LOCAL AIR LAW (A) EXAM REFERENCE BOOK

Department: Document Identification: Version Number: Applicable Date:

ASD/PEL GUI.EXM.006 1.0 01 MAY 2018

Local Air Law (A) Exam Reference Book – Private Category (PVT)

ASD-PEL-GUI V1.0 1 of 4

Qatar Civil Aviation Authority Air Safety Department – Personnel Licensing Section

LOCAL AIR LAW (A) EXAM

REFERENCE BOOK –

PRIVATE CATEGORY (PVT)





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1. Purpose This is a QCAA exam reference book specific for licence conversion or validation exams as stated in VC.A.010, VC.B.020 and VC.B.030. It is a compilation of the relevant parts of air law and operational procedures at the private pilot licence level.

2. References List of reference documents used. Document Document ID Document Name

- Aircrew Licensing No. 001 of 2016

- Air Operations No. 025 of 2017

- Qatar AIP

3. Content page Title Page no

Aircrew Licensing - Annex I: Part FCL 1

Aircrew Licensing - Annex III: Part VC 240

AIP : GEN 251

AIP : ENR 315

Air Operations – Annex I: Definitions 349

Air Operations – Annex VI: NCC 364

Air Operations – Annex VII: NCO 406

4. Record of revision Rev No Date Description of change

1.0 01 MAY 2018 Initial issue





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Qatar Civil Aviation Regulations

No. 001 of 2016

Aircrew Licensing - Annex I: Part FCL

LCAL(A) Ref Bk - PVT / 1 MAY 2018 / Page 1 of 448

Table of Contents

ANNEX I FLIGHT CREW LICENCE (FCL).......................................................................................................... 1SUBPART A: GENERAL REQUIREMENTS..................................................................................................... 1

FCL.001 Authority........................................................................................................................................ 1FCL.005 Scope............................................................................................................................................ 1FCL.010 Definitions .................................................................................................................................... 1FCL.015 Application and issue, revalidation and renewal of licences, ratings and certificates .................. 7FCL.020 Student pilot ................................................................................................................................ 7FCL.025 Theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of licences and ratings ................................ 7

FCL.030 Practical skill test ......................................................................................................................... 8FCL.035 Crediting of flight time and theoretical knowledge ....................................................................... 8FCL.040 Exercise of the privileges of licences ........................................................................................... 9FCL.045 Obligation to carry and present documents ................................................................................. 9FCL.050 Recording of flight time .............................................................................................................. 10FCL.055 Language proficiency ................................................................................................................. 10FCL.060 Recent experience ..................................................................................................................... 11FCL.065 Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more in commercial air

transport .............................................................................................................................................................. 12FCL.070 Revocation, suspension and limitation of licences, ratings and certificates ............................... 12

SUBPART B: LIGHT AIRCRAFT PILOT LICENCE - LAPL ............................................................................... 13SECTION 1 Common requirements............................................................................................................. 13

FCL.100 LAPL - Minimum age ................................................................................................................. 13FCL.105 LAPL - Privileges and conditions .............................................................................................. 13FCL.110 LAPL - Crediting for the same aircraft category .......................................................................... 13FCL.115 LAPL - Training course .............................................................................................................. 13FCL.120 LAPL - Theoretical knowledge examination .............................................................................. 13FCL.125 LAPL - Skill test ......................................................................................................................... 14

SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the LAPL for aeroplanes - LAPL(A) ................................................. 15FCL.105.A LAPL(A) - Privileges and conditions ....................................................................................... 15FCL.110.A LAPL(A) - Experience requirements and crediting .................................................................. 15FCL.135.A LAPL(A) - Extension of privileges to another class or variant of aeroplane ............................ 15FCL.140.A LAPL(A) - Recency requirements............................................................................................ 16

SECTION 3 Specific requirements for the LAPL for helicopters - LAPL(H) ................................................ 17FCL.105.H LAPL(H) - Privileges................................................................................................................ 17FCL.110.H LAPL(H) - Experience requirements and crediting .................................................................. 17FCL.135.H LAPL(H) - Extension of privileges to another type or variant of helicopter.............................. 17FCL.140.H LAPL(H) - Recency requirements ........................................................................................... 18

SECTION 4 Specific requirements for the LAPL for sailplanes - LAPL(S)................................................... 19FCL.105.S LAPL(S) - Privileges and conditions ........................................................................................ 19FCL.110.S LAPL(S) - Experience requirements and crediting .................................................................. 19FCL.130.S LAPL(S) - Launch methods ..................................................................................................... 19FCL.135.S LAPL(S) - Extension of privileges to TMG............................................................................... 20FCL.140.S LAPL(S) - Recency requirements............................................................................................ 20

SECTION 5 Specific requirements for the LAPL for balloons - LAPL(B) .................................................... 22FCL.105.B LAPL(B) - Privileges ................................................................................................................ 22FCL.110.B LAPL(B) - Experience requirements and crediting .................................................................. 22FCL.130.B LAPL(B) - Extension of privileges to tethered flights .............................................................. 22FCL.135.B LAPL(B) - Extension of privileges to another balloon class..................................................... 22FCL.140.B LAPL(B) - Recency requirements............................................................................................ 23

SUBPART C: PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE (PPL), SAILPLANE PILOT LICENCE (SPL), BALLOON PILOTLICENCE (BPL).................................................................................................................................................... 24

SECTION 1 Common requirements............................................................................................................. 24FCL.200 Minimum age .............................................................................................................................. 24FCL.205 Conditions.................................................................................................................................. 24

FCL.210 Training course .......................................................................................................................... 24

Qatar Civil Aviation Regulations Aircrew Licensing - Annex I: Part FCL No. 001 of 2016

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FCL.215 Theoretical knowledge examination ........................................................................................... 24FCL.235 Skill test ...................................................................................................................................... 24

SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the PPL aeroplanes - PPL(A) .......................................................... 26FCL.205.A PPL(A) - Privileges .................................................................................................................. 26FCL.210.A PPL(A) - Experience requirements and crediting .................................................................... 26

SECTION 3 Specific requirements for the PPL helicopters - PPL(H) .......................................................... 27FCL.205.H PPL(H) - Privileges ................................................................................................................. 27FCL.210.H PPL(H) - Experience requirements and crediting.................................................................... 27

SECTION 4 Specific requirements for the PPL airships - PPL(As) ............................................................. 28FCL.205.As PPL(As) - Privileges .............................................................................................................. 28FCL.210.As PPL(As) - Experience requirements and crediting ................................................................ 28

SECTION 5 Specific requirements for the sailplane pilot licence (SPL) ...................................................... 29FCL.205.S SPL - Privileges and conditions............................................................................................... 29FCL.210.S SPL - Experience requirements and crediting ......................................................................... 29FCL.220.S SPL - Launch methods............................................................................................................ 29FCL.230.S SPL - Recency requirements .................................................................................................. 29

SECTION 6 Specific requirements for the balloon pilot licence (BPL) ......................................................... 31FCL.205.B BPL - Privileges and conditions............................................................................................... 31FCL.210.B BPL - Experience requirements and crediting ......................................................................... 31FCL.220.B BPL - Extension of privileges to tethered flights ...................................................................... 31FCL.225.B BPL - Extension of privileges to another balloon class or group ............................................. 31FCL.230.B BPL - Recency requirements .................................................................................................. 32

SUBPART D: COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE - CPL ................................................................................... 33SECTION 1 Common requirements............................................................................................................. 33

FCL.300 CPL - Minimum age .................................................................................................................... 33FCL.305 CPL - Privileges and conditions .................................................................................................. 33FCL.310 CPL - Theoretical knowledge examinations ............................................................................... 33FCL.315 CPL - Training course ................................................................................................................. 34FCL.320 CPL - Skill test ............................................................................................................................ 34

SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the aeroplane category - CPL(A) .................................................... 35FCL.315.A CPL - Training course ............................................................................................................. 35FCL.325.A CPL(A) - Specific conditions for MPL holders ......................................................................... 35

SUBPART E: MULTI-CREW LICENCE - MPL ............................................................................................... 36FCL.400.A MPL -Minimum age ................................................................................................................. 36FCL.405.A MPL - Privileges ...................................................................................................................... 36FCL.410.A MPL - Training course and theoretical knowledge examinations ............................................ 36FCL.415.A MPL - Practical skill ................................................................................................................. 36

SUBPART F: AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENCE - ATPL .................................................................... 37SECTION 1 Common requirements ............................................................................................................ 37

FCL.500 ATPL - Minimum age .................................................................................................................. 37FCL.505 ATPL - Privileges ........................................................................................................................ 37FCL.515 ATPL - Training course and theoretical knowledge examinations .............................................. 37

SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the aeroplane category - ATPL(A) ................................................... 38FCL.505.A ATPL(A) - Restriction of privileges for pilots previously holding an MPL................................. 38FCL.510.A ATPL(A) - Prerequisites, experience and crediting.................................................................. 38FCL.520.A ATPL(A) - Skill test .................................................................................................................. 39

SECTION 3 Specific requirements for the helicopter category - ATPL(H) ................................................... 40FCL.510.H ATPL(H) - Prerequisites, experience and crediting ................................................................. 40FCL.520.H ATPL(H) - Skill test .................................................................................................................. 40

SUBPART G: INSTRUMENT RATING - IR .................................................................................................... 41SECTION 1 Common requirements............................................................................................................. 41

FCL.600 IR - General ................................................................................................................................ 41FCL.605 IR - Privileges ............................................................................................................................. 41FCL.610 IR - Prerequisites and crediting .................................................................................................. 41FCL.615 IR - Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction ........................................................................ 41FCL.620 IR - Skill test................................................................................................................................ 42FCL.625 IR - Validity, revalidation and renewal ......................................................................................... 42

SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the aeroplane category.................................................................... 44


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FCL.625.A IR(A) - Revalidation ................................................................................................................. 44SECTION 3 Specific requirements for the helicopter category .................................................................... 45

FCL.625.H IR(H) - Revalidation................................................................................................................. 45FCL.630.H IR(H) - Extension of privileges from single-engine to multi-engine helicopters ....................... 45

SECTION 4 Specific requirements for the airship category ........................................................................ 45FCL.625.As IR(As) - Revalidation ............................................................................................................. 46

SUBPART H: CLASS AND TYPE RATINGS .................................................................................................. 47SECTION 1 Common requirements............................................................................................................. 47

FCL.700 - Circumstances in which class or type ratings are required ...................................................... 47FCL.705 - Privileges of the holder of a class or type rating ....................................................................... 47FCL.710 - Class and type ratings - variants .............................................................................................. 47FCL.725 - Requirements for the issue of class and type ratings ............................................................... 47FCL.740 - Validity and renewal of class and type ratings ......................................................................... 48

SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the aeroplane category.................................................................... 49FCL.720.A - Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of class or type ratings -

aeroplanes............................................................................................................................................................ 49FCL.725.A - Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction for the issue of class and type ratings -

aeroplanes............................................................................................................................................................ 50FCL.730.A - Specific requirements for pilots undertaking a zero flight time type rating (ZFTT) course -

aeroplanes............................................................................................................................................................ 50FCL.735.A - Multi-crew cooperation training course - aeroplanes ............................................................ 51FCL.740.A - Revalidation of class and type ratings - aeroplanes.............................................................. 51

SECTION 3 Specific requirements for the helicopter category .................................................................... 53FCL.720.H - Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of type ratings - helicopters......... 53FCL.735.H - Multi-crew cooperation training course - helicopters............................................................. 53FCL.740.H - Revalidation of type ratings - helicopters .............................................................................. 54

SECTION 4 Specific requirements for the powered-lift aircraft category ..................................................... 56FCL.720.PL - Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of type ratings - powered-lift

aircraft................................................................................................................................................................... 56FCL.725.PL - Flight instruction for the issue of type ratings - powered-lift aircraft .................................... 56FCL.740.PL - Revalidation of type ratings - powered-lift aircraft ............................................................... 56

SECTION 5 Specific requirements for the airship category ......................................................................... 58FCL.720.As - Prerequisites for the issue of type ratings - airships............................................................ 58FCL.735.As - Multi-crew cooperation training course - airships ................................................................ 58FCL.740.As - Revalidation of type ratings - airships ................................................................................. 58

SUBPART I: ADDITIONAL RATINGS ........................................................................................................... 60FCL.800 Aerobatic rating .......................................................................................................................... 60FCL.805 Sailplane towing and banner towing ratings ............................................................................... 60FCL.810 Night rating ................................................................................................................................. 61FCL.815 Mountain rating ........................................................................................................................... 62FCL.820 Flight test rating .......................................................................................................................... 62FCL.825 En route instrument rating (EIR) ................................................................................................. 63FCL.830 Sailplane Cloud Flying Rating..................................................................................................... 65

SUBPART J: INSTRUCTORS......................................................................................................................... 67SECTION 1 Common requirements............................................................................................................. 67

FCL.900 Instructor certificates................................................................................................................... 67FCL.915 General prerequisites and requirements for instructors.............................................................. 68FCL.920 Instructor competencies and assessment .................................................................................. 68FCL.925 Additional requirements for instructors for the MPL.................................................................... 69FCL.930 Training course ........................................................................................................................... 69FCL.935 Assessment of competence........................................................................................................ 69FCL.940 Validity of instructor certificates................................................................................................... 70FCL.945 Obligations for instructors ........................................................................................................... 70

SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the flight instructor - FI ..................................................................... 71FCL.905.FI FI - Privileges and conditions ................................................................................................. 71FCL.910.FI FI - Restricted privileges ......................................................................................................... 72FCL.915.FI FI - Prerequisites .................................................................................................................... 73FCL.930.FI FI - Training course................................................................................................................. 74


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FCL.940.FI FI - Revalidation and renewal ................................................................................................. 74SECTION 3 Reserved .................................................................................................................................. 76SECTION 4 Specific requirements for the type rating instructor - TRI ......................................................... 77

FCL.905.TRI TRI - Privileges and conditions ............................................................................................ 77FCL.910.TRI TRI - Restricted privileges.................................................................................................... 77FCL.915.TRI TRI - Prerequisites ............................................................................................................... 78FCL.930.TRI TRI - Training course ........................................................................................................... 79FCL.935.TRI TRI - Assessment of competence ........................................................................................ 80FCL.940.TRI TRI - Revalidation and renewal............................................................................................ 80

SECTION 5 Specific requirements for the class rating instructor - CRI ....................................................... 82FCL.905.CRI CRI - Privileges and conditions ........................................................................................... 82FCL.915.CRI CRI - Prerequisites .............................................................................................................. 82FCL.930.CRI CRI - Training course........................................................................................................... 82FCL.940.CRI CRI - Revalidation and renewal ........................................................................................... 83

SECTION 6 Specific requirements for the instrument rating instructor - IRI ................................................ 84FCL.905.IRI IRI - Privileges and conditions............................................................................................... 84FCL.915.IRI IRI - Prerequisites ................................................................................................................. 84FCL.930.IRI IRI - Training course.............................................................................................................. 84FCL.940.IRI IRI - Revalidation and renewal .............................................................................................. 85

SECTION 7 Specific requirements for the synthetic flight instructor - SFI ................................................... 86FCL.905.SFI SFI - Privileges and conditions............................................................................................. 86FCL.910.SFI SFI - Restricted privileges .................................................................................................... 86FCL.915.SFI SFI - Prerequisites ............................................................................................................... 87FCL.930.SFI SFI - Training course ........................................................................................................... 87FCL.940.SFI SFI - Revalidation and renewal ........................................................................................... 88

SECTION 8 Specific requirements for the multi-crew cooperation instructor - MCCI .................................. 89FCL.905.MCCI MCCI - Privileges and conditions ..................................................................................... 89FCL.910.MCCI MCCI - Restricted privileges ............................................................................................. 89FCL.915.MCCI MCCI - Prerequisites ........................................................................................................ 89FCL.930.MCCI MCCI - Training course .................................................................................................... 89FCL.940.MCCI MCCI - Revalidation and renewal ..................................................................................... 89

SECTION 9 Specific requirements for the synthetic training instructor - STI ............................................... 91FCL.905.STI STI - Privileges and conditions............................................................................................. 91FCL.910.STI STI - Restricted privileges .................................................................................................... 91FCL.915.STI STI - Prerequisites ............................................................................................................... 91FCL.930.STI STI - Training course............................................................................................................ 91FCL.940.STI Revalidation and renewal of the STI certificate .................................................................... 92

SECTION 10 Mountain rating instructor - MI................................................................................................ 93FCL.905.MI MI - Privileges and conditions ................................................................................................ 93FCL.915.MI MI - Prerequisites................................................................................................................... 93FCL.930.MI MI - Training course ............................................................................................................... 93FCL.940.MI Validity of the MI certificate .................................................................................................... 93

SECTION 11 Specific requirements for the flight test instructor - FTI .......................................................... 94FCL.905.FTI FTI - Privileges and conditions ............................................................................................. 94FCL.915.FTI FTI - Prerequisites ................................................................................................................ 94FCL.930.FTI FTI - Training course ............................................................................................................ 94FCL.940.FTI FTI - Revalidation and renewal ............................................................................................ 94

SUBPART K: EXAMINERS............................................................................................................................. 96SECTION 1 Common requirements............................................................................................................. 96

FCL.1000 Examiner certificates ................................................................................................................ 96FCL.1005 Limitation of privileges in case of vested interests.................................................................... 96FCL.1010 Prerequisites for examiners ...................................................................................................... 97FCL.1015 Examiner standardization ......................................................................................................... 97FCL.1020 Examiners assessment of competence .................................................................................... 97FCL.1025 Validity, revalidation and renewal of examiner certificates........................................................ 98FCL.1030 Conduct of skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of competence ............................ 98

SECTION 2 Specific requirements for flight examiners - FE...................................................................... 100FCL.1005.FE FE - Privileges and conditions........................................................................................... 100


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FCL.1010.FE FE - Prerequisites ............................................................................................................. 101SECTION 3 Specific requirements for type rating examiners - TRE.......................................................... 102

FCL.1005.TRE TRE - Privileges and conditions ..................................................................................... 102FCL.1010.TRE TRE - Prerequisites ........................................................................................................ 102

SECTION 4 Specific requirements for Class Rating Examiner - CRE ....................................................... 104FCL.1005.CRE CRE - Privileges ............................................................................................................. 104FCL.1010.CRE CRE - Prerequisites ....................................................................................................... 104

SECTION 5 Specific requirements for Instrument Rating Examiner - IRE................................................. 105FCL.1005.IRE IRE - Privileges ................................................................................................................ 105FCL.1010.IRE IRE - Prerequisites .......................................................................................................... 105

SECTION 6 Specific requirements for Synthetic Flight Examiner - SFE.................................................... 106FCL.1005.SFE SFE - Privileges and conditions ...................................................................................... 106FCL.1010.SFE SFE - Prerequisites......................................................................................................... 106

SECTION 7 Specific requirements for the flight instructor examiner - FIE................................................. 108FCL.1005.FIE FIE - Privileges and conditions......................................................................................... 108FCL.1010.FIE FIE - Prerequisites ........................................................................................................... 108

APPENDICES TO PART-FCL....................................................................................................................... 110APPENDIX 1 to ANNEX I CREDITING OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE ............................................. 110APPENDIX 2 TO ANNEX I Language proficiency assessment ................................................................. 113APPENDIX 3 to ANNEX I TRAINING COURSES FOR THE ISSUE OF A CPL AND AN ATPL ............... 115APPENDIX 4 to ANNEX I SKILL TEST FOR THE ISSUE OF A CPL........................................................ 135APPENDIX 5 to ANNEX I INTEGRATED MPL TRAINING COURSE........................................................ 152APPENDIX 6 to ANNEX I MODULAR TRAINING COURSES FOR THE IR ............................................. 155APPENDIX 7 to ANNEX I IR SKILL TEST ................................................................................................. 164APPENDIX 8 to ANNEX I CROSS-CREDITING OF THE IR PART OF A CLASS OR TYPE RATING

PROFICIENCY CHECK ..................................................................................................................................... 178APPENDIX 9 to ANNEX I TRAINING, SKILL TEST AND PROFICIENCY CHECK FOR MPL, ATPL, TYPE

AND CLASS RATINGS, AND PROFICIENCY CHECK FOR IRs....................................................................... 180SECTION 1 ................................................................................................................................................ 203

1. Departure........................................................................................................................................... 203SECTION 2 ................................................................................................................................................ 204

2. Airwork (VFR) .................................................................................................................................... 204SECTION 3 ................................................................................................................................................ 205

3. En-route procedures VFR.................................................................................................................. 205SECTION 4 ................................................................................................................................................ 205

4. Arrivals and landings ......................................................................................................................... 205SECTION 5 ................................................................................................................................................ 206

5. Abnormal and emergency procedures .............................................................................................. 206SECTION 6 ................................................................................................................................................ 207

6. Simulated asymmetric flight............................................................................................................... 207C. Specific requirements for the helicopter category................................................................................. 207

FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE .................................................................................................................. 207MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS ................................................................................................................ 209FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE................................................................................................................... 215CONTENT OF THE TRAINING/SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK .................................................. 216


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ANNEX I FLIGHT CREW LICENCE (FCL)

SUBPART A: GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

FCL.001 Authority

For the purpose of this regulation, the authority shall be the Qatar Civil Aviation Authority to whom a personapplies for the issue of pilot licences, associated ratings, certificates.

FCL.005 Scope

This Part establishes the requirements for the issue of pilot licences and associated ratings and certificates andthe conditions of their validity and use.

FCL.010 Definitions

For the purposes of this Part, the following definitions apply:

Aerobatic flight means an intentional manoeuvre involving an abrupt change in an aircraft’sattitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normalflight or for instruction for licences or ratings other than the aerobatic rating.

Aeroplane means an engine-driven fixed-wing aircraft heavier than air which is supported inflight by the dynamic reaction of the air against its wings.

Aeroplane required to beoperated with a co- pilot

means a type of aeroplane which is required to be operated with a co- pilot asspecified in the flight manual or by the air operator certificate (AOC).

Aircraft means any machine which can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactionsof the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth’s surface.

Airmanship means the consistent use of good judgement and well-developed knowledge, skillsand attitudes to accomplish flight objectives.

Airship means a power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft, with the exception of hot-air airships,which, for the purposes of this Part, are included in the definition of balloon.

Balloon means a lighter-than-air aircraft which is not engine-driven and sustains flightthrough the use of either gas or an airborne heater. For the purposes of this Part, ahot-air airship, although engine-driven, is also considered a balloon.

Basic Instrument TrainingDevice(BITD)

means a ground-based training device which represents the student pilot’s stationof a class of aeroplanes. It may use screen-based instrument panels and spring-loaded flight controls, providing a training platform for at least the proceduralaspects of instrument flight.

Category of aircraft means a categorisation of aircraft according to specified basic characteristics, forexample aeroplane, powered-lift, helicopter, airship, sailplane, free balloon.


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Class of aeroplane means a categorisation of single-pilot aeroplanes not requiring a type rating.

Class of balloon means a categorisation of balloons taking into account the lifting means used tosustain flight.

Commercial air transport means the transport of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire.

Competency means a combination of skills, knowledge and attitude required to perform a task tothe prescribed standard.

Competency element means an action which constitutes a task that has a triggering event and aterminating event that clearly defines its limits, and an observable outcome.

Competency unit means a discrete function consisting of a number of competency elements.

Co-pilot means a pilot operating other than as pilot-in-command, on an aircraft for whichmore than one pilot is required, but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft forthe sole purpose of receiving flight instruction for a licence or rating.

Cross-country means a flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival following a pre-planned route, using standard navigation procedures.

Cruise relief co-pilot means a pilot who relieves the co-pilot of his/her duties at the controls during thecruise phase of a flight in multi-pilot operations above FL 200.

Dual instruction time means flight time or instrument ground time during which a person is receiving flightinstruction from a properly authorised instructor.

Error means an action or inaction taken by the flight crew which leads to deviations fromorganisational or flight intentions or expectations.

Error management means the process of detecting and responding to errors with countermeasureswhich reduce or eliminate the consequences of errors, and mitigate the probabilityof errors or undesired aircraft states.

Flight and NavigationProcedures Trainer(FNPT)

means a training device which represents the flight deck or cockpit environment,including the assemblage of equipment and computer programmes necessary torepresent an aircraft type or class in flight operations to the extent that the systemsappear to function as in an aircraft.



Flight time for aeroplanes, touring motor gliders and powered-lift, it means the total time fromthe moment an aircraft first moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment itfinally comes to rest at the end of the flight;

for helicopters, it means the total time from the moment a helicopter’s rotor bladesstart turning until the moment the helicopter finally comes to rest at the end of theflight, and the rotor blades are stopped;

for airships, it means the total time from the moment an airship is released from themast for the purpose of taking off until the moment the airship finally comes to restat the end of the flight, and is secured on the mast;

for sailplanes, it means the total time from the moment the sailplane commencesthe ground run in the process of taking off until the moment the sailplane finallycomes to a rest at the end of flight;

for balloons, it means the total time from the moment the basket leaves the groundfor the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to a rest at the end ofthe flight.

Flight Training Device(FTD)

means a full size replica of a specific aircraft type’s instruments, equipment, panelsand controls in an open flight deck area or an enclosed aircraft flight deck, includingthe assemblage of equipment and computer software programmes necessary torepresent the aircraft in ground and flight conditions to the extent of the systemsinstalled in the device. It does not require a force cueing motion or visual system,except in the case of helicopter FTD levels 2 and 3, where visual systems arerequired.

Full Flight Simulator(FFS)

means a full size replica of a specific type or make, model and series aircraft flightdeck, including the assemblage of all equipment and computer programmesnecessary to represent the aircraft in ground and flight operations, a visual systemproviding an out-of-the-flight deck view, and a force cueing motion system.

Group of balloons means a categorisation of balloons, taking into account the size or capacity of theenvelope.

Helicopter means a heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of theair on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes.

Instrument flight time means the time during which a pilot is controlling an aircraft in flight solely byreference to instruments.



Instrument ground time means the time during which a pilot is receiving instruction in simulated instrumentflight, in flight simulation training devices (FSTD).

Instrument time means instrument flight time or instrument ground time.

Multi-crew cooperation(MCC)

means the functioning of the flight crew as a team of cooperating members led bythe pilot-in-command.

Multi-pilot aircraft for aeroplanes, it means aeroplanes certificated for operation with a minimum crewof at least two pilots;

for helicopters, airships and powered-lift aircraft, it means the type of aircraft whichis required to be operated with a co-pilot as specified in the flight manual or by theair operator certificate or equivalent document.

Multi-pilot operation for aeroplanes, it means an operation requiring at least 2 pilots using multi-crewcooperation in either multi-pilot or single-pilot aeroplanes;

for helicopters, it means an operation requiring at least 2 pilots using multi-crewcooperation on multi-pilot helicopters.

Night means the period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning ofmorning civil twilight or such other period between sunset and sunrise as may beprescribed by the appropriate authority.

Other training devices(OTD)

means training aids other than flight simulators, flight training devices or flight andnavigation procedures trainers which provide means for training where a completeflight deck environment is not necessary.

Performance criteria means a simple, evaluative statement on the required outcome of the competencyelement and a description of the criteria used to judge if the required level ofperformance has been achieved.

Pilot-in-command (PIC) means the pilot designated as being in command and charged with the safeconduct of the flight.

Pilot-in-command undersupervision (PICUS)

means a co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in- command, theduties and functions of a pilot-in-command.

Powered sailplane means an aircraft equipped with one or more engines having, with enginesinoperative, the characteristics of a sailplane.



Powered-lift aircraft means any aircraft deriving vertical lift and in flight propulsion/lift from variablegeometry rotors or engines/propulsive devices attached to or contained within thefuselage or wings.

Private pilot means a pilot who holds a licence which prohibits the piloting of aircraft inoperations for which remuneration is given, with the exclusion of instruction orexamination activities, as established in this Part.

Proficiency check means the demonstration of skill to revalidate or renew ratings, and including suchoral examination as may be required.

Renewal (of, e.g. a ratingor certificate)

means the administrative action taken after a rating or certificate has lapsed for thepurpose of renewing the privileges of the rating or certificate for a further specifiedperiod consequent upon the fulfillment of specified requirements.

Revalidation (of, e.g. arating or certificate)

means the administrative action taken within the period of validity of a rating orcertificate which allows the holder to continue to exercise the privileges of a ratingor certificate for a further specified period consequent upon the fulfillment ofspecified requirements.

Route sector means a flight comprising take-off, departure, cruise of not less than 15 minutes,arrival, approach and landing phases.

Sailplane means a heavier-than-air aircraft which is supported in flight by the dynamicreaction of the air against its fixed lifting surfaces, the free flight of which does notdepend on an engine.

Single-pilot aircraft means an aircraft certificated for operation by one pilot.

Skill test means the demonstration of skill for a licence or rating issue, including such oralexamination as may be required.

Solo flight time means flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of an aircraft.

Student pilot-in-command (SPIC)

means a student pilot acting as pilot-in-command on a flight with an instructorwhere the latter will only observe the student pilot and shall not influence or controlthe flight of the aircraft.

Threat means events or errors which occur beyond the influence of the flight crew,increase operational complexity and which must be managed to maintain themargin of safety.

Threat management means the process of detecting and responding to the threats withcountermeasures which reduce or eliminate the consequences of threats, andmitigate the probability of errors or undesired aircraft states.



Touring Motor Glider(TMG)

means a specific class of powered sailplane having an integrally mounted, non-retractable engine and a non-retractable propeller. It shall be capable of taking offand climbing under its own power according to its flight manual.

Type of aircraft means a categorisation of aircraft requiring a type rating as determined in theoperational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, and whichinclude all aircraft of the same basic design including all modifications theretoexcept those which result in a change in handling or flight characteristics.



FCL.015 Application and issue, revalidation and renewal of licences, ratings and certificates

(a) An application for the issue, revalidation or renewal of pilot licences and associated ratings andcertificates shall be submitted to the authority in a form and manner established by the authority.The application shall be accompanied by evidence that the applicant complies with the requirementsfor the issue, re-validation or renewal of the license or certificate as well as associated ratings orendorsements, established in this Part and Part Medical.

(b) Any limitation or extension of the privileges granted by a license, rating or certificate shall be endorsedin the license or certificate by the authority.

(c) A person shall not hold at any time more than one license per category of aircraft issued in accordancewith this Part.

FCL.020 Student pilot

FCL.025 Theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of licences and ratings

A student pilot shall not fly solo unless authorized to do so and supervised by a flight instructor.(a)

Before his/her first solo flight, a student pilot shall be at least:(b)

in the case of aero planes, helicopters and airships: 16 years of age;(1)

in the case of sailplanes and balloons: 14 years of age.(2)

Responsibilities of the applicant(a)

Applicants shall take the entire set of theoretical knowledge examinations for a specificlicence or rating under the responsibility of the QCAAauthority.

(1)

Applicants shall only take the theoretical knowledge examination when recommended by theapproved training organization (ATO) responsible for their training, once they have completedthe appropriate elements of the training course of theoretical knowledge instruction to asatisfactory standard.

(2)

The recommendation by an ATO shall be valid for 12 months. If the applicant has failed toattempt at least one theoretical knowledge examination paper within this period of validity, theneed for further training shall be determined by the ATO, based on the needs of the applicant.

(3)

Pass standards(b)

A pass in a theoretical knowledge examination paper will be awarded to an applicantachieving at least 75 % of the marks allocated to that paper. There is no penalty marking.

(1)

Unless otherwise determined in this Part, an applicant has successfully completed therequired theoretical knowledge examination for the appropriate pilot license or rating when he/she has passed all the required examination papers within a period of 18 months countedfrom the end of the calendar month when the applicant first attempted an examination.

(2)

If an applicant has failed to pass one of the examination papers within 4 attempts, or hasfailed to pass all papers within either 6 sittings or the period mentioned in paragraph (2), he/she shall re-take the complete set of examination papers. Before re-taking the examinations,the applicant shall undertake further training at an ATO. The extent and scope of the trainingneeded shall be determined by the ATO, based on the needs of the applicant.

(3)



FCL.030 Practical skill test

FCL.035 Crediting of flight time and theoretical knowledge

Validity period(c)

The successful completion of the theoretical knowledge examinations will be valid:(1)

for the issue of a light aircraft pilot licence, a private pilot licence, a sailplane pilotlicence or a balloon pilot licence, for a period of 24 months;

(i)

for the issue of a commercial pilot licence, instrument rating (IR) or en routeinstrument rating (EIR), for a period of 36 months;

(ii)

the periods in (i) and (ii) shall be counted from the day when the pilot successfullycompletes the theoretical knowledge examination, in accordance with (b)(2).

(iii)

The completion of the airline transport pilot licence (ATPL) theoretical knowledgeexaminations will remain valid for the issue of an ATPL for a period of 7 years from the lastvalidity date of:

(2)

an IR entered in the licence; or(i)

in the case of helicopters, a helicopter’s type rating entered in that licence.(ii)

Before a skill test for the issue of a licence, rating or certificate is taken, the applicant shall havepassed the required theoretical knowledge examination, except in the case of applicants undergoing acourse of integrated flying training. In any case, the theoretical knowledge instruction shall always havebeen completed before the skill tests are taken.

(a)

Except for the issue of an airline transport pilot license, the applicant for a skill test shall berecommended for the test by the approved training organization and signed by the person responsiblefor the training, once the training is completed.

(b)

The training records shall be made available to the examiner.(c)

Crediting of flight time.(a)

Unless otherwise specified in this Part, flight time to be credited for a license, rating orcertificate shall have been flown in the same category of aircraft for which the license, ratingor certificate is sought.

(1)

PIC or under instruction.(2)

An applicant for a licence, rating or certificate shall be credited in full with all solo,dual instruction or PIC flight time towards the total flight time required for the licence,rating or certificate.

(i)

A graduate of an ATP integrated training course is entitled to be credited with up to50 hours of student pilot-in-command instrument time towards the PIC time requiredfor the issue of the airline transport pilot licence, commercial pilot licence and a multi-engine type or class rating.

(ii)

A graduate of a CPL/IR integrated training course is entitled to be credited with up to(iii)



FCL.040 Exercise of the privileges of licences

The exercise of the privileges granted by a licence shall be dependent upon the validity of the ratingscontained therein, if applicable, and of the medical certificate.

FCL.045 Obligation to carry and present documents

50 hours of the student pilot-in-command instrument time towards the PIC timerequired for the issue of the commercial pilot licence and a multi-engine type or classrating.

Flight time as co-pilot or PICUS. Unless otherwise determined in this Part, the holder of a pilotlicence, when acting as co-pilot or PICUS, is entitled to be credited with all of the co-pilot timetowards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.

(3)

Crediting of theoretical knowledge(b)

An applicant having passed the theoretical knowledge examination for an airline transportpilot licence shall be credited with the theoretical knowledge requirements for the light aircraftpilot licence, the private pilot licence, the commercial pilot licence and, except in the case ofhelicopters, the IR and the EIR in the same category of aircraft.

(1)

An applicant having passed the theoretical knowledge examination for a commercial pilotlicence shall be credited with the theoretical knowledge requirement for a light aircraft pilotlicence or a private pilot licence in the same category of aircraft.

(2)

The holder of an IR or an applicant having passed the instrument theoretical knowledgeexamination for a category of aircraft shall be fully credited towards the requirements forthe theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for an IR in another category of aircraft.

(3)

The holder of a pilot licence shall be credited towards the requirements for theoreticalknowledge instruction and examination for a licence in another category of aircraft inaccordance with Appendix 1 to this Part. This credit also applies to applicants for a pilotlicence who have already successfully completed the theoretical knowledge examinations forthe issue of that licence in another category of aircraft, as long as it is within the validity periodspecified in FCL.025(c).

(4)

Notwithstanding point (b)(3), the holder of an IR(A) who has completed a competency-basedmodular IR(A) course or the holder of an EIR shall only be credited in full towards therequirements for theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for an IR in anothercategory of aircraft when also having passed the theoretical knowledge instruction andexamination for the IFR part of the course required in accordance with FCL.720.A.(b)(2)(i).

(5)

A valid licence and a valid medical certificate shall always be carried by the pilot when exercising theprivileges of the licence.

(a)

The pilot shall also carry a personal identification document containing his/her photo.(b)

A pilot or a student pilot shall without undue delay present his/her flight time record for inspection uponrequest by an authorised representative of an authority.

(c)

A student pilot shall carry on all solo cross-country flights evidence of the authorisation required byFCL.020(a).

(d)



FCL.050 Recording of flight time

The pilot shall keep a reliable record of the details of all flights flown in a form and manner established bythe authority.

FCL.055 Language proficiency

General.

Aeroplane, helicopter, powered-lift and airship pilots required to use the radio telephone shall notexercise the privileges of their licences and ratings unless they have a language proficiencyendorsement on their licence in either English or the language used for radio communications involvedin the flight. The endorsement shall indicate the language, the proficiency level and the validity date.

(a)

The applicant for a language proficiency endorsement shall demonstrate, in accordance with Appendix2 and AMC 2 FCL.055 to this Part, at least an operational level of language proficiency both in the useof phraseologies and plain language. To do so, the applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:

(b)

communicate effectively in voice-only and in face-to-face situations;(1)

communicate on common and work-related topics with accuracy and clarity;(2)

use appropriate communicative strategies to exchange messages and to recognise andresolve misunderstandings in a general or work-related context;

(3)

handle successfully the linguistic challenges presented by a complication or unexpected turnof events which occurs within the context of a routine work situation or communicative taskwith which they are otherwise familiar; and

(4)

use a dialect or accent which is intelligible to the aeronautical community.(5)

Except for pilots who have demonstrated language proficiency at an expert level, in accordance withAppendix 2 and AMC2 FCL.055 to this Part, the language proficiency endorsement shall be re-evaluated every:

(c)

3 years, if the level demonstrated is operational level; or(1)

6 years, if the level demonstrated is extended level.(2)

Specific requirements for holders of an instrument rating (IR) or en-route instrument rating (EIR).Without prejudice to the paragraphs above, holders of an IR or an EIR shall have demonstrated theability to use the English language at a level that allows them to:

(d)

understand all the information relevant to the accomplishment of all phases of a flight,including flight preparation;

(1)

use radio telephony in all phases of flight, including emergency situations;(2)

communicate with other crew members during all phases of flight, including flight preparation.(3)

The demonstration of language proficiency and of the use of English for IR or EIR holders shall bedone through a method of assessment established by the authority.

(e)



FCL.060 Recent experience

Balloons.

A pilot shall not operate a balloon in commercial air transport or carrying passengers unless he/shehas completed in the preceding 180 days:

(a)

at least 3 flights as a pilot flying in a balloon, of which at least 1 shall be in a balloon of therelevant class and group; or

(1)

1 flight in the relevant class and group of balloon under the supervision of an instructorqualified in accordance with Subpart J.

(2)

Aeroplanes, helicopters, powered-lift, airships and sailplanes.

A pilot shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport or carrying passengers:

(b)

as PIC or co-pilot unless he/she has carried out, in the preceding 90 days, at least 3 take-offs,approaches and landings in an aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS representing thattype or class. The 3 take-offs and landings shall be performed in either multi-pilot or single-pilot operations, depending on the privileges held by the pilot; and

(1)

as PIC at night unless he/she:(2)

has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least 1 take-off, approach and landing atnight as a pilot flying in an aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS representingthat type or class; or

(i)

holds an IR;(ii)

as cruise relief co-pilot unless he/she:(3)

has complied with the requirements in (b)(1); or(i)

has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least 3 sectors as a cruise relief pilot onthe same type or class of aircraft; or

(ii)

has carried out recency and refresher flying skill training in an FFS at intervals notexceeding 90 days. This refresher training may be combined with the operator’srefresher training prescribed in the relevant requirements of Part-ORO.

(iii)

When a pilot has the privilege to operate more than one type of aeroplane with similarhandling and operation characteristics, the 3 take-offs, approaches and landings required in(1) may be performed as defined in the operational suitability data (OSD) established inaccordance with Part-21.

(4)

When a pilot has the privilege to operate more than one type of non-complex helicopter withsimilar handling and operation characteristics, as defined in the operational suitability dataestablished in accordance with Part-21, the 3 take- offs, approaches and landings required in(1) may be performed in just one of the types, provided that the pilot has completed at least 2hours of flight in each of the types of helicopter, during the preceding 6 months.

(5)

Specific requirements for commercial air transport:(c)

In the case of commercial air transport, the 90-day period prescribed in subparagraphs (b)(1)and (2) above may be extended up to a maximum of 120 days, as long as the pilot

(1)



FCL.065 Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more in commercial airtransport

FCL.070 Revocation, suspension and limitation of licences, ratings and certificates

undertakes line flying under the supervision of a type rating instructor (TRI) or examiner(TRE).

When the pilot does not comply with the requirement in (1), he/she shall complete a trainingflight in the aircraft or an FFS of the aircraft type to be used, which shall include at least therequirements described in (b)(1) and (2) before he/she can exercise his/her privileges.

(2)

Age 60-64. Aeroplanes and helicopters. The holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 60years shall not act as a pilot of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport except as a member ofa multi-pilot crew.:

(a)

Age 65. Except in the case of a holder of a balloon or sailplane pilot licence, the holder of a pilotlicence who has attained the age of 65 years shall not act as a pilot of an aircraft engaged incommercial air transport.

(b)

Age 70. The holder of a balloon or sailplane pilot licence who has attained the age of 70 years shall notact as a pilot of a balloon or a sailplane engaged in commercial air transport.

(c)

Licences, ratings and certificates issued in accordance with this Part may be limited, suspended orrevoked by the authority when the pilot does not comply with the requirements of this Part, Part-Medical or the applicable operational requirements, in accordance with the conditions and procedureslaid down in Part- ARA.

(a)

When the pilot has his/her licence suspended or revoked, he/she shall immediately return the licenceor certificate to the authority.

(b)



SUBPART B: LIGHT AIRCRAFT PILOT LICENCE - LAPL

SECTION 1 Common requirements

FCL.100 LAPL - Minimum age

Applicants for the LAPL shall be:

FCL.105 LAPL - Privileges and conditions

FCL.110 LAPL - Crediting for the same aircraft category

FCL.115 LAPL - Training course

Applicants for an LAPL shall complete a training course within an ATO. The course shall include theoreticalknowledge and flight instruction appropriate to the privileges given.

FCL.120 LAPL - Theoretical knowledge examination

Applicants for an LAPL shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted,through examinations on the following:

in the case of aeroplanes and helicopters, at least 17 years of age;(a)

in the case of sailplanes and balloons, at least 16 years of age.(b)

General. The privileges of the holder of an LAPL are to act without remuneration as PIC in non-commercial operations on the appropriate aircraft category.

(a)

Conditions. Applicants for the LAPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the relevant aircraftcategory and, when applicable, for the class or type of aircraft used in the skill test.

(b)

Applicants for an LAPL who have held another licence in the same category of aircraft shall be fullycredited towards the requirements of the LAPL in that category of aircraft.

(a)

Without prejudice to the paragraph above, if the licence has lapsed, the applicant shall have to pass askill test in accordance with FCL.125 for the issue of an LAPL in the appropriate aircraft category

(b)

common subjects:(a)

Air law,(1)

Human performance,(2)

Meteorology, and(3)

Communications;(4)

specific subjects concerning the different aircraft categories:(b)

Principles of flight,(1)

Operational procedures,(2)



FCL.125 LAPL - Skill test

Flight performance and planning,(3)

Aircraft general knowledge, and(4)

Navigation.(5)

Applicants for an LAPL shall demonstrate through the completion of a skill test the ability to perform, asPIC on the appropriate aircraft category, the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with competencyappropriate to the privileges granted.

(a)

Applicants for the skill test shall have received flight instruction on the same class or type of aircraft tobe used for the skill test. The privileges will be restricted to the class or type used for the skill test untilfurther extensions are endorsed on the licence, in accordance with this Subpart.

(b)

Pass marks(c)

The skill test shall be divided into different sections, representing all the different phases offlight appropriate to the category of aircraft flown.

(1)

Failure in any item of a section will cause the applicant to fail the entire section. If theapplicant fails only 1 section, he/she shall repeat only that section. Failure in more than 1section will cause the applicant to fail the entire test.

(2)

When the test needs to be repeated in accordance with (2), failure in any section, includingthose that have been passed on a previous attempt, will cause the applicant to fail the entiretest.

(3)

Failure to achieve a pass in all sections of the test in 2 attempts will require further practicaltraining.

(4)



SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the LAPL for aeroplanes - LAPL(A)

FCL.105.A LAPL(A) - Privileges and conditions

FCL.110.A LAPL(A) - Experience requirements and crediting

FCL.135.A LAPL(A) - Extension of privileges to another class or variant of aeroplane

The privileges of the holder of an LAPL for aeroplanes are to act as PIC on single- engine pistonaeroplanes-land or TMG with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 2000 kg or less, carrying amaximum of 3 passengers, such that there are never more than 4 persons on board of the aircraft.

(a)

Holders of a LAPL(A) shall only carry passengers once they have completed 10 hours of flight time asPIC on aeroplanes or TMG after the issuance of the licence.

(b)

Applicants for an LAPL(A) shall have completed at least 30 hours of flight instruction on aeroplanes orTMGs, including at least:

(a)

15 hours of dual flight instruction in the class in which the skill test will be taken;(1)

6 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 3 hours of solo cross- country flighttime with at least 1 cross-country flight of at least 150 km (80 NM), during which 1 full stoplanding at an aerodrome different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made.

(2)

Specific requirements for applicants holding an LAPL(S) with TMG extension. Applicants for anLAPL(A) holding an LAPL(S) with TMG extension shall have completed at least 21 hours of flight timeon TMGs after the endorsement of the TMG extension and complied with the requirements ofFCL.135.A(a) on aeroplanes.

(b)

Crediting. Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited towards the requirements in (a).The amount of credit shall be decided by the ATO where the pilot undergoes the training course, on thebasis of a pre-entry flight test, but shall in any case:

(c)

not exceed the total flight time as PIC;(1)

not exceed 50 % of the hours required in (a);(2)

not include the requirements of (a)(2).(3)

The privileges of an LAPL(A) shall be limited to the class and variant of aeroplanes or TMG in whichthe skill test was taken. This limitation may be removed when the pilot has completed in another classthe requirements below:

(a)

3 hours of flight instruction, including:(1)

10 dual take-offs and landings; and(i)

10 supervised solo take-offs and landings.(ii)

a skill test to demonstrate an adequate level of practical skill in the new class. During this skilltest, the applicant shall also demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoreticalknowledge for the other class in the following subjects:

(2)



FCL.140.A LAPL(A) - Recency requirements

Operational procedures;(i)

Flight performance and planning;(ii)

Aircraft general knowledge.(iii)

Before the holder of an LAPL(A) can exercise the privileges of the licence on another variant ofaeroplane than the one used for the skill test, the pilot shall undertake differences or familiarisationtraining. The differences training shall be entered in the pilot’s logbook or equivalent document andsigned by the instructor.

(b)

Holders of an LAPL(A) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence when they have completed, inthe last 24 months, as pilots of aeroplanes or TMG:

(a)

at least 12 hours of flight time as PIC, including 12 take-offs and landings; and(1)

refresher training of at least 1 hour of total flight time with an instructor.(2)

Holders of an LAPL(A) who do not comply with the requirements in (a) shall:(b)

undertake a proficiency check with an examiner before they resume the exercise of theprivileges of their licence; or

(1)

perform the additional flight time or take-offs and landings, flying dual or solo under thesupervision of an instructor, in order to fulfill the requirements in (a).

(2)



SECTION 3 Specific requirements for the LAPL for helicopters - LAPL(H)

FCL.105.H LAPL(H) - Privileges

The privileges of the holder of an LAPL for helicopters are to act as PIC on single- engine helicopters with amaximum certificated take-off mass of 2000 kg or less, carrying a maximum of 3 passengers, such that thereare never more than 4 persons on board.

FCL.110.H LAPL(H) - Experience requirements and crediting

(a) Applicants for the LAPL(H) shall have completed 40 hours of flight instruction on helicopters. At least 35hours of which shall be flown on the type of helicopter that is to be used for the skill test. The flightinstruction shall include at least:

(1) 20 hours of dual flight instruction; and

(2) 10 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 5 hours of solo cross country flight time withat least 1 cross-country flight of at least 150 km (80 NM), during which one full stop landing at anaerodrome different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made.

(b) Crediting. Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited towards the requirements in (a). Theamount of credit shall be decided by the ATO where the pilot undergoes the training course, on the basisof a pre-entry flight test, but shall in any case:

(1) not exceed the total flight time as PIC;

(2) not exceed 50 % of the hours required in (a);

(3) not include the requirements in (a)(2).

FCL.135.H LAPL(H) - Extension of privileges to another type or variant of helicopter

(a) The privileges of an LAPL(H) shall be limited to the specific type and variant of helicopter in which theskill test was taken. This limitation may be removed when the pilot has completed:

(1) 5 hours of flight instruction, including:

(i) 15 dual take-offs, approaches and landings;

(ii) 15 supervised solo take-offs, approaches and landings;

(2) a skill test to demonstrate an adequate level of practical skill in the new type. During this skill test,the applicant shall also demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoretical knowledge forthe other type in the following subjects:

(i) Operational procedures,

(ii) Flight performance and planning,

(iii) Aircraft general knowledge.

(b) Before the holder of an LAPL(H) can exercise the privileges of the licence in another variant of helicopterthan the one used for the skill test, the pilot shall undertake differences or familiarisation training, asdetermined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21. The differencestraining shall be entered in the pilot’s logbook or equivalent record and signed by the instructor.



FCL.140.H LAPL(H) - Recency requirements

Holders of an LAPL(H) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence on a specific type when theyhave completed on helicopters of that type in the last 12 months:

(a)

at least 6 hours of flight time as PIC, including 6 take-offs, approaches and landings; and(1)

refresher training of at least 1 hour total flight time with an instructor.(2)

Holders of an LAPL(H) who do not comply with the requirements in (a) shall:(b)

pass a proficiency check with an examiner on the specific type before they resume theexercise of the privileges of their licence; or

(1)


(2)



SECTION 4 Specific requirements for the LAPL for sailplanes - LAPL(S)

FCL.105.S LAPL(S) - Privileges and conditions

FCL.110.S LAPL(S) - Experience requirements and crediting

FCL.130.S LAPL(S) - Launch methods

The privileges of the holder of an LAPL for sailplanes are to act as PIC on sailplanes and poweredsailplanes. In order to exercise the privileges on a TMG, the holder shall comply with the requirementsin FCL.135.S.

(a)

Holders of an LAPL(S) shall only carry passengers once they have completed 10 hours of flight time or30 launches as PIC on sailplanes or powered sailplanes after the issuance of the licence.

(b)

Applicants for an LAPL(S) shall have completed at least 15 hours of flight instruction in sailplanes, orpowered sailplanes, including at least:

(a)

10 hours of dual flight instruction;(1)

2 hours of supervised solo flight time;(2)

45 launches and landings;(3)

1 solo cross-country flight of at least 50 km (27 NM) or 1 dual cross-country flight of at least100 km (55 NM).

(4)

Of the 15 hours required in (a), a maximum of 7 hours may be completed in a TMG.(b)

Crediting. Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited towards the requirements in (a).The amount of credit shall be decided by the ATO where the pilot undergoes the training course, on thebasis of a pre-entry flight test, but shall in any case:

(c)

not exceed the total flight time as PIC;(1)


not include the requirements in (a)(2) to (a)(4).(3)

The privileges of the LAPL(S) shall be limited to the launch method included in the skill test. Thislimitation may be removed when the pilot has completed:

(a)

in the case of winch launch and car launch, a minimum of 10 launches in dual flightinstruction, and 5 solo launches under supervision;

(1)

in the case of aero tow or self launch, a minimum of 5 launches in dual flight instruction, and 5solo launches under supervision. In the case of self launch, dual flight instruction may bedone in a TMG;

(2)

in the case of bungee launch, a minimum of 3 launches performed in dual flight instruction orsolo under supervision.

(3)

The completion of the additional training launches shall be entered in the logbook and signed by theinstructor.

(b)



FCL.135.S LAPL(S) - Extension of privileges to TMG

The privileges of an LAPL(S) shall be extended to a TMG when the pilot has completed in an ATO, at least:

FCL.140.S LAPL(S) - Recency requirements

In order to maintain their privileges in each launch method, pilots shall complete a minimum of 5launches during the last 24 months, except for bungee launch, in which case pilots shall havecompleted only 2 launches.

(c)

When the pilot does not comply with the requirement in (c), he/she shall perform the additional numberof launches flying dual or solo under the supervision of an instructor in order to renew the privileges.

(d)

6 hours of flight instruction on a TMG, including:(a)


1 solo cross-country flight of at least 150 km (80 NM), during which 1 full stop landing at anaerodrome different from the aerodrome of departure shall be performed;

(2)

a skill test to demonstrate an adequate level of practical skill in a TMG. During this skill test, theapplicant shall also demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for theTMG in the following subjects:

(b)




Aircraft general knowledge,(4)

Navigation.(5)

Sailplanes and powered sailplanes. Holders of an LAPL(S) shall only exercise the privileges of theirlicence on sailplanes or powered sailplanes when they have completed on sailplanes or poweredsailplanes, excluding TMGs, in the last 24 months, at least:

(a)

5 hours of flight time as PIC, including 15 launches;(1)

2 training flights with an instructor.(2)

TMG. Holders of an LAPL(S) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence on a TMG when theyhave:

(b)

completed on TMGs in the last 24 months:(1)

at least 12 hours of flight time as PIC, including 12 take-offs and landings; and(i)

refresher training of at least 1 hour total flight time with an instructor.(ii)

When the holder of the LAPL(S) also has the privileges to fly aeroplanes, the requirements in(1) may be completed on aeroplanes.

(2)

Holders of an LAPL(S) who do not comply with the requirements in (a) or (b) shall, before they resume(c)



the exercise of their privileges:

pass a proficiency check with an examiner on a sailplane or a TMG, as appropriate; or(1)

perform the additional flight time or take-offs and landings, flying dual or solo under thesupervision of an instructor, in order to fulfill the requirements in (a) or (b).

(2)



SECTION 5 Specific requirements for the LAPL for balloons - LAPL(B)

FCL.105.B LAPL(B) - Privileges

The privileges of the holder of an LAPL for balloons are to act as PIC on hot-air balloons or hot-air airships witha maximum of 3400 m3 envelope capacity or gas balloons with a maximum of 1260 m3 envelope capacity,carrying a maximum of 3 passengers, such that there are never more than 4 persons on board of the balloon.

FCL.110.B LAPL(B) - Experience requirements and crediting

FCL.130.B LAPL(B) - Extension of privileges to tethered flights

FCL.135.B LAPL(B) - Extension of privileges to another balloon class

The privileges of the LAPL(B) shall be limited to the class of balloons in which the skill test was taken. Thislimitation may be removed when the pilot has completed in the other class, at an ATO, at least:

Applicants for an LAPL(B) shall have completed on balloons of the same class at least 16 hours offlight instruction, including at least:

(a)


10 inflations and 20 take-offs and landings; and(2)

1 supervised solo flight with a minimum flight time of at least 30 minutes.(3)

Crediting. Applicants with prior experience as PIC on balloons may be credited towards therequirements in (a). The amount of credit shall be decided by the ATO where the pilot undergoes thetraining course, on the basis of a pre-entry flight test, but shall in any case:

(b)

not exceed the total flight time as PIC on balloons;(1)


not include the requirements of (a)(2) and (a)(3).(3)

The privileges of the LAPL(B) shall be limited to non-tethered flights. This limitation may be removedwhen the pilot has completed at least 3 tethered instruction flights.

(a)

The completion of the additional training shall be entered in the logbook and signed by the instructor.(b)

In order to maintain this privilege, pilots shall complete a minimum of 2 tethered flights during the last24 months.

(c)

When the pilot does not comply with the requirement in (c), he/she shall perform the additional numberof tethered flights flying dual or solo under the supervision of an instructor in order to renew theprivileges.

(d)

5 dual instruction flights; or(a)

in the case of an LAPL(B) for hot-air balloons wishing to extend their privileges to hot-air airships, 5hours of dual flight instruction time; and

(b)

a skill test, during which they shall demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoreticalknowledge for the other class in the following subjects:

(c)



FCL.140.B LAPL(B) - Recency requirements



Flight performance and planning, and(3)

Aircraft general knowledge.(4)

Holders of an LAPL(B) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence when they have completed, inone class of balloons in the last 24 months, at least:

(a)

6 hours of flight time as PIC, including 10 take-offs and landings; and(1)

1 training flight with an instructor;(2)

in addition, if the pilot is qualified to fly more than one class of balloons, in order to exercisetheir privileges in the other class, they shall have completed at least 3 hours of flight time inthat class within the last 24 months, including 3 take-offs and landings.

(3)

Holders of an LAPL(B) who do not comply with the requirements in (a) shall, before they resume theexercise of their privileges:

(b)

pass a proficiency check with an examiner in the appropriate class; or(1)


(2)



SUBPART C: PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE (PPL), SAILPLANE PILOT LICENCE (SPL), BALLOONPILOT LICENCE (BPL)


FCL.200 Minimum age

FCL.205 Conditions

Applicants for the issue of a PPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the class or type rating for the aircraft

used in the skill test, as established in Subpart H.

FCL.210 Training course

Applicants for a BPL, SPL or PPL shall complete a training course at an ATO. The course shall includetheoretical knowledge and flight instruction appropriate to the privileges given.

FCL.215 Theoretical knowledge examination

Applicants for a BPL, SPL or PPL shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to theprivileges granted through examinations in the following subjects:

FCL.235 Skill test

An applicant for a PPL shall be at least 17 years of age;(a)

An applicant for a BPL or an SPL shall be at least 16 years of age.(b)

common subjects:(a)

Air law,(1)

Human performance,(2)

Meteorology, and(3)

Communications;(4)

specific subjects concerning the different aircraft categories:(b)




Aircraft general knowledge, and(4)

Navigation.(5)

Applicants for a BPL, SPL or PPL shall demonstrate through the completion of a skill test the ability toperform, as PIC on the appropriate aircraft category, the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with

competency appropriate to the privileges granted.

(a)

An applicant for the skill test shall have received flight instruction on the same class or type of aircraft,(b)



or a group of balloons to be used for the skill test.

Pass marks(c)

The skill test shall be divided into different sections, representing all the different phases offlight appropriate to the category of aircraft flown.

(1)

Failure in any item of a section will cause the applicant to fail the entire section. If theapplicant fails only 1 section, he/she shall repeat only that section. Failure in more than 1section will cause the applicant to fail the entire test.

(2)

When the test needs to be repeated in accordance with (2), failure in any section, includingthose that have been passed on a previous attempt, will cause the applicant to fail the entiretest.

(3)

Failure to achieve a pass in all sections of the test in 2 attempts will require further training.(4)



SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the PPL aeroplanes - PPL(A)

FCL.205.A PPL(A) - Privileges

FCL.210.A PPL(A) - Experience requirements and crediting

The privileges of the holder of a PPL(A) are to act without remuneration as PIC or co-pilot on

aeroplanes or TMGs engaged in non-commercial operations.

(a)

Notwithstanding the paragraph above, the holder of a PPL(A) with instructor or examiner privilegesmay receive remuneration for:

(b)

the provision of flight instruction for the LAPL(A) or PPL(A);(1)

the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks for these licences;(2)

the training, testing and checking for the ratings or certificates attached to this licence.(3)

Applicants for a PPL(A) shall have completed at least 45 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes orTMGs, 5 of which may have been completed in an FSTD, including at least:

(a)

25 hours of dual flight instruction; and(1)

10 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 5 hours of solo cross- country flighttime with at least 1 cross-country flight of at least 270 km (150 NM), during which full stoplandings at 2 aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made.

(2)

Specific requirements for applicants holding an LAPL(A).Applicants for a PPL(A) holding an LAPL(A)shall have completed at least 15 hours of flight time on aeroplanes after the issue of the LAPL(A), ofwhich at least 10 shall be flight instruction completed in a training course at an ATO. This trainingcourse shall include at least 4 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 2 hours of solocross-country flight time with at least 1 cross-country flight of at least 270 km (150 NM), during whichfull stop landings at 2 aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made.

(b)

Specific requirements for applicants holding an LAPL(S) with a TMG extension. Applicants for aPPL(A) holding an LAPL(S) with a TMG extension shall have completed:

(c)

at least 24 hours of flight time on TMG after the endorsement of the TMG extension; and(1)

15 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes in a training course at an ATO, including at leastthe requirements of (a)(2).

(2)

Crediting. Applicants holding a pilot licence for another category of aircraft, with the exception ofballoons, shall be credited with 10% of their total flight time as PIC on such aircraft up to a maximum of10 hours. The amount of credit given shall in any case not include the requirements in (a)(2).

(d)



SECTION 3 Specific requirements for the PPL helicopters - PPL(H)

FCL.205.H PPL(H) - Privileges

FCL.210.H PPL(H) - Experience requirements and crediting

The privileges of the holder of a PPL(H) are to act without remuneration as PIC or co-pilot ofhelicopters engaged in non-commercial operations.

(a)

Notwithstanding the paragraph above, the holder of a PPL(H) with instructor or examiner privilegesmay receive remuneration for:

(b)

the provision of flight instruction for the LAPL(H) or the PPL(H);(1)


the training, testing and checking for the ratings and certificates attached to this licence.(3)

Applicants for a PPL(H) shall have completed at least 45 hours of flight instruction on helicopters, 5 ofwhich may have been completed in an FNPT or FFS, including at least:

(a)

25 hours of dual flight instruction; and(1)

10 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 5 hours of solo cross- country flighttime with at least 1 cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM), with full stop landings at 2aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure.

(2)

35 of the 45 hours of flight instruction have to be completed on the same type of helicopter as

the one used for the skill test.

(3)

Specific requirements for an applicant holding an LAPL(H). Applicants for a PPL(H) holding anLAPL(H) shall complete a training course at an ATO. This training course shall include at least 5 hoursof dual flight instruction time and at least 1 supervised solo cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100NM), with full stop landings at 2 aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure.

(b)

Applicants holding a pilot licence for another category of aircraft, with the exception of balloons, shallbe credited with 10 % of their total flight time as PIC on such aircraft up to a maximum of 6 hours. Theamount of credit given shall in any case not include the requirements in (a)(2).

(c)



SECTION 4 Specific requirements for the PPL airships - PPL(As)

FCL.205.As PPL(As) - Privileges

FCL.210.As PPL(As) - Experience requirements and crediting

The privileges of the holder of a PPL(As) are to act without remuneration as PIC or co-pilot on airshipsengaged in non-commercial operations.

(a)

Notwithstanding the paragraph above, the holder of a PPL(As) with instructor or examiner privilegesmay receive remuneration for:

(b)

the provision of flight instruction for the PPL(As);(1)

the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks for this licence;(2)

the training, testing and checking for the ratings or certificates attached to this licence.(3)

Applicants for a PPL(As) shall have completed at least 35 hours of flight instruction in airships, 5 ofwhich may have been completed in an FSTD, including at least:

(a)

25 hours of dual flight instruction, including:(1)

3 hours of cross-country flight training, including 1 cross-country flight of at least 65km (35 NM);

(i)

3 hours of instrument instruction;(ii)

8 take-offs and landings at an aerodrome, including masting and unmasting procedures;(2)

8 hours of supervised solo flight time.(3)

Applicants holding a BPL and qualified to fly hot-air airships shall be credited with 10% of their totalflight time as PIC on such airships up to a maximum of 5 hours.

(b)



SECTION 5 Specific requirements for the sailplane pilot licence (SPL)

FCL.205.S SPL - Privileges and conditions

FCL.210.S SPL - Experience requirements and crediting

FCL.220.S SPL - Launch methods

The privileges of the SPL shall be limited to the launch method included in the skill test. This limitation may beremoved and the new privileges exercised when the pilot complies with the requirements in FCL.130.S.

FCL.230.S SPL - Recency requirements

Holders of an SPL shall only exercise the privileges of their licence when complying with the recencyrequirements in FCL.140.S.

The privileges of the holder of an SPL are to act as PIC on sailplanes and powered sailplanes. In orderto exercise the privileges on a TMG, the holder shall have to comply with the requirements inFCL.135.S.

(a)

Holders of an SPL shall:(b)

carry passengers only when having completed, after the issuance of the licence, at least 10hours of flight time or 30 launches as PIC on sailplanes or powered sailplanes;

(1)

be restricted to act without remuneration in non-commercial operations until they have:(2)

attained the age of 18 years;(i)

completed, after the issuance of the licence, 75 hours of flight time or 200 launchesas PIC on sailplanes or powered sailplanes;

(ii)

passed a proficiency check with an examiner.(iii)

Notwithstanding (b)(2), the holder of an SPL with instructor or examiner privileges may receiveremuneration for:

(c)

the provision of flight instruction for the LAPL(S) or the SPL;(1)


the training, testing and checking for the ratings and certificates attached to these licences.(3)

Applicants for an SPL shall have completed at least 15 hours of flight instruction on sailplanes orpowered sailplanes, including at least the requirements specified in FCL.110.S.

(a)

Applicants for an SPL holding an LAPL(S) shall be fully credited towards the requirements for the issueof an SPL. Applicants for an SPL who held an LAPL(S) within the period of 2 years before theapplication shall be fully credited towards the requirements of theoretical knowledge and flightinstruction.

Crediting. Applicants holding a pilot licence for another category of aircraft, with the exception ofballoons, shall be credited with 10 % of their total flight time as PIC on such aircraft up to a maximumof 7 hours. The amount of credit given shall in any case not include the requirements in ofFCL.110.S(a)(2) to (a)(4).

(b)



SECTION 6 Specific requirements for the balloon pilot licence (BPL)

FCL.205.B BPL - Privileges and conditions

FCL.210.B BPL - Experience requirements and crediting

FCL.220.B BPL - Extension of privileges to tethered flights

The privileges of the BPL shall be limited to non-tethered flights. This limitation may be removed when the pilotcomplies with the requirements in FCL.130.B.

FCL.225.B BPL - Extension of privileges to another balloon class or group

The privileges of the BPL shall be limited to the class and group of balloons in which the skill test was taken.This limitation may be removed when the pilot has:

The privileges of the holder of a BPL are to act as PIC on balloons.(a)

Holders of a BPL shall be restricted to act without remuneration in non-commercial operations untilthey have:

(b)

attained the age of 18 years;(1)

completed 50 hours of flight time and 50 take-offs and landings as PIC on balloons;(2)

passed a proficiency check with an examiner on a balloon in the specific class.(3)

Notwithstanding paragraph (b), the holder of a BPL with instructor or examiner privileges may receiveremuneration for:

(c)

the provision of flight instruction for the LAPL(B) or the BPL;(1)


the training, testing and checking for the ratings and certificates attached to these licences.(3)

Applicants for a BPL shall have completed on balloons in the same class and group at least 16 hoursof flight instruction, including at least:

(a)


10 inflations and 20 take-offs and landings; and(2)

1 supervised solo flight with a minimum flight time of at least 30 minutes.(3)

Applicants for a BPL holding an LAPL(B) shall be fully credited towards the requirements for the issueof a BPL. Applicants for a BPL who held an LAPL(B) within the period of 2 years before the applicationshall be fully credited towards the requirements of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction.

(b)

in the case of an extension to another class within the same group, complied with the requirements inFCL.135.B;

(a)

in the case of an extension to another group within the same class of balloons, completed at least:(b)



FCL.230.B BPL - Recency requirements

2 instruction flights on a balloon of the relevant group; and(1)

the following hours of flight time as PIC on balloons:(2)

for balloons with an envelope capacity between 3401 m3 and 6000 m3, at least 100hours;

(i)

for balloons with an envelope capacity between 6001 m3 and 10500 m3, at least200 hours;

(ii)

for balloons with an envelope capacity of more than 10500 m3, at least 300 hours;(iii)

for gas balloons with an envelope capacity of more than 1260 m3, at least 50 hours.(iv)

Holders of a BPL shall only exercise the privileges of their licence when they have completed in oneclass of balloons in the last 24 months at least:

(a)

6 hours of flight time as PIC, including 10 take-offs and landings; and(1)

1 training flight with an instructor in a balloon within the appropriate class(2)

in addition, in the case of pilots qualified to fly more than one class of balloons, in order toexercise their privileges in the other class, they shall have completed at least 3 hours of flighttime on that class within the last 24 months, including 3 take-offs and landings.

(3)

Holders of a BPL shall only operate a balloon of the same a group of the balloon in which the trainingflight is completed or a balloon of a group with a smaller envelope size.

(b)

Holders of a BPL who do not comply with the requirements in (a) shall, before they resume theexercise of their privileges:

(c)

pass a proficiency check with an examiner in a balloon within the appropriate class; or(1)

perform the additional flight time or take-offs and landings, flying dual or solo under thesupervision of an instructor, in order to fulfil the requirements in (a).

(2)

In the case of (c)(1) the holder of the BPL shall only operate a balloon of the same group of the balloonin which the proficiency check is completed or a balloon of a group with a smaller envelope size.

(d)



SUBPART D: COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE - CPL


FCL.300 CPL - Minimum age

An applicant for a CPL shall be at least 18 years of age.

FCL.305 CPL - Privileges and conditions

FCL.310 CPL - Theoretical knowledge examinations

An applicant for a CPL shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted in thefollowing subjects:

1. Air Law,

2. Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe/Systems/Power-plant,

3. Aircraft General Knowledge - Instrumentation,

4. Mass and Balance,

5. Performance,

6. Flight Planning and Monitoring,

7. Human Performance,

8. Meteorology,

9. General Navigation,

10. Radio Navigation,

11. Operational Procedures,

12. Principles of Flight,

13. Visual Flight Rules (VFR) Communications.

Privileges. The privileges of the holder of a CPL are, within the appropriate aircraft category, to:(a)

exercise all the privileges of the holder of an LAPL and a PPL;(1)

act as PIC or co-pilot of any aircraft engaged in operations other than commercial airtransport;

(2)

act as PIC in commercial air transport of any single-pilot aircraft subject to the restrictionsspecified in FCL.060 and in this Subpart;

(3)

act as co-pilot in commercial air transport subject to the restrictions specified in FCL.060.(4)

Conditions. An applicant for the issue of a CPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the class ortype rating of the aircraft used in the skill test.

(b)



FCL.315 CPL - Training course

An applicant for a CPL shall have completed theoretical knowledge instruction and flight instruction at an ATO,in accordance with Appendix 3 to this Part.

FCL.320 CPL - Skill test

An applicant for a CPL shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 4 to this Part to demonstrate theability to perform, as PIC of the appropriate aircraft category, the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with thecompetency appropriate to the privileges granted.



SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the aeroplane category - CPL(A)

FCL.315.A CPL - Training course

Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction for the issue of a CPL(A) shall include upset prevention andrecovery training.

FCL.325.A CPL(A) - Specific conditions for MPL holders

Before exercising the privileges of a CPL(A), the holder of an MPL shall have completed in aeroplanes:

70 hours of flight time:(a)

as PIC; or(1)

made up of at least 10 hours as PIC and the additional flight time as PIC under supervision(PICUS).

(2)

Of these 70 hours, 20 shall be of VFR cross-country flight time as PIC, or cross-country flighttime made up of at least 10 hours as PIC and 10 hours as PICUS. This shall include a VFRcross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM) in the course of which full-stop landings attwo different aerodromes shall be flown as PIC;

(3)

the elements of the CPL(A) modular course as specified in paragraphs 10(a) and 11 of Appendix 3 E,to this Part; and

(b)

the CPL(A) skill test, in accordance with FCL.320.(c)



SUBPART E: MULTI-CREW LICENCE - MPL

FCL.400.A MPL -Minimum age

An applicant for an MPL shall be at least 18 years of age.

FCL.405.A MPL - Privileges

FCL.410.A MPL - Training course and theoretical knowledge examinations

FCL.415.A MPL - Practical skill

The privileges of the holder of an MPL are to act as co-pilot in an aeroplane required to be operatedwith a co-pilot.

(a)

The holder of an MPL may obtain the extra privileges of:(b)

the holder of a PPL(A), provided that the requirements for the PPL(A) specified in Subpart Care met;

(1)

a CPL(A), provided that the requirements specified in FCL.325.A are met.(2)

The holder of an MPL shall have the privileges of his/her IR(A) limited to aeroplanes required to beoperated with a co-pilot. The privileges of the IR(A) may be extended to single-pilot operations inaeroplanes, provided that the licence holder has completed the training necessary to act as PIC insingle-pilot operations exercised solely by reference to instruments and passed the skill test of theIR(A) as a single-pilot.

(c)

Course. An applicant for an MPL shall have completed a training course of theoretical knowledge andflight instruction at an ATO in accordance with Appendix 5 to this Part. Theoretical knowledge andflight instruction for the issue of an MPL shall include upset prevention and recovery training.

(a)

Examination. An applicant for an MPL shall have demonstrated a level of knowledge appropriate to theholder of an ATPL(A), in accordance with FCL.515, and of a multi-pilot type rating.

(b)

An applicant for an MPL shall have demonstrated through continuous assessment the skills requiredfor fulfilling all the competency units specified in Appendix 5 to this Part, as pilot flying and pilot notflying, in a multi-engine turbine-powered multi-pilot aeroplane, under VFR and IFR.

(a)

On completion of the training course, the applicant shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 9to this Part, to demonstrate the ability to perform the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with thecompetency appropriate to the privileges granted. The skill test shall be taken in the type of aeroplaneused on the advanced phase of the MPL integrated training course or in an FFS representing the sametype.

(b)



SUBPART F: AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENCE - ATPL


FCL.500 ATPL - Minimum age

Applicants for an ATPL shall be at least 21 years of age.

FCL.505 ATPL - Privileges

FCL.515 ATPL - Training course and theoretical knowledge examinations

The privileges of the holder of an ATPL are, within the appropriate aircraft category, to:(a)

exercise all the privileges of the holder of an LAPL, a PPL and a CPL;(1)

act as PIC of aircraft engaged in commercial air transport.(2)

Applicants for the issue of an ATPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the type rating of theaircraft used in the skill test.

(b)

Course. Applicants for an ATPL shall have completed a training course at an ATO. The course shall beeither an integrated training course or a modular course, in accordance with Appendix 3 to this Part.

(a)

Examination. Applicants for an ATPL shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to theprivileges granted in the following subjects:

(b)

Air Law,(1)

Aircraft General Knowledge - Airframe/Systems/Power plant,(2)

Aircraft General Knowledge - Instrumentation,(3)

Mass and Balance,(4)

Performance,(5)

Flight Planning and Monitoring,(6)

Human Performance,(7)

Meteorology,(8)

General Navigation,(9)

Radio Navigation,(10)

Operational Procedures,(11)

Principles of Flight,(12)

VFR Communications,(13)

IFR Communications.(14)



SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the aeroplane category - ATPL(A)

FCL.505.A ATPL(A) - Restriction of privileges for pilots previously holding an MPL

When the holder of an ATPL(A) has previously held only an MPL, the privileges of the licence shall be restrictedto multi-pilot operations, unless the holder has complied with FCL.405.A(b)(2) and (c) for single-pilotoperations.

FCL.510.A ATPL(A) - Prerequisites, experience and crediting

Prerequisites. Applicants for an ATPL(A) shall hold:(a)

an MPL; or(1)

a CPL(A) and a multi-engine IR for aeroplanes. In this case, the applicant shall also havereceived instruction in MCC.

(2)

Experience. Applicants for an ATPL(A) shall have completed a minimum of 1500 hours of flight time inaeroplanes, including at least:

(b)

500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes;(1)

(2)

500 hours as PIC under supervision; or(i)

250 hours as PIC; or(ii)

250 hours, including at least 70 hours as PIC, and the remaining as PIC undersupervision;

(iii)

200 hours of cross-country flight time of which at least 100 hours shall be as PIC or as PICunder supervision;

(3)

75 hours of instrument time of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time;and

(4)

100 hours of night flight as PIC or co-pilot. Of the 1500 hours of flight time, up to 100 hours offlight time may have been completed in an FFS and FNPT. Of these 100 hours, only amaximum of 25 hours may be completed in an FNPT.

(5)

Crediting.(c)

Holders of a pilot licence for other categories of aircraft shall be credited with flight time up toa maximum of:

(1)

for TMG or sailplanes, 30 hours flown as PIC;(i)

for helicopters, 50% of all the flight time requirements of paragraph (b).(ii)

Holders of a flight engineer licence issued in accordance with applicable national rules shallbe credited with 50% of the flight engineer time up to a maximum credit of 250 hours. These250 hours may be credited against the 1500 hours requirement of paragraph (b), and the 500hours requirement of paragraph (b)(1), provided that the total credit given against any of theseparagraphs does not exceed 250 hours.

(2)

The experience required in (b) shall be completed before the skill test for the ATPL(A) is taken.(d)



FCL.520.A ATPL(A) - Skill test

Applicants for an ATPL(A) shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part to demonstrate theability to perform, as PIC of a multi-pilot aeroplane under IFR, the relevant procedures and manoeuvres withthe competency appropriate to the privileges granted. The skill test shall be taken in the aeroplane or anadequately qualified FFS representing the same type.



SECTION 3 Specific requirements for the helicopter category - ATPL(H)

FCL.510.H ATPL(H) - Prerequisites, experience and crediting

Applicants for an ATPL(H) shall:

FCL.520.H ATPL(H) - Skill test

Applicants for an ATPL(H) shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part to demonstrate theability to perform as PIC of a multi-pilot helicopter the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with thecompetency appropriate to the privileges granted. The skill test shall be taken in the helicopter or an adequatelyqualified FFS representing the same type.

hold a CPL(H) and a multi-pilot helicopter type rating and have received instruction in MCC;(a)

have completed as a pilot of helicopters a minimum of 1000 hours of flight time including at least:(b)

350 hours in multi-pilot helicopters;(1)

(2)

250 hours as PIC; or(i)

100 hours as PIC and 150 hours as PIC under supervision; or(ii)

250 hours as PIC under supervision in multi-pilot helicopters. In this case, theATPL(H) privileges shall be limited to multi-pilot operations only, until 100 hours asPIC have been completed;

(iii)

200 hours of cross-country flight time of which at least 100 hours shall be as PIC or as PICunder supervision;

(3)

30 hours of instrument time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time;and

(4)

100 hours of night flight as PIC or as co-pilot. Of the 1000 hours, a maximum of 100 hoursmay have been completed in an FSTD, of which not more than 25 hours may be completedin an FNPT.

(5)

Flight time in aeroplanes shall be credited up to 50% against the flight time requirements of paragraph(b).

(c)

The experience required in (b) shall be completed before the skill test for the ATPL(H) is taken.(d)



SUBPART G: INSTRUMENT RATING - IR


FCL.600 IR - General

Except as provided in FCL.825, operations under IFR on an aeroplane, helicopter, airship or powered-lift aircraftshall only be conducted by holders of a PPL, CPL, MPL and ATPL with an IR appropriate to the category ofaircraft or when undergoing skill testing or dual instruction.

FCL.605 IR - Privileges

FCL.610 IR - Prerequisites and crediting

Applicants for an IR shall:

FCL.615 IR - Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction

The privileges of a holder of an IR are to fly aircraft under IFR with a minimum decision height of 200feet (60 m).

(a)

In the case of a multi-engine IR, these privileges may be extended to decision heights lower than 200feet (60 m) when the applicant has undergone specific training at an ATO and has passed section 6 ofthe skill test prescribed in Appendix 9 to this Part in multi-pilot aircraft.

(b)

Holders of an IR shall exercise their privileges in accordance with the conditions established inAppendix 8 to this Part.

(c)

Helicopters only. To exercise privileges as PIC under IFR in multi-pilot helicopters, the holder of anIR(H) shall have at least 70 hours of instrument time of which up to 30 hours may be instrument groundtime.

(d)

hold:(a)

at least a PPL in the appropriate aircraft category, and:(1)

the privileges to fly at night in accordance with FCL.810, if the IR privileges will beused at night; or

(i)

an ATPL in another category of aircraft; or(ii)

a CPL, in the appropriate aircraft category;(2)

have completed at least 50 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC in aeroplanes, TMGs, helicoptersor airships, of which at least 10 or, in the case of airships, 20 hours shall be in the relevant aircraftcategory.

(b)

Helicopters only. Applicants who have completed an ATP(H)/IR, ATP(H), CPL(H)/IR or CPL(H)integrated training course shall be exempted from the requirement in (b).

(c)

Course. Applicants for an IR shall have received a course of theoretical knowledge and flightinstruction at an ATO.

The course shall be:

(a)



- Air Law,

- Aircraft General Knowledge - Instrumentation,

- Flight Planning and Monitoring,

- Human Performance,

- Meteorology,

- Radio Navigation,

- IFR Communications.

FCL.620 IR - Skill test

FCL.625 IR - Validity, revalidation and renewal

an integrated training course which includes training for the IR, in accordance with Appendix 3to this Part; or

(1)

a modular course in accordance with Appendix 6 to this Part.(2)

Examination. Applicants shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to theprivileges granted in the following subjects:

(b)

Applicants for an IR shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 7 to this Part to demonstratethe ability to perform the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with a degree of competencyappropriate to the privileges granted.

(a)

For a multi-engine IR, the skill test shall be taken in a multi-engine aircraft. For a single-engine IR, thetest shall be taken in a single-engine aircraft. A multi-engine centreline thrust aeroplane shall beconsidered a single-engine aeroplane for the purposes of this paragraph.

(b)

Validity. An IR shall be valid for 1 year.(a)

Revalidation.(b)

An IR shall be revalidated within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of therating.

(1)

Applicants who fail to pass the relevant section of an IR proficiency check before the expirydate of the IR shall not exercise the IR privileges until they have passed the proficiency check.

(2)

Renewal. If an IR has expired, in order to renew their privileges applicants shall:(c)

go through refresher training at an ATO to reach the level of proficiency needed to pass theinstrument element of the skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part; and

(1)

complete a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part, in the relevantaircraft category.

(2)

If the IR has not been revalidated or renewed within the preceding 7 years, the holder will be requiredto pass again the IR theoretical knowledge examination and skill test.

(d)



SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the aeroplane category

FCL.625.A IR(A) - Revalidation

Revalidation. Applicants for the revalidation of an IR(A):(a)

when combined with the revalidation of a class or type rating, shall pass a proficiency check inaccordance with Appendix 9 to this Part;

(1)

when not combined with the revalidation of a class or type rating, shall:(2)

for single-pilot aeroplanes, complete section 3b and those parts of section 1 relevantto the intended flight, of the proficiency check prescribed in Appendix 9 to this Part;and

(i)

for multi-engine aeroplanes, complete section 6 of the proficiency check for single-pilot aeroplanes in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part by sole reference toinstruments.

(ii)

An FNPT II or an FFS representing the relevant class or type of aeroplane may be used in thecase of paragraph (2), but at least each alternate proficiency check for the revalidation of anIR(A) in these circumstances shall be performed in an aeroplane.

(3)

Cross-credit shall be given in accordance with Appendix 8 to this Part.(b)



SECTION 3 Specific requirements for the helicopter category

FCL.625.H IR(H) - Revalidation

FCL.630.H IR(H) - Extension of privileges from single-engine to multi-engine helicopters

Holders of an IR(H) valid for single-engine helicopters wishing to extend for the first time the IR(H) to multi-engine helicopters shall complete:

Applicants for the revalidation of an IR(H):(a)

when combined with the revalidation of a type rating, shall complete a proficiency check inaccordance with Appendix 9 to this Part, for the relevant type of helicopter;

(1)

when not combined with the revalidation of a type rating, shall complete only section 5 andthe relevant parts of section 1 of the proficiency check established in Appendix 9 to this Partfor the relevant type of helicopter. In this case, an FTD 2/3 or an FFS representing therelevant type of helicopter may be used, but at least each alternate proficiency check for therevalidation of an IR(H) in these circumstances shall be performed in a helicopter.

(2)

Cross-credit shall be given in accordance with Appendix 8 to this Part.(b)

a training course at an ATO comprising at least 5 hours dual instrument instruction time, of which 3hours may be in an FFS or FTD 2/3 or FNPT II/III; and

(a)

section 5 of the skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part on multi- engine helicopters.(b)



SECTION 4 Specific requirements for the airship category

FCL.625.As IR(As) - Revalidation

Applicants for the revalidation of an IR(As):

when combined with the revalidation of a type rating, shall complete a proficiency check in accordancewith Appendix 9 to this Part, for the relevant type of airship;

(a)

when not combined with the revalidation of a type rating, shall complete section 5 and those parts ofsection 1 relevant to the intended flight of the proficiency check for airships in accordance withAppendix 9 of this Part. In this case, an FTD 2/3 or FFS representing the relevant type may be used,but at least each alternate proficiency check for the revalidation of an IR(As) in these circumstancesshall be performed in an airship.

(b)



SUBPART H: CLASS AND TYPE RATINGS


FCL.700 - Circumstances in which class or type ratings are required

FCL.705 - Privileges of the holder of a class or type rating

The privileges of the holder of a class or type rating are to act as pilot on the class or type of aircraft specified inthe rating.

FCL.710 - Class and type ratings - variants

FCL.725 - Requirements for the issue of class and type ratings

Except in the case of the LAPL, SPL and BPL, holders of a pilot licence shall not act in any capacity aspilots of an aircraft unless they have a valid and appropriate class or type rating, except whenundergoing skill tests, or proficiency checks for renewal of class or type ratings, or receiving flightinstruction.

(a)

Notwithstanding (a), in the case of flights related to the introduction or modification of aircraft types,pilots may hold a special certificate given by the authority, authorising them to perform the flights. Thisauthorisation shall have its validity limited to the specific flights.

(b)

Without prejudice to (a) and (b), in the case of flights related to the introduction or modification ofaircraft types conducted by design or production organisations within the scope of their privileges, aswell as instruction flights for the issue of a flight test rating, when the requirements of this Subpart maynot be complied with, pilots may hold a flight test rating issued in accordance with FCL.820.

(c)

In order to extend his/her privileges to another variant of aircraft within one class or type rating, thepilot shall undertake differences or familiarisation training. In the case of variants within a type rating,the differences or familiarisation training shall include the relevant elements defined in the operationalsuitability data established in accordance with Part-21.

(a)

If the variant has not been flown within a period of 2 years following the differences training, furtherdifferences training or a proficiency check in that variant shall be required to maintain the privileges,except for types or variants within the single-engine piston and TMG class ratings.

(b)

The differences training shall be entered in the pilot’s logbook or equivalent record and signed by theinstructor as appropriate.

(c)

Training course. An applicant for a class or type rating shall complete a training course at an ATO. Thetype rating training course shall include the mandatory training elements for the relevant type asdefined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21.

(a)

Theoretical knowledge examination. The applicant for a class or type rating shall pass a theoreticalknowledge examination organised by the ATO to demonstrate the level of theoretical knowledgerequired for the safe operation of the applicable aircraft class or type.

(b)

For multi-pilot aircraft, the theoretical knowledge examination shall be written and comprise atleast 100 multiple-choice questions distributed appropriately across the main subjects of thesyllabus.

(1)

For single-pilot multi-engine aircraft, the theoretical knowledge examination shall be writtenand the number of multiple-choice questions shall depend on the complexity of the aircraft.

(2)



FCL.740 - Validity and renewal of class and type ratings

For single-engine aircraft, the theoretical knowledge examination shall be conducted verballyby the examiner during the skill test to determine whether or not a satisfactory level ofknowledge has been achieved.

(3)

For single-pilot aeroplanes that are classified as high performance aeroplanes, theexamination shall be written and comprise at least 100 multiple-choice questions distributedappropriately across the subjects of the syllabus.’

