Indian Polity & Constitution

Indian Polity & ConstitutionMultiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for all competitive exams in India─

UPSCSuccess.com52, Shilpa Nagar, SomalwadaNagpur, Maharashtra - 440015

www.upscsuccess.com 2

Indian Constitutional Development 2

Constitutional Preamble Sources 19

Citizenship, Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles of State Policy 31

Parts/ Articles of the Constitution, Emergency Provisions 62

The Union Executive 75

The Union Legislature 109

The Judiciary 158

The State Executive 187

Indian Federalism and Centre-State Relations 205

Public Service Commissions, Attorney General, CAG, Election Commission226

Amendment of the Constitution 262

[email protected] - 52, Shilpa Nagar, Somalwada, Nagpur - 440015, Maharashtra

http://www.upscsuccess.com/

mailto:[email protected]


Indian Constitutional Development1. The Cabinet Mission to India was headed by (Asstt Grade 1992)

(a) Stafford Cripps

(b) A.V. Alexander

(c) Lord Pethick Lawrence

(d) Hugh GaitskellAns: (c)

2. The Constitution of India was adopted by the: (Teachers’ Exam 1994)

(a) Governor General

(b) British Parliament

(c) Constituent Assembly

(d) Parliament of IndiaAns: (c)

3. The Constituent Assembly for undivided India first met on

(a) 6th December, 1946

(b) 9th December, 1946

(c) 20th February, 1947

(d) 3rd June, 1947Ans: (b)

4. When the Constituent Assembly for the Dominion of India reassembled on

31st October, 1947, its reduced membership was:

(a) 299

(b) 311

(c) 319

(d) 331





Ans: (a)

5. Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent

Assembly of India? (CDS 1995)

(a) Dr. B.N. Rao

(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(c) K.M. Munshi

(d) M.C. SetalvadAns: (a)

6. The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up:

(a) under the Indian Independence Act, 1947

(b) under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946

(c) through a resolution of the provisional government

(d) by the Indian National CongressAns: (b)

7. The Constituent Assembly which framed the Constitution for Independent

India was set up in :

(a) 1945

(b) 1946

(c) 1947

(d) 1949Ans: (b)

8. Who presided over the inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly of

India?

(a) Sachidananda Sinha

(b) B. R. Ambedkar

(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(d) P. UpendraAns: (a)





9. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of

the Indian Constitution? [CDS 1992]

(a) Rajendra Prasad

(b) Tej Bahadur Sapru

(c) C. Rajagopalachari

(d) B. R. AmbedkarAns: (d)

10. How long did the Constituent Assembly take to finally pass the

Constitution?

(a) about 6 months in 1949

(b) exactly a year since Nov 26, 1948

(c) about 2 years since Aug 15, 1947

(d) about 3 years since Dec 9, 1946Ans: (d)

11. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?

(a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(d) C. Rajagopalachari

Ans: (b)

12. The demand for the Constituent Assembly was put forward by the Indian

National Congress in 1936 at its session heldat :

(a) Kanpur

(b) Bombay

(c) Lucknow

(d) Lahore

Ans: (c)

13. The Constituent Assembly arrived at decisions on the various provisions of

the Constitution:





(a) by a majority vote

(b) by a two-thirds majority

(c) by consensus

(d) unanimouslyAns: (c)

14. The most profound influence on the drafting of the Indian Constitution

was exercised by the

(a) U.S. Constitution

(b) British Constitution

(c) Government of India Act, 1935

(d) French ideals of Liberty and FraternityAns: (c)

15. Match the following: Committees of Constituent Assembly Chairmen

A. Drafting Committee 1. Vallabhbhai PateI

B. Committee on Fundamental and Minority Rights 2. Jawaharlal Nehru

C. Union Constitution Committee 3. Kanhiyalal Munshi

D. Working Committee 4. B.R. AmbedkarA B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 4 2 1 3

(c) 4 1 3 2

(d) 4 1 2 3Ans: (d)

16. Which one of the following statements is correct? (IAS 2004)

(a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru; M.A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of theConstituent Assembly of India

(c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947

(d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950





Ans: (a)

17. Match the following:

A. July 22, 1947 1. Adoption of National Song by the Constituent Assembly

B. January 24, 1950 2. Adoption of National Emblem by the Government

C. January 26, 1950 3. Adoption of National Calendar by the Government

D. March 22, 1957 4. Adoption of National Flag by the Constituent AssemblyA B C D

(a) 4 1 2 3

(b) 3 1 2 4

(c) 4 2 1 3

(d) 2 1 3 4Ans: (a)

18. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

I. India’s National Song-Vande Mataram

II. India s National Flower-Rose

III. India’s National Animal-Tiger

IV. India’s National Bird-Eagle

(a) I and IV

(b) I, II and III

(c) II, III and IV

(d) I and IIIAns: (d)

19. The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constitutent Assembly

of India in:

(a) July, 1948

(b) July, 1950

(c) July, 1947

(d) August, 1947





Ans: (c)

20. Which of the following are the principal features of Government of India

Act, 1919?

1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces.

2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.

3. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the Provinces.

4. Expansion and reconstitution of Central and Provincial Legislatures.

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4Ans: (d)

21. Which of the following proved to be the most short lived of all the British

constitutional experiments in India?

(a) Government of India Act, 1919

(b) Indian Council Act, 1909

(c) Pitt’s India Act, 1784

(d) Government of India Act, 1935Ans: (b)

22. Which one of the following Acts formally introduced the principles of

elections for the first time?

(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909

(b) Government of India Act, 1919


(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947Ans: (a)

23. Which of the following features do not contribute to making the Indian

Constitution the bulkiest in the world?





I. Various types of emergencies are considered in detail.

II. It codifies the rights and privileges of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures.

III. It enumerates all types of Indian citizenship and how it can be terminated.

IV. It contains not only a list of fundamental rights but also the restrictions to be placed on them.

(a) I and II

(b) I and IV

(c) II and III

(d) II, III and IVAns: (c)

24. Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the Objectives

Resolution?

I. It was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly.

II. It called for just rights for minorities.

III. It formed the basis for the chapter on Fundamental Rights.

IV. It called for the establishment of a socialist and secular polity.

(a) I and II

(b) I, II and III

(c) III and IV

(d) Only IIIAns: (c)

25. Which of the following items is wrongly matched?

(a) December 9, 1947-Constituent Assemby’s first meeting

(b) November 26, 1949-the people of India adopted, enacted and gave to themselves the Constitution

(c) January 24,’ 1950-the Constitution was finally signed by the members of the Constituent Assembly

(d) January 26, 1950-the date of commencement of the Constitution





Ans: (a)

26. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution came into force from

November 26, 1949 ?

I. Provisions relating to citizenship.

II. Provisions relating to elections.

III. Provisions relating to provisional Parliament.

IV. Fundamental Rights.

(a) I and II

(b) I, III and IV

(c) I, II and III

(d) NoneAns: (c)

27. Which of the following Acts gave representation to Indians for the first

time in the Legislature?


(b) Indian Councils Act, 1919


(d) None of the aboveAns: (c)

28. The Crown took the Government of India into its own hands by :

(a) Charter Act, 1833


(c) Indian Council Act, 1861

(d) Government of India Act, 1935

Ans: (b)29. Consider the following statements. The Indian Constitution is :

(1) unwritten Constitution.

(2) written Constitution.





(3) largely based on Government of India Act, 1935.

(a) 2 and 1 are correct

(b) 2 and 3 are correct

(c) 1 and 2 are correct

(d) 1 and 3 are correctAns: (b)

30. The Indian Constitution establishes a secular state, meaning:

1. the State treats all religions equally.

2. freedom of faith and worship is allowed to all the people.

3. educational institutions, without exception, are free to impart religious instruction.

4. the State makes no discrimination on the basis of religion in matters of employment.

(a) I and II

(b) I, II and III

(c) II, III and IV

(d) I, II and IVAns: (d)

31. The nationalist demand for a Constituent Assembly was for the first time

conceded by the British Government, though indirectly and with reservations

in the:

(a) Cripps proposals

(b) August Offer

(c) Cabinet Mission Plan

(d) Act of 1935Ans: (b)

32. Which of the following was adopted from the Maurya dynasty in the

emblem of Government of India?





(a) Four lions

(b) Chariot wheel

(c) Horse

(d) Words ‘Satyameva Jayate’Ans: (a)

33. The office of Governor-General of India was created by (Asstt Grade 1991)

(a) Charter Act, 1813

(b) Charter Act, 1833


(d) Government of India Act, 1935Ans: (c)

34. Who among the following is known as the Father of the Indian

Constitution?

(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(b) Mahatma Gandhi

(c) Jawaharlal Nehru

(d) Vallabhbhai PateIAns: (a)

35. When did Mr. Attlee, Prime Minister of England, announce the transfer of

power to the Indians?

(a) February, 1947

(b) August, 1947

(c) June, 1948

(d) June, 1949Ans: (c)

36. Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the

Constitution? (UDC 1994)

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) B.R. Ambedkar





(c) B.N. Rao

(d) Mahatma GandhiAns: (a)

37. Which of the following is correct regarding the Indian Constitution?

(a) It is completely based on British Constitution

(b) It is made only on the basis of Government of India Act, 1935

(c) It is a mixture of several Constitutions

(d) It is originalAns: (c)


A. Govt. of India Act, 1919 1. Provincial autonomy

B. Govt. of India Act, 1935 2. Separate Electorate

C. Minto-Morley Reforms 3. Dyarchy

D. Cabinet Mission Plan 4. Constituent Assembly

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 4 3 1

(c) 4 1 3 2

(d) 3 1 2 4Ans: (d)

39. The amendment procedure laid down in the Constitution of India is on the

pattern of?



(c) Constitution of South Africa

(d) Constitution of UKAns: (c)

40. The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held in :





(a) Bombay

(b) Calcutta

(c) Lahore

(d) New DelhiAns: (d)

41. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution

Committee of the Constituent Assembly? [IAS 2005]

(a) B.R. Ambedkar

(b) J.B. Kripalani


(d) Alladi Krishnaswami AyyarAns: (c)

42. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?

(CDS 2009)

(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(b) Acharya J.B. Kriplani

(c) Lok Nayak Jayprakash Narayan

(d) K.M. MunshiAns: (c)

43. Which among the following is/are the feature (s) of a Federal State? ([NDA

2008)

1. The powers of the Central and the State (Constituent Unit) Governments are clearly laid down

2. It has an unwritten Constitution. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2





Ans: (a)

44. Who was the first Foreign Minister of free India? (NDA 2008)


(b) Gulzari Lal Nanda

(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(d) John MathaiAns: (a)

45. Under whom among the following was the first draft of the Constitution of

India prepared in October 1947 by the advisory branch of the office of the

Constituent Assembly? (IAS 2006)


(b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(c) K.M. Munshi

(d) B.N. RauAns: (d)

46. Which one among the following is a fundamental duty of citizens under

the Constitution of India? (CDS 2012)

(a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries

(b) To protect monuments of national importance

(c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so

(d) To know more and more about the history of IndiaAns: (c)

47. The first effort at drafting a Dominion Status Constitution for India was

made in response to the (CDS 2011)

(a) Minto-Morley Reforms

(b) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms

(c) Simon Commission

(d) First Round Table ConferenceAns: (c)





48. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A. B. C.

and D in the year 1950. In this context which of the following statements is

correct? (CDS 2011)

(a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D states.

(b) The Pajpramukh was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories Band C states. The Governor was the executive head of the category D states.

(c) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executivehead of categories C and D states.

(d) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of categories C and D states.Ans: (c)

49. The Constitution of India was promulgated on January 26, 1950 because:

(a) this day was being celebrated as the Independence Day since 1929

(b) it was the wish of the framers of the Constitution

(c) the British did not want to leave India earlier than this date

(d) it was an auspicious dayAns: (a)

50. The idea of the Constitution of India was first of all given by :

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar


(d) M.N. RoyAns: (d)

51. The members of the Constituent Assembly were:

(a) elected by Provincial Assemblies

(b) elected directly by people





(c) nominated by the government

(d) only representatives of the princely StatesAns: (a)

52. Which of the following statements regarding the’ Constituent Assembly

are true? (IAS 1993)

1. It was not based on Adult Franchise.

2. It resulted from direct elections.

3. It was a multi-party body.

4. It worked through several Committees.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Ans: (c)

53. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly

established in July 1946? (UTI 1993)

(a) Vallabhbhai Patel

(b) Mahatma Gandhi

(c) K.M. Munshi

(d) J.B. KripalaniAns: (b)

54. India became a Sovereign, democratic republic on :

(a) Aug 15, 1947

(b) Jan 30, 1948

(c) Jan 26, 1950

(d) Nov 26, 1929Ans: (c)





55. Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral:




(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947Ans: (b)

56. The first attempt at introducing a representative and popular element in

administration was made by :


(b) Indian Councils Act, 1909


(d) Indian Councils Act, 1919Ans: (b)

57. The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the:

(a) British Parliament

(b) Federal Legislature

(c) State Legislature

(d) Governor-GeneralAns: (d)

58. Which of the following was not one of the features of Government of India

Act, 1935 ?

(a) Provincial autonomy

(b) Dyarchy of centre

(c) Bicameral Legislature

(d) All India federationAns: (c)

59. Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for

India?

(a) Indian Council Act, 1909





(b) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms Act, 1919

(c) Charter Act, 1831

(d) Government of India Act, 1935Ans: (d)

60. What was the main stipulation of Government of India Act, 1935 ?

(a) A federation was suggested

(b) Unitary form of government was recommended

(c) Complete independence guaranteed

(d) Dyarchy was made applicable at provincial levelAns: (c)





Constitutional Preamble Sources1. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from

the Constitution of: (IAS 1992)

(a) USA

(b) Canada

(c) Ireland

(d) UKAns: (b)

2. The Indian Constitution closely follows the constitutional system of:

(I.Tax1989)

(a) USA

(b) UK

(c) Switzerland

(d) RussiaAns: (b)

3. Which of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation

and the American Federation? (IAS 1993)

(a) A single citizenship

(b) Dual Judiciary

(c) Three lists in the Constitution

(d) A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the ConstitutionAns: (d)

4. The inspiration of ‘Liberty, Equality and Fraternity’ was derived from:

(a) American revolution

(b) French revolution

(c) Russian revolution

(d) None of the aboveAns: (b)





5. Indian President and Prime Minister are a replica of the heads of the State

of which country ?

(a) Britain

(b) USA

(c) Ireland

(d) RussiaAns: (a)

6. The President of the Indian Union has the same constitutional authority as

the:

(a) British Monarch

(b) President of USA

(c) President of Egypt

(d) President of RussiaAns: (a)

7. Which of the following describes India as a Secular State?

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Ninth Schedule

(c) Directive Principles

(d) Preamble to the ConstitutionAns: (d)

8. In a parliamentary form of government, real powers of the State are vested

in the: (Railways 1994)

(a) Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister

(b) President

(c) Government

(d) ParliamentAns: (a)

9. Which of the following is not a basic feature of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Presidential Government





(b) Parliamentary Government

(c) Federal Government

(d) Independence of JudiciaryAns: (a)

10. Which of the following is a feature of the Parliamentary form of

government?

(a) Executive is responsible to Judiciary

(b) Executive is responsible to Legislature

(c) Judiciary is responsible to Executive

(d) Legislature is responsible to ExecutiveAns: (b)


Constitutional Provisions Sources

A. Federation 1. USA

B. Parliamentary 2. Britain

C. Directive Principle 3. Canada

D. Fundamental Rights 4. IrelandA B C D

(a) 2 1 4 1

(b) 2 3 1 4

(c) 3 4 2 1

(d) 3 2 4 1Ans: (d)

12. Which of the following features does the Indian Constitution borrow from

the Weimar Constitution of Germany?

(a) The idea of a federation with a strong centre

(b) The method of presidential elections

(c) The Emergency powers





(d) Provisions concerning the suspension of fundamental rights during National EmergencyAns: (d)

13. Match the following: Constitutional Features Sources

A. Rule of Law 1. German Constitution

B. Directive Principles 2. Australian Constitution

C. Concurrent List 3. Irish Constitution

D. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency 4. British ConstitutionA B C D

(a) 4 2 1 3

(b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 2 3 4 1

(d) 2 1 4 3Ans: (b)

14. Which of the following features and their source is wrongly matched?

(a) Judicial review – British practice

(b) Concurrent List – Australian Constitution

(c) Directive Principles – Irish Constitution

(d) Fundamental Rights – US ConstitutionAns: (a)

15. Which Constitution has inspired the Indian concepts of rule of law,

parliamentary system and law-making procedure?

(a) US Constitution

(b) British Constitution

(c) Canadian Constitution

(d) All of the aboveAns: (b)

16. The Constitution of India is designed to work as a unitary government:

(a) in normal times





(b) in times of Emergency

(c) when the Parliament so desires

(d) at the will of the PresidentAns: (b)

17. Which of the following features of the Constitution of India does not

resemble the American Constitution?

(a) Written Constitution

(b) Federal form of government

(c) Fundamental Rights

(d) Parliamentary form of governmentAns: (d)

18. Which of the following emerges clearly from the Preamble?

1. When the Constitution was enacted.

2. The ideals that were to be achieved.

3. The system of government

4. The source of authority

(a) II, III and IV

(b) I and II

(c) I, II and III

(d) I, II, III and IVAns: (d)

19. Which one of the following statements regarding the Preamble is correct?

(a) It is not enforceable in a court of law

(b) the Supreme Court has recently ruled that it is not a part of the Constitution

(c) It has been amended twice

(d) All the above are correctAns: (a)

20. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the:





(a) Italian Constitution

(b) Canadian Constitution

(c) French Constitution

(d) Constitution of USAAns: (d)

21. Secularism means: (RRB 1994)

(a) suppression of all religions

(b) freedom of worship to minorities

(c) separation of religion from State

(d) a system of political and social philosophy that does not favour any particular religious faithAns: (d)

22. In a Federal State: (I. Tax 1993)

(a) States are more powerful than the Centre

(b) Centre is more powerful than States

(c) a Presidential form of government functions

(d) Constitution effects division of powers between the Centre and States with safeguards against transgression of jurisdictionAns: (a)

23. India opted for a federal form of government because of: (Railways 1994)

(a) vast-territory

(b) cultural integration

(c) linguistic and regional diversity

(d) administrative convenienceAns: (c)

24. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution reads:

(a) We, the people of India – adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution’

(b) We, the people of Constitutent Assembly –adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution

(c) We, the citizens of India – adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution





(d) We, the people of India – in our Constituent Assembly – adopt, enact and give to ourselves this ConstitutionAns: (d)

25. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Preamble of the Constitution is the part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368

(b) Preamble of the Constitution is not a part of the Constitution and cannot be amended

(c) Preamble is the part of the basic structure of the Constitution and can be amended only if no change in the basic structure is made

(d) Preamble can be amended by Parliament simply by an objective ResolutionAns: (c)

26. The word ‘socialist secular’ and ‘unity and integrity of the Nation’ were

added to our Constitution by :

(a) 42nd Amendment of the Constitution

(b) 44th Amendment of the Constitution

(c) 46th Amendment of the Constitution

(d) None of the aboveAns: (a)

27. The Preamble of the Constitution of India envisages that:

(a) it shall stand part of the Constitution

(b) it could be abrogated or wiped out from the Constitution

(c) it does not acknowledge, recognise or proclaim anything about the Constitution

(d) it has separate entity in the ConstitutionAns: (d)

28. The correct nomenclature of India according to the Preamble is:

(a) Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic

(b) Sovereign, Democratic Republic

(c) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

(d) Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Democracy





Ans: (c)

29. India is a democratic republic, because:

(a) there is independence of judiciary

(b) the Head of the State is elected by the people

(c) there is distribution of powers between the Centre and the States

(d) there is Parliamentary supremacyAns: (b)

30. The Preamble of our Constitution:

(a) is a part of the Constitution

(b) contains the spirit of the Constitution

(c) is a limitation upon the granted power


31. Which of the following is not a part of the Preamble to the Indian

Constitution?

(a) Secularism

(b) Sociaiism

(c) Democratic Republic

(d) FederalismAns: (d)

32. The source of India’s sovereignty lies in the:

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(c) People of India

(d) Preamble to the ConstitutionAns: (d)





33. Who among the following moved the Objectives Resolution which formed

tile basis of the Preamble of the Constitution of India in the Constituent

Assembly on Dec 13, 1946? (CDS 2009)


(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(d) Pt. Jawaharlal NehruAns: (d)

34. Match List-l with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes

given below the Lists: (CDS 2009)

List-I – (Provision of the Constitution of India)

A. Amendment of the Constitution

B. Directive Principles

C. Emergency Power of the President

D. The Union-State Relationship

List-II (Source)

1. Constitution of Germany

2. Constitution of Canada

3. Constitution of South Africa

4. Irish ConstitutionA B C D

(a) 1 2 4 3

(b) 3 4 1 2

(c) 1 4 2 3

(d) 3 1 4 2Ans: (b)

35. The constitution of India is republican because it (CDS 2012)

(a) provides for an elected Parliament





(b) provides for adult franchise

(c) contains a bill of rights

(d) has no hereditary elementsAns: (d)

36. Which one among the following statements is not correct ? The word

‘socialist’ in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, read with (CDS 2012)

(a) Article 39(d), would enable the Court to uphold the constitutionality of nationalization laws

(b) Articles 14, would enable the Court to strike down a statute which failed to achieve the socialist goal to the fullest extent

(c) Article 25, would enable the Court to ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article

(d) Article 23, would enable the Court to reduce inequality in income and statusAns: (c)

37. In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from (SSC Grad 2011)

(a) England

(b) U.S.A.

(c) Canada

(d) FranceAns: (a)

38. The Indian Constitution comprises of (BPSC 2011)

(a) 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules

(b) 371 Articles, 21 Parts and 11 Schedules

(c) 372 Articles, 20 Parts and 7 Schedules

(d) 381 Articles, 23 Parts and 8 SchedulesAns: (a)

39. From which of the countries, Constitution of India has adopted

fundamental duties?

(a) USA

(b) Canada





(c) Erstwhile USSR

(d) UKAns: (c)

40. The word ‘Socialist’ was added to the Preamble, its main aim is to :

(a) eliminate inequality in economic and political status

(b) eliminate inequality in political and religious affairs

(c) eliminate inequality in income and status and standards of life

(d) eliminate class based societyAns: (a)

41. Which of the pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Republic – Head of the State is hereditary Monarch

(b) Sovereign – Constitution rests on people’s will

(c) Democratic – Constitution does not recognise legal supremacy of another country

(d) Secular – State is without any religion of its ownAns: (d)

42. The Preamble enshrines certain ideals that were first spelt out in:

(a) the speech by Jawaharlal Nehru on the banks of Ravi when he called for Purna Swaraj

(b) the Nehru Report

(c) a resolution adopted at Karachi session of the Indian National Congress

(d) the Objectives Resolution adopted by the Constituent AssemblyAns: (d)

43. The part of the Constitution that reflects the mind and ideals of the

framers is :

(a) directive principles

(b) fundamental rights

(c) preamble

(d) citizenshipAns: (c)





44. Which of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal?

(IAS 1994)

(a) A written and rigid Constitution

(b) An independent Judiciary

(c) Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre

(d) Distribution of powers between the Centre and StatesAns: (d)

45. The Indian Constitution is regarded as :

(a) federal

(b) unitary

(c) parliamentary

(d) federal in form and unitary in spiritAns: (d)





Citizenship, Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles of State Policy

1. Under which Article of the Constitution are the Cultural and Educational

Rights granted? (Railways 1995)

(a) Article 29 and 31

(b) Article 29 and 32

(c) Article 29 and 30

(d) Article 30 and 31Ans: (c)

2. Which of the following is not specifically mentioned in Article 19 of the

Constitution?

(a) Freedom of speech and expression

(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms

(c) Freedom

(d) Freedom of the pressAns: (d)

3. Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under:


(b) Legal Rights

(c) Constitutional Rights

(d) Natural RightsAns: (a)

4. If an Indian citizen is denied a public office because of his religion, which of

the following Fundamental Rights is denied to him? (Asstt Grade 1994)

(a) Right to Freedom

(b) Right to Equality





(c) Right to Freedom of Religion

(d) Right against ExploitationAns: (b)

5. Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 are suspended during emergency

caused by:

(a) war or external aggression

(b) failure of constitutional machinery of a State

(c) internal armed rebellion

(d) financial crisisAns: (a)

6. The theory of Fundamental Rights implies: (NDA 1992)

(a) sovereignty of the people

(b) equality of opportunity for all

(c) limited government

(d) equality of all before lawAns: (c)

7. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc. (Article 15 of the

Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under: (IAS 1995)

(a) the Right to Freedom of Religion

(b) the Right against Exploitation

(c) the Cultural and Educational Rights

(d) the Right to EqualityAns: (d)

8. Any dispute regarding the violation of Fundamental Rights can be

presented:

(a) in the Supreme Court only

(b) in the High Court only

(c) either in the Supreme Court or in the High Court

(d) first in the Supreme Court and then in the High Court





Ans: (c)

9. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of State

Policy? (IAS 2008)

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to health.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2Ans: (b)

10. Indian Constitution recognises minorities on the basis of:

(a) religion

(b) caste

(c) population

(d) colourAns: (a)

11. The Fundamental individual are:

(a) limited to the State action only

(b) meant to protect persons against the conduct of private persons

(c) meant to protect persons against the police action

(d) All of the above are correctAns: (d)

12. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the

law to:

(a) all persons living within the territory of India

(b) all Indian citizens living in India

(c) all persons domiciled in India





(d) all persons natural as well as artificialAns: (a)

13. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for

the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States? (IAS

2008)

(a) Third

(b) Fifth

(c) Seventh

(d) NinthAns: (b)

14. Untouchability is abolished and its practice is punishable according to:

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 16

(c) Article 17

(d) Article 15(4)Ans: (c)

15. Which one is not correctly matched?

(a) Freedom of speech and expression – Include freedom of press

(b) Freedom of conscience – Include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs

(c) Right to Personal liberty – Include right to carry on any trade or business

(d) Right to Equality – Include principles of natural justiceAns: (c)

16. As far as Armed Forces are concerned, the fundamental rights· granted

under Articles 14 and 19 of the Constitution are:

(a) not available at all

(b) available to armed forces but not to other forces

(c) available only at the discretion of the chief of army staff

(d) available only according to law made by ParliamentAns: (d)





17. Right to education is a fundamental right emanating from right to :

(a) freedom of speech and expression under Article 19 (1) (a)

(b) culture and education under Articles 29 and 30

(c) life and personal liberty under Article 21

(d) equality before law and equal protection of law under Article 14Ans: (c)

18. The Constitution names our country as :

(a) Bharat

(b) India, that is Bharat

(c) Hindustan

(d) AryavartaAns: (b)

19. The Constitution provides that Hindi shall be:

(a) the national language of India

(b) the language of communication between the State Governments

(c) the official language of the Union of India

(d) the language of communication between the Union Government and the State GovernmentsAns: (c)

20. What is the minimum permissible age for employment in any factory or

mine? (Delhi Police 1994)

(a) 12 years

(b) 14 years

(c) 16 years

(d) 18 yearsAns: (b)

21. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India?

(a) Birth

(b) Acquiring property





(c) Descent

(d) NaturalisationAns: (b)

22. Who is competent to prescribe conditions as for acquiring Indian

citizenship? (Asstt Grade 1992)

(a) Parliament

(b) State Legislatures

(c) President

(d) Attorney GeneralAns: (a)

23. Which of the following statements regarding the acquisition of Indian

citizenship is correct?

(a) If citizenship is to be acquired by registration, six months residence in India is essential.

(b) If citizenship is to be acquired by naturalisation the person concerned must haveresided in India for 5 years.

(c) If born in India, only that person can acquire citizenship at least one of whose parents is an Indian.

(d) Rules regarding the citizenship of India shall not be applicable to Jammu and Kashmir.Ans: (c)

24. According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, Indian citizenship cannot be

acquired by:

(a) children of the diplomatic personnel or alien enemies born in India on or after 26th January, 1950

(b) children born of Indian citizens abroad

(c) incorporation of territory not forming part of India at the commencement of the Constitution

(d) naturalizationAns: (a)

25. Citizenship provisions are enshrined in the Constitution in :





(a) Part II

(b) Part II, Articles 5-11

(c) Part II, Articles 5-6

(d) Part I, Articles 5-11Ans: (b)

26. Which of the following Articles describes about the person voluntarily

acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens?

(a) Article 5

(b) Article 7

(c) Article 8

(d) Article 9Ans: (d)

27. Article 6 enshrines the provision conferring Rights of citizenship of certain

persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan. Which one of the following

provisions is incorrect?

(a) He or either of his parents or any of his grand-parents was born in India as defined in the Government of India Act, 1935

(b) Such person has so migrated before 19 July, 1948

(c) Such person has so migrated on or after the 19 July, 1948, he has been registered as a citizen

(d) Such person has got married in IndiaAns: (a)

28. Details on how citizenship may be acquired and terminated are

enumerated in:

(a) Part II of the Constitution

(b) the Citizenship Act, 1955

(c) Schedule I of the Constitution

(d) various enactments by ParliamentAns: (b)

29. Indian citizenship of a person can be terminated if:





1. a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of some other country.

2. a person who has become a citizen through registration is sentenced to imprisonment for not less than 10 years within five years of his registration.

3. the Government of India is satisfied that citizenship was obtained by fraud.

4. a person who is a citizen by birth indulges in trade with an enemy country during war.

