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INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK PRELIMINARY EXAM - 2014
INSIGHTS ON INDIA MOCK TEST - 15 GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS 1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test I
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See
directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted
to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if
one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.
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1. Consider the following statements 1. The plateau of Tibet is one of the
important factors which determines the onset of monsoon over the Indian sub-continent
2. The tropical easterly Jet Stream over India is developed because of heating of the Tibetan Plateau
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 Only b. 2 Only c. Both d. None
2. Consider the following statements
about the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG):
Assertion (A): His constitutional status in the Table of precedence is same as that of a Supreme Court Judge. Reason (R): He can be removed in the same manner as that of a Supreme Court Judge, and his allowances, service conditions and other benefits are at par with the latter. In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
c. A is incorrect but R is correct. d. A is correct but R is incorrect.
3. With reference to Aravalli mountains,
consider the following statements 1. It is one of the oldest block
mountains of the world 2. Raisina Hill in Delhi is actually a
part of Aravalli system
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only b. 2 Only c. Both d. None
4. Consider the following statements
about the National Mission on Empowerment of Women (NMEW): 1. The programme aims to provide a
single window clearance mechanism for various women related schemes under the aegis of several Ministries.
2. It would focus on not just the vocational training needs but also the higher education and professional training needs of the women.
3. It would cover the age group of 14-59.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
5. Consider the following statements
about the powers and functions of the CAG: 1. The Parliament can reduce the
powers of the CAG with only a simple majority in each of the houses.
2. He audits the expenditure both from the Consolidated Fund of India and Contingency fund of India.
3. He can also audit the accounts of a Zila Parishad if provided by the President of India.
Which of these is/are true?
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
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6. Consider the following statements about the duties and functions of the CAG: 1. The CAG is responsible to the
incumbent government. 2. He compiles and maintains the
accounts of the state governments. 3. The CAG can look and officially
comment on the inefficiencies and ineffectiveness in government expenditure.
Which of these is/are true?
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. None of the above d. Only 3
7. In which of the following category the
highest numbers of people are employed in India?
a. Self-Employment b. Casual employment c. Public employment d. None of the above
8. Which of the following health
schemes/interventions are part(s) of the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)? 1. Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) 2. Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy,
Unani, Siddha and Homoepathy (AYUSH)
3. Rashtriya Baal Swasthya Karyakram (RSBK)
4. Rogi Kalyan Samiti ( Patient welfare Committees)
5. Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSY)
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a. All of the above b. 1, 2 and 5 c. 1 and 2 only d. 3, 4 and 5
9. Consider the following statements about the Attorney-General (AG) of India: 1. He must have been either a judge
of Supreme or High courts, or an advocate in the High courts.
2. He is guaranteed security of tenure by the constitution of India considering the important duties that he performs.
3. The grounds of removal of the AG are not mentioned in the constitution.
Which of these is/are true?
a. Only 3 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. 1 and 2
10. Consider the following statements about the office of the Solicitor General of India: 1. The office is created by the
constitution of India. 2. He looks after the legal matters of
the Central government and assists the Central Cabinet in the discharge of its duties.
Which of these is/are true?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both d. None of the above
11. Consider the following statements about the Planning Commission: 1. All the cabinet ministers are
members of the Planning Commission.
2. The Chairman of Planning Commission is a member of the
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cabinet but does not have a right to vote in its decisions.
Which of these is/are true?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both d. None of the above
12. Consider the following statements about the functions of the Planning Commission:
Assertion (A): The body has no executive responsibility. Reason (R): It is an extra-constitutional body. In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
c. A is incorrect but R is correct. d. None of the above
13. Consider the following statements about National Development Council (NDC): 1. The Planning Commission can go
against the recommendations of the National Development Council (NDC).
2. The Five year plans framed by the Planning Commission are first approved by the NDC before being forwarded to the Parliament.
Which of these is/are true?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both d. None of the above
14. Which of the following is/are true
about the functions and composition of the NDC? 1. It can make recommendations to
the Central as well as the state governments.
