RAGS/2022 | Tamil madal

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º‚Aò ÜP¾¬óèœ1. Þ‰î Mù£ˆªî£°Š¹, «î˜¾ ªî£ìƒ°õîŸ° 15 GIìƒèÀ‚° º¡ùî£è àƒèÀ‚° õöƒèŠð´‹. 2. Þ‰î Mù£ˆªî£°Š¹: 200 Mù£‚è¬÷‚ ªè£‡´œ÷¶. 3. ð°F & Ü M™ °¬ø‰îð†ê ñFŠªð‡ (40% Üî£õ¶ 60 ñFŠªð‡) ªðø£î «î˜õ˜èO¡ ð°F & Ý MŸè£ù

M¬ìˆî£œ ñFŠd´ ªêŒòŠðìñ£†ì£¶. ð°F & Ü M™ «î˜„C ªðŸø M‡íŠðî£ó˜èO¡ ð°F Ý&M™ ªðŸø ªñ£ˆî ñFŠªð‡èœ ñ†´‹ îóõK¬ê ð†®ò½‚° â´ˆ¶‚ªè£œ÷Šð´‹.

4. M¬ìòO‚èˆ ªî£ìƒ°º¡ ÞšMù£ˆªî£°ŠH™ â™ô£ Mù£‚èÀ‹ õK¬êò£è Þì‹ ªðŸÁœ÷ùõ£ â¡ð¬î»‹, Þ¬ìJ™ ªõŸÁˆî£œèœ â¬õ»‹ Þ™¬ô â¡ð¬î»‹ àÁF ªêŒ¶ ªè£œ÷¾‹. Mù£ˆ ªî£°ŠH™ ã«îÂ‹ °¬øð£´ Þ¼ŠH¡, Üî¬ù ºî™ ðˆ¶ GIìƒèÀ‚°œ Ü¬ø‚è‡è£EŠð£÷Kì‹ ªîKMˆ¶, êKò£è àœ÷ «õªø£¼ Mù£ˆªî£°ŠH¬ù ªðŸÁ‚ªè£œ÷ «õ‡´‹. «î˜¾ ªî£ìƒAò H¡¹ Þ¶ °Pˆ¶ º¬øJ†ì£™ Mù£ˆ ªî£°Š¹ ñ£ŸPˆ îóŠðìñ£†ì£¶.

5. â™ô£ Mù£‚èÀ‚°‹ M¬ìòO‚è¾‹. â™ô£ Mù£‚èÀ‹ êññ£ù ñFŠªð‡èœ ªè£‡ì¬õ. 6. àƒèÀ¬ìò ðF¾ â‡¬í Þ‰îŠ ð‚èˆF¡ õô¶ «ñ™ Í¬ôJ™ ÜîŸªèù Ü¬ñ‰¶œ÷ ÞìˆF™ cƒèœ â¿î

«õ‡´‹. «õÁ â¬î»‹ Mù£ˆªî£°ŠH™ â¿î‚Ãì£¶. 7. M¬ìˆî£œ å¡Á M¬ìè¬÷ °PŠðîŸ° Ü¬ø‚è‡è£EŠð£÷ó£™ àƒèÀ‚° õöƒèŠð´‹. M¬ìè¬÷‚ °PŠð¶

àœO†ì ÜõCò‹ H¡ðŸøŠðì «õ‡®ò ÜP¾¬óèœ M¬ìˆî£O½‹, «î˜¾‚Ãì ÜÂñF„ Y†®½‹ õöƒèŠð†´œ÷ù.8. àƒèÀ¬ìò Mù£ˆªî£°Š¹ â‡¬í (Question Booklet Number) M¬ìˆî£O¡ ºî™ ð‚èˆF™ ÜîŸªèù

Ü¬ñ‰¶œ÷ ÞìˆF™ è¼¬ñ Gø ¬ñ»¬ìò ð‰¶º¬ùŠ «ðù£Mù£™ °Pˆ¶‚è£†ì«õ‡´‹. Mù£ˆªî£°Š¹ â‡¬í M¬ìˆî£O™ êKò£è‚ °Pˆ¶‚ è£†ìˆ îõPù£«ô£ Ü™ô¶ °P‚èˆ îõPù£«ô£ àƒèÀ¬ìò M¬ìˆî£œ ªê™ô£îî£‚èŠð´‹.

9. åšªõ£¼ Mù£¾‹ (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) âù ä‰¶ ðF™è¬÷‚ (M¬ìèœ) ªè£‡´œ÷¶. cƒèœ (A) Ü™ô¶ (B) Ü™ô¶ (C) Ü™ô¶ (D) Þ¬õèO™ å«ó å¼ êKò£ù M¬ì¬òˆ ªîK¾ ªêŒ¶ M¬ìˆî£O™ °Pˆ¶‚è£†ì «õ‡´‹. å¼ «èœM‚° å¡Á‚° «ñŸð†ì êKò£ù M¬ì Þ¼Šðî£è cƒèœ è¼Fù£™, Iè„êKò£ù¶ âù cƒèœ â¬î‚è¼¶Al˜è«÷£ Ü‰î M¬ì¬ò M¬ìˆî£O™ °Pˆ¶‚è£†ì «õ‡´‹. àƒèÀ‚° M¬ì ªîKòM™¬ô âQ™, cƒèœ (E) â¡ð¬î ÜõCò‹ GóŠð«õ‡´‹. âŠð®ò£JÂ‹, å¼ «èœM‚° å«ó å¼ M¬ì¬òˆî£¡ «î˜‰ªî´‚è «õ‡´‹. cƒèœ å¼ «èœM‚° å¡Á‚° «ñŸð†ì M¬ìòOˆî£™, ÜõŸÁœ å¼ M¬ì êKò£ùî£è Þ¼‰î£½‹ Ü‰î M¬ì îõø£ùî£è«õ è¼îŠð´‹.

10. cƒèœ Mù£ˆªî£°ŠH¡ â‰îŠð‚èˆ¬î»‹ c‚è«õ£ Ü™ô¶ AN‚è«õ£ Ãì£¶. «î˜¾ «ïóˆF™ Þ‰î Mù£ˆªî£°ŠH¬ù«ò£ Ü™ô¶ M¬ìˆî£¬÷«ò£ «î˜¾ Ü¬ø¬ò M†´ ªõOJ™ â´ˆ¶„ ªê™ô‚Ãì£¶. «î˜¾ º®‰îH¡ cƒèœ àƒèÀ¬ìò M¬ìˆî£¬÷ è‡è£EŠð£÷Kì‹ ªè£´ˆ¶Mì«õ‡´‹. ÞšMù£ˆ ªî£°ŠH¬ù «î˜¾ º®‰î H¡ù˜ ñ†´«ñ cƒèœ â´ˆ¶„ ªê™ô ÜÂñF‚èŠð´i˜èœ.

11. °PŠ¹èœ â¿FŠð£˜ŠðîŸ° Mù£ˆªî£°ŠH¡ è¬ìCŠð‚èˆFŸ° º¡ àœ÷ ð‚èƒè¬÷ ðò¡ð´ˆF‚ ªè£œ÷ô£‹. Þ¬îˆîMó, Mù£ˆªî£°ŠH¡ â‰î ÞìˆF½‹ â‰îMî °PŠ¹è¬÷»‹ â¿î‚Ãì£¶. Þ‰î ÜP¾¬ó è‡®Šð£è H¡ðŸøŠðì«õ‡´‹.

12. «èœM õK¬ê â‡èœ. 101 ºî™ 200 õ¬ó (ð°F & Ý) ÝƒAô õ®«õ ÞÁFò£ù¶.

13. cƒèœ «ñŸè‡ì ÜP¾¬óèO™ âõŸ¬øò£õ¶ H¡ðŸøˆ îõPù£™ «î˜õ£¬íò‹ â´‚°‹ ïìõ®‚¬èèÀ‚° àœ÷£è «ïK´‹ âù ÜP¾ÁˆîŠð´Aø¶.

ENGLISH VERSION OF THE ABOVE INSTRUCTIONS ARE PROVIDED ON THE BACKSIDE OF THIS BOOKLET

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RAGS/2022Question Booklet No:

2022

ªð£¶ˆ îI¿‹ ªð£¶ ÜP¾‹ (ñ£FK Mù£ˆî£œ)

è£ô Ü÷¾ : Í¡Á ñE «ïó‹-] [ªñ£ˆî ñFŠªð‡èœ : 300]

Mù£‚èÀ‚° ðFôO‚°º¡ W›‚è‡ì ÜP¾¬óè¬÷ èõùñ£èŠ ð®‚è¾‹

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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Ý†CˆîI› ä.ã.âv Üè£ìI

1. ‘Hœ¬÷ˆîI›’ â¡ø ªðòK™ å¼ îQËL¬ù„ ªêŒî ºî™ ÝCKò˜ ò£˜?

(A) å†ì‚Ãˆî˜ (B) ¹è«ö‰F (C) °ñó°¼ðó˜ (D) ðèN‚Ãˆî˜

2. ªêŒ &- â¡Â‹ «õ˜„ ªê£™L¡ M¬ùò£ô¬í»‹ ªðò¬óˆ «î˜‰ªî´:

(A) ªêŒb˜ (B) ªêŒõ£Œ

(C) ªêŒîõ¡ (D) ªêŒî£¡

3. °‡ìô«èC‚° âFó£è â¿‰î õ£îË™ â¶?

(A) Å÷£ñE (B) ï£è°ñ£ó è£Mò‹

(C) ò«ê£îó è£Mò‹ (D) cô«èC

4. Þô‚èí‚ °PŠ¹„ ªê£™¬ôˆ «î˜è:

‘ð‡¹Š ªðò˜’

(A) F†ð‹ (B) Ý†ì‹

(C) «è£ì™ (D) ªðÁî™

5. ‘Ü¬ìò´ˆî Ý° ªðò˜’ â¡ø Þô‚èí‚ °PŠHŸ°Š ªð£¼ˆîñ£ù Ë™ â¶?

(A) ï£ô®ò£˜ (B) Yõè C‰î£ñE

(C) F¼‚°øœ (D) CÁð…êÍô‹

6. èì‹ & Þ„ªê£™L¡ ªð£¼œ

(A) °ì‹ (B) ð£‹¹ (C) «õ‹¹ (D) àì‹¹

7. õØà„ ªê£Ÿè÷Ÿø õ£‚Aòˆ¬îˆ «î˜¾ ªêŒè :

(A) ªõ‡a˜ î£õ£óˆF™ æ®ò¶

(B) ªõ‰c˜ î£õ£óˆF™ æ®ò¶

(C) ªõ‰c˜ î£›õ£óˆF™ æ®ò¶

(D) ªõ‡a˜ î£›õ£óˆF™ æ®ò¶

8. ‘i’ â¡ø æªó¿ˆ¶ å¼ªñ£N °P‚è£î ªð£¼œ

(A) è£ŸÁ (B) ñô˜ (C) ªè£™ (D) ðø¬õ

9. àKò ªê£™ô£™ GóŠ¹è:

ªêŒè ªð£¼¬÷„ ......................... ªê¼‚èÁ‚°‹

âçèîQŸ ÃKò F™

(A) ªêŒò£˜ (B) ªêŒõ£˜

(C) ªê¡Á (D) ªêÁï˜

TNPSC - 2022 °ÏŠ - II, II(A) ªð£¶ˆ îI› ñ£FK Mù£ˆî£œ

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10. å¼¬ñ ð¡¬ñŠ H¬öòŸø ªî£ì˜ â¶? (A) Üõ¡ èMë¡ Ü™ô (B) Üõ¡ èMë¡ Ü¡Á (C) Üõ¡ èMë¡ Ü™ô¡ (D) Üõ¡ èMë¡ Þ™¬ô

11. ‘õ‰î£¡’, ‘ïì‰î£¡’,& - «õ˜„ªê£™¬ô„ ²†´è (A) õ‰¶, ïì‰¶ (B) õ‰î, ïì‰î (C) õ£, ïì (D) õ‰î£¡, ïì‰î£¡

12. êKò£ùõŸ¬ø‚ è£‡è (1) ò£¡ + ° = âù‚° (2) ò£¡ + è‡ = â¡Q¡è‡ (3) ò£¡ + Ü¶ = â¡ù¶ (4) ò£¡ + Ý™ = â¡ù£™ (A) 2, 3 & êK (B) 1, 2 & êK (C) 1, 4 & êK (D) ï£¡°‹ & êK

13. ªð£¼‰î£î ªê£™¬ô‚ è‡ìPè. (A) ªèì£Ü (B) Üóƒè‹ (C) â´ŠðÉà‹ (D) îjÞ

14. ï™ -& â¡Â‹ «õ˜„ªê£™L¡ M¬ùªò„êˆ¬î «î˜‰ªî´è: (A) ï™° (B) ï™Aò (C) ï™°î™ (D) ï™°õ£˜

15. õØà„ ªê£Ÿè÷Ÿø õ£‚Aòƒè¬÷ˆ «î˜¾ ªêŒè: 1. Ü¼õ£ñ¬íJ¡ Ü¼A™ Ü‡í£‚èJÁ Þ¼‰î¶. 2. Üõ¬ó‚è£Œ ñŸÁ‹ C¬è‚è£Œ õ£ƒA«ù¡. 3. î£›õ£óˆF™ ¶¬ìŠð‹ Þ¼‰î¶. 4. ï…¬ê GôˆF™ «õ˜¬õ C‰F à¬öˆî£¡. (A) 1 ñŸÁ‹ 2 (B) 2 ñŸÁ‹ 3 (C) 3 ñŸÁ‹ 4 (D) 1 ñŸÁ‹ 4

16. “ð¬èð£õ‹ Ü„ê‹ ðN âù ï£¡°‹ Þèõ£ Ý‹ Þ™ÞøŠð£¡ è‡”- -& Þ‚°øO¡ ºîô®J™ Ü¬ñ‰¶œ÷ «ñ£¬ù (A) Þ¬í «ñ£¬ù (B) ªð£NŠ¹ «ñ£¬ù (C) Ã¬ö «ñ£¬ù (D) «ñŸè¶õ£Œ «ñ£¬ù

17. ð‡¹Šªðò˜„ªê£™L¬ù ªð£¼ˆ¶è: (A) ªê‹¬ñ 1. ²¬õŠð‡¹ (B) Ã‹¹ 2. GøŠð‡¹ (C) A«ô£e†ì˜ 3. õ®õŠð‡¹ (D) è£ó‹ 4. Ü÷¾Šð‡¹ (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 3 4 1 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 1 3 4 2 (D) 4 3 1 2

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18. W›‚è£‡ðõ˜èÀœ âõ˜ F¼‚°øÀ‚° à¬ó â¿îM™¬ô

(A) ï„ê˜ (B) F¼ñ¬ôò˜

(C) Ü®ò£˜‚° ï™ô£˜ (D) î£ñˆî˜

19. Yø£Š¹ó£íˆF™ b˜‚èîKêùˆ¬î‚ ÃÁõ¶

(A) ̧ ¹õˆ¶‚ è£‡ì‹ (B) Mô£îˆ¶‚ è£‡ì‹

(C) Uxóˆ¶‚ è£‡ì‹ (D) «ñŸÃPò Ü¬ùˆ¶‹

20. M¬ìˆ«î˜è : Þô‚Aò„ ªêŒFè«÷£´ ÜPMò™ ¶¬øŠªð£¼œè¬÷»‹ ºî¡ ºîô£è„ «ê˜ˆ¶ M÷‚è‹ î‰î Ë™ â¶?

(A) ÜHî£ù «è£ê‹ (B) ÜHî£ù C‰î£ñE

(C) M«õè C‰î£ñE (D) Yõè C‰î£ñE

21. ªðKò¹ó£íˆF™ ò£¼¬ìò õóô£Á Iè MKõ£è M÷‚èŠð†´œ÷¶?

