Question Bank Kanchrapara Eastern Railway Personnel ...

DISCLAIMER

Question Bank has been prepared based on provisions in manual/circulars issued by Railway Board time to time.

There will be possibilities of amendments in the rules in future. Hence while going through the sample question bank please

refer to the latest circulars/amendments issued by the Railway Board time to time for ensuring the correct answer. Any

answer found incorrect may be brought to the notice of WPO/AWO/APO/KPA for necessary correction. This is for reference

only.

Question Bank

Kanchrapara Eastern Railway

Personnel Department

1Kanchrapara, Eastern Railway

PERSONNEL DEPARTMENT

QUESTION BANK ON RAILWAYS ESTABLISHMENT MATTER

INDEX

S.No. TOPIC/SUBJECT Page No.

1 LEAVE RULES 02 TO 12

2 & 3 RAILWAY SERVANTS(D&A) AND RAILWAY SERVICE(CONDUCT) RULES

13 TO 31

4 COMPASSIONATE GROUND APPOINTMENT 32 TO 42

5 SENIORITY, RECRUITMENT & TRAINING 43 TO 68

6 LEGAL MATTERS 69 TO 81 7 RTI ACT 2005 82 TO 89

8 GENERAL MISCELLANEOUS MATTERS 90 TO 94

DISCLAIMER

Question Bank has been prepared based on provisions in manual/circulars issued by Railway Board time to time. There

will be possibilities of amendments in the rules in future. Hence while going through the sample question bank please refer

to the latest circulars/amendments issued by the Railway Board time to time for ensuring the correct answer. Any answer

found incorrect may be brought to the notice of WPO/AWO/APO/KPA for necessary correction. This is for reference only.



ESTABLISHMENT QUESTION BANK(MCQs)

LEAVE RULES:

S.No. Questions OPTION

A B C D

1 If a family member of a covid patient is working in

Railway then he/she can avail Spl Cl upto_____ days

10 15 14 12

2 Liberalized Leave Rules came into effect from 02.01.1949 12.01.1949 01.02.1949 11.02.1949

3 Maternity Leave that can be granted to a female Railway

Servant during her entire career in case of miscarriage is

days

45 90 30 60

4 Extra ordinary leave can be granted in one spell 4 years 3 years 2 years 5 years

5 Maximum amount of continuous leave that is admissible to

Railway Servants is

years

10 4 5 2

6 LND during entire service is limited to a maximum of days

on medical certificate

180 360 90 None of the above

7 Joining time admissible where distance between the new

station(to where transferred) and old station is 2001 km is

days

12 14 15 10

8 Liberalised Leave Rules, 1949 are available in

IREC Vol-I IREM Vol-I IREM Vol-II IREC Vol-II

9 Limit of 22 years in case of disabled child for the purpose of

CCL has been removed wef

1.06.2018 03.06.2018 23.06.2018 13.06.2018

10 CCL may not be granted for a period less than days at a

time

15 5 10 12

11 An employee is allowed to join duty with PMC upto 03

days provided the employee furnishes a declaration that

he/she had not suffered during this period from any

disease.

Heart chronic Eye Respiratory



12 Are Clerical staff eligible for Hospital

Leave?

Yes No - -

13 Railway servant working in a Railway

school is not entitled for which leave?

CCL LAP LND LHAP

14 For the purpose of grant of CCL to a

female/single male Railway servant in

case of a disabled child, an offspring of

any age with a minimum disability of

percent is required

39 40 60 50

15 In case of a single female Railway servant,

the maximum number of spells for grant

of CCL per calendar year shall be limited

to

6 3 4 5

16 During the period of CCL , the female/

single male Railway servant shall be paid

of the salary if she/he has

availed 366 days CCL already

100% 75% 80% 90%

17 Work Related Illness and Injury

Leave(WRIIL) has been replaced by which

leave under Liberalised Leave Rules, 1949

Hospital Leave Special

Disability Leave

for accidental

injury

Quarantine

Leave

Special Disability

Leave for injury

intentionally

inflicted

18 A Railway Servant on WRIIL(other than

RPF/RPSF) shall be paid full pay and

allowances for a period of

months immediately following

hospitalisation


19 Hospital Leave has been omitted from

Liberalised Leave Rules, 1949 wef

13.12.2018 01.04.2018 14.12.2018 12.04.2018



20 Employees proceeding on study leave

are entitled for HRA for first

days without production of any

certificate as per extant rules

120 150 130 180

21 Is a female employee who has

attained temporary status is

eligible for Maternity Leave ?

yes No - -

22 Any interpretation in the Liberalised

Leave Rules, 1949 should carry the

sanction of the

Railway Board Minister of

Railways

President CRB

23 Maximum No of Days of Earn leave may

be sanction to a Goverrnment servant

after retirement/Death

10 days 300 days 180 days 240 days

24 How many restricted Holiday the

Workshop can avail?.

10 12 7 Nil

25 The minimum period of granting 15

days CCL has been removed by Board

wef

16.05.2014 15.06.2014 06.05.2014 05.06.2014

26 Encashment of Leave admissible under

Rule 540-A of R-I(1985 Edition) cannot

be availed by a Railway servant

during

CCL LAP LHAP CL

27 Child Care Leave may not be granted for

more than spells in a calendar

year

5 4 3 2

28 Child Care Leave was introduced

wef

09.10.2008 09.01.2008 10.09.2008 01.09.2008



29 Child Adoption Leave to female Railway

servant has been introduced wef

08.05.2006 18.05.2006 05.08.2006 15.08.2006

30 Date of effect of 60 days Special Leave

admissible to a female aggrieved

Railway employee on recommendation

of ICC under Sexual Harrasment Act,

2013 is

01.05.2017 13.05.2017 15.05.2017 15.03.2017

31 Child Care Leave can be granted to a

female/ single male Railway servant for

first two surviving children(except

disabled offspring) below the age of

years

18 22 20 25

32 Child Adoption Leave to female Railway

servant has been enhanced from 135

days to 180 days wef

09.11.2009 11.09.2009 01.09.2009 01.09.2008

33 Encashment of LAP upto 10 days at a

time, while availing passes/PTOs came

into effect from -

09.01.2008 01.01.2006 10.09.2008 01.09.2008

34 Maximum LAP that can be encashed

while availing Passes/PTOs in the entire

career is for days

10 30 60 45

35 Maternity leave to female Railway

servants enhanced from 135 days to

180 days wef

01.09.2008 09.01.2008 01.01.2006 10.09.2008

36 How many days of LAP in a year can be

credited to an employee?


37 A female Railway servant shall be

entitled for maternity leave for days

90 180 135 120

38 Paternity Leave is admissible to a male Railway Servant with less than two surviving children for a period of days

10 20 15 25



39 Paternity leave can be applied for by a

male Railway servant for a period of 15

days before or upto months

from the date of delivery of the child

after which it will be lapsed

1 3 2 6

40 Child Care Leave can be granted to a

female/ single male railway servant can

be granted upto a maximum of

days

365 370 730 180

41 Maximum number of LAP that can be

accumulated by a Railway employee is

days

120 180 190 300

42 LAP shall be credited to a Railway

servant @ days per month

2.5 3 2 1.5

43 How many days of LHAP can be

accumulated to a Railway Employee in

his whole service?

300 days 450 days 600 days Unlimited

44 Upto what limit , Maternity Leave can

be combined with any kind of leave?

01 year 02 years unlimited 06 months

45 Trade Apprentices can be granted Leave

on full stipend for a period not

exceeding days per year

15 13 12 10

46 Trade Apprentices can be granted Leave

on half stipend on medical certificate for

a period not exceeding days per

year

15 13 12 10

47 Apprentice Mechanics in Railway

Workshops can be granted Leave on full

stipend for a period not exceeding

days in a year of apprenticeship

16 20 25 30

48 Apprentice Mechanics in Railway

Workshops can be granted Leave on

16 20 25 30



half stipend on medical certificate for a

period not exceeding days in a

year of apprenticeship

49 Leave that can be granted to a Railway

servant, if no other leave is admissible

or if applied for in writing, even if other

leave are admissible is

SCL LAP EOL LHAP

50 Maximum encashment of LAP is

days

285 300 280 315

51 LAP can be combined with vacation in

the case of

Running staff Officers Railway school

Teacher

Office staff

52 Maximum LAP that can be granted at a

time to a railway servant shall be

days

120 160 180 300

53 Paternity Leave is also admissible to a Casual Labour

with Ty. Status

Casual Labour Screened Casual

labour

None of the above

54 Staff of which Railway are entitled to

avail extra Casual Leave?

SER ECOR ECR NFR

55 Casual Leave to that category of staff

reduced from 11(who were earlier

eligible for 15 days per year)to 10 days

in a year wef

1.1.1999 1.1.1998 10.1.1999 10.1.1998

56 To whom is Compensatory casual Leave

admissible ?

Supervisory staff Group'D' staff Group'C' & 'D'

staff but not

Supervisor

Confidential

Assistant

57 Quarantine Leave is admissible

for

Chronic disease Withdrawn Eye diseases Wife's sickness

58 Commutted Leave is admissible on Discretion of the

Competent

Authority

Request of the

employee

Medical

certificate with

request

None of the above

59 Hospital Leave granted to a Non- Gaz

Railway servant should not exceed a

total of months when

24 26 28 18



combined with other kind of leave

60 Competent Authority to sanction LAP to

a Sr. scale officer under his/her control

within India, provided no relief is

required

SAG GM PHOD Railway Board

61 A Sr. scale officer holding independent

charge is empowered to sanction upto

days LHAP within India, in

respect of officers under his/her control

15 21 30 45

62 Minimum Authority to sanction

encashment of LAP while in service in

case of a Gaz officers working under

their control is

SAG HOD GM JAG

63 Competent Authority to sanction Leave

out of India in case of Gaz officers

is

HOD PHOD JAG SAG

64 Authority competent to sanction Study

Leave to a Gaz officer ex-India is

PHOD GM Railway Board None of the above

65 Authority competent to sanction Study

Leave to a Gaz officer within India is

PHOD HOD JAG SAG

66 Sr Supervisors eligible for GP

upto (Pre-revised pay scales)

or above are authorized to sanction

CL/SCL with disabilities as applicable, to

Gr'C' & 'D' staff working under them

4200 2800 2400 2000


LAP/LHAP upto 30 days to a non-gaz

staff working under his/her control

without demanding relief is

Sr Scale JAG Jr. Scale Sr Scale with

independent

charge


LAP/LHAP upto 45 days to a non-gaz

staff working under his/her control is

Sr Scale JAG Jr. Scale Sr Scale with

independent

charge



69 Sr Supervisors (except office staff)

eligible for GP upto 4200(Pre-revised

pay scales) or above are authorized to

sanction LAP/LHAPupto days in

a calendar year to Gr'C' & 'D' safety

category staff working under them

12 10 20 15

70 Sanction of Study Leave to a non-gaz

employee working in a Divisional Unit

rests with

ADRM JAG HOD DRM

71 Authority Competent to sanction Ex-

India Leave to a Non-Gaz Railway

servant working in other than

Divn/Wksp is

PHOD HOD SAG JAG

72 CWM is Competent to sanction Ex-India

Leave to a Non-Gaz Railway servant

working in a Wksp upto

180 days 02 years 01 year 120 days

73 Upto how many occasions can a

workshop staff be granted half day LAP?

10 4 6 3

74 What is the maximum joining time

admissible to a Railway servant?

15 12 10 16

75 Under promoting small family norms, a

male Railway employee is entitled to get

Special Casual Leave

upto days for undergoing

Vasectomy operation for himself


76 A male Railway Servant is eligible for

days Special Casual Leave to

attend to his wife who has ungone

Tubectomy operation after MTP


77 A female Railway servant is eligible for

SCL not exceeding days for

undergoing Tubectomy operation for

the second time due to failure of the

first




78 A female Railway servant is eligible for

SCL for to take care of her

husband who has undergone Vasectomy

operation

7 6 14 1

79 A Railway Servant is eligible for 21 days/

actual hospitalisation period plus to &

fro journey time of SCL for undergoing

the operation

under the family welfare norms

Vasectomy Sterilisation Recanalisation Puerperal

Tubectomy

80 The maximum limit upto days

SCL can be sanctioned to Railway

employees for participation in Sports

events of National & International

Importance


81 As a special case, period of SCL in excess

of days can be permitted to be

combined with regular leave in case of

Trekking expeditions approved by Indian

Mountaineering Foundation

30 15 45 20

82 Competent Authority to grant SCL for

Bandh, Curfew or other disturbances is

PHOD GM HOD None of the above

83 SCL is admissible for employees

who reside at a place where polling day

is different from that at the place of

their office and the place of residence

02 days 03 days 04 days 01 day

84 What is the maximum special casual

leave admissible in a calendar year for

Scouting / Sports activities?


85 SCL is granted to a member for

attending JCM for a period of

in a year

06 days Not more than

05 days

Not more than

10 days

04 days

86 A kind of leave applied for and

sanctioned can be altered/converted at

the written request of the employee

within days from the date the employee joins duty

20 15 30 10



87 A Railway Servant on leave may not

accept any employment outside

India(other than casual literacy work or

similar employment), without obtaining

the sanction of the

Railway Board GM PHOD President

88 If an employee is on EOL/Absent from

duty during previous half year, the

credit of LAP in next half year shall be

reduced by of the period of such

EOL/absence subject to maximum of

days in one half year

1/10; 15 days 1/30; 15 days 1/10; 10 days 1/18; 10 days

89 If a Railway servant serving in a Railway

school is on EOL/Absent from duty

during previous half year, the credit of

LAP in next half year shall be reduced by

of the period of such

EOL/absence subject to maximum of

days in one half year

1/10; 15 days 1/30; 05 days 1/10; 10 days 1/18; 10 days

90 Credit of LAP to a School Teacher

appointed in a Railway School shall be

allowed @ days for each

completed month in the half year in

which appointed

5/6 2 1/2 1 2/3 1 1/4

91 The amount of LHAP that can be availed

in one spell combined with any other

kind of leave or not, shall be limited to

months

18 20 15 24

92 If an employee is on EOL/Absent from

duty during previous half year, the

credit of LHAP in next half year shall be

reduced by of the period of such

EOL/absence.

1/18th 1/4th 1/2 1/8th

93 Special pay granted to different

categories of staff be taken

into account for the purpose of

calculation of leave salary

shall not shall will assume to None of the above

94 Encashment of LHAP with LAP put-

together to a maximum of 300 days at

the time of retirement came into effect

from

01.01.2006 01.09.2008 01.01.2008 02.09.2008



95 The period of Special Disability Leave

that can be granted to a Railway servant

whether intentionally inflicted or due to

performance of official duty shall not

exceed months for one

disability

28 25 18 24

96 The period of study leave that can be

sanctioned to Doctors for a PG course

on medicine and research is

for

12 months 24 months 36 months 05 years

97 Employees with disabilities are eligible

for days additional CL in a

calendar year to be sanctioned as SCL

12 10 4 15

98 The additional benefit of 04 days CL to

be sanctioned as SCL to Railway

employees with disabilities came into

effect from

01.01.2006 01.09.2008 01.01.2008 02.09.2008

99 Joining time is admissible even in case

of temporary transfers provided the

period of transfer exceeds days

180 120 90 135

100 The unavailed period of joining time

admissible to a Railway servant shall be

credited to his/her leave account as

LHAP Joining time LAP None of the above


Railway Servants (D&A) Rules and Railway Service(Conduct) Rules:


A B C D

1 The Railway service conduct Rule 1966 is

applicable to

Only Gr. C

Employee

Only Gr. D

Employee

Gazzeted officer All Gazetted & Non Gazetted Employees

2 Which authority in HQ can place a

senior Clerk under suspension as per

SOP?