2. All the Union cabinet ministers are a part of the NDC.
Which of these is/are true?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both d. None of the above
15. Consider the following statements
about the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC): 1. It is a non-constitutional and a non-
statutory body. 2. NHRC can not be dictated by the
Union government while looking into cases of human rights violations.
Which of these is/are true?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both d. None of the above
16. Which of the following islands is not an Offshore Island in India?
1. New Moore Island
2. Sagar Island
3. Diu
4. Sri Harikota
5. Aliabet
Choose the correct answer using the codes below
a. 3 and 4 Only
b. 1 and 4 Only
c. 3,4 and 5 Only
d. None of the above
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17. Consider the following statements
about the composition of the NHRC: 1. The Chairman of the NHRC must
be a retired Chief Justice of India. 2. The members can be serving judges
in the Supreme Court. 3. The National Commission of
women (NCW) is also represented in the NHRC.
Which of these is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
18. Which of the following is/NOT a part
of the Six-Member Committee which recommends the appointment of the Chairman and members of the NHRC to the President? 1. Vice-President of India. 2. Speaker of Lok Sabha. 3. Leader of opposition of Rajya
Sabha. 4. Central Home Minister
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a. 1 and 4 b. Only 1 c. Only 3 d. 2 and 4
19. This river rises in Shimoga district of Karnataka and creates Gersoppa Falls, also known as Jog Falls, the highest in India. Name the river.
a. The Netravati
b. The Sharavati
c. The Cauvery
d. The Kabini
20. Consider the following statements about the Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor (DMIC): 1. It will be a hub of manufacturing
oriented cities. 2. It would extend over, inter alia, the
states Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat also.
3. The entire facility is being solely financed by the Government of India and the states.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
21. Which of the following provisions ensure the independence of the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC) from the government? 1. After their tenure, the Chairman
and the members are not eligible for further employment under both the Central and State Governments.
2. The Chairman of the SHRC can be removed in the same manner and grounds as that of the High Court judges.
Which of these is/are true?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both d. None of the above
22. Consider the following statements
about the functions of the NHRC: 1. It can take suo moto cognizance of
any case of human right violation. 2. It can intervene in any proceeding
involving allegation of violation of human rights pending before a court.
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Which of these is/are true? a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both d. None of the above
23. Consider the following statements
about the powers of the NHRC: Assertion (A): The NHRC can prosecute the persons found guilty for grave violation of human rights. Reason (R): It has all the powers of a regular court in India and its proceedings have a judicial character. In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
c. A is incorrect but R is correct. d. Both A and R are incorrect.
24. Consider the following statements:
1. Lawfully, there should be a Human Rights Court in every district of India.
2. The NHRC has limited jurisdiction in the cases of human rights violation even by the Central Reserved Police Force (CRPF).
Which of these is/are true?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both d. None of the above
25. Consider the following statements
about the powers and functions of the CVC: 1. It exercises general
superintendence over the Central Bureau of Investigation which has
been established based on the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act.
2. It can only recommend the prosecution of corrupt All- India service officers to the Central government.
Which of these is/are true? a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both d. None of the above
26. Consider the following statements
about the Composition of the Central Information Commission (CIC); 1. Union Home Minister is invariably
a member of the committee which recommends the appointment of the CIC to the President of India.
2. The RTI Act mentions the qualifications of the CIC.
3. The CIC must necessarily have been a public servant served for a period of at least 10 years under the Government of India.
Which of these is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. Only 2
27. Consider the following statements
about the spending on the social sector in India: 1. The expenditure on social services
in a year by the government is about one-fourth of its total budget expenditure for a year in the most recently announced budget.
2. Among social services, education has the highest share of spending in the most recent yearly budget.
3. In India, private sector expenditure on health as a percentage of GDP is substantially higher than public expenditure.
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Which of these is/are correct? a. Only 1 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
28. Consider the following statements
about the powers and functions of the CIC:
1. The CIC can order suo moto inquiry into a relevant matter on reasonable grounds.
2. The CIC can admit a complaint where wrong or misleading information to the appellant has been provided.
3. It is the duty of the CIC to admit a complaint where the appellant has not been able to submit an information request because of non-appointment of the information officer.