(4)

Skill test. An applicant for a class or type rating shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 tothis Part to demonstrate the skill required for the safe operation of the applicable class or type ofaircraft. The applicant shall pass the skill test within a period of 6 months after commencement of theclass or type rating training course and within a period of 6 months preceding the application for theissue of the class or type rating.

(c)

An applicant who already holds a type rating for an aircraft type, with the privilege for either single-pilotor multi-pilot operations, shall be considered to have already fulfilled the theoretical requirements whenapplying to add the privilege for the other form of operation on the same aircraft type.

(d)

Notwithstanding the paragraphs above, pilots holding a flight test rating issued in accordance withFCL.820 who were involved in development, certification or production flight tests for an aircraft type,and have completed either 50 hours of total flight time or 10 hours of flight time as PIC on test flights inthat type, shall be entitled to apply for the issue of the relevant type rating, provided that they complywith the experience requirements and the prerequisites for the issue of that type rating, as establishedin this Subpart for the relevant aircraft category.

(e)

The period of validity of class and type ratings shall be 1 year, except for single- pilot single-engineclass ratings, for which the period of validity shall be 2 years, unless otherwise determined by theoperational suitability data, established in accordance with Part-21.

(a)

Renewal. If a class or type rating has expired, the applicant shall:(b)

take refresher training at an ATO, when necessary to reach the level of proficiency necessaryto safely operate the relevant class or type of aircraft; and

(1)

pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part.(2)



SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the aeroplane category

FCL.720.A - Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of class or type ratings -aeroplanes

Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, anapplicant for a class or type rating shall comply with the following experience requirements and prerequisites forthe issue of the relevant rating:

Single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes. An applicant for a first class or type rating on a single-pilot multi-engine aeroplane shall have completed at least 70 hours as PIC on aeroplanes.

(a)

Single-pilot high performance non-complex aeroplanes. Before starting flight training, an applicant for afirst class or type rating for a single-pilot aeroplane classified as a high performance aeroplane shall:

(b)

have at least 200 hours of total flying experience, of which 70 hours as PIC on aeroplanes;and

(1)

(2)

hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of a course for additional theoreticalknowledge undertaken at an ATO; or

(i)

have passed the ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge examinations in accordance withthis Part; or

(ii)

hold, in addition to a licence issued in accordance with this Part, an ATPL(A) orCPL(A)/IR with theoretical knowledge credit for ATPL(A), issued in accordance withAnnex 1 to the Chicago Convention;

(iii)

in addition, pilots seeking the privilege to operate the aeroplane in multi-pilot operations shallmeet the requirements of (d)(4).

(3)

Single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes. Applicants for the issue of a first type rating for acomplex single-pilot aeroplane classified as a high performance aeroplane shall, in addition to meetingthe requirements of (b), have fulfilled the requirements for a multi-engine IR(A), as established inSubpart G.

(c)

Multi-pilot aeroplanes. An applicant for the first type rating course for a multi-pilot aeroplane shall be astudent pilot currently undergoing training on an MPL training course or comply with the followingrequirements:

(d)

have at least 70 hours of flight experience as PIC on aeroplanes;(1)

hold a multi-engine IR(A);(2)

have passed the ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge examinations in accordance with this Part;and

(3)

except when the type rating course is combined with an MCC course:(4)

hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of an MCC course in aeroplanes; or(i)

hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC in helicopters and have morethan 100 hours of flight experience as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters; or

(ii)

have at least 500 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters; or(iii)



FCL.725.A - Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction for the issue of class and type ratings -aeroplanes

Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21:

FCL.730.A - Specific requirements for pilots undertaking a zero flight time type rating (ZFTT) course -aeroplanes

have at least 500 hours as a pilot in multi-pilot operations on single-pilot multi-engineaeroplanes, in commercial air transport in accordance with the applicable airoperations requirements.

(iv)

Notwithstanding point (d), the authority may issue a type rating with restricted privileges for multi-pilotaeroplanes that allows the holder of such rating to act as a cruise relief co-pilot above Flight Level 200,provided that two other members of the crew have a type rating in accordance with point (d).

(e)

Additional multi-pilot and single-pilot high performance complex aeroplane type ratings. An applicantfor the issue of additional multi-pilot type ratings and single- pilot high performance complexaeroplanes type ratings shall hold a multi-engine IR(A).

(f)

When so determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, theexercise of the privileges of a type rating may be initially limited to flight under the supervision of aninstructor. The flight hours under supervision shall be entered in the pilot’s logbook or equivalent recordand signed by the instructor. The limitation shall be removed when the pilot demonstrates that thehours of flight under supervision required by the operational suitability data have been completed.

(g)

Single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes.(a)

The theoretical knowledge course for a single-pilot multi-engine class rating shall include atleast 7 hours of instruction in multi-engine aeroplane operations.

(1)

The flight training course for a single-pilot multi-engine class or type rating shall include atleast 2 hours and 30 minutes of dual flight instruction under normal conditions of multi-engineaeroplane operations, and not less than 3 hours 30 minutes of dual flight instruction in enginefailure procedures and asymmetric flight techniques.

(2)

Single-pilot aeroplanes-sea. The training course for single-pilot aeroplane-sea ratings shall includetheoretical knowledge and flight instruction. The flight training for a class or type rating-sea for single-pilot aeroplanes-sea shall include at least 8 hours of dual flight instruction if the applicant holds theland version of the relevant class or type rating, or 10 hours if the applicant does not hold such a rating.

(b)

Multi-pilot aeroplanes. The training course for the issue of a multi-pilot aeroplane type rating shallinclude theoretical knowledge and flight instruction in upset prevention and recovery.

(c)

A pilot undertaking instruction at a ZFTT course shall have completed, on a multi- pilot turbo-jetaeroplane certificated to the standards of CS-25 or equivalent airworthiness code or on a multi-pilotturbo-prop aeroplane having a maximum certificated take-off mass of not less than 10 tonnes or acertificated passenger seating configuration of more than 19 passengers, at least:

(a)

if an FFS qualified to level CG, C or interim C is used during the course, 1500 hours flight timeor 250 route sectors;

(1)

if an FFS qualified to level DG or D is used during the course, 500 hours flight time or 100route sectors.

(2)



FCL.735.A - Multi-crew cooperation training course - aeroplanes

FCL.740.A - Revalidation of class and type ratings - aeroplanes

▪ 6 hours as PIC,

When a pilot is changing from a turbo-prop to a turbo-jet aeroplane or from a turbo-jet to a turbo-propaeroplane, additional simulator training shall be required.

(b)

The MCC training course shall comprise at least:(a)

25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and(1)

20 hours of practical MCC training, or 15 hours in the case of student pilots attending an ATPintegrated course. An FNPT II MCC or an FFS shall be used. When the MCC training iscombined with initial type rating training, the practical MCC training may be reduced to no lessthan 10 hours if the same FFS is used for both the MCC and type rating training.

(2)

The MCC training course shall be completed within 6 months at an ATO.(b)

Unless the MCC course has been combined with a type rating course, on completion of the MCCtraining course the applicant shall be given a certificate of completion.

(c)

An applicant having completed MCC training for any other category of aircraft shall be exempted fromthe requirement in (a)(1).

(d)

Revalidation of multi-engine class ratings and type ratings. For revalidation of multi-engine classratings and type ratings, the applicant shall:

(a)

pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part in the relevant class ortype of aeroplane or an FSTD representing that class or type, within the 3 monthsimmediately preceding the expiry date of the rating; and

(1)

complete during the period of validity of the rating, at least:(2)

10 route sectors as pilot of the relevant class or type of aeroplane; or(i)

1 route sector as pilot of the relevant class or type of aeroplane or FFS, flown with anexaminer. This route sector may be flown during the proficiency check.

(ii)

A pilot working for a commercial air transport operator approved in accordance with theapplicable air operations requirements who has passed the operators proficiency checkcombined with the proficiency check for the revalidation of the class or type rating shall beexempted from complying with the requirement in (2).

(3)

The revalidation of an en route instrument rating (EIR) or an IR(A), if held, may be combinedwith a proficiency check for the revalidation of a class or type rating.

(4)

Revalidation of single-pilot single-engine class ratings.(b)

Single-engine piston aeroplane class ratings and TMG ratings. For revalidation of single-pilotsingle-engine piston aeroplane class ratings or TMG class ratings the applicant shall:

(1)

within the 3 months preceding the expiry date of the rating, pass a proficiency checkin the relevant class in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part with an examiner; or

(i)



▪ 12 take-offs and 12 landings, and▪ refresher training of at least 1 hour of total flight time with a flight instructor (FI) or a

class rating instructor (CRI). Applicants shall be exempted from this refreshertraining if they have passed a class or type rating proficiency check, skill test orassessment of competence in any other class or type of aeroplane.

within the 12 months preceding the expiry date of the rating, complete 12 hours of flight timein the relevant class, including:

(2)

When applicants hold both a single-engine piston aeroplane-land class rating and a TMGrating, they may complete the requirements of (1) in either class or a combination thereof, andachieve revalidation of both ratings.

(3)

Single-pilot single-engine turbo-prop aeroplanes. For revalidation of single- engine turbo-propclass ratings applicants shall pass a proficiency check on the relevant class in accordancewith Appendix 9 to this Part with an examiner, within the 3 months preceding the expiry dateof the rating.

(4)

When applicants hold both a single-engine piston aeroplane-land class rating and a single-engine piston aeroplane-sea class rating, they may complete the requirements of (1)(ii) ineither class or a combination thereof, and achieve the fulfilment of these requirements forboth ratings. At least 1 hour of required PIC time and 6 of the required 12 take-offs andlandings shall be completed in each class.

(5)

Applicants who fail to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry date of aclass or type rating shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until a pass in the proficiency checkhas been achieved.

(c)



SECTION 3 Specific requirements for the helicopter category

FCL.720.H - Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of type ratings - helicopters

Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, anapplicant for the issue of the first helicopter type rating shall comply with the following experience requirementsand prerequisites for the issue of the relevant rating:

FCL.735.H - Multi-crew cooperation training course - helicopters

Multi-pilot helicopters. An applicant for the first type rating course for a multi-pilot helicopter type shall:(a)

have at least 70 hours as PIC on helicopters;(1)

except when the type rating course is combined with an MCC course:(2)

hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of an MCC course in helicopters; or(i)

have at least 500 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes; or(ii)

have at least 500 hours as a pilot in multi-pilot operations on multi-enginehelicopters;

(iii)

have passed the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge examinations.(3)

An applicant for the first type rating course for a multi-pilot helicopter type who is a graduate from anATP(H)/IR, ATP(H), CPL(H)/IR or CPL(H) integrated course and who does not comply with therequirement of (a)(1), shall have the type rating issued with the privileges limited to exercisingfunctions as co-pilot only. The limitation shall be removed once the pilot has:

(b)

completed 70 hours as PIC or pilot-in-command under supervision of helicopters;(1)

passed the multi-pilot skill test on the applicable helicopter type as PIC.(2)

Single-pilot multi-engine helicopters. An applicant for the issue of a first type rating for a single-pilotmulti-engine helicopter shall:

(c)

before starting flight training:(1)

have passed the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge examinations; or(i)

hold a certificate of completion of a pre-entry course conducted by an ATO. Thecourse shall cover the following subjects of the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledgecourse:

- Aircraft General Knowledge: airframe/systems/power plant, and instrument/electronics,

- Flight Performance and Planning: mass and balance, performance;

(ii)

in the case of applicants who have not completed an ATP(H)/IR, ATP(H), or CPL(H)/IRintegrated training course, have completed at least 70 hours as PIC on helicopters.

(2)




FCL.740.H - Revalidation of type ratings - helicopters

for MCC/IR:(1)

25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and(i)

20 hours of practical MCC training or 15 hours, in the case of student pilots attendingan ATP(H)/IR integrated course. When the MCC training is combined with the initialtype rating training for a multi-pilot helicopter, the practical MCC training may bereduced to not less than 10 hours if the same FSTD is used for both MCC and typerating;

(ii)

for MCC/VFR:(2)

25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and(i)

15 hours of practical MCC training or 10 hours, in the case of student pilots attendingan ATP(H)/IR integrated course. When the MCC training is combined with the initialtype rating training for a multi-pilot helicopter, the practical MCC training may bereduced to not less than 7 hours if the same FSTD is used for both MCC and typerating.

(ii)

The MCC training course shall be completed within 6 months at an ATO. An FNPT II or III qualified forMCC, an FTD 2/3 or an FFS shall be used.

(b)

Unless the MCC course has been combined with a multi-pilot type rating course, on completion of theMCC training course the applicant shall be given a certificate of completion.

(c)

An applicant having completed MCC training for any other category of aircraft shall be exempted fromthe requirement in (a)(1)(i) or (a)(2)(i), as applicable.

(d)

An applicant for MCC/IR training who has completed MCC/VFR training shall be exempted from therequirement in (a)(1)(i), and shall complete 5 hours of practical MCC/IR training.

(e)

Revalidation. For revalidation of type ratings for helicopters, the applicant shall:(a)

pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part in the relevant type ofhelicopter or an FSTD representing that type within the 3 months immediately preceding theexpiry date of the rating; and

(1)

complete at least 2 hours as a pilot of the relevant helicopter type within the validity period ofthe rating. The duration of the proficiency check may be counted towards the 2 hours.

(2)

When applicants hold more than 1 type rating for single-engine piston helicopters, they mayachieve revalidation of all the relevant type ratings by completing the proficiency check in only1 of the relevant types held, provided that they have completed at least 2 hours of flight timeas PIC on the other types during the validity period. The proficiency check shall be performedeach time on a different type.

(3)

When applicants hold more than 1 type rating for single-engine turbine helicopters with amaximum certificated take-off mass up to 3175 kg, they may achieve revalidation of all therelevant type ratings by completing the proficiency check in only 1 of the relevant types held,provided that they have completed:

(4)

300 hours as PIC on helicopters;(i)



15 hours on each of the types held; and(ii)

at least 2 hours of PIC flight time on each of the other types during the validityperiod. The proficiency check shall be performed each time on a different type.

(iii)

A pilot who successfully completes a skill test for the issue of an additional type rating shallachieve revalidation for the relevant type ratings in the common groups, in accordance with(3) and (4).

(5)

The revalidation of an IR(H), if held, may be combined with a proficiency check for a typerating.

(6)

An applicant who fails to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry date ofa type rating shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until a pass in the proficiency check hasbeen achieved. In the case of (a)(3) and (4), the applicant shall not exercise his/her privileges in any ofthe types.

(b)



SECTION 4 Specific requirements for the powered-lift aircraft category

FCL.720.PL - Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of type ratings - powered-liftaircraft

Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, anapplicant for the first issue of a powered-lift type rating shall comply with the following experience requirementsand prerequisites:

FCL.725.PL - Flight instruction for the issue of type ratings - powered-lift aircraft

The flight instruction part of the training course for a powered-lift type rating shall be completed in both theaircraft and an FSTD representing the aircraft and adequately qualified for this purpose.

FCL.740.PL - Revalidation of type ratings - powered-lift aircraft

for pilots of aeroplanes:(a)

hold a CPL/IR(A) with ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL(A);(1)

hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course;(2)

have completed more than 100 hours as pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes;(3)

have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in helicopters;(4)

for pilots of helicopters:(b)

hold a CPL/IR(H) with ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL/IR(H);(1)

hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course;(2)

have completed more than 100 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters;(3)

have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes;(4)

for pilots qualified to fly both aeroplanes and helicopters:(c)

hold at least a CPL(H);(1)

hold an IR and ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL in either aeroplanes or helicopters;(2)

hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course in either helicopters or aeroplanes;(3)

have completed at least 100 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters or aeroplanes;(4)

have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes or helicopters, as applicable, if thepilot has no experience as ATPL or on multi-pilot aircraft.

(5)

Revalidation. For revalidation of powered-lift type ratings, the applicant shall:(a)

pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part in the relevant type ofpowered-lift within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating;

(1)

complete during the period of validity of the rating, at least:(2)



10 route sectors as pilot of the relevant type of powered-lift aircraft; or(i)

1 route sector as pilot of the relevant type of powered-lift aircraft or FFS, flown withan examiner. This route sector may be flown during the proficiency check.

(ii)

A pilot working for a commercial air transport operator approved in accordance with theapplicable air operations requirements who has passed the operators proficiency checkcombined with the proficiency check for the revalidation of the type rating shall be exemptedfrom complying with the requirement in (2).

(3)

An applicant who fails to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry date ofa type rating shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until the a pass in the proficiency check hasbeen achieved.

(b)



SECTION 5 Specific requirements for the airship category

FCL.720.As - Prerequisites for the issue of type ratings - airships

Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, anapplicant for the first issue of an airship type rating shall comply with the following experience requirements andprerequisites:

FCL.735.As - Multi-crew cooperation training course - airships

FCL.740.As - Revalidation of type ratings - airships

for multi-pilot airships:(a)

have completed 70 hours of flight time as PIC on airships;(1)

hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC on airships.(2)

An applicant who does not comply with the requirement in (2) shall have the type ratingissued with the privileges limited to exercising functions as co-pilot only. The limitation shall beremoved once the pilot has completed 100 hours of flight time as PIC or pilot-in-commandunder supervision of airships.

(3)


12 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and(1)

5 hours of practical MCC training;

An FNPT II, or III qualified for MCC, an FTD 2/3 or an FFS shall be used.

(2)

The MCC training course shall be completed within 6 months at an ATO.(b)

Unless the MCC course has been combined with a multi-pilot type rating course, on completion of theMCC training course the applicant shall be given a certificate of completion

(c)

An applicant having completed MCC training for any other category of aircraft shall be exempted fromthe requirements in (a).

(d)

Revalidation. For revalidation of type ratings for airships, the applicant shall:(a)

pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part in the relevant type ofairship within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating; and

(1)

complete at least 2 hours as a pilot of the relevant airship type within the validity period of therating. The duration of the proficiency check may be counted towards the 2 hours.

(2)

The revalidation of an IR(As), if held, may be combined with a proficiency check for therevalidation of a class or type rating.

(3)

An applicant who fails to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry date ofa type rating shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until a pass in the proficiency check hasbeen achieved.

(b)



SUBPART I: ADDITIONAL RATINGS

FCL.800 Aerobatic rating

FCL.805 Sailplane towing and banner towing ratings

Holders of a pilot licence for aeroplanes, TMG or sailplanes shall only undertake aerobatic flights whenthey hold the appropriate rating.

(a)

Applicants for an aerobatic rating shall have completed:(b)

at least 40 hours of flight time or, in the case of sailplanes, 120 launches as PIC in theappropriate aircraft category, completed after the issue of the licence;

(1)

a training course at an ATO, including:(2)

theoretical knowledge instruction appropriate for the rating;(i)

at least 5 hours or 20 flights of aerobatic instruction in the appropriate aircraftcategory.

(ii)

The privileges of the aerobatic rating shall be limited to the aircraft category in which the flightinstruction was completed. The privileges will be extended to another category of aircraft if the pilotholds a licence for that aircraft category and has successfully completed at least 3 dual training flightscovering the full aerobatic training syllabus in that category of aircraft.

(c)

Holders of a pilot licence with privileges to fly aeroplanes or TMGs shall only tow sailplanes or bannerswhen they hold the appropriate sailplane towing or banner towing rating.

(a)

Applicants for a sailplane towing rating shall have completed:(b)

at least 30 hours of flight time as PIC and 60 take-offs and landings in aeroplanes, if theactivity is to be carried out in aeroplanes, or in TMGs, if the activity is to be carried out inTMGs, completed after the issue of the licence;

(1)

a training course at an ATO including:(2)

theoretical knowledge instruction on towing operations and procedures;(i)

at least 10 instruction flights towing a sailplane, including at least 5 dual instructionflights; and

(ii)

except for holders of an LAPL(S) or an SPL, 5 familiarisation flights in a sailplanewhich is launched by an aircraft.

(iii)

Applicants for a banner towing rating shall have completed:(c)

at least 100 hours of flight time and 200 take-offs and landings as PIC on aeroplanes or TMG,after the issue of the licence. At least 30 of these hours shall be in aeroplanes, if the activity isto be carried out in aeroplanes, or in TMG, if the activity is to be carried out in TMGs;

(1)


theoretical knowledge instruction on towing operations and procedures;(i)



FCL.810 Night rating

at least 10 instruction flights towing a banner, including at least 5 dual flights.(ii)

The privileges of the sailplane and banner towing ratings shall be limited to aeroplanes or TMG,depending on which aircraft the flight instruction was completed. The privileges will be extended if thepilot holds a licence for aeroplanes or TMG and has successfully completed at least 3 dual trainingflights covering the full towing training syllabus in either aircraft, as relevant.

(d)

In order to exercise the privileges of the sailplane or banner towing ratings, the holder of the ratingshall have completed a minimum of 5 tows during the last 24 months.

(e)

When the pilot does not comply with the requirement in (e), before resuming the exercise of his/herprivileges, the pilot shall complete the missing tows with or under the supervision of an instructor.

(f)

Aeroplanes, TMGs, airships.(a)

If the privileges of an LAPL, an SPL or a PPL for aeroplanes, TMGs or airships are to beexercised in VFR conditions at night, applicants shall have completed a training course at anATO. The course shall comprise:

(1)

theoretical knowledge instruction;(i)

at least 5 hours of flight time in the appropriate aircraft category at night, including atleast 3 hours of dual instruction, including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigationwith at least one dual cross-country flight of at least 50 km (27 NM) and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full-stop landings.

(ii)

Before completing the training at night, LAPL holders shall have completed the basicinstrument flight training required for the issue of the PPL.

(2)

When applicants hold both a single-engine piston aeroplane (land) and a TMG class rating,they may complete the requirements in (1) above in either class or both classes.

(3)

Helicopters. If the privileges of a PPL for helicopters are to be exercised in VFR conditions at night, theapplicant shall have:

(b)

completed at least 100 hours of flight time as pilot in helicopters after the issue of the licence,including at least 60 hours as PIC on helicopters and 20 hours of cross-country flight;

(1)

completed a training course at an ATO. The course shall be completed within a period of 6months and comprise:

(2)

5 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction;(i)

10 hours of helicopter dual instrument instruction time; and(ii)

5 hours of flight time at night, including at least 3 hours of dual instruction, includingat least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shallinclude a take-off and a landing.

(iii)

An applicant who holds or has held an IR in an aeroplane or TMG, shall be credited with 5hours towards the requirement in (2)(ii) above.

(3)

Balloons. If the privileges of an LAPL for balloons or a BPL are to be exercised in VFR conditions atnight, applicants shall complete at least 2 instruction flights at night of at least 1 hour each.

(c)



FCL.815 Mountain rating

FCL.820 Flight test rating

Privileges. The privileges of the holder of a mountain rating are to conduct flights with aeroplanes orTMG to and from surfaces designated as requiring such a rating by the authority. The initial mountainrating may be obtained either on:

(a)

wheels, to grant the privilege to fly to and from such surfaces when they are not covered bysnow; or

(1)

skis, to grant the privilege to fly to and from such surfaces when they are covered by snow.(2)

The privileges of the initial rating may be extended to either wheel or ski privileges when thepilot has undertaken an appropriate additional familiarisation course, including theoreticalknowledge instruction and flight training, with a mountain flight instructor.

(3)

Training course. Applicants for a mountain rating shall have completed, within a period of 24 months, acourse of theoretical knowledge instruction and flight training at an ATO. The content of the courseshall be appropriate to the privileges sought.

(b)

Skill test. After the completion of the training, the applicant shall pass a skill test with an FE qualified forthis purpose. The skill test shall contain:

(c)

a verbal examination of theoretical knowledge;(1)

6 landings on at least 2 different surfaces designated as requiring a mountain rating otherthan the surface of departure.

(2)

Validity. A mountain rating shall be valid for a period of 24 months.(d)

Revalidation. For revalidation of a mountain rating, the applicant shall:(e)

have completed at least 6 mountain landings in the past 24 months; or(1)

pass a proficiency check. The proficiency check shall comply with the requirements in (c).(2)

Renewal. If the rating has lapsed, the applicant shall comply with the requirement in (e)(2).(f)

Holders of a pilot licence for aeroplanes or helicopters shall only act as PIC in category 1 or 2 flighttests, as defined in Part-21, when they hold a flight test rating.

(a)

The obligation to hold a flight test rating established in (a) shall only apply to flight tests conducted on:(b)

helicopters certificated or to be certificated in accordance with the standards of CS-27 orCS-29 or equivalent airworthiness codes; or

(1)

aeroplanes certificated or to be certificated in accordance with:(2)

the standards of CS-25 or equivalent airworthiness codes; or(i)

the standards of CS-23 or equivalent airworthiness codes, except for aeroplaneswith an maximum take-off mass of less than 2000 kg.

(ii)

The privileges of the holder of a flight test rating are to, within the relevant aircraft category:(c)



FCL.825 En route instrument rating (EIR)

in the case of a category 1 flight test rating, conduct all categories of flight tests, as defined inPart-21, either as PIC or co-pilot;

(1)

in the case of a category 2 flight test rating:(2)

conduct category 1 flight tests, as defined in Part-21:

- as a co-pilot, or

- as PIC, in the case of aeroplanes referred to in (b)(2)(ii), except for those within thecommuter category or having a design diving speed above 0,6 mach or a maximumceiling above 25000 feet;

(i)

conduct all other categories of flight tests, as defined in Part-21, either as PIC or co-pilot;

(ii)

in addition, for both category 1 or 2 flight test ratings, to conduct flights specifically related tothe activity of design and production organisations, within the scope of their privileges, whenthe requirements of Subpart H may not be complied with.

(3)

Applicants for the first issue of a flight test rating shall:(d)

hold at least a CPL and an IR in the appropriate aircraft category;(1)

have completed at least 1000 hours of flight time in the appropriate aircraft category, of whichat least 400 hours as PIC;

(2)

have completed a training course at an ATO appropriate to the intended aircraft and categoryof flights. The training shall cover at least the following subjects:

- Performance,

- Stability and control/Handling qualities,

- Systems,

- Test management,

- Risk/Safety management.

(3)

The privileges of holders of a flight test rating may be extended to another category of flight test andanother category of aircraft when they have completed an additional course of training at an AT

(e)

Privileges and conditions(a)

The privileges of the holder of an en route instrument rating (EIR) are to conduct flights by dayunder IFR in the en route phase of flight, with an aeroplane for which a class or type rating isheld. The privilege may be extended to conduct flights by night under IFR in the en routephase of flight if the pilot holds a night rating in accordance with FCL.810.

(1)

The holder of the EIR shall only commence or continue a flight on which he/she intends toexercise the privileges of his/her rating if the latest available meteorological informationindicates that:

(2)



the weather conditions on departure are such as to enable the segment of the flightfrom take-off to a planned VFR-to-IFR transition to be conducted in compliance withVFR; and

(i)

at the estimated time of arrival at the planned destination aerodrome, the weatherconditions will be such as to enable the segment of the flight from an IFR-to-VFRtransition to landing to be conducted in compliance with VFR.

(ii)

Prerequisites. Applicants for the EIR shall hold at least a PPL(A) and shall have completed at least 20hours of cross-country flight time as PIC in aeroplanes.

(b)

Training course. Applicants for an EIR shall have completed, within a period of 36 months at an ATO:(c)

at least 80 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction in accordance with FCL.615; and(1)

instrument flight instruction, during which:(2)

the flying training for a single-engine EIR shall include at least 15 hours of instrumentflight time under instruction; and

(i)

the flying training for a multi-engine EIR shall include at least 16 hours of instrumentflight time under instruction, of which at least 4 hours shall be in multi-engineaeroplanes.

(ii)

Theoretical knowledge. Prior to taking the skill test, the applicant shall demonstrate a level oftheoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted, in the subjects referred to in FCL.615(b).

(d)

Skill test. After the completion of the training, the applicant shall pass a skill test in an aeroplane withan IRE. For a multi-engine EIR, the skill test shall be taken in a multi-engine aeroplane. For a single-engine EIR, the test shall be taken in a single-engine aeroplane.

(e)

By way of derogation from points (c) and (d), the holder of a single-engine EIR who also holds a multi-engine class or type rating wishing to obtain a multi-engine EIR for the first time, shall complete acourse at an ATO comprising at least 2 hours instrument flight time under instruction in the en routephase of flight in multiengine aeroplanes and shall pass the skill test referred to in point (e).

(f)

Validity, revalidation, and renewal.(g)

An EIR shall be valid for 1 year.(1)

Applicants for the revalidation of an EIR shall:(2)

pass a proficiency check in an aeroplane within a period of 3 months immediatelypreceding the expiry date of the rating; or

(i)

within 12 months preceding the expiry date of the rating, complete 6 hours as PICunder IFR and a training flight of at least 1 hour with an instructor holding privilegesto provide training for the IR(A) or EIR.

(ii)

For each alternate subsequent revalidation, the holder of the EIR shall pass a proficiencycheck in accordance with point (g)(2)(i).

(3)

If an EIR has expired, in order to renew their privileges applicants shall:(4)

complete refresher training provided by an instructor holding privileges to providetraining for the IR(A) or EIR to reach the level of proficiency needed; and

(i)



FCL.830 Sailplane Cloud Flying Rating

complete a proficiency check.(ii)

If the EIR has not been revalidated or renewed within 7 years from the last validity date, theholder will also be required to pass again the EIR theoretical knowledge examinations inaccordance with FCL.615(b).

(5)

For a multi-engine EIR, the proficiency check for the revalidation or renewal, and the trainingflight required in point (g)(2)(ii) have to be completed in a multi-engine aeroplane. If the pilotalso holds a single-engine EIR, this proficiency check shall also achieve revalidation orrenewal of the single- engine EIR. The training flight completed in a multi-engine aeroplaneshall also fulfil the training flight requirement for the single-engine EIR.

(6)

When the applicant for the EIR has completed instrument flight time under instruction with an IRI(A) oran FI(A) holding the privilege to provide training for the IR or EIR, these hours may be credited towardsthe hours required in point (c)(2 (i) and (ii) up to a maximum of 5 or 6 hours respectively. The 4 hoursof instrument flight instruction in multi-engine aeroplanes required in point (c)(2)(ii) shall not be subjectto this credit.

(h)

To determine the amount of hours to be credited and to establish the training needs, theapplicant shall complete a pre-entry assessment at the ATO.

(1)

The completion of the instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or FI(A) shall bedocumented in a specific training record and signed by the instructor.

(2)

Applicants for the EIR, holding a Part-FCL PPL or CPL and a valid IR(A) issued in accordance with therequirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a another ICAO contracting state, may becredited in full towards the training course requirements mentioned in point (c). In order to be issuedthe EIR, the applicant shall:

(i)

successfully complete the skill test for the EIR;(1)

by way of derogation from point (d), demonstrate during the skill test towards the examinerthat he/she has acquired an adequate level of theoretical knowledge of air law, meteorologyand flight planning and performance (IR);

(2)

have a minimum experience of at least 25 hours of flight time under IFR as PIC onaeroplanes.

(3)

Holders of a pilot licence with privileges to fly sailplanes shall only operate a sailplane or a poweredsailplane, excluding TMG, within cloud when they hold a sailplane cloud flying rating.

(a)

Applicants for a sailplane cloud flying rating shall have completed at least:(b)

30 hours as PIC in sailplanes or powered sailplanes after the issue of the licence;(1)


theoretical knowledge instruction; and(i)

at least 2 hours of dual flight instruction in sailplanes or powered sailplanes,controlling the sailplane solely by reference to instruments, of which a maximum ofone hour may be completed on TMGs; and

(ii)

a skill test with an FE qualified for this purpose.(3)



Holders of an EIR or an IR(A) shall be credited against the requirement of (b)(2)(i). By way ofderogation from point (b)(2)(ii), at least one hour of dual flight instruction in a sailplane or poweredsailplane, excluding TMG, controlling the sailplane solely by reference to instruments shall becompleted.

(c)

Holders of a cloud flying rating shall only exercise their privileges when they have completed in the last24 months at least 1 hour of flight time, or 5 flights as PIC exercising the privileges of the cloud flyingrating, in sailplanes or powered sailplanes, excluding TMGs.

(d)

Holders of a cloud flying rating who do not comply with the requirements in point shall, before theyresume the exercise of their privileges:

(e)

undertake a proficiency check with an FE qualified for this purpose; or(1)

perform the additional flight time or flights required in point (d) with a qualified instructor.(2)

Holders of a valid EIR or an IR(A) shall be credited in full against the requirements in point (d).(f)



SUBPART J: INSTRUCTORS


FCL.900 Instructor certificates

General. A person shall only carry out:(a)

flight instruction in aircraft when he/she holds:(1)

a pilot licence issued or accepted in accordance with this Regulation;(i)

an instructor certificate appropriate to the instruction given, issued in accordancewith this Subpart;

(ii)

synthetic flight instruction or MCC instruction when he/she holds an instructor certificateappropriate to the instruction given, issued in accordance with this Subpart.

(2)

Special conditions:(b)

In the case of introduction of new aircraft in the State or in an operator’s fleet, whencompliance with the requirements established in this Subpart is not possible, the authoritymay issue a specific certificate giving privileges for flight instruction. Such a certificate shall belimited to the instruction flights necessary for the introduction of the new type of aircraft and itsvalidity shall not, in any case, exceed 1 year.

(1)

Holders of a specific certificate issued in accordance with (b)(1) who wish to apply for theissue of an instructor certificate shall comply with the prerequisites and revalidationrequirements established for that category of instructor. Notwithstanding FCL.905.TRI(b), aTRI certificate issued in accordance with this (sub)paragraph will include the privilege toinstruct for the issue of a TRI or SFI certificate for the relevant type.

(2)

Instruction outside the territory of the State of Qatar:(c)

Notwithstanding paragraph (a), in the case of flight instruction provided in an ATO locatedoutside the territory of the State of Qatar, the authority may issue an instructor certificate to anapplicant holding a pilot licence issued by another ICAO contracting in accordance with Annex1 to the Chicago Convention, provided that the applicant:

(1)

holds at least an equivalent licence, rating, or certificate to the one for which they areauthorised to instruct and in any case at least a CPL;

(i)

complies with the requirements established in this Subpart for the issue of therelevant instructor certificate;

(ii)

demonstrates to the authority an adequate level of knowledge of aviation safety rulesto be able to exercise instructional privileges in accordance with this Part.

(iii)

The certificate shall be limited to providing flight instruction:(2)

in ATOs located outside the territory of the State of Qatar;(i)

to student pilots who have sufficient knowledge of the language in which flightinstruction is given.

(ii)



FCL.915 General prerequisites and requirements for instructors

FCL.920 Instructor competencies and assessment

All instructors shall be trained to achieve the following competences:

- Prepare resources,

- Create a climate conducive to learning,

- Present knowledge,

- Integrate Threat and Error Management (TEM) and crew resource management,

- Manage time to achieve training objectives,

- Facilitate learning,

- Assess trainee performance,

- Monitor and review progress,

- Evaluate training sessions,

- Report outcome.

General. An applicant for an instructor certificate shall be at least 18 years of age.(a)

Additional requirements for instructors providing flight instruction in aircraft. An applicant for or theholder of an instructor certificate with privileges to conduct flight instruction in an aircraft shall:

(b)

hold at least the licence and, where relevant, the rating for which flight instruction is to begiven;

(1)

except in the case of the flight test instructor, have:(2)

completed at least 15 hours of flight time as a pilot on the class or type of aircraft onwhich flight instruction is to be given, of which a maximum of 7 hours may be in anFSTD representing the class or type of aircraft, if applicable; or’

(i)

passed an assessment of competence for the relevant category of instructor on thatclass or type of aircraft;

(ii)

be entitled to act as PIC on the aircraft during such flight instruction.(3)

Credit towards further ratings and for the purpose of revalidation:(c)

Applicants for further instructor certificates may be credited with the teaching and learningskills already demonstrated for the instructor certificate held.

(1)

Hours flown as an examiner during skill tests or proficiency checks shall be credited in fulltowards revalidation requirements for all instructor certificates held.

(2)

Credit for extension to further types shall take into account the relevant elements as defined in theoperational suitability data in accordance with Part-21.

(d)



FCL.925 Additional requirements for instructors for the MPL

FCL.930 Training course

Applicants for an instructor certificate shall have completed a course of theoretical knowledge and flightinstruction at an ATO. In addition to the specific elements prescribed in this Part for each category of instructor,the course shall contain the elements required in FCL.920.

FCL.935 Assessment of competence

Instructors conducting training for the MPL shall:(a)

have successfully completed an MPL instructor training course at an ATO; and(1)

additionally, for the basic, intermediate and advanced phases of the MPL integrated trainingcourse:

(2)

be experienced in multi-pilot operations; and(i)

have completed initial crew resource management training with a commercial airtransport operator approved in accordance with the applicable air operationsrequirements.

(ii)

MPL instructors training course(b)

The MPL instructor training course shall comprise at least 14 hours of training. Uponcompletion of the training course, the applicant shall undertake an assessment of instructorcompetencies and of knowledge of the competency- based approach to training.

(1)

The assessment shall consist of a practical demonstration of flight instruction in theappropriate phase of the MPL training course. This assessment shall be conducted by anexaminer qualified in accordance with Subpart K or by an authority Inspector appropriatelyqualified for the particular subject ((b) above).

(2)

Upon successful completion of the MPL training course, the ATO shall issue an MPLinstructor qualification certificate to the applicant.

(3)

In order to maintain the privileges, the instructor shall have, within the preceding 12 months, conductedwithin an MPL training course:

(c)

1 simulator session of at least 3 hours; or(1)

1 air exercise of at least 1 hour comprising at least 2 take-offs and landings.(2)

If the instructor has not fulfilled the requirements of (c), before exercising the privileges to conduct flightinstruction for the MPL he/she shall:

(d)

receive refresher training at an ATO to reach the level of competence necessary to pass theassessment of instructor competencies; and

(1)

pass the assessment of instructor competencies as set out in (b)(2).(2)

Except for the multi-crew cooperation instructor (MCCI), the synthetic training instructor (STI), themountain rating instructor (MI) and the flight test instructor (FTI), an applicant for an instructorcertificate shall pass an assessment of competence in the appropriate aircraft category to demonstrate

(a)



FCL.940 Validity of instructor certificates

With the exception of the MI, and without prejudice to FCL.900(b)(1), instructor certificates shall be valid for aperiod of 3 years.

FCL.945 Obligations for instructors

Upon completion of the training flight for the revalidation of an SEP or TMG class rating in accordance withFCL.740.A (b)(1) and only in the event of fulfilment of all the other revalidation criteria required by FCL.740.A(b)(1) the instructor shall endorse the applicant's licence with the new expiry date of the rating or certificate, ifspecifically authorised for that purpose by the authority responsible for the applicant's licence.

to an examiner qualified in accordance with Subpart K the ability to instruct a student pilot to the levelrequired for the issue of the relevant licence, rating or certificate.

This assessment shall include:(b)

the demonstration of the competencies described in FCL.920, during pre-flight, post-flight andtheoretical knowledge instruction;

(1)

oral theoretical examinations on the ground, pre-flight and post-flight briefings and in-flightdemonstrations in the appropriate aircraft class, type or FSTD;

(2)

exercises adequate to evaluate the instructor’s competencies.(3)

The assessment shall be performed on the same class or type of aircraft or FSTD used for the flightinstruction.

(c)

When an assessment of competence is required for revalidation of an instructor certificate, anapplicant who fails to achieve a pass in the assessment before the expiry date of an instructorcertificate shall not exercise the privileges of that certificate until the assessment has successfully beencompleted.

(d)



SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the flight instructor - FI

FCL.905.FI FI - Privileges and conditions

The privileges of an FI are to conduct flight instruction for the issue, revalidation or renewal of:

a PPL, SPL, BPL and LAPL in the appropriate aircraft category;(a)

class and type ratings for single-pilot, single-engine aircraft, except for single-pilot high performancecomplex aeroplanes; class and group extensions for balloons and class extensions for sailplanes;

(b)

type ratings for single or multi-pilot airship;(c)

a CPL in the appropriate aircraft category, provided that the FI has completed at least 500 hours offlight time as a pilot on that aircraft category, including at least 200 hours of flight instruction;

(d)

the night rating, provided that the FI:(e)

is qualified to fly at night in the appropriate aircraft category;(1)

has demonstrated the ability to instruct at night to an FI qualified in accordance with (i) below;and

(2)

complies with the night experience requirement of FCL.060(b)(2);(3)

a towing, aerobatic or, in the case of an FI(S), a cloud flying rating, provided that such privileges areheld and the FI has demonstrated the ability to instruct for that rating to an FI qualified in accordancewith point (i);

(f)

an EIR or an IR in the appropriate aircraft category, provided that the FI has:(g)

at least 200 hours of flight time under IFR, of which up to 50 hours may be instrument groundtime in an FFS, an FTD 2/3 or FNPT II;

(1)

completed as a student pilot the IRI training course and has passed an assessment ofcompetence for the IRI certificate; and

(2)

in addition:(3)

for multi-engine aeroplanes, met the requirements for a CRI for multi- engineaeroplanes;

(i)

for multi-engine helicopters, met the requirements for the issue of a TRI certificate;(ii)

single-pilot multi-engine class or type ratings, except for single-pilot high performance complexaeroplanes, provided that the FI meets:

(h)

in the case of aeroplanes, the prerequisites for the CRI training course established inFCL.915.CRI(a) and the requirements of FCL.930.CRI and FCL.935;

(1)

in the case of helicopters, the requirements established in FCL.910.TRI(c)(1) and theprerequisites for the TRI(H) training course established in FCL.915.TRI(d)(2);’

(2)

an FI, IRI, CRI, STI or MI certificate provided that the FI has:(i)

completed at least:(1)



FCL.910.FI FI - Restricted privileges

in the case of an FI(S), at least 50 hours or 150 launches of flight instruction onsailplanes;

(i)

in the case of an FI(B), at least 50 hours or 50 take-offs of flight instruction onballoons;

(ii)

in all other cases, 500 hours of flight instruction in the appropriate aircraft category;(iii)

passed an assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935 in the appropriate aircraftcategory to demonstrate to a Flight Instructor Examiner (FIE) the ability to instruct for the FIcertificate;

(2)

an MPL, provided that the FI:(j)

for the core flying phase of the training, has completed at least 500 hours of flight time as apilot on aeroplanes, including at least 200 hours of flight instruction;

(1)

for the basic phase of the training:(2)

holds a multi-engine aeroplane IR and the privilege to instruct for an IR; and(i)

has at least 1 500 hours of flight time in multi-crew operations;(ii)

in the case of an FI already qualified to instruct on ATP(A) or CPL(A)/IR integrated courses,the requirement of (2)(ii) may be replaced by the completion of a structured course of trainingconsisting of:

(3)

MCC qualification;(i)

observing 5 sessions of flight instruction in Phase 3 of an MPL course;(ii)

observing 5 sessions of flight instruction in Phase 4 of an MPL course;(iii)

observing 5 operator recurrent line oriented flight training sessions;(iv)

the content of the MCCI instructor course. In this case, the FI shall conduct its first 5instructor sessions under the supervision of a TRI(A), MCCI(A) or SFI(A) qualified forMPL flight instruction.

(v)

An FI shall have his/her privileges limited to conducting flight instruction under the supervision of an FIfor the same category of aircraft nominated by the ATO for this purpose, in the following cases:

(a)

for the issue of the PPL, SPL, BPL and LAPL;(1)

in all integrated courses at PPL level, in case of aeroplanes and helicopters;(2)

for class and type ratings for single-pilot, single-engine aircraft, except for single-pilot highperformance complex aeroplanes, class and group extensions in the case of balloons andclass extensions in the case of sailplanes;

(3)

for the night, towing or aerobatic ratings.(4)

While conducting training under supervision, in accordance with (a), the FI shall not have the privilegeto authorise student pilots to conduct first solo flights and first solo cross-country flights.

(b)



FCL.915.FI FI - Prerequisites

An applicant for an FI certificate shall:

The limitations in (a) and (b) shall be removed from the FI certificate when the FI has completed atleast:

(c)

for the FI(A), 100 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes or TMGs and, in addition hassupervised at least 25 student solo flights;

(1)

for the FI(H) 100 hours of flight instruction in helicopters and, in addition has supervised atleast 25 student solo flight air exercises;

(2)

for the FI(As), FI(S) and FI(B), 15 hours or 50 take-offs of flight instruction covering the fulltraining syllabus for the issue of a PPL(As), SPL or BPL in the appropriate aircraft category.

(3)

in the case of the FI(A) and FI(H):(a)

have received at least 10 hours of instrument flight instruction on the appropriate aircraftcategory, of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time in an FSTD;

(1)

have completed 20 hours of VFR cross-country flight on the appropriate aircraft category asPIC; and

(2)

additionally, for the FI(A):(b)

hold at least a CPL(A); or(1)

hold at least a PPL(A) and have:(2)

met the requirements for CPL theoretical knowledge, except for an FI(A) providingtraining for the LAPL(A) only; and

(i)

completed at least 200 hours of flight time on aeroplanes or TMGs, of which 150hours as PIC;

(ii)

have completed at least 30 hours on single-engine piston powered aeroplanes of which atleast 5 hours shall have been completed during the 6 months preceding the pre-entry flighttest set out in FCL.930.FI(a);

(3)

have completed a VFR cross-country flight as PIC, including a flight of at least 540 km (300NM) in the course of which full stop landings at 2 different aerodromes shall be made;

(4)

additionally, for the FI(H), have completed 250 hours total flight time as pilot on helicopters of which:(c)

at least 100 hours shall be as PIC, if the applicant holds at least a CPL(H); or(1)

(2) at least 200 hours as PIC, if the applicant holds at least a PPL(H) and has met therequirements for CPL theoretical knowledge;

(2)

for an FI(As), have completed 500 hours of flight time on airships as PIC, of which 400 hours shall beas PIC holding a CPL(As);

(d)

for an FI(S), have completed 100 hours of flight time and 200 launches as PIC on sailplanes.Additionally, where the applicant wishes to give flight instruction on TMGs, he/she shall havecompleted 30 hours of flight time as PIC on TMGs and an additional assessment of competence on a

(e)



FCL.930.FI FI - Training course

FCL.940.FI FI - Revalidation and renewal

TMG in accordance with FCL.935 with an FI qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FI(i);

for an FI(B), have completed 75 hours of balloon flight time as PIC, of which at least 15 hours have tobe in the class for which flight instruction will be given

(f)

Applicants for the FI certificate shall have passed a specific pre-entry flight test with an FI qualified inaccordance with FCL.905.FI(i) within the 6 months preceding the start of the course, to assess theirability to undertake the course. This pre-entry flight test shall be based on the proficiency check forclass and type ratings as set out in Appendix 9 to this Part.

(a)

The FI training course shall include:(b)

25 hours of teaching and learning;(1)

(2)

in the case of an FI(A), (H) and (As), at least 100 hours of theoretical knowledgeinstruction, including progress tests;

(i)

in the case of an FI(B) or FI(S), at least 30 hours of theoretical knowledgeinstruction, including progress tests;

(ii)

(3)

in the case of an FI(A) and (H), at least 30 hours of flight instruction, of which 25hours shall be dual flight instruction, of which 5 hours may be conducted in an FFS,an FNPT I or II or an FTD 2/3;

(i)

in the case of an FI(As), at least 20 hours of flight instruction, of which 15 hours shallbe dual flight instruction;

(ii)

in the case of an FI(S), at least 6 hours or 20 take-offs of flight instruction;(iii)

in the case of an FI(S) providing training on TMGs, at least 6 hours of dual flightinstruction on TMGs;

(iv)

in the case of an FI(B), at least 3 hours including 3 take-offs(v)

When applying for an FI certificate in another category of aircraft, pilots holding or having heldan FI(A), (H) or (As) shall be credited with 55 hours towards the requirement in point (b)(2)(i)or with 18 hours towards the requirements in point (b)(2)(ii).

(4)

For revalidation of an FI certificate, the holder shall fulfill 2 of the following 3 requirements:(a)

complete:(1)

in the case of an FI(A) and (H), at least 50 hours of flight instruction in theappropriate aircraft category during the period of validity of the certificate as, FI, TRI,CRI, IRI, MI or examiner. If the privileges to instruct for the IR are to be revalidated,10 of these hours shall be flight instruction for an IR and shall have been completedwithin the last 12 months preceding the expiry date of the FI certificate;

(i)



in the case of an FI(As), at least 20 hours of flight instruction in airships as FI, IRI oras examiner during the period of validity of the certificate. If the privileges to instructfor the IR are to be revalidated, 10 of these hours shall be flight instruction for an IRand shall have been completed within the last 12 months preceding the expiry dateof the FI certificate;

(ii)

in the case of an FI(S), at least 30 hours or 60 take-offs of flight instruction insailplanes, powered sailplanes or TMG as, FI or as examiner during the period ofvalidity of the certificate;

(iii)

in the case of an FI(B), at least 6 hours of flight instruction in balloons as, FI or asexaminer during the period of validity of the certificate;

(iv)

attend an instructor refresher seminar, within the validity period of the FI certificate;(2)

pass an assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935, within the 12 monthspreceding the expiry date of the FI certificate.

(3)

For the at least each alternate subsequent revalidation in the case of FI(A) or FI(H), or each thirdrevalidation, in the case of FI(As), (S) and (B), the holder shall have to pass an assessment ofcompetence in accordance with FCL.935.

(b)

Renewal. If the FI certificate has lapsed, the applicant shall, within a period of 12 months beforerenewal:

(c)

attend an instructor refresher seminar;(1)

pass an assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935.(2)



SECTION 3 Reserved

INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK



SECTION 4 Specific requirements for the type rating instructor - TRI

FCL.905.TRI TRI - Privileges and conditions

The privileges of a TRI are to instruct for:

FCL.910.TRI TRI - Restricted privileges

the revalidation and renewal of EIR or an IR, provided the TRI holds a valid IR;(a)

the issue of a TRI or SFI certificate, provided that the holder has 3 years of experience as a TRI; and(b)

in the case of the TRI for single-pilot aeroplanes:(c)

the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for single-pilot high performance complexaeroplanes when the applicant seeks privileges to operate in single-pilot operations. Theprivileges of the TRI(SPA) may be extended to flight instruction for single-pilot highperformance complex aeroplanes type ratings in multi-pilot operations, provided that the TRI:

(1)

holds an MCCI certificate; or(i)

holds or has held a TRI certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes;(ii)

the MPL course on the basic phase, provided that he/she has the privileges extended to multi-pilot operations and holds or has held an FI(A) or an IRI(A) certificate;

(2)

in the case of the TRI for multi-pilot aeroplanes:(d)

the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for:(1)

multi-pilot aeroplanes;(i)

single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes when the applicant seeksprivileges to operate in multi-pilot operations;

(ii)

MCC training;(2)

the MPL course on the basic, intermediate and advanced phases, provided that, for the basicphase, they hold or have held an FI(A) or IRI(A) certificate;

(3)

in the case of the TRI for helicopters:(e)

the issue, revalidation and renewal of helicopter type ratings;(1)

MCC training, provided he/she holds a multi-pilot helicopter type rating;(2)

the extension of the single-engine IR(H) to multi-engine IR(H);(3)

in the case of the TRI for powered-lift aircraft:(f)

the issue, revalidation and renewal of powered-lift type ratings;(1)

MCC training.(2)

General. If the TRI training is carried out in an FFS only, the privileges of the TRI shall be restricted to(a)



FCL.915.TRI TRI - Prerequisites

An applicant for a TRI certificate shall:

training in the FFS. In this case, the TRI may conduct line flying under supervision, provided that theTRI training course has included additional training for this purpose.

TRI for aeroplanes and for powered-lift aircraft - TRI(A) and TRI(PL). The privileges of a TRI arerestricted to the type of aeroplane or powered-lift aircraft in which the training and the assessment ofcompetence was taken. Unless otherwise determined by in the operational suitability data establishedin accordance with Part-21, the privileges of the TRI shall be extended to further types when the TRIhas:

(b)

completed within the 12 months preceding the application, at least 15 route sectors, includingtakeoffs and landings on the applicable aircraft type, of which 7 sectors may be completed inan FFS;

(1)

completed the technical training and flight instruction parts of the relevant TRI course;(2)

passed the relevant sections of the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935in order to demonstrate to an FIE or a TRE qualified in accordance with Subpart K his/herability to instruct a pilot to the level required for the issue of a type rating, including pre-flight,post-flight and theoretical knowledge instruction.

(3)

TRI for helicopters - TRI(H).(c)

The privileges of a TRI(H) are restricted to the type of helicopter in which the skill test for theissue of the TRI certificate was taken. Unless otherwise determined by in the operationalsuitability data established in accordance with Part-21, the privileges of the TRI shall beextended to further types when the TRI has:

(1)

completed the appropriate type technical part of the TRI course on the applicabletype of helicopter or an FSTD representing that type;

(i)

conducted at least 2 hours of flight instruction on the applicable type, under thesupervision of an adequately qualified TRI(H); and

(ii)

passed the relevant sections of the assessment of competence in accordance withFCL.935 in order to demonstrate to an FIE or TRE qualified in accordance withSubpart K his/her ability to instruct a pilot to the level required for the issue of a typerating, including pre-flight, post-flight and theoretical knowledge instruction.

(iii)

Before the privileges of a TRI(H) are extended from single-pilot to multi- pilot privileges on thesame type of helicopters, the holder shall have at least 100 hours in multi-pilot operations onthis type.

(2)

Notwithstanding the paragraphs above, holders of a TRI certificate who have been issued with a typerating in accordance with FCL.725(e) shall be entitled to have their TRI privileges extended to that newtype of aircraft.

(d)

hold a CPL, MPL or ATPL pilot licence on the applicable aircraft category;(a)

for a TRI(MPA) certificate:(b)

have completed 1500 hours flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes; and(1)



FCL.930.TRI TRI - Training course

have completed, within the 12 months preceding the date of application, 30 route sectors,including take-offs and landings, as PIC or co-pilot on the applicable aeroplane type, of which15 sectors may be completed in an FFS representing that type;

(2)

for a TRI(SPA) certificate:(c)

have completed, within the 12 months preceding the date of application, 30 route sectors,including take-offs and landings, as PIC on the applicable aeroplane type, of which 15 sectorsmay be completed in an FFS representing that type; and

(1)

have competed at least 500 hours flight time as pilot on aeroplanes, including 30hours as PIC on the applicable type of aeroplane; or

(i)

hold or have held an FI certificate for multi-engine aeroplanes with IR(A) privileges;(ii)

for TRI(H):(d)

for a TRI(H) certificate for single-pilot single-engine helicopters, have completed 250 hours asa pilot on helicopters;

(1)

for a TRI(H) certificate for single-pilot multi-engine helicopters, have completed 500 hours aspilot of helicopters, including 100 hours as PIC on single-pilot multi-engine helicopters;

(2)

for a TRI(H) certificate for multi-pilot helicopters, have completed 1000 hours of flight time asa pilot on helicopters, including:

(3)

350 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters; or(i)

for applicants already holding a TRI(H) certificate for single-pilot multi- enginehelicopters, 100 hours as pilot of that type in multi-pilot operations.

(ii)

Holders of an FI(H) certificate shall be fully credited towards the requirements of (1) and (2) inthe relevant single pilot helicopter;

(4)

for TRI(PL):(e)

have completed 1500 hours flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes, powered-lift, ormulti-pilot helicopters; and

(1)

have completed, within the 12 months preceding the application, 30 route sectors, includingtake-offs and landings, as PIC or co-pilot on the applicable powered-lift type, of which 15sectors may be completed in an FFS representing that type.

(2)

The TRI training course shall include, at least:(a)


10 hours of technical training, including revision of technical knowledge, the preparation oflesson plans and the development of classroom/simulator instructional skills;

(2)

5 hours of flight instruction on the appropriate aircraft or a simulator representing that aircraftfor single-pilot aircraft and 10 hours for multi-pilot aircraft or a simulator representing thataircraft.

(3)



FCL.935.TRI TRI - Assessment of competence

If the TRI assessment of competence is conducted in an FFS, the TRI certificate shall be restricted to flightinstruction in FFSs. The restriction shall be lifted when the TRI has passed the assessment of competence onan aircraft.

FCL.940.TRI TRI - Revalidation and renewal

Applicants holding or having held an instructor certificate shall be fully credited towards therequirement of (a)(1).

(b)

An applicant for a TRI certificate who holds an SFI certificate for the relevant type shall be fully creditedtowards the requirements of this paragraph for the issue of a TRI certificate restricted to flightinstruction in simulators.

(c)

Revalidation(a)

Aeroplanes. For revalidation of a TRI(A) certificate, the applicant shall, within the last 12months preceding the expiry date of the certificate, fulfill one of the following 3 requirements:

(1)

conduct one of the following parts of a complete type rating training course: simulatorsession of at least 3 hours or one air exercise of at least 1 hour comprising aminimum of 2 take-offs and landings;

(i)

receive instructor refresher training as a TRI at an ATO;(ii)

pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935.(iii)

Helicopters and powered lift. For revalidation of a TRI (H) or TRI(PL) certificate, the applicantshall, within the validity period of the TRI certificate, fulfill 2 of the following 3 requirements:

(2)

complete 50 hours of flight instruction on each of the types of aircraft for whichinstructional privileges are held or in an FSTD representing those types, of which atleast 15 hours shall be within the 12 months preceding the expiry date of the TRIcertificate. In the case of TRI(PL), these hours of flight instruction shall be flown as aTRI or type rating examiner (TRE), or SFI or synthetic flight examiner (SFE). In thecase of TRI(H), time flown as FI, instrument rating instructor (IRI), synthetic traininginstructor (STI) or as any kind of examiner shall also be relevant for this purpose;

(i)

receive instructor refresher training as a TRI at an ATO;(ii)

pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935.(iii)

For at least each alternate revalidation of a TRI certificate, the holder shall have to pass theassessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935.

(3)

If a person holds a TRI certificate on more than one type of aircraft within the same category,the assessment of competence taken on one of those types shall revalidate the TRI certificatefor the other types held within the same category of aircraft.

(4)

Specific requirements for revalidation of a TRI(H). A TRI(H) holding an FI(H) certificate on therelevant type shall have full credit towards the requirements in (a) above. In this case, theTRI(H) certificate will be valid until the expiry date of the FI(H) certificate.

(5)

Renewal(b)



Aeroplanes. If the TRI (A) certificate has lapsed the applicant shall have:(1)

completed within the last 12 months preceding the application at least 30 routesectors, to include take-offs and landings on the applicable aeroplane type, of whichnot more than 15 sectors may be completed in a flight simulator;

(i)

completed the relevant parts of a TRI course at an approved ATO;(ii)

conducted on a complete type rating course at least 3 hours of flight instruction onthe applicable type of aeroplane under the supervision of a TRI(A).

(iii)

Helicopters and powered lift. If the TRI (H) or TRI(PL) certificate has lapsed, the applicantshall, within a period of 12 months before renewal:

(2)

receive instructor refresher training as a TRI at an ATO, which should cover therelevant elements of the TRI training course; and

(i)

pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935 in each of thetypes of aircraft in which renewal of the instructional privileges is sought.

(ii)



SECTION 5 Specific requirements for the class rating instructor - CRI

FCL.905.CRI CRI - Privileges and conditions

FCL.915.CRI CRI - Prerequisites

An applicant for a CRI certificate shall have completed at least:

FCL.930.CRI CRI - Training course

The privileges of a CRI are to instruct for:(a)

the issue, revalidation or renewal of a class or type rating for single-pilot aeroplanes, exceptfor single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes, when the privileges sought by theapplicant are to fly in single-pilot operations;

(1)

a towing or aerobatic rating for the aeroplane category, provided the CRI holds the relevantrating and has demonstrated the ability to instruct for that rating to an FI qualified inaccordance with FCL.905.FI(i).

(2)

extension of LAPL(A) privileges to another class or variant of aeroplane.(3)

The privileges of a CRI are restricted to the class or type of aeroplane in which the instructorassessment of competence was taken. The privileges of the CRI shall be extended to further classesor types when the CRI has completed, within the last 12 months:

(b)

15 hours flight time as PIC on aeroplanes of the applicable class or type of aeroplane;(1)

one training flight from the right hand seat under the supervision of another CRI or FI qualifiedfor that class or type occupying the other pilot’s seat.

(2)

Applicants for a CRI for multi-engine aeroplanes holding a CRI certificate for single-engine aeroplanesshall have fulfilled the prerequisites for a CRI established in FCL.915.CRI(a) and the requirements ofFCL.930.CRI(a)(3) and FCL.935.

(c)

for multi-engine aeroplanes:(a)

500 hours flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes;(1)

30 hours as PIC on the applicable class or type of aeroplane;(2)

for single-engine aeroplanes:(b)

300 hours flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes;(1)

30 hours as PIC on the applicable class or type of aeroplane.(2)

The training course for the CRI shall include, at least:(a)

25 hours of teaching and learning instruction;(1)


(2)



FCL.940.CRI CRI - Revalidation and renewal

5 hours of flight instruction on multi-engine aeroplanes, or 3 hours of flight instruction onsingle-engine aeroplanes, given by an FI(A) qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FI(i).

(3)


(b)

For revalidation of a CRI certificate the applicant shall, within the 12 months preceding the expiry dateof the CRI certificate:

(a)

conduct at least 10 hours of flight instruction in the role of a CRI. If the applicant has CRIprivileges on both single-engine and multi-engine aeroplanes, the 10 hours of flight instructionshall be equally divided between single-engine and multi-engine aeroplanes; or

(1)

receive refresher training as a CRI at an ATO; or(2)

pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935 for multi- engine or single-engine aeroplanes, as relevant.

(3)

For at least each alternate revalidation of a CRI certificate, the holder shall have to comply with therequirement of (a)(3).

(b)

Renewal. If the CRI certificate has lapsed, the applicant shall, within a period of 12 months beforerenewal:

(c)

receive refresher training as a CRI at an ATO;(1)

pass the assessment of competence established in FCL.935.(2)



SECTION 6 Specific requirements for the instrument rating instructor - IRI

FCL.905.IRI IRI - Privileges and conditions

FCL.915.IRI IRI - Prerequisites

An applicant for an IRI certificate shall:

FCL.930.IRI IRI - Training course

The privileges of an IRI are to instruct for the issue, revalidation and renewal of an EIR or an IR on theappropriate aircraft category.

(a)

Specific requirements for the MPL course. To instruct for the basic phase of training on an MPL course,the IRI(A) shall:

(b)

hold an IR for multi-engine aeroplanes; and(1)

have completed at least 1500 hours of flight time in multi-crew operations.(2)

In the case of IRI already qualified to instruct on ATP(A) or CPL(A)/IR integrated courses, therequirement of (b)(2) may be replaced by the completion of the course provided for inparagraph FCL.905.FI(j)(3).

(3)

for an IRI(A):(a)

have completed at least 800 hours of flight time under IFR, of which at least 400 hours shallbe in aeroplanes; and

(1)

in the case of applicants of an IRI(A) for multi-engine aeroplanes, meet the requirements ofparagraph FCL.915.CRI(a), FCL.930.CRI and FCL.935;

(2)

for an IRI(H):(b)

have completed at least 500 hours of flight time under IFR, of which at least 250 hours shallbe instrument flight time in helicopters; and

(1)

in the case of applicants for an IR(H) for multi-pilot helicopters, meet the requirements ofFCL.905.FI(g)(3)(ii);

(2)

for an IRI(As), have completed at least 300 hours of flight time under IFR, of which at least 100 hoursshall be instrument flight time in airships.

(c)

The training course for the IRI shall include, at least:(a)


10 hours of technical training, including revision of instrument theoretical knowledge, thepreparation of lesson plans and the development of classroom instructional skills;

(2)

(3)

for the IRI(A), at least 10 hours of flight instruction on an aeroplane, FFS, FTD 2/3 orFPNT II. In the case of applicants holding an FI(A) certificate, these hours arereduced to 5;

(i)



FCL.940.IRI IRI - Revalidation and renewal

For revalidation and renewal of an IRI certificate, the holder shall meet the requirements for revalidation andrenewal of an FI certificate, in accordance with FCL.940.FI.

for the IRI(H), at least 10 hours of flight instruction on a helicopter, FFS, FTD 2/3 orFNPT II/III;

(ii)

for the IRI(As), at least 10 hours of flight instruction on an airship, FFS, FTD 2/3 orFNPT II.

(iii)

Flight instruction shall be given by an FI qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FI(i).(b)


(c)



SECTION 7 Specific requirements for the synthetic flight instructor - SFI

FCL.905.SFI SFI - Privileges and conditions

The privileges of an SFI are to carry out synthetic flight instruction, within the relevant aircraft category, for:

FCL.910.SFI SFI - Restricted privileges

The privileges of the SFI shall be restricted to the FTD 2/3 or FFS of the aircraft type in which the SFI trainingcourse was taken. The privileges may be extended to other FSTDs representing further types of the samecategory of aircraft when the holder has:

the issue, revalidation and renewal of an IR, provided that he/she holds or has held an IR in therelevant aircraft category and has completed an IRI training course; and

(a)

in the case of SFI for single-pilot aeroplanes:(b)

the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for single-pilot high performance complexaeroplanes, when the applicant seeks privileges to operate in single-pilot operations. Theprivileges of the SFI(SPA) may be extended to flight instruction for single-pilot highperformance complex aeroplanes type ratings in multi-pilot operations, provided that he/she:

(1)

holds an MCCI certificate; or(i)

holds or has held a TRI certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes; and(ii)

provided that the privileges of the SFI(SPA) have been extended to multi-pilot operations inaccordance with (1):

(2)

MCC;(i)

the MPL course on the basic phase;(ii)

in the case of SFI for multi-pilot aeroplanes:(c)

the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for:(1)

multi-pilot aeroplanes;(i)

single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes when the applicant seeksprivileges to operate in multi-pilot operations;

(ii)

MCC;(2)

the MPL course on the basic, intermediate and advanced phases, provided that, for the basicphase, he/she holds or has held an FI(A) or an IRI(A) certificate;

(3)

in the case of SFI for helicopters:(d)

the issue, revalidation and renewal of helicopter type ratings;(1)

MCC training, when the SFI has privileges to instruct for multi-pilot helicopters.(2)

satisfactorily completed the simulator content of the relevant type rating course; and(a)



FCL.915.SFI SFI - Prerequisites

An applicant for an SFI certificate shall:

FCL.930.SFI SFI - Training course

conducted on a complete type rating course at least 3 hours of flight instruction related to the duties ofan SFI on the applicable type under the supervision and to the satisfaction of a TRE qualified for thispurpose.

(b)

hold or have held a CPL, MPL or ATPL in the appropriate aircraft category;(a)

have completed the proficiency check for the issue of the specific aircraft type rating in an FFSrepresenting the applicable type, within the 12 months preceding the application; and

(b)

additionally, for an SFI(A) for multi-pilot aeroplanes or SFI(PL), have:(c)

at least 1500 hours flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes or powered- lift, asapplicable;

(1)

completed, as a pilot or as an observer, within the 12 months preceding the application, atleast:

(2)

3 route sectors on the flight deck of the applicable aircraft type; or(i)

2 line-orientated flight training-based simulator sessions conducted by qualified flightcrew on the flight deck of the applicable type. These simulator sessions shall include2 flights of at least 2 hours each between 2 different aerodromes, and the associatedpre-flight planning and debriefing;

(ii)

additionally, for an SFI(A) for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes:(d)

have completed at least 500 hours of flight time as PIC on single-pilot aeroplanes;(1)

hold or have held a multi-engine IR(A) rating; and(2)

have met the requirements in (c)(2);(3)

additionally, for an SFI(H), have:(e)

completed, as a pilot or as an observer, at least 1 hour of flight time on the flight deck of theapplicable type, within the 12 months preceding the application; and

(1)

in the case of multi-pilot helicopters, at least 1000 hours of flying experience as a pilot onhelicopters, including at least 350 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters;

(2)

in the case of single-pilot multi-engine helicopters, completed 500 hours as pilot ofhelicopters, including 100 hours as PIC on single-pilot multi-engine helicopters;

(3)

in the case of single-pilot single-engine helicopters, completed 250 hours as a pilot onhelicopters.

(4)

The training course for the SFI shall include:(a)

the FSTD content of the applicable type rating course;(1)



FCL.940.SFI SFI - Revalidation and renewal

the content of the TRI training course.(2)

An applicant for an SFI certificate who holds a TRI certificate for the relevant type shall be fully creditedtowards the requirements of this paragraph.

(b)

Revalidation. For revalidation of an SFI certificate the applicant shall, within the validity period of theSFI certificate, fulfill 2 of the following 3 requirements:

(a)

complete 50 hours as an instructor or an examiner in FSTDs, of which at least 15 hours shallbe within the 12 months preceding the expiry date of the SFI certificate;

(1)

receive instructor refresher training as an SFI at an ATO;(2)

pass the relevant sections of the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935.(3)

Additionally, the applicant shall have completed, on an FFS, the proficiency checks for the issue of thespecific aircraft type ratings representing the types for which privileges are held.

(b)

For at least each alternate revalidation of an SFI certificate, the holder shall have to comply with therequirement of (a)(3).

(c)

Renewal. If the SFI certificate has lapsed, the applicant shall, within the 12 months preceding theapplication:

(d)

complete the simulator content of the SFI training course;(1)

fulfill the requirements specified in (a)(2) and (3).(2)



SECTION 8 Specific requirements for the multi-crew cooperation instructor - MCCI

FCL.905.MCCI MCCI - Privileges and conditions

FCL.910.MCCI MCCI - Restricted privileges

The privileges of the holder of an MCCI certificate shall be restricted to the FNPT II/III MCC, FTD 2/3 or FFS inwhich the MCCI training course was taken. The privileges may be extended to other FSTDs representing furthertypes of aircraft when the holder has completed the practical training of the MCCI course on that type of FNPTII/III MCC, FTD 2/3 or FFS.

FCL.915.MCCI MCCI - Prerequisites

An applicant for an MCCI certificate shall:

FCL.930.MCCI MCCI - Training course

FCL.940.MCCI MCCI - Revalidation and renewal

The privileges of an MCCI are to carry out flight instruction during:(a)

the practical part of MCC courses when not combined with type rating training; and(1)

in the case of MCCI(A), the basic phase of the MPL integrated training course, provided he/she holds or has held an FI(A) or an IRI(A) certificate.

(2)

hold or have held a CPL, MPL or ATPL in the appropriate aircraft category;(a)

have at least:(b)

in the case of aeroplanes, airships and powered-lift aircraft, 1 500 hours of flying experienceas a pilot in multi-pilot operations;

(1)

in the case of helicopters, 1000 hours of flying experience as a pilot in multi- crew operations,of which at least 350 hours in multi-pilot helicopters.

(2)

The training course for the MCCI shall include, at least:(a)


technical training related to the type of FSTD where the applicant wishes to instruct;(2)

3 hours of practical instruction, which may be flight instruction or MCC instruction on therelevant FNPT II/III MCC, FTD 2/3 or FFS, under the supervision of a TRI, SFI or MCCInominated by the ATO for that purpose. These hours of flight instruction under supervisionshall include the assessment of the applicant’s competence as described in FCL.920.

(3)

Applicants holding or having held an FI, TRI, CRI, IRI or SFI certificate shall be fully credited towardsthe requirement of (a)(1).

(b)

For revalidation of an MCCI certificate the applicant shall have completed the requirements ofFCL.930.MCCI(a)(3) on the relevant type of FNPT II/III, FTD 2/3 or FFS, within the last 12 months ofthe validity period of the MCCI certificate.

(a)



Renewal. If the MCCI certificate has lapsed, the applicant shall complete the requirements ofFCL.930.MCCI(a)(2) and on the relevant type of FNPT II/III MCC, FTD 2/3 or FFS.

(b)



SECTION 9 Specific requirements for the synthetic training instructor - STI

FCL.905.STI STI - Privileges and conditions

FCL.910.STI STI - Restricted privileges

The privileges of an STI shall be restricted to the FNPT II/III, FTD 2/3 or FFS in which the STI training coursewas taken. The privileges may be extended to other FSTDs representing further types of aircraft when theholder has:

FCL.915.STI STI - Prerequisites

An applicant for an STI certificate shall:

FCL.930.STI STI - Training course

The privileges of an STI are to carry out synthetic flight instruction in the appropriate aircraft categoryfor:

(a)

the issue of a licence;(1)

the issue, revalidation or renewal of an IR and a class or type rating for single- pilot aircraft,except for single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes.

(2)

Additional privileges for the STI(A). The privileges of an STI(A) shall include synthetic flight instructionduring the core flying skills training of the MPL integrated training course.

(b)

completed the FFS content of the TRI course on the applicable type;(a)

passed the proficiency check for the specific aircraft type rating on an FFS of the applicable type,within the 12 months preceding the application;

(b)

conducted, on a type rating course, at least one FSTD session related to the duties of an STI with aminimum duration of 3 hours on the applicable type of aircraft, under the supervision of a flightinstructor examiner (FIE).

(c)

hold, or have held within the 3 years prior to the application, a pilot licence and instructional privilegesappropriate to the courses on which instruction is intended;

(a)

have completed in an FNPT the relevant proficiency check for the class or type rating, within a periodof 12 months preceding the application. An applicant for an STI(A) wishing to instruct on BITDs only,shall complete only the exercises appropriate for a skill test for the issue of a PPL(A);

(b)

additionally, for an STI(H), have completed at least 1 hour of flight time as an observer on the flightdeck of the applicable type of helicopter, within the 12 months preceding the application.

(c)

The training course for the STI shall comprise at least 3 hours of flight instruction related to the dutiesof an STI in an FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II/III, under the supervision of an FIE. These hours of flightinstruction under supervision shall include the assessment of the applicant’s competence as describedin FCL.920. Applicants for an STI(A) wishing to instruct on a BITD only, shall complete the flightinstruction on a BITD.

(a)

For applicants for an STI(H), the course shall also include the FFS content of the applicable TRIcourse.

(b)



FCL.940.STI Revalidation and renewal of the STI certificate

At least 1 hour of flight instruction shall be supervised by an FIE(A.

Revalidation. For revalidation of an STI certificate the applicant shall have, within the last 12 months ofthe validity period of the STI certificate:

(a)

conducted at least 3 hours of flight instruction in an FFS or FNPT II/III or BITD, as part of acomplete CPL, IR, PPL or class or type rating course; and

(1)

passed in the FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II/III on which flight instruction is routinely conducted,the applicable sections of the proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part forthe appropriate class or type of aircraft. For an STI(A) instructing on BITDs only, theproficiency check shall include only the exercises appropriate for a skill test for the issue of aPPL(A).

(2)

Renewal. If the STI certificate has lapsed, the applicant shall:(b)

receive refresher training as an STI at an ATO;(1)

pass in the FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II/III on which flight instruction is routinely conducted, theapplicable sections of the proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Part for theappropriate class or type of aircraft. For an STI(A) instructing on BITDs only, the proficiencycheck shall include only the exercises appropriate for a skill test for the issue of a PPL(A);

(2)

conduct on a complete CPL, IR, PPL or class or type rating course, at least 3 hours of flightinstruction under the supervision of an FI, CRI(A), IRI or TRI(H) nominated by the ATO for thispurpose. At least 1 hour of flight instruction under the supervision of an FI, CRI(A), IRI orTRI(H) nominated by the ATO for this purpose.

(3)



SECTION 10 Mountain rating instructor - MI

FCL.905.MI MI - Privileges and conditions

The privileges of an MI are to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a mountain rating.

FCL.915.MI MI - Prerequisites

An applicant for an MI certificate shall:

FCL.930.MI MI - Training course

FCL.940.MI Validity of the MI certificate

The MI certificate is valid as long as the FI, TRI or CRI certificate is valid.

hold a, FI, CRI, or TRI certificate, with privileges for single-pilot aeroplanes;(a)

hold a mountain rating.(b)

The training course for the MI shall include the assessment of the applicant’s competence as describedin FCL.920.

(a)

Before attending the course, applicants shall have passed a pre-entry flight test with an MI holding anFI certificate to assess their experience and ability to undertake the training course.

(b)



SECTION 11 Specific requirements for the flight test instructor - FTI

FCL.905.FTI FTI - Privileges and conditions

FCL.915.FTI FTI - Prerequisites

An applicant for an FTI certificate shall:

FCL.930.FTI FTI - Training course

FCL.940.FTI FTI - Revalidation and renewal

The privileges of a flight test instructor (FTI) are to instruct, within the appropriate aircraft category, for:(a)

the issue of category 1 or 2 flight test ratings, provided he/she holds the relevant category offlight test rating;

(1)

the issue of an FTI certificate, within the relevant category of flight test rating, provided thatthe instructor has at least 2 years of experience instructing for the issue of flight test ratings.

(2)

The privileges of an FTI holding a category 1 flight test rating include the provision of flight instructionalso in relation to category 2 flight test ratings.

(b)

hold a flight test rating issued in accordance with FCL.820;(a)

have completed at least 200 hours of category 1 or 2 flight tests.(b)

The training course for the FTI shall include, at least:(a)



(2)

5 hours of practical flight instruction under the supervision of an FTI qualified in accordancewith FCL.905.FTI(b). These hours of flight instruction shall include the assessment of theapplicant’s competence as described in FCL.920.

(3)

Crediting:(b)


(1)

In addition, applicants holding or having held an FI or TRI certificate in the relevant aircraftcategory shall be fully credited towards the requirements of (a)(2).

(2)

Revalidation. For revalidation of an FTI certificate, the applicant shall, within the validity period of theFTI certificate, fulfill one of the following requirements:

(a)

complete at least:(1)

50 hours of flight tests, of which at least 15 hours shall be within the 12 monthspreceding the expiry date of the FTI certificate; and

(i)



5 hours of flight test flight instruction within the 12 months preceding the expiry dateof the FTI certificate; or

(ii)

receive refresher training as an FTI at an ATO. The refresher training shall be based on thepractical flight instruction element of the FTI training course, in accordance withFCL.930.FTI(a)(3), and include at least 1 instruction flight under the supervision of an FTIqualified in accordance with FCL.905.FTI(b).

(2)

Renewal. If the FTI certificate has lapsed, the applicant shall receive refresher training as an FTI at anATO. The refresher training shall comply at least with the requirements of FCL.930.FTI(a)(3).

(b)



SUBPART K: EXAMINERS


FCL.1000 Examiner certificates

FCL.1005 Limitation of privileges in case of vested interests

Examiners shall not conduct:

General. Holders of an examiner certificate shall:(a)

hold an equivalent licence, rating or certificate to the ones for which they are authorised toconduct skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence and the privilege toinstruct for them;

(1)

be qualified to act as PIC on the aircraft during a skill test, proficiency check or assessment ofcompetence when conducted on the aircraft.

(2)

Special conditions:(b)

In the case of introduction of new aircraft in the State of Qatar or in an operator’s fleet, whencompliance with the requirements in this Subpart is not possible, the authority may issue aspecific certificate giving privileges for the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks. Sucha certificate shall be limited to the skill tests and proficiency checks necessary for theintroduction of the new type of aircraft and its validity shall not, in any case, exceed 1 year.

(1)

Holders of a certificate issued in accordance with (b)(1) who wish to apply for an examinercertificate shall comply with the prerequisites and revalidation requirements for that categoryof examiner.

(2)

Examination outside the territory of the State of Qatar:(c)

Notwithstanding paragraph (a), in the case of skill tests and proficiency checks provided in anATO located outside the territory of the State of Qatar, the authority may issue an examinercertificate to an applicant holding a pilot licence issued by another ICAO contracting state inaccordance with ICAO Annex 1, provided that the applicant:

(1)

holds at least an equivalent licence, rating, or certificate to the one for which they areauthorised to conduct skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence,and in any case at least a CPL;

(i)

complies with the requirements established in this Subpart for the issue of therelevant examiner certificate; and

(ii)

demonstrates to the authority an adequate level of knowledge of Qatar aviationsafety rules to be able to exercise examiner privileges in accordance with this Part.

(iii)

The certificate referred to in paragraph (1) shall be limited to providing specific skill test and/orproficiency check:

(2)

outside the territory of the State of Qatar, and(i)

to pilots who have sufficient knowledge of the language in which the test/check isgiven.

(ii)



FCL.1010 Prerequisites for examiners

Applicants for an examiner certificate shall demonstrate:

FCL.1015 Examiner standardization

FCL.1020 Examiners assessment of competence

Applicants for an examiner certificate shall demonstrate their competence to an inspector from the authority or a

skill tests or assessments of competence of applicants for the issue of a licence, rating or certificate:(a)

to whom they have provided more than 25 % of the required flight instruction for the licence,rating or certificate for which the skill test or assessment of competence is being taken; or

(1)

when they have been responsible for the recommendation for the skill test, in accordance withFCL.030(b);

(2)

skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence whenever they feel that their objectivitymay be affected.

(b)

relevant knowledge, background and appropriate experience related to the privileges of an examiner;(a)

that they have not been subject to any sanctions, including the suspension, limitation or revocation ofany of their licences, ratings or certificates issued in accordance with this Part, for non-compliance withthe Civil aviation law and its Implementing Rules during the last 3 years.

(b)

Applicants for an examiner certificate shall undertake a standardisation course, briefing or seminarprovided by the authority or by an ATO and approved by the authority.

(a)

The standardisation course shall consist of theoretical and practical instruction and shall include, atleast:

(b)

the conduct of 2 skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competences for thelicences, ratings or certificates for which the applicant seeks the privilege to conduct tests andchecks;

(1)

instruction on the applicable requirements in this part and the applicable air operationsrequirements, the conduct of skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of competence,and their documentation and reporting;

(2)

a briefing on the national administrative procedures, requirements for protection of personaldata, liability, accident insurance and fees.

(3)

a briefing on the need to review and apply the items in (3) when conducting skill tests,proficiency checks or assessments of competence of an applicant for which the authority isnot the same that issued the examiner's certificate; and

(4)

an instruction on how to get access to these national procedures and requirements of otherauthorities when needed

(5)

Holders of an examiners certificate shall not conduct skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments ofcompetence of an applicant for which the authority is not the same that issued the examiner'scertificate, unless they have reviewed the latest available information containing the relevant nationalprocedures of the applicant's authority.

(c)



senior examiner specifically authorised to do so by the authority responsible for the examiner’s certificatethrough the conduct of a skill test, proficiency check or assessment of competence in the examiner role forwhich privileges are sought, including briefing, conduct of the skill test, proficiency check or assessment ofcompetence, and assessment of the person to whom the test, check or assessment is given, debriefing andrecording documentation.

FCL.1025 Validity, revalidation and renewal of examiner certificates

FCL.1030 Conduct of skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of competence

Validity. An examiner certificate shall be valid for 3 years.(a)

Revalidation. An examiner certificate shall be revalidated when the holder has, during the validityperiod of the certificate:

(b)

conducted at least 2 skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence every year;(1)

attended an examiner refresher seminar provided by the authority or by an ATO and approvedby the authority, during the last year of the validity period.

(2)

One of the skill tests or proficiency checks completed during the last year of the validity periodin accordance with (1) shall have been assessed by an inspector from the authority or by asenior examiner specifically authorised to do so by the authority responsible for theexaminer’s certificate.

(3)

When the applicant for the revalidation holds privileges for more than one category ofexaminer, combined revalidation of all examiner privileges may be achieved when theapplicant complies with the requirements in(b)(1) and (2) and FCL.1020 for one of thecategories of examiner certificate held, in agreement with the authority.

(4)

Renewal. If the certificate has expired, applicants shall comply with the requirements of (b)(2) andFCL.1020 before they can resume the exercise of the privileges.

(c)

An examiner certificate shall only be revalidated or renewed if the applicant demonstrates continuedcompliance with the requirements in FCL.1010 and FCL.1030.

(d)

When conducting skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of competence, examiners shall(a)

ensure that communication with the applicant can be established without language barriers;(1)

verify that the applicant complies with all the qualification, training and experiencerequirements in this Part for the issue, revalidation or renewal of the licence, rating orcertificate for which the skill test, proficiency check or assessment of competence is taken;

(2)

make the applicant aware of the consequences of providing incomplete, inaccurate or falseinformation related to their training and flight experience.

(3)

After completion of the skill test or proficiency check, the examiner shall:(b)

inform the applicant of the result of the test. In the event of a partial pass or fail, the examinershall inform the applicant that he/she may not exercise the privileges of the rating until a fullpass has been obtained. The examiner shall detail any further training requirement andexplain the applicant’s right of appeal;

(1)

in the event of a pass in a proficiency check or assessment of competence for revalidation orrenewal, endorse the applicant’s licence or certificate with the new expiry date of the rating or

(2)



certificate, if specifically authorised for that purpose by the authority responsible for theapplicant’s licence;

provide the applicant with a signed report of the skill test or proficiency check and submitwithout delay copies of the report to the authority responsible for the applicant’s licence, andto the authority that issued the examiner certificate. The report shall include:

(3)

a declaration (certificate of completion for skill test) that the examiner has receivedinformation from the applicant regarding his/her experience and instruction, andfound that experience and instruction complying with the applicable requirements inthis Part;

(i)

confirmation that all the required manoeuvres and exercises have been completed,as well as information on the verbal theoretical knowledge examination, whenapplicable. If an item has been failed, the examiner shall record the reasons for thisassessment;

(ii)

the result of the test, check or assessment of competence.(iii)

a declaration that the examiner has reviewed and applied the national proceduresand requirements of the applicant’s authority if the authority responsible for theapplicant’s licence is not the same that issued the examiner’s certificate;

(iv)

a copy of the examiner certificate containing the scope of his/her privileges asexaminer in the case of skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competenceof an applicant for which the authority is not the same that issued the examiner’scertificate.

(v)

Examiners shall maintain records for 5 years with details of all skill tests, proficiency checks andassessments of competence (AoC) performed and their results.

(c)

Upon request by the Qatar authority responsible for the examiner certificate, or the authorityresponsible for the applicant’s licence, examiners shall submit all records and reports, and any otherinformation, as required for oversight activities.

(d)



SECTION 2 Specific requirements for flight examiners - FE

FCL.1005.FE FE - Privileges and conditions

FE(A). The privileges of an FE for aeroplanes are to conduct:(a)

skill tests for the issue of the PPL(A) and skill tests and proficiency checks for associatedsingle-pilot class and type ratings, except for single-pilot high performance complexaeroplanes, provided that the examiner has completed at least 1000 hours of flight time as apilot on aeroplanes or TMGs, including at least 250 hours of flight instruction;

(1)

skill tests for the issue of the CPL(A) and skill tests and proficiency checks for the associatedsingle-pilot class and type ratings, except for single-pilot high performance complexaeroplanes, provided that the examiner has completed at least 2000 hours of flight time as apilot on aeroplanes or TMGs, including at least 250 hours of flight instruction;

(2)

skill tests and proficiency checks for the LAPL(A), provided that the examiner has completedat least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs, including at least 100 hoursof flight instruction;

(3)

skill tests for the issue of a mountain rating, provided that the examiner has completed at least500 hours of flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs, including at least 500 take-offs andlandings of flight instruction for the mountain rating.

(4)

proficiency checks for the revalidation and renewal of EIRs, provided that the FE hascompleted at least 1 500 hours as a pilot on aeroplanes and complies with the requirementsin FCL.1010.IRE(a)(2).’

(5)

FE(H). The privileges of an FE for helicopters are to conduct:(b)

skill tests for the issue of the PPL(H) and skill tests and proficiency checks for single-pilotsingle-engine helicopter type ratings entered in a PPL(H), provided that the examiner hascompleted 1000 hours of flight time as a pilot on helicopters, including at least 250 hours offlight instruction;

(1)

skill tests for the issue of the CPL(H) and skill tests and proficiency checks for single-pilotsingle-engine helicopter type ratings entered in a CPL(H), provided the examiner hascompleted 2000 hours of flight time as pilot on helicopters, including at least 250 hours offlight instruction;

(2)

skill tests and proficiency checks for single-pilot multi-engine helicopter type ratings entered ina PPL(H) or a CPL(H), provided the examiner has completed the requirements in (1) or (2), asapplicable, and holds a CPL(H) or ATPL(H) and, when applicable, an IR(H);

(3)

skill tests and proficiency checks for the LAPL(H), provided that the examiner has completedat least 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on helicopters, including at least 150 hours of flightinstruction.