(a) I and III

(b) I, II and III

(c) I, III and IV

(d) I, II, III and IVAns: (c)

30. A person can become a citizen of India even if born outside India if

his/her:

(a) father is a citizen of India

(b) mother is a citizen of India

(c) father is a citizen of India at the time of the person’s birth

(d) father or mother is a citizen of India at the time of the person’s birthAns: (d)

31. To acquire citizenship by registration a person must have been resident in

India for ______ immediately before making an application:

(a) six months

(b) one year

(c) three years

(d) five yearsAns: (d)

32. Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as ‘The

Heart and Soul of the Constitution’?

(a) Right of Freedom of Religion

(b) Right to Property





(c) Right to Equality

(d) Right to Constitutional RemediesAns: (d)

33. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is also available to a foreigner

on the soil of India?

(a) Equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment

(b) Freedoms of movement, residence and profession

(c) Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex

(d) Protection of life and personal liberty against action without authority of lawAns: (d)

34. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following

pairs is not correctly matched? Subject List

(a) Stock Exchange State List

(b) Forest Concurrent List

(c) Insurance Union List

(d) Marriage and Divorce Concurrent ListAns: (a)

35. On whom does the Constitution confer special responsibility for the

enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

(a) Parliament

(b) Supreme Court

(c) President

(d) State legislatureAns: (b)

36. According to Article 23, the following are prohibited:

(a) traffic in human beings, beggary, slavery and bonded labour

(b) monopoly of trade

(c) sale of incenses

(d) visit to terrorist infected areas





Ans: (a)

37. Articles 20-22 relate to the fundamental right to life and personal liberty.

These rights are available to :s

(a) citizens and non-citizens

(b) natural persons as well as artificial persons

(c) citizen only

(d) all persons who have juristic personalityAns: (a)

38. Which one of the following has been dropped from the list of personal

freedoms enshrined in Article 19 of the Constitution?

(a) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms

(b) Freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property

(c) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country

(d) Freedom to carry on any profession, occupation; trade or businessAns: (b)

39. Once the proclamation of emergency is made, the right of a citizen to

move to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of his fundamental right is

suspended by the:

(a) Prime Minister of India

(b) President of India

(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(d) Chief Justice of Supreme CourtAns: (b)

40. Under Article 368, Parliament has no power to repeal Fundamental Rights

because they are:

(a) enshrined in Part III of the Constitution

(b) human rights

(c) transcendental rights

(d) part of bask structure of essential framework of the Constitution





Ans: (d)

41. Which of the following statements is/are not indicative of the difference

between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles?

I. Directive Principles are aimed at promoting social welfare, while Fundamental Rights are for protecting individuals from State encroachment.

II. Fundamental Rights are limitations on State action, while Directive Principles are positive instructions for the Government to work towards a just socioeconomic order.

III. Fundamental Rights were included in the original Constitution, but Directive Principles were added by the first Amendment.

IV. Fundamental Rights are amendable, but Directive Principles cannot be amended.

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) III and IV

(d) I, II and IIIAns: (c)

42. The enforcement of Directive Principles depends most on:

(a) the Courts

(b) an effective opposition in Parliament

(c) resources available to the Government

(d) public cooperationAns: (c)

43. In the Constitution, opportunities for the development of scientific

temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform are found in :


(b) Preamble

(c) Fundamental Futies

(d) Directive PrinciplesAns: (c)





44. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens were provided by:

(a) an amendment of the Constiution

(b) a judgement of the Supreme Court

(c) an order issued by the President

(d) a Legislation adopted by the ParliamentAns: (a)

45. Which of the following is correct about the Fundamental Duties?

I. These are not enforceable.

II. They are primarily moral duties.

III. They are not related to any legal rights.

(a) I, II and III

(b) I and III

(c) II and III

(d) I and IIAns: (a)

46. The total number of Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution is:

(a) 9

(b) 10

(c) 11

(d) 12Ans: (c)

47. Fundamental duties enacted in Part IV-A of the Constitution are:

(a) enforceable duties and Parliament can impose penalties or punishments for the non- compliance

(b) like Directive Principles that : are mandates to people

(c) like Fundamental Rights that are enforceable

(d) no more than meant to create psychological consciousness among the citizens and of education valueAns: (d)





48. Fundamental duties have been added in the Constitution by 42nd

Amendment Act, 1976 in accordance with the recommendations of:

(a) Santhanam Committee

(b) Sarkaria Committee

(c) Swaran Singh Committee

(d) Indira Gandhi CommitteeAns: (c)

49. Respect for the National Flag and National Anthem is:

(a) Fundamental Right of every citizen

(b) Fundamental Duty of every citizen

(c) Directive Principle of State policy

(d) ordinary duty of every citizenAns: (b)

50. The Fundamental Duties: I. were introduced by the 44th Amendment.

I. were introduced by the 44th Amendment.

II. are incorporated in Part Ill-A.

III. are not justiciable.

(a) I and II

(b) I and III

(c) II and III

(d) III onlyAns: (d)

51. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject to public order, morality and

health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right

1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.

2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.

3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property. (CDS 2008)





(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3Ans: (d)

52. Which of the following are among the Fundamental Duties as listed in the

Constitution?

I. To preserve the heritage of our composite culture.

II. To abide by the Constitution.

III. To strive for excellence in scientific research to win international fame.

IV. To render national service when called upon to do so.

(a) I, II and III

(b) l and II

(c) I, II and IV


53. The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution with the idea

of:

(a) giving more importance to the Fundamental Rights

(b) curbing subversive and unconstitutional activities

(c) preventing abuse of Fundamental Rights

(d) giving more power to the executiveAns: (b)

54. The Constitution describes India as a :

(a) Federation of States

(b) Union of States

(c) Confederation of States

(d) Unitary StateAns: (b)





55. The ‘Union of India’ consists of:

I. States

II. Union Territories

III. Acquired Territories

(a) l only

(b) II only

(c) I and II

(d) I, II and IIIAns: (a)

56. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh

Schedule of the Constitution of India ? (IAS 2006)

(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields

(b) Agriculture

(c) Fisheries

(d) Public healthAns: (a)

57. Consider the following statements:

1. A person who was born on 26th January, 1951 in Rangoon, whose father was a citizen

of India by birth at the time of his birth is deemed to be an Indian citizen by descent.

2. A person who was born on 1st·July, 1988 in Itanagar, whose mother is a citizen of

India at the time of his birth but the father was not, is deemed to be a citizen of India by

birth. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [CDS 2009]

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CDS 2009)

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor IIAns: (c)





58. Which one among the following statements regarding the constitutionally

guaranteed Right to Education in India is correct? (CDS 2011)

(a) This right covers both child and adult illiteracy and’ therefore universally guarantees education to all citizens of India

(b) This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to 14 years and becomes operational from the year 2015

(c) This right has been taken from the British Constitution which was the first Welfare State in the world

(d) This right has been given to all Indian children between the ages of 6 to 14 Yearsunder the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act

Ans: (d)

59. Which is the competent body to prescribe conditions for acquisition of

citizenship? (SSC (10+2) 2010)

(a) Election Commission

(b) President

(c) Parliament

(d) Parliament and AssembliesAns: (c)

60. In India the right to “freedom of speech and expression” is restricted on

the grounds of

1. the sovereignty and integrity of India.

2. contempt of court.

3. friendly relation with foreign states.

4. protection of minorities.Select the correct answer using the code given below: (CDS 2010]

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 4Ans: (a)





61. Which among the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ

of quowarranto?

1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the Constitutionitself.

2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another.

3. There has been a contravention of the constitution or a Statutory Instrument, in appointing such person to that office.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: (CDS 2012)

Code:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3Ans: (d)

62. Suppose a legislation was passed by the Parliament imposing certain

restrictions on newspapers. These included page ceiling, price and

advertisements. The legislation is included in the Ninth Schedule to the

Constitution of India. In this context, which one among the following

statements is correct? (CDS 2012)

(a) The legislation is invalid as it violates the freedom of Press

(b) The legislation is valid by virtue of Article 31 B

(c) The legislation is invalid as it imposes unreasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) of the Constitution

(d) The legislation is valid as the Press is not a citizen under Articles 19 of the ConstitutionAns: (c)

63. Right to Information is (Asstt Commdt 2011)

(a) fundamental right

(b) legal right





(c) neither fundamental right nor legal right

(d) both fundamental right as well as legal RightAns: (a)

64. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties as

contained in the Constitution of India is/are correct?

1. They can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.

2. They have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption.

3. They are applicable only to citizens of India.Select the correct answer using the code given below: (Asstt Commdt 2011)

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 onlyAns: (d)

65. Which one among the following pairs is no correctly matched? (Asstt

Commdt 2011)

(a) Power of the Parliament : Creating a new state

(b) Power of state legislature : Altering the name of the state

(c) Equality before law : Guaranteed to both Indian citizens and noncitizens

(d) Equality of opportunity : Guaranteed to only Indian citizensAns: (b)

66. Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of

India? (CDS 2011)

(a) Freedom to move freely throughout the country

(b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms

(c) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property anywhere in the country

(d) Freedom to practice any trade or professionAns: (c)

67. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the ‘Right against

Exploitation’ in the Constitution of India?





1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.

2. Abolition of untouchability.

3. Protection of the interests of the minorities.

4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.


(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4Ans: (c)

68. The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to (CDS 2011)

(a) lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels

(b) implement Gandhiji’s idea for a decentralized state

(c) check the use of arbitrary powers by the government

(d) promote welfare of the backward sections of the societyAns: (a)

69. In which case did the Supreme Court restore the primacy of the

Fundamental Rights over the Directive Principles of State Policy? (CPO SI

2010)

(a) Golaknath Case

(b) Keshavananda Bharti Case

(c) Minerva Mills Case

(d) All the above casesAns: (a)

70. Which of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also

available to non-citizens? (BPSC 2011)

(a) Right to constitutional remedies

(b) Freedom to speech

(c) Freedom to move and settle in any part of the country





(d) Freedom to acquire propertyAns: (b)

71. Which one of the following is a human right as well as a fundamental right

under the Constitution of India? (BPSC 2011)

(a) Right to Information

(b) Right to Work

(c) Right to Education

(d) Right to HousingAns: (c)

72. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a

fundamental duty? (CSAT 2011)

(a) To vote in public elections

(b) To develop the scientific temper

(c) To safeguard public property

(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its idealsAns: (a)

73. A government is federal or unitary on the basis of relations between the:

(a) three organs of government

(b) Centre and States

(c) Legislature and the Executive

(d) Constitution and the StatesAns: (b)


1. The territory of the units of the Indian federation may be altered by Parliament bya simple majority.

2. The consent of a State Legislature is necessary before Parliament redistributes itsterritory.

3. The President’s recommendation is necessary for introducing in Parliament a Bill on redistributing territory of any State.





4. The President must receive the State’s opinion before recommending a Bill on altering the name of the State.

(a) I only

(b) I and II

(c) I, II and IV

(d) I and IIIAns: (d)

75. Regarding equality before the law, the Indian Constitution makes

exceptions in the case of:

(a) the President or a Governor

(b) foreign sovereigns only

(c) the President only

(d) NoneAns: (a)

76. Censorship of the press:

(a) is prohibited by the Constitution

(b) has to be judged by the test of reasonableness

(c) is a restriction on the freedom of the press mentioned in Article 19

(d) is specified in Article 31 of the ConstitutionAns: (b)

77. Freedom of speech and expression are restricted in the Constitution on

grounds of

I. defamation

II. contempt of court

III. protecting a scheduled tribe

IV. friendly relations with foreign states

(a) I, II and III

(b) II, III and IV





(c) I and IV


78. The right against exploitation prohibits children:

(a) below 14 years of age from employment in family businesses

(b) below 14 years of age from being employed in hazardous occupations

(c) below 14 years from working on family farms

(d) from doing all the aboveAns: (b)

79. Which of the following comes under Right to Equality?

1. Non-discrimination by State on grounds of religion or race.

2. Equal protection of the laws.

3. Equal pay for equal work.

4. Equality of opportunity in matters of employment under the State.

(a) I, II and III

(b) II, III and IV

(c) II and IV


80. Which of the following can impose reasonable restrictions on the

Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens?

(a) Supreme Court

(b) Parliament

(c) President on the advice of the Council of Ministers

(d) None of these; the restrictions have already been included in the ConstitutionAns: (b)

81. The right to constitutional remedies in India is a vailable to :

(a) citizens of India only





(b) all persons in case of infringement of any fundamental right

(c) any person for enforcing any of the fundamental rights conferred on all persons

(d) an aggrieved individual aloneAns: (b)

82. Which of the following rights are available to Indian citizens as well as

foreigners residing in Indian territory ?

I. Cultural and Educational Rights.

II. Right to Freedom of religion.

III. Right against discrimination by the State on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.

IV. Right to personal liberty.

(a) I and II

(b) III and IV

(c) II and IV


83. Which of the following factors do not Explain why the rights included in

Part III of the Constitution are called‘fundamental’ ?

I. They are equally available to citizens and aliens.

II. They are superior to ordinary law

III. They are fundamental for governing the country.

IV. They are not absolute.

(a) II and IV

(b) I, II and III

(c) I, III and IV

(d) III and IVAns: (c)





84. The Fundamental Right to ____ has been deleted by the ___ Amendment

Act.

(a) form associations; 44th

(b) property; 44th

(c) against exploitation; 42nd

(d) private property; 42ndAns: (b)

85. Which statement/s is/are not correct regarding the Fundamental Rights?

I. Some of these rights are not available to the Armed Forces.

II. They are automatically suspended when any emergency is proclaimed by the President.

III. The President alone can decide upon modifying their application to the Armed Forces.

IV. They cannot be amended as they form a basic feature of the Constitution

(a) I and II

(b) II, III and IV

(c) I and IV

(d) I, II, III and IVAns: (b)

86. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of

fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in

any other hazardous employment’? (IAS 2004)

(a) Article 24

(b) Article 45

(c) Article 330

(d) Article 368Ans: (a)

87. Match the following (IAS 2004)

Articles of the Constitution of India





1. Article 14

2. Article 15

3. Article 16

4. Article 17Provision

1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them

2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India

3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden

4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the StateA B C D

(a) 2 4 1 3

(b) 3 1 4 2

(c) 2 1 4 3

(d) 2 4 1 2Ans: (c)


1. The Article 20 of the Constitution of India lays down that no person shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.

2. The Article 21 of the Constitution of India states that no person can be convicted for any offence except for the violation of law in force at the time of the commissionof the act charged as an offence.Which of these statements is/are correct? (CDS 2004)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2Ans: (d)

89. Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive is enjoined by :





(a) Preamble

(b) Directive Principle

(c) Seventh Schedule

(d) Judicial DecisionAns: (b)

90. Which Article of the Constitution envisages free and compulsory education

for children upto the age of 14 years?(Railways 1993)

(a) Article 45

(b) Article 19

(c) Article 29


91. Which part of the Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State

Policy?

(a) Part III

(b) Part IV

(c) Part V

(d) Part IIAns: (b)

92. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of the State Policy? (CBI

1993)

(a) To raise the level of nutrition

(b) To develop the scientific temper

(c) To promote economic interests of weaker sections

(d) To separate the Judiciary from the ExecutiveAns: (b)

93. Which of the following Directive Principles is based on Gandhian ideology?

(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

(b) Uniform civil code for all citizens





(c) Separation of Judiciary from Executive

(d) Promotion of cottage industriesAns: (d)

94. Which of the following cannot be termed ‘Gandhian’ among the Directive

Principles?

(a) Prevention of cow slaughter

(b) Promotion of cottage industries

(c) Establishment of village panchayats

(d) Uniform civil code for the countryAns: (d)

95. Which of the following is/are listed among the Directive Principles in Part

IV?

I. Equal pay for equal work.

II. Uniform civil code.

III. Small family norm

IV. Education through mother tongue at primary level.

(a) I, II and III

(b) I and II

(c) II and III


96. Which of the following were added to the Directive Principles by

amendments to the Constitution?

I. To protect and improve the environment and safeguard wild life.

II. Right of workers to participate in management of industries.

III. Right to work

IV. To protect and maintain places of historic interest.

(a) I and III





(b) II and IV

(c) I, III and IV

(d) I and IIAns: (d)

97. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth

Schedule of the Constitution of India? (IAS 2004)

(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of power between the Union and the States

(b) It contains the language listed in the Constitution

(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas

(d) It allocates seats in the Council of StatesAns: (d)

98. The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution:

(a) contains provrsions relating to elections to Panchayats

(b) contains subjects over which Municipalities may have control

(c) contains recommendations relating to establishment of State Finance Commission

(d) was added by the 73rd Amendment ActAns: (b)

99. The Ninth Schedule was added by the ______ Amendment.

(a) First

(b) Ninth

(c) Thirty-fifth

(d) Thirty-sixthAns: (a)

100. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and

security is mentioned in the: (Asstt Comm 2008)

(a) Preamble to the Constitution

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(c) Fundamental Duties





(d) Ninth ScheduleAns: (b)


A. Xth Schedule 1: Provision as to the disqualifications on the grounds of defection

B. VIIIth Schedule 2. Union, State and Concurrent Lists

C. VIIth Schedule 3. Languages

D. Vlth Schedule 4. Related to tribal areasA B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 3 2 1 4

(c) 1 3 2 4

(d) 4 2 3 1Ans: (c)

102. Which language is not recognized in the 8th Schedule though it is an

official language of a State?

(a) English

(b) Sindhi

(c) Sanskrit

(d) KashmiriAns: (a)


1. There are twelve Fundamental Duties laid down in the Constitution of India for every citizen of India.

2. There is no provision in the Constitution of India for direct enforcement of the Fundamental Duties.

3. One of the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India is to cast his/her vote in general or State elections so as to maintain a vibrant democracy in India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CDS 2005)

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only





(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 onlyAns: (b)

104. In which one of the following does the subject of Co-operative Societies

fall ? (CDS 2005)

(a) Union List

(b) State List

(c) Concurrent List

(d) Residuary Powers GovernmentAns: (c)

105. With what subject do the Articles 5 to 8 of the Constitution of India deal?

(CDS 2005)

(a) Details of Indian Union and its territory

(b) Citizenship

(c) Fundamental Duties

(d) Union ExecutiveAns: (b)





Parts/ Articles of the Constitution, Emergency Provisions

1. Under which Article of the Constitution is the President’s rule promulgated

by any State in India? (Bank PO 1994)

(a) 356

(b) 352

(c) 360

(d) 370Ans: (a)

2. A proclamation of emergency issued under Article 352 must be approved by

the Parliament within:

(a) 1 month

(b) 6 weeks

(c) 2 months

(d) 3 monthsAns: (a)

3. The President’s rule can be proclaimed in a State: (CDS 1994)

(a) when a bill introduced by the State Government in the State Legislature is defeated

(b) if the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State is satisfied that a situation is likely to arise in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution

(c) if the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State, or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution

(d) when the Governor and the Chief Minister of a State differ on many mattersAns: (c)

4. The Governor recommends to the President of India that breakdown of

Constitutional machinery in the State is imminent. The President makes a

proclamation under Article 356. The action of the President:





(a) cannot be reviewed as the President is the sole judge of his emergency powers

(b) cannot be reviewed as the Constitution bars the courts from reviewing political actions

(c) can be reviewed as it goes against Fundamental Rights

(d) can be reviewed as it is malafideAns: (d)

5. Proclamation of emergency under Article 352, when Lok Sabha stands

dissolved, has to be approved by:

(a) Rajya Sabha and then will continue till the reconstitution of new Lok Sabha whichmust approve it within 30 days of its first sitting

(b) New Lok Sabha within 6 months of its Constitution

(c) Lok Sabha in next session after six months

(d) Rajya Sabha onlyAns: (a)

6. The rule of passing resolution by 2/3rd majority of total number of

members of the

(a) amendment of the Constitution

(b) approval of proclamation of emergency

(c) impeachment of President

(d) disapproval of proclamation of emergencyAns: (c)

7. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under

Article 360of the Constitution of India:

1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.

2. If any proclamation of financial emergency Is in operation. it is competent for the President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS 2007)





(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a)

8. After approval by’ both Houses of Parliament, the proclamation of

emergency issued by the President shall be valid:

(a) for period of six months

(b) for an indefinite period unless revoked by the subsequent proclamation

(c) for an indefinite period if both Houses of Parliament approves the proclamation after every six months

(d) for further period of two months onlyAns: (c)

9. Every proclamation issued under Article 356 shall cease to operate at the

expiration of:

(a) one month unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament

(b) two months unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament

(c) six months unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament

(d) three years unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of ParliamentAns: (b)

10. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country, the

State Government:

(a) cannot legislate

(b) can legislate only on subjects in the Concurrent List

(c) can legislate on the subject in the State List

(d) is suspendedAns: (a)





11. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country under

Article 352:

(a) the Parliament is empowered under Article 250 to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List

(b) the power of the State Legislature to make a law which is entitled to make a law under the Constitution is suspended

(c) a law passed by the Parliament may be amended by a State Legislature with prior permission of the President

(d) Parliament can delegate some of its powers to the State LegislaturesAns: (a)

12. Which is not a correct statement regarding financial emergency?

(a) President can ask States to follow a certain canon of financial propriety

(b) The States may be asked to reserve the money bills for the consideration of the President

(c) President can suspend the normal allocation of revenues

(d) President can reduce the salaries of civil servants and not judgesAns: (c)

13. According to Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, in three States

there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in

charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and Backward Classes. Which

one of the following States is not covered by the Article? (CDS 2009)

(a) Jharkhand

(b) Punjab

(c) Madhya Pradesh

(d) OrissaAns: (b)

14. Which Article of Indian Constitution prescribes Hindi in Devanagari script

as the official language of the Union?

(a) 341

(b) 342

(c) 343





(d) 346Ans: (c)

15. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution guarantees equal

opportunities in public employment to persons belonging to SC/ST and the

other minority communities?

(a) Article 15

(b) Article 16

(c) Article 22

(d) Article 27Ans: (b)

16. Part V of the Constitution deals with:

I. Union Executive

II. Parliament

III. Supreme Court and High Courts

IV. Comptroller and Auditor-General

(a) I and II

(b) I, II and III

(c) I only


17. Provisions of the Constitution relating to the administration of scheduled

areas and tribes in Schedule V :

(a) may be altered by the Governor

(b) may be altered by Parliament by amendment requiring two-thirds majority

(c) cannot be altered

(d) may be altered by Parliament by ordinary legislationAns: (d)

18. Provisions of having a UPSC and Public Service Commission for States are

enshrined in:





(a) Part XIV, Chapter II, Articles 315-324

(b) Part XIV, Chapter I, Articles 308-323

(c) Part XIV, Chapter II, Articles 315-323

(d) Part XIV, Chapter I, Articles 308-318Ans: (b)


Articles Provisions

A. 19(1)(a) 1. Right to reside and settle in any part of the country

B. 19(1)(c) 2. Right to form associations or unions

C. 19(1)(e) 3. Freedom of speech and expression

D. 19(1)(t) 4. Right to practice any profession, or carry on any occupation, business or trade

A B C D

(a) 3 1 4 2

(b) 1 2 4 3

(c) 3 1 2 4

(d) 3 2 1 4Ans: (d)


A. Part I 1. Fundamental Rights

B. Part III 2. Panchayati Raj

C. Part IX 3. Citizenship

D. Part II 4. The Union and its Territory

A B C D

(a) 4 2 3 1

(b) 3 1 2 4

(c) 2 3 1 3





(d) 4 1 2 3Ans: (d)


A. Article 61 1. Removal of Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha

B. Article 67 2. Impeachement of President

C. Article 94 3. Removal of Vice President

D. Article 90 4. Removal of SpeakerA B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 1 3 4 1

(c) 2 1 4 3

(d) 3 4 2 1Ans: (a)


A. Abolition of Untouchability 1. Article 24

B. Abolition of Titles 2. Article 23

C. Prohibition of Child labour 3. Article 17

D. Prohibition of Traffic in human beings 4. Article 18A B C D

(a) 3 4 2 1

(b) 2 4 1 3

(c) 3 4 1 2

(d) 1 3 2 4Ans: (c)


A. Inter-State Council 1. Article 315

B. Abolition of Titles 2. Article 280

C. Administrative Tribunals 3. Article 263

D. Union Public Service Commission 4. Article 323(A)





A B C D

(a) 2 4 3 1

(b) 3 2 1 4

(c) 1 2 4 3

(d) 3 2 4 1Ans: (d)

24. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that

the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or

prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union? (IAS 2004)

(a) Article 257

(b) Article 258

(c) Article 355


25. Article 340 of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of a

Commission to investigate the conditions for the improvement of: (CDS 2004)

(a) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

(b) Socially and educationally backward classes

(c) Socially and economically backward classes

(d) Educationally and economically backward classesAns: (a)


A. National Emergency 1. Article 356

B. Constitutional Emergency 2. Article 360

C. Financial Emergency 3. Article 352A B C

(a) 1 2 3

(b) 2 1 3

(c) 2 3 1





(d) 3 1 2Ans: (d)

27. National Emergency has been declared so far:

(a) once

(b) twice

(c) thrice

(d) four timesAns: (c)

28. The provision for Contingency Fund of India as well as for each State has

been made under:

(a) Article 267

(b) Article 270

(c) Parliamentary Legislation

(d) Presidential orderAns: (a)

29. During financial emergency, the President can:

1. ask the states to reduce the salaries arid allowances of all or any class of personsserving in connection with the affairs of the State

2. ask the states to reserve money bills passed by the state legislature for his consideration

3. issue directions to states on financial matters

4. issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union

(a) I, II and III

(b) I, III and IV

(c) II, III and IV


30. National emergency can be declared by the President only





I. on grounds of war

II. on grounds of external aggression

III. on grounds of internal disturbance

IV. on the written recommendation of the Union Cabinet

(a) I and II

(b) I, II and III

(c) I, II and IV


31. During a proclamation of emergency due to the breakdown of

constitutional machinery in a State the President can

I. assume all powers vested in and exercisable by the Governor

II. declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercised by Parliament

III. assume certain powers of the High Courts

IV. suspend by order any or all Fundamental Rights except those under Articles 20 and 21

(a) I and II

(b) I and III

(c) II, III and IV

(d) II and IVAns: (a)

32. When a financial emergency is proclaimed: (I. Tax 1994)

(a) repayment of government debts will stop

(b) payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed

(c) salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced

(d) Union Budget will not be presentedAns: (b)





33. On the basis of financial crisis Emergency has been declared by the

President of India:

(a) not even once

(b) in 1962

(c) in 1971

(d) in 1991Ans: (a)

34. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the duration of the Lok

Sabha can be extended for a period (CDS 2012)

(a) not exceeding three months

(b) not exceeding nine months

(c) of one year at a time

(d) of two years at timeAns: (c)

35. The proclamation of emergency at the first instance can be restricted to:

(a) 3 months

(b) 15 days

(c) 6 months

(d) 60 daysAns: (c)

36. Every proclamation issued under Article 352 shall be :

(a) laid before each House of the Parliament

(b) laid before the Lok Sabha

(c) decided by the Prime Minister and conveyed to the President

(d) All of the aboveAns: (c)

37. The President’s rule is imposed for the period of:

(a) 3 months

(b) 6 months





(c) till the next election is held

(d) it depends upon the President’s wishAns: (b)

38. The duration of proclamation of Financial Emergency is :

(a) at the first instance one month

(b) at the first instance two months

(c) at the first instance six months

(d) at the first instance one yearAns: (b)

39. During the proclamation of National Emergency:

(a) all Fundamental Rights are suspended

(b) Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended

(c) Article 32 cannot be suspended

(d) Article 19 cannot be suspendedAns: (b)

40. Emergency can be proclaimed:

(a) in whole of the country

(b) only in that part of country where actual aggression has taken place

(c) in any part of the country

(d) in the entire country or any part of territory of IndiaAns: (d)

41. A resolution for the revocation of proclamation of National Emergency

may be moved by:

(a) ten members of Rajya Sabha

(b) ten members of Lok Sabha

(c) ten members of Parliament

(d) one-tenth of total membership of Lok SabhaAns: (d)





42. A resolution ratifying the proclamation of National Emergency requires to

be passed:

(a) by Parliament

(b) by each House of Parliament

(c) by both the Houses of Parliament in a joint sitting

(d) by each House of Parliament in separate sittings with majority of total membership of each House and by majority of not less than 2/3rd of members present and votingAns: (b)

43. The President can issue proclamation of emergency:

(a) on the advice of Prime Minister

(b) on the advice of Council of Ministers

(c) in his own decision

(d) when the decision of Union Cabinet for the issuance of such proclamation has been communicated to him in writingAns: (d)

44. Which of the following is/are resultant of a proclamation of National

Emergency because of war?