Junior Scale Senior scale J A Grade Selection Grade



3 What is the date from which the

Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, 1968

came into force?

On the first day of

January, 1968

On the first day

of August, 1968

On the first day

of October, 1968

None of these

4 Who can impose penalty of WIT for 2

years to a Chief OS?

Junior Scale Senior scale J A Grade Selection Grade

5 Under which rule of Railway Servants

(D&A) Rules, procedure of minor

penalty has been prescribed?

Rule 7 Rule 9 Rule 11 Rule 13

6 Which No. of standard form is used to

issue a Major penalty charge sheet

Under Railway Servants (D&A) Rules?

SF 2 SF 5 SF 7 SF10

7 Which of the following Rules of Railway

Servants (D&A) Rules, does specify the

penalties?


8 What for Standard Form-7 is used under

Railway Servants (D&A) Rules?

Revocation of

suspension

Appointment of

inquiry officer

Placing an

employee under

suspension

To issue major

charge sheet

9 Which one of the following is not a

disadvantage as a consequence of

suspension?

All the privilege

passes cannot be

availed

Cannot leave

HQ without

permission

Need not sign

the attendance

register

No increment is

drawn during the

suspension period



10 Board of enquiry appointed by the

Disciplinary authority should have how

many members?

Not less than 2

members

Not less than 3

members

Not more than 4

members

Not more than 5

members

11 How many Annexure are there in a

major penalty charge memorandum?

FIVE FOUR THREE TWO

12 Which authority is empowered to order

for cut in pension of a retired railway

servant under DAR proceedings?

DRM President GM None of these

13 What is the time limit for submission of

appeal against a penalty under Railway

Servants (D&A) Rules?


14 Consideration of appeal is governed

under which Rule of RS(D&A) Rules

1968.


15 Who is competent authority to sign the

notice of imposition of penalty after

orders of DA?

Controlling Officer Enquiry Officer Disciplinary

authority

Appointing

authority

16 Under the provisions of which article of

the Constitution, Railway Servants

(D&A) Rules have been made?

Article 309 Article 310 Article 311 Article 335

17 Disciplinary Authority while passing

orders for imposing a penalty should

invariably pass?

Orders of penalty Speaking orders Judicial orders None of these

18 How should the pending D&AR case be

dealt in case of death of a Railway

servant?

Continued and

finalized

Be sent to

Board

Be sent to GM Be closed

19 Which of the standard forms is be used

for issuing the order of deemed

suspension?

SF1 SF2 SF3 SF4

20 Delinquent employee should be

informed if charge sheet is dropped

within how much period?

45 days 2 months 3 months 4 months



21 Reduction to lower stage in a time-scale

of pay by ONE stage for a period not

exceeding THREE year without

cumulative effect comes under?

Major penalty Minor penalty Both minor and

major

None of these

22 Who is competent to impose the

Penalty of compulsory retirement,

removal or dismissal from service ?

Controlling officer Disciplinary

authority

Appointing

authority

None of these

23 Who is the appointing authority when

there is no mention of it in Service

Record?

Board GM DRM None of these

24 A serving Railway employee can be

allowed to act as Defense counsel in

how many cases?

Two Three Four Five

25 Who is the competent authority to

make rule on RS (D&A) Rules?

President Ministry of

Railway

GM None of these

26 A person appointed to a post or grade

can be reduced under D&AR to a lower

post or grade (below recruitment grade)

which he never held before?

Yes No can be reduced

with pay

protection

None of these

27 How many cases can a retired Railway

employee deal as defence helper at a

time?

Three Five Seven Nine

28 Which deduction cannot be made from

subsistence allowance?

House Rent PF subscription Income Tax None of these

29 If an employee is to be issued major

penalty charge sheet on the date of

retirement, who is competent to sign

the charge sheet?

Board GM President DA on the date of

retirement

30 When a Railway Employee is placed

under suspension but only a minor

penalty is imposed, the suspension

period may be treated as What?

Leave due Dies non Duty None of these

31 What for a Railway servant under

suspension is eligible?

Leave HQ without

permission

Pass for PNM Act as defence

helper

None of these



32 Can a Railway employee under

suspension be called to appear in

selection for promotion?

Yes No To be decided by

DA

None of these

33 What kind of leave can an employee

under suspension avail during

suspension period?

LAP LHAP EOL None of these

34 What is the total number of standard

forms used under D&A Rules, 1968?

Eleven Five Seven Nine

35 A Railway servant shall be deemed to

have been placed under suspension if

he has been put in police custody for a

period?

exceeding 24

hours

exceeding 48

hours

with immediate

effect

None of these

36 Review of suspension cases is done after

how much period?

After 3 months After 2 months After 4 months None of these

37 What is Compulsory deduction from

subsistence allowance?

PF subscription House rent Court

attachment

None of these

38 Under which Rule, Holding of Inquiry

under D&AR is not mandatory?

Rule 5 Rule 13 Rule 14(ii) None of these

39 To whom D&A Rules 1968 will not

apply?

Permanent

employees

Apprentices Temprary status

employees

None of these

40 On transfer from one division to

another, a staff does not report for duty

at the new place of posting, who will be

the competent authority for taking

disciplinary action?

GM Disciplinary

Authority at

new place

Disciplinary

authority at old

place

None of these

41 Which category of employees is barred

to act as Defence helper?

Vigilance

Inspector

Law Assistant Railway servants

under

suspension

None the above

42 Which of the following is not a penalty

under D&A Rules?

Censure Recorded

warning

Stoppage of

privilege passes

None of these



43 Whether counseling or Govt.

Displeasure is a penalty under D&A

Rule?

Yes No Both are penalty

under D&A Rules

None of these

44 What should be the effective date of

WIT under D&AR rules?

Date of order of

penalty

with

retrospective

effect

from the date of

next increment

due

None of these

45 What is the permissible time limit for

preferring a revision petition under

D&AR?


46 Is it necessary that the Inquiry Officer

(IO) should be sufficiently senior in rank

to the charged official?

IO should always

be senior

IO may be

junior

IO may be equal

in rank

None of these

47 Who can exercise reversionary powers

when no appeal has been preferred in

terms of Rule 25 of D&AR?

Officer not below

the rank of DRM

Officer not

below the rank

of JA officer

Officer not

below the rank

of PHOD

None of these

48 Is it obligatory for the Inquiry Officer to

inform defence counsel for each

hearing?

Yes No DA should

inform DC

None of these

49 Under which Rule of RS (Pension) Rules,

compassionate allowance is granted to

Railway employees who are removed or

dismissed from service?

Rule 60 Rule 65 Rule 66 None of these

50 In case of Review under D&AR (Rule 25-

A), can President enhance penalty to a

Railway servant?

Yes No By giving reason

able opportunity

to represent

None of these

51 Please advise the total number of Rules

mentioned in Railway Servants (D&A)

Rules, 1968.

21 25 31 35

52 What does the Rule 11 of the R.S.(D&A)

Rules, 1968 deal with?

Suspension Appeal Major penalty

procedure

Minor penalty

procedure

53 Which of the following person is not

allowed to be engaged as defence

counsel?

Serving Railway

Employee

RetiredRailway

Employee

Legal

Practitioner

Trade Union

official



54 Whether Revision/Review of cases

already finalised, can be initiated after

his retirement with a view to impose a

cut in his pensionary benefits?

Can be initiated Cannot be

initiated

Can be initiated

with approval of

GM

None of these



55 What kind of payment is payable in the

cases of removal or dismissal of a

railway servant?

Pension is

payable.

Pension is not

payable.

Compassionate

allowance can be

considered.

None of these

56 Are the Railway servants (D&A) Rules,

1968 applicable to staff of Railway

protection force?

Yes No In certain cases None of these

57 What does Rule 14(II) of the Railway

servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 deal with?

Removal /

Dismissal after

Inquiry

Compulsory

retirement

without any

inquiry.

Removal /

Dismissal in case

of conviction.

Removal /

Dismissal when it is

not practicable to

hold inquiry.

58 Which is not applicable to treatment of

the suspension period?

Dies-non Leave due Duty Suspension

59 Who is competent authority to issue

charge sheet after retirement of a

Railway servant?

Appointing

authority

PCPO President GM

60 In which case, holding of inquiry is not

necessary?

Charges not

admitted by CO

Charges

admitted by CO

Charges

prepared by DA

None of these

61 By whom the Daily order sheet is

maintained?

Disciplinary

authority

Inquiry officer Charged official None of these

62 Which penalty under D&AR does not

have effect on promotion of Railway

servant?

Stoppage of

pass/PTO’s

Reduction to a

lower grade

Removal from

service

None of these

63 In which case, Inquiry is not necessary? Intoxication Conviction on

criminal

charges

Misuse of

Railway property

None of these

64 Under which Rule, issue of a formal

charge sheet for imposition of penalty is

not necessary?

Rule 13 Rule 22 Rule 14(ii) Rule 25

65 What is Maximum period for which a

minor penalty of with holding of

increment can be imposed?

1 year 2 year 3 year None of these

66 What pension can be granted to a

superannuating Railway employee

pending D&A case?

Half pension Full pension Provisional

pension

None of these



67 Re-appointment under Rule 402-RI, A

railway employee may be given benefit

of past service?

Benefit

service

of full Benefit of half

service

Forfeiture

past service

of None of these

68 Within what time limit, competent

authority can enhance penalty under

D&AR?

3 months 4 months 6 months 12 months

69 Within what time limit, competent

authority can reduce penalty under

D&AR?

3 months 4 months 6 months 1 year

70 In which case, Show cause notice to a

Railway servant is necessary?

To enhance

punishment

To reduce

punishment

To uphold

punishment

None of these

71 Which one of the following is a penalty

under Rule 6 of D&AR?

Warning Counseling Govt.

displeasure

Censure

72 Which one of the following is not a

penalty under Rule 6 of D&AR?

Censure WIT Suspension Compulsory

retirement

73 How the penalty of withholding of

passes and PTOs should be imposed?

For a

period

specific For a number of

sets

Both None of these

74 Charged official can seek copies of

relevant documents for preparation of

defence within how many days?


75 Which authority is nominated to

enquire into the charges in case of

major penalty chargesheet?

Disciplinary

authority

Enquiry officer Presenting

officer

None of these

76 To whom will the matter of D&A Rules

be referred in case of doubt to the

interpretation?

Railway Board GM President None of these

77 Under which Rule, the matter of D&A

Rules will be referred to President in

case of doubt to the interpretation?


78 Under which rule, the competent

authority can relax time limit in D&AR


cases?

79 Under which rule, President can call for

D&AR cases for review any time, where

new facts have been brought out?

Rule 24 Rule 25 Rule 25A Rule 26



80 Under which rule of D&AR, the

appellate authority can give personal

hearing to the appellant?

Rule 24 Rule 25 Rule 25A Rule 26

81 What action can the Appellate authority

take on an Appeal under D&AR?

Confirm

penalty

the Reduce

penalty

the Propose

enhance

penalty

to

the

All these

82 Till which date, the order of suspension

made by competent authority will

remain in force?

For 3 months Till the orders

of review

Till revocation by

competent

authority

None of these

83 Which authority can make the orders

for revocation of suspension?

Junior Scale Senior scale authority which

made orders of

suspension or

higher

None of these

84 What is full form of the term RUDs

under D&A Rules?

Record

despatch

under Relied upon

documents

Record

delivery

under None of these

85 After receipt of major penalty charge

sheet, in how many days, CO has to

submit his written statement of

defence?

10 days 15 days 20 days None of these

86 After receipt of written statement of

defence to major penalty charge sheet,

can DA impose minor penalty without

enquiry?

No Yes With

approval

GM's None of these

87 Is it mandatory for DA to nominate

some other official to enquire into the

charges in case of major penalty charge

sheet?

No, DA can also

itself enquire into

Yes In serious cases

only

None of these

88 Under which rule of D&AR, a Railway

servant may be given an opportunity to

represent against proposed penalty without holding Enquiry?

Rule 14 (i) Rule 14 (II) Rule 14 (iii) None of these



89 In which case under D&AR, Inquiry is not

necessary?

Intoxication Conviction of

criminal charge

Misbehavior

with

supervisor

Misuse of Railway

property

90 Under which Rule of the R.S.(D&A) Rules,

1968, the appellate authority can act as

revising authority ?

Rule 25 Rule 25 A Rule 30 None of these

91 Is there provision of Honorarium for Inquiry

Officer in the conduct of Departmental

inquiries out of Vigilance investigation?

Yes No In some

special cases

None of these

92 Which standard form is used for

revocation of suspension order?

SF 3 SF 4 SF 5 None of these

93 According to which rule of Railway Service

(Conduct) Rule, a gazetted railway servant

is not permitted to join the Union of non-

gazetted railway servants like a Railway

Employees Union?



(Conduct) Rule, a railway servant is not

allowed to join a union, the activities of

which are prejudicial to the interests of the

sovereignty and integrity of India or public

order or morality.



(Conduct) Rule, Railway servant has to

maintain absolute integrity?

3.(1) (i) 3.(1) (ii) 3.(1) (iii) None of these


(Conduct) Rule, Railway servant has to

maintain devotion to duty?


97 What action has a railway servant holding

supervisory post to ensure as per Rule

3(2)(i) of service conduct rules?

To control staff

working under

him

To educate staff

under his

control

To

ensu

re integrity of

staff under his

control

None of these



98 According to which rule, in the

performance of official duties, no

Railway servant will act in a

discourteous manner?

Rule 3A Rule 3B Rule 3C None of these

99 According to which rule, Railway servant

has to observe the Government’s

policies regarding preve+B150ntion of

crime against women?

Rule 3A Rule 3B Rule 3C None of these

100 Which Rule of Railway Service (Conduct)

Rules describes about Prohibition of

sexual harassment of working women?

Rule 3C Rule 3B Rule 3A None of these

101 Any unwelcome physical, verbal, non-

verbal conduct of a sexual nature by a

Railway servant shall be termed as

sexual harassment or not?

Yes No Sometimes None of these

102 According to which rule, Railway

servant has to observe Government’s

policies regarding age of marriage?

Rule 3 B (i) Rule 3 B (ii) 3C None of these

103 According to which rule, Railway

servant cannot take part in election to

any legislature or local authority.

Rule 4 Rule 5 (4) Rule 6 None of these

104 Which rule of railway Service (Conduct)

Rules 1966 is related to Preservation of

Cultural Heritage?

3 B(i) Rule 3 B (ii) 3C None of these


Rules, is related to taking part in

politics?



Rules 1966 describes about Evidence

before Committee or any other

Authority?


107 Which rule of Railway Service (Conduct)

Rules 1966 is related to connection with

Press/Media?





Rules 1966 is related to raising funds by

Railway Servant?


109 Which Rule prohibits a railway servant

to use his position or influence directly

or indirectly to secure employment for

any member of his family in any

company or firm?

4 (1) Rule 5 (4) Rule 6 None of these

110 According to which rule of Railway

Service (Conduct) Rules, Railway servant

has to do nothing which is unbecoming

of a Railway servant?


111 Which Rule prohibits a railway servant

to participate in any demonstration

which is prejudicial to the the security of

the State?



Rules describes about Communication

of Official Information in accordance

with the RTI Act, 2005?


