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OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY, ILE IFE

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FACULTY OF LAW

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE-IFE, NIGERIA 2015 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Fill out the gaps in the passage below with the correct option from the list provided in brackets in front of the gaps.

1.______ (a. jargon b. vernacular c. dialects d. wazobia) is specialized language that appears in a non-specialized context, thus giving a 2. ______ (a. generalized b. technical c. restricted d. straightforward) flavor to statements that would be better 3. ______ (a. addressed b. written c. expressed d. spoken) in everyday words. When you are writing a 4. ______ (a. paper b. document c. treatise d. pamphlet) in, say, economics, anthropology, or psychology, you can and should use terms that are meaningful within the 5. ______ (a. pool b. conundrum c. register d. field) cash flow, kinship structure, paranoid, and so forth. But those same terms become jargon when used out of 6. ____ (a. place b. meaning c. contest d. context).Choose the option nearest in meaning to the italicized words in the following sentences.

7. He cannot hide his aversion for Kemi‘s unrepentant behavior. (a) abhorrence (b) sadness (c) ignominy (d) moodiness.

8. The investments in stocks seemed to have gone down the drain with this meltdown in the banking sector (a) businesses (b) capital (c) surplus (d) dividends.

9. My efforts at making her to see my point were rebuffed. (a) embraced (b) antagonized (c) snubbed (d) dividends.

10. He is a lout and can‘t be relied upon at all (a) vagabond (b) thug (c) unserious (d) liar.

11. The undisputed boxer was quite a mouthful for his opponent. (a) not a match (b) undeleated (c) evenly match (d) boastful.

12. Such stories are difficult to belive because they are make-belief (a) lies (b) vituperations (c) genuine (d) fantasy.

13. I am all those who mistook President Buhari‘s ______ demeanour for cowardice will soon know him for who he actually is (a) stealthy (b) sloppy (c) snaky (d) succulent.

Choose the most appropriate option to complete

the gaps in the following sentences.

14. The new inspector General of Police will alleged that terrorists had ______ the rank and file of the force (a) proliferated (b) conquered (c) infiltrated (d) insulated.

15. He lay awake, his whole body ______ sleep (a) acting for (b) looking for (c) drumming for (d) aching for.

16. Please think ______ everything and let me have your answer tomorrow. (a) thoroughly (b) through (c) around (d) on.

17. I asked you ______ (a) when you are going to get marry (b) the time when you are goint to get marry (c) at what point you are getting married (d) when you were going to get married.

Choose from the options A-D the word opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 18. I guess he is indifferent to our plans to rid Nigeria of

societal ills. (a) interested in (b) opposed to (c) bothered (d) not interested in.

19. The increase in transportation cost imperiled my sister‘s plant to travel this month. (a) propelled (b) restricted (c) disturbed (d) hoodwinked.

20. The criminal‘s answers to the questions during interrogation were evasive (a) harsh (b) outspoken (c) clever (d) direct.

Read the passage below and answer the questions under it. Among his papers, there is the farewell lecture given in 1925 when he retired from his Copenhagen chair at the age of 65 ___ protesting himself ‗an old fogey‘, though English studies were fortunate that so youthfully creative a ‗fogey‘ was to go on writing for almost a further two decades. In the splendid apologia, he explained that for him ‗linguistic investigation‘ involved primarily ‗understanding the texts….to penetrate into the innermost thoughts of the best men arid women.‘ ‗Speech is the noblest instrument to bind man to man, and… it is by speech as by literature, or best by both combined, that one comes to understanding the people from whom they emanated.‘ First and foremost, of course, a student of language, he insisted on studying language at its best and in that way he hoped, he says, ‗to have imparted to my hearers some of my own enthusiasm for the great poets. My greatest enjoyment, and no doubt that of my hearers as well, has been in my Chaucer classes, partly becaue Chaucer has such a wonderful power of describing human beings.‘ So far from confining himself to expounding linguistic history for its own sake, he sees his work as ‗combating mark‘ of which ‗is antipathy‘, disdain, finally hatred‘. ‗Especially now since the World-war this is a task of the greatest importance, sicne it is necessary that the wounds of this gruesome time sould be healed.‘ Thus he spoke to his students in 1925. Sadly, this noble friend of mankind was to see a still more gruesome manifestation of nationalism and to die in 1943 when his country had already suffered for some years the horrors of the Nazi occupation, when there was little opportunity ‗to diffuse knowledge and love of what is best in other peoples‘. 21. Another word used in the passage that can serve as a

synonym to ‗ghastly‘ is ______ (a) exponding (b) essential (c) splendid (d) gruesome.

22. The figure of speech used by the writer in ‗though English studies were fortunate that so youthfully creative a ‗fogey‘ was to go on writing for almost a further two decades‘ in describing the person being talked about is ______ (a) hyperbole (b) irony (c) innuendo (d) sarcasm.

23. The writer believes that ______ (a) human beings are best understood by what they say or by what is written about them (b) human beings are very

difficult to penetrate in a linguistics investigation (c) the innermost thoughts of all men and women are the major preoccupations of linguistis (d) literature and language are combined in any worthwhile linguistic enquiry to understand human beings.

24. According to the writer, he derived greatest enjoyment in (a) Chaucer, the great personality he befriended when he was in school (b) the profound ideas expounded by his teachers while he was in school (c) series of lectures he received about Chaucer and his


writings (d) the wonderful ways his teacher described human beings in many of his lectures.

25. We can categorically pinpoint on the passage that the writer was talking about ______ (a) a former student of his who is intelligent (b) disturbing trend in linguistic study (c) distinguished scholar who had impacted positively on the field of discussion(d) the ghastly malady of out time, nationalsim‘, ‗the

essential mark‘ of which ‗is antipathy, disdain, finally hatred.‘

ANSWERS TO 2015 ENGLISH LANGUAGE

1.A 2. C 3. C 4.A 5. D 6.D 7.A 8.A 9.C 10.B 11.B 12.D 13.A 14.C 15.D 16.B 17.D 18.A 19.A 20.D 21.D 22.D 23.D 24.C 25.C

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY, ILE-IFE, NIGERIA 2014 POST-UTME AUGUST 2,2014 SCREENING EXERCISE ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Read the passage and use it to answer question 1-4 As we both fed our eyes wistfully at the used under-wear section, Vivian noticed a heap of women‘s underwear, a mixture of braziers of various sizes and designs, panties, g-strings and tongs, underskirts, lingerie of different colours, all heaped and scattered on a big bedspread like a pile of rubbish. Some were quite ancient and threadbare, while a few appeared not to have suffered much oppression in the hands and private parts of their previous owners. It was apparent that the international businessman who imported such inglorious assortment had agent with prongs, long enough to dip deep into deepest and farthermost refuse bins and dumps of Europe to be able meet the demand back home. 1. We can infer from the passage above that A. the effort of international businessmen were

commended by the writer for their contribution to Nigeria‘s economy

B. the writer believes that Nigerian government has not been doing enough to encourage importers of goods to remain in business and recoup money they have invested in their business

C. The writer makes comic comments on the porous Nigerian borders through which contraband goods are imported into the country D.the writer subtly castigates and derides the patronage of substandard goods that dots the Nigerian market in the name of imported goods

2. ―…all heaped and scattered on a big bedspread like a pile of rubbish‖ The figure of speech used in that quotation is A. metaphor B. simile C. hyperbole D.pun

3. It was apparent that the international businessman who imported such inglorious assortment had agents with prongs, long enough to dig deep into the deepest and farthermost refuse bins and dumps of Europe to be able to meet the demand back home. From the quotation above, it is apparent that the writer is being A. metaphorical B. categorical C.sarcastic D. specific

4. Another word that means the same as the word ‗threadbare‘ as it is used in the passage is ….

A.worn-out B. dirty C. expensive D. cheap Choose the most appropriate option from a-d to

complete the gaps in the following sentences. 5. While the host community was condemned roundly by

their hostility, the visiting contingent was applauded for their A.friendliness

B. hospitality C. dexterity C. methodology 6. It is hard to quantify the ___ that the abducted Chibok

girls would have gone through since they were taken away by the dreaded Boko Haram insurgents. A.rape B. trauma C. isolation D. insecurity

7. The high-profile witness has been discredited having been accused of being ___ with the truth in his testimony A. biological B.geographical C. circumventing D.economical

8. The jailed businessman has left his family in ___ due to the confiscation of his property by the government A. bliss B. quandary C. opulence D. Eldorado

9. The Federal Government has expressed the fear that the violent activity of the insurgents may ___ if powerful foreign assistance is not received soon. A. extrapolate B. proliferate C. metamorphose D.escalate

10. I am sure that if you probe further, the accused person will reveal where the ___ money is kept. A. pilfered B. missed C. lost D. robbed

11. I was waving frantically but you drove ___ me A. past B. pass C. passed D. passing

12. The driver was reckless, the road was slippery due to the early morning downpour, and ___ there was a crash that claimed two lives A. frantically B. subsequently C. constantly D. unequivocally

13. Did you know we were very fortunate to run __ for the newly elected president of the country when he was campaigning for the office? A. errant B. errands C.an errand D. around Choose the option nearest in meaning to the italiced words in the sentences below

14. The erratic power supply these days has caused a lot of damage to household items that use electricity. A. lackadaisical B. regular C. uneven D. high-voltage

15. ―You need to go and study the etymology of the underlined words in the returned essay,‖ the lecturer told the student. A. meaning B. technicality C. originality D. origin

16. The man told him point blank that his argument was bereft __ sound reasoning. A. with B. of C. in D.off

17. The workers expressed their heartfelt thanks ___ the management for the notable improvement to their conditions of service A. toward B. with C. towards D. to

18. He won the elections but many people were killed by his thugs, and thus many said his was a ___ A. Philistine victory B. pyrrhic victory C. crocodile victory D. pseudo victory

19. The aspirant for the highest office in the coming elections has started distributing live cows to each electorate in his ward; but some rejected it because they considered it a ___ A. an Eldorado gift B. Grievous gift C. Greece gift D. Greek gift

Fill out the gap in the passage below with the correct option from the list provided in brackets in front of the gaps 20 . is specialized language, that appears in a non-specialized context, thus giving a 21_ flavour to statements that would be better _22_ in everyday words. When you are writing _23_ in, say, economics, anthropology, or psychology, you can and should use terms that are meaningful within the _24 cash flow, kinship structure, paranoid, and so forth. But those same terms become jargon when used out of _25 _. 20. A. jargon B. Vernacular C. DialectsD. Wazobia 21. A.Generalized B. Technical C. Restricted D.

straightforward


22. A.Addressed B. Written C. Expressed D. Spoken 23. A.Paper B. Document C.Treaties D.Pamphlet 24. A.Pool B. Conundrum C. Register D. Field 25. A. Place B. Meaning C. Contest D. Context.

ANSWERS TO 2014 POST-UTME

2014 SCREENING EXERCISEENGLISH LANGUAGE 1.D 2.B 3.C 4.D 5.A 6.B 7.C 8.B 9.D 10.A 11. C 12.D

13.B 14.C 15.D 16.B 17.D 18.D 19.B 20.A 21.B 22.D

23.A 24.D 25.D

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE-IFE, NIGERIA.

2013 POST-UTMEENGLISH LANGUAGE. Passage All over the world till lately, and in most of the world still today, mankind has been following the course of nature that is to say, it has been breeding up to the maximum. To let nature take her extravagant course in the reproduction of the human race may have made sense in an age in which we were also letting her take her course in decimating mankind by the casualties of war, pestilence, and famine. Being human, we have at last revolted against that senseless waste. We have started to impose on nature‘s heartless play a humane new order of our own. But when once man has begun to interfere with nature, he cannot afford to stop half way. We cannot, with impunity, cut down the death rate and at the same time allow the birth-rate to go on taking nature‘s course. We must consciously try to establish equilibrium or, sooner or later, famine will stalk abroad again. Now answer the following questions.

1. The author observes that A. war, pestilence and famine

were caused by the extravagance of nature B. it was wise at a time when mankind did not interfere with normal production C. nature is heartless and senseless D. there was a time when uncontrolled birth made sense.

2. Which of these statements does not express the opinion of the author? A. many people had died in the past through want and disease B. mankind should not have the maximum number of children possible C. mankind has started to interfere with the work of nature D. Man‘s present relationship with nature in matters of birth and death is a happy one.

3. ‗humane‘ as used in the passage means A. wise B. human C. benevolent D. sensible

4. ‗We must consciously try to establish an equilibrium‘, in the passage implies that mankind must A. strive not to be wasteful B. realistically find an equation C. purposely find a balance D. deliberately try to fight nature

5. The main idea of this passage is that A. nature is heartless B. man should control the birth-rate C. man should change nature‘s course gradually D. pestilence causes more deaths than war.

In each of questions 6- 8, choose the option nearest in meaning to the word(s) or phrase in italics. 6. Nobody could say precisely when the landlord became

a recluse A. loner B. drunkard C. nincompoop D. cantankerous

7. If I had known his delicate state of mind, I would not have broached the matter A. told them B. divulged C. brought up D. cancelled

8. Don‘t talk like that; you know the Professor will not entertain such vituperative remarks A. irresponsible B. insulting C. angry D. illiterate

In each of questions 9-11, choose the most appropriate option opposite in meaning to the word or phrases in Italics. 9. He has been advised to beware of political jobbers if he

hopes to succeed A. neophytes B. masquerades C. stockbrokers D. masterminds

10. What a tangled web we weave, when we try to deceive! A. complicated B. crooked C. simple D. loose

11. She devoted too much time to the peripheral aspects A. superficial B. minor C. main D. real

In each 4 questions 12-16, fill each gap with the most appropriate option from the list provided. 12. My daughter would become _______ if I paid no

attention to her behaviour A. rhascally B. rhapsodically C. rascally D. rascality

13. When the soldiers saw that resistance was_____ they stopped fighting A. inadvertent B. futile C. inappropriate D. insurmountable

14. The last time the man saw his ex-wife, she _______ A. was thinking of a proposal of starting a new business B. was intending to start a new business C. intended to start a new business D. was going to start a new business.

15. Two days before the execution, the robber was taken to the place where he would be ____With doleful eyes, he looked at the spot where his execution___ A. hunged/was to be taken place B. hanging/shall take place C. hung/would take place D. hanged/was to take place

16. Don‘t ____!, said the leader, ‗I want a decision now A. prevaricate B. predicate C. precipitate D. be pejorative For question 17, choose the letter which contains the correct phonetic symbol in the underlined sounds below.

17. Women A. /l/ B. /e/ C. /ou/ D. /u/ For question 18, choose the word which contains the correct sound as given in each of the sound below.

18. /v/ A. off B. fan C. of D. four In each of questions 19 and 20, choose the option that best completes the gap(s)

19. The car owner does not think about the …………. of his vehicle and other payments involved in owning it A. transportation B. depreciation C. calculation D. appreciation

20. We shall offer a good job to a ………….. to register guests in the Central Hotel. A. waiter B. watchman C. cashier D. receptionist In questions 21 and 22, fill in the right word or phrase

21. There is not ……. sense in what that politician has just said. A. many B. plenty C. lot of D. much

22. I‘m sorry I can‘t give you any of the oranges, I have … left. A. few B. little C. only a little D. a few Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with appropriate preposition

23. Lawrence did not win the contract ……….. the long run A. at, B. in, C. on, D. to

24. Memuna was careful not to fall ……….. Ameen‘s tricks A. into B. for C. in D. with

25. The Commander had placed his troop ………….. alert A. in, B. on, C. at, D. over

ANSWERS TO ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2013


1.B 2.B 3.C 4.C 5.B 6.A 7.A8.B 9.A 10.C 11.C 12.C 13.D 14.B 15.C 16.A 17.A 18.C 19.B 20.D 21.D 22.D 23.B

24.B 25.B

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE-IFE, NIGERIA.

2012 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Choose the correct options to fill the gaps in the three questions below. 1. I don‘t understand what exactly you were saying. What

is the name of the subordinate clause in this sentence? (a) Adverbial Clause (b) Nominal Clause (c) Adjectival Clause (d) Interrogative Clause

2. Are you going to Lagos___your car? (a) with (b) in (c) through (d) by

3. Another name for a relative clause is _________ (a) Adverbial clause (b) Infinitive Clause (c) Adjectival Clause (d) Relational Clause

Choose from the options A-D the word or phrase that is nearest in meaning to the word underlined. 4. My efforts at making her to see my point were rebuffed.

(a) embraced (b) antagonized (c) snubbed (d) successful 5. He is a lout and can‘t be relied upon at all. (a) shifty (b)

thug (c) unserious (d) liar 6. The speech was delivered with great trepidation. (a) fear

(b) dexterity (c) power (d) creativity 7. He cannot hide his aversion for Kemi‘s unrepentant

behaviour. (a) Abhorrence (b) sadness (c) ignominy (d) moodiness

8. My sister is known by everybody to be scurrilous. (a) pleasant (b) vituperative (c) active (d) inactive

Choose from the options A-D the word opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

9. The criminal‘s answers to the questions during interrogation were evasive. (a) harsh (b) outspoken (c) clever (d) direct

10. I guess he is indifferent to our plans to rid Nigeria of societal ills. (a) interested in (b) bothered (c) opposed to (d) not interested in

11. The girl is very somber in her style of dressing. (a) solemn (b) pleasant (c) provocative (d) exposing

Select from the options A-D the correct meaning of the idiom underlined. 12. The manager behaved as if he had bats in the belfry. (a)

he was pleasant (b) he had strange ideas (c) he was speechless (d) he was angry

13. I learnt Agnes was off colour this morning. She was not in class. (a) busy somewhere else (b) not able to wake

up early enough (c) not in her right mind (d) not in good health

Fill in the spaces in the passage below with the appropriate words. One needs to observe the 14 of the 15 to

appreciate how interesting it can be. I witnessed a land 16 many years back. The 17 had 18 those who sold him a piece of land to court for 19 on his land. Appearing for the defendants the 20 argued that the land had been lying untouched for over thirty years and had become a hideout for social miscreants.

A B C D

14. Work proceedings hearing Working

15. Law document War Ruling

16. Quarrel Law Matter Case

17. Plaintiff defendant Accused criminal

18. Arrested Sued Fought prosecuted

19. Trespassing claiming Building working

20. legal luminary plaintiff Defence Counsel

Criminal

Choose from the options A-D the appropriate verb that best completes the following sentences. 21. Although she suffered a lot of hardship she still __(a)

gloated (b) glowed (c) flowed (d) splashed 22. Our plane _______ down at Aminu Kano international

Airport at exactly 12 midnight. (a) landed (b) descended (c) got (d) touched

23. The disease was _________ very rapidly in the community. (a) widening (b) catching people (c) spreading (d) raging

Choose from the options A-D the correct spelling. 24. (a)embaras (b) embarass (c) embarras (d) embarrass 25. (a) conterfit (b) contertiet (c) counterfeit (d)

counterteet

ANSWERS TO ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2012 1B 2A 3C 4B 5A 6A 7A 8B 9D 10A 11D 12B 13C 14B

15A 16D 17A 18B 19A 20C 21B 22B 23C 24D 25C

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY, ILE-IFE, NIGERIA

2011 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE -USE OF ENGLISH

Passage 1 The privilege of blackening one‘s stool is not granted to every dead chief or queen-mother without conditions. The honour is merited only on the fulfilment of certain conditions on the part of the occupant of a stool. The blackening of a king‘s stool is regarded as the greatest honour that could be conferred on a ruler; thus in many Akan states only the stools of kings who proved to be true leaders are blackened. No royal person‘s stool is reserved unless he died while still a ruler. A destooled chief is the last person whose memory anybody wants to keep fresh. He must have broken a taboo or committed a serious crime to merit his degradation. He may have committed adultery with his servants‘ wives; he may have bought and sold slaves, who are considered as heirlooms to the stool; he may have used the oath unreasonably; he may have cursed people. All these crimes can deprive a chief of his regal powers. Once this happens, he becomes, in the eyes of the people, more insignificant than a commoner who has no right whatever to be a chief. However, a chief may ‗die on the stool‘, and yet not have his stool blackened. This is so because one must die a ‗good death‘. Sudden death through an accident destroys the right to have one‘s stool blackened. So does death through an unusual disease like leprosy, lunacy, epilepsy and dropsy — which, if discovered in time, are causes for destoolment. The only exception here is death in war which magnifies one‘s fame and dignity. But even here, if it is found out that one fell when retreating, or running away, from the enemy, one is regarded as a treacherous and infamous leader who should be erased from all historical memory. A chief who suffered from an unclean disease, but got cured before dying, is said to have been engaged in a personal difficult war with the disease and emerged triumphant. Such a chief is worthy of respect. Suicide is, perhaps, one of the worst deaths a chief could undergo. Under no condition whatever will the stool of a ruler


who takes his own life, or is killed by a ‗fetish‘ be consecrated Answer the following questions on the passage 1. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

(a). it is entirely up to the chief whether or not his stool will eventually be blackened(b). it is partly up to him, partly due to circumstances beyond his control (c). it is entirely due to circumstances beyond his control (d). it depends entirely on people‘s opinion of him during his lifetime

2. A destooled chief can be correctly defined as (a). a chief who has committed crimes (b). a chief who was removed during his reign (c). a chief who has broken taboos (d). a chief who is more insignificant than a commoner

3. What is meant by ‗die on the stool‘? (a). dying a miserable and unworthy death (b). dying as a reigning ruler (c). dying while on stool in the palace (d). dying after a disease of stooling

4. Which of the following is the most suitable title for the passage? (a). reasons for destoolment (b). how to live a worthy life by an Akan ruler (c). an aspect of traditional custom of the Akan people (d). stool blackening by the royal personages

5. The most basic condition that qualifies anybody for stool darkening is (a). dying a worthy death (b). having being crowned as a ruler (c). being a ruler with tangible achievements(d).having respect for traditional customs

In the following sentences, choose the option that is most nearly opposite to the underlined word. 6. In any group there are people who display apathy (A.

enthusiasm B. patience C. respect D. tolerance). 7. Femi was very open about his ambition (A. silent B.

withdrawn C. closed D. secretive). 8. Angela is very indolent. (A. perfect B. devoted C.

diligent D. trustworthy). 9. Rather than support the chairman, Olu slept off. (A.

deny B. oppose C. doubt D. back). 10. Ngozi‘s beauty is natural (A. unnatural B. artificial

C. awkward D. fake). Passage 2

The passage below has gaps numbered 11 to 20. Immediately following each gap, four options are provided. Choose the most appropriate option for each gap. Coach Samson Siasia has asked that Heartland be paid their 11 salaries and 12 so as to 13 them to victory against Al-Ahly of Egypt in Sunday‘s all-important CAF Championships League match. Heartland are third in Group B with four points 14 as many matches and need to 15 defeat at second-placed Al-Ahly to stay in the 16 for a place in the semi-final of Africa‘s most prestigious club competition. Siasia told MTN Football.com

that the team would be better motivated if they at least receive their August salaries before the Al-Athly 17 . We have to make sure that they are paid their salaries 18 so that they could play the game of their lives. The government has done very well, but it will be a big morale 19 to get paid for them to go out there and play. Siasia informed MTNFootbafl.com that Heartland plan to employ the counter 20 to get a result in Cairo. 11. A. left over B. outstanding C. owed D. late 12. A. match bonuses B. match payments C. match wages

D. match fees 13. A. push B. instigate C. spur D. move 14. A. from B. in C. at D. with 15. A. afford B. annul C. avoid D. afford 16. A. focus B. centre C. running D. front 17. A. show B. showdown C. show up D.blow out 18. A to time B. for time C. as due D. as and when due 19. A. boomer B. inspirer C. booster D. pusher 20. A. attack B. attacker C. getter D. goal For questions 21 -23, choose the best options from letters a – d that best summarises the information contained in the underlined sentence. 21. In an answer to the question as to how life is treating

him, the politician said it never rains but it pours. a. things are getting decidedly worse. b. his financial status is deteriorating. c. the blessings of life shower on him like a heavy rain. d. he is contented with improved fortunes.

22. Camilla waited for her friend in the library for a good hour.a. Camilla enjoyed the sixty minutes she waited for her friend.b. When Camilla was waiting, she spent the time in a profitable way. c. Camilla waited for her friend rather more than sixty

minutes.d. It was good for Camilla to wait an hour for her friend.

23. This is your instruction and I have had no hand in it. From this sentence we know that the writer a. does not support the instruction b. is refusing to obey the instruction c. dislikes the person that issues the instruction d. is somehow happy with the instruction

For questions 24 and 25, choose the letter which contains the correct phonetic symbol in the underlined sounds below. 24. Plumb a. /m/ b. /b/ c. /ph/ d. /p/ 25. Women a. /I/ b. /e/ c. /ou/ d. /u/


1.A 2.B 3.B 4.C 5.C 6.D 7.D 8.B 9.B 10.B 11.B 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.C 16.D 17.B 18.D 19.C 20.A 21.D 22.B 23.A 24.A 25.A

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITYILE-IFE, NIGERIA

2010 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISETHE USE OF ENGLISH Choose the words that are closer in meaning to the words in initial positions.

1. Futile: (a) worthless (b) vain (c) dangerous (d) useless 2. Halt: (a) wait (b) fault (c) stop (d) stay 3. Virtuous: (a) seeing (b) good (c) upright (d) religious 4. renowned; (a) famous (b) popular (c) well read (d)

familiar 5. Solitary: (a) private (b) sultry (c) alone (d) lonely In each of questions 6 and 7, choose the option that

best completes the gap(s) 6. The car owner does not think about the ___ of his

vehicle and other payments involved in owning it. (a)

transportation (b) depreciation (c) calculation (d) appreciation

7. We shall offer a good job to a _____ to register guests in the Central Hotel.

(a) Waiter (b) watchman (c) cashier (d) receptionist In each of the questions 8 and 9, choose the option opposite in meaning to the word in italics. 8. Lola was agitated when the sad news of her mother‘s

accident was broken to her. (a) excited (b) calm (c) uncontrollable (d) unreasonable.


9. The president took exception to the ignoble role the young man played in the matter. (a) honourable (b) embarrassing (c) dishonourable (d) extraordinary

In each of questions 10 to 12, select the option that best explains the information conveyed in the sentence. 10. The crowd in the hall is intimidating (a) The crowd is

frightening (b) The crowd is angry (c) The crowd is overwhelming (d) The crowd is riotous

11. The events of last Friday show that there is no love lost between the Principal and the Vice-Principal. (a) They like each other (b) They work independently (c) They cannot part company (d) They dislike each other.

12. Adawo is an imp. (a) Adawo behaves badly (b) Adawo behaves decently (c) Adawo behaves differently (d) Adawo behaves queerly

In questions 13 and 14, select from the options to fill in the gaps

13. There is no _____ sense in what that politician has just said. (a) many (b) plenty (c) lot of (d) much

14. The candidate made _____ at the village square a day before the elections (a) a sermon (b) an address (c) a eulogy (d) a lecture (e) a speech

In each of Questions 15 to 17, choose the option that best completes the gap(s)

15. The city____ as a federal capital only ____the last twenty years. (a) existed/over (b) has existed/for (c) was existing/from (d) is existing/in

16. He is _____ Kaduna ______ an official assignment. (a) at/in (b) at/for (c) in/on (d) for/in

17. The members of the other team agree______all the terms of the contract. (a) on (b) by (c) to (d) with

In each of Questions 18 and 19, choose the word(s) or phrases which best fill(s) the gap(s)

18. After Jerry had made the bed, he___ on it. (a) layed (b) laid (c) lied (d) lay

19. The buildings damaged by the rainstorm _____ schools, hospitals and private houses. (a) included (b) include (c) were included (d) was including

In each of Questions 20 and 21 fill the gap(s) with the most appropriate option.

20. ______ any problems, I shall travel to London tomorrow on a business trip. (a) In spite of (b) Given (c) Barring (d) In case

21. ‗I can‘t stand people prying into my private life‘, Ladi said ‗______‘ agreed Agbemu. (a) Me either (b) Me too (c) I also (d) Likewise myself

In each of Questions 22 to 25, choose the option that has the same consonant sound as the one represented by the letter(s) underlined. 22. cheap: (a) machine (b) sheep (c) chip (d) chemist 23. School: (a) cool (b) chart (c) itch (d) leech 24. Pharmacy: (a) every (b) rough (c) plough (d) wave 25. happy: (a) our (b) eyes (c) honour (d) behind


1.A 2.C 3.C 4.A 5.C 6.B 7.D 8.B 9.C 10.A 11.D 12.A 13.D 14.B 15.B 16.C 17.C 18.D 19.B 20.C 21.B 22.C 23.A 24.B 25.D

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE IFE

2009 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISEUSE OF ENGLISH Comprehension Read the following passages carefully and answer the question that follows. Passage 1 The best acceptable definition of history is that it is a record of the past actions of mankind, based on surviving evidence. It is this evidence that the historian employs to chronicle and correlate events, by which he arrives at conclusions which he believes to be valid. Hence, the historian is referred to as an interpreter of the development of mankind. It should be understood that there is more than one way of treating the past. For example, in trying to deal with the revolutions in Nigeria, past and present, the historian may describe the events in a narrative order. Or, he may choose to concentrate on analysis of the general causes, comparing their stages of evolution with the patterns of revolution in other countries. The historian does not seek to attain the same kind of results as the scientist, who can verify his conclusions by repeating his experiment under controlled conditions. Whilst he also attempts to classify the phenomena, the historian is more likely to consider events in terms of their uniqueness. Added to this is the fact that history is concerned, fundamentally, with the lives and actions of men, and as such, the historian‘s search for causes is bound to be relatively subjective as compared to that by the scientist. In essence, however, historians are agreed and insist that history should be written as scientifically as possible and that the evidence should be analyzed with the same objective attitude employed by the scientist when he examines certain phenomena of nature. 1. History could be defined as (a) a record of the evolution

of a country (b) a record of development of mankind (b) a record of the present actions of mankind based on surviving evidence (d) a record of the past action of mankind based on surviving evidence.

2. According to the passage, one of the duties of a historian is (a) to predict the future (b) to analyze the past and future (c) to explain the significance of past events (d) to interpret the development of mankind

3. How can history be scientifically recorded? (a) by examining available evidence and analyzing unusual occurrences (b) by falsifying and fabricating available facts (c) by speculating on what was and ought to have been (d) by concealing some of the evidence.

4. The scientist tends to be more reliable than a historian because (a) he works in a laboratory (b) he is better

qualified (c) he can crosscheck his results several times (d) he has more time to work at his experiments.

5. According to the passage, a historian should try to examine a material (a) scientifically (b) subjectivity (c) accurately (d) objectively.

Passage 2 From the apex of the Niger Delta southwards, dry land, overgrown with dense forests still virginal in various spots, gives way to seasonally inundated zones. Here, sweet water swamps with strands of raffia palms gradually merge into tidal swamps of brackish ooze, where mud skippers thrive under the arching roots of mangroves. The Niger, fingering through a thousand creeks, meets the sea in a dozen estuaries. Strong River current drifts and mud across the rivers mouths, sealing them again and again to navigation. 6. According to the passage, how would you describe a

seasonally inundated zone? (a) a zone always covered with mud (b) a zone always covered with shallow water


(c) a zone under water at certain times of the year (d) a zone subject to heavy rain every season.

7. What is brackish ooze? (a) a strong river current (b) a mixture of fresh water and mud (c) a mixture of fresh water and salt water (d) fresh and clear water

8. Where do mudskippers thrive? (a) in the creeks (b) in the swamps (c) in the mangroves (d) in the roots

9. Where does the Niger meet the sea? (a) in the creeks (b) in the Delta (c) in the swamps (d) in the forest

10. ‗Fingering through‘ as used in the passage means (a) cutting across (b) passing through (c) cutting between (d) passing between

Lexis and Structure In each of the following sentences, there is one word underlined and one gap. From the list of words lettered (a)-(e), choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word underlined and which will appropriately fill the gap in the sentence. (11-15). 11. She was a very proficient hairdresser but had little

aptitude for sewing in which she was… (a) new (b) unskilled (c) unlearned (d) ignorant (e) awkward

12. A metal will expand when it is heated and….. when it cools (a) shorten (b) lesser (c) contract (d) congeal (e) curtail

13. Athletes wishing to get rid of their… and get more energy should take more exercise (a) fat (b) oxygen (c) lethargy (d) trainers (e) espots

14. If you do not accept the offer of a job in the secretariat within the next one week, we shall assume you have… it. (a) denied (b) refused (c) deprived (d) left (e) lost

15. The political aspirant asked the villagers to support him and not to… his authority in anyway (a) deny (b) undermine (c) defy (d) despite (e) attack

From the list of words lettered a-e below each of the following sentences, choose the one which is nearest in meaning to the underlined word, as it is used in the sentence (Nos. 16-20).

16. After finishing the 800 metres race, he fell asleep from exhaustion (a) weakness (b) fatigue (c) overwork (d) eagerness (e) sloth

17. The footballers went back to their camp sullenly (a) cheekily (b) quickly (c) stubbornly (d) resentfully (e) silently

18. After Warri, on our way to Benin, we passed through a dense forest (a) crowded (b) close (c) thick (d) heavy (e) wooded

19. Last night there was a very fierce rain storm (a) raging (b) storming (c) angry (d) violent (e) ferocious

20. The examiners said that the candidate‘s performance in the examination was not good enough (a) failure (b) achievement (c) E-marks (d) presentation (e) marks

In each of the following question, fill each gap with the appropriate option from the list. Following exercises express different times by using different tenses. From the options suggested, choose any one that best suits each context

21. The editor was not happy that the Nigeria press was hemmed… (a) up (b) across (c) in (d) over (e) sideway

22. More… to your elbow as you campaign for press freedom! (a) energy (b) power (c) effort (d) grease (e) kinetic

23. A child that shows mature characteristics at an early age may be descried as… (a) precocious (b) ingenious (c) premature (d) preconceived

24. That is a very terrible woman; everyday she makes a lot of noise about one thing or the other. I‘m not surprised, that‘s what her sisters… too (a) are used to doing (b) do (c) always used to do (e) are doing

25. Sir, I‘m not lying about the matter, I know nothing of it. If I knew, (a) I must tell you (b) I can tell you (c) I would tell you (d) I shall tell you.

ANSWERS TO ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2009 1.D 2.D 3.A 4.C 5.D 6.B 7.C 8.C 9.A 10.A 11.B 12.C 13A 14E 15.D 16.B 17.E 18.C 19.D 20.E 21.C 22.B 23.A 24.B 25.C


2008 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISE ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Read the following passage and answer the questions based on it Why should an artist attempt to concentrate his experience of life in a unique work of art? No final answer can be given, but two possible reasons suggest themselves. Man seems always to have preferred order to disorder. His whole progress on earth has been a struggle to this end. Everything he has done, from the creation of vast empires to the growing of small gardens, has been a triumph, in greater or lesser degree, of order over chaos. To help control his own thought, the sudden surprises of his limitless mind, he has had to invent Language. As each new thing appears, whether it be an idea or an object, he gives it a name and thus brings it into line with the things he already understands. And he has invented for himself more than one kind of language. There is a language of painting, a language of architecture, or mathematics- to name but three each has its own special symbols, its own form of logic; and each enables him to express some of the myriad thoughts that crowd his mind. high among the languages of man is the language of music. 1. Through his struggles man has achieved (a) the return

of a state of utter confusion (b) the complete destruction of vast empires (c) the growth of disorder from order (d) the transformation of order out of chaos

2. Man invent the Language because (a) it helped to organize his thoughts and unceasing ideas (b) there was little he could do at the time to diversify his talents (c) he already had control over his mind and its countless ideas (d) it was a method or realizing his position as a Supreme Being.

3. By naming objects or ideas, man was able to (a) comprehend less and less the things around and about him (b) clarify things and correlate them wit facts

already known (c) allow an area of complete confusion to develop in language (d) make visual impressions for more important than ever before.

4. The various language can be identified by (a) their use of the same marks or signs and system of logic (b) the manner in which their logic agrees and their symbolism is similar. (c) the endings of the various symbols and their simplified logic (d) their own science of reasoning and their peculiar marks or signs

5. The work ―myriad‖ (line 11) as used in the context means (a) terrible (b) mysterious (c)frequent (d) multitude


In each of question 6-10, there is a gap. Complete the gaps with appropriate item from the options A-D under sentence. 6. If you try to write without having a clear idea, you often

end up just ______ without saying anything very meaningful. (a) drooling (b) boasting (c) gambling (d) rambling

7. The four of you should share the remainder _____ you.(a) among (b) around (c) between (d) within

8. I have no doubt that Enyimba will _______Oaks next Saturday. (a) flog (b) whip (c) win (d) beat

9. ―You need not go ______ down the road before you notice a huge white building on the road‖, the man said. (a) inside (b) farther (c) further (d) deep

10. If your writing lacks coherence, your reader will just find something else to read or ______ the television. (a) tune in (b) turn on (c) switch up (d) open.

Choose the appropriate option to complete the following: 11. The President promised a higher allocation to the

education sector in this year‘s budget, ______ (a) isn‘t he? (b) did he? (c) didn‘t he? (d) doesn‘t he?

12. This picture is ascribedto Leonardo da Vinci. This means that _______ (a) Leonardo da Vinci painted it (b) Leonardo da Vinci might have painted it (c) Leonardo da Vinci definitely painted it (d) Leonardo da Vinci did part of the painting.

13. The Principal‘s reference to the cane ________ the boy with much mental uneasiness. (a) inflicted (b) assaulted (c) afflicted (d) insulted

14. The government‘s envoy had left the country again in his latest round of trouble shooting. The underlined expression means (a) trip marring efforts (b) troublesome efforts. (c) peacemaking efforts (d) trouble making efforts

15. His three sons, Sanmi, Chukwu and Collins are eleven, nine and seven _______ (a) respectively (b) respectedly (c) succeedingly (d) successively.

16. As the examination progressed, it was observed that more and more candidates stared into space. this means many candidates (a) looked into the sky (b) looked straight for long but to nothing in particular (c) looked through the window for would-be helpers (d) tried to ensure that the spaces, between them were well maintained.

17. Hundreds of car went _ us before we were given a ride to the campus. (a) pasted (b) past (c) passed (d) by

18. You told me that Johnson is your trusted friend, why did you not stand up for him during his trial? (a) defend (b) ridicule (c) pity (d) disown.

19. When you pronounce the word university, how many sounds could you perceive? (a) 5 (b) 4 (c)10 (d)

ANSWERS TO ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2008 1.D 2.A 3.A 4.C 5.D 6.D 7.A 8.C 9.B 10.B 11.C 12.A 13.A 14.C 15.A 16.B 17.C 18.A 19.A

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE IFE 2007 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISEENGLISH LANGUAGE

Fill in the blanks in the following sentences making use of one of the four options in the letters A-D 1. They ________ arrived Lagos by now, all things being

equal (a) had (b) must (c) might have (d) would have 2. The pupils ________ so much noise that the teacher

had to tell them to stand up and raise up their hands (a) had been making (b) should have made (c) were making (d) had made

3. I ______that he was insincere all along (a) could know (b) must know (c) should have known (d) may have known

4. If I had gone to Lokoja, I ____the opportunity of seeing the President (a) should not have had (b) must not have had (c) would not have had (d) should not have

Choose the preposition that best fills the gaps in the following sentences

5. My sister does not have flair _____Mathematics (a) at (b) at (c) with (d) for

6. When I got to her house, she was still _____ bed (a) in (b) on (b) on the (d) in the

7. During the demonstration, the anti-riot policemen were instructed to break _____ the students‘ defence line (a) off (b) open (c) through (d) down

8. I was ______ hearing distance of the speaker (a) at (b) in (c) on (d) within

From the words labeled A-D in numbers 9 to 20, choose the one that best completes each of the following sentences

9. The electricity cable had to be ________ enough to be laid along the bend in the road (a) elastic (b) taut (c) compliment (d) flexible

10. We didn‘t have a lot of money, so I had to live quite ______(a) niggardly (b) frugally (c) wastefully (d) grudgingly

11. I acted too impetuously, I do not know what _____ me (a) came along (b) came over (c) came at (d) came on

12. The hurricane raged for several days, learning a trial of _______ across the land (a) destruction (b) depoilation (d) desperation (d) demolition

13. If a player breaks the rules during a match, one point will be ________ to his opponent (a) adjourned (b) credited (c) debited (d) allied

14. Mouse-traps are not always very effective, as some mice prove to be remarkably ________ (a) inaccessible (b) perpetual (c) inconspicuous (d) elusive

15. At the frontier he hid the watches in his pocket in order to __customs duty (a) evade (b) incur (c) repel (d) deceive

16. The driver was short of petrol, so he _______ down all the hills with the engine switched off (a) glided (b) cut (c) wheeled (d) coasted

17. Everyone in my family has a job. My mother is s teacher; my father is an engineer, and my granny ________ (a) used to sell roast chicken (b) is selling roast chicken (c) has roast chicken (d) sells roast chicken

18. One curious thing about my uncle is that he wishes ______ (a) he is having eight wives (b) he had eight wives (c) he can have eight wives (d) he can be allowed to have eight wives

19. I‘m afraid, you know. My father has been sleeping since 4:00p.m yesterday. It‘s about time _________ (a) to wake up (b) he wakes (c) he woke up (d) he‘s awake

20. Are you deaf? I asked you _________ (a) how old you were (b) how old are you (c) how old is your age (d) what is your age

21. What is a sentence? (a) it is a made up of words (b) it is made up of phrases and clauses (c) it is a group of words giving a complete sense (d) it can be simple or complex


22. What is a clause? (a) it is made up of words (b) it is made up of sentences (c) it is made up of phrases (d) it is a group of words containing a finite verb

23. What is a phrase? (a) it is a group of words containing a finite verb (b) it is a group of words giving a complete sense (c) it is a group of words not containing a finite verb (d) it usually begins with a preposition or a participle

24. An example of a finite verb is (a) going to school every day (b) given his position as the principal (c) while going to school (d) while they were going to school

25. What is tense? (a) it has to do with present, past and future times (b0 it is a correspondence between the form of the verb and the concept of time (d) it is a derived from the Latin word ―transpire‖ (e) it is a controversial topic in linguistics

26. What is aspect? (a) it is the manner in which the verbal action is experienced or regarded (b) it reflects the attitude or mood of the speaker (c) it is made up of

progressive and perfective forms (d) it is normally joined together with tense

27. What are ―minor sentences‖? (a) they are complete sentences (b) they are incomplete statements (c) they are incomplete statements but normally function as sentences (d) they are used by writers for economical purposes

28. In measuring one‘s linguistics competence in a particular language, itemize four sentence types that one needs to master (a) simple, complex-multiple, difficult and more difficult (b) simple, complex, compound and compound-complex (c) simple, more simple, difficult, more difficult (d) rational, more rational, logical and more logical.