(A) F¼ï£¾‚èóê˜ (B) F¼ë£ùê‹ð‰î˜

(C) ²‰îó˜ (D) è£¬ó‚è£™ Ü‹¬ñò£˜

22. ªðKò ¹ó£íˆ¶œ °PŠHìŠð´‹ ªî£¬è Ü®ò£˜èO¡ â‡E‚¬è ò£¶?

(A) 8 Ü®ò£˜èœ (B) 9 Ü®ò£˜èœ

(C) 10 Ü®ò£˜èœ (D) 11 Ü®ò£˜èœ

23. õ£Wê˜ â¡ø¬ö‚èŠð´‹ ê£¡«ø£˜ ò£˜?

(A) F¼ï£¾‚èóê˜ (B) F¼ë£ùê‹ð‰î˜

(C) ²‰îó˜ (D) ñ£E‚èõ£êè˜

24. ªï´‰ªî£¬è â¡Á Ü¬ö‚èŠð´‹ Ë™

(A) ðKð£ì™ (B) èLˆªî£¬è

(C) ¹øï£ÛÁ (D) Üèï£ÛÁ

25. “.........

è¼ñ«ñ è‡í£J ù£˜” -& â¡ø Ü®¬ò ßŸø®ò£è‚ ªè£‡ì cF ËL¡ ªðò˜

(A) ï£ô®ò£˜ (B) Í¶¬ó

(C) cFªïP M÷‚è‹ (D) Ýê£ó‚«è£¬õ

26. YõèC‰î£ñEJ¡ à†HK¾‚° â¡ù ªðò˜?

(A) è£¬î (B) Þò™ (C) Þô‹ðè‹ (D) è£‡ì‹

27. ‘¹™ô£AŠ Ìì£Œ’ Þì‹ªðŸÁœ÷ Ë™

(A) F¼õ£êè‹ (B) F¼ñ‰Fó‹

(C) «îõ£ó‹ (D) ðFŸÁŠðˆ¶


6

28. ï£¡ñE‚è®¬è¬òŠ ð£®òõ˜ ò£˜?

(A) M÷‹H ï£èù£˜ (B) èHô˜

(C) º¡Á¬ø Ü¬óòù£˜ (D) è´ªõO„Cˆî˜

29. F¼M¬÷ò£ìŸ ¹ó£íˆ¬î ÞòŸPòõ˜

(A) ï‚Wó¡ (B) ðó…«ê£F ºQõ˜

(C) î¼I (D) Cõªð¼ñ£¡

30. ‘ï™ô¶ ªêŒî™ ÝŸl ó£JÂ‹ Ü™ô¶ ªêŒî™ æ‹¹I¡’ &- Þšõ®èœ Þì‹ ªðŸÁœ÷ Ë™

(A) ðFŸÁŠðˆ¶ (B) ðKð£ì™ (C) ¹øï£ÛÁ (D) °Á‰ªî£¬è

31. F¼‚°øœ ðŸPò W›‚è£µ‹ ÃŸÁèO™ â¬õ êKò£ù¬õ?

(I) F¼+ °øœ = F¼‚°øœ : «ñ¡¬ñ ªð£¼‰Fò °øœ ªõ‡ð£‚è÷£™ ÝAò Ë™ ÝîL¡ F¼‚°øœ âùŠ ªðò˜ ªðŸø¶.

(II) ï£¡ñ¬ø, ä‹ð£™, ê¶˜«õî‹ â¡Á‹ F¼‚°ø¬÷‚ ÃÁõ˜

(III) F¼‚°øO™ 133 ÜFè£óƒèœ àœ÷ù.

(IV) F¼õœÀõó¶ è£ô‹ A.º. 32 â¡Á‹ ÃÁõ˜. Þ‰î Ý‡¬ìˆ ªî£ì‚èñ£è‚ ªè£‡´ F¼õœÀõ˜ Ý‡´ èí‚AìŠð´Aø¶.

(A) II, IV êKò£ù¬õ (B) I, III êKò£ù¬õ

(C) III, IV êKò£ù¬õ (D) II, III êKò£ù¬õ

32. â†´ˆªî£¬è Ë™èÀœ ÜèŠ ¹øŠð£ì™è¬÷‚ ªè£‡ì Ë™ â¶?

(A) ðFŸÁŠðˆ¶ (B) ðKð£ì™ (C) èLˆªî£¬è (D) äƒ°ÁËÁ

33. °P…C‚° ............... âù Þõ¬ó‚ ÃÁõ˜.

(A) ðóí˜ (B) è‹ð˜ (C) èHô˜ (D) °ñó°¼ðó˜

34. ‘¶‡´’ â¡ø Ü¬ìªñ£Nò£™ °P‚è ªðÁ‹ Ë™ ò£¶?

(A) Ýê£ó‚ «è£¬õ (B) ï£¡ñE‚è®¬è

(C) ÞQò¬õ ï£Ÿð¶ (D) YõèC‰î£ñE

35. «êóñ¡ù˜èO¡ õóô£ŸP¬ù‚ ÃÁ‹ ¹øË™

(A) ðFŸÁŠðˆ¶ (B) ¹øï£ÛÁ (C) ðKð£ì™ (D) ªï´ï™õ£¬ì

36. àñÁŠ¹ôõ¬ó ÝîKˆîõ˜

(A) Yî‚è£F (B) ê¬ìòŠð˜ (C) ðó£‰îè˜ (D) îˆ¶õ «ð£îè˜

7


37. êKò£ù ÃŸP¬ùˆ «î˜‰ªî´‚è¾‹. (i) îI›‚°¬è‚ è™ªõ†´èO™ è£íŠð´‹ Hó£I õKõ®õˆFŸ°Kò êKò£ù îI› åL

õ®õˆ¬î‚ è‡ìP‰î¶ ºî™ è†ì õ÷˜„Cò£°‹. (ii) ö, ÷, ø, ù ÝAò â¿ˆ¶‚è¬÷‚ è‡ìP‰î¶ Þó‡ì£õ¶ è†ì õ÷˜„Cò£°‹. (iii) Ü«ê£è˜ Hó£I‚° ñ£Ÿø£è îI› ªñ£N¬ò â¿Fò¶ Í¡ø£õ¶ è†ì õ÷˜„Cò£°‹. (A) (i) êK, (ii), (iii) îõø£ù¶ (B) (i), (ii) êK (iii) îõø£ù¶

(C) (i), (ii), (iii) êKò£ù¶ (D) (ii), (iii) êK, (i) îõø£ù¶

38. “ï£ìè àôA¡ Þñòñ¬ô” ò£˜?

(A) ðKFñ£Ÿè¬ôë˜ (B) è‰îê£I (C) ð‹ñ™ ê‹ñ‰î ºîLò£˜ (D) êƒèóî£v ²õ£Ièœ

39. “ªî¡Q‰Fò„ êÍè Y˜F¼ˆîˆF¡ î‰¬î” â¡Á Ü¬ö‚èŠð´ðõ˜

(A) ªðKò£˜ (B) Ü‹«ðˆè˜

(C) Ü«ò£ˆFî£êŠ ð‡®î˜ (D) Þó£ñLƒè Ü®è÷£˜

40. «ðó£CKò˜. ªð. ²‰îó‹ Hœ¬÷ Üõ˜èœ ò£¬ó ë£ù£CKòó£è‚ ªè£‡´ å¿A õ‰î£˜?

(A) ²‰îó ²õ£Ièœ (B) ²‰îó£„ê£Kò£˜ (C) ²Y‰Fó ºQõ˜ (D) ªð¼ñ£œ Hœ¬÷

41. ‘ióñ£ºQõ¬óŠ «ð£™ â¿ˆ¶„ Y˜F¼ˆî‹ ªêŒîõ˜’

(A) ð‡®îñE èF«óê¡ ªê†®ò£˜ (B) ð£‡®ˆ¶¬óˆ «îõ˜

(C) Ü«ò£ˆFî£ê ð‡®î˜ (D) «ðóPë˜ Ü‡í£

42. ‘ªî¡ùõ¡ Hóñó£ò¡’ â¡ø M¼FŸ° àKòõ˜

(A) F¼ï£¾‚èóê˜ (B) ²‰îó˜ (C) ñ£E‚èõ£êè˜ (D) F¼ë£ù ê‹ð‰î˜

43. ‘îI› ï£ìèˆ î‰¬î’ âùŠ «ð£ŸøŠð´ðõ˜ ò£˜?

(A) ð‹ñ™ ê‹ð‰îù£˜ (B) êƒèóî£² ²õ£Ièœ

(C) ðKFñ£Ÿ è¬ôë˜ (D) F.è.ê‡ºèù£˜

44. ‘«ï£Œ‚° ñ¼‰¶ Þô‚Aò‹,’ â¡Á ÃPòõ¬ó «î˜¾ ªêŒè

(A) à.«õ. ê£Iï£î˜

(B) ñè£Mˆ¶õ£¡ eù£†C ²‰îóù£˜

(C) ðKFñ£Ÿè¬ôë˜

(D) ñ¬øñ¬ô Ü®è÷£˜


8

45. ‘ªî¡îI›ˆ ªîŒõŠðóE’ â¡Á èLƒèˆ¶Š ðóE¬òŠ ¹è›‰îõ˜ ò£˜?

(A) å†ì‚Ãˆî˜ (B) ðóí˜

(C) °ñó°¼ðó˜ (D) HCó£‰¬îò£˜

46. ‘ªî£‡ì˜Y˜ ðó¾õ£˜’ â¡Á «ð£ŸøŠð´ðõ˜

(A) ²‰îó˜ (B) è‹ð˜ (C) «ê‚Aö£˜ (D) ñ£E‚èõ£êè˜

47. ‘èŸø¶¬è‹ ñ‡í÷¾” &- â¡Á ÃPòõ˜

(A) èHô˜ (B) è‹ð˜ (C) ðóí˜ (D) å÷¬õò£˜

48. °ñó°¼ðó˜ â¿î£î Ë™ â¶? (A) è‰î˜ èL ªõ‡ð£ (B) °«ô£ˆ¶ƒè¡ Hœ¬÷ˆ îI› (C) eù£†Cò‹¬ñŠ Hœ¬÷ˆ îI› (D) ºˆ¶‚°ñ£ó ²õ£I Hœ¬÷ˆ îI›

49. ‘¹ˆîó¶ ÝF «õî‹’ â¡Â‹ Ë¬ô â¿Fòõ˜

(A) Ü‹«ðˆè˜ (B) ªðKò£˜ (C) Ü«ò£ˆFî£êŠ ð‡®î˜ (D) ÝÁ. ÜöèŠð¡

50. “Þ÷¬ñ»‹ G™ô£ ò£‚¬è»‹ G™ô£

õ÷Mò õ£¡ªð¼‹ ªê™õº‹ G™ô£

¹ˆ«î£˜ àôè‹ ¹î™õ¼‹ î£ó£˜”.... â¡ø õKèœ Þì‹ªðÁ‹ Ë™&&&&&&&&&&

(A) ñE«ñè¬ô (B) ¹øï£ÛÁ

(C) CôŠðFè£ó‹ (D) °Á‰ªî£¬è

51. å¼ ªê£™ Þ¼ªð£¼œðì õ¼õ¶ ..........Ý°‹

(A) °Pf´ (B) àõ¬ñ (C) C«ô¬ì (D) à¼õè‹

52. â¡¬ù

âõªóvì£èŠ ð£˜‚°‹

â‰î áK¡ ð£˜¬õJ™

â¡ i›„C

IèŠ ªðKò i›„C«ò

âQÂ‹

Þ¶ Þò™ð£ù¶

î´‚è º®ò£î¶

.... â¡ i›„C

c˜ i›„C«ò....... Þ‚èM¬îJ¡ ÝCKò˜ e.ó£(e.Þó£«ê‰Fó¡) Þ‚èM¬îJ¡ õ¬è

(A) Þ¼‡¬ñ (B) C«ô¬ì

(C) °Pf´ (D) à¼õè‹

9


53. ‘ªê‹ðJ˜’ â¡Â‹ ªê£™¬ôŠ HKˆ¶ â¿î‚ A¬ìŠð¶ (A) ªê‹ + ðJ˜ (B) ªê¬ñ + ðJ˜ (C) ªê‹¬ñ + ðJ˜ (D) ªê‹¹ + ðJ˜

54. ÜFñ¶ó‹ â¡ðî¡ ªð£¼œ â¡ù? (A) I°‰î ²¬õ (B) °¬ø‰î ²¬õ (C) ²¬õòŸø (D) èêŠð£ù

55. â¿ˆ¶ âˆî¬ù õ¬èŠð´‹? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

56. ªêŒ»À‚«è àKò â¶¬è, «ñ£¬ù¬ò à¬ìï¬ì‚°œ ªè£‡´ õ‰îõ˜ (A) ï£ñ‚è™ èMë˜ (B) ¬õò£¹KŠ Hœ¬÷ (C) eù£†C ²‰îóù£˜ (D) Þó£.H. «ê¶Hœ¬÷

57. æªó¿ˆ¶ å¼ ªñ£N â¡ð¶ ò£¶?