113 According to which rule of Railway

Service (Conduct) Rules, no Railway

servant shall communicate any official

document to any other person to whom

he is not authorised to communicate?


114 Which of the following shall be termed

as GIFT under Railway Service (Conduct)

Rules?

Free transport Boarding Lodging All these

115 Which of the following shall not be

termed as GIFT under Railway Service

(Conduct) Rules?

A casual meal Lift Social

hospitability

All these

116 For how much amount, can a Railway

servant accept gifts on occasions such

as weddings, anniversaries etc who is

holding a Group ‘A' post?

Not exceeding Rs

5000

Not exceeding

Rs 15000

Not exceeding

Rs 25000

Not exceeding

Rs 50000



117 For how much amount, can a Railway

servant accept as gifts on normal

occasions (other than weddings,

anniversaries etc) who is holding any

Group ‘C’ or Group ‘D’ post?

Not exceeding Rs

500

Not exceeding

Rs 7500

Not exceeding Rs

1000

Not exceeding

Rs 2000

118 Which of the following will not be

treated as dowry taken by a Railway

servant as per Railway Service (Conduct)

Rules?

Take dowry Give dowry Clothes presented

in

marriage

None of these

119 Which rule of Railway Service (Conduct)

Rules, prohibited a Railway servant from

taking or giving Dowry?

Rule 11 Rule 12 Rule 13 Rule 13 A

120 Can A Railway Servant accept any gifts

from a foreign firm with which the

Railway servant had, has or is likely to

have official dealings?

Yes No To a limit None of these


Rules describes about accepting gifts by

Railway servants?


122 Can a Railway servant, without previous

sanction of the Government, attend any

meetings of entertainment held in his

honour?

Yes No In limited cases None of these


Rules describes about private trade and

employment by Railway servants?


124 According to Railway Service (Conduct)

Rules, what can a Railway servant do

without sanction of Government?

Can engage

directly in trade

Can engage

indirectly in

trade

Can hold an

elective office

None of these


Rules, what can a Railway servant

undertake without previous sanction of

Government?

sports activities as

an amateur

honorary work

of charitable

nature

occasional work of

a literary character

All these




Rules, is it permissible for a Railway

Yes No Without

sanction of

With sanction of

servant to take an Insurance Agency in

his own name?

government government

127 Can a Railway servant, after the

cancellation of his allotment of

Government accommodation, retain the

same beyond the time-limit prescribed

by the allotting authority?

Yes No for 3 months None of these


Rules, in what of the following, is a

Railway servant permitted to Speculate

directly?

Stock Share Other such

investments

None of these

129 Can a Railway servant lend money to

any person at interest or in a manner

whereby return in money or in kind is

charged or paid?

With sanction of

government

Yes No None of these

130 According to which Rule of Railway

Service (Conduct) Rules, A railway

servant shall so manage his private

affairs as to avoid habitual indebtedness

or insolvency?


131 For how much period of continuous

attachment of a moiety of the pay for

debt, a railway servant shall be

considered liable for dismissal?

Exceeding 5 years Exceeding 4

years

Exceeding 3

years

Exceeding 2 years


Service (Conduct) Rules, A railway

servant who is arrested for debt, is

liable for dismissal?

Rule 17.2(iii) 3.1 (ii) 3.1 (iii) None of these




Rules describes about acquiring of

Movable, immovable and valuable

Property by Railway servants?


134 Which group of railway servants has to

submit an annual return regarding the

immovable property owned or acquired

by him in his own name or in the name

Group A Group B Group A and

Group B both

None of these

of any member of his family?


Service(Conduct) Rules, Railway

servants have to submit annual return

regarding the immovable property?


136 Where a railway servant enters into a

transaction in respect of movable

property, value of such property

exceeding two month's basic pay, he

shall report the same to the

Government?

Within 1 month Within 2

months

Within 3 months Within 4 months

137 Is it desirable for Railway servants to bid

at auctions arranged by their own

department?

Yes No In some cases None of these

138 Under which Rule of Railway

Service(Conduct) Rules, the purchase of

items of movable property for giving

presents at the time of marriage will be

regulated?

Rule 18 (1) Rule 18 (2) Rule 18 (3) None of these


Service(Conduct) Rules, the transaction

of movable property is regulated?

Rule 18 (1) Rule 18 (2) Rule 18 (3) None of these


Service(Conduct) Rules, Railway

servants can purchase immovable

property outside India with previous

sanction of Government?

Rule 18 (1) Rule 18 (2) Rule 18 (3) 18 A



141 Where a railway servant enters into a

transaction in respect of movable

property, shall report to the

Government if value of such property

exceeds how many month's basic pay?

one month Two months Three months No limit


Service(Conduct) Rules, a Railway

servant is prohibited from bringing

political influence on any superior


authority to further his interests in

respect of his service matters?

143 Can a Railway servant bring political

influence on any superior authority to

further his interests in respect of his

service matters?

No Yes In some cases None of these

144 Under which Rule of Railway

Service(Conduct) Rules, Restrictions

Regarding Marriage have been

described?


145 Can a railway servant, having a spouse

living, enter into a marriage with any

person?

Yes No If permissible

under personal

law

None of these


Service(Conduct) Rules, a Railway

servant cannot consume alcohol during

duty?


147 A Railway servant relating to Running

staff should not have taken any

intoxicating drinks within how many

hours of commencement of duty?

Within 4 hours Within 6 hours Within 8 hours None of these

148 According to which Rule 22-A of Railway

Service(Conduct) Rules, No Railway

servant shall employ to work any child

below the age of how many years?

12 years 14 years 16 years None of these



149 With whom the power of interpretating

Railway Service(Conduct) Rules rules is

reserved?

Board GM President None of these

150 How many total rules are there in

Railway Service(Conduct) Rules, 1966?

20 25 30 None of these

151 Under which article of the constitution,

a Railway servant cannot be dismissed

or removed from service by the

authority lower to the authority who

Article 309 Article 310 Article 311 None of these



appointed him?

152 Under which article of the constitution,

a Railway servant cannot be dismissed

or removed from service without an

enquiry of the charges against him?

him?

Article 309 Article 310 Article 311 None of these

153 Under which Rule of D&AR, D&AR for

Railway servants in force from 1.8.1961

have been repealed?


154 Under which Rule of D&AR, any order/

notice, shall be served in person on the

Railway servant or by registered post?


155 Which authority in Board is competent

to sign notice/ order under D&AR on

behalf of the President?

Joint Secretary Executive

Director

Director All these

156 In case of Review under D&AR (Rule 25-

A), can President enhance penalty to a

Railway servant?

Yes No By giving reason

able opportunity

to represent

None of these

157 Under which Rule of D&AR, procedure

of action against staff borrowed from

other deptts in Railway, has been

prescribed?


158 Under Rules of D&AR, which authority is

competent to initiate action against

staff borrowed from other deptts/

Ministry in Railway?

JA Grade officer Lending

authority which

appointed him

to that post

Borrowing

authority which

appointed him

to that post

None of these

159 Under Rules of D&AR, can the

borrowing authority impose minor

penalty to staff borrowed from other

deptts/ Ministry in Railway?

Yes No In consultation

with lending

authority

None of these

160 Under Rules of D&AR, can the

borrowing authority impose major

penalty to staff borrowed from other

deptts/ Ministry in Railway?

Yes No In consultation

with lending

authority

None of these



161 Under Rules of D&AR, against which

orders, an appeal does not lie?

Order made by

President

Order of

imposing

penalty

Orders of

suspension

None of these

162 Under which Rule of D&AR, no appeal

lies against the orders made by

President?


163 Under Rules of D&AR, a Railway servant

can be placed under suspension where?

Disciplinary

proceeding is

pending

Disciplinary

proceeding is

contemplated

Where a case of

criminal offence

is under trial

All these

164 Under Rules of D&AR, from which date,

the suspension period of 90 days shall

be counted for review of suspension

where the Railway servant is in

detention?

Date of

suspension

Date of

detention

date of release

from detention

None of these

165 Under Rules of D&AR, for how many

period, suspension can be extended

during each review?

Not exceeding 120

days

Not exceeding

90 days

Not exceeding

180 days

None of these

166 Under Rules of D&AR, how can a

Railway servant to submit his appeal

against the orders being appealed

against?

In his own name

and signature

Counter-signed

by a legal

practitioner

Counter-signed

by a Trade Union

official

None of these

167 Under Rules of D&AR, how should be

the language of a Railway servant in his

appeal against the orders being

appealed against?

Respectful Proper Complete in

itself

All these

168 Under Rules of D&AR, what action has

to be taken by authority who made the

orders appealed against?

Withhold the

appeal

Forward to

appellate

authority

without any

comments

Forward to

appellate

authority with

comments

None of these




COMPASSIONATE GROUND APPOINTMENT:


A B C D

1 Child born to second wife even where

the second marriage has not been

permitted by the Administration is

eligible for CGA

provided

NOC is given by

first wife

First wife does

not opt for

herself or her

ward

NOC is given by

children of first

wife

All of the above

2 A candidate can be considered for

Appointment on CG for the post of SSE

in Level-7 if he is a

Graduate Intermediate Post- graduate Graduate from NIT

3 If a candidate under consideration for

CGA is a minor at the time of death/

medical invalidation of ex-employee is

admitted to a course of study, he/she

shall be allowed to complete the course

with permission of Administration

subject to a maximum limit of

years for completion

1 2 5 3

4 The spouse of deceased employee,

whose ward appointed on CG dies in

harness while undergoing the pre-

requisite training, can nominate

either/or for

consideration of CGA

widow of

deceased trainee

herself another ward All of the above

5 The Authority competent to approve

CGA of spouse in case of a RRB/RRC

selected candidate who dies in harness

before completion of the prescribed

pre-requisite training, is

GM PHOD HOD DRM/CWM

6 The Competent Authority to approve

offer of Clerical post to the dependent

of an employee who dies or

permanently crippled in the course of

duty is

GM PHOD HOD DRM/CWM



7 is competent to consider

appointment on compassionate

grounds upto Level-6 of 7th CPC Pay

Matrix where DR quota is 25% or lesser

GM HOD PHOD ADRM



grounds in Level-7 of 7th CPC Pay

Matrix where DR quota is 25% or lesser

GM HOD PHOD ADRM

9 The date of effect to delegate powers to

DRMs/HODs/CWMs to consider CGA

upto Level-6 7th CPC Pay Matrix where

DR quota is 25% or lesser is

11.07.2018 07.11.2018 27.11.2018 20.07.2018

10 is competent to grant upper

age relaxation in making appointments

on compassionate ground to a

candidate under consideration for offer

of a post in level-6 of 7th CPC Pay

Matrix

GM DRM ADRM PHOD

11 Routing of transfer cases of CG

appointments from one

Division/Workshop to another through

their respective Headquarters offices,

has been withdrawn wef

16.09.2018 09.06.2018 06.09.2018 19.06.2018

12 A widow/wife who is under

consideration for appointment on

Compassionate ground can be given a

maximum of number of

chances to qualify in the suitability test

held as part of the process to assess her

candidature

three two four five

13 Who is competent to grant a 3rd chance

to a widow who is under consideration

for appointment on CG, for appearing in

the suitability test, held as part of the

process

GM DRM ADRM PHOD



14 Whether widows/wives not possessing

requisite minimum educational

qualification can be considered for

appointment on CG with some on job

training?

Yes, As Trainee Yes, in Level-1 of

7th CPC Pay

Matrix

Not eligible for

CG

None of the above

15 Can a candidate possessing Matric

qualification but not in possession of

NAC granted by NCVT/ITI/ Trade

Diploma be considered for appointment

on Compassionate ground in Level-1 by

providing on job training for 6 months?

Yes, in

Commercial

catering

Yes, in Accounts Yes, in Personnel Yes, in Stores

16 In case a candidate under consideration

for CGA is declared medically unfit on

account of Diabetes, and after due re-

examination and investigation it is

found that there is no complication or

involvement of End Organ, he/she will

be declared

Fit with no

involvement of

End Organ

Fit with

Diabetes

Unfit for any

medical category

Fit in Cey-One or

below

17 The date of effect from which the

discretionary powers has been left to

the family concerned to decide who will

be the 'Bread winner' for the family

(even in case of married daughter), for

the purpose of consideration for

appointment on compassionate ground,

is

18.07.2014 07.08.2014 08.07.2014 17.08.2014

18 The services of candidates, who are

appointed on CG in Ministerial cadre,

but fail to acquire type writing

proficiency within the stipulated two

years from the date of

appointment(being mandatory ), may

be

shifted to Non-

Ministerial or

Non- Commercial

cadre

Terminated Reduced in rank

to Level-1 post

Continued in same

capacity

19 A 'Trainee' appointed on

Compassionate ground would not be

entitled for during such

a capacity

CEA OTA DA HRA



20 A person appointed as a 'Trainee' on

compassionate ground has to acquire

minimum educational qualification in

years

3 2 4 5

21 The Authority competent to consider a

candidate for compassionate ground

appointment in GP 4200/- in Security

Department is

PHOD GM DRM/CWM ADRM

22 The period spent by a candidate

appointed as a 'Trainee' in -1S Pay band

(pre-revised scales) will not count as

service for any purposes.

Direct Regular Temporary None of the above

23 Instructions laying down procedural

guidelines/ assistance duly scheduling

powers for making appointment on

compassionate grounds was initially

framed on

04.03.1979 03.04.1979 30.04.1979 23.04.1979

24 First consolidated instructions regarding

compassionate ground appointments

was issued by Railway Board on

07.04.1983 17.04.1983 30.04.1979 03.04.1979

25 The existing orders/ guidelines on


grounds have been consolidated by

Railway Board and issued under Master

Circular No. -

14 13 10 16

26 Powers to relax lower age limit upto

one year in case of a candidate under

consideration for appointment on

compassionate grounds rests with

PHOD GM DRM/CWM ADRM

27 A ward of a casual labour with

temporary status who dies in harness

can be considered for appointment as

casual labour(fresh face) or as a

Substitute with the personal approval of the

PHOD DRM GM None of the above



28 Date of effect for consideration of a ward

of a casual labour with temporary status

who dies in harness for appointment as

casual labour(fresh face) or as a Substitute

with the personal approval of the General

Manager is

30.12.1986 13.12.1986 31.12.1986 03.12.1986

29 Initially the ward of a Casual Labourer who

dies due to accident while on duty was

eligible for CGA as casual labour(fresh

hand) or Substitute provided the casual

labourer is eligible for compensation under

WCA 1923. This was made effective from

01.01.1984 05.04.1984 01.04.1984 04.05.1984

30 Date of effect for consideration of a ward

of a Substitute with temporary status who

dies in harness for appointment as casual

labour(fresh face) or as a Substitute with

the personal approval of the General

Manager is

07.10.1993 17.10.1993 10.07.1993 01.07.1993

31 A request to grant CGA can be considered

by the Competent Authority in case of

missing Railway employee only after a

lapse of

from the date of from

which the employee has been missing

subject to fulfillment of other conditions

two years more than two

years

one year atleast two years

32 is competent to consider a

request to grant CGA in case of missing

Railway employee

Railway Board GM PHOD DRM/CWM

33 A request to grant CGA cannot be considered

by the Competent Authority

in case of missing Railway employee who had less than years to retire on the date from which he/she has been missing.