(4)

FE(As). The privileges of an FE for airships are to conduct skill tests for the issue of the PPL(As)and CPL(As) and skill tests and proficiency checks for the associated airship type ratings,provided that the examiner has completed 500hours of flight time as a pilot on airships, including 100hours of flight instruction.

(c)

FE(S). The privileges of an FE for sailplanes are to conduct:(d)

skill tests and proficiency checks for the SPL and the LAPL(S), provided that the examiner(1)



FCL.1010.FE FE - Prerequisites

An applicant for an FE certificate shall hold: an FI certificate in the appropriate aircraft category.

has completed 300 hours of flight time as a pilot on sailplanes or powered sailplanes,including 150 hours or 300 launches of flight instruction;

proficiency checks for the extension of the SPL privileges to commercial operations, providedthat the examiner has completed 300 hours of flight time as a pilot on sailplanes or poweredsailplanes, including 90 hours of flight instruction;

(2)

skill tests for the extension of the SPL or LAPL(S) privileges to TMG, provided that theexaminer has completed 300 hours of flight time as a pilot on sailplanes or poweredsailplanes, including 50 hours of flight instruction on TMG;

(3)

skill tests and proficiency checks for the cloud flying rating, provided that the examiner hascompleted at least 200 hours of flight time as pilot on sailplanes or powered sailplanes,including at least 5 hours or 25 flights of flight instruction for the cloud flying rating or at least10 hours of flight instruction for the EIR or IR(A).

(4)

FE(B). The privileges of an FE for balloons are to conduct:(e)

skill tests for the issue of the BPL and the LAPL(B) and skill tests and proficiency checks forthe extension of the privileges to another balloon class or group, provided that the examinerhas completed 250 hours of flight time as a pilot on balloons, including 50 hours of flightinstruction;

(1)

proficiency checks for the extension of the BPL privileges to commercial operations, providedthat the examiner has completed 300 hours of flight time as a pilot on balloons, of which 50hours in the same group of balloons for which the extension is sought. The 300 hours of flighttime shall include 50 hours of flight instruction.

(2)



SECTION 3 Specific requirements for type rating examiners - TRE

FCL.1005.TRE TRE - Privileges and conditions

FCL.1010.TRE TRE - Prerequisites

TRE(A) and TRE(PL). The privileges of a TRE for aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft are to conduct:(a)

skill tests for the initial issue of type ratings for aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft, asapplicable;

(1)

proficiency checks for revalidation or renewal of type ratings, EIR and IRs;(2)

skill tests for ATPL(A) issue;(3)

skill tests for MPL issue, provided that the examiner has complied with the requirements inFCL.925;

(4)

assessments of competence (AoC) for the issue, revalidation or renewal of a TRI or SFIcertificate in the applicable aircraft category, provided that the examiner has completed atleast 3 years as a TRE.

(5)

TRE(H). The privileges of a TRE(H) are to conduct:(b)

skill tests and proficiency checks for the issue, revalidation or renewal of helicopter typeratings;

(1)

proficiency checks for the revalidation or renewal of IRs, or for the extension of the IR(H) fromsingle-engine helicopters to multi-engine helicopters, provided the TRE(H) holds a valid IR(H);

(2)

skill tests for ATPL(H) issue;(3)

assessments of competence (AoC) for the issue, revalidation or renewal of a TRI(H) or SFI(H)certificate, provided that the examiner has completed at least 3 years as a TRE.

(4)

TRE(A) and TRE(PL). Applicants for a TRE certificate for aeroplanes and powered- lift aircraft shall:(a)

in the case of multi-pilot aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft, have completed 1500 hours offlight time as a pilot of multi-pilot aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft, as applicable, of which atleast 500 hours shall be as PIC;

(1)

in the case of single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes, have completed 500 hoursof flight time as a pilot of single-pilot aeroplanes, of which at least 200 hours shall be as PIC;

(2)

hold a CPL or ATPL and a TRI certificate for the applicable type;(3)

for the initial issue of an TRE certificate, have completed at least 50 hours of flight instructionas a TRI, FI or SFI in the applicable type or an FSTD representing that type.

(4)

TRE(H). Applicants for a TRE (H) certificate for helicopters shall:(b)

hold a TRI(H) certificate or, in the case of single-pilot single-engine helicopters, a valid FI(H)certificate, for the applicable type;

(1)

for the initial issue of a TRE certificate, have completed 50 hours of flight instruction as a TRI,(2)



FI or SFI in the applicable type or an FSTD representing that type;

in the case of multi-pilot helicopters, hold a CPL(H) or ATPL(H) and have completed 1500hours of flight as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters, of which at least 500 hours shall be as PIC;

(3)

in the case of single-pilot multi-engine helicopters:(4)

have completed 1000 hours of flight as pilot on helicopters, of which at least 500hours shall be as PIC;

(i)

hold a CPL(H) or ATPL(H) and, when applicable, a valid IR(H);(ii)

in the case of single-pilot single-engine helicopters:(5)

have completed 750 hours of flight as a pilot on helicopters, of which at least 500hours shall be as PIC;

(i)

hold a CPL(H) or ATPL(H).(ii)

Before the privileges of a TRE(H) are extended from single-pilot multi-engine to multi-pilotmulti-engine privileges on the same type of helicopter, the holder shall have at least 100hours in multi-pilot operations on this type.

(6)

In the case of applicants for the first multi-pilot multi-engine TRE certificate, the 1500 hours offlight experience on multi-pilot helicopters required in (b)(3) may be considered to have beenmet if they have completed the 500 hours of flight time as PIC on a multi-pilot helicopter of thesame type.

(7)



SECTION 4 Specific requirements for Class Rating Examiner - CRE

FCL.1005.CRE CRE - Privileges

The privileges of a CRE are to conduct, for single-pilot aeroplanes, except for single- pilot high performancecomplex aeroplanes:

FCL.1010.CRE CRE - Prerequisites

Applicants for a CRE certificate shall:

skill tests for the issue of class and type ratings;(a)

proficiency checks for:(b)

revalidation or renewal of class and type ratings;(1)

revalidation and renewal of IRs, provided that the CRE complies with the requirements inFCL.1010.IRE(a).

(2)

revalidation and renewal of EIRs, provided that the CRE has completed at least 1 500 hoursas a pilot on aeroplanes and complies with the requirements in FCL.1010.IRE(a)(2).

(3)

skill tests for the extension of LAPL(A) privileges to another class or variant of aeroplane.(c)

hold a CPL(A), MPL(A) or ATPL(A) with single-pilot privileges or have held it and hold a PPL(A);(a)

hold a CRI certificate for the applicable class or type;(b)

have completed 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes.(c)



SECTION 5 Specific requirements for Instrument Rating Examiner - IRE

FCL.1005.IRE IRE - Privileges

The privileges of the holder of an IRE certificate are to conduct skill tests for the issue, and proficiency checksfor the revalidation or renewal of EIRs or IRs.

FCL.1010.IRE IRE - Prerequisites

IRE(A). Applicants for an IRE certificate for aeroplanes shall hold an IRI(A) and have completed:(a)

2000 hours of flight time as a pilot of aeroplanes; and(1)

450 hours of flight time under IFR, of which 250 hours shall be as an instructor.(2)

IRE(H). Applicants for an IRE certificate for helicopters shall hold an IRI(H) and have completed:(b)

2000 hours of flight time as a pilot on helicopters; and(1)

300 hours of instrument flight time on helicopters, of which 200 hours shall be as an instructor.(2)

IRE(As). Applicants for an IRE certificate for airships shall hold an IRI(As) and have completed:(c)

500 hours of flight time as a pilot on airships; and(1)

100 hours of instrument flight time on airships, of which 50 hours shall be as an instructor.(2)



SECTION 6 Specific requirements for Synthetic Flight Examiner - SFE

FCL.1005.SFE SFE - Privileges and conditions

FCL.1010.SFE SFE - Prerequisites

SFE(A) and SFE(PL). The privileges of an SFE on aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft are to conduct inan FFS:

(a)

skill tests and proficiency checks for the issue, revalidation or renewal of type ratings for multi-pilot aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft, as applicable;

(1)

proficiency checks for revalidation or renewal of IRs, provided that the SFE complies with therequirements in FCL.1010.IRE for the applicable aircraft category;

(2)

skill tests for ATPL(A) issue;(3)

skill tests for MPL issue, provided that the examiner has complied with the requirements inFCL.925;

(4)

assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of an SFI certificate in therelevant aircraft category, provided that the examiner has completed at least 3 years as anSFE.

(5)

SFE(H). The privileges of an SFE for helicopters are to conduct in an FFS:(b)

skill tests and proficiency checks for the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings; and(1)

proficiency checks for the revalidation and renewal of IRs, provided that the SFE complieswith the requirements in FCL.1010.IRE(b);

(2)

skill tests for ATPL(H) issue;(3)

skill tests and proficiency checks for the issue, revalidation or renewal of an SFI(H) certificate,provided that the examiner has completed at least 3 years as an SFE.

(4)

SFE(A). Applicants for an SFE certificate for aeroplanes shall:(a)

hold or have held an ATPL(A), a class or type rating and an SFI(A) certificate for theapplicable type of aeroplane;

(1)

have at least 1500 hours of flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot aeroplanes;(2)

for the initial issue of an SFE certificate, have completed at least 50 hours of synthetic flightinstruction as an SFI(A) on the applicable type.

(3)

SFE(H). Applicants for an SFE certificate for helicopters shall:(b)

hold or have held an ATPL(H), a type rating and an SFI(H) certificate for the applicable type ofhelicopter;

(1)

have at least 1000 hours of flight time as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters;(2)

for the initial issue of an SFE certificate, have completed at least 50 hours of synthetic flightinstruction as an SFI(H) on the applicable type.

(3)



SECTION 7 Specific requirements for the flight instructor examiner - FIE

FCL.1005.FIE FIE - Privileges and conditions

FCL.1010.FIE FIE - Prerequisites

FIE(A). The privileges of an FIE on aeroplanes are to conduct assessments of competence for theissue, revalidation or renewal of certificates for FI(A), CRI(A), IRI(A) and TRI(A) on single-pilotaeroplanes, provided that the relevant instructor certificate is held.

(a)

FIE(H). The privileges of an FIE on helicopters are to conduct assessments of competence for theissue, revalidation or renewal of certificates for FI(H), IRI(H) and TRI(H) on single-pilot helicopters,provided that the relevant instructor certificate is held.

(b)

FIE(As), (S), (B). The privileges of an FIE on sailplanes, powered sailplanes, balloons and airships areto conduct assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of instructor certificateson the applicable aircraft category, provided that the relevant instructor certificate is held.

(c)

FIE(A). Applicants for an FIE certificate for aeroplanes shall: in case of applicants wishing to conductassessments of competence:

(a)

hold the relevant instructor certificate, as applicable;(1)

have completed 2000 hours of flight time as a pilot on aeroplanes or TMGs; and(2)

have at least 100 hours of flight time instructing applicants for an instructor certificate.(3)

FIE(H). Applicants for an FIE certificate for helicopters shall:(b)

hold the relevant instructor certificate, as applicable;(1)

have completed 2000 hours of flight time as pilot on helicopters;(2)

have at least 100 hours of flight time instructing applicants for an instructor certificate.(3)

FIE(As). Applicants for an FIE certificate for airships shall:(c)

have completed 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on airships;(1)

have at least 20 hours of flight time instructing applicants for an FI(AS) certificate;(2)

hold the relevant instructor certificate.(3)

FIE(S). Applicants for an FIE certificate for sailplanes shall:(d)

hold the relevant instructor certificate;(1)

have completed 500 hours of flight time as a pilot on sailplanes or powered sailplanes;(2)

have completed:(3)

for applicants wishing to conduct assessments of competence on TMGs, 10 hours or30 take-offs instructing applicants for an instructor certificate in TMGs;

(i)

in all other cases, 10 hours or 30 launches instructing applicants for an instructor(ii)



certificate.

FIE(B). Applicants for an FIE certificate for balloons shall:(e)

hold the relevant instructor certificate;(1)

have completed 350 hours of flight time as a pilot on balloons;(2)

have completed 10 hours instructing applicants for an instructor certificate(3)



APPENDICES TO PART-FCL

APPENDIX 1 to ANNEX I CREDITING OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

A. CREDITING OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE FOR THE ISSUE OF A PILOT LICENCE - BRIDGEINSTRUCTION AND EXAMINATION REQUIREMENTS

1. LAPL, PPL, BPL and SPL

1.1. For the issue of an LAPL, the holder of an LAPL in another category of aircraft shall be fully creditedwith theoretical knowledge on the common subjects established in FCL.120(a).

1.2. Without prejudice to the paragraph above, for the issue of an LAPL, PPL, BPL or SPL, the holder of alicence in another category of aircraft shall receive theoretical knowledge instruction and pass theoreticalknowledge examinations to the appropriate level in the following subjects:

- Principles of Flight,

- Operational Procedures,

- Flight Performance and Planning,

- Aircraft General Knowledge,

- Navigation.

1.3. For the issue of a PPL, BPL or SPL, the holder of an LAPL in the same category of aircraft shall becredited in full towards the theoretical knowledge instruction and examination requirements.

1.4. Notwithstanding paragraph 1.2, for the issue of an LAPL(A), the holder of an LAPL(S) with TMGextension shall demonstrate an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the single-engine pistonaeroplane-land class in accordance with FCL.135.A(a)(2).’

2. CPL

2.1. An applicant for a CPL holding a CPL in another category of aircraft shall have received theoreticalknowledge bridge instruction on an approved course according to the differences identified between theCPL syllabi for different aircraft categories.

2.2. The applicant shall pass theoretical knowledge examinations as defined in this Part for the followingsubjects in the appropriate aircraft category:

021 - Aircraft General Knowledge: Airframe and Systems, Electrics, Powerplant,Emergency Equipment,

022 - Aircraft General Knowledge: Instrumentation, 032/034 - Performance Aeroplanes orHelicopters, as applicable, 070 - Operational Procedures, and

080 - Principles of Flight

2.3. An applicant for a CPL having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for an IR in the samecategory of aircraft is credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the following subjects:


- Meteorology.

3. ATPL



3.1. An applicant for an ATPL holding an ATPL in another category of aircraft shall have receivedtheoretical knowledge bridge instruction at an ATO according to the differences identified between theATPL syllabi for different aircraft categories.

3.2. The applicant shall pass theoretical knowledge examinations as defined in this Part for the followingsubjects in the appropriate aircraft category:

021 - Aircraft General Knowledge: Airframe and Systems, Electrics, Powerplant, EmergencyEquipment,

022 - Aircraft General Knowledge: Instrumentation,

032/034 - Performance Aeroplanes or Helicopters, as applicable,

070 - Operational Procedures, and

080 - Principles of Flight

3.3. An applicant for an ATPL(A) having passed the relevant theoretical examination for a CPL(A) iscredited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in subject VFR Communications.

3.4. An applicant for an ATPL(H), having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for a CPL(H) iscredited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the following subjects:

- Air Law,

- Principles of Flight (Helicopter),

- VFR Communications.

3.5. An applicant for an ATPL(A) having passed the relevant theoretical examination for an IR(A) iscredited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in subject IFR Communications.

3.6. An applicant for an ATPL(H) with an IR(H), having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for aCPL(H) is credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the following subjects:

- Principles of Flight (Helicopter),

- VFR Communications.

4. IR

4.1. An applicant for an IR or an EIR having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for a CPL in thesame aircraft category is credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the followingsubjects:


- Meteorology.

4.2. An applicant for an IR(H) having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for an ATPL(H) VFR isrequired to pass the following examination subjects:

- Air Law,

- Flight Planning and Flight Monitoring,

- Radio Navigation,



- IFR Communications.



APPENDIX 2 TO ANNEX I Language proficiency assessment

Language Proficiency Rating Scale - Expert, extended and operational level

LEVEL PRONUNCIATION STRUCTURE VOCABULARY FLUENCY COMPREHENSION INTERACTIONS

Expert

(Level 6)

Pronunciation,stress, rhythm,and intonation,though possiblyinfluenced by thefirst language orregional variation,almost neverinterfere with easeof understanding.

Both basic andcomplexgrammaticalstructures andsentencepatterns areconsistently wellcontrolled.

Vocabularyrange andaccuracy aresufficient tocommunicateeffectively on awide variety offamiliar andunfamiliartopics.

Vocabulary isidiomatic,nuanced andsensitive toregister.

Able to speak atlength with anatural,effortless flow.Varies speechflow for stylisticeffect, e.g. toemphasize apoint.

Usesappropriatediscoursemarkers andconnectorsspontaneously.

Comprehension isconsistentlyaccurate in nearlyall contexts andincludescomprehension oflinguistic andcultural subtleties.

Interacts with ease innearly all situations. Issensitive to verbal andnon-verbal cues, andresponds to themappropriately.

Extended

(Level 5)

Pronunciation,stress, rhythm,and intonation,though influencedby the firstlanguage orregional variation,rarely interferewith ease ofunderstanding.

Basicgrammaticalstructures andsentencepatterns areconsistently wellcontrolled.

Complexstructures areattempted butwith errorswhichsometimesinterfere withmeaning.

Vocabularyrange andaccuracy aresufficient tocommunicateeffectively oncommon,concrete, andwork-relatedtopics.

Paraphrasesconsistentlyandsuccessfully.Vocabulary issometimesidiomatic.

Able to speak atlength withrelative ease onfamiliar topics,but may not varyspeech flow asa stylisticdevice. Canmake use ofappropriatediscoursemarkers orconnectors.

Comprehension isaccurate oncommon, concrete,and work-relatedtopics and mostlyaccurate when thespeaker isconfronted with alinguistic orsituationalcomplication or anunexpected turn ofevents.

Is able tocomprehend arange of speechvarieties (dialectand/or accent) orregisters

Responses areimmediate, appropriate,and informative.

Manages the speaker/listener relationshipeffectively.



Operational

(Level 4)

Pronunciation,stress, rhythm,and intonation areinfluenced by thefirst language orregional variationbut onlysometimesinterfere with easeof understanding.

Basicgrammaticalstructures andsentencepatterns areused creativelyand are usuallywell controlled.

Errors mayoccur,particularly inunusual orunexpectedcircumstances,but rarelyinterfere withmeaning.

Vocabularyrange andaccuracy areusuallysufficient tocommunicateeffectively oncommon,concrete, andwork-relatedtopics.

Can oftenparaphrasesuccessfullywhen lackingvocabularyparticularly inunusual orunexpectedcircumstances.

Producesstretches oflanguage at anappropriatetempo.

There may beoccasional lossof fluency ontransition fromrehearsed orformulaicspeech tospontaneousinteraction, butthis does notprevent effectivecommunication.Can makelimited use ofdiscoursemarkers andconnectors.

Fillers are notdistracting.

Comprehension ismostly accurate oncommon, concrete,and work-relatedtopics when theaccent or varietyused is sufficientlyintelligible for aninternationalcommunity ofusers.

When the speakeris confronted with alinguistic orsituationalcomplication or anunexpected turn ofevents,comprehensionmay be slower orrequire clarificationstrategies.

Responses are usuallyimmediate, appropriate,and informative.

Initiates and maintainsexchanges even whendealing with anunexpected turn ofevents.

Deals adequately withapparentmisunderstandings bychecking, confirming, orclarifying.

Note: The initial text of Appendix 2 has been transferred to AMC, see also the Explanatory Note.



APPENDIX 3 to ANNEX I TRAINING COURSES FOR THE ISSUE OF A CPL AND AN ATPL

1. This Appendix describes the requirements for the different types of training coursed for the issue of a CPLand an ATPL, with and without an IR.

2. An applicant wishing to transfer to another ATO during a training course shall apply to the authority for aformal assessment of the further hours of training required.

A. ATP integrated course - Aeroplanes

GENERAL

1. The aim of the ATP(A) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to enable themto operate as co-pilot on multi-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes in commercial air transport and to obtain theCPL(A)/IR.

2. An applicant wishing to undertake an ATP(A) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages inone continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(A) or PPL(H)issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(A) or PPL(H) entrant, 50 %of the hours flown prior to the course shall be credited, up to a maximum of 40 hours flying experience, or 45hours if an aeroplane night rating has been obtained, of which up to 20 hours may count towards therequirement for dual instruction flight time.

4. The course shall comprise:

(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(A) knowledge level;

(b) visual and instrument flying training; and

(c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot aeroplanes.

5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire ATP(A) course may apply to the authority for thetheoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR if the applicablerequirements are met.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE

6. An ATP(A) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 750 hours of instruction.

7. The MCC course shall comprise at least 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises.

THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION

8. An applicant shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder ofan ATPL(A).

FLYING TRAINING

9. The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 195 hours, to include all



progress tests, of which up to 55 hours for the entire course may be instrument ground time. Within the total of195 hours, applicants shall complete at least:

(a) 95 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 55 hours may be instrument ground time;

(b) 70 hours as PIC, including VFR flight and instrument flight time as student pilot- in-command (SPIC).The instrument flight time as SPIC shall only be counted as PIC flight time up to a maximum of 20 hours;

(c) 50 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departureshall be made;

(d) 5 hours flight time shall be completed at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which will includeat least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings; and

(e) 115 hours of instrument time comprising, at least:

(1) 20 hours as SPIC;

(2) 15 hours MCC, for which an FFS or FNPT II may be used;

(3) 50 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to:

(i) 25 hours may be instrument ground time in a FNPT I; or

(ii) 40 hours may be instrument ground time in a FNPT II, FTD 2 or FFS, of which up to 10 hoursmay be conducted in an FNPT I. An applicant holding a course completion certificate for theBasic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the requiredinstrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited;

(f) 5 hours to be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least 4 persons that has avariable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.

SKILLS

10. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill test on either a single-engine or a multi-engine aeroplane and the IR skill test on a multi-engine aeroplane.

B. ATP modular course - Aeroplanes

1. Applicants for an ATPL(A) who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular course shall:

(a) hold at least a PPL(A) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention; and complete atleast the following hours of theoretical knowledge instruction:

(1) for applicants holding a PPL(A): 650 hours;

(2) for applicants holding a CPL(A): 400 hours;

(3) for applicants holding an IR(A): 500 hours;

(4) for applicants holding a CPL(A) and an IR(A): 250 hours.

The theoretical knowledge instruction shall be completed before the skill test for the ATPL(A) is taken



C. CPL/IR integrated course - Aeroplanes

GENERAL

1. The aim of the CPL(A) and IR(A) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary tooperate single-pilot single-engine or multi-engine aeroplanes in commercial air transport and to obtain theCPL(A)/IR.

2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(A)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages inone continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.



(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) and IR knowledge level; and

(b) visual and instrument flying training.

5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL/IR(A) course may apply to the authority for thetheoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR if the applicablerequirements are met.


6. A CPL(A)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 500 hours of instruction.


7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of aCPL(A) and an IR.

FLYING TRAINING

8. The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 180 hours, to include allprogress tests, of which up to 40 hours for the entire course may be instrument ground time. Within the total of180 hours, applicants shall complete at least:


(b) 70 hours as PIC, including VFR flight and instrument flight time which may be flown as SPIC. Theinstrument flight time as SPIC shall only be counted as PIC flight time up to a maximum of 20 hours;


(d) 5 hours flight time shall be completed at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall



include at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings; and

(e) 100 hours of instrument time comprising, at least:

(1) 20 hours as SPIC; and

(2) 50 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to:

(i) 25 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I; or

(ii) 40 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT II, FTD 2 or FFS, of which up to 10hours may be conducted in an FNPT I. An applicant holding a course completion certificate forthe Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the requiredinstrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited;

(f) 5 hours to be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least 4 persons that has avariable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.

SKILL TESTS

9. Upon completion of the related flying training the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill test and the IR skill teston either a multi-engine aeroplane or a single-engine aeroplane.

D. CPL integrated course - Aeroplanes

GENERAL

1. The aim of the CPL(A) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue ofa CPL(A).

2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(A) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages inone continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.



(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) knowledge level; and


5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(A) course may apply to the authority for thetheoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges, if the applicablerequirements are met.


6. A CPL(A) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 350 hours of instruction.




7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of aCPL(A).

FLYING TRAINING

8. The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 150 hours, to include allprogress tests, of which up to 5 hours for the entire course may be instrument ground time. Within the total of150 hours, applicants shall complete at least:


(b) 70 hours as PIC;


(d) 5 hours flight time shall be completed at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shallinclude at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings;

(e) 10 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time in anFNPT I, FTD 2, FNPT II or FFS. An applicant holding a course completion certificate for the BasicInstrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instructiontime. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited;

(f) 5 hours to be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of at least four persons that has avariable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.

SKILL TEST

9. Upon completion of the flying training the applicant shall take the CPL(A) skill test on a single-engine or amultiengine aeroplane.

E. CPL modular course - Aeroplanes

GENERAL

1. The aim of the CPL(A) modular course is to train PPL(A) holders to the level of proficiency necessary for theissue of a CPL(A).

2. Before commencing a CPL(A) modular course an applicant shall be the holder of a PPL(A) issued inaccordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention.

3. Before commencing the flight training the applicant shall:

(a) have completed 150 hours flight time;

(b) have complied with the prerequisites for the issue of a class or type rating for multi-engine aeroplanesin accordance with Subpart H, if a multi-engine aeroplane is to be used on the skill test.

4. An applicant wishing to undertake a modular CPL(A) course shall complete all the flight instructional stages in



one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical knowledge instruction may be givenat an ATO conducting theoretical knowledge instruction only.


(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) knowledge level; and



6. An approved CPL(A) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of instruction.


7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of aCPL(A).

FLYING TRAINING

8. Applicants without an IR shall be given at least 25 hours dual flight instruction, including 10 hours ofinstrument instruction of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time in a BITD, an FNPT I or II, an FTD2 or an FFS.

9. Applicants holding a valid IR(A) shall be fully credited towards the dual instrument instruction time. Applicantsholding a valid IR(H) shall be credited up to 5 hours of the dual instrument instruction time, in which case atleast 5 hours dual instrument instruction time shall be given in an aeroplane. An applicant holding a CourseCompletion Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards therequired instrument instruction time.

10.

(a) Applicants with a valid IR shall be given at least 15 hours dual visual flight instruction.

(b) Applicants without a night rating aeroplane shall be given additionally at least 5 hours night flightinstruction, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at least 1 hour of cross-countrynavigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings.

11. At least 5 hours of the flight instruction shall be carried out in an aeroplane certificated for the carriage of atleast 4 persons and have a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.

EXPERIENCE

12. The applicant for a CPL(A) shall have completed at least 200 hours flight time, including at least:

(a) 100 hours as PIC, of which 20 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, which shall include a VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two aerodromesdifferent from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;

(b) 5 hours of flight time shall be completed at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shallinclude at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo take-offs and 5 solo full stop landings; and



(c) 10 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time in anFNPT I, or FNPT II or FFS. An applicant holding a course completion certificate for the Basic InstrumentFlight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hoursdone in a BITD shall not be credited;

(d) 6 hours of flight time shall be completed in a multi-engine aeroplane, if a multi- engine aeroplane isused for the skill test.

(e) Hours as PIC of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 200 hours flight time, in the followingcases:

(i) 30 hours in helicopter, if the applicant holds a PPL(H); or

(ii) 100 hours in helicopters, if the applicant holds a CPL(H); or

(iii) 30 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or

(iv) 30 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a PPL(As); or

(v) 60 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a CPL(As).

SKILL TEST

13. Upon completion of the flying training and relevant experience requirements the applicant shall take theCPL(A) skill test on either a single-engine or a multi- engine aeroplane.

F. ATP/IR integrated course - Helicopters

GENERAL

1. The aim of the ATP(H)/IR integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to enablethem to operate as co-pilot on multi-pilot multi- engine helicopters in commercial air transport and to obtain theCPL(H)/IR.

2. An applicant wishing to undertake an ATP(H)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stagesin one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H) issued inaccordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(H) entrant, 50 % of the relevantexperience shall be credited, up to a maximum of:

(a) 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or

(b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has beenobtained.


(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(H) and IR knowledge level;

(b) visual and instrument flying training; and

(c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot helicopters.

5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire ATP(H)/IR course may apply to the authority for thetheoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR, if the applicable



requirements are met.


6. An ATP(H)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 750 hours of instruction.

7. The MCC course shall comprise at least 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction exercises.


8. An applicant shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder ofan ATPL(H) and an IR.

FLYING TRAINING

9. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 195 hours, to include all progress tests. Within the total of195 hours, applicants shall complete at least:

(a) 140 hours of dual instruction, of which:

(1) 75 hours visual instruction may include:

(i) 30 hours in a helicopter FFS, level C/D; or

(ii) 25 hours in a FTD 2,3; or

(iii) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or

(iv) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;

(2) 50 hours instrument instruction may include:

(i) up to 20 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3 or FNPT II/III; or

(ii) 10 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT 1 or an aeroplane;

(3) 15 hours MCC, for which a helicopter FFS or helicopter FTD 2,3(MCC) or FNPT II/III(MCC) maybe used.

If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the helicopter FFS used for thevisual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the helicopter FNPT II/III;

(b) 55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo nightshall be made;

(c) 50 hours of cross-country flight, including at least 10 hours of cross-country flight as SPIC including aVFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM) in the course of which landings at two differentaerodromes from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;

(d) 5 hours flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instructionincluding at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include atake-off and a landing;



(e) 50 hours of dual instrument time comprising:

(i) 10 hours basic instrument instruction time; and

(ii) 40 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi- engine IFR-certificatedhelicopter.

SKILL TESTS

10. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test on a multi-enginehelicopter and the IR skill test on an IFR certificated multi-engine helicopter and shall comply with therequirements for MCC training.

G. ATP integrated course - Helicopters

GENERAL

1. The aim of the ATP(H) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to enable themto operate as co-pilot on multi-pilot multi-engine helicopters limited to VFR privileges in commercial air transportand to obtain the CPL(H).

2. An applicant wishing to undertake an ATP(H) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages inone continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H) issued inaccordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of a PPL(H) entrant, 50 % of the relevantexperience shall be credited, up to a maximum of:




(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(H) knowledge level;

(b) visual and basic instrument flying training; and

(c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot helicopters.

5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire ATP(H) course may apply to the authority for thetheoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges, if the applicablerequirements are met.


6. An ATP(H) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 650 hours of instruction.

7. The MCC course shall comprise at least 20 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction exercises.




8. An applicant shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder ofan ATPL (H).

FLYING TRAINING

9. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 150 hours, to include all progress tests. Within the total of150 hours, applicants shall complete at least:


(i) 75 hours visual instruction may include:

(1) 30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D; or

(2) 25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2,3; or

(3) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or

(4) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG;

(ii) 10 hours basic instrument instruction may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or anaeroplane;

(iii) 10 hours MCC, for which a helicopter: helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3(MCC) or FNPT II/III(MCC) maybe used. If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the helicopter FFS usedfor the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the helicopter FNPT II/III;


(c) 50 hours of cross-country flight, including at least 10 hours of cross-country flight as SPIC, including aVFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM) in the course of which landings at two differentaerodromes from the aerodrome of departure shall be made;

(d) 5 hours flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instructionincluding at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include atake-off and a landing.

SKILL TESTS

10. Upon completion of the related flying training the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test on a multi-enginehelicopter and comply with MCC requirements.

H. ATP modular course - Helicopters

1. Applicants for an ATPL(H) who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular course shallhold at least a PPL(H) and complete at least the following hours of instruction within a period of 18 months:

(a) for applicants holding a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention: 550hours;



(b) for applicants holding a CPL(H): 300 hours.

2. Applicants for an ATPL(H)/IR who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular course shallhold at least a PPL(H) and complete at least the following hours of instruction:

(a) for applicants holding a PPL(H): 650 hours;

(b) for applicants holding a CPL(H): 400 hours;

(c) for applicants holding an IR(H): 500 hours;

(d) for applicants holding a CPL(H) and an IR(H): 250 hours

I. CPL/IR integrated course - Helicopters

GENERAL

1. The aim of the CPL(H)/IR integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operatesingle-pilot multi-engine helicopters and to obtain the CPL(H)/IR multi-engine helicopter.

2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(H)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages inone continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H) issued inaccordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of an entrant holding a PPL(H), 50 % of therelevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of:




(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) and IR knowledge level, and the initial multi-enginehelicopter type rating; and


5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(H)/IR course may apply to the authority for thetheoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR, if the applicablerequirements are met.


6. A CPL(H)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 500 hours of instruction.


7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of aCPL(H) and an IR.



FLYING TRAINING

8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 180 hours including all progress tests. Within the 180hours, applicants shall complete at least:


(i) 75 hours visual instruction, which may include:





(ii) 50 hours instrument instruction which may include:

(1) up to 20 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3, or FNPT II, III; or

(2) 10 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or an aeroplane. If the helicopter used for the flyingtraining is of a different type from the FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shallbe limited to that allocated for the FNPT II/III;


(c) 10 hours dual cross-country flying;

(d) 10 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100NM) in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes from the aerodrome of departureshall be made;

(e) 5 hours of flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instructionincluding at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include atake-off and a landing;

(f) 50 hours of dual instrument time comprising:


(ii) 40 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR-certificatedhelicopter.

SKILL TEST

9. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test on either a multi-engine or a single-engine helicopter and the IR skill test on an IFR-certificated multi-engine helicopter.

J. CPL integrated course - Helicopters

GENERAL

1. The aim of the CPL(H) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue ofa CPL(H).



2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(H) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages inone continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(H) issued inaccordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of an entrant holding a PPL(H), 50 % of therelevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of:


(b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction if a helicopter night rating has been obtained.


(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) knowledge level; and


5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(H) course may apply to the authority for thetheoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges, if the applicablerequirements are met.


6. An approved CPL(H) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 350 hours of instruction or 200hours if the applicant is the holder of a PPL.


7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of aCPL(H).

FLYING TRAINING

8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 135 hours, to include all progress tests, of which up to 5hours may be instrument ground time. Within the 135 hours total, applicants shall complete at least:


(i) up to 75 hours may be visual instruction, and may include:





(ii) up to 10 hours may be instrument instruction, and may include 5 hours in at least a helicopterFNPT I or an aeroplane. If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFSused for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the FNPT II/III;

(b) 50 hours as PIC, of which 35 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours solo day and 1 hour solo night



shall be made;


(d) 10 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100NM) in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes from the aerodrome of departureshall be made;

(e) 5 hours flight time in helicopters shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instructionincluding at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include atake-off and a landing;

(f) 10 hours of instrument dual instruction time, including at least 5 hours in a helicopter.

SKILL TEST

9. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(H) skill test.

K. CPL modular course - Helicopters

GENERAL

1. The aim of the CPL(H) modular course is to train PPL(H) holders to the level of proficiency necessary for theissue of a CPL(H).

2. Before commencing a CPL(H) modular course an applicant shall be the holder of a PPL(H) issued inaccordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention.

3. Before commencing the flight training the applicant shall:

(a) have completed 155 hours flight time, including 50 hours as PIC in helicopters of which 10 hours shallbe cross-country. Hours as PIC of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 155 hours flight timeas prescribed in paragraph 11 of Section K;’

(b) have complied with FCL.725 and FCL.720.H if a multi-engine helicopter is to be used on the skill test.

4. An applicant wishing to undertake a modular CPL(H) course shall complete all the flight instructional stagesin one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical knowledge instruction may begiven at an ATO that conducts theoretical knowledge instruction only.


(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) knowledge level; and



6. An approved CPL(H) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of instruction.




7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of aCPL(H).

FLYING TRAINING

8. Applicants without an IR shall be given at least 30 hours dual flight instruction, of which:

(a) 20 hours visual instruction, which may include 5 hours in a helicopter FFS or FTD 2,3 or FNPT II, III;and

(b) 10 hours instrument instruction, which may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FTD 1 or FNPT I oraeroplane.

9. Applicants holding a valid IR(H) shall be fully credited towards the dual instrument instruction time. Applicantsholding a valid IR(A) shall complete at least 5 hours of the dual instrument instruction time in a helicopter.

10. Applicants without a night rating helicopter shall be given additionally at least 5 hours night flight instructioncomprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo nightcircuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing.

EXPERIENCE

11. The applicant for a CPL(H) shall have completed at least 185 hours flight time, including 50 hours as PIC, ofwhich 10 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM),in the course of which full stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall bemade. Hours as pilot-in-command of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 185 hours flight time, inthe following cases:

(a) 20 hours in aeroplanes, if the applicant holds a PPL(A); or

(b) 50 hours in aeroplanes, if the applicant holds a CPL(A); or

(c) 10 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or

(d) 20 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a PPL(As); or

(e) 50 hours in airships, if the applicant holds a CPL(As).

SKILL TEST

12. Upon completion of the related flying training and relevant experience, the applicant shall take the CPL(H)skill test.

L. CPL/IR integrated course - Airships

GENERAL

1. The aim of the CPL(As)/IR integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operateairships and to obtain the CPL(As)/IR.

2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(As)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stagesin one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.



3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(As), PPL(A) orPPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of an entrant holding aPPL(As), PPL(A) or PPL(H) shall be credited up to a maximum of:


(b) 15 hours, of which up to 7 hours may be dual instruction, if an airship night rating has been obtained.


(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) and IR knowledge level, and the initial airship type rating;and


5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL/IR(As) course may apply to the authority for thetheoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR, if the applicablerequirements are met.


6. A CPL(As)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 500 hours of instruction.


7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of aCPL(As) and an IR.

FLYING TRAINING

8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 80 hours including all progress tests. Within the 80 hours,applicants shall complete at least:


(i) 30 hours visual instruction, which may include:

(1) 12 hours in an airship FFS; or

(2) 10 hours in an airship FTD; or

(3) 8 hours in an airship FNPT II/III; or

(4) 8 hours in an aeroplane, helicopter or TMG;

(ii) 30 hours instrument instruction which may include:

(1) up to 12 hours in an airship FFS or FTD or FNPT II, III; or

(2) 6 hours in at least a airship FTD 1 or FNPT I or aeroplane. If the airship used for the flyingtraining is of a different type from the FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shallbe limited to 8 hours;




(c) 5 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 90 km (50 NM) inthe course of which two full stop landings at the destination aerodrome shall be made;

(d) 5 hours flight time in airships shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instructionincluding at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall includetake-off and landing;

(e) 30 hours of dual instrument time comprising:


(ii) 20 hours IR Training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR-certificatedairship.

SKILL TEST

9. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(As) skill test on either a multi-engine or a single-engine airship and the IR skill test on an IFR-certificated multi-engine airship.

M. CPL integrated course - Airships

GENERAL

1. The aim of the CPL(As) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary for the issue ofa CPL(AS).

2. An applicant wishing to undertake a CPL(As) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages inone continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO.

3. An applicant may be admitted to training either as an ab-initio entrant, or as a holder of a PPL(As), PPL(A) orPPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of an entrant holding aPPL(As), PPL(A) or PPL(H) shall be credited up to a maximum of:


(b) 15 hours, of which up to 7 hours may be dual instruction if a airship night rating has been obtained.


(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) knowledge level; and


5. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire CPL(As) course may apply to the authority for thetheoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges, if the applicablerequirements are met.


6. An approved CPL(As) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 350 hours of instruction or 200



hours if the applicant is a PPL holder.


7. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of aCPL(As).

FLYING TRAINING

8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 50 hours, to include all progress tests, of which up to 5hours may be instrument ground time. Within the 50 hours total, applicants shall complete at least:


(b) 20 hours as PIC;


(d) 5 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 90 km (50 NM) inthe course of which two full stop landings at the destination aerodrome shall be made;

(e) 5 hours flight time in airships shall be completed at night comprising 3 hours of dual instructionincluding at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo night circuits. Each circuit shall includetake-off and landing;

(f) 10 hours of instrument dual instruction time, including at least 5 hours in an airship.

SKILL TEST

9. Upon completion of the related flying training, the applicant shall take the CPL(As) skill test.

N. CPL modular course - Airships

GENERAL

1. The aim of the CPL(As) modular course is to train PPL(As) holders to the level of proficiency necessary forthe issue of a CPL(As).

2. Before commencing a CPL(As) modular course an applicant shall:

(a) hold a PPL(As) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention;

(b) have completed 200 hours flight time as a pilot on airships, including 100 hours as PIC, of which 50hours shall be cross-country.

3. An applicant wishing to undertake a modular CPL(As) course shall complete all the flight instructional stagesin one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical knowledge instruction may begiven at an ATO that conducts theoretical knowledge instruction only.




(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) knowledge level; and



5. An approved CPL(As) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of instruction.


6. An applicant shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to the holder of aCPL(As).

FLYING TRAINING

7. Applicants without an IR shall be given at least 20 hours dual flight instruction, of which:

(a) 10 hours visual instruction, which may include 5 hours in an airship FFS or FTD 2,3 or FNPT II, III; and

(b) 10 hours instrument instruction, which may include 5 hours in at least an airship FTD 1 or FNPT I oraeroplane.

8. Applicants holding a valid IR(As) shall be fully credited towards the dual instrument instruction time.Applicants holding a valid IR in another category of aircraft shall complete at least 5 hours of the dual instrumentinstruction time in an airship.

9. Applicants without a night rating airship shall be given additionally at least 5 hours night flight instructioncomprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and 5 solo nightcircuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing.

EXPERIENCE

10. The applicant for a CPL(As) shall have completed at least 250 hours flight time in airships, including 125hours as PIC, of which 50 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including a VFR cross-country flight of at least 90km (50 NM), in the course of which a full stop landing at destination aerodrome. Hours as PIC of othercategories of aircraft may count towards the 185 hours flight time, in the following cases:

(a) 30 hours in aeroplanes or helicopters, if the applicant holds a PPL(A) or PPL(H) respectively; or

(b) 60 hours in aeroplanes or helicopters, if the applicant holds a CPL(A) or CPL(H) respectively; or

(c) 10 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or

(d) 10 hours in balloons.

SKILL TEST

11. Upon completion of the related flying training and relevant experience, the applicant shall take the CPL(As)skill test.



APPENDIX 4 to ANNEX I SKILL TEST FOR THE ISSUE OF A CPL

A. General

1. An applicant for a skill test for the CPL shall have received instruction on the same class or type of aircraft tobe used in the test.

2. An applicant shall pass all the relevant sections of the skill test. If any item in a section is failed, that section isfailed. Failure in more than one section will require the applicant to take the entire test again. An applicant failingonly in one section shall only repeat the failed section. Failure in any section of the retest, including thosesections that have been passed on a previous attempt, will require the applicant to take the entire test again. Allrelevant sections of the skill test shall be completed within 6 months. Failure to achieve a pass in all relevantsections of the test in two attempts will require further training.

3. Further training may be required following any failed skill test. There is no limit to the number of skill tests thatmay be attempted.

CONDUCT OF THE TEST

4. Should the applicant choose to terminate a skill test for reasons considered inadequate by the FlightExaminer (FE), the applicant shall retake the entire skill test. If the test is terminated for reasons consideredadequate by the FE, only those sections not completed shall be tested in a further flight.

5. At the discretion of the FE, any manoeuvre or procedure of the test may be repeated once by the applicant.The FE may stop the test at any stage if it is considered that the applicant’s demonstration of flying skillsrequires a complete re- test.

6. An applicant shall be required to fly the aircraft from a position where the PIC functions can be performed andto carry out the test as if no other crew member is present. Responsibility for the flight shall be allocated inaccordance with national regulations.

7. An applicant shall indicate to the FE the checks and duties carried out, including the identification of radiofacilities. Checks shall be completed in accordance with the checklist for the aircraft on which the test is beingtaken. During pre-flight preparation for the test, the applicant is required to determine power settings andspeeds. Performance data for take-off, approach and landing shall be calculated by the applicant in compliancewith the operations manual or flight manual for the aircraft used.

8. The FE shall take no part in the operation of the aircraft except where intervention is necessary in theinterests of safety or to avoid unacceptable delay to other traffic.

B. Content of the skill test for the issue of a CPL - Aeroplanes

1. The aeroplane used for the skill test shall meet the requirements for training aeroplanes, and shall becertificated for the carriage of at least four persons, have a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear.

2. The route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE and the destination shall be a controlled aerodrome. Theapplicant shall be responsible for the flight planning and shall ensure that all equipment and documentation forthe execution of the flight are on board. The duration of the flight shall be at least 90 minutes.

3. The applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:

(a) operate the aeroplane within its limitations;

(b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;



(c) exercise good judgement and airmanship;

(d) apply aeronautical knowledge; and

(e) maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of aprocedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES

4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handlingqualities and performance of the aeroplane used.

Heightnormal flight ± 100 feetwith simulated engine failure ±150 feet

Tracking on radio aids ± 5°

Headingnormal flight ± 10°with simulated engine failure ± 15°

Speed take-off and approach ± 5 knotsall other flight regimes ± 10 knots

CONTENT OF THE TEST

Items in section 2(c) and (e)(iv), and the whole of sections 5 and 6 may be performed in an FNPT II or an FFS.Use of the aeroplane checklists, airmanship, control of the aeroplane by external visual reference, anti-icing/de-icing procedures and principles of threat and error management apply in all sections.

SECTION 1 PRE-FLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE

a Pre-flight, including:

Flight planning, Documentation, Mass and balance determination, Weather brief, NOTAMS

b Aeroplane inspection and servicing

c Taxiing and take-off

d Performance considerations and trim

e Aerodrome and traffic pattern operations



f Departure procedure, altimeter setting, collision avoidance (lookout)

g ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures

SECTION 2 GENERAL AIRWORK

Items in section 2(c) and (e)(iv), may be performed in an FNPT II or an FFS.

a Control of the aeroplane by external visual reference, including straight and level, climb, descent,lookout

b Flight at critically low airspeeds including recognition of and recovery from incipient and full stalls

c Turns, including turns in landing configuration. Steep turns 45°

d Flight at critically high airspeeds, including recognition of and recovery from spiral dives

e Flight by reference solely to instruments, including:

(i) level flight, cruise configuration, control of heading, altitude and airspeed

(ii) climbing and descending turns with 10°-30° bank

(iii) recoveries from unusual attitudes

(iv) limited panel instruments

f ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures

SECTION 3 EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES

a Control of aeroplane by external visual reference, including cruise configuration Range/Enduranceconsiderations

b Orientation, map reading

c Altitude, speed, heading control, lookout



d Altimeter setting. ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures

e Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, assessment of track error and re- establishment ofcorrect tracking

f Observation of weather conditions, assessment of trends, diversion planning

g Tracking, positioning (NDB or VOR), identification of facilities (instrument flight). Implementation ofdiversion plan to alternate aerodrome (visual flight)

SECTION 4 APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES

a Arrival procedures, altimeter setting, checks, lookout

b ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures

c Go-around action from low height

d Normal landing, crosswind landing (if suitable conditions)

e Short field landing

f Approach and landing with idle power (single-engine only)

g Landing without use of flaps

h Post-flight actions

SECTION 5 ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES

Section 5 may be performed in an FNPT II or an FFS This section may be combined with sections 1 through 4



a Simulated engine failure after take-off (at a safe altitude), fire drill

b Equipment malfunctions including alternative landing gear extension, electrical and brake failure

c Forced landing (simulated) (if applicable)

d ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures

e Oral questions

SECTION6

SIMULATED ASYMMETRIC FLIGHT AND RELEVANT CLASS OR TYPE ITEMS

sections 5 and 6 may be performed in an FNPT II or an FFS.

a This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5

b Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS)

c Asymmetric approach and go-around

d Asymmetric approach and full stop landing

e Engine shutdown and restart

f ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures, Airmanship

g As determined by the FE - any relevant items of the class or type rating skill test to include, ifapplicable:

(i) aeroplane systems including handling of autopilot

(ii) operation of pressurisation system

(iii) use of de-icing and anti-icing system



h Oral questions



C. Content of the skill test for the issue of the CPL - Helicopters

1. The helicopter used for the skill test shall meet the requirements for training helicopters.

2. The area and route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE and all low level and hover work shall be at anapproved aerodrome/site. Routes used for section 3 may end at the aerodrome of departure or at anotheraerodrome and one destination shall be a controlled aerodrome. The skill test may be conducted in 2 flights.The total duration of the flight(s) shall be at least 90 minutes.


(a) operate the helicopter within its limitations;




(e) maintain control of the helicopter at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of aprocedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.


4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handlingqualities and performance of the helicopter used.

Height:normal flight ± 100 feetsimulated major emergency ± 150 feet

Tracking:on radio aids ± 10°

Heading:normal flight ± 10°simulated major emergency ± 15°

Speed:take-off and approach multi-engine ± 5 knotsall other flight regimes ± 10 knots

Ground drift:T.O. hover I.G.E. ± 3 feet

landing no sideways or backwards movement

CONTENT OF THE TEST

5. Items in section 4 may be performed in a helicopter FNPT or a helicopter FFS. Use of helicopter checklists,airmanship, control of helicopter by external visual reference, anti-icing procedures, and principles of threat and



error management apply in all sections.

SECTION 1 PRE-FLIGHT/POST-FLIGHT CHECKS AND PROCEDURES

a Helicopter knowledge (e.g. technical log, fuel, mass and balance, performance), flight planning,documentation, NOTAMS, weather

b Pre-flight inspection/action, location of parts and purpose

c Cockpit inspection, starting procedure

d Communication and navigation equipment checks, selecting and setting frequencies

e Pre-take-off procedure, R/T procedure, ATC liaison-compliance

f Parking, shutdown and post-flight procedure



SECTION2

HOVER MANOEUVRES, ADVANCED HANDLING AND CONFINED AREAS

A Take-off and landing (lift-off and touchdown)

B Taxi, hover taxi

C Stationary hover with head/cross/tail wind

D Stationary hover turns, 360° left and right (spot turns)

E Forward, sideways and backwards hover manoeuvring

F Simulated engine failure from the hover

G Quick stops into and downwind

H Sloping ground/unprepared sites landings and take-offs

I Take-offs (various profiles)

J Crosswind, downwind take-off (if practicable)

K Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual or simulated)

L Approaches (various profiles)

M Limited power take-off and landing

N Autorotations (FE to select two items from - Basic, range, low speed, and 360° turns)

O Autorotative landing

P Practice forced landing with power recovery



q Power checks, reconnaissance technique, approach and departure technique



SECTION 3 NAVIGATION - EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES

a Navigation and orientation at various altitudes/heights, map reading

b Altitude/height, speed, heading control, observation of airspace, altimeter setting

c Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, endurance, ETA, assessment of track error andreestablishment of correct track, instrument monitoring

d Observation of weather conditions, diversion planning

e Tracking, positioning (NDB and/or VOR), identification of facilities

f ATC liaison and observance of regulations, etc.

SECTION 4 FLIGHT PROCEDURES AND MANOEUVRES BY SOLE REFERENCE TOINSTRUMENTS

Items in section 4 may be performed in a helicopter FNPT or a helicopter FFS.

a Level flight, control of heading, altitude/height and speed

b Rate 1 level turns onto specified headings, 180° to 360° left and right

c Climbing and descending, including turns at rate 1 onto specified headings

d Recovery from unusual attitudes

e Turns with 30° bank, turning up to 90° left and right

SECTION 5 ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES (SIMULATED WHEREAPPROPRIATE)



Note 1: Where the test is conducted on a multi-engine helicopter a simulated engine failure drill, including asingle engine approach and landing, shall be included in the test.

Note 2: The FE shall select four items from the following:

a Engine malfunctions, including governor failure, carburettor/engine icing, oil system, as appropriate

b Fuel system malfunction

c Electrical system malfunction

d Hydraulic system malfunction, including approach and landing without hydraulics, as applicable

e Main rotor and/or anti-torque system malfunction (FFS or discussion only)

f Fire drills, including smoke control and removal, as applicable

g Other abnormal and emergency procedures as outlined in appropriate flight manual, including formultiengine

helicopters:

Simulated engine failure at take-off:

rejected take-off at or before TDP or safe forced landing at or before DPATO, shortly after TDP or

DPATO.

hLanding with simulated engine failure:

landing or go-around following engine failure before LDP or DPBL, following engine failure after LDPor safe forced landing after DPBL.



D. Content of the skill test for the issue of a CPL - Airships

1. The airship used for the skill test shall meet the requirements for training airships.

2. The area and route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE. Routes used for section 3 may end at theaerodrome of departure or at another aerodrome and one destination shall be a controlled aerodrome. The skilltest may be conducted in 2 flights. The total duration of the flight(s) shall be at least 60 minutes.


(a) operate the airship within its limitations;




(e) maintain control of the airship at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedureor manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.


4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handlingqualities and performance of the airship used.

Heightnormal flight ± 100 feetsimulated major emergency ± 150 feet

Tracking on radio aids ± 10°

Headingnormal flight ± 10°

simulated major emergency ± 15°

CONTENT OF THE TEST

5. Items in sections 5 and 6 may be performed in an airship FNPT or an airship FFS. Use of airship checklists,airmanship, control of airship by external visual reference, anti-icing procedures, and principles of threat anderror management apply in all sections.




a Pre-flight, including:

Flight planning, Documentation, Mass and Balance determination, Weather brief, NOTAMS

b Airship inspection and servicing

c Off-mast procedure, ground manoeuvring and take-off

d Performance considerations and trim

e Aerodrome and traffic pattern operations

f Departure procedure, altimeter setting, collision avoidance (lookout)

g ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures

SECTION 2 GENERAL AIRWORK

a Control of the airship by external visual reference, including straight and level, climb, descent, lookout

b Flight at pressure height

c Turns

d Steep descents and climbs

e Flight by reference solely to instruments, including:

(i) level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed

(ii) climbing and descending turns

(iii) recoveries from unusual attitudes

(iv) limited panel instruments

f ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures



SECTION 3 EN-ROUTE PROCEDURES

a Control of airship by external visual reference, Range/Endurance considerations

b Orientation, map reading

c Altitude, speed, heading control, lookout

d Altimeter setting, ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures

e Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, assessment of track error and re- establishment ofcorrect tracking

f Observation of weather conditions, assessment of trends, diversion planning

g Tracking, positioning (NDB or VOR), identification of facilities (instrument flight). Implementation ofdiversion plan to alternate aerodrome (visual flight)

SECTION 4 APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES

a Arrival procedures, altimeter setting, checks, lookout

b ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures

c Go-around action from low height

d Normal landing

e Short field landing

f Approach and landing with idle power (single-engine only)

g Landing without use of flaps



h Post-flight actions


Items in section 5 may be performed in an airship FNPT or an airship FFS This section may be combined withsections 1 through 4

a Simulated engine failure after take-off (at a safe altitude), fire drill

b Equipment malfunctions

c Forced landing (simulated)


e Oral questions

SECTION 6 RELEVANT CLASS OR TYPE ITEMS

Items in section 6 may be performed in an airship FNPT or an airship FFS This section may be combined withsections 1 through 5

A Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS)

B Approach and go-around with failed engine(s)

C Approach and full stop landing with failed engine(s)

D Malfunctions in the envelope pressure system

E ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures, Airmanship



F As determined by the FE - any relevant items of the class or type rating skill test to include, ifapplicable:

(i) airship systems

(ii) operation of envelope pressure system

g Oral questions



APPENDIX 5 to ANNEX I INTEGRATED MPL TRAINING COURSE

GENERAL

1. The aim of the MPL integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to enable them tooperate as co-pilot of a multi-engine multi-pilot turbine-powered air transport aeroplane under VFR and IFR andto obtain an MPL.

2. Approval for an MPL training course shall only be given to an ATO that is part of a commercial air transportoperator certificated in accordance with Part-ORO or having a specific arrangement with such an operator. Thelicence shall be restricted to that specific operator until completion of the airline operator’s conversion course.

3. An applicant wishing to undertake an MPL integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in onecontinuous course of training at an ATO. The training shall be competency based and conducted in a multi-crewoperational environment.

4. Only ab-initio applicants shall be admitted to the course.


(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(A) knowledge level;

(b) visual and instrument flying training;

(c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot aeroplanes; and

(d) type rating training.

6. An applicant failing or unable to complete the entire MPL course may apply to the authority for the theoreticalknowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR, if the applicable requirementsare met.


7. An approved MPL theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 750 hours of instruction for theATPL(A) knowledge level, as well as the hours required for theoretical knowledge instruction for the relevanttype rating, in accordance with Subpart H.

FLYING TRAINING

8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 240 hours, composed of hours as PF and PNF, in actualand simulated flight, and covering the following 4 phases of training:

(a) Phase 1 - Core flying skills

- Specific basic single-pilot training in an aeroplane.

(b) Phase 2 - Basic

- Introduction of multi-crew operations and instrument flight.

(c) Phase 3 - Intermediate

- Application of multi-crew operations to a multi-engine turbine aeroplane certified as a highperformance aeroplane in accordance with Part-21.

(d) Phase 4 - Advanced



- Type rating training within an airline oriented environment.

Flight experience in actual flight shall include all the experience requirements of Subpart H, upset recoverytraining, night flying, flight solely by reference to instruments and the experience required to achieve the relevantairmanship. MCC requirements shall be incorporated into the relevant phases above. Training in asymmetricflight shall be given either in an aeroplane or an FFS.

9. Each phase of training in the flight instruction syllabus shall be composed of both instruction in theunderpinning knowledge and in practical training segments.

10. The training course shall include a continuous evaluation process of the training syllabus and a continuousassessment of the students following the syllabus. Evaluation shall ensure that:

(a) the competencies and related assessment are relevant to the task of a co-pilot of a multi-pilotaeroplane; and

(b) the students acquire the necessary competencies in a progressive and satisfactory manner.

11. The training course shall include at least 12 take-offs and landings to ensure competency. These take-offsand landings shall be performed under the supervision of an instructor in an aeroplane for which the type ratingshall be issued.

ASSESSMENT LEVEL

12. The applicant for the MPL shall have demonstrated performance in all 9 competency units specified inparagraph 13 below, at the advanced level of competency required to operate and interact as a co-pilot in aturbine-powered multi-pilot aeroplane, under visual and instrument conditions. Assessment shall confirm thatcontrol of the aeroplane or situation is maintained at all times, to ensure the successful outcome of a procedureor manoeuvre. The applicant shall consistently demonstrate the knowledge, skills and attitudes required for thesafe operation of the applicable aeroplane type, in accordance with the MPL performance criteria.

COMPETENCY UNITS

13. The applicant shall demonstrate competency in the following 9 competency units:

(1) apply human performance principles, including principles of threat and error management;

(2) perform aeroplane ground operations;

(3) perform take-off;

(4) perform climb;

(5) perform cruise;

(6) perform descent;

(7) perform approach;

(8) perform landing; and

(9) perform after landing and aeroplane post-flight operations.



SIMULATED FLIGHT

14. Minimum requirements for FSTDs:

(a) Phase 1 - Core flying skills

E-training and part tasking devices approved by the authority that have the following characteristics:

- involve accessories beyond those normally associated with desktop computers, such as functionalreplicas of a throttle quadrant, a side-stick controller, or an FMS keypad, and

- involve psychomotor activity with appropriate application of force and timing of responses.

(b) Phase 2 - Basic

An FNPT II MCC that represents a generic multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane.

(c) Phase 3 - Intermediate

An FSTD that represents a multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane required to be operated with a co-pilot and qualified to an equivalent standard to level B, additionally including:

- a daylight/twilight/night visual system continuous cross-cockpit minimum collimated visual field ofview providing each pilot with 180° horizontal and 40° vertical field of view, and

- ATC environment simulation.

(d) Phase 4 - Advanced

An FFS which is fully equivalent to level D or level C with an enhanced daylight visual system,including ATC environment simulation.



APPENDIX 6 to ANNEX I MODULAR TRAINING COURSES FOR THE IR

A. IR(A) - Modular flying training course

GENERAL

1. The aim of the IR(A) modular flying training course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary tooperate aeroplanes under IFR and in IMC. The course consists of two modules, which may be taken separatelyor combined:

(a) Basic Instrument Flight Module

This comprises 10 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 5 hours can beinstrument ground time in a BITD, FNPT I or II, or an FFS. Upon completion of the Basic InstrumentFlight

Module, the candidate shall be issued a Course Completion Certificate.

(b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module

This comprises the remainder of the training syllabus for the IR(A), 40 hours single-engine or 45hours multiengine instrument time under instruction, and the theoretical knowledge course for theIR(A).

2. An applicant for a modular IR(A) course shall be the holder of a PPL(A) or a CPL(A). An applicant for theProcedural Instrument Flight Module, who does not hold a CPL(A), shall be holder of a Course CompletionCertificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module. The ATO shall ensure that the applicant for a multi-engineIR(A) course who has not held a multi-engine aeroplane class or type rating has received the multi-enginetraining specified in Subpart H prior to commencing the flight training for the IR(A) course.

3. An applicant wishing to undertake the Procedural Instrument Flight Module of a modular IR(A) course shallbe required to complete all the instructional stages in one continuous approved course of training. Prior tocommencing the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, the ATO shall ensure the competence of the applicant inbasic instrument flying skills. Refresher training shall be given as required.

4. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The Procedural Instrument FlightModule and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass in theoretical examinations.


(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level;

(b) instrument flight instruction.


6. An approved modular IR(A) course shall comprise at least 150 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction.

FLYING TRAINING

7. A single-engine IR(A) course shall comprise at least 50 hours instrument time under instruction of which upto 20 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 35 hours in an FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of10 hours of FNPT II or an FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I.

8. A multi-engine IR(A) course shall comprise at least 55 hours instrument time under instruction, of which up to



25 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 40 hours in an FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of10 hours of FNPT II or an FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I. The remaininginstrument flight instruction shall include at least 15 hours in multi-engine aeroplanes.

9. The holder of a single-engine IR(A) who also holds a multi-engine class or type rating wishing to obtain amultiengine IR(A) for the first time shall complete a course at an ATO comprising at least 5 hours instruction ininstrument flying in multi-engine aeroplanes, of which 3 hours may be in an FFS or FNPT II.

10.1. The holder of a CPL(A) or of a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module mayhave the total amount of training required in paragraphs 7 or 8 above reduced by 10 hours.

10.2. The holder of an IR(H) may have the total amount of training required in paragraphs 7 or 8 above reducedto 10 hours.

10.3. The total instrument flight instruction in aeroplane shall comply with paragraph 7 or 8, as appropriate.

11. The flying exercises up to the IR(A) skill test shall comprise:

(a) Basic Instrument Flight Module:

Procedure and manoeuvre for basic instrument flight covering at least:

- basic instrument flight without external visual cues:

- horizontal flight,

- climbing,

- descent,

- turns in level flight, climbing, descent;

- instrument pattern;

- steep turn;

- radionavigation;

- recovery from unusual attitudes;

- limited panel;

- recognition and recovery from incipient and full stalls;

(b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module:

(i) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air trafficservices documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(ii) procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditionscovering at least:

- transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off,

- standard instrument departures and arrivals,

- en-route IFR procedures,

- holding procedures,



- instrument approaches to specified minima,

- missed approach procedures,

- landings from instrument approaches, including circling;

(iii) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

(iv) if required, operation of a multi-engine aeroplane in the above exercises, including operation ofthe aeroplane solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative and engineshutdown and restart (the latter exercise to be carried out at a safe altitude unless carried out in anFFS or FNPT II).

Aa. IR(A) - Competency-based modular flying training course

GENERAL

1. The aim of the competency-based modular flying training course is to train PPL or CPL holders for theinstrument rating, taking into account prior instrument flight instruction and experience. It is designed to providethe level of proficiency needed to operate aeroplanes under IFR and in IMC. The course shall be taken within anATO or consist of a combination of instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or an FI(A) holding theprivilege to provide training for the IR and flight instruction within an ATO.

2. An applicant for such a competency-based modular IR(A) shall be the holder of a PPL(A) or CPL(A).

3. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The instrument flight instructionand the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass of the theoretical knowledgeexaminations.


(a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR(A) knowledge level;



5. An approved competency-based modular IR(A) course shall comprise at least 80 hours of theoreticalknowledge instruction. The theoretical knowledge course may contain computer-based training and e-learningelements. A minimum amount of classroom teaching as required by ORA.ATO.305 has to be provided.

FLYING TRAINING

6. The method of attaining an IR(A) following this modular course is competency- based. However, the minimumrequirements below shall be completed by the applicant. Additional training may be required to reach requiredcompetencies.

(a) A single-engine competency-based modular IR(A) course shall include at least 40 hours of instrumenttime under instruction, of which up to 10 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 25hours in an FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of 5 hours of FNPT II or FFS instrument ground time may beconducted in an FNPT I.

(i) When the applicant has:



(A) completed instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or an FI(A) holding the privilegeto provide training for the IR; or

(B) prior experience of instrument flight time as PIC on aeroplanes, under a rating providing theprivileges to fly under IFR and in IMC,

(ii) When the applicant has prior instrument flight time under instruction other than specified in point(a)(i), these hours may be credited towards the required 40 hours up to a maximum of 15 hours.

(iii) In any case, the flying training shall include at least 10 hours of instrument flight time underinstruction in an aeroplane at an ATO.

(iv) The total amount of dual instrument instruction shall not be less than 25 hours.

(b) A multi-engine competency-based modular IR(A) course shall include at least 45 hours instrument timeunder instruction, of which up to 10 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 30 hoursin an FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of 5 hours of FNPT II or FFS instrument ground time may be conductedin an FNPT I.

(i) When the applicant has:

(A) completed instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or an FI(A) holding the privilegeto provide training for the IR; or

(B) prior experience of instrument flight time as PIC on aeroplanes, under a rating giving theprivileges to fly under IFR and in IMC,

(ii) When the applicant has prior instrument flight time under instruction other than specified in point(b)(i), these hours may be credited towards the required 45 hours up to a maximum of 15 hours.

(iii) In any case, the flying training shall include at least 10 hours of instrument flight time underinstruction in a multi-engine aeroplane at an ATO.

(iv) The total amount of dual instrument instruction shall not be less than 25 hours, of which at least15 hours shall be completed in a multi-engine aeroplane.

(c) To determine the amount of hours credited and to establish the training needs, the applicant shallcomplete a pre-entry assessment at an ATO.

(d) The completion of the instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or FI(A) in accordance withpoint (a)(i) or (b)(i) shall be documented in a specific training record and signed by the instructor.

7. The flight instruction for the competency-based modular IR(A) shall comprise:

(a) procedures and manoeuvres for basic instrument flight covering at least:

(i) basic instrument flight without external visual cues;

(ii) horizontal flight;

(iii) climbing;

(iv) descent;

(v) turns in level flight, climbing and descent;

(vi) instrument pattern;

(vii) steep turn;



(viii) radio navigation

(ix) recovery from unusual attitudes;

(x) limited panel; and

(xi) recognition and recovery from incipient and full stall;

(b) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air trafficservices documents for the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(c) procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal, and emergency conditionscovering at least:

(i) transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off;

(ii) standard instrument departures and arrivals;

(iii) en route IFR procedures;

(iv) holding procedures;

(v) instrument approaches to specified minima;

(vi) missed approach procedures; and

(vii) landings from instrument approaches, including circling;

(d) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

(e) if required, operation of a multi-engine aeroplane in the above exercises, including:

(i) operation of the aeroplane solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulatedinoperative;

(ii) engine shutdown and restart (to be carried out at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS orFNPT II).

8. Applicants for the competency-based modular IR(A) holding a Part-FCL PPL or CPL and a valid IR(A) issuedin compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a another ICAO contracting statemay be credited in full towards the training course mentioned in paragraph 4. In order to be issued the IR(A), theapplicant shall:

(a) successfully complete the skill test for the IR(A) in accordance with Appendix 7;

(b) demonstrate to the examiner during the skill test that he/she has acquired an adequate level oftheoretical knowledge of air law, meteorology and flight planning and performance (IR); and

(c) have a minimum experience of at least 50 hours of flight time under IFR as PIC on aeroplanes.

PRE-ENTRY ASSESSMENT

9. The content and duration of the pre-entry assessment shall be determined by the ATO based on the priorinstrument experience of the applicant.



MULTI-ENGINE

10. The holder of a single-engine IR(A) who also holds a multi-engine class or type rating wishing to obtain amulti-engine IR(A) for the first time shall complete a course at an ATO comprising at least 5 hours instrumenttime under instruction in multi-engine aeroplanes, of which 3 hours may be in an FFS or FNPT II and shall passa skill test.

B. IR(H) - Modular flying training course

1. The aim of the IR(H) modular flying training course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary tooperate helicopters under IFR and in IMC.

2. An applicant for a modular IR(H) course shall be the holder of a PPL(H), or a CPL(H) or an ATPL(H). Prior tocommencing the aircraft instruction phase of the IR(H) course, the applicant shall be the holder of the helicoptertype rating used for the IR(H) skill test, or have completed approved type rating training on that type. Theapplicant shall hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC if the skill test is to be conducted in Multi-Pilot conditions.

3. An applicant wishing to undertake a modular IR(H) course shall be required to complete all the instructionalstages in one continuous approved course of training.

4. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The flight instruction and the skilltest shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass in the theoretical examinations.





6. An approved modular IR(H) course shall comprise at least 150 hours of instruction.

FLYING TRAINING

7. A single-engine IR(H) course shall comprise at least 50 hours instrument time under instruction, of which:

(a) up to 20 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I(H) or (A). These 20 hours instruction timein FNPT I (H) or (A) may be substituted by 20 hours instruction time for IR(H) in an aeroplane, approved forthis course; or

(b) up to 35 hours may be instrument ground time in a helicopter FTD 2/3, FNPT II/III or FFS. Theinstrument flight instruction shall include at least 10 hours in an IFR-certificated helicopter.

8. A multi-engine IR(H) course shall comprise at least 55 hours instrument time under instruction of which;

(a) up to 20 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I (H) or (A). These 20 hours instruction timein FNPT I (H) or (A) may be substituted by 20 hours instruction time for IR(H) in an aeroplane, approved forthis course; or

(b) up to 40 hours may be instrument ground time in a helicopter FTD 2/3, FNPT II/III or FFS. Theinstrument flight instruction shall include at least 10 hours in an IFR-certificated multi-engine helicopter.



9.1. The holder of an ATPL(H) shall have the theoretical knowledge instruction hours reduced by 50 hours.

9.2. The holder of an IR(A) may have the amount of training required reduced by 10 hours.

9.3. The holder of a PPL(H) with a helicopter night rating or a CPL(H) may have the total amount of instrumenttime under instruction required reduced by 5 hours.

10. The flying exercises up to the IR(H) skill test shall comprise:

(a) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air trafficservices documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(b) procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditionscovering at least: transition from visual to instrument flight on takeoff, standard instrument departures andarrivals, en-route IFR procedures, holding procedures, instrument approaches to specified minima, missedapproach procedures, landings from instrument approaches, including circling;

(c) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

(d) if required, operation of a multi-engine helicopter in the above exercises, including operation of thehelicopter solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative and engine shutdownand restart (the latter exercise to be carried out in an FFS or FNPT II or FTD 2/3).

C. IR(As) - Modular flying training course

GENERAL

1. The aim of the IR(As) modular flying training course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary tooperate airships under IFR and in IMC. The course consists of two modules, which may be taken separately orcombined:

(a) Basic Instrument Flight Module:This comprises 10 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 5 hours can be instrumentground time in a BITD, FNPT I or II, or an FFS. Upon completion of the Basic Instrument Flight Module, thecandidate shall be issued a Course Completion Certificate.

(b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module:This comprises the remainder of the training syllabus for the IR(As), 25 hours instrument time underinstruction, and the theoretical knowledge course for the IR(As).

2. An applicant for a modular IR(As) course shall be the holder of a PPL(As) including the privileges to fly atnight or a CPL(As). An applicant for the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, who does not hold a CPL(As),shall be holder of a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module.

3. An applicant wishing to undertake the Procedural Instrument Flight Module of a modular IR(As) course shallbe required to complete all the instructional stages in one continuous approved course of training. Prior tocommencing the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, the ATO shall ensure the competence of the applicant inbasic instrument flying skills. Refresher training shall be given as required.

4. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The Procedural Instrument FlightModule and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass in theoretical examinations.







6. An approved modular IR(As) course shall comprise at least 150 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction.

FLYING TRAINING

7. An IR(As) course shall comprise at least 35 hours instrument time under instruction of which up to 15 hoursmay be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, or up to 20 hours in an FFS or FNPT II. A maximum of 5 hours ofFNPT II or FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I.

8. The holder of a CPL(As) or of a Course Completion Certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module mayhave the total amount of training required in paragraph 7 reduced by 10 hours. The total instrument flightinstruction in airship shall comply with paragraph 7.

9. If the applicant is the holder of an IR in another category of aircraft the total amount of flight instructionrequired may be reduced to 10 hours on airships.

10. The flying exercises up to the IR(As) skill test shall comprise:

(a) Basic Instrument Flight Module:

Procedure and manoeuvre for basic instrument flight covering at least:

- basic instrument flight without external visual cues:

- horizontal flight,

- climbing,

- descent,

- turns in level flight, climbing, descent;

- instrument pattern;

- radionavigation;

- recovery from unusual attitudes;

- limited panel;

(b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module:

(i) pre-flight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate air trafficservices documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan;

(ii) procedure and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditionscovering at least:

- transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off,

- standard instrument departures and arrivals,

- en-route IFR procedures,

- holding procedures,



- instrument approaches to specified minima,

- missed approach procedures,

- landings from instrument approaches, including circling;

(iii) inflight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics;

(iv) operation of airship in the above exercises, including operation of the airship solely by reference toinstruments with one engine simulated inoperative and engine shut-down and restart (the latterexercise to be carried out at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS or FNPT II).



APPENDIX 7 to ANNEX I IR SKILL TEST

1. An applicant for an IR shall have receives instruction on the same class or type of aircraft to be used in thetest.

2. An applicant shall pass all the relevant sections of the skill test. If any item in a section is failed, that section isfailed. Failure in more than one section will require the applicant to take the entire test again. An applicant failingonly one section shall only repeat the failed section. Failure in any section of the retest, including those sectionsthat have been passed on a previous attempt, will require the applicant to take the entire test again. All relevantsections of the skill test shall be completed within 6 months. Failure to achieve a pass in all relevant sections ofthe test in two attempts will require further training.

3. Further training may be required following a failed skill test. There is no limit to the number of skill tests thatmay be attempted.

CONDUCT OF THE TEST

4. The test is intended to simulate a practical flight. The route to be flown shall be chosen by the examiner. Anessential element is the ability of the applicant to plan and conduct the flight from routine briefing material.Theapplicant shall undertake the flight planning and shall ensure that all equipment and documentation for theexecution of the flight are on board. The duration of the flight shall be at least 1 hour.

5. Should the applicant choose to terminate a skill test for reasons considered inadequate by the examiner, theapplicant shall retake the entire skill test. If the test is terminated for reasons considered adequate by theexaminer, only those sections not completed shall be tested in a further flight.

6. At the discretion of the examiner, any manoeuvre or procedure of the test may be repeated once by theapplicant. The examiner may stop the test at any stage if it is considered that the applicant’s demonstration offlying skill requires a complete retest.

7. An applicant shall fly the aircraft from a position where the PIC functions can be performed and to carry outthe test as if there is no other crew member. The examiner shall take no part in the operation of the aircraft,except when intervention is necessary in the interests of safety or to avoid unacceptable delay to other traffic.Responsibility for the flight shall be allocated in accordance with national regulations.

8. Decision heights/altitude, minimum descent heights/altitudes and missed approach point shall be determinedby the applicant and agreed by the examiner.

9. An applicant for an IR shall indicate to the examiner the checks and duties carried out, including theidentification of radio facilities. Checks shall be completed in accordance with the authorised checklist for theaircraft on which the test is being taken. During pre-flight preparation for the test the applicant is required todetermine power settings and speeds. Performance data for take-off, approach and landing shall be calculatedby the applicant in compliance with the operations manual or flight manual for the aircraft used.



- operate the aircraft within its limitations;

- complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;

- exercise good judgment and airmanship;

- apply aeronautical knowledge; and



- maintain control of the aircraft at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedureor manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt.

11. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handlingqualities and performance of the aircraft used.

HeightGenerally ± 100 feetStarting a go-around at decision height/altitude + 50 feet/- 0 feetMinimum descent height/MAP/altitude + 50 feet/- 0 feet

Tracking

On radio aids ± 5°Precision approach half scale deflection, azimuth and glide path

Heading

all engines operating ± 5°with simulated engine failure ± 10°

Speed

all engines operating ± 5 knotswith simulated engine failure + 10 knots/- 5 knots



CONTENT OF THE TEST

Aeroplanes

Use of checklist, airmanship, anti-icing/de-icing procedures, etc., apply in all sections


a Use of flight manual (or equivalent) especially a/c performance calculation, mass and balance

b Use of Air Traffic Services document, weather document

c Preparation of ATC flight plan, IFR flight plan/log

d Pre-flight inspection

e Weather Minima

f Taxiing

g Pre-take-off briefing, Take-off

h (o) Tansition to instrument flight

i (o) Instrument departure procedures, altimeter setting

j (o) ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures

(o) Must be performed by sole reference to instruments.

SECTION 2 GENERAL HANDLING (o)

a Control of the aeroplane by reference solely to instruments, including: level flight at various speeds,trim



b Climbing and descending turns with sustained Rate 1 turn

c Recoveries from unusual attitudes, including sustained 45° bank turns and steep descending turns

d(*) Recovery from approach to stall in level flight, climbing/descending turns and in landing configuration -only applicable to aeroplanes

e Limited panel: stabilised climb or descent, level turns at Rate 1 onto given headings, recovery fromunusual attitudes - only applicable to aeroplanes

SECTION 3 EN-ROUTE IFR PROCEDURES (o)

a Tracking, including interception, e.g. NDB, VOR, RNAV

b Use of radio aids

c Level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed, power setting, trim technique

d Altimeter settings

e Timing and revision of ETAs (en-route hold, if required)

f Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, systems’ management

g Ice protection procedures, simulated if necessary

h ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures

i Instrument departure procedures, altimeter setting

j ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures



SECTION 4 PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURES ( o )

a Setting and checking of navigational aids, identification of facilities

b Arrival procedures, altimeter checks

c Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks

d(+) Holding procedure

e Compliance with published approach procedure

f Approach timing

g Altitude, speed heading control (stabilised approach)

h(+) Go-around action

i(+) Missed approach procedure/landing


SECTION 5 NON-PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURES ( o )


b Arrival procedures, altimeter settings






f Approach timing

g Altitude, speed, heading control (stabilised approach)




SECTION 6 FLIGHT WITH ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE (multi-engine aeroplanes only) (o)

a Simulated engine failure after take-off or on go-around

b Approach, go-around and procedural missed approach with one engine inoperative

c Approach and landing with one engine inoperative


(o) Must be performed by sole reference to instruments. (+) May be performed in either section 4 or section 5.



Helicopters

Use of checklist, airmanship, anti-icing/de-icing procedures, etc., apply in all sections

SECTION 1 DEPARTURE

a Use of flight manual (or equivalent) especially aircraft performance calculation; mass and balance




e Weather minima

f Taxiing/Air taxi in compliance with ATC or instructions of instructor

g Pre-take-off briefing, procedures and checks

h Transition to instrument flight

i Instrument departure procedures

SECTION 2 GENERAL HANDLING

a Control of the helicopter by reference solely to instruments, including:

b Climbing and descending turns with sustained Rate 1 turn

c Recoveries from unusual attitudes, including sustained 30° bank turns and steep descending turns



SECTION 3 EN-ROUTE IFR PROCEDURES


b Use of radio aids

c Level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed, power setting


e Timing and revision of ETAs

f Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, systems management

g Ice protection procedures, simulated if necessary and if applicable

h ATC liaison - compliance, R/T procedures

SECTION 4 PRECISION APPROACH




d(*) Holding procedure


f Approach timing




h(*) Go-around action

i(*) Missed approach procedure/landing


* To be performed in section 4 og 5.

SECTION 5 NON-PRECISION APPROACH




d(*) Holding procedure


f Approach timing


h(*) Go-around action

i(*) Missed approach procedure (*)/landing


*To be performed in section 4 or section 5




This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5. The test shall have regard to control of thehelicopter, identification of the failed engine, immediate actions (touch drills), follow-up actions andchecks and flying accuracy, in the following situations:

a Simulated engine failure after take-off and on/during approach (**) (at a safe altitude unless carriedout in an FFS or FNPT II/III, FTD 2,3)

b Failure of stability augmentation devices/hydraulic system (if applicable)

c Limited panel

d Autorotation and recovery to a pre-set altitude

e Precision approach manually without flight director (***) Precision approach manually with flightdirector (***)

(*) To be performed in section 4 or section 5. (**) Multi-engine helicopter only.

(***) Only one item to be tested.



Airships

Use of checklist, airmanship, ATC liaison compliance, R/T procedures, apply in all sections


a Use of flight manual (or equivalent) especially a/c performance calculation, mass and balance




e Weather minima

f Pre-take-off briefing, off mast procedure, manoeuvring on ground

g Take-off

h Transition to instrument flight

i Instrument departure procedures, altimeter setting


SECTION 2 GENERAL HANDLING

a Control of the airship by reference solely to instruments

b Climbing and descending turns with sustained rate of turn

c Recoveries from unusual attitudes



d Limited panel

SECTION 3 EN-ROUTE IFR PROCEDURES


b Use of radio aids

c Level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed, power setting, trim technique


e Timing and revision of ETAs

f Monitoring of fligth progress, flight log, fuel usage, systems' management

g ATC liaison - compliance R/T procedures

SECTION 4 PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURES






f Approach timing



g Stabilised approach (altitude, speed and heading control)




SECTION 5 NON-PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURES


b Arrival procedures, altimeter settings




f Approach timing

g Stabilised approach (altitude, speed and heading control)


i (+) Missed approach procedure/landing


SECTION 6 FLIGHT WITH ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE



This section may be combined with sections 1 through 5. The test shall have regard to control of theairship, identification of the failed engine, immediate actions, follow-up actions, checks and flyingaccuracy in the following situations:

a Simulated engine failure after take-off or on go-around

b Approach and procedural go-around with one engine inoperative

c Approach and landing, missed approach procedure, with one engine inoperative


(+) May be performed in either section 4 or section 5.



APPENDIX 8 to ANNEX I CROSS-CREDITING OF THE IR PART OF A CLASS OR TYPE RATINGPROFICIENCY CHECK

A. Aeroplanes

Credits shall be granted only when the holder is revalidating IR privileges for single- engine and single-pilotmulti-engine aeroplanes, as appropriate.

When a proficiency checkincluding IR is performed, and theholder has a valid:

Credit is valid towards the IR part in a proficiency check for:

MP type rating;

High performance complexaeroplane type rating

SE class (*) and

SE type rating (*), and

SP ME class, and SP ME non-high performance complex aeroplane typerating, only credits for section 3B of the skill test for single pilot non-highperformance complex aeroplane of Appendix 9 (*)

SP ME non-high performancecomplex aeroplane type rating,

operated as single-pilot

SP ME class (*), and

SP ME non-high performance complex aeroplane type rating, and

SE class and type rating (*)

SP ME non-high performancecomplex aeroplane type rating,restricted to MP operation

a. SP ME class (*), and

b. SP ME non-high performance complex aeroplane type rating (*), and

c. SE class and type rating (*)

SP ME class rating, operated assingle-pilot

SE class and type rating, and SP ME class, and

SP ME non-high performance complex aeroplane type rating

SP ME class rating, restricted toMP operation

SE class and type rating (*), and SP ME class (*), and

SP ME non-high performance complex aeroplane type rating (*)

SP SE class rating SE class and type rating

SP SE type rating SE class and type rating

(*) Provided that within the preceding 12 months the applicant has flown at least three IFR departures andapproaches on an SP class or type of aeroplane in single pilot operations, or, for multi-engine non-highperformance non-complex aeroplanes, the applicant has passed section 6 of the skill test for single-pilot non-high performance non-complex aeroplanes flown solely by reference to instruments in single-pilot operation.



B. Helicopters

Credits shall be granted only when the holder is revalidating IR privileges for single- engine and single-pilotmulti-engine helicopters as appropriate.

When a proficiency check, including IR, is performedand the holder has a valid:

Credit is valid towards the IR part in a proficiencycheck for:

MPH type rating SE type rating (*), and SP ME type rating (*).

SP ME type rating, operated as single-pilot SE type rating,

SP ME type rating.

SP ME type rating, restricted to multi-pilot operation SE type rating, (*)

SP ME type rating (*).

(*) Provided that within the preceding 12 months at least 3 IFR departures and approaches have beenperformed on an SP type ofhelicopter in an SP operation.



APPENDIX 9 to ANNEX I TRAINING, SKILL TEST AND PROFICIENCY CHECK FOR MPL, ATPL, TYPEAND CLASS RATINGS, AND PROFICIENCY CHECK FOR IRs

A. General

1. An applicant for a skill test shall have received instruction on the same class or type of aircraft to be used inthe test.

2. Failure to achieve a pass in all sections of the test in two attempts will require further training.

3. There is no limit to the number of skill tests that may be attempted.

CONTENT OF THE TRAINING, SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK

4. Unless otherwise determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, thesyllabus of flight instruction, the skill test and the proficiency check shall comply with this Appendix. Thesyllabus, skill test and proficiency check may be reduced to give credit for previous experience on similar aircrafttypes, as determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21.

5. Except in the case of skill tests for the issue of an ATPL, when so defined in the operational suitability dataestablished in accordance with Part-21 for the specific aircraft, credit may be given for skill test items commonto other types or variants where the pilot is qualified.

CONDUCT OF THE TEST/CHECK

6. The examiner may choose between different skill test or proficiency check scenarios containing simulatedrelevant operations developed and approved by the authority. Full flight simulators and other training devices,when available, shall be used, as established in this Part.

7. During the proficiency check, the examiner shall verify that the holder of the class or type rating maintains anadequate level of theoretical knowledge.

8. Should the applicant choose to terminate a skill test for reasons considered inadequate by the examiner, theapplicant shall retake the entire skill test. If the test is terminated for reasons considered adequate by theexaminer, only those sections not completed shall be tested in a further flight.

9. At the discretion of the examiner, any manoeuvre or procedure of the test may be repeated once by theapplicant. The examiner may stop the test at any stage if it is considered that the applicant’s demonstration offlying skill requires a complete re- test.

10. An applicant shall be required to fly the aircraft from a position where the PIC or co-pilot functions, asrelevant, can be performed and to carry out the test as if there is no other crew member if taking the test/checkunder single-pilot conditions. Responsibility for the flight shall be allocated in accordance with nationalregulations.

11. During pre-flight preparation for the test the applicant is required to determine power settings and speeds.The applicant shall indicate to the examiner the checks and duties carried out, including the identification ofradio facilities. Checks shall be completed in accordance with the check-list for the aircraft on which the test isbeing taken and, if applicable, with the MCC concept. Performance data for take-off, approach and landing shallbe calculated by the applicant in compliance with the operations manual or flight manual for the aircraft used.Decision heights/altitude, minimum descent heights/altitudes and missed approach point shall be agreed uponwith the examiner.

12. The examiner shall take no part in the operation of the aircraft except where intervention is necessary in the



interests of safety or to avoid unacceptable delay to other traffic.

SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK FOR MULTI- PILOT AIRCRAFTTYPE RATINGS, FOR SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANE TYPE RATINGS, WHEN OPERATED IN MULTI-PILOTOPERATIONS, FOR MPL AND ATPL

13. The skill test for a multi-pilot aircraft or a single-pilot aeroplane when operated in multi-pilot operations shallbe performed in a multi-crew environment. Another applicant or another type rated qualified pilot may functionas second pilot. If an aircraft is used, the second pilot shall be the examiner or an instructor.

14. The applicant shall operate as PF during all sections of the skill test, except for abnormal and emergencyprocedures, which may be conducted as PF or PNF in accordance with MCC. The applicant for the initial issueof a multi-pilot aircraft type rating or ATPL shall also demonstrate the ability to act as PNF. The applicant maychoose either the left hand or the right hand seat for the skill test if all items can be executed from the selectedseat.

15. The following matters shall be specifically checked by the examiner for applicants for the ATPL or a typerating for multi-pilot aircraft or for multi-pilot operations in a single-pilot aeroplane extending to the duties of aPIC, irrespective of whether the applicant acts as PF or PNF:

(a) management of crew cooperation;

(b) maintaining a general survey of the aircraft operation by appropriate supervision; and

(c) setting priorities and making decisions in accordance with safety aspects and relevant rules andregulations appropriate to the operational situation, including emergencies.

16. The test/check should be accomplished under IFR, if the IR rating is included, and as far as possible beaccomplished in a simulated commercial air transport environment. An essential element to be checked is theability to plan and conduct the flight from routine briefing material.

17. When the type rating course has included less than 2 hours flight training on the aircraft, the skill test may beconducted in an FFS and may be completed before the flight training on the aircraft. In that case, a certificate ofcompletion of the type rating course including the flight training on the aircraft shall be forwarded to the authoritybefore the new type rating is entered in the applicant’s licence.

B. Specific requirements for the aeroplane category

PASS MARKS

1. In the case of single-pilot aeroplanes, with the exception of for single-pilot high performance complexaeroplanes, the applicant shall pass all sections of the skill test or proficiency check. If any item in a section isfailed, that section is failed. Failure in more than one section will require the applicant to take the entire test orcheck again. Any applicant failing only one section shall take the failed section again. Failure in any section ofthe re-test or re-check including those sections that have been passed at a previous attempt will require theapplicant to take the entire test or check again. For single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes, section 6 of therelevant test or check, addressing asymmetric flight, shall be passed.

2. In the case of multi-pilot and single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes, the applicant shall pass allsections of the skill test or proficiency check. Failure of more than five items will require the applicant to take theentire test or check again. Any applicant failing five or less items shall take the failed items again. Failure in anyitem on the re-test or re-check including those items that have been passed at a previous attempt will requirethe applicant to take the entire check or test again. Section 6 is not part of the ATPL or MPL skill test. If theapplicant only fails or does not take section 6, the type rating will be issued without CAT II or CAT III privileges.To extend the type rating privileges to CAT II or CAT III, the applicant shall pass the section 6 on the appropriatetype of aircraft.



FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE


(a) operate the aeroplane within its limitations;



(d) apply aeronautical knowledge;

(e) maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of aprocedure or manoeuvre is always assured;

(f) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures, if applicable; and

(g) communicate effectively with the other crew members, if applicable.

4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handlingqualities and performance of the aeroplane used:

Height:Generally ± 100 feetStarting a go-around at decision height + 50 feet/- 0 feet Minimumdescent height/altitude + 50 feet/- 0 feet

Tracking:on radio aids ± 5°

Precision approach half scale deflection, azimuth and glide path

Heading:all engines operating ± 5°with simulated engine failure ± 10°

Speed:all engines operating ± 5 knotswith simulated engine failure + 10 knots/- 5 knots

CONTENT OF THE TRAINING/SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK

5. Single-pilot aeroplanes, except for high performance complex aeroplanes:

(a) The following symbols mean:

P = Trained as PIC or Co-pilot and as Pilot Flying (PF) and Pilot Not Flying (PNF)

X = Flight simulators shall be used for this exercise, if available, otherwise an aeroplane shall be usedif appropriate for the manoeuvre or procedure

P# = The training shall be complemented by supervised aeroplane inspection

(b) The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or maybe conducted on any higher level of equipment shown by the arrow (-->)



The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used:

A = Aeroplane

FFS = Full Flight Simulator

FTD = Flight Training Device (including FNPT II for ME class rating)

(c) The starred (*) items of section 3B and, for multi-engine, section 6, shall be flown solely by reference toinstruments if revalidation/renewal of an IR is included in the skill test or proficiency check. If the starred (*)items are not flown solely by reference to instruments during the skill test or proficiency check, and whenthere is no crediting of IR privileges, the class or type rating will be restricted to VFR only.

(d) Section 3A shall be completed to revalidate a type or multi-engine class rating, VFR only, where therequired experience of 10 route sectors within the previous 12 months has not been completed. Section 3Ais not required if section 3B is completed.

(e) Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column this will indicate the mandatoryexercise or a choice where more than one exercise appears

(f) An FFS or an FNPT II shall be used for practical training for type or multi-engine class ratings if theyform part of an approved class or type rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approvalof the course.

(i) the qualification of the FFS or FNPT II as set out in the relevant requirements of Part-ARA andPart-ORA;

(ii) the qualifications of the instructors;

(iii) the amount of FFS or FNPT II training provided on the course; and

(iv) the qualifications and previous experience on similar types of the pilot under training.

(g) When a skill test or proficiency check is performed in multi-pilot operations, the type rating shall berestricted to multi-pilot operations.



SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES,EXCEPT FOR HIGH PERFORMANCECOMPLEX AEROPLANES

PRACTICAL TRAINING CLASS OR TYPERATING SKILL TEST/PROF. CHECK

Chkd inManoeuvres/Procedures

FTD FFS A

Instructorinitials whentrainingcompleted FFS

A

Examinerinitialswhen testcompleted

SECTION 1

1 Departure

1.1 Pre-flight including:

Documentation

Mass and Balance

Weather briefing

NOTAM

1.2Pre-start checks

1.2.1External P# P

1.2.2Internal P M

1.3Engine starting:

Normal

Malfunctions

P--> --> --> M

1.4 Taxiing P--> --> M



1.5Pre-departure checks:

Engine run-up (if applicable)

P--> --> --> M

1.6Take-off procedure:

Normal with Flight Manual flapsettings

Crosswind (if conditions available)

P--> -->

1.7Climbing:

Vx/Vy

Turns onto headings

Level off

P--> --> M

1.8ATC liaison - Compliance, R/Tprocedure






FTD FFS A


A


SECTION 2

2 Airwork (VMC)

2.1 Straight and level flight at variousairspeeds including flight at criticallylow airspeed with and without flaps(including approach to VMCA whenapplicable)

P--> -->

2.2Steep turns (360° left and right at45° bank)

P--> --> M

2.3Stalls and recovery:

(i)Clean stall

(ii)Approach to stall in descendingturn with bank with approachconfiguration and power

(iii)Approach to stall in landingconfiguration and power

(iv)Approach to stall, climbing turnwith take-off flap and climb power(single engine aeroplane only)

P--> --> M

2.4Handling using autopilot and flightdirector (may be conducted insection 3) if applicable

P--> --> M







FTD FFS A


A


SECTION 3A

3A En-route procedures VFR

(see B.5(c) and (d))

3A.1Flight plan, dead reckoning andmap reading

3A.2Maintenance of altitude, headingand speed

3A.3Orientation, timing and revision ofETAs

3A.4Use of radio navigation aids (ifapplicable)

3A.5Flight management (flight log,routine checks including fuel,systems and icing)

3A.6ATC liaison - Compliance, R/Tprocedure

SECTION 3B

3B Instrument flight

3B.1*Departure IFR P--> --> M

3B.2*En-route IFR P--> --> M

3B.3*Holding procedures P--> --> M



3B.4*ILS to DH/A of 200' (60 m) or toprocedure minima (autopilot maybe used to glideslope intercept)

P--> --> M

3B.5*Non-precision approach to MDH/Aand MAP

P--> --> M

3B.6*Flight exercises includingsimulated failure of the compassand attitude indicator:

rate 1 turns,

recoveries from unusualattitudes

P--> --> --> M

3B.7*Failure of localiser or glideslope P--> --> -->

3B.8*ATC liaison - Compliance, R/Tprocedure






FTD FFS A


A


SECTION 4

4 Arrival and landings

4.1Aerodrome arrival procedure P--> --> M

4.2Normal landing P--> --> M

4.3Flapless landing P--> --> M

4.4Crosswind landing (if suitableconditions)

P--> -->

4.5Approach and landing with idlepower from up to 2 000' above therunway (single-engine aeroplaneonly)

P--> -->

4.6Go-around from minimum height P--> --> M

4.7Night go-around and landing (ifapplicable)

P--> --> -->







FTD FFS A


A


SECTION 5

5 Abnormal and emergency procedures

(This section may be combined with sections 1 through 4)

5.1Rejected take-off at a reasonablespeed

P--> --> M

5.2Simulated engine failure after take-off (single-engine aeroplanes only)

P M

5.3Simulated forced landing withoutpower (single-engine aeroplanesonly)

P M

5.4Simulated emergencies:

(i)fire or smoke in flight;

(ii)systems’ malfunctions asappropriate

P--> --> -->

5.5Engine shutdown and restart (MEskill test only) (at a safe altitude ifperformed in the aircraft)

P--> --> -->







FTD FFS A


A


SECTION 6

6 Simulated asymmetric flight

6.1*(This section may be combined withsections 1 through 5)

Simulated engine failure duringtake-off (at a safe altitude unlesscarried out in FFS or FNPT II)

P--> --> ->X M

6.2*Asymmetric approach and go-around

P--> --> --> M

6.3*Asymmetric approach and full stoplanding

P--> --> --> M


6. Multi-pilot aeroplanes and single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes:

(a) The following symbols mean:

P = Trained as PIC or Co-pilot and as PF and PNF for the issue of a type rating as applicable.X = Simulators shall be used for this exercise, if available; otherwise an aircraft shall be used if appropriatefor the manoeuvre or procedure.P# = The training shall be complemented by supervised aeroplane inspection.

(b) The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may beconducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (--->).The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used:

A = AeroplaneFFS = Full Flight SimulatorFTD = Flight Training Device OTD= Other Training Devices



(c) The starred items (*) shall be flown solely by reference to instruments. If this condition is not met during theskill test or proficiency check, the type rating will be restricted to VFR only.

(d) Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column this will indicate the mandatoryexercise.

(e) An FFS shall be used for practical training and testing if the FFS forms part of an approved type ratingcourse. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course:

(i) the qualification of the FFS or FNPT II;

(ii) the qualifications of the instructors;

(iii) the amount of FFS or FNPT II training provided on the course; and

(iv) the qualifications and previous experience on similar types of the pilot under training.

(f) Manoeuvres and procedures shall include MCC for multi-pilot aeroplane and for single-pilot highperformance complex aeroplanes in multi-pilot operations.

(g) Manoeuvres and procedures shall be conducted in single-pilot role for single-pilot high performance complexaeroplanes in single-pilot operations.

(h) In the case of single-pilot high performance complex aeroplanes, when a skill test or proficiency check isperformed in multi-pilot operations, the type rating shall be restricted to multi-pilot operations. If privileges ofsingle-pilot are sought, the manoeuvres/ procedures in 2.5, 3.9.3.4, 4.3, 5.5 and at least one manoeuvre/procedure from section 3.4 have to be completed in addition as single-pilot.

(i) In case of a restricted type rating issued in accordance with FCL.720.A(e), the applicants shall fulfill thesame requirements as other applicants for the type rating except for the practical exercises relating to the take-off and landing phases.



MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANESAND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEXAEROPLANES

PRACTICAL TRAINING ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATINGSKILL TEST OR PROF.CHECK


OTD FTD FFS A

Instructorinitialswhentrainingcompleted

FFS

A

Examiner initialswhen testcompleted

SECTION 1

1. Flight preparation

1.1Performance calculation P

1.2Aeroplane external visualinspection; location of eachitem and purpose ofinspection

P# P

1.3Cockpit inspection P--> --> -->

1.4Use of checklist prior tostarting engines, startingprocedures, radio andnavigation equipment check,selection and setting ofnavigation andcommunication frequencies

P--> --> --> --> M

1.5Taxiing in compliance with airtraffic control or instructions ofinstructor

P--> -->

1.6Before take-off checks P--> --> --> M

SECTION 2

2. Take-offs

2.1Normal take-offs with differentflap settings, includingexpedited take-off

P--> -->



2.2*Instrument take-off; transitionto instrument flight isrequired during rotation orimmediately after becomingairborne

P--> -->

2.3Crosswind take-off P--> -->

2.4Take-off at maximum take-offmass (actual or simulatedmaximum take-off mass)

P--> -->

2.5 Take-offs with simulated engine failure:

2.5.1*shortly after reaching V2

(In aeroplanes which arenot certificated as transportcategory or commutercategory aeroplanes, theengine failure shall not besimulated until reaching aminimum height of 500 ftabove runway end. Inaeroplanes having thesame performance as atransport categoryaeroplane regarding take-off mass and densityaltitude, the instructor maysimulate the engine failureshortly after reaching V2)

P--> -->

2.5.2*between V1 and V2 P X M

FFS Only

2.6Rejected take-off at areasonable speed beforereaching V1

P--> -->X M

SECTION 3

3. Flight Manoeuvres and Procedures

3.1Turns with and withoutspoilers

P--> -->



3.2Tuck under and Mach buffetsafter reaching the criticalMach number, and otherspecific flight characteristicsof the aeroplane (e.g. DutchRoll)

P--> -->X

An aircraftmay notbe usedfor thisexercise

3.3Normal operation of systemsand controls engineer’s panel

P--> --> --> -->

Normal and abnormal operationsof following systems:

M A mandatoryminimum of 3abnormal shall beselected from 3.4.0to 3.4.14 inclusive

3.4.0Engine (if necessarypropeller)

P--> --> --> -->

3.4.1Pressurisation and air-conditioning

P--> --> --> -->

3.4.2Pitot/static system P--> --> --> -->

3.4.3Fuel system P--> --> --> -->

3.4.4Electrical system P--> --> --> -->

3.4.5Hydraulic system P--> --> --> -->

3.4.6Flight control and Trim-system

P--> --> --> -->

3.4.7Anti-icing/de-icing system,Glare shield heating

P--> --> --> -->

3.4.8Autopilot/Flight director P--> --> --> --> M (singlepilot Only)

3.4.9Stall warning devices orstall avoidance devices, andstability augmentationdevices

P--> --> --> -->



3.4.10Ground proximity warningsystem, weather radar,radio altimeter,transponder

P--> --> -->

3.4.11Radios, navigationequipment, instruments,flight management system

P--> --> --> -->

3.4.12Landing gear and brake P--> --> --> -->

3.4.13Slat and flap system P--> --> --> -->

3.4.14Auxiliary power unit P--> --> --> -->

3.6Abnormal and emergencyprocedures:

M A mandatoryminimum of threeitems shall beselected from 3.6.1to 3.6.9 inclusive

3.6.1Fire drills, e.g. engine, APU,cabin, cargo compartment,flight deck, wing andelectrical fires includingevacuation

P--> --> -->

3.6.2Smoke control and removal P--> --> -->

3.6.3Engine failures, shutdownand restart at a safe height

P--> --> -->

3.6.4Fuel dumping (simulated) P--> --> -->

3.6.5Wind shear at take-off/landing

P X FFS Only

3.6.6Simulated cabin pressurefailure/emergency descent

P--> -->

3.6.7Incapacitation of flight crewmember

P--> --> -->



3.6.8Other emergencyprocedures as outlined inthe appropriate AeroplaneFlight Manual

P--> --> -->

3.6.9ACAS event P--> --> --> An aircraftmay notbe used

FFS Only

3.7Steep turns with 45° bank,180° to 360° left and right

P--> --> -->

3.8Early recognition and countermeasures on approachingstall (up to activation of stallwarning device) in take-offconfiguration (flaps in take-offposition), in cruising flightconfiguration and in landingconfiguration (flaps in landingposition, gear extended)

P--> -->

3.8.1Recovery from full stall orafter activation of stallwarning device in climb,cruise and approachconfiguration

P X

3.9Instrument flight procedures

3.9.1*Adherence to departureand arrival routes and ATCinstructions

P--> --> --> M

3.9.2*Holding procedures P--> --> -->

3.9.3*Precision approachesdown to a decision height(DH) not less than 60 m(200 ft)

3.9.3.1*manually, without flightdirector

P--> --> M (skilltest only)

3.9.3.2*manually, with flightdirector

P--> -->



3.9.3.3*with autopilot P--> -->

3.9.3.4*manually, with oneengine simulatedinoperative; enginefailure has to besimulated during finalapproach before passingthe outer marker (OM)until touchdown orthrough the completemissed approachprocedure

In aeroplanes which arenot certificated astransport categoryaeroplanes (JAR/FAR25) or as commutercategory aeroplanes(SFAR 23), the approachwith simulated enginefailure and the ensuinggo-around shall beinitiated in conjunctionwith the non-precisionapproach as described in3.9.4. The go-aroundshall be initiated whenreaching the publishedobstacle clearanceheight (OCH/A), howevernot later than reaching aminimum descent height/altitude (MDH/A) of 500 ftabove runway thresholdelevation. In aeroplaneshaving the sameperformance as atransport categoryaeroplane regardingtake-off mass anddensity altitude, theinstructor may simulatethe engine failure inaccordance with 3.9.3.4.

P--> --> M

3.9.4*Non-precision approachdown to the MDH/A

P*-> --> M



3.9.5Circling approach underfollowing conditions:

(a)*approach to theauthorised minimumcircling approachaltitude at theaerodrome in questionin accordance with thelocal instrumentapproach facilities insimulated instrumentflight conditions;

followed by:

(b)circling approach toanother runway at least90° off centreline fromfinal approach used initem (a), at theauthorised minimumcircling approachaltitude.

Remark: if (a) and (b) arenot possible due to ATCreasons, a simulated lowvisibility pattern may beperformed.

P*-> -->

SECTION 4

4. Missed Approach Procedures

4.1Go-around with all enginesoperating* after an ILSapproach on reachingdecision height

P*-> -->

4.2Other missed approachprocedures

P*-> -->

4.3*Manual go-around with thecritical engine simulatedinoperative after aninstrument approach onreaching DH, MDH or MAPt

P*--> --> M



4.4Rejected landing at 15 m(50 ft) above runwaythreshold and go-around

P--> -->

SECTION 5

5. Landings

5.1Normal landings* also afteran ILS approach withtransition to visual flight onreaching DH

P

5.2Landing with simulatedjammed horizontal stabiliserin any out-of-trim position

P--> An aircraftmay notbe usedfor thisexercise

5.3Crosswind landings (a/c, ifpracticable)

P--> -->

5.4Traffic pattern and landingwithout extended or withpartly extended flaps andslats

P--> -->

5.5Landing with critical enginesimulated inoperative

P--> --> M

5.6Landing with two enginesinoperative:

- aeroplanes with 3 engines:the centre engine and 1outboard engine as far aspracticable according to dataof the AFM,

- aeroplanes with 4 engines: 2engines at one side

P X M

FFS only

(skill testonly)

General remarks:

Special requirements for extension of a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of lessthan 200 feet (60 m), i.e. Cat II/III operations.



SECTION 6

Additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 60 m(200 ft) (CAT II/III).

The following manoeuvres and procedures are the minimum training requirements to permit instrumentapproaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft). During the following instrument approaches and missedapproach procedures all aeroplane equipment required for type certification of instrument approaches down toa DH of less than 60 m (200 ft) shall be used.

6.1*Rejected take-off at minimumauthorised RVR

P*--> -->X

An aircraftmay notbe usedfor thisexercise

M*

6.2*ILS approaches: in simulatedinstrument flight conditionsdown to the applicable DH,using flight guidance system.Standard procedures of crewcoordination (task sharing,call out procedures, mutualsurveillance, informationexchange and support) shallbe observed

P--> --> M

6.3*Go-around:

after approaches asindicated in 6.2 on reachingDH.

The training shall alsoinclude a go-around due to(simulated) insufficientRVR, wind shear, aeroplanedeviation in excess ofapproach limits for asuccessful approach, andground/airborne equipmentfailure prior to reaching DHand, go-around withsimulated airborneequipment failure.

P--> --> M*



6.4*Landing(s):

with visual referenceestablished at DH followingan instrument approach.Depending on the specificflight guidance system, anautomatic landing shall beperformed

P--> --> M

Note: CAT II/III operations shall be accomplished in accordance with the applicable air operations requirements.

7. Class ratings - sea.

Section 6 shall be completed to revalidate a multi-engine class rating sea, VFR only, where the requiredexperience of 10 route sectors within the previous 12 months has not been completed.

CLASS RATING SEA PRACTICAL TRAINING

Manoeuvres/Procedures Instructor’s initials whentraining completed

Examiner’s initialswhen test completed

SECTION 1

1. Departure

1.1Pre-flight including:

Documentation

Mass and Balance

Weather briefing

NOTAM

1.2Pre-start checks

External/internal



1.3Engine start-up and shutdown

Normal malfunctions

1.4Taxiing

1.5Step taxiing

1.6Mooring:

Beach

Jetty pier

Buoy

1.7Engine-off sailing

1.8Pre-departure checks:

Engine run-up

(if applicable)

1.9Take-off procedure:

Normal with Flight Manual flap settings

Crosswind (if conditions available)

1.10Climbing

Turns onto headings

Level off

1.11ATC liaison - Compliance, R/T procedure

SECTION 2

2. Airwork (VFR)



2.1Straight and level flight at various airspeeds including flightat critically low airspeed with and without flaps (includingapproach to VMCA when applicable)

2.2Steep turns (360° left and right at 45° bank)

2.3Stalls and recovery:

(i) clean stall;

(ii)approach to stall in descending turn with bank withapproach configuration and power;

(iii)approach to stall in landing configuration and power;

(iv)approach to stall, climbing turn with take-off flap andclimb power (single-engine aeroplane only)


SECTION 3

3. En-route procedures VFR

3.1Flight plan, dead reckoning and map reading

3.2Maintenance of altitude, heading and speed

3.3Orientation, timing and revision of ETAs

3.4Use of radio navigation aids (if applicable)

3.5Flight management (flight log, routine checks includingfuel, systems and icing)


SECTION 4

4. Arrivals and landings



4.1Aerodrome arrival procedure (amphibians only)

4.2Normal landing

4.3Flapless landing

4.4Crosswind landing (if suitable conditions)

4.5Approach and landing with idle power from up to 2 000'above the water (single-engine aeroplane only)

4.6Go-around from minimum height

4.7Glassy water landing

Rough water landing


SECTION 5

5. Abnormal and emergency procedures


5.1Rejected take-off at a reasonable speed

5.2Simulated engine failure after take-off (single-engineaeroplane only)

5.3Simulated forced landing without power (single-engineaeroplane only)

5.4Simulated emergencies:

(i) fire or smoke in flight;

(ii)systems’ malfunctions as appropriate




SECTION 6

6. Simulated asymmetric flight


6.1Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitudeunless carried out in FFS and FNPT II)

6.2Engine shutdown and restart (ME skill test only)

6.3Asymmetric approach and go-around

6.4Asymmetric approach and full stop landing


C. Specific requirements for the helicopter category

1. In case of skill test or proficiency check for type ratings and the ATPL the applicant shall pass sections 1 to4 and 6 (as applicable) of the skill test or proficiency check. Failure in more than five items will require theapplicant to take the entire test or check again. An applicant failing not more than five items shall take thefailed items again. Failure in any item of the re-test or re-check or failure in any other items already passedwill require the applicant to take the entire test or check again. All sections of the skill test or proficiencycheck shall be completed within 6 months.

2. In case of proficiency check for an IR the applicant shall pass section 5 of the proficiency check. Failure inmore than three items will require the applicant to take the entire section 5 again. An applicant failing notmore than three items shall take the failed items again. Failure in any item of the re-check or failure in anyother items of section 5 already passed will require the applicant to take the entire check again.



(a) operate the helicopter within its limitations;




(e) maintain control of the helicopter at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of aprocedure or manoeuvre is never in doubt;



(f) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures, if applicable; and

(g) communicate effectively with the other crew members, if applicable.

4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and thehandling qualities and performance of the helicopter used.’

(a) IFR flight limit

Height:Generally ± 100 feetStarting a go-around at decision height/altitude + 50 feet/- 0 feetMinimum descent height/altitude + 50 feet/- 0 feet

Tracking:On radio aids ± 5°Precision approach half scale deflection, azimuth and glide path

Heading:Normal operations ± 5°Abnormal operations/emergencies ± 10°

Speed:Generally ± 10 knotsWith simulated engine failure + 10 knots/- 5 knots

(b) VFR flight limits

Height:Generally ± 100 feet



Ground drift:T.O. hover I.G.E. ± 3 feetLanding ± 2 feet (with 0 feet rearward or lateral flight)

CONTENT OF THE TRAINING/SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK GENERAL

5. The following symbols mean:

P = Trained as PIC for the issue of a type rating for SPH or trained as PIC or Co-pilot and as PF and PNFfor the issue of a type rating for MPH.



6. The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may beconducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (-->).The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used:

FFS = Full Flight SimulatorFTD = Flight Training DeviceH = Helicopter

7. The starred items (*) shall be flown in actual or simulated IMC, only by applicants wishing to renew orrevalidate an IR(H), or extend the privileges of that rating to another type.

8. Instrument flight procedures (section 5) shall be performed only by applicants wishing to renew or revalidatean IR(H) or extend the privileges of that rating to another type. An FFS or FTD 2/3 may be used for thispurpose.

9. Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column this will indicate the mandatoryexercise.

10. An FSTD shall be used for practical training and testing if the FSTD forms part of a type rating course. Thefollowing considerations will apply to the course:

(i) the qualification of the FSTD as set out in the relevant requirements of Part-ARA and Part-ORA;

(ii) the qualifications of the instructor and examiner;

(iii) the amount of FSTD training provided on the course;

(iv) the qualifications and previous experience in similar types of the pilot under training; and

(v) the amount of supervised flying experience provided after the issue of the new type rating.

MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS

11. Applicants for the skill test for the issue of the multi-pilot helicopter type rating and ATPL(H) shall take onlysections 1 to 4 and, if applicable, section 6.

12. Applicants for the revalidation or renewal of the multi-pilot helicopter type rating proficiency check shalltake only sections 1 to 4 and, if applicable, section 6.



SINGLE/MULTI-PILOTHELICOPTERS

PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST ORPROFICIENCY CHECK


FTD FFS H


H

Examinerinitials whentestcompleted

SECTION 1 Pre-flight preparations and checks

1.1Helicopter exterior visualinspection; location of eachitem and purpose ofinspection

P M (if performedin thehelicopter)

1.2Cockpit inspection P --> M

1.3Starting procedures, radioand navigation equipmentcheck, selection and settingof navigation andcommunication frequencies

P --> --> M

1.4Taxiing/air taxiing incompliance with air trafficcontrol instructions or withinstructions of an instructor

P --> M

1.5Pre-take-off proceduresand checks

P --> --> M

SECTION 2 Flight manoeuvres and procedures

2.1Take-offs (various profiles) P --> M

2.2Sloping ground orcrosswind take-offs &landings

P -->

2.3Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual orsimulated maximum take-off mass)

P --> -->



2.4Take-off with simulatedengine failure shortly beforereaching TDP or DPATO

P --> M

2.4.1Take-off with simulatedengine failure shortly afterreaching TDP or DPATO

P --> M

2.5Climbing and descendingturns to specified headings

P --> --> M

2.5.1Turns with 30° bank, 180°to 360° left and right, bysole reference toinstruments

P --> --> M

2.6Autorotative descent P --> --> M

2.6.1Autorotative landing (SEHonly) or power recovery

P --> M

2.7Landings, various profiles P --> M

2.7.1Go-around or landingfollowing simulatedengine failure before LDPor DPBL

P --> M

2.7.2Landing followingsimulated engine failureafter LDP or DPBL

P --> M

SECTION 3 Normal and abnormal operations of the following systems and procedures

3.Normal and abnormaloperations of the followingsystems and procedures:

M A mandatoryminimum ofthree itemsshall beselectedfrom thissection

3.1Engine P --> -->

3.2Air conditioning (heating,ventilation)

P --> -->



3.3Pitot/static system P --> -->

3.4Fuel System P --> -->

3.5Electrical system P --> -->

3.6Hydraulic system P --> -->

3.7Flight control and Trimsystem

P --> -->

3.8Anti-icing and de-icingsystem

P --> -->

3.9Autopilot/Flight director P --> -->

3.10Stability augmentationdevices

P --> -->

3.11Weather radar, radioaltimeter, transponder

P --> -->

3.12Area Navigation System P --> -->

3.13Landing gear system P --> -->

3.14Auxiliary power unit P --> -->

3.15Radio, navigationequipment, instrumentsflight management system

P --> -->

SECTION 4 Abnormal and emergency procedures

4.Abnormal and emergencyprocedures


4.1Fire drills (includingevacuation if applicable)

P --> -->



4.2Smoke control and removal P --> -->

4.3Engine failures, shutdownand restart at a safe height

P --> -->

4.4Fuel dumping (simulated) P --> -->

4.5Tail rotor control failure (ifapplicable)

P --> -->

4.5.1Tail rotor loss (ifapplicable)

P --> Helicoptermay not beused for thisexercise

4.6Incapacitation of crewmember - MPH only

P --> -->

4.7Transmission malfunctions P --> -->

4.8Other emergencyprocedures as outlined inthe appropriate FlightManual

P --> -->

SECTION 5 Instrument flight procedures (to be performed in IMC or simulated IMC)

5.1Instrument take-off:transition to instrumentflight is required as soon aspossible after becomingairborne

P* -->* -->*

5.1.1Simulated engine failureduring departure

P* -->* -->* M*

5.2Adherence to departureand arrival routes and ATCinstructions

P* -->* -->* M*

5.3Holding procedures P* -->* -->*

5.4ILS approaches down toCAT I decision height

P* -->* -->*



5.4.1Manually, without flightdirector

P* -->* -->* M*

5.4.2Precision approachmanually, with or withoutflight director

P* -->* -->* M*

5.4.3With coupled autopilot P* -->* -->*

5.4.4Manually, with one enginesimulated inoperative.(Engine failure has to besimulated during finalapproach before passingthe outer marker (OM)until touchdown or untilcompletion of the missedapproach procedure)

P* -->* -->* M*

5.5Non-precision approachdown to the minimumdescent altitude MDA/H

P* -->* -->* M*

5.6Go-around with all enginesoperating on reaching DA/DH or MDA/MDH

P* -->* -->*

5.6.1Other missed approachprocedures

P* -->* -->*

5.6.2Go-around with oneengine simulatedinoperative on reachingDA/DH or MDA/MDH

P* M*

5.7IMC autorotation withpower recovery

P* -->* -->* M*

5.8Recovery from unusualattitudes

P* -->* -->* M*

SECTION 6 Use of optional equipment

6.Use of optional equipment P --> -->



D. Specific requirements for the powered-lift aircraft category

1. In the case of skill tests or proficiency checks for powered-lift aircraft type ratings, the applicant shall passsections 1 to 5 and 6 (as applicable) of the skill test or proficiency check. Failure in more than five itemswill require the applicant to take the entire test or check again. An applicant failing not more than five itemsshall take the failed items again. Failure in any item of the re-test or re-check or failure in any other itemsalready passed will require the applicant to take the entire test or check again. All sections of the skill testor proficiency check shall be completed within 6 months.



(a) operate the powered-lift aircraft within its limitations;




(e) maintain control of the powered-lift aircraft at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome

of a procedure or manoeuvre is never in doubt;

(f) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures; and

(g) communicate effectively with the other crew members.

3. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handlingqualities and performance of the powered-lift aircraft used.

(a) IFR flight limits:

Height:Generally ± 100 feetStarting a go-around at decision height/altitude + 50 feet/- 0 feetMinimum descent height/altitude + 50 feet/- 0 feet

Tracking:On radio aids ± 5°Precision approach half scale deflection, azimuth and glide path





(b) VFR flight limits:

Height:Generally ± 100 feet



Ground drift:T.O. hover I.G.E. ± 3 feetLanding ± 2 feet (with 0 feet rearward or lateral flight)


4. The following symbols mean:P = Trained as PIC or Co-pilot and as PF and PNF for the issue of a type rating as applicable.

5. The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may beconducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (-->).

6. The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used:

FFS = Full Flight SimulatorFTD = Flight Training DeviceOTD = Other Training DevicePL = Powered-lift aircraft

(a) Applicants for the skill test for the issue of the powered-lift aircraft type rating shall take sections 1to 5 and, if applicable, section 6.

(b) Applicants for the revalidation or renewal of the powered-lift aircraft type rating proficiency checkshall take sections 1 to 5 and, if applicable section 6 and/or 7.

(c) The starred items (*) shall be flown solely by reference to instruments. If this condition is not metduring the skill test or proficiency check, the type rating will be restricted to VFR only.


8. Flight Simulation Training Devices shall be used for practical training and testing if they form part of anapproved type rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course:

(a) the qualification of the flight simulation training devices as set out in the relevantrequirements of Part-ARA and Part-ORA;

(b) the qualifications of the instructor.



POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFTCATEGORY

PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST ORPROFICIENCYCHECK


OTD FTD FFS PL

Instructor’sinitials whentrainingcompleted FFS

PL

Examiner’sinitials whentestcompleted


1.1Powered-lift aircraftexterior visual inspection;

location of each item andpurpose of inspection

P

1.2Cockpit inspection P --> --> -->

1.3Starting procedures, radioand navigation equipmentcheck, selection andsetting of navigation andcommunicationfrequencies

P --> --> --> M

1.4Taxiing in compliancewith air traffic controlinstructions or withinstructions of aninstructor

P --> -->

1.5Pre-take-off proceduresand checks includingPower Check

P --> --> --> M


2.1Normal VFR take-offprofiles;

Runway operations(STOL and VTOL)including crosswind

Elevated heliports

Ground level heliports

P --> --> M



2.2Take-off at maximumtake-off mass (actual orsimulated maximum take-off mass)

P -->

2.3.1Rejected take-off:

during runwayoperations

during elevatedheliport operations

during ground leveloperations

P --> M

2.3.2Take-off with simulatedengine failure afterpassing decision point:




P --> M

2.4Autorotative descent inhelicopter mode toground (an aircraft shallnot be used for thisexercise)

P --> --> M FFS only

2.4.1Windmill descent inaeroplane mode (anaircraft shall not beused for this exercise)

P --> M FFS only



2.5Normal VFR landingprofiles;

runway operations(STOL and VTOL)

elevated heliports

ground level heliports

P --> --> M

2.5.1Landing with simulatedengine failure afterreaching decision point:




2.6Go-around or landingfollowing simulatedengine failure beforedecision point

P --> M

SECTION 3 Normal and abnormal operations of the following systems and procedures:

3.Normal and abnormaloperations of the followingsystems and procedures(may be completed in anFSTD if qualified for theexercise):

M A mandatoryminimum ofthree itemsshall beselected fromthis section

3.1Engine P --> -->

3.2Pressurisation and airconditioning (heating,ventilation)

P --> -->

3.3Pitot/static system P --> -->



3.4Fuel System P --> -->

3.5Electrical system P --> -->

3.6Hydraulic system P --> -->

3.7Flight control and Trim-system

P --> -->

3.8Anti-icing and de-icingsystem, glare shieldheating (if fitted)

P --> -->

3.9Autopilot/Flight director P -> ->

3.10Stall warning devices orstall avoidance devicesand stabilityaugmentation devices

P --> -->

3.11Weather radar, radioaltimeter, transponder,ground proximitywarning system (if fitted)

P --> -->

3.12Landing gear system P --> -->

3.13Auxiliary power unit P --> -->

3.14Radio, navigationequipment, instrumentsand flight managementsystem

P --> -->

3.15Flap system P --> -->



(may be completed in anFSTD if qualified for theexercise)

M A mandatoryminimum ofthree itemsshall beselected fromthis section



4.1Fire drills, engine, APU,cargo compartment, flightdeck and electrical firesincluding evacuation ifapplicable

P --> -->

4.2Smoke control andremoval

P --> -->

4.3Engine failures, shutdownand restart

(an aircraft shall not beused for this exercise)including OEI conversionfrom helicopter toaeroplane modes andvice versa

P --> --> FFS only

4.4Fuel dumping (simulated,if fitted)

P --> -->

4.5Wind shear at take-offand landing (an aircraftshall not be used for thisexercise)

P FFS only

4.6Simulated cabin pressurefailure/emergencydescent (an aircraft shallnot be used for thisexercise)

P --> --> FFS only

4.7ACAS event

(an aircraft shall not beused for this exercise)

P --> --> FFS only

4.8Incapacitation of crewmember

P --> -->

4.9Transmissionmalfunctions

P --> --> FFS only



4.10Recovery from a full stall(power on and off) orafter activation of stallwarning devices inclimb, cruise andapproach configurations(an aircraft shall not beused for this exercise)

P --> --> FFS only

4.11Other emergencyprocedures as detailedin the appropriate FlightManual

P --> -->


5.1Instrument take-off:transition to instrumentflight is required as soonas possible afterbecoming airborne

P* -->* -->*

5.1.1Simulated enginefailure during departureafter decision point

P* -->* -->* M*

5.2Adherence to departureand arrival routes andATC instructions

P* -->* -->* M*

5.3Holding procedures P* -->* -->*

5.4Precision approach downto a decision height notless than 60 m (200 ft)

P* -->* -->*


P* -->* -->* M* (Skill testonly)

5.4.2Manually, with flightdirector

P* -->* -->*

5.4.3With use of autopilot P* -->* -->*



5.4.4Manually, with oneengine simulatedinoperative; enginefailure has to besimulated during finalapproach beforepassing the outermarker (OM) andcontinued either totouchdown, or throughto the completion of themissed approachprocedure)

P* -->* -->* M*


P* -->* -->* M*

5.6Go-around with allengines operating onreaching DA/DH or MDA/MDH

P* -->* -->*


P* -->* -->*


P* M*

5.7IMC autorotation withpower recovery to land onrunway in helicoptermode only (an aircraftshall not be used for thisexercise)

P* -->* -->* M*

FFS only

5.8Recovery from unusualattitudes (this onedepends on the quality ofthe FFS)

P* -->* -->* M*

SECTION 6 Additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decisionheight of less than 60 m (CAT II/III)



6.Additional authorisation ona type rating for instrumentapproaches down to adecision height of less than60 m (CAT II/III).

The following manoeuvresand procedures are theminimum trainingrequirements to permitinstrument approachesdown to a DH of less than60 m (200 ft). During thefollowing instrumentapproaches and missedapproach procedures allpowered-lift aircraftequipment required for thetype certification ofinstrument approachesdown to a DH of less than60 m (200 ft) shall be used

6.1Rejected take-off atminimum authorised RVR

P --> M*

6.2ILS approaches

in simulated instrumentflight conditions down tothe applicable DH, usingflight guidance system.Standard procedures ofcrew coordination (SOPs)shall be observed

P --> --> M*

6.3Go-around

after approaches asindicated in 6.2 onreaching DH. The trainingshall also include a go-around due to (simulated)insufficient RVR, windshear, aircraft deviation inexcess of approach limitsfor a successfulapproach, ground/airborne equipmentfailure prior to reachingDH, and go-around withsimulated airborneequipment failure

P --> --> M*



6.4Landing(s) with visualreference established atDH following aninstrument approach.Depending on the specificflight guidance system,an automatic landingshall be performed

P --> M*

SECTION 7 Optional equipment

7.Use of optional equipment P --> -->

E. Specific requirements for the airship category

1. In the case of skill tests or proficiency checks for airship type ratings the applicant shall pass sections 1to 5 and 6 (as applicable) of the skill test or proficiency check. Failure in more than five items will requirethe applicant to take the entire test/check again. An applicant failing not more than five items shall take thefailed items again. Failure in any item of the re-test/re-check or failure in any other items already passedwill require the applicant to take the entire test/check again. All sections of the skill test or proficiency checkshall be completed within 6 months.



(i) operate the airship within its limitations;

(ii) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy;

(iii) exercise good judgement and airmanship;

(iv) apply aeronautical knowledge;

(v) maintain control of the airship at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of aprocedure or manoeuvre is never in doubt;

(vi) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures; and

(vii) communicate effectively with the other crew members.

3. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handlingqualities and performance of the airship used.

(a) IFR flight limits:Height:

Generally ± 100 feetStarting a go-around at decision height/altitude + 50 feet/- 0 feet Minimum descent



height/altitude + 50 feet/- 0 feetTracking:

On radio aids ± 5°Precision approach half scale deflection, azimuth and glide path Heading:Normal operations ± 5°Abnormal operations/emergencies ± 10°

(b) VFR flight limits:Height:

Generally ± 100 feetHeading:

Normal operations ± 5°Abnormal operations/emergencies ± 10°


4. The following symbols mean:P = Trained as PIC or Co-pilot and as PF and PNF for the issue of a type rating as applicable.

5. The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may beconducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (-->).

6. The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used:

FFS = Full Flight Simulator

FTD = Flight Training Device

OTD = Other Training Device As = Airship

(a) Applicants for the skill test for the issue of the airship shall take sections 1 to 5 and, if applicable,section 6.

(b) Applicants for the revalidation or renewal of the airship type rating proficiency check shall takesections 1 to 5 and, if applicable section 6.

(c) The starred items (*) shall be flown solely by reference to instruments. If this condition is not metduring the skill test or proficiency check, the type rating will be restricted to VFR only.


8. Flight Simulation Training Devices shall be used for practical training and testing if they form part of atype rating course. The following considerations will apply to the course:

(a) the qualification of the flight simulation training devices as set out in the relevantrequirements of Part-ARA and Part-ORA;

(b) the qualifications of the instructor.



AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TESTORPROFICIENCY CHECK


OTD FTD FFS As

Instructor’sinitials whentrainingcompleted FFS

As

Examiner’sinitials whentestcompleted


1.1Pre-flight inspection P

1.2Cockpit inspection P --> --> -->

1.3Starting procedures, radioand navigation equipmentcheck, selection and settingof navigation andcommunication frequencies

P --> --> M

1.4Off Mast procedure andGround Manoeuvring

P --> M

1.5Pre-take-off proceduresand checks

P --> --> --> M


2.1Normal VFR take-off profile P --> M

2.2Take-off with simulatedengine failure

P --> M

2.3Take-off with heaviness > 0(Heavy T/O)

P -->

2.4Take-off with heaviness < 0(Light/TO)

P -->

2.5Normal climb procedure P -->

2.6Climb to Pressure Height P -->



2.7Recognising of PressureHeight

P -->

2.8Flight at or close toPressure Height

P --> M

2.9Normal descent andapproach

P -->

2.10Normal VFR landingprofile

P --> M

2.11Landing with heaviness> 0 (Heavy Ldg.)

P --> M

2.12Landing with heaviness< 0 (Light Ldg.)

P --> M

Intentionally left blank

SECTION 3 Normal and abnormal operations of the following systems and procedures

3.Normal and abnormaloperations of the followingsystems and procedures(may be completed in anFSTD if qualified for theexercise):


3.1Engine P --> --> -->

3.2Envelope Pressurisation P --> --> -->

3.3Pitot/static system P --> --> -->

3.4Fuel system P --> --> -->

3.5Electrical system P --> --> -->

3.6Hydraulic system P --> --> -->

3.7Flight control and Trim-system

P --> --> -->



3.8Ballonet system P --> --> -->

3.9Autopilot/Flight director P -> -> -->

3.10Stability augmentationdevices

P --> --> -->

3.11Weather radar, radioaltimeter, transponder,ground proximity warningsystem (if fitted)

P --> --> -->

3.12Landing gear system P --> --> -->

3.13Auxiliary power unit P --> --> -->

3.14Radio, navigationequipment, instrumentsand flight managementsystem

P --> --> -->

Intentionally left blank



(may be completed in anFSTD if qualified for theexercise)


4.1Fire drills, engine, APU,cargo compartment, flightdeck and electrical firesincluding evacuation ifapplicable

P --> --> -->

4.2Smoke control and removal P --> --> -->

4.3Engine failures, shutdownand restart

In particular phases offlight, inclusive multipleengine failure

P --> --> -->



4.4Incapacitation of crewmember

P --> --> -->

4.5Transmission/Gearboxmalfunctions

P --> --> --> FFS only

4.6Other emergencyprocedures as outlined inthe appropriate FlightManual

P --> --> -->


5.1Instrument take-off:transition to instrumentflight is required as soon aspossible after becomingairborne

P* -->* -->* -->*

5.1.1Simulated engine failureduring departure

P* -->* -->* -->* M*

5.2Adherence to departureand arrival routes and ATCinstructions

P* -->* -->* -->* M*

5.3Holding procedures P* -->* -->* -->*

5.4Precision approach down toa decision height not lessthan 60 m (200 ft)

P* -->* -->* -->*


P* -->* -->* -->* M*

(Skill test only)

5.4.2Manually, with flightdirector

P* -->* -->* -->*

5.4.3With use of autopilot P* -->* -->* -->*



5.4.4Manually, with one enginesimulated inoperative;engine failure has to besimulated during finalapproach before passingthe outer marker (OM)and continued totouchdown, or untilcompletion of the missedapproach procedure

P* -->* -->* -->* M*


P* -->* -->* -->* M*

5.6Go-around with all enginesoperating on reaching DA/DH or MDA/MDH

P* -->* -->* -->*


P* -->* -->* -->*


P* M*

5.7Recovery from unusualattitudes

(this one depends on thequality of the FFS)

P* -->* -->* -->* M*

SECTION 6 Additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decisionheight of less than 60 m (CAT II/III)



6.Additional authorisation on atype rating for instrumentapproaches down to adecision height of less than60 m (CAT II/III).

The following manoeuvresand procedures are theminimum trainingrequirements to permitinstrument approaches downto a DH of less than 60 m(200 ft). During the followinginstrument approaches andmissed approach proceduresall airship equipmentrequired for the typecertification of instrumentapproaches down to a DH ofless than 60 m (200 ft) shallbe used.

6.1Rejected take-off atminimum authorised RVR

P --> M*

6.2ILS approaches

In simulated instrumentflight conditions down to theapplicable DH, using flightguidance system. Standardprocedures of crewcoordination (SOPs) shallbe observed

P --> M*

6.3Go-around

After approaches asindicated in 6.2 on reachingDH.

The training shall alsoinclude a go-around due to(simulated) insufficientRVR, wind shear, aircraftdeviation in excess ofapproach limits for asuccessful approach, andground/airborne equipmentfailure prior to reaching DHand, go-around withsimulated airborneequipment failure.

P --> M*



6.4Landing(s)

With visual referenceestablished at DH followingan instrument approach.Depending on the specificflight guidance system, anautomatic landing shall beperformed

P --> M*

SECTION 7 Optional equipment

7.Use of optional equipment P -->




No. 001 of 2016

Aircrew Licensing - Annex III: Part Validation andConversion


Table of Contents

VALIDATION AND CONVERSION PART-VC...................................................................................................... 1ANNEX III ............................................................................................................................................................ 1

SUBPART A: VALIDATION OF LICENCES ..................................................................................................... 1VC.A.005 General ....................................................................................................................................... 1VC.A.010 Validation of pilot licences for Commercial Air Transport (CAT) and other commercial activities1VC.A.015 Validation of Pilot licences for non-commercial activities with an instrument rating .............. 2VC.A.020 Validation of Pilot licences for non-commercial activities without an instrument rating .............. 2VC.A.025 Validation of pilot licences for specific tasks of limited duration ................................................. 3

SUBPART B: CONVERSION OF LICENCES................................................................................................... 4VC.B.005 General ...................................................................................................................................... 4VC.B.010 Conversion of Pilot Licences to Annex I: Part-FCL PPL/BPL/SPL............................................ 4VC.B.015 Conversion of Pilot Licences to Annex I: Part-FCL CPL and IR ............................................... 4VC.B.020 Conversion of Pilot Licences to Annex I:Part-FCL ATPL .......................................................... 6VC.B.025 ................................................................................................................................................. 6VC.B.030 Specific requirements for Conversion of Multi-crew Pilot Licences............................................ 6

SUBPART C: ACCEPTANCE OF CLASS, TYPE RATING / CERTIFICATE / AUTHORISATION .................... 8VC.C.005 General ...................................................................................................................................... 8VC.C.010 Acceptance of Instructor Rating / Certificate / Authorisation...................................................... 8VC.C.015 Acceptance of Class or Type Rating.......................................................................................... 9

Qatar Civil Aviation Regulations Aircrew Licensing - Annex III: Part Validation and Conversion No. 001 of 2016

Aircrew Licensing - Annex III: Part Validation and Conversion Revision 1 aLCAL(A) Ref Bk - PVT / 1 MAY 2018 / Page 241 of 448

VALIDATION AND CONVERSION PART-VC

ANNEX III

VALIDATION AND CONVERSION (VC)

CONDITIONS FOR THE ACCEPTANCE OF FLIGHT CREW LICENCES, QUALIFICATIONS, RATINGS,CERTIFICATES OR AUTHORISATIONS ISSUED BY ANY OTHER ICAO CONTRACTING STATE

SUBPART A: VALIDATION OF LICENCES

VC.A.005 General

VC.A.010 Validation of pilot licences for Commercial Air Transport (CAT) and other commercial activities

In the case of pilot licences for commercial air transport (CAT) and other commercial activities, the holder shallcomply with the following requirements:

Validation of licence has the same meaning as rendering valid a foreign licence as required byICAO Annex 1.

(1)

A pilot licence issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Conventionby an ICAO Contracting State may be validated by the Authority.

(2)

The period of validation of a licence shall not exceed 12 months, provided that the foreign licence,ratings or authorisations and medical certificate of the applicant remain valid. The period may onlybe extended once for a maximum of 12 months when, during the validation period, the pilot hasapplied, or is undergoing training, for the issue of a Qatar licence in accordance with Annex I:Part-FCL of QCAR 001/2016 or when exceptional circumstances so justify.

(3)

Pilots shall apply to the Authority when the operator for which they intend to fly has its principalplace of business in Qatar, or when the aircraft on which they intend to fly is registered in Qatar..

(4)

A pilot holding a validation shall be fully qualified and operational on the aircraft type for which thevalidation is sought. No training (i.e. additional class/type, differences or familiarization) shall beadmissible except for operator’s specific operating provisions (SOPs) /requirements.

(5)

The holders of a licence accepted by the Authority shall exercise their privileges in accordancewith the requirements stated in Annex I:Part-FCL of QCAR 001/2016.

(6)

hold a current and valid foreign licence and foreign medical with the appropriate class;(1)

hold a valid class 1 medical certificate, issued in accordance with Annex IV: Part MED of QCAR 001/2016;

(2)

hold a current class/type rating and meet the recency requirements as outlined by QCAR FCL.060 onthe specific type or class of aircraft for which the privileges are sought;

(3)

complete, as a skill test, the type or class rating revalidation requirements of Annex I:Part-FCL ofQCAR 001/2016, relevant to the privileges of the licence held;

(4)

pass a written examination concerning the relevant parts of air law and operational procedures at theprofessional pilot licence level organised by the Authority or by an organisation approved by theAuthority;

(5)

show or demonstrate that he/she has acquired knowledge of English in accordance with QCAR(6)


Aircrew Licensing - Annex III: Part Validation and Conversion Revision 1 Page 1 of 9LCAL(A) Ref Bk - PVT / 1 MAY 2018 / Page 242 of 448

VC.A.015 Validation of Pilot licences for non-commercial activities with an instrument rating

VC.A.020 Validation of Pilot licences for non-commercial activities without an instrument rating

FCL.055;

in the case of ATPL(A), the applicant shall comply with the experience requirement of 500 hours onMulti Pilot Aeroplanes;

(7)

in the case of ATPL(H), the applicant shall comply with the experience requirement of 350 hours ofMulti Pilot operations;

(8)

in the case of MPL(A), the applicant shall have at least 150 hours as co-pilot on Multi Pilot Aeroplanes;(9)

In the case of private pilot licences, CPL or ATPL with an instrument rating where the pilot intends onlyto exercise private pilot privileges, the holder shall comply with the following requirements:

(1)

Pass a written examination organised by the Authority, concerning the relevant parts of air lawand operational procedures at the professional pilot licence level;

(a)

show or demonstrate that he/she has acquired knowledge of English in accordance withQCAR FCL.055;

(b)

hold at least a valid Class 2 medical certificate issued in accordance with Annex 1 to theChicago Convention;

(c)

complete the skill test for instrument rating and the type or class ratings relevant to theprivileges of the licence held, in accordance with Appendix 7 and Appendix 9 of Annex I:Part-FCL of QCAR 001/2016;

(d)

have a minimum experience of at least 100 hours of instrument flight time as pilot-in-command in the relevant category of aircraft.

(e)

The validation shall be restricted to “exercise the privileges of a PPL only”.(2)

In the case of private pilot licences, or CPL, MPL and ATPL licences without an instrument ratingwhere the pilot intends only to exercise private pilot privileges, the holder shall comply with thefollowing requirements:

(1)

Pass a written examination organised by the Authority, concerning the relevant parts of air lawand operational procedures at the private pilot licence level;

(a)

fulfill the relevant requirements of Annex I:Part-FCL of QCAR 001/2016 for the issuance of atype or class rating as relevant to the privileges of the licence held;

(b)

hold at least a Class 2 medical certificate issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the ChicagoConvention;

(c)

show or demonstrate that he/she has acquired language proficiency in accordance withQCAR FCL.055;

(d)

pass the PPL skill test as set out in Annex I:Part-FCL of QCAR 001/2016;(e)

have a minimum experience of at least 100 hours as pilot in the relevant category of aircraft..(f)



VC.A.025 Validation of pilot licences for specific tasks of limited duration

The validation shall be restricted to “exercise the privileges of a PPL only”(2)

Notwithstanding the provisions of the paragraphs above, in the case of manufacturer flights, theAuthority may accept a licence issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a ICAOContracting State for a maximum of 12 months for specific tasks of limited duration, such as instructionflights for initial entry into service, demonstration flights, ferry flights or test flights, provided the applicantholds an appropriate licence and medical certificate and associated ratings or qualifications issued inaccordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In this case, the privileges of the holder shallbe limited to performing flight instruction and testing for initial issue of type ratings, the supervisionof initial line flying by the operators’ pilots, delivery, ferry, demonstration flights, initial line flying, flightdemonstrations or test flights

(1)

Notwithstanding the provisions of the paragraphs above, the Authority may, for competition flights ordisplay flights of limited duration, accept a licence issued by an ICAO Contracting State allowing theholder to exercise the privileges of a PPL, SPL or BPL provided:

(2)

Prior to the event, the organizer of the competition or display flights provides theAuthority with adequate evidence on how it will ensure that the pilot will be familiarized withthe relevant safety information and manage any risk associated with the flights; and

(a)

The applicant holds an appropriate licence and medical certificate and associated ratings orqualifications issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention.

(b)

Notwithstanding the provisions of the paragraphs above, the Authority may accept a PPL, SPL or BPLissued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by another ICAOContacting State for a maximum of 28 days per calendar year for specific non-commercial tasksprovided the applicant:

(3)

Holds an appropriate licence and medical certificate and associated ratings or qualificationsissued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention; and

(a)

Has completed at least one acclimatization flight with a qualified instructor prior to carrying outthe specific tasks for limited duration.

(b)



SUBPART B: CONVERSION OF LICENCES

VC.B.005 General

VC.B.010 Conversion of Pilot Licences to Annex I: Part-FCL PPL/BPL/SPL

VC.B.015 Conversion of Pilot Licences to Annex I: Part-FCL CPL and IR

A licence issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention may beconverted to a Qatar licence upon compliance with the following general and initial requirements::

The original licence shall be valid and current. In cases where the licence is non- expiring, thevalidity shall depend upon valid and current ratings (class/type).

(a)

The original licence shall have, or show evidence of, a valid English Language Proficiency ofat least level 4.

(b)

The original licence to be converted must comply with the same Annex I:Part-FCL of QCAR001/2016 requirements as those for the requested Qatar licence;.

(c)

In no case shall the Qatar licence be issued with a higher level than the original licence;(d)

The associated medical certificate shows an appropriate class and is valid for the privileges ofthe licence held;

(e)

The holder shall have completed the flight time requirements for the level of licence sought inaccordance with Annex I:Part-FCL of QCAR 001/2016.

(f)

(1)

For commercial activities the pilot shall apply to the Authority through a Qatar ATO or AOC holder..(2)

A PPL/BPL/SPL, a CPL, MPL or ATPL issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to theChicago Convention may be converted to a Qatar Part-FCL PPL/BPL/SPL with a single-pilot class,multi-pilot class or type rating by the Authority.

(1)

The holder of such licence shall comply with the following minimum requirements, for the relevantaircraft category:

(2)

pass a written examination organised by the Authority concerning the relevant parts of the airlaw and operational procedures at the private pilot licence level;

(a)

pass the PPL, BPL or SPL skill test, as relevant, in accordance with Annex I:Part-FCL;(b)

fulfil the requirements for the issue of the relevant class or type rating, in accordance withSubpart H;

(c)

hold at least a Class 2 medical certificate, issued in accordance with Annex IV:Part-MED;(d)

show or demonstrate that he/she has acquired language proficiency in accordance withQCAR FCL.055;

(e)

completed the flight time requirements for the level of licence sought in accordance withAnnex I:Part-FCL of QCAR 001/2016.

(f)

A CPL or ATPL issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention may(1)



be converted to a Qatar Part-FCL CPL with single-pilot class, multi-pilot class or type rating by theAuthority.

The holder of the licence shall comply with the following minimum requirements, for the relevantaircraft category:

(2)

pass a written examination concerning the relevant parts of air law and operationalprocedures at the professional pilot licence level organised by the Authority or by anorganisation approved by the Authority;

(a)

pass the CPL/IR skill test as relevant in accordance with Annex I:Part-FCL;(b)


(c)

hold a Class 1 medical certificate, issued in accordance with Part-MED;(d)

have completed at least 200 hours of flight time experience as a pilot in aeroplanes or 150hours of flight time as a pilot in helicopters;

(e)

have completed at least 75 hours of instrument flight time if requesting instrument flightprivileges.

(f)

The holder of a CPL/IR with ATPL level knowledge and:(3)

For aeroplanes, less than 1500 hours of flight experience as pilot on multi-pilotoperations shall pass a written examination in flight planning and flight performanceat the ATPL(A) level organized by the Authority.

(i)

For helicopters, less than 1000 hours of flight experience as pilot on multi-pilothelicopter/single pilot helicopter shall pass a written examination in flight planningand flight performance at ATPL(H) level organised by the Authority.

(ii)

The holder of a CPL/IR with ATPL level knowledge and:(4)

For aeroplanes, more than 1500 hours of flight experience as pilot on multi-pilotoperations shall pass a written examination in flight planning and flight performanceat the ATPL(A) level organized by the Authority, only if the ATP theory was notissued in accordance with subpart F of Part-FCL or by an equivalent standard.

(i)

For helicopters, more than 1000 hours of flight experience as pilot on multi-pilothelicopter/single pilot helicopter shall pass a written examination in flight planningand flight performance at ATPL(H) level organised by the Authority, only if the ATPtheory was not issued in accordance with subpart F of Part-FCL or by an equivalentstandard.

(ii)

The holder of a CPL/IR without ATPL theory examination of the State of licence who wishes to obtainand operate a multi-pilot aeroplane / helicopter or multi-engine helicopter shall demonstrate theoreticalknowledge at the level of the ATPL in accordance with Subpart F of Part-FCL or by an equivalentstandard.

(5)



VC.B.020 Conversion of Pilot Licences to Annex I:Part-FCL ATPL

VC.B.025

RESERVED

VC.B.030 Specific requirements for Conversion of Multi-crew Pilot Licences

An ATPL issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention may beconverted to a Qatar Part-FCL ATPL with single-pilot class, multi-pilot class or type rating by theAuthority.

(1)


(2)

Pass a written examination concerning the relevant parts of air law and operationalprocedures at the professional pilot licence level organised by an organisation approved bythe Authority or by the Authority;

(a)

pass the ATPL skill test as relevant in accordance with Annex I:Part-FCL;(b)


(c)

hold a Class 1 medical certificate, issued in accordance with Part-Medical;(d)

have completed at least 500 hours of flight time experience as a pilot in multi pilot operationson aeroplanes or 350 hours of flight time as a pilot in multi-pilot helicopters

(e)

The holder of an ATPL:(3)

For aeroplanes, with less than 1500 hours of flight experience as pilot on multi-pilotoperations shall pass a written examination in flight planning and flight performanceat the ATPL(A) level organized by the authority, only if the ATP theory was not issuedin accordance with Subpart F of Part-FCL or, by an equivalent standard.

(i)

For helicopters, with less than 1000 hours of flight experience as pilot on multi-pilothelicopter/single pilot helicopter shall pass a written examination in flight planningand flight performance at ATPL(H) level organised by the authority, only if the ATPtheory was not issued in accordance with Subpart F of Part-FCL or, by an equivalentstandard.

(ii)

A MPL(A) issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention may beconverted to a Qatar Part-FCL MPL(A) only for the same type rated aircraft endorsed in the originallicence.

(1)


(2)

pass a written examination concerning the relevant parts of air law and operationalprocedures at the professional pilot licence level organised by the Authority or by anorganisation approved by the Authority;

(a)

pass the MPL(A) skill test as relevant in accordance with Annex I:Part-FCL;(b)

hold a Class 1 medical certificate, issued in accordance with Annex IV: Part-MED;(c)



have completed at least 150 hours of flight time experience as co-pilot on multi-pilotaeroplanes;

(d)

The holder of a MPL(A) with less than 1500 hours of flight experience as pilot on multi-pilot operationsand non-equivalent ATPL(A) standard shall pass a written examination in flight planning and flightperformance at ATPL(A) level organised by the Authority.

(3)



SUBPART C: ACCEPTANCE OF CLASS, TYPE RATING / CERTIFICATE / AUTHORISATION

VC.C.005 General

A valid class or type rating, instructor certificate or authorization from other ICAO contracting State may beaccepted to a Qatar Part-FCL equivalent provided the applicant meets the specific requirement under the Qataraircrew regulations.

VC.C.010 Acceptance of Instructor Rating / Certificate / Authorisation

A valid instructor rating/certificate/authorisation issued by another ICAO contracting State may be converted intoPart-FCL certificate with the same type of aircraft / simulator, provided that the applicant complies with thefollowing requirements:

ICAO ContractingState rating/certificate

/authorisation

Experience Any Further requirements Replacement Part-FCL certificate

[A/H]

FI

IRI

TRI

CRI

MCCI

FTI

Meet all therequirements undersubpart J of Part-FCL forthe relevant rating/certificate /authorisation

Pass the relevant assessmentof competence in accordancewith FCL.935 of Part -FCL

[A/H]

FI

IRI

TRI

CRI

MCCI

FTI

SFI rating/certificate

SFI(A)

SFI(H)

For Aeroplanes,have more than1500 hours as pilotof MPA

For Helicopters;have more than1000 hours as pilotof MPH

Pass the relevant assessmentof competence in accordancewith FCL.935 of Part -FCL

SFI(A)

SFI(H)

STI rating/certificate

STI(A)

STI(H)

Have more than500 hours as piloton SPA/SPH

Have completed a proficiencycheck in accordance withAppendix 9 to Part-FCL in aFSTD appropriate to theinstruction intended

STI(A)

STI(H)



VC.C.015 Acceptance of Class or Type Rating

A valid class or type rating contained in a licence issued by another ICAO contracting State may be inserted in aQatar Annex I:Part-FCL licence provided that the applicant:

complies with the experience requirements and the prerequisites for the issue of the applicable type orclass rating in accordance with Annex I:Part-FCL;

(1)

passes the relevant skill test for the issue of the applicable type or class rating in accordance withAnnex I:Part-FCL;

(2)

is in current flying practice (recency requirement);(3)

has no less than:(4)

for aeroplane class ratings, 100 hours of flight experience as a pilot in that class;(a)

for aeroplane type ratings, 500 hours of flight experience as a pilot in that type;(b)

for single-engine helicopters with a maximum certificated take-off mass of up to 3175 kg, 100hours of flight experience as a pilot in that type;

(c)

for all other helicopters, 350 hours of flight experience as a pilot in that class.(d)



PART 1 — GENERAL (GEN)

GEN 0

GEN 0.1 PREFACE

1 NAME OF THE PUBLISHING AUTHORITYThe Qatar AIP is published by Civil Aviation Authority of the State of Qatar.

2 APPLICABLE ICAO DOCUMENTSThe AIP is prepared in accordance with the Standards And Recommended Practices (SARPS) of Annex 15 to the Conventionon International Civil Aviation and the ICAO Aeronautical Information Services Manual (Doc 8126). Charts contained in theAIP are produced in accordance with Annex 4 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation and the ICAO AeronauticalChart Manual (Doc 8697). Differences from ICAO Standards, Recommended Practices and Procedures are given insubsection GEN 1.7.

3 PUBLICATION MEDIAThe AIP of the State of Qatar is published electronically and available online in both HTML and printable PDF versions. Allthe IAIP elements except NOTAM and monthly checklists are available on Qatar Civil Aviation Authority web site

←www.caa.gov.qa/en-us/Pages/AIM.aspx free of charge to all users.

4 THE AIP STRUCTURE AND ESTABLISHED REGULAR AMENDMENT INTERVAL

4.1 THE AIP STRUCTUREThe AIP forms part of the Integrated Aeronautical Information Package, details of which are given in subsection GEN 3.1.The principal AIP structure is shown in graphic form in GEN 0.1 Figure 1.

The AIP is made up of three Parts, General (GEN), En-route (ENR) and Aerodromes (AD), each divided into sections andsubsections as applicable, containing various types of information subjects.

4.1.1 Part 1 — General (GEN)Part 1 consists of five sections containing information as briefly described hereafter.

GEN 0. — Preface; Record of AIP Amendments; Record of AIP Supplements; Checklist of AIP pages; List of handamendments to the AIP; and the Table of Contents to Part 1.

GEN 1. — National Regulations and Requirements - Designated authorities; Entry, transit and departure of aircraft; Entry,transit and departure of passengers and crew; Entry, transit and departure of cargo; Aircraft instruments, equipment andflight documents; Summary of national regulations and international agreements/conventions; and Differences from ICAOStandards, Recommended Practices and Procedures.

GEN 2. — Tables and Codes - Measuring system, aircraft markings, holidays; Abbreviations used in AIS publications;Chart symbols; Location indicators; List of radio navigation aids; Conversion tables; and Sunrise/Sunset tables.

GEN 3. — Services - Aeronautical information services; Aeronautical charts; Air traffic services; Communication services;Meteorological services; and Search and rescue.

GEN 4. — Charges for Aerodromes/Heliports and Air Navigation Services - Aerodrome/heliport charges; and Air navigationservices charges.

4.1.2 Part 2 — En-route (ENR)Part 2 consists of seven sections containing information as briefly described hereafter.

ENR 0. — Preface; Record of AIP Amendments; Record of AIP Supplements; Checklist of AIP pages; List of handamendments to the AIP; and the Table of Contents to Part 2.

ENR 1. — General Rules and Procedures - General rules; Visual flight rules; Instrument flight rules; ATS airspaceclassification; Holding, approach and departure procedures; Radar services and procedures; Altimeter setting procedures;

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Regional supplementary procedures; Air traffic flow management; Flight planning; Addressing of flight plan messages;Interception of civil aircraft; Unlawful interference; and Air traffic incidents.

ENR 2. — Air Traffic Services Airspace - Detailed description of Flight information regions (FIR); Upper flight informationregions (UIR); Terminal control areas (TMA); and Other regulated airspace.

ENR 3. — ATS Routes - Detailed description of Lower ATS routes; Upper ATS routes; Area navigation routes; Helicopterroutes; Other routes; and En-route holding.

Note: Other types of routes which are specified in connection with procedures for traffic to and from aerodromes/heliportsare described in the relevant sections and subsections of Part 3 — Aerodromes.

ENR 4. — Radio Navigation Aids/Systems - Radio navigation aids — en-route; Special navigation systems; Name-codedesignators for significant points; and Aeronautical ground lights — en-route.

ENR 5. — Navigation Warnings - Prohibited, restricted and danger areas; Military exercise and training areas; Otheractivities of a dangerous nature; Air navigation obstacles — en-route; Aerial sporting and recreational activities; and Birdmigration and areas with sensitive fauna.

ENR 6. — En-Route Charts - En-route Chart — ICAO and index charts.

4.1.3 Part 3 — Aerodromes (AD)Part 3 consists of four sections containing information as briefly described hereafter.

AD 0. — Preface; Record of AIP Amendments; Record of AIP Supplements; Checklist of AIP pages; List of hand amendmentsto the AIP; and the Table of Contents to Part 3.

AD 1. — Aerodromes/Heliports — Introduction - Aerodrome/heliport availability; Rescue and fire fighting services andSnow plan; Index to aerodromes and heliports; and Grouping of aerodromes/heliports.

AD 2. — Aerodromes - Detailed information about aerodromes, including helicopter landing areas, if located at theaerodromes, listed under 24 subsections.

4.2 REGULAR AMENDMENT INTERVALThe AIP of the State of Qatar will be updated on regular basis according the AIRAC dates as published under GEN 3.1.Whenever an AIRAC AMDT is published a trigger NOTAM will be issued on the Publication date of the AIRAC AMDTconcerned. This NOTAM will provide a brief description of the AIRAC content and shall come into force on the effectivedate of theAIRACAMDT concerned.

5 COPYRIGHT POLICYCopyright © by Qatar Civil Aviation Authority.

All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system, or transmitted, in any formor by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, or otherwise, without the prior written permission of thecopyright owner.

6 SERVICE TO CONTACT IN CASE OF DETECTED AIP ERRORS OR OMISSIONSIn the compilation of the AIP, care has been taken to ensure that the information contained therein is accurate and complete.Any errors and omissions which may nevertheless be detected, as well as any correspondence concerning the IntegratedAeronautical Information Package, should be referred to:

Post: Aeronautical Information ServiceAir Navigation DepartmentCivil Aviation AuthorityP. O. Box 73DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4470 5566 / 5577Fax: (974) 4470 5678AFS: OTHHYOYXEmail: [email protected]:

←www.caa.gov.qa/en-us/Pages/AIM.aspx

© QATAR CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITYAIRAC AMDT 02/2018

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The integrated Aeronautical Information Package

© QATAR CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY

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GEN 1 NATIONAL REGULATIONS AND REQUIREMENTS

GEN 1.1 DESIGNATED AUTHORITIESThe addresses of the designated authorities concerned with facilitation of international air navigation are as follows:

1 CIVIL AVIATIONPost: Chairman

Civil Aviation AuthorityP. O. Box 3000DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4455 7333 Ext. 320/316Fax: (974) 4455 2233AFS: OTBDYAYX, OTHHYAYXSITA: DOHXYYF, DOHXZYF

2 METEOROLOGYPost: Head of Meteorology

P.O. Box 3000DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4455 2727Fax: (974) 4465 9541AFS: OTBDYMYX

3 CUSTOMSPost: Airport Customs Director


Tel: (974) 4010 2484(974) 4010 2535

Fax: (974) 4462 1524Email: [email protected]: 4852 CUS DH

4 IMMIGRATIONPost: Airport Chief Immigration Officer


Tel: (974) 4462 2228Fax: (974) 4462 1386

(974) 4463 3300

5 HEALTHPost: Director of Public Health


Tel: (974) 4462 2412(974) 4462 2284

Fax: (974) 4407 0820(974)4462 2410


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6 AERODROME/HELIPORT CHARGESPost: Air Navigation Department

Civil Aviation AuthorityP.O. Box 73DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4470 5333Fax: (974) 4470 5300AFS: OTBDYAYX, OTHHYAYXSITA: DOHXYYF, DOHXZYF

7 AGRICULTURAL QUARANTINEPost: General Department of Agriculture Research and Development

Department of Animal ResourcesP.O. Box 23211DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4465 3083Fax: (974) 4466 3163

8 AIRCRAFT ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION← Post: Head

Qatar Air Accident Investigation (QAAI)Civil Aviation AuthorityP. O. Box 3000DohaState of Qatar

← Tel: (974) 4457 1302Fax: (974) 4465 4761Email:

←[email protected]

9 AIRCRAFT HANDLINGPost: Duty Manager

Qatar Aviation ServicesP. O. Box 383DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4010 4252Fax: (974) 4462 1485Email: [email protected]

Post: Duty ControllerQatar Aviation ServicesP. O. Box 383DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4010 4245Fax: (974) 4462 1485Email: [email protected]

10 AIRCRAFT FUELLINGPost: Qatar Jet Fuel Co. (QJet)

P. O. Box 22244DohaState of Qatar

Tel: SUN - THU 0300-1200 UTC(974) 4462 1504(974) 4462 2477

Fax: (974) 4462 2736Email: [email protected]


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Post: Duty Supervisor (H24)Qatar Jet Fuel Co. (QJet)P. O. Box 22244DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4462 1505(974) 4462 0755

Fax: (974) 4462 2650Email: [email protected]


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GEN 1.2 ENTRY, TRANSIT AND DEPARTURE OF AIRCRAFT

1 GENERAL1.1 International flights into, from or over the territory of State of Qatar shall be subject to the current Qatar regulationsrelating to civil aviation. These regulations correspond in all essentials to the Standards and Recommended Practicescontained in Annex 9 to the Convention on International Civil Aviation.

1.2 Aircraft flying into or departing from the territory of Qatar, shall make their first landing at, or final departure from aninternational aerodrome (see Qatar AIP page AD-1.3, AD-2.OTBD and AD-2.OTHH).

1.3 All carriers and aircraft operators are required to provide insurance in respect of passengers, baggage, cargo and thirdparties in accordance to Qatar Civil Aviation Law No. 15 of year 2002 (as amended). This insurance cover shall not be lessthan the internationally recognized criteria and acceptable to Qatar Civil Aviation Authority.

2 CIVIL SCHEDULED FLIGHTS

2.1 GENERAL2.1.1 Before a scheduled service is permitted to operate into the State of Qatar, it must be appropriately covered by abilateral or multilateral agreement with the Qatar Civil Aviation Authority (QCAA). All scheduled flights are subject to priorapproval.

2.1.2 Any airline intending to operate to the State of Qatar with aircraft types ILYUSHIN, TUPOLEV, ANTONOV and YAK,are required to provide the Qatar Civil Aviation Authority (QCAA) with the relevant certificates of Airworthiness, Insuranceand Radio/Station License at least seventy-two (72) hours before the intended operation.

2.1.3 Any designated airline intending to start operations to the State of Qatar should submit as a pre-requisite to grantingapproval, the following documents for review and acceptance:

a. Official letter from the Airline requesting permission to operate (letter of Intent)b. Air Operator's Certificate (A.O.C) and Operating Specificationc. Certificate of Airworthinessd. Certificate of Registratione. Insurance Certificatef. Noise Certificateg. Radio Certificate (Station License)h. Lease Agreement in case of Leased Aircrafti. GSA Agreement and Letter from GSAj. Schedulek. Air Operator Security Programme (AOSP)

Once reviewed and accepted, QCAA would send the Advance Risk Assessment System (ARAS) APP/PNR Documents tothe Airline.

2.1.4 All applications must be submitted to:

Post: ChairmanCivil Aviation AuthorityP. O. Box 3000DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4455 7333 Ext. 320/316Fax: (974) 4455 2233AFS: OTBDYAYX, OTBDYFYXSITA: DOHXYYF

2.2 APPLICATION FOR TRAFFIC LANDINGS2.2.1 Only the designated airline operator may apply for the permission to operate scheduled flights.

←←

2.2.2 All approved airlines should apply for their seasonal and ad-hoc schedules/slot approval as per the IATA Chapter 6format and according to the IATA calendar deadlines to the following e-mail addresses:To: [email protected], [email protected]

←Copy to: [email protected], [email protected], [email protected]

←


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2.2.3 Changes to approved schedule/slots should be requested as per IATA Chapter 6 format up to one day prior to dayof operation. Changes to approved schedule/slots on the day of operation will not be handled through the schedule/slotsapproval process and any diversion from the approved schedule/slots will be considered as slot misuse.

2.2.4 All approved airlines operating ad-hoc charter passenger or cargo flights should present a handling confirmationnumber provided by their handling agent as SI information along with the schedule/slot request. This request should befiled as per the IATA Chapter 6 format to the following e-mail addresses:To: [email protected], [email protected], [email protected] to: [email protected], [email protected]

2.2.5 Airline operators are to ensure that the following certificates shall remain valid and carried on-board the aircraft at alltimes.

1. Certificate of Registration2. Certificate of Airworthiness3. Air Operator's Certificate4. Certificate of Insurance5. Radio Station License6. Noise Certificate

2.3 DOCUMENTARY REQUIREMENTS FOR CLEARANCE OF AIRCRAFT2.3.1 It is necessary that the under mentioned aircraft documents be submitted by aircraft operators for clearance on entryand departure of their aircraft to and from Qatar. All documents listed below must follow the ICAO standard format, set forthin Appendices to Annex 9.

2.3.2 Aircraft documents required

Cargo manifestPassenger manifestGeneral declarationRequired byNot RequiredNot RequiredGround handling agent/QAS

provides a separate CrewClearance form which is

accepted by local authority.This form is raised in

triplicate i.e. 02 copies areretained by the authority and01 copy handed over to the

crew.

Immigration

One Copy on RequestNot RequiredNot RequiredHealthOne Copy on RequestNot RequiredNot RequiredCustoms

201Total

2.4 OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENTS2.4.1 Operators are required to submit their flight plan in sufficient time to ensure receipt by Doha ATC (See addressing ofFPL messages in ENR-1.11), a minimum of:

a. For arriving flights, a minimum of one (1) hour prior to departure from aerodrome of origin.; andb. For departing flights, a minimum of one (1) hour in advance of EOBT for the aircraft's departure from Doha

International/Hamad International airport.

2.5 AIRCRAFT HANDLING SERVICES2.5.1 Operators are required to contact Qatar Aviation Services (QAS) for all ground handling services, on the given addressspecified under GEN 1.1.9

2.6 APPLICATION FOR OVERFLYING TRAFFIC2.6.1 If an operator intends to perform a scheduled flight for the purpose of transit across (overfly) the territory of State ofQatar, it is necessary to obtain prior overflying permission from the QCAA at least seventy-two (72) hours before the intendedflight take place.

2.6.2 Such applications or requests must reach to [email protected], [email protected],[email protected] e-mail addresses and to the address specified under GEN 1.2.2.1.4

2.6.3 All applications/requests must include the following information in the order shown hereunder:

a. Aircraft Callsign


AIP QatarGEN 1.2-222 JUN 2017~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2017-05-14T03-40-01-260










b. Aircraft Registrationc. Type of Aircraftd. Purpose of flighte. Nature of cargof. Schedule of operations (including route with entry/exit points of Doha TMA, flight level and timings in UTC)

3 CIVIL NON-SCHEDULED FLIGHTS

3.1 GENERAL3.1.1 If an operator intends to perform a non-scheduled flight into the State of Qatar for the purpose of taking on or dischargingpassengers, cargo or mail, or flight in transit across the state, it is necessary for the operator to obtain prior landing/overflyingpermission from QCAA.

3.2 APPLICATION FOR TRAFFIC LANDINGS3.2.1 Operators are required to submit their requests for non-scheduled flights at least seventy-two (72) hours before theintended flight take place. Such applications must include the following information in the order shown hereunder:

a. Name of the operator;b. Type of aircraft and registration marks;c. Date and time of arrival at, and departure from Doha International/Hamad International airport;d. Place or places of embarkation or disembarkation abroad, as the case may be, of passengers and/or freight;e. Purpose of flight and number of passengers and/or nature and amount of freight;f. Name, address and business of charterer, if any;g. Letter from the local receiving party/charterer (signed and stamped by authorized signatory on official letter-head)

stating all details including purpose of flight; andh. Name and Nationality of Lead Passenger as well as all accompanying passengers.

3.2.2 All Non-Scheduled flights should apply for schedule/slot approval as per IATA Chapter 6 format to the following e-mailaddresses:To: [email protected], [email protected], [email protected],Copy to: [email protected], [email protected]

3.2.3 Also, operators are to ensure that the following certificates shall remain valid and carried on-board at all times.

a. Certificate of Registrationb. Certificate of Airworthinessc. Air Operator's Certificated. Certificate of Insurancee. Radio Station Licensef. Noise Certificate

3.2.4 All applications shall be submitted to the address specified under GEN 1.2.2.1.4

3.3 DOCUMENTARY REQUIREMENTS FOR CLEARANCE OF AIRCRAFT3.3.1 Same requirements as specified under GEN 1.2.2.3

3.4 OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENTS3.4.1 Same requirements as specified under GEN 1.2.2.4

3.4.2 Operators are required to include their landing/overflying clearance number, under RMK/ in Item 18 of the flight plan.


3.6 APPLICATION FOR OVERFLYING TRAFFIC3.6.1 Same requirements as specified under GEN 1.2.2.6









4 PRIVATE FLIGHTS

4.1 GENERAL4.1.1 If an operator intends to carry out a private flight into the territory of the State of Qatar, for the purpose of privateoperations, business or private flight in transit across the state, it is necessary for the operator to obtain prior landing/overflyingpermission from QCAA.

4.2 APPLICATION FOR TRAFFIC LANDINGS4.2.1 The application must include the following information in the order shown hereunder:

a. Name, address and nationality of the operator;b. Type, registration marks and carrying capacity of aircraft;c. Crew Names, with their nationality;d. Purpose of flight;e. Name and nationality of Lead Passenger as well as all accompanying passengers;f. Letter from the local receiving party (signed and stamped by authorized signatory on official letter-head) stating all

details including purpose of flight;g. Details of route, points of landing and final destination;h. Date and time of arrival at, and departure from Doha International/Hamad International airport;i. Name, address and telephone number of operator's local agent; andj. Any other information that may be relevant to the proposed flight.

4.2.2 Also, operators are to ensure that the following certificates shall remain valid and carried on-board at all times.

a. Certificate of Registrationb. Certificate of Airworthinessc. Air Operator's Certificated. Certificate of insurancee. Radio Station Licensef. Noise Certificate






4.6 APPLICATION FOR OVERFLYING TRAFFIC4.6.1 Same requirements as specified under GEN 1.2.2.6

5 TECHNICAL LANDINGS

5.1 GENERAL5.1.1 If an operator intends to carry out a technical landing flight into the State of Qatar, it is necessary for the operator toobtain prior permission for landing.

5.2 APPLICATION FOR TRAFFIC LANDINGS5.2.1 The application must include the following information in the order shown hereunder:

a. Name, address and nationality of the operator;b. Type, registration marks and carrying capacity of aircraft;c. Purpose of flight and name of passengers;d. Details of route, points of landing and final destination;e. Date and time of arrival at, and departure from Doha International/Hamad International airport;




f. Name, address and telephone number of operator's local agent (if applicable); andg. Any other information that may be significant to the proposed technical landing.






6 AIR AMBULANCE FLIGHTS

6.1 GENERAL6.1.1 If an operator intends to carry out an Air Ambulance flight for the purpose of medical evacuation (MEDEVAC) into theState of Qatar, do not necessarily required to obtain prior permission from the QCAA provided, that a standard ICAO flightplan is filed with following information shown hereunder:

a. Insert, STS/MEDEVAC in item 18 of the flight plan;b. Insert the duration of stay and the intention to take on or discharge a medical case passenger or any intended

movement of on-board personnel, under RMK/ in item 18 of the flight plan.

6.1.2 It is the responsibility of the MEDEVAC operator to ensure that all the customs and immigration requirements/formalitiesare appropriately completed.


7 DIPLOMATIC CLEARANCE FOR FOREIGN STATE AIRCRAFT

7.1 GENERAL← 7.1.1 All foreign Diplomatic, State aircraft (VIP flight) or Military aircraft intending to land at or in transit across (overfly) the

State of Qatar are to obtain diplomatic clearance from the Ministry of Foreign Affairs, on the following address given below,unless alternate arrangements has been made:

Post: Ministry of Foreign AffairsP. O. Box 250DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4419 9113(974) 4011 1000 or, 104/140 (after office hours)

Fax: (974) 4485 0877(974) 4432 7444 or, 333 (after office hours)

7.1.2 All applications and requests must also reach to [email protected], [email protected],[email protected] e-mail addresses.










8 TEST FLIGHTS

8.1 GENERAL8.1.1 All applications for test flights are subjected to prior approval.

8.2 APPLICATION FOR TRAFFIC LANDINGS8.2.1 All applications are to be made at least 2 hours but not more than 2 working days in advance. If notice is not compliedwith, the application may not be considered.

8.2.2 Applications should provide details as listed in the order shown hereunder:

a. Aircraft Callsign;b. Aircraft Registration;c. Type of Aircraft;d. Date, time (UTC) and duration of flight; ande. Point of Departure and Arrival.

8.2.3 All applications should be submitted to the following address:

Post: Air Navigation DepartmentQatar Civil Aviation AuthorityP. O. Box 73DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4470 5080Fax: (974) 4462 1052AFS: OTBDZTZX, OTBDYAYX, OTHHYAYXSITA: DOHXYYF, DOHXZYF

8.2.4 Applicants should ensure the documents as listed below are remain valid during the flight.

a. Certificate of Registration;b. Certificate of Airworthiness; orc. A permit to fly (issued by QCAA) in the absence of valid Certificate of Airworthiness.

8.3 OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENTS8.3.1 Requirements on flight planning are specified under ENR 1.10

9 PUBLIC HEALTH MEASURES APPLIED TO AIRCRAFTIn relation to public health measures in the State of Qatar, the pilot in command of an aircraft shall report by radio to theATC of the intended airport of arrival when the following arises:

a. Presence of person(s) on board of an aircraft of whom he knows or has reason to suspect are suffering from a disease.b. Conditions on board which may lead to the spread of disease.




GEN 1.3 ENTRY, TRANSIT AND DEPARTURE OF PASSENGERS AND CREW

1 CUSTOMS REQUIREMENTS

1.1 ARRIVING PASSENGERS1.1.1 The baggage or articles belonging to disembarking passengers or crew are immediately released, except for thoseselected by the customs authorities for inspection.

1.2 TRANSIT PASSENGERS1.2.1 No customs formalities are required.

1.3 DEPARTING PASSENGERS1.3.1 Customs formalities are normally not required.

2 IMMIGRATION REQUIREMENTS

2.1 ARRIVING PASSENGERS2.1.1 Passengers entering into the State of Qatar are required to present themselves with their valid passport/traveldocuments and immigration visas.

2.2 TRANSIT PASSENGERS2.2.1 No documents or visa are required for passengers arriving and departing on the same through flight, or transferringto another flight at the same airport.

2.3 DEPARTING PASSENGERS2.3.1 Passengers are required to produce their valid passport/travel documents for inspection.

2.4 FLIGHT CREW2.4.1 A flight crewmember on a scheduled service who retains his license in his possession when embarking or disembarking,remains at the airport where the aircraft has stopped, or within the confines of the cities adjacent thereto, and departs onthe same aircraft or on his next regularly scheduled flight out of Qatar, his crew member license or certificate is acceptedin lieu of passport or visa for temporary admission into Qatar.

3 PUBLIC HEALTH REQUIREMENTS

3.1 ARRIVING PASSENGERS3.1.1 Passengers arriving from India and Pakistan are required to have certificates of inoculation against cholera.