1.D 2.C 3.C 4.C 5.D 6.A 7.C 8.A 9.B 10.B 11.B 12.A 13.B 14.D 15.A 16.A 17.D 18.C 19.C 20.A 21.C 22.D 23.C 24.A 25.B 26.B 27.C 28.B


2006 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISE ENGLISH LANGUAGE

From the words lettered A-E, choose the word that is alike in meaning to the word underlined. 1. Andrew made some bellicose statement about his

strength to other boys in the street. This means that Andrew (a) is a brave man (b) wishes to fight (c) is a coward (d) loves to help others with his power (e) has a lot of power

2. The excuse that he forgot about the meeting was a flimsy one. This means the excuse was (a) very bad (c) a complete lie (c) difficult to believe (d) not important (d) a very good one.

3. Scrupulous politicians do not have a place in the Nigerian politics. Scrupulous politicians are (a) honest (b) dishonest (c) corrupt (d) good-natured (e) insincere

4. The woman was happy because her gorgeous dressing made her quite obtrusive. The woman was very (a) appreciated (b) proud (c) good (d) noticeable (d) excellent

5. The man is known to be a sly. I won‘t trust him with anything. This means the man is known as a (a) deceiver (b) thief (c) kidnapper (d) rogue (e) burglar

From the alternatives suggested, select the answer that best expresses the same meaning as the expression italicized in each exercise. 6. Don‘t take the plate away; it is possible for the owner

to ask for it. (a) the owner might (b) the owner can (c) the owner is going to (d) the owner will come to (e) none of them

7. I wonder if you would allow me to put out the fire (a) I might (b) I can (c) I should (d) I have to (e) all of them

8. When your great-grandmother was in Vietnam, did she have the ability to speak Chinese? (a) had she been able (b) was she enabled (c) could she (d) how possible was it for her (c) none of them.

9. I know a carpenter that knows how to make that kind of wardrobe (a) could (b) has the-know-how (c) can (d) can be able (e) may be able to

10. Frances, where is your male visitor? Don‘t lie to me, it is not possible that he has gone through the high window (a) he couldn‘t have (b) he can‘t have (c) he shouldn‘t (d) he mustn‘t have (e) none of them

11. My father made no bones about telling his friend how he felt about his behavior. This means that my father (a) spoke well to his friend about his behavior (b) spoke

honestly to this friend about his behavior (c) spoke in the open to his friend about his behavior (d) spoke hesitantly to his friend about his behavior (e) spoke with all his might to his friend about his behavior.

12. After much talk, my brother thought it was time to hit the hay. This means that my brother thought it was time to (a) make hay while the sun shines (b) burn the collection of hay (c) go to bed (d) keep quiet (e) tell the others off

13. The housemaster was foaming in the mouth when he discovered that some students had sneaked out of the hostel. This means the house master (a) was very sad (b) had epilepsy (c) became silent and calculative (d) was uncontrollably furious (e) was jittery

14. Who told Mabel she could sing? She really laid an egg at the talent show. This means (a) Mabel‘s performance was very embarrassing (b) Mabel‘s performance was very interesting (c) Mabel‘s performance was very impressive (d) Mabel‘s performance was not very bad (e) Mabel‘s performance was like that of a hen laying an egg.

15. Mr. Johnson is on the warpath because his car broke down again. This means Mr. Johnson is (a) ready to fight his mechanic (b) started fighting the government because the road was bad (c) very infuriated (d) fighting a war with his family in the car (e) drawing a battle in between him and his mechanic

For questions 16-20, choose among the options A-E the word that is nearest in meaning to the italicized words in each of the sentences. 16. The President announced that all political prisoners

have been pardoned. (a) condemned (b) severely rebuked (c) banished (d) reprieved (e) released

17. He resented being criticized every time by his boss (a) preferred (b) abhorred (c) ignored (d) carefully considered (e) enjoyed

18. The most striking thing about the just-concluded World-Cup Finals in Germany was the complete eclipse of the defending champion-Brazil (a) sudden disappearance (b) defeat (c) failure (d) brilliant performance (e) arrogance

19. As he watched the winning film his face remained inscrutable (a) unreadable (b) pale (c) unfriendly (d) impossible to please (e) bright


20. His latest album has done much to boost his reputation as a writer (a) increase (b) establish (c) nourish (d) destroy (e) decrease

For question 21-25, choose from the option A-E the word or phrase opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 21. The doctor certified the tumour malignant (a) benign

(b) ripe (c) painless (d) dangerous (e) slow 22. Andrew is too garrulous for my liking (a) dull (b)

apathetic (c) laconic (d) easygoing (e) dumb 23. The man holds parochial views on almost every issues

(a) rational (b) realistic (c) popular (d) broad-minded (e) sensible

24. Your idea on this issue seems to me quite novel (a) bookish (b) dangerous (c) archaic (d) genuine (e) good

25. The people appreciated the chairman for his invaluable contributions to the community‘s development (a) worthless (b) costly (c) unrecognized (d) incalculable (e) meaningless

26. Which of the following statements is true with regard to summary writing? (a) details are more important than main ideas (b) main ideas are more important than examples (c) illustrations are more important than main ideas (d) elaborations, exemplifications and details are more important than main idea (e) none of the above

Choose the appropriate option to complete the following: 27. At the crusade, we prayed to God to _________ this

on us (a) breath His breathe (b) breathe His breath (c) breathe His breathe (d) breath His breath

28. The chairman, Committee of Deans needs to see your friend Dele urgently, do you know his _________? (a) where and about (b) whereabouts (c) whereabout (d) where and abouts

29. ―As from now, this university will have zero tolerance for any form of malpractice‖, so the Vice-Chancellor. The Vice-Chancellor said that (a) as from then, that university would have zero tolerance for any form of malpractice (b) as from now, this university would have zero tolerance for any form of malpractice (c) as from the, his university will have zero tolerance for any form of malpractice (d) as from then, that university would begin to have zero tolerance for any form of malpractice.

30. The teacher took me for one of those students who could not spell such words as (a) ‗miscellaneous and maintenance‘ (b) ‗miscellaneous and maintenance‘ (c) ‗miscellaneous and maintenance‘ (d) ‗miscellaneous and maintenance‘

31. God should take control of the heart of the organizers of this Post-UME screening exercise, they should not make this test _________than UME (a) more tough (b) more tougher (c) much tougher (d) more much tougher. ANSWERS TO ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2006

1.B 2.C 3.D 4.B 5.A 6.A 7.C 8.C 9.D 10.A 11.B 12.C

13.D 14.C 15.C 16.D 17.B 18.D 19.A 20.A 21.A 22.E

23.D 24.C 25.A 26.B 27.B 28.B 29.A 30.C 31.C

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE-IFE, NIGERIA 2015 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

MATHEMATICS

1. The probability of an event A given by P(A) is a number between (a) -1 and 1 (b) 0 and ½ (c) 0 and 1 (d) -1 and 0.

2. Noting that, sin2θ + cos2θ = 1, simplify 1−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃

𝑠𝑖𝑛 2𝜃

(a) 1

1+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 (b)

1

1−𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 (c)

1

1+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 (d)

1

1−𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃

3. A circle has an eccentricity (a) < 1 (b) 1 (c) > 1 (d) 0.

4. It two elements A and B are independent then P(A and B) is (a) P(A ∩ B) (b) (A B) (c) P(A)

(d) P(B).

5. Simplify 3𝑛+3− 3𝑛+2

3𝑛+1 −3𝑛 (a) -9 (b) 9

(c) 10 (d) -10. 6. Noting that cos∝ = 90−∝ ,find y in terms of x in

the equation cos 1 +1

2𝑥 = sin

3

2𝑦 (a) y =

178+𝑥

3 (b) y =

𝑥−178

3 (c)

178−𝑥

3 (d)

−(178+𝑥)

3.

7. For what values of x is x–1< – 1? (a) 0 < x < 1 (b) x < -1, x > 0 (c) x > 1, x < 0 (d) -1 < x < 0.

8. In how many ways can the letters of the word NWAFOR be permuted? (a) 7200 (b) 72 (c) 720 (d) 72000.

9. If ∝, 𝛽 are the roots of equation 18 + 15x – 3x2 = 0, find ∝ 𝛽 – ∝ − 𝛽 (a) 11 (b) -11 (c) 10 (d) -10.

10. Resolve 1

(1−𝑥2) into partial fractions (a)

1

2(1+𝑥)−

1

2(1−𝑥) (b)

1

2(1+𝑥)+

1

2(𝑥−1) (c)

1

2(𝑥+1)+

1

2(1−𝑥) (d)

1

2(1−𝑥2)

11. Given that the sum of infinity 𝑆∞ = a + ar + ar2 +

….. = 𝑎

1−𝑟 , to what sum does the infinite series 1 –

2

3+

4

9−

8

27+ ⋯ coverage (a) -

3

5 (b)

5

3 (c) −

5

3

(d) 3

5

12. What is the value of x for which x2 – 5x + 6 is

minimum? (a) 5

2(b) −

5

2 (c) 3 (d) -3.

13. Integrate 5x4 + e-x with respect to x (a) −𝑒−𝑥 +5𝑥 + 𝑘 (b) 𝑒−𝑥 + 𝑥5 + 𝐾 (c) −𝑒−𝑥 − 𝑥−5 + 𝐾 (d) −𝑒−𝑥 + 𝑥4 + 𝐾.

14. If X = {2, 3, 6, 7, 8} and Y = {6, 7, 10, 3, 17}, find Y – {X Y). (a) { } (b) {10, 17} (c) {2, 3, 6, 7, 8,

10, 17} (d) {3, 6, 7}.

15. Find the angle in the line 1

3𝑦 − 𝑥 = 0 makes with

positive y-axis (a) 300 (b) 600 (c) 00 (d) 450. 16. Find the value of p which satisfies the equation

𝑃 − 6

𝑝 = 1 (a) 4 (b) -4 (c) 9 (d) -9.

17. Find the area of circle 4x2 + 4y2 – 400 = 0 (a) 10𝜋 𝑠𝑞. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 (b) 40𝜋 𝑠𝑞.𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 (c) 400𝜋 𝑠𝑞.𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 (d) 100𝜋 𝑠𝑞. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠.

18. Let the mean of x, y-1, z5 be 6 find the mean of 10, y-1, 12, x z5. (a) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (d) 10.


19. What is the addition of y and x- intercepts of the

line 2

3+

3

2𝑦 + 9 = 0? (a) -19.5 (b) 19.5 (c) 20.5

(d) -20.5 20. Given that h(x) = 3 + 2x and f(x) = 1 – x, find h(–

f (x)). (a) 1 – 2x (b) 1 + 2x (c) 2x – 1 (d) -1 – 2x.

21. Find the value of k in the equation 5

5 2− 8 =

𝑘 2 (a) 4/3 (b) ¾ (c) -3/4 (d) -4/3.

22. Evaluate ∫ 3𝑥 𝑙𝑜𝑔3𝑑𝑥1

0 (a) 3 (b) 4

(c) 1 (d) 2. ANSWERS TO 2015 POST-UTME SCREENING

EXERCISE 1. C

2. 1−cos 𝜃

𝑠𝑖𝑛 2𝜃

Recall that: sin2θ + cos2 θ = 1 sin2θ = 1 – cos2 θ 1−cos 𝜃

1− 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2𝜃

But 1 – cos2 θ = (1 – cos θ)(1 + cos θ)

1 1−cos 𝜃

1− 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2𝜃

= 1−cos 𝜃

(1−cos 𝜃 )(1+𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃)

= 1

1+𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃Ans:A

3. D 4. A

5. 3𝑛+3− 3𝑛+2

3𝑛+1 −3𝑛 = 3𝑛 𝑋 33−3𝑛𝑋 32

3𝑛 𝑋 31− 3𝑛 =

3𝑛+3− 3𝑛+2

3𝑛 (3−1)

= 3𝑛𝑋 32𝑋 2

3𝑛 𝑋 2 = 32 = 9 Ans:B

6. cos 1 +1

2𝑥 = sin

3

2𝑦

But cos = sin (90 – )

= cos 1 +1

2𝑥 = sin [90 − 1 +

1

2𝑥 ]

Cos 1 +1

2𝑥 = sin

3

2𝑦

= sin 90 − 1 + 1

2𝑥 = sin(

3

2𝑦)

= 90 − 1 + 1

2𝑥 =

3

2𝑦

= 90 − 2+𝑥

2𝑥 =

3

2𝑦

Multiply through by 2 180 – (2 + x) = 3y 180 – 2 – x = 3y 178 – x = 3y y = 1/3 (178 – x)

y = 178−𝑥

3 Ans: C

7. 𝑥−1 =< −1

1

𝑥< −1

Multiply through by 𝑥2

1

𝑥𝑋 𝑧𝑥2 < −1 𝑋 𝑥2

𝑥 < −𝑥2 𝑥 + 𝑥2 < 0 𝑥 1 + 𝑥 < 0 𝑥 = 0 𝑜𝑟 1 + 𝑥 = 0 𝑥 = 0 𝑜𝑟 − 1

Factor

x < – 1

– 1 < x < 0

x > 0

x

1 + x

-ve

-ve

-ve

+ve

+ve

+ve

x(1 + x) +ve -ve +ve

Since 𝑥(1 + 𝑥) <

0 (𝑖. 𝑒. 𝑛𝑒𝑔𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒) 𝑡𝑕𝑒 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑓 𝑡𝑕𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑖𝑠 – 1 < 𝑥 < 0 Ans: D 8. The word NWAFOR has six (6) distinct letters.

n = 6

The number of ways of arranging n distinct object is n! No of ways = n! = 6! = 720 Ans: C

9. 18 + 15𝑥 – 3𝑥2 = 0 a = – 3, b = 15, c = 18

𝛼 + 𝛽 = −𝑏

𝑎=

−15

−3= 5

𝛼𝛽 = 𝑐

𝑎=

18

−3= −6

𝛼𝛽 − 𝛼 − 𝛽 = 𝛼𝛽 − 𝛼 + 𝛽 = –6 – (5) = – 11 Ans:B

10. 1

1−𝑥2

𝐵𝑢𝑡 1 – 𝑥2 = (1 – 𝑥)(1 + 𝑥) 1

1−𝑥2 = 1

(1−𝑥)(1+𝑥) .

A linear factor of the form ax + b always gives a

partial fraction of 𝐴

𝑎𝑥 _𝑏

1

(1−𝑥)(1+𝑥)=

𝐴

1−𝑥+

𝐵

1+𝑥

1

(1−𝑥)(1+𝑥)

= 𝐴 1+𝑥 +𝐵(1−𝑥)

(1−𝑥)(1+𝑥)

1 = A(1 + x) + B(1 – x) Let x = 1 1 = A(1 + 1) + B(1 – 1) 1 = 2A + B(0) 1 = 2A A = ½

𝐿𝑒𝑡 𝑥 = – 1 1 = A(-1 + 1) + B[1 – (-1)] 1 = A(0) + B(1 + 1) B = ½

1

(1−𝑥)(1+𝑥)=

𝐴

1−𝑥+

𝐵

1+𝑥

= 1

2

1−𝑥+

1

2

1+𝑥

1

2(1−𝑥)+

1

2(1+𝑥)

= 1

(1−𝑥)(1+𝑥)=

1

1−𝑥2 = 1

2(1−𝑥)+

1

2(1+𝑥) Ans: C

11. 1 −2

3+

4

9−

8

27+ ⋯

T1 = 1, T2 = −2

3, 𝑇3 =

4

9

For a given series to be an A.P 𝑇2 − 𝑇1 = 𝑇3 − 𝑇2 For a given series to be a G.P

𝑇2

𝑇1=

𝑇3

2

The series is a G.P

r = 𝑇2

𝑇1=

−2

3

1

r = −2

3

𝑆∞ =𝑎

1−𝑟

a = T1 = 1


𝑆∞ =1

1− −23

=1

1

1+

2

3

= 1

3+2

3

=15

3

= 3

5 Ans: D

12. 𝐿𝑒𝑡 𝑦 = 𝑥2 – 5𝑥 + 6 Minimum and maximum are turning point. At

turning 𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑥= 0

𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑥 = 2𝑥 − 5 = 0

2𝑥 – 5 = 0

x = 5

2 Ans: A

13. ∫(5𝑥4 + 𝑒−𝑥)𝑑𝑥

= 5𝑥4+1

4+1+ −𝑒−𝑥 + 𝑐

5𝑥5

5− 𝑒−𝑥 + 𝑐

= 𝑥5 − 𝑒𝑥 + 𝑐 ∫(5𝑥4 + 𝑒𝑥 + 𝑥5 + 𝑐 𝐀𝐧𝐬: 𝑨

14. X = {2, 3, 6, 7, 8} Y = {6, 7, 10, 3, 17} The intersect of two sets X and Y is a set that contain elements that are common to both sets.

𝑋 ∩ 𝑌 = {3,6,7} The difference of two sets A and B (i.e. A – B) is a set, which contain only elements that are formed in set A but not in set B. Y – (𝑋 ∩ 𝑌) = {6, 7, 10, 3, 17} – {3, 6, 7} = {10, 17} Y – (𝑋 ∩ 𝑌) = {10, 17} Ans: B

15. 1

3𝑦 − 𝑥 = 0

𝑦

3− 𝑥 = 0

Multiply through with 3

y – x 3 = 0

y = x 3 Divide through by 𝑥 𝑦

𝑥=

3

1

but tan θ = 𝑦

𝑥=

3

1

θ = tan-1 ( 3) = 600 The angle 600 is the angle the line makes with the positive x-axis

0

y

x

B

Θ + 𝛽 = 90 60 + 𝛽 = 90 𝛽 = 90 − 60 𝛽 = 300

Note that the angle the line 1

3𝑦 − 𝑥 = 0 makes

with the positive y-axis is given by tan 𝛽 =𝑥

𝑦Ans:

A

16. 𝑃 − 6

𝑝= 1

Multiply through by 𝑃

P – 6 = 𝑃

Square both side (P – 6)2 = ( 𝑃)2 P2 – 12P + 36 = P P2 – 12P – P + 36 = 0

P = 9 or 4 Check to see if 9 or 4 satisfied the equation

𝑃 −6

𝑃= 1

When P = 9

9 −6

𝑃= 1

3 −6

3= 1

3 – 2 = 1 1 = 1 Hence the value p = 9 satisfied the equation when p = 4

4 −6

4= 1

2 −6

2= 1

2 – 3 = 1 -1 1

Hence the value p = 4 does not satisfy the equation ∴ 𝑝 = 9Ans: C

17. 4x2 + 4y2 – 400 = 0 Divide through by 4 x2 + y2 – 100 = 0 x2 + y2 = 100 x2 + y2 + 102……………(i) The general equation of a circle is given by x2 + y2 = r2 ………………………….(ii) From equation i and ii 𝑟2= 102 r = 10 Area of a circle (A) = 𝜋r2 A = 𝜋(10)2 A = 100𝜋 Ans:D

18. 𝑥 = 𝑥

𝑛

For the numbers: x, y-1& z5

𝑥 = 𝑥+𝑦−1+𝑧5

3= 6

x + y-1 + z5 = 3 x 6 = 18 x + y-1 + z5 = 18……………………(i)

𝑥 = 𝑥

𝑛

For the numbers: 10, y-1, 12, x, z5

𝑥 =10+𝑦−1+12+𝑥+𝑦5

5

𝑥 =10+12+𝑥+𝑦−1+𝑦5

5

But x + y-1 + z5 = 18

𝑥 =10+12+18

5

𝑥 =40

5= 8 Ans: B

19. 2

3+

3

2𝑦 + 9 = 0?

2𝑥

3+

3𝑦

2= −9

4𝑥+9𝑦

6= −9

4x + 9x = -9 x 6 Divide through by 36 4𝑥

36+

9𝑦

36=

−9𝑋6

36

𝑥

9+

𝑦

4=

−3

2

Multiply through by 2

3

2

3𝑥

𝑥

9+

2

3𝑥

𝑦

4=

−3

2𝑥

2

3

2𝑥

27+

𝑦

6= −1

Multiply through by -1


−2𝑥

27+

𝑦

6= −1

The above equation can be written as shown below

−𝑥

27

6

−𝑦

6= 1 ………… . (𝑖)

The double intercept form of the equation of a straight line is 𝑥

𝑎+

𝑦

𝑏= 1 …………… (𝑖𝑖)

a = −27

2,𝑏 = −6

a + b = −27

2−

6

1

= −27−12

2

= −39

2 = -19.5 Ans: A

20. h(x) = 3 + 2x f(x) = 1 – x = - (x – 1) -f(x) = -[(x – 1)] = x – 1 h[- f(x)] = h(x – 1) = 3 + 2(x – 1) = 3 + 2x – 2 h[-f(x)] = 2x + 1 Ans: B

21. 5

5 2− 8 = 𝑘 2

= 5

5 2− 2 2 = 𝑘 2

Multiply through by 2 2

5 – 2 2 2 2 = 2 2(𝑘 2)

5 – 4 (2) = 2k(2) 5 – 8 = 4k -3 = 4k k = -3/4Ans: C

22. ∫ 3𝑥 𝑙𝑜𝑔3𝑑𝑥1

0

∫ 3𝑥 𝑙𝑜𝑔3𝑑𝑥1

0

∫ 3𝑥 𝑙𝑜𝑔 3𝑒 𝑑𝑥1

0

= ∫ 3𝑥 𝐼𝑛 3 𝑑𝑥1

0

= ∫ 𝑎𝑥𝐼𝑛 𝑎 𝑑𝑥 =0

𝑎𝑥

∫ 3𝑥𝐼𝑛 3 𝑑𝑥 = [3𝑥 ]011

0

= 31 − 30 = 3 – 1 = 2 Ans: D

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE-IFE,

NIGERIA 2014 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

MATHEMATICS

1. Evaluate 1

25 −

1

2 +

1

8 −

2

3 A.8 B.10 C.9

D.6

2. Find the remainder when x4 – 11x + 2 is divided

by x A.2 B.6 C.-2 D.5

3. If cos A = 12

13 and A is an acute angle, find (1 + tan2

A). A. 144

25 B.

25

144 C.

169

25 D.

169

144

4. Integrate the function 1 – 2x. A.x – x2 + K B.x

+ x-2 + K C.-x –x-2 + K D.x – x-2 + K

5. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑𝛽 are the roots of equation cx2 – ax + b =

0, find 𝛼𝛽 A.-𝑏

𝑎 B .-

𝑎

𝑐 C.

𝑏

𝑐 D.

𝑐

𝑎

6. The binary operation is divided by a b is

defined by a b = 2a -1. Find 3 (2 1)

A.3 B.4 C.5 D.6

7. Two coins are tossed; find the probability of

having at least two heads A.1

2 B.

3

4 C.

1

4 D.1

8. If x is a real number and x + 11 < 0, evaluate |𝑥|

𝑥

A.0 B.-1 C.1 D.2

9. If P is directly proportional to 𝑄; P = 20 when

Q = 4. Find Q when P = 100

A.200 B.300 C.100 D.400

10. Find the angel in degree which the line x -

3𝑦 = 0 makes with the positive y – axis

A.300 B.900 C.600 D.1800

11. If equation 6 – kx + 2x2 = 0 has equal roots, find

k2 + 4. A.48 B.52 C.44 D.96

12. Simplify log100 10-1. A.-1

8 B.-

1

4 C.

1

4 D.

1

8

13. Obtain the centre of the circle 7(y2 + 10y) + 7x2 =

1 A.(0,5) B.(-5,0) C.(0,-5) D.(5,0)

14. Given ∫ 15𝑥𝑎

−𝑎2 dx = 3430, find the value of the

constant 𝑎 A.8 B.6 C.7 D.9

15. Evaluate 𝑑

𝑑𝑥 (In Sin 3𝑥) A.3 cos 3x B.3tan 3x

C. 1

sin 3𝑥 D. 3 sin 3x

16. Find the equation of a line which passes through

a point (-2,3) and makes an angle of 450 with

positive x-axis A.𝑦 − 𝑥 − 5 = 0 𝐵. 𝑦 + 𝑥 =

0 𝐶.𝑥 − 𝑦 − 5 = 0 𝐷. 𝑦 − 𝑥 + 5 = 0

17. Find the sum of infinity of the sequence 1,-1,1,-

1,1,-1 …. A.2 B.-1

2 C.1 D.

1

2

18. Differentiate 2 –sin(2 – ax) with respect to x

A.a cos (2 – ax) B.−a sin(2 – ax)

C.−𝑎 cos 2 − 𝑎𝑥 𝐷. − asin(2 − 𝑎𝑥)

19. Simplify 8 𝑛

2

𝑚3/2

4−1𝑚2

2𝑛−2 𝐴. 128𝑛3𝑚−1 B.8𝑛3𝑚−1

C. 8𝑛3𝑚 D. 8𝑛4𝑚

20. Solve the equation

21. Simplify: 30

2 + 50 A.4 5 B.20 2

C.5 5 D.10 2

22. If m is the gradient of the line 𝑝𝑞 − 𝑝𝑥 − 𝑞𝑦 =

0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑞 ≠ 0, find 1

𝑚

A.𝑞

𝑝 B.

𝑝

𝑞 C.-

𝑞

𝑝 D.-

𝑝

𝑞

SOLUTION TO MATHEMATICS 2014

1. 1

25 -1/2 +

1

8 -2/3

1

1

25

2

1 + 1

1

8

3

2

1

1

5

1 +1

1

2

2

5

1 +

4

1 = 5+4 = 9 Ans:C

2. 𝐿𝑒𝑡 𝑓 𝑥 = 𝑥4 − 11𝑥 + 2 𝑥3 − 11


𝑥 𝑥4 − 11𝑥 + 2 − 𝑥4 + 0𝑥 + 0

−11 + 2 − − 11𝑥 + 0

𝑅𝑒𝑚𝑎𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑟 = +2 Ans:A 3. O2 = h2 – a2

O2 = 132 - 122 O2 = 169 – 144 O2 = 25

O= 25 O = 5

Cos A 12

13 , Tan A =

5

12

1 + tan2A = 1 + (5

12)2 = 1 +

25

144 =-

169

144Ans:D

4. ∫1 − 2𝑥 𝑥OH - 2𝑥2 + K 0 +1 1+1 𝑥 − 𝑥2 + K Ans:A

5. 𝛼𝛽 = 𝑏

𝑐 Ans:C

6. a b = 2a -1

2 ⊗ 1 = 2(2) -1 4 – 1 = 3 3 ⊗ 3 = 3 (3) – 1 = 6 -1 = 5 Ans:C

7. p(HH, HT, TT, TH)

p(2 heads) = 1

4 Ans:C

8. 𝑥 + 11 < 0 𝑥 < 0 − 11 𝑥 < −11 |𝑥|

𝑥=

±𝑥

𝑥 =

𝑥

𝑥 𝑜𝑟

−𝑥

𝑥

|𝑥|

𝑥=

𝑥

𝑥or

−𝑥

𝑥

1 𝑜𝑟 − 1Ans:C

9. P = K 𝑄

20 = K 4 20 = 2K K = 10 Q when P = 100

100 = 10 𝑄 100

10 = 𝑄

10 = 𝑄

102 = Q Q = 100 Ans:C

10. 𝑥 − 3𝑦 = 0

𝐷𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑏𝑜𝑡𝑕 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒𝑠 𝑏𝑦 3 𝑥

3 -

3

3 =

0

3

𝑥

3 – y = 0

𝑦 = 𝑥

3− 0

From :𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑐

m = 1

3

tan𝜃 = m

tan𝜃 = 1

3

𝜃 = 𝑡𝑎𝑛-11

3

𝜃 = 300Ans:A 11. 6 = 𝑘𝑥 + 2𝑥2 = 0

2𝑥2 – 𝑘𝑥 + 6 = 0……….(1) Comparing the equation (1) with 𝑎𝑥2+𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐 = 0

c𝑎 = 2 c𝑏 = −𝑘 C =b 𝑏2 = 4ac for equal roots (−𝑘)2 = 4 x 2 x 6 𝑘2 = 48

𝑘 = 48

𝑘2 + 4 = ( 48)2 + 4

48 + 4 52 𝑨𝒏𝒔:𝑩

12. 𝐿𝑜𝑔100 10-1 𝐿𝑜𝑔100 (10-1)1/2

1

2 Log10 10-1

−1 𝑋1

2 𝐿𝑜𝑔10010

−1

2Log10

2101

1

2𝑋 −

1

2 𝐿𝑜𝑔1010

−1

4x 1 = −

1

4 Ans:B

13. 7(y2 + 10y) + 7x2 = 1 7y2 + 10y + 7x2 = 1 Divide through by 7 y2 + 10y + x2 =1/7

y2 + 10y + 10

2 2 + x2 = 1/7 +

10

2 2

y2 + 10y + 25 + x2 = 1/7 + 25 (y+5)2 + x2 = 176/7 From the general formular (x-h)2 + (y-k)2 = r2 Where (x-h)2 (y-k)2 represent the centre of the circle and r = radius Where h and k represent the centre of the circle and r= radius ( y+5)2 = (y-k)2

Square root both sides y+5 = y-k, y-y +5 =-k, 5 = -k, k=-5 x2 = (x-h)2, x = x-h, x-x = -h, h = 0 Centre of the circle = (h,k) = (0,5) Ans:C

14. ∫ 15𝑥𝑎

−𝑎2𝑑𝑥 = 3430

15𝑥2+1

2+1 −𝑎

𝑎

= 3430

15𝑥3

3 −𝑎

𝑎

= 3430

5𝑥3 −𝑎𝑎 = 3430

5𝑎3 − 5 −𝑎 3 = 3430

5𝑎3 − −5𝑎3 = 3430

5𝑎3 + 5𝑎3 = 3430

10𝑎3 = 3430

𝑎3 =3430

10

𝑎3 = 343

𝑎3 = 3433

𝑎 = 7Ans: C

15. Let 𝑦 =ln sin 3𝑥 Let u = sin 3𝑥 𝑦 =ln u

𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑢=

1

𝑢

𝑑𝑢

𝑑𝑥= 3 cos 3𝑥

𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑥=

𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑥𝑋

𝑑𝑢

𝑑𝑥


1

𝑢𝑋 3𝑐𝑜𝑠3𝑥

3 cos 3𝑥

𝑢

𝐵𝑢𝑡 𝑢 = sin 3𝑥

3 cos 3𝑥

sin 𝑥

cos 3𝑥

𝑠𝑖𝑛 3𝑥

3 𝑋 𝐶𝑜𝑠 3𝑥

𝑆𝑖𝑛 3𝑥

But 𝐶𝑜𝑠 3𝑥

𝑆𝑖𝑛 3𝑥= 𝐶𝑜𝑠 3𝑥

= 3 𝑋 cos 3

sin 3𝑥= 3 cos 3

𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑥=

𝑑

𝑑𝑥= (ln sin3𝑥) = 3 cos 3𝑥Ans:A

16. 𝑦 − 𝑦1 = m( 𝑥 − 𝑥1) 𝑦1 = 3 𝑥1 = -2 𝑚 = tan 𝐴 m = tan 450 m = 1 y – 3 1(x – (-2)) y - 3 = 1 (x + 2) y – 3 = x + 2 y – x = 2 + 3 y – x = 5 y – x – 5 = 0Ans:A

17. 𝑆 = 𝑎

1−𝑟

S = 1

1 – (1

1−(−1

1)

S =1

1+1

S = 1

2Ans:D

18. y = 2 – sin(2-ax) sin(2 – ax) let 2 – ax = u sin u 𝑑𝑣

𝑑𝑥 = cos v . –a

-a cos u

= -a cos 2 – ax 𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑥 = 0 – (-a cos 2- ax)

𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑥 = 0 + a cos 2 – ax

𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑥 = a cos 2 – axAns:A

19. 𝑛

8

𝑚32

2

4−1𝑚2

2𝑛−2 =

(8 𝑛)2

𝑚32

𝑋 4−1𝑚2

2𝑛−2

64𝑛

𝑚3 𝑋 1

4 𝑋 𝑚2

2 𝑋 1

𝑛2

64𝑛

𝑚3 𝑋 𝑚 2

42

𝑛2

64𝑛

𝑚3 𝑋𝑚2𝑛2

8

64𝑛 𝑋 𝑚2𝑛2

8𝑚3

64𝑚2𝑛3

8𝑚3

8𝑛3

𝑚= 8𝑚−1𝑛3Ans:B

20. 1

1+1

𝑥3

= 0

1

𝑥3+1

𝑥3

= 0

𝑥3

𝑥3+1= 0

𝑥3 = 0(𝑥3 + 1) 𝑥3 = 0

𝑥 = 03

= 0 𝑥 = 0Ans: A

21. 30 + 50

2

30+ 100

2

40

2x 2

2

40 2 = 20 2Ans: B 2

22. pq – px – qy = 0 Comparing this equation with y = mx + c qy = -px + pq y = mx + c

y=𝑝𝑥

𝑞 +

𝑝𝑞

𝑞

y = mx + c

m = - 𝑝

𝑞

1/m = 1/-p q

= -p/qAns:C

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITYILE-IFE, NIGERIA

2013 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE MATHEMATICS

1. If the probability of success in an event is y

𝑥. What

is the probability of failure?

A. 𝑥−y

𝑥 B.

y−𝑥

𝑥 C.

𝑥−y

y D.

y−𝑥

y

2. What is the circumference of the circle x2 + y2=

7

π

2

? A. 16 units B. 14 units

C. 15 units D. 15 units 3. Find the diameter of the circle 2x2 + 2y2 – 50 = 0

A. -10units B. 14units C. 25units D. -25units

4. Find point of intersection of the lines 3x – 2y = 5 and 2𝑥 + 5𝑦 = −7

A. x = 11

19, y = −

31

19 B. x = −

11

19, y =

31

19

C. x = −11

19, y = −

31

19 D. x =

11

19, y =

31

19

5. Solve 4x2 + 20x – 24 = 0 A. 1,6 B. -1,-6 C. 6,-1 D. -6,1

6. What is the 15th term of the sequence -3,2,7,…? A. 65 B. 66 C. 68 D. 67

7. What is the distance between the points (-1,5) and (-7, -3)?

A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12

8. Evaluate log 27−log 8

log 3−log 2 A.

2

3 B. −

2

3

C. 3

2 D. −

3

2

9. What is the remainder when x3 + 5x2 – 6x + 1 is divided by x – 1?

A. -1 B. 2 C. -2 D. 1

10. Giving that – 𝑥2 + 5𝑥 + 6 = 0 Find 𝛼𝛽 + 𝛼 + 𝛽

11. What is the value of y for which the function 𝑦−1

𝑦+1 is

undefined? A. -1 B. 1 C. 0 D. 2


12. Resolve 1

𝑥(1+𝑥) into partial fractions

A. 1

𝑥+

1

1+𝑥 B.

1

1+𝑥−

1

𝑥

C. −1

𝑥−

1

1+𝑥 D.

1

𝑥−

1

1+𝑥

13. Solve the equation 5𝑥2 = 25𝑥+4 A. -4, 2 B. -

4, -2 C. 4, -2 D. 4, 2 14. Evaluate 2n + 1 4

n=2 A. 28 B. 31 C. 29 D. 32

15. Integrate 4x3 + 1

𝑥 with respect to x

A.ln 𝑥 + x4 + K B. x-1 + x4 + K

C. 12x2 – x-2 + K D. 1

5x5 + x-2 + K

16. If X = {2,3,6,7,8} and Y = {6,7,10,3,17}, find X Y

A. {} B. 3,6,7 C. {2,3,6,7,8,10,17} D. {6,3,7}

17. What is the coordinate of centre of the circle x2 + y2 + 2x – 4y = 10? A. (-1, -2) B. (1, 2)

C. (-1, 2) D. (1, -2)

18. Simplify log𝑥𝑥4

+ log44𝑥

A. 4x B. −1

2

C. 4 + x D. 4xlog4𝑥4𝑥

19. Solve the equation 3x + 1 = 271 – x A. 1

2 B. −

1

2

C. 3

4 D. −

3

4

20. Given f(x) = 3 + x and g(x) = 3 – x, find g(f(x)). A. 6 B. x C. –x D. 0

21. Differentiate sin (2x – 5) with respect to x. A. cos(2x - 5) B. -cos(2x - 5) C. 2cos(2x - 5) D. -2cos(2x - 5)

22. if 𝛿, 𝜆 are the roots of equation x2 – 5x + 7 = 0, find the value of 𝛿2 + 𝜆2

A. 25 B. -25 C. -11 D. 11 SOLUTION TO MATHEMATICS 2013

1. Let A represent the event success and B represent the event failure. The sum of the probability of A [Pr(A)] and the probability of B [Pr(B)] is always equal to one (1)

=>Pr(4) + Pr(B) = 1

But Pr(A) =𝑦

𝑥

𝑦

𝑥+ Pr(B) = 1, Pr(B) = 1-

𝑦

𝑥=

𝑥−𝑦

𝑥

Therefore, if 𝑦

𝑥 is the probability of success, then

the probability of failure is 𝑥−𝑦

𝑥Ans: A

2. The general equation of a circle is given as: x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0

The above equation can also be written as (x - a)2 + (y-b)2 = r2

Where a and b are the centre of the circle and r is the radius.

Since the given equation of the circle is: 𝑥2 + 𝑦2 =

7

𝜋

2

, = 𝛼 = 0,b = 0,r = 7

𝜋

The circumference of a circle (c) = 2𝜋𝑟

c = 2𝜋 𝑥7

𝜋= 14 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠Ans: B

3. The general equation of a circle is given as 𝑥2 + 𝑦 2 + 2𝑔𝑥 + 2𝑓𝑦 + 𝑐= 0

Where a = -g, b = -f and c = (a2 + b2)) - r2. By comparing the standard equation of a circle [𝑥2 + 𝑦2 + 2𝑔𝑥 + 2𝑓𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0] and the given equation of the circle (2𝑥2 + 2𝑦2 − 50 = 0) the values of g, f and c can be obtained. But before

the comparism the two equations must be in the same form.

22 + 2𝑦 2 − 50=0 Divide through the equation by 2, 𝑥2 + 𝑦 2 −

25=0 By comparism g = 0, f = 0, c = −25, But𝛼 = −𝑔 = 0, b= -f =0 𝑐 = 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 − 𝑟2, −25 = 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 − 𝑟2 −25 = 02 + 02 − 𝑟2, −25 = 𝑟2 , 𝑟2 = 25

𝑟2 = 25 = 5 𝐷𝑖𝑎𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑑 = 2𝑟 = 2 𝑥 5 = 10 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠Ans: B 4. 3x-2y = 5 .............x 2 2x + 5y = -7 ..........x 3

− 6𝑥+15𝑦=−21

−19𝑦=31

y = - 31

19, But 3x - 2y = 5, 3𝑥 − 2 −

31

19 = 5

3𝑥 +62

19= 5, 3𝑥 =

5

1−

62

19, =

95−62

19=

33

19, 𝑥 =

33

19𝑥

1

3=

11

19

𝑥,𝑦 = 11

19−

31

19 Ans: A

5. 4𝑥2 + 20𝑥 − 24 = 0 Divide through the equation by 4

𝑥2 + 5𝑥 − 6 = 0 𝑥 + 6 𝑥 − 1 = 0

𝑥 = −6 𝑜𝑟 1 Ans: D 6. Determine if the sequence is an A.P or G.P. If the sequence is an A.P; T2 – T1 = T3 –T2

–3,2,7…

T1 = -3, T2 =2, T3 = 2-3 =7 -2 Hence the sequence is an A.P. Note that if the

sequence is a G.P;

𝑇2

𝑇1=

𝑇3

𝑇2

d =72-T1 =2—3=2+3=5 T15 = a + (𝜋 - 1)d a = -3, 𝜋 = 15, & d = 3 T15 = -3 + (15 - 1) X 5 = -3 + 14 x 5, 715= -3 + 70, T15 = 67 The 15th term of the sequence is 67 Ans: D 7. The distance (d) between two points (x1y1) is given as

d= 10 units Ans:B

Ans: C


Ans: D

𝜶𝜷 =

𝒄

𝒂=

𝟔

−𝟏= −𝟔

𝜶𝜷 + 𝜶 + 𝜷 = 𝜶𝜷 + 𝜶 + 𝜷 = −6 + 5 = −1Ans: D 11. For a function to be undefined the denominator

mustbe equal to zero

For 𝑦−1

𝑦+2 to be undefined y + 1 = 0, y = -1 Ans:

A 12 A linear factor of the form ax + b always give a

partial fraction of the form 𝐴

𝑎𝑥 +𝑏

Since the denominators are equal, the numerator must also be equal

1 = 𝐴 1 + 𝑥 + 𝐵𝑥 1 = 𝐴 + 𝐴𝑥 + 𝐵𝑥

1 + 0𝑥 = 𝐴 + (𝐴 + 𝐵)𝑥By comparism

Ans: D

Ans: C

To evaluate the above, starts from 𝑛 = 2 𝑡𝑜 𝑛 = 4 and sum up everything.

