NTSE | DECEMBER 2020 | DELHI - Vidyamandir Classes

NTSE | DECEMBER 2020 | DELHI Mental Ability Test (MAT)

Duration: 2.0 Hrs Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions

1. This question paper consists of 100 questions based on mental aptitude.

2. All questions carry one mark each.

3. THERE IS NO NEGATIVE MARKING.

4. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try to read through the whole question paper before beginning to answer it.

5. Begin with the first question and keep trying one question after another.

6. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to next one. If time permits, you can come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and try them again.

7. Since the time allotted to this question paper is very limited, you should make the best use of it by not spending too much time on any question.

8. REMEMBER YOU HAVE TO MARK ANSWERS ON A SEPARATE OMR SHEET PROVIDED.

9. Answer to each question is to be indicated by DARKENING the circle having the number of the correct alternative in OMR sheet from among the ones given for the corresponding question in the booklet.

10. Now turn to the next page and start answering the questions.

11. After the examination, you should hand over the OMR sheet to the Invigilator of the room.

12. The candidate need not return this Question paper booklet and can take it after completion of the examination. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the end of the examination.

Name of the Candidate (In CAPITALS) :

Roll Number :

OMR Bar Code Number :

Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature

Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating for Your Success

Code A | | DEC 2020 NTSE (MAT) | Class 10th

1.

2 2 2 2 2(6 7 8 9 10 )

7 4 3 4 2 3

is equal to:

(A) 355 (B) 330 (C) 305 (D) 366 2. If 20% of x = y, then y% of 20 is the same as : (A) 4% of x (B) 6% of y (C) 8% of x (D) 10% of x 3. The sum of first 12 terms of an A.P. whose nth term is given by 3 4na n is : (A) 262 (B) 272 (C) 282 (D) 292 4. Two goods train each 500m long, are running in opposite directions on parallel tracks. Their speeds are

45km/hr and 30km/h respectively. Find the time taken by the slower train to pass the driver of the faster one:

(A) 12 sec (B) 24 sec (C) 48 sec (D) 60 sec 5. The next term of the AP 18, 50, 98,..... is

(A) 146 (B) 128 (C) 162 (D) 200

6. If ( )thp q term of an A.P. is m and ( )thp q term is n, then pth term is :

(A) mn (B) mn (C) ( ) / 2m n (D) ( ) / 2m n 7. If a flight of 600km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad weather. Its average speed for the trip was

reduced by 200km/hr and the time of flight increased by 30 minutes. The original duration of the flight is :

(A) 1 hour (B) 2 hours (C) 3 hours (D) 4 hours 8. A tower is observed from a point on the horizontal through the foot of the lower. The distance of this

pont from the foot of the tower is equal to the height of the tower. The angle of elevation on the top of the lower is :

(A) 60° (B) 45° (C) 40° (D) 30° 9. There are 1400 students in a school, 25% of those wear spectacles and 2/7 of those wearing spectacles

are boys. How many girls in the school wear spectacles? (A) 300 (B) 100 (C) 200 (D) 250 10. P, Q and R jointly thought of engaging themselves in a business venture. It was agreed that P would

invest Rs. 6500 for 6 months, Q, Rs. 8400 for 5 months and R, Rs. 10,000 for 3 months P wants to be the working member for which, he was to receive 5% of the profits. The profit earned was Rs. 7400. Calculate the share of Q in the profit.

(A) Rs. 1900 (B) Rs. 2660 (C) Rs. 2800 (D) Rs. 2840 11. John cycling at a constant speed of 10km/hr, reaches his school in time. If he cycles at a constant speed

of 15km/hr, he reaches his school in 12 minutes early. How many km, he to cycle for his school is? (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 12 12. If 7sin 24 cos ; 0 / 2, then the value of 14 tan 75cos 7sec is equal to

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 2 13. If 2 21/ 98( 0),x x x then the value of 3 31/x x is (A) 970 (B) 1030 (C) -970 (D) -1030 14. The correct arrangement of alphabetical order of the words: a. music b. monk c. minimum d. maximum (A) d,a,c,b (B) a,c,d,b (C) d,c,a,b (D) d,c,b,a 15. At present ages of a father and son are in the ratio of 7:3 and they will be in the present ratio 2:1 after 10

years. What is the present age of father? (A) 70 years (B) 65 years (C) 60 years (D) 50 years



Direction (Q-16 to 19): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions: Number of students in different classes of XYZ Primary school:

Classes Years

2014 2015 2016 2017 2018

I 22 28 26 32 18

II 20 26 22 24 16

III 39 33 52 17 29

IV 19 26 38 24 11

V 16 33 37 23 21

16. The difference between the sum of all the students of all the classes in 2017 and 2018 is : (A) 112 (B) 85 (C) 25 (D) 35 17. The sum of all the students in class III in all the years is what pecent of the sum of all students of class I

in all the years approximately? (A) 30% (B) 100% (C) 60% (D) 125%

18. The square of sum of all the students of all classes in year 2018 is :

(A) 2095 (B) 9025 (C) 6059 (D) 9216 19. By what percent the number of students of class I in year 2017 is more then the number of students of