5 1 2 3



34 Adopted son/adopted daughter are eligible

to be considered for appointment on

compassionate ground wef

05.02.1988 02.05.1988 20.05.1988 15.02.1988

35 Dependent widowed/ divorced daughter

can be considered for appointment on

compassionate ground wef

21.11.2001 02.11.2001 21.01.2001 02.10.2001

36 Admissibility of a married daughter for

appointment on compassionate ground

came into effect from

03.02.1981 02.03.1981 03.12.1981 23.03.1981


the ward/ spouse of a medically de-

categorised railway employee who has

been medically decategorised on

13.06.2006

GM PHOD DRM/CWM ADRM

38 A dependent brother/sister of a Railway

servant dying as a Bachelor/ Spinster can

be considered for appointment on

compassionate ground by the Competent

Authority wef

09.04.1996 04.09.1996 14.09.1996 19.04.1996

39 Powers to terminate the services of a

person appointed on compassionate

grounds on ground of non-compliance of

his/her undertaking that he/she will

maintain properly the other family

members who have been dependent on the

ex-Railway employee, rests with.

DRM Railway Board PHOD GM

40 The Competent Authority to consider dependents of Gaz. Officers on Compassionate grounds is

provided the appointments are

made in recruitment grades viz Office

Clerks, TC, Commercial Clerk etc.

Rly Brd CRB GM MR



41 Husband of a deceased female Railway

employee has been made eligible for


wef

17.10.1983 17.01.1983 07.10.1983 07.01.1983

42 The General Manager is competent to

consider a ward/ widow of a deceased

commission vendor/ bearer who was

eligible for absorption in Railways but

died before absorption provided he/she

was years of age as on

01.04.2005

below 50 above 50 below 45 above 45

43 A candidate appointed on

compassionate ground as Junior

Accounts Assistant , has to mandatorily

pass the Appendix II Examination within

years, failing which he will be

reverted to Clerk

1 2 3 5

44 The time limit to be observed in cases

falling under 'priority No.1' within which

appointments on compassionate

ground should be given(subject to

availability of vacancy) is

one week three months one month two months

45 In case of minor son/daughter,

application for appointment on

compassionate ground should be

submitted within years from

the date of attaining majority

3 1 5 2

46 is competent to fix the

initial pay of a candidate appointed on

compassionate grounds at a stage

higher than that normally admissible

under the rules, if the same warrants

Railway Board GM PHOD DRM/CWM

merits.



47 In the event of both husband and wife

being Railway employees, the bread-

winner of the family is eligible for


on account of death of

either husband or

wife

husband wife either who die first

48 Totally incapacitated employees who

have been so incapacitated between

and 18.01.2000 and

have been allowed to retire, their

eligible spouse/ ward are eligible for


24.04.1999 29.04.1999 24.09.1999 20.04.1999

49 Employees who have been partially

medically de-categorised and seek

voluntary retirement, he/she can apply

for compassionate appointment of an

eligible member of his family provided

he has been partially decategorised at a

time when he/she has

residual service for

superannuation

03 years 02 years 05 years 01 year

50 The General Manager can consider and

decide the time barred cases of

compassionate appointment which are

upto years old from the date of

death/ medical unfitness of the ex-

employee.

5 10 25 20

51 Compassionate Ground Adalat is held

on :

10th Aug 10th Nov. 15th Oct 20th Sep

52 What is the time limit to finalize priority

2nd, 3rd and 4th CGA cases


53 Appointment of 'near relative' on

compassionate ground on Railway was

discontinued from the year

1994 1995 1996 1997



54 Who is not eligible for CGA in case of

death\permanently incapacitated of a

railway servant married

Son Married

Daughter

Widow/Wife Brother-in-Law

55 In case of death of an employee CGA to

dependent who is already employed in

lower grade in railways can be given in

high grade

Correct Incorrect Option of Widow

is taken

None of the above

56 Railway Board has further provided

Grace period of year for trainees

appointed in 15 pay band on CGA if they

have failed to acquire minimum

education qualification in 5 years.

01 years 02 years 03 years 04 years

57 In case of death of a railway servant,

CGA can be given, if education

qualification permits, in:

Group 'A' Group 'B' Group 'C' or

erstwhile Group

'D'

Any of the above.

58 CGA to a post is given only where

exist.

Regular Vacancy Future Vacancy Anticipated

Vacancy

Adhoc Vacancy

59 Relaxation of lower age limit beyond 1

year in CGA appointment will require

the approval of :

Railway Board General

Manager

DRM PCPO

60 What is the time limit from the date of

death of an employee upto which

DRM'S are power to approve CGA ?

5 Years 10 Years 15 Years 20 Years

61 Who is empowered to consider a CGA

case in case date of death of an

employee is more than 20 years but less

than 25 years old ?


Manager

AGM DRM

62 Consideration of application submitted

more than 02 years after the candidate

becoming major is done by :


Manager

PCPO DRM

63 Married daughters can be given CGA as

a matter of discretion and satisfaction

that she would act as a a bread winner

of the family by

DRM PCPO General

Manager

Railway Board



64 The candidates applying for

appointment on CGA in a Group 'C'

post, suitability test should be adjudged

by Senior Scale officer consist of :

01 member 02 member 03 member 04 member


monitor to set right the

difficulties/delays in providing


at Divisional level ?

DRM's ADRM's Sr. DPO's APO's


monitor to set right the

difficulties/delays in providing


at Headquarter level ?

AGM DGM CPO PHOD

67 Genuineness of claim of a dependent

of railway employees dying/medical

incapacitated as on the basis of

documents in absence of which who is

deputed to enquiry into the

circumstances -

Ch.OS WLIs APO's DPO's

68 In which of the mentioned

circumstances, permission will be

granted to acquire higher education

qualification to a ward for CGA:

Candidate is

major at the time

of death & already

admitted to a

course.

Candidate is

minor at the

time of death

but already

pursuing couse

at the time of

attaining

majority.

Candidate is

minor at the

time of death

but not admitted

to a course at

the time of

attaining

majority.

Both a & b

69 Railway Board instructions regarding

CG appointment in workshops

controlled by Mechanical Department

should be restricted only to

ward/widow of the employees of that

workshop only, came into force w.e.f.

06.09.1999 06.09.2001 16.09.1999 16.05.2005

70 CGA to wife/ ward/ dependent of

partially medically decategorised staff

eligible Group 'D'

categories

Atleast five

years of service

left at the time

Only GM is

empowered

All of the above



whose seeks VRS can be given only in of medical

decategorization

71 Second chance for candidates who

qualify in written test but failed in

aptitude test for appointment on

Compassionate ground for the post of

ALP/ASM can be given only after a gap

of

04 months 03 months 08 months 01 year

72 GM's are empowered to consider CGA

in posts with GP

4600/- & Below 4200/- 4200/- & Below 2800/- & Below

73 Terminology of "Medical De-

categorization" has been replaced by

“Alternative Employment on Medical

Grounds" in which chapter of IREM- Vol.

I ?

Chapter X Chapter XI Chapter XII Chapter XIII

74 A Railway servant is termed 'Medically

Decategorised' when :

He fails in his

original medical

category

he becomes

physically

incapable of

performing the

duties of the

post he holds

He fails in a

vision test for

the post he

holds but found

fit in lower

medical category

All of the above

75 As per latest policy instructions issued

by Railway Board, Land-Losers are

eligible for

5 Lakhs lumpsum

compensation

with single

ownership of the

land

5 Lakhs

lumpsum

compensation

with joint

ownership of

the land to be

shared in pro-

rata ratio

5 lakhs

Compensation

only if they were

primarily

dependent on

acquired land for

livelihood

All of the above

76 What is the lower age limit for CGA

normally?


77 What is the passing marks for CGA in

Gr.’C’ for an UR candidate?

35% 40% 50% None of these




Seniority, Recruitment & Training:


A B C D

1 When 02 or more candidates are

declared to be of equal merit at

one and the same exam /

selection, their relative seniority

is determined by

Date of Birth Date of Joining Date of Medical

Exam.

Date of

Document

Verification

2 Seniority is not effected due to

transfer on Administrative

Grounds

True False - -

3 Seniority of Railway servants

transferred on their own request

is allotted at

The Bottom of

existing Railway

Servant in the

relevant grade

According to date of

confirmation

According to length

of service

At the top of

existing Railway

Service in the

relevant grade

4 What is the percentage of direct

recruitment of Staff Nurse

50% 100% 25% 80%

5 Who is the appointing Authority

of Gr-D in level-1(GP-1800)

Junior Scale

Officer

Sr. Scale Officer Jr. Administrative

Grade

None of these.

6 Seniority among the candidates

who are sent for initial training to

training schools is decided based

on :

Merit order of

RRB/RRC

Merit order

obtained at training

school

Date of Joining the

post

Date of Birth

7 What is the age relaxation for

direct Recruitment for SC/ST

Candidate?

3 years

5 years 2 years 4 years



8 Seniority of officers appointed

directly in Group 'A' shall be

determined on the basis of :

Date of Birth Date of Joining post

after the completion

of Probation

DITS Date of getting

first increment

9 What is the percentage of Direct

Recruitment of Sr. Clerk?

25% 20% 50% 100%

10 Currency of a panel is ___

months.

12 24 6 36

11 In case of promotion from Group

'B' to Group 'A'on permanent

basis seniority of officers shall be

determined by weightage based

on half of the total number of

continuous service in Group 'B'

subject to maximum weightage of

3years 5years 7years 9years

12 GDCE is conducted for all those

categories which have DR quota

of minimum

10% 15% 20% 25%

13 Age limit for UR candidates

appearing in GDCE is

41years 42 years 43years 44years

14 Total number of RRBs in India : 20 21 22 23

15 RRB Allahabad jurisdiction

extends to :

Northern North Central DLW All of above.

16 RDSO comes under jurisdiction of RRB/LKO RRB/Gorakhpur RRB/ Ranchi RRB/Patna

17 Quota of reservation for direct

recruitment of ex-servicemen in

Group 'C' is

10% 20% 30% 40%

18 Age limit for recruitment through

Open Adv. against sports quota

shall be

Min. 18 & max. 25 Min. 20 & max. 25 Min. 18 & max. 30 Min. 20 & Max.30



19 Age limit for recruitment through

Talent Scouting against sports

quota shall be

Min. 18 & max. 25 Min. 20 & max. 25 Min. 18 & max. 30 Min. 20 & Max.30

20 Minimum education qualification

can be relaxed in case of

recruitment through Open Adv.

against sports quota by

General Manager Railway Board Chairman RRC Cannot be

relaxed

21 Minimum education qualification

can be relaxed in case of

recruitment through Talent

Scouting against sports quota by

General Manager Railway Board Chairman RRC Cannot be

relaxed

22 Candidates recruited against

Sports quota shall have to

execute a service bond for a

period of

02 Years 03 Years 04 years 05 Years

23 Annual quota for recruitment

against Cultural Quota in Group

'C' for a Railway is

2 3 4 5

24 Annual quota for recruitment

against Scout & Guide Quota in

Group 'C' for a Railway is

2 3 4 5

25 Qualification of Himalayan Wood

Badge Holder is associated with

Sports Quota Cultural Quota Scout & Guide

Quota

GDCE

26 Consolidated instructions on the

subject of "Seniority of non-

gazetted staff" has been issued by

Railway Board in Master Circular

no.

31 32 33 34

27 When date of entry into a grade

of Promoted Railway servants &

direct recruits are same, they are

put in alternate position wherein

Promotees are

ranked senior to

D.R.

D.R. are ranked

senior to Promotees

No such distinction

is made

None of the

above



28 When the date of appointment of

02 employees to the grade are

same up to the lowest grade,

Older is considered

senior

Younger is

considered the

Date of Medical is

considered

Left to the

discretion of

then senior administration

29 Staff employed in train passing /

operations duties is reabsorbed in

alternate category due to failure

in periodical refresher course

in

2nd attempt 3rd attempt 4th attempt There is

alternative

absorption

no

30 When a staff employed in train

passing / operations is absorbed

in alternate post due to failure in

duties periodical ref. course,

however is reabsorbed in original

category on undertaking and

passing fresh refresher course, a

minimum gap of

months is given.

4 6 8 10

31 Which of the following comes

under the category of "reasons

beyond control" which makes an

employee unable to appear in the

Department examination.

Administration not

Relieving

Self sickness

supported by

Medical Certificate

Both A & B None of

above

the

32 In case of mutual exchange, who

is allowed to retain his/ her

seniority

Junior Senior Both retain their

original seniority

Both are placed

at the bottom of

the grade

33 Seniority of substitutes is counted

from the date of

Regular absorption Date of screening Date of giving of

temporary status

Date

appointment

of

34 Employees classified as

"Outstanding" in any selection

post would be admissible to

supersede not more than

% of seniors in

field of eligibility.

30% 50% 70% 80%



35 When an employee refuses

promotion, he / she is debarred

for how many years

01 year 02 years 03 years 04 years

36 When an employee refuses

promotion again (2nd time for

Have

again

to appear

in

Loses Seniority Seniority is Both a & b

the same panel), then selection/suitability maintained

37 Seniority list is published once in

years.

1 2 3 4

38 Within how much time can

employee represent about the

assignment of their seniority

position after the publishing of

seniority list


39 A medically decategorised staff, if

absorbed in lower grade,

seniority is fixed taking into

account

Total Length

service

equivalent

higher grade

of

in

&

Length of service

only in higher grade

Length of service of

Immediate junior in

seniority

None

above

of the

40 For identifying 'equivalent' post

for absorption of medically

decategorised running staff a

percentage of basic pay

representing pay element in

running allowance is taken into

consideration

Yes No Depends on merits

of the case

None

above

of the

41 Promotion to non-selection posts

shall be on the basis of

Seniority

Suitability

cum Seniority Merit Length of service.

42 WHO is ex- officio Patron of

Railways Scout & Guide’s Board

(Railway Board)?

EDEIR EDSE Member Staff Financial

Commissioner

43 Employees placed on earlier

panel will rank to

employees placed on subsequent

panel

Senior Junior No comparison None

above

of the



44 When there is reduction in pay as

a measure of penalty , seniority is

Affected Not affected Depend upon no.

of increments

stopped

None

above

of the

45 When an employee is reduced to

lower service/ grades /

post/lower time-scale with no

mention of specific period of

Original seniority is

lost

Original Seniority

again achieved

Seniority counted

from date of re-

promotion

Both a & c



reduction, then

on re-promotion.

46 When Railway service is reduced

from higher grade or class to

lower grade, his seniority in lower

grade is determined wrt to his

position he would be entitled but

for his promotion to higher grade

or class from which he is reduced

TRUE FALSE Left to the

discretion of the

Administrative

Authority

None

above

of the

47 There is reservation of SC / ST /

OBC in Talent Scouting

Recruitment against Sports

Quota:

7.5% ST, 15% SC,

27% OBC

15%ST, 7.5 % SC, 27

% OBC

15 % SC, 7.5 % ST,

27 % OBC, 10 %

EWS

No reservation

applicable

48 Validity of trials in Talent Scouting

is for

01 month 03 months 02 months 04 months

49 Which of the below facilities are

provided to Souts/Guides on

Indian Railways:

SCL Spl Dree passses TA/DA All of the above

50 Applications for GDCE are invited

by :

Zonal Railways RRBs RRCs Railway Board

51 As per 6th CPC recommendation,

following are true:

No recruitment in

Group 'D'

Existing Group 'D'

posts will be placed

in Group 'C' Pay

Band-I with GP-

1800.

Min. education

qualification will

for GP- 1800 will be

10th pass/ITI

All of the above.