(A) æ˜ â¿ˆ«î ªð£¼œ î¼‹ ªê£™ô£è Ü¬ñõ¶

(B) ðô â¿ˆ¶ å¼ ªð£¼œ î¼‹ ªê£™ô£è Ü¬ñõ¶

(C) å¼ ªð£¼œ °Pˆî ªê£™ô£è Ü¬ñõ¶

(D) ðô ªð£¼œ °Pˆî ªê£™ô£è Ü¬ñõ¶

58. è†ì¬÷Š ªð£¼¬÷ àí˜ˆ¶õ¶?

(A) M°F (B) Mè£ó‹

(C) Þ¬ìG¬ô (D) ð°F

59. «ñ™ õ£ŒŠð™L¡ Ü®¬ò ï£‚A¡ ̧ Q ªð£¼‰¶õî£™ HøŠð¶ __________

(A) ̂ , ‰ (B) Š, ‹

(C) ‚, „ (D) †, ‡

60. ªð£¼ˆ¶è

(a) ð®ˆî£Œ 1. M¬ùŠ ðòQ¬ô

(b) ï£¡ õ‰«î¡ 2. «î£¡ø£Œ â¿õ£Œ

(c) ªê£¡ùõœ èô£ 3. Mù£Š ðòQ¬ô

(d) M¬÷ò£´ðõ¡ ò£˜ 4. ªðò˜Š ðòQ¬ô

(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 3 4 1 2

(C) 1 3 2 4

(D) 4 2 3 1


10

61. ‘ªñ£N ºî™ â¿ˆ¶‚èœ’ ðŸP îõø£ù¬î è‡ìPè.

A) àJ˜ â¿ˆ¶‚èœ ð¡Qó‡´‹ ªê£™L¡ ºîL™ õ¼‹

B) è,ê,î,ð,ï,ñ ÝAò õK¬êèO™ àœ÷ â™ô£ àJ˜ªñŒ â¿ˆ¶‚èÀ‹ ªê£™L¡ ºîL™ õ¼‹

C) é-õK¬êJ™ ‘é’ â¡Â‹ æ˜ â¿ˆ¶ ñ†´«ñ ªê£™L¡ ºî™ â¿ˆî£è õ¼‹.

D) ì,í,ó,ô,ö,÷,ø,ù ÝAò â†´ àJ˜ªñŒ â¿ˆ¶‚èœ ªê£™L¡ ºîL™ õ¼‹.

62. î£ô£†´ â¡ðF™ ‘î£™’ - â¡ðF¡ ªð£¼œ â¡ù?

A) ð£†´ B) ï£‚° C) ð£î‹ D) õ£Œ

63. ‘è£Œªï™’ & Þô‚èí‚°PŠ¹ î¼è:-

A) ð‡¹ˆªî£¬è B) «õŸÁ¬ñˆªî£¬è

C) M¬ùˆªî£¬è D) àõ¬ñˆªî£¬è

64. ‘ªè£´ˆ«î£˜’ - ð°ðî àÁŠHô‚èí‹ HKˆ¶ â¿¶è.

A) ªè£´+ˆ+«î£˜ B) ªè£´+ˆ+ˆ+æ˜

C) ªè£´+ˆ+ˆ+æ+˜ D) ªè£´+ˆ+ˆ+æ˜

65. ‘Üø‹ âùŠð´õ¶ ò£ªîù‚ «è†H¡

ñøõ£¶ Þ¶«èœ!........ â¡ø ð£ì™ Ü® Þì‹ ªðŸÁœ÷ Ë™ â¶?

A) CôŠðFè£ó‹ B) F¼‚°øœ

C) ï£ô®ò£˜ D) ñE«ñè¬ô

66. ‘ñòƒAò’ - ð°ðî àÁŠHô‚èí‹ HKˆ¶ â¿¶è. (A) ñòƒ° + ¡ + Œ + Þ + ò (B) ñòƒ° + Þ(¡) + Œ + Ü (C) ñòƒ + ° + ¡ + Œ + Ü (D) ñòƒ + ‚ + Þ¡ + Œ + Ü

67. ð£ì£‡F¬í - HKˆ¶ â¿¶è. (A) ð£ + ì£‡ + F¬í (B) ð£ ì£ + Ý‡ + F¬í (C) ð£ + Ý‡ + F¬í (D) ð£´ + Ý‡ + F¬í

68. Üóƒ°èœ Ü¬ñò «õ‡®ò º¬ø, ÜóƒA¡ àòó‹, F¬ó„Y¬ôèO¡ õ¬èèœ, É‡èO¡ Gö¬ô‚è£†ì£¶ M÷‚°è¬÷ Ü¬ñ‚è «õ‡®ò º¬ø °Pˆªî™ô£‹ ÃPò Ë™

(A) CôŠðFè£ó‹ (B) ñE«ñè¬ô

(C) YõèC‰î£ñE (D) ð†®ùŠð£¬ô

11


69. ‘à‡ð¶ ï£N à´Šð¬õ Þó‡«ì’ - â¡ø ð£ì™ Ü® Þì‹ ªðŸÁœ÷ Ë™ â¶?

A) ï¡Û™ B) ¹øï£ÛÁ C) F¼‚°øœ D) ïŸP¬í

70. ¹øˆF¬íèœ ð¡Qó‡´ â¡Á ÃÁ‹ Ë™ â¶?

(A) ¹øŠªð£¼œ ªõ‡ð£ñ£¬ô (B) ï¡Û™

(C) ªî£™è£ŠHò‹ (D) ò£Šð¼ƒèô‚ è£K¬è

71. îIN™ «î£¡Pò ºî™ à¬ó Ë™.........

(A) «ïIï£î‹ (B) ò£Šð¼ƒèô‚è£K¬è

(C) Þ¬øòù£˜ ÜèŠªð£¼œ (D) ió«ê£Nò‹

72. F¼‚°ø÷£˜.i. ºQê£I â¿Fò Ë™èO™ îõø£ù¶ â¶?

A) õœÀõ˜ àœ÷‹ B) õœÀõ˜ è£†®ò õN

C) F¼‚°øœ ªñŒŠªð£¼À¬ó D) F¼‚°øœ à¬ó M÷‚è‹

73. æMò ñ‡ìðˆF™ ðô õ¬è æMòƒèœ õ¬óòŠð†®¼‰îù. æMòƒèœ °Pˆ¶ ÜP‰«î£˜ ÜPò£îõ˜èÀ‚° M÷‚A‚ ÃPù˜ â¡ø ªêŒF â‰î ËL™ Þì‹ ªðŸÁœ÷¶?

A) ðKð£ì™ B) ªï´ï™õ£¬ì

C) CôŠðFè£ó‹ D) ñE«ñè¬ô

74. «õ÷£‡«õî‹ â¡Á Ü¬ö‚èŠð´‹ Ë™ â¶?

A) ðöªñ£Nï£ÛÁ B) ï£ô®ò£˜

C) F¼‚°øœ D) ãô£F

75. “¹¬ùò£ æMò‹ ¹ø‹ «ð£‰î¡ù” - â¡ø ð£ì™ Ü®èÀì¡ ªî£ì˜¹¬ìò Ë™ â¶?

A) Üèï£ÛÁ B) CôŠðFè£ó‹

C) CôŠðFè£ó‹ D) ñE«ñè¬ô

76. Ì‹¹è£K™ ñ¼×˜Šð£‚è‹ â¡Â‹ èì™ ð°F»‹, ð†®ùŠð£‚è‹ â¡Â‹ ïèóŠ ð°F»‹ Ü¬ñ‰F¼‰î£è‚ °PŠH´‹ Ë™ â¶?

A) ð†®ùŠð£¬ô B) CôŠðFè£ó‹

C) ñE«ñè¬ô D) ªð¼‹ð£í£ŸÁŠð¬ì

77. ð‡¬ìˆ îIö˜èO¡ ÜKò õóô£ŸÁ„ ªêŒFèœ ÜìƒAò ð‡ð£†´ è¼×ôñ£èˆ Fè¿‹ Ë™ â¶?

A) ªî£™è£ŠHò‹ B) F¼‚°øœ

C) ðFŸÁŠðˆ¶ D) ¹øï£ÛÁ


12

78. ‘¹ôõ˜ ð£´‹ ¹è¿¬ì«ò£˜ M²‹H¡

õôõ¡ ãõ£ õ£ù á˜F’ - â¡ø ð£ì™ Ü® Þì‹ªðŸÁœ÷ Ë™ â¶?

A) Yõè C‰î£ñE B) ¹øï£ÛÁ

C) ðFŸÁŠðˆ¶ D) ðKð£ì™

79. CÁð…êÍôˆF¡ ä‰¶ «õ˜èO™ îõø£ù¶ â¶?

A) è‡ìƒèˆFK B) CÁõ¿¶¬í

C) Þôõƒè‹ D) ªï¼…C

80. æè£ó Þ¬ì„ªê£™ åNJ¬ê, Mù£, CøŠ¹, âF˜ñ¬ø, ªîKG¬ô, èN¾, HKG¬ô, Ü¬êG¬ô ÝAò â†´Š ªð£¼O™ õ¼‹ â¡Á ÃÁ‹ Ë™?

A) ªî£™è£ŠHò‹ B) ï¡Û™

C) ï£ô®ò£˜ D) ió«ê£Nò‹

81. “Þ‹¬ñ„ ªêŒî¶ ñÁ¬ñ‚° Ý‹âÂ‹ ÜøM¬ô õEè¡ ÝŒ Ü™ô¡” - ÞŠð£ìô®èœ Þì‹ªðŸÁœ÷ Ë™ â¶? (A) èLˆªî£¬è (B) ðFŸÁŠðˆ¶ (C) ¹øï£ÛÁ (D) CÁð£í£ŸÁŠð¬ì

82. ‘ÞQ¬ñ»‹ c˜¬ñ»‹ îIªöù™’ Ý°‹ â¡Á °PŠH´‹ Ë™ â¶? (A) CôŠðFè£ó‹ (B) Hƒèô Gè‡´ (C) Fõ£ó Gè‡´ (D) «ê‰î¡ Fõ£èó‹

83. ‘îIN¬ê Þò‚èˆF¡ î‰¬î’ â¡Á «ð£ŸøŠð´õ˜? (A) Ü«ò£ˆFî£ê ð‡®î˜ (B) eù£†C ²‰îóù£˜ (C) °ñó°¼ðó˜ (D) ÝHóè£‹ ð‡®î˜

84. ¹øï£ÛŸÁŠ ð£ì™èœ CôõŸ¬ø “Extracts from purananooru and puraporal venbamalai” â¡Â‹ î¬ôŠH™ ÝƒAôˆF™ ªñ£Nªðò˜ˆîõ˜ ò£˜?

(A) T.».«ð£Š (B) ü£˜x â™. ý£˜† (C) ióñ£ºQõ˜ (D) è£™´ªõ™

85. ‘è™M Üö«è Üö°’ - â¡Á ÃÁ‹ Ë™ â¶? (A) F¼‚°øœ (B) ï¡Û™ (C) °Á‰ªî£¬è (D) ï£ô®ò£˜

86. ‘è£†C’ â¡ø î¬ôŠH™ ò£˜ â¿Fò èM¬î îIN™ ¹¶¬ñò£ù õ®õˆF™ Ü¬ñ‰î ºî™ õêù èM¬î Ý°‹?

(A) ï.H„êÍ˜ˆF (B) ð£óFî£ê¡ (C) ð£óFò£˜ (D) èMñE

13


87. ò£¼¬ìò èM¬îèO™ «îê M´î¬ô, ªð‡ M´î¬ô, êºî£ò M´î¬ô Þ‹Í¡Á‹ ð£´ªð£¼œè÷£è Þ¼‚°‹

(A) ð£óFî£ê¡ (B) õ£Eî£ê¡ (C) º®òóê¡ (D) ð£óFò£˜

88. èŸð¬ù îM˜ˆî Þò™¹õ£îŠ ð¬ìŠ¹è¬÷ˆ î‰îõ˜ ò£˜?

(A) ï.ºˆ¶ê£I (B) ê£.è‰îê£I (C) Þ‰Fó£ ð£˜ˆî ê£óF (D) cô ðˆñï£ð¡

89. ºŸ«ð£‚° â¿ˆ¶è÷£™ ñ‚èÀì¡ «ïó®ò£è Mõ£Fˆ¶ î‹ Ã˜¬ñò£ù ð¬ìŠ¹èœ Íô‹ ªð¼‹¹è› ªðŸøõ˜..........