= 4 + 1 + 8 + 1 16 + 1 , = 5 + 9 + 17 = 31

Ans: B

Ans: A 16. X = 2,3,6,7,8) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 Y = (6,7,10,3,17) X Y = {3,6,8}Ans: B

17. The general equation of a circle is given as x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0

Compare the standard equation of a circle with the given equation x2 + y2 + 2x - 4y - 10 = 0

2gx = 2x, g = 1, 2fy = -4y. F = -2, a = - g = -1, b = -f = 2, (a,b) = (-1,2)

The circle of the circles is (-1,2) Ans: C

Ans: C

Ans: A

Ans: C 21. y = sin(2x-5) Let u = 2x-5 y = sinu

𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑢= 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑢

𝑑𝑢

𝑑𝑥= 2

𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑥=

𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑢𝑥

𝑑𝑢

𝑑𝑥− 𝑐𝑕𝑎𝑖𝑛 𝑟𝑢𝑙𝑒

= 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑢x 2 = 2 cos u but u = 2x - 5

𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑥= 2 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑢 (2𝑥 – 5)

Ans: C


Ans: D

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE-IFE, NIGERIA

2012 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE MATHEMATICS

1. What is the highest possible value of 8

1+𝑥2 If

0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 3? (a) (b) (c) (d) 16

2. The fifth term in the progression 9, 27, 81, … is (a) 243 (b) 37 (c) 729 (d) 38

3. The interior angles of an hexagon are 120𝑜 , 100𝑜 , 80𝑜 , 150𝑜 ,𝑥and 130𝑜 . The value of 𝑥 is (a) 170𝑜 (b) 20𝑜 (c) 120𝑜 (d) 140𝑜

4. Obtain the product of 11002 and 1012 (a) 1111002 (b) 1101002 (c) 22205 (d) 11447

5. Simplify 8 𝑛

𝑚32

2

4−1𝑚2

2𝑛−2 (a) 128𝑛3𝑚−1 (b)

8𝑛3𝑚−1 (c) 8𝑛4𝑚 (d) 8𝑛3𝑚 The universal set 𝑈 consists of all integers subsets of 𝑈 are defined as:

𝐴 = 𝑦: 𝑦 ≤ 3 𝐵 = 𝑦: −5 < 𝑦 < 12 𝐶 = 𝑦: −2 ≤ 𝑦 < 5

Use the information above to answer question 6. 6. 𝐴 ∩ (𝐵 ∪ 𝐶) ′ is (a) {𝑦 < −4} (b) (c) {𝑦 < 0} (d)

{−4 ≤ 𝑦 ≤ 3}

7. Make 𝑘 the subject of the formular 𝑚 =2𝑛𝑘

𝑝+

𝑘

2𝑝

(a) 𝑘 =2𝑚𝑝

2𝑛+1 (b) 𝑘 =

2𝑚𝑝

4𝑛+1 (c) 𝑘 =

𝑚𝑝

2𝑛+1 (d) 𝑘 =

2𝑛+1

2𝑚𝑝

8. Evaluate log8 128 + log3 9 (a) 19 (b) 48

(c) 13

3 (d)

9. Find the value of 𝑦 if 1

2log3 𝑦 = 2 (a) (b) 18 (c)

9

2

(d) 81 10. Which of the following is a perfect square? (a)

𝑥2 − 3𝑥 − 4 (b) 𝑥2 + 9𝑥 + 9 (c) 2𝑥2 + 2𝑥 + 2 (d) 𝑥2 + 2𝑥 + 1

11. Integrate 2𝑥 + 1 (a) 1

3 2𝑥 + 1

3

2 + 𝐾 (b) 1

3 2𝑥 +

132+𝐾 (c) −132𝑥+132+𝐾 (d) −132𝑥+132+𝐾

12. Obtain the centre of the circle 3𝑦2 + 3 𝑥 + 5 2 =17 (a) (0.5) (b) (−5.0) (c) (0. −5) (d) (5.0)

13. If 𝑓 𝑥 + 1 =𝑥2+1

𝑥3 , find 𝑓(2) (a) 5

8 (b) (c)

1

4 (d)

14. The quadratic equation whose roots are (𝑥 − 3)

and 𝑥 +1

3 is (a) 𝑥2 +

8

3𝑥 − 1 = 0 (b) 𝑥2 − 2𝑥 −

3 = 0 (c) 𝑥2 −8

3𝑥 − 1 = 0 (d) 𝑥2 − 3 = 0

15. If the bearing of a town B from A is 145𝑜 , the bearing of A from B is (a) 305𝑜 (b) 325𝑜 (c) 35𝑜 (d) 145𝑜

16. A number is selected randomly from the set of integers 1 to 30 inclusive. The probability that the

number is prime is (a) 4

15 (b)

1

3 (c)

3

15 (d)

7

30

17. Differentiate cos𝑎𝑥 with respect to 𝑥 (a) 𝑎 sin𝑎𝑥

(b) 1

𝑎sin𝑎𝑥 (c) – 𝑎 sin 𝑎𝑥 (d) −

1

𝑎sin𝑎𝑥

18. Obtain the values of 𝑥 in 𝑥 − 9 = 16 (a) 25 (b) −7 (c) 25,−7 (d) −25,7

19. Which of these numbers is an irrational number (a) sin 0𝑜 (b) sin 30𝑜 (c) sin 60𝑜 (d) sin 90𝑜

20. Given ∫ 15𝑥2𝑑𝑥 = 3430,𝑎

−𝑎 find the value of the

constant 𝑎 (a) (b) 6 (c) (d)

21. Which of these lines is a right angle with the line 𝑥 = −7 (a) 2𝑥 + 𝑦 = −1 (b) 2𝑥 − 𝑦 = 1 (c) 𝑦 = 0 (d) 𝑥 = 49

The scores of students in a class test are shown in the table below. Use the information to answer question 22. Scores 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

No of

students

0 1 3 5 3 4 2 0

The modal score is (a) (b) (c) (d)

SOLUTION TOMATHEMATICS 2012

Ans: A

Ans: C

Ans: D

4. 11002 X 1012 = 111100 Ans: A


Ans: B 6. U = {...,-3,-2,-1,0,1,2,...} A = {...-3,-2,-1,0,1,2} B ={-4, -3, -2, -1,0,1,...11} C = {-2,-1,0,1,2,3,4} (B C) = {...,-5,12,13,...}

An (B C) = {..., -5}

= {y < -4} Ans: A

7. 𝑚 =2𝑛𝐾

𝑝+

𝐾

2𝑝

𝑚 =4𝑛𝐾 + 𝐾

2𝑃

2mp = K (4n + 1)

𝐾 =2𝑚𝑃

4𝑚+1Ans: B

Ans: C

Ans: D

Ans: D

11. 𝑦 = 2𝑥 + 1 𝑦 = (2𝑥 + 1)1/2 𝐿𝑒𝑡 𝑈 = 2𝑥 + 1 𝑦 = 𝑢1/2

𝑑𝑢

𝑑= 2

𝑑𝑥 = 𝑑𝑢

2

∫𝑢1/2 𝑑𝑥

∫𝑢1

2 .𝑑𝑢

2

1

2∫𝑢

1

2 𝑑𝑢

1

2 𝑢

32

3

2

+ 𝐾

1

2

2

3𝑢

3

2 + 𝐾

1

3𝑢

3

2 + 𝐾

𝐵𝑢𝑡 𝑢 = 2𝑥 + 1

1

3 2𝑥 + 1 1

3

2 + 𝑘

1

3(2𝑥 + 1)

3

2 + 𝑘 Ans: A

12. 3𝑦2 + 3(𝑥 + 5)2 = 17 3𝑦2 + 3 𝑥2 + 10𝑥 + 25 − 17 = 0 3𝑦2 + 3𝑥2 + 30𝑥 + 75 − 17 = 0 3𝑦2 + 3𝑥2 + 30𝑥 + 58 = 0

Divide through by 3, yz + x2 -1- 10x + — 58

3=

0 ……… (1) Compare equation 1 with the standard of a cycle. x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2/y = c = 0 = 2gx = 10x g = 5 2fy = 0, f = 0, (a, b) = (-g,-f) (a, b) = (-5,0)

Ans: B

Ans: B

14. 𝑥 − 3 𝑥 +1

3 = 𝑥2 +

1

3𝑥 − 3𝑥 = 0

𝑥2 −8

3𝑥 − 1 = 0Ans: C

15. A

Bearing of A from B = 90 + 90 + 90 + 55 = 325°

Ans: B 16. The prime number between 1 - 30 are 2, 3. 5, 7, 11,

13. 17, 19,23,29 E = {2,3,5,7,11,13,17,19,23,29} S = {1,2,3, ...30}

Ans: B 17. 𝑦 = 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑎𝑥

𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑥= −𝑎𝑆𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑥Ans: C

18. 1 − 9 = 16 𝑥 − 9 = 16 …… . . (1) − 𝑥 − 9 = 16 …… . (2) From equation 1 𝑥 = 16 + 9 = 25 𝐹𝑟𝑜𝑚 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 2 −𝑥 + 9 = 16 −𝑥 = 16 − 19 −𝑥 = 7


𝑥 = −7 𝑥 = −7, 25Ans:C 19. Sin 00=0

sin 30 = 0.5 =1

2

sin 60 = 3

2

sin 90 = 1

3

2is an irrational number Ans: C

Ans: C

The line x = - 7 and y = 0 are perpendicular (at

90°) to each other. Ans: C 22. The modal score is the score with the highest

frequency which is 4 Ans:B


2011 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

MATHEMATICS 1. If the universal set U ={1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}, M =

{1,3,5,7,9)}and N = {2,4,6,8,10}, which of the following is equal to (𝑀 𝑈 𝑁)′? A. (𝑀 ∩ 𝑁)′ B. 𝑀′𝑈 𝑁′ , C. 𝑀′ ∩ 𝑁′ , D. 𝑀 ∩ 𝑁.

2. 𝑐𝑜𝑠(180 — 𝜃) is equivalent to A. 𝑐𝑜𝑠(𝜃— 180), B. cos𝜃,C. −𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃, D. −𝑐𝑜𝑠(180 + 𝜃).

3. Find the equation of the circle with centre (-1,3) and radius 4. A. x2+y2 – 6x + 2y = 6, B. x2 + y2 + 2x – 6y = 16, C. x2 + y2_6x + 2y = 16, D. x2 + y2 + 2x–6y = 6.

4. Find 𝑑𝑦

𝑑𝑥, if 𝑦 =

3

𝑥 A.-

3

2𝑥

−3

2

B. 3𝑥−3

2 C.3

2𝑥

−3

2 D. 3

4𝑥

−3

2 .

5. Integrate 1

2𝑥 A. not defined, B. 0 C.

1

2ln𝑥 + 𝐶

D. 1

4𝑥2 + 𝐶

6. A die is tossed twice. What is the probability of obtaining a total of 6 if both numbers are odd?

A. 1

12 B.

1

18 C.

5

36 D.

1

6.

7. If the mean of the numbers 𝑎, 𝑏,𝑐,𝑑,𝑒 is 𝑥, find the mean of numbers 𝑎 + 𝑘, 𝑏 + 2𝑘, 𝑐 − 𝑘, 𝑑 − 2𝑘, e. A. 𝑥 B. 𝑥 + 𝑘, C 𝑥 − 𝑘, D. 2𝑥

8. Factorize: 𝑎2—𝑏2 + (𝑎 + 𝑏)2 A. 2𝑎2, B. 2𝑎(𝑎 − 𝑏), C. 2𝑎(𝑎 + 𝑏), D. 2𝑏(𝑏 − 𝑎)

9. Let α and β be roots of quadratic equation

𝑥2+2𝑥—3 = 0, then αβ is A. -3, B. -2, C. 2 , D. 6.

10. Convert 6910 to a number in base two A. 1001101, B. 1010001, C.1000101, D. 100101.

11. The reciprocal of 3

41

4+

1

3

is A. 12

7 B.

7

9C.−1

2

7 D.−

7

9

12. The speed of 30 kilometres per minute, expressed centimeters per second is A. 5 B. 50 C. 500 D. 5000.

13. Evaluate 𝑥 if,log4(𝑥 + 3)(𝑥 — 3) = 2 A. 3 𝑜𝑟 −3,B. 5 𝑜𝑟 − 5, C. 5 𝑜𝑟 − 3, D. 3 𝑜𝑟 − 5.

14. Given that 𝑎 =1

2− 3,𝑏 =

1

2+ 3, find the value

of𝑎2 + 𝑏2 A. 14

37 B. 7 C. 14 + 2 3 D. 14

15. If the binary operation * is defined as x * y = 2, find 2 * (4 * 5) A. 4 , B. 5, C. -5, D. 2

16. Find the value of 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 A. -2,

B. 2, C. 6, D. 3.

17. Find the value of ∫ 2𝜋 + 2𝑐𝑜𝑠2𝑥 𝑑𝑥𝜋

20

A. 𝜋2 + 1 B.

𝜋2 C. 𝜋2 − 4 D. 𝜋2 + 3

18. The circle 2𝑥2 + 2(𝑦 −3

2)2 = 2 has centre and

radius respectively as

A. (0,3

2) and B. (0,

−3

2) and C. (

3

2, 0) and

D. (0,3

2) and 1.

19. The line perpendicular to the straight line

𝑦 +3

2𝑥 — 1 = 0 has the gradient A. −

2

3, B.

3

2, C. 3,

D. 2

3

20. Find 𝑥 if 2𝑥2= 4(𝑥+4)A. 2 or 4, B. -2 or 2, C.-4 or

4, D. -4 or 2.

21. Express in partial fraction3𝑥

𝑥2−1≡

𝐴

𝑥−1+

𝐵

𝑥+1. Then

A and B respectively is

A. −3,3 B. 2

3,

2

3 C. −

3

2, −

3

2 D.

3

2,

3

2

22. A square has a perimeter of 40cm. What is its area in cm square? A. 80 B. 1600 C. 100 D. 160

SOLUTION TO MATHEMATICS 2011 1. 𝜇 = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10) M = {1,3,5,7,9} N= {2,4,6,8,10} 𝑀′ = 𝜇 - M = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10} {1,3,5,7,9}

{2,4,6,8,10} 𝑁 ′= 𝜇 − 𝑁 = 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10 − 2,4,6,8,10 =

1,3,5,7,9 𝑀 ∩𝑁 = 1,3,5,7,9 ∩ 2,4,6,8,10 = ∅

𝑀 ∩ 𝑁 ′ = 𝜇 − 𝑀 ∩ 𝑁 = 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10 − ∅

𝑀 ∩ 𝑁 ′ = 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10 = 𝜇 𝑀′ ∪ 𝑁 ′ = 2,4,6,8,10 ∪ 1,3,5,7,9


= 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10 = 𝜇 𝑀′ ∪ 𝑁 ′ = 2,3,4,6,8,10 − 1,3,5,7,9 = ∅

(𝑀 ∪ 𝑁)′ = 𝜇 − (𝑁 ∪ 𝑀) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10 − {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}

(𝑀 ∪ 𝑁)′ = ∅ (𝑀 ∪𝑁)′ = 𝑀′ ∩ 𝑁 ′ = 𝑀 ∩ 𝑁

𝑁𝑜𝑡𝑒 𝑡𝑕𝑎𝑡 𝑏𝑦 𝐷𝑒 − 𝑀𝑜𝑟𝑔𝑎𝑛′𝑠 𝑙𝑎𝑤 (𝑀 ∪ 𝑁)′ = 𝑀′ ∩ 𝑁 ′ Ans: C and D 2. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 180 − 𝜃 = −𝐶𝑜𝑠𝜃 𝑠𝑖𝑛 180 − 𝜃 = −𝑆𝑖𝑛𝜃 𝑡𝑎𝑛 180 − 𝜃 = −𝑇𝑎𝑛𝜃Ans: C 3. The standard equation of a circle is 𝑥2 + 𝑦2 + 2𝑔𝑥 + 2𝑓𝑦 + 𝐶 = 0 Where 𝑔 = −𝑎, 𝑓 = −𝑏 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐 = 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 + 𝑟2 The centre of the circle 𝑎, 𝑏 = −1,3 = 𝑎 =

−1 𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑏 = 3 The radius of the cirle (r) = 4 𝑔 = −𝑎 = − −1 = 1 𝑓 = −𝑏 = −3 𝑟 = 4 𝐶 = 𝑎2 + 𝑏2 − 𝑟2 = 12 + (−3)2 − 42 1 + 9 − 16 10 − 16 = −6 𝑥2 + 𝑦2 + 2𝑔𝑥 + 2𝑓𝑦 + 𝐶 = 0 𝑥2 + 𝑦2 + 2 1 𝑥 + 2 −3 𝑦 − 6 = 0 𝑥2 + 𝑦2 + 2𝑥 − 6𝑦 − 6 = 0 𝑥2 + 𝑦2 + 2𝑥 + 6𝑦 = 6Ans: D

Ans: A

Ans: C

Total number of sample space (s) =36 n(s)= 36 n(E) = 3 Note that the number of 6 obtain from odd numbers are circle in the table above. Let the event of obtaining a total of 6 if both numbers are odd be E

Ans: A

7. 𝒙 =𝜺𝒙

𝒏

𝐼𝑓 𝑡𝑕𝑒 𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑞𝑛 𝑜𝑓 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐, 𝑑, 𝑒, 𝑖𝑠 𝑥 𝑡𝑕𝑒𝑛;

𝑥 =𝑎+𝑏+𝑐+𝑑+𝑒

5

5𝑥 = 𝑎 + 𝑏 + 𝑐 + 𝑑 + 𝑒……… . (1)

𝒙 =𝜺𝒙

𝒏

𝒙 = 𝒂+𝒌 + 𝒃+𝟐𝒌 + 𝒄−𝒌 + 𝒅−𝟐𝒌 +𝒆

𝟓

𝒙 = 𝒂+𝒃+𝒄+𝒅+𝒆 + 𝒌+𝟐𝒌−𝒌−𝟐𝒌

𝟓

𝒙 =𝟓𝒙+𝟎

𝟓= 𝒙 𝑨𝒏𝒔:𝑨

8. 𝑎2 − 𝑏2 = (𝑎 + 𝑏)(𝑎 − 𝑏) 𝑎2 − 𝑏2 − (𝑎 + 𝑏)2

𝑎 + 𝑏 𝑎 − 𝑏 + (𝑎 + 𝑏)2 𝑎 + 𝑏 (𝑎 − 𝑏 + 𝑎 + 𝑏)

(𝑎 + 𝑏)(2𝑎) 2𝑎 𝑎 + 𝑏 𝑨𝒏𝒔: 𝑪 9. 𝑥2 + 2𝑥 − 3 = 0 𝑎 = 1,𝑏 = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐 = −3

𝛼 + 𝛽 = −𝑏

𝑎 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛼𝛽 =

𝑐

𝑎

𝛼𝛽 = −3

1= −3 𝑨𝒏𝒔:𝑨

10. 2 69

2 34 R1

2 17 R0

2 8 R1

2 4 R0

2 2 R0

2 1 R0

0 R1

6910 = 10001012Ans:C

11. 3

41

4 +

1

3

=3

43+4

12

=3

47

12

3

4÷

7

12=

3

4𝑋

12

7=

3 𝑋 3

7=

9

7

The reciprocal or inverse of

3

41

4 +

1

3

𝑖𝑠 134

14

+13

But3

41

4 +

1

3

=9

7

Reciprocal = 19

7

−7

9Ans:B

12. 𝑉 =30𝐾𝑚

𝑚𝑖𝑛

𝑉 =30𝑘𝑚

1𝑚𝑖𝑛 𝑋

1000𝑚

1𝑘𝑚 𝑋

100𝑐𝑚

1𝑚 𝑋

1𝑚𝑖𝑛

60𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑠

30 𝑋 1000 𝑋 100𝑐𝑚 /𝑠

60= 50,000𝑐𝑚/𝑠No correct

answer in the options 13. 𝑙𝑜𝑔4 𝑥 + 3 (𝑥 − 3) = 2

If 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑏𝑝

= 𝑡𝑕𝑒𝑛 𝑃 = 𝑏𝑥

𝑥 + 3 (𝑥 − 3) = 42 𝑥2 = 9 = 16 𝑥2 + 16 + 9 = 25

𝑥 = 25 = ±5 𝑥 = 5 𝑜𝑟 − 5Ans: B


14. 𝑎 =1

2− 3𝑋

2+ 3

2+ 3

=2+ 3

(2− 3)(2+ 3)

=2+ 3

4−3

𝑎 = 2 + 3,𝑎2 = (2 + 3)2 = 4 + 4 3 + 3 = 7 +

4 3

𝑏 =1

2 3𝑋

2− 3

2− 3

=2− 3

(2+ 3)(2− 3

𝑏 =2− 3

4−3= 2 − 3

𝑏2 = (2 − 3)2 = 4 − 4 3 + 3 = 7 − 4 3

𝑎2 + 𝑏2 = 7 + 4 3 + 7 − 4 3 7 + 7 = 14 𝑨𝒏𝒔:𝑫 15. 𝑥 ∗ 𝑦 = 2 In 2 ∗ 4 ∗ 5 𝑤𝑒 𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑑 4 ∗ 5 𝑓𝑖𝑟𝑠𝑡 𝑥 ∗ 𝑦 = 2 4 ∗ 5 = 𝑥 = 4 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = 5 ∴ 𝑥 ∗ 𝑦 = 4 ∗ 5 = 2 = 2 ∗ 4 ∗ 5 = 2 ∗ 2 2 ∗ 2 = 𝑥 = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = 2 𝑥 ∗ 𝑦 = 2 ∗ 2 = 2 ∴ 2 ∗ 4 ∗ 5 = 2 𝑨𝒏𝒔:𝑫

16. 𝐿𝑒𝑡 𝑥 = 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 + ⋯ .

Square both side to remove the first square root

sign or the radical sign ( )

𝑥2 = 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 + ⋯

𝑥2 = 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 + ⋯

𝑥2 − 6 = 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 + ⋯

But 𝑥 = 6 + 6 + 6 + 6 + ⋯

𝑥2 − 6 = 𝑥 𝑥2 − 𝑥 − 6 = 0 𝑥 = 3 Note that the value of the expression cannot

benegative. Ans: D

17. ∫ 2𝜋 + 2𝐶𝑜𝑠2𝑥 𝑑𝑥𝜋

20

𝑁𝑜𝑡𝑒 𝑡𝑕𝑎𝑡 ∫ cos𝑛𝑥 =1

𝑛𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝑛𝑥

∫2𝜋𝑑𝑥 = 2𝜋

∫ 2𝜋 + 2𝐶𝑜𝑠2𝑥 𝑑𝑥𝜋

20

2𝜋𝑥 +2𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑥

2

0

𝜋

2

2𝜋𝑥 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝑥 0

𝜋

2

2𝜋 𝜋

2 + sin 2

𝜋

2 − 2𝜋𝑥 0 + sin 2 0

(𝜋2 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜋) − (0 + sin 0) sin 0 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜋 = 0

∫ (2𝜋 + 2 cos 2𝜋) 𝑑𝑥 = 𝜋2𝜋

20

𝑨𝒏𝒔:𝑩

18. 2𝑥2 + 2 𝑦 −3

2

2

= 2

2𝑥2 + 2 𝑦2 − 3𝑦 +9

4 = 2

2𝑥2 + 2𝑦2 − 6𝑦 +9

2= 2

𝐷𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑡𝑕𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑔𝑕 𝑏𝑦 2

𝑥2 + 𝑦2 − 3𝑦 +9

4= 1

𝑥2 + 𝑦2 − 3𝑦 = 1 − 9

4

𝑥2 + 𝑦2 − 3𝑦 = 4−9

4=

−5

4

𝑥2 + 𝑦2 − 3𝑦 +5

4= 0

𝑥2 + 𝑦2 + 0𝑥 − 3𝑦 + 5

4= 0 … . . (𝑖

Compare equation (i) with the standard equation circle.

𝑥2 + 𝑦2 + 2𝑔𝑥 + 2𝑓𝑦 + 𝑐 = 0 2𝑔𝑥 = 0 = 𝑔 = 0 2𝑓 𝑦 = −3𝑦 2𝑓 = −3

𝑓 = −3

2

𝐵𝑢𝑡 𝑔 = −𝑎 𝑎 = 0 𝑓 = −𝑏

−3

2= −𝑏

𝑏 =3

2

𝑐 = 𝑎2 − 𝑏2 − 𝑟2

5

4= 02 +

3

2

2

− 𝑟2

𝑟2 = 9

4−

5

4=

9−5

4=

4

4= 1

𝑟2 = 1

𝑟 = 1 = 1

𝐶𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑟𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡𝑕𝑒 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑙𝑒 𝑎, 𝑏 = 0,3

2

𝑇𝑕𝑒 𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑡𝑕𝑒 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑙𝑒 𝑟 = 1 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡Ans: D

The gradient of the line; y +

3

2 𝑥 − 1 = 0 is

−3

2 Let

the gradient of the perpendicular line to the given line be

m2. For two perpendicular line; m1 m2 = -1

−3

2 m2 = -1

m2 =2

3Ans: D

20. 2𝑥2= 4 𝑥+4

2𝑥2= 22 𝑥+4

2𝑥2= 22𝑥+8

If 𝑎𝑥 = 𝑎𝑦 𝑡𝑕𝑒𝑛 𝑥 = 𝑦 𝑥2 = 2𝑥 + 8 𝑥2 = 4 𝑜𝑟 − 2 𝑨𝒏𝒔:𝑨

21. 3𝑥

𝑥2−1=

3𝑥

𝑥−1 𝑥+1 =

𝐴

𝑥−1+

𝐵

𝑥+1

3𝑥

𝑥−1 𝑥+1 =

𝐴 𝑥+1 +𝐵 𝑥−1

𝑥−1 𝑥+1

3𝑥 = 𝐴 𝑥 + 1 + 𝐵(𝑥 + 1)


𝐿𝑒𝑡 𝑥 = 1 3 1 = 𝐴 1 + 1 + 𝐵 1 − 1 3 = 2𝐴 + 𝐵(0) 3 = 2𝐴

𝐴 =3

2

𝐿𝑒𝑡 𝑥 = −1 3 −1 = 𝐴 −1 + 1 + 𝐵(−1 − 1) −3 = 𝐴 0 + 𝐵(−2) −3 = −2𝐵

𝐴, 𝐵 = 3

2,

3

2 Ans:D

Ans: C OBAFEMI AWOLOWO

UNIVERSITYILE-IFE, NIGERIA 2010 POST-UTME SCREENING

EXERCISE POST UME 2010 MATHEMATICS

1. Find 𝑥 if𝑥2 − 2𝑥 − 15 = 0 (a) 3, -5 (b) -3, 5 (c) 1, 15 (d) -2, -15

2. A father leaves a legacy of N45 million for his children – Peter, David and Paul to be shared in the ratio 7:5:3. What amount in million Naira would each receive respectively? (a) N14, N7, N3 (b) N15, N5, N3 (c) N21, N15, N9 (d) N20, N16, N10

3. As tends to zero, what does Cos tend to? (a) sin (b) 0 (c) ½ (d) 1

4. The expression 2Cos𝜃 + 𝑆𝑖𝑛2𝜃 has the numerical value (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 0

5. If tan 𝑥 =𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥

cos 𝑥, find tan(900 + 𝑥) for acute value

of x. (a) –cot x (b) –tan x (c) cot x (d) tan x 6. Evaluate the length of perpendicular from A to

BC (a) 52

12𝑐𝑚 (b)

12

52𝑐𝑚 (c)

24

52𝑐𝑚2 (d)

24

52𝑐𝑚

7. The indefinite integral of 𝑥𝑒𝑥 , for any real constant c is (a) c (b) 𝑥 + 𝑒𝑥 + 𝑐(c) 𝑥2 + 𝑒𝑥 + 𝑐 (d) 𝑒𝑥 𝑥 − 1 + 𝑐

8. Find the area under the curve 𝑦 𝑥 =sin 𝑥 between 𝑥 = 0 and 𝑥 = 𝜋 (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) -2

(d) 9. Let the letters P, Q, R and S denote

parallelogram, quadrilateral, rectangle and square respectively. Using subset notation, which of these inclusions is correct? (a) 𝑄 ⊂ 𝑅 ⊂ 𝑃 ⊂ 𝑆 (b) 𝑅 ⊂ 𝑄 ⊂ 𝑃 ⊂ 𝑆 (c) 𝑆 ⊂ 𝑃 ⊂ 𝑅 ⊂ 𝑄 (d) 𝑆 ⊂ 𝑅 ⊂ 𝑃 ⊂ 𝑄

10. In a convex polygon with n sides, the sum of

interior angles is (a) (n-2) (b) 2(n-1) (c) 4(n-1) (d) (2n+4)

11. Find the equation of the line perpendicular to the line 𝑦 = 2𝑥 + 1 and passing through a point (3, 1).

(a) 𝑦 =1

2𝑥 +

5

2 (b) 𝑦 = −

1

2𝑥 +

5

2 (c)

𝑦 = 𝑥 + 5 (d) 2𝑦 = 𝑥 + 5 12. What is the distance between points (1,2) and

(4,5) on a plane? (a) 3 2 (b) 2 3(c) 3 (d) 9 13. Integrate ∫ 2 tan 2𝑥 + 𝜋 𝑑𝑥

(a) 2 cot 2𝑥 + 𝜋 + 𝑘(b) log[𝑐𝑜𝑠2𝑥 + 𝜋)] + 𝑘 (c)− log[𝑐𝑜𝑠2𝑥 + 𝜋)] + 𝑘 (d) 4 cot 2𝑥 + 𝜋 + 𝑘

14. Find the values of x for which 5 + 2𝑥 − 3𝑥2 = 0(a)

−2 𝑎𝑛𝑑6

5(b) −1 𝑎𝑛𝑑

5

3 (c) −2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 − 1

(d) 6

5 𝑎𝑛𝑑

5

3

15. If 3

4 𝑥

2

3 𝑦

=32

27, find the value of 3𝑦 − 2𝑥 (a) -

1 (b) 7 (c) 1 (d) -7 16. The integral value of y which satisfy the inequality

−1 < 5 − 2𝑦 ≤ 7 are (a) -1, 0, 1, 2 (b) 0, 1, 2, 3 (c) -1, 0, 2, 3 (d) -1, 0, 2, 3

17. If 𝑥2 − 5𝑥 + 6 = (𝑥 − 𝑎)2 + 𝑏, the value of b is

(a) −1

4 (b)

5

2 (c) 2 (d) 3

18. The scores of 16 students in a mathematics test are 65, 65, 55, 60, 60, 65, 60, 70, 75, 70, 65, 70, 60, 65, 65, 70. What is the sum of the median and modal scores? (a) 125 (b) 130 (c) 140 (d) 150.

19. A businessman invested a total of N200,000 in two companies which paid dividends of 5% and 7% respectively. If he received a total of N11,600, how much did he invest at 7%? (a) N140,000 (b) N160,000 (c) N80,000 (d) N100,000

20. If 𝑎 5 + 𝑏 2is the square root of 95 − 30 10, the values of a and b are, respectively (a) 5, 2 (b) 2, -5 (c) -5, 3 (d) 3, -5


21. If 𝑥

𝑦=

𝑧

𝑤= 𝑐, find the value of

3𝑥2−𝑥𝑧+𝑧2

3𝑦2−𝑦𝑤 +𝑤 2 in terms

of c. (a) 3𝑐2(b) 17𝑐2

4(c) 2𝑐 − 𝑐2(d) 𝑐2

22. Express 5𝑦−12

𝑦−2 (𝑦−3) in partial fractions

(a) 2

𝑦−2−

3

𝑦−3 (b)

2

𝑦−2+

3

𝑦−3

(c)2

𝑦−3−

3

𝑦−2 (d)

5

𝑦−3−

4

𝑦−2

23. The second term of an infinite geometric series is

−1

2 and the third term is

1

4. Find the sum of the

series. (a)2 (b)1 (c) 3

2

(d) 2

3

24. In the figure AB and AD are tangents to the circle. If BCD = 550 and BDC = 480, find BAD.

(a)800 (b)700 (c)1100 (d)550

25. Find the area of triangle: (a) 24cm (b) 24cm2 (c) 12cm2 (d) 12cm

SOLUTION TO MATHEMATICS 2010 1. 𝑥2 − 2𝑥 − 15 = 0

𝑥2 − 5𝑥 + 3𝑥 − 15 = 0 𝑥2 − 5𝑥 + 3𝑥 − 15 = 0 𝑥 𝑥 − 5 + 3 𝑥 − 5 = 0

(𝑥 + 3)(𝑥 − 5) = 0 𝑥 = −3 𝑜𝑟 5 Ans: B

2. Total ratio = 7 + 5 + 3 = 15

Peter‘s share =7

15× 𝑁45𝑀 = 𝑁21𝑀

David‘s share =5

15× 𝑁45𝑀 = 𝑁15𝑀

Paul‘s share =3

15× 𝑁45𝑀 = 𝑁9𝑀

The amount in million received by Peter, David and Paul are respectively N21, N15 &N9millionAns:C

3. Lim Cos

0 = Cos = 1 Ans:s D

4. 2𝐶𝑜𝑠𝜃 + 𝑆𝑖𝑛2𝜃 But 𝑆𝑖𝑛2𝜃 = 1 − 𝐶𝑜𝑠2𝜃 2𝐶𝑜𝑠𝜃 + 1 − 𝐶𝑜𝑠2𝜃 −𝐶𝑜𝑠2𝜃 + 2𝐶𝑜𝑠𝜃 + 1 − 𝐶𝑜𝑠2𝜃 − 2𝐶𝑜𝑠𝜃 − 1 To determine the numerical value of the expression more information need to be supply or the expression must be equated to zero

5. tan 90 + 𝑥 = 𝑆𝑖𝑛 90+𝑥

𝐶𝑜𝑠 90+𝑥

= 𝑆𝑖𝑛90𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑥 + 𝐶𝑜𝑠90𝑆𝑖𝑛𝑥

𝐶𝑜𝑠90𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑥 − 𝑆𝑖𝑛90𝑆𝑖𝑛𝑥

But 𝑆𝑖𝑛90 = 1 and 𝐶𝑜𝑠90 = 0

tan 90 + 𝑥 = 1 × 𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑥 + 0 × 𝑆𝑖𝑛𝑥

0 × 𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑥 − 1 × 𝑆𝑖𝑛𝑥

tan 90 + 𝑥 =𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑥

−𝑆𝑖𝑛𝑥= −

𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑥

𝑆𝑖𝑛𝑥= −𝑐𝑜𝑡𝑥

⟹ tan 90 + 𝑥 = −𝐶𝑜𝑡𝑥 Ans:A 6. The diagram for the question was not given. 7. ∫𝑢𝑑𝑣 = 𝑣𝑢 − ∫𝑣𝑑𝑢

⟹ 𝑢 = 𝑥,𝑑𝑢

𝑑𝑥= 1

∴ 𝑑𝑢 = 𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑣 = 𝑒𝑥𝑑𝑥 𝑣 = 𝑒𝑥

𝑥𝑒𝑥𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥𝑒𝑥 − 𝑒𝑥𝑑𝑥

= 𝑥𝑒𝑥 − 𝑒𝑥 + 𝑐 = 𝑒𝑥 𝑥 − 1 + 𝑐 Ans:D

8. 𝐴 = ∫ 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥𝑑𝑥 = −𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 0𝜋 = −𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜋 −

𝜋

0

−𝑐𝑜𝑠0=1+1= 2𝑠𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑟𝑒 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠Ans: A 9. D 10. A 11. 𝑦 = 2𝑥 + 1𝑚1 = 2

Let the gradient of the require line be 𝑚2. 𝑚1𝑚2 = −1for perpendicular lines 2𝑚2 = −1

𝑚2 =−1

2

𝑦 − 𝑦1 = 𝑚2(𝑥 − 𝑥1), 𝑦 − 1 = 𝑚2 𝑥 − 3

𝑦 − 1 = −1

2 𝑥 − 3 , 2 𝑦 − 1 = −1(𝑥 − 3)

2𝑦 − 2 = −𝑥 + 3, 2𝑦 = −𝑥 + 3 + 2, 2𝑦 = −𝑥 + 5

𝑦 =−1

2𝑥 +

5

2 Ans: B

12. 𝑑 = 𝑥2 − 𝑥1 2 + 𝑦2 − 𝑦1

2

= 4 − 1 2 + 5 − 2 2

= 32 + 32

= 3 2unit Ans: A

13. ∫2 tan 2𝑥 + 𝜋 𝑑𝑥 = 2 ∫ tan 2𝑥 + 𝜋 𝑑𝑥

tan 2𝑥 + 𝜋 =𝑆𝑖𝑛(2𝑥 + 𝜋)

𝐶𝑜𝑠(2𝑥 + 𝜋)

2 tan 2𝑥 + 𝜋 𝑑𝑥

= 2 𝑆𝑖𝑛(2𝑥 + 𝜋)

𝐶𝑜𝑠 (2𝑥 + 𝜋)𝑑𝑥

= −2 −𝑆𝑖𝑛(2𝑥 + 𝜋)

𝐶𝑜𝑠 (2𝑥 + 𝜋)𝑑𝑥

let u= 𝐶𝑜𝑠 (2𝑥 + 𝜋) 𝑑𝑢

𝑑𝑥= −2 𝑆𝑖𝑛(2𝑥 + 𝜋)

𝑑𝑥 =1

−2 𝑆𝑖𝑛(2𝑥 + 𝜋) 𝑑𝑢

2 tan 2𝑥 + 𝜋 𝑑𝑥

= −2 𝑆𝑖𝑛(2𝑥 + 𝜋)

−𝐶𝑜𝑠 (2𝑥 + 𝜋)𝑑𝑥

= −2 −𝑆𝑖𝑛(2𝑥 + 𝜋)

𝑢𝑑𝑥

= −2 −𝑆𝑖𝑛(2𝑥 + 𝜋)

𝑢×

𝑑𝑢

−2𝑆𝑖𝑛(2𝑥 + 𝜋)

= − 1

𝑢𝑑𝑢 = − ln𝑢 + 𝑐

− ln 𝐶𝑜𝑠 (2𝑥 + 𝜋) + 𝑐 ln 𝐶𝑜𝑠 (2𝑥 + 𝜋) −1 + 𝑐 ln 𝑆𝑒𝑐 (2𝑥 + 𝜋) + 𝑐 Ans: C


14. −3𝑥2 + 2𝑥 + 5 = 0 3𝑥2 − 2𝑥 − 5 = 0

𝑥 = −1 𝑜𝑟5

3 Ans:B

15. 3

4 𝑥

2

3 𝑦

=32

27

But 3

4 𝑥

= 4

3 −𝑥

4

3 −𝑥

2

3 𝑦

=32

27

2−2𝑥

3−𝑥×

2𝑦

3𝑦=

32

27

2𝑦−2𝑥

3𝑦−𝑥=

32

27=

25

33

2𝑦−2𝑥 = 25, 𝑦 − 2𝑥 = 5 𝑦 = 5 + 2𝑥……………… (1), 3𝑦−𝑥 = 33 𝑦 − 𝑥 = 3, 𝑦 = 3 + 𝑥………………… (2) 5 + 2𝑥 = 3 + 𝑥, 2𝑥 − 𝑥 = 3 − 5, 𝑥 = −2 𝑦 = 3 + 𝑥 = 3 − 2, 𝑦 = 1 ⟹ 3𝑦 − 2𝑥 = 3 1 − 2 −2 = 3 + 4 = 7 Ans:B

16. −1 < 5 − 2𝑦 −1 − 5 < −2𝑦, −6 < −2𝑦, −2𝑦 > −6 𝑦 < 3 5 − 2𝑦 ≤ 7, −2𝑦 ≤ 7 − 5, −2𝑦 ≤ 2, 𝑦 ≥ −1 −1 ≤ 𝑦 < 3 −1, 0, 1, 2, 3 Ans:A

17. 𝑥2 − 5𝑥 + 6 = 𝑥2 − 2𝑎𝑥 + 𝑎2 + 𝑏 ⟹ −5𝑥 = −2𝑎𝑥

𝑎 =5

2

𝑎2 + 𝑏 = 6

5

2

2

+ 𝑏 = 6

𝑏 =6

1−

25

4=

24−25

4= −

1

4Ans: A

18. By arranging in ascending order, we have 55, 60, 60, 60, 60, 65, 65, 65, 65, 65, 65, 70, 70, 70, 70, 75

Median =65+65

2=

130

2= 65

Mode = 65 Median + mode = 65 + 65 = 130 Ans: B

19. Let the amount invested at 7% be 𝑁 the amount invested at 5% be 𝑁(200,000 − 𝑥)

𝐼 =𝑃𝑅𝑇

100

𝐼1 =𝑥 × 7 × 1

100= 0.07𝑥

𝐼2 = 200000 − 𝑥 × 5 × 1

100

= 0.05(200000 − 𝑥) 𝐼 = 𝐼1 + 𝐼2 = 𝑁11,600 11,600 = 0.07𝑥 + 0.05(200000 − 𝑥) 11,600 = 0.07𝑥 + 10,000 − 0.05𝑥 11,600 − 10000 = 0.02𝑥 1600 = 0.02𝑥

𝑥 =1600

0.02= 𝑁80,000.00

200000 − 𝑥 = 200,000 − 80,000 = 𝑁120,000 The amount invested at 7% is N80,000 and the amount invested at 5% is N120,000.00 Ans:C

20. Let the square root of 95 − 30 10be 𝑚 − 𝑛.

95 − 30 10 = 𝑀 − 𝑛

I square both side

95 − 30 10 = 𝑀 − 𝑛 2

= 𝑚 + 𝑛 + 2 𝑚𝑚 𝑚 + 𝑛 = 95 𝑚 = 95 − 𝑛……………… . (1)

−2 𝑚𝑛 = −30 10

𝑚𝑛 = 15 10

𝑚𝑛 2

= 15 10 2

𝑚𝑛 = 225 10 𝑚𝑛 = 2250 …………… . . (2) 95 − 𝑛 𝑛 = 2250 95𝑛 − 𝑛2 = 2250 𝑛2 − 95𝑛 + 2250 = 0 𝑛 = 50 𝑜𝑟 45

When 𝑛 = 50,𝑚 = 45 When 𝑛 = 45,𝑚 = 50

When 𝑚 = 45,𝑛 = 50

𝑚 − 𝑛 = 45 − 50

= 3 5 − 5 2

3 5 − 5 2 ≡ 𝑎 5 + 𝑏 2 𝑎 = 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑏 = −5 𝑎,𝑏 = (3, −5) Ans:D

21. 𝑥

𝑦= 𝑐 ⟹ 𝑥 = 𝑦𝑐……………… . (1)

𝑧

𝑤= 𝑐 ⟹ 𝑧 = 𝑤𝑐 ……………… (2)

𝑥

𝑦=

𝑧

𝑤= 𝑐

𝑥

𝑧=

𝑦

𝑤= 𝑐 ………………………… (3)

3𝑥2 − 𝑥𝑧 + 𝑧2

3𝑦2 − 𝑦𝑧 + 𝑤2=

𝑧2 3 𝑥

𝑧

2

− 𝑥

𝑧 + 1

𝑤2 3 𝑦

𝑤

2

− 𝑦

𝑤 + 1

= 𝑧

𝑤

2

× 3

𝑥

𝑧

2

− 𝑥

𝑧 + 1

3 𝑦

𝑤

2

− 𝑦

𝑤 + 1

= 𝑐2 × 3 𝑐2 − 𝑐 + 1

3 𝑐2 − 𝑐 + 1

𝑐2 × 3𝑐2−𝑐+1

3𝑐2−𝑐+1 = 𝑐2Ans: D

22. 5𝑦−12

𝑦−2 𝑦−3)≡

𝐴

𝑦−2+

𝐵

𝑦−3

≡ 𝐴 𝑦 − 3 + 𝐵(𝑦 − 2)

𝑦 − 2 (𝑦 − 3)

5𝑦 − 12 = 𝐴 𝑦 − 3 + 𝐵 𝑦 − 2 Let 𝑦 = 3 5 3 − 12 = 𝐵 3 − 2 15 − 12 = 𝐵 = 3 Let 𝑦 = 2 5 2 12 = 𝐴 2 − 3 10 − 12 = −𝐴 −2 = −𝐴 𝐴 = 2

5𝑦−12

𝑦−2 (𝑦−3)=

2

𝑦−2+

3

𝑦−3 Ans: B

23. 𝑟 = 𝑈𝑛

𝑈𝑚

1

𝑛−𝑚=

1

4

−1

2

1

3−2

= −1

2

1

= −1

2


𝑟 = −1

2

𝑇2 = 𝑎𝑟 = −1

2

𝑎 −1

2 = −

1

2

𝑎 = 1

𝑆∞ =𝑎

1−𝑟=

1

1+1

2

=13

2

=2

3Ans: D

24. < 𝐴𝐷𝐵 = 550 angle subtended in an alternate segment < 𝐴𝐷𝐵 = 𝐴𝐵𝐷 = 550angle subtended by tangent draw from a common point. < 𝐵𝐴𝐷+ < 𝐴𝐷𝐵+< 𝐴𝐵𝐷 = 180 < 𝐵𝐴𝐷 + 55 + 55 = 180 < 𝐵𝐴𝐷 + 55 + 55 = 180 < 𝐵𝐴𝐷 = 180 − 110 < 𝐵𝐴𝐷 = 70𝑜 Ans:B

25 Incomplete question OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY

ILE-IFE, NIGERIA 2009 POST-UTME SCREENING

EXERCISE POST UME 2009 MATHEMATICS

1. Factorize 6𝑥2 − 14𝑥 − 12 (a) 2 𝑥 + 3 (3𝑥 − 2)(b) 6 𝑥 − 2 (𝑥 + 1) (c)2 𝑥 −3(3𝑥+2) (d) 6𝑥+2(𝑥−1) (e) 3𝑥+4(2𝑥+3)

2. What is the product of 27

5÷ 3 3 and

1

5

(a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 (e) 1

25

3. If the length of the sides of a right-angled triangle are 3𝑥 + 1 𝑐𝑚, 3𝑥 − 1 𝑐𝑚 and 𝑥𝑐𝑚, what is x? (a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 18 (d) 12 (e) 0

4. Evaluate 𝑥𝑦 2−𝑥2𝑦

𝑥2− 𝑥𝑦 (a) 3 (b)

3

5

(c) 4

5 (d) 3 (e) 4

5. Two fair dice are rolled. What is the probability that both show up the same number of point?

(a) 1

36 (b)

7

36(c)

1

2 (d)

1

3 (e)

1

6

6. In 1984, Tolu was 24 years old and is father 45 years. In what year was Tolu exactly half his father‘s age? (a) 1982 (b) 1981 (c) 1983 (d) 1979 (e) 1978

7. Find the probability that a number selected at random from 40 to 50 is a prime

(a) 3

11 (b)

5

11 (c)

5

10 (d)

4

10 (e)

7

12

8. A man kept 6 black, 5 brown and 7 purple shirts in a drawer. What is probability of him picking a

purple shirt with his eyes closed (a) 1

7 (b)

7

18

(c) 11

18 (d)

7

11 (e) 6.