Class II for the same year? (A) 60 (B) 75 (C) 35 (D) 33.33 Direction (Q-20 & 21) : First two terms are connected by some relationship. The same relationship is applicable for the next terms Identify the suitable pair. 20. Square : Cube (A) Rectangle : Cuboid (B) Triangle : Square

(C) Quadrilateral : Cuboid (D) Cuboid : Rectangle 21. 82 : 9 (A) 5 : 26 (B) 6 : 37 (C) 35 : 6 (D) 26 : 5 22. If A = 2, T= 40 and ACT = 48 the TAKE is: (A) 68 (B) 58 (C) 74 (D) 76 Direction (Q-23 to 27) : Identify the wrong number/letters in the series : 23. 126, 98, 70, 41, 14 (A) 98 (B) 70 (C) 126 (D) 41 24. 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 65, 127 (A) 7 (B) 31 (C) 15 (D) 65 25. 7, 28, 63, 124, 215, 344 (A) 28 (B) 63 (C) 124 (D) 344 26. AD, EG, IJ, MM< QP, UP (A) EG (B) UP (C) QP (D) MM 27. Z8, W5, T2, Q8, N5, K3 (A) K3 (B) T2 (C) Q8 (D) Z8



Direction (Q-28 & 29) : First set of words are related in a certain way. You have to choose a word. So that another set of words also become related in same manner. 28. Transition : change : : Immobility : ? (A) Stillness (B) Liveliness (C) Action (D) Busyness 29. Grain : Stock : : Stick : ? (A) String (B) Collection (C) Bundle (D) Heep 30. A is B’s sister. C is B’s mother. D is C’s father. E is D’s mother. Then how is A related to D? (A) Grand Father (B) Grand Mother (C) Daughter (D) Grand Daughter Direction (Q-31 to 33) : Find the odd one out : 31. I. Crusade II. Campaign

III. Expedition IV. Cruise (A) I (B) III (C) II (D) IV 32. I. Clove II. Cinnamon

III. Apricot IV. Pepper (A) I (B) III (C) II (D) IV 33. I. Acre II. Yard

III. Mile IV. Meter (A) I (B) III (C) II (D) IV 34. In a certain code MONKEY is written as XDJMNL. How is TIGER written in the same code? (A) SHFDQ (B) HFDSQ (C) QDFHS (D) PQRST 35. In the following matrix, certain numbers are arranged in a certain way. Choose the missing number ot

complete the matrix.

1 7 9

2 14 ?

3 105 117

(A) 16 (B) 12 (C) 13 (D) 14 36. What value will replace ‘?’ in the figures given below :-

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3 37. Five plays – K, L, M, N & O are to be staged from Monday to Friday of a week. On each day only one

play will be staged. O should be immediately followed by M, L should be staged immediately after N. One play is staged between K and L. N or O should not be the first or last play. Which is the second play to be staged?

(A) M (B) O (C) N (D) K 38. In a town of 500 people. 285 people, read “The Hindu” and 212 people read “Indian Express” and 127

people read “Time of India”. Only 20 people read “The Hindu” and “Times of India”, only 29 people read “The Hindu” and “Indian Express” and only 35 people do not read newspaper. Then how many people read only one newspaper?

(A) 123 (B) 213 (C) 312 (D) 321



39. Which of the following venn diagram truly represents the relationship between Truck, Ship and Goods.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

40. Identify the diagram the best represents the relationship among the given animals – Reptile, Lizard,

Lion.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

41. If ‘ ’ stands for ‘ ’, ‘ ’ stands for ‘ ’, ‘ ’ stands for ‘ ’ and ‘ ’ stands for ‘ ’, which of the

following equations is correct? (A) 40 10 5 4 5 21 (B) 40 10 4 5 3 80

(C) 40 10 4 5 3 32 (D) 8 4 40 2 15 30 42. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting round the circle and are facing the centre. P is second to the right of

T who is neighbor of R and V, S is not the neighbour of P, V is neighbor of U, Q is not between S and W. W is not between U and S. Then who is sitting opposite to W?