(A) ªüò«ñ£è¡ (B) ªüòè£‰î¡

(C) ó£ü‹ A¼wí¡ (D) «ñô£‡¬ñ ªð£¡Âê£I

90. èh™ pŠó£¡ â‰î ï£†¬ì„ «ê˜‰îõ˜? (A) Åì£¡ (B) ªôðù£¡ (C) üŠð£¡ (D) õ£†®è¡

91. “ðœOˆî÷‹ Ü¬ùˆ¶‹ «è£J™ ªêŒ°«õ£‹” â¡Á ð£®òõ˜ ò£˜? (A) ð£óFî£ê¡ (B) F¼‚°ø÷£˜ (C) F¼õœÀõ˜ (D) ð£óFò£˜

92. è¼ˆ¶Šðìƒè¬÷ ºî¡ºîL™ ÜPºèŠð´ˆFòõ˜ ò£˜? (A) ð£óFò£˜ (B) ð£óFî£ê¡ (C) óMõ˜ñ£ (D) è£‰FT

93. ‘¹ó†C‚èM’ â¡Á «ð£ŸøŠð´ðõ˜ ò£˜?

A) õ£Eî£ê¡ B) º®òóê¡

C) ð£óFî£ê¡ D) è‡íî£ê¡

94. ð£õô«óÁ â¡Â‹ CøŠ¹Š ªðòó£™ Ü¬ö‚èŠð´ðõ˜ ò£˜?

A) ªð¼…CˆFóù£˜ B) õ£Eî£ê¡

C) º®òóê¡ D) ²óî£

95. “â¡Á Hø‰îõœ â¡Á àíó£î Þò™Hù÷£‹ âƒèœ î£Œ”

- â¡Á ð£óîˆî£J¡ ªî£¡¬ñ¬òŠ ð£®òõ˜ ò£˜?

A) ð£óFî£ê¡ B) ð£õô«óÁ

C) õ£Eî£ê¡ D) ð£óFò£˜

96. âOò îIN™ êÍè„ Y˜F¼ˆî‚ è¼ˆ¶‚è¬÷ õL»ÁˆFŠ ð£®òõ˜ ò£˜?

A) ñ¼îè£C B) à´ñ¬ô ï£ó£òíèM

C) è‡íî£ê¡ D) ð†´‚«è£†¬ì è™ò£í²‰îó‹


14

97. Þó‡ì£‹ Þó£êó£ê «ê£öù¶ ªñŒW˜ˆFèœ âˆî¬ù àœ÷ù? (A) Í¡Á (B) å¡Á (C) ï£¡° (D) Þó‡´

98. “Ýó£õº«î ñF ¶ôƒ° - ªð‡«í Üõ˜ªê£™õ ¶¡¬èè†´ Môƒ°” - ð£®òõ˜ ò£˜? (A) ð£óFò£˜ (B) ð£óFî£ê¡ (C) º®òóê¡ (D) ²óî£

99. ‘ïFªõœ÷‹ è£Œ‰¶ M†ì£™ ïFªêŒî °Ÿø‹ Þ™¬ô’ - â¡Á ð£®òõ˜ ò£˜? (A) ð£óFò£˜ (B) ð£óFî£ê¡ (C) è‡íî£ê¡ (D) õ£Eî£ê¡

100. ‘ð£g²‚°Š«ð£’ - â¡ø ¹Fùˆ¬î ÞòŸPòõ˜ ò£˜? (A) ªüòè£‰î¡ (B) õ‡íî£ê¡ (C) ¹¶¬ñŠHˆî¡ (D) Ü‡í£¶¬ó

101. The ratio of the prices of two cows was 23 : 16. Two years later the price of the first cow rises by Rs. 477 and that of the second by 10% and the ratio of their prices became 20:11. Find the original prices

(A) Rs. 1,219, Rs. 848 (B) Rs. 1,218, Rs. 848 (C) Rs. 1,210, Rs. 850 (D) Rs. 1,219, Rs. 840 Þó‡´ ñ£´èO¡ M¬ô MAîñ£ù¶ 23 : 16. Þó‡´ Ý‡´èÀ‚° Hø°, ºî™

ñ£†®¡ M¬ô Ïð£Œ 477-Ýè àò˜‰î¶ ñŸÁ‹ Þó‡ì£õ¶ ñ£†®¡ M¬ô 10% àò˜‰î¶. îŸ«ð£¶ M¬ôJ¡ MAîñ£ù¶ 20:11 Ý°‹. à‡¬ñ M¬ô¬ò‚ è£‡è.

(A) Ïð£Œ 1,219, Ïð£Œ 848 (B) Ïð£Œ 1,218, Ïð£Œ 848

(C) Ïð£Œ 1,210, Ïð£Œ 850 (D) Ïð£Œ 1,219, Ïð£Œ 840

102. 4 àÁŠHù˜èœ ªè£‡ì °´‹ðˆFùK¡ êó£êK õò¶ 15 Ý‡´. Þ¡PL¼‰¶ Þ¼ð¶ Ý‡´‚° H¡ù˜, êó£êK õò¶ ........................ Ý°‹.

A) 20 Ý‡´èœ B) 60 Ý‡´èœ C) 35 Ý‡´èœ D) 30 Ý‡´èœ The average age of members of a 4 member family is 15 years. Twenty years from now, the average

age would be A) 20 years B) 60 years C) 35 Years D) 30 years

103. å¼ ªî£¬è Ã†´ õ†®J™ 3 õ¼ìˆF™ Ï.800 Ýè¾‹, 4 õ¼ìˆF™ Ï.840 Ýè¾‹ àò˜Aø¶ âQ™, å¼ õ¼ìˆFò õ†® iî‹

(A) 2 1/2% (B) 4% (C) 5% (D) 6 2/3% A sum of money invested in compound interest amounts to Rs. 800 in 3 years and to Rs. 840 in 4

years. The rate of interest per annum is (A) 2 1/2% (B) 4% (C) 5% (D) 6 2/3%

15


104. A rectangular water tank is 8 m high, 6 m long and 2.5 m wide. How many litres of water can it hold? (A) 120 litres (B) 1200 litres (C) 12000 litres (D) 120000 litres 8 e àòó‹, 6 e c÷‹ ñŸÁ‹ 2.5 e Üèôº¬ìò å¼ ªêšõè î‡a˜ ªî£†®J™

âˆî¬ù L†ì˜ î‡a˜ ªè£œÀ‹?

(A) 120 L†ì˜ (B) 1200 L†ì˜ (C) 12000 L†ì˜ (D) 120000 L†ì˜

105. Find the point of intersection of the straight line 9x-y-2=0 and 2x+y-9=0 A) (-1, 7) B) (7,1) C) (1,7) D) (-1,-7) 9x-y--2=0, 2x+y-9=0 â¡ø «ï˜«è£´èœ ªõ†´‹ ¹œO è£‡è. A) (-1, 7) B) (7,1) C) (1,7) D) (-1,-7)

106. The average salary of all workers in the factory Rs. 60. The average salary of 12 officers is Rs. 400. The average salary of rest is Rs. 56. Find the total no of workers in the factory

(A) 1116 (B) 1032 (C) 1212 (D) 1132 å¼ ªî£NŸê£¬ôJ™ àœ÷ ªî£Nô£÷˜èO¡ êó£êK áFò‹ Ï. 60. ÜF™ ÜFè£Kèœ

12 «ðK¡ êó£êK áFò‹ Ï. 400. eîºœ÷ ªî£Nô£÷˜èO¡ êó£êK áFò‹ Ï.56 âQ™ ªî£NŸê£¬ôJ™ àœ÷ ªñ£ˆî ªî£Nô£÷˜èO¡ â‡E‚¬è è£‡

(A) 1116 (B) 1032 (C) 1212 (D) 1132

107. A, B and C starts at same point and same direction to run around a circular station.” A complete in 252 secs, B in 308 secs and C in 198 secs. After what time they meet again at the starting point

(A) 26 min 18 secs (B) 42 min 36 secs (C) 45 min (D) 46 min 12 secs A, B, C â¡ø 3 ïð˜èœ å«ó ¹œOJ™; å«ó F¬êJ™ ñŸÁ‹ å«ó «ïóˆF™ õ†ìñ£è àœ÷

M¬÷ò£†´ FìL™ æ´Aø£˜èœ. ÜF™ A â¡ðõ˜ 252 ªï£®J½‹, B 308 ªï£®J½‹, C 198 ªï£®J½‹ M¬÷ò£†´ Fì¬ô ²ŸÁAø£˜èœ. Üõ˜èœ Íõ¼‹ âŠªð£¿¶ A÷‹Hò ÞìˆF™ ê‰FŠð£˜èœ

(A) 26 GIì‹ 18 ªï£® (B) 42 GIì‹ 36 ªï£®

(C) 45 GIì‹ (D) 46 GIì‹ 12 ªï£®

108. Find the LCM of 3 (a -1), 2 (a - 1)2, (a2 -1) (A) (a + 1)2 (a +1) (B) (a - 1)2 (a + 1) (C) 6 (a - 1) (a +1)2 (D) 6 (a - 1)2 (a + 1) 3 (a -1), 2 (a - 1)2, (a2 -1) -¡ e„CÁ ªð£¶ ñìƒ° è£‡è.

(A) (a + 1)2 (a +1) (B) (a - 1)2 (a + 1) (C) 6 (a - 1) (a +1)2 (D) 6 (a - 1)2 (a + 1)

109. If the sum of 3 consecutive integers is 540. then integers are (A) 178, 179, 183 (B) 176, 186, 178 (C) 178, 180, 182 (D) 179, 180, 181


16

Ü´ˆî´ˆ¶ õ¼‹ Í¡Á º¿ ñFŠ¹èO¡ Ã†´ˆªî£¬è 540 âQ™, Ü‹ñFŠ¹è¬÷‚ è£‡è.

(A) 178, 179, 183 (B) 176, 186, 178 (C) 178, 180, 182 (D) 179, 180, 181

110. “?” °PJ†ì ÞìˆF™ õ¼‹ â‡¬í‚ è£‡è.

1 2

5 13 25 ?

2 3 3 4 4 5

(A) 41 (B) 35 (C) 30 (D) 28 Find the missing number in the place ‘?’

1 2

5 13 25 ?

2 3 3 4 4 5

(A) 41 (B) 35 (C) 30 (D) 28

111. 7 Cô‰Fèœ, 7 Ã´è¬÷ 7 ï£†èO™ ªêŒî£™ 1 Cô‰F 1 Ã†®¬ù âˆî¬ù ï£†èO™ ªêŒ»‹?

(A) 1 (B) 7/2 (C) 7 (D) 49 If 7 spiders make 7 webs in 7 days, then 1 spider will make 1 web in how many days? (A) 1 (B) 7/2 (C) 7 (D) 49

112. If DOCTOR corresponds to the numbers 4, 15, 3, 20, 15, 18 then the numbers 3, 21, 18, 5, 19 corresponds to

A) CUTES B) CURES C) CUBES D) C ARES DOCTOR â¡ð¶ 4, 15, 3, 20, 15, 18 ÝAò â‡èÀ‚°Kò¶ âQ™, 3, 21, 18, 5, 19

ÝAò â‡èœ °PŠð¶ A) CUTES B) CURES C) CUBES D) C ARES

113. å¼õK¡ ñ£î õ¼ñ£ù‹ Ï. 28,000. Üõ¼¬ìò ªêôiùº‹ «êIŠ¹‹ ðìˆF™ ªè£´‚èŠð†´œ÷¶. àíMŸ°‹ «êIŠHŸ°‹ àœ÷ MAî‹

7%

Entertainment

13%Rent 20%

Travel

45%Food

15%Savings

(A) 33.1% (B) 33.7 % (C) 33.2% (D) 33.3% A man earn Rs. 28,000 as monthly salary. His expenditure and savings are given in the diagram. The

percentage of savings compared to food

17


7%

Entertainment

13%Rent 20%

Travel

45%Food

15%Savings

(A) 33.1% (B) 33.7 % (C) 33.2% (D) 33.3%

114. Þ¼ â‡èO¡ Þ¬ê„êó£êK ñŸÁ‹ ªð¼‚è™ êó£êK, º¬ø«ò 6-4 ñŸÁ‹ 8 Ý°‹. Üšªõ‡è÷£õù

(A) 8 ñŸÁ‹ 8 (B) 32 ñŸÁ‹ 2

(C) 4 ñŸÁ‹ 16 (D) 10 ñŸÁ‹ 6 The harmonic mean and geometric mean of two values are 64 and 8 respectively. The values are (A) 8 and 8 (B) 32 and 2 (C) 4 and 16 (D) 10 and 6

115. Two pipes can fill a water tank separately by 12 minutes and 20 minutes a waste pipe can drain off in 30 gallons/min. If all the three pipes are open the tank fills in 30 minutes, then the capacity of water tank is

(A) 300 gallons (B) 400 gallons (C) 500 gallons (D) 600 gallons å¼ î‡a˜ ªî£†®¬ò Þ¼ °ö£Œèœ îQˆîQò£è 12 GIìƒèO™, 20 GIìƒèO™

î‡a¬ó GóŠ¹A¡øù. ªõO«òŸÁ‹ °ö£ò£ù¶ å¼ GIìˆFŸ° 30 «èô¡ c¬ó ªõO«òŸÁAø¶. Í¡Á °ö£ŒèÀ‹ Fø‰F¼‚°‹ «ð£¶ î‡a˜ ªî£†®J™ 30 GIìƒèO™ c˜ Gó‹¹Aø¶ âQ™, Üˆªî£†®J¡ ªè£œ÷÷¾

(A) 300 «èô¡èœ (B) 400 «èô¡èœ

(C) 500 «èô¡èœ (D) 600 «èô¡èœ

116. 14% îQõ†® iîˆF™ Ï.1,400 Ýù¶ 5.2.1994 ºî™ 19.4.1994 õ¬ó ºîh´ ªêŒòŠð†ì£™ A¬ì‚°‹ ªñ£ˆîˆ ªî£¬è âšõ÷¾?

(A) Rs. 1,539 (B) Rs. 1,437 (C) Rs. 1,439.20 (D) Rs. 1,469.20 Find the amount of Rs. 1,400 invested at SI 14% during the period from 5th Feb. 1994 to 19th April

1994. (A) Rs. 1,539 (B) Rs. 1,437 (C) Rs. 1,439.20 (D) Rs. 1,469.20

117. Kamesh is taller than Raj but not as tall as Somesh. Somesh is shorter than Rajeev who is not tall as Subash. Who is in the middle when they are arranged according to their heights?