5

10

9. An(𝑛 − 2)2 sided figure has n diagonals, find the number n of diagonals for a 25 sided figure (a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 9 (e) 10.

10. Find the probability of selecting a figure which is parallelogram from a square, a rectangle, a

rhombus, a kite and a trapezium (a) 5

5 (b)

2

5

(c) 4

5 (d)

1

5 (e)

5

6

11. If P varies inversely as V and V varies directly as R2, find the relationship between P and R given that R = 7 when P = 2 (a) 𝑃 = 98𝑅2 (b) 𝑃𝑅2 = 98

(c)𝑃2𝑅 = 89 (d) 𝑃 =1

98𝑅 (e) 𝑃 =

𝑅2

98

12. If 7 and 189 are the first and fourth terms of a geometric progression respectively find the sum for the first three terms of the progression (a) 182 (b) 180 (c) 91 (d) 63 (e) 28

13. Find the positive number n such that thrice its square is equal to twelve times the number (a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 5 (e) 9

14. A sector of a circle of radius 7.2cm which subtends an angle of 3000 at the centre is used to form a cone. What is the radius of the base of the cone? (a) 6cm (b) 7cm (c) 8cm (d) 9cm (e) 5cm.

15. If 𝑝𝑞 + 1 = 𝑞2 and 𝑡 =1

𝑝−

1

𝑝𝑞 express t in terms of

q (a) 1

𝑝𝑞 (b)

1

𝑞+1 (c)

1

𝑞+2 (d)

1

𝑝+2 (e)

1

1−𝑞

16. Given a regular hexagon, calculate each interior angle of the hexagon (a) 600 (b) 300 (c) 1200 (d) 450 (e) 1350

17. Find n if 𝐿𝑜𝑔24 + 𝐿𝑜𝑔2𝑍 𝐿𝑜𝑔2𝑛 = −1 (a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 12 (d) 27 (e) 26

18. If 𝑥 = 1 is root of the equation 𝑥3 − 2𝑥2 − 5𝑥 + 6, find the other roots (a) -3 and 2 (b) 2 and 2 (c) 3 and -2 (d) 1 and 3 (e) -3 and 1

19. The value of (0.303)3 − (0.02)3 is (a) 0.019 (b) 0.0019 (c) 0.00019 (d) 0.000019 (e) 000035

20. List all integers satisfying the inequality−2 <2𝑥 − 6 < 4 (a) 2, 3, 4, 5 (b) 2, 3, 4 (c) 2, 5 (d) 3, 4, 5 (e) 4, 5

21. If 32𝑦 − 6 3𝑦 − 27 find y (a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) -3 (e) 1

22. A number of pencils were shared out among Peter, Paul and Audu in the ratio 2:3:5 respectively. If Peter got 5, how many were shared? (a) 15 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) 50 (e) 55

23. A sum of money was invested at 8% per annum sample interest. If after 4 years the money became N330.00, what is the amount originally invested? (a) N180 (b) N165.00 (c) N150 (d) N200 (e) N250

SOLUTION TO 2009 POST-UTME

1. 6x2-14x-12 2(3x2 - 7x - 6) 2(x-3)(3x + 2) Ans:C

2. 27

5÷ (3)3 =

27

5 ÷

27

1=

27

5 𝑋

1

27=

1

5

= 27

5 ÷ 33

1

5 =

1

5 𝑋

1

5 =

1

25 Ans:E

3. By Pythagoras theorem hyp2 = opp2 + adj2

(3x + 1}2= (3x -1)2 + x2 x2– 12x = 0, x(x - 12) = 0, x 0

x-12= 0, x = 12 Ans: D

4. 𝑥𝑦 2−𝑥2𝑦

𝑥2−𝑥𝑦 =

𝑥𝑦 (𝑦−𝑥)

𝑥(𝑥−𝑦 ) No correct option

5. The event space (E) = {1, 1; 2, 2;3, 3; 4, 4; 5, 5;6. 6}

Probability = 𝐸𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑆𝑝𝑎𝑐𝑒

𝑆𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑒 𝑆𝑝𝑎𝑐𝑒 =

6

36=

1

6Ans: E


6. Let Tolu's age be equal to half of her father's age in x-years time from 1984. But in years timeTolu's age 24 + x Father's age = 45 + x Since Tolu's age must be half of her father's age in x year time then 24 + x =1/2(45 + x)

2(24 + x) = 45 + x 48 + 2x = 45 + x 2x - x = 45 - 48 x = -3 Ans:B

7. Samples space(s) = {40,41,42,43,44,45,46,47,48,49,50} Event space (E) = {41,43,47}


𝑆𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑒 𝑆𝑝𝑎𝑐𝑒=

3

11 Ans: A

8. Sample space (S) = {6 black, 5brown, 7pupils}

Event space (E) = {7 purple}


𝑆𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑒 𝑆𝑝𝑎𝑐𝑒=

7

18Ans:B

9. If the number of sides = 25 = (n-2)2 = 25

n - 2 = 25 n = 5 + 2 n = 7 Ans:B 10. Types of parallelogram includes: squares,

rectangles, rhombus and kite are all special Therefore, Event space = {square, rectangle, rhombus, kite}

Sample space = {square, rectangle, rhombus, kite, trapezium}


𝑆𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑒 𝑆𝑝𝑎𝑐𝑒 =

4

5 Ans: C

11. P 𝛼1

𝑣 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑉 𝛼 𝑅2

= P 𝛼1

𝑅2

=If R = 7 and P = 2

= 2 = 𝑘

72

K = 98

P = 𝑘

𝑅2 = 𝑃 = 98

𝑅2

PR2 = 98 Ans:B 12. T1=a = 7 T4 =ar3 = 189

𝑎𝑟3

𝑎=

189

7

r3 = 27 = r3 = 33 = 3, T1 + T2 + T3 = a + ar + ar2 7 + 7 X 3 + 7 X 32 7 + 21 + 63 = 91 Ans:C 13. Since the number is n The squares of the number = n2 Three times the square of the number-3n2 Twelve times the number = 12n Since thrice times the Square of the number is

equal to twelve time the number 3n2 = 12n 3n2 – 12n = 0

n(3n- 12) = 0 3n = 12 . n = 4 Ans: B

14, r = 𝜃

360 𝑋 𝐿

Where Qis the angle subtended by the sector L = 7.2cm, 𝜃 = 300°

r = 300

360𝑋 7.2

r = 6cm Ans: A

15. t = 1

𝑝−

1

𝑝𝑞=

𝑞−1

𝑝𝑞

p = 𝑞−1

𝑞𝑡 ……………… (𝑖)

But pq + 1 = q2.....(ii) Put equation (i) into (ii)

𝑞−1

𝑞𝑡 𝑞 + 1 = 𝑞2

𝑞−1

𝑡 + 1 = 𝑞2

𝑞−1

𝑡 = 𝑞2 − 1

𝑞−1

𝑡 𝑞 − 1 𝑞 + 1

𝑞 − 1 = 𝑡 𝑞 − 1 𝑞 + 1

(𝑞−1)

(𝑞−1)(𝑞+1)= 𝑡

𝑡 = 1

𝑞+1 Ans:B

16. Each interior angle of a polygon

= (n − 2) x 180n

𝑛

forhaxagonn =6

(6− 2) x 180

6 =

4 𝑋 180

6=

720

6= 120Ans: C

17. Question not clear 18. Since x ~ 1 then x — 1 is a factor of 𝑥3 − 2𝑥2 − 5𝑥 + 6 𝑥2 − 𝑥 − 6

𝑥3 − 2𝑥2 −𝑥−1

5𝑥 + 6 , − 𝑥3 − 𝑥2 −𝑥2 − 5𝑥

− −𝑥2 + 𝑥 −6𝑥 + 6

− − 6𝑥 + 6 0 0 𝑥2 − 𝑥 − 6 = 𝑥 − 3 𝑥 + 2 = 0 𝑥 − 3 = 0 𝑜𝑟 𝑥 + 2 = 0 𝑥 = 3 𝑜𝑟 − 2 Ans: C 19. (0.303)3 - (0.02)3 But x3 -y3 = (x-y)(x2 + xy + y2) Let x = 0.303 and y = 0.02 (0.303)2 - (0.02)3 = (0.303 - 0.02)(0.3032 + 0.303 x 0.02+0.022) = (0.283)(0.091B + 0.0061 + 0.0004) = 0.0278

No correct option 20. -2< 2x – 6 < 4 -2 < 2x - 6 – 2 + 6 < 2x 4 < 2x = 2 < x = x > 2 2x - 6 < 4 2x < 4 + 6 = 2 x < 10 = x<5 2 < x <5 x - 3,4 No correct option 21. 32y - 6(3y) - 27 = 0 (3y)2 - 6(3y) - 27 = 0 Let p = 3y

P2 - 6p - 27 = 0 P2 - 9 or - 3 . p = 9, But p = 3y, 9= 3y, 32 = 3y, y = 2 Ans:C 22. Pe: Pa : Au = 2:3:5


𝑃2

2=

𝑃𝑎

3=

𝐴𝑢

5= 𝑘

Pe = 2k Pa = 3k Au = 5k Since Peter (Pe) got 5 pencils Pe = 2k 5 = 2k

K = 5

2

Pe =5

Pa = 3k = 3 X 5

2=

15

2

Au = 5k = 5 X 5

2=

25

2

Au = 5k = 5 X 5

2=

25

2

10+15+25

2=

50

2= 25

Total pencils share = 25Ans: B

23. A = P (1 + 𝑃𝑇

100)

P = 7 T = 4 R = 8% A = 330 330 = P (1.32)

P = 330

1.32= 250

24. The original amount invested = N250.00Ans: E

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE IFE,

2008 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISE - MATHEMATICS

1. The expression 𝑎3 + 𝑏3 is equal to A. 𝑎2 + 𝑏 𝑎 −𝑎𝑏+𝑏2 𝐵.𝑎+𝑏𝑎2−𝑎𝑏+𝑏2 𝐶. 𝑎−𝑏2𝑎2−𝑎𝑏+𝑏 𝐷. (𝑎 − 𝑏)(𝑎2 + 𝑎𝑏 + 𝑏2)

2. Factorize 16(3𝑥 + 2𝑦)2 − 25 𝑎 + 2𝑏 2 𝐴. (12𝑥 +8𝑦 + 5𝑎 + 10𝑏 12 + 8𝑦 − 5𝑎 − 10𝑏 𝐵. 20 3𝑥 +2𝑦−𝑎−10𝑏12𝑥+8𝑦−5𝑎−10𝑏 𝐷. 20 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 𝑎 + 2𝑏 (3𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 𝑎 + 2𝑏)

3. A cone has base radius 4cm and height 3cm. The area of its curved surface is A. 12𝜋𝑐𝑚2 𝐵20𝜋𝑐𝑚2 𝐶. 24𝜋𝑐𝑚2 𝐷. 251𝜋𝑐𝑚2

4. A cylinder has height 4cm and base radius 5cm. Its volume to 3significant figure is A. 314.2𝑐𝑚2 𝐵. 31.42𝑐𝑚2 𝐶. 251.4𝑐𝑚2 𝐷. 251𝑐𝑚2

5. Let log 𝑦 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔𝑥3 = 3. 𝑇𝑕𝑒𝑛 𝑦 𝑖𝑠

𝐴. 𝑥

10

3

𝐵. 𝑥

10 −3

C. 10

𝑥 −1/3

𝐷.10

𝑥

3

6. If 𝑥2

𝑎2 −𝑦2

𝑏2 = 1, 𝑡𝑕𝑒𝑛 𝑦 𝑖𝑠

𝐴. ±𝑏

𝑎 𝑎2 − 𝑥2 𝐵. ±

𝑏

𝑎 𝑥2 − 𝑎2 𝐶.

𝑎

𝑏 𝑎2 − 𝑥2

D. ±𝑎

𝑏 𝑥2 − 𝑎2

7. A cyclist rode for 30 minutes at xkm/hr and due to a breakdown he had to push the bike for 2 hirs at x – 5km/hr. If the total distance covered is the range of values for x? A.x<14 B. X<29 C. X<28 D. x<20

8. The expression 𝑎𝑥2 + 𝑏𝑥 takes the value 6 when x = 1 and 10 when x =2. Find its value when x = 5 A. 10 B. 12 C. 6 D. -10

9. Dividing 2𝑥3 − 𝑥2 − 5𝑥 + 1 𝑏𝑦 𝑥 +3 𝑔𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑠 𝑡𝑕𝑒 remainder A.-3 B.47 C.61 D.-47

10. Let 𝑓 𝑥 = 2𝑥3 − 3𝑥2 − 5𝑥 + 6. 𝐼𝑓 𝑥 −

1 𝑑𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑑𝑒𝑠 𝑓 𝑥 𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑑 𝑡𝑕𝑒 𝑝𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑡𝑕𝑒 𝑓𝑢𝑛𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝐴. 1,2,3

2

B.1,2,−3

2 𝐶. −1,2,3 𝐷. 1,−2,−

3

2

11. The difference of two numbers is 10, while their product is 39. Find these numbers. A.-3 and 10 or 13 and 10, B. 3 and -10 or 3 and 13. C.3 and -3 or 3 and 13, D. -3 and 13 or 13 and 3

12. The average age of pupils in a class is 14 years, 2 months. A pupil of 15 years 2 month joins the class and the average age is increased by one month. Find x. A.12 B.6 C.11 D.14 All the 120 pupils in a school learn Yoruba or Igbo or both. Given that 75 learn Yoruba and 60 learn Igbo

13. How many learn both languages? A.60 B. 45 C.15 D.120

14. How many learn Igbo only? A. 45 B. 30 C.15 D.60 Suppose we have matrices

A = 1 −12 3

𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵 = 0 24 3

15. Find𝐴2 + 𝐴𝐵 − 2𝐴

𝐴. 5 −9

12 14 𝐵.

−1 −48 7

𝐶. −4 −412 13

𝐷. 0 −4−8 −6

16. Evaluate the integral ∫ 𝑥2 +1

𝑥 𝑑𝑥

2

1 𝐴.

8

3+

𝑙𝑛 2 𝐵.7

3+ 𝑙𝑛2 𝐶.

7

3− 𝑙𝑛2 𝐷.

8

3

17. If the distance covered by a body in time t seconds is s = t3 – 6t2 +5t, what is its initial velocity? A. 0𝑚𝑠−1 𝐵.−4𝑚𝑠−1 𝐶. 3𝑡2 − 12𝑡 +5𝑚𝑠−1 𝐷. 5𝑚𝑠−1 Suppose D, E and P are subsets of a universal set U. Let U be the set of natural numbers not greater than 10, while D, E and P are respectively the set of odd numbers, even number and prime number. For any set X, its complement is denoted by X’and denote the

empty set 18. Display the set D‘ P A. {3,5,7} B.{2} C.

{4,6,8,10} D. {2,3,5,7} 19. Find D ∩ E A. {2} B. {3,5} C.

{1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10} D. ∅ 20. The trigonometric expression cos 2A + sin 2A can

be written as A.cosA(cos A – sinA) B. cos2A + sin2A – 2sin A cos A C.2 sin A cos A + cos2A D. cos2A +sin2A – 2sin A cos A A bag contains 10 balls of which 3 are red and 7 are white. Two balls are drawn at random. Find the probability of none of the balls is red if the draw is

21. With replacement: A. 0.9 B.1 C. 0.4 D. 0.49

22. Without replacement: A. 0.1 B.0.47 D. 0.42 D.0.21

23. In a throw of a fair die the probability of

obtaining an even number is A. 1 B. 2

3

C. 1

2 𝐷.

2

3

24. Two fair coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability of obtaining at least 1 tail turns

up? A.1

4 𝐵.

3

4 𝐶.

1

2 𝐷. 1

25. Find the value of 1

𝛼−

1

𝛽

A. ±4

3 𝐵.

3

4 𝐶. ±

3

4 𝐷.

1

5


26. A regular polygon has each of the polygon? A.18 B. 36 C.9 D.20

27. One angle of an octagon is 1000 while the other sides are equal. Find each of these exterior angles A.800 B.600 C.1400 D.400

SOLUTION TO 2008 POST UTME SCREENING

1. a3 + b3 = (a+b)(a2 – ab + b2) a3 – b3 = (a – b)(a2 + ab + b2) Ans:B

2. 16(3x + 2y)2 – 52(a + 2b)2 = 42(3x + 2y)2 – 52(a + 2b)2 = [4(3x + 2y)]2 – [5(a + 2b)]2 But a2 – b2 = (a + b)(a – b) = [4(3x + 2y) + 5(a + 2b)][4(3x + 2y) – 5(a + 2b)][4(3x + 2y) – 5(a + 2b)] = [12x + 8y + 5a + 10b][12x + 8y – 5a – 10b] Ans:A

3. r = 4cm, h = 3m ∆𝑂𝐵𝐶 𝑖𝑠 𝑎 𝑟𝑖𝑔𝑕𝑡 𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒 𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒. 𝐿𝑒𝑡 /𝐵𝐶/

= 𝐿 (𝑡𝑕𝑒 𝑠𝑙𝑎𝑛𝑡 𝑕𝑒𝑖𝑔𝑕𝑡) L2 = 32 + 42 L2 = 9 + 16 = 25

L = 25 = 5𝑐𝑚 Curve surface area of a cone = 𝜋𝑟𝐿 = 𝜋 𝑥 4 𝑥 5 =20𝜋𝑐𝑚2 Ans: B

4. Volume of a cylinder = 𝜋𝑟2𝑕 = 𝜋 𝑥 52𝑥 4 =100𝜋 = 314.15𝑐𝑚2 Ans: A

5. Logy + log3 = 3 Whenever a logarithm is written without a base, the base is 10

⇒ 𝐿𝑜𝑔10𝑦

+ 𝐿𝑜𝑔10𝑥3

= 3

But 𝐿𝑜𝑔101000 = 3 ⇒ 𝐿𝑜𝑔10

𝑦+ 𝐿𝑜𝑔10

𝑥3= 𝐿𝑜𝑔

101000

𝐿𝑜𝑔10𝑦𝑥 3

= 𝐿𝑜𝑔101000

𝑦𝑥3 = 1000

y = 1000

𝑥3 = 10

𝑥

3

Ans: D

6. 𝑥2

𝑎2 −𝑥2

𝑎2 = 1

= 𝑥2

𝑎2 − 1 = 𝑦2

𝑏2 ⇒ = 𝑥2−𝑎2

𝑎2 = 𝑦2

𝑏2

y2 = 𝑏2(𝑥2−𝑎2)

𝑎2

⇒ 𝑦 = ± 𝑏2(𝑥2−𝑎2)

𝑎2

y = ±𝑏 𝑥2−𝑎2

𝑎 ⇒ 𝑦 =

±𝑏

𝑎 𝑥2 − 𝑎2 Ans: B

7. Let the distance covered in the first 30mins (0.5hr) be d1 and distance in the 2hrs be d2.

𝑥 =𝑑1

𝑡1

d1 = 𝑥𝑡1 = 0.5𝑥………………… . (1)

x – 5 = 𝑑2

2

𝑑2 = 2 𝑥 − 5 ……………………… (2) d = d1 + d2 = 0.5x + 2(x – 5) = 0.5x + 2x – 10 d = 2.5x – 10 But d < 60 ⇒ 2.5𝑥 < 60 + 10 2.5x < 60 + 10 2.5x < 70

𝑥 <70

2.5𝑜𝑟 𝑥 < 28 Ans: C

8. When x = 1, ax2 + bx = 6 a + b = 6

a = 6 – b…………………(1) When x = 2, ax2 + bx = 10 4a + 2b = 10…………….(2) Subtitute equation 1 into 2 4(6 – b) + 2b = 10 24 – 4b + 2b = 10 -2b = 10 – 24 -2b = -14 b = 7 a = 6 – 7 = -1 When x = 5 ax2 + bx = -1(5)2 + 7(5) = -25 + 35 = 10 Ans: A

9. f(x) = 2x2 – x2 – 5x + 1 Let x + 3 = 0 x = -3 f(-3) = 2(-3)2 – (-3)2 – 5(-3) + 1 = 2(-27) – (9) + 15 + 1 f(-3) = -54 – 9 + 16 = -47 Ans: D

10. 2x - 3x - 6

2

2x - 3x - 5x + 6 (-)2x - 2x

- x - x (-1) - 6x - 6 0 0

3 2

3 2

x - 5x(-) - x +

6 + 6

2

2

x - 1

⇒ 2𝑥3 − 3𝑥2 − 5𝑥 + 6

= (x – 1)(2x2 – x – 6) = (x – 1)(x – 2)(2x + 3) To obtain the pole of the equation, equate the equation to zero (x – 1)(x – 2)(2x + 3) = 0

x = 1, 2 or −3

2 Ans: B

11. Let the number be x & y such that x & y x – y = 10 x = 10 + y………………………………(1) xy = 39………………………………….(2) (10 + y)y = 39 = 0 y2 + 10y – 39 = 10 y = 3 or -13 x = 10 + y When y = 3 x = 13 When y = - 13 x = 10 – 13 x = -3

⇒ 𝑥 = 3 𝑜𝑟 − 3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = 3 𝑜𝑟 − 13 The number is 13 and 3 or -3 and -13 Ans: D

12. 𝑥 =휀𝑥

𝑛

14yrs 2months = 휀𝑥

𝑛

But 14yrs 2months

= 14yrs +2

12𝑦𝑟𝑠 = 14.1667𝑦𝑟𝑠

14.1667yrs = 휀𝑥

𝑥

휀𝑥 = 14.1667𝑥

15yrs 2months = 15yrs +2

12𝑦𝑟𝑠 = 15.1667𝑦𝑟𝑠

If a pupil of 15yrs 2months join the class, the total age of the people in the class is given by 휀𝑥 = 14.1667𝑥 + 15.1667𝑦𝑟𝑠


Since the average age increase by one month, the new average age is 14yrs 3 months (14.25yrs). Since one person is added to the class, the number of pupils in the class now is x + 1

⇒ 14.25 =14.1667 +15.1667

𝑥+1

14.25(x + 1) = 14.1667x + 15.1667 14.25x + 14.25 = 14.1667x + 15.1667 14.25x – 14.1667x = 15.1667 – 14.25 0.0833x = 0.9167

𝑥 =0.9167

0.0833= 11.0048

x = 11 Ans: C 13. n(𝜇) = 120, n(Y) = 75, n(I) = 60

letn(YnI) = x n(Y) only = 75 – x n(I)only = 60 – x

75 - x x 60 - x

6

Y I

1

u = 120

120 = 135 – x 120 – 135 – x -15 = -x x = 15 Ans: C

14. n(I)only = 60 – x = 60 – 15 = 45 Ans: A

15. 𝐴2 = 1 −12 3

1 −12 3

= −1 −48 7

𝐴𝐵 = 1 −12 3

0 24 3

= −4 −112 13

2𝐴 = 2 1 −12 3

= 2 −24 6

𝐴2 + 𝐴𝐵 − 2𝐴 = −1 −48 7

+ −4 −112 13

−

2 −24 6

= −7 −316 14

None of the option is

correct

16. ∫ 𝑥2 +1

𝑥 𝑑𝑥

2

1

𝑥3

3+ 𝐼𝑛𝑥 =

23

3+ 𝐼𝑛2 −

13

3+ 𝐼𝑛1 =

8

3+ 𝐼𝑛2 −

1

3+ 𝐼𝑛1

But in 1 = 0

= 8

3+ 𝐼𝑛2 −

1

3+ 0 =

8

3−

1

3+ 𝐼𝑛2 =

7

3+ 𝐼𝑛2

Ans: B 17. S = t3 – 6t2 + 5t

First obtain the velocity function

𝑑𝑠

𝑑𝑡=

𝑑

𝑑𝑡(𝑡3 − 6𝑡2 + 5𝑡)

v = 3𝑡3 − 12𝑡 + 5 Initial velocity occur at t = 0 v = 3(0)2 – 12(0) + 5 v = 5mls Ans: D

18. U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10} D = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10} P = {2, 3, 5, 7} D’ = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10} D’ P = {2} Ans: B

19. D E = Ans: D

20. Cos2A = cos2A – sin2A Sin2A = 2sinA cosA Cos2A + Sin2A

= cos2A – sin2A + 2sinAcosA Ans: none of the option is correct

21. Since none of the two ball pick is red, then they are both white

Pr(W) = 7

10𝑥

7

10=

49

100= 0.49 Ans: D

22. If the pick is without replacement

Pr(W) = 7

10𝑥

6

9=

14

30= 0.47 Ans: B

23. The faces of a fair dice contain the number 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

pr(even number) = 3

6=

1

2 Ans: C

24. Sample Space(S) = {HH, HT, TT, TH} Event Space(S) = {HT, TT, TH} Let the event of at least one tail be K

Pr(K) = 𝐸𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑠𝑝𝑎𝑐𝑒

𝑆𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑒 𝑠𝑝𝑎𝑐𝑒=

3

4 Ans: B

25. x2 – 5x + 4 = 0 a = 1 b = -5 c = 4

𝛼𝛽 =𝑐

𝑎= 4

𝛼 − 𝛽 = (𝛼 + 𝛽)2 − 4𝛼𝛽

𝛼 − 𝛽 = 52 − 4 4

25 − 16 = 9 = ±3

1

𝛼−

1

𝛽=

𝛽−𝛼

𝛼𝛽=

− 𝛼−𝛽

𝛼𝛽=

−(±3)

4

±3

4 Ans: C

26. Each interior angle of a polygon is equal to 𝑛−2 180

𝑛

⇒ 160 = 𝑛 − 2 180

𝑛

160n = 180n – 360 160n = 180n = -360 -20n = -360

n = 360

−20= 18 Ans: A

27. The sum of the interior angle of a polygon = (n – 2) x 180 for octagon n = 8

⇒ 𝑇𝑕𝑒 𝑠𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑡𝑕𝑒 𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑜𝑛 = (8 – 2) x 180 = 6 x 180 = 1080 Let each of the remaining 7 angles be x 100 + 7x = 1080 7x = 1080 – 100 7 = 980

x = 980

7= 1400

Interior angle + exterior angle = 180 (Angles on a straight line) 140 + Exterior angle = 180 Exterior angle = 180 – 140 Exterior cycle = 400.

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE IFE, NIGERIA

2007 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISE - MATHEMATICS

1. The interior angles of a pentagon are: 1800, 1180, 780 ,840and x. the value of x is: (a) 750 (b) 1080 (c) 1200 (d) 1340

2. All vertices of an isosceles triangle lie on a circle and each of the base angles of the triangle is 650. The angle subtended at the centre of the circle by the base of the triangle is: (a) 1300 (b) 1150 (c) 1000 (d) 650


3. A square tile measures 20cm by 20cm. How many of such files will cover a floor measuring 5m by 4m? (a) 500 (b) 400 (c) 320 (d) 250

4. The volume of a certain sphere in numerically equal to twice its surface area. The diameter of

the sphere is: (a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 6 5. A bearing of 3100, expressed as a compass

bearing is: (a) N500W (b) N400W (c) S400W (d) S500W

6. Which of the following specified sets of data is not necessarily sufficient for the construction of a triangle? (a) three angles (b) two sides and aright angle (c) two sides and an included angle (d) three sides

7. The average age of the three children in a family is 9 years. If the average age of their parent is 39 years, the average age of the whole family is: (a) 20 years (b) 21 years (c) 24 years (d) 27 years.

8. Simplify 1 +2

3− 3 ÷ 1 +

2

3𝑜𝑓

6

7 (a) −

8

33 (b)

21

11 (c)

33

21 (d) −

21

8

9. If 1 + 1

1+1

1+1𝑥

= 5, find x

(a) 3

7 (b)

7

3 (c) −

3

7 (d) −

7

3

10. Evaluate 𝑥 in base 3 if 41𝑥 − 22𝑥 = 17𝑥(a) 11 (b) 8 (c) 12 (d) 22

11. A woman buys 4 bags of rice for L56 per bag and 3 bags of beans for L26 per bag using the currency ―LONI‖ (L) in base 7. What is the total cost of the items in another currency ―MONI‖ (M) in base 8? (a) M224 (b) M114 (c) M340 (d) M440

12. When the price of egg was raised by N2 an egg, the number of eggs which can be bought for N120 is reduced by 5. The present price of an egg is (a) N6 (b) N7 (c) N8 (d) N10

13. How long will it take a sum of money invested at 8% simple interest to double the original sum? (a) 8years (b) 10.5years (c) 12years (d) 12.5years

14. The journey from Lagos to Ibadan usually takes a motorist 1 hour 30 minutes. By increasing his average speed by 20km/hr, the motorist saves 15 minutes. His usual speed, in km/hr is (a) 100 (b) 90 (c) 85 (d) 80

15. The smallest section of a rod which can be cut into exactly equal sections, each of either 30cm or 36cm in length is (a) 90cm (b) 180cm (c) 360cm (d) 540cm

16. If 𝑥 = 0.0012 + 0.00074 + 0.003174, what is the difference between x to 2 decimal places and x to 1 significant figure? (a) 0.01 (b) 0.0051 (c) 0.1 (d) 0.005

17. The angle of depression of two points A and B on a place field from the top of a mast erected between A and B are 300 and 450 respectively. If A is westward of B, find /AB/ if the height of the

mast is 15m from the field. (a) 15 3𝑚 (b)

5(3 + 3𝑚) (c) 15(1 + 3)𝑚 (d)

15( 3 − 1) 18. The radius of a circle is given as 10cm subject to

an error of 0.2cm. The error in the area of the

circle is (a) 1

4% (b)

1

50% (c) 2% (d) 4%

19. If 𝜃 is acute, evaluate cos 90−𝜃 +sin (180−𝜃)

cos 180−𝜃 −sin (90−𝜃) (a)

tan 𝜃 (b) –tan 𝜃 (c) cot 𝜃 (d) –cot 𝜃 20. In a survey of 100 students in an institution, 80

students speak Yoruba, 22 speak Igbo, while 6 speak neither Igbo nor Yoruba. How many students speak Yoruba and Igbo? (a) 96 (b) 8 (c) 64 (d) 12

21. A bag contains 5 yellow balls, 6 green balls and 9 black balls. A ball is drawn from the bag. What is the probability that it is a black or yellow ball?

(a) 37

160 (b)

133

400 (c)

77

800 (d)

133

800

The table below shows the distribution of weight measure for 100 students Weight 60-62 63-65 66-68 69-71 72-74

F 5 18 42 27 8

22. Calculate the mean of the distribution to two

decimal places (a) 64.45 (b) 62.45 (c) 67.45 (d) 65.45

23. Calculate the mode of the distribution to two decimal places (a) 67.33 (b) 65.33 (c) 65.53 (d) 67.53

24.

T‘Q is a tangent to the circle ABCDT, angle DTQ = 400, angle ATT‘ = 300, then angle ATD is (a) 700 (b) 900 (c) 2500 (d) 1100

SOLUTION TO 2007 POST UTME SCREENING TEST

1. Sum of the interior of a polygon = (n-2) x 180 For pentagon n = 5 Sum of the interior of the pentagon = (5 - 2) x 180 = 3 x 180 = 540 = 180 + 118 + 84 + 78 + x = 540 460 + x = 540 x = 540-460 x = 80°No correct option 2. <AOC = 2x (Angle at the centre of a circle = 2x

angle at circumference) x + 65 + 65 -180(sum of the angle of a triangle

x + 13Q = 150 x = 150 - 130 x = 500 <AOC = 2x = 2(50) <AOC = 1000 Ans: C


3. Area of the floor = 5m x 4m = 500cm x 400cm = 200000cm2

Area of each tile = 20cm x 20on = 400cm2

𝟐𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟐

𝟒𝟎𝟎𝒄𝒎𝟐 = 𝟓𝟎𝟎𝒕𝒊𝒍𝒆𝒔 Ans:A

4. Volume of a sphere =4

3𝜋r3

Surface area of a sphere = 4𝜋r2

= 2(47𝜋r2) 4

3=-𝜋𝑟3

6(4𝜋r2) = 4𝜋r3

6(4𝜋r2) = (4𝜋r2)r

But r = 𝑑

2= 6

d = 12 Ans:C 5. 3100 – W400 N or N50° W Ans:A 6. A triangle can be constructed if three sides, two

sides with an included angle or two sides and a right angle are given. Ans:A

7. 𝑥1− =

𝑥1

𝑛1

𝑥1− = 9 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑛1 = 3

9 = 𝑥1

3

𝑥1 = 3 𝑋 9 = 27

𝑥2− =

𝑥2

𝑛2

39 = 𝑥2

2

𝑥2 = 78 𝑋 = 𝑥1 + 𝑥2

= 27 + 78 𝑋 = 105 𝑛 = 𝑛1 + 𝑛2 = 3 + 2 = 5

𝑥− =

𝑥

𝑛=

105

5= 21𝑨𝒏𝒔:𝑨

8. 1+2

3− 3 ÷ 1 +

2

3 𝑜𝑓

6

7

1 + 2

3− 3 ÷ 1 +

4

7

1 + 2

3 – 3 ÷

7+4

7

1 + 2

3 – 3 ÷

11

7

1 + 2

3−

3

1 𝑋

7

11

1

1 +

2

3−

21

11

33+22−63

33= −

8

33Ans:A

9. 1 + 1

1+1

1+1𝑥

1 + 1

𝑥=

𝑥+1

𝑥

1 + 1

1+1

𝑥

= 1

𝑥+`1

𝑥

= 𝑥

1+𝑥

1 + 1

1+1

𝑥

= 1 +1

𝑥+1=

𝑥+1+𝑥

𝑥+1

= 2𝑧+1

𝑥+1

1

1+1

1+1𝑥

= 1

2𝑥+1=

𝑥+1

2𝑥+1

= 2𝑥+1+𝑥+1

2𝑥+1

= 3𝑥+2

2𝑥+1=

3𝑥2

2𝑥+1= 5

3x + 2 = 5 (2x +1) 3x + 2 = 10x + 5 2 – 5 = 10x – 3x -3 = 7x

x = -3/7 Ans:C 10. 41𝑥 − 22𝑥 − 17𝑥 Converting each number to base 10 4 𝑋 𝑥 + 1 𝑋 𝑥0 − 2 𝑋 𝑥 + 2 𝑋 𝑥0 = 1 𝑋 𝑥1 + 7 𝑋 𝑥0 4𝑥 + 1 − 2𝑥 − 2 = 𝑥 + 7 2𝑥 − 1 = 𝑥 + 7 2𝑥 − 𝑥 = 7 + 1 𝑥 = 8 𝑨𝒏𝒔: 𝑩 11. Cost of 4 bags of rice = 4x567 = 3237 Cost of 3 bags of beam = 3 x 267 = 1147

Total cost of item = 3237 + 1147 =4407

Convert 4407 to base 10 4407 =4x72 + 4 x 71 +0 X 70

= 4 x 49 + 28 + 0 = 22410

Convert 12410 to base 8 8 224

8 28 R 0

8 3 R 4

0 R 3

22410 = 34010 Ans: C 12. Let the original cost of each egg The new cost of each egg be N(x + 2) Let the original number of egg be n The new number of egg be n - 5 = Number of

eggs

𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑎𝑚𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑚𝑜𝑛𝑒𝑦 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑑 𝑜𝑛 𝑒𝑔𝑔

𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑒𝑎𝑐 𝑕 𝑒𝑔𝑔

The number of egg (n),N120 can originally bought for 𝑁x each is given by

n =120

𝑥

Subtract 5 from both side

n - 5 = 120−5𝑥

𝑥………… . (𝑖)

If the price of an egg is increase by 𝑁𝑥[i.e. price of egg is now $t(x + 2)]. the number of egg &120 can buy is n – 5

n - 5 = 120

𝑥+2……………… . . (𝑖𝑖)

Substitute equation 1 into 2

120−5𝑥

𝑥=

120

𝑥+2

120 − 5𝑥 𝑥 + 2 = 120𝑥 120𝑥 + 240 − 5𝑥2 − 10𝑥 = 120𝑥 -5𝑥2 − 10𝑥 240 = 120𝑥 − 120𝑥 -5𝑥2 − 10𝑥 + 240 = 0 Divide through by -5 x2 + 2x - 48 = 0 x = 6 or - 8 The original price of an egg =N 6 New price of an egg - N(x + 2) = N8 Ans:C 13. Original amount of money invested is principal

(P)


The sum of money received base on the invested principal is called the amount (A) Since A is to double P

A = 2P R = 8% T =?