52 Recommendation of 7th CPC, as

accepted by Govt. of India

committee effect from:

01.01.2006 01.01.2016 01.04.2006 01.04.2016

53 % of seats are reserved

for EWS category in recruitment.

10% 20% 30% 40%

54 A reserved category candidate

selected from open market on

their own merit , will be

considered against

Reserved Quota General Quota Pooled Quota None

above

of the



55 Dies-non means: a period, which

can not be treated

as duty for any

purpose.

a period, which can

be treated as duty

for any purpose.

None of these Only a

56 % of seats against Sports

Quota are filled through Talent

Scouting

30% 40% 50% 60%

57 % of seats against Sports

Quota are filled through Open

Advertisement.

40% 50% 60% 70%

58 Number of seats which remain

unfilled during a financial year

against Sports Quota will:

Add to next years

Quota

Lapse on 31st March GM can sanction

even after 31st

March

Both a & c

59 Which authority of concerned

Sports Association in zone

recommends release of berth

from RSPB pool:

Secretary President of their

Association

GM PCPO

60 Which of the following is correct Open Adv. Quota

can be transferred

to Talent Scouting

Talent Scouting

Quota can be

transferred to Open

Adv.

No exchange

allowed

Can be

exchanged

mutually

61 For recruitment in Talent

Scouting, the sports achievement

should be

Only current

financial year

Current & / Or

Immediate previous

one financial year

Current &/ or

Immediate

previous two

financial year

Current & / or

Immediate

financial year

and/ or

immediate

previous 03

financial years.

62 For recruitment against Open

Adv. in sports, the sports

achievement shall be

Only current

financial year

Current & / Or

Immediate previous

one financial year

Current &/ or

Immediate

previous two

financial year

Current & / or

Immediate

financial year

and/ or

immediate

previous 03

financial years.



63 Age relaxation for recruitment of

sports person through Talent

Scouting can only be given by:-

Railway Board General Manager President, Sports

Association

PCPO

64 Age relaxation for recruitment of

sports person through Open Adv.

can only be given by:-

Screening

Committee

PCPO General Manager No age relaxation

allowed

65 Minimum education relaxation

for recruitment of sports person

through Talent Scouting can be

relaxed only by


Association

Not applicable

66 Minimum education relaxation

for recruitment of sports person

through Open Adv. can be relaxed

only by


Association

Not allowed

67 In how many years, sports person

recruited as Clerk/ Senior Clerk

against sports quota should pass

requisite type writing test:


68 Trial committee for recruitment

through Talent Scouting consists

of:

JAG Officer Coach of respective

game

Senior/

International player

of respective game

All of the above.

69 In case of more than one sports

person scores same marks in

merit list prepared by Trial

Committee for recruitment

through Talent Scouting then

preference will be given to:

Older Candidate Younger candidate Left to discretion of

committee

Trials will be

conducted again

70 Maximum incentive increments

which can be given to any sports

person in his/ her entire career :

4 5 6 3

71 Incentive increment given to any

sports person based on his sports

achievement shall take effect

from

Date of conclusion

of championship

date of approval First day of month

following

concluding day of

championship

01st July of next

year



72 Out of Turn promotion to sports

person can be awarded during

probation

TRUE FALSE Left to discretion of

Administration

None of the

above

73 OTP to sports person can be given

only after completion of

number of years in the existing

post and Grade Pay:

2 Years 3 Years 4 Years 5 Years

74 UMID card is generated for Employee Pensioner Dependent Family

members

All of the above

75 From which year UMID was

implemented in Indian Railways

2017 2018 2019 2020

76 In UMID module, there is

provision of:

Split Medical

identity Card

Consolidated card

for a family

Options can be

given for either A

or B

None of the

above

77 Which zone of Indian Railway was

authorised by Railway Board for

development and maintenance of

Unique Medical identity ID

system for Pan India:

NR NCR SR SCR

78 What does CTSE stands for: Cashless

Transaction

Scheme in

Emergency

Cashless Temporary

Scheme for

Economics

Cashless treatment

System in

Emergency

Cashless

Treatment

Scheme in

Emergency

79 Which agency was authorised by

Railway Board to develop and

maintain a website for CTSE:

INFOSYS TATA UTIITSL RELIANCE

80 Which database is utilised by

UTIITSL for generation of CTSE

card :

ARPAN IPAS PRIME Local to each one

81 CTSE scheme has been rolled out

for:

Serving employees

and their family

members

Retired employees

and their family

members

Both a and b None of the

above

82 While allotting a card no. to CTSE

beneficiary, if both husband and

Always Husband Always wife One who retires

earlier

Both will be

allotted "A"



wife are serving in railway then

alphabet "A" will be assigned to:

83 Mode for depositing requisite

amount for becoming a

beneficiary of CTSE scheme:

Demand Draft Cheque Cash Any of the above.

84 Which all departments are

involved in the generation and

utilisation of CTSE card:

Personal Deptt. Medical Deptt. Finance Deptt. All of the above.

85 Which IREM para talk about Ad

Hoc promotions :

Para 214 Para 216 Para 218 Para 220

86 Whose prior personal approval is

required before giving any Ad Hoc

promotions:

General Manager PCPO PHOD DRM

87 Railway Board vide instructions

dated provisionally

discontinued DR in the posts of

SSEs:

25.10.2018 25.10.2019 02.02.2018 02.02.2019

88 Notifications being issued by

Zonal Railway for GDCE scheme

should include:

Employee

PUs

of all Employees of only

PUs coming within

their geographical

jurisdiction

Employees of PUs

not eligible

Employees

only

Railway

apply.

of

Zonal

can

89 What % of DR Quota vacancies

can be filled by GDCE scheme:

Min. 25% upto Max

50 %

Min. 50% upto Max

75 %

Min. 10% upto Max

25 %

Min. 30%

Max 60 %

upto

90 Who all are eligible for appearing

in GDCE scheme:

Any

employee

serving Regular serving

employee with

education

qualification for DR

Regular serving

employees working

in lower/same

grade

Both b & c

91 In GDCE scheme which category

of Reservation is not applicable:

Reservation

Persons

Benchmark

Disabilities

for

with

Reservation

Economically

Weaker Sections

for Both a & b Neither a nor b

92 Incase of adequate no. of suitable

candidates do not become

available through GDCE sheme,

Promotion Quota LDCE DR Quota Left unfilled



shortfall is made good by :

93 Who is the competent authority

to increase the percentage of

Quota under GDCE from 25% up

to 50%

Chairman/RRB Chairman/ RRC General Manager AGM

94 Which new para inserted in IREM

talks about diversion of unfilled

promotional vacancies to

LDCE/GDCE & further to DR

Quota

Para 229 Para 329 Para 429 Para 529

95 What is the quantum of

reservation for the Persons with

Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD) in

case of DR of non gazetted staff

3% 4% 5% 6%

96 Reservation roster is divided into

how many blocks ?

3 4 5 6

97 " The Right of Persons with

Disabilities Act, 2016" has come

into effect from:

19.04.16 19.04.17 19.04.18 None of the

above

98 As per Railway Board's latest

policy guidelines, within how

much time character and

antecedent verification should be

done after issue of provisional

appointment letter:


99 Annual quota for recruitment on

Scouts & Guides in Level- 02 on

Production Unit is:

1 2 3 4


Scouts & Guides in Level- 01

(erstwhile Group 'D') on Division

has been fixed as:

1 2 3 4




Scouts & Guides in Level- 01

(erstwhile Group 'D') on PU has been fixed as:

1 2 3 4

102 As per Railway Board updated

Master Circular No. 7, Rs. 500 is

charged per candidate applying in

the Scouts & Guide Recruitment.

How much fee returned to

candidates actually appearing in

written examination:

250 350 400 500


to approve the recruitment under

Scouts & Guide quota?

President S & G

Association

PCPO General Manager Railway Board

104 For selection in Level - 02 under

Scout and Guide Quota,

Recruitment Committee consists

of

03 SAG level officer 03 JAG level officer 02 SAG & 01 JAG 01 SAG & 02 JAG

105 Recruitment under Scouts &

Guide Quota should be finalized

within

31st March 31st December 31st October Once initiated, no

time limit

106 Annual quota for recruitment in

Level - 02 under Cultural Quota

has been in PU as

1 2 3 4

107 Recruitment committee under

Cultural Quota Level - 02 consists

of:

02 SAG & 1 outside

expert officer

01 SAG & 02 outside

expert

02 JAG & 01

outside expert

01 JAG & 02

outside expert

108 In how much time period, a

person appointed Cultural/

Scouts & Guide Quota to all the

categories of Clerk is required to

possess proficiency in Typing

from date of appointment

02 years 04 years 05 years No time limit



109 Who are not eligible to apply

against the GDCE scheme in

terms of Railway Board's letter

dated 11.08.2003

RPF RPSF Both a & b are

eligible

Both a & b are

not eligible

110 Scheme to re-engage retired

Railway employees in exigencies

of service has been last extended

upto :

30.03.2020 01.12.2020 30.03.2021 01.12.2021

111 Maximum age limit for which

retired Railway employees can be

engaged in exigencies of service is


112 Powers to re-engage retired

Railway employees in exigencies

of service lies with

DRM AGM General Manager Railway Board

113 As per RBE no. 189/ 2019, the

officer of appointment would

lapse after how many months, in

case candidate did not join within

specified period?

01 month 03 months 06 months 12 months

114 Total monthly remuneration and

pension drawn by the retired

employees re-engaged on

contract basis cannot be more

than

Last Pay Drawn

with DA

Pension with DR Last Pay Drawn +

Pension

No such limit

exist

115 Retired Railway employees re-

engaged on contractual basis are

entitled to how many days of

leave in calendar year on prorata

basis?

8 12 15 10


to nominate JAG committee and

approval of panel for recruitment

against Scouts & Guide quota for

posts in Level- 01 of 7th CPC

Railway Board General Manager PCPO DRM



117 What percentage of reservation

is allowed for ex-servicemen in

Group 'D' direct recruitment

20% 30% 10% 15%

118 Full form of ZRTI Zonal Recruitment

Training Institute

Zonal Railway

Training Institute

Zonal Railway

Technical

Zonal Railway

Technical



Information Institute

119 What is the full form of ZTC ? Zone-wise

Technical Center

Zonal Trading

Center

Zonal Training

Centre

Zonal Training

Company

120 IRITM stands for : Indian Railway

Institute of

Technical

Management

Indian Reservation

Institute of

Technical

Management

Indian Railway

Institute of Training

Management

Indian Railway

Institute of

Transportation

Management

121 As per Railway Board's latest

policy guideline, who will head a

Zonal / Divisional Multi-

Disciplinary Training Institute ?

Senior Scale Officer JAG Officer SAG Officer PCPO

122 Total number of Multi-

Disciplinary Zonal Training

Institutes recognised over Indian

Railways

15 16 17 18

123 What is the full form of IRISET ? Indian Railway

Institute of Service

and Training

Indian Railway

Institute of Signal

and

Telecommunications

Indian Railway

Institute of Security

and Traffic

Indian Railway

Institute of

System &

Technology

124 What is the full form of IRICEN ? Indian Railway

Institute of Civil

Engineering

Indian Railway

Institute of Cultural

Engagement

Indian Railway

Institute of Core

Engineering

Indian Railway

Institute of

Centralised Ethics

125 What is the full form of IRIMEE ? Indian Railway

Institute of

Mechanical and

Electrical

Engineering

Indian Railway

Institute of Material

and Electrical

Engineering

Indian Railway

Institute of

Mechanical and

Electronics

Engineering

Indian Railway

Institute of

Machine and

Equipment

Engineering

126 Where is MDZRTC of Northern

Railway located?

New Delhi Lucknow Chandausi Ujjain

127 How many MD Divisional

Training Institutes are there over

NR?

4 5 6 7

128 What is the full form of IRIEEN ? Indian Railway

Institute of Electronic Engineering, Nagpur

Indian Railway

Institute of Electrical Engineering, Nashik

Indian Railway

Information of Electrical

Engineering, Nashik

Indian Railway

Information of Electrical Engineering, Nagpur

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_Railway_Institute_of_Transportation_Management















https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_Railway_Institute_of_Civil_Engineering












https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_Railway_Institute_of_Mechanical_and_Electrical_Engineering



















https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indian_Railway_Institute_of_Electrical_Engineering



















129 Which one of the below shows

the correct location of 05 Multi-

Disciplinary Divisional Training

Institutes over NR?

Firozpur, Ambala,

Delhi, Lucknow,

Moradabad

Firozpur, Ambala,

Ghaziabad,

Lucknow,

Moradabad

Firozpur, Ambala,

Ghaziabad,

Chandausi,

Moradabad

Amritsar,

Ambala, Delhi,

Lucknow,

Moradabad

130 In which respective years Project

Saksham - I and Project Saksham -

2 were launched over Indian

Railways

2017 & 2018 2018 & 2019 2019 & 2020 2018 & 2020

131 Full form of NAIR is : National Academy

of Information &

Reasearch

National Advisiory

for Internal

Recruitment

National

Association of

Indian Railways

National

Academy of

Indian Railways

132 When was first International Day

of Yoga celebrated?

21st June 2014 21st June 2015 21st June 2016 21st June 2017

133 International Day of yoga is

celebrated under the aegis of

Ministry of

Health & Family

Welfare

Ayush Women & Child

Development

Human Resource

Development

134 Full form of GEQD is : Govt. Examiner of

Questioned

Documents

Govt. Examination

for Qualifying

Degrees

General

Engineering of

Questioned

Documents

General

Equipment for

Quality Devices

135 What methodology is adopted in

RRB/RRC examination to detect

forged handwriting :

AEQD GEQD REQD CEQD

136 Which body in Board has control

over all RRB's?

RREB RRCB RRRB RRDB

137 For recruitment in Scout & Guide

quota, candidates belonging to

SC/ST /Ex-servicemen/

PwBD's/Women/EWS, how much

fee is charged along with

application form?

Rs. 500 Rs. 400 Rs. 300 Rs. 250



138 As per latest instructions of

Board, how many extra

candidates are called for

document verifications by RRBs in

case of Recruitment in Group 'C'

posts beyond the notified

vacancies:

15% 50% 20% 5%

139 Which of the following posts fall

in Level-02 of 7th CPC ?

Dresser, Jr. Clerk,

Ticket Collector,

Trains Clerk

Hospital Attendant,

Sr. Clerk, Sr. Ticket

Collector, ASM

Hospital Attendant,

Sr. Clerk, Jr.Clerk,

ASM

Hospital

Attendant, Sr.

Clerk, Jr.Clerk,

Ticket Collector

140 In which of the Group there is no

direct recruitment in Indian

Railways?

Group 'A' Group 'B' Group 'C' erstwhile Group

'D'

141 Where is newly established Rail

University situated:-

Mumbai Vadodara Secunderabad Jamalpur

142 RELHS stands for : Railway Employees

Liberalised Health

Scheme

Retires Employees

Liberalised Health

Survey

Rural

Empowerment &

Liberalisation for

Health Scheme

Retired

Employees

Liberalised Health

Scheme

143 Refresh course for Ch.OS/OS/Sr.

Clerks/ Clerks/S&WLI is to be held

once in every :

04 years 03 years 02 year 01 year

144 Project ' SWARN' is linked to : Upgrade condition

of Duranto and

Humsafar trains

Upgrade condition

of Tejas and

Humsafar trains

Upgrade condition

of Gatiman and

Vandebharat trains

Upgrade

condition of

Rajdhani and

Shatabdi trains

145 CORE' stands for : Central

Organisation for

Railway

Electrification

Central Organisation

for Railway Election

Central

Organisation for

Railway

Engineering

Central

Organisation for

Railway

Examinations

146 COFMOW' stands for : Central

Organisation for

Modernisation of

Workshops

Central Organisation

for Management of

Workshops

Central

Organisation for

Modernisation of

Workers

Central

Organisation for

Manpower Of

Workshops



147 Group 'B' direct recruitment is

made in Indian Railways through

which recruiting agency

UPSC SSC RRB No direct

recruitment in

Group 'B' in

railways.

