicopter rating shall have - (i) received a logbook endorsement from a Flight Instructor-Helicopter certifying that

the student received ground and flight training on full-on autorotations and anti- torque failures.

(ii) demonstrated instructional proficiency in full-on autorotations and anti-torque failures.

Appendix 7 to 9.090: Flight lnstructor lnstrument Teaching Course.

(a) Applicability. This Appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a flight instructor instrument teaching course required under this Schedule, for the following endorsements - (1) Flight lnstructor lnstrument Instruction - Aeroplane; (2) Flight lnstructor lnstrument Instruction - Helicopter; and (3) Flight lnstructor lnstrument Instruction - Powered-lift aircraft.

(b) Eligibility for enrolment. A pilot shall hold, prior to enrolling in the flight portion of the course:

(1) a Commercial Pilot Licence or Airline Transport Pilot Licence with a category and class instructor rating appropriate to the rating sought; and

(2) for Commercial Pilot Licence holders, also, an IR that is appropriate to the rating sought. (c) Aeronautical knowledge training.

(1) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level I AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course includes at least 15 hours of ground training on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areas listed in paragraph (c) (2).

(2) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course includes ground training on the following aeronautical knowledge areas - (i) the fundamentals of instructing including:

(A) learning process; (6) elements of effective teaching; (C) student evaluation and testing; (0) course development; (E) lesson planning; and (F) classroom training techniques.

(in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for the IR that is appropriate to the category and class of aircraft.

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(1) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course includes at least 5 hours of flight training in the applicable areas of operation of paragraph (b).

(2) each applicant for, and holder of. an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course for the Flight Instructor-Instrument teaching endorsement includes flight training on the following areas of operation in paragraph (2) - (i) fundamentals of instructing; (ii) technical subject areas; (iii) preflight preparation; (iv) preflight lesson on a manoeuvre to be performed in flight: (v) air traffic control clearances and procedures: . . (vi) flight by reference to instruments; (vii) navigation systems; (viii) instrument approach procedures; (ix) emergency operations; and (x) postflight procedures.

(e) Stage checks and end-ofcourse tests

(1) each student, to graduate from a flight instructor instrument teaching course shall satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the applicable areas of operation listed in paragraph (d).

Appendix 8 to 9.090: Additional Aircraft Category or Class Rating Course

Applicability. This Appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for an additional aircraft category rating course or an additional aircraft class rating course required under this Schedule, for the following ratings - (1 ) aeroplane single-engine; (2) aeroplane multiengine; (3) rotorcraft helicopter; (4) rotorcraft gyroplane; (5) powered-lift; (6) glider; (7) lighter-than-air airship; and (8) lighter-than-air balloon.

Eligibility for enrolment. A person shall hold the level of pilot licence for the additional aircraft category and class rating for which the course applies prior to enrolling in the flight portion of an additional aircraft category or additional aircraft class rating course.

Aeronautical knowledge training. Each applicant for, and holder of. an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course for an additional category rating and additional class rating includes the total number of hours of training in all the aeronautic& knowledge areas appropriate to the aircraft rating and pilot licence level sought and as set out in the Eighth Schedule (if applicable).

Fliaht trainina. Each applicant for. and holder of. an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each c o k e for an additional aircraft category rating or additional aircraft class includes the total number of hours of fliaht trainina on all of the areas of operation appropriate to the aircraft rating and pilot licence !evil for which the course applies and as set out in the Eighth Schedule (if applicable).

Stage checks and end-ofcourse tests.

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(1) each student to graduate from an addit~onal aircraft category rating course or an additional aircraft class rating course shall satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the applicable areas of operation in this appendix; and

(2) each student shall demonstrate satisfactory proficiency prior to being endorsed to operate an a~rcraft in solo flight

(a) Applicability. This Appendix prescribes the minimum FTU curriculum for an aircraft type rating course for - ,

(1) a type rating in an aeroplane category: single-engine class; (2) a type rating in an aeroplane category: multi-engine class; (3) a type rating in a rotorcraft category: helicopter class; (4) a type rating in a powered-lift category; or (5) other aircraft type ratings specified by the Authority through the aircraft type certificate

procedures.

(b) Eligibility for enrolment.

. . . (1) prior to enrolling in the flight portion of an aircraft type rating course a person shall hold at least a Private Pilot Licence with a minimum of 200 hours flight time in the aircraft category for which the rating is sought.


(1) eachapplicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course includes at least the number of hours of ground training on the applicable aeronautical knowledge areaslisted in paragraph (2) and the Eighth Schedule. Subsection 8.1 60 (3).

(2) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU AT0 certificate shall ensure that ground training includes the following aeronautical areas - (i) subjects requiring a practical knowledge of the aircraft type and its powerplant,

systems, components and operational and performance factors; (ii) the aircraft's normal, abnormal and emergency procedures. and the operations and

limitations relating thereto; (iii) . appropriate provisions of the approved aircraft's flight manual; (iv)- location of and purpose of inspecting each item on the aircraft's checklist that relate

to the exterior and interior preflight; and (v) use of the aircraft's prestart checklist, appropriate control system checks, starting

procedures, radio and electronic equipment checks and the selection of proper navigation and communication radio facilities and frequencies.


(1) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each course includes at least: . .

(i) flight training on the applicable areas of operation of paragraph (2) in the aircraft type for which the course applies as approved by the Authority.

(2) each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall ensure that each type rating course includes the flight training on the following areas of operation - (i) preflight preparation; (ii) preflight procedures; (iii) takeoff and departure phase; (iv) in-flight manoeuvres; (v) instrument procedures; (vi) landings and approaches to landings; (vii) normal and abnormal procedures;

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(viii) emergency procedures; and (ix) postflight procedures.

(e) Stage checks and end-of-course tests: Each student, to graduate from an aircraft type rating course shall satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the applicable areas of operation for the airline transport pilot licence.

APPENDIX 10 TO 9.090: SPECIAL PREPARATION COURSES

(a) Applicability. This Appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for certain special' preparation courses.

(b) Eligibility for enrolment. Prior to enrolling in the flight portion of a special preparation course, a person shall hold a pilot licence, or Flight Instructor rating that is appropriate for the exercise of the operating privileges or authorizations sought.

(c) General requirements

(1) to be approved, an applicant for a special preparation course shall present to the Authority a proposal that -

(i) meets the appropriate requirements of this Appendix; (ii) Prepares the graduate with the necessary skills, competency and proficiency to

exercise safely the privileges of the certificate, rating or authorizdtion for which the course is established; and

(iii) Includes ground and flight training on the operating privileges or authorization sought.

(d) Stage check and end-of-course tests. (1) each person, to graduate from a special preparation course shall satisfactorily accomplish

the stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the areas of operation that are appropriate to the operating privileges or authorization sought, and for which the course applies.

(e) Pilot refresher course.

( I ) each applicant for, and holder of, a special preparation pilot refresher course for a pilot licence, aircraft category and class rating or an IR shall include at least the following:

(i) 5 hours of aeronautical knowledge training on:

(A) the aeronautical knowledge areas that are applicable to the level of pilot licence, category rating, class rating, or instrument rating sought;

(B) safe piloting operating practices and procedures; and (C) applicable provisions of the Eighth and Ninth Schedules.

(ii) 4 hours of flight training on the areas of'operation that are applicable to the level of pilot licence, aircraft category and class rating or instrument rating, as appropriate. for performing PIC duties and responsibilities.

(f) Flight Instructor refresher course.

( I ) each applicant for, and holder of, a special preparation flight instructor refresher course shall include at least 20 hours of aeronautical knowledge training and 2 hours of flight training on the following:

(i) aeronautical knowledge training on:

(A) the aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to student, private and commercial pilot licences and instrument ratings; (B) the aeronautical knowledge areas that apply to the flight instructor rating; (C) safe piloting operating practices and procedures, including airport operations and operating in the Jamaica Airspace System; and (D) applicable provisions of the Eighth and Ninth Schedules.

(ii) flight training, to review:

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(A) the areas of operations applicable to student, private and commercial pilot licences and instrument ratings; and (B) the skills, competency and proficiency for performing flight instructor duties and responsibilities.

(a) Applicability. This Appendix prescribes the minimum curriculum for a pilot ground school course.

(b) General requirements. Each applicant for, and holder of, an approved training course for a pilot ground school shall include training on the aeronautical knowledge areas that are:

(1) needed to safely exercise the privileges of the certificate, rating or authorization for which the course is established; and

(2) conducted to develop competency, proficiency, resourcefulness, self-confidence and self-reliance in each student.

(c) Aeronautical knowledge training requirements. Each applicant for, and holder of, an approved pilot ground school course shall include:

(1) the aeronautical knowledge training that is appropriate to the aircraft rating and pilot licence level for which the course applies; and

(2) an adequate number of total aeronautical knowledge training hours appropriate to the aircraft rating and pilot licence level for which the course applies.

(d) Stage checks and end-of-course tests. Each person, to graduate from a pilot ground school course shall satisfactorily accomplish the stage checks and end-of-course tests, consisting of the areas of operation that are appropriate to the operating privileges or authorisation that graduation from the course will permit.

(a) Each flight engineer training course holder shall comply with the following:

(1) training course outline:

(i) format. An applicant shall prepare separate course outlines for each type of aeroplane;

(ii) ground course outline; (iii) the Authority will accept any arrangement of subjects if all the subject material listed

here is included and at least the minimum programmed hours are assigned to each subject;

(iv) i f any flight engineer training course holder desires to include additional subjects in the ground course curriculum, the hours allotted these additional subjects may not be included in the minimum programmed classroom hours; and

(v) all subjects, except Theory o f Flight and Aerodynamics and Regulations, shall apply to the same type of aeroplane in which the flight engineer training course holder presents training.



Civil Aviation Regulations - Theory of Flight and Aerodynamics Aeroplane Familiarization, to include. as applicable:

Engine Familiarization, to include, as applicable:

Normal Operations (Ground and Flight), to include, as appropriate

Emergency Operations, to include

Total (exclusive of final tests)

Specifications Construction features Flight controls Hydraulic systems Pneumatic systenls Electrical systems Anti-icing and de-icing systems Pressurization and air-conditioning systems Vacuum systems Pilot static systems Instrument systems Fuel and oil systems Emergency equipment Specifications Construction features Lubrication Ignition Fuel systems Accessories Propellers Instrumentation Emergency equipment Servicing methods and procedures Operation of all the aeroplane systems Operation of all the engine systems Loading and center of gravity computations Cruise control (normal, long range, maximum endurance) Power and fuel computation Meteorology as applicable to engine operation

Landing gear, brakes, flaps, speed brakes, and leading edge devices Pressurization and air-conditioning Portable fire extinguishers Fuselage fire and smoke control Loss of electrical power Engine fire control Engine shut-down and restart Oxygen

-- Classroom Hours i n

(2) flight course outline:

(i) the flight training curriculum shall include at least 10 hours of flight instruction in an aeroplane. A student may not credit the flight time requ~red for the practical test as part of the required flight instruction.

(ii) the flight engineer training course holder shall present all of the flight training in the same type aircrafl.

(iii) as appropriate to the aircraft type, the flight engineer trainmg course holder shall teach the following subjects in the flight training course:



Normal Duties. Procedures And Operations

Malfunctions

Emergency Operations In Flight

~b ject Area To include as ao~rooriate- , . ,

Aeroplane preflight. Engine starting, power checks, pretakeoff, postlanding and shut-down procedures. Power control. Temperature control. Engine operation analysis. Operation of all systems. Fuel management. Loabook entries. ~r&urization and air conditioning. Analysis of abnormal engine operation. Analysis of abnormal operation of all systems. corrective action. Enaine fire control. '

~ u i e l a ~ e fire control. Smoke control. Loss of power or pressure in each system. Engine overspeed. Fuel dumping. Landing gear, spoilers, speed brakes, and flap extension and retraction. Engme shut-down and restart. Use of oxygen.

(iv) the Authority may allow the AT0 to teach the flight training-time in a flight simulator. (v) to obtain credit for flight training time in a flight simulator, the student shall occupy

the flight engineer station and operate the controls.

(b) Revisions. Each flight engineer training course holder shall request revisions of the course outlines, facilities or equipment by following the procedures for original approval of the course

(c) Ground school credits,

(1) a flight engineer training course holder may grant credit to a student in the ground school course for comparable previous training or experience that the student can show by written ev~dence;

(2) a flight engineer training course holder shall meet the quahty of instruction described in this Appendix;

(3) before granting credit for previous training or experience, the flight engineer training course holder shall ensure that the student passes a test given by the flight engineer training course holder on the subject for which the credit is to be given; and

(4) the flight engineer training course holder shall incorporate results of the test, the bass for credit allowance and the hours credited as part of the student's records.

(d) Records and reports.

(1) the flight engineer training course holder shall maintain for at least two years after a student graduates, fails or drops from a course, a record of the student's'training, including a chronological log of the subject course, attendance examinations and grades.

(2) except as provided in paragraph (3), the flight engineer training course holder shall submit to the Authority, not later than January 31 of each year, a report for the previous calendar year's training, to include - (i) name, enrolment and graduation date of each student; (ii) ground school hours and grades of each student; (iii) flight and flight simulator hours and grades of each student; and



(iv) names of students who failed, withdrew or had their training ceased, together wlth their school grades and reasons for withdrawing or having their training ceased.

(3) upon request, the Authority may waive the reporting requirements of subparagraph (2) of this paragraph for an approved fl~ght engineer course that IS part of an approved training course under the Twelfth Schedule.

(e) Quality of instruction

the Authority shall revoke approval of a flight engineer training course holder's ground course whenever less than 80 percent of the students pass the Authority knowledge test on the first attempt. the Authority shall revoke approval of a flight engineer training course holder's flight course whenever less than 80 percent of the student's pass the Authority practical test on the first attempt. notwithstanding paragraphs ( I ) and (2), the Authority may allow continued approval of a ground or flight course when the Authority finds - (i) that the failure rate was based on less than a representative number of students; or (ii) that the flight engineer training course holder has taken satisfactory means to

improve the effectiveness of the training.

(f) Time limitation. Each student shall apply for the written test and the flight test within 90 days after completing the ground school course.

(g) Statement of course completion each flight engineer training course holder shall give to each student who successfully completes an approved flight engineer ground school training course and passes the Authority knowledge test, a statement of successful completion of the course that indicates the date of training, the type of aeroplane on which the ground course training was based and the number of hours received in the ground school course. each flight engineer training course holder shall give each student who successfully completes an approved flight engineer flight course and passed the Authority practical test, a s9tement of successful completion of the flight course that indicates the dates of the training, the type of aeroplane used in the flight course and the number of hours received in the flight course. a flight engineer training course holder who is approved to conduct both the ground course and the flight course may include both courses in a single statement of course completion if the provisions of paragraphs ( I ) and (2) of this Subsection are included. the requirements of this paragraph do not apply to an AOC holder with an approved training course under the Twelfth Schedule , providing the student receives a Flight Engineer Licence upon completion of that course.

(h) Duration. Except for a course operated as part of an approved training course under of the Twelfth Schedule, the approval to operate a flight engineer ground course or flight course . terminates 24 months after the last day of the month of issue.

~ P E N O I X 1 TO 9.1 15: AIRPORT REQUIREMENTS

Each applicant for, and holder of, an FTU Level 1 AT0 certificate shall show that the airport at which training flights originate has the following.

(1) at least one runway or takeoff area that allows training aircraft to make a normal takeoff and landing at the aircraft's maximum certified takeoff gross weight under the following conditions:

(i) wind not more than 5 knots; ( i~ ) temperatures equal to the mean high temperature for the hottest month of the year

in the operating area; (iii) if applicable. with the powerplant operation, and landing gear and flap operat~on

recommended by the manufacturer; and

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(iv) in the case of a takeoff: (A) with smooth transition from liftoff to the best rate of climb speed without exceptional piloting skills or techniques; and (B) clearing all obstacles in the takeoff flight path by at least 50 feet.

(2) a wind direction indicator that is visible from the end of each runway at ground level; and (3) permanent runway lights if that airport is to be used for night training flights.

APPENDIX 1TO 9.165: LEVEL 2 FTU INSTRUCTOR TRAINING AND TESTING REQUIREMENTS

(a) Prior to initial designation, each flight and simulator flight instructor shall complete the following requirements - (1) complete at least 10 hours of ground training on the following subject matter

(i) instruction methods and techniques; (ii) training policies and procedures; (iii) the fundamental principles of the learning process; (iv) elements of effective teaching, instruction methods and techniques; (v) the fundamental principles of the learning process; (vi) instructor duties, privileges, responsibilities, and limitations; (vii) proper operation of simulation controls and systems; (viii) proper operation of environmental control and warning or caution panels; (ix) limitations of simulation; (x) minimum equipment requirements for each curriculum; (xi) revisions to the training courses; (xii) student evaluation; and (xiii) crew resource management and crew co-ordination.

(2) satisfactorily complete a knowledge test - (i) on the subjects specified in paragraph (a) (1); and (ii) that is accepted by the Authority as being of equivalent difficulty, complexity and

scope as the tests provided by the Authority for the flight instructor and instrument flight instructor knowledge tests.

(b) Each certificate holder shall ensure that each instructor who instructs in a flight simulator that the Authority has approved for all training and all testing for the airline transport pilot licensing test, aircraft Type Rating test or both and has met at least one of the following requirements - (1) each instructor shall have performed 2 hours in flight, including three takeoffs and

three landings as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft of the same category and class, and, if a type rating is required, of the same type replicated by the approved flight simulator in which that instructor is designated to instruct; or

(2) each instructor shall have participated in an approved line-observation programme, that:

(i) was accomplished in the same aeroplane type as the aeroplane represented by the flight simulator in which that instructor is designatedto instruct; and

(ii) included line-oriented flight training of at least 1 hour of flight during which the instructor was the sole manipulator of the controls in a flight simulator that replicated the same type aircraft for which that instructor is designated to instruct.

(a) Each FTU shall designate a CFI for a flight training course who shall meet the following requirements-

(1) hold a Commercial or higher Pilot Licence and except for a CFI for a training course Solely for a lighter-than-air rating, a current Flight Instructor rating with appropriate aircraft category, class and instrument ratings for the category and class of aircraft used in the course;

(2) meet the prescribed PIC recent flight experience requirements; and



(3) pass a knowledge test on: (i) teaching methods; (ii) applicable provisions of the Jamaica-provided aeroriautical information publications; (iii) applicable provisions of the Seventh. Eighth and Ninth Schedules; and

.. (iv) the objectives and approved course completion standards of the course for which the person seeks to obtain designation;

(4) pass a proficiency test on instructional skills and ability to train students on the flight procedures and manoeuvres appropriate to the course.

(b) Except for a training course for gliders, balloons or airships, the CFI shall meet the applicable requirements in paragraphs (c), (d) and (e).

(c) For a training course for a Private Pilot Licence or a rating, a CFI shall have--

(1) at least.1,000 hours as PIC; and (2) primary flight training experience as a Flight lnstructor or an.instructor in a military pilot

flight training programme or a combination thereof, consisting of at least 2 years and at least 500 hours of light instruction.

(d) For a training course for an IR, a CFI shall have - (1) at least 100 hours of flight time under actual or simulated instrument conditions; (2) at least 1,000 hours as PIC; and (3) Instrument flight instructor experience as a Flight Instructor-Instrument or an instructor in a

military pilot flight training programme, or a combination thereof, consisting of at least:

(i) 2 years and a total of 500 flight hours; or (ii) 400 flight hours of instrument flight instruction.

(e) For a training course for other than a Private Pilot Licence or rating, or an IR, a CFI shall have: ( I ) at least 2,000 hours as PIC; and (2) flight training experience as a Flight lnstructor or an instructor in a military pilot flight

training programme, or a combination thereof, consisting of at least 3 years and a total of 1.000 flight hours.

(f) A CFI for a training course for gliders or balloons is required to have only 40 percent of the hours required in paragraphs (c) and (e).

(g) A CFI for a training course for airships is required to have only 40 percent of the hours required in paragraphs (c), (d), and (e).

APPENDIX I TO 9.185: LEVEL 1 FTU ASSISTANT CHIEF FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR QUALIFICATIONS

(a) To be eligible for designation as an NCFI, a person shall meet the following requirements. ( I ) hold a Commercial or higher Pilot Licence and. except for the NCFI for a training course

for a lighter-than-air rating, a current Flight lnstructor rating with appropriate aircraft category, class and IR.for the category and class of aircraft used in the course;

(2) meet the PIC recent flight experience requirements; .(3) pass a proficiency test on the flight procedures and manoeuvres appropriate to that

course; and (4) meet the applicable requirements in paragraphs (b), (c), and (d). except that an NCFI for

a training course for gliders, balloons or airships is required to have only 40 percent of the hours required in paragraphs (b) and (c).

(b) For a training course for a private pilot licence or rating, an NCFI shall have - ( I ) at least 500 hours as PIC; and (2) flight training experience as a licensed Flight lnstructor or an instructor in a military pilot

flight training programme, or a combination thereof, consisting of at least I year and a total of 250 flight hours.

(c) For a training course for an IR, an NCFI shall have -



( I ) at least 50 hours of flight time under actual or simulated instrument conditions; (2) at least 500 hours as PIC; and (3) instrument flight instructor experience as a Flight Instructor-Instrument or an instructor in a

military pilot flight training programme or a combination thereof, consisting of at least 1 year and a total of 125 flight hours;

(d) For a training course other than for a Private Pilot Licence or rating, or an IR, an NCFI'S~~II have - (I.) at least 1,000 hours as PIC; and (2) flight training experience as a licensed flight instructor or an instructor in a military pilot

flight training programme, or a combination thereof, consisting of at least 1 W years and a total of 500 flight hours; and

(e) To be eligible for designation as an NCFl for a ground school course, a person shall have 6 months of experience as a ground school instructor at a certified FTU Level 1 ATO.

(a) A Level 1 FTU receiving a student from another Level 1 FTU may credit that pilot's previous experience towards the curriculum requirements of a course subject to the following conditions-

( I ) if the credit is based upon the prescribed requirements of this Schedule, the gaining FTU may credit that student not more than 50 percent of the curriculum requirements; and

(2) if the credit is not based upon this Schedule, the gaining FTU may credit that student not more than 25 percent of the curriculum requirements.

(Note: The receiving FTU shall determine the amount of course credit to be credited under paragraph (1) or paragraph (2), based on a proficiency test or knowledge test, or both, of the student.)

(b) The receiving FTU may grant credit for training specified in paragraph (a) ( I ) or paragraph (2) only if the previous provider of the training has certified the kind and amount of training provided, and the result of each stage check and end-of-course test, if applicable, was given to the student.

(c) An AME training course holder may evaluate and grant credit for an entrant's previous training provided:

(1) the AME training course holder determines that the training is verifiable and comparable to portions of the training programme.

(2) the individual requesting credit passes an examination given by the AME training course holder, which is equivalent to those examinations given by the AME training course holder for the same subject in the training programme.

APPENDIX 1 TO 9.260: AME AIRFRAME AND/OR POWERPLANT RATING

(a) Curriculum Requirements

(1) Section A - General Curriculum Subjects. [Reserved] (2) Section B - Airframe Curriculum Subiects. [Reservedl , , (3) Section C - Powerplant Curriculum Subjects. [Reserved]


SUBPART A: 10.001 10.005 10.010

SUBPART B: 10.015 10.017 10.020 10.022 10.030 10.035 10.040 10.045 10.050 10.051 10.055

SUBPART C: 10.060 10.062 10.065 10.066 10.068 10.070 10.075 10.080 10.082 10.085 10.086 10.087 10.090 10.100 10.101 10.102 10.105 10.110 10.115 10.120 10.125 10.130 10.135 10.140 10.145 10.146 10.147 10.148

SUBPART D: 10.150 10.155 10.160 10.165 10.170


TENTH SCHEDULE (Regulations 21,44,45, 51- 59,66,67)

OPERATIONS OF AIRCRAFT

GENERAL Applicability Definitions Acronyms

AIRCRAFT REQUIREMENTS Registration Markings Operation of Foreign Registered Aircraft in Jamaica Civil Aircraft Airworthiness Flight Permit Operational Restrictions Aircraft Instruments and Equipment Inoperative lnstruments and Equipment Civil Aircraft Flight Manual, Marking and Placard Requirements Required Aircraft and Equipment Inspections Documents to be Carried on Aircraft: All Operations Additional Documents Applicable to International Flights Additional Document Requirements: Commercial Air Transport

FLIGHT CREW REQUIREMENTS Composition of the Flight Crew Airman: Limitations on Use of Services Flight Crew Licences Required Notification of Change of Address to Licence Radio Operator Licence Medical Certificate Required Flight Crew Qualifications Category, Class and Type Rating Required When Aircraft Type Rating is Required Instrument Rating Required Night Rating Required Special Authorization Required for Category 111111 Operations Additional Training Requirements For Flight Crewmembers Pilot Logbooks Contents of Pilot Logbook Logging of Flight Time and Training Pilot Currency Pilot Currency: IFR Operations Validity Periods Additional Commercial Air Transport Qualifications Pilot Privileges and Limitations Airline Transport Pilot Privileges Commercial Pilot Privileges Private Pilot Privileges and Limitations: Required Crewmember Student Pilot - General Limitations Student Pilot Solo Flight Limitations Flight Instructor Privileges and Limitations light Engineer privileges and Limitations

CREWMEMBER DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES Authority and Responsibility of the PIC Designation of PIC for Commercial Air Transport Compliance with Local Regulations Negligent or Reckless Operations of the Aircraft Fitness of Flight Crewmembers



Use of Narcotics. Drugs or Intoxicating Liquor Crewmember Language Ability Crewmember Use of Seat Belts and Shoulder Harnesses Flight Crewmembers at Duty Stations Required Crewmember Equipment Required Corrective Lenses Compliance with Checklists Search and Rescue Information Production of Aircraft and Flight Documentation Locking of Flight Deck Compartment Door: Commercial Air Transport Admission to the Flight Deck: Commercial Air Transport Use of Flight Deck Jump Seats and Cabin Attendant Seats Admission of Inspector to the Flight Deck Duties During Critiwl Phases of Flight: Commercial Air Transport Flight Deck Communications Manipulation of the Controls: Commercial Air Transport Simulated Abnormal Situations in Flight: Commercial Air Transport Responsibility for Required Documents Completion of Aircraft Logbooks: All Operations Reporting Mechanical Irregularities Reporting of Facility and Navigation Air Inadequacies Reporting of Hazardous Conditions ~ e ' ~ o r t i n ~ of Incidents Accident Notification Operation of Flight Deck Voice and Flight Data Recorders Crewmember Oxygen: Minimum Supply and Use Portable Electronic Devices Carriaae of Danaerous Goods

SUBPART E: ALL PASSENGER CARRYING OPERATIONS 10.285 Appliwbihty 10.287 Unacceptable Conduct 10.290 Refuelling with Passengers on Board 10.295 Passenger Seats. Safety Belts and Shoulder Harnesses 10.300 Passenger Briefing 10.301 Crewmember Briefing 10.305 In-flight Emergency Instruction 10.310 Passenger Oxygen: Minimum Supply and Use 10.315 Alcohol or Drugs 10.316 Emergency Equipment: Interference With Aircraft Equipment 10.317 Stowage of Waste in Lavatories

SUBPART F: FLIGHT PLANS 10.325 Submission of a Flight Plan 10.330 Air Traffic Control Flight Plan: Commercial Air Transport 10.335 Contents of a Flight Plan 10.340 Planned Reclearance 10.345 Changes to a Flight Plan 10.350 Closing a Flight Plan

SUBPART G: FLIGHT PLANNING AND PREPARATION 10.355 Arcraft Airworthiness and Safety Precautions 10.360 Adequacy of Operating Facilities 10.362 Selection of VFR Landmarks 10.365 Weather Reports and Forecasts 10.370 Weather Limitations for VFR Flights 10.375 IFR Destination Aerodromes 10.380 IFR Destination Alternate Requirement 10.385 IFR Alternate Aerodrome Selection Criteria

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10.390 10.395 10.400 10.405 10.410 10.415 10.420 10.425 10.430 10.435 10.440 10.445 10.450

SUBPART H: 10.470 10.471 10.472 10.475 10.478 10.480 10.481 10.482 10.484 10.485 10.487 10.490 10.493 10.495 10 500 10.505 10.507 10.510 10.515 10.520 10.525 10.530 10.535 10.540 10.545 10.550 10.555 10.560 10.565 10.570 10 575 10.577 10.580 10.585 10.587 10.590 10.595 10.600

SUBPART l 10 605 10.610 10.615

Off-Shore Alternates for Helicopter Operations Takeoff Alternate Aerodromes: Commercial Air Transport Operations Maximum Distance from an Adequate Aerodrome Without an ETOPS Approval Extended Range Operations with Twin-Engined Aeroplanes Enroute Alternate Aerodromes: ETOPS Operations Fuel. Oil and Oxygen Planning and Contingency Factors Minimum Fuel Supply for VFR Flights Minimum Fuel Supply for IFR Flights Aircraft Loading. Mass and Balance Aircraft Performance and Operating Limitations Flight Release Required: Commercial Air Transpor Operational Flight Plan: Commercial Air Transport Flight Planning Document Distribution and Retention: Commercial Air Transport

FLIGHT RULES FOR ALL OPERATIONS Applicability Airspace Structure Airspace Classification and Operating Rules Compliance with Local Regulations Operation of Aircraft on the Ground Night Operations Single Pilot Operations in IFR andlor at Night Pre-Takeoff Inspections Takeoff and Landing Takeoff Conditions Noise Abatement Flight into Known or Expected Icing Aircraft Operating Limitations Altimeter Settings Minimum Safe Altitudes: General Minimum Safe VFR Altitudes: Commercial Air Transport Operations Maximum Airspeeds lnstrument Approach Operating Minima Diversion Decision Operating Near Other Aircraft Right-of-way Rules: Except Water Operations Right-of-way Rules: Water Operations Use of Aircraft Lights Simulated lnstrument Flight lnflight Simulation: Commercial Air Transport Dropping. Spraying, Towing Aerobatic Flight Flight Test Areas Prohibited Areas and Restricted Areas Operations in MNPS or RVSM Airspace Operations on or in the Vicinity of an Uncontrolled Aerodrome Operations In Certain Airspace Aerodrome Traffic Pattern Altitudes: Turbojet, Turbofan or Large Aircraft Compliance with Visual and Electronic Glide Slopes Stabilized Final Approach Restriction or Suspension of Operations: Commercial Air Transport Continuation of Flight - Commercial Air Transport Interception

OPERATIONS IN CONTROLLED FLIGHT ATC Clearances Adherence to ATC Clearances Communications

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10.620 10.625 10.630 10.635 10.640 10.645 10.650 10.655

SUBPART J: 10.659 10.660 10.665 10.669 10.670 10.671 10.673 10.675 10.680 10.685 10.690 10.695 10.700

SUBPART K: 10.703 10.705 10.710 10.71 5 10.718 10.720 10.725

Route to be Flown Inadvertent Changes ATC Clearance: Intended Changes Position Reports Operations on or in the Vicinity of a Controlled Aerodrome Unlawful Interference Time Checks Universal Signals

VFR FLIGHT RULES Applicability Visual Meteorological Conditions VFR Weather Minimums for Takeoff and Landlng VFR Over-the-Top (OTT) Special VFR Operations Over Water VFR Operations - Single-Engine Commercial Air Transport Aircraft Limitation to VFR Navigation by Visual Reference VFR Cruising Altitudes ATC Clearances for VFR Flights VFR Flights Requiring ATC Authorization Weather Deterioration Below VMC Changing from VFR to IFR Two-way Radio Communication Failure in VFR

IFR FLIGHT RULES Applicability IFR in Controlled Airspace IFR Flights Outside Controlled Airspace IFR Takeoff Minimums for Commercial Air Transport IFR or Night Operations - Single-Engine Commercial Air Transport Operations Minimum Altitudes for IFR Operations Minimum Altitudes for Use of an Autopilot

10.730 IFR Cruising Altitude or Flight Level in Controlled Airspace 10.735 IFR Cruisina Altitude or Fliaht Level in Uncontrolled Airspace 10.740 10.745 10.750 10.755 10.757 10.760 10.765 10.770 10.780 10.785 10.790

SUBPART L: 10.795 10.800 10.805 10.810 10.815 10.820 10.825 10.830 10.835 10.840 10.845

SUBPART M:

IFR Radio communicationi Operation Under IFR in Controlled Airspace: Malfunction Reports Commencement and Continuation of IFR Flight Toward a Destination Instrument Approaches to Aerodromes Runway Visual Range (RVR) Minimums ~ ~ ~ r o v H l Required: -category II or Ill Approaches Commencing an Instrument Approach. All Operations Operation Below DH or MDA Execution of a Missed Approach Procedure Change from IFR Flight to VFR Flight Two-way Radio Communications Failure in IFR

LIABILITY INSURANCE Currency of Funds Applicability Duty to Insure Rlsk of Injury to or Death of Passengers Passengers not Covered Duty to Insure Risk of Public Liability Other Aircraft Duty to Insure Risk of Public Liability No Exclusion or Watver Option for Comprehensive Single Limit lnsurance Visible Sign Indicating Lack of lnsurance On-Board Proof of lnsurance Off-Aircraft Proof of Insurance

ULTRA LIGHT AEROPLANE OPERATIONS

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10.850 Operation of Ultra Light Aeroplanes 10.855 Instruments and Equipment 10.860 Operation of an ultra i ight Aeroplane 10.865 Pilot Qualifications and Privileges 10.870 Liability Insurance 10.875 Maintenance Requirements

APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 10.035: Inoperative Instruments and Equipment Appendix 1 to 10.1 02: Pilot-in-command under supervsion Appendix 1 to 10.175: Use of Narcotics, Drugs or Intoxicating Liquor Appendix 1 to 10.185: Flight Crewmembers at Duty Stations Appendix 1 to 10.218: Use of Flight Deck Jump Seats and Cabin Attendant Seats Appendix 1 to 10.280: Portable Electronic Devices Appendix 1 to 10.290: Refuelling with Passengers On Board Appendix 1 to 10.295: Child Restraint Systems Appendix 1 to 10.300: Passenger Briefing Appendix 1 to 10.301: Crewmember Briefing Appendix 1 to 10.305: In-Flight Emergency Instruction Appendix 1 to 10.400: Determinationof Flight Planning Speed - ETOPS Appendix 1 to 10.41 0: ETOPS Alternate Planning Appendix 1 to 10.445: Operational Flight Plan Requirements Appendix 1 to 10.495: Altimeter Settings Appropriate to a Transition Altitude of 5,400 meters (18.000

Feet) Appendix 1 to 10.587: Criteria for a Stabilized Approach Appendix 1 to 10.600: Universal Interception Signals Appendix 1 to 10.655: Universal Aviation Signals For Distress Appendix 2 to 10.655: Universal Aviation Signals For Airport Traffic Control Appendix 3 to 10.655: Universal Aviation Signals for Airports Appendix 4 to 10.655: Universal Aviation Signals for Aircraft Ground Handling Appendix 1 to 10.660: Airspace and VMC Minimums Appendix 1 to 10.669: VFR OTT Additional Requirements - Commercial Air Transportation Appendix 1 to.lO.715: Takeoff Visibility Determination Appendix 1 to 10.718: Single-Engine IFR and Night Commercial Operations

SUBPART A: GENERAL

(a) This Schedule prescribes the requirements for - (1) operations conducted by airman certified in Jamaica while operating aircraft registered in Jamaica; (2) operations of foreign registered aircraft by Jamaica AOC holders; (3) operations of aircraft within Jamaica by airman or AOC holders of a foreign State.

(b) For operations outside of Jamaica, all Jamaica pilots and operators shall comply with these requirements unless compliance would result in a violation of the laws of the foreign State in which the operation is conducted.

(Note: Where a particular requirement is applicable only to a particular segment of aviation operations, it will be identified by a reference to those particular operations, such as "commercial air transport" or "small non-turbojet or turbofan aeroplanes. ")

10.005 DEFINITIONS

For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply - (1) "Advanced Ultra Light Aeroplane". An aeroplane that has a type design that is in

compliance with the standards specified in the Transport Canada manual entitled Design

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THE CIVIL AVIATIONREGULATIONS, 2004 385

Standards for Advanced Ultra-light Aeroplanes, or an equivalent document published by the United States Federal Aviation Administration, or by the European Aviation Safety Agency or one of its member states.

(2) "Advisory airspace". An airspace of defined dimensions, or designated route, within whlch air traffic advisory service is available;

(3) "Air navigation faclllty". Any facility used in, available for use in, or designed for use in aid of air navigation, including aerodromes, landing areas, lights, any apparatus or equipment f~~disseminatin~weather information, for signaling, for radio directional finding, or for radio or other electrical communication. and any other structure or mechanism having a similar purpose for guiding or controlling flight in the air or the landing and take-off of aircraft;

(4) 'Bask ultra-light aeroplane".

(i) a single-seat aeroplane that has a launch weight of 165 kg (363.8 Ibs) or less, and a wing area, expressed in square metres, of not less than the launch weight minus 15, divided by 10, and in no case less than 10 mZ'

(ii) a two-seat instructional aeroplane that has a launch weight of 195 kg (429.9 Ibs) or less and a wing area, expressed in square metres of not less than 10 mi and a wing loading of not more than 25 kglm2 (5.12 lbsm'), the wing loading being calculated using the launch weight plus the occupant weight of 80 kg (176.4 Ibs) per person; or

(iii) an aeroplane having no more than two seats, designed and manufactured to have a maximum take-off weight of 544 kg and a stall speed in the landing configuration 01,) of 39 knots (45 mph) or less indicated airspeed at the maximum take-off weight.

(5) "Controlled fllght". Any flight which is subject to an'air traffic control clearance; (6) "Controlllna RVR". The reDorted values of one or more RVR re~ortina locations . .

(touchdown~mid-point and stopend) used to determine whether operatkg minima are or are not met;

(7) "Crltical engine". The engine whose failure would most adversely affect the performance or handling qualities of an aircraft;

(8) "Critical phases of flight". Those portions of operations involving taxiing, takeoff and landing, and all flight operations below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight;

(9) "Expires on". The iicencelcertificate, rating or check expires at 2400 hours on the day noted on the licencelcertificate. For example, an Instrument Rating with an "expiry date" of January 31,2005 would no longer be valid past midnight on January 31,2005;

(10) "Extended overwater operation". With respect to aircraft other than helicopters, an operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 nm from the nearest shoreline; and to helicopters, an operation over water at a horizontal distance of more than 50 nm from the nearest shoreline and more than 50 nm from an offshore heliport structure;

( I 1) "Flight plan". Specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft. The term "flight plan" is used to mean variously, f i l l information on allitems comprised in the flight description, covering the whole route of a flight, or limited information required when the purpose is to obtain a clearance for a minor portion of a flight such as to cross an airway or to take off from, or to land at a controlled aerodrome;

(12) "General aviation operation". An aircraft operation other than a commercial air transport operation or an aerial work operation;

(13) "Helldeck". A heliport located on a floating or fixed offshore structure; (14) "Heliport". An aerodrome or defined area on a structure intended to be used wholly or

in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of helicopters; (15) "Journey log". A form signed by the PIC of each flight that records the aircraft's

registration, crewrnember names and duty assignments, the type of flight and the date, place and time of arrival and departure;

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"Master minimum equipment list" (MMEL). A list established for a particular aircraft type by the manufacturer with the approval of the State of Manufacture containing items. one or more of which is permitted to be ~ n s e ~ i c e a b k at the commencement of a flight. The MMEL may be associated with special operating conditions, limitations or procedures. The MMEL provides the basis for development, review and approval by the Authority of an mdividual operator's MEL; "Operational flight plan". The operator's plan for the safe conduct of the flight based on considerations of aircraft performance, other operating limitations and relevant expected conditions on the route to be followed and at the aerodromes or heliports concerned; "Personal possession". The use of this phrase indicates that a document, manual or piece of equipment shall be contained upon the person or readily assessable at the crewmember's station during the exercise of the licence privileges; "Valid to". The licencelcertificate, rating or check expires at 0000 hours local on the day noted on the licencelcertificate. For example, an lnstrument Rating valid to February 1. 2005 would no longer be valid past midnight on January 31. 2005. Valid to" with respect to training is applied in the same manner;

ACRONYM

The following acronyms are used in this Schedule - (1) AFM -Aircraft Flight Manual; (2) AGL -Above Ground Level; (3) AIP - Aeronautical Information Publication; (4) AOC - Air Operator Certificate; (5) AOM - Aircraft Operating Manual; (6) ATC - Air Traffic Control; (7) CAT - Category; (8) CCP - Company Check Pilot; (9) CG - Centre of Gravity; (10) CDL - Configuration Deviation List; (1 1) DFTE - Designated Flight Test Examiner; (12) DH - Decision Height; (13) ETA - Estimated Time of Arrival; (14) ETOPS - Extended Twin-engine Operations; (15) FA -Aerodrome Forecast; (16) FL - Flight Level; (17) GPS -Global Positioning System; (18) IMC - lnstrument Meteorological Conditions; (19) LOC - Localizer; (20) LVTO - Low Visibility Take Off; (21) MDA - Minimum Descent Altitude; (22) MEA - Minimum Enroute Altitude; (23) MEL - Minimum Equipment List; (24) MMEL - Master Minimum Equipment List; (25) MNPSA - Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications Airspace; (26) MOCA - Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude; (27) MSL - Mean Sea Level; (28) NM - Nautical Mile; (29) NOTAM - Notice to Airmen; (30) OFP - Operational Flight Plan; (31 ) OTT - Over-the-Top; (32) RFM - Rotorcrafl Flight Manual; (33) RVR - Runway V~sibil~ty Range;



RVSM - Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum; PBE - Protective Breathing Equipment; PIC - Pilot-in-command; SIC - Second-in-command; SCA - Senior Cabin Attendant; SM -Statute Miles; TAF -Area Forecast; VMC - Visual Meteorological Conditions; VSM -Vertical Separation Minimum.

SUBPART B: AIRCRAFT REQUIREMENTS

10.015 REGISTRATION MARKINGS

(a) No person may operate a Jamaica-registered aircraft unless it displays the proper markings prescribed in the Third Schedule.

(b) No person may operate an aircraft in Jamaica unless it displays registration markings in ' accordance with ICAO Annex 7.

(a) No person may operate a foreign registered aircraft between points within Jamaica for the purposes of commercial air transport unless that person is the holder of a Jamaican AOC.

(b) No person may operate a foreign registered aircraft in Jamaica for other than commercial air transport operations for more than 30 days in any calendar year unless approved by the Authority. An application for such approval shall be made in writing and contain the following information -

aircraft registration number; aircraft make, model and series; aircraft serial number; airport where the aircraft is based; operator name, address and telephone contact numbers; a current copy of the aircraft insurance papers; a current copy of the aircraft Certificate of Airworthiness; and a current copy of the aircraft Certificate of Registration.

(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless it is in an airworthy condition.

(b) Each PIC shall determine whether an aircraft is in a condition for safe flight before takeoff.

(c) The PIC shall discontinue a flight as soon as practicable when any mechanical, electrical or structural condition occurs that would make the aircraft un-airworthy.

10.022 FLIGHT PERMIT OPERATIONAL RESTRICTIONS

No person may operate an aircraft with a flight permit except as provided in the limitations issued with that permit.

No penon may operate an aircraft unless it is equipped with the instruments and equipment requirements of the Seventh Schedule appropriate to the type of flight operation conducted and the route being flown.

(a) No person may operate an aircraft with inoperative instruments or equipment installed, except as authorized by the Authority.

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(b) No person may take off in a multi-engine aircraft with inoperative instruments and equipment installed unless the following conditions are met -

an approved Minimum Equipment List (MEL) exists for that aircraft; for commercial air transport operations, the Authority has approved the MEL for use for h e specific aircraft and AOC holder; the approved MEL must -

(i) be prepared in accordance with the limitations specified in paragraph (c) of this Subsection; and

(ii) provide for the operation of the aircraft with certain instruments and equipment in an inoperative condition;

records identifying the inoperative instruments and equipment and the information shall be available to the pilot; and the aircraft is operated under all applicable conditions and limitations contained in the MEL.

(c) The following instruments and equipment may not be included in h e MEL - (1) inshuments and equipment that are either specifically or otherwise required by the

airworthiness requirements under which the aircraft is type certificated and which are essential for safe operations under all operating conditions;

(2) instruments and equipment required by an Airworthiness Directive to be in operable condition unless the Airworthiness Directive provides otherwise; and

(3) Instruments and equipment required for specific operations under the Seventh. Tenth. Eleventh andlor Twelfth Schedules.

(d) An aircraft with inoperative required instruments or equipment may be operated only under a special flight permit issued by the Authority under the Fifth Schedule.

(8) For operations with foreign registered aircraft using a MEL approved by the Authority, a Jamaican AOC holder shall ensure the MEL does not contravene any airworthiness requirements applicable In the State of Registry.

(See Appendix 1 to 10.035 for specific limitation on inoperative instruments and equipment.)

10.040 CML PRCRAFT FLIGHT MANUAL, MARKING AND PLACARD REQUIREMENTS

(a) No person may operate a civil aircraft unless there is available in the aircraft - (1) a current, approved AFM or RFM; or (2) an AOM approved by the Authority for the AOC holder; (3) if no AFM or RFM exists. approved manual material, markings and placards, or any

combination thereof which provide the PIC with the necessary limitations for safe operation.

(b) Thls information may be displayed in the aircraft in the form of placards, listings, instrument markings or combination thereof, containing those operating limitations prescribed by the c e t i i n g authority for the aircraft's State of Registry for visual presentation.

(c) Each person operating a civil aircraft shall cause the AFM or RFM to be updated by implementing changes made mandatory by the State of Registry.

10.045 REQUIRED AIRCRAFT AND EQUIPMENT ~NSPEC~ONS

(a) Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority. no person may operate a Jamaica civil aircraft unless it has been inspected as per an approved maintenance programme and an entry certifying the completion of the last scheduled inspection has been made in the aircraft technical logbook carried on board the aircraft by an AME qualified to do so.

(b) The requirements for these inspections are contained in the Fifth 'schedule.

No person may operate a civil aircraft unless it has within it the current and approved documents appropriate to the operations to be conducted -

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(1) properly displayed registration certificate issued to the owner; (2) properly displayed Certificate of Airworthiness; (3) proof of insurance; (4) AFM or RFM; (5) normal, abnormal and emergency checklists; (6) for aircraft operating internationally, an arcraft radio licence; (7) aircraft journey log and aircraft technical log, if separate; (8) pilot operating handbook (or aircraft operating manual); (9) performance and mass and balance tables or graphs; (10) current and suitable charts for -

(i) the route and aerodromes of the proposed flight, and (ii) all routes and aerodromes along which it is reasonable to expect that the flight may

be diverted; and (1 1) air-ground signals for search and rescue.

1o.osl hDlTlONAL DOCUMENTS APPLICABLE TO INTERNATIONAL FLIGHTS No person may operate a civil aircraft for flights across international borders unless it has within it the additional documents necessary for such flights, including -

(1) a general declaration for customs; (2) a k t of passenger names and points of embarkation and destination, if applicable; (3) the procedures and signals relating to interception of aircraft; (4) a Noise Certificate, if required; and (5) any other documentation that may be required by the Authority or States concerned with a

proposed flight.

(Note: The noise certificate shall state the standards in ICAO Annex 16. Volume 1. The statement may be contained in any document, cam'ed on board, approved by the Authority.)

10.055 ADDITIONAL DOCUMENT REQUIREMENTS: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT No person may operate a civil aircraft in commercial air transport unless the following current and approved documents must be carried on board the aircraft during those operations -

Aircraft Load Manifest.; Operational Flight Plan; NOTAMS briefing documentation applicable for the route to be flown and any possible diversions;

Meteorological information sufficient for the route of flight and any possible diversions; Filed ATC flight plan; Part(s) of the AOC holder's operations manual relevant to operation(s) conducted; Alrcrafl Operating Manual acceptable to the State of the Operator; MEL approved by the State of the Operator; Air Operator Certificate, if required; Except for aircraft operated by a single pilot, a bomb search checklist; Least risk location instmctlons In the event a bomb is found; and Forms for complying with the reporting requirements of the Authority and the AOC holder.

SUBPART C: FLIGHT CREW REQUIREMENTS

10.080 COMPOSITION OF THE FLIGHT CREW

(a) The number and composition of the flight crew may not be less than that specified in the flight manual or other documents associated with the Certificate of Airworthiness.

(b) A SIC Is required for multi-engine, IFR commercial air transport operations, unless otherwise approved by the Authority as prbvided in Subsection 10.481.



(c) The flight crews shall include flight crewmembers in add~tion to the minimum numbers specified In. the flight manual or other documents associated with the Certificate of Airworthiness when necessitated by considerations related to the type of aircrafl used, the type of operations and duties involved and the duration of flight between points where flight crews are exchanged.

10.062 AIRMAN: LIMITATIONS ON USE OF SERVICES

(a) No person may operate a civil aircrafl in aerial work unless that person is qualified for the speclfic operation and in the specific type of aircrafl used.

(b) No person may serve as an airman, nor may any person use en airman in wmmenlal alr transport unless that person is qualified for the operations for which they are to be used in accordance with the Fourteenth Schedule.

(a) No person may act as PIC or in any other capacity as a required flight crewmember of a civil aircrafl of -

(1) Jamaican registry. unless he or she carries in their personal possession the appropriate and current Jamaican pilot licence or foreign pilot licence validation for that flight crew position for that type of aircrafl and a valid medical certificate.

(2) Foreign registry, unless he or she carries in their personal possession a valld and current pilot licence for that type of aircrafl issued to them by the State in which the alrcrafl is registered and a valid medical certificate.

(b) No person may act as a flight crewmember of a foreign registered aircrafl operated by a Jamaica AOC holder unless, in addition to paragraph (a) (2) of this Subsection, they have been issued and carry in their personal possession a Jamaican pilot licence or Jamaican pilot licence validation for the category, class and type of aircraft.

10.066 NOTIFICATION OF CHANGE OF ADDRESS TO LICENCE No person may exercise the privileges of an airman licence issued by Jamaica for mbre than 30 days after they have changed their official mailing address unless they have provided written notification of the following information to the Authority -

(1) full name; (2) pilot licence number; (3) street Address, house number and PO box number (4) city or town (for a Jamaica address); (5) city. State, Postal Code and Country (for a foreign address); and (6) telephone number (including Country codes).

Each pilot operating an aircrafl shall hold a valid Radio Operator Llcence or endorsement, Issued or rendered valid by the State of Registry, authorizing operation of the type of radio transmitting equipment to be used.

10.070 MEDICAL CERTIFICATE REQUIRED

(a) No person may serve as en airman nor may any person use an airman unless that person has In their personal possession a valid airman Medical Certificate, and abides by any included - conditions, restrictions or limitations.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this Subsection, this person shall hold a - (1) Class 1 Medical Certificate to exercise flight crewmember privileges other than those for

private or student pilot. (2) Class 2 Medical Certificate to exercise private or student pilot privileges.

(c) A Medical Certificate is valid to the first day of the month following the date of the medical examination plus -

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(1) 12 calendar months -for operations requiring airline transport pilot privileges unless the holder is 40 years of age or older and is engaged in singlecrew commercial air transport operations carrying passengers, in which case the validity is for 6 months;

( (2) 12 calendar months -for operations requiring commercial pilot privileges except for glider and balloon pilots;

(3) 12 calendar months -for operations requiring flight engineer privileges; and (4) 60 calendar months -for operations requiring private or student pilot privileges and for

glider and balloon pilots unless the holder is 40 years of age or older, in which case the validity is for 24 months or unless the holder is 50 years of age or older, in which case the validity is for 12 months.

(d) A person is not required to hold a current and appropriate Medical Certificate if that person - (1) is exercising the privileges of a Student Pilot Licence while seeking a pilot licence with a

glider category rating or balloon class rating; (2) is exercising the privileges of a Flight Instructor rating, provided the Flight Instructor is not

acting as PIC or as a required crewmember: (3) is operating an aircraft within a foreign country using a pilot licence issued by that country

and possesses evidence of current medical qualification for that licence; (4) is operating an aircraft with a pilot licence, issued by the Authority on the basis of a foreign

pilot licence and holds a current medical certificate issued by the country that issued the pilot licence; or

(5) is taking a test or check for a licence, rating or authorization, not involving flight in an aircraft, conducted under an approved course by an ATO.

10.075. FLIGHT CREW QUALIFICATIONS

(a) The PIC and, where applicable, the AOC holder shall ensure that the licences of each flight crewmember have been issued or rendered valid by the State of Registry, contain the appropriate category, class and type ratings and that all that the flight crewmembers are in conformance with the recency of experience requirements of this Schedule.

(Note: The category and class ratings are identitied in the Eighth Schedule, Subsection 8.025.)

(b) No person may operate or perform duties in a civil aircraft who requires a licence unless the licence authorizing the privileges to conduct that operation were issued in accordance with the specifications of the Eighth Schedulepf the Civil Aviation Regulations andlor, where applicable, the Standards of Annex 1 of the International Civil Aviation Organization.

10.080 CATEGORY, CLASS AND TYPE RATING REQUIRED

(a) No person may act as a required pilot of an aircraft unless that person holds the appropriate category, class and type rating (if a class rating and'type rating is required) for the aircraft to be flown, except where the pilot -

(1) Is receiving training for thepurpose of obtaining an additional pilot licence or rating that is appropriate to that aircraft while under the supervision of a rated Flight Instructor; or

(2) Has received training required by these Schedules that is appropriate to the aircraft category, class and type rating (if a class or type rating is required) for the aircraft to be flown and has received the required endorsements from an approved Company Check Pilot or Designated Flight Test Examiner.

(b) A pilot may not act as a required pilot of an aircraft that is carrying another person, or is operated for remuneration or hire, unless that pilot holds a category, class and type rating (if a class and, type rating is required) that applies to the aircraft.

10.082 WHEN AIRCRAFT TYPE RATING IS REQUIRED

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this Subsection, no person may operate any of the following civil aircraft unless that person's licence has been endorsed for the aircraft type -

(1) large aeroplanes, other than lighter-than-air;

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(2) all helicopters; (3) aircraft certified for at least two pilots; (4) high performance aircraft; and (5) any aircraft considered necessary by the Authority.

(b) The Authority may authorise a pilot to operate an aircraft requiring a type rating without a type rating for up to 60 days, provided -

(1) the Authority has determined that an equivalent level of safety can be achieved through the dperating limitations on the authorization;

(2) the operations - (i) involve only a ferry flight, training flight, test flight, or practical test for a pilot licence

or rating; (ii) are within Jamaica, unless, by previous agreement with the Authority, the aircraft is

flown to an adjacent contracting State for maintenance; (iii) are not for compensation or hire unless the compensation or hire hvolves payment

for the use of the aircraft for training or taking.a practical test; and (iv) involve only the carriage of flight crewmembers considered essential for the flight.

(3) if the purpose of the authorization provided by paragraph (b) of this Subsection cannot be accomplished within the time limit of the authorization, the Authority may authorize an additional period of up to 60 days.

No person may operate a civil aircraft as the PIC or SIC in the following situations unless that person's pilot licence has been endorsed with an IR for the category, class and, if required, type of aircraft -

(1) in flight conditions where the proximity to clouds and minimum visibility is less than those prescribed for VFR (Visual Flight Rules);

(2) in IMC (instrument meteorological conditions); or (3) on an ATS clearance for operations in accordance with IFR (Instrument Flight Rules).

No person may operate an aircraft as the PIC or SIC. as applicable, at night unless that person's licence has been endorsed with a night rating.

10.087 SPECIAL AUTHORWTION REQUIRED FOR CATEGORY ff/lll OPERATlONS

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this Subsection, no person may act as a pilot crewfnember of a civil aircraft in a Category 111111 operation unless - (1) in the case of a PIC, he or she holds a current Category I1 or Ill pilot authorization for that

type aircraft: or (2) in the case of an SIC. he or she is authorized by the State of Registry to act as SIC in that

aircraft in Category 111111 operations.

(b) An authorization is not required for individual pilots of an AOC holder that has Operations Specifications approving Category II or Ill operations.

10.030 ADD~ONAL TWNING REQUIREMENTS FOR FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS

(a) No person may act as a pilot of a general aviation aircraft unless, within the preceding 3 years. that person has received flight training f r o m licensed Flight lnstructor and has been found competent in the operation of that aircraft. The instructor shall c e t i i the competence in the pilot's logbook.

(b) No person may act as PIC of a tailwheel aeroplane unless that person has - (1) received and logged flight training from a rated Flight Instructor in a tailwheel aeroplane on

the manoeuvres and procedures prescribed by the Authority, and (2) received an endorsement In the person's logbook from a rated Flight Instructor who found

the person proficient in the operation of a tailwheel aeroplane, to include at least normal

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and crosswind takeoffs and landings, wheel landings (unless the manufacturer has recommended against such landings) and go-around procedures.

(Note: The training and endorsement required by this Subsection is not required i f the person logged PIC time in a taihheel aeroplane before October 1, 2004.)

(a) Each pilot shall show the aeronautical training and experience used to meet the requirements for a licence or rating, or recency of experience, by a reliable record.

(b) A student pilot shall carry his or her logbook, including the proper flight instructor endorsements, on all solo cross-country flights.

(c) Upon the request of an authorized representative of the Authority or a law enforcement officer, the pilot shall provide their logbook to that person.

10.101 CONTENTS OF PILOT LOGBOOK

Each penon shall enter the following information for each flight or lesson logged - (1) general -

(i) date. (ii) total flight time. (iii) location where the aircrafl depaned and arrived, or for lessons in an approved flight

simulator or an approved flight training device, the location where the lesson . occurred.

(iv) type and identification of aircrafl, approved flight simulator or approved flight training device. as appropriate.

(v) the name of a safety pilot, if required. (2) type of pilot experience or training -

(i) solo. (ii) PIC. (iii) SIC. (iv) flight and ground training received from a rated Flight Instructor. (v) training received in an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device

from a rated instructor. (3) conditions of flight -

(i) day or night. (ii) actual instrument. (iii) simulated instrument conditions in flight, an approved flight simulator or an approved

flight training device.

10.1 02 LOGGING OF FLIGHT TIME AND TRAINING

(a) Logging of pilot time. The pilot time described in this Subsection may be used to - (1) . apply for a licence or rating issued under the Eighth Schedule; or (2) satisfy the recent flight experience requirements of the Tenth, Eleventh or Fourteenth

Schedule.

(b) Logging of solo flight time: Except for a student pilot acting as PIC of an airship requiring more than one flight crewmember, a pilot may log as solo flight time only that flight time when the pilot'is the sole occupant of the aircrafl.

(c) Logging PIC flight time - 11) a private or commercial pilot may log PIC time only for that flight time during whish that

person is - (i) the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircrafl for which the pilot is rated; or

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(ii) acting as PIC of an aircraft on which more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or the requirements under which the flight is conducted; or

(iii) performing the duties of PIC under the supervision of a check airman designated by the Authority, or

(iv) a sole occupant.

(2) a qualified airline transport pilot may log as PIC time all'of the flight time while acting as PIC of an operation requiring an Airline Transport Pilot Licence;

(3) an authorized instructor may log as PIC time all flight time while acting as a rated Flight Instructor;

(Note: An authorized instructor includes a rated Flight lnstructor or an instructor providing training under the auspices of an AOC holder's approved training programme.)

(4) a type-qualified pilot may log as PIC time all flight time while acting as the PIC for the purpose of a PIC evaluation;

', (5) an approved CCP or DFTE may log as PIC time all flight time while occupying an aircrew seat and is acting as a flight crewmember or a safety pilot for a flight test, provided helshe is in possession of a valid licence in the category, class, and if necessary, is endorsed with an appropriate type rating for the aircraft in which the flight test is being conducted;

(6) a commercial pilot may log as PIC time that period of fl,ight time while, as a SIC, helshe is undergoing pilot-in-command under supervision training subject to the following conditions-

(i) the flight time accumulated under this programme may only be credited towards an ATPL; and

(ii) not more than one hundred and fifty (150) hours of the PIC under supervision flight time accumulated may be credited as PIC flight time; and

(See Appendix 1 to 10.102 for specific requirements perlaining to PIC under supervision.)

(7) a student pilot may log PIC time when the student pilot is the sole occupant of the aircraft or is performing the functions of the PIC of an airship requiring more than one flight crewmember.

(d) Logging SIC flight time: A person may log SIC flight time only for that flight time during which that person -

(1) is qualified in accordance with the requirements of this Schedule for SIC and occupies a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot by the aircraft's type certificate; or

(2) holds the appropriate category, class and IR (if an instrument rating is required for the flight) for the aircraft being flown, and more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or the schedule under which the flight is being conducted.

(e) Logging instrument flight time - a person may log instrument flight time only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions. a rated Flight Instructor may log instrument flight time when conducting instfument flight inst~ct ion in actual instrument flight conditions. for the purposes of logging instrument flight time to meet the recency of instrument experience requirements, the following information shall be recorded in a person's logbook- .

(i) the location and type of each instrument approach accomplished; and (ii) the name of the safety pilot, if required.

an approved flight simulator or approved flight training device may be used by a person to log inst~ment flight time, provided an authorized instfuctor is present during the simulated flight.

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(f) Logging training time.

(1) a person may log training time when that person receives training from an authorized flight instructor in an aircraft, approved flight simulator or approved flight training device.

(2) the training time shall be logged in a logbook and shall - (i) be endorsed in a legible manner by the authorized instructor; and (ii) include a description of the training given, the length of the training lesson, and the

instructor's signature, licence number and licence expiration date.

(a) No person may act as a pilot of an aircraft unless within the preceding 90 days that pilot has - (1) made at least 3 takeoffs and landings as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an

aircraft of the same category and class and if a type rating is required, of the same type. (2) for a tailwheel aeroplane, made the 3 takeoffs and landings in a tailwheel aeroplane with

each landing to a full stop. (3) for night operations, made at least 3 takeoffs and landings at night.

(b) A pilot who has not met the recency of experience for takeoffs and landings shall satisfactorily complete a requalification curriculum acceptable to the Authority.

(c) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this Subsection may be satisfied in a flight simulator approved by the Authority.

10.110 PILOT CURRENCY: IFR OPERATIONS

(a) No person may act as a pilot under IFR or in IMC, unless he or she has, within the preced~ng 6 calendar months -

(1) logeed at least 6 hours of instrument flight time including at least 3 hours in flight in the category of aircraft, and

(2) completed at least 6 instrument approaches.

(b) A pilot who has completed an instrument competency check with an authorized representative of the Authority retains currency for IFR operations for 6 calendar months following that check.

(c) The requirements of paragraph (a) of this Subsection may be satisfied in a flight simulator approved by the Authority.

(a) The validity period of any check, qualification or training shall be to the first day of the month following the date the check, qualification or training was completed in addition to the period of validity specified in the appropriate Schedule.

(b) Any required recurrent check or training may be completed within the 60'day period preceding its expiry, in which case the validity shall be extended by the appropriate period from that expiration date.

(c) Any required recurrent check or training completed within a 30 day period following its expiration date, whether as a result of an extension or lapsed validity, shall be deemed to have been completed on that expiration date.

(d) Any required check or training not completed within 24 months of the latest expiration date shall require completion of the initial qualification requirements for that check or trai~ri~g.

(Note: 1. The term 'check" refers to any night test, competency check or qualification test required by these Regulations.)

2. The term "expiration date" refers to the date before which the training or check is valid and afier which that training or check would be invalid.)

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10.120 ADDmONAL COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT QUALIFICATIONS /

All aviation personnel involved in commercial air transport shall also conform to - i: (1) The initial and continuing qualification requirements of the Fourteenth Schedule; and ,

(2) The requirements of the Fifleenth Schedule for maximum duty and flight time and minimum rest periods.

10.125 PILOT PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS

A pilot may conduct operations only within the general privileges and limitations of the type of valid licence that he or she as been issued by the Authority.

When qualified and current for the aircrafl category, class and type being operated, the holder of an Airline Transport Pilot Licence may -

(1) act as PIC (or SIC) of an aircrafl certificated for two pilots in commercial air transport operations after completing the additional requirements of the Fourteenth Schedule;

(2) exercise the privileges accorded to a commercial pilot; (3) unless limited to VFR operations only, exercise the privileges accorded to an instrument

rating for that category of aircrafl; and (4) when appropriate, exercise the privileges accorded to a private pilot.

10.135 COMMERCIAL PILOT PRIVILEGES

When qualified and current for the aircrafl category, class and type being operated, the holder of a Commercial Pilot Licence may -

(1) act as PIC of an aeroplane or a helicopter certificated for single pilot operations in commercial air lransport after completing the additional requirements of the Fourteenth Schedule;

(2) act as SIC of an aircraft in commercial air transport after completing the additional requirements of the Fourteenth Schedule;

(3) act as PIC (or SIC) of an aircrafl in aerial work for remuneration and hire; (4) accept remuneration and hire as a PIC (or SIC) of an aircrafl by or for a person or entity

that is not required by Part X of these Regulations to be an AOC holder; and (5) when appropriate, exercise the privileges accorded to a private pilot.

10.140 PRIVATE PILOT PRIVILEGES AND LIMITATIONS: REQUIRED CREWMEMBER

, (a) When qualified and current for the aircrafl category, class and type being operated, or, in the case of gliders, the launch method, the holder of a Private Pilot Licence may operate that aircrafl carrying passengers or property as provided in this Subsection.

(b) A private pilot may not act as a required crewmember of an aircraft carrying passengers or property for remuneration or hire.

(c) A private pilot may act as a required crewmember of an aircrafl in connection with any business or employment if the -

(1) pilot holds the required category, class and type ratings: (2) flight is only incidental to that business or employment; and (3) aircrafl is not operated by or for an individual or entity that is required by Part X of the Civil

Aviation Regulations to be, or use the services of, an AOC holder.

(d) A private pilot may receive remuneration or valuable consideration for only the sharing of expenses for a flight, provided that a private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures or rental fees.

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A student pilot may not act as PIC of an aircraft - that is carrying a passenger; that is carrying property for compensation or hire; that is operated for compensation or hire; in furtherance of a business; on an international flight; when the flight or surface visibility is less than 5 statute miles; when the flight cannot be made with visual reference to the surface; or in a manner contrary to any limitations placed in the pilot's logbook by a rated instructor.

A student pilot may not act as a required pilot flight crewmember on any aircraft for which more than one pilot is required by the aircraft type certificate or by the Schedule under which the fliaht is conducted, except when receiving flight Gaining from a rated instructor on board an airship, &d no person other than a required flight crewmember is carried in the aircraft.

A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight unless that pilot has been trained and satisfactorily demonstrated the knowledge and proficiency requirements of -

(1) the Eighth Schedule, Subsection 8.1.77 for solo flight; (2) for solo cross-country flights, Subsection 8.179; and (3) has been so endorsed in his or her logbook by a flight instructor.

A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight unless that student pilot has received within the 90 days preceding the date of the flight an endorsement from a rated Flight lnstructor for the specific make and model aircraft to be flown made -

(I) in the student's training records; and (2) in the student's logbook.

A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight at night.

A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo cross-country flights of more than 25 statute miles unless the flight planning has been reviewed by a Flight lnstructor and the pilot's logbook has been endorsed by the instructor for the flight(s) as provided in 8.1 79.

10.147 FLIGHT INSTRUCTOR PRIVILEGES AND LIMITAT~ONS

(a) A Flight lnstructor is authorized within the limitations of that person's Flight lnstructor rating and associated authorizations and pilot licence and ratings, to give training and make recommendations that are required for, and relate to -

(I) a student pilot licence; (2) a pilot licence; (3) a flight instructor rating; (4) a night rating; (5) a multi-engine rating; (6) an alrcraft type rating; (7) an instrument rating; (8) a Right review. operating privilege or recency of experience requirement; (9) a practical test; and (10) a knowledge test.

(b) A Class 2 Flight lnstructor is authorized within the limitations of that person's Class 2 Flight lnstructor ratlng, associated authorizations and pilot licence and ratings, to give training and recommendations that are required for, and relate to -

( I ) a Student Pilot Licence; (2) a pilot licence;

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(3) a night rating; (4) a multi-engine rating; (5) an aircraft type rating; (6) an instrument rating; (7) a flight review, operating privilege or recency of experience requirement; (8) a practical test; and (9) a knowledge test.

(c) No person other than a holder of a Flight lnstructor rating may - (1) endorse a Student Pilot Licence and logbook for solo operating privileges; (2) conduct a flight review for the purposes of establishing pilot currency;

(d) The following instructors do not have to hold a Flight Instructor rating - (1) the holder of a Commercial Pilot Licence with a lighter-than-air rating, provided the training

is given in a lighter-than-air aircraft; (2) the holder of an Airline Transport Pilot Licence with appropriate ratings, provided the

training is conducted in accordance with an approved training programme approved under the Fourteenth Schedule;

(3) a person who is qualified in accordance with the Ninth Schedule, provided the training is conducted in accordance with an approved training programme; or

(4) a ground instructor who has satisfactorily demonstrated to the Authority or an AOC or AT0 certificate holder, knowledge of the subject matter being taught.

10.148 FLIGHT ENGINEER PRIVILEGES AND LlMlTATlONS

(a) No person may act as a Flight Engineer of a civil aircraft of Jamaica registry unless he or she has a flight engineer licence with appropriate ratings.

(b) The holder of a Flight Engineer Licence with the appropriate rating is authorized to perform those duties on those aircraft that require a flight engineer for the operation of the aircraft under the type certificate. ,

(c) A Flight Engineer in commercial air transport operations must also be qualified and current in accordance with the Fourteenth Schedule requirements.

SUBPART D: CREWMEMBER DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES

10.150 AUTHORITY AND RESPONSIBILITY OF THE PIC

(a) The PIC shall be responsible for the operations and safety of the aircraft and for the safety of all persons and properly on board when the --

(1) doors are closed; and (2) the aircraft is ready to move for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to

rest at the end of the flight and the primary propulsion units are shut down.

(b) The PIC of an aircraft shall have final authority as to the operation of the aircraft while he or she is in command.

(c) The PIC of an aircraft shall, whether manipulating the controls or not, be responsible for the operation of the aircraft in accordance with the rules of the air, except that the PIC may depart from these rules in emergency circumstances that render such departure absolutely necessary in the interests of safety.

10.155 DESIGNATION OF PIC FOR COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

The AOC holder shall, for each commercial air transport operation, designate in writing one pilot as the PIC.

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(a) AIl persons shall comply with the relevant laws, regulations and procedures of the States in which the aircraft is operated.

(b) I f an emergency situation which endangers the safety of the alrcraft or persons necessitates the taking of action which involves a violation of local regulations or procedures, the PIC shall -

(1) notify the appropriate local authority without delay; (2) submit a report of the circumstances, if required by the State in which the incident occurs;

and (3) submit a copy of this report to the Authority.

(c) Each PIC shall submit reports specified in paragraph (b) of this Subsection to the Authority within 10 days in the form prescribed.

10.165 NEGLIGENT OR RECKLESS OPERATIONS OF THE AIRCRAFT

No person may operate an aircraft in a negligent or reckless manner so as to endanger life or property of others.

(a) No person may act as PIC or in any other capacity as a required flight crewmember when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which might render them unable to safely exercise the privileges of his or her licence.

(b) The PIC shall be responsible for ensuring that a flight is not - (1) commenced if any flight crewmember is incapacitated from performing duties by any cause

such as injury, sickness, fatigue or the effects of alcohol or drugs; or (2) continued beyond the nearest suitable aerodrome if a flight crewmember's capacity to

perform functions is significantly reduced by impairment of faculties from causes such as fatigue, sickness or lack of oxygen.

10.175 USE OF NARCOTICS, DRUGS OR INTOXICATING LIQUOR

(a) No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of, or perform maintenance on, a civil airaaff -

(1) within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholicbeverage; (2) while under the influence of alcohol; or (3) while using any drug that might render them unable to safely and properly exercise their

duties.

(b) A crewmember or any person responsible for the operation or maintenance of aircraft shall. on request of a law enforcement officer or the Authority, submit to a test to indicate the presence of alcohol or narcotic drugs in the blood at any time--

(1) up to 8 hours before acting as a crewmember or person responsible for the operation or maintenance of aircraft;

(2) immediately after attempting to act as a crewmember or person responsible for the operation or maintenance of aircraft; or

(3) immediately after acting as a crewmember or person responsible for the operation or maintenance of aircraft.

(c) No crewmember of a civil aircraft may engage in any problematic use of substances.

(See Appendix 1 to 10.175 for specific requirements petiainlng to testing for alcohol or narcotics.)

Operatas shall ensure that flight crewmembers demonstrate the ability to speak and understand the English language used for aeronautical radiotelephonywmmunications.

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10.180 CREWMEMBER USE OF SEAT BELTS AND SHOULDER HARNESSES

(a) Each crewmember shall have his or her seat belts fastened during takeoff and landing and all other times when seated at his or her station.

(b) Each crewmember occupying a station equipped with a shoulder harness shall fasten that harness during takeoff and landing.

(c) Each occupantbf a seat equipped with a combined safety belt and shoulder harness shall have the combined safety belt and shoulder harness properly secured about that occupant during takeoff and landing and be able to properly perform assigned duties.

(d) At each unoccupied seat, the safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed, shall be secured so as not to interfere with crewmembers in the performance of their duties or with the rapid egress of occupants in an emergency.

10.185 FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS AT DUTY STATIONS

(a) Each required flight crewmember shall remain at the assigned duty station during take-off and landing and critical phases of flight.

(b) Each flight crewmember shall remain at his or her station during all other phases of flight unless - (I) absence is necessary for the performance of his or her duties in connection with the

operation; (2) absence is necessary for physiological needs, provided one qualified pilot remains at the

controls at all times; or (3) the crewmember is taking a rest period and a qualified relief crewmember replaces him or

her at the duty station.

(See Appendix 1 to 10.185 for specific requimment pertaining to qualified relief crewmembers.)

10.190 REQUIRED CREWMEMBER EQUIPMENT

(a) Each crewmember involved in night operations shall have a flashlight at his or her station.

(b) Each pilot crewmember shall have at his or her station an aircraft checklist containing at least the pretakeoff, after takeoff, before landing and emergency procedures.

(c) Each pilot crewmember shall have at his or her station current and suitable charts to cover the route of the proposed flight and any route along which it is reasonable to expect that the flight may be diverted.

10.191 REQUIRED CORRECTIVE LENSES

(a) Each flight crewmember assessed as fit to exercise the privileges of a licence subject to the use of suitable correcting lenses, shall use those lenses or have them immediately available when performing as a required crewmember.

(b) Each flight crewmember assessed as fit to exercise the privileges of a licence subject to the use of suitable correcting lenses, shall have a spare set of the correcting spectacles readily available when performing as a required crewmember in commercial air transport.

(c) If near correction for distances other than those tested for the medical certificate are necessary for visual flight deck tasks relevant to the types of aircraft in which the applicant is likely to function. the applicant shall obtain and use such lenses in the medical evaluation.

(a) The PIC shall ensure that the flight'crew complies with the approved checklist procedures in detail when operating the aircraft.

(b) All members of the flight crew shall use the checklists prior to, during and after all phases of operations and in an emergency to ensure compliancewith the -

( I ) operating procedures contained in the aircraft operating manual; and



. - . .. (2) the flight manual; or (3) other documents associated with the Certificate of Airworthiness; and (4) otherwise in the operations manual.

(a) For all international flights, the PIC shall have on board the aircraft essential information concerning the search and rescue services in the areas over which they intend to operate the aircraft.

(b) This information shall contain the air-ground signals for search and rescue.

10.205 PRODUCTION OF A I R C R M AND FLIGHT DOCUMENTATION

The PIC shall, within a reasonable time of being requested to do so by a person authorized by the Authority, produce to that person the documentation required to be carried on the aircraft.

(a) The crew shall insure that the crew compartment door is closed and locked from the time all external doors are closed followina embarkation until any such door is o~ened for disembarkation. except when necessary to permit access and egress byauthorized persbns.

(b) The pilots shall use the means that the AOC holder shall provide for monitoring from either pilot's station the entire door area outside the flight crew compartment to identify persons requesting enby and to detect suspicious behaviour or potential threat.

(c) The operator shall develop a means by which cabin crew can discreetly notify the flight crew in the event of suspicious activity or security breaches in the cabin.

(a) No person may admit any person to the flight deck of an aircraft engaged in commercial a i ~ transport operations unless the person being admitted is -

(I) an operating crewmember; (2) a representative of the Authority responsible for certification, licensing or inspectioi, if this

is required for the performance of his or her official duties; or (3) permitted by and carried out in accordance with instructions contained in the Operations

Manual.

(b) The PIC shall ensure that - (I) in the interest of safety, admission on the flight deck does not cause distraction andlor

interference with the flight's operations; and (2) all persons carried on the flight deck are made familiar with the relevant safety procedures.

No air operator shall permit a flight deck jump seat or flight attendant seat to be occupied by a person other than a required crewmember except in accordance with the procedures and conditions specified in the air operator's Operations Manual.

(See Appendix 1 to 10.218 for specific requirements petiaining to the use of flight deck jump seats and cabin attendant seats.)

Whenever, in performing the duties of conducting an inspection, an inspector from the Authority presents an Aviation Safety Inspector's Credential issued by Jamaica [CAA] to the PIC, the PIC shall - give the inspector free and uninterrupted access to the flight deck of the aircraft.

10.225 DUTIES DURING CRlTlCAL PHASES OF FLIGHT: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No flight crewmember may perform any duties during a critical phase of flight except those required for the safe operation of the aircraft.

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(b) No PIC may permit a flight crewmember to engage in any activity during a critical phase of flight which could distract or interfere with the performance of their assigned duties.

10.227 FLIGHT DECK COMMUNICATIONS Each required flight crewmember shall use a boom or throat microphone to communicate with each other and air traffic service below the transition area or 10,000 feet, whichever is lower.

10.230 MkNIPULATION OF THE CONTROLS: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No PIC may allow an unqualified person to manipulate the controls of an aircraft during commercial air transport operations.

(b) No person may manipulate the controls of an aircraft during commercial air transport operations unless he or she is qualified to perform the applicable crewmember functions and is authorized by the AOC holder.

10.235 ' SIMULATED ABNORMAL SITUATIONS IN FLIGHT: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

No person may cause or engage' in simulated abnormal or emergency situations or the simulation of IMC by artificial means during commercial air transport operations.

10.238 RESPONSI~ILITY FOR REQUIRED DOCUMENTS

(a) The PIC shall ensurethat all documents required for the specific flight operations by Subsections 10.050, 10.051 andlor 10.055 are carried on board the aircraft.

(b) For all international flights, the PIC shall ensure the completion, safekeeping and delivery of the General Declaration.

10.240 COMPLETION OF AIRCRAFT LOGBOOKS: ALL OPERATIONS

The PIC shall ensure that all appropriate portions of the aircraft journey logbook and aircraft technical logbook, if separate, are completed at the appropriate points before, during and after flight operations.

10.245 REPORTING MECHANICAL IRREGULARITIES

(a) At the termination of the flight, the PIC shall ensure that all known o'r suspected defects discovered in flight are -

(1) for general aviation operations, reported in writing to the operator of the aircraft.; (2) for commercial air transport operations, entered in the aircraft technical log of the aircraft.

(b) No person may allow or participate in the operation of an aircraft unless these defects are properly corrected or deferred in accordance with an approved MEL or manufacturer's technical data prior to the flight.

10.250 REPORTING OF FACILITY AND NAV~GATION AIR INADEQUACIES

Each crewmember shall report, without delay, any inadequacy or irregularity of a facility or navigational aid observed in the course of operations to the person responsible for that facility or navigational aid.

10.255 REPORTING OF HAZARDOUS CONDITIONS

The PIC shall report to the appropriate ATC facility, without delay and with enough detail to be pertinent to the safety of other aircraft, any hazardous flight conditions encountered enroute, including those associated with meteorological conditions.

(a) Air traffic report. The PIC shall submit, without delay, an air traffic incident report whenever an. aircraft in flight has been endangered by -

(1) a near collision with another aircraft or object; (2) faulty air traffic procedures or lack of compliance with applicable procedures by ATC or by

the flight crew; or (3) a failure of ATC facilities.

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(b) Birds. In the event a bird constitutes an in-flight hazard or an actual bird strike the PIC shall, without delay -

(1) inform the appropriate ground station whenever a potential bird hazard is observed; and (2) submit a written bird strike report after landing,

(c) Dangemus Goods. The PIC shall inform the appmpnate ATC facility, if the situation permits, when an in-flight emergency occurs involving dangerous goods on board.

(d) Unlawful Interference. The PIC shall submit a report to the local authorities and to the Authority, without delay, following an act of unlawful interference with the crewmembers on board an aircraft.

(e) Operational Incidents. All crewmembers shall submit a report to the local authorities, if outside Jamaica, and to the Authority, without delay, following any incident that posed a threat, or potentially posed a threat to the safety, welfare and security of the passengers andlor crew on board an aircraft, or to the aircraft itself.

10.285 ACCIDENT NO~FICATION

(a) The PIC shall notify the nearest appropriate authority, by the quickest available means, of any accident involving his or her aircraft that results in serious injury or death of any person, or substantial damage to the aircraft or property.

@) The PIC shall submit a report to the Authority of any accident which occurred while he or she was responsible for the flight.

10.270 OPERATION OF FLIGHT DECK VOICE AND FLIGHT DATA RECORDERS

(a) The PIC shall ensure that whenever an aircraft has flight recorders installed, those recorders are operated continuously from the instant - (,l) for a flight data recorder, the aircraft begins its takeoff roll until it has completed the landing

roll, and (2) for a flight deck voice recorder, the initiation of the pre-start checklist until the end of the

securing aircraft checklist.

(b) The PIC may not permit a flight data recorder or flight deck voice recorder to be disabled, switched off or erased during flight, unless necessary to preserve the data for an accident or incident investigation.

(c) In event of an accident or incident, the PIC shall act to preserve the recorded data for subsequent Investigation.

10.275 CREWMEMBER OXYGEN: MINIMUM SUPPLY AND USE

(a) The PIC shall ensure that breathing oxygen and masks are available to crewmembers in sufficient quanUUes for all flights at such altitudes where a lack of oxygen might result in impairment of the fecultles of crewmembers.

@) In no case shall the minimum supply of oxygen on board the aircraft be less than that prescribed by the Authority.

(Note: The requirements for oxygen supply end use em prescribed in the Seventh Schedule.)

(c) The PIC shall ensure that all flight crewmembers, when engaged in performing duties essential to the safe operation of an aircraft in flight, use breathing oxygen continuously at cabin altitudes exceeding 10,000 ft for a period in excess of 30 minutes and whenever the cabin altitude exceeds 13.000 ft.

(d) One pilot at the controls of a pressurized aircraft in flight shall wear and use an oxygen mask - (1) for general aviation operations, at flight levels above 350, if there is no other pilot at their

duty statlon; (2) for commercial air transport operations, at flight levels above 250, if there is no other pilot at

their duty station and a qulckdonning oxygen mask Is not available; and

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(3) for commercial air transport operations, at flight levels above 410.

10.280 PORTABLE ELECTRONIC DEVICES

No PIC or SCA may permit any person to use, nor may any person use'a portable electronic device on board an aircraft that may adversely affect the performance of aircraft systems and equipment unless--

(1) for IFR operations other than commercial air transport, the PIC allows the use of such a device prior to entering IMC conditions; or i

(2) for commercial air transport operations, the AOC holder makes a determination of , acceptable devices and publishes that information in the Operations Manual for the, crewmembers' use; and

(3) the PIC informs passengers of the permitted use.

(See Appendix 1 to 10.280 for requirements concerning portable elect~unic dehces.)

No person shall load or cause to load any goods on an aircraft which that person knows or ought to know or suspect to be dangerous goods, unless this act is in conformance with the requirements of the Eighteenth Schedule regarding carriage of dangerous goods by air.

SUBPART E: ALL PASSENGER CARRYING OPERATIONS

10.285 APPLICABIL~

(a) This Subpart applies to all passenger-carrying operations in civil aircraft.

(b) Operators of large aircraft and AOC holders are also required to comply with the additional requirements contained in the Thirteenth Schedule.

10.287 UNACCEPTABLE CONDUCT

(a) No person on board may interfere with a crewmember in the performance of his or her duties.

(b) Each passenger shall fasten his or her seat belt and keep it fastened while the seat belt sign is lighted.

(c) No person on board an aircrafl shall recklessly or negligently act or omit to act In such a manner as to endanger the aircraft or persons and property therein.

(d) No person may skrete himself or herself nor secrete cargo on board an aircraft.

(e) No person may smoke on board an aircrafl involved in commercial air transport operations or while the No-Smoking sign is on.

. I

(9 No person may smoke in any aircraft lavatory.

(g) No person may tamper with, disable or destroy any smoke detector installed in any aircraft lavatory. ,

(a) No PIC may allow an aeroplane to be refuelled when passengers are embarking, on board or disembarking unless - . (1) the aircraft is manned by qualified personnel ready to initiate and direct an evacuation; and (2) two-way comrnunicatlon is maintained between the qualified personnel In the aircraft and . .

the ground crew supervising the refuelling.

(See Appendix 1 to 10.290 for specific requirements to refuel aeroplanes with passengers on boanl.)

(b) Helicopters. Unless specifically authorized by the Authority, no person will allow a hellcopbr to be refuelled when -

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(1) passengers are embarking, on board or disembarking; or (2) the rotors are turning.

10.295 PASSENGER SEATS. SAFETY BELTS AND SHOULDER HARNESSES

(a) The PIC shall ensure that each person on onboard occupies an approved seat or berth with their own individual safety belt and shoulder hamess (if installed) properly secured about them during movement on the surface, takeoff and landing.

(b) Each passenger shall have his or her seatbelt securely fastened at any other time the PIC determines it is necessary for safety, especially during turbulence or emergency.

(c) A safety belt provided for the occupant of a seat may not be used during takeoff and landing by more than one person who has .reached his or her second birthday.

(Note: When cabin attendants are required in a commercial air transport operatlon, the PIC may delegate this responsibility, but shall ascertain that the proper briefing has been conductedprior to takeoff.)

(d) Notwithstanding the preceding requirements, a child may - (1) be held by an adult who is occupying an approved seat or berth and the child does not

occupy-or use any restraining device; or (2) occupy an approved child restraint system furnished by the certificate holder or by a parent,

guardian, or attendant designated by the child's parent or guardian to attend to the safety of the child during the flight and the child is accompanied by one of those persons.

(See Appendix 7 to 70.295 for child restraint system requirements.)

(a) The PIC shall ensure that crewmembers and passengers are made familiar, by means of an oral briefing or by other means. with the location and use of the following items, if appropriate--

(1) seat belts; (2) emergency exits; (3) life jackets; (4) oxygen dispensing equipment; and (5) other emergency equipment provided for individual use, including passenger emergency

briefing cards.

(b) The PIC shall ensure that all persons on board are aware of the locations and general manner of use of the principal emergency equipment carried for collective use.

(Note: When cabin attendants are required in a commercial air transport operation, the PIC may delegate this responsibilify, but shall ascertain that the proper bnefing has been condudedprior to takeoff.)

(See Appendix 7 to 70.300 for the contents of the safety briefing for commercial air transport operations. The contents of the briefing shall be included in the pertinent Operations Manual and be designed for the specific operations conducted.)

10.301 CREWMEMBER BRIEFING The PIC shall ensure that, prior to each flight or series of flight segments, the crewmembers of the aircraft are given a pre-flight briefing that meets the requirements of the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 10.301 for the contents of the crewmember briefing for commercial air transport operations.)

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10.305 IN-FLIGHT EMERGENCY INSTRUCTION

In an emergency during flight, the PIC shall ensure. that all persons on board are instructed in such emergency action as may be appropriate to the circumstances.

(See Appendix 1 to 10.305 for the contents of the In-flight Emergency lnstmction for commercial air transpod operations.)

(Note: When cabin attendants are required in a commercial air transpod operation, the PIC may delegate this responsibility, but shall ascertain that the proper briefing has been conducted.)

(a) The PIC shall ensure that breathing oxygen and masks are available to passengers in sufficient quantities for all flights at such altitudes where a lack of oxygen might harmfully affect passengers.

(b) The PIC shall ensure that the minimum supply of oxygen prescribed by the Authority is on board the aircraft.

(Note: The requirements for oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus are prescribed in the Seventh Schedule)

(c) The PIC shall require all passengers to use oxygen continuously at cabin pressure altitudes above 13.000 feet.

No person may permit the boarding or serving of any person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates, by manner or physical indications, that that person is under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care.

10.316 EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT: INTERFERENCE WITH AIRCRAFT EQUIPMENT

No person shall interfere with or block access to stowed emergency equipment on board any aircraft.

(a) No person shall use the lavatory for stowage of waste material in a passenger carrying aircraft unless the waste consists of "low density material" which is stored in heavy duty transparent or fire containment bags. For the purpose of this Schedule, "eligible inflight wask material" which meets the low density criteria are items such as stvrofoam. plastic cups and glasses. empty cans. foil meal frays, foii meal coverings, paper napkins, plastic cutlery and cutl;ry mappings; food wrappings, empty plastic water and soda bottles, used newspapers (not bundled) and other passenger paper waste material generated during flight.

(b) Disposable in-flight service waste bags may be u$ed for the stowage of eligible low density waste material in aircraft lavatories under the following circumstances -

(1) Fllght Attendant(s) must verify the content of each disposable in-fllght service waste bag prior to placement in the lavatory to ensure the contents are in an acceptable state (i.8. no smoldering material);

(2) only lavatories next to Flight Attendant stations can be used for thls purpose; (3) disposable in-flight service waste bag(s) islare stowed in a lavatory only after all other

means of stowage have been utilized. The stowage of the bag in the lavatory Is done during the final phase of flight; that is, after the "Fasten Seat Beltw slgn has been illuminated to indicate descent in preparation for landing;

(4) the disposable in-flight service waste bag or combination of bags, must not surpass the height of the lavatory sink;

(5) the lavatory door is properly closed and locked to prevent passenger access; (6) the lavatory:

(i) has an operational smoke detector, (ii) has an operative door locklng mechanism;

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(iii) can be locked and unlocked externally; and (N) is not used for the stowage of any other items such as crew bags, headset

containers, linen or other fabric items, glass, galley rotables such as carafes, bundled newspapers, or carry-on baggage; and

(7) disposable in-flight service waste bags that were stowed in lavatory(ies) prior to landing must be removed from the aircraft after each landing

(c) The air operator shall establish procedures in its Flight Attendant Manual, Operations Manual and Flight Attendant training programme covering the requirements specified in paragraph (b) of this Subsection.

SUBPART F: FLIGHT PLANS

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this Subsection, a pilot shall file a v F ~ or IFR flight plan, as applicable, prior to operating one of the following -

(1) any flight (or portion thereof) to be provided with air traffic control service; (2) any flight to be conducted under IFR or in IMC; (3) any flight to be conducted under VFR that will be flown more than 25nm from the departure

point; (4) any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by

the appropriate ATC authority to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and search and rescue services;

(5) any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by the appropriate ATC authority to facilitate co-ordination with appropriate military units or with ATC facilities in adjacent states in order to avoid the possible need for interception for the purpose of identification; and

(6) any flight across international borders.

(b) The PIC shall submit a flight plan before departure or during flight, to the appropriate ATC facility, unless arrangements have been made for submission of repetitive flight plans.

(c) Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATC authority, a pilot should submit a flight plan to the appropriate ATC facility -

(1) at least sixty minutes before departure; or (2) if submitted during flight, at a time which will ensure its receipt by the appropriate ATC

facility at least ten minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach - (i) the intended point of entry into a control area or advisory area; or (ii) the point of crossing an airway or advisory route.

No person may take off an aircraft in commercial air transport if an ATC flight plan has not been filed, except as authorized by the Authority.

10.335 CONTENTS OF A FLIGHT PLAN Each person filing an IFR or VFR flight plan shall include in it the following information -

(1) aircraft identification; (2) flight rules and type of flight; (3) number and type(s) of aircraft and wake turbulence category; (4) equipment; (5) departure aerodrome and alternate (if required); (6) estimated off-block time; (7) cruising speed(s); (8) cruising level(s);

- - - --



(9) route to be followed; (10) destination aerodrome and alternate (if required); (1 1) fuel endurance; (12) total number of persons on board; (13) emergency and survival equipment; and (14) other information.

(Note: Whatever the purpose for which it is submitted, a flight plan shall contain information, as applicable, on relevant items up to and including "alternate aerodrome(s)" regarding the whole route or the portion thereof for which the flight plan is submitted.)

(a) If during flight planning a person determines that there is a possibility, depending on fuel endurance, that a flight may be able to change destinations and still comply with minimum fuel Wpply planning requirements, that person shall notify the appropriate ATC facility of this possibility when the flight plan is submitted.

(Note: The intent of this provision is to facilitete a new cleemnce to a revised destination, normally beyond the filed destination aerodrome).

(b) An AOC holder shall submit all pre-planned reclearance rationale to the Authority for approval in accordance with Twelfth Schedule.

(a) When a change is required to a flight plan submitted for an IFR flight or a VFR flight operated as a controlled flight, the pilot or the person responsible for operational control shall, if possible, coordinate the change with ATC prior to executing the change. In cases where this is not possible. the change shall be reported as soon as practicable to the appropriate ATC facility.

(b) For VFR flights other than those operated as controlled flight, the PIC shall report significant changes to a flight plan as soon as practicable to the appropriate ATC facility.

(Note: Information submitted prior to departure regarding fuel endurance or total number of persons canied on board, i f incorrect at time of departure, constitutes a slgniflcant change and shall be reported.)

(a) The PIC shall make a report of arrival either in person or by radio to the appropriate ATC facility at h e earliest possible moment after landing at the destination aerodrome, unless ATC automatically closes a flight plan.

(b) When a flight plan has been submitted for a portion of a flight, but not the arrival at destination, the pllot shall close that flight plan enroute with the appropriate ATC facility.

(c) When no ATC facility exists at the arrival aerodrome, the pilot shall contact the nearest ATC facllity to close the flight plan as soon as practicable after landing and by the qulckest means available.

(d) Pilots shall Include the following elements of information In their arrival reports- (1) aircraft identification; (2) departure aerodrome:

. (3) destination aerodrome (only in the case of a diverslonary landing); (4) arrival aerodrome; and (5) time of arrival.

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SUBPART G: FLIGHT PLANNING AND PREPARATION

The PIC may not commence a flight in a civil aircraft in flight until satisfied that - (1) the aircraft is airworthy, duly registered and the appropriate certificates are aboard the

aircraft; (2) the instruments and equipment installed in the aircraft are appropriate, taking into account

the expected flight condit~ons; and (3) any necessary maintenance has been performed and a Certificate of Release to Service, if

applicable, has been issued in respect to the aircraft.

10.360 ADEQUACY OF OPERATING FACILITIES

(a) No person may commence a flight unless it has been determined by every reasonable means available that the ground andlor water areas and facilities available and directly required for such flight and for the safe operation of the aircraft, are adequate. including communication facilities and navigation aids.

(Note: Reasonable means" denotes use, at the point of depafiure, of information available to the PIC either through official information published by the aeronautical information services or readily obtainable in other sources.)

(b) No person may commence a flight unless it has been determined by every reasonable means available that all takeoff, destination and alternate aerodromes are continuously available for flight operations during their published hours of operations, irrespective of weather conditions.

10.362 SELECTION OF VFR LANDMARKS

No person may commence a flight under VFR that will depart Jamaica unless - (1) it has been determined that the flight can be conducted by visual reference to landmarks

spaced no greater than 110 km (60 nautical miles) apart; or (2) the PIC holds a pilot licence endorsed with an IR or has satisfactorily demonstrated to the

Authority in the preceding 24 months, the ability to maintain a navigation track through the use of navigation aids or GPS, and carries the results of that demonstration at all times

- during such flights.

(a) Before commencing a flight, the PIC shall be familiar with all available meteorological information appropriate to the intended flight.

(b) The PIC shall include, during preparation for a flight away from the vicinity of the place of departure and for every flight under instrument flight mles -

(1) a study of available current weather reports and forecasts; and (2) the planning of an alternative course of action to provide for the eventuality that the flight

cannot be completed as planned because of weather conditions.

10.370 WEATHER LlMrrATlONS FOR VFR FLIGHTS

No person may commence a flight to be conducted in accordance with VFR unless available current meteorological reports, or a combination of current reports and forecasts, indicate that the meteorological conditions along the route, or that part of the route to be flown under VFR, will, at the appropriate time, allow VFR operations.

10.375 IFR DESTINATION AERODROMES For IFR flight planning purposes, no person may commence an IFR flight unless the available information indicates that the weather conditions at the aerodrome of intended landing and, if required, at least one suitable alternate at the estimated time of arrival, will be at or above the -

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(1) mlnimum ceiling and visibility values for the standard instrument approach procedure to be used; or

(2) minimum operating altitude, if no instrument approach procedure is to be used, that would allow a VMC descent to the aerodrome.

(Note: A partial exception is granted for commercial air transport IFR flight planning, to the effect that the weather at the destination does not have to be at or above the approach minima to release and commence a flight, as long as the designated alternate aerodrome meets the IFR weather selection criteria.)

10.380 IFR DESTINATION ALTERNATE REQUIREMENT

(a) No person may commence an IFR flight in an aircraft without at least one destination alternate aerodrome listed in the flight plan unless -

(1) there is a standard instrument approach procedure prescribed for the aerodrome of intended landing by the jurisdictional authorities;

(2) the aerodrome of intended landing is isolated and there is no suitable destination alternate aerodrome;

(3) the aerodrome of intended landing is located no longer than 6 hours flying time from the last point of departure; and

(4) available current rneteorological information indicates that the following meteorological conditions will exist at the aerodrome of intended landina from two hours before to two - hours after the estimated time of arrival - (i) a cloud base of at least 300 meters (1.000 feet) above the minimum associated with

the instrument approach procedure; and (ii) visibility of at least 5.5 km (3.4 sm) or of 4 km (2.5 sm) more than the minimum

associated with the procedure.

(b) The ceiling and visibility requirements of paragraph (a) of this Subsection may be reduced upon approval of the Authority for -

(1) helicopters; or (2) commercial air transport where no suitable destination alternate exists.

10.385 IFR ALTERNATE AERODROME SELECTION CRITERIA

(a) If altemate minimums are published, no PIC may designate an alternate aerodrome in an IFR flight plan unless the current available forecast indicates that the rneteorological conditions at that alternate at the ETA will be at or above those published alternate minimums.

(b) If alternate minimums are not published, and if there is no prohibition against using the aerodrome as an IFR planning alternate, each PIC shall ensure that the rneteorological conditions at that alternate at the ETA will be at or above-

(1) for a precision approach procedure, a ceiling of at least 600 feet and visibility of not less than 2 statue miles; or

(2) for a non-precision approach procedure, a ceiling of at least 800 feet and visibility of not less than 2 statute miles.

10.390 OFFSHORE ALTERNATES FOR HELICOPTER OPERATIONS

(a) No person may designate an offshore alternate landing site when it is possible to carry enough fuel to have an on-shore alternate landing site.

(Note: The selection of offshore alternates should be exceptional cases, the details of which have been approved by the Authority, and should not include payload enhancement in IMC.)

(b) Each person selecting an off-shore alternate landing site shall consider the following: (1) until the point of no return, using an on-shore alternate. The offshore altemate may be

used only after a point of no return.



(2) attaining one engine inoperative performance capability prior to arrival at the alternate. (3) guaranteeing helideck availability. (4) the weather information at the helideck shall be available from a source approved by the

Authority. (5) for IFR operations, an instrument approach procedure shall be prescribed and available.

(Note: The landing technique specified in the flight manual following control system failure may preclude the selection of certain helidecks as alternate aerodromes. The mechanical reliability of critical control systems shall be taken into account when determining the suitability and necessity for an offshore alternate.)

10.395 TAKEOFF ALTERNATE AERODROMES: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT OPERATIONS

(a) No person may commence a flight without a suitable takeoff alternate specified in the flight release if it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome of departure.

(b) Each operator shall ensure that each takeoff alternate specified shall be located within - (1) for two-engine aircraft, one hour flight time at single-engine cruise speed; or (2) for three or four-engine aircraft, two hours flight time at one engine out cruise speed.

(Note: All calculations are based on the one-engine-inoperative cruising speed according to the AFM in still air conditions based on the actual takeoff mass.)

10.400 MAXIMUM DISTANCE FROM AN ADEQUATE AERODROME WITHOUT AN ETOPS APPROVAL

Unless specifically approved by the Authority (ETOPS Approval), an AOC holder shall not operate a twln-engine aeroplane over a route that contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome than, in the case of -

(1) turbine engine powered aeroplanes conducting commercial air transport operations, the distance flown in 60 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed determined in - . . accordance with appendix 1 lo 10.400; or

(2) reciprocating engine powered aeroplanes conducting commercial air transport operations-

(i) the distance flown in 60 minutes at the one-engine-inoperative cruise speed determined in accordance with Appendix 1 to 10.400: or

(ii) 300 nautical miles, whichever is less.

(See Appendix 1 to 10.400 for the determination of diversion speeds.)

10.405 EXTENDED RANGE OPERATIONS WITH TWIN-ENGINED AEROPLANES

(a) No person may conduct operations beyond the threshold distance determined in accordance with Subsection 10.400 unless approved to do so by the Authority.

(b) Prior to commencing an ETOPS flight, the persons exercising operational control shall ensure that a suitable ETOPS enroute alternate is available, within either the approved diversion time or a diversion time based on MEL generated serviceability status of the aeroplane, whichever is shbrter.

10.410 ENROUTE ALTERNATE AERODROMES: ETOPS OPERATIONS

(a) The PIC shall ensure that the required enroute alternates for ETOPS are selected and specified in ATC flight plans in accordance with the ETOPS diversion time approved by thv Authority.

(b) No person shall select an aerodrome as an ETOPS enroute alternate aerodrome unless the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that during a period commencing 1 hour before and ending 1 hour after the expected time of arrival at the aerodrome. the weather conditions will be at or above the planning minima prescribed by the Authority and in accordance with the operator's ETOPS approval.

(See Appendix 1 to 10.410 for the ETOPS alternate planning chart.)



10.415 FUEL, OIL AND OXYGEN PLANNING AND CONTINGENCY FACTORS

(a) No person may commence aflight unless he or she takesinto account the fuel, oil and oxygen needed to ensure the safe completion of the flight, including any reserves to be carried for contingencies.

(b) Each person computing the required minimum fuel supply shall ensure that additional fuel, oil and oxygen are carried to provide for the increased consumption that would result from any of the following contingencies -

(1) expected winds or other meteorological conditions: (2) possible variations in ATC routings; (3) anticipated traffic delays; (4) a complete instrument approach procedure and possible missed approach at destination; (5) loss of pressurisation enroute; (6) loss of one power-unit enroute; and (7) any other conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft or increase fuel and oil

consumption.

10.420 MINIMUM FUEL SUPPLY FOR VFR FLIGHTS

(a) No person may commence a flight in an aeroplane under VFR unless, considering the wind and forecast weather conditions, there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, for at least 45 minutes thereafter.

(b) No person may commence a flight in a helicopter under VFR unless, considering the wind and forecast weather conditions, there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed -

(1) for 20 minutes thereafter; or (2) for international flights, for at least an additional 10% of the total flight time calculated.

10.425 MINIMUM FUEL SUPPLY FOR IFR FLIGHTS

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this Subsection, no person may commence a flight under IFR unless there is enough fuel supply, considering weather reports and forecasts, to -

(1) fly to the first point of intended landing and execute an instrument approach; execute a missed approach and fly from that aerodrome to the most critical (in terms of fuel consumption) alternate aerodrome, if required; and (2) fly thereafter at normal cruising speed -

(i) in a propeller-driven aeroplane, for 45 minutes plus 15 per cent of the flight time planned to be spent at cruising level. or two hours, whichever is less;

(ii) in a rotorcraft, turbojet or turbofan aeroplane - (A) for 30 minutes in a holding pattern at 450 meters (1.500 ft) above the alternate

aerodrome under standard temperature conditions and approach and land, plus a reserve for contingencies specified by the operator and approved by the Authority; or

(0) for 30 minutes in a holding pattern at 450 meters (1,500 ft) above the alternate aerodrome, due provision having been made for an additional amount of fuel sufficient to ~r0vide for the increased consumDtion on the occurrence of any of the potentiai contingencies specified by the operator provided that the fuel shall not be less than the amount of fuel rewired to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned and thereafter for two'houn at normal cruise consumption.

(b) No person may commence a flight under IFR when an alternate is not required unless there is enough fuel supply, considering weather reports and forecasts, to -

(1) fly to the point of intended landing and execute an instrument approach; (2) execute a missed approach and fly thereafter -

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(i) if the destination aerodrome weather meets h e requirements specified in Subsection 1 O.38O(a)(4) - (A) in a propeller-driven airplane, for 45 minutes; or (B) in a rotorcraft, turbojet or turbofan airplane for 30 minutes in a holding pattern at

450m (1,500 fl) above the aerodrome under standard temperature conditions and to have an additional amount of fuel, sufficient to provide for any other foreseeable conditions as specified by the operator and approved by the Authority; or

(ii) if the destination aerodrome is isolated and there is no suitable alternate destination - (A) in a propeller-driven airplane, for 45 minutes plus 15 per cent of the flight time

planned to be spent at cruising level(s), or two hours, whichever is less; or (B) in a rotorcraft, turbojet or turbofan airplane for a period of 2 hours at normal

cruise consumption.

(a) No person may commence a flight unless all loads carried are properly distributed and safely secured, taking into consideration the effect of the mass on centre of gravity and floor loading limitations.

(b) No person may commence a flight unless the calculations for the mass of the aircraft and centre of gravity location indicate that the flight can be conducted safely and in accordance with the aircraft limitations, taking into account the flight conditions expected.

(Note: When load masters, load planners or other qualified personnel are provided by the AOC holder in a commercial air transport operation, the PIC may delegate these res~onsibilities. but shall ascertain that proper loading p&cedures are follow&.)

-

(c) Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, the computations for the mass and balance shall be based on the AFM or RFM method for determination of the CG and the mass values used for these computations shall be based on the -

(1) aircraft empty mass derived through a periodic weighing of the aircraft; (2) actual mass of the required crew, their equipment and baggage; (3) actual mass of the passengers, their baggage and cargo; and (4) actual mass of the usable fuel boarded.

(d) For commercial air bans~ort operations. no person mav commence a fliaht unless these mass and . . balance computations are accomplished by qualified and are inconformance with the additional mass and balance requirements of the Seventeenth Schedule for AOC holders.

10.435 AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE AND OPERATING LIM~TATIONS

(a) The detailed and comprehensive performance code acceptable to the State of Registry pursuant to the Seventeenth Schedule. Subpart B. shall be the basis for any determination of aircraft performance.

(b) No person may commence a flight unless the calculations for the performance of the aircraft in all phases of flight indicate that the flight can be conducted safely and in accordance with the aircraft's designed performance limitations for any operation, taking into account the flight conditions expected.

(Note: When applying performance data, each person performing calculations shall account for the aircrafi configuration, environmental conditions and the operation of any system or systems that may have an adverse effect on penbrmance.)

(c) No person may commence a flight that, given the aircraft's mass and assuming normal engine operation, cannot safely clear all obstacles during all phases of flight, including all points along the intended enroute path or any planned diversions.