(A) S (B) Q (C) U (D) T 43. Find the ratio in which rice at Rs. 7.20 per kg be mixed with rice at Rs. 5.70 per kg, to produce a mixture

worth Rs. 6.30 per kg.? (A) 2:3 (B) 1:3 (C) 3:4 (D) 4:5 44. A pupil’s marks were wrongly entered as 83 instead of 63. Due to which the average marks for the class

got increased by half. The number of pupils in the class is:- (A) 45 (B) 40 (C) 39 (D) 37 45. A watch which gains 5 seconds in 3 minutes was set right at 7 am. In the afternoon of the same day

when the watch indicated quarter past 4 O’clock, the true time (A) 9 pm (B) 7 pm (C) 4 pm (D) 5 pm 46. A student multiplied a number by 3/5 instead of 5/3. What is the percentage error in the calculation. (A) 54% (B) 64% (C) 74% (D) 84% 47. Two goods trains each 39m long are running in same direction on parallel tracks. Their speeds are 42

km/hr and 36 km/hr, respectively. Find the time taken by the faster train to cross the driver of the slower one?

(A) 6 min (B) 12 min (C) 18 min (D) 4 min



Direction (Q-48 to 50): Study the Pie chart carefully and answer the following questions. Pie chart shows the percentage quantity of fruits of two shops A and B.

48. What is the difference between the quantity of Guava at Shop B and that of Shop A? (A) 20 kg (B) 25 kg (C) 40 kg (D) 16 kg 49. The quantity of Mango at Shop B is what percentage of the quantity of Mango at Shop A? (A) 20% (B) 120% (C) 84% (D) 150% 50. If the price of Mango is Rs. 30 per kg., Apple Rs. 40 per kg and Orange Rs. 20 per kg,. then what is the

ratio of their cost at Shop A? (A) 4:5:6 (B) 9:7:5 (C) 4:5:1 (D) 2:5:7 51. In given question, select the correct alternative : Monotony : Variety : : Crudeness : ? (A) Sobriety (B) Simplicity (C) Raw (D) Refinement 52. If B is 20 meters south from A and C is 10 metres North from D and A is 10 metres West from D, the

where is B from C ? (A) North-East (B) North-West (C) South-West (D) North 53. Amit ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed the examination. 6

students does not participate and 5 failed in it. How many students were there in the class ? (A) 50 (B) 55 (C) 44 (D) 52 Direction (Q.54-55) : Ananya is older than Shruti, Arti is older then Ananya but younger than Kusum. Kusum is older than Shruti, Shruti is younger than Arti and Geeta is oldest. 54. Who is youngest ? (A) Ananya (B) Shruti (C) Arti (D) Kusum 55. Who is the middle with respect to the age ? (A) Shruti (B) Ananya (C) Arti (D) Kusum 56. A and B are brothers, D is brother of E, C is father of A, E is daughter of B, Then who is uncle of D ? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D 57. Which digit will appear on the face opposite to the face with number 4 ?

(A) 5 (B) 2 or 5 (C) 2 (D) 2 or 3 58. If four different portions of a die are shown, what number is opposite of 3 ?

(A) 5 (B) 2 or 5 (C) 2 (D) 2 or 3



59. Study the figure below and find those youth who are in service but not literate ?

(A) 5 (B) 2 or 5 (C) 2 (D) 2 or 3 60. In the number 59164823, how many digits will be as far away from the beginning of the number if digits

are in the number ? (A) 3 (B) More than 3 (C) 1 (D) 2 61. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters

between them in the word, as they have in English alphabet ? (A) More than 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3 Direction (Q.62-65) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below “ A, D, E, F, H, J and K are sitting on straight table facing towards south. D sits fourth to the right of A. E sits at the left end of the table. Five persons sit between E and K. J sits third to the left of K and F does not sit immediate to D. 62. Which of the following person sits exactly at the middle of the row ? (A) J (B) F (C) H (D) A 63. How many persons sit between A and H ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 64. Three of the following four pairs are alike in a certain way based on their positions and so formed a group.

Which of the following does not belong to the group ? (A) AF (B) JH (C) EA (D) FH 65. What is position of F with respect of H ? (A) Second to the right (B) Exactly right

(C) Second to the left (D) Third to the right 66. Find out the missing number :

(A) 72 (B) 84 (C) 68 (D) 66 67. Find the missing number in given question :

9 8 7

6 7 8

5 4 6

260 216 ? (A) 191 (B) 326 (C) 330 (D) 336



68. Find the missing number ?

(A) 7 (B) 12 (C) 16 (D) 14 69. Complete the series from given options : a_caa_bcc_aabbb_cc (A) bbca (B) abac (C) bbac (D) babc Direction (Q.70-71) : Study the following information to answer the given questions. If a certain code ‘always create new ideas’ is written as ‘ba ri sh gi’ ‘ideas and new thoughts’ is written as ‘fa gi ma ri’ ‘create thoughts and insights’ is written as ‘ma jo ba fa’ ‘new and better solution’ is written as ‘ki ri to fa’. 70. What is code for ‘ideas’ ? (A) sha (B) gi (C) ba (D) ma 71. What does ‘fa’ stand for ? (A) thoughts (B) insights (C) new (D) and 72. Question figure –

Answer figure

(A) (B) (C) (D)

73. Question figure –

Answer figure

(A) (B) (C) (D)