I. The Union Government can give directions to the States about how the executive power of the State is to be exercised.

II. The Fundamental Rights stand automatically suspended.

III. The State Legislature is suspended.

IV. Parliament can make laws with respect to any subject in the State List.

(a) I, II and IV

(b) I, III and IV

(c) I only

(d) I and IVAns: (d)

45. In the case of a proclamation of emergency on grounds of war or external

aggression:





(a) all Fundamental Rights will be automatically suspended

(b) the right to move a court for enforcement of any Fundamental Right is suspended

(c) the President may order the suspension of enforcement of any Fundamental Right except Article 20-21

(d) Parliament may authorise suspension of all Fundamental RightsAns: ©

The Union Executive

1. In the election of the President, the value of the vote of the Lok Sabha

members: (Railways 1991)

(a) is same

(b) differs according to the geographical size of the respective State

(c) differs according to the number of votes a member represents


2. The President of India is:

(a) Commander-in-Chief of Defence Forces

(b) Supreme Commander of Armed Forces

(c) Head of the Government

(d) Supreme Commander of Defence Forces of the Union and Executive Head of the UnionAns: (d)

3. The President can be removed by the way of impeachment which can be

made only:

(a) by the Supreme Court

(b) by the Rajya Sabha

(c) by the Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha through impeachment

(d) cannot be impeached





Ans: (c)

4. Which of the following statements is correct ?

(a) The President may continue to be a member of Parliament even after assuming charge of the Presidential office

(b) The President is not barred from holding any other office of profit even after assuming charge of Presidential office

(c) The President is entitled to use his official residence only on payment of rent fixed

(d) The emolument and allowances of the President shall not be diminished during his term of officeAns: (c)

5. In the election of the President, each Member of the electoral college has:

(a) one vote

(b) as many votes as there are candidates

(c) one vote with value attached to it

(d) one vote with value attached to it and he can give as many preferences as thereare candidatesAns: (d)

6. The value of a vote of a Member of Parliament for the election of the

President is determined by dividing the:

(a) nation’s population as per the latest census by the number of Lok Sabha members

(b) nation’s population as per the latest census by the total strength of the two Houses of Parliament

(c) the total value of votes of members of all the State Legislative Assemblies by theelected Members of the two Houses of Parliament

(d) particular State’s population as per the latest census by the number of Membersof Parliament elected from that StateAns: (c)

7. Who administers the oath of office to the President?

(a) Chief Justice of India





(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(c) Prime Minister

(d) Vice-PresidentAns: (a)

8. An individual who is not a member of either House of Parliament can be

appointed a member of the Council of Ministers, but he has to become a

member of either House within a period of: (RRB 1991)

(a) 1 month

(b) 2 months

(c) 3 months

(d) 6 monthsAns: (d)

9. Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for

electing the President of India? (Bank PO 1992)

(a) Elected members of Rajya Sabha

(b) Elected members of Lok Sabha

(c) Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each State

(d) Elected members of the Legislative CouncilAns: (d)

10. Who among the following enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister of the

Indian Union?

(a) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha

(b) Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission

(c) Secretary to the Government of India


11. The Chief Minister of Union Territory where such a setup exists, is

appointed by the:

(a) President





(b) Prime Minister

(c) Lt. Governor

(d) Majority party in LegislatureAns: (c)

12. The five-year term of the President is calculated from the:

(a) first day of the month he assumes charge

(b) first day of the month following the month he assumes charge

(c) day he assumes charge

(d) date of his election resultAns: (c)

13. If the President wants to resign from office, he may do so by writing to

the:

(a) Vice-President

(b) Chief Justice of India

(c) Prime Minister

(d) Speaker of Lok SabhaAns: (a)

14. In which of the following situations does the President act in his own

discretion? (Asstt Grade 1994)

(a) In appointing the Prime Minister

(b) In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration

(c) Both of the above


15. The minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister of India is :

(a) 25 years

(b) 30 years

(c) 40 years

(d) 35 years





Ans: (a)

16. Which of the following regarding the election of the President is correct?

(a) A candidate securing the majority of votes is not automatically elected

(b) The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction in any doubt or dispute arising in connection with the election of the President

(c) The Presidential election cannot take place when one or more State Assemblies stand dissolved because all the State Assemblies form part of the Electoral College

(d) The total value of the votes allotted to both Houses of Parliament is much more than the total value of the votes of all the States taken togetherAns: (a)

17. Which of the following is not true regarding the payment of the

emoluments to the President?

(a) They do not require any parliamentary sanction

(b) They can be reduced during a Financial Emergency

(c) They are shown separately in the budget

(d) They are charged on the Contingency Fund of IndiaAns: (d)

18. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of

India?

(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha


(c) Chief of the Air Force

(d) Chief of the ArmyAns: (a)

19. Which one of the following statements is most appropriate?

(a) The President shall be bound by the advice of the Prime Minister

(b) The President shall be bound by the advice given by the Council of Ministers

(c) The President shall act on the advice of the Prime Minister who shall tender such advice in consultation with his cabinet





(d) The President shall act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers and he may return such advice for reconsiderationAns: (b)

20. The Constitution guarantees the following privileges to the President of

India:

(a) No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the President in any court during his term of office

(b) No process for the arrest or impeachment of the President shall be issued from any court during his term of office

(c) The President shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in exercise of those powers and duties

(d) No civil proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted against the President in any court during the term of his officeAns: (d)

21. The power to grant pardons, reprieve or remissions of punishment under

Article 72 is exercised by the President of India:

(a) on the advice of the Prime Minister

(b) on his own as Head of the Union

(c) on the advice of Council of Ministers

(d) in consultation with the Prime Minister who tenders his opinion on the advice of his cabinetAns: (c)

22. The pardoning power given to the President of India under Article 72 can

be exercised:

(a) only after the trial and on the sentence of conviction

(b) during or after trial but never before trial

(c) at any time before, during or after the trial

(d) either before or after the trial but never during the trial of the caseAns: (c)

23. The only President of India who was elected unopposed is : (CDS 1992)





(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

(b) Dr. Zakir Hussain

(c) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

(d) Fakhruddin Ali AhmedAns: (c)

24. To elect the President of India, which one of the following election

procedures is used? (IAS 1992)

(a) System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote

(b) Proportional representation through list system

(c) Collective voting system

(d) Secondary voting systemAns: (a)

25. The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto

related to the: (IAS 1993)

(a) Hindu Code Bill

(b) PEPSU Appropriation Bill

(c) Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)

(d) Dowry Prohibition BillAns: (c)

26. If the President returns a Bill sent to him for his assent and the Parliament

once again passes the Bill in Its original form, then the President:

(a) can once again return the Bill for further reconsideration

(b) can ask for a referendum on the Bill

(c) has to give assent to the Bill

(d) can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on the billAns: (c)

27. Which of the following is not true regarding the election of the President?

(a) The voting power of an MLA is made proportionate to the population he represents





(b) Voting power of the elected members of the Parliament is made equal to the voting power of all elected members of the Legislative assemblies

(c) Voting power of the elected members of Parliament is determined by dividing thetotal voting power of the State by the number of elected members of the Parliament

(d) The voting power of an elected member of State Legislative Assembly is determined by dividing the total population of the State by the total number of members of Vidhan Sabha and further dividing the quotient obtained by 1000Ans: (d)

28. Which of the following is not correct?

(a) The Supreme Command of the Defence Forces is vested. in the President

(b) The three Chiefs of Staff (Army, Navy and Air Force) are under the direct control of the President

(c) The responsibility of National Defence rests with the Union Cabinet

(d) All important questions having a bearing on defence are decided by the Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs under the Chairmanship of the Prime MinisterAns: (b)

29. Who acts as the President of India when neither the President nor the

Vice-President is available? (Asstt Grade 1992)

(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha


(c) Auditor General of India

(d) Senior most Governor of a StateAns: (b)

30. Which is .true regarding the President of India?

1. He is the Chief Executive.

2. He is the Supreme Commander of the armed forces.

3. He is the titular head of the State.

4. He is part of the Union Legislature.

(a) I and III

(b) I and II





(c) II, III and IV


31. Who among the following’ are appointed by the President of India? (IAS

1994)

I. Chairman, Finance Commission

II. Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission

III. Chief Minister of a Union Territory

(a) I only

(b) I and II

(c) I and III

(d) II and IIIAns: (b)

32. An ordinance promulgated by the President:

(a) will lapse automatically after 2months

(b) will lapse on the expiration of 6 weeks from the meeting of the Parliament

(c) will automatically become a law after 6 months

(d) will continue to be in force till it is superseded by an Act of the ParliamentAns: (b)

33. Appointment of the members of the Council of Ministers is made by the

President:

(a) on the advice of the Prime Minister

(b) in his own discretion

(c) on the advice of the Vice- President

(d) on the basis of election resultsAns: (a)

34. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India? (NDA

1995)





I. Governors of States.

II. The Chief Justice and Judges of High Courts.

III. The Chief Justice and the Judges of the Supreme Court.

IV. The Vice-President.

(a) I and II

(b) I, II and III

(c) II, III and IV

(d) I, III and IVAns: (b)

35. When the Vice-President officiates as President, he draws the salary of:

(a) President

(b) Member of Parliament

(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(d) Both (a) and (c)Ans: (a)

36. Which of the following is correct?

(a) If both the President and Vice-President resign, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha willact as President till a new President is elected

(b) The Constitution of India prescribes both the minimum and maximum age limits for contesting the Presidential election

(c) In the event of resignation of the President, the Vice-President will act as President for the residual period of the President’s tenure

(d) In India, the President is part of the ParliamentAns: (d)

37. The position of the Vice-President of India resembles, to a great extent,

the position of the Vice-President of:

(a) USA

(b) Russia

(c) Italy





(d) New ZealandAns: (a)

38. The Vice-President’s letter of resignation is to be addressed to the:

(a) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha


(c) President

(d) SpeakerAns: (c)

39. The candidate for Vice-Presidential election must possess the

qualifications prescribed for the Presidential candidate except that ne must

be:

(a) a citizen of India

(b) over 35 years of age

(c) holding no office of profit under the Government

(d) qualified to be a member of the Rajya SabhaAns: (d)

40. Who has the authority to remove the Vice-President from his office before

the expiry of his term?

(a) Rajya Sabha

(b) Parliament

(c) Lok Sabha

(d) Supreme CourtAns: (c)

41. Which one of the following resigned as Vice-President to contest for the

office of the President?

(a) Dr. S.Radhakrishnan

(b) V.V. Giri

(c) Fakhruddin AIi Ahmed

(d) Neelam Sanjeeva ReddyAns: (b)





42. When the Chairman of Rajya Sabha acts as President, the duties of the

Chairman are performed by:

(a) himself

(b) a newly elected Chairman

(c) the Deputy Chairman

(d) a member of Rajya Sabha deputed by the ChairmanAns: (c)

43. Disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice-President are

settled:

(a) in the Supreme Court

(b) by the Election Commission

(c) by a Parliamentary Committee

(d) in the Supreme Court of High CourtsAns: (a)

44. What function is specifically prescribed by the Constitution for the Vice-

President of India?

(a) Vice-Chancellorship of Universities

(b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(c) To assist the President in times of Emergency

(d) None of the above is correctAns: (b)

45. When the Vice-President acts as President he gets the emoluments of the:

(a) President

(b) Vice-President


(d) President in addition to what he gets as Chairman of Rajya SabhaAns: (a)

46. An election to fill a vacancy in the office of Vice-President occurring by

reason of his death, resignation or removal, has to be held:





(a) within six months of the occurrence of the vacancy

(b) within a year of the occurrence of the vacancy

(c) as soon as possible after the occurrence of the vacancy

(d) after the expiration of the term if the remaining period is less than three monthsAns: (c)

47. Who elects the Vice-President?

(a) The same electoral college which elects the President

(b) Members of the Rajya Sabha

(c) An electoral college consisting of members of Parliament

(d) Members of Parliament at a joint MeetingAns: (c)

48. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in

the: (IAS 2004)

(a) Lok Sabha alone

(b) either House of Parliament

(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament

(d) Rajya Sabha aloneAns: (d)

49. Consider the following statements regarding the Vice-President of India:

1. The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of all the members of the both Houses of Parliament.

2. The Constitution is silent about a person who is to discharge the duties of the Vice-President during the period of vacancy.Which of these statements is/are correct? (CDS 2004)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2Ans: (c)





50. If a resolution impeaching the President is passed, the President is

considered to have been removed:

(a) from the date on which the resolution is passed

(b) once the Chief Justice of India takes out an order of the effect

(c) as soon as the Gazette of India notifies it

(d) once the new incumbent is electedAns: (a)

51. A resolution for impeaching the President can be moved after at least

fourteen days’ notice signed by:

(a) not less than 50 members of the House

(b) not less than one-third of the total number of members of the House

(c) not less than one-fourth of the total number of members of the House

(d) at least 100 members of Lok Sabha and 50 members of Rajya SabhaAns: (c)

52. The Constitution:

(a) is silent on the President’s re-election to the office

(b) allows re-election of a person to the President’s post

(c) restricts a person to remain President for only two terms

(d) has been amended to allow a person only one term as PresidentAns: (b)

53. Which of the following groups take/takes part in the election of the

President of India?

1. All Members of Parliament.

2. All Members of State Legislative Assemblies.

3. Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies.

4. Elected members of State Legislative Councils.

(a) I and III

(b) I and II





(c) I only


54. The executive authority of the Union is vested by the Constitution in the:

(a) Prime Minister

(b) President

(c) Cabinet

(d) Union LegislatureAns: (b)

55. The legislative powers of the President include all the following but:

(a) the power to summon or prorogue the Houses of Parliament

(b) the power to summon a joint sitting of the Houses to resolve a deadlock

(c) the power of nominating 12 members to the Lok Sabha

(d) the right to address either House at any time and it requires the attendance of members for this purposeAns: (c)

56. Which of the following Chief Justices of India has acted as President of

India?

(a) M. Hidayatullah

(b) P.B. Gajendra Gadkar

(c) P.N. Bhagwati

(d) All of the aboveAns: (a)

57. Which of the following statements regarding the pardoning powers of the

President is/are not correct?

1. He has the pardoning power in respect of sentence by court-martial.

2. He can grant reprieve and respite in the case of punishment for an offence against any law of the land, Union or State.

3. He alone can pardon a sentence of death.

4. His exercise of the power of pardon is open to judicial review.





(a) I and III

(b) II and III

(c) I and IV

(d) II and IVAns: (b)

58. Mark the correct response:

(a) It is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate all decisions of the Council ofMinisters to the President, whenever he requires

(b) The Prime Minister need not communicate all decisions to the President

(c) It is not obligatory on the part of Prime Minister to communicate the decision to the President

(d) The President cannot compel the Prime Minister to give the information he hasAns: (a)


(a) The President has power to remove the Prime Minister but not any of his ministers unless so advised by the Prime Minister

(b) The President has power neither to remove the Prime Minister nor any of his ministers unless the Prime Minister loses the support of majority in Lok Sabha and tenders his resignation

(c) The President can remove Prime Minister the moment he loses his majority in theLok Sabha

(d) The President has a power to remove any of the ministers at his pleasureAns: (b)

60. When the charge against the President is preferred by either’ House of

Parliament and is being investigated by other House:

(a) the President has a right to appear and to be represented at such investigation

(b) the President has no right to appear and to be represented at such investigation

(c) the President has a right of representation but he does not have a right of personal hearing

(d) the President has a right to appear and to be represented either personally or through a legal practitioner





Ans: (d)

61. The President of India is vested with the ordinance making power by

Article 126, He exercises this power:

(a) when Lok Sabha is not in session and circumstances .exist which render it necessary for the President to take immediate action

(b) when Council of States is not in session and the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action

(c) when both Houses of Parliament are not in session and President is satisfied that circumstances exist which made it necessary for him to take the immediate action

(d) in all the above circumstancesAns: (c)

62. Who was the member of the Rajya Sabha when first appointed as the

Prime Minister of India?

(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(b) Indira Gandhi

(c) Morarji Desai

(d) Charan SinghAns: (b)

63. Which one of the following statements is correct? (CDS 2005)

The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be removed by a resolution passed by:

(a) a majority of all the then members of Lok Sabha

(b) a majority of the then members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

(c) a two-thirds majority of the total members of the Lok Sabha

(d) a two-thirds majority of the Lok Sabha members present and votingAns: (a)

64. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following

statements:

1. The Council of Ministers of the Union are responsible to both the Houses of Parliament.





2. The President of India cannot appoint anyone as Union Minister not recommended by Prime Minister.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?(CDS 2005)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2



1. In India, the power to promulgate Ordinances lies with the President only.

2. The power to declare emergency in a State in India lies with the President only.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CDS 2005)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


66.

1. When Vice-President acts as President of India, he ceases to perform the function of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

2. The President of India can promulgate Ordinances at any time except when both Houses of Parliament are in session.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (Asstt Comm 2008)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2






67. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers could not vote for

himself during the ‘Vote of Confidence’ that he was seeking from the Lok

Sabha? (CDS 2009)

(a) VP Singh

(b) PV Narasimha Rao

(c) Chandra Shekhar

(d) Manmohan SinghAns: (d)

68. Which one among the following features of the Constitution of India is

indicative of the fact that the real executive power is vested in the Council of

Ministers headed by the Prime Minister? (NDA 2011)

(a) Federalism

(b) Representative Legislature

(c) Universal Adult Franchise

(d) Parliamentary DemocracyAns: (b)

69. Which of the following statements is/are correct? (CDS 2010)

1. A registered voter in India can contest an election to Lok Sabha from any

constituency in India.

2. As per the Representation of the People Act 1951, if a person is convicted of any

offence and sentenced to an imprisonment of 2 years or more, this will be

disqualification to contest the election.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2Ans: (a)

70. Which one among the following” is the basis of the difference between

the Parliamentary and Presidential system of government? (Asstt Commt

2010)





(a) Power of Judicial review

(b) Method of election of President/Head of the State

(c) Legislative supremacy in law making

(d) Relation between the legislature and the executiveAns: (b)

71. Consider the following statements about the powers of the President of

India:

1. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers.

2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for legislation.

3. The President has the right to address and send messages to either House of the Parliament.

4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration fo the Unionmust be communicated to the President.

Which of the statements given above are correct? (CDS 2011)

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Ans: (d)

72. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund

of India must come from (CSAT 2011)

(a) The President of India

(b) The Parliament of India

(c) The Prime Minister of India(d) The Union Finance Minister

Ans: (b)

73. The Prime Minister, at the time of the appointment:





1. need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months.

2. need not necessarily be a member of one of the. Houses of Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months.

3. must be either a nominated or elected member of one of the Houses of Parliament.

4. must be an elected member of only Lok Sabha.

(a) I only

(b) I and III

(c) II only

(d) IV onlyAns: (a)

74. The Union Council of Ministers consists of:

(a) Prime Minister

(b) Cabinet Minister

(c) Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of the States

(d) Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State and Deputy MinistersAns: (d)

75. The portfolios are allocated to the ministers by:

(a) the President

(b) the Prime Minister

(c) collective decision of the Council of Ministers

(d) individual choiceAns: (b)

76. The salary and perquisites of the Prime Minister of India are decided by

the:

(a) Constitution

(b) Cabinet

(c) Parliament





(d) PresidentAns: (c)

77. The Prime Minister is said to hold office during the pleasure of the

President but in reality, he stays in office as long as he enjoys the confidence

of:

(a) the electorate

(b) the Lok Sabha

(c) the party to which he belongs

(d) ParliamentAns: (b)

78. In the event of the resignation or death of the Prime Minister:

(a) the Ministry is dissolved

(b) fresh general elections must take place

(c) the Cabinet may choose another leader

(d) the President decides what to doAns: (a)

79. The Prime Minister is:

(a) elected by Lok Sabha

(b) elected by the Parliament

(c) appointed by the President

(d) nominated by the party enjoying the majority in Lok SabhaAns: (c)

80. The Prime Minister:

(a) is head of government

(b) is the leader of Lok Sabha

(c) may change the portfolios of the Ministers at will

(d) may do all the aboveAns: (d)





81. Is the Prime Minister bound to advise the President on matters on which

his advice is sought?

(a) Yes

(b) No

(c) It is discretionary

(d) If the Council of Ministers so desiresAns: (a)

82. The rank of the different Ministers in the Union Council of Ministers is

determined by the:

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Cabinet Secretary

(d) Speaker of Lok SabhaAns: (b)

83. In Parliamentary Government, Ministers remain in office so long as they

enjoy:

(a) the confidence of the upper house of the legislature

(b) support of the armed forces

(c) the confidence of the popular chamber of the legislature

(d) popular supportAns: (c)

84. Collective responsibility of the Cabinet was introduced in India by the:


(b) Minto-Morley Reforms

(c) Independence Act, 1947

(d) Constitution of IndiaAns: (d)

85. If a Minister of a State wants to resign, to whom he should address the

letter of resignation?





(a) Chief Minister

(b) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha

(c) Governor of the State

(d) Leader of his political partyAns: (a)

86. What is the position of a ‘Minister of State’ in the Central Government?

(Teachers’ Exam 1993)

(a) He is the nominee of the State Governor

(b) He is the nominee of the State Cabinets

(c) He looks after the interests of the State Cabinet

(d) He is a Minister of Central Government but not a member of the CabinetAns: (d)

87. Who among the following is directly responsible to Parliament for all

matters concerning the Defence Services of India?

(a) Cabinet Committee on political affairs

(b) President

(c) Prime Minister

(d) Defence MinisterAns: (d)

88. The executive power is vested in the President but it is actually used by

him on the advice of:

(a) the Prime Minister

(b) the Council of Ministers

(c) Parliament


89. An ‘office of profit’ which disqualifies a person from being a member of

the Union or State Legislature does not include office held under:

(a) the Government of India





(b) a State Government

(c) a local authority


90. In practice, the policy of the Government is shaped by:

(a) all the ministers


(c) the Cabinet

(d) special committeesAns: (c)

91. In a parliamentary democracy the:

(a) Executive controls the Legislature

(b) Executive and Legislature are strictly separate

(c) Judiciary controls both Legislature and Executive

(d) Legislature controls the ExecutiveAns: (d)

92. Ministers may be chosen from:

I. Lok Sabha

II. Rajya Sabha

III. Outside the Legislature

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) I and II

(d) I, II and IIIAns: (d)

93. Acts of State done in the name of the President of India are required to be

countersigned by way of authentication by:





(a) a Minister


(c) the Speaker

(d) a Secretary to the GovernmentAns: (d)

94. The Ministers are individually responsible to:

(a) the President

(b) the House of the people

(c) the Prime Minister

(d) the House of which they are membersAns: (a)

95. In the matter of State legislation the President may:

(a) exercise only suspensive veto power

(b) may withhold assent to any bill reserved for his consideration except money bills

(c) withhold his assent to any bill reserved for his consideration

(d) directly disallow any bill which he considers anti-nationalAns: (c)

96. Which one of the following powers can be exercised by both the President

and the Governor?

(a) Power to pardon a sentence by court-martial

(b) Power to remit a sentence in an offence relating to a matter on the State List

(c) Power to commute a sentence of death in certain circumstances

(d) Power to remit a sentence by court-martialAns: (c)

97. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Chief Election Commissioner of India holds his office during the pleasure of the President

(b) The Governor of the State holds his office during the pleasure of the President





(c) The Prime Minister’ can only be removed by a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament

(d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be, removed at the pleasure of the PresidentAns: (b)

98. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the President of India

(b) The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament

(c) The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha

(d) The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Prime MinisterAns: (b)

99. The Chief Minister of a State in India is not eligible to vote in the

Presidential election if: (IAS 1993)

(a) he himself is a candidate

(b) he is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the State Legislature

(c) he is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature

(d) he is a caretaker Chief MinisterAns: (c)

100. If a Minister loses a no-confidence motion, then:

(a) the Minister resigns

(b) the whole Council of Ministers resigns

(c) Lok Sabha is dissolved

(d) only Prime Minister and that Minister resignAns: (b)

101. Consider the following Vice-President of India:

1. V.V. Giri

2. M. Hidayatullah

3. B.D. Jatti

4. G.S. Pathak





Which one of the following is the correct chronology of their tenures? [CDS

2009]

(a) 1-4-3-2

(b) 2-1-3-4

(c) 3-2-1-4

(d) 4-1-3-2Ans: (a)

102. Who among the following has held the office of the Vice-President of

India? (IAS 2008)

1. Mohammad Hidayatullah

2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed

3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

4. Shankar Dayal Sharma

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4Ans: (b)

103. Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship is: (Rallways 1992)

(a) 30 years

(b) 35 years

(c) 23 years


104. Which of the following powers is not enjoyed by the President of India in

the event of emergency proclaimed under Article 352 of the Constitution?

(Asstt Grade 1991)

(a) He can suspend the enforcement of Fundamental Rights





(b) He is authorised to direct any State to exercise its Executive power in a particular manner

(c) He is authorised, during the recess of Lok Sabha, to allow expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India pending sanction of the Parliament

(d) He is authorised to dissolve the Rajya Sabha and Lok SabhaAns: (d)

105. In case a President dies while in office, the Vice-President can act as

President for a maximum period of:

(a) 2 years

(b) 1 year

(c) 3 months

(d) 6 monthsAns: (d)

106. Which of the following is true in context of the President?

(a) He addresses the first session of the Parliament after each general election of the Lok Sabha and at the commencement of the first session of each year

(b) He addresses the first session of Parliament at the beginning of each year as well as the last session held at the end of each year

(c) He addresses the Parliament daily

(d) None of theseAns: (a)

107. When can a President use his discretion in appointing the Prime

Minister?

(a) In all circumstances

(b) In no circumstances

(c) Only when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved

(d) When no political party enjoys a clear majority in the Lok SabhaAns: (d)

108. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of

India?





(a) Only Lok Sabha

(b) Rajya Sabha

(c) Any Vidhan Sabha

(d) Either House of ParliamentAns: (d)

109. Who among the following has the power to form a new State within the

Union of India?

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Supreme Court


110. With reference to the Presidential election in India, consider the following statements:

1. The nomination paper of a candidate for the Presidential election should be signed by at least 50 electors as proposers and another 50 as seconders.

2. The prescribed security deposit in the Presidential election is Rs.25,000. Which of these statements is/are correct? (CDS 2004)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


111. Though the President is not a Member of Parliament, he performs certain

functions as an integral part of the Parliament. Which are these?

I. He can dissolve the Lok Sabha.

II. He accords assent to the bills passed by Parliament.

III. He summons both Houses of Parliament.

IV. He orders elections to the Parliament when its term is over.





(a) I, II, III and IV

(b) I, II and III

(c) I and II

(d) II, III and IVAns: (b)

112. Which of the following statements is/are True?

I. Disputes related to the election of a President are decided by the Supreme Court.

II. Disputes related to vacancy in the electoral college are settled by the Election Commission.

III. In case the election of a President is declared void by the Supreme Court, the acts performed by a President before the date of such decision of the court get invalidated.

(a) I, II and III

(b) I and III

(c) I only

(d) III onlyAns: (c)

113. For the election of the President, the weight of a member’s vote depends on:

I. the strength of his political party in Parliament.

II. the State to which he belongs.

III. population represented.

(a) I, II and III

(b) I and II

(c) II and III(d) III only

Ans: (c)

114. Which of the following statements are true?





I. The presidential election is held before the expiration of the term of the outgoing President.

II. The term of the President’s office can be extended if general elections for any Assembly are not held due to an emergency.

III. If the term of any President is cut short by reason of his death, resignation or removal, then the election of next President should be held within three months of the occurrence of the vacancy.

IV. The Indian Constitution is silent on the number of times a person can be re-elected, President.


(b) I, II and III

(c) III and IV

(d) I and IVAns: (d)

115. The President selects as Prime Minister:

1. the leader of the party in majority in Lok Sabha.

2. anyone he wishes to.

3. the person who is in a position to win the confidence of the majority in Lok Sabha.

4. the leader of the party having a majority of seats in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.

(a) I only

(b) III or IV

(c) I or III

(d) I, III or IVAns: (b)

116. Each member of Parliament who participates in the Presidential election

is entitled to cast as many votes as are obtained by dividing the total number

of votes of the Legislative Assemblies of all the States by the total number of

elected members of the two Houses of Parliament. This ensures:

(a) parity between the voting strengths of the States and the Parliament





(b) parity among the States

(c) uniformity of representation of the different States

(d) All the aboveAns: (a)

117. Put in chronological order the following names of Presidents of India.

1. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

2. V.V.Giri

3. Dr. Zakir Hussain

4. Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy

(a) I, II, III, IV

(b) I, III, II, IV

(c) II, I, III, IV

(d) I, III, IV, IIAns: (b)

118. The President takes an oath before assuming office in the presence of

the Chief Justice of India. If the Chief Justice is not available, he takes the

oath in the presence of:

(a) the Vice-President

(b) the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court

(c) the Attorney-General

(d) Election CommissionerAns: (b)

119. Which of the following Emergencies can be declared by the President on

his own?

I. Emergency on account of armed rebellion.

II. Financial Emergency.

III. President’s Rule in a State.

(a) I only





(b) III only

(c) I, II and III

(d) None of theseAns: (d)

120. The President may appoint all the following except:

(a) Prime Minister

(b) Governor

(c) High Court judges

(d) Rajya Sabha ChairmanAns: (d)





The Union Legislature

1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected according to :([Delhi Police 1994)

(a) Cumulative Vote System

(b) Single Non-transferable Vote System

(c) Single Transferable Vote System


2. The Rajya Sabha can have a maximum strength of: (NDA 1992)

(a) 200

(b) 210

(c) 250

(d) 260Ans: (c)

3. At present the Rajya Sabha consists of _______ members.

(a) 250

(b) 245

(c) 238

(d) 240Ans: (b)

4. Who was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha?

(a) Malgaonkar

(b) P. Upendra

(c) Anantha Sayanam Ayyanagar

(d) Hukam SinghAns: (a)

5. Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker? (IAS 2004)





(a) K.V.K. Sundaram

(b) G.S. Dhillon

(c) Balirarn Bhagat

(d) Hukarn SinghAns: (a)

6. Who, according to the Anti-Defection Act, is the final authority to decide

whether a member of Lok Sabha has incurred disqualification due to

defection?

(a) Speaker

(b) President

(c) Election Commission

(d) High CourtAns: (a)

7. Who is authorised to decide a dispute regarding disqualification of a

member of Parliament ?