(d) No person may commence a flight without ensucing that the maximum allowable mass for a flight does not exceed the maximum allowable takeoff or landing mass or any applicable enroute performance or landing distance limitation considering the -

(1) condition of the takeoff and landing areas to be used; (2) gradient of runway to be used (landplanes only); (3) pressure altitude; (4) . ambient temperature; (5) current and forecast winds; and (6) any known conditions (e.g.. atmospheric and aircraft configuration), such as density

altitude, which may adversely affect performance.

(e) For commercial air transport operations, no person may commence a flight unless the performance computations are accomplished by qualified persons and are in conformance with the additional performance requirements of the Seventeenth Schedule for AOC holders.

10.440 FLIGHT RELEASE REQUIRED: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No person may commence a flight under a flight following system without specific authorization from the person authorized by the AOC holder to exercise operational control over the flight.

(b) No person may commence a passenger-carrying flight in commercial air transport, unless a qualified person authorized by the AOC holder to perform operational control functions has issued a flight release for that specific operation or series of operations.

(a) No person may commence a flight unless the OFP has been signed by the PIC and, where the OFP has been prepared by a person responsible for operational control, by that person.

(b) A PIC shall sign the OFP only when the PIC and the person authorized by the operator to exercise operational control have determined that the flight can be safely completed.

(Note: The operational night plan shall include the routing and fuel calculations, with respect to the meteorological and other factors expected, to complete the flight to the destination and all required atternates.)

(c) The PIC signing the OFP shall have access to the applicable flight planning information for fuel supply, destination and alternate aerodromes, weather reports and forecasts and NOTAMs for the routing and destination and any alternate aerodromes.

(d) No person may continue a flight from an intermediate aerodrome without a new OFP if the aircraft has been on the ground more than 4 hours.

(See Appendix 1 to 10.445 for OFP requirements.)

10.450 FLIGHT PLANNING DOCUMENT DISTRIBUTION AND RETENTION: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) For commercial air transport operations, the PIC shall complete or review and sign the flight release form before commencing a flight indicating that helshe is satisfied with-

(I) the OFP, including NOTAMs and weather pertinent to the flight planning decisions regarding minimum fuel supply, enroute performance and destination and alternate aerodromes;

(2) the load manifest, showing the distribution of the load, centre of gravity, takeoff and landing mass and compliance with maximum operating mass limitations, and performance analysis;

(3) the applicable aircraft technical log page, if mechanical irregularities were entered efter a previous flight, maintenance or inspection functions were performed or a maintenance release was issued at the de~arture aerodrome:

(4) that the instruments andequipment prescribed for the particular type of operation to be undertaken, are installed and sufficient for the flight;

(5) that the load is safely secured;,and



(6) that a check has been completed indicating that the operating limitations for the aircraft in use can be complied with for the flight.

(b) No person may take off an aircraft unless a copy of all flight preparation documents, signed by the PIC, are retained and available with a company representative at the point of departure, unless a different retention method has been approved by the Authority.

(c) The PIC shall cany a copy of the documents specified in paragraph (a) of this Subsection on the aircraft to the destination aerodrome.

(d) These documents will be retained by the AOC holder for at least 3 monfhs

(Note: These documents are in addition to those specified in Subpari 8 for all aircraft operations.)

(Note: The Authority may approve a different retention location where aN documents can be available for subsequent review.)

SUBPART H: FLIGHT RULES FOR ALL OPERATIONS

(a) The flight rules of this Subpart are applicable in the airspace of Jamaica.

(b) The holders of airman licences issued by Jamaica will comply with these rules when flying outside Jamaica, except where these rules may differ with the other State, in which case compliance with the rules of the State being overflown is required.

(a) .Jamaican airspace consists of controlled and uncontrolled airspace.

(b) Controlled airspace consists of the following types of airspace - (1) upper control areas; (2) control areas; (3) terminal control areas; ,

(4) control zones; (5) high level ATS routes; (6) low level ATS routes; (7) prohibited areas; (8) danger areas; (9) restricted areas; and (10) warning areas.

(c) Uncontrolled airspace consists of the following types'of airspace - (1) restricted areas; (2) danger areas; (3) waming'areas; and (4) prohibited areas.

(d) The horizontal and vertical limits of any airspace of a type referred to in paragraph (a) or (b) of this Subsection shall be as specified in the AIP, Jamaica, or by NOTAM.

(e) The geographical locations and the horizontal and vertical limits of the following areas, zones, regions and points are as specified in the AIP, Jamaica or by NOTAM -

(1) altimeter setting regions; (2) standard pressure regions; (3) mountainous regions; (4) holding points; (5) reporting points; (6) intersections control towers; and



(7) flight information regions.

10.472 AIRSPACE CLASSIFICATION AND OPERATING RULES

(a) The class of any controlled airspace of a type referred to in Subsection 10.470 (a) shall be one of the following, as specified in the AIP Jamaica -

(1) Class A in which only IFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic conbol service and are separated from each other;

(2) Class B in which IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to alr traffic control services and are separated from each other;

(3) Class C in which IFR and VFR flights are permitted and - i all fliahts are subiect to air traffic control services: . , (ii) IFR flights are sebarated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights; and (iii) VFR flights are separated from IFR flight and receive traffic information in r e s m of . .

the other VFR flights; -

(4) Class D in which - (i) IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control

services; (ii) IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in

respect of the VFR flights; and (iii) VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all other flights;

(5) Class E in which - (i) IFR and VFR flights are permitted; (ii) IFR flights are subject to air traffic control service and are separated from other IFR

flights; and (iii) all flights receive traffic information as far as is practical; .

(6) Class F: Special Use Restricted; or (7) Class F: Special Use Advisory.

(b) The class of any uncontrolled airspace of a type referred to in Subsection 10.470 (a) shall be one of the following specified in the AIP, Jamaica -

( I ) Class F: Special Use Restricted; (2) Class F: Special Use Advisory; or (3) Class G: VFR flights only are permitted.

(c) Transponder airspace consists of - (1) all Class A, 13 and C airspace; and (2) any Class D or E airspace specified as transponder alrspace in the AIP Jemelce.

(d) The procedures for the operation of aircraft in Class F: Special Use Restricted airspace and Class F: Special Use Advisory airspace are those specified in the AIP, Jamaica or by NOTAM.

(e) A person shall not operate an aircraft in Class F Special Use Restricted airspace unless authorired to do so by the person specified for that purpose in the AIP Jemeice.

(f) For the purposes of paragraph (b), a person specified in the AIP, Jamaica may authorire the operation of an aircraft where activities on the ground or in the airspace are not hazardous to aircraft operating in that airspace and access by aircraft to that airspace does not j e o p a d i the interests of defence or public safety.

10.475 COMPLIANCE WITH LOCAL REGULATIONS

(a) All pilots shall be familiar with the laws, regulations and procedures pertinent to the performance of their duties, prescribed for the -

( I ) areas to be traversed, (2) the aerodromes to be used; and

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(3) the air navigation facilities relating to them. (b) All other members of the crew shall be familiar with the laws, regulations and procedures as are

pertinent to the performance of their respective duties in the operation of the aircraft.

10.478 OPERATION OF A~RCRAFT ON THE GROUND

(a) No person may taxi an aircraft on the movement area of an aerodrome unless the person at the controls--

(1) has been authorized by the owner, the lessee or a designated agent; (2) is fully competent to taxi the aircraft; (3) Is qualified to use the radio if radio communications are required; and (4) has received instruction from a competent person in respect of aerodrome layout, and

where appropriate, information on routes, signs, marking, lights. ATC signals and instructions, phraseology and procedures, and is able to conform to the operational standards required for safe aircraft movement at the aerodrome.

(b) No person shall cause a helicopter rotor to be turned under power unless there is a qualified pilot at the controls.

10.480 NIGHT OPERATIONS

No person may operate the following aircraft at night within the airspace of Jamaica- (1) gliders,,or (2) free balloons.

10.481 SINGLE PILOT OPERATIONS IN IFR AND/OR AT NIGHT

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this Subsection, no person may operate an aircraft in commercial operations under IFR or at night with a single pilot.

(b) Single pilot operations in commercial operations under IFR or at night may be approved by the Authority provided -

(1) the flight manual does not require a flight crew of more than one; (2) the aircraft is propellerdriven; (3) the maximum approved passenger seating configuration is not more than nine; (4) the maximum certificated takeoff mass does not exceed 5,700 kilograms (12.500 pounds); (5) the aeroplane is equipped as required in the Seventh Schedule, Subpart B for IFR and

night operations; (6) the pilot meets the following experience and recency requirements -

(i) has met the instrument, cross country and night experience requirements for an ATPL;

(See the EigMh Schedule. Appendix 1 to 8.275 for these requirements.)

(ii) has met the day, night and IFR currency requirements, as applicable, as specified in this Schedule in the class of aircraft flown;

(See Subsections 10.105 and 10.110 for these requirements.)

(7) the pilot has received training, in addition to the training required by the Fourteenth Schedule, with respect to emergency evacuation, autopilot management and the use of slmpllfied inflight documentation;

(8) the pilot has met the route and aerodrome qualification requirements specified in the Fourteenth Schedule. Subsection 14.160; and

(9) the pllot has passed a pllot proficiency check within the preceding 6 months as the only plot Involved in operating the aircraft.

(See Subsection 10.71 8 for additional requirements associated with single-engine IFRhight opemtions.)

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(Note: AOC holders will be issued an Operations Specification auihorizing single pilot IFR and/or night operations.)

10.482 PRE-TAKEOFF INSPECTIONS

No person may take off an aircraft unless they have completed an inspection of the aircraft, in accordance with a published checklist, of the -

(1) exterior for airworthiness, including the quantity and quality of the fuel onboard; (2) passenger cabin readiness and required equipment; (3) interior flight deck equipment. instruments and documents on the aircraft; and (4) pre-takeoff setup of the flight deck instruments and controls.

10.484 TAKEOFF AND LANDING

(a) No person shall cause an aircraft to take off or land at an aerodrome or heliport within Jamaica that is not licensed by the Government or, unless permission for use has been received, a non- licensed airport, if the purpose of the flight operation is -

(1) commercial air transport with passengers; (2) flight instruction; or (3) solo flight by a student pilot.

(b) No person shall cause an aircraft to take off or land at an aerodrome or heliport at night within Jamaica for the purpose of commercial air transport carrying passengers, unless there is adequate lighting to-

(1) determine the landing direction, and (2) make a safe approach and landing.

(c) No person shall cause an aircraft to take off or land at an aerodrome or heliport within Jamaica for the purpose of commercial air transport carrying passengers, unless there is -

(1) for aircraft certificated with a passenger capacity of 20 or more passengers, current runway analysis for obstacle clearance and stopping distance; and

(2) established communications with a qualified person on the surface, or by some other means suitable to the Authority, to determine the - (i) prevailing approach and landing conditions; and (ii) status of runway surface.

10.485 T &€OFF CONDITIONS

(a) No person may take off an aircraft, unless - (1) according to the available information, the weather at the aerodrome and the condition of

the runway intended to be used will allow for a safe takeoff and departure; and (2) the RVR or visibility in the takeoff direction of the aircraft is equal to or better than the

applicable minimum.

(b) No person may take off an aircraft unless, in determining the length of the runway required and available, the loss, if any, of runway length due to alignment of the aeroplane prior to takeoff has been determined.

(a) No person may use a different departure procedure at an aerodrome where a noise abatement departure is applicable to the aircraft, unless this action would not be considered safe or practical considering the existing conditions or performance limitations.

(b) Unless otherwise required by special circumstances at an aerodrome, each person shall use, for any one aircraft type, the same noise abatement procedure and profiles at all aerodromes.

(c) No person may take off or land an aircraft at a mass that exceeds the maximum demonstrated for that aircraft to comply with the noise certification standards, unless authorized by the competent

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authority of Me State for a specific aerodrome or runway where there is no noise disturbance problem.

(a) No person may take off an aircrafl or continue to operate an aircrafl enroute when icing conditions are expected or encountered, without ensuring that the aircraft is certified for icing operations and has sqcient operational de-icing or anti-icing equipment.

(b) No person may take off an aircrafl when frost, ice or snow is adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets or other critical surfaces of the aircraft, which might adversely affect the performance, or controllability of the aircraft.

(c) For commercial air transport operations, no person may take off an aircraft when conditions are such that frost, ice or snow may reasonably be expected to adhere to the aircraft, unless the procedures approved for the AOC holder by the Authority are followed to ensure ground de-icing and anti-icing is accomplished.

10.483 k R C W OPERATING LIMITATIONS No person may operate a civil aircrafl within or over Jamaica without complying with the terms of its certfficate of airworthiness, the operating limitations specified in the approved AFM or RFM, markings and placards, or as otherwise prescribed by the certifying authority for the State of Registry.

Each person operating an aircrafl shall maintain the cruising altitude or flight level by reference to an altimeter set -

(1) below the applicable transition altitude for the area being flown to - (i) the current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100

nautical miles of the aircraft; (ii) the current reported altimeter setting of a nearby station, if there is not a station along

the route; or (iii) in the case of an aircrafl not equipped with a radio, the elevation of the departure

aerodrome or an appropriate altimeter setting available before departure; or

(2) at or above the applicable transition altitude for the area being flown to 29.92" Hg (1013.2 mb).

(See Appendix 1 to 10.495 for a table to deternine the lowest usable flight level for reglons using 18,000 feet as the transition altitude.)

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this Subsection or when necessary for takeoff or landing. no person may operate an aircraft below the following altitudes:

(1) Anywhere. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, continuation of flight or an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

(2) Over congested areas. Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement, or over any open-air assembly of persons, an altitude of 300m (1,000 feet) above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 600m (2,000 feet) of the aircraft.

(3) Over other than congested areas. An altitude of 150m (500 feet) above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas where the aircraft may not be operated closer than 150m (500 feet) to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure.

(4) Helicopters. Pilots of helicopters are not subject to the proximity restrictions provided they are operated in a manner that is not hazardous to persons and property on the surface. The PIC of a helicopter shall comply with any routes or altitudes for the area that are prescribed for helicopters by the Authority.

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(b) Paragraph (a) (3) of this Subsection does not apply to any aircraft when it is flying under or in accordance with the terms of an Aerial Work Operator Certificate.

10.505 MINIMUM SAFE VFR ALllllJDES: COMMERCIAL AIRTRANSPORT OPERATIONS

(a) No person may operate an aeroplane in commercial air transport during the day, under VFR, at an altitude less than 300 meters (1,000 feet) above the surface or within 300 meters (1;000 feet) feet of any mountain, hill or other obstruction to flight.

(b) No person may operate an aeroplane in commercial air transport at night, under VFR, at an altitude less than -

(1) 300 meters (f.000 feet) above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of five miles from the centre of the intended course; or

(2) In designated mountainous areas, less than 600 meters (2.000 feet) feet above the hlghest obstacle within a horizontal distance of five miles from the centre of the intended course.

(a) Subject to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this Subsection, a person shall not operate an aircraft below 3,000 meters (10,000 feet) ASL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots.

(b) Subject to paragraphs (c) and (d) of this Subsection, a person shall not operate an aircraft below 900 meters (3,000 feet) AGL within 10 nautical miles of a controlled airport at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 knots unless authorized to do so in an air traffic control clearance.

(c) A person may operate an aircraft at an indicated airspeed greater than the airspeeds referred to in paragraphs (a) and (b) of this Subsection, where the aircrafl is being operated within Class "C" airspace and the airspeed has been authorized by the responsible air traffic control unit.

(d) Where the minimum safe airspeed for the flight configuration of an aircrafl is greater than the alrsoeed referred to in oaraaraoh la l and (bl of this Subsection, the PIC shall advise the responsible air traffic c'ontr4 unit &ich shali authorize the PIC to operate the aircraft at the minimum safe speed advised by the PIC.

(e) No person shall operate an aircraft in an assigned holding pattern at a speed greater than 210 knots unless authorized by ATC.

10.510 INSTRUMENT APPROACH OPERATING MINIMA No person may operate to or from an aerodrome using operating minima lower than those which may be established for that aerodrome by the State in which it is located, unless that State specifically approves that operation.

10.515 DIVERSION DECISION

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this Subsection, the PIC shall land the aircraft at the nearest suitable aerodrome atwhich a safe landing can be made whenever an engine of an aircraft fails or is shut down to prevent possible damage.

(b) If not more than one engine of an aeroplane having three or more engines fails, or its rotation is . stopped. the PIC may proceed to an aerodrome if he or she decides that proceeding to that aerodrome is as safe as landing at the nearest suitable aerodrome after considering the -

(1) nature of the malfunction and the possible mechanical difficulties that may occur if flight is continued;

(2) altitude, mass and usable fuel at the time of engine stoppage; (3) weather conditions enroute and at possible landing points; (4) air traffic congestion; (5) kind of terrain; and (6) -familiarity with the aerodrome to be used.

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10.520 OPERATING NEAR OTHER AIRCRAFT

(a) No person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard.

(b) No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight except by arrangement with the PIC of each aircraft in the formation.

(c) No person may operate an aircraft carrying passengers for hire in formation flight.

10.525 RIGHT-OF-WAY RULES: EXCEPT WATER OPERATIONS

General.

( 1 each pilot shall maintain vig'ilance so as to see and avoid other aircraft; and (2) when a rule of this Subsection gives another aircraft the right-of-way, the pilot shall give

way to that aircraft and may not pass over. under or ahead of it unless well clear.

In distress. An aircraft in distress has the right-of-way over all other air traffic.

Converging

(1) when aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (except head-on or nearly so), the aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way.

(2) if the converging aircraft are of different categories-

(i) a balloon has the right-of-way over any other category of aircraft; (ii) a glider has the right-of-way over an airship, aeroplane or rotorcraft; and (iii) an airship has the right-of-way over an aeroplane or rotorcraft.

Towing or refuelling. An aircraft towing or refuelling other aircraft has the right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft, except aircraft in distress.

Approaching head-on. When aircraft are approaching each other head-on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the right.

Overtaking. Each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right to pass well clear.

Landing. Aircraft, while on final approach to land or while landing, have the right-of-way over other aircraft in flight or operating on the surface.

(Note: The PIC may not take advantage of this rule to force an aircraft off the runway suflace which has already landed and is attempting to make way for an aircraff on final approach.)

More than one landing aircraft. When two or more aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way.

(Note: The PIC will not take advantage of this' rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land or to overtake that aircraft.)

10.530 RIGHT-OF-WAY RULES: WATER OPERATIONS

(a) General. Each person operating an aircraft on the water shall, insofar as possible, keep clear of all vessels and avoid impeding their navigation and shall give way to any vessel or other aircraft that is given the right-of-way by any rule of this Subsection.

(b) Crossing. When aircraft. or an aircraft and a vessel, are on crossing courses, the aircraft or vessel to the other's right has the right-of-way.

(c) Approaching head-on. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, are approachinghead-on, or nearly so, each shall alter its course to the right to keep well clear.

(d) Overtaking. Each aircraft or vessel that is being overtaken has the right-of-way, and the one overtaking shall alter course to keep well clear.

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(e) Special clrcurnstances. When aircraft, or an aircraft and a vessel, approach so as to Involve risk of collision, each aircraft or vessel shall proceed with careful regard to existing circumstances, including the limitations of the respective craft.

10.535 U6E OF ARCRAFT LIGHTS

(a) If an aircraft has red rotating beacon lights installed, the pilot shall swltch those lights on prior to starting engines and display those lights at all times the engines are running.

(b) No peison may operate an aircraft between the period from sunset to sunrise unless - (1) it has lighted navigation lights; and (2) if anticollision lights are installed. those lights are lighted.

(Note: A pilot is permitted to switch off or reduce the intensity of any flashing lights i f they do or are likely to adversely affect the satisfectory pedormence of duties or to subject an outside observer to harmful dazzle).

(c) No person may park or move an aircraft at night in, or in a dangerous proximity to, a movement area of an aerodrome, unless the aircraft -

(1) is clearly illuminated; (2). has lighted navigation lights, or (3) is In an area that is marked by obstruction lights.

(d) No person may anchor an aircraft unless that aircraft - (I) has lighted anchor lights; or (2) is in an area where anchor lights are not required on vessels.

No person may operate an aircraft in simulated instrument flight unless - (1) that aircraft has fully functioning dual controls; (2) the other control seat is occupied by a safety pilot who holds at least a Private Pilot Licence

with category and class ratings appropriate to the aircraft being flown; and (3) the safety pilot has adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft or a competent

observer in the aircraft adequately supplements the vision of the safety pilot.

10.545 lNFLlGHT SIMULATION: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No person may engage in simulated instrument flight conditions during commercial air transport operations.

(b) No person may simulate an abnormal or emergency situation during commercial air transport operations.

10.550 DROPPING, SPRAYING, TOWING

Except under conditions prescribed by the Authority in Eleventh Schedule, no pilot may take the following actions -

(1) dropping, dusting or spraying from an aircraft; (2) towing of aircraft or other objects; or (3) unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, allowing parachute descents.

(a) No person may operate an'aircraft in aerobatic flight - (1) over any city. town or settlement; (2) over an open air assembly of persons; (3) within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class 8. C, D or E airspace designated

for an aerodrome; (4) below an altitude of 450 meters (1,500 feet) above the surface; or

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(5) when the flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.

(b) No person may operate an aircraft in manoeuvres exceeding a bank of 60 degrees or pitch of 30 degrees from level flight attitude unless all occupants of the aircrafl are wearing parachutes packed by a qualified parachute rigger in the past 12 calendar months.

No person may flight-test an aircraft except over open water or sparsely populated areas having light traffic.

10.565 PROHIBITE0 AREAS AND RESTRICTED AREAS

No person may operate an aircraft in a danger area, restricted area or prohibited area, the particulars of which have been duly published, except in accordance with the conditions of the restrictions or by permission of the State over whose territory the areas are established.

10.570 OPERATIONS IN M N P S OR RVSM AIRSPACE

(a) No person may operate a civil aircrafl of Jamaica registry in the North Atlantic airspace designated as MNPS airspace or in airspace designated as RVSM without a written authorization issued by the Authority.

(b) No person may operate an aircrafl in MNPS or RVSM airspace, except in accordance with the conditions of the procedures and restrictions required for this airspace.

(See the Seventh Schedule for requirements regarding instruments end equipment required for operations in MNPS and RVSM airspace.)

10.575 OPERATIONS ON OR IN THE VICINITY OF AN UNCONTROLLED AERODROME

(a) When approaching to land at an aerodrome without an operating control tower, each pilot of - (1) an aeroplane shall make all turns of that aeroplane to the lefl; or to the right, If appropriately

indicated by the authorities having jurisdiction over that aerodrome; (2) a helicopter shall avoid the flow of aeroplanes.

(b) When departing an aerodrome without an operating control tower, each pilot of an aircraft shall comply with any traffic patterns established by the authorities having jurisdiction over that aerodrome.

(c) Each pilot of .an aircraft shall land and take off into the wind unless safety, the runway configurations or traffic considerations determine that a different direction is preferable.

10.577 OPERATIONS IN CERTAIN AIRSPACE

(a) No person may operate an aircrafl in Class A airspace unless they are operating under IFR in accordance with an ATC clearance.

(b) No person may operate an aircraft in Class B, C, D or E airspace unless they establish Weway radio communications with the controlling ATC facility prior to entering and, while operating in that airspace -

(1) operate on an ATC clearance, and (2) maintain two-way communications.

(a) When arriving at an aerodrome, the PIC of a turbojet, turbofan or large aircraft shall enter the traffic pattern at least 1.500 feet AGL until further descent is required for landing.

(b) When departing, the PIC of a turbojet, turbofan or large aircrafl shall climb to 1.500 AGL as rapidly as practicable. -- /-

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(a) m e PIC of an aeroplane approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope Indicator shall maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

(b) The PIC of a turbojet, turbofan or large aeroplane approaching to land on a runway served by an ILS shall fly that aeroplane at or above the glide slope from the point of interception to the decision helght.

h re PIC of an aeroplane on final approach for landing will ensure the aircraft is in the landing cbnfiguration:

in instrument meteorological conditions, at or before 300 meters (1000 feet) above the elevation of the runway touchdown zone and maintain a stabilized configuration until the landing flare; and in visual meteorological conditions, at or before 150 meters (500 feet) above the elevation of the runway touchdown zone and maintain a stabilized configuration until the landing flare.

(See Appendix 1 to 10.587 for the criteria associated with a stabilized approach.)

10.590 R E S ~ C T ~ O N OR SUSPENSION OF OPE~TIONS: COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

If a PIC or an AOC holder knows of conditions, including aerodrome and runway conditions, that are a hazard to safe operations, that person shall restrict or suspend all commercial air transport operations to such aerodromes and runways as necessary until those conditions are corrected.

10;595 CONT~NUAT~ON OF FLIGHT - COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) No PIC may continue a flight toward a destination aerodrome unless the latest available information indicates that the weather at the estimated time of arrival at that aerodrome or the alternate aerodrome will allow an approach and landing in accordance with the operating minima contained in the operations specifications.

(b) No PIC may allow a flight to continue toward any aerodrome of intended landing where commercial air transport operations have been restricted or suspended, unless - (I) in the opinion of the PIC. the conditions that are a hazard to safe operations may

reasonably be expected to be corrected by the estlmated time of arrival; or (2) there is no safer procedure.

(a) No pilot may conduct an international flight unless the procedures-and signals relating to interception of aircraft are readily available on the flight deck.

@) When Intercepted by a military or government aircraft, each PIC shalicomply with the international standards when interpreting and responding to visual signals as specified in the implementing shndards.

(See Appendix 1 to 10.600 for signals applicable to interception.)

SUBPART I: ' OPERATIONS IN CONTROLLED FLIGHT

10.805 ATC CU3iRAtdCE.S

(a) each PIC shall obtain an ATC clearance prior to operating a controlled flight,or a portion of a flight as a controlled flight.

@) Each PIC shall request an ATC clearance through the submission of a flight plan to an ATC facility.

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Whenever an aircraft has requested a clearance involving priority, each PIC shall submit a report explainlng the necessity for such priority, if requested by the appropriate ATC facility.

No person operating an aircraft on a controlled aerodrome may taxi on the manoeuvring area or any runway without clearance from the aerodrome conlrol tower.

10.610 AOHERENCE TO ATC CLEARANCES

(a) When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no PIC may deviate from the clearance, except in an emergency, unless he or she obtains an amended clearance.

(Note: Paragraph (a) of this Subsection does not prohibit a pilot from cancelling an IFR clearance when operating in VMC conditions or cancelling a controlled flight clearance when operating in airspace that does not require controlled flight. However, the pilot must refile a VFR flight plan from that point unless within 25 nm of the intended aerodrome of landing.)

(b) When operating in airspace requiring controlled flight. no PIC may operate contrary to ATC instructions, except in an emergency.

(c) Each PIC who deviates from an ATC clearance or instruction in an emergency, shall notify ATC'of that deviation as soon as possible.

Each person operating an aircraft on a controlled flight shall maintain a continuous listening watch on the appropriate radio frequency of, and establish two-way communication as required with, the appropriate ATC facility.

(Note: More specific procedures may be prescribed by the appropriate ATC authority in respect of alrcraff forming pad of aerodrome traffic at a controlled aerodrome.)

(Note: Automatic signalling devices may be used to satisv the requirement to maintain a continuous listening watch, i f authorized by the Authority.)

10.620 ROUTE TO BE FLOWN

(a) Unless otherwise authorized or directed by the appropriate ATC facility, the PIC of a controlled flight shall, insofar as practicable -

(1) when on an established ATC route, operate along the defined centre line of that route; or (2) when on any other route, operate directly between the navigation facilities andlor points

defining that route.

(b) The PIC of a controlled flight operating along an ATC route defined by reference to VORs shall change over for primary navigation guidance from the facility behind the aircraft to that ahead of it at, or as close as operationally feasible to, the changeover point, where established.

(Note: These requirements do not prohibit manoeuvring the aircraff to pass well clear of other air traffic or the manoeuvring of the aircraff in VFR conditions to clear the intended flight path both before and during climb or descent.)

A PIC shall take the following action in the event that a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan -

(1) Deviation from track. If the aircraft is off track, the PIC shall adjust the heading of the aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable.

(2) Variation in true airspeed. Each PIC shall inform the appropriate ATC facility if the average true airspeed at cruising level between reporting points varies from that given in the flight plan or is expected to vary by plus or minus 5 per cent of the true airspeed or plus or minus .Ol rnach.



(3) Change in time estimate. Each PIC shall notify the appropriate ATC facility and give a revised estimated time as soon as possible if the time estimate for a reporting point, flight information region boundary or destination aerodrome, whichever comes first, is found to be in excess of three minutes from that notified to ATC, or such other period of time as is prescribed by the appropriate ATC authority or on the basis of air navigation regional agreements.

10.630 ATC CLEARANSE: INTENDED CHANGES

Requests for flight plan changes shall include the following information - (1) Change of cruising level. Aircraft identification, requested new cruising level and cruising

speed at this level and revised time estimates, when applicable, at subsequent flight information region boundaries.

(2) Change of route - (i) Destination unchanged. Aircraft identification, flight rules under which the flight is to

be operated, description of new route of flight including related flight plan data beginning with the position from which requested change of route is to commence, revised time estimates, and any other pertinent information.

(ii) Destination change. Aircraft identification, flight rules under which the flight is to be operated, description of revised route of flight to revised destination aerodrome including related flight plan data, beginning with the position from which requested change of route is to commence, revised time estimates, alternate aerodrome(s) and any other pertinent information.

(a) Each pilot of a controlled flight shall report to the appropriate ATC facility, as soon as possible, the time and level Of passing each designated compulsory reporting point, together with any other required information, unless exempted from this requirement by the appropriate ATC authority.

(b) Each pilot of a controlled flight shall make position reports in relation to additional points or intervals when requested by the appropriate ATC facility

10.640 OPERATIONS ON OR IN THE VICINITY OF A CONTROLLED AERODROME

(a) No person may operate an aircraft to, from, through or on an aerodrome having an operational control tower unless two-way communications are maintained between that aircraft and the control tower.

(b) On arrival, each PIC shall establish communications required by paragraph (a) of this Subsection prior to 4 nautical miles from the aerodrome when operating from the surface up to and including 750 meters (2,500 feet).

(c) On departure, each PIC shall establish communications with the control tower prior to taxi.

(d) Takeoff, landing, taxi clearance. No person may, at any aerodrome with an operating control tower, operate an aircraft on a runway or taxiway or take off or land an aircraft, unless an appropriate clearance has been received by ATC.

(Note: A clearance to "taxi to" the takeoff runway is not a clearance to cross or taxi onto that runway. It does authorize the PIC to cross other runways during the taxi to the assigned runway. A clearance to "faxi t0"any otherpoint on the aerodrome is a clearance to cross all runways that intersect the taxi route to the assigned pont.)

(e) Communications failure. If the radio fails or two-way communication is lost, a PIC may continue a VFR flight operation and land if -

(1) the weather conditions are at or above basic VFR minimums; and (2) clearance to land is received by light signals.

(Note: During IFR operations, the two-way communications failure procedures will apply.)

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A PIC shall, when and if possible, notify the appropriate ATC facility when an aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference, including -

(1) any significant circumstances associated with the unlawful interference; and (2) any deviation from the current flight plan necessitated by the circumstances.

(a) Each PIC shall use Co-ordinated Universal Time (UTC). expressed in hours and minutes of the 24-hour day beginning at midnight, in flight operations.

(b) Each PIC shall obtain a time check prior to operating a controlled flight and at such other times during the flight as may be necessary.

10.655 UNNERSAL SIGNALS

(a) Upon observing or receiving any of the designated universal aviation signals, each person operating an aircrafl shall take such action as may be required by the interpretation of the signal.

(b) Universal signals shall have only the meanings designated.

(c) Each person using universal signals in the movement of aircrafl shall only use them for the purpose indicated.

(d) No person may use signals likely to cause confusion with universal aviation signals.

(See Appendix 1 to 10.655 for a list of universal aviation signals.)

SUBPART J: VFR FLIGHT RULES

10.659 APPLICABILITY

(a) The VFR rules of this Subpart are applicable in the airspace.of Jamaica.


No person may operate an aircraft under VFR when the flight visibility is less than, or at a distance from the clouds that is less than that prescribed, or the corresponding altitude and class of airspace prescribed by the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) in Annex 2 - Rules of the Air.

(See Appendix I to 10.660 for the table outlining the airspace and visual meteorological minimums specified in Annex 2)

10.665 VFR WEATHER MINIMUMS FORTAKEOFF AND LANDING

(a) No person may enter the traffic pattern, land or take off an aircrafl under VFR from an aerodrome located in Class B. Class C. Class D or Class E airspace unless the -

(1) reported ceiling is at least 300 meters (1.000 feet); and (2) reported ground visibility is at least 3 statute miles, if reported.

(b) If the ground visibility is not reported, the pilot shall maintain 3 statute miles flight visibility. (c) Class G ~ i i s ~ a c e . No person may enter the traffic pattern, land or take off an aircraft under VFR

from an aerodrome located in Class G airspace below 360 meters (1.200 feet) AGL unless - (1) For aeroplanes. The visibil'ty is at least 1 statute mile and the aircrafl can be operated

clear of clouds within one-half mile of the runway; or (2) For helicopters. The helicopter can be operated clear of clouds at a speed that allows the

pilot adequate opportunity to see any air traffic or obstruction in time to avoid a collision.

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(Note: The only exception to the required weather minimums of this Subsection is during a Special VFR operation.)

10.669 VFR OVER-THE-TOP ( O n ) Notwithstanding Subsection 10.660, an aircraft may be operated in VFR O l T flight during the cruise portion of the flight during the day if -

(1) the alrcraft is operated at a vertical distance from cloud of at least 1,000 feet; (2) where the aircraft is operated between two cloud layers, the vertical distance between the

layers is at least 5,000 feet; (3) flight visibility at the cruising altitude of the aircraft is at least five miles; and (4) the weather at the aerodrome of destination IS forecast to have a sky condition of scattered

cloud or clear and a ground visibility of five miles or greater with no forecast of precipitation, fog, thunderstorms or blowing snow, and those conditions are forecast to exist - (i) where the forecast is an aerodrome forecast (tAF), for the period from one hour

before to two hours after the estimated time of arrival; and (ii) where an aerodrome forecast (TAF) is not available and the forecast is an area

forecast (FA), for the period from one hour before to three hours after the estimated time of arrival.

(See Appendix 1 to 10.669 for additional requirements for VFR 077 night applicable to commercial air transport operations.)

10.670 SPECIAL VFR OPERATIONS

(a) No person may conduct a Special VFR flight operation to enter the traffic pattern, land or take off an aircraft under Special VFR from an aerodrome located in Class 8, Class C, Class D or Class E airspace unless -

(1) authorized by an ATC clearance; (2) the aircraft remains clear of clouds; and (3) the flight visibility is at least 1 statute mile.

(b) No person may conduct a Special VFR flight operation in an aircrafl between sunset and sunrise unless - (1) the PIC is current and qualified for IFR operations; and (2) the aircraft is qualified to be operated for IFR flight.

10.671 OVER WATER VFR OPERATIONS - SINGLE-ENGINE COMMERCIAL AIR f RANSPORT AIRCRAFT

No person may conduct singleengine, passenger-carrying commercial air transport operations in VFR flight over water beyond gliding distance from a shoreline.

10.673 LIMITATION TO VFR NAVIGATION BY VISUAL REFERENCE Except as provided in Subsection 10.362 (b), no person may operate a flight under VFR navigating only by visual reference to landmarks unless the distance between each succeeding landmark is less than 110 km (60 nautical miles).

10.675 VFR CRUISING ALTITUDES

(a) Each person operat~ng an aircraft in level cruising flight under VFR at altitudes above 900 meters (3,000 ft) from the ground or water, shall maintain:

(1) for magnetic courses from zero degrees to 179 degrees, any odd thousand MSL altitude or flight level plus 150 meters (500 feet) (such as 3,500.5,500 or FL 215).

(2) for magnetic courses from 180 degrees to 359 degrees, any even thousand MSL altitude or flight level plus 150 meters (500 feet) (such as 4.500,6,500 or FL 225).

(b) Exception: Paragraph (a) of this Subsection does not apply when otherwise authorized by ATC, when operating in a holding pattern or during manoeuvring in turns.

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10.680 ATC CLEARANCES FOR VFR FLIGHTS

Each pilot of a VFR flight shall obtain and comply with ATC clearances and maintain a listening watch before and during operations -

(I ) within Classes B. C and D airspace; (2) as part of aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes; and

. (3) under Special VFR.

10.685 VFR FLIGHTS REQUIRING ATC AUTHORIZATION

Unless authorized by the appropriate ATC authority, no pilot may operate a VFR flight at transonic or supersonic speeds.

(Note: ATC authorization for VFR flights may not be granted in areas where a vertical separation minimum of only 300m (1,000 R) applied above FL 290.)

10.690 WEATHER DETERIORATION BELOW VMC . Each pilot of a VFR flight operated as a controlled flight shall, when he or she finds it is not practical or possible to maintain flight in VMC in accordance with the ATC flight plan -

(1) request an amended clearance enabling the arcraft to continue in VMC to its destination or to an alternative aerodrome or to leave the airspace within which an ATC clearance is required;

(2) if no clearance can be obtained, continue to operate in VMC and notify the appropriate ATC facility of the action being taken either to leave the airspace concerned or to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome;

(3) when operating within a control zone, request authorization to operate as a special VFR flight; or

(4) request clearance to operate in IFR, if currently rated for IFR operations.

10.695 CHANGING FROM VFR TO IFR

Each pilot operating in VFR who wishes to change to IFR shall-

( I ) if a flight plan was submitted, communicate the necessary changes to be effected to the current flight plan; or

(2) submit a flight plan to the appropriate ATC facility and obtain a clearance prior to proceeding IFR when in controlled airspace.

10.700 TWO-WAY Rnolo COMMUNICA~ON FA~L'URE IN VFR

If radio failure occurs in VFR while under ATC control, or if VFR conditions are encountered after the failure. each pilot shall -

(I) continue the flight under VFR; (2) land at the nearest suitable aerodrome; and (3) report arrival to ATC by the most expeditious means possible.

SUBPART K: IFR FLIGHT RULES

10.703 APPLIC~ILIW

(a) he IFR rules of this Subpart are applicable in the airspace of Jamaica.


10.705 IFR IN CONTROLLED AIRSPACE

No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has - (I) filed an IFR flight plan; and

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(2) received an appropriate ATC clearance

10.710 IFR FLIGHTS OUTSIDE CONTROLLED AIRSPACE

(a) Each PIC of an IFR flight operating outside controlled airspace but within or into areas or along routes designated by the appropriate ATC authority, shall maintain a listening watch on the appropriate,radio frequency and establish two-way communication, as necessary, with the ATC facility providing flight information service. . .

(b) Each PIC of an IFR flight operating outside controlled airspace that is required to comply with (a) shall report position using the same phraseology and sequencing as specified for controlled flights.

10.715 IFR TAKEOFF MINIMUMS FOR COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

(a) Unless otherwise approved by the Authority, no pilot operating an aircraft in commercial air transport operations may accept a clearance to take off from an aerodrome under IFR unless weather conditions are at or above the aerodrome operating minima or %statute mile visibility (RVR 2600 feet or 680 meters). whichever is higher.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this Subsection, no pilot operating an aircraft in commercial air transport operations may take off from an aerodrome under IFR if the weather conditions are at or above the takeoff minima but below the landing minima for the runway to be used, unless -

(1) the aircraft is certificated for a maximum takeoff mass of 5.700 kg or greater; (2) an alternate aerodrome is specified in the operational flight plan; and (3) that aerodrome is located -

(i) in the case of a twin-engine aircraft, within the distance that can be flown in 60 minutes at the one-engine inoperative cruise speed; or

(ii) in the case of three or four engine aircraft, or where an air operator is authorized in its AOC to conduct ETOPS with the aircraft operated, within the distance that can be flown in 120 minutes at the one-engine inoperative cruise speed.

(c) A person may conduct a takeoff in an aircraft under IFR if the weather conditions are at or above the takeoff minima but below the landing minima for the runway to be used, if the weather conditions are at or above the landing minima for another suitable runway at that aerodrome, taking into account the aircraft performance operating limitations for that aircraft.

(Note: For the purpose of this Regulation, the landing minima are the decision height or minimum descent attitude and the visibility published for the approach.)

(See Appendix 1 to 10.71 5 for takeoff visibility determinations.)

10.718 IFR OR NIGHT OPERATIONS - SINGLE-ENGINE COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT OPERATIONS

Except for an AOC holder with the appropriate Operations Specifications, no person may operate a single-engine aircraft in IFR flight or at night while engaged,in commercial air transport operations.

(See Appendix 1 to 10.71 8 for the requirements associated with singleengine IFWnight flight)

10.720 MINIMUM ALTITUDES FOR IFR OPERATIONS

(a) Operation of aircraft at minimum altitudes. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below -

(1) the applicable minimum altitudes prescribed by the authorities having jurisdiction over the airspace being overflown; or

(2) if no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed by the authorities - (i) over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 600 meters

(2,000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km (5 sm) of the estimated i position of the aircraft; and '

(ii) elsewhere than as specified ,in paragraph (a) (2) (i) of this Subsection, at a level which ! i s at least 300 meters (1,000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km (5 sm) : of the estimated position of the aircraft.

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THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS. 2004 43 1

(3) if an MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a particular route or route segment, a person may operate an aircraft below the MEA down to, but not below, the MOCA when within 22 nautical miles of the VOR concerned.

(b) Climb for obstacle clearance. If unable to communicate with ATC each pilot shali climb to a higher minimum IFR altitude immediately before passing the point beyond which that minimum altitude applies.

10.725 MINIMUM ALTITUDES FOR USE OF AN AUTOPILOT

(a) For enroute operations, no person may use an autopilot at an altitude above the terrain- (1) that is less than 150 meters (500 feet); or (2) if the maximum altitude loss specified in the AFM for a malfunction under cruise conditions

i when multiplied by two is more than 150 meters (500 feet), then the derived figure becomes the controlling minimum altitude for use of the autopilot.,

(b) For instrument approach operations, no person may use an autopilot at an altitude above the tenaln -

('1) that Is more than 15 m (50 feet) below the MDA or DH; or (2) if the maximum altitude loss specified in the AFM for a malfunction under a~proach . .

condkions when multiplied by kg is more than 15 m (50 feet), the extent td\;mich that fiaure exceeds 15 m (50 feet) will be added to the minimum altitude determined for pbgraph (b) (1) of this subsection and then becomes the controlling minimum altitude for use of the autopilot.

(c) For Category Ill approaches, the Authority may approve the use of a flight control guidance sptem w@ automatic capability to touchdown.

10.730 IFR CRUISING ALTITUDE OR FLIGHT LEVEL IN CONTROLLED AIRSPACE

(a) Each person operating an aircraft under IFR in levei cruising flight in controlled airspace shall maintain the altitude or flight level assigned that aircraft by ATC.

(b) If the ATC clearance assigns VFR conditions on-top." each person shall maintain a VFR cruising attitude in VMC.

10.735 IFR CRUISING ALTITUDE OR FUGHT LEVEL IN UNCONTROLLED AIRSPACE

(a) Each person operating an aircraft in level cruising flight under IMC at aititudes above 900 meters (3,000 fl) from the ground or water, shali maintain -

(1) for magnetic courses from zero degrees to 179 degrees, any odd thousand MSL altitude or flight levei, such as 5,000,7,000, or FL 210; and

(2) for magnetic courses from 180 degrees to 359 degrees, any even thousand MSL altitude or flight level, such as 4,000,6.000 or FL 220.

(b) Unless authorized for RVSM operations, each person operating an aircraft in level cruising flight under IMC shall maintain -

(1) up to and including FL290, the magnetic courses specified in paragraph (a) of this Subsection;

(2) at altitudes gbove FL 290, for magnetic courses from zero degrees to 179 degrees. flight levels every four thousand feet above FL290, such as FL 330, FL 370 or FL 410; and

(3) at altitudes above FL 290, for magnetic courses from 180 degrees to 359 degrees, beginning with FL 310, flight levels every four thousand feet above FL310, such as FL 350, FL 390 or FL 430 (FL 300 is not available for flight planning purposes).

(c) A person may deviate from the cruising altitudes specified in paragraph (a) of this Subsection only , +when -

(1 ) autho* by ATC; (2) operating in a holding pattern; or (3) manoeuwing in turns.

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10.740 IFR RADIO COMMUNICATIONS

Each PIC of an aircraft operated under IFR in controlled airspace shall have a continuous watch maintained on the appropriate frequency and shall report by radio as soon as possible -

(1) the time and altitude of passing each designated reporting point, or the reporting points specified by ATC, except that while the aircraft is under radar control, only the passing of those reporting points specifically requested by ATC need be reported;

(2) the next reporting point and ~ts ETA and the successive reporting point; (3) any unforecast weather conditions encountered; and (4) any other information relating to the safety of flight, such as hazardous weather or abnormal

radio station indications.

10.745 OPERATION UNDER IFR IN CONTROLLED AIRSPACE: MALFUNCTION REPORTS

(a) The PIC of each aircraft operated in controlled airspace under IFR shall report as soon as practical to ATC any malfunctions of navigat~onal. approach or communication equipment occurring in flight.

(b) In each report specified in paragraph (a) of this Subsection. the PIC shall include the - (1) aircraft identification; (2) equipment affected; (3) degree to which the capability of the pilot to operate under IFR in the ATC system is

impaired; and (4) nature and extent of assistance desired from ATC.

No pilot may commence or continue an IFR flight toward an aerodrome or heliport of intended landing, unless the latest available meteorological information indicates that the conditions at that aerodrome, or at least one destination alternate aerodrome will, at the expected time of arrival, be at or above the specified instrument approach mlnima.

(a) Each person operating a civil aircraft shall use a standard instrument approach procedure prescribed by the State having jurisdiction over the aerodrome, unless otherwise authorized by the Authority.

(b) No person may kake an instrument approach at an airport except in accordance with the published instrument approach procedures and the associated IFR weather minimums.

(c) Authorized DH or'MDA. For the purpose of this Subsection, when the approach procedure being used provides for and requires the use of a DH or MDA, the authorized DH or MDA is the highest of the following -

(1) the DH or MDA prescribed by the approach procedure; (2) the DH or MDA prescribed for the PIC; or (3) the DH or MDA for which the aircraft is equipped.

(a) No person may operate an aircraft for the purpose of the following landing or takeoff operations at an aerodrome unless adequate landing and rollout Runway Visual Range (RVR) information is available -

(1) takeoff, approach and landing operations with reported visibility less than 780 meters (2600 feet); and

(2) category II and Ill Approaches.

(b) Where RVR is used, the controlling RVR is the touchdown RVR, unless otherwise specified by the Authority.

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No person may operate a civil aircraft of Jamaica registry or under a Jamaica AOC to the instrument approach mlnlmums for Category I1 or Ill approaches without the written approval of the Authority.

10.785 COMMENCING AN INSTRUMENT APPROACH: ALL OPERATIONS

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this Subsection, no pilot may continue an approach past the final approach fix, or where a final approach fix is not used, begin the final approach segment of an instrument approach procedure, at any aerodrome unless -

(1) a source approved by the Authority issues a weather report for that aerodrome; and (2) the latest weather report for that aerodrome reports the visibility to be equal to or more than

the visibility minimums prescribed for that procedure.

(b) A'pilot may continue an approach past the fmal approach fix, or where a final approach fix is not used, begin the final approach segment of an instrument approach procedure. If -

(I) when the visibility report is received, the aircraft-

(i) has passed the outer marker or the fix that serves as the outer marker; and ' (ii) is in descent to the runway; . X2) the aircraft is on a training flight where a landing is not intended and the appropriate air i traffic control unit is informed that a missed approach procedure will be initiated at or above

the decision height or the minimum descent altitude, as appropriate; or

(3) the visibility is fluctuating above and below the minimum visibility specified for the approach.,

'(Note: For the purpose of this Subsection, the final approach segment begins at the final approach fix or Facility prescribed in the instrument approach procedure. When a final approech fix is not prescribed for a procedure that includes a procedure turn, the find approach segment begins at the point where the procedure turn is compieted and the aircraft is established inbound toward the aerodrome on the final approach course within the distance prescribed in the procedure.)

10.7TO OPERATION BELOW DH OR MDA

Where a DH or MDA is applicable, no pilot may operate a civil aircraft at any aerodrome or heliport below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DH unless -

(1) the aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal manoeuvres;

(2) for commercial air transport operations, a descent rate will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing;

(3) the fl~ght visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument ' approach being used; and (4) at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible

and identifiable to the pilot - ! (i) the approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet

above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable;

(ii) the threshold; (iii) the threshold markings;

I (iv) threshold lights; (v) the runway end identifier lights; (vi) the visual approach slope indicator; (vii) the touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings; (viii) the touchdown zone lights; (ix) the runway or runway markings; or

I (x) the runway lights.

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(Note: These ,visual references do not apply to Category I1 and 111 operations. The required visual references under Category I1 and 111 operations are provided in the AOC holder's operations specifications or a special authorization prescribed by the Authority.)

I

10.780 EXECUTION OF A MISSED APPROACH PROCEDURE

Each pilot operating a civil aircraft shall immed~ately execute an appropriate missed approach procedure when either of the following condit~ons exst -

(1) whenever'the required visual reference criteria is not met in the following situations -

(i) when the aircraft is being operated below MDA; or (ii) upon arrival at the missed approach point, including a DH where a DH is specified and

its use is required, and at any t~me after that until touchdown.

(2) whenever hn identifiable part of the aerodrome is not d~stinctly visible to the pilot during a circling manoeuvre at or above MDA, unless the mability to see an identifiable part of the aerodrome results only from a normal bank of the aircraft during the circling approach.

10.785 CHANGE' FROM IFR FLIGHT TO VFR FLIGHT

(a) A pilot electing to change from IFR flight to VFR flight shall notify the appropriate ATC facility specifically that the IFR flight is cancelled and then communicate the changes to be made to his or her current flight plan.

(b) When a pilot opeiating under IFR encounters VMC, he or she may not cancel the IFR flight unless it is anticipated, and intended, that the flight will be continued in uninternrpted VMC to destination.

10.790 TWO-WAY RADIO COMMUNICATIONS FALURE IN IFR

(a) If tweway radio dommunication failure occurs in IFR conditions and flight in VFR is possible, proceed in VMC and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.

(b) If tweway radio communication failure occurs in IFR conditions and flight in VFR is judged not feasible, each pilot shall continue the flight according to the following -

Route. :

(i) by ttie route assigned in the last ATC clearance received; (ii) if being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix,

route or airway specified in the vector clearance; (iii) in the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may be

expected in a further clearance; or (iv) in the absence of an assigned route or a route that ATC has advised may be expected

in a further clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan.

Altitude. At the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route segment being flown - :

(i) the altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received; (ii) the ininimum altitude (converted, if appropriate, to minimum flight level for IFR

operations); or (iii) the altitude or flight level ATC advised may be expected in a further clearance.

Leave clearance limit.

(i) when the clearance limit is at a fix from which an approach begins, commence descent or descent and approach - (A) as close as possible to the expected-furtherclearance time if one has been

: received; or (B) .if one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival

as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time enroute. (il) if the clearance limit is not a fix from whlch an approach begins -

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(A) leave the clearance limit at the expected-further-clearance time if one has been received', or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit;

(B) proceed to a fix from which an approach begins; and (C) commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the ETA as

calculated from the filed or amended with ATC estimated time enroute.

SUBPART L: LIABILITY INSURANCE

The funds referred to in this Subpart are in United States denominations.

This regulation applies to every owner or operator of an aircraft that is registered in Jamaica, or registered pursuant to the laws of a foreign State and operated in Jamaica.

10.805 , D u n TO INSURE RISK OF INJURY TO OR DEATH OF PASSENGERS

~ubject'to Subsection 10.810, none of the following aircraft owners shall operate an aircraft unless, in respect of every incident related to the operation of the aircraft, the owner has subscribed for liability insurance covering risks of injury to or death of passengers in an amount that is not less than the amount determined by multiplying $120,000 by the number of passengers on board the aircraft -

(1) an air operator certified pursuant to Parts IX and X of these Regulations; (2) the holder of a flight training organization or unit certificate issued pursuant to Regulation

1 49; (3) the operator of any aircrafl where fare-paying passengers are carried on board; or (4) an aircrafl not referred to in (I), (2) or (3, where the MCTOW (or the maximum total weight

authorized) of the aircraft exceeds 1043kg (2,300 pounds).

10.810 PASSENGERS NOT COVERED

The insuiance coverage referred to in Subsection 10.805 need not extend to any passenger who-

(1) is an employee of an owner referred to in paragraph 10.805 if workers' compensation 8 legislation governing a claim for damages against the owner by the employee is applicable; , or

(2) is carried on board the aircraft for the purpose of conducting a parachute descent, where ' the air operator has posted a readily visible notice to inform passengers, before embarking, ! that there is no insurance coverage for parachutists.

10.815 ' D u n TO INSURE RISK OF PUBLIC LIABIL~

No aircrafl owner referred to in Subsection 10.805 shall operate an aircrafl unless, in respect of every incident re'lated to the operation of the aircraft, the owner has subscribed for liability insurance covering risks of public liability in an amount not less than -

(1) $500.000, where the maximum permissible take-off weight of the aircraft is not greater than : 3402 kg (7,500 pounds);

(2) $100.000,000, where the maximum permissible take-off weight of the aircrafl is greater 1 than 3402 kg (7.500 pounds) but not greater than'8165 kg (18.000 pounds).

(3) ' $100,000,000 plus an amount determined by multiplying $50 by the number of kilograms by which the maximum permissible take-off weight of the aircraft exceeds 8165 kg (18,000

I pounds).

10.820 OTHER AIRCRAFT D u n TO INSURE RISK OF PUBLIC LIABILITY

No aircrafl owner not referred to in paragraph 10.805 shall operate an aircrafl unless, in respect of every Incident related to the operation of the aircraft, the owner has subscribed for liability insurance covering risks of public liability in an amount that is not less than $100.000.

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436 THE CIYIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

10.825 No E+LUSION OR WAIVER

No aircrafl owner referred to in this Subpart shall:in order to comply with Subsections 10.805. 10.815 or 10.820, subscribe for any liability insurance that contains an exclusion or waiver provision that reduces the insurance coverage for any incident below the applicable minimum determined pursuant to those Subsections, h less that provision-

(I) is a stahard exclusion clause adopted by the international aviation insurance industry that applies in respect of - (i) war, hijacking and other perils; (ii) noise, pollution and other perils;

. (iii) radioactive contamination; (2) is in respect of a chemical drift; (3) includes a statement that the insurance does not apply in respect of liability assumed by

the owner under any contract or agreement unless the liability would have attached to the owner even in the absence of such a contract or agreement; or

(4) includes a statement that the policy is void if the owner has concealed or misrepresented any material fact or circumstances concerning the insurance or the subject thereof or if there is any fraud, attempted fraud or false statement by the owner touching any matter relating to the insurance or the subject thereof, either before or after the Incident.

10.830 OPTIONFOR COMPREHENSIVE SINGLE LIMIT INSURANCE

An aircraft owner refeked to in Subsection 10.805 may comply with Subsections 10.805, 10.815 and 10.820 by subscribing for comprehensive single limit liability insurance consisting ofa single policy or a combination of prima j and supplementary policies.

10.835 VISIBLE:SIGN INDICATING LACK OF INSURANCE

Where an owner of an aircrafl is not required to cany passenger liability insurance pursuant to Subsection 10.805, the owner shall display a placard, attached to the aircraft in a location that is clearly visible to any passenger on board the aircraft, stating that the operator of the aircraft is not insured for injury to a passenger resulting from an accident while on board the aircraft.

10.840 ON-BO+D PROOF OF INSURANCE

Subject to Subsection ;10.845 - (1) no operator of an aircraft operated pursuant to sub-paragraph ( I ), (2) or (3) of Subsection

10.805; arid (2) no owner of an aircraft operated pursuant to Subsection 10.805(4) or 10.820, shall operate

the aircraft, unless there is carried on board the aircraft proof that liability insurance Is ' . subscribed for in accordance with this regulation.

10.845 OFF-AIRCRAFT PROOF OF INSURANCE

A balloon may be operhed without the proof of Insurance referred to In Subsection 10.84O'being carried on board if that proof is immediately available to the pilot-incommand -

(1) prior to commencing a flight; and (2) on completion of a flight.

(a) No person may operate as pilot-in-command of an ultra-light aeroplane in Jamalca unless that wrson is in possebslon of a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane issued by the Jamaica Civil

(b) No person may give Instruction in an ultra-light aeroplane in Jamaica unless that person Is in possession of a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane, issued by the Authority and endorsed with a Flight Instructor - Ultra-light Aeroplane rating.

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(c) No person may operate an ultra-light aeroplane in Jamaica unless the aeroplane is registered in I Jamaica and the pilot is in possession of a Flight Permit issued by the Authority.

10.855 INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT

NO person may conduct a take-off in an advanced ultra-light aeroplane unless it is equipped with - i (1) where the aircraft is operated in controlled airspace, a sensitive altimeter adjustable for

barometric pressure; s (2) an airspeed indicator;

( (3) a magnetic compass or a magnetic direction indicator that operates independently of the aircraft electrical generating system;

1 (4) a tachometer for each engine and for each propeller that has limiting speeds established by I the manufacturer; ! (5) an oil pressure indicator for each engine employing an oil pressbre system;

(6) a coolant temperature indicator for each liquid-cooled engine; ) (7) an oil temperature indicator for each air-cooled engine having a separate oil system; : (8) a cylinder head temperature gauge; 1 (9) a manifold pressure gauge for each -

(i) reciprocating engine equipped with a variable-pitch propeller; I (ii) supercharged engine; and

i (iii) turbocharged engine; I (10) a meq,ns for the flight crew, when seated at the flight controls, to determine - ! i (i) the fuel quantity in each main fuel tank; and . '

! (ii) if the aircraft employs retractable landing gear, the position of the landing gear; and I (1 1) where the aircraft is operated for flight instructional purposes, a radio communication

svstem adeauate to permit two-way communication on the appropriate frequency when the . - aircraft is operated iithin Class "c" Class "E", or Class "E -'airspace.

I

10.8$0 OPERATION OF AN ULTRA-LIGHT AEROPLANE

(a) NO person may operate an ultra-light aeroplane - I (1) at night; 1 (2) in IFRflight; 1 (3) within 100 m (330 ft) of any boat, ship or vessel. I

(4) within 610 m (2,000 ft) of any congested area; or ) (5) subject to paragraph (e) of this Subsection. in controlled airspace.

(b) No person may take off from, land on or operate an ultra-light aeroplane on water unless that person has a Pilot Peimit - Ultra-light Aeroplane issued by the Authority, endorsed with a Sea Class Rating.

(c) No person may operate an ultra-light aeroplane unless the aircraft is equipped with - I (1) a suitable means of restraint for each occupant that is attached to the primary structure of I the aircraft; : (2) for aeroplanes operated from, or over water, a suitable life jacket for each occupant; and ) (3) a placard that is affixed to a surface in plain view of any occupant seated in the aeroplane 1 that states - I "THIS AEROPLANE IS OPERATING WITHOUT A CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS"

(d) N! person shall operate an ultra-light aeroplane unless each person on board - I (1) is secured by means of the restraint referred to in subparagraph (c) (i); and 1 (2) where the aircraft is not an advanced ultra-light aeroplane, is wearing a protective helmet.

(e) A parson may operate an ultra-light aeroplane in controlled airspace -

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I I

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(1) within five nautical miles from the centre of an airport or within a control zone of an uncontrolled airport where the person has obtained permission from the airport operator;

(2) wlthin a control zone of a controlled airport where the person has obtained an air tiaffic conhol clearance by two-way radio voice communication from the air traffic control unit of the airport; or

(3) whek the aircraft is an advanced ultra-light aeroplane, if the aeroplane is equipped In accdrdance with the Tenth Schedule, Subsection 10.855 (a).

(f) No person may cany a passenger in an ultra-light aeroplane in Jamaica unless the aeroplane has no restrictions against carrying another person and -

(1) the pilot is a holder of a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane endorsed with a Passenger- carrying Rating or Flight Instructor Rating issued by the Jamaica Civil Avlation Authoritr, or

(2) the plot is a holder of a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane issued by the Authority and the other person is a holder of a Pilot Licence or Permit, other than a Student Pilot +rice or Permit, which allows that person to act as pilot-in-command of an ultra-light aeroplane.

(g) No person maiy carry a passenger for hire or reward in an ultra-light aeroplane in Jamaica unless - the aircraft is reaistered as an advanced ultra-baht aeroplane and is listed on the Transport ~anada Approved List ofAdvanced ha-light~emplenes or on an equivalent docurhent issued by the United States' FAA or the Euro~ean Union: the carriage is for the sole purpose of flight instruction and the pilot is a holder of a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane endorsed with a Flight Instructor Rating issued by the Authority; the advanced ultra-light aeroplane is maintained in accordance with the manufacturer's specNed maintenance programme, or as approved by the JCAA; the *er of the advanced ultra-light aeroplane has complied with any mandatoly actions specified by the manufacturer; and the advanced ultra-light aeroplane has not been modified without written approval from the manufacturer.

PlLOT,QUALIFICAllONS AND PRNILEGES

(a) An applicant for a Student Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplanes shall meet the following requlrements - j

(1) Age. ~ : e at least 17 years of age. (2) Medical Filness. Hold a valid Class 2 or higher medical certificate. (3) ~ n o w i 4 ~ e . Provide a statement of assurance from the holder of a Flight lnstructor Rating

- Ultra-Light Aeroplane or a Flight Instructor Rating -Aeroplane that the applicant has obtaineq at least 90%, corrected to loo%, on an examination of the following subjects - (i) air8Traffic Control (ATC) clearances and instructions including ATC VFR rules and

procedures; (ii) ATF rules and procedures at controlled and uncontrolled aerodromes and airports; (iiil information Circulars and NOTAMs: ji;) basic aerodynamics applicable to the type of ultra-light being used for the training; (v) meteorological phenomena as applicable, including VFR and Special VFR weather

limits; (vi) human factors, including pilot decision-making; and (vii) emergency procedures, including stall recognition and recovery procedures.

(4) ~x~er ience and Skill. Once the citizenship, age, medical fitness and knowledge requirements have been met and evidence thereof presented to the Authority. a Student Pilot Permit in the category applied for shall be issued. The instructor shall be responsible for ensuring that the applicant has reached a sat~sfactory standard of experience and skill to complete solo Right before authorizing the first solo fl~ght.

, (b) An applicant for a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane shall meet the following requirements:

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THE CIVIL AVlATlON REGULATIONS. 2004

Age. Be at least 17 years of age. Medical Fitness. Hold a valid Class 2 or higher medical certificate. Knowledge. Have completed a minimum of 20-hours of ultra-light pilot ground school instruction on the following subjects and obtained at least 80%, corrected to loo%, on an examination covering these subjects - (i) aviation Law - regulations, rules, orders, air traffic services practices and procedures

and licensing requirements relevant to the permit; (ii) navigat~on - VFR navigation techniques; (iii) meteorology; (iv) aeronautics -general knowledge of airframes, engines and systems, theory of flight,

flight instruments, flight operations and human factors, including pilot decision- making; and

(v) emergency procedures, including stall recognition and recovery procedures.

(4) Experience. Have completed at least 30 take-offs and landings in ultra-light aeroplanes, including a minimum of 10 as sole occupant of the aeroplane, and a minimum of 10 hours pilot flight training under the direction of an appropriately qualified flight instructor of which-

(i) a minimum of 5 hours shall have been dual instruction flight time; (ii) a minimum of 2 hours-shall have been solo flight time; and (iii) if a Sea Class Rating is sought, a minimum of 10 take-offs and landings shall have

been accomplished from water.

(5) Skill. Within the 24 months preceding the date of application for the Permit, an applicant shall submit a letter from the holder of a Flight lnstructor Rating - Ultra-light Aeroplane certifying that the applicant has demonstrated the ability to perform both normal and emergency manoeuvres appropriate to the ultra-light aeroplane used for the training programme, and with a degree of competency appropriate to that of the holder of a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane.

(c) applicant for the addition of a Passenger-carrying Rating to a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane shall meet the following requirements - I

i (1) Age. Be at least 18 years of age. 1 (2) Experience. Have completed a minimum of 25 hours pilot flight training under the I direction of an appropriately qualified flight instructor of which - 1 (i) a minimum of 15 hours shall have been dual instruction flight time; and 1 (ii) a minimum of 5 hours shall have been solo flight time. : (3) Recency of experience. Have completed a minimum of 10 hours in ultra-light aeroplanes ' within the preceding 12 months, including at least 5 take-offs and landings on the type of : surface from which the ultra-light aeroplane will be operating. 1 (4) Skill. Within the preceding 24 months prior to the application have successfully completed

a flight test conducted by the Authority or a holder of an ultra-light Flight Instructor Rating i authorized by the Authority.

(d) Ah applicant for the addition of a Flight Instructor Rating to a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane shall meet the following requirements -

I (1) Age. Be a minimum of eighteen (18) years of age. / (2) Medical fitne$s. Hold at least a Class 2 Medical Certificate. , (3) Knowledge. Have attained a mark of at least 90% on the knowledge examination 1 specified in paragraph (b) (3) of this Subsection and have completed training in

instructional techniques which shall not be less than 10 hours and shall include - I (i) the practical application of the basic principles of learning and learning factors with

emphasis on the preparation and use of lesson plans;

I (ii) preparatory ground instruction;

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THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004 I

(iii) pre-flight, in-flight instruction and post-flight briefing; and (iv) fl~ght Aafety. Experience. Have acquired in ultra-light aeroplanes a minimum of 50 hours flight time. including a minimum of - (i) 15 hours of dual instruction flight time; (il) 5 hours of dual flight time on instructional techniques; and (lii) 25 hours solo flight time. Skill. ~ a v e successfully completed a flight test conduoted by.the Authority within the preceding 24 months prior to the application. Credits. 1

an applicant for a Pilot Permit - Ultra-hght Aeroplane who holds or has held within h e preceding 5 years a Pllot Licence, other than a Student Pilot Licence, in any other category of aircraft shall be deemed to have met the knowledge and examination requirement spec~fied in paragraph (b) (3) of this Subsection. That person shall also have'the experience requirements reduced to a minimum of 5 hours of flight time in ultra-light aeroplanes, including a minimum of 2 hours dual Instruction flight time and a minimum of 2 hours solo flight time. The flight time shall include a minimum of 20 takeoffs, full circuits and landings, lncludlng a minimum of 10 as sole occupant; an applicant for a Pilot Permit - Ultra-hght Aeroplane who holds a Pilot Licence - Aero'plane, other than a Student Pilot Licence, shall be deemed to have met the skill requirements for ultra-hght aeroplanes. an applicant for a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane who holds a permit or licence issued by or accepted in a Contracting State authorizing that person to operate ultra- iight;8eroplanes shall be deemed to have met the knowledge, experience and skill requirements for a Pilot Permit - Ultra-llght Aeroplane, provided evidence thereof is submitted to the Authority. an applicant for a Flight Instructor Rating - Ultra-light Aeroplanes who is h e holder of, or has held a Pilot Licence - Aeroplane, other than a Student Pilot Licence, within the preceding 5 years shall have the experience requirement specified in paragraph (d) (4) of this Subsection reduced to a minimum of 20 hours of flight time in ultra-light aeroplanes, including a minimum of 2 hours dual instruction flight time and a minimum of 10 hours solo flight time. the knowledge and skill requirements shall be deemed to have been met for an applicant for a Flight Instructor Rating - Ultra-light Aeroplanes I the applicant holds, or h'as held within the preceding two years, a Flight lnstructor Rating -Aeroplane or Helicopter. an applicant for a Flight Instructor Rating - Ultra-light Aeroplanes who holds a permit or licence issued by or accepted in a Contracting State authorizing that person to instruct in ultra-light aeroplanes shall be deemed to have met the knowledge and experience requirements for a Flight Instructor Rating - Ultra-l~ght Aeroplane, provided evidence thereof is submitted to the Authority.

(vii) the skill requirement for a Flight lnstructor Rating - Ultra-light Aeroplane shall be deemed to have been met by a successful instructor initial or renewal flight test in an aejoplane or helicopter category aircraft.

Period qf Validity.

(i) a Tilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplanes shall be valid to the first day of the sixty-first month following the month in which the Permit was issued.

(ii) a Passenger-carrying Rating shall be !did to the first day of the sixty-first month followino the month in which the Permit was issued provided the recenwof expede&e requirements specified in paragraph (c) (3) of this Subsection are maintalned. In the event that the recenev of experience is not maintained, the holder of the Rating shall regain currency by co;npleting 5 take-offs and landings with a Jamaican Flight lnstructor - Ultra-light ~eroplane or with an Inspector from the Authority.

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I THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004 44 1

/ (iii) a Flight lnstructor Rating - Ultra-light Aeroplane shall be valid to the first day of the twenty-fifth month following the month in which the Rating was issued. The Rating

! may be renewed following successful completion of a flight test conducted by the

I Authority.

(e) IPrivileges: The holder of a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane may - (1) act as pilot-in-command of an ultra-light aeroplane in which no passengers are carried on

i board;

(2) act as pilot-in-command of an ultra-light aeroplane with another person on board if the 1 ultra-light aeroplane has no restrictions against carrying another passenger and -

(i) the holder's Permit is endorsed with a Passenger-carrying Rating; or 1 (ii) , the other person is a holder of a Pilot Licence or Permit, other than a Student Pilot 1 Licence or Permit, that allows that person to act as pilot-in-command of an ultra-light

i aeroplane: and - (iii) act as pilot-in-command of an ultra-light aeroplane for the sole purpose of the

I holder's flight test.

( f ) / The holder of a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane endorsed with a Flight lnstructor Rating may:

operate an ultra-light aeroplane with another person on board if the holder has not less than 10 hours of flight time as a pilot of an ultra-light aeroplane with the same control configuration and the flight is for the sole purpose of providing dual flight instruction for:

(i) the issuance of a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane (Land) or, if the instructor's Permit is endorsed with a Sea Class Rating, Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane (Sea);

(ii) the endorsement of a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane with a Passenger-canying Rating; or

(iii) the endorsement of a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane with a Flight lnstructor Rating;

(iv) authorize the holder of a Student Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane to conduct solo fllght in an ultra-light aeroplane;

(v) conduct ground school instruction for a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane and for the endorsement of a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane with a Flight lnstructor Rating;

(vi) cerfify that an applicant has demonstrated the ability to meet the level of competency required for issuance of a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane; and

(vii) recommend an applicant for - (A) the endorsement of a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane with a Passenger-

carrying Rating; or (8) the endorsement of a Pilot Permit - Ultra-light Aeroplane with a Flight Instructor

Rating.

No person may operate an ultra-light aeroplane in Jamaica unless in respect of every incident related to the operation of the aircraft, the owner has subscribed for liability insurance covering risks of injury to or death of passengers in an amount that is not less than the amount determined by multiplying US$120.000 by the number of passengers on board the aircraft. .

No person referred to in paragraph (a) of this Subsection shall operate an airc . . . :'t unless, in respect of every incident related to the operation of the aircraft, the owner has subscribed for liability insurance covering risks of public liability in an amount not less than US$100.000.

No person referred to in paragraph (a) of this Subsection shall subscribe for any liability insurance that contains an exclusion or waiver provision .that reduces the insurance coverage for any incident below the applicable minimum determined pursuant to this Subsection, unless that Provision:

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is a standard exclusion clause adopted by the international aviation insurance industry that applies in respect of - '

(i) War, hijacking and other perils; (ii) Noise, pollution and other perils; and (iii) Radioactive contamination; is in respect of a chemical drift; includes a statement that the insurance does not apply in respect of liability assumed by the owher under any contract or agreement unless the liability would have attached to the owner even in the absence of such a contract or agreement; or includes a statement that the policy is void if the owner has concealed or misrepresented any malerial fact or circumstances concerning the insurance or the subject thereof or if there is1any fraud, dlempted fraud or false statement by the owner touching any matter relatingho the insurance or the subject thereof, either before or after the incident.

(d) A person referred to in paragraph (a) of this Subsection may comply with paragraphs (a) and (b) by subscribing for comprehensive single limit liability insurance consisting of a single policy or a combination of primary and supplementary policies.

10.875 MAINTENANCE REQUIREMENTS

(a) The operator of !an ultra-light aeroplane shall ensure that all maintenance requi;ements published by the aircraft m'anufacturer, as well as all items listed in paragraph (b) below are complied with.

I

(b) If no specific ma'intenance requirements are issued by the aircraft manufacturer, then the operator shall submit a m'aintenance program to the Authority for approval which shall include as a minimum: 1

(1) a visual inspection of the aircraft and its power plant by the pilot prior to the first flight of each day; I

(2) a visual inspection of the aircrafl and its power plant by an Aircrafl Maintenance Engineer at least once every twelve calendar months; and

(3) a maintenance schedule for the engine published by the manufacturer of that engine.

(c) The inspection required in paragraph (b) (2) may be completed and certified by any "M" Licensed aircrafl maintenance engineer or by the holder of a foreign AME Licence approved to do so by the Authority. j 2

APPENDICES ! I

(a) ' This implementinb standard authorizes flight operations with inoperative instruments and equipment installed in situations where no master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is available and no MEL is refluired for the specific aircraft operation under this Schedule.

(b) The inoperative instruments and equipment may not be - (1) part of t h e i V ~ ~ - d a y instruments and equipment prescribed in the Seventh Schedule ; I (2) required on the aircraft's equipment list or the operations equipment list for the kind of flight

operation deing conducted; (3) required by the Seventh Schedule or the specific kind of flight operation being conducted;

or , I

(4) required to be operational by an Airworthiness Directive. (c) To be eligible fordhese provisions, the inoperative instruments and equipment shall be -

(1) determined by the PIC and a qualified maintenance person not to be a hazard to safe operation; /

(2) deactivated and placarded "Inoperative: and !


I THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

! (Note: I f deactivation of the inoperative instrument or equipment involves maintenance, if must be accomplished and recorded in accordance with the Fifth Schedule.)

1 I (3) removed from the aircraft, the flight deck control placarded and the maintenance recorded I in accordance with the Fifth Schedule .

(d), The following instruments and equipment may not be included in the MEL - I (1) instruments and equipment that are either specifically or otherwise required by the

/

certification airworthiness requ~rements and which are essential for safe operations under I all operating conditions; ; (2) instruments and equipment required to be in operable condition by an Airworthiness I Directive, unless the Airworthiness Directive provides otherwise; and

(3) instruments and equipment required for spedific operations.

(Note: The required instruments and equipment for specific operations are listed in the Seventh I Schedule.)

I APPENDIX I TO 10.102: PILOT-INCOMMAND UNDER SUPERVSION

I (a) To be eligible for a credit of pilot-in-command under supervision flight time -

1 (1) the pilot shall be employed by an AOC holder who has an approved PIC under supervision training programme,

(2) The air operator's approved training programme shall include the procedures and i requirements for training SICS to become PICs, and

- (3) Thgair operator shall designate supervisory pilots who will conduct the PIC under I supervision training.

(b) IOnly the flight time accumulated by the PIC under supervision with a supe&isory or training pilot may be credited.

(c) '?he PIC under supervision flight time may be acquired in the SIC seat providdd all PIC functions, #with the exception of taxiing, can be accomplished in that seat. If all the PIC functions except (taxiing cannot be completed in the co-pilot seat, the PIC under supervision flight time must include a minimum of ten (10) hours in the PIC seat.

(d) h e maximum cross country fight time that may be credited under this programme towards an FTPL is 100 hours.

(e) A pilot undergoing PIC under supervision training shall acquire a minimum of one take-off and landing for each 10 hours of flight time.

(0 A pilot undergoing PIC under supervision training shall record one-half of the flight time so accumulated as PIC time and the other one-half as SIC time.

(g) A pilot wishing to be credited with PIC under supervision flight time shall include with hislher ap ilcation for a licence, a personal log or other reliable record that contains a summary of the PI! under supervision flight time and a letter from the applicant's air operator certifying that the time being claimed was attained while participating in the PIC under supervision training programme.

1 APPEND? 1 TO 10.175: USE OF NARCOTICS, DRUGS OR INTOXICATING LIQUOR

(a) dhenever there is a reasonable basis to believe that a person may not be in compliance with Subsection 10.175 and upon the request of the Authority, that person shall furcish the Authority or ahhorize any clinic, doctor, or other person to release to the Authority, the results of each blood tdst taken for presence of alcohol or narcotic substances up to 8 hours before or immediately after aCting or attempting to act as a crewmember.

\ (b) A& test information provided to the Authority under the provisions of this section may be used as

ehdence in 8ny legal proceeding.

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444 I THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

APPENDIX 1 TO 10.;185: FLIGHT CREWMEMBERS AT DUTY STATIONS

A required flightjcrewmember may leave the assigned duty station if the crewmember is taking a rest period and relief is provided -

(1) forithe assigned PIC during the enroute cruise portion of thd flight by h pilot who holds an Airline Transport Pilot Licence and an appropriate type rating, and who is currently qualified as PIC or SIC, and is qualified as PIC of that aircraft during the enroute cnrise poTion of the flight; and

:(2) in the case of the assigned SIC, by a pilot qualified to act as PIC or SIC of that aircraft during enryute operations. . .

APPENDIX f TO 10.218: USE OF FLIGHT DECK JUMP SEATS AND CABIN ATENDANT SEATS I

(a) The air operator may permit persons other than operating crewmembers or a representative of the i Authority to'occupy an available jump seat on the flight deck if there are no passenger seats available prbvided the person is employed by the air operator and - .

(1) ,the p&son is wearing the company uniform or is appropriately identified and authorized in accor'dance with the procedures specified in the Operations Manual; and

(2) the is briefed on - (i) ,the operation and use of the flight deck jump-seat and restraint system; (ii) /the location and use of the oxygen system, where applicable; (iii) ;the location and use of the life jacket; and (iv) 'the person's responsibilities and actions during an emergency.

(b) A crewmember employed by the air operator but not assigned as a member of the operating crew for the flightin question may occupy an available flight attendant seat when -

1 (1) thereiare no passenger seats available; and (2) the is wearing the company uniform, or is appropriately identified and is briefed on -

(i) the operation and use of the flight attendant seat and restraint system; (ii) \he location and use of the oxygen system at the flight attendant seat where

applicable; (iii) the location and use of the life jacket; and (iv) the ,person's responsibilities and actions during an emergency.

(c) A Cabin Safety lnspector carrying out an in-flight cabin inspection may ocdupy an available flight attendant seat only when -

I (1) an inaccurate load forecast for a multi-sector flight results in the displacement of the

lnspector by a revenue passenger; or (2) in extenuating circumstances when the completion of the in-flight cabin inspection is

mandatory and alternate seating is not available; and (3) the Inspector has been briefed on -

(i) the operation and use of the flight attendant seat and restraint system; (ii) the location and use of the oxygen system at the flight attendant seat, where

applicable; (iii) the location and use of the life jacket; and (iv) the person's responsibilities and actions during an emergency.

APPENDIX 1 TO lo.+?: PORTABLE ELECTRONIC DEVICES

(a) Prohibited debices, permitted devices without restrictions and pemiitted devices with restrictions are defined as follows, add are to be used in accordance with the stated requirements as applicable - '

(1) prohibited Devices. A transmitting device that has an inherent characteristic of radiating radio ;frequency signals;

(2) Permitted Devices Without Restrictions. (i) 1 hearing aids;

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heart pacemakers; electronic watches; and properly certificated air operator installedequipment;

(3) Permitted Devices with Restrictions. ' (i) personal life support systems, provided the device does not cause interference with

the aircraft's systems or equipment; 1 (ii) portable two-way radio communication devices may be used under the following i conditions: ! (A) use is prohibited at all times when the aircraft engines are running (excluding

auxiliary power unit); \ (B) use is terminated during the delivery of the pre-flight safety briefing and

i demonstration; and I (C) the Company Operations Manual contains procedures to control use and I stowage. I (iii) other portable electronic devices may be used, except during take-off, climb,

approach and landing.

~asdengers shall be informed of the air operator's policy pertaining to the use of portable e~edronic devices and those devices that are prohibited from use during the delivery of the pre- flight safety briefing and demonstration.

~ h d n Interference with the aircraft's systems or equipment is suspected from use of a portable electronic device, crewmembers shall -

(I,) identify passenger using portable electronic device(s), (2) instruct passenger(s) to terminate the use of portable electronic device(@, and (3) confirm by checks that the aircraft's systems and.equipment are no longer affected.

The PIC shall report incidents of portable electronic device interference to the company operations Manager and/or Safety Programme Manager and include the following information in the report -

flight information - aircraft type, registration, date and UTC time of incident, aircraft location (VOR bearingldistance or LaVLong), altitude, weather conditions, pilot name and telephone number; description of interference - description of effects on cockpit indicators, audio or other systems, including radio frequency, identification, duration, severi,ty and other pertinent information; action taken by pilotlcrew to identify cause or source of interference; identification of portable electronic device - description of device, brand name, model. serial number, mode of operation (i.e. FM radio), device location (seat location) and regulatory approval number (FCCIother); identification of user - name and telephone number of passenger operating the device; and additional information - as determined pertinent by the crew.

An ah operator shall report incidents of portable electronic device interference, to include the above noted information, to the Jamaican Civil Aviation Authority, Director Flight Safety, 4 Winchester Road., Kingston 10. Jamaica.

~ero~ lane$ may be fuelled with passengers embarking, disembarking, or on board under the following conditions,- '

(1) in order to ensure that crewmembers receive prompt notification of a situation threatening safety such as rnzijor fuel spill or a fire, two way communication is maintained between the

I ground crew supervising the fuelling and the qualified personnel on board the aeroplane so that the aeroplane can be deplaned or evacuated as necessary;



(2) a means of &mmunication among the qualified personnel on board the aeroplane, groundlmaintenance crews and fuelling agencies is determined and established and the procedures are provided to the appropriate personnel:

(3) the aeroplane engines are not running unless the aircraft incorporates a propeller brake and the brabe is set. The AFM must refer to the propeller brakelengine as an auxiliary power unit (APU);

(4) during the fuelling process - aeroplene ground power generators or other electrical ground power supplies are not being connected or disconnected. combustion heaters installed on the aeroplane (e.g. wing and tail surface heaters. integral cabin heaters) are not operated, known high energy equipment such as High Frequency (HF) radios are not operated, unlesd in accordance with the aeroplane manufacturer's approved flight manual where the manual contains procedures for the use of this equipment during fuelling. weather-mapping radar equipment in the aeroplane is not operated unless in accordance with the manufacturer's approved aeroplane flight manual where the manual contains procedures for use during fuelling, aeroplane batteries are not being removed or installed, exterdal battery chargers are not being connected, operated or disconnected. aeroplane-borne auxiliary power units which have an efflux discharging into the zone are not started after filler caps are removed or fuelling connections are made, if an auxiliary power unit (APU) is stopped for any reason during fuelling it shall not be restarted until the flow of fuel has ceased and there is no risk of igniting fuel vapodrs. however, the APU may be operated in accordance with the manufacturer's approved AFM if the manual contains procedures for starting the APU during fuelling, electqic tools or similar tools likely to produce sparks or arcs are not beingused, and photographic equipment is not used within 10 ft. (3m) of the fuelling equipment or the fill orjvent points of the aeroplane fuel systems;

(5) aerodrome; Fuelling is immediately suspended when there are lightning discharges within 8 krh of the

(6) the aeroplane is fuelled in accordance with, manufacturer's procedures for that type of aeroplane\

(7) the aeropl'ane emergency lighting system is armed or on; (8) "No ~ m o l h ~ " signs on board the aeroplane are illuminited, as applicable; (9) procedures are established to ensure that passengers do not smoke, operate portable

electronic devices or otherwise produce sources of ignition; (10) for aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of more than 19 seats, a minimum of two

exits are designated as evacuation exits during fuelling; one of which must be the entry door through which the passengers embarked;

(1 1) the designated evacuation exitsduring fuelling are identified by aeroplane type and published in the company operations manual, and are clear and available for immediate use by passengers and crewmembers should an evacuation be required;

(12) the air op!erator has procedures in place to ensure that there is a ready escape route from each designated evacuation exit during fuelling and that designated evacuation exits that are equidped with slides have the slides armed or a crewmember is in the immediate vicinity to arm the slides if required;

(13) unless the designated evacuation exits are at ground level, a means of evacuation such as a deployed integral stair, a loading stair or stand, a loading bridge or a passenger transfer Gehicle (PTV) is in place at the aeroplane door used for the embarking and disembarking of passengers and is free of obstruction and available for immediate use by the aeroplane occupants if necessary;

(14) for aeroplanes requiring a minimum cabin crew of one, a qualified person trained in the operation and use of emergency exits and in emergency evacuation procedures who is ready to;initiate and direct an evacuation is at or near the passenger entry door;

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(15) for aeroplanes requiring a minimum cabin crew of more than one, at least the minimum number of flight attendants for the aeroplane type or the number of passengers on board, whichever is greater, are on board and positioned at or near each designated evacuation exit during fuelling. Cabin attendants may be replaced by an equivalent number of other staff provided that they have successfully completed the air operator's approved emergency evacuation procedures training for that aeroplane type;

(16) flight crewmembers inform the in-charge cabin attendant when they are leaving the aeroplane;

(17) where desirable for climatic reasons, and provided a flight crewmember is on board or a means of communication is available to the cabin attendants, an aeroplane embarking door, that is inward opening or that can be fully opened to the exterior without repositioning of loading stairs or stand, may be closed and latched if necessary to keep it closed, but may not be locked; and

(18) procedures are established to ensure that cabin attendants or qualified persons replacing cabin attendants in accordance with paragraph (1 5) are made aware of when fuelling will take place.

APPEN~DIX 1 TO 10.295: CHILD RESTRAINT SYSTEMS

(a) /An approved child restraint system shall bear one or more labels as follows - I (1) seats manufactured to US. standards between January 1,1981, and February 25.1985. I

must bear the label: "This child restraint system conforms to all applicable Federal motor I vehicle safety standards."; : (2) seats manufactured to U.S. standards on or after February 26, 1985, must bear two

labels-

\ (i) "This child restraint system conforms to all applicable Federal motor vehicle safety I standards"; and i , (ii) "THIS RESTRAINT IS CERTIFIED FOR USE IN MOTOR VEHICLES AND

AIRCRAFT" in red lettering; or 1 (3) seats that do not qualify under paragraphs (a) (1) and (2) of this Appendix must bear either / a label showing approval of a foreign government or a label showing that the seat was ! manufactured under the standards of the United Nations;

+otwithstanding any other provisions of this Appendix, booster-type child restraint systems (as defined in US Federal Motor Vehicle Standard No. 213 (49 CFR 571.213) or foreign equivalent). vest- and harness-type child restraint systems. and lap held child restraints are not approved for use in aircraft.

The AOC holder shall comply with the following requirements - I (1) the restraint system must be properly secured to an approved forward facing seat or berth; I (2) the child must be properly secured in the restraint system and must not exceed the

specified weight limit for the restraint system; and : (3) the restraint system must bear the appropriate label(s).

Ekcept as provided in paragraph (k) of this Appendix, no AOC holder may permit a child, in an aikraft, to occupy a booster-type child restraint systemi a vest-type child restraint system, a hdrness-type child restraint system or a lap held child restraint system during take off, landing and movement on the surface.

pdragraph (d) of this Appendix does not prohibit the AOC holder from providing child restraint &terns authorized by this Appendix or, consistent with safe operating practices, determining the mdst appropriate passenger seat location for the child restraint system.

No/operator of an aircraft shall permit the use of a child restraint system on board the aircraft unless

(1

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the person using the child restraint system is accompanied by a parent or guardian who will attend to the safety of the person during the flight;

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I the weight and height of the person using the child restraint system are within the range specified by the manufacturer; the child'restra~nt system bears a legible label indicating the applicable design standards and date of manufacture; the child'restraint system is properly secured by the safety belt of a forward-facing seat that is not located in an emergency exit row and does not block access to an aisle; and the tethdr strap is used according to the manufacturer's instructions or, where subparagraph (2) applies, secured so as not to pose a hazard to the person using the child restraint system or to any other person

(g) Where a seat in{orporates design features to reduce occupant loads, such as the crushing or separation of certain components, and the seat is in compliance with the applicable design standards, no person shall use the tether strap on the child restraint system to secure the system. ' .

I (h) Every passenger who is responsible for a person who is using a child restraint system on board an 1

aircrafl shall be -1 (1) seated in a seat adjacent to the seat to which the child restraint system is secured; (2) familiar with the manufacturer's installation instructions for the child restraint system; and (3) familiar with the method of securing the person in the child restraint system and of

releasin0 the person from it.

(a) Standard Safety ~riefing. The standard safety briefing shall consist of an oral briefing provided by a crewmember o i by audio or audio-visual means in English which includes the following information as applicable to the aeroplane, equipment and operation -

(1) Prior to dke-off - (i) when, where, why and how carry-on baggage is required to be stowed; (ii) the fastening, unfastening, adjusting and general use of safety belts or safety

harnesses; (iii) when seat backs must be secured in the upright position and chair tables must be

stowed; (iv) the location of the passenger briefing cards; (v) the location of emergency exits; (vi) the lo or Proximity Emergency Escape Path lighting system, if applicable; (vii) the location, purpose of, and advisability of reading the safety features card; (viii) the regulatory requirement to obey crew instructions regarding safety,belts, Fasten

Seat Belt signs and No Smoking signs and the location of these signs; (ix) where flight attendants are not required, the location of any emergency equipment

the bassenger may have a need for in an emergency situation such as the ELT, fire extiTguisher, survival equipment (including the means to access if in a locked compartment). first aid kits and life rafts;

(x) the use of passenger operated portable electronic devices; (xi) for fliahts to be operated above 14.000 feet, the location. and operation of the fixed . .

oxygen system, including the location and presentaion of the masks; the actions to be performed by the passenger in order to obtain the mask, activate the flow'of oxygen and correcily don and secure the mask. This will include a demonstration of their location, method of donning including the use of elastic band, and4operation, and instruction on the priority for persons assisting others. This briefing may be completed afler take-off but prior to reaching 25,000 feet;

(xii) the location and use of life jackets, including how to remove from stowagelpackaging and:a demonstration of their location, method of donning and inflation and when to inflate life jackets. This briefing may be completed afler take-off prior to the over water portion of the flight;

(xiii) the fact that passengers may draw to the attention of a cabin crewmember any concerns relating to safety;

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(xiv) the functions required of a passenger seated in an exit row in the event of an emergency in which a crewmember is not available to assist, including:

locate the emergency exit; recognise the emergency exit opening mechanism; comprehend the instructions for operating the emergency exit; operate the emergency exit; assess whether opening the emergency exit will increase the hazards to which passengers may be exposed; stow or secure the emergency exit door so that it will not impede use of the exit; pass expeditiously through the emergency exit; and assess, select and follow a safe path away from the emergency exit; and

a request that a passenger seated in an exit row identify himself or herself to allow reseating if he or she:

(A) cannot perform the emergencyfunctions stated in the information card; (B) has a non-discernible condition that will prevent him or her from performing the

functions; (C) may suffer bodily harm as the result of performing one or more of those

functions; (D) does not wish to perform those functions; or (E) lacks the ability to read, speak or understand the language or the graphic form

in which instructions are provided by the AOC holder. After take-off - (i) that smoking is prohibited; and (ii) the advisability of using safety-belts or safety harnesses during flight; In-flight when the "Fasten Seat Belt" sign has been turned on for reasons of turbulence - (i) %en the use of seat belts is required; and (ii) when the level of turbulence is anticipated to exceed light, the requirement to stow

carry-on baggage; Prior to landing - (i) carry on baggage stowage requirements; (ii) correct seat back and chair table positioning; (ii/) on flights scheduled for four hours duration& more, the location of emergericy exits;

and (iv) the seat belt requirement;

Prior to passenger disembarkment - (i) the no smoking requirement, (ii) the safest direction and most hazard-free route for passenger movement away from

the aeroplane following disembarkment; and (iii) any dangers associated with the aeroplane type such as pitot tube locations,

propellers, or engine intakes.

( ~ o t e : The sefety message of the briefing may not be diluted by the inclusion of eny service ~nfonnation or edvertising that would affect the integrity of the safety briefing.)

(b) lndividuiil Safety Briefing. The individual safety briefing shall include - (1) any information contaihed in the standard safety briefing and the safety features card that

1 the passenger would not be able to receive during the normal conduct of that safety I briefing; and

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(2) additional information applicable to the needs of that person as follows - \ (i) the most appropriate brace position for that passenger in consideration of hislher , condition, injury, stature, andlor seat orientation and pitch; 8 (ii) the location to place any service animal that accompanies the passenger; I

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I THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

(iii) foria mobility restricted passenger who needs assistance in moving expeditiously to aniexit during an emergency - (A) a determination of what assistance the person would require to get to an exit; (B): the route to the most appropriate exit; (C) the most appropriate time to begin moving to that exit; and (D) a determination of the most appropriate manner of assisting the passenger;

(3) for a visually impaired person -

(i) detkiled information of and facilitating a tactile familiarization with the equipment that helshe may be required to use;

(ii) advising the person where to stow hislher cane if applicable; (iii) the )umber of rows of seats between hislher seat and hislher closest exit and

alternate exit, (iv) an yxplanation of the features of the exits; and (v) if requested, a tactile familiarization of the exit;

(4) for a comprehension restricted person: while using the safety features card, pointing out the emefigency exits and alternate exits to use, and any equipment that helshe may be required fo use;

(5) for persons with a hearing impairment -

(i) ~ h q e using the safety features card, point out the emergency exits and alternate exits to use, and any other equipment that the person may be required to use;

(ii) communicating detail information by pointing, face-to-face communication permitting speech reading, pen and paper. through an interpreter or through their attendant;

(6) For a passenger who is responsible for another person on board, information pertinent to the needs of the other person as applicable - (i) in th'e case of an infant -

(A) ' seat belt instructions; (B) I method of holding infant for take-off and landing; (C) ;instructions pertaining to the use of a child restraint system; (D) oxygen mask donning instructions; (E) Irecommended brace position; and (F) :location and use of life preservers, as required.

(ii) in the case of any other person - (A) 'oxygen mask donning instructions; (B) hitructions pertaining to the use of a child restraint system; and (C) ;evacuation responsibilities;

(iii) for an unaccompanied minor, instructions to pay close attention to the normal safety briefipg and to follow all instructions.

(Note: passenger that has been provided with an individual safety briefing need not be re-briefed following a change in crew i f the crewmember that provided the individual safety briefing has advised a member of the new crew ofthe contents of that briefing including'any information respecting the special needs of that passenger. A passenger may decline an individual safety briefing.)

(c) Passenger preparetion for Emergency Landing. The emergency briefing provided in the event of an emergency where time and circumstance permit shall consist of instructions pertaining to -

safety beltslsafety harnesses seatbacks land chair tables; carry-on baggage; safety features cards; brace position (how to brace, when to assume position, hoWlong to remain); location of 'exits if applicable, life breservers; and

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THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004 45 1 ! ) (8) if applicable, evacuation procedures for an occupant of a child restraint system. I

APPENDIX 1 TO 10.301: CREWMEMBER BRIEFING

The pre-flight crewmember briefing shall consist of a joint crewmember briefing involving all drewmembers or a briefing from the pilot-in-command to the in-charge flight attendant and from t$e in-charge flight attendant to other cabin crewmembers. Where the flight involves only one flight attendant the pilot-in-commandshall brief that flight attendant as per paragraph (a).

Pre-flight Briefing - All Crewmembers. The contents of the pre-flight crewmember briefing that involves all crewmembers shall include the following as appropriate:

anticipated weather; anticipated flying conditions; flight time; altitudes: review of selected communication procedures; review of selected emergency procedures; review of selected safety procedures; and . any additional information necessary for the flight including information respecting unserviceable equipment or abnormalities that may affect passengers.

pie-flight Briefing - PIC to In-charge Flight Attendant. The.contents of a pre-flight pilot-incommand to the in-charge flight attendant briefing shall include the following:

\(I) anticipated weather; (2) anticipated flying conditions; ,(3) flight time; (4) altitudes; and (5) any additional information necessary for the flight including information respecting I unserviceable equipment or abnormalities that may affect passengers.

Pre-flight Briefing - In-charge to Cabin Crew. The contents of a pre-flight in-charge flight attendant to +bin crew briefing shall include the following:

(1) anticipated weather; (2) anticipated flying conditions; (3) flight time; (4) altitudes; (5) review of selected rpmmunication procedures; (6) review of selected emergency procedures; (7) review of selected safety procedures; and (8) any additional information necessary for the flight including information respecting ! unserviceable equipment or abnormalities that may affect passengers. I

APPENDIX 1 TO 10.305: IN-FLIGHT EMERGENCY ~NSTRUCT~ON

The in-flight emergency instruction provided in the event of an emergency where time and cirwms@nces permit shall consist of instructions pertaining to:

safety beltslsafety harnesses; seat backs and chair tables; carry-on baggage; safety features cards; brace position (how to brace, when to assume position, how long to remain): if applicable, life preservers; location of exits; and if eppllcable, evacuation procedures for an occupant of a child restraint system.

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I APPENDIX 1 TO 10.400': DETERMINATION OF FLIGHT PLANNING SPEED - ETOPS

(a) An AOC holde; shall determine a speed for the calculation of the maximum distance to an adequate aeroprome for each twin-engine aeroplane type or variant operated. not exceeding V, based upon the true airspeed that the aeroplane can maintain with one-engine-inoperative under the following canditions-

(1) International Standard Atmosphere; (2) level flight -

(i) for turbine engined powered aeroplanes at-

(A) FL 170; or (B? at the maximum flight level to which the aeroplane, with one engine inoperative.

can climb and maintain, using the gross rate of climb specified in the AFM, / whichever is less.

(ii) for propeller driven aeroplanes - (A): FL 80; or (B), at the maximum flight level to which the aeroplane, with one engine inoperative,

I can climb and maintain, using the gross rate of climb specified in the AFM. ! whichever is less.

(3) maximdm continuous thrust or power on the remaining operating engine; (4) an aerdplane mass not less than that resulting from -

(i) take-off at sea-level at maximum take-off mass until the time elapsed since take-off is equal to the applicable threshold prescribed in Subsection 10.400 (a);

(ii) allengines climb to the optimum long range cruise altitude until the time elapsed since take-off is equal to the applicable threshold prescribed in Subsection 10.400 (a); and

(iii) alllengines cruise at the long range cruise speed at this altitude until the time elapsed since take-off is equal to the applicable threshold prescribed in Subsection 10.400 @Ii.

(b) An AOC holder shall ensure that the following data, specific to each type or variant, is included in the Operations Manual:

(1) the onejengine-inoperative cruise speed determined in accordance with paragraph (a) of this Appkndix; and

(2) the maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome determined in accordance with this ~ppendi :~ .

(Note: The speeds and altitudes (flight levels) specified above are only intended to be used for establishing t)ye maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome.)

APPENDIX 1 TO 10.410: :ETOPS ALTERNATE PLANNING

The alternate weathe( minima specified in the table below are those required for planning purposes and must be forecast to exist for the period commencingone hour before theestablished earliest time of landing and ending one hour after the established earliest time of landing at the aerodrome. In addition, for the same period of time based on estimated landing time, the forecast crosswind, including gusts, for the landing runway expected to be used shall not exceed aircrafl limitations.

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THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULATIONS, 2004 , 45 3

Planning Mlnima T h of Approach

(Celllnglvlslblllty or RVR required) I

minima I 1

(Note: Runways on the same aerodrome are considered to be separate runways when they are separate landing surfaces which may overlay or cross such that if one of the runways is blocked, it will not prevent the planned type of operations on the other runway and each of the landing surfaces has a separate approach based on a separate aid.)

APPENDIX 1 TO 10.445: OPERATIONAL FLIGHT PLAN REQUIREMENTS ~hl! following table outlines the req"irernents of an OFP -

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454 I I THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

APPENDIX 1 /TO 10.495: ALTIMETER SElllNGS APPROPRIATE TO ATRANSITION ALTITUDE OF 5,400 METERS (18,000 FEET)

The lowest usable flight level is determined by the atmospheric pressure in the area of operation :as shown in the following table.

Appendix 1 :to 10.587: Criteria for a Stabilized Approach

(a) An approach is stabilized when all the following criteria are met - (1) the aircraft is on the correct flight path within tolerances for the approach (ie.

azimuth and vertical guidance); (21 only small changes in heading are required to maintain the correct flight path; (3) the aircraft speed is not more than V,,, plus 20 knots indicated airspeed and not

; less than V R ~ F ; (4) the aircraft is in the landing configuration; (5 ) ) sink rate is. no greater than 1.000 A per minute, unless otherwise briefed in special

1 circumstances; (6), power setting is appropriate for the aircraft configuration and is not below the

! minimum power for approach as defined in the AFMIAOM; and (7); all briefings and checklists have been completed.

(b) An apQroach that becomes unstabilized below the altitudes specified in Subsection 10.587 requires an immediate go-around (overshoot).

Appendix 1 to 10.600: Universal Interception Signals

(a) An airdraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately: (I)/ follow the instructions given by the intercepting aircraft, interpreting and

1 responding to visual signals in accordance with the specifications in Appendix 1; (2) / notify, if possible, the appropriate air traffic services unit; (3) i Attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the

i appropriate intercept control unit. by making a general call on the emergency 1 frequency 121.5 MHz, giving the identity of the intercepted aircraft and the nature ; of the flight; and if no contact has been established and if practicable, repeating ! this call on the emergency frequency 243 MHz;

(4) : if equipped with SSR transponder, select Mode A, Code 7700. unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate air traffic services unit.

(b) If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visual signals, the intercepted aircraft shall request immediate clarification while contiquing to comply with the visual instructions given by the intercepting aircraft.;

(c) If any ikructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by radio, the intercepted aircrafl shall request Immediate clarification while continuing to comply with the radio instructions given by the intercepting aircrafl

(d) Radio communication during interception -

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( ( f ) if radio contact is established during interception but communication in a common I language is not possible, attempts shall be made to convey instructions,

/ acknowledgement of instructions and essential ATC information by using the phrases and pronunciations in the following table and transmitting each phrase

1 twice: I I

~ h r a * e s for use by INTERCEPTING aircraft I

Phrase Pronunciation Meaning CALL S'IGN KOL SA-IN What is vour

I call sign'? FOLLOW FOL-LO Follow me

DESCEND DEE-SEND Descend for 1

landing YOU LAND YOU LAAND Land at this

i aerodrome PROCEED PRO-SEED You may

proceed

I 1. In the second column, syllables to be em~hasr

Phrases for use by INTERCEPTED aircraft

Phrase Pron'unciation' Meaning CALL SIGN KOL SA-IN My call sign is (call (call sign12 (call sign) sign) WlLCO VILL-KO Understood

Will comply CAN NOT KANN NOTT Unable to comply

REPEAT REE-PEET Repeat your instruction

AM LOST AM LOSST Position unknown

MAYDAY MAYDAY I am in distress HIJACK' HI-JACK Ihavebeenhijacked LAND LAAND I reauest to land at (place name) (place name) (place name) DESCEND DEE-SEND I require descent ?d are underlined. kf

2. The call sign required tobe given is that used in radiotelephone, communications with air traffic services corresponding to the aircraff identification in the flight pian. 3. ~irc&nstances may not always permit, nor make desirable, the use of the phrase "HIJACK: 1 (2) Signals initiated by intercepted arcraft and responses by intercepting aircraft.

I

Series INTERCEPTING Aircraft Signals

1 DAY or NIGHT - Rocking aircraft and flashing navigational lights at irregular intervals (and landing lights in the case of a

I helicopter) from a position slightly above and I ahead of, and normally to the left of, the / intercepted aircraft (or to the right if the I intercepted aircraft is a helicopter) and, after acknowledgement, a slow level tum, normally I to the left. (or to the right in the case of a 1 helicopter) on the desired heading.

; Note 1. - Meteomlogical conditions or I terrain may require the intercepting aircret? to I reverse the positions and direction of turn i given above in Series 1. ; Note 2. -If the intercepted aircrafl is not able to keep pace with the intercepting aimrat?, the latter is expected to fly a series or mce-tmck patterns end to mck the alrcrat?

I ! each time it passes the intercepted aircmt?. 2 I(DAY or NIGHT -An ilbrupt break-away

consisting of a climbing turn of 90 degrees or

11 intercepted aircraft. 3 1 /DAY or NlGHT - Lowering landing gear (if

Meaning INTERCEPTED Aircraft Meaning Responds

Vou have DAY or NIGHT - Rocking Understood 2een aircraft, flashing navigational ntercepted. lights at irregular intervals Will Follow me. and following. comply.

comply. I I

Land at this I DAY or NIGHT - Lowerlng 1 Understood

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I

fitted), showing stdady landing lights and overflying runway in use or, if the intercepted alrcraff Is a helicodter, overflying the hellcopter landing area. In the case of hellcopters, the intbrcepting helicopter makes a landlng approace, coming to hover near to the landing area. /

Series

DAY or NIGHT - Raising landing gear (1 Mted) and flashing' landing lights while passing over runwhy in use or helicopter landing area at a height exceeding 300 metem (1.000 ft) blut not exceeding 600 meters (2,000 ft) (in the case of a helicopter. at a height exceeding 50 meters (170 ft) but not exceeding 100 meters (330 ft) above the aerodrome level, and continuing to circle runway in use or helicopter landing area. If

1 unable to flash landing lights, flash any other

INTERCEPTING Aircraft Signals I

llghts available. I I - I as b be distinct fr$m flashing lights.

6 1 DAY or NIGHT-! Irregular flashing of all

5

I I available lights. j

DAY or NIGHT-:Regular switching on and off of all available!lights but in such a manner

Meaning

aemdmme.

Aemdmme you have designated is inadequate.

Cannot comply.

In distress.

INTERCEPTED Aircraft Responds

landing gear (if fitted). showingsteady landing lights and following the intercepting aircraft and, if, after overflying the runway in use or helicopter landing area, landing is considered safe, proceeding to land. DAY or NIGHT- If it is desired that the intercepted aircraft follow the intercepting aircraft to an alternate aerodrome, the intercepting aircraft raises its landing gear (if-fitted) and uses he Series 1 signals prescrlbed for intercepting aircraft.

If it is decided to release the incepted aircraft. the intercepting aircraft uses the Series 2 signals prescribed for intercepting aircraft. DAY or NIGHT - Use Series 2 signals prescribed for intercepting aircraft. DAY or NIGHT - Use Series 2 signals prescribed for intercepting aircraft.

I &PENDM 1 TO 10.655: UNIVERSAL AVIATION SIGNALS FOR DISTRESS

(a) Distress signals. She following signals, used e~ther together or separately, mean that grave and immineht danger threatens, and immediate assistance is requested:

Meaning

Will comply.

Understood

Follow me.

Understood

You may prcceed.

Understood

(Note: None 01 the pmvisions in this section shall prevent the we. by an aircral in distress, o f and means at its disposal to attract attention, make known its position and obtaln help.) i (Note: For ful1)deteils of telecommunication transmission pmkedures for the distress and urgency signals, see ICAO Annex 10, Volume 11, Chapter 5.)