74. Question figure –

Answer figure

(A) (B) (C) (D)



75. Select the odd one out.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

76. Select the odd one out.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

77. If a mirror is kept on a line, then which of the answer figure is the correct mirror image of question figure

? Question figure :

Answer figure

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

78. Which of the four alternative given below is the correct water image of the question figure ?

Question figure :

Answer figure

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

79. Which one of the given alternative figures will complete the given figure pattern ?

Question figure :

Answer figure

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)



Direction (Q.80-81) : All the surfaces of a solid cube of side 4 cm have been coloured black and cut into equal sized cube of side 1 cm each. Now answer the following questions : 80. How many cubes are there which do not have any of their surfaces coloured ? (A) 0 (B) 24 (C) 16 (D) 8 81. In a row of 40 cm children, A is 13th from the left end and B is 9th from right end. How many children are

there between A and C, if C is 4th to the left of B ? (A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 15 Direction (Q.83-85) : In a family A is younger brother of B and D is the son of B. D is brother of but E is not son of B. F is grandson of B and C is cousin of E. 83. Who is the father of F ? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) Can’t determine 84. The relation of A with D is : (A) Father (B) Brother (C) Cousin (D) Uncle 85. The relation of E with F is : (A) Uncle (B) Aunt (C) Bother (D) Uncle 86. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angles in 12 hours ? (A) 24 times (B) 48 times (C) 22 times (D) 44 times Direction (Q.87-90) : Find the missing character in the following figures. 87.

(A) 16 (B) 196 (C) 100 (D) 144 88.

(A) 49 (B) 63 (C) 48 (D) 50 89.

(A) 40 (B) 32 (C) 35 (D) 30



90.

7 9 11

2 3 2

53 88 ? (A) 125 (B) 100 (C) 129 (D) 64 91. How many triangles are their in the given figure ?

(A) 15 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 20 92. If 2 2 16, 2 3 36, 2 4 64 then 2 6 ? (A) 72 (B) 80 (C) 96 (D) 144

93. 10 25 108 154 225 find the value :

(A) 10 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 4 94. Find the correct figure :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

95.

Which number is opposite to 3 ?

(A) 1 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4



Direction (Q.96-100) : Study the diagram and answer each of the following.

96. How many persons who take tea and lassi but not coffee ? (A) 20 (B) 17 (C) 25 (D) 15 97. How many persons are there who take both tea and coffee but not lassi ? (A) 22 (B) 17 (C) 7 (D) 20 98. How many persons take lassi ? (A) 100 (B) 82 (C) 92 (D) 122 99. How many persons are there who takes only coffee ? (A) 90 (B) 45 (C) 25 (D) 20 100. How many persons take all the three ? (A) 20 (B) 17 (C) 25 (D) 15

End of NTSE (MAT) Class – X

NTSE | DECEMBER 2020 | DELHI Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT)

Duration: 2.0 Hrs Maximum Marks: 100

General Instructions

1. This questions paper consists of 100 questions.

2. All questions carry one mark each.

3. THERE IS NO NEGATIVE MARKING.

4. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try to read through the whole question paper before beginning to answer it.

5. Begin with the first question and keep trying one question after another.

6. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to next one. If time permits, you can come back to the questions which you have left in the first instance and try them again.

7. Since the time allotted to this question paper is very limited, you should make the best use of it by not spending too much time on any question.

8. REMEMBER YOU HAVE TO MARK ANSWERS ON A SEPARATE OMR SHEET PROVIDED.

9. Answer to each question is to be indicated by DARKENING the circle having the number of the correct alternative in OMR sheet from among the ones given for the corresponding question in the booklet.

10. After the examination, you should hand over the OMR sheet to the Invigilator of the room.

11. The candidate need not return this Question paper booklet and can take it after completion of the examination. No candidate should leave the examination hall before the end of the examination.

Name of the Candidate (In CAPITALS) :

Roll Number :

OMR Bar Code Number :

Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature


Code A | Page 2 | DEC 2020 NTSE (SAT) | Class 10th

101. The sound of same pitch and loudness are distinguished from one another by their. (A) Wavelengths (B) Velocity (C) Quality (D) Tones 102. A water pump lifts water from a level 10m below the ground. The water is pumped at the rate of

30 / minkg with negligible velocity. Calculate the minimum power the pump should have to do this

work. (A) 49 /J s (B) 490 /J s (C) 500 /J s (D) 48 /J s 103. Six identical resistors connected between points ,A B and C as shown in diagram. The equivalent

resistance would be maximum between.