(a) Election Commissioner


(c) President

(d) A Committee set up by the ParliamentAns: (c)


Parliamentary Terms

A. Starred Question

B. Unstarred Question

C. Short Notice Question

Meaning

1. One asked by a member on matters of public importance of an urgent nature

2. One for which the Concerned minister has to lay on the table a written answer





3. One for which an oral answer is required to be given by a minister on the floor of the HouseA B C

(a) 1 2 3

(b) 2 1 3

(c) 3 1 2

(d) 3 2 1Ans: (d)

9. The Lok Sabha is called in session for at least how many times in a year?

(a) Twice

(b) Once

(c) Thrice

(d) Four timesAns: (c)

10. What is ‘zero hour’?

(a) When the proposals of the opposition are considered

(b) When matters of utmost importance are raised

(c) Interval between the morning- and afternoon sessions

(d) When a Money Bill is introduced in the Lok SabhaAns: (b)

11. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker continues in office till a

new:

(a) Lok Sabha is formed

(b) Speaker is appointed by the President

(c) Speaker is elected when the new House meets

(d) Government is formedAns: (c)

12. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha?

(a) President





(b) Vice-President

(c) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

(d) Leader of OppositionAns: (b)

13. Parliament’s expenditure is controlled by:

(a) President

(b) Finance Commission

(c) National Development Council

(d) Comptroller and Auditor GeneralAns: (d)

14. Which of the following States has the largest percentage of reserved

parliamentary seats? (Teachers’ Exam 1993)

(a) Orissa

(b) Bihar

(c) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Madhya PradeshAns: (c)

15. Which one of the following statements regarding the office of the Speaker

is correct?

(a) He holds office during the pleasure of the President

(b) He needs not be a member of the House at the time of his election but has to become a member of the House within 6 months from the date of his election

(c) He loses his office if the House is dissolved before the expiry of its term

(d) If he intends to resign, the letter of his resignation is to be addressed to the Deputy SpeakerAns: (d)

16. What is the minimum percentage of seats a party should get to be

recognised as the opposition party in the legislature?

(a) 20%

(b) 15%





(c) 10%

(d) No such limitAns: (d)

17. Which of the following is incorrect in respect of parliamentary control over

the Budget? (IAS 1993)

(a) Parliament has no say in the preparation of the Budget

(b) Parliament has the power to increase expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund

(c) Parliament has no power to impose a tax without the President’s recommendation

(d) Parliament cannot increase a tax without the President’s recommendationAns: (a)

18. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct supervision of:

(a) Ministry of Human Affairs

(b) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs


(d) PresidentAns: (a)

19. The maximum number of representatives of the States in Lok Sabha is:

(a) 525

(b) 530

(c) 545

(d) 550Ans: (b)

20. Which of the following States sends the maximum number of members to

the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Bihar

(c) West Bengal

(d) All equal





Ans: (a)

21. Who was the first leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Y.B. Chavan

(b) Bhola Paswan

(c) Kamlapati Tripathi

(d) CM. StephenAns: (c)

22. Which is House better placed with regard to control over the executive?

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) Rajya Sabha

(c) Both are equally placed

(d) It depends from which House the Prime Minister comesAns: (a)

23. The Rajya Sabha can be dissolved by:

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) Constitutional amendment

(c) President

(d) None of the aboveAns: (d)

24. Amongst the following, for whose removal Parliament’s resolution is not

needed?

(a) Chief Election Commissioner

(b) Governor of a State

(c) Judge of Supreme Court

(d) Comptroller and Auditor GeneralAns: (c)

25. To which of the following Bills the President must accord his sanction

without sending it back for fresh consideration?(I. Tax 1992)





(a) Ordinary Bills

(b) Finance Bills

(c) Bills passed by both the Houses of the Parliament

(d) Bill seeking Amendment to the ConstitutionAns: (b)

26. The first woman film star nominated/ elected to the Rajya Sabha was:

(a) Nargis Dutt

(b) Vyjayanthimala

(c) Hema Malini

(d) JayalalithaAns: (a)

27. According to the Constitution of India, the maximum number of members

representing the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha cannot exceed: (CDS

1992)

(a) 10

(b) 15

(c) 20

(d) 25Ans: (c)

28. What type of Party system has been evolved in India?

(a) Single Party

(b) Bi-Party

(c) Multi-Party

(d) Party lessAns: (c)

29. The Constitution of India does not mention the post of: (CDS 1994)

(a) the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

(b) the Deputy Prime Minister

(c) the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha





(d) the Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative AssembliesAns: (b)

30. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by:

(a) all the members of Parliament

(b) the people directly

(c) all the members of Lok Sabha

(d) the members of the majority party in the Lok SabhaAns: (c)

31. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the grades of officers in

the Central Secretariat?

1. Secretary

2. Additional Secretary

3. Joint Secretary

4. Deputy Secretary

5. Under Secretary

6. Director

(a) 1, 2, 3, 6, 4, 5

(b) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4, 6

(c) 6, 4, 3, 5, 2, 1

(d) 1, 5, 4, 2, 6, 3Ans: (a)

32. Which of the following committees does not consist of any member from

the Rajya Sabha?

(a) Estimates Committee

(b) Public Accounts Committee

(c) Public Grievances Committee

(d) Committee on Public UndertakingsAns: (a)





33. The Chairman of Public Accounts Committee is: (CDS 1992)

(a) elected by Union Cabinet

(b) appointed by Speaker

(c) appointed by President

(d) elected by members of PACAns: (b)


A. Business Advisory Committee 1. Looks into the mode of public expenditure

B. Select Committee 2. Examines the veracity of budget estimates

C. Estimates Committee 3. Considers a bill and submits to the House a report on it

D. Public Accounts Committee 4. Prepares timetable for the whole session

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 3 1 2 4

(d) 4 3 2 1Ans: (d)

35. The largest committee of Parliament of India is:

(a) Public Accounts Committee

(b) Estimates Committee

(c) Committee on Public Undertakings

(d) Joint Parliamentary CommitteeAns: (b)

36. Which of the following Parliamentary Committees in India acts as ‘watch-

dog’ on departmental expenditure and irregularities?

(a) Estimates Committee

(b) Committee on Public Undertakings

(c) Public Accounts Committee





(d) Committee of Public AssurancesAns: (c)

37. Which of the following committees exist only in the Lok Sabha?

1. Business Advisory Committee.

2. Committee on Private Members Bill and Resolutions.

3. Committee on Petitions.

4. Committee on Assurances.

5. Estimates Committee.

(a) I, II and III

(b) III and IV

(c) II and V

(d) II, IV and VAns: (c)

38. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Parliamentary Standing Committee Chaired by

(a) Public Accounts Committee – Member of Opposition

(b) Committee on Public Undertakings – Lok Sabha member

(c) Committee on Private Member’s Bill and Resolutions – Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha

(d) Business Advisory Committee – Finance MinisterAns: (d)

39. Which of the following statements regarding the Esstimates Committee

are correct?

1. No member of the Rajya Sabha is associated with it.

2. It has twenty members.

3. Its members are elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation for a period of one year.

4. The Speaker nominates one of its members to be its Chairman.





(a) I, II and III

(b) I, III and IV

(c) I, II and IV


40. Which of the following is concerned with the regularity and economy of

expenditure of government?



(c) Business Advisory Committee

(d) Committee on Offices of ProfitAns: (a)

41. The Estimates Committee:

(a) consists of 30 members appointed by the Speaker

(b) consists of 15 members each from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

(c) has its members elected according to the system of proportional representation

(d) has a Union Minister as its ChairmanAns: (c)

42. Which of the following committees is not created by the Speaker’s

nomination of members?

(a) Committee on Privileges

(b) Committee on Petitions

(c) Business Advisory Committee

(d) Committee on Public UndertakingsAns: (d)

43. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following

statements: (IAS 2004)

1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.





2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.

3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3Ans: (d)

44. Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both

the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha ? (IAS 1995)

(a) Elected members to the Lower House of Parliament

(b) Elected members of the. Upper House of Parliament

(c) Elected members of the Upper House of State Legislature

(d) Elected members of the Lower House of State LegislatureAns: (d)

45. Funds belonging to the Government of India are kept in:

(a) Consolidated Fund of India

(b) Public Accounts Fund of India

(c) Contingency Fund of India


46. In normal times, the Union Parliament:

(a) can legislate on any item in the State List if the President so desires

(b) can legislate on any item in the State List if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution tothat effect by 2/3rd majority

(c) can legislate on any item in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect by 2/3rd majority





(d) cannot legislate on any item in the State List

Ans: (c)

47. Which of the following is true? (CDS 1992)

(a) The Chairman and Deputy Chairman, both are not members of Rajya Sabha

(b) In the election of President, nominated members of State Legislative Assembly. do not take part while in the election of Vice-President they take part

(c) In the 1992 election of President of India, the members of Union Territories participated for the first time

(d) India follows the British convention that the Finance Minister should be a member of Lower HouseAns: (c)

48. The representation to States in the Rajya Sabha is given on the basis of:

(a) an equal number of seats to each State

(b) in proportion to their population

(c) in proportion to their size

(d) in accordance with their resourcesAns: (b)

49. If the Speaker of the Lower House of a State wants to resign, his letter of

resignation is to be addressed to the:

(a) Chief Minister

(b) Deputy Speaker

(c) Governor

(d) PresidentAns: (b)

50. Which of the following features restrict the authority of Parliament in

India?

1. A written Constitution clearly prescribes its scope of operation.

2. The Supreme Court can strike down a law passed by Parliament if it contravenes any of the Constitutional provisions.





3. Parliament is limited by the incorportation of the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution.

(a) I, II and III

(b) I and III

(c) II only

(d) None as Parliament is sovereign in IndiaAns: (a)

51. Which of the following matters are not affected in case of dissolution of

the Lok Sabha?

1. A bill originating and pending in the Rajya Sabha.

2. Pending notices, motions and resolutions in the Lok Sabha.

3. A joint sitting of Parliament if notification of such a sitting has been given before the dissolution.

4. Bills passed by both Houses and sent to the President for his assent.

5. Bills returned by President for reconsideration.

(a) I, II and III

(b) I, III, IV and V

(c) II, III and IV

(d) I, IV and VAns: (b)

52. A dissolution does not affect:

(a) a bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha and sent to Lok Sabha

(b) a bill that originated in the Lok Sabha but has been sent to Rajya Sabha

(c) a bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha but has not yet been sent to the Lok Sabha

(d) Any of the aboveAns: (c)

53. If an unqualified or disqualified person sits and votes in Parliament:





(a) he is liable to be prosecuted and jailed

(b) he may be fined Rs.500 per day of his so sitting

(c) he may be imprisoned by the House

(d) nothing can be done

Ans: (b)

54. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not

correct? (IAS 2004)

(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before itcan be enacted into law

(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act

(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is requiredfor making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation

(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President

Ans: (c)

55. The Annual Financial Statement is caused to be laid before both Houses of

Parliament by the:

(a) President

(b) Speaker

(c) Vice-President

(d) Finance MinisterAns: (a)

56. By ‘charged’ expenditure is meant:

(a) expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India which is non-votable

(b) expenditure incurred for which payment is pending

(c) expenditure that the President can incur without Parliament’s approval

(d) the sum required to meet all expenditure proposed to be made from the Consolidated Fund of IndiaAns: (a)





57. An Appropriation Bill:

I. is necessary to draw money from the Consolidated Fund of India.

II. cannot be amended to vary the amount of any charged expenditure.

III. Includes only the expenditure charged on the Consoliated Fund of India.

IV. is required to withdraw money from the Contingency Fund of India.

(a) I and III

(b) I, II and III

(c) I and II


58. Which Union Territories are represented in Rajya Sabha at present?

I. Delhi

II. Puducherry

III. Lakshadweep

IV. Chandigarh

(a) I, II and IV

(b) II and III

(c) I, II, III and IV


59. Consider the following statements on Financial Bill and say which is/are

correct?

1. It is the sameasa Money Bill.

2. It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

3. It can be amended in the Rajya Sabha.

4. It cannot be introduced except on the recommendation of the President.





(a) I only

(b) II and IV

(c) II, III and IV

(d) III and IVAns: (b)

60. As a result of prorogation which of the following is not affected?

(a) Resolutions

(b) Bills

(c) Motions

(d) NoticesAns: (b)

61. The members of the Rajya Sabha are:

(a) elected indirectly

(b) mostly nominated

(c) elected directly as well as indirectly

(d) elected by the members of the Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils of StatesAns: (a)

62. The two Houses of Parliament enjoy co-equal power in all spheres except:

1. financial matters

2. responsibility of the Council of Ministers

3. amendment procedure

4. election of President

(a) III and IV

(b) II, III and IV

(c) I, II and III






63. At a joint sitting of Parliament a bill has to be passed

(a) by a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses

(b) by a two-thirds majority of the total number of members of both Houses

(c) by a simple majority of the total number of members of both Houses present andvoting

(d) by a two-thirds majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting

Ans: (c)

64. The privileges enjoyed by the members of Parliament individually include:

(a) freedom of arrest in all cases

(b) freedom of attendance as witness while Parliament is in session

(c) unlimited freedom of speech


65. On what grounds can a person be disqualified as a voter?

1. Unsoundness of mind

2. Corrupt or illegal practice

3. Crime

4. Non-residence

(a) I, III and IV

(b) I, II and III

(c) II, III and IV


66. Who among the following has the final power to maintain order within the

House of People?

(a) Marshal of the House

(b) Prime Minister





(c) Speaker

(d) Chief of Security StaffAns: (c)

67. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can be removed by a resolution:

(a) passed by 2/3rd majority of its total members present

(b) passed by a simple majority of its total members present

(c) moved by Rajya Sabha but passed by Lok Sabha


68. If a member of Parliament voluntarily acquires the citizenship of a foreign·

country:

(a) he will be penalized

(b) he will continue to be a member of Parliament

(c) he will be disqualified from membership

(d) he will have a choice of renouncing eitherAns: (c)

69. Which of the following is not true?

(a) A person can be a member of both Houses of Parliament

(b) There is no bar to a person contesting to as many seats and as many legislatures as he likes

(c) A member of Lok Sabha cannot hold an office of profit under the Government

(d) The population of a State is not the sole consideration for allotment of seats in the Rajya SabhaAns: (a)

70. Who among the following fixes the salaries and the allowances of the

Speaker of Lok Sabha?

(a) President

(b) Council of Ministers

(c) Cabinet

(d) Parliament





Ans: (d)

71. How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President of

India?

(a) 10

(b) 11

(c) 12

(d) 13Ans: (c)

72. The time gap between two sessions of the Parliament should not exceed:

(a) 3 months

(b) 6 months

(c) 9 months

(d) 1 yearAns: (b)

73. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is: (Asstt Grade 1992)

(a) elected by the members of Rajya Sabha

(b) nominated by the President

(c) elected by members of both Houses of Parliament

(d) elected by Parliament and State Legislatures jointlyAns: (c)

74. The Union Territories get representation in (Asstt Grade 1991)

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) Rajya Sabha

(c) both Houses of Parliament


75. The quorum required to hold meetings of the legislative chambers is what

fraction of the total membership of the House? (CBI 1993)





(a) 1/3

(b) 1/4

(c) 1/6

(d) 1/10Ans: (d)

76. Joint sittings of the two Houses of Parliament are held to (Railways 1994)

(a) elect the President of India

(b) elect the Vice-President of India

(c) adopt a Constitution amending Bill

(d) consider and pass a Bill on which two Houses disagreeAns: (d)

77. One-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire after every:

(a) One year

(b) Second year

(c) Third year

(d) Fifth-yearAns: (b)

78. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha has to be passed/returned by Rajya

Sabha within:

(a) 14 days

(b) 21 days

(c) 1 month

(d) 3 monthsAns: (a)

79. What is the minimum age for election/appointment as a member of the

Rajya Sabha? (RRB 1994)

(a) 35 years

(b) 30 years

(c) 25 years






80. What is the minimum age for being the member of the Parliament?

(NABARD 1991)

(a) 21 years

(b) 25 years

(c) 30 years


81. Which of the following best defines the Parliamentary term ‘Crossing the

Floor’? (SBI PO 1991)

(a) Leaving the opposition to join the party in power or vice-versa by a Parliamentarian

(b) An attempt to occupy the seat of some other Parliamentarian

(c) Leaving a House by a minister in between in order to attend the other House

(d) Walk out by some Parliamentarians in order to boycott the proceedings of the HouseAns: (a)

82. When can the Speaker exercise his right to vote in the House?

(a) Whenever he desires

(b) Whenever the House desires

(c) Only in the event of equality of votes

(d) Whenever his party directsAns: (c)

83. Prorogation of the House means:

(a) a House has been brought in session

(b) the session of the House has been terminated

(c) the House itself stands terminated






84. Which of the following is true?

1. A Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by Lok Sabha lapses on the dissolution ofLok Sabha.

2. If the President has notified about his intention to summon a joint sitting on a Bill,the Bill does not lapse even if the Lok Sabha is dissolved after the notification.

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor IIAns: (b)

85. The Speaker may be removed:

(a) by a resolution of a House-passed by the majority of total membership of the House

(b) by a resolution of the House passed by a 2/3rd majority of members present andvoting

(c) by a resolution of the House moved after 14 days clear notice and passed by a majority of all the then members of the House

(d) by a resolution moved after 14 days notice and passed by the majority of the members presentAns: (c)

86. When a resolution for his removal is under consideration, the Speaker:

I. does not take part in the proceedings of the House.

II. has no right to vote.

III. has a right to speak in the House even though he shall not preside.

(a) I only

(b) I and II

(c) II only






87. Rajya Sabha is less powerful than Lok Sabha in terms of its financial

powers because:

(a) it does not participate in the passing of money bill

(b) No Money Bill can be introduced in Rajya Sabha

(c) Both of the above


88. Whose function is it to see that no money is spent out of the Consolidated

Fund of a State without the authority of the legislature?


(b) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

(c) Finance Commission


89. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (IAS 2004)

(a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based

(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha no conditions of admissibilityhave been laid down in the Rules

(c) A motion of no-confidence, once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted

(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidenceAns: (a)

90. If a Money bill passed by the Lok Sabha is not returned by the Rajya

Sabha within fourteen days, then: (CDS 2004)

(a) Lok Sabha will reconsider it

(b) Money Bill will be rejected

(c) President will summon a joint meeting of both the Houses to discuss it

(d) The Bill will be sent to the President for his signature and consentAns: (d)





91. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British

parliamentary system in that India has: (IAS 1998

(a) both a real and a nominal executive

(b) a system of collective responsibility

(c) bicameral legislature

(d) the system of judicial reviewAns: (d)

92. Consider the following statements: (IAS 2004)

1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.

2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.

3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until ‘Immediately before the first meeting of the House’.Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3Ans: (d)

93. Identify the correct sequence of passing a Budget in the Parliament (CDS

2009)

(a) Vote on Account-Finance Bill-Appropriation Bill-Discussion on Budget

(b) Finance Bill- Appropriation. Bill Discussion on Budget-Vote on Accounts

(c) Discussion on Budget-Vote on Account-Finance Bill-Appropriation Bill

(d) Discussion on Budget-Appropriation Bill-Finance Bill-Vote on AccountAns: (d)

94. Which of the following are not privileges enjoyed by members of

Parliament individually?





I. Freedom from being arrested in civil cases during and 40 days before and after the continuance of a meeting of the House of Committee of which he is a member.

II. Freedom from being summoned without the leave of the House, to give evidence as a witness while Parliament is in session.

III. Unlimited freedom of speech providing immunity from court action for anything said in the House.

IV. Freedom to publish debates and proceedings of the House.

(a) I and III

(b) II and IV

(c) III and IV


95. Which of the following conditions must be fulfilled before a Bill for

altering the area of the States is introduced in the Parliament?

1. The Bill must be recommended by the President.

2. The President should have referred it to the concerned State Legislature before recommending it.

3. The State Legislature must have given its consent on the Bill.

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) I and III


96. Which of the following actions are not performed by the President?

(a) Proroguing Parliament

(b) Convening a joint sitting if requested

(c) Dissolving the Rajya Sabha

(d) Causing the Budget to be laid before ParliamentAns: (c)





97. The total number of members in a Legislative Council should not exceed

that of a Legislative Assembly by :

(a) 1/3

(b) 2/3

(c) 1/2

(d) 1/4Ans: (a)

98. The Chairman of the Public. Accounts Committee of the Parliament is

appointed by:

(a) Prime Minister

(b) President

(c) Finance Minister

(d) Speaker of Lok SabhaAns: (d)

99. The quorum for Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament is (CDS 2009)

(a) One-twelfth of the .total number of members of the House

(b) One-sixth of the total number of members of the House

(c) One-tenth of the’ total number of members of the House

(d) Two-third of the total number of members of the HouseAns: (c)

100. Which one of the following is the largest (area wise) Lok Sabha

constituency? (IAS 2008)

(a) Kangra

(b) Kachchh

(c) Ladakh

(d) BhilwaraAns: (b)

101. Which of the following is correct? (IAS 1994)

(a) All the members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by State Legislative Assemblies





(b) Only a member of the Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the Vice-President

(c) While a candidate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any State in India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident of the State from where he is contesting

(d) The Constitution explicitly prohibits the appointment of a nominated member of the Rajya Sabha to the post of a MinisterAns: (c)

102. Which is parliamentary committee In India normally chaired by a

prominent member of the Opposition?

(a) Committee Assurances


(c) Privileges Committee

(d) Public Accounts CommitteeAns: (d)

103. Who presides over the Lok Sabha if neither the Speaker nor the Deputy

Speaker is available? (Asstt Grade 1992)

(a) A member of the House of People appointed by the President

(b) A member chosen by Council of Ministers

(c) The senior most member of the Rajya Sabha

(d) The senior most member of the Lok SabhaAns: (d)

104. In the case of a deadlock between the two Houses of the Parliament, the

joint sitting is presided over by the: (NDA 1994)

(a) President

(b) Vice-President


(d) Member of the Lok Sabha specifically elected for the purposeAns: (c)






1. A Bill pending in the Legislature of 3 State shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the House or Houses thereof.

2. A Bill pending in the Legislative Council of a State which has not been’ ‘passed bythe Legislative Assembly shall not lapse on dissolution of the Assembly.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (NDA 2008)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

106. A Bill for alteration of boundaries of States shall not be introduced in the

Parliament. without the recommendation of: (Central Excise 1993)

(a) the presiding officers of both Houses of Parliament

(b) the legislatures of the States concerned

(c) Supreme Court

(d) PresidentAns: (d)


1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national

interest for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State

List.

2. Resolution approving the Proclamation of Emergency are passed only by

the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS

2006)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2






108. Which of the following non-members of Parliament has the right to

address it ?

(a) Solicitor-General of India


(c) Attorney General of India

(d) Chief Election CommissionerAns: (c)

109. How many members of the Lok Sabha must support a motion of ‘no

confidence’ in the government, before it can be admitted by the Speaker?

(a) 20

(b) 25

(c) 35

(d) 50Ans: (d)

110. Who among the following decides whether a particular bill is a Money Bill

or not?([Asstt Grade 1994)

(a) President



(d) Finance MinisterAns: (b)


1. Salary and allowances of the Speaker for Lok Sabha are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

2. In the Warrant’ of Precedence, the Speaker of Lok Sabha ranks higher than all theUnion Cabinet Ministers other than Prime Minister.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (NDA 2008)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2






112. Which of the following is Financial Committees of Parliament in India?

(IAS 1992)

1. Public Accounts Committee.

2. Estimates Committee.

3. Committee on Public Undertakings.

(a) I and III

(b) I and 11

(c) II and III

(d) I, II and III

Ans: (d)


1. The expenditure to be incurred by the Government and the revenue to be collected by way of taxes must be approved by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

2. The charge of impeachment against the President of India can be brought about by only Lok Sabha and not Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CDS 2005)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


114. After a no-confidence motion is admitted to the Lok Sabha, who decides

a date for the debate?

(a) President





(b) Vice-President

(c) Lok Sabha Speaker

(d) Prime MinisterAns: (c)

115. After the House is dissolved, the Speaker:

(a) is removed from the office immediately

(b) remains as Speaker until the first meeting of the House of People after the dissolution

(c) has to submit his resignation to the President of India within 24 hours

(d) can continue as Speaker for the period of 30 days onlyAns: (b)

116.

1. No Money Bill can be introduced in the Parliament without the recommendation ofthe President of India.

2. The Prime Minister appoints Finance Commission for distribution of taxes betweenthe Union and the States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (Asstt Comm 2008)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2



1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members ofRajya Sabha and a few eminent persons of industry and trade.


(a) 1 only





(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


118. Consider the following statements on Parliamentary Committees: [CDS

2008]

1. Members of the Rajya Sabha are not associated with the Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings.

2. Members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both land 2


119. Which one among the following is a function of the Pro-Tem Speaker of

the Lok Sabha? (COS 2011)

(a) Conduct of the proceedings of the House in the absence of the Speaker

(b) To check if the election certificates of the members of the House are in order

(c) Swear in the members of the House and hold the charge till a regular Speaker is elected

(d) Give his assent to the bills passed by the HouseAns: (c)

120. How many times was the term of the Lok Sabha extended up to 6 years?

(CPO (SI) 2010)

(1) Once

(2) Twice

(3) Thrice

(4) NeverAns: (1)





121. In which of the Parliamentary Financial Committees is the Rajya Sabha

not represented? (SSC (10+2) 2010)



(c) Committee on Public Undertakings

(d) Expenditure CommitteeAns: (b)

122. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and

presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament?(IAS 2010)

(a) Department of Revenue

(b) Department of Economic Affairs

(c) Department of Financial Services

(d) Department of ExpenditureAns: (b)

123. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one among the

following statements is not correct? (CDS 2012)

(a) A money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha

(b) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill

(c) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement

(d) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the Demands for GrantsAns: (c)

124. While a proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the duration of the

Lok Sabha can be extended by not exceeding(Asstt Commdt 2011)

(a) three months

(b) nine months

(c) one year at a time

(d) two years at a timeAns: (c)





125. With reference to the conduct of government business in the Parliament

of India, the term ‘closure’ refers to (CDS 2011)

(a) suspension of debate at the termination of a day’s sitting of the Parliament

(b) a rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be halted

(c) the termination of a parliamentary session

(d) refusal on the part of the government to have the opposition look at the important document.Ans: (b)

126. The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to (BPSC 2011)

(a) the Comptroller and Auditor- General

(b) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(c) the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

(d) the President of IndiaAns: (b)

127. Of the following statements, which one is not correct? (BPSC 2011)

(a) The Rajya Sabha is powerless in money matter

(b) Money Bills originate in the Rajya Sabha

(c) The Rajya Sabha has to pass Bills within 14 days after they are passed by the Lok Sabha

(d) The Rajya Sabha may pass or return the Money Bill with some recommendationsto the Lok SabhaAns: (b)

128. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and

other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the

(CSAT 2011)

(a) Contingency Fund of India

(b) Public Account

(c) Consolidated Fund of India

(d) Deposits and Advances FundAns: (c)





129. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha? (CSAT

2011)

(a) the Budget is modified and presented again

(b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions

(c) the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign

(d) the Prime Minister submits. The resignation of Council of MinistersAns: (d)

130. What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim

budget”?

1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.

2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CSAT 2011)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2



(a) Lok Sabha can be dissolved before 5 years

(b) Lok Sabha can be extended only up to 6 years

(c) Lok Sabha is never dissolved’ before 5 years

(d) All members of Lok Sabha are elected RepresentativesAns: (a)

132. If the Rajya Sabha rejects a Money Bill, then which of the following is

correct?

(a) Lok Sabha may or may not accept its recommendation

(b) Lok Sabha may not consider it at all





(c) President calls a joint session for passing of the Bill

(d) Bill is sent for further considerationAns: (a)

133. The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha according to:

(a) their performance as office bearers of cultural societies

(b) their role played in political set up of the country

(c) the recommendations made by the Vice-President

(d) their distinction in the field of science, art, literature and social serviceAns: (d)

134. Under which of the following circumstances an elected member of

Parliament may be disqualified on the ground of defection? (IAS 1992)

1. If he voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party.

2. If he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his politicalparty without prior permission of the political party.

3. If he speaks against the political party.

4. If he joins a political party other than the party on whose ticket he contested and got elected.

(a) I, II and III

(b) I, II and IV

(c) I, III and IV


135. The distribution of seats in the Parliament are based on which of the

following census?

(a) 1951

(b) 1961

(c) 1971

(d) 1981Ans: (c)





136. Which of the following can be abolished, but not dissolved? (IAS 1991])

(a) Rajya Sabha

(b) Municipal Bodies

(c) State Legislative Council


137. The Rajya Sabha has a life of (Railways 1991)

(a) 2 years

(b) 6 years

(c) 7 years

(d) PermanencyAns: (d)

138. The budget in normal circumstances is presented to the Parliament on:

(a) The last day of February

(b) 15th March

(c) The last day of March

(d) 1st AprilAns: (a)

139. Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

(CDS 2009)

(a) The Public Accounts Committee

(b) The Estimates Committee

(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings

(d) The Committee on PetitionsAns: (b)

140. Parliament or a State Legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member

absents himself without permission from the sessions for (IAS 1990)

(a) 30 days

(b) 60 days





(c) 90 days

(d) 120 daysAns: (b)

141. Which authority recommends the principles governing the grants-in-aid

of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India? (Asstt

Grade 1994)


(b) Union Ministry of Finance


(d) Inter State CouncilAns: (c)

142. Which of the following is true regarding the ‘No Confidence Motion’ in

the Parliament?

1. There is no mention of it in the Constitution.

2. A period of 6, months must lapse between the introduction of one No Confidence ‘Motion and another.

3. At least 100 persons must support such motion before it is introduced in the House.

4. It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

(a) 2 and 4

(b) 1, 2, 3, and 4

(c) 1, 2, and 3

(d) 1 and 4Ans: (a)

143. How many times can the President of India return a Non-money Bill,

passed by Parliament?