3.2 TRANSIT PASSENGERS3.2.1 No health formalities are required.

3.3 DEPARTING PASSENGERS3.3.1 On departure, no health formalities are required.




GEN 1.4 ENTRY, TRANSIT AND DEPARTURE OF CARGO

1 CUSTOMS REQUIREMENTS CONCERNING CARGO AND OTHER ARTICLES

1.1 IMPORTS1.1.1 All air cargo shipments are subjected to Customs formalities.

1.2 TRANS-SHIPMENTS1.2.1 As regards, air cargo being trans-shipped from one flight to another flight at the same international airport undercustoms supervision.

1.2.2 In the case of cargo and other articles being transferred from one international airport to another international airportin the State of Qatar are subjected to Customs formalities.

1.3 EXPORTS1.3.1 In the case of food items being exported, a Health Certificate of Fitness issued by the Public Health Department isrequired.

1.3.2 No special documents are required in respect of goods being exported by air from the State of Qatar, other than adeclaration of value.

2 AGRICULTURAL QUARANTINE REQUIREMENTS

2.1 IMPORTS2.1.1 Advance permission is required from the General Department of Agriculture Research and Development (Departmentof Animal Resources) for the importation of:

a. Animals, animal products, birds, bird products, meat, meat products and veterinary biological products;b. Fish (for consumption and live fish for aquaria), fisheries products (in all forms) and all types of aquatic animals;c. All types of plants and plant parts including cuttings, seeds and bulbs; andd. All kinds of organic fertilizers containing animal and plant substances.

2.1.2 All applications should be submitted to the following address:

Post: General Department of Agriculture Research and DevelopmentDepartment of Animal ResourcesP.O. Box 23211DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4465 3083Fax: (974) 4466 3163

2.2 EXPORTS2.2.1 Requirements specified under 2.1 Imports sub-section (above) shall be applied.

3 REQUIREMENTS FOR THE CARRIAGE OF DANGEROUS GOODS IN AIRCRAFT

3.1 DANGEROUS GOODS3.1.1 QCAR OPS 1.1155 of the Qatar Civil Aviation Regulations, sub Part R/ Flight Operations Information Leaflet (FOIL)No. 04/04 Issue 01, issued by QCAA Air Safety Department, provides that dangerous goods shall not be carried in civil airtransport aircraft except with the written permission from the appropriate authority in accordance with any conditions whichmay be imposed. This provision applies to all civil aircraft destined to or from and overflying the territory of State of Qatar,and to aircraft registered in the State of Qatar wherever they may be.

3.1.2 Granting of written permission, if given, is subjected to compliance with ICAOAnnex 18 to the Convention of InternationalCivil Aviation and the latest edition of the ICAO Technical Instructions relating to the Safe Transport of Dangerous Goodsby Air.

3.1.3 All applications should reach QCAA at least ten (10) working days before the intended flight take place.

3.1.4 Following documents shall be attached with the application in the order shown hereunder:




a. Shipper’s declaration form;b. Airway bill;c. Commercial invoice; andd. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), if necessary.

3.1.5 All applications should be submitted to:

Post: The DirectorAir Safety DepartmentCivil Aviation AuthorityP. O. Box 3000DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4455 7201Fax: (974) 4465 4761Email:


3.2 REPORTING OF ACCIDENT/INCIDENT RELATING TO DANGEROUS GOODS3.2.1 Operators are required to submit a written report to QCAA within seventy-two (72) hours of the occurrence of anydangerous goods accident, incident or the finding of any undeclared dangerous goods.

3.2.2 The report required shall contain such of the following information as is appropriate to the occurrence:

a. State of the operator;b. State of origin;c. Registration and call sign of aircraft;d. Date and time of occurrence;e. Location of the occurrence;f. Description of dangerous goods or munitions of war, with the reference number of the airway bill;g. Quantity of goods;h. Name and address of the shipper;i. Cause of the occurrence;j. Action taken upon discovery of the occurrence, including any mitigation measures;k. Damage for the property;l. Name, title, address, contact numbers and e-mail address of the reporter; andm. Any significant information which may be relevant for investigation.

3.2.3 All reports should be submitted to:

Post: The DirectorAir Safety DepartmentCivil Aviation AuthorityP. O. Box 3000DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4455 7201Fax: (974) 4465 4761Email:



AIP QatarGEN 1.4-208 DEC 2016~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2016-10-20T07-57-33-841




GEN 1.5 AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENTS, EQUIPMENT AND FLIGHT DOCUMENTS

1 GENERAL1.1 Commercial air transport aircraft operating in the State of Qatar must adhere to the provisions of ICAO Annex 6 Part Ito the Convention of International Civil Aviation relating to the Operation of Aircraft, International Commercial Transport. –Aeroplanes, Chapter 6 (Aeroplane instruments, Equipment and Flight documents) and Chapter 7 (Aeroplane Communicationand Navigation Equipment) and to the latest edition of the ICAO technical instructions.

1.2 The requirements of the Chairman of Civil Aviation and the general conditions under which the communication andnavigation services are available for international use, as well as the requirements for the carriage of aircraft instrument,equipment and flight documents by all aircraft operating within the territory of State of Qatar, are contained in the QatarCivil Aviation Regulation (QCAR-OPS1) - Commercial Air Transport (Aeroplanes) and in Minimum Equipment List(QCAR-MEL).

2 SPECIAL EQUIPMENT TO BE CARRIED2.1 In addition to above, all aircraft intending to enter into Bahrain FIR/UIR, must comply with the provisions prescribed insection, GEN 1.5 in AIP Bahrain FIR.

3 EQUIPMENT TO BE CARRIED BY ALL TYPES OF FLIGHTS3.1 All commercial air transport aircraft operating within the territory of State of Qatar, shall be equipped with SSR 4096code capability of functioning in Mode S and comply with the specifications of ICAO Annex 10 Volume IV.

3.2 All fixed-wing turbine-engine aircraft having maximum take-off mass in excess of 5 700 KG or approved passengerseating configuration of more than 19, will be required to be equipped with ACAS II. Failure to comply with this requirement,shall not be permitted to operate within Doha TMA.




GEN 1.6 SUMMARY OF NATIONAL REGULATIONS AND INTERNATIONALAGREEMENTS/CONVENTIONS

1 GENERAL1.1 Following are the list of civil aviation legislation and regulations in force in the State of Qatar. It is essential that anyoneengaged in civil air operations within the territorial limits of the State of Qatar, be acquainted with the relevant regulations.

1.2 These documents can be obtained from:

Post: Civil Aviation AuthorityP. O. Box 3000DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4455 7333Fax: (974) 4455 2233Copies of these legislation (in electronic means) can also be obtained from http://www.caa.gov.qa

2 LIST OF CIVIL AVIATION LEGISLATION AND REGULATIONS2.1 Civil Aviation Law

i. Law No. 15 of 2002 - State of Qatar Civil Aviation Lawii. Law No. 21 for the year 2008 - Amending Civil Aviation Law No. 15 of 2002iii. Law No. 3 for the year 2011 - Amending Civil Aviation Law No. 15 of 2002iv. Law No. 45 for the year 2014 - Organizing the Civil Aviation Authority

2.2 Air Transport and Airport Affairs Laws

i. Law No. 26 for the year 2006 - Organizing Air Travel Agenciesii. Law No. 6 for the year 2010 - Cargo Agencies

2.3 Airport Regulations

i. Hamad International Airport User Regulations 2015

2.4 Aviation Security Regulations

i. Civil Aviation Security Quality Control Regulations 2010ii. Hamad International Airport Restricted Area Regulations 2015

2.5 Safety Regulations2.5.1 Flight Operations

i. QCAR - OPS 1 - Commercial Air Transport (Aeroplanes)ii. QCAR - OPS 2 - General Operating and Flight Rulesiii. QCAR - OPS 3 - Commercial Air Transport (Helicopters)iv. QCAR - PART 13 - Accident and Incident Investigationsv. QCAR - MEL - Minimum Equipment Listvi. QCAR - PART 11 - Rule Making and Grants Exemptions

2.5.2 Airworthiness

i. QCAR No. 1001/2006 - Laying down implementation rules governing aircraft registrationii. QCAR No. 1002/2006 - Governing the airworthiness and environmental certification of aircraft, and the acceptability

of related products, parts and appliances, as well as aircraft components and materialsiii. QCARNo. 1003/2006 and amended by QCAR 003 - Governing the continuing airworthiness of aircraft and aeronautical

products, parts and appliances, and on the approval of organizations and personnel involved in these tasks

2.5.3 State Safety Programme

← i. SSP Document← ii.←

QCAR 19- Section A: Part 19- Section B: State Safety Policy Mission- Section C: CAA Safety Policy Statement

iii. QCAR - 004-2017: Occurrence Reporting


GEN 1.6-1AIP Qatar~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2017-10-03T04-36-19-83909 NOV 2017


http://www.caa.gov.qa

2.5.4 Licensing

i. QCAR - FCL 1 - Flight Crew Licensing (Aeroplanes)ii. QCAR - FCL 2 - Flight Crew Licensing (Helicopters)iii. QCAR - MED - Medical Certificationiv. QCAR - ATCL - Air Traffic Controller Licensing

2.5.5 Aerodrome Regulations

i. QCAR - ADR - Standards for Aerodrome Design, Operations & Licensing

2.5.6 Air Traffic Services

i. QCAR - ATS - Air Traffic Services

2.5.7 Meteorological Services

i. QCAR - PART 3 - Meteorological Services for Air Navigation

2.5.8 Air Navigation Services

i. QCAR - PART 4 - Aeronautical Chartsii. QCAR - PART 10 - VOL I - Aeronautical Telecommunications - Vol Iiii. QCAR - PART 10 - VOL II - Aeronautical Telecommunications -Vol IIiv. QCAR - PART 10 - VOL III - Aeronautical Telecommunications- Vol IIIv. QCAR - PART 10 - VOL IV - Aeronautical Telecommunications - Vol IVvi. QCAR - PART 10 - VOL V - Aeronautical Telecommunications- Vol Vvii. QCAR - PART 15 - Aeronautical Information Services


AIP QatarGEN 1.6-209 NOV 2017~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2017-10-03T04-36-19-839


GEN1.7DIFFERENCESFROM ICAOSTANDARDS,RECOMMENDEDPRACTICESAND PROCEDURES

1. ANNEX 1 — PERSONNEL LICENSING, Eleventh Edition, July 2011:

RemarksDetails of DifferenceDifferenceCategory

AnnexProvision

No.

Qatar has adopted more stringent medicalrequirements for ATCOs.

Qatar had adopted Class 1medicalcertificate for air traffic controllersinstead of Class 3

exceedsAnnex 1,4.3.2 and4.4.1.4

1

2. ANNEX 2 — RULES OF THE AIR, Tenth Edition, July 2005: NIL differences.

3. ANNEX 3 —METEOROLOGICAL SERVICE FOR INTERNATIONAL AIR NAVIGATION, Eighteenth Edition July 2013:NIL differences

4. ANNEX 4 — AERONAUTICAL CHARTS, Eleventh Edition, July 2009:


AnnexProvision

No.

SARPS not adopted in the nationalregulation for the State of Qatar

Intentionally left blankNot applicableChapter 41



Due to local terrain(not applicable)Not applicable7.6.33Due to local terrain(not applicable)Not applicable7.8.24Due to local terrain(not applicable)Not applicable8.8.25Due to local terrain(not applicable)Not applicable9.8.26Due to local terrain(not applicable)Not applicable10.8.27Recommendation not adopted in thenational regulation for the State of Qatar

Intentionally left blankNot applicable11.3.3.28

210 x 148mm (A4 as the standard size ofpaper for IAC)

Recommendation not adoptedDifferent in character11.49

Due to local terrain(not applicable)Not applicable11.9.210210 x 148mm (A4 as the standard size ofpaper for IAC)

Recommendation not adoptedDifferent in character12.411

Due to local terrain.(not applicable)Not applicable16.7.12.112Due to local terrain.(not applicable)Not applicable17.7.12.113SARPS not adopted in the nationalregulation for the State of Qatar




5. ANNEX 5—UNITS OFMEASUREMENT TO BE USED IN AIR ANDGROUNDOPERATIONS, Fifth Edition, July 2010:NIL differences.

6. ANNEX 6 — OPERATION OF AIRCRAFT, Part 1 – Tenth Edition, July 2016: NIL differences.←

7. ANNEX 6 — OPERATION OF AIRCRAFT, Part 2 – Ninth Edition, July 2016: NIL differences.←

8. ANNEX 6 — OPERATION OF AIRCRAFT, Part 3 – Eighth Edition, July 2016: NIL differences.←

9. ANNEX 7 — AIRCRAFT NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS, Sixth Edition, July 2012: NIL differences.

10. ANNEX 8 — AIRWORTHINESS OF AIRCRAFT, Eleventh Edition, July 2010: NIL differences.

11. ANNEX 9 — FACILITATION, Fourteenth Edition, October 2015: NIL differences.

12. ANNEX 10 — AERONAUTICAL TELECOMMUNICATIONS, Vol I – Sixth Edition, July 2006: NIL differences.

13. ANNEX 10 — AERONAUTICAL TELECOMMUNICATIONS, Vol II – Sixth Edition, October 2001: NIL differences.


GEN 1.7-1AIP Qatar~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2017-04-17T06-50-19-04025 MAY 2017


14. ANNEX 10 — AERONAUTICAL TELECOMMUNICATIONS, Vol III – Second Edition, July 2007: NIL differences.

15. ANNEX 10 — AERONAUTICAL TELECOMMUNICATIONS, Vol IV – Fifth Edition, July 2014: NIL differences.

16. ANNEX 10 — AERONAUTICAL TELECOMMUNICATIONS, Vol V – Third Edition, July 2013: NIL differences.

17. ANNEX 11 — AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES, Thirteenth Edition, July 2001: NIL differences.

18. ANNEX 12 — SEARCH AND RESCUE, Eighth Edition, July 2004: NIL differences.

19. ANNEX 13 — AIRCRAFT ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION, Tenth Edition, July 2010: NIL differences.

20. ANNEX 14 — AERODROMES, Vol I – Sixth Edition, July 2013: NIL differences.

21. ANNEX 14 — AERODROMES, Vol II – Fourth Edition, July 2013: NIL differences.

22. ANNEX 15 — AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICES, Fifteenth Edition, July 2016.


AnnexProvision

No.

No volcanic activity in the State of Qatar.Item (u) – pertaining to volcanicactivity

Partiallyimplemented

5.1.1.11

No snow in the State of Qatar.SNOWTAMNot applicable5.2.32No volcanic activity in the State of QatarASHTAMNot applicable5.2.43ASHTAM not being issued by the State ofQatar.

ASHTAM is excludedPartiallyimplemented

5.3.44

Snow plan is omitted in the list.Item (20) not adopted.Partiallyimplemented

7.1.1.15

Not applicable due to local climate.Snow planNot applicable7.1.1.26

23. ANNEX 16 — ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION, Vol I – Seventh Edition, July 2014: NIL differences.

24. ANNEX 16 — ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION, Vol II – Third Edition, July 2008: NIL differences.

25. ANNEX 17— SECURITY— SAFEGUARDING INTERNATIONAL CIVIL AVIATION AGAINST ACTS OF UNLAWFULINTERFERENCE, Ninth Edition, March 2011: NIL differences.

26. ANNEX 18—THESAFE TRANSPORTOFDANGEROUSGOODSBYAIR, Fourth Edition, July 2011: NIL differences.

27. ANNEX 19 — SAFETY MANAGEMENT, First Edition, July 2013: NIL differences.


AIP QatarGEN 1.7-225 MAY 2017~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2017-04-17T06-50-19-040


GEN 2 TABLES AND CODES

GEN 2.1 MEASURING SYSTEM, AIRCRAFT MARKINGS, HOLIDAYS

1 UNITS OF MEASUREMENTThe table of units of measurement shown below will be used by aeronautical stations within Doha TMA and for air andground operations, in compliance with ICAO Annex 5 provisions.

Units usedFor measurement ofNautical Miles (NM) and tenthsDistance used in navigation, position reporting, etc. — generally in excess of

2 nautical milesMetres (m)Relatively short distances such as those relating to aerodromes (e.g. runway

lengths)Feet (ft) or Metres (m)Altitudes, elevations and heightsKnots (kt)Horizontal speed including wind speedFeet per minute (ft/min)Vertical speedDegrees Magnetic (°M)Wind direction for landing and taking offDegrees True (°T)Wind direction except for landing and taking offKilometres (km) or metres (m)Visibility including runway visual rangeHectopascal (hPa)Altimeter settingDegrees Celsius (°C)TemperatureMetric tonnes (t) or Kilogrammes (kg)WeightHours and minutes (hhmm), beginning atmidnight UTC

Time

2 TEMPORAL REFERENCE SYSTEM

2.1 GENERAL2.1.1 Co-ordinated Universal Time (UTC) and the Gregorian calendar are used by air navigation services and in publicationsissued by the Aeronautical Information Service. Reporting of time is expressed to the nearest minute, e.g. 12:40:35 isreported as 1241.

2.1.2 Local time is 3 hours ahead of UTC.

3 HORIZONTAL REFERENCE SYSTEM

3.1 NAME/DESIGNATION OF SYSTEM3.1.1 The geographical co-ordinates indicating Latitude and Longitude are expressed in terms of the World GeodeticSystem–1984 (WGS-84) geodetic reference datum.

3.2 IDENTIFICATION AND PARAMETERS OF THE PROJECTION3.2.1 Projection is expressed in terms of Qatar National Datum-1995 (QND-95).

3.3 ELLIPSOID3.3.1 Ellipsoid is expressed in terms of World Geodetic System–1984 (WGS-84) ellipsoid.

3.4 DATUM3.4.1 The World Geodetic System–1984 (WGS-84) is used.

3.5 AREA OF APPLICATION3.5.1 The area of application for the published geographical coordinates coincides with the area of responsibility of theAeronautical Information Service of the State of Qatar. This includes the entire territory and airspace over the high seasencompassed by Doha Terminal Control Area (TMA).


GEN 2.1-1AIP Qatar~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2015-08-10T11-07-56-22015 OCT 2015


3.6 USE OF AN ASTERISK TO IDENTIFY PUBLISHED GEOGRAPHICAL COORDINATES3.6.1 An asterisk (*) will be used to identify those published geographical coordinates which have been transformed intoWGS-84 coordinates but whose accuracy of original field work does not meet the requirements in ICAO Annex 11, Chapter2 and ICAO Annex 14, Volume I, Chapter 2.

4 VERTICAL REFERENCE SYSTEM

4.1 NAME/DESIGNATION OF SYSTEM4.1.1 The vertical reference system corresponds to Mean Sea Level (MSL).

4.2 GEOID MODEL4.2.1 The geoid model used is the Earth Gravitational Model–1996 (EGM-96).

5 AIRCRAFT NATIONALITY AND REGISTRATION MARKS5.1 The nationality mark for aircraft registered in the State of Qatar is the Letter A, followed by the figure 7, i.e. A7. Thenationality mark is followed by registration mark consisting of a three letter group. e.g. A7BCB

6 PUBLIC HOLIDAYSDuration of holiday in number of

daysDateName

114 FebruaryNational Sports Day←7**25 June*EID AL FITR←501 September*EID AL ADHA←118 DecemberQatar National Day

Note:

1. An asterisk (*) against a date in the table indicates that it may vary by approximately Plus (+) or Minus (-) one day.2. A double asterisk (**) against the 'number of days' indicates that it may be Minus (-) one day depending on the

number of days in the month of Ramadan (29 or 30 days).3. For holidays of more than one day, the date given is the first day.




GEN 2.2 ABBREVIATIONS USED IN AIS PUBLICATIONSAbbreviations marked by an asterisk (*) are either differentfrom or not contained in ICAO Doc 8400.

AA AmberAAA (or AAB, AAC...etc., in sequence) Amended

meteorological message (message type designator)A/A Air-to-airAAL Above aerodrome levelABM AbeamABN Aerodrome beaconABT AboutABV AboveAC AltocumulusACAS Airborne collision avoidance systemACC Area control centre or area controlACCID Notification of an aircraft accidentACFT AircraftACK AcknowledgeACL Altimeter check locationACN Aircraft classification numberACP Acceptance (message type designator)ACPT Accept or acceptedACT Active or activated or activityAD AerodromeADA Advisory areaADDN Addition or additionalADF Automatic direction finding equipmentADIZ (to be pronounced "AY-DIZ") Air defence identification

zoneADJ AdjacentADR Advisory routeADS Automatic dependent surveillanceADSU Automatic dependent surveillance unitADVS Advisory serviceADZ AdviseAES Aircraft earth stationAFIL Flight plan filed in the airAFIS Aerodrome flight information serviceAFM Yes or affirm or affirmative or that is correctAFS Aeronautical fixed serviceAFT After...(time or place)AFTN Aeronautical fixed telecommunication networkA/G Air-to-groundAGA Aerodrome, air routes and ground aidsAGL Above ground levelAGN AgainAIC Aeronautical information circularAIP Aeronautical information publicationAIRAC Aeronautical information regulation and controlAIREP Air-reportAIRMET Information concerning en-route weather phenomena

which may affect the safety of low-level aircraftoperations

AIS Aeronautical information servicesALA Alighting areaALERFA Alert phaseALR Alerting (message type designator)ALRS Alerting serviceALS Approach lighting systemALT AltitudeALTN Alternate or alternating (light alternates in colour)ALTN Alternate (aerodrome)AMA Area minimum altitudeAMD Amend or amended (used to indicate amended

meteorological message; message type designator)AMDT Amendment (AIP amendment)AMS Aeronautical mobile serviceAMSL Above mean sea levelAMSS Aerodrome mobile satellite serviceANS AnswerAOC Aerodrome obstacle chartAOM* Aerodrome operating minimaAP AirportAPCH Approach

APP Approach control office or approach control orapproach control service

APR AprilAPRX Approximate or approximatelyAPSG After passingAPV Approve or approved or approvalARFOR Area forecast (in aeronautical meteorological code)ARNG ArrangeARO Air traffic services reporting officeARP Aerodrome reference pointARP Air-report (message type designator)ARQ Automatic error correctionARR Arrive or arrivalARR Arrival (message type designator)ARS Special air-report (message type designator)ARST Arresting (specify (part of) aircraft arresting

equipment)AS AltostratusASC Ascent to or ascending toASDA Accelerate stop distance availableASHTAM Special series NOTAM notifying by means of a

specific format, change in activity of a volcano, avolcanic eruption and/or volcanic ash cloud that is ofsignificance to aircraft operations

ASPH AsphaltAT... At (followed by time at which weather change is

forecast to occur)ATA Actual time of arrivalATC Air traffic control (in general)ATD Actual time of departureATFM Air traffic flow managementATIS Automatic terminal information serviceATM Air traffic managementATN Aeronautical telecommunication networkATP At...(time or place)ATS Air traffic servicesATTN AttentionATZ Aerodrome traffic zoneAUG AugustAUTH Authorized or authorizationAUW All up weightAUX AuxiliaryAVASIS Abbreviated visual approach slope indicator systemAVBL Available or availabilityAVG AverageAVGAS Aviation gasolineAWTA Advise at what time ableAWY AirwayAZM AzimuthBB BlueBA Braking actionBASE Cloud baseBCFG Fog patchesBCN Beacon (aeronautical ground light)BCST BroadcastBDRY BoundaryBECMG BecomingBFR BeforeBKN BrokenBL... Blowing (followed by DU= dust, SA= sand or SN=

snow)BLDG BuildingBLO Below cloudsBLW Below ...BOMB BombingBR MistBRF Short (used to indicate the type of approach desired

or required)BRG BearingBRKG BrakingBS Commercial broadcasting stationBTL Between layersBTN BetweenC


GEN 2.2-1AIP Qatar26 JUN 2014


C Centre (runway identification)C Degrees celsius (Centigrade)CAT CategoryCAT Clear air turbulenceCAVOK (to be pronounced "KAV-OH-KAY") visibility, cloud

and present weather better than prescribed valuesor conditions

CB (to be pronounced "CEE BEE") CumulonimbusCC CirrocumulusCCA (or CCB, CCC....etc.. in sequence) corrected

meteorological message (message type designator)CCO Continuous climb operationCD CandelaCDN Co-ordination (message type designator)CDO Continuous descent operationCDR Conditional route (followed by a number)CF Change frequency to ...CGL Circling guidance light(s)CH ChannelCHG Modification (message type designator)CI CirrusCIDIN Common ICAO data interchange networkCIT Near or over large townsCIV CivilCK CheckCL Centre lineCLA Clear type of ice formationCLBR CalibrationCLD CloudCLG CallingCLR Clear(s) or cleared to ... or clearanceCLSD Close or closed or completeCM CentimetreCMB Climb to or climbing toCMPL Completion or completed or completeCNL Cancel or cancelledCNL Flight plan cancellation message (message type

designator)CNS Communication, navigation and surveillanceCOM CommunicationsCONC ConcreteCOND ConditionCONS ContinuousCONST Construction or constructedCONT Continue or continuedCOOR Co-ordinate or coordinationCOP Change over pointCOR Correct or correction or corrected (used to indicate

corrected meteorological message; message typedesignator)

COT At the coastCOV Cover or covered or coveringCPL Current flight plan (message type designator)CRZ CruiseCS CirrostratusCTA Control areaCTAM Climb to and maintainCTC ContactCTL ControlCTN CautionCTR Control zoneCU CumulusCUF CumuliformCUST CustomsCW Continuous waveCWY ClearwayDD ... Danger area (followed by identification)D Downward (tendency in RVR during previous 10

minutes)DA Decision altitudeD-ATIS* Data link-automatic terminal information serviceDCD Double channel duplexDCKG DockingDCL* Departure clearance via data linkDCS Double channel simplexDCT Direct (in relation to flight plan clearances and type

of approach)

DEC DecemberDEG DegreesDEP Depart or departureDEP Departure (message type designator)DES Descend to or descending toDEST DestinationDETRESFA Distress phaseDEV Deviation or deviatingDFTI Distances from touch down indicatorDH Decision heightDIF DiffuseDIST DistanceDIV Divert or divertingDLA Delay (message type designator)DLA Delay or delayedDME Distance measuring equipmentDNG Danger or dangerousDOM DomesticDP Dew point temperatureDPT DepthDR Dead reckoningDR ... Low drifting (followed by DU= dust, SA= sand or SN

= snow)DRG DuringDS DuststormDSB Double sidebandDTAM Descend to and maintainDTG Date-time groupDTHR Displaced runway thresholdDTRT Deteriorate or deterioratingDTW Dual tandem wheelsDU DustDUC Dense upper cloudDUR DurationDVOR Doppler VORDW Dual wheelsDZ DrizzleEE East or eastern longitudeEAT Expected approach timeEB EastboundEET Estimated elapsed timeEFC Expect further clearanceEHF Extremely high frequency (30 000 to 300 000 MHz)ELEV ElevationELR Extra long rangeELT Emergency locator transmitterEM EmissionEMBD Embedded in a layer (to indicate cumulonimbus

embedded in layers of other clouds)EMERG EmergencyEN* EnglishEND Stop-end (related to RVR)ENE East north eastENG EngineENR En routeENRT En routeEOBT Estimated off-block timeEQPT EquipmentESE East south eastEST Estimate or estimated or estimate (as message type

designator)ETA Estimated time of arrival or estimating arrivalETD Estimated time of departure or estimating departureETO Estimated time over significant pointEV EveryEXC ExceptEXER Exercises or exercising or to exerciseEXP Expect or expected or expectingEXTD Extend or extendingFF FixedFAC FacilitiesFAF Final approach fixFAL Facilitation of international air transportFAP Final approach pointFATO Final approach and take-off areaFAX Facsimile transmission


GEN 2.2-2 AIP Qatar28 MAY 2015~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2015-03-25T09-59-16-955


FBL Light (used to indicate the intensity of weatherphenomena, interference or static reports, e.g. FBLRA = light rain)

FC Funnel cloud (tornado or water spout)FCST ForecastFCT Friction coefficientFEB FebruaryFEW FewFG FogFIC Flight information centreFIR Flight information regionFIS Flight information serviceFISA Automated flight information serviceFL Flight levelFLD FieldFLG FlashingFLR FlaresFLT FlightFLTCK Flight checkFLUC Fluctuating or fluctuation or fluctuatedFLW Follow(s) or followingFLY Fly or flyingFM FromFM ... From (followed by time weather change is forecast

to begin)FMU Flow management unitFNA Final approachFPL Filed flight plan (message type designator)FPM Feet per minuteFPR Flight plan routeFR Fuel remainingFREQ FrequencyFRI FridayFRNG FiringFRONT Front (relating to weather)FRQ FrequentFSL Full stop landingFSS Flight serviceFST FirstFT Feet (dimensional unit)FU SmokeFZ FreezingFZDZ Freezing drizzleFZFG Freezing fogFZRA Freezing rainGG GreenG/A Ground-to-airG/A/G Ground-to-air and air-to-groundGAMET Area forecast for low-level operationsGCA Ground controlled approach system or ground

controlled approachGCC* Gulf cooperation councilGEN GeneralGEO Geographic or trueGES Ground earth stationGLD GliderGMC Ground movement controlGND GroundGNDCK Ground checkGNSS Global navigation satellite systemGP Glide pathGR HailGRASS Grass landing areaGRIB Processed meteorological data in the form of grid

point values (aeronautical meteorological code)GRVL GravelGS Ground speedGS Small hail and/or snow pelletsHH24 Continuous day and night serviceHAPI Helicopter approach path indicatorHBN Hazard beaconHDF High frequency direction-finding stationHDG HeadingHEL HelicopterHF High frequency (3 000 to 30 000 kHz)HGT height or height above

HJ Sunrise to sunsetHLDG HoldingHN Sunset to sunriseHO Service available to meet operational requirementsHOL HolidayHOSP Hospital aircraftHPA HectopascalHR HoursHS Service available during hours of scheduled

operationsHURCN HurricaneHVDF High and very high frequency direction finding stations

(at the same location)HVY HeavyHVY Heavy (used to indicate the intensity of weather

phenomena, e.g. HVY RA = heavy rain)HX No specific working hoursHYR HigherHZ HazeHZ Hertz (cycle per second)IIAC Instrument approach chartIAF Initial approach fixIAO In and out of cloudsIAR Intersection of air routesIAS Indicated air speedIATA International air transport associationIBN Identification beaconIC Diamond dust (very small ice crystals in suspension,

also known as diamond dust)ICE IcingID Identifier or identifyIDENT IdentificationIF Intermediate approach fixIFF Identification friend/foeIFR Instrument flight rulesIGA International general aviationILS Instrument landing systemIM Inner markerIMC Instrument meteorological conditionsIMG ImmigrationIMPR Improve or improvingIMT Immediate or immediatelyINA Initial approachINBD InboundINC In cloudINCERFA Uncertainty phaseINFO InformationINOP InoperativeINP If not possibleINPR In progressINS Inertial navigation systemINSTL Install or installed or installationINSTR InstrumentINT IntersectionINTL InternationalINTRG InterrogatorINTRP Interrupt or interruption or interruptedINTSF intensify or intensifyingINTST IntensityIR Ice on runwayISA International standard atmosphereISB Independent sidebandISOL IsolatedJJAN JanuaryJTST Jet streamJUL JulyJUN JuneKKG KilogramsKHZ KilohertzKM KilometresKMH Kilometres per hourKPA KilopascalKT KnotsKW Kilowatts


GEN 2.2-3AIP Qatar21 AUG 2014


LL Left (runway identification)L Locator (see LM, LO)LAM Logical acknowledgement (message type designator)LAN InlandLAT LatitudeLCN* Load Classification NumberLDA Landing distance availableLDAH Landing distance available, helicopterLDG LandingLDI Landing direction indicatorLEN LengthLF Low frequency (30 to 300 kHz)LGT Light or lightingLGTD LightedLIH Light intensity highLIL Light intensity lowLIM Light intensity mediumLM Locator middleLMT Local mean timeLNG Long (used to indicate the type of approach desired

or required)LO Locator, outerLOC LocalizerLONG LongitudeLORAN Loran (long range air navigation system)LRG Long rangeLTD LimitedLTT Landline teletypewriterLV Light and variable (relating to wind)LVE Leave or leavingLVL LevelLYR Layer or layeredMM Mach number (followed by figures)M Metres (preceded by figures)MAA Maximum authorized altitudeMAG MagneticMAINT MaintenanceMAP Aeronautical maps and chartsMAPT Missed approach pointMAR MarchMAR At seaMARS* Multiple aircraft ramp systemMAS Manual A1 simplexMAX MaximumMAY MayMBST MicroburstMCA Minimum crossing altitudeMCC* Maritime coordination centreMCW Modulated continuous waveMDA Minimum descent altitudeMDF Medium frequency direction-finding stationMDH Minimum descent heightMEA Minimum en-route altitudeMEHT Minimum eye height over threshold (for visual

approach slope indicator system)MET Meteorological or meteorologyMETAR Aviation routine weather report (in aeronautical

meteorological code)MF Medium frequency (300 kHz to 3 000 kHz)MHDF Medium and high frequency direction-finding station

(at the same location)MHVDF Medium, high and very high frequency

direction-finding station (at the same location)MHZ MegahertzMID Mid-point (related to RVR)MIFG Shallow fogMIL MilitaryMIN MinutesMKR Marker radio beaconMLS Microwave landing systemMM Middle markerMNM MinimumMNPS Minimum navigation performance specificationsMNT Monitor or monitoring or monitoredMNTN MaintainMOA Military operating area

MOC Minimum obstacle clearance (required)MOD moderate (used to indicate the intensity of weather

phenomena, interference or static reports e.g. MODRA = moderate rain)

MON Above mountainsMON MondayMOTNE Meteorological Operational Telecommunications

Network EuropeMOV Move or moving or movementMPS Metres per secondMRA Minimum reception altitudeMRG Medium rangeMRP ATS/MET reporting pointMS MinusMSA Minimum sector altitudeMSG MessageMSL Mean sea levelMT MountainMTOW Maximum take-off weightMTU Metric unitsMTW Mountain wavesMVDF Medium and very high frequency direction-finding

station (at the same location)MWO Meteorological watch officeMX Mixed type of ice formation (white and clear)NN North or northern latitudeN No distinct tendency (in RVR during previous 10

minutes)NAT North atlanticNAV NavigationNB North boundNBFR Not beforeNC No changeNDB Non-directional radio beaconNE North-eastNEB North-eastboundNEG No or negative or permission not granted or that is

not correctNGT NightNIL None or 1 have nothing to send to youNM Nautical milesNML NormalNNE North north eastNNW North north westNOF International NOTAM officeNOSIG No significant change (used in trend-type landing

forecasts)NOTAM A notice containing information concerning the

establishment, condition or change in anyaeronautical facility, service, procedure or hazard,the timely knowledge of which is essential topersonnel concerned with flight operations

NOV NovemberNR NumberNRH No reply heardNS NimbostratusNSC Nil significant cloudNSW Nil significant weatherNW North-westNWB North-westboundNXT NextOOAC Oceanic area control centreOAS Obstacle assessment surfaceOBS Observe or observed or observationOBSC Observe or obscured or obscuringOBST ObstacleOCA Obstacle clearance altitudeOCA Oceanic control areaOCC Occulting (light)OCH Obstacle clearance heightOCNL Occasional or occasionallyOCS Obstacle clearance surfaceOCT OctoberOFZ Obstacle free zoneOHD OverheadOM Out marker




OPA Opaque, white type of ice formationOPC The control indicated is operational controlOPMET Operational meteorological (information)OPN Open or opening or openedOPR Operator or operate or operative or operating or

operationalOPS OperationsO/R On requestORD Indication of an orderOSV Ocean station vesselOTLK Outlook (used in SIGMET message for volcanic ash

and tropical cyclones)OTP On topOTS Organized track systemOUBD Out-boundOVC OvercastPP ... Prohibited area (followed by identification)PALS Precision approach lighting system (specify category)PANS Procedures for air navigation servicesPAPI Precision approach path indicatorPAR Precision approach radarPARL ParallelPAX Passenger(s)PBN Performance-based navigationPCD Proceed or proceedingPCN Pavement classification numberPDG Procedure design gradientPE Ice pelletsPER PerformancePERM PermanentPIB Preflight information bulletinPJE Parachute jumping exercisePLA Practice low approachPLN Flight planPLVL Present levelPN Prior notice requiredPNR Point of no returnPO Dust devilsPOB Persons on boardPOSS PossiblePPI Plan position indicatorPPR Prior permission requiredPPSN Present positionPRFG Aerodrome partially covered by fogPRI PrimaryPRKG ParkingPROB ProbabilityPROC ProcedurePROV ProvisionalPS PlusPSG PassingPSN PositionPSP Pierced steel plankPTN Procedure turnPTS Polar track structurePWR PowerQQAS* Qatar aviation servicesQBI Compulsory IFR flightQCAA* Qatar civil aviation authorityQCAR* Qatar civil aviation regulationsQEAF* Qatar emiri air forceQDM Magnetic heading (zero wind)QDR Magnetic bearingQFE Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at

runway threshold)QFU Magnetic orientation of runwayQNH Altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when

on the groundQTE True bearingQUAD QuadrantRR RedR ... Restricted area (followed by identification)R Right (runway identification)RA RainRAC Rules or the air and air traffic services

RAFC Regional area forecast centreRAG RaggedRAG Runway arresting gearRAI Runway alignment indicatorRB Rescue boatRCA Reach cruising altitudeRCC Rescue co-ordination centreRCF Radiocommunication failure (message type designatorRCH Reach or reachingRCL Runway centre lineRCLL Runway centre line light(s)RCLR ReclearedRDH Reference datum height (for ILS)RDL RadialRDO RadioRE ... Recent (used to qualify weather phenomena e.g.

RERA - recent rain)REC Receive or receiverREDL Runway edge light(s)REF Reference to ... or refer to ...REG RegistrationRENL Runway end light(s)REP Report or reporting or reporting pointREQ Request or requestedRERTE RerouteRESA Runway end safety areaRG Range (lights)RIF Reclearance in flightRITE Right (direction of turn)RL Report leavingRLA Relay toRLCE Request level change en-routeRLLS Runway lead-in lighting systemRLNA Requested level not availableRMK RemarkRNAV (to be pronounced "AR-NAV") Area navigationRNG Radio rangeRNP Required navigation performanceROBEX Regional OPMET bulletin exchange(scheme)ROC Rate of climbROD Rate of descentROFOR Route forecast (in aeronautical meteorological code)RON Receiving onlyRPL Repetitive flight planRPLC Replace or replacedRPS Radar position symbolRQMNTS RequirementsRQP Request flight plan (message type designator)RQS Request supplementary flight plan (message type

designator)RR Report reachingRRA (or RRB, RRC....etc in sequence) delayed

meteorological message (message type designator)RSC Rescue sub-centreRSCD Runway surface conditionRSP Responder beaconRSR En-route surveillance radarRTD Delayed (used to indicate delayed meteorological

message); (message type designator)RTE RouteRTF RadiotelephoneRTG RadiotelegraphRTHL Runway threshold light(s)RTN Return or returned or returningRTODAH Rejected take-off distance available, helicopterRTS Return to serviceRTT RadioteletypewriterRTZL Runway touchdown zone light(s)RUT Standard regional route transmitting frequenciesRV Rescue vesselRVR Runway visual rangeRWY RunwaySS South or southern latitudeSA SandSALS Simple approach lighting systemSAN SanitarySAP As soon as possible


GEN 2.2-5AIP Qatar~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2016-10-20T07-57-33-84108 DEC 2016


SAR Search and rescueSARPS Standards and recommended practices (ICAO)SAT SaturdaySATCOM Satellite communicationSB SouthboundSC StratocumulusSCT ScatteredSDBY Stand bySE South-eastSEB South-eastboundSEC SecondsSECT SectorSELCAL Selective calling systemSEP SeptemberSER Service or servicing or servedSEV Severe (used e.g. to qualify icing and turbulence

reports)SFC SurfaceSG Snow grainsSGL SignalSH ... Showers (followed by RA=rain, SN=snow, PE=ice

pellets, GR=hail, GS=small hail and or snow pelletsor combinations thereof, e.g. SHRASN=showers ofrain and snow)

SHF Super high frequency (3 000 to 30 000 MHz)SID Standard instrument departureSIF Selective identification featureSIGMET Information concerning en-route weather phenomena

which may affect the safety of operationsSIGWX Significant weatherSIMUL Simultaneous or simultaneouslySIWL Single isolated wheel loadSKC Sky clearSKED Schedule or scheduledSLP Speed limiting pointSLW SlowSMC Surface movement controlSMR Surface movement radarSN SnowSNOWTAM A special series NOTAM notifying the presence or

removal of hazardous conditions due to snow, ice,slush or standing water associated with snow, slushand ice on the movement area , by means of aspecific format

SPECI Aviation selected special weather report (inaeronautical meteorological code)

SPECIAL Special meteorological report (in abbreviated plainlanguage)

SPL Supplementary flight plan (message type designator)SPOC SAR point in contactSPOT Spot windSQ SquallSQL Squall lineSR SunriseSRA Surveillance radar approachSRE Surveillance radar element of precision approach

radar systemSRG Short rangeSRR Search and rescue regionSRY SecondarySS SandstormSS SunsetSSB Single sidebandSSE South south eastSSR Secondary surveillance radarSST Supersonic transportSSW South southwestST StratusSTA Straight-in approachSTAR Standard instrument arrivalSTD StandardSTF StratiformSTN StationSTNR StationarySTOL Short take-off and landingSTS StatusSTWL Stopway light(s)SUBJ Subject toSUN Sunday

SUP Supplement (AIP supplement)SUPPS Regional supplementary proceduresSVC Service messageSVCBL ServiceableSW South-westSWB South-westboundSWY StopwayTT TemperatureTA Transition altitudeTACAN UHF tactical air navigation aidTAC TACANTAF Aerodrome forecastTAIL Tail, windTAR Terminal area surveillance radarTAS True airspeedTAX Taxiing or taxiTC Tropical cycloneTCAS Traffic alert and collision avoidance systemTCH Threshold crossing heightTCU Towering cumulusTDO TornadoTDZ Touchdown zoneTECR Technical reasonTEL TelephoneTEMPO Temporary or temporarilyTEND Trend forecastTFC TrafficTGL Touch-and-go landingTGS Taxiing guidance systemTHR ThresholdTHRU ThroughTHU ThursdayTIL UntilTIP Until past...(place)TKOF Take offTL ... Till (followed by time by which weather change is

forecast to end)TLOF Touchdown and lift-off areaTMA Terminal control areaTNA Turn altitudeTNH Turn heightTO To...(place)TOC Top of climbTODA Take-off distance availableTODAH Take-off distance available, helicopterTOP Cloud topTORA Take-off run availableTP Turning pointTR TrackTRA Temporary reserved airspaceTRANS Transmits or transmitterTRL Transition levelTROP TropopauseTS Thunderstorm (in aerodrome reports and forecasts,

ts used alone means thunder heard but noprecipitation at the aerodrome)

TS... Thunderstorm (followed by RA= RAIN, SN= snow,PE= ice pellets, GR= hail, GS= small hail and/or snowpellets or combinations thereof, e.g. TSRASN=thunderstorm with rain and snow)

TT TeletypewriterTUE TuesdayTURB TurbulenceTVOR Terminal VORTWR Aerodrome control tower or aerodrome controlTWY TaxiwayTWYL Taxiway-linkTYP Type of aircraftTYPH TyphoonUU Upward (tendency in rvr during previous 10 minutes)UAB Until advised by...UAC Upper area control centreUAR Upper air routeUDF Ultra high frequency direction-finding stationUFN Until further noticeUHDT Unable higher due traffic




UHF Ultra high frequency (300 to 3 000 MHz)UIC Upper information centreUIR Upper flight information regionULR Ultra long rangeUNA UnableUNAP Unable to approveUNL UnlimitedUNREL UnreliableU/S UnserviceableUTA Upper control areaUTC Co-ordinated universal timeVVA Volcanic ashVAC Visual approach chartVAL In valleysVAN Runway control vanVAR Magnetic variationVAR Visual-aural radio rangeVASIS Visual approach slope indicator systemVC Vicinity of the aerodrome (followed by FG=fog,

FC=funnel cloud, PO=dust-sand whirls,BLDU=blowing dust, BLSA = blowing sand orBLSN=blowing snow, e.g. VC FG = vicinity fog)

VCY VicinityVDF Very high frequency direction-finding stationVDGS Visual docking guidance systemVER VerticalVFR Visual flight rulesVHF Very high frequency (30 to 300 Mhz)VIP Very important personVIS VisibilityVLF Very low frequency (3 to 30 khz)VLR Very long rangeVMC Visual meteorological conditionsVOLMET Meteorological information for aircraft in flightVOR VHF omnidirectional radio rangeVORTAC VOR and TACAN combinationVOT VOR airborne equipment test facilityVRB VariableVSA By visual reference to the groundVSP Vertical speedVTOL Vertical take-off and landingWW West or western longitudeW WhiteWAC World aeronautical chart-ICAO 1:1 000 000WAFC World area forecast centreWB WestboundWBAR Wing bar lightsWDI Wind direction indicatorWDSPR WidespreadWED WednesdayWEF With effect from or effective fromWI WithinWID WidthWIE With immediate effect or effective immediatelyWILCO Will complyWINTEM Forecast upper wind and temperature for aviationWIP Work in progressWKN Weaken or weakeningWMO World meteorological organizationWNW West north westWO WithoutWPT Way-pointWRNG WarningWS Wind shearWSPD Wind speedWSW West south westWT WeightWTSPT WaterspoutWX WeatherXX CrossXBAR Crossbar (of approach lighting system)XNG CrossingXS AtmosphericsY

Y YellowYCZ Yellow caution zone (runway lighting)YR YourZZ Co-ordinated universal time (in meteorological

messages)




GEN 2.3 CHART SYMBOLS

1 AERODROMES

1.1 CHARTS OTHER THAN APPROACH CHARTSSymbolDescriptionNo.

Civil (land)1

Civil (water)2

Joint civil and military (land)3

Joint civil and military (water)4

Military (land)5

Military (water)6

Emergency aerodrome or aerodrome with no facilities7

Sheltered anchorage8

Heliport9




1.2 APPROACH CHARTSSymbolDescriptionNo.

The aerodrome on which the procedure is based1

Aerodromes affecting the traffic pattern on the aerodrome onwhich the procedure is based

2

1.3 AERODROME CHARTSSymbolDescriptionNo.

Hard surface runway1

Unpaved runway2

Stopway3

2 AERODROME INSTALLATIONS AND LIGHTSSymbolDescriptionNo.

Aerodrome reference point (ARP)1

Taxiways and parking areas2

Control tower3


AIPQatar

GEN 2.3-226 JUN 2014~~~eaip-amdt~~~eAIP


SymbolDescriptionNo.Point light4

Barrette5

Marine light6

Obstacle light7

Aeronautical ground light8

Wind direction indicator (lighted)9

Wind direction indicator (unlighted)10

Landing direction indicator (lighted)11

Landing direction indicator (unlighted)12

3 MISCELLANEOUSSymbolDescriptionNo.

Highest elevation on chart1




SymbolDescriptionNo.ObstaclesNote.– Numerals in italics indicate elevation of top of obstacleabove sea level. Upright numerals in parentheses indicateheight above specified datum.

2

Group obstaclesNote.– Numerals in italics indicate elevation of top of obstacleabove sea level. Upright numerals in parentheses indicateheight above specified datum.

3

Restricted airspace (prohibited, restricted or danger areas)4

Common boundary of two areas5

Air defence identification zone (ADIZ)6

Transmission line or overhead cable7

Isogonal8


AIPQatar



GEN 2.4 LOCATION INDICATORSThe location indicators marked with an asterisk (*) cannot be used in the address component of AFS messages.

2. DECODELocationIndicator

1. ENCODEIndicatorLocation

DOHA INTERNATIONALOTBDOTBK*AL KHORAL-UDAID AIR BASEOTBHOTBHAL-UDAID AIR BASEAL KHOROTBK*OTBDDOHA INTERNATIONALHAMAD INTERNATIONALOTHHOTHHHAMAD INTERNATIONALINTERNATIONAL NOTAM OFFICEOTNOOTNOINTERNATIONAL NOTAM OFFICE


AIP Qatar GEN 2.4-1~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2015-03-25T09-59-16-95528 MAY 2015


GEN 2.5 LIST OF RADIO NAVIGATION AIDS

PurposeIDFacilityStation namePurposeFacilityStation nameIDAAKNDBAl KhorANDBAl KhorAKAALDDVOR/TACAl UdaidADVOR/TACAl UdaidALDADIADVOR/DMEDoha/Doha IntlAILSDohaAMDAWKLDohaAILSHamadAZMAAMDILSDohaADVOR/DMEDoha/Doha IntlDIAAIBDILSDohaAEDVOR/DMEDoha/Hamad IntlDOH←AAZMILSHamadAILSHamadHJJAEDOHDVOR/DMEDoha/Hamad IntlAILSDohaIBD←AHJJILSHamadAILSHamadIDEAIDEILSHamadAILSHamadQATAQATILSHamadALDohaWK


AIP Qatar GEN 2.5-1~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2014-08-19T08-31-41-65713 NOV 2014


GEN 3 SERVICES

GEN 3.1 AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICES

1 RESPONSIBLE SERVICE1.1 The Aeronautical Information Service is a division of Air Navigation Department of the Qatar Civil Aviation Authoritywhich ensures the flow of aeronautical data and aeronautical information necessary for global air traffic management (ATM)system safety, regularity, economy and efficiency in an environmentally sustainable manner within the area of its responsibilityas indicated under GEN 3.1.2. This service consists of AIS Headquarters, International NOTAM Office and AIS briefingoffices established at certain aerodromes as listed under GEN 3.1.5.

1.2 AIS HEADQUARTERS (AIS HQ) AND INTERNATIONAL NOTAM OFFICE (NOF)Post: Aeronautical Information Service

Air Navigation DepartmentCivil Aviation AuthorityP. O. Box 73DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4470 5566(974) 4470 5577

Fax: (974) 4470 5678Email: [email protected]: OTBDYOYX, OTHHYOYX (AIS HQ)

OTNOYNYX (NOF)1.2.1 The service provided in accordance with the provisions contained in ICAO Annex 15 – Aeronautical InformationServices.

1.3 AIS SECTIONS AND SERVICE HOURS1.3.1 AIS Headquarters operates 0400-1100 UTC, SUN-THU.

1.3.2 NOF and AIS briefing offices operate H24.

2 AREA OF RESPONSIBILITYThe Aeronautical Information Service is responsible for the collection and dissemination of information for the entire territoryof State of Qatar and for the airspace of the high seas encompassed by Doha TMA.

3 AERONAUTICAL PUBLICATIONS3.1 The aeronautical information is provided in the form of the Integrated Aeronautical Information Package (IAIP) consistingof the following elements:

• Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP);• Amendment service to the AIP (AIP AMDT);• Supplement to the AIP (AIP SUP);• NOTAM and Pre-flight Information Bulletins (PIB);• Aeronautical Information Circulars (AIC); and• Checklists and list of valid NOTAM.

←All the elements of the IAIP are published via the website at www.caa.gov.qa/en-us/Pages/AIM.aspx except NOTAM andmonthly checklists.

3.2 AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION PUBLICATION (AIP)The State of Qatar Aeronautical Information Publication is the official aviation document intended primarily to satisfyinternational requirements for the exchange of permanent aeronautical information and long duration temporary changesessential for air navigation.

This document is published in accordance with the provisions of Annex 15 to the Convention on International Civil Aviationand is, in English language only. The Qatar AIP is maintained up-to-date by the AIS Headquarters through all its amendmentservice.






3.3 AMENDMENT SERVICE TO THE AIP (AIP AMDT)The Amendments to the AIP, together with checklists are made by means of replacement of pages (pages are madeavailable in PDF format in electronic environment) and is, published in accordance with the established regular intervals.This incorporates permanent changes to the AIP in a specified publication date.

AIRAC AIP Amendment (AIRAC AIP AMDT), issued in accordance with the AIRAC system and identified by the acronym— AIRAC, incorporates operationally significant permanent changes into the AIP on the indicated AIRAC effective date.

A brief description of the subjects affected by the amendment is described on the cover sheet. New information includedon the amended AIP pages and is marked either by a vertical line or by a horizontal arrow in the margin of the affectedsection of the page except for the changes in charts are annotated on the chart itself to indicate the amendments made.

Each AIP page and each AIP replacement page introduced by an amendment, including the amendment cover sheet, aredated. The date consists of the day, month (by name) and year of the publication date (regular AIP AMDT) or of the AIRACeffective date (AIRAC AIP AMDT) of the information. Each AIP amendment cover sheet includes references to the serialnumber of those elements, if any, of the Integrated Aeronautical Information Package which have been incorporated in theAIP by the amendment and are consequently cancelled.

Each AIP AMDT and each AIRAC AIP AMDT are allocated separate serial numbers which are consecutive and based onthe calendar year. The year, indicated by two digits, is a part of the serial number of the amendment.

A checklist of AIP pages containing page number/chart title and the publication or effective date (day, month by name andyear) of the information is reissued with each amendment and is an integral part of the AIP.

3.4 SUPPLEMENT TO THE AIP (AIP SUP)Temporary changes of long duration (three months and longer) and information of short duration which consists of extensivetext and/or graphics, supplementing the permanent information contained in the AIP, are published as AIP Supplements(AIP SUP). Operationally significant temporary changes to the AIP are published in accordance with the AIRAC systemand its established effective dates and are identified clearly by the acronym AIRAC AIP SUP.

AIP Supplements are separated by information subject (General—GEN, En-route—ENR and Aerodromes—AD) and areplaced accordingly at the beginning of each AIP Part. Supplements are published on yellow paper to be conspicuous andto stand out from the rest of the AIP. Each AIP Supplement (regular or AIRAC) is allocated a serial number which isconsecutive and based on the calendar year.

An AIP Supplement is kept in the AIP as long as all or some of its contents remain valid. The period of validity of theinformation contained in the AIP Supplement will normally be given in the supplement itself. Alternatively, NOTAM may beused to indicate changes to the period of validity or cancellation of the supplement.

The checklist of AIP Supplements currently in force is issued in the monthly printed plain-language list of valid NOTAM.

3.5 NOTAM AND PRE-FLIGHT INFORMATION BULLETINS (PIB)A NOTAM contains information concerning the establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service,procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential for personnel concerned with flight operations. The text ofeach NOTAM contains the information in the order shown in the ICAO NOTAM format and is composed of thesignifications/uniform abbreviated phraseology assigned to the ICAO NOTAMCode complemented by ICAO abbreviations,indicators, identifiers, designators, call signs, frequencies, figures and plain language. NOTAM originated and issued forthe State of Qatar are distributed in ‘G’ series, by Qatar NOF.

NOTAM issued by Qatar NOF which contain airspace information above the upper limits of Doha TMA are re-issued byBahrain NOF

NOTAM are originated when necessary to disseminate information of direct operational significance which:

a. is of a temporary nature and of short duration;b. operationally significant permanent changes; orc. temporary changes of long duration are made at short notice.

Each NOTAM issued by Qatar NOF is assigned a 4-digit serial number preceded by the letter 'G' indicating the series,followed by a stroke and 2 digits indicating the year of issue. The serial number begin with 0001 every year i.e G0001/16.

NOTAM are exchanged between Qatar NOF and other International NOTAM Offices as follows:

a. For sending NOTAM to Qatar use only address OTZZNAZXb. For requesting NOTAM from Qatar use only address OTNOYNYX


AIP QatarGEN 3.1-225 JUN 2015


PIBs, which contain a recapitulation of current NOTAM and other information of urgent character for the operator/flightcrews, are available at AIS briefing offices. The extent of the information contained in the PIB is indicated under Sub-section 5.

3.6 AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION CIRCULARS (AIC)Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC) contains information on the long-term forecast of any major change in legislation,regulations, procedures or facilities; information of a purely explanatory or advisory nature liable to affect flight safety; andinformation or notification of an explanatory or advisory nature concerning technical, legislative or purely administrativematters.

Each AIC is numbered consecutively on a calendar year basis. The year, indicated by two digits, is a part of the serialnumber of the AIC. A checklist of current AIC is issued as an AIC once a year.

3.7 CHECKLIST AND LIST OF VALID NOTAMA checklist of valid NOTAM is issued monthly via AFS.

The checklist is followed by a list of valid NOTAM and is available to all recipients of the Integrated Aeronautical Information

←Package thru www.caa.gov.qa/en-us/Pages/AIM.aspx.This contains the plain language presentation of valid NOTAMtogether with information on the serial numbers of the latest AIRAC/AIP AMDT and checklist of AIRAC/AIP SUP and AIC.

3.8 SALE OF PUBLICATIONS

←All publications can be obtained from the website www.caa.gov.qa/en-us/Pages/AIM.aspx in both HTML and PDF versionsand is free of charge to all users.

4 AIRAC SYSTEM4.1 In order to control and regulate operationally significant changes requiring amendments to charts, route-manuals etc.,such changes, whenever possible, will be issued on predetermined dates according to the AIRAC system. This type ofinformation will be published as an AIRAC AIP AMDT or AIRAC AIP SUP.

If an AIRAC AIP AMDT or SUP cannot be produced due to lack of time, a NOTAM will be issued in lieu of AIRAC AIP AMDTor SUP. Such NOTAM will be immediately followed by an AMDT or SUP.

4.2 The table below indicates AIRAC effective dates for the years 2015 to 2020. AIRAC information will be issued so thatthe information will be received by the user not later than 28 days, and for major changes 56 days before the effective date.A trigger NOTAM will be issued on the Publication Date of the AIRAC AIP AMDT or AIRAC AIP SUP, by giving a briefdescription of the contents, effective date and reference number of the AIRAC publication.

4.3 This ‘Trigger’ NOTAM will come into force on the effective date of the AIRAC PUBLICATION concerned and will remainvalid until for another 14 days.

4.4 A NIL AIRAC NOTAM will be issued one cycle before the AIRAC effective date if no information is submitted forpublication of an AIRAC AIP AMDT or AIRAC AIP SUP for an AIRAC effective date. The NIL AIRAC NOTAM will comeinto force on the AIRAC effective date concerned and will remain valid for another 14 days.

4.5 Schedule of AIRAC effective dates

20202019201820172016201502-Jan03-Jan04-Jan05-Jan07-Jan08-Jan130-Jan31-Jan01-Feb02-Feb04-Feb05-Feb227-Feb28-Feb01-Mar02-Mar03-Mar05-Mar326-Mar27-Mar29-Mar30-Mar31-Mar02-Apr423-Apr25-Apr26-Apr27-Apr28-Apr30-Apr521-May23-May24-May25-May26-May28-May618-Jun20-Jun21-Jun22-Jun23-Jun25-Jun716-Jul18-Jul19-Jul20-Jul21-Jul23-Jul813-Aug15-Aug16-Aug17-Aug18-Aug20-Aug910-Sep12-Sep13-Sep14-Sep15-Sep17-Sep1008-Oct10-Oct11-Oct12-Oct13-Oct15-Oct1105-Nov07-Nov08-Nov09-Nov10-Nov12-Nov1203-Dec05-Dec06-Dec07-Dec08-Dec10-Dec1331-Dec-----14







5 PRE-FLIGHT INFORMATION SERVICE AT AERODROMES/HELIPORTS5.1 The Pre-flight Information Service is an online briefing service which is available on the website

←www.caa.gov.qa/en-us/Pages/AIM.aspx and can be accessed worldwide via internet.

5.2 Aircraft operators and their representatives may generate and download Pre-flight Information Bulletins through a specialsoftware application (CADAS Center Terminal).

5.3 Access to the web server is controlled by authorized user accounts and password authentication.

5.4 The Pre-flight briefing is available at aerodromes as listed below.Briefing coverageAerodrome/Heliport

All route stages emanating from State of QatarDOHA/Doha InternationalDOHA/Hamad International

5.5 Additional information, maps and charts including documentation, can be obtained upon request. Refer to GEN 3.1.1.2,Qatar AIS contact information.

5.6 Provision for the Post-flight information is established to report inadequacies of air navigation facilities essential to thesafety of flight operations, and presence of birds on or around the airport constituting potential hazard to aircraft operations,

←observed by pilot during the flight. Following Post-flight forms are available through www.caa.gov.qa/en-us/Pages/AIM.aspxweb link.

a. Inadequacies of air navigation facilitiesb. Bird observation/strike

6 ELECTRONIC TERRAIN AND OBSTACLE DATA6.1 Electronic terrain and obstacle data (eTOD) can be obtained from Qatar AIS headquarters upon on request. Refer toGEN 3.1.1.2 for contact details and GEN 3.1.1.3 for hours of service.

6.2 Availability of data-sets:

6.2.1 Electronic terrain and obstacles in Area 1

Electronic TerrainElectronic ObstaclesCoverage areaAvailableAvailableArea 1

6.2.2 Electronic terrain for Area 2, 3 and 4

OTBD — DOHA INTERNATIONALOTHH — HAMAD INTERNATIONALCoverage areaAvailableAvailableArea 2Available*Available*Area 3AvailableAvailableArea 4

Note: Asterisk (*) indicates terrain does not penetrate the required surface

6.2.3 Electronic obstacles for Area 2, 3 and 4

OTBD — DOHA INTERNATIONALOTHH — HAMAD INTERNATIONALCoverage areaAvailableAvailableArea 2aAvailableAvailableArea 2bAvailableAvailableArea 2cAvailableAvailableArea 2d

Not availableAvailableArea 3Available*Available*Area 4

Note: Asterisk (*) indicates obstacles does not penetrate the required surface




https://aim.gov.qa/briefing.html

https://aim.gov.qa/post-flight.php

GEN 3.2 AERONAUTICAL CHARTS

1 RESPONSIBLE SERVICES1.1 The Civil Aviation Authority of State of Qatar provides a wide range of aeronautical charts for use by all types of civilaviation. The Aeronautical Information Service produces the charts which are part of the AIP. Other charts suitable forpre-flight planning and briefing are available for reference at the AIS office at Doha International and Hamad InternationalAirports. The charts published in the AIP are produced in accordance with the provisions contained in the ICAO documentslisted under sub-section 1.2. Differences to the provisions contained in ICAO Annex 4 - Aeronautical Charts are detailedin sub-section GEN 1.7.

1.2 Applicable ICAO Documents

• Annex 4 - Aeronautical Charts, Eleventh Edition 2009.• Doc 8168-OPS/611 - Aircraft Operations, Volume II - Construction of Visual and Instrument Flight Procedures, Sixth

Edition 2014.• Doc 8697-AN/889 - Aeronautical Chart Manual, Second Edition 1987.

2 MAINTENANCE OF CHARTS2.1 The aeronautical charts included in the AIP are kept up-to-date regularly by means of replacement sheets (pages aremade available in PDF format in electronic environment) where necessary. Significant amendments or revisions in aeronauticalinformation for other aeronautical charts are also included in the replacement sheets.

2.2 Information found to be incorrect after publication will be corrected by a NOTAM if they are of operational significance.

3 PURCHASE ARRANGEMENTS

←3.1 The charts as listed under sub-section 5 can be obtained from www.caa.gov.qa/en-us/Pages/AIM.aspx. Any inquiriesshall be addressed to:

Post: Aeronautical Information ServiceAir Navigation DepartmentCivil Aviation AuthorityP. O. Box 73DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4470 5566(974) 4470 5577

Fax: (974) 4470 5678Email: [email protected]: OTBDYOYX, OTHHYOYX (AIS HQ)

4 AERONAUTICAL CHART SERIES AVAILABLE4.1 The following series of aeronautical charts are produced:

a. Aeronautical Chart — ICAO 1:500 000;b. Aerodrome/Heliport Chart — ICAO;c. Aerodrome Ground Movement Chart — ICAO;d. Aircraft Parking/Docking Chart — ICAO;e. Aerodrome Obstacle Chart — ICAO — Type A (for each runway);f. Precision Approach Terrain Chart — ICAO (precision approach Cat II and III runways);g. En-route Chart — ICAO;h. ATC Surveillance Minimum Altitude Chart — ICAO;i. Standard Departure Chart — Instrument (SID) — ICAO;j. Standard Arrival Chart — Instrument (STAR) — ICAO;k. Instrument Approach Chart — ICAO (for each runway and procedure type);l. Visual Approach Chart — ICAO.

The charts currently available are listed under 5. of this subsection.






4.2 GENERAL DESCRIPTION OF EACH SERIES

a. Aeronautical Chart — ICAO 1:500 000.This chart provides information to satisfy the requirements of visual air navigation for low speed, short- or medium-rangeoperations at low and intermediate altitudes which may be used for pre-flight planning. The chart is constructed onconformal (orthomorphic) projection. It includes a selection of aerodromes, obstacles, elements of the ATS system,prohibited, restricted and danger areas, and radio navigation aids.

b. Aerodrome/Heliport Chart — ICAO.This chart contains detailed aerodrome/heliport data to provide flight crews with information that will facilitate theground movement of aircraft:

∗ from the aircraft stand to the runway; and∗ from the runway to the aircraft stand;

and helicopter movement:

∗ from the helicopter stand to the touchdown and lift-off area and to the final approach and take-off area;∗ from the final approach and take-off area to the touchdown and lift-off area and to the helicopter stand;∗ along helicopter ground and air taxiways; and∗ along air transit routes.

It also provides essential operational information at the aerodrome/heliport.

c. Aerodrome Ground Movement Chart— ICAO.This chart is produced for those aerodromes where, due to congestion of information, details necessary for the groundmovement of aircraft along the taxiways to and from the aircraft stands and for the parking/docking of aircraft cannotbe shown with sufficient clarity on the Aerodrome/Heliport Chart — ICAO.

d. Aircraft Parking/Docking Chart— ICAO.This chart is produced for those aerodromes where, due to the complexity of the terminal facilities, the informationto facilitate the ground movement of aircraft between the taxiways and the aircraft stands and the parking/docking ofaircraft cannot be shown with sufficient clarity on the Aerodrome/Heliport Chart — ICAO or on the Aerodrome GroundMovement Chart — ICAO.

e. Aerodrome Obstacle Chart— ICAO — Type A (operating limitations).This chart contains detailed information on obstacles in the take-off flight path areas of aerodromes. It is shown inplan and profile view. This obstacle information, in combination with an Obstacle Chart — ICAO— Type C, providesthe data necessary to enable an operator to comply with the operating limitations of ICAO Annex 6, Parts I and II,Chapter 5.

f. Precision Approach Terrain Chart— ICAO.This chart provides detailed terrain profile information within a defined portion of the final approach so as to enableaircraft operating agencies to assess the effect of the terrain on decision height determination by the use of radioaltimeters. This chart is produced for all precision approach Cat II and III runways.

g. En-route Chart— ICAO.This chart is produced for the entire Doha TMA. The aeronautical data include all aerodromes, prohibited, restrictedand danger areas and the air traffic services system in detail. The chart provides the flight crew with information thatwill facilitate navigation along ATS routes in compliance with air traffic services procedures.

← h. ATC Surveillance Minimum Altitude Chart — ICAO.This chart is supplementary to the Area Chart and provides information which will enable flight crews to monitor andcross-check altitudes assigned while under radar control.

i. Standard Departure Chart— Instrument (SID) — ICAO.This chart is produced whenever a standard departure route— instrument has been established and cannot be shownwith sufficient clarity on the Area Chart — ICAO.The aeronautical data shown include the aerodrome of departure, aerodrome(s) which affect the designated standarddeparture route — instrument, prohibited, restricted and danger areas and the air traffic services system. This chartprovides the flight crew with information that will enable them to comply with the designated standard departure route—instrument from the take-off phase to the en-route phase.

j. Standard Arrival Chart— Instrument (STAR) — ICAO.This chart is produced whenever a standard arrival route —instrument has been established and cannot be shownwith sufficient clarity on the Area Chart — ICAO.The aeronautical data shown include the aerodrome of landing, aerodrome(s) which affect the designated standardarrival route — instrument, prohibited, restricted and danger areas and the air traffic services system. This chartprovides the flight crew with information that will enable them to comply with the designated standard arrival route —instrument from the en-route phase to the approach phase.

k. Instrument Approach Chart— ICAO.This chart is produced for all aerodromes used by civil aviation where instrument approach procedures have beenestablished. A separate Instrument Approach Chart — ICAO has been provided for each approach procedure.




The aeronautical data shown include information on aerodromes, prohibited, restricted and danger areas, radiocommunication facilities and navigation aids, minimum sector altitude, procedure track portrayed in plan and profileview, aerodrome operating minima, etc.

This chart provides the flight crew with information that will enable them to perform an approved instrument approachprocedure to the runway of intended landing including themissed approach procedure and where applicable, associatedholding patterns.

l. Visual Approach Chart — ICAO.This chart is produced for aerodromes used by civil aviation where:

∗ only limited navigation facilities are available; or∗ radio communication facilities are not available; or∗ no adequate aeronautical charts of the aerodrome and its surroundings at 1:500 000 or greater scale are

available; or∗ visual approach procedures have been established.

The aeronautical data shown include information on aerodromes, obstacles, designated airspace, visual approachinformation, radio navigation aids and communication facilities, as appropriate.

5 LIST OF AERONAUTICAL CHARTS AVAILABLE

←All charts available in Qatar AIP are free of charge for all its users via www.caa.gov.qa/en-us/Pages/AIM.aspx. A list of theappropriate aeronautical charts can be found in the sections ENR-6, OTBD-AD2.24, OTHH-AD2.24, and OTBK-AD2.24.

6 INDEX TO THE AERONAUTICAL CHART — ICAO 1:500 000Refer to Qatar Aeronautical Chart in ENR 6.

7 TOPOGRAPHICAL CHARTSNot available

8 CORRECTIONS TO CHARTS NOT CONTAINED IN THE AIPCorrectionsLocationCharts

---





GEN 3.3 AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES

1 RESPONSIBLE SERVICEThe Air Navigation Services Department of the State of Qatar Civil Aviation Authority is the responsible authority for theprovision of air traffic services within the area indicated under sub-section 2. below.

Post: ChairmanCivil Aviation AuthorityP.O. Box 3000DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4455 7333 Ext. 320/316Fax: (974) 4455 2233AFS: OTBDYAYX, OTHHYAYX, OTHHYFYXSITA: DOHXYYF, DOHXZYF

The services are provided in accordance with the provisions contained in the following ICAO documents:

• Annex 2 — Rules of the Air• Annex 11 — Air Traffic Services• Doc 4444 — Procedures for Air Navigation Services — Air Traffic Management (PANS‐ATM)• Doc 8168 — Procedures for Air Navigation Services — Aircraft Operations (PANS-OPS)• Doc 7030 — Regional Supplementary Procedures

Differences to these provisions are detailed in subsection GEN 1.7.

2 AREA OF RESPONSIBILITYAir traffic services are provided for the entire territory of State of Qatar, including its territorial waters as well as the airspaceover the high seas within Doha TMA.

In some cases, in accordance with the regional air navigation agreement, air traffic services are provided, under the delegatedauthority, in the airspace within another bordering FIR. Details of such services are provided in section ENR 2.

3 TYPES OF SERVICESThe following types of services are provided:

• Flight Information Service (FIS) and Alerting Service (ALRS); and• Radar.

With the exception of services provided at military air bases, the following types of services are provided at aerodromes:

• Aerodrome Control (TWR);• Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS); and• Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS), at certain aerodromes.

4 COORDINATION BETWEEN THE OPERATOR AND ATSCo-ordination between the operator and air traffic services is effected in accordance with 2.15 of ICAO Annex 11.

5 MINIMUM FLIGHT ALTITUDEThe minimum flight altitudes on the ATS routes, as presented in section ENR 3, have been determined so as to ensure aminimum vertical clearance above the controlling obstacle in the area concerned.

6 ATS UNITS ADDRESS LISTAFS addressTelex NRFax NRTelephone NRPostal addressUnit name

654321OTHHZRZX-(974) 4470 5300(974) 4462 2300Director of Air Navigation

P. O. Box 73DohaState of Qatar

DOHA Approach←




AFS addressTelex NRFax NRTelephone NRPostal addressUnit name654321

OTBDZTZXOTHHZTZX

-(974) 4470 5300(974) 4470 5999Head of ATCCivil Aviation AuthorityP.O. Box 73DohaState of Qatar

←




GEN 3.4 COMMUNICATION SERVICES

1 RESPONSIBLE SERVICEThe responsible service for the provision of telecommunication and navigation facility services in State of Qatar, is the QatarCivil Aviation Authority.

Post: ChairmanCivil Aviation AuthorityP.O. Box 3000DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4455 7333 Ext. 320/316Fax: (974) 4455 2233

← AFS: OTBDYAYX, OTHHYAYX, OTHHYFYXSITA: DOHXYYF, DOHXZYF

The service is provided in accordance with the provisions contained in the following ICAO documents:

• Annex 10 — Aeronautical Telecommunications• Doc 8400 — Procedures for Air Navigation Services — ICAO Abbreviations and Codes (PANS-ABC)• Doc 8585 — Designators for Aircraft Operating Agencies, Aeronautical Authorities and Services• Doc 7030 — Regional Supplementary Procedures• Doc 7910 — Location Indicators

2 AREA OF RESPONSIBILITYCommunication services are provided for the entire Doha TMA. Arrangements for such services on a continuing basisshould be made with the Head of Communication Section, who is also responsible for the application of the regulationsconcerning the design, type and installations of aircraft radio stations. Responsibility for the day-to-day operation of theseservices is vested in Station Communication Officers located at each international aerodrome. Inquiries, suggestions orcomplaints regarding any telecommunication service should be referred to the relevant Station Communication Officer orto the Head of Communication Section, as appropriate.

3 TYPES OF SERVICE

3.1 RADIO NAVIGATION SERVICESThe following types of radio aids to navigation are available:

• Instrument Landing System (ILS)• Doppler VHF Omni-directional Radio Range (DVOR)• Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)• Mono-pulse Secondary Surveillance Radar (MSSR)• Non-directional beacon (NDB)

3.2 VOICE/DATA LINK SERVICES

Voice servicesThe aeronautical stations maintain a continuous watch on their stated frequencies during the published hours of serviceunless otherwise notified. An aircraft should normally communicate with the airground control radio station that exercisescontrol in the area in which the aircraft is flying. Aircraft should maintain a continuous watch on the appropriate frequencyof the control station and should not abandon watch, except in an emergency, without informing the control radio station.

Data link serviceThe messages to be transmitted over the Aeronautical Fixed Service (AFS) are accepted only if:

a. they satisfy the requirements of ICAO Annex 10, Vol. II, Chapter 3, 3.3;b. they are prepared in the form specified in ICAO Annex 10;c. the text of an individual message does not exceed 1800 characters.

Following data link services are available for Hamad International Airport.




1. Service Designation : D-ATISCall sign: HAMAD TERMINAL INFORMATIONLogin address: DOHATYAHours of operation: H24

2. Service Designation : CPDLCLogin address : DOHFAYA

3. Service Designation : DCLLogin address : DOHDCYA

Following data link services are available for Doha International Airport.

1. Service Designation : D-ATISCall sign: DOHA INFORMATIONLogin address: DOHCAYAHours of operation: H24

3.3 BROADCASTING SERVICEFollowing broadcasting services are available.

VHF Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS)

1. Station Name - Hamad InternationalCall sign - Hamad Terminal InformationFrequency - 126.850 MHzRemarks: ATIS broadcast can also be obtained via hotline (974) 4470 5310-13

2. Station Name - Doha InternationalCall sign - Doha InformationFrequency - 126.450 MHzRemarks - This service is also available H24 via the telephone: (974) 4465 6213

3.4 LANGUAGE USED:English.

3.5 WHERE DETAILED INFORMATION CAN BE OBTAINEDDetails of the facilities available for the en-route traffic can be found in Part 2, ENR 4.

Details of the facilities available at the individual aerodromes can be found in the relevant sections of Part 3 (AD). In caseswhere a facility is serving both the en-route traffic and the aerodromes, details are given in the relevant sections of Part 2(ENR) and Part 3 (AD).

4 REQUIREMENTS AND CONDITIONSThe requirements of the Communication Services and the general conditions under which the communication services areavailable for international use, as well as the requirements for the carriage of radio equipment, are contained in the AirNavigation (Radio) Regulations of QCAR Part 10, of the State of Qatar.

5 MISCELLANEOUSAeronautical Fixed Service – International Circuits

RemarksHours ofOperation

Type of TrafficType of ChannelCorrespondent AFTNAddressees

Station Name and LocationIndicator

654321NILH24AFTNLANOBBIYFYXBahrain / OBBI←NILH24AMHSLANOKBKYFYXKuwait / OKBK←NILH24AMHSLANOMAEYFYXAbu Dhabi / OMAE

Aeronautical Fixed Service – Domestic Circuits


Type of TrafficType ofChannel

Correspondent AFTNAddressees

Station Name

654321NILH24AFTNLANOTBDZTZX

OTHHZTZXTower

NILH24AFTNLANOTBDZRZXRadar





Type of TrafficType ofChannel

Correspondent AFTNAddressees

Station Name

654321NILH24AFTNLANOTBDYWYXAOC / QEAFNILH24AFTNLANOTBDYMYXMETNILH24AFTNLANOTBDYMYXRemote METNILH24AFTNLANOTBDYOYX

OTHHYOYXAIS

NILH24AFTNLANOTNOYNYXNOFNILH24AFTNLANOTBDFDPSFDPS

Hotline: (974) 4465 6213Hotline: (974)4470 5310-13

H24H24

AFTNATFN

LANLAN

OTBDATISOTHHATIS

ATIS←

NILH24AFTNLANOTBDYAYXOTHHYAYX

QCAA

TEL: (974) 4470 5080/(974) 4470 5081

FAX :(974) 4462 1052/(974) 4470 5075

E-mail:[email protected]

H24AFTNLANOTBDYFYXOTHHYFYX

COM←

TEL: (974) 4462 2510H24AFTNLANOTBDYTYXHead of COM←NILH24SITALANDOHXYYF, DOHXZYFSITA




GEN 3.5 METEOROLOGICAL SERVICES

1 RESPONSIBLE SERVICEThe meteorological services for civil aviation are provided by the Meteorological Department of the Civil Aviation authorityof the State of Qatar.

Post: Head of MeteorologyCivil Aviation AuthorityP.O. Box 3000DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4455 2727Fax: (974) 4465 9541AFS: OTBDYMYX

The service is provided in accordance with the provisions contained in the following ICAO documents:

• Annex 3 — Meteorological Service for International Air Navigation• Doc 7030 — Regional Supplementary Procedures• Doc 8896 — Manual of Aeronautical Meteorological Practice• Doc 9328 — Manual of Runway Visual Range Observing and Reporting Practices• Doc 9377—Manual on Coordination between Air Traffic Services, Aeronautical Information Services and Aeronautical

Meteorological Services

Differences to these provisions are detailed in subsection GEN 1.7.

2 AREA OF RESPONSIBILITYMeteorological service is provided within the entire territory of State of Qatar, including its territorial waters as well as theairspace over the high seas within Doha TMA.

3 METEOROLOGICAL OBSERVATIONS AND REPORTSTable GEN 3.5.3 Meteorological observations and reports

Climatologicalinformation

Hours ofoperation

Observation System &Site(s)

Types of METreports &

SupplementaryInformationincluded

Type & frequencyof

observation/automaticobservingequipment

Name ofstation/Location

indicator

654321Climatologicaltables AVBL

H24Wind Sensors at METstation located

approximately 280 mWest of RCL abeamTWY E1 and TWY D1intersection (wind reportin METAR and SPECI

taken from thismeasurement).

Anemometers and windvanes each located

approximately at 117 mWest of RCL abeamstart of RWY 15 and268 m East of RCL

abeam turning pad in themiddle of the RWY.

Windsocks at both RWYends. RVR

transmissometers atboth ends and in themiddle of the RWY.

METAR, SPECI,Selected SPECIAL,

SYNOP

Manual, half hourlyroutine plus specialobservations /MIDAS 600,@AOBS

DOHA/DohaInternational

OTBD




Climatologicalinformation

Hours ofoperation

Observation System &Site(s)

Types of METreports &

SupplementaryInformationincluded

Type & frequencyof

observation/automaticobservingequipment

Name ofstation/Location

indicator

654321Climatologicaltables AVBL

H24- WMO Class A mannedobservatory on 24 hours

watch- Observe and transmitsurface and upper air

parameters- Issue and transmitMETAR/SPECI

METAutomatic Station(located approximately300 m West of centreline West Runway,

1 200 m from threshold16R):

- Wind sensor- Pressure

- AirTemperature/Humidity

- Solar radiation- Present weather- Soil Temperature- Wind shear sensor

(wind profiler)

Runways: Thresholds16L, 34L:

- AirTemperature/Humidity

- PressureThresholds 16L, 34L,

16R, 34R:- Wind sensors- Cloud base(ceilometers)

- RVR(transmissometers)

Median East and Westrunways:

- 2 x RVR along eachRWY.

MET conventionalstation:

- Wind sensors (10 m)- Air

Temperature/humidity- Rain gauge

- Evaporation tank- Wind sensor (1 m)- Solar duration- Soil temperature

- Pressure

METAR, SPECI,Selected SPECIAL,

SYNOP

Manual, half hourlyroutine plus specialobservations /MIDAS 600,@AOBS

DOHA/HamadInternational

OTHH

4 TYPES OF SERVICESPersonal briefing and consultation for flight crew members are provided at DOHA International / HAMAD Internationaloperate H24 and provide the following services.


AIPQatar



a. Full meteorological documentation, briefing and consultation for current operational planning for all flights departingDOHA International / HAMAD International;

b. Supply of meteorological information to aircraft in flight through DOHA International radio channels;c. Meteorological information for ATS; andd. Information for Search and Rescue Service Units.

Only an auto weather station is available at AL KHOR aerodrome and consultation is available by telephone from DOHAMeteorological Office.

Details of documentation supplied for each flight are determined by arrangement between the operator and theMeteorologicalOffice. Flight documentation is normally provided for domestic flights. For international flights, the flight documentationcomprises a significant weather chart, an upper wind and upper air temperature chart and the latest available aerodromeforecast for the destination and its alternate aerodromes.

Routine aerodrome forecasts received from other Meteorological Offices are normally included in meteorologicaldocumentation without modification. When a required aerodrome forecast is not received, a provisional forecast may beissued by the Meteorological Office providing the documentation.

After documentation has been issued and until take-off, DOHA Meteorological Office makes available amendments to thedocumentation. It is the responsibility of the operator’s local representative to provide pre-departure amendment(s) fromDOHA Meteorological Office to the pilot-in-command.

Climatological summaries for DOHA International / HAMAD International are available from DOHA Meteorological Office.

5 NOTIFICATION REQUIRED FROM OPERATORSOperators requiring meteorological service or changes in existing meteorological services shall notify, sufficiently in advance,to the Department of Meteorology of the Qatar Civil Aviation Authority in accordance with ICAO Annex 3, paragraph 2.3.

Operators or their flight crew members shall notify the Aerodrome Meteorological Office at DOHA International / HAMADInternational, as soon as the following information becomes available:

a. of flight schedules;b. when non-scheduled flights are to be operated; andc. when flights are delayed, advanced or cancelled.

6 AIRCRAFT REPORTSFor the benefit of subsequent aircraft and for validation and further enhancement of the low-level wind shear and turbulencealerting services, pilots are requested to inform ATC if they experience any microburst, wind shear or turbulence on arrivalor departure, irrespective of whether an alert has been given. ATC will pass such reports to following aircraft.

Further to the pilot reporting of low-level wind shear and turbulence at DOHA International / HAMAD International airports,pilots are requested to pass special aircraft observation as soon as possible to the appropriate ATS unit by voicecommunications whenever any of the following conditions are encountered or observed:

a. severe turbulence;b. severe icing;c. thunderstorm, without hail (obscured, embedded, widespread or in squall lines);d. thunderstorms, with hail (obscured, embedded, widespread or in squall lines); ande. heavy dust storm or heavy sand storm.

When other meteorological conditions not listed above are encountered and which, in the opinion of the pilot-in-command,may affect the safety or markedly affect the efficiency of other operations, the pilot-in-command shall advise ATC as soonas practicable.

Aircraft observations shall be reported as air-reports following the instructions in ICAO PANS-ATM (Doc 4444) - Appendix1.

7 VOLMET SERVICENIL

8 SIGMET AND AIRMET SERVICENIL

9 OTHER AUTOMATED METEOROLOGICAL SERVICESNIL




GEN 3.6 SEARCH AND RESCUE

1 RESPONSIBLE SERVICE(S)The search and rescue services in the State of Qatar have been delegated by the Qatar Civil Aviation Authority in total tothe Qatar Armed Forces which have the responsibility for coordinating among various departments/agencies and makingthe necessary facilities available. The postal and telegraphic addresses of the Civil Aviation Administration are given onpage GEN 1.1.

←←

When SAR operations are required, Doha Joint Rescue Coordination Center (DJRCC) will coordinate among variousdepartments/agencies for efficient conduct of a successful SAR operation(s). DJRCC would also collaborate with regionalRCCs if so required.

Contact details of Head of DJRCC are as follows:

Post: S/Brigadier Mohammed Hamad Al ShahwaniChairman/Commander DJRCCPO Box 37DohaState of Qatar

Tel: (974) 4498 0384Email:


Contact details of DJRCC Operations Room are as follows:

Post: Doha Joint Rescue Coordination CentreNear Ooredoo Maritime Coastal StationAl Daayan Lusail Circuit (Race Track)Al Khor Coastal RoadLusailState of Qatar

Email: [email protected]

Location of the DJRCC Operations Room : 253001.86N 0512712.61E

The service is provided in accordance with the provisions contained in;

• Annex 12 - Search and Rescue• Annex 13 - Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation• Doc 9731- IAMSAR Manual• Doc 7030 - Regional Supplementary Procedures

2 AREA OF RESPONSIBILITY← The Qatar search and rescue services are primarily responsible for SAR operations within the area bounded by the Qatar

land peninsula and associated sea area of responsibility. This may be combined with/extended according to circumstancesand as may be required in collaboration with the neighbouring RCCs and/or other adjacent states.

3 TYPES OF SERVICE← Details of the Doha Joint Rescue Coordination Centre (DJRCC) and related supporting rescue units are given in the Table

3.6.3 - Search and Rescue Units. All elements of the State of Qatar’s Police, Maritime and Armed Forces are available forsearch and rescue missions, when required. The aeronautical, maritime and public telecommunication services may alsobe offered to the search and rescue operations.

All search aircraft are land planes and carry survival equipment, capable of being dropped, consisting of inflatable rubberdinghies (boats) equipped with general purpose first aid supplies, emergency rations and survival radio equipment. Aircraftare equipped to communicate on 121.5 MHz, 123.1 MHz, 243.0 MHz and are also equipped with VHF/UHF direction finder.Marine craft are equipped to communicate on 123.1 MHz, 282.8 MHz and are equipped with radar.






Table 3.6.3 Search and Rescue UnitsRemarksFacilitiesLocationName

4321Standard SAR Equipment / rotarywing

Westland Sea King CommandoMK2 / Rescue 30 (2-digit)

Emiri Air Force Air Base at DohaInternational Airport

QEAF

Standard SAR Equipment / rotarywing

AgustaWestland-139 / Rescue 300(3-digit)

Emiri Air Force Air Base Al-Udeidat Abu Nakhlah

Standard SAR Equipment / fixedwing

Boeing C-17 Globemaster – III / AirAmbulance


Standard SAR Equipment / fixedwing

Lockheed Martin C-130 J SuperHercules / Air Ambulance


Standard SAR equipmentNaval ships, Patrol vessels, Rescuecrafts etc.