(A) A and B (B) B and C

(C) A and C (D) Option A, B, C all are correct 104. A particle of mass 0.3 .kg is subjected to a force F Kx with 15 / ,K N m what will be its

acceleration if it is released from a point 20 .x cm

(A) 21 /m s (B) 210 /m s (C) 2100 /m s (D) 20.1 /m s

105. An object is moving in a straight line. The velocity time graph is as shown below. Then-

(A) In part OA acceleration is increasing (B) In part OB acceleration is increasing (C) In part OA acceleration is decreasing (D) In part AB acceleration is decreasing 106. A force of 100N acts on a body so that the body acquire a velocity of 10 / ,m s after some time. Now

the force of 100N is replaced by another force F which decelerates the body and body come the rest then.

(A) 100F N (B) 100F N (C) 100F N (D) All options are possible

107. 2 points A and B are at electric potentials 10V and 100V respectively. A charge q is taken from

A to B and 18 Joule of work is done. The value of q is:

(A) 2 Coulomb (B) 0.2 Coulomb (C) 20 Coulomb (D) 0.02 Coulomb 108. Which of the following is NOT correct for magnetic filed lines. (A) The direction of magnetic field lines outside the magnet is from north pole to south pole. (B) The direction of magnetic field lines inside the magnet is from south pole to north pole. (C) The degree of closeness of magnetic field line tells the relatives strength of magnetic field. (D) Magnetic field lines never form closed loop.



109. A car moving along straight line covers 1/ 5th of total distance with speed 1v . The average speed of

cal’ over entire distance is

(A) 1 2

2 1

54

v vv v

(B) 1 2

1 2

45

v vv v

(C) 1 2

2 1

54

v vv v

(D) 1 2

1 2

44

v vv v

110. Light travels through a glass slab of thickness t and having reflective index .n If c is the velocity of light in vacuum then the time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is.

(A) tnc

(B) ntc

(C) 2n tc

(D) 2

tn c

111. The resistance of rheostat shown in figure below is 0 30 , neglecting the resistance of ammeter and connecting wire the minimum and maximum currents through the ammeter will be

(A) 0.08 , 0.33A A (B) 0.06 , 0.08A A

(C) 0.06 ,0.33A A (D) 0.33 ,0.09A A

112. Three particles ,A B and C are thrown form top of a building with same speed. A is thrown upwards,

B is thrown downwards and C is thrown horizontally, they hit the ground with speed ,A BV V and CV

respectively then. (A) A B CV V V (B) B C AV V V (C) A B CV V V (D) A B CV V V

113. An object of height 2.0cm is placed on the principal axis of a concave mirror at a distance of 12cm from the pole. If the image is inverted, real and 5 .cm in height then location of the image and focal length of the mirror respectively are.

(A) 30 , 8.6cm cm (B) 30 , 8.6cm cm

(C) 30 , 8.6cm cm (D) 30 , 8.6cm cm

114. When lead Nitrate is heated a brown gas is evolved, the evolved gas is ______. (A) Dioxygen (B) Nitrogen dioxide

(C) Nitrogen dioxide (D) Dinitrogen 115. When a solution of lead (II) nitrate and potassium iodide are mixed, the yellow ppt is formed, the ppt

is of _______. (A) 3KNO (B) Kcl (C) 2Pbl (D) 4Pbl

116. Baking powder is a mixture of ___________. (A) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and oxalic acid. (B) Sodium carbonate and tartaric acid. (C) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid. (D) Sodium carbonate and oxalic acid.



117. Aqua Regia is a mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio of _______.

(A) 3:1 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:5 (D) 2:3 118. 3 2CH CH OH Products

The products formed in the above reaction is/are: (A) Ethene and 2H O (B) Ethyne and 2H O

(C) Ethane and 2H O (D) Methane and 2H O

119. Denatured alcohol’ is mixture of (A) 3CH OH and HCHO (B) 3CH OH and 3CH COOH

(C) 2 5C H OH and 3CH OH (D) 2 5C H OH and 3CH COOH

120. For welding a mixture of oxygen and _________ is burnt. (A) Benzene (B) Butane (C) Methane (D) Ethyne 121. The following metals are arranged in the increasing order of their metallic character. Choose the correct option. (A) Be Si K Al (B) Si Be Al K (C) K Al Si Be (D) Be Si Al K 122. Which one of the following oxide is insoluble in water? (A) 2Na O (B) CuO (C) 2K O (D) CaO

123. Which of the following oxide turns red litmus into blue? (A) 2SO (B) 2CO (C) 2NO (D) 2KO

124. Which of the following is not a green house gas? (A) 4CH (B) 3O (C) 2CO (D) 2SO

125. Which of the following element does not show allotrophy? (A) Phosphorus (B) Sulphur (C) Oxygen (D) Aluminium 126. Which one of the following will have the largest number of atoms? (A) 100g of He (B) 100g of Na (C) 100g of li (D) 100g of Al

127. Rearrange the following sentences and choose the correct option: (a) Breakdown of 2H O into Hydrogen and Oxygen and Conversion of light energy into chemical

energy. (b) Reduction of carbondioxide to carbohydrates. (c) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll (A) (a) – (b) – (c) (B) (c) – (b) – (a) (C) (c)– (a) – (b) (D) (a) – (c) – (b) 128. Deepak is trying to study flow of energy in an area and he made the following diagram for the same.