Which of these is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
29. With reference to Deccan Trap,
consider the following statements 1. It was formed at the end of the
Carboniferous Period 2. It is formed of igneous rocks
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only b. 2 Only c. Both d. None
30. With reference to Dharwar System of
rocks, consider the following statements 1. These rocks belong to Pre-
Cambrian Period 2. These are mainly igneous in origin 3. These are rich in iron and
manganese ores
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 and 3 Only b. 2 Only c. 2 and 3 Only d. None
31. “While the growth in India‟s share of employment in industry seem to be at par with the growth of other Asian economies at similar stages, the surprising fact is that India‟s share of value added in industry has not grown to keep pace with its share of employment. It has actually fallen” – says a World Bank‟s recent report. Which of the following can possibly explain part of this problem? 1. The definition of industry
subsumes the low-level construction work.
2. Few jobs in the industry are formal in nature.
3. A majority of Indian working population does not work in the industries.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
32. Consider the following statements
1. The coal belts of Peninsular India were developed during the Gondwana Period
2. The rocks belonging to this period are well preserved in different parts of Yamuna, Ganges and Brahmaputra Rivers
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only b. 2 Only c. Both d. None
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33. Consider the following statements
1. Meghalaya Plateau is an extension of the Peninsular Plateau of India
2. The gap which separates Meghalaya Plateau from the Peninsular Plateau is known as Malda gap
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only b. 2 Only c. Both d. None
34. Consider the following statements 1. The Barakar River is the main
tributary of the Damodar River 2. The Tilaiya amd Maithon Dams are
constructed across Damodar River as part of Damodar Valley Corporation paroject
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only b. 2 Only c. Both d. None
35. With reference to the origin of the
Himalayas, consider the following statements 1. The Himalayas were formed as a
result of collision between two continental plates at convergent boundaries, namely Indo-Australian Plate and Eurasian Plate
2. The Himalaya are among the youngest mountain ranges on the planet and consist mostly of uplifted sedimentary and metamorphic rock.
3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands were also formed as a result of the same collision
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only c. 1 and 3 Only d. All
36. Which of the following mountain
passes is not located in the state of Jammu and Kashmir? 1. Jelep La 2. Bomdila 3. Banihal Pass 4. Bara Lacha La
Choose the correct answer using the codes below
a. 1 and 2 Only b. 1 and 4 Only c. 2 and 4 Only d. 1 Only
37. Consider the following statements
1. Bangar soils are less prone to floods
2. Bangar soils are nothing but new alluvial soils
3. Bangar solis are more fertile than Khadar soils
4. Khadar plains are those that are low-lying next to a river
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 and 2 Only b. 2 and 3 Only c. 2 and 4 Only d. 3 and 4 Only
38. With reference to Terai region,
consider the following statements 1. It is a marshy, wet region at the
foothills of Shiwalik ranges 2. The region is wild, uninhabited
and uncultivated
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only b. 2 Only c. Both d. None
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39. With reference to Rajasthan Plains,
consider the following statements 1. During Permo-Carboniferous
period, large tracts of Rajasthan Plain was under sea
2. Many of the lakes in Rajasthan are of freshwater
3. River Luni is the only river which flows through these plains and reaches the ocean through Rann of Kachchh
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only b. 2 and 3 Only c. 1 and 3 Only d. All
40. With reference to Rann of Kachchh,
consider the following statements 1. It is a salt marsh located in the state
of Gujarat 2. The area is uninhabited by people 3. The region was once a shallow part
of the Arabian Sea
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 and 2 Only b. 1 and 3 Only c. 2 and 3 Only d. 2 Only
41. Consider the following statements
1. Eastern Coastal plains are formed by the deposition of alluvial soil by rivers
2. Western Coastal plains are characterised by sandy beaches and sand dunes
3. There are no lagoons in the Eastern coastal plains
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. 3 Only
d. None
42. Consider the following statements
1. Bengali is the most spoken language in the Andaman and Nicobar islands
2. Shompen people mostly live in the North Andaman islands
3. The climate of Andaman and Nicobar islands is of tropical rainforest variety
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. 3 Only
43. Which of the following is/are given representation in the Planning Commission? 1. Chief Ministers of states. 2. Members of Parliament (MPs). 3. State Planning boards.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. 1 and 3 d. None of the above
44. With reference to Lakshadweep islands, consider the following statements
1. They form the smallest Union Territories of Government of India
2. The islands do not have any aboriginal groups
3. Lakshadweep have no coral reefs
Which of the above is/are correct?