Qatar Emiri Navy base at Doha PortQEN

DJRCC is directly linked with alladditional departments & agencieshaving a possible role in anysituation calling for SAR operation.Tel: (974) 4421 8649(974) 4421 8877Fax: (974) 4421 8989

Round the clock manned andequipped with LEOLUT/GEOLUTreceivers along withCOSPAS/SARSAT approvedMCCand RCC nodes linked with all otherworld MCCs.

Doha Joint Rescue CoordinationCentre,Maritime Coastal Station,Al Daayan Lusail Circuit (RaceTrack),Al Khor Coastal Road,Lusail,State of Qatar.

DJRCC←

Note: DJRCC on behalf of Ministry of Defence may call land/marine/aeronautical units from other departments and sourcesif so required for augmenting the SAR operation(s).

4 SAR AGREEMENTSAn agreement has been concluded between the SAR service of State of Qatar and the SAR service of neighboring Statesconcerning the provision of assistance upon receipt by the former of a request from the latter for aid. This agreementprovides for facilitation of the overflight and landing of search and rescue aircraft without prior permission after dispatch ofa flight plan, for similar facilitation of the entry of surface vessels of the SAR service and their operation in border areas,for notification of entry to the authorities controlling entry, for defraying the costs of stop-overs, accommodation andtransportation of crew members, and for direct communication between the two SAR services on all common search andrescue matters.

← Requests for the entry of aircraft, equipment and personnel from other States to engage in the search for aircraft/marinevessel in distress or to rescue survivors of aircraft/maritime accidents should be transmitted to the Doha Joint Rescue

←Coordination Centre (DJRCC). Instructions as to the control which will be exercised on entry of such aircraft and/or personnelwill be given by the Doha Joint Rescue Coordination Centre (DJRCC) in accordance with a standing plan for the conductof search and rescue within its area.

5 CONDITIONS OF AVAILABILITYThe SAR service and facilities in State of Qatar are available without charge to neighbouring States upon request to theCivil Aviation Authority at all times when they are not engaged in search and rescue operations in their home territory. Allfacilities are specialized in SAR techniques and functions.

6 PROCEDURES AND SIGNALS USEDProcedures and signals used by aircraft

Procedures for pilots-in-command observing an accident or intercepting a distress call and/or message are outlined inQCAR 12 and ICAO Annex 12, Chapter 5.

Communications

Transmission and reception of distress messages within the Search and Rescue Area are handled in accordance withQCAR 10 (vol. II) and ICAO Annex 10, Volume II, 5.3.

For communications during search and rescue operations, the codes and abbreviations published in ICAO Abbreviationsand Codes (Doc 8400) are used.

The frequency 121.5 MHz is guarded continuously during the hours of service at all ATC Control Towers within the Stateof Qatar and Doha Approach Control Centre. All coast stations guard the international distress frequencies.

Rescue aircraft assigned to Search and Rescue Units will use both the call sign “RESCUE” and additional identificationmarks (ALFA, BRAVO, CHARLIE, etc.) as assigned by the RCC during rescue operations.




Search and rescue signals

The search and rescue signals to be used are those prescribed in QCAR 12 and ICAO Annex 12, Chapter 5, para 5.10.

Ground/air visual signal codes for use by survivors

Table 3.6.6 Ground/air visual signal codesCode SymbolMessageNo.

Require assistance1

Require medical assistance2

No or Negative3

Yes or Affirmative4

Proceeding in this direction5

Instructions for use:

1. Make signals not less than 8 ft (2.5 m).2. Take care to lay out signals exactly as shown.3. Provide as much colour contrast as possible between signals and background.4. Make every effort to attract attention by other means such as radio, flares, smoke reflected light.




ENR 1 GENERAL RULES AND PROCEDURES

ENR 1.1 GENERAL RULES

1 AIR DISPLAY AND AERIAL SPECIAL EVENTS

1.1 GENERALWith reference to Law Number 15 of 2002 on Civil Aviation, Article 30, Paragraph 5, Air displays and Aerial Special Eventsare only permitted in visual meteorological conditions and with the explicit consent of all persons on board.

1.2 MINIMUM SAFE HEIGHTAir displays and Aerial Special Events are prohibited at heights of less than 1 500 FT (450 M) as well as over cities, otherdensely populated areas, assemblies of persons and airports.

1.3 AUTHORIZATION1.3.1 All air displays and aerial special events must obtain permission from the Air Safety Department of Qatar Civil AviationAuthority (QCAA).

1.3.2 Civil air displays and aerial special events must apply for Display Authorisation.

1.3.3 Air displays and aerial special events conducted in the vicinity of an aerodrome without an ATS unit require specialpermission from the QCAA Air Safety Department in addition to the air traffic control clearance.

1.4 REQUIREMENTS1.4.1 Application for Display Authorisation must be made, in writing, four (4) weeks in advance of the air display and aerialspecial event.

1.4.2 Pilots must have a copy of the Display Authorisation when conducting civil air display and aerial special events.

1.5 EXEMPTIONQCAA may grant exemptions on individual cases.

←


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ENR 1.2 VISUAL FLIGHT RULES1 Except when operating as a special VFR flight, VFR flights shall be conducted so that the aircraft is flown in conditionsof visibility and distance from clouds equal to or greater than those specified in Table 1

2 Except when a clearance is obtained from an air traffic control unit, VFR flights shall not take off or land at an aerodromewithin a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern:

a. When the ceiling is less than 450 M (1 500 FT); orb. When the ground visibility is less than 5 KM.

3 VFR flights between sunset and sunrise, or such other periods between sunset and sunrise as may be prescribed by theappropriate ATS Authority , shall be operated in accordance with the conditions prescribed by such authority.

4 Unless authorised by the appropriate ATS authority, VFR flights shall not be operated:

a. At or above FL 150,b. At transonic and supersonic speeds.

5 Except when necessary for take-off or landing, or except by permission from the appropriate ATS authority, a VFR flightshall not be flown:

a. Over the congested area of cities, towns or settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons at a height less than300 M (1 000 FT) above the highest obstacles within a radius of 600 M from the aircraft;

b. Elsewhere than as specified in above item (a), at a height less than 150 M (500 FT) above the ground or water.

Table 1F GC D EAirspace classAt and below 900 M (3 000 FT)AMSL or 300 M (1 000 FT)

above terrain, whichever is thehigher

ABOVE 900 M (3 000 FT)AMSL or above 300 M(1 000 FT) above terrain,whichever is the higher

Clear of cloud andin sight of the surface

1 500 M horizontally300 M (1 000 FT) vertically

Distance from cloud

5 KM*8 KM at and above 3 050 M ( 10 000 FT )AMSL5 KM below 3 050 M ( 10 000 FT ) AMSL

Flight visibility

∗ When so prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority:

a. Lower flight visibilities to 1 500 M may be permitted for flights operating:

1. At speeds that, in the prevailing visibility, will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstaclesin time to avoid collision; or

2. In circumstances in which the probability of encounters with other traffic would normally be low, e.g. in areasof low volume traffic and for aerial work at low levels.

b. HELICOPTERSmay be permitted to operate in less than 1 500M flight visibility, but not less than 800M if manoeuvredat a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision.

6 Except where otherwise indicated in air traffic control clearances or specified by the appropriate ATS authority, VFR flightsin level cruising flight when operated above 900 M (3 000 FT) from the ground or water or a higher datum as specified bythe appropriate ATS authority, shall be conducted at a flight level appropriates to the track as specified in the table of cruisinglevels.

7 VFR flights shall comply with the provisions of QCAR OPS, section 2.153:

a. When operated within Class C and D airspace;b. When forming part of aerodrome traffic at controlled aerodromes; orc. When operated as special VFR flights.

8 An aircraft operated in accordance with the visual flight rules which wishes to change to compliance with the instrumentflight rules shall:

a. If a flight plan was submitted, communicate the necessary changes to be effected to its current flight plan, orb. When so required by QCAR-OPS 2, section 2.151, submit a flight plan to the appropriate ATS unit and obtain

clearance prior to proceeding IFR when in controlled airspace.


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http://caa.gov.qa/en/safety_regulations

ENR 1.3 INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES

1 RULES APPLICABLE TO ALL IFR FLIGHTS

1.1 AIRCRAFT EQUIPMENTAircraft shall be equipped with suitable instruments and with navigation equipment appropriate to the route to be flown.

1.2 MINIMUM LEVELS1.2.1 Except when necessary for take-off or landing or when specifically authorized by the appropriate authority, an IFRflight shall be flown at a level that is not below the minimum flight altitude established by the State whose territory is overflownor, where no such minimum flight altitude has been established:

a. Over high terrain or in mountainous areas, at a level which is at least 600 M (2 000 FT) above the highest obstaclelocated within 8 KM of the estimated position of the aircraft;

b. Elsewhere than as specified in (a), at a level which is at least 300 M (1 000 FT) above the highest obstacle locatedwithin 8 KM of the estimated position of the aircraft.

Note: The estimated position of the aircraft will take account of the navigational accuracy which can be achieved on therelevant route segment, having regard to the navigational facilities available on the ground and in the aircraft.

1.3 CHANGE FROM IFR FLIGHT TO VFR FLIGHT1.3.1 An aircraft electing to change the conduct of its flight from compliance with the instrument flight rules to compliancewith the visual flight rules shall, if a flight plan was submitted, notify the appropriate ATS unit specifically that the IFR flightis cancelled and communicate thereto the changes to be made to its current flight plan.

1.3.2 When an aircraft operating under the instrument flight rules is flown in or encounters visual meteorological conditions,it shall not cancel its IFR flight unless it is anticipated, and intended, that the flight will be continued for a reasonable periodof time in uninterrupted visual meteorological conditions.

2 RULES APPLICABLE TO IFR FLIGHTS WITHIN CONTROLLED AIRSPACE2.1 IFR flights shall comply with the provisions of QCAR-OPS 2, section 2.153 when operated in controlled airspace.

2.2 An IFR flight operating in cruising flight in controlled airspace shall be flown at a cruising level or, if authorized to employcruise climb techniques, between two levels or above a level, selected from:

a. The tables of cruising levels in QCAR-OPS 2, section 2.187 or,b. A modified table of cruising levels, when so prescribed in accordance with QCAR-OPS 2, section 2.187 for flights

above FL 410,

2.3 Except if the correlation of levels to track prescribed therein shall not apply whenever otherwise indicated in air trafficcontrol clearance or specified by the appropriate ATS authority in the AIP.

2.4 Rates of Climb and Descent

2.4.1 General

If a pilot is unable to comply with rates of climb/descent, either published or issued tactically by ATC, he/she must informATC, immediately.

2.4.2 Avoidance of False TCAS Resolution Advisory.

Within the last 1 000 FT of climb or descent, rates should not exceed 1 000 FT per minute. Pilots should ensure that theaircraft neither undershoots nor overshoots the target level by more than 150 feet, manually overriding if necessary.

← 3 RULES APPLICABLE TO IFR FLIGHTS OUTSIDE CONTROLLED AIRSPACE

3.1 CRUISING LEVELS3.1.1 An IFR flight operating in level cruising flight outside of controlled airspace shall be flown at a cruising level appropriateto its track as specified in:

a. the tables of cruising levels inQCAR-OPS 2.Section 2.187, except when otherwise specified by the appropriate ATSauthority for flight at or below 900 M (3 000 FT) above mean sea level; or


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b. a modified table of cruising levels, when so prescribed in accordance with QCAR-OPS 2.Section 2.187 for flightabove FL 410.

Note: This provision does not preclude the use of cruise climb techniques by aircraft in supersonic flight.

3.2 COMMUNICATIONSAn IFR flight operating outside controlled airspace but within or into areas, or along routes, designated by the appropriateATS Authority in accordance with QCAR OPS 2, section 2.151, item (a) (2) (iii) or (iv) shall maintain a listening watch onthe appropriate radio frequency and establish two-way communication, as necessary, with the air traffic services unitproviding flight information service.

3.3 POSITION REPORTS3.3.1 An IFR flight operating outside controlled airspace and required by the appropriate ATS authority to:

• submit a flight plan, and• maintain a listening watch on the appropriate radio frequency and establish two-way communication, as necessary,

with the air traffic services unit providing flight information service

shall report position as specified in QCAR - OPS 2, section 2.319 for controlled flights.

Note: Aircraft electing to use the air traffic advisory service whilst operating IFR within specified advisory airspace areexpected to comply with the provisions of QCAR - OPS 2, section 2.153, except that the flight plan and changes theretoare not subject to clearances and that two-way communication will be maintained with the unit providing the air trafficadvisory service.


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ENR 1.4 ATS AIRSPACE CLASSIFICATION AND DESCRIPTION

1 CLASSIFICATION OF AIRSPACES1.1 ATS airspaces are classified and designated in accordance with the following:

1. Class A. IFR flights only are permitted, all flights are provided with air traffic control service and are separated fromeach other;

2. Class B. IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are provided with air traffic control service and are separatedfrom each other;

3. Class C. IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are provided with air traffic control service and IFR flights areseparated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive trafficinformation in respect of other VFR flights;

4. Class D. IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are provided with air traffic control service, IFR flights areseparated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights, VFR flights receive trafficinformation in respect of all other flights;

5. Class E. IFR and VFR flights are permitted, IFR flights are Provided with air traffic control service and are separatedfrom other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical.Class E shall not be used for ControlZones;

6. Class F. IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air traffic advisory service and allflights receive flight information service if requested, andNote: Where air traffic advisory service is implemented, this is considered normally as a temporary measure onlyuntil such time as it can be replaced by air traffic control.

7. Class G. IFR and VFR flights are permitted and receive flight information service if requested.

1.2 The requirements for the flights within each class of airspace are as shown in the following table.

Subjectto anATCclearance

Radiocommunicationrequirement

Speed limitationVMC visibility anddistance fromcloud minima

Service providedSeparationprovided

Type offlight

Class

YesContinuoustwo-way

Not applicableNot applicableAir traffic controlservice

All aircraftIFR onlyA



All aircraftIFR

B∗


Not applicable8 KM at and above3 050 M (10 000 FT)AMSL

5 KM below 3 050 M(10 000FT) AMSL

Clear of clouds

Air traffic controlservice

All aircraftVFR



IFR from IFR

IFR fromVFR

IFR

C


250 KT IASbelow 3 050 M(10 000 FT)AMSL

8 KM at and above3 050 M (10 000 FT)AMSL

5 KM below 3 050 M(10 000 FT) AMSL

1 500 M horizontal;300 M verticaldistance from cloud

1. Air trafficcontrol servicefor separationfrom IFR;

2. VFR / VFRtrafficinformation(and trafficavoidanceadvice onrequest)

VFR fromIFR

VFR








Type offlight

Class



Not applicableAir traffic controlservice includingtraffic informationabout VFR flights(and trafficavoidance advice onrequest)

IFR from IFRIFR

DYesContinuous

two-way250 KT IASbelow 3 050 M(10 000 FT)AMSL




Traffic informationbetween VFR andIFR flights (andtraffic avoidanceadvice on request)

NilVFR



Not applicableAir traffic controlservice and trafficinformation aboutVFR flights as far aspractical

IFR from IFRIFR

E∗

NoNo250 KT IASbelow 3 050 M(10 000 FT)AMSL




Traffic information asfar as practical

NilVFR

NoContinuoustwo-way


Not applicableAir traffic advisoryservice; flightinformation service

IFR from IFRas far aspractical

IFR

F∗



5KM below 3 050 M(10 000 FT) AMSL


At and below 900 MAMSL or 300 Mabove terrainwhichever is higher– 5 KM∗∗∗, clear ofcloud and in sight ofground or water

Flight informationservice

NilVFR


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ENR 1.4-226 JUN 2014~~~eaip-amdt~~~eAIP






Type offlight

Class

NoContinuoustwo-way


Not applicableFlight informationservice

NilIFR

G∗∗





At and below 900 MAMSL or 300 Mabove terrainwhichever is higher– 5 KM∗∗∗, clear ofcloud and in sight ofground or water

Flight informationservice

NilVFR

∗ Classes of airspace not used in Doha TMA.

∗∗ Airspaces within Doha TMA other than Class A, C and D.

∗∗∗ When so prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority:

a. lower flight visibilities to 1 500 M may be permitted for flights operating:

1. at speeds that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision;or

2. in circumstances in which the probability of encounters with other traffic would normally be low, e.g. in areasof low traffic volume and for aerial work at low levels;

b. helicopters may be permitted to operate in less than 1 500 M flight visibility, but not less than 800 M if manoeuvredat a speed that will give adequate opportunity to observe other traffic or any obstacles in time to avoid collision.




ENR 1.5 HOLDING, APPROACH AND DEPARTURE PROCEDURES

1 GENERAL

1.1 GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS1.1.1 The holding, approach and departure procedures in use are based on those contained in the latest edition of ICAODoc 8168 — Procedures for Air Navigation Services — Aircraft Operations (PANS-OPS).

1.1.2 The holding and approach procedures in use have been based on the values and factors contained in Part III and IVof Vol. I of PANS-OPS, except for transition layer. The holding patterns shall be entered and flown as indicated below.

←←

Jet aircraftCategory A and BaircraftFlight level (FL) Turbulence conditionsNormal conditions

280 KT (520 KM/H) orMach 0.8, whichever is less

230 KT (425 KM/H)170 KTUp to 13 000 FT (3 950 M) inclusive240 kt (445 KM/H)Above FL 150 (4 550 m to FL 200 (6 100 M)

inclusive265 kt (490 KM/H)Above FL 200 (6 100 M) to FL 240 (7 300 M)

inclusive

1.2 NAMING CONVENTION FOR WAYPOINTS USED IN RNP INSTRUMENT APPROACHPROCEDURES1.2.1 In accordance with ICAO Document 8168, Vol II, Part III, Section 5, Chapter 1, 1.6 - WAYPOINT NAMING criteria,following convention applies for naming waypoints in RNP Instrument Approach Procedures that are designated byalphanumeric name-code:

1. For missed approach points (MAPt’s) co-located with RWY THR:

a. First two (2) alphabetic characters - “RW”b. Last two (2) or three (3) characters - corresponding RWY designator.

e.g. “RW16L”, “RW34R”, “RW15”, “RW33”

2. For other waypoints unique to a specific aerodrome:

a. First two (2) characters – the third and fourth letters of ICAO location indicator of the aerodrome.b. Last three (3) characters – any combination of numeric characters from 401 to 999 but not ending with zero (0) or

five (5).

e.g. for Doha International Airport “BD401” or “BD701”; for Hamad International Airport “HH501” or “HH801”

2 ARRIVING FLIGHTS

2.1 INSTRUCTIONS2.1.1 All traffic landing within Doha TMAmay expect Continuous Descent Operation (CDO) on following enroute segments.

a. L564/UL564 –BATHA to PASOMb. M430/UM430 – ULIKA to GINTO

2.1.2 IFR flights (inclusive FL 150 and above) landing within Doha TMA, will be cleared to a specific holding fix or asinstructed by "DOHARADAR" andmay expect further instructions from "DOHAAPPROACH" and/or "DOHADIRECTOR"subsequently.

2.1.3 IFR flights (below FL 150) landing within Doha TMA, will be cleared to a specific holding fix or to a STAR as instructedby "DOHA APPROACH" and expect further clearance from "DOHA DIRECTOR".

2.1.4 Holding procedure shall be carried out with the authorized level until further instructions given by "DOHA RADAR"or "DOHA APPROACH".

2.1.5 Due to the limited airspace within Doha TMA, it is important that all arrivals to the patterns and for the holding proceduresare to be carried out as precisely as possible. Pilots are advised to inform ATC if unable to comply with this requirement.


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2.2 SPEED REQUIREMENT2.2.1 All aircraft entering Doha TMA are required to adjust IAS as per the following speeds unless otherwise instructed byATC:

a. 210 - 230 KT during the initial approach phase;b. 180 KT on base leg / closed heading to final approach andc. 160 KT when established on final approach and thereafter 160 KT to 5 NM final.

2.2.2 These speeds are applied for ATC separation purposes and are recommended.

2.2.3 All speed restrictions are to be flown as accurately as possible. Aircraft unable to conform to these speeds must informATC and state what speeds can be used. Pilots should also advise ATC if circumstances necessitate a change of speedfor aircraft per reasons.

2.2.4 In the interests of accurate spacing, pilots are requested to comply with speed adjustments as promptly as feasiblewithin their own operational constraints.

2.2.5 In the event when traffic sequencing does not require speed limitation, ATC will advise " NO ATC SPEEDRESTRICTION".

3 DEPARTING FLIGHTS

3.1 GENERAL3.1.1 IFR flights departing from controlled aerodrome will receive initial ATC clearance from the local Aerodrome ControlTower. The clearance limit will normally be the aerodrome of destination.

3.2 INSTRUCTIONS3.2.1 All OTBD/OTHH departure aircraft shall immediately contact DOHA APPROACH on 119.725 MHz.

3.2.2 On initial contact withDOHAAPPROACH, aircraft fromOTBD/OTHHmust include the following on theirDEPARTUREREPORT:

a. Aircraft call sign;b. Passing altitude andc. Designated SID

3.2.3 Detailed instructions with regards to routes, turns etc. will be issued by DOHA APPROACH.

3.3 SPEED REQUIREMENT3.3.1 All OTHH/OTBD departure aircraft are required to maintain maximum 250KT IAS until passing 10 000 FT unlessotherwise instructed by ATC or required by Standard Instrument Departure Procedure.

3.3.2 All traffic departing OTHH/OTBD via B457/UB457 and M444/UM444 are required to cross DENVO at FL180 or aboveand not to exceed 300 KT IAS.

3.4 PHRASEOLOGY AND PROCEDURES3.4.1 Pilots shall respond to “CLIMB UNRESTRICTED” clearances by repeating the clearance verbatim and expected tocommence an unrestricted climb to comply with the clearance.

3.4.2 For aircraft already climbing via the SID published altitude, restrictions are deleted unless reissued by ATC.


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ENR 1.6 ATC SURVEILLANCE SERVICES AND PROCEDURES

1 PRIMARY RADAR1.1 Doha primary radar equipment is located at:

a. RADAR 1 (ASR/PSR): DOHA APP - 251419.90N 0513552.20E

← 2 SECONDARY SURVEILLANCE RADAR (SSR)2.1 Doha secondary surveillance radar equipment is located at:

a. RADAR 1 (ASR/SSR) : DOHA APP - 251419.90N 0513552.20Eb. RADAR 2 (SSR) : DOHA APP - 251541.70N 0513428.60Ec. RADAR 3 (SSR) : DOHA APP - 251621.00N 0513355.00E

2.2 Radar Coverage - Range: 200NM centered on position 251611.00N 0513401.00E.

←←←←←←

3 SUPPLEMENTARY SERVICES

3.1 GENERAL3.1.1 Doha Radar operates as the primary air traffic control service within Doha TMA; it provides radar control service tothe maximum extent practicable to meet the operational requirement. Many factors, such as radar coverage, controllerworkload and equipment capabilities may affect the service. Radar controller will determine whether it shall be provided,or continued to provide radar service in any specific way.

3.1.2 The pilot will know when and which radar service is provided, the radar controller uses one of the following ATS callsigns "DOHA RADAR", "DOHA APPROACH" or "DOHA DIRECTOR".

3.2 THE APPLICATION OF RADAR CONTROL SERVICE3.2.1 Radar identification is achieved according to the provisions specified by ICAO.

3.2.2 Radar control service is provided in controlled airspaces to aircraft operating within Doha TMA and on airways withinDoha Radar coverage (delegated by adjacent Area Control Centers as agreed in the Letter of Agreement). These servicesmay include:

a. Radar separation of arriving, departing and en-route traffic;b. Radar monitoring of arriving, departing and en-route traffic to provide information on any significant deviation from

normal flight path;c. Radar vectoring when required;d. Assistance to aircraft in emergency;e. Assistance to aircraft crossing controlled airspace;f. Warnings and position information on other aircraft considered to constitute a hazard;g. Information to assist in the navigation of aircraft;h. Information on observed weather.

3.2.3 The minimum horizontal radar separation for aircraft in supersonic is 20NM, otherwise 10NM reducing to 5NM within80NM of radar head.

3.2.4 The altitude assigned to aircraft by a radar controller provides a minimum terrain clearance during the departure andarrival phase of the flight.

3.3 EMERGENCY PROCEDURES3.3.1 Except when encountering a state of emergency, pilots shall operate transponders and select modes and codes inaccordance with ATC instructions. In particular, when entering Doha TMA, pilots who have already received specificinstructions from an Area Control Center concerning the setting of the transponder shall maintain that code setting untilotherwise instructed.

3.3.2 All aircraft that are about to enter Doha TMA who have not received specific instructions from Doha Radar concerningthe setting of the transponder shall operate the transponder on Mode A / 3 Code A2000 before entry and maintain thatsetting until otherwise instructed.

3.3.3 If an aircraft encountering a state of emergency which was previously been instructed by ATC to operate the transponderon a specific code, this code setting shall be maintained until otherwise advised.


ENR 1.6-1AIP Qatar~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2017-02-26T04-47-31-95330 MAR 2017


3.3.4 In all other circumstances, the transponder shall be set to Mode A / 3 Code 7700. Notwithstanding the procedure in3.3.1, a pilot may select Mode A / 3 Code 7700 whenever the nature of the emergency is such that this appears to be themost suitable course of action

Note: Continuous monitoring of responses on Mode A / 3 Code 7700 is provided.

3.4 RADAR AND RADIO COMMUNICATION FAILURE PROCEDURES

3.4.1 Radar failureIn the event of radar failure or loss of radar identification, instructions will be issued to restore non-radar standard separationand the pilot will be instructed to communicate with the parent ATS unit.

3.4.2 Air-ground communication failure3.4.2.1 The radar controller will establish whether the aircraft radio receiver is working by instructing the pilot to carry outa turn or turns. If the turns are observed, the radar controller will continue to provide radar service to the aircraft.

3.4.2.2 If the aircraft's is completely unserviceable, the pilot should carry out the procedures for radio communication failuresin accordance with 3.4.3. If radar identification has already been established, the radar controller will vector other identifiedaircraft clear of its track until such time as the aircraft leaves Doha Radar area of responsibility or has landed.

3.4.3 Radio communication failure procedure3.4.3.1 General

In the event of an apparent radio communication failure, the pilot of an aircraft should:

1. Maintain Terrain Clearance at all times;2. Squawk 7600;3. Contact appropriate alternate and secondary published ATS frequencies;4. Check aircraft communications equipment;5. Listen to ATIS;6. Broadcast intentions (assuming aircraft transmitter is functioning) and prefix transmission with "TRANSMITTING

BLIND"

3.4.3.2 Visual Meteorological Condition (VMC)

If a pilot of an aircraft is flying in VMC and is certain that VMC can be maintained, the pilot should:

1. Continue to fly in VMC;2. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome;3. Report arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate ATC unit.

3.4.3.3 Instrument Meteorological Condition (IMC)

If the pilot of an aircraft is flying in IMC or is uncertain that a VMC can be maintained, the pilot should:

1. Maintain the last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a period of three (3) minutesfollowing:

a. the last assigned level or minimum flight altitude is reached; orb. the last time the transponder is set to Code 7600;

whichever is later, and thereafter adjust level and speed in accordance with the filed flight plan; or

2. If being vectored, proceed in the most direct manner possible to rejoin the current flight plan route no later than thenext significant point, taking into consideration the applicable minimum flight altitude;

3. When on arrival, follow (1) and (2) as applicable, then:

a. proceed according to the current flight planned route to appropriate designated navigation aid or fix, if necessary,to ensure compliance with (b) below;

b. commence descent from the navigation aid or fix specified in (a) at, or as close as possible to, the expectedapproach time (EAT) last received and acknowledged; or, if no EAT has been received and acknowledged, at,or as close as possible to, the estimated time of arrival (ETA) resulting from the current flight plan;

c. complete a normal instrument approach procedure as specified for the designated navigation aid or fix; andd. land, if possible, within 30 minutes after the ETA specified in (b) or the EAT, whichever is later.


AIP QatarENR 1.6-230 MAR 2017~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2017-02-26T04-47-31-953


Note: In the event of Radio Failure, routing to or established in the hold, the STAR listed below is to be followeddepending on flight planned or last cleared navigation fix and Runway in use at designate, Hamad International orDoha International Airport.1. Landing at Hamad International Airporta. Runway 34R:- BAYAN 1E- AFNAN 1E- GINTO 1Eb. Runway 16L:-BAYAN 1M-AFNAN 1M-GINTO 1M2. Landing at Doha International Airporta, Runway 33-BAYAN 1N-AFNAN 1N-GINTO 1Nb. Runway 15-BAYAN 1S-AFNAN 1S-GINTO 1S

3.5 UNLAWFUL INTERFERENCE PROCEDURESPilots of the aircraft in flight subjected to unlawful interference shall endeavour to set the transponder to Mode A Code 7500to give indication of the situation, unless circumstances warrant the use of A / 3 Code 7700.

Note: Continuous monitoring of responses on Mode A / 3 Code 7500 is provided.

3.6 GRAPHIC PORTRAYAL OF AREA OF COVERAGE OF RADAR/SSRDOHA ASR/SSR 200 NM COVERAGE


ENR 1.6-3AIP Qatar~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2017-02-26T04-47-31-95330 MAR 2017



AIP QatarENR 1.6-430 MAR 2017~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2017-02-26T04-47-31-953


ENR 1.7 ALTIMETER SETTING PROCEDURES

1 INTRODUCTION1.1 The Altimeter setting procedures in use generally conform to those contained in ICAO Doc 8168, Volume 1 Part 6 andare given in full below.

1.2 Transition altitudes are given on the instrument approach charts.

1.3 QNH reports and temperature information for use in determining adequate terrain clearance are provided in METbroadcasts, and are available on request from air traffic services units; QNH values are given in hectopascals(hpa).

2 BASIC ALTIMETER SETTING PROCEDURES

2.1 GENERAL2.1.1 The Transition Altitude is fixed at 13 000 FT AMSL and the Transition Level is fixed at FL 150 within Doha TMA.

2.1.2 Vertical displacement of aircraft at or below the Transition Altitude is expressed in terms of altitude. Vertical displacementof aircraft at or above the Transition Level is expressed in terms of Flight Levels. While an aircraft is passing through theTransition Layer, vertical displacement is expressed as altitude when descending, and as Flight Levels when climbing.

2.1.3 Flight Level Zero is located at the atmospheric pressure level of 1013.2 hPa (29.92"). Consecutive Flight Levels areseparated by a pressure interval corresponding to 500 FT in the Standard Atmosphere below FL 290, and by a pressureinterval corresponding to 1 000 FT above FL 290.

2.1.4 Simultaneous flight at both the Transitional Altitude and the Transition Level is permissible as a minimum of 1 000 FTseparation exists between the two layers; however, level flight within the Transition Layers is not permitted.

2.2 TAKE-OFF AND CLIMB2.2.1 A QNH altimeter setting is made available to aircraft in the routine take-off and climb instructions.

2.2.2 Vertical displacement of aircraft during climb is controlled by reference to altitudes until reaching the Transition Altitude, above which vertical displacement is controlled by reference to Flight Levels.

2.2.3 In this context, the word “controlled” is used in composite sense in that a pilot will wish to fly his aircraft atpredetermined Flight Levels or altitudes, and ATS will wish to advise the pilot of the availability of Flight Levels and altitudes.Both are concerned with the vertical position of aircraft.

2.3 VERTICAL SEPARATION - EN ROUTE2.3.1 Aircraft shall be flown En-route at Flight Levels at all times when above 13 000 FT AMSL.

2.3.2 When complying with the semi-circular system of cruising levels of Annex 2, an aircraft shall be flown at Flight Levelsor Flight Altitudes corresponding to the magnetic track as shown in the following table:

180˚ - 359˚000˚ - 179˚Magnetic TrackVFRIFRVFRIFRFlight Rules2 5002 0001 500Flight Altitudes4 5004 0003 5003 0006 5006 0005 5005 000

Up to 12 500Up to 12 000Up to 11 500Up to 13 000160150Flight Levels180170200190

Up to 240Up to 230

←2.4 APPROACH AND LANDING2.4.1 A QNH altimeter setting is made available in the routine approach and landing instructions.

2.4.2 Vertical displacement of aircraft during approach is controlled by reference to Flight Levelsuntil reaching the TransitionLevel, below which vertical displacement is controlled by reference to altitudes.

←


AIP Qatar ENR 1.7-1~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2014-08-05T08-23-27-03418 SEP 2014


Note: This does not preclude a pilot from using a QFE setting for terrain clearance purposes during the final approach tothe runway.

2.5 MISSED APPROACHThe relevant portions of 2.1 and 2.2 shall be applied to the case of a missed approach.

3 ALTIMETER PRESSURE SETTING WITHIN QATAR AIRSPACE3.1 All aircraft operating within DOHA TMA and below FL 150 are required to use DOHA QNH during climb and descendphase.

3.2 All VFR traffic operating outside controlled airspace within Qatar airspace, should use DOHA QNH.

← 4 PROCEDURES APPLICABLE TO OPERATORS (INCLUDING PILOTS)

4.1 FLIGHT PLANNING4.1.1 The levels at which a flight is to be conducted shall be specified in a flight plan:

a. In terms of Flight Levels if the flight is to be conducted at or above the Transition Level, andb. In terms of altitudes if the flight is to be conducted in the vicinity of an aerodrome and at or below the Transition

Altitude.

Note: 1.— Short flights in the vicinity of an aerodrome may often be conducted only at altitudes below the transition altitude.

Note: 2.— Flight levels are specified in a plan by three digit numbers preceded by letter “F”and not in terms of feet as isthe case with altitude.

5 TABLES OF CRUISING LEVELSThe cruising levels to be observed when so required are as follows:

TRACKFrom 180° - 359°From 000° - 179°

VFR FlightsIFR FlightsVFR FlightsIFR FlightsAltitude

FLAltitude

FLAltitude

FLAltitude

FL FeetMetresFeetMetresFeetMetresFeetMetres---2 000600––––1 000300-

4 5001 3500454 0001 200–3 5001 0500353 000900-6 5002 0000656 0001 850–5 5001 7000555 0001 500-8 5002 6000858 0002 450–7 5002 3000757 0002 150-10 5003 20010510 0003 050–9 5002 9000959 0002 750-12 5003 80012512 0003 650–11 5003 50011511 0003 350-

-----–13 5004 10013513 0003 950-

Doha TMAClass A airspace

160

Doha TMAClass A airspace

150180170200190220210240230

Bahrain UIRClass A airspace

260Bahrain UIRClass A airspace

250280270

Class A airspace RVSM applied(See ENR 1.10.4 of the

AIP Bahrain FIR)

300

Class A airspace RVSM applied(See ENR 1.10.4 of the

AIP Bahrain FIR)

290320310340330360350380370400390

410

Bahrain UIRClass A airspace

430Bahrain UIR

Class A airspace

450470490etc.etc.


ENR 1.7-2 AIP Qatar18 SEP 2014~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2014-08-05T08-23-27-034


http://www.bahrainaims.com/aip_button.html




ENR 1.8 REGIONAL SUPPLEMENTARY PROCEDURES (DOC 7030)1 Regional supplementary procedures covering the State of Qatar can be found in the MID/ASIA section of the RegionalSupplementary Procedures (ICAO Doc 7030).

2 There are no additional differences.




ENR 1.9 AIR TRAFFIC FLOW MANAGEMENT AND AIRSPACE MANAGEMENTNIL (not applicable).




ENR 1.10 FLIGHT PLANNING (RESTRICTION, LIMITATION OR ADVISORYINFORMATION)

1 PROCEDURES FOR THE SUBMISSION OF A FLIGHT PLAN

1.1 GENERALFor flights within the Doha TMA, a flight plan shall be submitted as per the requirements specified in ICAO Annex 2 - Rulesof the Air, paragraph 3.3. The format and content of the FPL shall be as per amendment 1 of the PANS - ATM Doc 4444.

1.2 TIME OF SUBMISSIONA flight plan may be submitted up to 120 HR but shall not be less than 60 MIN prior to the EOBT, taking into account therequirements of ATS units in the airspace along the route to be flown for timely information, including requirements for earlysubmission for ATFM purposes.

1.3 SUBMISSION OF FLIGHT PLAN1.3.1 Flight plans shall be submitted via AFTN to "OTHHZJZX";

1.3.2 In the absence of AFS, thru fax at (974) 4462 1052 / (974) 4470 5075. An acknowledgement of receipt must beobtained via tel (974) 4470 5080 / (974) 4470 5081

1.4 ADDITIONAL FLIGHT PLANNING REQUIREMENTS1.4.1 For traffic departing from aerodromes within the Doha TMA or overflying the Bahrain FIR/UIR, the FPL shall includethe entry and exit points of the Bahrain FIR/UIR.

1.4.2 The following additional flight planning requirements apply for airports with published SID and STAR procedures:

a. Departing aircraft - Item 15 of the flight plan form shall commence with the last waypoint of the SID related to theATS route (e.g. PATOM B457…) and then as per Doc 4444 standard requirements.

b. Arriving aircraft – Item 15 of the flight plan form shall terminate with the corresponding waypoint of the last ATS routewhere the STAR commences (e.g. ...UN318 VELAM Z225 BAYAN).

← Note: Do not include NAVAIDs ID, any ATS route designator or SID/STAR designator (it is runway dependent, ATC willadvise the corresponding SID or STAR)1- Prior to the waypoint PATOM, ALVEN, ALSEM, NAMLA, BUNDU, BATHA or SALWA (for departure flights).2- After the waypoint BAYAN, AFNAN, GINTO (for arrival flights).For guidance refer to the required routing below.

1.4.3 Required routing within Doha TMA:

Destination / Transiting adjacent FIR(flights with onward destination).

SID Terminating waypoint / DOHA TMAexit point & its related ATS route*Departure Airport

OBBI/OBBS/OBKHPATOM-B457-DENVO…OTBD/ OTHH

DCT-DOH-R/UR659-EMISA-B/UB457-DENVO...OTBH

OMDB,OMDW,OMSJ,OMFJ and OMRKALSEM-L/UL305-ASTOG…OTBD/ OTHHDCT-DOH-L/UL305-ASTOG...OTBH

OMAA ,OMAD,OMAL and OMAMNAMLA-N/UN300...OTBD/ OTHHDCT-DOH-N/UN300-NAMLA...OTBH

EMIRATES FIR

BUNDU-B/UB415…or

NAMLA-N/UN300...OTBD/OTHH

DCT-DOH-B/UB415-BUNDU... orDCT-DOH-N/UN300-NAMLA...OTBH

OEDF and OEDRPATOM B/UB457 DENVO…OTBD/ OTHH JEDDAH FIROEDF and OEDRDCT-DOH-R/UR659-EMISA-

B/UB457-DENVO...OTBH JEDDAH FIROEMA , OERK and OEJNSALWA-M/UM430…

orBATHA-L/UL564…

OTBD/OTHH JEDDAH FIR


ENR 1.10-1AIP Qatar~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2015-12-06T09-54-21-02207 JAN 2016


Destination / Transiting adjacent FIR(flights with onward destination).

SID Terminating waypoint / DOHA TMAexit point & its related ATS route*Departure Airport

OEMA , OERK and OEJNDCT-DOH-M/UM430-ULIKA...or

DCT-DOH-L/UL564-DENSI...OTBH JEDDAH FIR

OKBK and OKASPATOM B/UB457 DENVO…or

PATOM M/UM444 DENVO…OTBD / OTHH KUWAIT FIR

OKBK and OKASDCT-DOH-P/UP430-ALVEN…OTBH KUWAIT FIRTEHRAN FIRALVEN T/UT430…OTBD/ OTHH TEHRAN FIR (for traffic to LTAA FIR)PATOM - B/UB457 – DENVO…

*For continuation of ATS Routes, route requirements and level restrictions refer to the corresponding AIP of theabove-mentioned FIRs.

1.4.4 All flights departing OTBD/OTHH/OTBH shall indicate an "ALTN AERODROME" in Item 16 of the flight plan inaccordance with the requirements of ICAO Doc 4444 - ATM/501.

1.4.5 For Air Ambulance flight for the purpose of Medical Evacuation (MEDEVAC) operating into the State of Qatar, it isrequired to include "STS/MEDEVAC" under Item 18 of the flight plan.

1.4.6 All civil non-scheduled, private, technical landings, state aircraft and military flights landing or overflying territorial landand water, of State of Qatar are required to include the State of Qatar clearance number under RMK/ in Item 18 of the FPL.

← 1.4.7 All IFR/VFR flight plan filed in accordance with paragraph 1.3, shall complete Item 19 in full or an alternative arrangementbe made, as the information is a requirement for the provision of alerting service.

1.5 ADHERENCE TO ATS ROUTE STRUCTURENo flight plans shall be filed for routes deviating from the published ATS route structure, unless prior permission has beenobtained from DOHA APP.

1.6 AUTHORIZATION FOR SPECIAL FLIGHTSFlights of a specific nature may be exempted from the restriction specified above, provided that the operator shall complywith the corresponding requirements specified in GEN 1.2

2 REPETITIVE FLIGHT PLAN SYSTEMRPL System not in use in the State of Qatar.


AIP QatarENR 1.10-207 DEC 2017~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2017-10-30T09-36-42-521


ENR 1.11 ADDRESSING OF FLIGHT PLAN MESSAGES← Flight movement messages relating to traffic into/from DOHA TMA, overflying within Qatar Airspace or North of Qatar

(Between Bahrain FIR/UIR and Emirates/Tehran FIR).

Note: Flight movement messages in this context comprise flight plan messages, amendment messages relating theretoand flight plan cancellation messages (PANS-ATM refers)..

Message addressRoute / RoutingCategory of flight(IFR, VFR or both)

Include OTBDYWYX

Over flying via North of QatarL602 / UL602,L768 / UL768,M600 / UM600,M677 / UM677,P559 / UP559,P699 / UP699,T308 / UT308,UT557,UT677,T872 / UT872

IFR / VFR flights

Include OTBDZRZX andOTBDYWYX

Over flying within Qatar Airspace (bounded laterally by the DohaTMA and vertically from GND to Unlimited) via the followingrouting:

• TOSNA-M/UM430-SALWA• BUNDU-B/UB415-DOH-M/UM430-SALWA• MEKMA-P/UP899-KUPSA-B/UB415-DOH-M/UM430-SALWA• SALWA-M/UM430-DOH-L/UL305-ASTOG• SALWA-M/UM430-DOH-B/UB415-BUNDU• SALWA-M/UM430-DOH-N/UN300-NAMLA• TOTIS-N/UN318-OVONA• TOTIS-UT975-OVONA• DENVO-L/UL604-TOSNA• DENVO-N/UN685-TOSNA

←

Include OTBDZRZX andOTBDYWYX

Inbound:Doha International Airport (OTBD)Hamad International Airport (OTHH)Al-Udaid Airbase (OTBH)

IFR / VFR flights

Shall be addressed to OTHHZJZXfor refiling purposes.

Outbound:Doha International Airport (OTBD)Hamad International Airport (OTHH)Al-Udaid Airbase (OTBH)

←


ENR 1.11-1AIP Qatar~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2015-05-17T05-02-22-25625 JUN 2015


ENR 1.12 INTERCEPTION OF CIVIL AIRCRAFT

← 1 GENERAL1.1 All unidentified aircraft within the airspace over territory and territorial waters of the State of Qatar may be interceptedby air defence fighters.

1.2 In order to reduce the possibility of interception, aircraft can assist the process of identification by:

a. Maintaining listening watch on the appropriate ATC frequency and 121.500 MHzb. In the case of transponder equipped aircraft complying with the transponder operating procedures specified in ICAO

Doc 8168 - OPS Vol 1, Part III, Chapter 1 (i.e. in the absence of any ATC directions, operate the transponder onMode A Code 2000)

←←

2 ACTION TO BE TAKEN BY INTERCEPTED AIRCRAFT2.1 In the event of interception of an aircraft, the aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately:

a. Follow the instructions given by the intercepting aircraft, interpreting and responding to visual signals in accordancewith ENR1.12.4;

b. Notify, if possible, the appropriate air traffic services unit;c. Attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft or with the appropriate intercept control unit,

by making a general call on the emergency frequency 121.5 MHz, giving the identity of the intercepted aircraft andthe nature of the flight; and if no contact has been established and if practicable, repeating this call on the emergencyfrequency 243.0 MHz;

d. If equipped with SSR transponder, select Mode A, Code 7700, unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate airtraffic services unit;

2.2 If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by visualsignals, the intercepted aircraft shall request immediate clarification while continuing to comply with the visual instructionsgiven by the intercepting aircraft.

2.3 If any instructions received by radio from any sources conflict with those given by the intercepting aircraft by radio, theintercepted aircraft shall request immediate clarification while continuing to comply with the radio instructions given by theintercepting aircraft.

3 RADIO COMMUNICATION DURING INTERCEPTION3.1 If radio contact is established during interception but communication in a common language is not possible, attemptsshall be made to convey instructions, acknowledgement of instructions and essential information by using the phrases andpronunciations in Table below and transmitting each phrase twice:

Phrases for use by INTERCEPTED aircraftPhrases for use by INTERCEPTING aircraftMeaningPronunciation 1PhraseMeaningPronunciation 1Phrase

My call sign is (call sign)KOL SA – IN (callsign)

CALL SIGN(call sign) 2

What is your call sign?KOL SA - INCALL SIGN

Understood.Will comply.VILL - KOWILCO Willcomply

Follow meFOL-LOFOLLOW

Unable to complyKANN - NOTTCAN NOTDescend for landingDEE - SENDDESCENDRepeat your instructionREE - PEETREPEATLand at this aerodromeYOU LAANDYOU LANDPosition unknownAM - LOSSTAM LOSTYou may proceedPRO - SEEDPROCEEDI am in distressMAYDAYMAYDAYI have been hijackedHI - JACKHIJACK 3

I request to land at(place name)

LAAND (placename)

LAND (placename)

I require descentDEE - SENDDESCEND1 Syllables to be emphasized are printed in bold letters.2 The call sign required to be given is that used in radio telephony communications with air traffic services units andcorresponding to the aircraft’s identification in the flight plan.3 Circumstances may not always permit, nor make desirable, the use of the phrase "HIJACK"


ENR 1.12-1AIP Qatar~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2015-10-26T10-45-33-91910 DEC 2015


4 SIGNALS FOR USE IN THE EVENT OF INTERCEPTION4.1 Signals initiated by intercepting aircraft and responses by intercepted aircraft

MeaningINTERCEPTED Aircraft RespondsMeaningINTERCEPTING Aircraft SignalsSeriesUnderstood,will comply.

DAY or NIGHT - Rocking aircraft, flashingnavigational lights at irregular intervals andfollowing.

Note: - Additional action required to betaken by intercepted aircraft is prescribedon ENR 1.12.2.1

You havebeenintercepted.Follow me.

DAY or NIGHT - Rocking aircraft andflashing navigational lights at irregularintervals (and landing lights in the case ofa helicopter) from a position slightly aboveand ahead of, and normally to the left of,the intercepted aircraft (or to the right if theintercepted aircraft is a helicopter) and,after acknowledgement, a slow level turn,normally to the left, (or to the right in caseof a helicopter) on the desired heading.

Note 1. - Meteorological conditions orterrain may require the intercepting aircraftto reverse the positions and direction ofturn given above in Series 1.

Note 2. - If the intercepted aircraft is notable to keep pace with the interceptingaircraft, the latter is expected to fly a seriesof race-track patterns and to rock theaircraft each time it passes the interceptedaircraft.

1

Understood,will comply.

DAY or NIGHT - Rocking the aircraft.You mayproceed.

DAY or NIGHT - An abrupt breakawaymanoeuvre from the intercepted aircraftconsisting of a climbing turn of 90 degreesor more without crossing the line of theflight of the intercepted aircraft.

2

Understood,will comply

DAY or NIGHT – Lowering landing gear (iffitted), showing steady landing lights andfollowing the intercepting aircraft and, if,after over flying the runway in use orhelicopter landing area, landing isconsidered safe, proceeding to land.

Land at thisaerodrome

DAY or NIGHT – Lowering landing gear (iffitted), showing steady landing lights andover flying runway in use or, if theintercepted aircraft is a helicopter, overflying the helicopter landing area. In thecase of helicopters, the interceptinghelicopter makes a landing approach,coming to hover near to the landing area

3←

4.2 Signals initiated by intercepted aircraft and responses by intercepting aircraft

MeaningINTERCEPTING Aircraft RespondsMeaningINTERCEPTED Aircraft SignalsSeriesUnderstood,follow me.Understood,you mayproceed.

DAY or NIGHT - If it is desired that theintercepted aircraft follow the interceptingaircraft to an alternate aerodrome, theintercepting aircraft raises its landing gear(if fitted) and uses the Series 1 signalsprescribed for intercepting aircraft.If it is decided to release the interceptedaircraft, the intercepting aircraft uses theSeries 2 signals prescribed for interceptingaircraft.

Aerodromeyou havedesignated isinadequate.

DAY or NIGHT - Raising landing gear (iffitted) and flashing landing lights whilepassing over runway in use or helicopterlanding area at a height exceeding 300 m(1000 ft) but not exceeding 600 m (2000 ft)in the case of a helicopter, at a heightexceeding 50 m (170 ft) but not exceeding100 m (330 ft) above the aerodrome level,and continuing to circle the runway in useor helicopter landing area. If unable to flashlanding lights, flash any other lightsavailable.

4

Understood.DAY or NIGHT - Use Series 2 signalsprescribed for intercepting aircraft.

Cannotcomply.

DAY or NIGHT - Regular switching on andoff of all available lights but in such amanner as to be distinct from flashinglights.

5

Understood.DAY or NIGHT - Use Series 2 signalsprescribed for intercepting aircraft.

In distressDAY or NIGHT - Irregular flashing of allavailable lights.

6


AIP QatarENR 1.12-207 JAN 2016~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2015-12-06T09-54-21-022


ENR 1.13 UNLAWFUL INTERFERENCE

1 GENERALThe following procedures are intended for use by aircraft when unlawful interference occurs and the aircraft is unable tonotify an ATS unit of this fact.

2 PROCEDURES2.1 The pilot of an aircraft in flight which is subjected to unlawful interference shall endeavour to set his transponder toCode 7500.

2.2 When a pilot has selected Mode A and Code 7500 and is subsequently requested to confirm his code by ATC, the pilotshall either confirm this or not reply at all. The absence of a reply from the pilot will be taken by ATC as an indication thatthe use of Code 7500 is not due to an inadvertent false code selection.

2.3 If an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall attempt to land as soon as practicable atthe nearest suitable aerodrome or at a dedicated aerodrome assigned by the appropriate authority unless considerationaboard the aircraft dictate otherwise.




ENR 1.14 AIR TRAFFIC INCIDENTS

1 INTRODUCTION← 1.1 The State of Qatar has establishedOCCURRENCEREPORTING scheme for the purpose of reporting an "AIR TRAFFIC

INCIDENT".

←←

2 USE OF THE OCCURRENCE REPORT FORMS AND REPORTING PROCEDURES.2.1 The Occurrence Report Form is intended for use:

a. by a pilot for filing a report on an air traffic incident after arrival or for confirming a report made initially by radio duringflight.Note.— The form, if available on board, may also be of use in providing a pattern for making the initial report in flight.

b. by an ATS unit for recording an air traffic incident report received by radio, telephone.

3 REPORTING PROCEDURES (INCLUDING IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES)3.1 The following are the procedures to be followed by a pilot who is or has been involved in an incident:

a. during flight, use the appropriate air/ground frequency for reporting an incident of major significance, particularly if itinvolves other aircraft, so as to permit the facts to be ascertained immediately;

b. as promptly as possible after landing, submit a completed form;

1. for confirming a report of an incident made initially as in a) above, or for making the initial report on such anincident if it had not been possible to report it by radio;

2. for reporting an incident which did not require immediate notification at the time of occurrence.

3.2 An initial report made by radio should contain the following information:

a. Aircraft callsign/registration;b. Categories of occurrence , e.g. aircraft proximity (AIRPROX);c. Occurrence details

1. Position/Location;2. Altitude;3. Date (dd/mm/yyyy);4. Time-UTC (HH:MM);5. ICAO 4-letter location Indicator of aerodrome (From -To);6. IAS (KT) & QNH;

3.3 The confirmatory report on an incident of major significance initially reported by radio or the initial report on any otherincident should be submitted to:

Post: Safety Analyses and Investigation OfficeAir Safety DepartmentQatar Civil Aviation AuthorityDoha, QatarP.O. Box 3000

Email: [email protected]

3.4 The report can also be submitted to the designated ATS reporting office of the aerodrome of first landing for submissionto the appropriate authority. The pilot/ATC should complete the Occurrence Report Form (see ENR 1.14.5 ATCOccurrenceReport Form), supplementing the details of the initial reports as necessary.

Note. — Where there is no ATS Reporting Office, the report may be submitted to another ATS unit.

4 PURPOSE OF REPORTING AND HANDLING OF THE FORM4.1 The purpose of the reporting of aircraft proximity incidents and their investigation is to promote the safety of aircraft.The degree of risk involved in an aircraft proximity incident should be determined in the incident investigation and classifiedas “risk of collision”, “safety not assured, “no risk of collision” or “risk not determined”.


ENR 1.14-1AIP Qatar~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2017-03-19T04-01-15-27927 APR 2017



4.2 The purpose of the form is to provide investigatory authorities with as complete information on an air traffic incident aspossible and to enable them to report back, with the least possible delay to the pilot or operator concerned, the result ofthe investigation of the incident and, if appropriate, the remedial action taken.

5 ATC OCCURRENCE REPORT FORM


AIP QatarENR 1.14-227 APR 2017~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2017-03-19T04-01-15-279


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ENR 1.14-3AIP Qatar~~~eaip-amdt~~~ver-date-2017-03-19T04-01-15-27927 APR 2017



No. 016 of 2016

Air Operations Annex I: Definitions


Table of Contents

ANNEX I Definitions for terms used in Annexes II to XI ......................................................................................... 1

Qatar Civil Aviation Regulations Air Operations Annex I: Definitions (Revision 1) No. 016 of 2016

Air Operations Annex I: Definitions (Revision 1) aLCAL(A) Ref Bk - PVT / 1 MAY 2018 / Page 350 of 448

ANNEX I Definitions for terms used in Annexes II to XI

For the purpose of this Regulation, the following definitions shall apply:

(1) ‘accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA)’ means the length of the take-off run available plus the length ofstopway, if such stopway is declared available by the State of the aerodrome and is capable of bearing the massof the aeroplane under the prevailing operating conditions;

(2) ‘acceptable means of compliance (AMC)’ means standards adopted by the QCAA to illustrate means bywhich compliance with the Civil Aviation Law and Regulations are established;

(3) ‘acceptance checklist’ means a document used to assist in carrying out a check on the external appearanceof packages of dangerous goods and their associated documents to determine that all appropriate requirementshave been met;

(3a) 'acts of unlawful interference' means acts or attempted acts such as to jeopardise the safety of civil aviationand air transport, i.e.:unlawful seizure of aircraft in flight,unlawful seizure of aircraft on the ground, hostage-takingon board an aircraft or on aerodromes, forcible intrusion on board an aircraft, at an airport or on the premisesof an aeronautical facility, introduction on board an aircraft or at an airport of a weapon or hazardous deviceor material intended for criminal purposes, communication of false information as to jeopardise the safety of anaircraft in flight or on the ground, of passengers, crew, ground personnel or the general public, at an airport or onthe premises of a civil aviation facility.

(4) ‘adequate aerodrome’ means an aerodrome on which the aircraft can be operated, taking account of theapplicable performance requirements and runway characteristics;

(4a) 'area navigation (RNAV)' A method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight pathwithin the coverage of ground- or space-based navigation aids or within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these.

(4b) 'aerodrome' means a defined area on land or water (including any buildings, installations and equipment)intended to be used wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement of aircraft.

(4c) ‘aerodrome operating minima’ means the limits of usability of an aerodrome for:

(a) take-off operations, expressed in terms of visibility and/or runway visual range (RVR) and, if necessary,cloud conditions;

(b) two-dimensional (2D) instrument approach operations or circling approach operations, expressed interms of visibility and/or RVR, minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H) and, if necessary, cloud conditions;and

(c) three-dimensional (3D) instrument approach operations, expressed in terms of visibility and/or RVR anddecision altitude/height (DA/H);

(5) For the purpose of passenger classification:

(a) ‘adult’ means a person of an age of 12 years and above;

(b) ‘child/children’ means persons who are of an age of two years and above but who are less than 12 yearsof age;

(c) ‘infant’ means a person under the age of two years;

(6) ‘aeroplane’ means an engine-driven fixed-wing aircraft heavier than air that is supported in flight by thedynamic reaction of the air against its wings;

(7) ‘aided night vision imaging system (NVIS) flight’ means, in the case of NVIS operations, that portion of a visualflight rules (VFR) flight performed at night when a crew member is using night vision goggles (NVG);

(8) ‘aircraft’ means a machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other thanthe reactions of the air against the earth’s surface;


Air Operations Annex I: Definitions (Revision 1) Page 1 of 13LCAL(A) Ref Bk - PVT / 1 MAY 2018 / Page 351 of 448

(8a) ‘aircraft tracking’ means a ground based process that maintains and updates, at standardised intervals, arecord of the four dimensional position of individual aircraft in flight;

(8b) ‘aircraft tracking system’ means a system that relies on aircraft tracking in order to identify abnormal flightbehaviour and provide alert;

(8c) 'air operator certificate' (AOC) means a certificate authorising an operator to carry out specified commercialair transport operations.

(8d) 'air traffic service" (ATS) meaning variously, flight information service, alerting service, air traffic advisoryservice, air traffic control service (area control service, approach control service or aerodrome control service).

(8e) 'aircraft operating manual' means a manual, acceptable to the State of the Operator, containing normal,abnormal and emergency procedures, checklists, limitations, performance information, details of the aircraftsystems and other material relevant to the operation of the aircraft.

(8f) 'airworthy' means the status of an aircraft, engine, propellor or part when it conforms to its approved designand is in a condition for safe operation.

(8g) 'alternate aerodrome' means an aerodrome to which an aircraft may proceed when it becomes eitherimpossible or inadvisable to proceed to or land at the aerodrome of intended landing where the necessaryservices and facilities are available, where aircraft performance requirements can be met and which is operationalat the expected time of use.

(9) ‘alternative means of compliance’ means those means that propose an alternative to an existing acceptablemeans of compliance or proposed new means to establish compliance with the Civil Aviation Law andRegulations for which no associated AMC have been adopted by the QCAA;

(9a) 'Altimetry system error (ASE)' means the difference between the altitude indicated by the altimeter display,assuming a correct altimeter barometric setting, and the pressure altitude corresponding to the undisturbedambient pressure.

(10) ‘anti-icing’, in the case of ground procedures, means a procedure that provides protection against theformation of frost or ice and accumulation of snow on treated surfaces of the aircraft for a limited period of time(hold-over time);

(10a) 'applicable operational suitability data' means operational suitability data issued in accordance with theapplicable airworthiness regulation. Where operational suitability data is not required by the Qatari airworthinessregulation then 'applicable operational suitability data' means data for the aircraft type issued in accordance withEuropean Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, as amended. Where no such data exists then OperationalEvaluation Board Reports and master minimum equipment lists issued in accordance with JAA procedures or byEASA shall be deemed to constitute the applicable operational suitability data.

(10b) 'approach and landing phase - helicopters' means that part of the flight from 300 m (1 000 ft) above theelevation of the FATO, if the flight is planned to exceed this height, or from the commencement of the descent inthe other cases, to landing or to the balked landing point.

(11) ‘approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV) operation’ means an instrument approach which utiliseslateral and vertical guidance, but does not meet the requirements established for precision approach and landingoperations, with a decision height (DH) not lower than 250 ft and a runway visual range (RVR) of not less than600 m;

(11a) ‘balloon empty mass’ means the mass determined by weighing the balloon with all the installed equipmenta specified in the AFM;

(12) ‘cabin crew member’ means an appropriately qualified crew member, other than a flight crew or technicalcrew member, who is assigned by an operator or the pilot-in-command of the aircraft to perform duties related tothe safety of passengers and flight during operations;

(12a) CARS means Cockpit Audio Recording System, it is a lightweight flight recording system installed in theaircraft for the purpose of recording the voice communication transmitted from or received in the aeroplane byradio and also the aural environment on the flight deck during flight time for the purpose of accident/ incidentprevention and investigation.



(13) ‘category I (CAT I) approach operation’ means a precision instrument approach and landing using aninstrument landing system (ILS), microwave landing system (MLS), GLS (ground-based augmented globalnavigation satellite system (GNSS/GBAS) landing system), precision approach radar (PAR) or GNSS using asatellite-based augmentation system (SBAS) with a decision height (DH) not lower than 200 ft and with a runwayvisual range (RVR) not less than 550 m for aeroplanes and 500 m for helicopters;

(14) ‘category II (CAT II) operation’ means a precision instrument approach and landing operation using ILS orMLS with:

(a) DH below 200 ft but not lower than 100 ft; and

(b) RVR of not less than 300 m;

(15) ‘category IIIA (CAT IIIA) operation’ means a precision instrument approach and landing operation using ILSor MLS with:

(a) DH lower than 100 ft; and

(b) RVR not less than 200 m;

(16) ‘category IIIB (CAT IIIB) operation’ means a precision instrument approach and landing operation using ILSor MLS with:

(a) DH lower than 100 ft, or no DH; and

(b) RVR lower than 200 m but not less than 75 m;

(17) ‘category A with respect to helicopters’ means a multi-engined helicopter designed with engine and systemisolation features specified in the applicable airworthiness codes and capable of operations using take-off andlanding data scheduled under a critical engine failure concept that assures adequate designated surface areaand adequate performance capability for continued safe flight or safe rejected take-off in the event of enginefailure;

(18) ‘category B with respect to helicopters’ means a single-engined or multi-engined helicopter that does notmeet category A standards. Category B helicopters have no guaranteed capability to continue safe flight in theevent of an engine failure, and unscheduled landing is assumed;

(19) "Certification Specifications” (CS) means technical standards adopted by the QCAA indicating means toshow compliance with the Civil Aviation Law and Regulations and which can be used by an organisation forthe purpose of certification. If no such applicable standards have been adopted by the QCAA then CertificationStandards adopted by the European Aviation Safety Agency;

(20) ‘circling’ means the visual phase of an instrument approach to bring an aircraft into position for landing on arunway/FATO that is not suitably located for a straight-in approach;

(21) ‘clearway’ means a defined rectangular area on the ground or water under the control of the appropriateauthority, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climbto a specified height;

(22) ‘cloud base’ means the height of the base of the lowest observed or forecast cloud element in the vicinityof an aerodrome or operating site or within a specified area of operations, normally measured above aerodromeelevation or, in the case of offshore operations, above mean sea level;

(23) ‘code share’ means an arrangement under which an operator places its designator code on a flight operatedby another operator, and sells and issues tickets for that flight;

(23a) 'COMAT' means operator material carried on an operator's aircraft for the operator's own purposes.

(23b) complex motor-powered aircraft’ shall mean:

(a) an aeroplane:

(i) with a maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 5 700 kg, or

(ii) certificated for a maximum passenger seating configuration of more than nineteen, or



(iii) certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots, or

(v) equipped with (a) turbojet engine(s) or more than one turboprop engine,or

(b) a helicopter certificated:

(i) for a maximum take-off mass exceeding 3 175 kg, or

(ii) for a maximum passenger seating configuration of more than nine, or

(iii) for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots, or

(c) a tilt rotor aircraft;

(23c) 'combined vision system (CVS)' means a system to display images from a combination of an enhancedvision system (EVS) and a synthetic visions system (SVS).

(23d) 'configuration deviation list (CDL)' means a list established by the organisation responsible for the typedesign with the approval of the State of Design which identifies any external parts of an aircraft type which maybe missing at the commencement of a flight, and which contains, where necessary, any information onassociated operating limitations and performance correction.

(24) ‘congested area’ means in relation to a city, town or settlement, any area which is substantially used forresidential, commercial or recreational purposes;

(25) ‘contaminated runway’ means a runway of which more than 25 % of the runway surface area within therequired length and width being used is covered by the following:

(a) surface water more than 3 mm (0,125 in) deep, or by slush, or loose snow, equivalent to more than 3mm (0,125 in) of water;

(b) snow which has been compressed into a solid mass which resists further compression and will holdtogether or break into lumps if picked up (compacted snow); or

(c) ice, including wet ice;

(26) ‘contingency fuel’ means the fuel required to compensate for unforeseen factors that could have an influenceon the fuel consumption to the destination aerodrome;

(26a) 'continuing airworthiness' means the set of processes by which an aircraft, engine, propellor or partcomplies with the applicable airworthiness requirements and remains in a condition for safe operation throughoutits operating life.

(27) ‘continuous descent final approach (CDFA)’ means a technique, consistent with stabilised approachprocedures, for flying the final-approach segment of a non-precision instrument approach procedure as acontinuous descent, without level-off, from an altitude/height at or above the final approach fix altitude/height to apoint approximately 15 m (50 ft) above the landing runway threshold or the point where the flare manoeuvre shallbegin for the type of aircraft flown;

(28) ‘converted meteorological visibility (CMV)’ means a value, equivalent to an RVR, which is derived from thereported meteorological visibility;

(29) ‘crew member’ means a person assigned by an operator to duty on an aircraft during a flight duty period.

(29a) 'cruise relief pilot' means a flight crew member who is assigned to perform pilot tasks during cruise flight, toallow the pilot-in-command or a co-pilot to obtain planned rest.

(30) ‘critical phases of flight’ in the case of aeroplanes means the take-off run, the take-off flight path, thefinal approach, the missed approach, the landing, including the landing roll, and any other phases of flight asdetermined by the pilot-in-command or commander;

(31) ‘critical phases of flight’ in the case of helicopters means taxiing, hovering, take-off, final approach, missedapproach, the landing and any other phases of flight as determined by the pilot-in-command or commander;

(31a) 'cruising level' means a level maintained during a significant portion of a flight.



(31b) 'damp lease' means lease wet-lease for which the lessee provides cabin crew but the lessor is responsiblefor compliance with all provisions relating to the cabin crew including their competence.

(32) ‘damp runway’ means a runway where the surface is not dry, but when the moisture on it does not give it ashiny appearance;

(33) ‘dangerous goods’ means articles or substances which are capable of posing a risk to health, safety, propertyor the environment and which are shown in the list of dangerous goods in the technical instructions or which areclassified according to those instructions;

(34) ‘dangerous goods accident’ means an occurrence associated with and related to the transport of dangerousgoods by air which results in fatal or serious injury to a person or, major property or environmental damage;

(35) ‘dangerous goods incident’ means:

(a) an occurrence other than a dangerous goods accident associated with and related to the transport ofdangerous goods by air, not necessarily occurring on board an aircraft, which results in injury to a person,property or environmental damage, fire, breakage, spillage, leakage of fluid or radiation or other evidencethat the integrity of the packaging has not been maintained;

(b) any occurrence relating to the transport of dangerous goods which seriously jeopardises an aircraft or itsoccupants;

(35a) 'decision altitude (DA) or decision height (DH)' means a specified altitude or height in a 3D instrumentapproach operation at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue theapproach has not been established.

Note 1.— Decision altitude (DA) is referenced to mean sea level and decision height (DH) is referenced tothe threshold elevation.

Note 2.— The required visual reference means that section of the visual aids or of the approach area whichshould have been in view for sufficient time for the pilot to have made an assessment of the aircraft positionand rate of change of position, in relation to the desired flight path. In Category III operations with a decisionheight the required visual reference is that specified for the particular procedure and operation.

Note 3.— For convenience where both expressions are used they may be written in the form “decisionaltitude/height” and abbreviated “DA/H”.

(36) ‘de-icing’, in the case of ground procedures, means a procedure by which frost, ice, snow or slush is removedfrom an aircraft in order to provide uncontaminated surfaces;

(37) ‘defined point after take-off (DPATO)’ means the point, within the take-off and initial climb phase, beforewhich the helicopter’s ability to continue the flight safely, with the critical engine inoperative, is not assured and aforced landing may be required;

(38) ‘defined point before landing (DPBL)’ means the point within the approach and landing phase, after whichthe helicopter’s ability to continue the flight safely, with the critical engine inoperative, is not assured and a forcedlanding may be required;

(39) ‘distance DR’ means the horizontal distance that the helicopter has travelled from the end of the take-offdistance available;

(40) ‘dry lease agreement’ means an agreement between undertakings pursuant to which the aircraft is operatedunder the air operator certificate (AOC) of the lessee or, in the case of commercial operations other than CAT,under the responsibility of the lessee;

(41) ‘dry operating mass’ means the total mass of the aircraft ready for a specific type of operation, excludingusable fuel and traffic load;

(42) ‘dry runway’ means a runway which is neither wet nor contaminated within the required length and thewidth being used, and includes those paved runways which have been specially prepared with grooves or porouspavement and maintained to retain ‘effectively dry’ braking action even when moisture is present;

(42a) 'EASA' means the European Aviation Safety Agency;



(43) ‘ELA1 aircraft’ means the following manned European Light Aircraft:

(a) an aeroplane with a Maximum Take-off Mass (MTOM) of 1 200 kg or less that is not classified as complexmotor-powered aircraft;

(b) a sailplane or powered sailplane of 1 200 kg MTOM or less;

(c) a balloon with a maximum design lifting gas or hot air volume of not more than 3 400 m3 for hot airballoons, 1 050 m3 for gas balloons, 300 m3 for tethered gas balloons;

(44) ‘ELA2 aircraft’ means the following manned European Light Aircraft:

(a) an aeroplane with a Maximum Take-off Mass (MTOM) of 2 000 kg or less that is not classified as complexmotor-powered aircraft;

(b) a sailplane or powered sailplane of 2 000 kg MTOM or less;

(c) a balloon;

(d) a Very Light Rotorcraft with a MTOM not exceeding 600 kg which is of a simple design, designed tocarry not more than two occupants, not powered by turbine and/or rocket engines; restricted to VFR dayoperations;

(44a) 'electronic flight bag (EFB)' means an electronic information system, comprised of equipment andapplications for flight crew, which allows for the storing, updating, displaying and processing of EFB functions tosupport flight operations or duties;

(45) ‘elevated final approach and take-off area (elevated FATO)’ means a FATO that is at least 3 m above thesurrounding surface;

(45a) 'elevated heliport' means a heliport located on a raised structure on land

(45b) 'engine' means a unit used or intended to be used for aircraft propulsion. It consists of at least thosecomponents and equipment necessary for functioning and control, but excludes the propellor/rotors (ifapplicable);

(46) ‘en-route alternate (ERA) aerodrome’ means an adequate aerodrome along the route, which may berequired at the planning stage;

(47) ‘enhanced vision system (EVS)’ means a system to display electronic real-time images of the external sceneachieved through the use of imaging sensors;

(47a) 'Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)' means a generic term describing equipment which broadcastdistinctive signals on designated frequencies and, depending on application, may be automatically activated byimpact or be manually activated. An ELT may be any of the following:

Automatic fixed ELT (ELT(AF)). An automatically activated ELT which is permanently attached to an aircraft.

Automatic portable ELT (ELT(AP)). An automatically activated ELT which is rigidly attached to an aircraft butreadily removable from the aircraft.

Automatic deployable ELT (ELT(AD)). An ELT which is rigidly attached to an aircraft and which isautomatically deployed and activated by impact, and, in some cases, also by hydrostatic sensors. Manualdeployment is also provided.

Survival ELT (ELT(S)). An ELT which is removable from an aircraft, stowed so as to facilitate its ready usein an emergency, and manually activated by survivors.

(47b) 'Fatigue' means a physiological state of reduced mental or physical performance capability resulting fromsleep loss, extended wakefulness, circadian phase, and/or workload (mental and/or physical activity) that canimpair a person’s alertness and ability to perform safety-related operational duties.

(48) ‘final approach and take-off area (FATO)’ means a defined area for helicopter operations, over which thefinal phase of the approach manoeuvre to hover or land is completed, and from which the take-off manoeuvre iscommenced. In the case of helicopters operating in performance class 1, the defined area includes the rejectedtake-off area available;



(48a) 'final approach segment' means that segment of an instrument approach procedure in which alignment anddescent for landing are accomplished.

(48b) 'flight crew member' means a licensed crew member charged with duties essential to the operation of anaircraft during a flight duty period;

(48c) 'Flight manual' means a manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing limitations withinwhich the aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions and information necessary to the flight crewmembers for the safe operation of the aircraft.

(49) ‘flight data monitoring (FDM)’ means the proactive and non-punitive use of digital flight data from routineoperations to improve aviation safety;

(49a) 'flight operations officer/flight dispatcher means a person designated by the operator to engage in thecontrol and supervision of flight operations, who supports, briefs, and/or assists the pilot-in-command in the safeconduct of the flight and is suitably qualified in accordance with the relevant QCARs on Aircrew licensing andAnnex 1 of the Chicago convention .

(49b) 'flight plan' means specified information provided to air traffic services units, relative to an intended flight orportion of a flight of an aircraft.

(49c) 'flight recorder' means any type of recorder installed in the aircraft for the purpose of complementingaccident/incident investigation.

(49d) 'flight safety documents system' means a set of interrelated documentation established by the operator,compiling and organising information necessary for flight and ground operations, and comprising, as a minimum,the operations manual and the operator’s maintenance control manual.

(50) ‘flight simulation training device (FSTD)’ means a training device which is:

(a) in the case of aeroplanes, a full flight simulator (FFS), a flight training device (FTD), a flight andnavigation procedures trainer (FNPT), or a basic instrument training device (BITD);

(b) in the case of helicopters, a full flight simulator (FFS), a flight training device (FTD) or a flight andnavigation procedures trainer (FNPT);

(51) ‘fuel ERA aerodrome’ means an ERA aerodrome selected for the purpose of reducing contingency fuel;

(52) ‘GBAS landing system (GLS)’ means an approach landing system using ground based augmented globalnavigation satellite system (GNSS/GBAS) information to provide guidance to the aircraft based on its lateral andvertical GNSS position. It uses geometric altitude reference for its final approach slope;

(53) ‘ground emergency service personnel’ means any ground emergency service personnel (such as policemen,firemen, etc.) involved with helicopter emergency medical services (HEMSs) and whose tasks are to any extentpertinent to helicopter operations;

(53a) 'ground handling' means services necessary for an aircraft's arrival at, and departure from, an airport, otherthan air traffic services;

(54) ‘grounding’ means the formal prohibition of an aircraft to take-off and the taking of such steps as arenecessary to detain it;

(55) ‘head-up display (HUD)’ means a display system which presents flight information to the pilot’s forwardexternal field of view and which does not significantly restrict the external view;

(56) ‘head-up guidance landing system (HUDLS)’ means the total airborne system that provides head-upguidance to the pilot during the approach and landing and/or missed approach procedure. It includes all sensors,computers, power supplies, indications and controls;

(57) ‘helicopter’ means a heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air on one ormore power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes;

(58) ‘helicopter hoist operation (HHO) crew member’ means a technical crew member who performs assignedduties relating to the operation of a hoist;



(59) ‘helideck’ means a FATO located on a floating or fixed offshore structure;

(59a) 'heliport' means n aerodrome or a defined area on a structure intended to be used wholly or in part for thearrival, departure and surface movement of helicopters; when the term “heliport” is used, it is intended that theterm also applies to aerodromes primarily meant for the use of aeroplanes.

(60) ‘HEMS crew member’ means a technical crew member who is assigned to a HEMS flight for the purpose ofattending to any person in need of medical assistance carried in the helicopter and assisting the pilot during themission;

(61) ‘HEMS flight’ means a flight by a helicopter operating under a HEMS approval, the purpose of which is tofacilitate emergency medical assistance, where immediate and rapid transportation is essential, by carrying:

(a) medical personnel;

(b) medical supplies (equipment, blood, organs, drugs); or

(c) ill or injured persons and other persons directly involved;

(62) ‘HEMS operating base’ means an aerodrome at which the HEMS crew members and the HEMS helicoptermay be on stand-by for HEMS operations;

(63) ‘HEMS operating site’ means a site selected by the commander during a HEMS flight for helicopter hoistoperations, landing and take-off;

(64) ‘HHO flight’ means a flight by a helicopter operating under an HHO approval, the purpose of which is tofacilitate the transfer of persons and/or cargo by means of a helicopter hoist;

(65) ‘HHO offshore’ means a flight by a helicopter operating under an HHO approval, the purpose of which is tofacilitate the transfer of persons and/or cargo by means of a helicopter hoist from or to a vessel or structure in asea area or to the sea itself;

(66) ‘HHO passenger’ means a person who is to be transferred by means of a helicopter hoist;

(67) ‘HHO site’ means a specified area at which a helicopter performs a hoist transfer;

(68) ‘hold-over time (HoT)’ means the estimated time the anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of ice and frostand the accumulation of snow on the protected (treated) surfaces of an aeroplane;

(69) ‘hostile environment’ means:

(a) an environment in which:

(i) a safe forced landing cannot be accomplished because the surface is inadequate;

(ii) the helicopter occupants cannot be adequately protected from the elements;

(iii) search and rescue response/capability is not provided consistent with anticipated exposure; or

(iv) there is an unacceptable risk of endangering persons or property on the ground;

(b) in any case, the following areas:

(i) for overwater operations, the open sea areas north of 45N and south of 45S designated by theauthority of the State concerned;

(ii) those parts of a congested area without adequate safe forced landing areas;

(69a) 'Human Factors principles' means principles which apply to aeronautical design, certification, training,operations and maintenance and which seek safe interface between the human and other system componentsby proper consideration to human performance.

(69b) 'human performance' means human capabilities and limitations which have an impact on the safety andefficiency of aeronautical operations;

(69c) 'instrument approach operations' means approach and landing using instruments for navigation guidancebased on an instrument approach procedure. There are two methods for executing instrument approach



operations:

(a) a two-dimensional (2D) instrument approach operation, using lateral navigation guidance only; and

(b) a three-dimensional (3D) instrument approach operation, using both lateral and vertical navigationguidance.

(69d) 'instrument approach procedures’ means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flightinstruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix or, where applicable, from thebeginning of a defined arrival route to a point from which a landing can be completed and thereafter, if a landingis not completed, to a position at which holding or en-route obstacle clearance criteria apply. Instrument approachprocedures are classified as follows:

(a) non-precision approach (NPA) procedure, which means an instrument approach procedure designed for2D instrument approach operations Type A;

(b) approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV) means a performance-based navigation (PBN)instrument approach procedure designed for 3D instrument approach operations Type A;

(c) precision approach (PA) procedure means an instrument approach procedure based on navigationsystems designed for 3D instrument approach operations Type A or B;

(69e) Instrument meteorological conditions (IMC). Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility,distance from cloud, and ceiling, less than the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions.

(70) ‘landing decision point (LDP)’ means the point used in determining landing performance from which, anengine failure having been recognised at this point, the landing may be safely continued or a balked landinginitiated;

(71) ‘landing distance available (LDA)’ means the length of the runway which is declared available by the Stateof the aerodrome and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane landing;

(72) ‘landplane’ means a fixed wing aircraft which is designed for taking off and landing on land and includesamphibians operated as landplanes;

(73) ‘local helicopter operation’ means a commercial air transport operation of helicopters with a maximumcertified take-off mass (MCTOM) over 3 175 kg and a maximum operational passenger seating configuration(MOPSC) of nine or less, by day, over routes navigated by reference to visual landmarks, conducted within alocal and defined geographical area specified in the operations manual;

(74) ‘low visibility procedures (LVP)’ means procedures applied at an aerodrome for the purpose of ensuring safeoperations during lower than standard category I, other than standard category II, category II and III approachesand low visibility take-offs;

(75) ‘low visibility take-off (LVTO)’ means a take-off with an RVR lower than 400 m but not less than 75 m;

(76) ‘lower than standard category I (LTS CAT I) operation’ means a category I instrument approach and landingoperation using category I DH, with an RVR lower than would normally be associated with the applicable DH butnot lower than 400 m;

(76a) 'maintenance' means the performance of tasks required to ensure the continuing airworthiness of anaircraft, including any one or combination of overhaul, inspection, replacement, defect rectification, and theembodiment of a modification or repair;

(77) ‘maximum operational passenger seating configuration (MOPSC)’ means the maximum passenger seatingcapacity of an individual aircraft, excluding crew seats, established for operational purposes and specified in theoperations manual. Taking as a baseline the maximum passenger seating configuration established during thecertification process conducted for the type certificate (TC), supplemental type certificate (STC) or change to theTC or STC as relevant to the individual aircraft, the MOPSC may establish an equal or lower number of seats,depending on the operational constraints;

(78) ‘medical passenger’ means a medical person carried in a helicopter during a HEMS flight, including but notlimited to doctors, nurses and paramedics;

(78a) 'master minimum equipment list (MMEL)' means a list as defined in the applicable operational suitability



data. If an MMEL has not been established as part of the operational suitability data, a list established for athe aircraft type by the organisation responsible for the type design with the approval of the State of Designcontaining items, one or more of which is permitted to be unserviceable at the commencement of a flight.

(78b) ‘minimum descent altitude (MDA) or minimum descent height (MDH)’ means a specified altitude or heightin a 2D instrument approach operation or circling approach operation below which descent must not be madewithout the required visual reference;

(79) ‘night’ means the period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilightor such other period between sunset and sunrise as may be prescribed by the Authority;

(80) ‘night vision goggles (NVG)’ means a head-mounted, binocular, light intensification appliance that enhancesthe ability to maintain visual surface references at night;

(81) ‘night vision imaging system (NVIS)’ means the integration of all elements required to successfully and safelyuse NVGs while operating a helicopter. The system includes as a minimum: NVGs, NVIS lighting, helicoptercomponents, training and continuing airworthiness;

(82) ‘non-hostile environment’ means an environment in which:

(a) a safe forced landing can be accomplished;

(b) the helicopter occupants can be protected from the elements; and

(c) search and rescue response/capability is provided consistent with the anticipated exposure.

In any case, those parts of a congested area with adequate safe forced landing areas shall be considered non-hostile;

(83) ‘non-precision approach (NPA) operation’ means an instrument approach with a minimum descent height(MDH), or DH when flying a CDFA technique, not lower than 250 ft and an RVR/CMV of not less than 750 m foraeroplanes and 600 m for helicopters;

(84) ‘NVIS crew member’ means a technical crew member assigned to an NVIS flight;

(85) ‘NVIS flight’ means a flight under night visual meteorological conditions (VMC) with the flight crew usingNVGs in a helicopter operating under an NVIS approval;

(86) ‘offshore operations’ means operations which routinely have a substantial proportion of the flight conductedover sea areas to or from offshore locations;

(87) ‘operating site’ means a site, other than an aerodrome, selected by the operator or pilot-in-command orcommander for landing, take-off and/or external load operations;

(88) ‘operation in performance class 1’ means an operation that, in the event of failure of the critical engine,the helicopter is able to land within the rejected take-off distance available or safely continue the flight to anappropriate landing area, depending on when the failure occurs;

(89) ‘operation in performance class 2’ means an operation that, in the event of failure of the critical engine,performance is available to enable the helicopter to safely continue the flight, except when the failure occurs earlyduring the take-off manoeuvre or late in the landing manoeuvre, in which cases a forced landing may be required;

(90) ‘operation in performance class 3’ means an operation that, in the event of an engine failure at any timeduring the flight, a forced landing may be required in a multi-engined helicopter and will be required in a single-engined helicopter;

(90a) 'operations manual' means manual containing procedures, instructions and guidance for use by operationalpersonnel in the execution of their duties.

(90b) 'operations specifications' means the authorisations, conditions and limitations associated with the airoperator certificate and subject to the conditions in the operations manual.

(91) ‘operational control’ means the responsibility for the initiation, continuation, termination or diversion of a flightin the interest of safety;

(91a) 'operator’ shall mean any legal or natural person, operating or proposing to operate one or more aircraft;



(92) ‘other than standard category II (OTS CAT II) operation’ means a precision instrument approach and landingoperation using ILS or MLS where some or all of the elements of the precision approach category II light systemare not available, and with:

(a) DH below 200 ft but not lower than 100 ft; and

(b) RVR of not less than 350 m;

(92a) 'operator' means a person, organisation or enterprise engaged in or offering to engage in an aircraftoperation;

(93) ‘performance class A aeroplanes’ means multi-engined aeroplanes powered by turbo-propeller engines withan MOPSC of more than nine or a maximum take-off mass exceeding 5 700 kg, and all multi-engined turbo-jetpowered aeroplanes;

(94) ‘performance class B aeroplanes’ means aeroplanes powered by propeller engines with an MOPSC of nineor less and a maximum take-off mass of 5 700 kg or less;

(95) ‘performance class C aeroplanes’ means aeroplanes powered by reciprocating engines with an MOPSC ofmore than nine or a maximum take-off mass exceeding 5 700 kg;

(96) ‘pilot-in-command’ means the pilot designated as being in command and charged with the safe conductof the flight. For the purpose of commercial air transport operations, the ‘pilot-in-command’ shall be termed the‘commander’;

(96a) 'point of no return' means last possible geographic point at which an aircraft can proceed to the destinationaerodrome as well as to an available en-route alternate aerodrome for a given flight.

(96b) 'pressure altitude' means an atmospheric pressure expressed in terms of altitude which corresponds to thatpressure in the Standard Atmosphere;

(97) ‘principal place of business’ means the head office or registered office of the organisation within which theprincipal financial functions and operational control of the activities referred to in this Regulation are exercised;

(98) ‘prioritisation of ramp inspections’ means the dedication of an appropriate portion of the total number of rampinspections conducted by or on behalf of a competent authority on an annual basis as provided in Part-ARO;

(98a) 'psychoactive substances' means alcohol, opioids, cannabinoids, sedatives and hypnotics, cocaine. otherpsychostimulants, hallucinogens, and volatile solvents, whereas coffee and tobacco are excluded;

(99) ‘public interest site (PIS)’ means a site used exclusively for operations in the public interest;

(99a) 'QCAA' means the Qatar Civil Aviation Authority;

(100) ‘ramp inspection’ means the inspection of aircraft, of flight and cabin crew qualifications and of flightdocumentation in order to verify the compliance with the applicable requirements;

(101) ‘rectification interval’ means a limitation on the duration of operations with inoperative equipment;

(102) ‘rejected take-off distance available (RTODAH)’ means the length of the final approach and take-off areadeclared available and suitable for helicopters operated in performance class 1 to complete a rejected take-off;

(103) ‘rejected take-off distance required (RTODRH)’ means the horizontal distance required from the start of thetake-off to the point where the helicopter comes to a full stop following an engine failure and rejection of the take-off at the take-off decision point;

(103a) 'repair' means the restoration of an aeronautical product to an airworthy condition to ensure that theaircraft continues to comply with the design aspects of the appropriate airworthiness requirements used for theissuance of the type certificate for the respective aircraft type, after it has been damaged or subjected to wear;

(104) ‘runway visual range (RVR)’ means the range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the centre line of arunway can see the runway surface markings or the lights delineating the runway or identifying its centre line;

(105) ‘safe forced landing’ means an unavoidable landing or ditching with a reasonable expectancy of no injuriesto persons in the aircraft or on the surface;



(105a) 'safety management system (SMS)' means a systematic approach to managing safety, including thenecessary organisational structures, accountabilities, policies and procedures as part of the Management Systemrequired by Annex III;

(106) ‘seaplane’ means a fixed wing aircraft which is designed for taking off and landing on water and includesamphibians operated as seaplanes;

(107) ‘separate runways’ means runways at the same aerodrome that are separate landing surfaces. Theserunways may overlay or cross in such a way that if one of the runways is blocked, it will not prevent the plannedtype of operations on the other runway. Each runway shall have a separate approach procedure based on aseparate navigation aid;

(108) ‘special VFR flight’ means a VFR flight cleared by air traffic control to operate within a control zone inmeteorological conditions below VMC;

(109) ‘stabilised approach (SAp)’ means an approach that is flown in a controlled and appropriate manner interms of configuration, energy and control of the flight path from a pre-determined point or altitude/height downto a point 50 ft above the threshold or the point where the flare manoeuvre is initiated if higher;

(109a) 'State of registry' means the State on whose register the aircraft is entered.