How will you interpret his observations?

(A) His observations and number of trophic levels are wrong (B) His observations are correct but the number of trophic levels can be more



(C) His observations are wrong but number of trophic levels is correct (D) His observations as well as number of trophic levels are correct

129. UV ray cause cancer but in stratosphere the same UV rays are helping us, how? (A) They divert harmful UV rays back to sum (B) They convert oxygen in stratosphere into ozone (C) UV rays are not present in stratosphere (D) UV rays reach the earth surface then bounce back carrying ozone to stratosphere 130. Match the following (i) Regeneration (1) Shoot (ii) Rhizophus (2) Pollengrain (iii) Plumule (3) Vegetative Propagation (iv) Rose (4) Planaria (v) Stigma (5) Spores (A) (i) – (1), (ii) – (5), (iii) – (4), (iv) – (2), (v) – (3)

(B) (i) – (2), (ii) – (4), (iii) – (1), (iv) – (3), (v) – (5) (C) (i) – (2), (ii) – (1), (iii) – (4), (iv) – (3), (v) – (5) (D) (i) – (4), (ii) – (5), (iii) – (1), (iv) – (3), (v) – (2)

131. The opening and closing of the stomata depends upon (A) Oxygen (B) Temperature

(C) Carbon-dioxide (D) Water in guard cells 132. Sonu performed an experiment to study dihybrid cross for round/wrinkled and yellow/green coloured

seeds. He obtained 2432 seeds in total. What will be the number of seeds which are round and yellow?

(A) 1367 (B) 1356 (C) 1368 (D) 1438 133. The stakeholders of various forest products are: (i) People living near forests (ii) Government only (iii) Nature lovers (iv) Wild life (A) All options are correct (B) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) is correct

(C) Only (ii) is incorrect (D) None of the option is correct 134. Choose the correct sequence (A) Pulmonary vein Pulmonary artery Left auricle Right ventricle

(B) Pulmonary artery Right auricle Left ventricle Pulmonary vein (C) Right auricle Pulmonary artery Pulmonary vein Left ventricle (D) Left ventricle Pulmonary vein Pulmonary artery Right auricle



135. Assertion (A) : No carbondioxide is released during the day in plants. Reason (R): Only photosynthesis occurs during the day. (A) A is true and R is false

(B) A is false and R is true (C) Both A and R are false (D) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A

136. Choose the non-biodegradable substance from the following: (i) Carrot (ii) Glass bottle (iii) Perfume spray bottle (iv) Rice bran (v) Papaya (vi) Thermocol (viii) Wooden stick (viii) Ball pen refill (A) (ii), (iii), (vii), (viii) (B) (ii), (iii), (vi), (viii)

(C) (iii), (i), (v), (vii) (D) (viii), (v), (i), (iii) 137. Match the column I and column II and select correct option. Column I Column II (i) Ribosome (1) ATP formation (ii) Mitochondria (2) Photosynthesis (iii) Centriole (3) Protein synthesis (iv) Chloroplast (4) Cell division (A) (i) – (1), (ii) – (2), (iii) – (4), (iv) – (2) (B) (i) – (3), (ii) – (1), (iii) – (4), (iv) – (2)

(C) (i) – (4), (ii) – (3), (iii) – (2), (iv) – (1) (D) (i) – (2), (ii) – (1), (iii) – (3), (iv) – (4) 138. Which of the following is a barrier method of contraception? (A) Diaphragm (B) Contraceptive pills

(C) Tubectomy (D) All of the above 139. Sperms are produced in the (A) Seminiferous tubules (B) Interstitial cell

(C) Vas deferens (D) Prostate gland 140. Blood pressure is measured by an instrument called (A) Barometer (B) Sphygmomanometer

(C) Photometer (D) Manometer 141. If ABC is an Equilateral Triangle such that 2,2A and centroid of the triangle is 2,2 then find

the length of its side

(A) 4 units (B) 6 units (C) 4 3 units (D) 9 units

142. The sum of the n consecutive odd natural numbers starting from 5 is 60. Find the value of 2( )n n .

(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 42 (D) 56 143. The sum of the first ' 'p odd natural numbers is 100 and the sum of the first ' 'q even natural numbers

is 90. Find the value of .p q

(A) 18 (B) 19 (C) 20 (D) 21

144. If 1 1xy

and 1 1,yx

then what is the value of 1 1 .zx

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3



145. If 33 3 0p q r then the value of 3( )p q r is

(A) 3pqr (B) 9 pqr (C) 27 pqr (D) 0

146. If 1 2 3, , na a a a and 1 2 3, , nb b b b are two A.P.’s such that 1 1 2 2 3 3120, 143, 154,a b a b a b the

8 8a b

(A) 209 (B) 89 (C) 195 (D) 29 147. In a ,ABC AX bisects BC and AX is also the angle bisector of angle A . If 12 , 3 ,AB cm BX cm

then what is the area of .ABC

(A) 29 cm (B) 29 2 cm (C) 29 5 cm (D) 29 15 cm

148. If ABCD and PQRS are two squares, such that area of square PQRS is ' 'A 2 .m Then find the value

of 17 .A

(A) 12 (B) 144 (C) 16 (D) 9

149. If 2 2 2 2 2cos 2sin 3cos 4sin 200sin 10050. Where is an acute angle, find the

value of 2(sin 3cos ) .