(Note: or d e t h o f the search and rescue visualsignals, see ICAO Annex 12.)

(1) a signal aade by radiotelegraphy or by any other signalling method consisting of the group SOS (I..---. *.in the Morse Code);

(2) a signal yent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY; (3) rockets OF shells throwing red lights, fired one at a time at short intervals; (4) a parachute flare showing a red light.

(Note: Article 41 o f the ITU Radio Schedule (Nos. 3268,3270 and 3271 refer) provides information on!the alarm signals for actuating radiotelegraph and radiotelephone auto- alarm systemd. 3268: The radiotelegraph alarm signal consists of a series of twelve dashes sent in' one minute, the duration of each dash being four seconds and the duration o f the; interval between consecutive dashes one second. It may be transmitted by hand but its transmission by means o f an automatic instmment is recommended.

I

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1

I THE CIVIL A VIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

I 3270: The radiotelephone alarm signal consists of two substantially sinusoidal audio frequency tones transmitted alternately. One tone shall have a frequency of 2200 Hz and the other a frequency of 1300 Hz, the duration of each tone being 250 milliseconds. 3271: The radiotelephone alarm signal, when generated by automatic means, shall be

I sent continuously for a period of at least thirty. seconds but not exceeding one minute;

i when generated by other means, the signal shall be sent as continuously as practicable over a period of approximately one minute.)

i (b) The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that an aircraft wishes to

I give notice of difficulties which compel ~t to land without requiring immediate assistance:

(1) the repeated switching on and off of the landing lights; or (2) the repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights in such manner as to be

distinct from flashing navigation lights.

I (c) The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that an aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft or other vehicle, or of

1 some person on board or within sight - ! (I) a signal made by radiotelegraphy or by any other signalling method consisting of

the group XXX. (2) a signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN, PAN, PAN.

~PPENDIX 2 TO 10.655: UNIVERSAL AVIATION SIGNALS FOR AIRPORTTRAFFIC CONTROL

1 (a) Visual signals used to warn an unauthorized aircraft. By day and by night, a series of projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals of 10 seconds, each showing, on

I bursting, red and green lights or stars will indicate to an unauthorized aircraft that it is flying in or about to enter a restricted, prohibited, or danger area, and that the aircraft is to

, take such remedial action as may be necessary.

(b) Signals for aerodrome traffic. Aerodrome controllers shall use and pilots shall obey the following light and pyrotechnic signals:

tiwards aircraft concerned (See Figure 10.1)

i

Light

Directed I Steady green

Steady red

From Aerodrome Aircraft i n flight

Cleared to land

Series of green flashes Series of red flashes Series of white flashes Red pyrotechnic

Give way to other aircraft and continue circlmg Return for landing'.

Aerodrome unsafe, do not land

Land at th~s aerodrome and proceed to apron' Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the

ontrol to: Aircraft o n the ground

Cleared for take- offlcleared to taxi Taxi clear of land~ng area in use Return to starting pomt on the aerodrome

I I I time being I : Clearances to land and to taxi will be given in due course.

J

I

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I

RED PYROTEWNIC

, ' -j$ /

NONVITHSTAHDMO ANY PREVlWS MSTRUCTIONS. DO NOTLAND Fa( WE TIME BEMG

I ! Figure 10.1

(c) Pilots shall acknowledge aerodrome controller signals as follows: (1) when in'flight:

(i) duiing the hours of daylight by rocking the aircraft's wings;

(Note. -' This signal should not be expected on the base and final legs of the approach.)

(ii) ddring the hours of darkness by flashing on and off twice the aircraft'= laoding lights or, if not so equipped, by switching on and o f twice its navigation lights.

(2). when on the ground: (i) ddring the hours of daylight by moving the aircraft's ailerons of rudder; (ii) during the hours of darkness by flashing on and off twice the aircraft's

landing lights or, if not so equipped, by switching on an3 ~ f f twice its navigation lights

(a) Aerodrome authorities shall use the following visual ground signals shall be use during the following situations:

(1) ~rohibihon of landing. A horizontal red square panel with yellow diagonals (Figure 10.2) when displayed in a signal area indicates that landings are prohibited and that the prohibition is liable to be prolonged.

Figure 10.2

i

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(2) Need for special precautions while approaching or landing. A horizontal red square panel with one yellow diagonal (Figure 10.3) when displayed in a signal area indicates that owing to the bad state of the manoeuvring area, or for any other reason, special precautions must be observed in approaching to land or in landing.

Figure 10.3

(3) Use of runways and taxiways.

(i) A horizontal.white dumb-bell (Figure 10.4) when displayed in a signal area indicates that aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only.

Figure 10.4

(ii) The same horizontal white dumb-bell as in Figure 10.4, but with a black bar placed perpendicular to the shaft across each circular portion of the dumb- bell (Figure 10.5) when displayed in a signal area indicates that aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways and taxiways

Figure 10.5

(4) Closed runways octaxiways. Crosses of a single contrasting colour, yellow or white (Figure 10.6), displayed horizontally on runways and taxiways or parts thereof indicate an area unfit for movement of aircraft.

Figure 10.6

(5) Directions for landing or take-off. (i) a horizontal white or orange landing T (Figure 10.7) indicates the direction to

be used by aircraft for landing and rake-off, which shall be in a direction parallel to the shaft of the T towards the cross arm.

(Note: When used at night, the landing T is either illuminated or outlined in white coloured lights.)

Figure 10.7 (ii) A set of two digits (Figure 10.8) displayed vertically at or near the aerodrome

control tower indicates to aircraft on the manoeuvring area the direction for take-off, expressed in units of 10 degrees to the nearest 10 degrees of the magnetic compass.

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I i i I

I THE CIVIL AVIATIONREGULATIONS, 2004 1

Figure 10.8

~ight-hand traffic. When displayed in a signal area, or horizontally at the end of the rubway or strip in use, a right-hand arrow of conspicuous colour (Figure 10.9) indicates that turns are to be made to the right before landing and after take-off.

Figure 10.9

Air trahc services reporting office. The letter C displayed vertically in black again$t a yellow background (Figure 10.10) indicates the location of the air traffic servic+s reporting office.

I Figure 10.10 I

Glide/ flights in operation. A double white cross displayed horizontally (Figure 10.1 1) in the signal area indicates that the aerodrome is being used by gliders and that g)ider flights are being performed.

I Figure 10.1 1

(b) The following barshalling signals shall be used from a signalman to an aircraft. I (Note: These signals are designed for use by the signalman, with hands illuminated as

necessaryito facilitate observation by the pilot, and facing the aircmi? in a position.) I

(1) For fixed-wing aircraft, the signalman shall be positioned forward of the left-wing tip within view of the pilot and, for helicopters, where the signalman can best be seen by the pilot.

I

(Note: ~ h b meaning of the relevant signals remains the same i f bats, illumlnated wands or flashlights are held.)

I

(Note: he aircrai? engines are numbered, for the signalman facing the aircraft, from right io lei? (i.e. No. I engine being the pod outer engine.)

I (Note: ~idnals marked with an asterisk are designed for use to hovering helicopters.)

I (2) Prior to using the following signals, the signalman shall ascertain that the area

withid which an aircraft is to be guided is clear of objects which the aircraft might othehise strike.

I (Note: he design of many a i m f i is such that the path of the wing tips, engines and

othei extremities cannot ahvavs be monitored visually from the flfaht deck while the a & ? is being manoeuvred on the ground.)

- - i

APPENDIX 4 TO 10.655: UNIVERSAL AVIATION SIGNALS FOR AIRCRAFT GROUND HAWDUNO

(a) Signals from a!signalrnan to thk pilot of an aircraft: I

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To proceed under further guidance by slgnalman

Signalman directs

conditions on

I 2. Thls bay 1 Arms above head in

palms facing inward.

3. Proceed to next signalman

Right or left arm down. other arm moved across the a. .: body and extended to indicate direction of

I next signalman.

I 4. Move ahead I Arms a little aside. palms facing backward and repeatedly moved upward-backward from shoulder height.

5. Turn

a)Tum to your leff: right arm downward, left arm repeatedly moved upward- backward. Speed of arm movement indicating rate of turn.

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b) Turn to your right: left arm downward, right arm repeatedly moved upward- backward. Speed of

# a arm movement indicating rate of turn. I

.-

6. Stop

I Arms repeatedly crossed above head (the rapidity of the arm movement should be related to

I the urgency of the stop, i.e. the faster the movement the quicker the stop).

1 7. Brakes a)Engage brakes. raise arm and hand, with fingers extended. horizontally in front of body, then clench fist.

b)Release brakes. raise arm, with fist clenched, horizontally in front of body, then

I 8. Chocks I a)Chocks inserted: arms down, palms facing inwards, move arms from extended

I position inwards.

b)Chocks removed: arms down, palms facing outwards. move arms outwards.

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I 9. Start englne(s)

Left hand overhead with appropriate number of fingers extended, to indicate the number of the engine to be started, and circular motion of right hand at head level.

I 10. Cut englnes I Either are and hand ,, level with shoulder. hand across throat, palm downward. The hand is moved sideways with the arm remaining bent.

11. Slow down

Arms down with palms toward ground, then moved up and down several times. * ,,-

12. Slow down engine(~) on Indicated slde

Arms down with palms toward ground, then either right or leff hand waved up and down indicating the leff or right side engine(s) respectively should be slowed

13. Move back

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14.Turns while backing

a)For tail to starboard: point left arm down, and right arm brought from

,f$ * ,,,. overhead, vertical \.: position to horizontal forward position, repeating right arm movement. b)For tail to port: point right arm down, and left arm brought from overhead, vertical

$.& position to horizontal A .. ...- forward position. repeating left arm movement.

15. All clear Right arm raised at elbow with thumb erect.

16. Hover

I '17. Move upwards

I

( Arms extended I

Arms extended horizontally sideways.

' rate of ascent. I

:

I

I I '18. Move downwards I

horizontally to the side beckoning upwards, with palms turned up. Speed of movement indicates

Arms extended j horizontally to the ' I

side beckoning I downwards, with palms turned down. Speed of movement indicates rate of descent. 1



' 19. Move horizontally

Appropriate arm extended horizontally sideways in direction of movement and other arm moved in front of body in same direction, in a

I repeating movement. w x - L I

'20. Land

Arms crossed and extended downwards in front of the body

, (b) Signals from the pilot of an aircraft to a signalman. The PIC or SIC shall use the following signals when communicating with a signalman:

(Note: These signals are designed for use by a pilot in the cockpit with hands plainly visible to the signalman, and illuminated as necessary to facilitate observation by the signalman.)

(Note: The aircraft engines are numbered in relation to the signalman facing the aircraft, fmm right to left (i.e. No. I engine being the pod outer engine.)

Brakes engaged: raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of face, then clench fist. Brakes released. raise arm, with fist clenched, horizontally in front of face, then extend fingers.

(Note: The moment the fist is clenched or the fingers are extended indicates, respectively, the moment of brake engagement or release.)

Insert chocks: arms extended. palms outwards, move hands inwards to cross in front of face. Remove chocks: hands crossed in front of face, palms outwards, move arms outwards. Ready to start engine@). Raise the appropriate number of fingers on one hand indicating the number of the engine to be started.

@PENDM 1 TO 10.660: AIRSPACE AND VMC MINIMUMS

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. THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULATIONS, 2004

APPENDIX 1 TO 10.669: VFR OTT ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS - COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORTATlON ,

The following shall be complied with for commercial air transport flights operating VFR OTT - (1) the aircraft is operated as required by Subsection 10.669; (2) for multi-engine aeroplanes where the pilot holds a valid Instrument Rating, the

flight shall be operated under conditions allowing descent under VMC or continuation of the flight under IFR or VMC if its critical engine fails; and

(3) for multi-engine aeroplanes where the pilot does not hold a valid Instrument Rating, or that can not comply with (2) above, and for single-engine aeroplanes, the flight shall be operated under conditions allowing - (i) , for multi-engine aeroplanes, descent under VMC, or continuation of the

flight under VMC conditions if its critical engine fails, or (ii) ; for single-engine aeroplanes, descent under VMC if its engine fails.

The takeoff visibility is - (1) the RVR of the runway being used for takeoff; (2) the ground visibility at the aerodrome for the runway, if the RVR is not reported; or (3) the visibility of the runway as observed by the pilot-in-command, where neither the

RVR nor the ground visibility is reported.

APPENDIX 1 TO 10.718: SINGLEENGINE IFR AND NIGHT COMMERCIAL OPERATIONS

(a) The airworthiness and operational requirements needed for approval to conduct IFR and/or night operations with single-engine. turbine-powered aircraft are as follows -

(1) ~u'rbine engine reliability. Turbine engine reliability shall be shown to have a power loss rate of less than 1 per 100,000 engine hours using the following guidance - (i), the power loss rate shall be based on data from commercial operations

supplemented by available data from private operations in similar theatres of operation. A minimum amount of service experience is needed on which to

I

base the iudament. and this should include at least 20.000 hours on the actual ae;ophne/engine combination unless additional testing has been

: carried out or ex~erience on sufficiently similar variants of the engine is - ', - available;

(ii) in assessing turbine engine reliability, evidence should be derived from a world fleet database covering as larae a sam~le as ~ossible of o~erations considered to be representake, compiled by the manufacturersand reviewed with the States of Design and the operator. Since flight hour

, reporting is not mandatory for many types of operators, appropriate statistical estimates may be used to develop the engine reliability data. Data for individual operators approved for these operations, including trend monitoring and event reports, should also be monitored and reviewed by the Authority to ensure that there is no indication that the operator's experience is unsatisfactory.

(Note: Power loss in this context is defined as any loss of power, the cause of which may be traced to faulty engine or engine component design or installation, including design or installation of the fuel ancillary or engine control systems.)

(2) Trend monitoring programme. The operator shall establish an engine trend monitoring programme to include the following - (i) an oil consumption monitoring programme based on the manufacturers'

I recommendations; and

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(ii) an engine condition monitoring programme describing the parameters to be monitored, the method of data collection and the corrective action process, which should be based on the manufacturer's recommendations. The monitoring is intended to detect turbine engine deterioration at an early stage to allow for corrective action before safe operation is affected.

(Note: For aeroplanes for which the individual ~etiificate of Airwotihiness is first issued on or affer January 1, 2005, the trend monitoring system shall be automatic.) .

(3) Reliability programme. A reliability programme should be established covering the engine and associated systems based on the following guidance - (i) The engine programme should include engine hours flown in the period and

the in-flight shutdown rate for all causes and the unscheduled engine removal rate, both on,a 12-month moving average basis. The event reporting process should cover all items relevant to the ability to operate safely in IMC andlor at night. The data should be available for use by the operator, the Type Certificate Holder and the Authority so as to establish that :the intended reliability levels are being achieved. Any sustained adverse trend should result in an immediate evaluation by the operator in consultation with the State and manufacturer with a view to determining actions to restore the intended safety level. The operator should develop a parts control programme with support from the manufacturer that ensures that the proper parts and configuration are maintained for single-engine turbine-powered aeroplanes approved to conduct these operations. The programme includes verification that parts placed on an approved single-engine turbine-powered aeroplane during patis borrowing or pooling arrangements, as well as those parts used after repair or overhaul, maintain the necessary configuration of that aeroplane for operations approved in accordance with Subsection 10.718;

:(ii) power loss rate should be determined as a moving average over a specified period (e.g. a 12-month moving average if the sample is large). Power loss rate, rather than in-flight shut-down rate, has been used as it is considered to be more appropriate for a singleengine aeroplane. If a failure occurs on a multi-engine aeroplane that causes a major, but not total, loss of power on one engine, it is likely that the engine will be shut down as positive engine- out performance is still available, whereas on a single-engine aeroplane it may well be decided to make use of the residual power to stretch the glide distance;

(iii) the actual period selected should reflect the global utilization and the relevance of the experience included (e.g. early data may not be relevant due to subsequent mandatory modifications which affected the power loss rate). After the introduction of a new engine variant and while global utilization is relatively low, the total available experience may have to be used to try to achieve a statistically meaningful average.

! (4) Event reporting.

(i) An operator approved for operations by single-engine turbine-powered aeroplanes at IMC andlor in night shall report all significant failures. malfunctions or defects to the Authority who in turn will notify the State of Design.

O i l The Authorilv shall review the safelv data and monitor the reliabililv . . information so as to be able to takeany actions necessary to ensure that the intended safety level is achieved. The Authority will notify the appropriate Type Certificate Holder and State of Design of any major events or trends of particular concern.

(5) To minimize the probability of in-flight engine failure, the engine shall be equipped with -



(I) an lgnltion system that activates automatically, or is capable of being operated manually, for take-off, landing and during flight, in visible moisture;

(11) a magnetic particle detection or equivalent system that monitors the engine, accessories gearbox and reduction gearbox and which includes a flight deck caution Indication; and

(iii) an emergency engine power control device that permits continuing operation of the engine through a sufficient power range to safely complete the flight in the event of any reasonably probable failure of the fuel control unit.

(6) Systems and equipment Singleengine turbine-powered aeroplanes approved to operate at night andlor in IMC shall meet the current type design standard for such operations and be equipped with the following systems and equipment intended to ensure continued safe flight and to assist in achieving a safe forced landing after an engine failure, under all allowable operating conditions - (i) two separate electrical generating systems, each one capable of supplying

all probable combinations of continuous inflight electrical loads for instruments, equipment and systems required at night andlor in IMC;

(li) a radio altimeter;, (iii) an emergency electrical supply system ofsufficient capacity and endurance.

following loss of all generated power, to, as a minimum - (A) maintain the oDeration of all essential fliaht instruments. communication . , .- and navigation systems during a desce; from the maximum certificated

altitude in a glide configuration to the completion of a landing; (8) lower the flaps and landing gear, if applicable; (C) provide power to one pitot heater, which must serve an airspeed

indicator clearly visible to the pilot; (d) provide for operation of the landing light specified in (x) of this

paragraph; (E) provide for one engine restart, if applicable; and (F) provide for the operation of the radio altimeter;

(iv) two attitude indicators, powered from independent sources; (v) a means to provide for at least one attempt at engine re-start; (vi) a,irbome weather radar; (vli) a'certified area navigation system capable of being programmed with the

positions of aerodromes and safe forced landing areas and providing instantly available track and distance information to those locations;

(viii) for passenger operations, passenger seats and mounts which meet dynamically-tested performance standards and which are fitted with a shoulder harness or a safety belt with a diagonal shoulder strap for each passenger seat;

(ix) in pressurized aeroplanes, sufficient supplemental oxygen for all occupants for descent following engine failure at the maximum glide performance from the maximum certificated altitude to an altitude at which supplemental oxygen is no longer required;

(x) a landing light that is independent of the landing gear and is capable of adequately illuminating the touchdown area in a night forced landing; and

(xi) an engine fire warning system. (7) Maintenance Control Manual. The operator's MCM shall include a statement of

certification of the additional equipment required and details of the maintenance and reliability programme for such equipment, including the engine, and the details of the trend monitoring programme.

(8) Minimum Equipment List. The operator shall provide in the aircraft's MEL the operating equipment required for IMC andlor night operations, and for day VMC operations.

(9) Operatio& Manual. The operatiom manual should include all necessary information relevant to operations by single-engine turbine-powered aeroplanes at night andlor in IMC. This should include all of the additional equipment.



procedures and training required for such operations, route andlor area of operation and aerodrome information (including planning and operating minima).

(10) Aircraft Flight Manual information. The flight manual shall include limitations, procedures, approval status and other information relevant to operations by single-engine turbine-powered aeroplanes in IMC andlor at night.

(11) Operator planning. Operator route planning shall take into account all relevant information in the assessment of intended routes or areas of operation, including - (i) the nature of the terrain to be overflown, including the potential for carrying

out a safe forced landing in the event of an engine failure or major malfunction;

(ii) weather information, including seasonal and other adverse meteorological influences that may affect the flight; and

(iii) specifying aerodtomes or safe forced landing areas available for use in the event of an engine failure and programming these into the area navigation system.

(Note: A safe forced landing in this context means a landing in an area at which it can reasonably be expected that it will not lead to serious injury or loss of life, even though the aeroplane may incur extensive damage.)

(12) Flight crew experience, training and checking. The PIC of aircraft approved to conduct IFR andlor night flights shall meet at least the following requirements - (i) have met the instrument, cross country and night experience requirements

for an ATPL;

(See the Eighth Schedule, Appendix 1 to 8.275 for these requirements.)

(ii) have met the day, night and IFR currency requirements, as applicable, as specified in this Schedule in the class of aircraft flown;

(See Subsections 10.105 and 10.1 10 for these requirements.)

(iii) have received single-engine turbine-powered aeroplane training in the preceding 12 month period and a proficiency check in the preceding 6 month period in night and IMC operations, covering normal, abnormal and emergency procedures and, in particular, engine failure, including descent to a forced landing in IMC and night conditions over both land and sea environments;

(iv) have met the route and aerodrome qualifications requirements specified in the Fourteenth Schedule. Subsection 14.160;

(v) have received training covering, in addition to the other requirements of the Fourteenth Schedule - (A) the contents of the passenger safety briefing with emphasis on

emergency evacuation, including life jacket donning and life raft deployment, if applicable;

(B) emergency evacuation and ditching, including life raft deployment, if applicable;

(C) autopilot management; (D) the area navigation system installed in the aircraft; and (E) the use of simplified inflight documentation at night.

(13) Route limitations over water. Operations approved under this Subsection shall not be conducted further from a land mass than the time it would take to descend from cruise altitude to the surface following a failure of the engine plus 15 minutes.

. ,

(Note: Operators must consider choosing routes in light o f the requirements of the Seventh Schedule, Subsections 7.273, 7.275, 7.280, 7.285, and 7.290.)

114) Ooerator certification. The oDerator shall demonstrate the abilitv to conduct . , operations by single-engine thbine-powered aeroplanes in IMC-andlor at night through the normal certification process. In addition to the normal requirements



for operator certification, the following items shall be addressed in relation to operations by singleengine turbine-powered aeroplanes-

(i) proof of the achieved engine reliability of the aeroplandengine combination; (ii) submission of the Operations Manual original or amendment containing the . .

required informatiok (iii) completion of the required training and checking, including those to cover

engine failurelmalfunction after take-off or enroute and a descent to a forced landing from the normal cruising altitude;

(iv) submission of a maintenance programme which is extended to address the equipment and systems referred to in this Appendix, paragraph (6); and

(v) submission of a MEL modified to address the equipment and systems necessary for operations in IMC andlor at night.

(b) The issuance of the Operations Specifications permitting singleengine turbine-powered IFR andlor night operations shall include the particular airframdengine combinations, the specific aeroplanes approved and the area(s) or route(s) of such operations.

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ELEVENTH SCHEDULE (REGULATIONS 61 - 69)

AERIAL WORK OPERATIONS

SUBPART A: GENERAL 11.001 Applicability 11.005 Definitions 11 .O lO Acronyms

SUBPART B: AGRICULTURAL AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS 11 .015 Applicability 11.020 Certificate Required 11.025 Application for Certificate 11.030 Amendment of Certificate 11.035 Certification Requirements 11.040 Duration of Certificate 11.045 General Operating Rules 11.050 Carrying of Certificate

, 11.055 Limitations on Aerial Work Aircraft Operator 11.060 Manner of Dispensing 11 .O65 Economic Poison Dispensing 11.070 Personnel 11.075 Operations in Controlled Airspace Designated for an Airport 11.080 Operation Over Congested Areas: General 11.085 Operation Over Congested Areas: Pilots and Aircraft

, 11.090 Availability of Certificate ' 1 1.095 Records: Commercial Agricultural Aircraft Operator

11.100 Change of Address 11.105, Termination of Operations

SUBPART C: HELICOPTER EXTERNAL LOADS 11 .I 10 Applicability 11.1 15 Certificate Required 11 .I20 Duration of Certificate 11.125 Application for Certificate Issuance or Renewal 11 .I30 Requirements for Issuance of an Aerial Work Operator Certificate 11.135 Rotorcraft 1 1.1 40 Personnel 11 .I45 Amendment of Certificate 11.1 50 Availability, Transfer and Surrender of Certificate 11.1 55 Operating Rules 1 1.1 65 Carriage of Persons

: 11 .I70 Crewmember Training, Currency, and Testing Requirements 11.175 Flight Characteristics Requirements 11.l8O Structures and Design 11.185 Operating Limitations 11 .I90 Rotorcraft-Load Combination Flight Manual 11 .I95 Markings and Placards 11.200 Airworthiness Certification

SUBPART D: GLIDER TOWING 11.205 Applicability 11.210 Certificate Required 11.21 5 Aircraft Requirements 1 1.220 Experience and Training Requirements

SUBPART E: BANNER TOWING 11.225 Applicability



1 1.230 1 1.235 11.240 1 1.245

SUBPART F: 11.250 1 1.255 1 1.260 1 1.265 1 1.270 11.275

SUBPART G: 1 1.280

Certificate or Authorization Required Alrcrafl Requirements Experience and Training Requirements Operating Rules

TV AND MOVIE OPERATIONS Appl.icability Cert~ficate or Authorization Required Aircrafl Requirement Experience and Training Requirements Waiver Requirements Contents of a Motion Picture and Television Flight Operations Manual

SIGHTSEEING FLIGHTS Ao~licabilitv

1 1.285 de;tificate br Authorization Required 11.290 Ex~erience and Trainina Reauirements - . 1 1.295 Opkating Rules

SUBPART H: TRAFFIC REPORTING 11 315 Applicability 11.320 Certificate or Authorization Required

APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 1 1.080: Operation Over Congested Areas: General

SUBPART A: GENERAL 11.001 APPLlCABlLnY

This Schedule contains the requirements for those operators and operations that are considered to be aerial work in Jamaica.

All persons who conduct aerial work in Jamaica must comply with the certification requirements of this Schedule.

All persons who conduct aerial work in Jamaica must comply with the applicable aimorUliness and operational requirements of the Schedules, except where this Schedule grants relief from those requirements or specifies additional requirements.

11.005 DEFlNlllONS

For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply - (1) "Ag~cultural alrcraft operation". The operation of an aircraft for the purpose of-

(i) dispensing any economic poison; (ii) dispensing any other substance intended for plant nourishment, soil treatment,

propagation of plant life or pest controt or . . - (iii) engaging in dispensing activities directty affecting agriculture, horticulture or forest

preservation, but not including the dispensing of live insects. (2) "Banner". An advertising medium supported by a temporary framework attached externally

to the aircraft and towed behind the aircraft. (3) wEconomlc poison". Any substance or mixture of substances intended for-

(i) preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating any insects, rodents, nematodes, fungl, weeds and other forms of plant or animal life or viruses, except viruses on or In lMng human beings or other animals. which the Government of Jamaica may declare to be a pest; and

(ii) use as a plant regulator, defoliant or desiccant.

(4) "Rotorcraft-load combinations". Configurations for external loads carried by rotorcraft - (i) Class A - external load fixed to the rotorcraft, cannot be jettisoned, and does not extend

below the landing gear, used to transport cargo.

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(ii) Class B - external load suspended from the rotorcrafl, which can be jettisoned, and is transported free of land or water during rotorcraft operations.

(lii) Class C - external load suspended from the rotorcraft, which can be jettisoned, but remains in contact with land or water during rotorcrafl operation.

(iv) Class D - external load suspended from the rotorcrafl for the carriage of persons.

11.010 ACRONYMS

The following acronyms are used in this Schedule - (1) AGL - Above Ground Level; (2) IFR - Instrument Flight Rules; (3) PIC - Pilot-in-Command; (4) RFM - Rotorcraft Flight Manual.

SUBPART B: AGRICULTURAL AIRCRAFT OPERATIONS

(a) This Subpart prescribes rules governing - (1) agricultural aircraft operations within Jamaica; and (2) the issue of commercial and private Aerial Work Operator Certificates -Aerial Application for

those operations.

(b) In a public emergency, a person conducting agricultural aircraft operations under this Schedule may, to h e extent necessary. deviate from the operating rules of this Schedule for relief and welfare activities approved by an agency of the National or a local goverinment.

(c) Each peison who, under the authority of this Subsection, deviates from a rule of this Schedule shall, within 10 days after the deviation, send to the Authority a complete report of the aircraft operation involved, including a description of the operation and the reasons for It.

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (c) and (d) of this Subsection, no person may conduct agricultural aircraft operations without, or in violation of, an Aerial Work Operator Certificate - Aerial Application issued under this Schedule.

(b) An operator may, if it complies with this Subpart, conduct agricultural aircrafl operations with a rotorcraft with external dispensing equipment in place without an Aerial Work Operator Certificate -Aerial Application.

(c) A local or national government conducting agricultural aircraft operations with public aircraft need not comply with this Subpart.

(d) The holder of a rotorcraft external-load operator certificate under this Schedule may conduct an agricultural aircrafl operation, involving only the dispensing of water on forest fires by rotorcraft - .

esemal-load means:

1 i:025 APPLICATION FOR CERTIFICATE An applicant for an Aerial Work Operator Certificate shall apply on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Authority.

(a) An Aerial Work Operator Certificate may be amended - (1) on the Authority's own initiative, under applicable laws and regulations; or (2) upon application by the holder of that certificate.

(b) A certKcate holder shall submit any application to amend an Aerial Work Operator Certificate on a form and in a manner prescribed by the Authority. The applicant shall file the application at least

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15 days before the date that it proposes the amendment become effective, unless the Authority approves a shorter filing period.

(c) The Authority will grant a request to amend a certificate if it determines that safety in air commerce and the public interest so allow.

(d) Within 30 days afler receiving a refusal to amend, the holder may petition the Authority to reconsider the refusal.

11.0s CERTIFICATION REQUIREMENTS

(a) General. Except as provided by paragraph (a) (2) of this Subsection - (1) the Authority will issue an Aerial Work Operator Certificate to an applicant who meets the

requirements of this Subpart for that certificate. (2) an applicant who applies for an Aerial Work Operator Certificate containing a prohibition

against the dispensing of economic poisons is not required to demonstrate knowledge specific to economic poisons.

(b) Pilots.

(1) A private operator-pilot applicant shall hold a current Jamaica Private. Commercial or Airline Transport Pilot Licence and be properly rated for the aircrafl to be used.

(2) A commercial operator-pilot applicant shall hold, or have available the services of at least one pilot who holds a current Commercial or Airline Transport Pilot Licence issued by the Authority and who is properly rated for the aircraft to be used.

(c) Aircraft. The applicant shall have at least one certified and airworthy aircraft, equipped for agricultural operation.

(d) Knowledge and skill tests. The applicant shall show that he has satisfactory knowledge and skill of the following agricultural aircraft operations.

(1) Knowledge - (i) steps to be taken before starting operations, including a survey of the area to be worked; (ii) safe handling of economic poisons and the proper disposal of used containers for those

poisons; (hi) the general effects of economlc poisons and agricultural chemicals on plants, animals

and persons, and the precautions to be observed in using poisons and chemicals; (iv) primary symptoms of poisoning of persons from economic poisons, the appropriate

emergency measures to be taken and the location of poison contFol centres; (v) performance capabilities and operating limitations of the aircraft to be used; (vi) safe flight and application procedures;

(2) skill in the following manoeuvres, demonstrated at the aircraft's maximum certified take-off mass or the maximum mass established for the special purpose load, whichever is greater - (1) short-fleld and soft-field takeoffs (aeroplanes and gyroplanes only); (11) approaches to the working area; (lil) flare-outs; (iv) swath runs; (v) pull-ups and turnarounds; and (vi) rapid deceleration (quick stops) in helicopters only.

11.040 DURATION OF CERTIFICATE

An Aerlal Work Operator Certificate is effective for a period of one year or until it is surrendered, suspended or revoked.

11.045 GENERAL OPERATING RULES

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this Subsection, this Subsection prescribes rules that apply to persons and aircraft used in agricultural aircrafl operations conducted under this Schedule.



(b) The holder of an Aerial Work Operator Certificate may deviate from the provisions of Schedule 10 without a certificate of waiver when conducting aerial work operations related to agriculture, horticulture or forest preservation in accordance with the operating rules of this Subsection.

(c) The operating rules of this Subpart apply to Rotorcraft Extemal load certificate holders conducting agricultural aircraft operations involving only the dispensing of water on forest fires by rotorcraft external-load means.

11 .O5O CARRYING OF CERTIFICATE

(a) No person may operate an aircraft unless a facsimile of the Aerial Work Operator Certificate is carried on that aircraft.

(b) The registration and airworthiness certificates issued for the aircraft need not be carried in the aircraft provided that those certificates nqt carried in the aircraft shall be kept available for inspection at the base from which the dispensing operation is conducted.

11.055 ' LIMITATIONS ON AERW WORK AIRCR@T OPERATOR No person may conduct an aerial work operation under the authority of an Aerial Work Operator Certificate - Aerial Application -

(1) over a congested area; (2) over any property unless he or she is the owner or lessee of the property or has ownership or

other property interest in the crop located on that property; or (3) over any property unless he or she has the owner's approval to do so.

No person may dispense, or cause to be dispensed, any material or substance in a manner that creates a hazard to persons or property on the surface.

11.065 ECONOMIC POISON DISPENSING No person may dispense or cause to be dispensed, any economic poison that is registered with Jamaica -

(1) for a use other than that for which it is registered; (2) contrary to any safety instructions or use limitations on its label; or (3) in violation of any law or regulation of Jamaica.

(a) Information. The holder of an Aerial work Operator Certificate shall insure that each person used in the holder's agricultural aircraft operation is informed of that person's duties and responsibilities.

(b) Supervisors. No person may supervise an agricultural aircraft operation unless he or she has met the knowledge and skill requirementsof this Subpart.

(c) Pilot-incommand. No person may act as PIC of an aircraft operated under this Subpart unless that pilot-

(1) holds a pilot licence and rating prescribed by this Subpart as approprlate to the type of operation conducted; and

(2) has demonstrated to the holder of the Aerial Work Operator Certificate conducting the operation or to a supervisor designated by that certificate holder, that he or she possesses the knowledge and skill requirements of this Subpart.

11.075 OPERATIONS IN CONTROLLED AIRSPACE DESIGNATED FOR AN AIRPORT

(a) ' Except for flights to and from a dispensing area. no person may operate an airdrafl wlthin the . . lateral bouniaries of the surface area of Class D airspace designated for an airport unless authorization for that operation has been obtained from the ATC facility having jurisdiction over that area.

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(b) No person may operate an aircraft in weather conditions below VFR minimums within the lateral boundaries of a Class E airspace area that extends upward from the surface unless authorization for that operation has been obtained from the ATC facility having jurisdiction over that area.

11.080 OPERATION OVER CONGESTED AREAS: GENERAL

(a) A certificate holder may operate or cause the operation of an aircraft over a congested area at altitudes required if the operation is conducted with - (1) the maximum safety to persons and property on the surface, consistent with the operation;

and 42) a plan for ea'ch operation, submitted and have approved by the Authority, which includes -

(i) - obstructions to flight; (ii) emergency landing capabilities of the aircraft to be used; and (iii) any necessary co-ordination with air traffic control.

(b) Each certificate holder shall -ensure that all aircraft operations are conducted as prescribed by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 io 11.080 for specific restrictions when operating over congested areas.)

11.085 OPERATION OVER CONGESTED AREAS: PILOTS AND AIRCRAFT

(a) Pilots. Every PIC must have at least - (1) 25 hours of PIC flight time in the make and basic model of the aircraft, including at least 10

hours within the preceding 12 calendar months; and (2) 100 hours of flight experience as PIC in dispensing agricultural materials or chemicals.

(b) Aircraft. Every aircraft, except helicopters, shall be capable of jettisoning at least one-half of the aircraft's maximum authorized load of agricultural material within 45 seconds. Where the aircraft is equipped to release the tank or hopper as a unit, there shall be a means to prevent inadvertent release by the pilot or other crewmember.

Each holder of an Aerial Work Operator Certificate shall keep that certificate at its home base and shall present it for inspection on the request of the Authority or any government law enforcement officer.

11.095 RECORDS: COMMERCIAL AGRICULTURAL AIRCRAFT OPERATOR -

(a) Every holder of an Aerial Work Operator Certificate shall maintain and keep current, at the home base designated in its application. the following records - (1) the name and address of each person for whom agricultural aircraft services were provided; (2) the date of the service; (3) the name and quantity of the material dispensed for each operation conducted; and (4) the name, address and licence number of each pilot used in agricultural aircraft operations

and the date that pilot met the knowledge and skill requirements of this Subpart.

(b) The records required by this Subsection shall be kept for at least 12 months.

11.100 CHANGE OF ADDRESS Every holder of an Aerial Work Operator Certificate shall notify the Authority in miting in advance of any change in the address of its home base of operations.

11.105 TERMINATIONOF OPERATIONS

Whenever a certificate holder ceases operations under this Schedule, that person shall surrender that certificate to the designated office of the Authority.

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SUBPART C: HELICOPTER EXTERNAL LOADS

(a) This Subpart prescribes - (1) airworthiness certification rules for rotorcraft used in external-load operations; and (2) operating and certification rules governing the conduct of rotorcrafl external-load operations

in Jamaica.

(b) The certification rules of this Schedule do not apply to - (1) rotorcrafl manufacturers when developing external-load attaching means; (2) operations conducted by a person demonstrating compliance for the issuance of a certificate

or authorization under this Schedule; (3) training flights conducted in preparation for the demonstration of compliance with this

Schedule; or (4) a local or national government conducting operations with public aircraft.

(c) For the purpose of this Schedule, a person other than a crewmember or a person who is essential and directly connected with the external-load operation may be carried only in approved Class D rotorcrafl-load combinations.

(d) For the purpose of this Subpart, the term aerial work operator certificate means Aerial Work Operator Certificate - Rotorcraft External-Load.

11.1 15 CERTIFICATE REQUIRED

No person subject to this Schedule may conduct rotorcrafl external-load operations without, or in violation of the terms of, an Aerial Work Operator Certificate - Rotorcraft External-Load or equivalent authorization issued by the Authority.

11.120 DURATION OF CERTIFICATE

Unless sooner surrendered, suspended or revoked, an Aerial Work Operator Certificate expires at the end of the twelfth month after the month in which it is issued or renewed.

11.125 APPUCATION FOR CERTIFICATE lSSUANCE OR RENEWAL

Application for an original certificate or renewal of a certificate issued under this Schedule is made on a form, and in a manner, prescribed by the Authority.

11.130 REQUIREMENTS FOR ~SSUANCE OF AN AERIAL WORK OPERATOR CERTIFICATE

(a) Where an applicant shows that he complies with this Subpart, the Authority will issue an Aerial Work Operator Certificate to him.

(b) The Authority will issue authorization to operate specified rotorcraft wlth those classes of rotorcraft-load combinations for which the applicant or certificate holder qualifies under the applicable provisions of this Subpart.

An applicant must have the exclusive use of at least one rotorcraft that - . .

(1) was type certified under, and meets the requirements of, the several parts of these regulations which prescribe requirements for rotorcraft extemal-load operations;

(2) complies with the certification provisions in this Subpart that apply to the rotorcraft-load combinations for which authorization is requested; and

(3) has a valid standard or restricted category Certificate of Airworthiness.

11.140 PERSONNEL

(a) An applicant shall hold, or have available the services of at least one person who holds a current Commercial or Airline Transport Pilot Licence issued by the Authority with a ratlng appropriate for the rotorcraft to be used.



An applicant shall designate one pilot, who may be the applicant, as Chief Pilot for rotorwaft external-load operations.

An applicant may designate qualified pilots as Ass~stant Chief Pilots to qerform h e functions of the chief pilot when the chief pilot is not readily available.

The chief pilot and Assistant Chief Pilots must be acceptable to the Authority and each must hold a current Commercial or A~rline Transport Pilot Licence, with a rating appropriate for the rotorcraft to be used.

The holder of an Aerial Work Operator Certificate shall report any change in designation of Chief Pilot or Assistant Chief Pilot immediately to the Authority.

A newly designated Chief Pilot shall comply with the knowledge and skill requirements of this Subpart within 30 days or the operator may not conduct further operations under the Aerial Work Operator Certificate, unless otherwise authorized by the Authority.

(a) The holder of an Aerial Work Operator Certificate may apply to the Authority for an amendment of its certificate, to add or delete a rotorcrafl-load combination authorization.

(b) The holder of an Aerial Work Operator Certificate may.apply for an amendment to add or delete a rotorcrafl authorization by submitting to the Authority a new list of rotorcrafl, by registration number, with the classes of rotorcraft-load combinations for which authorization is requested.

(a) Each person conducting a rotorcrafl external-load operation shall cany a facsimile of the Aerial Work Operator Certificate in each rotorcrafl used% the operation.

(b) A certificate holder shall return its certifica!e to the Authority - (1) if the Authority suspends or revokes its aerial work operator certificate; or (2) if the certifidate holder discontinues operations and does not resume operations within one

year. i

(a) No person may conduct a rotorcrafl external load operation without, or contrary to, the RotorcraftlLoad Combination Fl~ght Manual prescribed in this Schedule.

(b) No person may conduct a rotorcraft external load operation unless - (1) the rotorcraft complies with this Schedule; and (2) the rotorcraft and rotorcrafUload combination is authorized under the Aerial Work Operator

Certificate. ,

(c) Before a person may operate a rotorcraft with an external load configuration that differs substantially from; any that person has previously carried with that type of rotorcraft (whether or not the rotorcraftlload combination is of the same class), that person shall conduct, in a manner that will not endanger persons or property on the surface, such of the following flight operational checks as the Authority determines are appropriate to the rotorcraftlload combination - (1) a determinationthat the mass of the rotorcrafUload combinetion and the location of its centre

of gravity are'within approved limits, that the external load is securely fastened and hat h e external loaddoes not interfere with devices provided for its emergency release.

(2) make an initial liftoff and verify that controllability is satisfactory. (3) while hovering, verify that directional control is adequate. (4) accelerate into forward flight to verify that no attitude (whether of the rotorcrafl or of the

external load) is encountered in which the rotorcrafl is uncontrollable or which is otherwise hazardous.

(5) in forward flight, check for hazardous oscillations of the external load, but if the external load is not visible to the pilot, other crewmembers or ground personnel may make this check and signal the pilot.

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i (6) increase the forward airspeed and determine an operational airspeed at which no hazardous oscillation or hazardous aerodynamic turbulence is encountered.

(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of the Tenth Schedule, the holder of an Aerial Work Operator Certificate may conduct rotorcraft external load operations over congested areas if those operations are conducted without hazard to persons or property on the surface and comply with the following:

(1) the operator shall develop a plan for each complete operation and obtain approval for the operation from the Authority.

(Note: The plan must include an agreement with the appropriate political subdivision that local officials will exclude unauthorized persons from the area in which the operation will be conducted, coordination with air trafiic control, i f necessary, and a detailed chart depicting the flight mutes and altitudes.)

(2) each flight shall be conducted at an altitude, and on a route, that will allow a jettisonable external load to be released, and the rotorcraft landed, in an emergency without hazard to persons or property on the surface.

(e) Notwithstanding the provisions of the Tenth Schedule, and except as provided in this Schedule, the holder of a Aerial Work Operator Cert~ficate may conduct external load operations, including approaches, departures and load posit~oning manoeuvres necessary for the operation, below 500 feet above the surface and closer than 500 feet to persons, vessels, vehicles and structures, if the operations are conducted without creating a hazard to persons or property on the surface.

(9 INo person may conduct rotorcrafl external-load operations under IFR unless specifically approved by the Authority.

11.165 CARRIAGE OF PERSONS

(a) No certificate holder may allow a person to be carried during rotorcraft external load operations unless that person - (I) is a flight crewmember; (2) is a flight crewmember trainee; (3) performs an essential function in connection with the external load operation; or (4) is necessa j t o accomplish the work activity directly associated with that operation.

(b) The PIC shall ensure that all persons are briefed before takeoff on all pertinent procedures to be followed (including normal, abnormal and emergency procedures) and equipment to be used during the external load operation.

11.170 CREWMEMBER f RAINING, CURRENCY, AND TESTING REQUIREMENTS

(a) No certificate holder may use, nor may any person serve, as a pilot in helicopter external-load operations unless that person - (I) has successfully demonstrated to the Authority the knowledge and skill with respect to the

rotorcrafUload combination; and (2) .has in his or her personal possession a letter of competency or an appropriate logbook enby

I indicating compliance with paragraph (a)(l) of this Subsection.

(b) No AOC holder may use, nor may any person serve as, a crewmember or other operations personnel in Class D operations unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, that penon has successfully completed either an approved initial or a recurrent training programme.

(c) Notwithstanding the provisions of paragraph (b) of this Subsection, a penon who has performed a rotorcraft external load operation of the same class and in an aircraft of the same type within the past 12 calendar months need not undergo recurrent training.

(a) The applicant must demonstrate to the Authority, by performing the following operational flight checks, that the rotorcraft-load combination has satisfactory flight characteristics, unless these



operational flight checks have been demonstrated previously and the rotorcraft-load combination flight characteristics were satisfactory. For the purposes of this demonstration, the external-load mass (including the external-load attaching means) is the maximum mass for which authorization is requested.

(b) Class A rotorcraft-load combinations: The operational flight check must consist of at least the following manoeuvres - (1) take off and landing; (2) demonstration of adequate directional control while hovering; (3) acceleration from a hover; and (4) horizontal flight at airspeeds up to the maximum airspeed for which authorization is

requested.

(c) Class B and D rotorcraft-load combinations: The operational flight check must consist of at least the following manoeuvres - (1) pickup of the external load; (2) demonstration of adequate directional control while hovering; (3) acceleration from a hover; (4) horizontal flight at airspeeds up to the maximum airspeed for which authorization is

requested; (5) demonstrating appropriate lifting device operation; and (6) manoeuvring of the external load into release position and its release, under probable flight

operation conditions, by means of each of the quick-release controls installed on the rotorcraft.

(d) Class C rotorcraft-load combinations: For Class C rotorcraft-load combinations used in wire- stringing, cable-laying or similar operations, the operational flight check must consist of the manoeuvres, as applicable, prescribed in paragraph (c) of this Subsection.

(a) External-load attaching means. Each external-load attaching means shall be approved by the Authority.

(b) Quick release devices. Each quick release device means shall be approved by the Authority.

(c) Mass and centre of gravity - (1) Mass. The total mass of the rotorcraft-load combination must not exceed the total mass

approved for the rotorcraft during its type certification. (2) Centre of gravity. The location of the centre of gravity must, for all loading conditions, be

within the range established for the rotorcraft during its type certification. For Class C rotorcraft-load combinations, the magnitude and direction of the loading force must be established at those values for which the effective location of the centre of gravity remains within its established range.

In addition to the operating limitations set forth in the approved RFM, and to any other limitations the Authority may prescribe, the operator shall establish at least the following limitations and set them forth in the Rotorcraft-Load Combination Flight Manual for rotorcraft-load combination operations-

(1) the rotorcraft-load combination may be operated only within the mass and centre of gravity limitations established in accordance with this Subpart;

(2) the rotorcraft-load combination may not be operated with an external load mass exceeding that used in showing compliance with this Subpart;

(3) the rotorcraft-load combination may not be operated at airspeeds greater than those established in accordance with this Subpart;

(4) no person may conduct an external-load operation under this Schedule with a rotorcraft type certified in the restricted category over a densely populated area, in a congested airway or near a busy airport where passenger transport operations are conducted; and

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(5) the rotorcraft-load combination of Class D may be conducted only in accordance with the following- (i) the-rotorcraft to be used must have been type certified under transport Category A for

the operating mass and provide hover capability with one engine inoperative at that operating mass and altitude;

(ii) the rotorcrafl must be equipped to allow direct radio intercommunication among required crewmembers;

(iii) the personnel lifting device must be approved by the Authority; and (iv) the lifting device must have an emergency release requiring two distinct actions.

11.190 ROTORCRAFT-LOAD COMBINATION FLIGHT MANUAL

The applicant must prepare a Rotorcraft-Load Combination Flight Manual and submit it for approval by the Authority. The limiting height-speed envelope data need not be listed as operating limitations. The manual shall set forth -

(1) operating limitations, procedures (normal and emergency), performance and other information established under this Subpart:

(2) the class of rotorcraft-load combinations for which the airworthiness of the rotorcrafl has been demonstrated in accordance with this Subpart; and

(3) in the information section of the Rotorcrafl-Load Combination Flight Manual-

(i) information on any peculiarities discovered when operating particular rotorcraft-load combinations;

(ii) precautionary advice regarding static electricity discharges for Class B, Class C and Class D rotorcrafl-load combinations; and

(iii) any other information essential for safe operation with external loads.

11.195 MARKINGS AND PLACARDS

The following markings and placards must be displayed conspicuously and must be such that they cannot be easily erased, disfigured or obscured -

(1) a placard (displayed in the cockpit or cabin) statinglhe class of rotorcrafl-load combination and the occupancy limitation for which the rotorcrafl has been approved; and

(2) a placard, marking, or instruction (displayed next to the external-load attaching means) stating the maximum external load approved.

11 200 kRWORTHlNESS CERTIFICATION An Aerial Work Operator Cetirficate is a current and valid airworthiness certificate for each rotorcraft type and listed by registration number on a list attached to the certificate, when the rotorcraft is being used in operations conducted under this Schedule.

SUBPART D: GLIDER TOWING

11.205 APPLICABILIW This Subpart applies to those operations involving towing gliders by aircraft.

11.210 CERnFlCATE REQUIRED

No person may act as a tow pilot for a glider unless that person has at least a Private Pilot Licence with a category rating for the tow aircraft.

No person may operate an alrcrafl that is towing a glider unless the alrcrafl is,equipped wtth a tow hook and release control system that meet the applicable standards of airworlhlness.

11.220 EXPERIENCE WD TRAII~ING REQUIREMENTS

No person may act as a tow pilot for a glider unless that person has -

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(1) logged at least 100 hours of PIC time in same aircraft category, class and type, if applicable, as the tow aircraft;

(2) received training in and instructor endorsement for - (i) the techniques and procedures essential to the safe towing of gliders, including airspeed

limitations; (ii) , emergency procedures; (iii) signals used; and (iv) maximum angles of bank.

(3) has completed and had endorsed at least three flights as the sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft towing a glider or simulating glider-towing flight procedures while accompanied by a pilot who meets the requirements of this Subsection; and

(4) within the preceding 12 months has - (i) made at least three actual glider tows; or (ii) made at least three flights as pilot-in-command of a glider towed by an aircraft.

SUBPART E: BANNER TOWING

11.225 APPLICABIL~

This Subpart applies to those operations involving towing by aircraft banners or other signs, lit or unlit.

11.230 CERTIFICATE OR AUTHORIZATION REQUIRED

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this Subsection, the Authority will require each person conducting operations covered by this Subpart to hold an Aerial Work Operator Certificate - Banner Towing or equivalent authorization.

(b) The Authority will issue a certificate or authorization to each applicant who qualifies for it under the provisions of this Subpart.

(a) No person may operate an aircraft that is towing a banner unless the aircraft is equipped with a tow hook and release control system that meet the applicable standards of airworthiness.

(b) No person may operate a helicopter that is towing a banner unless the helicopter has a means to prevent the banner from becoming entangled in the helicopter's tail rotor during all phases of flight, including autorotations.

(Note: The only way to prevent the banner from tangling in the tail rotor during autorotation may be to jeftison the banner.)

(a) For non-revenue flights, the pilot of the tow aircraft shall hold at least a valid Private Pilot Licence and have a minimum of 200 hours PIC time.

(b) When banner tow operations are conducted for compensation or hire, the pilot shall have at least a Commercial Pilot Licence (instrument rating not required) and at least a valid first class medical certificate.

(c) All pilots engaged in banner towing operations shall demonstrate competence to the Authority by performing at least one pickup and drop of the maximum number of letters (panels) to be used by the certificate holder.

(Note: This demonstration should be observed from the ground to allow the Inspector to evaluate the competence of any essential ground personnel as well as the flight operation.)

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11.245 OPERATING RULES All banner tow operations shall be conducted only - (1) in VFR weather conditions; and (2) between the hours of official sunrise and official sunset. No penon may conduct banner towing operations - (1) over congested areas or open air assemblies of persons lower than 1,000 feet; and

'

(2) elsewhere lower than the minimum safe altitude requirements of the Tenth Schedule. The certificate holder shall obtain the airport manager's approval to conduct banner tow operations.

If banner towing operations take place at an airport with a control tower, the certificate holder shall inform that control tower of the time of the banner tow operation.

The certificate holder shall notify the appropriate airport officials in advance when banner tow operations will be in close proximity to an uncontrolled airport.

Only essential crewmembers shall be carried when conducting banner tow operations.

When banner tow operations are conducted around congested areas, the pilot shall exercise due care so that, in the event of emergency release of the banner andlor towrope, it will not cause undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

Each pilot shall drop the towrope in a pre-designated area at least 500 feet from persons, buildings, parked automobiles and aircraft.

(Note: If the tow plane lands with the rope attached, due care will be exercised to evoid trailing the mpe and endangering other aircraft in the air or persons, propedy or aircraft on the sufface.)

Each pilot conducting banner towing operations shall carry onboard the aircraft a current copy of the Aerial Work Operator Certificate - Banner Towing'or authorization allowing banner towing operations.

SUBPART F: TV AND MOVIE OPERATIONS

11.250 APPLlCAelLln

(a) This Subpart applies to those operations involving movie filming, appearance in flight in movies and airborne direction or production of such filming when those operations are conducted as part of a business enterprise or for compensation or hire.

(b) For purposes of this Subpart. "movie" shall include film, videos and live broadcast in any format and the preparation and rehearsal for those operations.

11.255 CERTIFICATE OR AuTHORUATION REQUIRED

(a) The Authority shall require each person conducting operations covered by this Subpart to hold a certificate or equivalent authorization.


11 260 A l R C M REQUIREMENT

In order to be used in motion picture and television filming operations, aircraft in the experimental category shall have an airworthiness certificate issued for the purpose of exhibition.

11.265 EXPERIENCE AND f RA~NING REQUIREMENTS

No pilot may conduct television and movie operations unless he has -

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(1) a Commercial Pilot Licence with ratings appropriate to the category and class aircraft to be used under the terms of the waiver;

(2) at least 500 hours as PIC; (3) a minimum of 100 hours in the category and class of aircraft to be used; (4) a minimum of five hours in the make and model aircraft to be used under the waiver; and (5) if the pilot intends to perform aerobatics below 1,500 AGL, a Statement of Aerobatics

Competency for the operations to be performed.

11.270 WANER REQUIREMENTS

(a) A waiver shall be obtained if filming sequences require an aircraft to be flown - (1) in aerobatic flight below 1,500 AGL; (2) over a congested area; or (3) in controlled airspace. .

(Note: When conducting any filming operation requiring a waiver, the certificate holder shall ensure that all reasonable efforts are made to confine spectators to designated areas. I f reasonable efforts have been taken and unauthorized persons or vehicles enter the airspace where manoeuvres are being performed during the filming production event, efforts must be made to remove them.)

(b) The holder of the waiver shall provide a schedule of events that lists the - (1) identification of the aircraft; and (2) performers in the sequence of their appearance. .

(c) Any manoeuvres added or time changes to the schedule of events shall be approved by the Authority.

(d) The waiver holder shall develop, have approved by the Authority, and adhere to a Motion Picture and Television Flight Operations Manual.

11.275 CONTENTS OF A MOTION PICTURE AND TELEVISION FLIGHT OPERATIONS MANUAL

Every Motion Picture and Television Flight Operations Manual shall contain at least the following - (1) Company Organization -

(i) business name, address and telephone number of applicant. (ii) list of pilots to be used during the filming, including their pilot licence type and numbers

and class and date of medical. (iii) list of aircraft by make and model.

(2) Distribution and Revision. Procedures for revising the manual to ensure that all manuals are kept current.

(3) Persons Authorized. Procedures to ensure that no persons, except those persons consenting to be involved and necessary for the filming production, are allowed within 500 feet of the filming production area.

(4) Area of Operations. The area that will be used during the term of the waiver. (5) Plan of Activities. Procedures for :he subm~ssion. within three days of scheduled filming, a

written plan of activities to the Authority containing at least the following - (i) dates and times for all flights; (ii) name and phone number of person responsible for the filming production event; (iii) make and model of aircraft to be used and type of airworthiness certificate, including

category; (iv) name of pilots involved in the filming production event; (v) a statement that permission has been obtained from property owners andlor local

officials to conduct the filming production event; (vi) signature of waiver holder or a designated representative; and



(vii) a general outline or summary of the production schedule, to include maps or diagrams of the specific filming location, if necessary.

(6) Permission to Operate. Requirements and procedures that the waiver holder will use to obtain permission from property owners andlor local officials (e.g.. police, fire departments, etc.), as appropriate, for the conduct of all filming operations when using the waiver.

(7) Security. Method of security that will be used to exclude all persons not directly involved with the operation from the location.

(Note: This should also include the provision that will be used to stop activities when unauthorized persons, vehicles or aircraft enter the operations area, or for any other reason, in the interest of safety.)

, (8) Briefing of Pilot/Production Personnel. Procedures to brief personnel of the risks involved, emergency procedures and safeguards to be followed during the filming production event.

(9) CertificationlAirworthiness. Procedures to ensure that reauired ins~ections will be conducted. . . (10) Communications. Procedures to provide communications'capabili~ with all participants

during the actual operation and filming.

(Note: The applicant can use oral, visual or radio communications as along as it keeps the padicicipants continuously apprised of the current status of the operation.)

(1 1) Accident Notification. Procedures for notification and reporting of accidents.

SUBPART G: SIGHT-SEEING FLIGHTS

(a) This Subpart applies to those operations involving the carriage of persons for viewing natural formations or manmade objects on the ground when those operations are conducted as part of a business enterprise or for compensation or hire, and

(b) The flight is unquestionably advertised as 'slght-seeing." and

(c) The flight returns to the alrport of departure without havlng landed at any other airport, and

(d) The certificated passenger capaclty of the aircraft does not exceed 9 passengers.

(Note: Any. other passenger carrying flight for remuneration, hire or valuable consideration must be conducted under an Air Operator Cedificate (AOC).)


(a) The Authority will require each person conducting operations covered by this Subpart to hold a certificate or equivalent authorization.


(c) Each operator under this Subpart shall hold an operating certlflcate Issued under the provisions of this Schedule.

11.290 EXPERIENCE AND TRAINING REQUIREMENTS

The requirements of the Tenth Schedule apply to all operations described by this Subpart.

11.295 OPERA~NG RULES

The requirements of the Tenth Schedule apply to all operations described by this Subpart.

- - -

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486 . ' . THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULATIONS, 2004

SUBPART H: ,TRAFFIC REPORTING

This Subpart applies to those operations involving the observation of. and reporting on, vehicular traffic conditions on the highways and streets when conducted by aircraft or airmen, or both, not designated as solely public use.


(a) The Authority will require each person conducting operations covered by this Subpart to hold a certificate or equivalent authorization. . .


APPENDICES

&PENDM 1 TO 11.080: OPERATION OVER CONGESTED AREAS: GENERAL

(a) Except for helicopters, during takeoffs and tumarounds, with no load, each certificate holder shall ensure that all single-engine aircraft, while in a congested area, operate - (1) not below the altitudes prescribed in the Tenth Schedule except during the actual dispensing

operation, including the approaches and departures necessary for that operation. (2) during the actual dispensing operation, including the approaches and departures for that

operation, not below the altitudes prescribed in the Tenth Schedule unless it is in pn area and at such an altitude that the aircraft can make an emergency landing without endangering persons or property on the surface.

(b) Each certificate holder shall ensure that all multiengine aircraft while In a congested area operate-

(1) during take off, under conditions that will allow the aeroplane to be brought to a safe stop within the effective length of the runway from any point on takeoff up to the time of atlaining, with all engines operating at normal takeoff power, 105 percent of the minimum control speed with the critical engine inoperative in the takeoff configuration or 115 percent of the poweroff stall speed in the takeoff configuration, whichever is greater.

(Note: Assume still-alr conditions and no correction for any uphill gradient of 1 percent or less when the pemntege is measured as the difference behveen elevatlonS at the endpoints of ihe runway divided by the total iength. For uphili gradients greater than 1 percent, the effecthm takeoff length of the runway is reduced 20 percent for each l-percent grade.)

(2) at a mass greater than the mass that, with the critical engine inoperative, would permk a rate of climb of at least 50 feet per minute at an altitude of at least 300 m (1,000 feet) above the elevation of the highest ground or obstruction within the area to be worked or at an altitude of 1,500 m (5,000 feet), whichever is higher. Assume that the propeller of the inoperatbde engine Is in the minimum drag position; that the wing flaps and landing gear are In the most favourable positions; and that the remaining engine or engines are operating at the maximum continuous power avallable.

(3) not below the altitudes prescribed In the Tenth Schedule except durlng the actual dispensing operation, including the approaches, departures and tumarounds necessary for that operatlon.

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TWELFTH SCHEDULE (Regulations 67,68,69,70,71,72)

AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATION AND ADMINISTRATION

SUBPART A: 12.001 12.005 12.010

SUBPART B: Sectlon 1:

12.015 Section 2:

,12.020 12.025 12.030 12.035 12.040

Section 3:

GENERAL Applicability Definitions Acronyms

AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATE General Compliance with an Air Operator Certificate Jamaican Air Operator Certificate Application for an Air Operator Certificate Issuance or Denial of Air Operator Certificate Contents of Air Operator Certificate Duration of an Air Operator Certificate Amendment of an Air Operator Certificate Foreign Air Operator Certificate

12.045 ~om$ance with Jamaica Civil Aviation Regulations 12.046 Application for a Foreian Air Operator Certificate 12.047 12.048

SUBPART C: 12.060 12.065 12.070 12.075 12.080

SUBPART D: 12.100 12.105 12.110

SUBPART E: 12.130 12.135 12.140 12.145 12.150 12.155 12.160

SUBPART F: 12.195 12.200

~uthority to Inspect - Operations Specifications

CERTIFICATION Initial Certification Required Subsequent Certification Required Demonstration Fliahts Extended Range Cperations of Twin Engine Aircraft (ETOPS) Danaerous Goods Certification

SURVEILLANCE AND REVALIDATION Continuing Validation of the Certification Basis Required Access for Inspection Conducting Tests and Inspections

AOC ADMINISTRATION Management Personnel Required 'for Commercial Air Transport Operations Base of Operations Facilities Submission end Revision of Policy and Procedure Manuals Operations Schedules Quality Audit Programme Security Programme

AOC HOLDER RECORDS Record Completion Requirements Retention and Maintenance of Personnel Records

12.205 Maintenance Personnel Qualification and Currency Records 12.210 Load Controller Qualification and Currency Records 12.215 Flight Crew Qualification and Currency Records 12.220 Cabin Crew Qualification and Currency Records 12:225 Crew Duty and Flight Time Records - 12.227 Cosmic Radiation Dose Records 12.230 Operational Control Personnel Qualification Records 12.235 Aircraft Journey Log 12.240 Aircraft Service and Maintenance Records 12.242 Deferred Defects Summary



12.245 Aircraft Inspection and Condition Summary Record 12.250 Load and Performance Planning Records 12.255 Operational Flight Planning Records 12.260 Aircraft-Specific Emergency and Survival Equipment Rec~rds 12.265 Flight Deck Voice and Flight Data Recorder Records

SUBPART G: AIRCRAFT 12.300 Authorized Aircraft 12.305 Emergency Evacuation Demonstration 12.310 Ditching Demonstration 12.315 Dry Leasing of Foreign Registered Aircraft 12.325 Wet-Leasing

SUBPART H: AOC FLIGHT OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT 12.350 Applicability 12.355 Operations Manual 12.360 Mandatory Material 12.365 Flight and Duty Time Limitations 12.370 Training Programme 12.375 Aircrafl Operating Manual 12.377 Approved Flight Manual 12.380 Cockpit Check Procedure 12.385 Minimum Equipment List and Configuration Deviation List 12.390 Performance Planning Manual 12.395 Performance Data Control System 12.400 Aircrafl Loading and Handling Manual 12.405 Mass and Balance Data Control System 12.410 Cabin Attendant Manual 12.41 5 Passenger Briefing Cards 12.420 Aeronautical Data Control System 12.425 Aeronautical Publications 12.430 Weather Reporting Sources 12.435 De-icing and Anti-icing Programme 12.440 Operational Control 12.450 Communications Facilities 12.455 Routes and Areas of Operation 12.460 Navigational Accuracy 12.465 Minimum Safe Altitudes 12.470 Aerodrome Operating Minima 12.475 Flight Safety and Accident Prevention Programme

SUBPART I: AOC MAINTENANCE REQUIREMENTS 12.525 Applicability 12.530 Maintenance Responsibility 12.535 Approval and Acceptance of AOC Maintenance Systems and Programmes 12.540 Maintenance Control Manual 12.542 Mandatory Material 12.545 Maintenance Management 12.550 Maintenance Quality System 12.555 Aircraft Technical Log Entries: AOC Holders 12.560 Maintenance Records 12.565 Certificate of Release to Service Entry in the Technical Log 12.570 Modification and Repairs 12.575 ' Aircrafl Maintenance Programme 12.580 Mandatory Airworthiness Material 12.585 Authority to Perform and Approve Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance and Modffication~ 12.590 Duplicate Inspection 12.595 Supervision and Certification Requirement - AOC Holder Using Equivalent System

APPENDICES

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Appendix 1 to 12.130: Management Personnel Required for Commercial Air Transport Operations Appendix 1 to 12.225: Contents of Crew Duty and Flight Time Records Appendix 1 to 12.235: Contents of Joumey Log &endlx 1 to 12.240: Contents of the Aircraft?echnical Log Contents Appendlx 1 to 12.242: Contents of the Deferred Defects Log Apbndiix 1 to 12.245: contents of Aircraft Inspection and condition Summary Appendix 1 to 12.250: Contents of Load and Performance Manifest Form Appendix 1 to 12.255: Contents of Operational Flight Planning Form(s) Appendix 1 to 12.315: Dry Leasing of Foreign Registered Aircraft Appendlx 1 to 12.325: Wet Leasing Appendix 1 to 12.355: Operations Manual Apmndix 1 to 12.370: Training Programme Gpendix 1 to 12.375: Aircraft-operating Manual Appendix 1 to 12.415: Passenger Briefing Cards Pbpendix 1 to 12.420: ~eronaitical ~ a t a ~ o n t r o l System Appendix 1 to 12.430: Weather Reporting Sources Appendix 1 to 12.435: De-icing and Anti-icing Programme Appendix 1 to 12.475: Flight Safety Documents System Appendix 1 to 12.530: Requirements of a CMR Pppendix 1 to 12.540: Contents of the Maintenance Control Manual Appendlx 1 to 12.550: AOC Holder's Additional Quality System for Maintenance

SUBPART A: GENERAL

(a) ' This Schedule applies to the carriage of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire by persons whose '.principal place of business or penanent residence is located in Jamaica.

' (b) This Schedule of the regulations prescribes requirements for the original certification and continued validity of an

air operator certificate (AOC) issued by Jamaica.

(c) Except where specifically noted, this Schedule applies to all commercial air transport operations by AOC holders for,whi Jamaica is the State of the Operator under the definitions provided in Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention.

For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply - (1) "alr tax1 AOC holder". An operator authorized for domestic-only operations of non-turbojet

alrcraft having a maximum certificated take-off weight of 5.700 kg (12, 500 Ibs) or less and a certified configuration of nine or less passengers, who operates no more than three ( 3) different aircraft types (piston driven single-engine aircraff from the same manufacturer will be consldered as one type for the purposes of this definition);

(2) "cargo alrcraft". Any aircraft carrying goods or property but not passengers. In this context the following are not considered to be passengers - (i) a crewmember; (ii) an operator's employee permitted by, and carried in accordance w~lh, the instructions

contained in the Operations Manual; (iii) an authorized representative of an Authority; (iv) a person with duties in respect of a particular shipment on board.

"charter operation". A non-scheduled air service whereby a person, air operator or other entity concludes a contractual arrangement with another air operator for the exclusive use of an alrcraft and crew for one or more trips;



(4) "dry lease". The lease of an aircraft without flight or cabin crew, fuel, supplies or supporting services;

(5) "equivalent system of maintenance". An AOC holder may conduct maintenance activities through an arrangement with an AM0 or may conduct its own maintenance, preventive maintenance, or alterations, so long as the AOC holder's maintenance system is approved by the Authority and is equivalent to that of an AMO, except that the approval for return to service of an aircrafVaeronautical product shall be made by an appropriately rated AME, authorised by the AOC holder;

(6) "foreign air operator". Any operator, not being a Jamaica air operator, which undertakes, whether directly or indirectly or by lease or any other arrangement, to engage in commercial air transport operations within borders or airspace of Jamaica, whether on a scheduled or charter basis.

(7) "foreign authority". The civil aviation authority that issues and oversees the Air Operator Certificate of the foreign operator

(8) "holdover time". The estimated time de-icinglanti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of frost or ice and the accumulation of snow on the protected surfaces of an aircraft. Holdover time begins when the final application of de-icing or anti-icing fluid commences and expires when the de-icing or anti-icing fluid applied to the aircraft loses its effectiveness;

(9) "manufacturer's maintenance programme". A programme contained in the maintenance manual or maintenance instructions set forth by the manufacturer as required by the regulations for the aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller, rotor. or item of emergency equipment;

(10) "maintenance control manual". A manual approved by the Authority for the sole use of the AOC holder, containing procedures, instructions and guidance for use by maintenance and concerned operationai personnel in the execution of their duties;

(1 1) "operations manual". A manual approved by the Authority for the sole use of the AOC holder, containing procedures, instructions and guidance for use by operational personnel in the execution of their duties;

(12) "variant aircraft". An aircraft that is a variation of a basic type of aircraft but has the same or essentially the same characteristics in cockpit layout, power planl(s) and other aircraft systems. , For example. A319/A320/A321, 8757R67 or 8737-4001-7001-800;

(13) "wet lease". The lease of an aircraft with flight crew, fuel, supplies, supporting services and all other operating necessities. The lease may or may not include cabin crew.

12.010 ACRONYMS The following acronyms are used in this Schedule -

(1) AOC - Air Operator Certificate; (2) AME - Aircraft Maintenance Engineer; (3) AM0 - Approved Maintenance Organisation; (4) ATP - Air Transport Pilot; (5) CDL - Configuration Deviation List; (6) CG - Centre of Gravity; (7) ETOPS - Extended Range Twin-Engine Operations; (8) FAOC - Foreign AOC; and (9) MEL - Minimum Equipment List.

SUBPART B: AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATE

SECTION 1: GENERAL

12.015 COMPLIANCE WITH AN OPERATOR CERTIFICATE

(a) No operator may operate an aircrafl in commercial air transport unless that operator holds an AOC for the operations being conducted.

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No person may operate an aircraft in commercial air transport operations that are not authorized by the terms and conditions of its AOC.

The AOC holder shall, at all times, continue in compliance with the AOC terms, conditions of issuance and maintenance requirements in order to hold that certificate.

(Note: The conditions of issuance include all written approvals granted to meet the certification requirements of this Schedule, including letters of designation, letters of approval, approval of a manual's list of effective pages.)

SECTION 2: JAMAICAN AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATES

12.020 APPLICATION FOR AN AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATE

(a) An operator applying to the Authority for an AOC shall submit an application - (1) in a form and manner prescribed by the Authority; and (2) containing any information the Authority requires the applicant to submit.

(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this Subsection, each applicant shall make the application for an initial issue of an AOC at least 90 days before the date of intended operation, except the Operations Manual and Maintenance Control Manual which may be submitted later than but not less than 60 days before the date of 'intended operation.

(c) An applicant who is requesting to be an Air Taxi operator shall make application at least 30 days prior to the dated of intended operation.

(a) The Authority may issue an AOC if, after investigation, the Authority finds that the applicant - (1) is a citizen of Jamaica; (2) has its principal place of business and its registered office, if any, located in Jamaica; (3) meets the applicable regulations and standards for the holder of an AOC; (4) is properly and adequately equipped for safe operations in commercial air transport and

maintenance of the aircraft; and (5) holds the economic authority issued by Jamaica under the provisions of the Civil Aviation Act.

(b) The Authority may deny application for an AOC if the Authority finds that - (1) the applicant is not properly or adequately equipped or is not able to conduct safe operations in

commercial air transport; (2) the applicant previously held an AOC, which was revoked; or (3) an individual that contributed to the circumstances causing the revocation process of an AOC

obtains a substantial ownership or is employed in a position required by this regulation.

(a) The AOC will consist of two documents - (1) a one-page certificate for public d~splay signed by the Authority; and (2) multi-page AOC Operations Specifications containing the terms and conditions applicable to the

AOC holder's certificate.

(b) The Authority will issue an AOC which will contain - (1) the name and location (main place of business) of the AOC holder; (2) the date of issue and period of validity for each page issued; (3) a description of the type of operations authorized; (4) the type(s) of aircraft authorized for use; (5) the authorized areas of operations and/or routes; and



(6) other speclal authorzations, approvals and limitations issued by the Authority In accordance with the standards which are applicable to the operations and maintenance conducted by the AOC holder.

12.035 DURATION OF AN AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATE

An AOC, or any portion of the AOC, issued by the Authority IS effective unt~l - (1) the Authority amends, suspends, revokes or otherwise terminates the certificate; (2) the AOC holder surrenders the certificate to the Authority; or

(3) the AOC holder suspends operations for more than 60 days; or twelve. calendar months, whichever comes first.

(4) ' midnight of the date of expiry shown on the Ceriificate.

(a) The Authority may amend any AOC if - ,

(1) the Authority determines that safety in commerc~al air transport and the pc~blic interest require the amendment; or

(2) the AOC holder applies for an amendment and the Authority dctsrmlnes that safety in canmercial air transport and the public interest allows the a~t indment

(b) Where the Authority stipulates in writing that an emergency exists requiring immediate amendment in the public interest with resDect to safetv in commercial air trans~ortation, such an amendment is effective without stay on the date the AOC hblder receives notice.

(c) An AOC holder may appeal the amendment but shall operate in accordance with it, unless it is subsequently withdrawn.

(d) Amendments proposed by the Author~ty, other than emergency amendments, become effective 30 days after notice to the AOC holder, unless the AOC holder appeals the proposal in writing prior to the effective date. The filing of an appeal stays the effective date until the appeal process is completed.

(e) Amendments proposed by the AOC holder shall be submitted to the Authority at least 30 days prior to the intended start date of any operation under that amendment.

(f) No person may perform a commercial air transport operation for which an AOC amendment is required, unless it has received notice of the approval from the Authority.

SECTION 3: FOREIGN AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATES

12.045 COMPLIANCE wlrn JAMAICAN CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS

A foreign air operator may not operate an aeroplane or helicopter in commercial air transportation operations contrary to the laws and regulations of Jamaica.

12.046 APPLICATION FOR A FOREIGN AIR OPERATOR CERTIFICATE

An operator applying for a' FAOC shall submit-

(1) an application in a form and manner prescribed by the Authority containing surh information the Authority requires in order to determine the capability of the operator to conduct a safe operation;

(2) an AOC and any associated Operations Specifications issued by the State of the Operator; and (3) such other information and documents as may be deemed necessary.

A foreign air operator shall ensure that any person authorized by the Authority, will be permitted at any time, without prior notice, to board any aeroplane or helicopter operated for commercial air transportation to Jamaica to inspect the documents and manuals required by the Tenth Schedule, Subsections 10.040. 10.050. 10.051 and 10.055.

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(a) A foreign operator approved to conduct commercial operations to and from Jamaica shall be Issued an AOC and Operations Specifications, in which specific operations shall be authorized. omhibited. limited . . or subject td certain conditions, in the interest of public safety.

(b) The Operations Specifications shall contain the following information- (1 ) applicability and duration; (2) limitations to, or actions required by, the operator: (3) enroute authorizations and limitations; and (4) aerodrome authorizations.

SUBPART C: CERTIFICATION

Prior to the issuance of an AOC, the applicant must be originally certificated in accordance with the system of certification used by the Authority.

12.065 SUBSEQUENT CERTIFICATION REQUIRED

Unless addressed in the initial certification, subsequent requests for the following amendments to AOC operating authority for the following require completion of a full certification process prior to operation -

(1) adding variant aircraft; (2) all weather operations, such as Category II and Ill approaches to the AOC; (3) RNP-I0 or greater accuracy navigation; (4) operations in the North Atlantic MNPS airspace; (5) operations in RVSM airspace; (6) extended Range operations; and (7) ETOPS.

(a) Subject to the provision in paragraph (e) of this Subsection, no person may operate an aircrafl type In commerci~l air transport unless it first conducts satisfactory demonstration flights for the Authority in that aircraft type.

(b) Subject to the provision in paragraph (e) of this Subsection, no person may operate an aircraft in a designated special area or using a specialized navigation system unless it conducts a satisfactory demonstration for the Authonty.

(c) Demonstration flights required by paragraph (a) of this Subsection shall be conducted in accordance with the regulations applicable to the type of operation and aircraft type used.

(d) The Authority may authorize deviations from this Subsection if the Authority finds that special circumstances make full compliance with this section unnecessary.

(e) This demonstration flight is not required for Air Taxi operators who receive their initial proficiency checks from the Authority or authorized persons designated by the Authority.

12.075 EXTENDED RANGE OPERATIONS OF TWIN ENGINE hRCRAFT (ETOPS)

(a) No person may conduct ETOPS operations unless the Authorityhas determined the adequacy of - (1) ai~worthiness certification of the aeroplane type; (2) reliability of the propulsion system; (3) maintenance procedures; . (4) operating practises; (5) flight dispatch procedures; and (6) crew training programmes.

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(b) In making this certification evaluation, the Authority shall take into account the route to be flown, the anticipated operating conditions and the location of adequate enroute alternate aerodromes. The approval of these operations will consider -

(1) the airworthiness certification of the aeroplane type; (2) the reliability of the propulsion system, (3) the operator's maintenance procedures; (4) the operator's operating practices; (5) the operator's flight dispatch procedures; and (6) the operator's crew tralnlng programme.

12.080 DANGEROUS GOODS CERTIFICATION

No person may conduct operations involving transportation of dangerous goods by air prior to'completing a certification process addressing the requirements of the Eighteenth Schedule.

SUBPART D: SURVEILLANCE AND REVALIDATION

12.100 CONTINUING VALIDATION OF THE CERTIFICATION BASIS REQUIRED

The AOC holder shall be subject to a continuing system of surveillance administered by the Authority to ' ,

validate the original certification basis.

12.105 ACCESS FOR INSPECTION

(a) To determine continued compliance with the applicable regulations, the AOC holder shall - (1) grant the Authority access to and co-operation with any of its organizations, facilities and

aircraft; (2) ensure that the Authority is granted access to and co-operation with any organisation or

facilities that it has contracted for services associated with commercial air transport operations and maintenance for services; and

(3) grant the Authority free and uninterrupted access to the flight deck of the aircraft during flight operations.

(b) The AOC holder shall provide to the Authority a forward observer's position on each of the AOC holder's aircraft from which the flight crew's actions and conversations may be easily observed.

(Note: The suitability of the seat location and the ability to monitor crewmember actions. conversations and radio communications is determined by the Authority.)

(c) The forward observer's position (seat, oxygen system and interphone system) shall be operational when it is to be used by the Authority. In the event that the seat is determined not to be operational by the Authority, the AOC holder will -

(1) provide a seat in the cabin for the Authority; and (2) make the necessary repairs to the forward observer's position within three days.

12.110 CONDUCTING TESTS AND INSPECTIONS '

(a) The Authority shall conduct on-going validation of the AOC holder's continued eligibility to hold its AOC and associated approvals.

(b) The AOC holder shall allow the Autholity to conduct tests and inspections, at any time or place, to determine whether an AOC holder is complying with the applicable laws, regulations and AOC terms and conditions.

(c) The AOC holder shall make available at its principal base of operations - (1) all portions of its current Air Operator Certificate; (2) all portions of its Operations and Maintenance Manuals; and



(3) a current listing that includes the location and individual positions responsible for each record. document and report required to be kept by the AOC holder under the applicable aviation law, regulations or standards.

(d) : The Air Taxi AOC holder shall make its records available to the Authority upon request, either atthe Authority's offices or other location stipulated by the Authority.

(e) Failure by any AOC holder to make available to the Authority upon request, all portions of the AOC; Operations and Maintenance Manuals and any required record, document or report is grounds for suspension of all or part of the AOC.

SUBPART E: AOC ADMINISTRATION

12.130 MANAGEMENT PERSONNEL REQUIRED FOR COMMERCIAL AIR f RANSPORT OPERATIONS

(a) The AOC holder shall have an accountable manager, acceptable to the Authority,who has corporate authority for ensuring that all flight operations and maintenance activities can be financed and carried out to the highest degree of safety standards required by the Authority.

(b) . Subject to the provision in paragraph (d) of this Subsection. when conducting commercial air transport operations, the AOC holder shall have qualified personnel, with proven competency in civil aviation, available and sewing in the following positions or their equivalent -

(1) Director of Operations; (2) Chief Pilot; (3) Director of Safety; (4) Flight Attendant Manager; (5) Director of Maintenance; (6) Chief Engineer; and (7) Chief Inspector.

(c) The Director of Operations. Director of Maintenance and Director of Safety shall report to the Accountable Manager.

(d) The AOC holder shall ensure that all the functions and responsibilities identified in Appendix 1 to 12.130 and allocated to the positions indicated in (b) above are assigned. Large organizations may prefer to use titles other than those above. However, the operator must demonstrate 10 the Authority that the responsibilities and job functions identified have been appropriately allocated.

(Note: The Director of Maintenance in a small organization may be called YIce Presldent of Maintenance" in a larger one, i f the operator so desires, and the Chief Inspector may be called a Quality Manger while the functions of the Chief Engineer may be split between a Dlrector of tine Maintenance. a Director of Base Maintenance, and a Director of Planning 8 Engineering or any other such tiUes.)

(e) The Authority may approve positions or numbers of positions, other than those listed, if the AOC holder ,is able to show that it can perform the operation with the highest degree of safety under the direction of fewer or different categories of management personnel due to the -

(1) the kind of operations involved; (2) the number of aircraft used; and (3) the area of operation.

(f) An Air Taxi operator is required to have an Operations Manager. Chief Pilot and Maintenance Co- ordinator, if maintenance is contracted out, or a Director of Maintenance, acceptable to the Authority if that operator has been approved to carry out its own maintenance.,

(Note: 'competency in civil aviationWmeans that an individual shall have a technical qualification and management experience acceptable to the Authority for the position sewed.)

(See Appendix 1 to 12.130 for additional management personnel requirements and qualificaIlons.)

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(See Appendix 1 lo 12.130 for the Maintenance Coordinator requirements and qualifications.)

(a) An AOC holder that is not authorized to conduct maintenance under its AOC certificate shall maintain a principal base of operations.

(b), Subject to the provision in paragraph (e) of this Subsection, the AOC holder that is authorized to conduct maintenance under its AOC certificate shall maintain a principal base of operations and maintenance.

(c) An AOC holder may establish a main operations base and a main maintenance base at the same location or at separate locations.

(d) The AOC holder shall provide written notification of intent to the Authority at least 30 days before it proposes to establish or change the location of either base.

12.140 FACILITIES (a) Subject to the provision in paragraph (c) of this subsection, each operator shall maintain operational

and airworthiness support facilities at the main operating base, or elsewhere, if approved, appropriate for the area and type of operation.

(b) The AOC holder shall arrange appropriate ground handling facilities at each airport used to ensure the safe servicing and loading of its flights.

(a) Each manual required by this Schedule must - (1) include instructions and information necessary to allow the personnel concerned to perform

their duties and responsibilities with a high degree of safety; (2) be in a form that is easy to revise and contains a system which allows personnel to deterrnlne

the current revision status of each manual; (3) Cave a date of the last revision on each page concerned; (4) not be contrary to any applicable Jamaica regulation and the AOC holder's Operations

Specifications; and

(b) No person may cause the use of any policy and procedure for flight operations or airworthiness function prior to co-ordination with the Authority.

(c) , The AOC holder shall submit the proposed policy or procedure to the Authority at least 30 days prior to the date of intended implementation.

In establishing flight operations schedules, the AOC holder conducting scheduled operations shall allow enough time for the proper servicing of aircrafl at intermediate stops and shall consider the prevailing winds enroute and cruising speed for the type of aircrafl. This cruising speed may not be more than that resulting from the specified cruising output of the engines.

(a) Subject to paragraph (f) of this Subsection, the AOC holder shall establish a quality audit programme and designate technically qualified auditor(s) who will monitor compliance with, and adequacy of, procedur& required to ensure safe operaional practices and airworthy aircraft. ~omplian&monitoring shall include a feedback system to the accountable manager to ensure corrective action as necessary.

(b) The AOC holder shall ensure that each quality system includes a quality assurance programme that contains procedures designed to verify that all operations are being conducted in accordance with all applicable requirements, standards and procedures.

(c) The quality audit programme and the quality auditor(s) manager shall be acceptable to the Authority.

(d) The AOC holder shall'describe the qual~ty audit system in relevant documentation.

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(e) Notwithstanding (a) above, the Authority may accept the nomination of two quality audit persons, one for operations and one for maintenance.

(f) The Air Taxi AOC holder is not required to establish a quality audit programme, but must submit to Inspections by authorized persons designated by the Authorit)'.

The AOC holder shall have a security programme to ensure that - (1) all appropriate personnel are familiar, and comply with, the relevant requirements of the national

security programmes of the State of the Operator; (2) these employees are acquainted with preventive measures and techniques in relation to

passengers, luggage, cargo, mail, equipment, stores and supplies intended for carriage on an aircraft so that they may contribute to the prevent~on of acts of sabotage or other forms of unlawful interference;

(3) these personnel are able to take appropriate action to prevent acts of unlawful interference such as sabotage or unlawful seizure of aircraft and to m~nimize the consequences of such events should they occur;

(4) a report of unlawful inference with a crewmember is made, without delay. to the designated local authority and the Authority in the State of the operator;

(5) all aircraft carry a checklist of the procedures to be followed for that type aircraft in searching for concealed weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices.

(6) this checklist shall be supported by guidance - (I) on the course of action to be taken should a bomb,or suspicious object be found; and (ii) information on the least-risk location specific to the aircraft; and

(7) if'any weapons are removed from the passengers or accepted for such carriage, there shall be a procedure in the Operations Manual regarding the proper method to stow such weapons in a place so that they are inaccessible to any persin during-flight time.

SUBPART F: AOC HOLDER RECORDS

12.195 RECORD COMPLETION REQUIREMENTS

(a) The AOC holder shall ensure that all records required to be completed under this Subpart are completed -

(1) for qualincation or airworthiness, prior to the use of the person, aircraft or component in commercial air transport operations;

(2) for all other records, as the necessary information is provided to the person designated to complete the record.

(b) The AOC holder shall ensure that its procedures for providing information to the persons designated to complete a specific record are provided in a timely way so that the record is continuously updated and available for consideration for the planning and conduct of commercial air transport operations.

(c) The person(s) designated to complete a specific record shall be given that designation in writing and pravided training and written policy guidance for the completion of the document with respect to timing and accuracy.

(d) Every person designated to complete andlor sign a record required under this Subpart shall make the required enhies accurately and in a timely manner so that the record used for planning and conduct of commercial alr transport reflects the true situation at the time of use.

(e) Every record required for AOC holder operations and maintenance purposes shall be completed in ink or Indelible pen, unless otherwise approvedBy the Authority.



12.200 RETENTION AND MAINTENANCE OF PERSONNEL RECORDS

(a) The AOC holder shall maintain current records which detail the qualifications and training of all its employees, including contract employees, involved in the operational control, flight operations, ground operations and maintenance of the air operator.

(b) The AOC holder shall maintain records for those employees performing crewrnember or operational control duties in sufficient detail to determine whether the employee meets the experience and qualffication for duties in commercial air transport operations.

(c) Thls record, its contents, layout and the procedures for its use shall be approved by the Authority prior to its use in commercial air transport.

(d) Thls record shall be identifiable to the AOC holder and the specific individual.

(e) This record shall be retained by the AOC holder in safe custody for at least six months afler the individual is no longer employed by the AOC holder.

(f) The Authority will also consider approval of a computer-based method for keeping any portion of this information. Without this approval, any such computer records used by the AOC holder shall be secondary to the approved method in priority of updating and usage at the operational level.

12.205 MAIHTENANCE PERSONNEL QUALIFICATION AND CURRENCY RECORDS The AOC holder shall have a record of the maintenance person's qualification and currency with respect to all Schedule requirements for these persons.

12.210 LOAD CONTROLLER QUALIFICATION AND CURRENCY RECORDS The AOC holder shall have a record of the load controller's qualification and currency with respect to all Schedule requirements for these persons.

12.215 FLIGHT CREW QUALIFICATION AND CUR'RENCY RECORDS

(a) The AOC holder shall have a record of the flight crewmember's qualification and currency with-respect to all Schedule requirements for these crewmembers.

(b) Each flight crewmember shall be provided a current summary record showing the completion of his or her initial, recurrent, upgrade and re-qualification, as applicable, qualification requirements.

12.220 CNIN CREW QUALIFICATION AND CURRENCY RECORDS

(a) The AOC holder shall have a record of the cabin crewmember's qualification and currency with respect to all Schedule requirements for these crewmembers.

(b) Each cabin crewmember shall be provided a current summary record-showing the completion of his or her initial, recurrent, upgrade and requalification, as applicable, qualification requirements.

The AOC holder shall have a record of the flight and cabin crewmembers' assigned and actual duty and flight time and minimum rest periods with respect to all of the Fifleenth Schedule requirements for. these crewmembers.

(See Appendix 1 to 12.225 for the contents of the duty and flight time records.)

12.227 COSMIC RADIATION DOSE RECORDS The AOC holder shall maintain records which would allow the total cosmic radiation dose received by their crewmembers over the previous 12 calendar months to be determined.

12.230 OPERATIONAL CONTROL PERSONNEL QUALIFICATION RECORDS

The AOC holder shall have a record of the qualification of its operational control personnel with respect to the Fourteenth and Sixteenth Schedule requirements for these persons.

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(a) The AOC holder shall have an aircraft journey log that contains the record of all flights made by that aircraft.

(b) This log, its contents, layout and procedures for its use shall be approved by the Authority prior to its use in commercial air transport.

(c) Each page shall be provided in at least duplicate form, identifiable to the AOC holder, separately numbered with a unique number and shall be arranged chronologically in a bound document.

(d) This uniquely numbered, bound document will be assigned to a specific aircraft operated by the AOC holder until all pages are used.

, ' . (8) This document shall be retained by the AOC in safe custody for at least six months after the last date of .' the.records contained in it.

(f) If the AOC holder desires to use a different methodology, it must submit the forms and procedures to the Authority for technical evaluation and approval prior to use of the d~fferent methodology in commercial air transport.

(See Appendix 1 to 10.235 for the contents of an Aircraff Journey Log.)

12.240 A~RCW SERVICE AND MAINTENANCE RECORDS

(a) The AOC holder shall have an aircraft technical log that contains the record of all servicing, defects, trend monitoring and maintenance tasks and tests on that aircraft during the course of its operations.

(b) This log, its contents, layout and the procedures for its use shall be approved by the Authority prior to its use in copmercial air transport.

(c) Each page shall be identifiable to the AOC holder, separately numbered with a unique number and shall be arranged chronologically in a bound document.

(d) Each page shall be provided in at least duplicate with each copy being a different colour, carbonless and detachable.

(e) This uniquely numbered, bound document will be assigned to a specific aircraft operated by the AOC holder until all pages are used.

(9 This document shall be retained by the AOC holder in safe custody as long as the aircraft is operated or for three months, whichever is longer.

(g) If the AOC holder desires to use a different methodology, it must submit the forms and procedures to 'the Authority for technical evaluation and approval, prior to use of the different methodology in commercial air transport.

(Note: An aircreff technical log is comprised of an aircraff journey log and aircraft maintenance log which may be separate or combined.)

(See Appendix 1 to 12.240 for the contents of the Aircraff Technical Log.)

12.242 DEFERRED DEFECTS SUMMARY

(a) The AOC holder shall have on each aircraft, a log of the deferred defects for that aircraft that is attached to or aligned with the Aircraft Technical Log.

(b) This log may be included in the printed Aircraft Technical Log or attached in some manner to the cover - of that log and will include the information prescribed by the Authority.

(c) This document shall be retained by the AOC holder in safe custody as long as the aircraft is operated.

(See Appendix 1 to 12.242 for the contents of the Deferred Defects Log.)

1

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12.245 AIRCRAFT lNSPECTlON AND CONDITION SUMMARY RECORD

The AOC holder operating air tax1 aircraft not required to be maintained under a Continuous Airworthiness programme shall provide for each aircraft operated, a summary record of that aircraft's airframe, engine, propellers, components and equipment current maintenance and condition with respect to -

(1) required inspections; (2) required replacement times; and (3) airworthiness Directive compliance.

This record will be in form and manner acceptable to the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 12.245 for the contents of the Aircrafl Inspection and Condition Summary.)

(a) The AOC holder shall have an aircraft-specific load manifest to summarize the mass and balance and performance calculations for each flight in commercial air transport.

(b) Thismanifest, its contents, layout and the procedures for its use shall be approved by the Authorityprior to its use in commercial air transport. '

(c) Each page shall be identifiable to the AOC holder, separately numbered with a unique number and shall be arranged chronologically in a bound document.

(d) Each page shall be provided in duplicate; a white original page and a carbonless, detachable page of a different colour.

(e) ' This uniquely numbered, bound document will be assigned to a specific aircraft operated by !he AOC holder until all pages are used.

(0 This document, and the supporting passenger information and cargo waybills, shall be retained by the AOC holder in safe custody for at least three months

(g) If the AOC holder desires to use a different methodology, it must submit the forms and procedures to the Authority for technical evaluation and approval, prior to use of the different methodology in commercial air transport.

(See Appendix 1 to 12.250 for the contents of the Load and Performance Manifest.)

12.255 OPERATIONAL FLIGHT PUNNING RECORDS

(a) The AOC holder shall have an OFP, and flight planning documentation as required by the Tenth Schedule, Subsection 10.450 for each flight in commercial air transport.

(b) This OFP documentation, contents, layout and the procedures for its use shall be approved by the Authority prior to its use in commercial air transport.

(c) This documentation and the supporting documents shall be retained by the AOC holder in safe custody for at least three months.

(d) Where the AOC holder desires to use a different methodology, it must submit the forms and procedures to the Authority for technical evaluation and approval, prior to use of h e different methodology in' commercial air transport.

(See Appendix 1 to 12.255 for the contents of the OFP.)

(a) The AOC holder shall at all times have available for immediate communication to rescue coordination centres, lists containing information on the emergency and survival equipment carried on board any of their aircraft engaged in commercial air transport.

(b) This information shall include, as applicable, the -

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number, colour and type of life rafts and pyrotechnics; details of emergency medical supplies; water supplies; and type and frequenciss of the emergency portable radio equipment.

12.265 FUGHT DECK VOICE AND FLIGHT DATA RECORDER RECORDS

(a) The AOC holder which operates aircraft required to have the flight voice and data recorders installed shall - ' ( 1 conduct operational checks and evaluations of flight recorder recordings to ensure the

, continued serviceability of the recorders;

(2) retain the most recent flight data recorder calibration, including the recording medium from which this calibration is derived; and

(3) retain the flight data recorder correlation for one aircraft of any group of aircraft operated by the AOC holder - (i) that are of the same type; (ii) on which the model flight recorder and its installation are the same; and (iii) on which there is no difference in type design with respect to the original installation of

instruments associated with the recorder.

(b) In the event that the aircraft becomes involved in an accident or occurrence requiring immediate notification of the Authority, the AOC holder shall remove and keep recorded information from the flight deck voice recorder and flight data recorder in safe custody pending their disposition as determined by the Authority.

SUBPART G: AIRCRAFT

(a) No person may operate an aircraft in commercial air transport unless that aircraft has an appropriate current Certificate of Airworthiness, is in an airworthy condition and meets the applicable airworthiness requirements for these operations, including those related to identification and equipment.

(b) No person may operate any specific type of aircraft in commercial air transport until it has completed satisfactory initial certification, which includes the issuance of an AOC amendment listing that type of alruaft.

(c) No person may operate additional or replacement aircraft of a type for which it is currently authorized unless it can show that each aircraft has completed an evaluation process for inclusion in the AOC holder's fleet.

(a) No person may use an aircraft type and model in commercial air transport passenger-carrying operations unless it has first conducted, for the Authority, an actual full capacity emergency evacuation demonstration for the configuration in 90 seconds or less.

(b) The full capacity actual demonstration may not be required, if the AOC holder provides a written petition for deviation with evidence that -

(1) a satisfactory full capacity emergency evacuation for the aircraft to be operated was demonstrated during the aircraft type certification or during the certification of another air operator; and

(2) 'there is an engineedng analysis, which shows that an evacuation is still possible within the 90- second standard, if the AOC holder's aircraft configuration differs with regard to number of exits or exit type or number of cabin attendants or location of the attendants.

(c) If a full capacity demonstratiol: is not required, no person may use an aircraft type and model in commercial air transport passenger-carf$ng operations unless it has first demonstrated to the Authority

-



that its available personnel, procedures and equipment could provide sufficient open exits for evacuation in 15 seconds or less.

(d) This demonstration is not required for aircraft configured for 19 or less passengers unless the Authority determines that there is an operational need for this evaluation.

12.310 DITCHING DEMONSTRATION

(a) No penoh may use a land plane in overwater operations unless he or she has first demonstrated to the Authority that he or she has the ability and equipment to efficiently carry out their ditching procedures.

(b) This demonstration is not required for aircraft configured for 19 or less passengers unless the Authority determines that there is an operational need for this evaluation.

(a) An AOC holder may dly-lease a foreign-registered aircraft for commercial air transport as approved by

t the Authority. / , (b) No person may be approved to operate a foreign registered aircraft unless -

the Authority has determined the extent of the State of Registry's arrangements for continuing airworthiness and find that these arrangements are adequate for the type of operation; the Authority will have free and uninterrupted access, both in Jamaica and at any international location - (i) to the aircraft on the ramp and during flight time; (ii) the maintenance and operations facilities; (iii) the maintenance and operations personnel; and (iv) the training facilities and simulators used

(3) the aircraft must be operated in accordance with the regulations applicable to Jamaica AOC holders; and

(4) the maintenance arrangements must result in the aircraft always being in compliance with the State of Registry requirements and the maintenance requirements applicable to Jamaica AOC holders.

(c) The Authority will consider, upon request, a continuing airworthiness agreement between the Authority and the State of Registry under Article 83 bis if that State will agree to transfer the necessary powers so that -

( I ) the airworthiness regulations of Jamaica applicable to AOC holders are in force; and (2) the agreement acknowledges that the Authority shall have free and unintempted access to the

aircraft at any place and any time.

(See Appendix 1 to 12.31 5 for additional requirements for dry leasing of foreign-registered aircraft)

(8)' No person may conduct wet-lease operations on behalf of another air operator exkept In accordance with the applicable laws and regulations of the country in which the operation occurs and the restrictions imposed by the Authority.

(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this Subsection, the maximum perlod of time that a Jamalcan AOC holder may wet lease a foreign registered aircraft is 90 days in any 12 calendar month period unless otherwise approved by the Authority.

(c) No person may allow another entity or air operator to conduct wet-lease operations on its behalf unless- (1) that air operator holds an AOC or its equivalent from a Contracting State that authorizes those

operations; and (2) the AOC holder advises the Authority of such operations and provides a copy of the AOC under

whlch the operation was conducted.

(See Appendix 1 to 12.325 Ibr additional requirements when wet feesing aircmt?.)

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SUBPART H: AOC FLIGHT OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT

This Subpart provides those certification requirements that apply to management of flight operations '

personnel and their functions.

(a) The AOC holder shall issue to its crewmembers and persons assigned operational control functions, an Operations Manual acceptable to the Authority.

(b) The Operations Manual shall contain the overall (general) company policies and procedures regardihg the flight operations it conducts.

(c) The AOC holder shall prepare and keep current an Operations Manual that contains the AOC procedures and policies for the use and guidance of its personnel. This manual shall be amended or- revised as is necessary to ensure that the information contained therein is kept up-to-date.

(d) Th2 AOG holder shall issue the Operations Manual, or pertinent portions, together with all amendments and revisions to all personnel that are required to use it.

(e) No person may provide for use of its personnel in commercial air transport any Operations ~ a n u a l or portion of this manual which has not been reviewed and found acceptable or approved for the AOC holder by the Authority.

(f) The AOC holder shall ensure that the contents of the Operations Manual includes at least those subjects designated by the Authority that are applicable to the AOC holder's operations, including any additional materials made mandatory by the Authority.

(::a0 Appendix 1 to 12.355 for contents of an Operations Manual.)

(g) Unless otherwise acceptable to the Authority, the AOC holder shall provide an Operations Manual containina information on operations administration and supervision, accident prevention and flight safety training, flight crew and cabjn attendant fatigue'and flight time limitations, flight operations, aeroplane performance, routes, guides and charts, minimum flight altitudes, aerodrome operating minima, search and rescue, dangerous goods, navigation, communications, security, and human factors.

(h) The Operations Manual shall encompass the matters set forth above. The operations manual may be published in parts, as a single document, or as a series of volumes. Specific subjects are listed below-

(1) Aircraft Operating Manual; (2) Minimum Equipment List and Configuration Deviation List; (3) training programme; (4) Aircraft Performance Planning Manual; (5) route guide; (6) Dangerous Goods procedures; (7) accident reporting procedures; (8) security procedures; (9) aircraft loading and handling manual; (10) Cabin Attendant Manual (if required).

(i) From January 1,2006, an Operations Manual, which may be issued in separate parts corresponding to specific aspects of operations, provided in accordance with ICAO Annex 6. Chapter 4,4.2.2.1 shall be organized with the following structure in each of its parts - (I).., General; (2) Aircraft Operating Information; (3) Areas, Routes and Aerodromes; and (4) Training.

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12.360 MANDATORY MATERIAL Upbn receipt of material the Authority prescribes as mandatory for inclusion In any portion of the Operations Manual, the AOC holder shall make the necessary amendments as soon as reasonably possible.

12.385 FLIGHT AND DUTY TIME LIMITATIONS

The AOC holder is required to receive approval of the policy, procedures and record completion and retention for the flight and duty time scheme it uses with respect to its key operations personnel.

(a) The AOC holder shall ensure that all operations personnel are properly instructed in their duties and responsibilities and the relationship of such duties to the operation as a whole.

@) The AOC holder shall have a training programme approved by the ~uko r i t y containing the general training, checking and record keeping policies. The Authority may issue interim training programme approval In order to permit the conduct of required training subject to such conditions as may be stipulated. Following evaluation of the programme by the Authority, the results of which are satisfactory, final training programme approval will be issued.

(c) The AOC holder's training curriculum shall, for the purpose of qualifying a crewmember or person performing operational control functions for duties in commercial air transport, include -

(1) the typesof aircraft on which the crewmembers serve; (2) the ground and flight training facilities; (3) the qualification of the instructors; and (4) the knowledge and skills of human performance.

(d) The AOC holder shall submit to the Authority any revision to an approved training programme, and shali receive written approval from the Authority before that revision can be used.

(See Appendix 1 to 12.370 for a training programme outline.)

12.375 AIRCRAFT OPERATING MANUAL

(a) Subject to paragraph (e) of this Subsection, the AOC holder or applicant shall submit proposed Aircraft Operating Manuals for each type and variant of aircraft operated, containing the normal, abnormal and emergency procedures relating to the operation of the aircraft for approval by the Authority.

(b) Every AJrcraft Operating Manual shall be based upon the aircraft manufacturer's data for the specific aircraft type and variant operated by the AOC holder and shall include specific operating parameters, details of the aircraft systems, and of the check lists to be used applicable to the operations of the AOC that &re approved by the Authority.

(c) The design of the manual shali observe human factors principles.

(d) The AJrcraft Operating Manual shall be issued to the flight crewmembers and persons assigned operational control functions to each aircraft operated by the AOC.

(See Appendix 1 to 12.375 for an outline for an Ainrai? Operating Manual that combines numerous manual requirements.)

(e) The Air Taxi AOC holder may use a current copy of the manufacturers Pilot Operating Handbbok acceptable to the Authority that must be carried on the aircraft.

12.377 APPROVED FLIGHT MANUAL

(a) The AOC holder shall update the aircraft's AFM or RFM as required by the State of Registry.

(b) The AOC holder shall update their Aircraft Operating Manual (AOM) when any AGM or RFQ revision affects information also contained in the AOM.

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(a) The AOC holder shall issue to the flight crews and make available on each aircrafl, the flight deck condensed checklist procedures approved by the Authority appropriate to the type and variant of aircrafl.

(b) The AOC holder shall ensure that approved procedures include each item necessary for flight crewtnembers to check for safety before starting engines, taking off or landing, and for engine,and systems abnormalities and emergencies.

(c) The AOC holder shall make the approved procedures readily useable in the cockpit of each aircrafl and the flight crew shall be required to follow them when operating the aircrafl.

(d) The AOC holder shall ensure that the checklist procedures are designed so that a flight crewmember will not need to rely upon their memory for items to be checked, unless such items are required by an emergency check list.

i (e) The design and utilization of checklists shall observe relevant human factors principles.

12.385 * MINIMUM EQUIPMENT LIST AND CONFIGURATION DEVIATION LIST

(a) The AOC holder shall provide for the use of the fl~ght crewmembers, maintenance personnel and persons assigned operational control function durmg the performance of their duties, a MEL approved by the Authority.

(b) The MEL shall be specific to the aircrafl type and variant which contains the circumstances, limitations and procedures for release or continuance of flight of the aircrafl with inoperative components, equipment or instruments.

(c) Each AOC holder may provide for the use of flight crew, maintenance personnel and persons assigned operational control functions during the performance of their duties a Configuration Deviation List (CDL) specific to the aircrafl type, if one is provided, and approved by the State of Design. An AOC holder's operations manual shall contain those procedures acceptable to the Authority for operations in accordance with the CDL requirements.

(a) The AOC holder shall issue operating instructions and provae information on aeroplane climb performance with all engines operating and the loss of one engine to enable the PIC to determine the minimum runway length and climb gradient that can be achieved during the departure phase for the existing take-off conditions and intended takeoff techniques.

(b) The AOC holder shall provide for the use of the flight crewmembers and persons assigned operational control functions during the performance of their dut~es, a performance planning manual acceptable to the Authority.

(c) The performance planning manual shall be specific to aircrafl type and variant which contains adequate performance information to accurately calculate the performance in all normal phases of flight operation.

(d) The Air Taxi AOC holder may use the performance data provided in the current manufacturer's Pilot Operating Handbook.

(a) Subject to paragraph (c) of this Subsection, the AOC holder shall have a system approved by the Authority for obtaining, maintaining and distributing to appropriate personnel current performance data for each aircrafl, route and airport that it uses.

(b) The system approved by the Authority shall provide current obstacle data, and take into account the charting accuracy of such obstacles, for departure and arrival performance calculations.

(c) The Air Taxi AOC holder is not required to have this system, but must make all calculations assumlng mere is a 50 foot obstacle at the end of the runway both departing and aniving.