(109b) 'State of the aerodrome' means the State in whose territory the aerodrome is located.

(109c) ‘sterile flight crew compartment’ means any period of time when the flight crew members are not disturbedor distracted, except for matters critical to the safe operation of the aircraft or the safety of the occupants;

(109d) 'State of the Operator' means the State in which the operator’s principal place of business is located or, ifthere is no such place of business, the operator’s permanent residence.

(109e) 'synthetic vision system (SVS)' means a system to display data-derived synthetic images of the externalscene from the perspective of the flight deck;

(110) ‘take-off alternate aerodrome’ means an alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft can land should thisbecome necessary shortly after take-off and if it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure;

(110a) 'take-off and initial climb phase' means, in the case of helicopter operations, that part of the flight from thestart of take-off to 300 m (1 000 ft) above the elevation of the FATO, if the flight is planned to exceed this height,or to the end of the climb in the other cases

(111) ‘take-off decision point (TDP)’ means the point used in determining take-off performance from which, anengine failure having been recognised at this point, either a rejected take-off may be made or a take-off safelycontinued;

(112) ‘take-off distance available (TODA)’ in the case of aeroplanes means the length of the take-off run availableplus the length of the clearway, if provided;

(113) ‘take-off distance available (TODAH)’ in the case of helicopters means the length of the final approach andtake-off area plus, if provided, the length of helicopter clearway declared available and suitable for helicopters tocomplete the take-off;

(114) ‘take-off distance required (TODRH)’ in the case of helicopters means the horizontal distance required fromthe start of the take-off to the point at which take-off safety speed (VTOSS), a selected height and a positive climbgradient are achieved, following failure of the critical engine being recognised at the TDP, the remaining enginesoperating within approved operating limits;

(115) ‘take-off flight path’ means the vertical and horizontal path, with the critical engine inoperative, from aspecified point in the take-off for aeroplanes to 1 500 ft above the surface and for helicopters to 1 000 ft abovethe surface;

(116) ‘take-off mass’ means the mass including everything and everyone carried at the commencement of thetake-off for helicopters and take-off run for aeroplanes;

(117) ‘take-off run available (TORA)’ means the length of runway that is declared available by the State of theaerodrome and suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off;



(117a) 'take-off safety speed' means the minimum speed at which climb shall be achieved with the critical engineinoperative, the remaining engines operating within approved operating limits.

(117b) 'target level of safety' means the level of risk which is considered acceptable in particular circumstances.

(117c) ‘task specialist’ means a person assigned by the operator or a third party, or acting as an undertaking, whoperforms tasks on the ground directly associated with a specialised task or performs specialised tasks on boardor from the aircraft;

(118) 'technical crew member’ means a crew member in commercial air transport HEMS, HHO or NVISoperations other than a flight or cabin crew member, assigned by the operator to duties in the aircraft or onthe ground for the purpose of assisting the pilot during HEMS, HHO or NVIS operations, which may require theoperation of specialised on-board equipment;

(119) ‘Technical Instructions (TI)’ means the latest effective edition of the ‘Technical Instructions for the safetransport of dangerous goods by air’, including the supplement and any addenda, approved and published by theInternational Civil Aviation Organisation;

(120) ‘traffic load’ means the total mass of passengers, baggage, cargo and carry-on specialist equipment and,except for balloons, including any ballast;

(120a) ‘Type A instrument approach operation’ means an operation with a minimum MDA/H or DA/H at or above250 ft;

(120b) ‘Type B instrument approach operation’ means an operation with a minimum DA/H below 250 ft;

(121) ‘unaided NVIS flight’ means, in the case of NVIS operations, that portion of a VFR flight performed at nightwhen a crew member is not using NVG;

(122) ‘undertaking’ means any natural or legal person, whether profit-making or not, or any official body whetherhaving its own personality or not;

(123) ‘V1’ means the maximum speed in the take-off at which the pilot must take the first action to stop theaeroplane within the accelerate-stop distance. V1 also means the minimum speed in the take-off, following afailure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot can continue the take-off and achieve the required heightabove the take-off surface within the take-off distance;

(124) ‘VEF’ means the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during take-off;

(125) ‘visual approach’ means an approach when either part or all of an instrument approach procedure is notcompleted and the approach is executed with visual reference to the terrain;

(125a) ‘visual meteorological conditions’ means meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility,distance from cloud, and ceiling, equal to or better than specified minima.

(126) ‘weather-permissible aerodrome’ means an adequate aerodrome where, for the anticipated time of use,weather reports, or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that the weather conditions will be at or abovethe required aerodrome operating minima, and the runway surface condition reports indicate that a safe landingwill be possible;

(127) ‘wet lease agreement’ means an agreement:

- in the case of CAT operations, between air carriers pursuant to which the aircraft is operated under theAOC of the lessor; or

- in the case of commercial operations other than CAT, between operators pursuant to which the aircraft isoperated under the responsibility of the lessor;

(128) ‘wet runway’ means a runway of which the surface is covered with water, or equivalent, less than specifiedby the ‘contaminated runway’ definition or when there is sufficient moisture on the runway surface to cause it toappear reflective, but without significant areas of standing water.




No. 016 of 2016

Air Operations Annex VI to Part-NCC


Table of Contents

ANNEX VI NON-COMMERCIAL AIR OPERATIONS WITH COMPLEX MOTOR-POWERED AIRCRAFT........... 1[PART-NCC] ........................................................................................................................................................... 1

SUBPART A GENERAL REQUIREMENTS...................................................................................................... 1NCC.GEN.105 Crew responsibilities ........................................................................................................ 1NCC.GEN.106 Pilot-in-command responsibilities and authority............................................................... 1NCC.GEN.110 Compliance with laws, regulations and procedures ......................................................... 3NCC.GEN.115 Common language ........................................................................................................... 3NCC.GEN.119 Taxiing of aircraft .............................................................................................................. 3NCC.GEN.120 Taxiing of aeroplanes ....................................................................................................... 3NCC.GEN.125 Rotor engagement - helicopters....................................................................................... 3NCC.GEN.130 Portable electronic devices .............................................................................................. 3NCC.GEN.135 Information on emergency and survival equipment carried ............................................. 3NCC.GEN.140 Documents, manuals and information to be carried ........................................................ 3NCC.GEN.145 Handling of flight recorder recordings: preservation, production, protection and use ......... 4NCC.GEN.150 Transport of dangerous goods ............................................................................................ 5

SUBPART B OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES ................................................................................................. 6NCC.OP.100 Use of aerodromes and operating sites .............................................................................. 6NCC.OP.105 Specification of isolated aerodromes - aeroplanes ............................................................. 6NCC.OP.110 Aerodrome operating minima - general............................................................................... 6NCC.OP.111 Aerodrome operating minima - NPA, APV, CAT I operations .............................................. 6NCC.OP.112 Aerodrome operating minima - circling operations with aeroplanes.................................... 7NCC.OP.113 Aerodrome operating minima - onshore circling operations with helicopters ...................... 8NCC.OP.115 Departure and approach procedures .................................................................................. 8NCC.OP.120 Noise abatement procedures .............................................................................................. 8NCC.OP.125 Minimum obstacle clearance altitudes - IFR flights............................................................. 8NCC.OP.130 Fuel and oil supply - aeroplanes ......................................................................................... 8NCC.OP.131 Fuel and oil supply - helicopters.......................................................................................... 9NCC.OP.135 Stowage of baggage and cargo ........................................................................................ 10NCC.OP.140 Passenger briefing ............................................................................................................ 10NCC.OP.145 Flight preparation .............................................................................................................. 10NCC.OP.150 Take-off alternate aerodromes - aeroplanes ..................................................................... 10NCC.OP.151 Destination alternate aerodromes - aeroplanes ................................................................ 11NCC.OP.152 Destination alternate aerodromes - helicopters ................................................................ 11NCC.OP.155 Refuelling with passengers embarking, on board or disembarking................................... 11NCC.OP.160 Use of headset .................................................................................................................. 12NCC.OP.165 Carriage of passengers..................................................................................................... 12NCC.OP.170 Securing of passenger compartment and galley(s)........................................................... 12NCC.OP.175 Smoking on board ............................................................................................................. 12NCC.OP.180 Meteorological conditions.................................................................................................. 13NCC.OP.185 Ice and other contaminants - ground procedures ............................................................. 13NCC.OP.190 Ice and other contaminants - flight procedures ................................................................. 13NCC.OP.195 Take-off conditions ............................................................................................................ 13NCC.OP.200 Simulated situations in flight.............................................................................................. 13NCC.OP.205 In-flight fuel management.................................................................................................. 13NCC.OP.210 Use of supplemental oxygen............................................................................................. 13NCC.OP.215 Ground proximity detection ............................................................................................... 14NCC.OP.220 Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS).................................................................... 14NCC.OP.225 Approach and landing conditions ...................................................................................... 14NCC.OP.230 Commencement and continuation of approach ................................................................ 14

SUBPART C AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE AND OPERATING LIMITATIONS .............................................. 15NCC.POL.100 Operating limitations - all aircraft .................................................................................... 15NCC.POL.105 Mass and balance, loading............................................................................................. 15NCC.POL.110 Mass and balance data and documentation ................................................................... 16NCC.POL.111 Mass and balance data and documentation - alleviations .............................................. 17

Qatar Civil Aviation Regulations Air Operations Annex VI to Part-NCC (Revision 1) No. 016 of 2016

Air Operations Annex VI to Part-NCC (Revision 1) aLCAL(A) Ref Bk - PVT / 1 MAY 2018 / Page 365 of 448

NCC.POL.115 Performance - general .................................................................................................... 17NCC.POL.120 Take-off mass limitations - aeroplanes ........................................................................... 17NCC.POL.125 Take-off - aeroplanes ...................................................................................................... 18NCC.POL.130 En-route - one engine inoperative - aeroplanes ............................................................. 18NCC.POL.135 Landing - aeroplanes...................................................................................................... 18

SUBPART D INSTRUMENTS, DATA AND EQUIPMENT............................................................................... 19SECTION 1 Aeroplanes ............................................................................................................................... 19

NCC.IDE.A.100 Instruments and equipment - general........................................................................... 19NCC.IDE.A.105 Minimum equipment for flight ....................................................................................... 19NCC.IDE.A.110 Spare electrical fuses ................................................................................................... 20NCC.IDE.A.115 Operating lights............................................................................................................. 20NCC.IDE.A.120 Operations under VFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated

equipment............................................................................................................................................................. 20NCC.IDE.A.125 Operations under IFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated

equipment............................................................................................................................................................. 21NCC.IDE.A.130 Additional equipment for single-pilot operations under IFR.......................................... 22NCC.IDE.A.135 Terrain awareness warning system (TAWS)................................................................. 22NCC.IDE.A.140 Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS) ............................................................... 22NCC.IDE.A.145 Airborne weather detecting equipment......................................................................... 22NCC.IDE.A.150 Additional equipment for operations in icing conditions at night................................... 22NCC.IDE.A.155 Flight crew interphone system...................................................................................... 22NCC.IDE.A.160 Cockpit voice recorder.................................................................................................. 22NCC.IDE.A.165 Flight data recorder ...................................................................................................... 23NCC.IDE.A.170 Data link recording ....................................................................................................... 23NCC.IDE.A.175 Flight data and cockpit voice combination recorder ..................................................... 24NCC.IDE.A.180 Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices ........................ 24NCC.IDE.A.185 Fasten seat belt and no smoking signs ........................................................................ 25NCC.IDE.A.190 First-aid kit .................................................................................................................... 25NCC.IDE.A.195 Supplemental oxygen - pressurised aeroplanes .......................................................... 25NCC.IDE.A.200 Supplemental oxygen - non-pressurised aeroplanes ................................................... 26NCC.IDE.A.205 Hand fire extinguishers................................................................................................. 26NCC.IDE.A.206 Crash axe and crowbar ................................................................................................ 26NCC.IDE.A.210 Marking of break-in points ............................................................................................ 26NCC.IDE.A.215 Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)............................................................................ 27NCC.IDE.A.220 Flight over water ........................................................................................................... 27NCC.IDE.A.230 Survival equipment ....................................................................................................... 28NCC.IDE.A.240 Headset ........................................................................................................................ 28NCC.IDE.A.245 Radio communication equipment ................................................................................. 28NCC.IDE.A.250 Navigation equipment................................................................................................... 28NCC.IDE.A.255 Transponder ................................................................................................................. 29NCC.IDE.A.260 Electronic navigation data management ...................................................................... 29NCC.IDE.A.265 Cosmic radiation detection equipment ............................................................................ 29

SECTION 2 Helicopters ............................................................................................................................... 30NCC.IDE.H.100 Instruments and equipment - general .......................................................................... 30NCC.IDE.H.105 Minimum equipment for flight ....................................................................................... 30NCC.IDE.H.115 Operating lights ............................................................................................................ 30NCC.IDE.H.120 Operations under VFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated

equipment............................................................................................................................................................. 31NCC.IDE.H.125 Operations under IFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated

equipment............................................................................................................................................................. 31NCC.IDE.H.130 Additional equipment for single-pilot operations under IFR ......................................... 32NCC.IDE.H.145 Airborne weather detecting equipment ........................................................................ 32NCC.IDE.H.150 Additional equipment for operations in icing conditions at night .................................. 32NCC.IDE.H.155 Flight crew interphone system ..................................................................................... 32NCC.IDE.H.160 Cockpit voice recorder ................................................................................................. 33NCC.IDE.H.165 Flight data recorder ...................................................................................................... 33NCC.IDE.H.170 Data link recording ....................................................................................................... 33NCC.IDE.H.175 Flight data and cockpit voice combination recorder ..................................................... 34


Air Operations Annex VI to Part-NCC (Revision 1) bLCAL(A) Ref Bk - PVT / 1 MAY 2018 / Page 366 of 448

NCC.IDE.H.180 Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices ........................ 34NCC.IDE.H.185 Fasten seat belt and no smoking signs........................................................................ 34NCC.IDE.H.190 First-aid kit.................................................................................................................... 34NCC.IDE.H.200 Supplemental oxygen - non-pressurised helicopters ................................................... 35NCC.IDE.H.205 Hand fire extinguishers ................................................................................................ 35NCC.IDE.H.210 Marking of break-in points ............................................................................................ 35NCC.IDE.H.215 Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)............................................................................ 35NCC.IDE.H.225 Life-jackets ................................................................................................................... 36NCC.IDE.H.226 Crew survival suits ....................................................................................................... 36NCC.IDE.H.227 Life-rafts, survival ELTs and survival equipment on extended overwater flights .......... 36NCC.IDE.H.230 Survival equipment....................................................................................................... 37NCC.IDE.H.231 Additional requirements for helicopters conducting offshore operations in a hostile sea

area ...................................................................................................................................................................... 37NCC.IDE.H.232 Helicopters certified for operating on water - miscellaneous equipment ...................... 37NCC.IDE.H.235 All helicopters on flights over water - ditching .............................................................. 37NCC.IDE.H.240 Headset ........................................................................................................................ 38NCC.IDE.H.245 Radio communication equipment ................................................................................. 38NCC.IDE.H.250 Navigation equipment .................................................................................................. 38NCC.IDE.H.255 Transponder ................................................................................................................. 38


Air Operations Annex VI to Part-NCC (Revision 1) cLCAL(A) Ref Bk - PVT / 1 MAY 2018 / Page 367 of 448

ANNEX VI NON-COMMERCIAL AIR OPERATIONS WITH COMPLEX MOTOR-POWEREDAIRCRAFT

[PART-NCC]

SUBPART A GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

NCC.GEN.105 Crew responsibilities

(a) The crew member shall be responsible for the proper execution of his/her duties that are:

(1) related to the safety of the aircraft and its occupants; and

(2) specified in the instructions and procedures in the operations manual.

(b) During critical phases of flight or whenever deemed necessary by the pilot-in-command in the interest ofsafety, the crew member shall be seated at his/her assigned station and shall not perform any activities otherthan those required for the safe operation of the aircraft.

(c) During flight, the flight crew member shall keep his/her safety belt fastened while at his/her station.

(d) During flight, at least one qualified flight crew member shall remain at the controls of the aircraft at all times.

(e) The crew member shall not undertake duties on an aircraft:

(1) if he/she knows or suspects that he/she is suffering from fatigue if he/she knows or suspects that he/she is suffering from fatigue or feels otherwise unfit such that his/her task achievement/decision makinghas deteriorated to the extent that the flight may be endangered; or

(2) when under the influence of psychoactive substances or alcohol or when unfit due to injury, fatigue,medication, sickness or other similar causes;

(f) The crew member who undertakes duties for more than one operator shall:

(1) maintain his/her individual records regarding flight and duty times and rest periods as referred to inapplicable FTL requirements; and

(2) provide each operator with the data needed to schedule activities in accordance with the applicableFTL requirements.

(g) The crew member shall report to the pilot-in-command:

(1) any fault, failure, malfunction or defect, which he/she believes may affect the airworthiness or safeoperation of the aircraft, including emergency systems; and

(2) any incident that was endangering, or could endanger, the safety of the operation.

NCC.GEN.106 Pilot-in-command responsibilities and authority

(a) The pilot-in-command shall be responsible for:

(1) the safety of the aircraft and of all crew members, passengers and cargo on board during aircraftoperations;

(2) the initiation, continuation, termination or diversion of a flight in the interest of safety;

(3) ensuring that all instructions, operational procedures and checklists are complied with in accordancewith the operations manual;

(4) only commencing a flight if he/she is satisfied that the following operational limitations are compliedwith:

(i) the aircraft is airworthy;


Air Operations Annex VI to Part-NCC (Revision 1) Page 1 of 38LCAL(A) Ref Bk - PVT / 1 MAY 2018 / Page 368 of 448

(ii) the aircraft is duly registered;

(iii) instruments and equipment required for the execution of that flight are installed in the aircraft andare operative, unless operation with inoperative equipment is permitted by the minimum equipmentlist (MEL) or equivalent document, as required in NCC.IDE.A.105 or NCC.IDE.H.105;

(iv) the mass of the aircraft and centre of gravity location are such that the flight can be conductedwithin the limits prescribed in the airworthiness documentation;

(v) all cabin baggage, hold luggage and cargo are properly loaded and secured;

(vi) the aircraft operating limitations as specified in the aircraft flight manual (AFM) will not beexceeded at any time during the flight;

(vii) each flight crew member holds a valid licence in accordance with QCAR 001/2016 AircrewLicensing; and

(viii) flight crew members are properly rated and meet competency and recency requirements;

(5) not commencing a flight if any flight crew member is incapacitated from performing duties by anycause such as injury, sickness, fatigue or the effects of any psychoactive substance;

(6) not continuing a flight beyond the nearest weather-permissible aerodrome or operating site, whenthe capacity of any flight crew member to perform duties is significantly reduced from causes such asfatigue, sickness or lack of oxygen;

(7) deciding on acceptance of the aircraft with unserviceabilities in accordance with the configurationdeviation list (CDL) or minimum equipment list (MEL), as applicable;

(8) recording utilisation data and all known or suspected defects in the aircraft at the termination of theflight, or series of flights, in the aircraft technical log or journey log for the aircraft; and

(9) ensuring that:

(i) flight recorders are not disabled or switched off during flight;

(ii) in the event of an occurrence other than an accident or a serious incident that shall bereported according to ORO.GEN.160(a), flight recorders' recordings are not intentionally erased;and

(iii) in the event of an accident or a serious incident, or if preservation of recordings of flightrecorders is directed by the investigating authority:

(A) flight recorders' recordings are not intentionally erased;

(B) flight recorders are deactivated immediately after the flight is completed; and

(C) precautionary measures to preserve the recordings of flight recorders are taken beforeleaving the flight crew compartment.

(b) The pilot-in-command shall have the authority to refuse carriage of or disembark any person, baggage orcargo that may represent a potential hazard to the safety of the aircraft or its occupants.

(c) The pilot-in-command shall, as soon as possible, report to the appropriate air traffic services (ATS) unit anyhazardous weather or flight conditions encountered that are likely to affect the safety of other aircraft.

(d) Notwithstanding the provision of (a)(6), in a multi-crew operation the pilot-in-command may continue a flightbeyond the nearest weather-permissible aerodrome when adequate mitigating procedures are in place.

(e) The pilot-in-command shall, in an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, take anyaction he/she considers necessary in the interest of safety. In such cases he/she may deviate from rules,operational procedures and methods. In the event of any such deviation the pilot-in-command is responsible fornotifying the appropriate local authority without delay.

(f) The pilot-in-command shall submit a report of an act of unlawful interference without delay to the QCAA andshall inform the designated local authority.



(g) The pilot-in-command shall notify the nearest appropriate authority by the quickest available means of anyaccident involving the aircraft that results in serious injury or death of any person or substantial damage to theaircraft or property.

NCC.GEN.110 Compliance with laws, regulations and procedures

(a) The pilot-in-command shall comply with the laws, regulations and procedures of those States whereoperations are conducted.

(b) The pilot-in-command shall be familiar with the laws, regulations and procedures, pertinent to theperformance of his/her duties, prescribed for the areas to be traversed, the aerodromes or operating sites to beused and the related air navigation facilities as relating thereto.

NCC.GEN.115 Common language

The operator shall ensure that all crew members can communicate with each other in a common language.

NCC.GEN.119 Taxiing of aircraft

The operator shall establish procedures for taxiing to ensure safe operation and to enhance runway safety.

NCC.GEN.120 Taxiing of aeroplanes

The operator shall ensure that an aeroplane is only taxied on the movement area of an aerodrome if the personat the controls:

(a) is an appropriately qualified pilot; or

(b) has been designated by the operator and:

(1) is trained to taxi the aeroplane;

(2) is trained to use the radio telephone, if radio communications are required;

(3) has received instruction in respect of aerodrome layout, routes, signs, marking, lights, air traffic control(ATC) signals and instructions, phraseology and procedures; and

(4) is able to conform to the operational standards required for safe aeroplane movement at theaerodrome.

NCC.GEN.125 Rotor engagement - helicopters

A helicopter rotor shall only be turned under power for the purpose of flight with a qualified pilot at the controls.

NCC.GEN.130 Portable electronic devices

The operator shall not permit any person to use a portable electronic device (PED) on board an aircraft thatcould adversely affect the performance of the aircraft’s systems and equipment.

NCC.GEN.135 Information on emergency and survival equipment carried

The operator shall at all times have available for immediate communication to rescue coordination centres(RCCs) lists containing information on the emergency and survival equipment carried on board.

NCC.GEN.140 Documents, manuals and information to be carried

(a) The following documents, manuals and information shall be carried on each flight as originals or copiesunless otherwise specified:

(1) the AFM, or equivalent document(s);

(2) the original certificate of registration;

(3) the original certificate of airworthiness (CofA);

(4) the noise certificate;



(5) the declaration as specified in Annex III (Part-ORO), ORO.DEC.100, to this regulation;

(6) the list of specific approvals, if applicable;

(7) the aircraft radio licence, if applicable;

(8) the third party liability insurance certificate(s);

(9) the journey log, or equivalent, for the aircraft;

(10) details of the filed ATS flight plan, if applicable;

(11) current and suitable aeronautical charts for the route of the proposed flight and all routes along whichit is reasonable to expect that the flight may be diverted;

(12) procedures and visual signals information for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft;

(13) information concerning search and rescue services for the area of the intended flight;

(14) the current parts of the operations manual that are relevant to the duties of the crew members, whichshall be easily accessible to the crew members;

(15) the MEL or CDL;

(16) appropriate notices to airmen (NOTAMs) and aeronautical information service (AIS) briefingdocumentation;

(17) appropriate meteorological information;

(18) cargo and/or passenger manifests, if applicable; and

(19) any other documentation that may be pertinent to the flight or is required by the States concerned withthe flight.

(b) In case of loss or theft of documents specified in (a)(2) to (a)(8), the operation may continue until the flightreaches its destination or a place where replacement documents can be provided.

NCC.GEN.145 Handling of flight recorder recordings: preservation, production, protection and use

(a) Following an accident, a serious incident or an occurrence identified by the investigating authority,the operator of an aircraft shall preserve the original recorded data for a period of 60 days or until otherwisedirected by the investigating authority.’.

(b) The operator shall conduct operational checks and evaluations of flight data recorder (FDR) recordings,cockpit voice recorder (CVR) recordings and data link recordings to ensure the continued serviceability of therecorders.

(c) The operator shall save the recordings for the period of operating time of the FDR as required byNCC.IDE.A.165 or NCC.IDE.H.165, except that, for the purpose of testing and maintaining the FDR, up to 1hour of the oldest recorded material at the time of testing may be erased.

(d) The operator shall keep and maintain up-to-date documentation that presents the necessary information toconvert FDR raw data into parameters expressed in engineering units.

(e) The operator shall make available any flight recorder recording that has been preserved, if so determined bythe QCAA.

(f) Without prejudice to QCAR 13 Accident and Incident Investigations:

(1) Except for ensuring the CVR serviceability, CVR recordings shall not be disclosed or used unless:

(i) a procedure related to the handling of CVR recordings and of their transcript is in place;

(ii) all crew members and maintenance personnel concerned have given their prior consent; and

(iii) they are used only for maintaining or improving safety.

(1a) When a CVR recording is inspected for ensuring the CVR serviceability, the operator shall ensure the



privacy of the CVR recording and the CVR recording shall not be disclosed or used for other purposes thanensuring the CVR serviceability.

(2) FDR recordings or data link recordings shall only be used for purposes other than for theinvestigation of an accident or an incident which is subject to mandatory reporting, if such records are:

(i) used by the operator for airworthiness or maintenance purposes only; or

(ii) de-identified; or

(iii) disclosed under secure procedures’.

NCC.GEN.150 Transport of dangerous goods

(a) The transport of dangerous goods by air shall be conducted in accordance with Annex 18 to the ChicagoConvention as last amended and amplified by the Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of DangerousGoods by Air (ICAO Doc 9284-AN/905), including its supplements and any other addenda or corrigenda.

(b) Dangerous goods shall only be transported by the operator approved in accordance with Annex V (Part-SPA), Subpart G, to this Regulation except when:

(1) they are not subject to the Technical Instructions in accordance with Part 1 of those Instructions; or

(2) they are carried in accordance with Part 8 of the Technical Instructions by passengers or crewmembers, or are in baggage that has been separated from its owner during transit or excess baggagecarried as cargo as permitted in Technical Instructions.

(c) The operator shall establish procedures to ensure that all reasonable measures are taken to preventdangerous goods from being carried on board inadvertently.

(d) The operator shall provide personnel with the necessary information enabling them to carry out theirresponsibilities, as required by the Technical Instructions.

(e) The operator shall, in accordance with the Technical Instructions, report without delay to the QCAA and theappropriate authority of the State of occurrence in the event of any dangerous goods accidents or incidents.

(f) The operator shall ensure that passengers are provided with information about dangerous goods inaccordance with the Technical Instructions.

(g) The operator shall ensure that notices giving information about the transport of dangerous goods areprovided at acceptance points for cargo as required by the Technical Instructions.



SUBPART B OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES

NCC.OP.100 Use of aerodromes and operating sites

The operator shall only use aerodromes and operating sites that are adequate for the type of aircraft andoperation concerned.

NCC.OP.105 Specification of isolated aerodromes - aeroplanes

For the selection of alternate aerodromes and the fuel policy, the operator shall consider an aerodrome as anisolated aerodrome if the flying time to the nearest adequate destination alternate aerodrome is more than:

(a) for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines, 60 minutes; or

(b) for aeroplanes with turbine engines, 90 minutes.

NCC.OP.110 Aerodrome operating minima - general

(a) For instrument flight rules (IFR) flights the operator shall establish aerodrome operating minima for eachdeparture, destination and alternate aerodrome to be used. Such minima shall:

(1) not be lower than those established by the State in which the aerodrome is located, except whenspecifically approved by that State; and

(2) when undertaking low visibility operations, be approved by the QCAA in accordance with Annex V (PartSPA), Subpart E to this Regulation.

(b) When establishing aerodrome operating minima, the operator shall take the following into account:

(1) the type, performance and handling characteristics of the aircraft;

(2) the composition, competence and experience of the flight crew;

(3) the dimensions and characteristics of the runways and final approach and take-off areas (FATOs) thatmay be selected for use;

(4) the adequacy and performance of the available visual and non-visual ground aids;

(5) the equipment available on the aircraft for the purpose of navigation and/or control of the flight path,during the take-off, the approach, the flare, the landing, the rollout and the missed approach;

(6) the obstacles in the approach, the missed approach and the climb-out areas necessary for theexecution of contingency procedures;

(7) the obstacle clearance altitude/height for the instrument approach procedures;

(8) the means to determine and report meteorological conditions; and

(9) the flight technique to be used during the final approach.

(c) The minima for a specific type of approach and landing procedure shall only be used if all the followingconditions are met:

(1) the ground equipment required for the intended procedure is operative;

(2) the aircraft systems required for the type of approach are operative;

(3) the required aircraft performance criteria are met; and

(4) the crew is qualified appropriately.

NCC.OP.111 Aerodrome operating minima - NPA, APV, CAT I operations

(a) The decision height (DH) to be used for a non-precision approach (NPA) flown with the continuous descentfinal approach (CDFA) technique, approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV) or category I (CAT I)operation shall not be lower than the highest of:



(1) the minimum height to which the approach aid can be used without the required visual reference;

(2) the obstacle clearance height (OCH) for the category of aircraft;

(3) the published approach procedure DH where applicable;

(4) the system minimum specified in Table 1; or

(5) the minimum DH specified in the AFM or equivalent document, if stated.

(b) The minimum descent height (MDH) for an NPA operation flown without the CDFA technique shall not belower than the highest of:

(1) the OCH for the category of aircraft;


(3) the minimum MDH specified in the AFM, if stated.

Table 1

System minima

Facility Lowest DH/MDH (ft)

Instrument landing system (ILS) 200

Global navigation satellite system (GNSS)/Satellite-based augmentation system (SBAS) (Lateral precisionwith vertical guidance approach (LPV))

200

GNSS (Lateral Navigation (LNAV)) 250

GNSS/Baro-vertical navigation (VNAV) (LNAV/VNAV) 250

Localiser (LOC) with or without distance measuringequipment (DME)

250

Surveillance radar approach (SRA) (terminating at ½NM)

250

SRA (terminating at 1 NM) 300

SRA (terminating at 2 NM or more) 350

VHF omnidirectional radio range (VOR) 300

VOR/DME 250

Non-directional beacon (NDB) 350

NDB/DME 300

VHF direction finder (VDF) 350

NCC.OP.112 Aerodrome operating minima - circling operations with aeroplanes

(a) The MDH for a circling operation with aeroplanes shall not be lower than the highest of:



(1) the published circling OCH for the aeroplane category;

(2) the minimum circling height derived from Table 1; or

(3) the DH/MDH of the preceding instrument approach procedure.

(b) The minimum visibility for a circling operation with aeroplanes shall be the highest of:

(1) the circling visibility for the aeroplane category, if published;

(2) the minimum visibility derived from Table 2; or

(3) the runway visual range/converted meteorological visibility (RVR/CMV) of the preceding instrumentapproach procedure.

Table 1

MDH and minimum visibility for circling vs. aeroplane category

Aeroplane category

A B C D

MDH (ft) 400 500 600 700

Minimum meteorological visibility (m) 1 500 1 600 2 400 3 600

NCC.OP.113 Aerodrome operating minima - onshore circling operations with helicopters

The MDH for an onshore circling operation with helicopters shall not be lower than 250 ft and the meteorologicalvisibility not less than 800 m.

NCC.OP.115 Departure and approach procedures

(a) The pilot-in-command shall use the departure and approach procedures established by the State of theaerodrome, if such procedures have been published for the runway or FATO to be used.

(b) Notwithstanding (a), the pilot-in-command shall only accept an ATC clearance to deviate from a publishedprocedure:

(1) provided that obstacle clearance criteria are observed and full account is taken of the operatingconditions; or

(2) when being radar-vectored by an ATC unit.

(c) In any case, the final approach segment shall be flown visually or in accordance with the published approachprocedures.

NCC.OP.120 Noise abatement procedures

The operator shall develop operating procedures taking into account the need to minimise the effect of aircraftnoise while ensuring that safety has priority over noise abatement.

NCC.OP.125 Minimum obstacle clearance altitudes - IFR flights

(a) The operator shall specify a method to establish minimum flight altitudes that provide the required terrainclearance for all route segments to be flown in IFR.

(b) The pilot-in-command shall establish minimum flight altitudes for each flight based on this method. Theminimum flight altitudes shall not be lower than that published by the State overflown.

NCC.OP.130 Fuel and oil supply - aeroplanes

(a) The pilot-in-command shall only commence a flight if the aeroplane carries sufficient fuel and oil for the



following:

(1) for visual flight rules (VFR) flights:

(i) by day, to fly to the aerodrome of intended landing and thereafter to fly for at least 30 minutes atnormal cruising altitude; or

(ii) by night, to fly to the aerodrome of intended landing and thereafter to fly for at least 45 minutes atnormal cruising altitude;

(2) for IFR flights:

(i) when no destination alternate is required, to fly to the aerodrome of intended landing, andthereafter to fly for at least 45 minutes at normal cruising altitude; or

(ii) when a destination alternate is required, to fly to the aerodrome of intended landing, to an alternateaerodrome and thereafter to fly for at least 45 minutes at normal cruising altitude.

(b) In computing the fuel required including to provide for contingency, the following shall be taken intoconsideration:

(1) forecast meteorological conditions;

(2) anticipated ATC routings and traffic delays;

(3) procedures for loss of pressurisation or failure of one engine while en-route, where applicable; and

(4) any other condition that may delay the landing of the aeroplane or increase fuel and/or oil consumption.

(c) Nothing shall preclude amendment of a flight plan in-flight, in order to re-plan the flight to another destination,provided that all requirements can be complied with from the point where the flight is re-planned.

NCC.OP.131 Fuel and oil supply - helicopters

(a) The pilot-in-command shall only commence a flight if the helicopter carries sufficient fuel and oil for thefollowing:

(1) for VFR flights, to fly to the aerodrome/operating site of intended landing and thereafter to fly for at least20 minutes at best-range-speed; and


(i) when no alternate is required or no weather-permissible alternate aerodrome is available, to fly tothe aerodrome/operating site of intended landing, and thereafter to fly for 30 minutes at holding speedat 450 m (1 500 ft) above the destination aerodrome/operating site under standard temperatureconditions and approach and land; or

(ii) when an alternate is required, to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at theaerodrome/operating site of intended landing, and thereafter:

(A) to fly to the specified alternate; and

(B) to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 m (1 500 ft) above the alternate aerodrome/operating site under standard temperature conditions and approach and land.





(4) any other condition that may delay the landing of the aircraft or increase fuel and/or oil consumption.

(c) Nothing shall preclude amendment of a flight plan in-flight, in order to re-plan the flight to another destination,



provided that all requirements can be complied with from the point where the flight is re-planned.

NCC.OP.135 Stowage of baggage and cargo

The operator shall establish procedures to ensure that:

(a) only hand baggage that can be adequately and securely stowed is taken into the passenger compartment;and

(b) all baggage and cargo on board that might cause injury or damage, or obstruct aisles and exits if displaced,is stowed so as to prevent movement.

NCC.OP.140 Passenger briefing

The pilot-in-command shall ensure that:

(a) prior to take-off passengers have been made familiar with the location and use of the following:

(1) seat belts;

(2) emergency exits; and

(3) passenger emergency briefing cards;

and if applicable:

(4) life-jackets;

(5) oxygen dispensing equipment;

(6) life-rafts; and

(7) other emergency equipment provided for individual passenger use;

and

(b) in an emergency during flight, passengers are instructed in such emergency action as may be appropriate tothe circumstances.

NCC.OP.145 Flight preparation

(a) Before commencing a flight, the pilot-in-command shall ascertain by every reasonable means available thatthe ground and/or water facilities including communication facilities and navigation aids available and directlyrequired on such flight, for the safe operation of the aircraft, are adequate for the type of operation under whichthe flight is to be conducted.

(b) Before commencing a flight, the pilot-in-command shall be familiar with all available meteorologicalinformation appropriate to the intended flight. Preparation for a flight away from the vicinity of the place ofdeparture, and for every flight under IFR, shall include:

(1) a study of available current weather reports and forecasts; and

(2) the planning of an alternative course of action to provide for the eventuality that the flight cannot becompleted as planned, because of weather conditions.

NCC.OP.150 Take-off alternate aerodromes - aeroplanes

(a) For IFR flights, the pilot-in-command shall specify at least one weather-permissible take-off alternateaerodrome in the flight plan if the weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure are at or below theapplicable aerodrome operating minima or it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome of departure forother reasons.

(b) The take-off alternate aerodrome shall be located within the following distance from the aerodrome ofdeparture:

(1) for aeroplanes having two engines, not more than a distance equivalent to a flight time of 1 hour at thesingle-engine cruise speed in still air standard conditions; and



(2) for aeroplanes having three or more engines, not more than a distance equivalent to a flight time of 2hours at the one-engine-inoperative (OEI) cruise speed according to the AFM in still air standardconditions.

(c) For an aerodrome to be selected as a take-off alternate aerodrome the available information shall indicatethat, at the estimated time of use, the conditions will be at or above the aerodrome operating minima for thatoperation.

NCC.OP.151 Destination alternate aerodromes - aeroplanes

For IFR flights, the pilot-in-command shall specify at least one weather-permissible destination alternateaerodrome in the flight plan, unless:

(a) the available current meteorological information indicates that, for the period from 1 hour before until 1 hourafter the estimated time of arrival, or from the actual time of departure to 1 hour after the estimated time ofarrival, whichever is the shorter period, the approach and landing may be made under visual meteorologicalconditions (VMC); or

(b) the place of intended landing is isolated and:

(1) an instrument approach procedure is prescribed for the aerodrome of intended landing; and

(2) available current meteorological information indicates that the following meteorological conditions willexist from 2 hours before to 2 hours after the estimated time of arrival:

(i) a cloud base of at least 300 m (1 000 ft) above the minimum associated with the instrumentapproach procedure; and

(ii) visibility of at least 5,5 km or of 4 km more than the minimum associated with the procedure.

NCC.OP.152 Destination alternate aerodromes - helicopters

For IFR flights, the pilot-in-command shall specify at least one weather-permissible destination alternate in theflight plan, unless:

(a) an instrument approach procedure is prescribed for the aerodrome of intended landing and the availablecurrent meteorological information indicates that the following meteorological conditions will exist from 2 hoursbefore to 2 hours after the estimated time of arrival, or from the actual time of departure to 2 hours after theestimated time of arrival, whichever is the shorter period:

(1) a cloud base of at least 120 m (400 ft) above the minimum associated with the instrument approachprocedure; and

(2) visibility of at least 1 500 m more than the minimum associated with the procedure; or


(1) an instrument approach procedure is prescribed for the aerodrome of intended landing;


(i) the cloud base is at least 120 m (400 ft) above the minimum associated with the instrumentapproach procedure;

(ii) visibility is at least 1 500 m more than the minimum associated with the procedure; and

(3) a point of no return (PNR) is determined in case of an offshore destination.

NCC.OP.155 Refuelling with passengers embarking, on board or disembarking

(a) The aircraft shall not be refuelled with aviation gasoline (AVGAS) or wide-cut type fuel or a mixture of thesetypes of fuel, when passengers are embarking, on board or disembarking.

(b) For all other types of fuel, necessary precautions shall be taken and the aircraft shall be properly manned byqualified personnel ready to initiate and direct an evacuation of the aircraft by the most practical and expeditious



means available.

NCC.OP.160 Use of headset

(a) Each flight crew member required to be on duty in the flight crew compartment shall wear a headset withboom microphone or equivalent. The headset shall be used as the primary device for voice communicationswith ATS:

(1) when on the ground:

(i) when receiving the ATC departure clearance via voice communication; and

(ii) when engines are running;

(2) when in flight:

(i) below transition altitude; or

(ii) 10 000 ft, whichever is higher;

and

(3) whenever deemed necessary by the pilot in command.

(b) In the conditions of (a), the boom microphone or equivalent shall be in a position that permits its use for two-way radio communications.

NCC.OP.165 Carriage of passengers

The operator shall establish procedures to ensure that:

(a) passengers are seated where, in the event that an emergency evacuation is required, they are able to assistand not hinder evacuation of the aircraft;

(b) prior to and during taxiing, take-off and landing, and whenever deemed necessary in the interest of safety bythe pilot-in-command, each passenger on board occupies a seat or berth and has his/her safety belt or restraintdevice properly secured; and

(c) multiple occupancy is only allowed on specified aircraft seats occupied by one adult and one infant properlysecured by a supplementary loop belt or other restraint device.

NCC.OP.170 Securing of passenger compartment and galley(s)

The pilot-in-command shall ensure that:

(a) before taxiing, take-off and landing, all exits and escape paths are unobstructed; and

(b) before take-off and landing, and whenever deemed necessary in the interest of safety, all equipment andbaggage are properly secured.

NCC.OP.175 Smoking on board

The pilot-in-command shall not allow smoking on board:

(a) whenever considered necessary in the interest of safety;

(b) during refuelling of the aircraft;

(c) while the aircraft is on the surface unless the operator has determined procedures to mitigate the risks duringground operations;

(d) outside designated smoking areas, in the aisle(s) and lavatory(ies);

(e) in cargo compartments and/or other areas where cargo is carried that is not stored in flame-resistantcontainers or covered by flame-resistant canvas; and

(f) in those areas of the passenger compartments where oxygen is being supplied.



NCC.OP.180 Meteorological conditions

(a) The pilot-in-command shall only commence or continue a VFR flight if the latest available meteorologicalinformation indicates that the weather conditions along the route and at the intended destination at theestimated time of use will be at or above the applicable VFR operating minima.

(b) The pilot-in-command shall only commence or continue an IFR flight towards the planned destinationaerodrome if the latest available meteorological information indicates that, at the estimated time of arrival, theweather conditions at the destination or at least one destination alternate aerodrome are at or above theapplicable aerodrome operating minima.

(c) If a flight contains VFR and IFR segments, the meteorological information referred to in (a) and (b) shall beapplicable as far as relevant.

NCC.OP.185 Ice and other contaminants - ground procedures

(a) The operator shall establish procedures to be followed when ground de-icing and anti-icing and relatedinspections of the aircraft are necessary to allow the safe operation of the aircraft.

(b) The pilot-in-command shall only commence take-off if the aircraft is clear of any deposit that might adverselyaffect the performance or controllability of the aircraft, except as permitted under the procedures referred to in(a) and in accordance with the AFM.

NCC.OP.190 Ice and other contaminants - flight procedures

(a) The operator shall establish procedures for flights in expected or actual icing conditions.

(b) The pilot-in-command shall only commence a flight or intentionally fly into expected or actual icing conditionsif the aircraft is certified and equipped and/or treated to operate safely in such conditions.

(c) If icing exceeds the intensity of icing for which the aircraft is certified or if an aircraft not certified for flight inknown icing conditions encounters icing, the pilot-in-command shall exit the icing conditions without delay, by achange of level and/or route, and if necessary by declaring an emergency to ATC.

NCC.OP.195 Take-off conditions

Before commencing take-off, the pilot-in-command shall be satisfied that:

(a) according to the information available, the weather at the aerodrome or operating site and the condition ofthe runway or FATO intended to be used would not prevent a safe take-off and departure; and

(b) applicable aerodrome operating minima will be complied with.

NCC.OP.200 Simulated situations in flight

(a) The pilot-in-command shall, when carrying passengers or cargo, not simulate:

(1) situations that require the application of abnormal or emergency procedures; or

(2) flight in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).

(b) Notwithstanding (a), when training flights are conducted by an approved training organisation, suchsituations may be simulated with student pilots on-board.

NCC.OP.205 In-flight fuel management

(a) The operator shall establish a procedure to ensure that in-flight fuel checks and fuel management areperformed.

(b) The pilot-in-command shall check at regular intervals that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is notless than the fuel required to proceed to a weather-permissible aerodrome or operating site and the plannedreserve fuel as required by NCC.OP.130 or NCC.OP.131.

NCC.OP.210 Use of supplemental oxygen

The pilot-in-command shall ensure that he/she and flight crew members engaged in performing duties essential



to the safe operation of an aircraft in flight use supplemental oxygen continuously whenever the cabin altitudeexceeds 10 000 ft for a period of more than 30 minutes and whenever the cabin altitude exceeds 13 000 ft.

NCC.OP.215 Ground proximity detection

When undue proximity to the ground is detected by a flight crew member or by a ground proximity warningsystem, the pilot flying shall take corrective action immediately in order to establish safe flight conditions.

NCC.OP.220 Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS)

(a) The operator shall establish operational procedures and training programs when ACAS is installed andserviceable so that the flight crew is appropriately trained in the avoidance of collisions and competent in theuse of ACAS II equipment.

(b) When ACAS II is used, such procedures and training shall ensure:

(1) ACAS II shall be used during flight except as provided in the minimum equipment list, in a mode thatenables RA indications to be produced for the flight crew when undue proximity to another aircraft isdetected, unless inhibition of RA indication mode (using TA indication only or equivalent) is called for by anabnormal procedure or due to performance limiting conditions.

(2) When an RA indication is produced by ACAS II:

(i) the pilot flying shall immediately conform to the indications of the RA indication, even if this conflictswith an air traffic control (ATC) instruction, unless doing so would jeopardise the safety of the aircraft;

(ii) the flight crew, as soon as permitted by workload, shall notify the appropriate ATC unit of any RAwhich requires a deviation from the current ATC instruction or clearance;

(iii) when the conflict is resolved the aircraft shall:

(A) be promptly returned to the terms of the acknowledged ATC instruction or clearance and ATCnotified of the manoeuvre or

(B) comply with any amended ATC clearance or instruction issued.

NCC.OP.225 Approach and landing conditions

Before commencing an approach to land, the pilot-in-command shall be satisfied that, according to theinformation available, the weather at the aerodrome or the operating site and the condition of the runway orFATO intended to be used would not prevent a safe approach, landing or missed approach.

NCC.OP.230 Commencement and continuation of approach

(a) The pilot-in-command may commence an instrument approach regardless of the reported runway visualrange/visibility (RVR/VIS).

(b) If the reported RVR/VIS is less than the applicable minimum the approach shall not be continued:

(1) below 1 000 ft above the aerodrome; or

(2) into the final approach segment in the case where the decision altitude/height (DA/H) or minimumdescent altitude/height (MDA/H) is more than 1 000 ft above the aerodrome.

(c) Where the RVR is not available, RVR values may be derived by converting the reported visibility.

(d) If, after passing 1 000 ft above the aerodrome, the reported RVR/VIS falls below the applicable minimum,the approach may be continued to DA/H or MDA/H.

(e) The approach may be continued below DA/H or MDA/H and the landing may be completed provided that thevisual reference adequate for the type of approach operation and for the intended runway is established at theDA/H or MDA/H and is maintained.

(f) The touchdown zone RVR shall always be controlling.



SUBPART C AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE AND OPERATING LIMITATIONS

NCC.POL.100 Operating limitations - all aircraft

(a) During any phase of operation, the loading, the mass and the centre of gravity (CG) position of the aircraftshall comply with any limitation specified in the AFM, or the operations manual, if more restrictive.

(b) Placards, listings, instrument markings, or combinations thereof, containing those operating limitationsprescribed by the AFM for visual presentation, shall be displayed in the aircraft.

NCC.POL.105 Mass and balance, loading

(a) The operator shall establish the mass and the CG of any aircraft by actual weighing prior to initial entry intoservice. The accumulated effects of modifications and repairs on the mass and balance shall be accounted forand properly documented. Aircraft shall be reweighed if the effect of modifications on the mass and balance isnot accurately known.

(b) The weighing shall be accomplished by the manufacturer of the aircraft or by an approved maintenanceorganisation.

(c) The operator shall determine the mass of all operating items and crew members included in the aircraft dryoperating mass by actual weighing, including any crew baggage, or by using standard masses. The influence oftheir position on the aircraft’s CG shall be determined. When using standard masses the following mass valuesfor crew members shall be used to determine the dry operating mass:

(1) 85 kg, including hand baggage, for flight crew/technical crew members; and

(2) 75 kg for cabin crew members.

(d) The operator shall establish procedures to enable the pilot-in-command to determine the mass of the trafficload, including any ballast, by:

(1) actual weighing;

(2) determining the mass of the traffic load in accordance with standard passenger and baggage masses;or

(3) calculating passenger mass on the basis of a statement by, or on behalf of, each passenger and addingto it a predetermined mass to account for hand baggage and clothing, when the number of passengerseats available on the aircraft is:

(i) less than 10 for aeroplanes; or

(ii) less than six for helicopters.

(e) When using standard masses the following mass values shall be used:

(1) for passengers, those in Tables 1 and 2, where hand baggage and the mass of any infant carried by anadult on one passenger seat are included:

Table 1

Standard masses for passengers - aircraft with a total number of passenger seats of 20 or more.

20 and more 30 and morePassenger seats

Male Female All adult

Adults 88 kg 70 kg 84 kg

Children 35 kg 35 kg 35 kg

Table 2



Standard masses for passengers - aircraft with a total number of passenger seats of 19 or less

Passenger seats 1 - 5 6 - 9 10 - 19

Male 104 kg 96 kg 92 kg

Female 86 kg 78 kg 74 kg

Children 35 kg 35 kg 35 kg

(2) for baggage:

(i) for aeroplanes, when the total number of passenger seats available on the aeroplane is 20 ormore, standard mass values for checked baggage in Table 3;

Table 3

Standard masses for baggage - aeroplanes with a total number of passenger seats of 20 or more

Planned duration of flight Baggage standard mass

Up to 1 hour 30 minutes 11 kg

Up to 4 hours 30 minutes 13 kg

More than 4 hours 30 minutes 15 kg

(ii) for helicopters, when the total number of passenger seats available on the helicopters is 20 ormore, the standard mass value for checked baggage of 13 kg.

(f) For aircraft with 19 passenger seats or less, the actual mass of checked baggage shall be determined:

(1) by weighing; or

(2) by calculation on the basis of a statement by, or on behalf of, each passenger. Where this is impractical,a minimum standard mass of 13 kg shall be used.

(g) The operator shall establish procedures to enable the pilot-in-command to determine the mass of the fuelload by using the actual density or, if not known, the density calculated in accordance with a method specified inthe operations manual.

(h) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that the loading of:

(1) the aircraft is performed under the supervision of qualified personnel; and

(2) traffic load is consistent with the data used for the calculation of the aircraft mass and balance.

(i) The operator shall establish procedures to enable the pilot-in-command to comply with additional structurallimits such as the floor strength limitations, the maximum load per running metre, the maximum mass per cargocompartment and the maximum seating limit.

(j) The operator shall specify, in the operations manual, the principles and methods involved in the loading andin the mass and balance system that meet the requirements contained in (a) to (i). This system shall cover alltypes of intended operations.

NCC.POL.110 Mass and balance data and documentation

(a) The operator shall establish mass and balance data and produce mass and balance documentation prior toeach flight specifying the load and its distribution in such a way that the mass and balance limits of the aircraftare not exceeded. The mass and balance documentation shall contain the following information:



(1) aircraft registration and type;

(2) flight identification, number and date, as applicable;

(3) name of the pilot-in-command;

(4) name of the person who prepared the document;

(5) dry operating mass and the corresponding CG of the aircraft;

(6) mass of the fuel at take-off and the mass of trip fuel;

(7) mass of consumables other than fuel, if applicable;

(8) load components including passengers, baggage, freight and ballast;

(9) take-off mass, landing mass and zero fuel mass;

(10) applicable aircraft CG positions; and

(11) the limiting mass and CG values.

(b) Where mass and balance data and documentation are generated by a computerised mass and balancesystem, the operator shall verify the integrity of the output data.

(c) When the loading of the aircraft is not supervised by the pilot-in-command, the person supervising theloading of the aircraft shall confirm by hand signature or equivalent that the load and its distribution are inaccordance with the mass and balance documentation established by the pilot-in-command. The pilot-in-command shall indicate his/her acceptance by hand signature or equivalent.

(d) The operator shall specify procedures for last minute changes to the load to ensure that:

(1) any last minute change after the completion of the mass and balance documentation is entered in theflight planning documents containing the mass and balance documentation;

(2) the maximum last minute change allowed in passenger numbers or hold load is specified; and

(3) new mass and balance documentation is prepared if this maximum number is exceeded.

NCC.POL.111 Mass and balance data and documentation - alleviations

Notwithstanding NCC.POL.110 (a)(5), the CG position may not need to be on the mass and balancedocumentation, if the load distribution is in accordance with a pre-calculated balance table or if it can be shownthat for the planned operations a correct balance can be ensured, whatever the real load is.

NCC.POL.115 Performance - general

The pilot-in-command shall only operate the aircraft if the performance is adequate to comply with theapplicable rules of the air and any other restrictions applicable to the flight, the airspace or the aerodromes oroperating sites used, taking into account the charting accuracy of any charts and maps used.

NCC.POL.120 Take-off mass limitations - aeroplanes

The operator shall ensure that:

(a) the mass of the aeroplane at the start of take-off shall not exceed the mass limitations:

(1) at take-off as required in NCC.POL.125;

(2) en-route with one engine inoperative (OEI) as required in NCC.POL.130; and

(3) at landing as required in NCC.POL.135;

allowing for expected reductions in mass as the flight proceeds and for fuel jettisoning;

(b) the mass at the start of take-off shall never exceed the maximum take-off mass specified in the AFM for thepressure altitude appropriate to the elevation of the aerodrome or operating site, and if used as a parameter todetermine the maximum take-off mass, any other local atmospheric condition; and



(c) the estimated mass for the expected time of landing at the aerodrome or operating site of intended landingand at any destination alternate aerodrome shall never exceed the maximum landing mass specified in the AFMfor the pressure altitude appropriate to the elevation of those aerodromes or operating sites, and if used as aparameter to determine the maximum landing mass, any other local atmospheric condition.

NCC.POL.125 Take-off - aeroplanes

(a) When determining the maximum take-off mass, the pilot-in-command shall take the following into account:

(1) the calculated take-off distance shall not exceed the take-off distance available with a clearwaydistance not exceeding half of the take-off run available;

(2) the calculated take-off run shall not exceed the take-off run available;

(3) a single value of V1 shall be used for the rejected and continued take-off, where a V1 is specified in theAFM; and

(4) on a wet or contaminated runway, the take-off mass shall not exceed that permitted for a take-off on adry runway under the same conditions.

(b) Except for an aeroplane equipped with turboprop engines and a maximum take-off mass at or below 5 700kg, in the event of an engine failure during take-off, the pilot-in-command shall ensure that the aeroplane is able:

(1) to discontinue the take-off and stop within the accelerate-stop distance available or the runwayavailable; or

(2) to continue the take-off and clear all obstacles along the flight path by an adequate margin until theaeroplane is in a position to comply with NCC.POL.130.

NCC.POL.130 En-route - one engine inoperative - aeroplanes

The pilot-in-command shall ensure that in the event of an engine becoming inoperative at any point along theroute, a multi-engined aeroplane shall be able to continue the flight to an adequate aerodrome or operating sitewithout flying below the minimum obstacle clearance altitude at any point.

NCC.POL.135 Landing - aeroplanes

The pilot-in-command shall ensure that at any aerodrome or operating site, after clearing all obstacles in theapproach path by a safe margin, the aeroplane shall be able to land and stop, or a seaplane to come to asatisfactorily low speed, within the landing distance available. Allowance shall be made for expected variationsin the approach and landing techniques, if such allowance has not been made in the scheduling of performancedata.



SUBPART D INSTRUMENTS, DATA AND EQUIPMENT

SECTION 1 Aeroplanes

NCC.IDE.A.100 Instruments and equipment - general

(a) Instruments and equipment required by this Subpart shall be approved in accordance with the applicableairworthiness requirements if they are:

(1) used by the flight crew to control the flight path;

(2) used to comply with NCC.IDE.A.245;

(3) used to comply with NCC.IDE.A.250; or

(4) installed in the aeroplane.

(b) The following items, when required by this Subpart, do not need an equipment approval:

(1) spare fuses;

(2) independent portable lights;

(3) an accurate time piece;

(4) chart holder;

(5) first-aid kits;

(6) survival and signalling equipment;

(7) sea anchor and equipment for mooring; and

(8) child restraint device.

(c) Instruments and equipment not required by this Subpart as well as any other equipment which is notrequired by other applicable Annexes, but is carried on a flight, shall comply with the following:

(1) the information provided by these instruments, equipment or accessories shall not be used by the flightcrew to comply with the applicable airworthiness requirements or NCC.IDE.A.245 and NCC.IDE.A.250; and

(2) the instruments and equipment shall not affect the airworthiness of the aeroplane, even in the case offailures or malfunction.

(d) Instruments and equipment shall be readily operable or accessible from the station where the flight crewmember that needs to use it is seated.

(e) Those instruments that are used by a flight crew member shall be so arranged as to permit the flight crewmember to see the indications readily from his/her station, with the minimum practicable deviation from theposition and line of vision which he/she normally assumes when looking forward along the flight path.

(f) All required emergency equipment shall be easily accessible for immediate use.

NCC.IDE.A.105 Minimum equipment for flight

A flight shall not be commenced when any of the aeroplane’s instruments, items of equipment, or functions,required for the intended flight are inoperative or missing, unless:

(a) the aeroplane is operated in accordance with the operator’s minimum equipment list (MEL);

(b) the operator is approved by the QCAA to operate the aeroplane within the constraints of the masterminimum equipment list (MMEL); or

(c) the aeroplane is subject to a permit to fly issued in accordance with the applicable airworthinessrequirements.



NCC.IDE.A.110 Spare electrical fuses

Aeroplanes shall be equipped with spare electrical fuses, of the ratings required for complete circuit protection,for replacement of those fuses that are allowed to be replaced in flight.

NCC.IDE.A.115 Operating lights

Aeroplanes operated at night shall be equipped with:

(a) an anti-collision light system;

(b) navigation/position lights;

(c) a landing light;

(d) lighting supplied from the aeroplane’s electrical system to provide adequate illumination for all instrumentsand equipment essential to the safe operation of the aeroplane;

(e) lighting supplied from the aeroplane’s electrical system to provide illumination in all passengercompartments;

(f) an independent portable light for each crew member station; and

(g) lights to conform with the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea if the aeroplane isoperated as a seaplane.

NCC.IDE.A.120 Operations under VFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment

(a) Aeroplanes operated under VFR by day shall be equipped with a means of measuring and displaying thefollowing:

(1) magnetic-heading;

(2) time in hours, minutes and seconds;

(3) pressure altitude;

(4) indicated airspeed;

(5) slip; and

(6) Mach number whenever speed limitations are expressed in terms of Mach number.

(b) Aeroplanes operated under visual meteorological conditions (VMC) over water and out of sight of the land,or under VMC at night, or in conditions where the aeroplane cannot be maintained in a desired flight pathwithout reference to one or more additional instruments, shall be, in addition to (a), equipped with:

(1) a means of measuring and displaying the following:

(i) turn and slip;

(ii) attitude;

(iii) vertical speed; and

(iv) stabilised heading;

(2) a means of indicating when the supply of power to the gyroscopic instruments is not adequate; and

(3) a means of preventing malfunction of the airspeed indicating system required in (a)(4) due tocondensation or icing.

(c) Whenever two pilots are required for the operation, aeroplanes shall be equipped with an additional separatemeans of displaying the following:





(3) slip, or turn and slip, as applicable;

(4) attitude, if applicable;

(5) vertical speed, if applicable;

(6) stabilised heading, if applicable; and

(7) Mach number whenever speed limitations are expressed in terms of Mach number, if applicable.

NCC.IDE.A.125 Operations under IFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment

Aeroplanes operated under IFR shall be equipped with:

(a) a means of measuring and displaying the following:

(1) magnetic heading;




(5) vertical speed;

(6) turn and slip;

(7) attitude;

(8) stabilised heading;

(9) outside air temperature; and

(10) Mach number whenever speed limitations are expressed in terms of Mach number;

(b) a means of indicating when the supply of power to the gyroscopic instruments is not adequate;

(c) whenever two pilots are required for the operation, an additional separate means of displaying for the secondpilot:



(3) vertical speed;

(4) turn and slip;

(5) attitude;

(6) stabilised heading; and

(7) Mach number whenever speed limitations are expressed in terms of Mach number, if applicable;

(d) a means of preventing malfunction of the airspeed indicating systems required in (a)(4) and (c)(2) due tocondensation or icing;

(e) an alternate source of static pressure;

(f) a chart holder in an easily readable position that can be illuminated for night operations;

(g) a second independent means of measuring and displaying altitude; and

(h) an emergency power supply, independent of the main electrical generating system, for the purpose ofoperating and illuminating an attitude indicating system for a minimum period of 30 minutes. The emergencypower supply shall be automatically operative after the total failure of the main electrical generating system andclear indication shall be given on the instrument that the attitude indicator is being operated by emergencypower.



NCC.IDE.A.130 Additional equipment for single-pilot operations under IFR

Aeroplanes operated under IFR with a single pilot shall be equipped with an autopilot with at least altitude holdand heading mode.

NCC.IDE.A.135 Terrain awareness warning system (TAWS)

Turbine-powered aeroplanes with a maximum certified take-off mass (MCTOM) of more than 5 700 kg or amaximum operational passenger seating configuration (MOPSC) of more than nine shall be equipped with aTAWS that meets the requirements for:

(a) class A equipment, as specified in an acceptable standard, in the case of aeroplanes for which the individualcertificate of airworthiness (CofA) was first issued after 1 January 2011; or

(b) class B equipment, as specified in an acceptable standard, in the case of aeroplanes for which the individualCofA was first issued on or before 1 January 2011.

NCC.IDE.A.140 Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS)

(a) Turbine-powered aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more than 5 700 kg or an MOPSC of more than 19 shall beequipped with avoidance logic version 7.1 of ACAS II.

(b) Aircraft not referred to in paragraph (a) but which are equipped with ACAS II shall have collision avoidancelogic version 7.1.

NCC.IDE.A.145 Airborne weather detecting equipment

The following aeroplanes shall be equipped with airborne weather detecting equipment when operated at nightor in IMC in areas where thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous weather conditions, regarded asdetectable with airborne weather detecting equipment, may be expected to exist along the route:

(a) pressurised aeroplanes;

(b) non-pressurised aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more than 5 700 kg; and

(c) non-pressurised aeroplanes with an MOPSC of more than nine.

NCC.IDE.A.150 Additional equipment for operations in icing conditions at night

(a) Aeroplanes operated in expected or actual icing conditions at night shall be equipped with a means toilluminate or detect the formation of ice.

(b) The means to illuminate the formation of ice shall not cause glare or reflection that would handicap flightcrew members in the performance of their duties.

NCC.IDE.A.155 Flight crew interphone system

Aeroplanes operated by more than one flight crew member shall be equipped with a flight crew interphonesystem, including headsets and microphones for use by all flight crew members.

NCC.IDE.A.160 Cockpit voice recorder

(a) The following aeroplanes shall be equipped with a CVR:

(1) aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more than 27 000 kg and first issued with an individual CofA on or after1 January 2016; and

(2) aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more than 2 250 kg:

(i) certified for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots;

(ii) equipped with turbojet engine(s) or more than one turboprop engine; and

(iii) for which a type certificate is first issued on or after 1 January 2016.

(b) The CVR shall be capable of retaining data recorded during at least:



(1) the preceding 25 hours for aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more than 27 000 kg and first issuedwith anindividual CofA on or after 1 January 2021; or

(2) the preceding 2 hours in all other cases.’.

(c) The CVR shall record with reference to a timescale:

(1) voice communications transmitted from or received in the flight crew compartment by radio;

(2) flight crew members’ voice communications using the interphone system and the public addresssystem, if installed;

(3) the aural environment of the flight crew compartment, including, without interruption, the audio signalsreceived from each boom and mask microphone in use; and

(4) voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker.

(d) The CVR shall start automatically to record prior to the aeroplane moving under its own power and shallcontinue to record until the termination of the flight when the aeroplane is no longer capable of moving under itsown power.

(e) In addition to (d), depending on the availability of electrical power, the CVR shall start to record as early aspossible during the cockpit checks prior to engine start at the beginning of the flight until the cockpit checksimmediately following engine shutdown at the end of the flight.

(f) If the CVR is not deployable, it shall have a device to assist in locating it under water. By 1 January 2020 atthe latest, this device shall have a minimum underwater transmission time of 90 days. If the CVR is deployable,it shall have an automatic emergency locator transmitter..

NCC.IDE.A.165 Flight data recorder

(a) Aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more than 5 700 kg and first issued with an individual CofA on or after 1January 2016 shall be equipped with an FDR that uses a digital method of recording and storing data and forwhich a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium is available.

(b) The FDR shall record the parameters required to determine accurately the aeroplane flight path, speed,attitude, engine power, configuration and operation and be capable of retaining data recorded during at least thepreceding 25 hours.

(c) Data shall be obtained from aeroplane sources that enable accurate correlation with information displayed tothe flight crew.

(d) The FDR shall start automatically to record the data prior to the aeroplane being capable of moving under itsown power and shall stop automatically after the aeroplane is incapable of moving under its own power.

(e) If the FDR is not deployable, it shall have a device to assist in locating it under water. By 1 January 2020at the latest, this device shall have a minimum underwater transmission time of 90 days. If the FDRis deployable, it shall have an automatic emergency locator transmitter.

NCC.IDE.A.170 Data link recording

(a) Aeroplanes first issued with an individual CofA on or after 1 January 2016 that have the capability to operatedata link communications and are required to be equipped with a CVR shall record on a recorder, whereapplicable:

(1) data link communication messages related to ATS communications to and from the aeroplane,including messages applying to the following applications:

(i) data link initiation;

(ii) controller-pilot communication;

(iii) addressed surveillance;

(iv) flight information;



(v) as far as is practicable, given the architecture of the system, aircraft broadcast surveillance;

(vi) as far as is practicable, given the architecture of the system, aircraft operational control data; and

(vii) as far as is practicable, given the architecture of the system, graphics;

(2) information that enables correlation to any associated records related to data link communications andstored separately from the aeroplane; and

(3) information on the time and priority of data link communications messages, taking into account thesystem’s architecture.

(b) The recorder shall use a digital method of recording and storing data and information and a method forreadily retrieving that data. The recording method shall allow the data to match the data recorded on the ground.

(c) The recorder shall be capable of retaining data recorded for at least the same duration as set out for CVRs inNCC.IDE.A.160.

(d) If the recorder is not deployable, it shall have a device to assist in locating it under water. By 1 January2020 at the latest, this device shall have a minimum underwater transmission time of 90 days. If the recorderis deployable, it shall have an automatic emergency locator transmitter.

(e) The requirements applicable to the start and stop logic of the recorder are the same as the requirementsapplicable to the start and stop logic of the CVR contained in NCC.IDE.A.160(d) and (e).

NCC.IDE.A.175 Flight data and cockpit voice combination recorder

Compliance with CVR requirements and FDR requirements may be achieved by:

(a) one flight data and cockpit voice combination recorder if the aeroplane has to be equipped with a CVR or anFDR; or

(b) two flight data and cockpit voice combination recorders if the aeroplane has to be equipped with a CVR andan FDR.

NCC.IDE.A.180 Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices

(a) Aeroplanes shall be equipped with:

(1) a seat or berth for each person on board who is aged 24 months or more;

(2) a seat belt on each passenger seat and restraining belts for each berth;

(3) a child restraint device (CRD) for each person on board younger than 24 months;

(4) a seat belt with upper torso restraint system incorporating a device that will automatically restrain theoccupant’s torso in the event of rapid deceleration:

(i) on each flight crew seat and on any seat alongside a pilot’s seat; and

(ii) on each observer’s seat located in the flight crew compartment;

and

(5) a seat belt with upper torso restraint system on the seats for the minimum required cabin crew, in the case ofaeroplanes first issued with an individual CofA after 31 December 1980.

(b) A seat belt with upper torso restraint system shall have:

(1) a single point release;

(2) on the seats for the minimum required cabin crew, two shoulder straps and a seat belt that may beused independently; and

(3) on flight crew seats and on any seat alongside a pilot's seat:

(i) two shoulder straps and a seat belt that may be used independently; or



(ii) a diagonal shoulder strap and a seat belt that may be used independently for the followingaeroplanes:

(A) aeroplanes with an MCTOM of less than 5 700 kg and with an MOPSC of less than nine thatare compliant with the emergency landing dynamic conditions defined in the applicablecertification specification;

(B) aeroplanes with an MCTOM of less than 5 700 kg and with an MOPSC of less than nine thatare not compliant with the emergency landing dynamic conditions defined in the applicablecertification specification and having an individual CofA first issued before 25 August 2016.

NCC.IDE.A.185 Fasten seat belt and no smoking signs

Aeroplanes in which not all passenger seats are visible from the flight crew seat(s) shall be equipped with ameans of indicating to all passengers and cabin crew when seat belts shall be fastened and when smoking isnot allowed.

NCC.IDE.A.190 First-aid kit

(a) Aeroplanes shall be equipped with first-aid kits in accordance with Table 1.

Table 1

Number of first-aid kits required

Number of passenger seats installed Number of first-aid kits required

0 - 100 1

101 - 200 2

201 - 300 3

301 - 400 4

401 - 500 5

501 or more 6

(b) First-aid kits shall be:

(1) readily accessible for use; and

(2) kept up-to-date.

NCC.IDE.A.195 Supplemental oxygen - pressurised aeroplanes

(a) Pressurised aeroplanes operated at flight altitudes for which the oxygen supply is required in accordancewith (b) shall be equipped with oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus capable of storing and dispensing therequired oxygen supplies.

(b) Pressurised aeroplanes operated above flight altitudes at which the pressure altitude in the passengercompartments is above 10 000 ft shall carry enough breathing oxygen to supply:

(1) all crew members and:

(i) 100 % of the passengers for any period when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15 000 ft, but in nocase less than 10 minutes’ supply;

(ii) at least 30 % of the passengers, for any period when, in the event of loss of pressurisation andtaking into account the circumstances of the flight, the pressure altitude in the passengercompartment will be between 14 000 ft and 15 000 ft; and



(iii) at least 10 % of the passengers for any period in excess of 30 minutes when the pressure altitudein the passenger compartment will be between 10 000 ft and 14 000 ft;

(2) all the occupants of the passenger compartment for no less than 10 minutes, in the case of aeroplanesoperated at pressure altitudes above 25 000 ft, or operated below that altitude, but under conditions thatwill not allow them to descend safely to a pressure altitude of 13 000 ft within 4 minutes.

(c) Pressurised aeroplanes operated at flight altitudes above 25 000 ft shall, in addition, be equipped with:

(1) a device to provide a warning indication to the flight crew of any loss of pressurisation; and

(2) quick donning masks for flight crew members.

NCC.IDE.A.200 Supplemental oxygen - non-pressurised aeroplanes

(a) Non-pressurised aeroplanes operated at flight altitudes when the oxygen supply is required in accordancewith (b) shall be equipped with oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus capable of storing and dispensing therequired oxygen supplies.

(b) Non-pressurised aeroplanes operated above flight altitudes at which the pressure altitude in the passengercompartments is above 10 000 ft shall carry enough breathing oxygen to supply:

(1) all crew members and at least 10 % of the passengers for any period in excess of 30 minutes when thepressure altitude in the passenger compartment will be between 10 000 ft and 13 000 ft; and

(2) all crew members and passengers for any period that the pressure altitude in the passengercompartments will be above 13 000 ft.

NCC.IDE.A.205 Hand fire extinguishers

(a) Aeroplanes shall be equipped with at least one hand fire extinguisher:

(1) in the flight crew compartment; and

(2) in each passenger compartment that is separate from the flight crew compartment, except if thecompartment is readily accessible to the flight crew.

(b) The type and quantity of extinguishing agent for the required fire extinguishers shall be suitable for the typeof fire likely to occur in the compartment where the extinguisher is intended to be used and to minimise thehazard of toxic gas concentration in compartments occupied by persons.

NCC.IDE.A.206 Crash axe and crowbar

(a) Aeroplanes with an MCTOM of more than 5 700 kg or with an MOPSC of more than nine shall be equippedwith at least one crash axe or crowbar located in the flight crew compartment.

(b) In the case of aeroplanes with an MOPSC of more than 200, an additional crash axe or crowbar shall beinstalled in or near the rearmost galley area.

(c) Crash axes and crowbars located in the passenger compartment shall not be visible to passengers.

NCC.IDE.A.210 Marking of break-in points

If areas of the aeroplane’s fuselage suitable for break-in by rescue crews in an emergency are marked, suchareas shall be marked as shown in Figure 1.



NCC.IDE.A.215 Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)


(1) an ELT of any type or an aircraft localisation means meeting the requirement of Annex IV (PartCAT), CAT.GEN.MPA.210, to this Regulation, when first issued with an individual CofA on or before 1 July2008;

(2) an automatic ELT or an aircraft localisation means meeting the requirement of Annex IV (Part CAT),CAT.GEN.MPA.210, to this Regulation, when first issued with an individual CofA after 1 July 2008.

(b) ELTs of any type shall be capable of transmitting simultaneously on 121,5 MHz and 406 MHz.

NCC.IDE.A.220 Flight over water

(a) The following aeroplanes shall be equipped with a life-jacket for each person on board or equivalentindividual floatation device for each person on board younger than 24 months, stowed in a position that isreadily accessible from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided:

(1) landplanes operated over water at a distance of more than 50 NM from land or taking off or landing atan aerodrome or operating site where, in the opinion of the pilot-in-command, the take-off or approach pathis so disposed over water that there would be a likelihood of a ditching; and

(2) seaplanes operated over water.

(b) Each life-jacket or equivalent individual flotation device shall be equipped with a means of electricillumination for the purpose of facilitating the location of persons.

(c) Seaplanes operated over water shall be equipped with:

(1) a sea anchor and other equipment necessary to facilitate mooring, anchoring or manoeuvring theaeroplane on water, appropriate to its size, weight and handling characteristics; and

(2) equipment for making the sound signals as prescribed in the International Regulations for PreventingCollisions at Sea, where applicable.

(d) The pilot-in-command of an aeroplane operated at a distance away from land where an emergency landingis possible greater than that corresponding to 30 minutes at normal cruising speed or 50 NM, whichever is thelesser, shall determine the risks to survival of the occupants of the aeroplane in the event of a ditching, basedon which he/she shall determine the carriage of:

(1) equipment for making the distress signals;

(2) life-rafts in sufficient numbers to carry all persons on board, stowed so as to facilitate their ready use inemergency; and



(3) life-saving equipment to provide the means of sustaining life, as appropriate to the flight to beundertaken.

NCC.IDE.A.230 Survival equipment

(a) Aeroplanes operated over areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult shall be equippedwith:

(1) signalling equipment to make the distress signals;

(2) at least one survival ELT(S); and

(3) additional survival equipment for the route to be flown taking account of the number of persons onboard.

(b) The additional survival equipment specified in (a)(3) does not need to be carried when the aeroplane:

(1) remains within a distance from an area where search and rescue is not especially difficultcorresponding to:

(i) 120 minutes at one-engine-inoperative (OEI) cruising speed for aeroplanes capable of continuingthe flight to an aerodrome with the critical engine(s) becoming inoperative at any point along the routeor planned diversion routes; or

(ii) 30 minutes at cruising speed for all other aeroplanes;

or

(2) remains within a distance no greater than that corresponding to 90 minutes at cruising speed from anarea suitable for making an emergency landing, for aeroplanes certified in accordance with the applicableairworthiness standard.

NCC.IDE.A.240 Headset

(a) Aeroplanes shall be equipped with a headset with a boom microphone or equivalent for each flight crewmember at their assigned station in the flight crew compartment.

(b) Aeroplanes operated under IFR or at night shall be equipped with a transmit button on the manual pitch androll control for each required flight crew member.

NCC.IDE.A.245 Radio communication equipment

(a) Aeroplanes operated under IFR or at night, or when required by the applicable airspace requirements, shallbe equipped with radio communication equipment that, under normal radio propagating conditions, shall becapable of:

(1) conducting two-way communication for aerodrome control purposes;

(2) receiving meteorological information at any time during flight;

(3) conducting two-way communication at any time during flight with those aeronautical stations and onthose frequencies prescribed by the appropriate authority; and

(4) providing for communication on the aeronautical emergency frequency 121,5 MHz.

(b) When more than one communication equipment unit is required, each shall be independent of the other orothers to the extent that a failure in any one will not result in failure of any other.

NCC.IDE.A.250 Navigation equipment

(a) Aeroplanes shall be equipped with navigation equipment that will enable them to proceed in accordancewith:

(1) the ATS flight plan, if applicable; and

(2) the applicable airspace requirements.



(b) Aeroplanes shall have sufficient navigation equipment to ensure that, in the event of the failure of one item ofequipment at any stage of the flight, the remaining equipment shall allow safe navigation in accordance with (a),or an appropriate contingency action, to be completed safely.

(c) Aeroplanes operated on flights in which it is intended to land in IMC shall be equipped with suitableequipment capable of providing guidance to a point from which a visual landing can be performed. Thisequipment shall be capable of providing such guidance for each aerodrome at which it is intended to land inIMC and for any designated alternate aerodromes.

NCC.IDE.A.255 Transponder

Aeroplanes shall be equipped with a pressure altitude reporting secondary surveillance radar (SSR)transponder and any other SSR transponder capability required for the route being flown.

NCC.IDE.A.260 Electronic navigation data management

(a) The operator shall only use electronic navigation data products that support a navigation application meetingstandards of integrity that are adequate for the intended use of the data.

(b) When the electronic navigation data products support a navigation application needed for an operation forwhich Annex V (Part-SPA) to this Regulation requires an approval, the operator shall demonstrate to theQCAA that the process applied and the delivered products meet standards of integrity that are adequate for theintended use of the data.

(c) The operator shall continuously monitor both the process and the products, either directly or by monitoringthe compliance of third party providers.

(d) The operator shall ensure the timely distribution and insertion of current and unaltered electronic navigationdata to all aeroplanes that require it.

NCC.IDE.A.265 Cosmic radiation detection equipment

All aeroplanes intended to be operated above 15 000 m (49 000 ft) shall carry equipment to measure andindicate continuously the dose rate of total cosmic radiation being received (i.e. the total of ionizing and neutronradiation of galactic and solar origin) and the cumulative dose on each flight. The display unit of the equipmentshall be readily visible to a flight crew member.



SECTION 2 Helicopters

NCC.IDE.H.100 Instruments and equipment - general



(2) used to comply with NCC.IDE.H.245;

(3) used to comply with NCC.IDE.H.250; or

(4) installed in the helicopter.


(1) independent portable light;


(3) chart holder;

(4) first-aid kit;




(c) Instruments and equipment not required by this Subpart as well as any other equipment which is notrequired by other applicable Annexes, but is carried on a flight, shall comply with the following:

(1) the information provided by these instruments, equipment or accessories shall not be used by the flightcrew to comply with the applicable airworthiness requirements or NCC.IDE.H.245 and NCC.IDE.H.250;and

(2) the instruments and equipment shall not affect the airworthiness of the helicopter, even in the case offailures or malfunction.


(e) Those instruments that are used by a flight crew member shall be so arranged as to permit the flight crewmember to see the indications readily from his/her station, with the minimum practicable deviation from theposition and line of vision which he/she normally assumes when looking forward along the flight path.

(f) All required emergency equipment shall be easily accessible for immediate use.

NCC.IDE.H.105 Minimum equipment for flight

A flight shall not be commenced when any of the helicopter’s instruments, items of equipment or functionsrequired for the intended flight are inoperative or missing, unless:

(a) the helicopter is operated in accordance with the operator’s minimum equipment list (MEL);

(b) the operator is approved by the QCAA to operate the helicopter within the constraints of the master minimumequipment list (MMEL); or

(c) the helicopter is subject to a permit to fly issued in accordance with the applicable airworthinessrequirements.

NCC.IDE.H.115 Operating lights

Helicopters operated at night shall be equipped with:






(d) lighting supplied from the helicopter’s electrical system to provide adequate illumination for all instrumentsand equipment essential to the safe operation of the helicopter;

(e) lighting supplied from the helicopter’s electrical system to provide illumination in all passengercompartments;


(g) lights to conform with the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea if the helicopter isamphibious.

NCC.IDE.H.120 Operations under VFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment

(a) Helicopters operated under VFR by day shall be equipped with a means of measuring and displaying thefollowing:




(4) indicated airspeed; and

(5) slip.

(b) Helicopters operated under VMC over water and out of sight of the land, or under VMC at night, or when thevisibility is less than 1 500 m, or in conditions where the helicopter cannot be maintained in a desired flight pathwithout reference to one or more additional instruments, shall be equipped, in addition to (a), with:


(i) attitude;

(ii) vertical speed; and

(iii) stabilised heading;

(2) a means of indicating when the supply of power to the gyroscopic instruments is not adequate; and

(3) a means of preventing malfunction of the airspeed indicating system required in (a)(4) due tocondensation or icing.

(c) Whenever two pilots are required for the operation, helicopters shall be equipped with an additional separatemeans of displaying the following:



(3) slip;

(4) attitude, if applicable;

(5) vertical speed, if applicable; and

(6) stabilised heading, if applicable.

NCC.IDE.H.125 Operations under IFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment

Helicopters operated under IFR shall be equipped with:








(5) vertical speed;

(6) slip;

(7) attitude;


(9) outside air temperature;


(c) whenever two pilots are required for the operation, an additional separate means of displaying the following:



(3) vertical speed;

(4) slip;

(5) attitude; and


(d) a means of preventing malfunction of the airspeed indicating systems required in (a)(4) and (c)(2) due tocondensation or icing;

(e) an alternate source of static pressure;

(f) a chart holder in an easily readable position that can be illuminated for night operations; and

(g) an additional means of measuring and displaying attitude as a standby instrument.

NCC.IDE.H.130 Additional equipment for single-pilot operations under IFR

Helicopters operated under IFR with a single pilot shall be equipped with an autopilot with at least altitude holdand heading mode.

NCC.IDE.H.145 Airborne weather detecting equipment

Helicopters with an MOPSC of more than nine and operated under IFR or at night shall be equipped withairborne weather detecting equipment when current weather reports indicate that thunderstorms or otherpotentially hazardous weather conditions, regarded as detectable with airborne weather detecting equipment,may be expected to exist along the route to be flown.

NCC.IDE.H.150 Additional equipment for operations in icing conditions at night

(a) Helicopters operated in expected or actual icing conditions at night shall be equipped with a means toilluminate or detect the formation of ice.

(b) The means to illuminate the formation of ice shall not cause glare or reflection that would handicap flightcrew members in the performance of their duties.

NCC.IDE.H.155 Flight crew interphone system

Helicopters operated by more than one flight crew member shall be equipped with a flight crew interphonesystem, including headsets and microphones for use by all flight crew members.



NCC.IDE.H.160 Cockpit voice recorder

(a) Helicopters with an MCTOM of more than 7 000 kg and first issued with an individual CofA on or after 1January 2016 shall be equipped with a CVR.

(b) The CVR shall be capable of retaining data recorded during at least the preceding 2 hours.

(c) The CVR shall record with reference to a timescale:

(1) voice communications transmitted from or received in the flight crew compartment by radio;

(2) flight crew members’ voice communications using the interphone system and the public addresssystem, if installed;

(3) the aural environment of the cockpit, including, without interruption, the audio signals received fromeach crew microphone; and

(4) voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker.

(d) The CVR shall start automatically to record prior to the helicopter moving under its own power and shallcontinue to record until the termination of the flight when the helicopter is no longer capable of moving under itsown power.

(e) In addition to (d), depending on the availability of electrical power, the CVR shall start to record as early aspossible during the cockpit checks prior to engine start at the beginning of the flight until the cockpit checksimmediately following engine shutdown at the end of the flight.

(f) If the CVR is not deployable, it shall have a device to assist in locating it under water. By 1 January 2020at the latest, this device shall have a minimum underwater transmission time of 90 days. If the CVRis deployable, it shall have an automatic emergency locator transmitter.

NCC.IDE.H.165 Flight data recorder

(a) Helicopters with an MCTOM of more than 3 175 kg and first issued with an individual CofA on or after 1January 2016 shall be equipped with an FDR that uses a digital method of recording and storing data and forwhich a method of readily retrieving that data from the storage medium is available.

(b) The FDR shall record the parameters required to determine accurately the helicopter flight path, speed,attitude, engine power, configuration and operation and be capable of retaining data recorded during at least thepreceding 10 hours.

(c) Data shall be obtained from helicopter sources that enable accurate correlation with information displayed tothe flight crew.

(d) The FDR shall start automatically to record the data prior to the helicopter being capable of moving under itsown power and shall stop automatically after the helicopter is incapable of moving under its own power.

(e) If the FDR is not deployable, it shall have a device to assist in locating it under water. By 1 January 2020at the latest, this device shall have a minimum underwater transmission time of 90 days. If the FDRis deployable, it shall have an automatic emergency locator transmitter..

NCC.IDE.H.170 Data link recording

(a) Helicopters first issued with an individual CofA on or after 1 January 2016 that have the capability to operatedata link communications and are required to be equipped with a CVR shall record on a recorder, whereapplicable:

(1) data link communication messages related to ATS communications to and from the helicopter, includingmessages applying to the following applications:

(i) data link initiation;

(ii) controller-pilot communication;

(iii) addressed surveillance;



(iv) flight information;

(v) as far as is practicable, given the architecture of the system, aircraft broadcast surveillance;

(vi) as far as is practicable, given the architecture of the system, aircraft operational control data; and

(vii) as far as is practicable, given the architecture of the system, graphics;

(2) information that enables correlation to any associated records related to data link communications andstored separately from the helicopter; and

(3) information on the time and priority of data link communications messages, taking into account thesystem’s architecture.

(b) The recorder shall use a digital method of recording and storing data and information and a method forreadily retrieving that data. The recording method shall allow the data to match the data recorded on the ground.

(c) The recorder shall be capable of retaining data recorded for at least the same duration as set out for CVRs inNCC.IDE.H.160.

(d) If the recorder is not deployable, it shall have a device to assist in locating it under water. By 1 January2020 at the latest, this device shall have a minimum underwater transmission time of 90 days. If the recorderis deployable, it shall have an automatic emergency locator transmitter.

(e) The requirements applicable to the start and stop logic of the recorder are the same as the requirementsapplicable to the start and stop logic of the CVR contained in NCC.IDE.H.160(d) and (e).

NCC.IDE.H.175 Flight data and cockpit voice combination recorder

Compliance with CVR and FDR requirements may be achieved by one flight data and cockpit voice combinationrecorder.

NCC.IDE.H.180 Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices

(a) Helicopters shall be equipped with:



(3) for helicopters first issued with an individual CofA after 31 December 2012, a seat belt with an uppertorso restraint system for each passenger who is aged 24 months or more;

(4) a child restraint device (CRD) for each person on board younger than 24 months;

(5) a seat belt with upper torso restraint system incorporating a device that will automatically restrain theoccupant’s torso in the event of rapid deceleration on each flight crew seat; and

(6) a seat belt with upper torso restraint system on the seats for the minimum required cabin crew, in thecase of helicopters first issued with an individual CofA after 31 December 1980.

(b) A seat belt with upper torso restraint system shall:

(1) have a single point release; and

(2) on flight crew seats, on any seat alongside a pilot’s seat and on the seats for the minimum requiredcabin crew, include two shoulder straps and a seat belt that may be used independently.