(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1 150. A ' 'p m long wire is cut into two pieces one of which is bent into a circle and the other into a square

enclosing the circle. What is the radius (in meter) of the circle?

(A) 4

p

(B) 24

p

(C) 2 8

p

(D) 24

p

151. In the figure, ABCD is a rectangle such that Area of 2 ,AOB a m Area of 2 ,AOD b m Area of

2 ,COD c m The Area of 2BOC in m

(A) a b c (B) a b c

(C) b c a (D) a c b

152. In ,ABC A semi-circle with DE as diameter is drawn such that BC = 26m, the Radius R (in meter) =

(A) 3 3 (B) 9 3 (C) 9 3 (D) 3 3



153. If the values of x in the roots of the equation 2sin sin 0p x q x r are complementary, then

(A) 2 2p q q r (B) 2 2q p p r

(C) 2 2r q q p (D) 2 2r p q p

154. The average age of all the 100 employees in an office is 29 years, where 23

employees are ladies. The

ratio of average age of men to women is 5 : 7. The average age of female employees is:

(A) 18 years (B) 35 years (C) 25years (D) None of these

155. If 1 1 1, ,a b c

are in A.P., then b a b cb a b c

equals:

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) b ca b

(D) abc

156. If x k is a common factor of 2 2 ,x px q and x lx m then the value of k is:

(A) l p (B) m q (C) l pm q

(D) m ql p

157. As a result of 40% hike in the price of rice per kg., a person is able to purchase 10kg less rice for

Rs.1400. What was the original price of rice per kg?

(A) Rs.50 (B) Rs.60 (C) Rs.40 (D) Rs.30

158. A man takes half time in rowing a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is the ratio of the

speed of boat in still water to the speed of current?

(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 3 : 1

159. The mean of a group of 20 consecutive natural numbers is M. What will be the percentage change in

the mean when last six consecutive natural numbers are left from the group?

(A) 3 %100

M (B) 3 %M

(C) 300 %M

(D) 30 %M

160. One box contains four cards numbered 1, 3, 5 and 7 and another box contains four cards numbered as

2, 4, 6 and 8. One card is drown from each box at random. The probability that the product of the

numbers so drawn is more than 14 is:

(A) 12

(B) 710

(C) 38

(D) 58



161. “God save our Noble King” was the National anthem of

(A) Britain (B) Italy (C) Germany (D) France

162. Who was the ruler of France during the French revolution?

(A) Louis XV (B) Louis XIV (C) Louis XX (D) Louis XVI

163. Hitler was born in–

(A) France (B) Austria (C) Germany (D) Poland

164. Who published ‘The folklores of southern India’?

(A) Rabindra Nath Tagore (B) Natesa Sastri

(C) Mahatma Gnandhi (D) Pattabhi Srimalu

165 A tax levied by the church, comprising one tenth of the agricultural produce was

(A) Livre (B) Taille (C) Tithe (D) None of these

166. What was not the aim of Swaraj Party?

(A) To participate in Provincial council election

(B) To oppose British policies within the councils

(C) To demonstrate that councils were not democratic

(D) To make the Act of 1919 successful

167. Who formed the secret society “young Italy”

(A) Otto Van Bismarck (B) General Wan Run

(C) Giuseppe Mazzini (D) King Victor Emmanual II

168. The meaning of the symbol “Crown of Oak Leaves” was

(A) Readiness to fight (B) Heroism

(C) Being freed (D) Willingness to make peace

169. Which was achieved by the Enabling Act of 3 March 1933 in Germany?

(A) Established dictatorship

(B) Hitler was appointed chancellor

(C) Establishment of German Workers Party

(D) Establishment of Weimar Republic



170. Which of following was not related to Gandhi Irwin Pact 1931?

(A) Government agreed to release the Political prisoners.

(B) Gandhi Ji consented to participate in second Round Table Conference

(C) Formation of Simon Commission

(D) Gandhi Ji called off civil disobedience movement

171. In Swaraj Flag (1921), Self Helf was represented by

(A) Flower (B) Crescent Moon

(C) Two Ox (D) spinning wheel

172. Coffee cultivation was first introduced in –

(A) Himalayas (B) Aravali Hills

(C) Garo Hills (D) Baba Budan Hills

173. Which one of the following groups of state have largest number of cotton textile centres?

(A) Gujarat and Maharashtra (B) Karnatak and Tamil Nadu

(C) Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh (D) Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat

174. Which of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large

area?