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a. 1 and 3 Only
b. 1 and 2 Only
c. 2 and 3 Only
d. All
45. With reference to earthquakes in India, consider the following statements
1. Frequency of earthquakes is low in Peninsular India compared to the Himalayan region
2. High frequency of earthquakes in the Himalayan regions is attributed to the Plate movements in the lithosphere
3. The Seismic Zone – V consists of entire region of Kerala and Tamil Nadu
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. 3 Only
d. None
46. Consider the following statements
1. At present there are no active volcanoes in India
2. The main cause of volcanic eruptions are associated with plate-tectonics, orogeny and sea-floor spreading processes
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both
d. None
47. Consider the following statements
1. A river basin is the portion of land drained by a river and its tributaries. I
2. A watershed is simply the area of land that catches rain and snow and drains or seeps into a marsh, stream, river, lake or groundwater.
3. A river basin contains many watersheds
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 1 and 3 Only
d. All
48. Consider the following statements
1. Drainage Pattern is the pattern formed by the streams, rivers, and lakes in a particular drainage basin.
2. In a dendritic system/pattern, the streams radiate outwards from a central high point. Volcanoes usually display excellent dendritic drainage.
3. A drainage pattern is described as discordant if it does not correlate to the topology and geology of the area
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 3 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 1 and 2 Only
d. All
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49. Consider the following statements about the rights and limitations of the Attorney-General of India: 1. He has the right to speak and take
part in the proceedings of both the houses of the Parliament.
2. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament.
3. He can not advise or hold a brief against the Government of India.
Which of these is/are true?
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
50. Which of the following areas are
covered under the scheme „Bharat Nirmaan‟? 1. Electricity 2. Irrigation 3. Rural telephony 4. Education 5. Drinking water and sanitation
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 2, 3 and 5 d. 4 and 5
51. Which of the following pair is/are correct?
River Sanskrit Name
1. The Jhelum Vitasta
2. The Chenab Satadru
3. The Satluj Asikni
4. The Beas Argikiya
Choose the correct pair using the codes below
a. 1 and 3 Only
b. 2 and 4 Only
c. 1 and 4 Only
d. 1 and 2 Only
52. With reference to the Ghaggar river, consider the following statements
1. It is a perennial river
2. It has internal drainage system
3. It originates in the Shiwalik Ranges
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 2 and 3 Only
b. 1 and 3 Only
c. 1 and 2 Only
d. All
53. With reference to Ganges river, consider the following statements
1. The name Ganges is used for the river between the confluence of the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda rivers, in the Himalayas
2. It‟s source is said to be Gangotri or Gomukh glacier which gives rise to Bhagirathi river
3. The mouth of the Ganges is nothing but the mouth of the Meghna River on the Bay of Bengal
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. 3 Only
d. None
54. It is the second largest brackish– water lake or lagoon in India. It straddles the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu states on the Coromandal Coast in South India. The lake encompasses the famous bird sanctuary. Name the lake.
a. Kolleru Lake
b. Chilka lake
c. Pulicat Lake
d. Kaliveli Lake
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55. With reference to Wular lake, consider the following statements
1. The lake basin was formed as a result of tectonic activity and is fed by the Sutluj River
2. It is India‟s largest fresh water lake
3. It is located in Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 1 and 2 Only
d. All
56. With reference to the Indus Water Treaty, consider the following statements
1. It was brokered by the World Bank
2. India revoked the treaty two times during three Indo-Pakistani Wars.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both
d. None
57. Consider the following statements about the Advocate General in the states of India:
Assertion (A): While he is appointed by the Governor of the state, he can be removed only by the President of India. Reason (R): He has the same constitutional status as that of the Chairman of the State Public Service Commission. In the context of the statements above, which of these is true?