I =𝑃𝑅𝑇

100

A = P + I I = A – P

A – P = 𝑃𝑅𝑇

100

2P – P = 𝑃𝑅𝑇

100

P = 𝑃𝑅𝑇

100

100P = PRT 100 = 8T

T = 100

8= 12.5 𝑦𝑟𝑠Ans:D

14. t1 = 1hr,30mins = 1.5rs Let his original speed be 𝑥 𝑘𝑚/𝑕𝑟

Speed = 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑑

𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛

d = 𝑑

1.5

d =1.5x …………………………..(i) If he increase his speed by 20km/hr, new speed is

(x + 20)km/hr. If he saves 15mins as a result of this speed, new time taken is 1hr, 30mins minus 15mins {i.e. 1hr 15min=1.25hr)

x + 20 = 𝑑

1.25

d = 1.25 ( x + 20) ……………………… (ii) Equate equation I and ii 1.5x = 1.25 (x + 20) 1.5x = 1.25 + 25 1.5x – 1.25x = 25 0.25x = 25

x = 25

0.25= 100

x = 100km/hrAns:A 15. B 16. x = 0.0012 + 0.00074 + 0.003174 = 0.005114 0.01(2d.p)or0.005(1s.f) x = 0.01-0.005 = 0.005 Ans:D

17. But H = 𝑥𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝜃2𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝜃2

tan 𝜃2 +tan 𝜃2

Where 𝜃1 = 300 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜃2 = 450

15 = 𝑥𝑡𝑎𝑛 30 tan 45

𝑡𝑎𝑛 45+tan 30

15 = 𝑥𝑋

1

3 𝑋 1

1+ 1

3

15 =

𝑥

3

3+1

3

15 = 𝑥 3

3 3+1

15 = 𝑥

3+1

X = 15 ( 3 + 1)𝑚 Note that if point A and B are on the same side

of the erected mass then

H = 𝑥𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝜃1𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝜃2

tan 𝜃2 +tan 𝜃1 (𝑊𝑕𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝜃2𝜃1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 𝑖𝑠 the distance

between A and B Ans:C 18. r= 10cm ∆𝑟- = 0.2cm

A = 𝜋𝑟2

∆𝐴

𝐴=

∆𝜋

𝜋+

2∆𝑟

𝑟 (𝑢𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑡𝑕𝑒 𝑡𝑕𝑒𝑜𝑟𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑟)

∆𝜋 = 0,

∆𝐴

𝐴= 2

∆𝑟

𝑟

= 2 X 0.2

10

= 0.4

10= 0.04

= ∆𝐴

𝐴 X 100 = 0.04 X 100 = 4% Ans:D

19. Cos (90 – 𝜃) = sin 𝜃 sin 180 − 𝜃 = sin 𝜃 Cos (180 – 𝜃) = − cos 𝜃)

= Cos (90 − 𝜃 )+𝑆𝑖𝑛 (180−𝜃 )

𝐶𝑜𝑠 180−𝜃 −sin (90−𝜃)

𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝜃+𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝜃

− cos 𝜃−cos 𝜃=

2𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝜃

−2𝐶𝑜𝑠 𝜃= −

𝑆𝑖𝑛𝜃

𝐶𝑜𝑠 𝜃= − tan𝜃Ans:B

20. Let Y denote Yoruba and I denote Igbo n(Y) = 80 , n (I)= 22, n (Y1 nI1) = 6, and n(𝜇) = 100

Let n (Y nI) = x n (Y) only 80 – x, n(I) only = 22 – x 100 = 80 – x + x + 22 – x + 6 100 = 108 –x 100 – 108 = -x -x = 8 Ans:B 21. Pr(B or Y ) = Pr(B) + Pr (Y)

= 9

20+

5

20

= 14

20=

7

10No correct option

22. Class Boundary

9.5-62.5

2.5 -65.5

5.5 – 68.5

8.5 -71.5

1.5 -74.5

Mean Weight (x)

61 64 67 70 73

Frequency (P)

5 18 42 27 8

Fx 305 1152 2814 1890 584

𝑥− =

휀𝑥

휀𝑓

= 305 + 1152 + 2819 + 1890 + 584

5+18+42+27+8=

6745

100=

67.45Ans:C

23. Mode = 𝐿1 + ∆1

∆2+∆1 𝑘,

Where 𝐿1 is lower class boundary of the modal class, the class with the highest frequency𝐿1 = 65.6,

∆1 = Difference between the frequency of the modal class and the class immediately before it (∆1 + 42 – 18 =24)

∆2= Difference between the frequency of the modal class and the class immediately after it (∆2= 42 − 27 = 15)

k = class interval (k = 68.5 – 65.5 = 3

Mode = 65 + 24

24+15 𝑋 3

65.5 + 1.8462 = 67.3462 ≅ 67.35Ans: A 24. Since TT'Q is a straight line <T'TA + < ATD+< DTQ = 180 (Angles on a straight line) 30+<-ATD+40= 180 - 30 – 40 <ATD = 180 – 30 – 40, <ATD = 110° Ans:D


OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE IFE 2006 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISE - MATHEMATICS

1. Solve for p in the following equation given in base

two 11(p + 110) = 1001p (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 110 (d) 111

2. Factorize 16 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 2 − 25(𝑎 + 2𝑏)2 (a) 12𝑥 + 8𝑦 + 5𝑎 + 10𝑏 (12𝑥 + 8𝑦 − 5𝑎 − 10𝑏) (b) 12𝑥 + 8𝑦 − 5𝑎 − 10𝑏 (12𝑥 + 8𝑦 − 5𝑎 − 10𝑏) (c) 20 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 − 𝑎 − 2𝑏 (3𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 𝑎 + 2𝑏) (d) 20 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 1 + 2𝑏 (3𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 𝑎 + 2)

3. A cone has base radius 4cm and height 3cm. the area of its curved surface is (a) 12𝜋𝑐𝑚2 (b) 24𝜋𝑐𝑚2 (c) 20𝜋𝑐𝑚2 (d) 15𝜋𝑐𝑚2

4. Let log y + log 3 = 3. Then, y is (a) 10

𝑥

3

(b) 𝑥

10

3

(c) 𝑥

10 −3

(d) 10

𝑥 −

1

3

5. If 𝑥2

𝑎2 − 𝑦2

𝑏2 = 1, then y is (a) ±𝑏

𝑎 𝑥2 − 𝑎2 (b)

𝑎

𝑏 𝑎2 − 𝑥2 (c) ±

𝑎

𝑏 𝑥2 − 𝑎2 (d) ±

𝑏

𝑎 𝑎2 − 𝑥2

6. A cyclist rode for 30 minutes at x km/hr. and due to a breakdown he had to push the bike for 2hrs at (x-5)km/hr. If the total distance covered is less than 60km, what is the range of values for x? (a) x< 14 (b) x <20 (c) x < 29 (d) x < 28

7. A businessman invested a total of N200,000.00 in two companies which paid dividends of 5% and 7% respectively. If he received a total of N11,600.00 as dividend, how much did he invest at 5%? (a) N160,000 (b) N140,000 (c) N120,000 (d) N80,000

8. In a class, 37 students take at least one of Chemistry, Economics and Government, 8 students take Chemistry, 19 take Economics and 25 take Government, 12 students take Economics and Government but nobody takes Chemistry and Economics. How many students take both Chemistry and Government? (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

9. Z is party constant and partly varies inversely as the square of d. when d = 1, z = 11 and when d = 2, z = 5. Find the value of z when d = 4. (a) 2 (b) 3.5 (c) 5 (d) 5.5

10. Expand the expression 𝑥2 − 2𝑥 − 3 (𝑥2 + 𝑥 +1)(a) 𝑥2 − 4𝑥2 − 5𝑥 − 3 (b) −𝑥3 − 4𝑥2 + 5𝑥 − 3 (c) 𝑥4 − 𝑥3 − 4𝑥2 − 5𝑥 − 3 (d) 𝑥4 − 4𝑥2 − 5𝑥 − 3

Suppose we have matrices 𝐴 = 1 −12 3

and

𝐵 = 0 24 3

11. Find𝐴2 + 𝐴𝐵 − 2𝐴 (a) −5 −912 14

(b) −1 −48 7

(c)

−4 −412 13

(d) 0 −4−8 −6

12. The inverse of matrix B is (a) 1

8 −3 2

4 0 (b)

−3 24 0

(c) 1

8 3 −4−2 0

(d) 1 00 1

13. The indefinite integral of the function 𝑓 𝑥 =

𝑥 cos𝑥 for any constant 𝑘, is (a) – 𝑥 cos 𝑥 +

sin 𝑥 + 𝑘 (b) 𝑥 sin 𝑥 − cos𝑥 (c) 𝑥 sin 𝑥 + cos𝑥 + 𝑘 (d) 𝑥 + sin 𝑥 + cos𝑥 + 𝑘

14. Evaluate the integral ∫ 𝑥2 +1

𝑥 𝑑𝑥

2

1 (a)

8

3+ 𝐼𝑛2

(b) 7

3+ 𝐼𝑛2 (c)

7

3− 𝐼𝑛3 (d)

8

3

15. The trigonometric expression 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2𝐴 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛 2𝐴

can be written as (a) 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝐴(𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴 – 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴) (b) 𝑐𝑜𝑠2𝐴 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝐴− 2 sin𝐴 cos 𝐴 (c) 2 sin𝐴 cos𝐴 +𝑐𝑜𝑠2𝐴+sin2𝐴 (d) 𝑐𝑜𝑠2𝐴+𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝐴−2𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝐴 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝐴 Suppose D,E and P are subsets of a universal set U. Let U be the set of natural numbers not greater than 10, while D, E and P are respectively the set of odd numbers, even number and prime number. For any set X, its complement is denoted by 𝑋′ and 𝜙 denote the empty set

16. Display the set 𝐷 ∩ 𝑃 (a) {3, 5, 7} (b) {2} (c) {4, 6, 8, 10} (d) {2, 3, 5, 7}

17. Find 𝐷 ∩ 𝐸 (a) {2} (b) {3, 5} (c) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10} (d) Φ A bag contains 10 balls of which 3 are red and 7 are white. Two balls are drawn at random. Find the probability of none of the balls is red if the draw is

18. With replacement: (a) 0.9 (b) 1 (c) 0.4 (d) 0.49

19. Without replacement: (a) 0.1 (b)0.47 (c) 0.42 (d) 0.21

20. A regular polygon has each of its angles as 1600. What is the number of sides of the polygon? (a) 36 (b) 9 (c) 18 (d) 20

21. A girl walks 30m from a point P on a bearing of 0400 to a point Q. She then walks 30m on a bearing of 1400 to a point R. the bearing of R from P is (a) 900 (b) 500 (c) 450 (d) 400

22. How many different three digit numbers can be formed using the integers 1 to 6 if no integer occurs twice in a number? (a) 24 (b) 120 (c) 60 (d) 48

In how many different ways can the letters of the word GEOLOGY be arranged in order? (a) 720 (b) 1260 (c) 2520 (d) 5040

SOLUTION TO 2006 POST UTME SCREENING TEST

1. 11 (P + 110) = 1001P, 11(P) + 11(110) = 1001(P) But 11(110) = 10010, 11(P) + 10010 = 1001(P),

Collect like terms, 10010= 1001(P)- 11(P) 10010- [1001-11](P),10010= 110(P)

P = 10010

110 = 11 Ans: B

2. 16 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 2 − 25 𝑎 + 2𝑏 2 = 42 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 2 − 52 𝑎 + 2𝑏 2 = {4 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 }2 − {5 𝑎 + 2𝑏 }2

𝑎2 − 𝑏2 = (𝑎 + 𝑏)(𝑎 − 𝑏) = 4 3𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 5 𝑎 + 2𝑏 {4 3𝑥 + 2𝑦

= −5 𝑎 − 2𝑏 } 12𝑥 + 8𝑦 + 5𝑎 + 10𝑏 12𝑥 + 8𝑦 − 5𝑎 −10𝑏Ans:A

3. r = 4cm, h = 30m


OBC is a right angle triangle.

Let /BC/= L (the slant height) 𝐿2 = 32 + 42 𝐿2 = 9 + 16 = 25

L = 25 = 5𝑐𝑚 Curve surface area of a cone 2𝜋𝐿 = 2𝜋 𝑋 4 𝑋 5 = 20𝜋𝑐𝑚2 B Ans: C 4. logy + Iog3 = 3 𝐿𝑜𝑔 10

𝑦+ 𝐿𝑜𝑔 10

3 = 3

𝐿𝑜𝑔101000 = 3

𝐿𝑜𝑔10𝑦

+ 𝐿𝑜𝑔103 = 𝐿𝑜𝑔10

1000

𝐿𝑜𝑔103 = 𝐿𝑜𝑔10

1000

y = 1000

3 𝑵𝒐 𝒄𝒐𝒓𝒓𝒆𝒄𝒕 𝒐𝒑𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏

5.𝑥2

𝑥2 = 𝑦2

𝑏2 = 1

𝑥2

𝑎2 − 1 = 𝑦2

𝑏2 = 𝑥2−𝑎2

𝑎2 = 𝑦2

𝑏2

𝑦2 = 𝑏2 (𝑥2−𝑎2)

𝑎2 = 𝑦 = 𝑏2(𝑥2−𝑥2)

𝑎2

𝑦 = ± 𝑥2−𝑎2

𝑎𝑦 =

±𝑏

𝑎 𝑥2 − 𝑎2Ans:A

6. Let the distance covered in the first 3Gmins (0.5hr) be d1 and distance in the 2hrs be d2.

𝑥 =𝑑1

𝑡1

𝑑1 = 𝑥𝑡1 = 0.5𝑥……… . . (𝑖)

𝑥 − 5 = 𝑑2

2

𝑑2 = 2 𝑥 − 5 ……………… . 𝑖𝑖 𝑑 = 𝑑1 + 𝑑2 = 0.5𝑥 + 2 𝑥 − 5 0.5𝑥 + 2𝑥 − 10 𝑑 = 2.5𝑥 − 10 But d < 60 = 2.5𝑥 − 10 < 60 2.5𝑥 < 60 + 10 2.5𝑥 < 70

𝑥 <70

2.5𝑜𝑟 𝑥 < 28 𝑨𝒏𝒔: 𝑫

7. Let the amount invested at 5% be Nx Then the amount invested at 7% will be #(200,000 - x)

I1= 5

100𝑋 𝑥 =

5𝑥

100= 0.05𝑥,

I2 7

100𝑋 200,000 − 𝑥

= 0.07(200,000 – x ) , = 14000 – 0.07x I = I1 + I2 = 0.05x + 14000 – 0.07x I = -0.02x + 14000 But 1 (total dividends) = N1 600.00 11600 = -0.02x + 14000 11600 - 14000 = -0.02x

x = 2400

−0.02= 120,000.00 Ans:C

8. Let the universal set be denoted by n, chemistry by C, Economics by E and Government by G.

n(𝜇) = 37, n(C) = 8, n(G) = 25, n(E) = 19, n(Eng] = 12, n(CnE) = 0

Let (C G) = x and (G E) = y = 12

n(C)only = 8 - x C(G}only= 25-(x + y), (E)only= 19 - y

37 = 8 - x + 25 - (x + y) + y + 19 - y 37 = 52 - x – y,

37 - 52 = -x –y, -15 = -(x + y), X + y = 15, = (G)only = 25 - (x + y} = 25 – 15 =

10, x + y = 15 , x+12 = 15 , x = 15- 12 = 3 , n(C n G) = 3 Ans:A

9. Z = 𝑘1 =𝑘2

𝑑2

Where d = 1 and z = 11,

11 = 𝑘1 = + 𝑘2

12 , 11 = 𝑘1 + 𝑘2,

𝑘2 = 11 − 𝑘1 ……… . . (𝑖), 𝑊𝑕𝑒𝑛 𝑑 = 2 𝑧 = 5,

5 = 𝑘1 + 𝑘2

22,

5 = 𝑘1 =𝑘2

4

Multiply by 4, 20 = 4𝑘1 + 𝑘2 𝑘2 = 20 − 4𝑘1 ……… . (𝑖𝑖) 𝐸𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝐸𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑖 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑖𝑖 11 - 𝑘1 = 20 − 4𝑘1 4𝑘1 − 𝑘1 = 20 − 11 3𝑘1 = 9 𝑘1 = 3 But 𝑘2 = 11 − 𝑘1 = 11 – 3 = 8

Z = 𝑘1 + 𝑘2

12

Z = 3 + 8

𝑑2

When d = 4

Z = 3 + 8

42 = 3 + 8

16= 3 + 0.5

Z = 3.5 Ans:B 10. (𝑥2 − 2𝑥 − 3) (𝑥2 + 𝑥 + 1) (𝑥4 + 𝑥3 + 𝑥2 − 2𝑥3 − 2𝑥3 − 2𝑥 − 3𝑥2 − 3𝑥 − 3 𝑥4 − 𝑥3 − 4𝑥2 − 5𝑥 − 3 Ans:C

11. A2 = 1 −12 3

1 −12 3

= −1 −48 7

AB = 1 −12 3

0 24 3

= −4 −112 13

2A = 2 1 −12 3

= 2 −24 6

A2 + AB – 2A = −1 −48 7

+ −4 −112 13

−

2 24 6

= −7 −716 14

No correct option

12. Let the inverse of matrix B = 𝑎 𝑏𝑐 𝑑

But B-1B = I

𝑎 𝑏𝑐 𝑑

0 24 3

= 1 00 1

4𝑏, 2𝑎 + 3𝑏4𝑑, 2𝑐 + 3𝑑

= 1 00 1

, 4b = 1, b = 1

4

2𝑎 + 3𝑏 = 0 2𝑎 + 3 1

4 = 0, 2𝑎 = −

3

4

𝑎 = −3

8, 4d = 0, 𝑑 =

0

4= 0

2𝑐 + 3𝑑 = 1 2𝑐 + 3 0 = 1

2𝑐 + 0 = 1 𝑐 = 1

2

𝑎 𝑏𝑐 𝑑

= −

3

8

1

41

20 =

1

8 −3 2

4 0 𝑨𝒏𝒔:𝑨

13. Using integration by path ∫𝑢𝑑𝑣 = 𝑢𝑣 − ∫𝑣𝑑𝑢

Let 𝑢 = 𝑥𝑑𝑣 = cos 𝑥𝑑𝑥, 𝑑𝑢

𝑑𝑥= 1 𝑣 = 𝑆𝑖𝑛𝑥


= 𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 + 𝑘, = 𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 + cos 𝑥 + 𝑘, 𝑨𝒏𝒔: 𝑪

14. ∫ 𝑥2 +1

𝑥

2

1𝑑𝑥

𝑥3

3+ 𝐼𝑛 𝑥

1

2

= 23

3+ 𝐼𝑛 2 −

13

3+ 𝐼𝑛 1

8

3+ 𝐼𝑛 2 −

1

3+ 𝐼𝑛 1

𝐵𝑢𝑡 𝐼𝑛 1 = 0

8

3+ 𝐼𝑛 2 −

1

3+ 0

8

3−

1

3+ 𝐼𝑛 2 =

7

3+ 𝐼𝑛 2Ans:B

15. Cos2A = cos2A — sin2A Sin2A = 2sinA cosA Cos2A + Sin2A = 2sinAcosA + cos2 A - sin2A No correct option 16. U = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10} D = {1,3,5,7,9} E = {2,4,6,8,10} P =(2,3, 5, 7} D' = {2,4,6,8,10} D' ∩ P = {2}Ans: B 17. D ∩ 𝐸 = ∅Ans:D 18. Since none of the two ball pick is red. then they

are both white

Pr (W) = 7

10𝑋

7

10=

49

100= −0.49 𝑨𝒏𝒔:𝑫

19. If the pick is done without replacement

Pr (W) = 7

10 𝑋

6

9=

14

30= 0.47Ans:B

20. Each interior angle of a polygon is equal to

𝑛−2 180

𝑛 , 160 =

𝑛−2 180

𝑛, 160n = 180n – 360,

160n – 180n = -360, -20n = -360

n =−360

20= 18Ans:C

21. q2 = 302 + 302 – 2 X 30 X 30cos80 = 1800 – 312.5667, = 1487.4332

q = 1487.4333 = 38.5673𝑚

30

𝑆𝑖𝑛𝜃=

38.5673

𝑆𝑖𝑛80

Sin 𝜃 30𝑆𝑖𝑛80

38.5673= 0.7660

𝜃 = 𝑆𝑖𝑛 − 1 0.7660 = 49.9999 ≅ 500 Bearing of R from P = 40 + 50 = 90° Ans:A 22- The digit given arel,2,3,4,5,6. Since we have 6

digits to take three at a time. The number of three digit form is 6p3

6p3 = 6!

6−3 ! =

6𝑋5𝑋4𝑋3!

3!= 120 Ans:B

23. n = 7, r = 2,2

Number of ways = 7!

2!2!=

5040

2𝑋2=

5040

4

= 1260 𝑤𝑎𝑦𝑠 𝑨𝒏𝒔:𝑩

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE-IFE

2015 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

GOVERNMENT

1. The ultimate authority in a state is A. power B.

sovereignty C. influence D. legitimacy

2. How does the president relieve a minster of his

appointment in a presidential system of

government? A. In consultation with the

legislature B. In consultation with the judiciary

C. By unilateral action D. After serving a full

tenure

3. In Nigeria, promotion of judges is the

responsibility of the A. Chief Justice of the

Federation B, Council of Legal Education C.

Judicial Service Commission D. Attorney-

General and Minster of Justice

4. The legislature in Nigeria under the 1999

Constitution is composed of A. 109 senators and

360 members of the House of Representatives B.

109 senators and 350 members of the House

Representatives C. 108 senators and350

members of the House of Representatives D. 100

senators and 250 members of the House of

Representatives

5. The European Union (EU) is an A. Economic

Organization B. Association of former British

Colonies C. Organization of European States D.

Union of European Organizations

6. Which of the following does not describe a party

system? A. one dominant party system B. two

party system C. three party system D. multi-

party system

7. Under a parliamentary system of government,

the cabinet holds office at the pleasure of the A.

head of state B. electorate C. legislature D.

opposition

8. One of the foremost theorists of federalism was

A. A.V. Dicey B. K.C Wheare C. Karl Marx D.

Baron de Montesquieu

9. Nigeria's voting at the United Nations is guided

primarily by A. her national interest B. world

peace C. the .cold war D. her concern for Africa

10. Gerrymandering refers to the A. Conduct of

elections into local government offices B.

Registration of political parties C. conduct of

gubernatorial elections D. delineation of

electoral constituencies

11. The principles of checks and balances empowers

the judiciary to A. apply the law B. administer

the criminal justice system C. abrogate the law

D. invalidate the actions of the other arms

12. The final stage in the process of enacting

legislation A. assent B. final reading C.

notification D. guillotine

13. The principles that have guided Nigeria foreign

policy since independence is A. peaceful

coexistence B. legal equality of states C. political

dependence D. non-alignment

14. Communism may include all the following

except A. Privatization B. Deregulation C.

Trade liberalization D. Industrialization

15. 'From all according to his ability, to all according

to his need' describes A. Socialism B. Fascism C.

Imperialism D. Communism

16. Political activity at the diplomatic level or at the

international society is called A. International,


relations B. International law C. International

politics D. All of the above

17. Which of these is riot an instrument of foreign

policy? A. war B. diplomacy C. subversion D.

foreign aid

18. Which of the following is not a feature of

Nigeria's electoral system? A. direct election B.

proportional representation C. general election

D. secret ballot

19. In politics, power is all the following except A.

Capacity to affect the actions of others B. Ability

to make people do things they otherwise will not

do C. An object D. It is part of a relationship

20. The Legislature perform all the following

functions except A. Determines the general

direction of public polices B. Investigating and

monitoring the activities of the official of

government C. Exercises power of appointment

of government officials D. Enforcing the law

21. The foreign policy objective of developed

countries is usually centred on A. economic

development B. peace and security C. war D.

political independence

22. A modem legislature performs all the following

functions except A. Ratification of treaties B.

Oversight functions C. Collection of tax revenue

D. Passing bills into law

23. The commission established to handle the

electoral activities in the Second Republic of

Nigeria was A. NEC B. FEDECO C. NECON D.

INEC

24. All but one of these is not an agency of political

socialization A. The constitution B. The family C.

Peer group D. Schools

25. All but one of these is not a tactic adopted by

pressure groups in the pursuit of their objectives

A. Propaganda B, Lobbying C. Assault D. Boycott

SOLUTION

1.B 2.C 3.C 4.A 5.C 6.C 7.B 8.B 10.A 11. No

answer 12.D 13.A 14.No answer 15.D 16.D 17. D

18.B 19.C 20.C 21.B 22.C 23.B 24.A 25.C

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE-IFE, NIGERIA 2014 POST-UTME

SCREENING EXERCISE, GOVERNMENT

1. Which of the following is not a consideration in the formation of a federal system? A. Size of the territory B. cultural diversity C. population sized D. the number of wealthy leaders

2. Citizenship of a country may be acquired through A.Nationalization B. obedience to the law of a country C.Naturalization D. nomination

3. Electrion serves the following purposes except A. Political participation by the citizens B. perpectuate a particular political party in government C. accountability of political leaders D. acceptable choice of leaders

4. In a one party state A. Freedom of the press is always guaranteed B.the legislature is bicameral C. only the opposition party is allowed D. the ruling party is the only legal party

5. Which of the following is not a condition for fre and fair elections A. Existence of an impartial electoral body B. free press C. partisan support for opposition parties by the electoral body D. absence of intimidation of voters

6. The clear formulation of the principle of rule of law is largely associated with A. Montesquieu B. Bodin C. Yar‘Adua D.Dicey

7. The organ of the United Nations with primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security is the A. General Assembly B. Secretariat C. Security Council D. International Court of Justice

8. The Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) was established in A. 1964 B.1972 C. 1975 D.1986

9. An unwritten constitution implies that A. it is based only on conventions B. no aspect is written down C. it is not contained in a single document D.The king or queen is supreme

10. In a federal constitution, concurrent legislative list contains issues within the powers of A. Federal and state governments B. federal government and president C. local and state governments D. state government and the governor.

11. The major objective of pressure groups is to A. influence government policies in its favour B. support a good political party C. decides who win an election D. educate the people.

12. The Public Complaint Commission promotes the following except A.Human rights B. forceful overthrown of a dictatorial government C. justice D. rule of law

13. Local government law are called A. Bye-laws B. orders C.decrees D. acts

14. The absolute power of the state over persons and groups within it without interference from external bodies is called A. Authoritarianism B. sovereignty C.absolutism D. legitimacy

15. A set of beliefs, opinions and attitudes shown by a people towards the political system is called A. Political culture B. political socialization C. political affiliation D. patriotism

16. In the pre-colonial Hausa-Fulani emirate system, the head/commander of the army was A.Waziri B. Galadima C.Madawaki D. Maaji


17. A system of government in which the offices of the head of state and head of government are held by different persons is called A. Parliamentary system B.separation of powers C.feudalism D.presidential system

18. Which of the following is not a form of law? A.Edicts B.Force C. Acts of Parliament D. Decrees

19. Nigeria did not establish diplomatic relations with South Africa for a long time because of the latter‘s A. Apartheid policy B. ill treatment of Nigerians C. rivalry with Nigeria D. religious policy

20. The current Secretary General of the United Nations is A. Ban Ki-Moon B. John Kerry C. Koffi Anan D. Hilary Clinton

21. The ultimate goal of Nigeria‘s nationalists was A. Increased political representation of Nigerians in colonial government B. to educate Nigerians on the ills of colonial government C. to give political dominance to the North D. to ensure the independence of Nigeria from Britain

22. The elective principle was introduced in Nigeria by A.Clifford Constitution B. Macpherson Constitution C. Independence Constitution D. Sir Lord Lugard

23. Federalism became a feature of Nigeria‘s political system following the introduction of the A. Republican constitution B. Lyttlton Constitution C. Richard Constitution D. Macpherson constitution

24. Between 1960 and 2013, Nigeria experience the following system of government except A. Parliamentary system B. unitary system C.confederal system D.federal system

25. The introduction of Structural Adjustment Program in Nigeria is associated with the government of A. Ibrahim Babangida B. Abdusalami Abubakar C. Olusegun Obasanjo D. Musa Yar‘Adua

ANSWERS TO 2014 POST-UTME

SCREENING EXERCISE GOVERNMENT 1. D 2.C 3.B 4.D 5.C 6.D 7.C 8.C 9.C 10.D 11.A 12.B 13.A 14.B 15.A 16.D 17.D 18.B 19.A 20.A 21.D 22.A 23.C 24.C 25.A OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE IFE,

2013 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISE GOVERNMENT

1. What does INEC stand for? (a)Independent National Election Committee (b)Independent Newspapers Executive Committee (c)Independent National Export Council (d)Independent National Electoral Commission

2. A major function of the State Independent Electoral Commissions in Nigeria is the (a)conduct of elections into local government offices (b)registration of political parties (c)conduct of gubernatorial elections (d)delineation of electoral constituencies

3. The study of government essentially facilitates the understanding of the (a)governance of human societies (b)functioning of the entire social formation (c)observance of fundamental human rights (d)organization of the executive arm of government

4. In judicial administration, the term ‗the bench‘ refers to the (a)lawyers (b)litigants (c)registrars (d)judges

5. How does the president relieves a minister of his appointment in a presidential system of government? (a)In consultation with the legislature (b)In consultation with the judiciary (c)by executive action (d) after serving a full tenure

6. An elected legislator in a presidential system can lose his seat through (a)recall (b) cross-carpeting (c)a vote of no confidence (d)impeachment

7. A major flaw in a liberal democracy is (a) that it promotes political instability (b)the limitation of the freedom of expression (c)its emphasis on political rights over economic rights (d)its emphasis on collective ownership.

8. Nigeria‘s voting at the United Nations is guided primarily by (a)her national interests (b)world peace (c)the cold war (d)her concern for Attica

9. On the basis of its structure, a political party can be classified as indirect if (a)it controls government indirectly (b)it contests elections by proxy (c)its membership is acquired through other groups (d)it campaigns for votes through agents.

10. In politics, power is all of the following except (a)Capacity to affect the actions of others (b)Ability to make people do things they otherwise would not do (c)An object (d)It is part of a relationship

11. Political activity at the diplomatic level is called (a)International relations (b)International law (c)International politics (d)All of the above

12. Which of these is not an instrument of foreign policy (a)war (b)diplomacy (c)subversion (d)foreign aid.

13. The principle that have guided Nigeria‘s foreign policy since independence include the following except (a)peaceful coexistence (b)political dependence (c)legal equality of states (d)non-alignment

14. The independence of judiciary can be enhanced by the following except (a)when judges hold office for a fixed term (b)when judges cannot be removed from office even when they commit crimes (c)appointment of judges by an independent body (d)political neutrality of judges

15. Which of the following is not a feature of Nigeria‘s electoral system? (a)direct election (b)general election (c)proportional representation (d)secret ballot

16. The head of the Nigerian judiciary is the (a)Chief Justice of Federation (b)Solicitor-General of the Federation (c)Attorney-General


and Minister of Justice (d)President of the Court of Appeal

17. Manipulation of electoral boundaries for electoral purposes is known as (a)delimitation (b)gerrymandering (c)devolution (d)deconcentration

18. A mechanism used in parliament to limit debate is called (a)guillotine (b)adjournment (c)motion of censor (d)delimitation

19. The Aba women riot in Nigeria took place in (a)1960 (b)1950 (c)1922 (d)1929

20. The pressure group that resorts to unconventional method to achieve its objectives is called (a)an institutional group (b)a promotional group (c)an interest group (d)an anomic group

21. At but one of the following is not a symbol of political culture (a) national flag (b)The government (c)An anthem (d)The constitution

22. All but these is not a tactic adopted by pressure group in the pursuit of their objectives (a)Propaganda (b)Lobbying (c)Assault (d)Boycott

23. A capitalist state is based on (a)Religion (b)Creating job opportunities (c)Dictatorship (d)Free trade

24. Which of the following modern principles of democracy is found in the Yoruba traditional political system? (a)checks and balances (b)the constitution (c)multipartism (d)bicameralism

25. The subject matter of politics is best described as (a)political parties (b)political power (c)elections (d)people

ANSWERS TO GOVERNMENT 2013

1.D 2.A 3.A 4.D 5.C 6.A 7.C 8.A 9.C 10.C 11.D 12.D 13.B 14.B 15.C 16.A 17.B 18.A 19.D 20.D 21.B 22.C 23.D 24.A 25.B

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY

ILE IFE, 2012 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISE

GOVERNMENT 1. The ten non-permanent members of the security

council are elected by the (a) general assembly (b) trusteeship council (c) security council (d) economic and social council

2. Under the independence constitution of Nigeria, Dr. Nnamdi Azikwe was (a) Prime Minister (b) Governor General (c) Lieutenant-Governor (d) Head of State

3. The judicial organ of the United Nations is the (a) security council (b) European court (c) general assembly (d) International court of justice

4. The Universal Negro Improvement Association was founded by (a) Casely Hayford (b) Herber Macaulay (c) Marcus Garvey (d) W.E.B. Du Bois

5. The Chick‘s commission in Nigeria was set up to look into (a) state‘s creation (b) revenue allocation (c) minorities issues (d) extra-judicial killings

6. Nigeria observed the principle of collective responsibility between (a) 1960 and 1966 (b)

1979 and 1983 (c) 1985 and 1993 (d) 1999 and 2003

7. Which organ is referred to as the ‗last hope of the common man‘ (a) the parliament (b) the judiciary (c) the executive (d) the legislature

8. The principle of checks and balances modifies the theory of (a) Rule of law (b) Supremacy of the law (c) Separation of powers (d) Delegated Legislation

9. The European Union (EU) is an (a) Economic organization (b) Association of former British Colonies (c) Organization of European States (d) Union of European organization

10. Which of the following does not describe a party system? (a) one dominant party system (b) three party system (c) two party system (d) multi party system

11. Laws made by local governments are called (a) Acts of Parliament (b) Bye-laws (b) Local Government Acts (d) Local Government Decrees

12. The commission established to handle the electoral activities in the Second Republic of Nigeria was (a) National Electoral Commission (b) National Electoral Commission of Nigeria (c) Federal Electoral Commission (d) Independent National Electoral Commission

13. In Nigeria, promotion of judges is the responsibility of the (a) Chief Justice of the Federation (b) Judicial Service Commission (c) Council of Legal Education (d) Attorney-General and Minister of Justice

14. The legislature in Nigeria under the 1999 Constitution is composed of (a) 109 senators and 360 members of the House of Representatives (b) 09 senators and 350 members of the House of Representatives (c) 108 senators and 350 members of the House of Representatives (d) 100 senators and 250 members of the House of Representatives

15. Under a parliamentary system of government, the cabinet holds office at the pleasure of the (a) head of state (b) electorate (c) legislature (d) opposition

16. The ultimate authority in a State is referred to as (a) president (b) sovereignty (c) legislator (d) legitimacy

17. The most important aspect of political participation in a democracy is (a) attending political rallies (b) voting in elections (c) registration with a political party (d) the observance of electoral processes

18. One of the foremost theorists of federalism was (a) A.V. Dicey (b) K.C. Wheare (c) Karl Marx (d) Baron de Montesquieu

19. The method used to determine the possible outcome of an electoral contest is (a) conduct of elections into local government offices (b) registration of political parties (c) conduct of gubernatorial elections (d) delineation of electoral constituencies

20. The principle of checks and balances empowers the judiciary to (a) apply the law (b) administer the criminal justice system (c) abrogate the law (d) invalidate the actions of the other arms.


21. The final stage in the process of enacting legislation is (a). assent (b) final reading (c) notification (d) guillotine

22. Every political system performs the following basic functions except (a) Rule making (b) Rule transformation (c) Rule enforcement (d) Rule adjudication.

23. Globalization is all but one of these (a) A renewed concept in international studies (b) Limitation to the domination of the West (c) A process of making the world smaller (d) An increasing integration of the world.

24. A major factor that differentiates international politics from domestic politics is that international politics (a) has no centralized institution of government (b) cannot enforce sanctions (c) has centralized organs of administration (d) has a central law making body

25. Globalization encompasses all the following except (a) market integration (b) internationalization of politics (c) technology improvement (d) economic liberalism

ANSWERS TO GOVERNMENT 2012 1.A 2.B 3.D 4.C 5.B 6.A 7.B 8.C 9.C 10.C 11.C 12.C 13.B 14.A 15.C 16.B 17.B 18.B 19.A 20.D 21.A 22.B 23.C 24.A 25.D

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE IFE, 2011 POST-UME SCREENING

EXERCISE GOVERNMENT 1. A human community that is usually cohesive

and homogeneous is A. state B. kinship C. clan D. nation

2. Which of the following made the earliest contact with the Nigerian society? A. The British B. The Portuguese C. The French D. The Germans

3. Under the 1963 Republican Constitution, the president exercised A. judicial powers B. executive powers C. nominal powers D. concurrent powers

4. The principle of federal character was first enunciated in the: A. 1989 Constitution B. 1963 Constitution C. 1999 Constitution D. 1979 Constitution

5. Between 1960 and1966, Nigeria was governed under the A. presidential system of government B. Westminster system of government C. Confederal system of government D. unitary system of government

6. One major factor that differentiates the presidential from the parliament system is: A. separation of powers B. judicial independence C. passage of bills D. party system

7. A major feature of the policy of deregulation in Nigeria is the: A. enthronement of market forces mechanism B. increasing dominance of the economy by the state C. proliferations of public corporations D. phenomenal increase in direct foreign investment

8. Bicameral legislature exists: A. where cameramen are allowed to cover the proceedings of the legislature B. to prevent the concentration of power in one legislative house C. to provide

jobs for more politicians D. to ensure that just laws are passed

9. A major issue that distinguishes pressure groups from political parties is: A. membership drive B. the objective C. the voting pattern D. the ideology

10. Equality before the law is a component of: A. separation of powers b. checks and balances C. the rule of law d. constitutional law

11. A law passed by the legislature and assented to by the executive is: A. an act B. a presidential proclamation C. a decree d. a legislative order

12. The principle of checks and balances empowers the judiciary to: A. invalidate the actions of the other arms B. administer the criminal justice system C. abrogate the law D. apply the law

13. In a parliamentary, the term shadow cabinet is often used to refer to the: A. back benchers in the house B. deputy prime ministers and assistant ministers C. rebellious members of the ruling party D. portfolio designates of the party in opposition

14. The fundamental assumption on which the idea of the rule of law is based is: A. supremacy of the constitution B. rationality of human beings C. Equality of human beings D. love for social justice

15. Associations whose main interest is to influence public policies without attempting to capture state power are: A. communal groups B. trade unions C. political parties D. pressure groups

16. Multilaterism in Nigeria‘s foreign policy entails: A. .Africa being the centre piece of Nigeria‘s foreign policy B. Non-aligned posture in international affairs C. Quest for a permanent membership of the UN Security Council D. membership of International Organizations

17. The set of policies on the basis of Which countries interact with one another is called: A. Diplomacy B. Foreign policy C. National policy D. International relations

18. After the defeat of Germany in World War 1, her former colonies were administered under the League of Nations as: A. occupied territories B. trust territories C. crown colonies D. protectorates

19. The Nigeria – Cameroon crisis over Bakassi peninsula occurred owning to the interpretation of the Treaty of 1913 and the: A. resolution of the OAU B. Maroua Accord C. decision of the ECOWAS Tribunal D. decision of the International Court of Justice

20. The first Nigerian leader to become chairman of the Organization of African Unity was: A. Tafawa Balewa B. Murtala Mohammed C. Yakubu Gowon D. Aguiyi-lronsi

21. Nigeria‘s non-aligned policy was criticized because of the: A. ECOWAS Treaty B.Nuclear Test Ban Treaty C. Anglo-Nigerian Pact D. Non-Prol iteration Treaty

22. Fascism originated from: A. Greece B. Italy C. China D. Germany

23. Diarchy refers to the: A. rule by the government and the opposition parties B. mixture of


parliamentary and presidential systems C. rule by political and economic elites D. rule by the military and civilians

24. A major flaw in liberal democracy is: A. the limitation of the freedom of expression B. its emphasis on political rights over economic rights C. that it promotes political instability D. its emphasis on collective ownership

25. Under military regimes in Nigeria, the branches of government that were fused are: A. executive and the legislature. B. executive and the judiciary C. legislature and the judiciary D. executive, the legislature and the judiciary


1.D 2.B 3.C 4.D 5.B 6.A 7.A 8.D 9.B 10.C 11.A 12.A 13.D 14.A 15.D 16.D 17.B 18.B 19.B 20.C 21.C 22.B 23.C 24.B 25.A

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE IFE, 2010 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISE

GOVERNMENT 1. The Arthur Richards Constitution was designed

to last (a) nine years (b) five years (c) twelve years (d) six years

2. Under the 1963 Republican Constitution. the president exercised: (a) judicial powers (b) executive powers (c) nominal powers (d) concurrent powers

3. The Clifford Constitution was notable for: (a) amalgamating the Northern and Southern provinces (b) introducing indirect rule (c) establishing the legislative council (d) creating a Northern majority in the legislative council.