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(a) Subject to paragraph (c) of this Subsection. the AOC holder shall provide for the use of the fllght crewmembers, ground handling personnel and persons assigned operational control functions during the performance of their duties. an aircraft handling and loading manual acceptable to Me Authority.

(b) This manual shall be specific to the aircraft type and variant which contains the procedures and limitations for servicing and loadingpf the aircraft.

(c) The Air Taxi AOC holder is not required to provide this manual.

The AOC holder shall have a system approved by the Authority for obtaining, maintaining and distributing to appropriate personnel current information regarding h e mass and balance of each aircraft operated.

(a) Each AOC holder employing cabin attendants shall issue to the cabin attendants and provide to passenger agents during the performance of their duties. a cabin attendant manual acceptable to h e

(b) The cabin attendant manual shall contain those operational policies and procedures,applicable to cabin attendants and the carriage of passengers.

(c) The AOC holder shall issue a manual specific to the aircraft type and variant to the cabin attendants, which contains the details of their normal, abnormal and emergency procedures and h e location and operation of emergency equipment.

(d) The cabin attendant manual shall also contain the following documents - (1) a stamped list of effective pages from the Authority; (2) a Manual Control Number for each cabin attendant; (3) a Record of Revisions page(s); and (4) a Temporary Record of Revisions page(s ) and (Blue Inserts), if applicable.

(Note: These manuals may be combined into one manual for use by the cabin attendants.)

(a) The AOC holder shall carry on each passenger canying aircraft, in convenient locations for h e use of each passenger, printed cards supplementing the oral briefing and containing -

(1) diagrams and methods of operating the emergency exits; (2) other instructions necessary for use of the emergency equipment; and (3) Information regarding the restrictions and requirements associated with sitting in an exit seat

row.

(b) The AOC holder shall ensure that each card contains information that is pertinent'on~~ to h e type and variant of aircraft used for that night.

(See Appendix 1 to 12.41 5 for specific information to be included on passenger information cards.)

12.420 &RONAUTlCAL DATA CONTROL SYSTEM

(a) Subject to paragraph (b) of this Subsection, the AOC holder shall have a system approved by the Authority for obtaining. maintalning and distributing to appropriate personnel current aeronautical data for each route and airport that it uses.

(b) The Alr Taxi AOC holder must comply with the requirements of the Tenth Schedule with regard to aeronautical data.

(See Appendix 1 to 12.420 for the specific aitpofl information to bg contained in the aeronautical data control system.)



12.425 &RONAUTICAL PUBLICATIONS

(a) The AOC holder shall provide for the use of the flight crewmembers and persons assigned operational control functions during the performance of their duties, aeronautical publications approved by the Authority.

(b) The aeronautical publications shall be current and appropriate for the proposed types and areas of operations lo be conducted by the AOC holder. .

(a) The AOC holder shall use sources approved by the Authority for the weather reports and forecasts used for decisions regarding flight preparation, routing and terminal operations. i 1

(b) For passenger carrying operations on a published schedule, the AOC holder shall have'an approved system for obtaining forecasts and reports of adverse weather phenomena that may affect safety of flight on each route to be flown and airport to be used. ,/

(See Appendix 1 to 12.430 for sources of weather repods satisfactory for flight plajning or controlling flight movement.)

I 12.435 DE-ICING AND ANTI-ICING PROGRAMME

The AOC holder planning to operate an aircraft in conditions where frost. ice, or snow may reasonably be expected to adhere to the aircraft shall -

(1) use only aircraft adequately equipped for such conditions; (2) ensure flight crew is adequately trained for such conditions; and (3) have an approved ground de-icing and anti-icing programme.

(See Appendix 1 to 12.435 for detailed requirements pedaining to the AOC holder's de-icing programme.)

12.440 OPERATIONAL CONTROL

(a) The AOC holder shall have an adequate system approved by the Authority for proper supervision and control of its flights and that meets the requirements specified in the Sixteenth Schedule.

(b) For operations requiring a flight watch system, the dispatch and monitoring system shall have enough dispatch centres, adequate for the operations to be conducted, located a1 points necessary to ensure adequate flight preparation, dispatch and in-flight contact with the operator's flights. t he AOC holder shall provide enough qualified personnel at each dispatch centre to ensure proper operational control of each flight. I

(c) For operations requiring a flight locating system, the AOC holder shall ensure that the person responsible for monitoring the flight is available on duty at all times there are flights in progress.

12.450 COMMUNICATIONS FACILITIES

(a) The AOC holder's nights shall be able to have two-way radio communications with all ATC facilities along the routes and alternate routes to be used.

(b) For passenger carrying operations, the AOC holder shall be able to have rapid and reliable radio communications with all flights over the AOC holder's entire route structure under normal operating conditions.

(c) Any operations along routes and into airports without rapid and reliable radio communications shall be approved by the Authority prior to commercial air transport operations in these areas. .

12.455 R o m s AND ARM OF OPERAT~ON

(a) An AOC holder may conduct operations only along such routes and within such areas for which - (1) ground facilities and services, including meteorological services, are provided which are

adequate for the planned operation;


THE CIVIL AVIATNNREGULATIONS, 2004

the performance of the aircraft intended to be used is adequate to comply with mlnlmum flight altitude requirements; the equipment of the aircraft intended to be used meets the minimum requirements for the planned operation; appropriate and current maps and charts are available; if twinengine aircraft are used, adequate airports are available within the timeldistance limitations; and If singleengine aircrafl are used, surfaces are available which perinit a safe forced landing to be executed.

(b) No person may conduct commercial air transport operations on any route or area of operation unless those operations are in accordance with any restrictions imposed by the Authority.

12.460 NAVloATIONAL ACCURACY The AOC holder shall ensure, for each proposed route or area, that the navigational systems and facilities it uses are capable of navigating the aircraft -

( I ) within the degree of accuracy required for ATC; and (2) to the airports in the operat~onal flight plan within the degree of accuracy necessary for the

operation involved.

In situations without adequate navigation systems reference, the Authority may authorize day VFR operations that can be conducted safely by pilotage because of the characteristics of the terrain.

Except for those navigational aids required for routes to alternate airports, the Authoritywill list in the AOC holdefs Operations Specifications all non-visual ground aids required for approval of routes outside of controlled airspace.

Non-visual ground aids are not required for night VFR operations on routes that the AOC holder shows have reliably lighted landmarks adequate for safe operation.

Operations on route segments where the use of celestial or other specialized means of navigatlon shall be approved by the Authority.

12.465 MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDES

(a) The AOC holder shall specify the method by which it intends to determine minimum flight altitudes for operations conducted over routes for which minimum flight altitudes have not been established by the responsible State.

(b) The Authority will appro<e such method only after careful consideration of the brobable effects of the following factors on the safety of the operation in question -

(1) the accuracy and reliability with which the position of the aircrafl can be determined; (2) the inaccuracies in the indications of the altimeters used; (3) the characteristics of the terrain (e.g. sudden changes in elevation); (4) the probability of encountering unfavourable meteorological conditions (e.g. severe turbulence

and descending air currents); (5) possible in accuracies in the aeronautical charts; (6) airspace restrictions; and (7) ICAO Annex 2. -

12.470 AERODROME OPERATING MINIMA

(a) The AOC holder shall establish the aerodrome operating minima for each aerodrome to be used for commercial air transport operations involving takeoff, approach to landing and landing in accordance with a method of determination approved by the Authority.

(b) The method of determination shall take full account of - (1) the type. perfo'rmance and handling characteristics of the aircraft; (2) the composition of the flight crew, their competence and experience; (3) the dimensions and characteristics of the runways which may be selected for use;



(4) h e adequacy and performance of the available visual and non-visual ground aids (5) h e equipment available on the aircraft for the purpose of navigation andlor control of h e flight

path during the approach to landing and the missed approach; (6) h e obstacles in the approach and missed approach areas and the obstacle clearance

altitudeheight for the instrument approach procedures; (7) the means used to determine and report meteorological conditions; and (8) the obstacles in the climb-out areas and necessary clearance margins.

12.475 F U G ~ SAFENAND ACCIDENT PREVENTION PROGWME

(a) The AOC holder shall have a programme of flight safety and accident prevention.

(b) This programme shall include primary duties for - (1) standardization of crewmember guidance and standard operating procedures, including -

expanded and condensed normal checklists; acceptable flight manoeuvres profiles; acceptable safety procedures, e.g. standard call-outs, checklist usage and philosophy, etc.;

(2) route standardmtion of crewmember and line check pilots; (3) conduct of safety briefings; (4) issuance of Operations Bulletins regarding safety and standardization matters; and (5) administration of a methodology for reporting, both anonymous and identifiable, and correction

of possible safety issues and providing feedback to the operations personnel. (c) An operator shall establish a flight safety documents system, for the use and guidance of operational

personnel.

(d) An AOC holder of an aeroplane of a certificated take-off mass in excess of 27.000 kg shall establish and maintaln a flight data analysis programme as part of its accident prevention and flight safety programme in which -

(1) a flight data analysis programme shall be non-punitive and contain adequate safeguards to protect the source(s) of the data;

(2) an AOC holder may contract h e operation of a flight analysis programme to another party while retaining overall responsibility for the maintenance of such a programme.

(See Appendix 1 to 12.475 for the requirements of a flight safety documents system.)

SUBPART I: AOC MAINTENANCE REQUIREMENTS

This Subpart provides hose certification and maintenance requirements that apply to an AOC holder's application of maintenance control.

(a) The AOC holder shall ensure the airworthiness of the aircraft and the serviceability of both operational and emergency equipment by -

(1) assuring the accomplishment of pre-flight inspections; (2) assuring h e correction of any defect andlor damage affecting safe operatlon of an aircraft to an

approved standard, taking into account the MEL and CDL if available for the aircraft type; (3) assuring ha t the operational and emergency equipment necessary for h e intended flight is

serviceable; (4) assuring the accomplishment of all maintenance in accordance with the approved operator's

aircraft maintenance programme; (5) h e analysis of the effectiveness of the AOC holder's approved aircraft maintenance

Droaramme: r - (6) assuring the accomplishment of any operational directive, Airworthiness Directive and any other

continued airworthiness requirement made mandatory by the Authority, and



(7) assuring the accomplishment of modifications in accordance with an approved standard and. for non-mandatory modifications, the establishment of an embodiment policy.

(b) The AOC holder shall ensure that the Certificate of Airworthiness for each aircraft operated remalns valid in respect to -

(1) the requirements in paragraph (a) of this ~ubsection; (2) the expiration date of the Certificate; and (3) any other maintenance condition specified in the Certificate.

(c) The AOC holder shall ensure that the requirements specified in paragraph (a) of this Subsection are performed in accordance with procedures approved by or acceptable to the Authority.

(d) The AOC holder shall ensure that the maintenance, preventive maintenance. and modification of Its aircrafUaeronautical products are performed in accoidance with its maintenance control manual andlor current instructions for continued airworthiness, and applicable aviation regulations.

(8) The AOC holder may make an arrangement with another person or entity for the performance of any maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications; but shall remain responsible of all work performed under such arrangement.

(f) The AOC holder shall ensure that a Certificate of Maintenance Review (CMR) is accomplished and remains valid for each aircraft in respect of -

(1) the requirements of paragraph (a) of this Subsection; and (2) the expiration date as required by the Maintenance Control Manual. (See Appendix 1 to 12.530 for the requirements associated with a CMR.)

12.535 APPROVAL AND ACCEPTANCE OF AOC MAINTENANCE SYSTEMS AND PROGRAMMES

(a) An AOC holder shall not operate an aircraft, except for pre-flight inspections, unless it is malntained and released to service by an AM0 or equivalent system of maintenance that is approved by h e State of Registry and is acceptable to the Authority.

(b) A system of maintenance shall be approved by the State of Registry of the aircraft for airmft not registered in Jamaica, and such approval must be acceptable to the Authority.

(c) Where the Authority or the State of Registry accepts an equivalent system of maintenance, the persons designated to sign an approval for return to service shall be licensed as required under the applicable personnel licensing or airworthiness regulations.

(d) Aircraft that are type certificated for a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of nlne seats or less, shall be -

(1) .inspected and maintained in accordance with the provisions of the Fifth Schedule; (2) in accordance with the manufacturers' maintenance programme approved by the Authority for

each aircraft engine, propeller, propeller governor, rotor and each item of emergency equipment.

(Note: For the purpose of this Subsection, a manufacturefs maintenance progmmme is one which is contained in the maintenance manual or maintenance instructions set forth by the manufadumr, as requlred by the regulations for the aircrai?, aircrai? engine, propeller, rotor or item of emergency equipment.)

12.540 MAINTENANCE CONTROL MANUAL

(a) The AOC holder shall provide to the Authority, and to the State of Reglstry of the aircraft, if different from the Authority, an AOC holder's maintenance control manual and subsequent amendments, for the use and guidance of maintenance and operational personnel concerned, containing details of the organization's structure including -

(1) the accountable manager and designated person(s) responsible for the maintenance system;



(2) procedures to be followed to satisfy the maintenance responsibility of thls Subpart. except where the AOC holder is an AMO, and also performs the qualii system functions. Such procedures may be included in the AM0 procedures manual;

(3) procedures for the reporting of failures, malfunctions, and defects in accordance with the FlWl Schedule, to the Authority. State of Registry and the State of Design within 24 houn of discovery; in addition, items that warrant immediate notification to the Authority by telephoneltelexlfax. with a written follow-on report as soon as possible but no later than wlthln 72 hours of discovery, are - (i) primary structural failure; (ii) control system failure: (iii) hydraulic system failure (iv) fire in the aircraft; (v) engine in-flight shutdown (voluntary or otherwise) (vi) engine structure failure; or (vii) any other condition considered an imminent hazard to safety.

(b) This manual shall be amende'or revised as is necessary to ensure that the information contained therein is kept up-to-date.

(c) The AOC holder shall furnish this Manual, or pertinent potions, together wlth all amendments and revisions to all personnel and organizations that are required to use it.

(d) No penon may provide for use of its personnel in commercial air transport any Maintenance ConW Manual or portion of this manual which has not been reviewed and approved for the AOC holder by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 12.540 for the required contents of the Maintenance Contd Manual.)

Upon receipt of material the Authority prescribes as mandatory for inclusion in any portion of the Maintenance Control Manual, the AOC holder shall make the necessary amendments as soon as reasonably possible.

(a) The AOC holder, approved as an AMO, may carry out the maintenance requirements specffied ln Subsection 12.530, paragraphs (a) (2), (3), (5) and (6).

(b) Where the AOC holder is not an AMO, the AOC holder shall meet its responsibilith under Subsectiar 12.530, paragraph (a), suh-paragraphs (2). (3). (5) and (6) by using -

(1) an equivalent system of maintenance approved or accepted by the A u t h ~ , or (2) through an arrangement with an AM0 with a written maintenance contract agreed between the

AOC holder and the contracting AM0 detailing the required maintenance functions and defining the support of the quality functions approved or accepted by the Authority.

(c) The AOC holder shall employ a person or group of persons, acceptable to the Authority, to ensure that all maintenance is carried out to an approved standard such that the maintenance requlrements of Subsection 12.530 and requirements of the AOC holdeh maintenance control manual are satisfled, and to ensure the functioning of the quality system.

(d) The AOC holder shall provide suitable office accommodation at appropriate locations for the personnel . specMed in paragraph (c) of this Subsection.

12.550 MAINTENANCE QuAUTY SYSTEM

(a) Subject to paragraph (d) of this Subsection, for maintenance purposes, the AOC holder shall establish a quality system that shall include at least the following functions -

(1) monitoring the activities that are being performed in aahrdanc@with the accepted procedures; (2) ensure that all contracted maintenance is carried out in accordance wlth the contract



(3) monitoring the continued compliance with the maintenance requirements; and (4) monitoring compliance with, and adequacy of, procedures required to ensure safe maintenance

practices and airworthy aircraft. (5) procedures for completing the requirements of, and issuing when accomplished, the Certiicate

of Maintenance Review (CMR).

(Note: Compliance monitoring must include a feedback system to the accountable manager to ensure corrective action as necessary.)

(b) The AOC holder's quality system shall include a quality assurance programme that contains procedures designed to verify that all maintenance operations are being conducted in accordance with all applicable requirements, standards and procedures.

(c) Where the AOC holder is also an AMO, the AOC holder's quality management system may be combined with the requirements of an AM0 and submitted for approval and acceptance to the Authority. and State of Registry for aircraft not registered in Jamaica.

(See Appendix 1 to 12.550 for additional quality system requirements for maintenance activities.)

(d) The Air Taxi operator may have a system of quality assurance that is at variance with the requirements of paragraph (a) of this Subsection but it must be acceptable to the Authority.

12.555 ~RCRAFTTECHNICAL LOG ENTRIES: AOC HOLDERS

(a) Every person who takes action in the case of a reported or observed failure or malfunction of an aircraW aeronautical product, that is critical to the safety of flight shall make, or have made, a record of that action in the maintenance section of the aircraft technical log.

(b) The AOC holder shall have a procedure for keeping adequate copies of required records to be carried aboard, in a place readily accessible to each flight crewmember and shall put that procedure in the AOC holder's Operations Manual.

(a) The AOC holder shall ensure that a system has been established to keep, in a form acceptable to the Authority, the following records -

(1) the total time in service (hours, calendar time and cycles, as appropriate) of the aircraft and all lifelimited components;

(2). the current status of compliance with all mandatory continuing alrworthiness Information; (31 amro~riate details of modifications and repairs to the aircraft and its maior components. . .

i&Iuding powerplants, propellers and rotable components; (4) a system for ensuring that the flight crew is aware before flight of all deferred defects on the

aircraft and of any operating restrictions or limitations resulting;. (5) the time in service (hours, calendar time and cycles, as appropriate) since last overhaul of the

alrcrafl or its components subject to mandatory overhaul life; (6) the current aircraft status of compliance with the maintenance programme; and (7) the detailed maintenance records to show that all requirements for signing of a maintenance

release and airworthiness release have been met.

(b) The AOC holder shall ensure that the records referred to in paragraph (a) of this Subsection are kept for a mlnlmum of 2 years after the aircraft for which the records were maintained has been permanently withdrawn from senrice..

(c) The AOC holder shall ensure that in the event of temporary change of operator. the records specified In paragraph (a) of this Subsection shall be made available to the new operator.

(d) The AOC holder shall ensure that when an aircraft is permanently transferred from one operator to another operator, the records specified in paragraph (a) of this Subsection are also transferred.

(e) The aircraft technical log and any subsequent amendment shall be approved by the Authority.



12.585 CERTIFICATE OF RELEASE TO SERVICE ENTRY IN THE TECHNICAL LOG

(a) An AOC holder shall not operate an aircraft unless it is maintained and released to service by an organisation approved in accordance with the Sixth Schedule, or under an equivalent system, either of which shall be acceptable to the State of Registry.

(b) An AOC holder using an equivalent system shall not operate an aircraft after release under paragraph (a) of thls Subsection unless a Certificate of Release to Service is prepared and signed in the aircraft's Technical Logbook by an appropriately licensed and rated individual in accordance with these Schedules, as appropriate. The Certificate of Release to Service shall be issued in accordance with the AOC maintenance control manual procedures.

(c) An AOC holder using an AM0 shall not operate an aircraft afler release lo service under paragraph (a) of this Subsection unless .a Certificate of Release to Service is prepared and entered in the aircraft's Technical Logbook in accordance with the AOC maintenance control manual procedures acceptable to the Authority.

12.570 MODIFICATION AND REPAIRS

(a) All modifications and repairs shall comply with airworthiness requirements acceptable to the State of Registry. Procedures shall be established to ensure that the substantiating data supporting compliance with the ailworthiness requirements are retained. However, in the case of a major repair or major modification, the work must have been done in accordance with technical data approved by the Authority.

(b) An AOC holder, which is authorized to perform maintenance, preventive maintenance and modifications of any aircrafl, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, appliance, component or part thereof, in accordance with the approved operations specifications, intending to approve an aircraft registered in Jamaica for return to service after major repairs or major modifications shall use a current and valid licensed AME

, with an airhame and powerplant rating and shall be qualified in accordance with the Fifth Schedule.

(c) The AOC holder shall, promptly upon completion, prepare a report of each major modification or major repair of an airhame, aircraft engine, propeller or appliance of an aircraft operated by it.

(d) The AOC holder shall submit a copy of each report of a major modification to the Authority and shall keep a copy of each report of a major,repair available for inspection.

12.575 AIRCRAFT MAINTENANCE PROGRAMME

(a) The AOC holder requesting approval to operate a large or turbine powered aircraft or an aircraft type certificated for 10 passengers or more shall provide. for the use and guidance of maintenance and operational personnel cotkerned, a maintenance programme approved by the State of Registry containing the information prescribed by the Authority.

(b) The AOC holder's aircrafl maintenance programme and any subsequent amendment shall be submitted to the State of Registry for approval prior to use. Acceptance by the Authority will be conditioned upon prior approval by the State of Registry or, where appropriate, upon the AOC holder complying with recommendations provided by the State of Registry.

(c) Copies of the maintenance programme and all amendments shall be furnished to the personnel and orgariizations who are to perform work on the AOC holder's aircraft.

(d) No person may provide for use of its personnel in commercial air transport a Maintenance Programme or portton thereof which has not been reviewed and approved for the use of the AOC holder by the Authority.

(e) The deslgn and application of the maintenance programme shall observe Human Factors principles.

(9 The Authority will require an operator to include a reliability programme when the Authority determines that such a reliability programme is necessary. When such a determination is made by the Authority the AOC holder shall provide such procedures and information in the AOC holder's MCM.

(Q) The AOC holder shall ensure that each aircraft is maintained in accordance with the AOC holder's aircraft approved maintenance programme which shall include -

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514 . THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

(1) maintenance tasks and the intervals in which these are to be perfoned., taking into account the anticipated utilisation of the aircraft;

(2) when applicable, a continuing structural integrity programme; (3) procedures for changing or deviating from paragraphs (g), sub-paragraphs (1) and g (2) of this

Subsection; and (4) when applicable, condition monitoring and reliability programme descriptions for aircraft systems.

components and powerplants.

(h) Repetitive maintenance tasks that are specified in mandatory intervals as a condition of approval of the type design shall be identified as such.

(Note: The maintenance programme should be based on maintenance progremme information mede available by the State of Design or by the organisation responsible for the type design, end eny additional applicable experience.)

(i) Approval by the Authority of an AOC holder's maintenance programme and any subsequent amendments shall be included in its Operations Specifications.

(j) The AOC holder shall have an inspection programme and a programme covering other maintenance, preventive maintenance and modifications to ensure that - . ..

(1) maintenance, preventive maintenance and modifications perfoned by it, or by other persons, are performed in accordance with the AOC holder's MCM; and

(2) each aircraft released to service is airworthy and has been properly maintained for operation.

(k) The Authority-may amend any specifications issued to an AOC holder to permit deviation from those provisions of this Subpart that would pievent the return to service and use of airframe components, powerplants, appliances and spare parts thereof because those items have been maintained, altered, or inspected by persons employed outside Jamaica who do not hold an appropriate Jamaican licence.

(I) The AOC holder who is granted authority under this deviation shall provide for surveillance of facilities and practices to assure that all work performed on these parts is accomplished in accordance with the AOC holder's MCM.

Upon receipt of material from the Authority prescribed as mandatory for inclusion in either the MCM or the maintenance programme, the AOC holder will make these amendments as soon as reasonably possible and submit their amendment to the Authority.

12.585 A u n i o ~ m TO PERFORM AND APPROVE MAINTENANCE, PREVENTIVE MAINTENANCE AND MODlFlCATlONS

(a) An AOC holder which is not approved as an AM0 may perfon and approve routine and non-routine maintenance, preventive maintenance or inspections for return to service, if authorized by the AOC holder's operations specifications. as provided in its maintenance programme and MCM.

(b) An AOC holder may make arrangements with an AM0 (appropriately rated) for the perfonance of maintenance, preventive maintenance, or modifications of any aircraft, airframe, power plant, propeller, appliance or component, or part thereof, as provided in its maintenance programme and MCH.

(c) An AOC holder which is not approved as an AM0 shall use an appropriately licensed and rated A

individual in accordance with the Fifth and Eighth Schedules, as appropriate, to approve maintenance and preventive maintenance for return to service after performing or supervising in accordance with technical data approved by the Authority.

(a) No person may use any person to perform a duplicate inspection unless the person perfoning the inspection is appropriately certificated, properly trained, qualified and authorized to do so.

(b) No person may allow any person to perform a duplicate inspection unless, at that time, the person perfoning that inspection is under the supervision and control of an inspections unit.

[The lncluslon of this page is authorized by L.N. 18~/2008]


(c) At least one of the two performing a duplicate inspection shall not have been involved in the performance, or supervision, of the item of work being inspected.

(d) Each AOC holder shall maintain, or shall determine that each person with whom it arranges to perform Its duplicate Inspections, maintains a current listing of persons who have been trained, qualified and authorized to conduct duplicate inspections, and -

1 the persons must be identified by name, occupational title and the inspections they are authorized to perform;

(2) the AOC holder (or person with whom it arranges to perform its required inspections) shall give M e n authorization to each person so authorized, describing the extent of his responsibilities, authorizations and inspection limitations; and

(3) this listing shall be made available for inspection by the Authority on request.

12.505 SUPERVISION AND CERTlFlCATlON REQUIREMENT - AOC HOLDER USING EQUIVALENT SYSTEM\

(a) Each person who is directly in charge of maintenance, preventive maintenance or modification of any aircraft, alrfmme, aircrafl engine, propeller, appliance or component, or part thereof, and each person performing required inspections and signing Certificates of Release to Service for the maintenance performed shall be an appropriately licensed and rated Aircraft Maintenance Engineer in accordance with the Fmh and Eighth Schedules, as appropriate, and acceptable to the Authority.

(b) A person who is directly in charge shall be on site but need not physically observe and direct each worker constantly but shall be available for consultation and decision on matters reauirina instruction or . - decislon from higher authority than that of the persons performing the work.

(c) A person who is directly in charge shall be responsible for ensuring that each person performing maintenance under his supervision has been properly trained, and is competent, to cany out the tasks that have been assigned to himlher.

(Note: A person "directly in charge" is each person assigned to a position in which he is responsible Ibr the work of a shop or station that performs maintenance, preventive maintenance, modifications or other functions affecting aircraff airworthiness.)

&PENDO( 1 TO 12.130: MANAGEMENT PERSONNEL REQUIRED FOR COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT OPERATlONS

(a) The AOC holder shall make arrangements to ensure continuity of supervision if operations are conducted in the absence of any required management personnel.

(b) Required management personnel shall be contracted to work sufficient hours such that the management functions are fulfilled.

. (c) A person sewing in e required management position for an AOC holder may not serve ina similar position for any .other AOC holder, unless a deviation is issued by the Authority.

(d) Qualifications and Responsibilities of Operational Personnel. (1) Director of Operations (Operations Manager).

(i) Qualifications: The Director of Operations shall - (A) hold or have held the appropriate licence and ratings for which a PIC is required to . .

hold for one of the aeroplanes operated or have acquired not less than 3 years related supervisorv experience with an operator of a commercial air service whose flight operations are similar in size and scope; and

(B1 demonstrate knowledge to theAuthority with respect to the content of the . . Operetions Manual, thk operator's AOC and operations Specifications, the provision of the regulations necessary to carry out the duties and responsibilities to ensure safety.

(li) Responsibilities: The Director of Operations is responsible for safe flight operations. In

[The lncluslon of this page I s authorized by L.N. 18*12008]


particular, the responsibilities of the position include but are not limited to - control of operations and operational standards of all aeroplanes operated; the identification of operations coordination functions which impact on operational control (eg. maintenance, crew scheduling, load control, equipment scheduling), supervision, organization, function and manning of the following - (aa) flight operations; (ab) cabin safety; (ac) crew scheduling androstering; (ad) training programmes: and (ae) flight safety; the contents of the operator's Company Operations Manual; the supervision of and the production and amendment of the Company Operations Manual; liaison with the regulatory authority on all matters concerning flight operations, including any variations to the AOC; liaison with any external agencies which may affect operator operations; ensuring that the operator's operations are conducted in accordance with current regulations, directives or other requirements, and operator policy; ensuring that crew scheduling complies with flight and duty time regulations and that all crewmembers are kept informed of any changes to the regulations; the receipt and implementation of action in response to any aeronautical Information affecting the safety of flight; the dissemination of aeroplane safety information, both internal and external; qualifications of flight crew; and maintenance of a current operations library.

(Note: In his or her absence all responsibilities for operational duties shall be delegated to another individual qualified in accordance with the Regulations except that the knowledge requirements ' - detailed under Operations Manager qualifications may be demonstreted to the operetor rather than the Authority.)

(2) Chief Pilot. (i) Qualifications: The Chief Pilot shall -

(A) if the AOC authorizes - (aa) VFR only - hold a valid Airline Transport Pilot Licence- Aeroplane or a valid

Commercial Pilot Licence-Aeroplane appropriate for an aeroplane subject to this Schedule:

(ab) Day and Night VFR - hold an Airline Transport Pilot ~icence-Aeroplane or . . CO-mmerciai Pilot LicenceAeroplane, valid for night, and a valid lnstrument Rating appropriate for an aeroplane subject to this Subpart; or

(ac) IFR - hold a valid Airline Transport Pilot Licence-Aeroplane and a valid Instrument Rating for an aeroplane subject to this Schedule.

(B) if applicable, hold a type rating for at least one of the types of aeroplanes operated; (C) have at least 3 years experience as PIC of an aeroplane similar to the types

operated; (D) be qualified in accordance with the operator's training programme to act as a PIC on

one of the types to be operated; and (E) demonstrate knowledge to the Authority with respect to the content of the Company

Operations Manual, Training Manuals. SOPS (if applicable), Company Check Pilot Manual (if applicable) and the provisions of the Regulations necessary to any out the duties and responsibilities of the position.

(ii) Responsibilities: The Chief Pilot is responsible for the professional standards af the flight crews under hislher authority and. in particular - (A) developing standard operating procedures; (B) developing or implementing all required approved training programmes for the

[The lncluslon of thls page is authorized by L.N. 18~/2008]


: operator flight crews; i (C) issuing directives and noticed to the flight crews as required; (D) the operational suitability and requirements of all aerodromes and routes served by

the operator; (E) review and distribution of acc,ident,.incident, and other occurrence reports; (F) taking follow-up action in respect of any flight crew reports; (G) the supervision of flight crews; and ,

(H) assuming any responsibilities delegated by the Operations Manager.

(3) Director of Safety (Safety Programme ~ a n a ~ e r ) .

(I) Qualifications: The Director of ~a fb ty shall - (A) have extensive operational experience, normally achieved as a flight deck

crewmember or equivalent experience in aviation management; and (B) have received training as follbws -

(aa) flight safety phi lo sop^$ (ab) human factors and the decision-making process; (ac) accident prevention; (ad) the role of the Director, of Safety as advisor to senior management; (ae) risk management; ! (af) accidenuincident management; (ag) the aviation safety sur\iey; (ah) emergency.response plan; and (ai) incident investigation.

(ii) Responsibilities: This person shall have direct access to the accountable manager in safety matters and shall be responsible for managing the flight safety programme by - -

(A) monitoring and advising on ahair operator flight safety activities which may have an impact on flight safety; i

(B) establishing a reporting system that provides for a timely and free flow of flight safety related information; 1

(C) conducting safety surveys; ' (D) soliciting and processing flight safety improvement suggestions; (E) developing and maintaining la safety awareness programme; (F) monitoring industry flight safety concerns which may have an impact on air operator

operations; (G) maintaining close liaison with aeroplane manufacturers; (H) maintaining close liaison with the Authority; (I) maintaining close liaison with industry safety associations; (J) developing and maintaining /the air operator accident response plan; (K) identifying flight safety deficiencies and making suggestions for corrective action; (L) investigating and reporting on incidentslaccidents and making recommendations to

preclude a recurrence; (M) developing and maintainingla flight safety database to monitor and analyze trends; (N) making recommendations to the air operator senior management on matters

pertaining to flight safety; and (0) monitoring the response and measuring the results of flight safety initiatives.

(4) Flight Attendant Manager. !

(i) Qualifications: Where flight atten!dants are required, the minimum qualifications for a Flight Attendant Manager are -

(A) a working knowledge of the contents of the air operator's operations manual, AOC and operations specificatio~s as are necessary for the performance of the assigned duties;

(B) a working knowledge of such of the provisions of the Civil Aviation Act, Regulations and Schedules, as are necessaryfor the performance of the assigned duties; and

(The inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18d20081 * 5


(C) a minimum of five years experience as a flight attendant plus a minimum of three years experience as a flight attendant ~ {~erv iso r above the level of purser.

(ii) Responsibilities: The Flight Attendant ~ a n a ~ e r is responsible for the professional standards of the cabin crews under hislher authority and in particular for-

(A) ensuring that a current and approved Flight Attendant Manual is in place; ensuring that a current and approved flight attendant training program is in place; issuing directives and notices to the flight attendants as required; the preparation and distribution of accident, incident, and other occurrence reports; the reviewing and processing of cabin crew reports; the supervision of flight attendants; training of flight attendants in accordancb with the approved training programme; the maintenance of flight attendant training records; liaising with other company departments'; and the development of safety features cards;

(5) Director of Maintenance (or Vice President, Maintenance & Engineering). (i) Qualifications: This person shall be an AME, type rated on aircrafl broadly similar to those

operated by the AOC holder, and having previous maintenance experience and management training acceptable to the Authority.

(ii) Responsibilities: This person shall be responsible to the AOC Holder for h e timely and satisfactory completion of all aircraft maintenav-related activities.

(6) Chief Inspector (or Director of Quality Assurance). !

(i) Qualifications: This person shall be a type-rated AME, qualified on the aircrafl operated by the AOC holder, or on a type of aircraft similar to that operated by the AOC holder, provided that helshe has staff reporting to himlher that are qualified on the types operated and having previous quality assurance experience, or formal quality assurance training.

(ii) Responsibilities: This person shall be responsible to the Director of Maintenance for h e establishment and proper functioning of the Quality Assurance System.

(7) Chief Engineer (or Director of Maintenance). , Qualifications: This person shall be a type- rated AME, qualfied on at least one of the types of the aircraft operated by the AOC holder, provided that hdshe has stalf reporting to himlher that are qualified on the other types. Responsibilities: This person shall be responsible to the Director of Maintenance for the satisfactory and timely completion of all aircraft maintenance functions required pursuant to the AOC holder's Maintenance Program and the approved maintenance schedule for each aircraft, while observing all h e requirements of the applicable Civil AvlaUon Regulations.

(8) Maintenance Coordinator.

(I) Qualifications: This person shall be the holded of an AME Licence, preferably type-rated on the aircraft being operated, and shall be fully conversant with the contents of the o~erator's MCM. h e maintenance schedule. and the aDDlicable Civil Aviation Rmulations relating to aircraft maintenance. In special circumstan&s, at the discretion of the~u thor i t~ where the person has demonstrated to the satisfaction of the Authority, sufficient knowledge of the MCM, the maintenance schedule and the applicable requirements of the Regulatlons, the holder of a Commercial Pilot Licence person may be approved to fill thb position.

(ii) Responsibilities: Reporting to the Accountable Manager . thls person shall be responsible for ensuring the operator's compliance with alllaspects of the operation referred to In Par$ V. VI, and X of the Regulations.

I [The inclusion of thin page Is authorized by L.N. 18rSL0081


(e) An AOC holder may employ a person who does not meet the appropriate airman qu,alification or experience if the Authority issues a deviation finding that that person has comparable experience and can effectively perform the required management functions.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.225: CONTENTS OF CREW DUTY AND FLIGHT TIME RECORDS Unless otherwise prescribed by the Authority. the AOC holder shall require the use of crew flight and duty time records with the following information -

the AOC holder's company name; the crewmember's full name and employee identification number, if applicable; a running summary of number of hours flown in the past - (i) 12 months; (ii) 28 days; (iii) 7 days; and (iv) 24 hours; if the flight time is scheduled more than 24 hours in advance, a daily record by date, of the assigned duty times, flight times and projected rest periods or, as an alternative to these records, satisfactorily demonstrate to the Authority a system that would prevent exceedences of flight and duty time and rest period requirements; a daily record by date, with an hourly display of the zctual time spent showing the beginning and the end of each period of - (i) duty, including duty aloft; (ii) flight time in all flying; and (iii) required rest; and a provision for the certification of each 28 days of records by the crewmember and the person making the assignments and entries.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.235: CONTENTS OF JOURNEY LOG

The AOC holder shall use an aircraft technical log containing a journey log which includes the following information for each flight -

the AOC holder's company name and logo; aircraft nationality and registration; name of PIC; names and duty assignments of other flight crewmembers, unless provided on other required documentation that must be retained by the operator; signature of PIC; nature of flight (general aviation, aerial work, commercial air transport) unless provided on other required documentation that must be retained by the operator; a date column, followed by columns for (i) through (v) in a row format showing - (i) a column for the departure point; (ii) a column for the arrival ~oint: (iii) a column for the out-of-chocks time of deppture, unless provided on other required

documentation that must be retained by the operator; (iv) a column for the in-to-chocks time of arrival, unless provided on other required

documentation that must be retained by the operator; (v) a column for the total hours of flight time, unless provided on other required documentation

that must be retained by the operator; (vi) a column for takeoff time; (vii) a column for landing time; and (viii) a column for total hours of air time; and

(8) a section for trip events and incidents.

lThe inclusion of this page Is authorldd by L.N. 18J20081


The AOC holder shall use an aircraft technical log which includes an aircraft maintenance record section containing the following information for each aircraft -

the AOC holder's company name; a unique page numbering system; left margin date entry column: preceding items (4) through (6) in a row format; airport entry column including the departure and arrival airport on the same row, an in-service time per leg column, including takeoff and landing times on the same row; fuel and oil uplift columns, including, on the same row, the amounts for - (i) uplift; (ii) takeoff total; and (iii) en route usage; method for entering defects found during flight in a column and row format, including - (i) a method for numbering each defect; (ii) identifying the airport where it was entered; (iii) a description of the defected noted; (N) a description of the correction or deferment of the defect; (v) the licence number of the person making the correction; and (vi) the signature or 3 letter initials of the person making the correction; a method for collecting the critical summary information, such as airframe hours, landing gear cycles, etc; a method for collecting any special inspection or maintenance status Information that is applicable to the AOC holder's operations, such as VOR receiver checks. ETOPS status, etc;

(10) a-separate provision for the current release to service, including - (I) the proper terminology for the release; and (li) the name;

(1 1) a separate provision for the pilot's flight preparation certification that the document illusbates that the aircraft is airworthy, has the required operational equipment and proper release to service; and

(12) a provlslon for tracking the deferred defects, which may be Included as a separate pa& or pages In the front or back of the technical log.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.242: CONTENTS OF THE DEFERRED DEFECTS LOG

This log shall Include - (I) the company name; (2) the unique beginning and ending page numbers of the Aircraft Technical Log it Is attached to; (3) for each defect -

(I) the AOC holder's assigned tracking number; (li) the page number of the Aircraff Technical Log containing the original enw, (ill) a description of the defect; (hr) a description of the basis for defehent; (v) the target date of correction; (vi) the date of correction; and (vil) the page number of the Aircraft Technical Log containiiig the entry for the correction.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.24% C O ~ N l S OF AIRCRAFT INSPECTION AND CONDmON SUMmARY

For air lax1 a imf t , the following information shall be recorded - (1) the name of the AOC holder's company; (2) the date the summary was made; (3) the aircraft registration; (4) the a l m f t make and model;

[The lncluslon of thlr page I8 authorized by L.N. 18lrlzW8l


(5) the engine(s) make and model; (6) serial numbers of the -

(i) airframe; (ii) engine(s); and (iii) propellers;

(7) the total time on the - (i) airframe; (ii) engines; (iii) propellers; and (iv) propeller governors;

(8) the total cycles on the - (i) landing gear; and (ii) pressure vessel;

(9) the date, hourslcycles (as appropriate) the following events were performed and are next due- (i) annual inspection; (ii) 100 hour inspection; (iii) required airframe component replacement timeslcycles; (iv) engine inspection; (v) altimeter inspection; (vi) engine overhaul; (vii) required engine component replacement t~meslcycles; (viii) propeller inspections; (ix) propeller overhaul; (x) altimetry system inspection; (xi) transponder inspection; (xli) emergency equipment inspection andlor replacement; (xiil) emergency locator transmitter inspection and battery replacement; (xiv) aircraft re-weighing; (m) recurring airworthiness directives by applicable numbers;

(10) the reverse side of the form will include a summary of the airworthiness directives applicable to the aircraft and engine(s) by - (i) last date of compliance; and (li) general description of airworthiness directives.

(Note: This sumhary may be grouped sepamtely for the airframe, engine(s) and components.)

The contents of the form are as follows - (1) the name of the AOC holder's company; (2) the flight number (if assigned); (3) the aircraft make, model and type to which the form applies; (4) the date that the form was completed; (5) the printed name of the person preparing the form; (6) the signature of the pilot certifying that the information contained in this flight preparation form IS

satisfactory; (7) the departure point, including -

(I) length of proposed runway to be used; (11) pressure altitude; (HI) temperature at departure Ume; and (hr) wind;

[The inclusion of this ,page i x authorized by L.N. 18*/20081


(8) the destination;

(9) the initial ently information for the specific aircraft, including the - (i) empty weight; or (ii) basicldly operating weight (as appropriate);

(10) for aircraft with passenger seating of 20 or less - (i) the name of the person assigned to each seat; (ii) the weight of that person including any canyon articles; (iii) the effect of each person(s) weight on the C.G. moment; and (iv) total passenger weight;

(11) for aircraft with passenger seating for more than 20 - (i) the name of the passenger may be recorded in a separate manner as prescribed by the

Authority; (ii) the numbers of the weight zone or station in the passenger cabin; (iii) the total number and weight of all passengers and articles assigned to each weight zone or

station; (iv) the effect of the weight of each zone on the C.G. moment; and (v) total passenger weight;

(12) a unique number for each cargo area, or if large cargo capacity, each weight zone or station necessaly for accurate computation of a centre of gravity, including the - (I) total weight loaded in that zone; (ii) the effect of that total on the C.G. moment; and (iii) the total weight of the cargo, baggage and mail on the aircraft

(13) the fuel computation, including the - (i) zero fuel weight, as opposed to the maximum zero fuel weight; (ii) taxi fuel (if a significant factor); (iii) minimum total fuel required for flight; (iv) any additional total fuel loaded; (v) the total fuel on the aircraft; (vi) the effect of the total fuel weight in each tank on the C.G moment; and (vii) the effect of the fuel bum to destination and any required alternate on the C.G. moment;

(14) a computed total for the actual loaded takeoff weight; (15) a computed total for the planned landing weight; (16) the possible limiting weights, including the maximum based on -

(i) maximum structural takeoff weight; (11) maximum weight limitation due to runway length and other factors; (iii) maximum cilmb limitation weight due to obstacles and altitude; and (Iv) maximum landing weight limitation at destination or alternate airports based on structural

or performance considerations; (17) a centre of gravity calculation displayed on a CG envelope, that includes the computed -

(i) CG for takeoff; (ii) CG at landing; and (iil) takeoff stabilizer setting, if applicable.

(18) a method for computing the effects of any last minute changes to the passengers or cargo.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.255: CONTENTS OF OPERATIONAL FLIGHT PLANNING FORM@) The following list includes the operational flight planning information that must be collected and retained. The method of compliance may be on a single form that collects all of the information or may be a series of forms and printouts -

(1) the company name;

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(2) the date; (3) flight number (if applicable); (4) airports involved, including -

(i) departure point; (ii) destination; and (iii) required alternate airports;

(5) aircrafl information. including - (i) registration number; and (11) aircraft make, model, type;

(6) the operational status of the aircraft with respect to possible degradation of - (i) aircraft performance due to deferred items; (ii) all weather operational capability; (iii) required navigation capability; (iv) required height-keeping capability; or (v) ETOPS airworthiness conformance.

(7) names of assigned crewmembers, including - (i) PIC; (ii) SIC; (iii) FE (if applicable); (iv) SCA; and (v) all other required cabin attendants;

(8) the crewmember status with respect to - (i) special airports; (ii) special routes and areas; and (iil) lower than standard takeoff and landing minimums;

(9) name of person authorizing the flight (flight release); (10) signature of the PIC certifying that this flight preparation documentation is satlsfectory; (1 1) a breakdown of the legs of the route in row format, including columns for - .

(i) beginning fix; (ii) route; (iii) distance; (iv) magnetic course; (v) altitude; and (vi) ending or transition fix;

(12) the wind information for each leg in the same row format. including columns for - (i) imeor magnetic direction; (ii) velocity; and (iii) temperature;

(13) the fuel computations for each leg in the same row format, including columns for - (i) groundspeed; (ii) estimated time enroute; and (iii) fuel bum.

(Note 1: I f the mute will be over terrain that will require special muting in the event of en mute diversion due to engine failure or loss ofpressurization, these mutings wiil be shorn as alternate courses of action in the same OFP.)

(Note 2: A planned mrelease will require a separate OFP.)

(14) the total fuel computations (by either gallons, pounds or kilograms) -

iThe inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18a120081


(i) to destination; (il) to alternate(s); (iii) mlnimum required reserve; and (N) total minimum forflight;

(15) the NOTAM information affecting the route or aerodromes to be used; (16) the weather information for the aerodromes, routes and possible diversions, including -

(I) terminal observations and reports; (il) terminal forecasts; (lli) enroute winds; (lv) enroute area forecasts; (v) significant weather for the aircraft to be used; and (vi) high altitude weather features (if applicable);

(17) the Air Traffic Service flight plan information; and (18) the filing status of the flight plan.

(a) An AOC holder may dry lease an aircraft for the purpose'of commercial air transportation to any AOC holder of a State which is signatory to the Chicago Convention provided that the following conditions am met -

(1) the alrcraft carries an appropriate Certificate of A~rworthiness issued, in accordance with ICAO Annex 8, by the country of registration and meets the registration and identification requirements of that country;

(2) the alrcraft is of a type design that complies with all of the requirements that would be applicable to that aircraft if it was registered in Jamaica, including the requirements which shall be met for issuance of a Jamaica standard Certificate of Airworthiness (including type design conformity, condition for safe operation and the noise, fuel venting and engine emission requirements);

(3) the aircraft is maintained according to an approved maintenance programme; and (4) the aircraft is operated by qualified airmen employed by the AOC holder.

(b) The AOC holder shall provide the Authority with a copy of the dry lease to be executed.

(c) Operational control of any dry leased aircraft rests with the AOC holder operating that aircraft.

(d) The Authority will remove a dry leased aircraft from the lessor's AOC holder's Operations Specifications and list it on the foreign AOC holder lessee's Operations Specifications.

(e) The AOC holder engaged in dry leasing aircraft shall make the dry lease agreement explicit concerning the maintenance programme and MEL to be followed during the term of the dry lease.

(a) The AOC holder shall provide the Authority with a copy of the wet lease to be executed.

(b) The Authority will determine which party to a wet lease agreement has operational control considering the extent and control of certain operational functions such as -

(1) Initiating, monitoring while in flight and terminating flights; (2) maintenance and servicing of aircraft; (3) scheduling crewmembers; (4) paying crewmembers; and (5) training crewmembers.

(c) The AOC holder engaged in a wet leasing arrangement shall amend its Operations Specifications to contain the following information -

(1) the names of the parties to the agreement and the duration of the agreement; (2) the make, model and series and registration number of each aircraft involved in the agreement;

[The inclusion of this page i s authorized by L.N. l8~l20081

THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS,. 2004

(3) the kind of operation; (4) the expiration date of the lease agreement; (5) a statement specifying the party deemed to have operational control; and (6) any other item, condition or limitation the Authority determines necessary.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.355: OPERATIONS MANUAL

(a) The AOC holder shall ensure that the contents and structure of the Operations Manual are in accordance with rules and regulations of the Authority, and is relevant to the area@) and type(s) of operation.

(b) An AOC holder may design a manual to be more restrictive than the Authority's requirements.

(c) The AOC holder shall ensure that the Operations Manual is organized and presents the items of information as shown below, to meet the prescribed requirements. The manual may conslst of two or more parts containing together all such information in a format and manner based upon the outllne presented In paragraph (d) of this Appendix. Each part of the Operations Manual must contain all information required by each group of personnel addressed in that part.

(d) The Operations Manual referred to in Subsection 12.355 shall contain at least the following: (Note that the manual does not have to be organized in this structure until January 1.2006) - (I) General -

(ii)

(iii)

(xii)

(xiii)

om (xxii)

(xxiii)

instructions outlining the responsibilities of operations personnel pertalnlng to the conduct of flight operations; rules limiting the flight time and flight duty periods and providing for adequate rest periods for flight crewmembers and cabin crew; a list of the navigational equipment to be carried including any requirements relatlng to operations in RNP airspace; where relevant to the operations, the long range navigation procedures, engine failure procedure for ETOPS and the nomination and utilization of diversion aerodrome; the circumstances in which a radio listening watch is to be maintained; the method for determining minimum flight altitudes; the methods for determining aerodrome operating minima; safety precautions during refuelling with passengers on board; ground handling arrangements and procedures;

'

procedures, as prescribed in ICAO Annex 12. for PlCs observina an accident the flight crew f i r each type of operation including the designation of the suc&ion of command; specific instructions for the computation of the quantities of fuel and oil to be carried, having regard to all circumstances of the operation including the possibntiy ofthe fallure of one or more powerplants while enroute; the conditions under which oxygen shall be used and the amount of oxygen detmlned in accordance with Subsection 7.270 of the Seventh Schedule and Appendix 2 to Subsection 7.270; instructions for mass and balance control; instructions for the conduct and control of ground de-icinglanti-icing operations; the specifications for the OFP; standard operating procedures (SOPS) for each phase of flight; instructions,on the use of normal checklists and the timlng of their use; departure contingency procedures; instructions on the maintenance of altitude awareness and the use of automated or R ' i t mew altitude call outs; instructions on the use of autopilots and auto-throttles in IMC; instructions on the clarification and acceptance,of ATC clearances, partlculafiy where terrain clearance is involved; departure and approach briefings;


(miv) procedures for familiarization with area, route and destination; (xxv) stabilized approach procedures; (xxvi) limitation on high rates of descent near the surface; (xwhi) conditions required to commence or to continue an instrument approach; (xxviii) instructions for the conduct of precision and non-precision instrument approach

procedures; (mix) allocation of flight crew duties and procedures for the management of crew workload

during night and IMC instrument approach and landing operations; (xxx) instructions and training requirements for the avoidance of controlled flight into terrain

and policy for the use of the ground proximity warning system (GPWS); (xxxl) policy, instructicns, procedures and training requirements for the avoidance of collisions

and the use of the airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS); (mi i ) information and instructions relating to the interception of civil aircraft including -

(A) procedures, as described in the Tenth Schedule, for PlCs of intercepted aircraff; and (B) visual signals for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft as described in the Tenth

Schedule. (xxxili) for aeroplanes intended to be operated above 15000 m (49.000 ft)

(A) lnformation which will enable the pilot to determine the best course of action to take In the event of exposure to solar cosmic radiation; and

(B) Procedures in the event that a decision to descend is taken, covering - : (aa) The necessity of giv~ng the appropriate ATS unit prior warning of the situation

and of obtaining a provisional descent clearance; and (bb) The action to be taken in the event that communication with the ATS unit

cannot be established or is interrupted; (xxxiv) details of the accident prevention and flight safety programme provided in accordance with

Subsection 12.475, including a statement of safety policy and the responsibility of personnel;

(xxxv) lnformation and instructions on the carriage of dangerous goods, induding action to be taken in the event of an emergency;

(M) security instructions and guidance; and (xxxvii) the search procedure checklist for searching for bombs, concealed weapons, explosives or

other dangerous devices. This shall include information on the least-risk bomb location specific to the arcraft.

(2) Aircraft Operating lnformation - certification limitations and operating limitations; the normal, abnormal and emergency procedures to be used by the flight crew and the related checklists; operating instructions and information on climb performance with all engines operating; the maximum crosswind and tailwind components for each aircraft operated and the reductions to be applied to these values having regard to gusts, low visibility, runway surface conditions, crew experience, use of autopilot, abnormal or emergency circumstances or any other relevant operational factors; flight planning data for preflight and in-flight planning with different thrusffpower and speed settings; instructions and data for mass and balance calculations; instructions for aircrafl loading and securing of load; aircraft systems, associated controls and instructions for their use; the MEL and CDL for the aeroplane types operated and specific operations authorized, including any requirements relating to operations In RNP airspace; checklist of emergency and safety equipment and instructions for its use; emergency evacuation procedures, including type-specific procedures, crew coordination, assignment of crew's emergency positions and the emergency duUes assigned to each crewmember;



(xii)

(xili)

(xW

the normal, abnormal and emergency procedures to be used by the cabin crew, the checklist relating thereto and aircraft systems information as required, including a statement related to the necessary procedures for the coordination between flight and cabin crew; survival and emergency equipment for different routes and the necessary procedures to verify its normal functioning before take-off, including procedures to determine the required amount of oxygen and the quantity available; and the ground-air visual signal code for use by survivors, as contained In the Tenth Schedule.

(3) h a s . Routes and Aerodromes - (i) a route guide to ensure that the flight crew will have, for each flight, information relating

to communication facilities, navigation aids, aerodromes, instrument approaches, instrument arrivals and instrument departures as applicable for the operation, and such other information as the operator may deem necessary for the proper conduct of flight operations;

(ii) the minimum flight altitudes for each route to be flown; (iii) aerodrome operating minima for each of the aerodromes that are likely to be used as

aerodromes of intended landing or as alternate aerodromes; (N) the increase of aerodrome operating minima in case of degradation of approach or

aerodrome facilities; (v) the necessary information for compliance with all flight profiles required by regulations.

including but not limited to, the determination of - (A) takeoff runway length requirements for dry, wet and contaminated conditions.

including those dictated by system failures which affect the takeoff distance; - . (B) take-offclimb limitations; (C) enroute climb limitations; (D) approach climb limitations and landing climb limitations; (E) landing runwaylength requirements for dry, wet, and contaminated conditions

including systems failures which affect the landing distance; and (F) supplementary information, such as tire speed limitations.

(4) Training - (i) details of the flight crew training programme as required by the Fourteenth Schedule; (ii) details of the cabin crew duties training programme as required by the Fourteenth

Schedule; and (iii) details of the flight operations officeriflight dispatcher training programme when

employed in coniunction with a method of flight supervision as detailed in the Fourteenth

The AOC holder and AOC applicant shall submit and maintain training programme, which may be a separate manual that contains at least the following -



1.0 Training Syllabi And Checking Programmes

1.1 General Requirements Training syllabi and checking programmes for all operations personnel assigned to operational duties in connection with the preparation andlor conduct of a flight shall be developed to meet the respective requirements of the Authority. An AOC holder may not use, nor may any person serve in a required crewmember capacity or operational capacity unless that person meets the training and currency requirements established by the Authority for that respective position.

1.2 Flight Crew The training syllabi and checking programmes for flight crewmembers shall include -

(a) A wrltten tiainina programme acceptable to the Authority that provides for comanv basic and . .

aircraft initial, diiferences, re-qualification and recurrent iraining, as appropriate, fo; flight deck crewmembers for each type of aircraft flown by that crewmember. This written training programme shall include both normal and emergency procedures training applicable for each type of aircraft flown by the crewmember.

(b) Adequate ground and flight training facilities and properly qualified instructors required to meet tralning objectives and needs.

(c) A current list of approved training materials, equipment, training devices, simulators and other required training items needed to meet the training needs for each type and variation of aircrafl flown, by the AOC holder.

(d)' Adequate numbers of ground, flight and check pilots to ensure adequate training and flight testing of flight crewmembers.

(e) A record system acceptable to the Authority to show compliance with appropriate training and currency requirements.

1.3 Cabin Crew '

The baining syllabi and checking programmes for cabin crewmembers shall include -

(a) Basic initial ground training covering duties and responsibilities. (b) Appropriate Authority rules and regulations. (c) Appropriate portions of the AOC holder's operations manual. (d) Appropriate emergency training as required by the Authority and the AOC holder's operations

manual. (e) Appropriate ground and flight training. (f) Appropriate recurrent, upgrade, re-qualification or differences training, as required, to maintain

currency in both type and any variance the crewmember may be required to work in. (g) Maintain a training record system acceptable to the Authority to show compliance with all

required training.

1.4 All Alrcraft Crew A written tralning programme shall be developed for all aircraft crewmembers in the emergency procedures appropriate to each make and model of aircraft flown in by the crewmember. Areas shall include -

(a) Instruction in emergency procedures, assignments and crew co-ordination. (b) Individual instruction in the use of onboard emergency equipment such as fire extlnguishers.

emergency breathing equipment, first aid equipment and its proper use, emergency exits and evacuation slides and the aircraft's oxygen system including the use of portable emergency oxygen bottles. Flight deck crewmembers shall also practice using their emergency equipment designed to protect them in case of a cockpit tire or smoke.

(c) Training shall also include instruction in potential emergencies such as rapid decompression. ditching. fire fighting, aircrafl evacuation, medical emergencies, hijacking and disruptive passengers.

(d) Scheduled recurrent training to meet Authoiity requirements.

1.9 All Opsratlons Personnel



The training syllabi and checking programmes for all operations personnel shall include - (a) Training in the safe transportation and recognition of all dangerous goods permitted by the

Authorityto be shipped by air. Training shall include the proper packaging, marking, labelling and documentation of dangerous articles and magnetized materials.

(b) All appropriate security training required by the Authority. (c) A method of providing any required notification of an accident or incident involving dangerous

goods.

1.6 Operations Personnel Other Than Aircraft Crew \

Operations personnel other than aircraft crew (e.g., qualified person or flight dispatcher, handling personnel etc.), a written training programme shall be developed that pertains to their respective duties. The training programme shall provide for initial, recurrent and any required upgrade training.

2.0 Procedures for Tralnlng and Checking

2.1 Proficiency Checking Procedures Procedures to be applied in the event that personnel do not achieve or maintain the required standards.

2.2 Procedures involving the Simulation of Abnormal or Emergency Sltuations Procedures to ensure that abnormal or emergency situations requiring the application of part or all of abnormal or emergency procedures, and simulation of IMC by artificial means are not simulated during commercial air transportation flights.

3.0 Document Retention

3.1 Documentation To Be Stored And Storage Periods

An AOC holder shall retain all documentation required by appropriate Authority or the Authority of a foreign country in which the AOC holder is operating for the time specified by the respective Authority or for the time period needed to show compliance with appropriate regulations or this operations manual, whichever

Appendix 1 to 12.375: Aircraft Operating Manual Each AOC applicant and AOC holder should submit and maintain an AOM containing at least the following -

1.0 General Information and Units of Measurement

1.1 General information (e.g. aircraft dimensions), including a description of the units of measurement used for the operation of the aircraft type concerned and conversion tables.

2.0 Limitations

2.1 CertMcation and Operational Limitations A desalption of the certified limitations and the applicable operational limitations including -

(a) Certification status; (b) Passenger seating configuration for each aircraft type including a pictorial presentation; (c) Types of operation that are approved (e.g. IFRNFR, CAT II/III, flights in known icing conditions

etc.); (d) Crew compositioni (e) Operating within mass and centre of gravity limitations; (9 Speed limitations; (g) Flight envelopes; (h) Wind limits including operations on contaminated runways; (i) Performance limitations for applicable configurations;

(The inclusion of this page Is authorhd by L.N. 18d20081


(j) Runway slope; (k) Limitations on wet or contaminated runways; (I) Airframe contamination; and (m) Post landing.

1.0 Normal Procedures

1.1 Normal Procedures The normal procedures and duties assigned to the crew, the appropriate checklists, the system for use of he checklists and a statement covering the necessary co-ordination procedures between flight and cabin :rew. The following normal procedures and duties shall be included -

(a) Pre-flight; (b) Pre-departure and loading; (c) Altimeter setting and checking; (d) Taxi, Take-Off and Climb; (e) Noise abatement; (f) Cruise and descent; (g) Approach, landing preparation and briefing; (h) VFR approach; (i) Instrument approach; (j) Visual approach and circling; (k) Missed approach; (I) Normal landing; (m) Post landing; and (n) Operation on wet and contaminated runways.

1.2 Speclflc Flight Deck Procedures (a) Determining airworthiness of aircraft; (b) Obtaining flight release; (c) Initial cockpit preparation; (d) Standard operating procedures; (e) Cockpit discipline; (9 Standard callouts; (d) Communications; (e) Flight safetr, (f) Push-back and towing procedures; (g) Taxi guidelines and ramp signals; (h) Take-off and climb out procedures; (i) Choice of runway; (j) Takeoff in limited visibility; (k) Takeoff in adverse weather; (I) Use and limitations of weather radar; (m) Use of landing lights; (n) Monitoring of flight instruments; (0) Power settings for take-off; (p) Malfunctions during take-off; (q) Rejected takeoff decision; (r) Climb, best angle, best rate; (s) Sterile cockpit procedures; (t) En mute and holding procedures; (u) Cruise control; (v) Navigation log book; (w) Descant, approach and landing procedures; (x) Standard callouts; iy) Reportingmalntenance problems; (2) How to obtain maintenance and service en mute.

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1.0 Abnormal And Emergency Procedures

1.1 Abnormal and Emergency Procedures and Duties h e manual shall contain a listing of abnormal and emergency procedures assigned to crewmembers with lppropdate check-lists that include a system for use of the check-lists and a statement covering the lecessary coordination procedures between flight and cabin crew. The following abnormal and ~mergenG procedures and duties shall be included - (a) Crew incapacitation; (b) Fire and smoke drills; (c) Unpressurked and partially pressurized flight; (d) Exceeding structural limits such as overweight landmg; (e) Exceeding cosmic radiation limits; (f) Lightning strikes; (g) Distress communications and alerting ATC to emergencies; (h) Engine failure; (i) System failures; (j) Guidance for diversion in case of serious technical failure; (k) Ground proximity warning; (1) TCAS warning; (m) Windshear; and (n) Emergency landing/ditching; (0) Aircraft evacuation; (p) Fuel Jettisoning and Overweight Landing -

General considerations and policy; Fuel jettisoning procedures and precautions;

(q) Emergency Procedures - Emergency decent; Low fuel; Dangerous goods incident or accident

(r) Interception procedures; (s) Emergency signal for cabin attendants; (t) Communication Procedures; (u) Radio listening watch.

1.0 Performance Data 'erformance data shall be provided in a form in which it can be used without difficulty.

5.1 Performance Data 'erformance material which provides the necessary data to allow the flight crew to comply with the lpproved aircraft flight manual performance reguirements shall be included to allow thidetermination of -

(a) Takeoff climb limits - Mass. Altitude, Temperature; (b) Takeoff field length (dry, wet, contaminated); (c) Net flight path data for obstacle clearance calculation or, where applicable, takeoff flight path; (d) The gradient losses for banked climb outs; (e) En route climb limits; (f) Approach climb limits; (g) Landing climb limits; (h) Landing field length (dry, wet, contaminated) including the effects of an inflight failure of a system or

device, if it affects the landing distance; (i) Brake energy limits; and (j) Speeds applicable for the various flight stages (also considering wet or contamlnated runways).

5.1.1 Supplementary Performance Data Supplementary data covering flights in icing conditions. Any certified performance related to an allowable mfiguration, or configuration deviation, such as anti-skid inoperative, shall be included.

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5.1.2 Other Acceptable Performance Data If perfonance data, as required for the appropriate performance class, is not available in the approved WM, then other data acceptable to the Authority shall be included. Alternatively, the operations manual nay contain cross-reference to the approved data contained in the AFM where such data is not likely to be ~sed often or in an emergency.

5.2 Additional Performance Data 9dditional performance data where applicable including -

(a) All engine climb gradients; (b) Driftdown data; (c) Effect of de-icinglanti-icing fluids; (d) Flight with landing gear down; (e) For aircraft with 3 or more engines, one engine inoperative ferry flightsf and (f) Flights conducted under the provisions of a configuration deviation list (CDL).

6.0 Fllght Planning

6.1 Flight Planning Data Data and instructions necessary for pre-flight and inflight planning including factors such as speed schedules and power settings. Where applicable, procedures for engine@) out operations, ETOPS and Rights to isolated airports shall be included.

6.2 Fuel Calculatlons The method for calculating fuel needed for the various stages of flight.

7.0 Mass And Balance

7.1 Calculating Mass and Balance Instructions and data for the calculation of mass and balance including -

(a) Calculation system (e.g. Index system); (b) Information and instructions for completion of mass and balance documentation, including manual

and computer generated types; (c) Limiting mass and centre of gravity of the various versions; (d) Dry operating mass and corresponding centre of gravity or index.

8.0 Loading

8.1 Loading Procedures Procedures and proyisions for loading and securing the load in the aircraft.

8.2 Loading Dangerous Goods The operations manual shall contain a method to notify the PIC when dangerous goods is loaded in the aircraft.

9.0 Survival And Emergency Equipment Including Oxygen

9.1 List of Survival Equipment to be Carried A list of the survival equipment to be carried for the routes to be flown and the procedures for checking the serviceability of this equipment prior to take-off. Instructions. regarding the location, accessibility and use of surv'nml and emergency equipment and its associated check list(s) shall also be included.

8.2 Oxygen Usage The procedure for determining the amount of oxygen required and the quantity that it available. The flight


THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGUU TIONS, 2004 533

profile, number of occupants and possible cabin decoinpression shall be considered. The information provided shall be in a form in which it can be used without difficulty.

9.3 Emergency Equipment Usage '

A description of the proper use of the following emergency equipment - (a) Life jackets; (b) Life rafts; (c) Medical kits/first aid kits; (d) Survival kits; (e) Emergency locator transmitter (ELT); (f) Visual signalling devices; (g) Evacuation slides; (h) Emergency lighting.

I 10.0 Emerpency Evacuation Procedures

10.1 lnstructlons for Emergency Evacuation Instructions for preparation for emergency evacuation including, crew co-ordination and emergency station assignment.

10.2 Emergency Evacuation Procedures A description of the duties of all members of the crew for h e rapid evacuation of an aircraft and the handling of the passengers in the event of a forced landing, ditching or other emergency.

/ 12.0 ~ i r s r a f i systems

12.1 Aircraft Systems A description of the aircraft systems, related controls and indications and operating instructions.

13.0 Route and Airport lnstructions and Information (optional for this manual)

13.1 Instructlons and Information Instructions and information relating to communications, navigation and airports including minimum flight levels and altitudes for each route to be flown and operating m~nima for each airport planned to be used. including -

(a) Minimum flight levellaltitude; (b) Operating minima for departure. destination and alternate airports; (c) Communication facilities and nav~gation aids; (d) Runway data and airport facilities; (e) Approach, missed approach and departure procedures including noise abatement procedures; (f) Communications-failure procedures; (g) Search and rescue facilities in the area over which the aircraft is to be flown; (h) A description of the aeronautical charts that shall be carr~ed on board in relation to the type of flight

and the route to be flown, including the method to check their validity; (i) Availability of aeronautical information and MET services; (j) En route COMINAV procedures, including holding; (k) Airport categorisation for flight crew competence qualification.

(a) The AOC holder shall, at each exit seat, provide passenger information cards that include the followin< information in the primary language in which emergency commands are given by the crew -

(1) for all aircraft, general safety information including - (i) the smoking prohibition on board the aeroplane;

-- -- -



(ii) each type of safety belt or safety harness installed for passenger use, including when to use, and how to fasten, tighten and release;

(iii) when and where carry on baggage must be stowed for take-off and landing and any other related requirements and restrictions pertinent to that particular aeroplane;

(iv) correct positioning of seat backs and chair tables for take-off and landing; (v) passenger brace position for impact. as appropriate for each type of seat and restraint system

installed for passenger use; including the brace position for an adult holding an infant; (vi) fixed passenger oxygen system mask location and presentation and the actions to be performed

by the seated passenger in order to obtain the mask, activate the flow of oxygen, correctly don and secure the mask and the priority for persons assisting others with oxygen;

(vii)the form, function, colour and location of any Floor Proximity Emergency Escape Path lighting system that is installed;

(viii)the location, operation and method of using each emergency exit type on the aeroplane. including identification of those emergency exits known to be rendered unusable in a ditching or because of the aeroplane configuration such as a combi configuration;

(ix) the safest direction and most hazard-free escape route for passenger movement away from the aeroplane following evacuation;

(x) the attitude of the aeroplane while floating; (xi) correct procedures for removal from stowagelpackaging; donning and use of the life jacket for

adult, child and infant users including when to inflate; (xii) location, removal and use of flotation devices, ~ncluding hfe rafls.

(2) For aeroplanes where flight attendants are not required - (i) location of first aid kits; (ii) location of fire extinguishers that would be accessible to the passengers; (iii) location of Emergency Locator Transmitters, if applicable; and (N) location of survival equipment and if the stowage compartment is locked, the means of access or

location of the key.

The safety features card shall bear the name of the air operator and the aeroplane type and shall contain only safety information.

The safety information provided by the card shall - (1) be accurate for the aeroplane type and configuration in which it is carried and in respect of the

equipment carried; (2) be presented with clear separation between each instructional procedure. All actions required to

complete a multi-action procedure to be presented in correct sequence and the sequence of actions to be clearly identified; and

(3) be depicted in a clear and distinct manner.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.420: AERONAUTICAL DATA CONTROL SYSTEM

The AOC holder shall provide aeronautical data for each airport used by the AOC holder which includes the following -

(1) airports - (i) facilities; (ii) navigational and communications aids; (iii) Construction affecting takeoff, landing or ground operations; and (N) Air traffic facilities;

(2) runways, clearways and stopways - (i) dimensions; (ii) surface; (iii) marking and lighting systems; and (N) elevation and gradient;

(3) displaced thresholds - (i) location;

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(ii) dimensions; and (iii) takeoff or landing or both;

(4) obstacles - (i) those affecting takeoff and landing performance computations; (ii) controlling obstacles; (iii) instrument flight procedures; (iv) departure procedure; (v) approach procedure; and (vi) missed approach procedure; and

(5) special information - (i) runway visual range measurement equipment; and (ii) prevailing winds under low visibility conditions.

The Authority approves and considers the following sources of weather reports satisfactory for flight planning or controlling flight movement -

(1) Jamaica State Meteorological office; (2) Jamaica-operated automated surface observation stations;

(Note: Some automated systems cannot report all required ifems for a complete surface aviation weather report.)

(3) Jamaica-operated supplemental aviation weather reporting stations; (4) observations taken by airport traffic control towers;

. (5) Jamaicacontracted weather observatories; (6) any active meteorological office operated by a foreign state which subscribes to the standards and

practices of ICAO conventions.

(Note: These meteorological offices are nonally listed in the MET tables located in ICAO Regional Air Navigation Plans.)

(7) any mllitary weather reporting sources approved by the Authority;

(Note: Use of milifary sources is limifed to control of those flight operations which use milifary airports as departure. destination, anernate, or diversionary airports.)

(8) near real time reports such as pilot reports, radar reports, radar summary charts, and satellite Imagery reports made by commercial weather sources or other sources specifically approved by the Authority; or

(9) an AOC holder operated and maintained weather reporting system approved by the Authority.

APPENDIX 1 T0 12.435: DE-ICING AND ANTI-ICING PROGRAMME

(a) Contents of the AOC holder's ground de-icing and anti-icing programme shall include a detailed desaiption of -

(1) how the AOC holder determines that conditions are such that frost, ice, or snow may reasonably be expected to adhere to the aircraft and that ground de-icing and anti-icing operational procedures shall be In effect;

(2) who is responsible for deciding that ground de-icing and anti-icing operational procedures shall be in effect;

(3) the procedures for Implementing ground deicing and anti-icing operational procedures; and (4) the s~ecific duties and responsibilities of each operational position or group responsible for getting . .

the akrafl safely airbome.while ground de-icing and antiking operat&al procedures are in eff&

(b) The AOC holder's programme shall include procedures for flight crewmembers to increase or decrease the determlned holdover time in changing conditions. The holdover time shall be supported by data acceptable to the Authority. If the maximum holdover time is exceeded, takeoff is prohibited unless at least one of the following conditions exists -



(1) a pre-takeoff contamination check is conducted outside the aircraft (within five minutes prior to beginning take off) to determine that the wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces, as defined in the certificate holder's Droaramme. are free of frost. ice. or snow:

(2) it is otherwise determined by an i l te ia te procedure, approved by'the ~uthority and in accordance with th'e AOC holder's approved programme, that the wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces are free of frost, ice, or snow; or

(3) the wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces are de-iced again and a new holdover time is determined.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.475: FLIGHT SAFETY DOCUMENTS SYSTEM

(a) A flight safety documents system is one in which all documentation associated with the flight safety programme, including the published standards, procedures and guidance for flight safety personnel, the means of advising company personnel of safety-related information or recordingldocumenting safety information. Is produced, disseminated, completed and maintained in a standardized manner.

(b) Guidance in the preparation of a flight safety documents system may be found in ICAO Annex 6. Attachment H. The information contained therem deals with the following topics -

(1) organization of the system; (2) validation of the system's components; (3) design of the documentation; (4) deployment or dissem~nation of the documentation, and (5) amendment of the documentation.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.530: REQUIREMENTS OF A CMR

An aircraft registered in Jamaica in respect of which a Certificate of Airworthiness in either the Transport or Aerial Work category is in force shali not fly unless there is in force a valid Certificate of Maintenance Review.

A CMR shall not be issued unless the aircraft is maintained in accordance with a maintenance schedule approved by the Authority.

The person issuing the review shall not issue a CMR unless he has first verified - (1) that the maintenance has been carried out on the aircraft in accordance with the maintenance

schedule approved for the aircraft; (2) that inspections and modifications required by the Authority have been completed as certified in the

relevant release to service issued in accordance with these Regulations; and .

(3) that defects entered in the Technical Log of the aircraft have been recertified or the recertiiUon thereof has been deferred in accordance with the procedures approved by the Authority.

A CMR shall be issued in duplicate and one copy of the most recently issued certificate shall be carried in the aircraft and the other shall be kept by the operator elsewhere than in the aircraft.

The approved maintenance schedule referred to in paragraph (b) of this Appendix shall speclfy the occasions on which a review may be carried out for the purpose of issuing a CMR.

The CMR shall certify the date on which the maintenance review was carried out and the date thereafter when the next review is due.

(g) A CMR may only be issued by the holder of an AME licence - ( 1 granted under these Regulations. which entitles the holder thereof to issue that certificate; (2) adhorized by the operator and accepted by the Authority; and (3) endorsed for the type'or class of aircraft.

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.540: CONTENTS OF THE MAINTENANCE CONTROL MANUAL

The AOC holder's MCM shali contain the following information which may be issued in separate parts - (1) a description of the required maintenance procedures, including where -

(i) a description of the administrative arrangements between the AOC holder and the approved maintenance organization; and

- -- - --

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(ii) a description of the maintenance procedures and the procedures for completing and signing a maintenance release when maintenance is based on a system other than that of an approved maintenance organization;

the names and duties of the person or persons required to ensure that all maintenance is carried out in aocordance with the MCM; a reference to the required maintenance programme(s); .

a description of the methods for completion and retention of the required AOC holder's maintenance records; a description of establishing and maintaining a system of analysis and continued monitoring or the performance and efficiency of themaintenance programme, in order to correct any deficiency in that programme; a description of the procedures for obtaining and assessing continued airworthiness information and Implementing any resulting actions for all aircraft over 5.700 kg maximum certificated take-off mass. from the organisation responsible for the type design, and shall implement such actions considered necessary by the State of Registry; a description of procedures for assessing continuing airworthiness information and implementing any resulting actions; a description of the procedures for implementing action resulting from mandatory continuing airworthiness information; a description of the procedures for monitoring, assessing and reporting maintenance and operational experience for all aircraft over 5.700 kg maximum certificated take-off mass; a description of aircraft types and models to which the manual applies; a description of procedures for ensuring that unserviceabilities affecting airworthiness are recorded and rectified; a description of the procedures for advising the State of Registry of significant in-service occurrences; a description of the procedures to ensure each aeroplane they operate is in an airworthy condition; a description of the procedures to.ensure the operational emergency equipment for each flight is serviceable; a descrlption of the procedures for the introduction of new aircraft to the fleet; '

a description of the procedures for assessment of contractor capabilities, including deicing; a description of the procedures for control and approval of major repairs and'alterations; the certificate holder's manual must contain the required programmes that must be followed in performing maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations of the AOC holder's aeroplanes, including airframes, aircraft engines, propellers, appliances, emergency equipment and parts thereof. and must include at least the following -

the method of performing routine and non-routine maintenance (other than required inspections, preventive maintenance, and alterations; a designation of the items of maintenance and alterations that must be inspected (required inspections), including at least those that could result in a failure, malfunction, or defect endangering the safe operations of the aircraft, if not performed properly or if improper parts or materials are used; procedures for authorizing personnel to carry out Duplicate Inspections and a list of personnel, by name, so authorized to perform the Inspection; (Note: Refer to Subsection 12.590) procedures for performing duplicate inspections; (Note: Refer to the Fifth Schedule, Subsection 5.120.) procedures, standards and limits necessary for acceptance or rejections a Ule items required to be inspected and for periodic inspection and calibration of precision tools, measuring devices . and test equipment; instruction to prevent any person who performs any item of work from performing any required inspection of that work; instructions and procedures to prevent any dec~sion of an inspector. regarding any required inspection from being countermanded by persons other than supervisory personnel of the

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inspection unit, or a person at that level of administrative control that has overall respons~bility for the management of both the required inspection functions and the other maintenance, preventive maintenance and alteration functions;

(viii) procedures to ensure that required inspection. other maintenance, preventive maintenance and alterations that are not completed as a result of shift changes or similar work interruptions are properly completed before the aircraft is released to servlce;

(ix) a description of the procedures for preparing the Certificate of Release to Serv~ce and the circumstances under wh~ch the release is to be s~gned; and

(x) a list of personnel authorzed to sign the Certiflcate of Release to Service and the scope of their authorization.

(Note: The manual may be put together in any subject order and subjects combined so long as all applicable subjects are covered in this manual.)

APPENDIX 1 TO 12.550: AOC HOLDER'S ADDITIONAL QUALITY SYSTEM FOR MAINTENANCE

(a) Each AOC holder shall establish a plan acceptable to the Authority to show when and how oflen the actMties are required will be monitored. In addition, reports should be produced at the completion of each monkorlng investigation and include details of discrepancies of non-compliance with procedures or requirements.

(b) The feedback part of the system shall addresswho is reqlcired to rectify discrepancies and non- . compliance In each particular case and the procedure to be followed if rectification is not completed within

appropriate time scales. The procedure should lead to the Accountable Manager.

(c) To ensure effective compliance the AOC holder and AOC applicant'should use the following elements - (I) product sampling -the parf inspection of a representative sample of the aircrafl fleet; (2) defect sampling - the monitoring of defect-rectification performance; (3) concession sampling -the monitoring of any concession to not carry out maintenance on time; (4) on time maintenance sampling - the monitoring of when (flying hourslcalendar timelflight cycles, etc)

aircrafl and their components are brought in for maintenance; (5) sample reports of unainvorthy conditions and maintenance errors on aircrafl and components.

(Note: The primatypurpose of the Quality System for maintenance is to monitor compliance with the approved procedures specified in an operator's maintenance control manual to ensure compliance and thereby ensure the maintenance aspects of the operational safety of the aircraft. In padicular, this pad of the Quality System provides a monitor of the effectiveness of maintenance, and should include a feedback system to ensure that corrective actions are identified and carried out in a timely manner.)

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THIRTEENTH SCHEDULE (~e~ulat ions 67,73)

PASSENGER CARRYING REQUIREMENTS FOR AOC HOLDERS AND OPERATORS OF LARGE AIRCRAFT

SUBPARTA: GENERAL 13.001Applicabliity 13.005 Definitions 13.010 Acronyms 13.015Carriage of Persons Without Compliance With These Passenger Carrying Requirements

SUBPART B: FLIGHT ATENDANTS 13.020 Required Flight Attendants 13.023 Flight Attendant Privileges 13.025 Flight attendants at Duty Stations

SUBPART C: PASSENGERS . 13.030 Denial of Transportation 13.035 Prohibition Against Carriage of Weapons

(13.045 Oxygen for Medical Use by Passengers 13.050 Carriage of Persons with Reduced Mobility 13.055 Passenger Seat Belts 13.060 Exit Row Seating 13.065 Passenger Information Signs 13.070 Passenger Compliance with Instructions 13.075 Required Passenger Briefings 13.080 Passenger Briefing: Extended Ovemter Operations 13.081 Safe Movement of Passengers to and from the Aeroplane

SUBPART D: SECURING ITEMS OF MASS 13.085 Securing of Items of Mass in Passenger Compartment 13.089 Carry-on Baggage Programme 13.090 Carry-on Baggage 13.095 Carriage of Cargo in Passenger Compartments SUBPART E: EMERGENCY PREPAREDNESS 13.100 Accessibility of Emergency Exits and Equipment 13.105 Evacuation Capability 13.1 10 Arming of Automatic Emergency Exits 13.115 Stops Where Passengers Remain on Board 13.120 Passenser Seat Backs 13.125 stowage of Food, Beverage and Passenger Service

APPENDICES Appendix 1 to 13.060: Exit Row Seating Appendix 1 to 13.081 : Movement of Passengers to and from the Aeroplane Appendix 1 to 13.089: Carry-on Baggage Programme Appendix I to 13.095: Carriage of Cargo in Passenger Compartments

SUBPART A: GENERAL

This Schedule prescribes the passenger-carrying requirements for AOC holders and other operators of aeroplanes of more than 5700 kg. in addition to the requirements of the Tenth Sche+t!e.

13.005 DEFINIT~ONS

For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definition shall apply - "passenger exit seats". Those seats having direct access to an exit, and those seats In a row of seats through which passengers would have to pass to gain access to an exit, from the first seat inboard of the

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540 THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULATIONS. 2004

exit to the first aisle inboard of the exit. A passenger seat having "direct access" means a seat from which a passenger can proceed directly to the exit without entering an aisle or passing around an obstruction.

The following acronyms are used in this Schedule. (1) AOC -Air Operator Certificate; (2) PBE - Protective Breathing Equipment: (3) PIC - Pilot In Command; (4) SIC - Second In Command; and (5) SCA - Senior Cabin Attendant.

13.01 5 CARRIAGE OF PERSONS WITHOUT COMPLIANCE WITH THESE PASSENGER CARRYING REQUIREMENTS

(a) The mssenger-carrying requirements of paragraph (b) do not apply when canying - (1) a crew member not required for the flight; (2) a representative of the Authority on official duty; (3) a person necessary to the safety or security of cargo or animals; or (4) any person authorised by the AOC holder's Operation Manual procedures, as approved by the

Authority.

(b) No person may be carried without compliance to the passenger carrying requirements unless - (1) there is an approved seat with an approved seat belt for that person; (2) that seat is located so that the occupant is not in any position to interfere with the flight crew

members performing their duties; (3) there is unobstructed access from their seat to the flight deck or a regular or emergency exit; (4) there is a means for notifying that person when smoking is prohibited and when seat belts shall be

fastened; and (5) thatyerson has been orally briefed by a crew member on the use of emergency equipment and

exits.

SUBPART B: FLIGHT ATTENDANTS

13.020 REQUIRED FUGHT ATTENDANTS

(a) The AOC holder shall schedule, and the PIC shall ensure that the minimum number of required flight attendants is on board passenger-carrying flights.

(b) The number of flight attendants may not be less than the minirn~m'~rescribed by the Authority in the AOC holders' Operations Specifications or the following, whichever is greater.- (1) 1 cabin attendant for a seating capacity of 20 to 50 passengers; and (2) one additional cabin attendant for each additional 50 passenger unit or part therebf.

(c) When passengers are on board a parked aircraft, the minimum number of flight attendants shall be one- half that required for the flight operation, but never less than one cabin attendant (or another. person qualied in the emergency evacuation procedures for the aircraft).

(Note: Where onehalf would resun in a fractional number, I is pd~ i ss ib le lo round down lo the next whole number.)

13.021 Deslgnatlon of InCharge Flight Attendant

Where the crew includes more than one flight attendant, an air operator shall designate an InGharge Flight Attendant on each flight.

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When qualified in accordance with the Fourteenth Schedule, a flight attendant may perform cabin safety services for hire on passenger carrying aircraft.

13.025 , FLIGHT ATTENDANTS AT DUTY STATIONS

(a) During taxi, flight attendants shall remain at their duty stations with safety bejts and shoulder harness fastened except to perform duties related to the safety of the aircraft and its occupants.

(b) During takeoff and landing. flight attendants shall remain at their duty stations with safety belts and shoulder harness fastened.

(c) During enroute phases of flight, the cabin attendant shall be seated at their duty station with safety belts and shoulder harness fastened whenever the PIC so directs.

(Note: This does not prevent the PIC from directing the fastening of the seat bell at times other than for takeoff and landing.)

(d) During takeoff and landing, flight attendants shall be assigned to duty stations as near as practicable to required floor level exits and shall be uniformly distributed throughout the aircraft to provide the most effective egress of passengers in event of an emergency evacuation.

(e) When passengers are on board a parked aircraft, flight attendants (or another person qualified in emergency evacuation procedures for the aircraft) will be placed in the following manner - (1) if only one qualified person is required, that person shall be located in accordance with the AOC

holder's Operations Manual procedures; (2) if more than one qualified person is required, those persons shall be spaced throughout the cabin to

provide the-most effective assistance b r the evacuation in case of an emergenw.

SUBPART C: PASSENGERS

13.030 DENIAL OF TRANSPORTATION

An AOC holder may deny transportation of a passenger where that passenger - (I ) refuses to comply with the instmctions regarding exit seating restrictions prescribed by Me Authority;

or (2) has a handicap that can be physically accommodated only by an exit row seat.

13.035 PROH~B~TION AGAINST CARRIAGE OF WEAPONS No person may, while on board an aircraft being operated in commercial air transport, carry on or about their person a deadly or dangerous weapon, either concealed or unconcealed.

(Note: This section does not apply to officials or employees of the State who are auihorised lo carry weapons or crew members and other persons auihorised by the AOC holder to carry anns.)

13.040 CARRIAGE OF SPECIAL SITUATION P~SENGERS

No AOC holder may allow the transportation of special situation passengers except - (I ) as provided in the AOC holder's Operations Manual procedures; and (2) with the knowledge and concurrence of the PIC.

13.045 OXYGEN FOR MEDICAL USE BY P~SENGERS

(a) An AOC holder may allow a passenger to carry and operate equipment for the storage. generation or dispensing of medical oxygen only as prescribed by the Authority.

(b) No person may smoke, and no crew member may allow any person to smoke within 10 feet of oxygen storage and dispensing equipment carried for the medical use of a passenger.

(c) No crewmember may allow any person to connect or disconnect oxygen dispensing equipment to or from an oxygen cylinder while any other passenger is aboard the aircraft.

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13.050 CARRIAGE OF PERSONS WITH REDUCED MOBILITY

No person may allow a person of reduced mobility to occupy a seat where their presence could - (1) impede the crew in their duties; (2) obstruct access to emergency equipment; or (3) impede the emergency evacuation of the aircraft.

(a) Each passenger occupying a seat or berth shall fasten his or her safety belt and keep it fastened while the "Fasten Seat Belt" sign is lighted or, in aircraft not equipped with such a sign, whenever instructed by the PIC.

.(b) No passenger safety belt may be used by more than one occupant during takeoff and landing.

(c) At each unoccupied seat, the safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed, shall be secured so as not to interfere with crew members in the performance of their duties or with the rapid egress of occupants in an emergency.

(Note: A child who has not reached his or her second birihday may be held by an adult who is occupying a seat or berih.)

(Note: A berih, such as a multiple lounge or divan seat, may be occupied by two persons provided it is equipped with an approved safety belt for each person and is used during en route flight only.)

No PIC or SCA may allow a passenger to sit in an emergency exit row if the PIC or SCA determine that it is likely that the passenger would be unable to understand and perform the functions necessary to open an exit and to exit rapidly.

(See Appendix I to 13.060 for additional requirements periaining to exit row seating.)

The PIC shall turn on required passenger information signs during any movement on the surface, for each takeoff and each landing, and when otherwise considered to be necessary.

Each passenger on a commercial air transport flight shall comply with instructions given by a crew member in compliance with this section.

(a) No person may commence a takeoff unless the passengers are briefed prior to takeoff in accordance with the AOC holder's Operation Manual and the Tenth Schedule, Subsection 10.300.

(b) Immediately before or immediately after turning the seat belt sign off, the PIC or SCA shall ensure that the passengers are briefed to keep their seat belts fastened while seated, even when the seat bell sign is off.

No person may commence extended overwater operations unless all passengers have been orally briefed on the location and operations of life preservers, liferafts and other flotation means, includinq a demonstration of the method of donning and inflating a life preserver.

13.081 SAFE MOVEMENT OF PASSENGERS TO AND FROM THE AEROPLANE

An air operator shall establish procedures to ensure that passengers move to and from the aeroplane and embark and disembark safely.

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(See Appendix I to 13.081 for specific requirements pertaining to eir opemtor responsibilities for safe movement of passengers to and from the aeroplane and terminal.)

SUBPART D: SECURING ITEMS OF MASS

13.085, SECURING OF ITEMS OF MPSS IN PPSSENGER COMPARTMENT

(a) No person may allow the takeoff or landing of an aircraft unless each item of mass in the passenger cabin is properly secured to prevent it from becoming a hazard during taxi, takeoff and landing and during turbulent weather conditions.

(b) No person may allow an aircraft to move on the surface, takeoff or land unless each passenger serving .cart is secured in its stowed position.

(a) Every air operator shall establish a carry-on baggage control programme that is approved by the Authority and which shall Include information about the size, weight and dimensions of acceptable carry- on baggage.

(b) No air operator shall permit a person to carry on board an aircraft any carry-on baggage unless that baggage has been accepted in accordance with a carry-on baggage control programme and can be: (1) stowed in a compartment or overhead bin that has approved by the Authority and in accordance with

the Approved Maintenance Programme; (2) stowed under a passenger seat; or (3) restrained by a means that has been approved by the Authority.

(c) No person shall carry on board an aircraft any carry-on baggage unless that baggage has been accepted in accordance with a carry-on baggage control programme.

(d) All Carry-on baggage that is stowed under a passenger seat shall be restrained in a manner that has been approved in accordance with a carry-on baggage control programme.

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(e) All carry-on baggage shall be stowed so that it does not obstruct access to safety equipment, exits or the aisles of the aircraft.

(See Appendix I to 13.090 for additional requirements pertaining to the carry-on baggage progmmme.)

(a) No person may allow the boarding of carry-on baggage unless it can be adequately and securely stowed in accordance with the AOC holder's Operations Manual procedures.

(b) No person may allow aircraft passenger entry doors to be closed in preparation for taxi or pushback . unless at least one required crew member has verified that each article of baggage has been properly stowed in overhead racks with approved restraining devices or doors, or in approved locations aft of the bulkhead.

(c) No person may allow carry-on baggage to be stowed in a location that would cause that location to be loaded beyond its maximum placard weight limitation.

(Note: The stowage locations shall be capable of restmining the articles in cmsh impacts severe enough to induce the ultimate inertia forces specified in the emergency landing conditions under which the aircrafl was typecertified.)

13.095 CARNAGE OF CARGO IN PASSENGER COMPARTMENTS No person may allow the carriage of cargo in the passenger compartment of an aeroplane except as

grescribed by the Authority.

(See Appendix I to 13.095 for specific requirements pertaining to carriage of caqo in passenger compartments.)

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SUBPART E: EMERGENCY PREPAREDNESS

13.100 ACCESSIBILITY OF EMERGENCY EXITS AND EQUIPMENT

No person may allow carry-on baggage or other items to block access to the emergency exits when the aircraft is moving on the surface, during takeoff or landing, or while passengers remain on board.

The PIC. SCA and other person assigned by the AOC holder shall ensure that, when passengers are on board the aircraft prior to movement on the surface, at least one floor-level exit provides for egress of passengers through normal or emergency means.

No person may cause an aeroplane carrying passengers to be moved on the surface, takeoff or land unless each automatically deployable emergency evacuation assisting means installed on the aircrafl is ready for evacuation.

(a) At stops where passengers remain on board the aircraft, the PIC, the SCA, or both shall ensure that - (1) all engines are shut down; (2) at least one floor level exit remains open to provide for the deplaning of passengers; and

. (3) there is at least one person immediately available who is qualified in the emergency evacuation of the aircraft and who has been identified to the passengers on board as responsible for the passenger safety.

(b) Where refuelling with passengers on board, the PIC or a designated company representat'we shall ensure that the AOC holder's Operations Manual procedures are followed.

No PIC or SCA may allow the takeoff or landing of an aircra? unless each passenger seat back is in the upright position.

(Note: Exceptions may only be made in accordance wiih procedures in the AOC holdets Operelions Manual provided the seat back does not obstruct any passengets access to the aisle or to any emergency ex#.)

13.125 STOWAGE OF FOOD, BEVERnGE AND PASSENGER SERVICE

No PIC or SCA may allow an aircrafl to move on the surface, takeoff or land - (1) when any food, beverage or tableware furnished by the AOC holder is located at any passenger

seat; and (2) unless each food and beverage tray and seat back tray table is in the stowed position.

APPENDICES

APPENDIX 1 TO 13.060: EXIT ROW SEATING

(a) No cabin attendant may seat a person in a passenger exit seat where that person is under 15 years of age or that it is likely that the person would be unable to perform one or more of the applicable functions listed belaw - (1) the person lacks sufficient mobility, strength, or dexterity in both arms and hands, and both legs -

(i) to reach upward. sideways. and downward to the location of emergency exit and exit-slide operating mechanisms;

(ii) to grasp and push, pull, turn, or otherwise manipulate those mechanisms; (ill) to push, shove, pull, or otherwise open emergency exits: (iv) to lift out, hold, deposit on nearby seats, or manoeuvre over the seatbacks to the next row

objects the size and weight of over-wing window exit doors; (v) to remove obstructions of size and weight similar over-wing exit doors;

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(vi) to reach the emergency exit expeditiously; (vii) to maintain balance while removing obstructions: (viii) to exit expeditiously; (ix) to stabilise an escape slide after deployment; or (x) to assist others in getting off an escape slide;

(2) the person lacks the capacity to perform one or more of the applicable functions listed above without the assistance of an adult companion, parent, or other relative;

(3) the person lacks the ability to read and understand instructions required by this Schedule and related to emergency evacuation instructions provided by the AOC holder'in printed or graphic form or the ability to understand oral crew commands.

(4) the person lacks sufficient visual capacity to perform one or more of the above functions without the assistance of visual aids beyond contact lenses or eyeglasses;

(5) the person lacks sufficient aural capacity to hear and understand instructions shouted by flight attendants, without assistance beyond a hearing aid;

(6) the person lacks the ability adequately to impart information orally to other passengers; or (7) the person has a condition or responsibilities, such as caring for small children, that might prevent the

person from performing one or more of the functions listed above; or a condition that might cause the person harm if he or she performs one or more of the functions listed above.

a

(b) The Cabin Attendants or other persons designated in the AOC holder's Operations Manual shall determine the suitability of a person to occupy an exit seat.

(c) Where a Cabin Attendant determines that a passenger assigned to an exit seat would be unable to perform the emergency exit functions, or if a passenger requests a non-exit seat, the cabin attendant shall expeditiously relocate the passenger to a non-exit seat.

(d) In the event of full booking in the non-exit seats, and if necessary to accommodate a passenger being relocated from an exit seat, the cabin attendant shall move a passenger who is willing and able to assume the evacuation functions, to an exit seat.

(e) Every AOC ticket agent shall, prior to boarding, assign seats consistent with the passenger selection criteria and the emergency exit functions, to the maximum extent feasible.

(f) Every AOC ticket agent shall make available for inspection by the public at all passenger loading gates and ticket counters at each aerodrome where it conducts passenger operations, written procedures established for making determinations in regard to exit row seating,

(g) Every Cabin Attendant shall include in their passenger briefings a request that a passenger identify himself or herself to allow reseating if he or she - (1) cannot meet the selection criteria; (2) has a non-discernible condition that will prevent him or her from performing the evacuation functions; (3) may suffer bodily harm as the result of performing one or more of those functions; or (4) does not wish to perform emergency exit functions.

(h) Every Cabln Attendant shall include in their passenger btiefings a reference to the passenger information cards and the functions to be performed in an emergency exit.

(i) Every passenger shall comply with instructions given by a crewmember or other authorised employee of the AOC holder implementing exit seating restrictions

(j) No PIC may allow taxi or pushback unless at least one required crewmember has verified that all exit rows and escape paths are unobstructed and that no exit seat is occupied by a person the crewmember determines is likely to be unable to perform the applicable evacuation functions.

APPENDIX 1 TO 13.081: MOVEMENT OF PASSENGERS TO PHD FROM THE AEROPLBNE

(a) The pmcedures for h e safe movement of passengers to and from the aeroplane shall include - (1) instructions for the parking of aeroplanes, wherever possible, in a location that avoids passenger

exposure to hazardous conditions;

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(2) announcements to embarkingldisembarking passengers as warranted to alert them to hazardous conditions or dangers that may be encountered during embarkationldisembarkation andlor enroute to or from the airside exwentrance points, and advising them to follow any directions provided outside the aeroplane;

(3) the provision of clear directions to passengers, and where necessary an escort, in order to ensure that their movements while airside are properly controlled. The responsibility for this shall be clearly defined and the controls shall ensure that - (i) passengers are directed along the correct and safe route between the aeroplane and the airside

entrancelexit point, and a sufficient number of personnel are assigned to exercise surveillance and control of passengers and to give prompt attention to stragglers where necessary:

(ii) an escort is assigned to control passenger movements when the route to or from the aeroplane is congested by other aircraft or vehicles or when required by the Air Operator Security measures; and

(iii) passengers are not exposed to hazards from aircraft operations, fuelling equipment, exposure to jet blasts, engines, rotors or propellers, or to the hazards posed by lighting'conditions, obstacles positioned along the route or unsafe surface or stairway conditions;

(4) the enforcement of smoking restrictions; (5) instructions to passengers to remove personal entertainment system headsets that decrease awareness

of other traffic or limit reception of audible direction or warning signals; (6) the clear assignment of the responsibility for the openinglclosing and the lockinglunlocking of terminal

building doors, to enable embarkingldisembarking passengers to access the apron or terminal. Where this responsibility is assigned to persons other than the air operator's personnel or those contracted by the air operator, the crew members are so advised;

(7) ' h e r e conditions so warrant, the postponement of the embarking or disembarking activity until a safe walking zone is prepared; and

(8) the reporting of unsatisfactory or hazardous conditions to the responsible authority.

(b) The procedures shall not preclude the safe embarkation and disembarkation of all passengers.

(c) The procedures shall be incorporated in training programmes and training will be provided to crew members, '

ground handling and passenger agent staff, including contract personnel, involved with the transfer of passengers between the terminal building and the aeroplane.

(d) The training will be adequate to ensure that personnel are fully aware of their responsibilities, are able to perform their assigned duties for the safety of airside passengers and know to whom the air operator personnel report in the application of their responsibilities. Where there is an overlap in the dutieslresponsibilities assigned to personnel, the training will ensure that the trainees know the relationship of -their dutieslresponsibilities to those of the other personnel involved.

APPENDIX 1 TO 13.089: CARRY-ON BAGGAGE PROGRAMME

An air operatofs approved carry-on baggage programme shall encompass the areas discussed in the following paragraphs as well as any guidance material provided by the Authority.

(a) Compliance with Existing Regulations. The operatofs approved carry-on baggage programme should ensure compliance with all applicable Regulations.

(b) Description of Carry-on Baggage. The operator's programme should include a description of carry-on baggage that discusses the items in the following subparagraphs. The operator's programme should include guidance regarding items that are considered carry-on baggage and must be properly stowed. The carry-on baggage control programme must incorporate the following information:

(I) Size and Amount of Carry-on Baggage. The air operator's programme should provide information about- (i) the acceptable size of carry-on baggage, limiting the size of each carry-on to 45 total linear inches

with the handles and wheels; and (ii) the programme should also provide infomation regarding the number of bags that are permitted per

.passenger [i.e. limits of two bags per passenger and the dimensions and weights must be established].

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(2) Weight Assessment of Carry-on Baggage. The carry on baggage control programme shall be in keeping the load planning parameters and procedures for Weight and Balance approved for the AOC holder by - . . . the ~uthority.

(3) Child Restraint Devices. The operatots programme should include a discussion of child restraint devices and how they will be handled as part of the air caniets carry-on baggage programme. Child restraint devices that are not used during the flight are to be stowed either as carry-on baggage or as checked baggage.

(c) Proper Stowage of Carry-on Baggage. Each operatots approved carry-on baggage programme should contain information about the proper stowage of carry-on baggage and cargo in the cabin, including the following:

depending upon the aircraft being used, the cabin configuration and other factors, the Authority shall approve a carry-on baggage programme that ensures that each piece of baggage fits under the seat in front of the passenger such that no part of the bag protrudes beyond the fully upright seat back or causes obstruction to passenger movement to, from, or across the aisle. Depending upon the aircraft being used, the cabin configuration and other factors, the approval for carry-on baggage programmes for proper stowage of items in overhead bins could be issued if the programme ensures that baggage fits securely in the overhead compartment and the bin doors close without any forced effort. Consideration should be given to minimizing or eliminating the chances of baggage and other articles falling out when the bin doors are opened: the operatots carryon baggage programme should provide information regarding the procedures for proper stowage of carry-on baggage and cargo in the cabin, as follows - (i) procedures to ensure that all carry-on baggage is stowed in an approved compartment or other

specifically approved area; (ii) methods to ensure carry-on'baggage and cargo do not exceed the placarded weight limitations or

certificated load limits for the stowage areas, where they are stowed, or the restraints used to secure them. This should emphasize that overhead bin weight limits cannot be exceeded and that the bins should be easily closed;

(iii) a list of specific items that can be carried in the cabin but outside of specified carry-on baggage compartments. Items that an operator might wish to carry in the cabin outside of approved stowage areas should be extremely limited and should be listed in the operatots approved carry-on baggage programme. The procedures for the stowage of these unusual articles should specify locations where these items can be stowed and the proper method for restraining them. The restraints used should ensure that the article will not shift under emergency load conditions specified for the same or similar restraint or equipment approved by the Authority for use by the operator in the same aircraft; and

(iv) procedures for stowage of unusual articles; Non-Interference of Carry-on Baggage with Emergency Equipment. Stowage of canes or other assist devices in accordance with existing regulations and in approved areas, such as under a seat, approved cargo bins or fitted holders, if appropriate, along the fuselage wall; and Verification of Proper Stowage. Procedures for verifying that each article of baggage is properly stowed before all the passenger entry doors are closed should be addressed in carry-on baggage programmes.

(d) Screening. Each operatots carryon baggage programme should clearly describe the procedures and personnel that will be used to prevent the boarding of baggage that, for any reason, cannot be properly stowed. The programme shall include the following elements - ( I ) area of operation, including terminal and scanning point facilities that will be used to determine whether

baggage should be restricted from the aircraft: (2) scanning point facilities and locations. including operations at facilities other than those owned, or

ordinarily used, by the operator; (3) the duties of personnel who are responsible for scanning should be clearly defined and manageable; (4) procedures to prevent boarding of carry-on baggage that will exceed the placarded weight of the

approved stowage areas, cargo bins and "tie-down" areas; (5) procedures to prevent the boarding of carryon baggage that will exceed the number or size that is

specified as a limit in the operatoh carry-on baggage programme; and

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(6) procedures to prevent the boarding of carry-on baggage that will exceed the total space of the approved stowage areas available on an aircraft.

(e) Information Provided to Passengers. Each operator shall also establish procedures for informing travellers and travel agents about the specific carry-on requirements of each flight. Operators should provide information to passengers about their procedures for accommodating special baggage prior to the flight. In addition, passengers should be provided with information about the types of matenals that should not be carried in their -carry-on baggage, such as hazardous materials.

(f) Manuals. The operator should ensure that the appropriate parts of the crewmembers' manual provide information about the operatots approved carry-on baggage programme. This should include - (1) proper methods of stowing carry-on baggage, cargo, and other articles carried in the cabin; (2) handling of items that have been boarded and cannot be properly stowed; (3) crew coordination necessary to ensure items are properly stowed: (4) assignment of crewmember responsibility for verification; (5) assignment of crewmember responsibility for ensuring that carry-on baggage will not hinder the

availability and use of emergency equipment; and (6) other pertinent information that the principal operations inspector determines should be in the

crewmembers' manual.

(g) Training. Operators should provide training to appropriate ground personnel and to all crewmembers regarding the operatots approved programme. The training should include, but is not limited to: Canyon baggagelimitations; baggage scanning; processing of ca&on baggage that cannot be accommoda&d in any of the passenger compartments; proper stowing of carry-on baggage; stowing of cargo and unusual items in the cabin; crew coordination; applicable passenger information; types of and limitations on, stowage provisions; verification that carry-on baggage is stowed so it does not interfere with emergency equipment: and the handling of canyon baggage during an emergency.

APPENDIX 1 TO 13.095: CPRRIAGE OF CPRGO IN PASSENGER COMPPRTMENTS

(a) Cargo may be carried anywhere in the passenger compartment if it is carried in an approved cargo bin that meets the following requirements - (I) the bin must withstand the load factors and emergency landing conditions applicable to the passenger

seats of the aeroplane in which the bin is installed, multiplied by a factor of 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of cargo that may be carried in the bin;

(2) the maximum weight of cargo that the bin is approved to carry and any instructions necessary to insure proper weight distribution within the bin must be conspicuously marked on the bin;

(3) the bin may not impose any load on the floor or other structure of the aeroplane that exceeds the load limitations of that structure;

(41 the bln must be attached to the seat tracks or to the floor structure of the aeroolane. and its attachment . . must withstand the load factors and emergency landing conditions applicable io the'passenger seats of the aeroplane in which the bin is installed, multiplied by either the factor 1 . I5 or the seat attachment factor specified for the aeroplane, whichever is greater, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of cargo that may be carried in the bin;

(5) the bin may not be installed in a position that restricts access to or use of any required emergency exit, or of the aisle in the passenger compartment;

(6) the bin must be fully enclosed and made of material that is at least flame resistant; (7) suitable safeguards must be provided within the bin to prevent the cargo from shifting under emergency

landing conditions; and (8) the bin may not be installed in a position that obscures anybassengets view of the "seat belt" sign. "no

smoking' sign, or any required exit sign, unless an auxiliary sign or other approved means for proper notification of the passenger is provided.

(b) Cargo, including carry-on baggage, may be carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of a small (Grouo B) aeroolane if it is carried in an aooroved camo rack, bin. or comoartment installed in or on the Heropian& if it is secured by an approved'means. or ifii is carried in accordance with each of the following -

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(1) for cargo, it is properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting under all normally anticipated flight and ground conditions, or for carry-on baggage. it is restrained so as to prevent its movement duling air turbulence;

(2) it is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants: (3) it does not impose any load on seats or in the floor structure that exceeds the load limitation for those

components; (4) it is not located in a position that obstructs the access to, or use of, any required emergency or regular

exit, or the use of the aisle between the crew and the passenger compartment, or is located in a position that obscures any passengets view of the "seat belt" sign, "no smoking" sign or placard, or any required exit sign. unless an auxiliary sign or other approved means for proper notification of the passengers is provided;

(5) it is not camed directly above seated occupants. (6) it is stowed in compliance with these restrictions during takeoff and landing. (7) for cargo-only operations, if the cargo is loaded so that at least one emergency or regular exit is available

to provide all occupants of the aeroplane a means of unobstructed exit from the aeroplane if an . emergency occurs.