(A) Shifting Agriculture (B) Plantation Agriculture

(C) Horticulture (D) Horticulture

175. Neyveli lignite mines are located in the state of:

(A) Kerala (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Karnataka (D) Andhra Pradesh

176. Which of the following regions is suitable to construct railway lines?

(A) Himalays Mountains Range (B) Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills

(C) The Northern Plains (D) Rajasthan desert

177. Hirakund Dam is constructed on the river—

(A) Ganga (B) Manjira (C) Manas (D) Mahanadi

178. When and where was first cement plant set up?

(A) Chennai, 1905 (B) Chennia, 1904 (C) Kolkata, 1905 (D) Kolkata, 1904

179. Who wrote the book “Small is Beautiful”?

(A) Gandhi Ji (B) Brundtland (C) Schumacher (D) Annie Besant



180. In which city of Haryana is the automobile industry situated?

(A) Faridabad (B) Gurgaon (C) Panipat (D) Sonipat

181. According to the main role industries can be classified into —

(A) Agro-based and mineral based (B) Key and consumer industries

(C) Public, Private, and Joint sector (D) Heavy and light industries

182. Which of the following is not a property of mica?

(A) Conducting properties (B) Excellent di-electric strength

(C) Low power loss factor (D) Resistance to high voltage

183. Who was the chairman of the drafting committee of Indian constitution assembly.

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (B) Dr. B.R. Verma

(C) Dr. B.R. Menon (D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

184. Amnesty International is an international organisation which works for:–

(A) World Peace (B) Human Rights

(C) World Justice (D) Restoration of Democracy

185. The movement that seeks equality in the personal and family life of women is known as:

(A) Narivadi Andolan (B) Nari Sashaktikaran Andolan

(C) Mahila Shakti Andolan (D) Mahila Adhikar Andolan

186. A person who is not a member of Parliament is appointed on minster, he/she to get elected to one of

the house of Parliament within:

(A) A month (B) Three months

(C) Six months (D) Selected time is fixed by the President

187. Who become the members of Gram Sabha?

(A) Only elderly people

(B) Only elected members of Gram Panchayat

(C) All the voters of village

(D) Only the youth of village



188. President declare emergency when:

(A) Prime minister advises him to do

(B) Parliament advises him to declare

(C) The council of minister, in writing advises him to declare

(D) Home minister asks him to declare

189. In case of conflict between the centre Government and the state Government over subject in the

Concurrent list:

(A) Supreme Court decides which of the two should be considered.

(B) The state government should be obeyed.

(C) The central government should be obeyed.

(D) Both governments should be obeyed.

190. What is Mid-Term Election?

(A) Election for the seat to be vocated due to some reason

(B) Election in the event of death of one member

(C) Election to held in whole country or state before the scheduled time

(D) Completion of 5 years election

191. In India seats are reserved for women in which of the following bodies:

(A) In Lok Sabha (B) In State Legislatures

(C) In Rajya Sabha (D) In Panchayati Raj

192. Which famouse Revolution took place in the world history in 1789–

(A) Russian Revolution (B) American Revolution

(C) German Revolution (D) French Revolution

193. Main Recommendation of Mandal Commission was:

(A) Reservation for socially and educationally back word classes

(B) Reservation for schedule caste

(C) Reservation for schedule Tribes

(D) Reservation for Minorities



194. Capital requirement of “NABARD” (National Bank of Agriculture and Rural Development) are met

by which of the following institution–

(A) Reserve Bank of India

(B) International Development Association (IDA)

(C) World Bank

(D) All of these

195. Golden Revolution in India is related.

(A) Jwellery Export (B) Gold mines

(C) Honey and Horticulture (D) Electronic Goods

196. Which of the following is not a renewable resource?

(A) Forest (B) Animals (C) Water (D) Petroleum

197. Which of the following is not related to agriculture marketing?

(A) Storage (B) Use of chemical fertilizers

(C) Processing (D) Preservation

198. When an able person is willingly unemployed while here is opportunity to work is known as

(A) Disguised unemployment (B) Voluntary unemployment

(C) Seasonal unemployment (D) Educated unemployment

199. The production unit producing shoe is comes under

(A) Primary sector (B) Secondary sector

(C) Tertiary sector (D) None of these

200. Which of the following prepares Human Development Report?

(A) Planning Commission of India

(B) International Monetary Fund

(C) World Heath organisation

(D) United Nation Development Programme

End of NTSE (SAT)

NTSE | DECEMBER 2020 | DELHI - Vidyamandir Classes

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Transcript of NTSE | DECEMBER 2020 | DELHI - Vidyamandir Classes