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
c. A is incorrect but R is correct. d. None of the above
58. With reference to the climate of India and Monsoon, consider the following statements
1. During summer, North Western part of India experiences high pressure whereas the Indian ocean region experience low pressure situation
2. The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone moves towards north of Equator during the months of summer
Which of the above is/are incorrect? a. 1 Only b. 2 Only c. Both d. None
59. With reference to the Intertropical
Convergence Zone (ITCZ), consider the following statements 1. It is an area near the Equator where
northeast and southeast trade winds meet
2. The zone is referred to as the doldrums because of its erratic weather patterns with stagnant calms and violent thunderstorms.
3. If ITCZ is north of equator, the southeast trade wind changes to a southwest wind as it crosses the equator because of the Coriolis effect
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only b. 2 and 3 Only c. 1 and 3 Only d. All
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60. With reference to Retreating Monsoons, consider the following statements 1. During this season, the south
eastern coast of India receives rains 2. During winters, cold brings high
pressure over north India which pushes monsoon winds towards south of Deccan Plateau
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only b. 2 Only c. Both d. None
61. Consider the following statements
1. High variability in rainfall is found in areas where rainfall is lowest
2. Rain variability on the western slopes of Western Ghats is very low
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only b. 2 Only c. Both d. None
62. According to Koppen climate classification, which of the following represents the Tropical Savannah Type Climate?
a. Aw b. Amw c. As d. BShw
63. Consider the following statements
1. If drought occurs on at least 20 percent of the years over an area then that may be classified as a „drought prone area.‟
2. If the frequency is, 40 percent or more then area is termed as „chronically drought area‟
3. A situation when there is significant (more than 25 per cent)
decrease from normal precipitation over an area, it is defined as hydrological drought
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only b. 2 and 3 Only c. 1 and 3 Only d. All
64. Consider the following statements
1. World‟s forest cover as on 2011 is just 31%
2. India has forest cover of 22.5% of the total geographical area
3. Among large states, Madhya Pradesh has highest forest area to its total geographical area
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only b. 2 and 3 Only c. 1 and 3 Only d. All
65. Which of the following is not a biosphere reserve in India? 1. Manas 2. Panna 3. Simplipal 4. Gulf of Mannar
Choose the correct answer using the codes below
a. 2 and 4 Only b. 2 Only c. 4 Only d. All are biosphere reserves
66. Consider the following statements about the Socio-economic caste census (SECC): 1. It will be based on a sample study
of the Indian population. 2. The data collected by the census
will be scrutinized by the respective Gram Sabhas.
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3. It is based on the principles of exclusion and inclusion on some particular criteria.
Which of these is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
67. Consider the following statements 1. In National Parks, protection is
granted not only to the flora and fauna of the protected region, but also to the human communities who inhabit these regions, and their ways of life.
2. In National Parks, grazing, hunting and other human activities are not allowed
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only b. 2 Only c. Both d. None
68. With reference to the nature of soils, consider the following statements 1. Soil structure is the relative
proportions of sand, silt, or clay in a soil.
2. Soil texture has an important role in nutrient management because it influences nutrient retention
3. Soil texture is the arrangement of soil particles into groupings.
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 and 2 Only b. 2 and 3 Only c. 1 and 3 Only d. 2 Only
69. Consider the following statements 1. In India alluvial soils form second
largest percentage of total reporting area after Red soils
2. Alluvial soils are rich in humus, phosphoric acid and deficient in potash
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 Only b. 2 Only c. Both d. None
70. With reference to Red soils in India,
consider the following statements 1. They are deficient in humus, lime
and phosphate 2. They are intensely leached
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 Only b. 2 Only c. Both d. None
71. Consider the following statements
1. Laterites are soil types poor in iron and aluminium, formed in hot and wet tropical areas
2. They develop by intensive and long-lasting weathering of the underlying parent rock
3. The majority of the land area containing laterites is between the tropics of Cancer and Capricorn.
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 and 2 Only b. 3 Only c. 2 and 3 Only d. 1 Only
72. Kankar, nodular calcium
carbonateformed in soils of semi-arid regions, is mostly found in which soil regions of India? a. Alluvial Soil b. Red Soil c. Black Soil d. Desert Soil
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73. Consider the following statements 1. The soil profile is a vertical section
of the soil that depicts all of its horizons. The soil profile extends from the soil surface to the parent rock material.