(a) Twice

(b) Once

(c) Thrice





(d) NeverAns: (b)

144. The term of the Lok Sabha:

(a) cannot be extended

(b) can be extended for another full term of 5 years

(c) can be extended for an unlimited period

(d) can be extended by 1year at a timeAns: (d)

145. If a person elected to both the Union Parliament and a State Legislature

does not vacate his seat in the State Legislature within the stipulated period

then:

(a) his seat in the State Legislature automatically becomes vacant

(b) his seat in the Parliament will become vacant

(c) both the seats will become vacant

(d) he may be debarred from contesting elections in the futureAns: (b)


(a) Speaker cannot be removed without a 2/3rd majority of the total membership of the House

(b) The decision of the Speaker whether a particular Bill is a Money Bill is not final unless ratified by the President

(c) No court of law can go into the merits of a ruling given by the Speaker

(d) Not all the proceedings of the House are addressed to the SpeakerAns: (c)

147. The first no-confidence motion moved in the Lok Sabha after

independence was in the year

(a) 1954

(b) 1960

(c) 1963

(d) 1975





Ans: (c)

148. A team of men selected by the party in opposition to take over the

different portfolios in case the party is able to wrest power is known as:

(a) inner Cabinet

(b) shadow Cabinet

(c) causus

(d) prorogationAns: (b)

149. Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a candidate

contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her?

I. The nomination made by the candidate if found to be invalid.

II. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it is found valid.

III. The candidate lost the polls but secured 1/6th of the total number of valid votes polled in that election.

Select the correct answer using the code given below [CDS 2009]

(a) I and II

(b) I, II and III

(c) II and III

(d) I onlyAns: (a)

150. Which of the following correctly reflects the position of the Upper House

of the State Legislature as compared to the position of the Upper House of

the Parliament?

(a) 1/3rd members of Rajya Sabha retire every second year while 1/4th members of Legislative Council retire every 18 months

(b) There is no provision for a joint sitting of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council in the States for resolving deadlocks While there is such a provision in the case of the two House of Parliament

(c) While no Bill other than a Money Bill can originate in the State Legislative Council, no Bill can originate in the Rajya Sabha





(d) While Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members, the State Legislative Council hasnoneAns: (b)

151. A member of Parliament has immunity from arrest, means:

(a) a member of Parliament cannot be arrested and put in prison in, a civil action within a period of 40 days before the commencement of the session and 40 days after the termination of the session

(b) a member of Parliament cannot be prosecuted in criminal proceedings

(c) an MP cannot be detained preventively

(d) an MP cannot be arrested for the contempt of courtAns: (a)

152. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) No member of Parliament can proceed in a court of law for any disclosure he makes in Parliament

(b) A member of Parliament is protected for any defamatory speech he makes in theParliament and then circulates its copies to the public

(c) A member of Parliament is protected for any speech he makes in the Parliament

(d) A member of Parliament has absolute freedom of speechAns: (a)

153. Which of the following is incorrect?

(a) Newspapers can publish Parliamentary proceedings

(b) Newspapers can publish any part of proceedings with the permission of the Speaker

(c) Newspapers have also the freedom to publish expunged portions of the speech of an MP

(d) Parliament has freedom to publish its proceedingsAns: (c)

154. Which of the following is true regarding the Vice-Chairman of the Rajya

Sabha? (Railway Apprentices 1993)

(a) One has to be a member of the Rajya Sabha for election to die post of the Vice-Chairman





(b) One need not necessarily be a member of the Rajya Sabha for election to the post of the Vice-Chairman

(c) One has to be a member of either House ‘of Parliament for election to the post ofthe Vice-Chairman

(d) There is an established convention that the Vice-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha belongs to the main opposition party in the Rajya SabhaAns: (a)

155. Who among the following may belong to the Rajya Sabha but can speak

in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha? (CDS 1993)

(a) Ministers who are members of the Rajya Sabha

(b) Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha who may be experts in different fields of knowledge

(c) The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

(d) Leader of the House in the Rajya SabhaAns: (a)

156. A Member of Parliament can claim immunity:

(a) both from civil as well as criminal cases

(b) from civil cases only

(c) from criminal cases only

(d) cannot claim immunity either from civil or from criminal casesAns: (b)

157. Which of the following is incorrect?

(a) Prorogation of the House has the effect of wiping out the pending business

(b) Adjournment of the House does not affect the pending business and the same may be taken up in the next sitting

(c) The power of summoning and prorogation of the House is vested in the President, though it is exercised on the aid and advice of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers

(d) Dissolution of Lok Sabha means that pending business is wiped outAns: (a)

158. State which of the following statements is incorrect





(a) A Money Bill deals .with imposition, remission, alteration or regulation of tax

(b) A Money Bill deals with regulation borrowing money or giving of any guarantee by the Government

(c) A Money Bill deals with the money of the Consolidated Fund

(d) A Money Bill is one which provides for the imposition of fines or feesAns: (d)

159. Representatives of union Territories in Lok Sabha are chosen by:

(a) direct elections

(b) indirect elections

(c) nomination

(d) All the above meansAns: (a)

160. Rajya Sabha has the exclusive authority to

(a) impeach the Vice-President

(b) intimate impeachment proceedings against the Chief Election Commissioner

(c) recommend the creation of new All India Services


161. The maximum strength of the nominated members in both the Houses of

Parliament can be:

(a) 10

(b) 12

(c) 14

(d) 20Ans: (c)

162. In India, the system of proportional representation is used for:

1. election to the office of the President.

2. election to the office of Vice-President.

3. election of the members of the Rajya Sabha.





4. by elections

(a) I, II and III

(b) I and 11

(c) III and IV

(d) I, II, III and IVAns: (a)

163. Article 75 includes among its provisions:

1. Prime Minister is to be appointed by the President.

2. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible the Lok Sabha.

3. The President may appoint a non-member as Prime Minister who must become a member of Parliament before the expiration of six months.

4. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4Ans: (a)

164. Under Article 87

1. The President may address either House of Parliament and require the attendance of members for that purpose.

2. The President shall address both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first session after each general election to the Lok Sabha.

3. Provision is to be made by rules regulating the procedure of either House for allotment of time for discussion of the matters referred to in the President’s address.

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) I and III





(d) I, II and IIIAns: (b)

165. In which areas is a concurrent action of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

required?

1. Removal of Comptroller and Auditor-General.

2. Approval of emergency proclamation.

3. No-confidence motion.

4. Constitutional amendment.

(a) I and II

(b) II, III and IV

(c) I, II and IV

(d) I, III and IVAns: (c)

166. Which of the following statements are not true?

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power to reject or amend a Money Bill.

2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the sole and final power of deciding whether a Bill is a Money Bill.

3. In the creation of All-India Services, the Lok Sabha has more powers than the Rajya Sabha.

4. In 1976 the Money Bill was introduced in the Rajya Sabha.

(a) B and C

(b) A and D

(c) A and B

(d) C and DAns: (d)

167. The Parliament legislates on a State subject if:

I. the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority that to do so is in the national inter





II. during times of agency.

Ill. when the legislatures of two or more States resolve that it is lawful for Parliamentto do so.

IV. a treaty or international agreement has to be implemented.

(a) I, II and III

(b) I, III and IV

(c) II and III


168. What is the correct sequence of the given stages that a Bill passes

through before becoming an Act?

1. Getting published in the official gazette.

2. Admitting amendments.

3. Reference to a joint committee.

4. Presidential assent.

(a) II, III, IV, I

(b) I, III, II, IV

(c) I, II, III, IV

(d) IV, III, II, IAns: (b)

169. Parliament is empowered to get all the following removed except:

(a) Comptroller and Auditor General

(b) Supreme Court Judges

(c) Chairman of UPSC

(d) High Court JudgesAns: (c)

170. Who is considered the guardian of the Public Purse?

(a) Parliament





(b) Comptroller and Auditor General

(c) Public Accounts Committee

(d) The PresidentAns: (b)

171. All money received by or on behalf of the Government of India are

credited to

(a) the Consolidated Fund of India

(b) the Public Account of India’

(c) the Contingency Fund of India

(d) Either (a) or (b)Ans: (d)

172. Which of the following is not a function of Parliament in India?

(a) Providing the Cabinet and holding them responsible

(b) Criticising government policy

(c) Formulating policy for national development

(d) Securing relevant information on government actionAns: (c)

173. A joint sitting may be called:

I. only in case of national emergency.

II. to enable a Constitutional Amendment to be passed in a hurry.

III. when taxes approved by one House are rejected by the other.

(a) I and III

(b) II and III

(c) I, II and III

(d) None of theseAns: (d)





The Judiciary

1. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in: (IAS 1997)

(a) the United Kingdom

(b) Australia

(c) the United States

(d) CanadaAns: (c)


1. The Supreme Court’s decrees and orders are enforceable throughout India.

2. The Supreme Court is not bound by its earlier decisions

3. In its power of judicial review the Supreme Court can declare a law unconstitutional on the basis of the objectives underlying the law.

4. The Constitution excludes no area from judicial review.

(a) I, II and III

(b) I and II

(c) II and III

(d) I, III and IVAns: (b)

3. The Constitution allows preventive detention but stipulates:

(a) that no one should be detained beyond three months unless an Advisory Board authorises detention beyond that period

(b) that the grounds for detention should be conveyed to the detenu before arresting him

(c) that the detenu must be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours of his arrest


4. Who is appointed as an adhoc Judge of the Supreme Court ?





(a) A retired Judge of Supreme Court

(b) A sitting Judge of a High Court duly qualified for appointment as a Supreme Court Judge

(c) An acting Judge of the Supreme Court

(d) A person fully qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme CourtAns: (b)

5. Which of the .following amendments curtailed the power of Judicial review

of the Supreme Court and the High Courts?

(a) 24th

(b) 26th

(c) 42th

(d) 44thAns: (c)

6. Under a single, integrated, hierarchial judicial system, the High Courts in the

States are directly under the:

(a) President

(b) Governor of the State

(c) Union Parliament

(d) Supreme CourtAns: (d)

7. If a High Court in India does not give the certificate to a case that it

involves a substantial question of law, the Supreme Court:

(a) can never hear the case

(b) does not enter into the picture

(c) may hear the case if it is satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution

(d) may hear the case if the President calls upon it to do soAns: (c)






1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court.

2. After retirement from the office, a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS 2007)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


9. Which of the following, regarding the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme

Court are correct ?

1. It is binding on the Supreme Court to give its opinion on any matter referred to it by the President.

2. The full bench of the Supreme Court hears any reference made to it under its power of advisory jurisdiction.

3. The opinion given by the Supreme Court on a reference under advisory jurisdiction is not binding on the government.

4. Not more than one reference at a time can be made to the Supreme Court under its power of advisory jurisdiction.

(IAS 1994)

(a) I and II

(b) I and III

(c) II and III


10. For the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court may issue

a/an: (Stenographers’ Exam 1992)

(a) decree

(b) ordinance





(c) notification

(d) writAns: (d)

11. Which of the following writs is issued by the court in case of illegal

detention of a person?

(a) Habeas Corpus

(b) Mandamus

(c) Certiorari

(d) Quo WarrantoAns: (a)

12. Under the writ of ‘Mandamus’ , the Court can:

(a) ask the person to be produced

(b) ask to let a person free for a temporary period

(c) order to transfer the case from one court

(d) direct the Government to do or not to do a thingAns: (d)

13. Which of the following writs is a bulwark of personal freedom?

(a) Mandamus

(b) Habeas Corpus

(c) Quo Warranto

(d) CertiorariAns: (b)

14. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a Fundamental

Right? (CDS 1993)

(a) Habeas Corpus

(b) Mandamus

(c) Prohibition

(d) CertiorariAns: (a)





15. The appropriate writ issued by the court to quash the appointment of a

person to a public office is that of:

(a) Prohibition

(b) Quo Warranto

(c) Certiorari

(d) MandamusAns: (b)


A. Mandamus 1. Direction to an official for the performance of a duty

B. Habeas Corpus 2. Release of an illegally detained person

C. Certiorari 3. Transferring of a case from an inferior court to a court of higher jurisdiction

D. Quo Warranto 4. Calling upon one to show by what authority he holds or claims a franchise or officeA B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 3 2 1 4

(c) 4 1 3 2

(d) 4 3 2 1Ans: (a)

17. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Writ of Habeas Corpus – available against private individual as well

(b) Writ of Quo Warranto – available against subordinate courts only

(c) Writ of Prohibition – available against autonomous bodies only

(d) Writ of Certiorari – available against public servants onlyAns: (d)

18. The total number of High Courts in India at present is:

(a) 15

(b) 16





(c) 18

(d) 21Ans: (d)

19. The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court is :

(a) 62 years

(b) 65 years

(c) 58 years

(d) 60 yearsAns: (a)

20. Which is the highest and final judicial tribunal in respect of the

Constitution of India ? (SBI PO 1991)

(a) Parliament

(b) President

(c) Supreme Court

(d) Union CabinetAns: (c)

21. An appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court from any judgement of a High

Court if the High Court :

(a) has on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and sentenced him to death

(b) certifies that the case is a fit one for appeal to the Supreme Court

(c) has withdrawn for trial before itself any case from any subordinate court and hasconvicted the accused person and sentenced him to death

(d) In all the above casesAns: (d)

22. To ensure impartiality, the retired Chief Justice and other Judges of the

Supreme Court are debarred from practising law:

(a) in any court other than the Supreme Court

(b) in any court of India

(c) in any court other than State High Courts





(d) in any Criminal CourtAns: (b)

23. What is meant by ‘Court of Record’? ([I. Tax 1994)

(a) The court that preserves all its records

(b) The court that maintains records of all lower courts

(c) The court that can punish for its contempt

(d) The court that is competent to give directions and issue writsAns: (a)

24. Besides its permanent seat at Delhi, the Supreme Court can also meet at :

(a) any other metropolitan city

(b) any other major city

(c) any other place as decided by the Chief Justice of India in consultation with the President

(d) any other Union TerritoryAns: (c)

25. Which of the following cases cannot be filed directly in the Supreme

Court ? ([MBA 1994)

(a) Disputes between two or more States

(b) Cases against encroachment on Fundamental Rights

(c) If one’s property is forcefully occupied by the other

(d) Both (a) and (b) aboveAns: (c)

26. Which is not an eligibility criterion for appointment as a Judge of the

Supreme Court? (UDC 1993)

(a) must have been a High Court Judge for at least 5 years

(b) must have attained the age of 55 years

(c) must have been an advocate of a High Court for not less than 10 years

(d) must be in the opinion of the President, a distinguished juristAns: (b)





27. ‘Judicial Review’ function of the Supreme Court means the power to: (RRB

1994)

(a) review its own judgement

(b) review the functioning of judiciary in the country

(c) examine the constitutional validity of the laws

(d) undertake periodic review of the ConstitutionAns: (c)

28. Which of the following is incorrect regarding Supreme Court ?

(a) It has the power to punish by fine and imprisonment any person guilty of contempt of its authority

(b) It is a court of record and has all the powers of such court including the power topunish for contempt of itself

(c) Its records are admitted in evidence and cannot be questioned when produced inany Court of Law

(d) It is bound by its earlier decisions and cannot depart from its previous decisionsAns: (d)

29. The Supreme Court of India decides the disputes regarding the election

of:

(a) the Prime Minister

(b) the Speaker and Deputy Speaker

(c) the President and Vice-President


30. Which of the following is true about the Supreme Court ?

(a) It has only the Appellate Jurisdiction

(b) It is the highest federal court of India

(c) It does not have the Original Jurisdiction

(d) It can amend the ConstitutionAns: (b)





31. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High

Court and the Supreme Court ?

(a) Disputes between the Centre and the States

(b) Disputes between the States

(c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights

(d) Protection against the violation of the ConstitutionAns: (c)

32. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are drawn from the:

(a) Grants-in-aid

(b) Contingency Fund

(c) Consolidated Fund

(d) Public AccountsAns: (c)

33. A Judge of the Supreme Court of India is to hold office until he attains the

age of:

(a) 58 years

(b) 60 years

(c) 62 years

(d) 65 yearsAns: (d)

34. Which of the following statements regarding Judiciary in India are

correct ?

1. Supreme Court of India is free from the control and influence of Legislature and Executive.

2. Subordinate courts are at the head of the judicial hierarchy of the State.

3. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the High Court are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.

4. A High Court can withdraw a case from a subordinate court and can deal with the case itself if it is satisfied that the case involves a substantial point of constitutional law.





(a) I and II

(b) I and III

(c) I and IV


35. In which of the following cases appeals cannot be lodged with the

Supreme Court ?

(a) Constitutional matters involving a substantial point of law

(b) A sentence in a criminal case given by the lower court and confirmed by the High Court

(c) Criminal case in which High Court has given a death sentence J a criminal found non- guilty by a lower court

(d) Criminal case in which High Court after withdrawing a case from the lower court,has given a death sentenceAns: (b)

36. Which of the following is covered under the original jurisdiction of the

Supreme Court?

(a) Dispute relating to civil matters

(b) Dispute relating to criminal cases involving murder

(c) Disputes between two States of the Indian Union

(d) Disputes between two citizens from two different StatesAns: (c)

37. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court can be removed

from their office by an order of the President passed after:

(a) an address by each House supported by the majority of the members present and voting has been presented to him

(b) a resolution of both Houses passed by a 2/3rd majority of total membership is presented to him

(c) a resolution passed by 2/3rd majority of total membership of Lok Sabha is presented to him





(d) an address by each House supported by a majority of total membership of that House and not less than 2/3rd of members present and voting has been presented to the PresidentAns: (d)

38. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from office only on grounds

of:

(a) gross inefficiency

(b) imbecile conduct

(c) proven misbehaviour or incapacity

(d) senilityAns: (c)


1. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India

2. Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer is considered as one of the progenitors of public interest litigation (PIL) in the Indian judicial system.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


40. When can the salaries of the judges of the Supreme Court be reduced

during their term of office?

(a) If the Parliament passes a bill to this effect

(b) During a Financial Emergency

(c) As and when the President desires

(d) NeverAns: (b)

41. The Supreme Court was set up under:





(a) Pitt’s India Act

(b) Regulating Act

(c) Indian Councils Act, 1861

(d) Indian Councils Act, 1892Ans: (b)

42. Which Judge of the Supreme Court was unsuccessfully sought to be

impeached?

(a) Justice H.R. Khanna

(b) Justice A.N. Grover

(c) Justice M. Hidayatullah

(d) Justice RamaswamiAns: (d)

43. If the Parliament passes a law which is against the Constitution, it can be

declared as unconstitutional by the:

(a) Supreme Court

(b) President

(c) Chief Justice of India

(d) A bench of High Court JudgesAns: (a)

44. A civil case becomes a fit case for appeal to the Supreme Court if:

(a) it involves a point of Constitutional law

(b) the High Court certifies that it involves a point of law and needs interpretation ofthe Constitution

(c) it involves a sum of money over RS. 10,000

(d) the case had come to the High Court under an appeal from a subordinate courtAns: (b)

45. The minimum number of judges to sit on the Constitutional Bench or on

Bench which gives its advisory opinion on the reference by the President must

be :

(a) one half of the total strength of the Supreme Court





(b) seven

(c) three

(d) one-third of the total strength of the courtAns: (a)

46. The Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed:

(a) by the President

(b) by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India

(c) by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and out of the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court as he may deem necessary for the purpose

(d) by the President in consultation with Prime MinisterAns: (c)

47. The rules for regulating the practice and procedure of Supreme Court

under Article 145 of the Constitution are made by the:

(a) President of India

(b) Supreme Court with the approval of the President of India

(c) Supreme Court alone

(d) Supreme Court in consultation with the Bar Council of IndiaAns: (b)

48. Consider the following:

1. Supreme Court’s power to issue writs is narrower than that of High Courts.

2. a citizen is free to approach High Court or Supreme Court as he chooses, whenever his Fundamental Rights are violated.

3. The law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts throughout India.

(a) 1 alone

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 3Ans: (c)





49. Which is not the correct statement? The Supreme Court:

(a) is a watch-dog of citizen’s liberty

(b) interprets the Constitution

(c) protects the Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) settles electoral disputes of the President and Vice-President of IndiaAns: (c)

50. The salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India:

(a) can never be reduced under any circumstances

(b) can be reduced during their term of office

(c) cannot be reduced during the term of their office except during a financial emergency

(d) are fixed by President of IndiaAns: (c)

51. The Constitution of India has ensured the independence of the judiciary

by:

(i) protecting salaries and service conditions of judges.

(ii) prohibiting the judges from carrying on practice in courts of law after retirement.

(iii) providing Single judiciary.

(iv) ensuring security of tenure of judges.

(a) ii, iii, iv

(b) i, ii, iv

(c) i, ii, iii, iv

(d) i, iiiAns: (b)

52. The Supreme Court is a court of record. This implies:

1. it can punish for its contempt.

2. its decisions are admitted as evidence and can riot be questioned in any court of law.





3. it has to keep a record of all the important cases that are conducted in India.

4. its decisions, once taken, are binding upon it.

(a) I, II and III

(b) I and II

(c) I, III and IV


53. The main sources of law in India are:

1. The Constitution

2. Statutes

3. Customary law

4. Judicial decisions of superior courts

(a) I and II

(b) I, II and IV

(c) II and IV


54. Judicial review in India does not extend to:

(a) the advice that the Council of Ministers gives to the President

(b) the discretionary powers of the Governors

(c) the privileges enjoyed by Parliament members

(d) Any of the aboveAns: (d)

55. Public interest litigation applies to any case of public injury arising from

(a) the breach of any public duty

(b) the violation of a constitutional provision

(c) the violation of the law





(d) All of the aboveAns: (d)

56. The Judges of the Supreme Court take an oath or affirmation before

entering upon office, conducted by:


(b) President or Vice-President

(c) President or some person appointed, by him


57. To whom does a Judge of the Supreme Court address his resignation if he

wants to leave office before his term is complete?


(b) Prime Minister

(c) President

(d) Union Law MinisterAns: (c)

58. The power of judicial review ensures:

(a) the supremacy of the Supreme Court

(b) that Supreme Court can review its own judgements

(c) the constitutionality of laws

(d) justice by the subordinate courtsAns: (c)

59. The right to seek an advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law

or fact belongs to:

(a) the President

(b) High Courts

(c) the Governor

(d) All of theseAns: (a)






Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

A. Original Jurisdiction

B. Appellate Jurisdiction

C. Advisory Jurisdiction Cases Covered

1. Advice on any question of law as may be referred to the Supreme Court for consideration by the President

2. Case involving interpretation of the Constitution

3. Appointment of officers and servants of the Supreme Court

4. Dispute between the Government of India and a State

A B C

(a) 1 2 3

(b) 4 3 2

(c) 4 2 1

(d) 2 1 3Ans: (c)

61. A High Court consists of a Chief Justice and:

(a) at least 5 other judges

(b) such other judges as specified in the Constitution

(c) such other judges as determined by Parliament

(d) such other judges as determined by the PresidentAns: (d)

62. Which of the following is not a power of the High Court?

(a) Supervision over all courts under its jurisdiction

(b) Jurisdiction over revenue matters

(c) Supervision over tribunals constituted by law relating to the armed forces

(d) Issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights or for any other purpose





Ans: (c)

63. The Constitution makes provisions to ensure the independence of judges.

Which one of the provisions given below is wrong in this context?

(a) Though appointed by the President their removal is by a difficult process

(b) Their salaries are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (or the State)

(c) A retired judge cannot be appointed to any office under the Government

(d) The conduct of a judge cannot be discussed in Parliament except upon a motion regarding his removalAns: (c)

64. The oath to a High Court Judge is administered by the:


(b) Chief Justice of that High Court

(c) Governor

(d) PresidentAns: (c)

65. When can the salaries of High Court judges be reduced?

(a) If Parliament decrees it by two-thirds majority

(b) During a Financial Emergency

(c) If the State Legislature passes a law to the effect

(d) At no timeAns: (b)

66. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the High Court are appointed by the:

(NDA 1994)

(a) President

(b) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

(c) Governor of the concerned state

(d) Chief Minister of the concerned StateAns: (a)





67. The Constitution gives the powers of superintendence over all subordinate

courts to the High Courts under Article:

(a) 226

(b) 227

(c) 228

(d) 229Ans: (b)

68. The High Courts in India were first started at:

(a) Bombay, Madras, Calcutta

(b) Delhi and Calcutta

(c) Bombay, Delhi, Madras

(d) Madras and BombayAns: (a)

69. The High Court enjoys the power:

I. to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

II. to exercise superintendence over the working of courts and tribunals under its jurisdiction.

III. to make general rules and prescribe forms regulating the practices and proceeding of courts under its jurisdiction.

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) I and III


70. Who decides the number of Judges in a High Court?

(a) State Government

(b) President


(d) Parliament





Ans: (b)

71. A common High Court for two or more States and/or Union Territory may

be established by: (Railways 1990)

(a) President

(b) Parliament by Law


(d) Chief Justice of IndiaAns: (b)

72. The salaries of the Judges of the High Courts are paid from the:

(a) Funds collected as fees for cases

(b) Consolidated Fund of the State

(c) Consolidated Fund of India

(d) State revenuesAns: (b)

73. The number of States under the jurisdiction of a High Court is decided on

the basis of:

(a) area and population to be served

(b) funds at the disposal

(c) intention of the government

(d) number of judges availableAns: (a)

74. Which of the following is not a qualification for a person to be the Chief

Justice of High Court?

(a) He should have been a Judge in any court of India for not less than 10 years

(b) He should be a distinguished jurist

(c) He should be a renowned writer in the field of law






75. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President in

consultation with:

I. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

II. Former Chief Justice of the High Court.

III. Other Judges of the High Court.

IV. Governor of the State concerned.

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) I and IV

(d) I, III and IVAns: (c)

76. The High Court which has the distinction of having the first woman Chief

Justice is

(a) Allahabad High Court

(b) Delhi High Court

(c) Himachal Pradesh High Court

(d) Guwahati High CourtAns: (c)

77. A retired Judge of High Court cannot:

(a) practice in the Supreme Court

(b) practice in any High Court of India

(c) practice in the High Court from where he has retired

(d) practice in any Court of IndiaAns: (c)

78. Judge of the High Court can be removed from the office during his tenure

by:

(a) the Governor, if the State passes resolution by 2/3rd majority

(b) the President, on the basis of resolution passed by the Parliament by 2/3rd majority





(c) the Chief Justice of Supreme Court on the recommendation of Parliament

(d) the Chief Justice of High Court on recommendation of State LegislatureAns: (b)

79. The power to extend or restrict the jurisdiction of the High Court rests

with:

(a) the President

(b) the Parliament

(c) the concerned State Legislature

(d) the GovernorAns: (b)

80. A Judge of a High Court wanting to resign addresses his letter of

resignation to:

(a) the President

(b) the Chief Justice of his High Court

(c) the Chief Justice of India

(d) the Governor of the StateAns: (a)

81. The Constitution places the High Courts under the control of the Union in

certain matters in order to keep them outside the range of regional politics.

The Union exercises its control in the matters of:

I. transfer of Judges from one High Court to another.

II. being able, to establish a common High Court for two or more States.

III. determining disputes as to age of High Court Judges.

(a) I only

(b) II and III

(c) I and II






82. Which of the following High Courts covers more than one State/Union

Territories?

(a) Delhi

(b) Allahabad

(c) Guwahati

(d) None of theseAns: (c)

83. Who was the Chief Justice of India when public interest litigation (PIL) was

introduced to the Indian Judicial System?(IAS 2006)

(a) M. Hidayatullah

(b) A.M. Ahmadi

(c) A.S. Anand

(d) P.N. BhagwatiAns: (d)

84. The only Union Territory which has a High Court of its own:

(a) Delhi

(b) Lakshadweep

(c) Chandigarh

(d) Daman and DiuAns: (a)

85. The Bombay High Court does not have a bench at which one of the

following places? (CDS 2008)

(a) Nagpur

(b) Panaji

(c) Pune

(d) AurangabadAns: (c)


Union Territory Jurisdiction (High Court)





A. Puducherry 1. Kerala

B. Andaman and Nicobar Islands 2. Mumbai

C. Lakshadweep 3. Chennai

D. Daman and Diu 4. Kolkata

5. GuwahatiA B C D

(a) 3 4 1 2

(b) 1 3 4 2

(c) 1 5 3 4

(d) 1 5 3 2Ans: (a)

87. The High Court having the jurisdiction in Judicial matters relating to’ the

largest number of States/Union Territories is:

(a) Kolkata High Court

(b) Kerala High Court

(c) Mumbai High Court

(d) Guwahati High CourtAns: (d)

88. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (NDA 2005)

(a) All the expenditure other than that which is charged on the Consolidated Fund ofIndia is to be submitted to the Lok Sabha in the form of demands for grants.

(b) No demand for a grant is made except on the recommendation of the President of India

(c) The Lok Sabha can refuse assent to any demand for grant

(d) The Lok Sabha can suggest an increase in the expenditureAns: (c)

89. Which one of the following statements is correct?(NDA 2005)

(a) The President of India is the custodian of the Constitution of India





(b) The Supreme Court of India can declare a law passed by any State/Union Legislature null and void if it encroaches upon the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India

(c) The number of Judges in a High Court is to be determined from time to time by the Governor of the State concerned

(d) The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the Governor of the State concerned on the recommendation of the Chief Justice of IndiaAns: (b)


1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.

2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed bythe concerned Chief Justice and the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS 2005)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


91. In India, the power to increase the number of Judges of the Supreme Court

lies with: (Asstt Comm 2008)


(b) The Chief Justice of India

(c) The Union Ministry of Law

(d) The Parliament of IndiaAns: (d)

92. Which one of the following jurisdictions of the Indian Judiciary covers

Public Interest Litigation? (CDS 2009)

(a) Original Jurisdiction

(b) Appellate Jurisdiction





(c) Epistolary Jurisdiction

(d) Advisory JurisdictionAns: (c)


The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact

1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).