4. In a federal constitution, legislative powers that are shared by two levels of government are referred to as: (a) exclusive (b) extra-ordinary (c) residual (d) concurrent

5. During the period 1960-1966, Nigeria was governed under the: (a) presidential system of government (b) Westminister system of government (c) confederal system of government (d) unitary system of government

6. Which of the following in the Sokoto Caliphate performed functions similar to that of the Bashorun in Oyo Kingdom? (a) Waziri (b) Galadima (c) Ma‘aji (d) Alkali

7. In the Igbo political system, the most senior member of the council of elders is the: (a) Okpara (b) Obi (c) Eze (d) Ofo

8. A non-monarchical state can best be described as a: (a) republic (b) confederation (c) nation (d) federation

9. Proportional representation favours a: (a) multi-party system (b) three-party system (c) two-party system (d) one party system

10. One major factor that differentiates the presidential from the parliamentary system is: (a) separation of powers (b) judicial independence (c) passage of bills (d) party system

11. A state with a hegemonic party is one in which: (a) there is one dominant party (b) there is no

opposition party (c) there is only one party (d) other parties are officially recognized

12. In the First Republic. politics in Northern Nigeria was dominated by: (a) NEPU (b) UMBC (c) NCNC (d) NPC

13. The creation of classless society is the ultimate aim of: (a) communism (b) socialism (c) fascism (d) capitalism

14. Herbert Macauley was the first president of: (a) NCNC (b) AG (c) UMBC (d) NEPU

15. A special election organized to decide on a political issue is known as: (a) plebiscite (b) by-election (c) general election (d) primary election

16. Equality before the law is a component of: (a) separation of powers (b) checks and balances (c) the rule of law (d) constitutional law

17. In the process of implementing laws, the executive sometimes performs: (a) judicial function (b) bureaucratic function (c) oversight function (d) legislative function

18. Which of these was the main organ of the defunct OAU? (a) The Liberation Committee (b) The Council of Ministers (C) The Commission for Mediation, Conciliation and Arbitration (d) The Assembly of Heads of State and Government

19. Nigeria hosted the Commonwealth Conference which eventually led to the Independence of: (a) Mozambique (b) Namibia (c) Zimbabwe (d) Malawi

20. Multilaterism in Nigeria‘s foreign policy entails: (a) Africa being the centre piece of Nigeria‘s foreign policy (b) Non-aligned posture in international affairs (c) Quest for a permanent membership of the UN Security Council (d) Membership of International Organisations

21. The Ancient Greeks practiced: (a) direct democracy (b) representative democracy (c) liberal democracy (d) benevolent dictatorships

22. Fascism originated from: (a) Greece (b) Italy (c) China (d) Germany

23. According to Karl Marx, the mode of production that precedes capitalism is: (a) mercantilism (b) feudalism (c) socialism (d) communalism

24. One of the distinctive features of a democracy is that it. (a) connotes civil rule (b) facilitates popular participation (c) provides for a unicameral legislature (d) is not associated with one-party state

25. Serfs are the dominated class under: (a) capitalism (b) socialism (c) fascism (d) feudalism

ANSWERS TO GOVERNMENT 2010 1.A 2.C 3.C 4.D 5.B 6.A 7.A 8.A 9.A 10.A 11.A 12.D 13.A 14.A 15.A 16.C 17.A 18.D 19.B 20.D 21.A 22.B 23.B 24.B 25.D


ILE IFE, 2009 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISE -

GOVERNMENT (1-25) 1. Traditional rulers were restricted to ceremonial

roles by the local government reforms of (a) 1966 (b) 1976 (c) 1984 (d) 1987


2. In a parliamentary system, who ensures that members are in the house to vote on major issues? (a) Party leaders (b) Speaker of the house(c) Clerk of the house (d) Whip

3. A system in which no single person serves as the chief executive is known as (a) Republican (b) Revolutionary (c) Collegial (d) Parliamentary

4. A social system in which power is derived from control over land is called (a) Oligarchy

(b) Feudalisms (c) Socialism (d) Welfarism 5. ―Rule of Law‖ refers to situations in which (a)

Lawyers are the rulers (b) Laws are supreme

(c) The judiciary is independent(d) Parliament makes laws

6. An important principle of the civil service is (a) Authoritarianism (b) Anonymity (c) Nepotism (d) Partisanship

7. Which of these constitutions recognized local government s the third tier of government? (a) The 1946 constitution (b) The 1960 constitution (c) The 1963 constitution(d) The 1979 constitution

8. A condition for judicial independence is the appointment of judges by the (a) civil service commission (b) Judicial Service Commission(c) Low Review commission (b) code of conduct Bureau

9. The minorities Commission appointed in Nigeria in 1957 recommended that (a) More states should be create in the federation (b) No more states should be created before independence(c) Nigeria should revert to a unitary structure (d) The legislature should legislate for the minority areas (e) The minorities should constitute one state.

10. The second military coup deta‘t in Nigeria took place on (a) January 15, 1966 (b) October 1, 1966 (c) July 29, 1966 (e) February 13, 1976

11. One of these was in existence before the outbreak of the Second World War (a) The OAU (b) The League of Nations (c) The UNOD. (d) The Commonwealth of nations (e) ECOWAS

12. An important advantage of creating more constituents in a federal state is to (a) Enhance the people‘s participation in government (b) Enable ambitions politicians gain political power (c) Make the states gain more power from the federal government (d) Curb the excesses of the federal government

13. Under the presidential system (a) The party with the majority of seat forms the executive (b) There is the principle of collective responsibility (c) The president may come from any of the parties (d) The states take instructions from the federal government

14. Public opinion is important because it (a) Tells government what action it must take(b) Lets government know what the people want (c) Allows police to manage crisis(d) Mothers the minorities in resource learn areas (e) Guarantees people‘s freedom and rights

15. Bicameral legislature exists (a) Where two cameras are used to monitor court proceedings

(b) To prevent the concentration of power on legislative house (c) To provide jobs for more politicians (d) To ensure that just laws are passed.

16. Africans were first elected to the legislature council in British West African (a) Ghana (b) Sierra Leone (c) The Gambia (d) Nigeria

17. One of the functions of the Ministry of External Affairs is the (a) Deportation of illegal aliens (b) Issuance of passports (c) Defence of the country‘s borders (d) Promotion of national interests

18. The leader of the northern people‘s congress was (a) Yakubu Maitama Sule (b) Abubakar Tafawa Balewa (c) Aminu Kano (d) Ahmadu Bello.

19. The idea of democracy started with the (a) Romans (b) Pensions (c) Greeks (d) Egyptians

20. In the Marxist theory, those who live by selling, their labour are called (a) Bourgeoisie (b) Proletariat (c) Feudal lords (d) Slaves

21. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable means of achieving democracy? (a) Referendums (b) Recall (c) Initiative (d) Riots

22. The branch of government responsible for implementing laws is the (a) Executive (b) Legislature (c) Judiciary (d) Police (e) Civil Servants

23. In a democracy, sovereignty is vested in (a) The community (b) Public officials (c) Judges (d) The head of state (e) the legislature

24. Universal Adult Suffrage means all (a) Adult citizens can vote (b) citizens vote (c) Qualified citizen s can vote (d) Literate citizens can vote (e) Adult takes can vote.

25. A bill that applies to the whole population and is intended to promote the general welfare is called (a) A private bill (b) A decree (c) An appropriation bill (d) A public bill (e) An edict.


1.B 2.D 3.D 4.D 5.B 6.B 7.D 8.B 9.B 10.C 11.B 12.A

13.C 14.B 15.D 16.D 17.D 18.D 19.C 20.B 21.D 22.A

23.A 24.A 25.D OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE IFE,

2008 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISE - GOVERNMENT

1. The French colonial policy of Assimilation was intended to (a) to transfer technology to Africa (b) to make Frechmen out of Africans (c) to produce well educated Africans (d) to prepare Africans for the Olympic Games

2. One of these is not a characteristic of the state (a) selection of political leaders (b) a written constitution (c) monopoly of the legitimate use of armed force (d) sovereignty

3. The Economic Community of West Africa States was established in (a) May 1975 (b) May 1963 (c) May 1966 (d) May 1996


4. Nigeria became a republic on (a) May 29, 1999 (b) October 1, 1960 (c) January 1, 1966 (d) October 1, 1963

5. Which of the following is not one of the functions of the modern legislature? (a) Making laws (b) Collecting taxes (c) Ratification of treaties (d) Performing oversight functions

6. The European Union (EU) is an (a) Economic organization (b) Association of former British colonies (c) Organization of European states (d) Union of European organizations

7. What was the name of the highest ruling body during General Babangida‘s rule? (a) The Presidency (b) Armed Forces Ruling Council (c) The National Council of States (d) The Federal Executive Council

8. One of the following is not a specialized agency of the United Nations Organization (a) Security Council (b) International Labour Organization (c) World Health Organization (d) UNESCO

9. Under which of the following conditions can a Nigerian be deprived of is or her citizenship? (a) If married to a foreign National (b) If one holds a dual citizenship (c) If convicted of Armed robbery (d) If one Abuse the National Flag

10. The first indigenous Governor-General of Nigeria is (a) Donald Cameron (b) Sir James Robertson (c) Sir Adesoji Aderemi (the Oni of Ife) (d) Rt. Hon.Nnamdi Azikwe

11. The Action Group crisis was is in which year? (a) 1966 (b) 1962 (c) 1963 (d)1965

12. Free education was introduced in west region by which of these premiers? (a) Chief Obafemi Awolowo (b) Chief S. L. Akintola (c) Chief Michael Adekunle Ajasin (d) Chief Bola Ige

13. What does INEC stand for? (a) Independent National Election Committee (b) Independent Newspapers Executive Committee (c) Independent National Export Council (d) Independent National Electoral Commission

14. The government of one of the following countries operates an unwritten constitution (a) The United States (b) The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (c) Post-apartheid South Africa (d) The United Kingdom

15. The oldest written constitution is (a) American Constitution (b) British Constitution (c) German Constitution (d) Roman Constitution

16. The EFCC was established to (a) Arrest and try corrupt politicians (b) Combat economic and financial crimes in Nigeria (c) Arrest, detain and prosecute corrupt state governors and legislators (d) Assist the World Bank in monitoring economic projects in Nigeria

17. The four British colonial territories in West Africa were (a) Senegal, Ghana, Sierra Leone and Nigeria (b) Nigeria, Ghana, Togo and Gambia (c) Nigeria, Ghana, Sierra Leone and Gambia (d) Gambia, Guinea, Ghana and Gabon

18. In many countries, citizenship can be acquired through the following processes except (a) nationalization (b) naturalization (c) registration (d) birth

19. Which of the following does not describe a party system? (a) one dominant party system (b) two party system (c) three party system (d) multi party system

20. ECOMOG was set up primarily to (a) drive away the Europeans from West Africa (b) serve as a peace keeping force for ECOWAS (c) help Nigeria to control Africa (d) promote rapid economic development among ECOWAS members

21. The principle that have guided Nigeria‘s foreign policy since independence include the following except (a) peaceful coexistence (b) legal equality of states (c) political dependence (d) non-alignment

22. The body charged with the trial of persons accused of crimes against humanity is (a) Criminal Court of Justice (b) International Criminal Court (c) International Court of Justice (d) ICPC

23. The independence of the judiciary can be enhanced by the following except (a) when judges hold office for a fixed term (b) when judges cannot be removed from offence even when they commit crimes (c) appointment of judges by and independent body (d) political neutrality of judges

24. Which of the following is not a feature of Nigeria‘s electoral system? (a) direct election (b) proportional representation (c) general election (d) secret ballot

25. Laws made by local governments are called (a) Acts of Parliament (b) Local Government Acts (c) Bye-laws (d) Local Government Decrees

26. In the pre-colonial era, which of the following was not a feature of the emirate administration? (a) Madawaki (b) Waziri (c) Sarkin Dogari (d) Sarkin Emir

27. Federalism was introduced in Nigeria by the (a) Lyttleton Constitution (b) Clifford Constitution (c)Macpherson Constitution (d) 1999 Constitution


1.B 2.B 3.A 4.D 5.C 6.C 7.B 8.A 9.B 10.A 11.B 12.A 13.D 14.D 15.A 16.B 17.C 18.A 19.C 20.B 21.C 22.B 23.B 24.B 25.C 26.D 27.A


ILE IFE, 2007 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISE -

GOVERNMENT 1. Democracy was first practiced in (a) Ghana (b)

United States of America (c) Greece (d) Britain 2. Which of these countries has the highest

population in West Africa? (a) Mauritania (b) Ghana (c) The Gambia (d) Nigeria

3. This African ruler resisted colonial rule and was later exiled by the colonial officials (a) Alaafin of Oyo (b) Oba of Benin (c) King Jaja of Opobo (d) Onisanbo of Ogbooro

4. The following countries are settler colonies except (a) Nigeria (b) South Africa (c) Angola (d) Mozambique


5. Nigeria gained independence from colonial rule on (a) October 1, 1960 (b) November, 1963 (c) May 29, 1999 (d) November 1, 1960

6. All but one of the following is not a symbol of political culture (a) a national flag (b) the government (c) an anthem (d) the constitution

7. All but one of these is not an agency of political socialization (a) the constitution (b) the family (c) Peer group (d) Schools

8. All but one of these is not a tactic adopted by pressure groups in the pursuit of their objectives (a) propaganda (b) lobbying (c) assault (d) boycott

9. The following are Anglophone West African countries except (a) Ghana (b) Nigeria (c) Kenya (d) The Gambia

10. A Nigerian who has been the secretary of the Commonwealth of Nations Organizations is (a) Dr. Ibrahim Gambari (b) Professor Adebayo Adedeji (c) Chief Jaja Nwachukwu (d) Chief Emeka Anyaoku

11. How many countries are in Africa? (a) fifteen (b) fifty-three (c) fifty (d) fifty-five

12. Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) was based on the initiative of the heads of state of these two countries (a) Nigeria and Ghana (b) Nigeria and Togo (c) Senegal and Cote d‘Ivoire (d) B and C above

13. ECOWAS Treaty was signed on (a) May 28, 1974 (b) October 1, 1960 (c) June 12, 1975 (d) None of the above

14. In which city was the ECOWAS Treaty signed (a) Lagos (b) Banjul (c) Accra (d) Abuja

15. A capitalist state is based on (a) religion (b) creating job opportunities (c) dictatorship (d) free trade

16. In politics, power is all of the following except (a) capacity to affect the actions of others (b) ability to make people do things they otherwise not do (c) an object (d) it is part of a relationship

17. Every political system performs the following basic functions except (a) rule making (b) rule transformation (c) rule enforcement (c) rule adjudication

18. These are common forms of governments except (a) Federal (b) Unitary (c) Plural (d) Confederal

19. In a federal system (a) the centre is weak (b) plurality is abnormal (c) there is nothing like autonomous units (d) there is unity in diversity

20. The legislature performs the following functions except (a) determines the general direction of public policies (b) investigating and monitoring the activities of the officials of government (c) exercises power of appointment of government officials (d) enforcing the law

21. The independence constitution of 1960 (a) introduced bicameral legislature (b) catered for the three regions of Nigeria (c) provided for emergency powers (d) provided for fundamental human rights

22. Nigeria became a republic in (a) 1960 (b) 1961 (c) 1963 (d) 1914

23. The amalgamation of the northern and southern protectorates and the colony of Lagos was in (a) 1960 (b) 1966 (c) 1914 (d) 1957

24. Globalization is all but one of these (a) a renewed concept in international studies (b) limited to the west (c) a process of making the world smaller (d) an increasing integration of the world.


1.C 2.D 3.C 4.A 5.A 6.B 7.A 8.C 9.C 10.D 11.B 12.B 13.D 14.A 15.D 16.C 17.B 18.C 19.D 20.D 21.D 22.C 23.C 24.B

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE IFE, 2006 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISE -

GOVERNMENT 1. In which of the following countries is

governmental powers most fused? (a) Nigeria (b) United States of America (c) France (d) Canada

2. The benefits of separation of powers include the following except (a) prevention of tyranny (b) check of abuse (c) promoting democracy with free and fair election (d) avoidance of arbitrariness

3. Laws made by state governments are known as (a) edicts (b) bye-law (c) acts (d) decrees

4. In a parliamentary system of government, the function of the head of state and the head of government are vested in (a) the inner cabinet (b) an individual (c) two different individuals (d) the ministerial council

5. In a modern democracy, the ultimate source of sovereignty is the (a) legislature and executive (b) judiciary (c) ruling political party (d) people

6. The British took over Nigeria through (a) negotiation (b) bargaining (c) war (d) the sea

7. Politics is an act for (a) man to govern himself (b) man to create governments (c) states to control its destiny (d) man to dominate others

8. A major issue that distinguishes pressure groups from political parties is (a) membership drive (b) objective (c) vomiting pattern (d) ideology

9. A nation consists of people with (a) common history (b) common ancestry (c) a shared set of values (d) A, B and C above

10. A totalitarian state is based on (a) multi-party system (b) total protection of civic rights (c) the totality of the state processes (d) coercion as the instrument of government

11. A political concept that defines the beliefs, attitudes and values of a society is called (a) political socialization (b) political culture (c) political transformation (d) referendum

12. The agent of political socialization generally regarded as the most important is (a) family (b) peer group (c) school (d) churches and mosques

13. A political ideology that defines a system of societal organization in which the state controls the commanding heights of the economy is called (a) totalitarianism (b) communalism (c) socialism (d) communism


14. Which of the following best describes French colonial policy in Africa? (a) policy of association (b) policy of Casus Belli (c) policy hostility (d) policy of assimilation

15. What was the primary purpose of the Sir Henry Willink Commission of Inquiry? (a) to approve the independence of Nigeria (b) to allay the fears of minorities in Nigeria (c) to amalgamate northern and southern Nigeria (d) to make Lagos a British Colony

16. Which of the following courts served as the highest judicial organ for Nigerian up till 1963? (a) Supreme Court (b) Federal Court of Appeal (c) Appelate Court (d) The privy council

17. The military coup of July 25, 1975 which toppled General Yakubu Gowon from power took place when he was attending which important event? (a) OAU Summit in Kampala (b) UN General Assembly in New York (c) Assembly of Heads of States of ECOWAS in Monrovia (d) The Olympic Games

18. Which of the following political parties did not participate in the 1979 General Elections in Nigeria? (a) Unity Party of Nigeria (b) National Party of Nigeria (c) Social Democratic Party (d) Great Nigeria People‘s Party

19. Alhaji Shehu Shagari was sworn in as President of the Federal Republic of Nigeria in 1979 by: (a)

Justice Fatai-Williams (b) Justice Adetokunbo Ademola (c) Justice Salihu Modibbo Alfa Belgore (d) Justice Isa Mohammed

20. The electorate is generally understood to refer to: (a) elected members of the National Assembly (b) elected members of the state houses of assembly (c) candidates who can contest elections (d) those citizens qualified to vote at elections

21. Into how many local government areas in Nigeria officially delineated? (a) 654 (b) 650 (c) 820 (d) 774

22. The centenary anniversary of the amalgamation of Northern and Southern Nigeria will be celebrated in (a) 2060 (b) 2063 (c) 2014 (d) 2007

23. Which of these men introduced indirect rule in Nigeria? (a) Mungo Park (b) Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe (c) Lord Lugard (d) Sir James Robertson


1.C 2.C 3.A 4.C 5.D 6.A 7.A 8.B 9.D 10.D 11.B 12.A 13.D 14.D 15.B 16.D 17.A 18.C 19.B 20.D 21.D 22.C 23.C

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE-IFE

2015 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

Section A: DRAMA Questions 1-3 are based on Femi Osofisan's

Women of Owu. 1. The Commanding Officer of the Allied Forces is A.

Anlugbua B. Aderogun C. EreluD.Maye 2. "WOMAN: Bless the kindness which has rescued us

from tyranny .in order to plunge us into slavery''. The figurative devices used to give the speech above its rhetorical effect are A. metaphor and Irony B.allusion and assonance C irony and paradox D. litotes and hyperbole

3. The pro-text of Osofisan'sWomen of Owucanbe found in A. Prometheus Bound B. Oedipus at Colonus C- The Pot of Gold D. The Trojan Women

Question 4-5 are drawn from William Shakespeare's The Tempest 4. 1 pray thee, mark me I thus neglecting worldly end, all dedicated To closeness

and the bettering of my mind... Thee" in the excerpt above refers to A. Trinculo B. Prospero C. Miranda D. Alonso

5. The Epilogue in the play is marked by the use of A. Trochaic pentameter B. rhyming couplet C. olfactory imagery D. free verse

Use the excerpt below to answer Questions 6 and 7 My language! Heavens!

I am the best of them that speak this speech, Were I but where 'it is spoken".

6. The Speaker in the excerpt above is A. Caliber B. Ferdinand C. Stephan D. Sebastian

7. The language being referred to in the excerpt above is A. English B. Greek C. Spanish D. Italian.

Section B: PROSE Questions 8 and 9 are based on Ernest Heming ways Old Man and the Sea. 8. The most remarkable attribute of Santiago is A,

Honesty B. fortitude C. sharp memory D. generosity

9. The central theme in the novella is A. the joy of fishing expedition B. life and living in coastal areas C. futility of human struggle D. ignorance is bliss

Questions 10 and 11 are based on

AsareKonadu'sA Woman in Her Prime. 10. In order to avert another miscarriage, Pokuwaa

agrees to A. rest well at home B. marry another

husband C. sacrifice to the gods D. stay with her

mother

11. When fire consumes the Wawa tree outside Brenhoma, the people generally believe that it A. is a sign of gods' vengeance B. will affect harvest that year C. is not caused by lightning D. heralds the coming of ancestors

QUESTION 12 and 13 are based on Chimamanda Adichie’s Purple Hibiscus


12. The newspaper reputed for speaking the truth to power is owned by A. Coker B. Benedict C. Engene D. Nduama

13 Father Benedict is a Priest from A.Ireland B. Britain C. Denmark D. America

Section C. POETRY Question 14- 17 are based on African and Non

African Poetry. 14. In GbemisolaAdeoti‘sHard Lines‖ tears refers to A.

sorrow B.rain C. poison D. pills 15. The tone of Sola Owonibi‘s Homeless, but not

Hopeless‘ is that of A. defiance B. supplication C. resignation D. optimism

16. The poet – personal in “Serenade‖ can be described as a A. sanguine lover B.deceptive suitor C. Jilted husband D. romantic minstrel

17. The setting of P.O.C Umeh‘s ―The Ambassadors of Poverty‖ is A. Pre- colonial Nigeria B. Post- cold war Asia C. Colonial Gold Coast D. Post- celenial Africa

Section D. GENERAL LITERARY PRINCIPLES Questions 18-21 are based on General literary

principles. 18. Verfremdungeffekt is often associated with the

plays of A. Samuel Becket B, Luigi Pirandello C. Jean-BaptstePoquelin D. Bertolt Brecht -

19. The part of a play when the plot thickens before catastrophe is called A. anagnorisis B. denouement C. epitasis D. epilogue

20. A comic play performed or spoken to music is called A. burletta B. opera C. melodrama D.farce

21. A closet drama is a play meant to be A. read rather than performed B. read and performed C. performed and screened C. performed behind closed door

Section E: LITERARY APPRECIATION Questions 22-25 are based on Literary

Appreciation. 22. "A parade of legal robbers The state sponsored assembly of Terminators of the less privileged Colleagues of the underworld". KayodeAriyo "Licensed Robbers p. 20. The tone of the excerpt above is that of A. flattery B. sarcasm C. admiration D. despair 23. "I was born by the stroke of wars I was born by the ravages of disease By the events of plagues I know the stench of this land" SiphoSepamlaThe Soweto I Love, p. 17 The central concern of the excerpt above is A. war B. disease C. the poets homeland D. the plagues

ofstench 24. "I felt unsafe, with scratches of uncertain weather

security in the detention camp" jaredAngiraSilent Voices, p, 42 The mood of the poet persona in the excerpt above is

that of A. vertigo B. euphoria C. coyness D. anxiety

25. "Look at my father! He never had a bath in his life; and he lived to be ninety-eight, the healthiest man in Bulgaria" Benard Shaw Arms and the Man, p. 39.

From the excerpt above, it can be deduced that A. the speaker loathes bathing B. there is a connection between bath and longevity C. Bulgarians out-law bathing D. The sneaker condemns his father.

SOLUTION

1.A2.C3.D4A5.D6.C7.A8.A9.C10.D11.A12.A13.B14.A15.A 16. B17.D18.D19.C 20.C21B22.B23.C24.D25.A


2014 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

1. The comedy in Shakespeare‘s The Tempest is registered through the A. jest of Trinculo and Stephano B. marriage between Ferdinand and Miranda C. shipwreck at the beginning D.Epilogue at the end.

2. ―Safely in the harbor‖ Is the King‘s ship, in the deek nook where once Thou call ‗dst me up at midnight to fetch dew‖…

Act I:Scene II, lines 226 -228 ―Thou‖ in the speech above from Shakespeare‘s The Tempestrefers to A.Sebastian B.Prospero C.Ariel D.Ferdinand

3. The Epilogue Shakespeare‘s The Tempest is spoken by A.Caliban B. Miranda C. Alonso D. Prospero.

4. The central lesson in Shakespeare‘s The Tempest is about A. hatred B. magic C.forgiveness D.mistaken identity

5. The major demand made by Ariel on Prospero is Shakespeare‘s The Tempest is the restoration of Ariel‘s A. Island B. health C. property D. liberty SECTION B:PROSE Question 6 to 8 are based on Asare Konadu:A woman in Her Prime

6. The story of Asare Konadu‘s A woman in Her Prime is set in A. Nigeria B.Sierra Leone C. Gambia D.Ghana.

7. In Asare Konadu‘s A woman in Her Prime, Pokuwaa wants her baby to be named A.Nyamekye B.Adwoa C.Boakye D.AfuaFofie.

8. At the centre of conflict in Asare Konadu‘s A Woman in Her Prime is Pokuwaa’s A. wealth B. childlessness C. paganism D. promiscuity. Questions 9 and 10 are based on Chimanda Adichie’s Purple Hibiscus

9. The narrative technique in Adichie‘s Purple Hibiscus is that of A.first person B.second person C.omniscient D.stream of consciousness.

10. The participant narrator in Chinamanda Adichie‘s Purple Hibiscus is A.Jaja B. Yewande C. Kambili D. Papa SECTION C:POETRY Question 11-15 are based on African and Non-African Poetry


11. According to P.O.C Umeh in ―The Ambassadors of Poverty‖, are the A.ruling elite B. foreign diplomats C. pastoralists D.displaced refugees.

12. ―Serenade‖ is a poem translated into English from A. Hausa B.Xhosa C.Acoli D.Swahili.

13. In Langston Hyghes‘ ―Negro Speaks of Rivers‖ ―Euphrates‖ refers to a A.mountain B.nation C.river D.forest

14. In Sola Owonibi‘s ―Homeless but not Hopeless‖, ―the natives of the street‖ refers to A. Area boys B.prostitute C.beggers D.conductors.

15. The poet persona in Gbemisola Adeoti‘s ―Hard lines‖ submits that A. it‘s better late than never B. a stitch in times saves nine C.penny wise, pound foolish D.th truth is bitter. SECTION D, GENERAL LITERARY PRINCIPLES Questions 16 – 20 are based on General literary principles.

16. A form of entertainment that is marked by music, song, dance and elaborate constume is called A. masque B.cantata C.reggae D.jazz

17. The poetic device in which a part is used to represent the whole is called A. metonymy B.synecdoche C.hyperbole D. litotes.

18. The juxtaposition of two contrasting ideas in the lines of a poem is A. irony B.litotes C. euphemism D.oxymoron

19. A limerick is made up of A. fourteen lines B.eight lines C. five lines D.ten lines

20. The common metrical pattern in a sonnet is A. iambic B.spondee C.trochaic D.dactylic. SECTION E: LITERARY APPRECIATION Questions 21 – 25 are based on Literary Appreciation.

21. ―The moon became jealous that Kanta, the child of the Sun, was so much loved by the people of the land‖ Okello Oculi Kanta Riti The figure of speech in the excerpt above is A.allusion B. sarcasm C.irony D. personification.

22. Never mind ….my twisted servant… My destiny henceforth shall be in my hands and no longer at the tips of your tongue. Only one King at a time… Ahmed Yerima Mojabge From the excerpt above, the speaker is A. elated B. enraged C.rude D.confused

23. ―For tools No more than books we had And the will to make a noise Joe de Graft ―University Franchise Day‖ The tone of the excerpt above is that of The tone of the excerpt above is that of A.Self-mockery B.self-praise C.admonition D.recrimination.

24. ―Today I stand in the cloud Remembering my good mood On what stage where I once stood Waving at the cheering crowd‖ Olufemi Ojediran ―At your back‖ The sound devices in the excerpt above are A.assonance and rhyme

B.alliteration and onomatopoeia C.repetition and assonance D.caesura and rhyme.

25. Keyune: Cows heading for the slaughter house. That‘s what they look like to me‖ John Ruganda The Floods. The figure of speech in the excerpt above is A. understatement B. irony C. metaphor D.simile

ANSWERS TO 2014 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH 1.A 2.B 3.D 4.C 5.D 6.D 7. 8.B 9.A 10.C 11.A 12.D 13.C 14.C 15.D 16.A 17.B 18.D 19.C 20.A 21.D 22.B 23.A 24.A 25.D

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE

IFE, 2013 POST-UME SCREENING LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

Section A: Drama Questions 1-5 are based on Joe de Graft’s Sons

and Daughters 1. ―I don‘t see how any mother who cares for the

modesty of her daughter can coolly sit down there and defend such waywardness‖. ―Waywardness‖ in the excerpt above refers to (a) sexual immorality (b) painting (c) dancing (d) disobedience.

2. Aaron‘s painting is purchased by an American collector for the sum of (a) 250 dollars (b) 220 pounds (c) 260 cedis (d) 280 francs

3. James Olosu is pleased with George because he studies (a) Law (b) Accountancy (c) Engineering (d) Medicine

4. Joe de Graft‘s sons and daughters is an example of (a) domestic comedy (b) dark comedy (c) restoration comedy (d) comedy of error.

5. The central conflict in the play is about (a) lawyer Bonu‘s attempt to seduce Maanan (b) career choice for James Olosu‘s children (c) Hannah‘s lack of respect for James (d) Fosuwa‘s bid to force lawyer Bonu on Maanan.

Section B: Poetry Question 6-10 are based on African and Non-

African Poetry 6. David Rubadiri in ―An African Thunderstorm‖

paints a graphic picture of the thunderstorm through the use of (a) simile and personification (b) irony and imagery (c) hyperbole and rhyme (d) innuendo and satire.

7. In Andrew Marvell‘s ―To His Coy Mistress‖, the poet adopts a consistent rhyming scheme of (a) sestet (b) cuplet (c) tercet (d) free verse

8. Mazisi Kunene is an African poet from (a) Ghana (b) Nigeria (c) Malawi (d) South Africa

9. In T.S. Eliot‘s ―The Journey of the Magi‖, the journey can be described as (a) delightful (b) unnecessary (c) allegorical (d) symbolic

10. The dominant figurative device in Kobena Acquah‘s ―In the Navel of the Soul‖ is (a) metaphor (b) assonance (c) paradox (d) euphemism.

Section C: Prose Question 11-13 are based on Ferdinand Oyono’s

“The Old Man and the Medal”


11. ―Fellow wayfarer… what good news do you bring me?‖ The statement above is addressed by Meka to (a) the commandant‘s messenger (b) a passing dog (c) a dove (c) engamba

12. Gullet is so named by the natives because of his (a) razor-sharp wit (b) long neck (c) closeness to the people (d) hostility

13. The medal in the novel is a symbol of (a) ungodliness (b) victory (c) admiration (d) deceit

Questions 14 and 15 are based on Buchi Emecheta’s “The Joys of Motherhood”.

14. In ―The Joys of Motherhood‖, the joy of a mother is predicated on having (a) husband (b) sons (c) daughter (d) wealth

15. The protagonist of the novel is (a) Nwokocha/Agbadi (b) Nnaife (c) Nwakusor (d) Nnu Ego

Question 16-20 are based on George Orwell’s “Nineteen Eighty Four”

16. From the conclusion of the novel, the author implies that (a) rebellion is fruitless (b) opposition pays (c) two and two make four (d) knowledge gives freedom

17. ―It was an enormous pyramidal structure of glittering white concrete, soaring up, terrace after terrace, 300 metres into the air‖. Being described in the excerpt above is (a) the party secretariat (b) O‘Brien‘s residence (c) the ministry of truth (d) the ministry of plenty

18. In the novel, Oceania is at war with (a) Romania (b) Catalonia (c) Eastasia (d) Rhodesia

19. ―Minipax‖ in the true sense means (a) Ministry of Truth (b) Ministry of Love (c) Ministry of War (d) Ministry of Plenty.

20. In the Newspeak language, ―duckspeak‖ is a word that simultaneously refers to (a) love and admiration (b) knowledge and ignorance (c) now and then (d) abuse and praise.

Section D: General Literary Principles Questions 21-23 are based on General literary

principles 21. Hermeneutics is an art of (a) calculation (b)

exaggeration (c) composition (d) interpretation 22. A poem written in unrhymed five stress lines is

called (a) ballad (b) blank verse (c) sonnet (d) ode 23. The type of sonnet that has an octave and a sestet

has its origin in (a) England (b) Spain (c) Portugal (d) Italy

Section E: Literary Appreciation Questions 24 and 25 are based on Literary

Appreciation 24. ―We own this land And the swamps The palms And the mangroves; We‘ll die defending them‖ Tony Afejuku ―Land Song‖ The tone of the excerpt above is (a) jubilant (b)condemnatory (c) adulatory (d) defiant. 25. ―Her voice is a shell borne by the waves

To crack the egg my soul sorely craves‖ Segun Adekoya ―Love Blues‖

The figurative devices in the excerpt above are (a)

rhyme and metaphor (b) alliteration and assonance (c) repletion and simile (d) rhyme and onomatopoeia.

ANSWERS TO LIT IN ENGLISH 2013 1.C 2.B 3.D 4.D 5.E 6.C 7.A 8.B 9.B 10.A 11.C 12.A 13.C 14.A 15.A 16.C 17.C 18.C 19.A 20.A 21.B 22.D 23.C 24.C 25.C


LITERATURE IN ENGLISH 1. A novel that has a very strong presence of the

supernatural is known as _______ (a) faction (b) gothic (c) travel tale (d) fairy novel

2. In a tragic-comedy, the unknotting of the plot, the resolution of the mystery and the resolution of the misunderstanding is called (a) exposition (b) denouement (c) catharsis (d) hubris

(Extract for questions 3 and 4) I thank you God for creating me black For making of me Porter of all sorrows Setting on my head The World

3. The images in this excerpt suggest (a) happiness (b) sorrow (c) anger (d) kindness

4. The World as used above is an example of (a) irony (b) metaphor (c) exaggeration (d) parody (Extract for questions 5 and 6) Agosu, if you go tell them, Tell Nyidevu,Kpeti,and Kove That they have done us evil; Tell them their house is falling And the trees in the fence Have been eaten by termites.

5. This extract is an example of (a) dirge (b) satire (c) ode (d) sonnet

6. The general idea in the extract is (a) neglect (b) praise (c) ridicule (d) worship

7. An epic deals with (a) humour (b) tragedy (c) gothic (d) hero

8. The sudden revelation of events as they happen is called (a) epiphany (b) revelation (c) relay-events (d) resonance

9. Comic relief is used in a work of art to (a) to suspend disbelief (b) to manoeuvre the portals of narration (c) to create chiaroscuro (d) to suspend tension

(Extract for questions 10 and 11) Blessed Nigerians, who eat pestilence to sleep. Blessed the poor, who inherit thorns…

10. The central motif in this except is (a) religious (b) pride (c) poverty (d) deceit

11. The extract is an example of (a) pun (b) hyperbole (c) irony (d) parody

12. The exclusive right given to authors to protect their works from unlawful production or reproduction is


(a) A copyright (b) an authority to write (c) an author‘s right (d) a constitutional provision

13. ―Your hand is heavy, Night, upon my brow‖ is an example of (a) hyperbole (b) onomatopoeia (c) apostrophe (d) oxymoron

Questions 14-16 are based on Joeds Graft’s Sons and Daughters.

14. Aaron‘s brother who trains as an accountant is (a) George (b) Awere (c) Owusu (d) Kofi.

15. Which of the following is true of Awere? (a) He is the fiancé of Maanan (b) He is a chattered accountant (c) He wins a scholarship to Goldsmith College (d) He wants to study dance and choreography

16. The conflict in the play centres around (a) gender (b) generation (c) religion (d) ethnicity.

Questions 17 and 18 are based on George Orwells Nineteen Eighty Four

17. In the novel, the Ministry that is responsible for news, entertainment and ………. is the Ministry of (a) Peace (b) Love (c) Plenty (d) Truth.

18. The Ministry of Plenty in the novel is responsible or (a) War (b) economic affairs (c) Population (d) agriculture

Questions 19-21 are drawn from William Shakespeare’s Romeo and Juliet

19. ―There‘s no trust No faith, no honesty in men, all perjured, All forsworn, all naught, all dissembles‖. The speaker of the above excerpt is (a) Nurse (b) Juliet (c) Balthasaar (d) Capulet.

20. The text of Shakespeare‘s Romeo and Juliet is sourced in (a) 1623 second Folio (b) 1590 rehearsal guide (c) 1599 Quarto (d) 1616 manuscript.

21. Another suitor of Juliet in the play is (a) Mercutio (b) Gregory (c) Duke (d) Paris.

Questions 22 and 23 are based on Ferdinand Oyono’s The Old Man and the Medal and The joys of Motherhood

22. The national day in The Old Man and the Medal is (a) 1st of October (b) 27th of May (c) 12th June (d) l4th July.

23. In Joys of Motherhood, Dr Meers is (a) Nnaife‘s master (b) Nnuego‘s uncle (c) The District Officer (d) An ombudsman.

(Extract for questions 24 and 25) The human beings who I most admire are those without sterling qualities but are extraordinary in their ordinariness, the unsung heroes who will never be in the limelight or boulevard of fame, people who do great things when no one is watching or those who are not marked with the maple leaves of chieftaincy titles. They only wear fate, hard work, perseverance, anonymity and time. Yet, they are passionate, caring, visionary, sincere, determined and honest. These qualities mold those that are special without being aware. I strive to stay true to some of these qualities that I admire. To find a person with a few of these qualities is rare these days. To know someone who has all of them is amazing and a

toe blessing. (Excerpt from Tomorrow Left Us Yesterday - Tayo Olafioye)

24. From this passage, the people that the writer admire are (a) poor (b) brilliant (c) rich (d) unassuming

25. The writer informs the reader that people with good qualities are (a) many (b) few (c) fearful (d) famous

ANSWERS TO LIT IN ENGLISH 2012 1.D 2.B 3.B 4.C 5.A 6.A 7.D 8.D 9.D 10.D 11.D 12.A 13.A 14.D 15.A 16.B 17.D 18.B 19.B 20.A 21.D 22.D 23.A 24.D 25.B


LITERATURE IN ENGLISH 1. Star, hide your fires;

Let not light see my black and deep desires The eye winks at the hand; yet let that be Which the eye fears, when it is done, to see. In these lines, Shakespeare uses A. Hyperbole B. Metonymy C. Onomatopoeia D. Simile E. apostrophe

2. She unpacked the novels she had brought with her, and turned them over. These were the books she had collected over years from the mass that had come her way. She had read each one a dozen times, knowing it by heart, following the familiar tales as a child listens to his mother telling him a well-known fairy tale. This character may be best described as a woman A. of habit B. of poor means C. of wide literary interest D. With poor memory

3. We are all diseas‘d And with our surfeiting, and wanton hours, Have brought ourselves into a burning fever, And we must bleed for it The images in the passage mostly draw attention to A. fun B. ill-health C. carelessness D. sacrifice E. dieting

4. When he was turned over, his eyeballs stared upward. In amazement and horror, his mouth was locked open wide; His trousers, soaked with blood, were torn open, and exposed to the cold, white air of morning. The thick hairs of his groin matted together, black and rust-red, and the wound that seemed to be throbbing still... This passage achieves realism through the use of A. details B. simple words C. the long sentence D. the past tense E. punctuation

5. Earth has not anything to show more fair Dull would he be of soul who could pass by A sight so touching in its majesty: This City now doth, like garment, wear The beauty of the morning. It is suggested in these lines that A. The beauty of the morning gains from the beauty of the city B. The beauty of the city gains from the beauty of the morning C. The beauty of the city and the beauty of the morning are unrelated D. The beauty of the same has nothing to do with either the city or the morning E. There is no beauty on earth.

Questions 6 – 10 are based on Shakespeare’s Romeo and Juliet


6. The tragedy in Shakespeare‘s Romeo and Juliet can be traced to A. genuine altruism B. loving hatred C. tempestuous jealousy D. impetuous haste.

7. The news of Juliet‘s death is broken to Romeo by A. Balthasar B. Gregory C. Servant D. Nurse.

8. Tybalt in Shakespeare‘s Romeo and Juliet is A. Mercutio‘s brother B. Sampson‘s cousin C. Nurse‘s suitor D. Lady Capulet‘s nephew.

9. ‗And for that offense Immediately we do exile him hence‘ The ‗offense‖ in the above excerpt from Shakespeare‘s Romeo and Juliet is committed against A. Romeo B. Friar Laurence C. Tybatt D. Montague.

10. Romeo‘s dream in Act V of Shakespeare‘s Romeo and Juliet signifies A. death B. marriage C. wealth D. hatred.

Questions 11-15 are based on Joe de Graft’s Sons and Daughters. 11. From the setting of his house, it is clear that James

Ofosu has a special taste for A. Asian settee B. imported furniture C. iron chairs D. silk curtains.

12. The disagreement between James Olosu and his son is over A. reckless attitude to money B. keeping late nights C. poor performance in school D. the choice of a career.

13. The most conspicuous item of furniture in James Ofosu‘s sitting room is a A. mahogany camel stool B. large digital radiogram C. coloured wall calendar D. silver metal trolley.

14. ―But I will not sit by with my hands between my legs while my brother‘s daughter is ruined‖. The speaker in the excerpt above is A. Adwoa B. Fosuwa C. Hannah D. Mrs Bonu.

15. ―HANNAH: Leave us alone, Maanan. [Exit Maanan UC, rather reluctantly]‖. UC in the stage direction above means: A. Un-Comfortably B. Unending Circle C. Up and Coming D. Upstage Centre.

Questions 16-20 are based on George Orwell’s Nineteen Eighty Four 16. From the conclusion of the novel, one can say that

Orwell is A. an optimist B. a pessimist C. an evangelist D. a capitalist

17. In the novel, Orwell is out to condemn a form of government called A. democracy B. unitarism C. totalitarianism D. federalism.

18. After the revolution in Oceania, the Ministry responsible for war is called the Ministry of A. Truth B. Love C. Peace D. Plenty.

19. The leader of the Brotherhood is believed to be A. Goldstein B. Winston C. Julia D. Churchill.

20. The official in charge of altering newspaper reports and destroying old records at the Ministry of Truth is A. O‘Brien B. Julia C. Big Brother D. Winston.

QuestIons 21-25 are based on African and None African Poetry

21. David Rubadiri, the author of ―An African Thunderstorm‖ hails from A. Kenya B. Rwanda C. Ghana D. Malawi.

22. In David Rubadiin‘s An African Thunderstorm‖, the poet describes the cloud through the use of A. irony B. personification C. alliteration D. meiosis.

23. The dominant mood in Soles‖, is that of A. pleasure amidst pain B. doom and despair C. regret and optimism D. hope and resignation.

24. In Gbemisola Adeoti‘s ―Naked Soles‖, lisping lips and clanging teeth‖ depict A. fatigue B. joy C. excitement D. horror.