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FOURTEENTH SCHEDULE (Regulations 12,67,74)

AOC OPERATIONS PERSONNEL QUALIFICATION REQUIREMENTS

SUBPART A: 14.005 14.010

SUBPART 8: 14.020 14.025 14.030 14.035 14.040 14.045 14.050 14.055

GENERAL Definitions Acronyms

OPERATIONS PERSONNEL QUALIFICATIONS Age 60 Restriction PIC Licence Requirements: Aircraft Certificated For Two Pilots PIC Licence Requirements: Aircraft Not Certificated For Two Pilots PIC Aeronautical Experience: Small Aircraft SIC Licence Requirements FE Licence Requirements Cabin Attendant Requirements Persons Qualified to Fliaht Release

14.060 . Pairing of Low ~xperience Crewmembers SUBPART C: GROUND TRAINING REQUIREMENTS

14.065 14.070 14.075 14.080 14.085 14.090

SUBPART D: 14.091 14.092 14.095 14.098 14.100 14.110 14.115

Company Procedures Indoctrination lnitial Dangerous Goods Training lnitial Security Training lnitial Crew Resource Management lnitial Emergency Equipment Drills lnitial Aircraft Ground Training FLIGHT TRAINING REQUIREMENTS Contracted Training Operations on More than One Aircraft Type or Variant lnitial Aircraft Flight Training Pilot Seat Conversion Training lnitial Specialized Operations Training Use of Simulators and Training Devices Introduction of New Equipment or Procedures

SUBPART E: PROFICIENCY AND COMPETENCY CHECKS 14.120 Pilot Aircraft, Line and Instrument Proficiency Checks 14.125 14.130 . 14.135

SUBPART F: 14.140 14.145 14.150 14.155

SUBPART G: 14.160 14.165 14.170

Flight Engineer Proficiency Checks Competence Checks: Cabin Attendants Competence Checks: Flight Dispatchers

SUPERVISED LINE FLYING Supervised Line Flying: Pilots Supervised Line Flying: Flight Engineers Supervised Line Experience: Cabin Attendants Line Observations: Flight Dispatchers CONTINUING QUALIFICATION Area, Route and Aerodrome Qualification PIC Low Minimums Authorization Desianated S~ecial Aerodromes and HelbOrtS: PIC Qualification

14.175 ~eGtabl ishing Recency of Experience: bilot SUBPART H: RECURRENT. UPGRADE,REQUALIFICATION AND DIFFERENCES TRAINING

14.180 Recurrent rain in^: ~ l i ~ h t Crewmembers 14.181 Upgrade Training: Flight Crewmembers 14.183 Requalification Training: Flight Crewmembers 14.185 Recurrent Training: Cabin Attendants 14.188 Requalification Training: Cabin Attendants 14.190 Recurrent Training: Operational Control Persons 14.193 Requalification Training: Flight Dispatcher

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14.194 DifferencesTraining SUBPART I: INSTRUCTOR 8 COMPANY CHECK PILOT QUALIFICATION

14.195 Company Check Pilot Qualifications and Training 14.200 Flight lnstructor Training 14.205 Simulator lnstructor Qualifications 14.207 Aircraft lnstructor Pilot Qualifications 14.208 Cabin Attendant lnstructor Qualifications 14.215 Company Check Pilot Designation 14.220 Company Check Pilot Limitations

SUBPART J: ADMINISTRATIVE REQUIREMENTS 14.225 Substitution of Simulator Experience 14.230 Termination of a Proficiency, Competence or Line Check 14.233 Examinations 14.234 Training Facilities 14.235 Training and Qualifications Records 14.245 Validity Periods 14.250 Reductions in Requirements

APPENDICES Appendix I to 14.060: Pairing of Low Experience Crewrnembers: Commercial Air Transport Appendix I to 14.065: Company Procedures Indoctrination Appendix I to 14.070: lnitial Dangerous Goods Training Appendix 1 to 14.075: lnitial Security Training Appendix 1 to 14.080: Initial Crew Resource Management Training Appendix 1 to 14.085: Initial Emergency Equipment Drills Appendix I to 14.090: Initial Aircraft Ground Training Curriculum - Flight Crew Appendix 2 to 14.090: Initial Aircraft Ground Training Curriculum - Cabin Attendants Appendix 3 to 14.090: lnitial Aircraft Ground Training Curriculum - Flight Dispatcher Appendix 4 to 14.090: lnitial Ground and Flight Training Instructional Hours - Flight Crew Appendix 1 to 14.092: Operation of More Than One Aircraft Type Appendix I to 14.095: lnitial Aircraft Flight Training Appendix 1 to 14.100: lnitial Specialized Operations Training Appendix 1 to 14.1 10: Use of Simulators, Training Devices and Cabin Emergency Evacuation Trainers Appendix 1 to 14.120: Aircraft and Instrument Proficiency Check: Pilot Appendix I- to 14.125: Flight Engineer Proficiency Checks Appendix I to 14.130: Competence Checks: Cabin Attendants Appendix I to 14.135: Competence Checks: Flight Dispatchers Appendix 1 to 14.140: Supervised Line Flying Requirements - Pilots Appendix 1 to 14.150: Supervised Line Flying Experience - Cabin Attendants Appendix I to 14.180: Recurrent Training Curriculum: Flight Crew Appendix 2 to 14.180: Recurrent Ground and Flight Training: Flight Crew Appendix 1 to 14.185: Rmurrent Emergency Training: Cabin Attendants Appendix I to 14.190: Recurrent Training - Flight Dispatcher Appendix 1 to 14.194: Aircraft Differences - Flight Dispatchers Appendix I to 14.195: Company Check Pilot Qualifications and Training Appendix 1 to 14.200: Flight lnstructor Training

SUBPART A: GENERAL

This Schedule prescribes the minimum requirements for qualification andcurrency of operations personnel to be able to serve in commercial air transport or to be used by the holder of an Air Operator Certificate issued by Jamaica.

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For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply-

(1) "Company Check Pilot (alrcraft)". A person who is designated by the Authority, lo conduct an evaluation in an aircraft, in a flight simulator or in a flight training device for a particular type aircraft.

(2) "Company Check Pllot (simulator)". A person who is designated by the Authority to conduct an evaluation, but only in a flight simulator or in a flight training device for a particular type aircraft.

(3) "Operatlonal Control Person". A qualified person or licensed Flight Dispatcher as pmvided in Schedule 16.

(4) "Company Materials (COMAT)". Materials, belonging to the AOC holder that are being transported on board its aircraft.

(5) "Varlant alrcraft". An aircraft that is a variation of a basic type of aircraft but has the same or essentially the same charactelistics in cockpit layout, power plant(s) and other aircraft systems. For example, A3191A3201A321, 87571767 or 8737-4001-7001-800.

The following acronyms are used in this Schedule - (1) AFM -Aircraft Flight Manual; (2) AOC -Air Operator Certificate; (3) ATP -Airline Transport Pilot; (4) BRNAV - Basic Area Navigation: (5) CAT - Category; (6) CCP - Company Check Pilot: (7) CRM -Crew Resource Management; (8) ETOPS - Extended Twin-engine Operations; (9) FE - Flight Engineer; (10) GPS - Global Positioning System; (1 1) IMC - lnstrument Meteorological Conditions; (12) INS - Inertial Navigation System; (13) IR - lnstrument Rating: (14) LDA - Localizer-type Directional Aid: (15) LOC - Localizer; (16) LVTO - Low Visibility Take O t (17) MDA - Minimum Decent Altiide; (18) MNPS - Minimum Navigation Performance Specification; (19) PCC - Pilot Competency Check; (20) PPC - Pilot Proficiency Check; (21) PRM - Precision Runway Monitoring; (22) RNP - Required Navigation Performance; (23) RVR - Runway Visibility Range; (24) RVSM - Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum: (25) PBE - Protective Breathing Equipment; (26) PIC - Pilot-incommand; (27) SIC - Second-incommand; (28) SCA - Senior Cabln Attendant; (29) SM - Statute Miles; (30) VMC -Visual Meteomlogical Conditions;

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SUBPART 8: OPERATIONS PERSONNEL QUALIFICATIONS

(a) The holder of a Commercial or Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall not on or after attaining the age of sixty years, act as pllot of an aircraft for the purpose of commercial air transport.

(b) CCPs who have reached their 60th birthday or who do not hold an appropriate medical certificate may continue their check airman functions, but may not serve as or occupy the position of a required pilot flight crewmember on an aircraft engaged in intemational commercial air transport operations.

14.025 PIC LICENCE REQUIREMENTS: AIRCRAFT CERTIFICATED FOR TWO PILOTS

No pilot may act as PIC of an aircraft certificated for two pilots in commercial air transportation operations unless he or she holds an ATP licence, a type rating for that aircraft and, if instrument flight is required. an instrument rating.

14.030 PIC LICENCE REQUIREMENTS: AIRCRAFT NOT CERllFlCATED FOR TWO PILOTS

No pilot may act as PIC of an aircraft not certificated for two pilots in commercial air transport during - (1) IFR operations unless he or she holds a Commercial Pilot Licence with appropriate category and class

ratings for the aircraft operated and an instrument rating; or (2) day VFR operations unless he or she holds a Commercial P~lot Licence with appropriate category and

dass ratings for the aircraft operated.

No pilot may act as PIC of a small aircraft in commercial air transport during - (1) IFR-IMC operations across international borders unless he or she has accumulated 500 hours in

commercial operations and at least 50 hours of instrument flight time; or (2) VMC operations across intemational borders unless he or she has logged a minimum of 500 hours of

time as a pilot, including at least 100 hours of cross-country flight time including 25 hours of which were at night.

14.040 SIC LICENCE REQUIREMENTS

No pilot may act as SIC of an aircraft in commercial air transport operatihis unless he - (1) holds a Commercial Pilot Licence with appropriate category, class and type. if applicable, ratings for

the aircraft operated; and (2) holds an instrument rating if IFR flight is to be undertaken.

No person may act as the flight engineer of an aircraft unless he or she holds a Flight Engineer Licence with the appropriate class rating.

No person may operate as a required crewmember in commercial air transport operations unless that person - (1) has completed and been certified as having met the training requirements of this Schedule; and (2) canies a copy of the record specified in the twelfth Schedule, Subsection 12.220 (b).

No person may issue a flight release for a passengercarrying commercial air transport operation in aircraft of more than 5.700 kg (12,500 Ibs) unless that person -

(1) holds a Flight Dispatcher Licence or an ATP rating; and

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(2) is currently qualified with the AOC holder for the operation and type of aircraft used.

14.060 PAIRING OF LOW EXPERIENCE CREWMEMBERS

(a) If an SIC has fewer than 50 hours of flight time in an aircraft type of more than 5.700 kg (12.500 Ibs) and more than 19 passenger seats, and the PIC is not an appropriately qualified CCP or training pilot, the PIC shall make all takeoffs and landings in situations designated as critical by the Authority.

(b) The Authority may, upon application by the AOC holder, authorize deviations from paragraph (a) of this Subsection by an appropriate amendment to the Operations, Specifications.

(See Appendix 1 to 14.060 for those siluations designated as crilical by the Authority and for circumstances authorizing a deviation from paragraph (a).)

SUBPART C: GROUND TRAINING REQUIREMENTS

No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a crewmember or Operational Control Personfflight Dispatcher unless that person has completed the company procedures indoctrination curriculum approved by the Authority, which shall include a complete review of Operations Manual procedures pertinent to the crewmember or Operational Control PersonlFlight Dispatcher's duties.

(See Appendix 1 to 14.065 for recommended knowledge area and programme hours.)

No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a crewmember unless he or she has completed the appropriate initial dangerous goods curriculum approved by !he Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 14.070 for sample course curriculum.)

(a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a crewmember unless he or she has completed the initial security curriculum approved by the Authority;

(b) This curriculum will instruct the crewmembers on the most appropriate manner to behave to minimize the consequences of acts of unlawful interference.

(c) The programme shall familiarize these employees with preventive measures and techniques which will assist them in the prevention of acts of sabotage or other unlawful forms of interference.

(See Appendix 1 to 14.075 for the minimum crewmember security programme training elements.)

(a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a crewmember or operational control person unless that person has completed the initial CRM curriculum approved by the Authority.

(b) The AOC holder shall, where practical, provide initial CRM training jointly to crewmembers and operational Eontrol persons.

(See Appendix 1 to 14.080 for required course cum'culum contents.)

No ~erson mav serve nor mav anv AOC holder use a oerson as a crewmember unless that Derson has - .~ . . ~~

con&leted th&piropriate inltlal emergency equipmeit curriculum and drills for the crewmember position approved by the Authority for the emergency equipment available on the alrcraft to be operated.

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(See Appendix 1 to 14.085 for sample course curriculum content.)

(a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a crewmember or Operational Control Person unless he or she has completed the inilia1 ground training approved by the Authority for the aircraft type.

(b) Initial aircraft ground training for flight crewmembers shall include the pertinent portions of the Operations Manual relating to aircraft-specific performance, mass and balance, operational policies, systems. limitations, normal, abnormal and emergency procedures on the aircraft type to be used. -

(See Appendix 1 to 14.090 for required course curriculum for flight crewmembers.)

(See Appendix 4 to 14.090 for initial ground and flight training instructional hour requirements for flight crewmembers.)

(Note: The AOC holder may have separate initial aircrafl ground training curricula of varying lengfhi and subject emphasis which recognize the experience levels of flight crewmembers approved by the Authorily.)

(c) For Cabin Attendants, initial aircraft ground training shall include the pertinent potions of the Operations Manual relating to aircraft-specific configuration, eauipment, safety procedures, normal and emernencv . . - . - . procedures foithe aircraft types within the fleet.

(See Appendix 2 to 14.090 for required course curriculum for Cabin Attendants.)

(d) For Flight Dispatchers, aircrafl initial ground training shall include the pertinent portions of the Operations Manual relating to aircraft-specific flight preparation procedures, performance, mass and balance. systems, and limitations for the aircraft types within the fleet.

(See Appendix 3 to 14.090 for required course curriculum for Flight Dispatchers.)

SUBPART D: FLIGHT TRAINING REQUIREMENTS

An hol holder m iy contract crewmember training to another organization provided - ( I ) the arrangement is clearly provided for in the approved training programme; (2) the outside organization uses the manuals and publications used by the air operator (SOP'S, Aircraft

Flight Manual. Aircraft Operating Manual, if applicable. Company Operations Manual, etc.); (3) the air operator ensures that the training is conducted in accordance with the approved programme; (4) where type training is conducted, the training is provided on the type and model operated by the air

operator unless otherwise provided for in the approved training programme; (5) the air operator maintains training records as required by this Schedule; and (6) instruction is provided by a suitably qualified instructor approved by the Authority.

14.092 OPERATIONS ON MORE THAN ONE AIRCRAFT TYPE OR VARIANT

(a) An AOC holder shall ensure that a flight crewmember does not operate on more than one type or miant. unless the flight crewmember is competent to do so.

(Note: For the purposes of this Subsection, "lype" with respect to singleengine, nonturbine powered aircrefl means aircmfl built by the same menufacturer shaN be considered as one type. For erample, e pilot could be qualified on Cessne aircraff C172. C182, and C185 but this would count as only onc .. :;EL)

(b) Notwithstanding paragraph (a) of this Subsection, a flight crewmember may not operate - ( I ) for operators of aircraft certificated for 9 or less passengers, more than three different aircrafl types; (2) for operators of aircraft certificated for more than 9 passengers, more than two different aircrafl types;

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43) for operators operating a mixed fleet of the aircraft identified in paragrapns (b) (1) and (2) of this Subsection, more than three different aircraft types; and

(4) for operators operating both helicopters and aeroplanes, more than one type of each category of aircraft.

(c) When considering Operations of more than one type or variant, an operator shall ensure that the differences andlor similarities of the aeroplanes concerned justify such operations, taking into account the following -

(1) the level of technology; (2) operational procedures; and (3) handling characteristics.

(d) An operator shall ensure that a flight crewmember operating more than one type or variant complies with all of.the requirements prescribed in this Schedule far-each m e or variant unless the Authority has approved the use of credit(s) related to the training, checking and recent experience requirements.

(e) An operator shallspecify appropriate procedures andlor operational restrictions, approved by the Authority, in the Operations Manual, for any operation on more than one type or variant covering -

(1) the Right crewmembers' minimum experience level; (2) the minimum experience level on one type or variant before beginning training for and operation of

another type or variant; (3) the process whereby flight crew qualified on one type or variant will be trained and qualified on another

type or variant; and (4) all applicable recent experience requirements for each type or variant.

(0 When a flight crewmember operates more than one type or variant of aircraft, the operator shall specify appropriate procedures andlor operational restrictions governing such operation. approved by the Authority, in the Operations Manual.

(See Appendix I to 14.092 for the training and checking requirements for operation of more than one aircrefl type.)

14.095 INlnAL AIRCRAFT FLIGHT TI~NING

(a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a flight crewmember unless he or she has completed the initial flight training approved by the Authorityfor the aircraft type.

(b) Initial flight training shall focus on the manoeuvring and safe operation of the aircraft in accordance with AOC holder's normal, abnormal and emergency procedures.

(c) An AOC holder may have a separate initial flight training curriculum which recognizes the experience levels of flight crewmembers approved by the Autholity.

(See Appendix 1 to 14.095 for required flight cuniculum.)

(See Appendix 4 to 14.090 for initial ground and flight training instmctional hour requirements for flight crewmembers.)

(a) The qualifications requirements of a left seat-qualified pilot to operate an aircraft from the right seat are as follows -

(1) be qualified and current on the aircraft type for left seat duties; (2) receive sufficient technical ground training on right seat duties; and (3) annually, receive sufficient aircraft or simulator training to enable a CCP, Chief Pilot or Training Pilot

to certify the competency of the pilot to carry out pilot duties from the right seat (the certifying pilot shall be qualified on the aircraft type).

(b) The qualifications requirements of a right seat-qualified pilot to operate an aircraft from the left seat are as follows -



(1) be qualified and current 6n the aircraft type for right seat duties; (2) receive sufficient technical ground training on left seat duties; and (3) annually, receive sufficient aircraft or simulator training to enable a CCP. Chief Pilot or training pilot

to certify the competency of the pilot to carry out pilot duties from the left seat (the certifying pilot shall be qualified on the aircraft type).

(c) The training required by this Subsection shall be specified in the approved training pmgramme.

14.100 INITIAL SPECIALIZED OPERATIONS TRAINING

*(a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a flight crewmember unless he or she has completed the appropriate initial specialized operations training curriculum approved by the Authority.

(b) Specialized operations for which initial training curricula shall be developed i nc lude low minimums operations, including low visibility takeoffs and Category II and Ill operations: extended range operations; specialized navigation (MNPS. RNP. BRNAV); RVSM; PRM; and PIC right seat qualification.

(See Appendix 1 to 14.100 for requirements for an initial specialized operations training cunicuium.)

(a) Each aircraft simulator and other training device that is used for flight crewmember qualification shall - (1) be specificaliy approved by the Authority for -

(i) the AOC holder: (ii) the type aircraft, including type variations, for which the training or check is being conducted; and (iii) the particular manoeuvre. procedure or crewmember function involved;

(2) maintain the performance, functional and other characteristics that are required for approval; (3) be modified to conform with any modification to the aircraft being simulated that results in changes to

performance, functional or other characteristics required for approval; (4) be given a daily functional pre-flight check before use; and (5) have a daily discrepancy log kept by the appropriate instructor or CCP at the end of each training or

check flight.

(b) An air operator may conduct emergency training and testing on a cabin emergency evacuation trainer, rather than on an aeroplane if the trainer has been approved by the Authority.

(See Appendix 1 to 14.110 for the requirements associated wilh the use of flight simuletors and fore Cabin Emergency Evacuation Trainer.)

14.115 ~NTRODUCTION OF NEW EQUIPMENT OR PROCEDURES

No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a crewmember when that service would require expertise in the use of new equipment or procedures for which curfiwlum is included in the AOC holder's approved training programme, unless that person has satisfact&ly completed that curriculum, with respect to both the crewmember position and tha particular variant of that aircraft.

SUBPART E: PROFICIENCY AND COMPETENCY CHECKS

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this Subsection, no pilot may serve. nor may any person use a pilot flight crewmember unless that person has passed the proficiency check prescribed by the Authority for each type of aircraft on which their services are required, the validity perlod of which has not expired.



(b) No pilot may serve nor may any person use a pilot in IFR operations of aircraft certificated for a maximum takeoff mass of 5.700 kg (12,500 Ibs) or more unless, since the beginning of the 6th calendar month before that service, that pilot has passed the proficiency check specified in paragraph (a) of this Subsection, including the instrument portion.

(c) An AOC holder may use a pilot of single-engine aircraft in day VFR flight only who has not completed a PPC provided that pilot has completed a pilot competency check (PCC) conducted by the AOC holder's Chief Pilot or a Chief Pilot of another air operator who is current on that aircraft type.

(d) Unless undergoing supervised line training, no person may serve nor may any person use a pilot in line operations using aircraft certificated for the carriage of more than nine (9) passengers unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that flight, that person has passed a line check over a typical route flown by the air operator in one of the aircraft types flown by that person.

(e) An air operator shall ensure each pilot carries with him or her a competencycard showing, as a minimum, the validity of any required flight checks.

(f) The Authority or an approved check airman shall conduct pilot proficiency and line checks.

(Note: The validity periods of proficiency checks ere specified in Subsection 14.245.)

(See Appendix 1 to 14.120 for information and procedures perfaining to proficiency end competency checks.)

No person may serve nor may any person use a Flight Engineer on an aircraft unless within the preceding 6 calendar months he or she has -

(1) had a proficiency check in accordance with the requirements prescribed by the Authority; or (2) 50 hours flight time with an AOC holder as flight engineer in the type aircraft.

(See Appendix 1 to 14.125 for requirements for procedures to be used in FE proficiency checks.)

No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a Cabin Attendant unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that service, that person has passed the competency check prescribed by the Authority performing the emergency duties appropriate to that person's assignment. The AOC holder will issue a competency card that shows the valid period for which that individual is deemed competent to operate on the aircraft type(s) specified. This competency card must be kept on the person of that cabin crewmember at all times in the performance of their duties.

(See Appendix 1 to 14.130 for recommended content for Cabin Attendant competence checks.)

14.135 COMPETENCE CHECKS: FLIGHT DISPATCHERS )L

No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a Flight Dispatcher unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that service, that person has passed the competency check, prescribed by the

. Authority, performing the flight preparation and subsequent duties appropriate to that person's assignment.

(See Appendix 1 to 14.135 for required content for en operetionel control competence check.)

SUBPART F: SUPERVISED LINE FLYING

(a) Each pilot initially qualifying on an aircraft certificated for the carriage of more than 9 passengers shall. complete a supervised line flying training programme approved by the Authority.


43


(b) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this Subsection, during the time that a qualifying pilot is acquiring operating experience, a CCP shall occupy a pilot station.

(c) In the case of a PIC undergoing supervised line flying training, the CCP serving as PIC may occupy the observer's seat if the transitioning pilot has made at least two takeoffs and landings in the type aircraft used and has satisfactorily demonstrated to the CCP that he is qualified to perform the duties of a PIC for that type of aircraft.

(d) For aircraft with 9 or less passengers, the pilots are not required to complete line flying under supervision if the original route check qualification in the type of aircraft was under the supervision of an authorized person of the Authority prior to the carriage of passengers in commercial air transport.

(See Appendix 1 to 14.140 for supervised line flying training requirements.)

Each person qualifying as a Flight Engineer for an aircraft type shall perform those functions for a minimum of five flights under the supervision of a CCP or a qualified Flight Engineer.

Each person qualifying as a Cabin Attendant shall perform those functions for a minimum of two flights under the supervision of a senior Cabin Attendant, during which this person not be counted as a required crewmember.

(See Appendix I to 14.150 for supervised line flying experience requirements for Cabin Attendants.)

(a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a Flight Dispatcher following initial training unless that person has observed, on the flight deck, the conduct of at least 8 complete flights over routes representative of those for which that person is assigned duties.

(b) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a Flight Dispatcher unless, since the beginning of the 12th calendar month before that service, that person has observed, on the flight deck. the conduct of at least two complete flights over routes representative of those for which that person is assigned duties.

SUBPART G: CONTINUING QUALIFICATION

(a) No person may serve nor may any person use a pilot as the PIC of an aircraft on a flight into an area. along a route or into an aerodrome including any alternate aerodrome or routing unless -

(1) within the previous 12 months, the person has acted as a flight crewmember or has been on the flight deck as an observer on a flight along that route and into that aerodrome:

(2) the person is under the supervision of an approved check pilot: or (3) the person has received training and met the requirements of paragraph (c) of this Subsection.

(b) No person may serve nor may any person use a pilot as the PIC of an aircraft into an area or on a route or route segment for which that pilot is not currently qualified until such pilot has complied with Subsection 14.162 and Subsection 14.170.

(c) Each such pilot shall demonstrate to the AOC holder an adequate knowledge of- (1) the area and route to be flown and the aerodromes to be used. This shall include knowledge of-

(i) the terrain and minimum safe altitudes; (il) the seasonal meteorological conditions; (iii) the meteorological, communication and air traffic facilities, services and procedures: (ivj the search and rescue procedures; and

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(v) the navigational facilities and procedures, including any long-range navigation procedures. associated with the route along which the flight is to take place; and

(2) procedures applicable to flight paths over heavily populated areas and areas of high air traffic density, obstructions, physical layout, lighting, approach aids and arrival, de~arture, holdinq and instrument approach procedures and appkable operating minima.

-

(d) In the event a PIC has not met the requirements of paragraphs (a) or (b) of this Subsection, that person shall reaualifv by meeting those requirements in the aircraft or a traininq device which is adequate for such

-

No person may perform PIC duties over a designated special operational area that requires a special navigation system or procedures or in ETOPS operations unless their competency with the system and procedures have been demonstrated to the AOC holder within the preceding 12 calendar months.

14.165 PIC Low MINIMUMS AUTHORWTION

(a) After initial qualification for Category II approach minimums, a PIC may not plan for or initiate an instrument approach when the ceiling is less than 200 feet and the visibility less than K mile until he or she has 15 flights performing PIC duties in the aircrafl type (which included 5 approaches to landing using Category II procedures).

(b) After initial qualification for Category Ill approach minimums, a PIC may not plan for or initiate an approach when the ceiling is less than 100 feet or the visibility is less than 1200 RVR until he or she has 20 flights performing PIC duties in the aircrafl type (which included 5 approaches and landings using Category Ill procedures).

14.170 DESIGNATED SPECIAL AERODROMES AND HELIPORTS: PIC QUALIFICA~ON

(a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as PIC for operations at designated special aerodromes and heliports unless within the preceding 12 calendar months -

(1) the PIC has been qualified by the AOC holder through a pictorial means acceptable to the Authority for that aerodrome: or

(2) the PIC or the assigned SIC has made a takeoff and landing at that aerodrome while sewing as a flight crewmember for the AOC holder.

(Note: If acceplable to the Authority, that portion of the demonstration including the anival, holding, instrument appmach and departure may be conducted in a simulator or training device adequate for those purposes.)

(b) Designated special aerodrome and heliport limitations are not applicable if the operation will occur - (1) during daylight hours; (2) when the visibility is at least 3 miles; and (3) when the ceiling at that aerodrome is at least 1000 feet above the lowest initial approach altitude

prescribed for an instrument approach procedure.

(a) In addition to meeting all applicable training and checking requirements, a required pilot flight crewmember who, in the preceding 90 days has not made at least three takeoffs and landings in the type aircraft in which that person is to serve, shall, under the supervision of a CCP or training pilot, reestablish recency of experience by completing at least three takeoffs and landings in the type of aircraft in which that person is to serve, or in a qualified simulator, to include -

(1) at least one takeoff with a Gmulated failure of the most critical powerplant; (2) at least one landing from the lowest DH authorized for the AOC holder; . (3) at least one landing with a simulated failure of the most critical powerplant; and (4) at least one landing to a full stop.

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(b) When using a simulator to accomplish any of the takeoff and landing training requirements necessary to reestablish recency of experience, each required flight crewmember position shall be occupied by an appropriately qualified person and the simulator shall be operated as if in a normal in-flight environment without use of the repositioning features of the simulator.

(c) A CCP who observes the takeoffs and landings of a pilot flight crewmember shall certify that the person being 0bSe~ed is proficient and qualified to perform flight duty in operat~ons and may require any additional manoeuvres that are determined necessary to make this certifying statement.

SUBPART H: RECURRENT, UPGRADE, REQUALIFICATION AND DIFFERENCES TRAINING

(a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a flight crewmember unless within the preceding 12 calendar months that person has completed the recurrent ground and flight training curricula approved by the Authority.

(b) The recurrent ground training shall include training on - (1) aircraft systems and limitations and normal, abnormal and emergency procedures; (2) emergency equipment and drills; (3) crew resource management; (4) recognition or transportation of dangerous goods; and (5) security training.

(Note: The AOC holder shall provide recurrent CRM training jointly to crewmembers and, where practrcal, Flight Dispatchers.)

(c) The recurrent flight training curriculum shall include - (1) manoeuvring and safe operation of the aircraft in accordance with AOC holder's normal, abnormal

and emergency procedures; (2) manoeuvres and procedures necessary for avoidance of in-flight hazards; and (3) for authorized pilots, at least one low visibility takeoff to the lowest applicable minimum LVTO and two

approaches to the lowest approved minimums for the AOC holder, one of which is to be a missed approach.

(See Appendix 1 to 14.180 for the required recurrent training programme content.)

(See Appendix 2 to 14.180 for recurrent ground and flight training instructional hour rerrJirements for flight crewmembers.)

An AOC holder shall, as part of the approved training programme, establish the upgrade training required for an SIC to qualify as PIC on each aircraft type certificated for two pilots.

(a) Where the validity period of any required check or training, has expired for 24 months or more on an aircraft type, the .person shall requalify -

(1) by meeting the initial qualification training requirements for that type of aircraft as approved by the Authority; or

(2) if approved by the Authority in consideration of the person's background, experience and currency on a similar class of aircraft, the recurrent qualification training requirements for the type aircraft.

(b) An AOC holder shall, as part of the approved training programme, establish the requalification training required where the validity period of any required check or training has expired on an aircraft type for periods less than 24 months.

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562 . THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULA TIONS, 2004

(a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as a Cabin Attendant unless within the preceding 12 calendar months that person has completed the recurrent ground curricula approved by the Authority.

(b) The recurrent ground training shall include training on - (1) legal requirements relating to Cabin Attendants and cabin emergencies; (2) flight attendant duties and responsibilities; (3) aircraft-specific configuration, equipment and procedures: (4) emergency, evacuation and first aid equipment and drills; (5) crew resource management and human performance; (6) recognition or transportation of dangerous goods; and (7) security training.

(Note: The AOC holder shall provide recurrent CRM training jointly to crewmembers and, where practical. Flight Dispatchers.)

(See Appendix 1 to 14.185 for requirements for emergency programme training contents for Cabin Attendants.)

14.188 REQUALIFICATION TRAINING: CABIN AITENDANTS

Where the validity period of a Cabin Attendant annual training has been expired, the Cabin Attendant shall requalify as follows -

(I) if a period of 13 up to 24 months or part thereof has elapsed since the last required training, the Cabin Attendant shall complete requalification and annual training:

(2) if a period of 24 up to 36 months or part thereof has elapsed since the last required training and the Cabin Attendant has 3 continuous years experience with the air operator, the Cabin Attendant shall complete requalification, annual and supervised line flying training; and

(3) if a period of 24 months or more has elapsed since the last required annual training and the Cabin Attendant does not have 3 continuous years experience with the air operator, the Cabin Attendant shall complete initial training and Supe~sed line flying training.

14.190 RECURRENT TRAINING: OPERATIONAL CONTROL PERSONS

(a) No person may serve nor may any person use a person as an Operational Control Person unless' within the preceding 12 calendar months that person has completed the recurrent ground curricula approved by the ~uthor i ty~

(b) For Flight Dispatchers, the recurrent ground training shall include training on - (I) aircraft-specific flight preparation, including flight planning, loading, mass and balance and

performance; (2) weather, including season effects on flight and radio reception (3) crew resource management; and (4) recognition or transportation of dangerous goods.

(Note: The AOC holder shall provide recurrent CRM training jointly to crewmembers and. where practical, flight Dispatchers.)

(See Appendix 1 to 14.190 for the required recurrent trahing content for Flight Dispatchers.)

Where the Validity period of a Flight Dispatcher competency check or annual training has been expired for 12 months or more, the person shall requalify by meeting the training requirements specified in the company Operations Manual.

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(a) The AOC holder shall provide differences training, approved by the Authority, to crewmembers and Flight Dispatchers when variant aircraft are introduced to the company.

(b) The AOC holder shall provide differences training to crewmembers when different emergency equipment is introduced to any aircraft.

(c) No persm may serve nor may any person use a person as a crewmember on, or a Flight Dispatcher dispatching, an aircraft of a type for which a differences curriculum is included in the AOC holder's approved training programme, unless that person has satisfactorily completed that curriculum.

(See Appendix I to 14.194 for requirements for aircrafi differences training pertaining to Flight Dispatchers.)

SUBPART I: INSTRUCTOR 8 COMPANY CHECK PILOT QUALIFICATION

14.195 COMPANY CHECK PILOT QUALIFICAT~ONS AND TRA~NING

(a) No person may use a person. nor may any person serve as a CCP unless. with respect to the aircraft type involved, that person meets the qualification requirements of the Company Check Pilot Manual.

(b) No person may use and no person may serve as a CCP for an AOC holder unless he or she has completed the curricula approved by the Authority for those functions for which he or she are to serve.

(See Appendix I to 14.195 for the required training programme content for company check pilots.)

No person may use and no person may serve as an instructor for an AOC holder unless he or she has completed th8 curricula approved by the Authority for those functions for which they are to serve.

(See Appendix I to 14.200 for the required training programme content for instructor pilots.)

14.205 SIMULATOR INSTRUCTOR QUALIF~CA~ONS

No person may use a person nor may any person serve as an instructor pilot unless, wiUl respect to the aircraft type involved, that person -

(1) holds the airman licences and rating required to serve as a PIC or a Flight Engineer, as applicable: (2) has satisfactorily completed the appropriate training for the aircraft, including recurrent training, that

are required to serve as a PIC or flight engineer, as applicable; (3) has satisfactorily completed the appropriate proficiency checks that are required to serve as a PIC or

Flight Engineer, as applicable; (4) if not a currently qualified line pilot, has completed within the preceding 12 calendar months the line

observation requirements specified in the approved training programme; and (5) has satisfactorily completed the applicable instructor training requirements.

No person may use a person nor may any person serve as an instructor pilot unless, with respect to the aircraft type involved, that person -

(1) hdds the airman licences and ratings and medical certificate required to serve as a PIC or a Flight Enolneer. as a~dicable: ., . - . .

(2) has satisfactorily complkted the appropriate training for the aircraft, including recurrent training, that are reauired to serve as a PIC o;a Flight En~ineer, as applicable; - -

(3) has saiisfactori~~ completed the appropriate proficiency, &mpetency and recency of experience checks that are required to serve as a PIC or a Flight Engineer, as applicable; and

(4) has satisfactorily completed the applicable initial or recurrent training requirements.



No person may use a person nor may any person serve as a Cabin Attendant instructor unless, with respect to the aircrafitype involved, that person -

(1) Has been brlefed on - (i) the objectives and standards of the air operatofs training programme; (ii) the effective use of training devices used in the programme; (iii) safety in the training environment; and (iv) pertinent Jamaicdn Aviation Regulations and Schedules;

(2) Shall have demonstrated, to the satisfaction of the air operator, a proficient level of practical and theoretical knowledge of - (i) the subject the instructor is to teach; . . (ii) the aeroplane type, the instructor is to teach; (iii) preparation and use of lesson plans; (iv) briefing and debriefing techniques relative to the exercises; and (v) all associated training devices.

(3)' Has successfully completed the aeroplane type training programme which is approved by the Authority. The instructor must be tested and proven proficient in this training programme and must attend instructor re-cunency training every two years.

14.215 COMPANY CHECK PILOT DESIGNATION

No person may serve nor may any AOC holder use a person as a CCP for any flight check unless that person has been designated by name and approved by the Authority within the preceding 12 calendar months.

14.220 COMPANY CHECK PILOT LIMITATIONS

No person may serve nor may any AOC holder use a person as a CCP for any check-' (1) In an aircraft as a required pilot flight crewmember unless that person holds the required airman

licences and ratings and has completed all applicable training, qualification and currency requirements of this Schedule applicable to the m w position and the flight operations being checked;

(2) In a simulator unless that person has completed or observed all training, qualification and line 0bse~ation requirements of Subsection 14.205 of this Schedule applicable to the position and flight operations being checked.

SUBPART J: ADMINISTRATIVE REQUIREMENTS

14.225 SUBSTITUTION OF SIMULATOR EXPERIENCE

(a) No AOC holder may use a simulator for trainlng or checking unless that simulator has been specifically approved for the AOC holder in writing by the Authority.

(b) No AOC holder may use a simulator for any purpose other than that specified in the Authority's approval.

(a) If it is necessary to tennlnate a check as a result of a failure, the AOC holder may not use the crewmember or Flight Dispatcher in commercial air transport operations until the completion of a satisfactory recheck.

(b) If it is necessary to terminate a check for any other reason, the AOC holder may continue to use that crewmember or Flight Dispatcher provided the validity perlod of the check has not been exceeded.

(a) The AOC holder shall administer examinations upon completion of the following training -

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(1) any crewmember or Flight Dispatcher initial, recurrent, upgrade or requalification training: and (2) any specialized operations training.

(b) The AOC holder shall maintain a record of the examinations completed as required by paragraph (a) of this Subsection in each person's training file.

Training facilities shall be approved by the Authority and shall be adequate to ensure that training objectives can be achieved. Facilities shall b e

(1) quiet and free of distractions; (2) suitably lighted for the type of instructions to be given, e.g. lectures, slides and audio-visual; (3) furnished with sufficient desks, chairs, chalkboards and other appropriate equipment; and - (4) equipped with training aids such as films, Vu-graphs, system components, audio-visual, aircraft

manuals or computer based systems.

14.235 TRAlNlNG AND QUALIFICATIONS RECORDS

(a) The AOC holder shall maintain records for each crewmember and operational control person of the completion of any training or qualification requjred by this Schedule.

(b) The crewmember may complete any curricula required by this Schedule concurrently or intermixed with other required curricula, but completion of each of these curricula shall be recorded separately.

(a) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this Subsection, a PPC is valid to - (1) where the aircraft is certificated for a maximum takeoff mass of 5,700 kg (12,500 Ibs) or more, the

first day of the seventh month following the month in which the check was completed; and (2) where the aircraft is certificated for a maximum takeoff mass of less than 5700 kg (12.500 Ibs), the

first day of the thirteenth month following the month In whlch the check was completed.

(b) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this Subsection, a PCC is valid to the first day of the thirteenth month following the month in which the check was completed.

(c) Except as provided in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this Subsection, a line check is valid to the first day of the thirteenth month following the month in which the check was completed.

(6) Where any check or required training is renewed within the last 30 days of its validity period, its validity period is extended by six or 12 months, as appropriate.

(e) The Authority may extend the validity period of a PPC, PCC, a Flight Dispatcher or Cabin Attendant competency check, a line check or any training by up to 30 days where the Authority is of the opinion that aviation safety is not likely to be affected.

(f) Completion of a check or training requirement at any time during the periods specified in paragraphs (d) and (e) of this Subsection or has lapsed by any period up to 30 days shall be considered as completed in the month-due for calculation of the next due date.

14.250 REDUCTIONS IN REQUIREMENTS

(a) The Authority may authorize reductions in, or waive, certain portions of the training requirements of this subpart, taking into account the previous experience of the crewmembers.

(b) An AOC holder's request for reduction or waiver shall be made in writing and outline the basis under which the request is made.

(c) If the request was for a specific crewmember, the correspondence from the Authority authorizing the reduction and the basis for it shall be filed in the record the AOC holder maintains for that crewmember.

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(d) With the approval of the Authority, correspondence courses or written examinations may be used to reduce the amount of classroom time for ground training subjects.

APPENDICES

(a) Situations designated as critical by the Authority at special aerodromes designated by the Authority or at special aerodromes designated by the AOC holder include -

(1) the prevailing visibility value in the latest weather report for the aerodrome is at or below 314 mile: (2) the runway visual range for the runway to be used is at or below 4.000 feet; (3) the runway to be used has water, snow, slush or similar conditions that may adversely affect aircraft

performance; (4) the braking action on the runway to be used is reported to be less than "good"; (5) the crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 knots; (6) windshear is reported in the vicinity of the aerodrome; or (7) any other condition in which the PIC determines it to be prudent to exercise the PIC'S prerogative.

(b) Circumstances which would be routinely be considered for deviation from the required minimum line operating flight time include--

(1) a newly certified AOC holder does not employ any pilots who meet the minimum flight time requirements; or

(2) an existing AOC holder adds to its fleet a type aircraft not before proven for use in its operations.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.065: COMPANY PROCEDURES ~NDOCTRINA~ON

(a) Each AOC holder shall ensure that all operations personnel are provided company indoctrinatioh training that covers the following areas -

(1) AOC holdefs organization, scope of operation, and administrative practices as applicable to their assignments and duties;

(2) appropriate provisions of these Schedules and other applicable Schedules and guidance material; (3) AOC holder policies and procedures; (4) applicable crewmember manuals: and (5) appropriate portions of the AOC holdefs operations manual.

(b) The AOC holder shall provide a minimum of 40 programmed hours of instruction for company procedures indoctrination training unless a reduction is determined appropriate by the Authority.

(a) Each AOC holder not holding a permanent approval to carry dangerous goods shall ensure that- (1) personnel engaged in general cargo handling have received training to carry out their duties in respect

of dangerous goods. At a minimum this training shall cover the areas identified in Column 1 of Table 1 and be to a depth sumcient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods and how to identify such goods; and

(2) aircraft crewmembers, passenger handling staff and security staff employed by the AOC holder who deal with the screening of a passengers and their baggage, have received training which, at a minimum, shall cover the areas identified in Column 2 of Table 1 and be to a depth sufficient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods, how to identify them and what requirements apply to the carriage of such goods by passengers.

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Table 1 I Areas Of Dangerous Goods I I .. I

Labelling I I A

Danaerous Goods in passengers Baggage X

Emergency Procedures I I x I Note: x indicates an h a to be covered.

(b) Each AOC holder holding a permanent approval to carry dangerous goods shall ensure that - (1) personnel engaged in the acceptance of dangerous goods have received training and are qualified to

carry out their duties. At a minimum, this training shall cover the areas identified in Column 1 of Table 2 and beto a depth sufficient to ensure the staff can take decisions on the acceptance or refusal of dangerous goods offered for carriage by air;

(2) personnel engaged in ground handling, storage and loading of dangerous goods have received training to enable them to carry out their duties in respect of dangerous goods. At a minimum, this training shall cover the areas identified in Column 2 of Table 2 and be to a depth sufficient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods, how to identify such goods and how to handle and load them;

(3) personnel engaged in general cargo handling have received training to enable them to carry out their duties in respect of dangerous goods. At a minimum, this training shall cover the areas identified in Column 3 of Table 2 and be to a depth sufficient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods, how to identify such goods and how to handle and load them;

(4) flight crewmembers and load planners have received training which, at a minimum, shall cover the areas identified in Column 4 of Table 2. Training shall be to a depth suffcient to ensure that an awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods and how they should be carried on an aircraft; and

(5) passenger handling staff, security staff employed by the operator who deal with the screening of passengers and their baggage and crewmembers (other than flight crewmembers) have received training which, at a minimum, shall cover the areas identified in Column 5 of Table 2. Training shall be to a depth sufficient to ensure that awareness is gained of the hazards associated with dangerous goods and what requirements apply to the carriage of such goods by passengers or, more generally, their carriage on an aircraft.

(6) afiperator's staff acting as shippers and operator's staff preparing dangerous goods as Company Material (COMAT) have received training which, at a minimum, shall cover the areas identified in Column 6 of Table 2. Training shall be to a depth sufficient to ensure the staff can package, mark. label and prepare the required shipper's declaration documents.

(c) Each AOC holder shall ensure that all personnel who require dangerous goods training receive recurrent training at intervals of not longer than 1 year except personnel who ship and accept dangerous goods, in which case the training shall be every two years..

(d) Each AOC holder shall ensure that records of dangerous goods training are maintained for all personnel requiring such training and that these records are maintained at the location where the personnel perform such duties.



(e) Each AOC holder shall ensure that its handling agent's staff are trained in accordance with the applicable column of Table 1 or Table 2.

Table 2 Note: x indicates an area to be covered. Areas Of Training I 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 1 5 1 6

General Philosophy I x I x ( x I x I x 1 x Limitations on Dangerous Goods in Air Transport General Requirements for Shippers Classification and List of Dangerous Goods General Packina Reauirements and Packing lnstruGons ' I x 1

(f) An AOC holder shall provide dangerous goods training manuals which contain adequate procedures and information to assist personnel in identifying packages marked or labelled as containing hazardous

x.

Package Marking and Labelling Documentation from the Shipper Acceptance of Dangerous Good, Including the Use of a Checklist

. - . - materials inchdin& ,

I I

(1) instructions on the acceptance, handling and caniage of hazardous materials; (2) instrud~ons governing the determination of proper shipping names and hazard classes; (3) packaging, labelling, and marking requirements; (4) requirements for shipping papers, compatibility requirements, loading. storage and handling

requirements; and (5) restrictions.

X

X

X

Packaging Specifications Marking I x 1

x

X

Initial and annual recurrent crew member security training shall include as a minimum the following elements-

(1) determination of the seriousness of any occurrence; (2) crew communication and coordination; (3) appropriate selfdefence responses; (4) use of non-lethal protective devices assigned to crewmembers whose use is authorized by the

Auulority; (5) understanding of behaviour of terrorists so as to facilitate the ability of crewmembers to cope with

hijacker behaviour and passenger responses; (6) live situational training exercises regarding various threat conditions; (7) flight deck procedures to protect the aeroplane; and (8) aeroplane sea* procedures and guidance on least-risk bomb location where applicable.

I X

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X

x x x x x

X

x

X

x x x

X

v


APPENDIX 7.m 14.080: lNlTlAL CREW RESOURCE MANAGEMENTTWNING

(a) Each AOC holder shall ensure that the Flight Dispatcher and all aircraft crewmembers have CRM training as part of their initial and recurrent training requirements.

(b) A CRM training programme shall include - (1) an initial indoctrinationlawareness segment; (2) a method to provide recurrent practice and feedback; and (3) a method of providing continuing reinforcement.

(c) Curriculum topics to be contained in an initial CRM training course include - (1) communications processes and decision behaviour; (2) internal and external influences on interpersonal communications; (3) barriers to communication; (4) listening skills; (5) decision making skills; 46) effective briefings; (7) developing open communications; (8) inquiry, advocacy and assertion training; (9) crew self-critique; (10) conflict resolution: ' (1 I) team building and maintenance; (12) leadership training; (13) interpersonal relationships: (14) workload management; (15) situational awareness; (16) how to prepare, plan and monitor task completions; (17) workload distribution; (18) distraction avoidance; (19) individual factors; and (20) stress reduction.

(a) Each aircraft crewmember shall accomplish emergency training during the specified training periods. using those items of installed emergency equipment for each type of aircraft in which he or she is to

'serve.

(b) During initial training, each aircraft crewmember shall perform the following emergency drills- -.

(1) Protective Breathing EquipmenVFire Fighting Drill - (i) locate source of fire or smoke (actual or simulated fire); (ii) implement procedures for effective crew a~rd inat ion and communication, including notification

of flight crewmembers about fire situation; (iii) don and activate installed PEE or approved PEE simulation device; (iv) manoeuvre in limited space with reduced visibility;. (v) effectively use the aircraft's communication sptem; (vi) identify class of fire; (vii) select the appropriate extinguisher; (viii) properly remove extinguisher from securing device; (ix) prepare, operate and discharge extinguisher propedy; and (x) uti l ie correct fire fighting techniques for type of fire; and

(2) Emergency Evacuation Drill - (i) recognize and evaluate an emergency;

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(ii) assume appropriate protective position; (iii) command passengers to assume protective position; (iv) implement crew coordination procedures; (v) ensure activation of emergency lights; (vi) assess aircraft conditions; (vi~) initiate evacuation (dependent on signal or decision); (viii) command passengers to release seatbelts and evacuate; (ix) assess exit and redirect, if necessary; to open exit, including deploying slides and commanding

helpers to assist: (x) command passengers to evacuate at exit and run away from aircraft; (xi) assist special need passengers, such as handicapped, elderly. and persons in a state of panic;

and (xii) actually exit aircraft or training device using at least one of the installed emergency evacuation

slides.

(Note: The crewmember may either observe the aircmfl exits being opened in the emergency mode and the associated exit slide/rafl pack being deployed and inflated, or perform the tasks resulting in the accomplishment of these actions.,,

(c) Each aircraftcrewmember shall accomplish additional emergency drills during initial and recurrent training, including performing the following emergency drills -

(1) Emergency Exit Drill - (i) correctly pre-flight each type of emergency exit and evacuation slide or slideraft (if part of Cabin

Attendant's assigned duties); (ii) disarm and open each type of door exit in normal mode; (iii) close each type of door exit in normal mode; (iv) arm each type of door exit in emergency mode; (v) opening each type of door exit in emergency mode; (vi) use manual slide inflation system to accomplish or ensure slide or slideraft infiation; (vii) open each type of window exit; and (viii) remove escape rope and position for use;

(2) Hand-held Fire Extinguisher Drill - (i) perform a pre-flight inspection on each :ype of hand-held fire extinguisher; (ii) locate source of fire or smoke and identify class of fire; (iii) select appropriate extinguisher and remove from securing device; (iv) prepare exlinguisher for use; (v) actually operate and discharge each type of installed hand fire extinguisher;

(Note: Fighting an actual or a simulated fire is not necessary during this drill.)

(vi) utilize correct firefighting techniques for type of fire; and (vii) implement procedures for effective crew coordination and communication, including notitication

of crewmembers about the type of fire situation;

(3) Emergency Oxygen System Drill - (i) actually operate portable oxygen bottles, including masks and tubing; (ii) verbally demonstrate operation of chemical oxygen generators: (iii) prepare for use and operate oxygen device property, including donning and activation; (iv) administer oxygen to self, passengers, and to those penons with special oxygen needs; (v) utilize proper procedures for effective aww w d i n a t i o n and communication; (vi) manually open each type of oxygen mask compartment and deploy oxygen masks; (vii) identify compartments with extra oxygen masks; (viii) implement immediate action decompression procedures; and (ix) reset oxygen system, if applicable;

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(4) Flotation Device Drill - (i) don and inflate life vests; (ii) remove and use flotation seat cushions; (iii) demonstrate swimming techniques using a seat cushion; and (iv) demonstrate use of adulVchild vest; and

(5) Diiching Drill, if applicable - (Note: During a ditching drill students shaN perfon the "prior to impad" end 'afier impact" procedures for a ditching, as appropriale to the specific operetots type of operelion.)

(i) implement crew co-ordination procedures, including briefing with Captain to obtain pertinent ditching information and briefing flight attendants;

(ii) co-ordinate time frame for cabin and passenger preparation; (iii) adequately brief passengers on ditching procedures; (iv) ensure cabin is prepared, including the securing of carry-on baggage, lavatories, and galleys; (v) demonstrate how to properly deploy and inflate sliderafts; (vi) remove. position, attach sliderafts to aircraft; (vii) inflate rafts; (viii) use escape ropes at overwing exits; (ix) command helpers to assist; (x) use slides and seat cushions as flotation devices; (xi) remove appropriate emergency equipment from aircraft; . .

(xii) board rafts properly; (xiii) initiateraft management procedures (i.e., Disconnecting rafts from aircraft, applying immediate

first aid, 'rescuing persons in water, salvaging floating rations and equipment, deploying sea anchor, tying rafts together, activating or ensuring operation of emergency locator transmitter);

(xiv) initiate basic survival procedures (i.e., removing and utilizing survival ki items.repairing and maintaining raft, ensuring protection from exposure, erecting canopy, communicating location. providing continued first aid, providing sustenance);

(xv) use heaving line to rescue persons in water: (xvi) tie sliderafts or rafts together; (xvii)use life line on edge of slideraft or rafl as a handhold; and (xviii) secure survival kit items.

(d) Each aircraft crewmember shall accomplish additional emergency drill requlrements during initial and annual recurrent training including observing the following emergency drills--

(1) Sliderafl Transfer Drill - (i) transfer of each type of slideraft pack from an unusable door to a usable door; (ii) disconnect slideraft at unusable door; (iii) redirect passengers to usable slideraft; and (iv) installation and deployment of slideraft at usable door; and

(2) Emergency Evacuation Slide Drill - (i) open armed exit with slide or slideraft deployment and inflation; and (ii) egress from aircraft via the evacuation slide and run away to a safe distance.

&P€NmX 1 TO 14.090: INITIAL AIRCRAFT GROUND TWNING CURRICULUM FUOHT CREW

(a) Each AOC hdder shall have an initial aircraft ground training curriculum for the flight crew applicable to their duties, the type of operations conducted and aircraft flown, Instructions shall include at least the following general subjects -

(1) AOC holder's dispatch, flight release or flight locating procedures; (2) principles and methods for determining weight and balance and runway limitations for takeoff; (3) adverse weather recognition and avoidance and flight procedures that shall be followed when

operating in the following conditions -

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(i) icing; (ii) fog; (iii) turbulence; (iv) ' heavy precipitation; (v) thunders'torms; (vi) low-level windshear and microburst; and (vii) low visibility;

(4) normal and emergency communications procedures and navigation equipment including the AOC holder's communications procedures and ATC clearance requirements;

(5) navigation procedures used in area departure, enroute, area arrival, approach and landing phases; (6) a i r traffic control systems, procedures, and phraseology: and (7) aircrafl performance characteristics during all flight regimes, including -

(i) the use of charts, tables, tabulated data and other related manual information; (ii) normal, abnormal andemergency performance problems; (iii) meteorological and weight limiting performance factors (such as temperature, pressure.

contaminated runways, precipitation, climblrunway limits): (iv) inoperative equipment performance limiting factors (such as MEUCDL, inoperative antiskid); and (v) special operational conditions (such as unpaved runways, high altitude aerodromes and drifl

down requirements).

(b) Each AOC holder shall have an initial aircrafl ground training curriculum for the flight crew applicable to their duties, the type of operations conducted and aircrafl flown, including at least the following aircrafl systems -

(I) aircrafl - (i) aircrafl dimensions, turning radius, panel layouts, cockpit and cabin configurations; and

, (ii) other major systems and components or appliances of the aircraff: (2) powerplants -

(i) basic engine description (ii) engine thrust ratings; and (iii) engine components such as accessory drives, ignition, oil. fuel control. hydraulic, and bleed air

features; (3) electrical -

(i) sources of aircrafl electrical power (engine driven generators. APU generator, and external power);

(ii) electrical buses; (iii) circuit breakers; (iv) aircrafl battery; and (v) standby power systems:

(4) hydraulic - (i) hydraulic reservoirs, pumps, accumulators; filters, check valves, interconnects and actuators;

and (ii) other hydraulically operated components;

(5) fuel - (i) fuel tanks (location and quantities); (ii) engine driven pumps; (iii) boost pumps; (iv) system valves and crossfeeds; (v) quantity indicators; and (vi) provisions for fuel jettisoning;

(6) pneumatic -



(i) bleed air sources (APU or external ground air); and (it) means of routing, venting and controlling bleed air via valves, ducts, chambers, and temperature

and pressure limiting devices; air conditioning and pressurization - (i) heaters, air conditioning packs, fans and other environmental control devices; (ii) pressurization system components such as outflow and negative pressure relief valves; and (iii) automatic, standby and manual pressurization controls and annunciators; flight controls - (i) primary controls (yaw, pitch, and roll devices); (ii) secondary controls (leadingnrailing edge devices, flaps, trim and damping mechanisms); (iii) means of actuation (directlindirect or fly by wire); and (iv) redundancy devices; landing gear - (i) landing gear extension and retraction mechanism including the operating sequence of struts,

doors and locking devices, and brake and antiskid systems, if applicable: (ii) steering (nose or body steering gear); (iii) bogie arrangements; (iv) airlground sensor relays: and (v) visual downlock indicators; ice and rain protection - (i) rain removal systems; and (ii) anti-icing andlor de-iclng system(s) affecting flight controls, engines, pitot static probes, fluid

outlets, cockpit windows and aircraft structures; equipment and furnishings - (i) exits: (ii) galleys; (iii) water and waste systems: (iv) lavatories; (v) cargo areas; (vi) crewmember and passenger seats; (vii) bulkheads; (viii) seating andlor cargo configurations; and (ix) non-emergency equipment and furnishings;

navigation equipment - (i) flight directors; (~i) horizontal situation indicator; (i~i) radio magnetic indicator; (iv) navigation receivers (GPS, ADF, VOR, RNAV, Marker Beacon, DME); (v) inertial systems (INS. IRS); (VI) functional displays; (vii) fault indications and comparator systems. (viii) aircraft transponders; (ix) radio altimeters; (x) weather radar: and (xi) cathode ray tube or computer generated displays of aircraft position and navigation information; auto flight system - (i) autopilot; (ii) autothrottles; (iii) flight director and navigation systems:



(iv) automatic appmach tracking; (v) autoland: and (vi) automatic fuel and performance management systems; flight instruments - (i) panel arrangement; (ii) flight instruments (attitude indicator, directional gyro, magnetic compass, airspeed indicator,

vertical speed indicator, altimeters, standby instruments); and (iii) instrument power sources and Instrument sensory sources (e.g.. pitot static pressure); display systems - (I) weather radar; and (ii) other CRT displays (e.g.. checklist, verticai navigation dr longitudinal navigation displays): communication equlpment - (i) VHFIHF radios: (ii) audio panels; (iii) inflight interphone and passenger address systems; (iv) voice recorder; and (v) airlground passive communications systems (ACARS); warning systems - (i) aural, visual, and tactile warning systems (including the character and degree of urgency related

to each signal); and (ii) warning and caution annunciator systems (including ground proximity and takeoff warning

systems); fire protection - (i) fire and overheat sensors, loops, modules or other means of providing visual andlor aural

indications of fire or overheat detection; (ii) procedures for the use of fire handles, automatic extinguishing systems and extinguishing

agents; and (iii) power sources necessary to provide pmtection for fire and overheat conditions in engines, APU.

cargo baylwheel well, cockpit, cabin and lavatories; oxygen - (i) passenger, crew and portable oxygen supply systems; (ii) sources of oxygen (gaseous or solld); (iii) flow and distribution networks; ('N) automatic deployment systems; (v) regulators, pressure levels and gauges; and (vi) sewidng requirements; lighting - (i) cockpl, cabln and external lighting systems; (ii) power sources; (iii) switch positions; and (Iv) spare lightbulb locations; emergency equipment - (I) fire and oxygen bottles; (11) first aid kits; (111) lierafts and l i e preservers; (Iv) crash axes; (v) emergency exits and Ilghts; (vi) slldes and sllderaRs; (dl) escape streps or handles; and

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(viii) hatches, ladders and movable stain; and

(22) Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) - .

(i) electric and bleed air capabilities; (ii) interfaces with electrical and pneumatic systems; (iii) inlet doors and exhaust ducts; and (iv) fuel supply.

(c) Each AOC holder shall have an initial aircraft ground training curriculum for the flight crew applicable to their duties, the type of operations conducted and aircrafl flown. including at least the following aircraft systems integration items -

(1) use of checklist - (i) safety chocks; (ii) cockpit preparation (switch position and checklist flows); (iii) checklist callouts and responses; and (iv) checklist sequence;

(2) flight planning - (i) performance limitations (meteorological, weight, and MEUCDL items); (ii) required fuel loads; and (iii) weather planning (lower than standard takeoff minimums or alternate requirements);

(3) navigation systems -

(i) pre-flight and operation of applicable receivers; (ii) onboard navigation systems; and (iii) flight plan information input and retrieval;

(4) autoflight - (i) autopilot, autothrust and flight director systems, including the appropriate procedures, normal

and abnormal indications, and annunciators; and

(5) cockpit familiarization - (i) activation of aircrafl system controls and switches to include normal, abnormal and emergency

switches; and (ii) control positions and relevant annunciators, lights or other caution and warning systems.

(d) Each AOC holder shall have an initial aircraft ground training curriculum for the flight crew applicable to their duties, the type of operations conducted and aircraft flown, including a curriculum for flight crewmembers in meeting passenger cabin safety requirements for aircraft that do not require a Cabin Attendant. The curriculum shall include -

(1) aircraft exits - (i) general information; (ii) exits with slides or slidelrafts (pre-night and normal operation); (iii) exits without slides (pre-flight and normal operations); and (iv) window exits;

(2) passenger handling responsibilities - (i) crewmember general responsibilities, including passenger safety briefing (normal and abnormal

operations); (ii) infants. children. and unaccompanied minors; (iii) passengers needing special assistance; (iv) passengers needing special accommodation; (v) carry-on stowage requirements; (vi) use of portable electronic equipment;

'

(vii) passenger seating requirements; and (viii) smoking and no smoking requirements;



(3) routine crewmember duties and procedures - (i) reporting duties and procedures for specific aircraft; (ii) pre-departure duties and procedures prior to passenger boarding; (iii) passenger boarding and deplaning duties and procedures; (iv) prior to movement on the surface duties and procedures: (v) prior to takeoff duties and procedures applicable to specific aircraft; (vi) in-flight duties and procedures; (vii) prior to landing duties and procedures; (viii) movement on the surface and arrival duties and procedures; (ix) after arrival duties and procedures; (x) intermediate stops; (xi) first Aid training; (xii) survival training; (xiii) cabin safety briefing (planned and un-planned emergency); and (xiv) if applicable, surface contamination

(a) Each AOC holder shall have an initial ground training curriculum for Cabin Attendants applicable to the type of operations conducted and aircraft flown, including at least the following general subjects -

(1) aircraft familiarization - (i) aircraft characteristics and description; (ii) flight deck configuration; (iii) cabin configuration; (iv) galleys; (v) lavatories; and (vi) stowage areas;

(2) aircraft equipment and furnishings - (i) cabin Attendant stations; (ii) cabin Attendant panels; ,

(iii) passenger seats; (iv) passenger service units and convenience panels; (v) passenger information signs; (vi) aircraft markings; and (vii) aircraft placards;

(3) aircraft systems - (i) air conditioning and pressurization system; (ii) aircraft communication systems (call, interphone and passenger address); (iii) lighting and electrical systems; (iv) oxygen systems (flight crew. observer and passenger); and (v) water system;

(4) aircraft exits - (i) general ~nformation; (ii) exits with slides or slidelrafts (pre-flight and normal operation); (iii) exits without sl~des (pre-flight and normal operations); and (iv) window exits;

(5) crewmember communication and co-ordination - (i) authority of PIC; (ii) routine communication signals and procedures; and (iii) crewmember briefing;

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(6) routine crewmember duties and procedures - (I) crewmember general responsibllities; (11) repwting duties and procedures for specific aircraft (iil) predeparture duties and procedures prior to passenger boarding; (Iv) passenger boarding and deplaning duties and procedures; (v) prior to movement on the surface duties and procedures; (A) prior to takeoff duties and procedures applicable to specific aircraft; (vii) inflight duties and procedures; (viii) prior to landing duties and procedures; (Ix) movement on the surface and arrival duties and procedures; (x) after artival duties and procedures; (xi) lntennediate stops; (xii) first Aid trainlng; (xiii) survival trainlng; (xiv) minimum Equipment List (MEL); and (m) surface mntamlnation;

(7) passenger handling responsibilities - (i) crewmember general responsibilities; (li) infants. children, and unaccompanied minors; (iil) passengers needing special assistance; O passengers needing special accommodation; (v) canyon stowage requirements; (vi) passenger seating requirements; and (vil) smoking and no smoking requirements;

(8) human perfonnance training as related to passenger cabin safety duties; (B) high altitude physiology regarding the effect of lack of oxygen and, in the case Of pressurized aircraft.

the physiological phenomena accompanying a loss of pressurization; (10) company accident prevention and safety progiamme.

(b) Each AOC holder shall have an initial ground training curriculum for Cabin Attendants applicable to the type of operations conducted and aircraft flown, including at least the following aircraft specific emergency subjects -

(1) emergency equipment - (I) emergency communication and notification systems; (ii) aircraft exits; (ili) exits with slides or slidelrafts (emergency operation); (Iv) slides and sliddrafts In a ditching; (v) exits without slides (emergency operation); (vi) window exits (emergency operation); (vii) exits with tailcones (emergency operation); (viii) cockpit exits (emergency operation); (ix) ground evacuation and ditching equipment; (x) first aid equipment; (1) portable oxygen systems (oxygen bottles, chemical oxygen generators, protective breathing

equipment (PEE)); (xil) fire-fighting equipment; (1ii) emergency lighting systems; and (xlv) additional emergency equipment;

(2) emergency assignments and procedures - '(i) general types of emergencies specific to aircraft; (ii) emergency mmmunlcation signals and procedures;

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(iii) awareness of the other crewmembers' assignments and functions in the event of an emergency so far as is necessary for the fulfilment of the Cabin Attendant's own duties.

(iv) rapid decompression; (v) insidious decompression and cracked window and pressure seal leaks; (vi) fires; (vii) ditching; (viii) ground evacuation; (ix) unwarranted evacuation (i.e.. passenger initiated); (x) illness or injury; (xi) abnormal situations involving passengers or crewmembers; (xii) hijacking; (xiii) bomb threat; (xiv) turbulence; (xv) other unusual situations; and (xvi) previous aircraft accidents and incidents; and

(3) aircraft specific emergency drills - (i) emergency exit drill; (ii) hand fire extinguisher drill; (iii) emergency oxygen system drill; (iv) flotation device drill; (v) ditching drill, if applicable; (vi) life-raft removal and inflation drill, if applicable; (vii) slidekaft pack transfer drill, if applicable; (viii) slide or slidelraft deployment, inflation and detachment drill, if applicable; and (ix) emergency evacuation slide drill, if applicable.

(c) Each AOC holder shall ensure that initial gmund training for Cabin Attendants indudes a competence check given by the appropriate supervisor or gmund instructor to determine his or her abil i i to perform assigned duties and responsibilities.

(d) Each AOC holder shall ensure that initial aircraft gmund training for Cabin Attendants consists of at laast the following programmed hours of instruction unless fewer hours are approved by the Authority-

(1) multi-engine aircraft with MCTOW exceeding 20,000 kg (44,090 Ibs) - 200 hours; and (2) multi-engine aircraft with MCTOW of 20,000 kg (44.090 Ibs) and less - 100 hours.

APPENDIX 3 TO 14.090: IN~AL AIRCRAFT GROUND TWNINO CURRICULUM - Fuatn DISPATCHER

(a) Each AOC holder shall provide initial aircraft ground trainlng for Flight Dispatchers that Include instruction in at least the following general dispatch subjeds -

(1) applicable contents of the Operations Manual; (2) normal and emergency communications pmdures; (3) available sources of weather information; (4) actual and prognostic weather charts; (5) interpretation of weather information; (6) seasonal meteorological conditions and the sources of meteorological information; (7) adverse weather phenomena (e.g. dear air turbulence. windshear and thunderstorms); (8) effects of meteorological conditions on radio reception in the aircraft used; (9) notice to Airmen (NOTAM) system; (10) peculiarities and limitations of each navigation system which is used by the operation; (1 1 ) navigational charts and publications; (12) air traffic control (ATC) and instnrment procedures; (13) familiarbtion with operational area; (14) characteristics of special aerodromes and other operationally significant aerodromes which the

operator uses (i.e.. terrain, approach aids, or prevailing weather phenomena);

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(15) joint Flight Dispatcherlpilot responsibilities.

(b) Each AOC holder shall provide initial aircraft ground training for Flight Dispatchers that include instruction in at least the following aircraft characteristics - (I) general operating characteristics of the AOC holder's aircraft; (2) aircraft specific training with emphasis on the following topics -

(i) aircraft loading instructions; (li) aircraft operating and performance characteristics; (iii) radio communications and navigation equipment capability; (iv) instrument approach and communications equipment; and (v) emergency equipment;

(3) flight manual training: and (4) equipment training.

(c) Each AOC hdder shall provide initial aircraft ground training for Flight Dispatchers that include instruction in at least the following emergency procedures -

(1) assisting the flight crew in an emergenw and (2) alerting of appropriate governmental, company and private agencies.

(d) Each AOC holder shall ensure that initial ground training for Flight Dispatchers includes a competence check given by an appropriate supervisor or ground instructor that demonstrates the required knowledge and abilies to accomplish the - (I) assistance of the PIC in the flight preparation and providing of relevant information; (2) assistance in the operational and ATC flight plan preparation; (3) furnish the PIC while in flight the information that may be necessary to safe conduct of the flight; and (4) in the event of an emergency, initiate such procedures as may be outlined in the operations manual.

&PENDlX 4 TO 14.090: I N ~ M GROUND AND FUGHT TRAlNlNG INSTRUCTIOU HOURS - FUGHT CREW

An AOC hdder shall provide flight crewmembers with the following minimum initial ground and flight training as applicable to the airaaft category -

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Note 1: Denotes the number of passenger seats for which Me ainraff was ceMed.

"May be mduced to that time necessary for 3 landings as follows, provided aN other training has been completed in a Level C full flight simulator - - one nonnal and one balked landing, one f a k e d with engine failure after the gear is up: and - one full stop landing wilh simulated engine failure.

"' Tudoprop and jet aircraffaly trelning to be approved in exceptional instances only.

Note 2: (1) A LevelA Full Flight Simulator (FFS) is a synthetic treining device that has a motion and visual system thet pennils completion of a vlsual training progremme end PPC. However, the sophistication of the device is such that there is also a requirement to complete airborne training and an airborne PPC. Recurrent training (and

PPCs) may be conducted wholly in a Level A device, if approved by the Authority. (2) A Level 8 FFS is a synthetic training device that has a higher fidelily visual and motion system than that of a LevelA device. The system allows the device to accurately replicate aircraft handling when wilhin ground effect and pennils accurate depth perception and visual cues to assess sink rate. As a resuil, il has "landing credils" attached to il (i.e. aN recurrent treining and 90 day currency requirements may be completed in a Level B or higher synthetlc trainlng device). (3) Level C and D FFS aia synthetic trainhg devices that have a much higher level of fidelity in their visual and motlon systems compared to Level B simulators. All recurrent training may be conducted in the Level C or D FFS. Only Level D simulators are suilable for zero flight time initial training programmes. (4) Flight frainlng time in the matrix is expected to be flight times (block to block). A maximum of 15 minules is allowed for ground time for each flight (i.e. air time must be 45 minutes of each how logged for flight training purposes). (5) Pilots will complete an equal amount of Pilot Not Flying (PNF) time in the simulator in addition to the Pilot Flying (PF) times given in the chad.

(a) An operator shall complete the full traininglchecking programme for each typeof aircraft as specified in this Schedule unless credits are given in the case of large aircraft that have considerable commonality in flight deck, systems, handling and procedures. This may result in an abbreviated training and checking programme approved on the basis of USA, Canada or JAA-approved manufacturer's training matrixes.

(b) The bese aircraff type is the aircraft on which the flight crewmember is already type-rated and current and the second aircraff type is the aircraft type for which the completion of conversion training will meet licensing standards for the issue of a type rating. Completion of conversion training and the issue of a rating may form the basis for mixed fleet flying which permits flight crews to maintain currency on two ,

similar types of aircraft with a reduced traininglchecking programme.

(c) Typical minimum entry qualifications to conversion training programmes require at least three months or a minimum of 150 hours experience on the base aircraft type before entering a conversion training programme for the second aircraft type. Once approved into a conversion programme, the flight crewmembefs base aircraft type recurrent training and PPC may be extended to one-year validity to establish a stagger to arrive at alternating training and checks on each type.

(d) Alternating training, proficiency and route checks shall be used when mixed fleet flying results from such conversion training. After six months flight on the line, a 6 month proficiency check shall be done on the second type. If satisfactory and the pilot is recommended by the check pilot, the check may be twelve months later on the second type provided that at the next six month point a check is done on the base aircraft type. In order to establish the required stagger between the two alternating type proficiency check requirements, the company shall provide a proposed schedule of the checks on both types. It shall commence from the last proficiency check on the base aircraft type and shall identify where exlensions may be required to establish the required alternate checking schedule. The Authority may then issue a deviation to the regulations governing proficiency checking on a one-time basis for each pilot to establish the initial schedule. The base aircraft may be extended up to six months but not if that

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will result in more than twelve months having passed f r m the date of the last check. The second aircraft second check date may be advanced or extended not more than two months to establish the six month interval of the check dates for each type. Line training on the second type may have sectors reduced to a mlnimum of two. governed by any other factors such as MNPS. long range navigation, specific route complexity, sector requirements, etc.

(e) Line checks shall alternate between types each year. No mixed fleet flying shall be permitted until all supervised line flying training and a satisfactory line check has been completed on the second aircraft type and a consolidation period has been completed (as applicable). Ninetyday landing currency shall be deemed to be met from landings on either type in the simulator with the provision that at least one actual landing must have been completed on one of the aircraft. Special operational qualifications attained in one aircraft, such as ETOPs, MNPS or low visibility operations. shall be deemed to have been met on the other aircraft provided all approved annual training proficiency and route currency requirements are met.

(f) The minimum ground training programme for conversion training to a variant aircraft is - (1) for large aircraft, the following times If the manufacturer has not recommended any -

(i) 20 hours (Cabin Attendants - 10 hours); and (ii) home study - 5 hours (cockpit set-uplchecklist);

(2) 15 hours for small, multi-engine and turbine powered aircraft; and (3) 5 hours for small singleengine, non-turbine powered aircraft.

(Note: Aircrafl conversion times approved by other CAAs may be approved by the Authority in lieu of these times, if the applicant requests such.)

(a) Each AOC holdershall ensure that pilot initial flight training includes at leasi the following - (Note: Flight training may be conducted in an appropriate aircrefl or adequate training simulator (simulator shall have landing capabilw).)

(1) preparation - (i) visual inspection (for aircraft with a flight engineer, use of pictorial display authorized); (ii) pre-taxi procedures; and (iii) performance limitations;

(2) surface operation - (i) pushback; (ii) powerback taxi. if applicable to type of operation to be conducted; (iii) starting: (iv) taxi; and (v) pre takeoff checks;

(3) takeoff - .

(i) normal; (ii) crosswind; (iii) rejected; (iv) power failure after V,: and (v) lower than standard minimum, if applicable to type of operation to be conducted;

(4) climb - (i) normal; and (ii) one-engine inoperative during climb to enroute altitude;

(5) enroute - (i) steep turns;

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(ii) approaches to stalls (takeoff, enroute and landing configurations); (iii) inflight powerplant shutdown: (N) inflight powerplant restart; and (v) high speed handling characteristics;

(6) descent - (i) normal; and (ii) maximum rate;

(7) approaches - (i) VFR procedures: (ii) visual approach with 50% loss of available power (2 engines inoperative on 3-engine aircraft,

one of which is to be the centre engine and for &engine aircraft, the loss is to be on one side) (PIC only);

(iii) visual approach with slatiflap malfunction; (iv) IFR precision approaches (ILS and GPS, if applicable, normal and ILS with one-engine

inoperative); (v) IFR non-precision approaches (NDB normal and VOR normal and GPS, l applicable); (vi) non-precision approach with one engine inoperative (LOC backcourse procedures, LDA, GPS

and circling approach procedures, if circling approaches below 1000 ft-3 sm are conducted);

(Note: Simulator shall be qualified for treining/checking on the cirding manoeuvre.)

(vii) missed approach from precision approach; (viii) missed approach from non-precision approach; and (ix) missed approach with powerplant failure;

(8) landings - (i) normal with a pitch mistrim (small a i r p f t only): (ii) normal from precision instrument approach; (iii) from precision instrument approach with most criticalengine inoperative; (iv) with 50% loss of of available power (2 engines inoperative on %engine aircraft, one of which is to

be the centre engine and for 4-engine aircraft, the loss Is to be on one side) (PIC only); (v) with flaplslat malfunction; (vi) rejected landings: (vii) crosswind; (viii) manual reversionldegraded control augmentation: (ix) shortisoft 6eId (small aircraft only); and (x) glassylrough water (seaplanes only);

(9) after landing - (i) parking; (ii) emergency evacuation; and (iii) docking, mooring. and ramping (seaplanes only);

(10) other flight procedures during any airborne phase - (i) holding; (ii) TCAS alerts; (iii) ice accumulation on airframe; ( i ) air hazard avoidance; and (v) windshearlmicroburst;

( I I ) normal, abnormal and alternate systems procedures during any phase - (i) pne~matid~ressurizatkn: (ii) air conditioning; (lii) fuel and oil; (N) electrical;

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THE CIVIL A VIATION REGULATIONS,

hydraulic; flight controls; anti-icing and de-icing systems; auto~ilot: flight management guidance systems andlor automatic or other approach and landing aids; stall warning devices, stall avoidance devices, and stability augmentation systems; airborne weather radar; flight instrument system malfunction; communications equipment; and navigation systems; and

emergency systems procedures during any phase - (i) aircrafl fires; (ii) smoke control; (iii) powerplant malfunctions; (iv) fuel jettison; (v) electrical, hydraulic, pneumatic systems; (vi) flight control system malfunction; and (vii) landing gear and flap system malfunction.

(b) Each AOC holder shall ensure that flight engineer flight training includes at least training and practice in procedures related to the carrying out of flight engineer duties and functions, including the appropriate items from paragraph (a) of this Appendix. This training and practice may be accomplished either in flight, in an aircraft simulator or a training device.

Each AOC holder shall provide initial and recurrent training and checks for those specialized operations approved in accordance with the Manual of Special Operations Approvals to ensure that each pilot and Flight Dispatcher is qualified in the type of operation in which he or she serves and in any specialized or new equipment, procedures and techniques, such as -

(1) Class II navigation -

(i) knowledge Of specialized navigation procedures, such as MNPSIBRNAVIRNP; and (ii) knowledge of specialized equipment, such as INS, GPS, MLS;

(2) CAT II and CAT Ill approaches - (i) special equipment, procedures and practice; and (ii) a demonstration of competency;

(3) lower than standard minimum takeoffs - (i) runway and lighting requirements; (ii) rejected takeoffs at, or near, V, with a failure of the most critical engine; (iii) taxi operations; and (iv) procedures to prevent runway incursions under low visibility conditions:

(4) extended range operations with two engine aeroplanes (ETOPS); (5) precision runway monitored approaches (PRM); and (6) airborne radar approaches.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.110: USE OF SIMULATORS, TRAINING DEVICES AND CABIN EMERGENCY EVACUATION TWINERS

(a) Flight Simulator Device (FSD). A FSD may have one of two classifications - (1) Flight Training Device (FTD); or (2) Full Flight Simulator (FFS).

(b) Turbo-jet aircraft initial, recurrent, requalification and upgrade flight training shall be completed in a FFS, or a combination of a FTD, FFS and the aircraft, or a combination of a FFS and the aircraft. Turbo-jet

[The Inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18dZ0081


aircraft initial and recurrent PPCs shall be conducted in a FFS or a combination of a flight simulator and the aircraft.

(c) Unless otherwise authorized by the Authority, an operator of large pressurized turbeprop aeroplanes and aeroplanes authorized to carry more than 19 passengers shall conduct initial, recurrent. requaliication and upgrade flight training in a FFS, or a combination of a FTD, FFS and the aircraft, or a combination bf a FFS and the alrmft. The PPC following training shall be conducted in a FFS or a combination of a flight simulator and the aircraft.

(d) Where a flight simulator, as required by (b) or (c) of this Appendix, is not physically available for the aircraft type or is temporarily not available due to unforeseen operational circumstances, the Authority may approve training and checking in the aircraft.

(e) Approved Simulator Training Programme - . (1) an air operator using an approved Level A, B or C FFS is permitted to conduct most initial.

upgrade and recumnt training in that simulator. Addionally, flight training in an aircraft must be carried out for general handling and landing manoeuvres for initial and upgrade training;

(2) the following training in respect of SOPS for normal, abnormal and emergency operation of the aircraft systems and components shall be carried out in the FFS - (i) use of aircraft checklists; (11) flight and cabin crew co-operation, command and co-ordination; (iii) aircraft and cargo fire on the ground and while airborne; (iv) engine fire and failure; (v) effects of engine Icihg and antiice operations; (vi) takeoff, landing and flight with the crltical engine inoperative, including drift-down and engine

inoperative perfmance capabilities; (vii) on 9 and Qengine aircraft, innight procedures, including approach and landing with 2 engines

inoperatid; (vili) loss of pressurization and emergency descent (if applicable); (i) Right control failures and abnormalities; (x) hydraulic, eiactrical and other system failures; (xi) failure of navigation and communication equipment; (xii) pilot incapadtation - recognltlon and response during various phases of flight; (mil) approach to the stall and recovery procedure with ground contact imminent and ground contact

nol a factor (dean. take-off and landing configuration); (xiv) buffet boundary wet, steep turns (45" of bank), and other flight characteristics such as

unusual attitudes (as applicable for initial and upgrade only); (xv) aircraft performance for Climb, auise, holding, descent and landing: (mi) normal, noise abatement and performance limited take-offs; (nvil)take-off and landing data calculatians., (xviii) rejected take-off procedures and rejected landings; (Ax) passenger and aew evacuation; (xx) FMGS. GPWS, TCAS and other spedalbed airaeA equipment (as applicable); (mi) one escape m a n o e m pdormed in VMC and one escape m a n o e m performed in IMC (1

applicable) fo(low(ng a GPWS warning; and (di)where the FFS is a level B device or higher, recovery from turbulence and vdwlndshear on take

off and apmch. (3) where the air operator is authcdzed for flight in IMC, the fdlowlng training In flight planning and

Instrument fllght procedures shall be induded - (I) departure, emwte, holding and anival; and (fi) all tVpes of instrument approaches and missed appmaches in minimum vlsibllity & i

using all lev& of automation available (as applicable). (4) In addition to the training in an approved Level A or B FFS, the following flight trainlng on the a M

(ypeshallbecarriedout- (I) mterlar and axterior alraaft pdllght chedts:

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(ii) ground handling for P-LC; (iii) normal take-off, visual circuit (where possible) and landing: (iv) a simulated engine inoperative approach and landing; (v) simulated engine failure procedures during take-off and missed approach (at safe altitude and

airsneed): - - r - - - , . (vi) no electronic glide slope approach and landing: and (vii) circling (if company has circling minima approved below 1000-3) and other apprOach5S where . . . . . .

the simulator lacks the capabiity.

(5) depending upon the fidelity of an approved Level C FFS, credit may be given for some of the items listed in paragraph (e) (4) of this Appendix.

(6) if a flight simulator has differences in performance, syslems or cockpit layout and configuration from the air operator's aircraft, additional training on these differences shall be provided.

(f) Conditional Zero Flight Time Simulator Training Programme - (1) an air operator may be approved for a zero flight time training programme using a Level C FFS

for candidates with either PIC or SIC experience on a similar aeroplane with the same operator or verifiable line currency on a similar aeroplane within the previous two years;

(2) for the purpose of this provision, "similar aeroplane" means - (i) turbo-jet to turbo-jet - provided both are certified as transport category aeroplanes; (ii) turbo-prop to turbo-prop - provided both are certified as transport category aeroplanes; and/or (iii) reciprocating to reciprocating - provided both are certified for 20 or more passenger seats.

(3) in addition to those items of training required in paragraphs (e)( l) and (2) of this Appendix, the training in an approved Level C flight simulator shall include - (i) manoeuvring of the aeroplane on the ground; (ii) crosswind take-offs and landings to 100% of the published crosswind component; (iii) a visual training programme in the flight simulator to ensure VFR flight skills, covering scenarios

of dusk and night with variable weather and visibilities. This programme shall include the following - (A) normal and crosswind take-offs, visual circuils and landings with variable wind, runway

illusion and surface conditions; (0) engine inoperative approach and landing; (C) engine failure procedures during take-off and missed approach; (D) no electronic glideslope approach and landing; and (E) approaches and landings with flight control failures and abnormalities; and

(iv) a simulated line flight comprising at least 2 sectors (one as pilot flying and another as pilot not flying).

f4) if a Level C flight simulator has differences in performance, systems or cockpit layout and configuration from the air operator's aeroplane, additional training on these differences shall be provided.

(5) candidates who do not qualify in accordance with paragraph (f) (1) of this Appendix shall undergo aeroplane flight training consisting of at least those items listed in paragraphs (e) (4) (i-iv) of this Appendix.

(g) Zero Flight Time Training Programme - (1) an air operator using an approved Level D FFS may be permitted a zero flight time training

programme. (2) in addition to the training required in paragraph (f) of this Appendix using a Level C FFS, the following

FFS training shall be carried out at an appropriate point in the training programme - (i) a VFR treining programme in the Level D flight simulator of at least 4 hours per crew consisting

of 2 hours as pilot flying and 2 hours of pilot not flying, to ensure visual flight skills to cover day, dusk and night with variable weather and visibility scenarios. This programme shall include the following - (A) normal and crosswind take-offs and visual circuits and landings, with variable

wind, runway illusion and surface conditions: (0) engine inoperative approach and landing;

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(C) engine failure procedures during take-off and missed approach; (D) no visual aids approaches and landings; and (E) approaches and landings with Right control failures and abnormalities;

(Note: Where a pilot demonstmtes a satisfactory level of performance in visual manoeuvres, the operator may use the time specified in pamgmph (g) (2) (i) of this Appendix as additional training to that required by any of the Level C requirements.)

(ii) Simulated line flights of at least 2 sessions (2 sectors as pilot flying and 2 sectors as pilot not flying) are required. Pilot flying duties shall be carried out from the appropriate seat.

(3) if a Level D flight simulator has differences in performance, system or cockpit layout and configuration from the air operator's aeroplane, additional training on these differences shall be provided.

(h) The requirements for a cabin emergency evacuation trainer are as follows - (I) the aeroplane type@) shall be accurately represented with respect to cabin layout and stowage for

safetv and emergency equipment in relation to the emergency exits orovided. All features of the real aeroplane passeingeiand dabin Attendant seats adjacent to ihe exits must be incorporated;

(2) each approved aeroplane exit type shall be capable of both normal and emergency operation and shall be representative in components, dimensions, weight and balance and method of operation, including extent of movement and forces. These specifications also apply to a free standing exit trainer;

(3) an .appropriate surface area shall be provided outside each emergency exit to enable occupants to leave the trainer during evacuation drills;

(4) the trainer need contain only those items which are representative of the aeroplane type(s) operated by the air operator;

(5) a minimum of four (4) rows of cabin seats with a proportional aisle(s) will be installed, in order to simulate a realistic cabin layout for emergency evacuation exerciseldrills;

(6) the trainer shall be equipped with - (i) a minimum of two (2) operational emergency exits (one door and one alternate exit or two (2)

doors, as applicable) - plus one operational window exit (where applicable). The air operator may choose to equip the trainer with doors representative of more than one aeroplane type. Trainers may be equipped with operational exits on either the left or right side or both;

(ii) at least one Cabin Attendant station located at an operational exit and additional Cabin Attendant stations may be required depending on the grouping of exits contained in the trainer:

(iii) an operational PMntercom system and appropriate Cabin Attendant panel(s) at each Cabin Attendant station:

(iv) safety and emergency equipment of a type currently required on the aeroplane in the appropriate brackets and locations;

(v) operational flight deck and cabin call chimes; (vi) internal cabin markings, such as placards and exit markings; (vii) normal and emergency cabin lighting, including fail features; (viii) passenger service units (PSUs) with deployable oxygen masks for passenger and Cabin

Attendant seats; (ix) operation 'No SmokinglFasten Seat Belt" ordinance signs visible from each passenger seat and

Cabin Attendant stationlposition; (x) a method of simulating an IJnSe~iceable exit@); (xi) fire simulation at window and door exits; (xii) simulated cabin windows and features necessary to darken the cabin; (xiii) facilities and sufficient speakers to simulate sound effecvcrash noises audible throughout the

cabin; and (xiv) smoke simulation capabilities.

(i) Regulatory approval for use of training devices in lieu of an aeroplane will be contingent on the compatibility of the device to the related components of the training programme and issued in conjunction with programme approval.

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(j) Where an air operator arranges to use the emergency evacuation trainer or free standing exit trainer owned by another air operator, the training shall compty with the approved training programme and operating procedures of the air operator whose crews are being trained. Items/equipment in the trainer shall be restricted if significant differences of cabin layout and equipment exist.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.120: A l R C R M bND INSTRUMENT PROFICIENCY CHECK: PILOT

The PPC flight test requirements specified in the Company Check Pilot Manual shall be completed.

Satisfactory completion of a PPC, including the instrument portion, following completion of an approved air carrier training programme for the particular type aircraft, satisfies the requirement for an aircraft type rating practical test and an instrument rating.

A Chief Pilot conducting a PCC on pilots of tumine-powered single-engine aircraft must have accumulated a minimum of 500 hours on turbine-powered aircraft prior to conducting the PCC.

The oral and flight test phases of a proficiency check should not be conducted simultaneously.

When the examiner determines that an applicant's performance is unsatisfactory, the examiner shail so advise the applicant immediately but may, with the consent of h e applicant, continue with the flight as a training flight.

If the check must be terminated (for mechanical or other reasons) and there are events which still need to be completed, the examiner shall issue a letter of discontinuance, valid for 60 days, listing h e specific areas of operation that have been successfully completed and which need not be repeated.

Examiners shall include during proficiency checks for flight engineers an oral or written examination of the normal. abnormal and emergency procedures listed below - (I) normal procedure*

(i) interior pre-flight; (ii) panel set-up: (iii) fuel load: (iv) engine start procedures: (v) taxi and before takeoff procedures; (vi) takeoff and climb pressurization; (Mi) cruise and fuel management: (viii) descent and approach; (ix) after landing and securing: (x) crew co-ordination: (xi) situational awareness, traffic scan, etc.: (xii) performance computations; and (xiii) anti-ice, de-ice; and

(2) abnormal and emergency procedure* (i) troubleshooting: (ii) knowiedge of checklist: (iii) ability to perform procedures; (iv) crew coordination; (v) minimum equipment list (MEL) and configuration deviation list (CDL); and (vi) emergency or alternate operation of aircraft flight systems.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.1 30: COMPETENCE CHECKS: CABIN ATTENDANTS

(a) Evaluators shail conduct competency checks for Cabin Attendants to demonstrate that the candidate's proficiency level is sufficient to successfully perform assigned duties and responsibilities.

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(b) A qualified supervisor or inspector, approved by the Authority, snall observe and evaluate competency checks for Cabin Attendants.

(c) Evaluators shall include during each Cabin ~ttendant competency check a demonstrated knowledge of- (1) emergency equipment-

(i) emergency communication and notification systems; (ii) aircraft exits; (iii) exits with slides or sliderafts (emergency operation);

-(iv) slides and sliderafts in a ditching; (v) exits without slides (emergency operation); (vi) window exits (emergency operation); (vii) exits with tailcones (emergency operation); ,

(viii) cockpit exits (emergency operation); (ix) ground evacuation and ditching equipment; (x) first aid equipment; (xi) portable oxygen systems (oxygen bottles, chemical oxygen generators, protective breathing

equipment (PEE)); (xii) fire fighting equipment; (xiii) emergency lighting systems; and (xiv) additional emergency equipment;

(2) emergency procedures-

(i) general types of emergencies specific to aircraft; . (ii) emergency communication signals and procedures; (iii) rapid decompression; (iv) insidious decompression and cracked window and pressure seal leaks; (v) fires; (vi) ditching; (vii) ground evacuation; (viii) unwarranted evacuation (i.e., passenger initiated); (ix) illness or injury; (x) abnormal situations involving passengers or crewmembers; (xi) turbulence; and (xii) other unusual situations:

(3) emergency drills-

(i) location and use of all emergency and safety equipment carried on the aircraft; (ii) the location and use of all types of exits; (iii) actual donning of a lifejacket where fitted; (iv) actual donning of protective breathing equipment; and (v) actual handling of fire extinguishes.

(4) Crew Resource Management- (i) decision making skills; (ii) briefings and developing open communication: (iii) inquiry, advocacy, and assertion training; and (iv) workload management:

(5) dangerous goods - (i) recognition of and transportation of dangerous goods; (ii) package marking and labelling; (iii) instructions regarding limitations for passengers and crewmemben; and (iv) in-flight emergency response procedures.

(6) security-

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THE CIVIL AVIATIONREGULATIONS, 2004

(i) flight deck security in-flight and communication; (ii) hijacking procedures; (iii) disruptive passengers handling procedures; and (iv) handling suspicious objects or bomb.

(a) Evaluators shall conduct competency checks for Flight Dispatchers to demonstrate that the candidate's proficiency level is sufficient to ensure the successful outcome of all dispatch operations.

(b) A qualified supervisor, approved by the Authority, or inspector shall observe and evaluate competency checks for Flight Dispatchers.

(c) 'Each competency check for Flight Dispatchers shall include - (1) an evaluation of all aspects of the dispatch function; (2) a demonstration of the knowledge and abilities in normal and abnormal situations; and (3) an observation of actual flights being dispatched.

(d) Each evaluator of newly hired Flight Dispatchers shall include during initial competency checks an ,

evaluation of all of the geographic areas and types of aircraft the Flight Dispatcher will be qualified to dispatch.

(Note: The evaluator may approve a competency check of representative aircraft types and routes when, in the supernisoh judgement, a check including all types is impractical or unnecessary.)

(e) Evaluators may limit initial equipment and transition competency checks solely to the dispatch of the types of aeroplanes on which the aircraft dispatcher is qualifying (unless the check is to simultaneously count as a recurrent check).

(f) Each evaluator of Flight Dispatchers shall include, during recurrent and requalification competency checks, a representative sample of aircraft and routes for which the aircraft dispatcher maintains a current qualification

(g) The Authority requires special operations competency checks before an aircraft dispatcher is qualified in ETOPS or other special operations authorized by the Authority.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.140: SUPERVISED LINE FLYING REQUIREMENTS - PILOTS

(a) Supervised line flying training is required for pilots who are assigned to duty on aircraft authorized for more than 9 passenger seats and on all aircraft before bemg assigned to international flight operations. Supervised line flying training shall be conducted over parts of the air operator's route structure that are typical of those over which the flight crew will be expected to fly. The following areas shall be covered during supervised line flying training and noted in records as having been completed -

(1) command of the aircraft - (i) crew management and discipline; (ii) responsibilities of the pilot-in-command and other flight crew members; and (iii) responsibilities of the cabin crew:

(2) aircraft and equipment - (i) MEL policy and procedures; (ii) C of A and other aircraft documentation; (iii) deferred defects; (iv) maintenance release; (v) manuals and log books; (vi) Flight Data Recorder and Cockpit Voice Recorder; (vii) emergency exits - number, access, hghting and marking; (viii) fire extinguishers; (ix) fire axe; and (x) oxygen and first a ~ d equipment and survival equipment;


THE CIVIL A VIA TlON REGULA TIONS, 2004

(3) dispatch - (i) personnel, hours of operation, operational control; and (ii) company fuel policy;

(4) aircraft servicing and ramp safety - (i) fuelling procedures; (ii) load security: (iii) ground equipment and handling; (iv) air operator's aircraft de-icing policy and procedures; and (v) aircraft parking:

(5) reporting for duty; (6) licence requirements; (7) aircraft library; (8) flight time, duty day limitations and rest requirements; (9) pre-flight safety and crew briefings; (10) ramp push back and starting engines; (1 1) after-start checks; (12) pre-flight checks and securing cabin; (1 3) rejected take-off and brake cooling chart; (14) departure sequence -

(i) lookout; and (ii) after take-off checks;

(15) climb procedures; (16) cruise -

(i) fuel management and checks; and (ii) enroute diversion;

(17) approach procedures - (i) organization and briefing of approach; (ii) descent; and (iii) pre-landing check and cabin security.

(18) landing and taxiing - (i) contaminated runway operations; and (ii) after landing checks;

(19) shutdown; (20) flight and maintenance logs and records; (21) defect recording and clearing: (22) emergency procedures -

(i) hi-jack bomb threat procedures; (ii) aircraft evacuation; (iii) airport emergency services; and (iv) engine inoperative procedures: and

(23) special considerations such as significant terrain, noise abatement, unique SAR requirements, etc. (where applicable).

(b) During supervised line flying training, a tight crewmember shall be given the following minimum experience while performing the duties appropriate to the crew station. S6ctorshours acquired during proving or ferry flights may be counted towards this requirement. The required number of tlying hours and sectors apply to the PIC and the SIC -

(1) for the purpose of line indoctrination aircraft are grouped as follows - (i) reciprocating engine powered; (ii) tudmpropeller powered: and

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(iii) turbo-jet powered: (2) for the purposes of supervised line flying training a sector is a flight composed of a take-off.

departure, arrival and landing including at least a 25 nm enroute segment. (3) general requirements for supervised line flying training are as follows -

(i) crewmembers who have not. qualified and served in the same capacity on the same group of aircrafl shall complete initial supervised line flying training;

(ii) crewmembers who have qualified and served in the same capacity on the same group of aircrafl shall complete transition line indoctrination where applicable;

(iii) initial and transition supervised line flying training shall be conducted under the supervision of a training pilot or an approved CCP;

(iv) during initial supervised line flying training, the pilot-in-command and second-in-command shall perform the duties of the position, with the training pilot occupying the opposite pilot operating position; and

(v) during transition supervised line flying training, the pilot-in-command and second-in-command shall perform the duties of the position;

(Note: The training pilot may occupy the jump seat if the transitioning pilot has completed at least 2 sectors as pilot flying and has setisfactorily demonstrated to the training pilot that he or she is qualitied to pedorm the duties of the position.)

(4) specific requirements for initial supervised line flying training on reciprocating-engine powered aircrafl shall be as follows -

(i) each pilot shall perform or show knowledge of, as applicable, a mandatory list of operating manoeuvres and procedures and complete 12 flying hours and 6 mandatory sectors, a minimum of 2 sectors to be performed as pilot flying and 2 sectors as pilot not flying; and

(ii) afler completing the 6 mandatory sectors, the remaining time may be reduced by 1 hour for each additional sector flown to a.maximum 50% reduction of the original time requirement;

(5) specific requirements for initial supervised line flying training on turbo-propeller powered aircraft shall be as follows -

(i) each pilot shall perform or show knowledge of, as applicable, a mandatory list of operating manoeuvres and procedures as detailed in paragraph (a) of this Appendix and complete 10 flying hours in domestic operations or 20 flying hours in internati~~al operations and 6 mandatory sectors, a minimum of 2 sectors to be performed as pilot flying and 2 sectors as pilot not flying; and

(ii) afler completing the 6 mandatory sectors, the remaining time may be reduced by 1 hour for each additional sector flown to a maximum 50% reduction of the original time requirement;

(6) specific requirements for initial supervised line flying training on turbo-jet powered aircrafl shall be as follows -

(i) each pilot shall perform or show knowledge of, as applicable, a mandatory list of operating manoeuvres and procedures as detailed in paragraph (a) of this Appendix and complete 10 flying hours in domestic operations or 25 flying hours on international operations and 6 mandatory sectors, a minimum of 2 sectors to be performed as pilot flying and 2 sectors as pilot not flying; and

(ii) where operations are combined, a minimum of 25 flying hours shall be required;

(7) specific requirements for transition supervised line flying training on reciprocating-engine powered aircraft shall be as follows -

(i) each pilot shall perform or show knowledge of, as applicable, a mandatory list of operating manoeuvres and procedures as detailed in paragraph (a) of this Appendix and complete 8 flying hours and 6 mandatory sectors, a minimum of 2 sectors to be performed as pilot flying and 2 sectors as pilot not flying; and

(ii) afler completing the 6 mandatory sectors, the remaining time may be reduced by 1 hour for each additional sector flown to a maximum 50% reduction of the original time requirement;

(8) specific requirements for transition supervised line flying training on turbo-propeller powered aircrafl shall be as follows - . . -



(i) each pilot shall perform or show knowledge of, as applicable, a mandatory list of operating manoeuvres and procedures as detailed in paragraph (a) of this Appendix and complete 10 flying hours and 6 mandatory sectors, a minimum of 2 sectors to ca performed as piiot flying and 2 sectors as piiot not flying; and

(~i) after completing the 6 mandatory sectors, the remaining time may be reduced by 1 hour for eech additional sector flown to a maximum 50% reduction of the original time requirement

(9) specific requirements for transition supervised line flying training on turbo-jet powered a i m R shall be as follows -

(i) each pilot shali perform or show knowledge of, as applicable, a mandatory list of operating manoeuvres and procedures as detailed in paragraph (a) of this Appendix and complete 10 flying hour during domestic operations or 25 flying hours during international operations, and 8 mandatory sectors, a minimum of 2 sectors to be performed as piiot flying and 2 sectof6 as pHot not flying; and

(ii) after completing the 8 mandatory sectors. the remaining time may be reduced by 1 hour for each additional sector flown to a maximum 50% reduction of the original time requirement: and

(10) a fl~ght crewmember who is qualified for domestic operations shali complete a minimum of 8 hours and 4 sectors transition supervised iine flying training before being qualified in international fllght operations.

APPENDIX 1 TO 14.150: SUPERVISED LINE FLYING EXPERIENCE - CABIN ATENDAMS

(a) Line flying under supervision (iine indoctrination) shall be completed within ninety (90) days following the completion of the air operatoh initial training on each aeroplane type that a person will be assigned a crewmember station within the following groupings -

(1) tub- je t aeroplanes; (2) pressurized propeller driven aeroplanes; or (3) unpressurized propeller driven aeroplanes.

(b) Where an air operator operates and a flight attendant is assigned to duty on more than one type of aeroplane in a grouping, iine indoctrination may be completed on any one type in that grouping.

(c) A record of training shall be kept for each trainee and shall be signed by the instructor certifying that line indoctrination has been completed. The record shall include the aeroplane type, date and flight number of the flight undertaken.

(d) A Cabin Attendant trainee shall complete individual line indoctrination training on a revenue flight In accordance with the requirements set out in paragraph (e) of this Appendix.

(e) A Cabin Attendant trainee shall - (I) be assigned to two revenue flights with passengers onboard, each co&osed of a lake-off and

landing and at least 30 minutes at the normal cruising altitude for the aeroplane; (2) be assigned a Cabin Attendant station and perform the duties of a Cabin Attendant under the

supervision of a qualified flight attendant; (3) be in addition to the number of required crewmembers for the operation of the flight and the

aeroplane type with the ratio of trainees to qualified Cabln Attendants not greater than one to one; and

(4) participate in: (i) reporting for duty; (ii) me-flight crew briefings; (iii) pre-flight safety and emergency equipment checks; (iv) passenger boarding procedures; (v) door dosing and, if applicable, associated slide arming procedures; (vi) pre-flight passenger safety briefings/demonstrations; (vii) pre-flight and pre-landing warnings and checks and securing of cabins and galleys; (viii) silent review; (ix) post takeoff procedures; (x) in-flight procedures pertaining to safety;

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(xi) cabin unservlceabilities reportlnglrecording; and (xii) a debriefing immediately following completion of line indoctrination.

APPSNDu 1 TO 14.180: RECURRENT TRAlNlNO CURRICULUM: FUOHT CREW

(a) Each AOC holder shall establish a rewnent training programme for all flight crewmembers In the AOC holder's operations manual and shall have it approved by the Authority.

(b) Each flight crewmember shall undergo recurrent training relevant to the type or variant of aircraft on which he or she is certified to operate and for the crewmember position involved.

(c) Each AOC holder shall have all rewnent training conducted by suitably qualified personnel

(d) Each AOC holder shall ensure that flight aewmember recurrent ground training includes at least the following -

(1) general subjects - (i) flight locating procedures; (il) principles and method for determining weightbalance and runway limitations; (iii) meteorology to ensure practical knowledge of weather phenomena including the principles of

frontal system, icing, fog, thunderstorms, windshear and high altitude weather situations; (iv) ATC systems and phraseology: (v) navigation and use of navigational alds; (vi) normal and emergency communication procedures; (vii) visual cues before descent to MDA; (viil) accidentlincldent and occurrence review; and (ix) other instructions necessary to ensure the pilot's competence;

(2) aircraft systems and limitations - (i) normal, abnormal and emergency procedures; (il) aircraft pefformance characteristics; (iii) engines and or propellers; (lv) major aircraft components; (v) major aircraft systems (i.e., flight controls, electric, hydraulic and other systems as appropriate);

and (vi) ground icing and de-icing procedures and requirements;

(3) emergency equipment and drills - (i) every 12 months--

(A) location and use of all emergency and safety equipment canied on the aircraft; (B) the location and use of all types of exits; (C) actual donning of a Mejacket where fitted; (D) actual donning of protective breathing equipment; and (E) actual handling of fire extinguishers;

(ii) every 3 yea*

(A) operation of all types of exits; (B) demonstration of the method used to operate a slide, where ftted; and (C) fire-fighting using equipment representative of that canied in the aircraft on an actual or

simulated fire;

(Note: With halon exfmgulshem, an eellemative melhodacceptaWe lo the Authotity may be US&.)

(D) effects of smoke in an enclosed area and actual use of all relevant equipment in a simulated smoke-filled environment;

(E) actual handling of pyrotechnics, real or simulated, where fitted; (F) demonstration In the use of the liieraft(s), where fM; (G) arl emergency e v b t i o n drill;

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(H) a ditching drill, if applicable; and (I) a rapid decompression drill. if applicable;

(iii) Crew Resource Management- (A) decision making skills; (0) briefings and developing open communication; (C) inquiry, advocacy and assertion training; (D) workload management: and (E) situational awareness; .

(iv) dangerous goods-

(A) recognition of and transportation of dangerous goods; (B) proper packaging, marking and documentation; and (C) instructions regarding compatibility, loading, storage and handling characteristics; and

(v) security-

(A) hijacking; (B) disruptive passengers; and (C) the elements of Appendix 1 to 14.075.

(e) Each AOC holder shall verify knowledge of the recurrent ground training by an oral or written examination.

(f) Each AOC holder shall ensure that pilot recurrent flight training includes at least the following - (Note: Flight training may be conducted in an appropriate aircraff or adequate training simulator (simulator shall have landing cepabilily).)