(A) Kamesh (B) Raj (C) Rajeev (D) Somesh ó£x--¬ò Mì è£«ñw àòóñ£ùõ˜. Ýù£™ «ê£«ñw «ð£¡Á àòóñ£ùõó™ô˜. ó£p¬õ

Mì «ê£«ñw °œ÷ñ£ùõ˜. Ýù£™ ó£pš ²ð£¬ûMì àòóñ£ùõ˜ Ü™ô˜ âQ™ Üõ˜è¬÷ àòóŠð® GÁˆFù£™ ï´M™ Þ™«ô£˜

(A) è£«ñw (B) ó£x (C) ó£pš (D) «ê£«ñw


18

118. 56 8 64+ =

(A) 8 (B) 7 (B) 5 (D) 6

56 8 64+ =

(A) 8 (B) 7 (B) 5 (D) 6

119. In an examination for every correct answer 2 marks are awared for every wrong answer 1

2 mark is

reduced. If a student answer all 120 questions and secures 45 marks then the no. of correct answered questions is

(A) 45 (B) 42 (C) 36 (D) 38 å¼ «î˜M™ åšªõ£¼ êKò£ù M¬ì‚° Þó‡´ ñFŠªð‡èœ õöƒèŠðÁø¶

åšªõ£¼ îõø£ù M¬ì‚° 1

2 ñFŠªð‡ °¬ø‚èŠðÁø¶. å¼ ñ£íõ¡ Ü¬ùˆ¶

120 Mù£‚èÀ‚°‹ M¬ìòOˆ¶ 45 ñFŠªð‡è¬÷Š ªðÁAø£¡ âQ™, êKò£è M¬ìòOˆî Mù£‚èO¡ â‡E‚¬è

(A) 45 (B) 42 (C) 36 (D) 38

120. ðè¬ì Þó‡´ º¬ø ²öŸøŠðÁø¶. Ã†´ â‡ 9 ªðÁõîŸè£ù Gè›îè¾ è£‡è. A) 9 B) 1/9 C) 2/9 D) 9/2 A perfect dice is tossed twice. Find the probability of getting a total of 9. A) 9 B) 1/9 C) 2/9 D 9/2

121. å¼ ªî£¬èò£ù¶ 2 Ý‡´èÀ‚°ˆ îQõ†® MAîˆF™ «êI‚èŠðÁø¶. Ü«î ªî£¬è 3% ÜFèñ£ù îQõ†® iîˆF™ «êI‚èŠð†ì£™ Ï. 300 ÜFèñ£è õ†® A¬ì‚°ªñQ™ «êI‚èŠð´‹ ªî£¬è â¡ù?

(A) Rs. 5,000 (B) Rs. 4,000 (C) Rs. 10,000 (D) Rs. 1,000 A sum was put at simple interest at a certain rate for 2 years. Had it been put at 3% higher rate, it

would have fetched Rs. 300 more. Find the sum (A) Rs. 5,000 (B) Rs. 4,000 (C) Rs. 10,000 (D) Rs. 1,000

122. (0.673) x(0.673) (0.327) x(0.327)1 0.654

−=

−

(A) 0.276 (B) 0.354 (C) 0.412 (D) 1.000

19


(0.673) x(0.673) (0.327) x(0.327)1 0.654

−=

−

(A) 0.276 (B) 0.354 (C) 0.412 (D) 1.000

123. å¼õ˜. å¼ Mù£®‚° 37 e†ì˜ «õèˆF™ æ®ù£™, 1 ñE 30 GIìƒèO™ èì‚°‹ Éó‹ ò£¶ ?

(A) 18.98 A.e (B) 19.18Ae (C) 19-.88 A.e (D) 19.98 Ae If a man runs at 3.7 metres per second, how many kilometres, does he run in 1 hour 30 minutes ? (A) 18.98 kms (B) 19.18 kms (C) 19.88 kms (D) 19.98 kms

124. A ñŸÁ‹ B å¼ «õ¬ô¬ò 10 ï£†èO½‹, B ñŸÁ‹ C Ü«î «õ¬ô¬ò 15 ï£†èO½‹, C ñŸÁ‹ A Ü«î «õ¬ô¬ò 18 ï£†èO½‹ º®Šð˜ âQ™, B îQ«ò Üš«õ¬ô¬ò âšõ÷¾ ï£†èO™ º®Šð£˜?

(A) 30 ï£†èœ (B) 20 ï£†èœ (C) 12 ï£†èœ (D) 18 ï£†èœ A and B can do a piece of work in 10 days; B and C in 15 days; C and A in 18 days. In how many days

can B alone do it ? (A) 30 days (B) 20 days (C) 12 days (D) 18 days

125. 12 ªð£¼œèO¡ õ£ƒAò M¬ô‚° 10 ªð£¼œèO¡ MŸø M¬ô‚°„ êñ‹ âQ™ Þ‰î Mò£ð£óˆF™ A¬ì‚°‹ Þô£ð‹ êîiî‹

(A) 18% (B) 16 2/3% (C) 20% (D) 25% If the cost of 12 Articles is equal to the selling price of 10 Articles, the profit percent in the transaction

is (A) 18% (B) 16 2/3% (C) 20% (D) 25%

126 è£‰îõ˜‚è„ ªêPMŸ°‹, ªê½ˆîŠ ð†ì è£‰îŠ¹ô„ ªêPMŸ°‹ Þ¬ìŠð†ì MAî‹ âšõ£Á Ü¬ö‚èŠð´‹?

A) ãŸ¹ˆFø¡ B) c‚è‹ C) G¬ù¾ D) à†¹°Fø¡

The ratio of the intensity of magnetisation to the applied magnetic field strength is known as magnetic

A) Susceptibility B) Co-ercivity C) Retentivity D) Permeability

127. ð¼Šªð£¼œ áìè‹ ¶¬íJ¡P ªõŠð‹ ñ£ŸøŠð´‹ Gè›¾

(A) èF˜i„² (B) ªõŠðêôù‹

(C) ªõŠð‚ èìˆî™ (D) «ñŸè‡ì â¶¾I™¬ô


20

The phenomenon of transfer of heat without any material medium is known as (A) Radiation (B) Convection (C) Conduction (D) None of these

128. I¡²ŸÁ‚èO™ ðò¡ð´‹ I¡ à¼° Þ¬ö â‰î MFJ¡ Ü®Šð¬ìJ™ ªêòŸð´Aø¶?

(A) ê£˜ôv MF (B) GÎ†ìQ¡ Þò‚è MF

(C) ü¨™ ªõŠð M¬÷¾ MF (D) GÎ†ìQ¡ °O˜¾ MF

Fuse wire used in an electric circuits is based on the principle of (A) Charles law (B) Newton’s law of motion (C) Joule’s law of heating (D) Newton’s law of cooling

129. W›è‡ìõŸÁœ °¬ø à«ô£è º¬øð£®Ÿè£ù â´ˆ¶‚è£†´ ò£¶?

A) NaCl B) AgCl C) CsCl D) FeS Which one of the following is example of metal deficiency detect ? A) NaCl B) AgCl C) CsCl D) FeS

130. îõø£ù «ü£®¬ò‚ è‡ìPè:

(I) êô¬õ «ê£ì£ & Na2CO3

(II) êô¬õˆ Éœ - & CaO (III) ð£gv ê£‰¶ & CaSO4. 1/2 H2O (IV) ê¬ñò™ «ê£ì£ & NaHCO3 (A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV Identify the incorrect pair : I. Washing soda - Na2CO3 II. Bleaching powder - CaO III. Plaster of paris - CaSO4, ½H2O IV. Baking soda - NaHCO3 A. I B. II C. III D. IV131. ñ¼‰î£èŠ ðò¡ð´‹ âvì˜

A. âˆF™ ÜC«ì† B. ªñˆF™ ê£LC«ô†

C. âˆF™ ªð¡«ê£«ò† D. ªñˆF™ ªð¡«ê£«ò†

An ester used as medicine is A. ethyl acetate B. methyl salicylate C. ethyl benzoate D. methyl benzoate

132. Ü‰F ñ‰î£¬ó ñô˜ ðèL™ Í® ÞóM™ ñô˜‰¶ Þ¼‚°‹ Gè›MŸ°

(A) åO õ÷˜„C (B) «ñ™ ð‚è õ÷˜„C

(C) Ü®Šð‚è õ÷˜„C (D) Þó¾ õ÷˜„C

“Evening primrose flower open at night and close during the day”. The movement known as (A) Photonasty (B) Epinasty (C) Hyponasty (D) Wyctinasty

21


133. àóƒèœ ªî£ì˜¹¬ìò W›è‡ì õ£‚Aòƒè¬÷ ð®‚è¾‹. I. ¬ï†óü¡, îõ£óƒèO¡ «õèñ£ù õ÷˜„C‚° ÜõCòñ£ùî£°‹ II. î£õóƒèO¡ ¶Kî õ÷˜„C‚°‹ ºF˜„C‚°‹ ð£v«ð† «î¬õ III. õL¬ñò£ù «õ˜ Ü¬ñŠ¬ð ªð£†ì£Cò‹ à¼õ£‚°Aø¶. «ñŸè‡ì â‰î õ£‚Aò‹/õ£‚Aòƒèœ êK? (A) I ñŸÁ‹ II (B) I, II ñŸÁ‹ III (C) I ñŸÁ‹ III (D) I ñ†´‹ Read the following statements with reference to fertilizers: I. Nitrogen is highly essential for rapid growth of plants. II. Phosphate promotes early growth as well as early maturity of plants. III. Potassium develops a healthy root system. Which of the statement(s) is/are correct? (A) I and II (B) I, II and III (C) I and III (D) I only

134. ²õ£Cˆî™ °Pˆî W›è‡ì ÃŸÁèO™ â¬õ êKò£ù¬õ? (I) ²õ£Cˆî™ Íô‹ î£õóˆF¡ àô˜ â¬ì °¬øAø¶. (II) ²õ£CˆîL¡ «ð£¶ ê˜‚è¬ó¬ò âO¬ñò£‚°‹ Þ¬ì «õF M¬ùèœ ñŸÁ‹

åO„«ê˜‚¬èJ¡ «ð£¶ ê˜‚è¬ó¬ò à¼õ£‚°‹ àJ˜ «õFM¬ùèœ ÝAò¬õ ªð¼‹ð£½‹ å«ó ñ£FKò£ù¬õ.

(III) Ý‚RüQ¡ Ü÷¾ ²õ£Cˆî¬ô ð£FŠðî£è‚ è‡ìPòŠðìM™¬ô. (IV) ²õ£Cˆî™ â¡ð¶ Ý‚è™ Gè›¾. (A) I, II ñŸÁ‹ IV (B) II ñŸÁ‹ IV (C) I ñŸÁ‹ II ñ†´‹ (D) I ñŸÁ‹ III Which of the following statements about respiration is true? (I) Respiration results in loss of dry weight in plants. (II) The intermediate chemical reactions in the breakdown of sugar in respiration and synthesis of

sugar in photosynthesis are much the same. (III) The oxygen concentration is not known to affect respiration. (IV) Respiration is a constructive process. (A) I, II and IV (B) II and IV (C) I and II only (D) I and III

135. q«ñ£°«÷£H¡, q«ñ£¬êòQ¡, Yó‹, Ý™¹I¡ ÝAò¬õ &&&&&&&&&&&& õ¬è ¹óî‹.

A. è†´Šð´ˆ¶‹ B. èìˆ¶‹

C. «êIˆ¶ ¬õ‚°‹ D. ð£¶è£ŠðO‚°‹

Haemoglobin, haemocyanin, seru, albumin are ------------- type of proteins. A.regulatory B. trsnsport C. storage D. protective

136. ÞóˆîˆF™ àœ÷ ¹«ó£Fó£‹H¡ âîÂì¡ ªî£ì˜¹¬ìò¶ ?

A)Þîò ¶®Š¬ð ¶õ‚°î™ B) Þóˆî‹ à¬øî™

C) Þóˆî‹ å†´î™ D) Þóˆî Ü¿ˆî‹

Prothrombin is found in blood and is related with A) Initiation of heart beat B) Blood clotting C) Blood agglutination D) Blood pressure


22

137. «èv®K¡ ý£˜«ñ£Q¡ «õ¬ôò£ù¶ (A) HCL àŸðˆF¬ò É‡´õ¶ (B) HˆîŠ¬ð¬ò ²¼‚è„ ªêŒõ¶ (C) c˜ ñŸÁ‹ àŠ¹è¬÷ ²ó‚è„ ªêŒõ¶ (D) CÁc˜ ªõO«òŸøˆF¬ù É‡´õ¶ Hormone Gastrin acts as (A) Stimulates HCL production (B) Causes contraction of gall bladder (C) Water and Salt secretion (D) Stimulate urine elimination

138. 1931&-‹ Ý‡´ èó£„CJ™ ï¬ìªðŸø ÜAô Þ‰Fò è£ƒAóv ñ£ï£†´‚° î¬ô¬ñ î£ƒAòõ˜

(A) üõý˜ô£™ «ï¼ (B) ñè£ˆñ£ è£‰F (C) Þó£ü£T (D) õ™ôð£Œ ð«ì™ All India Congress sessions held at Karachi in 1931 under the leadership of (A) Jawaharlal Nehru (B) ‘Mahatma Gandhi (C) Rajaji (D) Vallabhbhai Patel

139. îIöèˆF™ ²ò ñKò£¬î Þò‚èˆ¬î ¶õ‚Aòõ˜ ò£˜? (A) H. Fò£èó£ò˜ (B) ß.ªõ. Þó£ñê£I (C) C.â¡. Ü‡í£¶¬ó (D) â‹. è¼í£GF Who was the founder of self-respect movement in Tamil Nadu? (A) P. Theagaraya (B) E.V. Ramaswamy (C) C.N. Annadurai (D) M. Karunanidhi

140. Þ‰Fò «îCò C¡ùˆF™ ðò¡ð´ˆîŠð†´œ÷ ‘êˆòñ«õ ªüò«î’ â¡ø ªê£Ÿèœ âƒA¼‰¶ ªðøŠð†´œ÷ù-?