148 Select the correct choices: I Railways has multiple Group 'A' services II Recruitment to Group 'A' services is made by UPSC III Some zonal railways are empowered to recruit direct Group 'A' officers through RRB IV Indian Railway Health Services is a Group 'A' railway service

Only I I,II & IV II,III & IV None

149 Select the correct choices: I Each zonal railway has a separate RRB II RRB's functions under overall coordination of RRCB. III Zonal Railways sends their Indents to the concerned RRB's IV There is a RRB at Gorakhpur

All I,II,III & IV I,II and III II,III and IV I,II & IV

150 Which Grade Officer is

empowered to make

appointment in Level-7 under

delegated power of GM

SAG JAG/SG SS JS

151 A candidate for appointment to railway services must be:

I. A citizen of India II. A subject of Nepal III. A subject of Bhutan IV. A Citizen of

Bangladesh

1. I, II, and III 2. Only I 3. II, III, and IV 4. Only I and IV

152 Who is competent authority to

decide quota of reservation in the

recruitments of railway servant

Chairman Railway

Board

Central

Government


Manager

153 Minimum qualification prescribed

by Indian Railway for level-I

recruitment is

10th Pass 10+2 8th Bachelor

Degree



154 Creamy Layer' principle is

applicable in the reservation of

Scheduled Caste Scheduled Tribe Other Backward

Caste

None of these

which social group.

155 Which are not necessary

prerequisites for recruitment in

Indian Railways. ?

Minimum age Minimum

Qualification

Medical Standard Religion

156 National Academy

Railway in situated at ?

of Indian Ahmedabad Vadodara Surat Mumbai

157 Group 'B' officers in Indian

railways broadly selected for

recruitment in Group 'A' through

which method?

Written

Examination

Seniority

Suitability

cum Screening

committee

by a None of these

158 Railway Board is constituted at

apex level administrative unit of

railways in the year

1901 1905 1889 2019

159 Substitutes are engaged in Indian

Railway against

A vacant post over and above any

post

As and when extra

works come

None of these

160 Recruitment is conducted through various methods in Indian Railways: I All India Competitive Examination held by the UPSC II Recruitment from within by promotion to group 'A' III Direct selection by Railway Board on the basis of Interview IV Special class Railway Apprentices

I and II All I,II,III and IV only III and IV I,II and IV

161 Prior to constitution of Railway

Board functions of railways in

India were looked after by

CPWD Commerce

Department

Finance

Department

None of these



162 Railway Recruitment Cell : I. A recruitment agency

under each zonal railways.

II. Primarily responsible for Level-1 recruitment.

III. Headed by a chairman of Dycpo level

IV. Conduct of GDCE examination is also

I,II,III and IV I,II and III I and II only I



assigned to RRC’s

163 Railway employees governed by the

National Pension System, those

appointed on and after

01.01.1995 01.01.2014 01.04.2004 01.01.2004

164 What is called NTPC in railway

recruitment terminology?

Recruitment for

Non- Technical

Popular Category

Recruitment

for Railway

Thermal power

Both A and B None of these.

165 Select the correct options: I National Pension System is a contributory pension system II Current rate of contribution by employee in 10% of basic pay+ DA III Current rate of government contribution is 14% of Basic Pay +DA IV Minimum Guaranteed pension in applicable to NPS employees.

I, II and III I, II and IV II, III and IV II and III

166 All new entrants to service must take

oath of allegiance towards.

1. Constitution of

India

2. Minister of Railways. 3. Railway Board. 4. General

manager

167 Oath of allegiance, at the time of appointment is swearing of affirmation of duties.. I. Loyally II. Honestly III. Impartially IV. Religiously

I, and II I, II and III Only IV II, III and IV

168 Choose the correct options. I. A male candidate who has more than one wife living shall not be eligible for appointment. II. Female candidate who has married a person having already a wife living shall not be eligible for appointment

Only I Only II Both I and II None

169 What is the applicable percentage of

reservation for persons with

benchmark disability for non- gazetted

staff.

3% 4% 5% 6%

170 Which category is not exempted from

PwBD Quota

Helper/Works Helper/Bridge

Assistant

Pointsman

Gateman



171 Track Maintainer grade IV of

Engineering Department may be

appointed from which PwBD category

HH OH VH None

172 Which group of PwBD category

candidates are eligible for

appointment in Track Maintainer of

production units.

HH OH VH None

173 Which one is not a correct

designation in Indian Railways.

Assistant

Security Officer

Assi

stant Nursing

Officer

Assistant

Physiotherapy

officer

Assistant

Promotee Officer

174 Railway Board has recently issued a

circular for proper utilization of

training institutes which prescribe that

all heads of non-gazetted training

institutes shall report to the General

Manager through.

Concerned Phod PCPO PCME SDGM

175 Find out a place where no RRB is

situated.

New Delhi Jammu Chandigarh Ranchi

176 Which one is not a classified Gazetted

Training establishment of Indian

Railways

NAIR IRICEN IRIMEE None

177 ‘IRIMEE’ is a centralized training

institute for which major stream of

Indian Railways.?

Civil Engineering Signal

Engineering

Electronics

Engineering

Mechanical

Engineering

178 Indian Railway Institute of Signal

Engineering and

Telecommunications is situated at .

Jamalpur Vadodara Secunderabad Bangalore

179 Indian Railway Institute of Transport

Management is situated at.

Prayagraj Lucknow Varanasi New Delhi

180 Choose the correct options. I. NAIR is the nodal training institute of indian railways. II. NAIR is headed by a General Manager. III. All Group A officers Training Institutes are headed by Director Generals.

Only I Only II I and II I, II and III



181 Chittaranjan Locomotive Works is

headed by a

Director CAO PCME General

General Manager

182 What is

recruitment

called loyal quota During 1974

strike wards of

loyal employees

recruited in railway

LARSGESS is also

called loyal quota

Compassionate

Ground

Appointment

Non

e

these

of

183 Power to appoint a person as

TADK or Bungalow Khallasi rests

with.

Minister of

Railways

Railway Board A committee

nominated by GM

General

Manager

184 In the year of 1994 a committee

was appointed by the railway

who recommended a single

service (Group ‘A’) for Indian

Railway.

Bibek Debroy

Committee

Gupta Prakash

Committee

Tandon Davidson

Committe

e

Committee

185 Which one is not an undertaking

of the ministry of railways?

RITES DELHI METRO KRCL RLDA

186 As per railway act 1989 which

authority is competent to appoint

commissioners of Railway Safety

Railway Board General UPSC Centra

l Government Manager

187 Indian Railway has to approach

appointments committee of the

cabinet for approval of

Empanelment of

officer for making

appointments to

the posts of

Additional General

Manager and

above

Empanelment

for making

appointments of

DRM’s

Empanelment

and posting of

ADRM’s

None of

these

188 General Manager of Indian

Railways is appointed by

Ministry of

Railway

Chairman

Railway Board

Ministry of Railway on recommendation of ACC

None

189 Choose the correct option: I Secretary Railway Board is equivalent to Secretary Government of India II Chairman Railway Board may appoint any person known to him as Secretary Railway Board III Post of Secretary Railway Board is ex. cadre post which may be filled by any Group ’A’ officer of relevant grade

Only I Only II Only III None is correct



190 Which is true in case of making initial appointments to non- gazetted posts as per MSOP: I JAG- Full power for non-gazetted posts II SS- upto level-5 III JS– Level-I

Only I Only II and III I,II and III None

191 Please choose the correct options I An officer competent to appoint an employee of relevant grade called appointment authority II Disciplinary Authority may be other than appointing authority


192 As per constitutional provision no

government servant may be

removed or dismissed by any

authority other than .

Appointi

ng Authority

President of Disciplinary

Authority

None of

India these

193 Who is competent to Re-

construction of Service register of

an employee on the basis of

affidavits when no records are

available

PCPO PFA GM Railway

Board

194 Reconstruction of service registers with available records can be done by: I PCPO with finance concurrence II

DRM/ADRM with finance concurrence


195 As per the latest

delegation, General Manager’s are

empowered to incur annual

expenditure for training to

railway employees by outside institutions

5 Crore 4 Crore 3 Crore 1 Crore

196 What is the purpose of GEQD in a

competitive examination

To ascertain

authenticity of a

handwritten

document

To ascertain

authenticity of a

certificate issued by

examination board

To check

genuineness of

thumb impression

None of

these



197 Please choose correct one: I RRB is headed by a Chairman II RRB is assisted by a member secretary III Chairman RRB is appointed by General Manager

Only I Only II Only III Only I and II

198 Member Secretary of a RRB is an

officer in the rank of

SAG JAG/SG HAG None of

these

199 RRB Muzaffarpur caters

requirements of which railway

prominently?

ER CR NER ECR

200 After conduct of OMR based

examination by RRB, duplicate

OMR sheets were kept in the

custody of

SDGM GM Railway Board

(RRCB)

None

201 Who is Chairman of RRCB ED/RRB AM/Staff MS CRB

202 Match the correct with reference to RRB’s I NCR a) Ajmer RRB II NWR b) Prayagraj RRB III NR c) Jammu RRB IV ECR d) Patna RRB

I-b, II-a, III-c, IV-d I-a, II-b, III-d, IV-c I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a I-c, II-b, III-d, IV-a

203 Choose the correct one I Chairman RRB is a SAG Cadre post of IRPS II Chairman RRC is a JAG/SAG cadre post of IRPS

Only I Only II I and II None

204 Choose the correct one. I IRPS is a specialized services for personnel Management of Railways II All RRB’s are headed by an IRPS Officers

Only I Only II I and II None




LEGAL MATTERS:


A B C D

1 Before 1997, an appeal against the

order of CAT had to be filed before:

High Court Principal Bench Supreme Court None of the above

2 Sexual harassment of women at

working place has been included in the

conduct rules as

Indira Sawaney Vishaka

Vs.State of

Rajasthan

Shabano‘s case None of the above

3 When a prosecution witness is declared

as hostile witness, the IO:

Can drop him Can cross

examine him

Can ask him not

to attend the

enquiry

None of the above

4 When an Inquiry officer is replaced by

another, the new IO has to proceed:

Afresh From the stage

left by the

earlier IO

From the stage

ordered by DA

From a stage

considered just

and proper by IO

5 Standard of proof

departmental enquiry:

required in As applicable

civil rules (CPC)

in As applicable in

Criminal rules

(Cr PC)

Preponderance

of probability

None of the above

6 Which of the following are the

ingredients of a decree:

There must

adjudication

be Such

adjudication is

given in a suit

Determination of

rights of the

parties

All of the above

7 An order means : Formal expression

of any civil court

It is not a

decree

both a & b None of the above

8 Judgement debtor means: Any person in

whose favour a

decree has been

passed

Any person

against whom a

decree has

been passed


9 Pleadings should state : Facts but not law No evidence both a & b None of the above

10 Sec 60 of CPC deals with: Attachment

property

of Auction of

buildings

Declaring

person pauper

a None of the above



11 When suits are filed by or against the

government, the authority to be named

as plaintiff or defendant, as the case

may be, in the case of Central

Union of India Designation of

the authority

Name of the

authority

Any of the above



government shall be:

12 When a suit is filed against railway,

notice in writing under Sec 80 shall be

delivered on:

General Manager Divisional

Railway

Manager

Officer

concerned

None of the above

13 Under Sec 80 of CPC no suit shall be

instituted unless a notice in writing is

delivered until the expiry of

months.

One Two Three Four

14 Exemption from arrest and personal

appearance of a public officer in respect

of any act purporting to be done by him

in his official capacity is provided in CPC

under:

Sec 80 Sec 81 Sec 85 None of the above

15 Against orders passed in appeal on a

decree, second appeal lies to High Court

if:

A substantial

question of law is

involved

There is

question of

merit


16 Caveat can be filed before the court

in a suit or proceeding instituted or

about to be instituted. Such caveat

shall remain in force for a period of:


17 Under which section of CPC, inherent

powers of courts can be exercised to

pass orders to meet the ends of justice:

Sec 150 Sec 151 Sec 152 Sec 136

18 Execution Petition can be filed to

execute a decree against

government before completion of

years from the date of

decree


19 A money suit by Govt. arising out of a

contract can be filed with in

years from the date of cause of action

arose.


20 As per the Rly. Act 1989 ―Rly Admn‖ in

relation to a Govt. Rly. Means:

Ministry of Rlys DRM GM Chairman Rly. Bd.

21 Punitive charges are levied when: Goods not

removed from Rly.

Premises

Detention of

rolling stock

Irregular

Travelling

detected

Wagons are over

loaded



22 Maximum carrying capacity of wagons

and trucks shall be fixed under Sec. 72

[1] of Rlys Act by:

General Manager Railway Board Central Govt. State Govt.

23 According which section of Rly. Act, the

property in the consignment covered by

a railway receipt shall pass to the

consignee or the endorsee:


24 A person shall not be entitled to claim

compensation against railway

Administration for the loss, destruction

etc., of goods carried by Railway unless

a notice there of is served by him as

prescribed under Sec:

102 104 106 101

25 In an application before claims tribunal

for compensation for loss, destruction,

damage, deterioration or non-delivery

of goods, the burden of proving the

monetary loss actually sustained shall lie

on:

Consigner Consignee Endorsee Person claiming

compensation

26 Who are dependents as per Sec. 123 of

Railway Act, 1989:

Son‘s son Daughter‘s

daughter

Daughter‘s son None of the above

27 Penalty for making a false statement

in an application for compensation is

prescribed under Sec

of the Railway Act:

148 149 150 151

28 Endangering safety of persons traveling

by willful act or omission is an offence

according to Sec. of Railway

Act:

152 153 154 155

29 Penalty for intoxication under Sec. 172

of Railways Act is prescribed for:

Railway servant Any person Traveling public None of the above



30 Which section of Rlys Act restricts

execution of railway property such as

rolling stock, machinery, plant, tools

etc., in a decree or order of any court:

185 186 187 188

31 As per Sec. 126 of Railways Act, interim

relief to the persons who are injured in

a train accident can be paid by:

RCT Railway

Administration

DRM

un

der whose

jurisdiction

accident

occurred

None of the above

32 An Appeal against the order of Dist.

Forum can be preferred to State

Commission within a period of ……..

from the date of the order:


33 Dist. Forum shall have jurisdiction to

entertain complaints where the value of

the goods or services and the

compensation of any does not exceed

rupees:

5 lakhs 20 lakhs 21 lakhs 01 Crore

34 An appeal can be preferred to the

Supreme Court against the order of

National Commission within a period of

…… from the date of order:


35 The RCT Act, 1987 came into force w.e.f.

……….:

11.01.1987 11.01.1989 08.11.1989 11.08.1987

36 Application before RCT for

compensation under Sec. 124, 124 A of

the Rly. Act 198: can be made within

…….. of the occurrence of the accident.