25. For rhetorical effect, Mazisi Kunene in ―Heritage of Uberation‘ uses A. rhetorical question B. irony C. repetition D. assonance. ANSWERS TO LIT IN ENGLISH 2011

1.B 2.C 3.C 4.D 5.B 6.B 7.A 8.D 9.C 10.A 11.B 12.D 13.C 14.B 15.D 16.B 17.C 18.C 19.A 20.D 21.D 22.B 23.B 24.D 25.B

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE IFE, 2010 POST-UME SCREENING POST

UME 2010 LITERATURE-IN-ENGLISH Questions 1-4 are based on JC de Graft’s Sons and Daughters.

1. The thematic pre-occupation of de Graft‘s Sons and Daughters can be summarized as (a) the import of Western education (b) the roles of women in modern economy (c) how to become a Lawyer (d) family life in the face of social changes.

2. Lawyer Bonu in de Grafts Sons and Daughters can be described as a: (a) caring father (b) faithful husband (c). deceitful friend (d) shrewd Politician.

3. De Graft‘s Sons and Daughters is structured into: (a) three Acts (b) four scenes (c) two Acts (d) five Episodes.

4. The central conflict in de Graft‘s Sons and Daughters is primarily: (a) political (b) generational (c) racial (d) communal. Questions 5.9 are based on Oyono’s Old Man and the Medal

5. He already had five wives and was soon going to break the legs of the antelope for the sixth time‘. The expression ―break the legs of the antelope‖ means to: (a) be ON honeymoon (b) offer ritual sacrifice (c) hunt for antelopes (d) have a new baby.

6. The medal In Oyono‘s The Old man and the Medal is a compensation to Meka for the loss of his two sons and his: (a) house (b) horse (c) land (d) job.

7. Kelara in Oyono‘s The Old man and the Medal is: (a) Mvodo‘s sister (b) Commandant‘s maid (c). Meka‘s wife (d). Agatha‘s cousin.

8. In Oyono‘s The Old Man and the Medal, Ignatius Obebe is a: (a) driver (b) soldier (c) carpenter (d) catechist.

9. The medal in Qyono‘s The Old man and the Medal is a symbol of: (a) colonial deceit (b) African pride (c) genuine reward for loyalty (d) respect and honour. Questions 10-14 are based on selected African poems.

10. Dancing through blooming thorns‖ in Gbemisola Adeoti‘s Naked Soles‖ connotes: (a) hoeing a field of thorns (b) dancing in a keen competition (c) being merry amidst suffering (d) playing flowers and plants.


11. In Gbemisola Adeoti‘s Naked Soles‖, the expression red milk of grief‘ refers to: (a) wine (b) ink (c) blood (d) palm-oil.

12. In Masizi Kunene‘s ―A Heritage of Liberation‘, this season‘ refers to the period of: (a) oppression (b) freedom (c) migration (d) resettlement.

13. ―Eagle in Kunene‘s ―A Heritage of Liberation‖ is a symbol of: (a) deceit (b) peace (c) agility (d) death.

14. The tone in Gbemisola Adeoti‘s Naked Soles‖ is that of (a) reconciliation (b) lamentation (c) exhortation (d) admiration. Questions 15-18 are based on Non-African Poetry

15. The attitude of the poet-persona toward bats in D. H. Lawrence‘s ―Bats‖ is that of (a) revulsion (b) veneration (c) admiration (d) indifference.

16. In China, according to D. H. Lawrence, bats are symbols of: (a) death (b) birth (c) caution (d) joy.

17. In Wendy Cope‘s Sonnet VII, poetry is regarded as a God- given weapon to: (a) musicians (b) recluses (c) nomads (d) pilgrims.

18. The greatest challenge to the poet-persona in Andrew Marvell‘s ―To His Coy Mistress‘ is: (a) chariot (b) love (c) time (d) youth. Questions 19 - 24 are based on Literary Appreciation

19. The tone of the speaker in the excerpt above (Q. 20) is that of (a) agony (b) joy (c) fulfillment (d) admonition.

20. But the pigs were so clever that they could think of a way around every difficulty. As for the horses, they know every inch of the field and in fact understood the business of mowing and raking‖. the dominant literary device in the excerpt above is (a) repetition (b) mimesis (c) ellipsis (d) personification.

21. ―The dairy maids and men had flocked down from their cottages and out of the dairy-house with the arrival of the cows from the meads; the maids walking in patterns, not on account of weather, but to keep their shoes above the mulch of the barton‖. The setting of the above passage can be described as: (a) urban (b) celestial (c) pastoral (d) religious.

22. ―O mother, my mother! ... How could I be expected to know? I was a child when I left this house four months ago. Why didn‘t you tell me there was danger in men-folk? Why didn‘t you warn me?‖ The speech above achieves its literary effect through the use of: (a) litotes (b) onomatopoeia (c) allusion (d) repetition.

23. ―The animals saw no reason to disbelieve him, especially as they could no longer remember very clearly what conditions had been like before the rebellion. All the same, there were days when they felt that they would sooner have had less figures and more food‖. The tone of the passage above is quite: (a) exhilarating (b) cynical (c) optimistic (d) obsequious.

24. ―We are tired of waiting for another war Our trees their leaves have shed The winter has come and gone Spring flowers have blossomed and withered‖ In line 2 of the poem above, the poet uses: (a) ellipsis (b) alliteration (c) inversion (d) oxymoron.

25. ―I come and go a pilgrim grubbily unkempt stubbornly cheerful defiantly whistling hope and grubbing for crumbs of success out of all near-defeats. The poet personal in the poem above is: (a) resigned to fate (b) a holyman (c) a daily traveler (d) suffering but optimistic.

ANSWERS TO LIT IN ENGLISH 2010 1.D 2.C 3.C 4.B 5.A 6.C 7.C 8.D 9.A 10.C 11.C 12.B 13.D 14.B 15.A 16.D 17.B 18.C 19.D 20.D 21.C 22.D 23.B 24.C 25.D

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE IFE, 2009 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISE -

ENGLISH LITERATURE 1. This is my letter to the world That never wrote to me The simple news nature told

With tender majesty Her message is committed

To hands I cannot see; For love of her, sweet countrymen, Judge tenderly of me To whom does her in line 5 refers to?

(a) God (b) Letter(c) World(d) Nature 2. The suddenly her heart was whipped up, she now

rode on strange waves: alone defying the wind and the rain; alone, fighting hunger and thirst in the desert, alone, struggling with strange demons in the forest bringing glad tidings to her people. The mood of the lady in this passage is one of (a) Simple defiance (b) defeat (c) triumphant (d) depression

3. Mother, didn‘t you hear me? I‘ve brought the goat, hen and yams. Don‘t you want them anymore? Why do you continue to look at me like that? I haven‘t done anything wrong, again, have I? Answer me, speak to me, mother‘ The dominant mood in this passage is one of (a) Sadness (b) anxiety (c) anger (d) nonchalance.

4. What distinguishes poetry from other forms of literature is its (a) Rhyme and verse (b) rhythm and metaphor (c) emotion and feeling (d) irony and paradox

5. Assonance poetry is the repetition of (a) internal vowels in words (b) consonant sounds in words (c) final sounds at the end of a line 1 (d) final sounds at the beginning of a line

6. There knells a jigger, a louse, a weevil, a flea, a bedbug! He is mistletoe, a parasite that lives on the trees of other people‘s! The speaker uses a string of (a) Metaphors (b) parables (c) hyperboles (d) riddles

7. As a literacy form the short story is most closely related to (a) the discourse (b) the novel (c) story telling (d) poetry

8. A poem written on a grand theme, in an appropriately grand style, dealing, with heroic


figures is called (a) An epigram (b) an epic (c) a soliloquy (d) heroic poem

9. The literary device which uses ridicule to correct social ills is known as (a) anecdote (b) saturation (c) hyperbole (d) Satire

10. Characterization in a novel means the (a) list of characters featuring in it (b) peculiar materialisms of the narrator (c) mode of presenting the fictional individuals (d) list of those that act the novel

11. Caricature is used to (a) censure an individual by emphasizing his weakness (b) expose the folly in literature (c) ridicule a person by distorting his most prominent features (d) elicit the artistic potential of dramatist

12. The branch of knowledge that places emphasis on beauty is (a) philosophy (b) ode to pretty (c) philology (d) aesthetics

13. ‗You kiss her on the cheek You kiss her open-sore lips As white people do, You suck slimy saliva From each other‘s mouths. As white people do.‘ Okot P‘Breck‘s song of Larie

The writer of the lines above uses repetition to enhance irony (a) to underscore disapproval (b) for emphasis (c) for imitation

14. ‗The madman has entered our house with violence Defiling our sacred grounds Claiming the single truth of the universe Bending down our priest with iron‘. Mazzizi Kunnene‘s progress

The imagery of the line above captures the idea of (a) coercion (b) truth (c) religiosity (d) persuasion

15. ‗Behold her, single in the field You solitary Highland Lass! Reaping and singing, by herself Stop here, or gently pass! Alone she cuts and blinds the gram, And sings a melancholy strain, O listen! For the Vale profound Is overflowing with the sound.

The rhyming scheme in the first stanza of The Solitary Reaper above is (a) abcbddee (b) ababccdd (c) alxabcdd(d) abcbddef

16. Caareened, These only tears Dripping down the tears on your depressed face, Will one day be staunched. I swear‘

The tone of the poet is (a) optimistic (b) duplicatory (c) sympathetic (d)piteous

17. The literary device which anticipates that an event will take place is best described as (a) parody (b) flashback(c) foreshadowing (d) rising action

Questions (18-21) are based on William Shakespeare‘s Romeo and Juliet

18. The multiple deaths in the play serve as a punishment for (a) impatience on the part of Romeo and Juliet; (b) Imposing life partners on children (c)

disobedience of the protagonists (d) Tybalt‘s fiery temper

19. Romeo‘s death becomes inevitable because (a) Emir Lawrence‘s is not delivered; (b) Juliet is married to Paris (c) Romeo kills Tybalt in a duel(d) Juliet has committed suicide.

20. Before he met Juliet, Romeo was in love with (a) county Paris (b) Rosaline(c) Benvolio (d) Mercuito

21. The major reason for Juliet‘s grief is (a) The death of her cousin; (b) her reluctant marriage to Romeo (c) the banishment of her lover (d) her imminent death. Questions (22-23) are based on George Orwell‘s Nineteen Eighty-four

22. Winston Smith begins his rebellion against the power of the state by (a) educating the youth (b) keeping a private diary (c) purchasing arms (d) disobeying Big Brother.

23. In the novel, Orwell attempts to (a) eulogizes the beauty of the socialist system; (b) condemn the disgusting hypocrisy of all communist systems; (c) Satirize the artificiality of a machine controlled society, (d) deride the political lock jam in Nigeria. Questions (24-25) are based on selected poems

24. ―The experts, of course Disagree The urine test they ordered ‗said, Negative‘. The lives above from Acqah‘s In the Nanel of the

soul depict (a) awareness (b) inevitability (c) progress (d) contradiction

25. In Kunene‘s A Heritage of Liberation, freedom is to be achieved through the efforts of (a) the new generation; (b) the old generations; (c) present generation; (d) successive generations

ANSWERS TO LIT IN ENGLISH 2009 1.D 2.C 3.B 4.A 5.A 6.A 7.B 8.B 9.D 10.D 11.C 12.D 13.B 14.D 15.A 16.A 17.C 18.B 19.A 20.B 21.C 22.B 23.B 24.D 25.D


EXERCISE - LIT IN ENGLISH 1. What figure of speech does the following quotation

contain? (a) life‘s but a walking shadow (Macbeth) (a) a metaphor (b) an image (c) a synecdoche (d) and allusion

2. Which of the following statement is most true about poetry? (a) the meanings of words are more important than their sounds (b) the sounds of words are more important than their meanings (c) the sounds of words are often more important than their meanings (d) sounds and meanings of words are of little consequence

3. Which of these best define exposition in drama? (a) the author‘s own general introduction to the play (b) the author‘s early exposure of his dramatis personae to conflict (c) introduction to the characters and the general problem with which the play deals (d) the first performance of the play on stage.

file:\\Satirize


4. When the speaker in a poem cannot be identified with poet, that speaker is called: (a) a persona (b) a dramatis persona (c) a soliloquist (d) a ventriloquist

5. Which of these definitions best describes a lyric? (a) a short poem (b) a short poem in which the poet himself id speaking (c) a poem expressing a personal idea, feeling or mood (d) a poem divided into stanza

6. An autobiographical novel is: (a) a novel written about another novelist (b) a true account of a novelist‘s life by himself (c) a novel in which the novelist draws mainly on materials from his own life (d) a novel using the ‗I‘ pronoun

7. Plot in prose fiction is best defined as: (a) the cause and effect sequence of events (b) the brief summary of events (c) the central event (d) the subject-matter of a novel

8. Which of these is not true about unity of action in a novel? (a) action may be unified through a single main character (b) action may be unified by being set in one place (c) action may be unified by many characters (d) action may be unified by using set in one consistent point of view

9. Action in a novel is best defined as: (a) the summary of the novel‘s story (b) what the characters do or say in he novel (c) the numerous sub-plots of the novel put together (d) the totality of all the episodes in a novel leading to the conclusion

10. Suspense in a novel means: (a) the postponement of he hero‘s death till the last possible moment (b) the intense emotions that the author conveys (c) the inconclusive end of a novel (d) when we are curious about what happens next in a novel

11. A realistic novel is one in which the characters are: (a) real (b) historical (c) just of above average intelligence (d) the types that we meet in everyday life

12. Theme is best defined as: (a) the subject-matter of a novel or play (b) the central idea in a play or novel (c) the point of view in that novel (d) the sum-total of all the characters‘ experiences

Read the following extract from a poem to answer questions 13 and 14 Among rocks, I am the loose one, Among arrows, I am the heart Among daughters, I am the recluse, Among sons, the one who dies young.

13. What kind of repetition is used in the extract? (a) anaphora (b) single word repetition (c) line repetition (d) phrase repetition

14. Apart from emphasis, what other effect does the repetition have? (a) makes the poem rhythmical (b) makes the poem tedious (c) makes the poem monotonous (d) makes the poem exhilarating

15. The following line from a poem: Western wind, when will thou blow? Is an example of: (a) rhetorical question (b) caesura (c) alliteration (d) nature imagery

16. Identify the odd one out of these types of imagery (a) visual imagery (b) tactile imagery (c) synaesthesia (d) literal imagery

17. When a poet uses mainly soft vowel sounds in al poem, the texture of the poem is: (a)mellifluous (b) harsh (c) assonantal (d) neutral

18. The sounds in the following lines may be described as an example of: The moan of doves in immemorial elms, and murmuring of innumerable bees (a) alliteration (b) euphony (c) cacophony (d) a mixture of all the above

19. ―The man dies in him who keeps silent in the face of tyranny.‖ This statement can be described as: (a) Metaphoric (b) Literal (c) Tragic (d) A smile

20. The literary technique in which a reader is taken to the past of a current action in known as: (a) rewinding (b) fast forward (c) flashback (d) repetition

21. One rhyme scheme typical of the English sonnet is (a) abba abba cde dce (b) abba abba cde cde (c) abab cdcd efef gg (d) abcd babb cde cc

22. ―…This is a Montague, our foe; A villain, that is hither come in spit. To scorn at out solemnity this night. William Shakespeare: Romeo and Juliet I:V, 61-63. The speaker of the above excerpt is a (a) son of Lord Montague (b) nephew to Lady Capulet (c) kinsman to the Prince (d) servant to Paris

23. In Gbemisola Adeoti‘s ―Naked Soles‖, the expression ―red milk of grief‖ means (a) wine (b) sea (c) ink (d) blood

24. Farce thrives on (a) big events (b) promotion (c) absurdity (d) incidents

25. A short witty statement is an (a) epistle (b) eulogy (c) epigram (d) anecdote

26. In a narration, the first person is (a) the author (b) a participant (c) the publisher (d) an observer

27. A literary device that creates a mental picture of a situation is (a) imagery (b) symbolism (c) flashback (d) epilogue

ANSWERS TO LIT IN ENGLISH 2008 1.A 2.A 3.C 4.A 5.C 6.C 7.A 8.A 9.B 10.D 11.A 12.A 13.A 14.A 15.A 16.D 17.A 18.B 19.A 20.C 21.C 22.B 23.D 24.C 25.C 26.A 27.A

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE

IFE, 2007 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISE - LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

1. ―When he was turned over, his eyeballs stared upward in amazement and horror, his mouth was locked torn wide: his trousers soaked with blood, were torn open, and exposed to the cold, white air of morning the thick hairs of his groin, mattered together, black and rust red, and the wound that seemed to be throbbing still‖. This passage achieves realism through the use of (a) details (b) simple words (c) the long sentence (d) the past tense

2. Earth has not anything to; show more fair. Dull would he be of soul who could pass by A sight so touching in its majesty. This city now doth, like a garment, wear The beauty of the morning.

It is suggested in these lines that (a) the beauty of the morning gains from the

beauty of the city


(b) the beauty of the city gains from the beauty of the morning.

(c) The beauty of the city and the beauty of the morning are unrelated.

(d) There is no beauty on earth. 3. ―of o cam fastem nut one cup upon him with that

which he had drunk tonight already. He‘ll be as full of quarrel and offence as my young mistress‘ dog…‖ Shakespeare, Othello from the statement above it can be inferred that the speaker is (a) disobedient (b) quarrelsome (c) drunkard (d) scheming

4. ―That that is why we must acc-c-cept the uni-versal d-d-dome, b-b-because ththere is no d-d-d-direction. The b-b-bridge is the d-d-dome of religion and b-b-bridges d-don‘t jjjjust g-g-go from hhhere to the there; a bridge also faces backwards‖.

Wole Soyinka, The Interpreters The idiolectical feature of the character‘s speech is the (a) repetition of consonant sounds (b) repetition of initial consonant sounds (c) duplication of consonant sound clusters (d) multiplication of diphthongs

5. ―As virtuous men pass wildly away, and higher to their souls, to go, Whilst some of their sad friends do say, ―The breadth goes now‖, and some say ―No‖. The tone of this poem is generally (a) appreciative (b) serious(c) imaginative (d) conversational

6. I am alone And the murmur of my lips carry song and tears homewards from a plain away from home

Okogbule Wonodi. ―Lament for Shola‖. The poet-persona here expresses a feeling of (a) love(b) anger(c) nostalgia (d) sorrow

7. One rhyme scheme typical of the English sonnet is (a) bba abba cde cde (b) bba abba cde dce (c) abab cdcd efef gg (d) abcd babb cde cc

8. Farce thrives on (a) big events (b) promotion (c) absurdity (d) incidents

9. A short witty statement is an (a) epistle (b) eulogy (c) epigram (d) anecdote

10. In a narration, the first person is (a) the author (b) a participant(c) the publisher(d) an observer

11. A literary device that creates a mental picture of a situation is (a) imagery (b) symbolism (c) flashback (d) epilogue

12. Periphrasis in poetic diction is marked by (a) circumlocution (b) irony (c) proverb (d) parable

13. A deliberate imitation of a literary style with the intention to ridicule is (a) lampoon (b) prosody (c) pun (d) parody

14. What happened to Tess at the end of Thomas Hard‘s Tess of the D‘urbervilles? (a) She is executed for committing murder (b) She go married to Angel Clare (c) She got married to Alec D‘urbervilles (d) She gave birth to a baby boy.

15. The wood where Alec raped Tess is known as: (a) Chase borough (b) The Chase(c)Greenhill (d) Trantridge

16. The name of the place where Tess and Angel Clare meet each other the second time is: (a) Tratridge (b) Brazil (c) Dubeyfield (d) Talbothays farm

17. ―Taxi Driver‖ in Timothy Wangusa‘s ―A Taxi Driver on his Death‖ can be interpreted s a metaphor describing: (a) a careful driver (b) a ruthless dictator(c) a drunkard (d) a carelelss man

18. The tone in Dennis Brutus‘ ―A Troubadour I Traverse…‖ can be described as: (a) defiant (b) submissive(c) regretful (d) arrogant

19. ―Naett‖ in Leopold Sedar Senmghor‘s ―I will Pronounce you Name‖ refers to: (a) South Africa (b) A woman (c) A man (d) Black Africa.

20. ―Cloud I, early sequestered from my tribe, Free a lead- tethered scribe.‖

The above lines‘ from J.P. Clark‘s ―Agbor Dancer‖ suggests that the persona is: (a) one with his tribe (b) alienated from his tribe (c) One of the dancers (d) one of the drummers

21. The name of the author of ―We Must Learn to Fly‖ is: (a) Dennis Brutus (b) Leopold Sedar Senghor (c) Odia Ofeimun (d) Wole Soyinka

22. One of the following is a characteristic of a novel: (a) It is written only in dialogues (b) It adopts the poetic form (c) It is written mainly in prose (d) It employs phrases and sentences.

23. The law protecting works of art from unlawful reproduction is called: (a) plagiarism (b) illegal photocopying (c) It is written mainly in prose (d) copyright

24. The play Hamlet may be described as a tragedy of: (a) belief in ghosts (b) marital infidelity (c) indecision and procrastination (d) inordinate love of father by son.

ANSWERS TO LIT IN ENGLISH 2007

1.A 2.D 3.D 4.C 5.D 6.C 7.C 8.C 9.C 10.A 11.A 12.A 13.D 14.C 15.B 16.D 17.B 18.A 19.D 20.B 21.C 22.D 23.D 24.D


EXERCISE - LIT IN ENGLISH The following three questions are on William Shakespeare‘s Hamlet

1. The play Hamlet may be described as a tragedy of: (a) belief in ghosts (b) marital infidelity (c) indecision and procrastination (d) inordinate love of father by son

2. Prince Hamlet refrains from killing King Claudius while the later is praying because (a) he does not want to murder a pious man (b) he is not yet fully convinced of his uncle‘s guilt (c) King Claudius might thereby gain eternal life (d) murder of a person paying is an unpardonable sin

3. Which of these best describes setting in a novel? (a) the place where an event takes place (b) the time when an vent takes place (c) the place and time of an event (d) the background of an event

The following three questions are on Thomas Hardy’s Tess of the d’Urbervilles


4. The farm Flintcomb-Ash is symbolic of: (a) Tess‘s fallen state (b) Tess‘s innocence (c) Tess‘s happiness (d) the suffering and ill-luck that is Tess‘s fate

5. Prince, in the novel, is: (a) the title of Tess‘s ravisher (b) Angel Clare‘s other name (c) the name of a horse (d) the name of Tess‘s brother

6. The period Tess spends at Talbothays is the period of her: (a) the happiest period of her life (b) the period she suffers most horribly in the novel (c) the period she falls into temptation (d) the period when the become pregnant The next three questions are on Attahiru, Ahmed Yerima‘s play

7. The play starts with a (a) flashback (b) prayer (d) muezzin (d) dialogue

8. Caliph Attahiru invites Mallam because (a) Mallam has offended the caliph (b) Mai Worno needs to be talked to (c) Attahiru wants Mallam to explain the dream he had (d) Mallam and Mai Wurno are friends

9. Caliph: ―You have spoken well. I agree with the Waziri‘s suggestions. You shall both organize your men and build a new well in the market. That is our judgment‖. What informed this statement? (a) Waziri‘s fight with the white man (b) Waziri‘s disagreement with Sarkin Zango (c) the dispute between Caliph Attahiru and Prince Muhammed al-Tahir (d) the dispute between Sarkin Zango and Sarkin Fatake.

10. A five-line poem that treats a nonsensical subject with humour is a (a) quartet (b) limerick (c) panegyric (d) sestet

11. Which of the following statements I most true about poetry? (a) the meanings of words are more important than their sounds (b) the sounds of words are more important than their meanings (c) the sounds of words are often more important than their meaning (d) sounds and meanings of words are of little consequence

12. The expression ―coin of gold‖ in ―Naett, coin of gold‖ is (a) personification (b) epithet (c) metonymy (d) metaphor

13. What figure of speech is ―shining coal‖? (a) paradox (b) irony (c) oxymoron (d) paronomasia

14. The rhythm of the poem ―Serenade‖ is (a) blue (b) jolting (c) jerky (d) measured

15. Which of these best defined exposition in drama? (a) the author‘s own general introduction to the play (b) the author‘s early exposure of his dramatis personae to conflict (c) introduction to the characters and the general problem with which the play deals (d) the first performance of the play on stage

The next two questions are on an extract form a poem by Thomas Hardy. Read the lines carefully and answer the questions that follow:

We stood by a pond that winter day, And the sun was white, as though chidden of God, And a few leaves lay on the starving sod, ...They had fallen from an ash, and were gray.

16. The tone or mood of the speaker in the poem is: (a) neutral (b) angry (c) happy (d) sad

17. ―starving sod‖ here is: (a) a metaphor (b) a personification (c) a simile (d) a paradox

18. In Leopold Sedar Senghor‘s ―I will pronounce Your Name‖ Naeth represents (a) Africa (b) Senegal (c) the poet‘s mother (d) the poet‘s lover

19. In Ofeimun‘s ―We Must Learn Again to fly‖ ‗Cumulus‘ symbolizes (a) a cloud (b) old age (c) sounded masses (d) black hair

20. A brief but witty expression is called: (a) song (b) epigram (c) enecdote (d) joke

21. Pastoral poetry refers to the poetic composition of (a) clergymen (b) friare (c) scops (d) shepherds

22. A literary composition that employs wit and humor to ridicule person or institutions is (a) drama (b) satire (c) norella (d) clergy

23. In a tragedy, the moment when the protagonist suffers a reversal of fortune is know as (a) eatharsis (b) exposition (c) anagnonsis (d) peripeteia

ANSWERS TO LIT IN ENGLISH 2006 1.D 2.B 3.C 4.D 5.C 6.A 7.A 8.A 9.D 10.B

11.A 12.D 13.C 14.C 15.C 16.D 17.B 18.B 19.B

20.B 21.D 22.B 23.D

CRK & IRK

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE-IFE, 2015 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1. On whose account did Herod the tetrarch put John

the Baptist in prison? A. Philip'saccount B. His brother's account C. Antipas' account D. Herodias' account

2. "Parousia" means A. Study of the last days. B. Second Corning of Jesus C. White Throne Judgment. D. Study of the word of God

3. Who made this statement? "Which way did the spirit of the LORD pass from me to speak to your A., Prophet Hannah B. Prophet Baal C. Prophet Zedekiah D. Prophet Micaiah

4. The population of Nineveh when God spared them after Jonah's call for repentance vas more than A. One hundred thousand B. One hundred and twenty

thousand C.Seven hundred thousand D. One hundred and fifty thousand

5. The prophecy that the Messiah was going to be born in Bethlehem was made by Prophet A. Micah B. Isaiah C. Jeremiah D. Malachi

6. The Ethiopian Eunuch who was coming from Jerusalem was reading from the prophecy of A. Ezekiel B, Jeremiah C Isaiah D. Amos

7. Jesus warned people to be cautious of false prophets because of their A. Powerful utterances B. Long speeches C. Poor communication D. Calm appearance

8. People's actions are sometimes denounced as unwholesome, unethical and incongruous bythe _____in the Old and New Testaments. A.


Apostles B. Disciples C. Pharisees D. Sadducees 9. During his third missionary journey, Paul left Chios

for A. Trogyllium B. Assos C. Mitylene D. Samos. 10. When the Sanhedrin threatened to kill the apostles

for being defiant, Gamaliel advised that they be A. detained for further investigation B. left alone for God to judge C. allowed to continue to preach D. Hogged and imprisoned

11. Identity the king who reigned after Hezekiah A. Jehoahez B. Amon C. Manasseh D. Josiah

12. Sin has no dominion over those who are under A. Grace B. Authority C. Law D. judgment

13. Jesus says that because iniquity shall abound A. the grace on people shall diminish B. the love of people shall increase C. people's sense of modesty shall leave D. the love of many shall wax cool

14. According to the gospel of John the blind man was born like that because A. his parents sinned against God B. of genetic problem of God's might that was going to be revealed in him D .he was born through sinful means

15. Who represented the Jew in their case against Paul before Governor Felix? A. Alexanda B. Tertullus Apollo. C. Gamaliel.

16. One of the following was not among the instructions Moses gave to the spies sent into Canaan: A. Go up there into the Negeb B. Bring some of the fruits of the land C. Stay in the house on the wall (i.e. Rahab's house) D. See what the land is like.

17. The popular interprete of Mosiac Law in the time of Jesus were the A. Scribes B. Pharises C. Herodians D.Zealots.

18. The healing of the paralytic shows what? It Shows that A. Jesus is merciful B. Jesus is has power over

demons C. Jesus has authority to forgive sins D. Jesus is the much awaited messiah

19. Who healed the blindness of Paul? A. Ananias B. Timothy C. Silas D. Cephas

20. Pure and undefiled religion combines A. visitation to widows and fatherless with purity of heart B. diligence with sobriety C. stewardship and faith D. vocation with faith

21. I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ; for its________ unto salvation. A. the grace of God B. the peace of God C. the gift of God D. the power of God

22. According to Paul's estimation in Galatians 3:17 the time between Abrahamic Covenant and Mosaic Covenant is A. 400 years B. 410 years C. 420 years D. 430 years

23. "To satisfy the king of Assyria, he removed from the LORDS temple the Sabbath canopy they had built in the palace, and [he closed] the outer entrance for the king." About whom among the kings of Judah was this comment made? A. Hezekiah B. Ahaz C. Zedekiah D. Manasseh

24. David's instruction to Solomon to put Joab to death indicated that David wanted A. to take revenge to secure the throne for Solomon C. justice to be done D. Joab to apologies‘ to Solomon

25. Jesus was speaking in parable to the crowd in order to fulfill the prophecy of ______ A. Isaiah B. Jeremiah C. Ezekiel D. Amos.

SOLUTION

1.D. 2.B 3.C 4.D 5.A 6.C 7.D 8.C 9.D 10.B 11.C 12.A 13.D 14.B 15.B 16.C 17.B. 18.C. 19.A 20.A 21.D 22.D 23.B 24.C 25.A

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE-IFE, 2015 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE1. On whose account did Herod the tetrarch put John

the Baptist in prison? A. Philip'saccount B. His brother's account C. Antipas' account D. Herodias' account

2. "Parousia" means A. Study of the last days. B. Second Corning of Jesus C. White Throne Judgment. D. Study of the word of God

3. Who made this statement? "Which way did the spirit of the LORD pass from me to speak to your A., Prophet Hannah B. Prophet Baal C. Prophet Zedekiah D. Prophet Micaiah

4. The population of Nineveh when God spared them after Jonah's call for repentance vas more than A. One hundred thousand B. One hundred and twenty thousand C.Seven hundred thousand D. One hundred and fifty thousand

5. The prophecy that the Messiah was going to be born in Bethlehem was made by Prophet A. Micah B. Isaiah C. Jeremiah D. Malachi

6. The Ethiopian Eunuch who was coming from Jerusalem was reading from the prophecy of A. Ezekiel B, Jeremiah C Isaiah D. Amos

7. Jesus warned people to be cautious of false prophets because of their A. Powerful utterances B.

Long speeches C. Poor communication D. Calm appearance

8. People's actions are sometimes denounced as unwholesome, unethical and incongruous bythe _____in the Old and New Testaments. A.

Apostles B. Disciples C. Pharisees D. Sadducees 9. During his third missionary journey, Paul left Chios

for A. Trogyllium B. Assos C. Mitylene D. Samos. 10. When the Sanhedrin threatened to kill the apostles

for being defiant, Gamaliel advised that they be A. detained for further investigation B. left alone for God to judge C. allowed to continue to preach D. Hogged and imprisoned

11. Identity the king who reigned after Hezekiah A. Jehoahez B. Amon C. Manasseh D. Josiah

12. Sin has no dominion over those who are under A. Grace B. Authority C. Law D. judgment

13. Jesus says that because iniquity shall abound A. the grace on people shall diminish B. the love of people shall increase C. people's sense of modesty shall leave D. the love of many shall wax cool

14. According to the gospel of John the blind man was born like that because A. his parents sinned against


God B. of genetic problem of God's might that was going to be revealed in him

D .he was born through sinful means 15. Who represented the Jew in their case against Paul

before Governor Felix? A. Alexanda B. Tertullus Apollo. C. Gamaliel.

16. One of the following was not among the instructions Moses gave to the spies sent into Canaan: A. Go up there into the Negeb B. Bring some of the fruits of the land C. Stay in the house on the wall (i.e. Rahab's house) D. See what the land is like.

17. The popular interprete of Mosiac Law in the time of Jesus were the A. Scribes B. Pharises C. HerodiansD.Zealots.

18. The healing of the paralytic shows what? It Shows that A. Jesus is merciful B. Jesus is has power over demons C. Jesus has authority to forgive sins D. Jesus is the much awaited messiah

19. Who healed the blindness of Paul? A. Ananias B. Timothy C. Silas D. Cephas

20. Pure and undefiled religion combines A. visitation to widows and fatherless with purity of heart B. diligence with sobriety C. stewardship and faith D. vocation with faith

21. I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ; for its________ unto salvation. A. the grace of God B. thepeace of God C. the gift of God D. the power of God

22. According to Paul's estimation in Galatians 3:17 the time between Abrahamic Covenant and Mosaic Covenant is A. 400 years B. 410 years C. 420 years D. 430 years

23. "To satisfy the king of Assyria, he removed from the LORDS temple the Sabbath canopy they had built in the palace, and [he closed] the outer entrance for the king." About whom among the kings of Judah was this comment made? A. Hezekiah B. Ahaz C. Zedekiah D. Manasseh

24. David's instruction to Solomon to put Joab to death indicated that David wanted A. to take revenge to secure the throne for Solomon C. justice to be done D. Joab to apologies‘ to Solomon

25. Jesus was speaking in parable to the crowd in order to fulfill the prophecy of ______ A. Isaiah B. Jeremiah C. Ezekiel D. Amos.

SOLUTION

1.D. 2.B 3.C 4.D 5.A 6.C 7.D 8.C 9.D 10.B 11.C 12.A 13.D 14.B 15.B 16.C 17.B. 18.C 19.A 20.A 21.D 22.D 23.B 24.C 25.A


ILE-IFE, NIGERIA 2014 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE (CRK)

1. Amos was a shephered in___ before he was called

to serve as a prophet A. Nineveh B. Tekoa C. Damascus D. Bethel

2. Who according to James blaspheme the honourable name by which Christians are called? A. Non-believers, B. pagan rulers, C.antichrists D.the rich

3. Who was the secretary employed by Jeremiah to write his prophecy? A. Amanuensis B. Amos C.Baruch D. Joshia

4. Why did Herod the tetrarch put John the Baptist in prison? A. John refused to bless him B. John refused to bless his marriage C. John said to him, ―you are a wicked man‖ D.John said to him, ―it is not lawful for you to have your brother‘s wife‖

5. Who made this statement? ―Thy words were found and I ate them and thy words became to me a joy and the delight of my heart.‖ A. Jonah B. Micah C. Jeremiah D. Ezekiel

6. The name of the child Adam and Eve had after they were sent out of the Garden of Eden was ___ A. Seth B. Cain C. Abel D.Enoch

7. How old was Joseph when he began his works as governor in Egypt? A.28 B.29 C.30 D.31

8. The phrase ‗you cows of Bashan‘ referred to A. Cows in the land of Bashan B.The fat and greedy men of Israel who oppress the priests C.The fat and greedy women of Israel who oppress the poor D. the fat rich women of Samaria who oppress the poor.

9. The two women that had great influence on Timothy‘s spiritual life were ___ A.Eunice and Doris B. Luis and Lydia, C. Eunice and Priscilla D. Lois and Eunice

10. The name given to Daniel by Nebuchadnezzar is ___ A.Belteshazzar B. Hananiah C. Mishael D. Azariah

11. Who made this statement? ―Every plant which my heavenly Father has not planted will be rooted up? A. Prophet Jeremiah B. Jesus C. John the Baptist D. Apostle Paul

12. __ was raised from dead at Joppa A. Lydia B. Rhoda C. Mary Magdalene D.Tabitha(Dorcas)

13. ‗Corban‘means A. holy people B. laughter C. sacrificial animal D. given to God

14. Why did the apostles make this statement? ―We must obey God rather than men‖. A. They were forbidden to teach in Jesus‘ name B. They were forbidden to read the Bible in the public C. They were forbidden to sing Christian songs in the public D. They were forbidden to pray in the public

15. Who was the prophet who was made a watchman for the house of Israel by Yahweh? A. Jonah B.Micah C.Ezekiel D.Jeremiah

16. We want to see Jesus. Who were the people who expressed this? A. The Jewish converts B. The Gentiles worshippers C.The Galatians D. The Ephesians

17. For the remission of sins, Jesus Christ gave his life as a A. debt B.ransom C. price D. bonus


18. The phrase ‗new life‘ as used in the Epistles symbolizes A. life under grace B. sinful life C. life as infant D. life lived after salvation

19. Elijah accused Ahab of troubling Israel because he had A. caused a drought upon Israel B. married from a foreign land C. been unfaithful to the Lord D. been unjust

20. King Josiah carried out the reformation of the worship of God in Judah because of the inspiration he received from A. Shaphan, the King‘s secretary B. the workers repaining the temple C. Hilkah, the priest D. the contents of the book of the law

21. Aquila and Priscilla met Apollos at A. Corinth B. Lystra C. Derbe D.Ephesus

22. In his third missionary journey, Paul left Coos for A. Athens B. Rhodes C. Chios D. Patara

23. Reuben said ‗shed no blood.‘ Whose blood did he refer to? A. Jacob B. Jeremiah C. Joseph D. John

24. The tragedy of Gehazi is a warning against A. inordinate ambition B. greed C. avariciousness D. lying

25. Saul‘s rejection of God‘s word made God to A. pronounce that he would die on Mount Gilboa B. reject him as king over Israel C. choose a son of Jesse to succeed him D. turn down his prayer for forgiveness

ANSWERS TO 2014 POST-UTME SCREENING

EXERCISE CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE (CRK)

1. B 2.D 3.C 4.D 5.C 6.A 7.C 8.D 9.D 10.A 11.B

12.D 13.D 14.A 15.C 16.B 17.B 18.D 19.C

20.D 21.A 22.B 23.C 24.B 25.B

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY, ILE-IFE 2014 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE (IRK)

Attempt all question by identifying the correct answers to each of the questions.

1. The mode of revelation which is regarded as inspiration through vision is known as A. Kashf B. Wahy C. Risalah D. Ru'yah

2. The object that could not be regarded to have been used for the preservation of the Glorious Qur'an among the following is A. Stone B. Leather C. Paper D. Leave

3. The Sahabah who gave suggestion to Abubakr on the need for compilation of the Qur'an was A. Uthman b. Affan B. Ali b. AbiTalib C. Abdur-Rahman b. Harith D. Umar b. Khattab

4. Tafsir al-Qur'an is an aspect of Islamic sciences and the terminology given to. it is A. Science of the Qur'an B. Exegesis of the Qur'an C. Translation of the Qur'an D. Explanation of the Qur'an

5. The term used for chain of transmitters under Hadith literature is A. Mushraf B. Main C. Isnad D. Safh

6. The great traditionist who was ordered by Umar b. Abdul-Aziz (Umar II) to write down all traditions, of the Prophet he could collect is A. Abdur Rahman b. Hawf B. Abdullah b. Abubakr C. Hassan b. Ali D. Abubakr b. Muhammad

7. Asma 'ar-Rijat under the science of Hadith is about A. Names of the men of Hadith B. Criticism of the narrators of Hadith C. Soundness of Hadith D. Collection of Haditth

8. What is the meaning of the above Hadith of the

Prophet? A. Leave that which makes you doubt for that which does not make you doubt. B. Keep yourself away from any innovative actions

C. Allah will not accept anything except which is pure D. All actions are judged in accordance with intention

9. The five fundamental pillars of Islam are mentioned by Hadith ........... of An-Nawawi A. Five B. Three C. Ten D. Forty two

10. The unity of Allah in His names and attributes is described as A. Tawhid ar-Rububiyyah B. Tawhid al-llahiyyah C. Tawhid al-AsmS' was-Sifat D. Tawhid al-Afhal

11. The unity of Allah is beautifully summed up in the surah of the Glorious Qur'an called A. Surat al-Fatihah B. Surat al-lkhlas C. Surat al-Kuraysh D. Surat al-Kafirun

12. Adultery and fornication are prohibited in Islamic law based on the following verse A. Q.24:17 B. Q.17:32 C. Q.32:17 D. Q.20:32

13. Bearing testimony that nothing deserves worship except Allah is known as A. Kalmatu shahadah B. Kalmatu musharakah C. Kalmatu tahmid D. Kalmatu tahiill

14. The amount deductable as Zakat from the money one has is 2.5%. What, therefore, will be the Zakat on N1, 000000.00 (one million naira) only. A. N1 0,000.00 B, N20.000.00 C. N25,000.00 D. N15.000.00

15. Which of the following cannot be considered as a name for the Day of Resurrection A. Yawm al-Qiyamah B. Yawm an-Nawm C. Yawm al-Hisab D. Yawm al-Ba'th

16. The Zakat on rearing animals is known as A. Zakat al-Fitr B. Zakat al-Mal C. Zakat ai-an'am D. Zakat al-harth

17. Who among the following is not exempted from fasting during the month of Ramadan A. Someone who is sick B. A pregnant woman C. A man who is trading D. A person on a journey


18. The essentials of Hajj according to Islamic scholars are A. Three B. Four C. Two D. Five

19. What is the term used under Islamic political system for mutual consultation A. Ijtima B. Ifraq C. Shura D. Shan'ah

20. What is the Islamic term for accountability A. Mu'amalat B.UqubatC. Masuliyyah D. Hadanah

21. One of the reasons why the pre-lslamic period was addressed as 'days of ignorance was because A. The Arabs were interested in poetry. B. The Arabs were devoid of any intellectual life. C. There was harmony in the social and political life of the Arabs D. There was anarchy in the religious, social and political life of the Arabs

22. The maid that accompanied Aminah, the mother of Prophet Muhammad to Madinah from Makkah and carried the bereaved child home when his mother died on the way back was A." Umm Aiman B. Umm Salamah

C. Umm al-Muminin D Umm al-Khayr 23. "Obey me as long as I obey Allah and His

Messenger and disobey me as tang as I disobey Allah and His Messenger". Who among the caliphs of the Prophet uttered this statement? A. Umar B. Abubakr C. Ali D. Uthman

24. The Jihad of Uthman Dan Fodio took place in A. 1704 B. 1802 C. 1784D. 1804

25. The West African Muslim ruler who displayed wealth at Makkah and came back home with scholars and architects to build mosques for him was A. Askiya Muhammad Ture B. IdrisAloma – C. Mansa Ulis D. Mansa Musa

ANSWERS 1.A 2.C 3.D 4.B 5.C 6.D 7.B 8.A 9.B 10.C 11.B 12.B 13.A 14.C 15.B 16.C 17.C 18.D 19.C 20.C 21.D 22.A 23.B 24.D 25.B

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE IFE, POST UME

2013 CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1. The women sang and said David slain his ten

thousands and Saul his (a) five thousand (b) thousand (c) thousands (d) six thousand

2. Israel went into Assyria captivity in (a) 720 BC (b) 730AD (c) 750BC (d) 722BC

3. A prophet mostly emphasized the holiness of God. This prophet was (a) Hosea (b) Jeremiah (c) Ezekiel (d) Isaiah

4. One of the following was not among the religious sects in the New Testament (a) The Pharisees (b) The Nazarenes (c) The Essenes (d) The Sadducees

5. Who was the last king of Judah that was taken into the Babylonia captivity? (a) Manasseh (b) Zenacherub (c) Zedekiah (d) Zachariah

6. ―Talitha cumi‖ means (a) Dorcas, arise (b) Little girl, I say to you, arise (c) Thy will be done (d) Jesus is coming

7. Who was the secretary employed by Jeremiah to write his prophecy? (a) Amanuensis (b) Amos (c) Baruch (d) Joshua

8. Who among the seven deacons was an evangelist who had four daughters who prophesied? (a) Stephen (b) Philip (c) Barnabas (d) Nicholas

9. The son of Solomon who made unwise decisions was _______ (a) Jeroboam (b) Rechoboam (c) Rehoboam (d) Asa

10. The book of _______ mostly emphasized social justice. (a) Amos (b) Ezekiel (c) Hosea (d) Isaiah

11. In one of the missionary journeys, Paul was stoned to a state of coma in (a) Antioch in Pisidia (b) Iconium (c) Lystra (d) Antioch of Syria

12. Moses spoke to the Israelites to fear not, but calm, confident and see the salvation of God at (a) Pi-Hahiroth (b) Meribah (c) Wilderness of Sinai (d) Elim

13. One of the following is not in the Pentateuch (a) Exodus (b) Judges (c) Leviticus (d) Numbers

14. The sons of Samuel who did not walk in his ways were: (a) Phinehas and Hophni (b) Hophni and Amos (c) Joel and Phinehas (d) Abijah and Joel

15. What was the second temptation of Jesus according to the gospel according to Luke? (a) The Devil wanted Jesus to worship him (b) The Devil wanted Jesus to deny God (c) The Devil wanted Jesus to jump from the pinnacle of the temple (d) The Devil wanted Jesus to turn stones to bread

16. Jonah refused to go to Nineveh because (a) Ninevites were inhuman and wicked (b) God was merciful, gracious and could forgive them (c) he was timid to deliver the message (d) he did not want to endanger his life.