A) ¬ñˆ«óJ àðGìî‹ B) º‡ìè àðGìî‹ C) ºˆèô àðGìî‹ D) Hóñ àðGìî‹ The words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ in the National Emblem of India have been adopted from A) Maitreyi Upanishad B) Mundaka Upanishad C) Mudgala Upanishad D) Brahma Upanishad

141. Cî‹ðó‹ ïìó£ü˜ ÝôòˆF¡ Ã¬ó‚° ªð£ŸÃ¬ó «õŒ‰îõ¡ (A) Mêò£ôò¡ (B) ºîô£‹ ðó£‰îè¡ (C) ºîô£‹ ó£üó£ü¡ (D) ºîô£‹ ó£«ü‰Fó¡ Who provided the ‘Vimana’ of the famous Nataraja temple at chidambaram with a golden roof (A) Vijayalaya (B) Parantaka I (C) Rajaraja I (D) Rajendra I

142. H¡õ¼‹ è£óíƒèÀ‚è£è 1942‹ Ý‡´ Ýèv´ 8‹ ï£œ è£ƒAó² ªõœ¬÷ò«ù ªõO«òÁ b˜ñ£ùˆ¬î ÞòŸPò¶

I. AKŠv É¶‚ °¿M¡ «î£™MJù£™ II. Þ‰Fò£¬õ «ï£‚A üŠð£QòŠ ð¬ìèœ ¹øŠð†ìîù£™ III. üŠð£Qì‹ è£†®ò ÜÂî£ðˆFù£™ IV. ÝƒA«ôò˜èœ Þ‰Fò˜èO¡ M´î¬ô «è£K‚¬è¬ò ãŸÁ‚ ªè£œ÷

è†ì£òŠð´ˆ¶õîŸè£è V. «ê£Mòˆ ÎQò¬ù ÝîKŠðîŸè£è (A) I, II, ñŸÁ‹ IV‹ êK (B) I, II, III ñŸÁ‹ IV‹ êK (C) I, II, III ñŸÁ‹ V‹ êK (D) I, II, IV ñŸÁ‹ V‹ êK

23


The congress passed the ‘Quit India’ Resolution on 8 August, 1942 for the following reasons : I. Failure of the Cripps Mission II. Japanese forces moved towards India III. Sympathy with Japan IV. To compel the British to accept the demand of Indians for independence V. To support the Soviet Union. (A) I, II, and IV are correct (B) I, II, III and IV are correct (C) I, II, III and V are correct (D) I, II, IV and V are correct

143. W›è‡ì¬õèO™ êKò£ù¶ â¶?

1. Müò ïèó ï£íòƒèœ ‘õ£ó£è£’ âù Ü¬ö‚èŠð´Aø¶

2. Müò ïèó îƒè ï£íòƒèO™ èì¾œèœ ñŸÁ‹ Môƒ°èœ à¼õ‹ è£íŠð´Aø¶

3. è£è˜ˆFò˜èO¡ î¬ôïèó‹ õ£óƒè™

4. ê£À‚Aò˜èO¡ Üóê ê£†CJ¬ù¬ò Müòïèó Üóê˜èœ ðEð´ˆFù˜ (A) 1 êK, 2, 3, 4 êKò£ù¶ Ü™ô

(B) 1 ñŸÁ‹ 2 êKò£ù¶ 3, 4 êKò£ù¶ Ü™ô

(C) 1, 2, 3 êKò£ù¶ 4 ñ†´‹ êKò£ù¶ Ü™ô (D) Ü¬ùˆ¶‹ êKò£ù¶

Which of the following statements are/is correct? 1. The names of coins of Vijayanagar rulers is called as Varaha 2. The gold coin contains image of various Human deities and animals. 3. The capital of the Kakatiyas was warrangal 4. The Vijaya Nagar rulers adopted the custom of Chalukyan (A) 1 is correct 2, 3, 4 are not correct (B) 1 and 2 is correct 3,4 are not correct (C) 1,2,3 are correct only 4 is not correct (D) All are correct

144. ‘ê†ìˆF¡ Ý†C’ «è£†ð£†®¬ù º¡ªñ£N‰îõ˜ ò£˜ ?

A)A.V. ¬ìC B) H¬óv Hó¹

C) K.C. Mò˜ D) üõ˜ ªü¡Qƒv Who Propounded the concept of ‘Rule of Law’? A) A.V. Dicey B) Lord Bryce C) K.C. Wheare D) lvor Jennings

145. üùõK 1216 &™ ïì‰î îªóŒ¡ «ð£K™ Þ™Ç†Iú£™ «î£Ÿè®‚èŠð†ìõ˜ ò£˜ ?

A) ïR¼b¡ °õ£„ê£ B) î£ü¨b¡ Þ™®w

C) ÜLñ˜î¡ D) üô£½b¡

Who was defeated by Iltutmish in the battle of Tarain in January 1216? A) Nasir -ud-Qahacha B) Tajuddin Yildiz C) Alimardan D) Jalaluddin


24

146. ªïŸè†´‹ «êõ™ ð°F¬ò ¬èŠ ðŸPò ÝƒA«ôò î÷ðF A) è˜ù™ ªýó£¡ B) è˜ù™ «è‹ªð™ C) ü£‚ê¡ ¶¬ó D) ¹Lˆ«îõ˜ Which British commander captured the place Nerkkattum SevaI? A) Colonel Heron B) Colonel Campel C) Jackson Durai D) Pulithdevar

147. ñè™õ£K º¬ø¬ò ÜPºèŠð´ˆFòõ˜ ò£˜? (A) - î£ñv ñ¡«ó£ (B) M™Lò‹ ªð‡®‚

(C) è£ó¡ õ£Lv (D) ªõ™ôvL

Who has introduced Mahalwari system? (A) Thomas Manroe (B) William Bentinck (C) Corn Wallis (D) Wellesley

148. â‰î ð™ôõ ñ¡ù˜ F¼ñƒ¬è Ý›õ£¬ó ÝîKˆ¶ Üõ¬ó H¡ðŸPòõ˜ ?

A)C‹ñ Mwµ B) ðó«ñvõó¡

C) ïóC‹ñ¡ D) Þó‡ì£‹ ï‰Fõ˜ñ¡

Which pallava King was the patron and follower of Tirumangai Alwar ? A) Simha Vishnu B) Parameswara C) Narasimha D) Nandivarman II

149. W«ö îóŠð†´œ÷ ð†®òLL¼‰¶ K‚ «õîˆF™ °PŠHìŠð´‹ å¼ Gô‹ ê£˜‰î èì¾¬÷‚ °PŠH´è.

A) ê£MˆFK B) «ê£ñ£ C) Þ‰Fó¡ D) ÜvMQèœ

Name the terrestrial God of the Rig Veda from the following list A) Savithri B)Soma C) Indra D) Aswins

150. W›‚è‡ì õ£‚Aòƒè¬÷ èõQ‚è¾‹: (a) : ‘Operation flood’ â¡ð¶ ªð‡èœ «ñ‹ð£†®Ÿè£ù å¼ F†ìñ£°‹. (b) : Þ‰îˆ F†ìˆF¡ Íô‹ Aó£ñˆ¶ ªð‡èœ ð£™ ªð£¼œèœ îò£KŠH™ ß´ð†ìù˜. (A) (a) ñ†´‹ êK (B) (a) ñŸÁ‹ (b) êK (C) (b) ñ†´‹ êK (D)(a) ñŸÁ‹(b) îõÁ Consider the following statements: (a) : ‘Operation flood’ was a programme for women empowerment. (b) : Under this programme rural women involved in dairy development. (A) (a) only is correct (B) (a) and (b) are correct (C) Only (b) is correct (D) Both (a) and (b) are wrong

151. Þô‚° àœ÷ ªð£¶ ðA˜¾ º¬ø â‰î Ý‡´ ªî£ìƒèŠð†ì¶?

(A) 1977 (B) 1987 (C) 1997 (D) 2007

25


When was targeted Public Distribution System introduced? (A) 1977 (B) 1987 (C) 1997 (D) 2007

152. Hóî£¡ ñ‰FK põ¡ «ü£F dñ£ «ò£üù£ â¡ø F†ì‹ âŠ«ð£¶ ¶õƒèŠð†ì¶?

A) ü¨¬ô 9, 2014 B) ü§¡ 6, 2014 C) «ñ 9, 2015 D) Ýèv† 2, 2015 When was the scheme Prathan Mantri Jeevan Jyothi Bima Yojana was started? A) July 9, 2014 B) June 6, 2014 C) May 9, 2015 D) Aug 2, 2015

153. ðíˆF¡ ñFŠ¹ i›„Cò¬ì‰¶ ªè£‡®¼‚°‹ å¼ ñ£Gô‹, Üî£õ¶ M¬ôèœ àò˜A¡øù

(A) ðíi‚è‹ (B) ðíõ£†ì‹

(C) «î‚è‹ (D) ñ‰îG¬ô

“A State in which the value of money is falling : and prices are rising is called” (A) Inflation (B) Deflation (C) Stagflation (D) Recession

154. W›‚è‡ì¬õèÀœ â¬õ «ï˜ºè õK‚è£ù â´ˆ¶‚è£†´ Ü™ô?

(A) õ¼õ£J¡ eî£ù õKèœ (B) ªê£ˆF¡ eî£ù õKèœ

(C) õ£K²K¬ñèœ eî£ù õKèœ (D) «èO‚¬è eî£ù õKèœ

Which of the following is not the example for Direct Tax? (A) Taxes on Income (B) Taxes on property (C) Taxes on inheritance (D) Táxes on entertainment

155. W›‚è‡ìõŸÁœ êKò£èŠ ªð£¼ˆîŠð†´œ÷¶ â¶? (I) Þó†¬ì M¬ô – ---Üó² ñŸÁ‹ îQò£˜ M¬ô (II) ªð£¶ ðƒèOŠ¹ F†ì‹ - – ̧ è˜«õ£˜ ð£¶è£Š¹ (III) G˜õ£è M¬ô – -è†´Šð´ˆîŠð†ì M¬ô (IV) GF‚ ªè£œ¬è - – õƒA G˜õ£è‹ (A) I ñ†´‹ (B) II ñ†´‹ (C) I, II ñŸÁ‹ III (D) IV ñ†´‹ Which of the following is correctly matched? (I) Dual price – Govt and Private prices (II) PDS – Consumer Protection (III) Adminstered price – Controlled price (IV) Fiscal Policy – Bank administration (A) I only (B) II only (C) I, II and III (D) IV only

156. Mõê£ò ðJ˜ è£Šd´ º¬ø¬ò Þ‰Fò Üóê£ƒè‹ ªè£‡´ õ‰î Ý‡´ â¶?

(A) 1986 (B) 1984 (C) 1985 (D) 1989


26

Agricultural crop insurance was introduced by Government of India in (A) 1986 (B) 1984 (C) 1985 (D) 1989

157. ñ£Gôƒè¬÷ Ü¬õèœ àŸðˆFJ™ º¡ùE õA‚°‹ î£¶‚è«÷£´ ªð£¼ˆ¶è. (a) åKvú£ 1. ¶ˆîï£è‹ (b) ñˆFò Hó«îê‹ 2. «î£Kò‹ (c) Ý‰Fó Hó«îê‹ 3. ñ£ƒèmv (d) «èó÷£ 4. ¬ñè£ (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 1 4 2 (B) 2 3 1 4 (C) 3 1 2 4 (D) 4 3 2 1 Match the states with the minerals in which they lead the production (a) Orissa 1. Copper (b) Madhya Pradesh 2. Thorium (c) Andhra Pradesh 3. Manganese (d) Kerala 4. Mica (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 1 4 2 (B) 2 3 1 4 (C) 3 1 2 4 (D) 4 3 2 1

158. ð™«õÁ õ¬èò£ù î£õóƒèœ, Þ‰Fò£M¡ ð™«õÁ ð°FèO™ Ü¬ñ‰¶œ÷¬ñ‚° è£óí‹

(A) Þì Ü¬ñ¾

(B) ªõŠðG¬ô ñŸÁ‹ ñ¬öŠªð£NM¡ êññŸø ðóõ™

(C) ñ‡ (D) ªõŠðG¬ô ñŸÁ‹ ñ‡

Different types of vegetation is found in different parts of India - due to (A) Topography (B) Unequal distribution of Rainfall and Temperature (C) Soil (D) Temperature and soil

159. îI›ï£†®™ ªð†«ó£™ A¬ì‚è‚Ã®ò ÝŸÁ õ®Gô‹ â¶?

(A) ¬õ¬è õ®Gô‹ (B) è£«õK õ®Gô‹

(C) ªðKò£˜ õ®Gô‹ (D) î£IóðóE õ®Gô‹

In Tamilnadu which one of the following river basins has petroleum reserves (A) Vaigai Basin (B) Cauvery Basin (C) Periyar Basin (D) Tamiraparani Basin

27


160. êˆbvèK¡ ¬ñ‚è£™ ñ¬ôJ¡ Üñ˜èï£ì‚ dìÌIJL¼‰¶ â‰î ÝÁèœ â¿A¡øù? (A) ê£ó£õF (B) ï˜ñî£ (C) îðF (D) ñ£A The _____ river rises from the plateau of Amarkantak of Maikal Hills of Chhattisgarh. (A) Sharavati (B) Narmada (C) Tapi (D) Mahi

161. èì™ î¬ó ðóõ™ «è£†ð£†¬ì à¼õ£‚Aòõ˜ (A) ìHœÎ. ªü. «ñ£˜è¡ (1967) (B) ý£K ªýv (1961) (C) ªõèù˜ (1912) (D) ®.C. «ê‹ð˜O¡ (1961) The sea floor spreading theory is proposed by (A) W.J. Morgan (1967) (B) Hary Hess (1961) (C) Weganer (1912) (D) T.C. Chamberlin (1961)

162. Üòù ñ‡ìô Aö‚°Š ðCH‚ êºˆFó «ñŸðóŠH™ ãŸð´‹ ªõŠð ãŸøˆ î£›¾è÷£ù¶ Þšõ£Á Ü¬ö‚èŠð´Aø¶.