(1) preparation - (i) visual inspection (use of pictorial display authorized); and (ii) pretaxi procedures;

(2) surface operation- (i) performance limitations; (ii) cockpit management; (iii) securing cargo; (iv) pushback; (v) powerback taxi; (vi) starting; (vii) taxi; and (viii) pre take-off checks;

(3) takeoff - (i) normal; (ii) . crosswind; (iii) rejected; (iv) power failure after V,: (v) powerplant failure during second segment; and (vi) lower.than standard minimum, if applicable:

(4) climb- (i) normal; and (ii) oneengine inoperative during climb to enroute altitude;

(5) enmute- (I) steep turns; (ii) approaches to stalls (takeoff. enroute and landing configurations); (iii) inflight powerplant shutdown;

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THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULA TIQNS, 2004

(iv) inflight powerplant restart; and (v) high speed handling characteristics;

(6) descent - (i) normal; and (ii) maximum rate;

(7) approaches- (i) VFR procedures; (ii) visual approach with 50% loss of power (2 engines inoperative on 3-engine aircraft, with the

centre engine being one of them and for 4-engine aircraft, failure of 2 engines on one side) (PIC only);

(iii) visual approach with slatlRap malfunction; (iv) IFR precision appbches (ILS normal and GPS, if applicable, and ILS with one-engine

inoperative); (v) IFR non-precision approaches (NDB normal. VOR normal and GPS. if applicable); (vi) non-precision approach with one engine inoperative (LOC backcourse, LDA, GPS and cirding

approach procedures. if approved below 1000 ft - 3 sm);

(Note: Slmulator shell be qualfied for traininglchecking on the circling manoeuvre.)

(vii) missed approach from precision approach; (viii) missed approach from non-precision approach; and (ix) missed approach with powerplant failure;

(8) landings - (i) with a pitch mistrim (small aircraft only); (ii) normal from precision instrument approach; (iii) from precision instrument approach with most critical engine inoperative; (iv) with 50% loss of power (2 engines inoperative on 3-engine aircraft, with the centre engine being

one of them and for 4-engine aimraft, failure of 2 engines on one side) (PIC only); (v) normal with flaplslat malfunction; (vi) rejected landings; (vii) crosswind; (viii) shorVsoft field (small aircraft only); and (ix) glassylrwgh water (seaplanes only);

(9) after landing - (i) parking; (ii) emergency evacuation: and (iii) docking, mooring, and ramping (seaplanes only);

(10) other flight procedures during any alrbome phase- (I) holding; (ii) ice accumulation on airframe, if applicable; (iii) air, hazard avoidance; and ( i ) windshearlmbroburst.

(1 1) normal, abnormal and alternate systems procedum during any phase-- (i) pneumaticlpressurization; (ii) air conditioning; (iii) fuel and oil; (iv) electrical; (v) hydraulic; (vi) flight controls; (vii) antkicing and de-icing systems; (viii) flight management guidance systems andlor automatic or other approach and landing aids;

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(ix) stall warning devices. stall avoidance devices and stability augmentation systems; (x) airborne weather radar; (xi) flight instrument system malfunction; (xii) communications equipment; (xlii) navigation systems: (xiv) TCAS alerls; (xv) autepilot: (xvi) approach and landing aids: and (xvii) flight instrument system malfunction; and

(12) emergency systems procedures during any phase - (i) aircraft fires; (ii) smoke control; (iii) powerplant malfunctions; (iv) fuel jettison: (v) electrical, hydraulic, pneumatic systems; (vi) flight control system malfunction; and (vii) landing gear and flap system malfunction.

(9) Each AOC holder shall ensure that flight engineer recurrent flight training includes at least Ihe appropriate flight training from paragraph (f) of this Appendix.

(h) Each AOC holder shall ensure that flight navigator recurrent training includes enough training and an in- flight check to ensure competency with respect to operating procedures and navigation equipment to be used and familiarity with essential navigation information pertaining to the AOC holdets routes that require a flight navigator.

(i) Rewrrent gmund and flight training wmcula may be accomplished concurrently intermixed, but completion of each of Ihese wmcula shall be recorded separately.

An AOC holder shall provide the following minimum recurrent gmund and flight training instructional hours to Aight m e m b e r s as applicable to Ihe aircraft category -

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THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004' 597

Note: Denotes the number of passenger seats for which the aircrafi was certified.

"An OpSpec may be issued to give relief from the requirement to conduct treining on the aircrefi (applicable only if tmining completed on Level B or higher simulator). "* Turbopmp and jet aircreRimly tmini:?g to be approved in exceptional instances only.

(a) Each AOC holder shall establish and have approved by the Authority a recurrent training programme for all Cabin Attendants.

(b) Each Cabin Attendant shall undergo recurrent training in evacuation and other appropriate normal and ememency procedures and drills relevant to their assigned positions and the type(s) andlor varlant(s) of - . .. . . a i m % on-vjhich they operate.

(c) Each AOC holder shall have all recurrent training conducted by suitably qualified.personnel.

(d) Each AOC holder shall ensure that, every 12 months, each Cabin Attendant receive recurrent training in at least the following -

(1) emergency equipment - (i) emergency communication and notification systems; (ii) aircraft exits; (ili) exits with slides or sliderafts (emergeng operation); (iv) slides and sliderafts in a ditching; (v) exits without slides (emergency operation); (vi) window exits (emergency operation); (vii) e x b with tailcones (emergency operation); (viii) cockpit exits (emergency operation); (ix) ground evacuation and ditching equipment; (x) first aid equipment; (xi) portable oxygen sys6ms (oxygen bottles, chemical oxygen generators, protective breathing

equipment (PBE)); (xii) firefighting equipment; (xiii) emergency lighting systems; and

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' THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

(xiv) additional emergency equipment; (2) emergency procedures--

(I) general types of emergencieg specific to aircraR; (ii) emergency communication signals and procedures; (iii) rapld decompression; (Iv) Insidious decompresslon and cracked window and pressure seal leaks; (v) fires; (vi) ditching; (vli) ground evacuation: (viii) unwarranted evacuation (i.e.. passenger initiated); (lx) Illness or injury; (x) abnormal situations invoMng passengers or crewmembers; (xi) turbulence; and (xii) other unusual sltuatlons;

(3) emergency drills - (i) every 12 months -

(A) location and use of all emergency and safety equipment canied on the alruatt: (B) the location and use of all types of exits; (C) actual donning of a lifejacket where tMed; (D) actual donning of protectbe breathing equipment (E) actual handling of fire extinguishers; (F) operation of all types of exits; (G) demonstration of the method used to operate a sllde, where fitted; (H) fire-fighting using equlpment representative of that canied In the alrcfaft on an actual or

simulated fire;

(Note: Wdh halon exiinguishers, an altemaiive method acceptmble b the Authority may be used.)

(I) effects of smoke in an enclosed area and actual use of all relevant equlpment in a simulated smoke-filled environment;

(J) actual handling of pymtechnlcs, real or simulated, where fitted; (K) demonstration in the use of the lie-raft@), where fnted; (L) an emergency evacuation drill; (M) a ditching drill, if applicabb; and (N) a rapid &mpr&sion drill, If applicable;

(4) Crew Resource Management - (i) decision making skills; (11) briefings and developing open communication; (ili) inquiry, advocacy, and assertion training; and ( i ) workload management;

(5) dangerous goods - (i) recognition of and transportation of dangerous goods; (ii) proper packaging, marking and documentation; and (iii) instructions regarding compatibility. loading, storage and handling characterirtks; and

(6) security- (i) hijacking; (ii) disruptive passengers; and (ill) the elements referred to in Appendix 1 to 14.075.

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(e) An AOC holder may administer each of the recurrent training curricula concurrently or intermixed, but shall record completion of each of these curricula separately.

(a) Each AOC holder shall establish and maintain a recurrent training programme, approved by the Authority and established in the AOC holder's Operations Manual, to be.completed annually by each Flight Dispatcher.

(b) Each Flight Dispatcher shall undergo recurrent training relevant to the type@) andlor variant(s) of aircraft and operations conducted by the AOC holder.

(c) Each AOC holder shall conduct all recurrent training by suitably qualified personnel.

(d) An AOC holder shall ensure that, every 12 months, each Flight Dispatcher receive recurrent training in at least the following -

(1) aircraft-specific flight preparation; (2) emergency assistance to flight crews; ,

(3) crew resource management; and (4) dangerous goods.

(e) An AOC holder may administer each of the recurrent ground and flight training cunicula concurrently or intermixed, but shall record completion of each of these curricula separately.

Each AOC holder shall provide aircraft differences training for Flight Dispatchers when the operator has aircraft variances within the same or similar type of aircraft, which includes at least the following -.

(1) operations procedures--

(i) operations under adverse weather phenomena conditions, including clear air turbulence. windshear and thunderstorms;

(ii) weight and balance computations and load control procedures: (iii) aircraft performance computations, to include takeoff weight limitations based on departure

runway, arrival runway and enroute limitations, and also engine-out limitations; (iv) flighi planning procedures, to indude route selection, flight time and fuel requirements analysis: (v) dispatch release preparation; (vi) crew briefings; (vii) flight monitoring procedures: (viii) flight crew response to various emergency situations, induding the assistance that the Flight

Dispatcher can provide in each situation; (ix) MEL and CDL procedures; (x) manual performance of any required procedures in case of the loss of automated capabilities; (xi) training in appropriate geographic areas; (xii) ATC and instrument procedures, to include ground hold and central flow control procedures; and (xiii) radioAelephone procedures; and

(2) emergency procedures--

(I) actions taken to aid the flight crew; and (ii) AOC holder and Authority notifcation.

A?PEN#x 1 To 14.195: C O M P M CHECK PILOT Q u w n c ~ n o n s AND TRAINING

(a) No person may use a person, nor may any person serve as a CCP (aircraft) or CCP (simulator) unless that person has met the requirements specified in the Company Check Pilot Manual and has been approved by the Authority.

(b) Each AOC holder shall ensure that the CCP has received the initial ground training for a Flight Insbudor as specitied In paragraph (c) of Appendix 1 to 14.200.



(c) Transition ground training for all CCPs shall include the approved methods, procedures and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal and emergency procedures applicable to the aircraft to - .~ which the company check pilot is in transition.

(d) Each AOC holder shall ensure that the Initial and transition flight training for CCP (aircraft) includes - (1) , training and practice In conducting flight.evaluations (from the left and right pilot seats for pilot check

airmen) in the required normal. abnormal and'emergenw procedures to ensure competence to - . . conduct the flight'checks;

(2) the potential results of Improper, untimely or non-execution of safety measures during an evaluation; and

(3) the safety measures (to be taken from either pilot seat for CCP for emergency situations that are likey to develop during an evaluation.

(e) Each AOC holder shall ensure that the initial and transition flight training for CCP (simulator) indudes - (1) training and practice in conducting flight chedrs in the required normal, abnormal and emergendy

procedures to ensure competence to conduct the evaluationslchecks required by this Schedule (this training and practice shall be accomplished in a flight simulator or in a flight training device); and

(2) training in the operation of flight simulators or flight training devices, or both, to ensure competence to conduct the evaluations required by this Schedule.

(0 An AOC holder may accomplish flight training for CCP in full or in part in an aircraft, in a flight simulator or in a flight training device, as appropriate.

APPENOIX 1 TO 14.200: Fuam INSTRUCTOR TRAINING

(a) No person may use a person, nor may any person serve as a flight ifistructor in a tralning programme unless -

(1) that person has satisfactorily completed the companvs initial or transition flight instructor training or has a Flight Instructor rating; and

(2) within the preceding 24 calendar months, that person satisfactorily conducts instruction under the observation of an inspector from the Authority or an AOC holdefs CCP.

(b) An AOC holder may accomplish the observation check for an instructor pilot or instructor flight engineer. in part or in full, in an aircraft, a flight simulator or a flight training device.

(c) Each AOC holder shall ensure that inlial ground training for flight instructors indudes the following- (1) flight inskctor duties, functions and responsibilities;

. . (2) applicable Schedules and the AOC holdefs policies and procedures; (3) appropriate methods. procedures and techniques for conducting the required checks; (4) proper evaluation of student performance induding the dete.ction of -

(i) improper and insufficient training, and (Ii) persorlal characteristics of an applicant that could adversely affect safety.

(5) appropriate corrective action in the case of unsatisfactory checks; (6) approved methods, procedures. and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal, and

emergency procedures in the alraaft; (7) except for holders of a Flight Instructor ratlng -

(i) the fundamental principles of the teachin@leamlng process; (ii) teaching methods and procedures: and (iii) the instructor-student relationship.

(d) Each AOC holder shall ensure that the transition ground training for flight instructors Indudes the approved methods, procedures and limitations for performing the required normal, abnormal and emergency procedures applicable to the aircraft to which the flight instructor Is in transition.

(e) Each AOC holder shall ensure that the Initial and transition flight training for instructor pilots (aircraft) includes the following -

(1) the safety measures for emergency situations that are likely to develop during instruction;

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(2) the potential results of improper, untimely or non-execution of safety measures during instruction; (3) for instructor pilot (aircraft) -

(i) infllght training and practice in conducting flight instruction from the left and right pilot seats in the required normal, abnormal and emergency procedures to ensure competence as an instructor; and

(iii the safety measures to be taken trom either pilot seat for emergency situations that are likely to develop during instruction; and

(Q An AOC holder may accomplish the flight training requirements for instructor pilots in full or in part in t i i t , tn a flight simulator or in a flight training device, as appropriate.

(g) An AOC hdder shall ensure that the Initial and transition flight training for flight instructom (simulator) includes the following -

(1) balnlng and practice In the required normal, abnormal and emergency procedures to enqure competence to conduct the flight instruction required by this Subpart. This training and practice shall be accomplihed In full or In part in a flight simulator or in a flight training device; and

(2) training in the operation of flight simulators or flight training devices, or both, to ensure competence to conduct the flight Instruction required by this Schedule.

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FIFTEENTH SCHEDULE (Regulations 67, 75j

ACCEPTABLE DUTY, FLIGHT AND REST PERIODS FOR AOC OPERATIONS PERSONNEL

SUBPARTA: GENERAL 15.001 Applicability 15.005 Definitions 15.01 0 Acronyms 15.01 5 Knowledge or Suspicion of Crew Fatigue 15.01 7 Special Flight Duty Schemes 15.01 9 Recordkeeping Responsibilities

SUBPART 6: FLIGHT TIME 15.020 Maximum Number of Flight Time Hours 15.025 Exceeding Flight Time 15.027 Maximum Number of Instruction Hours

SUBPART C: DUTY PERIODS 15.030 Crewmember Duty Time Limitations -Aircraft Certificated for 20 or More Passengers 15.035 Crewmember Duty Time Limitations -Aircraft Certificated for Less Than 20 Passengers 15.040 Deadhead Transportation 15.045 Flight Dispatcher Duty Time Limitations

SUBPART D: REST PERIODS 15.050 Relief from Duty - Aircraft Certificated for 20 or More Passengers 15.055 Relief from Duty - Aircraft Certificated for Less Than 20 Passengers 15.060 Relief From Duty - Flight Dispatcher 15.065 Crewmember Responsibilities 15.070 Air Operator Responsibilities 15.075 Scheduled Operations - Special Requirements

SUBPARTA: GENERAL

The flight and duty time limitations and rest periods provided for in this Schedule apply to Jamaican Air Operators and to crewmembers and flight dispatchers assigned to duty by Jamaican Air Operators in commercial air transport or aerial work operations.

For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply - "deadhead transportation". The time spent by crewmembers being repositioned by the AOC holder; "duty". Any task assigned by an alr operator to be carr~ed out by one of his employees; "duty period". The total tlme from the moment a person identified in this Schedule begins any work on behalf of the AOC holder until that person is relieved of all duties; "flight". The period from takeoff to landing, sometimes referred to as "sectors."; "flight duty". A duty performed by a crewmember during flight time; "flight duty time". The total time from the moment a flight crewmember commences duty, immediately subsequent to a rest period and prlor to mak~ng a flight or a series of flights, to the moment the flight crewmember is relieved of all duties having completed such flight or series of flights (also known as flight duty period) and includes at least 15 minutes for post-flight duties after complet~on of the flight;

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(7) "flight time". The period of time that the aircraft first moves under its own power for the purposes of taking off, until it comes to rest at the end of the flight;

(8) "rest period". A minimum of ten consecutive hours free of all duty and interruption during which the crewmember shall have the opportunity for eight consecutive hours of prone rest taken in suitable accommodation and, which is uninterrupted by the air operator;

(9) "suitable accommodation". A furnished bedroom or lounge which - (i) is subject to minimum noise; (ii) is well ventilated; (iii) contains a bed or couch, suitable for prone rest; and (iv) has the facility to control the level of light and temperature;

(10) "unforeseen operational circumstances". An event that is beyond the control of the air operator, including non-forecast adverse weather, equipment malfunctions or air traffic control delays.

The following acronyms are used in this Schedule - (1) AOC - Air Operator Certificate (and where applicable includes Aerial ~ ~ ~ l i c a t o r Certificate); (2) FE - Flight Engineer; (3) PIC - Pilot-in-command; (4) SIC - Second-in-command; (5) SCA - Senior Cabin Attendant.

(a) No person may act as a crewmember of an aircraft in commercial air transport, if he knows or suspects that he is suffering from such fatigue as may endanger the safety of the flight.

(b) No person may cause or permit a crewmember to fly In commercial air transport, if that person knows or suspects that the crewmember is suffering from such fatigue as may endanger the safety of the flight.

(a) The Authority may approve a special flight duty scheme provided that the AOC holder can demonstrate that an equivalent level of safety may be maintained.

(b) An AOC holder may elect to apply the flight crewmember flight duty and rest requirements to the cabin attendants.

(a) An air operator shall maintain a record of each crewmember's flight and flight duty times in accordance with a system set out and approved in its operations manual.

(b) The record set out pursuant to paragraph (a) shall be retained for a period of 12 months and shall accurately show a crewmember's flight and flight duty times -

(1) during a 24-hour period preceding any flight;

(2) during a 7 day per~od preceding any flight; (3) during a 28 day period preceding any flight; and (4) during a 12 month period preceding any flight.

(c) When requested by a crewmember, an air operator shall. within seven days of the request being made, provide the crewmember with a copy of the record required by paragraph (a) of this Subsection.



(a) I he AOC holaer shall ensure that the required recotus for tracking flight and duty times and rest periods are maintained in a manner so that an updated record is available before a person begins their duty day or their first flight of the day.

(e) Every person for whom the Civil Aviation Safety Regulations establish maximum flight or duty and minimum rest periods shall ensure that the required records have been updated to the day on which they begin duty.

SUBPART B: FLIGHT TIME

(a) Subject to Subsection 15.025, a person who is acting as a flight crewmember of an aircraft shall not exceed a flight time of -

(1) 35 hours during the period of seven consecutive days expiring at the end of the seventh day;

(2) 100 hours during the period of 28 consecutive days expiring at the end of the twenty-eighth day; and

(3) 1000 hours during the period of consecutive 12 months expiring at the end of the twelfth month;

(b) Subject to Subsection 15.025, a person who is acting as a cabin crewmember shall not exceed a flight time of -

(1) 40 hours during the period of seven consecutive days expiring at the end of the seventh day;

(2) 100 hours during the period of 28 consecutive days expiring at the end of the twenty-eighth day;

(3) 1000 hours during the period of 12 consecutive months expiring at the end of the twelfth month.

The Authority shall consider a person in compliance with prescribed standards if he or she exceeds any of the limitations in Subsection 15.020 when the flight is scheduled and normally terminates within the prescribed limitations but, due to unforeseen operational circumstances. is not expected at the time of departure to reach the destination within the scheduled time. In such situations. no additional flights are permitted following termination of the flight in question.

15.027 MAXIMUM NUMBER OF INSTRUCTION HOURS

Excluding briefings and debriefing?,, an instructor may neither instruct on behalf of an AOC holder nor may an AOC holder's personnel receive instruction in aircraft, approved flight simulators and approved flight training devices -

(1) for more than 9 hours in any 24 consecutive hour period; or (2) for more than 45 hours in any 7 consecutive day period.

15.030 CREWMEMBER DUN TIME LIMITATIONS - AIRCRAFT CERTIF~CATED FOR 20 OR MORE PASSENGERS

(a) Subject to paragraphs {b). (c) and (d) of this Subsection, a person who is acting as a flight crewmember of an aircraft certificated for 20 br more passengers shall not exceed -

(1) 12 hours flight duty time in any 24 hour period, where there are two pilots or two pilots and a second officer assigned to a flight engineer's position; o?



(2) 15 hours flight duty time in any 24 hour period, where there are three pilots, or three pilots and two second officers assigned to a flight engineer position and a suitable in-flight relief facility is available for crew rest;

(b) The flight duty time in paragraph (a) (1) of this Subsection may be extended - (1) by the air operator to 13 hours due to unforeseen operational circumstances; or (2) by the PIC to 15 hours due to unforeseen operational circumstances;

(c) The flight duty time in paragraph (a) (2) of this Subsection may be extended to I 7 hours by the PIC due to unforeseen operational circumstances:

(d) The flight deck duty time in paragraph (a) (2) of this Subsection - (1) shall not exceed 12 hours for any one of the flight crew; and (2) shall be equally allocated as is practical among the flight crewmembers;

(e) Except as provided in paragraph (f) of this Subsection, a person who is acting as a cabin crewmember of an aircraft shall not exceed 15 hours flight duty time in any 24 hour period;

(f) The flight duty time in paragraph (e) of this Subsection may be extended - (1) by the air operator to 16 hours; or (2) by the PIC to 17 hours, due to unforeseen operational circumstance;

(g) Where a PIC extends the flight duty time pursuant to paragraphs (b) (2), (c) or (f) (2) of this Subsection he shall file a report to the Company Chief Pilot justifying the reasons for his decision;

(h) Reports required pursuant to paragraph (g) of this Subsection shall be retained on file by the company for a period of six months.

15.035 CREWMEMBER DUTY TIME LIMITATIONS -,AIRCRAFT CERTIFICATED FOR LESS THAN 20 PASSENGERS

(a) Subject to paragraphs (b) and (c) of this Subsection, a person who is acting as a fl~ght crepmember of an aircraft certificated for less than 20 passengers shall not, In any 24 hour period, exceed a flight duty time of 11 hours, where two pilots are assigned to duty; or 10 hours, where one pilot is assigned to duty.

(b) The flight duty time of 11 hours may be extended by the PIC to 12 hours due to unforeseen operational circumstances.

(c) The flight duty time of 10 hours may be extended by the PIC to I 1 hours where a flight is delayed due to unforeseen operational circumstances.

15.040 D E A ~ H E A ~ TRANSPORTATION

If a flight crewmember is required to engage in deadhead transportation prior to beginning a flight duty assignment, all of that time shall be treated as duty time. unless they are given 10 hours of rest on the ground before being assigned to flight duty.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (b) of this Subsection, a person actingas a Flight Dispatcher for or on behalf of an AOC holder shall not exceed -

(1) 12 hours duty time any 24 hour period; or (2) 60 hours duty time in any seven consecutive day period;

(b) The duty time of a Flight Dispatcher may be increased up to a maximum of 16 hours in any 24 hour period provided -

(1) the increase Is required as a result of unforeseen circumstances beyond the control of the air operator;

(2) any such extension is authorized only once in any seven consecutive day period; and -

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(3) a report is filed w~th the Director of Operations of each extension authorized and a copy placed on the dispatcher's personal record.

SUBPART D: REST PERIODS

15.050 RELIEF FROM DUTY - AIRCRAFT CERTIFICATED FOR 20 OR MORE PASSENGERS

(a) Subject to paragraph (i) of this Subsection, an air operator shall provide a flight crewmernber with a rest period following any flight duty assignment made pursuant to Subsection 15.030.

(b) Where a flight crewmember has been assigned to flight duty for a period in excess of 12 hours, an air operator shall extend the rest period by an additional one hour for each hour, or part thereof, of flight duty time beyond 12 hours.

(c) An air operator shall not assign a flight crewmember to flight duty for a period of - (1) 24 hours following three consecutive assignments to flight duty where the flight duty time

has been in excess of 12 hours during each assignment; (2) 30 hours following any two consecutive assignments to flight duty where the flight duty time

has been in excess of 15 hours during each assignment; or (3) 36 hours following any 72 hour period during which a flight crewmember has completed

two flight duty periods in excess of 15 hours;

(d) An air operator shall not assign a flight crewmernber to flight duty for - (1) a period of one calendar day in each seven day period and a period of three consecutive

calendar days in each seventeen day period; or (2) one calendar day in each eight day period and four consecutive calendar days in each

twenty-eight day period;

(e) Subject to paragraph (i) of this Subsection, an air operator shall provide a cabin crewmernber with a rest period following any flight duty assignment made pursuant to paragraph (e) of Subsection 15.030.

(f) An air operator shall not assign a cabin crewmernber to flight duty for a period of - (1) 24 hours following any three consecutive assignments to flight duty where the flight duty

time has been in excess of 13 hours during each of the assignments; (2) 30 hours following any two consecutive assignments to flight duty where the flight duty time

has been in excess of 15 hours during each of the assignments; and (3) 36 hours following any 72 hour period during which two flight duty periods have exceeded

15 hours; '

(g) Where a cabin crewmember has been assigned to flight duty for a period in excess of 13 hours, an air operator shall extend the rest period by an additional one hour for each hour, or part thereof, of flight duty time beyond 13 hours.

(h) An air operator shall not assign a cabin crewmember to flight duty for - (1) a period of one calendar day in each seven day period and three consecutive calendar

days in each 17 day period; or (2) one calendar day in each eight day period and four consecutive days in each twenty eight

day period.

( i ) Where an air operator assigns a crewmember to flight duty for a period of six hours or less, the air operator may again assign that crewmernber to flight duty after a minimum period as specified in the operator's AOC provided that the subsequent assignment does not exceed nine hours and the crewmember is provided with a rest period as specified in paragraph (a) of this Subsection following the second assignment.

0) Time spent in local transportation in excess of 30 minutes wilLoot be considered a part of a crewmember's rest period;

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(k) Time spent in transportation, not local in character, that is required by the AOC holder to position crewmembers to or from flights is not considered part of a rest period.

(I) Time spent in deadhead transportation on aircraft to or from a crewmember's home station is not considered part of a rest period.

15.055 -RELIEF FROM DUfY - AIRCRAFT CERTlFlCATED FOR LESS THAN 20 PASSENG&S

(a) Subject to paragraph (e) of this Subsection an air operator shall provide a flight crewmember with a rest period following any duty assignment made pursuant to Subsection 15.035;

(b) Where a flight crewmember exceeds the flight duty time specified in Subsection 15.035 (a), the subsequent rest period shall be increased by an additional one hour for each hour, or part thereof, of flight duty time accumulated beyond the maximum permitted;

(c) An air operator shall not schedule a flight crewmember to flight duty for a period of 24 hours following three consecutive assignments to flight duty where the flight duty time has been in excess of 10 hours during each assignment;

(d) An air operator shall not assign a flight crewmember to flight duty for a period of one calendar day in each seven day period and a period of two consecutive calendar days in each fourteen day period;

(e) Where an air operator assigns a flight crewmhber to flight duty for a period of six hours or less the air operator may again assign a flight crewmember to flight duty after a minimum period as specified in the operator's AOC provided that the subsequent assignment does not exceed nine hours and theflight crew member is provided with a rest periodss specified in paragraph (a) of this Subsection following the second assignment.

An air operator shall provide a flight dispatcher with a rest period following any duty assignment made pursuant to Subsection 15.045 of -

(1) one day of rest for each period of eight calendar days; and (2) two consecutive days of rest in each 14 calendar days.

15.065 CREWMEMBER RESPONSIBIL~S

(a) Where a crewmember is relieved of duty pursuant to Subsections 15.050 and 15.055 (1) while away from the crewmember's base of the crewmember shall use the period to obtam

adequate rest prior to next reporting for fl~ght duty; and (2) while at the crew member's base of operation, the crew member shall report to duty in a

rested condition following the relief from duty period.

(b) Where a crewmember acts in a crewmember position for more than one air operator. that crewmember shall provide each air operator with an accurate record of all flight and flight duty time assignments.

(c) Where a crewmember changes employment as a crewmember, that crewmember shall provide a record of flight time for the last 12 months to his new employer.

(a) Where an air operator relieves a crewmember from flight duty at a point of call other than the crewmember's base of operations, the air operator shall provide suitable accommodation for crew rest.

(b) An air operator shall not assign a crewmember to duty where the assignment would result in a crewmember exceeding the night time limitations of these Regulations;

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(C) An air operator shall not assign a crewmember to reserve or standby duty for a period of more than 12 hours in any 24 hour period.

(a) An air operator conducting flight operations in accordance with a service schedule shall establish a flight duty time scheme in its company operations manual.

(b) The flight duty time scheme required pursuant to paragraph (a) of this Subsection shall be approved by the Authority where the air operator has set out procedures to ensure crewmembers are not assigned to duty on aircraft during flight time while fatigued, taking into consideration -

the numbers of sectors to be conducted during each assignment; time zone changes between consecutive assignments; shift in work schedule between consecutive assignments; night time operations; standby and reserve duty periods; positioning flight travel; deadhead transportation; and any other duty assignments.

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SIXTEENTH SCHEDULE (Regulations 67,76)

AIR OPERATOR OPERATIONAL CONTROL AND FLIGHT RELEASE REQUIREMENTS

SUBPART& GENERAL 16.001. Applicability 16.005 Definitions 16.010 Acronyms

SUBPART B: OPERATIONAL CONTROL 16.015 Operational Conbol 16.018 Operational Conbol Requlremenk 16.020 Functions Associated with Operational Conbol 16.025 Qualified Persons Required for Operational Control Functions 16.027 Flight Dispatcher Plivileges 16.030 Pilot-in-Command Responsibilities 16.035 Operational Control Duties

SUBPART C: FLIGHT RELEASE 16.045 Fliiht Release - General 16.048 Decision-Making Records 16.050 Fliiht Release: Aircrafi Maintenance Requiremenk 16.053 Fliht Release: Crew Requirements 16.055 Fliiht Release: Faciliies and NOTAMs 16.060 Fliiht Release: Weather Reports and Forecasts 16.065 Fliiht Release in Icing Conditions 16.070 Flight Release under VFR or IFR 16.075 Fllght Release: Minimum Fuel Supply 16.080 Fllght Release: Aircrafi Loading and Performance 16.085 Flight Release: Amendment or Re-release Enroute 16.090 Flight Release with Airborne Weather Radar Equipment

SUBPART A: GENERAL 16.001 APPLlcABlLrrr

(a) This Schedule prescribes the requirements for the operational control and flight release of aircraft by Jamaica AOC holders, both within Jamaica and durlng international operations outside Jamalca.

(b) This Schedule is applicable to the AOC holder, the person designated by the AOC holder to issue a flight release and any other person that performs a function warding the Riht that can be construed to fail under the definition of operational contml.

For the purpose of this Schedule. the following definitions shall apply - , '

(1) "ATC flight plan". A flight plan filed with ATC that is specific to the tliiht, which meek the minimum requirements for an internatknal flight as set out in the AIP Jamaica. A hard copy of an ATC tliiht plan shall be made available to the PIC durlng tliiht time and be available at the base of company operations;

(2) "company dlepetch". Adispatch facility and system of flight release employed by a company that provides for co-authority over the operational Riht plan. The system of company dispatch is described in the Company Operations Manual. Co-authorityof operational contml over a fllght Is exercked by the PIC and a responsible company flight dispafcher;

(3) "direct communicetionn. The ability of the Riht dispatcher,and the PIC to communicate while - (i) airborne, using the air operatofs facilies and electronic data link facility or any other fadliity

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operated by a third party according to an agreement; and

(ii) on the ground, at stations regularly served by the air operator using equipment accessible to the PIC and may include aircraft radios, telephone, data link or teletype;

"dispatch facility". The facility provided by an operator, either directly or by contract, and includes at least - (i) equipment necessary for direct radio voice, telephone, data link or teletype contact with the

PIC at each airport regularly served by the air operator within the area of responsibility;

(ii) adequate working environment including record keeping and flight planning facilities. including generally the required charts, maps, weather forecasts and reports; and

(iii) dispatchers with - copies of appropriate NOTAMs; all weather reports for airports used as destination and alternates; actual, forecast, area and terminal weather information for departure, enroute, destination and alternate aerodromes; information on flight conditions along the route of flight; aeroplane operating manuals and Minimum Equipment Lists, as appropriate; a Company Operations Manual; airport runway data and aircraft performance data; such additional information as may be needed to enable the formulation of an operational fl~ght plan or to exercise fl~ght watch services; a means to provide a hard copy of an operational flight plan, or an amendment to same, to the PIC; and a means of direct ATC contact.

"flight release". Flight release of a flight occurs when the Flight Dispatcher has approved the Operational Flight Plan and has submitted it and all other required documentation to the PIC for acceptance. When there is disagreement between the flight dispatcher and the PIC over the dispatch of a flight, the disagreement resolution policy, where one has been specifed by the air , operator, or the most conservative course of action shall be followed. "flight dispatcher". A person licensed by the Authority in accordance with the Eight Schedule and authorized, afler having met the training requirements specified in the Fourteenth Schedule, to exercise operational control over an AOC holder's flights. 'night following" - Means a system of monitoring a flight's progress and provides for timely notification to the company operations manager and search-and-rescue authorities where a flight becomes overdue or is m~ssing. Flight following procedures and the training and qualification for individuals performing flight following duties shall be described In the Company Operations Manual. "flight plan" - means that there is a record of the planned flight and that ATC has been provided with advance notice of the flight through a company centre-stored flight plan or a flight plan filed for the particular flight. "flight watch". The method of flight supervision that ensures direct communication between the responsible flight dispatcher or other assigned personnel of the AOC holder and the PIC on any matters affecting the flight between the time a flight commences and terminates at its final destination. "pilot selfdispatch". A dispatch system authorized by the company operations manager and set out in the company operations manual which provides authority to the PIC to make operational decisions with respect to the preparation for, initiation, continuation or terminat~on of a flight. Where a pilot self dispatch system is authonzed, the PIC is responsible for the OFP. "pilot reports (Company)". Reports passed to a company's base of flight operations either by air radio or telephone, to the extent that facilities permit. on the progress of each flight. Where Right following is in effect and a qualified person is on duty. the PIC shall be responsible for passing messages concerning aeroplane departures and arrivals from point of origin, enroute stops and final destination to that person. "qualified person". An individual. other than a Flight Qispatcher, qualified in accordance with this Schedule to exercise the functions and responsibilities for operational control and who is on duty at

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the company-designated base of operations while flight operations are being conducted. A qualified person is a representative of the Director of Operations.

The following acronyms are used in this Schedule - (1) AOC - Air Operator Certificate; (2) ATC - Air Traffic Control' (3) ETA - Estimated Time of Arrival; (4) ETOPS - Extended Twin-engine Operations; (5) IMC - Instrument Meteorological Conditions; (6) LVTO - Low Visibility Take Off; (7) NOTAM - Notice to Airmen; (8) OFP - Operational Flight Plan; (9) RFM - Rotorcraft Flight Manual; (10) RVR - Runway Visibility Range; (1 1) RVSM - Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum; (12) PIC - Pilot-in-c~mmand;~~,.,,, (13) SIC - Second-in-commd (14) SM - Statute Miles; (15) VMC -Visual Meteorological Conditions.

SUBPART B: OPERATIONAL CONTROL

18.015 OPERATIONAL CONTROL

(a) Every AOC holder or a designated representative shall exercise operational control of the aircraft it operates in commercial air transport and shall designate such person or persons charged with that responsibility. Operational control may be exercised by the AOC holder or contracted to a third party.

(b) The primary task of operational control is the decision-making necessary to authorize, divert or terminate a commercial air transport flight.

(c) Any person who participates in the decision-making for any of the tasks and functions associated with operational control is considered to be a party to the flight release of the aircraft and subject to the requirements of this Schedule.

(a) No AOCholder may operate an aircraft certificated for 9 or less passengers or a cargo-only aircraft with a load capacity of 3.175 kilograms (7.000 pounds) or less unless that AOC holder has an operational control system that -

(1) for VFR operations only, uses pilot self-dispatch and pilot reports with flight following procedures; and

(2) for domestic IFR, night VFR and international operations. uses a qualified person for flight following and pifot reports.

(b) No AOC holder may operate an aircraft certif i~ted for more than 9 but less than 20 passengers or cargo-only aircraft with a load capacity of more than 3.175 kilograms (7.000 pounds) unless that AOC holder has an operational control system that -

(1) for VFR operations only, uses pilot selfdispatch and pilot reports with flight following procedures; (2) for domestic IFR or night VFR . uses a qualified person for flight following and pilot reports; and (3) for international operations, uses a flight dispatcher with company dispatch and flight watch

procedures.

(c) No AOC holder may operate an aircraft certificated for 20 or more passengers, unless -

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(1) for VFR operations only, uses a flight dispatcher with company dispatch; (2) for domestic IFR, night VFR and international operations, uses a flight dispatcher with company

dispatch and flight watch procedures; and (Note: With respect to the use of company dispatch, limited pilot selfdispatch of flights may be pemHied at those enmute stops where a lack of communications facilities prevents the co- authority dispatch of a flight or where the night is a charter flight. In such cases, the air operator shall devel0D. and submit to the Authority for a~proval. Dmcedures to ensure adeouate operational infomation is made available to t h e P 1 ~ to compensate for the lack o f ~ l i ~ h t Dispatcher participation in the flight's next operational night plan.) (Note: With respect to the use of night watch, the requirements for night watch may be satisfied by a system set out in the Company Operations Manual and approved by the Authority that ensures tlmeiy communications between a PIC and the responsible Flight Dispatcher over those mutes not regulatfy served by the operator where direct communication is not practical because of a lack of facilities. Timely communication means the ability to establish communications between the PIC of a flight and the responsible flight dispatcher within 30 minutes of arn'val at a destlnation or enroute stops and within one hour while airborne.)

16.020 FUNCTIONS &SOClATED WITH OPERATIONAL CONTROL

The per6on(s) exercising responsibility for operational control for an AOC holder shall - (1) authorize the specific flight operation; (2) ensure that an airworthy aircraft properly equipped for the flight is available; (3) ensure that qualified personnel and adequate facilities are available to support and conduct the

flight; (4) ensure that proper flight plannmg and preparation is made; (5) ensure that flight locating and flight following procedures are followed; and (6) for flights with 20 or more passenger seats, ensure the monitoring of the progress of the fllght and

the provision of information to the flight crew that may be necessary to safety.

16.025 QUALIFIED PERSONS REQUIRED FOR OPERATIONAL CONTROL FUNCTIONS

A qualified person or flight dispatcher shall be designated by the AOC holder to exercise the functions and responsibilities for operational control of the flights indicated in Subsection 16.018.

16.027 FLIGHT DISPATCHER PRIVILEGES

An aircraft disoatcher licensed under the Eiahth Schedule mav. when also aualified in accordance with the Fourteenth ~dhedule, exercise the of this licence a; the on-duty ;upervisor or in the immediate dispatch of aircraft in the flight progress (flight watch) system of a scheduled air carrier.

16.030 PILOT-IN-COMMAND RESPONSIBILITIES

(a) For all flights, the PIC shares in the responsibility for operational control of the aircraft and has the situational authority to make decisions regarding operational control issues in-flight.

(b) Where a decision of the PIC differs from that recommended, the person making the recommendation shall make a record of the associated facts.

(c) The PIC may be designated as the sole person to exercise operational control when the AOC holder is using flight-locating as the primary method of flight supervision.

16.035 OPERATIONAL CONTROL DUTIES

(a) For flights where a qualified person is performing the duties associated with operational control, that person -

( 1 may assist the PIC in flight preparation and provide the relevant information required; (2). inay assist the PIC in preparing the operational and ATC flight plans;

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(3) will record departure and arrival information and any other information passed on by the PIC; (4) will furnish the PIC any information affecting the flight at enroute stops or via ATC; and (5) in the event of an emergency, will initiate the applicable procedures contained in the AOC holder's

Operations Manual.

(b) For flights where a Flight Dispatcher is performing the duties associated with operational control, that person will -

(1) asslst the PIC in flight preparation and provide the relevant information required; (2) assist the PIC in preparing the operational and ATC flight plans; (3) sign the dispatch copy of the flight release; (4) record departure and arrival information and any other information passed on by the PIC; (5) will furnish the PIC any information which may be necessary for the safe conduct of the flight by

appropriate means; and (6) in the event of an emergency, initiate the applicable procedures contained in the AOC holder's

Operations Manual. , .

(c) A qualified person or Flight ~ is~a tcher performing the operational control duties shall avoid taking any action that would conflict with the procedures established by -

(1) air traffic control: (2) the meteorolog~cal service, (3) the commun~cations servlce, or (4) AOC holder

SUBPART C: FLIGHT RELEASE

The AOC holder shall publish in the Operations Manual the procedures for flight release and clearly specify who is responsible for the preparation of the release.

16.048 DECISION-MAKING RECORDS

(a) No person may issue a flight release for a commerc~al air transport unless the required flight preparation documents have been reviewed and determined to be complete and accurate.

(b) The decision to authorize the flight release of an aircraft in commercial air transport operations must be recorded using a method that can be verified at any time withln 3 months after the fllght.

(c) The signature of the PIC, and any other required person, on a filed OFP will be the primary method of recording that decision.

(d) This flight release documentation must be retained at the point of departure by a designated representative of the AOC holder, unless the Authority has approved a different method.

(a) An aircraft shall not be released for service unless there is In force a Certificate of Release to Service that has been entered in the Technical Log and certified by;

(1) an AME whose licence has been endorsed for the aircraft type and who has been authorised to make such a certification by the AOC holder under a maintenance system which has been approved by the Authority; or

(2) an AME, employed by an AMO, or the AOC holder, who has been approved to make such a certification under a maintenance system which has been approved by the Authority.

(b) No person may issue a flight release for a commercial air transport operat~on using an aircraft with an inoperative instrument, item of equipment, or system, installed, except under the conditions specified in the Minimum Equipment List approved by the Authority for the AOC holder and for that type aircraff.



(c) No person may issue a flight release for a commercial air transport operation unless the aircraft is airworthy and properly equipped for the intended flight operation.

No person may issue a flight release for a commercial air transport operation unless the crew is qualified in accordance with the requirements of the Fourteenth and Fifteenth Schedwles.

16.055 FLIGHT RELEASE: FACILITIES AND NOTAMS

(a) No person may release an aircraft over any route or route segment unless there are adequate communications and navigational facilities in satisfactory operating condition as necessary to conduct the flight safely.

(b) The qualified person or flight dispatcher shall ensure that the PIC is provided all available current reports or information on aerodrome conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities that may affect the safety of the flight.

(Note: For therr review of the OFP, the PIC will be provided with all available NOTAMs with respect to the routing, facilities and aerodromes.)

16.060 FLIGHT RELEASE: WEATHER REPORTS AND FORECASTS

(a) No person may release a flight unless he is thoroughly familiar with reported and forecast weather conditions on the route to be flown.

(b) No person may release a flight unless he has communicated all information and reservations they may have regardmg weather reports and forecasts to the PIC.

(a) No person may release an aircraft, when in their opinion or that of the PIC, the icing conditions that may be expected or are met exceed that for which the aircraft is certified and has sufficient operational de-icing or anti-icing equipment.

(b) No person may release an aircraft any time conditions are such that frost. ice or snow may reasonably be expected to adhere to the aircraft, unless there is available to the PIC at the aerodrome of departure adequate facilities and equipment to accomplish the procedures approved for the AOC holder by the Authority for ground de-icing and anti-icing.

16.070 FLIGHT RELEASE UNDER VFR OR IFR

No person may release a flight under VFR or IFR unless the weather reports and forecasts indicated that the flight can reasonably be expected to be completed as specified in the'release.

No person may issue a flight release for a commercial air transport operation unless the fuel supply tpecified in the release is equivalent to or greater than the minimum flight planning requirements of the Tenth and Twelfth Schedules, including anticipated contingencies.

No person may issue a flight release unless he or she IS familiar with the anticipated loading of the aircraft and is reasonably certain that the proposed operation will not exceed the -

(1) centre of gravity limits; (2) aircraft operating limitations; and

, (3) minimum performance requirements.

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THE CIVIL AVIATIONREGULATIONS, 2004 61 5

(a) Every person who amends a flight release while the flight is enroute shall record that amendment.

(b) No person may amend the orig~nal flight release to change the destination or alternate aerodrome while the aircrafl is enroute unless the flight preparation requirements for routing, aerodrome selection and minimum fuel supply are met at the time of amendment or re-release.

(c) No person may allow a flight to continue to an aerodrome to which it has been released if the weather reports and forecasts indicate changes which would render that aerodrome unsuitable for the original flight release.

16.090 FLIGHT RELEASE WITH AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR EQUIPMENT

No person may release a large aeroplane carrying passengers under IFR or night VFR conditions when current weather reports indicate that thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous weather conditions that can be detected with airborne weather radar, may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown, unless the airborne weather radar equipment is in satisfactory operating condition.

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SEVENTEENTH SCHEDULE (Regulations 67,77)

MASS AND BALANCE AND PERFORMANCE FOR AIRCRAFT USED IN COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT

SUBPART A: 17.007 17.005 17.010 17.07 5

SUBPART 8: 17.020 77.025 17.03b

SUBPART C: 17.035 17.040 17.045 17.050 17.055 17.060

GENERAL Applicability Defin~t~ons Acronyms Minimum Requirements

APPLICABLE CODE OF PERFORMANCE Approval of Code of Performance Acceptable Codes of Performance Consideration of Other Codes of Performance MASS AND BALANCE Superv~slon of Loading Approved Method Required Signature Requ~red Last Mlnute Changes Determination of Arcraft Empty Operating Mass Deterrnmation of Actual Passenger Weiqhts

17.065 Determination of Average passenger weights SUBPART 0: COMPUTATIONS OF APPLICABLE WEIGHTS AND PERFORMANCE

17.070 Aircraft Performance Calculations SUBPART E: RESTRICTED PERFORMANCE AIRCRAFT

17.075 Single Engine Aircraft 17.080 Restricted Performance Multi-Engine Aircraft

SUBPART F: TAKEOFF LIMITATIONS 17.085 Aeroplanes 17.090 Helicopters

SUBPART G: ENROUTE LIMITATIONS 17.095 Enroute Limitations - All Engines Operating 17.100 Aeroplanes - One Engine Inoperative 17.105 ~elicopters - One ~ngine Inoperative 17.1 10 Aeroplanes - Two Engines Inoperative 17.1 15 ~elicopters - Two Engines Inoperative

SUBPART H: LANDING LIMITATIONS 17.120 Aeroplanes 17.125 Helicopters

SUBPART A: GENERAL

(a) This Schedule prescribes mass and balance and aircraft performance and operating limlations in addition to those In the Tenth Schedule.

(b) These requirements are for aircraft used in commercial air transport by the holders of an AOC issued by Jamaica.

17.005 DEFINITIONS

For the purpose of this Schedule. the following definitions shall apply -

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"defined point after takeoff'. The point, within the takeoff and initial climb phase, before which the Class 2 helicopter's ability to continue the flight safely, with one engineinoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be required; I

''defined point before landing". The point, within the approach and landing phase, after which the Class 2 helicopter's ability to continue the flight safely, with one engine inoperative, is not assured and a forced landing may be required; "effective length of the runway". The distance for landing from the point at which the obstruction clearance plane associated with the approach end of the runway intersects the centreline of the runway to the far end; "landing decision point". The point used in determming landing performance from which, an engine failure occurring at this point, the landing may be safely continued or a balked landing initiated; "obstruction clearance plane". A plane sloping upward from the runway at a slope of 1 :20 to the horizontal, and tangent to or clearing all obstructions within a specified area surrounding the runway as shown in a profile view of that area. In the plane view, the centreline of the specified area coincides with the centreline of the runway, beginning at the point where the obstruction clearance plane intersects the centreline of the runway and proceeding to a point at least 1.500 feet from the beginning point. Thereafter, the centreline coincides with the takeoff path over the ground for the runway (in the case of takeoffs) or with the instrument approach counterpart (for landings). or where the applicable one of these paths has not been established, it proceeds consistent with turns of at least 4.000 foot radius until a point is reached beyond which the obslruction clearance plane clears all obstructions. This area extends laterally 200 feet on each side of the centreline at the point where the obstruction clearance plane intersects the runway and continues at this width to the end of the runway; then it increases uniformly to 500 feet on each side of the centreline at a point 1.500 feet from the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane with the runway; thereafter, it extends laterally 500 feet on each side of the centreline; "takeoff decision point". The point used in determining takeoff performance of a Class 1 helicopter from which. an engine failure occurring at this point,, either a rejected takeoff may be made or a takeoff safely continued.

ACRONYMS

The following acronyms are used in this Schedule - AFM - Aeroplane Flight Manual; AGL -Above Ground Level; AOC - Air Operator Certificate; AOM - Aircraft Operating Manual; MEA - Minimum Enroute Altitude; MOCA- Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude; MSL - Mean Sea Level; RFM - Rotorcraft Flight Manual; PIC - Pilot-in-command; SIC - Second-in-Command; SM -Statute Miles; V,. - Takeoff decision speed; V,. - Maximum operating speed; V,,. - Stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.

' MINIMUM REQUIREMENTS

(a) Every person operating an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport shall comply with the minimum performance approved or accepted by the Authority under the provisions of this Schedule.

(b) The Authority may authorize deviations from the requirements of this Schedule if special circumstances make a literal observance of a requirement unnecessary for safety.

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(c) Where full compliance with the requirements of this Schedule cannot be met due to speclfic design characteristics (e.g., seaplanes, airships or supersonic aircraft). the operator shall apply alternative performance standards that ensure a level of safety not less restrictive than those of relevant requirements of this Schedule that are acceptable to the Authority.

SUBPART B: APPLICABLE CODE OF PERFORMANCE

(a) For aircraft of Jamaica registry, the operators of such aircraft must comply with the comprehensive and detailed code of performance approved for their aircraft during the process of certification by the Authority.

(b) For aircraft of other States of Registry to be operated under a Jamaica AOC, the operators of such aircraft must comply with the comprehensive and detailed code of performance accepted for their aircraft during the process of certification by the Authority, provided that such codes are found to meet the minlmum requirements of this Schedule.

The following comprehensive and detailed codes of performance are acceptable to and may be required to be met by the Authority for commercial air transport operations with respect to the cat ego^ and class of aircraft to be used -

(1) United States Federal Aviation ~dministr&ion; (2) European Joint Aviation Authority; and (3) Canadian Transport Canada.

To be eligible for approval or acceptance by the Authority, the comprehensive and detailed code of performance issued by an ICAO Contracting State for commercial air transport may be considered provided -

(1) the Code IS in conformance with the applicable Standards of ICAO Annex 6 and 8; (2) the use of this Code will result in performance that meets the minimum requirements contained

in this Schedule; (3) thls Code is in English or certified translation to English; . (4) a copy of this Code is provided with the application for including the aircraft on the AOC; and (5) there is a satisfactory method of updatrng the Authority's copy of this Code throughout the

period of time the aircraft is registered in Jamaica.

SUBPART C: MASS AND BALANCE

(a) Every AOC holder shall designate in writing the person(s) that is to - (1) supervise the proper loading of the aircraft; (2) make the computation of the load manifest for aircraft loading and centre of gravity; and (3) determine that the aircraft will be capable of meeting the applicable performance requirements.

(b) This person will be trained to competence for these tasks on each aircraft type and variant before being allowed to sign the load manifest.

(c) The person supervising the loading and computing the aircraft load, centre of gravity and performance shall be provided the relevant current weights and aircraft limitations that will affect the performance of that aircraft.

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17.040 APPROVED METHOD REQUIRED

No person shall compute the load manifest using any method, policy or informat~on other than that specifically approved by the Authority for the aircraft type, supplemental loading documents, seasonal issues, non-standard passengers and type of operation to be conducted.

17.045 SIGNATURE REQUIRED

(a) The person preparing the load manifest shall be named on the document.

(b) The person supervising the loading of the aircraft shall confirm by signature that the load and its distribution are in accordance with the load manifest.

(a) Last minute changes to aircraft loading will be provided to the PIC and the person(s) responsible for computation of the aircraft loading and CG.

(b) Unless there is an approved methodology for considering last minute changes to passenger or cargo weights, the person responsible for the computation will re-compute all factors.

(c) The effect of the last minute changes will be provided to the PIC and the person(s) responsible for . the computation of the aircraft loading and CG.

(d) This information shall be noted on the load manifest that is retained at the airport of departure.

17.055 DETERMINATION OF AIRCRAFT EMPTY OPERATING MASS

(a) The holder of an Air Operator Certificate (AOC) shall not operate an aircraft unless - (1) the aircraft has been weighed during the period of five years immediately preceding the

operation, and a mass and balance report has been produced which shows the aircraft's empty operating weight and which is available in respect thereof;

(2) where equipment, with a total mass of 0.5 percent or more of the maximum take-off mass of the aircraft is added or removed, unless the aircraft is weighed and a mass and balance report is prepared and certified by an authorized person, subsequent to the installation or removal;

(3) where a modification or cabin configuration change is carried out, that causes the centre of gravity of the aircraft to move by 0.5 percent or more of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC). unless the aircraft is weighed and a new mass and balance report is prepared and certified by an authorised person; and

(4) where equipment, with a total weight less than 0.5 percent of the maximum take-off weight of the aircraft is added or removed, or a modification or configuration change results in a movement of the centre of gravity of less than 0.5 percent, unless a new determination of the empty mass and empty mass centre of gravity, is carried out by calculation, or the procedure in subparagraphs (a) (2) and (3) of this Subsection is carried out.

(5) where the aircraft is a single piston-engine aircraft of 2730kg or less MCTOW, the requirements of subparagraph (a). ( I ) above are not applicable. However, any aircraft being registered in Jamaica for the first time must have been weighed, and a mass and balance report completed, within the ninety-day period immediately prior to it receiving a Jamaican Certificate of Airworthiness.

(b) No berson shall complete a mass and balance computation and the subsequent report for an aircraft certified for a maximum take-off mass of -

(1) 5700 kg or less, unless ]hat person is the holder of an Aircraft Maintenance Engineer Licence, type rated for the applicable aircraft; or

(2) more than 5700 kg, unless the person certifying the mass and balance report computation is 1 approved to do so by the Authority, either directly, or through an Approved ~Zntenance

Organization.

(c) Where the procedures established in paragraphs (a), (b), and (c).of this Subsection have not been followed, the Certificate of Airworthiness of the aircraft ceases to be valid.



(d) A copy of the latest mass and balance report shall be provided to the Authority and a copy shall be carried on board the aircraft during flight time

17.060 DETERMINATION OF ACTUAL PASSENGER WEIGHTS

(a) When making the determination of actual weights, the passengers' personal belongings and carry on baggage shall be included.

(b) The weighing of the passengers and their items sh'all be conducted immediately prior to boarding and at an adjacent location.

17.065. DETERMINATION OF AVERAGE PASSENGER WEIGHTS

(a) No person may use average passenger weights in the computation of aircraft loading and CG, unless there.has been a determination of the relationship between the actual weights being carried and the selected average weights to determine their validity.

(b) The method for the determination of the relationships shall be determined through the method prescribed by the Authority.

SUBPART D: COMPUTATIONS OF APPLICABLE WEIGHTS AND PERFORMANCE

(a) No person may commence a flight in commercial air transport without ensuring that the applicable operating and performance limitations requlred for this Schedule can be accurately computed based on the AFM, RFM or other data source approved by the Authority.

(b) Each person calculating performance and operating limitations for aircraft used in commercial air transport shall ensure that performance data ~ lsed to determine compliance with this Schedule can, during any phase of flight, accurately account for -

(1) any reasonably expected adverse operating conditions that may affect aircraft performance; (2) one engine failure for aircraft having two engines, if applicable; and (3) two engine failure for aircraft having three or more engines, if applicable.

(c) When calculating the performance and limitation requirements, each person performing the calculation shall, for all engines operating and for inoperative engines, accurately account for-

(1) in all phases of flight - the effect of fuel and oil consumption on aircraft weight; the effect of fuel consumption on fuel reserves resulting from changes in flight paths, winds and aircraft configuration; the effect of fuel jettisoning on aircraft weight and fuel reserves, if applicable and approved; the effect of any ice protection system, if applicable and weather conditions require its use; ambient temperatures and winds along intended route and any planned diversion; and flight paths and minimum altitudes required to remain clear of obstacles; and

(2) during takeoff and landing - (i) the condition of the takeoff runway or area to be used, including any contaminates (e.g.,

water, slush, snow, ice); (ii) the gradient of runway to be used; (iii) the runway length including clearways and stopways, if applicable; (iv) pressure altitudes at takeoff and landing sites; (v) Current ambient temperatures and winds at takeoff; (vi) forecast ambient temperatures and winds at each destination and planned alternate

landing site; (vii) the ground handling characteristics (e.g., braking action) of the type of aircraft; and (viii) landing aids and terrain that may affect the takeoff path, landing path and landing roll.

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THE CIVIL AVIATIONREGULATIONS, 2004 62 1

(d) Where conditions are different from those on whlch the performance is based, compliance may be determined by interpolation or by computing the effects of changes in the specific variables, if the results of the interpolation or computations are substantially as accurate as the results of direct tesk

(e) To allow for wind effect, takeoff data based on still air may be corrected by taking into account not more than 50 percent of any reported headwind component and not less than 150 percent of any reported tailwind component.

SUBPART E: RESTRICTED PERFORMANCE AIRCRAFT

17.075 SINGLE ENGINE AIRCRAFT

Unless approved pursuant to the Tenth Schedule. Subsection 10.718, no person may operate a single- engine aircraft used for passenger carrying operations in commercial air transport unless that aircrafl is continually operated -

(1) in daylight; (2) VMC, excluding over the top of any cloud layer; and (3) over such routes and diversions therefrom that permit a safe forced landing to be executed in

the event of engine failure.

(a) No person may operate a restricted performance multiengine aircrafl with a passenger capacity of 9 passengers or less in commercial air transport carrying passengers that will be unable to comply with the performance limitations of this Schedule, unless that aircraft is continually operated at a weight that will allow it to climb, with the critical engine inoperative -

(1) at least 200 feet per minute immediately after takeoff; (2) at least 50 feet a minute when operating at the MEAs of the intended route or any planned

diversion, or at 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is higher; and (3) at least 200 feet per minute in the climbout following a balked landing.

(b) If the aircraft's performance capability is computed to be less than specified in paragraph (a) of this Subsection, the person(s) operating that aircrafl shall comply with the performance restrictions applicable to single-engine aircraft.

SUBPART F: TAKEOFF LIMITATIONS

No person may take off an aeroplane used in commercial air transport unless the following requirements are met when determining h e maximum permitted take-off mass -

(1) the takeoff run shall not be greater than the length of the runway; (2) for turbine engine powered aeroplanes -

(i) the takeoff distance shall not exceed the length of the runway plus the lbngth of any clearway, except that the length of any clearway included in the calculation shall not be greater than 112 the length of the runway; and

(ii) the accelerate-stop distance shall not exceed the length of the runway, plus the length of any stopww at anMme during takeoff until reaching V,;

(3) for reciprocatinQ engine powered aeroplanes - (i) the accelerate-stop distance shall not exceed the length of the runway at any time during

takeoff until reaching V,; and

(4) Where the critical engine fails at any time after h e aeroplane reaches V,, to continue the takeoff flight path and clear all obstacles either -



(i) by a height of at least 9.1 m (35 ft)Lertically for turbine engine powered aeroplanes or 15.2 m (50 ft) for reciprocating engine powered aeroplanes; and

(ii) by at least 60 m (200 R) horizontally within the aerodrome boundaries and by at least 90 meters (300 feet) horizontally after passing the boundaries, without banking more than 15 degrees at any point on the takeoff flight path.

No person may take off a helicopter used in commercial air transport that, in the event of a critical engine failure, cannot -

(1) in the case df Class 1 helicopters - (i) at or before the takeoff decision point, discontinue the takeoff and stop within the rejected

takeoff area; or, (ii) after the takeoff decision point, continue the takeoff and then climb, clearing all obstacles

along the flight path, until a suitable landing site is found; and

(2) for Class 2 helicopters - (i) before reaching a defined point after takeoff, safely execute a forced landing within the

rejected takeoff area; or (ii) at any point after reaching a defined point after takeoff, continue the takeoff and then

climb, clearing all obstacles along the flight path until a suitable landing site is found.

SUBPART G: ENROUTE LIMITATIONS

No person may take off a reciprocating engine powered aeroplane used in commercial air transport at a weight that does not allow a rate of climb of at least 6.9 V,,, (that is, the number of feet per minute obtained by multiplying the aircraft's minimum steady flight speed by 6.9) with all engines operating, at an altitude of at least 300 m (1.000 ft) above all terrain and obstructions within ten miles of each side of the intended track.

No person may take off an aeroplane used in commercial air transport having two engines unless that aeroplane can, in the event of a power failure at the most critical point enroute, continue the flight to a suitable aerodrome where a landing can be made while allowing -

(I ) for reciprocating engine powered aeroplanes - (i) at least a rate of climb of 0.079 (0.106lnumber of engines installed) v,: (when V, is

expressed in knots) at an altitude of 300 m (1,000 R) above all terrain and obstructions within 9.3 km (5 sm), on each side of the intended track; and

(ii) a positive slope at an altitude of at least 450 m (1.500 ft) above the aerodrome where the aeroplane is assumed to land;

(2) for turbine engine powered transport category aeroplanes - (i) a positive slope at an altitude of at least 300 m (1,000 ft) above all terrain and obstructions

within 9.3 km (5 sm). on each side of the intended track; (ii) a net flight path from cruising altitude to the intended landing aerodrome that allows at

least 600 m (2,000 R) clearance above all terrain and obstructions within 9.3 km (5 sm), on each side of the intended track; and

(iii) a positive slope at an altitude of at least 450 m (1,500 R) above the aerodrome where the aeroplane is assumed to land.

(Note: The climb rate specified in sub-subparagraph (a) (1) (i) of this Subsection may be amended to 0.026 v,: for large transport categow aircrafl issued a typecertificate prior to 1953.)

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(Note: The 9.3 km (5 sm) clearance margin stated in paragraph (a) of this Subsection shall be increased to 18.5 km (10 sm) if navigational accuracy does not meet the 95% containment level.)

No person shall take off a helicopter used in commercial air transport having two engines unless that helicopter can, in the event of the critical engine failing at any point in the enroute phase, continue h e flight to the destination or alternate landing site without flying below the minimum flight altitude at any point and clearing all obstacles in the approach path by a safe margin.

17.1 10 A E R O P ~ A N ~ -TWO ENGINES INOPERATIVE

No person may take off an aeroplane used in commercial air transport having three or more engines at such a weight where there is no suitable landing aerodrome within 90 minutes at any point along the intended route (with all engines operating at cruising power), unless that aircraft can, in the event of simultaneous power failure of two critical engines at the most critical point along that route, continue to a suitable landing aerodrome while allowing -

(1) for turbine engine powered aeroplanes - (i) a net flight path (considering the ambient temperatures anticipated along the track)

clearing vertically by at least 600 m (2,000 ft) all terrain and obstructions within five statute miles (4.34 nautical miles) on each side of the intended track;

(ii) a positive slope at 450 m (1,500 ft) above the aerodrome of intended landing; and (iii) enough fuel to continue to the aerodrome of intended landing, to arrive at an altitude of at

least 450 m (1,500 fl) directly over the aerodrome, and thereafler to fly for 15 minutes at cruise power.

(Note: The consumption of fuel and oil afler the engine failure is the same as the consumption that is allowed for in the net flight path data in the AFM.)

(2) for reciprocating engine powered aeroplanes - .

(i) a rate of climb at 0.013 feet per minute (that is, the number of feet per minute is obtained by multiplying the number of knots squared by 0.013) at an altitude of 300 m (1,000 ft) above the highest ground or obstruction within 10 sm (8.68 nm) on each side of the intended track, or at an altitude of 1.500 m (5,000 ft), which ever is higher; and

(ii) enough fuel to continue to the aerodrome of intended landing and to arrive at an altitude of at least 300 m (1.000 ft) directly over that aerodrome.

(Note: When the two engines of the reciprocating aeroplane are predicted to fail at an altitude above the prescribed minimum attitude, compliance with the prescribed rate of climb need not be shown during the descent from the cruising altitude to the prescribed minimum altilude, i f those requirements can be met once the prescribed minimum altitude is reached, and assuming descent to be along a net flight path and the rate of descent to be 0.013 v,: greater than the rate in the approved performance data.)

(Note: I f fui-ljeffisoning is authorized (orplanned), the aeroplane's weight at the point where the two engines fail is considered to be not less than that which would Include enough fuel to proceed to an aerodrome and to arrive at an altitude of at least 300 rn (1,000 fl) directly over that aerodrome.)

No person shall lake off a Class 1 or Class 2 helicopter used in commercial air transport having three or more engines unless that helicopter can, in the event of two critical engines failing simultaneously at any point in the en route phase, continue the flight to a suitable landing site.

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SUBPART H: LANDING LIMITATIONS

(a) No person may take off an aeroplane used in commercial operations unless its weight on arrival at either the intended destination aerodrome or any planned alternate aerodrome would allow a full stop landing -

(1) for turbine engine powered aeroplanes, within 60 percent of the effective length of each runway from a point 50 feet above the mtersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway;

(2) for reciprocating engine powered aeroplanes, within 70 percent of the effective length of each runway from a point 50 feet above the intersection of theobstruction clearance plane and the runway; and

(3) for seaplanes, to a satisfactory low speed within the landing distance available from a point that safely clears all obstacles in the approach path.

(b) For the purpose of determining the allowable landing weight at the destination aerodrome, each person determining the landing limit shall ensure that -

(I ) the aeroplane is landed on the most favourable runway and in the most favourable direction, in still air; or

(2) the aeroplane is landed on the most suitable runway considering the probable wind velocity and direction, runway conditions, the ground handling characteristics of the aeroplane, and considering other conditions such as landing aids and terrain; and

(3) consideration is given to variations in the approach and landing techniques if such allowance has not been made in the scheduling of performance data or if required by abnormal situations such as aircraft unse~iceabilities, adverse weather conditions or other considerations.

(Note: If the runway at the landing destination is reported or forecast to be wet or slippery, the landing distance available shall be at least 11 5 percent of the required landing distance unless, based on a showmg of actual operating landrng techniques on wet or slippery runways, a shorter landing distance (but not less than that required by paragraph (a) of this Subsection) hes been approved for a specific type and model aeroplane and this information is included i n the AFM.)

(c) A turbine powered transport category aeroplane that would be prohibited from taking off because it could not meet the requirements of subparagraph (a) (1) of this Subsection, may take off if an alternate aerodrome is specified that meets all the requirements of paragraph (a) of this Subsection.

(a) No person may take off a helicopter used in commercial air transport unless, with all engines operating on arrival at the intended destination landing site or any planned alternate landing, it can clear all obstacles on thB approach path and can land and stop within the landing distance available.

(b) No person may take off a helicopter used in commercial air transport unless, in the event of any engine becoming inoperative in the approach and landing phase on arrival at the intended destination landing site or any planned alternate landing, can -

(1) for Class I helicopters - (i) before the landing decision point, clear all obstacles on the approach path and be able to

land and stop within the landing distance available or to perform a balked landing and clear all obstacles in the flight path by an adequate margin; or

(ii) after the landing decision point, land and stop within the landing distance available; and

(2) for Class 2 and Class 3 helicopters - (i) before reaching a defined point before landing, safely execute a forced landlng wlthin the

landing distance available.



EIGHTEENTH SCHEDULE (Regulations 78,79)

CARRIAGE OF DANGEROUS GOODS BY AIR

SUBPART A: GENERAL 18.001 Applicability 18.005 Definitions 18.010 Any Location on Aircrafl 18.015 General Prohibition 18.020 Authorization Required

SUBPART B: DOCUMENTATION 18.035 Shipper's Document Required 18.040 Document Completion and Contents 18.045 Acceptance Inspection Required 18.050 Acceptance Checklist Required 18.055 Retention of Documents

SUBPART C: SHIPPER'S RESPONSIBILITIES 18.060 Shipper's Responsibilities

SUBPART D: OPERATOR REQUIREMENTS AND RESPONSIBILITIES 18.070 Approval to Transport Dangerous Goods 18.075 Scope 18.080 Limitations On The Transport of Dangerous Goods 18.085 Classification 18.090 Packing 18.095 Labelling and Marking 18.100 Dangerous Goods Transport Document 18.105 Acceptance of Dangerous Goods 18.1 10 Inspection for Damage. Leakage or Contamination 18.1 15 Removal of Contamination 18.120 Loading Restrictions 18.125 Provision of Information 18.130 Training programmes 18.135 Dangerous Goods Incident and Accident Reports

SUBPART E: REGULATORY REQUIREMENTS 18.140 Compliance with an Dangerous Goods Certificate (DGC) 18.145 A~~licat ion for a Danaerous Goods Certificate 18.150 l&ance or Denial o f ~ a n ~ e r o u s Goods Certificate 18.155 Contents of Dangerous Goods Certificate 18.160 Duration of a Dangerous Goods Certificate 18.165 Amendment of a Dangerous Goods Certificate

SUBPART F: COMPLIANCE 18.1 70 Inspections

SUBPART A: GENERAL

(a) The requirements of this Schedule shall apply to the carriage of dangerous goods by air as specified in the current ICAO manual. Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangernus Goods by Air, whether that transport relates to an operation under general aviation, aerial work or commercial air transport requirements.

@) These requirements shall not apply to dangerous goods of the'classifications specified in the ICAO manual, Technlcal Instructions, provided that -

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(1) the dangerous goods do not exceed the appropriate quantity limitations specified therein; and

(2) such other conditions as are specified therein are complied with.

(c) These requirements shall not apply to dangerous goods which are carried, loaded or suspended from the aircraft -

(I) for the purpose of ensuring the proper navigation or safety of the aircraff; or (2) solely from the personal use of the passengers and crew members of the aircraft.

18.005 DEFINITIONS

As used in this Schedule, these words or phrases are defined as follows - "Acceptance checklist" A document used to assist in carrying out a check on the external appearance of packages of dangerous goods and their associated documents to determine that all appropriate requirements have been met; "Consignment" One or more packages of dangerous goods accepted by an operator from one shipper at one time and at one address for delivery to one consignee at one destination address and in respect of which there is not more than one air waybill; "Dangerous goods" Any article or substance which is capable of posing a significant risk to health, safety, property, or the environment, when carried by alr and whch is classified in the Technical Instructions; "Dangerous goods accident" An occurrence associated with and related to the transport of dangerous goods which results in fatal or serious injury to a person or major property damage; "Dangerous goods incident" An occurrence, other than a dangerous goods accident. associated with and related to the transport of dangerous goods, not necessarily occurring on board an aircraft, which results in injury to a person, property damage, fire, breakage, spillage, leakage of fluid or radiation or other evidence that the integrity of the packaging has not been maintained. Any occurrence relating to the transport of dangerous goods which seriously jeopardises an aircraft or its occupants is deemed to constitute a dangerous goods incident; "Dangerous goods transport document" A document specified by the ICAO Technical Instructions for the Safe Trans~ortation of Danaerous Goods by Air (See definition. below). It is completed by the person who offers dangerous goods for air transport and contains '

information about those danaerous aoods. The document bears a sianed declaration indicating that the dangerou; goodcare fully and accurately described by their proper shipping names and UN numbers (if assigned) and that they are correctly classified, packed, marked, labelled and in a proper condition for transport; "Frelght container" See Unit Load Device; "Freight container" (Radioactive Material only). Such a freight container is an article of transport equipment for radioactive materials, designed to facilitate the transport of such materials, either packaged or unpackaged, by one or more modes of transport without intermediate reloading; "Handling agent" An agency which performs on behalf of the operator some or all of the latter's functions including receiving, loading, unloading, transferring or other processing of passengers or cargo; "Package" The complete product of the packing operation consisting of the packaging and its contents prepared for transport; "Packaging" Receptacles and any other components or materials necessary for the receptacle to perform its containment function and to ensure compliance with the packing requirements; "Proper shlpplng name" The name to be used to describe a particular article or substance in all shipping documents and notifications and, where appropriate, on packaging; "Overpack" An enclosure used by a single shipper to contain one or more packages and to form one handling unit for convenience of handling and stowage;



(14) "State of Origin" The State in which dangerous goods were first loaded on an aircraft; ( I 5) "Technical instructions" The latest effective edition of the Technical lnstructions for the

Safe Transport'of Dangerous Goods by Air (Doc. 9284-AN1905), including the supplement and any addendum, approved and published by decision of the Council of the ICAO. The term "~echnical Instructions" is used In this schedule;

(16) "UN number" The four-digit number assigned by the United Nations Committee of Experts on the Transport of Dangerous Goods to identify a substance or a particular group of substances;

(17) "Unit load device" Any type of aircraft container, aircraft pallet with a net, or aircraft pallet with a net over an igloo;

18.010 ANY LOCATION ON AIRCRAFT

Any instructions or limitations contained in the Technical lnstructions for the carriage of dangerous goods on passenger or cargo aircraft, as therein defined shall for the purpose of this Schedule be interpreted as applying also to the carriage of such goods beneath passenger or cargo aircraft.

With respect to any goods which a person knows or ought to know or suspect to be dangerous goods, that person shall not, without determining and complying with the restrictions regarding carriage by air -

(1) take or cause it to be taken on board; (2) suspend or cause it to be suspended beneath; or (3) deliver or cause it to be delivered for loading or suspension beneath an aircraft.

An aircraft shall not carry or have loaded therein or suspended there under any dangerous goods, unless such goods are carried, loaded or suspended-

( I ) with the written authorization of the Authority and in accordance with any conditions to which such approvals may be subject, and

(2) in accordance with the Technical lnstructions and any conditions specified therein.

SUBPART B: DOCUMENTATION

(a) No person may allow or cause an aircraft to carry dangerous goods as cargo unless the shipper of the goods has fum~shed the operator of the aircraft with a dangerous goods transport document.

(b) Except that such a document shall not be required in respect of such categories of dangerous .goods as may be specified in the Technical lnstructions as being goods in respect of which a dangerous goods transport document is not required.

18.040 DOCUMENT COMPLETION AND CONTENTS

The dangerous goods transport document shall be completed in duplicate and shall - (I ) describe the dangerous goods in accordance with and contain such information as is

required by the provisions of the Technical Instructions; (2) contain a signed declaration that the Technical lnstructions have been complied with in that

the dangerous goods - (i) are fully and accurately described; and (ii) are correctly classified, packed, marked and labelled; and (iii) are in a proper condition for carriage by air.

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T*e operator of the aircraft, upon acceptance of dangerous g'oods will conduct an inspection of the consignment.

18.050 ACCEPTANCE CHECKLIST REQUIRED

: The person conducting the inspection on behalf of the operator shall complete a checklist specifically designed for this purpose.

~he-opkator of an aircraft shall retain for not less than 6 months,- ; (I) any dangerous goods transport document which ha%,b.;en'furnished to him in accordance

with these requirements; and . . . (2) any checklist used in the acceptance of the dangerous goods consignment.

I*

SUBPART C: SHIPPER'S RESPONSIBILITIES ,

Before consigning any packaged containing dangerous goods for carriage,by air the shipper shall ensure that - , '

( I ) the goods are not of a category whose carriage by air is prohibited by the provisions of the Technical Instructions;

, (2) the goods are classified and packed in accordance with the Technical lnstructions and the packaging used is in accordance with such provisions of,the Technical lnstructions as apply to the goods;

(3) the package is marked and labelled in accordance with the marking and labelling requirements of the Technical Instructions;

(4) the package is in a fit condition for carriage by air; and (5) the dangerous goods transport documents required by Subsection 18.035 has been

completed and that the declaration therein has been made.

' SUBPART D: OPERATOR REQUIREMENTS AND RESPONSIBILITIES

(a) No operator may transport dangerous goods or act as the ground handling agents for the shipment of dangerous goods by air unless approved to do so by the Authority.

(b) ' The certification requirements for the provisions to transport dangerous goods'by air shall encompass the submission of a dangerous goods operations manual in accordance with the guidelines stipulated in the Twelfth Schedule. Subsection 12.355 which must be approved by the Authority.

(c) An operator authorized to transport dangerous goods shall ensure that the contents and structure of the dangerous goods operations manual are in accordance with the Jamaica Civil. Aviation Regulations. 2004, the current Technical lnstructions and the Dangerous Goods - "

guidance material provided by the Authority.

(a) Every operator shall comply with the provisions contained in the ICAO Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods By Air, ICAO Doc. 9284 (Technical Instructions) on all occasions when dangerous goods are carried, irrespective of whether the flight is wholly or partly within or wholly outside the territory of Jamaica. Where dangerous goods are to be transported outside the territory of Jamaica, the Operator shall review and comply with the appropriate variations noted by Contracting States contained in the Technical Instructions.

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(b) Articles and substances which would otherwise be classed as dangerous goods are excluded from the provisions of this Schedule to the extent specified in the Technical Instrvctions, provided they are -

(1) required to be aboard the aircraft for operating reasons; (2) carried as catering or cabin service supplies; (3) carried for use in flight as veterinary aid or as a humane killer for an animal; or (4) carried for use in flight for medical aid for a patient, provided that -

(i) gas cylinders have been manufactured specifically for the purpose of containing and transporting that particular gas;

(ii) drugs, medicines and other medical matter are under the control of trained personnel during the time when they are in use in the aircraft;

(iii) equipment containing wet cell batteries is kept and, when necessary secured, in an upright position to prevent spillage of the electrolyte; and

(iv) proper provision is made to stow and secure all the equipment during take-off and landing and at all other times when d5emed necessary by the PIC in the interests of safety; or

(v) they are carried by passengers or crewmembers.

(c) Articles and substances, such as company materials (COMAT), intended as replacements for those in paragraph (b) (1) may be transported on an aircraft as specified in the Technical Instrvctions.

18.080 LIMITATIONS ON THE TRANSPORT OF DANGEROUS GOODS

(a) Each Operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that articles and substances that are specifically identified by name or generic description in the Technicallnstructions as being forbidden for transport under any circumstances are not carried on any aircraft.

(b) Each operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that articles and substances or other goods that are identified in the Technical Instructions as being forbidden for transport in normal circumstances are transported only when -

(1) they are exempted by the States concerned under the provisions of the Technical Instructions; or

(2) the Technical Instructions indicate they may be transported under an approval issued by the State of Origin.

Every operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that articles and substances are classified as dangerous goods as specified inthe Technical Instructions.

Each operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that dangerous goods are.packed as specified in the Technical Instructions.

(a) Each operator shall take all reasonable measures to ensure that packages, overpacks and freight containers are labelled and marked as specified in the Technical Instrvctions.

(b) Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of Jamaica, the operator shall ensure that labelling and marking are in the English language in addition to any other language requirements.

18.100 DANGEROUS GOODS TRANSPORT DOCUMENT

(a) Each operator shall ensure that, except when otherwise specified in the Technical Instructions. dangerous goods are accompanied by a dangerous goods transport document.



(b) Where dangerous goods are carried on a fllght whlch takes place wholly or partly outside the territory of a State, the operator shall ensure that the Engl~sh language IS used for the dangerous goods transport document in addition to any other language requirements.

18.105 ACCEPTANCE OF DANGEROUS GOODS

(a) No operator may accept dangerous goods for transport until the package, overpack or freight container has been inspected in accordance with the acceptance procedures in the Technical Instructions.

(b) Every operator, or its handling agent, shall use an acceptance check list which - ( 1 shall allow for all relevant details to be checked; and (2) shall be in such form as will allow for the recording of the results of the acceptance check

by manual, mechanical or computerised means. (c) No operator may accept dangerous goods for transport by air unless the dangerous goods are

accompanied by a completed dangerous good transport document, except where the Technical Instructions indicate that such a document is not required.

18.110 INSPECTION FOR DAMAGE, LEAKAGE OR CONTAMINATION

Every operator shall ensure that - (1) packages, overpacks and freight containers are inspected for evidence of leakage or

damage immediately prior to loading on an aircraft or into a unit load device, as specified in the Technical Instructions;

(2) a unit load device is not loaded on an aircraft unless it has been inspected as required by the Technical Instructions and found free from any evidence of leakage from, or damage to, the dangerous goods contained therein;

(3) leaking or damaged packages, overpacks or freight containers are not loaded on an aircraft;

(4) any package of dangerous goods found on an aircraft and which appears to be damaged or leaking is removed or arrangements made for its removal by an appropriate authority or organisation;

(5) after removal of any leaking or damaged goods, the remainder of the consignment is inspected to ensure it is in a proper condition for transport and that no damage or contamination has occurred to the aircraft or its load; and

(6) packages, overpacks and freight containers are inspected for signs of damage or leakage upon unloading from an aircraft or from a unit load device and, if there is evidence of damage or leakage, the area where the dangerous goods were stowed is inspected for damage or contamination.

18.1 15 REMOVAL OF CONTAhllNATlON

Every operator shall ensure that - (1) any contamination found as a result of the leakage or damage of dangerous goods is

removed without delay; and (2) an aircraft which has been contaminated by radioactive materials is immediately taken out

of service and not returned until the radiation level at any accessible surface and the non- fixed contamination are not more than the values specified in the Technical Instructions.

(a) Passenger Cabin and Flight Deck. Every operator shall ensure that dangerous goods are not carried in an aircraft cabin occupied by passengers or on the flight deck, unless otherwise specified in the Technical Instmctions.

(b) Cargo Compartments. Every operator shall ensure that dangerous goods are loaded, segregated, stowed and secured on an aircraft as specified in the Technical Instmctions.

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(c) Dangerous Goods Designated for Carriage Only on Cargo Aircraft. Every operator shall ensure that packages of dangerous goods bearing the "Cargo Aircraft Onlf label are carried on a cargo aircraft and loaded as specified in the Technical Instructions.

(a) lnformation to Ground Staff. Every operator shall ensure that - (1) information is provided to enable ground staff to carry out their duties with regard to the

transport of dangerous goods, includmg the acttons to be taken in the event of incidents and accidents involving dangerous goods; and

(2) where applicable, the information referred to in paragraph (a)(l) is also provided to the handling agent.

lnformation to Passengers. Every operator shall ensure that information is promulgated as required by the Technical Instructions so that passengers are warned as to the types of goods which they are forbidden from transporting aboard an aircraft.

lnformation to Acceptance Points Personnel. Every operator and, where applicable, the handling agent shall ensure that notices are provided at acceptance points for cargo giving information about the transport of dangerous goods.

lnformation to Crewmembers. Every operator shall ensure that information is provided in the Operations Manual to enable crew members to carry out their responsibilities in regard to the transport of dangerous goods, including the actions to be taken in the event of emergencies arising involving dangerous goods.

lnformation to the PIC. Every operator shall ensure that the PIC is provided with written information, as specified in the Technical Instructions.

lnformation in the Event of an Aircraft Incident or Accident. Every operator which is involved in an aircrafl incident shall -

(1) as soon as possible, inform the appropriate authority of the State in which the aircraft accident occurred of any dangerous goods carried; and

(2) on request, provide any information required to minimise the hazards created by any dangerous goods carried.

18.130 TRAINING PROGRAMMES

(a) All personnel involved in the transport of dangerous goods by air, as identified by the Technical Instructions, shall receive initial and recurrent training in the requirements commensurate with their responsibilities. The recurrent training shall be at intervals of not longer than 12 months except personnel who ship andlor accept dangerous goods for transport by air, in which case the training shall be every 24 months.

(b) Dangerous Goods Training programmes shall be submitted for review and approval by the Authority for:

(1) air operators; (2) ground handling agencies which perform, on behalf of the operator, the act of accepting.

handling, loading, unloading, transferring or other processing of cargo; (3) ground handling agencies located at the airport which perform, on behalf of the operator,

the act of processing passengers; (4) agencies, not located at the airport, which perform, on behalf of the air operator, the act of

checking in passengers; ( 5 ) freight forwarders; and (6) agencies engaged in the security screening of passengers and their baggage andlor

cargo.

(c) No person may usea person nor may any person serve as a dangerous goods instructor unless that person has successfully completed the required dangerous goods training that is approved by the Authority.

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(1) a dangerous goods instructor must successfully undergo an approved ICAO or equivalent dangerous goods training programme;

(2) a dangerous goods instructor must undergo recurrent training within 24 months of previous training to ensure knowledge is current.

18.135 ' Dangerous Goods Incident and Accident Reports

(a) Every operator shall report dangerous goods incidents and accidents to the Authority immediately, unless exceptional circumstances prevent this.

(b) In the event of - (1) an aircraft accident; or (2) a serious incident where dangerous goods carried as cargo may be involved, the operator

of the aircraft carrying the dangerous goods as cargo shall provide information, without delay, to the emergency services responding to the accident or serious incident about the dangerous goods on board, as shown on the written information to the pilot-in-command. As soon as possible, the operator shall also provide this information to the appropriate authorities of the state of the operator and the state in which the accident or serious incident occurred.

SUBPART E: REGULATORY REQUIREMENTS

18.140 COMPLIANCE WITH AN DANGEROUS GOODS CERTIFICATE (DGC)

(a) No operator may operate a Jamaican aircraft' in commercial air transport for the transportation of dangerous goods unless that operator holds a DGC for the operations being conducted.

(b) No person may act as the ground handling agent@) which perform, on behalf of the operator. the act of accepting, handling, loading, unloading, transferring or other processing of cargo unless that person holds a DGC for the operations being conducted.

(c) No.person may operate a Jamaican arcraft in commercial air transport operations that are not authorized by the terms and conditions of its DGC.

(d) The AOC holder shall, at all times, continue in compliance with the DGC terms, conditions of issuance and requirements in order to hold that certificate.

(Note: The condiiions of issuance include all written approvals granted to meet the requirements of this Schedule, including letters of designaiion, letters of approval, approval of a .

manual's list of effective pages.)

18.145 APPLICATION FOR A DANGEROUS GOODS CERTIFICATE

(a) An operator applying to the Authority for an DGC shall submit an application - (1) in a form and manner prescribed by the Authority; and (2) containing any information the Authority requires the applicant to submit.

(b) Every applicant shall make the application for an initial issue of a DGC at least 90 days before the date of intended operation, exceptthe Dangerous Goods Training Manual and the pertinent parts of the Operations Manual which may be submitted later than but not less than 60 days before the date of intended operation.

18.150 ISSUANCE OR DENIAL OF DANGEROUS GOODS CERTIFICATE (DGC)

(a) The Authority may issue a DGC if, after investigation, the Authority finds that the applicant- (1) . is a citizen of Jamaica; (2) has its principal place of business and its registered office, if any, located.in Jamaica; (3) meets the applicable regulations and standards for the holder of a DGC; (4) is properly and adequately equipped for safe operations for the transport by air of

dangerous goods in commercial air transport ; and

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(5) holds the economic authority issued by Jamaica under the provisions of the Civil Aviation Act.

(b) The Authority may deny application for a DGC if the Authority finds that - (1) the applicant is not properly and adequately equipped for safe operations for the transport

by air of dangerous goods in commerciai air transport; (2) the applicant previously held a DGC, which was revoked; or (3) an individual that contributed to the circumstances causing the revocation process of a

DGC obtains a substantial ownership or is employed in a position required by this regulation.

(a) The DGC will consist of two documents - (1) a one-page certificate for public display signed by the Authority; and (2) multi-page DGC operations specifications containing the terms and conditions applicable

to the DGC holder's certificate.

(b) The Authority will issue a DGC which will contain - (1) the name and location (main place of business) of the DGC holder; (2) the date of issue and period of validity for each page issued; (3) a description of the type of operations authorized; '(4) the authorized areas of operations; and (5) other special authorizations, approvals and limitations issued by the Authority in

accordance with the standards which are applicable to the operations conducted by the DGC holder.

A DGC, or any portion of the DGC, issued by the Authority is effective until - (1) the Authority amends, suspends, revokes or otherwise terminates the certificate; (2) the DGC holder surrenders it to the Authority; (3) the DGC holder suspends operations for more than 60 days; or (4) twelve calendar months elapses, whichever comes first.

18.165 AMENDMENT OF A DANGEROUS GOODS CERTIFICATE

(a) The Authority may amend any DGC where - (1) the Autqority determines that safety in commercial air tiansport and the public interest

require the amendment; or (2) the ti holder applies for an amendment and the ~ u t h o r i t ~ determines that safety in

commercial air transport and the public interest allows the amendment.

(b) Where the Authority stipulates in writing that an emergency exists requiring immediate amendment in the public interest with respect to safety in commercial air transportation, such an amendment is effective without stay on the date the DGC holder receives notice.

(c) A DGC holder may appeal the amendment but shall operate in accordance with it, unless it is subsequently withdrawn.

(d) Amendments proposed by the Authority, other than emergency amendments, become effective 30 days after notice to the DGC holder, unless the DGC holder appeals the proposal in writing prior to the effective date. The filing of an appeal stays the effective date until the appeal process is completed.

(e) Amendments proposed by the DGC holder shall be made at least 30 days prior to the intended date of any operation under that amendment.

(f) No operator may perform any actlvity associated with the carriage of dangerous goods for commercial air transport operation for which a DGC amendment IS required, unless it has received notice of the approval from the Authority.

- -



SUBPART F: COMPLIANCE

(a) The air operator. on their own account andlor through their handling agent(s) shall provide the Authority any documentation associated with the transportation of dangerous goods by air no later than 24 hours after the initial request is made.

(b) The Authority shall conduct inspections in accordance with the Technical Instructions.

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NINETEENTH SCHEDULE (Regulations 67,80)

AIRCRAFT ACCIDENT REPORTING AND INVESTIGATION REQUIREMENTS

SUBPART A: GENERAL 19.001 Applicability 19.005 Definitions '

SUBPART 8: INITIAL NOTIFICATION 19.015 Immediate Notification 19.020 lnformation to be Given in Notification

SUBPART C: PRESERVATION OF WRECKAGE AND RECORDS 19.035 19.040

SUBPART D: 19.050

SUBPART E: 19.060 19.065 19.070 19.075 19.080 19.085 19.090 19.095 19.100 19.105

Operator Responsibilities Moving the Wreckage REPORTING REQUIREMENTS Reports and Statements to be Filed

INVESTIGATIONS Responsibility for lnvestigation Nature of lnvestigation Right to Representation Investigator-in-Charge Representatives of the Authority Autopsies Parties to the lnvestigation Access to and Release of Wreckage, Records. Mail and Cargo Flow and Dissemination of Accident or Incident Information Proposed Findings

SUBPART A: GENERAL

This Schedule contains requirements pertaining to - (1) initial notification and later reporting of aircraft incidents and accidents and certain other

occurrences in the operation of aircraft, wherever they occur, when they involve civil aircraft of Jamaica; when they involve certain public aircraft, as specified in this part, wherever they occur; and when they involve foreign civil aircraft where the events occur in Jamaica; and

(2) preservation of aircraft wreckage, mail, cargo, and records involving all civil and certain public aircraft accidents, as specified in this Schedule, in Jamaica.

As used in this part the following words or phrases are defined as follows - (1) "Aircraft accident" means an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which

takes place between the t~me any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage;

(2) "Clvll alrcraft" mearis any aircraft other than a M~litary or State-operated aircraft; (3) "Fatal injury" means any injury which results in death within 30 days of the accident; (4) "Incident" means an occurrence other than an accident, associated with the operation of

an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations, or endanger the lives of the passengers or crew;

(5) "Operator" means any person who causes or authorizes the operation of an aircraft, such as the owner, or lessee, of an aircraft;

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(6) "State aircraft" means an aircraft used only on behalf of the Government of Jamaica (except for commercial purposes) or exclusively leased for at least 90 continuous days;

(7) "Serious injury" means any injury which - (i) requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the

date the injury was received; (ii) results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose); (iii) causes severe haemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage; (iv) involves any internal organ; or (v) involves second or third degree burns, or any burns affecting more than 5 percent of

the body surface; ,

(8) "Substantial damage" means damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft, and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component. Engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged, bent fairings or cowling, dented skin, small punctures in the skin or fabric, ground damage to rotor or propeller blades, and damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes, or wingtips are not considered "substantial damage" for the purpose of this Schedule.

SUBPART B: INITIAL NOTIFICATION

(a) The operator of any civil aircraft, or any publ~c aircraft not operated by the Armed Forces, or any foreign aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the JCAA when an aircraft accident or any of the following listed incidents occur -

(1) flight control system malfunction or failure; (2) inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of

injury or illness; (3) failure of structural components of a turbine engine excluding compressor and turbine

blades and vanes; (4) in-flight fire; or (5) aircraft collision either in flight, or during ground operation; (6) damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 for repair (including

materials and labour) or fair market value in the event of total loss, whichever is less;

(7) For large multi-engine aircraft (more than 12.500 pounds maximum takeoff weight);

(i) in-flight failure of electrical systems which requires the sustained use of an emergency bus powered by a backup source such as a battery, auxiliary power unit, or air driven generator to retain flight control or essential instruments;

(ii) in-flight failure of hydraulic systems that results in sustained reliance on the sole remaining hydraulic or mechanical system for movement of flight control surfaces;

(iii) sustained loss of the power or thrust produced by two or more engines; and (iv) an evacuation of an aircraft in which an emergency egress system is utilized. .

(b) This initial notification requirement also applies when an aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.

(Note: The initial report may be made to the nearest air trafic service unit or flight information unit o f the Jamaica Civil Aviation Authority, or directly to the Flight Safety Division of the JCAA)

19.020 lNFORMATlON TO BE GNEN IN NOTlFlCATlON

The required notification shall contain the following information, if available,-

(1) type, nationality, and registration marks of the aircraft; (2) name of owner, and operator of the aircraft; (3) name of the pilot in command;

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(4) date and time of the accident; (5) last point of departure and point of intended landing of the aircraft; (6) position of the aircraft with reference to some easily defined geographical point; (7) number of persons aboard, number killed, and number seriously injured; (8) nature of the accident,,the weather and the extent of damage to the aircraft, so far as is

known: and (9) a description of any explosives, radioactive materials, or other dangerous articles carried

SUBPART C: PRESERVATION OF WRECKAGE AND RECORDS

(a) The operator of an aircraft involved in an accident or incident for which notification must be given is responsible for preserving to the extent possible any aircraft wreckage, cargo, and mail aboard the aircraft, and all records, including all recording mediums of flight, maintenance, and voice recorders, pertaining to the operation and maintenance of the aircraft and to the airmen until the Authority takes custody thereof or a release is granted.

(b) The operator of an aircraft involved in an accident or incident shall retain all records, reports. internal documents, and memoranda dealing with the accident or incident, until authorized by the Authority to the contrary.

(a) Prior to the time the Authority or its authorized representative takes custody of aircraft wreckage, mail, or cargo, such wreckage, mail or cargo may not be disturbed or moved except to the extent necessary -

( I ) to remove persons injured or trapped; (2) to protect the wreckage from further damage; or (3) to protect the public from injury.

(b) Sketches, descriptive notes, and photographs shall be made,of the original positions and condition. if possible, and of any significant impact marks, where it is necessary to move aircraft wreckage, mail, or cargo

SUBPART D: REPORTING REQUIREMENTS

(a) Reports. The operator of a civil, state or foreign aircraft shall file a report in the form and manner prescribed by the Authority within 10 days after an accident, or after 7 days if an overdue aircraft is still missing. A formal report on an incident for which immediate notification is required shall be filed only as requested by an authorized representative of the Authority.

(b) Crewmember statement. Each crewmember, if physically able at the time the repbrt is submitted, shall attach a statement setting forth the facts, conditions, and circumstances relating to the accident or incident as they appear to him. .If the crewmember is incapacitated. he shall submit the statement as soon as he is physically able.

(c) Where to file the reports. The operator of an aircraft shall file any report with the Director General. Civil Aviation Authority.

SUBPART E: INVESTIGATIONS

19.060 RESPON~IB IL I~ FOR INVESTlGATlON

(a) The Authority is charged with fulfilling the obligations of Jamaica under ICAO Annex 13 to the Chicago Convention on International Civil Aviation and does so consistent with the requirements of the other departments of the Government of Jamaica.

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(Note: Annex 13 contains specific requirements for the notification, investigation, and reporting of certain incidents and accidents involving international civil aviation.)

' (b) In the case of an adcident or incident in a foreign state involving civil aircraft of Jamaica registry, where the foreign state is a signatory to Annex 13 to the Chicago Convention of the International Civil Aviation Organization, the state of occurrence is responsible for the investigation.

(c) If the accident or incident occurs in a foreign state not bound by the provisions of Annex 13 to the Chicago Convention, or if the accident or incident involves a public aircraft (Annex 13 applies only to civll aircraft), the conduct of the investigation shall be in consonance with any agreement entered into between the Government of Jamaica and the foreign state.

(a) Accident and incident investigations are conducted by the Authority to determine the facts, conditions and circumstances relating to an accident or incident and the probable cause thereof. These results are then used to ascertain measures that would best tend to prevent similar accidents or incidents in the future.

(b) The investigation includes the field investigation (on-scene at the accident, testing, teardown, etc.). report preparation and, where ordered, a public hearing.

(c) The investigation results in conclusions arrived at by the Authority being issued in the form of a report or "brief" of the incident or accident. AccidenUincident investigations are fact-finding proceedings with no formal issues and no adverse parties. They are not conducted for the purpose of determining the rights or liabilities of any person.

Any person interviewed by an authorized representative of the Authority during the investigation. regardless of the form of the interview (sworn, un-sworn, transcribed, not transcribed, etc.), has the right to be accompanied, represented or advised by an attorney or non-attorney representative.

19.075 INVESTIGATOR-IN-CHARGE (IIC)

(a) The designated IIC organizes, conducts, controls and manages the field phase of the investigation, regardless of which other representatives of the Government of Jamaica are also on-scene at the accident or incident site.

(b) The IIC has the responsibility and authority to supervise and coordinate all resources and activities of all personnel, both government and civilians, involved in the on-site investigation.

(c) The IIC continues to have considerable organizational and management responsibilities throughout later phases of the investigation, up to and including the Authority's consideration and adoption of a report or brief of probable cause.

19.080 REPRESENTATIVES OF THE AUTHORlM

(a) Upon presentation of appropriate credentials, an aviation safety inspector is authorized to enter any property where an accidenuincident subject to the Authority's jurisdiction has occurred, or wreckage from any such accidenuincident is located, and to do all things considered necessary for proper investigation.

(b) Further, upon demand of an aviation safety inspector and presentation of credentials, any Government agency, or person, having possession or control of any aircraft or component thereof, any facility.-equipment. process or controls relevant to the investigation, or any pertinent records or memoranda, including all files. hospital records and correspondence then or thereafter existing, and kept or required to be kept, shall forthwith permit inspection. photographing or copying thereof, by such authorized person. for the purpose of investigating an accident or incident, preparing a study, or any other activity related to any special investigation pertaining to safety or to the prevention of accidents.

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(c) The representative of the Authority may issue a subpoena. enforceable in court, to obtain testimony or other evidence.

(d) A representative of the Authority may question any person having knowledge relevant to an accidentlincident, study or special investigation.

(e) The representatives of the Authority also have exclusive authority, on behalf of the Authority, to decide the way in which any testing will be conducted, including decisions on the person that will conduct the test, the type of test that will be conducted and any individual who will witness the test.

(f) The representative of the Authority, upon presenting appropriate credentials, is authorized to examine and test to the extent necessaryany civil or public aircraft, aircraft engine, propeller. appliance or property aboard such aircraft involved in an accident in commercial air transport.

(a) The representative of the Authority is authorized to obtain, with or without reimbursement, a copy of the report of autopsy performed on any person who dies as a result of having been involved in an aircraft accident within the jurisdiction of the Authority.

(b) The IIC, on behalf of the Authority, may order an autopsy or seek other tests of such persons as may be necessary to the investigation, provided that to the extent consistent with the needs of the accident investigation. The provisions of local law protecting religious beliefs with respect to autopsies shall be observed.

19.ogo PARTIES TO THE lNVESTlGATlON

(a) The IIC designates parties to participate in the investigation. Parties shall be limited to those persons, government agencies, companies and associations whose employees, functions, activities or products were involved in the accident or incident and who can provide suitable qualified technical personnel actively to assist in the investigation. .No other entity is afforded the right to participate in accident investigations by the Authority.

(b) Participants in the investigation (i.e., party representatives, party coordinators, andlor the larger party organization) shall be responsive to the direction of representatives of the Authority and may lose party status if they do not comply with their assigned duties, activity proscriptions or instructions or if they conduct themselves in a manner prejudicial to the investigation.

(c) No party to the investigation shall be represented in any aspect of the Authority's investigation by any person who also represents claimants or insurers. No party representative may occupy a legal position. Failure to comply with these provisions may result in sanctions, including loss of status as a party.

(d) In addition to compliance with the provisions of paragraph (a) of th~s Subsection, and to assist in ensuring complete understanding of the requirements and limitations of party status, all party representatives in aviation investigations shall sign a statement containing these requirements and limitations immediately upon attaining party representative status. Failure timely to sign that statement may result in sanctions, including loss of status as a party.

19.095 ACCESS TO AND RELEASE OF WRECKAGE, RECORDS, MAIL AND CARGO

(a) Only the Authorit)/s accident investigation personnel, and persons authorized b9 the, investigator-in-charge to participate in any particular investigation, examination, or testing, shall be permitted access to wreckage, records,mail, or cargo iithe Authority's custody.

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(b) Wreckage, records, mail, and cargo in the Authority's custody shall be released when it is determined that the Authority has no further need of such wreckage, mail, cargo, or records.

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19.100 FLOW AND DlSSEMlNATlON OF ACCIDENT OR INCIDENT lNFORMATlON

(a) Release of information during the field investigation. particularly at the accident scene, shall be limited to factual developments, and shall be made only through the designated representative of the Government of Jamaica.

(b) All information concerning the accident or incident obtainedby any person or organization ~artlci~atina in the investigation shall be passed to the IIC through appropriate channels before - . . . being provided to any indiidual outside the investigation.

(c) Parties to the investigation may relay to their respective organizations information necessary for purposes of prevention or remedial action.

(d) However, no information concerning the accident or incident may be released to any person not a party representative to the investigation (including non-party representative employees of the party organization) before initial release by the Authority without prior consultation and approval of the IIC.

19.105 PROPOSED FINDINGS

(a) General. Any person, government agency, company, or association whose employees, functions, activities or products were involved in an accident or incident under investigatpn may submit to thg Authority written proposed findings to be drawn from the evidence produced during the course of the investigation, a proposed probable cause. and/or proposed safety recommendations designed to prevent future accidents.

(b) Timing of submissions. To be considered, these submissions must be received before the matter is calendared for consideration at a meeting chaired by the Authority. All written submissions are expected to have been presented to staffin advance of the formal scheduling of the meeting. This procedure ensures orderly and thorough consideration of all views.