6 months 1 year 2 years 3 years

37 Application before RCT for claims

refund of fare & freight can be

made within …… years from the date on

which the fare or freight is paid to the

Rly. Admn.:

6 months 01 year 02 years 03 years

39 Arbitral Tribunal is bound by: (a)CPC (b)Evidence Act both a & b None of the above



40 Under the Arbitration and conciliation

Act, an Arbitral award will be

enforceable like a decree:

After

expiry of

3 months

Immediately After expiry six

months

of It cannot

enforced

be

41 If the Arbitral Tribunal fails to conduct

proceedings, it can be terminated:

By the claimant

By respondent By the

authority who

appointed the

Arbit

ral Tribunal

Court on application

aggrieved party

an

by

42 If the parties are aggrieved of the

costs and expenses fixed by the

Arbitral Tribunal, they may approach

civil court under:

Sec 34 Sec 37 Sec 39 Sec 21

43 Once Arbitral Tribunal parts with the

final award:

No

corrections

are

permitted

Typographical

errors only can

be rectified

any mistakes

can be

corrected

None of the above

44 The Chairman of the drafting committee

of constituent assembly of India was:

Dr.B.R.Ambedkar

Sri Babu

Rajendra

Prasad

Dr

Sarvep

alli Radha

Krishnan

Sri Jawaharlal Nehru

45 Which Article states ―The State shall

not discriminate against any citizen on

the grounds only of religion, race, caste,

sex place of birth or any of them‖ :


46 'Creamy layer‘ concept was expounded

by Supreme Court in:

Indira

Vs.UOI

Sawaney

Balaji Vs. State

of Mysore

Devasan Vs.UOI Akhil Bharatiya Karmachari

Sangh Vs.UOI

47 The Supreme Court in the following

case, held that reservation shall not

exceed 50%:

Balaji Vs.

State of

Mysore

Devadasan Vs

UOI

State of

Kerala

Vs.N.M.Thom

as

Indira Sawaney Vs.UOI

48 Double jeopardy means: A person

shall be

prosecuted and

punished for the same offence twice

No person shall

be punished for

the same offence twice

No person

shall be

punished for

Same offence more than once

A person shall be punished

for an

offence without committing it by him



49 Dr. Ambedkar, Chairman of the

drafting committee of constituent

assembly of India, describes which

Article is the very heart of the

Constitution of India:


50 Supreme Court may accept an appeal by

granting Special leave. The power to

grant such special leave is vested in the

Supreme Court by:


51 All contracts made in the exercise of the

executive power of the Union shall be

expressed to be made by:

The President The Governor Principal

Secretary

Concerned

the UOI

to

Minister

concerned

52 Government of India may sue or be

sued by the name of the Union of India

under which Article:

Article 299 Article 300 Article 302 None of the above

53 Doctrine of pleasure‘ was initially

originated in which of the following

country:

France Great Britain America India

54 Under which Article, 'doctrine of

pleasure‘ is incorporated in Indian

Constitution:


55 In which Article, the provisions relating

to dismissal, removal, or reduction in

rank of persons employed in civil

capacity under the Union or State is

dealt with :


56 Right to information flows from which

of the following Articles:

Articles 19 & 20 Articles 21 & 22 Articles 19 & 21 Articles 14 & 19

57 Govt. contracts are governed by Article

of Constitution of India:

300 301 311 299

58 Article of constitution provides safeguard to a Govt. servant before he was removed/dismissed or compulsory retired from service

309 310 311 All of the above



59 A peon working in Railways met with an

accident and injured while carrying a file

to another office. Whether He is:

Eligible

compensation

under WC Act

for Not eligible to

receive

compensation

under WC Act

Eligible to

receive

compensation as

exgratia

payment

None of the above

60 The following come under the purview

of WC Act :

Apprentices Casual worker RPF staff None of the above

61 Limitation within which claim for

Workmen‘s compensation should be

preferred from the date of occurrence

of the accident:

One year Two years Three years No limitation

62 Fines imposed on workman can be

recovered from the wages as per

Payment of Wages Act. The maximum

amount of fine shall not exceed:

3% of wages 5% of wages 7% of wages 10% of wages

63 If the charged employee complains that

he could not attend enquiry because of

non payment of subsistence allowance,

IO has to:

Arrange for

same

the Conduct

enquiry

parte

the

ex

Advise the DA to

arrange

subsistence

allowance

Ask the charged

employee to make

his own

arrangements to

attend the enquiry

64 Enquiry in major penalty charge sheet is

not compulsory when:

DA decides not to

conduct enquiry

Charged

employee

admits

charges

the

Charged

employee is out

of country

Charge sheet

cannot be served

due to absconding

65 Which of the following employment

of a railway servant does not belong

to 'Excluded‘ category as per Sec. 130 of

Rlys Act?

Railway servants

employed in a

marginal or

confidential

capacity

A canteen

worker

Staff of the

railway schools

imparting

technical

training or

academic

education

None of the above

66 If any person, with intent to defraud a

railway Administration, uses a single

pass or ticket which has already been used on a previous journey, he shall be liable to pay:

Excess charge Ordinary single

fare for the

distance which he travelled




67 Fraudulently travelling or attempting

to travel without proper pass or

ticket, attracts provision of Sec. 137 of

Rlys Act which prescribes punishment

of:

Imprisonment for

six months or fine

upto Rs. 1000 or

both

Imprisonment

for a term

which may

extend up to six

months

Either a or b None of the above

68 Which one of the following matters is

within the jurisdiction of RRT:

Fixation

wharfage

demurrage

charges

of

&

Allegation of

undue

preference to a

person or any

particular traffic

Classification or

re-classification

of any

commodity

Both A & B

69 Which of the following is not a correct

statement :

RCT shall

guided

principles

natural justice.

be

by

of

RCT is bound by

procedure laid

down by the

code of civil

procedure.

Subject to the

other provisions

of RCT Act and of

any rules the

claims Tribunal

shall have

powers to

regulate its own

procedure

including the

fixing of places

and time of its

enquiry.

B or C is correct.

70 Which of the following is an example for

―'invitation to offer‘: in Legal terms:

A tender Railway

table

time Catalogue of a

bookseller/menu

card in hotel

All of the above

71 A Senior Section Engineer, while going

to Baroda House to report to his

superior officer met with an accident in

front of Baroda House. He is:

Eligible

compensation

under WC Act

for Not eligible to

receive

compensation

under WC Act

Eligible to

receive

compensation as

exgratia

payment

None of the above

72 From the beginning‘ can also be

expressed in the following maxim :

ab initio sine initio initio idem None of the above



73 Ipso facto' means: By that very fact Fact of

the issue

Factually Fact and evidence

74 Prima facie' means Preliminary issue At first sight Face of the issue None of the above

75 Intra vires' means: Having no power Within

th

e power

Some thing

illegal

None of the above

76 Malfeasance‘, in legal terms means: Wrongful act Malafide act Either a or b None of the above

77 An 'indispensable condition‘ is the

meaning of which of the following

maxim:

sine qua non condi

indespensa

quid pro quo obiter dicta

78 Obiter Dictum' means: An opinion voiced

by a judge on a

point of law

Decision

rendered by the

court

Direction by the

court to

department

None of the above

79 Between living persons‘ is the meaning

of which of the following maxims:

Inter vivos vivacious vini vidi vici None of the above

80 Doctrine of notional extension of

employment means:

The area beyond

the precincts of

the work place

Time beyond

duty hours

Extend to the

outer sphere of

his area of

working but the

work is related

tohis

employment

All of the above

81 A contract by which one party promises

to save the other from loss caused by

the conduct of the promisor himself, or

by the conduct of any other person, is

called:

Contract of

guarantee

Contract

o

f indemnity

Contract of

surety

Under taking

contract

82 In some instances, mere silence

becomes fraud, and it is the duty of the

person who enters that contract to

reveal the truth. Which one is an

exception?

Insurance

contracts

Partnership

agreements

Family

settlement

agreements

None of the above

83 In certain cases there may be no

agreement and contract between the

parties. However, a person making a promise may become bound to obey his promise. This is called:

Standard form

contract

Promissory

estoppels

Wager contract None of the above



84 When the person to whom the proposal

is made, signifies his assent thereto, the

proposal is said to be accepted. A

proposal, when accepted, becomes:

A valid proposal Promise Consideration None of the above

85 Arbitral Tribunal can admit expert

evidence of a person:

Who is an expert

in the subject and

also had some

nexus with the

case

Expert with no

nexus with the

case

Any outsider,

who can depose

Who is an

advocate

86 In which one of the following, National

Commission has jurisdiction?

To entertain an

appeal against

orders of State

Commission.

To entertain a

complaint the

value of which

is

Rs.50,00,000/-.

To call for

records from

State

Commission

where it appears

it has exercised

jurisdiction not

vested in it

All of the above

87 Which of the following is not an

exception to general responsibility of

Rly. Admn. as carrier of goods:

Act or conscious

negligence of the

consignor or the

consignee

Act or omission

of the agent or

servant of the

consignor or

the consignee

or the endorse

Act or omission

of Rly officials

while accepting

goods for

carriage

Orders or

restriction imposed

by the central govt.

or state govt. or by

an officer

authorized in this

behalf.

88 Which of the following power is not

vested with authorized officer under

Sec. 180-B of Rlys Act?

Summon and

enforce the

attendance of any

person

Require the

discovery and

production of

any document

Remand any

person to the

custody of

authorized

officer not

exceeding 7 days

None of the above

89 If any person, not being a railway

servant or an agent authorized in this

behalf sells or attempts to sell any ticket

in order to enable any other person to

travel there with:

He shall forfeit the

ticket which he

sells or attempts

to sell

Shall be

punishment

with

imprisonment

which may extend to three months

Punishable with

fine which may

extend to five

hundred rupees

All of the above



90 Who is not a dependent for the purpose

of liability of Railway administration for

the death to passengers due to

accident:

A minor child of

a pre-deceased

daughter, if

wholly dependent

on the deceased

passenger

Widowed

daughter-in-law

and a minor

child of a pre-

deceased son if

dependent

wholly or partly

on the

deceased

passenger

Paternal grand

parent of the

deceased

passenger

irrespective of

dependency

Paternal grand

parent wholly

dependent on the

deceased

passenger.

91 An employee working with South

Eastern Rly. Kolkatta, on retirement

settled in Vijayawada. He had some

problem with his pension payment. He

can file an OA before CAT Bench of:

Kolkatta Vijayawada Any where in

India

Either a or b

92 Services of a permanent Rly. Employee

are governed by:

Terms of

agreement at the

time of

appointment.

Terms of

contract

entered

between

employee &

Rly. Admn.

Statutory Rules

made from time

to time.

Rules framed by

UPSC

93 Which of the following is correct wrt

D&A Rules:

DA can remit the

matter back to the

Inquiry officer for

further enquiry

DA has to

accept Inquiry

Officer‘s report

DA has to refer

the matter to

appellate

authority

DA has to report to

DRM

94 Who among the following cannot act as

IO:

An officer who

had conducted

fact finding

enquiry

A person who is

interested in

punishing the

charged

employee

A person who

has personal

Knowledge in

the charges

All of the above

95 Contract labour (Regulation and

abolition) Act applies to establishments

wherein number of workmen employed

during the preceding one year:

Twelve Twenty Twenty Four Thirty



96 For recovery of money due from an

employer under ID Act, workman has

to file application before under the

following section:

Sec 26 Sec 33 A Sec 33 b 33 C

97 Penalty for illegal strike and lockouts

is provided under which of the

following sections:

Sec 25 Sec 26 Sec 33 None of the above

98 It is the duty of the employer to

maintain the muster rolls of every

workmen. Which section deals with this

provision:

Sec 25-D Sec 25-E Sec 25-F None of the above

99 Under Industrial Disputes Act, Railway

is:

Public Utility

Service

Essential

service

Public

transportation

service

All of the above

100 Which section of Contract Act states

that the effect of failure to perform at

fixed time in a contract where time is

essential

Sec 54 Sec 55 Sec 56 Sec 57

101 Caveat emptor‘ in Legal terms means: Let the seller

beware

Let the buyer

beware

Agreement with

Emperor

None of the above

102 Which Article of the Constitution states

that ―the official language of the

Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari

script. The form of numerals to be

used for the official purpose shall be

the international form of Indian

numerals‖ :





RTI ACT 2005:


A B C D

1 How many Sections covered under RTI Act?

10 15 20 12

2 Which of the following is not come

under the definition of 'information'

under RTI Act 2005?

Log books File noting Data material

held in any

electronic form

Circulars

3 The officer designated by the public

authorities in all administrative units or

offices under it to provide information

to the citizens requesting for

information under the Act is known as

Appellate

Authority

Chief

Information

Commissioner

(CIC)

Public

Information

Officer (PIO)

Assistant Public

Information Officer

4 What is the time limit to get the

information under RTI Act 2005?


5 What is the time limit to get the

information concerning the life and

liberty of a person?

48 hours 24 hours 5 days 10 days

6 If the interests of a third party are

involved in information sought for, the

maximum time limit to get the

information will be

30 Days 40 Days 45 Days 60 Days

7 If information sought has been supplied

by third party or is treated as

confidential by that third party, the

third party must be given a

representation before the PIO in reply

to the notice issued to:


8 What is the fee for getting information

under RTI Act

Rs. 20/- Rs. 50/- Rs. 100/- Rs. 10/-

9 First appeal to the first appellate

authority can be preferred by the

applicant within days from

the expiry of the prescribed time limit

or from the receipt of the decision from the PIO

30 Days 45 Days 60 days 90 Days



10 First Appeal shall be disposed of by the first

appellate authority

within days from the date

of its receipt.


11 Period for disposing first appeal can be

expand by days from 30 days

if necessary


12 The long title of the RTI Act seeks to

promote the following qualities in the

working of every public authority:

Transparency Punctuality Efficiency Reputation

13 Second appeal to the Central Information

Commission/ the State Information

Commission can be preferred by the

applicant within days from the date

on which the decision was given or should

have been

30 Days 45 Days 60 days 90 Days

14 Appointment Committee of Central Chief

Information Commissioner (CIC) includes

Prime Minister Leader of the

Opposition in

the Lok Sabha

One Union

Cabinet Minister

to be nominated

All the above by

the Prime Minister

15 Consider the following statements about

the right to information (RTI) Act, 2005 and

select one which is not provided for or

specially exempted

It is not

applicable in

the state of

Jammu

and Kashmir

An applicant

making request

for information

will have to give

reasons for

seeking

information

Removal of chief

information

officer

Every information

commissioner shall

hold office for a

term of 5 years or

till the age of 65

years whichever is

earlier

16 The RTI Act gives right to seek

information from the following:

Private companies

MNCs Public

Authorities

Associations

17 Central Chief Information Commissioner

(CIC) is appointed by

President Vice President Prime Minister Home Minister

18 Chief Information Commissioner (CIC)

shall be appointed for a term of

years from date on which he

enters upon his office or till he attains the

age of years, whichever is earlier

6 years / 66 years

5 years/ 70

years

5 years / 65

years

5 years / 60 years



19 Section 4 (1) (b) (xi) of RTI Act states that

a public authority should publish:

The

bu

dget allocated

to each of its

agency

Proposed

expenditures

Reports on

disbursements

made

All the above

20 What is the time span mentioned in the

`RTI Act, 2005` for making orders for

removing difficulties in giving effect to the

provisions of the `RTI Act, 2005`?