(A) ªõŠð î¬ôW› ñ£Ÿø‹ (B) ªõŠð„ êôù‹ (C) ªî˜«ñ£A¬÷¡ (D) â™ G«ù£ ñŸ-Á‹ ô£ Gù£ The major temperature fluctuations in surface waters of the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean is called

as (A) Temperature inversion (B) Convection (C) Thermocline (D) El Nino and La Nina

163. ªè£´‚èŠð†´œ÷ ¹M‚ «è£œ è£ŸP¡ Ü¬ñŠ¹, ðìˆF¬ù‚ è¼ˆF™ ªè£œè. õK¬ê I àì¡ õK¬ê II&¬ùŠ ªð£¼ˆF õK¬êèÀ‚°‚ W› ªè£´‚èŠð†´œ÷ ªî£°ŠHL¼‰¶ êKò£ù M¬ì¬ò ªîK¾ ªêŒè.

90oõ

IV

IV

III

III

II

III

90oªî

60oõ

30oõ

30oªî

60oªî

õK¬ê I õK¬ê II (a) I 1. «ñŸè£ŸÁèœ (b) II 2. W›è£ŸÁèœ (c) III 3. ì£™ìó‹v (d) IV 4. Mò£ð£ó‚ è£ŸÁèœ


28

°Pf´ : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 1 3 4 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 3 2 1 4 (D) 2 3 4 1 Consider the given figure of global pattern of winds, Match List I with List II and select the correct

answer using the code given below lists :

90oN

IV

IV

III

III

II

III

90oS

60oN

30oN

30oS

60oS

List I List II (a) I 1. Westerlies (b) II 2. Easterlies (c) III 3. Doldrums (d) IV 4. Trade winds Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 1 3 4 (B) 3 4 1 2 (C) 3 2 1 4 (D) 2 3 4 1

164. W›‚è£µ‹ õ£‚Aòƒè¬÷‚ èõQ. ÃŸÁ (A) : ¬ñè£ ñŸÁ‹ ¬è¬ù®™ àôA«ô«ò Þ‰Fò£ î£¡ IèªðKò

àŸðˆFò£÷ó£è àœ÷¶. è£óí‹ (R) : ð£‚¬ê†, CLªñ¬ù†, «ì£ô¬ñ† «ð£¡ø î£¶èÀ‹ Þ‰Fò£M™

ÜFèñ£è‚ è£íŠð´Aø¶. (A) (A) ñŸÁ‹ (R) Þó‡´«ñ êK, «ñ½‹ (R) â¡ð¶ (A) -MŸ° êKò£ù M÷‚èñ£°‹. (B) (A) ñŸÁ‹ (R) Þó‡´«ñ êK, «ñ½‹ (R) â¡ð¶ (A) -MŸ° êKò£ù M÷‚èñ™ô (C) (A) êK Ýù£™ (R) îõÁ (D) (A) îõÁ Ýù£™ (R) êK.

29


Consider the following statements: Ascertain (A) : India is the largets producer of mica and Kynaite in the world. Reason (R) : Bauxite, Sillimanite, Dolomite are found maximum in India. (A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true but (R) is false (D) (A) is false but (R) is true

165. Þ‰Fò ¶¬í‚è‡ì‹ â‰î‚ è£ô G¬ô õ¬èŠð£†®™ Ü¬ñòŠ ªðŸÁœ÷¶ ?

(A) Üòù ñ‡ìô è£ôG¬ô ñ£Áð£†´ ñ‡ìô‹

(B) ªõŠð ð£¬ôõù ñ‡ìô‹

(C) ð¼õè£ô ñ‡ìô‹

(D) ñˆFò î¬ó è£ôG¬ô ñ‡ìô‹

The Climatic region of the Indian sub continents belongs to (A) Equatorial climate change region (B) Hot desert region (C) Monsoon region (D) Mediterranean region

166. êð£ï£òè˜¢ ñŸÁ‹ ¶¬í êð£ï£òè˜ ÝA«ò£K¡ áFòº‹ Hø ðíŠ ðò¡èœ ò£ó£™ G˜íò‚èŠð´Aø¶?

(A) «ô£‚ êð£ (B) Þó£xò êð£

(C) ð£ó£Àñ¡ø‹ (D) °®òó² î¬ôõ˜

The Salary and other emoluments of the speaker and deputy speaker fixed by (A) Lok Sabha (B) Rajya Sabha (C) Parliament (D) President

167. Þ‰Fò °®»K¬ñ ê†ì‹ G¬ø«õŸøŠð†ì Ý‡´ â¶?

(A) 1952 (B) 1953 (C) 1954 (D) 1955 The Indian citizenship act was passed on (A) 1952 (B) 1953 (C) 1954 (D) 1955

168. W›‚è‡ìõŸP¬ùŠ ªð£¼ˆ¶è: ªð£¼œ Þ‰Fò ÜóCòô¬ñŠH¡ ð°F

(a) ªð£¶Š ðEò£÷˜ «î˜õ£¬íòƒèœ 1. XVIII (b) «î˜î™èœ 2. XIV - A (c) ªï¼‚è® G¬ô Ü‹êƒèœ 3. XIV (d) b˜Šð£òƒèœ 4. XV (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 3 1 4 (C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 3 4 1 2


30

Match the following : Subject Matter Parts in India Constitution (a) Public Service Commissions 1. XVIII (b) Elections 2. XIV - A (c) Emergency provisions 3. XIV (d) Tribunals 4. XV (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 3 1 4 (C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 3 4 1 2

169. W›‚è‡ì õ£‚Aòƒè¬÷‚ èõQ‚è¾‹:

(a) 73õ¶ ÜóCòô¬ñŠ¹ ê†ìˆF¼ˆî‹ Þ‰Fò ÜóCò™ ê£êùˆF¡ ð°F IX-™ Cô Ü‹êƒè¬÷ «ê˜ˆî¶.

(b) Þî¡ Íô‹ ñ£Gô Üó²‚° Aó£ñ G¬ôJ™ ð…ê£òˆ¶ GÁõùƒè¬÷»‹, ñ£õ†ìƒèO™ àò˜G¬ô ð…ê£òˆ¶ Ü¬ñ‚è¾‹ ÜFè£ó‹ õöƒèŠð†ì¶.

W›‚ªè£´‚èŠð†ìFL¼‰¶ êKò£ù M¬ì¬òˆ ªîK¾ ªêŒò¾‹.

(A) (a) ñŸÁ‹ (b) Þó‡´«ñ êK (B) (a) êK Ýù£™ (b) îõÁ

(C) (a) ñ†´‹ êKò£ù¶ (D) (b) ñ†´‹ êKò£ù¶

Consider the following statements : (a) The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act inserts certain provisions into Part IX to of the

Constitution (b) It empowers the State Legislature to make laws for the organization of Panchayats at Village

level as well as at the higher levels of a district. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (A) Both (a) and (b) are true (B) (a) is true and (b) is false (C) Only (a) is true (D) Only (b) is true

170. Þ‰Fò «î˜î™ Ý¬íò‹ ðŸPò W›‚è‡ì ªê£Ÿªø£ì˜èO™ â¬õ / â¬õèœ îõø£ù¬õ?

(I) «î˜î™ Ý¬íò‹, ð£ó£Àñ¡ø„ ê†ìˆFù£™ ãŸð´ˆîŠð†ì å¡Á. (II) «î˜î™ Ý¬íò‹ â¡ð¶ ÜóCòô¬ñŠHù£™ à¼õ£‚èŠð†ì Ü¬ñŠ¹ (III) «î˜î½‚° GŸðõK¡ M‡íŠð î£O¬ù, º¡ªñ£Nðõ˜ ªè£‡´ õ‰¶ î¼‹

ð†êˆF™ Üî¬ù «î˜î™ Ý¬íò‹ óˆ¶ ªêŒ»‹. (IV) üù£FðFJ¬ù c‚°õ¶ ªî£ì˜ð£ù Mõè£óƒèO™ «î˜î™ Ý¬íòˆFŸ° ÜFè£ó‹

à‡´. (A) I ñŸÁ‹ III ñ†´‹ (B) II ñŸÁ‹ III ñ†´‹ (C) III ñŸÁ‹ IV ñ†´‹

(D) I ñŸÁ‹ IV ñ†´‹

31


Which one of the following statement about the Indian Election Commission is/are INCORRECT? (I) Election Commission is created by an Act of Parliament. (II) Election Commission is a constitutional body. (III) Election Commission rejects the nomination paper of the candidate if the nomination paper is

delivered by a proposer. (IV) Election Commission has the power to deal with matters connected with the removal of the

President. (A) I and III only (B) II and III only (C) III and IV only (D) I and IV only

171. 1928 & ™ âF˜è£ô Þ‰Fò£M¡ ÜóCòô¬ñŠ¹ ê†ì‹ å¡¬ø õ¬óõîŸ° â†´ «ð˜ ªè£‡ì °¿ ãŸð´ˆîŠð†ì¶. Þî¡ î¬ôõ˜

A) C.Ý˜. î£v B) ô£™ ðèÉ˜ ê£vFK

C) «ñ£Fô£™ «ï¼ D) ºèñ¶ ÜL T¡ù£

In 1928 a committee consisting of eight, was constituted to draw up a blue print for the future constitution of India. It was headed by

A) C.R. Doss B) Lal Bahadur Shastri C) Mothilal Nehru D) Mohammad Ali Jinnah

172. ð™õ‰ˆó£Œ «ñˆî£ °¿M¡ ðK‰¶¬óèO¡ ð® S™ô£ ðKêˆF¡ î¬ôõó£è„ ªêò™ðì «õ‡®òõ˜

A) â‹.â™.ã B) â‹.H C) ð…ê£òˆ¶ î¬ôõ˜ D) ñ£õ†ì Ý†Cˆ î¬ôõ˜

According to the recommendation of Balwant rai committee who should act as the Chairman of the Zila parishad

A) MLA B) MP C) Village President D) District Collector

173. H¡õ¼‹ ÃŸP¬ù Ýó£Œè (a) îèõ™ ªðÁ‹ àK¬ñ„ ê†ì‹ å¼ è¼M«ò (b) ï£‹ àí¼‹ Ü¬ùˆ¶ Hó„ê¬ùèÀ‚°‹ Ü¶ b˜õ£è£¶ (a) ñŸÁ‹ (b) â¬î °P‚Aø¶? (A) ÃŸÁ (a) ñŸÁ‹ (b) êKò£ù¬õ (B) ÃŸÁ (a) ñŸÁ‹ (b) îõø£ù¬õ (C) ÃŸÁ (a) êK ñŸÁ‹ (b) îõÁ (D) ÃŸÁ (a) îõÁ ñŸÁ‹ (b) êK Consider the following statements (a) Right to information is only a tool. (b) It will not always resolve our felt difficulties What (a) and (b) denote? (A) statement (a) and (b) are correct (B) Statement (a) and (b) are wrong (C) statement (a) is right and (b) is wrong (D) Statement (a) is wrong and (b) is right

174. Þ‰Fò î¬ô¬ñˆ îE‚¬èò£÷¬ó â‰î MFJ¡ ð® °®òó² î¬ôõ˜ Gòñù‹ ªêŒAø£˜?

(A) MF 162 (B) MF 148 (C) MF 153 (D) MF 174


32

The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by The President of India under which Article (A) Article 162 (B) Article 148 (C) Article 153 (D) Article 174

175. ÃŸÁ (A) åšªõ£¼ ñ£Gôº‹ ÝÀïK¡ î¬ô¬ñJ¡ W› àœ÷¶.

è£óí‹ (R) «î˜¾‚°¿ âùŠð´‹ «î˜‰ªî´‚èŠð†ì ê†ìñ¡ø àÁŠHù˜è«÷ ÝÀï¬ó «î˜‰ªî´‚Aø£˜èœ.

(A) (A) ñŸÁ‹ (R) Þó‡´‹ êK, (A) ¡ êKò£ù M÷‚è‹ (R) (B) (A) ñŸÁ‹ (R) Þó‡´‹ êK, Ýù£™ (A) ¡ êKò£ù M÷‚è‹ (R) Ü™ô

(C) (A) êK Ýù£™ (R) îõÁ

(D) (A) îõÁ Ýù£™ (R) êK Assertion (A) : Each State is headed by a Governor. Reason (R) : The Governor is elected by the Electoral college consisting of the elected members

of the State Legislative Assembly. (A) (A) and (R) are True. (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is True, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is True

176. W›õ¼õùõŸ¬ø êKò£è ªð£¼ˆ¶è:

(a) ñˆFò, -ñ£Gô Üó²èO¡ Hó„ê¬ùèœ 1. cF ñÁ ÝŒ¾

(b) å¼ ê†ì‹ ÜóCò™ ê£êùˆFŸ° ºóí£ù¶

2. ºî¡¬ñ Ýî£ó ÜFè£ó‹

(c) àò˜cFñ¡øˆFL¼‰¶ «ñ™ º¬øf†´ 3. àò˜cFñ¡ø‹

(d) å¼¬ñ å¼ƒA¬í‰î cFñ¡ø‹ 4. à„êcFñ¡ø‹

(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 1 4 3 (B) 1 4 2 3 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 1 2 3 4 Match the following: (a) Dispute between Union and State Government 1. Judicial review (b) Declaring a law unconstitutional 2. Original jurisdiction (c) Appeal from High Court 3. High Court (d) Single integrated judiciary 4. Supreme Court (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 1 4 3 (B) 1 4 2 3 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 1 2 3 4

33


177. &&&&&&&&&&& ï£†èœ / è£ô‹, å¼ àÁŠHù˜ ÜÂñF Þ¡P èô‰¶ ªè£œ÷£ñ™ Þ¼‰î£™ Ü‰î Þìˆ¬î è£LJì‹ â¡Á Þó‡´ Ü¬õèÀ‹ ÜPM‚èô£‹.