2. if he seeks such an advice.

3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizensWhich of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS 2010)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 2Ans: (d)

94. Under which law it is prescribed that all proceedings in the Supreme Court

of India shall be in the English language?(CDS 2012)

(a) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966

(b) A Legislation made by the Parliament

(c) Article 145 of the Constitution of India

(d) Article 34B of the Constitution of IndiaAns: (d)

95. Which of the following is/are the part/parts of the procedure for the

impeachment of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?

1. A motion signed by at least 100 members of Lok Sabha or 50 members of Rajya Sabha is delivered to the Speaker or Chairman.

2. The motion is investigated by a Committee of three Jurists constituted by the Speaker or Chairman.

3. The Judge will be removed by the Speaker or Chairman if the Committee of three Jurists recommends.





Select the correct answer using the code given below: (Asstt Commdt 2011)

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 onlyAns: (b)

96. Which of the following statements with respect to the judiciary in India

is/are correct?

1. Unlike in the United States, India has not provided for a double system of courts.

2. Under the Constitution of India, there is a single integrated system of courts for the Union as well as the states.

3. The organisation of the subordinate judiciary varies slightly from state to state.Select the correct answer using the code given below: (CDS 2011)

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 3 onlyAns: (c)

97. Of the following statements, which one is not correct? (BPSC 2011)

(a) Supreme Court was constituted in 1950

(b) Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal in the country

(c) Supreme Court can hear from any High Court/Tribunals except from Court-martial

(d) Supreme Court can hear from any High Court/ Tribunals as well as from Court-martialAns: (d)

98. The pension of a High Court Judge is charged to the:

(a) Consolidated Fund of India

(b) Consolidated Fund of the State where he last served

(c) Consolidated Funds of the different States where he has served





(d) Contingency Fund of IndiaAns: (a)


2. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Sessions Judge.

3. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts

4. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years’ standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State.

5. When the Session judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High Court before it is carried out.Which of the statements given above are correct? (IAS 2004)

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Ans: (d)

100. Which of the following States/UTs are covered by the Mumbai High

Court?

2. Maharashtra

3. Goa

4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli

5. Daman and Diu

(a) I only

(b) I and II

(c) I, III and IV






101. How many have High Courts in India jurisdiction over more than one

State (Union Territories not included)? (IAS 2008)

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5Ans: (b)

102. Which one of the following pairs of High Courts and their seats is not

matched correctly?

(a) Karnataka – Bengaluru

(b) Madhya Pradesh – Bhopal

(c) Rajasthan – Jodhpur

(d) Kerala – ErnakulamAns: (b)

103. Which has High Court jurisdiction over the State of Arunachal Pradesh?

(Railways 1994)

(a) Guwahati

(b) Mumbai

(c) Kolkata

(d) ChandigarhAns: (a)

The State Executive

1. When a State Governor dies or resigns, who normally exercises his

functions until a new Governor is appointed? (Asstt Grade 1992)

(a) Secretary General of the Governor

(b) A person designated by State Cabinet

(c) Chief Justice of the High Court





(d) Advocate General of the StateAns: (c)

2. Chief Minister of a State is responsible to:

(a) Governor

(b) Legislative Assembly

(c) Prime Minister

(d) Rajya SabhaAns: (a)

3. Who is the longest serving Chief Minister in India?

(a) Bhajan Lal

(b) Hiteshwar Saikia

(c) Chimanbhai Patel

(d) Jyoti BasuAns: (d)

4. The salary and allowances of the Governor are charged to:

(a) Consolidated Fund of the State

(b) Consolidated Fund of India

(c) Contingency Fund of India

(d) ‘a’ and ‘b’ in equal proportionAns: (a)


(a) No court has power to compel the Governor to exercise or not to exercise any power or to perform or not to perform any duty

(b) The Governor cannot be prosecuted in a civil and criminal court for any act of omission or commission during the period he holds office

(c) Both above statements are correct

(d) statement (a) is correct while (b) is notAns: (d)

6. Which of the following statements is incorrect?





(a) The Governor can refuse to give his assent to a bill

(b) The Governor can reserve the bill for the assent of the President

(c) The Governor may refuse to invite a leader of the party in Vidhan Sabha who does not command the majority in the House

(d) The Governor may dismiss the Speaker of the Vidhan Sabha and the Chairman ofVidhan ParishadAns: (d)

7. Chief Ministers of all the States are ex-officio members of the:

(a) Finance Commission

(b) Planning Commission

(c) National Development Council

(d) Inter-State CouncilAns: (c)

8. The question of disqualification of a member of the State Legislature shall

be decided by:

(a) the Governor in consultation with the President

(b) the Governor in consultation with the Election Commission

(c) State Legislative Council

(d) State Legislative AssemblyAns: (b)

9. The Governor is appointed by the:

(a) Prime Minister

(b) President

(c) Chief Minister

(d) Chief JusticeAns: (b)

10. The maximum permissible period between two sessions of a State

Legislative Assembly is:

(a) a year

(b) six months





(c) three months

(d) indefiniteAns: (b)

11. Which of the following is/are among the discretionary powers of the

Governor?

I. Selecting a Chief Minister if no single party has clear majority in the State Assembly.

II. Dismissing a ministry at any time.

III. Reserving a Bill for the President.

(a) I and III

(b) I and II

(c) III only


12. The members of the Legislative Council are appointed through:

I. Direct elections

II. indirect elections

III. Nomination

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) I, II and III

(d) I and IIIAns: (c)

13. Ministers in a determined by:

(a) the Constitution

(b) Parliament

(c) State Legislature

(d) the Governor





Ans: (c)

14. The Chief Minister of a State:

I. is elected by the Legislative Assembly.

II. appoints the members of the Council of Ministers.

Ill. determines the strength of the Council of Ministers.

IV. determines the salaries of Council of Ministers.

(a) II, III and IV

(b) I, III and IV

(c) III only

(d) l and IIAns: (c)

15. The number of seats in Vidhan Sabha is:

(a) to be not more than five hundred and not less than 60

(b) to be not more than 500 and not less than 60 but an exception is recognised in the case of one State which has only 32 seats

(c) to be not more than.600 and not less than 500

(d) varies from Vidhan Sabha to Vidhan SabhaAns: (b)

16. The membership of a State Legislative Council:

(a) shall not be more than membership of the Assembly

(b) shall not be less than 40

(c) shall not be less than 2/3rd of total membership of Lok Sabha

(d) Both (a) and (b)Ans: (d)

17. The State of Jammu and Kashmir was accorded special status under:

(a) Article 356 of the Constitution

(b) Article 370 of the Constitution

(c) Articles 356 and 370 of the Constitution






18. The special status of Jammu and Kashmir implies the State has:

(a) a separate Defence Force

(b) a separate Constitution

(c) a separate Judiciary


19. The Governor of which State has been vested with special powers

regarding scheduled tribal areas?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Asom

(c) Maharashtra

(d) West BengalAns: (a)

20. Which of the following are true? (IFS 1990)

I. Only some States in India have Legislative Councils.

II. Some members of Legislative Councils are nominated.

III. Some members of Legislative Councils are directly elected by the people.

(a) I and II

(b) I and III

(c) II and III


21. The President can directly disallow a State Legislation:

(a) in case of any bill

(b) in case of money bills

(c) in case of bills reserved by the Governor for President’s assent





(d) Both (b) and (c) aboveAns: (c)

22. Who among the following is a legal advisor to the State Government as

provided by the Constitution?

(a) Public Prosecutor

(b) Solicitor General

(c) Advocate General

(d) Attorney GeneralAns: (c)

23. The Legislative Council in a State can be created or disbanded by the:

(Railways 1994)

(a) State Legislative Assembly alone

(b) Parliament alone

(c) Parliament on recommendation of the State Legislature

(d) President on recommendation of the GovernorAns: (c)

24. Who appoints the Governor of Jammu and Kashmir?

(a) Chief Minister of the State

(b) Chief Justice of the High Court

(c) President


25. If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly the candidate who is

declared elected loses his deposit, it means that:(IAS 1995)

(a) the polling was very poor

(b) the election was for a multi- member constituency

(c) the elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marginal

(d) a very large number of candidates contested the electionAns: (d)





26. Which of the following is not an essential qualification for appointment as

a Governor?

(a) He should be a citizen of India

(b) He should be a domicile of the State to which he is being appointed

(c) He must have completed the age of 35 years

(d) He must not be a member of either House of ParliamentAns: (b)

27. The first woman Governor of a State in free India was

(a) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu

(b) Mrs. Sucheta Kripalani

(c) Mrs Indira Gandhi

(d) Mrs. Vijaya Laxmi PanditAns: (a)

28. When the Governor receives a Bill passed by the State Legislative

Assembly, which of the following courses would be most appropriate for the

Governor as an agent of the Centre?

(a) give assent to the Bill

(b) refer the Bill to the President

(c) keep the Bill pending

(d) exercise veto over the BillAns: (b)

29. What is the maximum number of elected members in a State Assembly?

(UDC 1993)

(a) 250

(b) 300

(c) 600

(d) 500Ans: (d)





30. The members of the State Legislative Assembly are elected for what

period?

(a) 2 years

(b) 6 years

(c) 4 years

(d) 5 yearsAns: (d)

31. One feature distinguishing the Rajya Sabha from the Vidhan Parlshad is:

(a) power of impeachment

(b) nomination of members

(c) tenure of membership

(d) indirect electionAns: (d)

32. 1/12th of the members of the Vidhan Parishad are to be elected:

(a) from a graduate constituency

(b) amongst the graduate universities of the State

(c) from the graduates of any university in any State of India, who have been residing in the State and who have been graduate of at least three years standing


33. To be a member of a State Council of Ministers, a person:

(a) must belong to the Legislative Assembly

(b) must acquire membership of the State legislature within six months of such appointment if he is not one already

(c) cannot be less than 35 years old

(d) will have to be an expert in some field if he is not a member of the legislatureAns: (b)

34. A minister in a State is individually responsible to the:

(a) Legislature





(b) Governor

(c) Chief Minister


35. The Vidhan Sabha is:

(a) the permanent house’ of State Legislature

(b) indirectly elected

(c) subject to dissolution

(d) has little importance in the State GovernmentAns: (c)

36. The Legislative Council of a State:

I. is not subject to dissolution.

II. can be abolished by the State Legislative Assembly.

III. can be abolished by the President on the Governor’s recommendation.

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) I and II

(d) III onlyAns: (c)

37. What do you understand by the dual role of the Governor?

(a) Constitutional and real Executive

(b) Head of a State and head of government under certain circumstances

(c) Belonging to Central as well as State Executive

(d) Constitutional ruler and an agent of the CentreAns: (d)

38. The Contingency Fund of the State is operated by the:

(a) President

(b) Chief Minister





(c) Governor

(d) Council of MinistersAns: (c)

39. The States in India can borrow from the market:

(a) at their discretion

(b) only through the Centre

(c) only with the consent of the Centre

(d) under no circumstanceAns: (c)

40. If the Governor of a State is appointed administrator of an adjoining Union

Territory, he exercises his functions:

(a) on advice of his Council of Ministers

(b) independently of his Council of Ministers

(c) according to Parliament’s directions

(d) according to the directions of the State legislatureAns: (b)

41. Grants-in-aid given to States are meant:

(a) to show favour to backward States

(b) for use in centrally-sponsored schemes

(c) to cover gaps on revenue account so that States can undertake beneficial activities

(d) for funding the State planAns: (c)

42. Membership of the legislative Assembly can vary between 60 and 500, but

the exception to this rule is/are found in:

I. Puducherry

II. Mizoram

III. Goa





(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) II only


43. Money Bills can be introduced in the State legislature with the prior

consent of the:

(a) President

(b) Governor

(c) Speaker

(d) Chief MinisterAns: (b)

44. The Central Government can assign any function to the States:

(a) on the directive of the President

(b) on the recommendation of Parliament

(c) any time it wishes to do so

(d) with the consent of the State GovernmentAns: (d)

45. The State legislative Assembly participates in the election of:

1. President

2. Vice-President

3. Rajya Sabha members

4. Members of legislative Council of the State

(a) I, II and III

(b) I, III and IV

(c) I and III






46. While appointing a Governor, the President generally consults the Chief

Minister of the State. This is:

(a) constitutionally imperative

(b) a matter of convention

(c) because Parliament has legislated to the effect

(d) a duty of the PresidentAns: (b)

47. The Chairman of the legislative Council is:

(a) appointed by the Governor

(b) the Governor (ex-officio)

(c) elected by the members of the legislative Council from among themselves

(d) appointed by the Speaker of the AssemblyAns: (c)

48. The limitations on the authority of the State Legislature do not include:

(a) Parliament’s authority to make laws on subjects in the State List during an Emergency

(b) Parliament’s authority to make Laws on State subjects if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution as required by the Constitution

(c) the Governor’s discretionary power to dissolve the legislature

(d) the Governor’s power to reserve certain bills for the consideration of the PresidentAns: (c)

49. Consider the given statements and choose the correct response on them.

1. A person can be appointed as Governor of more than one State.

2. A Governor’s salary is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India in case of I.

3. In case of I, the Governor’s salary is shared by the concerned States.

4. In case of I, the Governor’s salary is paid by the State named by the President.

(a) I and II are correct

(b) I and IV are correct





(c) I and III are correct

(d) I is wrong; each State must have one GovernorAns: (c)

50. On which of the following matters can a Governor of a State exercise his

discretionary powers?

1. Selection of Chief Minister if no political party gets a clear-cut majority.

2. Dismissal of a Ministry if he is convinced that it has lost majority support.

3. Salaries and allowances of ministers.

4. Submission of report to President regarding failure of constitutional machinery in the State.

(a) I, II and III

(b) II, III and IV

(c) I, II and IV


51. Which of the following are true about Legislative Council of a State?

1. Its total number of members does not exceed two-thirds of total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State but is not less than 40.

2. One-third of its members are elected by the Legislative Assembly, one-third by local bodies, one-twelfth by teachers, one-twelfth by university graduates and one-sixth nominated by the Governor.

3. It cannot be dissolved.

4. One-third of its members retire every year.

(a) I, II and III

(b) II and III

(c) II, III and IV






52. Consider the following statements: The Constitution of India provides

that:

1. the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State.

2. a person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he/she is less than 25 years of age.


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1and 2


53. There is no reservation for the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative

Assemblies of:

(a) Punjab, Gujarat and Himachal Pradesh

(b) Punjab, Asom and Nagaland

(c) Nagaland, Meghalaya and Orissa

(d) Asom, Nagaland and MeghalayaAns: (a)

54. Who acts as the Chancellor of State Universities?

(a) Governor

(b) Chief Minister

(c) Chief Justice of High Court

(d) PresidentAns: (a)

55. Which of these States has the Bicameral Legislature?

1. Bihar

2. Gujarat

3. Karnataka





4. Jammu & Kashmir

5. Maharashtra

6. U.P.

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

(b) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6

(d) All of theseAns: (b)

56. Which of these States previously had Legislative Councils?

1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Gujarat

3. Kerala

4. Manipur

5. West Bengal

6. Tamil Nadu

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 3 and 5

(c) 5 and 6

(d) only 6Ans: (d)

57. With respect to Article 371A of the Constitution of India, the Governor of

which one of the following States has special responsibility with respect to

law and order of the State? (CDS 2008)

(a) Asom

(b) Manipur

(c) Nagaland

(d) Andhra PradeshAns: (c)






1. In India, only the President, but not the Governors of the States, has the power to pardon, commute or suspend the sentence of any person convicted of any offence.

2. In India, though the Governor of a State is its constitutional head during normal times, he acts as the agent of the Centre during periods of Emergency in the State.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (NDA 2005)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2



Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India the Governor

of a state may

1. withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature.

2. reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for consideration of the President.

3. return the Bill, other than a money Bill for reconsideration-of the legislature.


(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3Ans: (d)

60. Regarding the enactment of an ordinary law, the State Legislative Council:

(a) has to agree to the Bill

(b) may delay it for a maximum period of four months

(c) may disagree to its provisions, in which case a joint sitting is called

(d) has nothing to doAns: (b)





61. A: The position of the legislative Council is inferior to that of the

legislative Assembly.

R1: The very existence of the Council depends on the will of the Assembly.

R2: A Bill originating in the Council can be forthwith put to an end by the Assembly rejecting it.

R3: One-sixth of the Council’s members are nominated by the Governor.

(a) A and R1, R2 and R3 are correct and R1, R2 and R3 explain A

(b) A, R1 and R3 are correct and R1 and R3 explain A

(c) A, R1, R2and R3are correct but only R1 and R2 explain A

(d) A and R2 are wrong; R1 and R3 are correctAns: (c)

62. The Governor does not appoint:

(a) Judges of the High Court

(b) Chief Minister

(c) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission

(d) Advocate General of the StateAns: (a)

63. Point out the powers enjoyed by the President of India but not available to

the Governor.

1. Diplomatic Powers.

2. Pardoning death sentence.

3. Veto power over State legislature.

4. Military powers.

(a) I and IV

(b) II and III

(c) I, II and III






64. The ordinances issued by the Governor are subject to approval by:

(a) Parliament

(b) State legislature

(c) President

(d) No oneAns: (b)

65. Grants-in-aid are provided every year to such States as are in need of

assistance as determined by the:

(a) President

(b) Parliament



Indian Federalism and Centre-State Relations

1. Which of the following is in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India?

(IAS 1993)

(a) Population control and family planning

(b) Public health and sanitation

(c) Capitation taxes


2. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by the

42nd amendment of the Constitution?(Teachers’ Exam 1993)

(a) Agriculture

(b) Education

(c) Irrigation

(d) Local Self GovernmentAns: (b)





3. Lotteries organised by the government of a State come under: (IFS 1993)

(a) Union List

(b) State List

(c) Concurrent List

(d) no list mentioned in the Seventh ScheduleAns: (b)

4. In India both direct and indirect taxes are levied by the Central and State

Government. Which of the following is levied by the State Governments?

(Railway Apprentices’ Exam 1993)

(a) Excise Duty on liquor

(b) Capital gains Tax

(c) Customs Duty

(d) Corporation TaxAns: (a)

5. The largest contribution to the total combined annual tax revenue of the

Centre States and Union Territories in India is made by : (SBI PO 1990)

(a) Sales tax

(b) Income and Corporation Tax

(c) Custom duties

(d) Union Excise dutiesAns: (d)

6. Corporation Tax: (IAS 1995)

(a) is levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States

(b) is levied by the Union and belongs to it exclusively

(c) is levied and appropriated by the States

(d) is levied by the Union and shared by the Union and the StatesAns: (b)

7. Agricultural Income Tax is assigned to the State Governments by: (IAS

1995)





(a) the Constitution of India

(b) the National Development Council

(c) the Finance Commission

(d) the Inter-State CouncilAns: (a)

8. The authority empowered to make laws in respect of matters not

enumerated in any of three lists is/are:

(a) State Legislatures

(b) Union Parliament

(c) Union Parliament and State Legislatures

(d) The Advocate General of the StatesAns: (b)

9. Both Union and State Legislature can legislate on :

(a) criminal law and procedure

(b) marriage, contracts and torts

(c) economic and social planning


10. The Central Government’s exclusive powers are enumerated in the:

(a) Concurrent List

(b) State List

(c) Union List

(d) Federal ListAns: (c)

11. Under the Constitution, the residuary powers vest with the: (Delhi Police

1994)

(a) President

(b) Supreme Court

(c) Union Government





(d) State GovernmentsAns: (c)

12. The executive power relating to concurrent subjects remain with:

(a) the States

(b) the Centre

(c) the Constitution

(d) the PresidentAns: (b)

13. The Union list contains:

(a) 47 subjects

(b) 97 subjects

(c) 63 subjects

(d) 92 subjectsAns: (b)

14. The State List contains:

(a) 97 subjects

(b) 69 subjects

(c) 66 subjects

(d) 103 subjectsAns: (c)

15. The Concurrent List contains:

(a) 47 subjects

(b) 68 subjects

(c) 42 subjects

(d) 38 subjectsAns: (a)

16. Which Articles of Indian Constitution discuss the financial relations

between the Centre and the States?





(a) Articles 268 to 281

(b) Articles 278 to 291

(c) Articles 289 to 295

(d) Articles 168 to 171Ans: (a)

17. A change in distribution of powers between the Centre and the States can

be done by:

(a) the Central Government

(b) the federating units by themselves

(c) amending the Constitution


18. The distribution of power between Centre and the States is based on the

scheme provided in :

(a) Minto-Morley Reforms, 1909

(b) Montague-Chelmsford Act, 1919


(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947Ans: (c)

19. Union Parliament has the power to legislate on the subjects of all three

lists in respect of:

(a) Scheduled areas

(b) Hill areas

(c) Backward areas

(d) Union TerritoriesAns: (d)

20. When can a State law on a subject in the Concurrent List get precedence

over a Central law on the same subject :

(a) in no circumstance





(b) if it was made before the Central law

(c) if it had got the President’s assent before the enactment of the Central law

(d) if it had got the President’s consent before being introduced as a Bill in the StateLegislatureAns: (c)

21. The provisions regarding division of taxes between Union and the States:

(a) can be suspended during National Emergency

(b) can be suspended during Financial Emergency

(c) can be suspended only with the consent of the majority of State legislatures

(d) cannot be suspended under’ any circumstancesAns: (c)

22. What can the President do if the States fail to comply with the directives

of Central Government:

(a) He can dissolve State Legislature and order fresh elections

(b) He can send reserve police to the State to secure compliance

(c) He can declare the breakdown of constitutional machinery in the State and assume responsibility for the governance of the State

(d) Any of the aboveAns: (c)

23. In the case of a conflict between the Centre and a State in respect of a

subject included in the Concurrent List:

(a) the State Law prevails

(b) the Union Law prevails

(c) the matter is resolved by the Supreme Court

(d) the law which had been passed first would prevailAns: (b)

24. The idea of incorporation of the Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution

has been borrowed from the Constitution of:

(a) Ireland

(b) Britain





(c) Australia

(d) CanadaAns: (c)

25. In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed

as ‘municipal relations’ ? (IAS 1994)

(a) Centre’s control of the State in the legislative sphere

(b) Centre’s control of the State in financial matters

(c) Centre’s control of the State in administrative sector

(d) Centre’s control of the State in planning processAns: (d)

26. Which of the following is/are extra constitutional and extra-legal device

(s)for securing co-operation and co-ordination between the States in India?

(IAS 1995)

1. The National Development Council.

2. The Governor’s Conference.

3. Zonal Councils.

4. The Inter-State Council

(a) I and II

(b) I, III and IV

(c) III and IV

(d) Only IVAns: (b)

27. Jammu and Kashmir has a Constitution framed by:

(a) the Constituent Assembly which framed India’s Constitution

(b) a Constituent Assembly set up by Parliament

(c) a Constituent Assembly set up by the State

(d) its State LegislatureAns: (c)





28. The residuary powers of legislation in case of Jammu and Kashmir belong

to:

(a) Parliament

(b) the State Legislature

(c) Governor

(d) Both (a) and (b)Ans: (b)

29. An amendment of the Constitution of India can extend to Jammu and

Kashmir:

(a) automatically

(b) only if ratified by State Legislature

(c) by an order of the President under Article 370

(d) under no circumstanceAns: (c)

30. A proclamation of Emergency by the President:

(a) cannot apply to Jammu and Kashmir

(b) shall have effect in Jammu and Kashmir only on the concurrence of the State Legislature

(c) shall apply to Jammu and Kashmir only on endorsement by its Governor

(d) has to be separately issued for Jammu and KashmirAns: (b)

31. When can Parliament legislate on a subject in the State List?

1. If Lok Sabha passes a ‘resolution by two-thirds majority that it is in national interest to do so.

2. When the legislatures of two or more States request Parliament to legislate on a State subject.

3. Under a proclamation of Emergency.

(a) I and III

(b) II and III





(c) I, II and III

(d) I and IIAns: (b)

32. The Central Government can issue directions to the States with regard to

the:

1. Union List

2. State List

3. Concurrent List

(a) I only

(b) I and III

(c) II and III


33. The Union Territories are administered by the:

(a) Parliament

(b) Union Council of Ministers

(c) President, through administrators appointed by him



A. Passport 1. Union List

B. Electricity 2. State List

C. Animal Husbandry 3. Concurrent List

D. Family Planning

A B C D

(a) 1 3 2 3

(b) 2 3 1 2





(c) 2 3 1 3

(d) 1 2 3 3Ans: (a)

35. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following

pairs is not correctly matched? (IAS 2004)

(a) Forests: Concurrent List

(b) Stock Exchanges: Concurrent List

(c) Post Office Savings Bank: Union List

(d) Public Health: State ListAns: (b)

36. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

1. Stamp duties and duties on medical and toilet preparations-levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States.

2. Duties on succession to property other ” than agricultural land-levied and’ collected by the Union but assigned to the States.

3. Taxes on income other than corporation tax and tax on agricultural income-levied.collected and appropriated by the Union.

4. Receipts from Broadcasting-non- tax revenue of the Union.

(a) I and III

(b) I, II and III

(c) III and IV


37. Which of the following matters are not included in the Union List?

I. Defence

II. Prisons

III. Liquor policy

IV. Ports

V. Irrigation





(a) III and IV

(b) III, IV and V

(c) II, III, IV and V

(d) II, III and VAns: (d)


A. Union List 1. Banking

B. State List 2. Public order and police

C. Concurrent List 3. Labour WelfareA B C

(a) 2 1 3

(b) 1 2 3

(c) 1 3 2

(d) 3 2 1Ans: (b)

39. The State can legislate on subjects in the:

1. State List

2. Union List

3. Concurrent List

4. Residuary List

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 3Ans: (d)

40. Which of the following is not in the State List under the Constitution of

India?

(a) Fisheries





(b) Agriculture

(c) Insurance

(d) GamblingAns: (c)

41. Railways is a subject on the: (Teachers’ Exam 1994)

(a) Concurrent List

(b) Union List

(c) State List

(d) Residual ListAns: (b)

42. Match the following: (CDS 1993)

A. Taxes on income other than agricultural income 1. State list

B. Estate duty in respect of agricultural land 2. Residuary power

C. Inter-planetary outer space travel 3. Concurrent List

D. Acquisition and requisitioning of property 4. Union ListA B C D

(a) 4 3 2 1

(b) 4 1 2 3

(c) 2 3 1 4

(d) 3 2 4 1Ans: (b)

43. Which of the following is regarded as an essential function of the State ?

(Central Excise 1994)

(a) To run schools for education

(b) To provide defence against external attacks

(c) To prevent diseases

(d) To maintain good roadsAns: (b)





44. Which of the following taxes is exclusively and totally assigned to the

Central Government by the Constitution (CDS 1992)

(a) Estate Duty

(b) Sales Tax

(c) Corporation Tax

(d) Taxes on Railway fares and freightAns: (d)

45. Which of the following is not included in the State List in the Constitution

of India?

(a) Police

(b) Prison

(c) Law and Order

(d) Criminal Procedure CodeAns: (d)

46. Which of the following items comes under the Concurrent List?

(a) Inter-State rivers

(b) Trade Unions

(c) Citizenship

(d) Local GovernmentAns: (b)

47. Match the following

Year of Creation States

A. 1960 1. Sikkim

B. 1962 2. Goa

C. 1975 3. Maharashtra

D. 1987 4. NagalandA B C D

(a) 2 4 3 1

(b) 3 4 1 2





(c) 4 3 2 1

(d) 3 4 2 1Ans: (b)

48. The first State to become bifurcated after independence was:

(a) Madras

(b) Bombay

(c) Punjab

(d) AssamAns: (a)

49. When was the Madras State renamed Tamil Nadu?

(a) 1969

(b) 1970

(c) 1968

(d) 1971Ans: (a)

50. Which of the following did India acquire from France?

(a) Yanam

(b) Mahe

(c) Karaikal

(d) All of theseAns: (d)

51. Which one of the following is not administered by a Lieutenant Governor?

(a) Delhi

(b) Puducherry

(c) Chandigarh

(d) Andaman and NicobarAns: (c)

52. The old name of which State/Union Territory is wrongly given?





(a) Karnataka – Mysore

(b) Tamil Nadu – Madras

(c) Lakshadweep – Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindiv Islands

(d) Meghalaya – Eastern Hill ProvinceAns: (d)

53. Which of the following States and the year of their creation is incorrectly

matched?

(a) Andhra Pradesh : 1956

(b) Maharashtra : 1960

(c) Arunachal Pradesh : 1987

(d) Goa : 1987Ans: (a)

54. Put in the correct order of their creation:

1. Assam

2. Nagaland

3. Goa

4. Mizoram

(a) I, II, III, IV

(b) II, I, IV, III

(c) I, II, IV, III

(d) I, IV, II, IIIAns: (c)

55. The Sarkaria Commission dealing with the Centre-State .relationship has

not laid down which of the following regarding the appointment of Governors?

(a) A politician from the ruling party at the Centre should not be appointed to a State run by some other party

(b) The person should not be too closely connected with the politics of the State where he is to be posted

(c) He should have travelled extensively in and out of India





(d) He should be eminent in some walk of lifeAns: (c)

56. English is the official language of which of the following States? (Railways

1995; MBA 1994)

(a) Manipur

(b) Nagaland

(c) Karnataka

(d) Andhra PradeshAns: (b)

57. Which one of the following was an associate State of India before

becoming a full-fledged State? (CDS 1992)

(a) Meghalaya

(b) Mizoram

(c) Sikkim

(d) ManipurAns: (c)


A. Arunachal Pradesh 1. 22nd State

B. Goa 2. 23rd State

C. Mizoram 3. 24th State

D. Sikkim 4. 25th State

A B C D

(a) 1 3 4 2

(b) 3 4 2 1

(c) 2 1 4 3

(d) 4 3 1 2Ans: (b)





59. Which of the following features is/are contrary to the norms of a federal

polity?