2. The regolith includes all of the weathered material within the profile
3. The O horizon is a surface horizon that is comprised of organic material at various stages of decomposition.
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only b. 1 and 3 Only c. 2 and 3 Only d. All
74. Which of the following are the typical
characteristics of the unorganized sector of the Indian economy? 1. Higher productivity than the
organized sector. 2. Contractual jobs. 3. Little or no social security.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
75. What is „dependency ratio‟ for an economy?
a. The share of working age
population as compared to the non-working population.
b. The share of non-working age population as compared to the working age population.
c. The ratio of working age population with that of the total population of the country.
d. None of the above.
76. Consider the following statements: 1. As per the International Monetary
Fund (IMF), every fast-growing Asian economy in recent years has accelerated as it underwent a demographic transition.
2. In India, the high growth states – Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Gujarat – in the period 1991-2001 had the dependency ratio significantly lower than the low growth states.
Which of these is/are correct?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both d. None of the above
77. Which of the following river is not part of the Ganga river system?
1. The Damodar
2. The Chambal
3. The Son
4. The Godavari
5. The Tista
Choose the correct answer using the codes below
a. 3 and 4 Only
b. 3 and 5 Only
c. 2 and 4 Only
d. 4 and 5 Only
78. What is „labour force participation rate (LFPR)‟ and „employment rate (ER)‟ respectively?
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a. LFPR - The growth in the fraction of those who can work and that actually look for work ER - The growth in those looking for work who actually find it
b. LFPR - The fraction of those looking
for work with that of adult age population ER - The fraction of those who are employed with that of adult age population
c. LFPR - The fraction of those who can
work and that actually look for work ER - The fraction of those looking for work who find it
d. None of the above
79. Consider the following statements: 1. The labour force participation rate
of women has been declining since the last decade.
2. The Micro enterprises in India employ much more people than the Small and Medium Entreprises (SMEs) combined together.
3. The MSMEs employ much more numbers of people than the large scale industries together do.
Which of these is/are true?
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
80. Consider the following statements
1. The regime of a river describes its general discharge throughout the course of the year
2. The regime of Himalayan rivers is monsoonal as well as glacial
3. The regime of peninsular rivers is only monsoonal
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only
b. 2 and 3 Only
c. 1 and 3 Only
d. All
81. Which of the following moves in the realm of land reforms can boost industrial growth in the country? 1. Digitization of land records 2. Creation of a land market to
facilitate land leasing. 3. Consolidating land holdings.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
82. Which of the following factors may lead to the informalization of labour in India? 1. Decline in the productivity of
business firms. 2. Strict labour laws. 3. Heavy growth in the capital base
and size of the firm. Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
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83. Which of the following can be the positive consequences of the formalization of the informal sector and labour in India? 1. Increase in tax base. 2. Reduction of poverty. 3. Changes in economic policies
would impact the economy more widely and deeply.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
84. Which of the following forest types are more in area under forests in India? a. Tropical Moist Deciduous b. Tropical Dry Deciduous c. Tropical Evergreen d. Subtropical Forests
85. Consider the following statements
about the National Skill Development Programme (NSDP): 1. It will be based entirely on the
Public-Private Partnership model with a majority of private sector equity.
2. The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) will allow entities for-profit vocational training.
3. Voluntary organizations would also be partnered in this programmes.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
86. Consider the following statements about the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC): 1. The chairperson of the CVC is
appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Union Cabinet.
2. The jurisdiction of CVC extends to the civil servants of the Centre as well as the states.
Which of these is/are true?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both d. None of the above
87. With reference to the National Water Policy 2012, consider the following statements
2. It envisages to establish a standardized national information system with a network of data banks and data bases
3. The main emphasis of National Water Policy 2012 is to treat water as economic good which the ministry claims to promote its conservation and efficient use.