A) ÜÁð¶ ï£†èœ B) ªî£¡ÛÁ ï£†èœ

C) ËŸÁ Þ¼ð¶ ï£†èœ D) ÝÁ õ£óƒè÷¢

Either House of the Parliament is authorised to declare the seat of a member vacant, who remains absent without permission from all the meetings of that House for a period of

A) Sixty days B) Ninety days C) One hundred and twenty days D) Six weeks

178. «ï£‚èˆ b˜ñ£ùˆF¡ º‚Aò è¼ˆ¶‚èœ HóFðOŠð¶

(A) Ü®Šð¬ì àK¬ñèœ (B) Üó¬ê ªïPº¬øŠð´ˆ¶‹ è¼ˆ¶‚èœ

(C) ºèŠ¹¬ó (D) Ü®Šð¬ì èì¬ñèœ The ideal of the objective resolution is reflecting in the (A) Fundamental rights (B) DPSP principles (C) Preamble (D) Fundamental duties

179. «îCò Ýœèìˆî™ MNŠ¹í˜¾ Fù‹?

(A) üùõK 11 (B) üùõK 13

(C) üùõK 15 (D) üùõK 10

National Human Trafficking Awareness day? (A) January 11 (B) January 13 (C) January 15 (D) January 10

180. «îCò ¹ˆî£‚è GÁõù ï£œ?

(A) üùõK 20 (B) HŠóõK 16

(C) ãŠó™ 16 (D) üùõK 16

National Startup day? (A) January 20 (B) February 16 (C) April 16 (D) January 16

181. ªð¼‰î¬ôõ˜ è£ñó£ü˜ ñEñ‡ìð‹ âùŠð´‹ Fø‰îªõO Üóƒèˆ¶ì¡ Ã®ò å¼

ïiù Üóƒè‹ âƒ° Ü¬ñ‰¶œ÷¶?

(A) ¹¶„«êK (B) è£¬ó‚°®

(C) «êô‹ (D) ñ¶¬ó

Where will be inaugurated the ‘‘Perunthalaivar Kamarajar Manimandapam” a modern auditorium with an Open - air theatre? (A) Puducherry (B) Karaikudi (C) Salem (D) Madurai


34

182. ºîô£õ¶ àôè è£¶ «è÷£«î£˜ ®20 AK‚ªè† ê£‹Hò¡CŠ «ð£†®ò£ù¶ 2023&Ý‹

Ý‡´ âƒ° ïìˆîŠðì àœ÷¶?

(A) å®ê£ (B) «èó÷£

(C) ýKò£ù£ (D) ®™L

Where will be the first World Deaf T20 Cricket Championship 2023? (A) Odisha (B) Kerala (C) Haryana (D) Delhi

183. BRICS Þ¡ ¹Fò «ñ‹ð£†´ õƒAJ¡ 4õ¶ ¹Fò àÁŠHùó£è «ê˜‰¶ ªè£‡ì ï£´ â¶?

(A) õƒè«îê‹ (B) à¼°«õ

(C) ä‚Aò Üó¹ Üeóè‹ (D) âAŠ¶ Which country added as a 4th new member in BRICS new development Bank (NDB)? (A) Bangladesh (B) Urugvay (C) United Arab Emirates (D) Egypt

184. àôA¡ Ièˆ ªî£¡¬ñò£ù ï£èKè‹ â¶?

(A) C‰¶ êñªõO ï£èKè‹ (B) âAŠ¶ ï£èKè‹

(C) ªñêŠ«ì£Iò£ (D) Yù£ ï£èKè‹

Which is the most ancient civilization in the world? (A) Indus Valley civilization (B) Egypt Civilization (C) Mesapotamia Civilzation (D) China Civilization

185. º‚Aòˆ¶õ‹ õ£Œ‰î ð£‡®ò Üóê˜ ò£˜?

(A) AœOõ÷õ¡ (B) ªð¼ïŸAœO

(C) èKè£™ õ÷õ¡ (D) ªï´…ªêNò¡

Who was the important pandya king? (A) Killivalavan (B) Perunarkilli (C) Karigal Vallavan (D) Nedunjeliyan

186. îI›ï£†®™ ªõOõ‰î ºî™ îI› ï£Oî› â¶?

(A) ²«îêIˆFó¡ (B) ñîó£v ªñJ™

(C) ªðƒè£™ ªèx† (D) Þ‰Fò£ Þî›

Which is the first Tamil daily newspaper published in Tamil nadu? (A) Swadesamitran (B) Madras mail (C) Bengal Gazette (D) India Magazine

187. «ê£ö˜ è£ôˆF™ â‰î ¬õwíõ ¶øM è˜ï£ìè£M™ Ü¬ì‚èô‹ «îì «õ‡®ò è†ì£ò‹ ãŸð†ì¶?

(A) õ™ôð£„ê£Kò£ (B) ó£ñ£Âü˜

(C) ó£ñ£ù‰î£ (D) èd˜

35


During chola period, which Vaishnava saint was forced to seek asylum in Karnataka? (A) Vallabhacharay (B) Ramanujar (C) Ramananda (D) Kabir

188. êƒè è£ôˆF™ ðò¡ð´ˆîŠð†ì â¿ˆ¶º¬ø ò£¶?

(A) ÝƒAô‹ (B) «îõï£AK

(C) îI› & Hó£I (D) Aó‰î‹ The name of the script used in the sangam age ......... (A) English (B) Devanagari (C) Tamil - Brahmi (D) Granta

189. è£ñó£üK¡ Hóðôñ£ù ªè£œ¬è -----------...........

(A) ‘S’ F†ì‹ (B) ‘L’ F†ì‹

(C) ‘K’ F†ì‹ (D) ‘J’ F†ì‹

Kamaraj was famous for his policy (A) ‘S’ Plan (B) ‘L’ Plan (C) ‘K’ Plan (D) ‘J’ Plan

190. F¼õœÀõK¡ ªð£¼÷£î£ó è¼ˆ¶èœ °PŠð£è M÷‚°õ¶ ........

(A) ªê™õ‹

(B) õÁ¬ñ êºî£òˆF¡ ê£ð‹

(C) «õ÷£‡¬ñ

(D) Ü¬ùˆ¶‹

Thiruvalluvar economic ideas mainly dealt with (A) Wealth (B) Poverty is the curse in society (C) Agriculture (D) All of them

191. ªð£¼ˆ¶è

a) Aö‚°ˆªî£ì˜„C ñ¬ô & 1. ñ¶¬ó

b) «ñŸ°ˆªî£ì˜„C ñ¬ô & 2. è˜ï£ìè‹

c) è£MK ÝÁ & 3. côAK

d) á†® & 4. «ê˜õó£ò¡

e) ¬õ¬è & 5. ñ¬ôèO¡ ÜóC

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (A) 4 3 2 5 1 (B) 4 2 3 5 1 (C) 1 2 3 5 4 (D) 4 5 2 3 1


36

Match the following a) Eastern Ghats - 1. Madurai b) Western Ghats - 2. Karnataka c) Kaveri river - 3. Nilgiris d) Ooty - 4. Shervarayan e) Vaigai - 5. Queen of Hills station (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (A) 4 3 2 5 1 (B) 4 2 3 5 1 (C) 1 2 3 5 4 (D) 4 5 2 3 1

192. î£Œ F†ìˆF¡ (THAI Scheme) «ï£‚è‹ (A) °‚Aó£ñƒèO¡ õ÷˜„C (B) ñèŠ«ðÁ àîMˆ F†ì‹

(C) èN¾ «ñô£‡¬ñ (D) °®c˜ õöƒ°î™

THAI Scheme is a flagship programme for (A) Village habitations improvement (B) Maternal Benefit (C) Waste management (D) Water Supply

193. H¡õ¼õùõŸÁœ â¶ ªî£N™¶¬ø õ÷˜„C GÁõù‹ Ü™ô?

(A) TIDCO (B) SIPCOT (C) MEPG (D) SIDCO Which one of the following is not a industrial developing agency? (A) TIDCO (B) SIPCOT (C) MEPG (D) SIDCO

194. â¶ áóè ð°FJ¡ Ü®Šð¬ì Üôè£è‚ è¼îŠð´Aø¶?

(A) ð…ê£òˆ¶ (B) õ¼õ£Œ Aó£ñ‹

(C) ïèó‹ (D) ïèó£†C Which is considered as the basic unit for rural areas? (A) Panchayat (B) Village (C) Town (D) Municipality

195. ã¬öèO¡ á†® âù Ü¬ö‚èŠð´õ¶ â¶?

(A) ãôAK (B) ãŸè£´ (C) °¡Û˜ (D) õ£™ð£¬ø

Which is known as poor man’s Ooty? (A) Yelagiri (B) Yercaud (C) Coonoor (D) Valparai

37


196. Þ‰Fò Mñ£ùŠ ð¬ìJ¡ è£†CŠ dìˆF™ ðƒ«èŸø 2õ¶ ªð‡ Mñ£Q»‹ ºî™ ªð‡ óç«ð™ Mñ£Q ò£˜?

(A) ð£šù£ è£‰F (B) Cõ£ƒA Cƒ

(C) ÜõQ ê¶˜«õF (D) «ñ£èù£ Cƒ

Who is the second women pilot to participate in the Indian Air force Tableau and India’s first women Rafale Pilot?

(A) Bhawna Kanth (B) Shivangi Singh (C) Avni Chaturvedi (D) Mohana Singh

197. Þ‰Fò£M¡ ºî™ I¡ùÂ‚ èN¾„ ²ŸÁ„Åö™ Ìƒè£ âƒ° GÁõŠðì àœ÷¶?

(A) º‹¬ð (B) ¬ýîó£ð£ˆ

(C) å®ê£ (D) ªì™L

Where will get India’s first e-waste eco park? (A) Mumbai (B) Hyderabad (C) Odisha (D) Delhi

198. cô‹ ªð£¼÷£î£ó‹, èì™ê£˜ G˜õ£è‹ àœO†ìõŸP™ åˆ¶¬öŠ¬ð õ½Šð´ˆî Þ‰Fò£ â‰î ï£†´ì¡ ¬èªò£ŠðI†´œ÷¶?

(A) ÜªñK‚è£ (B) óSò£

(C) Hó£¡v (D) èùì£

Which country has signed an agreement to strengthen co-operation in maritime governance in the name of Blue economy with India?

(A) America (B) Russia (C) France (D) Canada

199. ªïê¾ ’’2022’’ ¬èˆîP è‡è£†C âƒ° ªî£ìƒèŠð†´œ÷¶?

(A) ªê¡¬ù (B) F¼ŠÌ˜

(C) «êô‹ (D) «è£¬õ

Where was the weaving 2022 handloom exhibition has started? (A) Chennai (B) Tirupur (C) Salem (D) Coimbatore

200. â‰î ñ£GôˆF™ “«î£™ è£ôE‚ ªè£œ¬è’’ M¬óM™ ªõOJìŠðì Þ¼‚Aø¶?

(A) ªî½ƒè£ù£ (B) «èó÷£

(C) îI›ï£´ (D) ªì™L

In which state will be released soon the leather footware policy? (A) Telangana (B) Kerala (C) Tamil nadu (D) Delhi

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS 1. You will be supplied with this question booklet 15 minutes prior to the commencement of the examination. 2. This question booklet contains 200 questions. 3. Part -B of answer sheet of the candidates will not be avaluated, if the candidate does not secure minimum

qualifying mark (40% - i.e. 60 marks) in Part - A. For Part - A qualified candiates, marks obtained in Part-B only will be considered for ranking list.

4. Before answering the questions, you shall check whether all the questions are printed serially and ensure that there are no blank pages in the question booklet. If any defect is noticed in the question booklet, it shall be reported to the invigilator within the first 10 minutes and get it replaced with a complete question booklet. If the defect is reported after the commencement of the examination, it will not be replaced.

5. Answer all the questions. All the questions carry equal marks, 6. You must write your register number in the space provided on the top right side of this page. Do not write

anything else on the question booklet.7. An answer sheet will be supplied to you separately by the room invigilator to shade the answers. Instructions

regarding filling of answers etc., which are to be followed mandatorily, are provided in the answer sheet and in the memorandum of admission (Hall Ticket).

8. You shall write and shade your question booklet number in the space provided on page one of the answer sheet with BLACK INK BALL POINT PEN. If you do not shade correctly or fail to shade the question book-let number, your answer sheet will be invalidated.

9. Each question comprises of five responses (answers) : i.e. (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You have to select ONLY ONE correct answer from (A) or (B) or (C) or (D) and shade the same in your answer sheet. If you feel that there are more than one correct answer, shade the one which you consider the best. If you do not know the answer, you have to mandatorily shade (E). In any case, choose ONLY ONE answer for each question. If you shade more than one answer for a question, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct.

10. You should not remove or tear off any sheet from this question booklet. You are not allowed to take this ques-tion booklet and the answer sheet out of the examination room during the time of the examination. After the examination, you must hand over your answer sheet to the invigilator. You are allowed to take the question booklet with you only after the examination is over.

11. You should not make any marking in the question booklet except in the sheets before the last page of the question booklet, which can be used for rough work. This should be strictly adhered to.

12. Question in Sl.No. 101 to 200 (Part-B) the English version is final13. Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will render you liable for such action as the Commission

may decide at their discretion.

Register Number

2022

GENERAL TAMIL AND GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Degree Standard)

Duration : Three Hours] [Total Marks : 300

Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.

RAGS/2022 | Tamil madal

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