TWENTIETH SCHEDULE (Regulations 165,166, 167)

AVIATION SECURITY

SUBPART A: GENERAL 20.001 Applicability 20.002 Definitions 20.003 Acronyms 20.004 Prohibition Orders 20.005 Issue of Security Directive or Information Circular 20.006 Protection of Sensitive Security Information 20.007 Quality Control

SUBPART B: SECURITY PROGRAMME 20.009 Restrictions on Security Programmes 20.010 Additional Requirements for Applications 20.01 1 Acceptance of a Proposed Security Programme 20.012 Contents of an Aerodrome Security Programme 20.01 3 Development of Aerodrome Security Measures 20.014 Approval of Aerodrome Security Programme 20.015 Air operator Security Measures 20.016 Contents of Air Operator Security Programme 20.017 Approval of Air Operator Security Programme 20.018 Contents of a Regulated Agent Security Programme 20.019 Approval of Regulated Agent Security Programme 20.020 Contents of a Flight Catering Operator Security Programme 20.021 Approval of Flight Catering Operator Security Programme 20.022 Modification to Operational Particulars Affecting Security 20.023 Amendment to Approved Security Programmes 20.024 Request to Amend an Approved Security Programme

SUBPART C: AERODROME SECURITY 20.025 Aerodrome Operator for Aerodrome Responsibilities 20.026 Aerodrome Security Committee 20.027 Aviation Security Officers and Screening Officers 20.028 Employer Responsibility for Aviation Security Officers and Aviation Screening

Officers 20.029 Use of members of the Security Forces 20.030 Requirement to Screen Persons. Carry-on Baggage. Goods or Vehicle 20.031 Refusal of Person to Submit to Screening 20.032 Unaccompanied Goods 20.033 Notification of Security Incidents 20.034 Aerodrome Tenant ~esponsibilities 20.035 Prohibition on Release of Security Measures at an Aerodrome

False Statements, Entries or unauthorized Reproductions Aerodrome Access Control Aerodrome Restricted Area Pass Security of Aerodrome Movement area ' Records Evidence of compliance Aerodrome Security Co-ordinator Measures in Event of Specific Threat at Aerodrome Notification of Threat against Facility or Aerodrome Screening Officers to Inform Aerodrome Operator of Threat against Aerodrome Measures in Event of Specific Threat Discovery of Weapons, Incendiary Devices or Explosives at Aerodrome

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20.048 Aerodrome Operator to keep Map of Aerodrome SUBPART D: AIR OPERATOR SECURITY

Air Operator Security Programme Screening of Passengers and Carry-on Bags Prevention and Management of Hijackings and Sabotage Attempts Carriage of Weapons on Board Aircraft Use of X-ray Systems Security Threats and Procedures Reporting Security Incidents Notification of Security Incidents by Screening Officers Security Information to the Authority Provision of Information to the Authority on Security Operations by Air Operator Service Providers Provision of Information to the Authority on Security Operations by Screening Personnel Use of Explosive Detection System Carriage of Passengers in the Custody of an Escort Officer

20.063 ~raini'g SUBPART E: REGULATED AGENT SECURITY

20.065 Security Controls over Cargo 20.066 Responsibilities of a Regulated Agent 20.067 Responsibility of the Air Operator Receiving Goods from a Regulated Agent 20.068 inspection o f ~ o o d s offered for ~ r a n s ~ o r t by Regulated ~ ~ e n i

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SUBPART F: FLIGHT CATERING OPERATOR SECURITY 20.070 Aviation Security Responsibilities of a Flight Catering Operator 20.071 Responsibility of the Air Operator Receiving Catering Stores and Supplies from a

Flight Catering Operator 20.072 Inspection of Catering Supplies and Stores

SUBPART G: RESPONSIBILITIES OF PASSENGERS a PERSONS AT AN AERODROME 20.076 Search of Persons and Goods 20.077 Restrictions of Passengers 20.078 Restrictions on Access to Aerodrome Restricted Areas 20.079 Restriction of Entry into Sterile Area 20.080 Requirement to Submit to Screening

APPENDICES Appendix I to 20.012: Aerodrome Operator Security Programme Appendix I to 20.016: Air Operator Security Programme Appendix I to 20.018: Regulated Agent Security Programme Appendix I to 20.020: Flight Catering Operator Security Programme Appendix 1 to 20.026: Aerodrome Security Committee Terms of Reference Appendix 1 to 20.028: Screener Training Requirements Appendix 1 to 20.030: Prohibited Items Appendix 1 to 20.034: Aerodrome Tenant Restricted Area Security Programme Appendix I to 20.038: Employment History Verification and Background Checks

SUBPART A: GENERAL

20.001 APPLICABILITY 20.002 DEFINITIONS For the purpose of this Schedule, the following definitions shall apply-

( I ) "act of unlawful interference" means an act which seeks to or jeopardizes the safety of civil aviation and air transport such as - (i) unlawful seizure of an aircraft in flight or on the ground; (ii) hostage taking on board an aircraft or at an aerodrome)

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(iii) forcible intrusions on board an aircraft at an aerodrome or at the premises of an aeronautical facility;

(iv) introduction on board an aircraft or at an aerodrome of a weapon or hazardous device or

material intended for criminal purposes; or (v) communication of false information so as to jeopardize the safety of aircraft in

flight or on the ground, of passengers, crew, ground or the general public, at an aerodrome or at the premises of a civil aviation facility;

"aerodrome" includes - (i) a Category A aerodrome, otherwise referred to as an "airport" that is certified

pursuant to the Aerodrome Regulations 2004, provides customs and immigration services and regularly serves scheduled and non-scheduled international and domestic commercial air transport operations and cargo operations:

(ii) A catego4 B aerodrome, is any aerodrome with no international service, and scheduled domestic services offered by national air operators with a freauencv of more than 2 scheduled Rights per day, utilizing aircraft with greater than 10- tonnes of Maximum Take Off Weight (MTOW) or more than 20 seats; and

(iii) A Category C aerodrome is any aerodrome, other than Category A and B aerodromes, with domestic non-scheduled and general aviation traffic, where the commercial activity is limited to aircraft with less than 10 tonnes of Maximum Take Off Weight (MTOW) or less than 20 seats;

"air operator" means a national air operator andlor a foreign air operator; "aerodrome operatorn means a person who operates a Category A, B or C aerodrome in Jamaica;

"aerodrome tenant" means any enterprise that is resident at an aerodrome and offers services and products at that aerodrome; "a loaded firearm" means a firearm, which has inserted in it a ive round of ammunition, cartridge, detonator or powder in the chamber or in a clip, magazine or cylinder; "Authority" means the Jamaica Civil Aviation Authority, as established under the Civil Aviation Act, 1966; "authorized search" means a search carried out of persons or goods destined to or within a restricted area of an aerodrome, or on board an aircraft, by a designated aviation security Pfticer, police officer or any other person designated by the Civil Aviation Authority; "aviation security officer" means- (i) a person who is trained in accordance with the security training requirements of

the approved Aerodrome Operator Security Programme and who has been appointed as an aviation security officer by an aerodrome operator, air operator or aerodome tenant; or

(ii) any member of the Jamaica Constabulary Force (JCF) or Defence Force when . . . . a&igned aerodrome security duties; -

(10) "avlatlon screening office" means a person who by virtue of his training has been employed by the aerodrome operator, air operator or aerodrome tenant to carry out aviation security screening duties;

(1 1) "background check" means a check of a person's identity and previous experience, including any criminal history, where appropriate, a9part of the assessment of the individual's suitability for unescorted access to a security restricted area;

(12) "Cargo" for the purpose of this Schedule and Part XV of the Regulations means any property carried on an aircraft other than mail, stores and accompanled or mishalidled baggage;

(13) "carryon baggage" means bags and personal belongings to which a person will have access while on board an aircraft;



(14) "catering stores" means all items, other than catering supplies, associated with passenger in-flight services, that includes newspapers, magazines, headphones, audio and video tapes, pillows and blankets, amenity kits;

(15) "catering supplies" means food, beverages, other dry stores and associated equipment used on board an aircraft;

(16) "checked baggage" means personal belongings of passengers or crew accepted for transportation by an aircraft operator and to which a person will not have access while on board an aircraft;

(17) "dangerous goods" means articles or substances which are capable of posing a risk to health, safety. property or the environment when transported by air and which are classified according to the International Civil Aviation Organization Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goods by Air;

(18) "escort" means lo accompany or supervise an individual who doesnot have unescorted access authority to areas restricted for security purposes, as identified in the Aerodrome Operator Security Programme, in a manner sufficient to take action should the individual engage in activities other than those for which the escorted access is granted;

(19) "exclusive area" means that part of an airside operations area for which an air operator has agreed in writing with the aerodrome operator to exercise exclusive security responsibility under an approved security programme or a security programme used in accordance with Subpart E of this Schedule;

(20) "firearm" has the meaning given to it in the Firearms Act,1967; (21) "flight catering operator" means any enterprise that provides catering supplies for

consumption on board an aircraft in flight engaged in the carriage of passengers; (22) "foreign alr operator" means an air operator who conducts international air

transport operations under the authority of an air operator certificate issued by a State other than Jamaica;

(23) "general aviation" means all aviation activity at an aerodrome associated with the arrival and departure of aircraft other than approved air operators by'license or

. permit; (24) "goods" means personal belongings, baggage, cargo, mail, article, thing or

conveyance that may be taken or placed on board an aircraft or taken into a restricted area;

(25) "handling agent" means a person, organization or enterprise engaged in or offering services to an air operator;

(26) "h1jacking"has the meaning given to it under The Aircraft (Tokyo, Hague and Montreal Conventions) Act. 1984;

(26) "incendiary device" means an object, other than a match or pocket lighter, that is fabricated with combustible materials and when ignited may cause fire damage to property or inflict bum injuries on individuals;

(27) 'in-flight security personnel" means a member of the security forces specially trained in aviation security;

(28) "movement areammeans that part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off. landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the apron(s);

(29) "Minister" means the Minister of Transport and Works; (30) "national alr operator" means an air operator operating under the authority of the

Civll Aviation Authority of Jamaica; (31) "person in custody" means a person who is for the time being under the control of

an escort officer; (32) "personal search" means a search of the clothing of a person and personal

belongings for prohibited items by a designated aviation security officer or a member of the Jamaica Constabulary Force;

(33) "security forces" means officers of the Jamaica Constabulary Force and Jamaica Defence Force;

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(34) "private charter" means an agreement to hire an entire aircraft for the carriage of passengers and goods;

(35) "public charter" means an agreement to hire a specified cargo space or number of passenger seats on an aircraft for the carriage of passengers and goods;

(36) "record" includes any writing. drawing, map, tape, film, photograph. or other means by which information is preserved;

(37) "regulated agent" means an agent, freight forwarder or any other entity who conducts busiiless with an air operator and provides security controls that are accepted or authorized by the Authority in respect of cargo, courier and express

- parcels or mail; (38) "restricted area" means any area of an aerodrome that is identified as an area to

which access is restricted to authorized persons and includes any aircraft or vehicle on that aerodrome;

(39) "restricted area pass" means a document issued by the designated.pass issuing authority, that entitles the holder to have access to a specific restricted area of an aerodrome during a specified period;

(40) "scheduled passenger operations" means the provision of an air transportation service for passengers from identified air terminals at a set time announced by timetable or schedule published in a newspaper, magazine or other advertising medium;

(41) "screening" means the application of technical or other means which are intended to detect weapons, explosives or other prohibited items which have been designated as dangerous to aviation security;

(42) "security measure" means the application of physical and human resources and processes for the control of weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices which may be utilized to commit an act of unlawful interference;

(43) "security programme" means measures adopted to safeguard international and domestic civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference;

(44) "security officer" or "security screening officer" is a duly trained and appointed aviation security guard;

(45) "sterile area" means that area between any passenger inspection or screening control point and aircraft into which access is strictly controlled;

(46) 'Technical Instructions" means the lnternational Civil Aviation Organization Instructions for the transport of Dangerous Goods by air;

(47) "tenant restricted area" means any area at, or connected to, an aerodrome that has been declared as such in accordance with the provisions of the appropriate aerodrome restricted area;

(48) "transit passenger" means a passenger departing from an aerodrome on the same flight on which he arrived;

(49) "transfer passengerslbaggage" means a passengerlbaggage making direct connections between two different flights;

(50) "unidentified baggage" means baggage at an aerodrome, with or without a baggage tag which is not picked up by or identified with a passenger; and

(51) "weapon" means any thing designed, used or capable of inflicting harm and includes a firearm.

20.003 ACRONYMS

The following acronyms are used in this Schedule - (1) ASP - Airport Security Programme; (2) C C N - Closed-circuit television; (3) HHMD - Hand-held Metal Detector; (4) HBS - Hold baggage screening; (5) ICAO - lnternational Civil Aviation Organization; (6) JCAA - Jamaica Civil Aviation Authority; (7) JCF -Jamaica Constabulary Force;

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(8) JDF -Jamaica Defence Force; (9) NCASC - National Civil Aviation Security Committee; (10) NCASP - National Civil Aviation Security Programme; (1 1) NCASTP - National Civil Aviation Security Training Programme; (12). NQCP - National Quality; (13) PIC - Pilot-in-Command (13) SCP - Screening checkpoint; (14) VIP -Very Important Person; and (15) WTMD - Walk-through Metal Detector;

20.004 Prohlbltlon Orders The Director General may issue an order prohibiting the carriage by aircraft of any item, either as personal belongings, freight, catering, cargo or mail.

20.005 Issue of Securlty Dlrectlve

(a) The Authority may, for the purpose of implementation of any of the Security Programmes required under this Schedule. issue a security directive or information circular to any person to whom subparagraph (c) applies requiring him to take such measures as are specified in the directive. Where the Authorily intends to issue a security directive, it may seek the advice of the National Civil Aviation Security Committee on the proposed directive before issuing it.

(b) The Authority may, by a security directive - (1) revoke wholly or partly another security directive issued previously; or (2) modify another security directive issued previously in such manner as it thinks fit.

(c) This subparagraph applies to - (1) the aerodrome operator; (2) the manager of an aerodrome other than an aerodrome which is principally used by

aircraft in military service; (3) any air operator registered or operating in Jamaica; (4) flight catering operator; (5) regulated agent; (6) any person who occupies any land forming part of an aerodrome; (7) any person who is permitted to have access to a restricted area in an aerodrome for

the purposes of the activities of a business carried on by him; (8) any who manages navigational or other aviation related facilities that are

important to the continued operation of international civil aviation; or (9) any person who carries on a business:

(i) which involves handling of any article intended to be carried into an aerodrome for any purpose;

(ii) which involves provision of service by personnel who have access to a restricted area; and

(iii) which. in the opinion of the Authority, otherwise impinges on the security of an aerodrome.

(d) A person issued with a security directive or a information circular shall comply with all security directives issued by the Authority within the time frame prescribed for compliance.

(e) A person issued with a security directive or an information circular shall - (1) no later than twenty-fqur hours after delivery by the Authority or within the time

prescribed in the security directive, acknowledge receipt of such security directive; (2) within the time prescribed in such security directive, specify the method by which the

aerodrome operator, air operator. flight catering operator or regulated agent has implemented or plans to implement the measures in the security directive; and

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THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGUL.4 TIONS, 2004

(3) ensure that information regarding the security directive and measures implemented in response to such security directive are distributed to specified personnel as prescribed in the security directive and to other personnel who require to have such information for the performance of their functions.

In the event that a person issued with a security directive or an information circular is unable to implement the measures contained in the security directive or information circular, he shall submit proposed alternative measures, and the basis for submitting the alternative measures, to the Director General within the time frame for compliance prescribed in the security directive or information circular.

The Director General shall review alternative measures submitted by the person to whom a security directive was issued and where he is satsfied that they meet the requirements of the security directive, he shall approve such alternative measures. The person shall implement any alternative measures approved by the Authority under subparagraph (g). (1) A person who receives a security directive or information circular, under

subparagraph (a), and each person who receives information from such a person in respect of his duties, shall - (i) restrict the availability of the security directive or information circular and

information therein to those persons who require such information for h e performance of their functions; and

(ii) refuse to release the security directive or information circular and information regarding the security directive or lnformation circular to other persons without the prior written consent of the Authority.

20.006 Protection of Sensitive Security information (a) For the purpose of these Regulations the following information and records containing such

information constitute sensitive security information - an approved security programmefor an aerodrome operator, air operator, regulated agent or flight catering operator, or tenant restricted area operator; any security programme that relates to transportation by air and any comments. instructions or implementing guidance pertaining thereto; security directives, information circulars and any comments, instructions or implementing guidance pertaining thereto; any profile used in any security screening process, including for persons, baggage or

any security contingency plan or information and any comments, instructions, or implementing guidance pertaining thereto; technical specifications of any device used for the detection of any deadly or dangerous weapon, explosive. incendiary, or destructive substance; a description of, or technical specifications of, objects used to test screening equipment; communication procedures and technical specifications of any security communication equipment; any information that the Director General has determined may reveal a systemic vulnerability of the aviation system or a vulnerability of aviation facilities, to attack; information concerning threats against civil aviation released by the Authorily specific details of aviation security measures whether applied directly by the Authority or regulated parties and includes, but is not limited to, lnformation concerning specific numbers of aviation security officers and aviation security screening officers, deolovments or missions. and the methods involved in such ~Derations:

(12) h e r information, the disclosure of which the Authority has prohibited; and (13) any draft, proposed or recommended change to the informatbn and records identified

in these Regulations. (b) A person shall not divuloe documented information in respect of security measures in effect

by the Civil Aviation Authority or other government authority, an aerodrome operator, air

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operator, regulated agent, aerodrome tenant or flight catering organization, without permission.

20.007 Quality Control (a) The Director General may in writing require any person who -

(1) is required to hold an aviation security programme; or (2) operates, maintains, or services, or does any other act in respect of any aircrafl.

aeronautical procedure, to undergo or carry out such inspections and such monitoring as the Director General considers necessary in the interests of civil aviation security.

(b) The Direclor General may, in respect of any person described in subparagraph (a), carry out such inspections and monitoring as the Director General considers necessary in the interest of civil aviation security.

(c) For the purposes of any inspection or monitoring carried out in respect of any person under subparagraph (b), the Director General may in writing require from that person such information as the Director General considers relevant to the inspection or the monitoring.

SUBPART 8: SECURITY PROGRAMMES

20.009 RESTRICTIONS ON SECURITY PROGRAMMES An aerodrome operator shall not operate the aerodrome specified in his aerodrome licence unless he has submitled, for such aerodrome, a proposed Aerodrome'Operator Security Programme, which meet the requirements of these Regulations for acceptance and subsequent approval by the Authority. A person shall not operate a Jamaican aircrafl within Jamaica or internationally unless he has submitted a proposed Air Operator Security Programme for his operations, to the Authority for its acceptance and subsequent approval. A foreign air operator shall no1 conduct operations in Jamaica unless he has submhted a . . proposed Air Operator Security Programme as part of his application for air seivices to the Authority for its acceptance and subsequent approval. A person shall not operate an enterprise or an organization whose purpose is the movement of goods by air, within and through Jamaica, unless he has submitted a proposed Regulated Agent Security Programme for his operations, to the Authority for its acceptance and subsequent approval. or has satisfied the Authority that appropriate security controls are in place to safeguard against an act of unlawful interference. A person shall not operate an enterprise or an organization whose purpose is the provision of catering supplies and stores for use in air transport, within and through Jamaica, unless he has submitted a proposed Flight Catering Operator Security Programme for his operations, to the Authority for its acceptance and subsequent approval. Where a person wishes his proposed security programme under this Regulation to be approved by the Authority he shall - (1) submit such security programme in writing at least ninety days before the intended date .

of operations; (2) pay the prescribed fee; and (3) meet the requirements of these ~egulations. A security programme under these Regulations shall be signed by Ihe applicant and provide for the safety and security of- (1) passengers, crew and their property; (2) the aircraft; and (3) related aviation support facilities, against acts of unlawful interference.

20.010 Additional Requirements for Applications (a) Where a person, under 20.009, submits his security programme as part of his application for

(1) an aerodrome licence under the Act or Regulations made thereunder; (2) an Air Operator Certificate under the Civil Aviation Regulations. 2004; and

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(3) a foreign air operator air service licence or chatter permit under the Civil Aviation (Air Transport Licensing) Regulations 1966; he shall in addition to meeting the requirements of that Regulation, meet the requirements for his security programme under these Regulations.

(b) For the purpose of administering these Regulations a security programme shall be assessed by the Director General, for adequacy.

20.011 Acceptance of a Proposed Security Programme Where the Director ~enera l is satisfied ihat aproposed security programme submitted under 20.009, meets the requirements of these Regulations.and does not conflict with the National Civil Aviation Security Programme, he may accept such proposed security programme. Where the Director General determines that a proposed security programme submitted under 20.009, requires modification he may direct the applicant to modify and re-submit the proposed security programme for the acceptance of the Authority. An acceptance under this Regulation does not authorize the aerodrome operator, air operator, regulated agent or flight catering operator to use his proposed security programme, submitted for approval under these Regulations, in his operations until the implementation of such programme has been evaluated and the programme has been approved for use.

20.012 Contents of an Aerodrome Security Programme An Aerodrome Operator Security progra-mmeinder 20.009 and 20.005 in respect of a licensed aerodrome Operator shall be designed to safeguard against acts of unlawful interference and shall include -

the objective of the security programme; a description of the aerodrome; composition and responsibilities of the Aerodrome Security Committee; details of the security measures at the aerodrome; duties and responsibilities of persons who are required by the nature of their duties to be resident at the aerodrome; description of the security and communication procedures; details of the procedures to be followed in response to acts of unlawful interference; details of security training for staff; recruitment of staff; and

(10) such other matters as may be required by the Authority. An Aerodrome Operator Security Programme under subparagraph (a) shall be accompanied by a current scale map of the aerodrome under as set out in 20.025(c). (1) An Aerodrome Operator Security Programme under subparagraph (a) shall be in the

manner set out in Appendix 1 to 20.012.

(See Appendix' 1 to 20.012 for the contents of an eerodrome operator security programme.)

20.013 Development of Aerodrome Security Measures In developing an Aerodrome Operator Security Measures under 20.009, an aerodrome operator shall take into consideration -

(1) the special needs of general aviation, including reasonable access to aerodrome facilities and aircraft;

(2) the optimizing of aerodrome security arrangements in his development, renovation and expansion plans;

(3) the provision of secure storage area for holding unidentified or mishandled baggage; and

(4) the provision of a secure isolated area for holding suspicious unidentified baggage or other suspicious items located in an aerodrome terminal or any security restricted area.

20.014 Approval of Aerodrome Security Programme

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(a) Upon a proposed Aerodrome Operator Security Programme submitted under 20.009 being accepted by the Authority under 20.01 1, an aerodrome Operator Security Programme is implemented and in full operation.

(b) Where an aerodrome operator has implemented his accepted Aerodrome Operator Security Programme he shall notify the Authority that he - (1) has implemented such accepted Aerodrome Operator Security Programme; and (2) wishes to commence operations under such implemented Aerodrome Operator

Security Programme once it is approved by the Authority. (c) Where the Director General is satisfied that the Aerodrome Operator Security Programme

implemented in the operations at the aerodrome and the accepted Aerodrome Operator Security Programme of the aerodrome operator are identical he may recommend the Authority approve the Aerodrome Operator Security Programme for full operation in commercial air transport operations.

(d) Notwithstanding subparagraph(c), where the Aerodrome Operator Security Programme implemented in the operations of the aerodrome operator and the accepted Aerodrome Operator Security Programme are not identical, but the differences are within an acceptable level the Director General may recommend the approval of such Aerodrome Operator Security Programme subject to a limitation.

20.015 Development of Air Operator Security Measures A proposed Air Operator Security Programme under Air Operator Regulations 20.009 and 20.010 shall meet the requirements of the National Civil Aviation Security Programme and shall contain measures to ensure that -

passengers, crew members and their carry-on baggage are screened prior to boarding an aircraft engaged in ~ i v i l aviation operations; pre-flight checks of aircraft for suspicious objects, weapons, explosives or any other device is conducted; transfer and transit passengers and the carry-on baggage of such passengers are subjected to adequate security controls aimed at preventing unauthorized articles from being taken on board an aircraft engaged in civil aviation operations; weapons, incendiary devices or any other dangerous device, the carriage or bearing of which is not authorized and which may be used to commit an act of unlawful interference, are not introduced, by any means whatsoever, on board an aircraft engaged in civil aviation operations; '

measures are taken, in respect of a flight which may be under an increased threat, to ensure that disembarking passengers do not leave items on board the aircraft at transit stops for such flight; adequate measures are taken to ensure that during flight unauthorized persons are prevented from entering the flight crew compartment; there is no possibility, after the security screening points at aerodromes serving international civil aviation operations have been passed, of mixing or contact between passengers subjected to screening and other security control and other persons not subjected to such control; checked baggage is subjected to screening and other appropriate security controls prior to being loaded into an aircraft engaged in civil aviation operations; checked baggage intended for carriage on passenger flights is protected from unauthorized access and tampering from the point it is checked in, whether at an aerodrome or elsewhere, until it is placed on board an aircraft; the baggage of passengers who are not on board the aircrafl is not transported unless that baggage is subjected to appropriate security controls which may include screening; storage areas are established at aerodromes through which the air operator operates, where mishandled baggage may be held until f o ~ ~ r d e d , claimed or disposed.of in accordance with local laws to ensure that they are not tampered with;

(12) consignments checked in as baggage by courier services for carriage on passenger aircrafl engaged in civil aviation operations are screened;

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(13) transfer checked baggage are subjected to appropriate security controls to prevent unauthorized articles from being taken on board aircraft engaged in civil aviation operations;

(14) when providing a passenger service only checked baggage which is authorized for carriage in accordance with the requirements specified in the Natio:.al Civil Aviation Security Programme is transported;

(1 5) procedures are specified for the control of entry of firearms on board an aircraft which ensure that checked firearms are not loaded and are not accessible to passengers during flight time; and

(16) security measures are established which provide for known cargo and mail consignments to be carried on passengers flights.

20.016- Contents o f Air Operator Security Programme (a) In addition to the matter set out in 20.015 an air operator shall ensure that his Air Operator

Security Programme. required under 20.009. contains - (1) provisions to meet his international obligations; and (2) provisions to meet the requirement of the National Civil Aviation Security Programme

and his national obligations under the Act or Regulations made thereunder; (b) In addition to the requirements under subparagraph (a), a national air operator shall ensure

that his Air Operator Security Programme contains - (1) a security policy and the procedures for ensuring-

(i) security of passengers and passenger carry on and checked baggage; and (ii) security of crew, crew carry on and checked baggage;

(2) procedures for - (i) passenger and checked baggage reconciliation; (ii) ensuring security of -

(A) his aircraft; ( 8 ) aiiline catering, stores and supplies; (C) aircraft cleaning operations; (D) cargo, courier, express parcels and mail;

(iii) recruitment of staff; (iv) training of staff; (v) incident reporting; and

(3) details of contingency planning; and (4) supervision and performance monitoring procedures to meet the security requirements

for aerodromes through which he operates. (c) An Air Operator Security Programme under subparagraph (a) shall include details of how he

plans to meet the requirements set out in Appendix 1 to 20.016in the manner set out therein.

(See Appendix 1 lo 20.01 6 for detailed requirements of the air operator security programme.)

20.017 Approval o f Air Operator Security Programme Upon a proposed Air Operator Security Programme submitted under paragraph 20.009, being accepted by the Authority under operator paragraph 20.01 1, the air operator shall within thirty days of such acceptance ensure that such Air Operator Security Programme is implemented and in full operation.

(1) Where an air operator has implemented his accepted Air Operator Security Programme, he shall notify the Authority that he - (i) has implemented sych accepted Aircraft Operator Security Programme; and (ii) wishes to commence operations under such implemented Air Operator Security

Programme once it is approved by the Authority. (2) Where the Director General is satisfied that the implemented Air Operator Security

Programme implemented in the operations of the air operator and the accepted Air Operator Security Programme are identical, the Authority will approve the Air Operator Security Programme for full operation in commercial air transport operations.


652 THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULA TIONS, 2004

(3) Notwithstanding subparagraph (c), where the Air Operator Security Programme implemented in the operations of the air operator and the accepted Air Operator Security Programme are not identical, but the differences are within an acceptable level the Authority may approve such Air Operator Security programme subject to such conditions as the Author~ty deems appropriate.

20.018 Contents of a Regulated Agent Security hogramme (a) A regulated agent shall ensure that his Regulated Agent Security Programme, required

under 20.009, contains - (1) provisions to meet his international obligations; (2) provisions to meet the requirement of the National Civil Aviation Security Programme

and his national obligations under the Act or Regulation made thereunder; and (3) procedures for -

(i) ensuring the security of goods accepted by him and under his control; (ii) ensuring the security of his buildings, premises, transport facilities and cargo

warehouses; (iii) recruitment and training of staff involved in the handling of goods; and (iv) incident reporting.

(b) A Regulated Agent Security Programme under subparagraph(a), shall be set out in the manner specified in Appendix 1 to 20.013.

(See Appendix 1 to 20.018 for details of the regulated agent security programme.)

20.019 Approval of Regulated Agent Security Programme (a) Upon a proposed Regulated Agent Security Programme submitted under Regulation

20.009. being accepted by the Authority under 20.01 1. the regulated agent shall within thirty days of such Security acceptance ensure that such accepted Regulated Agent Security is implemented and in full operation.

(b) Where the regulated agent has implemented his accepted Regulated Agent Security Programme in accordance with subparagraph (a), he shall - (1) notify the Authority that he has implemented his accepted Regulated Agent Security

Programme; and (2) wishes to commence operations under such implemented Regulated Agent Security

Programme once it is approved by the Authority. (c) Where the Director General is satisfied that the Regulated Agent Security Programme

implemented in the operations of the regulated agent and the accepted Regulated Agent Security Programme are identical. the Authority will approve the Regulated Agent Security Programme, (hereinafter referred to as "an approved Regulated Agent Security Programme") for full operation in the operations of the regulated agent.

(d) Notwithstanding subparagraph (c), where the approved Regulated Agent Security Programme implemented in the operations of the regulated agent and the accepted Regulated Agent Security Programme are not identical, but the differences are within an acceptable level the Authority may approve such Regulated Agent Security Programme subject to such conditions as the Authority deems appropriate.

20.020 Contents of a Flight Catering Operator Security Programme (a) A flight catering operator shall ensure that his Flight Catering Operator Security

Programme, required under 20.009, contains - (1) provisions to meet his international obligations; (2) provisions to meet the requirement of the National Civil Aviation Security Programme

and his national obligations under the Act or Regulation made thereunder; (3) include details of how he plans to meet the requirements set out in Appendix 1 to

20.020 in the manner set out therein; and (4) procedures for -


THE CIVIL A YIATION REGULATIONS, 2004 653

(i) ensuring the security of raw materials and other catering stores entering his facility;

(ii) ensuring the 'security of his buildings, premises, transport facilities and catering preparation areas from unauthorized access;

(iii) controlling access to areas where catering stores and supplies are stored, prepared and made ready for transport;

(iv) the screening of completed catering supplies prior to delivery to aircraft; (v) the integrity of completed catering supplies whilst being transported to aircraft; (iv) recruitment and training of staff involved in the handling of goods; and (iv) incident reporting.

(b) A Flight Catering Operator Security Programme under subparagraph(a), shall be'set out in the manner specified in Appendix 1 to 20.020

(See Appendix 1 to 20.020 for details of the Flight Catering Operator Security Programme.)

20.021 Approval of a Fllght Catering Operator Securlty Programme (a) Upon a proposed Flight Catering Operator Security Programme submitted under

Regulation 20.009, being accepted by the Authority under regulation 20.01 1, the catering operator shall within thirty days of such acceptance ensure that such accepted Catering Operator Security Programme is implemented and in full operation.

(b) Where the flight catering operator has implemented his accepted Flight Catering Operator Security Programme in accordance with subparagraph (a), he shall - (1) notify the Author~ty that he has implemented his accepted Flight Catering Operator

Security Programme; and (2) wishes to commence operations under such implemented Flight Catering Operator

Security Programme once it is approved by the Authority. (c) Where the Director General is satisfied that the Flight Catering Operator Security

Programme implemented in the operations of the Flight Catering Operator and the accepted Flight Catering Operator Security Programme are identical, the Authority will approve the Flight Catering Operator Security Programme, (hereinafter referred to as "an approved Flight Catering Operator Security Programme") for full operation in the operations of the Catering Operator.

(d) Notwithstanding subparagraph (c), where the Flight Catering Operator Security Programme implemented in the operations of the Catering Operator and the accepted Flight Catering Operator Security Programme are not identical, but the differences are within an acceptable level, the Authority may approve such Flight Catering Operator Security Programme subject to such conditions as the Authority deems appropriate.

20.022 Modifications to Operational Particulars Affecting Security (a) Where a security programme has been approved under 20.009. 20.012, 20.014 and 20.016

(hereinafter referred to as "an approved Security Programme"), the aerodrome operator, air operator, regulated agent or flight catering operator where applicable shall follow the procedures under subparagraph (b), whenever he determines - (1) in respect of an aerodrome operator -

(i) any description of the aerodrome area set out in such Aerodrome Operator Security Programme is no longer accurate; and

(ii) the changes to the designation of the Aerodrome Security Co-ordinator required under 20.042; and

(2) any description of his operations set out in his programme is no longer accurate the procedures included, and the facilities and equipment described, in such Aerodrome Operator Security programme are no longer adequate.

(b) Whenever a condition described in subparagraph (a), occurs the aerodrome operator, arr operator, regulated agent or flight catering operator where applicable shall -



(1) immediately notify the Director General of the changed condition, and identify each interim measure being taken to maintain adequate security until approval is granted for an' appropriate amendment to his approved Security Programme; and

(2) within thirty days after notifying the Director General in accordance with paragraph (a), submit for approval in accordance with regulation 20.023, an amendment t o his Security Programme to bring it into compliance with these Regulations.

20.023 Amendment of Approved Security Programmes (a) Where an aerodrome operator, air operator, regulated agent, or catering operator wishes to

amend his approved Security Programme, he shall submit the request for such approval to the Authority at least thirty days before the proposed effective date of intended implementation of the amended approved Security Programme.

(b) When the Authority is satisfied that the proposed amendment to the approved Security Programme provides the level of security required by these Regulations, the Authority may approve the amended approved Security Programme.

20.024 Request to Amend an Approved Security Programmes (a) The Authority may require that an aerodrome operator, air operator, regulated agent or

catering operator amend his approved Security Programme, where he determines that safety and the public interest require the amendment.

(b) Except in an emergency as provided in subparagraph (e) below, where the Authority requires an aerodrome operator, air operator. regulated agent or flight catering operator amend his approved Security Programme under subparagraph (a)above, the Director General shall notify the aerodrome operator. air operator, regulated agent or catering agent in writing of the required amendment and allow a period of thirty days from the date contained in the notice, for a written response from such aerodrome operator, air operator, regulated agent or flight catering operator.

(c) Upon receipt of a notice of a proposed amendment under subparagraph (b).the aerodrome operator, air operator, regulated agent or flight catering operator may submit an alternative amendment to his approved Security Programme which meets the intent of the required amendment under subparagraph (b), for consideration by the Director General.

(d) When the Director General is satisfied that the alternative amendment submitted under subparagraph (c), would provide an overall level of security equal to that required by the Authority, the Authority may approve the alternative amendment to the approved Security Programme.

(e) Where the Director General determines that an emergency exists which requires immediate action that makes the procedure in subparagraph(b) and (c), impracticable or contrary to the public interest and safety, the Authority may direct the aerodrome operator, air operator, regulated agent or flight catering operator to deviate in a specified manner from his approved security programme in the area of concern, for a specified period.

(f) Where an aerodrome operator. air operator, regulated agent or flight catering operator wishes to amend his approved security programme, he shall submit the request for such approval to the Authority at least thirty days before the proposed effective date of intended implementation of the amended approved security programme.

(g) When the Director General is satisfied that the proposed amendment to the approved security programme provides the level of security required by these Regulations, he may approve the amendment to the approved security programme.

SUBPART C: AERODROME SECURITY

20.025 Aerodrome Operator Responsibilities (a) An aerodrome operator shall, prior to the implementation of any renovation and expansion

works to his aerodrome or the construction of additional aerodrome facilities at the same Incation, submit to the Authority a revision of his measures designed to safeguard against acts of ~mlawful interference which may arise.



(b) Where foreign air operators use the aerodrome facilities of an aerodrome operator the Director General may, in co-ordination with the aerodrome operator, recommend or approve an inspection by the authority responsible for aviation security of the Contracting State of such foreign air operator in order to assess the adequacy of the security measures.

(c) An aerodrome operator shall keep at the aerodrome a current scale map of the aerodrome that identifies the restricted areas, security barriers and restricted area access points.

20.026 Aerodrome Security Committee (a) An aerodrome operator shall establish an Aerodrome Security Committee to ensure the

implementation of any national civil aviation security initiatives that may be required by the Authority from time to time.

(b) An Aerodrome Security Committee under subparagraph (a), shall comprise - (1) the aerodrome manager; (2) a representative of the aerodrome tenants; (3) a representative of each governmental agency resident at the aerodrome; (4) operators who utilize the aerodrome; (5) a representative of the Air Traffic Control; (6) where applicable, a representative of general aviation and aerodrome security

agencies; and (7) any other representatives of the tenants of the aerodrome who the aerodrome operator

determines should be included. (c) The terms of reference for the ~erochome Security Committee shall be as set out in

Appendix 1 to 20.026. (See Appendix 1 to 20.026 for the aerodrome security committee terms o f reference.)

20.027 Aviation Security Officers and Aviation Screening Officers (a) An aerodrome operator shall provide aviation security officers and aviation screening

officers, in the number and in a manner adequate to support - , (1) his Aerodrome Operator Security Programme; and

(2) each passenger screening system required under Subpart C of this Schedule. (b) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that an aviation security officer or aviation screening

officer employed by him- (1) abstains from the consumption of alcoholic beverages while assigned to duty; and (2) is readily identifiable by uniform and displays or carries a badge or other identification

of his authority while assigned to duty; and (3) has completed a training programme that meets the requirements in subparagraph (g).

(c) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that an aviation security officer employed by him - (1) is a district constable within the meaning of the Constabulary Force Act.1935; and (2) conducts security duties in accordance with the applicable provisions of this Schedule.

(d) An aerodrome operator may have an aviation security officer armed with a firearm while on duty at the aerodrome.

(e) An aviation security officer shall, while on duty at an aerodrome, have the authority to arrest with or without a warrant, for- (1) a crime committed in his presence; or (2) an offence, when he has reason to believe that the suspect has committed such

offence. (f) The training progrmme required by subparagraph (b)(3), shall provide training in the

subjects specified in subparagraph (g) and meet the training standards for members of the Jamaica Constabulary Force performing comparable functions.

(g) The training programme required by subparagraph (b)(3) shall include training in- (1) the courteous and efficient treatment of persons subject to inspection, detention,

search, arrest, and other aviation security activities; (2) the responsibilities of members of the Jamaica Constabulary Force service under the

approved Aerodrome Operator Security Programme; and (3) any other area the Authority determines necessary.



20.028 Employer Responsibility for Aviation Security Officers and Aviation Screening Officers (a) An aerodrome operator shall not employ any person as an aviation security officer or

aviation screening officer unless - (1) such person meets the requirements of these Regulations; (2) such person has been trained in accordance with the requirements of these

Regulations, where his duties are in respect to screening of passengers, crew, baggage and mail; and

(3) where employed by the aerodrome tenant as an aviation security officer. such person is approved by the aerodrome operator.

(b) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that - (1) initial and periodic background checks are performed in respect of each aviation

security ofticer and aviation screening ofticer; and (2) initial and recurrent training on aviation security is received by each aviation security

officer and aviation screening ofticer in his employ. (c) An aerodrome operator shall keep an accurate record of the initial and periodic

background check, experience and training of an aviation security officer and aviation screening ofticer in his employ and such record shall be retained for the duration of his employment and thereafter for a period of one year.

(See Appendix 1 to 20.028 for Screener Training Requirements)

20.029 Use of Members of the Security Forces (a) Whenever the number of aviation security officers, required under 20.027, are not available

to meet the requirements of this Schedule, an aerodrome operator may request through the Authority the use of members of the Security Forces.

(b) A request for the use of members of the security forces under subparagraph (a)above, shall be accompanied by the following information - (1) the number of passengers who boarded at the aerodrome during the preceding year

and the current year as of the date of the request; (2) the anticipated risk of criminal violence and acts of unlawful interference including .

aircraft piracy at the aerodrome involving the operations of air operator at the aerodrome;

(3) a copy of that portion of the approved Aerodrome Operator Security Programme of the aerodrome operator which describes the required support from the security forces necessary to comply with these Regulations;

(4) an estimate from the aerodrome operator of the number of persons required from the security services to supplement available aviation security officers and the period of time for which they would be needed; and

(5) any other information the Authority considers necessary. (c) In response to a request submitted in accordance with this paragraph, the Director General

may recommend to the Minister with responsibility for national security that, he approves the assignment of members of the security forces at the aerodrome.

20.030 Requirement to Screen Persons, Canyon Baggage, Goods or Vehicle (a) An Aviation Security Officer or Aviation Screening Officer shall require every person

entering or leaving a restricted or sterile area to be screened along with his carryon baggage, goods or vehicle.

(b) Screening shall be conducted to ensure that prohibited items as set out in Appendix 1 to 20.030 are not taken into the cabin of aircraft or into aerodrome Security Restikted Arees.

(See Appendix 1 to 20.030 Hems Pmhibited from the AircraR Cabin and Aerodmme Security Restricted Arees)

20.031 Refusal of Persons to Submit to Screening

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(a) Where, after entering a restricted or sterile area, a person who is required by an aviation security officer or aviation screening officer, to submit to screening of his person, goods. vehicle or means of conveyance refuses such a search, the aviation security officer shall order such person to leave the restricted or sterile area and remove the goods, vehicle or means of conveyance in his possession from the restricted or sterile area.

(b) Where, after having boarded an aircraft, a passenger is required by an aviation security officer to submit to screening of his person, or of the goods that he carried or had placed on board the aircraft and he refuses such a screening, the aviation security officer shall order such person to disembark the aircraft and remove the carry-on baggage, goods or checked baggage of such person.

20.032 Unaccompanied Goods Where goods are received at an aerodrome for transport on an aircraft and such goods are not accompanied by a person who may give the permission to screen such goods, an aviation security officer or aviation screening officer, may carry out an authorized search of the goods in the presence of the air operator concerned or a regulated agent and in carrying out that search may use such force as may reasonably be necessary to gain access to the goods.

20.033 Notification of Security incidents (a) An aerodrome operator, air operator, aerodrome tenant or regulated agent shall

immediately notify an aviation security officer, aviation screening officer, or Police Officer when there is - (1) the discovery of an unauthorized firearm other than an unloaded firearm allowed

under the security programme of an air operator; (2) the discovery, at the aerodrome, or on board an aircraft, of an explosive substance or

an incendiary device or a suspected explosive substance or suspected incendiary device;

(3) refusal by a person to submit to the security screening required under these Regulations;

(4) refusal by a person to remove himself and his goods from a restricted area when so ordered by an aviation security officer;

(5) a report of unattended baggage located in his area of responsibility; (6) a report of suspicious packages, articles or goods in his area of responsibility, or (7) a specific threat against the aerodrome comes to his attention.

(b) An aerodrome operator shall investigate any of the reported security incidents set out in subparagraph (a) above, and provide a report of the incident to the Authority in accordance with procedures set out in his approved Aerodrome Operator Security Programme.

20.034 Aerodrome Tenant Responsibility (a) An aerodrome tenant shall develop security measures to manage access to restricted

areas under his control in compliance with the Aerodrome Operator Security Programme of the aerodrome and submit the details in writing for the approval of the aerodrome operator.

(b) An aerodrome tenant who operates an enterprise or an organization within an aerodrome restricted area, or has control over access to an aerodrome restricted area shall develop a tenant restricted area security programme to safeguard both the tenant restricted area and the aerodrome against acts of unlawful interference, and will include the contents of the tenant restricted area security programme as set out in Appendix 1 to 20.034 of this Schedule.

(c) An aerodrome tanant restricted area programme under subparagraph (b) shall be accompanied by a current scale map of the tenant restricted area, as required and

unde; the restricted area designation in the appropriate Aerodrome Security Programme.

(d) An aerodrome tenant shall ensthe that his personnel receive aerodrome security training or security awareness training as appro~riate, in accordance with the approved Aerodrome . . . operakr Security programme.

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(e) An aerodrome tenant shall not use a person as an aviation security officer unless the employment of such person has been approved by the aerodrome operator.

(See Appendix 1 to 20.034 for the contents of an aerodrome tenant restricted area security programme.)

20.035 Prohlbltlon on Release of Security Measures at an Aerodrome A person shall not divulge documented information in respect of security measures in effect at an aerodrome without the permission of the aerodrome operator.

20.036 False Statements, Entries or Unauthorized Reproductlon A person shall not make, or cause to be made, any of the following -

( I ) a fraudulent or intentionally false statement in any Aerodrome Operator Security Programme or an application for any security programme, access medium, or identification medium;

(2) , a fraudulent or intentionally false entry in any record or report that is kept, made or used to show compliance with this subpart or exercise any privileges under this Subpart; and

(3) a reproduction or alteration of any report, record, security programme, access medium or identification medium issued under this Subpart without the approval of the aerodrome operator.

20.037 Aerodrome Access Control (a) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that the location and function of restricted areas at the

aerodrome are designated and properly defined. (b) The level of access to a restricted or sterile area shall be clearly defined and made known

to all persons at the aerodrome whose duties require them to have restricted or sterile areas access.

(c) An aerodrome operator shall include in his Approved Aerodrome Operator Security Programme details of a system, method and procedure which shall ensure that - (I) access points into restricted or sterile areas are limited in number and physical access

through those points are strictly controlled; (2) entry points which cannot be effectively controlled are locked or otherwise secured . .

a g a k entry by unauthorized person& (3) access by persons and vehicles to restricted and sterile areas is restricted only to . .

persons who have a clear need for such access by virtue of their duties;. (4) securitv restricted areas not subiect to continual access control measures shall be . .

subjecied to a thorough search briar to being brought into use; (5) a person whose duties reauire him to be at the aerodrome is reauired to have on . .

dkplay on his person, a valid aerodrome identification media an'd any baggage or item he carries shall be screened before being allowed access to restricted or sterile areas;

(6) the screening under paragraph (5) shall be to the same standard as that required for passengers, under 20.030; and

(7) persons at an aerodrome are aware of what areas they are prohibited access. (d) Notwithstanding the screening requirements under subparagraph (c)(5)above, the Authority

may consider screening at certain access points on a random basis depending on the assessed risk where details of such risks are included in an approved Aerodrome Operator Security Programme.

(e) The system under subparagraph (b), shall provide a means to differentiate between persons authorized to have access to only a particular portion of the secured areas and persons authorized to have access only to other portions or to the entire secured, area and shall be capable of limiting the access of an individual by time and date.

( f ) The system under subparagraph (b), shall describe the scope of initial and periodic background checks conducted on applicants for all types of passes issued.

20.038 Aerodrome Restricted Area Pass System

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A person applying for a security restricted area pass shall be subject to a background check, initially and every three years thereafter and shall provide the information necessary for such a check in accordance with Appendix 1 to 20.038(a) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that access to a restricted or sterile area of his aerodrome are controlled by the use of a restricted area pass to identify persons and vehicles and facilitate access where authorized. An aerodrome operator shall ensure that all persons working at his aerodrome are issued with an restricted area pass by the organization approved for such purpose and all such persons shall display such identification permit on their person at all times while at the aerodrome. An aerodrome operator shall not issue to any person any restricted area pass that provides unescorted access to a restricted area unless the person has successfully completed training in accordance with a curriculum specified in the approved Aerodrome Operator Security Programme of the aerodrome operator. The curriculum under subparagraph (d), shall detail the methods of instruction and shall include- (1) control, use and display of approved aerodrome security restricted area pass; (2) procedures by aviation security officers, aerodrome screening officers and members

of the protective services for dealing with perceived unauthorized access; (3) restrictions on disclosure of information concerning an act of unlawful interference

with civil aviation where such information is likely to jeopardize the safety of domestic or international aviation;

(4) non-disclosure of information regarding the aerodrome security system or any securitv svstem of an aerodrome tenant: and

(5) any othertopic deemed necessary by the Authority. A Derson shall not use an aerodrome restricted area Dass that provides unescorted access to a security restricted area to gain such access unless that pass was issued to such person by the aerodrome operator. An aerodrome operator shall keep a record of all training given to each person under this regulation for six months after the termination of the unescorted access privileges of that person.

(See Appendix 1 to 20.038 for employment verilication and background check requirements.)

20.039 Securlty of Aerodrome Movement area (e) An aerodrome operator of an aerodrome serving scheduled passenger operations shall

perform the following control functions - (1) control of access to each movement area, ~ncluding where methods for preventing

the entry of unauthorized persons and ground vehicles; (2) control of movement of persons and ground vehcles within each movement area,

including, when appropriate, requirements for the display of security identification; and

(3) detection and taking action to control each entry, or attempted entry to an movement area by a person whose entry is not authorized under his approved Aerodrome Operator Security Programme.

(b) An aerodrome operator is not required to comply with subparagraph (a), with respect to an exclusive area under the control of h e air operator, where the aerodrome operator is satisfled that the air operator has included h e following in his approved Aerodrome Operator Security Programme - (1) a description of the procedure to satisfy the control functions under subparagraph (a); (2) a description of h e facilities and equipment, used by the air operator to perform the

control functions described in submraaradh la); and . . .- (3) procedures. by which the air operaior GI notify the aerodrome operator when his

~rocedures. facilities. and eaubment are not adeouate to ~erform the control iunctlons described in subparagraph (a).

(The inclusion of this page I s authorized by L.N. 18rJ20081


20.040 Records (a) An aerodrome operator shall ensure that a record is kept of every security incident at his

aerodrome. (b) A record required to be kept under subparagraph (a), shall - . .

be kept for a minimum of ninety days; be made available to the Authority upon request; and include the number - (i) and type of weapons and incendiary devices discovered during any passenger

screening process and the method of detection of each; (ii) of acts and attempted acts of air piracy; (iii) of bomb threats received, real and simulated bombs found and actual bombings

aerodrome; and (iv) of detentions and arrests and the immediate disposition of each person detained

or arrested.

20.041 Evidence of Compliance On request of the Director General. an aerodrome operator shall provide evidence of compliance wlth this Subpart and his approved Aerodrome Operator Security Programme.

20.042 Aerodrome Security Coordinator (a) An aerodrome operator shall designate, in his approved Aerodrome Operator Security

Programme, an officer in his organization as the Aerodrome Security Co-ordinator. who shall be available at all times.

(b) An Aerodrome Security Co-ordinator shall serve as the primary contact of the aerodrome operator for security-related activities and communications with the Director General, as set forth in the approved Aerodrome Operator Security Programme.

20.043 Measures in the event of Specific Threat at Aerodrome . Where an aerodrome operator determines that a specific threat that jeopardizes the security of his aerodrome exists, he shall immediately Lake all of the measures necessary to ensure the safety of the aerodrome and persons at the aerodrome. includmg informing the appropriate protective service of the nature of the threat. 20.044 NotMcation of Threat against Facility or Aerodrome An aerodrome operator who is made aware of a threat against an aerodrome facility or any part of his aerodrome, or tenant restricted area that is under the control of a person carrying on any activity at or connected with his aerodrome, other than the aerodrome operator, he shall immediately -

(1) notify the person in control of that facility or tenant restricted area of the nature of the threat; and

(2) determine whether there is a specific threat that jeopardizes the security of the aerodrome.

20.045 Screening Officers to Inform Aerodrome Operator of Threat Against Aerodrome Where a person authorized to conduct any screening activity at an aerodrome 1s made aware of a threat against the aerodrome, such person shall -

(1) immediately notify the aerodrome operator of the nature of the threat; and (2) assist the aerodrome operator in determining whether there is a specific threat that

jeopardizes the security of the aerodrome.

20.046 Measures in Event of Speclfic Threat (a) Where it is determined that there is a threat that jeopardizes the security of the aerodrome,

the aerodrome operator shall immediately take all of the measures necessary to ensure the safety of the aerodrome and persons at the aerodrome, including informing the security forces of the nature of the threat.



(b) An aerodrome operator shall immediately inform ihe Authority of the receipt of a bomb threat against an aircraft which IS at his aerodrome or which is en-route to his aerodrome.

20.047 Discovery of Weapons, Incendiary Devices or Explosives at an Aerodrome An aerodrome operator shall immediately notify the Authority when there is -

(1) the discovery. at the aerodrome, of a weapon, other than an unloaded firearm allowed under Regulations 20.033(a)(l) or 20.053 ;

(2) .the discovery, at the aerodrome, of an explosive substance or an incendiary device. other than an explosive substance or incendiary device allowed under these Regulations;

(3) an explosion at the aerodrome, unless the explosion is known to be the result of an excavation, a demolition, construction or the use of fireworks displays; or

(4) a specific threat against the aerodrome.

20.048 Aerodrome Operator to keep Map of Aerodrome (a) An aerodrome operator shall keep at the aerodrome a copy of a current scale map andlor

. plan of the aerodrome certified by the Dlrector General that identifies the restricted and sterile areas, security barriers and restricted area access points and sterile area access points.

(b) This map and/or plan is to be produced with the aerodrome restricted area pass system. (c) An aerodrome operator shall provide the Authority with written notice of any new

commercial air transportation service that is to commence operations at the air terminal building.

SUBPART D: AIRCRAFT OPERATOR SECURITY

20.050 Air Operator Security Programme An air operator having an approved Air Operator Security Programme shall -

(1) maintain one complete copy of his approved Air Operator Security Programme at his principal business office;

(2) maintain a complete copy or the pertinent portions of his approved Air Operator Security Programme at each aerodrome where security screening is being conducted;

(3) make the documents under paragraphs (1) and (2),available for inspection upon request by the Director General; and

(4) restrict the distribution, disclosure, and availability of sensitive security information only to persons who by their defined roles in the programme require to have such information for the performance of their function.

20.051 Screening of Passengers and Carryon Bags (a) An air operator shall conduct screening of -

(1) passengers, transit passengers, transfer passengers and crew travelling on his aircraft;

(2) carry-on baggage of persons under paragraph (1); (3) checked baggage of persons under paragraph (1); and (4) other goods in the hold of his aircraft.

(b) Notwithstanding subparagraph (a), an air operator may authorize the aerodrome operator of the aerodrome from which he operates or any other person to conduct the screening functions set out in his approved Air Operator Security Programme.

(c) In giving an authorization to an aerodrome operator or any other person under subparagraph (b), the air operator shall further instruct such aerodrome operator or person, to prohibit any passenger refusing to be screened from entry onto any of his aircraft.

(d) ~n .a i r operator'or authorized by him under subparagraph (a), shall use the procedures and the facilities and equipment described in his Air Operator Security Programme -



(1) , to prevent or deter the carriage of any weapon or incendiary device on or about the person of an individual or carry-on bags and the carriage of any weapon or incendiary device in checked baggage on aircraft;

(2) .: to detect the existence of a weapon or incendiary device, to inspect each person entering a sterile area at each,pre-boarding screening check point and to inspect all

( " .carry-on bags under the control of such person, either individually or randomly as required; and

"(3): to perform the following control functions with respect to each aircraft operation for which screening is required -

(i) prohibit unauthorized access to the aircraft; . . (ii) . ensure that baggage carried in the aircraft is checked in by a properly trained

agent and that identification is obtained from all passengers and persons . shipping goods or cargo on board the aircraft;

(iii) ensure that cargo and checked baggage carried on board the aircraft are handled in a manner that prohibits unauthorized access; and

e' . . . . (iv) conduct.a security inspection of the aircraft before placing it in service and after it 5 - ;, has been left unattended.

(e) An air operator shall refuse to transport - (1) any person who does not consent to an authorized search of his person when , required.to do so by the air operator or person authorized to conduct such searches

on his behalf; and (2) any property of any person who does not consent to a search or inspection of that

properly in accordance with the screening system prescribed by subparagraph (a). (f) An air operator shall ensure that screening check point areas are properly Served with

properly trained supervisory and non-supervisory personnel in adequate numbers and in accordance with the standards specified in his Air Operator Security Programme.

20.052 Prevention and Management of Hijackings and Sabotage Attempts (a). . An aircraft operator shall -

(1) assign an appropriately qualified and trained person as a Ground Security Co- .. ordinator to co-ordinate the ground security duties specified in his approved Air

Operator Security Programme; and (2) designate the pilot in command as the In-flight Security Co-ordinator for each flight, as

required by his approved Air Operator Security Programme to co-ordinate activities in response to threats of acts of unlawful interference.

(b) In applying security measures for the prevention and management of hijackings and sabotage attempts under this section. an air operator or the aerodrome operator shall ensure that the aircraft cabin restricted items in Appendix 1 to 20.052 and other items prescribed by the Authority from time to time are controlled.in the manner specified therein.

(c) An air operator shall, where directed by the Director General. permit and facilitate the carriage of in-flight security personnel on specific flights to prevent - (1) unauthorized persons from gaining access to the flight deck; and (2) hijackings and other criminal acts on board the aircraft.

(d) In-flight security personnel under this section, where required to be on board a flight, shall - (1) prevent unauthorized persons from gaining access to the flight deck and prevent

hijackings and other criminal acts on board the aircraft; and (2) be subject to the pilot-in-command, except when authorized to take independent

action through the rules of engagement.

20.053 Carriage of Weapons (a) An air operator required to conduct screening under an approved Air Operator Security

Programme shall not perm11 a person to have. concealed or unconcealed, any weapon accessible to him while on board an aircraft.

(b) Subparagraph (a), shall not apply to an air marshal required to be on board under 20.052 (3).



(c) A person shall not, while on board an aircraft operated by an air operator, carry on or about his person. a weapon, either concealed or unconcealed.

(d) An air operator shall not knowingly permit any person to transport, nor shall any person transport or tender for transport, a weapon, incendiary device or loaded firearm in checked baggage on board an aircraft.

(e) An air operator shall not knowingly permit any person to transport, nor may any person transport or tender for transport, any unloaded firearm in checked baggage on board an aircrafl unless -

(1) such person declares to the air operator, either orally or in writing before tendering the baggage for the purpose of being checked in that he has a firearm carried in his checked baggage and it is unloaded;

(2) .the baggage or container in which a firearm is carried is locked; (3) the checked baggage or container containing the firearm is loaded on lhe aircraft in

an area that is inaccessible to passengers; and (4) such person presents a licence for such firearm from the State that permits him to

have in his possession such firearm, an export licence for such firearm from the State of departure and an import licence for such firearm to the State of destination.

(f) Where a firearm to be transported in checked baggage but is not secured in such checked baggage it shall be carried in4he hold of the aircraft, in a container that the air operator considers appropriate for air transportation.

20.054 Use of X-ray Systems (a) An air operator or person authorized to conduct screening on his behalf, shall not use an X-

ray system within Jamaica to inspect carry-on or checked baggage unless spec~fically authorized under an approved Air Operator Security Programme required by regulation 20.01 1 or use such a system contrary to his approved Air Operator Security Programme.

(b) An air operator may be authorized by the Authority, to use X-ray systems for inspecting carry-on or checked baggage under an approved Air Operator Security Programme where he shows that - (1) his X-ray system complies with the standards for cabinet X-ray systems designed

primarily for the inspection of carry-onand checked baggage and meets the performance requirements set out in the National-Civil Aviation Security Programme;

(2) a programme for initial and recurrent training of operators of the syslem is established, which includes training in radiation safety, the efficient use of X-ray systems, and the identification of weapons and other dangerous articles; and

(3) the system meets the imaging requirements described in the approved Air Operator Security Programme in accordance with the combined test requirements set out in Appendix 2 to 20.054.

(c) An air operator shall ensure that &I X-ray system is not used- (1) unless within the preceding twelve months, a radiation survey has been conducted

which show, that the system meets the applicable performance standards or guidelines prescribed by the Director General;

(2) after the system is initially installed or afterit has been moved from one location to another, unless a radiation survey is conducted which shows that the system meets the applicable performance standards or guidelines prescribed by the Director General; and

(3) to inspect carry-on or checked articles unless a sign is posted in a conspicuous place at the screening station and on the X-ray system which notifies passengers that such items are being inspected by exposure to an X-ray system;

(d) Where the X-ray system under subparagraph (c) (3), exposes any carry-on or checked articles to more than 1 milliroentgen during the inspection, the air operator shall post a sign which advises passengers to remove film of all kinds from their baggage before inspection.

(e) An air operator shall maintain at least one copy of the results of the mosl recent radiation survey conducted under subparagraph (c) and shall make it available for inspection upon request by the Authority at each of the following locations - (1) the principal business office of the air operator; and

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(2) the place where the X-ray system is in operation. An air operator shall ensure that screening staff comply with X-ray operator duty time limitations specified in his Air Operator Security Programme.

5 5 Security Threats and Procedures . Where an air operator determines that there is a specific threat which jeopardizes the

security of an aircraft or flight, he shall immediately take all of the measures necessary to ensure the safety of the aircraft, passengers and crew on board such aircraft, including -

. (1) informing the pilot in command, the crew members assigned to the aircraft or flight. the aerodrome operator and the appropriate security forces of the nature of the threat;

(2) where the aircraft is on the ground, moving such aircraft to a place of safety at the aerodrome according to the directions of the aerodrome operator; and

(3) the in-flight inspection of the aircraft and search of the passengers and goods on board such aircraft, unless the inspection and search are likely to jeopardize the safety of the passengers and crew members.

Where the aircraft, under subparagraph (a), is on the ground, the pilot in command shall comply with any direction given by the aerodrome operator under subparagraph a(l), or a member of the appropriate security force, unless complying with such direction is likely to jeopardize the safety of the passengers and crew members. Immediately upon receiving information that an act or suspected act of air piracy has been committed, the air operator shall notify the Authority. Where an air operator determines that there is a specific threat which jeopardizes the security of a facility or part of an aerodrome under his control, he shall immediately take all of the measures necessary.to ensure the safety of the facility or part of the aerodroine and persons at the facility or aerodrome, including informing the aerodrome operator and the security forces of such threat. Where the aircraft under subparagraph (c), is in airspace within the jurisdiction of a State other than Jamaica, the air operator shall also notify the appropriate authority of the State in whose territory the aircraft is located and, if the aircraft is in flight, the appropriate authority of the State in whose territory the aircraft is to land. Upon receipt of a bomb threat against a specific aircraft, each air operator shall attempt to determine whether or not any explosive or incendiary device is aboard the aircraft involved by doing the following - (1) conducting a security inspection on the ground before the next flight or, where the

aircraft is in flight, immediately after its next landing; (2) where the aircraft is being operated on the ground, advising the pilot in command to

immediately submit the aircraft for a security inspection; and (3) where the aircraft is in flight, immediately advising the pilot in command of all

pertinent information available so that necessary emergency action can be taken. Notification of the appropriate air traffic control authority is sufficient action to meet the requirements of this Schedule.

20.056 Reporting Security Incidents (a) An air operator shall immediately notify the Authority when there is -

(1) a hijacking or attempted hijacking of an aircraft; (2) the discovery. on board an aircraft, of a weapon, other than an unloaded firearm

allowed under regulations 20.033(a)(I) or 20.053; (3) the discovery, on board an aircraft, of an explosive substance or an incendiary

device, other than an explosive substance or incendiary device allowed on board the aircraft under the Act or Regulations made thereunder;

(4) an explosion on an aircraft; or (5) a specific threat against an aircraft, a flight or a facility or part of an aerodrome under

its control.

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(b) An air operator shall immediately notify the aerodrome operator when a weapon other than a firearm allowed under regulations 20.033(a)(I), or 20.053, is detected in any part of the aerodrome under its control.

20.057 Notification by Security Screening Officers (a) A person authorized to conduct screening activities shall immediately notify the appropriate

air operator, aerodrome operator, the Jamaica Police Force and the Authority when any of the following is detected at a restricted area access point where screening is conducted of persons and carry-on baggage and other articles in the possession or control of persons who are screened- ( I ) a weapon, other than a weapon allowed under Regulations 20.033(a)(i) or 20.053; (2) an explosive substance, other than -

(i) ammunition carried by a person allowed to carry or have access to a weapon or firearm under paragraph 20.033(a) ( I ) and 20.053;

(ii) an explosive substance allowed under the Act or Regulations made thereunder; or

(3) an incendiary device, other than an incendiary device allowed under the Act or Regulations made thereunder.

(b) A person authorized to conduct screening activities shall immediately notify the appropriate air operator, the aerodrome operator, the regulated agent, the catering operator, the security forces and the Authority when any of the following is detected in checked baggage or goods - ( I ) a loaded firearm; (2) an explosive substance, other than ammunition; or (3) an incendiary device..

20.058 Security information to the Authority An air operator shall where the Authority,provides reasonable notice, provide the Authority, with a written or electronic record or other information relevant to the security of his operations, including -

( I ) information concerning the method of implementing the measures that apply to the air operator under paragraph 20.004(b!; and

(2) a description of the nature of operations related to a particular flight and the services provided in respect of the flight.

20.059 Provision of Information to the Authority on Security Operations by Service Providers A person who provide services to an air operator and a person who provides a service related to the transportation of goods by air, shall provide to the Authority, on reasonable notice given by the Authority, mitten or electronic records or other.information relevant to the security of the operations of the air operator, including -

( I ) information concerning the method of implementing the security measures that apply to those persons under paragraph 20.004(b); and

(2) a description of the nature of the operations related to a particular flight and the services provided in respect of the flight.

20.080 Provision of Information to the Authority on Security Operations by Screening Personnel A person authorized to perform screening on behalf of an air operator shall provide to the Authority, on reasonable notice glven by the Authority, written or electronic records or other information relevant to the security of his screening operations, includmg -

( I ) information concernmg the method of implementing the security measures that apply to it under Regulation 20.009(b) and (c);and

(2) a description of the nature of the screenmg operations related to a particular flight or at a particular aerodrome.

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20.061 Use of Explosives Detection Systems Where required by the Authority, an aerodrome operator, air operator or any other person acting on his behalf, required to conduct screening under a securlty programme shall use an explosive detection system that has been approved by the Authority to screen checked baggage in accordance with his Aerodrome Secur~ty Programme or Air Operator Secur~ty Programme.

20.062 Carriage of Passengers in the Custody of an Escort Officer (a) An air operator required to conduct screening under a security programme may carry a

passenger in the custody of a policing officer or other authorized person(hereinafter called an "escort officer") on board an aircraft.

(b) Escort officers shall notify a responsible representative of the air operator well before the date of travel, or as soon as practicable in an emergency and provide -. (1) the identity of the person being escorted; (2) the flight on which transportation has been arranged; and (3) whether or not the escorted person is considered dangerous.

(c) An air operator shall ensure that prior to departure - (1) the escort officer, under subparagraph (a), is equipped with adequate restraining

devices to be used in the event restraint of any passenger under his control becomes necessary;

(2) each passenger under the control of the escort officer under subparagraph (a), has been searched and does not have on or about his person or property anything that can be used as a weapon;

(3) a passenger under the control of an escort officer, under this paragraph, is - (i) boarded before any other passengers when boarding at the aerodrome from

which the flight originates and deplaned at the destination after a11 other deplaning passengers have deplaned;

(ii) seated in the rear-most passenger seat when boarding at the aerodrome from which the flight originates; and

(iii) seated in a seat that is neither located in any lounge area nor located close to or directly across from any exit; and

(4) an escort officer and his escorted passengers shall be seated only in a row of two or more seats and at least one escort officer shall sit between the escorted passenger and any aisle.

(d) An air operator operating an aircraft under subparagraph (a), shall not - (1) serve food, beverage, or provide eating utensils made of metal to a passenger under

the control of an escort officer while on board such aircraft unless authorized to do so by the escort officer; or

(2) serve an escort officer or the passenger under the control of the escort officer any alcoholic beverages while on board such aircraft.

(e) An escort officer carried under the provisions of subparagraph (a), shall, at all times, accompany the passenger under his control and keep the passenger under surveillance while on board the aircraft including visits to the lavatory.

(f) Where an escort officer is transported under this regulation, the air operator shall ensure . that such escort officer or any passenger under the control of such escort officer are not

served and do not consume alcoholic beverages while on board the aircraft. (g) This regulation shall not apply to the carriage of passengers under voluntary protective

escort. (h) An air operator shall not ionduct a flight with a passenger on board who refuses to submit

to a screening, required under these Regulations, or while the carry-on or checked baggage of such person is on board his aircraft.

(i) A foreign air operator shall not conduct a flight within or from Jamaica with a passenger on board who refuses to submit to a screening, required under these Regulations or while the carry on or checked baggage of such person is on board his aircraft.


THE CIVIL AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004 667'

(j) Notwithstanding bemg in possession of a boardrng pass, where the pilot in command of an aircraft has reasonable grounds to believe that a person In custody may jeopardize the safety of other passengers, the pilot in command may refuse to accept the person.

20.063 Training An air operator shall not use any person as a Security Co-ordinator unless, within the preceding twelve months, such person has satisfactorily completed the required security training specifiedin his approved Air Operator Security Programme: A national air operator shall not use any person as a crewmember on any domestic or international flight unless within the preceding twelve months that person has satisfactorily completed the security. training required by Subpart B of this Schedule, as required by other Schedules and as specified in his approved Air Operator Security Programme. An air operator shall ensure that - (1) a person authorized to perform and performing a security -related function on his

behalf has knowledge of - ,

(i) the provisions of Subpart C of these Regulations, applicable security directives and

information circulars promulgated pursuant to paragraph 20.076; and (ii) elements of the approved Air Operator Security Programme required for the

performance of his functions. (2) The Security Co-ordinator of the air operator at each aerodrome -

(i) reviews daily all security-related functions for effectiveness and compliance with - (A) this Subpart; (8) the approved Air Operator Security Programme;' (C) applicable security directives; and

(ii) immediately initiates corrective action for each instance of non-compliance with - (A) this Subpart; (B) the approved Air Operator Security Programme; and (C) applicable security directives.

The requirements prescribed under subparagraph (a), shall apply to all security-related functions performed far the air operator whether by his employee or the employee of a contractor. An air operator conducting operations in Jamaica shall not use any person to perform any required screening funct~on, unless such person complies with the security training requirements set out in Appendix 1 to 20.028.

SUBPART D: REGULATED AGENT SECURITY

20.065 Security Controls over Cargo An air operator shall not accept consignments of cargo, courier and express parcels or mail for carriage on passenger flights unless -

(1) the security of such consignments are accounted for by a regulated agent or (2) such consignments are subjected to other security controls to safeguard such aircraft

against an act of unlawful interference.

20.066 Aviation Security Responsibilities of a Regulated Agent . :

(a) A regulated agent prior to accepting goods for transport in an aircraft shall - establish and register the name and address of the agent consignor; . .

establish the credentials of the person who delivers the goods as an agent of the consignor; ensure on the basis of random checks or screening that a consignment reflect their description on the air waybilllor cargo manifest and do not contain any prohtbited - ' items; ensure the safeguarding of such goods from unauthor~zed interference after

acceptance;



(5) ensure the goods are received by staff who are properly recruited and trained by him; (6) designate a person to implement and supervise the screening process; (7) ensure that the following categories of goods are not carried by air unless they have

been subjected to screening - (i) unaccompanied baggage;

(ii) consignments from non-regulated agents; (iii) consignments from unknown consignors; (iv) consignments delivered by a person other than the known consignor and his

authorized agent; (v) consignments of which the contents do not correspond with the description

delivered; (v) consignments for which the known consignor fails to certify that they do not

contain any prohibited articles; and (8) ensure that each shipment of goods be accompanied by documentation providing the

statement of the security status of such shipment, known as a Consignment Security Declaration.

(b) An approved regulated agent who offers goods to an air operator for transport by aircraff shall produce and make available to the air operator, and the Authority on demand, shipping documents, records of goods accepted and offered for air transport, employee training records and airway bills.

20.067 Responsibility of the Air Operator Receiving Goods from a Regulated Agent (a) An air operator accepting goods for transport on his aircraff -

(1) may conduct screening of such shipments of goods; and (2) shall ensure -

(i) the safeguarding of such goods against unlawful interference until such goods have been placed in the aircraff;

(ii) that his shipments of goods are recorded; and (iii) that whenever the goods are received from an approved regulated agent such

goods are delivered by an authorized employee of such regulated agent. (b) An air operator shall not accept any goods for transport by aircraff unless the

documentation for such goods is examined for inconsistencies and is accompanied by a valid security declaration.

(c) An air operator shall not accept any goods, from a regulated agent, for transport by aircrafl unless initially and within the preceding twelve months prior to accepting the goods, the air operator or a representative of the Authority - ( I ) has inspected facilities and procedures of such regulated agent; (2) has issued a letter to the regulated agent either accepting him or renewing his

acceptance as a regulated agent for ihe purposes of these regulations; and (3) assures the security of the goods in accordance with the proczdures approved by the

Authority. (d) An air operator shall provide an approved regulated agent with all the necessary

information in order that he is able to comply w~th the ICAO Technical Instructions for the transportation of dangerous goods by air.

(e) An air operator shall make available to the Director General a report of any incident where an airway b~ l l or equivalent document did not provide an accurate record of the goods being offered for air transport.

(9 An air operator, except as provided in the ICAO Technical Instructions, shall not place in an aircrafl any goods that are not acceptable.

(g) An air operator shall preserve for not less than one year any record of acceptance checklists and inspections carried out under this Subpart.

20.068 Inspection of Goods Offered for Transport by Regulated Agent (a) An air operator may inspect any goods or any package, or container having goods offered

for transport by air by a regulated agent.

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Where an inspection is conducted pursuant to subparagraph (a), a regulated agent or a representative of the regulated agent may observe the inspection. In the absence of a regulated agent, or a representative of a regulated agent, an air operator may use such force as is necessary to access the contents of any package or container containing goods offered for transport by air by such regulated agent, representative of a regulated agent or air operator. Where an inspection is conducted by an air operator pursuant to subparagraph (a), the package, container or goods shall remain in possession of the air operator until after the inspection is complete. Where an inspection of goods under this regulation provides evidence of a breach of this Subpart, the air operator shall maintain possession of the goods offered for air transport by a regulated agent and the air waybill and inform the Authority in the prescribed form.

SUBPART E: FLIGHT CATERING OPERATOR SECURITY

20.070 Aviation Security Responsibilities of a flight Catering Operator (a) A flight catering operator prior to accepting raw materials and equipment for preparation

as catering supplies for transport in an aircraft shall - establish and register the name and address of the supplier of such raw materials . .

and equipment; establish the credentials of the person who delivers the raw materials and equipment as an agent of the supplier of such raw materials and equipment; ensure on the basis of random checks or security screening that such raw materials and equipment do not contain any prohibited items; ensure the safeguarding of such raw materials and equipment from unauthorized interference after acceptance; ensure the raw materials and equipment are received by staff who are properly recruited and trained by him; designate a person to implement and supervise the screening process; ensure that all catering stores and supplies be secured and free from interference from the point at which it leaves the catering facility until it is loaded onto the aircraft, through the application of catering seals; and ensure that each shipment of catering stores and supplies be accompanied by documentation identifying the shipment and providing the statement of the security status of such shipment.

(b) An approved flight catering operator who offers catering stores and supplies to an air operator for transport by aircraft shall produce and make available to the air operator, and the Authority on demand - ( I ) shipping documents, (2) records of raw materials and equipment accepted; (3) records of catering stores and supplies offered for air transport;

-~

(4) employee training records; and (5) other accountable catering documents.

20.071 Responsibility of the Air Operator Receiving Catering Stores and Supplies from a Flight Catering Operator

(a) An air operator accepting catering stores and supplies for transport on his aircraft from an ,

approved flight catering operator - ( I ) will ensure that all catering supplies are properly recorded on documentation and

are secured through the use of catering seals; (2) may accept the integrity of the catering if he is satisfied the seals and

documentation are in order and that the catering shows no signs of being tampered with;

(3) may conduct screening of such shipments of catering if the seals and documentation do not match, or if the catering shows any sign of having been tampered with; and

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(4) that whenever the catering supplies and stores are received such catering supplies and stores are delivered by an authorized employee of such approved flight catering operator.

An air operdor shall not accept any catering supplies and stores for transport by aircrafl unless the documentation for such cztering supplies and stores is examined for inconsistencies and is accompanied by a valid security declaration. An air operator shall not accept any catering supplies and stores, from a flight catering. operator, for transport by aircraft unless initially and within the preceding twelve months prior to accepting the catering supplies and stores, the air operator or an inspector from the Authority - (1) has conducted an audit of the flight catering operators security programme; (2) has inspected the facilities and procedures of flight catering operator; (3) has issued a letter to the flight catering operator either accepting him or renewing

his acceptance as a catering operator for the purposes of the transport of catering supplies and stores on board passenger aircraft; and

(4) assures the security of the catering supplies and stores in accordance with the procedures approved by the flight catering operator's security programme.

An air operator shall make available to the Director General a report of any incident where a catering or equivalent document did not provide an accurate record of the catering supplies and stores being offered for air transport. An air operator, except as provided in the Technical Instructions, shall not place in an aircraft any catering supplies and stores that are not acceptable. An air operator shall preserve for not less than one year any record of acceptance checklists and inspections carried out under this Subpart.

20.072 Inspection of Catering Supplies and Stores An air operator may inspect any catering supplies and stores or any package, or container having catering supplies and stores offered for transport by air by an approved flight catering operator. Where an inspection is conducted pursuant to subparagraph(a), a flight catering operator or a representative of the catering operator may 0 b S e ~ e the inspection. In the absence of a flight catering operator, or a representative of flight catering operator, an air operator may use such force as is necessary to access the contents of any package or container containing catering suppliesand stores offered for transport by air by such flight catering operator, or representative of a flight catering operator. Where an inspection is conducted by an air operator pursuant to subparagraph (c), the package, container or catering supplies and stores shall remain in possession of the air operator until after the inspection is complete. Where an inspection of catering supplies and stores under this regulation evidence of a breach of this Subpart, the air operator shall maintain possession of the catering supplies, stores and documentation and inform the Authority in the prescribed form.

SUBPART G: RESPONSIBILITIES OF PASSENGERS AND PERSONS AT AERODROMES

20.076 Search of Persons and Goods (a) A person who, prior to entering a restricted or sterile area is required by an aviation

security officer or aviation screening officer - (1) to submit to a search of his person; (2) to permit a search to be carried out of the goods that such person intends to take or

have placed on board an aircraft or take into a restricted area; or (3) to submit to a search of a vehicle or other means of conveyance, under his control.

shall not board and shall not be allowed to board the aircrafl, or enter the restricted

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or sterile area unless he submits to a search or permits a search to be carried out, as the case may be.

(b) Where a person is given an order by an aviation security officer or aviation screening officer pursuant to subparagraph (a), the person shall thereupon leave the restricted or sterile area immediately and remove the goods, vehicle or means of conveyance in his possession from the restricted or sterile area.

(c) A person under subparagraph (a) or (b) who is requested to leave a restricted 01 sterile area shall be escorted out of such restricted or sterile area by an aviation security officer or aviation screening officer.

20.077 Passengers and Members of the Public (a) A person shall not carry, or attempt to carry, prohibited items or dangerous devices not

authorized for transport, in carry-on baggage or in checked baggage on board an aircraft. (b) A person shall not offer for air transport, as goods or in checked baggage a weapon,

incendiary device or any other dangerous device. (c) A person shall not submit to screening of his person or of his carry-on baggage while in

possession of a weapon, incendiary device, or any other dangerous device. (d) A person shall not make a false statement to an aviation security officer, an air operator,

or a member of the Jamaica Constabulary Force assigned to aerodrome duties, in regard to possession of a weapon, incendiary device or any other dangerous device;

(e) A person shall not enter or remain in any part of an aerodrome that is not a public area where a notice is given orally by the aerodrome operator, aerodrome tenant, air operator or by posted sign stating that trespassing is prohibited, sr that entry is restricted to authorized persons.

(f) Where a person has been ordered to disembark an aircraft in accordance with paragraph 20.031 or 20.062. he shall disembark the aircraft and remove his carry-on baggage and have his checked baggage removed from the aircraft.

(g) A person under subparagraph (c) shall upon a request to disembark, shall so disembark the aircraft and remove his carry-on baggage and have his checked baggage removed from the aircraft.

(h) A person who refuses the screening of goods that he intends to have transported on an aircraft or intends to take into a restricted or sterile area, shall not - (1) place or attempt to place such goods; or (2) cause the goods to be placed on board the aircraft, or takeri into a restricted or

sterile area.

20.078 Access to Aerodrome Restricted Areas (a) A person shall be allowed access to aerodrome restricted areas in accordance with the

provisions of the appropriate Aerodrome Restricted Area pass. (b) A person who has been granted access to a restricted area of an aerodrome, shall only

access or attempt to access such restricted area at a designated restricted area access . point.

(c) Subject to subparagraph (d), a person shall not - (1) provide another person with physical access to a restricted area where the latter

has not been issued with a restricted area pass; or (2) assist another person in gaining physical access to a restricted area where the

latter has been issued a restricted area pass but does not have such restricted area pass in his possession.

(d) Notwithstanding subparagraph (c), a person may enter certain restricted areas of an aerodrome where such person - (1) has a valid boarding pass issued by an air operator along with a national photo

identification, is proceeding to the assigned gate for the purpose of boarding an aircraft and has been subject to the screening requirements of these Regulations; or

(2) he is identified in the emergency response plan of the aerodrome operator and is attending to an aerodrome emergency.

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672 THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULATIONS. 2004

20.079 Restriction on Entry Into Sterlle Area A person shall not enter a sterile area unless he has been screened and cleared for entry by an aviation security screening officer.

I

20.080 Subrnlssion to Screening A person shall not enter a sterile area without submitting to the screening of his person'and carry-on bags in accordance with the procedures being applied to control access to that area under paragraph 20.037.

APPENDICES

Appendix 1 to 20.012 Contents of an Aerodrome Aviation Security ~ r o ~ r a r n i e AERODROME OPERATOR SECURITY PROGRAMME

PROGRAMME OBJECTIVE This Aerodrome Operator Security Programme is designed to meet the international Standards and Recommended Practices contained in Annex 17 to the Convention of the International Civil Aviation Organization as well as related aviation security provisions found in Annexes 2, 6. 9, 10. 11.13,14 and 18.

The objective of the Aerodrome Operator Security Programme is to ensure that aviation security measures and responsibilities are clearly defined and understood by those who need to implement them. It shall clarify and detail all measures that are required to be implemented at the aerodiome to meet the requirements of the National Civil Aviation Security Programme.

An Aerodrome Operator Security Programme shall be produced and developed for each aerodrome within Jamaica. The programme shall be prepared by the aerodrome security officer in consultation with all aerodrome users and endorsed, signed and dated by the aerodrome manager.

r The programme shall be drafled in accordance with the layout detailed herein and submitted to the Authority fbr approval. It shall be reviewed and updated regularly and at least once every 12 months.

Proposed amendments and variations to the programme, other than minor changes or changes resulting from a change of national legislation shall be submitted to the Authority for approval before incorporation.

The programme shall be classified and have "restricted" in accordance with national guidelines and its contents handled in accordance with the national guidehnes for document security.

1. SOURCES OF REGULATIONS National legislation - Detail the national legislation (laws, decrees, etc.) that provides authority to the programme.

National civil aviation security programme - Refer to the appropriate articles of the national civil aviation security programme, on which the Aerodrome Operator Security Programme is based, and the relevant provisions for the development of measures and procedures.

Other regulations or legislation - Detail any other form of regulations or legislation which provides legal support for the Aerodrome Operator Security Programme. References to appropriate parts of Jamaica criminal law shall be made as required.

- - - - -

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3. DUTIES AND RESPONSIBILITIES Aerodrome management - Describe the role and specific tasks of aerodrome management staff involved in the implementation of the Aerodrome Operator Security Programme.

Aerodrome security section - State the role and responsibilities of the aerodrome security officer, the organization of the aerodrome secur~ty section and the aviation security tasks they carry out.

Policing authority - State the tasks of the Jamaica Constabulary Force. Their responsibilities concerning aviation security shall be clearly described. .

Other government agencies - State the role of the other government agencies(customs, immigration, etc.) involved in supporting the Aerodrome Operator Security Programme.

Air operators - Describe the role of the air operators (both national and foreign) operating at the aerodrome and any security function or task assigned to them in support of the programme. A list of persons in charge and their alternates for every airline, with all pertinent contact details (ie.. phone numbers both at work and home, Home Address, etc.), shall be included in an Appendix.

Aerodrome tenants - Describe the responsibility of tenants and how their co-operation and assistance are required to contribute to aviation security.

Other Agencies - State which tasks will be required of any other agencies to assist in the implementation of the Aerodrome Operator Security Programme.

Other authorities - Any other authority involved in this programme (postal, communication, fire fighting, health, etc.) shall be mentioned. Describe the role they have and what assistance they may be required to provide.

General aviation - Describe how the Aerodrome Operator Security Programme affects general aviation operations at the aerodrome.

4. AERODROME SECURITY COMMITTEE Tenns of mfemnce - State the relevant national programme requirements to establish an aerodrome security committee. Its terms of reference must be descr~bed clearly. Describe that the tasks of the committee shall mainly be the implementation of the requirements of the national security programme through the establishment of procedures and measures for the effective safeguarding of the aerodrome against acts of unlawful interference. The committee shall meet regularly, in its totality or partly as a smaller operational group, preferably wlth a specified periodicity indicated. Minutes for each meeting shall be kept, and afler approval by the members, circulated to the authorities concerned.

Membership - List the membership of the aerodrome security committee. The list must include all eaencies engaged in the o~eration of the aerodrome which contribute to the establishment and implementatkn-of security measures. A full list of names, titles and any other useful details of all members of the aerodrome security committee must be included. The aerodrome manager will normally act as chair of the committee with the aerodrome security officer providing specialist sewrity advlca as appropriate.

5. COMMUNICATIONS This section shall describe how the Authorlty communicates the requirements of the national civil avlatlon security programme to the State's aviation industry.

Reference shall also be made to consultation procedures and the distribution of any reports resulting from security inspections, audits, sulveys, tests and investigations carried out by the

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6'1 4 THE CIVIL A VIA TION REGULATIONS, 2004

Authority. Instructions and guidance on the correct classification and handling procedures for sensitive inimnation contained in such reports shall also be described.

Policy on mn~munications w~th other States, iCAO and the media regarding aviation security shall also be detailed.

6. DESCRIPTION OF AERODROME Generel- This shall include the name, location with respect to closest town, and official address of the aerodrome, its nature, name of aerodrome proprietor, telephone number and identification code. . .

Landside, airside and security restricted areas - The various airside and landside areas and sectors of the aerodrome shall be defined followed by a brief descript~on. The airside of the aerodrome shall be clearly marked and all secur~ty restricted areas indicated together with all control of access points. An accurate and to-scale locat~on map and aerodromh plan shall be attached as an appendix.

Hours of operation - Detail the aerodrome operating hours, the hours of operation of the air traffic control tower, any onsite communications facilities. Detail whether control of access into security restricted areas and internal security of such areas is conducted on a 24-hour basis; Procedures for security outside the normal hours of operation shall also be included.

.. . Aerodrome Operations and Organizations List and detail a brief description of activities carried out by all aerodrome organizations and other entities which operate within or from the aerodrome. For example - .

Aerodrome operating services - Includes administration, maintenance, communication, fire fighting or any other operational service.

Air traffic services - Includes tower, terminal, centre and flight services.

Air operators - List all operators using the aerodrome and destinations served Detail the'average daily passenger movement and air cargo volume aggregated for all operators during high and low seasons.

Generalaviation - List all general aviation companies operating to and from the aerodrome. Detail volume of general aviation traffic and include any security controls imposed to certainlocations. responsibility over general aviation facilities and access to the commercial ramp and apron areas.

Private organizations and businesses - Detail all the aerodrome tenants. shops, cargo'handling firms, catering firms, tourist offices, private security firms or any other private firm operating at the aerodrome with particulars of managers and telephone numbers.

Their location on the aerodrome and terminal premises shall be indicated on maps that shall beattachedasanappendix.

Military organization - Mention contact pomt for any military und operating at the aerodrome. Details of memoranda of understanding shall be included.

7. SECURITY MEASURES AT THE AERODROME This section shall detail the security measures, procedures and controls applied at the aerodrome in support of the national civil aviat~on securlty programme. The followmg headings and sample content shall be adapted to reflect actual local conditions.

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Aerodrome Security Access control measures - Describe the control o f access methods applied to the airside and restricted security areas, including details of the pass or permit system as it pertains to persons and vehicles and the screening and searching procedures carried out. Describe the scope of background checks conducted on applicants for all types of passes issued. Describe what patrols are conducted of the landside, airside and restricted security areas including off aerodrome patrols of possible stand-off attack and surface-to-aii missile launch sites.

Physical security measures - Describe the physical security measures in relation to fencing, lighting, intruder detection systems, closed circuit television, etc., applied to the security of all airside and security restricted areas, parked aircraft and aprons, public terminal areas and observation decks and car parks, in-flight catering facilities, air cargo areas, aircraft maintenance areas and essential aerodrome facilities.

Air traffic services facilities, communication and navigation aids - Describe the physical sedurity measures used for the protection of air traffic services facilities, communication and navigation aids, together with an assessment of vulnerability to interference, with reference to relative importance of individual facilities to the safety of air navigation.

General ahation - Describe the security measures for general aviation and any special procedure applied to general aviation crew or passengers operating to and from the aerodrome. Give details about the average number of daily movements with sessonal variations and the number of permanently stationed aircraft at the aerodrome.

Passenger and cabin baggage security Authority - Describe the source giving legal authority for security measures and any local laws. Detail procedures to be followed if a person refuses to be subjected to security measures or is denied boarding for any reason, List in an appendix any persons such as diplomats or Heads of State exempt from screening or search.

Check-in - Describe the check-in process and location and any special measures or facilities for high-risk passengers. Procedures for the protection of tickets, boarding cards, .baggage tags and documents. State clearly the authority and responsibility of handling agents in accordance with the pr?visions of the national security programme.

Travel documents - Describe where, when and how passenger identification and travel documents are checked including originating, transfer and transit passengers.

Screening procedures - Describe screening procedures and measures including minimum hand search ratios if applicable, identification of prohibited items and. dangerous goods, special measures for electrical items, standards to be achieved, the procedures for persons with special needs, private arrangements and action to be taken on discovering weapons or explosive devices.

Equipment - List the equipment available at each search point and the routine testing and maintenance procedures required to ensure it is serviceable and meets the standards before use. Detail procedures to be followed when equipment fails or is unserviceable for any reason.

Security staff - Describe the staffing levels, positions and rotation of duties at each screening point as well as the training required (initial, "on-the-job and refresher) and what records of such training is maintained.

Segregation and control - State if segregation of screened and non-screened persons is achieved in the terminal after the screening point. If segregation is not achieved describe what compensatory procedures such as secondary screening at the gate area, are carried out. Describe what procedures can ensure the control of screened passengers when

[The lneluslon of thls page Is'authorlzed by L.N. 18*120081


walking across apron areas or being transported by vehicle to aircraft.

Slaff and crewmember procedures - State if the security measures will apply to all aerodrome staff, police and other government agencies. Clarlfy the procedures to be adopted and state clearly any particular measures to avoid misunderstanding and assure consistent implementation of security measures.

Diplomatic pouches and government couriers - State the procedures to be applied to diplomatic pouches and government couriers. Clarify whether the diplomatic bags may be screened, and if so, state the procedure. State the procedures for diplomatic mail In off~c~al pouches and embassy correspondence not In bags.

VIP facilities - Describe the location of any VIP facilities and the procedures for brocessing of VIP's. State clearly the ex~stence of any prior arrangements for the handling of Vlq phssengers privately or semi-privately and any measures to limtt exceptions from normal passenger screening channels minimum.

Special category passengers - Describe the procedures to be followed for passengers with diplomatic status and potentially disruptive passengers, for example, persons In eustody, dangerous prisoners. and persons suffering from mental ~llness. State clearly the various tasks of the agencies involved. Make reference to the not~fication of the operator and the relevant pilot in command.

General Aviation - Mention any specific measures for security controls relating \o aircraft passengers and crew of general aviation in particular during high threat situations.

Hold Baggage Security Authority - Describe the source giving legal authority for security measures and detail bro'cedures followed if a person refuses to allow hold baggage to be subjected to secur~ty measures. *List any persons such as diplomats or Heads of State whose hold baggage is exempt from screening or search.

Check-in - Describe the check-in process regarding hold baggage and the location a h any special arrangements, measures or facilities for group travel or high-risk passengers which will d i e r from normal procedures. Detail if any passenger questioning is carried out. State clear13 the authority and responsibility of handling agents in accordance with the provisions of the national security programme.

Offgerodmme check-in - If off-aerodrome is authorized, describe the measures for protection of baggage against acts of unlawful interference until it is loaded onto the aircraft.

Screening procedures - Describe screening procedures and measures including minimum hand search ratios if applicable, identification of prohibited items and dangerous goods, special measures for electronic and electrical items, standards to be achieved, and action to be taken on dlscovering weapons or explosive devices.

Equipment - List the equipment available at each search point and the routine testing and maintenance procedures required to ensure it is serviceable and meets the standards before use. Detail procedures to be followed when equipment fails or is unserviceable for any reason.

Security staff: Describe the staffing levels, positions and rotation of duties at each screening point as well as the training required (initial. "on-the-job" and &refresher) and what records of such training are to be maintained.



Passenger and checked baggage reconciliation: Describe the procedures to ensure that the only checked baggage that is loaded belongs to passengers of the relevant flight who have actually boarded the aircraft, and that the checked baggage has been subjected to the necessary security controls and is authorized for loading on that flight. Specific reference to the various categories of passengers (originating, online and interline transfer, disembarking transit passengers) shall be made. The use of automation shall be mentioned describing the principle of the system and what is accomplished.

Staff and crewmember procedures: State if the security measures will apply to all crewmembers. Clarify the procedures to be adopted and state clearly any particular measures to avoid misunderstanding and assure consistent implementation of security measures.

Unaccompanied baggage: Describe the procedures relating to baggage that is separated from its owner through a breakdown of the baggage handling system with reference to the additional security controls the baggage is subjected to before being loaded onto an aircraft.

Baggage reclaim areas: Describe what measures are applied to checked baggage which is not reclaimed by a passenger including details of screening or searching and secure storage. Describe also the measures to prevent passengers from retrieving prohibited items concealed in checked baggage at the baggage reclaim area which could be subsequently used to commit an act of unlawful interference in the arrival aerodrome terminal.

Air cargo security The term "air cargon in the context of aviation security includes normal freight, consolidations, transhipments, unaccompanied courier items, postal mail, diplomatic mail, company stores and unaccompanied baggage shipped as freight on a passenger-carrying aircraft.

Authority - Describe the source giving legal authority for cargo security measures and the agency responsible for compliance.

Security procedures - Describe the procedures followed with reference to regulated agents, known consignors, known and unknown cargo. transhipment cargo, the role of the air operator. random checks, documentary records, access control. secure storage and transportation.

Equipment - List the equipment available to carry out screening of air cargo and the required routine testing and ma~ntenance procedures required to ensure it is serviceable and meets the required standards before use. Detail the procedures to be followed when equipment fails or is unserviceable for any reason.

Security of aircraft catering supplies and stores Authority - Describe the source giving legal authority for security measures and the agency responsible for compliance.

Security procedures - Describe the procedures followed and responsibilities with reference to known and unknown stores, physical security measures, access control measures, customs bonded warehouses, tamper-evident sealing of goods, searching and sealing of vehicles, catering carts and containers, multiple loads, airside catering operations, receipt and validation of consignments into security restricted areas and air operator security measures.

Control of firearms and weapons Legislation and regulations - Describe the national legislation and regulations related to carriage of weapons and firearms on board aircraft depart~ng pr arriving at the aerodrome or carriage by persons in the area of jurisdiction of the aerodrome The relevant provisions of the appropriate laws or decrees could be attached as an append~x.

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Transpoding firearms - Describe the procedure for handling and transportation of firearms in compliance with the provtsions of the national security programme, in checked baggage or as cargo. Describe the role of the operator and crew. Mention any spec~al arrangements to be made at check-in or baggage reclaim areas.

Carriage of firearms - Describe the national policy on authorized carriage of firearms in both national and foreign aircraft and the measures for the implementation of that policy. Explain the tasks of the agencies involved and those of the air operators. State clearly the authority for the carriage of weapons granted to In flight security personnel, escorts of prisoners, deportees or escorts of VIPs. Describe the relevant procedure including notification of the aircraft operator and the pilot in command.

Security of aircraft Basic responsibility for the security of aircraft rests with the air operator, whose plans shall take into account the Aerodrome operator Security Programme so that security measures can be co- ordinated.

Control of access to aircrafi - Describe the measures for protection of aircraft on the ground with reference to the duty of aircraft crew and maintenance personnel servicing aircraft to identify any person approaching or boarding the aircraft. Aircraft not in service or undergoing maintenance shall have all access points secured and access stairs or passenger loading bridges removed.

Security patrols - Describe what security patrols operate within the airside area, detail what communications are provided between security control and local air traffic control and what security equipment is carried.

Pre-flight precautions - Describe the pre-flight precautions conducted on a regular basis, during high threat situations or upon request. State clearly the agencies involved and their respective tasks.

Threat notification - Describe the procedures to respond to information which indicates that a specific aircraft may be subject to an act of unlawful interference and indicate who is responsible for implementing the additional security measures considered necessary to counter the threat. Define responsibilities for informing the appropriate authority for security if not' the initiating agency of such threat notifications.

Flights under increased threat - Describe the procedures to be implemented for specific flights under increased threat, including isolated parking areas, individual guarding of aircraft, escorting of taxiing aircraft, and inspection of approach and take off flight paths. Include a plan of parking places.

Aircraft search - Describe the procedures for the inspection and searching of aircrafl during both routine operations and at times when an aircraft may be under high threat.

Define: which agencies will be responsible to conduct a search; the necessity for checklists to avoid duplication of effort; good lighting; and well-trained personnel with the support of aircraft crew or aircraft engineering support personnel. State the actions to be taken on discovery of suspect explosive devices and the responsibilities for decisions to move or evacuate the aircraft and the continuance of aerodrome operations.

Security equipment and specifications Operation and maintenance-Describe the allocation of responsibilities among the agencies having responsibility for the procurement, installation, operation and maintenmnce of security equipment. List all security equipment at the aerodrome used in the support of civil aviation security including number, location, maintenance, calibration, and responsibilities. Include X-ray equipment, explosives detection equipment, hand-held and walk-through metal detectors.

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THE CIVIL A VIATIOA' REGULATIONS, 2004 679

simulation chambers, explosive detection dogs and explosive disposal equipment. Provide a plan as an appendix showing the distribution of equipment at the aerodrome.

8. RESPONSE TO ACTS OF UNLAWFUL INTERFERENCE Aerodmme contingency plan - The aerodrome contingency plan shall work in conjunction with the Aerodrome Operator Security Programme. Guidelines on the structure and the content of the plan shall be obtained from the appropriate authority for security and the civil aviation security policy and regulatory section. The plan shall include information regarding responsibilities for command. control and communications procedures, hostage negotiation procedures, designated aircraft parking locations, incident site access and control, communications equipment, guidelines on dealing with the media and the public. A copy of the aerodrome contingency plan shall be attached as an appendix to the Aerodrome Operator Security Programme.

9. SECURITY TRAINING Describe the aviation security training programmes given to security staff at the aerodrome and all other persons who have roles to play in aviation security, including management and the security personnel of the aerodrome, air operators and cargo "regulated agents". police, military, customs and immigration personnel, aircraft crewmembers and other aerodrome personnel. Also describe any other training including contingency plan exercises and exercises involving a reaction to an act unlawful interference designed to test readiness.

10. SELF-AUDITS Description of aerodrome operators' arrangements for monitoring implementation of s&urity measures and quality control.,

11. APPENDICES (a) Organizational diagrams referring to the organizational structure of the aerodrome

administration and security management; (b) Scale map of the aerodrome and peripheral area; (c) Detailed scale map showing landside, airside and security restricted areas and access

control points; (d) Detailed map of the terminal incorporating security equipment location(s); (e) Air operators' contact information; (f) Private organizations and businesses operating at the aerodrome; (g) List of persons exempt from screening or search measures; (h) National legislation and regulations related to carriage of weapons and firearms; and (i) Aerodrome contingency plan.

Appendlx 1 to 20.016 AIR OPERATOR SECURITY PROGRAMME

1. International obligations and organizations (a) The structure and roles of ICAO and ECAC (b) The purpose of the various Conventions, ICAO Annex 17 and ECAC Doc. 30

2. National obllgatlons and responsibilities (a) The relevant appropriate authority for the State of registration (b) The relevant appropriate authority for the host State of operation (c) The national aviation security programme of the host State

3. Air operator security policy and organization (a) . Air operator security policy (b) The roles and responsibilities for aviation security in the airline (c) Information and communication (d) Description of airline's operation

--



4. Security of passengers and cabin baggage (a) Purpose of screening and searching

Procedures for screening and hand%earching of originating passengers Standards of screening and searching Location of screening or searching Details of screening equipment Details of operator or service provider Procedures for screening and hand-searching of transfer passengers Standards of screening and searching Location of screening or searching Details of screening equipment Details of operator or service provider List of persons exempted from screening and searching Screening and searching of cabin baggage Standards of screening and searching Location of screening and searching Details of screening equipment Details of operator or service provider

(r) Treatment of suspect passengers or cabin baggage (s) Control of movement of passengers (I) Measures for spec~al category passengers (u) Diplomats and other privileged petsons (v) Government couriers and diplomatic bags (w) Passengers with reduced mobility and medical cases (x) inadmissible passengersldeporteeslescorted prisoners (y) Policy for unruly passengers (2) Procedures on the ground (aa) Procedures in the air (bb) Authority for use of restraints (cc) Reporting procedures

5. Security of checked baggage (a) Purpose of the security measures (b) Passenger identification checks (c) Standard of checks (d) Location of checks (e) Questioning of passengers (f) Description of questions (g) Location of dellvery (h) Details of service provider (I) Procedures for originating checked baggage screening and hand-searching (j) Standard of screening and searching (k) Location of screening and searching (1) Details of screenlng equipment (m) Details of operator or service provider (n) Procedures for transfer checked baggage screening and hand-searching (0) Standard of screening and searching (p) Location of screening and searching (q) Details of screenlng equipment (r) Details of operator or service provider (s) Protection of checked baggage (t) Description of procedures (u) Procedures for off aerodrome check-in of hold baggage (v) Procedures for carriage of firearms and weapons (w) Legal provisions and regulations

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(x) Acceptance procedures (y) Escorts of prisonersldeportees (2 ) Bodyguards to government VIPs (aa) In-flight security guards (bb) Protection on the ground (cc) Treatment of suspect bags

6. Security of crew, cabin and checked baggage (a) Standards of screening and searching (b) Location of screening and searching (c) Details of screening equipment (d) Details of operator or service provider

7. Passenger and checked baggage reconclllation (a) Purpose of measures (b) Description of procedures (c) Details of equipment if automated (d) Details of 'manifest if relevant (e) Identification of no-show passengers (f) Identification of unaccompanied baggage (g) Procedures for screening of unaccompanied baggage ih) Standard of screening -

(i) Location of screening (j) Details of screening equipment (k) Details of operator or service provider

8. Security of aircraft (a) Purpose of security measures (b) Searches and checks of aircraft (c) Standard of searches and checks (d) Details of service provider

8.3 Control of access to aircraft (a) Standard of access control (b) Details of service provider

9. Security of air operator catering, stores and supplies (a) Purpose of measures (b) Description of measures at air operator catering unit (c) Standard of physical security of premises (d) Standard of access control to premises (ej Description of measures for despatch and transpodation (0 Standard of access control to prepared meals (g) Standard of access control to deipatch bank (h) Standard of access control to vehicles

10. Security of aircraft cleaning operations (a) ' Purpose of measures (b) qescription of measures (c) Standard of access control to cleaning stores

11. Security of cargo, courier, express parcels and mail (a) Purpose of measures (b) Description of measures for cargo (c) Procedures for acceptance (d) Regulated agent scheme and criteria


THE CIVIL A'VIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

Known consignor scheme and criteria Standard of screening and physical examination Location of screening and physical examination Details of screening equipment Details of operator or service provider List of exemptions from security screening or physical examination Description of measures for unaccompanied baggage and personal effects carried as cargo Standard of screening and hand-searching Location of screening and searching 'Details of screening equipment Details of operator or service provider Description of measures for courier and express parcels Procedures for acceptance Standard of screening and hand-searching Location of screening and searching Details of screening equipment Details of operator or service provider

11.5 Description o f measures for mail (a) Procedures for acceptance (b) Regulated postal authorityladministration scheme'and criteria (c) Known consignor scheme and criteria (d) Standard of screening (c) Location of screening (f) Details of screening equipment (g) Details of operator (h) Safeguarding of cargo, courier, express parcels and mail (i) Description of measures (j) Procedures for carriage of diplomatic mail (k) Treatment of suspect cargo or mail

12. Recruitment of staff Description of procedures for recruitment of security staff, including background checks

13. Training of staff (a) Description of initial training for the following groups of staff: (a) Crewmembers (b) Security staff who carry out screening, searching or checking duties (c) Staff who question passengers (d) Awareness training for other staff, including ground-handling staff (e) Airline security managerslofficers (f) Description of recurrent training for the following groups,of staff: (g) Crewmembers (h) Security staff who carry out screening. searching or checking duties (i) Staff who question passengers (j) Awareness training for other staff, including ground handling staff (k) Air operator security managerslofficers

14. Contingency planning (a) Description of plans to deal with the following contingencies: @) Aircraft hijack (c) Bomb threat (d) Discovery of a suspect or prohibited article (e) Equipment failure (f) Enhanced measures for an increase in the level of threat (g) High rlsk flights



15. Incident reporting Description of airline security incident reporting procedures

16 Supervision and performance monitoring (a) Description of alr operator arrangements for monitoring implementation of security

measures and qual~ty control (a) Operational aud~t of - (b) Screener (c) Manual Search (d) Administratwe Audit of - (e) Equipment records ( 0 Personnel records (g) Testing records

17 Local aerodrome procedures

Appendix 1 to 20.018 REGULATED AGENT SECURITY PROGRAMME

1. lnternatlonal obligations and organizations (a) The structure and roles of ICAO and ECAC (b) The purpose of the various Conventions, ICAO Annex 17 and ECAC Doc. 30

2. National obligations and responsibilities (a) The relevant appropriate authority for the State of registration (b) The relevant appropriate authority for the host State of operation (c) The national aviation secur~ty programme of the host State

3. Security of cargo, courier, express parcels and mail (a) Purpose of measures (b) Description of measures for cargo (c) Procedures for acceptance (d) Regulated agent scheme and criteria (e) Known consignor scheme and criteria ( 0 Standard of screening and physical examination (g) Location of screening and physical examination (h) Details of screening equipment (i) Details of operator or service provider (j) List of exemptions from security screening or physical examination

'

(k) Description of measures for unaccompanied baggage and personal effects carried as cargo (I) Standard of screening and hand-searching (rn) Location of screening and searching (n) Details of screening equipment (0) Details of operator or service provider (p) Description of measures for courier and express parcels (q) Procedures for acceptance (I) Standard of screening and hand-searching (s) Location of screening and searching (t) Details of screening equipment (u) Details of operator or service provider (v) Description of measures for mail (w) Procedures for acceptance (x) Regulated postal authority/administration scheme and criteria ( y ) Known c6nsignor scheme and criteria (2) Standard of screening (aa) Location of screening

[Thc inclusion of this page Is authorized by L.N. 18d20081


(bb) Details of screening equipment (cc) Details of operator (dd) Safeguarding of cargo, courier, express parcels and mail (ee) Description of measures (fT) Procedures for carriage of diplomatic mail (gg) Treatment of suspect cargo or mail

4 Recruitment of staff Description of procedures for recruitment of security staff, including background checks

5 Training of staff (a) Description of initial and recurrent training for the following groups of staff: (b) Staff who carry out screening or searching duties (c) Awareness training for other staff, including ground-handling staff (d) Managerslofficers

6 Description of plans to deal with the following contingencies: (a) Bomb threat (b) Discovery of a suspect or prohibited article (c) Equipment failure

7. Incident reporting (a) Description of security incident reporting procedures (b) Supervision and performance monitoring

8. Local aerodrome procedures

9. Selfaudits (a) Descr~pt~on of regulated agent arrangements for mon~tormg and implementation of security

measures and qual~ty control @) Operat~onal aud~t of - (c) Screeners (d) Manual Search (e) Adrn~n~strat~ve Audit of - ( f ) Equ~pment records (g) Personnel records (h) Test records

Appendlx 1 to 20.020 FLIGHT CATERING OPERATOR SECURITY PROGRAMME

1. International obligations and organizations (a) The structure and roles of ICAO and ECAC (b) The purpose of the various Conventions, ICAO Annex 17

2. National obligations and responsibilities (a) The relevant appropriate authority for the State of registration @) The relevant appropriate authority for the host State of operation (c) The national aviation security programme of the host State

3 Procedures for the ensuring the security of: (a) Security of raw materials and supplies @) Purpose of measures (c) Description of measures (d) Procedures for acceptance raw materials and supplies (e) Standard of screening and physical examination (f) Location of screening and physical examination

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(g) Details of screening equipment (h) Details of operator or service provider (i) List of exemptions from security screening or physical examination

3.2 Security of catering supplies and stores (a) Purpose of measures (b) Description of measures (c) Procedures for securing catering supplies and stores (d) Standard of screening and hand-searching (e) Location of screening and searching ( 0 Details of screening equipment (g) Details of operator or service provider

3.3 Security of buildings and premises (a) Purpose of measures (b) Description of measures (c) Procedures for securing buildings and premises (d) Standard of screening and hand-searching (e) Location of screening and searching ( 0 Details of screening equipment (g) Details of operator or service provider

3.4 Security of carts, containers and catering transportation (a) Purpose of measures (b) Description of m'easures (c) Procedures for securing carts, containers and catering transportation (d) Standard of screening and hand-searching (e) Location of screening and searching (f) Details of screening equipment (g) Details of operator or service provider

3.5 Recruitment of staff Description of procedures for recruitment of security staff, including background checks

3.6 Training of staff (a) Description of initial and recurrent training for the following groups of staff: (b) Staff who carry out screening or searching duties (c) Awareness training for other staff, including ground-handling staff (d) Managerslofficers

3.7 Description of plans to deal with the following contingencies: (a) Bomb threat (b) Discovery of a suspect or prohibited article (c) Equipment failure

3.8 Incident reporting (a) Description of security incident reporting procedures (b) Supervision and performance monitoring

3.9 Local aerodrome procedures

4.Self-Audits (a) Description of catering arrangements for monitoring and implementation of security

measures and quality control (b) Operational audit of - (c) Screener

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(d) Manual Search (e) Admhistrative Audit of - (0 Equipment records (g) Personnel records (h) Test records

Appendix 1 to 20.026 AERODROME SECURITY COMMITTEE TERMS OF REFERENCE (a) Coordinate the implementation of the National Civil Aviation Security Programme; (b) Oversee and monitor the Aerodrome Security Programme, including special measures

introduced by the aerodrome administration, air operators and aerodrome tenants; (c) Use the National Civil Aviation Security Programme or the current ICAO Security Manual

for Safeguarding Civil Aviation Against Acts of Unlawful Interference as a guide; (d) Draw up and maintain a list of vulnerable points including essential equipment and facilities

and review the security of those points from time to time: (e) Ensure that the minimum security measures and procedures are adequate to meet threats

and are under constant review, providing normal situation and contingencies for periods of heightened tension and emergency situation:

(0 Arrange for irregularly spaced security surveys and inspections to be carried out; (g) Ensure the recommendations for improvements in security measures and procedures are

implemented; (h) Inform the Authority of the current state of security measures and procedures in effect at

the aerodrome and refer any problems relating to the protection of the aerodrome and its services which cannot be resolved at the local level;

(i) Arrange for security education and training of aerodrome and other staff; and 6) Ensure that the planning of aerodrome expansion programmes includes the planning of

modifications to be made to the aerodrome control systems and equipment.