2 years from

the

commence

ment of the

Act

1 years from

the

commencement

of the Act

3 years from the

commencement

of the Act

4 years from the

commencement of

the Act

21 The Second Schedule of the RTI Act,

2005 can be amended by :

Central

Governm

ent

State

Government

Both None

22 RTI Act 2005 comes into force

after days of its enactment

120 75 100 125

23 RTI Act 2005 enacted on 2nd October,2005

15th June,2005 15th

August,2005

26th January,2005

24 Which section of RTI Act 2005 deals with

'obligations of public authorities

Section 6 Section 7 Section 4(1) Section 8

25 Which section of RTI Act 2005 deals with

'constitution of Central Information

Commission

Section 11 Section 16 Section 14 and

15

Section 12 and 13

26 The Act extends to the whole of India

except the State of

Jammu

and Kashmir

Sikkim North Eastern

area

Andaman &

Nicobar island

27 How much time does an APIO, at the most ,

have to forward an RTI application/appeal

to the Public Information Officer/First

Appellate Authority


28 There is an upper limit for the number of

PIOs and APIOs to be appointed by a Public

Authority (PA) as per the `RTI Act, 2005

Yes No. There is no

such limit,

whatsoever, as

per the `RTI Act,

2005

Yes, but only for

State PAs

Yes, because, the

number of PIOs

should be in a

definite proportion

to the total

number of APIOs



29 Right to information includes the right

to obtaining information in the form of:

Diskettes Floppies Tapes All of the Above

30 The Preamble argues that revelation of

information in actual practice is likely to

conflict with:

Other private

interests

Other financial

interests

Other public

interests

None of the above

31 The Preamble to the RTI Act states that

transparency of information is vital to:

Eradicate

corruption

Contain

corruption

Promote

corruption

Measure

corruption

32 32. Which Section of RTI Act deals with

'exemption from disclosure of

information'.

Section 8 Section 9 Section 11 Section 7

33 Under which Section, a Central/State

Public Information Officer may reject a

request for information where such a

request for providing access would

involve an infringement of copyright

sub:


34 The definition of "information" under

Section 2 (f) includes:

Records Opinions Documents All the above

35 Asst. Public Information Officer (APIO)

has to forward first appeals to:

Public Information

Officer (PIO)

The head of the

authority

First Appellate

Authority

None of the above

36 The `RTI Act, 2005` stipulates that a

Public Authority should transfer an RTI

application or a part thereof to another

Public Authority if the application or a

part of it pertains to information:

held by another

Public Authority

the subject

matter of which

is more closely

connected with

the functions of

another Public

Authority

Both (a) and (b) Neither (a) nor (b)

37 Time limit for disposal of first appeal by

the first appellate authority:

10 - 15 days 30 - 45 days 50 - 65 days 70 - 90 days

38 Asst. Public Information Officer (APIO)

has to receive the following from the

citizens:

Applications for

information

First appeals Second appeals All the above

39 Which section deals with Severability of

the RTI Act




40 RTI Act is not applicable to All non-

Government

organisation

substantially

financed by

political parties

All non-

Government

organisation

substantially

financed by the

appropriate

Government

All body owned,

controlled or

substantially

financed by the

appropriate

Government

All of the Above

41 How many countries in the world have

Freedom of Information or Right to

Information legislations / regimes?

None All Less Than a

Dozen

Over 80

42 Who receives applications under the

`RTI Act, 2005?

Public Information

Officer at the

administrative

unit level

Assistant Public

Information

Officer at the

sub-district,

sub-divisional

levels

Any officer of a

Public Authority

who is available

in the

Authority`s

office when the

application is

made

Only (a) and (b)

43 An applicant making request for

information

shall be given the

reason why the

information

sought for

shall be given

the personal

details of the

applicant

shall not be

given any reason

for requesting

the information

or any other

personal details

except those

that may be

necessary for

contacting him

None of the above

44 Under RTI Act, the language of an

application may be in

English Hindi Regional

language

All the above

45 Which was the first country in the

World to have enacted a legislation for

providing for citizens` RTI?

Sweden Norway England France

46 The first Indian state that introduce the

law on RTI was

Tamil Nadu Uttar Pradesh Maharashtra Gujarat



47 How many types of 'Public Authorities' Central Public State Public Both None of the above

are there? Authorities Authorities

48 The time limit specified in the `RTI Act,

2005` for the Central / State

Information Commissions to decide on

complaints is

15 days One Month Two Months No such time limit

has been specified

49 A first appeal against the decision of a

PIO can be preferred by

An Applicant A person from

within the

Public Authority

A person outside

the Public

Authority to

whom the

information

pertains

All

50 A Public Information Officer will be

liable to be imposed a monetary penalty

for

Refusal to receive

an information

application

Not providing

information

within specified

time limits

Destroying

information

All of them

51 Which of the following are true? A PIO has to offer

reasonable

assistance to an

applicant to

reduce an oral

application into

writing

A PIO is under

no obligation to

provide

requested

information to

non-BPL

category

persons without

the payment of

application /

initial fees

A PIO is under no

obligation to

provide the

requested

information to

non-BPL

category persons

without the

payment of

further fees as

specified by her

/ him

All of these

52 Time limit for filing first appeal by a

requester under sub-section (1) of

Section 19 is:

10 days from the

receipt of PIOs

decision

30 days from

the receipt of

PIOs decision

40 days from the

receipt of PIOs

decision

45 days from the

receipt of PIOs

decision

53 How many schedules does the `RTI Act,

2005` have?

5 10 2 8



54 The Second Schedule of the RTI Act,

2005 lists

The intelligence

and security

organizations

established by the

Central

Government that

are exempted

from the purview

of the `RTI Act,

2005

All the Govt.

organisations

come under the

purview of RTI

All Departmental

information of

Central and

State

None of the above

55 According to the `RTI Act, 2005`, as far

as exempted organizations are

concerned, the exemption applies to

Certain

organizations of

the Central

Government as

listed in the 2nd

Schedule and to

the information

submitted by

these

organizations to

this Government

Certain

organizations of

the State

Governments as

may be notified

by them in the

Official Gazette,

but NOT to the

information

furnished by

these

organizations to

the respective

State

Governments

Both (A) & (B) None of the above

56 While inquiring into a complaint,

Information Commissions have the

power to

Receive evidence

on affidavit

Requisition

record or copies

thereof from

any court or

office

Issue summons

for examination

of witnesses or

documents

All of them

57 Indian citizens have the right to

information because of

Judgment of

Supreme Court

Implementation

of International

Laws by Indian

Government

All states

adopted agree

to implement

the Act

A law passed by

the Parliament of

India

58 Rules can be made by Appropriate

Governments or Competent Authorities

by notifying the rules:

In the Official

Gazette

by publishing

them on the

website of the

Appropriate

Government

by publishing

them on the

websites of

information

commission as

applicable

None of the above

59 What is exempted from free under RTI SC & ST OBC BPL Women



Act

60 The Information Commissioner may be

removed by -

President Prime Minister Home Minister none of these

61 Which section deals with penalty under

RTI, 2005 -

Section 6 Section 11 Section 20 section 21

62 What in the maximum amount to be

imposed under RTI Act, 2005 -

Rs. 250/- Rs 5,000/- Rs.20,000/- Rs.25,000/-

63 From which Article(s) of the

Constitution of India does the RTI Act,

2005 derive its sanction?


64 An Appeal against a decision of a State

Information Commission lies with-

Central

Information

Commission

Supreme Court High Court District Court

65 Following Section of RTI Act, 2005 states

that the Act will not apply in certain

organizations (list prescribed in the

Second Schedule):





MISCELLANEOUS MATTERS:


A B C D

1 Which category of Pass/PTO facility is

admissible to Gr-A & Gr-B Railway

Employee?

1st Class 1st Class-A 2nd class 2nd classA

2 Panel of instructors for recognised

training institutes is to be drawn on the

basis of

Seniority Merit Only Classroom

lecture trial

Written test

3 Written test for instructors for

recognised training institutes is

conducted for

50 marks 60 marks 75 marks 100 marks

4 Upper age limit on the date of

notification for the post of instructor is


5 Maximum tenure for the post of

instructor is


6 Advance increment granted to

sportsperson after 9.7.2009 - Indicate

wrong statement

Would continue to

be drawn at same

rate till

retirement.

Will not be

counted for pay

fixation on

promotion.

Will not be

counted for

retirement

benefits

Will be taken into

account for drawal

of DA & HRA

7 Interest rate on HBA w.e.f. 1.10.2019 is 7.50% 7.90% 8.00% 8.50%

8 SRPF- Rate of interest from January

2020 to March 2020

8.50% 7.50% 7.90% 8.00%

9 Extension of joining time from the date

of offer of appointment shall not exceed

the period of

nine months twelve months three months six months

10 TADK shall be covered under National

Pension Scheme (NPS)

On attaining

Temporary Status

After screening On completion

of 3 years

None of these

11 Financial implication for creation of

posts in 7 CPC is calculated based on

( Pay in Cell 1 &

Cell 10)/2

(Pay in Cell 1 &

Cell 10)/2 +DA

Pay in Cell 1 +DA ( Pay in Cell 1 &

Cell 15)/2 +DA

12 Scheme of hiring of para-medical

categories in Group 'C' on contract basis

is valid upto

31.12.2020 30.6.2020 30.09.2020 1.12.2020



13 DR quota in the cadre of Signal

Maintainer-II is

33.33% NIL 15% 25%

14 DR Quota in the cadre of Signal

Maintainer-I is

33.33% NIL 15% 25%

15 For eligibility of PRCP service rendered

in Central/State government will be

taken into consideration for

25% 100% 50% NIL

16 Pre-selection training to SC/ST

candidates for Group B should be

granted for

1-3 weeks 3-4 weeks 2-3 weeks 4-6 weeks

17 Review of services of Group "A' & 'B'

under Rule 1802 (a) , IREC Vol.II, who

entered service before 35 years of age

can be done

after attaining 50

years

after attaining

55 years

after attaining

58 years

None of these

18 Any employee irrespective of age can be

retired prematurely by giving three

months notice after he has completed

qualifying service of


19 Re-engaged employees in a calendar

year are entitled for leave of


20 Sahayaks (Licensed Porter) are entitled

for 'Complimentary Admin' cheque pass

in a calendar year

two set one set three set NIL

21 APAR of employees in Level-I was

introduced from year

2018-19 2017-18 2019-20 2016-17

22 Verification of qualifying service should

be done

after 25 years of

service & 2 years

before retirement

after 20 years

of service & 3

years before

retirement

after 18 years of

service & 2 years

before

retirement

after 18 years of

service & 5 years

before retirement

23 In all cases of over stay in service

beyond the age of superannuation the

officer/staff should be taken up under D

& A Rules for imposing

either minor or

major penalty

major penalty minor penalty None of these



24 Period of over stay in service beyond

superannuation is

no recovery of pay fait accompli irregular and

pay/allowances

allowed to be

recovered

regular & pay for

duty performed is

to be given

25 GM has the powers to grant

honorarium to non-gazetted railway

staff in each individual case upto

Rs. 15000/- Rs. 10,000/- Rs. 25,000/- Rs. 20,000/-

26 Honorarium payable to SAG & above

officers for delivering lecture in NAIR is

upto Rs. 10000/-

per session of

upto 2 hours

upto Rs.

15000/- per

session of upto

2 hours

upto Rs. 5000/-

per session of

upto 4 hours

upto Rs. 5000/- per

session of upto 2

hours

27 Honorarium payable to JAG/SG officers

for delivering lecture in Zonal Training

Schools/Centres is

Rs. 1500 per day

for lectures of 2

hours duration

subject to

maximum of Rs.

4500/- per week

Rs. 1250 per

day for lectures

of 2 hours

duration

subject to

maximum of Rs.

5000/- per

week

Rs. 1250 per day

for lectures of 2

hours duration

subject to

maximum of Rs.

2500/- per week

Rs. 1250 per day

for lectures of 2

hours duration

subject to

maximum of Rs.

3750/- per week

28 The lectures by visiting faculty in Zonal

Training Schools/Centres should not

cover the total training session more

than the

25% 15% 10% 20%

29 A retired Inquiry officer of Selection

Grade completes inquiry of gazetted

officer (vigilance case) within 180 days

is eligible for honorarium of

Rs. 21,000/- Rs. 30,000/- Rs. 60,000/- Rs. 15,000/-

30 The rate of honorarium for conducting

inquiry in vigilance case & non- vigilance

cases is

same half in non-

vigilance cases

no honorarium

in non-vigilance

cases

one third for non-

vigilance cases

31 Nucleus Cipher Operator Category 'A'

are paid honorarium

Rs. 4500/- per

annum

Rs. 75/- per day Rs 120/- per day Rs. 60/- per day

with a minimum of

Rs. 4050/- per

annum



32 Honorarium is not payable for CBT invigilation- DV for Level-2 & PET DV for Level-I

RRC/RRB above by RRB

33 Certificate which is not acceptable as

proof for Date of Birth

High School

Certificate

Baptismal

Certificate

Municipal

Certificate

Horoscope

34 Pension Adalat are held normally on 10th December 15th October 15th December 10th November

35 Informal meeting of SC/ST Association

with GM is held

thrice in a year twice in a year once in a year quaterly meeting

36 Number of participants in Informal

Meeting of SC/ST at Railway Board level

are

25 20 30 24

37 Number of I AC card Passes with All

India jurisdiction are issued to SC/ST

Association at Apex level is

1 2 3 5

38 The limit of stay away from Head

Quarters for Running staff should be

fixed at

60 hours 48 hours 96 hours 72 hours

39 Total duty of running staff at a stretch

Sign on to Sign off should not exceed

14 hours 12 hours 11 hours 10 hours

40 Roster of Intensive category should be

prepared such that

they don't work

for 7 days and get

minimum weekly

rest of 40 hours

they get

minimum

weekly rest of

38 hours with

night in bed

they don't work

for 7 days and

get minimum

weekly rest of 30

hours.

they don't work for

7 days and get

minimum weekly

rest of 42 hours

41 The weight of Gold Plated medals

presented to railway employees is

15 grams 20 grams 25 grams 30 grams

42 The diameter of the Gold plated medal

presented to employees on retirement

is

2.5 inches 2 inches 1.5 inches 1.8 inches

43 For Informal Meeting Office bearers of

AISCSTREA are granted journey time

plus special CL for

3 days 1 day NIL 2 days



44 Rashtriya Ekta Diwas was celebrated on 31 Oct, 2019 10 April,2019 31 Dec,2019 30 Nov,2019

45 Birth Anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Anti Corruption Rashtriya Ekta Sangathan Diwas Deshbhakti diwas

Patel is celebrated as Day Diwas

46 Anti-terrorism day is celebrated on 31-May 30-Jan 2-Oct 8-Jun

47 GM is authorised to sanction an

investigation of arrears claim

irrespective of the amount involved

provided

the claim is not

over two years old

from the date it

becomes due

the claim is not

over five years

old from the

date it becomes

due

the claim is not

over ten years

old from the

date it becomes

due

the claim is not

over three years

old from the date

it becomes due

48 Charter of Commitments on various

matters provide

SOP on

establishment

matters

Penalty for

delay

Timelines for

notified 18

activities on

Personnel

matters

for guidelines for

writing APARs

49 Instructions related to Special Leave

connected to inquiry of sexual

harassment are contained in IREC Vol.-I

Para

551 (E) 551 (F) 551 (J) 551 (G)

Question Bank Kanchrapara Eastern Railway Personnel ...

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