1. Common All India Service

2. Single integrated judiciary


(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


60. A special category State invariably (CDS 2011)

(a) is a border State

(b) has harsh terrain

(c) has low literacy rate

(d) has poor infrastructureAns: (d)

61. The vesting of ‘residuary’ powers in the central government by the

Constitution of India indicates (Asstt Commdt 2010)

(a) that India is a federal polity

(b) that India is neither federal nor unitary

(c) that India is quasi federal

(d) unitary character of Indian polityAns: (c)

62. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the

Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament? (IAS 2010)


(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha

(c) The Prime Minister of India





(d) The Union Finance MinisterAns: (a)

63. In the Constitution of India, the word ‘Federal’ is used in (Asstt Commdt

2011)

(a) the Preamble

(b) Part III

(c) Article 368

(d) NowhereAns: (d)

64. Which of the following statements with regard to the Federal System’

is/are correct?

1. In a federation, two sets of governments co-exist and there is distribution of power.

2. There is a written constitution.Select the correct answer using the code given below: (NDA 2011)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


65. Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched? (NDA

2011)

(a) Union List : Banking

(b) State List : Agriculture

(c) Concurrent List : Marriage

(d) Residuary List : EducationAns: (d)

66. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India gave

verdicts which have a direct bearing on the Centre-State relations? (CDS

2011)





(a) Keshavananda Bharati case

(b) Vishakha case

(c) S. R. Bommai case

(d) Indira Sawhney caseAns: (c)

67. Which one among the following pairs of level of government and

legislative power is not correctly matched? (CDS 2011)

(a) Central government : Union List

(b) Local governments : Residuary powers

(c) State governments : State List

(d) Central and State governments : Concurrent ListAns: (b)

68. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following

statements is correct? (CSAT 2011)

(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development

(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings

(c) It ensures transparency in financial administration

(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this contextAns: (d)

69. Which of the following Union Territories attained statehood in February

1987 ?

(a) Goa

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Pondicherry

(d) Daman and DiuAns: (a)

70. The State of Bombay was bifurcated into Maharashtra and Gujarat on May

1, in the year:

(a) 1958





(b) 1959

(c) 1962

(d) 1960Ans: (d)

71. What was the status of Sikkim at the commencement of the Constitution?

(a) A part B State

(b) An independent State

(c) An independent kingdom attached to India by a special treaty

(d) A part C StateAns: (c)

72. When did the first linguistic State of Andhra come into existence?

(a) October 2, 1953

(b) October 1, 1953

(c) April 1, 1953

(d) January 5, 1953Ans: (b)

73. For those Union Territories, which have no Legislative Councils of their

own, laws are passed by:

(a) Union Ministry

(b) President, through the appointed Administrator

(c) Parliament

(d) Appointed AdministratorAns: (b)

74. Which of the following does not give correctly the name of the original

State out of whose territory the new State was created?

(a) Andhra Pradesh from the State of Madras

(b) Arunachal Pradesh from Assam

(c) Meghalaya from Assam

(d) Goa from Maharashtra





Ans: (d)

75. The States Reorganisation Act created ______ States and _______ Union

Territories.

(a) 14;7

(b) 14;6

(c) 15;7

(d) 15;6Ans: (b)

76. Which of the following were Union Territories before becoming States?

1. Himachal Pradesh

2. Manipur

3. Sikkim

4. Tripura

(a) I, II and IV

(b) I and II

(c) II and III

(d) I and IIIAns: (a)

Public Service Commissions, Attorney General, CAG, Election Commission

1. The first general elections in India were held in:

(a) 1949

(b) 1950

(c) 1951

(d) 1947Ans: (c)





2. The Congress lost its monopoly of power in the States for the first time

after the elections of:

(a) 1967

(b) 1971

(c) 1977

(d) 1955Ans: (a)

3. The State Election Commission can be removed from office:

(a) only by the Governor

(b) in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court

(c) only by the President on the advice of the Chief Justice of the concerned State

(d) in the same manner as the Vice-President of IndiaAns: (b)

4. Electioneering has to stop in a constituency:

(a) one day before the election

(b) 48 hours before election starts

(c) 36 hours before a poll commences

(d) 48 hours before the closing hour of pollingAns: (d)

5. Who is responsible for the registration of voters?

(a) Government

(b) Voters

(c) Political parties

(d) Election CommissionAns: (d)

6. Who can cast their votes by postal ballot?

1. Members of the Armed Forces.

2. Officials on election duty.





3. Foreign Service personal when posted abroad.

(a) I and III

(b) II and III

(c) III only


7. A political party is recognised by the Election Commission only if:

1. it has been engaged in political activity for a continuous period of five years.

2. has returned at least one member of the Lok Sabha for every 2 members of that House or any fraction of that number elected from that State.

3. has polled not less than six percent of the total number of valid votes polled by all contesting candidates at the general elections.

4. has contested election in four or more States in three consecutive general elections.

(a) I and II

(b) I, III and IV

(c) I, II and III


8. What is the correct sequence of steps in electoral procedure?

1. Filing of nominations.

2. Presidential notification.

3. Scrutiny of nomination papers.

4. Withdrawal of candidature.

5. Allotment of symbols.

(a) I, III, IV, V, II

(b) II, I, IV, V, III





(c) I, III, V, IV, II

(d) II, I, III, IV, VAns: (d)

9. Recognition to a political party is accorded by (CDS 1992)

(a) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha in the case of national parties and the Speaker of Legislative Assemblies in the case of regional parties

(b) the Election Commission

(c) the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

(d) a Committee of WhipsAns: (b)

10. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (CDS 2004)

(a) The Election Commissioner scan not be removed from their office except on recommendations by the Chief Election Commissioner

(b) In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners, the matter is decided by the Law Commission

(c) The Chief Election Commissioner and’ other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers

(d) The term of office of an Election Commissioner is six years from the date he assumes office or till the day he attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlierAns: (b)

11. With reference to India, consider the following electoral systems: (CDS

2004)

1. System of direct election on the basis of adult suffrage.

2. System of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.

3. List system of proportional representation.

4. Cumulative system of indirect representation.Which of these have been adopted for various elections in India?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4





Ans: (a)

12. State funding of elections takes place in (IAS 1997)

(a) USA and Canada

(b) Britain and Switzerland

(c) France and Italy

(d) Germany and AustriaAns: (d)

13. Consider the following tasks: [IAS 2004]

1) Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections.

2) Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State-Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President.

3) Giving recognition to political parties, allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election.

4) Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes. Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 4Ans: (a)

14. The conditions of service and tenure of the Election Commissioner is

prescribed by:

(a) the Constitution

(b) Parliament

(c) the President

(d) GovernmentAns: (b)

15. Who has the power to decide an election petition?





I. District Court

II. Supreme Court

III. High Courts

IV. Tribunals

(a) I, II and III

(b) IV only

(c) II and IV

(d) II and IIIAns: (d)

16. A person is eligible to vote in the general elections if he or she:

1. is a citizen of India.

2. is not less than 21 years of age.

3. does not hold any office of profit under the Government.

4. is not disqualified on grounds of unsound mind.

(a) I, II and III

(b) I and IV

(c) I and II

(d) I, II and IVAns: (b)

17. The Area of Lok Sabha Constituency for the purpose of general election is

determined by the :

(a) Delimitation Commission

(b) Election Commission

(c) Census Commission







(a) The Election Commission consists of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners as President may fix

(b) The Election Commission conducts the elections to the Parliament, the State Legislatures, the offices of the President and Vice-President and all local bodies

(c) The Chief Election Commissioner is the Chairman of the Election Commission

(d) The conditions of service of the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be varied to his disadvantageAns: (b)

19. The declaration which outlines the future programme and policy of a

political party issued on the eve of a general election is called:

(a) white paper

(b) manifesto

(c) yellow paper

(d) mandateAns: (b)

20. The jurisdiction of the Finance Commission does not extend to:

(a) recommendation of the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes

(b) recommendation of the allocation to the States of the respective shares of such tax proceeds

(c) recommendation of the allocation of funds among the various heads of expenditure in the Union and State budgets

(d) recommendation of the principles which govern the Grants-in-aid of the revenue of the States out of the . Consolidated Fund of IndiaAns: (c)

21. The first Law Officer of the Government of India is:


(b) Law Minister

(c) Attorney General

(d) Auditor GeneralAns: (c)





22. Who is the highest Law Officer of a State?

(a) Attorney General

(b) Advocate General

(c) Solicitor General

(d) Secretary General Law DepartmentAns: (b)

23. Which of the following is not true regarding the Attorney General of India?

(a) He represents Government in any reference made by the President under Article 143

(b) His consent is necessary for initiating proceedings for contempt in certain cases

(c) His consent is necessary for finalization of appointment of Judges to State High Courts

(d) He appears in courts of law on behalf of the Houses of Parliament or the SpeakerAns: (c)

24. In the discharge of his functions, the Attorney General is assisted by:

(a) a Solicitor General

(b) two Solicitors-General and four Additional Solicitors-General

(c) a Solicitor General and two Additional Solicitors General


25. The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in :

(a) any High Court

(b) Supreme Court

(c) any Sessions Court

(d) any Court of law within the territory of IndiaAns: (d)

26. Which of the following are true regarding the Attorney General of India?

1. He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India.

2. He has the right of audience in all Courts in India.





3. He has the right to speak and vote in the Houses of Parliament or any Parliamentary Committee.

4. He must have the same qualifications as are required to be a judge of the High Court.

(a) I and II

(b) I, II and III

(c) II, III and IV

(d) I, II, III and IVAns: (a)

27. The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of the:

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Parliament

(d) Chief JusticeAns: (a)

28. Which of the following is/are correct with regard to the office of Attorney

General of India?

1. He is a member of the Cabinet.

2. He can speak in either House of Parliament and vote on any issue.

3. He must be qualified to become a Judge of the Supreme Court.

4. His remuneration is fixed by Parliament.

(a) II and IV

(b) I, II and IV

(c) III only

(d) III and IVAns: (c)

29. The functions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India include

auditing and reporting on the receipts and expenditure of:





(a) Union Government only

(b) State Government only

(c) Union and State Governments

(d) Union and State Governments and companies substantially financed by bothAns: (c)

30. Term of Comptroller and Auditor General of India is: (CRPF1990)

(a) 6 years

(b) 65 years of age

(c) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier


31. State which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Comptroller and Auditor General controls all disbursements and audits the accounts of both the Union and the State Governments

(b) He annually submits a report to the President relating to the accounts of Union

(c) The annual report of the Comptroller and Auditor General is considered by PublicAccounts Committee of Parliament

(d) No money by the Union and State Governments can be spent without prior approval of the Comptroller and Auditor GeneralAns: (d)

32. Which of the following are true regarding the Comptroller and Auditor

General of India?

1. The office of the CAG has been created by the Constitution.

2. He holds office for a term of five years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier.

3. He can be removed from office only by impeachment.

4. He has to audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India and of each State and Union Territory having a Legislative Assembly and see whether expenditure has been in accordance with the law.






(b) I, III and IV

(c) II and III

(d) III and IVAns: (b)

33. The Comptroller and Auditor General can be removed from office:

(a) in the same way as the President can be removed

(b) in the same manner as that prescribed for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge

(c) by the President on a report by the Supreme Court

(d) in none of the above waysAns: (b)

34. In case of which of the following, the method of removal from office is the

same?

1. Judge of the Supreme Court.

2. Chief Election Commissioner.

3. President of India.

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) I and III



A. Ex-Officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha 1. Speaker

B. Presiding officer of the House of the People 2. Solicitor General

C. First law officer of the State 3. Vice-President

D. Representative of Government of India in important legal cases 4. Advocate General

A B C D

(a) 3 1 4 2





(b) 2 1 4 3

(c) 1 3 4 2

(d) 4 1 3 2Ans: (a)

36. Which of the following political parties came into being before

independence?

1. Communist Party of India (Marxist)

2. Communist Party of India

3. Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam

4. Bharatiya Janata Party

(a) I and II

(b) II only

(c) I, II and III


37. Zonal Council are provided:

(a) by the Constitution

(b) by Parliamentary Act

(c) under the 42nd Amendment Act

(d) by Presidential ordinanceAns: (b)

38. The Ex-officio Chairman of a Zonal Council is:

(a) one of the Union Ministers

(b) the Governor of the State where the Zonal Council meets

(c) the Chief Minister of the State where the Council meets

(d) elected by the member-State Chief ministerAns: (c)

39. The main purpose of Zonal Councils is to:





(a) settle disputes between States in a Zone

(b) advise on matters of common interest to States in a Zone

(c) ensure that laws passed by various States do not conflict with each other

(d) devise best ways of utilising available resources of StatesAns: (b)

40. An Inter-State Council was set up in 1990 under Article 263 of the

Constitution by the:

(a) President

(b) Parliament

(c) Government

(d) Planning CommissionAns: (a)

41. The duties envisaged by the Constitution for the Inter-State Council are to

:

1. inquire into and advise on disputes between States

2. investigate matters of common interest for two or more States

3. make recommendation for coordination of policy and action relating to any subject

4. enforce provisions relating to the freedom of trade and commerce

(a) I, II and IV

(b) I, II and III

(c) II and IV


42. The members of the Inter-State Council are:

1. Six cabinet ministers nominated to it

2. Chief Ministers of all States

3. Secretaries of Union Ministries

4. Governors of all States





(a) I and II

(b) I, II and III

(c) II only

(d) II and IVAns: (a)

43. The Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers and Council of

Ministers are all members of :

(a) Planning Commission

(b) National Development Council

(c) Zonal Council

(d) Regional CouncilAns: (b)

44. National Development Council is :

(a) political body

(b) non-political body

(c) statutory body


45. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who

amongst the following can be its Chairman? (IAS 2004)

(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court

(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court

(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India

(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High CourtAns: (c)

46. Which of the following is not true about the Lok Pal Bill ?

(a) The Lok Pal is institutionalised set-up to put curbs on erring Ministers

(b) Once appointed, the Lok Pal can hold office for a maximum period of five years





(c) Complaints to the Lok Pal can be made by any citizen other than a public servant

(d) The Lok Pal is appointed by the Chief Justice of Supreme CourtAns: (d)

47. Who among the following cannot be removed from office except in the

manner prescribed in the Constitution of India? (NDA 2005)

(a) The Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission

(b) The Governor of a State

(c) The Chief Election Commissioner

(d) The Chairman, Finance CommissionAns: (c)


1. The Attorney General of India can be a member of any Parliamentary Committee.

2. The Attorney General of India can take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament.

3. To be appointed as the Attorney General of India, a person must be qualified to beappointed as a judge of the Supreme Court of India.Which of the statements given above are correct?(NDA 2005)

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3Ans: (d)

49. Consider the following statements with respect to Attorney General of

India:

1. He is appointed by the President.

2. He must have the same qualifications as are required by a Judge of High Court.

3. In the performance of his duties he shall have the right of audience in all courts ofIndia.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CDS 2009)

(a) 1 only





(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3Ans: (d)


1. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are appointed by the President.

2. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are eligible for further employment under the Government.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CDS 2008)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


51. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of (CDS

2011)

(a) six years

(b) during the pleasure of the President

(c) for six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier

(d) for five years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlierAns: (c)

52. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of

the election process in India? (IAS 1995)

(a) The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission

(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States

(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned





(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election CommissionAns: (a)


(a) A person seeking election to the Rajya Sabha must have completed the age of 30 years

(b) A person seeking election to the Lok Sabha must have completed the age of 25 years

(c) A person seeking election to a State Legislative Assembly must have completed the age of 21 years

(d) A person eligible to vote for elections to a village panchayat must have completed the age of 18 yearsAns: (c)

54. Graduates constitute a separate constituency for the election of specified

number of members to the: (Railway Apprentices 1993)

(a) Nyaya Panchayat

(b) State Legislative Council

(c) Rajya Sabha

(d) State Legislative AssemblyAns: (b)

55. The Chief Election Commissioner, according to a recent judgement of the

Supreme Court is : (CDS 1994)

(a) the final authority in matters to be decided by the Election Commission

(b) to share his authority with members of the Election Commission

(c) to go by majority opinion prevailing among the .members of the Election Commission

(d) not bound by the Representation of the People Act which is amendable by ParliamentAns: (b)

56. Election of Rajya Sabha is held after: (RRB 1991)

(a) 1 year





(b) 2 years

(c) 6 years

(d) 5 yearsAns: (b)

57. Who is a Returning Officer? (Teachers’ Exam 1993)

(a) An officer who returns the unaccepted applications for allotment of land

(b) An officer who is sent back to his parent department

(c) An officer who is head of the State Assembly Secretariat

(d) An officer who is responsible for conduct of election in a constituency and declares resultsAns: (d)

58. Which of the following is not true about the electoral functions of the

Parliament? (SBI PO 1991)

(a) It helps the Prime Minister in forming the Central Cabinet

(b) It participates in the election of the President

(c) The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are elected by the Members of the Parliament

(d) Members of the Parliament vote for the election of the Vice-PresidentAns: (a)

59. The powers of the Election Commission are given in which of the following

Articles of the Constitution?

(a) 286

(b) 356

(c) 324

(d) 382Ans: (c)

60. Which of the following does not come under the purview of the Election

Commission?

(a) To conduct the election of PM of India

(b) To conduct the election of President of India





(c) To give recognition to the political parties

(d) To assign election symbols to the political partiesAns: (a)

61. The Electorate means:

(a) those people who do not have the right to elect their representatives

(b) all the citizens who possess the right to vote and elect their representatives in an election

(c) those people who have the right to be elected

(d) those people who have the right to live in a countryAns: (b)

62. How many days-time is given for the candidates to file their nominations

from the date of notification of the election?

(a) 2 days

(b) 4 days

(c) 6 days

(d) 8 ClaysAns: (d)

63. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed:

(a) by each House of Parliament by a special majority and on the ground of proven misbehaviour or incapacity

(b) by the President of India

(c) by the Supreme Court

(d) on charges of corruption if proved in the Supreme CourtAns: (a)

64. Which of the following activities indulged in by a candidate during an

election campaign constitute corrupt practices?

1. Giving gifts to voters to induce them to vote.

2. Appealing for votes on the grounds of caste or religion.

3. False character assassination of other candidates.

4. Propagation and glorification of Sati.





(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) I, II and III


65. Which of the following is correct regarding booth capturing?

1. It has been defined in the Constitution after the 61st amendment.

2. It includes the seizure of a polling booth to prevent the orderly conduct of elections.

3. It is also committed when any elector is threatened and prevented from going to the polling station to cast his vote.

4. It has been declared a cognizable offence punishable by imprisonment.

(a) 2, 3, and 4

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4Ans: (a)

66. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India? (CRPF1990)

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Parliament

(d) Chief Justice of IndiaAns: (a)

67. The Election Commission does not conduct the elections to the:

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) Rajya Sabha

(c) Local bodies

(d) President’s elections





Ans: (c)

68. The Election Commission holds election for: (NDA 1994)

(a) the Parliament

(b) the Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies

(c) the Parliament, State Legislative Assemblies and State Legislative Councils

(d) the Parliament, State Legislatures and the posts of the President and the Vice-PresidentAns: (d)

69. The control of the preparation of electoral rolls for Parliament and

legislatures vests with the: (CBI 1993)

(a) Cabinet

(b) Prime Minister

(c) President

(d) Election CommissionAns: (d)

70. Members of the Union Public Service Commission can function as

members up to the age of: (I. Tax 1989)

(a) 60 years

(b) 58 years

(c) 62 years

(d) 65 yearsAns: (d)

71. The Chairman and members of State Public Service Commission are

appointed by the:

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Governor

(d) Chairman, UPSCAns: (a)





72. Who appoints the Chairman of the UPSC?

(a) President


(c) Prime Minister


73. Which of the following is an extra-Constitutional and non-statutory body?

(a) Election Commission

(b) Finance Commission

(c) Planning Commission

(d) Union Public Service CommissionAns: (c)

74. Which one of the following is not a function of UPSC?

(a) It conducts examinations for the appointment to the services of the Union

(b) It shall be consulted on all matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and posts

(c) It shall be consulted on-all disciplinary matters affecting a person serving the Government of India

(d) It shall be consulted as regards the reservation of posts for backward classes, scheduled castes and tribesAns: (d)

75. UPSC submits its annual report on its work to:

(a) the Parliament

(b) the Union Home Minister

(c) the President

(d) the Chief Justice of IndiaAns: (b)

76. The members of UPSC hold the office:

(a) during the pleasure of President





(b) as long as they enjoy confidence in Parliament

(c) for life or till they attain the age of 70 years

(d) for the term of six years or till they attain the age of 65 yearsAns: (d)

77. The members of All-India Services are appointed under the signature of:

(a) President

(b) Home Minister

(c) Vice-President

(d) Chairman of UPSCAns: (a)

78. The members of UPSC can be removed from the office before the expiry of

the term by the :

(a) Prime Minister

(b) Chairman of UPSC

(c) President on recommendation of Supreme Court

(d) Prime Minister on recommendation of Supreme CourtAns: (c)

79. There port of the UPSC:

(a) is to be accepted by the Government in to

(b) may be ignored without explanation

(c) has to be discussed in Parliament before being accepted

(d) is presented to the PresidentAns: (c)

80. The members of a State Commission can be removed by the:

(a) Governor on a report by the Supreme Court

(b) Governor on a resolution passed by Parliament

(c) President on a report by the Supreme Court

(d) President on a resolution passed by ParliamentAns: (c)





81. The resignation letter of a State Public Service Commission member is

addressed to the:

(a) President

(b) Governor

(c) Chief Justice of India

(d) Chief MinisterAns: (b)

82. The UPSC conducts examinations for:

1. Central Services.

2. All India Services.

3. State Services.

4. State Services for two or more States jointly.

(a) I, II and III

(b) II and IV

(c) I only


83. The composition of the UPSC is:

(a) laid down in the Constitution

(b) determined by Parliament

(c) determined by the President

(d) determined by the Chairman of the UPSCAns: (c)

84. The Chairman of the Finance Commission must be:

(a) qualified to be a High Court Judge

(b) a person having special knowledge of economics

(c) a person having experience in public affairs

(d) All of the above





Ans: (c)

85. Finance Commission consists of:

(a) five members

(b) four whole time members

(c) Chairman and four members

(d) a Chairman and three other membersAns: (d)

86. Finance Commission is constituted by the President every :

(a) two years

(b) three years

(c) five years

(d) four yearsAns: (c)

87. The Centre-State financial distribution takes place on the recommendation

by the:

(a) Finance Minister

(b) Planning Commission


(d) Sarkaria CommissionAns: (a)

Local Government

1. The source of maximum income to Panchayati Raj institution is: (CDS 1993)

(a) local taxes

(b) regional funds

(c) government grants

(d) share in Union Govt. revenueAns: (c)





2. Which is at the apex of the three tier system of Panchayati Raj?

(a) Gram Sabha

(b) Gram Panchayat

(c) Zila Parishad

(d) Panchayat SamitiAns: (c)

3. Panchayati Raj has received constitutional status with the Amendment Act :

(a) 72nd

(b) 73rd

(c) 74th

(d) 75thAns: (b)

4. The list of items which may be entrusted to the Panchayats is given in the:

(a) Eleventh Schedule

(b) Twelfth Schedule

(c) Seventh Schedule

(d) State ListAns: (a)

5. In which of the following States was the Panchayati Raj first introduced?

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Gujarat

(c) U.P.

(d) BiharAns: (a)

6. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee suggested that the structure of Panchayati

Raj should consist of: (CDS 1992)

(a) the village, the block and the district levels

(b) the mandal and the district levels





(c) the village, the district and the State levels

(d) the village, the mandal, the district and the State levelsAns: (a)

7. Mandal Panchayats were recommended by:

(a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

(b) Narasimhan Committee

(c) Ashok Mehta Committee

(d) Vengal Rao CommitteeAns: (c)

8. The Panchayati Raj System was adopted to: (I. Tax 1991)

(a) make people aware of politics

(b) decentralise the power of democracy

(c) educate the peasants


9. Panchayati Raj was started in the country in:

(a) 1957

(b) 1959

(c) 1952

(d) 1951Ans: (c)

10. Who is to conduct the elections to the Panchayats and Municipalities?

(a) State Government

(b) Central Government

(c) State Election Commission

(d) Central Election CommissionAns: (c)

11. A Municipal Corporation is set up in a city with a population of not less

than:





(a) 1 lakh

(b) 12 lakh

(c) 10 lakh

(d) 5 lakhAns: (c)

12. Which of the following States has no Panchayati Raj Institution at all ?

(a) Assam

(b) Kerala

(c) Tripura

(d) NagalandAns: (d)

13. Who is the executive head of a Municipal Corporation?

(a) Mayor

(b) Secretary

(c) Commissioner

(d) Deputy MayorAns: (b)

14. Which of the following is not true about the Village Panchayats ?

(a) It consists of members elected by the Gram Sabha from amongst themselves

(b) If a member of the Scheduled Caste and a woman member are not elected to it, the Government itself nominates them

(c) For election to the Village Panchayat, a candidate need not be a resident of the same village but his name should be. In the voter’s list

(d) For election to the Village Panchayat, a candidate must be 25 years of ageAns: (c)

15. The Gram Panchayats are elected by Gram Sabhas consisting of:

(a) every citizen living in a village

(b) entire male and female population of the village

(c) every adult male living in a village





(d) every farmer of the villageAns: (a)

16. Special representation in Panchayati Raj Institutions is given to: (IFS

1990)

(a) women

(b) co-operative societies

(c) backward classes


17. Gram Sabha consists of:

(a) 5 to 10 elected Ward Panchas of the Village Panchayats

(b) All the voters of the Village Panchayat

(c) All the Chairmen of Village Panchayats of the Block

(d) All the Chairmen of Block level institutions of the districtAns: (b)

18. The local self-governing institution for a town with a population of twelve

thousand and above is known as :

(a) Municipal Corporation

(b) National Area Committee

(c) Municipal Committee

(d) Zila ParishadAns: (c)

19. A person to be qualified for standing in a panchayat election must have

attained the age of:

(a) 21 years

(b) 18 years

(c) 25 years

(d) 30 yearsAns: (a)





20. The elections to Panchayats are to be held:

(a) every four years

(b) every five years

(c) when the State Government decides to do so

(d) at the Centres directiveAns: (b)

21. Father of local self-government in India is :

(a) Lord Mayo

(b) Acharya Vinoba Bhave

(c) Lord Ripon

(d) Mahatma GandhiAns: (c)

22. Which of the following is not a source of revenue to the Village

Panchayats ? (RRB 1991)

(a) Property-Tax

(b) House Tax

(c) Land Tax

(d) Vehicles TaxAns: (a)

23. The function of the Panchayat Samiti is to: (RRB 1991)

(a) deal with administration of justice at the Panchayat level

(b) implement community development project schemes

(c) deal with financial matters of the Panchayat

(d) deal with rural industrializationAns: (b)

24. Which of the following is a source of income of the Gram Panchayats?

(a) Income Tax

(b) Sales Tax





(c) Professional Tax

(d) Levy DutiesAns: (d)

25. Which of the following is not true regarding a Gram Panchayat?

(a) It is constituted in every village with a population over 500

(b) It consists of all the adult citizens of the village

(c) Its decisions are taken by a majority vote

(d) Its decision in petty criminal cases cannot be appealed in any court of LawAns: (a)

26. Every Village Panchayat is headed by a Sarpancha who is elected by:

(a) Gram Sabha

(b) members of Village Panchayat from among citizens of the village

(c) members of Village Panchayat from among themselves

(d) not elected but nominated by CollectorAns: (c)

27. Mayor of a Municipal Corporation holds the office for a period of:

(a) 1 year

(b) 3 years

(c) 5 years

(d) 4 yearsAns: (a)

28. Which of the following functions are obligatory in all municipalities?

1. Registration of births and deaths.

2. Supply of potable water.

3. Planting and maintenance of road side trees.

4. Provision of transport facilities within the municipality.

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) III and IV






29. It is obligatory for all States to have:

(a) three-tier system

(b) two-tier system

(c) some States are exempted from establishing three-tier system

(d) it is optional for the StatesAns: (c)

30. What is the intermediate tier of the Panchayati Raj System called? (NDA

2005)

(a) Zlla Parishad

(b) Taluka Panchayat

(c) Panchayat Samiti

(d) Gram SabhaAns: (c)

31. Where was the first Municipal Corporation in India set up ? (CDS 2005)

(a) Mumbai

(b) Kolkata

(c) Delhi

(d) ChennaiAns: (b)

32. Which of the following is not a recommendation of the Ashok Mehta

Committee on Panchayati Raj? (CDS 2009)

(a) Open participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj Affairs

(b) Creation of a three-tier system

(c) Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

(d) Compulsory powers of taxation of Panchayati Raj InstitutionAns: (b)





33. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India makes a

specific mention of Village Panchayats? (NDA 2008)

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 21

(c) Article 40

(d) Article 246Ans: (c)

34. Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India deals

with the issue of strengthening of the Panchayati Raj? (NDA 2008)

(a) 42nd

(b) 44th

(c) 73rd

(d) 86thAns: (c)

35. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five years from the date of

(CDS 2011)

(a) its first meeting

(b) issue of notification for the conduct of elections to the Panchayat

(c) declaration of the election results

(d) taking oath of office by the elected MembersAns: (a)

36. Which is not the concern of the local government? (SSC Grad 2011)

(a) Public Health

(b) Sanitation

(c) Law and Order

(d) Public Utility ServicesAns: (d)





37. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at

promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of

the following?