NCC.IDE.H.185 Fasten seat belt and no smoking signs

Helicopters in which not all passenger seats are visible from the flight crew seat(s) shall be equipped with ameans of indicating to all passengers and cabin crew when seat belts shall be fastened and when smoking isnot allowed.

NCC.IDE.H.190 First-aid kit

(a) Helicopters shall be equipped with at least one first-aid kit.



(b) The first-aid kit(s) shall be:



NCC.IDE.H.200 Supplemental oxygen - non-pressurised helicopters

(a) Non-pressurised helicopters operated at flight altitudes when the oxygen supply is required in accordancewith (b) shall be equipped with oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus capable of storing and dispensing therequired oxygen supplies.

(b) Non-pressurised helicopters operated above flight altitudes at which the pressure altitude in the passengercompartments is above 10 000 ft shall carry enough breathing oxygen to supply:

(1) all crew members and at least 10 % of the passengers for any period in excess of 30 minutes when thepressure altitude in the passenger compartment will be between 10 000 ft and 13 000 ft; and

(2) all crew members and passengers for any period that the pressure altitude in the passengercompartment will be above 13 000 ft.

NCC.IDE.H.205 Hand fire extinguishers

(a) Helicopters shall be equipped with at least one hand fire extinguisher:




NCC.IDE.H.210 Marking of break-in points

If areas of the helicopter’s fuselage suitable for break-in by rescue crews in an emergency are marked, suchareas shall be marked as shown in Figure 1.

NCC.IDE.H.215 Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)

(a) Helicopters shall be equipped with at least one automatic ELT.

(b) Helicopters operating on a flight over water in support of offshore operations in a hostile environment and ata distance from land corresponding to more than 10 minutes flying time at normal cruising speed, where in thecase of the critical engine failure, the helicopter is able to sustain level flight, shall be equipped with an



automatically deployable ELT (ELT(AD)).

(c) An ELT of any type shall be capable of transmitting simultaneously on 121,5 MHz and 406 MHz.

NCC.IDE.H.225 Life-jackets

(a) Helicopters shall be equipped with a life-jacket for each person on board or equivalent individual floatationdevice for each person on board younger than 24 months, which shall be worn or stowed in a position that isreadily accessible from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided, when:

(1) operated on a flight over water at a distance from land corresponding to more than 10 minutes flyingtime at normal cruising speed, where in the case of the critical engine failure, the helicopter is able tosustain level flight;

(2) operated on a flight over water beyond autorotational distance from the land, where in the case ofcritical engine failure, the helicopter is not able to sustain level flight; or

(3) taking off or landing at an aerodrome or operating site where the take-off or approach path is overwater.


NCC.IDE.H.226 Crew survival suits

Each crew member shall wear a survival suit when:

(a) operating on a flight over water in support of offshore operations, at a distance from land corresponding tomore than 10 minutes flying time at normal cruising speed, where in the case of the critical engine failure, thehelicopter is able to sustain level flight and when:

(1) the weather report or forecasts available to the pilot-in-command indicate that the sea temperature willbe less than plus 10 °C during the flight; or

(2) the estimated rescue time exceeds the estimated survival time;

or

(b) so determined by the pilot-in-command based on a risk assessment taking into account the followingconditions:

(1) flights over water beyond autorotational distance or safe forced landing distance from land, where in thecase of the critical engine failure, the helicopter is not able to sustain level flight; and

(2) the weather report or forecasts available to the pilot-in-command indicate that the sea temperature willbe less than plus 10 °C during the flight.

NCC.IDE.H.227 Life-rafts, survival ELTs and survival equipment on extended overwater flights

Helicopters operated:

(a) on a flight over water at a distance from land corresponding to more than 10 minutes flying time at normalcruising speed, where in the case of the critical engine failure, the helicopter is able to sustain level flight; or

(b) on a flight over water at a distance corresponding to more than 3 minutes flying time at normal cruisingspeed, where in the case of the critical engine failure, the helicopter is not able to sustain level flight, and if sodetermined by the pilot-in-command by means of a risk assessment;

shall be equipped with:

(1) in the case of a helicopter carrying less than 12 persons, at least one life-raft with a rated capacity ofnot less than the maximum number of persons on board, stowed so as to facilitate their ready use inemergency;

(2) in the case of a helicopter carrying more than 11 persons, at least two life-rafts, stowed so as tofacilitate their ready use in an emergency, sufficient together to accommodate all persons capable of being



carried on board and, if one is lost the remaining life-raft(s) having the overload capacity sufficient toaccommodate all persons on the helicopter;

(3) at least one survival ELT (ELT(S)) for each required life-raft; and

(4) life-saving equipment, including means of sustaining life, as appropriate to the flight to be undertaken.

NCC.IDE.H.230 Survival equipment

Helicopters operated over areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult shall be equipped with:

(a) signalling equipment to make distress signals;

(b) at least one survival ELT (ELT(S)); and

(c) additional survival equipment for the route to be flown taking account of the number of persons on board.

NCC.IDE.H.231 Additional requirements for helicopters conducting offshore operations in a hostilesea area

Helicopters operated in offshore operations in a hostile sea area, at a distance from land corresponding to morethan 10 minutes flying time at normal cruising speed, shall comply with the following:

(a) When the weather report or forecasts available to the pilot-in-command indicate that the sea temperature willbe less than plus 10 °C during the flight, or when the estimated rescue time exceeds the calculated survivaltime, or the flight is planned to be conducted at night, all persons on board are wearing a survival suit.

(b) All life-rafts carried in accordance with NCC.IDE.H.227 shall be installed so as to be usable in the seaconditions in which the helicopter’s ditching, flotation and trim characteristics were evaluated in order to complywith the ditching requirements for certification.

(c) The helicopter shall be equipped with an emergency lighting system with an independent power supply toprovide a source of general cabin illumination to facilitate the evacuation of the helicopter.

(d) All emergency exits, including crew emergency exits, and the means of opening them shall be conspicuouslymarked for the guidance of occupants using the exits in daylight or in the dark. Such markings shall be designedto remain visible if the helicopter is capsized and the cabin is submerged.

(e) All non-jettisonable doors that are designated as ditching emergency exits shall have a means of securingthem in the open position so that they do not interfere with occupants’ egress in all sea conditions up to themaximum required to be evaluated for ditching and flotation.

(f) All doors, windows or other openings in the passenger compartment intended to be used for the purpose ofunderwater escape shall be equipped so as to be operable in an emergency.

(g) Life-jackets shall be worn at all times, unless the passenger or crew member is wearing an integratedsurvival suit that meets the combined requirement of the survival suit and life-jacket.

NCC.IDE.H.232 Helicopters certified for operating on water - miscellaneous equipment

Helicopters certified for operating on water shall be equipped with:

(a) a sea anchor and other equipment necessary to facilitate mooring, anchoring or manoeuvring the helicopteron water, appropriate to its size, weight and handling characteristics; and

(b) equipment for making the sound signals prescribed in the International Regulations for Preventing Collisionsat Sea, where applicable.

NCC.IDE.H.235 All helicopters on flights over water - ditching

Helicopters shall be designed for landing on water or certified for ditching in accordance with the relevantairworthiness code or fitted with emergency flotation equipment when operated on a flight over water in a hostileenvironment at a distance from land corresponding to more than 10 minutes flying time at normal cruisingspeed.



NCC.IDE.H.240 Headset

Whenever a radio communication and/or radio navigation system is required, helicopters shall be equipped witha headset with boom microphone or equivalent and a transmit button on the flight controls for each required pilotand/or crew member at his/her assigned station.

NCC.IDE.H.245 Radio communication equipment

(a) Helicopters operated under IFR or at night, or when required by the applicable airspace requirements, shallbe equipped with radio communication equipment that, under normal radio propagating conditions, shall becapable of:

(1) conducting two-way communication for aerodrome control purposes;

(2) receiving meteorological information;

(3) conducting two-way communication at any time during flight with those aeronautical stations and onthose frequencies prescribed by the appropriate authority; and

(4) providing for communication on the aeronautical emergency frequency 121,5 MHz.

(b) When more than one communications equipment unit is required, each shall be independent of the other orothers to the extent that a failure in any one will not result in failure of any other.

(c) When a radio communication system is required, and in addition to the flight crew interphone systemrequired in NCC.IDE.H.155, helicopters shall be equipped with a transmit button on the flight controls for eachrequired pilot and crew member at his/her assigned station.

NCC.IDE.H.250 Navigation equipment

(a) Helicopters shall be equipped with navigation equipment that will enable them to proceed in accordancewith:



(b) Helicopters shall have sufficient navigation equipment to ensure that, in the event of the failure of one item ofequipment at any stage of the flight, the remaining equipment shall allow safe navigation in accordance with (a),or an appropriate contingency action, to be completed safely.

(c) Helicopters operated on flights in which it is intended to land in IMC shall be equipped with navigationequipment capable of providing guidance to a point from which a visual landing can be performed. Thisequipment shall be capable of providing such guidance for each aerodrome at which it is intended to land inIMC and for any designated alternate aerodromes.

NCC.IDE.H.255 Transponder

Helicopters shall be equipped with a pressure altitude reporting secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponderand any other SSR transponder capability required for the route being flown.




No. 016 of 2017

Air Operations Annex VII to Part-NCO


Table of Contents

ANNEX VII NON-COMMERCIAL AIR OPERATIONS WITH OTHER-THAN COMPLEX MOTOR-POWEREDAIRCRAFT.............................................................................................................................................................. 1

[PART-NCO]......................................................................................................................................................... 1SUBPART A GENERAL REQUIREMENTS ..................................................................................................... 1

NCO.GEN.101 Means of compliance.......................................................................................................... 1NCO.GEN.102 Touring motor gliders, powered sailplanes and mixed balloons ......................................... 1NCO.GEN.103 Introductory flights .............................................................................................................. 1NCO.GEN.105 Pilot-in-command responsibilities and authority ................................................................. 1NCO.GEN.106 Pilot-in-command responsibilities and authority - balloons.............................................. 2NCO.GEN.110 Compliance with laws, regulations and procedure........................................................... 2NCO.GEN.115 Taxiing of aeroplanes ....................................................................................................... 3NCO.GEN.120 Rotor engagement - helicopters ...................................................................................... 3NCO.GEN.125 Portable electronic devices.............................................................................................. 3NCO.GEN.130 Information on emergency and survival equipment carried ............................................. 3NCO.GEN.135 Documents, manuals and information to be carried ........................................................ 3NCO.GEN.140 Transport of dangerous goods......................................................................................... 4NCO.GEN.145 Immediate reaction to a safety problem........................................................................... 4NCO.GEN.150 Journey log ...................................................................................................................... 4NCO.GEN.155 Minimum equipment list ................................................................................................... 4

SUBPART B OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES ................................................................................................. 6NCO.OP.100 Use of aerodromes and operating sites .............................................................................. 6NCO.OP.105 Specification of isolated aerodromes - aeroplanes ............................................................. 6NCO.OP.110 Aerodrome operating minima - aeroplanes and helicopters ............................................... 6NCO.OP.111 Aerodrome operating minima - NPA, APV, CAT I operations .............................................. 6NCO.OP.112 Aerodrome operating minima - circling operations with aeroplanes ................................... 7NCO.OP.113 Aerodrome operating minima - onshore circling operations with helicopters...................... 8NCO.OP.115 Departure and approach procedures - aeroplanes and helicopters.................................... 8NCO.OP.120 Noise abatement procedures - aeroplanes, helicopters and powered sailplanes............... 8NCO.OP.121 Noise abatement procedures - balloons ............................................................................. 8NCO.OP.125 Fuel and oil supply - aeroplanes ......................................................................................... 8NCO.OP.126 Fuel and oil supply - helicopters ......................................................................................... 9NCO.OP.127 Fuel and ballast supply and planning - balloons ............................................................... 10NCO.OP.130 Passenger briefing ............................................................................................................ 10NCO.OP.135 Flight preparation .............................................................................................................. 10NCO.OP.140 Destination alternate aerodromes - aeroplanes................................................................ 10NCO.OP.141 Destination alternate aerodromes - helicopters ................................................................ 10NCO.OP.145 Refuelling with passengers embarking, on board or disembarking .................................. 11NCO.OP.150 Carriage of passengers..................................................................................................... 11NCO.OP.155 Smoking on board - aeroplanes and helicopters .............................................................. 11NCO.OP.156 Smoking on board - sailplanes and balloons .................................................................... 11NCO.OP.160 Meteorological conditions ................................................................................................. 11NCO.OP.165 Ice and other contaminants - ground procedures ............................................................. 11NCO.OP.170 Ice and other contaminants - flight procedures................................................................. 12NCO.OP.175 Take-off conditions - aeroplanes and helicopters.............................................................. 12NCO.OP.176 Take-off conditions - balloons ........................................................................................... 12NCO.OP.180 Simulated situations in flight ............................................................................................. 12NCO.OP.185 In-flight fuel management ................................................................................................. 12NCO.OP.190 Use of supplemental oxygen............................................................................................. 12NCO.OP.195 Ground proximity detection ............................................................................................... 12NCO.OP.200 Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS II)................................................................. 13NCO.OP.205 Approach and landing conditions - aeroplanes and helicopters ....................................... 13NCO.OP.210 Commencement and continuation of approach - aeroplanes and helicopters.................. 13NCO.OP.215 Operational limitations - hot-air balloons........................................................................... 13

SUBPART C AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE AND OPERATING LIMITATIONS .............................................. 14

Qatar Civil Aviation Regulations Air Operations Annex VII to Part-NCO (Revision 1) No. 016 of 2017

Air Operations Annex VII to Part-NCO (Revision 1) aLCAL(A) Ref Bk - PVT / 1 MAY 2018 / Page 407 of 448

NCO.POL.100 Operating limitations - all aircraft .................................................................................... 14NCO.POL.105 Weighing......................................................................................................................... 14NCO.POL.110 Performance - general .................................................................................................... 14

SUBPART D INSTRUMENTS, DATA AND EQUIPMENT............................................................................... 15SECTION 1 Aeroplanes ............................................................................................................................... 15

NCO.IDE.A.100 Instruments and equipment - general .......................................................................... 15NCO.IDE.A.105 Minimum equipment for flight ....................................................................................... 15NCO.IDE.A.110 Spare electrical fuses ................................................................................................... 15NCO.IDE.A.115 Operating lights ............................................................................................................ 15NCO.IDE.A.120 Operations under VFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated

equipment............................................................................................................................................................. 16NCO.IDE.A.125 Operations under IFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated

equipment............................................................................................................................................................. 16NCO.IDE.A.130 Terrain awareness warning system (TAWS) ................................................................ 17NCO.IDE.A.135 Flight crew interphone system ..................................................................................... 17NCO.IDE.A.140 Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices ........................ 17NCO.IDE.A.145 First-aid kit.................................................................................................................... 17NCO.IDE.A.150 Supplemental oxygen - pressurised aeroplanes .......................................................... 17NCO.IDE.A.155 Supplemental oxygen - non-pressurised aeroplanes................................................... 18NCO.IDE.A.160 Hand fire extinguishers ................................................................................................ 18NCO.IDE.A.165 Marking of break-in points ............................................................................................ 18NCO.IDE.A.170 Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)............................................................................ 18NCO.IDE.A.175 Flight over water........................................................................................................... 19NCO.IDE.A.180 Survival equipment....................................................................................................... 19NCO.IDE.A.190 Radio communication equipment ................................................................................. 19NCO.IDE.A.195 Navigation equipment .................................................................................................. 20NCO.IDE.A.200 Transponder ................................................................................................................. 20

SECTION 2 Helicopters ............................................................................................................................... 21NCO.IDE.H.100 Instruments and equipment - general .......................................................................... 21NCO.IDE.H.105 Minimum equipment for flight ....................................................................................... 21NCO.IDE.H.115 Operating lights ............................................................................................................ 21NCO.IDE.H.120 Operations under VFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated

equipment............................................................................................................................................................. 22NCO.IDE.H.125 Operations under IFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated

equipment............................................................................................................................................................. 22NCO.IDE.H.126 Additional equipment for single pilot operations under IFR ......................................... 23NCO.IDE.H.135 Flight crew interphone system ..................................................................................... 23NCO.IDE.H.140 Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices ........................ 23NCO.IDE.H.145 First-aid kit.................................................................................................................... 23NCO.IDE.H.155 Supplemental oxygen - non-pressurised helicopters ................................................... 23NCO.IDE.H.160 Hand fire extinguishers ................................................................................................ 23NCO.IDE.H.165 Marking of break-in points............................................................................................ 23NCO.IDE.H.170 Emergency locator transmitter (ELT) ........................................................................... 24NCO.IDE.H.175 Flight over water .......................................................................................................... 24NCO.IDE.H.180 Survival equipment ...................................................................................................... 25NCO.IDE.H.185 All helicopters on flights over water - ditching .............................................................. 25NCO.IDE.H.190 Radio communication equipment................................................................................. 25NCO.IDE.H.195 Navigation equipment .................................................................................................. 25NCO.IDE.H.200 Transponder................................................................................................................. 25

SECTION 3 Sailplanes................................................................................................................................. 26NCO.IDE.S.100 Instruments and equipment - general .......................................................................... 26NCO.IDE.S.105 Minimum equipment for flight ....................................................................................... 26NCO.IDE.S.115 Operations under VFR - flight and navigational instruments ........................................ 26NCO.IDE.S.120 Cloud flying - flight and navigational instruments ......................................................... 27NCO.IDE.S.125 Seats and restraint systems......................................................................................... 27NCO.IDE.S.130 Supplemental oxygen................................................................................................... 27NCO.IDE.S.135 Flight over water........................................................................................................... 27NCO.IDE.S.140 Survival equipment....................................................................................................... 27


Air Operations Annex VII to Part-NCO (Revision 1) bLCAL(A) Ref Bk - PVT / 1 MAY 2018 / Page 408 of 448

NCO.IDE.S.145 Radio communication equipment ................................................................................. 27NCO.IDE.S.150 Navigation equipment .................................................................................................. 27NCO.IDE.S.155 Transponder ................................................................................................................. 28

SECTION 4 Balloons.................................................................................................................................... 29NCO.IDE.B.100 Instruments and equipment - general .......................................................................... 29NCO.IDE.B.105 Minimum equipment for flight ....................................................................................... 29NCO.IDE.B.110 Operating lights ............................................................................................................ 29NCO.IDE.B.115 Operations under VFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated

equipment............................................................................................................................................................. 29NCO.IDE.B.120 First-aid kit.................................................................................................................... 30NCO.IDE.B.121 Supplemental oxygen................................................................................................... 30NCO.IDE.B.125 Hand fire extinguishers ................................................................................................ 30NCO.IDE.B.130 Flight over water........................................................................................................... 30NCO.IDE.B.135 Survival equipment....................................................................................................... 30NCO.IDE.B.140 Miscellaneous equipment............................................................................................. 30NCO.IDE.B.145 Radio communication equipment ................................................................................. 31NCO.IDE.B.150 Transponder ................................................................................................................. 31

SUBPART E SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS .................................................................................................... 32SECTION 1 General..................................................................................................................................... 32

NCO.SPEC.100 Scope........................................................................................................................... 32NCO.SPEC.105 Checklist ...................................................................................................................... 32NCO.SPEC.110 Pilot-in-command responsibilities and authority........................................................... 32NCO.SPEC.115 Crew responsibilities .................................................................................................... 32NCO.SPEC.120 Task specialists responsibilities ................................................................................... 33NCO.SPEC.125 Safety briefing.............................................................................................................. 33NCO.SPEC.130 Minimum obstacle clearance altitudes - IFR flights ..................................................... 33NCO.SPEC.135 Fuel and oil supply - aeroplanes.................................................................................. 33NCO.SPEC.140 Fuel and oil supply - helicopters .................................................................................. 33NCO.SPEC.145 Simulated situations in flight ........................................................................................ 34NCO.SPEC.150 Ground proximity detection.......................................................................................... 34NCO.SPEC.155 Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS II) ........................................................... 34NCO.SPEC.160 Release of dangerous goods....................................................................................... 34NCO.SPEC.165 Carriage and use of weapons...................................................................................... 34NCO.SPEC.170 Performance and operating criteria - aeroplanes ........................................................ 34NCO.SPEC.175 Performance and operating criteria - helicopters ......................................................... 34

SECTION 2 Helicopter external sling load operations (HESLO).................................................................. 36NCO.SPEC.HESLO.100 Checklist ......................................................................................................... 36NCO.SPEC.HESLO.105 Specific HESLO equipment ............................................................................ 36NCO.SPEC.HESLO.110 Transportation of dangerous goods ................................................................ 36

SECTION 3 Human external cargo operations (HEC) ................................................................................. 37NCO.SPEC.HEC.100 Checklist.............................................................................................................. 37NCO.SPEC.HEC.105 Specific HEC equipment ..................................................................................... 37

SECTION 4 Parachute operations (PAR)..................................................................................................... 38NCO.SPEC.PAR.100 Checklist .............................................................................................................. 38NCO.SPEC.PAR.105 Carriage of crew members and task specialists .................................................. 38NCO.SPEC.PAR.110 Seats.................................................................................................................... 38NCO.SPEC.PAR.115 Supplemental oxygen .......................................................................................... 38NCO.SPEC.PAR.120 Release of dangerous goods............................................................................... 38

SECTION 5 Aerobatic flights (ABF) ............................................................................................................. 39NCO.SPEC.ABF.100 Checklist............................................................................................................... 39NCO.SPEC.ABF.105 Documents and information ................................................................................. 39NCO.SPEC.ABF.110 Equipment ............................................................................................................ 39


Air Operations Annex VII to Part-NCO (Revision 1) cLCAL(A) Ref Bk - PVT / 1 MAY 2018 / Page 409 of 448

ANNEX VII NON-COMMERCIAL AIR OPERATIONS WITH OTHER-THAN COMPLEX MOTOR-POWERED AIRCRAFT

[PART-NCO]

SUBPART A GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

NCO.GEN.101 Means of compliance

Alternative means of compliance to those adopted by the QCAA may be used by an operator to establishcompliance with the Civil Aviation Law and Regulations.

NCO.GEN.102 Touring motor gliders, powered sailplanes and mixed balloons

(a) Touring motor gliders shall be operated following the requirements for:

(1) aeroplanes when they are power-driven by an engine; and

(2) sailplanes when operated without using an engine.

(b) Touring motor gliders shall be equipped in compliance with the requirements applicable to aeroplanes unlessotherwise specified in Subpart D.

(c) Powered sailplanes, excluding touring motor gliders, shall be operated and equipped in compliance with therequirements applicable to sailplanes.

(d) Mixed balloons shall be operated in accordance with the requirements for hot-air balloons.

NCO.GEN.103 Introductory flights

Introductory flights referred to in Article 6.1(c) of this Regulation when conducted in accordance with this Annex,shall:

(a) start and end at the same aerodrome or operating site, except for balloons and sailplanes;

(b) be operated under VFR by day;

(c) be overseen by a nominated person responsible for their safety; and

(d) comply with any other conditions stipulated by the QCAA.

NCO.GEN.105 Pilot-in-command responsibilities and authority

(a) The pilot-in-command shall be responsible for:

(1) the safety of the aircraft and of all crew members, passengers and cargo on board during aircraftoperations;

(2) the initiation, continuation, termination or diversion of a flight in the interest of safety;

(3) ensuring that all operating procedures specified in the flight manual or, where required in the operationsmanual, for the preparation and execution of the flight are followed and that a checklist system is availablefor use, as applicable, by crew members in all phases of operation of the aircraft under normal, abnormaland emergency conditions and situations.

(4) only commencing a flight if he/she is satisfied that:

(i) the aircraft is airworthy;

(ii) the aircraft is duly registered;

(iii) instruments and equipment required for the execution of that flight are installed in the aircraft andare operative, unless operation with inoperative equipment is permitted by the minimum equipmentlist (MEL) or equivalent document, if applicable, as provided for in NCO.IDE.A.105, NCO.IDE.H.105,NCO.IDE.S.105 or NCO.IDE.B.105;


Air Operations Annex VII to Part-NCO (Revision 1) Page 1 of 39LCAL(A) Ref Bk - PVT / 1 MAY 2018 / Page 410 of 448

(iv) the mass of the aircraft and, except in the case of balloons, the centre of gravity location are suchthat the flight can be conducted within limits prescribed in the airworthiness documentation;

(v) all equipment, baggage and cargo are properly loaded and secured and an emergency evacuationremains possible; and

(vi) the aircraft operating limitations as specified in the aircraft flight manual (AFM) will not beexceeded at any time during the flight;

(5) not commencing a flight if he/she is incapacitated from performing duties by any cause such as injury,sickness, fatigue or the effects of any psychoactive substance;

(6) not continuing a flight beyond the nearest weather-permissible aerodrome or operating site when his/her capacity to perform duties is significantly reduced from causes such as fatigue, sickness or lack ofoxygen;

(7) deciding on acceptance of the aircraft with unserviceabilities in accordance with the configurationdeviation list (CDL) or minimum equipment list (MEL), as applicable; and

(8) recording utilisation data and all known or suspected defects in the aircraft at the termination of theflight, or series of flights, in the aircraft technical log or journey log for the aircraft.

(b) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that during critical phases of flight or whenever deemed necessary in theinterest of safety, all crew members are seated at their assigned stations and do not perform any activities otherthan those required for the safe operation of the aircraft.

(c) The pilot-in-command shall have the authority to refuse carriage of or disembark any person, baggage orcargo that may represent a potential hazard to the safety of the aircraft or its occupants.

(d) The pilot-in-command shall, as soon as possible, report to the appropriate air traffic services (ATS) unit anyhazardous weather or flight conditions encountered that are likely to affect the safety of other aircraft.

(e) The pilot-in-command shall, in an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, take anyaction he/she considers necessary in the interest of safety. In such cases he/she may deviate from rules,operational procedures and methods. In the event of any such deviation the pilot-in-command is responsible fornotifying the appropriate local authority without delay.

(f) During flight, the pilot-in-command shall:

(1) except for balloons, keep his/her safety belt fastened while at his/her station; and

(2) remain at the controls of the aircraft at all times except if another pilot is taking the controls.

(g) The pilot-in-command shall submit a report of an act of unlawful interference without delay to the QCAA andshall inform the designated local authority.

(h) The pilot-in-command shall notify the nearest appropriate authority by the quickest available means of anyaccident involving the aircraft that results in serious injury or death of any person or substantial damage to theaircraft or property.

NCO.GEN.106 Pilot-in-command responsibilities and authority - balloons

The pilot-in-command of a balloon shall in addition to NCO.GEN.105:

(a) be responsible for the pre-flight briefing of those persons assisting in the inflation and deflation of theenvelope;

(b) ensure that no person is smoking on board or within the direct vicinity of the balloon; and

(c) ensure that persons assisting in the inflation and deflation of the envelope wear appropriate protectiveclothing.

NCO.GEN.110 Compliance with laws, regulations and procedure

(a) The pilot-in-command shall comply with the laws, regulations and procedures of those States whereoperations are conducted.



(b) The pilot-in-command shall be familiar with the laws, regulations and procedures, pertinent to theperformance of his/her duties, prescribed for the areas to be traversed, the aerodromes or operating sites to beused and the related air navigation facilities as relating thereto.

NCO.GEN.115 Taxiing of aeroplanes

An aeroplane shall only be taxied on the movement area of an aerodrome if the person at the controls:

(a) is an appropriately qualified pilot; or

(b) has been designated by the operator and:

(1) is trained to taxi the aeroplane;

(2) is trained to use the radio telephone, if radio communications are required;

(3) has received instruction in respect of aerodrome layout, routes, signs, marking, lights, air traffic control(ATC) signals and instructions, phraseology and procedures; and

(4) is able to conform to the operational standards required for safe aeroplane movement at theaerodrome.

NCO.GEN.120 Rotor engagement - helicopters

A helicopter rotor shall only be turned under power for the purpose of flight with a qualified pilot at the controls.

NCO.GEN.125 Portable electronic devices

The pilot-in-command shall not permit any person to use a portable electronic device (PED) on board an aircraftthat could adversely affect the performance of the aircraft’s systems and equipment.

NCO.GEN.130 Information on emergency and survival equipment carried

Except for aircraft taking-off and landing at the same aerodrome/operating site, the operator shall, at all times,have available for immediate communication to rescue coordination centres (RCCs) lists containing informationon the emergency and survival equipment carried on board.

NCO.GEN.135 Documents, manuals and information to be carried

(a) The following documents, manuals and information shall be carried on each flight as originals or copiesunless otherwise specified:

(1) the AFM, or equivalent document(s);

(2) the original certificate of registration;

(3) the original certificate of airworthiness (CofA);

(4) the noise certificate, if applicable;

(5) the list of specific approvals, if applicable;

(6) the aircraft radio licence, if applicable;

(7) the third party liability insurance certificate(s);

(8) the journey log, or equivalent, for the aircraft;

(9) details of the filed ATS flight plan, if applicable;

(10) current and suitable aeronautical charts for the route area of the proposed flight and all routes alongwhich it is reasonable to expect that the flight may be diverted;

(11) procedures and visual signals information for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft;

(12) the MEL or CDL, if applicable; and

(13) any other documentation that may be pertinent to the flight or is required by the States concerned with



the flight.

(b) Notwithstanding (a), on flights:

(1) intending to take off and land at the same aerodrome/operating site; or

(2) remaining within a distance or area determined by the QCAA,

the documents and information in (a)(2) to (a)(8) may be retained at the aerodrome or operating site.

(c) Notwithstanding (a), on flights with balloons or sailplanes, excluding touring motor gliders (TMGs), thedocuments and information in (a)(2) to (a)(8) and (a)(11) to (a)(13) may be carried in the retrieve vehicle.

(d) The pilot-in-command shall make available within a reasonable time of being requested to do so by theQCAA, the documentation required to be carried on board.

NCO.GEN.140 Transport of dangerous goods

(a) The transport of dangerous goods by air shall be conducted in accordance with Annex 18 to the ChicagoConvention as last amended and amplified by the Technical Instructions for the Safe Transport of DangerousGoods by Air (ICAO Doc 9284-AN/905), including its supplements and any other addenda or corrigenda.

(b) Dangerous goods shall only be transported by the operator approved in accordance with Annex V (Part-SPA), Subpart G, to this Regulation except when:

(1) they are not subject to the Technical Instructions in accordance with Part 1 of those Instructions; or

(2) they are carried by passengers or the pilot-in-command, or are in baggage, in accordance with Part 8 ofthe Technical Instructions;

(3) they are carried by operators of ELA2 aircraft.

(c) The operator shall take all reasonable measures to prevent dangerous goods from being carried on boardinadvertently.

(d) The operator shall, in accordance with the Technical Instructions, report without delay to the QCAA and theappropriate authority of the State of occurrence in the event of any dangerous goods accidents or incidents.

(e) The operator shall ensure that passengers are provided with information about dangerous goods inaccordance with the Technical Instructions.

(f) Reasonable quantities of articles and substances that would otherwise be classified as dangerous goods andthat are used to facilitate flight safety, where carriage aboard the aircraft is advisable to ensure their timelyavailability for operational purposes, shall be considered authorised under paragraph 1;2.2.1(a) of the TechnicalInstructions. This is regardless of whether or not such articles and substances are required to be carried orintended to be used in connection with a particular flight.

The packing and loading on board of the above-mentioned articles and substances shall be performed, underthe responsibility of the pilot in command, in such a way as to minimise the risks posed to crew members,passengers, cargo or the aircraft during aircraft operations.

NCO.GEN.145 Immediate reaction to a safety problem

The operator shall implement:

(a) any safety measures mandated by the QCAA in accordance with ARO.GEN.135(c); and

(b) any relevant mandatory safety information issued by the QCAA, including airworthiness directives.

NCO.GEN.150 Journey log

Particulars of the aircraft, its crew and each journey shall be retained for each flight, or series of flights, in theform of a journey log, or equivalent.

NCO.GEN.155 Minimum equipment list

(a) An MEL may be established taking into account the following:



(1) the document shall provide for the operation of the aircraft, under specified conditions, with particularinstruments, items of equipment or functions inoperative at the commencement of the flight;

(2) the document shall be prepared for each individual aircraft, taking account of the operator’s relevantoperational and maintenance conditions; and

(3) the MEL shall be based on the relevant Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL), as defined in theapplicable operational suitability data, and shall not be less restrictive than the MMEL.

(b) The MEL and any amendment thereto shall be notified to the QCAA.



SUBPART B OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES

NCO.OP.100 Use of aerodromes and operating sites

The pilot-in-command shall only use aerodromes and operating sites that are adequate for the type of aircraftand operation concerned.

NCO.OP.105 Specification of isolated aerodromes - aeroplanes

For the selection of alternate aerodromes and the fuel policy, the pilot-in-command shall consider an aerodromeas an isolated aerodrome if the flying time to the nearest adequate destination alternate aerodrome is morethan:

(a) for aeroplanes with reciprocating engines, 60 minutes; or

(b) for aeroplanes with turbine engines, 90 minutes.

NCO.OP.110 Aerodrome operating minima - aeroplanes and helicopters

(a) For instrument flight rules (IFR) flights, the pilot-in-command shall select and use aerodrome operatingminima for each departure, destination and alternate aerodrome. Such minima shall:

(1) not be lower than those established by the State in which the aerodrome is located, except whenspecifically approved by that State; and

(2) when undertaking low visibility operations, be approved by the QCAA in accordance with Annex V(Part-SPA), Subpart E to this Regulation.

(b) When selecting the aerodrome operating minima, the pilot-in-command shall take the following into account:

(1) the type, performance and handling characteristics of the aircraft;

(2) his/her competence and experience;

(3) the dimensions and characteristics of the runways and final approach and take-off areas (FATOs) thatmay be selected for use;

(4) the adequacy and performance of the available visual and non-visual ground aids;

(5) the equipment available on the aircraft for the purpose of navigation and/or control of the flight path,during the take-off, the approach, the flare, the landing, the rollout and the missed approach;

(6) the obstacles in the approach, the missed approach and the climb-out areas necessary for theexecution of contingency procedures;

(7) the obstacle clearance altitude/height for the instrument approach procedures;

(8) the means to determine and report meteorological conditions; and

(9) the flight technique to be used during the final approach.

(c) The minima for a specific type of approach and landing procedure shall only be used if:

(1) the ground equipment required for the intended procedure is operative;

(2) the aircraft systems required for the type of approach are operative;

(3) the required aircraft performance criteria are met; and

(4) the pilot is qualified appropriately.

NCO.OP.111 Aerodrome operating minima - NPA, APV, CAT I operations

(a) The decision height (DH) to be used for a non-precision approach (NPA) flown with the continuous descentfinal approach (CDFA) technique, approach procedure with vertical guidance (APV) or category I (CAT I)operation shall not be lower than the highest of:



(1) the minimum height to which the approach aid can be used without the required visual reference;

(2) the obstacle clearance height (OCH) for the category of aircraft;

(3) the published approach procedure DH where applicable;


(5) the minimum DH specified in the AFM or equivalent document, if stated.

(b) The minimum descent height (MDH) for an NPA operation flown without the CDFA technique shall not belower than the highest of:

(1) the OCH for the category of aircraft;


(3) the minimum MDH specified in the AFM, if stated.

Table 1

System minima

Facility Lowest DH/MDH (ft)

Instrument landing system (ILS) 200

Global navigation satellite system (GNSS)/Satellite-based augmentation system (SBAS) (Lateral precisionwith vertical guidance approach (LPV))

200

GNSS (Lateral Navigation (LNAV)) 250

GNSS/Baro-vertical navigation (VNAV) (LNAV/VNAV) 250

Localiser (LOC) with or without distance measuringequipment (DME)

250

Surveillance radar approach (SRA) (terminating at ½NM)

250

SRA (terminating at 1 NM) 300

SRA (terminating at 2 NM or more) 350

VHF omnidirectional radio range (VOR) 300

VOR/DME 250

Non-directional beacon (NDB) 350

NDB/DME 300

VHF direction finder (VDF) 350

NCO.OP.112 Aerodrome operating minima - circling operations with aeroplanes

(a) The MDH for a circling operation with aeroplanes shall not be lower than the highest of:



(1) the published circling OCH for the aeroplane category;

(2) the minimum circling height derived from Table 1; or

(3) the DH/MDH of the preceding instrument approach procedure.

(b) The minimum visibility for a circling operation with aeroplanes shall be the highest of:

(1) the circling visibility for the aeroplane category, if published;

(2) the minimum visibility derived from Table 2; or

(3) the runway visual range/converted meteorological visibility (RVR/CMV) of the preceding instrumentapproach procedure.

Table 1

MDH and minimum visibility for circling vs. aeroplane category

Aeroplane category

A B C D

MDH (ft) 400 500 600 700

Minimum meteorological visibility (m) 1 500 1 600 2 400 3 600

NCO.OP.113 Aerodrome operating minima - onshore circling operations with helicopters

The MDH for an onshore circling operation with helicopters shall not be lower than 250 ft and the meteorologicalvisibility not less than 800 m.

NCO.OP.115 Departure and approach procedures - aeroplanes and helicopters

(a) The pilot-in-command shall use the departure and approach procedures established by the State of theaerodrome, if such procedures have been published for the runway or FATO to be used.

(b) The pilot-in-command may deviate from a published departure route, arrival route or approach procedure:

(1) provided obstacle clearance criteria can be observed, full account is taken of the operating conditionsand any ATC clearance is adhered to; or

(2) when being radar-vectored by an ATC unit.

NCO.OP.120 Noise abatement procedures - aeroplanes, helicopters and powered sailplanes

The pilot-in-command shall take into account published noise abatement procedures to minimise the effect ofaircraft noise while ensuring that safety has priority over noise abatement.

NCO.OP.121 Noise abatement procedures - balloons

The pilot-in-command shall take into account operating procedures to minimise the effect of heating-systemnoise while ensuring that safety has priority over noise abatement.

NCO.OP.125 Fuel and oil supply - aeroplanes

(a) The pilot-in-command shall only commence a flight if the aeroplane carries sufficient fuel and oil for thefollowing:

(1) for visual flight rules (VFR) flights:

(i) by day, taking-off and landing at the same aerodrome/landing site and always remaining in sight ofthat aerodrome/landing site, to fly the intended route and thereafter for at least 10 minutes at normalcruising altitude;



(ii) by day, to fly to the aerodrome of intended landing and thereafter to fly for at least 30 minutes atnormal cruising altitude; or

(iii) by night, to fly to the aerodrome of intended landing and thereafter to fly for at least 45 minutes atnormal cruising altitude;


(i) when no destination alternate is required, to fly to the aerodrome of intended landing and thereafterto fly for at least 45 minutes at normal cruising altitude; or

(ii) when a destination alternate is required, to fly to the aerodrome of intended landing, to an alternateaerodrome and thereafter to fly for at least 45 minutes at normal cruising altitude.





(4) any other condition that may delay the landing of the aeroplane or increase fuel and/or oil consumption.


NCO.OP.126 Fuel and oil supply - helicopters

(a) The pilot-in-command shall only commence a flight if the helicopter carries sufficient fuel and oil for thefollowing:

(1) for VFR flights, to fly to the aerodrome/operating site of intended landing and thereafter to fly for at least20 minutes at best-range-speed; and


(i) when no alternate is required or no weather-permissible alternate aerodrome is available, to fly tothe aerodrome/operating site of intended landing, and thereafter to fly for 30 minutes at holding speedat 450 m (1 500 ft) above the destination aerodrome/operating site under standard temperatureconditions and approach and land; or

(ii) when an alternate is required, to fly to and execute an approach and a missed approach at theaerodrome/operating site of intended landing, and thereafter:

(A) to fly to the specified alternate; and

(B) to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 m (1 500 ft) above the alternate aerodrome/operating site under standard temperature conditions and approach and land.





(4) any other condition that may delay the landing of the aircraft or increase fuel and/or oil consumption.




NCO.OP.127 Fuel and ballast supply and planning - balloons

(a) The pilot-in-command shall only commence a flight if the reserve fuel or ballast is sufficient for 30 minutes offlight.

(b) Fuel or ballast supply calculations shall be based upon at least the following operating conditions underwhich the flight is to be conducted:

(1) data provided by the balloon manufacturer;

(2) anticipated masses;

(3) expected meteorological conditions; and

(4) air navigation services provider procedures and restrictions.

NCO.OP.130 Passenger briefing

The pilot-in-command shall ensure that before or, where appropriate, during the flight, passengers are given abriefing on emergency equipment and procedures.

NCO.OP.135 Flight preparation

(a) Before commencing a flight, the pilot-in-command shall ascertain by every reasonable means available thatthe space-based facilities, ground and/or water facilities, including communication facilities and navigation aidsavailable and directly required on such flight, for the safe operation of the aircraft, are adequate for the type ofoperation under which the flight is to be conducted.

(b) Before commencing a flight, the pilot-in-command shall be familiar with all available meteorologicalinformation appropriate to the intended flight. Preparation for a flight away from the vicinity of the place ofdeparture, and for every flight under IFR, shall include:

(1) a study of available current weather reports and forecasts; and

(2) the planning of an alternative course of action to provide for the eventuality that the flight cannot becompleted as planned, because of weather conditions.

NCO.OP.140 Destination alternate aerodromes - aeroplanes


(a) the available current meteorological information indicates that, for the period from 1 hour before until 1 hourafter the estimated time of arrival, or from the actual time of departure to 1 hour after the estimated time ofarrival, whichever is the shorter period, the approach and landing may be made under visual meteorologicalconditions (VMC); or


(1) an instrument approach procedure is prescribed for the aerodrome of intended landing; and


(i) a cloud base of at least 300 m (1 000 ft) above the minimum associated with the instrumentapproach procedure; and

(ii) visibility of at least 5,5 km or of 4 km more than the minimum associated with the procedure.

NCO.OP.141 Destination alternate aerodromes - helicopters


(a) an instrument approach procedure is prescribed for the aerodrome of intended landing and the availablecurrent meteorological information indicates that the following meteorological conditions will exist from 2 hours



before to 2 hours after the estimated time of arrival, or from the actual time of departure to 2 hours after theestimated time of arrival, whichever is the shorter period:

(1) a cloud base of at least 120 m (400 ft) above the minimum associated with the instrument approachprocedure; and

(2) visibility of at least 1 500 m more than the minimum associated with the procedure; or


(1) an instrument approach procedure is prescribed for the aerodrome of intended landing;


(i) the cloud base is at least 120 m (400 ft) above the minimum associated with the instrumentapproach procedure;

(ii) visibility is at least 1 500 m more than the minimum associated with the procedure; and

(3) a point of no return (PNR) is determined in case of an offshore destination.

NCO.OP.145 Refuelling with passengers embarking, on board or disembarking

(a) The aircraft shall not be refuelled with aviation gasoline (AVGAS) or wide-cut type fuel or a mixture of thesetypes of fuel, when passengers are embarking, on board or disembarking.

(b) For all other types of fuel, the aircraft shall not be refuelled when passengers are embarking, on board ordisembarking, unless it is attended by the pilot-in-command or other qualified personnel ready to initiate anddirect an evacuation of the aircraft by the most practical and expeditious means available.

NCO.OP.150 Carriage of passengers

Except for balloons, the pilot-in-command shall ensure that, prior to and during taxiing, take-off and landing, andwhenever deemed necessary in the interest of safety, each passenger on board occupies a seat or berth andhas his/her safety belt or restraint device properly secured.

NCO.OP.155 Smoking on board - aeroplanes and helicopters

The pilot-in-command shall not allow smoking on board:

(a) whenever considered necessary in the interest of safety; and

(b) during refuelling of the aircraft.

NCO.OP.156 Smoking on board - sailplanes and balloons

No person shall be allowed to smoke on board a sailplane or balloon.

NCO.OP.160 Meteorological conditions

(a) The pilot-in-command shall only commence or continue a VFR flight if the latest available meteorologicalinformation indicates that the weather conditions along the route and at the intended destination at theestimated time of use will be at or above the applicable VFR operating minima.

(b) The pilot-in-command shall only commence or continue an IFR flight towards the planned destinationaerodrome if the latest available meteorological information indicates that, at the estimated time of arrival, theweather conditions at the destination or at least one destination alternate aerodrome are at or above theapplicable aerodrome operating minima.

(c) If a flight contains VFR and IFR segments, the meteorological information referred to in (a) and (b) shall beapplicable as far as relevant.

NCO.OP.165 Ice and other contaminants - ground procedures

The pilot-in-command shall only commence take-off if the aircraft is clear of any deposit that might adversely



affect the performance or controllability of the aircraft, except as permitted in the AFM.

NCO.OP.170 Ice and other contaminants - flight procedures

(a) The pilot-in-command shall only commence a flight or intentionally fly into expected or actual icing conditionsif the aircraft is certified, and/or treated to operate safely in such conditions.

(b) If icing exceeds the intensity of icing for which the aircraft is certified or if an aircraft not certified for flight inknown icing conditions encounters icing, the pilot-in-command shall exit the icing conditions without delay, by achange of level and/or route, and if necessary by declaring an emergency to ATC.

NCO.OP.175 Take-off conditions - aeroplanes and helicopters

Before commencing take-off, the pilot-in-command shall be satisfied that:

(a) according to the information available, the weather at the aerodrome or operating site and the condition ofthe runway or FATO intended to be used would not prevent a safe take-off and departure; and

(b) applicable aerodrome operating minima will be complied with.

NCO.OP.176 Take-off conditions - balloons

Before commencing take-off, the pilot-in-command of a balloon shall be satisfied that, according to theinformation available, the weather at the operating site or aerodrome would not prevent a safe take-off anddeparture.

NCO.OP.180 Simulated situations in flight

(a) The pilot-in-command shall, when carrying passengers or cargo, not simulate:

(1) situations that require the application of abnormal or emergency procedures; or

(2) flight in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).

(b) Notwithstanding (a), when training flights are conducted by an approved training organisation, suchsituations may be simulated with student pilots on-board.

NCO.OP.185 In-flight fuel management

The pilot-in-command shall check at regular intervals that the amount of usable fuel or, for balloons, ballastremaining in flight is not less than the fuel or ballast required to proceed to a weather-permissible aerodrome oroperating site and the planned reserve fuel as required by NCO.OP.125, NCO.OP.126 or NCO.OP.127.

NCO.OP.190 Use of supplemental oxygen

(a) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that all flight crew members engaged in performing duties essential to thesafe operation of an aircraft in flight use supplemental oxygen continuously whenever he/she determines that atthe altitude of the intended flight the lack of oxygen might result in impairment of the faculties of crew members,and shall ensure that supplemental oxygen is available to passengers when lack of oxygen might harmfullyaffect passengers.

(b) In any other case when the pilot-in-command cannot determine how the lack of oxygen might affect alloccupants on board, he/she shall ensure that:

(1) all crew members engaged in performing duties essential to the safe operation of an aircraft in flightuse supplemental oxygen for any period in excess of 30 minutes when the pressure altitude in the thepassenger compartment will be between 10 000 ft and 13 000 ft; and

(2) all occupants use supplemental oxygen for any period that the pressure altitude in the the passengercompartment will be above 13 000 ft.

NCO.OP.195 Ground proximity detection

When undue proximity to the ground is detected by the pilot-in-command or by a ground proximity warningsystem, the pilot-in-command shall take corrective action immediately in order to establish safe flight conditions.



NCO.OP.200 Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS II)

(a) When ACAS II is used, pilot-in-command shall apply the appropriate operational procedures and beadequately trained.

(b) The operational procedures shall ensure that:

(1) ACAS II shall be used during flight except as provided in the minimum equipment list, in a mode thatenables RA indications to be produced for the flight crew when undue proximity to another aircraft isdetected, unless inhibition of RA indication mode (using TA indication only or equivalent) is called for by anabnormal procedure or due to performance limiting conditions.

(2) When an RA indication is produced by ACAS II:

(i) the pilot flying shall immediately conform to the indications of the RA indication, even if this conflictswith an air traffic control (ATC) instruction, unless doing so would jeopardise the safety of the aircraft;

(ii) the flight crew, as soon as permitted by workload, shall notify the appropriate ATC unit of any RAwhich requires a deviation from the current ATC instruction or clearance;

(iii) when the conflict is resolved the aircraft shall:

(A) be promptly returned to the terms of the acknowledged ATC instruction or clearance and ATCnotified of the manoeuvre or

(B) comply with any amended ATC clearance or instruction issued.

NCO.OP.205 Approach and landing conditions - aeroplanes and helicopters

Before commencing an approach to land, the pilot-in-command shall be satisfied that, according to theinformation available, the weather at the aerodrome or the operating site and the condition of the runway orFATO intended to be used would not prevent a safe approach, landing or missed approach.

NCO.OP.210 Commencement and continuation of approach - aeroplanes and helicopters

(a) The pilot-in-command may commence an instrument approach regardless of the reported runway visualrange/visibility (RVR/VIS).

(b) If the reported RVR/VIS is less than the applicable minimum, the approach shall not be continued:

(1) below 1 000 ft above the aerodrome; or

(2) into the final approach segment in the case where the decision altitude/height (DA/H) or minimumdescent altitude/height (MDA/H) is more than 1 000 ft above the aerodrome.

(c) Where the RVR is not available, RVR values may be derived by converting the reported visibility.

(d) If, after passing 1 000 ft above the aerodrome, the reported RVR/VIS falls below the applicable minimum,the approach may be continued to DA/H or MDA/H.

(e) The approach may be continued below DA/H or MDA/H and the landing may be completed provided that thevisual reference adequate for the type of approach operation and for the intended runway is established at theDA/H or MDA/H and is maintained.

(f) The touchdown zone RVR shall always be controlling.

NCO.OP.215 Operational limitations - hot-air balloons

(a) A hot-air balloon shall not land during night, except in emergency.

(b) A hot-air balloon may take off during night, provided sufficient fuel is carried for a landing during day.



SUBPART C AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE AND OPERATING LIMITATIONS

NCO.POL.100 Operating limitations - all aircraft

(a) During any phase of operation, the loading, the mass and, except for balloons, the centre of gravity (CG)position of the aircraft shall comply with any limitation specified in the AFM, or equivalent document.

(b) Placards, listings, instrument markings, or combinations thereof, containing those operating limitationsprescribed by the AFM for visual presentation, shall be displayed in the aircraft.

NCO.POL.105 Weighing

(a) The operator shall ensure that the mass and, except for balloons, the CG of the aircraft have beenestablished by actual weighing prior to initial entry into service. The accumulated effects of modifications andrepairs on the mass and balance shall be accounted for and properly documented. Such information shall bemade available to the pilot-in-command. The aircraft shall be reweighed if the effect of modifications on themass and balance is not accurately known.

(b) The weighing shall be accomplished:

(1) for aeroplanes and helicopters, by the manufacturer of the aircraft or by an approved maintenanceorganisation; and

(2) for sailplanes and balloons, by the manufacturer of the aircraft or in accordance with QCAR 1003/2006as amended, as applicable.

NCO.POL.110 Performance - general

The pilot-in-command shall only operate the aircraft if the performance is adequate to comply with theapplicable rules of the air and any other restrictions applicable to the flight, the airspace or the aerodromes oroperating sites used, taking into account the charting accuracy of any charts and maps used.



SUBPART D INSTRUMENTS, DATA AND EQUIPMENT

SECTION 1 Aeroplanes

NCO.IDE.A.100 Instruments and equipment - general



(2) used to comply with NCO.IDE.A.190;

(3) used to comply with NCO.IDE.A.195; or

(4) installed in the aeroplane.


(1) spare fuses;



(4) first-aid kit;




(c) Instruments and equipment not required by this Subpart as well as any other equipment that is not requiredby other applicable Annexes, but is carried on a flight, shall comply with the following:

(1) the information provided by these instruments or equipment shall not be used by the flight crew tocomply with the applicable airworthiness requirements or NCO.IDE.A.190 and NCO.IDE.A.195; and

(2) the instruments and equipment shall not affect the airworthiness of the aeroplane, even in the case offailures or malfunction.


(e) All required emergency equipment shall be easily accessible for immediate use.

NCO.IDE.A.105 Minimum equipment for flight

A flight shall not be commenced when any of the aeroplane instruments, items of equipment or functionsrequired for the intended flight are inoperative or missing, unless:

(a) the aeroplane is operated in accordance with the MEL, if established; or

(b) the aeroplane is subject to a permit to fly issued in accordance with the applicable airworthinessrequirements.

NCO.IDE.A.110 Spare electrical fuses

Aeroplanes shall be equipped with spare electrical fuses, of the ratings required for complete circuit protection,for replacement of those fuses that are allowed to be replaced in flight.

NCO.IDE.A.115 Operating lights

Aeroplanes operated at night shall be equipped with:






(d) lighting supplied from the aeroplane’s electrical system to provide adequate illumination for all instrumentsand equipment essential to the safe operation of the aeroplane;

(e) lighting supplied from the aeroplane’s electrical system to provide illumination in all passengercompartments;


(g) lights to conform with the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea if the aeroplane isoperated as a seaplane.

NCO.IDE.A.120 Operations under VFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment

(a) Aeroplanes operated under VFR by day shall be equipped with a means of measuring and displaying thefollowing:


(2) time, in hours, minutes and seconds;



(5) Mach number, whenever speed limitations are expressed in terms of Mach number.

(b) Aeroplanes operated under visual meteorological conditions (VMC) at night, or in conditions where theaeroplane cannot be maintained in a desired flight path without reference to one or more additional instruments,shall be, in addition to (a), equipped with:


(i) turn and slip;

(ii) attitude;

(iii) vertical speed; and

(iv) stabilised heading;

and

(2) a means of indicating when the supply of power to the gyroscopic instruments is not adequate.

(c) Aeroplanes operated in conditions where they cannot be maintained in a desired flight path without referenceto one or more additional instruments, shall be, in addition to (a) and (b), equipped with a means of preventingmalfunction of the airspeed indicating system required in (a)(4) due to condensation or icing.

NCO.IDE.A.125 Operations under IFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment

Aeroplanes operated under IFR shall be equipped with:






(5) vertical speed;

(6) turn and slip;



(7) attitude;


(9) outside air temperature; and

(10) Mach number, whenever speed limitations are expressed in terms of Mach number;

(b) a means of indicating when the supply of power to the gyroscopic instruments is not adequate; and

(c) a means of preventing malfunction of the airspeed indicating system required in (a)(4) due to condensationor icing.

NCO.IDE.A.130 Terrain awareness warning system (TAWS)

Turbine-powered aeroplanes certified for a maximum passenger seating configuration of more than nine shallbe equipped with a TAWS that meets the requirements for:

(a) class A equipment, as specified in an acceptable standard, in the case of aeroplanes for which the individualcertificate of airworthiness (CofA) was first issued after 1 January 2011; or

(b) class B equipment, as specified in an acceptable standard, in the case of aeroplanes for which the individualCofA was first issued on or before 1 January 2011.

NCO.IDE.A.135 Flight crew interphone system

Aeroplanes operated by more than one flight crew member shall be equipped with a flight crew interphonesystem, including headsets and microphones for use by all flight crew members.

NCO.IDE.A.140 Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices




(3) a child restraint device (CRD) for each person on board younger than 24 months; and

(4) a seat belt with upper torso restraint system on each flight crew seat, having a single point release foraeroplanes having a CofA first issued on or after 25 August 2016.

NCO.IDE.A.145 First-aid kit

(a) Aeroplanes shall be equipped with a first-aid kit.

(b) The first-aid kit shall be:



NCO.IDE.A.150 Supplemental oxygen - pressurised aeroplanes

(a) Pressurised aeroplanes operated at flight altitudes for which the oxygen supply is required in accordancewith (b) shall be equipped with oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus capable of storing and dispensing therequired oxygen supplies.

(b) Pressurised aeroplanes operated above flight altitudes at which the pressure altitude in the passengercompartments is above 10 000 ft shall carry enough breathing oxygen to supply:

(1) all crew members and:

(i) 100 % of the passengers for any period when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 15 000 ft, but inno case less than 10 minutes’ supply;

(ii) at least 30 % of the passengers, for any period when, in the event of loss of pressurisation andtaking into account the circumstances of the flight, the pressure altitude in the passenger



compartment will be between 14 000 ft and 15 000 ft; and

(iii) at least 10 % of the passengers for any period in excess of 30 minutes when the pressure altitudein the passenger compartment will be between 10 000 ft and 14 000 ft;

and

(2) all the occupants of the passenger compartment for no less than 10 minutes, in the case of aeroplanesoperated at pressure altitudes above 25 000 ft, or operated below that altitude but under conditions that willnot allow them to descend safely to a pressure altitude of 13 000 ft within 4 minutes.

(c) Pressurised aeroplanes operated at flight altitudes above 25 000 ft shall, in addition, be equipped with adevice to provide a warning indication to the flight crew of any loss of pressurisation.

NCO.IDE.A.155 Supplemental oxygen - non-pressurised aeroplanes

Non-pressurised aeroplanes operated when an oxygen supply is required in accordance with NCO.OP.190 shallbe equipped with oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus capable of storing and dispensing the requiredoxygen supplies.

NCO.IDE.A.160 Hand fire extinguishers

(a) Aeroplanes, except touring motor gliders (TMG) and ELA1 aeroplanes, shall be equipped with at least onehand fire extinguisher:




NCO.IDE.A.165 Marking of break-in points

If areas of the aeroplane’s fuselage suitable for break-in by rescue crews in an emergency are marked, suchareas shall be marked as shown in Figure 1.

NCO.IDE.A.170 Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)


(1) an ELT of any type, when first issued with an individual CofA on or before 1 July 2008;

(2) an automatic ELT, when first issued with an individual CofA after 1 July 2008; or



(3) a survival ELT (ELT(S)) or a personal locator beacon (PLB), carried by a crew member or a passenger,when certified for a maximum passenger seating configuration of six or less.

(b) ELTs of any type and PLBs shall be capable of transmitting simultaneously on 121,5 MHz and 406 MHz.

NCO.IDE.A.175 Flight over water

(a) The following aeroplanes shall be equipped with a life-jacket for each person on board, or equivalentindividual floatation device for each person on board younger than 24 months, that shall be worn or stowed in aposition that is readily accessible from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided:

(1) single-engined landplanes when:

(i) flying over water beyond gliding distance from land; or

(ii) taking off or landing at an aerodrome or operating site where, in the opinion of the pilot-in-command, the take-off or approach path is so disposed over water that there would be a likelihood ofa ditching;

(2) seaplanes operated over water; and

(3) aeroplanes operated at a distance away from land where an emergency landing is possible greaterthan that corresponding to 30 minutes at normal cruising speed or 50 NM, whichever is less.

(b) Seaplanes operated over water shall be equipped with:

(1) one anchor;

(2) one sea anchor (drogue), when necessary to assist in manoeuvring; and

(3) equipment for making the sound signals, as prescribed in the International Regulations for PreventingCollisions at Sea, where applicable.

(c) The pilot-in-command of an aeroplane operated at a distance away from land where an emergency landingis possible greater than that corresponding to 30 minutes at normal cruising speed or 50 NM, whichever is thelesser, shall determine the risks to survival of the occupants of the aeroplane in the event of a ditching, basedon which he/she shall determine the carriage of:



(3) life-saving equipment, to provide the means of sustaining life, as appropriate to the flight to beundertaken.

NCO.IDE.A.180 Survival equipment

Aeroplanes operated over areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult shall be equipped withsuch signalling devices and life-saving equipment, including means of sustaining life, as may be appropriate tothe area overflown.

NCO.IDE.A.190 Radio communication equipment

(a) Where required by the airspace being flown aeroplanes shall be equipped with radio communicationequipment capable of conducting two-way communication with those aeronautical stations and on thosefrequencies to meet airspace requirements.

(b) Radio communication equipment, if required by (a), shall provide for communication on the aeronauticalemergency frequency 121,5 MHz.

(c) When more than one communication equipment unit is required, each shall be independent of the other orothers to the extent that a failure in any one will not result in failure of any other.



NCO.IDE.A.195 Navigation equipment

(a) Aeroplanes operated over routes that cannot be navigated by reference to visual landmarks shall beequipped with any navigation equipment necessary to enable them to proceed in accordance with:

(1) the ATS flight plan; if applicable; and


(b) Aeroplanes shall have sufficient navigation equipment to ensure that, in the event of the failure of one item ofequipment at any stage of the flight, the remaining equipment shall allow safe navigation in accordance with (a),or an appropriate contingency action, to be completed safely.

(c) Aeroplanes operated on flights in which it is intended to land in IMC shall be equipped with suitableequipment capable of providing guidance to a point from which a visual landing can be performed. Thisequipment shall be capable of providing such guidance for each aerodrome at t which it is intended to land inIMC and for any designated alternate aerodromes.

NCO.IDE.A.200 Transponder

Where required by the airspace being flown, aeroplanes shall be equipped with a secondary surveillance radar(SSR) transponder with all the required capabilities.



SECTION 2 Helicopters

NCO.IDE.H.100 Instruments and equipment - general



(2) used to comply with NCO.IDE.H.190;

(3) used to comply with NCO.IDE.H.195; or

(4) installed in the helicopter.




(3) first-aid kit;




(c) Instruments and equipment not required by this Subpart, as well as any other equipment that is not requiredby other applicable Annexes, but is carried on a flight, shall comply with the following:

(1) the information provided by these instruments or equipment shall not be used by the flight crew tocomply with the applicable airworthiness requirements or NCO.IDE.H.190 and NCO.IDE.H.195; and

(2) the instruments and equipment shall not affect the airworthiness of the helicopter, even in the case offailures or malfunction.



NCO.IDE.H.105 Minimum equipment for flight

A flight shall not be commenced when any of the helicopter’s instruments, items of equipment or functionsrequired for the intended flight are inoperative or missing, unless:

(a) the helicopter is operated in accordance with the MEL, if established; or

(b) the helicopter is subject to a permit to fly issued in accordance with the applicable airworthinessrequirements.

NCO.IDE.H.115 Operating lights

Helicopters operated at night shall be equipped with:




(d) lighting supplied from the helicopter’s electrical system to provide adequate illumination for all instrumentsand equipment essential to the safe operation of the helicopter;

(e) lighting supplied from the helicopter’s electrical system to provide illumination in all passengercompartments;




(g) lights to conform with the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea if the helicopter isamphibious.

NCO.IDE.H.120 Operations under VFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment

(a) Helicopters operated under VFR by day shall be equipped with a means of measuring and displaying thefollowing:





(5) slip.

(b) Helicopters operated under VMC at night, or when the visibility is less than 1 500 m, or in conditions wherethe helicopter cannot be maintained in a desired flight path without reference to one or more additionalinstruments, shall be, in addition to (a), equipped with:


(i) attitude;

(ii) vertical speed; and

(iii) stabilised heading; and

(2) a means of indicating when the supply of power to the gyroscopic instruments is not adequate.

(c) Helicopters operated when the visibility is less than 1 500 m, or in conditions where the helicopter cannot bemaintained in a desired flight path without reference to one or more additional instruments, shall be, in additionto (a) and (b), equipped with a means of preventing malfunction of the airspeed indicating system required in(a)(4) due to condensation or icing.

NCO.IDE.H.125 Operations under IFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment

Helicopters operated under IFR shall be equipped with:






(5) vertical speed;

(6) slip;

(7) attitude;


(9) outside air temperature;


(c) a means of preventing malfunction of the airspeed indicating system required by (a)(4) due to condensationor icing; and

(d) an additional means of measuring and displaying attitude as a standby instrument.



NCO.IDE.H.126 Additional equipment for single pilot operations under IFR

Helicopters operated under IFR with a single pilot shall be equipped with an autopilot with at least altitude holdand heading mode.

NCO.IDE.H.135 Flight crew interphone system

Helicopters operated by more than one flight crew member shall be equipped with a flight crew interphonesystem, including headsets and microphones for use by all flight crew members.

NCO.IDE.H.140 Seats, seat safety belts, restraint systems and child restraint devices

(a) Helicopters shall be equipped with:



(3) for helicopters first issued with an individual CofA after 31 December 2012, a seat belt with an uppertorso restraint system for each passenger who is aged 24 months or more;

(4) a child restraint device for each person on board younger than 24 months; and

(5) a seat belt with upper torso restraint system incorporating a device that will automatically restrain theoccupant’s torso in the event of rapid deceleration on each flight crew seat.

(b) A seat belt with upper torso restraint system shall have a single point release.

NCO.IDE.H.145 First-aid kit

(a) Helicopters shall be equipped with a first-aid kit.




NCO.IDE.H.155 Supplemental oxygen - non-pressurised helicopters

Non-pressurised helicopters operated when an oxygen supply is required in accordance with NCO.OP.190 shallbe equipped with oxygen storage and dispensing apparatus capable of storing and dispensing the requiredoxygen supplies.

NCO.IDE.H.160 Hand fire extinguishers

(a) Helicopters, except ELA2 helicopters, shall be equipped with at least one hand fire extinguisher:




NCO.IDE.H.165 Marking of break-in points

If areas of the helicopter’s fuselage suitable for break-in by rescue crews in an emergency are marked, suchareas shall be marked as shown in Figure 1.



NCO.IDE.H.170 Emergency locator transmitter (ELT)

(a) Helicopters certified for a maximum passenger seating configuration above six shall be equipped with:

(1) an automatic ELT; and

(2) one survival ELT (ELT(S)) in a life-raft or life-jacket when the helicopter is operated at a distance fromland corresponding to more than 3 minutes flying time at normal cruising speed.

(b) Helicopters certified for a maximum passenger seating configuration of six or less shall be equipped with anELT(S) or a personal locator beacon (PLB), carried by a crew member or a passenger.

(c) ELTs of any type and PLBs shall be capable of transmitting simultaneously on 121,5 MHz and 406 MHz.

NCO.IDE.H.175 Flight over water

(a) Helicopters shall be equipped with a life-jacket for each person on board or equivalent individual flotationdevice for each person on board younger than 24 months, which shall be worn or stowed in a position that isreadily accessible from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is provided, when:

(1) flying over water beyond autorotational distance from land where in case of the critical engine failure,the helicopter is not able to sustain level flight; or

(2) flying over water at a distance of land corresponding to more than 10 minutes flying at normal cruisingspeed, where in case of the critical engine failure, the helicopter is able to sustain level flight; or

(3) taking off or landing at an aerodrome/operating site where the take-off or approach path is over water.


(c) The pilot-in-command of a helicopter operated on a flight over water at a distance from land corresponding tomore than 30 minutes flying time at normal cruising speed or 50 NM, whichever is less, shall determine the risksto survival of the occupants of the helicopter in the event of a ditching, based on which he/she shall determinethe carriage of:



(3) life-saving equipment, to provide the means of sustaining life, as appropriate to the flight to beundertaken.

(d) The pilot-in-command shall determine the risks to survival of the occupants of the helicopter in the event of aditching, when deciding if the life-jackets required in (a) shall be worn by all occupants.



NCO.IDE.H.180 Survival equipment

Helicopters, operated over areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult, shall be equippedwith such signalling devices and life-saving equipment, including means of sustaining life, as may beappropriate to the area overflown.

NCO.IDE.H.185 All helicopters on flights over water - ditching

Helicopters flying over water in a hostile environment beyond a distance of 50 NM from land shall be:

(a) designed for landing on water in accordance with the relevant airworthiness code;

(b) certified for ditching in accordance with the relevant airworthiness code; or

(c) fitted with emergency flotation equipment.

NCO.IDE.H.190 Radio communication equipment

(a) Where required by the airspace being flown helicopters shall be equipped with radio communicationequipment capable of conducting two-way communication with those aeronautical stations and on thosefrequencies to meet airspace requirements.


(c) When more than one communications equipment unit is required, each shall be independent of the other orothers to the extent that a failure in any one will not result in failure of any other.

(d) When a radio communication system is required, and in addition to the flight crew interphone systemrequired in NCO.IDE.H.135, helicopters shall be equipped with a transmit button on the flight controls for eachrequired pilot and/or crew member at his/her working station.

NCO.IDE.H.195 Navigation equipment

(a) Helicopters operated over routes that cannot be navigated by reference to visual landmarks shall beequipped with navigation equipment that will enable them to proceed in accordance with:



(b) Helicopters shall have sufficient navigation equipment to ensure that, in the event of the failure of one item ofequipment at any stage of the flight, the remaining equipment shall allow safe navigation in accordance with (a),or an appropriate contingency action, to be completed safely.

(c) Helicopters operated on flights in which it is intended to land in IMC shall be equipped with navigationequipment capable of providing guidance to a point from which a visual landing can be performed. Thisequipment shall be capable of providing such guidance for each aerodrome at which is intended to land in IMCand for any designated alternate aerodromes.

NCO.IDE.H.200 Transponder

Where required by the airspace being flown, helicopters shall be equipped with a secondary surveillance radar(SSR) transponder with all the required capabilities.



SECTION 3 Sailplanes

NCO.IDE.S.100 Instruments and equipment - general



(2) used to to comply with NCO.IDE.S.145;

(3) used to comply with NCO.IDE.S.150; or

(4) installed in the sailplane.




(3) survival and signalling equipment.

(c) Instruments and equipment not required by this Subpart as well as any other equipment that is not requiredby other Annexes, but is carried on a flight, shall comply with the following:

(1) the information provided by these instruments or, equipment shall not be used by the flight crew tocomply with the applicable airworthiness requirements; and

(2) the instruments and equipment shall not affect the airworthiness of the sailplane, even in the case offailures or malfunction.



NCO.IDE.S.105 Minimum equipment for flight

A flight shall not be commenced when any of the sailplane instruments, items of equipment or functions requiredfor the intended flight are inoperative or missing, unless:

(a) the sailplane is operated in accordance with the MEL, if established; or

(b) the sailplane is subject to a permit to fly issued in accordance with the applicable airworthinessrequirements.

NCO.IDE.S.115 Operations under VFR - flight and navigational instruments

(a) Sailplanes operated under VFR by day shall be equipped with a means of measuring and displaying thefollowing:

(1) in the case of powered sailplanes, magnetic heading;


(3) pressure altitude; and

(4) indicated airspeed.

(b) Sailplanes operating in conditions where the sailplane cannot be maintained in a desired flight path withoutreference to one or more additional instruments, shall be, in addition to (a), equipped with a means ofmeasuring and displaying the following:

(1) vertical speed;

(2) attitude or turn and slip; and



(3) magnetic heading.

NCO.IDE.S.120 Cloud flying - flight and navigational instruments

Sailplanes performing cloud flying shall be equipped with a means of measuring and displaying the following:

(a) magnetic heading;

(b) time in hours, minutes and seconds;

(c) pressure altitude;

(d) indicated airspeed;

(e) vertical speed; and

(f) attitude or turn and slip.

NCO.IDE.S.125 Seats and restraint systems

(a) Sailplanes shall be equipped with:

(1) a seat for each person on board; and

(2) a seat belt with upper torso restraint system for each seat according to the AFM.

(b) A seat belt with upper torso restraint system shall have a single point release.

NCO.IDE.S.130 Supplemental oxygen

Sailplanes operated when an oxygen supply is required in accordance with NCO.OP.190 shall be equipped withoxygen storage and dispensing apparatus capable of storing and dispensing the required oxygen supplies.

NCO.IDE.S.135 Flight over water

The pilot-in-command of a sailplane operated over water shall determine the risks to survival of the occupants ofthe sailplane in the event of a ditching, based on which he/she shall determine the carriage of:

(a) a life-jacket, or equivalent individual floatation device, for each person on board, that shall be worn or stowedin a position that is readily accessible from the seat of the person for whose use it is provided;

(b) an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) or a personal locator beacon (PLB), carried by a crew member or apassenger, capable of transmitting simultaneously on 121,5 MHz and 406 MHz; and

(c) equipment for making distress signals, when operating a flight:

(1) over water beyond gliding distance from land; or

(2) where the take-off or approach path is so disposed over water that in the event of a mishap there wouldbe a likelihood of ditching.

NCO.IDE.S.140 Survival equipment

Sailplanes operated over areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult shall be equipped withsuch signalling devices and life-saving equipment as appropriate to the area overflown.

NCO.IDE.S.145 Radio communication equipment

(a) Where required by the airspace being flown sailplanes shall be equipped with radio communicationequipment capable of conducting two-way communication with those aeronautical stations or those frequenciesto meet airspace requirements.


NCO.IDE.S.150 Navigation equipment

Sailplanes shall be equipped with any navigation equipment necessary to proceed in accordance with:



(a) the ATS flight plan if applicable; and

(b) the applicable airspace requirements.

NCO.IDE.S.155 Transponder

When required by the airspace being flown, sailplanes shall be equipped with a secondary surveillance radar(SSR) transponder with all the required capabilities.



SECTION 4 Balloons

NCO.IDE.B.100 Instruments and equipment - general


(1) used by the flight crew to determine the flight path;

(2) used to comply with NCO.IDE.B.145; or

(3) installed in the balloon.




(3) first-aid kit;

(4) survival and signalling equipment.

(c) Instruments and equipment not required by this Subpart as well as any other equipment that is not requiredby other Annexes, but is carried on a flight, shall comply with the following:

(1) the information provided by these instruments or equipment shall not be used by the flight crew tocomply with the applicable airworthiness requirements; and

(2) the instruments and equipment shall not affect the airworthiness of the balloon, even in the case offailures or malfunction.

(d) Instruments and equipment shall be readily operable or accessible from the station where the flight crewmember that needs to use it is assigned.


NCO.IDE.B.105 Minimum equipment for flight

A flight shall not be commenced when any of the balloon instruments, items of equipment or functions requiredfor the intended flight are inoperative or missing, unless:

(a) the balloon is operated in accordance with the MEL, if established; or

(b) the balloon is subject to a permit to fly issued in accordance with the applicable airworthiness requirements.

NCO.IDE.B.110 Operating lights

Balloons operated at night shall be equipped with:

(a) anti-collision lights;

(b) a means to provide adequate illumination for all instruments and equipment essential to the safe operation ofthe balloon; and

(c) an independent portable light.

NCO.IDE.B.115 Operations under VFR - flight and navigational instruments and associated equipment

Balloons operated under VFR by day shall be equipped with the following:

(a) a means of displaying drift direction; and

(b) a means of measuring and displaying:


(2) vertical speed, if required by the AFM; and



(3) pressure altitude, if required by the AFM, if required by airspace requirements or when altitude needs tobe controlled for the use of oxygen.

NCO.IDE.B.120 First-aid kit

(a) Balloons shall be equipped with a first-aid kit.




NCO.IDE.B.121 Supplemental oxygen

Balloons operated at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft shall be equipped with an oxygen storage anddispensing apparatus carrying enough breathing oxygen to supply:

(a) crew members for any period in excess of 30 minutes when the pressure altitude will be between 10 000 ftand 13 000 ft; and

(b) all crew members and passengers for any period that the pressure altitude will be above 13 000 ft.

NCO.IDE.B.125 Hand fire extinguishers

Hot air -balloons shall be equipped with at least one hand fire extinguisher, if required by the applicablecertification specifications.

NCO.IDE.B.130 Flight over water

The pilot-in-command of a balloon operated over water shall determine the risks to survival of the occupants ofthe balloon in the event of a ditching, based on which he/she shall determine the carriage of:

(a) a life-jacket for each person on board, or equivalent individual floatation device for each person on boardyounger than 24 months, that shall be worn or stowed in a position that is readily accessible from the station ofthe person for whose use it is provided;

(b) when carrying more than 6 persons, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) capable of transmittingsimultaneously on 121,5 MHz and 406 MHz;

(c) when carrying up to 6 persons, an ELT or a personal locator beacon (PLB), carried by a crew member or apassenger, capable of transmitting simultaneously on 121,5 MHz and 406 MHz; and

(d) equipment for making the distress signals.

NCO.IDE.B.135 Survival equipment

Balloons operated over areas in which search and rescue would be especially difficult shall be equipped withsuch signalling devices and life-saving equipment as appropriate to the area overflown.

NCO.IDE.B.140 Miscellaneous equipment

(a) Balloons shall be equipped with protective gloves for each crew member.

(b) Hot-air balloons shall be equipped with:

(1) an alternative source of ignition;

(2) a means of measuring and indicating fuel quantity;

(3) a fire blanket or fire resistant cover; and

(4) a drop line of at least 25 metres (m) in length.

(c) Gas balloons shall be equipped with:

(1) a knife; and



(2) a drop line of at least 20 m in length made of natural fibre or electrostatic conductive material.

NCO.IDE.B.145 Radio communication equipment

(a) Where required by the airspace being flown, balloons shall be equipped with radio communicationequipment capable of conducting two-way communication with those aeronautical stations or those frequenciesto meet airspace requirements.


NCO.IDE.B.150 Transponder

When required by the airspace being flown, balloons shall be equipped with a secondary surveillance radar(SSR) transponder with all the required capabilities.



SUBPART E SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS

SECTION 1 General

NCO.SPEC.100 Scope

This subpart establishes specific requirements to be followed by a pilot-in-command conducting non-commercialspecialised operations with other-than complex motor-powered aircraft.

NCO.SPEC.105 Checklist

(a) Before commencing a specialised operation, the pilot-in-command shall conduct a risk assessment,assessing the complexity of the activity to determine the hazards and associated risks inherent in the operationand establish mitigating measures.

(b) A specialised operation shall be performed in accordance with a checklist. Based on the risk assessment,the pilot-in-command shall establish such checklist appropriate to the specialised activity and aircraft used,taking account of any section of this subpart.

(c) The checklist that is relevant to the duties of the pilot-in-command, crew members and task specialists shallbe readily accessible on each flight.

(d) The checklist shall be regularly reviewed and updated, as appropriate.

NCO.SPEC.110 Pilot-in-command responsibilities and authority

Whenever crew members or task specialists are involved in the operation, the pilot-in-command shall

(a) ensure compliance of crew members and task specialists with NCO.SPEC.115 and NCO.SPEC.120;

(b) not commence a flight if any crew member or task specialist is incapacitated from performing duties by anycause such as injury, sickness, fatigue or the effects of any psychoactive substance;

(c) not continue a flight beyond the nearest weather-permissible aerodrome or operating site when any crewmember or task specialist’s capacity to perform duties is significantly reduced from causes such as fatigue,sickness or lack of oxygen;

(d) ensure that crew members and task specialists comply with the laws, regulations and procedures of thoseStates where operations are conducted;

(e) ensure that all crew members and task specialists are able to communicate with each other in a commonlanguage; and

(f) ensure that task specialists and crew members use supplemental oxygen continuously whenever he/shedetermines that at the altitude of the intended flight the lack of oxygen might result in impairment of the facultiesof crew members or harmfully affect task specialists. If the pilot-in-command cannot determine how the lack ofoxygen might affect the occupants on board, he/she shall ensure that task specialists and crew members usesupplemental oxygen continuously whenever the cabin altitude exceeds 10 000 ft for a period of more than 30minutes and whenever the cabin altitude exceeds 13 000 ft.

NCO.SPEC.115 Crew responsibilities

(a) The crew member shall be responsible for the proper execution of his/her duties. Crew duties shall bespecified in the checklist.

(b) Except for balloons, during critical phases of flight or whenever deemed necessary by the pilot-in-commandin the interest of safety, the crew member shall be restrained at his/her assigned station unless otherwisespecified in the checklist.

(c) During flight, the flight crew member shall keep his/her safety belt fastened while at his/her station.

(d) During flight, at least one qualified flight crew member shall remain at the controls of the aircraft at all times.

(e) The crew member shall not undertake duties on an aircraft:



(1) if he/she knows or suspects that he/she is suffering from fatigue if he/she knows or suspects that he/she is suffering from fatigue or feels otherwise unfit such that his/her task achievement/decision makinghas deteriorated to the extent that the flight may be endangered.; or

(2) when under the influence of psychoactive substances or alcohol or when unfit due to injury, fatigue,medication, sickness or other similar causes;.

(f) The crew member who undertakes duties for more than one operator shall:

(1) maintain his/her individual records regarding flight and duty times and rest periods as referred to inapplicable FTL requirements; and

(2) provide each operator with the data needed to schedule activities in accordance with the applicableFTL requirements.

(g) The crew member shall report to the pilot-in-command:



NCO.SPEC.120 Task specialists responsibilities

(a) The task specialist shall be responsible for the proper execution of his/her duties. Task specialists’ dutiesshall be specified in the checklist.

(b) Except for balloons, during critical phases of flight or whenever deemed necessary by the pilot-in-commandin the interest of safety, the task specialist shall be restrained at his/her assigned station unless otherwisespecified in the checklist.

(c) The task specialist shall ensure that he/she is restrained when carrying out specialised tasks with externaldoors opened or removed.

(d) The task specialist shall report to the pilot-in-command:



NCO.SPEC.125 Safety briefing

(a) Before take-off, the pilot-in-command shall brief task specialists on:

(1) emergency equipment and procedures;

(2) operational procedures associated with the specialised task before each flight or series of flights

(b) The briefing referred to in (a)(2) may not be required if task specialists have been instructed on theoperational procedures before the start of the operating season in that calendar year.

NCO.SPEC.130 Minimum obstacle clearance altitudes - IFR flights

The pilot-in-command shall establish minimum flight altitudes for each flight providing the required terrainclearance for all route segments to be flown in IFR. The minimum flight altitudes shall not be lower than thosepublished by the State overflown.

NCO.SPEC.135 Fuel and oil supply - aeroplanes

NCO.OP.125(a)(1)(i) does not apply to sailplane-towing, flying display, aerobatic flights or competition flights.

NCO.SPEC.140 Fuel and oil supply - helicopters

Notwithstanding NCO.OP.126(a)(1), the pilot-in-command of a helicopter may only commence a VFR flight byday remaining within 25 NM of the aerodrome/operating site of departure with reserve fuel of not less than 10



minutes at best-range-speed.

NCO.SPEC.145 Simulated situations in flight

Unless a task specialist is on-board the aircraft for training, the pilot-in-command shall, when carrying taskspecialists, not simulate:

(a) situations that require the application of abnormal or emergency procedures; or

(b) flight in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).

NCO.SPEC.150 Ground proximity detection

If installed, the ground proximity warning system may be disabled during those specialised tasks, which by theirnature require the aircraft to be operated within a distance from the ground below that which would trigger theground proximity warning system.

NCO.SPEC.155 Airborne collision avoidance system (ACAS II)

Notwithstanding NCO.OP.200, the ACAS II may be disabled during those specialised tasks, which by theirnature require the aircraft to be operated within a distance from each other below that which would trigger theACAS.

NCO.SPEC.160 Release of dangerous goods

The pilot-in-command shall not operate an aircraft over congested areas of cities, towns or settlements or overan open-air assembly of persons when releasing dangerous goods.

NCO.SPEC.165 Carriage and use of weapons

(a) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that, when weapons are carried on a flight for the purpose of aspecialised task, these are secured when not in use.

(b) The task specialist using the weapon shall take all necessary measures to prevent the aircraft and personson board or on the ground from being endangered.

NCO.SPEC.170 Performance and operating criteria - aeroplanes

When operating an aeroplane at a height of less than 150 m (500 ft) above a non-congested area, foroperations of aeroplanes that are not able to sustain level flight in the event of a critical engine failure, the pilot-in-command shall have:

(a) established operational procedures to minimise the consequences of an engine failure; and

(b) briefed all crew members and task specialists on board on the procedures to be carried out in the event of aforced landing.

NCO.SPEC.175 Performance and operating criteria - helicopters

(a) The pilot-in-command may operate an aircraft over congested areas provided that:

(1) the helicopter is certified in category A or B; and

(2) safety measures are established to prevent undue hazard to persons or property on the ground

(b) The pilot-in-command shall have:

(1) established operational procedures to minimise the consequences of an engine failure; and

(2) briefed all crew members and task specialists on board on the procedures to be carried out in the eventof a forced landing.

(c) The pilot-in-command shall ensure that the mass at take-off, landing or hover shall not exceed the maximummass specified for:

(1) a hover out of ground effect (HOGE) with all engines operating at the appropriate power rating; or



(2) if conditions prevail that a HOGE is not likely to be established, the helicopter mass shall not exceedthe maximum mass specified for a hover in ground effect (HIGE) with all engines operating at theappropriate power rating, provided prevailing conditions allow a hover in ground effect at the maximumspecified mass.



SECTION 2 Helicopter external sling load operations (HESLO)

NCO.SPEC.HESLO.100 Checklist

The checklist for HESLO shall contain:

(a) normal, abnormal and emergency procedures;

(b) relevant performance data;

(c) required equipment;

(d) any limitations; and

(e) responsibilities and duties of the pilot-in-command, and, if applicable, crew members and task specialists.

NCO.SPEC.HESLO.105 Specific HESLO equipment

The helicopter shall be equipped with at least:

(a) one cargo safety mirror or alternative means to see the hook(s)/load; and

(b) one load meter, unless there is another method of determining the weight of the load.

NCO.SPEC.HESLO.110 Transportation of dangerous goods

The operator transporting dangerous goods to or from unmanned sites or remote locations shall apply to theQCAA for an exemption from the provisions of the Technical Instructions if they intend not to comply with therequirements of those Instructions.



SECTION 3 Human external cargo operations (HEC)

NCO.SPEC.HEC.100 Checklist

The checklist for HEC shall contain:






NCO.SPEC.HEC.105 Specific HEC equipment

(a) The helicopter shall be equipped with:

(1) hoist operations equipment or cargo hook;

(2) one cargo safety mirror or alternative means to see the hook; and

(3) one load meter, unless there is another method of determining the weight of the load.

(b) The installation of all hoist and cargo hook equipment and any subsequent modifications shall have anairworthiness approval appropriate to the intended function.



SECTION 4 Parachute operations (PAR)

NCO.SPEC.PAR.100 Checklist

The checklist for PAR shall contain:






NCO.SPEC.PAR.105 Carriage of crew members and task specialists

The requirement laid down in NCO.SPEC.120(c) shall not be applicable for task specialists performingparachute jumping.

NCO.SPEC.PAR.110 Seats

Notwithstanding NCO.IDE.A.140(a)(1) and NCO.IDE.H.140(a)(1), the floor of the aircraft may be used as a seat,provided means are available for the task specialist to hold or strap on.

NCO.SPEC.PAR.115 Supplemental oxygen

Notwithstanding NCO.SPEC.110(f), the requirement to use supplemental oxygen shall not be applicable forcrew members other than the pilot-in-command and for task specialists carrying out duties essential to thespecialised task, whenever the cabin altitude:

(a) exceeds 13 000 ft, for a period of not more than 6 minutes;, or

(b) exceeds 15 000 ft, for a period of not more 3 minutes.

NCO.SPEC.PAR.120 Release of dangerous goods

Notwithstanding NCO.SPEC.160, parachutists may exit the aircraft for the purpose of parachute display overcongested areas of cities, towns or settlements or over an open-air assembly of persons whilst carrying smoketrain devices, provided these are manufactured for this purpose.



SECTION 5 Aerobatic flights (ABF)

NCO.SPEC.ABF.100 Checklist

The checklist for ABF shall contain:






NCO.SPEC.ABF.105 Documents and information

The following documents and information listed in NCO.GEN.135(a) need not be carried during aerobatic flights:

(a) details of the filed ATS flight plan, if applicable;

(b) current and suitable aeronautical charts for the route/area of the proposed flight and all routes along which itis reasonable to expect that the flight may be diverted; and

(c) procedures and visual signals information for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft.

NCO.SPEC.ABF.110 Equipment

The following equipment requirements need not be applicable to aerobatic flights:

(a) first-aids kit as laid down in NCO.IDE.A.145 and NCO.IDE.H.145;

(b) hand-fire extinguishers as laid down in NCO.IDE.A.160 and NCO.IDE.H.180; and

(c) emergency locator transmitters or personal locator beacons as laid down in NCO.IDE.A.170 andNCO.IDE.H.170.



LOCAL AIR LAW (A) EXAM REFERENCE BOOK

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