Appendlx 1 to 20.028 Screener Training Requirements (a) &I aerodrome operator, air operator conducting operations in Jamaica, regulated agent

and flight catering organization shall not use any person to perform any required screening function, unless such person has: (1) a combination of education and experience, which the akoperator has determined Is

necessary for the person to perform his duties; (2) the following basic aptitudes and physical abilities - . .

(i) the ability to distinguish on the X-ray monitor the appropriate imaging standard specified in his national air operator security programme including the perception of colours where displayed by the X-ray system;

(ii) the ability to distinguish each colour displayed on every type of screening equipment and explain what each colour signifies;

(iii) the ability to hear and respond to the spoken voice and to audible alarms generated by screening equipment in an active check point environment;

(iv) the ability to efficiently and thoroughly manipulate and handle such baggage. containers, and other objects subject to security processing; and

(v) the ability to have sufficient dexterity and capability to conduct partial and full body searches or hand held metal detector searches in accordance with the requirements of the national civil aviation security programme.

. (3) the ability to read, write, and speak the English Language well enough to - . (i) carry out written and oral instructions in the English Language regarding the

proper performance of screening duties; (ii) read English Language identification media, credentials, airllne tickets, and labels

on items normally encountered in the screening process; (iii) provide direction to and understand and answer questions from English-speaking

persons undergoing screening; and

(iv) write incident reports and statements and log entries into security records in the English



Language; and (4) satisfactorily complete all initial, recurrent, and appropriate specialized aviation

security training required by the Air Operator Security Programme. (b) Notwithstanding the provisions of sub-paragraph (a)(4), an air operator may use a person

during the on-the-job portion of training to perform security functions, not requiring a district constable, provided that the person is closely supewised'and does not make independent judgements as to whether persons or property may enter a sterile area without further inspection.

(c) An air operator shall not use a person to perform a screening function after that person has failed an operational test related to that function, until such person has successfully completed the remedial training specified in his Air Operator Security Programme and has passed a re-test related to that function.

(d) An air operator shall ensure that a Security Co-ordinator conducts and documents an annual evaluation of each person assigned screening duties and may continue the

' employment of that person in a screening capacity only upon the determination by that Security Co-ordinator that the person - ( I ) has not suffered a significant diminution of any physical ability required to perform a

screening function since the last evaluation of those abilities; (2) has a satisfactory record of performance and attention to duty; and (3) demonstratesthe current knowledge and skills necessary to courteously, vigilantly,

and effectively perform screening functions. (e) Sub-paragraphs(a) through (f), shall not apply to those aviation security screening functions

conducted outside Jamaica over which the national air operator does not have operational control.

(f) At locations outside Jamaica where the national air operator has operational control over a screening function, he may use aviation security screeners who do not meet the requirements of sub-paragraph (c)(3), provided that at least one of his representatives who has the ability to functionally read and speak the English language is present'while the passengers of the air operator are undergoing security processing.

Appendix 1 to 20.030 Items Prohibited from the Aircraft Cabin and Aerodrome Security Restricted Areas (a) Prohibited items must never be carried in the cabin of an aircraft or taken into the Security

Restricted Area of an aerodrome except by authorized persons who require them to ,

undertake essential tasks. (b) Some prohibited items though prohibited from carriage in the cabinof the aircraft. may be

transported by passengers in their checked baggage so long as the items will not endanger the aircraft, are properly packed and are authorized for carriage by the air operator concerned.

(c) Prohibited items removed from passepgers at the security screening checkpoint must be processed in one of the following ways - ( I ) placed in the passenger's checked baggage, unless the item would endanger the

aircraft; (2) confiscated and subsequently properly disposed of or destroyed; (3) confiscated and kept in storage by the aerodrome operator or relevant air operator for

later return to the passenger; or (4) removed and, once properly prepared and packaged, transported in the hold of the

aircraft for later return to the passenger at the ticketed destination. (d) The category of items that are prohibited from the aircraft cabin, include -

( I ) Blunt instruments - any blunt object capable of being used to cause injury; (2) Chemical and toxic bbstances -any chemical or toxic substances which pose a risk

to the health of passengers and crew or the securitylsafety of aircraft or property; (3) Explosive and flammable substances - any object capable, or appearing capable, of

discharging a projectile or causing injury; and (4) Pointedledged weapons and sharp objects - any pointed or bladed item capable of

being used to cause injury.

- -



(e) A list of prohibited items, provided by the Authority, shall be posted at each security screening checkpoint.

Appendlx 1 to 20.034 Aerodrome Tenant Restricted Area Securlty Programme (a) An aerodrome tenant restricted area security programme shall be written in keeping with the

appropriate aerodrome security programme-ind shall be drafted in accordance At6 the layout detailed herein and submitted to the aerodrome operator for approval - . . (1) the objective of the security programme; (2) a description of the tenant restricted area; (3) details of the physical security measures at the tenant restricted area designed to

prevent unauthorized access to the tenant restricted area: (4) description of the tenant restricted area pass procedures in force to control authorized

access to the tenant restricted area; (5) description of the security measures in force designed unauthorized access of

persons, weapons or other dangerous devices into aerodrome security restricted areas from or through the tenant restricted area;

(6) details of the procedures to be followed in response to acts of unlawful interference; (7) details of security training for staff; (8) recruitment of staff; (9) self audits; and

(10) such other matters as may be required by the aerodrome operator. ..

(b) Proposed amendments and variations to the programme, shall be submitted to the ,

aerodrome operator for approval before incorporation.

Appendix 1 to 20.038 Employment Verification and Background Checks

1. Scope This requirement applies to all aerodrome operator employees; air operator employees; airport tenantslusers; individuals currently having unescorted access to airport security restricted area; all individuals seeking authorization for, or seeking the authority to authorize others to have. unescorted access to the restricted areas; and contractors.

2. Employment History lnvestigation (a) Each aerodrome operator must ensure that no individual is granted authorization for, or is

granted authority to authorize others to have, unescorted access to the airport restricted areas unless the following requirements are met - (1) The individual has satisfactorily undergone Part 1 of an employment history

investigation. which consists of - (i) a review of the previous 7 years of employment history; and (ii) verification of the 5 employment years preceding the date the appropriate

investigation. is initiated. (b) Information must be verified in writing, by documentation, by telephone or in person. (c) Verification for any periods of self-employment by the individual shall be sought from the

Ministry of Finance Investigation Department, accountants. solicitors or other suitable persons.

(d) The individual has satisfied Part 2 of the employment history investigation, used to determine if the individual has a criminal record: . .

(1) to satisfy Part 2 of the investigation, the criminal record check must not disclose thd the individual has been convicted or found not guilty by reason of insanity, in any jurisdiction. during the 7 years ending on the date of such investigation. of any of the crimes listed below - (i) forgery of certificates; (ii) false marking of aircraft and other aircraft registration violation; (iii) interference with air navigation; (iv) improper transportation of a hazardous material; (v) aircraft piracy;



(vi) interference with flight crew members or flight attendants; (vii) commission of certain crimes aboard aircraft in flight; (viii) carrying a weapon or explosive aboard aircraft; (Ix) conveying false information and threats; (x) unlawful entry into an aircraft or airport area that serves air operators or foreign air

operators contrary to established security requirements; (xi) destruction of an aircraft or aircraft facility; (xii) murder; (xiii) assault; (xiv) espionage; (xv) sedition; (mi) kidnapping or hostage taking; (xvii) treason; (xviii) rape ot aggravated sexual abuse; (xix) unlawful possession, use, sale, distribution, or manufacture of an explosive or

weapons; (xx) extortion; (mi) armed robbery; (xxii) distribution of, or intent to distribute, a controlled substance; and (xxiii) felony arson; or conspiracy or attempt to commit any of the aforementioned

criminal acts. (e) The individual's fingerprints are taken and a comparison of these are made against the

fingerprint files of known criminals maintained by the: (1) Criminal Records Office of the Jamaica Constabulary Force; (2) National Firearms & Crug Intelligence Centre; and (3) Law enforcement authorities in other jurisdictions in which the applicant has resided for

a period of more than 6 months.

3. lnvestlgetlve Procedures (a) All persons must complete Part 1 and Part 2 of the employment hidtory and criminal record form.

(1) The aerodrome operator, air operator or tenantluser must require that the following information be provided by the individual on the application form: (i) full name, including any aliases or nicknames; (ii) the dates, names, telephone numbers. and addresses of previous employers or

school records, with explanations for any gaps in employment of more than 12 consecutive months, during the previous 7-year period.

(iii) any convictions during the previous 7-year period of the crimes listed in 2 (a) (1 )above;

(iv) a notification that the individual will be subject to an employment history verification and criminal records check;

(v) a declaration that the information is complete and accurate; (vi) a declaration of acceptance by the candidate that any misrepresentation of the

facts is grounds for refusal of employinent, disciplinary proceedings or criminal charges;

(vii) TRN and NIS numbers and presentation of these cards, where applicable; (viii) parents names and addresses, where applicable; (viii) the individual's signature and date; (ix) verify the identity of the individual through the presentation of two forms of

identification, one of which must bear the individual's photograph, such as, a Government or school.lD; and

(x) Company authorized officer's signature and date of authorization. (b) Verify the information on the most recent 5 years of employment history required, as stated

in 2 (a) (1) above. (c) The individual's suitability should be questioned if -

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(1) helshe does not satisfactorily account for a period of unemployment of 12 consecutive months or more during the previous 7-year period;

(2) helshe is unable to support statements made on the application form; (3) there are significant inconsistencies in the information provided on the application; or (4) information becomes available to the aerodrome operator, air operator or the aerodrome

tensnuuser during the investigation indicating a possible conviction for one of the crimes listed in 2 (d) (1)above.

5. FINGERPRINT PROCESSING (a) One set of legible and classifiable fingerprints must be recorded on JCF approved

fingerprint cards. (b) A law enforcement officer must obtain the fingerprints from individuals. (c) The identih of the individual must be verified at the time fingerprints are obtained. The

individual must present two forms of identification, one of which must bear the individual's photograph. .

(d) Fees for the processing of the criminal record checks are due upon application, at the designated rate for each fingerprint card.

(e) Combined payment for multiple applications is acceptable providing payment is submitted through corporate cheque or manager's cheque.

6. DETERMlNATlON OF ARREST STATUS (a) During the conduct of the criminal record checks the aerodrome operator must not consider

the employment history investigation complete, unless it investigates arrest information for the crimes listed in paragraph 2 (b) above. That is, for crimes where no disposition has been recorded, make a determination that the arrest did not result in a disqualifying conviction.

(b) The aerodrome operator must notify the company or individual when a final decision has been made to grant or deny authority for unescorted access.

7. LIMITS OF D~SSEM~NA~~ON OF RESULTS Criminal record information provided by the JCF must be used solely for the purposes of aviation security, and no person may disseminate the results of a criminal record check to anyone other than -

( I ) The individual to whom the record pertains or that individual's authorized representative;

(2) Airport officials with a need-to-know; and (3) Others designated by the Minister of National Security.

8. AN INDMDUAL'S EMPLOYMENT STATUS WHILST AWAITING CRIMINAL RECORD CHECKS IndMduals who have submitted their fingerprints and are awaiting JCF results may perform work within the airport restricted areas when under escort by someone who has restricted area pa66 access privileges.

B.' RECORD KEEPING (a) The aerodrome operator must physically maintain, control and when appropriate destroy Part

1 and Part 2 of the employment history and criminal investigation file 12 years after the termination of the individual's authority for unescorted access.

(b) The employment history investigation file must consist of the following - (I) the application; (2) details of the candidate interview; (3) the employment verification information obtained by theemployer; (4) the names of those from whom the employment verification information was obtained.

including conclusions reached about any period for which verification was not possible;

(5) the date and the method of how contact was made;

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(6) the criminal record report received from the JCF Criminal Records Office as a result of an individual's fingerprint comparison or information that the check was completed and no record exists;

(7) any other information, as required by the Director General Civil Aviation; and (8) the files must be maintained in a manner that protects the confidentiality of the

individual and is acceptable to the Director General Civil Aviation.

10. CONTINUING RESPONSIBILITIES (a) Any individual authorized to have unescorted access privileges or who may authorize others

to have unescorted access and who is subsequently convicted of any of the crimes listed in paragraph 2(d)(l) above must within 24 hours report the conviction to the aerodrome operator and surrender the aerodrome restricted area pass to the issue

(b) If information becomes available to the aerodrome operator or the aerodrome tenantluser indicating that an individual with unescorted access has a possible conviction for one of the disqualifying crimes in paragraph 2(d)(l) above, the aerodrome operator must determine the status of the conviction. If a disqualifying conviction is confirmed, the airport operator must withdraw any authority granted.

11. EXCEPTIONS (a) An aerodrome operator mav authorize the following individuals to have unescorted access to

the aerodrome restricted areas - (1) an employee of the Civil via ti on Authority or a state or local government (including a

law enforcement officer) who, as a condition of employment, has been and is subjected to periodic employment investigation which includes a criminal record check; or

(2) National and foreign crewmembers covered by an alternate security arrangement in the air operator's approved security programme.

12. lNVESTIGATlONS BY AERODROME OPERATORS, AIR OPERATORS 8 AERODROME TENANTSlUSERS

AERODROME OPERATOR - (a) An arerodrome operator is in compliance with its obligation for employment history

investigations and criminal records when the aerodrome operator accepts for each individual seeking unescorted access the following - (1) the air operator or aerodrome tenanther certifies the aerodrome operator's pass

application form for each of their employees, verifying that the .pre-employment history investigation was conducted and meets these requirements; and

(2) the criminal history report is attached to the aerodrome pass application form. (b) The air operator and aerodrome tenanther's individual employment history and criminal

record forms must be certified by an authorized officer of the company. - (c) Prior to acceptance of a certified aerodrome pass application form and attached criminal

record form from an air operator or aerodrome tenanther, the aerodrome operator must conduct a preliminary review of the file for each individual to determine that the airport application form has been salisfactorily completed.

(d) The aerodrome operator must maintain and control certified arport, air operator and tenanthsers' employee pass application forms and criminal record investigation records on file.

(e) The aerodrome operator must designate the security manager. in the aerodrome security programme. to be responsible for reviewing the results of the employment history investigations for aerodrome employees, certified air operator and lenantslusers application and criminal record forms and for destroying the criminal records when their maintenance is no longer required by paragraph 9 (a).

(f) The aerodrome operator must audit aerodrome, air operator and aerodrome tenantslusers aerodrome application forms and criminal records. (1) The audit programme must be set forth in the aerodrome security programme.

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AIR OPERATOR AND TENANT~USER RESPONSIBILITIES (a) Airport tenantslusers must conduct and certify that employment history investigation and

criminal record checks have been conducted on individual ernployees in compliance with these requirements.

(b) The aerodrome operator must be provided with the name of the company position authorized to certify that individual employee history investigation and criminal record check forms are satisfactorily completed, investigations conducted and accepted, before certifying the aerodrome pass application form.

(c) Maintain and control a copy of each employee's employment history investigation and criminal record check form(s) on their file.

(d) Provide either the name or title of the individual acting as custodian of the files, state address and telephone number at the location where the investigative files are maintained.

(e) Provide JCAA Inspectors with access to each completed employee history investigation file.

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THE CIVIL A VIATIOPI REGULATIONS, 2004

TWENTY FIRST SCHEDULE (Regulations 108 - 119)

CONTENTS OF AN AERODROME MANUAL

SUBPART A: GENERAL 21.001 Applicability 21.002 General lnformation

SUBPART 8: PARTICULARS OF THE AERODROME SITE 21.010 General lnformation

SUBPART C: PARTICULARS OF THE AERODROME 21.100 General lnformation 21.105 Aerodrome Dimensions and Related lnformation

SUBPART D: AERODROME OPERATING PROCEDURES AND SAFETY MEASURES 21.1 10 Aerodrome Reporting 21.1 15 Access to the Aerodrome Movement Area 21.120 Aerodrome Emergency Plan 21.125 Rescue and Firefighting 21.130 Inspection of the Movement Area and Obstacle Limitation Surface by the Aerodrome Operator 21.135 Visual Aids and Aerodrome Electrical Systems 21.140 Maintenance of the Movement Area 21.145 Aerodrome Works - Safety 21.150 Apron Management 21.155 Apron Safety Management 21.160 Airside Safety Control 21.165 Wildlife Hazard Management 21.170 Obstacle Control 21.175 Removal of Disabled Aircraft 21.180 Handling of Hazardous Materials 21.185 Low Visibility Operations 21.190 Protection of Sites for Radar and Navigational Aids

SUBPART E: AERODROME ADMINISTRATION AND SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM 21,200 Aerodrome Administration 21.205 Safety Management System

SUBPART A: GENERAL

21.001 Applicability

This Schedule prescribes, for Jamaican aerodrome operator certificate applicants, what is required to be in the Aerodromes Manual referred to in the Jamaica Civil Aviation Regulations, Part XIII. Regulation 109:

21.005 General

(a) The Manual should contain a General section that explains the following - (1) the purpose and scope of the Aerodrome Manual: (2) the legal requirement for an aerodrome certificate and an Aerodrome Manual as prescribed in

the national regulations; (3) the conditions for use of the aerodrome--a statement to indicate that the

aerodrome shall at all times, when it is available for the take-off and landing of aircraft, be so available to all persons on equal terms and conditions:

(4) the available aeronautical information system and procedures for its promulgation:

(5) the system for recording aircraft movements; and

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(6) the obligations of the aerodrome operator.

(b) The s~lbsequent sections of the Manual shall contain information on the topics covered in Subparts B through E of this Schedule.

SUBPART B: PARTICULARS OF THE AERODROME SITE

21.010 General Information

(a) This section shall contain general information relating to the aerodrome site, ~ncluding the followmg -

(1) a plan of the aerodrome showing the main aerodrome facilities for the operation of the aerodrome including, particularly, the location of each wind direction indicator;

(2) a plan of the aerodrome showing th'e aerodrome boundaries: (3) a plan showing the distance of the aerodrome from the nearest city, town or other

populous area, and the location of any aerodrome facilities and equipment outside the boundaries of the aerodrome; and

(4) the particulars of the title of the aerodrome site. If the boundaries of the aerodrome are not defined in the title documents particulars of the title to, of interest in. the property on which the aerodrome is located and a plan showing the boundaries and position of the aerodrome.

SUBPART C: PARTICULARS OF THE AERODROME (To be reported t o Aeronautical Information Servlce)

21.100 General Information

This section shall contain general information, including the following - (1) the name of the aerodrome; (2) the location of the aerodrome; (3) the geographical co-ordinates of the aerodrome reference point

determined in terms of the World Geodetic System-1984 WGS-84) reference general datum;

(4) the aerodrome elevation and geoid undulation; (5) the elevation of each threshold and geoid undulation, the elevation of the

runway end and any significant hlgh and low points along the runway. and the highest elevation of the touchdown zone of a precision appmach runway;

(6) the aerodrome reference temperature: (7) details of the aemdrome beacon: and (8) the name of the aerodrome operator and the address and telephone

numbers at which the aemdmme operator may be contacted at all times.

21.105 Aerodrome Dimensions and Related Information

This section shall contain general information, including the following - ( 1 For the runway or runways, the true bearing, designation number. length.

width, displaced threshold location, slope, surface type, type of runway and, for a precision approach runway, the existence of an obstacle free zone;

(2) the length, width and surface type of strip. funway end safety areas. stopways;

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(3) the length. width and surface type of taxiways; (4) the type of surface of the apron and aircraft stands; (5) the clearway length and ground profile; (6) visual aids for approach procedures, viz.. approach lighting type and visual approach slope

indicator system (PAPIIAPAPI and T-VASISIAT-VASIS); marking and lighting of runways, taxiways, and aprons; other visual guidance and control aids on taxiways (including runway holding positions, intermediate holding positions and stop bars) and aprons, location and type of visual docking guidance system; availability of standby power for lighting;

(7) the location and radio frequency of Very-high frequency Omni-range Radio (VOR) aerodrome checkpoints;

(8) the location and designation of standard taxi routes; (9) the geographical co-ordinates of each threshold: (10) the geographical co-ordinates of appropriate taxiway centre line points; (1 1) the geographical co-ordinates of each aircraft stand: (12) the geographical co-ordinates and the top elevation of significant obstacles in the approach and

take-off areas, in the circling area and in the vicinity of the aerodrome. (This information may best be shown in the form of charts such as those required for the preparation of aeronautical information publications, as specified in Annexes 4 and 15 to the Convention);

(13) pavement surface type and bearing strength using the Aircraft Classification Number Pavement Classification Number (ACN-PCN) method:

(14) one or more pre-flight altimeter check locations established on an apron and their elevation;

(15) declared distances: take-off run available (TORA), take-off distance available (TODA), accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA), landing distance available (LDA);

(16) disabled aircraft removal plan: the telephoneltelexlfacsimile numbers and email address of the aerodrome coordinator for the removal of a disabled aircraft on or adjacent to the movement area, information on the capability to remove a disabled aircraft, expressed in terms of the largest type of aircraft which the aerodrome is equipped to remove; and

(17) rescue and fire-fighting: the level of protection provided, expressed in terms of the category of the rescue and fire-fighting services, which should be in accordance with the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and the type and amounts of extinguishing agents normally available at the aerodrome.

(Note: The accuracy of the information in Part 3 is critical to aircrafl safety. Information requiring engineering survey and assessment should be gathered or verified by qualified technical persons.)

SUBPART D: AERODROME OPERATING PROCEDURES & SAFETY MEASURES

21.110 Aerodrome Reporting

This section shall contain particulars of the procedures for reporting any changes to the aerodrome information set out in the AIP and procedures for requesting the issue of NOTAM's, including the following -

(1) arrangements for reporting any changes to the Authority and recording the reporting of changes during and outside the normal hours of aerodrome operations;

(2) the names and roles of persons responsible for notifying the changes, and their telephone numbers during and outside the normal hours of aerodrome operations; and

(3) the address and telephone numbers, as provided by the Authority, of the place where changes are to be reported to the Authority.



(6) arrangements for reporting the results of inspections and for taking prompt follow-up actions to ensure conection of unsafe conditions; and

(7) the names and roles of persons responsible for carrying out Inspections, and their telephone numbers during and after wrking hours.

21.135 . Visual Alds and Aerodrome Electrical Systems

This sectlon shall contain particulars of the pmcedures for the inspection and maintenance of aemnautical lights (including obstacle lighting), signs, markers and aemdmme electrical systems, including the following -

(1) anangements for canying out inspections during and outside the normal hours of aerodrome operation, and the checkl~st for such inspections.

(2) anangements for recording the result of inspections and for taking follow-up action to correct deficiencies;

(3) anangements for carrying out mutine maintenance and emergency maintenance; (4) anangements for secondary power supplies. if any, and, if applicable, the particulars of any

other method of dealmg with partlal or total system fa~lure; and (5) the names and roles of the persons responsible for the inspection and maintenance of the

I~ghting, and the telephone numbers for contactmg those persons during and after working hours.

21.140 Maintenance of the Movement krea

This section shall contain particulars of the facilities and pmcedures for the maintenance of the movement area, including -

(1) anangements for maintaining the paved areas: (2) anangements for maintaining the unpaved runways, taxiways; (3) arrangements for maintaining the runway and taxiway strips; and (4) arrangements for the maintenance of aerodrome drainage.

21.145 ,. Aerodrome Works--Safety

This section shall contain particulars of the procedures for planning and carrying out construction and maintenance work safely (including work that may have to be canied out at short notice) on or in the vicinity of the movement area which may extend above an obstacle limitation surface, including the following: - '

(1) arrangements for communicating with Air Traffic Control during the progress of such work;

(2) the names, telephone numbers and mles of the persons and organizations responsible for planning and carrying out the work, and arrangements for contacting those persons and organizations at all times;

(3) the names and telephone numbers, during and after working hours, of the aerodrome fixed-base operators, ground handling agents and aircraft operators who are to be notified of the work; and

(4) a distribution list for work plans, if required.

21.150 Apron Management

This section shall contain particulars of the apron management procedures, including the following: - (1) anangements between Air Traffic Control and the apron management unit; (2) anangements for allocating aircraft parking positions; (3) anangements for initiating engine start and ensuring clearance of aircraft push-back; (4) marshalling service; and



(5) leader (van) service.

21.155 Apron Safety Management

Th~s section shall contam procedures to ensure apron safety, including:

(1) protection from jet blasts: (2) enforcement of safety precautions during aircraft rafuelling operations: (3) apron sweeping: (4) bran cleaning; (5) a;rangementsfor reporting incidents and accidents on an apron: and (6) arrangements for auditing the safety compliance of all personnel working on the apron

21.160 ~ i r s i b e Safety Control

This section shall contain particulars of the procedure for the control of surface vehicles operating on or in the vicinity of the movement area, including the following -

(1) details of the applicable traffic rules (including speed limits and the means of enforcing the rules): and

(2) I the method of issuing driving permits for operating vehicles in the movement area.

21.165 Wildllfe Hazard Management

This section shall contain particulars of the procedures to deal with the danger posed to aircrah operations by the presence of birds or mammals in the aerodrome flight penern or movement area, including the following -

(1) arrangements for assessing wildlife hazards; (2) ' arrangements for implementing wildlife control programmes; and (3) names and roles of the persons responsible for deahng with wildlife hazards, and their

telephone numbers during and after working hours.

21.170 obstacle Control

This section shall contain particulars setting out the procedures for - (1)' monitoring the obstacle limitation surfaces and Type A Chart for obstacles inthe take-off

surface; (2) controlling obstacles within the authority of the operator; (3) monitoring the height of buildings or stmctures within the boundaries of the obstacle limitation

surfaces; (4) controlling new developments in the vicinilyof aerodromes: and (5) notifying the Authority of the nature and location of obstacles and any subsequent addition or

, removal of obstacles for action as necessaly, including amendment of the AIS publications.

21.175 Removal of Disabled Alrcraft

This section shall contain particulars of the procedures for removing a disabled aircrafl on or adjacent to the movement area, including the following -

(1) mles of the aerodrome operator and the holder of the aircrah certificate of registration; (2) arrangements for notifying the holder of the certificate of registration; (3) arrangements for liaising with the Air Traffic Control unit; (4) arrangements for obtaining equipment and personnel to remove the disabled aircraft and

- - --


THE CIVk. AVIATION REGULATIONS, 2004

21.115 Access to the Aerodrome Movement Ama

This section shall contain general information and particulars of the procedures that have been developed and are to be followed in coordination with the agency responsible for preventing unlawful interference in civll aviation at the aerodmme and for preventing unauthorized entry of persons, vehicles, equipment, animals or other things into the movement area, including the following:

(1) the role of the aerodmme operator, the aircraft operator. aerodrome fixed- base operators, the aerodrome security entity, the Authority and other government departments, as applicable; and

(2) the names and roles of the personnel responsible for controlling access to the aerodrome, and the telephone numbers for contacting them during and after working hours.

21.120 Aerodrome Emergency Plan

(a) This section shall contain particulars of the aemdrome emergency plan, including the following:

(1) plans for dealing with emergencies occuning at the aerodrome or in its vicinity. including the malfunction of aircraft in flight: structural fires; sabotage, including bomb threats (aircraft or structure); unlawful seizure of aircraft; and incidents on the airport covering *during the emergenw and "after the emergenw considerations:

(2) details of tests for aerodrome facilities and equipment to be used in emergencies, including Me frequency of those tests;

(b) details of exercises to test emergency plans, including the frequency of those exercises;

(c) a list of organizations, agencies and persons of authority, both on-and off airport. for site roles; their telephone and facsimile numbers, email and SlTA addresses and the radio frequencies of their offices;

(e) the establishment of an aerodrome emergency committee to organize training and other preparations for dealing with emergencies; and

(f) the appointment of an on-scene commander for the overall emergency operation.

21.125 Rescue and Flre-Flghttng

This section shall contain particulars of the facilities, equipment, personnel and pmcedures for meeting the rescue and fire-fighting requirements, including the names and roles of the persons responsible for dealing with the rescue and fidighting services at the aemdrome.

(Note: This subjecl should also be covered in appmpriale dele// h the aerodrome emergency plan.)

21.130 lnspedlon of the Aerodrome Movement Area and Obstacle Llmltatlon Surface by the Aerodrome Operator

This sectlon shall contain .particulars of the procedures for the inspection of the aerodmme movement area and .obstacle limitation surfaces, Including the following -

(1) arrangements for canylng out Inspections, lndudlng runways and taxiways, during and wtside the runway friction and water-depth measurements on normal hours of aerodrome operations;

(2) arrangements and means of communicating with Air Traffic Control during an Inspection; (3) arrangements for keeplng an inspeclion logbook, and the location of the logbook; (4) details of inspection intervals and times; (5) inspection checklist;

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( 5 ) names, role and telephone numbers of persons responsible for arranging for the removal of disabled aircraft.

21.180 Handllng of Hazardous Materials

This section shall contain particulars of the procedures for the safe handling and storage of hazardous materials on the aerodrome, including the following -

(1) arrangements for special areas on the aerodrome to be set up for the storage of inflammable liquids (including aviation fuels) and any other hazardous materials: and

(2) method to be followed for the del~very, storage, dispensing and handling of hazardous materials.

(Note: Hazardous materials include inflammable liquids and solids, corrosive liquids, compressed gases and magnetized or radioactive materials. Arrangements for dealing with the accidental spillage of hazardous materials should be included in the aerodrome emergency plan.)

21.185 Low-Visiblllty Operations

This section shall contain particulars of procedures to be introduced for low-visibility operations, including the measurement and reporting of runway visual range as and when required, and the names and telephone numbers, during and afler working hours, of the persons responsible for measuring the runway visual range.

21.190 Protection of Sites for Radar and Navigational Aids

This section shall contain particulars of the procedures for the protection of sites for radar and radio navigational aids located on the aerodrome, ensure that their performance will not be degraded, including the following:

(1) arrangements for the control of activities in the vicinity of radar and navaids installations; (2) arrangements for ground maintenance in the vicinity of these installations; and (3) arrangements for the supply and installation of signs warning of hazardous microwave

radiation.

SUBPART E ADMINIST RATION AND SAFETY MANAGEMENT SYSTEM

21.200 Aerodrome Admlnistratlon This section shall contain particulars of the aerodrome administration, including the following -

(1) an aerodrome o,rganizational chart showing the names and positions of key personnel. including their responsibilities;

(2) the name, position and telephone number of the person who has overall responsibility for aerodrome safety; and

(3) airport committees.

21.205 Safety Management System (SMS)

This section shall contain particulars of the safety management system established for ensuring compliance wim all safety requirements and achieving continuous improvement in safety performance, the essential features being:

(1) me safety'policy, insofar as applicable, the safety management process and its relation to the operational and maintenance process;

(2) the structure or organizatton of the SMS, including staffing and the ass~onment of individual and gmup responsibilities for safety issues;

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(3) SMS strategy and planning, such as setting safety performance targets, allocating priorities for Implementing safety initiatives and providing a framework for controlling the risks to as low a level as is reasonably practicable keeping always in view the requirements of the Standards and Recommended Practices in Volume I of Annex 14 to the Convention on International Ciwl Aviation, and the national regulations, standards, rules or orders:

(4) SMS implementation, lncluding facilities, methods and procedures for the effective communication of safety messages and the enforcement of safety requirements;

(5) a system for the implementation of. and action on, critical safety areas which require a higher . . level of safety management integrity (safety measures programme):

(6) measures for safety promotion and accidedt prevention and a system for risk control involving . . analysis and handling of accidents, incident& complaints, defects, faults, discrepancies and - failures. and continuing safety monitoring:

(7) the internal safety audit and revlew system detailing the systems and programmes for quality control of safety;

(8) the system for documenting all safety-related airport facilities as well as airport operational and maintenance records, including information on the design and construction of aircraft pavements and aerodrome lighting. The system should enable easy retrieval of records lncluding charts;

(9) staff training and competency, including the review and evaluation of the adequacy of training provided to staff on safety-related duties and of the certification system for testing their competency; and

(10) the incorporation and enforcement of safety-related clauses in the contracts or const~ction work at the aerodrome.

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TWENTY-SECOND SCHEDULE

TABLE1 , '

GENERAL

Column I DOCUMENT OR ACTION

Processing an application for and issue of an Exemption.

Processing an application for and issue of a Waiver.

Processing an application for and issue of a Deviation.

Processing an application for and issue of an Extension.

Amendment of any aviation document not othemrise identified in these tables.

NOTE: Any accommodation, transportation and meal expenses incurred by an Inspector(s) as a result of travel outslde the Kingston area during the course of issuing a licence, rating or authorization shall be paid by the person or organization requesting such licence, rating or authorization. Accommodation and meal expenses shall be at the government-approved rate or as othelwise agreed.

701

(Regulation 81)

Column II FEE (US)



TABLE 2

REGISTRATION AND MARKING OF AIRCRAFT Part IV of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2004


Authorization to attach an alrcraft identification plate other than in accordance with the standards of the state of manufacture.

Provide written approval to remove, replace, attach or alter Information on aircraft identification plates.

Provide written authorization to the owner of an aircraft to replace a lost. stolen or damaged aircraft identification plate.

Reserve a registration mark, or a special registration mark.

Authorization of alternative size or alternative locations for display of aircraft registration marks.

lssue of a temporary aircraft registration.

lssue of a continuing aircraft registration.

Replacement of a lost or destroyed certificate of registration.

lssue of a written authorization permitting:

(a) the operation of a leased Jamaican or forelgn aircraft by a Jamaican operator; or

(b) the operation of a leased Jamaican aircraft by a foreign operator.

Column II FEE (US$)

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ITEM - 1.

2.

3.

4.


TABLE 3

REGISTRATION AND CERTIFICATION OF AERODROMES


P

Issue of an Aerodrome Certificate for - (a) International Airport; (b) Domestic Public Aerodrome.

Registration of an aerodrome.

Amend an Aerodrome Certificate for - (a) International Airport; (b) Domestic Public Aerodrome.

Conduct an aeronautical study (fee payable per hour of Inspector time).

- - Column II FEE g S $ ) P



TABLE 4

PERSONNEL LICENSING AND TRAINING

Applicable to documents issued. replaced, endorsed and processed under Part VII of the Civil Aviation

ITEM

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10. *

Regulations, 2004


lssue of a flight crew licence - (a) Student Pilot Licence; (b) Private Pilot Licence.; (c) Commercial Pilot Licence; (d) Airline Transport Pilot Licence; (e) Flight Engineer Licence.

Endorsement of a flight crew licence with a rating - (a) Aircraft class rating; (b) Aircraft type rating; (c) Night rating; (d) Instrument rating; (e) Multi-Engine rating: (f) Second Officer rating; (g) Flight Instructor ratings.

Renewal of an instrument rating

Renewal of flight instructor ratings - (a) Class 2 Flight Instructor; (b) Class 1 Flight Instructor.

lssue of a foreign licence validation certificate (other than ultra-light or gyroplane).

Validation of a foreign ultra-light or gyroplane licence issued by a contracting state.

Renewal of a validation of a foreign ultra-light or gyroplane licence.

Approval of an Airline Transport Pilot Licence training programme.

Approval of a proposed syllabus for a flight training programme.

Conduct of a flight test by the Authority.

Column II FEE (US$)

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- ITEM - 11.

12.

13.

14.

15.

16.

17.

16.

19.

20.

21.

22

-


TABLE 4 -cont9d


lssue of an Air Traffic Controller Licence - (a) issue of a provisional Air Traffic Controller Licence; (b) issue of a substantive Air Traffic Controller Licence.

Endorsement of an Air ~raf t ic Controller Licence with a rating

Endorsement of an +r Traffic Controller Licence with a provisional rating for the operational location.

lssue of an Aircraft Maintenance. Engineer (AME) Licence.

Addition of a Rating to an Aircraft Maintenance Engineer Licence.

Renewal of an Aircraft Maintenance Engineer Llcence.

Validation of a foreign Aircraft Maintenance Engineer Licence.

Replace a lost or stolen licence.

lssue of a medical certificate - (a) Class 3; (b) Class 2; (c) Class 1.

Renewal of a medical certificate - (a) Class 3; (b) Class 2; (c) Class 1.

Conduct a wrltten examination for a licence or rating - (a) First attempt; (b) Second attempt; (c) Subsequent attempts.

Conduct an oral examination for a licence or rating - (a) First attempt. (b) Subsequent attempts.

Column II FEE (US))

- -

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ITEM,

23.

24.

25.

26.

27.

28.

29.

30.

31.

32.

, 33.

34.

35.


TABLE 4 - cont'd


lssue a basic flight training unit operator certificate - (a) Single Engine (SE) Private Licence; (b) Single Engine Commercial Licence.

Add training approvals to a basic Flight Training Unit (FTU) Certificate - (a) Multi-Engine (ME) Operations Specification (Op Spec); (b) Acrobatic Ops Spec; (c) Instrument Ops Spec: (d) Instructor Ops Spec;

Renew a FTU operator certificate - (a) Private; (b) Commercial.

Amend a flight training unit operating certificate.

JCAA letter of attestation of a licence, rating or authorization to another Contracting State.

lssue a Designated Flight Test Examiner authority.

Renew a Designated Flight Test Examiner authority.

Conduct a DFTE monitor.

lssue a special authority.

Renew a special authority.

Approval of a flight training unit maintenance control manual.

Approval of an amendment to a flight training unit maintenance control manual.

Authorize a flight training unit maintenance arrangement by issuance of a maintenance operator specification.

Column II FEE (US$)

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TABLE 5 Applicable to an aviation document issued. replaced or renewed

under Part V of the Civil Aviation Regulations. 2004


lssue of a Certificate of Airworthiness in respect of an aircraR - (a) Initial -

(i) 4 0 passengers; (ii) 10-1 9 passengers; (iii) 20-50 passengers; (iv) >50 passengers.

(b) Renewal - (i) 4 0 passengers: (ii) 1.0-1 9 passengers; (iii) 20-50 passengers: (iv) >50 passengers.

lssue of a Flight Permit in respect of an aircraft - (a) Initial issue; (b) Renewal.

Validation of an additional flight authority issued by a foreign authority to a foreign aircraft - (a) Initial issue; (b) Renewal.

Amendment of a Flight Authority.

lssue of an Export Airworthiness Certificate (or an Airworthiness Status Letter) - (a) 4 0 passengers; (b) 10-19 passengers; (c) 20-50 passengers; (d) >50 passengers.

Column II FEE (US$)

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ITEM - 6.

7.

8.

TABLE 5 - cont'd

Column I DOCUMENT.OR ACTION . -

Authorization for a used part to remain in service more than 90 days.

Determination of equivalent qualifications of foreign licence and rating for issuance of a maintenance release.

Issue of an Approved Maintenance Organization (AMO) Certificate - (a) Initial Issue -

(i) ~ 1 0 passengers; (ii) 10-1 9 passengers; (iii) 20-50 passengers (domestic); (iv) 20-50 passengers (international); (v) More than 50 passengers (domestic); (vi) More than 50 passengers (international).

(b) Amendment of an AM0 Certificate (or Ops. Spec) - (i) c10 passengers; (ii) 10-19 passengers; (iii), 20-50 passengers (domestic); (iv) 20-50 passengers (international); (v) More than 50 passengers (domestic); (vi) More than 50 passengers (international).

(c) Addition of New AircraH Type or Rating to an AM0 Cert~ficate - (i) Under 10 passengers; (ii) 10-19 passengers; (iii) 20-50 passengers (domestic); (iv) 20-50 passengers (international); (v) More than 50 passengers (domestic); (vi) More than 50 passengers (international).

(d) Renewal - (i) Under 10 passengers; (il) 10- 19 passengers; (iii) 20-50 passengers (domestic); (iv) 20-50 passengers (international); (v) More than 50 passengers (domestic); (vi) More than 50 passengers (international)

Column II FEE (US$)

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TABLE 5 - cont'd

--


Review and approve credentials of a person responsible for the activities undertaken by an AMO.

Authorization of a deviation from approved Maintenance Control Manual (MCM) policy and procedures for an AMO.

Approval of an AM0 to use detailed procedures, manuals and lists (plus JCAA research time).

Approval of an amendment of an AMO's Maintenance Procedures Manual (MPM) - (a) 4 0 passengers; (b) 10-19 passengers; (c) 20-50 passengers; (d) a50 passengers.

Approval for an AM0 to use an external agent - (a) 4 0 passengers; (b) 10-19 passengers; (c) 20-50 passengers; (d). >SO passengers.

Issue a maintenance specification permitting a Jamaican AM0 to perfom maintenance on foreign aircraft - (a) 4 0 passengers; (b) 10-19 passengers; (c) 20-50 passengers; (d) > 50 passengers.

Authorization for an AM0 to have work performed at facilities outside Jamaica. (a) -40 passengers; (b) 10-19 passengers; (c) 20-50 passengers; (d) a50 passengers.

Authorization of a deferral of the submission of a service difficulty report.

Column II FEE (US$)



TABLE 6

Fees in Respect of Parts V, VI, Vlll and XI of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2004


Approval of formation flight while carrying passengers.

Approval for flight of non-piloted aircraft.

Issue of a special flight operations certificate - (a) Special aviation event aircraft; (b) Balloons; (c) Parachuting; (d) Miscellaneous.

Authorization of acceptance for shipment by aircraft or transport by aircraft of dangerous goods.

Approval of a Minimum Equipment List - (a) 4 0 passengers; (b) 10-1 9 passengers; (c) 20-50 passengers; (d) >50 passengers.

Amend a Minimum Equipment List; or Approve a Configuration Deviation List - (a) 4 0 passengers; (b) 10-1 9 passengers; (c) 20-50 passengers; (d) ~ 5 0 passengers.

Approval of an alternative means of compliance with an aimorthiness directive (plus JCAA's research time and costs).

Approval of a maintenance schedule.

Authorization to deviate from the requirements of applicable maintenance schedule (plus JCAA's research time and costs).

Issue permission for carriage of weapons, ammunition, or othel equipment designated as munitions of war, by an aircraft.

Initial inspection and approval of synthetic flight training equipment fol pilot training or a pilot proficiency check.

Renewal of synthetic flight training device approval.

Column I1 FEE (US$)


- ITEM -

1.

2.

3.


TABLE 7

Fees in Respect of Parts VI and X of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2004

Column I DOCUMENT OR ACTION - -

lssue of Air Operators Certificate - commercial air transport - Initial -

(i) 4 0 passengers domeitic; (ii) 4 0 passengers international; (iii) 10-1 9 passengers domestic; iivj 10-1 9 bassengers international; (v) 20-50 Dassengers domestic; ivi) 20-50 bassengers international; (vii) >50 passengers domestic; (viii) >50 passengers international.

Renewal - (i) 4 0 passengers domestic; (ii) 4 0 passengers international; (iii) 10-19 passengers domestic; (iv) 10-19 passengers international; (v) 20-50 passengers domestic; (vi) 20-50 passengers international; (vii) >50 passengers domestic; (viii) >50 passengers international.

Routine AOC Ops Spec amendment - (a) 4 0 passengers domestic; (b) 4 0 passengers international; (c) 10-19 passengers domestic; (d) 10-19 passengers international; (e) 20-50 passengers domestic; (f) 20-50 passengers international; (g) >50 passengers domestic; (h) >50 passengers international.

Issue Special Operations Approval Ops Spec (see Manual of Special Operations Appmvals).

- Column II FEE (US$)



TABLE 7 - cont'd


lssue of Aerial Work Certificate.

Renewal of Aerial Work Certificate.

Authorization to deviate fmm policies and procedures contained in MCM.

lssue a Foreign Air Operator Certificate Initial (Not including administrative or Inspectorate costs) Amendment to Foreign AOC or Ops Spec

Approval of amendment to MCM.

Approval of the performance of maintenance by a person or organization [plus Inspectots travel time and costs).

Authorization for take off, approach or landing in an aircrafl within a built up area of a city or town at a place other than an airport or military aerodrome.

Authorization of operation of an aircrafl over a built up area at altitudes and distances less than specified in Part VI.

Authorization of operation of a helicopter carrying a helicopter Class B. C, or D external load over a built up area or in an aerial work zone.

Initial issue of a Company Check Pilot (CCP) authority.

Renewal of a Company Check Pilot authority.

Conduct of a pilot proficiency check (PPC) or of a CCP monitor.

Approval of an air operator ground and flight training programme (except as part of initial certification) - (a) Initial - . .

(i) Single engine; (ii) Multi-engine.

[b) Amendment - (a) Single engine; (b) Multi-engine.

Authorization of advanced qualification training programmes.

Issue of interim apprdva~ for an air operator training programme.

Column II FEE (US$)

[The inclusion of thls page Is authorized by L.N. 18d20081


TABLE 7 - cont'd


nitial approval of company operations manual: 'a) Air Taxi. 'b) Other.

4pproval of amendment to company operations manual: a) Alr Taxi. b) Other.

4pproval of any other required company manual.

4pproval of amendment to any other required company manual.

4pproval of an air operator carry-on baggage cgntroi system.

4pproval of m-eans of restraint of carry-on baggage.

4pprovaI of a flight attendant seat, not specified in the aircraft type mtificate.

Cthorizations for a person other than a flight attendant to occupy a flighl attendant seat.

ssue authorization to an AOC holder to lease an,aircraft not already on heir Ops Specs.

Column II FEE (US$)

1The Inclusion of this page Is authorized by L.N. 18~/2008]


Table 8

Fees (or Air NavlgaUon SeNices

Column l INTERNATIONAL OPERATIONS

1. - Enmute Fee - Aircafi with a MCTOW less Clan 5,700 kg. 2. Enmute Fee - Alrcraff with a MCTOW 5.700 kg to 15,000 kp. 3. Enmute Fee - Aircrafi with a MCTOW exmeding 15.000 kg. 4. Terminal Fee - Airaafi with a MCTOW of less than 5,700 kg. 5. Terminal Fee - Airuafi with a MCTOW of 5.700 kg or greater.

DOMESnC OPERATIONS Terminal Fee - Airaaft with a MCTOW less then 5.700 kg.

Terminal Fee - Airuafi with a MCTOW equal to or greater than 5.700kg.

Terminal Fee - Training tights - AU aircafi. 8.

Column II -

3 hwr. 1

Table 9

Fees bf Air Transport Hearing. Umnslng and P m n (Econank Regulatkm)

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C1vl.L. AVIATION

THE CIVIL AVJA'I'ION, ACT


(Made by the Air Transport Licensing Board and approved by rhe ,,,. ,,,,, Minister on the 19th day of July, 1966)

1. This Order may be cited as the Civil Aviation (Air Transport Licensing Board) (Delegation of Functions) Order. 1966.

2 The functions of the Board under Part III of the Civil Aviation (Air Transport Licensing) Regulations. 1966 (other than regulation 25 thereof) have been delegated to the Director of Civil Aviation with effect from the 19th day of July, 1966.

lThe inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18*/2008]

CIVIL AVIATION



(Made by the Minister on the 10th of June, 1966) L.N: 21 6166 Amdo: L.N. 130169

66U84 7ODl94

13412004

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Civil Aviation (Air Cit.tim.

Transport Licensing) Regulations, 1966,

2. In these Regulations, unless the context otherwise requires- h'evp"'"hon

"air service" means any service performed by any aircraft for hue or reward;

"the Air Transit Agreement" m&s the International Air Services Transit Agreement concluded at Chicago on the 7th day of December, 1944;

"licence" means a licence granted under regulation 6;

"permit" means a pennit granted under regulation 23;

"scheduled journey" means one of a series of journeys whch are undertaken between the same two places and which together amount to a systematic service operated in such a manner that the benefits thereof are available to members of the public from time to time seeking to take advantage of it.

3. Nothing in thcsc Rcgulations shall apply to any flight- Exempriors

(a) by a civil aircraft registered in a state (other than Jamaica) which is for the time being a party to the Air Transit Agreemen4 which flies across Jamaica without landing or lands in Jamaica in accordance with the provisions of that Agreement;

(b) 'by a civil aircraft registered in a state (other than Jamaica) which is for the time being a party to the Chlcago Convention. on a journey which is not a scheduled journey and which

(The inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18cJ20081

718 THE CIVIL AVIATION (AIR TRANSPORT LICENSING) REGULATIONS, 1966

is undertaken soiely for the purpose 'of the carriage of passengers, none of whom is taken on or discharged from the aircraft in Jamaica, or the carriage of cargo or mail none of which is taken on or discharged in Jamaica, if the person in command of such aircraft gives notice of his intention to land in Jamaica to the Kingston Area Control Centre before the aircraft enters the Kingston Flight Information Region and the aircraft follows such route in or over Jamaica as the Kingston Area Control Centre may prescribe;

(c) solely for the purpose of the training or testing of persons in the performance of duties in connection with aircraft, provided-

(i) the aircraft is owned or is operated under arrangements entered into by a Flying Club, approved as such by the Director of Civil Aviation, of which both the person giving and the person receiving instruction are members; or

(ii) the person carrying out the training or testing has been granted approval by the Director of Civil Aviation to carry out such training or testing or both without a permit;

(d) solely for the purpose of providing ambulance or rescue facilities;

(e) solely for the purpose of the camage of emergency food or emergency medical supplies;

(f) solely for the purpose of testing or demonstrating any aircraft or any apparatus or equipment whether or not that apparatus or equipment is carried in the aircraft;

(g) being a positioning flight on which no passengers or cargo are carried, that is to say, a flight solely to enable the aircraft to arrive at a place at which-

(i) the aircraft is to be used for a flight; or

(ii) the aircraft is to ,be parked or stored; or

(iii) the aircraft or any part of the aircraft or its equipment is to be modified, inspected, tested, overhauled or repaired, or any part of the aircraft or its equipment is to be replaced;

(The inclusion of this page Is authorized by L.N. 18UZ0081

THE CIVIL AVIATION (AIR TRANSPORT LICENSING) REGULATIONS, 1966

(h) beginning in accordance with the terms of a licence or permit. but ending otherwise than in accordance with such terms by reason of-

(i) an emergency occurring after the beginning of the flight; or

(ii) compliance with the law of Jamaica or any country or territory in which the aircraft then is; or

(iii) any other circumstance beyond the control of the operator and commander of the aircraft;

( i ) ending in accordance with the terms of a licence or permit, but beginning otherwise than in accordance with such terms, being a flight which the aircraft next makes after such a flight as is mentioned in sub-paragraph (h);

63 by an aircraft owned or operated by Air Jamaica Limited and Air Jamaica (1968) Limited.

PART 11-Licences for Scheduled Journeys 4. This Part shall not apply to the carriage of passengers, mail or $p~E;f?

cargo by air for hire or reward upon journeys other than scheduled journeys.

5.-41) Subject to the provisions of these Regulations, it shall not !,""$;? be lawful for any person to use any aircraft in Jamaica for the carriage ~ , ~ c ~ ; ~ . ~ ~ ~ of passengers, mail or cargo for hire or reward upon any scheduled journey between two places of which at least one is in Jamaica except under, and in accordance with the provisions of, a licence or provisional liwnce granted by the Board.

(2) Any person who uses any aircraft in contravention of the provisions of this regulation shall be guilty of an offence and on conviction thereof shall be liable in the case of a first offence to a fine not exceeding four hundred dollars, or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or to both such fine and imprisonment, and in the case of a second or subsequent offence to a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or to both such fine and such imprisonment.

6.-41) The Board may grant to any person applying therefor a F;;;,": licence to carry passengers, mail or cargo by air for hire or reward a licence.


THE CIVIL .4VIATION ,(AIR TRA'VSPORT LICENSING) REGULATIONS, 1966

ApplIa- , lion for

Ucenca. First Schcddc.

Publication of applications for licence$.

on such scheduled journeys, and subject to such conditions as may be specified in the licence.

(2) The Board may attach such conditions to any licence as it thinks fit, having regard to the nature and circumstances of the application therefor.

(3) It shall be a condition of every licence- (a). that the holder of the licence and any person having a financial

interest in the business of the holder of the licence shall refrain from stipulating that any other person shall-

(i) refuse booking facilities to any other holder of a licence;

(ii) grant such facilities to such holder only on onerous terms; and

(b) that the holder of the licence shall perform all such reasonable services as the Postmaster-General may from time to time require in regard to the conveyance of mails and of any persons who may be in charge thereof upon journeys made under the licence, the remuneration for any such services being such as may from time to time be determined by agreement between the Postmaster-General and the holder of the licence; and

(c) that any dispute, difference or question which may arise as to the remuneration to be paid to the holder of the licence in respect of such services, or as to the rights, duties or liabilities of the holder of the licence or the Postmaster-General hereunder, or otherwise in relation to any of the matters aforesaid. shall in default of agreement be referred to a single arbitrator in pursuance of the provisions of the Arbitration Act, or any then subsisting statutory re-enactment or modification thereof.

7.-41) Applications for licences shall be made in the form and manner and shall contain the particulars prescribed in the First Schedule.

(2) Every applicant shall furnish to the Board such further information as the Board may reasonably require for the discharge of its duties in relation to the application.

8. The Board shaH cause to be published, in the manner prescribed in the First Schedule. such particulars of any applications for licences received by it as are prescribed in the First Schedule.

lThe inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18*12008]

THE CIVIL AVIATION (AIR TRANSPORT WCENSJNG) ,721 REGULATIONS, 1966

9. Any public officer acting on the instructions of the Minister or E b g g -

any person providing transport by air for passengers or cargo. or any taliom.

owner of an aerodrome may in the form and manner, and within the time prescribed in the First Schedule, make representations ox objections with regard to any application for a licence.

10. Every hearing by the Board shall be held in public unless the p g ~ ~ Board otherwise decides in relation to the whole or part of a particular Board.

Case.

11. Before hearing any application for a licence or objections or ~ o t i e s o f hearins.

representations with regard to the application the Board shall give to the applicant and to any person who has made such objections or representations, such notice in such form as is prescribed in the First Schedule, and shall give the applicant and any such person an opportunity of being heard at the hearing of the application.

12. Where an applicatmn is made to the Board for a licence to nc Board

remain in force for a period not exceeding thirty days and the Board ESBf,": special is satisfied that it is in the public interest that the application should licences.

be dealt with expeditiously, it may deal with the application and grant a licence accordingly; and the provisions of this Part as to the publication of particulars of applications, the making of objections and representations, and the holding of enquiries at the instance of the applicant or an objector shall not in that case apply.

13. The Board may grant licences to remain in force for such period Period of

not exceedin8 five years, as it may in each case determine, commencing """'

on the date on which the licence is expressed to take effect:

Provided that if, on' the date of the expiration of a licence, an application to the Board is pending for the grant of a new licence in substitution for the existing licence held by the applicant, the existing licence shall continue in force until the application is dealt with.

14. The Board may, if it thinks fit, pending the considering of an The Board application for a licence, grant to the applicant a provisional licence :A\g;;:, which shall remain in force until the application is dealt with. ~ ~ C ~ ~ C W .

15. The Board shall cause to be published m the manner prescribed ~ ~ , , l i ~ ~ t i ~ ~

in the First Schedule such particulars of its decisions on applications gz., for licences and of its decisions to revoke or suspend a licence as are d-"-

prescribed in that Schedule.

lThe inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18al20081

722 THE CIVIL AVIATION (AIR TRANSPORT LICENSING) , REGULATIONS, 1966

Revoatiaa O T l W

16.-41) Subject to paragraph (2) the Board may revoke or suspend pauion at a l i ~ t ~ l c b licences.

(a) if the holder of the licence has. since the licence was granted, been convicted of an offence against regulation 5 or regulation 22: or

(b) where the holder of the licence is a body corporate. if any officer of that body corporate has since the licence was panted. been convicted, in his capacity as such officer. of an offence against regulation 5 or regulation 22; or

(c) if the holder of the licence has failed to comply with any condition subject to which the licence was granted; or

(d) if the holder of a licence fails to operate the services to which the licence refers with sufficient regularity to satisfy the Board; or

(e) if the holder of the licence, or any person acting on his behalf. has made any false statement. whether wilfully or otherwise. either in the application for a licence or at the hearing of such application by the Board.

(2) Before revoking or suspending any licence under subparagraph (c) or (d) of paragraph (I), the Board-

(a) shall give to the holder of the licence such notice as. is prescribed in the First Schedule. specifying the grounds upon which it is proposed to revoke or suspend the licence; and

(b) shall hold a private enquiry. and the Board shall not revoke or suspend the licence under subparagraph (c) of paragraph ( 1 ) unless it is satisfied that having regard to the frequency of the failure on the part of the holder to comply with conditions or to the failure having been wiIful, the licence ought to be revoked or suspended. ,

(3) The expression "officer" in sub-paragraph (b) of paragraph ( 1 ) means a director. general manager. secretary or other similar officer and includes any person who, with the authority of the body corporate. acts as such officer.

Surrenda 17. A licence may at any time be surrendered by the holder to the Of Board for cancellation. If, during the currency of a licence, the holder

applies to the Board for a new licence in substitution for the current licence, he shall, if a new licdce is granted, surrender the current

(The inclusion of this page i s authorized by L.N. 18~/2008]

THE CIVIL AVIATION (AIR TRANSPORT LICENSING) REGVLA TZONS, 1966

licence for cancellation on the date from which the new licence is expressed to take effect.

18. No refund of any fee paid in respect of the grant of a licence ::&'& shall be made. whether on the surrender of a licence or otherwise, save where a licence is surrendered before its normal date of expiry upon the grant of a new licence authorizing a service over the same route, in which case there shall be refunded the sum of an amount calculated in accordance with Table 1 of the Second Schedule for each full year of the unexpired period of the licence.

19.-41) Every holder of a licence shall make a monthly return in Monthly returns by writing to the Board giving in respect of the month to which the holderiof licences.

return relates, the particulars set out in the First Schedule with regard to all air services authorized by the licence.

(2) Such return shall be sent to the Board not later than two months after the expiration of the month to which the return relates.

20. The Board shall make an annual report to the Minister as to the p:bv exercise of its functions during the year. the Board.

PART 111-Permits for Journeys other than Scheduled Journeys

21. This Part of these Regulations shall not apply to the carriage tf;f$g of passengers, mail or cargo by air for hire or reward on scheduled journeys.

22.-(1) Subject to the provisions of these Regulations, it shall not be t;Ag;z;,, lawful for any person to use any aircraft for the provision in Jamaica ;dFs . ta

of any air services except under, and in accordance with, the conditions of a permit granted by the Board.

(2) Any person who uses any aircraft in contravention of the provisions of this regulation shall be guilty of an offence and on conviction thereof shall be liable-

(a) in the case of a first offence to a fine not exceeding four hundred dollars or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or to both such fine and imprisonment;


724 lHE CIVL A VLA TION (AIR TRANSPORT LICENSING) REGULATIONS, 1966

licence for cancellation on the date from which the new licence is expressed to take effect.

18. [ Repealed by L. N. 134/2004]

19.--(I) Every holder of a licence shall make a monthly return in writing to the Board giving in respect of the month to which the return relates, the li-.

particulars set out in the First Schedule with regard to all air services authorized by the licence.

(2) Such return shall be sent to the Board not later than two months after the expiration of the month to which the return relates.

20. The Board shall make an annual report to the Minister as to the r c s exercise of its functions during the year.

PART 111-Permits for Journeys other than Scheduled Journeys

21. This Part of these Regulations shall not apply to the carriage 2;;nof

of passengers, mail or cargo by air for hire or reward on scheduled journeys.

22.--(I) Subject to the provisions of these Regulations, it shall not be R d d m m opration

lawful for any person to use any aircraft for the provision in Jamaica of any air services except under, and in accordance with, the conditions of a pennit m, granted by the Board.

(2) Any person who uses any aircraft in contravention of the provisions of this regulation shall be guilty of an offence and on conviction thereof shall be liable-

(a) in the case of a first offence to a fine not-exceeding four hundred dollars or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding three months or to both such fine and imprisonment;


THE CIWL A UATION (AIR TlUhSPORT LICENSING) 725 REGULATIONS. 1966

The Board may grant a pefmit

Applicants for pefmik.

Powers of Board

The E u d may revoke or suspend permm.

(b ) in the case of a second or subsequent offence to a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or to both such fine and imprisonment

2 3 . 4 1 ) The Board may grant to any person applying therefore a permit to use aircraft for the provision in Jamaica of such a services (other than such a service as is referred to in paragraph (1 ) of regulation 5) for such period and on such conditions as may be specified in the permit.

(2 ) The Board may attach such conditions to any permit as it may think fit having regard to the nature and circumstances of the application therefore.

24. Applications for permits shall be made hi such form, and shall contain such information as the Board may from time to time require.

2 5 . 4 1 ) In respect of an application for a permit to operate air services during a period in excess of thuty days the Board shall cause such particulars of such applications as it considers necessary to be published in at least one issue of a newspaper circulating in Jamaica and once in the Gazette.

(2 ) In addition to the provisions contained in this Part the provisions of regulations 9, 10, 1 1 , 14, 15 and 19 and of section 7 of the Act shall, mutatis mutandis, apply to any such application as is referred to in paragraph (1 ) as if such application were an application for a licence.

2 6 . 4 1 ) The Board may revoke or suspend any permit-

(a) if the holder of the permit has, since the permit was granted, been convicted of an offence against regulation 5 or regulation 22; or

(6 ) where the holder of the permit is a body corporate, if any officer of that body corporate has, since the permit was granted, been convicted, hi his capacity as such officer, of m offence against regulation 5 or regulation 22; or

(c) if the holder of the permit has failed to comply with my condition subject to which the permit was granted

(2) The expression "officer" in sub-paragraph 0) of paragraph (1) means a director, general manager, secretary or other similar officer and includes my person who, with the authority of the body corporate, acts as such officer.


726 THE CIML A VLA TION (AIR TR4NSPORT LICENSING} REGUM TIONS. 1 966

27. [Repealed by L. N 134/2004]

PART IV-General Provisions

28. It shall be a condition of every licence or permit that requirements of Condifiaof hcenas or any law or instrument having the force of law, for the time m e .

being in force in Jamaica, relating to air navigation or air Transport shall be complied with at all times during the currency of this licence or permit in connection with all journeys made under the licence Or permit.

29. A licence or permit shall not be capable of being tt.ansferred or pennits not

assigned: tIanrfaabke.

Provided that in the event of the death, incapacity, bankruptcy, sequestration or liquidation of the holder of a licence or permit, of the appointment of a receiver or manager or trustee in relation to the business of the holder of a licence or permit, the person for the time being carrying on that business shall, if within fourteen days of his commencing so to do, he makes application to the Board for a new licence or permit, be entitled to provide the air senices authorized by the existing licence or permit subject to the conditions thereof, until the application is dealt with.

30. Nothing in these Regulations shall require the disclosure by any N M -

applicant for a licence or. permit to any person other than this Board or a person to whom the functions of the Board are delegated, of information as to the financial resources of the applicaut, end any such information received by the Board or such person from any such applicant shall be treated as confidential.

RahmP.ot 31. Nothing in these Regulations shall confer upon the holder of htoim-

a licence or permit or upon any other person aay right to tie continuance of y-y any benefits arising fiom the provisions of these ' Regulations or from any licence or permit granted thereunder or from any conditions attached to any such licence or permit

32. Any references to a licence in paragraphs (2) and (3) of regulation N o w o f

6, regulations 19,28,29 and 3 1 shall be construed as inchding references to a provisional licence.

lThe inclusion of this page i s authorized by L.N. 18*12008]

THE CIWL AllATION (AIR TRANSPORT LICENSING) 727 REGULATIONS, 1966

in Ihe 33.-41) NO proceedings for an offence against these Regulations shall be cssc of an offence. instituted except with the consent of the Director of Public Prosecutions.

(2) Where an offence against these Regulations has been committed by a body corporate, every person who, at the time of the commission of the offence was a director, general manager, secretary or other similar officer of the body corporate, or was purporting to act in such capacity, shall be deemed to be guilty of that offence, unless he proves that the offence was committed without his consent or connivance and that he exercised all such diligence to prevent the commission of the offence as he ought to have exercised having regard to the nature of his functions in that capacity and to all the CifcumStances.

Bosrdcohave 34. In considering any application for the grant of a licence or a zk~~ permit the Board shall have regard to the requirements and provisions - of every Agreement relating to or affecting civil aviation which has

been entered into by the Government and of which it has been notified in writing by the Minister.

35. [Omitted.


728 THE CIVIL AVIATION (AIR TRANSPORT LICENSING) , REGULATIONS, I966

FIRST SCHEDULE (Regulations 7,8 ,9 ,11 ,15 , 16,19)

1. Every application for a licence shall be made through the Director of Civil Aviation to the Board in the form as set out in Form NO. 1 in the Appendix. ~ppcndiu

2. The Board shall, within fourteen days of the receipt of an application for a licence, cause to be published in the manner prescribed in paragraph 9, .a notice containing particulars of the application as set out in Form NO. 2 In the Appendix and shall in such notice specify a day being not less than fourteen days nor more than twenty-one days after the date of the first publication of the notice by which any representations or objections with regard to the application must be made to the Board.

3. Any representations or objections with regard to an application for a licence shall be made in duplicate to the Board on or before the day specified for such purpose in the notice published with regard to that application in accordance with the provisioi?~ of paragraph 2 in the form as set out in Form NO. 3 in the Appendix and shal! contain. the specific grounds upon which it is based and any q e c ~ a l aon&tions whch it may be desired should be attached to the licence, if granted.

4. Forthwith upon the receipt of any representations or objections the Board shall cause the duplicate copy thereof to be delivered to the applicant in respect of whose application such represelltations or obj:ctions have been made. ,

5. In cases where for the purposes of dealing with an application for a licence a hearing in public or in private is to be held by the Board, the notice to be given by the Board to th: applicant and to any person who has duly made representations or objections with regard to the application shall be not less than seven days' notice in writing in the form as set out in Form No. 4 in the Appendix.

6. In any case in which it is proposed to revoke or suspend a licence, notice of such intention shall be sent to the holder of the licence in the form as set out in Fonn No. 5 in the Appendix.

7.-(1) Particulars of the decisions of the Board- (a) on applications for licecces; and (b) to revoke or suspend a licence,

shall be published by notice in the form as set out in Form No. G in the Appendix and in the manner prescribed in paragraph 9.

(2) No reasons for any decisions shall be published unless the Board otherwise directs.

8. The monthly return to be made to the Board by the holder of a licence shall be in the form as set out in Form NO. 7 in the Appendix and shall contain such particulars as are therein indicated and such further particulars as may from time to time be required by the Board.

9. Publication under this Schedule shall be by n o t i c e (a) published in a daily newspaper circulating in Jamaica and, after an

interval of not less than one week of such publication, also in the Gazette; or

(b ) published in the Gazette on two occasions with an interval of not less than one week between each such publication.

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THE CIVIL AVIATION (AIR TRAlVSPORT LICEIVSING) REGULATIONS, 1966

APPENDIX FORM NO. 1 (Paragraph 1)

Application for Licence to operate a Scheduled Service

The Air Transport Licensing Board through the Director of Civil Aviation.

........................................................................ Applicant (full name)

Nationality of applicant ..................................................................... Country in which aircraft are registered ............................................. Registered business address :

(a) Head O5ce .......................................................................... ........................................................................... (b) in Jamaica

Particulars of route it is desired to operate:

(i) Point of departure ............................................................... .........................................................................................

...................................................... (ii) Point of final destination

......................................................................................... (iii) Intermediate landing points :

................................................... (a) for traffic purposes ............................................. (b) for non-tra5c purposes

................................................... (c) weather alternates

Date on which service' is to commence ............................................... Period for which the licence ie required ............................................. ...................................................................................................... Type of aircraft to be used and passenger seating accommodation ............

Crew to be carried (number and function) ..........................................

Annexures: A. Proposed schedule of frequencies, with details of intended timetables.

B. Passenger rates (through and intermediate). C. Freight rates (through and intermediate). D. Airmail conveyance rates (through and intermediate). E. Free baggage allowance and excess baggage rates. F. Total number of aircraff belonging to applicant (individual

types and seating capaaty). G. Total aircrew personnel on payroll (e.g. pilots, co-pilots,

navigators, radio operators, etc.). H. Details of the insurance of the aircraft for the proposed

route.

............................... Dated.. ............................ Signed..

(The Inclusion of this page I s authorized by L.N. 18d20081


APPENDIX, contd. FORM NO. 1, contd.

CONDITIONS NOIB: Before the application overleaf is submitted by the Director of Civil

Av~ation to the Air Transport Licensing b a r d for cons~deratlon, the applicant r u t first sattidy the Director of Civil Aviation as regards-

1. Operational procedures to be observed-including route capacity schedules, operationse manual, mute book for aircrew, prepara-

tions for flight; such documents as flight plans, log books (aircraft, engine and journey), loadsheet, radio apparatus to operate on the required frequencies for the proposed route.

2. Maintenance Manual and Schedule (based on the Air Registra- tion Board (U.K.'s) requirements). Information is also required as to where major overhauls are to be done; the checks on aircraft and engines; and the availability of adequate spare parts.

3. Traffic handling.

4. The adequacy and competence of the staff to be employed.

Etidorsement of Application

The Secretary /Chairman, Air Transport Licensing Board,

I cenify that I have verified to the best of my knowledge and ability the particulars given overleaf and in the Annexures; that I have examined the applicant's proposed practices in respect of the Conditions 1, 2, 3 and 4 above, and I am of the opinion that-

(1) they are satisfactory

(2) they are satisfactory on condition that ..........................................

(3) they are unsatisfactory for the following reasons ..............................

-. ...................................... ............................ Dated.. Signature..

Title.. ............................................


TFIE CIVIL AVIATION (AIR TRANSPORT LICENSING) REGULATIONS, I966

APPENDIX, .contd.

FORM NO. 2 (Paragraph 2)

Publicatiori by Air Tra;lsport Licensing Board of Particulars of Application to operate Scheduled Air Service '

In accordance with the provisions of regulation 8 of the Civil Aviation (Air Transport Licensing) Regulations, 1966, the Air Transport Licensing .Board hereby pubhhes (he prescribed part~culars of the undermentioned apphcabon to operate a scheduled air service in, to and from Jamaica.

A a y representations regarding this application or objections thereto, must be made in duplicate to the Air Transport Licensing Board on or before the.. .......

...................................................................................................... Partictrlars of Application to operate Scheduled Air Service

1. Applicant ........................................................................................ 2. Route applied for .............................................................................. 3. Purposes of services (passenger, freight, mails) .......................................

....................................................................................................... .

4. Points of departure, final destination and intermediate points of call.. .......

5. Date on which the service is to commence .......................................... 6. Pcriod for which the licence is applied for.. ........................................ .7. Frequency of flights.. ............................................................ ..'.... ....... 8. Provisional time-table ................... : ...................................................... 9. Type of aircraft .................................................................................

................................................................ Secretary,

Air Transport Licensing Board

.............................................. Date..

(The-inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18~/2008]

732 THE CIVIL AVIATION (AIR TRANSPO-RT LICKNSINO) REGULATIONS, 1.966

APPENDIX, contd. FORM NO. 3 Paragraph 3)

Representations or Objections regarding proposed Scheduled Air Service (to be made in duplicate)

To : The Secretary, Air Transport Licensihg Board,

With reference to the published notice dated ....................................... regarding the undermentioned application to operate a Scheduled Am Semce and in accordance with regulation 9 of the Civil Aviation (Air Transport Licensing) Regulations, 1966, I beg to submit representationsjobjections relating thereto.

2. The application . . referred to is that from applicant ................................. . .

................................. ............................. to operate a service from . . . . .

3. Representati~ns'/ObjeCtions are as follows:

.......................................................................................................

.......................i................................................................................

....................................................................................................... . .

Dated.. ................................... Signed.. .......,...........................

FORM NO. 4 (Paragraph 5)

Notification of Enquiry before determining Application to operate Scheduled Air Service

From: The Secretary, Air Transport Licensing Board of Jamaica

................. To: ; ............................................-..................................... . Address.. . .;... .....................................................................................,..... Date.. ................................................. Sir,

I am directed to notify you in accordance with regulation 11 of the Civil Aviation (Air Transport Licensing) Regulations. 1966. that the Air Transport Licensing Board will hold a prhatejpubhc hearing to consider the a p p h t i o h by

.............................................................................................................. for a licence to operate the route ...... : ........................................................ and to invite you to attend this hearing for the purpose of being heard with regard to the said application.

2. The hearing will be held on (date) .................................... at the hour

of ................... .. ............... at (place of meeting) .................................... ...............................................................

Secretary, Air Transport Liceusing Board



APPENDIX. contd. FORM NO. 5 (Paragraph 6)

Notice of Intention to consider the Revocation or Suspension of a Licence to operate a Scheduled Air Service

To : ....................................... From : The Secretary. Air Transport

Licensing Board

Date ............................................. Sir,

I am directed to notify you in accordance with regulation 16 (2) of tho Civil Aviation (Air Transport Licensing) Regulations, 1966, that the Air Transport Licensing Board proposes to consider the revocation/suspens~on of

the licence No ............ which you hold to operate the route ..................... at a

hearing to be held at (place) .................................... on (date) ..................... ....................................... ................................. at the hour of

2. You are entitled to be present or to be represented at this hearing.

3. The grounds on which it is proposed to revoke/suspend your licence are M follows-

............................................................... Secretary,

Air Transport Licensing Board

-p -- - ---

[The inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18*/2008]


APPENDIX, contd, FORM NO. 6 (Paramph 7)

Publication of Decision of the Alr Trmspott Licensing Board re grant/refusal/suspension/revocation of a Licence

In accordance with the provi4ons of regulation 15 of the Civil. Aviation (Air Transport Licensing) Rwattons, 1%6, tbe Air Transport L c e n s q bard hereby publishes the follow~ng particulars of its decision regarding the grant/ refusal/suspension/re~~cation of a lrcence to operato the undermentioned s e ~ c r .

.......................................................................... Applicant /Licence holder.. ................................................................................. Licence No. (if any)

...................................................................... Date of application /licence.. Route@). ........................................................................ .; ........................

................................................................................ Frequency of .flights..

....................................................................................... Type of aircraft

Decision

Licence granted ...................................................................................... Application refused ................................................................................... Licence No. ................................................... revoked.

Licence No. .................................................. .suspended.

Reasons .................................................................................................. ...................................................................................................

Secretary, Air Transport Liceruing Board

[The inclusion of this page Is authorized by L.N. 18r\12008I

THE CIVIL AVIATION (AIR TRANSPORT LICENSING) I35 REGULATIONS, 1966

APPENDIX, contd. FORM NO. 7 (Paragraph 8)

Return from.. ........................................................................................... ........................................................................ Licensed operator of route

Month ending .......................................... To: The Secretary.

Air Transport Licensing Board :

Subjoined please find the prescribed Returns in respect of licence No.. .... held by ................................. to operate route from .................................... ................................. with intermediate stages indicated below.

................................. Dated.. ..................................... Signed..

Intermediate stages I From

E tc. I ............................. Type of aircraft ..........................................................

Frequency of services .................................................................................

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736 THE CIVIL AVIATION (AIR TRAhSPORT LICENSING) REGULATIONS, 1966

APPENDIX, contd.

1. Flights scheduled

2. Flights commenced

3. Flights not commenced

4. Uninterrupted flights completed

5. Flights completed after interruption

6. Rights interrupted, not completed

7. Flights not completed because of- (1) Passengers not

available

No. - a

1 (2) Aircraft not avnilrblel

Stages of Journey I A. Stages in lnnd miles I B. Passengers carried No. 1 C. Mails carried-

Weight in kilos Weight in IB

D. Freight carried- '

Weight in kilos Weight in IB

(3) Weather conditions I (4) Other reasons (state

below) 1 8. Unpremeditated landings

because of- (1) Lack of fuel (2) Weather conditions (3) Fai!ure of aircraft

eng:ne (4) Failure of radio (5) Other reasons (stal

below)

Etc. Totals

E. Total Payload- Weight in kilos Weight in IB

P. Payload Capacity- available (commencement of flights)- Weight in kilos Weight in IB

Totalr

No.

[The inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18r\120081


ORDER, (under section 20A)

(Made by the Minister on the 1st day of December, 2004) L N. 13512004

1. This Order may be cited as the Civil Aviation (Pecuniary Penalty) (Prescribed Provisions) Order, 2004.

2 . 4 1) Part I of the Sclledule lo this Order sels out Uie ollences ulider the kllcdulr

provisions of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2004, in respect of which liability to conviction may be discharged by payment of a pecuniary penalty.

(2) The pecuniary penalty applicable to offences specified in Table A of Part I is such amount not exceeding two hundred thousand dollars as may he determined by the Authority.

(3) The pecuni,ary penalty applicable to offenas specified in Table B of Part I is such amount not exceeding four hundred thousand dollars as may be determined by the Authority.

3. The nolice required lo be given lo a person wlioii~ llie Aulllorily believes has contravened any provisions of regulations set out in Part I of the Schedule to this Order, and desires to give 'the opportunity of the discharge lrom liability by the payment d a pecuniary penalty shall be in the form set out in Part I1 of the Schedule and shall be distributed to the person and others as indicated in that Part.


THE CIP7L A VIA TION (PECUNIARY PENALTY) (PRESCRIBED PRO VISIONS) OFDER. 2004

Provision

Pecuniary penalty nor exceeding two hundred rhorrsand dollars

(Paragraph 2)

Nature of Offences

Reg. 16 Denial of authorized enuy of flight deck.

Reg. 23

Reg. 31

Reg. 34

Reg. 30

Reg. 30

Reg. 30 (2) Schedule 6

Records and Reports:

(a) failure to make enby in aircraft log:

( b ) failure to make entry in worksheets;. . ( c ) failurz to sign off work or inspzction

performed;

( 4 failure to complete and 'sign a Certificate of Release to Senice.

Failure to perform maintenance according to the applicable maintenance manual or other approved instruction.

Failure to revise aircraA data aHw.rcpair. , . Failure to provide adequately for proper servicing maintenance repairs and inspection.

(a) failure to satis6 housing a facility requirements;

(b ) failure to have enough. qualified personnel to complete the volume of work contracted for, "

(c) failure lo provide an adequate number of personnel to supervise and inspect the work for which Ihe organization is rated;

( 4 failure to maintain records of supervisory and inspection personnel;

(e) failure to maintain p d m a n c e records and reports;

V) Failure to ensure c m e d calibration of all inspection and test equipment is accomplished at prescribed intervals;

-- --

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n-IE C M L AGITION (PECUNIARY PENALTY) (PMSCRIBED PROVISIONS) 739 ORDER, 2004

Provision

SCHEDILE

PART I. contd

TABLE '4. contd.

(Paragraph 2)

Nature of Offences

Reg. 30(5) Schedule 5

Reg. 30 ( 5 ) Schedule 5



Reg. 3 1

Failure

failure to set forth adequate description of work performed:

inspection of work performed or approval for return to service hy a person not qualified or approved:

failure to make log entries. records. or reports:

failurz to maintain a quality assurance system as approved

maintailling or altering an article for which it is rated without using rzquirzd technical data, equipment. or facilities.

failure to properly perform maintenance, repairs, alterations and required inspections;

n~aintaining or altering an airffame, power planf propeller: instrument, radio. or accessory for which it is not rated.

to revise aircraR data afler major repairs or alterations.

Failure to perform, or improper performance of, maintenance.

Failure to properly accomplish an inspection.

Failure to mechanic to record inspection.

Records and Reports:

(a) failure to make accurate mechanical intenuption summary report;

( b ) failure to make available reports of major alterations or repairs;

( c ) failure to make accurate mechanical reliability reports.

(d) failure to keep maintenance records;

(e) failure to make required entry in aircrafl log;

[The inclusion of this page i s authorized by L.N. 18~120081

THE Cl ML A VL4 TlON (PECUNURY PENALTY) (PRESCRIBED PRO MSIONS) ORDER. 2004

Provision

Reg. 3 l(2) Reg. 55 Schedule 10

Reg. 3 l(3) Reg 32(1) Reg 33 Schedule 6

Reg 33(5) Schedule 6

Reg. 39

Reg. 46(1)

Reg. 55 Schedule 10

Reg. 56

Reg. 57 Schedule 10

Reg. 57 Reg. 58 Reg. 59

SCHEDULE (P-grnph 2)

PART I, contd.

TABLE A, conld.

V)

(8)

Failure

Nature of Offences

failure to make available pilot records?

failure to make available load manifests.

to repw l fec ts or unainvdhy conditions to the Authvrity in a timely manner.

Failure to make a maintenance record entry.

Failurc to provide adequately for prop7 sewicing maintenance, repair, and inspedion of facilities and equipment.

Change of location, or facilities without advance written approval.

Operation without required instruments a d o r equipment

Operation without pilot and medical ceAficate in personal possession.

Failure to closc and luck wckpit door. Admission of unauthorized personnel to the flight deck.

Sewing alcoholic beverages to, or accepting on board a prnon whq appeam to be intoxicated.

(a) failure to use pre-flight cockpit checklist;

(b) failure to check aircraft logs, flight manifests, weather. rtc.

Weather Conditions:

(a) failure to comply with visibility minimums in controlled airspace:

(b) failure to comply with visibility minimums outside controlled airspace:

(c) fgilure to comply with distance fiom clouds requuements in controlled airspace:

-- -- -- --


THE CIVIL AVIATION (PECUNIARY PENALTY) (7'RESCRIBED PROVISIONS) ORDER, 2004

SCHEDLZE (Paragraph 2 )

Provision

Reg. 59

Reg. 59

Reg. 61

Reg. 62

Reg. 6 3

Reg. 7 2 Schedule 12

PART I, contd.

TABLE contd.

Nature of Offences

(d) failure to comply with distance fiom clouds requirements outside of controlled airspace;

( e ) failure to comply with IFR landing minimums:

u> failure to comply with instrument approach procedures.

Enroute:

( a ) deviation fiom clearance or instruction;

( b ) operating VFR within clouds;

( c ) leaving the flight deck Tor reasons other than duty or physiological;

(d) operation of un-airworthy aircraft;

( e ) operating within restricted or prohibited area, or within positive control area without clearance;

u> operating without required equipment;

(g) fuel mismanagementlexhaustion.

During Taxi:

( a ) failure to adhere to taxi clearance 01

instruction; ( b ) Collision while taxiing,

( c ) taxiing with passenger standing,

(4 causing damage due to Jet blast.

Failure to comply with the terms of an aerial applicator certificate and its operations specifications.

Using an aircraft for towing, picking up, or raising, articles or persons without first obtaining the required authorization.

Dropping persons or objects fiom an aircraH withom the required authorization.

Maintenance Manual:

( a ) Failure to maintain a current manual;


THE CIML A MATION (PECUNWZY PEh?AL.T)3 (PRESCRIBED PROVISION$) ORDER, 2004

Provision

-

Reg. 74 Schedule 14

Reg. 75

Reg. 75 Schedule 15

Reg. 80 Schedule 19

Schedule 5

Provision

Reg. 27

SCHEDULE

PART I, contd.

TABLE A, contd.

Nature of OfFences

- (b) failure to provide adequate

instructions and procedures in a , manual;

(c) failurc to distribute manual to appropriate personnel.

Training Program:

(a) failure to have or maintain an effective training program;

(b) failure to h i n specific personnel adequately.

Failure to comply with the maximum duty wd flight iimes, or the minimum rest perid requirements applicable to personnel in commercial air hnsport

Exceeding flight and duty time limitations.

Failure to cooperate with an accident or incident investigation.

Failure to set fob an adequate description of work performed.

Failure to close flight plan or lile arrival notice.

Failure to cumply with special conditions of medical cerlificate.

I'ecuniarypenalry nor mceeding fbur hundmd thousand dollars

Nature of Offences

Type Certificatc:

(a) technical non-conformity to type certificate, but no likely effect (potential or actual) on safe operation;

(b) non-conhmity which may have an adverse effect on safety of operation;

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THE CIML A MA TION (PECUNIARY PENALTY) (PRESCRIBED PRO VISIONS) ORDER. 2004

Provision

-

Reg. 29

Reg. 30

Reg. 30

Reg. 45 Reg. 46

Reg. 50

Reg. 50

Reg. 50

Reg. 57 Schedule 10 415 Reg. 59

SCHEDULE (Paragraph 2)

PART 1, contd.

Nature ofoffences

(c) non-conformity which has an adverse effect (actual or pdenlial) on safe operation.

Failure to comply with an Airworihiness Directive.

Operation of an unairworihy aircraft

(a) operating an aircraft with defect outside the limits specified by the approved MEL;

(b) operating an aircraft when m inspection has not been accomplished and cdified as per the approved maintenance program:

(c) operating an aircraft with an invalid or expired Cdificate of Air- worthiness.

Failure to carry out a required inspection. or Duplicate Inspection, prior to releasing an aircraft to service. Operation without the required Licence or Rating: (a) liundioning as a crew member

without holding the required Licence or rating;

(b) operating with an expired Medical Cerlificate;

(c) operating without a valid proficiency check;

(4 failure to have a current certificate or license in possession.

Wheels up landing

S h d or long landing

Taxiing collision

Fuel mismanagement/e~auslion

Take off:

(a) Take off against instruction or clearance;

(b) Take off below w e a t h ~ minima,


W E CIVIL A VIA TlON (PECUNIARY PENALTY) (PRESCRIBED PROVISIONS) ORDER, 2004

Provision

Reg. 59

Reg. 59

Reg. 67

Reg. 69

Keg. 71

Reg. 72

Reg. 72

Reg. 72 ,

Reg. 76 Schedule 10.355

Reg. 72

TABLE B, contd.

Nature of Offences

(c) takeoff with aircraft weight higher than MCTOW.

Approach to Landing:

deviation from clearance or instruction in terminal area;

Approach below weather minimum;

exceeding speed limitation in airport traffic areas.

Landing:

(a) landing at wrong airpm;

(h) landing on the wrong runway;

(c) deviation kom instrument approach procedure;

(d) overweight landing in other than an emergency;

(e) inadverient wheels up landing;

short or long landing resulting in the aircrafi touching the ground beyond the runway threshold.

Failure to comply with the authorizations or linlitations przscribed by the Authority for commercial air transport.

Operations Specifications:

(a) failure to comply with inspection and overhaul time limitations;

(6 ) operations contrary to operations;

Failure to comply with the security requirements for commercial air transpm.

Failure to ensure that a maintenance release is complete and signed.

Installing an unapproved part on an aircraft

Failure to insure that a Certificate of Release to Service is completed and signed.

Improperly releasing an aircraft to service:


SCHEDULE

PART I, c o n d

TABLE B, contd.

Provision

- Reg. 76

THE CIML AVIATION (PECUNIARY PENALT]3 (PRESCRIBED PRO WSIONS) 745 ORDER, 2004

(Paragraph 2)

Nature of Offences

(a) failure to inspzct nlaintznance performed

(b) installing an unapproved part;

(c) installing an unszr~iceablz pa$

(4 installing a part that does not conforn~ to the aircraft's i>p certificate.

Reg. 72 Schedule 5 5.160 Reg. 73 Schedule 13

Reg. 74 Schedule 14

Reg. 76 Schedule 7 7.01 5 ( a H e )

Reg. 76

Schedule 16 16.050

Failure to perform, or improper performance of. a maintenance task.

Failure to comply with the minimum passenger-carrying requirements for commercial air transport.

Failure to con~ply with the minimum and recurrent qualifications for persons involved in commercial air transport.

Releasing an aircraft to service without the required equipment being installed and functional.

Improperly returning an aircraft to service:

(a) release of aircraft without required equipment;

(b) release of an aircraft where required work has not been completed.

Reg. 76 Failure to comply with the flight release Schedule 16 requirements for commercial air transport.

Reg. 77 Schedule 17

Failure to comply with the weight and balance requirements and performance requirements for commercial air transport.

Reg. 77 Exceeding operating limitations for Mass and Schedule Balance or Performance. 10.493 Reg. 80 Failure to make an accident or incident report. Schedule 19 Reg. 156 Rules of the Air and ATC Violations: ScheQlesl0.605-10.655

(a) taxiing take off, or landing without a clearance where ATC tower is in open;

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74% THE CIWL A VLATION (PECUNL4RY PENALTY) (PRESCRIBED PROWSIONS) ORDER, 2004

PART I, conrd.

TABLE B, conrd.

Provision

Reg. 166 (5)

Nature of Offences

(6) failure to comply with ATC . . instruction;

(c) failure to maintain radio communications in airport tratfic area;

(d) failure to comply with airport trafiic pattern;

(e) operation in terminal control area without or contrary to a clearance;

(f) failure to maintain altitude in airport traffic area;

(g) exceeding speed limitations in traffic area;

(h) operation within prohibited or restricted area, or within positive control area: ,

( i ) failure to comply with VFR cruising altitudes;

failure to adhere to rigbt of way rules;

(k) failure to maintain radio watch while under lFRl

( I ) failure to display position lights;

(m) failure to maintain proper altimeter settings;

(n) tailure to repori compulsory reporting points;

(0) deviation from ATC instruction or clearance;

@) failure to maintain required minimum altitudes over structures: persons, vehicles. or a congested area.

Security Violations:

(a) failure to properly screen baggage (checked or canyon): cargo, mail, flight catering stores and supplies, company mail, company material or each passenger; . . .

(b) unauthorized access to airport operations area and terminal restricted areas:

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THE CIVIL A l44 TION (PECUNL4RY PENALTY) (PRESCRIBED PRO VISIONS) ORDER. 2004

SCHEDILE (Paragraph 2).

PART I. contd.

TXELE B. conrd.

Provision Nature of Offences

failure to comply wilh air carrier security program including failure to detect weapons, incendiary and other dangerous devices: management personnel coerce. condone, or encourage falsification of recordslrepo~ls: deliberate failure to maintain employee records; failure to challenge;

failure to test screeners or test equipment; failure to properly train;

unintentional failure to mainta-in screenm test records; failure to display identification;

failure to managelcontrol restricted area pass systems; failure to conduct employee background check or job history verification; failure to detect test objects;

failure to comply with approved or current security programme.

THE CNIL AVIATION ACT

Civil Aviation (Payment of Pecuniary Penalryl Notice

(Pursuant to section 20A of the Civil Aviation Act)

DATE OF NOTICE:

PERSON TO WHOM NOTICE DIRECTED TO:

(The inclusion of this page is authorized by L.N. 18~/20081

THE CI WL A VZA TION (PECUNIARY PENALTY) (PRESCRIBED PRO YlSIONs) O ~ L R , 2004

PART 11, contd.

ADDRESS:

YOU ARE HEREBY NOTIFIED as follows:

1. The Authority has reason to believe that you have contravened the provision specified hereunder of the Civil Aviation Regulations, 2004 (hereinafter referred to as "'the Regulations").

2. Sou are liable to have prosecution commenced against you in respect of the alleged contravention and if convicted of the offence arising you will be liable to a fine or term of imprisonment as specified in regulation 9 of the Regulations. .

3. Notwithstanding your liability to prosecution and conviction of the stid oflmce. the Jamaica Civil Aviation Authority, hereby offers you (he uppcnlunity to discharge such liability by payment of a pecuniary penalty in the amount set out hereunder, before the expiration ol'the period ending on the Final Date for Payment sct out hereunder, and if the pecuniary penalty is duly paid, then no proceedings will be taken against you in respect of the oEence.

4. The failure to pay this pecuniary penalty on or before the fmal date specified for payment will result in prosecution being commenced against you.

5 The pecuniary penalty shall be paid to ,the Financial Controller of the Jamaica Civil Aviation Authority at the location set out hereunder.

REGULATION CONTRAVENED:

PARTICULARS OF THE OFFENCE:

THE PECUNIARY PENALTY (WORDS & FIGURES):

FINAL DATE FOR PAYMENT (being 2 1 days afler the date hereon):

WHERE PAYABLE: Jamaica Civil Aviation Authority 4 Winchester Road Kingstcm I0 Jamaica. Tel. No. (876) 960-4220 Fax No. (876) 920-0194

SIGNED BY:

Director of Flight Safety for Director-General

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THE CIVIL A VL4 TION (PECUNMY PENALTY) (PMSCRIBED PROVISIONS) ORDER. 2004

Provision

PART I, contd.

TABLE B, contd.

Nature of Offences

( c ) fa~lure to comply with air carrier security program, including failure to detect weapons, incendiary and other dangerous devices,

(4 management persumel coerce. condom, or encourage Falsification of recordslreports;

( e ) deliberate failure to maintain employcc records;

(J') failure to challenge;

(g) failure to test screeners or test equipment;

(h) failure to properly train;

( I ) unintentional failure to maintain screener test records;

@ failure to display identification;

(k) failure to managelcontrol restricted area pass systems;

(I) failure to conduct employee background check or job history verification;

(m) failure to dztect tzst objzcts;

(n) failure to comply with approved or current security programme.


Civil Aviation (Payment of Pecuniary Penolfy) Notice

(Pursuant to section 20A of the Cwil Aviotron Act)

DATE OF NOTICE:

PERSON TO WHOM NOTICE DIRECTED TO:

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THE CIVIL AVIA TION (PECUNL4RY PENALTY) (PRESCRIBED PROVISIONS) ORDER, 2004

PART 11, contd.

The Notice required hy subsection (1) of 20A of the Ad shall he prepared in quintuplicate and issued as follows:

1. one to the person paying, and thereafter to the following oiEcers of the .4uthority,

2. one to the Financial Controller,

3. one to the Director-General.

4 one to the Legal Counsel, and

5 . one maintained by the Flight Safety Division.

The first copy of the Notice shall be retained by the person paying, and presented to the Financial Controller upon payment of the pecuniary penalty to the Authority.

The Financial Controller shall match the copies to ensure the correct matter is being dealt with.

The Financial Controller shall issue a redeipt to the person together with one copy of the Certificate of Payment ofthe pecuniary penalty, and return his copy of the Notice.

The other four copies of the Cediticate of Payment of'the pecuniary penalty shall he distributed as follows:

I . to be maintained by the Financial Controller,

2. to the Director-General,

3. to the Legal Counsel (for sending to the prosecutionkourt)

4 to thc Flight Safcty Division

The Financial Controller shall ensure the distribution of the copies of the Certificate within two husiness days of payment (but must ensure that it is before the duelcourt date) to the Director-General and the I ~ g a l Counsel.

In any specific case, the particulars stated in the Notice issued shall constiiute the information required to be furnished to,the prosecution together with its notification of non-payment of the pecuniary penalty, as the basis for initiating proceedings.

Service or delivery of the Notice and other relevant written communication to the alleged offender shall be in accordance with or based on the Supreme Cowl of Jamaica Civil Procedure Rules 2002 in respect of service ofmny written communication.

PROCEDURE TO BE FOLLOWED IF THERE IS NON- PAYMENT OF THE PECUNIARY PENALTY

AAer the date for the payment of the pecuniary penalty has passed BUT without payment having been made, the Financial Conhller should on the first business day following the last date for payment, inform the DiectorGeneral of the non-receipt of the said payment. This should be accomplished by a Certificate stating the fad of non- payme"'. Within one business day, the Director-General should then inform the Legal Counsel of the fact that the alleged offender has not paid the said penalty.

All pertinent information relating to the said offence should then be submitted to the Legal Counsel in preparation for laying the relevant information before a Resident Magistrate.

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CIVIL AVIATION


(conditionally saved by section 23(2) o f Act 19 of 1966, made under section 3 of the Airports Law, 1959, and by virtue of section

9 of the Jamaica (Constitution) Order in Council, 1959) ,

(Mode by the Governor in Council on the 12th day of November, 1959) L.N. 277159 A m d : L.N. 394172

1. This Order may be cited as the Sangster International Airport Order. 1959.

2. The area known as the Sangster International Airport, the , ' boundaries of which are defined in the Schedule is hereby declared Schedule.

to be an airport for the purposes of the Act,


Starting at a point at the intersection of the southern boundary of the main road from Montego Bay to Falmouth and the western boundary of the Queen's Drive opposite the Bay Roc Hotel and proceeding in a southerly and south-westerly direction along the boundary of the Queen's Drive to the eastern boundary of Sunset Avenue; thence north-westerly and south westerly along the boundary of Sunset Avenue to the corner of Chatham and Paradise as appears on the plan attached to Volume 630 Folio 25 of the Register Book of Titles; thence north-westerly along the boundary of land belonging to the Government of Jamaica reserved for hotel development as appears on the plan Examination No. 36905 to a point on the eastern boundary of the main road from hlontego Bay to Falmouth approximately three hundred (300) feet north of the north-western corner of land belonging to Commander M. E. Wentworth; thence northerly and north-easterly along the boundary of the main road from Montego Bay to Falmouth to the comer of land belonging to Clifford DeLisser Esq.; thence south-easterly, north-easterly and north-westerly along the boundary of the land belonging to Clifford DeLisser Esq. to the southern boundary of the main road from Montego Bay to Falmouth; thence north-easterly along the southern boundary of the main road from Montego Bay to Palmouth back to the starting point.


CIVIL A VIA TION


ORDER

(conditgo~lly saved by section 23(2) of Act 19 of 1966, made under section 3 of the Airports Law, 1959 and by virtue of section

9 of the Jamaica (Constitution) Order in council,' 1959)

THB NORMAN MANLBY INTERNATIONAL AIRPORT ORDER, 1960

(Made by the Governor in Council on the 20th day of May, 1960) L.N. 101ps0

1. This Order may be cited as the Norman Manley International Airport Order, 1960.

. ,

2. The area known as the Norman Manley Internkional Airport, the boundaries of which are defined in the Schedule is hereby declared ~ehcdule.

to be an airport for the purposes of the Act.


Starting at a point marked by a concrete pillar having Island co-ordinates of N377343.38 and E630945.50 and situated on the Palisadoes on the northern boundary of the main road leading from Harbour Head to Port Royal and thirty-six feet from the centre line of the existing paved surface of the said main road thence proceeding on a grid bearing of N52 58 02W for a distance of 1130.00 feet thence on a grid bearing of N78 32 30W for a distance of 601.34 feet thence on a grid bearing of S76 55 36W for a &stance of 498.U feet thence on a grid bearing of N30 55 51W for a distance of 1590.18 feet to a point marked by a concrete pillar having Island co-ordinates of N379394.80 and E628151.61 and situated. near the southern shore of Kingsbn Harbour thence in the same straight h e to High Water Mark on the southern shore of Kingston Harbour thence generally south-westerly, north-westerly, south- westerly, south-easterly, south-westerly, westerly, northerly, north-westerly, westerly, south-westerly, south-easterly, south-westerly, north-westerly, south- westerly, south-easterly, southerly, south-westerly, southerly, south-easterly. southerly, south-wester1 along High Water Mark to the eastern side of a concrete jetty thence souderly along the eastern side of the said concrete jetty in a straight line to a point on the northern boundary of the main road leading from Harbour Head to Port Royal and situated at a distance of thirty-six feet measured at right angles from the cen!re line of the existing paved surface of the said main road thence conUnung easterly and north- easterly along the northern boundary of the said main road at a distance of thirty-six feet from and parallel to the centre line of the existing paved surface of the said main road back to the starting point


CIVIL A VIA TION


(conditionally saved by section 23(2) of Act 19 of 1966, made under section 4 of the Airports Law, 1959)

1. These Regulations may be cited as the Airports Regulations. 1959.

.2. In these Regulations-

"authorized officer" means, in relation to any of the powers of an authorized officer under these Regulations, a person authorized in writing by the Minister to exercise such power;

"traffic sign" includes any speed limit sign, any mark on the surface of a roadway, any signal, whether an automatic electric signal or otherwise, warning sign post, direction post and sign or other device for the guidance or direction of persons using the roadways in an airport, which the Minister causes or permits to be placed on or near any such roadway.

3. Within an airport the following acts are prohibited- (i) obstructing or interfering with the proper use of the

airport; (ii) obstruct& any person acting in the execution of his

duty in relation to the airport; (iii) remaining on the airport after having been required by

a constable or an authorized officer to leave it; (iv)' allowing any vehicle or Animal to be on the airport after

being required by a constable or an: authorized officer


THE AIRPORTS REGULATIONS, 1959

Schedule

to remove it or after its presence on the airport has been forbidden by an authorized officer or on his directions;

(v) boarding or attempting to board any aircraft without the authority of the person in charge of it;

(vi) tampering or interfering with any aircraft or anything used in connection with an aircraft;

(vii) smoking in or otherwise bringing or lighting any naked light into or in-

(a) any place where any such act is prohibited by notice; or

(b) any place within fifty feet of an aircraft or a store of liquid fuel or explosives;

(viii) any act causing or tending to cause an outbreak of fire;

(ix) throwing, leaving or dropping anything capable of causing injury to any person or property;

(x) climbing any wall, fence, barrier, railing or post;

(xi) wilfully giving a false fire' or ambulance alarm;

(xii) failure to place an aircraft in the place: and position appointed by an airport official for that purpose;

(xiii) failure properly to moor or otherwise secure any stationary aircraft which is not in a hangar;

(xiv) failure to comply with the "rules of the. mad" contained in the Schedule;

(XV) driving or placing a vehicle carelessly or dangerously or without due consideration for persona using the airport;

(xvi) failure by the driver of a M c l e to stop when required by a constable to do so;

(xvii) failure by the driver of a vehicle whicb is involved la an accident to give his name and address and the name and address of the oaner of' the vchide to any pason having reasonable gmunds for requiring thtm;

(xviii) failure by the driver of a vehicle fartbwitb to report to a constable or to the person in charge of tbc airport any accident in whicb the vehicle is involved;


THE AIRPORTS REGULATIONS, 1959 755

(xix) failure by the driver of a vehicle to obey a traffic sign or to comply with any direction for the regulation of traffic given by a constable;

(xx) parking a vehicle elsewhere than in a place provided for that purpose or otherwise than in the manner required by a constable or an authorized officer;

(xxij failure by the person in charge of a vehicle to remove it from any place provided for the purpose of parking when required by a anstable or an authorized officer to do so; - ' (xxii) loading a vehicle with passengers or goods, or unloading passengers or goods' from a vehicle, elsewhere than in a place provided for that purpose;

(xxiii) driving a motor vehicle on any roadway in an airport at a speed greater than thirty miles per hour or such other speed as may be prescribed by a tra5c sign;

(xxiv) removing, picking or otherwise damaging any uee, shrub or plant or walk.ing on any flower bed;

(xxv) failure to keep any animal under control:

(xxvi) using any obscene or indecent language;

(xxvii) indecent or ' disorderly behaviour;

(xxviii) dropping or leaving litter except in a receptacle provided for the purpose;

(xxix) failure to comply with directions given by the Director of Civil Aviation in relation to refuelling of aircraft;

(XXX) disposing of garbage. sewage, waste oil, refuse or other material from aircraft or other sources except in the

.place and the receptacles provided for that purpose.

4. Within a n airport tho following acb are prohibited unle* the permission of an authorized o5cer has first been obtained-

(i) entering or leaving the airport otherwise than through - a gate or entrance for the t h e being provided for that

purpose;

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THE AIRPORTS REGULATIONS, 1959

(ii) entering any part of the airport to which members of the public are not for the time being admitted;

(iii) damaging, defacing, removing, displacing or altering any building. structure. traffic sign. notice or other thing. whether movable or immovable. forming part of, or provided for or in connection with. the airport;

(iv) digging soil or cutting or removing turf,

(v) grazing animals;

(vi) selling or distributing anything, offering anything for sale or hire, or making any offer of services including specifically the offering of taxi-cab services or operating any hackney carriage or other vehicle carrying passengers for hire or reward;

(vii) exhibiting any notice or advertisement except on premises which the person exhibiting it is authorized to occupy and in accordance with the terms of his occupation;

(viii) leaving a vehicle on the airport longer than twenty-four hours or such shorter time as is reasonably necessary for the transaction of the business for the purpose for which it was brought there;

(ix) driving a vehicle elsewhere than in a place provided for the passage or accommodation of such a vehicle;

(x) taking a motor vehicle into a hangar used for the maintenance or storage of aircraft;

(xi) running an aircraft engine in a han&ar;

(xii) filling or discharging from any container (including my part of a vehicle) liquid fuel elsewhere than in a place approved for that purpose by the person in charge of the airport;

(xiii) lighting a 6re elsewhere than in a place construded for that purpose and approved by an authorized officer;

(xiv) conducting flight or ground demonstrations;

(XV) taking still, motion or sound pictures for commercial purpo=s.


THE AIRPORTS REGULATIONS, 1959 757

5. Any person who does any act prohibited by regulation 3 or without the permission of an authorized officer does any act prohibited by regulation 4 shall be guilty of an offace and liable on summary conviction before a Resident Magistrate to a fine not exceeding fifty dollars or to imprisonment with or without hard labour for a term not exceeding three months.

6. These Regulations shall not apply to the Norman Manley Inter- national Airport and the Sangster International Airport.


T H E AIRPORTS REGULATIONS, 1959

SCHEDULE (Regulation 3) 1 . (1) The driver of a motor vehicle shall observe the following rules-

A motor vchicle- meeting or bcing overtaken by othcr traffic shall be kept to the near -side of the road. When overtaking other traffic the vehicle shall be kept on the right or off-side of such other traffic:

Provided that an animal bcing led or driven, may be passed or ovcrtaken on whichever side is the safer; being overtaken by other traffic shall be driven so as to allow such other traffic to pass; shall not be driven alongside of, or overlapping, or so as to overtake other traffic proceeding in the same d!rect~on if. by so doing it obstructs any traffic proceeding in the oppos~te d~recbon; shall not be driven so as to cross or commence to cross or be turned in a road if by so doing it obstructs any traffic; proceeding from one road to another shall not be driven so as to obstruct any traffic on such othcr road; proceeding from a place which is not a road into a road or from a road into a place which is not a road, shall not be driven so as to obstruct any traffic on the road; shall not be driven so as to overtake other traffic unless the driver has a clear and unobstructed view of the road ahead; shall not be permitted to travel backwards further than may be necessary for turning or other reasonable purpose.

(2 ) Notwithstanding anything contained in this paragraph it shall be the duty of a driver of a motor vehicle to take such action as may be necessary to avoid an accident, and the breach by a driver of any motor vehicle of any of the provisions of this paragraph shall not exonerate the driver of any other motor vehicle from the duty imposed on him by this sub-paragraph.

(3) For the purpose of this paragraph- (0) a motor vehicle obstructs other traffic if it causes risk of accidents

thereto; ( b ) "traffic" includes bicycles, tricycles, motor vehicles, tram-cars, vehicles

of every description, processions, bodies of troops and al l animals being ridden, driven or lcd;

(c) "overtaking" includes passing or intending to pass any other vehicle proceeding in the same direction.

2. (1) The driver of a motor vehicle constructed to be steered on the right or off-side thereof shall before commencing to turn to, or change direction towards, the right, extend his right arm and hand horizontally straight out. from the right or off-side of the vehiclc, w ~ t h the palm turncd to the front so as to be visible to drivers of all vehicles concerned.

(2 ) The driver of a motor vehicle may also if he thinks fit- (a) in order to signal an overtaking car not to attempt to pass extend his

right arm and hand horizontally straight out from the right or off-side of the motor vehicle, with the palm turncd downwards and move the arm up and down;

( b ) in order to signal to an overtaking car to pass. extend his right arm and hand below the line of the shoulder from the right or off-side of the motor vehicle with the palm turned to the front and move the arm backwards and forwards.

(3) When approaching a constable on duty at a road junction, the driver of a motor vehicle shall extend his arm in the direction in which he wishes to proceed so as to be visible to the constable.

(4) Any signal prescribed or permitted by this paragraph may be given by any mechanical or illuminatcd device of a type approved by the Island Traffic Authority under the Road Traffic Act.

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