1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.

2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.

3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (CSAT 2011)

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3Ans: (c)

38. The Mayor of the Municipal Corporation is elected by:

(a) all the elected representatives of the Corporation

(b) the elected representatives together with Elder-men who are elected by these representatives

(c) the voters of all the constituencies in the city directly

(d) elected representatives of the Corporation and the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies

Ans: (b)

39. The levying of which one of the following taxes is outside the jurisdiction

of Municipal Corporation?

(a) Property Tax

(b) Income Tax

(c) Profession Tax

(d) Education TaxAns: (b)

40. Who among the following is not a member of the Panchayat Samiti?





(a) Sarpanchas of all the Panchayats

(b) Elected members of the State Legislature belonging to that area

(c) Members of the Union Parliament belonging to that area


41. Which of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in

India? (IAS 1995)

(a) According to the Indian Constitution local government is not an independent tier in the federal system

(b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women

(c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission

(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a CommissionAns: (a)

42. The tenure of Gram Panchayat and Nagarpalika shall be for:

(a) three years

(b) four years

(c) five years, unless dissolved earlier

(d) co-extensive with the term of Legislative AssemblyAns: (c)

43. The Panchayats are authorised:

(a) to levy taxes, duties, levy and appropriate the same

(b) the Panchayats have no power to levy taxes

(c) the Panchayats are entitled to only grants from the Government

(d) to levy, collect and appropriate such taxes, duties tolls and fees as they are authorised by the GovernmentsAns: (d)

44. The three-tier system of Panchayats:

(a) is uniformly applicable to all States

(b) is applicable only to States with population above 50 lakh





(c) need not be strictly followed in States with population below 20 lakh

(d) has been replaced with a four-tier oneAns: (c)

45. The electorate for a Panchayat is:

(a) the Taluka board

(b) all adults of 21 years of above in a village

(c) the village and selected Members of Parliament and State Legislature

(d) the Gram SabhaAns: (d)

46. Which of the following is a source of income to the urban local bodies?

1. Octroi duty on goods brought into and taken out of the city.

2. Taxes on vehicles.

3. Income from water and electricity supply.

4. Financial grants from the State Governments.

(a) I, II and III

(b) II, III and IV

(c) I, III and IV


Amendment of the Constitution1. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution can be amended only

if (a) they are passed by a majority of total – membership of each House of





Parliament and not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting in

each House of Parliament, and (b) are ratified by the legislatures of one-half

of the States? (IAS 1995)

1. Method of election of President.

2. Provisions regarding the High Court.

3. Abolition of Legislative Council in any State.

4. Qualifications for Indian citizenship

5. Representation of States in Parliament.

(a) I, III, IV and V

(b) II, III and V

(c) I, II and V

(d) I, II, III, IV and VAns: (c)

2. Which of the following Amendments would need State ratification?

1. Provisions affecting President’s election.

2. Provisions affecting the Union Judiciary.

3. Amendment procedure.

4. Reservation of seats for SC/ST in Parliament.

(a) I, II and IV

(b) III and IV

(c) I and IV


3. Regarding Constitutional Amendments

1. the Provision of joint sitting is not available.

2. they become operative from the date both Houses have passed the Bills.

3. the President’s assent to a Constitutional Amendment is obligatory.





4. Parliament may amend any part of the Constitution according to the procedure laid down in Article 368.

(a) I and III

(b) I, II and III

(c) I, III and IV


4. The Constitution of India does not mention the post of:

(a) the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

(b) the Deputy Prime Minister

(c) the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(d) the Deputy Speaker of the State Legislative AssembliesAns: (b)

5. Which Amendment of the Constitution gave priority to Directive Principles

over Fundamental Rights?

(a) 24th Amendment

(b) 39th Amendment

(c) 42nd Amendment

(d) 40th AmendmentAns: (c)

6. A major portion of the Constitution:

(a) can be amended by simple majority

(b) can be amended by two-thirds majority

(c) can be amended only with State ratification

(d) cannot be amendedAns: (b)

7. If India decides to have a Presidential form of government, the first and

foremost Amendment has to be made affecting the:





(a) system of judiciary

(b) composition of Parliament

(c) Executive-Legislature relationship

(d) provisions pertaining to Fundamental RightsAns: (c)

8. Which Amendment restored the power of judicial review to the Supreme

Court and High Courts after it was curtailed by the 42nd Amendment?

(a) 42nd

(b) 43rd

(c) 44th

(d) 56thAns: (b)

9. Which one of the following statements is/are correct?

I. The committee on the status of women in India (NSW/) recommended the setting up of a National Commission for Women.

II. The first Chairperson of the National Commission for Women was Mrs. Jayanti Patnaik.

III. The main task of the Commission is to study and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and legal safeguards provided for women.

Select the correct answer using the code given below (CDS 2009)

(a) I, II and III

(b) II only

(c) I and II

(d) I and IIIAns: (a)

10. Which of the following cannot be altered by the Parliament by ordinary

legislative procedure ?

(a) Acquistion and termination of citizenship





(b) Privileges of the Parliament

(c) Composition of State Legislative Councils

(d) Representation of States in the ParliamentAns: (d)

11. Which of the following would be construed as a reasonable restriction of

the ‘right to freedom’? (CDS 2009)

(a) When the State disallows a candidate from securing votes in the name of religion

(b) When the State disallows citizens from forming a club out of State funds that denies access to women

(c) When the Government of Nagaland disallows temporary residents to buy immovable property in Nagaland.

(d) AII of the above

Ans: (c)

12. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments banned the floor

crossing in Parliament? (UGC 1989)

(a) 42nd

(b) 44th

(c) 52nd

(d) 53rdAns: (c)

13. The provision of amending the Constitutional Provision is given in :

(a) Part XIX Article 356

(b) Part XX Article 356

(c) Part XX Article 368

(d) Part XIX Article 368Ans: (c)

14. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament

(a) does not need the assent of the President





(b) does need the assent of the President

(c) does not need the assent of the President if passed by ratification of States


15. Who is entitled to initiate a Bill for Constitutional Amendments?

(a) State Legislative Assemblies

(b) Lok Sabha only

(c) Either House of Parliament

(d) Rajya Sabha onlyAns: (c)

16. Which of the following are correct regarding the Parliament’s power of

amendment?

1. It can amend the Fundamental Rights.

2. It can amend the basic structure of the Constitution.

(a) Only I

(b) Only II

(c) Both I and II


17. Indian Constitution was amended for the first time in :

(a) 1950

(b) 1951

(c) 1952

(d) 1953Ans: (b)

18. The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India was: (UDC 1993)

(a) added by the first Amendment

(b) added by the 24th Amendment





(c) added by the 42nd Amendment

(d) a part of the original ConstitutionAns: (a)

19. The Amendment regarding the formation of a new State by separating

territory from any other State must be passed by:

(a) only Lok Sabha

(b) only Rajya Sabha

(c) both the Houses of Parliament

(d) both the Houses of Parliament and before that the opinion of that State is to be ascertained by the PresidentAns: (d)

20. Of all the Amendments in the Indian Constitution, the most

Comprehensive and Controversial Amendment was:

(a) 42nd

(b) 43rd

(c) 44th

(d) 45thAns: (a)

21. By which Amendment, the power to amend the Constitution was

specifically conferred upon the Parliament? (NDA 1992)

(a) 56th

(b) 52nd

(c) 42nd

(d) 24thAns: (d)

22. How many States are required to ratify certain Amendments to the

Constitution?

(a) Not less than half the number

(b) Three-fourths of the number

(c) At least 10 States





(d) All States in some casesAns: (a)

23. Which of these Amendments and their subject matter is/are incorrectly

matched?

1. 26th Amendment – Abolition of titles and privileges of former rules of princely states

2. 21st Amendment – Curtailed the right to property

3. 51st Amendment – Curbed political defections

4. 61st Amendment – Reduced voting age.

(a) I, II and IV

(b) II, III and IV

(c) I and IV

(d) II and IIIAns: (d)


A. Fifty-eighth Amendment 1. Delhi to be called as National Capital Territory of Delhi

B. Sixty-first Amendment 2. Reduced voting age from 21 years to 18 years

C. Sixty-ninth Amendment 3. An authoritative text of the Constitution in Hindi

D. Seventy-first Amendment 4. Included Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali languages in the Eighth Schedule

A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 3 1 2 4

(c) 2 1 3 4

(d) 4 2 1 3Ans: (a)

25. What was the decision of the Supreme Court in Keshavanand Bharati

case?





(a) Parliament is supreme in the matters of legislation

(b) In matters relating to compulsory acquisition of private property the court had the ultimate powers of determining what is public purpose under Article 31

(c) The power under Article 368 to amend the Constitution cannot be so exercised as to alter the basic structure or the essential features of the Constitution

(d) The Supreme Court has full authority to pronounce on the Constitutional Validity of any State lawAns: (c)

26. In the Minerva Mills batch of cases the Supreme Court has further

reaffirmed its decision in :

(a) Golakh Nath Case

(b) Keshavanand Bharati case

(c) Sajjan Singh Case


27. The decision of the Supreme Court in the Golakh Nath Case was that:

(a) Judiciary is independent of Parliament

(b) Fundamental Rights could not be amended or abridged

(c) the Constitution is supreme

(d) the basic structure of the Constitution should not be changedAns: (b)

28. Put in chronological order the following Amendments to the Constitution.

1. Addition of Ninth Schedule to the Constitution.

2. Abolition of privy purses and privileges of former princes.

3. Insertion of XI Schedule

4. Removal of Right to Property from Constitutional Rights.

(a) I, II, III, IV

(b) II, I, IV, III

(c) I, II, IV, III





(d) IV, I, II, IIIAns: (c)

29. Which of the following provisions can be amended by simple majority?

(a) Creation of new States

(b) Creation or abolition of upper houses in State Legislatures

(c) Reconstitution of existing States


30. If the procedure for the election of the President of India is sought to be

modified, which of the following conditions are required?

1. An Amendment of the Constitution passed by simple majority in Lok Sabha

2. A referendum

3. An Amendment of the Constitution passed by two-thirds majority in both Houses of Parliament.

4. Ratification of the legislatures of at least half the number of States.

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) None of the above, as the election procedure cannot be changedAns: (c)

31. As per the Anti-Defection Law, the final authority to decide on a member’s

disqualification from the House is :

(a) President

(b) Governor

(c) Speaker of the House

(d) Council of MinistersAns: (c)






Amendment Provision

A. 42nd 1. Panchayati Raj

B. 44th 2. Fundamental Duties

C. 61st 3. Voting age lowered from 21 years to 18 years

D. 73rd 4. Right to Property abolished

A B C D

(a) 3 2 4 1

(b) 2 4 3 1

(c) 4 1 3 2

(d) 2 3 1 4Ans: (b)

33. When the name of the State is changed or a new State is created, the

Constitution of India is required to be amended by Parliament by a :

(a) simple majority as under Articles 107 and 108

(b) majority of total numbers of both the Houses under Article 368

(c) special majority under Article 368

(d) special majority after obtaining opinion of the concerned State under Article 3 of the ConstitutionAns: (a)

34. An Amendment of the Bill relating to the manner and mode of election of

the President:

(a) does not need the assent of the President

(b) does need the assent of the President

(c) does not need the assent of the President if passed by ratification of the States

(d) on approval of the Bill by the cabinet, assent of the President may be dispensed withAns: (d)

35. Which of the following statements regarding 74th Amendment of the

Constitution are correct?





1. It provides for the insertion of a new schedule to the Constitution.

2. It restructures the working of the municipalities.

3. It provides for the reservation of seats for women and scheduled castes in the municipalities.

(a) A only

(b) A and C

(c) A and B

(d) A, B and CAns: (d)

36. The Amendment procedure laid down in Indian Constitution is on the

pattern of:

(a) Constitution of Canada


(c) Constitution of South Africa

(d) Constitution of USAAns: (a)

37. National Capital Territory of Delhi has been constituted by:

(a) 71st Amendment

(b) 69th Amendment

(c) ordinance promulgated by the President

(d) ordinance promulgated by the Lieutenant GovernorAns: (b)

38. A merger will not invite action under the Anti-Defection Act if ____

members of a political party decide to join another political party.

(a) one-third

(b) two-thirds

(c) half

(d) one-fourthAns: (b)





39. Which Amendment provided for an authoritative version of the

Constitution in Hindi?

(a) 56th

(b) 58th

(c) 60th

(d) 61stAns: (b)

40. Which of the following is true about C. Rajgopalachari?

(a) He was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha after independence

(b) He was the Chairman of the Constitution Drafting Body of India

(c) He was the first and last Indian Governor General of India after independence

(d) He was the Governor of Tamil NaduAns: (c)

41. What is the document published by the government to apprise the public

on any issue? (Central Excise 1990)

(a) Gazette

(b) Report of Public Accounts Committee

(c) White Paper


42. The expression ‘Creamy layer’ used in the judgement of the Supreme

Court relating to the case regarding reservations refers to: (RRB 1994)

(a) those sections of the society which pay income tax

(b) those sections of socially and educationally backward classes of the society that are developed

(c) those sections of the society that are considered advanced according to the Karpuri Thakur formula

(d) all sections of the upper castes of the societyAns: (b)

43. Extradiction means:





(a) forcing a foreign national to leave the country

(b) forcing a citizen of the country to leave the country

(c) delivering a foreign national for the trial of offences

(d) blocking the trade of other countries with a particular countryAns: (c)

44. Civil servants are not permitted to become: (Delhi Police 1994)

(a) Chief Election Commissioner

(b) Vice-Chancellors of Universities

(c) Heads of Commissions of Enquiry

(d) Members of ParliamentAns: (d)

45. Next to Hindi, language spoken by the largest number of people in the

Indian subcontinent is: (CDS 1993)

(a) Bengali

(b) Tamil

(c) Telugu

(d) MarathiAns: (a)

46. Which of the following statements regarding literacy in India are correct ?

1. A person who can only read but cannot write is not defined literate.

2. Children below 5 years of age are not taken into consideration even if they are able to read and write.

3. For the purpose of census, a person is deemed literate if he or she can read and write with understanding in any of the 22 languages mentioned in the Constitution

4. The fact that a district has attained hundred percent literacy does not mean that the entire population in the district is literate.

(a) I, III and IV

(b) II, III and IV

(c) I, II and III





(d) I, II and IVAns: (b)

47. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending

order of precedence in the warrant of precedence? (IAS 2004)

(a) Attorney General of India – Judges of the Supreme Court – Members of Parliament – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(b) Judges of the Supreme Court – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Attorney General of India – Members of Parliament

(c) Attorney General of’ India – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Judges of the Supreme Court – Members of Parliament

(d) Judges of the Supreme Court – Attorney General of India – Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha – Members of ParliamentAns: (b)

48. The Ashok Mehta Committee laid greater emphasis on; (CDS 2004)

(a) Gram Sabha

(b) Mandal Panchayat

(c) Taluk Panchayat Samiti

(d) Zila ParishadAns: (b)

49. By which Amendment Act of the Constituttion of India were the Directive

Principles of the State Policy given precedence over the Fundamental Rights

wherever they come into conflict? (CDS 200S)

(a) 40th

(b) 42nd

(c) 44th

(d) 46thAns: (b)

50. Consider the following:

1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies.

2. Motor accident cases,





3. Pension cases.For which of the above are Lok Adalats held? (IAS 2005)

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3Ans: (c)

51. Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the

Food and Nutrition Board work? (IAS 2005)

(a) Ministry of Agriculture

(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development

(d) Ministry of Rural DevelopmentAns: (a)

52. The Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the

Department/Ministry of: (IAS 2004)

(a) Culture

(b) Tourism

(c) Science and Technology

(d) Human Resource DevelopmentAns: (a)

53. In which one of the following Ministries, the census organisation has been

functioning on a permanent footing since 1961? (CDS 2009)

(a) Health and Family Welfare

(b) Home Affairs

(c) Social Justice and Empowerment

(d) Human Resource DevelopmentAns: (b)





54. Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four

languages were added to the languages under the Eighth Schedule of the

Constitution of India, thereby raising their number to 22 ? (IAS 2008)

(a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act

(b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act

(c) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act

(d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) ActAns: (c)

55. Department of Border Management is a Department of which one of the

following Union Ministries? (IAS 2008)

(a) Ministry of Defence

(b) Ministry of Home Affairs

(c) Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways

(d) Ministry of Environment and ForestsAns: (b)

56. For which one of the following reforms was a Commission set up under the

Chairmanship of Veerappa Moily by the Government of India? (IAS 2008)

(a) Police Reforms

(b) Tax Reforms

(c) Reforms in Technical Education

(d) Administrative ReformsAns: (d)

57. Which was the Capital of Andhra State when it was made a separate State

in the year 1953? (IAS 2008)

(a) Guntur

(b) Kurnool

(c) Nellore

(d) WarangalAns: (b)





58. Which one of the following Union Ministries is implementing the Biodiesel

Mission (as Nodal Ministry)? (IAS 2008)


(b) Ministry of Science and Technology

(c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

(d) Ministry of Rural DevelopmentAns: (d)

59. Consider the following statements with reference to the linguistic

reorganization of States in independent India:

1. The separate State of Andhra for the Telugu people came into existence in 1953.

2. Jawaharlal Nehru was particularly in favour of the movement for linguistic reorganisation of States that came in the wake of the success of the Andhra movement.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS 2008)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


60. The Constituent Assembly appointed the Linguistic Provinces Commission

in the year 1948 to enquire into the desirability of linguistic provinces. Who

among the following was the Head of that Commission? (IAS 2008)


(b) Justice S.K. Dhar

(c) Justice Fazl AIi

(d) Pattabhi SitaramayyaAns: (b)


1. The Ministries/Departments of the Union Government are created by the Prime Minister.





2. The Cabinet Secretary is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CDS 2008)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


62. Department of Official Language (Raj Bhasha Vibhag) comes under which

one of the following Ministries? (CDS 2008)

(a) Ministry of Culture

(b) Ministry of Home Affairs

(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development

(d) Ministry of Information and Broad castingAns: (b)

63. In which one of the following years did the Right to Information Act come

into force? (CDS 2008)

(a) 2003

(b) 2004

(c) 2005

(d) 2006Ans: (c)

64. Holding a ‘Bandh’ was declared illegal for the first time in India by which

one of the following High Courts? (CDS 2008)

(a) Rajasthan High Court

(b) Gujarat High Court

(c) Kerala High Court

(d) Maharashtra High CourtAns: (c)

65. Who among the following was the Finance Minister of India in the Interim

Government during 1946-1947 ? (CDS 2008)





(a) R.K. Shanrnukharn Chetty

(b) John Mathai

(c) Liaquat Ali Khan

(d) Chintamanrao DeshmukhAns: (a)

66. The quarantine regulation for preventing entry of diseased plants into the

country is done by which one of the following? (CDS 2008)

(a) National Botanical Research Institute

(b) Botanical Survey of India

(c) National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources

(d) Council of Scientific and Industrial ResearchAns: (c)

67. The National River Conservation Directorate is under: (Asstt Comm 2008)


(b) Ministry of Environment and Forests

(c) Ministry of Earth Sciences

(d) Ministry of Water ResourcesAns: (b)

68. By Convention, who of the following is the Chairman of Press Council of

India? (Asstt Comm 2008)

(a) An eminent journalist of India

(b) A senior Civil Services Officer

(c) A retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India

(d) The Union Minister of Information arid BroadcastingAns: (c)

69. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of

the Councils of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15

percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total

number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State, respectively?

(IAS 2007)





(a) 91st

(b) 93rd

(c) 95th

(d) 97thAns: (a)


1. In India, the legislation passed by the Parliament is subject to judicial review.

2. The Constitution of India lays down the mechanism for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS 2007)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2



1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equalwork for both men and women.

2. The Constitution of India does not define backward classes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (IAS 2006)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


72. Consider the following statements in respect of protection of copyright in

India

I. Copyright is a legal right given to creators of literacy, dramatic, musical and artistic works and produces of cinematograph films and sound recordings.





II. Copyright protects only the expression and not the ideas. There is no copyright in an idea.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CDS 2009)

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor IIAns: (c)

73. Which one among the following commissions was set up in pursuance of a

definite provision under an Article of the Constitution of India? (IAS 2006)

(a) University Grants Commission

(b) National Human Rights Commission

(c) Election Commission

(d) Central Vigilance CommissionAns: (c)

74. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (IAS 2006)

(a) States Reorganisation Act : Andhra Pradesh

(b) Treaty of Yandabu: Asom

(c) State of Bilaspur :Himachal Pradesh

(d) Year 1966: Gujarat becomes a StateAns: (d)


1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years age group by the State was made a Fundamental Right by the 76th Amendment to the Constitution ofIndia.

2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.

3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?([IAS 2006)





(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3Ans: (c)

76. Which of the following statements is/are not violative of the principle of

federalism? (NDA 2010)

1. The President of India takes over administration of provinces under the emergency

2. The Parliament of India has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent list of State list.

3. The distribution of powers between the Union and provinces is done through three different lists enumerated in the Constitution of India.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3

Ans: (c)

77. Which one of the following can be provided under RTI Act, 2005? (CDS

2010)

(a) Information leading to incitement of an offense

(b) Information leading to disclosure that may constitute contempt of court

(c) Conditional disclosure relating to information on intellectual property

(d) Information relating to Cabinet Papers recording deliberations of Council of MinistersAns: (c)

78. According to the Constitution (Fifty Second Amendment) Act

1985asamended in 2003, a legislator attracts disqualification under the Tenth

Schedule if





1. he voluntarily gives up the membership of the party on whose ticket he was elected.

2. he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party.

3. as a result of split, less than one third of the members formed a new group or party in the house.

4. a member who has been elected as an independent member joins any political party.Select the correct answer using the code given below (CDS 2009)

(a) II and III

(b) I, II and IV

(c) I and III


79. The National Commission for Women was created by (CDS 2012)

(a) an amendment in the Constitution of India

(b) a decision of the Union Cabinet

(c) an Act passed by the Parliament

(d) an order of the President of IndiaAns: (c)

80. Which one of the following States has granted Sanskrit language the status

of the second official language of the State? (UP PCS 2011)

(a) Bihar

(b) Chhattisgarh

(c) Uttar Pradesh

(d) UttarakhandAns: (d)

81. Which of the following condition/conditions must be fulfilled by the NRIs

to be eligible to vote in elections in India?

1. They must be physically present in their place of origin to exercise their franchise.





2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other countries or not are eligible to vote

3. Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up form 6-A with electoral registration office.Select the correct answer using the code given below: (UP PCS 2011)

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 3 onlyAns: (b)

82. There are different arguments given in favour of power sharing in a

democratic political system. Which one of the following is not one of them?

(CDS 2011)

(a) It reduces conflict among different communities

(b) Majority community does not impose its will on others

(c) Since all are affected by the policies of the government, they should be consulted in the governance of the country

(d) It speeds up the decision making process and improves the chances of unity of the countryAns: (b)

83. The song ‘Jana-Gana-Mana’ composed by Rabindra Nath Tagore was first

published in January 1912 under the title of(CPO SI 2010)

(a) Jay He

(b) Rashtra Jagriti

(c) Bharat Vidhata

(d) MatribhoomiAns: (c)

84. Who is the head of the National Defence Committee? (BPSC 2011)

(a) Home Minister

(b) Prime Minister

(c) President





(d) Vice-PresidentAns: (a)

85. In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national

minority, what special advantages is it entitled to ?

1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.

2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.

3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (CSAT 2011)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3Ans: (c)

86. Consider the following events:

1. Fourth general elections in India

2. Formation of Haryana State

3. Mysore named as Karnataka

4. Meghalaya and TripuraWhich one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?

(IAS 2004)

(a) 2, 1, 4, 3

(b) 4, 3, 2, 1

(c) 2, 3, 4, 1

(d) 4, 1, 2, 3Ans: (a)

87. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Emergency due to war declared for the first time – 1. October1962

(b) Lok Sabha held its first sitting – 2. May 1952

(c) Sarkaria Commission set up – 3. June 1983





(d) National Commission for Minorities set up – 4. April 1980Ans: (d)


A. 1971 1. Fifth general elections

B. 1978 2. Introduction of Panchayati Raj System

C. 1952 3. Formation of National Development Council

D. 1959 4. Right to property removed from Article 19A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 1 4 3 2

(d) 3 4 1 2Ans: (c)


A. 1950 1. First Rajya Sabha Constituted

B. 1952 2. Contingency Fund of India Act

C. 1957 3. First Finance Commission constituted

D. 1951 4. Jammu and Kashmir adopted its separate Constitution

A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 1 4 3 2

(c) 1 3 4 2

(d) 2 1 4 3Ans: (d)

90. Which one of the following is not an independent Department under the

Government of India? (CDS 2009)

(a) Department of Atomic Energy

(b) Department of Bio-Technology





(c) Department of space

(d) Planning CommissionAns: (a)

91. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(a) 1960- Third general elections in India

(b) 1958-Bombay bifurcated into Maharashtra and Gujarat

(c) 1966-lndira Gandhi became Prime Minister

(d) 1970-Nationalisation of banksAns: (c)

92. Why is the year 1952 important in Indian History ?

(a) States Reorganisation Act was passed

(b) Haryana State was split

(c) First official census in India was held

(d) First general elections to the Lok Sabha were heldAns: (d)

93. The Sarkaria Commission has:

I. Favoured the implementation of the three-language formula.

II. Turned down the/demand for the abolition of the office of the Governor.

III. Favoured liberal use of Article 356 of the Constitution in the interest of the country’s integrity.

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) I and II

(d) I, II and IIIAns: (c)

94. Which one of the following is/are all-India services?

I. Indian Administrative Service

II. Indian Foreign Service





III. Indian Police Service

IV. Indian Defence Service

(a) I and II

(b) I and III

(c) II, III and IV


95. The Constitution envisages:

(a) two types of civil services-administrative and police

(b) two types of civil services-Indian and Provincial

(c) three types of civil services-all- India, Central and regional

(d) three types of civil services-all- India, Central and StateAns: (d)

96. An aggrieved public servant of the Union can challenge the decisions of

the Administrative Tribunal:

(a) before the Supreme Court

(b) before the High Court

(c) before both (a) and (b)

(d) before no court of lawAns: (a)


Prominent Functionaries Minimum Age for Appointment

A. Member of Rajya Sabha 1. No minimum age

B. Member of Legislative Assembly 2. 21 years

C. High Court Judge 3. 25 years

D. Member of Panchayat 4. 30 years

A B C D





(a) 4 3 2 1

(b) 4 2 1 3

(c) 3 2 1 4

(d) 4 3 1 2Ans: (d)


Prominent Functionaries Term of Office

A. Supreme Court Judge 1. Till 65 years of age

B. High Court Judge 2. Till 62 years of age

C. Comptroller and Auditor General of India 3. 6 years or age of 65 whichever is less

D. Governor 4. 5 years

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 1 3 2 4

(c) 2 1 3 4

(d) 3 2 4 1Ans: (a)


A. Madhu Limayi 1. A former Vice-President

B. Pattabhi Sitaramaiah 2. The first Speaker of the Lok Sabha

C. B.D. Jatti 3. A veteran parliamentarian of yester years

D. Mavlankar 4. Author of a famous book on the history of Indian National Congress\

A B C D

(a) 2 4 3 1

(b) 3 1 2 4

(c) 4 3 1 2

(d) 3 4 1 2





Ans: (d)

100. Match the following ([IFS 1993)

A. MP 1. Elected by an Electoral College

B. President 2. Elected by the Parliament

C. Vice-President 3. Elected by the Lok Sabha

D. Speaker 4. Elected by adult voting

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 3 4 1

(c) 3 4 1 2

(d) 4 1 2 3Ans: (d)


A. Biggest democracy 1. USA

B. Rigid Constitution providing for dual citizenship 2. India

C. Flexible Constitution providing for nonrepublican democracy 3. UK

A B C

(a) 1 2 3

(b) 2 1 3

(c) 1 3 2

(d) 3 1 2Ans: (b)

102. In the Government of India, under which Ministry is the National River

Conservation Directorate? (IAS 2009)


(b) Ministry of Earth Sciences

(c) Ministry of Environment and Forests





(d) Ministry of Water ResourcesAns: (c)

103. Which of the following is/are instance(s) of violation of human rights?

1. A person was detained by the security forces while going for casting vote in Parliamentary Election.

2. A civilian was killed by the army while undertaking combing operation. (NDA 2010)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2


104. The President of USA is elected after every:

(a) 3 years

(b) 4 years

(c) 5 years

(d) 6 yearsAns: (b)

105. Territorial waters of India extends upto how many nautical miles? (IFS

1989)

(a) 8

(b) 12

(c) 18

(d) 22Ans: (b)

106. Which is the highest ranking post among the following?

(a) Chief of the Air Staff

(b) Judge of the Supreme Court





(c) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha

(d) Speaker of Lok SabhaAns: (d)

107. The State having the largest population of scheduled castes is :

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Bihar

(d) Uttar PradeshAns: (d)

108. Which of the following countries has the briefest Constitution in the

world?

(a) France

(b) USA

(c) UK

(d) CanadaAns: (b)

109. Who was made the Home Minister when Jawaharlal Nehru formed the

Interim Government in 1946 ? (Asstt Grade 1995)

(a) Baldev Singh

(b) Sardar Patel

(c) Mohd. Ali Jinnah

(d) Liaqat Ali KhanAns: (b)

110. In which of the following States, no tribe has been declared as

‘Scheduled’ by the President? (IFS 1993)

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Haryana

(d) Bihar





Ans: (c)




Indian Polity & Constitution

Documents

Transcript of Indian Polity & Constitution