17. ‗Those who honour me I will honour, and those who despise me shall be lightly esteemed.‘ Who was being addressed? (a) Eli (b) Samuel (c) Hophni (d) Joshua

18. Amos reference to ‗cows of Bashan‘ was a metaphoric allusion to (a) women of Samaria (b) rich people of Samaria (c) poor people of Samaria (d) illustrious sons of Samaria

19. Amos explained true religion as (a) singing of praises to God (b) self-righteousness (c) fasting and praying (d) being just and righteous

20. Who was the prophet who said ―I will put my law within them, and will write it upon their heart ______‖? (a) Isaiah (b) Jeremiah (c) Hosea (d) Amos

21. The relationship between God and Israel was described by Hosea as that of a (a) faithless wife and a loving husband (b) a loving wife and a faithless husband (c) a penitent wife and aggressive husband (d) a faithfulness husband and a faithfulness and nonchalant wife.

22. One of the following is not among the ―I am‖ sayings of Jesus (a) I am the bread of life (b) I am the gale of life (c) I am the good shepherd (d) I am the way


23. In what way was Moses a prototype of Jesus Christ? (a) Moses was a great prophet who led Israel out of Egypt (b) Moses did not died naturally (c) Moses appeared to Jesus on Mount of transfiguration (d) Moses was persecuted by his people

24. ―O dry bones, hear the word of the Lord…‖ The dry bones mentioned by Prophet Ezekiel in the statement above refer to the (a) Amalekite king and soldiers (b) whole house of Israel (c) Hittites and the Assyrians (d) Babylonians troubling Israel

25. The eunuch who went to Jerusalem to worship in Acts 8:27 was a (a) minister of God (b) ministers of Candace the queen of Gaza (c) minister of Candace the king of the Ethiopians (d) minister of Candace the queen of the Ethiopians.

ANSWERS TO CRK 2013

1.C 2.D 3.D 4.C 5.C 6.B 7.C 8.B 9.C 10.A 11.C 12.A 13.B 14.D 15.A 16.B 17.A 18.A 19.D 20.B 21.D 22.B 23.A 24.B 25.D

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE IFE, POST UME 2012 CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE

1. In his second letter to the Christians in Thessalonians, Paul admonished them to have nothing to do with anyone who refused to obey what he wrote in the letter. What did Paul think would happen to the person? (a) The person would be encouraged (b) The person would be ashamed (c) The person would be disturbed (d) The person would repent.

2. In the Sermon on the Mount, the meek are blessed because (a) They shall see God (b) They shall be exalted (c) They shall inherit the earth (d) They shall be called Sons of God

3. According to James, one of the causes of wars among Christians is (a) their passions (b) their wickedness (c) their faith without work (d) their pride

4. One of the following was not among the decisions reached at the Council of Jerusalem concerning the Gentiles who became Christians: (a) That Gentiles should abstain from what has been sacrificed to idols (b) That Gentiles should abstain from blood (c) That Gentiles should abstain from what is strangled (d) That Gentiles should abstain from love of the world.

5. ―Thy glory, O Israel, is stain upon thy high places! How are the mighty fallen! Tell not in the streets of Ashkelon... How are the mighty fallen in the midst of the battle!‖ The above dirge was written by David when (a) He killed Goliath (b) Uriah the Hittite died (c) Saul and Jonathan died (d) Abner was killed by Joab

6. Which of the following is not a nature miracle: (a) Stilling of the storm (b) Walking on the sea (c) Raising of Lazarus from the dead (d) Feeding the five thousand

7. The prophet whose message was primarily on social justice and true religion is (a) Isaiah (b) Agabus (c) Amos (d) Jeremiah

8. The prophet who prophesied that Paul would he arrested in Jerusalem is (a) Isaiah (b) Agabus (c) Phillip (d) Stephen

9. One o the lessons one can derive from the story of Deborah the Prophetess is that (a) Women are not good warriors (b) Women should not be allowed to take leadership (c) Women‘s rights should be fought for by all (d) God can use anyone regardless of their gender and tribes.

10. One of the following is not among the reasons why Jesus taught in parables (a) to fulfill the prophecy

in Psalm 78:2 (b) to create understanding (c) to make people learn the unknown through the known (d) to show the omniscient power of Jesus

11. The disciple in Damascus who prayed for Saul (Paul) to receive his sight alter his conversion was (a) Ananias (b) Sepphira (c) Barnabas (d) Thomas

12. Who was one of the Seven Deacons who had four daughters who were prophetesses? (a) Nicolaus (b) Stephen (c) Prochorus (d) Philip

13. According to the Letter to the Hebrews, why should Christians lay aside every weight and sin which clings so closely? (a) Sin is contagious (b) Christians can easily be influenced by sinners (c) Christians are surrounded by so great a cloud of witness (d) No sinner will inherit the kir1om of God

14. ―To obey is better than sacrifice‖ came from (a) Prophet Daniel (b) Prophet Ezekiel (c) Prophet Elijah (d) D. Prophet Samuel

15. ―...But let judgement run down as waters, and righteousness as a mighty stream...‖ Fairness, judgement and righteousness were set aside during the time of …… for burnt arid meat offerings. (a) Amos (b) Hosea (c) Ezekiel (d) Hezekiah

16. Eli‘s inability to discipline his sons led to all the following except (a) God‘s curse on his family (b) the extension of his life span (c) the cancellation of priesthood from his lineage (d) the death of his sons

17. Who was the king of Judah who witnessed the second deportation? (a) Gedaliab (b) Jehoiachin (c) Zedekiah (d) Jehoiakim

18. Paul, the apostle to the gentile, was a native of (a) Perga in Pamphylis (b) Rome (c) Jerusalem (d) Tarsus

19. In the Sermon on the Mount, Jesus taught his disciples that whenever they faced persecution, they should (a) be more serious with their drive for souls (b) be rejoiced and be exceedingly glad (c) withdraw and be less active (d) resist persecution and fight for their rights

20. According to Peter, judgernent of God most first begin in (a) the house of God (b) the public places (c) the midst of criminals (d) the government auditoria

21. Paul told the believers in Corinth that no one can say Jesus is Lord except by (a) knowledge (b) revelation (c) grace (d) the Holy Spirit

22. The three sons of Saul who lost their lives on Mount Gilboa were (a) Jonathan, lshbosheth, and Abinadab (b) Abinadab, Jonathan


and lshbosheth (c) Jonathan, Abinadab and Malchishua (d)Ishbosheth, Malchishau and Abinadab

23. The original name of Shadrach was (a) Daniel (b) Mishael (c) Hananiah (d) Azariah

24. The person who was invited to nurse Moses was (a) Jochebed (b) Puah (c) Stiphrah (d) Miriam

25. Render to Caesar the things that are Caesar‘s and to God the things that are God‘s the above quotation

emphasizes (a) Obedience to divine authority (b) Striking a balance between civil and divine authorities (c) Disobedience to civil authority (d) Total rejection of both divine and civil authorities.

ANSWERS TO CRK 2012 1.B 2.B 3.A 4.D 5.C 6.D 7.D 8.B 9.B 10.B 11.A 12.D 13.C 14.D 15.A 16.B 17.C 18.B 19.B 20.A 21.D 22.C 23.C 24.A 25.B

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE IFE, 2011 POST-UME SCREENING POST UME

2011 CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1. One of the following was not among the religious

sects in the New Testament A. The Pharisees, B. The Nazarenes, C. The Essenes, D. The Sadducees

2. One of the following is not correct about the order of creation in the Creation Stories A. the evening came before the morning, B. darkness came before light C. animals were created before man, D. the morning came before the evening,

3. What was Cain‘s immediate reaction to the acceptance of Abel‘s offering? A. He offered another sacrifice B. He was angry and his countenance fell C. He was angry with God D. He was angry with Abel

4. Pick the odd out of the following characters: A. Saul B. David C. Jonathan D. Solomon

5. ―Talitha cumi‖ means A. Dorcas, Arise B. Little girl say to you, arise C. Thy will be done D. Jesus is coming

6. Who according to James blaspheme the honourable name by which Christians are called? A. Non believers B. Pagan rulers C. Antichrists D. Rich people

7. Who was the last person Jesus appeared to after his resurrection according to Paul? A. Mary Magdalene B. Joseph of Arimathea C. Paul D. Thomas

8. How many disciples of Jesus Christ were fishermen? A. two B. three C. four, D. five

9. Who among the seven deacons was an evangelist who had four daughters who prophesied? A. Stephen B. Philip C. Barnabas Nicholas

10. God has given your enemy into your hand this day, now, therefore, let me pin him to the earth with one stroke of the spear, and I will not strike him twice. This statement was made to David by A. Abishai B. Abner C. Ahimelech D. David‘s armour bearer

11. The phrase you cows of Bashan‘ referred to A. Cows in the land of Bashan, B. The fat and greedy men of Israel who oppress the priests C. The fat and greedy women of Israel who oppress the poor D. The fat rich women of Samaria who oppress the poor.

12. The book of_______ mostly emphasized social justice. A. Amos B. Ezekiel C. Hoshea D. Isaiah

13. Among the spiritual gifts, love is supreme because it A. facilitates development, B. gives room for friendship, C. has eternal value, D. promotes understanding.

14. John the Baptist describes Jesus to his two disciples as the A. beloved Son of God, B. great one of Israel, C. holy one of God D. lamb of God

15. Joseph‘s brothers hated him the more because A. he dreamed about his future dominion over his family

members. B. he used to give his father evil reports about them. C. his father had him at his old age. D. his father made a special ro be for him

16. After eating the forbidden fruit Adam‘s and Eve‘s eyes opened and they realized that they A. had sinned against God B. had disobeyed God C. were naked D. had been deceived by the serpent

17. What did Ahab do to Prophet Micaiah for speaking the truth about the war between Israel and Syria? A. He promoted him B. He gave him a gift C. he denied him any foe D. He imprisoned him

18. The Amalekites who opposed the Israelites in the wilderness were from the lineage of A. Benjamin B. Jacob C. Esau D. Reuben

19. During the period of three and a half years of drought in Israel, the man who hid one hundred prophets of God in a cave was A. Isaiah B. Elisha C. Elijah D. Obadiah E. Jeremiah

20. What Josiah, the king of Judah, is best remembered for in Jewish history is A. His ability to destroy all the shrine of Baals B. His order that the bones and tombs of the prophets of God must be preserved C. His strong opposition to Pharaoh-Neco of Egypt D. His reparation of the temples of God

21. After receiving an order from God, Jonah went down to... A. Joppa B. Tarshish C. nineveh D. Jerusalem E. Galilee

22. True religion, according to Amos‘ submission, is the one in which A. God is always appeased with sacrifices and tithes B. Foods and drinks are served as a mark of love C. Justice and righteousness flow like an endless stream D. Feast and solemn assemblies play important roles

23. The last born of Gomer for Hoshea was A. Jezreel B. Loammi C. Diblaim D. Loruhamah E. Jezebel

24. According to Paul in Romans, the law and the prophets bore witness to the righteousness of God but man could not be justified until he A. Had faith in Jesus B. Saw the glory of God C. Made a serious personal effort B. Submitted wholly to the law C. Learnt to be like the Jews.

25. During his first missionary journey, Paul first recorded sermon was delivered at A. Perga B. Iconium C. Antioch D. Lystra

ANSWERS TO CRK 2011 1.C 2.D 3.B 4.C 5.B 6.D 7.C 8.C 9.B 10.A 11.D 12.A 13.C 14.D 15.A 16.C 17.D 18.C 19.D 20. D 21.B 22.C 23.B 24.A



2010 POST-UME SCREENING POST UME CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE 1. For which of these prophets of God did the Bible

record explicitly to have abandoned an agribusiness for a call to serve God? (a) Elisha (b) Ezekiel (c) Elijah (d) Obadiah

2. Why did David spare the life of Saul at Ziph? (a) He recognized Gods anointing on Saul (b) Saul was also an Israelite (c) He did not want bloodshed (d) He was Saul‘s in-law.

3. Deborah was a judge when Israel was under the yoke of (a) Moab (b) Midian (c) Canaan (d) Philistine

4. The treatment of those bitten by fiery serpent was to (a) drink from the Red Sea (b) look at the bronze serpent (c) fast for seven days (d) call upon the Lord

5. Which of these was detained by Joseph in order that Benjamin might be brought to Egypt? (a) Reuben (b) Levi (c) Judah (d) Simon

6. In the Biblical account of creation, man was permitted to (a) plant fruit trees for food (b) water the garden (c) make garment of hides and skin (d) name all the creatures

7. Each of the spies sent out by Moses on God‘s command to report on the nature of the Promised Land was a (a) great warrior (b) wise Judge (c) priest (d) leader in his own tribe

8. God revealed to Samuel that he was going to punish Eli because he (a) did not correct his sons sinful behavior (b) did not offer sacrifice as the law required (c) did not warn the people of Israel to stop sinning (d) warned his sons but did not punish them

9. The sun stood still when (a) Moses led the Israelites out of Egypt (b) Jericho fell to the army of Joshua (c) Noah came out of the ark (d) Joshua defeated the Amorites at Gideon

10. When was this statement made? ‗I repent that I made Saul king (a) at the anointing of Saul (b) when Saul failed to pray (c) when Saul disobeyed God over Amalek (d) when Saul finished the morning offering.

11. The commander of David‘s army was (a) Abner (b) Joab (c) Abiathar (d) Adonijah

12. That was the sin of David that involved Bathseba? (a) murder (a) adultery (c) dishonesty (d) arrogance.

13. What is the meaning of Emmanuel? (a) Son of Emmaus (b) God is our Redeemer (c) God with us (d) Saviour.

14. What specific reply did John the Baptist give to the soldiers during his preaching (a) collect no more than is appointed you (b) do not begin to say to yourselves: we have Abraham as our father (c) bear fruits that befit repentance (d) be content with your wages

15. Jesus taught that one should make friends quickly with one‘s (a) enemy (b) neighbor (c) master (d) accuser.

16. The Pharisees and the Scribes accused the disciples of Jesus of transgressing the tradition of the elders because they (a) did not regard synagogue rules (b) did not pray before meals (c) ate with unwashed hands (d) disobeyed the elders.

17. If anyone would be first, he must be last of all and servant of all‘. What does this saying of Jesus teach? (a) endurance (b) lack of ambition (c) humility (d) relaxation

18. Which religious groups asked Jesus about payment of taxes to Ceaser? (a) Pharisees and Sadducces (b) Pharisees and Herodians (c) Sadducces and Herodians (d) Herodians and Zealots

19. To whom was the body of Jesus Christ given for burial after His death? (a) Nicodemus the Pharisee (b) Simon of Cyrene (c) Simon the disciple (d) Joseph of Arimathea

20. Paul was accused ‗of apparently being a preacher of foreign divinities in Athens because he preached Jesus and the (a) Cross (b) law (c) resurrection (d) second coming

21. What specifically makes Samson a unique prophet of God? (a) He was a Nazarene (b) He loved honey (c) He killed many at his death (d) He spoke with power in riddles

22. ―It is not the sound of shouting for victory, or the sound of the cry of defeat, but the sound of singing that I hear.‖ When was this statement made? (a) at the consecration of the Israelites (b) at the crossing of the Red Sea (c) during the fall of Jericho (d) in a strange worship of a god.

23. ―Blessed be the Lord God of Israel is a hymn of praise by (a) the virgin Mary at the Annunciation (b) Zachariah at the birth of John the Baptist (c) Simeon at the presentation of Jesus in the Temple (d) Elizabeth at the visit of Mary

24. The Shema emphasizes the (a) unity of God (b) richness of the spirit of God (c) omnipotency of God (d) crucial role o‘ Israel in the world

25. The expression ‗dry bones‘ in Ezekiel refers to (a) an Israelites proverb (b) the whole house of Israel (c) the slain in the valley (d) sinful Israelites and Judean.

ANSWERS TO CRK 2010 1.A 2.A 3.C 4.B 5.D 6.D 7.D 8.D 9.D 10.C 11.B 12.A 13.C 14.D 15.D 16.C 17.C 18.B 19.D 20.C 21.A 22.D 23.B 24.C 25.B


2009 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISE - CRK 1-25 1. ―There shall be neither dew nor rain this year except

by my word‖. Who said this?(a) Moses (b) Pharaoh (c) Elijah (d) Esther(e) Paul

2. In the case before Solomon over the deal and the living, child the mother of the dead child supported.(a) Giving the living child to her


opponent (b) killing the living child(c) joint ownership of the living child (d) King Solomon having the living child (e) State ownership of the child.

3. Before Moses died. God appointed … to succeed him (a) Aaron (b) Balaam (c) Joshua (d) Manasseh (e) Eleazar.

4. Those bitten by the fiery serpent were treated by (a) Drinking from the Red sea (b) Fasting for seven day (c) Looking at the bronze serpent (d) Call upon the Lord (e) Repent.

5. In order that Benjamin might be brought to Egypt, Joseph detained (a) Ruben (b) Levi (c) Jacob (d) Simeon (e) Zebulon

6. Those inspired by God to lead the tribes of Israel in battle were the (a) Judges (b) Captains of the Guard (c) priest (d) Prophets (e) Levites

7. God told Samuel that HF, would punish Eli because he (a) did not correct his son‘s sinful behavior (b) did not offer sacrifice as the law required (c) did not warn the people of Israel to stop surfing (d) Warned his sons against rape and drunkenness (e) offered sacrifices to idols

8. The sun stood still when (a) Moses led Israel across the Red sea (b) Jericho fell to the army of Joshua (c) Noah came out of the ark (d) Joshua defeated the Amorites at Gideon (e) Moses came down with the law.

9. Who is reputed for pulling down the alter of Baal at the risk of annoying his father. (a) Joseph (b) Jesse (c) Gideon (d) Samuel (e) Samson

10. In the trade treaty between King Solomon and Hiram of Lebanon, Solomon was to supply Wheat and oil while Hiram was to supply (a) Grains only (b) Precious stories (c)|Wheat advice (d) Timber (e) Silver

11. Which Prophetened thus ―Woe is me‖. For lost, for I am a man of unclean lips (a) Hosea (b) Jeremiah (c) Isaiah (d) Micab (e) Haggai

12. Hosanna means (a) Ride on in majesty (b) Ride on in glory (c) Ride on to die (d) Ride on to Calvary (e) Save now

13. The conversion of Paul was made possible by (a) Simeon (b) Zacchaccus (c) the risen Lord (d) Mathew (e) Barnabas

14. ―Let his habitation be made desolate, and let there be no one to live in it‖ Who is being referred to here? (a) King Saul (b) Judas Iscariot (c) Stephen (d) Barnnabbas (e) Mathias.

15. The proconsul when Paul arrived in Commit was called (a) Festus (b) Pontions (c) Pilate (d) Gallio (e) Agrippa (f) Felix

16. ―Now I know that Lord has sent his angle to deliver me …‖ who said this? (a) Joseph (b) Moses (c) Paul (d) Peter (e) Stephen.

17. The seven deacons were appointed by (a) Conduct a mission to the Gentiles (b) Replace the twelve (c) Lead the church in Jerusalem (d) Help in the distribution of food (e) Preach the Gospel

18. What did God create on the 6th day (a) The firmament (b) Light (c) Dry land and sea (d) Man and living creatures (e) The sun, moon and stars

19. The flood lasted when Noah was in the Ark for (a) tow weeks (b) ten weeks (c) ten days (d) a hundred and fifty days

20. Joshua‘s first victory was in (a) Ai (b) Gibeon (c) Jordan (d) Giligal (e) Jericho

21. In the parable of the sower, the seeds on the good ground represent those who (a) Accept and live by the word of God (b) Feed the poor (c) Have and love riches (d) Give alms in market places (e) Joel

22. Which prophet encouraged Jeroboam I to revolt at the initial stage? (a) Micaiah (b) Jeremaiah (c) Nathan (d) Ahija (e) Joel.

23. ―This had is gone: and where shall I go‖ Who is being referred to hear (a) Isaac (b) Joseph (c) Peter(d)Silas (e) Flijah.

24. According to Psalm 51, the sacrifice acceptable to God is (a) A clean hear (b) Obedience (c) A blemishless lamb (d) A broken spirit (e) Head flowing with oil

25. A would - be apostle who puts his hand to the plaughjsa and looks back lacks (a) faith (b) Kindness (c) Repentance (d) Total commitment (e) Hope.

ANSWERS TO CRK 2009 1.C 2.B 3.C 4.C 5.D 6.A 7.A 8.D 9.C 10.D 11.C 12.E 13.C 14.B 15.D 16.D 17.D 18.D 19.E 20.C 21.A 22.D 23.B 24.C 25.D

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY ILE IFE 2008 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISE - CRK

1. The person who the Bible calls the son of consolation is: A. Barsabas B. Barabbas C. Barnabs D. Bathsheba.

2. The last thing which Zedekiah saw before his eyes were removed was the A. Egyptian army B. Slaughter of all his sons C. city of Jerusalem D. feasting of the children of Israel

3. Daniel was delivered from the den of lions for all the following reasons except A. his holiness and faith B. his kindness C. God‘s love for him D. God‘s mighty power.

4. Name three places Christian religious people look up to find the truth about the nature of God. A. In the Sacred scripture B. In the Religious leaders C. In the Church D. In their Conscience.

5. What are the lessons of Jesus‘ conversation with the Samaritan woman to you? (Jn 4:7-15) A. By his action of chatting with the woman, Jesus broke the cultural barriers of his day. B. Christians in Nigeria must break cultural or ethnic barriers and share Christ‘s love with others irrespective of cultural and ethnic differences. C. He bridged the social gap between Jew-Samaritan animosity D. He bridged the gender gap between Jewish-male and gentile-female differences.

6. Explain why Jesus was identified as the Lamb by John (Jn 1:29) A. Lamb of God is a figurative language which describes Christ sacrificial mission in the world. B. He is being compared to the Passover lamb that would atone for the sins of all world. C. Because the lamb is attentive to his owner


D. It shows patience, meekness, gentleness and innocence.

7. Who do people say the son of man is? Jesus asks this question to know people‘s A. desire B. demand C. mind D. opinion

8. In Peter‘s teaching, ―God ____ the proud and gives grace to the humble. A. receives B. relegates C. resists D. restores.

9. The lesson, which Jesus teaches in the parable of the Good Samaritan, is that your neighbour is: A. only your friend B. your next of kin C. a distant friend D. anyone who needs your help.

10. He shall save his people form their sins. Who is being referred to here? A. John the Baptist B. Elijah C. Elisha D. Jesus.

11. Which of the following carried Judah into captivity A. Pharaoh Neco of Egypt B. Goliath of Philistia C. Assyrians D. Nebuchadnezzar of Babylon.

12. The prophet who was with the exiles of 597 BC in Babylon was A. Moses B. Hosea C. Micah D. Ezekiel

13. Amram and Jochebad gave birth to: A. Miriam B. Jedida C. Jethro D. Hur.

14. The two Hebrew midwives instructed by Pharaoh to kill the Hebrew male babies at birth were: A. Zipporah and Puah B. Puah and Miriam C. Shiphrah and Zipporah D. Shiphrah and Puah

15. The king of Persia who made it possible for the return of the exiles form Babylon was A. Dairus B. Cyrus C. Zechariah D. Zerubabel

16. Who was the Priest that confronted Uzziah in the temple A. Zadokaul B. Phineas C. Azariah D. Aaron.

17. Which of the following prophets was described as the weeping prophet? A. Amos B. Ezekiel C. Jeremiah D. Zephaniah.

18. Israel went into Assyrian captivity in A. 71AD B. 720BC C. 722BC D. 68AD.

19. The meaning of Emmanuel is A. laughter B. ―For I draw him from water‖ C. God with us D. the fear of God.

20. “Bring your necks under the yoke of the King of Babylon and serve him and his people and live” who gave this advice? A. Jeremiah B. Isaiah C. Ezekiel D. Amos.

21. Moses fled from Pharaoh at the age of A. 45 B. 40 C. 85 D. 120.

22. The meaning of Ephphatha is a. be opened B. be still C. be silent D. little girl, arise.

23. One of the following said: “The lion has roared, who will not fear?” The Lord has spoken, who can but prophesy? A. Nathan B. Jeremiah C. Amos D. Hosea

24. Josiah‘s reign was popular because of his A. allies B. victory C. violence D. reforms

25. Where did Paul cure a slave girl who had a spirit of divination? A. Philippi B. Ephesus C. Athens D. Antioch

26.Who baptized the Ethiopian Eunuch? A. Paul B. Peter C. Philip D. Rufus 27.Joshua‘s first victory was over the people of A. Ai B. Gideon C. Gilgal D. Jericho

ANSWERS TO CRK 2008

1.C 2.B 3.B 4.D 5.No list is given 6.B 7.C 8.C 9.D 10.D 11.D 12.D 13.A 14.D 15.B 16.C 17.C 18.C 19.C 20.A 21.B 22.A 23.A 24.D 25.A 26.C 27.D

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY, ILE-IFE 2008 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE -IRK


1. Islam by definition is________________ A. peace B. a way of life C. submission to Allah D. law

2. __________is a ritual purification by sand or earth, prescribed for special circumstances when'water is not available. A. ghusl B. Iqama C. tayammum D. wuzu

3. The direction to fame at the time of prayer in Islam is A. azan B. Qibla C. daka D. minbar

4. Allah has beautiful names regarded as His attributes A, 100 B. 99 C. 89 D. 101

5. ____________is the gateway to Islam. A. ilmal-kalam B. ilm al-falasifa C. kalimatsh-shahadah, D. kalimat ar-risa-La

6. _____________is the abode of peace and happiness. A. Jahamum B. al-Jannah C. bayt al-hikma D. madina an-nabi

7. _______is 1/40 or 2.5% of a Muslim annual profit in wealth, grain and animals for the benefit of the poor and needy. A. sadaqat B. zakat C. ta-an D. mahr

8. _________is the formal name of Medina the final abode of the Prophet A. Yathrib B. Nadir C. Najjar D. Negus

9. The Quran in its present form consists of____suras. A. 100 B. 114 C.112 D.124

10. The Ramadan Fast in Islam is scheduled for__________ days. A. 40 B. 20 C. 30 D. 60

11. A marriage contract in Islam has three indispensable elements: A. a guardian, dower (bride price) and two witnesses B. two witnesses, wealth and a guardian C. a dower (bride price) money in kind, parental consent, and two Witnesses D. wealth, guardian and one witness.

12. A Muslim is one who___________ A. submits to the will of Allah. B. practises the salat regularly C. practises the salat regularly D. gives obligatory alms,

13. Identify the most important sources of Islam from the following: A, The Holy Quran B. The hadith C. Analogical deduction -"Qiyas" D. Consensus of opinions of the Community- "Ijma".

14. Which of the following statement is foreign to the idea of 'ibadaat'?


A. the five pillars B. Jihad C. Islamic personal law D. Salat, the canonical prayers.

15. Which of the following attitudes is anti-Islamic teaching? A. Begging B. Almsgiving C. Fasting D. Charity.

16. The political organisation of Southern Arabia before Islam was A. Monarchic B. despotic C. dictatorial D. presidential

17. The basis of society in southern Arabia before islam was A. agricultural 'B. trading C. fishing D. plumbering

18. The Kings in southern Arabia in the jahiliyy period were not A. stable B. divine C. old D. young

19. The prophet seems to have been born in Mecca between A. 560 and 570 B. 550 and 560

C. 570 and 580 D. 470 and 480 20. Prophet Mohammad belonged to the family of

A. the Jews B. the Greeks C. the Banu Hashim D. the Umayyad

21. Muhammad was brought up as A. a beggar B. a mendicant C. an orphan D.avagabonc

22. The custom of the muslim community is known as A. kitab B. Sunna C. Hadith D. Ahadith

23. Faith in Islam is called A. al-salat B. al-lman C. al-masjid D. al-zakat

24. 24. Ritual purity in Islam is known as A. al-hajj B. al-taharah C. al-ghusi D. al-sawn

ANSWERS 1.C 2.C 3.B 4.B 5.C 6.B 7.B 8.A 9.B 10.C 11.A 12.A 13.A 14.C 15.A 16.C 17.B 18.A 19.C 20.C 21.C 22. 23.B 24.B

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY, ILE-IFE 2007 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE - IRK


1. The Quran was revealed to the Prophet Muhammad A. at once, B. piece meal, C. in three ways, D. at home.

2. ________is the deeds and sayings of the Prophet Muhammad. A. al-fiqh, B. al-Hadith, C. Shahada, D. al-kalam.

3. There are ___________ authentic hadith acceptable in Sunni Islam. A. two, B. three, C. four, D. six.

4. The most important hadith collector in Islam is A. Abu Daud, B. Ibn Tirmidhi, C. al-Muslim, D. al-Bukhari.

5. "Intension is greater than the act" is a statement of the Prophet Muhammad among the believers in Medina. What was the cause of the statement? A. the attitude of the Medians B. the attitude of the immigrants, C. the attitude of the Jewish tribes, D. the attitude of the Meccans.

6. Ablution (wudu) in preparation for prayer is to be done with _ water. A. coloured B. clean C. pure D. filthy.

7. ____________ canonical prayer is the second pillar of Islam. A. sawn B. Hajj C. salat D. Zakat.

8. Hajj pilgrimate is compulsory on those who are_______and___________ A. strong and able, B. healthy and wealthy, C. rich and kind, D. generous and sincere.

9. al Jihad is A. struggling in the path of Allah, B. fighting war, C. causing conflict, D. terrorism.

Indicate the appropriate messages of the following prophets

10. Musa______________ A. Injil, B.Zabur, C.Taurat, D.Quran.

11. Muhammad A. Zabur, B. Taurat, C. Quran, D. Injil.

12. lssa_________A.Quran, B. Injil, C. Zabur, D. Taurat

13. David_ A. Zabur, B. Injil, C.Taurat,

14. A marriage contract in Islam has three indispensable elements: A. a guardian, dower (bride price) and two witnesses B. two witnesses, wealth and a guardian C. a dower (bride price) money in kind, parental consent, and two witnesses. D. wealth, guardian and one witness. A Muslim is one who

15. A. submits to the will of Allah, B. practises the salat regularly C. practises the salat regularly D. gives obligatory alms.

16. Identify the most important sources of Islam from the following: A. The Holy Quran B. The hadith C. Analogical deduction -"Qiyas" D. Consensus of opinions of the Comrnunity-"ljma",

17. Which of the following statement is foreign to the idea of 'ibadaat'? A. the five pillars B. Jihad C. Islamic personal law D. Salat, the canonical prayers.

18. Which of the following attitudes is anti-Islamic teaching? A. Begging B. Almsgiving C. Fasting D. Charity.

19. The political organisation of Southern Arabia before Islam was A. Monarchic B. despotic C. dictatorial D. presidential

20. The basis of society in southern Arabia before Islam was A. agricultural B. trading C. fishing D. plumbering

21. The Kings in southern Arabia in the jahiliyy period were not A. stable B. divine C. old D. young

22. The prophet seems to have been born in Mecca between A. 560 and 570 B. 550 and 560 C. 570 and 580 D. 470 and 480

23. Prophet Mohammad belonged to the family of A. the Jews B. the Greeks C. the Banu Hashim D. the Umayyad

24. Muhammad was brought up as A. a beggar B. a mendicant C. an orphan D. a vagabond


25. The custom of the Muslim community is known as A. kitab B. Sunna C. Hadith D. Ahadith

26. Faith in Islam is called A. al-salat B. al-lman C. al-masjid D. al-zakat

27. Ritual purity in Islam is known as A. al-hajj B. al-taharah C. al-ghusi D. al-sawn

ANSWERS 1.B 2.B 3.D 4.D 5.D 6.C 7.C 8.B 9.A 10.C 11.C 12.B 13.A 14.A 15.A 16.A 17.C 18.A 19.C 20.B 21.A 22.C 23.C 24.C 25. 26.B 27.B


2006 POST-UME SCREENING EXERCISE - CRK 1. In Jesus‘ teaching on the mount, the only justifiable

reason for divorce is: (a) indolence (b) insubordination (c) infidelity (d) infertility

2. According to John‘s Gospel, Lazarus was from: (a) Jerusalem (b) Teberias (c) Bethany (d) Galilee

3. Jesus‘ new commandment according to the Gospel of John is (a) salvation (b) love (c) peace (d) spirit

4. The thief as described by Jesus comes to (a) destroy, kill and steal (b) destroy, steal and kill (c) kill, destroy and steal (d) steal, kill and destroy

5. The agony of Jesus in the Garden of Gethsemane is a (a) sign of abandonment (b) manifestation of human weakness (c) punishment (d) preparation for his death

6. Eutychus fell from the third storey to the ground when Paul prolonged his sermon at (a) Troas (b) Ephesus (c) Miletus (d) Corinth

7. Charismatic leaders in the Book of Judges arose in Israel to (a) revive faith in Yahweh (b) rally the tribes together (c) lead Israel to battles (d) settle dispute

8. What did God create on the fifth day? (a) the firmament (b) the two great lights (c) water under the heavens (d) living creatures

9. Joshua and Caleb were from the tribe of (a) Judah and Reuben (b) Reuben and Dan (c) Ephraim and Reuben (d) Judah and Ephraim

10. Manahem, the son of Gadi reigned over Israel for (a) eight years (b) twenty years (c) six months (d) ten years

11. The death of Adonibezek in Bezek was a typical proof of (a) cowardice (b) nemesis (c) insanity (d) absurdity

12. In order that Benjamin might be brought to Egypt, Joseph detained (a) Reuben (b) Judah (c) Simeon (d) Zebulon

13. When Paul came to Rome, the first set of people to whom he preached were the (a) Romans (b) Jews (c) Greeks (d) Samaritans

14. The three sons of Noah were Sdhem, Ham and (a) Lot (b) Hirah (c) Cain (d) Japeth

15. The renowned interpreters of the Mosaic Law in the time of Jesus were the (a) Sadducees (b) Scribes (c) Herodians (d) Pharisees

16. The mother of Esau is (a) Ruth (b) Ester (c) Rebecca (d) Jezebel “I am to be gathered to my fathers; bury me with my fathers” (Gen 49:29).

17. Who was the speaker? (a) Joseph (b) Jacob (c) Job (d) James

18. When did he say this? (a) when he was about to die (b) when he was seriously sick (c) when he offended God (d) when his brother cheated him

19. What was his wish? (a) he wanted to be buried at Canaan in the cave at Ephron (b) he wanted to be buried at Jericho (c) he wanted to commune with his ancestors (d) he wanted to be close to his father.

20. Who was authorized by God to go and liberate the Israelites from the Egyptian bondage? (a) Joshua (b) Daniel (c) Solomon (d) Moses

21. The names of the two kings of Jericho destroyed by the Israelites during the conquest were (a) Adonija and Haggith (b) Shion and Og (c) Zadok and Benaiah (d) Hiram and Jeroboam

22. Who is an atheist? (a) someone who does believe in God (b) someone who rejects completely the idea of a divine being (c) someone who believes that it is impossible to know if there is God or not (d) someone who abuses religious people

23. What is meant by the Christian doctrine that God is Trinity? (a) the idea started in Trinidad and Tobago (b) God is three persons in one (c) God is omnipotent (d) God is the Holy Spirit

ANSWERS TO CRK 2006

1.C 2.C 3.B 4.D 5.B 6.A 7.C 8.D 9.D 10.D 11.B 12.C

13.B 14.D 15.D 16.C 17.B 18.A 19.A 20.D 21.B 22.B

23.B

OBAFEMI AWOLOWO UNIVERSITY, ILE-IFE 2006 POST-UTME SCREENING EXERCISE - IRK


1. Muhammad belong to the_______ family in Makkah A. Aashimite B. Kuraza C. Nadir D. Banu Qahtan

2. Khadija had________ children for Prophet Muhammad.

3. All, the cousin of Muhammad, married ___________ the daughter of the Prophet. A. Kathim B. Aisa C. Zanab D. Fatima

4. Muhammad preached monotheism in ___________ for which he was persecuted between 610 and 620 AD. A. Taif B. Mecca C. Medina D. Yemen

5. _________the uncle of Muhanimed became the custodian of the Kaaba until his death in 619. A. Hamza B. Abbas C. Lahab D. Abu Talib

6. _________was the closest associate of Prophet Muhammad. A. Ali B. Uthman C. Abubakr D. Umar


7. The movement from Mecca to Medina in 622AD is known as A. Hijr B. Jihad C. Razzia D. Siddiq

8. A hypcrist is known is Islam as______ A. Muhajirun B Munafiqun C. Mahar D. Masah

9. The __________ are people who helped Muhammad to fight the series of Wars in Medina A. Medina B. Muhajirun C. Ansar D. Banu Khanuqa

10. ___________is the most dreaded Uncle of Prophet Muhammad. A. Abu Talib B. Abu Lahab C. Abass D. Hamza

11. __________succeeded Prophet Muhammad as the first Caliph of the Muslim community in 632. A. Umar B. Uthman C. Ali D. Abubakr

12. Muhammad received his first revelation on cave of Hira on the 17"1 of Ramadan A. February 610AD B.April610AD C.June610AD D.September 610 AD

13. Read! Commanded Gabriel, "I am not of who know how to read" To whom was this statement made? A. Abdullah B, Muhamma C. Abutalib D. Abubakr

14. 14. The chapter of the Quran which expresses, the oneness of God is A. Surah al-AIaq B. Surah al-Duha C. Surah Al-lqlas D. Surah al-Asr

15. The Quranic passage that contains a summary of the message of the Quran is A. Surah al- Ala B. Surah al-Fatiha C. Surah al-Taubal D. Surah al- Baqarah

16. The Quranic chapter on women generally is A. Surah al-lmran. B. Surah al-Nur C. Surah al-Nisa D. Surah al-Fath

17. The longest surah in the Quran which also contain the longest ayat (verses) is A. Surah ai-Baqarah B. Suralal-Maida C. Surah al-Araf D. Surah al-muminun

18. The Islamic Law School applicable to West Africa and Nigeria in particular is A. Hanifite B. Shafiite C. Hambalite D. Malikite

19. The primary source of Islamic law is A. The Quran B. the Hadith C. the Ijma D. the Qiyas

20. The pre-lslamic period is known as A. Jahilya B. Majlis C. Ahlal-ba D. Sunna

21. Arabia had___________regional divisions in the pre-Islarnic era A. four B. two C. three D. five

22. In Islam, the ratio of inheritance between a male person and her female counterpart is A. 1:2 B. 2:l C. 1:3 D. 3:1 23.

23. The expression, "In the name of Allah, the Beneficent, the merciful is known as A. Rahman B. Basmalah C. Salam D. Ihsan

ANSWERS 1.A 2.D 3.D 4.B 5.D 6.C 7.A 8.B 9.C 10.B 11.D 12. 13.B 14.C 15.B 16.C 17.A 18.D 19.A 20.A 21.D 22.B 23.B

CANDIDATE'S POST UTME STUDY PACK FOR OBAFEMI ...

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