4. One of its main features is to curtail subsidy to agricultural electricity users
Which of the above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 Only b. All c. 2 and 3 Only d. 1 and 3 Only
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88. Consider the following statements: 1. India‟s Human Development Index
(HDI) for the year 2013 is lower than the average HDI of the South Asian nations.
2. Sri Lanka and Bangladesh have a higher HDI (2013) than that of India.
Which of these is/are correct?
a. Only 1 b. Only 2 c. Both d. None of the above
89. This river rises near Rohtang pass in Kullu. It drains the western slope of Pir-Panjal and the northern slope of Dhauldhar Range. Name this river
a. The Beas
b. The Sutluj
c. The Indus
d. The Ravi
90. Consider the following statements
about MGNREGA: 1. It mandates one-third participation
of women. 2. Works for sustainable development
that address deforestation and soil erosion are also included as valid works under the scheme.
3. The biggest beneficiaries of the programme have been women in terms of the total number of persondays work allotted.
Which of these is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
91. Consider the following statements about the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM): 1. The concept of a Rural Self-
employment Training Institute (RSETI) in every district of the country has been envisaged under the scheme.
2. It targets Below Poverty Line (BPL) families.
3. It envisages linking up of self-help groups with myriad agencies like banks, NGOs etc. in order to build their capacities.
Which of these is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
92. The schemes Aam Aadmi Bima
Yojana (AABY) and Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) target which group amongst these respectively?
a. Rural BPL households in both
schemes. b. Rural BPL households in AABY
and BPL households in the unorganized sector in RSBY.
c. Rural BPL households in the unorganized sector in both schemes.
d. Rural Landless households in AABY and BPL households in the unorganized sector in RSBY.
93. Under the Direct Benefits transfer
scheme, which of the following will be used to make the withdrawal of money by the beneficiary easier and more accessible? 1. Self Help Groups (SHGs) 2. Community Service Centres (CSCs) 3. Petrol pumps
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Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
94. The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyaan (SSA)
and the Right to Education (RTE) Act, inter alia, provide for which of the following? 1. A role for the local bodies and
community in the appraisal of schools.
2. Laying down standards for public schools.
3. One-fourth reservation of socially and economically weaker sections in schools un-aided by the government.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
95. Which of the following are the possible
causes of the widespread child malnutrition in India? 1. Widespread Malnourishment in
adolescent girls 2. Child marriages 3. Poor Neo-natal care
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
96. Consider the following statements
1. The basin area of River Ganga is larger than the combined basin
area of both Rivers Indus and Yamuna
2. In India, rivers with catchment area of more than 200,000 sq km are known as large river basins
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
a. 2 Only
b. 1 Only
c. None
d. Both
97. Consider the following statements
about the scheme SABLA or Rajiv Gandhi Scheme for Empowerment of Adolescent Girls (RGSEAG): 1. The scheme focuses only on out of
school girls. 2. The scheme also addresses the skill
development and education needs. 3. Health check up, referral services
and counseling on family welfare are also a part of the scheme.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
98. Consider the following statements about the Central Information Commission (CIC): 1. It is a body independent of the
Union government as far as its powers and functioning is concerned.
2. It is a statutory body as it is formed under the provisions of the Right to Information (RTI) Act , 2005.
3. This body also deals with the complaints pertaining to information sought under the RTI
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Act forwarded from the Union Territories.
Which of these is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
99. Consider the following statements about the removal of the CAG: 1. He can only be removed after a
Supreme Court inquiry in the pertinent case.
2. Both the houses need to approve the removal by absolute majority.
3. After removal or retirement he is not eligible for any further employment in the Government of India.
Which of these is/are true?
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 1 and 3 d. All of the above
100. Consider the following statements
1. The Karewa soil found in Kashmir valley is of lacustrine origin
2. Though Karewa soil is sedimentary in nature, it doesn‟t contain any fossils
Which of the above is/are incorrect?
a. 1 Only
b. 2 Only
c. Both
d. None